As Pending in Senate Finance Committee

130th General Assembly
Regular Session
2013-2014
Sub. H. B. No. 59


Representative Amstutz 

Cosponsors: Representatives Anielski, Baker, Beck, Blair, Boose, Brown, Burkley, Conditt, Dovilla, Grossman, Hackett, Hagan, C., Hayes, Lynch, McClain, McGregor, Pelanda, Rosenberger, Ruhl, Sears, Sprague, Stebelton, Thompson 



A BILL
To amend sections 9.03, 9.15, 9.231, 9.239, 9.24, 1
9.833, 9.90, 9.901, 101.39, 101.391, 102.02, 2
103.144, 107.033, 107.12, 109.06, 109.36, 109.57, 3
109.572, 109.71, 109.746, 109.77, 109.85, 109.86, 4
109.90, 111.02, 111.15, 111.28, 113.02, 113.061, 5
117.03, 117.10, 117.20, 119.01, 120.06, 121.02, 6
121.03, 121.22, 121.35, 121.37, 121.372, 122.075, 7
122.083, 122.17, 122.171, 122.175, 122.28, 122.30, 8
122.31, 122.32, 122.33, 122.34, 122.35, 122.36, 9
122.58, 122.657, 122.658, 122.66, 122.67, 122.68, 10
122.69, 122.70, 122.701, 122.76, 122.861, 123.01, 11
123.10, 123.11, 123.201, 123.21, 123.27, 124.11, 12
124.14, 124.18, 124.30, 124.341, 124.381, 124.57, 13
124.84, 125.05, 125.21, 125.212, 125.28, 125.602, 14
125.603, 125.832, 125.836, 126.07, 126.14, 126.32, 15
126.35, 126.45, 126.46, 126.47, 126.48, 127.14, 16
127.16, 133.01, 133.06, 135.143, 135.22, 135.35, 17
135.61, 135.71, 135.80, 135.81, 135.85, 140.01, 18
140.03, 140.05, 145.01, 145.012, 145.22, 149.01, 19
149.12, 149.311, 149.43, 149.431, 149.54, 151.11, 20
152.09, 153.692, 154.01, 154.17, 154.20, 154.22, 21
154.23, 154.25, 156.02, 156.03, 156.04, 156.05, 22
166.02, 166.03, 166.04, 166.08, 166.25, 167.03, 23
169.02, 169.05, 169.07, 169.08, 173.03, 173.14, 24
173.17, 173.19, 173.20, 173.21, 173.23, 173.25, 25
173.26, 173.27, 173.28, 173.39, 173.391, 173.392, 26
173.394, 173.40, 173.401, 173.402, 173.403, 27
173.404, 173.42, 173.43, 173.431, 173.432, 28
173.434, 173.45, 173.47, 173.48, 173.50, 173.501, 29
173.99, 175.04, 191.01, 191.02, 191.04, 191.06, 30
301.28, 306.35, 307.07, 307.674, 307.699, 307.86, 31
309.09, 317.08, 317.36, 321.35, 321.44, 329.04, 32
329.051, 329.06, 329.14, 339.02, 339.05, 339.06, 33
339.07, 340.01, 340.011, 340.02, 340.021, 340.03, 34
340.031, 340.032, 340.04, 340.05, 340.07, 340.09, 35
340.091, 340.10, 340.11, 340.12, 340.13, 340.15, 36
340.16, 341.192, 349.01, 349.04, 351.021, 715.691, 37
721.01, 721.03, 731.091, 737.41, 742.14, 755.06, 38
901.21, 901.22, 901.23, 903.11, 903.99, 905.06, 39
909.15, 924.02, 924.06, 927.54, 935.01, 935.03, 40
935.12, 955.01, 955.05, 955.06, 955.07, 955.08, 41
955.09, 955.14, 955.201, 956.07, 956.18, 991.03, 42
991.04, 991.06, 1309.521, 1321.51, 1321.535, 43
1321.55, 1322.01, 1322.051, 1327.46, 1327.48, 44
1327.50, 1327.501, 1327.61, 1327.99, 1332.26, 45
1337.11, 1347.08, 1501.011, 1501.45, 1506.21, 46
1506.30, 1509.01, 1509.02, 1509.062, 1509.10, 47
1509.11, 1509.50, 1511.02, 1511.022, 1519.05, 48
1531.06, 1531.17, 1545.071, 1547.542, 1547.99, 49
1548.02, 1551.33, 1551.35, 1555.15, 1711.07, 50
1724.03, 1739.061, 1751.01, 1751.11, 1751.12, 51
1751.14, 1751.271, 1751.31, 1751.60, 1901.10, 52
1901.12, 1907.14, 1923.14, 2101.24, 2108.05, 53
2113.041, 2113.06, 2117.061, 2117.25, 2133.01, 54
2133.25, 2151.011, 2151.3514, 2151.362, 2151.83, 55
2151.86, 2152.54, 2152.59, 2301.14, 2303.201, 56
2305.234, 2307.65, 2311.14, 2317.02, 2317.422, 57
2335.09, 2335.11, 2505.02, 2701.03, 2701.031, 58
2743.03, 2743.09, 2743.121, 2743.20, 2743.48, 59
2743.52, 2743.53, 2743.531, 2743.55, 2743.60, 60
2743.601, 2743.61, 2743.62, 2743.63, 2743.64, 61
2743.65, 2743.66, 2743.67, 2743.68, 2743.69, 62
2743.71, 2744.05, 2744.08, 2744.081, 2744.082, 63
2901.13, 2901.30, 2903.33, 2907.22, 2913.01, 64
2913.40, 2913.401, 2919.271, 2921.01, 2921.22, 65
2921.36, 2921.38, 2923.126, 2925.03, 2929.15, 66
2930.01, 2935.03, 2935.33, 2945.37, 2945.371, 67
2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, 2951.041, 68
2953.32, 2967.22, 2981.01, 2981.12, 2981.13, 69
3101.051, 3107.083, 3109.15, 3111.04, 3111.72, 70
3119.29, 3119.54, 3121.441, 3121.89, 3121.891, 71
3121.892, 3121.893, 3121.898, 3123.958, 3125.18, 72
3125.36, 3301.07, 3301.0712, 3301.0714, 3301.0715, 73
3301.0723, 3301.0725, 3301.15, 3302.01, 3302.03, 74
3302.032, 3302.20, 3302.21, 3302.22, 3303.41, 75
3304.11, 3304.12, 3304.13, 3304.14, 3304.15, 76
3304.16, 3304.17, 3304.18, 3304.181, 3304.182, 77
3304.19, 3304.20, 3304.21, 3304.22, 3304.23, 78
3304.231, 3304.25, 3304.27, 3304.28, 3304.41, 79
3305.03, 3307.51, 3309.21, 3310.01, 3310.02, 80
3310.03, 3310.05, 3310.06, 3310.08, 3310.56, 81
3311.0510, 3311.19, 3311.22, 3311.231, 3311.38, 82
3311.86, 3312.08, 3313.372, 3313.376, 3313.48, 83
3313.483, 3313.484, 3313.488, 3313.4810, 3313.533, 84
3313.539, 3313.603, 3313.6013, 3313.6016, 85
3313.612, 3313.615, 3313.62, 3313.64, 3313.646, 86
3313.65, 3313.714, 3313.715, 3313.83, 3313.841, 87
3313.843, 3313.844, 3313.845, 3313.847, 3313.88, 88
3313.911, 3313.978, 3313.98, 3313.981, 3314.015, 89
3314.017, 3314.027, 3314.029, 3314.03, 3314.05, 90
3314.06, 3314.072, 3314.074, 3314.08, 3314.083, 91
3314.084, 3314.087, 3314.09, 3314.091, 3314.11, 92
3314.26, 3314.35, 3315.40, 3315.42, 3316.041, 93
3316.06, 3317.01, 3317.013, 3317.021, 3317.023, 94
3317.0212, 3317.03, 3317.032, 3317.05, 3317.06, 95
3317.063, 3317.08, 3317.10, 3317.14, 3317.18, 96
3317.19, 3317.20, 3317.50, 3317.51, 3318.011, 97
3318.031, 3318.08, 3318.31, 3318.36, 3318.363, 98
3319.07, 3319.073, 3319.0811, 3319.112, 3319.17, 99
3319.22, 3319.235, 3319.57, 3319.58, 3321.01, 100
3321.05, 3323.021, 3323.03, 3323.04, 3323.07, 101
3323.08, 3323.09, 3323.091, 3323.13, 3323.14, 102
3323.141, 3323.142, 3326.07, 3326.08, 3326.11, 103
3326.20, 3326.31, 3326.32, 3326.33, 3326.34, 104
3326.38, 3326.45, 3327.01, 3333.041, 3333.73, 105
3333.82, 3334.08, 3335.35, 3335.36, 3335.37, 106
3335.38, 3345.05, 3345.06, 3345.12, 3353.01, 107
3353.02, 3353.03, 3353.04, 3353.06, 3353.07, 108
3365.01, 3365.02, 3365.021, 3365.07, 3365.12, 109
3383.01, 3383.07, 3501.01, 3517.10, 3517.102, 110
3517.103, 3517.153, 3517.154, 3517.155, 3517.20, 111
3517.992, 3599.45, 3701.023, 3701.024, 3701.027, 112
3701.041, 3701.13, 3701.132, 3701.243, 3701.261, 113
3701.262, 3701.264, 3701.342, 3701.344, 3701.507, 114
3701.74, 3701.741, 3701.742, 3701.78, 3701.83, 115
3701.881, 3701.921, 3701.922, 3701.99, 3702.30, 116
3702.51, 3702.521, 3702.55, 3702.62, 3702.74, 117
3702.91, 3704.144, 3706.01, 3707.511, 3709.01, 118
3709.051, 3709.10, 3712.051, 3712.07, 3712.09, 119
3713.06, 3714.03, 3714.07, 3717.08, 3718.06, 120
3719.61, 3721.01, 3721.011, 3721.02, 3721.022, 121
3721.024, 3721.027, 3721.042, 3721.071, 3721.08, 122
3721.10, 3721.12, 3721.121, 3721.13, 3721.14, 123
3721.15, 3721.16, 3721.17, 3721.19, 3721.50, 124
3721.51, 3721.511, 3721.512, 3721.513, 3721.52, 125
3721.53, 3721.531, 3721.532, 3721.533, 3721.54, 126
3721.541, 3721.55, 3721.56, 3721.57, 3721.58, 127
3727.01, 3734.28, 3734.57, 3734.901, 3734.907, 128
3735.58, 3735.67, 3737.02, 3737.83, 3737.841, 129
3737.88, 3737.882, 3742.30, 3742.31, 3742.32, 130
3742.51, 3745.11, 3745.113, 3745.72, 3769.08, 131
3769.087, 3769.088, 3770.02, 3770.06, 3772.062, 132
3781.112, 3793.01, 3793.031, 3793.032, 3793.051, 133
3793.10, 3793.11, 3793.12, 3793.13, 3793.14, 134
3793.15, 3793.16, 3793.18, 3793.22, 3793.31, 135
3793.32, 3793.33, 3793.34, 3793.35, 3793.36, 136
3793.37, 3793.38, 3793.39, 3795.01, 3798.01, 137
3798.10, 3798.13, 3798.14, 3798.15, 3798.16, 138
3901.3814, 3903.14, 3905.40, 3905.483, 3905.862, 139
3916.06, 3923.24, 3923.241, 3923.281, 3923.443, 140
3923.49, 3923.50, 3923.601, 3923.83, 3924.41, 141
3924.42, 3963.01, 3963.04, 4104.33, 4112.02, 142
4112.12, 4112.31, 4115.034, 4115.32, 4117.06, 143
4117.14, 4117.15, 4121.44, 4121.441, 4121.50, 144
4121.69, 4123.32, 4123.35, 4123.41, 4123.54, 145
4123.57, 4123.93, 4131.03, 4141.162, 4141.29, 146
4301.01, 4301.10, 4301.30, 4301.43, 4301.62, 147
4303.181, 4305.131, 4501.01, 4501.21, 4503.03, 148
4503.10, 4503.44, 4503.62, 4505.02, 4505.09, 149
4506.07, 4507.01, 4507.06, 4507.51, 4510.038, 150
4510.45, 4511.19, 4511.191, 4511.21, 4511.69, 151
4511.85, 4513.34, 4701.03, 4707.02, 4707.073, 152
4707.10, 4709.11, 4713.08, 4713.44, 4715.22, 153
4715.36, 4715.372, 4717.03, 4717.06, 4717.07, 154
4717.10, 4717.14, 4717.15, 4719.01, 4723.18, 155
4723.35, 4723.481, 4725.03, 4725.16, 4729.51, 156
4729.54, 4729.69, 4729.77, 4729.78, 4729.79, 157
4729.80, 4729.81, 4729.99, 4730.411, 4731.151, 158
4731.23, 4731.65, 4731.71, 4734.41, 4735.07, 159
4735.09, 4735.10, 4735.142, 4735.56, 4742.01, 160
4751.02, 4751.03, 4751.04, 4751.041, 4751.05, 161
4751.06, 4751.07, 4751.08, 4751.10, 4751.11, 162
4751.12, 4751.13, 4753.071, 4755.11, 4755.47, 163
4755.481, 4755.64, 4758.10, 4758.11, 4761.01, 164
4778.02, 4778.03, 4781.121, 4781.28, 4781.29, 165
4906.20, 5101.01, 5101.11, 5101.141, 5101.16, 166
5101.162, 5101.18, 5101.181, 5101.183, 5101.184, 167
5101.26, 5101.271, 5101.272, 5101.273, 5101.30, 168
5101.31, 5101.34, 5101.35, 5101.36, 5101.46, 169
5101.461, 5101.47, 5101.49, 5101.50, 5101.501, 170
5101.502, 5101.51, 5101.511, 5101.512, 5101.513, 171
5101.516, 5101.517, 5101.519, 5101.5110, 5101.52, 172
5101.521, 5101.522, 5101.524, 5101.527, 5101.571, 173
5101.572, 5101.573, 5101.574, 5101.575, 5101.58, 174
5101.59, 5101.591, 5101.60, 5101.61, 5101.80, 175
5101.801, 5101.803, 5103.02, 5103.0323, 5103.13, 176
5103.42, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5104.02, 5104.021, 177
5104.03, 5104.08, 5104.11, 5104.12, 5104.32, 178
5107.10, 5107.14, 5107.16, 5107.20, 5107.24, 179
5107.26, 5107.42, 5107.64, 5111.01, 5111.011, 180
5111.013, 5111.016, 5111.018, 5111.0112, 181
5111.0114, 5111.0116, 5111.0117, 5111.0118, 182
5111.0119, 5111.02, 5111.021, 5111.022, 5111.023, 183
5111.024, 5111.025, 5111.027, 5111.028, 5111.029, 184
5111.0210, 5111.0211, 5111.0212, 5111.0213, 185
5111.0214, 5111.0215, 5111.03, 5111.031, 5111.032, 186
5111.033, 5111.034, 5111.035, 5111.04, 5111.042, 187
5111.05, 5111.051, 5111.052, 5111.053, 5111.054, 188
5111.06, 5111.061, 5111.062, 5111.063, 5111.07, 189
5111.071, 5111.08, 5111.081, 5111.082, 5111.083, 190
5111.084, 5111.085, 5111.086, 5111.09, 5111.091, 191
5111.092, 5111.10, 5111.101, 5111.102, 5111.11, 192
5111.111, 5111.112, 5111.113, 5111.114, 5111.12, 193
5111.121, 5111.13, 5111.14, 5111.141, 5111.15, 194
5111.151, 5111.16, 5111.161, 5111.162, 5111.163, 195
5111.17, 5111.171, 5111.172, 5111.173, 5111.174, 196
5111.175, 5111.177, 5111.178, 5111.179, 5111.1710, 197
5111.1711, 5111.18, 5111.181, 5111.19, 5111.191, 198
5111.20, 5111.201, 5111.202, 5111.203, 5111.204, 199
5111.21, 5111.212, 5111.22, 5111.221, 5111.222, 200
5111.223, 5111.224, 5111.225, 5111.226, 5111.23, 201
5111.231, 5111.232, 5111.233, 5111.235, 5111.24, 202
5111.241, 5111.242, 5111.244, 5111.245, 5111.246, 203
5111.25, 5111.251, 5111.254, 5111.255, 5111.257, 204
5111.258, 5111.259, 5111.26, 5111.261, 5111.262, 205
5111.263, 5111.264, 5111.265, 5111.266, 5111.27, 206
5111.271, 5111.28, 5111.29, 5111.291, 5111.30, 207
5111.31, 5111.32, 5111.33, 5111.331, 5111.35, 208
5111.36, 5111.37, 5111.38, 5111.39, 5111.41, 209
5111.411, 5111.42, 5111.43, 5111.44, 5111.45, 210
5111.46, 5111.47, 5111.48, 5111.49, 5111.50, 211
5111.51, 5111.511, 5111.52, 5111.53, 5111.54, 212
5111.55, 5111.56, 5111.57, 5111.58, 5111.59, 213
5111.60, 5111.61, 5111.62, 5111.63, 5111.66, 214
5111.661, 5111.67, 5111.671, 5111.672, 5111.673, 215
5111.674, 5111.675, 5111.676, 5111.677, 5111.68, 216
5111.681, 5111.682, 5111.683, 5111.684, 5111.685, 217
5111.686, 5111.687, 5111.688, 5111.689, 5111.70, 218
5111.701, 5111.702, 5111.703, 5111.704, 5111.705, 219
5111.707, 5111.708, 5111.709, 5111.7011, 5111.71, 220
5111.711, 5111.712, 5111.713, 5111.714, 5111.715, 221
5111.83, 5111.84, 5111.85, 5111.851, 5111.852, 222
5111.853, 5111.854, 5111.855, 5111.856, 5111.86, 223
5111.861, 5111.862, 5111.863, 5111.864, 5111.865, 224
5111.87, 5111.871, 5111.872, 5111.873, 5111.874, 225
5111.875, 5111.876, 5111.877, 5111.878, 5111.879, 226
5111.88, 5111.881, 5111.882, 5111.885, 5111.886, 227
5111.887, 5111.888, 5111.889, 5111.8810, 5111.89, 228
5111.891, 5111.892, 5111.894, 5111.90, 5111.91, 229
5111.911, 5111.912, 5111.914, 5111.915, 5111.92, 230
5111.93, 5111.94, 5111.941, 5111.943, 5111.944, 231
5111.945, 5111.96, 5111.97, 5111.98, 5111.981, 232
5111.982, 5111.99, 5112.01, 5112.03, 5112.04, 233
5112.05, 5112.06, 5112.07, 5112.08, 5112.09, 234
5112.10, 5112.11, 5112.17, 5112.18, 5112.19, 235
5112.21, 5112.30, 5112.31, 5112.32, 5112.33, 236
5112.331, 5112.34, 5112.341, 5112.35, 5112.37, 237
5112.371, 5112.38, 5112.39, 5112.40, 5112.41, 238
5112.42, 5112.43, 5112.44, 5112.45, 5112.46, 239
5112.47, 5112.48, 5112.99, 5112.991, 5115.20, 240
5117.10, 5119.01, 5119.012, 5119.02, 5119.04, 241
5119.06, 5119.061, 5119.07, 5119.071, 5119.072, 242
5119.08, 5119.10, 5119.101, 5119.11, 5119.12, 243
5119.14, 5119.16, 5119.161, 5119.17, 5119.18, 244
5119.20, 5119.201, 5119.202, 5119.21, 5119.22, 245
5119.221, 5119.23, 5119.24, 5119.27, 5119.30, 246
5119.33, 5119.34, 5119.35, 5119.351, 5119.36, 247
5119.42, 5119.43, 5119.44, 5119.46, 5119.51, 248
5119.52, 5119.53, 5119.57, 5119.60, 5119.61, 249
5119.611, 5119.612, 5119.613, 5119.62, 5119.621, 250
5119.622, 5119.63, 5119.631, 5119.69, 5119.691, 251
5119.99, 5120.07, 5120.09, 5120.135, 5120.17, 252
5120.171, 5120.652, 5120.654, 5121.051, 5121.30, 253
5121.32, 5121.33, 5121.34, 5121.35, 5121.36, 254
5121.37, 5121.38, 5121.40, 5121.42, 5121.43, 255
5121.44, 5121.45, 5121.46, 5121.47, 5121.49, 256
5121.50, 5121.51, 5121.52, 5121.55, 5122.01, 257
5122.03, 5122.10, 5122.11, 5122.12, 5122.13, 258
5122.15, 5122.17, 5122.18, 5122.19, 5122.20, 259
5122.21, 5122.23, 5122.25, 5122.26, 5122.27, 260
5122.271, 5122.31, 5122.311, 5122.32, 5122.33, 261
5122.34, 5122.341, 5122.39, 5122.43, 5122.44, 262
5122.45, 5122.46, 5122.47, 5123.01, 5123.021, 263
5123.022, 5123.03, 5123.0412, 5123.0417, 5123.09, 264
5123.171, 5123.19, 5123.192, 5123.197, 5123.198, 265
5123.38, 5123.61, 5123.86, 5126.01, 5126.026, 266
5126.043, 5126.05, 5126.051, 5126.054, 5126.055, 267
5139.03, 5139.04, 5139.08, 5139.34, 5145.162, 268
5145.18, 5153.16, 5302.221, 5309.082, 5309.68, 269
5309.86, 5501.311, 5501.312, 5501.73, 5502.011, 270
5505.12, 5507.01, 5507.02, 5507.021, 5507.022, 271
5507.03, 5507.06, 5507.07, 5507.08, 5507.09, 272
5507.12, 5507.15, 5507.18, 5507.22, 5507.25, 273
5507.26, 5507.27, 5507.32, 5507.34, 5507.40, 274
5507.42, 5507.44, 5507.46, 5507.52, 5507.53, 275
5507.54, 5507.55, 5507.57, 5507.571, 5507.60, 276
5507.63, 5507.99, 5511.03, 5515.08, 5701.13, 277
5703.052, 5703.059, 5703.21, 5703.37, 5703.82, 278
5705.01, 5705.19, 5705.192, 5705.21, 5705.217, 279
5705.218, 5705.221, 5705.25, 5709.17, 5715.19, 280
5715.27, 5717.01, 5725.18, 5725.34, 5726.20, 281
5726.52, 5727.26, 5727.75, 5727.84, 5727.89, 282
5728.10, 5729.03, 5729.17, 5731.39, 5733.01, 283
5733.06, 5733.11, 5733.55, 5733.98, 5735.012, 284
5735.12, 5735.27, 5735.34, 5739.01, 5739.02, 285
5739.026, 5739.09, 5739.13, 5741.01, 5741.03, 286
5741.17, 5743.081, 5743.15, 5743.56, 5745.12, 287
5747.01, 5747.02, 5747.022, 5747.025, 5747.08, 288
5747.10, 5747.11, 5747.113, 5747.122, 5747.13, 289
5747.21, 5747.22, 5747.47, 5747.501, 5747.76, 290
5747.98, 5748.01, 5749.02, 5749.06, 5749.07, 291
5749.17, 5751.01, 5751.011, 5751.02, 5751.03, 292
5751.07, 5751.081, 5751.09, 5751.20, 5751.21, 293
5753.03, 5753.07, 5815.28, 5902.02, 5905.02, 294
5910.02, 5910.07, 5919.34, 5924.502, 5924.503, 295
5924.504, 5924.506, 6109.21, and 6111.037; to 296
amend, for the purpose of adopting new section 297
numbers as indicated in parentheses, sections 298
173.394 (173.38), 173.40 (173.52), 173.401 299
(173.521), 173.402 (173.524), 173.403 (173.53), 300
173.404 (173.55), 3304.23 (3335.60), 3304.231 301
(3335.61), 3304.14 (3304.15), 3304.15 (3304.16), 302
3304.16 (3304.14), 3313.847 (3317.30), 3333.90 303
(3333.59), 3383.01 (123.28), 3383.07 (123.281), 304
3701.041 (124.88), 3721.50 (5168.40), 3721.51 305
(5168.42), 3721.511 (5168.43), 3721.512 (5168.44), 306
3721.513 (5168.45), 3721.52 (5168.46), 3721.53 307
(5168.47), 3721.531 (5168.48), 3721.532 (5168.49), 308
3721.533 (5168.50), 3721.54 (5168.51), 3721.541 309
(5168.52), 3721.55 (5168.53), 3721.56 (5168.54), 310
3721.57 (5168.55), 3721.58 (5168.56), 3737.883 311
(3737.884), 3793.01 (5119.01), 3793.031 312
(5119.201), 3793.032 (5119.47), 3793.051 313
(5119.161), 3793.10 (5119.38), 3793.11 (5119.39), 314
3793.12 (5119.61), 3793.13 (5119.27), 3793.14 315
(5119.26), 3793.15 (5119.17), 3793.16 (5119.188), 316
3793.18 (5119.30), 3793.22 (5119.49), 3793.31 317
(5119.90), 3793.32 (5119.91), 3793.33 (5119.92), 318
3793.34 (5119.93), 3793.35 (5119.94), 3793.36 319
(5119.95), 3793.37 (5119.96), 3793.38 (5119.97), 320
3793.39 (5119.98), 5101.271 (5160.45), 5101.31 321
(5164.756), 5101.50 (5161.05), 5101.501 (5161.06), 322
5101.502 (5161.02), 5101.51 (5161.10), 5101.511 323
(5161.11), 5101.5110 (5161.35), 5101.512 324
(5161.12), 5101.513 (5161.30), 5101.516 (5161.22), 325
5101.517 (5161.24), 5101.519 (5161.27), 5101.52 326
(5161.15), 5101.521 (5161.16), 5101.522 (5161.17), 327
5101.524 (5161.20), 5101.527 (5161.25), 5101.571 328
(5160.35), 5101.572 (5160.39), 5101.573 (5160.40), 329
5101.574 (5160.41), 5101.575 (5160.42), 5101.58 330
(5160.37), 5101.59 (5160.38), 5101.591 (5160.43), 331
5111.01 (5162.03), 5111.011 (5163.02), 5111.013 332
(5163.40), 5111.016 (5164.26), 5111.018 (5164.07), 333
5111.0112 (5162.20), 5111.0114 (5164.754), 334
5111.0116 (5163.30), 5111.0117 (5163.31), 335
5111.0118 (5163.32), 5111.0119 (5163.45), 5111.02 336
(5164.02), 5111.021 (5164.70), 5111.022 (5164.56), 337
5111.023 (5164.15), 5111.024 (5164.08), 5111.025 338
(5164.76), 5111.027 (5164.20), 5111.028 (5164.32), 339
5111.029 (5164.06), 5111.0210 (5164.92), 5111.0211 340
(5165.48), 5111.0212 (5164.80), 5111.0213 341
(5164.77), 5111.0214 (5164.82), 5111.0215 342
(5164.93), 5111.03 (5164.35), 5111.031 (5164.37), 343
5111.032 (5164.34), 5111.033 (5164.342), 5111.034 344
(5164.341), 5111.035 (5164.36), 5111.04 (5164.05), 345
5111.042 (5164.25), 5111.05 (5164.45), 5111.051 346
(5164.48), 5111.052 (5164.46), 5111.053 347
(5164.301), 5111.054 (5164.47), 5111.06 (5164.38), 348
5111.061 (5164.57), 5111.062 (5164.39), 5111.063 349
(5164.31), 5111.07 (5164.752), 5111.071 350
(5164.753), 5111.08 (5164.759), 5111.081 351
(5164.755), 5111.082 (5164.751), 5111.083 352
(5164.757), 5111.084 (5164.7510), 5111.085 353
(5164.758), 5111.086 (5164.75), 5111.09 (5162.13), 354
5111.091 (5162.131), 5111.092 (5162.132), 5111.10 355
(5162.10), 5111.101 (5162.15), 5111.102 (5162.04), 356
5111.11 (5162.21), 5111.111 (5162.211), 5111.112 357
(5162.212), 5111.113 (5162.22), 5111.114 358
(5163.33), 5111.12 (5162.23), 5111.121 (5162.24), 359
5111.13 (5164.85), 5111.14 (5164.88), 5111.141 360
(5164.89), 5111.15 (5163.20), 5111.151 (5163.21), 361
5111.16 (5167.03), 5111.161 (5167.031), 5111.162 362
(5167.20), 5111.163 (5167.201), 5111.17 (5167.10), 363
5111.171 (5167.31), 5111.172 (5167.12), 5111.173 364
(5167.40), 5111.174 (5167.41), 5111.175 (5167.26), 365
5111.177 (5167.11), 5111.178 (5167.25), 5111.179 366
(5167.13), 5111.1710 (5167.14), 5111.1711 367
(5167.30), 5111.18 (5164.86), 5111.181 (5163.22), 368
5111.19 (5164.74), 5111.191 (5164.741), 5111.20 369
(5165.01), 5111.201 (5165.011), 5111.202 370
(5165.03), 5111.203 (5165.031), 5111.204 371
(5165.04), 5111.21 (5165.06), 5111.212 (5165.35), 372
5111.22 (5165.07), 5111.221 (5165.37), 5111.222 373
(5165.15), 5111.223 (5165.071), 5111.224 374
(5124.15), 5111.225 (5165.155), 5111.226 375
(5124.02), 5111.23 (5124.19), 5111.231 (5165.19), 376
5111.232 (5165.192), 5111.233 (5124.194), 5111.235 377
(5124.23), 5111.24 (5165.16), 5111.241 (5124.21), 378
5111.242 (5165.21), 5111.244 (5165.25), 5111.245 379
(5165.26), 5111.246 (5165.23), 5111.25 (5165.17), 380
5111.251 (5124.17), 5111.254 (5165.151), 5111.255 381
(5124.151), 5111.257 (5165.28), 5111.258 382
(5165.153), 5111.259 (5165.156), 5111.26 383
(5165.10), 5111.261 (5165.107), 5111.262 384
(5165.47), 5111.263 (5124.29), 5111.264 (5165.30), 385
5111.265 (5165.29), 5111.266 (5165.101), 5111.27 386
(5165.108), 5111.271 (5165.1010), 5111.28 387
(5165.40), 5111.29 (5165.38), 5111.291 (5124.154), 388
5111.30 (5165.073), 5111.31 (5165.08), 5111.32 389
(5165.081), 5111.33 (5124.34), 5111.331 (5165.34), 390
5111.35 (5165.60), 5111.36 (5165.61), 5111.37 391
(5165.62), 5111.38 (5165.63), 5111.39 (5165.64), 392
5111.40 (5165.65), 5111.41 (5165.66), 5111.411 393
(5165.67), 5111.42 (5165.68), 5111.43 (5165.69), 394
5111.44 (5165.70), 5111.45 (5165.71), 5111.46 395
(5165.72), 5111.47 (5165.73), 5111.48 (5165.74), 396
5111.49 (5165.75), 5111.50 (5165.76), 5111.51 397
(5165.77), 5111.511 (5165.78), 5111.52 (5165.79), 398
5111.53 (5165.80), 5111.54 (5165.81), 5111.55 399
(5165.82), 5111.56 (5165.83), 5111.57 (5165.84), 400
5111.58 (5165.85), 5111.59 (5165.86), 5111.60 401
(5165.87), 5111.61 (5165.88), 5111.62 (5162.66), 402
5111.63 (5165.89), 5111.66 (5165.50), 5111.661 403
(5165.501), 5111.67 (5165.51), 5111.671 404
(5165.511), 5111.672 (5165.512), 5111.673 405
(5165.513), 5111.674 (5165.514), 5111.675 406
(5165.515), 5111.676 (5165.516), 5111.677 407
(5165.517), 5111.68 (5165.52), 5111.681 408
(5165.521), 5111.682 (5165.522), 5111.683 409
(5165.523), 5111.684 (5165.524), 5111.685 410
(5165.525), 5111.686 (5165.526), 5111.687 411
(5165.527), 5111.688 (5165.528), 5111.689 412
(5165.53), 5111.70 (5163.09), 5111.701 (5163.091), 413
5111.702 (5163.092), 5111.703 (5163.093), 5111.704 414
(5163.094), 5111.705 (5163.095), 5111.706 415
(5163.096), 5111.707 (5163.097), 5111.708 416
(5163.098), 5111.709 (5163.099), 5111.7011 417
(5163.0910), 5111.71 (5162.36), 5111.711 418
(5162.361), 5111.712 (5162.362), 5111.713 419
(5162.363), 5111.714 (5162.64), 5111.715 420
(5162.364), 5111.83 (5162.30), 5111.84 (5166.03), 421
5111.85 (5166.02), 5111.851 (5166.04), 5111.852 422
(5166.05), 5111.853 (5166.06), 5111.854 (5166.07), 423
5111.855 (5166.08), 5111.856 (5166.10), 5111.86 424
(5166.11), 5111.861 (5166.12), 5111.862 425
(5166.121), 5111.863 (5166.13), 5111.864 426
(5166.14), 5111.865 (5166.141), 5111.87 (5166.20), 427
5111.871 (5166.21), 5111.872 (5166.22), 5111.873 428
(5166.23), 5111.874 (5124.60), 5111.875 (5124.61), 429
5111.876 (5124.62), 5111.877 (5124.63), 5111.878 430
(5124.64), 5111.879 (5124.65), 5111.88 (5166.30), 431
5111.881 (5166.301), 5111.882 (5166.302), 5111.883 432
(5166.303), 5111.884 (5166.304), 5111.885 433
(5166.305), 5111.886 (5166.306), 5111.887 434
(5166.307), 5111.888 (5166.308), 5111.889 435
(5166.309), 5111.8810 (5166.3010), 5111.89 436
(173.54), 5111.891 (173.541), 5111.892 (173.544), 437
5111.893 (173.547), 5111.894 (173.542), 5111.90 438
(5162.32), 5111.91 (5162.35), 5111.911 (5162.37), 439
5111.912 (5162.371), 5111.914 (5164.58), 5111.915 440
(5162.11), 5111.92 (5162.40), 5111.93 (5162.41), 441
5111.94 (5162.54), 5111.941 (5162.52), 5111.943 442
(5162.50), 5111.944 (5162.58), 5111.945 (5162.56), 443
5111.96 (5164.90), 5111.97 (5166.35), 5111.98 444
(5162.031), 5111.981 (5164.91), 5111.982 445
(5167.21), 5111.99 (5165.99), 5112.01 (5168.01), 446
5112.03 (5168.02), 5112.04 (5168.05), 5112.05 447
(5168.03), 5112.06 (5168.06), 5112.07 (5168.07), 448
5112.08 (5168.09), 5112.09 (5168.08), 5112.10 449
(5168.04), 5112.11 (5168.10), 5112.17 (5168.14), 450
5112.18 (5168.11), 5112.19 (5168.12), 5112.21 451
(5168.13), 5112.30 (5168.60), 5112.31 (5168.61), 452
5112.32 (5168.62), 5112.33 (5168.63), 5112.331 453
(5168.64), 5112.34 (5168.65), 5112.341 (5168.66), 454
5112.35 (5168.67), 5112.37 (5168.68), 5112.371 455
(5168.69), 5112.38 (5168.70), 5112.39 (5168.71), 456
5112.40 (5168.20), 5112.41 (5168.21), 5112.42 457
(5168.22), 5112.43 (5168.23), 5112.44 (5168.24), 458
5112.45 (5168.25), 5112.46 (5168.26), 5112.47 459
(5168.27), 5112.48 (5168.28), 5112.99 (5168.99), 460
5112.991 (5168.991), 5119.01 (5119.10), 5119.012 461
(5119.141), 5119.02 (5119.14), 5119.06 (5119.21), 462
5119.061 (5119.40), 5119.07 (5119.11), 5119.071 463
(5119.18), 5119.072 (5119.181), 5119.08 464
(5119.182), 5119.10 (5119.184), 5119.101 465
(5119.185), 5119.11 (5119.186), 5119.12 466
(5119.187), 5119.14 (5119.08), 5119.16 (5119.44), 467
5119.161 (5119.45), 5119.17 (5119.51), 5119.18 468
(5119.46), 5119.20 (5119.33), 5119.201 (5119.331), 469
5119.202 (5119.332), 5119.21 (5119.333), 5119.22 470
(5119.34), 5119.221 (5119.342), 5119.23 (5119.31), 471
5119.24 (5119.15), 5119.27 (5119.05), 5119.30 472
(5119.09), 5119.33 (5119.54), 5119.34 (5119.50), 473
5119.35 (5119.56), 5119.351 (5119.55), 5119.36 474
(5119.52), 5119.42 (5119.07), 5119.43 (5119.06), 475
5119.44 (5119.051), 5119.46 (5119.60), 5119.50 476
(5119.70), 5119.51 (5119.71), 5119.52 (5119.72), 477
5119.53 (5119.73), 5119.57 (5119.29), 5119.60 478
(5119.32), 5119.61 (5119.22), 5119.611 (5119.36), 479
5119.612 (5119.37), 5119.613 (5119.361), 5119.62 480
(5119.23), 5119.621 (5119.24), 5119.622 (5119.25), 481
5119.63 (5119.42), 5119.631 (5119.421), 5119.69 482
(5119.41), 5119.691 (5119.411), 5507.01 (128.01), 483
5507.02 (128.02), 5507.021 (128.021), 5507.022 484
(128.022), 5507.03 (128.03), 5507.06 (128.06), 485
5507.07 (128.07), 5507.08 (128.08), 5507.09 486
(128.09), 5507.12 (128.12), 5507.15 (128.15), 487
5507.18 (128.18), 5507.22 (128.22), 5507.25 488
(128.25), 5507.26 (128.26), 5507.27 (128.27), 489
5507.32 (128.32), 5507.34 (128.34), 5507.40 490
(128.40), 5507.42 (128.42), 5507.44 (128.44), 491
5507.46 (128.46), 5507.52 (128.52), 5507.53 492
(128.53), 5507.54 (128.54), 5507.55 (128.55), 493
5507.57 (128.57), 5507.571 (128.571), 5507.60 494
(128.60), 5507.63 (128.63), and 5507.99 (128.99); 495
to enact new sections 1901.121, 3313.481, 496
3317.014, 3317.02, 3317.022, 3317.0217, 3317.051, 497
3317.16, 3326.39, 3327.02, 3345.81, and 3737.883, 498
and sections 1.611, 101.392, 103.0521, 121.483, 499
122.681, 123.19, 125.27, 126.211, 149.307, 173.51, 500
173.522, 173.523, 173.525, 173.543, 173.545, 501
173.546, 173.56, 173.60, 191.061, 340.08, 353.01 502
to 353.16, 511.261, 517.271, 721.29, 903.30, 503
991.041, 1327.502, 1509.16, 1545.23, 1547.532, 504
1901.122, 1901.123, 1907.141, 1907.142, 1907.143, 505
2329.192, 2743.041, 3302.26, 3310.032, 3310.035, 506
3313.6018, 3313.6019, 3313.848, 3313.849, 507
3314.042, 3314.082, 3314.086, 3314.092, 3314.29, 508
3317.016, 3317.017, 3317.0213, 3317.0214, 509
3317.161, 3317.40, 3319.031, 3319.0812, 3325.13, 510
3325.14, 3326.112, 3327.07, 3328.27, 3333.049, 511
3333.124, 3333.342, 3333.613, 3337.16, 3345.48, 512
3350.15, 3365.022, 3501.054, 3701.033, 3701.94, 513
3701.941, 3701.942, 3701.943, 3701.944, 3701.95, 514
3701.96, 3701.98, 3702.302, 3702.303, 3702.304, 515
3702.305, 3702.306, 3702.307, 3702.308, 3714.074, 516
3721.072, 3772.36, 4123.322, 4503.524, 4503.526, 517
4503.732, 4503.95, 4503.96, 4713.641, 4729.542, 518
4731.299, 4751.042, 4751.14, 5101.101, 5101.804, 519
5119.28, 5119.341, 5123.023, 5124.01, 5124.03, 520
5124.05, 5124.06, 5124.07, 5124.071, 5124.072, 521
5124.08, 5124.081, 5124.10, 5124.101, 5124.102, 522
5124.103, 5124.104, 5124.105, 5124.106, 5124.107, 523
5124.108, 5124.109, 5124.152, 5124.153, 5124.191, 524
5124.192, 5124.193, 5124.25, 5124.28, 5124.30, 525
5124.31, 5124.32, 5124.33, 5124.35, 5124.37, 526
5124.38, 5124.40, 5124.41, 5124.42, 5124.43, 527
5124.44, 5124.45, 5124.46, 5124.50, 5124.51, 528
5124.511, 5124.512, 5124.513, 5124.514, 5124.515, 529
5124.516, 5124.517, 5124.52, 5124.521, 5124.522, 530
5124.523, 5124.524, 5124.525, 5124.526, 5124.527, 531
5124.528, 5124.53, 5124.67, 5124.99, 5126.131, 532
5139.282, 5160.01, 5160.011, 5160.02, 5160.021, 533
5160.03, 5160.04, 5160.05, 5160.051, 5160.052, 534
5160.06, 5160.10, 5160.11, 5160.12, 5160.13, 535
5160.16, 5160.20, 5160.21, 5160.22, 5160.23, 536
5160.30, 5160.31, 5160.371, 5160.46, 5160.47, 537
5160.48, 5160.481, 5160.50, 5160.52, 5160.99, 538
5161.01, 5162.01, 5162.02, 5162.021, 5162.022, 539
5162.05, 5162.06, 5162.07, 5162.12, 5162.31, 540
5162.60, 5162.62, 5163.01, 5163.03, 5163.04, 541
5163.05, 5163.06, 5163.061, 5163.08, 5164.01, 542
5164.03, 5164.30, 5164.33, 5164.55, 5164.59, 543
5164.60, 5164.61, 5164.71, 5164.72, 5164.73, 544
5164.78, 5164.83, 5164.911, 5165.02, 5165.072, 545
5165.082, 5165.102, 5165.103, 5165.104, 5165.105, 546
5165.106, 5165.109, 5165.152, 5165.154, 5165.191, 547
5165.193, 5165.32, 5165.33, 5165.41, 5165.42, 548
5165.43, 5165.44, 5165.45, 5165.46, 5165.49, 549
5165.771, 5166.01, 5166.16, 5167.01, 5167.02, 550
5168.41, 5703.75, 5703.76, 5705.55, 5735.013, 551
5741.032, 5751.40, 5910.08, 5919.342, and 552
6133.041; and to repeal sections 122.076, 122.15, 553
122.151, 122.152, 122.153, 122.154, 122.29, 554
122.97, 123.23, 125.837, 125.838, 149.51, 149.55, 555
166.22, 166.28, 173.425, 173.433, 183.28, 184.04, 556
340.022, 340.033, 340.06, 340.14, 1513.371, 557
1531.34, 1547.721, 1547.722, 1547.723, 1547.724, 558
1547.725, 1547.726, 1901.121, 2743.54, 3302.043, 559
3304.24, 3304.26, 3304.38, 3313.481, 3313.482, 560
3313.4811, 3314.088, 3314.13, 3317.012, 3317.014, 561
3317.018, 3317.02, 3317.022, 3317.029, 3317.0217, 562
3317.051, 3317.052, 3317.053, 3317.11, 3317.16, 563
3317.62, 3317.63, 3317.64, 3318.023, 3323.16, 564
3326.39, 3327.02, 3345.81, 3353.09, 3353.15, 565
3353.20, 3383.02, 3383.03, 3383.04, 3383.05, 566
3383.06, 3383.08, 3383.09, 3506.22, 3517.1010, 567
3701.072, 3701.263, 3701.343, 3701.90, 3701.901, 568
3701.902, 3701.903, 3701.904, 3701.905, 3701.906, 569
3701.907, 3721.026, 3793.02, 3793.03, 3793.04, 570
3793.041, 3793.05, 3793.06, 3793.061, 3793.08, 571
3793.09, 3793.19, 3793.20, 3793.21, 3793.99, 572
5101.503, 5101.514, 5101.515, 5101.518, 5101.523, 573
5101.525, 5101.526, 5101.528, 5101.529, 5111.012, 574
5111.014, 5111.015, 5111.0110, 5111.0111, 575
5111.0113, 5111.0115, 5111.0120, 5111.0121, 576
5111.0122, 5111.0123, 5111.0124, 5111.0125, 577
5111.176, 5111.211, 5111.236, 5111.65, 5111.8710, 578
5111.8811, 5111.913, 5111.942, 5111.946, 5119.011, 579
5119.013, 5119.03, 5119.05, 5119.47, 5119.623, 580
5119.64, 5119.65, 5119.66, 5119.67, 5119.68, 581
5507.65, 5507.66, 5707.05, 5727.41, 5733.35, 582
5747.211, 5747.33, 6101.451, and 6111.029 of the 583
Revised Code; to amend Section 1 of Sub. H.B. 34 584
of the 130th General Assembly; to amend Sections 585
205.10 and 506.10 of Am. Sub. H.B. 51 of the 130th 586
General Assembly; to amend Section 753.30 of Am. 587
Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly; to 588
amend Section 11 of Sub. H.B. 303 of the 129th 589
General Assembly; to amend Section 4 of Am. Sub. 590
H.B. 472 of the 129th General Assembly; to amend 591
Sections 201.80, 205.83, and 509.40 of Sub. H.B. 592
482 of the 129th General Assembly; to amend 593
Sections 301.11, 301.12, and 301.13 of Am. Sub. 594
H.B. 487 of the 129th General Assembly; to amend 595
Section 205.80 of Sub. H.B. 482 of the 129th 596
General Assembly, as subsequently amended; to 597
amend Section 4 of Sub. S.B. 171 of the 129th 598
General Assembly, as subsequently amended; to 599
amend Section 105.05 of Am. Sub. H.B. 2 of the 600
128th General Assembly; to repeal Section 601
267.60.31 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th 602
General Assembly; to repeal Section 125.10 of Am. 603
Sub. H.B. 1 of the 128th General Assembly as 604
subsequently amended; to repeal Section 514.03 of 605
Am. Sub. H.B. 66 of the 126th General Assembly; to 606
repeal Section 153 of Am. Sub. H.B. 117 of the 607
121st General Assembly as subsequently amended; to 608
amend Sections 203.30.40, 203.30.70, 203.30.80, 609
203.90.10, 203.90.20, 205.10.20, 205.30.90, 610
205.50.70, and 207.10.10 of Sub. S.B. 312 of the 611
129th General Assembly; to amend the versions of 612
sections 109.57, 2151.011, 2923.126, 5104.012, 613
5104.013, 5104.03, 5104.08, and 5104.32 of the 614
Revised Code that are scheduled to take effect 615
January 1, 2014, to continue the provisions of 616
this act on and after that effective date; to 617
amend the versions of sections 4501.01, 4507.01, 618
and 4507.06 of the Revised Code that are scheduled 619
to take effect January 1, 2017, to continue the 620
provisions of this act on and after that effective 621
date; to amend section 3313.88 of the Revised Code 622
as it results from Section 101.01 of this act for 623
the purpose of adopting new section number 624
3313.482 on July 1, 2014; to make operating 625
appropriations for the biennium beginning July 1, 626
2013, and ending June 30, 2015; to provide 627
authorization and conditions for the operation of 628
state programs; to repeal sections 5168.20, 629
5168.21, 5168.22, 5168.23, 5168.24, 5168.25, 630
5168.26, 5168.27, and 5168.28 of the Revised Code 631
on October 1, 2015, to terminate the operation of 632
those sections on that date; to repeal sections 633
5168.01, 5168.02, 5168.03, 5168.04, 5168.05, 634
5168.06, 5168.07, 5168.08, 5168.09, 5168.10, 635
5168.11, 5168.12, 5168.13, 5168.99, and 5168.991 636
of the Revised Code on October 16, 2015, to 637
terminate the operation of those sections on that 638
date; and to repeal section 5124.67 of the Revised 639
Code on July 1, 2018, to terminate the operation 640
of that section on that date.641


BE IT ENACTED BY THE GENERAL ASSEMBLY OF THE STATE OF OHIO:

       Section 101.01. That sections 9.03, 9.15, 9.231, 9.239, 9.24, 642
9.833, 9.90, 9.901, 101.39, 101.391, 102.02, 103.144, 107.033, 643
107.12, 109.06, 109.36, 109.57, 109.572, 109.71, 109.746, 109.77, 644
109.85, 109.86, 109.90, 111.02, 111.15, 111.28, 113.02, 113.061, 645
117.03, 117.10, 117.20, 119.01, 120.06, 121.02, 121.03, 121.22, 646
121.35, 121.37, 121.372, 122.075, 122.083, 122.17, 122.171, 647
122.175, 122.28, 122.30, 122.31, 122.32, 122.33, 122.34, 122.35, 648
122.36, 122.58, 122.657, 122.658, 122.66, 122.67, 122.68, 122.69, 649
122.70, 122.701, 122.76, 122.861, 123.01, 123.10, 123.11, 123.201, 650
123.21, 123.27, 124.11, 124.14, 124.18, 124.30, 124.341, 124.381, 651
124.57, 124.84, 125.05, 125.21, 125.212, 125.28, 125.602, 125.603, 652
125.832, 125.836, 126.07, 126.14, 126.32, 126.35, 126.45, 126.46, 653
126.47, 126.48, 127.14, 127.16, 133.01, 133.06, 135.143, 135.22, 654
135.35, 135.61, 135.71, 135.80, 135.81, 135.85, 140.01, 140.03, 655
140.05, 145.01, 145.012, 145.22, 149.01, 149.12, 149.311, 149.43, 656
149.431, 149.54, 151.11, 152.09, 153.692, 154.01, 154.17, 154.20, 657
154.22, 154.23, 154.25, 156.02, 156.03, 156.04, 156.05, 166.02, 658
166.03, 166.04, 166.08, 166.25, 167.03, 169.02, 169.05, 169.07, 659
169.08, 173.03, 173.14, 173.17, 173.19, 173.20, 173.21, 173.23, 660
173.25, 173.26, 173.27, 173.28, 173.39, 173.391, 173.392, 173.394, 661
173.40, 173.401, 173.402, 173.403, 173.404, 173.42, 173.43, 662
173.431, 173.432, 173.434, 173.45, 173.47, 173.48, 173.50, 663
173.501, 173.99, 175.04, 191.01, 191.02, 191.04, 191.06, 301.28, 664
306.35, 307.07, 307.674, 307.699, 307.86, 309.09, 317.08, 317.36, 665
321.35, 321.44, 329.04, 329.051, 329.06, 329.14, 339.02, 339.05, 666
339.06, 339.07, 340.01, 340.011, 340.02, 340.021, 340.03, 340.031, 667
340.032, 340.04, 340.05, 340.07, 340.09, 340.091, 340.10, 340.11, 668
340.12, 340.13, 340.15, 340.16, 341.192, 349.01, 349.04, 351.021, 669
715.691, 721.01, 721.03, 731.091, 737.41, 742.14, 755.06, 901.21, 670
901.22, 901.23, 903.11, 903.99, 905.06, 909.15, 924.02, 924.06, 671
927.54, 935.01, 935.03, 935.12, 955.01, 955.05, 955.06, 955.07, 672
955.08, 955.09, 955.14, 955.201, 956.07, 956.18, 991.03, 991.04, 673
991.06, 1309.521, 1321.51, 1321.535, 1321.55, 1322.01, 1322.051, 674
1327.46, 1327.48, 1327.50, 1327.501, 1327.61, 1327.99, 1332.26, 675
1337.11, 1347.08, 1501.011, 1501.45, 1506.21, 1506.30, 1509.01, 676
1509.02, 1509.062, 1509.10, 1509.11, 1509.50, 1511.02, 1511.022, 677
1519.05, 1531.06, 1531.17, 1545.071, 1547.542, 1547.99, 1548.02, 678
1551.33, 1551.35, 1555.15, 1711.07, 1724.03, 1739.061, 1751.01, 679
1751.11, 1751.12, 1751.14, 1751.271, 1751.31, 1751.60, 1901.10, 680
1901.12, 1907.14, 1923.14, 2101.24, 2108.05, 2113.041, 2113.06, 681
2117.061, 2117.25, 2133.01, 2133.25, 2151.011, 2151.3514, 682
2151.362, 2151.83, 2151.86, 2152.54, 2152.59, 2301.14, 2303.201, 683
2305.234, 2307.65, 2311.14, 2317.02, 2317.422, 2335.09, 2335.11, 684
2505.02, 2701.03, 2701.031, 2743.03, 2743.09, 2743.121, 2743.20, 685
2743.48, 2743.52, 2743.53, 2743.531, 2743.55, 2743.60, 2743.601, 686
2743.61, 2743.62, 2743.63, 2743.64, 2743.65, 2743.66, 2743.67, 687
2743.68, 2743.69, 2743.71, 2744.05, 2744.08, 2744.081, 2744.082, 688
2901.13, 2901.30, 2903.33, 2907.22, 2913.01, 2913.40, 2913.401, 689
2919.271, 2921.01, 2921.22, 2921.36, 2921.38, 2923.126, 2925.03, 690
2929.15, 2930.01, 2935.03, 2935.33, 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 691
2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, 2951.041, 2953.32, 2967.22, 2981.01, 692
2981.12, 2981.13, 3101.051, 3107.083, 3109.15, 3111.04, 3111.72, 693
3119.29, 3119.54, 3121.441, 3121.89, 3121.891, 3121.892, 3121.893, 694
3121.898, 3123.958, 3125.18, 3125.36, 3301.07, 3301.0712, 695
3301.0714, 3301.0715, 3301.0723, 3301.0725, 3301.15, 3302.01, 696
3302.03, 3302.032, 3302.20, 3302.21, 3302.22, 3303.41, 3304.11, 697
3304.12, 3304.13, 3304.14, 3304.15, 3304.16, 3304.17, 3304.18, 698
3304.181, 3304.182, 3304.19, 3304.20, 3304.21, 3304.22, 3304.23, 699
3304.231, 3304.25, 3304.27, 3304.28, 3304.41, 3305.03, 3307.51, 700
3309.21, 3310.01, 3310.02, 3310.03, 3310.05, 3310.06, 3310.08, 701
3310.56, 3311.0510, 3311.19, 3311.22, 3311.231, 3311.38, 3311.86, 702
3312.08, 3313.372, 3313.376, 3313.48, 3313.483, 3313.484, 703
3313.488, 3313.4810, 3313.533, 3313.539, 3313.603, 3313.6013, 704
3313.6016, 3313.612, 3313.615, 3313.62, 3313.64, 3313.646, 705
3313.65, 3313.714, 3313.715, 3313.83, 3313.841, 3313.843, 706
3313.844, 3313.845, 3313.847, 3313.88, 3313.911, 3313.978, 707
3313.98, 3313.981, 3314.015, 3314.017, 3314.027, 3314.029, 708
3314.03, 3314.05, 3314.06, 3314.072, 3314.074, 3314.08, 3314.083, 709
3314.084, 3314.087, 3314.09, 3314.091, 3314.11, 3314.26, 3314.35, 710
3315.40, 3315.42, 3316.041, 3316.06, 3317.01, 3317.013, 3317.021, 711
3317.023, 3317.0212, 3317.03, 3317.032, 3317.05, 3317.06, 712
3317.063, 3317.08, 3317.10, 3317.14, 3317.18, 3317.19, 3317.20, 713
3317.50, 3317.51, 3318.011, 3318.031, 3318.08, 3318.31, 3318.36, 714
3318.363, 3319.07, 3319.073, 3319.0811, 3319.112, 3319.17, 715
3319.22, 3319.235, 3319.57, 3319.58, 3321.01, 3321.05, 3323.021, 716
3323.03, 3323.04, 3323.07, 3323.08, 3323.09, 3323.091, 3323.13, 717
3323.14, 3323.141, 3323.142, 3326.07, 3326.08, 3326.11, 3326.20, 718
3326.31, 3326.32, 3326.33, 3326.34, 3326.38, 3326.45, 3327.01, 719
3333.041, 3333.73, 3333.82, 3334.08, 3335.35, 3335.36, 3335.37, 720
3335.38, 3345.05, 3345.06, 3345.12, 3353.01, 3353.02, 3353.03, 721
3353.04, 3353.06, 3353.07, 3365.01, 3365.02, 3365.021, 3365.07, 722
3365.12, 3383.01, 3383.07, 3501.01, 3517.10, 3517.102, 3517.103, 723
3517.153, 3517.154, 3517.155, 3517.20, 3517.992, 3599.45, 724
3701.023, 3701.024, 3701.027, 3701.041, 3701.13, 3701.132, 725
3701.243, 3701.261, 3701.262, 3701.264, 3701.342, 3701.344, 726
3701.507, 3701.74, 3701.741, 3701.742, 3701.78, 3701.83, 3701.881, 727
3701.921, 3701.922, 3701.99, 3702.30, 3702.51, 3702.521, 3702.55, 728
3702.62, 3702.74, 3702.91, 3704.144, 3706.01, 3707.511, 3709.01, 729
3709.051, 3709.10, 3712.051, 3712.07, 3712.09, 3713.06, 3714.03, 730
3714.07, 3717.08, 3718.06, 3719.61, 3721.01, 3721.011, 3721.02, 731
3721.022, 3721.024, 3721.027, 3721.042, 3721.071, 3721.08, 732
3721.10, 3721.12, 3721.121, 3721.13, 3721.14, 3721.15, 3721.16, 733
3721.17, 3721.19, 3721.50, 3721.51, 3721.511, 3721.512, 3721.513, 734
3721.52, 3721.53, 3721.531, 3721.532, 3721.533, 3721.54, 3721.541, 735
3721.55, 3721.56, 3721.57, 3721.58, 3727.01, 3734.28, 3734.57, 736
3734.901, 3734.907, 3735.58, 3735.67, 3737.02, 3737.83, 3737.841, 737
3737.88, 3737.882, 3742.30, 3742.31, 3742.32, 3742.51, 3745.11, 738
3745.113, 3745.72, 3769.08, 3769.087, 3769.088, 3770.02, 3770.06, 739
3772.062, 3781.112, 3793.01, 3793.031, 3793.032, 3793.051, 740
3793.10, 3793.11, 3793.12, 3793.13, 3793.14, 3793.15, 3793.16, 741
3793.18, 3793.22, 3793.31, 3793.32, 3793.33, 3793.34, 3793.35, 742
3793.36, 3793.37, 3793.38, 3793.39, 3795.01, 3798.01, 3798.10, 743
3798.13, 3798.14, 3798.15, 3798.16, 3901.3814, 3903.14, 3905.40, 744
3905.483, 3905.862, 3916.06, 3923.24, 3923.241, 3923.281, 745
3923.443, 3923.49, 3923.50, 3923.601, 3923.83, 3924.41, 3924.42, 746
3963.01, 3963.04, 4104.33, 4112.02, 4112.12, 4112.31, 4115.034, 747
4115.32, 4117.06, 4117.14, 4117.15, 4121.44, 4121.441, 4121.50, 748
4121.69, 4123.32, 4123.35, 4123.41, 4123.54, 4123.57, 4123.93, 749
4131.03, 4141.162, 4141.29, 4301.01, 4301.10, 4301.30, 4301.43, 750
4301.62, 4303.181, 4305.131, 4501.01, 4501.21, 4503.03, 4503.10, 751
4503.44, 4503.62, 4505.02, 4505.09, 4506.07, 4507.01, 4507.06, 752
4507.51, 4510.038, 4510.45, 4511.19, 4511.191, 4511.21, 4511.69, 753
4511.85, 4513.34, 4701.03, 4707.02, 4707.073, 4707.10, 4709.11, 754
4713.08, 4713.44, 4715.22, 4715.36, 4715.372, 4717.03, 4717.06, 755
4717.07, 4717.10, 4717.14, 4717.15, 4719.01, 4723.18, 4723.35, 756
4723.481, 4725.03, 4725.16, 4729.51, 4729.54, 4729.69, 4729.77, 757
4729.78, 4729.79, 4729.80, 4729.81, 4729.99, 4730.411, 4731.151, 758
4731.23, 4731.65, 4731.71, 4734.41, 4735.07, 4735.09, 4735.10, 759
4735.142, 4735.56, 4742.01, 4751.01, 4751.02, 4751.03, 4751.04, 760
4751.041, 4751.05, 4751.06, 4751.07, 4751.08, 4751.10, 4751.11, 761
4751.12, 4751.13, 4753.071, 4755.11, 4755.47, 4755.481, 4755.64, 762
4758.10, 4758.11, 4761.01, 4778.02, 4778.03, 4781.121, 4781.28, 763
4781.29, 4906.20, 5101.01, 5101.11, 5101.141, 5101.16, 5101.162, 764
5101.18, 5101.181, 5101.183, 5101.184, 5101.26, 5101.271, 765
5101.272, 5101.273, 5101.30, 5101.31, 5101.34, 5101.35, 5101.36, 766
5101.46, 5101.461, 5101.47, 5101.49, 5101.50, 5101.501, 5101.502, 767
5101.51, 5101.511, 5101.512, 5101.513, 5101.516, 5101.517, 768
5101.519, 5101.5110, 5101.52, 5101.521, 5101.522, 5101.524, 769
5101.527, 5101.571, 5101.572, 5101.573, 5101.574, 5101.575, 770
5101.58, 5101.59, 5101.591, 5101.60, 5101.61, 5101.80, 5101.801, 771
5101.803, 5103.02, 5103.0323, 5103.13, 5103.42, 5104.012, 772
5104.013, 5104.02, 5104.021, 5104.03, 5104.08, 5104.11, 5104.12, 773
5104.32, 5107.10, 5107.14, 5107.16, 5107.20, 5107.24, 5107.26, 774
5107.42, 5107.64, 5111.01, 5111.011, 5111.013, 5111.016, 5111.018, 775
5111.0112, 5111.0114, 5111.0116, 5111.0117, 5111.0118, 5111.0119, 776
5111.02, 5111.021, 5111.022, 5111.023, 5111.024, 5111.025, 777
5111.027, 5111.028, 5111.029, 5111.0210, 5111.0211, 5111.0212, 778
5111.0213, 5111.0214, 5111.0215, 5111.03, 5111.031, 5111.032, 779
5111.033, 5111.034, 5111.035, 5111.04, 5111.042, 5111.05, 780
5111.051, 5111.052, 5111.053, 5111.054, 5111.06, 5111.061, 781
5111.062, 5111.063, 5111.07, 5111.071, 5111.08, 5111.081, 782
5111.082, 5111.083, 5111.084, 5111.085, 5111.086, 5111.09, 783
5111.091, 5111.092, 5111.10, 5111.101, 5111.102, 5111.11, 784
5111.111, 5111.112, 5111.113, 5111.114, 5111.12, 5111.121, 785
5111.13, 5111.14, 5111.141, 5111.15, 5111.151, 5111.16, 5111.161, 786
5111.162, 5111.163, 5111.17, 5111.171, 5111.172, 5111.173, 787
5111.174, 5111.175, 5111.177, 5111.178, 5111.179, 5111.1710, 788
5111.1711, 5111.18, 5111.181, 5111.19, 5111.191, 5111.20, 789
5111.201, 5111.202, 5111.203, 5111.204, 5111.21, 5111.212, 790
5111.22, 5111.221, 5111.222, 5111.223, 5111.224, 5111.225, 791
5111.226, 5111.23, 5111.231, 5111.232, 5111.233, 5111.235, 792
5111.24, 5111.241, 5111.242, 5111.244, 5111.245, 5111.246, 793
5111.25, 5111.251, 5111.254, 5111.255, 5111.257, 5111.258, 794
5111.259, 5111.26, 5111.261, 5111.262, 5111.263, 5111.264, 795
5111.265, 5111.266, 5111.27, 5111.271, 5111.28, 5111.29, 5111.291, 796
5111.30, 5111.31, 5111.32, 5111.33, 5111.331, 5111.35, 5111.36, 797
5111.37, 5111.38, 5111.39, 5111.41, 5111.411, 5111.42, 5111.43, 798
5111.44, 5111.45, 5111.46, 5111.47, 5111.48, 5111.49, 5111.50, 799
5111.51, 5111.511, 5111.52, 5111.53, 5111.54, 5111.55, 5111.56, 800
5111.57, 5111.58, 5111.59, 5111.60, 5111.61, 5111.62, 5111.63, 801
5111.66, 5111.661, 5111.67, 5111.671, 5111.672, 5111.673, 802
5111.674, 5111.675, 5111.676, 5111.677, 5111.68, 5111.681, 803
5111.682, 5111.683, 5111.684, 5111.685, 5111.686, 5111.687, 804
5111.688, 5111.689, 5111.70, 5111.701, 5111.702, 5111.703, 805
5111.704, 5111.705, 5111.707, 5111.708, 5111.709, 5111.7011, 806
5111.71, 5111.711, 5111.712, 5111.713, 5111.714, 5111.715, 807
5111.83, 5111.84, 5111.85, 5111.851, 5111.852, 5111.853, 5111.854, 808
5111.855, 5111.856, 5111.86, 5111.861, 5111.862, 5111.863, 809
5111.864, 5111.865, 5111.87, 5111.871, 5111.872, 5111.873, 810
5111.874, 5111.875, 5111.876, 5111.877, 5111.878, 5111.879, 811
5111.88, 5111.881, 5111.882, 5111.885, 5111.886, 5111.887, 812
5111.888, 5111.889, 5111.8810, 5111.89, 5111.891, 5111.892, 813
5111.894, 5111.90, 5111.91, 5111.911, 5111.912, 5111.914, 814
5111.915, 5111.92, 5111.93, 5111.94, 5111.941, 5111.943, 5111.944, 815
5111.945, 5111.96, 5111.97, 5111.98, 5111.981, 5111.982, 5111.99, 816
5112.01, 5112.03, 5112.04, 5112.05, 5112.06, 5112.07, 5112.08, 817
5112.09, 5112.10, 5112.11, 5112.17, 5112.18, 5112.19, 5112.21, 818
5112.30, 5112.31, 5112.32, 5112.33, 5112.331, 5112.34, 5112.341, 819
5112.35, 5112.37, 5112.371, 5112.38, 5112.39, 5112.40, 5112.41, 820
5112.42, 5112.43, 5112.44, 5112.45, 5112.46, 5112.47, 5112.48, 821
5112.99, 5112.991, 5115.20, 5117.10, 5119.01, 5119.012, 5119.02, 822
5119.04, 5119.06, 5119.061, 5119.07, 5119.071, 5119.072, 5119.08, 823
5119.10, 5119.101, 5119.11, 5119.12, 5119.14, 5119.16, 5119.161, 824
5119.17, 5119.18, 5119.20, 5119.201, 5119.202, 5119.21, 5119.22, 825
5119.221, 5119.23, 5119.24, 5119.27, 5119.30, 5119.33, 5119.34, 826
5119.35, 5119.351, 5119.36, 5119.42, 5119.43, 5119.44, 5119.46, 827
5119.51, 5119.52, 5119.53, 5119.57, 5119.60, 5119.61, 5119.611, 828
5119.612, 5119.613, 5119.62, 5119.621, 5119.622, 5119.63, 829
5119.631, 5119.69, 5119.691, 5119.99, 5120.07, 5120.09, 5120.135, 830
5120.17, 5120.171, 5120.652, 5120.654, 5121.051, 5121.30, 5121.32, 831
5121.33, 5121.34, 5121.35, 5121.36, 5121.37, 5121.38, 5121.40, 832
5121.42, 5121.43, 5121.44, 5121.45, 5121.46, 5121.47, 5121.49, 833
5121.50, 5121.51, 5121.52, 5121.55, 5122.01, 5122.03, 5122.10, 834
5122.11, 5122.12, 5122.13, 5122.15, 5122.17, 5122.18, 5122.19, 835
5122.20, 5122.21, 5122.23, 5122.25, 5122.26, 5122.27, 5122.271, 836
5122.31, 5122.311, 5122.32, 5122.33, 5122.34, 5122.341, 5122.39, 837
5122.43, 5122.44, 5122.45, 5122.46, 5122.47, 5123.01, 5123.021, 838
5123.022, 5123.03, 5123.0412, 5123.0417, 5123.09, 5123.171, 839
5123.19, 5123.192, 5123.197, 5123.198, 5123.38, 5123.61, 5123.86, 840
5126.01, 5126.026, 5126.043, 5126.05, 5126.051, 5126.054, 841
5126.055, 5139.03, 5139.04, 5139.08, 5139.34, 5145.162, 5145.18, 842
5153.16, 5302.221, 5309.082, 5309.68, 5309.86, 5501.311, 5501.312, 843
5501.73, 5502.011, 5505.12, 5507.01, 5507.02, 5507.021, 5507.022, 844
5507.03, 5507.06, 5507.07, 5507.08, 5507.09, 5507.12, 5507.15, 845
5507.18, 5507.22, 5507.25, 5507.26, 5507.27, 5507.32, 5507.34, 846
5507.40, 5507.42, 5507.44, 5507.46, 5507.52, 5507.53, 5507.54, 847
5507.55, 5507.57, 5507.571, 5507.60, 5507.63, 5507.99, 5511.03, 848
5515.08, 5701.13, 5703.052, 5703.059, 5703.21, 5703.37, 5703.82, 849
5705.01, 5705.19, 5705.192, 5705.21, 5705.217, 5705.218, 5705.221, 850
5705.25, 5709.17, 5715.19, 5715.27, 5717.01, 5725.18, 5725.34, 851
5726.20, 5726.52, 5727.26, 5727.75, 5727.84, 5727.89, 5728.10, 852
5729.03, 5729.17, 5731.39, 5733.01, 5733.06, 5733.11, 5733.55, 853
5733.98, 5735.012, 5735.12, 5735.27, 5735.34, 5739.01, 5739.02, 854
5739.026, 5739.09, 5739.13, 5741.01, 5741.03, 5741.17, 5743.081, 855
5743.15, 5743.56, 5745.12, 5747.01, 5747.02, 5747.022, 5747.025, 856
5747.08, 5747.10, 5747.11, 5747.113, 5747.122, 5747.13, 5747.21, 857
5747.22, 5747.47, 5747.501, 5747.76, 5747.98, 5748.01, 5749.02, 858
5749.06, 5749.07, 5749.17, 5751.01, 5751.011, 5751.02, 5751.03, 859
5751.07, 5751.081, 5751.09, 5751.20, 5751.21, 5753.03, 5753.07, 860
5815.28, 5902.02, 5905.02, 5910.02, 5910.07, 5919.34, 5924.502, 861
5924.503, 5924.504, 5924.506, 6109.21, and 6111.037 be amended; 862
sections 173.394 (173.38), 173.40 (173.52), 173.401 (173.521), 863
173.402 (173.524), 173.403 (173.53), 173.404 (173.55), 3304.14 864
(3304.15), 3304.15 (3304.16), 3304.16 (3304.14), 3304.23 865
(3335.60), 3304.231 (3335.61), 3313.847 (3317.30), 3333.90 866
(3333.59), 3383.01 (123.28), 3383.07 (123.281), 3701.041 (124.88), 867
3721.50 (5168.40), 3721.51 (5168.42), 3721.511 (5168.43), 3721.512 868
(5168.44), 3721.513 (5168.45), 3721.52 (5168.46), 3721.53 869
(5168.47), 3721.531 (5168.48), 3721.532 (5168.49), 3721.533 870
(5168.50), 3721.54 (5168.51), 3721.541 (5168.52), 3721.55 871
(5168.53), 3721.56 (5168.54), 3721.57 (5168.55), 3721.58 872
(5168.56), 3737.883 (3737.884), 3793.01 (5119.01), 3793.031 873
(5119.201), 3793.032 (5119.47), 3793.051 (5119.161), 3793.10 874
(5119.38), 3793.11 (5119.39), 3793.12 (5119.61), 3793.13 875
(5119.27), 3793.14 (5119.26), 3793.15 (5119.17), 3793.16 876
(5119.188), 3793.18 (5119.30), 3793.22 (5119.49), 3793.31 877
(5119.90), 3793.32 (5119.91), 3793.33 (5119.92), 3793.34 878
(5119.93), 3793.35 (5119.94), 3793.36 (5119.95), 3793.37 879
(5119.96), 3793.38 (5119.97), 3793.39 (5119.98), 5101.271 880
(5160.45), 5101.31 (5164.756), 5101.50 (5161.05), 5101.501 881
(5161.06), 5101.502 (5161.02), 5101.51 (5161.10), 5101.511 882
(5161.11), 5101.5110 (5161.35), 5101.512 (5161.12), 5101.513 883
(5161.30), 5101.516 (5161.22), 5101.517 (5161.24), 5101.519 884
(5161.27), 5101.52 (5161.15), 5101.521 (5161.16), 5101.522 885
(5161.17), 5101.524 (5161.20), 5101.527 (5161.25), 5101.571 886
(5160.35), 5101.572 (5160.39), 5101.573 (5160.40), 5101.574 887
(5160.41), 5101.575 (5160.42), 5101.58 (5160.37), 5101.59 888
(5160.38), 5101.591 (5160.43), 5111.01 (5162.03), 5111.011 889
(5163.02), 5111.013 (5163.40), 5111.016 (5164.26), 5111.018 890
(5164.07), 5111.0112 (5162.20), 5111.0114 (5164.754), 5111.0116 891
(5163.30), 5111.0117 (5163.31), 5111.0118 (5163.32), 5111.0119 892
(5163.45), 5111.02 (5164.02), 5111.021 (5164.70), 5111.022 893
(5164.56), 5111.023 (5164.15), 5111.024 (5164.08), 5111.025 894
(5164.76), 5111.027 (5164.20), 5111.028 (5164.32), 5111.029 895
(5164.06), 5111.0210 (5164.92), 5111.0211 (5165.48), 5111.0212 896
(5164.80), 5111.0213 (5164.77), 5111.0214 (5164.82), 5111.0215 897
(5164.93), 5111.03 (5164.35), 5111.031 (5164.37), 5111.032 898
(5164.34), 5111.033 (5164.342), 5111.034 (5164.341), 5111.035 899
(5164.36), 5111.04 (5164.05), 5111.042 (5164.25), 5111.05 900
(5164.45), 5111.051 (5164.48), 5111.052 (5164.46), 5111.053 901
(5164.301), 5111.054 (5164.47), 5111.06 (5164.38), 5111.061 902
(5164.57), 5111.062 (5164.39), 5111.063 (5164.31), 5111.07 903
(5164.752), 5111.071 (5164.753), 5111.08 (5164.759), 5111.081 904
(5164.755), 5111.082 (5164.751), 5111.083 (5164.757), 5111.084 905
(5164.7510), 5111.085 (5164.758), 5111.086 (5164.75), 5111.09 906
(5162.13), 5111.091 (5162.131), 5111.092 (5162.132), 5111.10 907
(5162.10), 5111.101 (5162.15), 5111.102 (5162.04), 5111.11 908
(5162.21), 5111.111 (5162.211), 5111.112 (5162.212), 5111.113 909
(5162.22), 5111.114 (5163.33), 5111.12 (5162.23), 5111.121 910
(5162.24), 5111.13 (5164.85), 5111.14 (5164.88), 5111.141 911
(5164.89), 5111.15 (5163.20), 5111.151 (5163.21), 5111.16 912
(5167.03), 5111.161 (5167.031), 5111.162 (5167.20), 5111.163 913
(5167.201), 5111.17 (5167.10), 5111.171 (5167.31), 5111.172 914
(5167.12), 5111.173 (5167.40), 5111.174 (5167.41), 5111.175 915
(5167.26), 5111.177 (5167.11), 5111.178 (5167.25), 5111.179 916
(5167.13), 5111.1710 (5167.14), 5111.1711 (5167.30), 5111.18 917
(5164.86), 5111.181 (5163.22), 5111.19 (5164.74), 5111.191 918
(5164.741), 5111.20 (5165.01), 5111.201 (5165.011), 5111.202 919
(5165.03), 5111.203 (5165.031), 5111.204 (5165.04), 5111.21 920
(5165.06), 5111.212 (5165.35), 5111.22 (5165.07), 5111.221 921
(5165.37), 5111.222 (5165.15), 5111.223 (5165.071), 5111.224 922
(5124.15), 5111.225 (5165.155), 5111.226 (5124.02), 5111.23 923
(5124.19), 5111.231 (5165.19), 5111.232 (5165.192), 5111.233 924
(5124.194), 5111.235 (5124.23), 5111.24 (5165.16), 5111.241 925
(5124.21), 5111.242 (5165.21), 5111.244 (5165.25), 5111.245 926
(5165.26), 5111.246 (5165.23), 5111.25 (5165.17), 5111.251 927
(5124.17), 5111.254 (5165.151), 5111.255 (5124.151), 5111.257 928
(5165.28), 5111.258 (5165.153), 5111.259 (5165.156), 5111.26 929
(5165.10), 5111.261 (5165.107), 5111.262 (5165.47), 5111.263 930
(5124.29), 5111.264 (5165.30), 5111.265 (5165.29), 5111.266 931
(5165.101), 5111.27 (5165.108), 5111.271 (5165.1010), 5111.28 932
(5165.40), 5111.29 (5165.38), 5111.291 (5124.154), 5111.30 933
(5165.073), 5111.31 (5165.08), 5111.32 (5165.081), 5111.33 934
(5124.34), 5111.331 (5165.34), 5111.35 (5165.60), 5111.36 935
(5165.61), 5111.37 (5165.62), 5111.38 (5165.63), 5111.39 936
(5165.64), 5111.40 (5165.65), 5111.41 (5165.66), 5111.411 937
(5165.67), 5111.42 (5165.68), 5111.43 (5165.69), 5111.44 938
(5165.70), 5111.45 (5165.71), 5111.46 (5165.72), 5111.47 939
(5165.73), 5111.48 (5165.74), 5111.49 (5165.75), 5111.50 940
(5165.76), 5111.51 (5165.77), 5111.511 (5165.78), 5111.52 941
(5165.79), 5111.53 (5165.80), 5111.54 (5165.81), 5111.55 942
(5165.82), 5111.56 (5165.83), 5111.57 (5165.84), 5111.58 943
(5165.85), 5111.59 (5165.86), 5111.60 (5165.87), 5111.61 944
(5165.88), 5111.62 (5162.66), 5111.63 (5165.89), 5111.66 945
(5165.50), 5111.661 (5165.501), 5111.67 (5165.51), 5111.671 946
(5165.511), 5111.672 (5165.512), 5111.673 (5165.513), 5111.674 947
(5165.514), 5111.675 (5165.515), 5111.676 (5165.516), 5111.677 948
(5165.517), 5111.68 (5165.52), 5111.681 (5165.521), 5111.682 949
(5165.522), 5111.683 (5165.523), 5111.684 (5165.524), 5111.685 950
(5165.525), 5111.686 (5165.526), 5111.687 (5165.527), 5111.688 951
(5165.528), 5111.689 (5165.53), 5111.70 (5163.09), 5111.701 952
(5163.091), 5111.702 (5163.092), 5111.703 (5163.093), 5111.704 953
(5163.094), 5111.705 (5163.095), 5111.706 (5163.096), 5111.707 954
(5163.097), 5111.708 (5163.098), 5111.709 (5163.099), 5111.7011 955
(5163.0910), 5111.71 (5162.36), 5111.711 (5162.361), 5111.712 956
(5162.362), 5111.713 (5162.363), 5111.714 (5162.64), 5111.715 957
(5162.364), 5111.83 (5162.30), 5111.84 (5166.03), 5111.85 958
(5166.02), 5111.851 (5166.04), 5111.852 (5166.05), 5111.853 959
(5166.06), 5111.854 (5166.07), 5111.855 (5166.08), 5111.856 960
(5166.10), 5111.86 (5166.11), 5111.861 (5166.12), 5111.862 961
(5166.121), 5111.863 (5166.13), 5111.864 (5166.14), 5111.865 962
(5166.141), 5111.87 (5166.20), 5111.871 (5166.21), 5111.872 963
(5166.22), 5111.873 (5166.23), 5111.874 (5124.60), 5111.875 964
(5124.61), 5111.876 (5124.62), 5111.877 (5124.63), 5111.878 965
(5124.64), 5111.879 (5124.65), 5111.88 (5166.30), 5111.881 966
(5166.301), 5111.882 (5166.302), 5111.883 (5166.303), 5111.884 967
(5166.304), 5111.885 (5166.305), 5111.886 (5166.306), 5111.887 968
(5166.307), 5111.888 (5166.308), 5111.889 (5166.309), 5111.8810 969
(5166.3010), 5111.89 (173.54), 5111.891 (173.541), 5111.892 970
(173.544), 5111.893 (173.547), 5111.894 (173.542), 5111.90 971
(5162.32), 5111.91 (5162.35), 5111.911 (5162.37), 5111.912 972
(5162.371), 5111.914 (5164.58), 5111.915 (5162.11), 5111.92 973
(5162.40), 5111.93 (5162.41), 5111.94 (5162.54), 5111.941 974
(5162.52), 5111.943 (5162.50), 5111.944 (5162.58), 5111.945 975
(5162.56), 5111.96 (5164.90), 5111.97 (5166.35), 5111.98 976
(5162.031), 5111.981 (5164.91), 5111.982 (5167.21), 5111.99 977
(5165.99), 5112.01 (5168.01), 5112.03 (5168.02), 5112.04 978
(5168.05), 5112.05 (5168.03), 5112.06 (5168.06), 5112.07 979
(5168.07), 5112.08 (5168.09), 5112.09 (5168.08), 5112.10 980
(5168.04), 5112.11 (5168.10), 5112.17 (5168.14), 5112.18 981
(5168.11), 5112.19 (5168.12), 5112.21 (5168.13), 5112.30 982
(5168.60), 5112.31 (5168.61), 5112.32 (5168.62), 5112.33 983
(5168.63), 5112.331 (5168.64), 5112.34 (5168.65), 5112.341 984
(5168.66), 5112.35 (5168.67), 5112.37 (5168.68), 5112.371 985
(5168.69), 5112.38 (5168.70), 5112.39 (5168.71), 5112.40 986
(5168.20), 5112.41 (5168.21), 5112.42 (5168.22), 5112.43 987
(5168.23), 5112.44 (5168.24), 5112.45 (5168.25), 5112.46 988
(5168.26), 5112.47 (5168.27), 5112.48 (5168.28), 5112.99 989
(5168.99), 5112.991 (5168.991), 5119.01 (5119.10), 5119.012 990
(5119.141), 5119.02 (5119.14), 5119.06 (5119.21), 5119.061 991
(5119.40), 5119.07 (5119.11), 5119.071 (5119.18), 5119.072 992
(5119.181), 5119.08 (5119.182), 5119.10 (5119.184), 5119.101 993
(5119.185), 5119.11 (5119.186), 5119.12 (5119.187), 5119.14 994
(5119.08), 5119.16 (5119.44), 5119.161 (5119.45), 5119.17 995
(5119.51), 5119.18 (5119.46), 5119.20 (5119.33), 5119.201 996
(5119.331), 5119.202 (5119.332), 5119.21 (5119.333), 5119.22 997
(5119.34), 5119.221 (5119.342), 5119.23 (5119.31), 5119.24 998
(5119.15), 5119.27 (5119.05), 5119.30 (5119.09), 5119.33 999
(5119.54), 5119.34 (5119.50), 5119.35 (5119.56), 5119.351 1000
(5119.55), 5119.36 (5119.52), 5119.42 (5119.07), 5119.43 1001
(5119.06), 5119.44 (5119.051), 5119.46 (5119.60), 5119.50 1002
(5119.70), 5119.51 (5119.71), 5119.52 (5119.72), 5119.53 1003
(5119.73), 5119.57 (5119.29), 5119.60 (5119.32), 5119.61 1004
(5119.22), 5119.611 (5119.36), 5119.612 (5119.37), 5119.613 1005
(5119.361), 5119.62 (5119.23), 5119.621 (5119.24), 5119.622 1006
(5119.25), 5119.63 (5119.42), 5119.631 (5119.421), 5119.69 1007
(5119.41), 5119.691 (5119.411), 5507.01 (128.01), 5507.02 1008
(128.02), 5507.021 (128.021), 5507.022 (128.022), 5507.03 1009
(128.03), 5507.06 (128.06), 5507.07 (128.07), 5507.08 (128.08), 1010
5507.09 (128.09), 5507.12 (128.12), 5507.15 (128.15), 5507.18 1011
(128.18), 5507.22 (128.22), 5507.25 (128.25), 5507.26 (128.26), 1012
5507.27 (128.27), 5507.32 (128.32), 5507.34 (128.34), 5507.40 1013
(128.40), 5507.42 (128.42), 5507.44 (128.44), 5507.46 (128.46), 1014
5507.52 (128.52), 5507.53 (128.53), 5507.54 (128.54), 5507.55 1015
(128.55), 5507.57 (128.57), 5507.571 (128.571), 5507.60 (128.60), 1016
5507.63 (128.63), and 5507.99 (128.99) be amended for the purpose 1017
of adopting new section numbers as indicated in parentheses; new 1018
sections 1901.121, 3313.481, 3317.014, 3317.02, 3317.022, 1019
3317.0217, 3317.051, 3317.16, 3326.39, 3327.02, 3345.81, and 1020
3737.883 and sections 1.611, 101.392, 103.0521, 121.483, 122.681, 1021
123.19, 125.27, 126.211, 149.307, 173.51, 173.522, 173.523, 1022
173.525, 173.543, 173.545, 173.546, 173.56, 173.60, 191.061, 1023
340.08, 353.01, 353.02, 353.03, 353.04, 353.05, 353.06, 353.07, 1024
353.08, 353.09, 353.10, 353.11, 353.12, 353.13, 353.14, 353.15, 1025
353.16, 511.261, 517.271, 721.29, 903.30, 991.041, 1327.502, 1026
1509.16, 1545.23, 1547.532, 1901.122, 1901.123, 1907.141, 1027
1907.142, 1907.143, 2329.192, 2743.041, 3302.26, 3310.032, 1028
3310.035, 3313.6018, 3313.6019, 3313.848, 3313.849, 3314.042, 1029
3314.082, 3314.086, 3314.092, 3314.29, 3317.016, 3317.017, 1030
3317.0213, 3317.0214, 3317.161, 3317.40, 3319.031, 3319.0812, 1031
3325.13, 3325.14, 3326.112, 3327.07, 3328.27, 3333.049, 3333.124, 1032
3333.342, 3333.613, 3337.16, 3345.48, 3350.15, 3365.022, 3501.054, 1033
3701.033, 3701.94, 3701.941, 3701.942, 3701.943, 3701.944, 1034
3701.95, 3701.96, 3701.98, 3702.302, 3702.303, 3702.304, 3702.305, 1035
3702.306, 3702.307, 3702.308, 3714.074, 3721.072, 3772.36, 1036
4123.322, 4503.524, 4503.526, 4503.732, 4503.95, 4503.96, 1037
4713.641, 4729.542, 4731.299, 4751.042, 4751.14, 5101.101, 1038
5101.804, 5119.28, 5119.341, 5123.023, 5124.01, 5124.03, 5124.05, 1039
5124.06, 5124.07, 5124.071, 5124.072, 5124.08, 5124.081, 5124.10, 1040
5124.101, 5124.102, 5124.103, 5124.104, 5124.105, 5124.106, 1041
5124.107, 5124.108, 5124.109, 5124.152, 5124.153, 5124.191, 1042
5124.192, 5124.193, 5124.25, 5124.28, 5124.30, 5124.31, 5124.32, 1043
5124.33, 5124.35, 5124.37, 5124.38, 5124.40, 5124.41, 5124.42, 1044
5124.43, 5124.44, 5124.45, 5124.46, 5124.50, 5124.51, 5124.511, 1045
5124.512, 5124.513, 5124.514, 5124.515, 5124.516, 5124.517, 1046
5124.52, 5124.521, 5124.522, 5124.523, 5124.524, 5124.525, 1047
5124.526, 5124.527, 5124.528, 5124.53, 5124.67, 5124.99, 5126.131, 1048
5139.282, 5160.01, 5160.011, 5160.02, 5160.021, 5160.03, 5160.04, 1049
5160.05, 5160.051, 5160.052, 5160.06, 5160.10, 5160.11, 5160.12, 1050
5160.13, 5160.16, 5160.20, 5160.21, 5160.22, 5160.23, 5160.30, 1051
5160.31, 5160.371, 5160.46, 5160.47, 5160.48, 5160.481, 5160.50, 1052
5160.52, 5160.99, 5161.01, 5162.01, 5162.02, 5162.021, 5162.022, 1053
5162.05, 5162.06, 5162.07, 5162.12, 5162.31, 5162.60, 5162.62, 1054
5163.01, 5163.03, 5163.04, 5163.05, 5163.06, 5163.061, 5163.08, 1055
5164.01, 5164.03, 5164.30, 5164.33, 5164.55, 5164.59, 5164.60, 1056
5164.61, 5164.71, 5164.72, 5164.73, 5164.78, 5164.83, 5164.911, 1057
5165.02, 5165.072, 5165.082, 5165.102, 5165.103, 5165.104, 1058
5165.105, 5165.106, 5165.109, 5165.152, 5165.154, 5165.191, 1059
5165.193, 5165.32, 5165.33, 5165.41, 5165.42, 5165.43, 5165.44, 1060
5165.45, 5165.46, 5165.49, 5165.771, 5166.01, 5166.16, 5167.01, 1061
5167.02, 5168.41, 5703.75, 5703.76, 5705.55, 5735.013, 5741.032, 1062
5751.40, 5910.08, 5919.342, and 6133.041 of the Revised Code be 1063
enacted to read as follows:1064

       Sec. 1.611. As used in the Revised Code, "OSU extension" 1065
means the cooperative extension service that was established by 1066
the "Smith-Lever Act," 38 Stat. 372 (1914), 7 U.S.C. 341 et seq., 1067
and is administered in this state by the Ohio state university.1068

       Sec. 9.03.  (A) As used in this section:1069

       (1) "Political subdivision" means any body corporate and 1070
politic, except a municipal corporation that has adopted a charter 1071
under Section 7 of Article XVIII, Ohio Constitution, and except a 1072
county that has adopted a charter under Sections 3 and 4 of 1073
Article X, Ohio Constitution, to which both of the following 1074
apply:1075

       (a) It is responsible for governmental activities only in a 1076
geographic area smaller than the state.1077

       (b) It is subject to the sovereign immunity of the state.1078

       (2) "Cigarettes" and "tobacco product" have the same meanings 1079
as in section 5743.01 of the Revised Code.1080

       (3) "Transaction" has the same meaning as in section 1315.51 1081
of the Revised Code.1082

       (4) "Campaign committee," "campaign fund," "candidate," 1083
"legislative campaign fund," "political action committee," 1084
"political committee," "political party," and "separate segregated 1085
fund" have the same meanings as in section 3517.01 of the Revised 1086
Code.1087

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in division (C) of this 1088
section, the governing body of a political subdivision may use 1089
public funds to publish and distribute newsletters, or to use any 1090
other means, to communicate information about the plans, policies, 1091
and operations of the political subdivision to members of the 1092
public within the political subdivision and to other persons who 1093
may be affected by the political subdivision.1094

       (C) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(7) of 1095
section 340.03 or division (A)(12) of section 340.033 of the 1096
Revised Code, no governing body of a political subdivision shall 1097
use public funds to do any of the following:1098

       (1) Publish, distribute, or otherwise communicate information 1099
that does any of the following:1100

       (a) Contains defamatory, libelous, or obscene matter;1101

       (b) Promotes alcoholic beverages, cigarettes or other tobacco 1102
products, or any illegal product, service, or activity;1103

       (c) Promotes illegal discrimination on the basis of race, 1104
color, religion, national origin, handicap, age, or ancestry;1105

       (d) Supports or opposes any labor organization or any action 1106
by, on behalf of, or against any labor organization;1107

       (e) Supports or opposes the nomination or election of a 1108
candidate for public office, the investigation, prosecution, or 1109
recall of a public official, or the passage of a levy or bond 1110
issue.1111

       (2) Compensate any employee of the political subdivision for 1112
time spent on any activity to influence the outcome of an election 1113
for any of the purposes described in division (C)(1)(e) of this 1114
section. Division (C)(2) of this section does not prohibit the use 1115
of public funds to compensate an employee of a political 1116
subdivision for attending a public meeting to present information 1117
about the political subdivision's finances, activities, and 1118
governmental actions in a manner that is not designed to influence 1119
the outcome of an election or the passage of a levy or bond issue, 1120
even though the election, levy, or bond issue is discussed or 1121
debated at the meeting.1122

       (D) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(7) of 1123
section 340.03 or division (A)(12) of section 340.033 of the 1124
Revised Code or in division (E) of this section, no person shall 1125
knowingly conduct a direct or indirect transaction of public funds 1126
to the benefit of any of the following:1127

       (1) A campaign committee;1128

       (2) A political action committee;1129

       (3) A legislative campaign fund;1130

       (4) A political party;1131

       (5) A campaign fund;1132

       (6) A political committee;1133

       (7) A separate segregated fund;1134

       (8) A candidate.1135

        (E) Division (D) of this section does not prohibit the 1136
utilization of any person's own time to speak in support of or in 1137
opposition to any candidate, recall, referendum, levy, or bond 1138
issue unless prohibited by any other section of the Revised Code.1139

       (F) Nothing in this section prohibits or restricts any 1140
political subdivision from sponsoring, participating in, or doing 1141
any of the following:1142

       (1) Charitable or public service advertising that is not 1143
commercial in nature;1144

       (2) Advertising of exhibitions, performances, programs, 1145
products, or services that are provided by employees of a 1146
political subdivision or are provided at or through premises owned 1147
or operated by a political subdivision;1148

       (3) Licensing an interest in a name or mark that is owned or 1149
controlled by the political subdivision.1150

       (G) Whoever violates division (D) of this section shall be 1151
punished as provided in section 3599.40 of the Revised Code.1152

       Sec. 9.15.  When the body of a dead person is found in a 1153
township or municipal corporation, and such person was not an 1154
inmate of a correctional, benevolent, or charitable institution of 1155
this state, and the body is not claimed by any person for private 1156
interment or cremation at the person's own expense, or delivered 1157
for the purpose of medical or surgical study or dissection in 1158
accordance with section 1713.34 of the Revised Code, it shall be 1159
disposed of as follows:1160

       (A) If the person was a legal resident of the county, the 1161
proper officers of the township or municipal corporation in which 1162
the person's body was found shall cause it to be buried or 1163
cremated at the expense of the township or municipal corporation 1164
in which the person had a legal residence at the time of death.1165

       (B) If the person had a legal residence in any other county 1166
of the state at the time of death, the superintendent of the 1167
county home of the county in which such body was found shall cause 1168
it to be buried or cremated at the expense of the township or 1169
municipal corporation in which the person had a legal residence at 1170
the time of death.1171

       (C) If the person was an inmate of a correctional institution 1172
of the county or a patient or resident of a benevolent institution 1173
of the county, the person had no legal residence in the state, or 1174
the person's legal residence is unknown, the superintendent shall 1175
cause the person to be buried or cremated at the expense of the 1176
county.1177

       Such officials shall provide, at the grave of the person or, 1178
if the person's cremated remains are buried, at the grave of the 1179
person's cremated remains, a metal, stone, or concrete marker on 1180
which the person's name and age, if known, and date of death shall 1181
be inscribed.1182

       A political subdivision is not relieved of its duty to bury 1183
or cremate a person at its expense under this section when the 1184
body is claimed by an indigent person. As used in this section, 1185
"indigent person" means a person whose income does not exceed one 1186
hundred fifty per cent of the federal poverty line, as revised 1187
annually by the United States department of health and human 1188
services in accordance with section 673(2) of the "Omnibus Budget 1189
Reconciliation Act of 1981," 95 Stat. 511, 42 U.S.C. 9902, as 1190
amended, for a family size equal to the size of the person's 1191
family.1192

       Sec. 9.231. (A)(1) Subject to divisions (A)(2) and (3) of 1193
this section, a governmental entity shall not disburse money 1194
totaling twenty-five thousand dollars or more to any person for 1195
the provision of services for the primary benefit of individuals 1196
or the public and not for the primary benefit of a governmental 1197
entity or the employees of a governmental entity, unless the 1198
contracting authority of the governmental entity first enters into 1199
a written contract with the person that is signed by the person or 1200
by an officer or agent of the person authorized to legally bind 1201
the person and that embodies all of the requirements and 1202
conditions set forth in sections 9.23 to 9.236 of the Revised 1203
Code. If the disbursement of money occurs over the course of a 1204
governmental entity's fiscal year, rather than in a lump sum, the 1205
contracting authority of the governmental entity shall enter into 1206
the written contract with the person at the point during the 1207
governmental entity's fiscal year that at least seventy-five 1208
thousand dollars has been disbursed by the governmental entity to 1209
the person. Thereafter, the contracting authority of the 1210
governmental entity shall enter into the written contract with the 1211
person at the beginning of the governmental entity's fiscal year, 1212
if, during the immediately preceding fiscal year, the governmental 1213
entity disbursed to that person an aggregate amount totaling at 1214
least seventy-five thousand dollars.1215

       (2) If the money referred to in division (A)(1) of this 1216
section is disbursed by or through more than one state agency to 1217
the person for the provision of services to the same population, 1218
the contracting authorities of those agencies shall determine 1219
which one of them will enter into the written contract with the 1220
person.1221

       (3) The requirements and conditions set forth in divisions 1222
(A), (B), (C), and (F) of section 9.232, divisions (A)(1) and (2) 1223
and (B) of section 9.234, divisions (A)(2) and (B) of section 1224
9.235, and sections 9.233 and 9.236 of the Revised Code do not 1225
apply with respect to the following:1226

       (a) Contracts to which all of the following apply: 1227

       (i) The amount received for the services is a set fee for 1228
each time the services are provided, is determined in accordance 1229
with a fixed rate per unit of time or per service, or is a 1230
capitated rate, and the fee or rate is established by competitive 1231
bidding or by a market rate survey of similar services provided in 1232
a defined market area. The market rate survey may be one conducted 1233
by or on behalf of the governmental entity or an independent 1234
survey accepted by the governmental entity as statistically valid 1235
and reliable.1236

       (ii) The services are provided in accordance with standards 1237
established by state or federal law, or by rules or regulations 1238
adopted thereunder, for their delivery, which standards are 1239
enforced by the federal government, a governmental entity, or an 1240
accrediting organization recognized by the federal government or a 1241
governmental entity.1242

       (iii) Payment for the services is made after the services are 1243
delivered and upon submission to the governmental entity of an 1244
invoice or other claim for payment as required by any applicable 1245
local, state, or federal law or, if no such law applies, by the 1246
terms of the contract. 1247

       (b) Contracts under which the services are reimbursed through 1248
or in a manner consistent with a federal program that meets all of 1249
the following requirements:1250

       (i) The program calculates the reimbursement rate on the 1251
basis of the previous year's experience or in accordance with an 1252
alternative method set forth in rules adopted by the Ohio 1253
department of job and family services.1254

       (ii) The reimbursement rate is derived from a breakdown of 1255
direct and indirect costs.1256

       (iii) The program's guidelines describe types of expenditures 1257
that are allowable and not allowable under the program and 1258
delineate which costs are acceptable as direct costs for purposes 1259
of calculating the reimbursement rate.1260

       (iv) The program includes a uniform cost reporting system 1261
with specific audit requirements.1262

       (c) Contracts under which the services are reimbursed through 1263
or in a manner consistent with a federal program that calculates 1264
the reimbursement rate on a fee for service basis in compliance 1265
with United States office of management and budget Circular A-87, 1266
as revised May 10, 2004. 1267

       (d) Contracts for services that are paid pursuant to the 1268
earmarking of an appropriation made by the general assembly for 1269
that purpose.1270

       (B) Division (A) of this section does not apply if the money 1271
is disbursed to a person pursuant to a contract with the United 1272
States or a governmental entity under any of the following 1273
circumstances:1274

       (1) The person receives the money directly or indirectly from 1275
the United States, and no governmental entity exercises any 1276
oversight or control over the use of the money.1277

       (2) The person receives the money solely in return for the 1278
performance of one or more of the following types of services:1279

       (a) Medical, therapeutic, or other health-related services 1280
provided by a person if the amount received is a set fee for each 1281
time the person provides the services, is determined in accordance 1282
with a fixed rate per unit of time, or is a capitated rate, and 1283
the fee or rate is reasonable and customary in the person's trade 1284
or profession;1285

       (b) Medicaid-funded services, including administrative and 1286
management services, provided pursuant to a contract or medicaid 1287
provider agreement that meets the requirements of the medicaid 1288
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code. 1289

       (c) Services, other than administrative or management 1290
services or any of the services described in division (B)(2)(a) or 1291
(b) of this section, that are commonly purchased by the public at 1292
an hourly rate or at a set fee for each time the services are 1293
provided, unless the services are performed for the benefit of 1294
children, persons who are eligible for the services by reason of 1295
advanced age, medical condition, or financial need, or persons who 1296
are confined in a detention facility as defined in section 2921.01 1297
of the Revised Code, and the services are intended to help promote 1298
the health, safety, or welfare of those children or persons;1299

       (d) Educational services provided by a school to children 1300
eligible to attend that school. For purposes of division (B)(2)(d) 1301
of this section, "school" means any school operated by a school 1302
district board of education, any community school established 1303
under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, or any nonpublic school 1304
for which the state board of education prescribes minimum 1305
education standards under section 3301.07 of the Revised Code.1306

       (e) Services provided by a foster home as defined in section 1307
5103.02 of the Revised Code;1308

       (f) "Routine business services other than administrative or 1309
management services," as that term is defined by the attorney 1310
general by rule adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 1311
Revised Code;1312

       (g) Services to protect the environment or promote 1313
environmental education that are provided by a nonprofit entity or 1314
services to protect the environment that are funded with federal 1315
grants or revolving loan funds and administered in accordance with 1316
federal law.1317

       (3) The person receives the money solely in return for the 1318
performance of services intended to help preserve public health or 1319
safety under circumstances requiring immediate action as a result 1320
of a natural or man-made emergency.1321

       (C) With respect to an unincorporated nonprofit association, 1322
corporation, or organization established for the purpose of 1323
providing educational, technical, consulting, training, financial, 1324
or other services to its members in exchange for membership dues 1325
and other fees, any of the services provided to a member that is a 1326
governmental entity shall, for purposes of this section, be 1327
considered services "for the primary benefit of a governmental 1328
entity or the employees of a governmental entity."1329

       Sec. 9.239. (A) There is hereby created the government 1330
contracting advisory council. The attorney general and auditor of 1331
state shall consult with the council on the performance of their 1332
rule-making functions under sections 9.237 and 9.238 of the 1333
Revised Code and shall consider any recommendations of the 1334
council. The medicaid director of job and family services shall 1335
annually report to the council the cost methodology of the 1336
medicaid-funded services described in division (A)(3)(d) of 1337
section 9.231 of the Revised Code. The council shall consist of 1338
the following members or their designees:1339

       (1) The attorney general;1340

       (2) The auditor of state;1341

       (3) The director of administrative services;1342

        (4) The director of aging;1343

       (5) The director of alcohol and drug addiction servicesThe 1344
medicaid director;1345

       (6) The director of budget and management;1346

       (7) The director of development services;1347

       (8) The director of job and family services;1348

       (9) The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 1349
services;1350

       (10) The director of developmental disabilities;1351

       (11) The director of rehabilitation and correction;1352

       (12) The administrator of workers' compensation;1353

       (13) The executive director of the county commissioners' 1354
association of Ohio;1355

       (14) The president of the Ohio grantmakers forum;1356

       (15) The president of the Ohio chamber of commerce;1357

       (16) The president of the Ohio state bar association;1358

       (17) The president of the Ohio society of certified public 1359
accountants;1360

       (18) The executive director of the Ohio association of 1361
nonprofit organizations;1362

       (19) The president of the Ohio united way;1363

       (20) One additional member appointed by the attorney general;1364

       (21) One additional member appointed by the auditor of state.1365

       (B) If an agency or organization represented on the council 1366
ceases to exist in the form it has on September 29, 2005, the 1367
successor agency or organization shall be represented in its 1368
place. If there is no successor agency or organization, or if it 1369
is not clear what agency or organization is the successor, the 1370
attorney general shall designate an agency or organization to be 1371
represented in place of the agency or organization originally 1372
represented on the council.1373

       (C) The two members appointed to the council shall serve 1374
three-year terms. Original appointments shall be made not later 1375
than sixty days after September 29, 2005. Vacancies on the council 1376
shall be filled in the same manner as the original appointment.1377

       (D) The attorney general or the attorney general's designee 1378
shall be the chairperson of the council. The council shall meet at 1379
least once every two years to review the rules adopted under 1380
sections 9.237 and 9.238 of the Revised Code and to make 1381
recommendations to the attorney general and auditor of state 1382
regarding the adoption, amendment, or repeal of those rules. The 1383
council shall also meet at other times as requested by the 1384
attorney general or auditor of state.1385

       (E) Members of the council shall serve without compensation 1386
or reimbursement.1387

       (F) The office of the attorney general shall provide 1388
necessary staff, facilities, supplies, and services to the 1389
council.1390

       (G) Sections 101.82 to 101.87 of the Revised Code do not 1391
apply to the council.1392

       Sec. 9.24. (A) Except as may be allowed under division (F) of 1393
this section, no state agency and no political subdivision shall 1394
award a contract as described in division (G)(1) of this section 1395
for goods, services, or construction, paid for in whole or in part 1396
with state funds, to a person against whom a finding for recovery 1397
has been issued by the auditor of state on and after January 1, 1398
2001, if the finding for recovery is unresolved.1399

       A contract is considered to be awarded when it is entered 1400
into or executed, irrespective of whether the parties to the 1401
contract have exchanged any money.1402

        (B) For purposes of this section, a finding for recovery is 1403
unresolved unless one of the following criteria applies:1404

        (1) The money identified in the finding for recovery is paid 1405
in full to the state agency or political subdivision to whom the 1406
money was owed;1407

        (2) The debtor has entered into a repayment plan that is 1408
approved by the attorney general and the state agency or political 1409
subdivision to whom the money identified in the finding for 1410
recovery is owed. A repayment plan may include a provision 1411
permitting a state agency or political subdivision to withhold 1412
payment to a debtor for goods, services, or construction provided 1413
to or for the state agency or political subdivision pursuant to a 1414
contract that is entered into with the debtor after the date the 1415
finding for recovery was issued.1416

        (3) The attorney general waives a repayment plan described in 1417
division (B)(2) of this section for good cause;1418

        (4) The debtor and state agency or political subdivision to 1419
whom the money identified in the finding for recovery is owed have 1420
agreed to a payment plan established through an enforceable 1421
settlement agreement.1422

        (5) The state agency or political subdivision desiring to 1423
enter into a contract with a debtor certifies, and the attorney 1424
general concurs, that all of the following are true:1425

        (a) Essential services the state agency or political 1426
subdivision is seeking to obtain from the debtor cannot be 1427
provided by any other person besides the debtor;1428

        (b) Awarding a contract to the debtor for the essential 1429
services described in division (B)(5)(a) of this section is in the 1430
best interest of the state;1431

        (c) Good faith efforts have been made to collect the money 1432
identified in the finding of recovery.1433

       (6) The debtor has commenced an action to contest the finding 1434
for recovery and a final determination on the action has not yet 1435
been reached.1436

        (C) The attorney general shall submit an initial report to 1437
the auditor of state, not later than December 1, 2003, indicating 1438
the status of collection for all findings for recovery issued by 1439
the auditor of state for calendar years 2001, 2002, and 2003. 1440
Beginning on January 1, 2004, the attorney general shall submit to 1441
the auditor of state, on the first day of every January, April, 1442
July, and October, a list of all findings for recovery that have 1443
been resolved in accordance with division (B) of this section 1444
during the calendar quarter preceding the submission of the list 1445
and a description of the means of resolution. The attorney general 1446
shall notify the auditor of state when a judgment is issued 1447
against an entity described in division (F)(1) of this section.1448

       (D) The auditor of state shall maintain a database, 1449
accessible to the public, listing persons against whom an 1450
unresolved finding for recovery has been issued, and the amount of 1451
the money identified in the unresolved finding for recovery. The 1452
auditor of state shall have this database operational on or before 1453
January 1, 2004. The initial database shall contain the 1454
information required under this division for calendar years 2001, 1455
2002, and 2003.1456

       Beginning January 15, 2004, the auditor of state shall update 1457
the database by the fifteenth day of every January, April, July, 1458
and October to reflect resolved findings for recovery that are 1459
reported to the auditor of state by the attorney general on the 1460
first day of the same month pursuant to division (C) of this 1461
section.1462

        (E) Before awarding a contract as described in division 1463
(G)(1) of this section for goods, services, or construction, paid 1464
for in whole or in part with state funds, a state agency or 1465
political subdivision shall verify that the person to whom the 1466
state agency or political subdivision plans to award the contract 1467
has no unresolved finding for recovery issued against the person. 1468
A state agency or political subdivision shall verify that the 1469
person does not appear in the database described in division (D) 1470
of this section or shall obtain other proof that the person has no 1471
unresolved finding for recovery issued against the person.1472

        (F) The prohibition of division (A) of this section and the 1473
requirement of division (E) of this section do not apply with 1474
respect to the companies, payments, or agreements described in 1475
divisions (F)(1) and (2) of this section, or in the circumstance 1476
described in division (F)(3) of this section.1477

       (1) A bonding company or a company authorized to transact the 1478
business of insurance in this state, a self-insurance pool, joint 1479
self-insurance pool, risk management program, or joint risk 1480
management program, unless a court has entered a final judgment 1481
against the company and the company has not yet satisfied the 1482
final judgment.1483

       (2) To medicaid provider agreements under Chapter 5111. of1484
the Revised Codemedicaid program.1485

       (3) When federal law dictates that a specified entity provide 1486
the goods, services, or construction for which a contract is being 1487
awarded, regardless of whether that entity would otherwise be 1488
prohibited from entering into the contract pursuant to this 1489
section.1490

       (G)(1) This section applies only to contracts for goods, 1491
services, or construction that satisfy the criteria in either 1492
division (G)(1)(a) or (b) of this section. This section may apply 1493
to contracts for goods, services, or construction that satisfy the 1494
criteria in division (G)(1)(c) of this section, provided that the 1495
contracts also satisfy the criteria in either division (G)(1)(a) 1496
or (b) of this section.1497

       (a) The cost for the goods, services, or construction 1498
provided under the contract is estimated to exceed twenty-five 1499
thousand dollars.1500

       (b) The aggregate cost for the goods, services, or 1501
construction provided under multiple contracts entered into by the 1502
particular state agency and a single person or the particular 1503
political subdivision and a single person within the fiscal year 1504
preceding the fiscal year within which a contract is being entered 1505
into by that same state agency and the same single person or the 1506
same political subdivision and the same single person, exceeded 1507
fifty thousand dollars.1508

       (c) The contract is a renewal of a contract previously 1509
entered into and renewed pursuant to that preceding contract.1510

       (2) This section does not apply to employment contracts.1511

       (H) As used in this section:1512

       (1) "State agency" has the same meaning as in section 9.66 of 1513
the Revised Code.1514

       (2) "Political subdivision" means a political subdivision as 1515
defined in section 9.82 of the Revised Code that has received more 1516
than fifty thousand dollars of state money in the current fiscal 1517
year or the preceding fiscal year.1518

       (3) "Finding for recovery" means a determination issued by 1519
the auditor of state, contained in a report the auditor of state 1520
gives to the attorney general pursuant to section 117.28 of the 1521
Revised Code, that public money has been illegally expended, 1522
public money has been collected but not been accounted for, public 1523
money is due but has not been collected, or public property has 1524
been converted or misappropriated.1525

        (4) "Debtor" means a person against whom a finding for 1526
recovery has been issued.1527

       (5) "Person" means the person named in the finding for 1528
recovery.1529

       (6) "State money" does not include funds the state receives 1530
from another source and passes through to a political subdivision.1531

       Sec. 9.833.  (A) As used in this section, "political 1532
subdivision" has the meaning defined in sections 2744.01 and 1533
3905.36 of the Revised Code. For purposes of this section, 1534
"political subdivision" includes municipal corporations as defined 1535
in section 5705.01 of the Revised Code. 1536

       (B) Political subdivisions that provide health care benefits 1537
for their officers or employees may do any of the following:1538

       (1) Establish and maintain an individual self-insurance 1539
program with public moneys to provide authorized health care 1540
benefits, including but not limited to, health care, prescription 1541
drugs, dental care, and vision care, in accordance with division 1542
(C) of this section;1543

       (2) Establish and maintain a health savings account program 1544
whereby employees or officers may establish and maintain health 1545
savings accounts in accordance with section 223 of the Internal 1546
Revenue Code. Public moneys may be used to pay for or fund 1547
federally qualified high deductible health plans that are linked 1548
to health savings accounts or to make contributions to health 1549
savings accounts. A health savings account program may be a part 1550
of a self-insurance program.1551

       (3) After establishing an individual self-insurance program, 1552
agree with other political subdivisions that have established 1553
individual self-insurance programs for health care benefits, that 1554
their programs will be jointly administered in a manner specified 1555
in the agreement;1556

       (4) Pursuant to a written agreement and in accordance with 1557
division (C) of this section, join in any combination with other 1558
political subdivisions to establish and maintain a joint 1559
self-insurance program to provide health care benefits;1560

       (5) Pursuant to a written agreement, join in any combination 1561
with other political subdivisions to procure or contract for 1562
policies, contracts, or plans of insurance to provide health care 1563
benefits, which may include a health savings account program for 1564
their officers and employees subject to the agreement;1565

       (6) Use in any combination any of the policies, contracts, 1566
plans, or programs authorized under this division.1567

       (7) Any agreement made under division (B)(3), (4), (5), or 1568
(6) of this section shall be in writing, comply with division (C) 1569
of this section, and contain best practices established in 1570
consultation with and approved by the department of administrative 1571
services. The best practices may be reviewed and amended at the 1572
discretion of the political subdivisions in consultation with the 1573
department. Detailed information regarding the best practices 1574
shall be made available to any employee upon that employee's 1575
request.1576

       (8) Purchase plans approvedcontaining best practices 1577
established by the department of administrative services under 1578
section 9.901 of the Revised Code.1579

       (C) Except as otherwise provided in division (E) of this 1580
section, the following apply to individual or joint self-insurance 1581
programs established pursuant to this section:1582

       (1) Such funds shall be reserved as are necessary, in the 1583
exercise of sound and prudent actuarial judgment, to cover 1584
potential cost of health care benefits for the officers and 1585
employees of the political subdivision. A certified audited 1586
financial statement and a report of aggregate amounts so reserved 1587
and aggregate disbursements made from such funds, together with a 1588
written report of a member of the American academy of actuaries 1589
certifying whether the amounts reserved conform to the 1590
requirements of this division, are computed in accordance with 1591
accepted loss reserving standards, and are fairly stated in 1592
accordance with sound loss reserving principles, shall be prepared 1593
and maintained, within ninety days after the last day of the 1594
fiscal year of the entity for which the report is provided for 1595
that fiscal year, in the office of the program administrator 1596
described in division (C)(3) of this section.1597

       The report required by division (C)(1) of this section shall 1598
include, but not be limited to, the aggregate of disbursements 1599
made for the administration of the program, including claims paid, 1600
costs of the legal representation of political subdivisions and 1601
employees, and fees paid to consultants. 1602

       The program administrator described in division (C)(3) of 1603
this section shall make the report required by this division 1604
available for inspection by any person at all reasonable times 1605
during regular business hours, and, upon the request of such 1606
person, shall make copies of the report available at cost within a 1607
reasonable period of time. The program administrator shall further 1608
provide the report to the auditor of state under Chapter 117. of 1609
the Revised Code. The report required by this division is in lieu 1610
of the records required by division (A) of section 149.431 of the 1611
Revised Code.1612

       (2) Each political subdivision shall reserve funds necessary 1613
for an individual or joint self-insurance program in a special 1614
fund that may be established for political subdivisions other than 1615
an agency or instrumentality pursuant to an ordinance or 1616
resolution of the political subdivision and not subject to section 1617
5705.12 of the Revised Code. An agency or instrumentality shall 1618
reserve the funds necessary for an individual or joint 1619
self-insurance program in a special fund established pursuant to a 1620
resolution duly adopted by the agency's or instrumentality's 1621
governing board. The political subdivision may allocate the costs 1622
of insurance or any self-insurance program, or both, among the 1623
funds or accounts established under this division on the basis of 1624
relative exposure and loss experience.1625

       (3) A contract may be awarded, without the necessity of 1626
competitive bidding, to any person, political subdivision, 1627
nonprofit corporation organized under Chapter 1702. of the Revised 1628
Code, or regional council of governments created under Chapter 1629
167. of the Revised Code for purposes of administration of an 1630
individual or joint self-insurance program. No such contract shall 1631
be entered into without full, prior, public disclosure of all 1632
terms and conditions. The disclosure shall include, at a minimum, 1633
a statement listing all representations made in connection with 1634
any possible savings and losses resulting from the contract, and 1635
potential liability of any political subdivision or employee. The 1636
proposed contract and statement shall be disclosed and presented 1637
at a meeting of the political subdivision not less than one week 1638
prior to the meeting at which the political subdivision authorizes 1639
the contract.1640

       A contract awarded to a nonprofit corporation or a regional 1641
council of governments under this division may provide that all 1642
employees of the nonprofit corporation or regional council of 1643
governments, the employees of all entities related to the 1644
nonprofit corporation or regional council of governments, and the 1645
employees of other nonprofit corporations that have fifty or fewer 1646
employees and have been organized for the primary purpose of 1647
representing the interests of political subdivisions, may be 1648
covered by the individual or joint self-insurance program under 1649
the terms and conditions set forth in the contract.1650

       (4) The individual or joint self-insurance program shall 1651
include a contract with a certified public accountant and a member 1652
of the American academy of actuaries for the preparation of the 1653
written evaluations required under division (C)(1) of this 1654
section.1655

       (5) A joint self-insurance program may allocate the costs of 1656
funding the program among the funds or accounts established under 1657
this division to the participating political subdivisions on the 1658
basis of their relative exposure and loss experience.1659

       (6) An individual self-insurance program may allocate the 1660
costs of funding the program among the funds or accounts 1661
established under this division to the political subdivision that 1662
established the program.1663

       (7) Two or more political subdivisions may also authorize the 1664
establishment and maintenance of a joint health care cost 1665
containment program, including, but not limited to, the employment 1666
of risk managers, health care cost containment specialists, and 1667
consultants, for the purpose of preventing and reducing health 1668
care costs covered by insurance, individual self-insurance, or 1669
joint self-insurance programs.1670

       (8) A political subdivision is not liable under a joint 1671
self-insurance program for any amount in excess of amounts payable 1672
pursuant to the written agreement for the participation of the 1673
political subdivision in the joint self-insurance program. Under a 1674
joint self-insurance program agreement, a political subdivision 1675
may, to the extent permitted under the written agreement, assume 1676
the risks of any other political subdivision. A joint 1677
self-insurance program established under this section is deemed a 1678
separate legal entity for the public purpose of enabling the 1679
members of the joint self-insurance program to obtain insurance or 1680
to provide for a formalized, jointly administered self-insurance 1681
fund for its members. An entity created pursuant to this section 1682
is exempt from all state and local taxes.1683

       (9) Any political subdivision, other than an agency or 1684
instrumentality, may issue general obligation bonds, or special 1685
obligation bonds that are not payable from real or personal 1686
property taxes, and may also issue notes in anticipation of such 1687
bonds, pursuant to an ordinance or resolution of its legislative 1688
authority or other governing body for the purpose of providing 1689
funds to pay expenses associated with the settlement of claims, 1690
whether by way of a reserve or otherwise, and to pay the political 1691
subdivision's portion of the cost of establishing and maintaining 1692
an individual or joint self-insurance program or to provide for 1693
the reserve in the special fund authorized by division (C)(2) of 1694
this section.1695

       In its ordinance or resolution authorizing bonds or notes 1696
under this section, a political subdivision may elect to issue 1697
such bonds or notes under the procedures set forth in Chapter 133. 1698
of the Revised Code. In the event of such an election, 1699
notwithstanding Chapter 133. of the Revised Code, the maturity of 1700
the bonds may be for any period authorized in the ordinance or 1701
resolution not exceeding twenty years, which period shall be the 1702
maximum maturity of the bonds for purposes of section 133.22 of 1703
the Revised Code.1704

       Bonds and notes issued under this section shall not be 1705
considered in calculating the net indebtedness of the political 1706
subdivision under sections 133.04, 133.05, 133.06, and 133.07 of 1707
the Revised Code. Sections 9.98 to 9.983 of the Revised Code are 1708
hereby made applicable to bonds or notes authorized under this 1709
section.1710

       (10) A joint self-insurance program is not an insurance 1711
company. Its operation does not constitute doing an insurance 1712
business and is not subject to the insurance laws of this state.1713

       (D) A political subdivision may procure group life insurance 1714
for its employees in conjunction with an individual or joint 1715
self-insurance program authorized by this section, provided that 1716
the policy of group life insurance is not self-insured.1717

       (E) This section does not apply to individual self-insurance 1718
programs created solely by municipal corporations as defined in 1719
section 5705.01 of the Revised Code.1720

       (F) A public official or employee of a political subdivision 1721
who is or becomes a member of the governing body of the program 1722
administrator of a joint self-insurance program in which the 1723
political subdivision participates is not in violation of division 1724
(D) or (E) of section 102.03, division (C) of section 102.04, or 1725
section 2921.42 of the Revised Code as a result of either of the 1726
following:1727

       (1) The political subdivision's entering under this section 1728
into the written agreement to participate in the joint 1729
self-insurance program;1730

       (2) The political subdivision's entering under this section 1731
into any other contract with the joint self-insurance program.1732

       Sec. 9.90.  (A) The following applies until the department of 1733
administrative services implements healthcare plans designed under 1734
section 9.901 of the Revised Code. If those plans do not include 1735
or address any benefits listed in this section, or if the board of 1736
trustees or other governing body of a state institution of higher 1737
education, as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, 1738
board of education of a school district, or governing board of an 1739
educational service center do not elect to be covered under a plan 1740
offered by the department of administrative services under section 1741
9.901 of the Revised Code, the following provisions continue in 1742
effect for those benefits. The board of trustees or other 1743
governing body of a state institution of higher education, as 1744
defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, board of 1745
education of a school district, or governing board of an 1746
educational service center may, in addition to all other powers 1747
provided in the Revised Code:1748

       (1) Contract for, purchase, or otherwise procure from an 1749
insurer or insurers licensed to do business by the state of Ohio 1750
for or on behalf of such of its employees as it may determine, 1751
life insurance, or sickness, accident, annuity, endowment, health, 1752
medical, hospital, dental, or surgical coverage and benefits, or 1753
any combination thereof, by means of insurance plans or other 1754
types of coverage, family, group or otherwise, and may pay from 1755
funds under its control and available for such purpose all or any 1756
portion of the cost, premium, or charge for such insurance, 1757
coverage, or benefits. However, the governing board, in addition 1758
to or as an alternative to the authority otherwise granted by 1759
division (A)(1) of this section, may elect to procure coverage for 1760
health care services, for or on behalf of such of its employees as 1761
it may determine, by means of policies, contracts, certificates, 1762
or agreements issued by at least two health insuring corporations 1763
holding a certificate of authority under Chapter 1751. of the 1764
Revised Code and may pay from funds under the governing board's 1765
control and available for such purpose all or any portion of the 1766
cost of such coverage.1767

       (2) Make payments to a custodial account for investment in 1768
regulated investment company stock for the purpose of providing 1769
retirement benefits as described in section 403(b)(7) of the 1770
Internal Revenue Code of 1954, as amended. Such stock shall be 1771
purchased only from persons authorized to sell such stock in this 1772
state.1773

       Any income of an employee deferred under divisions (A)(1) and 1774
(2) of this section in a deferred compensation program eligible 1775
for favorable tax treatment under the Internal Revenue Code of 1776
1954, as amended, shall continue to be included as regular 1777
compensation for the purpose of computing the contributions to and 1778
benefits from the retirement system of such employee. Any sum so 1779
deferred shall not be included in the computation of any federal 1780
and state income taxes withheld on behalf of any such employee.1781

       (B) All or any portion of the cost, premium, or charge 1782
therefor may be paid in such other manner or combination of 1783
manners as the board or governing body may determine, including 1784
direct payment by the employee in cases under division (A)(1) of 1785
this section, and, if authorized in writing by the employee in 1786
cases under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section, by the board 1787
or governing body with moneys made available by deduction from or 1788
reduction in salary or wages or by the foregoing of a salary or 1789
wage increase. Nothing in section 3917.01 or section 3917.06 of 1790
the Revised Code shall prohibit the issuance or purchase of group 1791
life insurance authorized by this section by reason of payment of 1792
premiums therefor by the board or governing body from its funds, 1793
and such group life insurance may be so issued and purchased if 1794
otherwise consistent with the provisions of sections 3917.01 to 1795
3917.07 of the Revised Code.1796

       (C) The board of education of any school district may 1797
exercise any of the powers granted to the governing boards of 1798
public institutions of higher education under divisions (A) and 1799
(B) of this section. All health care benefits provided to persons 1800
employed by the public schools of this state shall be through 1801
health care plans that contain best practices established by the 1802
department of administrative services pursuant to section 9.901 of 1803
the Revised Code.1804

       (D) Once the department of administrative services releases 1805
in final form health care plans designed under section 9.901 of 1806
the Revised Code, all health care benefits provided to persons 1807
employed by state institutions of higher education, school 1808
districts, or educational service centers may be through those 1809
plans.1810

       Sec. 9.901.  (A)(1) All health care benefits provided to 1811
persons employed by the political subdivisions and public school 1812
districts ofemployers as defined by this statesection shall be 1813
provided by health care plans that contain best practices 1814
established pursuant to this section by the former school 1815
employees health care board or the department of administrative 1816
services. Twelve months after the release of best practices by the 1817
board allAll policies or contracts for health care benefits 1818
provided to public school district employees that are issued or 1819
renewed after the expiration of any applicable collective 1820
bargaining agreement must contain all best practices established 1821
pursuant to this section by the boardat the time of renewal. Any 1822
or all of the healthHealth care plans that contain the best 1823
practices specified by the board may be self-insured. 1824

       (2) Upon completion of the consultant's report under division 1825
(E) of this section and once the plans are released in final form 1826
by the department, all health care benefits provided to persons 1827
employed by political subdivisions, public school districts, and 1828
state institutions of higher education may be provided by health 1829
care plans designed under this section by the department. The 1830
department, in consultation with the superintendent of insurance, 1831
may negotiate with and, in accordance with the competitive 1832
selection procedures of Chapter 125. of the Revised Code, contract 1833
with one or more insurance companies authorized to do business in 1834
this state for the issuance of the plans. Any or all of the health 1835
care plans designed by the department may be self-insured. All 1836
self-insured plans adopted shall be administered by the department 1837
in accordance with this section. The plans shall incorporate the 1838
best practices adopted by the department under division (C)(3) of 1839
this sectionconsulting with the department of administrative 1840
services, a political subdivision may adopt a delivery system of 1841
benefits that is not in accordance with the department's adopted 1842
best practices if it is considered by the department to be most 1843
financially advantageous to the political subdivision.1844

       (3) Before soliciting proposals from insurance companies for 1845
the issuance of health care plans, the department, in consultation 1846
with the superintendent of insurance, shall determine what 1847
geographic regions exist in the state based on the availability of 1848
providers, networks, costs, and other factors relating to 1849
providing health care benefits. The department shall then 1850
determine what health care plans offered by political 1851
subdivisions, public school districts, state institutions, and 1852
existing consortiums in the region offer the most cost-effective 1853
plan.1854

       (4) The department, in consultation with the superintendent 1855
of insurance, shall develop a request for proposals and solicit 1856
bids for health care plans for political subdivisions, public 1857
school districts, and state institutions in a region similar to 1858
the existing plans. The department shall also determine the 1859
benefits offered by existing health care plans, the employees' 1860
costs, and the cost-sharing arrangements used by political 1861
subdivisions, schools, and institutions participating in a 1862
consortium. The department shall determine what strategies are 1863
used by the existing plans to manage health care costs and shall 1864
study the potential benefits of state or regional consortiums 1865
offering multiple health care plans. When options exist in a 1866
defined regional service area that meet the benchmarks or best 1867
practices prescribed by the department, public employees shall be 1868
given the option of selecting from two or more health plans.1869

       (5) No political subdivision, public school district, or 1870
state institution may be required to offer the health care plans 1871
designed under this section until action is taken under division 1872
(E) of this section.1873

       In addition, political subdivisions, public school districts, 1874
or state institutions offering employee health care benefits 1875
through a plan offered by a consortium of two or more political 1876
subdivisions, districts, or state institutions, or a consortium of 1877
one or more political subdivisions, districts, or state 1878
institutions and one or more other political subdivisions may 1879
continue offering consortium plans to the political subdivisions', 1880
districts', or institutions' employees if plans contain best 1881
practices required under this section.1882

       (6) As used in this section:1883

       (a) "Public employer" means political subdivisions, public 1884
school districts, or state institutions of higher education.1885

       (b) "Public school district" means a city, local, exempted 1886
village, or joint vocational school district; a STEM school 1887
established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code; or an 1888
educational service center. "Public school district" does not mean 1889
a community school established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised 1890
Code.1891

       (b)(c) "State institution of higher education" or "state 1892
institution" means a state institution of higher education as 1893
defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.1894

       (c)(d) "Political subdivision" has the same meaning as 1895
defined in section 9.833 of the Revised Code.1896

       (d)(e) A "health care plan" includes group policies, 1897
contracts, and agreements that provide hospital, surgical, or 1898
medical expense coverage, including self-insured plans. A "health 1899
care plan" does not include an individual plan offered to the 1900
employees of a political subdivision, public school district, or 1901
state institution, or a plan that provides coverage only for 1902
specific disease or accidents, or a hospital indemnity, medicare 1903
supplement, or other plan that provides only supplemental 1904
benefits, paid for by the employees of a political subdivision, 1905
public school district, or state institution.1906

       (e)(f) A "health plan sponsor" means a political subdivision, 1907
public school district, a state institution of higher education, a 1908
consortium of political subdivisions, public school districts, or 1909
state institutions, or a council of governments.1910

       (B)(4) The political subdivisions and public employees health 1911
care fund is hereby created in the state treasury. The department 1912
shall use all funds in the political subdivisions and public 1913
employees health care fund solely to carry out the provisions of 1914
this section and related administrative costs. 1915

       (C)(B) The department of administrative services shall do all 1916
of the following:1917

       (1) Include disease management and consumer education 1918
programs, which programs shall include, but are not limited to, 1919
wellness programs and other measures designed to encourage the 1920
wise use of medical plan coverage. These programs are not services 1921
or treatments for purposes of section 3901.71 of the Revised Code.1922

       (2) After action is taken under division (E) of this section, 1923
design health care plans for political subdivisions, public school 1924
districts, and state institutions of higher education in 1925
accordance with division (A) of this section separate from the 1926
plans for state agencies;1927

       (3) Adopt and release a set of standards that shall be 1928
considered the best practices for health care plans offered to 1929
employees of political subdivisions, public school districts, and 1930
state institutions.1931

       (4) Require that the plans the health plan sponsors 1932
administer make readily available to the public all cost and 1933
design elements of the plan;1934

       (5) Set employee and employer health care plan premiums for 1935
the plans designed under division (C)(2) of this section;1936

       (6) Promote cooperation among all organizations affected by 1937
this section in identifying the elements for the successful 1938
implementation of this section;1939

       (7) Promote cost containment measures aligned with patient, 1940
plan, and provider management strategies in developing and 1941
managing health care plans;1942

       (8) Prepare and disseminate to the public an annual report on 1943
the status of health plan sponsors' effectiveness in making 1944
progress to reduce the rate of increase in insurance premiums and 1945
employee out of pocket expenses, as well as progress in improving 1946
the health status of political subdivision, public school 1947
district, and state institution employees and their families.1948

       (D) The sections in Chapter 3923. of the Revised Code 1949
regulating public employee benefit plans are not applicable to the 1950
health care plans designed pursuant to this section.1951

        (E) Before the department's release of the initial health 1952
care plans, the department shall contract with an independent 1953
consultant to analyze costs related to employee health care 1954
benefits provided by existing political subdivision, public school 1955
district, and state institution plans. All political subdivisions 1956
shall provide information requested by the department that the 1957
department determines is needed to complete this study. The 1958
information requested shall be held confidentially by the 1959
department and shall not be considered a public record under 1960
Chapter 149. of the Revised Code. The department may release the 1961
information after redacting all personally identifiable 1962
information. The consultant shall determine the benefits offered 1963
by existing plans, the employees' costs, and the cost-sharing 1964
arrangements used by political subdivisions, schools, and 1965
institutions participating in a consortium. The consultant shall 1966
determine what strategies are used by the existing plans to manage 1967
health care costs and shall study the potential benefits of state 1968
or regional consortiums of political subdivisions, public schools, 1969
and institutions offering multiple health care plans. Based on the 1970
findings of the analysis, the consultant shall submit written 1971
recommendations to the department for the development and 1972
implementation of a successful program for pooling purchasing 1973
power for the acquisition of employee health care plans. The 1974
consultant's recommendations shall address, at a minimum, all of 1975
the following issues:1976

       (1) The development of a plan for regional coordination of 1977
the health care plans;1978

       (2) The establishment of regions for the provision of health 1979
care plans, based on the availability of providers and plans in 1980
the state at the time;1981

       (3) The viability of voluntary and mandatory participation by 1982
political subdivisions, public schools, and institutions of higher 1983
education;1984

       (4) The use of regional preferred provider and closed panel 1985
plans, health savings accounts, and alternative health care plans, 1986
to stabilize both costs and the premiums charged to political 1987
subdivisions, public school districts, and state institutions and 1988
their employees;1989

       (5) The use of the competitive bidding process for regional 1990
health care plans;1991

       (6) The use of information on claims and costs and of 1992
information reported by political subdivisions, public school 1993
districts, and state institutions pursuant to the Consolidated 1994
Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act (COBRA) 100 Stat. 227, 29 U.S.C. 1995
1161, as amended in analyzing administrative and premium costs;1996

       (7) The experience of states that have statewide health care 1997
plans for political subdivision, public school district, and state 1998
institution employees, including the implementation strategies 1999
used by those states;2000

       (8) Recommended strategies for the use of first-year roll-in 2001
premiums in the transition from political subdivision, district, 2002
and state institution health care plans to department plans;2003

       (9) The option of allowing political subdivisions, public 2004
school districts, and state institutions to join an existing 2005
regional consortium as an alternative to department plans;2006

       (10) Mandatory and optional coverages to be offered by the 2007
department's plans;2008

       (11) Potential risks to the state from the use of plans 2009
developed under this section;2010

       (12) Any legislation needed to ensure the long-term financial 2011
solvency and stability of a health care purchasing system;2012

       (13) The potential impacts of any changes to the existing 2013
purchasing structure on all of the following:2014

       (a) Existing health care pooling and consortiums;2015

       (b) Political subdivision, school district, and state 2016
institution employees;2017

       (c) Individual political subdivisions, school districts, and 2018
state institutions.2019

       (14) Issues that could arise when political subdivisions, 2020
school districts, and state institutions transition from the 2021
existing purchasing structure to a new purchasing structure;2022

       (15) Strategies available to the department in the creation 2023
of fund reserves and the need for stop-loss insurance coverage for 2024
catastrophic losses;2025

       (16) Impact on eliminating the premium tax or excise 2026
currently received on behalf of a public employer under division 2027
(A) of section 5725.18 and division (A) of 5729.03 of the Revised 2028
Code;2029

       (17) How development of the federal health exchange in Ohio 2030
may impact public employees;2031

       (18) Impact of joint health insurance regional program on 2032
insurance carriers and agents;2033

       (19) The benefits, including any cost savings to the state of 2034
establishing a benchmark for public employers to meet in lieu of 2035
establishing new plans administered by the department.2036

       (F) TheIdentify strategies to manage health care costs;2037

       (2) Study the potential benefits of state or regional 2038
consortiums of public employers' health care plans;2039

       (3) Publish information regarding the health care plans 2040
offered by political subdivisions, public school districts, state 2041
institutions, and existing consortiums;2042

       (4) Assist in the design of health care plans for political 2043
subdivisions, public school districts, and state institutions of 2044
higher education in accordance with division (A) of this section 2045
separate from the plans for state agencies;2046

       (5) Adopt and release a set of standards that shall be 2047
considered the best practices for health care plans offered to 2048
employees of political subdivisions, public school districts, and 2049
state institutions;2050

       (6) Require that plans the health plan sponsors administer 2051
make readily available to the public all cost and design elements 2052
of the plan;2053

       (7) Promote cooperation among all organizations affected by 2054
this section in identifying the elements for successful 2055
implementation of this section;2056

       (8) Promote cost containment measures aligned with patient, 2057
plan, and provider management strategies in developing and 2058
managing health care plans; and2059

       (9) Prepare and disseminate to the public an annual report on 2060
the status of health plan sponsors' effectiveness in complying 2061
with best practices and making progress to reduce the rate of 2062
increase in insurance premiums and employee out-of-pocket 2063
expenses, as well as progress in improving the health status of 2064
employees and their families. 2065

       (C) The director of administrative services may convene a2066
public health care advisory committee is hereby created under the 2067
department of administrative services. The committee shall make 2068
recommendations to the director of administrative services or the 2069
director's designee on the development and adoption of best 2070
practices under this section. The committee shall consist of 2071
fifteen members: five members appointed by the speaker of the 2072
house of representatives,; five members appointed by the president 2073
of the senate,; and five members appointed by the governor and 2074
shall include representatives from state and local government 2075
employers, state and local government employees, insurance agents, 2076
health insurance companies, and joint purchasing arrangements 2077
currently in existence. Nothing in this section prohibits a 2078
political subdivision from adopting a delivery system of benefits 2079
that is not in accordance with the department's adopted best 2080
practices if it is considered to be most financially advantageous 2081
to the political subdivision.Members shall serve without 2082
compensation.2083

       (G)(D) The department may adopt rules for the enforcement of 2084
health plan sponsors' compliance with the best practices standards 2085
adopted by the department pursuant to this section.2086

        (H)(E) Any health care plan providing coverage for the 2087
employees of political subdivisions, public school districts, or 2088
state institutions of higher education, or that have provided 2089
coverage within two years before the effective date of this 2090
amendment, shall provide nonidentifiable aggregate claims and 2091
administrative data for the coverage provided as required by the 2092
department, without charge, within thirty days after receiving a 2093
written request from the department. The claims data shall include 2094
data relating to employee group benefit sets, demographics, and 2095
claims experience.2096

       (I)(1)(F) The department may contractwork with other state 2097
agencies forto obtain services as the department deems necessary 2098
for the implementation and operation of this section, based on 2099
demonstrated experience and expertise in administration, 2100
management, data handling, actuarial studies, quality assurance, 2101
or for other needed services. 2102

       (2)(G) The department shall hire staff as necessary to 2103
provide administrative support to the department and the public 2104
employee health care plan program established by this section.2105

       (J) Not more than ninety days before coverage begins for 2106
political subdivision, public school district, and state 2107
institution employees under health care plans designed by the 2108
department, a political subdivision's governing body, public 2109
school district's board of education, and a state institution's 2110
board of trustees or managing authority shall provide detailed 2111
information about the health care plans to the employees.2112

       (K)(H) Nothing in this section shall be construed as 2113
prohibiting political subdivisions, public school districts, or 2114
state institutions from consulting with and compensating insurance 2115
agents and brokers for professional services or from establishing 2116
a self-insurance program.2117

       (L)(I) Pursuant to Chapter 117. of the Revised Code, the 2118
auditor of state shall conduct all necessary and required audits 2119
of the department. The auditor of state, upon request, also shall 2120
furnish to the department copies of audits of political 2121
subdivisions, public school districts, or consortia performed by 2122
the auditor of state.2123

       Sec. 101.39.  (A) There is hereby created the joint 2124
legislative committee on health care oversight. The committee may 2125
review or study any matter related to the provision of health care 2126
services that it considers of significance to the citizens of this 2127
state, including the availability of health care, the quality of 2128
health care, the effectiveness and efficiency of managed care 2129
systems, and the operation of the medical assistancemedicaid2130
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code or 2131
other government health programs.2132

       The department of job and family servicesmedicaid, 2133
department of health, department of aging, department of mental 2134
healthmental health and addiction services, department of 2135
developmental disabilities, department of alcohol and drug 2136
addiction services, and other state agencies shall cooperate with 2137
the committee in its study and review of health care issues. On 2138
request, the departments shall provide the committee with reports 2139
and other information sufficient for the committee to fulfill its 2140
duties.2141

       The committee may issue recommendations as it determines 2142
appropriate. The recommendations may be made to the general 2143
assembly, state agencies, private industry, or any other entity.2144

       (B) The committee shall consist of the following members of 2145
the general assembly: the chairperson of the senate's standing 2146
committee with primary responsibility for health legislation, the 2147
chairperson of the house of representatives' standing committee 2148
with primary responsibility for health legislation, four members 2149
of the house of representatives appointed by the speaker of the 2150
house of representatives, and four members of the senate appointed 2151
by the president of the senate. Not more than two members 2152
appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives and not 2153
more than two members appointed by the president of the senate may 2154
be of the same political party. Except in 1995, appointments shall 2155
be made not later than fifteen days after the commencement of the 2156
first regular session of each general assembly. The chairpersons 2157
of the standing committees with primary responsibility for health 2158
legislation shall serve as co-chairpersons of the committee.2159

       Each member of the committee shall hold office during the 2160
general assembly in which the member is appointed and until a 2161
successor has been appointed, notwithstanding the adjournment sine 2162
die of the general assembly in which the member was appointed or 2163
the expiration of the member's term as a member of the general 2164
assembly. Any vacancies occurring among the members of the 2165
committee shall be filled in the manner of the original 2166
appointment.2167

       The committee shall meet at least quarterly and at the call 2168
of the co-chairpersons. The co-chairpersons shall determine the 2169
time, place, and agenda for each meeting of the committee.2170

       The committee has the same powers as other standing or select 2171
committees of the general assembly. The committee may request 2172
assistance from the legislative service commission.2173

       Sec. 101.391.  (A) There is hereby created the joint 2174
legislative committee on medicaid technology and reform. The 2175
committee may review or study any matter that it considers 2176
relevant to the operation of the medicaid program established 2177
under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code, with priority given to 2178
the study or review of mechanisms to enhance the program's 2179
effectiveness through improved technology systems and program 2180
reform.2181

       (B) The committee shall consist of five members of the house 2182
of representatives appointed by the speaker of the house of 2183
representatives and five members of the senate appointed by the 2184
president of the senate. Not more than three members appointed by 2185
the speaker of the house of representatives and not more than 2186
three members appointed by the president of the senate may be of 2187
the same political party.2188

       Each member of the committee shall hold office during the 2189
general assembly in which the member is appointed and until a 2190
successor has been appointed, notwithstanding the adjournment sine 2191
die of the general assembly in which the member was appointed or 2192
the expiration of the member's term as a member of the general 2193
assembly. Any vacancies occurring among the members of the 2194
committee shall be filled in the manner of the original 2195
appointment.2196

       (C) The committee has the same powers as other standing or 2197
select committees of the general assembly. The committee may 2198
employ an executive director.2199

       Sec. 101.392.  (A) As used in this section, "Affordable Care 2200
Act" means the federal "Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act 2201
of 2010," Pub. L. 111-148, 124 Stat. 119, as amended by the 2202
federal "Health Care and Education Reconciliation Act of 2010," 2203
Pub. L. 111-152, 124 Stat. 1029, and any amendments to those acts, 2204
or any regulations or guidance issued under those acts.2205

       (B) There is hereby created the joint legislative committee 2206
on the Affordable Care Act. The committee may review or study any 2207
matter that it considers relevant to the operation and impact of 2208
the Affordable Care Act in this state.2209

       (C) The committee shall consist of three members of the house 2210
of representatives appointed by the speaker of the house of 2211
representatives, and three members of the senate appointed by the 2212
president of the senate. Two members appointed by the speaker of 2213
the house of representatives shall be from the majority party and 2214
one member shall be from the minority party, and two members 2215
appointed by the president of the senate shall be from the 2216
majority party and one member shall be from the minority party.2217

       Each member of the committee shall hold office during the 2218
general assembly in which the member is appointed and until a 2219
successor has been appointed, notwithstanding the adjournment sine 2220
die of the general assembly in which the member was appointed or 2221
the expiration of the member's term as a member of the general 2222
assembly. Any vacancies occurring among the members of the 2223
committee shall be filled in the manner of the original 2224
appointment.2225

       (D) The committee has the same powers as other standing or 2226
select committees of the general assembly. The committee may 2227
request assistance from the legislative service commission.2228

       Sec. 102.02.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in division 2229
(H) of this section, all of the following shall file with the 2230
appropriate ethics commission the disclosure statement described 2231
in this division on a form prescribed by the appropriate 2232
commission: every person who is elected to or is a candidate for a 2233
state, county, or city office or an office of a township with a 2234
population of five thousand or more, as determined by the most 2235
recent federal decennial census, and every person who is appointed 2236
to fill a vacancy for an unexpired term in such an elective 2237
office; all members of the state board of education; the director, 2238
assistant directors, deputy directors, division chiefs, or persons 2239
of equivalent rank of any administrative department of the state; 2240
the president or other chief administrative officer of every state 2241
institution of higher education as defined in section 3345.011 of 2242
the Revised Code; the executive director and the members of the 2243
capitol square review and advisory board appointed or employed 2244
pursuant to section 105.41 of the Revised Code; all members of the 2245
Ohio casino control commission, the executive director of the 2246
commission, all professional employees of the commission, and all 2247
technical employees of the commission who perform an internal 2248
audit function; the individuals set forth in division (B)(2) of 2249
section 187.03 of the Revised Code; the chief executive officer 2250
and the members of the board of each state retirement system; each 2251
employee of a state retirement board who is a state retirement 2252
system investment officer licensed pursuant to section 1707.163 of 2253
the Revised Code; the members of the Ohio retirement study council 2254
appointed pursuant to division (C) of section 171.01 of the 2255
Revised Code; employees of the Ohio retirement study council, 2256
other than employees who perform purely administrative or clerical 2257
functions; the administrator of workers' compensation and each 2258
member of the bureau of workers' compensation board of directors; 2259
the bureau of workers' compensation director of investments; the 2260
chief investment officer of the bureau of workers' compensation; 2261
all members of the board of commissioners on grievances and 2262
discipline of the supreme court and the ethics commission created 2263
under section 102.05 of the Revised Code; every business manager, 2264
treasurer, or superintendent of a city, local, exempted village, 2265
joint vocational, or cooperative education school district or an 2266
educational service center; every person who is elected to or is a 2267
candidate for the office of member of a board of education of a 2268
city, local, exempted village, joint vocational, or cooperative 2269
education school district or of a governing board of an 2270
educational service center that has a total student count of 2271
twelve thousand or more as most recently determined by the 2272
department of education pursuant to section 3317.03 of the Revised 2273
Code; every person who is appointed to the board of education of a 2274
municipal school district pursuant to division (B) or (F) of 2275
section 3311.71 of the Revised Code; all members of the board of 2276
directors of a sanitary district that is established under Chapter 2277
6115. of the Revised Code and organized wholly for the purpose of 2278
providing a water supply for domestic, municipal, and public use, 2279
and that includes two municipal corporations in two counties; 2280
every public official or employee who is paid a salary or wage in 2281
accordance with schedule C of section 124.15 or schedule E-2 of 2282
section 124.152 of the Revised Code; members of the board of 2283
trustees and the executive director of the southern Ohio 2284
agricultural and community development foundation; all members 2285
appointed to the Ohio livestock care standards board under section 2286
904.02 of the Revised Code; and every other public official or 2287
employee who is designated by the appropriate ethics commission 2288
pursuant to division (B) of this section.2289

       The disclosure statement shall include all of the following:2290

       (1) The name of the person filing the statement and each 2291
member of the person's immediate family and all names under which 2292
the person or members of the person's immediate family do 2293
business;2294

       (2)(a) Subject to divisions (A)(2)(b) and (c) of this section 2295
and except as otherwise provided in section 102.022 of the Revised 2296
Code, identification of every source of income, other than income 2297
from a legislative agent identified in division (A)(2)(b) of this 2298
section, received during the preceding calendar year, in the 2299
person's own name or by any other person for the person's use or 2300
benefit, by the person filing the statement, and a brief 2301
description of the nature of the services for which the income was 2302
received. If the person filing the statement is a member of the 2303
general assembly, the statement shall identify the amount of every 2304
source of income received in accordance with the following ranges 2305
of amounts: zero or more, but less than one thousand dollars; one 2306
thousand dollars or more, but less than ten thousand dollars; ten 2307
thousand dollars or more, but less than twenty-five thousand 2308
dollars; twenty-five thousand dollars or more, but less than fifty 2309
thousand dollars; fifty thousand dollars or more, but less than 2310
one hundred thousand dollars; and one hundred thousand dollars or 2311
more. Division (A)(2)(a) of this section shall not be construed to 2312
require a person filing the statement who derives income from a 2313
business or profession to disclose the individual items of income 2314
that constitute the gross income of that business or profession, 2315
except for those individual items of income that are attributable 2316
to the person's or, if the income is shared with the person, the 2317
partner's, solicitation of services or goods or performance, 2318
arrangement, or facilitation of services or provision of goods on 2319
behalf of the business or profession of clients, including 2320
corporate clients, who are legislative agents. A person who files 2321
the statement under this section shall disclose the identity of 2322
and the amount of income received from a person who the public 2323
official or employee knows or has reason to know is doing or 2324
seeking to do business of any kind with the public official's or 2325
employee's agency.2326

       (b) If the person filing the statement is a member of the 2327
general assembly, the statement shall identify every source of 2328
income and the amount of that income that was received from a 2329
legislative agent during the preceding calendar year, in the 2330
person's own name or by any other person for the person's use or 2331
benefit, by the person filing the statement, and a brief 2332
description of the nature of the services for which the income was 2333
received. Division (A)(2)(b) of this section requires the 2334
disclosure of clients of attorneys or persons licensed under 2335
section 4732.12 of the Revised Code, or patients of persons 2336
certified under section 4731.14 of the Revised Code, if those 2337
clients or patients are legislative agents. Division (A)(2)(b) of 2338
this section requires a person filing the statement who derives 2339
income from a business or profession to disclose those individual 2340
items of income that constitute the gross income of that business 2341
or profession that are received from legislative agents.2342

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2)(c) of 2343
this section, division (A)(2)(a) of this section applies to 2344
attorneys, physicians, and other persons who engage in the 2345
practice of a profession and who, pursuant to a section of the 2346
Revised Code, the common law of this state, a code of ethics 2347
applicable to the profession, or otherwise, generally are required 2348
not to reveal, disclose, or use confidences of clients, patients, 2349
or other recipients of professional services except under 2350
specified circumstances or generally are required to maintain 2351
those types of confidences as privileged communications except 2352
under specified circumstances. Division (A)(2)(a) of this section 2353
does not require an attorney, physician, or other professional 2354
subject to a confidentiality requirement as described in division 2355
(A)(2)(c) of this section to disclose the name, other identity, or 2356
address of a client, patient, or other recipient of professional 2357
services if the disclosure would threaten the client, patient, or 2358
other recipient of professional services, would reveal details of 2359
the subject matter for which legal, medical, or professional 2360
advice or other services were sought, or would reveal an otherwise 2361
privileged communication involving the client, patient, or other 2362
recipient of professional services. Division (A)(2)(a) of this 2363
section does not require an attorney, physician, or other 2364
professional subject to a confidentiality requirement as described 2365
in division (A)(2)(c) of this section to disclose in the brief 2366
description of the nature of services required by division 2367
(A)(2)(a) of this section any information pertaining to specific 2368
professional services rendered for a client, patient, or other 2369
recipient of professional services that would reveal details of 2370
the subject matter for which legal, medical, or professional 2371
advice was sought or would reveal an otherwise privileged 2372
communication involving the client, patient, or other recipient of 2373
professional services.2374

       (3) The name of every corporation on file with the secretary 2375
of state that is incorporated in this state or holds a certificate 2376
of compliance authorizing it to do business in this state, trust, 2377
business trust, partnership, or association that transacts 2378
business in this state in which the person filing the statement or 2379
any other person for the person's use and benefit had during the 2380
preceding calendar year an investment of over one thousand dollars 2381
at fair market value as of the thirty-first day of December of the 2382
preceding calendar year, or the date of disposition, whichever is 2383
earlier, or in which the person holds any office or has a 2384
fiduciary relationship, and a description of the nature of the 2385
investment, office, or relationship. Division (A)(3) of this 2386
section does not require disclosure of the name of any bank, 2387
savings and loan association, credit union, or building and loan 2388
association with which the person filing the statement has a 2389
deposit or a withdrawable share account.2390

       (4) All fee simple and leasehold interests to which the 2391
person filing the statement holds legal title to or a beneficial 2392
interest in real property located within the state, excluding the 2393
person's residence and property used primarily for personal 2394
recreation;2395

       (5) The names of all persons residing or transacting business 2396
in the state to whom the person filing the statement owes, in the 2397
person's own name or in the name of any other person, more than 2398
one thousand dollars. Division (A)(5) of this section shall not be 2399
construed to require the disclosure of debts owed by the person 2400
resulting from the ordinary conduct of a business or profession or 2401
debts on the person's residence or real property used primarily 2402
for personal recreation, except that the superintendent of 2403
financial institutions shall disclose the names of all 2404
state-chartered savings and loan associations and of all service 2405
corporations subject to regulation under division (E)(2) of 2406
section 1151.34 of the Revised Code to whom the superintendent in 2407
the superintendent's own name or in the name of any other person 2408
owes any money, and that the superintendent and any deputy 2409
superintendent of banks shall disclose the names of all 2410
state-chartered banks and all bank subsidiary corporations subject 2411
to regulation under section 1109.44 of the Revised Code to whom 2412
the superintendent or deputy superintendent owes any money.2413

       (6) The names of all persons residing or transacting business 2414
in the state, other than a depository excluded under division 2415
(A)(3) of this section, who owe more than one thousand dollars to 2416
the person filing the statement, either in the person's own name 2417
or to any person for the person's use or benefit. Division (A)(6) 2418
of this section shall not be construed to require the disclosure 2419
of clients of attorneys or persons licensed under section 4732.12 2420
or 4732.15 of the Revised Code, or patients of persons certified 2421
under section 4731.14 of the Revised Code, nor the disclosure of 2422
debts owed to the person resulting from the ordinary conduct of a 2423
business or profession.2424

       (7) Except as otherwise provided in section 102.022 of the 2425
Revised Code, the source of each gift of over seventy-five 2426
dollars, or of each gift of over twenty-five dollars received by a 2427
member of the general assembly from a legislative agent, received 2428
by the person in the person's own name or by any other person for 2429
the person's use or benefit during the preceding calendar year, 2430
except gifts received by will or by virtue of section 2105.06 of 2431
the Revised Code, or received from spouses, parents, grandparents, 2432
children, grandchildren, siblings, nephews, nieces, uncles, aunts, 2433
brothers-in-law, sisters-in-law, sons-in-law, daughters-in-law, 2434
fathers-in-law, mothers-in-law, or any person to whom the person 2435
filing the statement stands in loco parentis, or received by way 2436
of distribution from any inter vivos or testamentary trust 2437
established by a spouse or by an ancestor;2438

       (8) Except as otherwise provided in section 102.022 of the 2439
Revised Code, identification of the source and amount of every 2440
payment of expenses incurred for travel to destinations inside or 2441
outside this state that is received by the person in the person's 2442
own name or by any other person for the person's use or benefit 2443
and that is incurred in connection with the person's official 2444
duties, except for expenses for travel to meetings or conventions 2445
of a national or state organization to which any state agency, 2446
including, but not limited to, any legislative agency or state 2447
institution of higher education as defined in section 3345.011 of 2448
the Revised Code, pays membership dues, or any political 2449
subdivision or any office or agency of a political subdivision 2450
pays membership dues;2451

       (9) Except as otherwise provided in section 102.022 of the 2452
Revised Code, identification of the source of payment of expenses 2453
for meals and other food and beverages, other than for meals and 2454
other food and beverages provided at a meeting at which the person 2455
participated in a panel, seminar, or speaking engagement or at a 2456
meeting or convention of a national or state organization to which 2457
any state agency, including, but not limited to, any legislative 2458
agency or state institution of higher education as defined in 2459
section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, pays membership dues, or any 2460
political subdivision or any office or agency of a political 2461
subdivision pays membership dues, that are incurred in connection 2462
with the person's official duties and that exceed one hundred 2463
dollars aggregated per calendar year;2464

       (10) If the disclosure statement is filed by a public 2465
official or employee described in division (B)(2) of section 2466
101.73 of the Revised Code or division (B)(2) of section 121.63 of 2467
the Revised Code who receives a statement from a legislative 2468
agent, executive agency lobbyist, or employer that contains the 2469
information described in division (F)(2) of section 101.73 of the 2470
Revised Code or division (G)(2) of section 121.63 of the Revised 2471
Code, all of the nondisputed information contained in the 2472
statement delivered to that public official or employee by the 2473
legislative agent, executive agency lobbyist, or employer under 2474
division (F)(2) of section 101.73 or (G)(2) of section 121.63 of 2475
the Revised Code.2476

       A person may file a statement required by this section in 2477
person or, by mail, or by electronic means. A person who is a 2478
candidate for elective office shall file the statement no later 2479
than the thirtieth day before the primary, special, or general 2480
election at which the candidacy is to be voted on, whichever 2481
election occurs soonest, except that a person who is a write-in 2482
candidate shall file the statement no later than the twentieth day 2483
before the earliest election at which the person's candidacy is to 2484
be voted on. A person who holds elective office shall file the 2485
statement on or before the fifteenth day of April of each year 2486
unless the person is a candidate for office. A person who is 2487
appointed to fill a vacancy for an unexpired term in an elective 2488
office shall file the statement within fifteen days after the 2489
person qualifies for office. Other persons shall file an annual 2490
statement on or before the fifteenth day of April or, if appointed 2491
or employed after that date, within ninety days after appointment 2492
or employment. No person shall be required to file with the 2493
appropriate ethics commission more than one statement or pay more 2494
than one filing fee for any one calendar year.2495

       The appropriate ethics commission, for good cause, may extend 2496
for a reasonable time the deadline for filing a statement under 2497
this section.2498

       A statement filed under this section is subject to public 2499
inspection at locations designated by the appropriate ethics 2500
commission except as otherwise provided in this section.2501

       (B) The Ohio ethics commission, the joint legislative ethics 2502
committee, and the board of commissioners on grievances and 2503
discipline of the supreme court, using the rule-making procedures 2504
of Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, may require any class of 2505
public officials or employees under its jurisdiction and not 2506
specifically excluded by this section whose positions involve a 2507
substantial and material exercise of administrative discretion in 2508
the formulation of public policy, expenditure of public funds, 2509
enforcement of laws and rules of the state or a county or city, or 2510
the execution of other public trusts, to file an annual statement 2511
on or before the fifteenth day of April under division (A) of this 2512
section. The appropriate ethics commission shall send the public 2513
officials or employees written notice of the requirement by the 2514
fifteenth day of February of each year the filing is required 2515
unless the public official or employee is appointed after that 2516
date, in which case the notice shall be sent within thirty days 2517
after appointment, and the filing shall be made not later than 2518
ninety days after appointment.2519

       Except for disclosure statements filed by members of the 2520
board of trustees and the executive director of the southern Ohio 2521
agricultural and community development foundation, disclosure 2522
statements filed under this division with the Ohio ethics 2523
commission by members of boards, commissions, or bureaus of the 2524
state for which no compensation is received other than reasonable 2525
and necessary expenses shall be kept confidential. Disclosure 2526
statements filed with the Ohio ethics commission under division 2527
(A) of this section by business managers, treasurers, and 2528
superintendents of city, local, exempted village, joint 2529
vocational, or cooperative education school districts or 2530
educational service centers shall be kept confidential, except 2531
that any person conducting an audit of any such school district or 2532
educational service center pursuant to section 115.56 or Chapter 2533
117. of the Revised Code may examine the disclosure statement of 2534
any business manager, treasurer, or superintendent of that school 2535
district or educational service center. Disclosure statements 2536
filed with the Ohio ethics commission under division (A) of this 2537
section by the individuals set forth in division (B)(2) of section 2538
187.03 of the Revised Code shall be kept confidential. The Ohio 2539
ethics commission shall examine each disclosure statement required 2540
to be kept confidential to determine whether a potential conflict 2541
of interest exists for the person who filed the disclosure 2542
statement. A potential conflict of interest exists if the private 2543
interests of the person, as indicated by the person's disclosure 2544
statement, might interfere with the public interests the person is 2545
required to serve in the exercise of the person's authority and 2546
duties in the person's office or position of employment. If the 2547
commission determines that a potential conflict of interest 2548
exists, it shall notify the person who filed the disclosure 2549
statement and shall make the portions of the disclosure statement 2550
that indicate a potential conflict of interest subject to public 2551
inspection in the same manner as is provided for other disclosure 2552
statements. Any portion of the disclosure statement that the 2553
commission determines does not indicate a potential conflict of 2554
interest shall be kept confidential by the commission and shall 2555
not be made subject to public inspection, except as is necessary 2556
for the enforcement of Chapters 102. and 2921. of the Revised Code 2557
and except as otherwise provided in this division.2558

       (C) No person shall knowingly fail to file, on or before the 2559
applicable filing deadline established under this section, a 2560
statement that is required by this section.2561

       (D) No person shall knowingly file a false statement that is 2562
required to be filed under this section.2563

       (E)(1) Except as provided in divisions (E)(2) and (3) of this 2564
section, the statement required by division (A) or (B) of this 2565
section shall be accompanied by a filing fee of sixty dollars.2566

       (2) The statement required by division (A) of this section 2567
shall be accompanied by the following filing fee to be paid by the 2568
person who is elected or appointed to, or is a candidate for, any 2569
of the following offices:2570

For state office, except member of the 2571
state board of education $95 2572
For office of member of general assembly $40 2573
For county office $60 2574
For city office $35 2575
For township office $35 2576
For office of member of the state board 2577
of education $35 2578
For office of member of a city, local, 2579
exempted village, or cooperative 2580
education board of 2581
education or educational service 2582
center governing board $30 2583
For position of business manager, 2584
treasurer, or superintendent of a 2585
city, local, exempted village, joint 2586
vocational, or cooperative education 2587
school district or 2588
educational service center $30 2589

       (3) No judge of a court of record or candidate for judge of a 2590
court of record, and no referee or magistrate serving a court of 2591
record, shall be required to pay the fee required under division 2592
(E)(1) or (2) or (F) of this section.2593

       (4) For any public official who is appointed to a nonelective 2594
office of the state and for any employee who holds a nonelective 2595
position in a public agency of the state, the state agency that is 2596
the primary employer of the state official or employee shall pay 2597
the fee required under division (E)(1) or (F) of this section.2598

       (F) If a statement required to be filed under this section is 2599
not filed by the date on which it is required to be filed, the 2600
appropriate ethics commission shall assess the person required to 2601
file the statement a late filing fee of ten dollars for each day 2602
the statement is not filed, except that the total amount of the 2603
late filing fee shall not exceed two hundred fifty dollars.2604

       (G)(1) The appropriate ethics commission other than the Ohio 2605
ethics commission and the joint legislative ethics committee shall 2606
deposit all fees it receives under divisions (E) and (F) of this 2607
section into the general revenue fund of the state.2608

       (2) The Ohio ethics commission shall deposit all receipts, 2609
including, but not limited to, fees it receives under divisions 2610
(E) and (F) of this section, investigative or other fees, costs, 2611
or other funds it receives as a result of court orders, and all 2612
moneys it receives from settlements under division (G) of section 2613
102.06 of the Revised Code, into the Ohio ethics commission fund, 2614
which is hereby created in the state treasury. All moneys credited 2615
to the fund shall be used solely for expenses related to the 2616
operation and statutory functions of the commission.2617

       (3) The joint legislative ethics committee shall deposit all 2618
receipts it receives from the payment of financial disclosure 2619
statement filing fees under divisions (E) and (F) of this section 2620
into the joint legislative ethics committee investigative fund.2621

       (H) Division (A) of this section does not apply to a person 2622
elected or appointed to the office of precinct, ward, or district 2623
committee member under Chapter 3517. of the Revised Code; a 2624
presidential elector; a delegate to a national convention; village 2625
or township officials and employees; township officials of a 2626
township with a population of less than five thousand, as 2627
determined by the most recent decennial census; all township 2628
employees; any physician or psychiatrist who is paid a salary or 2629
wage in accordance with schedule C of section 124.15 or schedule 2630
E-2 of section 124.152 of the Revised Code and whose primary 2631
duties do not require the exercise of administrative discretion; 2632
or any member of a board, commission, or bureau of any county or 2633
city who receives less than one thousand dollars per year for 2634
serving in that position.2635

       Sec. 103.0521. If a rule currently in effect is obsolete 2636
because the rule was adopted by an agency that is no longer in 2637
existence and jurisdiction over the rule has not been transferred 2638
to another agency, and if that status is verified by the executive 2639
director of the joint committee on agency rule review, the 2640
executive director shall prepare, for consideration of the joint 2641
committee, a motion that the director of the legislative service 2642
commission remove the obsolete rule from the Administrative Code.2643

       The chairperson of the joint committee, or another member of 2644
the joint committee delegated by the chairperson, shall offer the 2645
motion at the next meeting of the joint committee. If the motion 2646
is agreed to by the joint committee, the executive director shall 2647
transmit a copy of the motion to the director of the legislative 2648
service commission. The executive director shall certify on the 2649
copy transmitted that the motion was agreed to by the joint 2650
committee.2651

       Upon receiving the certified motion, the director of the 2652
legislative service commission shall remove the obsolete rule from 2653
the Administrative Code as directed in the motion. The director 2654
thereafter shall maintain the removed obsolete rule in a file of 2655
obsolete rules. The file of obsolete rules may be maintained in 2656
electronic form.2657

       Sec. 103.144.  As used in sections 103.144 to 103.146 of the 2658
Revised Code:2659

       (A) "Mandated benefit" means the following, when considered 2660
in the context of a sickness and accident insurance policy or a 2661
health insuring corporation policy, contract, or agreement:2662

       (1) Any required coverage for a specific medical or 2663
health-related service, treatment, medication, or practice;2664

       (2) Any required coverage for the services of specific health 2665
care providers;2666

       (3) Any requirement that an insurer or health insuring 2667
corporation offer coverage to specific individuals or groups;2668

       (4) Any requirement that an insurer or health insuring 2669
corporation offer specific medical or health-related services, 2670
treatments, medications, or practices to existing insureds or 2671
enrollees;2672

       (5) Any required expansion of, or addition to, existing 2673
coverage;2674

       (6) Any mandated reimbursement amount to specific health care 2675
providers.2676

       (B) "Mandated benefit" does not include any required coverage 2677
or offer of coverage, any required expansion of, or addition to, 2678
existing coverage, or any mandated reimbursement amount to 2679
specific providers, as described in division (A) of this section, 2680
within the context of any public health benefits arrangement, 2681
including but not limited to, the coverage of beneficiaries 2682
enrolled in Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 2683
(1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended,medicare pursuant to a 2684
medicare risk contract or medicare cost contract, or to the 2685
coverage of beneficiaries enrolled in Title XIX of the "Social 2686
Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, 2687
known as the medical assistance program or medicaid, provided by 2688
the Ohio department of job and family services under Chapter 5111. 2689
of the Revised Code.2690

       Sec. 107.033. As part of the state budget the governor 2691
submits to the general assembly under section 107.03 of the 2692
Revised Code, the governor shall include the state appropriation 2693
limitations the general assembly shall not exceed when making 2694
aggregate general revenue fund appropriations for each respective 2695
fiscal year of the biennium covered by that budget. The aggregate 2696
general revenue fund appropriations the governor proposes in the 2697
state budget also shall not exceed those limitations for each 2698
respective fiscal year of the biennium covered by that budget.2699

        (A) For fiscal year 2008, the state appropriation limitation 2700
is the sum of the following:2701

        (1) The aggregate general revenue fund appropriations for 2702
fiscal year 2007; plus2703

       (2) The aggregate general revenue fund appropriations for 2704
fiscal year 2007 multiplied by either three and one-half per cent, 2705
or the sum of the rate of inflation plus the rate of population 2706
change, whichever is greater.2707

       (B) For each fiscal year thereafter that is not a recast 2708
fiscal year, the state appropriation limitation is the sum of the 2709
following:2710

       (1) The state appropriation limitation for the previous 2711
fiscal year; plus2712

       (2) The state appropriation limitation for the previous 2713
fiscal year multiplied by either three and one-half per cent, or 2714
the sum of the rate of inflation plus the rate of population 2715
change, whichever is greater.2716

       (C) For each recast fiscal year, the state appropriation 2717
limitation is the sum of the following:2718

       (1) The aggregate general revenue fund appropriations for the 2719
previous fiscal year; plus2720

       (2) The aggregate general revenue fund appropriations for the 2721
previous fiscal year multiplied by either three and one-half per 2722
cent, or the sum of the rate of inflation plus the rate of 2723
population change, whichever is greater.2724

       (D) The state appropriation limitation for a fiscal year 2725
shall be increased by the amount of a nongeneral revenue fund 2726
appropriation made in the immediately preceding fiscal year, if 2727
all of the following apply to the nongeneral revenue fund 2728
appropriation:2729

       (1) It was made on or after July 1, 2013.2730

       (2) It is included in the aggregate general revenue fund 2731
appropriations proposed for that fiscal year.2732

       (3) It is being made for the first time from the general 2733
revenue fund.2734

       Sec. 107.12. (A) As used in this section, "organization" 2735
means a faith-based or other organization that is exempt from 2736
federal income taxation under section 501(c)(3) of the "Internal 2737
Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 1, as amended, 2738
and provides charitable services to needy residents of this state.2739

       (B) There is hereby established within the office of the 2740
governor the governor's office of faith-based and community 2741
initiatives. The office shall:2742

       (1) Serve as a clearinghouse of information on federal, 2743
state, and local funding for charitable services performed by 2744
organizations;2745

       (2) Encourage organizations to seek public funding for their 2746
charitable services;2747

       (3) Assist local, state, and federal agencies in coordinating 2748
their activities to secure maximum use of funds and efforts that 2749
benefit people receiving charitable services from organizations;2750

       (4) Advise the governor, general assembly, and the advisory 2751
board of the governor's office of faith-based and community 2752
initiatives on the barriers that exist to collaboration between 2753
organizations and governmental entities and on ways to remove the 2754
barriers.2755

       (C) The governor shall appoint an executive director and such 2756
other staff as may be necessary to manage the office and perform 2757
or oversee the performance of the duties of the office. Within 2758
sixty days after being appointed, and every twelve months 2759
thereafter, the executive director shall distribute to the 2760
advisory board and review with the board a strategic plan. The 2761
executive director shall report to the board at least quarterly on 2762
proposed initiatives and policies. A report shall include the 2763
condition of the budget and the finances of the office.2764

       (D)(1) There is hereby created the advisory board of the 2765
governor's office of faith-based and community initiatives. The 2766
board shall consist of the following members:2767

       (a) The directors of aging, alcohol and drug addiction 2768
services, rehabilitation and correction, health, job and family 2769
services, developmental disabilities, mental healthmental health 2770
and addiction services, and youth services, or their designees;2771

       (b) The speaker of the house of representatives shall appoint 2772
to the board two members of the house of representatives, not more 2773
than one of whom shall be from the same political party and at 2774
least one of whom shall be from the legislative black caucus. The 2775
president of the senate shall appoint to the board two members of 2776
the senate, not more than one of whom shall be from the same 2777
political party.2778

       (c) The governor, the speaker of the house of 2779
representatives, and the president of the senate shall each 2780
appoint to the board three representatives of the nonprofit, 2781
faith-based and other nonprofit community.2782

       (2) Terms of the office shall be one year. Any vacancy that 2783
occurs on the board shall be filled in the same manner as the 2784
original appointment. 2785

       (3) Members of the board are not entitled to compensation, 2786
but the members appointed by the governor, the speaker of the 2787
house of representatives, and the president of the senate who are 2788
representatives of the nonprofit, faith-based and other nonprofit 2789
community shall be reimbursed for their actual and necessary 2790
expenses that are incurred in relation to board meetings.2791

       (4) The board shall be presided over by a chairperson and a 2792
vice-chairperson, who shall be the members of the board who are 2793
also members of the house of representatives or the senate. 2794
Annually on the first day of January, the chairpersonship and 2795
vice-chairpersonship shall alternate between the members of the 2796
house of representatives and the senate.2797

       (E) The board shall have the following duties:2798

       (1) Provide direction, guidance, and oversight to the office;2799

       (2) Assist in the dissemination of information about, and in 2800
the stimulation of public awareness of, the service programs 2801
supported by the office;2802

       (3) Review the budget and finances of the office, proposed 2803
initiatives and policies, and the executive director's annual 2804
strategic plan at board meetings;2805

       (4) Provide feedback for and proposed modifications of the 2806
executive director's strategic plan. Within forty-five days after 2807
submitting a strategic plan, the executive director shall contact 2808
each advisory board member to obtain feedback. With the approval 2809
of the advisory board chairperson, the executive director shall 2810
lead a strategic plan discussion at the first board meeting 2811
following the distribution of the strategic plan.2812

       (5) Publish a report of its activities and accomplishments on 2813
or before the first day of August of each year, and deliver copies 2814
of the report to the governor, the speaker and minority leader of 2815
the house of representatives, and the president and minority 2816
leader of the senate.2817

       (F) No member of the board or organization that the member is 2818
affiliated or involved with is eligible to receive any grant that 2819
the office administers or assists in administering.2820

       Sec. 109.06.  Before entering upon the discharge of the 2821
duties of his office, the attorney general shall give a bond to 2822
the state in the sum of five thousand dollars, with two or more 2823
sureties approved by the governora surety authorized to do 2824
business in the state, conditioned for the faithful discharge of 2825
the duties of histhe office of attorney general. Such bond, with 2826
the approval of the governor and the oath of office indorsed 2827
thereon, shall be deposited with and kept by the secretary of 2828
state and kept in histhe secretary of state's office.2829

       The first assistant attorney general shall give a bond to the 2830
state in the sum of five thousand dollars, and such other 2831
employees as are designated by the attorney general shall give a 2832
bond to the state in such amounts as the attorney general 2833
determines. Such bonds shall be approved by the attorney general, 2834
conditioned for the faithful discharge of the duties of their 2835
offices, and shall be deposited with and kept by the secretary of 2836
state and kept in histhe secretary of state's office.2837

       Sec. 109.36.  As used in this section and sections 109.361 to 2838
109.366 of the Revised Code:2839

       (A)(1) "Officer or employee" means any of the following:2840

       (a) A person who, at the time a cause of action against the 2841
person arises, is serving in an elected or appointed office or 2842
position with the state or is employed by the state.2843

       (b) A person that, at the time a cause of action against the 2844
person, partnership, or corporation arises, is rendering medical, 2845
nursing, dental, podiatric, optometric, physical therapeutic, 2846
psychiatric, or psychological services pursuant to a personal 2847
services contract or purchased service contract with a department, 2848
agency, or institution of the state.2849

       (c) A person that, at the time a cause of action against the 2850
person, partnership, or corporation arises, is rendering peer 2851
review, utilization review, or drug utilization review services in 2852
relation to medical, nursing, dental, podiatric, optometric, 2853
physical therapeutic, psychiatric, or psychological services 2854
pursuant to a personal services contract or purchased service 2855
contract with a department, agency, or institution of the state.2856

       (d) A person who, at the time a cause of action against the 2857
person arises, is rendering medical, nursing, dental, podiatric, 2858
optometric, physical therapeutic, psychiatric, or psychological 2859
services to patients in a state institution operated by the 2860
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services2861
pursuant to an agreement with the department.2862

       (2) "Officer or employee" does not include any person 2863
elected, appointed, or employed by any political subdivision of 2864
the state.2865

       (B) "State" means the state of Ohio, including but not 2866
limited to, the general assembly, the supreme court, courts of 2867
appeals, the offices of all elected state officers, and all 2868
departments, boards, offices, commissions, agencies, institutions, 2869
and other instrumentalities of the state of Ohio. "State" does not 2870
include political subdivisions.2871

       (C) "Political subdivisions" of the state means municipal 2872
corporations, townships, counties, school districts, and all other 2873
bodies corporate and politic responsible for governmental 2874
activities only in geographical areas smaller than that of the 2875
state.2876

       (D) "Employer" means the general assembly, the supreme court, 2877
courts of appeals, any office of an elected state officer, or any 2878
department, board, office, commission, agency, institution, or 2879
other instrumentality of the state of Ohio that employs or 2880
contracts with an officer or employee or to which an officer or 2881
employee is elected or appointed.2882

       Sec. 109.57.  (A)(1) The superintendent of the bureau of 2883
criminal identification and investigation shall procure from 2884
wherever procurable and file for record photographs, pictures, 2885
descriptions, fingerprints, measurements, and other information 2886
that may be pertinent of all persons who have been convicted of 2887
committing within this state a felony, any crime constituting a 2888
misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent 2889
offenses, or any misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a), 2890
(A)(5)(a), or (A)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, of 2891
all children under eighteen years of age who have been adjudicated 2892
delinquent children for committing within this state an act that 2893
would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an 2894
adult or who have been convicted of or pleaded guilty to 2895
committing within this state a felony or an offense of violence, 2896
and of all well-known and habitual criminals. The person in charge 2897
of any county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or 2898
multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, community-based 2899
correctional facility, halfway house, alternative residential 2900
facility, or state correctional institution and the person in 2901
charge of any state institution having custody of a person 2902
suspected of having committed a felony, any crime constituting a 2903
misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent 2904
offenses, or any misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a), 2905
(A)(5)(a), or (A)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code or 2906
having custody of a child under eighteen years of age with respect 2907
to whom there is probable cause to believe that the child may have 2908
committed an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence 2909
if committed by an adult shall furnish such material to the 2910
superintendent of the bureau. Fingerprints, photographs, or other 2911
descriptive information of a child who is under eighteen years of 2912
age, has not been arrested or otherwise taken into custody for 2913
committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence 2914
who is not in any other category of child specified in this 2915
division, if committed by an adult, has not been adjudicated a 2916
delinquent child for committing an act that would be a felony or 2917
an offense of violence if committed by an adult, has not been 2918
convicted of or pleaded guilty to committing a felony or an 2919
offense of violence, and is not a child with respect to whom there 2920
is probable cause to believe that the child may have committed an 2921
act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed 2922
by an adult shall not be procured by the superintendent or 2923
furnished by any person in charge of any county, multicounty, 2924
municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal jail or 2925
workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway house, 2926
alternative residential facility, or state correctional 2927
institution, except as authorized in section 2151.313 of the 2928
Revised Code. 2929

       (2) Every clerk of a court of record in this state, other 2930
than the supreme court or a court of appeals, shall send to the 2931
superintendent of the bureau a weekly report containing a summary 2932
of each case involving a felony, involving any crime constituting 2933
a misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent 2934
offenses, involving a misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a), 2935
(A)(5)(a), or (A)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, or 2936
involving an adjudication in a case in which a child under 2937
eighteen years of age was alleged to be a delinquent child for 2938
committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence 2939
if committed by an adult. The clerk of the court of common pleas 2940
shall include in the report and summary the clerk sends under this 2941
division all information described in divisions (A)(2)(a) to (f) 2942
of this section regarding a case before the court of appeals that 2943
is served by that clerk. The summary shall be written on the 2944
standard forms furnished by the superintendent pursuant to 2945
division (B) of this section and shall include the following 2946
information: 2947

       (a) The incident tracking number contained on the standard 2948
forms furnished by the superintendent pursuant to division (B) of 2949
this section; 2950

       (b) The style and number of the case; 2951

       (c) The date of arrest, offense, summons, or arraignment; 2952

       (d) The date that the person was convicted of or pleaded 2953
guilty to the offense, adjudicated a delinquent child for 2954
committing the act that would be a felony or an offense of 2955
violence if committed by an adult, found not guilty of the 2956
offense, or found not to be a delinquent child for committing an 2957
act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed 2958
by an adult, the date of an entry dismissing the charge, an entry 2959
declaring a mistrial of the offense in which the person is 2960
discharged, an entry finding that the person or child is not 2961
competent to stand trial, or an entry of a nolle prosequi, or the 2962
date of any other determination that constitutes final resolution 2963
of the case; 2964

       (e) A statement of the original charge with the section of 2965
the Revised Code that was alleged to be violated; 2966

       (f) If the person or child was convicted, pleaded guilty, or 2967
was adjudicated a delinquent child, the sentence or terms of 2968
probation imposed or any other disposition of the offender or the 2969
delinquent child. 2970

       If the offense involved the disarming of a law enforcement 2971
officer or an attempt to disarm a law enforcement officer, the 2972
clerk shall clearly state that fact in the summary, and the 2973
superintendent shall ensure that a clear statement of that fact is 2974
placed in the bureau's records. 2975

       (3) The superintendent shall cooperate with and assist 2976
sheriffs, chiefs of police, and other law enforcement officers in 2977
the establishment of a complete system of criminal identification 2978
and in obtaining fingerprints and other means of identification of 2979
all persons arrested on a charge of a felony, any crime 2980
constituting a misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on 2981
subsequent offenses, or a misdemeanor described in division 2982
(A)(1)(a), (A)(5)(a), or (A)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the 2983
Revised Code and of all children under eighteen years of age 2984
arrested or otherwise taken into custody for committing an act 2985
that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by 2986
an adult. The superintendent also shall file for record the 2987
fingerprint impressions of all persons confined in a county, 2988
multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal 2989
jail or workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway 2990
house, alternative residential facility, or state correctional 2991
institution for the violation of state laws and of all children 2992
under eighteen years of age who are confined in a county, 2993
multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal 2994
jail or workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway 2995
house, alternative residential facility, or state correctional 2996
institution or in any facility for delinquent children for 2997
committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence 2998
if committed by an adult, and any other information that the 2999
superintendent may receive from law enforcement officials of the 3000
state and its political subdivisions. 3001

       (4) The superintendent shall carry out Chapter 2950. of the 3002
Revised Code with respect to the registration of persons who are 3003
convicted of or plead guilty to a sexually oriented offense or a 3004
child-victim oriented offense and with respect to all other duties 3005
imposed on the bureau under that chapter. 3006

       (5) The bureau shall perform centralized recordkeeping 3007
functions for criminal history records and services in this state 3008
for purposes of the national crime prevention and privacy compact 3009
set forth in section 109.571 of the Revised Code and is the 3010
criminal history record repository as defined in that section for 3011
purposes of that compact. The superintendent or the 3012
superintendent's designee is the compact officer for purposes of 3013
that compact and shall carry out the responsibilities of the 3014
compact officer specified in that compact. 3015

       (B) The superintendent shall prepare and furnish to every 3016
county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or 3017
multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, community-based 3018
correctional facility, halfway house, alternative residential 3019
facility, or state correctional institution and to every clerk of 3020
a court in this state specified in division (A)(2) of this section 3021
standard forms for reporting the information required under 3022
division (A) of this section. The standard forms that the 3023
superintendent prepares pursuant to this division may be in a 3024
tangible format, in an electronic format, or in both tangible 3025
formats and electronic formats. 3026

       (C)(1) The superintendent may operate a center for 3027
electronic, automated, or other data processing for the storage 3028
and retrieval of information, data, and statistics pertaining to 3029
criminals and to children under eighteen years of age who are 3030
adjudicated delinquent children for committing an act that would 3031
be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an adult, 3032
criminal activity, crime prevention, law enforcement, and criminal 3033
justice, and may establish and operate a statewide communications 3034
network to be known as the Ohio law enforcement gateway to gather 3035
and disseminate information, data, and statistics for the use of 3036
law enforcement agencies and for other uses specified in this 3037
division. The superintendent may gather, store, retrieve, and 3038
disseminate information, data, and statistics that pertain to 3039
children who are under eighteen years of age and that are gathered 3040
pursuant to sections 109.57 to 109.61 of the Revised Code together 3041
with information, data, and statistics that pertain to adults and 3042
that are gathered pursuant to those sections. 3043

       (2) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee shall 3044
gather information of the nature described in division (C)(1) of 3045
this section that pertains to the offense and delinquency history 3046
of a person who has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been 3047
adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a sexually oriented 3048
offense or a child-victim oriented offense for inclusion in the 3049
state registry of sex offenders and child-victim offenders 3050
maintained pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 2950.13 of the 3051
Revised Code and in the internet database operated pursuant to 3052
division (A)(13) of that section and for possible inclusion in the 3053
internet database operated pursuant to division (A)(11) of that 3054
section. 3055

        (3) In addition to any other authorized use of information, 3056
data, and statistics of the nature described in division (C)(1) of 3057
this section, the superintendent or the superintendent's designee 3058
may provide and exchange the information, data, and statistics 3059
pursuant to the national crime prevention and privacy compact as 3060
described in division (A)(5) of this section. 3061

       (4) The attorney general may adopt rules under Chapter 119. 3062
of the Revised Code establishing guidelines for the operation of 3063
and participation in the Ohio law enforcement gateway. The rules 3064
may include criteria for granting and restricting access to 3065
information gathered and disseminated through the Ohio law 3066
enforcement gateway. The attorney general shall permit the state 3067
medical board and board of nursing to access and view, but not 3068
alter, information gathered and disseminated through the Ohio law 3069
enforcement gateway.3070

       The attorney general may appoint a steering committee to 3071
advise the attorney general in the operation of the Ohio law 3072
enforcement gateway that is comprised of persons who are 3073
representatives of the criminal justice agencies in this state 3074
that use the Ohio law enforcement gateway and is chaired by the 3075
superintendent or the superintendent's designee.3076

       (D)(1) The following are not public records under section 3077
149.43 of the Revised Code:3078

       (a) Information and materials furnished to the superintendent 3079
pursuant to division (A) of this section;3080

       (b) Information, data, and statistics gathered or 3081
disseminated through the Ohio law enforcement gateway pursuant to 3082
division (C)(1) of this section;3083

       (c) Information and materials furnished to any board or 3084
person under division (F) or (G) of this section.3085

       (2) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee shall 3086
gather and retain information so furnished under division (A) of 3087
this section that pertains to the offense and delinquency history 3088
of a person who has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been 3089
adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a sexually oriented 3090
offense or a child-victim oriented offense for the purposes 3091
described in division (C)(2) of this section. 3092

       (E)(1) The attorney general shall adopt rules, in accordance 3093
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and subject to division 3094
(E)(2) of this section, setting forth the procedure by which a 3095
person may receive or release information gathered by the 3096
superintendent pursuant to division (A) of this section. A 3097
reasonable fee may be charged for this service. If a temporary 3098
employment service submits a request for a determination of 3099
whether a person the service plans to refer to an employment 3100
position has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense 3101
listed or described in division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of section 3102
109.572 of the Revised Code, the request shall be treated as a 3103
single request and only one fee shall be charged. 3104

       (2) Except as otherwise provided in this division, a rule 3105
adopted under division (E)(1) of this section may provide only for 3106
the release of information gathered pursuant to division (A) of 3107
this section that relates to the conviction of a person, or a 3108
person's plea of guilty to, a criminal offense. The superintendent 3109
shall not release, and the attorney general shall not adopt any 3110
rule under division (E)(1) of this section that permits the 3111
release of, any information gathered pursuant to division (A) of 3112
this section that relates to an adjudication of a child as a 3113
delinquent child, or that relates to a criminal conviction of a 3114
person under eighteen years of age if the person's case was 3115
transferred back to a juvenile court under division (B)(2) or (3) 3116
of section 2152.121 of the Revised Code and the juvenile court 3117
imposed a disposition or serious youthful offender disposition 3118
upon the person under either division, unless either of the 3119
following applies with respect to the adjudication or conviction:3120

       (a) The adjudication or conviction was for a violation of 3121
section 2903.01 or 2903.02 of the Revised Code.3122

       (b) The adjudication or conviction was for a sexually 3123
oriented offense, the juvenile court was required to classify the 3124
child a juvenile offender registrant for that offense under 3125
section 2152.82, 2152.83, or 2152.86 of the Revised Code, and that 3126
classification has not been removed.3127

       (F)(1) As used in division (F)(2) of this section, "head 3128
start agency" means an entity in this state that has been approved 3129
to be an agency for purposes of subchapter II of the "Community 3130
Economic Development Act," 95 Stat. 489 (1981), 42 U.S.C.A. 9831, 3131
as amended. 3132

       (2)(a) In addition to or in conjunction with any request that 3133
is required to be made under section 109.572, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3134
3301.541, division (C) of section 3310.58, or section 3319.39, 3135
3319.391, 3327.10, 3701.881, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5123.081, or 3136
5153.111 of the Revised Code or that is made under section 3137
3314.41, 3319.392, 3326.25, or 3328.20 of the Revised Code, the 3138
board of education of any school district; the director of 3139
developmental disabilities; any county board of developmental 3140
disabilities; any provider or subcontractor as defined in section 3141
5123.081 of the Revised Code; the chief administrator of any 3142
chartered nonpublic school; the chief administrator of a 3143
registered private provider that is not also a chartered nonpublic 3144
school; the chief administrator of any home health agency; the 3145
chief administrator of or person operating any child day-care 3146
center, type A family day-care home, or type B family day-care 3147
home licensed or certified under Chapter 5104. of the Revised 3148
Code; the administrator of any type C family day-care home 3149
certified pursuant to Section 1 of Sub. H.B. 62 of the 121st 3150
general assembly or Section 5 of Am. Sub. S.B. 160 of the 121st 3151
general assembly; the chief administrator of any head start 3152
agency; the executive director of a public children services 3153
agency; a private company described in section 3314.41, 3319.392, 3154
3326.25, or 3328.20 of the Revised Code; or an employer described 3155
in division (J)(2) of section 3327.10 of the Revised Code may 3156
request that the superintendent of the bureau investigate and 3157
determine, with respect to any individual who has applied for 3158
employment in any position after October 2, 1989, or any 3159
individual wishing to apply for employment with a board of 3160
education may request, with regard to the individual, whether the 3161
bureau has any information gathered under division (A) of this 3162
section that pertains to that individual. On receipt of the 3163
request, subject to division (E)(2) of this section, the 3164
superintendent shall determine whether that information exists 3165
and, upon request of the person, board, or entity requesting 3166
information, also shall request from the federal bureau of 3167
investigation any criminal records it has pertaining to that 3168
individual. The superintendent or the superintendent's designee 3169
also may request criminal history records from other states or the 3170
federal government pursuant to the national crime prevention and 3171
privacy compact set forth in section 109.571 of the Revised Code. 3172
Within thirty days of the date that the superintendent receives a 3173
request, subject to division (E)(2) of this section, the 3174
superintendent shall send to the board, entity, or person a report 3175
of any information that the superintendent determines exists, 3176
including information contained in records that have been sealed 3177
under section 2953.32 of the Revised Code, and, within thirty days 3178
of its receipt, subject to division (E)(2) of this section, shall 3179
send the board, entity, or person a report of any information 3180
received from the federal bureau of investigation, other than 3181
information the dissemination of which is prohibited by federal 3182
law. 3183

       (b) When a board of education or a registered private 3184
provider is required to receive information under this section as 3185
a prerequisite to employment of an individual pursuant to division 3186
(C) of section 3310.58 or section 3319.39 of the Revised Code, it 3187
may accept a certified copy of records that were issued by the 3188
bureau of criminal identification and investigation and that are 3189
presented by an individual applying for employment with the 3190
district in lieu of requesting that information itself. In such a 3191
case, the board shall accept the certified copy issued by the 3192
bureau in order to make a photocopy of it for that individual's 3193
employment application documents and shall return the certified 3194
copy to the individual. In a case of that nature, a district or 3195
provider only shall accept a certified copy of records of that 3196
nature within one year after the date of their issuance by the 3197
bureau. 3198

       (c) Notwithstanding division (F)(2)(a) of this section, in 3199
the case of a request under section 3319.39, 3319.391, or 3327.10 3200
of the Revised Code only for criminal records maintained by the 3201
federal bureau of investigation, the superintendent shall not 3202
determine whether any information gathered under division (A) of 3203
this section exists on the person for whom the request is made.3204

       (3) The state board of education may request, with respect to 3205
any individual who has applied for employment after October 2, 3206
1989, in any position with the state board or the department of 3207
education, any information that a school district board of 3208
education is authorized to request under division (F)(2) of this 3209
section, and the superintendent of the bureau shall proceed as if 3210
the request has been received from a school district board of 3211
education under division (F)(2) of this section. 3212

       (4) When the superintendent of the bureau receives a request 3213
for information under section 3319.291 of the Revised Code, the 3214
superintendent shall proceed as if the request has been received 3215
from a school district board of education and shall comply with 3216
divisions (F)(2)(a) and (c) of this section. 3217

       (5) When a recipient of a classroom reading improvement grant 3218
paid under section 3301.86 of the Revised Code requests, with 3219
respect to any individual who applies to participate in providing 3220
any program or service funded in whole or in part by the grant, 3221
the information that a school district board of education is 3222
authorized to request under division (F)(2)(a) of this section, 3223
the superintendent of the bureau shall proceed as if the request 3224
has been received from a school district board of education under 3225
division (F)(2)(a) of this section. 3226

       (G) In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 3227
required to be made under section 3701.881, 3712.09, or 3721.121 3228
of the Revised Code with respect to an individual who has applied 3229
for employment in a position that involves providing direct care 3230
to an older adult or adult resident, the chief administrator of a 3231
home health agency, hospice care program, home licensed under 3232
Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, or adult day-care program 3233
operated pursuant to rules adopted under section 3721.04 of the 3234
Revised Code may request that the superintendent of the bureau 3235
investigate and determine, with respect to any individual who has 3236
applied after January 27, 1997, for employment in a position that 3237
does not involve providing direct care to an older adult or adult 3238
resident, whether the bureau has any information gathered under 3239
division (A) of this section that pertains to that individual. 3240

       In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 3241
required to be made under section 173.27 of the Revised Code with 3242
respect to an individual who has applied for employment in a 3243
position that involves providing ombudspersonombudsman services 3244
to residents of long-term care facilities or recipients of 3245
community-based long-term care services, the state long-term care 3246
ombudspersonombudsman, ombudsperson's designee, orthe director 3247
of healthaging, a regional long-term care ombudsman, or the 3248
designee of the ombudsman, director, or program may request that 3249
the superintendent investigate and determine, with respect to any 3250
individual who has applied for employment in a position that does 3251
not involve providing such ombudspersonombudsman services, 3252
whether the bureau has any information gathered under division (A) 3253
of this section that pertains to that applicant. 3254

       In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 3255
required to be made under section 173.394173.38 of the Revised 3256
Code with respect to an individual who has applied for employment 3257
in a direct-care position that involves providing direct care to 3258
an individual, the chief administrator of a community-based 3259
long-term care agencyprovider, as defined in section 173.39 of 3260
the Revised Code, may request that the superintendent investigate 3261
and determine, with respect to any individual who has applied for 3262
employment in a position that doesis not involve providing direct 3263
carea direct-care position, whether the bureau has any 3264
information gathered under division (A) of this section that 3265
pertains to that applicant. 3266

        In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 3267
required to be made under section 3712.09 of the Revised Code with 3268
respect to an individual who has applied for employment in a 3269
position that involves providing direct care to a pediatric 3270
respite care patient, the chief administrator of a pediatric 3271
respite care program may request that the superintendent of the 3272
bureau investigate and determine, with respect to any individual 3273
who has applied for employment in a position that does not involve 3274
providing direct care to a pediatric respite care patient, whether 3275
the bureau has any information gathered under division (A) of this 3276
section that pertains to that individual.3277

       On receipt of a request under this division, the 3278
superintendent shall determine whether that information exists 3279
and, on request of the individual requesting information, shall 3280
also request from the federal bureau of investigation any criminal 3281
records it has pertaining to the applicant. The superintendent or 3282
the superintendent's designee also may request criminal history 3283
records from other states or the federal government pursuant to 3284
the national crime prevention and privacy compact set forth in 3285
section 109.571 of the Revised Code. Within thirty days of the 3286
date a request is received, subject to division (E)(2) of this 3287
section, the superintendent shall send to the requester a report 3288
of any information determined to exist, including information 3289
contained in records that have been sealed under section 2953.32 3290
of the Revised Code, and, within thirty days of its receipt, shall 3291
send the requester a report of any information received from the 3292
federal bureau of investigation, other than information the 3293
dissemination of which is prohibited by federal law. 3294

       (H) Information obtained by a government entity or person 3295
under this section is confidential and shall not be released or 3296
disseminated. 3297

       (I) The superintendent may charge a reasonable fee for 3298
providing information or criminal records under division (F)(2) or 3299
(G) of this section. 3300

       (J) As used in this section:3301

       (1) "Pediatric respite care program" and "pediatric respite 3302
care patient" have the same meanings as in section 3712.01 of the 3303
Revised Code.3304

       (2) "Sexually oriented offense" and "child-victim oriented 3305
offense" have the same meanings as in section 2950.01 of the 3306
Revised Code.3307

       (3) "Registered private provider" means a nonpublic school or 3308
entity registered with the superintendent of public instruction 3309
under section 3310.41 of the Revised Code to participate in the 3310
autism scholarship program or section 3310.58 of the Revised Code 3311
to participate in the Jon Peterson special needs scholarship 3312
program.3313

       Sec. 109.572. (A)(1) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to 3314
section 121.08, 3301.32, 3301.541, or 3319.39 of the Revised Code, 3315
a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this 3316
section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the 3317
manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the 3318
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 3319
investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner 3320
described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any 3321
information exists that indicates that the person who is the 3322
subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded 3323
guilty to any of the following:3324

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 3325
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 3326
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 3327
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 3328
2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 3329
2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 3330
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 3331
2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual 3332
penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised 3333
Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it 3334
existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of 3335
the Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 3336
2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, 3337
had the violation been committed prior to that date, or a 3338
violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a 3339
minor drug possession offense;3340

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 3341
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 3342
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(1)(a) of 3343
this section;3344

       (c) If the request is made pursuant to section 3319.39 of the 3345
Revised Code for an applicant who is a teacher, any offense 3346
specified in section 3319.31 of the Revised Code.3347

       (2) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 3712.09 or 3348
3721.121 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant 3349
to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint 3350
impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of 3351
this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 3352
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 3353
check with respect to any person who has applied for employment in 3354
a position for which a criminal records check is required by those 3355
sections. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records 3356
check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 3357
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 3358
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 3359
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:3360

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 3361
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 3362
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 3363
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 3364
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 3365
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 3366
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 3367
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 3368
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;3369

       (b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, 3370
or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of 3371
the offenses listed in division (A)(2)(a) of this section.3372

       (3) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 173.27, 3373
173.394173.38, 3701.881, 5111.0325164.34, 5111.0335164.341, 3374
5111.0345164.342, 5123.081, or 5123.169 of the Revised Code, a 3375
completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of this 3376
section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the 3377
manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the 3378
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 3379
investigation shall conduct a criminal records check of the person 3380
for whom the request is made. The superintendent shall conduct the 3381
criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of 3382
this section to determine whether any information exists that 3383
indicates that the person who is the subject of the request 3384
previously has been convicted of, has pleaded guilty to, or 3385
(except in the case of a request pursuant to section 5164.34, 3386
5164.341, or 5164.342 of the Revised Code) has been found eligible 3387
for intervention in lieu of conviction for any of the following, 3388
regardless of the date of the conviction, the date of entry of the 3389
guilty plea, or (except in the case of a request pursuant to 3390
section 5164.34, 5164.341, or 5164.342 of the Revised Code) the 3391
date the person was found eligible for intervention in lieu of 3392
conviction:3393

       (a) A violation of section 959.13, 959.131, 2903.01, 2903.02, 3394
2903.03, 2903.04, 2903.041, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 3395
2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2903.341, 2905.01, 3396
2905.02, 2905.05, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2905.32, 2905.33, 2907.02, 3397
2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 3398
2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.24, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 3399
2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2907.33, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.04, 3400
2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 3401
2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.05, 2913.11, 2913.21, 3402
2913.31, 2913.32, 2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 3403
2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2913.51, 3404
2917.01, 2917.02, 2917.03, 2917.31, 2919.12, 2919.121, 2919.123, 3405
2919.22, 2919.23, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.03, 2921.11, 2921.12, 3406
2921.13, 2921.21, 2921.24, 2921.32, 2921.321, 2921.34, 2921.35, 3407
2921.36, 2921.51, 2923.12, 2923.122, 2923.123, 2923.13, 2923.161, 3408
2923.162, 2923.21, 2923.32, 2923.42, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 3409
2925.041, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.09, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.14, 3410
2925.141, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.24, 2925.36, 2925.55, 2925.56, 3411
2927.12, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;3412

       (b) Felonious sexual penetration in violation of former 3413
section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;3414

       (c) A violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it 3415
existed prior to July 1, 1996;3416

       (d) A violation of section 2923.01, 2923.02, or 2923.03 of 3417
the Revised Code when the underlying offense that is the object of 3418
the conspiracy, attempt, or complicity is one of the offenses 3419
listed in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (c) of this section;3420

       (e) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance 3421
or law of this state, any other state, or the United States that 3422
is substantially equivalent to any of the offenses listed in 3423
divisions (A)(3)(a) to (d) of this section.3424

       (4) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 2151.86 of 3425
the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division 3426
(C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions 3427
obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this 3428
section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 3429
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 3430
check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 3431
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 3432
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 3433
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:3434

       (a) A violation of section 959.13, 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 3435
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.15, 2903.16, 2903.21, 3436
2903.211, 2903.22, 2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 3437
2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 3438
2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 3439
2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 2909.03, 2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 3440
2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2913.49, 2917.01, 2917.02, 3441
2919.12, 2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 3442
2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, 2927.12, or 3716.11 3443
of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised 3444
Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 3445
2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a violation of 3446
section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 3447
1996, had the violation been committed prior to that date, a 3448
violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a 3449
minor drug possession offense, two or more OVI or OVUAC violations 3450
committed within the three years immediately preceding the 3451
submission of the application or petition that is the basis of the 3452
request, or felonious sexual penetration in violation of former 3453
section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;3454

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 3455
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 3456
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(4)(a) of 3457
this section.3458

       (5) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to section 5104.012 or 3459
5104.013 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant 3460
to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint 3461
impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of 3462
this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 3463
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 3464
check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 3465
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 3466
person who is the subject of the request has been convicted of or 3467
pleaded guilty to any of the following:3468

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 3469
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.22, 3470
2903.34, 2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 3471
2907.05, 2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 3472
2907.23, 2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 3473
2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 3474
2913.041, 2913.05, 2913.06, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 3475
2913.33, 2913.34, 2913.40, 2913.41, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 3476
2913.441, 2913.45, 2913.46, 2913.47, 2913.48, 2913.49, 2919.12, 3477
2919.22, 2919.24, 2919.25, 2921.11, 2921.13, 2923.01, 2923.12, 3478
2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3479
3716.11 of the Revised Code, felonious sexual penetration in 3480
violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code, a 3481
violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed 3482
prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of section 2919.23 of the 3483
Revised Code that would have been a violation of section 2905.04 3484
of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, had the 3485
violation been committed prior to that date, a violation of 3486
section 2925.11 of the Revised Code that is not a minor drug 3487
possession offense, a violation of section 2923.02 or 2923.03 of 3488
the Revised Code that relates to a crime specified in this 3489
division, or a second violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised 3490
Code within five years of the date of application for licensure or 3491
certification.3492

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 3493
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 3494
equivalent to any of the offenses or violations described in 3495
division (A)(5)(a) of this section.3496

       (6) Upon receipt of a request pursuant to section 5153.111 of 3497
the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division 3498
(C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions 3499
obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of this 3500
section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 3501
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 3502
check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 3503
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 3504
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 3505
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:3506

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 3507
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 3508
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.05, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 3509
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.21, 2907.22, 2907.23, 3510
2907.25, 2907.31, 2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2909.02, 3511
2909.03, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, 2919.12, 2919.22, 3512
2919.24, 2919.25, 2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 3513
2925.04, 2925.05, 2925.06, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code, 3514
felonious sexual penetration in violation of former section 3515
2907.12 of the Revised Code, a violation of section 2905.04 of the 3516
Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996, a violation of 3517
section 2919.23 of the Revised Code that would have been a 3518
violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed 3519
prior to July 1, 1996, had the violation been committed prior to 3520
that date, or a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code 3521
that is not a minor drug possession offense;3522

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 3523
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 3524
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (A)(6)(a) of 3525
this section.3526

       (7) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check from 3527
an individual pursuant to section 4749.03 or 4749.06 of the 3528
Revised Code, accompanied by a completed copy of the form 3529
prescribed in division (C)(1) of this section and a set of 3530
fingerprint impressions obtained in a manner described in division 3531
(C)(2) of this section, the superintendent of the bureau of 3532
criminal identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal 3533
records check in the manner described in division (B) of this 3534
section to determine whether any information exists indicating 3535
that the person who is the subject of the request has been 3536
convicted of or pleaded guilty to a felony in this state or in any 3537
other state. If the individual indicates that a firearm will be 3538
carried in the course of business, the superintendent shall 3539
require information from the federal bureau of investigation as 3540
described in division (B)(2) of this section. Subject to division 3541
(F) of this section, the superintendent shall report the findings 3542
of the criminal records check and any information the federal 3543
bureau of investigation provides to the director of public safety.3544

       (8) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 1321.37, 3545
1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.03, 1322.031, or 4763.05 of the Revised 3546
Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of 3547
this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the 3548
manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the 3549
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 3550
investigation shall conduct a criminal records check with respect 3551
to any person who has applied for a license, permit, or 3552
certification from the department of commerce or a division in the 3553
department. The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records 3554
check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 3555
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 3556
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 3557
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following: a 3558
violation of section 2913.02, 2913.11, 2913.31, 2913.51, or 3559
2925.03 of the Revised Code; any other criminal offense involving 3560
theft, receiving stolen property, embezzlement, forgery, fraud, 3561
passing bad checks, money laundering, or drug trafficking, or any 3562
criminal offense involving money or securities, as set forth in 3563
Chapters 2909., 2911., 2913., 2915., 2921., 2923., and 2925. of 3564
the Revised Code; or any existing or former law of this state, any 3565
other state, or the United States that is substantially equivalent 3566
to those offenses.3567

       (9) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check from 3568
the treasurer of state under section 113.041 of the Revised Code 3569
or from an individual under section 4701.08, 4715.101, 4717.061, 3570
4725.121, 4725.501, 4729.071, 4730.101, 4730.14, 4730.28, 3571
4731.081, 4731.15, 4731.171, 4731.222, 4731.281, 4731.296, 3572
4731.531, 4732.091, 4734.202, 4740.061, 4741.10, 4755.70, 3573
4757.101, 4759.061, 4760.032, 4760.06, 4761.051, 4762.031, 3574
4762.06, 4776.021, or 4779.091 of the Revised Code, accompanied by 3575
a completed form prescribed under division (C)(1) of this section 3576
and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the manner 3577
described in division (C)(2) of this section, the superintendent 3578
of the bureau of criminal identification and investigation shall 3579
conduct a criminal records check in the manner described in 3580
division (B) of this section to determine whether any information 3581
exists that indicates that the person who is the subject of the 3582
request has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any criminal 3583
offense in this state or any other state. Subject to division (F) 3584
of this section, the superintendent shall send the results of a 3585
check requested under section 113.041 of the Revised Code to the 3586
treasurer of state and shall send the results of a check requested 3587
under any of the other listed sections to the licensing board 3588
specified by the individual in the request.3589

       (10) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 1121.23, 3590
1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1733.47, or 1761.26 of the Revised 3591
Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of 3592
this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the 3593
manner described in division (C)(2) of this section, the 3594
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 3595
investigation shall conduct a criminal records check in the manner 3596
described in division (B) of this section to determine whether any 3597
information exists that indicates that the person who is the 3598
subject of the request previously has been convicted of or pleaded 3599
guilty to any criminal offense under any existing or former law of 3600
this state, any other state, or the United States.3601

       (11) On receipt of a request for a criminal records check 3602
from an appointing or licensing authority under section 3772.07 of 3603
the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed under division 3604
(C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint impressions 3605
obtained in the manner prescribed in division (C)(2) of this 3606
section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 3607
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 3608
check in the manner described in division (B) of this section to 3609
determine whether any information exists that indicates that the 3610
person who is the subject of the request previously has been 3611
convicted of or pleaded guilty or no contest to any offense under 3612
any existing or former law of this state, any other state, or the 3613
United States that is a disqualifying offense as defined in 3614
section 3772.07 of the Revised Code or substantially equivalent to 3615
such an offense.3616

       (12) On receipt of a request pursuant to section 2151.33 or 3617
2151.412 of the Revised Code, a completed form prescribed pursuant 3618
to division (C)(1) of this section, and a set of fingerprint 3619
impressions obtained in the manner described in division (C)(2) of 3620
this section, the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 3621
identification and investigation shall conduct a criminal records 3622
check with respect to any person for whom a criminal records check 3623
is required by that section. The superintendent shall conduct the 3624
criminal records check in the manner described in division (B) of 3625
this section to determine whether any information exists that 3626
indicates that the person who is the subject of the request 3627
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the 3628
following:3629

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 3630
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 3631
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 3632
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 3633
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 3634
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 3635
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 3636
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 3637
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code;3638

       (b) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, 3639
or the United States that is substantially equivalent to any of 3640
the offenses listed in division (A)(12)(a) of this section.3641

       (B) Subject to division (F) of this section, the 3642
superintendent shall conduct any criminal records check to be 3643
conducted under this section as follows:3644

       (1) The superintendent shall review or cause to be reviewed 3645
any relevant information gathered and compiled by the bureau under 3646
division (A) of section 109.57 of the Revised Code that relates to 3647
the person who is the subject of the criminal records check, 3648
including, if the criminal records check was requested under 3649
section 113.041, 121.08, 173.27, 173.394173.38, 1121.23, 1155.03, 3650
1163.05, 1315.141, 1321.37, 1321.53, 1321.531, 1322.03, 1322.031, 3651
1733.47, 1761.26, 2151.86, 3301.32, 3301.541, 3319.39, 3701.881, 3652
3712.09, 3721.121, 3772.07, 4749.03, 4749.06, 4763.05, 5104.012, 3653
5104.013, 5111.0325164.34, 5111.0335164.341, 5111.0345164.342, 3654
5123.081, 5123.169, or 5153.111 of the Revised Code, any relevant 3655
information contained in records that have been sealed under 3656
section 2953.32 of the Revised Code;3657

       (2) If the request received by the superintendent asks for 3658
information from the federal bureau of investigation, the 3659
superintendent shall request from the federal bureau of 3660
investigation any information it has with respect to the person 3661
who is the subject of the criminal records check, including 3662
fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases 3663
as described in 42 U.S.C. 671 if the request is made pursuant to 3664
section 2151.86, 5104.012, or 5104.013 of the Revised Code or if 3665
any other Revised Code section requires fingerprint-based checks 3666
of that nature, and shall review or cause to be reviewed any 3667
information the superintendent receives from that bureau. If a 3668
request under section 3319.39 of the Revised Code asks only for 3669
information from the federal bureau of investigation, the 3670
superintendent shall not conduct the review prescribed by division 3671
(B)(1) of this section.3672

        (3) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee may 3673
request criminal history records from other states or the federal 3674
government pursuant to the national crime prevention and privacy 3675
compact set forth in section 109.571 of the Revised Code.3676

       (4) The superintendent shall include in the results of the 3677
criminal records check a list or description of the offenses 3678
listed or described in division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), 3679
(7), (8), (9), (10), (11), or (12) of this section, whichever 3680
division requires the superintendent to conduct the criminal 3681
records check. The superintendent shall exclude from the results 3682
any information the dissemination of which is prohibited by 3683
federal law.3684

       (5) The superintendent shall send the results of the criminal 3685
records check to the person to whom it is to be sent not later 3686
than the following number of days after the date the 3687
superintendent receives the request for the criminal records 3688
check, the completed form prescribed under division (C)(1) of this 3689
section, and the set of fingerprint impressions obtained in the 3690
manner described in division (C)(2) of this section:3691

       (a) If the superintendent is required by division (A) of this 3692
section (other than division (A)(3) of this section) to conduct 3693
the criminal records check, thirty;3694

       (b) If the superintendent is required by division (A)(3) of 3695
this section to conduct the criminal records check, sixty.3696

       (C)(1) The superintendent shall prescribe a form to obtain 3697
the information necessary to conduct a criminal records check from 3698
any person for whom a criminal records check is to be conducted 3699
under this section. The form that the superintendent prescribes 3700
pursuant to this division may be in a tangible format, in an 3701
electronic format, or in both tangible and electronic formats.3702

       (2) The superintendent shall prescribe standard impression 3703
sheets to obtain the fingerprint impressions of any person for 3704
whom a criminal records check is to be conducted under this 3705
section. Any person for whom a records check is to be conducted 3706
under this section shall obtain the fingerprint impressions at a 3707
county sheriff's office, municipal police department, or any other 3708
entity with the ability to make fingerprint impressions on the 3709
standard impression sheets prescribed by the superintendent. The 3710
office, department, or entity may charge the person a reasonable 3711
fee for making the impressions. The standard impression sheets the 3712
superintendent prescribes pursuant to this division may be in a 3713
tangible format, in an electronic format, or in both tangible and 3714
electronic formats.3715

       (3) Subject to division (D) of this section, the 3716
superintendent shall prescribe and charge a reasonable fee for 3717
providing a criminal records check under this section. The person 3718
requesting the criminal records check shall pay the fee prescribed 3719
pursuant to this division. In the case of a request under section 3720
1121.23, 1155.03, 1163.05, 1315.141, 1733.47, 1761.26, 2151.33, 3721
2151.412, or 5111.0325164.34 of the Revised Code, the fee shall 3722
be paid in the manner specified in that section.3723

       (4) The superintendent of the bureau of criminal 3724
identification and investigation may prescribe methods of 3725
forwarding fingerprint impressions and information necessary to 3726
conduct a criminal records check, which methods shall include, but 3727
not be limited to, an electronic method.3728

       (D) The results of a criminal records check conducted under 3729
this section, other than a criminal records check specified in 3730
division (A)(7) of this section, are valid for the person who is 3731
the subject of the criminal records check for a period of one year 3732
from the date upon which the superintendent completes the criminal 3733
records check. If during that period the superintendent receives 3734
another request for a criminal records check to be conducted under 3735
this section for that person, the superintendent shall provide the 3736
results from the previous criminal records check of the person at 3737
a lower fee than the fee prescribed for the initial criminal 3738
records check.3739

       (E) When the superintendent receives a request for 3740
information from a registered private provider, the superintendent 3741
shall proceed as if the request was received from a school 3742
district board of education under section 3319.39 of the Revised 3743
Code. The superintendent shall apply division (A)(1)(c) of this 3744
section to any such request for an applicant who is a teacher.3745

       (F)(1) All information regarding the results of a criminal 3746
records check conducted under this section that the superintendent 3747
reports or sends under division (A)(7) or (9) of this section to 3748
the director of public safety, the treasurer of state, or the 3749
person, board, or entity that made the request for the criminal 3750
records check shall relate to the conviction of the subject 3751
person, or the subject person's plea of guilty to, a criminal 3752
offense.3753

       (2) Division (F)(1) of this section does not limit, restrict, 3754
or preclude the superintendent's release of information that 3755
relates to an adjudication of a child as a delinquent child, or 3756
that relates to a criminal conviction of a person under eighteen 3757
years of age if the person's case was transferred back to a 3758
juvenile court under division (B)(2) or (3) of section 2152.121 of 3759
the Revised Code and the juvenile court imposed a disposition or 3760
serious youthful offender disposition upon the person under either 3761
division, if either of the following applies with respect to the 3762
adjudication or conviction:3763

       (a) The adjudication or conviction was for a violation of 3764
section 2903.01 or 2903.02 of the Revised Code.3765

       (b) The adjudication or conviction was for a sexually 3766
oriented offense, as defined in section 2950.01 of the Revised 3767
Code, the juvenile court was required to classify the child a 3768
juvenile offender registrant for that offense under section 3769
2152.82, 2152.83, or 2152.86 of the Revised Code, and that 3770
classification has not been removed.3771

       (G) As used in this section:3772

       (1) "Criminal records check" means any criminal records check 3773
conducted by the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 3774
identification and investigation in accordance with division (B) 3775
of this section.3776

       (2) "Minor drug possession offense" has the same meaning as 3777
in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.3778

       (3) "OVI or OVUAC violation" means a violation of section 3779
4511.19 of the Revised Code or a violation of an existing or 3780
former law of this state, any other state, or the United States 3781
that is substantially equivalent to section 4511.19 of the Revised 3782
Code.3783

       (4) "Registered private provider" means a nonpublic school or 3784
entity registered with the superintendent of public instruction 3785
under section 3310.41 of the Revised Code to participate in the 3786
autism scholarship program or section 3310.58 of the Revised Code 3787
to participate in the Jon Peterson special needs scholarship 3788
program.3789

       Sec. 109.71.  There is hereby created in the office of the 3790
attorney general the Ohio peace officer training commission. The 3791
commission shall consist of nine members appointed by the governor 3792
with the advice and consent of the senate and selected as follows: 3793
one member representing the public; two members who are incumbent 3794
sheriffs; two members who are incumbent chiefs of police; one 3795
member from the bureau of criminal identification and 3796
investigation; one member from the state highway patrol; one 3797
member who is the special agent in charge of a field office of the 3798
federal bureau of investigation in this state; and one member from 3799
the department of education, trade and industrial education 3800
services, law enforcement training.3801

       This section does not confer any arrest authority or any 3802
ability or authority to detain a person, write or issue any 3803
citation, or provide any disposition alternative, as granted under 3804
Chapter 2935. of the Revised Code.3805

       As used in sections 109.71 to 109.801 of the Revised Code:3806

       (A) "Peace officer" means:3807

       (1) A deputy sheriff, marshal, deputy marshal, member of the 3808
organized police department of a township or municipal 3809
corporation, member of a township police district or joint police 3810
district police force, member of a police force employed by a 3811
metropolitan housing authority under division (D) of section 3812
3735.31 of the Revised Code, or township constable, who is 3813
commissioned and employed as a peace officer by a political 3814
subdivision of this state or by a metropolitan housing authority, 3815
and whose primary duties are to preserve the peace, to protect 3816
life and property, and to enforce the laws of this state, 3817
ordinances of a municipal corporation, resolutions of a township, 3818
or regulations of a board of county commissioners or board of 3819
township trustees, or any of those laws, ordinances, resolutions, 3820
or regulations;3821

       (2) A police officer who is employed by a railroad company 3822
and appointed and commissioned by the secretary of state pursuant 3823
to sections 4973.17 to 4973.22 of the Revised Code;3824

       (3) Employees of the department of taxation engaged in the 3825
enforcement of Chapter 5743. of the Revised Code and designated by 3826
the tax commissioner for peace officer training for purposes of 3827
the delegation of investigation powers under section 5743.45 of 3828
the Revised Code;3829

       (4) An undercover drug agent;3830

       (5) Enforcement agents of the department of public safety 3831
whom the director of public safety designates under section 3832
5502.14 of the Revised Code;3833

       (6) An employee of the department of natural resources who is 3834
a natural resources law enforcement staff officer designated 3835
pursuant to section 1501.013, a park officer designated pursuant 3836
to section 1541.10, a forest officer designated pursuant to 3837
section 1503.29, a preserve officer designated pursuant to section 3838
1517.10, a wildlife officer designated pursuant to section 3839
1531.13, or a state watercraft officer designated pursuant to 3840
section 1547.521 of the Revised Code;3841

       (7) An employee of a park district who is designated pursuant 3842
to section 511.232 or 1545.13 of the Revised Code;3843

       (8) An employee of a conservancy district who is designated 3844
pursuant to section 6101.75 of the Revised Code;3845

       (9) A police officer who is employed by a hospital that 3846
employs and maintains its own proprietary police department or 3847
security department, and who is appointed and commissioned by the 3848
secretary of state pursuant to sections 4973.17 to 4973.22 of the 3849
Revised Code;3850

       (10) Veterans' homes police officers designated under section 3851
5907.02 of the Revised Code;3852

       (11) A police officer who is employed by a qualified 3853
nonprofit corporation police department pursuant to section 3854
1702.80 of the Revised Code;3855

       (12) A state university law enforcement officer appointed 3856
under section 3345.04 of the Revised Code or a person serving as a 3857
state university law enforcement officer on a permanent basis on 3858
June 19, 1978, who has been awarded a certificate by the executive 3859
director of the Ohio peace officer training commission attesting 3860
to the person's satisfactory completion of an approved state, 3861
county, municipal, or department of natural resources peace 3862
officer basic training program;3863

       (13) A special police officer employed by the department of 3864
mental healthmental health and addiction services pursuant to 3865
section 5119.145119.08 of the Revised Code or the department of 3866
developmental disabilities pursuant to section 5123.13 of the 3867
Revised Code;3868

       (14) A member of a campus police department appointed under 3869
section 1713.50 of the Revised Code;3870

       (15) A member of a police force employed by a regional 3871
transit authority under division (Y) of section 306.35 of the 3872
Revised Code;3873

       (16) Investigators appointed by the auditor of state pursuant 3874
to section 117.091 of the Revised Code and engaged in the 3875
enforcement of Chapter 117. of the Revised Code;3876

       (17) A special police officer designated by the 3877
superintendent of the state highway patrol pursuant to section 3878
5503.09 of the Revised Code or a person who was serving as a 3879
special police officer pursuant to that section on a permanent 3880
basis on October 21, 1997, and who has been awarded a certificate 3881
by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training 3882
commission attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of an 3883
approved state, county, municipal, or department of natural 3884
resources peace officer basic training program;3885

       (18) A special police officer employed by a port authority 3886
under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of the Revised Code or a person 3887
serving as a special police officer employed by a port authority 3888
on a permanent basis on May 17, 2000, who has been awarded a 3889
certificate by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer 3890
training commission attesting to the person's satisfactory 3891
completion of an approved state, county, municipal, or department 3892
of natural resources peace officer basic training program;3893

       (19) A special police officer employed by a municipal 3894
corporation who has been awarded a certificate by the executive 3895
director of the Ohio peace officer training commission for 3896
satisfactory completion of an approved peace officer basic 3897
training program and who is employed on a permanent basis on or 3898
after March 19, 2003, at a municipal airport, or other municipal 3899
air navigation facility, that has scheduled operations, as defined 3900
in section 119.3 of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, 3901
14 C.F.R. 119.3, as amended, and that is required to be under a 3902
security program and is governed by aviation security rules of the 3903
transportation security administration of the United States 3904
department of transportation as provided in Parts 1542. and 1544. 3905
of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as amended;3906

       (20) A police officer who is employed by an owner or operator 3907
of an amusement park that has an average yearly attendance in 3908
excess of six hundred thousand guests and that employs and 3909
maintains its own proprietary police department or security 3910
department, and who is appointed and commissioned by a judge of 3911
the appropriate municipal court or county court pursuant to 3912
section 4973.17 of the Revised Code;3913

        (21) A police officer who is employed by a bank, savings and 3914
loan association, savings bank, credit union, or association of 3915
banks, savings and loan associations, savings banks, or credit 3916
unions, who has been appointed and commissioned by the secretary 3917
of state pursuant to sections 4973.17 to 4973.22 of the Revised 3918
Code, and who has been awarded a certificate by the executive 3919
director of the Ohio peace officer training commission attesting 3920
to the person's satisfactory completion of a state, county, 3921
municipal, or department of natural resources peace officer basic 3922
training program;3923

       (22) An investigator, as defined in section 109.541 of the 3924
Revised Code, of the bureau of criminal identification and 3925
investigation who is commissioned by the superintendent of the 3926
bureau as a special agent for the purpose of assisting law 3927
enforcement officers or providing emergency assistance to peace 3928
officers pursuant to authority granted under that section;3929

       (23) A state fire marshal law enforcement officer appointed 3930
under section 3737.22 of the Revised Code or a person serving as a 3931
state fire marshal law enforcement officer on a permanent basis on 3932
or after July 1, 1982, who has been awarded a certificate by the 3933
executive director of the Ohio peace officer training commission 3934
attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of an approved 3935
state, county, municipal, or department of natural resources peace 3936
officer basic training program;3937

       (24) A gaming agent employed under section 3772.03 of the 3938
Revised Code.3939

       (25) A deputy inspector general appointed under section 3940
121.48 of the Revised Code who has been awarded a certificate by 3941
the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training 3942
commission attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of an 3943
approved state, county, or municipal peace officer basic training 3944
program.3945

       (B) "Undercover drug agent" has the same meaning as in 3946
division (B)(2) of section 109.79 of the Revised Code.3947

       (C) "Crisis intervention training" means training in the use 3948
of interpersonal and communication skills to most effectively and 3949
sensitively interview victims of rape.3950

       (D) "Missing children" has the same meaning as in section 3951
2901.30 of the Revised Code.3952

       Sec. 109.746.  (A) The attorney general may prepare public 3953
awareness programs that are designed to educate potential victims 3954
of violations of section 2905.32 of the Revised Code and their 3955
families of the risks of becoming a victim of a violation of that 3956
section. The attorney general may prepare these programs with 3957
assistance from the department of health, the department of mental 3958
healthmental health and addiction services, the department of job 3959
and family services, the department of alcohol and drug addiction 3960
services, and the department of education.3961

       (B) Any organization, person, or other governmental agency 3962
with an interest and expertise in trafficking in persons may 3963
submit information or materials to the attorney general regarding 3964
the preparation of the programs and materials permitted under this 3965
section. The attorney general, in developing the programs and 3966
materials permitted by this section, shall consider any 3967
information submitted pursuant to this division.3968

       Sec. 109.77.  (A) As used in this section, "felony" has the 3969
same meaning as in section 109.511 of the Revised Code.3970

       (B)(1) Notwithstanding any general, special, or local law or 3971
charter to the contrary, and except as otherwise provided in this 3972
section, no person shall receive an original appointment on a 3973
permanent basis as any of the following unless the person 3974
previously has been awarded a certificate by the executive 3975
director of the Ohio peace officer training commission attesting 3976
to the person's satisfactory completion of an approved state, 3977
county, municipal, or department of natural resources peace 3978
officer basic training program:3979

       (a) A peace officer of any county, township, municipal 3980
corporation, regional transit authority, or metropolitan housing 3981
authority;3982

       (b) A natural resources law enforcement staff officer, park 3983
officer, forest officer, preserve officer, wildlife officer, or 3984
state watercraft officer of the department of natural resources;3985

       (c) An employee of a park district under section 511.232 or 3986
1545.13 of the Revised Code;3987

       (d) An employee of a conservancy district who is designated 3988
pursuant to section 6101.75 of the Revised Code;3989

       (e) A state university law enforcement officer;3990

       (f) A special police officer employed by the department of 3991
mental healthmental health and addiction services pursuant to 3992
section 5119.145119.08 of the Revised Code or the department of 3993
developmental disabilities pursuant to section 5123.13 of the 3994
Revised Code;3995

       (g) An enforcement agent of the department of public safety 3996
whom the director of public safety designates under section 3997
5502.14 of the Revised Code;3998

       (h) A special police officer employed by a port authority 3999
under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of the Revised Code;4000

       (i) A special police officer employed by a municipal 4001
corporation at a municipal airport, or other municipal air 4002
navigation facility, that has scheduled operations, as defined in 4003
section 119.3 of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, 14 4004
C.F.R. 119.3, as amended, and that is required to be under a 4005
security program and is governed by aviation security rules of the 4006
transportation security administration of the United States 4007
department of transportation as provided in Parts 1542. and 1544. 4008
of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as amended;4009

       (j) A gaming agent employed under section 3772.03 of the 4010
Revised Code.4011

       (2) Every person who is appointed on a temporary basis or for 4012
a probationary term or on other than a permanent basis as any of 4013
the following shall forfeit the appointed position unless the 4014
person previously has completed satisfactorily or, within the time 4015
prescribed by rules adopted by the attorney general pursuant to 4016
section 109.74 of the Revised Code, satisfactorily completes a 4017
state, county, municipal, or department of natural resources peace 4018
officer basic training program for temporary or probationary 4019
officers and is awarded a certificate by the director attesting to 4020
the satisfactory completion of the program:4021

       (a) A peace officer of any county, township, municipal 4022
corporation, regional transit authority, or metropolitan housing 4023
authority;4024

       (b) A natural resources law enforcement staff officer, park 4025
officer, forest officer, preserve officer, wildlife officer, or 4026
state watercraft officer of the department of natural resources;4027

       (c) An employee of a park district under section 511.232 or 4028
1545.13 of the Revised Code;4029

       (d) An employee of a conservancy district who is designated 4030
pursuant to section 6101.75 of the Revised Code;4031

       (e) A special police officer employed by the department of 4032
mental healthmental health and addiction services pursuant to 4033
section 5119.145119.08 of the Revised Code or the department of 4034
developmental disabilities pursuant to section 5123.13 of the 4035
Revised Code;4036

       (f) An enforcement agent of the department of public safety 4037
whom the director of public safety designates under section 4038
5502.14 of the Revised Code;4039

       (g) A special police officer employed by a port authority 4040
under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of the Revised Code;4041

       (h) A special police officer employed by a municipal 4042
corporation at a municipal airport, or other municipal air 4043
navigation facility, that has scheduled operations, as defined in 4044
section 119.3 of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, 14 4045
C.F.R. 119.3, as amended, and that is required to be under a 4046
security program and is governed by aviation security rules of the 4047
transportation security administration of the United States 4048
department of transportation as provided in Parts 1542. and 1544. 4049
of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as amended.4050

       (3) For purposes of division (B) of this section, a state, 4051
county, municipal, or department of natural resources peace 4052
officer basic training program, regardless of whether the program 4053
is to be completed by peace officers appointed on a permanent or 4054
temporary, probationary, or other nonpermanent basis, shall 4055
include training in the handling of the offense of domestic 4056
violence, other types of domestic violence-related offenses and 4057
incidents, and protection orders and consent agreements issued or 4058
approved under section 2919.26 or 3113.31 of the Revised Code and 4059
crisis intervention training. The requirement to complete training 4060
in the handling of the offense of domestic violence, other types 4061
of domestic violence-related offenses and incidents, and 4062
protection orders and consent agreements issued or approved under 4063
section 2919.26 or 3113.31 of the Revised Code does not apply to 4064
any person serving as a peace officer on March 27, 1979, and the 4065
requirement to complete training in crisis intervention does not 4066
apply to any person serving as a peace officer on April 4, 1985. 4067
Any person who is serving as a peace officer on April 4, 1985, who 4068
terminates that employment after that date, and who subsequently 4069
is hired as a peace officer by the same or another law enforcement 4070
agency shall complete training in crisis intervention as 4071
prescribed by rules adopted by the attorney general pursuant to 4072
section 109.742 of the Revised Code. No peace officer shall have 4073
employment as a peace officer terminated and then be reinstated 4074
with intent to circumvent this section.4075

       (4) Division (B) of this section does not apply to any person 4076
serving on a permanent basis on March 28, 1985, as a park officer, 4077
forest officer, preserve officer, wildlife officer, or state 4078
watercraft officer of the department of natural resources or as an 4079
employee of a park district under section 511.232 or 1545.13 of 4080
the Revised Code, to any person serving on a permanent basis on 4081
March 6, 1986, as an employee of a conservancy district designated 4082
pursuant to section 6101.75 of the Revised Code, to any person 4083
serving on a permanent basis on January 10, 1991, as a preserve 4084
officer of the department of natural resources, to any person 4085
employed on a permanent basis on July 2, 1992, as a special police 4086
officer by the department of mental healthmental health and 4087
addiction services pursuant to section 5119.145119.08 of the 4088
Revised Code or by the department of developmental disabilities 4089
pursuant to section 5123.13 of the Revised Code, to any person 4090
serving on a permanent basis on May 17, 2000, as a special police 4091
officer employed by a port authority under section 4582.04 or 4092
4582.28 of the Revised Code, to any person serving on a permanent 4093
basis on March 19, 2003, as a special police officer employed by a 4094
municipal corporation at a municipal airport or other municipal 4095
air navigation facility described in division (A)(19) of section 4096
109.71 of the Revised Code, to any person serving on a permanent 4097
basis on June 19, 1978, as a state university law enforcement 4098
officer pursuant to section 3345.04 of the Revised Code and who, 4099
immediately prior to June 19, 1978, was serving as a special 4100
police officer designated under authority of that section, or to 4101
any person serving on a permanent basis on September 20, 1984, as 4102
a liquor control investigator, known after June 30, 1999, as an 4103
enforcement agent of the department of public safety, engaged in 4104
the enforcement of Chapters 4301. and 4303. of the Revised Code.4105

       (5) Division (B) of this section does not apply to any person 4106
who is appointed as a regional transit authority police officer 4107
pursuant to division (Y) of section 306.35 of the Revised Code if, 4108
on or before July 1, 1996, the person has completed satisfactorily 4109
an approved state, county, municipal, or department of natural 4110
resources peace officer basic training program and has been 4111
awarded a certificate by the executive director of the Ohio peace 4112
officer training commission attesting to the person's satisfactory 4113
completion of such an approved program and if, on July 1, 1996, 4114
the person is performing peace officer functions for a regional 4115
transit authority.4116

       (C) No person, after September 20, 1984, shall receive an 4117
original appointment on a permanent basis as a veterans' home 4118
police officer designated under section 5907.02 of the Revised 4119
Code unless the person previously has been awarded a certificate 4120
by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer training 4121
commission attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of an 4122
approved police officer basic training program. Every person who 4123
is appointed on a temporary basis or for a probationary term or on 4124
other than a permanent basis as a veterans' home police officer 4125
designated under section 5907.02 of the Revised Code shall forfeit 4126
that position unless the person previously has completed 4127
satisfactorily or, within one year from the time of appointment, 4128
satisfactorily completes an approved police officer basic training 4129
program.4130

       (D) No bailiff or deputy bailiff of a court of record of this 4131
state and no criminal investigator who is employed by the state 4132
public defender shall carry a firearm, as defined in section 4133
2923.11 of the Revised Code, while on duty unless the bailiff, 4134
deputy bailiff, or criminal investigator has done or received one 4135
of the following:4136

       (1) Has been awarded a certificate by the executive director 4137
of the Ohio peace officer training commission, which certificate 4138
attests to satisfactory completion of an approved state, county, 4139
or municipal basic training program for bailiffs and deputy 4140
bailiffs of courts of record and for criminal investigators 4141
employed by the state public defender that has been recommended by 4142
the Ohio peace officer training commission;4143

       (2) Has successfully completed a firearms training program 4144
approved by the Ohio peace officer training commission prior to 4145
employment as a bailiff, deputy bailiff, or criminal investigator;4146

       (3) Prior to June 6, 1986, was authorized to carry a firearm 4147
by the court that employed the bailiff or deputy bailiff or, in 4148
the case of a criminal investigator, by the state public defender 4149
and has received training in the use of firearms that the Ohio 4150
peace officer training commission determines is equivalent to the 4151
training that otherwise is required by division (D) of this 4152
section.4153

       (E)(1) Before a person seeking a certificate completes an 4154
approved peace officer basic training program, the executive 4155
director of the Ohio peace officer training commission shall 4156
request the person to disclose, and the person shall disclose, any 4157
previous criminal conviction of or plea of guilty of that person 4158
to a felony.4159

       (2) Before a person seeking a certificate completes an 4160
approved peace officer basic training program, the executive 4161
director shall request a criminal history records check on the 4162
person. The executive director shall submit the person's 4163
fingerprints to the bureau of criminal identification and 4164
investigation, which shall submit the fingerprints to the federal 4165
bureau of investigation for a national criminal history records 4166
check.4167

       Upon receipt of the executive director's request, the bureau 4168
of criminal identification and investigation and the federal 4169
bureau of investigation shall conduct a criminal history records 4170
check on the person and, upon completion of the check, shall 4171
provide a copy of the criminal history records check to the 4172
executive director. The executive director shall not award any 4173
certificate prescribed in this section unless the executive 4174
director has received a copy of the criminal history records check 4175
on the person to whom the certificate is to be awarded.4176

       (3) The executive director of the commission shall not award 4177
a certificate prescribed in this section to a person who has been 4178
convicted of or has pleaded guilty to a felony or who fails to 4179
disclose any previous criminal conviction of or plea of guilty to 4180
a felony as required under division (E)(1) of this section.4181

       (4) The executive director of the commission shall revoke the 4182
certificate awarded to a person as prescribed in this section, and 4183
that person shall forfeit all of the benefits derived from being 4184
certified as a peace officer under this section, if the person, 4185
before completion of an approved peace officer basic training 4186
program, failed to disclose any previous criminal conviction of or 4187
plea of guilty to a felony as required under division (E)(1) of 4188
this section.4189

       (F)(1) Regardless of whether the person has been awarded the 4190
certificate or has been classified as a peace officer prior to, 4191
on, or after October 16, 1996, the executive director of the Ohio 4192
peace officer training commission shall revoke any certificate 4193
that has been awarded to a person as prescribed in this section if 4194
the person does either of the following:4195

       (a) Pleads guilty to a felony committed on or after January 4196
1, 1997;4197

       (b) Pleads guilty to a misdemeanor committed on or after 4198
January 1, 1997, pursuant to a negotiated plea agreement as 4199
provided in division (D) of section 2929.43 of the Revised Code in 4200
which the person agrees to surrender the certificate awarded to 4201
the person under this section.4202

       (2) The executive director of the commission shall suspend 4203
any certificate that has been awarded to a person as prescribed in 4204
this section if the person is convicted, after trial, of a felony 4205
committed on or after January 1, 1997. The executive director 4206
shall suspend the certificate pursuant to division (F)(2) of this 4207
section pending the outcome of an appeal by the person from that 4208
conviction to the highest court to which the appeal is taken or 4209
until the expiration of the period in which an appeal is required 4210
to be filed. If the person files an appeal that results in that 4211
person's acquittal of the felony or conviction of a misdemeanor, 4212
or in the dismissal of the felony charge against that person, the 4213
executive director shall reinstate the certificate awarded to the 4214
person under this section. If the person files an appeal from that 4215
person's conviction of the felony and the conviction is upheld by 4216
the highest court to which the appeal is taken or if the person 4217
does not file a timely appeal, the executive director shall revoke 4218
the certificate awarded to the person under this section.4219

       (G)(1) If a person is awarded a certificate under this 4220
section and the certificate is revoked pursuant to division (E)(4) 4221
or (F) of this section, the person shall not be eligible to 4222
receive, at any time, a certificate attesting to the person's 4223
satisfactory completion of a peace officer basic training program.4224

       (2) The revocation or suspension of a certificate under 4225
division (E)(4) or (F) of this section shall be in accordance with 4226
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.4227

       (H)(1) A person who was employed as a peace officer of a 4228
county, township, or municipal corporation of the state on January 4229
1, 1966, and who has completed at least sixteen years of full-time 4230
active service as such a peace officer, or equivalent service as 4231
determined by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer 4232
training commission, may receive an original appointment on a 4233
permanent basis and serve as a peace officer of a county, 4234
township, or municipal corporation, or as a state university law 4235
enforcement officer, without complying with the requirements of 4236
division (B) of this section.4237

       (2) Any person who held an appointment as a state highway 4238
trooper on January 1, 1966, may receive an original appointment on 4239
a permanent basis and serve as a peace officer of a county, 4240
township, or municipal corporation, or as a state university law 4241
enforcement officer, without complying with the requirements of 4242
division (B) of this section.4243

       (I) No person who is appointed as a peace officer of a 4244
county, township, or municipal corporation on or after April 9, 4245
1985, shall serve as a peace officer of that county, township, or 4246
municipal corporation unless the person has received training in 4247
the handling of missing children and child abuse and neglect cases 4248
from an approved state, county, township, or municipal police 4249
officer basic training program or receives the training within the 4250
time prescribed by rules adopted by the attorney general pursuant 4251
to section 109.741 of the Revised Code.4252

       (J) No part of any approved state, county, or municipal basic 4253
training program for bailiffs and deputy bailiffs of courts of 4254
record and no part of any approved state, county, or municipal 4255
basic training program for criminal investigators employed by the 4256
state public defender shall be used as credit toward the 4257
completion by a peace officer of any part of the approved state, 4258
county, or municipal peace officer basic training program that the 4259
peace officer is required by this section to complete 4260
satisfactorily.4261

       (K) This section does not apply to any member of the police 4262
department of a municipal corporation in an adjoining state 4263
serving in this state under a contract pursuant to section 737.04 4264
of the Revised Code.4265

       Sec. 109.85.  (A) Upon the written request of the governor, 4266
the general assembly, the auditor of state, the medicaid director 4267
of job and family services, the director of health, or the 4268
director of budget and management, or upon the attorney general's 4269
becoming aware of criminal or improper activity related to Chapter 4270
3721. and the medical assistancemedicaid program established 4271
under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code, the attorney general 4272
shall investigate any criminal or civil violation of law related 4273
to Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code or the medical assistance4274
medicaid program.4275

       (B) When it appears to the attorney general, as a result of 4276
an investigation under division (A) of this section, that there is 4277
cause to prosecute for the commission of a crime or to pursue a 4278
civil remedy, the attorney general may refer the evidence to the 4279
prosecuting attorney having jurisdiction of the matter, or to a 4280
regular grand jury drawn and impaneled pursuant to sections 4281
2939.01 to 2939.24 of the Revised Code, or to a special grand jury 4282
drawn and impaneled pursuant to section 2939.17 of the Revised 4283
Code, or the attorney general may initiate and prosecute any 4284
necessary criminal or civil actions in any court or tribunal of 4285
competent jurisdiction in this state. When proceeding under this 4286
section, the attorney general, and any assistant or special 4287
counsel designated by the attorney general for that purpose, have 4288
all rights, privileges, and powers of prosecuting attorneys. The 4289
attorney general shall have exclusive supervision and control of 4290
all investigations and prosecutions initiated by the attorney 4291
general under this section. The forfeiture provisions of Chapter 4292
2981. of the Revised Code apply in relation to any such criminal 4293
action initiated and prosecuted by the attorney general.4294

       (C) Nothing in this section shall prevent a county 4295
prosecuting attorney from investigating and prosecuting criminal 4296
activity related to Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code and the 4297
medical assistancemedicaid program established under section 4298
5111.01 of the Revised Code. The forfeiture provisions of Chapter 4299
2981. of the Revised Code apply in relation to any prosecution of 4300
criminal activity related to the medical assistancemedicaid4301
program undertaken by the prosecuting attorney.4302

       Sec. 109.86.  (A) The attorney general shall investigate any 4303
activity the attorney general has reasonable cause to believe is 4304
in violation of section 2903.34 of the Revised Code. Upon written 4305
request of the governor, the general assembly, the auditor of 4306
state, or the director of health, job and family services, aging,4307
mental healthmental health and addiction services, or 4308
developmental disabilities, the attorney general shall investigate 4309
any activity these persons believe is in violation of section 4310
2903.34 of the Revised Code. If after an investigation the 4311
attorney general has probable cause to prosecute for the 4312
commission of a crime, the attorney general shall refer the 4313
evidence to the prosecuting attorney, director of law, or other 4314
similar chief legal officer having jurisdiction over the matter. 4315
If the prosecuting attorney decides to present the evidence to a 4316
grand jury, the prosecuting attorney shall notify the attorney 4317
general in writing of the decision within thirty days after 4318
referral of the matter and shall present the evidence prior to the 4319
discharge of the next regular grand jury. If the director of law 4320
or other chief legal officer decides to prosecute the case, the 4321
director or officer shall notify the attorney general in writing 4322
of the decision within thirty days and shall initiate prosecution 4323
within sixty days after the matter was referred to the director or 4324
officer.4325

       (B) If the prosecuting attorney, director of law, or other 4326
chief legal officer fails to notify the attorney general or to 4327
present evidence or initiate prosecution in accordance with 4328
division (A) of this section, the attorney general may present the 4329
evidence to a regular grand jury drawn and impaneled pursuant to 4330
sections 2939.01 to 2939.24 of the Revised Code, or to a special 4331
grand jury drawn and impaneled pursuant to section 2939.17 of the 4332
Revised Code, or the attorney general may initiate and prosecute 4333
any action in any court or tribunal of competent jurisdiction in 4334
this state. The attorney general, and any assistant or special 4335
counsel designated by the attorney general, have all the powers of 4336
a prosecuting attorney, director of law, or other chief legal 4337
officer when proceeding under this section. Nothing in this 4338
section shall limit or prevent a prosecuting attorney, director of 4339
law, or other chief legal officer from investigating and 4340
prosecuting criminal activity committed against a resident or 4341
patient of a care facility.4342

       Sec. 109.90. (A) The attorney general shall collaborate with 4343
the state board of pharmacy and director of alcohol and drug 4344
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services in the 4345
establishment and administration of a drug take-back program, as 4346
provided under section 4729.69 of the Revised Code. The office of 4347
the attorney general is solely responsible for the costs incurred 4348
in the establishment and administration of the program.4349

        (B) The attorney general may accept grants, gifts, or 4350
donations for purposes of the program. Money received under this 4351
division or section 3793.225119.49 or 4729.69 of the Revised Code 4352
shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the 4353
drug take-back program fund, which is hereby created. Money 4354
credited to the fund shall be used solely for purposes of the 4355
program.4356

       Sec. 111.02.  Before entering upon the discharge of the 4357
duties of his office, the secretary of state shall give a bond to 4358
the state in the sum of one hundred thousand dollars, with two or 4359
more sureties approved by the governor, auditor of state, and 4360
attorney generala surety authorized to do business in the state, 4361
conditioned for the faithful discharge of the duties of histhe4362
office of secretary of state. The bond, with the approval of the 4363
proper officials and the oath of office indorsed thereon, shall be 4364
deposited with and kept by the director of administrative services 4365
and kept in histhe director's office.4366

       Sec. 111.15.  (A) As used in this section:4367

       (1) "Rule" includes any rule, regulation, bylaw, or standard 4368
having a general and uniform operation adopted by an agency under 4369
the authority of the laws governing the agency; any appendix to a 4370
rule; and any internal management rule. "Rule" does not include 4371
any guideline adopted pursuant to section 3301.0714 of the Revised 4372
Code, any order respecting the duties of employees, any finding, 4373
any determination of a question of law or fact in a matter 4374
presented to an agency, or any rule promulgated pursuant to 4375
Chapter 119., section 4141.14, division (C)(1) or (2) of section 4376
5117.02, or section 5703.14 of the Revised Code. "Rule" includes 4377
any amendment or rescission of a rule.4378

       (2) "Agency" means any governmental entity of the state and 4379
includes, but is not limited to, any board, department, division, 4380
commission, bureau, society, council, institution, state college 4381
or university, community college district, technical college 4382
district, or state community college. "Agency" does not include 4383
the general assembly, the controlling board, the adjutant 4384
general's department, or any court.4385

       (3) "Internal management rule" means any rule, regulation, 4386
bylaw, or standard governing the day-to-day staff procedures and 4387
operations within an agency.4388

       (4) "Substantive revision" has the same meaning as in 4389
division (J) of section 119.01 of the Revised Code.4390

       (B)(1) Any rule, other than a rule of an emergency nature, 4391
adopted by any agency pursuant to this section shall be effective 4392
on the tenth day after the day on which the rule in final form and 4393
in compliance with division (B)(3) of this section is filed as 4394
follows:4395

       (a) The rule shall be filed in electronic form with both the 4396
secretary of state and the director of the legislative service 4397
commission;4398

       (b) The rule shall be filed in electronic form with the joint 4399
committee on agency rule review. Division (B)(1)(b) of this 4400
section does not apply to any rule to which division (D) of this 4401
section does not apply.4402

       An agency that adopts or amends a rule that is subject to 4403
division (D) of this section shall assign a review date to the 4404
rule that is not later than five years after its effective date. 4405
If no review date is assigned to a rule, or if a review date 4406
assigned to a rule exceeds the five-year maximum, the review date 4407
for the rule is five years after its effective date. A rule with a 4408
review date is subject to review under section 119.032 of the 4409
Revised Code. This paragraph does not apply to a rule of a state 4410
college or university, community college district, technical 4411
college district, or state community college.4412

       If all filings are not completed on the same day, the rule 4413
shall be effective on the tenth day after the day on which the 4414
latest filing is completed. If an agency in adopting a rule 4415
designates an effective date that is later than the effective date 4416
provided for by division (B)(1) of this section, the rule if filed 4417
as required by such division shall become effective on the later 4418
date designated by the agency.4419

       Any rule that is required to be filed under division (B)(1) 4420
of this section is also subject to division (D) of this section if 4421
not exempted by division (D)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), (6), (7), or 4422
(8) of this section.4423

       If a rule incorporates a text or other material by reference, 4424
the agency shall comply with sections 121.71 to 121.76 of the 4425
Revised Code.4426

       (2) A rule of an emergency nature necessary for the immediate 4427
preservation of the public peace, health, or safety shall state 4428
the reasons for the necessity. The emergency rule, in final form 4429
and in compliance with division (B)(3) of this section, shall be 4430
filed in electronic form with the secretary of state, the director 4431
of the legislative service commission, and the joint committee on 4432
agency rule review. The emergency rule is effective immediately 4433
upon completion of the latest filing, except that if the agency in 4434
adopting the emergency rule designates an effective date, or date 4435
and time of day, that is later than the effective date and time 4436
provided for by division (B)(2) of this section, the emergency 4437
rule if filed as required by such division shall become effective 4438
at the later date, or later date and time of day, designated by 4439
the agency.4440

       An emergency rule becomes invalid at the end of the ninetieth 4441
day it is in effect. Prior to that date, the agency may file the 4442
emergency rule as a nonemergency rule in compliance with division 4443
(B)(1) of this section. The agency may not refile the emergency 4444
rule in compliance with division (B)(2) of this section so that, 4445
upon the emergency rule becoming invalid under such division, the 4446
emergency rule will continue in effect without interruption for 4447
another ninety-day period.4448

       (3) An agency shall file a rule under division (B)(1) or (2) 4449
of this section in compliance with the following standards and 4450
procedures:4451

       (a) The rule shall be numbered in accordance with the 4452
numbering system devised by the director for the Ohio 4453
administrative code.4454

       (b) The rule shall be prepared and submitted in compliance 4455
with the rules of the legislative service commission.4456

       (c) The rule shall clearly state the date on which it is to 4457
be effective and the date on which it will expire, if known.4458

       (d) Each rule that amends or rescinds another rule shall 4459
clearly refer to the rule that is amended or rescinded. Each 4460
amendment shall fully restate the rule as amended.4461

       If the director of the legislative service commission or the 4462
director's designee gives an agency notice pursuant to section 4463
103.05 of the Revised Code that a rule filed by the agency is not 4464
in compliance with the rules of the legislative service 4465
commission, the agency shall within thirty days after receipt of 4466
the notice conform the rule to the rules of the commission as 4467
directed in the notice.4468

       (C) All rules filed pursuant to divisions (B)(1)(a) and (2) 4469
of this section shall be recorded by the secretary of state and 4470
the director under the title of the agency adopting the rule and 4471
shall be numbered according to the numbering system devised by the 4472
director. The secretary of state and the director shall preserve 4473
the rules in an accessible manner. Each such rule shall be a 4474
public record open to public inspection and may be transmitted to 4475
any law publishing company that wishes to reproduce it.4476

       (D) At least sixty-five days before a board, commission, 4477
department, division, or bureau of the government of the state 4478
files a rule under division (B)(1) of this section, it shall file 4479
the full text of the proposed rule in electronic form with the 4480
joint committee on agency rule review, and the proposed rule is 4481
subject to legislative review and invalidation under division (I) 4482
of section 119.03 of the Revised Code. If a state board, 4483
commission, department, division, or bureau makes a substantive 4484
revision in a proposed rule after it is filed with the joint 4485
committee, the state board, commission, department, division, or 4486
bureau shall promptly file the full text of the proposed rule in 4487
its revised form in electronic form with the joint committee. The 4488
latest version of a proposed rule as filed with the joint 4489
committee supersedes each earlier version of the text of the same 4490
proposed rule. Except as provided in division (F) of this section, 4491
aA state board, commission, department, division, or bureau shall 4492
also file the rule summary and fiscal analysis prepared under 4493
section 127.18 of the Revised Code in electronic form along with a 4494
proposed rule, and along with a proposed rule in revised form, 4495
that is filed under this division. If a proposed rule has an 4496
adverse impact on businesses, the state board, commission, 4497
department, division, or bureau also shall file the business 4498
impact analysis, any recommendations received from the common 4499
sense initiative office, and the associated memorandum of 4500
response, if any, in electronic form along with the proposed rule, 4501
or the proposed rule in revised form, that is filed under this 4502
division.4503

       As used in this division, "commission" includes the public 4504
utilities commission when adopting rules under a federal or state 4505
statute.4506

       This division does not apply to any of the following:4507

       (1) A proposed rule of an emergency nature;4508

       (2) A rule proposed under section 1121.05, 1121.06, 1155.18, 4509
1163.22, 1349.33, 1707.201, 1733.412, 4123.29, 4123.34, 4123.341, 4510
4123.342, 4123.40, 4123.411, 4123.44, or 4123.442 of the Revised 4511
Code;4512

       (3) A rule proposed by an agency other than a board, 4513
commission, department, division, or bureau of the government of 4514
the state;4515

       (4) A proposed internal management rule of a board, 4516
commission, department, division, or bureau of the government of 4517
the state;4518

       (5) Any proposed rule that must be adopted verbatim by an 4519
agency pursuant to federal law or rule, to become effective within 4520
sixty days of adoption, in order to continue the operation of a 4521
federally reimbursed program in this state, so long as the 4522
proposed rule contains both of the following:4523

       (a) A statement that it is proposed for the purpose of 4524
complying with a federal law or rule;4525

       (b) A citation to the federal law or rule that requires 4526
verbatim compliance.4527

       (6) An initial rule proposed by the director of health to 4528
impose safety standards and quality-of-care standards with respect 4529
to a health service specified in section 3702.11 of the Revised 4530
Code, or an initial rule proposed by the director to impose 4531
quality standards on a facility listed in division (A)(4) of 4532
section 3702.30 of the Revised Code, if section 3702.12 of the 4533
Revised Code requires that the rule be adopted under this section;4534

       (7) A rule of the state lottery commission pertaining to 4535
instant game rules.4536

       If a rule is exempt from legislative review under division 4537
(D)(5) of this section, and if the federal law or rule pursuant to 4538
which the rule was adopted expires, is repealed or rescinded, or 4539
otherwise terminates, the rule is thereafter subject to 4540
legislative review under division (D) of this section.4541

       (E) Whenever a state board, commission, department, division, 4542
or bureau files a proposed rule or a proposed rule in revised form 4543
under division (D) of this section, it shall also file the full 4544
text of the same proposed rule or proposed rule in revised form in 4545
electronic form with the secretary of state and the director of 4546
the legislative service commission. Except as provided in division 4547
(F) of this section, aA state board, commission, department, 4548
division, or bureau shall file the rule summary and fiscal 4549
analysis prepared under section 127.18 of the Revised Code in 4550
electronic form along with a proposed rule or proposed rule in 4551
revised form that is filed with the secretary of state or the 4552
director of the legislative service commission.4553

       (F) Except as otherwise provided in this division, the 4554
auditor of state or the auditor of state's designee is not 4555
required to file a rule summary and fiscal analysis along with a 4556
proposed rule, or proposed rule in revised form, that the auditor 4557
of state proposes under section 117.12, 117.19, 117.38, or 117.43 4558
of the Revised Code and files under division (D) or (E) of this 4559
section.4560

       Sec. 111.28.  (A) There is hereby created in the state 4561
treasury the help America vote act (HAVA) fund. All moneys 4562
received by the secretary of state from the United States election 4563
assistance commission shall be credited to the fund. The secretary 4564
of state shall use the moneys credited to the fund for activities 4565
conducted pursuant to the "Help America Vote Act of 2002," Pub. L. 4566
No. 107-252, 116 Stat. 1666. All investment earnings of the fund 4567
shall be credited to the fund.4568

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 4569
election reform/health and human services fund. All moneys 4570
received by the secretary of state from the United States 4571
department of health and human services shall be credited to the 4572
fund. The secretary of state shall use the moneys credited to the 4573
fund for activities conducted pursuant to grants awarded to the 4574
state under Title II, Subtitle D, Sections 261 to 265 of the Help 4575
America Vote Act of 2002 to assure access for individuals with 4576
disabilities. All investment earnings of the fund shall be 4577
credited to the fund.4578

       (C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 4579
miscellaneous federal grants fund. All moneys the secretary of 4580
state receives as grants from federal sources that are not 4581
otherwise designated shall be credited to the fund. The secretary 4582
of state shall use the moneys credited to the fund for the 4583
purposes and activities required by the applicable federal grant 4584
agreements. All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited 4585
to the fund.4586

       Sec. 113.02.  Before entering upon the discharge of the 4587
duties of his office, the treasurer of state shall give a bond to 4588
the state in the sum of one million dollars, with sureties 4589
approved by the governora surety authorized to do business in the 4590
state, conditioned for the faithful discharge of the duties of his4591
the office of treasurer of state. The bond, with the approval of 4592
the governor and the oath of office endorsed thereon, shall be 4593
deposited with and kept by the secretary of state and kept in his4594
the secretary of state's office.4595

       Sec. 113.061.  The treasurer of state shall adopt rules in 4596
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing the 4597
remittance of taxes by electronic funds transfer as required under 4598
sections 5726.03, 5727.311, 5727.83, 5733.022, 5735.062, 5739.032, 4599
5745.04, and 5747.072, 5749.06, and 5751.07 of the Revised Code 4600
and any other section of the Revised Code under which a person is 4601
required to remit taxes by electronic funds transfer. The rules 4602
shall govern the modes of electronic funds transfer acceptable to 4603
the treasurer of state and under what circumstances each mode is 4604
acceptable, the content and format of electronic funds transfers, 4605
the coordination of payment by electronic funds transfer and 4606
filing of associated tax reports and returns, the remittance of 4607
taxes by means other than electronic funds transfer by persons 4608
otherwise required to do so but relieved of the requirement by the 4609
treasurer of state, and any other matter that in the opinion of 4610
the treasurer of state facilitates payment by electronic funds 4611
transfer in a manner consistent with those sections.4612

       Upon failure by a person, if so required, to remit taxes by 4613
electronic funds transfer in the manner prescribed under section4614
5726.03, 5727.83, 5733.022, 5735.062, 5739.032, 5745.04, or4615
5747.072, 5749.06, or 5751.07 of the Revised Code and rules 4616
adopted under this section, the treasurer of state shall notify 4617
the tax commissioner of such failure if the treasurer of state 4618
determines that such failure was not due to reasonable cause or 4619
was due to willful neglect, and shall provide the tax commissioner 4620
with any information used in making that determination. The tax 4621
commissioner may assess an additional charge as specified in the 4622
respective section of the Revised Code governing the requirement 4623
to remit taxes by electronic funds transfer.4624

       The treasurer of state may implement means of acknowledging, 4625
upon the request of a taxpayer, receipt of tax remittances made by 4626
electronic funds transfer, and may adopt rules governing 4627
acknowledgments. The cost of acknowledging receipt of electronic 4628
remittances shall be paid by the person requesting acknowledgment.4629

       The treasurer of state, not the tax commissioner, is 4630
responsible for resolving any problems involving electronic funds 4631
transfer transmissions.4632

       Sec. 117.03.  Before entering upon the discharge of the 4633
duties of his office, the auditor of state shall give a bond to 4634
the state in the sum of twenty thousand dollars, with a surety 4635
approved by the governorauthorized to do business in the state, 4636
conditioned for the faithful discharge of the duties of histhe4637
office of auditor of state. The bond, with the approval of the 4638
governor and the oath of office endorsed thereon, shall be 4639
deposited with and kept by the secretary of state and kept in his4640
the secretary of state's office.4641

       Sec. 117.10.  The auditor of state shall audit all public 4642
offices as provided in this chapter. The auditor of state also may 4643
audit the accounts of private institutions, associations, boards, 4644
and corporations receiving public money for their use and may 4645
require of them annual reports in such form as the auditor of 4646
state prescribes.4647

       If the auditor of state performs or contracts for the 4648
performance of an audit, including a special audit, of the public 4649
employees retirement system, school employees retirement system, 4650
state teachers retirement system, state highway patrol retirement 4651
system, or Ohio police and fire pension fund, the auditor of state 4652
shall make a timely report of the results of the audit to the Ohio 4653
retirement study council.4654

       The auditor of state may audit the accounts of any medicaid4655
provider, as defined in section 5111.065164.01 of the Revised 4656
Code.4657

       If a public office has been audited by an agency of the 4658
United States government, the auditor of state may, if satisfied 4659
that the federal audit has been conducted according to principles 4660
and procedures not contrary to those of the auditor of state, use 4661
and adopt the federal audit and report in lieu of an audit by the 4662
auditor of state's own office.4663

       Within thirty days after the creation or dissolution or the 4664
winding up of the affairs of any public office, that public office 4665
shall notify the auditor of state in writing that this action has 4666
occurred.4667

       Sec. 117.20.  (A) In adopting rules pursuant to Chapter 117. 4668
of the Revised Code, the auditor of state or the auditor of 4669
state's designee shall do both of the following:4670

       (1) Before adopting any such rule, except a rule of an 4671
emergency nature, do each of the following:4672

       (a) At least thirty-five days before any public hearing on 4673
the proposed rule-making action, mail or send by electronic mail4674
notice of the hearing to each public office and to each statewide 4675
organization that the auditor of state or designee determines will 4676
be affected or represents persons who will be affected by the 4677
proposed rule-making action;4678

       (b) Mail or send by electronic mail a copy of the proposed 4679
rule to any person or organization that requests a copy within 4680
five days after receipt of the request;4681

       (c) Consult with appropriate state and local government 4682
agencies, or with persons representative of their interests, 4683
including statewide organizations of local government officials, 4684
and consult with accounting professionals and other interested 4685
persons;4686

       (d) Conduct, on the date and at the time and place designated 4687
in the notice, a public hearing at which any person affected by 4688
the proposed rule, including statewide organizations of local 4689
government officials, may appear and be heard in person, by 4690
attorney, or both, and may present the person's or organization's 4691
position or contentions orally or in writing.4692

       (2) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2) of this 4693
section, complyComply with divisions (B) to (E) of section 111.15 4694
of the Revised Code. The auditor of state is not required to file 4695
a rule summary and fiscal analysis along with any copy of a 4696
proposed rule, or proposed rule in revised form, that is filed 4697
with the joint committee on agency rule review, the secretary of 4698
state, or the director of the legislative service commission under 4699
division (D) or (E) of section 111.15 of the Revised Code.4700

       (B) The auditor of state shall diligently discharge the 4701
duties imposed by divisions (A)(1)(a), (b), and (c) of this 4702
section, but failure to mail or send by electronic mail any notice 4703
or copy of a proposed rule, or to consult with any person or 4704
organization, shall not invalidate any rule.4705

       (C) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of the Revised 4706
Code, the auditor of state may prepare and disseminate, to public 4707
offices and other interested persons and organizations, advisory 4708
bulletins, directives, and instructions relating to accounting and 4709
financial reporting systems, budgeting procedures, fiscal 4710
controls, and the constructions by the auditor of state of 4711
constitutional and statutory provisions, court decisions, and 4712
opinions of the attorney general. The bulletins, directives, and 4713
instructions shall be of an advisory nature only.4714

       (D) As used in this section, "rule" includes the adoption, 4715
amendment, or rescission of a rule.4716

       Sec. 119.01.  As used in sections 119.01 to 119.13 of the 4717
Revised Code:4718

       (A)(1) "Agency" means, except as limited by this division, 4719
any official, board, or commission having authority to promulgate 4720
rules or make adjudications in the civil service commission, the 4721
division of liquor control, the department of taxation, the 4722
industrial commission, the bureau of workers' compensation, the 4723
functions of any administrative or executive officer, department, 4724
division, bureau, board, or commission of the government of the 4725
state specifically made subject to sections 119.01 to 119.13 of 4726
the Revised Code, and the licensing functions of any 4727
administrative or executive officer, department, division, bureau, 4728
board, or commission of the government of the state having the 4729
authority or responsibility of issuing, suspending, revoking, or 4730
canceling licenses.4731

       Except as otherwise provided in division (I) of this section, 4732
sections 119.01 to 119.13 of the Revised Code do not apply to the 4733
public utilities commission. Sections 119.01 to 119.13 of the 4734
Revised Code do not apply to the utility radiological safety 4735
board; to the controlling board; to actions of the superintendent 4736
of financial institutions and the superintendent of insurance in 4737
the taking possession of, and rehabilitation or liquidation of, 4738
the business and property of banks, savings and loan associations, 4739
savings banks, credit unions, insurance companies, associations, 4740
reciprocal fraternal benefit societies, and bond investment 4741
companies; to any action taken by the division of securities under 4742
section 1707.201 of the Revised Code; or to any action that may be 4743
taken by the superintendent of financial institutions under 4744
section 1113.03, 1121.06, 1121.10, 1125.09, 1125.12, 1125.18, 4745
1157.09, 1157.12, 1157.18, 1165.09, 1165.12, 1165.18, 1349.33, 4746
1733.35, 1733.361, 1733.37, or 1761.03 of the Revised Code.4747

       Sections 119.01 to 119.13 of the Revised Code do not apply to 4748
actions of the industrial commission or the bureau of workers' 4749
compensation under sections 4123.01 to 4123.94 of the Revised Code 4750
with respect to all matters of adjudication, or to the actions of 4751
the industrial commission, bureau of workers' compensation board 4752
of directors, and bureau of workers' compensation under division 4753
(D) of section 4121.32, sections 4123.29, 4123.34, 4123.341, 4754
4123.342, 4123.40, 4123.411, 4123.44, 4123.442, 4127.07, divisions 4755
(B), (C), and (E) of section 4131.04, and divisions (B), (C), and 4756
(E) of section 4131.14 of the Revised Code with respect to all 4757
matters concerning the establishment of premium, contribution, and 4758
assessment rates.4759

       (2) "Agency" also means any official or work unit having 4760
authority to promulgate rules or make adjudications in the 4761
department of job and family services, but only with respect to 4762
both of the following:4763

       (a) The adoption, amendment, or rescission of rules that 4764
section 5101.09 of the Revised Code requires be adopted in 4765
accordance with this chapter;4766

       (b) The issuance, suspension, revocation, or cancellation of 4767
licenses.4768

       (B) "License" means any license, permit, certificate, 4769
commission, or charter issued by any agency. "License" does not 4770
include any arrangement whereby a person, institution, or 4771
government entity furnishes medicaid services under a provider 4772
agreement with the department of job and family services pursuant 4773
to Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 4774
U.S.C. 301, as amendedmedicaid.4775

       (C) "Rule" means any rule, regulation, or standard, having a 4776
general and uniform operation, adopted, promulgated, and enforced 4777
by any agency under the authority of the laws governing such 4778
agency, and includes any appendix to a rule. "Rule" does not 4779
include any internal management rule of an agency unless the 4780
internal management rule affects private rights and does not 4781
include any guideline adopted pursuant to section 3301.0714 of the 4782
Revised Code.4783

       (D) "Adjudication" means the determination by the highest or 4784
ultimate authority of an agency of the rights, duties, privileges, 4785
benefits, or legal relationships of a specified person, but does 4786
not include the issuance of a license in response to an 4787
application with respect to which no question is raised, nor other 4788
acts of a ministerial nature.4789

       (E) "Hearing" means a public hearing by any agency in 4790
compliance with procedural safeguards afforded by sections 119.01 4791
to 119.13 of the Revised Code.4792

       (F) "Person" means a person, firm, corporation, association, 4793
or partnership.4794

       (G) "Party" means the person whose interests are the subject 4795
of an adjudication by an agency.4796

       (H) "Appeal" means the procedure by which a person, aggrieved 4797
by a finding, decision, order, or adjudication of any agency, 4798
invokes the jurisdiction of a court.4799

       (I) "Rule-making agency" means any board, commission, 4800
department, division, or bureau of the government of the state 4801
that is required to file proposed rules, amendments, or 4802
rescissions under division (D) of section 111.15 of the Revised 4803
Code and any agency that is required to file proposed rules, 4804
amendments, or rescissions under divisions (B) and (H) of section 4805
119.03 of the Revised Code. "Rule-making agency" includes the 4806
public utilities commission. "Rule-making agency" does not include 4807
any state-supported college or university.4808

       (J) "Substantive revision" means any addition to, elimination 4809
from, or other change in a rule, an amendment of a rule, or a 4810
rescission of a rule, whether of a substantive or procedural 4811
nature, that changes any of the following:4812

       (1) That which the rule, amendment, or rescission permits, 4813
authorizes, regulates, requires, prohibits, penalizes, rewards, or 4814
otherwise affects;4815

       (2) The scope or application of the rule, amendment, or 4816
rescission.4817

       (K) "Internal management rule" means any rule, regulation, or 4818
standard governing the day-to-day staff procedures and operations 4819
within an agency.4820

       Sec. 120.06.  (A)(1) The state public defender, when 4821
designated by the court or requested by a county public defender 4822
or joint county public defender, may provide legal representation 4823
in all courts throughout the state to indigent adults and 4824
juveniles who are charged with the commission of an offense or act 4825
for which the penalty or any possible adjudication includes the 4826
potential loss of liberty.4827

       (2) The state public defender may provide legal 4828
representation to any indigent person who, while incarcerated in 4829
any state correctional institution, is charged with a felony 4830
offense, for which the penalty or any possible adjudication that 4831
may be imposed by a court upon conviction includes the potential 4832
loss of liberty.4833

       (3) The state public defender may provide legal 4834
representation to any person incarcerated in any correctional 4835
institution of the state, in any matter in which the person 4836
asserts the person is unlawfully imprisoned or detained.4837

       (4) The state public defender, in any case in which the state 4838
public defender has provided legal representation or is requested 4839
to do so by a county public defender or joint county public 4840
defender, may provide legal representation on appeal.4841

       (5) The state public defender, when designated by the court 4842
or requested by a county public defender, joint county public 4843
defender, or the director of rehabilitation and correction, shall 4844
provide legal representation in parole and probation revocation 4845
matters or matters relating to the revocation of community control 4846
or post-release control under a community control sanction or 4847
post-release control sanction, unless the state public defender 4848
finds that the alleged parole or probation violator or alleged 4849
violator of a community control sanction or post-release control 4850
sanction has the financial capacity to retain the alleged 4851
violator's own counsel.4852

       (6) The state public defender, when designated by the court 4853
or requested by a county public defender, joint county public 4854
defender, the director of rehabilitation and correction, or the 4855
director of youth services, shall provide legal representation to 4856
a child confined in a facility operated, or contracted for, by the 4857
department of youth services, on administrative issues that may 4858
extend the period of the child's confinement in a facility 4859
operated, or contracted for, by the department of youth services, 4860
unless the state public defender finds that the child has the 4861
financial capacity to retain the child's own counsel.4862

       (7) If the state public defender contracts with a county 4863
public defender commission, a joint county public defender 4864
commission, or a board of county commissioners for the provision 4865
of services, under authority of division (C)(7) of section 120.04 4866
of the Revised Code, the state public defender shall provide legal 4867
representation in accordance with the contract.4868

       (B) The state public defender shall not be required to 4869
prosecute any appeal, postconviction remedy, or other proceeding 4870
pursuant to division (A)(3), (4), or (5), or (6) of this section, 4871
unless the state public defender first is satisfied that there is 4872
arguable merit to the proceeding.4873

       (C) A court may appoint counsel or allow an indigent person 4874
to select the indigent's own personal counsel to assist the state 4875
public defender as co-counsel when the interests of justice so 4876
require. When co-counsel is appointed to assist the state public 4877
defender, the co-counsel shall receive any compensation that the 4878
court may approve, not to exceed the amounts provided for in 4879
section 2941.51 of the Revised Code.4880

       (D)(1) When the state public defender is designated by the 4881
court or requested by a county public defender or joint county 4882
public defender to provide legal representation for an indigent 4883
person in any case, other than pursuant to a contract entered into 4884
under authority of division (C)(7) of section 120.04 of the 4885
Revised Code, the state public defender shall send to the county 4886
in which the case is filed a bill detailing the actual cost of the 4887
representation that separately itemizes legal fees and expenses. 4888
The county, upon receipt of an itemized bill from the state public 4889
defender pursuant to this division, shall pay the state public 4890
defender each of the following amounts:4891

       (a) For the amount identified as legal fees in the itemized 4892
bill, one hundred per cent of the amount identified as legal fees 4893
less the state reimbursement rate as calculated by the state 4894
public defender pursuant to section 120.34 of the Revised Code for 4895
the month the case terminated, as set forth in the itemized bill;4896

       (b) For the amount identified as expenses in the itemized 4897
bill, one hundred per cent.4898

       (2) Upon payment of the itemized bill under division (D)(1) 4899
of this section, the county may submit the cost of the expenses, 4900
excluding legal fees, to the state public defender for 4901
reimbursement pursuant to section 120.33 of the Revised Code.4902

       (3) When the state public defender provides investigation or 4903
mitigation services to private appointed counsel or to a county or 4904
joint county public defender as approved by the appointing court, 4905
other than pursuant to a contract entered into under authority of 4906
division (C)(7) of section 120.04 of the Revised Code, the state 4907
public defender shall send to the county in which the case is 4908
filed a bill itemizing the actual cost of the services provided. 4909
The county, upon receipt of an itemized bill from the state public 4910
defender pursuant to this division, shall pay one hundred per cent 4911
of the amount as set forth in the itemized bill. Upon payment of 4912
the itemized bill received pursuant to this division, the county 4913
may submit the cost of the investigation and mitigation services 4914
to the state public defender for reimbursement pursuant to section 4915
120.33 of the Revised Code.4916

       (4) There is hereby created in the state treasury the county 4917
representation fund for the deposit of moneys received from 4918
counties under this division. All moneys credited to the fund 4919
shall be used by the state public defender to provide legal 4920
representation for indigent persons when designated by the court 4921
or requested by a county or joint county public defender or to 4922
provide investigation or mitigation services, including 4923
investigation or mitigation services to private appointed counsel 4924
or a county or joint county public defender, as approved by the 4925
court.4926

       (E)(1) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of sections 4927
109.02, 109.07, 109.361 to 109.366, and 120.03 of the Revised Code 4928
that pertains to representation by the attorney general, an 4929
assistant attorney general, or special counsel of an officer or 4930
employee, as defined in section 109.36 of the Revised Code, or of 4931
an entity of state government, the state public defender may elect 4932
to contract with, and to have the state pay pursuant to division 4933
(E)(2) of this section for the services of, private legal counsel 4934
to represent the Ohio public defender commission, the state public 4935
defender, assistant state public defenders, other employees of the 4936
commission or the state public defender, and attorneys described 4937
in division (C) of section 120.41 of the Revised Code in a 4938
malpractice or other civil action or proceeding that arises from 4939
alleged actions or omissions related to responsibilities derived 4940
pursuant to this chapter, or in a civil action that is based upon 4941
alleged violations of the constitution or statutes of the United 4942
States, including section 1983 of Title 42 of the United States 4943
Code, 93 Stat. 1284 (1979), 42 U.S.C.A. 1983, as amended, and that 4944
arises from alleged actions or omissions related to 4945
responsibilities derived pursuant to this chapter, if the state 4946
public defender determines, in good faith, that the defendant in 4947
the civil action or proceeding did not act manifestly outside the 4948
scope of the defendant's employment or official responsibilities, 4949
with malicious purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or reckless 4950
manner. If the state public defender elects not to contract 4951
pursuant to this division for private legal counsel in a civil 4952
action or proceeding, then, in accordance with sections 109.02, 4953
109.07, 109.361 to 109.366, and 120.03 of the Revised Code, the 4954
attorney general shall represent or provide for the representation 4955
of the Ohio public defender commission, the state public defender, 4956
assistant state public defenders, other employees of the 4957
commission or the state public defender, or attorneys described in 4958
division (C) of section 120.41 of the Revised Code in the civil 4959
action or proceeding.4960

       (2)(a) Subject to division (E)(2)(b) of this section, payment 4961
from the state treasury for the services of private legal counsel 4962
with whom the state public defender has contracted pursuant to 4963
division (E)(1) of this section shall be accomplished only through 4964
the following procedure:4965

       (i) The private legal counsel shall file with the attorney 4966
general a copy of the contract; a request for an award of legal 4967
fees, court costs, and expenses earned or incurred in connection 4968
with the defense of the Ohio public defender commission, the state 4969
public defender, an assistant state public defender, an employee, 4970
or an attorney in a specified civil action or proceeding; a 4971
written itemization of those fees, costs, and expenses, including 4972
the signature of the state public defender and the state public 4973
defender's attestation that the fees, costs, and expenses were 4974
earned or incurred pursuant to division (E)(1) of this section to 4975
the best of the state public defender's knowledge and information; 4976
a written statement whether the fees, costs, and expenses are for 4977
all legal services to be rendered in connection with that defense, 4978
are only for legal services rendered to the date of the request 4979
and additional legal services likely will have to be provided in 4980
connection with that defense, or are for the final legal services 4981
rendered in connection with that defense; a written statement 4982
indicating whether the private legal counsel previously submitted 4983
a request for an award under division (E)(2) of this section in 4984
connection with that defense and, if so, the date and the amount 4985
of each award granted; and, if the fees, costs, and expenses are 4986
for all legal services to be rendered in connection with that 4987
defense or are for the final legal services rendered in connection 4988
with that defense, a certified copy of any judgment entry in the 4989
civil action or proceeding or a signed copy of any settlement 4990
agreement entered into between the parties to the civil action or 4991
proceeding.4992

       (ii) Upon receipt of a request for an award of legal fees, 4993
court costs, and expenses and the requisite supportive 4994
documentation described in division (E)(2)(a)(i) of this section, 4995
the attorney general shall review the request and documentation; 4996
determine whether any of the limitations specified in division 4997
(E)(2)(b) of this section apply to the request; and, if an award 4998
of legal fees, court costs, or expenses is permissible after 4999
applying the limitations, prepare a document awarding legal fees, 5000
court costs, or expenses to the private legal counsel. The 5001
document shall name the private legal counsel as the recipient of 5002
the award; specify the total amount of the award as determined by 5003
the attorney general; itemize the portions of the award that 5004
represent legal fees, court costs, and expenses; specify any 5005
limitation applied pursuant to division (E)(2)(b) of this section 5006
to reduce the amount of the award sought by the private legal 5007
counsel; state that the award is payable from the state treasury 5008
pursuant to division (E)(2)(a)(iii) of this section; and be 5009
approved by the inclusion of the signatures of the attorney 5010
general, the state public defender, and the private legal counsel.5011

       (iii) The attorney general shall forward a copy of the 5012
document prepared pursuant to division (E)(2)(a)(ii) of this 5013
section to the director of budget and management. The award of 5014
legal fees, court costs, or expenses shall be paid out of the 5015
state public defender's appropriations, to the extent there is a 5016
sufficient available balance in those appropriations. If the state 5017
public defender does not have a sufficient available balance in 5018
the state public defender's appropriations to pay the entire award 5019
of legal fees, court costs, or expenses, the director shall make 5020
application for a transfer of appropriations out of the emergency 5021
purposes account or any other appropriation for emergencies or 5022
contingencies in an amount equal to the portion of the award that 5023
exceeds the sufficient available balance in the state public 5024
defender's appropriations. A transfer of appropriations out of the 5025
emergency purposes account or any other appropriation for 5026
emergencies or contingencies shall be authorized if there are 5027
sufficient moneys greater than the sum total of then pending 5028
emergency purposes account requests, or requests for releases from 5029
the other appropriation. If a transfer of appropriations out of 5030
the emergency purposes account or other appropriation for 5031
emergencies or contingencies is made to pay an amount equal to the 5032
portion of the award that exceeds the sufficient available balance 5033
in the state public defender's appropriations, the director shall 5034
cause the payment to be made to the private legal counsel. If 5035
sufficient moneys do not exist in the emergency purposes account 5036
or other appropriation for emergencies or contingencies to pay an 5037
amount equal to the portion of the award that exceeds the 5038
sufficient available balance in the state public defender's 5039
appropriations, the private legal counsel shall request the 5040
general assembly to make an appropriation sufficient to pay an 5041
amount equal to the portion of the award that exceeds the 5042
sufficient available balance in the state public defender's 5043
appropriations, and no payment in that amount shall be made until 5044
the appropriation has been made. The private legal counsel shall 5045
make the request during the current biennium and during each 5046
succeeding biennium until a sufficient appropriation is made.5047

       (b) An award of legal fees, court costs, and expenses 5048
pursuant to division (E) of this section is subject to the 5049
following limitations:5050

       (i) The maximum award or maximum aggregate of a series of 5051
awards of legal fees, court costs, and expenses to the private 5052
legal counsel in connection with the defense of the Ohio public 5053
defender commission, the state public defender, an assistant state 5054
public defender, an employee, or an attorney in a specified civil 5055
action or proceeding shall not exceed fifty thousand dollars.5056

       (ii) The private legal counsel shall not be awarded legal 5057
fees, court costs, or expenses to the extent the fees, costs, or 5058
expenses are covered by a policy of malpractice or other 5059
insurance.5060

       (iii) The private legal counsel shall be awarded legal fees 5061
and expenses only to the extent that the fees and expenses are 5062
reasonable in light of the legal services rendered by the private 5063
legal counsel in connection with the defense of the Ohio public 5064
defender commission, the state public defender, an assistant state 5065
public defender, an employee, or an attorney in a specified civil 5066
action or proceeding.5067

       (c) If, pursuant to division (E)(2)(a) of this section, the 5068
attorney general denies a request for an award of legal fees, 5069
court costs, or expenses to private legal counsel because of the 5070
application of a limitation specified in division (E)(2)(b) of 5071
this section, the attorney general shall notify the private legal 5072
counsel in writing of the denial and of the limitation applied.5073

       (d) If, pursuant to division (E)(2)(c) of this section, a 5074
private legal counsel receives a denial of an award notification 5075
or if a private legal counsel refuses to approve a document under 5076
division (E)(2)(a)(ii) of this section because of the proposed 5077
application of a limitation specified in division (E)(2)(b) of 5078
this section, the private legal counsel may commence a civil 5079
action against the attorney general in the court of claims to 5080
prove the private legal counsel's entitlement to the award sought, 5081
to prove that division (E)(2)(b) of this section does not prohibit 5082
or otherwise limit the award sought, and to recover a judgment for 5083
the amount of the award sought. A civil action under division 5084
(E)(2)(d) of this section shall be commenced no later than two 5085
years after receipt of a denial of award notification or, if the 5086
private legal counsel refused to approve a document under division 5087
(E)(2)(a)(ii) of this section because of the proposed application 5088
of a limitation specified in division (E)(2)(b) of this section, 5089
no later than two years after the refusal. Any judgment of the 5090
court of claims in favor of the private legal counsel shall be 5091
paid from the state treasury in accordance with division (E)(2)(a) 5092
of this section.5093

       (F) If a court appoints the office of the state public 5094
defender to represent a petitioner in a postconviction relief 5095
proceeding under section 2953.21 of the Revised Code, the 5096
petitioner has received a sentence of death, and the proceeding 5097
relates to that sentence, all of the attorneys who represent the 5098
petitioner in the proceeding pursuant to the appointment, whether 5099
an assistant state public defender, the state public defender, or 5100
another attorney, shall be certified under Rule 20 of the Rules of 5101
Superintendence for the Courts of Ohio to represent indigent 5102
defendants charged with or convicted of an offense for which the 5103
death penalty can be or has been imposed.5104

       (G)(1) The state public defender may conduct a legal 5105
assistance referral service for children committed to the 5106
department of youth services relative to conditions of confinement 5107
claims. If the legal assistance referral service receives a 5108
request for assistance from a child confined in a facility 5109
operated, or contracted for, by the department of youth services 5110
and the state public defender determines that the child has a 5111
conditions of confinement claim that has merit, the state public 5112
defender may refer the child to a private attorney. If no private 5113
attorney who the child has been referred to by the state public 5114
defender accepts the case within a reasonable time, the state 5115
public defender may prepare, as appropriate, pro se pleadings in 5116
the form of a complaint regarding the conditions of confinement at 5117
the facility where the child is confined with a motion for 5118
appointment of counsel and other applicable pleadings necessary 5119
for sufficient pro se representation.5120

        (2) Division (G)(1) of this section does not authorize the 5121
state public defender to represent a child committed to the 5122
department of youth services in general civil matters arising 5123
solely out of state law. 5124

       (3) The state public defender shall not undertake the 5125
representation of a child in court based on a conditions of 5126
confinement claim arising under this division.5127

       (H) A child's right to representation or services under this 5128
section is not affected by the child, or another person on behalf 5129
of the child, previously having paid for similar representation or 5130
services or having waived legal representation.5131

        (I) The state public defender shall have reasonable access to 5132
any child committed to the department of youth services, 5133
department of youth services institution, and department of youth 5134
services record as needed to implement this section.5135

        (J) As used in this section:5136

       (1) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 5137
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.5138

       (2) "Conditions of confinement" means any issue involving a 5139
constitutional right or other civil right related to a child's 5140
incarceration, including, but not limited to, actions cognizable 5141
under 42 U.S.C. 1983.5142

        (3) "Post-release control sanction" has the same meaning as 5143
in section 2967.01 of the Revised Code.5144

       Sec. 121.02.  The following administrative departments and 5145
their respective directors are hereby created:5146

       (A) The office of budget and management, which shall be 5147
administered by the director of budget and management;5148

       (B) The department of commerce, which shall be administered 5149
by the director of commerce;5150

       (C) The department of administrative services, which shall be 5151
administered by the director of administrative services;5152

       (D) The department of transportation, which shall be 5153
administered by the director of transportation;5154

       (E) The department of agriculture, which shall be 5155
administered by the director of agriculture;5156

       (F) The department of natural resources, which shall be 5157
administered by the director of natural resources;5158

       (G) The department of health, which shall be administered by 5159
the director of health;5160

       (H) The department of job and family services, which shall be 5161
administered by the director of job and family services;5162

       (I) Until July 1, 1997, the department of liquor control, 5163
which shall be administered by the director of liquor control;5164

       (J) The department of public safety, which shall be 5165
administered by the director of public safety;5166

       (K) The department of mental healthmental health and 5167
addiction services, which shall be administered by the director of 5168
mental healthmental health and addiction services;5169

       (L) The department of developmental disabilities, which shall 5170
be administered by the director of developmental disabilities;5171

       (M) The department of insurance, which shall be administered 5172
by the superintendent of insurance as director thereof;5173

       (N) The development services agency, which shall be 5174
administered by the director of development services;5175

       (O) The department of youth services, which shall be 5176
administered by the director of youth services;5177

       (P) The department of rehabilitation and correction, which 5178
shall be administered by the director of rehabilitation and 5179
correction;5180

       (Q) The environmental protection agency, which shall be 5181
administered by the director of environmental protection;5182

       (R) The department of aging, which shall be administered by 5183
the director of aging;5184

       (S) The department of alcohol and drug addiction services, 5185
which shall be administered by the director of alcohol and drug 5186
addiction services;5187

       (T) The department of veterans services, which shall be 5188
administered by the director of veterans services;5189

       (T) The department of medicaid, which shall be administered 5190
by the medicaid director.5191

       The director of each department shall exercise the powers and 5192
perform the duties vested by law in such department.5193

       Sec. 121.03.  The following administrative department heads 5194
shall be appointed by the governor, with the advice and consent of 5195
the senate, and shall hold their offices during the term of the 5196
appointing governor, and are subject to removal at the pleasure of 5197
the governor.5198

       (A) The director of budget and management;5199

       (B) The director of commerce;5200

       (C) The director of transportation;5201

       (D) The director of agriculture;5202

       (E) The director of job and family services;5203

       (F) Until July 1, 1997, the director of liquor control;5204

       (G) The director of public safety;5205

       (H) The superintendent of insurance;5206

       (I) The director of development services;5207

       (J) The tax commissioner;5208

       (K) The director of administrative services;5209

       (L) The director of natural resources;5210

       (M) The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 5211
services;5212

       (N) The director of developmental disabilities;5213

       (O) The director of health;5214

       (P) The director of youth services;5215

       (Q) The director of rehabilitation and correction;5216

       (R) The director of environmental protection;5217

       (S) The director of aging;5218

       (T) The director of alcohol and drug addiction services;5219

       (U) The administrator of workers' compensation who meets the 5220
qualifications required under division (A) of section 4121.121 of 5221
the Revised Code;5222

       (V)(U) The director of veterans services who meets the 5223
qualifications required under section 5902.01 of the Revised Code;5224

       (W)(V) The chancellor of the Ohio board of regents;5225

       (W) The medicaid director.5226

       Sec. 121.22.  (A) This section shall be liberally construed 5227
to require public officials to take official action and to conduct 5228
all deliberations upon official business only in open meetings 5229
unless the subject matter is specifically excepted by law.5230

       (B) As used in this section:5231

       (1) "Public body" means any of the following:5232

       (a) Any board, commission, committee, council, or similar 5233
decision-making body of a state agency, institution, or authority, 5234
and any legislative authority or board, commission, committee, 5235
council, agency, authority, or similar decision-making body of any 5236
county, township, municipal corporation, school district, or other 5237
political subdivision or local public institution;5238

       (b) Any committee or subcommittee of a body described in 5239
division (B)(1)(a) of this section;5240

       (c) A court of jurisdiction of a sanitary district organized 5241
wholly for the purpose of providing a water supply for domestic, 5242
municipal, and public use when meeting for the purpose of the 5243
appointment, removal, or reappointment of a member of the board of 5244
directors of such a district pursuant to section 6115.10 of the 5245
Revised Code, if applicable, or for any other matter related to 5246
such a district other than litigation involving the district. As 5247
used in division (B)(1)(c) of this section, "court of 5248
jurisdiction" has the same meaning as "court" in section 6115.01 5249
of the Revised Code.5250

       (2) "Meeting" means any prearranged discussion of the public 5251
business of the public body by a majority of its members.5252

       (3) "Regulated individual" means either of the following:5253

       (a) A student in a state or local public educational 5254
institution;5255

       (b) A person who is, voluntarily or involuntarily, an inmate, 5256
patient, or resident of a state or local institution because of 5257
criminal behavior, mental illness or retardation, disease, 5258
disability, age, or other condition requiring custodial care.5259

       (4) "Public office" has the same meaning as in section 5260
149.011 of the Revised Code.5261

       (C) All meetings of any public body are declared to be public 5262
meetings open to the public at all times. A member of a public 5263
body shall be present in person at a meeting open to the public to 5264
be considered present or to vote at the meeting and for purposes 5265
of determining whether a quorum is present at the meeting.5266

       The minutes of a regular or special meeting of any public 5267
body shall be promptly prepared, filed, and maintained and shall 5268
be open to public inspection. The minutes need only reflect the 5269
general subject matter of discussions in executive sessions 5270
authorized under division (G) or (J) of this section.5271

       (D) This section does not apply to any of the following:5272

       (1) A grand jury;5273

       (2) An audit conference conducted by the auditor of state or 5274
independent certified public accountants with officials of the 5275
public office that is the subject of the audit;5276

       (3) The adult parole authority when its hearings are 5277
conducted at a correctional institution for the sole purpose of 5278
interviewing inmates to determine parole or pardon;5279

       (4) The organized crime investigations commission established 5280
under section 177.01 of the Revised Code;5281

       (5) Meetings of a child fatality review board established 5282
under section 307.621 of the Revised Code and meetings conducted 5283
pursuant to sections 5153.171 to 5153.173 of the Revised Code;5284

       (6) The state medical board when determining whether to 5285
suspend a certificate without a prior hearing pursuant to division 5286
(G) of either section 4730.25 or 4731.22 of the Revised Code;5287

       (7) The board of nursing when determining whether to suspend 5288
a license or certificate without a prior hearing pursuant to 5289
division (B) of section 4723.281 of the Revised Code;5290

       (8) The state board of pharmacy when determining whether to 5291
suspend a license without a prior hearing pursuant to division (D) 5292
of section 4729.16 of the Revised Code;5293

       (9) The state chiropractic board when determining whether to 5294
suspend a license without a hearing pursuant to section 4734.37 of 5295
the Revised Code;5296

       (10) The executive committee of the emergency response 5297
commission when determining whether to issue an enforcement order 5298
or request that a civil action, civil penalty action, or criminal 5299
action be brought to enforce Chapter 3750. of the Revised Code;5300

       (11) The board of directors of the nonprofit corporation 5301
formed under section 187.01 of the Revised Code or any committee 5302
thereof, and the board of directors of any subsidiary of that 5303
corporation or a committee thereof;5304

       (12) An audit conference conducted by the audit staff of the 5305
department of job and family services with officials of the public 5306
office that is the subject of that audit under section 5101.37 of 5307
the Revised Code;5308

       (13) The occupational therapy section of the occupational 5309
therapy, physical therapy, and athletic trainers board when 5310
determining whether to suspend a license or limited permit without 5311
a hearing pursuant to division (D) of section 4755.11 of the 5312
Revised Code;5313

       (14) The physical therapy section of the occupational 5314
therapy, physical therapy, and athletic trainers board when 5315
determining whether to suspend a license without a hearing 5316
pursuant to division (E) of section 4755.47 of the Revised Code;5317

       (15) The athletic trainers section of the occupational 5318
therapy, physical therapy, and athletic trainers board when 5319
determining whether to suspend a license without a hearing 5320
pursuant to division (D) of section 4755.64 of the Revised Code.5321

       (E) The controlling board, the industrial technology and 5322
enterprise advisory council, the tax credit authority, or the 5323
minority development financing advisory board, when meeting to 5324
consider granting assistance pursuant to Chapter 122. or 166. of 5325
the Revised Code, in order to protect the interest of the 5326
applicant or the possible investment of public funds, by unanimous 5327
vote of all board, council, or authority members present, may 5328
close the meeting during consideration of the following 5329
information confidentially received by the authority, council, or 5330
board from the applicant:5331

       (1) Marketing plans;5332

       (2) Specific business strategy;5333

       (3) Production techniques and trade secrets;5334

       (4) Financial projections;5335

       (5) Personal financial statements of the applicant or members 5336
of the applicant's immediate family, including, but not limited 5337
to, tax records or other similar information not open to public 5338
inspection.5339

       The vote by the authority, council, or board to accept or 5340
reject the application, as well as all proceedings of the 5341
authority, council, or board not subject to this division, shall 5342
be open to the public and governed by this section.5343

       (F) Every public body, by rule, shall establish a reasonable 5344
method whereby any person may determine the time and place of all 5345
regularly scheduled meetings and the time, place, and purpose of 5346
all special meetings. A public body shall not hold a special 5347
meeting unless it gives at least twenty-four hours' advance notice 5348
to the news media that have requested notification, except in the 5349
event of an emergency requiring immediate official action. In the 5350
event of an emergency, the member or members calling the meeting 5351
shall notify the news media that have requested notification 5352
immediately of the time, place, and purpose of the meeting.5353

       The rule shall provide that any person, upon request and 5354
payment of a reasonable fee, may obtain reasonable advance 5355
notification of all meetings at which any specific type of public 5356
business is to be discussed. Provisions for advance notification 5357
may include, but are not limited to, mailing the agenda of 5358
meetings to all subscribers on a mailing list or mailing notices 5359
in self-addressed, stamped envelopes provided by the person.5360

       (G) Except as provided in division (J) of this section, the 5361
members of a public body may hold an executive session only after 5362
a majority of a quorum of the public body determines, by a roll 5363
call vote, to hold an executive session and only at a regular or 5364
special meeting for the sole purpose of the consideration of any 5365
of the following matters:5366

       (1) To consider the appointment, employment, dismissal, 5367
discipline, promotion, demotion, or compensation of a public 5368
employee or official, or the investigation of charges or 5369
complaints against a public employee, official, licensee, or 5370
regulated individual, unless the public employee, official, 5371
licensee, or regulated individual requests a public hearing. 5372
Except as otherwise provided by law, no public body shall hold an 5373
executive session for the discipline of an elected official for 5374
conduct related to the performance of the elected official's 5375
official duties or for the elected official's removal from office. 5376
If a public body holds an executive session pursuant to division 5377
(G)(1) of this section, the motion and vote to hold that executive 5378
session shall state which one or more of the approved purposes 5379
listed in division (G)(1) of this section are the purposes for 5380
which the executive session is to be held, but need not include 5381
the name of any person to be considered at the meeting.5382

       (2) To consider the purchase of property for public purposes, 5383
or for the sale of property at competitive bidding, if premature 5384
disclosure of information would give an unfair competitive or 5385
bargaining advantage to a person whose personal, private interest 5386
is adverse to the general public interest. No member of a public 5387
body shall use division (G)(2) of this section as a subterfuge for 5388
providing covert information to prospective buyers or sellers. A 5389
purchase or sale of public property is void if the seller or buyer 5390
of the public property has received covert information from a 5391
member of a public body that has not been disclosed to the general 5392
public in sufficient time for other prospective buyers and sellers 5393
to prepare and submit offers.5394

       If the minutes of the public body show that all meetings and 5395
deliberations of the public body have been conducted in compliance 5396
with this section, any instrument executed by the public body 5397
purporting to convey, lease, or otherwise dispose of any right, 5398
title, or interest in any public property shall be conclusively 5399
presumed to have been executed in compliance with this section 5400
insofar as title or other interest of any bona fide purchasers, 5401
lessees, or transferees of the property is concerned.5402

       (3) Conferences with an attorney for the public body 5403
concerning disputes involving the public body that are the subject 5404
of pending or imminent court action;5405

       (4) Preparing for, conducting, or reviewing negotiations or 5406
bargaining sessions with public employees concerning their 5407
compensation or other terms and conditions of their employment;5408

       (5) Matters required to be kept confidential by federal law 5409
or regulations or state statutes;5410

       (6) Details relative to the security arrangements and 5411
emergency response protocols for a public body or a public office, 5412
if disclosure of the matters discussed could reasonably be 5413
expected to jeopardize the security of the public body or public 5414
office;5415

       (7) In the case of a county hospital operated pursuant to 5416
Chapter 339. of the Revised Code, a joint township hospital 5417
operated pursuant to Chapter 513. of the Revised Code, or a 5418
municipal hospital operated pursuant to Chapter 749. of the 5419
Revised Code, to consider trade secrets, as defined in section 5420
1333.61 of the Revised Code.5421

       If a public body holds an executive session to consider any 5422
of the matters listed in divisions (G)(2) to (7) of this section, 5423
the motion and vote to hold that executive session shall state 5424
which one or more of the approved matters listed in those 5425
divisions are to be considered at the executive session.5426

       A public body specified in division (B)(1)(c) of this section 5427
shall not hold an executive session when meeting for the purposes 5428
specified in that division.5429

       (H) A resolution, rule, or formal action of any kind is 5430
invalid unless adopted in an open meeting of the public body. A 5431
resolution, rule, or formal action adopted in an open meeting that 5432
results from deliberations in a meeting not open to the public is 5433
invalid unless the deliberations were for a purpose specifically 5434
authorized in division (G) or (J) of this section and conducted at 5435
an executive session held in compliance with this section. A 5436
resolution, rule, or formal action adopted in an open meeting is 5437
invalid if the public body that adopted the resolution, rule, or 5438
formal action violated division (F) of this section.5439

       (I)(1) Any person may bring an action to enforce this 5440
section. An action under division (I)(1) of this section shall be 5441
brought within two years after the date of the alleged violation 5442
or threatened violation. Upon proof of a violation or threatened 5443
violation of this section in an action brought by any person, the 5444
court of common pleas shall issue an injunction to compel the 5445
members of the public body to comply with its provisions.5446

       (2)(a) If the court of common pleas issues an injunction 5447
pursuant to division (I)(1) of this section, the court shall order 5448
the public body that it enjoins to pay a civil forfeiture of five 5449
hundred dollars to the party that sought the injunction and shall 5450
award to that party all court costs and, subject to reduction as 5451
described in division (I)(2) of this section, reasonable 5452
attorney's fees. The court, in its discretion, may reduce an award 5453
of attorney's fees to the party that sought the injunction or not 5454
award attorney's fees to that party if the court determines both 5455
of the following:5456

       (i) That, based on the ordinary application of statutory law 5457
and case law as it existed at the time of violation or threatened 5458
violation that was the basis of the injunction, a well-informed 5459
public body reasonably would believe that the public body was not 5460
violating or threatening to violate this section;5461

       (ii) That a well-informed public body reasonably would 5462
believe that the conduct or threatened conduct that was the basis 5463
of the injunction would serve the public policy that underlies the 5464
authority that is asserted as permitting that conduct or 5465
threatened conduct.5466

       (b) If the court of common pleas does not issue an injunction 5467
pursuant to division (I)(1) of this section and the court 5468
determines at that time that the bringing of the action was 5469
frivolous conduct, as defined in division (A) of section 2323.51 5470
of the Revised Code, the court shall award to the public body all 5471
court costs and reasonable attorney's fees, as determined by the 5472
court.5473

       (3) Irreparable harm and prejudice to the party that sought 5474
the injunction shall be conclusively and irrebuttably presumed 5475
upon proof of a violation or threatened violation of this section.5476

       (4) A member of a public body who knowingly violates an 5477
injunction issued pursuant to division (I)(1) of this section may 5478
be removed from office by an action brought in the court of common 5479
pleas for that purpose by the prosecuting attorney or the attorney 5480
general.5481

       (J)(1) Pursuant to division (C) of section 5901.09 of the 5482
Revised Code, a veterans service commission shall hold an 5483
executive session for one or more of the following purposes unless 5484
an applicant requests a public hearing:5485

       (a) Interviewing an applicant for financial assistance under 5486
sections 5901.01 to 5901.15 of the Revised Code;5487

       (b) Discussing applications, statements, and other documents 5488
described in division (B) of section 5901.09 of the Revised Code;5489

       (c) Reviewing matters relating to an applicant's request for 5490
financial assistance under sections 5901.01 to 5901.15 of the 5491
Revised Code.5492

       (2) A veterans service commission shall not exclude an 5493
applicant for, recipient of, or former recipient of financial 5494
assistance under sections 5901.01 to 5901.15 of the Revised Code, 5495
and shall not exclude representatives selected by the applicant, 5496
recipient, or former recipient, from a meeting that the commission 5497
conducts as an executive session that pertains to the applicant's, 5498
recipient's, or former recipient's application for financial 5499
assistance.5500

       (3) A veterans service commission shall vote on the grant or 5501
denial of financial assistance under sections 5901.01 to 5901.15 5502
of the Revised Code only in an open meeting of the commission. The 5503
minutes of the meeting shall indicate the name, address, and 5504
occupation of the applicant, whether the assistance was granted or 5505
denied, the amount of the assistance if assistance is granted, and 5506
the votes for and against the granting of assistance.5507

       Sec. 121.35.  (A) Subject to division (B) of this section, 5508
the following state agencies shall collaborate to revise and make 5509
more uniform the eligibility standards and eligibility 5510
determination procedures of programs the state agencies 5511
administer:5512

       (1) The department of aging; 5513

       (2) The department of alcohol and drug addiction services;5514

       (3) The department of development services agency;5515

       (4)(3) The department of developmental disabilities;5516

       (5)(4) The department of education;5517

       (6)(5) The department of health;5518

       (7)(6) The department of job and family services;5519

       (8)(7) The department of medicaid;5520

       (8) The department of mental healthmental health and 5521
addiction services;5522

       (9) The rehabilitation services commissionopportunities for 5523
Ohioans with disabilities agency.5524

       (B) In revising eligibility standards and eligibility 5525
determination procedures, a state agency shall not make any 5526
program's eligibility standards or eligibility determination 5527
procedures inconsistent with state or federal law. To the extent 5528
authorized by state and federal law, the revisions may provide for 5529
the state agencies to share administrative operations.5530

       Sec. 121.37.  (A)(1) There is hereby created the Ohio family 5531
and children first cabinet council. The council shall be composed 5532
of the superintendent of public instruction, the administrator5533
executive director of the rehabilitation services commission5534
opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency, the medicaid 5535
director, and the directors of youth services, job and family 5536
services, mental healthmental health and addiction services, 5537
health, alcohol and drug addiction services, developmental 5538
disabilities, aging, rehabilitation and correction, and budget and 5539
management. The chairperson of the council shall be the governor 5540
or the governor's designee and shall establish procedures for the 5541
council's internal control and management.5542

        The purpose of the cabinet council is to help families 5543
seeking government services. This section shall not be interpreted 5544
or applied to usurp the role of parents, but solely to streamline 5545
and coordinate existing government services for families seeking 5546
assistance for their children.5547

       (2) In seeking to fulfill its purpose, the council may do any 5548
of the following:5549

       (a) Advise and make recommendations to the governor and 5550
general assembly regarding the provision of services to children;5551

       (b) Advise and assess local governments on the coordination 5552
of service delivery to children;5553

       (c) Hold meetings at such times and places as may be 5554
prescribed by the council's procedures and maintain records of the 5555
meetings, except that records identifying individual children are 5556
confidential and shall be disclosed only as provided by law;5557

       (d) Develop programs and projects, including pilot projects, 5558
to encourage coordinated efforts at the state and local level to 5559
improve the state's social service delivery system;5560

       (e) Enter into contracts with and administer grants to county 5561
family and children first councils, as well as other county or 5562
multicounty organizations to plan and coordinate service delivery 5563
between state agencies and local service providers for families 5564
and children;5565

       (f) Enter into contracts with and apply for grants from 5566
federal agencies or private organizations;5567

       (g) Enter into interagency agreements to encourage 5568
coordinated efforts at the state and local level to improve the 5569
state's social service delivery system. The agreements may include 5570
provisions regarding the receipt, transfer, and expenditure of 5571
funds;5572

       (h) Identify public and private funding sources for services 5573
provided to alleged or adjudicated unruly children and children 5574
who are at risk of being alleged or adjudicated unruly children, 5575
including regulations governing access to and use of the services;5576

       (i) Collect information provided by local communities 5577
regarding successful programs for prevention, intervention, and 5578
treatment of unruly behavior, including evaluations of the 5579
programs;5580

       (j) Identify and disseminate publications regarding alleged 5581
or adjudicated unruly children and children who are at risk of 5582
being alleged or adjudicated unruly children and regarding 5583
programs serving those types of children;5584

       (k) Maintain an inventory of strategic planning facilitators 5585
for use by government or nonprofit entities that serve alleged or 5586
adjudicated unruly children or children who are at risk of being 5587
alleged or adjudicated unruly children.5588

       (3) The cabinet council shall provide for the following:5589

       (a) Reviews of service and treatment plans for children for 5590
which such reviews are requested;5591

       (b) Assistance as the council determines to be necessary to 5592
meet the needs of children referred by county family and children 5593
first councils;5594

       (c) Monitoring and supervision of a statewide, comprehensive, 5595
coordinated, multi-disciplinary, interagency system for infants 5596
and toddlers with developmental disabilities or delays and their 5597
families, as established pursuant to federal grants received and 5598
administered by the department of health for early intervention 5599
services under the "Individuals with Disabilities Education Act of 5600
2004," 118 Stat. 2744, 20 U.S.C.A. 1400, as amended.5601

       (4) The cabinet council shall develop and implement the 5602
following:5603

       (a) An interagency process to select the indicators that will 5604
be used to measure progress toward increasing child well-being in 5605
the state and to update the indicators on an annual basis. The 5606
indicators shall focus on expectant parents and newborns thriving; 5607
infants and toddlers thriving; children being ready for school; 5608
children and youth succeeding in school; youth choosing healthy 5609
behaviors; and youth successfully transitioning into adulthood.5610

       (b) An interagency system to offer guidance and monitor 5611
progress toward increasing child well-being in the state and in 5612
each county;5613

       (c) An annual plan that identifies state-level agency efforts 5614
taken to ensure progress towards increasing child well-being in 5615
the state.5616

       On an annual basis, the cabinet council shall submit to the 5617
governor and the general assembly a report on the status of 5618
efforts to increase child well-being in the state. This report 5619
shall be made available to any other person on request.5620

       (B)(1) Each board of county commissioners shall establish a 5621
county family and children first council. The board may invite any 5622
local public or private agency or group that funds, advocates, or 5623
provides services to children and families to have a 5624
representative become a permanent or temporary member of its 5625
county council. Each county council must include the following 5626
individuals:5627

       (a) At least three individuals who are not employed by an 5628
agency represented on the council and whose families are or have 5629
received services from an agency represented on the council or 5630
another county's council. Where possible, the number of members 5631
representing families shall be equal to twenty per cent of the 5632
council's membership.5633

       (b) The director of the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 5634
mental health services that serves the county, or, in the case of 5635
a county that has a board of alcohol and drug addiction services 5636
and a community mental health board, the directors of both boards. 5637
If a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 5638
covers more than one county, the director may designate a person 5639
to participate on the county's council.5640

       (c) The health commissioner, or the commissioner's designee, 5641
of the board of health of each city and general health district in 5642
the county. If the county has two or more health districts, the 5643
health commissioner membership may be limited to the commissioners 5644
of the two districts with the largest populations.5645

       (d) The director of the county department of job and family 5646
services;5647

       (e) The executive director of the public children services 5648
agency;5649

       (f) The superintendent of the county board of developmental 5650
disabilities or, if the superintendent serves as superintendent of 5651
more than one county board of developmental disabilities, the 5652
superintendent's designee;5653

       (g) The superintendent of the city, exempted village, or 5654
local school district with the largest number of pupils residing 5655
in the county, as determined by the department of education, which 5656
shall notify each board of county commissioners of its 5657
determination at least biennially;5658

       (h) A school superintendent representing all other school 5659
districts with territory in the county, as designated at a 5660
biennial meeting of the superintendents of those districts;5661

       (i) A representative of the municipal corporation with the 5662
largest population in the county;5663

       (j) The president of the board of county commissioners or an 5664
individual designated by the board;5665

       (k) A representative of the regional office of the department 5666
of youth services;5667

       (l) A representative of the county's head start agencies, as 5668
defined in section 3301.32 of the Revised Code;5669

       (m) A representative of the county's early intervention 5670
collaborative established pursuant to the federal early 5671
intervention program operated under the "Individuals with 5672
Disabilities Education Act of 2004";5673

       (n) A representative of a local nonprofit entity that funds, 5674
advocates, or provides services to children and families.5675

       Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the public 5676
members of a county council are not prohibited from serving on the 5677
council and making decisions regarding the duties of the council, 5678
including those involving the funding of joint projects and those 5679
outlined in the county's service coordination mechanism 5680
implemented pursuant to division (C) of this section.5681

       The cabinet council shall establish a state appeals process 5682
to resolve disputes among the members of a county council 5683
concerning whether reasonable responsibilities as members are 5684
being shared. The appeals process may be accessed only by a 5685
majority vote of the council members who are required to serve on 5686
the council. Upon appeal, the cabinet council may order that state 5687
funds for services to children and families be redirected to a 5688
county's board of county commissioners.5689

       The county's juvenile court judge senior in service or 5690
another judge of the juvenile court designated by the 5691
administrative judge or, where there is no administrative judge, 5692
by the judge senior in service shall serve as the judicial advisor 5693
to the county family and children first council. The judge may 5694
advise the county council on the court's utilization of resources, 5695
services, or programs provided by the entities represented by the 5696
members of the county council and how those resources, services, 5697
or programs assist the court in its administration of justice. 5698
Service of a judge as a judicial advisor pursuant to this section 5699
is a judicial function.5700

       (2) The purpose of the county council is to streamline and 5701
coordinate existing government services for families seeking 5702
services for their children. In seeking to fulfill its purpose, a 5703
county council shall provide for the following:5704

       (a) Referrals to the cabinet council of those children for 5705
whom the county council cannot provide adequate services;5706

       (b) Development and implementation of a process that annually 5707
evaluates and prioritizes services, fills service gaps where 5708
possible, and invents new approaches to achieve better results for 5709
families and children;5710

       (c) Participation in the development of a countywide, 5711
comprehensive, coordinated, multi-disciplinary, interagency system 5712
for infants and toddlers with developmental disabilities or delays 5713
and their families, as established pursuant to federal grants 5714
received and administered by the department of health for early 5715
intervention services under the "Individuals with Disabilities 5716
Education Act of 2004";5717

       (d) Maintenance of an accountability system to monitor the 5718
county council's progress in achieving results for families and 5719
children;5720

       (e) Establishment of a mechanism to ensure ongoing input from 5721
a broad representation of families who are receiving services 5722
within the county system.5723

       (3) A county council shall develop and implement the 5724
following:5725

       (a) An interagency process to establish local indicators and 5726
monitor the county's progress toward increasing child well-being 5727
in the county;5728

       (b) An interagency process to identify local priorities to 5729
increase child well-being. The local priorities shall focus on 5730
expectant parents and newborns thriving; infants and toddlers 5731
thriving; children being ready for school; children and youth 5732
succeeding in school; youth choosing healthy behaviors; and youth 5733
successfully transitioning into adulthood and take into account 5734
the indicators established by the cabinet council under division 5735
(A)(4)(a) of this section.5736

       (c) An annual plan that identifies the county's interagency 5737
efforts to increase child well-being in the county.5738

       On an annual basis, the county council shall submit a report 5739
on the status of efforts by the county to increase child 5740
well-being in the county to the county's board of county 5741
commissioners and the cabinet council. This report shall be made 5742
available to any other person on request.5743

       (4)(a) Except as provided in division (B)(4)(b) of this 5744
section, a county council shall comply with the policies, 5745
procedures, and activities prescribed by the rules or interagency 5746
agreements of a state department participating on the cabinet 5747
council whenever the county council performs a function subject to 5748
those rules or agreements.5749

       (b) On application of a county council, the cabinet council 5750
may grant an exemption from any rules or interagency agreements of 5751
a state department participating on the council if an exemption is 5752
necessary for the council to implement an alternative program or 5753
approach for service delivery to families and children. The 5754
application shall describe the proposed program or approach and 5755
specify the rules or interagency agreements from which an 5756
exemption is necessary. The cabinet council shall approve or 5757
disapprove the application in accordance with standards and 5758
procedures it shall adopt. If an application is approved, the 5759
exemption is effective only while the program or approach is being 5760
implemented, including a reasonable period during which the 5761
program or approach is being evaluated for effectiveness.5762

       (5)(a) Each county council shall designate an administrative 5763
agent for the council from among the following public entities: 5764
the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, 5765
including a board of alcohol and drug addiction or a community 5766
mental health board if the county is served by separate boards; 5767
the board of county commissioners; any board of health of the 5768
county's city and general health districts; the county department 5769
of job and family services; the county agency responsible for the 5770
administration of children services pursuant to section 5153.15 of 5771
the Revised Code; the county board of developmental disabilities; 5772
any of the county's boards of education or governing boards of 5773
educational service centers; or the county's juvenile court. Any 5774
of the foregoing public entities, other than the board of county 5775
commissioners, may decline to serve as the council's 5776
administrative agent.5777

       A county council's administrative agent shall serve as the 5778
council's appointing authority for any employees of the council. 5779
The council shall file an annual budget with its administrative 5780
agent, with copies filed with the county auditor and with the 5781
board of county commissioners, unless the board is serving as the 5782
council's administrative agent. The council's administrative agent 5783
shall ensure that all expenditures are handled in accordance with 5784
policies, procedures, and activities prescribed by state 5785
departments in rules or interagency agreements that are applicable 5786
to the council's functions.5787

       The administrative agent of a county council shall send 5788
notice of a member's absence if a member listed in division (B)(1) 5789
of this section has been absent from either three consecutive 5790
meetings of the county council or a county council subcommittee, 5791
or from one-quarter of such meetings in a calendar year, whichever 5792
is less. The notice shall be sent to the board of county 5793
commissioners that establishes the county council and, for the 5794
members listed in divisions (B)(1)(b), (c), (e), and (l) of this 5795
section, to the governing board overseeing the respective entity; 5796
for the member listed in division (B)(1)(f) of this section, to 5797
the county board of developmental disabilities that employs the 5798
superintendent; for a member listed in division (B)(1)(g) or (h) 5799
of this section, to the school board that employs the 5800
superintendent; for the member listed in division (B)(1)(i) of 5801
this section, to the mayor of the municipal corporation; for the 5802
member listed in division (B)(1)(k) of this section, to the 5803
director of youth services; and for the member listed in division 5804
(B)(1)(n) of this section, to that member's board of trustees.5805

       The administrative agent for a county council may do any of 5806
the following on behalf of the council:5807

       (i) Enter into agreements or administer contracts with public 5808
or private entities to fulfill specific council business. Such 5809
agreements and contracts are exempt from the competitive bidding 5810
requirements of section 307.86 of the Revised Code if they have 5811
been approved by the county council and they are for the purchase 5812
of family and child welfare or child protection services or other 5813
social or job and family services for families and children. The 5814
approval of the county council is not required to exempt 5815
agreements or contracts entered into under section 5139.34, 5816
5139.41, or 5139.43 of the Revised Code from the competitive 5817
bidding requirements of section 307.86 of the Revised Code.5818

       (ii) As determined by the council, provide financial 5819
stipends, reimbursements, or both, to family representatives for 5820
expenses related to council activity;5821

       (iii) Receive by gift, grant, devise, or bequest any moneys, 5822
lands, or other property for the purposes for which the council is 5823
established. The agent shall hold, apply, and dispose of the 5824
moneys, lands, or other property according to the terms of the 5825
gift, grant, devise, or bequest. Any interest or earnings shall be 5826
treated in the same manner and are subject to the same terms as 5827
the gift, grant, devise, or bequest from which it accrues.5828

       (b)(i) If the county council designates the board of county 5829
commissioners as its administrative agent, the board may, by 5830
resolution, delegate any of its powers and duties as 5831
administrative agent to an executive committee the board 5832
establishes from the membership of the county council. The board 5833
shall name to the executive committee at least the individuals 5834
described in divisions (B)(1)(b) to (h) of this section and may 5835
appoint the president of the board or another individual as the 5836
chair of the executive committee. The executive committee must 5837
include at least one family county council representative who does 5838
not have a family member employed by an agency represented on the 5839
council.5840

       (ii) The executive committee may, with the approval of the 5841
board, hire an executive director to assist the county council in 5842
administering its powers and duties. The executive director shall 5843
serve in the unclassified civil service at the pleasure of the 5844
executive committee. The executive director may, with the approval 5845
of the executive committee, hire other employees as necessary to 5846
properly conduct the county council's business.5847

       (iii) The board may require the executive committee to submit 5848
an annual budget to the board for approval and may amend or repeal 5849
the resolution that delegated to the executive committee its 5850
authority as the county council's administrative agent.5851

       (6) Two or more county councils may enter into an agreement 5852
to administer their county councils jointly by creating a regional 5853
family and children first council. A regional council possesses 5854
the same duties and authority possessed by a county council, 5855
except that the duties and authority apply regionally rather than 5856
to individual counties. Prior to entering into an agreement to 5857
create a regional council, the members of each county council to 5858
be part of the regional council shall meet to determine whether 5859
all or part of the members of each county council will serve as 5860
members of the regional council.5861

       (7) A board of county commissioners may approve a resolution 5862
by a majority vote of the board's members that requires the county 5863
council to submit a statement to the board each time the council 5864
proposes to enter into an agreement, adopt a plan, or make a 5865
decision, other than a decision pursuant to section 121.38 of the 5866
Revised Code, that requires the expenditure of funds for two or 5867
more families. The statement shall describe the proposed 5868
agreement, plan, or decision.5869

       Not later than fifteen days after the board receives the 5870
statement, it shall, by resolution approved by a majority of its 5871
members, approve or disapprove the agreement, plan, or decision. 5872
Failure of the board to pass a resolution during that time period 5873
shall be considered approval of the agreement, plan, or decision.5874

       An agreement, plan, or decision for which a statement is 5875
required to be submitted to the board shall be implemented only if 5876
it is approved by the board.5877

       (C) Each county shall develop a county service coordination 5878
mechanism. The county service coordination mechanism shall serve 5879
as the guiding document for coordination of services in the 5880
county. For children who also receive services under the help me 5881
grow program, the service coordination mechanism shall be 5882
consistent with rules adopted by the department of health under 5883
section 3701.61 of the Revised Code. All family service 5884
coordination plans shall be developed in accordance with the 5885
county service coordination mechanism. The mechanism shall be 5886
developed and approved with the participation of the county 5887
entities representing child welfare; mental retardation and 5888
developmental disabilities; alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 5889
health services; health; juvenile judges; education; the county 5890
family and children first council; and the county early 5891
intervention collaborative established pursuant to the federal 5892
early intervention program operated under the "Individuals with 5893
Disabilities Education Act of 2004." The county shall establish an 5894
implementation schedule for the mechanism. The cabinet council may 5895
monitor the implementation and administration of each county's 5896
service coordination mechanism.5897

       Each mechanism shall include all of the following:5898

       (1) A procedure for an agency, including a juvenile court, or 5899
a family voluntarily seeking service coordination, to refer the 5900
child and family to the county council for service coordination in 5901
accordance with the mechanism;5902

       (2) A procedure ensuring that a family and all appropriate 5903
staff from involved agencies, including a representative from the 5904
appropriate school district, are notified of and invited to 5905
participate in all family service coordination plan meetings;5906

        (3) A procedure that permits a family to initiate a meeting 5907
to develop or review the family's service coordination plan and 5908
allows the family to invite a family advocate, mentor, or support 5909
person of the family's choice to participate in any such meeting;5910

        (4) A procedure for ensuring that a family service 5911
coordination plan meeting is conducted for each child who receives 5912
service coordination under the mechanism and for whom an emergency 5913
out-of-home placement has been made or for whom a nonemergency 5914
out-of-home placement is being considered. The meeting shall be 5915
conducted within ten days of an emergency out-of-home placement. 5916
The meeting shall be conducted before a nonemergency out-of-home 5917
placement. The family service coordination plan shall outline how 5918
the county council members will jointly pay for services, where 5919
applicable, and provide services in the least restrictive 5920
environment.5921

        (5) A procedure for monitoring the progress and tracking the 5922
outcomes of each service coordination plan requested in the county 5923
including monitoring and tracking children in out-of-home 5924
placements to assure continued progress, appropriateness of 5925
placement, and continuity of care after discharge from placement 5926
with appropriate arrangements for housing, treatment, and 5927
education.;5928

        (6) A procedure for protecting the confidentiality of all 5929
personal family information disclosed during service coordination 5930
meetings or contained in the comprehensive family service 5931
coordination plan.;5932

        (7) A procedure for assessing the needs and strengths of any 5933
child or family that has been referred to the council for service 5934
coordination, including a child whose parent or custodian is 5935
voluntarily seeking services, and for ensuring that parents and 5936
custodians are afforded the opportunity to participate;5937

       (8) A procedure for development of a family service 5938
coordination plan described in division (D) of this section;5939

       (9) A local dispute resolution process to serve as the 5940
process that must be used first to resolve disputes among the 5941
agencies represented on the county council concerning the 5942
provision of services to children, including children who are 5943
abused, neglected, dependent, unruly, alleged unruly, or 5944
delinquent children and under the jurisdiction of the juvenile 5945
court and children whose parents or custodians are voluntarily 5946
seeking services. The local dispute resolution process shall 5947
comply with sections 121.38, 121.381, and 121.382 of the Revised 5948
Code. The local dispute resolution process shall be used to 5949
resolve disputes between a child's parents or custodians and the 5950
county council regarding service coordination. The county council 5951
shall inform the parents or custodians of their right to use the 5952
dispute resolution process. Parents or custodians shall use 5953
existing local agency grievance procedures to address disputes not 5954
involving service coordination. The dispute resolution process is 5955
in addition to and does not replace other rights or procedures 5956
that parents or custodians may have under other sections of the 5957
Revised Code.5958

       The cabinet council shall adopt rules in accordance with 5959
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing an administrative 5960
review process to address problems that arise concerning the 5961
operation of a local dispute resolution process.5962

        Nothing in division (C)(4) of this section shall be 5963
interpreted as overriding or affecting decisions of a juvenile 5964
court regarding an out-of-home placement, long-term placement, or 5965
emergency out-of-home placement.5966

       (D) Each county shall develop a family service coordination 5967
plan that does all of the following:5968

       (1) Designates service responsibilities among the various 5969
state and local agencies that provide services to children and 5970
their families, including children who are abused, neglected, 5971
dependent, unruly, or delinquent children and under the 5972
jurisdiction of the juvenile court and children whose parents or 5973
custodians are voluntarily seeking services;5974

       (2) Designates an individual, approved by the family, to 5975
track the progress of the family service coordination plan, 5976
schedule reviews as necessary, and facilitate the family service 5977
coordination plan meeting process;5978

        (3) Ensures that assistance and services to be provided are 5979
responsive to the strengths and needs of the family, as well as 5980
the family's culture, race, and ethnic group, by allowing the 5981
family to offer information and suggestions and participate in 5982
decisions. Identified assistance and services shall be provided in 5983
the least restrictive environment possible.5984

        (4) Includes a process for dealing with a child who is 5985
alleged to be an unruly child. The process shall include methods 5986
to divert the child from the juvenile court system;5987

       (5) Includes timelines for completion of goals specified in 5988
the plan with regular reviews scheduled to monitor progress toward 5989
those goals;5990

        (6) Includes a plan for dealing with short-term crisis 5991
situations and safety concerns.5992

       (E)(1) The process provided for under division (D)(4) of this 5993
section may include, but is not limited to, the following:5994

        (a) Designation of the person or agency to conduct the 5995
assessment of the child and the child's family as described in 5996
division (C)(7) of this section and designation of the instrument 5997
or instruments to be used to conduct the assessment;5998

       (b) An emphasis on the personal responsibilities of the child 5999
and the parental responsibilities of the parents, guardian, or 6000
custodian of the child;6001

       (c) Involvement of local law enforcement agencies and 6002
officials.6003

       (2) The method to divert a child from the juvenile court 6004
system that must be included in the service coordination process 6005
may include, but is not limited to, the following:6006

       (a) The preparation of a complaint under section 2151.27 of 6007
the Revised Code alleging that the child is an unruly child and 6008
notifying the child and the parents, guardian, or custodian that 6009
the complaint has been prepared to encourage the child and the 6010
parents, guardian, or custodian to comply with other methods to 6011
divert the child from the juvenile court system;6012

       (b) Conducting a meeting with the child, the parents, 6013
guardian, or custodian, and other interested parties to determine 6014
the appropriate methods to divert the child from the juvenile 6015
court system;6016

        (c) A method to provide to the child and the child's family a 6017
short-term respite from a short-term crisis situation involving a 6018
confrontation between the child and the parents, guardian, or 6019
custodian;6020

       (d) A program to provide a mentor to the child or the 6021
parents, guardian, or custodian;6022

       (e) A program to provide parenting education to the parents, 6023
guardian, or custodian;6024

       (f) An alternative school program for children who are truant 6025
from school, repeatedly disruptive in school, or suspended or 6026
expelled from school;6027

       (g) Other appropriate measures, including, but not limited 6028
to, any alternative methods to divert a child from the juvenile 6029
court system that are identified by the Ohio family and children 6030
first cabinet council.6031

       (F) Each county may review and revise the service 6032
coordination process described in division (D) of this section 6033
based on the availability of funds under Title IV-A of the "Social 6034
Security Act," 110 Stat. 2113 (1996), 42 U.S.C.A. 601, as amended, 6035
or to the extent resources are available from any other federal, 6036
state, or local funds.6037

       Sec. 121.372.  (A) As used in this section, "substitute care 6038
provider" means any of the following:6039

       (1) An alcohol and drugA community addiction program6040
services provider subject to certification under section 3793.066041
5119.36 of the Revised Code;6042

       (2) An institution or association subject to certification 6043
under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code;6044

       (3) A residential facility subject to licensure under section 6045
5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code;6046

       (4) A residential facility subject to licensure under section 6047
5123.19 of the Revised Code.6048

       (B) Not later than ninety days after the effective date of 6049
this sectionMarch 18, 1999, the members of the Ohio family and 6050
children first cabinet council, other than the director of budget 6051
and management, shall enter into an agreement to establish an 6052
office to perform the duties prescribed by division (C) of this 6053
section. The agreement shall specify one of the departments 6054
represented on the council as the department responsible for 6055
housing and supervising the office. The agreement shall include 6056
the recommendation of the council for funding the office.6057

       (C) The office established pursuant to the agreement entered 6058
into under this section shall review rules governing the 6059
certification and licensure of substitute care providers and 6060
determine which of the rules can be made substantively identical 6061
or more similar in order to minimize the number of differing 6062
certification and licensure standards and simplify the 6063
certification or licensure process for substitute care providers 6064
seeking certification or licensure from two or more of the 6065
departments represented on the council. The office shall provide 6066
county family and children first councils, substitute care 6067
providers, and persons interested in substitute care providers the 6068
opportunity to help the office with the review and determination. 6069
The office shall report its findings to the council. Each of the 6070
departments represented on the council that has adopted rules 6071
governing the certification or licensure of substitute care 6072
providers shall review the report and amend the rules as that 6073
department considers appropriate, except that no rule shall be 6074
amended so as to make it inconsistent with substitute care 6075
provider certification or licensure procedures and standards 6076
established by federal or state law. A department shall give 6077
priority to amendments that will not increase the department's 6078
administrative costs. In amending a rule, a department shall 6079
comply with Chapter 119. or section 111.15 of the Revised Code, as 6080
required by the Revised Code section governing the adoption of the 6081
particular rule. 6082

       (D) In accordance with section 124.27 of the Revised Code, 6083
the council shall select a coordinator to oversee the office 6084
established pursuant to the agreement entered into under this 6085
section. The coordinator shall be in the classified service. In 6086
addition to overseeing the office, the coordinator shall perform 6087
any other duties the council assigns to the coordinator. The 6088
duties the council assigns to the coordinator shall be related to 6089
the duties of the office under division (C) of this section.6090

       Sec. 121.483. A deputy inspector general appointed under 6091
section 121.48 of the Revised Code, who has been awarded a 6092
certificate by the executive director of the Ohio peace officer 6093
training commission attesting to the person's satisfactory 6094
completion of an approved state, county, or municipal peace 6095
officer basic training program, shall have the power and authority 6096
of a peace officer under the laws of this state while engaged in 6097
the scope of the deputy inspector general's duties.6098

       Sec. 122.075. (A) As used in this section:6099

       (1) "Alternative fuel" has the same meaning as in section 6100
125.831 of the Revised Code.6101

       (2) "Biodiesel" means a mono-alkyl ester combustible liquid 6102
fuel that is derived from vegetable oils or animal fats, or any 6103
combination of those reagents, and that meets American society for 6104
testing and materials specification D6751-03a for biodiesel fuel 6105
(B100) blend stock distillate fuels.6106

       (3) "Diesel fuel" and "gasoline" have the same meanings as in 6107
section 5735.01 of the Revised Code.6108

       (4) "Ethanol" has the same meaning as in section 5733.46 of 6109
the Revised Code.6110

       (5) "Blended biodiesel" means diesel fuel containing at least 6111
twenty per cent biodiesel by volume.6112

       (6) "Blended gasoline" means gasoline containing at least 6113
eighty-five per cent ethanol by volume.6114

       (7) "Incremental cost" means either of the following:6115

       (a) The difference in cost between blended gasoline and 6116
gasoline containing ten per cent or less ethanol at the time that 6117
the blended gasoline is purchased;6118

       (b) The difference in cost between blended biodiesel and 6119
diesel fuel containing two per cent or less biodiesel at the time 6120
that the blended biodiesel is purchased.6121

       (B) For the purpose of improving the air quality in this 6122
state, the director of development services shall establish an 6123
alternative fuel transportation program under which the director 6124
may make grants and loans to businesses, nonprofit organizations, 6125
public school systems, or local governments for the purchase and 6126
installation of alternative fuel refueling or distribution 6127
facilities and terminals, for the purchase and use of alternative 6128
fuel, to pay the cost of fleet conversion, and to pay the costs of 6129
educational and promotional materials and activities intended for 6130
prospective alternative fuel consumers, fuel marketers, and others 6131
in order to increase the availability and use of alternative fuel.6132

       (C) The director, in consultation with the director of 6133
agriculture, shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of 6134
the Revised Code that are necessary for the administration of the 6135
alternative fuel transportation program. The rules shall establish 6136
at least all of the following:6137

       (1) An application form and procedures governing the 6138
application process for receiving funds under the program;6139

       (2) A procedure for prioritizing the award of grants and 6140
loans under the program. The procedures shall give preference to 6141
all of the following:6142

       (a) Publicly accessible refueling facilities;6143

       (b) Entities applying to the program that have secured 6144
funding from other sources, including, but not limited to, private 6145
or federal incentives;6146

       (c) Entities that have presented compelling evidence of 6147
demand in the market in which the facilities or terminals will be 6148
located;6149

       (d) Entities that have committed to utilizing purchased or 6150
installed facilities or terminals for the greatest number of 6151
years;6152

       (e) Entities that will be purchasing or installing facilities 6153
or terminals for any type of alternative fuel.6154

       (3) A requirement that the maximum incentive for the purchase 6155
and installation of an alternative fuel refueling or distribution 6156
facility or terminal be eighty per cent of the cost of the 6157
facility or terminal, except that at least twenty per cent of the 6158
total net cost of the facility or terminal shall be incurred by 6159
the recipient and not compensated for by any other source;6160

       (4) A requirement that the maximum incentive for the purchase 6161
of alternative fuel be eighty per cent of the cost of the fuel or, 6162
in the case of blended biodiesel or blended gasoline, eighty per 6163
cent of the incremental cost of the blended biodiesel or blended 6164
gasoline;6165

       (5) Any other criteria, procedures, or guidelines that the 6166
director determines are necessary to administer the program, 6167
including fees, charges, interest rates, and payment schedules.6168

       (D) An applicant for a grant or loan under this section that 6169
sells motor vehicle fuel at retail shall agree that if the 6170
applicant receives funding, the applicant will report to the 6171
director the gallon or gallon equivalent amounts of alternative 6172
fuel the applicant sells at retail in this state for a period of 6173
three years after the project is completed.6174

       The director shall enter into a written confidentiality 6175
agreement with the applicant regarding the gallon or gallon 6176
equivalent amounts sold as described in this division, and upon 6177
execution of the agreement this information is not a public 6178
record.6179

       (E) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 6180
alternative fuel transportation fund. The fund shall consist of 6181
money transferred to the fund under division (C)(B) of section 6182
125.836 and under division (B)(2) of section 3706.27 of the 6183
Revised Code, money that is appropriated to it by the general 6184
assembly, and money as may be specified by the general assembly 6185
from the advanced energy fund created by section 4928.61 of the 6186
Revised Code, and all money received from the repayment of loans 6187
made from the fund or in the event of a default on any such loan. 6188
Money in the fund shall be used to make grants and loans under the 6189
alternative fuel transportation program and by the director in the 6190
administration of that program.6191

       Sec. 122.083. (A) The director of development shall 6192
administer a shovel ready sites program to provide grants for 6193
projects to port authorities and development entities approved by 6194
the director. Grants may be used to pay the costs of any or all of 6195
the following:6196

        (1) Acquisition of property, including options;6197

        (2) Preparation of sites, including brownfield clean-up 6198
activities;6199

        (3) Construction of road, water, telecommunication, and 6200
utility infrastructure;6201

        (4) Payment of professional fees the amount of which shall 6202
not exceed twenty per cent of the grant amount for a project.6203

        (B) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 6204
119. of the Revised Code that establish procedures and 6205
requirements necessary for the administration of the program, 6206
including a requirement that a recipient of a grant enter into an 6207
agreement with the director governing the use of the grant.6208

       (C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the shovel 6209
ready sites fund consisting of money appropriated to it. Money in 6210
the fund shall be used solely for the purposes of this section.6211

       Sec. 122.17.  (A) As used in this section:6212

       (1) "Income tax revenue" means the total amount withheld 6213
under section 5747.06 of the Revised Code by the taxpayer during 6214
the taxable year, or during the calendar year that includes the 6215
tax period, from the compensation of each employee or each 6216
home-based employee employed in the project to the extent the 6217
employee's withholdings are not used to determine the credit under 6218
section 122.171 of the Revised Code. "Income tax revenue" excludes 6219
amounts withheld before the day the taxpayer becomes eligible for 6220
the credit.6221

       (2) "Baseline income tax revenue" means income tax revenue 6222
except that the applicable withholding period is the twelve months 6223
immediately preceding the date the tax credit authority approves 6224
the taxpayer's application or the date the tax credit authority 6225
receives the recommendation described in division (C)(2)(a) of 6226
this section, whichever occurs first, multiplied by the sum of one 6227
plus an annual pay increase factor to be determined by the tax 6228
credit authority. If the taxpayer becomes eligible for the credit 6229
after the first day of the taxpayer's taxable year or after the 6230
first day of the calendar year that includes the tax period, the 6231
taxpayer's baseline income tax revenue for the first such taxable 6232
or calendar year of credit eligibility shall be reduced in 6233
proportion to the number of days during the taxable or calendar 6234
year for which the taxpayer was not eligible for the credit. For 6235
subsequent taxable or calendar years, "baseline income tax 6236
revenue" equals the unreduced baseline income tax revenue for the 6237
preceding taxable or calendar year multiplied by the sum of one 6238
plus the pay increase factor.6239

       (3) "Excess income tax revenue" means income tax revenue 6240
minus baseline income tax revenue.6241

       (4) "Home-based employee" means an employee whose services 6242
are performed primarily from the employee's residence in this 6243
state exclusively for the benefit of the project and whose rate of 6244
pay is at least one hundred thirty-one per cent of the federal 6245
minimum wage under 29 U.S.C. 206. 6246

       (B) The tax credit authority may make grants under this 6247
section to foster job creation in this state. Such a grant shall 6248
take the form of a refundable credit allowed against the tax 6249
imposed by section 5725.18, 5726.02, 5729.03, 5733.06, or 5747.02 6250
or levied under Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code. The credit 6251
shall be claimed for the taxable years or tax periods specified in 6252
the taxpayer's agreement with the tax credit authority under 6253
division (D) of this section. With respect to taxes imposed under 6254
section 5726.02, 5733.06, or 5747.02 or Chapter 5751. of the 6255
Revised Code, the credit shall be claimed in the order required 6256
under section 5726.98, 5733.98, 5747.98, or 5751.98 of the Revised 6257
Code. The amount of the credit available for a taxable year or for 6258
a calendar year that includes a tax period equals the excess 6259
income tax revenue for that year multiplied by the percentage 6260
specified in the agreement with the tax credit authority. Any 6261
credit granted under this section against the tax imposed by 6262
section 5733.06 or 5747.02 of the Revised Code, to the extent not 6263
fully utilized against such tax for taxable years ending prior to 6264
2008, shall automatically be converted without any action taken by 6265
the tax credit authority to a credit against the tax levied under 6266
Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code for tax periods beginning on or 6267
after July 1, 2008, provided that the person to whom the credit 6268
was granted is subject to such tax. The converted credit shall 6269
apply to those calendar years in which the remaining taxable years 6270
specified in the agreement end.6271

       (C)(1) A taxpayer or potential taxpayer who proposes a 6272
project to create new jobs in this state may apply to the tax 6273
credit authority to enter into an agreement for a tax credit under 6274
this section. 6275

       An application shall not propose to include both home-based 6276
employees and employees who are not home-based employees in the 6277
computation of income tax revenue for the purposes of the same tax 6278
credit agreement. If a taxpayer or potential taxpayer employs both 6279
home-based employees and employees who are not home-based 6280
employees in a project, the taxpayer shall submit separate 6281
applications for separate tax credit agreements for the project, 6282
one of which shall include home-based employees in the computation 6283
of income tax revenue and one of which shall include all other 6284
employees in the computation of income tax revenue.6285

       The director of development services shall prescribe the form 6286
of the application. After receipt of an application, the authority 6287
may enter into an agreement with the taxpayer for a credit under 6288
this section if it determines all of the following:6289

       (a) The taxpayer's project will increase payroll and income 6290
tax revenue;6291

       (b) The taxpayer's project is economically sound and will 6292
benefit the people of this state by increasing opportunities for 6293
employment and strengthening the economy of this state;6294

       (c) Receiving the tax credit is a major factor in the 6295
taxpayer's decision to go forward with the project.6296

       (2)(a) A taxpayer that chooses to begin the project prior to 6297
receiving the determination of the authority may, upon submitting 6298
the taxpayer's application to the authority, request that the 6299
chief investment officer of the nonprofit corporation formed under 6300
section 187.01 of the Revised Code and the director review the 6301
taxpayer's application and recommend to the authority that the 6302
taxpayer's application be considered. As soon as possible after 6303
receiving such a request, the chief investment officer and the 6304
director shall review the taxpayer's application and, if they 6305
determine that the application warrants consideration by the 6306
authority, make that recommendation to the authority not later 6307
than six months after the application is received by the 6308
authority.6309

       (b) The authority shall consider any taxpayer's application 6310
for which it receives a recommendation under division (C)(2)(a) of 6311
this section. If the authority determines that the taxpayer does 6312
not meet all of the criteria set forth in division (C)(1) of this 6313
section, the authority and the development services agency shall 6314
proceed in accordance with rules adopted by the director pursuant 6315
to division (I) of this section.6316

       (D) An agreement under this section shall include all of the 6317
following:6318

       (1) A detailed description of the project that is the subject 6319
of the agreement;6320

       (2)(a) The term of the tax credit, which, except as provided 6321
in division (D)(2)(b) of this section, shall not exceed fifteen 6322
years, and the first taxable year, or first calendar year that 6323
includes a tax period, for which the credit may be claimed;6324

       (b) If the tax credit is computed on the basis of home-based 6325
employees, the term of the credit shall expire on or before the 6326
last day of the taxable or calendar year ending before the 6327
beginning of the seventh year after September 6, 2012, the 6328
effective date of H.B. 327 of the 129th general assembly;.6329

       (3) A requirement that the taxpayer shall maintain operations 6330
at the project location for at least the greater of seven years or 6331
the term of the credit plus three years;6332

       (4) The percentage, as determined by the tax credit 6333
authority, of excess income tax revenue that will be allowed as 6334
the amount of the credit for each taxable year or for each 6335
calendar year that includes a tax period;6336

       (5) The pay increase factor to be applied to the taxpayer's 6337
baseline income tax revenue;6338

       (6) A requirement that the taxpayer annually shall report to 6339
the director of development services employment, tax withholding, 6340
investment, the provision of health care benefits and tuition 6341
reimbursement if required in the agreement, and other information 6342
the director needs to perform the director's duties under this 6343
section;6344

       (7) A requirement that the director of development services 6345
annually review the information reported under division (D)(6) of 6346
this section and verify compliance with the agreement; if the 6347
taxpayer is in compliance, a requirement that the director issue a 6348
certificate to the taxpayer stating that the information has been 6349
verified and identifying the amount of the credit that may be 6350
claimed for the taxable or calendar year;6351

       (8) A provision providing that the taxpayer may not relocate 6352
a substantial number of employment positions from elsewhere in 6353
this state to the project location unless the director of 6354
development services determines that the legislative authority of 6355
the county, township, or municipal corporation from which the 6356
employment positions would be relocated has been notified by the 6357
taxpayer of the relocation.6358

       For purposes of this section, the movement of an employment 6359
position from one political subdivision to another political 6360
subdivision shall be considered a relocation of an employment 6361
position unless the employment position in the first political 6362
subdivision is replaced.6363

       (9) If the tax credit is computed on the basis of home-based 6364
employees, that the tax credit may not be claimed by the taxpayer 6365
until the taxable year or tax period in which the taxpayer employs 6366
at least two hundred employees more than the number of employees 6367
the taxpayer employed on June 30, 2011.6368

       (E) If a taxpayer fails to meet or comply with any condition 6369
or requirement set forth in a tax credit agreement, the tax credit 6370
authority may amend the agreement to reduce the percentage or term 6371
of the tax credit. The reduction of the percentage or term may 6372
take effect in the current taxable or calendar year.6373

       (F) Projects that consist solely of point-of-final-purchase 6374
retail facilities are not eligible for a tax credit under this 6375
section. If a project consists of both point-of-final-purchase 6376
retail facilities and nonretail facilities, only the portion of 6377
the project consisting of the nonretail facilities is eligible for 6378
a tax credit and only the excess income tax revenue from the 6379
nonretail facilities shall be considered when computing the amount 6380
of the tax credit. If a warehouse facility is part of a 6381
point-of-final-purchase retail facility and supplies only that 6382
facility, the warehouse facility is not eligible for a tax credit. 6383
Catalog distribution centers are not considered 6384
point-of-final-purchase retail facilities for the purposes of this 6385
division, and are eligible for tax credits under this section.6386

       (G) Financial statements and other information submitted to 6387
the development services agency or the tax credit authority by an 6388
applicant or recipient of a tax credit under this section, and any 6389
information taken for any purpose from such statements or 6390
information, are not public records subject to section 149.43 of 6391
the Revised Code. However, the chairperson of the authority may 6392
make use of the statements and other information for purposes of 6393
issuing public reports or in connection with court proceedings 6394
concerning tax credit agreements under this section. Upon the 6395
request of the tax commissioner or, if the applicant or recipient 6396
is an insurance company, upon the request of the superintendent of 6397
insurance, the chairperson of the authority shall provide to the 6398
commissioner or superintendent any statement or information 6399
submitted by an applicant or recipient of a tax credit in 6400
connection with the credit. The commissioner or superintendent 6401
shall preserve the confidentiality of the statement or 6402
information.6403

       (H) A taxpayer claiming a credit under this section shall 6404
submit to the tax commissioner or, if the taxpayer is an insurance 6405
company, to the superintendent of insurance, a copy of the 6406
director of development services' certificate of verification 6407
under division (D)(7) of this section with the taxpayer's tax 6408
report or return for the taxable year or for the calendar year 6409
that includes the tax period. Failure to submit a copy of the 6410
certificate with the report or return does not invalidate a claim 6411
for a credit if the taxpayer submits a copy of the certificate to 6412
the commissioner or superintendent within sixty days after the 6413
commissioner or superintendent requests it.6414

       (I) The director of development services, after consultation 6415
with the tax commissioner and the superintendent of insurance and 6416
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt 6417
rules necessary to implement this section, including rules that 6418
establish a procedure to be followed by the tax credit authority 6419
and the development services agency in the event the authority 6420
considers a taxpayer's application for which it receives a 6421
recommendation under division (C)(2)(a) of this section but does 6422
not approve it. The rules may provide for recipients of tax 6423
credits under this section to be charged fees to cover 6424
administrative costs of the tax credit program. The fees collected 6425
shall be credited to the business assistance fund created in 6426
section 122.174 of the Revised Code. At the time the director 6427
gives public notice under division (A) of section 119.03 of the 6428
Revised Code of the adoption of the rules, the director shall 6429
submit copies of the proposed rules to the chairpersons of the 6430
standing committees on economic development in the senate and the 6431
house of representatives.6432

       (J) For the purposes of this section, a taxpayer may include 6433
a partnership, a corporation that has made an election under 6434
subchapter S of chapter one of subtitle A of the Internal Revenue 6435
Code, or any other business entity through which income flows as a 6436
distributive share to its owners. A partnership, S-corporation, or 6437
other such business entity may elect to pass the credit received 6438
under this section through to the persons to whom the income or 6439
profit of the partnership, S-corporation, or other entity is 6440
distributed. The election shall be made on the annual report 6441
required under division (D)(6) of this section. The election 6442
applies to and is irrevocable for the credit for which the report 6443
is submitted. If the election is made, the credit shall be 6444
apportioned among those persons in the same proportions as those 6445
in which the income or profit is distributed.6446

       (K) If the director of development services determines that a 6447
taxpayer who has received a credit under this section is not 6448
complying with the requirement under division (D)(3) of this 6449
section, the director shall notify the tax credit authority of the 6450
noncompliance. After receiving such a notice, and after giving the 6451
taxpayer an opportunity to explain the noncompliance, the tax 6452
credit authority may require the taxpayer to refund to this state 6453
a portion of the credit in accordance with the following:6454

       (1) If the taxpayer maintained operations at the project 6455
location for a period less than or equal to the term of the 6456
credit, an amount not exceeding one hundred per cent of the sum of 6457
any credits allowed and received under this section;6458

       (2) If the taxpayer maintained operations at the project 6459
location for a period longer than the term of the credit, but less 6460
than the greater of seven years or the term of the credit plus 6461
three years, an amount not exceeding seventy-five per cent of the 6462
sum of any credits allowed and received under this section.6463

       In determining the portion of the tax credit to be refunded 6464
to this state, the tax credit authority shall consider the effect 6465
of market conditions on the taxpayer's project and whether the 6466
taxpayer continues to maintain other operations in this state. 6467
After making the determination, the authority shall certify the 6468
amount to be refunded to the tax commissioner or superintendent of 6469
insurance, as appropriate. If the amount is certified to the 6470
commissioner, the commissioner shall make an assessment for that 6471
amount against the taxpayer under Chapter 5726., 5733., 5747., or 6472
5751. of the Revised Code. If the amount is certified to the 6473
superintendent, the superintendent shall make an assessment for 6474
that amount against the taxpayer under Chapter 5725. or 5729. of 6475
the Revised Code. The time limitations on assessments under those 6476
chapters do not apply to an assessment under this division, but 6477
the commissioner or superintendent, as appropriate, shall make the 6478
assessment within one year after the date the authority certifies 6479
to the commissioner or superintendent the amount to be refunded.6480

       (L) On or before the first day of August each year, the 6481
director of development services shall submit a report to the 6482
governor, the president of the senate, and the speaker of the 6483
house of representatives on the tax credit program under this 6484
section. The report shall include information on the number of 6485
agreements that were entered into under this section during the 6486
preceding calendar year, a description of the project that is the 6487
subject of each such agreement, and an update on the status of 6488
projects under agreements entered into before the preceding 6489
calendar year.6490

       (M) There is hereby created the tax credit authority, which 6491
consists of the director of development services and four other 6492
members appointed as follows: the governor, the president of the 6493
senate, and the speaker of the house of representatives each shall 6494
appoint one member who shall be a specialist in economic 6495
development; the governor also shall appoint a member who is a 6496
specialist in taxation. Of the initial appointees, the members 6497
appointed by the governor shall serve a term of two years; the 6498
members appointed by the president of the senate and the speaker 6499
of the house of representatives shall serve a term of four years. 6500
Thereafter, terms of office shall be for four years. Initial 6501
appointments to the authority shall be made within thirty days 6502
after January 13, 1993. Each member shall serve on the authority 6503
until the end of the term for which the member was appointed. 6504
Vacancies shall be filled in the same manner provided for original 6505
appointments. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring 6506
prior to the expiration of the term for which the member's 6507
predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of 6508
that term. Members may be reappointed to the authority. Members of 6509
the authority shall receive their necessary and actual expenses 6510
while engaged in the business of the authority. The director of 6511
development services shall serve as chairperson of the authority, 6512
and the members annually shall elect a vice-chairperson from among 6513
themselves. Three members of the authority constitute a quorum to 6514
transact and vote on the business of the authority. The majority 6515
vote of the membership of the authority is necessary to approve 6516
any such business, including the election of the vice-chairperson.6517

       The director of development services may appoint a 6518
professional employee of the development services agency to serve 6519
as the director's substitute at a meeting of the authority. The 6520
director shall make the appointment in writing. In the absence of 6521
the director from a meeting of the authority, the appointed 6522
substitute shall serve as chairperson. In the absence of both the 6523
director and the director's substitute from a meeting, the 6524
vice-chairperson shall serve as chairperson.6525

       (N) For purposes of the credits granted by this section 6526
against the taxes imposed under sections 5725.18 and 5729.03 of 6527
the Revised Code, "taxable year" means the period covered by the 6528
taxpayer's annual statement to the superintendent of insurance.6529

       (O) On or before the first day of JanuaryMarch of each of 6530
the sixfive calendar years following the year in which H.B. 327 6531
of the 129th general assembly becomeseffectivebeginning with 6532
2014, each taxpayer subject to an agreement with the tax credit 6533
authority under this section on the basis of home-based employees 6534
shall report the number of home-based employees and other 6535
employees employed by the taxpayer in this state to the department 6536
of development services agency.6537

       (P) On or before the first day of January of the seventh 6538
calendar year following the year in which H.B. 327 of the 129th 6539
general assembly became effective2019, the director of 6540
development services shall submit a report to the governor, the 6541
president of the senate, and the speaker of the house of 6542
representatives on the effect of agreements entered into under 6543
this section in which the taxpayer included home-based employees 6544
in the computation of income tax revenue. The report shall include 6545
information on the number of such agreements that were entered 6546
into in the preceding six years, a description of the projects 6547
that were the subjects of such agreements, and an analysis of 6548
nationwide home-based employment trends, including the number of 6549
home-based jobs created from July 1, 2011, through June 30, 2017, 6550
and a description of any home-based employment tax incentives 6551
provided by other states during that time.6552

       (Q) The director of development services may require any 6553
agreement entered into under this section for a tax credit 6554
computed on the basis of home-based employees to contain a 6555
provision that the taxpayer makes available health care benefits 6556
and tuition reimbursement to all employees.6557

       Sec. 122.171. (A) As used in this section:6558

       (1) "Capital investment project" means a plan of investment 6559
at a project site for the acquisition, construction, renovation, 6560
or repair of buildings, machinery, or equipment, or for 6561
capitalized costs of basic research and new product development 6562
determined in accordance with generally accepted accounting 6563
principles, but does not include any of the following:6564

       (a) Payments made for the acquisition of personal property 6565
through operating leases;6566

       (b) Project costs paid before January 1, 2002;6567

       (c) Payments made to a related member as defined in section 6568
5733.042 of the Revised Code or to a consolidated elected taxpayer 6569
or a combined taxpayer as defined in section 5751.01 of the 6570
Revised Code.6571

       (2) "Eligible business" means a taxpayer and its related 6572
members with Ohio operations satisfying all of the following:6573

       (a) The taxpayer employs at least five hundred full-time 6574
equivalent employees or has an annual payroll of at least 6575
thirty-five million dollars at the time the tax credit authority 6576
grants the tax credit under this section;6577

       (b) The taxpayer makes or causes to be made payments for the 6578
capital investment project of one of the following:6579

       (i) If the taxpayer is engaged at the project site primarily 6580
as a manufacturer, at least fifty million dollars in the aggregate 6581
at the project site during a period of three consecutive calendar 6582
years, including the calendar year that includes a day of the 6583
taxpayer's taxable year or tax period with respect to which the 6584
credit is granted;6585

       (ii) If the taxpayer is engaged at the project site primarily 6586
in significant corporate administrative functions, as defined by 6587
the director of development services by rule, at least twenty 6588
million dollars in the aggregate at the project site during a 6589
period of three consecutive calendar years including the calendar 6590
year that includes a day of the taxpayer's taxable year or tax 6591
period with respect to which the credit is granted;6592

       (iii) If the taxpayer is applying to enter into an agreement 6593
for a tax credit authorized under division (B)(3) of this section, 6594
at least five million dollars in the aggregate at the project site 6595
during a period of three consecutive calendar years, including the 6596
calendar year that includes a day of the taxpayer's taxable year 6597
or tax period with respect to which the credit is granted.6598

       (c) The taxpayer had a capital investment project reviewed 6599
and approved by the tax credit authority as provided in divisions 6600
(C), (D), and (E) of this section.6601

       (3) "Full-time equivalent employees" means the quotient 6602
obtained by dividing the total number of hours for which employees 6603
were compensated for employment in the project by two thousand 6604
eighty. "Full-time equivalent employees" shall exclude hours that 6605
are counted for a credit under section 122.17 of the Revised Code.6606

       (4) "Income tax revenue" means the total amount withheld 6607
under section 5747.06 of the Revised Code by the taxpayer during 6608
the taxable year, or during the calendar year that includes the 6609
tax period, from the compensation of all employees employed in the 6610
project whose hours of compensation are included in calculating 6611
the number of full-time equivalent employees.6612

       (5) "Manufacturer" has the same meaning as in section 6613
5739.011 of the Revised Code.6614

       (6) "Project site" means an integrated complex of facilities 6615
in this state, as specified by the tax credit authority under this 6616
section, within a fifteen-mile radius where a taxpayer is 6617
primarily operating as an eligible business.6618

       (7) "Related member" has the same meaning as in section 6619
5733.042 of the Revised Code as that section existed on the 6620
effective date of its amendment by Am. Sub. H.B. 215 of the 122nd 6621
general assembly, September 29, 1997.6622

       (8) "Taxable year" includes, in the case of a domestic or 6623
foreign insurance company, the calendar year ending on the 6624
thirty-first day of December preceding the day the superintendent 6625
of insurance is required to certify to the treasurer of state 6626
under section 5725.20 or 5729.05 of the Revised Code the amount of 6627
taxes due from insurance companies.6628

       (B) The tax credit authority created under section 122.17 of 6629
the Revised Code may grant tax credits under this section for the 6630
purpose of fostering job retention in this state. Upon application 6631
by an eligible business and upon consideration of the 6632
recommendation of the director of budget and management, tax 6633
commissioner, the superintendent of insurance in the case of an 6634
insurance company, and director of development services under 6635
division (C) of this section, the tax credit authority may grant 6636
the following credits against the tax imposed by section 5725.18, 6637
5726.02, 5729.03, 5733.06, 5747.02, or 5751.02 of the Revised 6638
Code:6639

       (1) A nonrefundable credit to an eligible business;6640

       (2) A refundable credit to an eligible business meeting the 6641
following conditions, provided that the director of budget and 6642
management, tax commissioner, superintendent of insurance in the 6643
case of an insurance company, and director of development services 6644
have recommended the granting of the credit to the tax credit 6645
authority before July 1, 2011:6646

       (a) The business retains at least one thousand full-time 6647
equivalent employees at the project site.6648

       (b) The business makes or causes to be made payments for a 6649
capital investment project of at least twenty-five million dollars 6650
in the aggregate at the project site during a period of three 6651
consecutive calendar years, including the calendar year that 6652
includes a day of the business' taxable year or tax period with 6653
respect to which the credit is granted.6654

       (c) In 2010, the business received a written offer of 6655
financial incentives from another state of the United States that 6656
the director determines to be sufficient inducement for the 6657
business to relocate the business' operations from this state to 6658
that state.6659

       (3) A refundable credit to an eligible business with a total 6660
annual payroll of at least twenty million dollars, provided that 6661
the tax credit authority grants the tax credit on or after July 1, 6662
2011, and before January 1, 2014.6663

       The credits authorized in divisions (B)(1), (2), and (3) of 6664
this section may be granted for a period up to fifteen taxable 6665
years or, in the case of the tax levied by section 5751.02 of the 6666
Revised Code, for a period of up to fifteen calendar years. The 6667
credit amount for a taxable year or a calendar year that includes 6668
the tax period for which a credit may be claimed equals the income 6669
tax revenue for that year multiplied by the percentage specified 6670
in the agreement with the tax credit authority. The percentage may 6671
not exceed seventy-five per cent. The credit shall be claimed in 6672
the order required under section 5725.98, 5726.98, 5729.98, 6673
5733.98, 5747.98, or 5751.98 of the Revised Code. In determining 6674
the percentage and term of the credit, the tax credit authority 6675
shall consider both the number of full-time equivalent employees 6676
and the value of the capital investment project. The credit amount 6677
may not be based on the income tax revenue for a calendar year 6678
before the calendar year in which the tax credit authority 6679
specifies the tax credit is to begin, and the credit shall be 6680
claimed only for the taxable years or tax periods specified in the 6681
eligible business' agreement with the tax credit authority. In no 6682
event shall the credit be claimed for a taxable year or tax period 6683
terminating before the date specified in the agreement. Any credit 6684
granted under this section against the tax imposed by section 6685
5733.06 or 5747.02 of the Revised Code, to the extent not fully 6686
utilized against such tax for taxable years ending prior to 2008, 6687
shall automatically be converted without any action taken by the 6688
tax credit authority to a credit against the tax levied under 6689
Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code for tax periods beginning on or 6690
after July 1, 2008, provided that the person to whom the credit 6691
was granted is subject to such tax. The converted credit shall 6692
apply to those calendar years in which the remaining taxable years 6693
specified in the agreement end.6694

        If a nonrefundable credit allowed under division (B)(1) of 6695
this section for a taxable year or tax period exceeds the 6696
taxpayer's tax liability for that year or period, the excess may 6697
be carried forward for the three succeeding taxable or calendar 6698
years, but the amount of any excess credit allowed in any taxable 6699
year or tax period shall be deducted from the balance carried 6700
forward to the succeeding year or period. 6701

       (C) A taxpayer that proposes a capital investment project to 6702
retain jobs in this state may apply to the tax credit authority to 6703
enter into an agreement for a tax credit under this section. The 6704
director of development services shall prescribe the form of the 6705
application. After receipt of an application, the authority shall 6706
forward copies of the application to the director of budget and 6707
management, the tax commissioner, the superintendent of insurance 6708
in the case of an insurance company, and the director of 6709
development services, each of whom shall review the application to 6710
determine the economic impact the proposed project would have on 6711
the state and the affected political subdivisions and shall submit 6712
a summary of their determinations and recommendations to the 6713
authority. 6714

       (D) Upon review and consideration of the determinations and 6715
recommendations described in division (C) of this section, the tax 6716
credit authority may enter into an agreement with the taxpayer for 6717
a credit under this section if the authority determines all of the 6718
following:6719

       (1) The taxpayer's capital investment project will result in 6720
the retention of employment in this state.6721

       (2) The taxpayer is economically sound and has the ability to 6722
complete the proposed capital investment project.6723

       (3) The taxpayer intends to and has the ability to maintain 6724
operations at the project site for at least the greater of (a) the 6725
term of the credit plus three years, or (b) seven years.6726

       (4) Receiving the credit is a major factor in the taxpayer's 6727
decision to begin, continue with, or complete the project.6728

       (5) If the taxpayer is applying to enter into an agreement 6729
for a tax credit authorized under division (B)(3) of this section, 6730
the taxpayer's capital investment project will be located in the 6731
political subdivision in which the taxpayer maintains its 6732
principal place of business or maintains a unit or division with 6733
at least four thousand two hundred employees at the project site.6734

       (E) An agreement under this section shall include all of the 6735
following:6736

       (1) A detailed description of the project that is the subject 6737
of the agreement, including the amount of the investment, the 6738
period over which the investment has been or is being made, the 6739
number of full-time equivalent employees at the project site, and 6740
the anticipated income tax revenue to be generated.6741

       (2) The term of the credit, the percentage of the tax credit, 6742
the maximum annual value of tax credits that may be allowed each 6743
year, and the first year for which the credit may be claimed.6744

        (3) A requirement that the taxpayer maintain operations at 6745
the project site for at least the greater of (a) the term of the 6746
credit plus three years, or (b) seven years.6747

       (4)(a) In the case of a credit granted under division (B)(1) 6748
of this section, a requirement that the taxpayer retain at least 6749
five hundred full-time equivalent employees at the project site 6750
and within this state for the entire term of the credit, or a 6751
requirement that the taxpayer maintain an annual payroll of at 6752
least thirty-five million dollars for the entire term of the 6753
credit;6754

        (b) In the case of a credit granted under division (B)(2) of 6755
this section, a requirement that the taxpayer retain at least one 6756
thousand full-time equivalent employees at the project site and 6757
within this state for the entire term of the credit;6758

        (c) In the case of a credit granted under division (B)(3) of 6759
this section, either of the following:6760

        (i) A requirement that the taxpayer retain at least five 6761
hundred full-time equivalent employees at the project site and 6762
within this state for the entire term of the credit and a 6763
requirement that the taxpayer maintain an annual payroll of at 6764
least twenty million dollars for the entire term of the credit;6765

        (ii) A requirement that the taxpayer maintain an annual 6766
payroll of at least thirty-five million dollars for the entire 6767
term of the credit.6768

       (5) A requirement that the taxpayer annually report to the 6769
director of development services employment, tax withholding, 6770
capital investment, and other information the director needs to 6771
perform the director's duties under this section.6772

       (6) A requirement that the director of development services 6773
annually review the annual reports of the taxpayer to verify the 6774
information reported under division (E)(5) of this section and 6775
compliance with the agreement. Upon verification, the director 6776
shall issue a certificate to the taxpayer stating that the 6777
information has been verified and identifying the amount of the 6778
credit for the taxable year or calendar year that includes the tax 6779
period. In determining the number of full-time equivalent 6780
employees, no position shall be counted that is filled by an 6781
employee who is included in the calculation of a tax credit under 6782
section 122.17 of the Revised Code.6783

        (7) A provision providing that the taxpayer may not relocate 6784
a substantial number of employment positions from elsewhere in 6785
this state to the project site unless the director of development 6786
services determines that the taxpayer notified the legislative 6787
authority of the county, township, or municipal corporation from 6788
which the employment positions would be relocated.6789

       For purposes of this section, the movement of an employment 6790
position from one political subdivision to another political 6791
subdivision shall be considered a relocation of an employment 6792
position unless the movement is confined to the project site. The 6793
transfer of an employment position from one political subdivision 6794
to another political subdivision shall not be considered a 6795
relocation of an employment position if the employment position in 6796
the first political subdivision is replaced by another employment 6797
position.6798

       (8) A waiver by the taxpayer of any limitations periods 6799
relating to assessments or adjustments resulting from the 6800
taxpayer's failure to comply with the agreement.6801

       (F) If a taxpayer fails to meet or comply with any condition 6802
or requirement set forth in a tax credit agreement, the tax credit 6803
authority may amend the agreement to reduce the percentage or term 6804
of the credit. The reduction of the percentage or term may take 6805
effect in the current taxable or calendar year.6806

       (G) Financial statements and other information submitted to 6807
the department of development services or the tax credit authority 6808
by an applicant for or recipient of a tax credit under this 6809
section, and any information taken for any purpose from such 6810
statements or information, are not public records subject to 6811
section 149.43 of the Revised Code. However, the chairperson of 6812
the authority may make use of the statements and other information 6813
for purposes of issuing public reports or in connection with court 6814
proceedings concerning tax credit agreements under this section. 6815
Upon the request of the tax commissioner, or the superintendent of 6816
insurance in the case of an insurance company, the chairperson of 6817
the authority shall provide to the commissioner or superintendent 6818
any statement or other information submitted by an applicant for 6819
or recipient of a tax credit in connection with the credit. The 6820
commissioner or superintendent shall preserve the confidentiality 6821
of the statement or other information.6822

       (H) A taxpayer claiming a tax credit under this section shall 6823
submit to the tax commissioner or, in the case of an insurance 6824
company, to the superintendent of insurance, a copy of the 6825
director of development services' certificate of verification 6826
under division (E)(6) of this section with the taxpayer's tax 6827
report or return for the taxable year or for the calendar year 6828
that includes the tax period. Failure to submit a copy of the 6829
certificate with the report or return does not invalidate a claim 6830
for a credit if the taxpayer submits a copy of the certificate to 6831
the commissioner or superintendent within sixty days after the 6832
commissioner or superintendent requests it.6833

       (I) For the purposes of this section, a taxpayer may include 6834
a partnership, a corporation that has made an election under 6835
subchapter S of chapter one of subtitle A of the Internal Revenue 6836
Code, or any other business entity through which income flows as a 6837
distributive share to its owners. A partnership, S-corporation, or 6838
other such business entity may elect to pass the credit received 6839
under this section through to the persons to whom the income or 6840
profit of the partnership, S-corporation, or other entity is 6841
distributed. The election shall be made on the annual report 6842
required under division (E)(5) of this section. The election 6843
applies to and is irrevocable for the credit for which the report 6844
is submitted. If the election is made, the credit shall be 6845
apportioned among those persons in the same proportions as those 6846
in which the income or profit is distributed.6847

       (J) If the director of development services determines that a 6848
taxpayer that received a certificate under division (E)(6) of this 6849
section is not complying with the requirement under division 6850
(E)(3) of this section, the director shall notify the tax credit 6851
authority of the noncompliance. After receiving such a notice, and 6852
after giving the taxpayer an opportunity to explain the 6853
noncompliance, the authority may terminate the agreement and 6854
require the taxpayer, or any related member or members that 6855
claimed the tax credit under division (N) of this section, to 6856
refund to the state all or a portion of the credit claimed in 6857
previous years, as follows:6858

        (1) If the taxpayer maintained operations at the project site 6859
for less than or equal to the term of the credit, an amount not to 6860
exceed one hundred per cent of the sum of any tax credits allowed 6861
and received under this section.6862

        (2) If the taxpayer maintained operations at the project site 6863
longer than the term of the credit, but less than the greater of 6864
(a) the term of the credit plus three years, or (b) seven years, 6865
the amount required to be refunded shall not exceed seventy-five 6866
per cent of the sum of any tax credits allowed and received under 6867
this section.6868

       In determining the portion of the credit to be refunded to 6869
this state, the authority shall consider the effect of market 6870
conditions on the taxpayer's project and whether the taxpayer 6871
continues to maintain other operations in this state. After making 6872
the determination, the authority shall certify the amount to be 6873
refunded to the tax commissioner or the superintendent of 6874
insurance. If the taxpayer, or any related member or members who 6875
claimed the tax credit under division (N) of this section, is not 6876
an insurance company, the commissioner shall make an assessment 6877
for that amount against the taxpayer under Chapter 5726., 5733., 6878
5747., or 5751. of the Revised Code. If the taxpayer, or any 6879
related member or members that claimed the tax credit under 6880
division (N) of this section, is an insurance company, the 6881
superintendent of insurance shall make an assessment under section 6882
5725.222 or 5729.102 of the Revised Code. The time limitations on 6883
assessments under those chapters and sections do not apply to an 6884
assessment under this division, but the commissioner or 6885
superintendent shall make the assessment within one year after the 6886
date the authority certifies to the commissioner or superintendent 6887
the amount to be refunded.6888

       (K) The director of development services, after consultation 6889
with the tax commissioner and the superintendent of insurance and 6890
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt 6891
rules necessary to implement this section. The rules may provide 6892
for recipients of tax credits under this section to be charged 6893
fees to cover administrative costs of the tax credit program. The 6894
fees collected shall be credited to the business assistance fund 6895
created in section 122.174 of the Revised Code. At the time the 6896
director gives public notice under division (A) of section 119.03 6897
of the Revised Code of the adoption of the rules, the director 6898
shall submit copies of the proposed rules to the chairpersons of 6899
the standing committees on economic development in the senate and 6900
the house of representatives.6901

       (L) On or before the first day of August of each year, the 6902
director of development services shall submit a report to the 6903
governor, the president of the senate, and the speaker of the 6904
house of representatives on the tax credit program under this 6905
section. The report shall include information on the number of 6906
agreements that were entered into under this section during the 6907
preceding calendar year, a description of the project that is the 6908
subject of each such agreement, and an update on the status of 6909
projects under agreements entered into before the preceding 6910
calendar year.6911

       (M)(1) The aggregate amount of tax credits issued under 6912
division (B)(1) of this section during any calendar year for 6913
capital investment projects reviewed and approved by the tax 6914
credit authority may not exceed the following amounts:6915

       (a) For 2010, thirteen million dollars;6916

       (b) For 2011 through 2023, the amount of the limit for the 6917
preceding calendar year plus thirteen million dollars;6918

       (c) For 2024 and each year thereafter, one hundred 6919
ninety-five million dollars.6920

       (2) The aggregate amount of tax credits authorized under 6921
divisions (B)(2) and (3) of this section and allowed to be claimed 6922
by taxpayers in any calendar year for capital improvement projects 6923
reviewed and approved by the tax credit authority in 2011, 2012, 6924
and 2013 combined shall not exceed twenty-five million dollars. An 6925
amount equal to the aggregate amount of credits first authorized 6926
in calendar year 2011, 2012, and 2013 may be claimed over the 6927
ensuing period up to fifteen years, subject to the terms of 6928
individual tax credit agreements.6929

       The limitations in division (M) of this section do not apply 6930
to credits for capital investment projects approved by the tax 6931
credit authority before July 1, 2009.6932

       (N) This division applies only to an eligible business that 6933
is part of an affiliated group that includes a diversified savings 6934
and loan holding company or a grandfathered unitary savings and 6935
loan holding company, as those terms are defined in section 6936
5726.01 of the Revised Code. Notwithstanding any contrary 6937
provision of the agreement between such an eligible business and 6938
the tax credit authority, any credit granted under this section 6939
against the tax imposed by section 5725.18, 5729.03, 5733.06, 6940
5747.02, or 5751.02 of the Revised Code to the eligible business, 6941
at the election of the eligible business and without any action by 6942
the tax credit authority, may be shared with any member or members 6943
of the affiliated group that includes the eligible business, which 6944
member or members may claim the credit against the taxes imposed 6945
by section 5725.18, 5726.02, 5729.03, 5733.06, 5747.02, or 5751.02 6946
of the Revised Code. Credits shall be claimed by the eligible 6947
business in sequential order, as applicable, first claiming the 6948
credits to the fullest extent possible against the tax that the 6949
certificate holder is subject to, then against the tax imposed by, 6950
sequentially, section 5729.03, 5725.18, 5747.02, 5751.02, and 6951
lastly 5726.02 of the Revised Code. The credits may be allocated 6952
among the members of the affiliated group in such manner as the 6953
eligible business elects, but subject to the sequential order 6954
required under this division. This division applies to credits 6955
granted before, on, or after March 27, 2013, the effective date of 6956
H.B. 510 of the 129th general assembly. Credits granted before 6957
that effective date that are shared and allocated under this 6958
division may be claimed in those calendar years in which the 6959
remaining taxable years specified in the agreement end.6960

       As used in this division, "affiliated group" means a group of 6961
two or more persons with fifty per cent or greater of the value of 6962
each person's ownership interests owned or controlled directly, 6963
indirectly, or constructively through related interests by common 6964
owners during all or any portion of the taxable year, and the 6965
common owners. "Affiliated group" includes, but is not limited to, 6966
any person eligible to be included in a consolidated elected 6967
taxpayer group under section 5751.011 of the Revised Code or a 6968
combined taxpayer group under section 5751.012 of the Revised 6969
Code.6970

       Sec. 122.175.  (A) As used in this section:6971

       (1) "Capital investment project" means a plan of investment 6972
at a project site for the acquisition, construction, renovation, 6973
expansion, replacement, or repair of a computer data center or of 6974
computer data center equipment, but does not include any of the 6975
following:6976

       (a) Project costs paid before a date determined by the tax 6977
credit authority for each capital investment project;6978

       (b) Payments made to a related member as defined in section 6979
5733.042 of the Revised Code or to a consolidated elected taxpayer 6980
or a combined taxpayer as defined in section 5751.01 of the 6981
Revised Code.6982

       (2) "Computer data center" means a facility used or to be 6983
used primarily to house computer data center equipment used or to 6984
be used in conducting aone or more computer data center business6985
businesses, as determined by the tax credit authority. 6986

       (3) "Computer data center business" means, as may be further 6987
determined by the tax credit authority, a business that provides 6988
electronic information services as defined in division (Y)(1)(c) 6989
of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, or that leases a facility 6990
to one or more such businesses. "Computer data center business" 6991
does not include providing electronic publishing as defined in 6992
division (LLL) of that section.6993

       (4) "Computer data center equipment" means tangible personal 6994
property used or to be used for any of the following:6995

       (a) To conduct a computer data center business, including 6996
equipment cooling systems to manage the performance of computer 6997
data center equipment;6998

       (b) To generate, transform, transmit, distribute, or manage 6999
electricity necessary to operate the tangible personal property 7000
used or to be used in conducting a computer data center business;7001

       (c) As building and construction materials sold to 7002
construction contractors for incorporation into a computer data 7003
center.7004

       (5) "Eligible computer data center" means a computer data 7005
center that satisfies all of the following requirements:7006

       (a) The taxpayerOne or more taxpayers operating a computer 7007
data center business at the project site will, in the aggregate,7008
make payments for a capital investment project of at least one 7009
hundred million dollars in the aggregate at the project site 7010
during a period of three consecutive calendar years;7011

       (b) The taxpayerOne or more taxpayers operating a computer 7012
data center business at the project site will, in the aggregate,7013
pay annual compensation that is subject to the withholding 7014
obligation imposed under section 5747.06 of the Revised Code of at 7015
least fiveone million five hundred thousand dollars to employees 7016
employed at the project site for the term of the agreementeach 7017
year of the agreement beginning on or after the first day of the 7018
twenty-fifth month after the agreement was entered into under this 7019
section.7020

       (6) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 5701.01 of 7021
the Revised Code.7022

       (7) "Project site," "related member," and "tax credit 7023
authority" have the same meanings as in sections 122.17 and 7024
122.171 of the Revised Code.7025

       (8) "Taxpayer" means any person subject to the taxes imposed 7026
under Chapters 5739. and 5741. of the Revised Code.7027

       (B) The tax credit authority may completely or partially 7028
exempt from the taxes levied under Chapters 5739. and 5741. of the 7029
Revised Code the sale, storage, use, or other consumption of 7030
computer data center equipment used or to be used at an eligible 7031
computer data center. Any such exemption shall extend to charges 7032
for the delivery, installation, or repair of the computer data 7033
center equipment subject to the exemption under this section.7034

       (C) A taxpayer that proposes a capital improvement project 7035
for an eligible computer data center in this state may apply to 7036
the tax credit authority to enter into an agreement under this 7037
section forauthorizing a complete or partial exemption from the 7038
taxes imposed under Chapters 5739. and 5741. of the Revised Code 7039
on computer data center equipment purchased by the applicant or 7040
any other taxpayer that operates a computer data center business 7041
at the project site and used or to be used at the eligible 7042
computer data center. The director of development services shall 7043
prescribe the form of the application. After receipt of an 7044
application, the authority shall forward copies of the application 7045
to the director of budget and management, the tax commissioner, 7046
and the director of development services, each of whom shall 7047
review the application to determine the economic impact that the 7048
proposed eligible computer data center would have on the state and 7049
any affected political subdivisions and submit to the authority a 7050
summary of their determinations and recommendations.7051

       (D) Upon review and consideration of such determinations and 7052
recommendations, the tax credit authority may enter into an 7053
agreement with the applicant and any other taxpayer that operates 7054
a computer data center business at the project site for a complete 7055
or partial exemption from the taxes imposed under Chapters 5739. 7056
and 5741. of the Revised Code on computer data center equipment 7057
used or to be used at an eligible computer data center if the 7058
authority determines all of the following:7059

       (1) The taxpayer's capital investment project for the 7060
eligible computer data center will increase payroll and the amount 7061
of income taxes to be withheld from employee compensation pursuant 7062
to section 5747.06 of the Revised Code.7063

       (2) The taxpayerapplicant is economically sound and has the 7064
ability to complete or effect the completion of the proposed 7065
capital investment project.7066

       (3) The taxpayerapplicant intends to and has the ability to 7067
maintain operations at the project site for the term of the 7068
agreement.7069

       (4) Receiving the exemption is a major factor in the 7070
taxpayer'sapplicant's decision to begin, continue with, or 7071
complete the capital investment project.7072

       (E) An agreement entered into under this section shall 7073
include all of the following:7074

       (1) A detailed description of the capital investment project 7075
that is the subject of the agreement, including the amount of the 7076
investment, the period over which the investment has been or is 7077
being made, the annual compensation to be paid by theeach7078
taxpayer subject to the agreement to its employees at the project 7079
site, and the anticipated amount of income taxes to be withheld 7080
from employee compensation pursuant to section 5747.06 of the 7081
Revised Code.7082

       (2) The percentage of the exemption from the taxes imposed 7083
under Chapters 5739. and 5741. of the Revised Code for the 7084
computer data center equipment used or to be used at the eligible 7085
computer data center, the length of time the computer data center 7086
equipment will be exempted, and the first date on which the 7087
exemption applies.7088

       (3) A requirement that the taxpayer maintain the computer 7089
data center asremain an eligible computer data center during the 7090
term of the agreement and that the taxpayerapplicant maintain 7091
operations at the eligible computer data center during that term. 7092
An applicant does not violate the requirement described in 7093
division (E)(3) of this section if the applicant ceases operations 7094
at the eligible computer data center during the term of the 7095
agreement but resumes those operations within eighteen months 7096
after the date of cessation. The agreement shall provide that, in 7097
such a case, the applicant and any other taxpayer that operates a 7098
computer data center business at the project site shall not claim 7099
the tax exemption authorized in the agreement for any purchase of 7100
computer data center equipment made during the period in which the 7101
applicant did not maintain operations at the eligible computer 7102
data center.7103

       (4) A requirement that during, for each year of the term of 7104
the agreement the taxpayerbeginning on or after the first day of 7105
the twenty-fifth month after the date the agreement was entered 7106
into, one or more taxpayers operating a computer data center 7107
business at the project site will, in the aggregate, pay annual 7108
compensation that is subject to the withholding obligation imposed 7109
under section 5747.06 of the Revised Code of at least fiveone7110
million five hundred thousand dollars to its employees at the 7111
eligible computer data center.7112

       (5) A requirement that theeach taxpayer subject to the 7113
agreement annually report to the director of development services 7114
employment, tax withholding, capital investment, and other 7115
information required by the director to perform the director's 7116
duties under this section.7117

       (6) A requirement that the director of development services 7118
annually review the annual reports of theeach taxpayer subject to 7119
the agreement to verify the information reported under division 7120
(E)(5) of this section and compliance with the agreement. Upon 7121
verification, the director shall issue a certificate to theeach 7122
such taxpayer stating that the information has been verified and 7123
that the taxpayer remains eligible for the exemption specified in 7124
the agreement.7125

       (7) A provision providing that the taxpayertaxpayers subject 7126
to the agreement may not relocate a substantial number of 7127
employment positions from elsewhere in this state to the project 7128
site unless the director of development services determines that 7129
the appropriate taxpayer notified the legislative authority of the 7130
county, township, or municipal corporation from which the 7131
employment positions would be relocated. For purposes of this 7132
paragraph, the movement of an employment position from one 7133
political subdivision to another political subdivision shall be 7134
considered a relocation of an employment position unless the 7135
movement is confined to the project site. The transfer of an 7136
employment position from one political subdivision to another 7137
political subdivision shall not be considered a relocation of an 7138
employment position if the employment position in the first 7139
political subdivision is replaced by another employment position.7140

       (8) A waiver by theeach taxpayer subject to the agreement of 7141
any limitations periods relating to assessments or adjustments 7142
resulting from the taxpayer's failure to comply with the 7143
agreement.7144

       (F) The term of an agreement under this section shall be 7145
determined by the tax credit authority, and the amount of the 7146
exemption shall not exceed one hundred per cent of such taxes that 7147
would otherwise be owed in respect to the exempted computer data 7148
center equipment.7149

       (G) If aany taxpayer subject to an agreement under this 7150
section fails to meet or comply with any condition or requirement 7151
set forth in anthe agreement under this section, the tax credit 7152
authority may amend the agreement to reduce the percentage of the 7153
exemption or term during which the exemption applies to the 7154
computer data center equipment used or to be used by the 7155
noncompliant taxpayer at an eligible computer data center. The 7156
reduction of the percentage or term may take effect in the current 7157
calendar year.7158

       (H) Financial statements and other information submitted to 7159
the department of development services or the tax credit authority 7160
by an applicant for or recipient of an exemption under this 7161
section, and any information taken for any purpose from such 7162
statements or information, are not public records subject to 7163
section 149.43 of the Revised Code. However, the chairperson of 7164
the authority may make use of the statements and other information 7165
for purposes of issuing public reports or in connection with court 7166
proceedings concerning tax exemption agreements under this 7167
section. Upon the request of the tax commissioner, the chairperson 7168
of the authority shall provide to the tax commissioner any 7169
statement or other information submitted by an applicant for or 7170
recipient of an exemption under this section. The tax commissioner 7171
shall preserve the confidentiality of the statement or other 7172
information.7173

       (I) The tax commissioner shall issue a direct payment permit 7174
under section 5739.031 of the Revised Code to aeach taxpayer that 7175
enters intosubject to an agreement under this section. Such 7176
direct payment permit shall authorize the taxpayer to pay any 7177
sales and use taxes due on purchases of computer data center 7178
equipment used or to be used in an eligible computer data center 7179
and to pay any sales and use taxes due on purchases of tangible 7180
personal property or taxable services other than computer data 7181
center equipment used or to be used in an eligible computer data 7182
center directly to the tax commissioner. Each such taxpayer shall 7183
pay pursuant to such direct payment permit all sales tax levied on 7184
such purchases under sections 5739.02, 5739.021, 5739.023, and 7185
5739.026 of the Revised Code and all use tax levied on such 7186
purchases under sections 5741.02, 5741.021, 5741.022, and 5741.023 7187
of the Revised Code, consistent with the terms of the agreement 7188
entered into under this section. 7189

       During the term of an agreement under this section theeach7190
taxpayer subject to the agreement shall submit to the tax 7191
commissioner a return that shows the amount of computer data 7192
center equipment purchased for use at the eligible computer data 7193
center, the amount of tangible personal property and taxable 7194
services other than computer data center equipment purchased for 7195
use at the eligible computer data center, the amount of tax under 7196
Chapter 5739. or 5741. of the Revised Code that would be due in 7197
the absence of the agreement under this section, the exemption 7198
percentage for computer data center equipment specified in the 7199
agreement, and the amount of tax due under Chapter 5739. or 5741. 7200
of the Revised Code as a result of the agreement under this 7201
section. TheEach such taxpayer shall pay the tax shown on the 7202
return to be due in the manner and at the times as may be further 7203
prescribed by the tax commissioner. TheEach such taxpayer shall 7204
include a copy of the director of development services' 7205
certificate of verification issued under division (E)(6) of this 7206
section. Failure to submit a copy of the certificate with the 7207
return does not invalidate the claim for exemption if the taxpayer 7208
submits a copy of the certificate to the tax commissioner within 7209
sixty days after the tax commissioner requests it.7210

       (J) If the director of development services determines that a 7211
taxpayer thatone or more taxpayers received an exemption under 7212
this section is not complyingfrom taxes due on the purchase of 7213
computer data center equipment purchased for use at a computer 7214
data center that no longer complies with the requirement under 7215
division (E)(3) of this section, the director shall notify the tax 7216
credit authority and, if applicable, the taxpayer that applied to 7217
enter the agreement for the exemption under division (C) if this 7218
section of the noncompliance. After receiving such a notice, and 7219
after giving theeach taxpayer subject to the agreement an 7220
opportunity to explain the noncompliance, the authority may 7221
terminate the agreement and require theeach such taxpayer to pay 7222
to the state all or a portion of the taxes that would have been 7223
owed in regards to the exempt equipment in previous years, all as 7224
determined under rules adopted pursuant to division (K) of this 7225
section. In determining the portion of the taxes that would have 7226
been owed on the previously exempted equipment to be paid to this 7227
state by thea taxpayer, the authority shall consider the effect 7228
of market conditions on the taxpayer's eligible computer data 7229
center and, whether the taxpayer continues to maintain other 7230
operations in this state, and, with respect to agreements 7231
involving multiple taxpayers, the taxpayer's level of 7232
responsibility for the noncompliance. After making the 7233
determination, the authority shall certify to the tax commissioner 7234
the amount to be paid by theeach taxpayer subject to the 7235
agreement. The tax commissioner shall make an assessment for that 7236
amount against theeach such taxpayer under Chapter 5739. or 5741. 7237
of the Revised Code. The time limitations on assessments under 7238
those chapters do not apply to an assessment under this division, 7239
but the tax commissioner shall make the assessment within one year 7240
after the date the authority certifies to the tax commissioner the 7241
amount to be paid by the taxpayer.7242

       (K) The director of development services, after consultation 7243
with the tax commissioner and in accordance with Chapter 119. of 7244
the Revised Code, shall adopt rules necessary to implement this 7245
section. The rules may provide for recipients of tax exemptions 7246
under this section to be charged fees to cover administrative 7247
costs incurred in the administration of this section. The fees 7248
collected shall be credited to the business assistance fund 7249
created in section 122.174 of the Revised Code. At the time the 7250
director gives public notice under division (A) of section 119.03 7251
of the Revised Code of the adoption of the rules, the director 7252
shall submit copies of the proposed rules to the chairpersons of 7253
the standing committees on economic development in the senate and 7254
the house of representatives.7255

       (L) On or before the first day of August of each year, the 7256
director of development services shall submit a report to the 7257
governor, the president of the senate, and the speaker of the 7258
house of representatives on the tax exemption authorized under 7259
this section. The report shall include information on the number 7260
of agreements that were entered into under this section during the 7261
preceding calendar year, a description of the eligible computer 7262
data center that is the subject of each such agreement, and an 7263
update on the status of eligible computer data centers under 7264
agreements entered into before the preceding calendar year.7265

       (M) A taxpayer may be made a party to an existing agreement 7266
entered into under this section by the tax credit authority and 7267
another taxpayer or group of taxpayers. In such a case, the 7268
taxpayer shall be entitled to all benefits and bound by all 7269
obligations contained in the agreement and all requirements 7270
described in this section. When an agreement includes multiple 7271
taxpayers, each taxpayer shall be entitled to a direct payment 7272
permit as authorized in division (I) of this section.7273

       Sec. 122.28.  As used in sections 122.28 and 122.30 to 122.36 7274
of the Revised Code:7275

       (A) "New technology" means the development through science or 7276
research of methods, processes, and procedures, including but not 7277
limited to those involving the processing and utilization of coal, 7278
for practical application in industrial or agribusiness 7279
situations.7280

       (B) "Industrial research" means study and investigation in 7281
giving new shapes, new qualities or new combinations to matter or 7282
material products by the application of labor thereto or the 7283
rehabilitation of an existing matter or material product.7284

       (C) "Enterprise" means a business with its principal place of 7285
business in this state or which proposes to be engaged in this 7286
state in research and development or in the provision of products 7287
or services involving a significant amount of new technology.7288

       (D) "Educational institutions" means nonprofit public and 7289
private colleges and universities, incorporated or unincorporated, 7290
in the state.7291

       (E) "Small business" means an enterprise with less than four 7292
hundred employees, including corporations, partnerships, 7293
unincorporated entities, proprietorships, and joint enterprises.7294

       (F) "Applied research" means the application of basic 7295
research for the development of new technology.7296

       Sec. 122.30.  The industrial technology and enterprise 7297
advisory council and the director of development areservices is7298
vested with the powers and duties provided in sections 122.28 and 7299
122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised Code, to promote the welfare of 7300
the people of the state through the interaction of the business 7301
and industrial community and educational institutions in the 7302
development of new technology and enterprise.7303

       (A) It is necessary for the state to establish the industrial 7304
technology and enterprise advisory council and the programs 7305
created pursuant to sections 122.28 and 122.30 to 122.36 of the 7306
Revised Code to accomplish the following purposes which are 7307
determined to be essential:7308

       (1) Improve the existing industrial and agricultural base of 7309
the state;7310

       (2) Improve the economy of the state by providing employment, 7311
increasing productivity, and slowing the rate of inflation;7312

       (3) Develop markets worldwide for the products of the state's 7313
natural resources and agricultural and manufacturing industries;7314

       (4) Maintain a high standard of living for the people of the 7315
state.7316

       (B) The industrial technology and enterprise advisory council 7317
shall do all of the following:7318

       (1) Make recommendations to the director of development as to 7319
applications for assistance pursuant to sections 122.28 to 122.36 7320
of the Revised Code. The council may revise its recommendations to 7321
reflect any changes in the proposed assistance made by the 7322
director.7323

       (2) Advise the director in the administration of sections 7324
122.28 to 122.36 of the Revised Code;7325

       (3) Adopt bylaws to govern the conduct of the council's 7326
business.7327

       (C) The director of development shall do all of the 7328
following:7329

       (1) Receive applications for assistance under sections 122.28 7330
and 122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised Code and, after processing, 7331
forward them to the council together with necessary supporting 7332
information;7333

       (2) Receive the recommendations of the council and makeMake7334
a final determination whether to approve the application for 7335
assistance;7336

       (3) Transmit determinations to approve assistance exceeding 7337
forty thousand dollars to the controlling board, together with any 7338
information the controlling board requires, for the board's review 7339
and decision as to whether to approve the assistance;7340

       (4) Gather and disseminate information and conduct hearings, 7341
conferences, seminars, investigations, and special studies on 7342
problems and programs concerning industrial research and new 7343
technology and their commercial applications in the state;7344

       (5) Establish an annual program to recognize the 7345
accomplishments and contributions of individuals and organizations 7346
in the development of industrial research and new technology in 7347
the state;7348

       (6) Stimulate both public and industrial awareness and 7349
interest in industrial research and development of new technology 7350
primarily in the areas of industrial processes, implementation, 7351
energy, agribusiness, medical technology, avionics, and food 7352
processing;7353

       (7) Develop and implement comprehensive and coordinated 7354
policies, programs, and procedures promoting industrial research 7355
and new technology;7356

       (8) Propose appropriate legislation or executive actions to 7357
stimulate the development of industrial research and new 7358
technology by enterprises and individuals;7359

       (9) Encourage and facilitate contracts between industry, 7360
agriculture, educational institutions, federal agencies, and state 7361
agencies, with special emphasis on industrial research and new 7362
technology by small businesses and agribusiness;7363

       (10) Participate with any state agency in developing specific 7364
programs and goals to assist in the development of industrial 7365
research and new technology and monitor performance;7366

       (11) Assist enterprises in obtaining alternative forms of 7367
governmental or commercial financing for industrial research and 7368
new technology;7369

       (12) Assist enterprises or individuals in the implementation 7370
of new programs and policies and the expansion of existing 7371
programs to provide an atmosphere conducive to increased 7372
cooperation among and participation by individuals, enterprises, 7373
and educational institutions engaged in industrial research and 7374
the development of new technology;7375

       (13) Advertise, prepare, print, and distribute books, maps, 7376
pamphlets, and other information which in the judgment of the 7377
director will further its purposes;7378

       (14) Include in the director's annual report to the governor 7379
and the general assembly a report on the activities for the 7380
preceding calendar year under sections 122.28 and 122.30 to 122.36 7381
of the Revised Code;7382

       (15) Approve the expenditure of money appropriated by the 7383
general assembly for the purpose of sections 122.28 and 122.30 to 7384
122.36 of the Revised Code;7385

       (16) Identify and implement federal research and development 7386
programs which would link Ohio's industrial base, research 7387
facilities, and natural resources;7388

       (17) Employ and fix the compensation of technical and 7389
professional personnel, who shall be in the unclassified civil 7390
service, and employ other personnel, who shall be in the 7391
classified civil service, as necessary to carry out the provisions 7392
of sections 122.28 and 122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised Code.7393

       Sec. 122.31.  All expenses and obligations incurred by the 7394
director of development and the industrial technology and 7395
enterprise advisory councilservices in carrying out theirthe 7396
director's powers and in exercising their duties under sections 7397
122.28 and 122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised Code, are payable from 7398
revenues or other receipts or income from grants, gifts, 7399
contributions, compensation, reimbursement, and funds established 7400
in accordance with those sections or general revenue funds 7401
appropriated by the general assembly for operating expenses of the 7402
director or council.7403

       Sec. 122.32.  The director of development services, on behalf 7404
of the programs authorized pursuant to sections 122.28 and 122.307405
to 122.36 of the Revised Code, may receive and accept grants, 7406
gifts, and contributions of money, property, labor, and other 7407
things of value to be held, used, and applied only for the purpose 7408
for which the grants, gifts, and contributions are made, from 7409
individuals, private and public corporations, from the United 7410
States or any agency of the United States, and from any political 7411
subdivision of the state. The director may agree to repay any 7412
contribution of money or to return any property contributed or its 7413
value at times, in amounts, and on terms and conditions excluding 7414
the payment of interest as the director determines at the time the 7415
contribution is made. The director may evidence the obligation by 7416
written contracts, subject to section 122.31 of the Revised Code, 7417
provided that the director shall not thereby incur indebtedness of 7418
or impose liability upon the state or any political subdivision.7419

       Sec. 122.33.  The director of development services shall 7420
administer the following programs:7421

       (A) The industrial technology and enterprise development 7422
grant program, to provide capital to acquire, construct, enlarge, 7423
improve, or equip and to sell, lease, exchange, and otherwise 7424
dispose of property, structures, equipment, and facilities within 7425
the state.7426

       Such funding may be made to enterprises that propose to 7427
develop new products or technologies when the director finds all 7428
of the following factors to be present:7429

       (1) The undertaking will benefit the people of the state by 7430
creating or preserving jobs and employment opportunities or 7431
improving the economic welfare of the people of the state, and 7432
promoting the development of new technology.7433

       (2) There is reasonable assurance that the potential 7434
royalties to be derived from the sale of the product or process 7435
described in the proposal will be sufficient to repay the funding 7436
pursuant to sections 122.28 and 122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised 7437
Code and that, in making the agreement, as it relates to patents, 7438
copyrights, and other ownership rights, there is reasonable 7439
assurance that the resulting new technology will be utilized to 7440
the maximum extent possible in facilities located in Ohio.7441

       (3) The technology and research to be undertaken will allow 7442
enterprises to compete more effectively in the marketplace. Grants 7443
of capital may be in such form and conditioned upon such terms as 7444
the boarddirector deems appropriate.7445

       (B) The industrial technology and enterprise resources 7446
program to provide for the collection, dissemination, and exchange 7447
of information regarding equipment, facilities, and business 7448
planning consultation resources available in business, industry, 7449
and educational institutions and to establish methods by which 7450
small businesses may use available facilities and resources. The 7451
methods may include, but need not be limited to, leases 7452
reimbursing the educational institutions for their actual costs 7453
incurred in maintaining the facilities and agreements assigning 7454
royalties from development of successful products or processes 7455
through the use of the facilities and resources. The director 7456
shall operate this program in conjunction with the board of 7457
regents.7458

       (C) The Thomas Alva Edison grant program to provide grants to 7459
foster research, development, or technology transfer efforts 7460
involving enterprises and educational institutions that will lead 7461
to the creation of jobs. The director shall utilize the Edison 7462
center network in carrying out the goals and objectives of this 7463
program. For the purposes of this division, "Edison center 7464
network" means the six cooperative research and development 7465
facilities in this state that receive funding under this division, 7466
are nonprofit organizations, have been in existence at least 7467
eighteen years as of the effective date of this amendment, and 7468
have experience in delivering manufacturing extension partnership 7469
program services to companies in this state.7470

       (1) Grants may be made to a nonprofit organization or a 7471
public or private educational institution, department, college, 7472
institute, faculty member, or other administrative subdivision or 7473
related entity of an educational institution when the director 7474
finds that the undertaking will benefit the people of the state by 7475
supporting research in advanced technology areas likely to improve 7476
the economic welfare of the people of the state through promoting 7477
the development of new commercial technology.7478

       (2) Grants may be made in a form and conditioned upon terms 7479
as the director considers appropriate.7480

       (3) Grants made under this program shall in all instances be 7481
in conjunction with a contribution to the project by a cooperating 7482
enterprise which maintains or proposes to maintain a relevant 7483
research, development, or manufacturing facility in the state, by 7484
a nonprofit organization, or by an educational institution or 7485
related entity; however, funding provided by an educational 7486
institution or related entity shall not be from general revenue 7487
funds appropriated by the Ohio general assembly. No grant made 7488
under this program shall exceed the contribution made by the 7489
cooperating enterprise, nonprofit organization, or educational 7490
institution or related entity. The director may consider 7491
cooperating contributions in the form of state of the art new 7492
equipment or in other forms provided the director determines that 7493
the contribution is essential to the successful implementation of 7494
the project. The director may adopt rules or guidelines for the 7495
valuation of contributions of equipment or other property.7496

       (4) The director may determine fields of research from which 7497
grant applications will be accepted under this program.7498

       Sec. 122.34.  The exercise of the powers granted by sections 7499
122.28 and 122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised Code will be in all 7500
respects for the benefit of the people of the state, for the 7501
improvement of commerce and prosperity, improvement of employment 7502
conditions, and will constitute the performance of essential 7503
governmental functions.7504

       Sec. 122.35.  All moneys received under sections 122.28 and 7505
122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised Code are trust funds to be held 7506
and applied solely as provided in those sections and section 7507
166.03 of the Revised Code. All moneys, except when deposited with 7508
the treasurer of the state, shall be kept and secured in 7509
depositories as selected by the director of development services7510
in the manner provided in sections 135.01 to 135.21 of the Revised 7511
Code, insofar as those sections are applicable. All moneys held by 7512
the director in trust to carry out the purposes of sections 122.28 7513
and 122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised Code shall be used as provided 7514
in sections 122.28 and 122.30 to 122.36 of the Revised Code and at 7515
no time be part of other public funds.7516

       Sec. 122.36.  Any materials or data submitted to, made 7517
available to, or received by the director of development, the 7518
industrial technology and enterprise advisory council,services or 7519
the controlling board, to the extent that the material or data 7520
consist of trade secrets, as defined in section 1333.61 of the 7521
Revised Code, or commercial or financial information, regarding 7522
projects are not public records for the purposes of section 149.43 7523
of the Revised Code.7524

       Sec. 122.58.  Moneys in the funds established pursuant to 7525
Chapter 122. of the Revised Code, except as otherwise provided in 7526
any proceedings authorizing revenue bonds or in any trust 7527
agreement securing such bonds, in excess of current needs, may be 7528
invested in notes, bonds, or other obligations which are direct 7529
obligations of or are guaranteed by the United States, in 7530
certificates of deposit or other withdrawable accounts of banks, 7531
trust companies, and building and loan or savings and loan 7532
associations organized under the laws of the state or the United 7533
States, or in the manner provided in any agreement entered into 7534
pursuant to section 169.05 of the Revised Code.7535

       Income from all such investments of moneys in any fund shall 7536
be credited to such funds as the director of development 7537
determines subject to the provisions of any bond issuance 7538
proceedings or trust agreement, and such investments may be sold 7539
at such time as the director shall determine, provided 7540
certificates of deposit or other withdrawable accounts may be sold 7541
only in accordance with division (B) of section 169.05 or 7542
divisions (D) and (E) and (F) of section 169.08 of the Revised 7543
Code.7544

       Sec. 122.657.  For the purposes of sections 122.65 to 122.658 7545
of the Revised Code, the director of development shall establish 7546
policies and requirements regarding all of the following:7547

       (A) The form and content of applications for grants or loans 7548
from the clean Ohio revitalization fund under section 122.652 of 7549
the Revised Code. The policies and requirements shall require that 7550
each application include, at a minimum, all of the following:7551

       (1) The name, address, and telephone number of the applicant;7552

       (2) The legal description of the property for which the grant 7553
or loan is requested;7554

       (3) A summary description of the hazardous substances or 7555
petroleum present at the brownfield and a certified copy of the 7556
results of an assessment;7557

       (4) A detailed explanation of the proposed cleanup or 7558
remediation of the brownfield, including an identification of the 7559
applicable cleanup standards, and a detailed description of the 7560
proposed use of the brownfield after completion of the cleanup or 7561
remediation;7562

       (5) An estimate of the total cost to clean up or remediate 7563
the brownfield in order to comply with the applicable cleanup 7564
standards. The total cost shall include the cost of employing a 7565
certified professional under section 122.654 of the Revised Code.7566

       (6) A detailed explanation of the portion of the estimated 7567
total cost of the cleanup or remediation of the brownfield that 7568
the applicant proposes to provide as required under sections 7569
122.653 and 122.658 of the Revised Code and financial records 7570
supporting the proposal;7571

       (7) A certified copy of a resolution or ordinance approving 7572
the project that the applicant shall obtain from the board of 7573
township trustees of the township or the legislative authority of 7574
the municipal corporation in which the property is located, 7575
whichever is applicable;7576

       (8) A description of the estimated economic benefit that will 7577
result from a cleanup or remediation of the brownfield;7578

       (9) An application summary for purposes of review by an 7579
integrating committee or, if applicable, the executive committee 7580
of an integrating committee under division (B) of section 122.652 7581
of the Revised Code;7582

       (10) With respect to applications for loans, information 7583
demonstrating that the applicant will implement a financial 7584
management plan that includes, without limitation, provisions for 7585
the satisfactory repayment of the loan;7586

       (11) Any other provisions that the director determines should 7587
be included in an application.7588

       (B) Procedures for conducting public meetings and providing 7589
public notice under division (A) of section 122.652 of the Revised 7590
Code;7591

       (C) Criteria to be used by integrating committees or, if 7592
required under division (C) of section 122.652 of the Revised 7593
Code, executive committees of integrating committees when 7594
prioritizing projects under division (B) of section 122.652 of the 7595
Revised Code. The policies and requirements also shall establish 7596
procedures that integrating committees or, if required under 7597
division (C) of section 122.652 of the Revised Code, executive 7598
committees of integrating committees shall use in applying the 7599
criteria.7600

       (D) A selection process that provides for the prioritization 7601
of brownfield cleanup or remediation projects for which grant or 7602
loan applications are submitted under section 122.652 of the 7603
Revised Code. The policies and requirements shall require the 7604
selection process to give priority to projects in which the 7605
post-cleanup or remediation use will be for a combination of 7606
residential, commercial, or industrial purposes, which may include 7607
the conversion of a portion of a brownfield to a recreation, park, 7608
or natural area that is integrated with the residential, 7609
commercial, or industrial use of the brownfield after cleanup or 7610
remediation, or will incorporate projects that are funded by 7611
grants awarded under sections 164.20 to 164.27 of the Revised 7612
Code. The policies and requirements shall require the selection 7613
process to incorporate and emphasize all of the following factors:7614

       (1) The potential economic benefit that will result from the 7615
cleanup or remediation of a brownfield;7616

       (2) The potential environmental improvement that will result 7617
from the cleanup or remediation of a brownfield;7618

       (3) The amount and nature of the match provided by an 7619
applicant as required under sections 122.653 and 122.658 of the 7620
Revised Code;7621

       (4) Funding priorities recommended by integrating committees 7622
or, if required under division (C) of section 122.652 of the 7623
Revised Code, executive committees of integrating committees under 7624
division (B) of section 122.652 of the Revised Code;7625

       (5) The potential benefit to low-income communities, 7626
including minority communities, that will result from the cleanup 7627
or remediation of a brownfield;7628

       (6) Any other factors that the director considers 7629
appropriate.7630

       (E) The development of criteria that the director shall use 7631
when awarding grants under section 122.656 of the Revised Code. 7632
The criteria shall give priority to public health projects. In 7633
addition, the director, in consultation with the director of 7634
environmental protection, shall establish policies and 7635
requirements that require the criteria to include a public health 7636
project selection process that incorporates and emphasizes all of 7637
the following factors:7638

       (1) The potential environmental improvement that will result 7639
from the cleanup or remediation;7640

       (2) The ability of an applicant to access the property for 7641
purposes of the cleanup or remediation;7642

       (3) The name and qualifications of the cleanup or remediation 7643
contractor;7644

       (4) Any other factors that the director of development 7645
considers appropriate.7646

       The director of development may develop any other policies 7647
and requirements that the director determines are necessary for 7648
the administration of section 122.656 of the Revised Code.7649

       (F) The development of a brownfield cleanup and remediation 7650
oversight program to ensure compliance with sections 122.65 to 7651
122.658 of the Revised Code and policies and requirements 7652
established under this section. The policies and requirements 7653
shall require the program to include, at a minimum, both of the 7654
following:7655

       (1) Procedures for the accounting of invoices and receipts 7656
and any other documents that are necessary to demonstrate that a 7657
cleanup or remediation was properly performed;7658

       (2) Procedures that are necessary to provide a detailed 7659
explanation of the status of the property five years after the 7660
completed cleanup or remediation.7661

       (G) A delineation of what constitutes administrative costs 7662
for purposes of divisions (D) and (F) of section 122.658 of the 7663
Revised Code;7664

       (H) Procedures and requirements for making loans and loan 7665
agreements that include at least all of the following:7666

       (1) Not more than fifteen per cent of moneys annually 7667
allocated to the clean Ohio revitalization fund shall be used for 7668
loans.7669

       (2) The loans shall be made at or below market rates of 7670
interest, including, without limitation, interest-free loans.7671

       (3) The recipient of a loan shall identify a source of 7672
security and a source of repayment of the loan.7673

       (4) All payments of principal and interest on a loan shall be 7674
deposited in the state treasury and credited to the clean Ohio 7675
revitalization revolving loan fund.7676

       (5) The clean Ohio council may accept notes and other forms 7677
of obligation to evidence indebtedness, accept mortgages, liens, 7678
pledges, assignments, and other security interests to secure such 7679
indebtedness, and take any actions that are considered by the 7680
council to be appropriate to protect such security and safeguard 7681
against losses, including, without limitation, foreclosure and 7682
bidding on the purchase of property upon foreclosure or other 7683
sale.7684

       (I) Any other policies and requirements that the director 7685
determines are necessary for the administration of sections 122.65 7686
to 122.658 of the Revised Code.7687

       Sec. 122.658. (A) The clean Ohio revitalization fund is 7688
hereby created in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of 7689
moneys credited to it pursuant to section 151.40 of the Revised 7690
Code. Moneys in the fund shall be used to make grants or loans for 7691
projects that have been approved by the clean Ohio council in 7692
accordance with section 122.653 of the Revised Code, except that 7693
the council annually shall devote twenty per cent of the net 7694
proceeds of obligations deposited in the clean Ohio revitalization 7695
fund for the purposes of section 122.656 of the Revised Code.7696

       Moneys in the clean Ohio revitalization fund may be used to 7697
pay reasonable costs incurred by the department of development and 7698
the environmental protection agency in administering sections 7699
122.65 to 122.658 of the Revised Code. All investment earnings of 7700
the fund shall be credited to the fund. Investment earnings 7701
credited to the clean Ohio revitalization fund may be used to pay 7702
costs incurred by the department of development and the 7703
environmental protection agency pursuant to sections 122.65 to 7704
122.658 of the Revised Code.7705

       The department of development shall administer the clean Ohio 7706
revitalization fund in accordance with this section, policies and 7707
requirements established under section 122.657 of the Revised 7708
Code, and the terms of agreements entered into by the council 7709
under section 122.653 of the Revised Code.7710

       (B) Grants awarded and loans made under section 122.653 of 7711
the Revised Code shall provide not more than seventy-five per cent 7712
of the estimated total cost of a project. A grant or loan to any 7713
one project shall not exceed three million dollars. An applicant 7714
shall provide at least twenty-five per cent of the estimated total 7715
cost of a project. The applicant's share may consist of one or a 7716
combination of any of the following:7717

       (1) Payment of the cost of acquiring the property for the 7718
purposes of sections 122.65 to 122.658 of the Revised Code;7719

       (2) Payment of the reasonable cost of an assessment at the 7720
property;7721

       (3) The reasonable value, as determined by the council, of 7722
labor and materials that will be contributed by the applicant in 7723
performing the cleanup or remediation;7724

       (4) Moneys received by the applicant in any form for use in 7725
performing the cleanup or remediation;7726

       (5) Loans secured by the applicant for the purpose of the 7727
cleanup or remediation of the brownfield.7728

       Costs that were incurred more than two years prior to the 7729
submission of an application to the clean Ohio council for the 7730
acquisition of property, assessments, and labor and materials 7731
shall not be used as part of the applicant's matching share.7732

       (C) The department of development shall not make any payment 7733
to an applicant from the clean Ohio revitalization fund to pay 7734
costs of the applicant that were not included in an application 7735
for a grant or loan under section 122.653 of the Revised Code or 7736
that exceed the amount of the estimated total cost of the project 7737
included in the application. If, upon completion of a project, the 7738
costs of the project are less than the amounts included in the 7739
application, the amounts included in the application less the 7740
amounts of the actual costs of the project shall be credited to 7741
the clean Ohio revitalization fund. However, the amounts credited 7742
shall be equivalent in percentage to the percentage of the costs 7743
of the project that were to be funded by the grant or loan from 7744
the fund.7745

       (D) Grants awarded or loans made under section 122.653 of the 7746
Revised Code from the clean Ohio revitalization fund shall be used 7747
by an applicant only to pay the costs of the actual cleanup or 7748
remediation of a brownfield and shall not be used by an applicant 7749
to pay any administrative costs incurred by the applicant. Costs 7750
related to the use of a certified professional for purposes of 7751
section 122.654 of the Revised Code are not administrative costs 7752
and may be paid with moneys from grants awarded or loans made 7753
under section 122.653 of the Revised Code.7754

       (E) The portion of net proceeds of obligations devoted under 7755
division (A) of this section for the purposes of section 122.656 7756
of the Revised Code shall be used to make grants for assessments, 7757
cleanup or remediation of brownfields, and public health projects 7758
that have been approved by the director of development under that 7759
section. The department of development shall administer section 7760
122.656 of the Revised Code in accordance with this section, 7761
policies and requirements established under section 122.657 of the 7762
Revised Code, and the terms of agreements entered into by the 7763
director under section 122.656 of the Revised Code. The director 7764
shall not grant more than twenty-five million dollars for public 7765
health projects under section 122.656 of the Revised Code.7766

       (F) Grants awarded under section 122.656 of the Revised Code 7767
shall be used by an applicant only to pay the costs of actually 7768
conducting an assessment, a cleanup or remediation of a 7769
brownfield, or a public health project and shall not be used by an 7770
applicant to pay any administrative costs incurred by the 7771
applicant. Costs related to the use of a certified professional 7772
for purposes of section 122.654 of the Revised Code are not 7773
administrative costs and may be paid with moneys from grants 7774
awarded under section 122.656 of the Revised Code.7775

       (G)(1) The clean Ohio revitalization revolving loan fund is 7776
hereby created in the state treasury. Payments of principal and 7777
interest on loans made from the clean Ohio revitalization fund 7778
shall be credited to this revolving loan fund, as shall payments 7779
of principal and interest on loans made from the revolving loan 7780
fund itself. The revolving loan fund's investment earnings shall 7781
be credited to it.7782

       (2) The clean Ohio revitalization revolving loan fund shall 7783
be used to make loans for the same purposes and subject to the 7784
same policies, requirements, criteria, and application procedures 7785
as loans made from the clean Ohio revitalization fund.7786

       Sec. 122.66.  As used in sections 122.66 to 122.702 of the 7787
Revised Code:7788

       (A) "Poverty line" means the official poverty line 7789
established by the director of the United States office of 7790
management and budget and as revised by the directorsecretary of 7791
the office of communityhealth and human services in accordance 7792
with section 673(2) of the "Community Services Block Grant Act," 7793
95 Stat. 1609, 42 U.S.C.A. 9902.7794

       (B) "Low-income person" means a person whose adjusted gross 7795
income as defined in division (A) of section 5747.01 of the 7796
Revised Code is below the poverty line as defined in division (A) 7797
of this section.7798

       (C) "Advocacy" means the act of pleading for, supporting, or 7799
recommending actions on behalf of low-income persons.7800

       (D) "Community action agency" means a community-based and 7801
operated private nonprofit agency or organization that includes or 7802
is designed to include a sufficient number of projects or 7803
components to provide a range of services and activities having a 7804
measurable and potentially major impact on the causes of poverty 7805
in the community or those areas of the community where poverty is 7806
a particularly acute problem and is designated as a community 7807
action agency by the office of community services division7808
pursuant to sections 122.68 and 122.69 of the Revised Code.7809

       (E) "Community" means a city, village, county, multicity or 7810
multicounty unit, a neighborhood or other area, disregarding 7811
boundaries or political subdivisions, which provides a suitable 7812
organizational base and possesses a commonality of needs and 7813
interests for a community action program suitable to be served by 7814
a community action agency.7815

       (F) "Service area" means the geographical area served by a 7816
community action agency.7817

       Sec. 122.67.  There is hereby created in the department of7818
development services agency the office of community services 7819
division. The director of development services shall employ and 7820
fix the compensation of professional and technical unclassified 7821
personnel as necessary to carry out the provisions of sections 7822
122.66 to 122.701 of the Revised Code.7823

       Sec. 122.68.  The office of community services division7824
shall:7825

       (A) Administer all federal funds appropriated to the state 7826
from the "Community Services Block Grant Act," 95 Stat. 511, 42 7827
U.S.C.A. 9901, and comply with requirements imposed by that act in 7828
its application for, and administration of, the funds;7829

       (B) Designate community action agencies to receive community 7830
services block grant funds;7831

       (C) Disburse at least ninety-five per cent or such other 7832
higher maximum amount as may from time to time be designated by 7833
congress of the funds received in the state from the "Community 7834
Services Block Grant Act" to community action agencies that comply 7835
with the requirements of section 122.69 of the Revised Code and 7836
migrant and seasonal farm worker organizations that are not 7837
designated community action agencies but which provide the 7838
services described in division (B)(1) of section 122.69 of the 7839
Revised Code.7840

       (D) Provide technical assistance to community action agencies 7841
to improve program planning, development, and administration;7842

       (E) Conduct yearly performance assessments, according to 7843
criteria determined by department of development services agency7844
rule, to determine whether community action agencies are in 7845
compliance with section 122.69 of the Revised Code;7846

       (F) Annually prepare and submit to the United States 7847
secretary of health and human services, the governor, the 7848
president of the Ohio senate, and the speaker of the Ohio house of 7849
representatives, a comprehensive report that includes:7850

       (1) Certification that all community action agencies 7851
designated to receive funds from the "Community Services Block 7852
Grant Act" are in compliance with section 122.69 of the Revised 7853
Code;7854

       (2) A program plan for the next federal fiscal year that has 7855
been made available for public inspection and that details how 7856
community services block grant funds will be disbursed and used 7857
during that fiscal year;7858

       (3) Information detailing how funds were expended for the 7859
current fiscal year;7860

       (4) An audit of community services block grant expenditures 7861
for the preceding federal fiscal year that is conducted in 7862
accordance with generally accepted accounting principles by an 7863
independent auditing firm that has no connection with any 7864
community action agency receiving community services block grant 7865
funds or with any employee of the officedivision.7866

       (G) Serve as a statewide advocate for social and economic 7867
opportunities for low-income persons.7868

       Sec. 122.681.  (A) Except as permitted by this section, or 7869
when required by federal law, no person or government entity shall 7870
solicit, release, disclose, receive, use, or knowingly permit or 7871
participate in the use of any information regarding an individual 7872
receiving assistance pursuant to a community services division 7873
program under sections 122.66 to 122.702 of the Revised Code for 7874
any purpose not directly related to the administration of a 7875
division assistance program.7876

       (B) To the extent permitted by federal law, the division, and 7877
any entity that receives division funds to administer a division 7878
program to assist individuals, shall release information regarding 7879
an individual assistance recipient to the following: 7880

       (1) A government entity responsible for administering the 7881
assistance program for purposes directly related to the 7882
administration of the program;7883

       (2) A law enforcement agency for the purpose of any 7884
investigation, prosecution, or criminal or civil proceeding 7885
relating to the administration of the assistance program;7886

       (3) A government entity responsible for administering a 7887
children's protective services program, for the purpose of 7888
protecting children.7889

       (C) To the extent permitted by federal law and section 7890
1347.08 of the Revised Code, the division, and any entity 7891
administering a division program, shall provide access to 7892
information regarding an individual assistance recipient to all of 7893
the following:7894

       (1) The individual assistance recipient;7895

       (2) The authorized representative of the individual 7896
assistance recipient;7897

       (3) The legal guardian of the individual assistance 7898
recipient;7899

       (4) The attorney of the individual assistance recipient.7900

       (D) To the extent permitted by federal law, the division, and 7901
any entity administering a division program, may do either of the 7902
following:7903

       (1) Release information about an individual assistance 7904
recipient if the recipient gives voluntary, written authorization;7905

       (2) Release information regarding an individual assistance 7906
recipient to a state, federal, or federally assisted program that 7907
provides cash or in-kind assistance or services directly to 7908
individuals based on need.7909

       (E) The community services division, or an entity 7910
administering a division program, shall provide, at no cost, a 7911
copy of each written authorization to the individual who signed 7912
it.7913

       (F) The development services agency may adopt rules defining 7914
who may serve as an individual assistance recipient's authorized 7915
representative for purposes of division (C)(2) of this section.7916

       Sec. 122.69.  (A) Any nonprofit agency or organization 7917
seeking designation as a community action agency by the office of7918
community services division shall obtain the endorsement of the 7919
chief elected officials of at least two-thirds of the municipal 7920
corporations and the counties within the community to be served by 7921
the agency or organization.7922

       (B) Any nonprofit agency or organization that receives the 7923
endorsement provided for in division (A) of this section shall be 7924
designated by the officedivision as the community action agency 7925
for the community it serves and shall receive community services 7926
block grant funds for any period of time that the nonprofit agency 7927
or organization:7928

       (1) Provides a range of services and opportunities having a 7929
measurable and potentially major impact on the causes of poverty 7930
in the community or those areas of the community where poverty is 7931
a particularly acute problem. These activities may include but 7932
shall not be limited to:7933

       (a) Providing activities designed to assist low-income 7934
persons, including elderly and handicapped low-income persons, to:7935

       (i) Secure and maintain meaningful employment, training, work 7936
experience, and unsubsidized employment;7937

       (ii) Attain an adequate education;7938

       (iii) Make better use of available income;7939

       (iv) Obtain and maintain adequate housing and a suitable 7940
living environment;7941

       (v) Obtain emergency assistance through loans or grants to 7942
meet immediate and urgent individual and family needs, including 7943
the need for health services, nutritious food, housing, and 7944
employment-related assistance;7945

       (vi) Remove obstacles and solve personal and family problems 7946
that block the achievement of self-sufficiency;7947

       (vii) Achieve greater participation in the affairs of the 7948
community;7949

       (viii) Undertake family planning, consistent with personal 7950
and family goals and religious and moral convictions;7951

       (ix) Obtain energy assistance, conservation, and 7952
weatherization services.7953

       (b) Providing, on an emergency basis, supplies and services, 7954
nutritious foodstuffs, and related services necessary to 7955
counteract conditions of starvation and malnutrition among 7956
low-income persons;7957

       (c) Coordinating and establishing links between government 7958
and other social services programs to assure the effective 7959
delivery of services to low-income individuals;7960

       (d) Providing child care services, nutrition and health 7961
services, transportation services, alcoholism and narcotic 7962
addiction prevention and rehabilitation services, youth 7963
development services, and community services to elderly and 7964
handicapped persons;7965

       (e) Encouraging entities in the private sector to participate 7966
in efforts to ameliorate poverty in the community.7967

       (2) Annually submits to the office of community services7968
division a program plan and budget for use of community services 7969
block grant funds for the next federal fiscal year. At least ten 7970
days prior to its submission to the office of community services7971
division, a copy of the program plan and budget shall be made 7972
available to the chief elected officials of the municipal 7973
corporations and counties within the service area in order to 7974
provide them the opportunity to review and comment upon such plan 7975
and budget.7976

       (3) Composes its board of directors in compliance with 7977
section (c)(3) of section 675 of the the "Community Services Block 7978
Grant Act," 95 Stat. 1609, 42 U.S.C.A. 9904, except that the board 7979
shall consist of not less than fifteen nor more than thirty-three 7980
members;7981

       (4) Complies with the prohibitions against discrimination and 7982
political activity, as provided in the "Community Services Block 7983
Grant Act";7984

       (5) Complies with fiscal and program requirements established 7985
by department of development services agency rule.7986

       Sec. 122.70.  The board of directors of a community action 7987
agency shall:7988

       (A) Select, appoint, and may remove the executive director of 7989
the community action agency;7990

       (B) Approve contracts, annual program budgets, and policies 7991
of the community action agency;7992

       (C) Advise the elected officials of any political subdivision 7993
located within its service area, and state and federal elected 7994
officials who represent its service area, of the nature and extent 7995
of poverty within its community, and advise them of any needed 7996
changes;7997

       (D) Convene public meetings to provide community members the 7998
opportunity to comment on public policies and programs to reduce 7999
poverty;8000

       (E) Annually evaluate the policies and programs of the 8001
community action agency according to criteria determined by 8002
department of development services agency rule;8003

       (F) Submit the results of the evaluation required by division 8004
(E) of this section, along with recommendations for improved 8005
administration of the community action agency, to the office of8006
community services division;8007

       (G) Adopt a code of ethics for the board of directors and the 8008
employees of the community action agency;8009

       (H) Adopt written policies describing all of the following:8010

       (1) How the community action agency is to expend and 8011
distribute the community services block grant funds that it 8012
receives from the office of community servicesdivision under 8013
sections 122.68 and 122.69 of the Revised Code;8014

       (2) The salary, benefits, travel expenses, and any other 8015
compensation that persons are to receive for serving on the 8016
community action agency's board of directors;8017

       (3) The operating procedures to be used by the board to 8018
conduct its meetings, to vote on all official business it 8019
considers, and to provide notice of its meetings.8020

       (I) Provide for the posting of notices in a conspicuous place 8021
indicating that the code of ethics described in division (G) of 8022
this section and the policies described in division (H) of this 8023
section are available for public inspection at the community 8024
action agency during normal business hours.8025

       Sec. 122.701.  (A) Prior to designating a new community 8026
action agency or rescinding a community action agency's 8027
designation, the office of community services division shall:8028

       (1) Determine whether a community action agency is in 8029
compliance with section 122.69 of the Revised Code;8030

       (2) Consult with the chief elected officials of political 8031
subdivisions located within a community action agency's service 8032
area, and, in designating a new community action agency, obtain 8033
their endorsement of the agency in accordance with division (A) of 8034
section 122.69 of the Revised Code;8035

       (3) Hold at least one public meeting within a community 8036
action agency's service area for the purpose of allowing citizens 8037
to comment on the community action agency's delivery of services;8038

       (4) Evaluate the proposed service area of the community 8039
action agency, and, as may be necessary, modify the boundaries of 8040
the service area so that low-income persons in the area are 8041
adequately and efficiently served.8042

       (B) After providing notice and hearing pursuant to sections 8043
119.01 to 119.13 of the Revised Code, the director of development 8044
services:8045

       (1) May rescind the designation of a community action agency 8046
if he findsafter finding that the agency is not in compliance 8047
with any or all of the provisions of section 122.69 of the Revised 8048
Code;8049

       (2) Shall rescind the designation of a community action 8050
agency upon notification from the chief elected officials of more 8051
than one-half of the municipal corporations and the counties 8052
within a community currently served by a community action agency 8053
that such agency is not endorsed by them and upon aafter finding 8054
by him that the agency is not in compliance with section 122.69 of 8055
the Revised Code.8056

       Any agency whose designation is rescinded pursuant to this 8057
section may appeal from an order rescinding such designation 8058
pursuant to section 119.12 of the Revised Code.8059

       Sec. 122.76.  (A) The director of development services, with 8060
controlling board approval, may lend funds to minority business 8061
enterprises and to community improvement corporations, Ohio 8062
development corporations, minority contractors business assistance 8063
organizations, and minority business supplier development councils 8064
for the purpose of loaning funds to minority business enterprises 8065
and, for the purpose of procuring or improving real or personal 8066
property, or both, for the establishment, location, or expansion 8067
of industrial, distribution, commercial, or research facilities in 8068
the state, and for the purpose of contract financing, and to 8069
community development corporations that predominantly benefit 8070
minority business enterprises or are located in a census tract 8071
that has a population that is sixty per cent or more minority, if 8072
the director determines, in the director's sole discretion, that 8073
all of the following apply:8074

       (1) The project is economically sound and will benefit the 8075
people of the state by increasing opportunities for employment, by 8076
strengthening the economy of the state, or expanding minority 8077
business enterprises.8078

       (2) The proposed minority business enterprise borrower is 8079
unable to finance the proposed project through ordinary financial 8080
channels at comparable terms.8081

       (3) The value of the project is or, upon completion, will be 8082
at least equal to the total amount of the money expended in the 8083
procurement or improvement of the project.8084

       (4) The amount to be loaned by the director will not exceed 8085
seventy-five per cent of the total amount expended in the 8086
procurement or improvement of the project.8087

       (5) The amount to be loaned by the director will be 8088
adequately secured by a first or second mortgage upon the project 8089
or by mortgages, leases, liens, assignments, or pledges on or of 8090
other property or contracts as the director requires, and such 8091
mortgage will not be subordinate to any other liens or mortgages 8092
except the liens securing loans or investments made by financial 8093
institutions referred to in division (A)(3) of this section, and 8094
the liens securing loans previously made by any financial 8095
institution in connection with the procurement or expansion of all 8096
or part of a project.8097

       (B) Any proposed minority business enterprise borrower 8098
submitting an application for assistance under this section shall 8099
not have defaulted on a previous loan from the director, and no 8100
full or limited partner, major shareholder, or holder of an equity 8101
interest of the proposed minority business enterprise borrower 8102
shall have defaulted on a loan from the director.8103

       (C) The proposed minority business enterprise borrower shall 8104
demonstrate to the satisfaction of the director that it is able to 8105
successfully compete in the private sector if it obtains the 8106
necessary financial, technical, or managerial support and that 8107
support is available through the director, the minority business 8108
development office of the department of development services 8109
agency, or other identified and acceptable sources. In determining 8110
whether a minority business enterprise borrower will be able to 8111
successfully compete, the director may give consideration to such 8112
factors as the successful completion of or participation in 8113
courses of study, recognized by the board of regents as providing 8114
financial, technical, or managerial skills related to the 8115
operation of the business, by the economically disadvantaged 8116
individual, owner, or partner, and the prior success of the 8117
individual, owner, or partner in personal, career, or business 8118
activities, as well as to other factors identified by the 8119
director.8120

       (D) The director shall not lend funds for the purpose of 8121
procuring or improving motor vehicles or accounts receivable.8122

       Sec. 122.861.  (A) As used in this section:8123

        (1) "Certified engine configuration" means a new, rebuilt, or 8124
remanufactured engine configuration that satisfies divisions 8125
(A)(1)(a) and (b) and, if applicable, division (A)(1)(c) of this 8126
section:8127

        (a) It has been certified by the administrator of the United 8128
States environmental protection agency or the California air 8129
resources board.8130

        (b) It meets or is rebuilt or remanufactured to a more 8131
stringent set of engine emission standards than when originally 8132
manufactured, as determined pursuant to Subtitle G of Title VII of 8133
the Energy Policy Act of 2005, Pub. L. No. 109-58, 119 Stat. 838, 8134
et seq.8135

        (c) In the case of a certified engine configuration involving 8136
the replacement of an existing engine, an engine configuration 8137
that replaced an engine that was removed from the vehicle and 8138
returned to the supplier for remanufacturing to a more stringent 8139
set of engine emissions standards or for scrappage.8140

        (2) "Section 793" means section 793 of the Energy Policy Act 8141
of 2005, Pub. L. No. 109-58, 119 Stat. 841, et seq.8142

        (3) "Verified technology" means a pollution control 8143
technology, including a retrofit technology, advanced truckstop 8144
electrification system, or auxiliary power unit, that has been 8145
verified by the administrator of the United States environmental 8146
protection agency or the California air resources board.8147

        (B) For the purpose of reducing emissions from diesel 8148
engines, the director of environmental protection shall administer 8149
a diesel emissions reduction grant program and a diesel emissions 8150
reduction revolving loan program. The programs shall provide for 8151
the implementation in this state of section 793 and shall 8152
otherwise be administered in compliance with the requirements of 8153
section 793, and any regulations issued pursuant to that section.8154

        The director shall apply to the administrator of the United 8155
States environmental protection agency for grant or loan funds 8156
available under section 793 to help fund the diesel emissions 8157
reduction grant program and the diesel emissions reduction 8158
revolving loan program. 8159

        (C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the diesel 8160
emissions grant fund consisting of money appropriated to it by the 8161
general assembly, any grants obtained from the federal government 8162
under section 793, and any other grants, gifts, or other 8163
contributions of money made to the credit of the fund. Money in 8164
the fund shall be used for the purpose of making grants for 8165
projects relating to certified engine configurations and verified 8166
technologies in a manner consistent with the requirements of 8167
section 793 and any regulations issued under that section. 8168
Interest earned from moneys in the fund shall be used to 8169
administer the diesel emissions reduction grant program.8170

       (D) There is hereby created in the state treasury the diesel 8171
emissions reduction revolving loan fund consisting of money 8172
appropriated to it by the general assembly, any grants obtained 8173
from the federal government under section 793, and any other 8174
grants, gifts, or other contributions of money made to the credit 8175
of the fund. Money in the fund shall be used for the purpose of 8176
making loans for projects relating to certified engine 8177
configurations and verified technologies in a manner consistent 8178
with the requirements of section 793 and any regulations issued 8179
pursuant to that section. Interest earned from moneys in the fund 8180
shall be used to administer the diesel emissions reduction 8181
revolving loan program.8182

       Sec. 123.01.  (A) The department of administrative services, 8183
in addition to those powers enumerated in Chapters 124. and 125. 8184
of the Revised Code and provided elsewhere by law, shall exercise 8185
the following powers:8186

       (1) To prepare and suggest comprehensive plans for the 8187
development of grounds and buildings under the control of a state 8188
agency;8189

       (2) To acquire, by purchase, gift, devise, lease, or grant, 8190
all real estate required by a state agency, in the exercise of 8191
which power the department may exercise the power of eminent 8192
domain, in the manner provided by sections 163.01 to 163.22 of the 8193
Revised Code;8194

       (3) To erect, supervise, and maintain all public monuments 8195
and memorials erected by the state, except where the supervision 8196
and maintenance is otherwise provided by law;8197

       (4) To procure, by lease, storage accommodations for a state 8198
agency;8199

       (5) To lease or grant easements or licenses for unproductive 8200
and unused lands or other property under the control of a state 8201
agency. Such leases, easements, or licenses may be granted to any 8202
person or entity, shall be for a period not to exceed fifteen 8203
years, and shall be executed for the state by the director of 8204
administrative services, provided that the director shall grant 8205
leases, easements, or licenses of university land for periods not 8206
to exceed twenty-five years for purposes approved by the 8207
respective university's board of trustees wherein the uses are 8208
compatible with the uses and needs of the university and may grant 8209
leases of university land for periods not to exceed forty years 8210
for purposes approved by the respective university's board of 8211
trustees pursuant to section 123.17 of the Revised Code.8212

       (6) To lease space for the use of a state agency;8213

       (7) To have general supervision and care of the storerooms, 8214
offices, and buildings leased for the use of a state agency;8215

       (8) To exercise general custodial care of all real property 8216
of the state;8217

       (9) To assign and group together state offices in any city in 8218
the state and to establish, in cooperation with the state agencies 8219
involved, rules governing space requirements for office or storage 8220
use;8221

       (10) To lease for a period not to exceed forty years, 8222
pursuant to a contract providing for the construction thereof 8223
under a lease-purchase plan, buildings, structures, and other 8224
improvements for any public purpose, and, in conjunction 8225
therewith, to grant leases, easements, or licenses for lands under 8226
the control of a state agency for a period not to exceed forty 8227
years. The lease-purchase plan shall provide that at the end of 8228
the lease period, the buildings, structures, and related 8229
improvements, together with the land on which they are situated, 8230
shall become the property of the state without cost.8231

       (a) Whenever any building, structure, or other improvement is 8232
to be so leased by a state agency, the department shall retain 8233
either basic plans, specifications, bills of materials, and 8234
estimates of cost with sufficient detail to afford bidders all 8235
needed information or, alternatively, all of the following plans, 8236
details, bills of materials, and specifications:8237

       (i) Full and accurate plans suitable for the use of mechanics 8238
and other builders in the improvement;8239

       (ii) Details to scale and full sized, so drawn and 8240
represented as to be easily understood;8241

       (iii) Accurate bills showing the exact quantity of different 8242
kinds of material necessary to the construction;8243

       (iv) Definite and complete specifications of the work to be 8244
performed, together with such directions as will enable a 8245
competent mechanic or other builder to carry them out and afford 8246
bidders all needed information;8247

       (v) A full and accurate estimate of each item of expense and 8248
of the aggregate cost thereof.8249

       (b) The department shall give public notice, in such 8250
newspaper, in such form, and with such phraseology as the director 8251
of administrative services prescribes, published once each week 8252
for four consecutive weeks, of the time when and place where bids 8253
will be received for entering into an agreement to lease to a 8254
state agency a building, structure, or other improvement. The last 8255
publication shall be at least eight days preceding the day for 8256
opening the bids. The bids shall contain the terms upon which the 8257
builder would propose to lease the building, structure, or other 8258
improvement to the state agency. The form of the bid approved by 8259
the department shall be used, and a bid is invalid and shall not 8260
be considered unless that form is used without change, alteration, 8261
or addition. Before submitting bids pursuant to this section, any 8262
builder shall comply with Chapter 153. of the Revised Code.8263

       (c) On the day and at the place named for receiving bids for 8264
entering into lease agreements with a state agency, the director 8265
of administrative services shall open the bids and shall publicly 8266
proceed immediately to tabulate the bids upon duplicate sheets. No 8267
lease agreement shall be entered into until the bureau of workers' 8268
compensation has certified that the person to be awarded the lease 8269
agreement has complied with Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code, 8270
until, if the builder submitting the lowest and best bid is a 8271
foreign corporation, the secretary of state has certified that the 8272
corporation is authorized to do business in this state, until, if 8273
the builder submitting the lowest and best bid is a person 8274
nonresident of this state, the person has filed with the secretary 8275
of state a power of attorney designating the secretary of state as 8276
its agent for the purpose of accepting service of summons in any 8277
action brought under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code, and until 8278
the agreement is submitted to the attorney general and the 8279
attorney general's approval is certified thereon. Within thirty 8280
days after the day on which the bids are received, the department 8281
shall investigate the bids received and shall determine that the 8282
bureau and the secretary of state have made the certifications 8283
required by this section of the builder who has submitted the 8284
lowest and best bid. Within ten days of the completion of the 8285
investigation of the bids, the department shall award the lease 8286
agreement to the builder who has submitted the lowest and best bid 8287
and who has been certified by the bureau and secretary of state as 8288
required by this section. If bidding for the lease agreement has 8289
been conducted upon the basis of basic plans, specifications, 8290
bills of materials, and estimates of costs, upon the award to the 8291
builder the department, or the builder with the approval of the 8292
department, shall appoint an architect or engineer licensed in 8293
this state to prepare such further detailed plans, specifications, 8294
and bills of materials as are required to construct the building, 8295
structure, or improvement. The department shall adopt such rules 8296
as are necessary to give effect to this section. The department 8297
may reject any bid. Where there is reason to believe there is 8298
collusion or combination among bidders, the bids of those 8299
concerned therein shall be rejected.8300

       (11) To acquire by purchase, gift, devise, or grant and to 8301
transfer, lease, or otherwise dispose of all real property 8302
required to assist in the development of a conversion facility as 8303
defined in section 5709.30 of the Revised Code as that section 8304
existed before its repeal by Amended Substitute House Bill 95 of 8305
the 125th general assembly;8306

       (12) To lease for a period not to exceed forty years, 8307
notwithstanding any other division of this section, the 8308
state-owned property located at 408-450 East Town Street, 8309
Columbus, Ohio, formerly the state school for the deaf, to a 8310
developer in accordance with this section. "Developer," as used in 8311
this section, has the same meaning as in section 123.77 of the 8312
Revised Code.8313

       Such a lease shall be for the purpose of development of the 8314
land for use by senior citizens by constructing, altering, 8315
renovating, repairing, expanding, and improving the site as it 8316
existed on June 25, 1982. A developer desiring to lease the land 8317
shall prepare for submission to the department a plan for 8318
development. Plans shall include provisions for roads, sewers, 8319
water lines, waste disposal, water supply, and similar matters to 8320
meet the requirements of state and local laws. The plans shall 8321
also include provision for protection of the property by insurance 8322
or otherwise, and plans for financing the development, and shall 8323
set forth details of the developer's financial responsibility.8324

       The department may employ, as employees or consultants, 8325
persons needed to assist in reviewing the development plans. Those 8326
persons may include attorneys, financial experts, engineers, and 8327
other necessary experts. The department shall review the 8328
development plans and may enter into a lease if it finds all of 8329
the following:8330

       (a) The best interests of the state will be promoted by 8331
entering into a lease with the developer;8332

       (b) The development plans are satisfactory;8333

       (c) The developer has established the developer's financial 8334
responsibility and satisfactory plans for financing the 8335
development.8336

       The lease shall contain a provision that construction or 8337
renovation of the buildings, roads, structures, and other 8338
necessary facilities shall begin within one year after the date of 8339
the lease and shall proceed according to a schedule agreed to 8340
between the department and the developer or the lease will be 8341
terminated. The lease shall contain such conditions and 8342
stipulations as the director considers necessary to preserve the 8343
best interest of the state. Moneys received by the state pursuant 8344
to this lease shall be paid into the general revenue fund. The 8345
lease shall provide that at the end of the lease period the 8346
buildings, structures, and related improvements shall become the 8347
property of the state without cost.8348

       (13) To manage the use of space owned and controlled by the 8349
department, including space in property under the jurisdiction of 8350
the Ohio building authority, by doing all of the following:8351

       (a) Biennially implementing, by state agency location, a 8352
census of agency employees assigned space;8353

        (b) Periodically in the discretion of the director of 8354
administrative services:8355

       (i) Requiring each state agency to categorize the use of 8356
space allotted to the agency between office space, common areas, 8357
storage space, and other uses, and to report its findings to the 8358
department;8359

        (ii) Creating and updating a master space utilization plan 8360
for all space allotted to state agencies. The plan shall 8361
incorporate space utilization metrics.8362

        (iii) Conducting a cost-benefit analysis to determine the 8363
effectiveness of state-owned buildings;8364

        (iv) Assessing the alternatives associated with consolidating 8365
the commercial leases for buildings located in Columbus.8366

        (c) Commissioning a comprehensive space utilization and 8367
capacity study in order to determine the feasibility of 8368
consolidating existing commercially leased space used by state 8369
agencies into a new state-owned facility.8370

       (14) To adopt rules to ensure that energy efficiency and 8371
conservation is considered in the purchase of products and 8372
equipment, except motor vehicles, by any state agency, department, 8373
division, bureau, office, unit, board, commission, authority, 8374
quasi-governmental entity, or institution. The department may 8375
require minimum energy efficiency standards for purchased products 8376
and equipment based on federal testing and labeling if available 8377
or on standards developed by the department. When possible, the 8378
rules shall apply to the competitive selection of energy consuming 8379
systems, components, and equipment under Chapter 125. of the 8380
Revised Code.8381

       (15) To ensure energy efficient and energy conserving 8382
purchasing practices by doing all of the following:8383

       (a) Identifying available energy efficiency and conservation 8384
opportunities;8385

       (b) Providing for interchange of information among purchasing 8386
agencies;8387

       (c) Identifying laws, policies, rules, and procedures that 8388
should be modified;8389

       (d) Monitoring experience with and the cost-effectiveness of 8390
this state's purchase and use of motor vehicles and of major 8391
energy-consuming systems, components, equipment, and products 8392
having a significant impact on energy consumption by the 8393
government;8394

       (e) Providing technical assistance and training to state 8395
employees involved in the purchasing process;8396

       (f) Working with the department of development services 8397
agency to make recommendations regarding planning and 8398
implementation of purchasing policies and procedures that are 8399
supportive of energy efficiency and conservation.8400

       (16) To require all state agencies, departments, divisions, 8401
bureaus, offices, units, commissions, boards, authorities, 8402
quasi-governmental entities, institutions, and state institutions 8403
of higher education to implement procedures to ensure that all of 8404
the passenger automobiles they acquire in each fiscal year, except 8405
for those passenger automobiles acquired for use in law 8406
enforcement or emergency rescue work, achieve a fleet average fuel 8407
economy of not less than the fleet average fuel economy for that 8408
fiscal year as the department shall prescribe by rule. The 8409
department shall adopt the rule prior to the beginning of the 8410
fiscal year, in accordance with the average fuel economy standards 8411
established by federal law for passenger automobiles manufactured 8412
during the model year that begins during the fiscal year.8413

       Each state agency, department, division, bureau, office, 8414
unit, commission, board, authority, quasi-governmental entity, 8415
institution, and state institution of higher education shall 8416
determine its fleet average fuel economy by dividing the total 8417
number of passenger vehicles acquired during the fiscal year, 8418
except for those passenger vehicles acquired for use in law 8419
enforcement or emergency rescue work, by a sum of terms, each of 8420
which is a fraction created by dividing the number of passenger 8421
vehicles of a given make, model, and year, except for passenger 8422
vehicles acquired for use in law enforcement or emergency rescue 8423
work, acquired during the fiscal year by the fuel economy measured 8424
by the administrator of the United States environmental protection 8425
agency, for the given make, model, and year of vehicle, that 8426
constitutes an average fuel economy for combined city and highway 8427
driving.8428

       As used in division (A)(16) of this section, "acquired" means 8429
leased for a period of sixty continuous days or more, or 8430
purchased.8431

       (B) This section and section 125.02 of the Revised Code shall 8432
not interfere with any of the following:8433

       (1) The power of the adjutant general to purchase military 8434
supplies, or with the custody of the adjutant general of property 8435
leased, purchased, or constructed by the state and used for 8436
military purposes, or with the functions of the adjutant general 8437
as director of state armories;8438

       (2) The power of the director of transportation in acquiring 8439
rights-of-way for the state highway system, or the leasing of 8440
lands for division or resident district offices, or the leasing of 8441
lands or buildings required in the maintenance operations of the 8442
department of transportation, or the purchase of real property for 8443
garage sites or division or resident district offices, or in 8444
preparing plans and specifications for and constructing such 8445
buildings as the director may require in the administration of the 8446
department;8447

       (3) The power of the director of public safety and the 8448
registrar of motor vehicles to purchase or lease real property and 8449
buildings to be used solely as locations to which a deputy 8450
registrar is assigned pursuant to division (B) of section 4507.011 8451
of the Revised Code and from which the deputy registrar is to 8452
conduct the deputy registrar's business, the power of the director 8453
of public safety to purchase or lease real property and buildings 8454
to be used as locations for division or district offices as 8455
required in the maintenance of operations of the department of 8456
public safety, and the power of the superintendent of the state 8457
highway patrol in the purchase or leasing of real property and 8458
buildings needed by the patrol, to negotiate the sale of real 8459
property owned by the patrol, to rent or lease real property owned 8460
or leased by the patrol, and to make or cause to be made repairs 8461
to all property owned or under the control of the patrol;8462

       (4) The power of the division of liquor control in the 8463
leasing or purchasing of retail outlets and warehouse facilities 8464
for the use of the division;8465

       (5) The power of the director of development services to 8466
enter into leases of real property, buildings, and office space to 8467
be used solely as locations for the state's foreign offices to 8468
carry out the purposes of section 122.05 of the Revised Code;8469

       (6) The power of the director of environmental protection to 8470
enter into environmental covenants, to grant and accept easements, 8471
or to sell property pursuant to division (G) of section 3745.01 of 8472
the Revised Code.8473

       (C) Purchases for, and the custody and repair of, buildings 8474
under the management and control of the capitol square review and 8475
advisory board, the rehabilitation services commission8476
opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency, the bureau of 8477
workers' compensation, or the departments of public safety, job 8478
and family services, mental healthmental health and addiction 8479
services, developmental disabilities, and rehabilitation and 8480
correction; buildings of educational and benevolent institutions 8481
under the management and control of boards of trustees; and 8482
purchases or leases for, and the custody and repair of, office 8483
space used for the purposes of the joint legislative ethics 8484
committee are not subject to the control and jurisdiction of the 8485
department of administrative services.8486

       If the joint legislative ethics committee so requests, the 8487
committee and the director of administrative services may enter 8488
into a contract under which the department of administrative 8489
services agrees to perform any services requested by the committee 8490
that the department is authorized under this section to perform.8491

       (D) Any instrument by which real property is acquired 8492
pursuant to this section shall identify the agency of the state 8493
that has the use and benefit of the real property as specified in 8494
section 5301.012 of the Revised Code.8495

       Sec. 123.10.  (A) As used in this section and section 123.11 8496
of the Revised Code, "public exigency" means an injury or 8497
obstruction that occurs in any public works of the state 8498
maintained by the director of administrative services and that 8499
materially impairs its immediate use or places in jeopardy 8500
property adjacent to it; an immediate danger of such an injury or 8501
obstruction; or an injury or obstruction, or an immediate danger 8502
of an injury or obstruction, that occurs in any public works of 8503
the state maintained by the director of administrative services 8504
and that materially impairs its immediate use or places in 8505
jeopardy property adjacent to it.8506

       (B) When a declaration of public exigency is issued pursuant 8507
to division (C) of this section, the director of administrative 8508
services may request the Ohio facilities construction commission 8509
toshall enter into contracts with proper persons for the 8510
performance of labor, the furnishing of materials, or the 8511
construction of any structures and buildings necessary to the 8512
maintenance, control, and management of the public works of the 8513
state or any part of those public works. Any contracts awarded for 8514
the work performed pursuant to the declaration of a public 8515
exigency may be awarded without competitive bidding or selection 8516
as set forth in Chapter 153. of the Revised Code.8517

       (C) The executive director of administrative servicesthe 8518
Ohio facilities construction commission may issue a declaration of 8519
a public exigency on the executive director's own initiative or 8520
upon the request of the director of any state agency. The 8521
executive director's declaration shall identify the specific 8522
injury, obstruction, or danger that is the subject of the 8523
declaration and shall set forth a dollar limitation for the 8524
repair, removal, or prevention of that exigency under the 8525
declaration.8526

       Before any project to repair, remove, or prevent a public 8527
exigency under the executive director's declaration may begin, the 8528
executive director shall send notice of the project, in writing, 8529
to the director of budget and management and to the members of the 8530
controlling board. That notice shall detail the project to be 8531
undertaken to address the public exigency and shall include a copy 8532
of the executive director's declaration that establishes the 8533
monetary limitations on that project.8534

       Sec. 123.11.  When a public exigency, as defined in division 8535
(A) of section 123.10 of the Revised Code, exists, the executive8536
director of administrative servicesthe Ohio facilities 8537
construction commission may take possession of lands and use them, 8538
or materials and other property necessary for the maintenance, 8539
protection, or repair of the public works, in accordance with 8540
sections 163.01 to 163.22 of the Revised Code.8541

       Sec. 123.19. There is hereby established in the state 8542
treasury the theater equipment maintenance fund. All appropriate 8543
theater-related revenues of the department of administrative 8544
services, as determined by the department, shall be credited to 8545
that fund and to any accounts created in that fund with the 8546
department's approval. All appropriate theater-related expenses of 8547
the department, as determined by the department, including 8548
reimbursement of, or payment to, any other fund or any 8549
governmental agency for advances made or services rendered to or 8550
on behalf of the department, shall be paid from that fund as 8551
determined by or pursuant to directions of the department. All 8552
investment earnings of that fund shall be credited to it and shall 8553
be allocated among any accounts created in the fund in the manner 8554
determined by the department.8555

       Sec. 123.201. (A) There is hereby created in the state 8556
treasury the Ohio facilities construction commission fund, 8557
consisting of transfers of moneys authorized by the general 8558
assembly and revenues received by the Ohio facilities construction 8559
commission under section 123.21 of the Revised Code. Investment 8560
earnings on moneys in the fund shall be credited to the fund. 8561
Moneys in the fund may be used by the commission, in performing 8562
its duties under this chapter, to pay personnel and other 8563
administrative expenses, to pay the cost of preparing building 8564
design specifications, to pay the cost of providing project 8565
management services, and for other purposes determined by the 8566
commission to be necessary to fulfill its duties under this 8567
chapter.8568

       (B)(1) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 8569
cultural and sports facilities building fund, consisting of 8570
proceeds of obligations authorized to pay costs of Ohio cultural 8571
facilities and Ohio sports facilities for which appropriations are 8572
made by the general assembly. All investment earnings of the fund 8573
shall be credited to the fund.8574

       (2) Upon the request of the executive director of the Ohio 8575
facilities construction commission and subject to applicable tax 8576
law limitations, the director of budget and management may 8577
transfer to the Ohio cultural facilities administration fund 8578
moneys credited to the cultural and sports facilities building 8579
fund to pay the costs of administering projects funded through the 8580
cultural and sports facilities building fund.8581

       (C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the Ohio 8582
cultural facilities administration fund, consisting of transfers 8583
of money authorized by the general assembly and revenues received 8584
by the commission under division (A)(9) of section 123.21 of the 8585
Revised Code. Moneys in the fund may be used by the Ohio 8586
facilities construction commission in administering projects 8587
funded through the cultural and sports facilities building fund 8588
pursuant to sections 123.28 and 128.281 of the Revised Code. All 8589
investment earnings of that fund shall be credited to it and shall 8590
be allocated among any accounts created in the fund in the manner 8591
determined by the commission.8592

       (D)(1) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 8593
capital donations fund, which shall be administered by the Ohio 8594
facilities construction commission. The fund consists of gifts, 8595
grants, devises, bequests, and other financial contributions made 8596
to the commission for the construction or improvement of cultural 8597
and sports facilities and shall be used in accordance with the 8598
specific purposes for which the gifts, grants, devises, bequests, 8599
or other financial contributions are made. All investment earnings 8600
of the fund shall be credited to the fund. Chapters 123., 125., 8601
127., and 153. and section 3517.13 of the Revised Code do not 8602
apply to contract obligations paid from the fund, notwithstanding 8603
anything to the contrary in those chapters or that section.8604

       (2) Not later than one month following the end of each 8605
quarter of the fiscal year, the commission shall allocate the 8606
amounts credited to the fund from investment earnings during that 8607
preceding quarter of the fiscal year among the specific projects 8608
for which they are to be used and shall certify this information 8609
to the director of budget and management.8610

       (3) If the amounts credited to the fund for a particular 8611
project exceed what is required to complete that project, the 8612
commission may refund any of those excess amounts, including 8613
unexpended investment earnings attributable to those amounts, to 8614
the entity from which they were received.8615

       Sec. 123.21.  (A) The Ohio facilities construction commission 8616
may perform any act and ensure the performance of any function 8617
necessary or appropriate to carry out the purposes of, and 8618
exercise the powers granted under this chapter or any other 8619
provision of the Revised Code, including any of the following:8620

       (1) Prepare, or contract to be prepared, by licensed 8621
engineers or architects, surveys, general and detailed plans, 8622
specifications, bills of materials, and estimates of cost for any 8623
projects, improvements, or public buildings to be constructed by 8624
state agencies that may be authorized by legislative 8625
appropriations or any other funds made available therefor, 8626
provided that the construction of the projects, improvements, or 8627
public buildings is a statutory duty of the commission. This 8628
section does not require the independent employment of an 8629
architect or engineer as provided by section 153.01 of the Revised 8630
Code in the cases to which section 153.01 of the Revised Code 8631
applies. This section does not affect or alter the existing powers 8632
of the director of transportation.8633

       (2) Have general supervision over the construction of any 8634
projects, improvements, or public buildings constructed for a 8635
state agency and over the inspection of materials prior to their 8636
incorporation into those projects, improvements, or buildings.8637

       (3) Make contracts for and supervise the design and 8638
construction of any projects and improvements or the construction 8639
and repair of buildings under the control of a state agency. All 8640
such contracts may be based in whole or in part on the unit price 8641
or maximum estimated cost, with payment computed and made upon 8642
actual quantities or units.8643

       (4) Adopt, amend, and rescind rules pertaining to the 8644
administration of the construction of the public works of the 8645
state as required by law, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 8646
Revised Code.8647

       (5) Contract with, retain the services of, or designate, and 8648
fix the compensation of, such agents, accountants, consultants, 8649
advisers, and other independent contractors as may be necessary or 8650
desirable to carry out the programs authorized under this chapter, 8651
or authorize the executive director to perform such powers and 8652
duties.8653

       (6) Receive and accept any gifts, grants, donations, and 8654
pledges, and receipts therefrom, to be used for the programs 8655
authorized under this chapter.8656

       (7) Make and enter into all contracts, commitments, and 8657
agreements, and execute all instruments, necessary or incidental 8658
to the performance of its duties and the execution of its rights 8659
and powers under this chapter, or authorize the executive director 8660
to perform such powers and duties.8661

        (8) Debar a contractor as provided in section 153.02 of the 8662
Revised Code.8663

       (9) Enter into and administer cooperative agreements for 8664
cultural projects, as provided in sections 123.28 and 123.281 of 8665
the Revised Code.8666

       (B) The commission shall appoint and fix the compensation of 8667
an executive director who shall serve at the pleasure of the 8668
commission. The executive director shall exercise all powers that 8669
the commission possesses, supervise the operations of the 8670
commission, and perform such other duties as delegated by the 8671
commission. The executive director also shall employ and fix the 8672
compensation of such employees as will facilitate the activities 8673
and purposes of the commission, who shall serve at the pleasure of 8674
the executive director. The employees of the commission are exempt 8675
from Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code and are not considered 8676
public employees as defined in section 4117.01 of the Revised 8677
Code. Any agreement entered into prior to July 1, 2012, between 8678
the office of collective bargaining and the exclusive 8679
representative for employees of the commission is binding and 8680
shall continue to have effect.8681

       (C) The attorney general shall serve as the legal 8682
representative for the commission and may appoint other counsel as 8683
necessary for that purpose in accordance with section 109.07 of 8684
the Revised Code.8685

       Sec. 123.27.  (A) As used in this section:8686

       "Capital facilities project" means the construction, 8687
reconstruction, improvement, enlargement, alteration, or repair of 8688
a building by a public entity.8689

       "Public entity" includes a state agency and a state 8690
institution of higher education. 8691

       "State institution of higher education" has the same meaning 8692
as in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.8693

       (B) Commencing not later than July 1, 2012, and upon 8694
completion of a capital facilities project that is funded wholly 8695
or in part using state funds, each public entity shall submit a 8696
report about the project to the executive director of the Ohio 8697
facilities construction commission. The report shall be submitted 8698
in Ohio administrative knowledge system capital improvement format 8699
or in a manner determined by the executive director and not later 8700
than thirty days after the project is complete. The report shall 8701
provide the total original contract bid, total cost of change 8702
orders, total actual cost of the project, total costs incurred for 8703
mediation and litigation services, and any other data requested by 8704
the executive director. The first report submitted pursuant to 8705
this division shall include information about any capital 8706
facilities project completed on or after July 1, 2011. Any capital 8707
facilities project that is funded wholly or in part through 8708
appropriations made to the Ohio school facilities commission,or8709
the Ohio public works commission, or the Ohio cultural facilities 8710
commission, or for which a joint use agreement has been entered 8711
into with any public entity, is exempt from the reporting 8712
requirement prescribed under this division.8713

       (C) Commencing not later than July 1, 2012, and annually 8714
thereafter, the attorney general shall report to the executive 8715
director of the Ohio facilities construction commission on any 8716
mediation and litigation costs associated with capital facilities 8717
projects for which a judgment has been rendered. The report shall 8718
be submitted in a manner prescribed by the executive director and 8719
shall contain any information requested by the executive director 8720
related to capital facilities project mediation and litigation 8721
costs.8722

       (D) As soon as practicable after such information is made 8723
available, the executive director of the Ohio facilities 8724
construction commission shall incorporate the information reported 8725
pursuant to divisions (B) and (C) of this section into the Ohio 8726
administrative knowledge system.8727

       Sec. 3383.01.        Sec. 123.28.  As used in this chaptersection and in 8728
section 123.281 of the Revised Code:8729

       (A) "Culture" means any of the following:8730

       (1) Visual, musical, dramatic, graphic, design, and other 8731
arts, including, but not limited to, architecture, dance, 8732
literature, motion pictures, music, painting, photography, 8733
sculpture, and theater, and the provision of training or education 8734
in these arts;8735

       (2) The presentation or making available, in museums or other 8736
indoor or outdoor facilities, of principles of science and their 8737
development, use, or application in business, industry, or 8738
commerce or of the history, heritage, development, presentation, 8739
and uses of the arts described in division (A)(1) of this section 8740
and of transportation;8741

       (3) The preservation, presentation, or making available of 8742
features of archaeological, architectural, environmental, or 8743
historical interest or significance in a state historical facility 8744
or a local historical facility.8745

       (B) "Cultural organization" means either of the following:8746

       (1) A governmental agency or Ohio nonprofit corporation, 8747
including the Ohio historical society, that provides programs or 8748
activities in areas directly concerned with culture;8749

       (2) A regional arts and cultural district as defined in 8750
section 3381.01 of the Revised Code.8751

       (C) "Cultural project" means all or any portion of an Ohio 8752
cultural facility for which the general assembly has specifically 8753
authorized the spending of money, or made an appropriation, 8754
pursuant to division (D)(3) or (E) of section 3383.07 of the 8755
Revised Codeor has specifically authorized the spending of money 8756
or the making of rental payments relating to the financing of 8757
construction.8758

       (D) "Cooperative contract" means a contract between the Ohio 8759
cultural facilities construction commission and a cultural 8760
organization providing the terms and conditions of the cooperative 8761
use of an Ohio cultural facility.8762

       (E) "Costs of operation" means amounts required to manage an 8763
Ohio cultural facility that are incurred following the completion 8764
of construction of its cultural project, provided that both of the 8765
following apply:8766

       (1) Those amounts either:8767

       (a) Have been committed to a fund dedicated to that purpose;8768

       (b) Equal the principal of any endowment fund, the income 8769
from which is dedicated to that purpose.8770

       (2) The commission and the cultural organization have 8771
executed an agreement with respect to either of those funds.8772

       (F) "General building services" means general building 8773
services for an Ohio cultural facility or an Ohio sports facility, 8774
including, but not limited to, general custodial care, security, 8775
maintenance, repair, painting, decoration, cleaning, utilities, 8776
fire safety, grounds and site maintenance and upkeep, and 8777
plumbing.8778

       (G) "Governmental agency" means a state agency, a 8779
state-supported or state-assisted institution of higher education,8780
a municipal corporation, county, township, or school district, a 8781
port authority created under Chapter 4582. of the Revised Code, 8782
any other political subdivision or special district in this state 8783
established by or pursuant to law, or any combination of these 8784
entities; except where otherwise indicated, the United States or 8785
any department, division, or agency of the United States, or any 8786
agency, commission, or authority established pursuant to an 8787
interstate compact or agreement.8788

       (H)(G) "Local contributions" means the value of an asset 8789
provided by or on behalf of a cultural organization from sources 8790
other than the state, the value and nature of which shall be 8791
approved by the Ohio cultural facilities construction commission, 8792
in its sole discretion. "Local contributions" may include the 8793
value of the site where a cultural project is to be constructed. 8794
All "local contributions," except a contribution attributable to 8795
such a site, shall be for the costs of construction of a cultural 8796
project or the creation or expansion of an endowment for the costs 8797
of operation of a cultural facility.8798

       (I)(H) "Local historical facility" means a site or facility, 8799
other than a state historical facility, of archaeological, 8800
architectural, environmental, or historical interest or 8801
significance, or a facility, including a storage facility, 8802
appurtenant to the operations of such a site or facility, that is 8803
owned by a cultural organization, provided the facility meets the 8804
requirements of division (K)(2)(b) of this section, is managed by 8805
or pursuant to a contract with the Ohio cultural facilities 8806
commission, and is used for or in connection with thecultural8807
activities of the commission, including the presentation or making 8808
available of culture to the public.8809

       (J)(I) "Manage," "operate," or "management" means the 8810
provision of, or the exercise of control over the provision of, 8811
activities:8812

       (1) Relating to culture for an Ohio cultural facility, 8813
including as applicable, but not limited to, providing for 8814
displays, exhibitions, specimens, and models; booking of artists, 8815
performances, or presentations; scheduling; and hiring or 8816
contracting for directors, curators, technical and scientific 8817
staff, ushers, stage managers, and others directly related to the 8818
cultural activities in the facility; but not including general 8819
building services;8820

       (2) Relating to sports and athletic events for an Ohio sports 8821
facility, including as applicable, but not limited to, providing 8822
for booking of athletes, teams, and events; scheduling; and hiring 8823
or contracting for staff, ushers, managers, and others directly 8824
related to the sports and athletic events in the facility; but not 8825
including general building services.8826

       (K)(J) "Ohio cultural facility" means any of the following:8827

       (1) The theaters located in the state office tower at 77 8828
South High street in Columbus;8829

       (2) Any capitalcultural facility in this state to which both 8830
of the following apply:8831

       (a) The construction of a cultural project related to the 8832
facility was authorized or funded by the general assembly pursuant 8833
to division (D)(3) of section 3383.07 of the Revised Code and 8834
proceeds of state bonds are used for costs of the cultural 8835
project.8836

       (b) The facilitythat is managed directly by, or is subject 8837
to a cooperative or management contract with, the Ohio cultural8838
facilities construction commission, and is used for or in 8839
connection with the activities of the commission, including the 8840
presentation or making available of culture to the public and the 8841
provision of training or education in culture.8842

       (3) A state historical facility or a local historical 8843
facility.8844

       (L) "State agency" means the state or any of its branches, 8845
officers, boards, commissions, authorities, departments, 8846
divisions, or other units or agencies.8847

       (M)(K) "Construction" includes acquisition, including 8848
acquisition by lease-purchase, demolition, reconstruction, 8849
alteration, renovation, remodeling, enlargement, improvement, site 8850
improvements, and related equipping and furnishing.8851

       (N)(L) "State historical facility" means a site or facility 8852
that has all of the following characteristics:8853

       (1) It is created, supervised, operated, protected, 8854
maintained, and promoted by the Ohio historical society pursuant 8855
to the society's performance of public functions under sections 8856
149.30 and 149.302 of the Revised Code.8857

       (2) Its title must reside wholly or in part with the state, 8858
the society, or both the state and the society.8859

       (3) It is managed directly by or is subject to a cooperative 8860
or management contract with the Ohio cultural facilities 8861
construction commission and is used for or in connection with the8862
cultural activities of the commission, including the presentation 8863
or making available of culture to the public.8864

       (O)(M) "Ohio sports facility" means all or a portion of a 8865
stadium, arena, tennis facility, motorsports complex, or other 8866
capital facility in this state, or a facility officially 8867
designated by the United States olympic committee as an olympic 8868
and paralympic training site that provides a significant economic 8869
benefit to the state. A primary purpose of the facility shall be 8870
to provide a site or venue for the presentation to the public of 8871
motorsports events, professional tennis tournaments, or events of 8872
one or more major or minor league professional athletic or sports 8873
teams that are associated with the state or with a city or region 8874
of the state, or training of olympic or paralympic athletes. The 8875
facility shall be, in the case of a motorsports complex, owned by 8876
the state or governmental agency, or in all other instances, owned 8877
by or located on real property owned by the state or a 8878
governmental agency, and includes all parking facilities, 8879
walkways, and other auxiliary facilities, equipment, furnishings, 8880
and real and personal property and interests and rights therein, 8881
that may be appropriate for or used for or in connection with the 8882
facility or its operation, for capital costs of which state funds 8883
are spent pursuant to this chapterthis section and section 8884
123.281 of the Revised Code. A facility constructed as an Ohio 8885
sports facility may be both an Ohio cultural facility and an Ohio 8886
sports facility.8887

       (P)(N) "Motorsports" means sporting events in which motor 8888
vehicles are driven on a clearly demarcated tracked surface.8889

       Sec. 3383.07.        Sec. 123.281.  (A) The Ohio facilities construction 8890
commission shall provide for the construction of a cultural 8891
project in conformity with Chapter 153. of the Revised Code, 8892
except as follows:8893

       (1) For a cultural project other than a state historical 8894
facility, construction services may be provided on behalf of the 8895
state by the Ohio cultural facilities commission, or byfor 8896
construction services provided on behalf of the state by a 8897
governmental agency or a cultural organization in accordance with 8898
divisions (B) and (C) of this section.8899

       (B) In order for a governmental agency or a cultural 8900
organization that occupies, will occupy, or is responsible for the 8901
Ohio cultural facility, as determined by the Ohio cultural 8902
facilities commission. For a project receiving a state 8903
appropriation of fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural 8904
facilities commission may delegate to its executive director the 8905
authority to approve the provision of construction services by 8906
such an agency or organization, but not the authority to 8907
disapprove that provision. Construction services to be provided by 8908
a governmental agency or a cultural organization shall be 8909
specified in an agreement between the Ohio cultural facilities 8910
commission and the governmental agency or cultural organization. 8911
The agreement, or any actions taken under it, are not subject to 8912
Chapter 123. or 153. of the Revised Code, except for sections 8913
123.081 and 153.011 of the Revised Code, and shall be subject to 8914
Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code.8915

       (2) For a cultural project that isto provide construction 8916
services on behalf of the state for a cultural project, other than 8917
a state historical facility, for which the general assembly has 8918
made an appropriation or specifically authorized the spending of 8919
money or the making of rental payments relating to the financing 8920
of the construction, the governmental agency or cultural 8921
organization shall submit to the Ohio facilities construction 8922
commission a cooperative agreement that includes, but is not 8923
limited to, provisions that:8924

       (1) Specify how the proposed project will support culture, as 8925
defined in section 123.28 of the Revised Code;8926

       (2) Specify that the governmental agency or cultural 8927
organization has local contributions amounting to not less than 8928
fifty per cent of the total state funding for the cultural 8929
project;8930

       (3) Specify that the funds shall be used only for 8931
construction, as defined in section 123.28 of the Revised Code;8932

       (4) Identify the facility to be constructed, renovated, 8933
remodeled, or improved;8934

       (5) Specify that the project scope meets the intent and 8935
purpose of the project appropriation and that the project can be 8936
completed and ready for full occupancy without exceeding 8937
appropriated funds;8938

       (6) Specify that the governmental agency or cultural 8939
organization shall hold the Ohio facilities construction 8940
commission harmless from all liability for the operation and 8941
maintenance costs of the facility;8942

       (7) Specify that the agreement or any actions taken under it 8943
are not subject to Chapters 123. or 153. of the Revised Code, 8944
except for section 153.011 of the Revised Code, and are subject to 8945
Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code; and8946

       (8) Provide that amendments to the agreement shall require 8947
the approval of the Ohio facilities construction commission.8948

       (C) In order for a cultural organization to provide 8949
construction services on behalf of the state for a state 8950
historical facility, construction services may be provided by the 8951
Ohio cultural facilities commission or by a cultural organization 8952
that occupies, will occupy, or is responsible for the facility, as 8953
determined by the Ohio cultural facilities commission. For a 8954
facility receiving a state appropriation of fifty thousand dollars 8955
or less, the Ohio cultural facilities commission may delegate to 8956
its executive director the authority to approve the provision of 8957
construction services by such an organization, but not the 8958
authority to disapprove that provision. The construction services 8959
to be provided by the cultural organization shall be specified in 8960
an agreement between the Ohio cultural facilities commission and 8961
the cultural organization. That agreement, and any actions taken 8962
under it, are not subject to Chapter 123., 153., or 4115. of the 8963
Revised Code.8964

       (B) For an Ohio sports facility that is financed in part by 8965
obligations issued pursuant to Chapter 154. of the Revised Code, 8966
construction services shall be provided on behalf of the state by 8967
or at the direction of the governmental agency or nonprofit 8968
corporation that will own or be responsible for the management of 8969
the facility, all as determined by the Ohio cultural facilities 8970
commission. For a facility receiving a state appropriation of 8971
fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural facilities 8972
commission may delegate to its executive director the authority to 8973
approve the provision of construction services by or at the 8974
direction of the agency or corporation, but not the authority to 8975
disapprove that provision. Any construction services to be 8976
provided by a governmental agency or nonprofit corporation shall 8977
be specified in an agreement between the Ohio cultural facilities 8978
commission and the governmental agency or nonprofit corporation. 8979
That agreement, and any actions taken under it, are not subject to 8980
Chapter 123. or 153. of the Revised Code, except for sections 8981
123.081 and 153.011 of the Revised Code, and shall be subject to 8982
Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code.8983

       (C) General building services for an Ohio cultural facility 8984
shall be provided by the Ohio cultural facilities commission or by 8985
a cultural organization that occupies, will occupy, or is 8986
responsible for the facility, as determined by the Ohio cultural 8987
facilities commission. For a facility receiving a state 8988
appropriation of fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural 8989
facilities commission may delegate to its executive director the 8990
authority to approve the provision of general building services by 8991
such an organization, but not the authority to disapprove that 8992
provision. Alternatively, the Ohio building authority may elect to 8993
provide those services for Ohio cultural facilities financed with 8994
proceeds of state bonds issued by the authority. The costs of 8995
management and general building services shall be paid by the 8996
cultural organization that occupies, will occupy, or is 8997
responsible for the facility as provided in an agreement between 8998
the Ohio cultural facilities commission and the cultural 8999
organization, except that the state may pay for general building 9000
services for state-owned cultural facilities constructed on 9001
state-owned land.9002

       General building services for an Ohio sports facility shall 9003
be provided by or at the direction of the governmental agency or 9004
nonprofit corporation that will be responsible for the management 9005
of the facility, all as determined by the Ohio cultural facilities 9006
commission. For a facility receiving a state appropriation of 9007
fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural facilities 9008
commission may delegate to its executive director the authority to 9009
approve the provision of general building services by or at the 9010
direction of the agency or corporation, but not the authority to 9011
disapprove that provision. Any general building services to be 9012
provided by a governmental agency or nonprofit corporation for an 9013
Ohio sports facility shall be specified in an agreement between 9014
the Ohio cultural facilities commission and the governmental 9015
agency or nonprofit corporation. That agreement, and any actions 9016
taken under it, are not subject to Chapter 123. or 153. of the 9017
Revised Code, except for sections 123.081 and 153.011 of the 9018
Revised Code, and shall be subject to Chapter 4115. of the Revised 9019
Code.9020

       (D) This division does not apply to a state historical 9021
facility. No state funds, including any state bond proceeds, shall 9022
be spent on the construction of any cultural project under this 9023
chapter unless, with respect to the cultural project and to the 9024
Ohio cultural facility related to the project, all of the 9025
following apply:9026

       (1) The Ohio cultural facilities commission has determined 9027
that there is a need for the cultural project and the Ohio 9028
cultural facility related to the project in the region of the 9029
state in which the Ohio cultural facility is located or for which 9030
the facility is proposed. For a project receiving a state 9031
appropriation of fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural 9032
facilities commission may delegate to its executive director the 9033
authority to determine need but only in the affirmative.9034

       (2) The Ohio cultural facilities commission has determined 9035
that, as an indication of substantial regional support for the 9036
cultural project, the cultural organization has made provision 9037
satisfactory to the Ohio cultural facilities commission, in its 9038
sole discretion, for local contributions amounting to not less 9039
than fifty per cent of the total state funding for the cultural 9040
project. For a project receiving a state appropriation of fifty 9041
thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural facilities commission 9042
may delegate to its executive director the authority to determine 9043
the adequacy of the regional support but only in the affirmative.9044

       (3) The general assembly has specifically authorized the 9045
spending of money on, or made an appropriation for, the 9046
construction of the cultural project, or for rental payments 9047
relating to the financing of the construction of the cultural 9048
project. Authorization to spend money, or an appropriation, for 9049
planning the cultural project does not constitute authorization to 9050
spend money on, or an appropriation for, construction of the 9051
cultural project.9052

       (E) No state funds, including any state bond proceeds, shall 9053
be spent on the construction of any state historical facility 9054
under this chapter unless the general assembly has specifically 9055
authorized the spending of money on, or made an appropriation for, 9056
the construction of the state historical project related to the 9057
facility, or for rental payments relating to the financing of the 9058
construction of the state historical project. Authorization to 9059
spend money, or an appropriation, for planning the state 9060
historical project does not constitute authorization to spend 9061
money on, or an appropriation for, the construction of the state 9062
historical project.9063

       (F)for which the general assembly has made an appropriation 9064
or specifically authorized the spending of money or the making of 9065
rental payments relating to the financing of the construction, the 9066
cultural organization shall submit to the Ohio facilities 9067
construction commission a cooperative agreement that includes, but 9068
is not limited to, provisions that:9069

       (1) Specify how the proposed project will support culture, as 9070
defined in section 123.28 of the Revised Code;9071

       (2) Specify that the funds shall be used only for 9072
construction, as defined in section 123.28 of the Revised Code;9073

       (3) Identify the facility to be constructed, renovated, 9074
remodeled, or improved;9075

       (4) Specify that the project scope meets the intent and 9076
purpose of the project appropriation and that the project can be 9077
completed and ready for full occupancy without exceeding 9078
appropriated funds;9079

       (5) Specify that the cultural organization shall hold the 9080
Ohio facilities construction commission harmless from all 9081
liability for the operation and maintenance costs of the facility;9082

       (6) Specify that the agreement or any actions taken under it 9083
are not subject to Chapters 123., 153., or 4115. of the Revised 9084
Code; and9085

       (7) Provide that amendments to the agreement shall require 9086
the approval of the Ohio facilities construction commission.9087

       (D) State funds shall not be used to pay or reimburse more 9088
than fifteen per cent of the initial estimated construction cost 9089
of an Ohio sports facility, excluding any site acquisition cost, 9090
and no state funds, including any state bond proceeds, shall be 9091
spent on any Ohio sports facility under this chapter unless, with 9092
respect to that facility, all of the following apply:9093

       (1) The Ohio cultural facilities construction commission has 9094
determined that there is a need for the facility in the region of 9095
the state for which the facility is proposed to provide the 9096
function of an Ohio sports facility as provided for in this 9097
chapter. For a facility receiving a state appropriation of fifty 9098
thousand dollars or less, the Ohio cultural facilities commission 9099
may delegate to its executive director the authority to determine 9100
need but only in the affirmative.9101

       (2) As an indication of substantial local support for the 9102
facility, the Ohio cultural facilities commission has received a 9103
financial and development plan satisfactory to it, and provision 9104
has been made, by agreement or otherwise, satisfactory to the Ohio 9105
cultural facilities commission, for a contribution amounting to 9106
not less than eighty-five per cent of the total estimated 9107
construction cost of the facility, excluding any site acquisition 9108
cost, from sources other than the state. For a facility receiving 9109
a state appropriation of fifty thousand dollars or less, the Ohio 9110
cultural facilities commission may delegate to its executive 9111
director the authority to evaluate the financial and development 9112
plan and the contribution and to determine their adequacy but only 9113
in the affirmative.9114

       (3)(2) The general assembly has specifically authorized the 9115
spending of money on, or made an appropriation for, the 9116
construction of the facility, or for rental payments relating to 9117
state financing of all or a portion of the costs of constructing 9118
the facility. Authorization to spend money, or an appropriation, 9119
for planning or determining the feasibility of or need for the 9120
facility does not constitute authorization to spend money on, or 9121
an appropriation for, costs of constructing the facility.9122

       (4)(3) If state bond proceeds are being used for the Ohio 9123
sports facility, the state or a governmental agency owns or has 9124
sufficient property interests in the facility or in the site of 9125
the facility or in the portion or portions of the facility 9126
financed from proceeds of state bonds, which may include, but is 9127
not limited to, the right to use or to require the use of the 9128
facility for the presentation of sport and athletic events to the 9129
public at the facility.9130

       (G)(E) In addition to the requirements of division (F)(D) of 9131
this section, no state funds, including any state bond proceeds, 9132
shall be spent on any Ohio sports facility that is a motorsports 9133
complex, unless, with respect to that facility, both of the 9134
following apply:9135

       (1) Motorsports events shall be presented at the facility 9136
pursuant to a lease entered into with the owner of the facility. 9137
The term of the lease shall be for a period of not less than the 9138
greater of the useful life of the portion of the facility financed 9139
from proceeds of state bonds as determined using the guidelines 9140
for maximum maturities as provided under divisions (B) and (C) of 9141
section 133.20 of the Revised Code, or the period of time 9142
remaining to the date of payment or provision for payment of 9143
outstanding state bonds allocable to costs of the facility, all as 9144
determined by the director of budget and management and certified 9145
by the executive director toof the Ohio cultural facilities 9146
construction commission and to the treasurer of state. 9147

       (2) Any motorsports organization that commits to using the 9148
facility for an established period of time shall give the 9149
political subdivision in which the facility is located not less 9150
than six months' advance notice if the organization intends to 9151
cease utilizing the facility prior to the expiration of that 9152
established period. Such a motorsports organization shall be 9153
liable to the state for any state funds used on the construction 9154
costs of the facility.9155

       (H)(F) In addition to the requirements of division (F)(D) of 9156
this section, no state bond proceeds shall be spent on any Ohio 9157
sports facility that is a tennis facility, unless the owner or 9158
manager of the facility provides contractual commitments from a 9159
national or international professional tennis organization in a 9160
form acceptable to the culturalOhio facilities construction9161
commission that assures that one or more sanctioned professional 9162
tennis events will be presented at the facility during each year 9163
that the bonds remain outstanding.9164

       Sec. 124.11.  The civil service of the state and the several 9165
counties, cities, civil service townships, city health districts, 9166
general health districts, and city school districts of the state 9167
shall be divided into the unclassified service and the classified 9168
service.9169

       (A) The unclassified service shall comprise the following 9170
positions, which shall not be included in the classified service, 9171
and which shall be exempt from all examinations required by this 9172
chapter:9173

       (1) All officers elected by popular vote or persons appointed 9174
to fill vacancies in those offices;9175

       (2) All election officers as defined in section 3501.01 of 9176
the Revised Code;9177

       (3)(a) The members of all boards and commissions, and heads 9178
of principal departments, boards, and commissions appointed by the 9179
governor or by and with the governor's consent; 9180

       (b) The heads of all departments appointed by a board of 9181
county commissioners;9182

       (c) The members of all boards and commissions and all heads 9183
of departments appointed by the mayor, or, if there is no mayor, 9184
such other similar chief appointing authority of any city or city 9185
school district;9186

       Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(17) or (C) of 9187
this section, this chapter does not exempt the chiefs of police 9188
departments and chiefs of fire departments of cities or civil 9189
service townships from the competitive classified service.9190

       (4) The members of county or district licensing boards or 9191
commissions and boards of revision, and not more than five deputy 9192
county auditors;9193

       (5) All officers and employees elected or appointed by either 9194
or both branches of the general assembly, and employees of the 9195
city legislative authority engaged in legislative duties;9196

       (6) All commissioned, warrant, and noncommissioned officers 9197
and enlisted persons in the Ohio organized militia, including 9198
military appointees in the adjutant general's department;9199

       (7)(a) All presidents, business managers, administrative 9200
officers, superintendents, assistant superintendents, principals, 9201
deans, assistant deans, instructors, teachers, and such employees 9202
as are engaged in educational or research duties connected with 9203
the public school system, colleges, and universities, as 9204
determined by the governing body of the public school system, 9205
colleges, and universities;9206

       (b) The library staff of any library in the state supported 9207
wholly or in part at public expense.9208

       (8) Four clerical and administrative support employees for 9209
each of the elective state officers, four clerical and 9210
administrative support employees for each board of county 9211
commissioners and one such employee for each county commissioner, 9212
and four clerical and administrative support employees for other 9213
elective officers and each of the principal appointive executive 9214
officers, boards, or commissions, except for civil service 9215
commissions, that are authorized to appoint such clerical and 9216
administrative support employees;9217

       (9) The deputies and assistants of state agencies authorized 9218
to act for and on behalf of the agency, or holding a fiduciary or 9219
administrative relation to that agency and those persons employed 9220
by and directly responsible to elected county officials or a 9221
county administrator and holding a fiduciary or administrative 9222
relationship to such elected county officials or county 9223
administrator, and the employees of such county officials whose 9224
fitness would be impracticable to determine by competitive 9225
examination, provided that division (A)(9) of this section shall 9226
not affect those persons in county employment in the classified 9227
service as of September 19, 1961. Nothing in division (A)(9) of 9228
this section applies to any position in a county department of job 9229
and family services created pursuant to Chapter 329. of the 9230
Revised Code.9231

       (10) Bailiffs, constables, official stenographers, and 9232
commissioners of courts of record, deputies of clerks of the 9233
courts of common pleas who supervise or who handle public moneys 9234
or secured documents, and such officers and employees of courts of 9235
record and such deputies of clerks of the courts of common pleas 9236
as the appointing authority finds it impracticable to determine 9237
their fitness by competitive examination;9238

       (11) Assistants to the attorney general, special counsel 9239
appointed or employed by the attorney general, assistants to 9240
county prosecuting attorneys, and assistants to city directors of 9241
law;9242

       (12) Such teachers and employees in the agricultural 9243
experiment stations; such students in normal schools, colleges, 9244
and universities of the state who are employed by the state or a 9245
political subdivision of the state in student or intern 9246
classifications; and such unskilled labor positions as the 9247
director of administrative services, with respect to positions in 9248
the service of the state, or any municipal civil service 9249
commission may find it impracticable to include in the competitive 9250
classified service; provided such exemptions shall be by order of 9251
the commission or the director, duly entered on the record of the 9252
commission or the director with the reasons for each such 9253
exemption;9254

       (13) Any physician or dentist who is a full-time employee of 9255
the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 9256
services, the department of developmental disabilities, or an 9257
institution under the jurisdiction of either department; and 9258
physicians who are in residency programs at the institutions;9259

       (14) Up to twenty positions at each institution under the 9260
jurisdiction of the department of mental healthmental health and 9261
addiction services or the department of developmental disabilities 9262
that the department director determines to be primarily 9263
administrative or managerial; and up to fifteen positions in any 9264
division of either department, excluding administrative assistants 9265
to the director and division chiefs, which are within the 9266
immediate staff of a division chief and which the director 9267
determines to be primarily and distinctively administrative and 9268
managerial;9269

       (15) Noncitizens of the United States employed by the state, 9270
or its counties or cities, as physicians or nurses who are duly 9271
licensed to practice their respective professions under the laws 9272
of this state, or medical assistants, in mental or chronic disease 9273
hospitals, or institutions;9274

       (16) Employees of the governor's office;9275

       (17) Fire chiefs and chiefs of police in civil service 9276
townships appointed by boards of township trustees under section 9277
505.38 or 505.49 of the Revised Code;9278

       (18) Executive directors, deputy directors, and program 9279
directors employed by boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 9280
mental health services under Chapter 340. of the Revised Code, and 9281
secretaries of the executive directors, deputy directors, and 9282
program directors;9283

       (19) Superintendents, and management employees as defined in 9284
section 5126.20 of the Revised Code, of county boards of 9285
developmental disabilities;9286

       (20) Physicians, nurses, and other employees of a county 9287
hospital who are appointed pursuant to sections 339.03 and 339.06 9288
of the Revised Code;9289

       (21) The executive director of the state medical board, who 9290
is appointed pursuant to division (B) of section 4731.05 of the 9291
Revised Code;9292

       (22) County directors of job and family services as provided 9293
in section 329.02 of the Revised Code and administrators appointed 9294
under section 329.021 of the Revised Code;9295

       (23) A director of economic development who is hired pursuant 9296
to division (A) of section 307.07 of the Revised Code;9297

       (24) Chiefs of construction and compliance, of operations and 9298
maintenance, of worker protection, and of licensing and 9299
certification in the division of industrial compliance in the 9300
department of commerce;9301

       (25) The executive director of a county transit system 9302
appointed under division (A) of section 306.04 of the Revised 9303
Code;9304

       (26) Up to five positions at each of the administrative 9305
departments listed in section 121.02 of the Revised Code and at 9306
the department of taxation, department of the adjutant general, 9307
department of education, Ohio board of regents, bureau of workers' 9308
compensation, industrial commission, state lottery commission, 9309
opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency, and public 9310
utilities commission of Ohio that the head of that administrative 9311
department or of that other state agency determines to be involved 9312
in policy development and implementation. The head of the 9313
administrative department or other state agency shall set the 9314
compensation for employees in these positions at a rate that is 9315
not less than the minimum compensation specified in pay range 41 9316
but not more than the maximum compensation specified in pay range 9317
4447 of salary schedule E-2 in section 124.152 of the Revised 9318
Code. The authority to establish positions in the unclassified 9319
service under division (A)(26) of this section is in addition to 9320
and does not limit any other authority that an administrative 9321
department or state agency has under the Revised Code to establish 9322
positions, appoint employees, or set compensation.9323

       (27) Employees of the department of agriculture employed 9324
under section 901.09 of the Revised Code;9325

       (28) For cities, counties, civil service townships, city 9326
health districts, general health districts, and city school 9327
districts, the deputies and assistants of elective or principal 9328
executive officers authorized to act for and in the place of their 9329
principals or holding a fiduciary relation to their principals;9330

       (29) Employees who receive intermittent or temporary 9331
appointments under division (B) of section 124.30 of the Revised 9332
Code;9333

       (30) Employees appointed to administrative staff positions 9334
for which an appointing authority is given specific statutory 9335
authority to set compensation;9336

       (31) Employees appointed to highway patrol cadet or highway 9337
patrol cadet candidate classifications;9338

       (32) Employees placed in the unclassified service by another 9339
section of the Revised Code.9340

       (B) The classified service shall comprise all persons in the 9341
employ of the state and the several counties, cities, city health 9342
districts, general health districts, and city school districts of 9343
the state, not specifically included in the unclassified service. 9344
Upon the creation by the board of trustees of a civil service 9345
township civil service commission, the classified service shall 9346
also comprise, except as otherwise provided in division (A)(17) or 9347
(C) of this section, all persons in the employ of a civil service 9348
township police or fire department having ten or more full-time 9349
paid employees. The classified service consists of two classes, 9350
which shall be designated as the competitive class and the 9351
unskilled labor class.9352

       (1) The competitive class shall include all positions and 9353
employments in the state and the counties, cities, city health 9354
districts, general health districts, and city school districts of 9355
the state, and, upon the creation by the board of trustees of a 9356
civil service township of a township civil service commission, all 9357
positions in a civil service township police or fire department 9358
having ten or more full-time paid employees, for which it is 9359
practicable to determine the merit and fitness of applicants by 9360
competitive examinations. Appointments shall be made to, or 9361
employment shall be given in, all positions in the competitive 9362
class that are not filled by promotion, reinstatement, transfer, 9363
or reduction, as provided in this chapter, and the rules of the 9364
director of administrative services, by appointment from those 9365
certified to the appointing officer in accordance with this 9366
chapter.9367

       (2) The unskilled labor class shall include ordinary 9368
unskilled laborers. Vacancies in the labor class for positions in 9369
service of the state shall be filled by appointment from lists of 9370
applicants registered by the director or the director's designee. 9371
Vacancies in the labor class for all other positions shall be 9372
filled by appointment from lists of applicants registered by a 9373
commission. The director or the commission, as applicable, by 9374
rule, shall require an applicant for registration in the labor 9375
class to furnish evidence or take tests as the director or 9376
commission considers proper with respect to age, residence, 9377
physical condition, ability to labor, honesty, sobriety, industry, 9378
capacity, and experience in the work or employment for which 9379
application is made. Laborers who fulfill the requirements shall 9380
be placed on the eligible list for the kind of labor or employment 9381
sought, and preference shall be given in employment in accordance 9382
with the rating received from that evidence or in those tests. 9383
Upon the request of an appointing officer, stating the kind of 9384
labor needed, the pay and probable length of employment, and the 9385
number to be employed, the director or commission, as applicable, 9386
shall certify from the highest on the list double the number to be 9387
employed; from this number, the appointing officer shall appoint 9388
the number actually needed for the particular work. If more than 9389
one applicant receives the same rating, priority in time of 9390
application shall determine the order in which their names shall 9391
be certified for appointment.9392

       (C) A municipal or civil service township civil service 9393
commission may place volunteer firefighters who are paid on a 9394
fee-for-service basis in either the classified or the unclassified 9395
civil service.9396

       (D)(1) This division does not apply to persons in the 9397
unclassified service who have the right to resume positions in the 9398
classified service under sections 4121.121, 5119.0715119.18, 9399
5120.38, 5120.381, 5120.382, 5123.08, 5139.02, and 5501.19 of the 9400
Revised Code or to cities, counties, or political subdivisions of 9401
the state.9402

        (2) A person who holds a position in the classified service 9403
of the state and who is appointed to a position in the 9404
unclassified service shall retain the right to resume the position 9405
and status held by the person in the classified service 9406
immediately prior to the person's appointment to the position in 9407
the unclassified service, regardless of the number of positions 9408
the person held in the unclassified service. An employee's right 9409
to resume a position in the classified service may only be 9410
exercised when an appointing authority demotes the employee to a 9411
pay range lower than the employee's current pay range or revokes 9412
the employee's appointment to the unclassified service and:9413

        (a) That person held a certified position prior to July 1, 9414
2007, in the classified service within the appointing authority's 9415
agency; or9416

        (b) That person held a permanent position on or after July 1, 9417
2007, in the classified service within the appointing authority's 9418
agency.9419

        (3) An employee forfeits the right to resume a position in 9420
the classified service when:9421

       (a) The employee is removed from the position in the 9422
unclassified service due to incompetence, inefficiency, 9423
dishonesty, drunkenness, immoral conduct, insubordination, 9424
discourteous treatment of the public, neglect of duty, violation 9425
of this chapter or the rules of the director of administrative 9426
services, any other failure of good behavior, any other acts of 9427
misfeasance, malfeasance, or nonfeasance in office, or conviction 9428
of a felony; or9429

       (b) Upon transfer to a different agency.9430

       (4) Reinstatement to a position in the classified service 9431
shall be to a position substantially equal to that position in the 9432
classified service held previously, as certified by the director 9433
of administrative services. If the position the person previously 9434
held in the classified service has been placed in the unclassified 9435
service or is otherwise unavailable, the person shall be appointed 9436
to a position in the classified service within the appointing 9437
authority's agency that the director of administrative services 9438
certifies is comparable in compensation to the position the person 9439
previously held in the classified service. Service in the position 9440
in the unclassified service shall be counted as service in the 9441
position in the classified service held by the person immediately 9442
prior to the person's appointment to the position in the 9443
unclassified service. When a person is reinstated to a position in 9444
the classified service as provided in this division, the person is 9445
entitled to all rights, status, and benefits accruing to the 9446
position in the classified service during the person's time of 9447
service in the position in the unclassified service.9448

       Sec. 124.14.  (A)(1) The director of administrative services 9449
shall establish, and may modify or rescind, by rule, a job 9450
classification plan for all positions, offices, and employments 9451
the salaries of which are paid in whole or in part byin the 9452
service of the state. The director shall group jobs within a 9453
classification so that the positions are similar enough in duties 9454
and responsibilities to be described by the same title, to have 9455
the same pay assigned with equity, and to have the same 9456
qualifications for selection applied. The director shall, by rule, 9457
assign a classification title to each classification within the 9458
classification plan. However, the director shall consider in 9459
establishing classifications, including classifications with 9460
parenthetical titles, and assigning pay ranges such factors as 9461
duties performed only on one shift, special skills in short supply 9462
in the labor market, recruitment problems, separation rates, 9463
comparative salary rates, the amount of training required, and 9464
other conditions affecting employment. The director shall describe 9465
the duties and responsibilities of the class, establish the 9466
qualifications for being employed in each position in the class, 9467
and file with the secretary of state a copy of specifications for 9468
all of the classifications. The director shall file new, 9469
additional, or revised specifications with the secretary of state 9470
before they are used. 9471

       The director shall, by rule, assign each classification, 9472
either on a statewide basis or in particular counties or state 9473
institutions, to a pay range established under section 124.15 or 9474
section 124.152 of the Revised Code. The director may assign a 9475
classification to a pay range on a temporary basis for a period of 9476
six months. The director may establish, by rule adopted under 9477
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, experimental classification 9478
plans for some or all employees paid directly by warrant of the 9479
director of budget and management. The rule shall include 9480
specifications for each classification within the plan and shall 9481
specifically address compensation ranges, and methods for 9482
advancing within the ranges, for the classifications, which may be 9483
assigned to pay ranges other than the pay ranges established under 9484
section 124.15 or 124.152 of the Revised Code.9485

       (2) The director of administrative services may reassign to a 9486
proper classification those positions that have been assigned to 9487
an improper classification. If the compensation of an employee in 9488
such a reassigned position exceeds the maximum rate of pay for the 9489
employee's new classification, the employee shall be placed in pay 9490
step X and shall not receive an increase in compensation until the 9491
maximum rate of pay for that classification exceeds the employee's 9492
compensation.9493

       (3) The director may reassign an exempt employee, as defined 9494
in section 124.152 of the Revised Code, to a bargaining unit 9495
classification if the director determines that the bargaining unit 9496
classification is the proper classification for that employee. 9497
Notwithstanding Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code or instruments 9498
and contracts negotiated under it, these placements are at the 9499
director's discretion.9500

       (4) The director shall, by rule, assign related 9501
classifications, which form a career progression, to a 9502
classification series. The director shall, by rule, assign each 9503
classification in the classification plan a five-digit number, the 9504
first four digits of which shall denote the classification series 9505
to which the classification is assigned. When a career progression 9506
encompasses more than ten classifications, the director shall, by 9507
rule, identify the additional classifications belonging to a 9508
classification series. The additional classifications shall be 9509
part of the classification series, notwithstanding the fact that 9510
the first four digits of the number assigned to the additional 9511
classifications do not correspond to the first four digits of the 9512
numbers assigned to other classifications in the classification 9513
series.9514

       (B) Division (A) of this section and sections 124.15 and 9515
124.152 of the Revised Code do not apply to the following persons, 9516
positions, offices, and employments:9517

       (1) Elected officials;9518

       (2) Legislative employees, employees of the legislative 9519
service commission, employees in the office of the governor, 9520
employees who are in the unclassified civil service and exempt 9521
from collective bargaining coverage in the office of the secretary 9522
of state, auditor of state, treasurer of state, and attorney 9523
general, and employees of the supreme court;9524

       (3) Any position for which the authority to determine 9525
compensation is given by law to another individual or entity;9526

       (4) Employees of the bureau of workers' compensation whose 9527
compensation the administrator of workers' compensation 9528
establishes under division (B) of section 4121.121 of the Revised 9529
Code.9530

       (C) The director may employ a consulting agency to aid and 9531
assist the director in carrying out this section.9532

       (D)(1) When the director proposes to modify a classification 9533
or the assignment of classes to appropriate pay ranges, the 9534
director shall send written notice of the proposed rule to the 9535
appointing authorities of the affected employees thirty days 9536
before a hearing on the proposed rule. The appointing authorities 9537
shall notify the affected employees regarding the proposed rule. 9538
The director also shall send those appointing authorities notice 9539
of any final rule that is adopted within ten days after adoption.9540

       (2) When the director proposes to reclassify any employee in 9541
the service of the state so that the employee is adversely 9542
affected, the director shall give to the employee affected and to 9543
the employee's appointing authority a written notice setting forth 9544
the proposed new classification, pay range, and salary. Upon the 9545
request of any classified employee in the service of the state who 9546
is not serving in a probationary period, the director shall 9547
perform a job audit to review the classification of the employee's 9548
position to determine whether the position is properly classified. 9549
The director shall give to the employee affected and to the 9550
employee's appointing authority a written notice of the director's 9551
determination whether or not to reclassify the position or to 9552
reassign the employee to another classification. An employee or 9553
appointing authority desiring a hearing shall file a written 9554
request for the hearing with the state personnel board of review 9555
within thirty days after receiving the notice. The board shall set 9556
the matter for a hearing and notify the employee and appointing 9557
authority of the time and place of the hearing. The employee, the 9558
appointing authority, or any authorized representative of the 9559
employee who wishes to submit facts for the consideration of the 9560
board shall be afforded reasonable opportunity to do so. After the 9561
hearing, the board shall consider anew the reclassification and 9562
may order the reclassification of the employee and require the 9563
director to assign the employee to such appropriate classification 9564
as the facts and evidence warrant. As provided in division (A)(1) 9565
of section 124.03 of the Revised Code, the board may determine the 9566
most appropriate classification for the position of any employee 9567
coming before the board, with or without a job audit. The board 9568
shall disallow any reclassification or reassignment classification 9569
of any employee when it finds that changes have been made in the 9570
duties and responsibilities of any particular employee for 9571
political, religious, or other unjust reasons.9572

       (E)(1) Employees of each county department of job and family 9573
services shall be paid a salary or wage established by the board 9574
of county commissioners. The provisions of section 124.18 of the 9575
Revised Code concerning the standard work week apply to employees 9576
of county departments of job and family services. A board of 9577
county commissioners may do either of the following:9578

       (a) Notwithstanding any other section of the Revised Code, 9579
supplement the sick leave, vacation leave, personal leave, and 9580
other benefits of any employee of the county department of job and 9581
family services of that county, if the employee is eligible for 9582
the supplement under a written policy providing for the 9583
supplement;9584

       (b) Notwithstanding any other section of the Revised Code, 9585
establish alternative schedules of sick leave, vacation leave, 9586
personal leave, or other benefits for employees not inconsistent 9587
with the provisions of a collective bargaining agreement covering 9588
the affected employees.9589

       (2) Division (E)(1) of this section does not apply to 9590
employees for whom the state employment relations board 9591
establishes appropriate bargaining units pursuant to section 9592
4117.06 of the Revised Code, except in either of the following 9593
situations:9594

       (a) The employees for whom the state employment relations 9595
board establishes appropriate bargaining units elect no 9596
representative in a board-conducted representation election.9597

       (b) After the state employment relations board establishes 9598
appropriate bargaining units for such employees, all employee 9599
organizations withdraw from a representation election.9600

       (F)(1) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of sections 9601
124.01 to 124.64 of the Revised Code, the board of trustees of 9602
each state university or college, as defined in section 3345.12 of 9603
the Revised Code, shall carry out all matters of governance 9604
involving the officers and employees of the university or college, 9605
including, but not limited to, the powers, duties, and functions 9606
of the department of administrative services and the director of 9607
administrative services specified in this chapter. Officers and 9608
employees of a state university or college shall have the right of 9609
appeal to the state personnel board of review as provided in this 9610
chapter.9611

       (2) Each board of trustees shall adopt rules under section 9612
111.15 of the Revised Code to carry out the matters of governance 9613
described in division (F)(1) of this section. Until the board of 9614
trustees adopts those rules, a state university or college shall 9615
continue to operate pursuant to the applicable rules adopted by 9616
the director of administrative services under this chapter.9617

       (G)(1) Each board of county commissioners may, by a 9618
resolution adopted by a majority of its members, establish a 9619
county personnel department to exercise the powers, duties, and 9620
functions specified in division (G) of this section. As used in 9621
division (G) of this section, "county personnel department" means 9622
a county personnel department established by a board of county 9623
commissioners under division (G)(1) of this section.9624

       (2)(a) Each board of county commissioners, by a resolution 9625
adopted by a majority of its members, may designate the county 9626
personnel department of the county to exercise the powers, duties, 9627
and functions specified in sections 124.01 to 124.64 and Chapter 9628
325. of the Revised Code with regard to employees in the service 9629
of the county, except for the powers and duties of the state 9630
personnel board of review, which powers and duties shall not be 9631
construed as having been modified or diminished in any manner by 9632
division (G)(2) of this section, with respect to the employees for 9633
whom the board of county commissioners is the appointing authority 9634
or co-appointing authority. 9635

       (b) Nothing in division (G)(2) of this section shall be 9636
construed to limit the right of any employee who possesses the 9637
right of appeal to the state personnel board of review to continue 9638
to possess that right of appeal.9639

       (c) Any board of county commissioners that has established a 9640
county personnel department may contract with the department of 9641
administrative services, in accordance with division (H) of this 9642
section, another political subdivision, or an appropriate public 9643
or private entity to provide competitive testing services or other 9644
appropriate services.9645

       (3) After the county personnel department of a county has 9646
been established as described in division (G)(2) of this section, 9647
any elected official, board, agency, or other appointing authority 9648
of that county, upon written notification to the county personnel 9649
department, may elect to use the services and facilities of the 9650
county personnel department. Upon receipt of the notification by 9651
the county personnel department, the county personnel department 9652
shall exercise the powers, duties, and functions as described in 9653
division (G)(2) of this section with respect to the employees of 9654
that elected official, board, agency, or other appointing 9655
authority. 9656

       (4) Each board of county commissioners, by a resolution 9657
adopted by a majority of its members, may disband the county 9658
personnel department. 9659

       (5) Any elected official, board, agency, or appointing 9660
authority of a county may end its involvement with a county 9661
personnel department upon actual receipt by the department of a 9662
certified copy of the notification that contains the decision to 9663
no longer participate.9664

       (6) A county personnel department, in carrying out its 9665
duties, shall adhere to merit system principles with regard to 9666
employees of county departments of job and family services, child 9667
support enforcement agencies, and public child welfare agencies so 9668
that there is no threatened loss of federal funding for these 9669
agencies, and the county is financially liable to the state for 9670
any loss of federal funds due to the action or inaction of the 9671
county personnel department. 9672

       (H) County agencies may contract with the department of 9673
administrative services for any human resources services, 9674
including, but not limited to, establishment and modification of 9675
job classification plans, competitive testing services, and 9676
periodic audits and reviews of the county's uniform application of 9677
the powers, duties, and functions specified in sections 124.01 to 9678
124.64 and Chapter 325. of the Revised Code with regard to 9679
employees in the service of the county. Nothing in this division 9680
modifies the powers and duties of the state personnel board of 9681
review with respect to employees in the service of the county. 9682
Nothing in this division limits the right of any employee who 9683
possesses the right of appeal to the state personnel board of 9684
review to continue to possess that right of appeal.9685

       (I) The director of administrative services shall establish 9686
the rate and method of compensation for all employees who are paid 9687
directly by warrant of the director of budget and management and 9688
who are serving in positions that the director of administrative 9689
services has determined impracticable to include in the state job 9690
classification plan. This division does not apply to elected 9691
officials, legislative employees, employees of the legislative 9692
service commission, employees who are in the unclassified civil 9693
service and exempt from collective bargaining coverage in the 9694
office of the secretary of state, auditor of state, treasurer of 9695
state, and attorney general, employees of the courts, employees of 9696
the bureau of workers' compensation whose compensation the 9697
administrator of workers' compensation establishes under division 9698
(B) of section 4121.121 of the Revised Code, or employees of an 9699
appointing authority authorized by law to fix the compensation of 9700
those employees.9701

       (J) The director of administrative services shall set the 9702
rate of compensation for all intermittent, seasonal, temporary, 9703
emergency, and casual employees in the service of the state who 9704
are not considered public employees under section 4117.01 of the 9705
Revised Code. Those employees are not entitled to receive employee 9706
benefits. This rate of compensation shall be equitable in terms of 9707
the rate of employees serving in the same or similar 9708
classifications. This division does not apply to elected 9709
officials, legislative employees, employees of the legislative 9710
service commission, employees who are in the unclassified civil 9711
service and exempt from collective bargaining coverage in the 9712
office of the secretary of state, auditor of state, treasurer of 9713
state, and attorney general, employees of the courts, employees of 9714
the bureau of workers' compensation whose compensation the 9715
administrator establishes under division (B) of section 4121.121 9716
of the Revised Code, or employees of an appointing authority 9717
authorized by law to fix the compensation of those employees.9718

       Sec. 124.18.  (A) Forty hours shall be the standard work week 9719
for all employees whose salary or wage is paid in whole or in part 9720
by the state or by any state-supported college or university. When 9721
any employee whose salary or wage is paid in whole or in part by 9722
the state or by any state-supported college or university is 9723
required by an authorized administrative authority to be in an 9724
active pay status more than forty hours in any calendar week, the 9725
employee shall be compensated for such time over forty hours, 9726
except as otherwise provided in this section, at one and one-half 9727
times the employee's regular rate of pay. The use of sick leave or 9728
any leave used in lieu of sick leave shall not be considered to be 9729
active pay status for the purposes of earning overtime or 9730
compensatory time by employees whose wages are paid directly by 9731
warrant of the director of budget and management. A flexible-hours 9732
employee is not entitled to compensation for overtime work unless 9733
the employee's authorized administrative authority required the 9734
employee to be in active pay status for more than forty hours in a 9735
calendar week, regardless of the number of hours the employee 9736
works on any day in the same calendar week.9737

       Such compensation for overtime work shall be paid no later 9738
than at the conclusion of the next succeeding pay period.9739

       If the employee elects to take compensatory time off in lieu 9740
of overtime pay for any overtime worked, such compensatory time 9741
shall be granted by the employee's administrative superior, on a 9742
time and one-half basis, at a time mutually convenient to the 9743
employee and the administrative superior. Compensatory time is not 9744
available for use until it appears on the employee's earning 9745
statement and the compensation described in the earning statement 9746
is available to the employee.9747

       An employee may accrue compensatory time to a maximum of two 9748
hundred forty hours, except that public safety employees and other 9749
employees who meet the criteria established in the "Federal Fair 9750
Labor Standards Act of 1938," 52 Stat. 1060, 29 U.S.C.A. 207, 213, 9751
as amended, may accrue a maximum of four hundred eighty hours of 9752
compensatory time. An employee shall be paid at the employee's 9753
regular rate of pay for any hours of compensatory time accrued in 9754
excess of these maximum amounts if the employee has not used the 9755
compensatory time within three hundred sixty-five days after it is 9756
granted, if the employee transfers to another agency of the state, 9757
or if a change in the employee's status exempts the employee from 9758
the payment of overtime compensation. Upon the termination of 9759
employment, any employee with accrued but unused compensatory time 9760
shall be paid for that time at a rate that is the greater of the 9761
employee's final regular rate of pay or the employee's average 9762
regular rate of pay during the employee's last three years of 9763
employment with the state.9764

       No overtime, as described in this section, can be paid unless 9765
it has been authorized by the authorized administrative authority. 9766
Employees may be exempted from the payment of compensation as 9767
required by this section only under the criteria for exemption 9768
from the payment of overtime compensation established in the 9769
"Federal Fair Labor Standards Act of 1938," 52 Stat. 1060, 29 9770
U.S.C.A. 207, 213, as amended. With the approval of the director 9771
of administrative services, the appointing authority may establish 9772
a policy to grant compensatory time or to pay compensation to 9773
state employees in the service of the state who are exempt from 9774
overtime compensation. With the approval of the board of county 9775
commissioners, a county human services department may establish a 9776
policy to grant compensatory time or to pay compensation to 9777
employees of the department who are exempt from overtime 9778
compensation.9779

       (B)(1) An employee, whose salary or wage is paid in whole or 9780
in part by the state, shall be paid for the holidays declared in 9781
section 124.19 of the Revised Code and shall not be required to 9782
work on those holidays, unless, in the opinion of the employee's 9783
responsible administrative authority, failure to work on those 9784
holidays would impair the public service. 9785

       (2) An employee paid directly by warrant of the director of 9786
budget and management who is scheduled to work on the first day of 9787
January, the commemoration of memorial day, the fourth day of 9788
July, the fourth Thursday in November, or the twenty-fifth day of 9789
December and who does not report to work the day before, the day 9790
of, or the day after the holiday due to an illness of the employee 9791
or of a member of the employee's immediate family shall not 9792
receive holiday pay as provided by this division, unless the 9793
employee can provide documentation of extenuating circumstances 9794
that prohibited the employee from so reporting to work. If the 9795
employee works a shift between the employee's scheduled shift and 9796
the holiday, the employee shall be paid for the holiday.9797

       (3) An employee also shall not be paid for a holiday unless 9798
the employee was in active pay status on the scheduled work day 9799
immediately preceding the holiday, except that an employee need 9800
not be in active pay status on that work day in order to be paid 9801
for the holiday if the employee is participating in a mandatory or 9802
voluntary cost savings day under section 124.392 of the Revised 9803
Code. 9804

       (4) If any of the holidays declared in section 124.19 of the 9805
Revised Code falls on Saturday, the Friday immediately preceding 9806
shall be observed as the holiday. If any of the holidays declared 9807
in section 124.19 of the Revised Code falls on Sunday, the Monday 9808
immediately succeeding shall be observed as the holiday. Employees 9809
whose work schedules are based on the requirements of a 9810
seven-days-a-week work operation shall observe holidays on the 9811
actual days specified in section 124.19 of the Revised Code.9812

       (5) If an employee's work schedule is other than Monday 9813
through Friday, the employee shall be entitled to eight hours of 9814
holiday pay for holidays observed on the employee's day off 9815
regardless of the day of the week on which they are observed. 9816

       (6) A full-time permanent employee is entitled to a minimum 9817
of eight hours of pay for each holiday regardless of the 9818
employee's work shift and work schedule. A flexible-hours 9819
employee, who is normally scheduled to work in excess of eight 9820
hours on a day on which a holiday falls, either shall be required 9821
to work an alternate schedule for that week or shall receive 9822
additional holiday pay for the hours the employee is normally 9823
scheduled to work. Such an alternate schedule may require a 9824
flexible-hours employee to work five shifts consisting of eight 9825
hours each during the week including the holiday, and, in that 9826
case, the employee shall receive eight hours of holiday pay for 9827
the day the holiday is observed. 9828

        (7) Except as provided under section 124.392 of the Revised 9829
Code, part-time permanent employees shall receive four hours of 9830
holiday pay regardless of the employee's work shift and work 9831
schedule. 9832

       (8) When an employee who is eligible for overtime pay under 9833
this section is required by the employee's responsible 9834
administrative authority to work on the day observed as a holiday, 9835
the employee shall be entitled to pay for such time worked at one 9836
and one-half times the employee's regular rate of pay in addition 9837
to the employee's regular pay, or to be granted compensatory time 9838
off at time and one-half thereafter, at the employee's option. 9839
Payment at such rate shall be excluded in the calculation of hours 9840
in active pay status.9841

       (C) Each appointing authority may designate the number of 9842
employees in an agency who are flexible-hours employees. The 9843
appointing authority may establish for each flexible-hours 9844
employee a specified minimum number of hours to be worked each day 9845
that is consistent with the "Federal Fair Labor Standards Act of 9846
1938," 52 Stat. 1060, 29 U.S.C.A. 207, 213, as amended.9847

       (D) This section shall be uniformly administered for 9848
employees as defined in section 124.01 of the Revised Code and by 9849
the personnel departments of state-supported colleges and 9850
universities for employees of state-supported colleges and 9851
universities. If employees are not paid directly by warrant of the 9852
director of budget and management, the political subdivision shall 9853
determine whether the use of sick leave shall be considered to be 9854
active pay status for purposes of those employees earning overtime 9855
or compensatory time.9856

       (E) Policies relating to the payment of overtime pay or the 9857
granting of compensatory time off shall be adopted by the chief 9858
administrative officer of the house of representatives for 9859
employees of the house of representatives, by the clerk of the 9860
senate for employees of the senate, and by the director of the 9861
legislative service commission for all other legislative 9862
employees.9863

       (F) As used in this section, "regular rate of pay" means the 9864
base rate of pay an employee receives plus any pay supplements 9865
received pursuant to section 124.181 of the Revised Code.9866

       Sec. 124.30.  (A) Classified positions in the civil service 9867
may be filled without competition as follows:9868

       (1) Whenever there are urgent reasons for filling a vacancy 9869
in any position in the classified civil service and the director 9870
of administrative services is unable to certify to the appointing 9871
authority, upon its request, a list of persons eligible for 9872
appointment to the position after a competitive examination, the 9873
appointing authority may fill the position by noncompetitive 9874
examination.9875

        A temporary appointment may be made without regard to the 9876
rules of sections 124.01 to 124.64 of the Revised Code. Except as 9877
otherwise provided in this division, the temporary appointment may 9878
not continue longer than one hundred twenty days, and in no case 9879
shall successive temporary appointments be made. A temporary 9880
appointment longer than one hundred twenty days may be made if 9881
necessary by reason of sickness, disability, or other approved 9882
leave of absence of regular officers or employees, in which case 9883
it may continue during the period of sickness, disability, or 9884
other approved leave of absence, subject to the rules of the 9885
director.9886

       (2) In case of a vacancy in a position in the classified 9887
civil service where peculiar and exceptional qualifications of a 9888
scientific, managerial, professional, or educational character are 9889
required, and upon satisfactory evidence that for specified 9890
reasons competition in this special case is impracticable and that 9891
the position can best be filled by a selection of some designated 9892
person of high and recognized attainments in those qualities, the 9893
director may suspend the provisions of sections 124.01 to 124.64 9894
of the Revised Code that require competition in this special case, 9895
but no suspension shall be general in its application. All such 9896
cases of suspension shall be reported in the annual report of the 9897
director with the reasons for each suspension. The director shall 9898
suspend the provisions when theeither of the following applies:9899

       (a) The director of job and family services provides the 9900
certification under section 5101.051 of the Revised Code that a 9901
position with the department of job and family services can best 9902
be filled if the provisions are suspended;9903

       (b) The medicaid director provides the certification under 9904
section 5160.051 of the Revised Code that a position with the 9905
department of medicaid can best be filled if the provisions are 9906
suspended.9907

       (3) The acceptance or refusal by an eligible person of a 9908
temporary appointment shall not affect the person's standing on 9909
the eligible list for permanent appointment, nor shall the period 9910
of temporary service be counted as a part of the probationary 9911
service in case of subsequent appointment to a permanent position.9912

       (B) Persons who receive temporary or intermittent 9913
appointments are in the unclassified civil service and serve at 9914
the pleasure of their appointing authority.9915

       Sec. 124.341.  (A) If an employee in the classified or 9916
unclassified civil service becomes aware in the course of 9917
employment of a violation of state or federal statutes, rules, or 9918
regulations or the misuse of public resources, and the employee's 9919
supervisor or appointing authority has authority to correct the 9920
violation or misuse, the employee may file a written report 9921
identifying the violation or misuse with the supervisor or 9922
appointing authority. In addition to or instead of filing a 9923
written report with the supervisor or appointing authority, the 9924
employee may file a written report with the office of internal 9925
auditingaudit created under section 126.45 of the Revised Code or 9926
file a complaint with the auditor of state's fraud-reporting 9927
system under section 117.103 of the Revised Code.9928

       If the employee reasonably believes that a violation or 9929
misuse of public resources is a criminal offense, the employee, in 9930
addition to or instead of filing a written report or complaint 9931
with the supervisor, appointing authority, the office of internal 9932
auditingaudit, or the auditor of state's fraud-reporting system, 9933
may report it to a prosecuting attorney, director of law, village 9934
solicitor, or similar chief legal officer of a municipal 9935
corporation, to a peace officer, as defined in section 2935.01 of 9936
the Revised Code, or, if the violation or misuse of public 9937
resources is within the jurisdiction of the inspector general, to 9938
the inspector general in accordance with section 121.46 of the 9939
Revised Code. In addition to that report, if the employee 9940
reasonably believes the violation or misuse is also a violation of 9941
Chapter 102., section 2921.42, or section 2921.43 of the Revised 9942
Code, the employee may report it to the appropriate ethics 9943
commission.9944

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in division (C) of this 9945
section, no officer or employee in the classified or unclassified 9946
civil service shall take any disciplinary action against an 9947
employee in the classified or unclassified civil service for 9948
making any report or filing a complaint as authorized by division 9949
(A) of this section, including, without limitation, doing any of 9950
the following:9951

       (1) Removing or suspending the employee from employment;9952

       (2) Withholding from the employee salary increases or 9953
employee benefits to which the employee is otherwise entitled;9954

       (3) Transferring or reassigning the employee;9955

       (4) Denying the employee promotion that otherwise would have 9956
been received;9957

       (5) Reducing the employee in pay or position.9958

       (C) An employee in the classified or unclassified civil 9959
service shall make a reasonable effort to determine the accuracy 9960
of any information reported under division (A) of this section. 9961
The employee is subject to disciplinary action, including 9962
suspension or removal, as determined by the employee's appointing 9963
authority, for purposely, knowingly, or recklessly reporting false 9964
information under division (A) of this section.9965

       (D) If an appointing authority takes any disciplinary or 9966
retaliatory action against a classified or unclassified employee 9967
as a result of the employee's having filed a report or complaint 9968
under division (A) of this section, the employee's sole and 9969
exclusive remedy, notwithstanding any other provision of law, is 9970
to file an appeal with the state personnel board of review within 9971
thirty days after receiving actual notice of the appointing 9972
authority's action. If the employee files such an appeal, the 9973
board shall immediately notify the employee's appointing authority 9974
and shall hear the appeal. The board may affirm or disaffirm the 9975
action of the appointing authority or may issue any other order as 9976
is appropriate. The order of the board is appealable in accordance 9977
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.9978

       (E) As used in this section:9979

       (1) "Purposely," "knowingly," and "recklessly" have the same 9980
meanings as in section 2901.22 of the Revised Code.9981

       (2) "Appropriate ethics commission" has the same meaning as 9982
in section 102.01 of the Revised Code.9983

       (3) "Inspector general" means the inspector general appointed 9984
under section 121.48 of the Revised Code.9985

       Sec. 124.381.  (A)(1)(a) An employee in the service of the 9986
state may be eligible to receive salary continuation not to exceed 9987
four hundred eighty hours at the employee's total rate of pay for 9988
absence as a result of injury incurred during the performance of, 9989
or arising out of, state employment. When an eligible employee's 9990
absence as a result of such an injury extends beyond four hundred 9991
eighty hours, the employee immediately becomes subject to sections 9992
124.382 and 124.385 of the Revised Code regarding sick leave and 9993
disability leave benefits.9994

       An employee is ineligible to receive salary continuation 9995
until the date of implementation is established in the rules 9996
adopted under division (C)(1) of this section.9997

       (b) Employees of the secretary of state, auditor of state, 9998
treasurer of state, attorney general, supreme court, general 9999
assembly, or legislative service commission are not subject to 10000
division (A)(1)(a) of this section unless the relevant appointing 10001
authority notifies the director of administrative services in 10002
writing of the intent to have all of the appointing authority's 10003
employees participate in salary continuation. The relevant 10004
appointing authority also may discontinue salary continuation for 10005
all of its employees by providing written notice of the 10006
discontinuation to the director.10007

       Participation in salary continuation is subject to rules 10008
adopted under division (C)(1) of this section.10009

        (2) Each employee of the department of rehabilitation and 10010
correction, the department of mental healthmental health and 10011
addiction services, the department of developmental disabilities, 10012
the department of veterans services, or the Ohio schools for the 10013
deaf and blind, and each employee of the department of youth 10014
services as established in division (A) of section 124.14 of the 10015
Revised Code who sustains a qualifying physical condition 10016
inflicted by a ward of these agencies during the time the employee 10017
is lawfully carrying out the assigned duties of the employee's 10018
position shall be paid occupational injury leave at the employee's 10019
total rate of pay during the period the employee is disabled as a 10020
result of that qualifying physical condition, but in no case to 10021
exceed nine hundred sixty hours, in lieu of workers' compensation. 10022
Pay made according to this division shall not be charged to the 10023
employee's accumulation of sick leave credit. In any case when an 10024
employee's disability as a result of such a qualifying physical 10025
condition extends beyond nine hundred sixty hours, the employee 10026
immediately becomes subject to sections 124.382 and 124.385 of the 10027
Revised Code regarding sick leave and disability leave benefits.10028

        (B) An employee who is receiving salary continuation or 10029
occupational injury leave under division (A)(1) or (2) of this 10030
section is not eligible for other paid leave, including holiday 10031
pay, while receiving benefits under either division. While an 10032
employee is receiving salary continuation or occupational injury 10033
leave under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section, vacation leave 10034
credit ceases to accrue to the employee under section 124.134 of 10035
the Revised Code, but sick leave credit and personal leave credit 10036
continue to accrue to the employee under sections 124.382 and 10037
124.386 of the Revised Code.10038

       (C)(1) The director of administrative services shall adopt 10039
rules for the administration of both the salary continuation 10040
program and the occupational injury leave program. The rules shall 10041
include, but not be limited to, provisions for determining a 10042
disability, for filing a claim for leave under this section, and 10043
for allowing or denying claims for the leave.10044

       (2) The director also may adopt rules for the payment of 10045
health benefits while an employee is on workers' compensation 10046
leave.10047

       (D) An appointing authority may apply to the director of 10048
administrative services to grant salary continuation under 10049
division (A)(1) of this section or occupational injury leave under 10050
division (A)(2) of this section to law enforcement personnel 10051
employed by the agency.10052

       Sec. 124.57.  (A) No officer or employee in the classified 10053
service of the state, the several counties, cities, and city 10054
school districts of the state, or the civil service townships of 10055
the state shall directly or indirectly, orally or by letter, 10056
solicit or receive, or be in any manner concerned in soliciting or 10057
receiving, any assessment, subscription, or contribution for any 10058
political party or for any candidate for public office; nor shall 10059
any person solicit directly or indirectly, orally or by letter, or 10060
be in any manner concerned in soliciting, any such assessment, 10061
contribution, or payment from any officer or employee in the 10062
classified service of the state, the several counties, cities, or 10063
city school districts of the state, or the civil service townships 10064
of the state; nor shall any officer or employee in the classified 10065
service of the state, the several counties, cities, and city 10066
school districts of the state, or the civil service townships of 10067
the state be an officer in any political organization or take part 10068
in politics other than to vote as the officer or employee pleases 10069
and to express freely political opinions.10070

       (B)(1) Nothing in division (A) of this section prohibits an 10071
officer or employee described in that division from serving as a 10072
precinct election official under section 3501.22 of the Revised 10073
Code.10074

       (2) Nothing in division (A) of this section prohibits an 10075
employee of the Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service whose 10076
position is transferred from the unclassified civil service to the 10077
classified civil service and who also holds the office of 10078
president of a city legislative authority from completing the 10079
existing term of office as president.10080

       Sec. 124.84.  (A) The department of administrative services, 10081
in consultation with the superintendent of insurance and subject 10082
to division (D) of this section, shallmay negotiate and contract 10083
with one or more insurance companies or health insuring 10084
corporations authorized to operate or do business in this state 10085
for the purchase of a policy of long-term care insurance covering 10086
all state employees who are paid directly by warrant of the 10087
director of budget and management, including elected state 10088
officials. Any policy purchased under this division shall be 10089
negotiated and entered into in accordance with the competitive 10090
selection procedures specified in Chapter 125. of the Revised 10091
Code. As used in this section, "long-term care insurance" has the 10092
same meaning as in section 3923.41 of the Revised Code.10093

       (B) Any elected state official or state employee paid 10094
directly by warrant of the director of budget and management may 10095
elect to participate in any long-term care insurance policy 10096
purchased under division (A) of this section. All or any portion 10097
of the premium charged may be paid by the state. Participation in 10098
the policy may include the dependents and family members of the 10099
elected state official or state employee.10100

       If a participant in a long-term care insurance policy leaves 10101
employment, the participant and the participant's dependents and 10102
family members may, at their election, continue to participate in 10103
a policy established under this section. The manner of payment and 10104
the portion of premium charged the participant, dependent, and 10105
family member shall be established pursuant to division (E) of 10106
this section.10107

       (C) Any long-term care insurance policy purchased under this 10108
section or section 124.841 or 145.581 of the Revised Code shall 10109
provide for all of the following with respect to the premiums 10110
charged for the policy:10111

       (1) They shall be set at the entry age of the official or 10112
employee when first covered by the policy and shall not increase 10113
except as a class during coverage under the policy.10114

       (2) They shall be based on the class of all officials or 10115
employees covered by the policy.10116

       (3) They shall continue, pursuant to section 145.581 of the 10117
Revised Code, after the retirement of the official or employee who 10118
is covered under the policy, at the rate in effect on the date of 10119
the official's or employee's retirement.10120

       (D) Prior to entering into a contract with an insurance 10121
company or health insuring corporation for the purchase of a 10122
long-term care insurance policy under this section, the department 10123
shall request the superintendent of insurance to certify the 10124
financial condition of the company or corporation. The department 10125
shall not enter into the contract if, according to that 10126
certification, the company or corporation is insolvent, is 10127
determined by the superintendent to be potentially unable to 10128
fulfill its contractual obligations, or is placed under an order 10129
of rehabilitation or conservation by a court of competent 10130
jurisdiction or under an order of supervision by the 10131
superintendent.10132

       (E) The department shall adopt rules in accordance with 10133
section 111.15 of the Revised Code governing long-term care 10134
insurance purchased under this section. All or any portion of the 10135
premium charged the participants, dependents, and family members 10136
shall be paid in such manner or combination of manners as the 10137
department determines.10138

       Sec. 3701.041.        Sec. 124.88.  (A) The employee assistance program is 10139
hereby established in the department of administrative services10140
for the purpose of referring state employees paid by warrant of 10141
the director of budget and management who are in need of medical, 10142
social, or other services to providers of those services.10143

       The director of health, in consultation with the director of 10144
budget and management, shall determine a rate at which the 10145
payrolls of all state agencies with employees paid by warrant of 10146
the director of budget and management shall be charged each pay 10147
period that is sufficient to cover the costs of administering the 10148
program. The rate shall be based upon the total number of such 10149
employees and may be adjusted as the director of health, in 10150
consultation with the director of budget and management, considers 10151
necessary. All money collected from the assessment shall be 10152
deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the employee 10153
assistance general services fund, which is hereby created. The 10154
fund shall be used by the director of health to administer the 10155
program.10156

       (B) Records of the identity, diagnosis, prognosis, or 10157
treatment of any person that are maintained in connection with the 10158
employee assistance program created in division (A) of this 10159
section are not public records under section 149.43 of the Revised 10160
Code and shall be disclosed only as provided in division (C) of 10161
this section.10162

       (C)(1) Records described in division (B) of this section may 10163
be disclosed with the prior written consent of the person who is 10164
the subject of the record.10165

       (2) Records described in division (B) of this section may be 10166
disclosed with or without the prior written consent of the person 10167
who is the subject of the record under the following conditions:10168

       (a) To medical personnel to the extent necessary to meet a 10169
bona fide medical emergency;10170

       (b) To qualified personnel for the purpose of conducting 10171
scientific research, management audits, financial audits, or 10172
program evaluation, but the personnel shall not directly or 10173
indirectly identify any person who is the subject of the record in 10174
any report of the research, audit, or evaluation or in any other 10175
manner;10176

       (c) If authorized by an appropriate order of a court of 10177
competent jurisdiction granted after a showing of good cause. In 10178
determining good cause, the court shall weigh the public interest 10179
and the need for disclosure against injury to the person who is 10180
the subject of the record and to the employee assistance program. 10181
Upon granting such an order, the court shall, in determining the 10182
extent to which the disclosure of all or any part of any record is 10183
necessary, impose appropriate safeguards against unauthorized 10184
disclosure.10185

       (D) Except as authorized by a court order described in 10186
division (C)(2)(c) of this section, no record described in 10187
division (B) of this section may be used to initiate or 10188
substantiate criminal charges against the person who is the 10189
subject of the record or to conduct any investigation of such a 10190
person.10191

       Sec. 125.05.  Except as provided in division (F) of this 10192
section, no state agency shall purchase any supplies or services 10193
except as provided in divisions (A) to (D) of this section.10194

       (A) Subject to division (E) of this section, a state agency 10195
may, without competitive selection, make any purchase of supplies 10196
or services that cost twenty-five thousand dollars or less. The 10197
agency may make the purchase directly or may make the purchase 10198
from or through the department of administrative services, 10199
whichever the agency determines. The agency shall adopt written 10200
procedures consistent with the department's purchasing procedures 10201
and shall use those procedures when making purchases under this 10202
division.10203

       (B) Subject to division (E) of this section and in accordance 10204
with section 125.051 of the Revised Code, a state agency may make 10205
purchases of supplies and services that cost more than twenty-five 10206
thousand dollars but less than fifty thousand dollars if the 10207
purchases are made under the direction of an employee of the 10208
agency who is certified by the department to make purchases and if 10209
the purchases comply with the department's purchasing procedures. 10210
Section 127.16 of the Revised Code does not apply to purchases 10211
made under this division. Until the certification effective date 10212
established by the department in rules adopted under section 10213
125.051 of the Revised Code, state agencies may make purchases of 10214
supplies and services that cost more than twenty-five thousand 10215
dollars but less than fifty thousand dollars in the same manner as 10216
provided in division (A) of this section.10217

       (C) Subject to division (E) of this section, a state agency 10218
wanting to purchase supplies or services that cost more than 10219
twenty-five thousand dollars shall, unless otherwise authorized by 10220
law, make the purchase from or through the department. The 10221
department shall make the purchase by competitive selection. If 10222
the director of administrative services determines that it is not 10223
possible or not advantageous to the state for the department to 10224
make the purchase, the department shall grant the agency a release 10225
and permit under section 125.06 of the Revised Code to make the 10226
purchase. Section 127.16 of the Revised Code does not apply to 10227
purchases the department makes under this section.10228

       (D) An agency that has been granted a release and permit to 10229
make a purchase may make the purchase without competitive 10230
selection if after making the purchase the cumulative purchase 10231
threshold as computed under division (E) of section 127.16 of the 10232
Revised Code would:10233

       (1) Be exceeded and the controlling board approves the 10234
purchase;10235

       (2) Not be exceeded and the department of administrative 10236
services approves the purchase.10237

       (E) Not later than the thirty-first day of January of each 10238
even-numbered year, the directors of administrative services and 10239
budget and management shall review and recommend to the general 10240
assembly, if necessary, adjustments to the amounts specified in 10241
divisions (A) to (C) of this section and division (B) of section 10242
127.16 of the Revised Code.10243

       (F) If the eTech Ohio commission, the department of 10244
education, or the Ohio education computer network determines that 10245
it can purchase software services or supplies for specified school 10246
districts at a price less than the price for which the districts 10247
could purchase the same software services or supplies for 10248
themselves, the commission, department, or network shall certify 10249
that fact to the department of administrative services and, acting 10250
as an agent for the specified school districts, shall make that 10251
purchase without following the provisions in divisions (A) to (D) 10252
of this section.10253

       Sec. 125.21.  The director of administrative services shall 10254
process payroll information for the purpose of payment for 10255
personal services of state officials and employees on the basis of 10256
rates of pay determined by pertinent law, the director, or other 10257
competent authority.10258

       Calculation of payrolls may be made after the conclusion of 10259
each pay period based upon the amount of time served as certified 10260
by the appropriate appointing authority. Payment for personal 10261
service rendered by an official or employee during any pay period 10262
shall be made no later than at the conclusion of the official's or 10263
employee's next succeeding pay period.10264

       The director of administrative services shall furnish to the 10265
director of budget and management all necessary data for drawing 10266
state official and employee pay warrants and preparing earning 10267
statements. These data shall include the rate at which paid; the 10268
time for which paid, including overtime and any other adjustments 10269
affecting the official's or employee's gross pay; all taxes 10270
withheld, including, whenever practicable, year-to-date figures on 10271
all taxes withheld; the amount of contribution to the appropriate 10272
retirement system; any voluntary deductions made in accordance 10273
with authorizations filed by the official or employee; and whether 10274
a direct deposit is to be made in accordance with an authorization 10275
filed by the official or employee.10276

       Amounts deducted from the salaries or wages of all officials 10277
and employees shall be transferred to the payroll withholding10278
deduction fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury for 10279
the purpose of consolidating all such deductions made in any 10280
month. Payments from this fund shall be made at intervals for the 10281
intended purpose of the deduction or for refund where it is 10282
determined that deductions were made in error.10283

       Sec. 125.212.  The life insurance investment fund is hereby 10284
created in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of amounts 10285
from the payroll withholding fund created by section 125.21 of 10286
the Revised Codestate agencies, life insurance premium refunds 10287
received by the state, and other receipts related to the state's 10288
life insurance benefit program. The fund shall be used to pay the 10289
costs of the state's life insurance benefit program. All 10290
investment earnings of the life insurance investment fund shall be 10291
credited to the fund.10292

       Sec. 125.27. (A) There is hereby created in the state 10293
treasury the building improvement fund. The fund shall retain the 10294
interest earned.10295

       (B) The fund shall consist of any payments made by intrastate 10296
transfer voucher from the appropriation item for office building 10297
operating payments.10298

       (C) The fund shall be used for major maintenance or 10299
improvements required in the James A. Rhodes or Frank J. Lausche 10300
state office tower, Toledo government center, Senator Oliver R. 10301
Ocasek government office building, and Vern Riffe center for 10302
government and the arts.10303

       Sec. 125.28. (A)(1) Each state agency that is supported in 10304
whole or in part by nongeneral revenue fund money and that 10305
occupies space in the James A. Rhodes or Frank J. Lausche state 10306
office tower, Toledo government center, Senator Oliver R. Ocasek 10307
government office building, Vern Riffe center for government and 10308
the arts, capitol square, or governor's mansion shall reimburse 10309
the general revenue fund for the cost of occupying the space in 10310
the ratio that the occupied space in each facility attributable to 10311
the nongeneral revenue fund money bears to the total space 10312
occupied by the state agency in the facility.10313

       (2) All agencies that occupy space in the old blind school or 10314
that occupy warehouse space in the general services facility shall 10315
reimburse the department of administrative services for the cost 10316
of occupying the space. The director of administrative services 10317
shall determine the amount of debt service, if any, to be charged 10318
to building tenants and shall collect reimbursements for it.10319

       (3) Each agency that is supported in whole or in part by 10320
nongeneral revenue fund money and that occupies space in any other 10321
facility or facilities owned and maintained by the department of 10322
administrative services or space in the general services facility 10323
other than warehouse space shall reimburse the department for the 10324
cost of occupying the space, including debt service, if any, in 10325
the ratio that the occupied space in each facility attributable to 10326
the nongeneral revenue fund money bears to the total space 10327
occupied by the state agency in the facility.10328

       (B) The director of administrative services may provide 10329
building maintenance services and skilled tradesminor 10330
construction project management services to any state agency 10331
occupying space in a facility that is not owned by the department 10332
of administrative services and may collect reimbursements for the 10333
cost of providing those services.10334

       (C) All money collected by the department of administrative 10335
services for operating expenses of facilities owned or maintained 10336
by the department shall be deposited into the state treasury to 10337
the credit of the building management fund, which is hereby 10338
created, or to the credit of the building operation fund, which is 10339
hereby created. All money collected by the department for skilled 10340
tradesminor construction project management services shall be 10341
deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the skilled 10342
tradesminor construction project management fund, which is hereby 10343
created. All money collected for debt service shall be deposited 10344
into the general revenue fund.10345

       (D) The director of administrative services shall determine 10346
the reimbursable cost of space in state-owned or state-leased 10347
facilities and shall collect reimbursements for that cost.10348

       Sec. 125.602. (A) The department of developmental 10349
disabilities, the department of mental healthmental health and 10350
addiction services, the department of job and family services, the 10351
rehabilitation services commissionopportunities for Ohioans with 10352
disabilities agency, and any other state or governmental agency or 10353
community rehabilitation program responsible for the provision of 10354
rehabilitation and vocational educational services to persons with 10355
work-limiting disabilities may, through written agreement, 10356
cooperate in providing resources to the department of 10357
administrative services for the operation of the office of 10358
procurement from community rehabilitation programs. These 10359
resources may include, but are not limited to, leadership and 10360
assistance in dealing with the societal aspects of meeting the 10361
needs of persons with work-limiting disabilities.10362

       (B) The office and all governmental entities that administer 10363
socioeconomic programs may enter into contractual agreements, 10364
cooperative working relationships, or other arrangements that are 10365
necessary for effective coordination and realization of the 10366
objectives of these entities.10367

       Sec. 125.603. (A) The office of procurement from community 10368
rehabilitation programs shall do the following in addition to 10369
other duties specified in sections 125.60 to 125.6012 of the 10370
Revised Code:10371

       (1) Establish, maintain, and periodically update a 10372
procurement list of approved supplies and services available from 10373
qualified nonprofit agencies;10374

       (2) Monitor the procurement practices of government ordering 10375
offices to ensure compliance with sections 125.60 to 125.6012 of 10376
the Revised Code;10377

       (3) In cooperation with qualified nonprofit agencies, 10378
government ordering offices, the department of developmental 10379
disabilities, the department of mental healthmental health and 10380
addiction services, the department of job and family services, and 10381
the rehabilitation services commissionopportunities for Ohioans 10382
with disabilities agency, develop and recommend to the director of 10383
administrative services rules the director shall adopt in 10384
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the effective 10385
and efficient administration of sections 125.60 to 125.6012 of the 10386
Revised Code;10387

       (4) Prepare a report of its activities by the last day of 10388
December of each year. The report shall be posted electronically 10389
on the office's web site.10390

       (B) The office of procurement from community rehabilitation 10391
programs may enter into contractual agreements and establish pilot 10392
programs to further the objectives of sections 125.60 to 125.6012 10393
of the Revised Code.10394

       Sec. 125.832. (A) The department of administrative services 10395
is granted exclusive authority over the acquisition and management 10396
of all motor vehicles used by state agencies. In carrying out this 10397
authority, the department shall do both of the following:10398

       (1) Approve the purchase or lease of each motor vehicle for 10399
use by a state agency. The department shall decide if a motor 10400
vehicle shall be leased or purchased for that use.10401

       Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(1) of this 10402
section, on and after July 1, 2005, each state agency shall 10403
acquire all passenger motor vehicles under the department's master 10404
leasing program. If the department determines that acquisition 10405
under that program is not the most economical method and if the 10406
department and the state agency acquiring the passenger motor 10407
vehicle can provide economic justification for doing so, the 10408
department may approve the purchase, rather than the lease, of a 10409
passenger motor vehicle for the acquiring state agency.10410

       (2) Direct and approve all funds that are expended for the 10411
purchase, lease, repair, maintenance, registration, insuring, and 10412
other costs related to the possession and operation of motor 10413
vehicles for the use of state agencies.10414

       (B) The director of administrative services shall establish 10415
and operate a fleet management program. The director shall operate 10416
the program for purposes including, but not limited to, 10417
cost-effective acquisition, maintenance, management, analysis, and 10418
disposal of all motor vehicles owned or leased by the state. All 10419
state agencies shall comply with statewide fleet management 10420
policies and procedures established by the director for the 10421
program, including, but not limited to, motor vehicle assignments, 10422
additions of motor vehicles to fleets or motor vehicle 10423
replacements, motor vehicle fueling, and motor vehicle repairs.10424

       (C) The director shall establish and maintain a fleet 10425
reporting system and shall require state agencies to submit to the 10426
department information relative to state motor vehicles, including 10427
motor vehicles described in division (G)(2) of section 125.831 of 10428
the Revised Code, to be used in operating the fleet management 10429
program. State agencies shall provide to the department fleet data 10430
and other information, including, but not limited to, mileage and 10431
costs. The data and other information shall be submitted in 10432
formats and in a manner determined by the department.10433

       (D) All state agency purchases or leases of motor vehicles 10434
are subject to the prior approval of the director under division 10435
(A)(1) of this section.10436

       (E) State agencies that utilize state motor vehicles or pay 10437
mileage reimbursements to employees shall provide a fleet plan to 10438
the department as directed by the department.10439

       (F)(1) The fleets of state agencies that consist of one 10440
hundred or less vehicles on July 1, 2004, shall be managed by the 10441
department's fleet management program on a time schedule 10442
determined by the department, unless the state agency has received 10443
delegated authority as described in division (G) of this section.10444

       (2) The fleets of state agencies that consist of greater than 10445
one hundred motor vehicles, but less than five hundred motor 10446
vehicles, on July 1, 2005, also shall be managed by the 10447
department's fleet management program on a time schedule 10448
determined by the department, unless the state agency has received 10449
delegated authority as described in division (G) of this section.10450

       (G)(1) The department may delegate any or all of its duties 10451
regarding fleet management to a state agency, if the state agency 10452
demonstrates to the satisfaction of the department both of the 10453
following:10454

       (a) Capabilities to institute and manage a fleet management 10455
program, including, but not limited to, the presence of a 10456
certified fleet manager;10457

       (b) Fleet management performance, as demonstrated by fleet 10458
data and other information submitted pursuant to annual reporting 10459
requirements and any other criteria the department considers 10460
necessary in evaluating the performance.10461

       (2) The department may determine that a state agency is not 10462
in compliance with this section and direct that the agency's fleet 10463
management duties be transferred to the department.10464

       (H) The proceeds derived from the disposition of any motor 10465
vehicles under this section shall be paid to whichever of the 10466
following applies:10467

       (1) The fund that originally provided moneys for the purchase 10468
or lease of the motor vehicles;10469

       (2) If the motor vehicles were originally purchased with 10470
moneys derived from the general revenue fund, the proceeds shall 10471
be deposited, in the director's discretion, into the state 10472
treasury to the credit of either the fleet management fund created 10473
by section 125.83 of the Revised Code or the investment recovery 10474
fund created by section 125.14 of the Revised Code.10475

       (I)(1) The department shall create and maintain a certified 10476
fleet manager program.10477

       (2) State agencies that have received delegated authority as 10478
described in division (G) of this section shall have a certified 10479
fleet manager.10480

       (J) The department annually shall prepare and submit a 10481
statewide fleet report to the governor, the speaker of the house 10482
of representatives, and the president of the senate. The report 10483
shall be submitted not later than the thirty-first day of January 10484
following the end of each fiscal year. It may include, but is not 10485
limited to, the numbers and types of motor vehicles, their 10486
mileage, miles per gallon, and cost per mile, mileage 10487
reimbursements, accident and insurance data, and information 10488
regarding compliance by state agencies having delegated authority 10489
under division (G) of this section with applicable fleet 10490
management requirements.10491

       (K) The director shall adopt rules for implementing the fleet 10492
management program that are consistent with recognized best 10493
practices. The program shall be supported by reasonable fee 10494
charges for the services provided. The director shall collect 10495
these fees and deposit them into the state treasury to the credit 10496
for the fleet management fund created by section 125.83 of the 10497
Revised Code. The setting and collection of fees under this 10498
division is not subject to any restriction imposed by law upon the 10499
director's or the department's authority to set or collect fees.10500

       (L) The director also shall adopt rules that prohibit, except 10501
in very limited circumstances, the exclusive assignment of 10502
state-owned, leased, or pooled motor vehicles to state employees 10503
and that prohibit the reimbursement under section 126.31 of the 10504
Revised Code of state employees who use their own motor vehicles 10505
for any mileage they incur above an amount that the department 10506
shall determine annually unless reimbursement for the excess 10507
mileage is approved by the department in accordance with standards 10508
for that approval the director shall establish in those rules. 10509
Beginning on September 26, 2003, no state-owned, leased, or pooled 10510
motor vehicle shall be personally assigned as any form of 10511
compensation or benefit of state employment, and no state-owned, 10512
leased, or pooled motor vehicle shall be assigned to an employee 10513
solely for commuting to and from home and work.10514

       (M) The director shall do both of the following:10515

       (1) Implement to the greatest extent possible the 10516
recommendations from the 2002 report entitled "Administrative 10517
Analysis of the Ohio Fleet Management Program" in connection with 10518
the authority granted to the department by this section;10519

       (2) Attempt to reduce the number of passenger vehicles used 10520
by state agencies during the fiscal years ending on June 30, 2004, 10521
and June 30, 2005.10522

       (N) Each state agency shall reimburse the department for all 10523
costs incurred in the assignment of motor vehicles to the state 10524
agency.10525

       (O) The director shall do all of the following in managing 10526
the fleet management program:10527

       (1) Determine how motor vehicles will be maintained, insured, 10528
operated, financed, and licensed;10529

       (2) Pursuant to the formula in division (O)(3) of this 10530
section, annually establish the minimum number of business miles 10531
per year an employee of a state agency must drive in order to 10532
qualify for approval by the department to receive a motor vehicle 10533
for business use;10534

       (3) Establish the minimum number of business miles per year 10535
at an amount that results when the annual motor vehicle cost is 10536
divided by the amount that is the reimbursement rate per mile 10537
minus the amount that is the sum of the fuel cost, the operating 10538
cost, and the insurance cost. As used in this division:10539

       (a) "Annual motor vehicle cost" means the price of a motor 10540
vehicle divided by the number of years an average motor vehicle is 10541
used.10542

       (b) "Fuel cost" means the average price per gallon of motor 10543
fuel divided by the miles per gallon fuel efficiency of a motor 10544
vehicle.10545

       (c) "Insurance cost" means the cost of insuring a motor 10546
vehicle per year divided by the number of miles an average motor 10547
vehicle is driven per year.10548

       (d) "Operating cost" means the maintenance cost of a motor 10549
vehicle per year divided by the product resulting when the number 10550
of miles an average motor vehicle is driven per year is multiplied 10551
by the number of years an average motor vehicle is used.10552

       (e) "Reimbursement rate per mile" means the reimbursement per 10553
mile rate for travel expenses as provided by rule of the director 10554
of budget and management adopted under division (B) of section 10555
126.31 of the Revised Code.10556

       (P)(1) Not later than the fifteenth day of September of each 10557
year, each state institution of higher education shall report to 10558
the department on all of the following topics relating to motor 10559
vehicles that the institution acquires and manages:10560

       (a) The methods it uses to track the motor vehicles;10561

       (b) Whether or not it uses a fuel card program to purchase 10562
fuel for, or to pay for the maintenance of, the motor vehicles;10563

       (c) Whether or not it makes bulk purchases of fuel for the 10564
motor vehicles.10565

       (2) Assuming it does not use the fleet management tracking, 10566
fuel card program, and bulk fuel purchases tools and services that 10567
the department provides, the report of a state institution of 10568
higher education required by division (P)(1) of this section also 10569
shall include both of the following:10570

       (a) An analysis of the amount the institution would save, if 10571
any, if it were to use the fleet management tracking, fuel card 10572
program, and bulk fuel purchases tools and services that the 10573
department provides instead of the fleet management system the 10574
institution regularly uses;10575

       (b) A rationale for either continuing with the fleet 10576
management system that the institution regularly uses or changing 10577
to the use of those tools and services that the department 10578
provides.10579

       (3) The department shall certify within ninety days after 10580
receipt of all reports under division (P)(1) of this section a 10581
list of those state institutions of higher education that the 10582
department determines would save amounts if they were to use the 10583
fleet management tracking, fuel card program, and bulk fuel 10584
purchases tools and services that the department provides. The 10585
institutions so certified then shall use those tools and services 10586
that the department provides until the department next certifies 10587
institutions under division (P)(3) of this section.10588

       Sec. 125.836.  (A) As used in this section:10589

       (1) "Biodiesel," "blended biodiesel," and "diesel fuel" have 10590
the same meanings as in section 125.831 of the Revised Code.10591

       (2) "Credit" means a credit generated by the acquisition of 10592
alternative fueled vehicles in accordance with the "Energy Policy 10593
Act of 1992," 106 Stat. 2897, 42 U.S.C. 13257.10594

       (3) "Incremental cost" means the difference in cost between 10595
blended biodiesel and conventional petroleum-based diesel fuel at 10596
the time the blended biodiesel is purchased.10597

       (B) The department of administrative services shall establish 10598
and administer a credit banking and selling program. The 10599
department may sell or trade credits in accordance with procedures 10600
established pursuant to the "Energy Policy Act of 1992," 106 Stat. 10601
2897, 42 U.S.C. 13258.10602

       (C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 10603
"biodiesel revolving fund," to which shall be credited moneys 10604
received from the sale of credits under this section, any moneys 10605
appropriated to the fund by the general assembly, and any other 10606
moneys obtained or accepted by the departmentdevelopment services 10607
agency for crediting to the fund. Moneys credited to the fund 10608
shall be used to pay for the incremental cost of biodiesel for use 10609
in vehicles owned or leased by the state that use diesel fuel. The 10610
director of administrative services, after consultation with the 10611
director of development,services may direct the director of 10612
budget and management to transfer available moneys in the 10613
biodiesel revolving fund to the alternative fuel transportation 10614
fund created in section 122.075 of the Revised Code to be used by 10615
the department of development services agency for the purposes 10616
specified in that section.10617

        (D) The director of administrative services shall adopt rules 10618
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that are necessary for the 10619
administration of the credit banking and selling program. 10620

       Sec. 126.07.  Except as provided in division (B) of section 10621
126.21 of the Revised Code, no contract, agreement, or obligation 10622
involving the expenditure of money chargeable to an appropriation, 10623
nor any resolution or order for the expenditure of money 10624
chargeable to an appropriation, shall be valid and enforceable 10625
unless the director of budget and management first certifies that 10626
there is a balance in the appropriation not already obligated to 10627
pay existing obligations, in an amount at least equal to the 10628
portion of the contract, agreement, obligation, resolution, or 10629
order to be performed in the current fiscal year. Any written 10630
contract or agreement entered into by the state shall contain a 10631
clause stating that the obligations of the state are subject to 10632
this section.10633

       The chief administrative officer of a state agency is 10634
responsible for the preaudit and approval of expenditures and 10635
other transactions of the agency. In order to initiate the making 10636
of a payment from the state treasury, the person in a state agency 10637
who requests that the payment be made shall first submit to the 10638
chief administrative officer of the agency all invoices, claims, 10639
vouchers, and other documentation related to the payment. The 10640
chief administrative officer shall examine each voucher and all 10641
other documentation required to support the voucher and determine 10642
whether they meet all the requirements established by the director 10643
of budget and management for making the payment. If they do meet 10644
those requirements, the chief administrative officer shall certify 10645
to the director the approval of the chief administrative officer 10646
for payment.10647

        Prior to drawing a warrant or processing an electronic funds 10648
transfer as provided in section 126.35 of the Revised Code, the 10649
director may review and audit the voucher, any documentation 10650
accompanying the voucher, and any other documentation related to 10651
the transaction that the director may require to determine if the 10652
transaction is in accordance with law. The director shall not 10653
approve payment to be made if the director finds that there is not 10654
an unobligated balance in the appropriation for the payment, that 10655
the payment is not for a valid claim against the state that is 10656
legally due, or that insufficient documentation has been 10657
submitted. If the director does not approve payment, the director 10658
shall notify the agency of the reasons the director has not given 10659
approval.10660

       In approving payments to be made under this section, the 10661
director, upon receipt of certification from the director of job 10662
and family services pursuant to section 4141.231 of the Revised 10663
Code, shall withhold from amounts otherwise payable to a person 10664
who is the subject of the director of jobs and family services' 10665
certification, the amount certified to be due and unpaid to the 10666
director of job and family services, and shall approve for payment 10667
to the director of job and family services, the amount withheld.10668

       As used in this section and in section 126.21 of the Revised 10669
Code, "chief administrative officer" means either of the 10670
following:10671

       (A) The director of the agency or, in the case of a state 10672
agency without a director, the equivalent officer of that agency;10673

       (B) The designee of the chief administrative officer for the 10674
purposes of such sections.10675

       Sec. 126.14.  The release of any money appropriated for the 10676
purchase of real estate shall be approved by the controlling 10677
board. The release of money appropriated for all other capital 10678
projects is also subject to the approval of the controlling board, 10679
except that the director of budget and management may approve the 10680
release of money appropriated for specific projects in accordance 10681
with the requirements of this section and except that the director 10682
of budget and management may approve the release of unencumbered 10683
capital balances, for a project to repair, remove, or prevent a 10684
public exigency declared to exist by the executive director of 10685
administrative servicesthe Ohio facilities construction 10686
commission under section 123.10 of the Revised Code, or by the 10687
executive director of the Ohio facilities construction commission 10688
under section 123.23 of the Revised Code, in the amount designated 10689
in that declaration.10690

       Within sixty days after the effective date of any act 10691
appropriating money for capital projects, the director shall 10692
determine which appropriations are for general projects and which 10693
are for specific projects. Specific projects may include specific 10694
higher education projects that are to be funded from general 10695
purpose appropriations from the higher education improvement fund 10696
or the higher education improvement taxable fund created in 10697
section 154.21 of the Revised Code. Upon determining which 10698
projects are general and which are specific, the director shall 10699
submit to the controlling board a list that includes a brief 10700
description of and the estimated expenditures for each specific 10701
project. The release of money for any specific higher education 10702
projects that are to be funded from general purpose appropriations 10703
from the higher education improvement fund or the higher education 10704
improvement taxable fund but that are not included on the list, 10705
and the release of money for any specific higher education 10706
projects included on the list that will exceed the estimated 10707
expenditures by more than ten per cent, are subject to the 10708
approval of the controlling board. 10709

       The director may create new appropriation items and make 10710
transfers of appropriations to them for specific higher education 10711
projects included on the list that are to be funded from general 10712
purpose appropriations for basic renovations that are made from 10713
the higher education improvement fund or the higher education 10714
improvement taxable fund.10715

       Sec. 126.211.  The director of budget and management shall 10716
not release funds to a veterans organization until the director 10717
has been advised by the director of veterans services under 10718
division (Y) of section 5902.02 of the Revised Code that the 10719
organization has submitted a satisfactory report as required by 10720
division (W) of that section.10721

       Sec. 126.32.  (A) Any officer of any state agency may 10722
authorize reimbursement for travel, including the costs of 10723
transportation, for lodging, and for meals to any person who is 10724
interviewing for a position that is classified in pay range 13 or 10725
above in schedule E-1 or schedule E-1 for step seven only, or is 10726
classified in schedule E-2, of section 124.152 of the Revised 10727
Code.10728

       (B) If a person is appointed to a position listed in section 10729
121.03 of the Revised Code, to the position of chairperson of the 10730
industrial commission, adjutant general, chancellor of the Ohio 10731
board of regents, superintendent of public instruction, 10732
chairperson of the public utilities commission of Ohio, or 10733
director of the state lottery commission, to a position holding a 10734
fiduciary relationship to the governor, to a position of an 10735
appointing authority of the department of mental healthmental 10736
health and addiction services, developmental disabilities, or 10737
rehabilitation and correction, to a position of superintendent in 10738
the department of youth services, or to a position under section 10739
122.05 of the Revised Code, and if that appointment requires a 10740
permanent change of residence, the appropriate state agency may 10741
reimburse the person for the person's actual and necessary 10742
expenses, including the cost of in-transit storage of household 10743
goods and personal effects, of moving the person and members of 10744
the person's immediate family residing in the person's household, 10745
and of moving their household goods and personal effects, to the 10746
person's new location.10747

       Until that person moves the person's permanent residence to 10748
the new location, but not for a period that exceeds thirty 10749
consecutive days, the state agency may reimburse the person for 10750
the person's temporary living expenses at the new location that 10751
the person has incurred on behalf of the person and members of the 10752
person's immediate family residing in the person's household. In 10753
addition, the state agency may reimburse that person for the 10754
person's travel expenses between the new location and the person's 10755
former residence during this period for a maximum number of trips 10756
specified by rule of the director of budget and management, but 10757
the state agency shall not reimburse the person for travel 10758
expenses incurred for those trips by members of the person's 10759
immediate family. With the prior written approval of the director, 10760
the maximum thirty-day period for temporary living expenses may be 10761
extended for a person appointed to a position under section 122.05 10762
of the Revised Code.10763

       The director of development services may reimburse a person 10764
appointed to a position under section 122.05 of the Revised Code 10765
for the person's actual and necessary expenses of moving the 10766
person and members of the person's immediate family residing in 10767
the person's household back to the United States and may reimburse 10768
a person appointed to such a position for the cost of storage of 10769
household goods and personal effects of the person and the 10770
person's immediate family while the person is serving outside the 10771
United States, if the person's office outside the United States is 10772
the person's primary job location.10773

       (C) All reimbursement under division (A) or (B) of this 10774
section shall be made in the manner, and at rates that do not 10775
exceed those, provided by rule of the director of budget and 10776
management in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code. 10777
Reimbursements may be made under division (B) of this section 10778
directly to the persons who incurred the expenses or directly to 10779
the providers of goods or services the persons receive, as 10780
determined by the director of budget and management.10781

       Sec. 126.35.  (A) The director of budget and management shall 10782
draw warrants or process electronic funds transfers against the 10783
treasurer of state pursuant to all requests for payment that the 10784
director has approved under section 126.07 of the Revised Code.10785

       (B) Unless a cash assistance payment is to be made by 10786
electronic benefit transfer, payment by the director of budget and 10787
management to a participant in the Ohio works first program 10788
pursuant to Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code, a recipient of 10789
disability financial assistance pursuant to Chapter 5115. of the 10790
Revised Code, or a recipient of cash assistance provided under the 10791
refugee assistance program established under section 5101.49 of 10792
the Revised Code shall be made by direct deposit to the account of 10793
the participant or recipient in the financial institution 10794
designated under section 329.03 of the Revised Code. Payment by 10795
the director of budget and management to a recipient of benefits 10796
distributed through the medium of electronic benefit transfer 10797
pursuant to section 5101.33 of the Revised Code shall be by 10798
electronic benefit transfer. Payment by the director of budget and 10799
management as compensation to an employee of the state who has, 10800
pursuant to section 124.151 of the Revised Code, designated a 10801
financial institution and account for the direct deposit of such 10802
payments shall be made by direct deposit to the account of the 10803
employee. Payment to any other payee who has designated a 10804
financial institution and account for the direct deposit of such 10805
payment may be made by direct deposit to the account of the payee 10806
in the financial institution as provided in section 9.37 of the 10807
Revised Code. Accounts maintained by the director of budget and 10808
management or the director's agent in a financial institution for 10809
the purpose of effectuating payment by direct deposit or 10810
electronic benefit transfer shall be maintained in accordance with 10811
section 135.18 of the Revised Code.10812

       (C) All other payments from the state treasury shall be made 10813
by paper warrants, electronic funds transfers, or by direct 10814
deposit payable to the respective payees. The director of budget 10815
and management may mail the paper warrants to the respective 10816
payees or distribute them through other state agencies, whichever 10817
the director determines to be the better procedure.10818

       (D) If the average per transaction cost the director of 10819
budget and management incurs in making direct deposits for a state 10820
agency exceeds the average per transaction cost the director 10821
incurs in drawing paper warrants for all public offices during the 10822
same period of time, the director may certify the difference in 10823
cost and the number of direct deposits for the agency to the 10824
director of administrative services. The director of 10825
administrative services shall reimburse the director of budget and 10826
management for such additional costs and add the amount to the 10827
processing charge assessed upon the state agency.10828

       Sec. 126.45.  (A) As used in sections 126.45 to 126.48 of the 10829
Revised Code, "state agency" means the administrative departments 10830
listed in section 121.02 of the Revised Code, the department of 10831
taxation, the bureau of workers' compensation, and the Ohio board 10832
of regents, the opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities 10833
agency, the public utilities commission of Ohio, the adjutant 10834
general, and the state lottery commission.10835

       (B) The office of internal auditingaudit is hereby created 10836
in the office of budget and management to conductdirect internal 10837
audits of state agencies or divisions of state agencies to improve 10838
their operations in the areas of risk management, internal 10839
controls, and governance. The director of budget and management, 10840
with the approval of the governor, shall appoint for the office of 10841
internal auditingaudit a chief internal auditor who meets the 10842
qualifications specified in division (C)(E) of this section. The 10843
chief internal auditor shall serve at the director's pleasure and 10844
be responsible for the administration of the office of internal 10845
auditingaudit consistent with sections 126.45 to 126.48 of the 10846
Revised Code.10847

       (C) The office of internal auditingaudit shall conduct 10848
programs for the internal auditing of state agencies. The programs 10849
shall include an annual internal audit plan, reviewed by the state 10850
audit committee, that utilizes risk assessment techniques and 10851
identifies the specific audits to be conducteddirected during the 10852
year. The programs also shall include periodic audits of each 10853
state agency's major systems and controls, including those systems 10854
and controls pertaining to accounting, administration, and 10855
electronic data processinginformation technology. Upon the 10856
request of the office of internal auditingaudit, each state 10857
agency shall provide office employees access to all records and 10858
documents necessary for the performance of an internal audit.10859

       The director of budget and management shall assess a charge 10860
against each state agency for which the office of internal 10861
auditingaudit conducts internal auditing programs under sections 10862
126.45 to 126.48 of the Revised Code so that the total amount of 10863
these charges is sufficient to cover the costs of the operation of 10864
the office of internal auditingaudit.10865

       (D) At the request of any other organized body, office, or 10866
agency established by the laws of the state for the exercise of 10867
any function of state government that is not described in division 10868
(A) of this section, the office of internal audit may direct an 10869
internal audit of all or part of that body, office, or agency. The 10870
office of internal audit shall charge an amount sufficient to 10871
cover the costs it incurs in relation to the requested audit.10872

       (C)(E) The chief internal auditor of the office of internal 10873
auditingaudit shall hold at least a bachelor's degree and be one 10874
of the following:10875

       (1) A certified internal auditor, a certified government 10876
auditing professional, or a certified public accountant, who also 10877
has held a PA registration or a CPA certificate authorized by 10878
Chapter 4701. of the Revised Code for at least four years and has 10879
at least six years of auditing experience; 10880

       (2) An auditor who has held a PA registration or a CPA 10881
certificate authorized by Chapter 4701. of the Revised Code for at 10882
least four years and has at least ten years of auditing 10883
experience.10884

       (D)(F) The chief internal auditor, subject to the direction 10885
and control of the director of budget and management, may appoint 10886
and maintain any staff necessary to carry out the duties assigned 10887
by sections 126.45 to 126.48 of the Revised Code to the office of 10888
internal auditingaudit or to the chief internal auditor.10889

       Sec. 126.46.  (A)(1) There is hereby created the state audit 10890
committee, consisting of the following five members: one public 10891
member appointed by the governor; two public members appointed by 10892
the speaker of the house of representatives, one of which may be a 10893
person who is recommended by the minority leader of the house of 10894
representatives; and two public members appointed by the president 10895
of the senate, one of which may be a person who is recommended by 10896
the minority leader of the senate. Not more than two of the four 10897
members appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives 10898
and the president of the senate shall belong to or be affiliated 10899
with the same political party. The member appointed by the 10900
governor shall have the program and management expertise required 10901
to perform the duties of the committee's chairperson.10902

       Each member of the committee shall be external to the 10903
management structure of state government and shall serve a 10904
three-year term. Each term shall commence on the first day of July 10905
and end on the thirtieth day of June. Any member may continue in 10906
office subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term 10907
until the member's successor takes office or until a period of 10908
ninety days has elapsed, whichever occurs first. Members may be 10909
reappointed to serve one additional term.10910

       On the effective date of the amendment of this section by 10911
H.B. 153 of the 129th general assemblySeptember 29, 2011, the 10912
terms of the members shall be altered as follows: 10913

       (a) The terms of the members appointed by the president shall 10914
expire on June 30, 2012.10915

        (b) The term of the member appointed by the speaker scheduled 10916
to expire on November 17, 2012, shall expire on June 30, 2013.10917

        (c) The term of the other member appointed by the speaker 10918
shall expire on June 30, 2014.10919

        (d) The term of the member appointed by the governor shall 10920
expire on June 30, 2014.10921

       The committee shall include at least one member who is a 10922
financial expert; at least one member who is an active, inactive, 10923
or retired certified public accountant; at least one member who is 10924
familiar with governmental financial accounting; at least one 10925
member who is familiar with information technology systems and 10926
services; and at least one member who is a representative of the 10927
public.10928

       Any vacancy on the committee shall be filled in the same 10929
manner as provided in this division, and, when applicable, the 10930
person appointed to fill a vacancy shall serve the remainder of 10931
the predecessor's term.10932

       (2) Members of the committee shall receive reimbursement for 10933
actual and necessary expenses incurred in the discharge of their 10934
duties.10935

       (3) The member of the committee appointed by the governor 10936
shall serve as the committee's chairperson.10937

       (4) Members of the committee shall be subject to the 10938
disclosure statement requirements of section 102.02 of the Revised 10939
Code.10940

       (B) The state audit committee shall do all of the following:10941

       (1) Ensure thatEvaluate whether the internal audits 10942
conducteddirected by the office of internal auditingaudit in the 10943
office of budget and management conform to the institute of 10944
internal auditors' international standards for the professional 10945
practice ofpractices framework for internal auditing and to the 10946
institute of internal auditors' code of ethics;10947

       (2) Review and comment on the process used by the office of 10948
budget and management to prepare its annual budgetary financial 10949
report and the state's comprehensive annual financial report 10950
required under division (A)(9) of section 126.21 of the Revised 10951
Code; 10952

       (3) Review and comment on unaudited financial statements 10953
submitted to the auditor of state and communicate with external 10954
auditors as required by government auditing standards;10955

       (4) Perform the additional functions imposed upon it by 10956
section 126.47 of the Revised Code.10957

       (C) As used in this section, "financial expert" means a 10958
person who has all of the following:10959

        (1) An understanding of generally accepted accounting 10960
principles and financial statements;10961

        (2) The ability to assess the general application of those 10962
principles in connection with accounting for estimates, accruals, 10963
and reserves;10964

        (3) Experience preparing, auditing, analyzing, or evaluating 10965
financial statements presenting accounting issues that generally 10966
are of comparable breadth and level of complexity to those likely 10967
to be presented by a state agency's financial statements, or 10968
experience actively supervising one or more persons engaged in 10969
those activities;10970

        (4) An understanding of internal controls and procedures for 10971
financial reporting; and10972

        (5) An understanding of audit committee functions.10973

       Sec. 126.47.  (A) The state audit committee created by 10974
section 126.46 of the Revised Code shall ensure that the office of 10975
internal auditingaudit in the office of budget and management has 10976
an annual internal audit plan that identifies the internal audits 10977
of state agencies or divisions of state agencies scheduled for the 10978
next fiscal year. The chief internal auditor of the office of 10979
internal auditingaudit shall submit the plan to the state audit 10980
committee for review and comment before the beginning of each 10981
fiscal year. The chief internal auditor may submit a revised 10982
internal audit plan for review and comment at any time the 10983
director of budget and management believes there is reason to 10984
modify the previously submitted plan for a fiscal year.10985

       (B) To determine the state agencies or divisions of state 10986
agencies that are to be internally audited, the office of internal 10987
auditingaudit, in the formulation of an annual or revised 10988
internal audit plan, and the state audit committee, in reviewing a 10989
submitted annual or revised internal audit plan, shall consider 10990
the following factors:10991

       (1) The risk for fraud, waste, or abuse of public money 10992
within an agency or division;10993

       (2) The length of time since an agency or division was last 10994
subject to an internal audit;10995

       (3) The size of an agency or division, and the amount of time 10996
and resources necessary to audit it;10997

       (4) Any other factor the state audit committee determines to 10998
be relevant.10999

       (C) All internal audits shall be conducted onlydirected by 11000
employees of the office of internal auditingaudit.11001

       (D) After the conclusion of an internal audit, the chief 11002
internal auditor shall submit a preliminary report of the internal 11003
audit's findings and recommendations to the state audit committee 11004
and to the director of the state agency involved. The state agency 11005
or division of the state agency covered by the preliminary report 11006
shall be provided an opportunity to respond within thirty days 11007
after receipt of the preliminary report. The response shall 11008
include a corrective action plan for any recommendations in the 11009
preliminary report that are not disputed by the agency or 11010
division. Any response received by the office of internal auditing11011
audit within that thirty-day period shall be included in the 11012
office's final report of the internal audit's findings and 11013
recommendations. The final report shall be issued by the office of 11014
internal auditingaudit within thirty days after the termination 11015
of the thirty-day response period. Copies of the final report 11016
shall be submitted to the state audit committee, the governor, and 11017
the director of the state agency involved. The state audit 11018
committee shall determine an appropriate method for making the 11019
preliminary and final reports available for public inspection in a 11020
timely manner.11021

       Any suspected fraud or other illegal activity discovered by 11022
the office of internal auditingaudit during the conduct of an 11023
internal audit shall be reported immediately to the state audit 11024
committee, the director of the state agency in which the fraud or 11025
illegal activity is suspected to have occurred, and the auditor of 11026
state.11027

       (E) The chief internal auditor shall prepare an annual report 11028
and submit the report to the governor, the president of the 11029
senate, the speaker of the house of representatives, and the 11030
auditor of state. The office of budget and management shall make 11031
the report available to the public by posting it on the office's 11032
web site before the first of JulyAugust of each year.11033

       Sec. 126.48. Any(A) Except as provided in division (B) of 11034
this section, any preliminary or final report of an internal 11035
audit's findings and recommendations which is produced by the 11036
office of internal auditingaudit in the office of budget and 11037
management and all work papers of the internal audit are 11038
confidential and are not public records under section 149.43 of 11039
the Revised Code until the final report of an internal audit's 11040
findings and recommendations is submitted to the state audit 11041
committee, the governor, and the director of the state agency 11042
involved.11043

       (B) The following are not public records under section 149.43 11044
of the Revised Code:11045

        (1) An internal audit report that meets the definition of a 11046
security record under section 149.433 of the Revised Code;11047

        (2) Any information derived from a state tax return or state 11048
tax return information as permitted to be used by the office of 11049
internal audit under section 5703.21 of the Revised Code. 11050

       Sec. 127.14.  The controlling board may, at the request of 11051
any state agency or the director of budget and management, 11052
authorize, with respect to the provisions of any appropriation 11053
act:11054

       (A) Transfers of all or part of an appropriation within but 11055
not between state agencies, except such transfers as the director 11056
of budget and management is authorized by law to make, provided 11057
that no transfer shall be made by the director for the purpose of 11058
effecting new or changed levels of program service not authorized 11059
by the general assembly;11060

       (B) Transfers of all or part of an appropriation from one 11061
fiscal year to another;11062

       (C) Transfers of all or part of an appropriation within or 11063
between state agencies made necessary by administrative 11064
reorganization or by the abolition of an agency or part of an 11065
agency;11066

       (D) Transfers of all or part of cash balances in excess of 11067
needs from any fund of the state to the general revenue fund or to 11068
such other fund of the state to which the money would have been 11069
credited in the absence of the fund from which the transfers are 11070
authorized to be made, except that the controlling board may not 11071
authorize such transfers from the accrued leave liability fund, 11072
auto registration distribution fund, local motor vehicle license 11073
tax fund, budget stabilization fund, building improvement fund,11074
development bond retirement fund, facilities establishment fund, 11075
gasoline excise tax fund, general revenue fund, higher education 11076
improvement fund, highway improvement bond retirement fund, 11077
highway obligations bond retirement fund, highway capital 11078
improvement fund, highway operating fund, horse racing tax fund, 11079
improvements bond retirement fund, public library fund, liquor 11080
control fund, local government fund, local transportation 11081
improvement program fund, mental health facilities improvement 11082
fund, Ohio fairs fund, parks and recreation improvement fund, 11083
public improvements bond retirement fund, school district income 11084
tax fund, state agency facilities improvement fund, state and 11085
local government highway distribution fund, state highway safety 11086
fund, state lottery fund, undivided liquor permit fund, Vietnam 11087
conflict compensation bond retirement fund, volunteer fire 11088
fighters' dependents fund, waterways safety fund, wildlife fund, 11089
workers' compensation fund, or any fund not specified in this 11090
division that the director of budget and management determines to 11091
be a bond fund or bond retirement fund;11092

       (E) Transfers of all or part of those appropriations included 11093
in the emergency purposes account of the controlling board;11094

       (F) Temporary transfers of all or part of an appropriation or 11095
other moneys into and between existing funds, or new funds, as may 11096
be established by law when needed for capital outlays for which 11097
notes or bonds will be issued;11098

       (G) Transfer or release of all or part of an appropriation to 11099
a state agency requiring controlling board approval of such 11100
transfer or release as provided by law;11101

       (H) Temporary transfer of funds included in the emergency 11102
purposes appropriation of the controlling board. Such temporary 11103
transfers may be made subject to conditions specified by the 11104
controlling board at the time temporary transfers are authorized. 11105
No transfers shall be made under this division for the purpose of 11106
effecting new or changed levels of program service not authorized 11107
by the general assembly.11108

       As used in this section, "request" means an application by a 11109
state agency or the director of budget and management seeking some 11110
action by the controlling board.11111

       When authorizing the transfer of all or part of an 11112
appropriation under this section, the controlling board may 11113
authorize the transfer to an existing appropriation item and the 11114
creation of and transfer to a new appropriation item.11115

       Whenever there is a transfer of all or part of funds included 11116
in the emergency purposes appropriation by the controlling board, 11117
pursuant to division (E) of this section, the state agency or the 11118
director of budget and management receiving such transfer shall 11119
keep a detailed record of the use of the transferred funds. At the 11120
earliest scheduled meeting of the controlling board following the 11121
accomplishment of the purposes specified in the request originally 11122
seeking the transfer, or following the total expenditure of the 11123
transferred funds for the specified purposes, the state agency or 11124
the director of budget and management shall submit a report on the 11125
expenditure of such funds to the board. The portion of any 11126
appropriation so transferred which is not required to accomplish 11127
the purposes designated in the original request to the controlling 11128
board shall be returned to the proper appropriation of the 11129
controlling board at this time.11130

       Notwithstanding any provisions of law providing for the 11131
deposit of revenues received by a state agency to the credit of a 11132
particular fund in the state treasury, whenever there is a 11133
temporary transfer of funds included in the emergency purposes 11134
appropriation of the controlling board pursuant to division (H) of 11135
this section, revenues received by any state agency receiving such 11136
a temporary transfer of funds shall, as directed by the 11137
controlling board, be transferred back to the emergency purposes 11138
appropriation.11139

       The board may delegate to the director of budget and 11140
management authority to approve transfers among items of 11141
appropriation under division (A) of this section.11142

       Sec. 127.16.  (A) Upon the request of either a state agency 11143
or the director of budget and management and after the controlling 11144
board determines that an emergency or a sufficient economic reason 11145
exists, the controlling board may approve the making of a purchase 11146
without competitive selection as provided in division (B) of this 11147
section.11148

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in this section, no state 11149
agency, using money that has been appropriated to it directly, 11150
shall:11151

       (1) Make any purchase from a particular supplier, that would 11152
amount to fifty thousand dollars or more when combined with both 11153
the amount of all disbursements to the supplier during the fiscal 11154
year for purchases made by the agency and the amount of all 11155
outstanding encumbrances for purchases made by the agency from the 11156
supplier, unless the purchase is made by competitive selection or 11157
with the approval of the controlling board;11158

       (2) Lease real estate from a particular supplier, if the 11159
lease would amount to seventy-five thousand dollars or more when 11160
combined with both the amount of all disbursements to the supplier 11161
during the fiscal year for real estate leases made by the agency 11162
and the amount of all outstanding encumbrances for real estate 11163
leases made by the agency from the supplier, unless the lease is 11164
made by competitive selection or with the approval of the 11165
controlling board.11166

       (C) Any person who authorizes a purchase in violation of 11167
division (B) of this section shall be liable to the state for any 11168
state funds spent on the purchase, and the attorney general shall 11169
collect the amount from the person.11170

       (D) Nothing in division (B) of this section shall be 11171
construed as:11172

       (1) A limitation upon the authority of the director of 11173
transportation as granted in sections 5501.17, 5517.02, and 11174
5525.14 of the Revised Code;11175

       (2) Applying to medicaid provider agreements under Chapter 11176
5111. of the Revised Codemedicaid program;11177

       (3) Applying to the purchase of examinations from a sole 11178
supplier by a state licensing board under Title XLVII of the 11179
Revised Code;11180

       (4) Applying to entertainment contracts for the Ohio state 11181
fair entered into by the Ohio expositions commission, provided 11182
that the controlling board has given its approval to the 11183
commission to enter into such contracts and has approved a total 11184
budget amount for such contracts as agreed upon by commission 11185
action, and that the commission causes to be kept itemized records 11186
of the amounts of money spent under each contract and annually 11187
files those records with the clerk of the house of representatives 11188
and the clerk of the senate following the close of the fair;11189

       (5) Limiting the authority of the chief of the division of 11190
mineral resources management to contract for reclamation work with 11191
an operator mining adjacent land as provided in section 1513.27 of 11192
the Revised Code;11193

       (6) Applying to investment transactions and procedures of any 11194
state agency, except that the agency shall file with the board the 11195
name of any person with whom the agency contracts to make, broker, 11196
service, or otherwise manage its investments, as well as the 11197
commission, rate, or schedule of charges of such person with 11198
respect to any investment transactions to be undertaken on behalf 11199
of the agency. The filing shall be in a form and at such times as 11200
the board considers appropriate.11201

       (7) Applying to purchases made with money for the per cent 11202
for arts program established by section 3379.10 of the Revised 11203
Code;11204

       (8) Applying to purchases made by the rehabilitation services 11205
commissionopportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency of 11206
services, or supplies, that are provided to persons with 11207
disabilities, or to purchases made by the commissionagency in 11208
connection with the eligibility determinations it makes for 11209
applicants of programs administered by the social security 11210
administration;11211

       (9) Applying to payments by the department of job and family 11212
servicesmedicaid under section 5111.135164.85 of the Revised 11213
Code for group health plan premiums, deductibles, coinsurance, and 11214
other cost-sharing expenses;11215

       (10) Applying to any agency of the legislative branch of the 11216
state government;11217

       (11) Applying to agreements or contracts entered into under 11218
section 5101.11, 5101.20, 5101.201, 5101.21, or 5101.214 of the 11219
Revised Code;11220

       (12) Applying to purchases of services by the adult parole 11221
authority under section 2967.14 of the Revised Code or by the 11222
department of youth services under section 5139.08 of the Revised 11223
Code;11224

       (13) Applying to dues or fees paid for membership in an 11225
organization or association;11226

       (14) Applying to purchases of utility services pursuant to 11227
section 9.30 of the Revised Code;11228

       (15) Applying to purchases made in accordance with rules 11229
adopted by the department of administrative services of motor 11230
vehicle, aviation, or watercraft fuel, or emergency repairs of 11231
such vehicles;11232

       (16) Applying to purchases of tickets for passenger air 11233
transportation;11234

       (17) Applying to purchases necessary to provide public 11235
notifications required by law or to provide notifications of job 11236
openings;11237

       (18) Applying to the judicial branch of state government;11238

       (19) Applying to purchases of liquor for resale by the 11239
division of liquor control;11240

       (20) Applying to purchases of motor courier and freight 11241
services made in accordance with department of administrative 11242
services rules;11243

       (21) Applying to purchases from the United States postal 11244
service and purchases of stamps and postal meter replenishment 11245
from vendors at rates established by the United States postal 11246
service;11247

       (22) Applying to purchases of books, periodicals, pamphlets, 11248
newspapers, maintenance subscriptions, and other published 11249
materials;11250

       (23) Applying to purchases from other state agencies, 11251
including state-assisted institutions of higher education or the 11252
Ohio historical society;11253

       (24) Limiting the authority of the director of environmental 11254
protection to enter into contracts under division (D) of section 11255
3745.14 of the Revised Code to conduct compliance reviews, as 11256
defined in division (A) of that section;11257

       (25) Applying to purchases from a qualified nonprofit agency 11258
pursuant to sections 125.60 to 125.6012 or 4115.31 to 4115.35 of 11259
the Revised Code;11260

       (26) Applying to payments by the department of job and family 11261
services to the United States department of health and human 11262
services for printing and mailing notices pertaining to the tax 11263
refund offset program of the internal revenue service of the 11264
United States department of the treasury;11265

       (27) Applying to contracts entered into by the department of 11266
developmental disabilities under section 5123.18 of the Revised 11267
Code;11268

       (28) Applying to payments made by the department of mental 11269
healthmental health and addiction services under a physician 11270
recruitment program authorized by section 5119.1015119.185 of 11271
the Revised Code;11272

       (29) Applying to contracts entered into with persons by the 11273
director of commerce for unclaimed funds collection and remittance 11274
efforts as provided in division (F) of section 169.03 of the 11275
Revised Code. The director shall keep an itemized accounting of 11276
unclaimed funds collected by those persons and amounts paid to 11277
them for their services.11278

       (30) Applying to purchases made by a state institution of 11279
higher education in accordance with the terms of a contract 11280
between the vendor and an inter-university purchasing group 11281
comprised of purchasing officers of state institutions of higher 11282
education;11283

       (31) Applying to the department of job and family services'11284
medicaid's purchases of health assistance services under the 11285
children's health insurance program part I provided for under 11286
section 5101.50 of the Revised Code, the children's health 11287
insurance program part II provided for under section 5101.51 of 11288
the Revised Code, or the children's health insurance program part 11289
III provided for under section 5101.52 of the Revised Code;11290

       (32) Applying to payments by the attorney general from the 11291
reparations fund to hospitals and other emergency medical 11292
facilities for performing medical examinations to collect physical 11293
evidence pursuant to section 2907.28 of the Revised Code;11294

       (33) Applying to contracts with a contracting authority or 11295
administrative receiver under division (B) of section 5126.056 of 11296
the Revised Code;11297

       (34) Applying to purchases of goods and services by the 11298
department of veterans services in accordance with the terms of 11299
contracts entered into by the United States department of veterans 11300
affairs;11301

       (35) Applying to payments by the superintendent of the bureau 11302
of criminal identification and investigation to the federal bureau 11303
of investigation for criminal records checks pursuant to section 11304
109.572 of the Revised Code;11305

       (36) Applying to contracts entered into by the department of 11306
job and family servicesmedicaid under section 5111.0545164.47 of 11307
the Revised Code;11308

       (37) Applying to contracts entered into under section 5160.12 11309
of the Revised Code;11310

       (38) Applying to payments to the Ohio historical society from 11311
other state agencies.11312

       (E) When determining whether a state agency has reached the 11313
cumulative purchase thresholds established in divisions (B)(1) and 11314
(2) of this section, all of the following purchases by such agency 11315
shall not be considered:11316

       (1) Purchases made through competitive selection or with 11317
controlling board approval;11318

       (2) Purchases listed in division (D) of this section;11319

       (3) For the purposes of the threshold of division (B)(1) of 11320
this section only, leases of real estate.11321

       (F) As used in this section, "competitive selection," 11322
"purchase," "supplies," and "services" have the same meanings as 11323
in section 125.01 of the Revised Code.11324

       Sec. 5507.01.        Sec. 128.01.  As used in this chapter:11325

       (A) "9-1-1 system" means a system through which individuals 11326
can request emergency service using the telephone number 9-1-1.11327

       (B) "Basic 9-1-1" means a 9-1-1 system in which a caller 11328
provides information on the nature of and the location of an 11329
emergency, and the personnel receiving the call must determine the 11330
appropriate emergency service provider to respond at that 11331
location.11332

       (C) "Enhanced 9-1-1" means a 9-1-1 system capable of 11333
providing both enhanced wireline 9-1-1 and wireless enhanced 11334
9-1-1.11335

       (D) "Enhanced wireline 9-1-1" means a 9-1-1 system in which 11336
the wireline telephone network, in providing wireline 9-1-1, 11337
automatically routes the call to emergency service providers that 11338
serve the location from which the call is made and immediately 11339
provides to personnel answering the 9-1-1 call information on the 11340
location and the telephone number from which the call is being 11341
made.11342

       (E) "Wireless enhanced 9-1-1" means a 9-1-1 system that, in 11343
providing wireless 9-1-1, has the capabilities of phase I and, to 11344
the extent available, phase II enhanced 9-1-1 services as 11345
described in 47 C.F.R. 20.18 (d) to (h).11346

       (F)(1) "Wireless service" means federally licensed commercial 11347
mobile service as defined in 47 U.S.C. 332(d) and further defined 11348
as commercial mobile radio service in 47 C.F.R. 20.3, and includes 11349
service provided by any wireless, two-way communications device, 11350
including a radio-telephone communications line used in cellular 11351
telephone service or personal communications service, a network 11352
radio access line, or any functional or competitive equivalent of 11353
such a radio-telephone communications or network radio access 11354
line.11355

       (2) Nothing in this chapter applies to paging or any service 11356
that cannot be used to call 9-1-1.11357

       (G) "Wireless service provider" means a facilities-based 11358
provider of wireless service to one or more end users in this 11359
state.11360

       (H) "Wireless 9-1-1" means the emergency calling service 11361
provided by a 9-1-1 system pursuant to a call originating in the 11362
network of a wireless service provider.11363

       (I) "Wireline 9-1-1" means the emergency calling service 11364
provided by a 9-1-1 system pursuant to a call originating in the 11365
network of a wireline service provider.11366

       (J) "Wireline service provider" means a facilities-based 11367
provider of wireline service to one or more end-users in this 11368
state.11369

       (K) "Wireline service" means basic local exchange service, as 11370
defined in section 4927.01 of the Revised Code, that is 11371
transmitted by means of interconnected wires or cables by a 11372
wireline service provider authorized by the public utilities 11373
commission.11374

       (L) "Wireline telephone network" means the selective router 11375
and data base processing systems, trunking and data wiring cross 11376
connection points at the public safety answering point, and all 11377
other voice and data components of the 9-1-1 system.11378

       (M) "Subdivision" means a county, municipal corporation, 11379
township, township fire district, joint fire district, township 11380
police district, joint police district, joint ambulance district, 11381
or joint emergency medical services district that provides 11382
emergency service within its territory, or that contracts with 11383
another municipal corporation, township, or district or with a 11384
private entity to provide such service; and a state college or 11385
university, port authority, or park district of any kind that 11386
employs law enforcement officers that act as the primary police 11387
force on the grounds of the college or university or port 11388
authority or in the parks operated by the district.11389

       (N) "Emergency service" means emergency law enforcement, 11390
firefighting, ambulance, rescue, and medical service.11391

       (O) "Emergency service provider" means the state highway 11392
patrol and an emergency service department or unit of a 11393
subdivision or that provides emergency service to a subdivision 11394
under contract with the subdivision.11395

       (P) "Public safety answering point" means a facility to which 11396
9-1-1 system calls for a specific territory are initially routed 11397
for response and where personnel respond to specific requests for 11398
emergency service by directly dispatching the appropriate 11399
emergency service provider, relaying a message to the appropriate 11400
provider, or transferring the call to the appropriate provider.11401

       (Q) "Customer premises equipment" means telecommunications 11402
equipment, including telephone instruments, on the premises of a 11403
public safety answering point that is used in answering and 11404
responding to 9-1-1 system calls.11405

       (R) "Municipal corporation in the county" includes any 11406
municipal corporation that is wholly contained in the county and 11407
each municipal corporation located in more than one county that 11408
has a greater proportion of its territory in the county to which 11409
the term refers than in any other county.11410

       (S) "Board of county commissioners" includes the legislative 11411
authority of a county established under Section 3 of Article X, 11412
Ohio Constitution, or Chapter 302. of the Revised Code.11413

       (T) "Final plan" means a final plan adopted under division 11414
(B) of section 5507.08128.08 of the Revised Code and, except as 11415
otherwise expressly provided, an amended final plan adopted under 11416
section 5507.12128.12 of the Revised Code.11417

       (U) "Subdivision served by a public safety answering point" 11418
means a subdivision that provides emergency service for any part 11419
of its territory that is located within the territory of a public 11420
safety answering point whether the subdivision provides the 11421
emergency service with its own employees or pursuant to a 11422
contract.11423

       (V) A township's population includes only population of the 11424
unincorporated portion of the township.11425

       (W) "Telephone company" means a company engaged in the 11426
business of providing local exchange telephone service by making 11427
available or furnishing access and a dial tone to persons within a 11428
local calling area for use in originating and receiving voice 11429
grade communications over a switched network operated by the 11430
provider of the service within the area and gaining access to 11431
other telecommunications services. "Telephone company" includes a 11432
wireline service provider and a wireless service provider unless 11433
otherwise expressly specified. For purposes of sections 5507.2511434
128.25 and 5507.26128.26 of the Revised Code, "telephone company" 11435
means a wireline service provider.11436

       (X) "Prepaid wireless calling service" has the same meaning 11437
as in division (AA)(5) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.11438

       (Y) "Provider of a prepaid wireless calling service" means a 11439
wireless service provider that provides a prepaid wireless calling 11440
service.11441

       (Z) "Retail sale" has the same meaning as in section 5739.01 11442
of the Revised Code.11443

       (AA) "Seller" means a person that sells a prepaid wireless 11444
calling service to another person by retail sale.11445

       (BB) "Consumer" means the person for whom the prepaid 11446
wireless calling service is provided, to whom the transfer 11447
effected or license given by a sale is or is to be made or given, 11448
to whom the prepaid wireless calling service is charged, or to 11449
whom the admission is granted.11450

       (CC) "Reseller" means a nonfacilities-based provider of 11451
wireless service that provides wireless service under its own name 11452
to one or more end users in this state using the network of a 11453
wireless service provider.11454

       (DD) "Steering committee" means the statewide emergency 11455
services internet protocol network steering committee established 11456
by division (A)(1) of section 128.02 of the Revised Code.11457

       Sec. 5507.02.        Sec. 128.02.  (A)(1) There is hereby created the 11458
statewide emergency services internet protocol network steering 11459
committee, consisting of the following ten members:11460

       (a) The state chief information officer or the officer's 11461
designee;11462

       (b) Two members of the house of representatives appointed by 11463
the speaker, one from the majority party and one from the minority 11464
party;11465

       (c) Two members of the senate appointed by the president, one 11466
from the majority party and one from the minority party;11467

       (d) Five members appointed by the governor.11468

       (2) In appointing the five members under division (A)(1)(d) 11469
of this section, the governor shall appoint two representatives of 11470
the county commissioners' association of Ohio or a successor 11471
organization, two representatives of the Ohio municipal league or 11472
a successor organization, and one representative of the Ohio 11473
township association or a successor organization. For each of 11474
these appointments, the governor shall consider a nominee proposed 11475
by the association or successor organization. The governor may 11476
reject any of the nominees and may request that a nominating 11477
entity submit alternative nominees.11478

       (3) Initial appointments shall be made not later than ten 11479
days after September 28, 2012.11480

       (B)(1) The state chief information officer or the officer's 11481
designee shall serve as the chairperson of the steering committee 11482
and shall be a nonvoting member. All other members shall be voting 11483
members.11484

       (2) A member of the steering committee appointed from the 11485
membership of the senate or the house of representatives shall 11486
serve during the member's term as a member of the general assembly 11487
and until a successor is appointed and qualified, notwithstanding 11488
adjournment of the general assembly or the expiration of the 11489
member's term as a member of the general assembly.11490

       (3) The initial terms of one of the representatives of the 11491
county commissioners' association of Ohio, one of the 11492
representatives of the Ohio municipal league, and the 11493
representative of the Ohio township association shall all expire 11494
on December 31, 2016. The initial terms of the other 11495
representatives of the county commissioners' association of Ohio 11496
and the Ohio municipal league shall expire on December 31, 2014. 11497
Thereafter, terms of the members appointed by the governor shall 11498
be for four years, with each term ending on the same day of the 11499
same month as the term it succeeds. Each member appointed by the 11500
governor shall hold office from the date of the member's 11501
appointment until the end of the term for which the member was 11502
appointed, and may be reappointed. A member appointed by the 11503
governor shall continue in office after the expiration date of the 11504
member's term until the member's successor takes office or until a 11505
period of sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first. Members 11506
appointed by the governor shall serve without compensation and 11507
shall not be reimbursed for expenses.11508

       (4) A vacancy in the position of any member of the steering 11509
committee shall be filled for the unexpired term in the same 11510
manner as the original appointment.11511

       (C) The steering committee shall generally advise the state 11512
on the implementation, operation, and maintenance of a statewide 11513
emergency services internet protocol network that would support 11514
state and local government next-generation 9-1-1 and the dispatch 11515
of emergency service providers. The steering committee shall do 11516
all of the following:11517

       (1) On or before May 15, 2013, deliver an initial report to 11518
the speaker of the house of representatives, the president of the 11519
senate, and the governor providing recommendations for the state 11520
to address the development of a statewide emergency services 11521
internet protocol network, which recommendations shall include a 11522
review of the current funding model for this state's 9-1-1 systems 11523
and may include a recommendation for a reduction in wireless 9-1-1 11524
charges; 11525

       (2) Examine the readiness of the state's current technology 11526
infrastructure for a statewide emergency services internet 11527
protocol network;11528

       (3) Research legislative authority with regard to governance 11529
and funding of a statewide emergency services internet protocol 11530
network, and provide recommendations on best practices to limit 11531
duplicative efforts to ensure an effective transition to 11532
next-generation 9-1-1; 11533

       (4) Make recommendations for consolidation of 11534
public-safety-answering-point operations in this state, including 11535
recommendations for accelerating the consolidation schedule 11536
established in section 5507.571128.571 of the Revised Code, to 11537
accommodate next-generation 9-1-1 technology and to facilitate a 11538
more efficient and effective emergency services system;11539

       (5) Recommend policies, procedures, and statutory or 11540
regulatory authority to effectively govern a statewide emergency 11541
services internet protocol network;11542

       (6) Designate a next-generation 9-1-1 statewide coordinator 11543
to serve as the primary point of contact for federal initiatives;11544

       (7) Coordinate with statewide initiatives and associations 11545
such as the state interoperable executive committee, the Ohio 11546
geographically referenced information program council, the Ohio 11547
multi-agency radio communications system steering committee, and 11548
other interested parties;11549

       (8) Serve as the entity responsible for the administration of 11550
Chapter 128. of the Revised Code. 11551

       (D)(1) Not later than February 15, 2013, each chairperson of 11552
a countywide 9-1-1 planning committee or the chairperson's 11553
designee shall report the following informationA 9-1-1 service 11554
provider shall provide to the steering committee:11555

       (a) The aggregate number of access lines that the provider 11556
maintains within the state of Ohio;11557

        (b) The aggregate amount of costs and cost recovery 11558
associated with providing 9-1-1 service, including coverage under 11559
tariffs and bill and keep arrangements within this state;11560

        (c) Any other information requested by the steering committee 11561
deemed necessary to support the transition to next generation 11562
9-1-1.11563

        (2) Any political subdivision or governmental entity 11564
operating a public safety answering point shall provide to the 11565
steering committee:11566

        (a) The geographic location and population of the area for 11567
which the planning committee is responsible;11568

       (b) Statistics detailing the number of 9-1-1 calls received;11569

       (c) A report of expenditures made from disbursements from the 11570
wirelessfor 9-1-1 government assistance fund;11571

       (d) An inventory of and the technical specifications for the 11572
current 9-1-1 network and equipment;11573

       (e) Any other information requested by the steering committee 11574
that is deemed necessary to support the transition to next 11575
generation 9-1-1.11576

       (2)(a) If, by February 15, 2013, a countywide 9-1-1 planning 11577
committee fails to provide to the steering committee the 11578
information required under division (D)(1) of this section, the 11579
steering committee shall notify the Ohio 9-1-1 coordinator of the 11580
failure and the coordinator shall suspend disbursements from the 11581
wireless 9-1-1 government assistance fund to that county. 11582
Disbursements to the county shall resume after the steering 11583
committee receives the required information and notifies the 11584
coordinator that the requirement has been met.11585

       (b) Beginning January 1, 2014, the notification that the 11586
steering committee has received the required information shall be 11587
sent to the tax commissioner, and the disbursements to the county 11588
shall resume after the tax commissioner receives that notice11589

       (3) The information requested under divisions (D)(1) and (2) 11590
of this section shall be provided by the 9-1-1 service provider, 11591
political subdivision, or governmental entity within forty-five 11592
days of the request of the steering committee. 11593

       (E) The steering committee shall hold its inaugural meeting 11594
not later than thirty days after September 28, 2012. Thereafter, 11595
the steering committee shall meet at least once a month, either in 11596
person or utilizing telecommunication-conferencing technology. A 11597
majority of the voting members shall constitute a quorum.11598

       (F)(1) The steering committee shall have a permanent 11599
technical-standards subcommittee and a permanent 11600
public-safety-answering-point-operations subcommittee, and may, 11601
from time to time, establish additional subcommittees, to advise 11602
and assist the steering committee based upon the subcommittees' 11603
areas of expertise.11604

       (2) The membership of subcommittees shall be determined by 11605
the steering committee.11606

       (a) The technical-standards subcommittee shall include one 11607
member representing a wireline or wireless service provider that 11608
participates in the state's 9-1-1 system, one representative of 11609
the Ohio academic resources network, one representative of the 11610
Ohio multi-agency radio communications system steering committee, 11611
one representative of the Ohio geographically referenced 11612
information program, and one member representing each of the 11613
following associations selected by the steering committee from 11614
nominations received from that association:11615

       (i) The Ohio telephone association;11616

       (ii) The Ohio chapter of the association of public-safety 11617
communications officials;11618

       (iii) The Ohio chapter of the national emergency number 11619
association.11620

       (b) The public-safety-answering-point-operations subcommittee 11621
shall include one member representing the division of emergency 11622
management of the department of public safety, one member 11623
representing the state highway patrol, two members recommended by 11624
the county commissioners' association of Ohio who are managers of 11625
public safety answering points, two members recommended by the 11626
Ohio municipal league who are managers of public safety answering 11627
points, and one member from each of the following associations 11628
selected by the steering committee from nominations received from 11629
that association:11630

       (i) The buckeye state sheriffs' association;11631

       (ii) The Ohio association of chiefs of police;11632

       (iii) The Ohio association of fire chiefs;11633

       (iv) The Ohio chapter of the association of public-safety 11634
communications officials;11635

       (v) The Ohio chapter of the national emergency number 11636
association.11637

       (G) The committee is not an agency, as defined in section 11638
101.82 of the Revised Code, for purposes of sections 101.82 to 11639
101.87 of the Revised Code.11640

       (H) As used in this section, "9-1-1 system," "wireless 11641
service provider," "wireline service provider," "emergency service 11642
provider," and "public safety answering point" have the same 11643
meanings as in section 5507.01128.01 of the Revised Code.11644

       (I) As used in this section, "bill and keep arrangements" has 11645
the same meaning as in 47 C.F.R. 51.713.11646

       Sec. 5507.021.        Sec. 128.021.  Not later than January 1, 2014, and 11647
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the statewide 11648
emergency services internet protocol network steering committee 11649
shall adopt rules that establish technical and operational 11650
standards for public safety answering points eligible to receive 11651
disbursements under section 5507.55128.55 of the Revised Code. 11652
The rules shall incorporate industry standards and best practices 11653
for wireless 9-1-1 services. Public safety answering points shall 11654
comply with the standards not later than two years after the 11655
effective date of the rules adopting the standards.11656

       Sec. 5507.022.        Sec. 128.022.  The statewide emergency services 11657
internet protocol network steering committee shall establish 11658
guidelines for the tax commissioner to use when disbursing money 11659
from the next generation 9-1-1 fund to countywide 9-1-1 systems in 11660
the state. The guidelines shall be consistent with the standards 11661
adopted in section 5507.021128.021 of the Revised Code and shall 11662
specify that disbursements may be used for costs associated with 11663
the operation of and equipment for phase II wireless systems and 11664
for costs associated with a county's migration to next generation 11665
9-1-1 systems and technology.11666

       Sec. 5507.03.        Sec. 128.03.  (A)(1) A countywide 9-1-1 system shall 11667
include all of the territory of the townships and municipal 11668
corporations in the county and any portion of such a municipal 11669
corporation that extends into an adjacent county.11670

       (2) The system shall exclude any territory served by a 11671
wireline service provider that is not capable of reasonably 11672
meeting the technical and economic requirements of providing the 11673
wireline telephone network portion of the countywide system for 11674
that territory. The system shall exclude from enhanced 9-1-1 any 11675
territory served by a wireline service provider that is not 11676
capable of reasonably meeting the technical and economic 11677
requirements of providing the wireline telephone network portion 11678
of enhanced 9-1-1 for that territory. If a 9-1-1 planning 11679
committee and a wireline service provider do not agree on whether 11680
the provider is so capable, the planning committee shall notify 11681
the department of public safetysteering committee, and the 11682
departmentsteering committee shall determine whether the wireline 11683
service provider is so capable. The planning committee shall 11684
ascertain whether such disagreement exists before making its 11685
implementation proposal under division (A) of section 5507.0711686
128.07 of the Revised Code. The department'ssteering committee's11687
determination shall be in the form of an order. No final plan 11688
shall require a wireline service provider to provide the wireline 11689
telephone network portion of a 9-1-1 system that the department11690
steering committee has determined the provider is not reasonably 11691
capable of providing.11692

       (B) A countywide 9-1-1 system may be a basic or enhanced 11693
9-1-1 system, or a combination of the two, and shall be for the 11694
purpose of providing both wireline 9-1-1 and wireless 9-1-1.11695

       (C) Every emergency service provider that provides emergency 11696
service within the territory of a countywide 9-1-1 system shall 11697
participate in the countywide system.11698

       (D)(1) Each public safety answering point shall be operated 11699
by a subdivision or a regional council of governments and shall be 11700
operated constantly.11701

       (2) A subdivision or a regional council of governments that 11702
operates a public safety answering point shall pay all of the 11703
costs associated with establishing, equipping, furnishing, 11704
operating, and maintaining that facility and shall allocate those 11705
costs among itself and the subdivisions served by the answering 11706
point based on the allocation formula in a final plan. The 11707
wireline service provider or other entity that provides or 11708
maintains the customer premises equipment shall bill the operating 11709
subdivision or the operating regional council of governments for 11710
the cost of providing such equipment, or its maintenance. A 11711
wireless service provider and a subdivision or regional council of 11712
governments operating a public safety answering point may enter 11713
into a service agreement for providing wireless enhanced 9-1-1 11714
pursuant to a final plan adopted under this chapter.11715

       (E) Except to the extent provided in a final plan that 11716
provides for funding of a 9-1-1 system in part through charges 11717
imposed under section 5507.22128.22 of the Revised Code, each 11718
subdivision served by a public safety answering point shall pay 11719
the subdivision or regional council of governments that operates 11720
the answering point the amount computed in accordance with the 11721
allocation formula set forth in the final plan.11722

       (F) Notwithstanding any other provision of law, the purchase 11723
or other acquisition, installation, and maintenance of the 11724
telephone network for a 9-1-1 system and the purchase or other 11725
acquisition, installation, and maintenance of customer premises 11726
equipment at a public safety answering point made in compliance 11727
with a final plan or an agreement under section 5507.09128.09 of 11728
the Revised Code, including customer premises equipment used to 11729
provide wireless enhanced 9-1-1, are not subject to any 11730
requirement of competitive bidding.11731

       (G) Each emergency service provider participating in a 11732
countywide 9-1-1 system shall maintain a telephone number in 11733
addition to 9-1-1.11734

       (H) Whenever a final plan provides for the implementation of 11735
basic 9-1-1, the planning committee shall so notify the department 11736
of public safetysteering committee, which shall determine whether 11737
the wireline service providers serving the territory covered by 11738
the plan are capable of reasonably meeting the technical and 11739
economic requirements of providing the wireline telephone network 11740
portion of an enhanced 9-1-1 system. The determination shall be 11741
made solely for purposes of division (C)(2) of section 5507.1811742
128.18 of the Revised Code.11743

       (I) If the public safety answering point personnel reasonably 11744
determine that a 9-1-1 call is not an emergency, the personnel 11745
shall provide the caller with the telephone number of an 11746
appropriate subdivision agency as applicable.11747

       (J) A final plan adopted under this chapter, or an agreement 11748
under section 5507.09128.09 of the Revised Code, may provide 11749
that, by further agreement included in the plan or agreement, the 11750
state highway patrol or one or more public safety answering points 11751
of another 9-1-1 system is the public safety answering point or 11752
points for the provision of wireline or wireless 9-1-1 for all or 11753
part of the territory of the 9-1-1 system established under the 11754
plan or agreement. In that event, the subdivision for which the 11755
wireline or wireless 9-1-1 is provided as named in the agreement 11756
shall be deemed the subdivision operating the public safety 11757
answering point or points for purposes of this chapter, except 11758
that, for the purpose of division (D)(2) of this section, that 11759
subdivision shall pay only so much of the costs of establishing, 11760
equipping, furnishing, operating, or maintaining any such public 11761
safety answering point as are specified in the agreement with the 11762
patrol or other system.11763

       (K) A final plan for the provision of wireless enhanced 9-1-1 11764
shall provide that any wireless 9-1-1 calls routed to a state 11765
highway patrol-operated public safety answering point by default, 11766
due to a wireless service provider so routing all such calls of 11767
its subscribers without prior permission, are instead to be routed 11768
as provided under the plan. Upon the implementation of countywide 11769
wireless enhanced 9-1-1 pursuant to a final plan, the state 11770
highway patrol shall cease any functioning as a public safety 11771
answering point providing wireless 9-1-1 within the territory 11772
covered by the countywide 9-1-1 system so established, unless the 11773
patrol functions as a public safety answering point providing 11774
wireless enhanced 9-1-1 pursuant to an agreement included in the 11775
plan as authorized under division (J) of this section.11776

       Sec. 5507.06.        Sec. 128.06.  (A) A board of county commissioners or 11777
the legislative authority of any municipal corporation in the 11778
county that contains at least thirty per cent of the county's 11779
population may adopt a resolution to convene a 9-1-1 planning 11780
committee, which shall serve without compensation and shall 11781
consist of three voting members as follows:11782

       (1) The president or other presiding officer of the board of 11783
county commissioners, who shall serve as chairperson of the 11784
committee;11785

       (2) The chief executive officer of the most populous 11786
municipal corporation in the county;11787

       (3) From the more populous of the following, either the chief 11788
executive officer of the second most populous municipal 11789
corporation in the county or a member of the board of township 11790
trustees of the most populous township in the county as selected 11791
by majority vote of the board of trustees.11792

       In counties with a population of one hundred seventy-five 11793
thousand or more, the planning committee shall consist of two 11794
additional voting members as follows: a member of a board of 11795
township trustees selected by the majority of boards of township 11796
trustees in the county pursuant to resolutions they adopt, and the 11797
chief executive officer of a municipal corporation in the county 11798
selected by the majority of the legislative authorities of 11799
municipal corporations in the county pursuant to resolutions they 11800
adopt.11801

       When determining population under this division, population 11802
residing outside the county shall be excluded.11803

       (B) Within thirty days after the adoption of a resolution to 11804
convene the committee under division (A) of this section, the 11805
committee shall convene for the sole purpose of developing a final 11806
plan for implementing a countywide 9-1-1 system. The county shall 11807
provide the committee with any clerical, legal, and other staff 11808
assistance necessary to develop the final plan and shall pay for 11809
copying, mailing, and any other such expenses incurred by the 11810
committee in developing the final plan and in meeting the 11811
requirements imposed by sections 5507.06128.06 to 5507.08128.0811812
of the Revised Code.11813

       (C) The 9-1-1 planning committee shall appoint a 9-1-1 11814
technical advisory committee to assist it in planning the 11815
countywide 9-1-1 system. The advisory committee shall include at 11816
least one fire chief and one police chief serving in the county, 11817
the county sheriff, a representative of the state highway patrol 11818
selected by the patrol, one representative of each telephone 11819
company in each case selected by the telephone company 11820
represented, the director/coordinator of emergency management 11821
appointed under section 5502.26, 5502.27, or 5502.271 of the 11822
Revised Code, as appropriate, and a member of a board of township 11823
trustees of a township in the county selected by a majority of 11824
boards of township trustees in the county pursuant to resolutions 11825
they adopt.11826

       Sec. 5507.07.        Sec. 128.07.  (A) The 9-1-1 planning committee shall 11827
prepare a proposal on the implementation of a countywide 9-1-1 11828
system and shall hold a public meeting on the proposal to explain 11829
the system to and receive comments from public officials. At least 11830
thirty but not more than sixty days before the meeting, the 11831
committee shall send a copy of the implementation proposal and 11832
written notice of the meeting:11833

       (1) By certified mail, to the board of county commissioners, 11834
the legislative authority of each municipal corporation in the 11835
county, and to the board of trustees of each township in the 11836
county; and11837

       (2) To the board of trustees, directors, or park 11838
commissioners of each subdivision that will be served by a public 11839
safety answering point under the plan.11840

       (B) The proposal and the final plan adopted by the committee 11841
shall specify:11842

       (1) Which telephone companies serving customers in the county 11843
and, as authorized in division (A)(1) of section 5507.03128.03 of 11844
the Revised Code, in an adjacent county will participate in the 11845
9-1-1 system;11846

       (2) The location and number of public safety answering 11847
points; how they will be connected to a company's telephone 11848
network; from what geographic territory each will receive 9-1-1 11849
calls; whether basic or enhanced 9-1-1 service will be provided 11850
within such territory; what subdivisions will be served by the 11851
answering point; and whether an answering point will respond to 11852
calls by directly dispatching an emergency service provider, by 11853
relaying a message to the appropriate provider, or by transferring 11854
the call to the appropriate provider;11855

       (3) Which subdivision or regional council of governments will 11856
establish, equip, furnish, operate, and maintain a particular 11857
public safety answering point;11858

       (4) A projection of the initial cost of establishing, 11859
equipping, and furnishing and of the annual cost of the first five 11860
years of operating and maintaining each public safety answering 11861
point;11862

       (5) Whether the cost of establishing, equipping, furnishing, 11863
operating, or maintaining each public safety answering point 11864
should be funded through charges imposed under section 5507.2211865
128.22 of the Revised Code or will be allocated among the 11866
subdivisions served by the answering point and, if any such cost 11867
is to be allocated, the formula for so allocating it;11868

       (6) How each emergency service provider will respond to a 11869
misdirected call.11870

       (C) Following the meeting required by this section, the 9-1-1 11871
planning committee may modify the implementation proposal and, no 11872
later than nine months after the resolution authorized by section 11873
5507.06128.06 of the Revised Code is adopted, may adopt, by 11874
majority vote, a final plan for implementing a countywide 9-1-1 11875
system. If a planning committee and wireline service provider do 11876
not agree on whether the wireline service provider is capable of 11877
providing the wireline telephone network as described under 11878
division (A) of section 5507.03128.03 of the Revised Code and the 11879
planning committee refers that question to the department of 11880
public safetysteering committee, the departmentsteering 11881
committee may extend the nine-month deadline established by this 11882
division to twelve months. Immediately on completion of the plan, 11883
the planning committee shall send a copy of the final plan:11884

       (1) By certified mail to the board of county commissioners of 11885
the county, to the legislative authority of each municipal 11886
corporation in the county, and to the board of township trustees 11887
of each township in the county; and11888

       (2) To the board of trustees, directors, or park 11889
commissioners of each subdivision that will be served by a public 11890
safety answering point under the plan.11891

       (D) If the committee has not adopted a final plan on or 11892
before the deadline in division (C) of this section, the committee 11893
shall cease to exist. A new 9-1-1 planning committee may be 11894
convened in the manner established in section 5507.06 of the 11895
Revised Code to develop an implementation proposal and final plan 11896
in accordance with the requirements of sections 5507.06 to 5507.08 11897
of the Revised Code.11898

       Sec. 5507.08.        Sec. 128.08.  (A) Within sixty days after receipt of 11899
the final plan pursuant to division (C) of section 5507.07128.0711900
of the Revised Code, the board of county commissioners of the 11901
county and the legislative authority of each municipal corporation 11902
in the county and of each township whose territory is proposed to 11903
be included in a countywide 9-1-1 system shall act by resolution 11904
to approve or disapprove the plan, except that, with respect to a 11905
final plan that provides for funding of the 9-1-1 system in part 11906
through charges imposed under section 5507.22128.22 of the 11907
Revised Code, the board of county commissioners shall not act by 11908
resolution to approve or disapprove the plan until after a 11909
resolution adopted under section 5507.22128.22 of the Revised 11910
Code has become effective as provided in division (D) of that 11911
section. A municipal corporation or township whose territory is 11912
proposed to be included in the system includes any municipal 11913
corporation or township in which a part of its territory is 11914
excluded pursuant to division (A)(2) of section 5507.03128.03 of 11915
the Revised Code. Each such authority immediately shall notify the 11916
board of county commissioners in writing of its approval or 11917
disapproval of the final plan. Failure by a board or legislative 11918
authority to notify the board of county commissioners of approval 11919
or disapproval within such sixty-day period shall be deemed 11920
disapproval by the board or authority.11921

       (B) As used in this division, "county's population" excludes 11922
the population of any municipal corporation or township that, 11923
under the plan, is completely excluded from 9-1-1 service in the 11924
county's final plan. A countywide plan is effective if all of the 11925
following entities approve the plan in accordance with this 11926
section:11927

       (1) The board of county commissioners;11928

       (2) The legislative authority of a municipal corporation that 11929
contains at least thirty per cent of the county's population, if 11930
any;11931

       (3) The legislative authorities of municipal corporations and 11932
townships that contain at least sixty per cent of the county's 11933
population or, if the plan has been approved by a municipal 11934
corporation that contains at least sixty per cent of the county's 11935
population, by the legislative authorities of municipal 11936
corporations and townships that contain at least seventy-five per 11937
cent of the county's population.11938

       (C) After a countywide plan approved in accordance with this 11939
section is adopted, all of the telephone companies, subdivisions, 11940
and regional councils of governments included in the plan are 11941
subject to the specific requirements of the plan and to this 11942
chapter.11943

       Sec. 5507.09.        Sec. 128.09.  (A) If a final plan is disapproved 11944
under division (B) of section 5507.08128.08 of the Revised Code, 11945
by resolution, the legislative authority of a municipal 11946
corporation or township that contains at least thirty per cent of 11947
the county's population may establish within its boundaries, or 11948
the legislative authorities of a group of municipal corporations 11949
or townships each of which is contiguous with at least one other 11950
such municipal corporation or township in the group, together 11951
containing at least thirty per cent of the county's population, 11952
may jointly establish within their boundaries a 9-1-1 system. For 11953
that purpose, the municipal corporation or township may enter into 11954
an agreement, and the contiguous municipal corporations or 11955
townships may jointly enter into an agreement with one or more 11956
telephone companies.11957

       (B) If no resolution has been adopted to convene a 9-1-1 11958
planning committee under section 5507.06128.06 of the Revised 11959
Code, by resolution, the legislative authority of any municipal 11960
corporation in the county may establish within its boundaries, or 11961
the legislative authorities of a group of municipal corporations 11962
and townships each of which is contiguous to at least one of the 11963
other such municipal corporations or townships in the group may 11964
jointly establish within their boundaries, a 9-1-1 system. For 11965
that purpose, the municipal corporation, or contiguous municipal 11966
corporations and townships, may enter into an agreement with one 11967
or more telephone companies.11968

       (C) Whenever a telephone company that is a wireline service 11969
provider and one or more municipal corporations and townships 11970
enter into an agreement under division (A) or (B) of this section 11971
to provide for the wireline telephone network portion of a basic 11972
9-1-1 system, the telephone company shall so notify the department 11973
of public safetysteering committee, which shall determine whether 11974
the telephone company is capable of reasonably meeting the 11975
technical and economic requirements of providing the wireline 11976
telephone network for an enhanced system within the territory 11977
served by the company and covered by the agreement. The 11978
determination shall be made solely for the purposes of division 11979
(C)(2) of section 5507.18128.18 of the Revised Code.11980

       (D) Within three years from the date of entering into an 11981
initial agreement described under division (C) of this section, 11982
the telephone company shall have installed the wireline telephone 11983
network portion of the 9-1-1 system according to the terms, 11984
conditions, requirements, and specifications set forth in the 11985
agreement.11986

       (E) A telephone company that is a wireline service provider 11987
shall recover the cost of installing the wireline telephone 11988
network system pursuant to agreements made under this section as 11989
provided in sections 5507.18128.18 and 5733.55 of the Revised 11990
Code.11991

       Sec. 5507.12.        Sec. 128.12.  (A) An amended final plan is required 11992
for any of the following purposes:11993

       (1) Expanding the territory included in the countywide 9-1-1 11994
system;11995

       (2) Upgrading any part or all of a system from basic to 11996
enhanced wireline 9-1-1;11997

       (3) Adjusting the territory served by a public safety 11998
answering point;11999

       (4) Permitting a regional council of governments to operate a 12000
public safety answering point;12001

       (5) Represcribing the funding of public safety answering 12002
points as between the alternatives set forth in division (B)(5) of 12003
section 5507.07128.07 of the Revised Code;12004

        (6) Providing for wireless enhanced 9-1-1;12005

       (7) Adding a telephone company as a participant in a 12006
countywide 9-1-1 system after the implementation of wireline 9-1-1 12007
or wireless enhanced 9-1-1;12008

       (8) Providing that the state highway patrol or one or more 12009
public safety answering points of another 9-1-1 system function as 12010
a public safety answering point or points for the provision of 12011
wireline or wireless 9-1-1 for all or part of the territory of the 12012
system established under the final plan, as contemplated under 12013
division (J) of section 5507.03128.03 of the Revised Code;12014

       (9) Making any other necessary adjustments to the plan.12015

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in division (C) of this 12016
section, a final plan shall be amended in the manner provided for 12017
adopting a final plan under sections 5507.06 to 5507.08 of the 12018
Revised Code, including convening a 9-1-1 planning committee and 12019
developing a proposed amended plan prior to adopting an amended 12020
final plan.12021

       (C)(1) To amend a final plan for the purpose described in 12022
division (A)(7) of this section, an entity that wishes to be added 12023
as a participant in a 9-1-1 system shall file a written letter of 12024
that intent with the board of county commissioners of the county 12025
that approved the final plan. The final plan is deemed amended 12026
upon the filing of that letter. The entity that files the letter 12027
shall send written notice of that filing to all subdivisions, 12028
regional councils of governments, and telephone companies 12029
participating in the system.12030

       (2) An amendment to a final plan for aany other purpose set 12031
forth in division (A)(1), (3), (6), or (9) of this section may be 12032
made by an addendum approved by a majority of the 9-1-1 planning 12033
committee. The board of county commissioners shall call a meeting 12034
of the 9-1-1 planning committee for the purpose of considering an 12035
addendum pursuant to this division.12036

       (3) Adoption of any resolution under section 5507.22128.2212037
of the Revised Code pursuant to a final plan that both has been 12038
adopted and provides for funding through charges imposed under 12039
that section is not an amendment of a final plan for the purpose 12040
of this division.12041

       (D)(C) When a final plan is amended for a purpose described 12042
in division (A)(1), (2), or (7) of this section, sections 5507.1812043
128.18 and 5733.55 of the Revised Code apply with respect to the 12044
receipt of the nonrecurring and recurring rates and charges for 12045
the wireline telephone network portion of the 9-1-1 system.12046

       Sec. 5507.15.        Sec. 128.15.  (A) Within three years from the date an 12047
initial final plan becomes effective under division (B) of section 12048
5507.08128.08 of the Revised Code, the wireline service providers 12049
designated in the plan shall have installed the wireline telephone 12050
network portion of the 9-1-1 system according to the terms, 12051
conditions, requirements, and specifications set forth in that 12052
plan.12053

       (B)(1) Upon installation of a countywide 9-1-1 system, the 12054
board of county commissioners may direct the county engineer to 12055
erect and maintain at the county boundaries on county roads and 12056
state and interstate highways, signs indicating the availability 12057
of a countywide 9-1-1 system. Any sign erected by a county under 12058
this section shall be erected in accordance with and meet the 12059
specifications established under division (B)(2) of this section. 12060
All expenses incurred in erecting and maintaining the signs shall 12061
be paid by the county.12062

       (2) The director of transportation shall develop design 12063
specifications for signs giving notice of the availability of a 12064
countywide 9-1-1 system. The director also shall establish 12065
standards for the erection of the signs and, in accordance with 12066
federal law and regulations and recognized engineering practices, 12067
specify those locations where the signs shall not be erected.12068

       Sec. 5507.18.        Sec. 128.18.  (A) In accordance with this chapter and 12069
Chapters 4901., 4903., 4905., and 4909. of the Revised Code, the 12070
public utilities commission shall determine the just, reasonable, 12071
and compensatory rates, tolls, classifications, charges, or 12072
rentals to be observed and charged for the wireline telephone 12073
network portion of a basic or enhanced 9-1-1 system, and each 12074
telephone company that is a wireline service provider 12075
participating in the system shall be subject to those chapters, to 12076
the extent they apply, as to the service provided by its portion 12077
of the wireline telephone network for the system as described in 12078
the final plan or to be installed pursuant to agreements under 12079
section 5507.09128.09 of the Revised Code, and as to the rates, 12080
tolls, classifications, charges, or rentals to be observed and 12081
charged for that service.12082

       (B) Only the customers of a participating telephone company 12083
described in division (A) of this section that are served within 12084
the area covered by a 9-1-1 system shall pay the recurring rates 12085
for the maintenance and operation of the company's portion of the 12086
wireline telephone network of the system. Such rates shall be 12087
computed by dividing the total monthly recurring rates set forth 12088
in the company's schedule as filed in accordance with section 12089
4905.30 of the Revised Code, by the total number of residential 12090
and business customer access lines, or their equivalent, within 12091
the area served. Each residential and business customer within the 12092
area served shall pay the recurring rates based on the number of 12093
its residential and business customer access lines or their 12094
equivalent. No company shall include such amount on any customer's 12095
bill until the company has completed its portion of the wireline 12096
telephone network in accordance with the terms, conditions, 12097
requirements, and specifications of the final plan or an agreement 12098
made under section 5507.09128.09 of the Revised Code.12099

       (C)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(2) of 12100
this section, a participating telephone company described in 12101
division (A) of this section may receive through the credit 12102
authorized by section 5733.55 of the Revised Code the total 12103
nonrecurring charges for its portion of the wireline telephone 12104
network of the system and the total nonrecurring charges for any 12105
updating or modernization of that wireline telephone network in 12106
accordance with the terms, conditions, requirements, and 12107
specifications of the final plan or pursuant to agreements under 12108
section 5507.09128.09 of the Revised Code, as such charges are 12109
set forth in the schedule filed by the telephone company in 12110
accordance with section 4905.30 of the Revised Code. However, that 12111
portion, updating, or modernization shall not be for or include 12112
the provision of wireless 9-1-1. As applicable, the receipt of 12113
permissible charges shall occur only upon the completion of the 12114
installation of the network or the completion of the updating or 12115
modernization.12116

       (2) The credit shall not be allowed under division (C)(1) of 12117
this section for the upgrading of a system from basic to enhanced 12118
wireline 9-1-1 if both of the following apply:12119

       (a) The telephone company received the credit for the 12120
wireline telephone network portion of the basic 9-1-1 system now 12121
proposed to be upgraded.12122

       (b) At the time the final plan or agreement pursuant to 12123
section 5507.09128.09 of the Revised Code calling for the basic 12124
9-1-1 system was agreed to, the telephone company was capable of 12125
reasonably meeting the technical and economic requirements of 12126
providing the wireline telephone network portion of an enhanced 12127
9-1-1 system within the territory proposed to be upgraded, as 12128
determined by the department of public safetysteering committee12129
under division (A) or (H) of section 5507.03128.03 or division 12130
(C) of section 5507.09128.09 of the Revised Code.12131

       (3) If the credit is not allowed under division (C)(2) of 12132
this section, the total nonrecurring charges for the wireline 12133
telephone network used in providing 9-1-1 service, as set forth in 12134
the schedule filed by a telephone company in accordance with 12135
section 4905.30 of the Revised Code, on completion of the 12136
installation of the network in accordance with the terms, 12137
conditions, requirements, and specifications of the final plan or 12138
pursuant to section 5507.09128.09 of the Revised Code, shall be 12139
paid by the municipal corporations and townships with any 12140
territory in the area in which such upgrade from basic to enhanced 12141
9-1-1 is made.12142

       (D) If customer premises equipment for a public safety 12143
answering point is supplied by a telephone company that is 12144
required to file a schedule under section 4905.30 of the Revised 12145
Code pertaining to customer premises equipment, the recurring and 12146
nonrecurring rates and charges for the installation and 12147
maintenance of the equipment specified in the schedule shall 12148
apply.12149

       Sec. 5507.22.        Sec. 128.22.  (A)(1) For the purpose of paying the 12150
costs of establishing, equipping, and furnishing one or more 12151
public safety answering points as part of a countywide 9-1-1 12152
system effective under division (B) of section 5507.08128.08 of 12153
the Revised Code and paying the expense of administering and 12154
enforcing this section, the board of county commissioners of a 12155
county, in accordance with this section, may fix and impose, on 12156
each lot or parcel of real property in the county that is owned by 12157
a person, municipal corporation, township, or other political 12158
subdivision and is improved, or is in the process of being 12159
improved, reasonable charges to be paid by each such owner. The 12160
charges shall be sufficient to pay only the estimated allowed 12161
costs and shall be equal in amount for all such lots or parcels.12162

       (2) For the purpose of paying the costs of operating and 12163
maintaining the answering points and paying the expense of 12164
administering and enforcing this section, the board, in accordance 12165
with this section, may fix and impose reasonable charges to be 12166
paid by each owner, as provided in division (A)(1) of this 12167
section, that shall be sufficient to pay only the estimated 12168
allowed costs and shall be equal in amount for all such lots or 12169
parcels. The board may fix and impose charges under this division 12170
pursuant to a resolution adopted for the purposes of both 12171
divisions (A)(1) and (2) of this section or pursuant to a 12172
resolution adopted solely for the purpose of division (A)(2) of 12173
this section, and charges imposed under division (A)(2) of this 12174
section may be separately imposed or combined with charges imposed 12175
under division (A)(1) of this section.12176

       (B) Any board adopting a resolution under this section 12177
pursuant to a final plan initiating the establishment of a 9-1-1 12178
system or pursuant to an amendment to a final plan shall adopt the 12179
resolution within sixty days after the board receives the final 12180
plan for the 9-1-1 system pursuant to division (C) of section 12181
5507.07128.07 of the Revised Code. The board by resolution may 12182
change any charge imposed under this section whenever the board 12183
considers it advisable. Any resolution adopted under this section 12184
shall declare whether securities will be issued under Chapter 133. 12185
of the Revised Code in anticipation of the collection of unpaid 12186
special assessments levied under this section.12187

       (C) The board shall adopt a resolution under this section at 12188
a public meeting held in accordance with section 121.22 of the 12189
Revised Code. Additionally, the board, before adopting any such 12190
resolution, shall hold at least two public hearings on the 12191
proposed charges. Prior to the first hearing, the board shall 12192
publish notice of the hearings once a week for two consecutive 12193
weeks in a newspaper of general circulation in the county or as 12194
provided in section 7.16 of the Revised Code. The notice shall 12195
include a listing of the charges proposed in the resolution and 12196
the date, time, and location of each of the hearings. The board 12197
shall hear any person who wishes to testify on the charges or the 12198
resolution.12199

       (D) No resolution adopted under this section shall be 12200
effective sooner than thirty days following its adoption nor shall 12201
any such resolution be adopted as an emergency measure. The 12202
resolution is subject to a referendum in accordance with sections 12203
305.31 to 305.41 of the Revised Code unless, in the resolution, 12204
the board of county commissioners directs the board of elections 12205
of the county to submit the question of imposing the charges to 12206
the electors of the county at the next primary or general election 12207
in the county occurring not less than ninety days after the 12208
resolution is certified to the board. No resolution shall go into 12209
effect unless approved by a majority of those voting upon it in 12210
any election allowed under this division.12211

       (E) To collect charges imposed under division (A) of this 12212
section, the board of county commissioners shall certify them to 12213
the county auditor of the county who then shall place them upon 12214
the real property duplicate against the properties to be assessed, 12215
as provided in division (A) of this section. Each assessment shall 12216
bear interest at the same rate that securities issued in 12217
anticipation of the collection of the assessments bear, is a lien 12218
on the property assessed from the date placed upon the real 12219
property duplicate by the auditor, and shall be collected in the 12220
same manner as other taxes.12221

       (F) All money collected by or on behalf of a county under 12222
this section shall be paid to the county treasurer of the county 12223
and kept in a separate and distinct fund to the credit of the 12224
county. The fund shall be used to pay the costs allowed in 12225
division (A) of this section and specified in the resolution 12226
adopted under that division. In no case shall any surplus so 12227
collected be expended for other than the use and benefit of the 12228
county.12229

       Sec. 5507.25.        Sec. 128.25.  (A) This section applies only to a 12230
county that meets both of the following conditions:12231

       (1) A final plan for a countywide 9-1-1 system either has not 12232
been approved in the county under section 5507.08128.08 of the 12233
Revised Code or has been approved but has not been put into 12234
operation because of a lack of funding;12235

       (2) The board of county commissioners, at least once, has 12236
submitted to the electors of the county the question of raising 12237
funds for a 9-1-1 system under section 5507.22128.22, 5705.19, or 12238
5739.026 of the Revised Code, and a majority of the electors has 12239
disapproved the question each time it was submitted.12240

       (B) A board of county commissioners may adopt a resolution 12241
imposing a monthly charge on telephone access lines to pay for the 12242
equipment costs of establishing and maintaining no more than three 12243
public safety answering points of a countywide 9-1-1 system, which 12244
public safety answering points shall be only twenty-four-hour 12245
dispatching points already existing in the county. The resolution 12246
shall state the amount of the charge, which shall not exceed fifty 12247
cents per month, and the month the charge will first be imposed, 12248
which shall be no earlier than four months after the special 12249
election held pursuant to this section. Each residential and 12250
business telephone company customer within the area served by the 12251
9-1-1 system shall pay the monthly charge for each of its 12252
residential or business customer access lines or their equivalent.12253

       Before adopting a resolution under this division, the board 12254
of county commissioners shall hold at least two public hearings on 12255
the proposed charge. Before the first hearing, the board shall 12256
publish notice of the hearings once a week for two consecutive 12257
weeks in a newspaper of general circulation in the county or as 12258
provided in section 7.16 of the Revised Code. The notice shall 12259
state the amount of the proposed charge, an explanation of the 12260
necessity for the charge, and the date, time, and location of each 12261
of the hearings.12262

       (C) A resolution adopted under division (B) of this section 12263
shall direct the board of elections to submit the question of 12264
imposing the charge to the electors of the county at a special 12265
election on the day of the next primary or general election in the 12266
county. The board of county commissioners shall certify a copy of 12267
the resolution to the board of elections not less than ninety days 12268
before the day of the special election. No resolution adopted 12269
under division (B) of this section shall take effect unless 12270
approved by a majority of the electors voting upon the resolution 12271
at an election held pursuant to this section.12272

       In any year, the board of county commissioners may impose a 12273
lesser charge than the amount originally approved by the electors. 12274
The board may change the amount of the charge no more than once a 12275
year. The board may not impose a charge greater than the amount 12276
approved by the electors without first holding an election on the 12277
question of the greater charge.12278

       (D) Money raised from a monthly charge on telephone access 12279
lines under this section shall be deposited into a special fund 12280
created in the county treasury by the board of county 12281
commissioners pursuant to section 5705.12 of the Revised Code, to 12282
be used only for the necessary equipment costs of establishing and 12283
maintaining no more than three public safety answering points of a 12284
countywide 9-1-1 system pursuant to a resolution adopted under 12285
division (B) of this section. In complying with this division, any 12286
county may seek the assistance of the department of public safety12287
steering committee with regard to operating and maintaining a 12288
9-1-1 system.12289

       (E) Pursuant to the voter approval required by division (C) 12290
of this section, the final plan for a countywide 9-1-1 system that 12291
will be funded through a monthly charge imposed in accordance with 12292
this section shall be amended by the existing 9-1-1 planning 12293
committee, and the amendment of such a final plan is not an 12294
amendment of a final plan for the purpose of division (A) of 12295
section 5507.12128.12 of the Revised Code.12296

       Sec. 5507.26.        Sec. 128.26.  (A) This section applies only to a 12297
county that has a final plan for a countywide 9-1-1 system that 12298
either has not been approved in the county under section 5507.0812299
128.08 of the Revised Code or has been approved but has not been 12300
put into operation because of a lack of funding.12301

       (B) A board of county commissioners may adopt a resolution 12302
imposing a monthly charge on telephone access lines to pay for the 12303
operating and equipment costs of establishing and maintaining no 12304
more than one public safety answering point of a countywide 9-1-1 12305
system. The resolution shall state the amount of the charge, which 12306
shall not exceed fifty cents per month, and the month the charge 12307
will first be imposed, which shall be no earlier than four months 12308
after the special election held pursuant to this section. Each 12309
residential and business telephone company customer within the 12310
area of the county served by the 9-1-1 system shall pay the 12311
monthly charge for each of its residential or business customer 12312
access lines or their equivalent.12313

       Before adopting a resolution under this division, the board 12314
of county commissioners shall hold at least two public hearings on 12315
the proposed charge. Before the first hearing, the board shall 12316
publish notice of the hearings once a week for two consecutive 12317
weeks in a newspaper of general circulation in the county or as 12318
provided in section 7.16 of the Revised Code. The notice shall 12319
state the amount of the proposed charge, an explanation of the 12320
necessity for the charge, and the date, time, and location of each 12321
of the hearings.12322

       (C) A resolution adopted under division (B) of this section 12323
shall direct the board of elections to submit the question of 12324
imposing the charge to the electors of the county at a special 12325
election on the day of the next primary or general election in the 12326
county. The board of county commissioners shall certify a copy of 12327
the resolution to the board of elections not less than ninety days 12328
before the day of the special election. No resolution adopted 12329
under division (B) of this section shall take effect unless 12330
approved by a majority of the electors voting upon the resolution 12331
at an election held pursuant to this section.12332

       In any year, the board of county commissioners may impose a 12333
lesser charge than the amount originally approved by the electors. 12334
The board may change the amount of the charge no more than once a 12335
year. The board shall not impose a charge greater than the amount 12336
approved by the electors without first holding an election on the 12337
question of the greater charge.12338

       (D) Money raised from a monthly charge on telephone access 12339
lines under this section shall be deposited into a special fund 12340
created in the county treasury by the board of county 12341
commissioners pursuant to section 5705.12 of the Revised Code, to 12342
be used only for the necessary operating and equipment costs of 12343
establishing and maintaining no more than one public safety 12344
answering point of a countywide 9-1-1 system pursuant to a 12345
resolution adopted under division (B) of this section. In 12346
complying with this division, any county may seek the assistance 12347
of the department of public safetysteering committee with regard 12348
to operating and maintaining a 9-1-1 system.12349

       (E) Nothing in sections 5507.01128.01 to 5507.34128.34 of 12350
the Revised Code precludes a final plan adopted in accordance with 12351
those sections from being amended to provide that, by agreement 12352
included in the plan, a public safety answering point of another 12353
countywide 9-1-1 system is the public safety answering point of a 12354
countywide 9-1-1 system funded through a monthly charge imposed in 12355
accordance with this section. In that event, the county for which 12356
the public safety answering point is provided shall be deemed the 12357
subdivision operating the public safety answering point for 12358
purposes of sections 5507.01128.01 to 5507.34128.34 of the 12359
Revised Code, except that, for the purpose of division (D) of 12360
section 5507.03128.03 of the Revised Code, the county shall pay 12361
only so much of the costs associated with establishing, equipping, 12362
furnishing, operating, or maintaining the public safety answering 12363
point specified in the agreement included in the final plan.12364

       (F) Pursuant to the voter approval required by division (C) 12365
of this section, the final plan for a countywide 9-1-1 system that 12366
will be funded through a monthly charge imposed in accordance with 12367
this section, or that will be amended to include an agreement 12368
described in division (E) of this section, shall be amended by the 12369
existing 9-1-1 planning committee, and the amendment of such a 12370
final plan is not an amendment of a final plan for the purpose of 12371
division (A) of section 5507.12128.12 of the Revised Code.12372

       Sec. 5507.27.        Sec. 128.27.  (A) As part of its normal monthly 12373
billing process, each telephone company with customers in the area 12374
served by a 9-1-1 system shall bill and collect from those 12375
customers any charge imposed under section 5507.25128.25 or 12376
5507.26128.26 of the Revised Code. The company may list the 12377
charge as a separate entry on each bill and may indicate on the 12378
bill that the charge is made pursuant to approval of a ballot 12379
issue by county voters. Any customer billed by a company for a 12380
charge imposed under section 5507.25128.25 or 5507.26128.26 of 12381
the Revised Code is liable to the county for the amount billed. 12382
The company shall apply any partial payment of a customer's bill 12383
first to the amount the customer owes the company. The company 12384
shall keep complete records of charges it bills and collects, and 12385
such records shall be open during business hours for inspection by 12386
the county commissioners or their agents or employees. If a 12387
company fails to bill any customer for the charge, it is liable to 12388
the county for the amount that was not billed.12389

       (B) A telephone company that collects charges under this 12390
section shall remit the money to the county on a quarterly basis. 12391
The company may retain three per cent of any charge it collects as 12392
compensation for the costs of such collection. If a company 12393
collects charges under this section and fails to remit the money 12394
to the county as prescribed, it is liable to the county for any 12395
amount collected and not remitted.12396

       Sec. 5507.32.        Sec. 128.32.  (A)(1) The state, the state highway 12397
patrol, a subdivision, or a regional council of governments 12398
participating in a 9-1-1 system established under this chapter and 12399
any officer, agent, employee, or independent contractor of the 12400
state, the state highway patrol, or such a participating 12401
subdivision or regional council of governments is not liable in 12402
damages in a civil action for injuries, death, or loss to persons 12403
or property arising from any act or omission, except willful or 12404
wanton misconduct, in connection with developing, adopting, or 12405
approving any final plan or any agreement made under section 12406
5507.09128.09 of the Revised Code or otherwise bringing into 12407
operation the 9-1-1 system pursuant to this chapter.12408

       (2) The Ohio 9-1-1 council, the wireless 9-1-1 advisory 12409
board,steering committee and any member of that council or board12410
the steering committee are not liable in damages in a civil action 12411
for injuries, death, or loss to persons or property arising from 12412
any act or omission, except willful or wanton misconduct, in 12413
connection with the development or operation of a 9-1-1 system 12414
established under this chapter.12415

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in this section 5507.32 of 12416
the Revised Code, an individual who gives emergency instructions 12417
through a 9-1-1 system established under this chapter, and the 12418
principals for whom the person acts, including both employers and 12419
independent contractors, public and private, and an individual who 12420
follows emergency instructions and the principals for whom that 12421
person acts, including both employers and independent contractors, 12422
public and private, are not liable in damages in a civil action 12423
for injuries, death, or loss to persons or property arising from 12424
the issuance or following of emergency instructions, except where 12425
the issuance or following of the instructions constitutes willful 12426
or wanton misconduct.12427

       (C) Except for willful or wanton misconduct, a telephone 12428
company, and any other installer, maintainer, or provider, through 12429
the sale or otherwise, of customer premises equipment, and their 12430
respective officers, directors, employees, agents, and suppliers 12431
are not liable in damages in a civil action for injuries, death, 12432
or loss to persons or property incurred by any person resulting 12433
from any of the following:12434

       (1) Such an entity's or its officers', directors', 12435
employees', agents', or suppliers' participation in or acts or 12436
omissions in connection with participating in or developing, 12437
maintaining, or operating a 9-1-1 system;12438

       (2) Such an entity's or its officers', directors', 12439
employees', agents', or suppliers' provision of assistance to a 12440
public utility, municipal utility, or state or local government as 12441
authorized by divisions (G)(4) and (5) of this section.12442

       (D) Except for willful or wanton misconduct, a provider of 12443
and a seller of a prepaid wireless calling service and their 12444
respective officers, directors, employees, agents, and suppliers 12445
are not liable in damages in a civil action for injuries, death, 12446
or loss to persons or property incurred by any person resulting 12447
from anything described in division (C) of this section.12448

       (E) No person shall knowingly use the telephone number of a 12449
9-1-1 system established under this chapter to report an emergency 12450
if the person knows that no emergency exists.12451

       (F) No person shall knowingly use a 9-1-1 system for a 12452
purpose other than obtaining emergency service.12453

       (G) No person shall disclose or use any information 12454
concerning telephone numbers, addresses, or names obtained from 12455
the data base that serves the public safety answering point of a 12456
9-1-1 system established under this chapter, except for any of the 12457
following purposes or under any of the following circumstances:12458

       (1) For the purpose of the 9-1-1 system;12459

       (2) For the purpose of responding to an emergency call to an 12460
emergency service provider;12461

       (3) In the circumstance of the inadvertent disclosure of such 12462
information due solely to technology of the wireline telephone 12463
network portion of the 9-1-1 system not allowing access to the 12464
data base to be restricted to 9-1-1 specific answering lines at a 12465
public safety answering point;12466

       (4) In the circumstance of access to a data base being given 12467
by a telephone company that is a wireline service provider to a 12468
public utility or municipal utility in handling customer calls in 12469
times of public emergency or service outages. The charge, terms, 12470
and conditions for the disclosure or use of such information for 12471
the purpose of such access to a data base shall be subject to the 12472
jurisdiction of the department of public safetysteering 12473
committee.12474

       (5) In the circumstance of access to a data base given by a 12475
telephone company that is a wireline service provider to a state 12476
and local government in warning of a public emergency, as 12477
determined by the department of public safetysteering committee. 12478
The charge, terms, and conditions for the disclosure or use of 12479
that information for the purpose of access to a data base is 12480
subject to the jurisdiction of the department of public safety12481
steering committee.12482

       Sec. 5507.34.        Sec. 128.34. (A) The attorney general, upon request 12483
of the department of public safetysteering committee, or on the 12484
attorney general's own initiative, shall begin proceedings against 12485
a telephone company that is a wireline service provider to enforce 12486
compliance with this chapter or with the terms, conditions, 12487
requirements, or specifications of a final plan or of an agreement 12488
under section 5507.09128.09 of the Revised Code as to wireline 12489
or wireless 9-1-1.12490

       (B) The attorney general, upon the attorney general's own 12491
initiative, or any prosecutor, upon the prosecutor's initiative, 12492
shall begin proceedings against a subdivision or a regional 12493
council of governments as to wireline or wireless 9-1-1 to enforce 12494
compliance with this chapter or with the terms, conditions, 12495
requirements, or specifications of a final plan or of an agreement 12496
under section 5507.09128.09 of the Revised Code as to wireline or 12497
wireless 9-1-1.12498

       Sec. 5507.40.        Sec. 128.40.  There is hereby created within the 12499
public utilities commissiondepartment of administrative services12500
the 9-1-1 service program office, headed by an Ohio 9-1-1 12501
coordinatoradministrator in the unclassified civil service 12502
pursuant to division (A)(9) of section 124.11 of the Revised Code. 12503
The coordinatoradministrator shall be appointed by and serve at 12504
the pleasure of the commission chairpersondirector of 12505
administrative services and shall report directly to the 12506
chairperson. On May 6, 2005, the chairperson shall appoint an 12507
interim coordinator and, upon submission of a list of nominees by 12508
the Ohio 9-1-1 council pursuant to section 5507.65 of the Revised 12509
Code, shall consider those nominees in making the final 12510
appointment and in appointing any subsequent coordinator. The 12511
chairperson may request the council to submit additional nominees 12512
and may reject any of the nominees. The chairperson shall fix the 12513
compensation of the coordinator. The chairperson shall evaluate 12514
the performance of the coordinator after considering the 12515
evaluation and recommendations of the council under section 12516
5507.65 of the Revised Codestate chief information officer. The 12517
program office12518

       The Ohio 9-1-1 coordinator shall administer the wireless 12519
9-1-1 government assistance fund as specified in sections 5507.5312520
128.53 and 5507.55128.55 of the Revised Code. The coordinator 12521
shall carry out the coordinator's duties under this chapter. The 12522
chairperson may establish additional duties of the coordinator 12523
based on a list of recommended duties submitted by the Ohio 9-1-1 12524
council pursuant to section 5507.65 of the Revised Code. The 12525
chairperson may assign one or more commission employees to assist 12526
the coordinator in carrying out the coordinator's duties.12527

       Sec. 5507.42.        Sec. 128.42. (A) There is hereby imposed a wireless 12528
9-1-1 charge of twenty-five cents per month as follows:12529

       (1) On each wireless telephone number of a wireless service 12530
subscriber who has a billing address in this state. The subscriber 12531
shall pay the wireless 9-1-1 charge for each such wireless 12532
telephone number assigned to the subscriber. Each wireless service 12533
provider and each reseller shall collect the wireless 9-1-1 charge 12534
as a specific line item on each subscriber's monthly bill. The 12535
line item shall be expressly designated "State/Local Wireless-E911 12536
Costs ($0.25/billed number)." If a provider bills a subscriber for 12537
any wireless enhanced 9-1-1 costs that the provider may incur, the 12538
charge or amount is not to appear in the same line item as the 12539
state/local line item. If the charge or amount is to appear in its 12540
own, separate line item on the bill, the charge or amount shall be 12541
expressly designated "[Name of Provider] Federal Wireless-E911 12542
Costs." 12543

       (2)(a) Prior to January 1, 2014, on each subscriber of 12544
prepaid wireless service. A wireless service provider or reseller 12545
shall collect the wireless 9-1-1 charge in either of the following 12546
manners:12547

       (i) If the subscriber has a positive account balance on the 12548
last day of the month and has used the service during that month, 12549
by reducing that balance not later than the end of the first week 12550
of the following month by twenty-five cents or an equivalent 12551
number of airtime minutes;12552

       (ii) By dividing the total earned prepaid wireless telephone 12553
revenue from sales within this state received by the wireless 12554
service provider or reseller during the month by fifty, 12555
multiplying the quotient by twenty-five cents.12556

       (b) Amounts collected under division (A)(2) of this section 12557
shall be remitted pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 5507.4612558
128.46 of the Revised Code.12559

        The wireless 9-1-1 charges authorized under this section 12560
shall not be imposed on a subscriber of wireless lifeline service 12561
or a provider of that service.12562

       (B) Beginning January 1, 2014:12563

       (1) There is hereby imposed, on each retail sale of a prepaid 12564
wireless calling service occurring in this state, a wireless 9-1-1 12565
charge of five-tenths of one per cent of the sale price.12566

       (2) For purposes of division (B)(1) of this section, a retail 12567
sale occurs in this state if it is effected by the consumer 12568
appearing in person at a seller's business location in this state, 12569
or if the sale is sourced to this state under division (E)(3) of 12570
section 5739.034 of the Revised Code, except that under that 12571
division, in lieu of sourcing a sale under division (C)(5) of 12572
section 5739.033 of the Revised Code, the seller, rather than the 12573
service provider, may elect to source the sale to the location 12574
associated with the mobile telephone number.12575

       (3)(a) Except as provided in division (B)(4)(c) of this 12576
section, the seller of the prepaid wireless calling service shall 12577
collect the charge from the consumer at the time of each retail 12578
sale and disclose the amount of the charge to the consumer at the 12579
time of the sale by itemizing the charge on the receipt, invoice, 12580
or similar form of written documentation provided to the consumer.12581

       (b) The seller shall comply with the reporting and remittance 12582
requirements under section 5507.46128.46 of the Revised Code.12583

       (4) When a prepaid wireless calling service is sold with one 12584
or more other products or services for a single, nonitemized 12585
price, the wireless 9-1-1 charge imposed under division (B)(1) of 12586
this section shall apply to the entire nonitemized price, except 12587
as provided in divisions (B)(4)(a) to (c) of this section.12588

        (a) If the amount of the prepaid wireless calling service is 12589
disclosed to the consumer as a dollar amount, the seller may elect 12590
to apply the charge only to that dollar amount.12591

        (b) If the seller can identify the portion of the nonitemized 12592
price that is attributable to the prepaid wireless calling 12593
service, by reasonable and verifiable standards from the seller's 12594
books and records that are kept in the regular course of business 12595
for other purposes, including nontax purposes, the seller may 12596
elect to apply the charge only to that portion.12597

        (c) If a minimal amount of a prepaid wireless calling service 12598
is sold with a prepaid wireless calling device for the single, 12599
nonitemized price, the seller may elect not to collect the charge. 12600
As used in this division, "minimal" means either ten minutes or 12601
less or five dollars or less.12602

       (C) The wireless 9-1-1 charges shall be exempt from state or 12603
local taxation.12604

       Sec. 5507.44.        Sec. 128.44.  Beginning January 1, 2014, the tax 12605
commissioner shall provide notice to all known wireless service 12606
providers, resellers, and sellers of prepaid wireless calling 12607
services of any increase or decrease in either of the wireless 12608
9-1-1 charges imposed under section 5507.42128.42 of the Revised 12609
Code. Each notice shall be provided not less than thirty days 12610
before the effective date of the increase or decrease.12611

       Sec. 5507.46.        Sec. 128.46. (A) Prior to January 1, 2014:12612

       (1) A wireless service provider or reseller, not later than 12613
the last day of each month, shall remit the full amount of all 12614
wireless 9-1-1 charges it collected under division (A) of section 12615
5507.42128.42 of the Revised Code for the second preceding 12616
calendar month to the Ohio 9-1-1 coordinatoradministrator, with 12617
the exception of charges equivalent to the amount authorized as a 12618
billing and collection fee under division (A)(2) of this section. 12619
In doing so, the provider or reseller may remit the requisite 12620
amount in any reasonable manner consistent with its existing 12621
operating or technological capabilities, such as by customer 12622
address, location associated with the wireless telephone number, 12623
or another allocation method based on comparable, relevant data. 12624
If the wireless service provider or reseller receives a partial 12625
payment for a bill from a wireless service subscriber, the 12626
wireless service provider or reseller shall apply the payment 12627
first against the amount the subscriber owes the wireless service 12628
provider or reseller and shall remit to the coordinator12629
administrator such lesser amount, if any, as results from that 12630
invoice.12631

       (2) A wireless service provider or reseller may retain as a 12632
billing and collection fee two per cent of the total wireless 12633
9-1-1 charges it collects in a month and shall account to the 12634
coordinatoradministrator for the amount retained.12635

       (3) The coordinatoradministrator shall return to, or credit 12636
against the next month's remittance of, a wireless service 12637
provider or reseller the amount of any remittances the coordinator12638
administrator determines were erroneously submitted by the 12639
provider or reseller.12640

       (B) Beginning January 1, 2014:12641

       (1) Each seller of a prepaid wireless calling service, 12642
wireless service provider, and reseller shall, on or before the 12643
twenty-third day of each month, except as provided in divisions 12644
(B)(2) and (3) of this section, do both of the following: 12645

       (a) Make and file a return for the preceding month, in the 12646
form prescribed by the tax commissioner, showing the amount of the 12647
wireless 9-1-1 charges due under section 5507.42128.42 of the 12648
Revised Code for that month; 12649

        (b) Remit the full amount due, as shown on the return, with 12650
the exception of charges equivalent to the amount authorized as a 12651
collection fee under division (B)(4) of this section.12652

       (2) The commissioner may grant one or more thirty-day 12653
extensions for making and filing returns and remitting amounts 12654
due. 12655

       (3) If a seller is required to collect prepaid wireless 9-1-1 12656
charges in amounts that do not merit monthly returns, the 12657
commissioner may authorize the seller to make and file returns 12658
less frequently. The commissioner shall ascertain whether this 12659
authorization is warranted upon the basis of administrative costs 12660
to the state. 12661

       (4) A wireless service provider, reseller, and seller may 12662
each retain as a collection fee three per cent of the total 12663
wireless 9-1-1 charges required to be collected under section 12664
5507.42128.42 of the Revised Code, and shall account to the tax 12665
commissioner for the amount retained.12666

       (5) The return required under division (B)(1)(a) of this 12667
section shall be filed electronically using the Ohio business 12668
gateway, as defined in section 718.051 of the Revised Code, the 12669
Ohio telefile system, or any other electronic means prescribed by 12670
the tax commissioner. Remittance of the amount due shall be made 12671
electronically in a manner approved by the commissioner. A 12672
wireless service provider, reseller, or seller may apply to the 12673
commissioner on a form prescribed by the commissioner to be 12674
excused from either electronic requirement of this division. For 12675
good cause shown, the commissioner may excuse the provider, 12676
reseller, or seller from either or both of the requirements and 12677
may permit the provider, reseller, or seller to file returns or 12678
make remittances by nonelectronic means.12679

       (C)(1) Prior to January 1, 2014, each subscriber on which a 12680
wireless 9-1-1 charge is imposed under division (A) of section 12681
5507.42128.42 of the Revised Code is liable to the state for the 12682
amount of the charge. If a wireless service provider or reseller 12683
fails to collect the charge under that division from a subscriber 12684
of prepaid wireless service, or fails to bill any other subscriber 12685
for the charge, the wireless service provider or reseller is 12686
liable to the state for the amount not collected or billed. If a 12687
wireless service provider or reseller collects charges under that 12688
division and fails to remit the money to the coordinator12689
administrator, the wireless service provider or reseller is liable 12690
to the state for any amount collected and not remitted. 12691

       (2) Beginning January 1, 2014:12692

       (a) Each subscriber or consumer on which a wireless 9-1-1 12693
charge is imposed under section 5507.42128.42 of the Revised Code 12694
is liable to the state for the amount of the charge. If a wireless 12695
service provider or reseller fails to bill or collect the charge, 12696
or if a seller fails to collect the charge, the provider, 12697
reseller, or seller is liable to the state for the amount not 12698
billed or collected. If a provider, reseller, or seller fails to 12699
remit money to the tax commissioner as required under this 12700
section, the provider, reseller, or seller is liable to the state 12701
for the amount not remitted, regardless of whether the amount was 12702
collected. 12703

       (b) No provider of a prepaid wireless calling service shall 12704
be liable to the state for any wireless 9-1-1 charge imposed under 12705
division (B)(1) of section 5507.42128.42 of the Revised Code that 12706
was not collected or remitted.12707

       (D) Prior to January 1, 2014:12708

       (1) If the public utilities commissionsteering committee has 12709
reason to believe that a wireless service provider or reseller has 12710
failed to bill, collect, or remit the wireless 9-1-1 charge as 12711
required by divisions (A)(1) and (C)(1) of this section or has 12712
retained more than the amount authorized under division (A)(2) of 12713
this section, and after written notice to the provider or 12714
reseller, the commissionsteering committee may audit the 12715
provider or reseller for the sole purpose of making such a 12716
determination. The audit may include, but is not limited to, a 12717
sample of the provider's or reseller's billings, collections, 12718
remittances, or retentions for a representative period, and the 12719
commissionsteering committee shall make a good faith effort to 12720
reach agreement with the provider or reseller in selecting that 12721
sample.12722

       (2) Upon written notice to the wireless service provider or 12723
reseller, the commissionsteering committee, by order after 12724
completion of the audit, may make an assessment against the 12725
provider or reseller if, pursuant to the audit, the commission12726
steering committee determines that the provider or reseller has 12727
failed to bill, collect, or remit the wireless 9-1-1 charge as 12728
required by divisions (A)(1) and (C)(1) of this section or has 12729
retained more than the amount authorized under division (A)(2) of 12730
this section. The assessment shall be in the amount of any 12731
remittance that was due and unpaid on the date notice of the audit 12732
was sent by the commissionsteering committee to the provider or 12733
reseller or, as applicable, in the amount of the excess amount 12734
under division (A)(2) of this section retained by the provider or 12735
reseller as of that date.12736

       (3) The portion of any assessment not paid within sixty days 12737
after the date of service by the commissionsteering committee of 12738
the assessment notice under division (D)(2) of this section shall 12739
bear interest from that date until paid at the rate per annum 12740
prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code. That interest 12741
may be collected by making an assessment under division (D)(2) of 12742
this section. An assessment under this division and any interest 12743
due shall be remitted in the same manner as the wireless 9-1-1 12744
charge imposed under division (A) of section 5507.42128.42 of the 12745
Revised Code.12746

       (4) An assessment is final and due and payable and shall be 12747
remitted to the commission unless the assessed party petitions for 12748
rehearing under section 4903.10 of the Revised Code. The 12749
proceedings of the commission specified in division (D)(4) of this 12750
section are subject to and governed by Chapter 4903. of the 12751
Revised Code, except that the court of appeals of Franklin county 12752
has exclusive, original jurisdiction to review, modify, or vacate 12753
an order of the commission under division (D)(2) of this section. 12754
The court shall hear and determine such appeal in the same manner 12755
and under the same standards as the Ohio supreme court hears and 12756
determines appeals under Chapter 4903. of the Revised Code.12757

       The judgment of the court of appeals is final and conclusive 12758
unless reversed, vacated, or modified on appeal. Such an appeal 12759
may be made by the commission or the person to whom the order 12760
under division (D)(2) of this section was issued and shall proceed 12761
as in the case of appeals in civil actions as provided in Chapter 12762
2505. of the Revised Code.Unless the provider, reseller, or 12763
seller assessed files with the steering committee within sixty 12764
days after service of the notice of assessment, either personally 12765
or by certified mail, a written petition for reassessment, signed 12766
by the party assessed or that party's authorized agent having 12767
knowledge of the facts, the assessment shall become final and the 12768
amount of the assessment shall be due and payable from the party 12769
assessed to the administrator. The petition shall indicate the 12770
objections of the party assessed, but additional objections may be 12771
raised in writing if received by the administrator or the steering 12772
committee prior to the date shown on the final determination.12773

        (5) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 12774
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 12775
copy of the commission's entry making the assessment final 12776
assessment may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of 12777
common pleas in the county in which the place of business of the 12778
assessed party is located. If the party assessed maintains no 12779
place of business in this state, the certified copy of the entry12780
final assessment may be filed in the office of the clerk of the 12781
court of common pleas of Franklin county. Immediately upon the 12782
filing, the clerk shall enter a judgment for the state against the 12783
assessed party in the amount shown on the entryfinal assessment. 12784
The judgment may be filed by the clerk in a loose-leaf book 12785
entitled "special judgments for wireless 9-1-1 charges" and shall 12786
have the same effect as other judgments. The judgment shall be 12787
executed upon the request of the commissionsteering committee.12788

       (6) An assessment under this division does not discharge a 12789
subscriber's liability to reimburse the provider or reseller for 12790
the wireless 9-1-1 charge imposed under division (A) of section 12791
5507.42128.42 of the Revised Code. If, after the date of service 12792
of the audit notice under division (D)(1) of this section, a 12793
subscriber pays a wireless 9-1-1 charge for the period covered by 12794
the assessment, the payment shall be credited against the 12795
assessment.12796

       (7) All money collected by the commissionadministrator under 12797
division (D) of this section shall be paid to the treasurer of 12798
state, for deposit to the credit of the wireless 9-1-1 government 12799
assistance fund.12800

       (E) Beginning January 1, 2014:12801

       (1) If the tax commissioner has reason to believe that a 12802
wireless service provider, reseller, or seller has failed to bill, 12803
collect, or remit the wireless 9-1-1 charge as required by this 12804
section and section 5507.42128.42 of the Revised Code or has 12805
retained more than the amount authorized under division (B)(4) of 12806
this section, and after written notice to the provider, reseller, 12807
or seller, the tax commissioner may audit the provider, reseller, 12808
or seller for the sole purpose of making such a determination. The 12809
audit may include, but is not limited to, a sample of the 12810
provider's, reseller's, or seller's billings, collections, 12811
remittances, or retentions for a representative period, and the 12812
tax commissioner shall make a good faith effort to reach agreement 12813
with the provider, reseller, or seller in selecting that sample. 12814

       (2) Upon written notice to the wireless service provider, 12815
reseller, or seller, the tax commissioner, after completion of the 12816
audit, may make an assessment against the provider, reseller, or 12817
seller if, pursuant to the audit, the tax commissioner determines 12818
that the provider, reseller, or seller has failed to bill, 12819
collect, or remit the wireless 9-1-1 charge as required by this 12820
section and section 5507.42128.42 of the Revised Code or has 12821
retained more than the amount authorized under division (B)(4) of 12822
this section. The assessment shall be in the amount of any 12823
remittance that was due and unpaid on the date notice of the audit 12824
was sent by the tax commissioner to the provider, reseller, or 12825
seller or, as applicable, in the amount of the excess amount under 12826
division (B)(4) of this section retained by the provider, 12827
reseller, or seller as of that date.12828

       (3) The portion of any assessment consisting of wireless 12829
9-1-1 charges due and not paid within sixty days after the date of 12830
service by the tax commissioner ofthat the assessment noticewas 12831
made under division (E)(2) of this section shall bear interest 12832
from that date until paid at the rate per annum prescribed by 12833
section 5703.47 of the Revised Code. That interest may be 12834
collected by making an assessment under division (E)(2) of this 12835
section. An assessment under this division and any interest due 12836
shall be remitted in the same manner as the wireless 9-1-1 charges 12837
imposed under section 5507.42 of the Revised Code.12838

       (4) The portion of the assessment not paid within sixty days 12839
after the day the assessment was issued shall bear interest at the 12840
rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code 12841
from the day the commissioner issues the assessment until it is 12842
paid. Interest shall be remitted in the same manner as the 9-1-1 12843
charges and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment 12844
under division (E) of this section.12845

       (5) Unless the provider, reseller, or seller assessed files 12846
with the tax commissioner within sixty days after service of the 12847
notice of assessment, either personally or by certified mail, a 12848
written petition for reassessment, signed by the party assessed or 12849
that party's authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the 12850
assessment shall become final and the amount of the assessment 12851
shall be due and payable from the party assessed to the treasurer 12852
of state, for deposit to the next generation 9-1-1 fund, which is 12853
created under section 5507.54128.54 of the Revised Code. The 12854
petition shall indicate the objections of the party assessed, but 12855
additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the 12856
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 12857
If the petition has been properly filed, the commissioner shall 12858
proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.12859

       (6)(5) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of 12860
the assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a 12861
certified copy of the final assessment may be filed in the office 12862
of the clerk of the court of common pleas in the county in which 12863
the business of the assessed party is conducted. If the party 12864
assessed maintains no place of business in this state, the 12865
certified copy of the final assessment may be filed in the office 12866
of the clerk of the court of common pleas of Franklin county. 12867
Immediately upon the filing, the clerk shall enter a judgment for 12868
the state against the assessed party in the amount shown on the 12869
final assessment. The judgment may be filed by the clerk in a 12870
loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for wireless 9-1-1 12871
charges" and shall have the same effect as other judgments. The 12872
judgment shall be executed upon the request of the tax 12873
commissioner.12874

       (7)(6) If the commissioner determines that the commissioner 12875
erroneously has refunded a wireless 9-1-1 charge to any person, 12876
the commissioner may make an assessment against that person for 12877
recovery of the erroneously refunded charge.12878

       (8)(7) An assessment under division (E) of this section does 12879
not discharge a subscriber's or consumer's liability to reimburse 12880
the provider, reseller, or seller for a wireless 9-1-1 charge. If, 12881
after the date of service of the audit notice under division 12882
(E)(1) of this section, a subscriber or consumer pays a wireless 12883
9-1-1 charge for the period covered by the assessment, the payment 12884
shall be credited against the assessment.12885

       Sec. 5507.52.        Sec. 128.52.  (A) Beginning on July 1, 2013, each 12886
seller of a prepaid wireless calling service required to collect 12887
prepaid wireless 9-1-1 charges under division (B) of section 12888
5507.42128.42 of the Revised Code shall also be subject to the 12889
provisions of Chapter 5739. of the Revised Code regarding the 12890
excise tax on retail sales levied under section 5739.02 of the 12891
Revised Code, as those provisions apply to audits, assessments, 12892
appeals, enforcement, liability, and penalties.12893

       (B) The tax commissioner shall establish procedures by which 12894
a person may document that a sale is not a retail sale of a 12895
prepaid wireless calling service. The procedures shall 12896
substantially coincide with similar procedures under Chapter 5739. 12897
of the Revised Code.12898

       Sec. 5507.53.        Sec. 128.53.  (A) There is hereby created the 12899
wireless 9-1-1 administrative fund in the state treasury. A 12900
sufficient percentage, determined by the chairperson of the public 12901
utilities commission but not to exceed twoTwo per cent, of the 12902
periodic remittances of the wireless 9-1-1 charges under section 12903
5507.46128.46 of the Revised Code shall be deposited to the 12904
credit of the fund, to be used by the commissionsteering 12905
committee to cover such nonpayroll costs and, at the discretion of 12906
the commissionsteering committee such payroll costs, of the 12907
commissionsteering committee as are incurred in assisting the 12908
coordinator in carrying out sections 5507.40 to 5507.66 of the 12909
Revised Code and in conducting audits under division (D) of 12910
section 5507.46 of the Revised Code. In addition, the compensation 12911
of the Ohio 9-1-1 coordinator, and any expenses of the coordinator 12912
in carrying out those sections, shall be paid from the fundthis 12913
chapter.12914

       (B) There is hereby created the wireless 9-1-1 government 12915
assistance fund, which shall be in the custody of the treasurer of 12916
state but shall not be part of the state treasury. The periodic 12917
remittances of the wireless 9-1-1 charges under section 5507.4612918
128.46 of the Revised Code, remaining after the deposit required 12919
by division (A) of this section, shall be deposited to the credit 12920
of the wireless 9-1-1 government assistance fund. The treasurer of 12921
state shall deposit or invest the moneys in this fund in 12922
accordance with Chapter 135. of the Revised Code and any other 12923
provision of law governing public moneys of the state as defined 12924
in section 135.01 of the Revised Code. The treasurer of state 12925
shall credit the interest earned to the fund. The treasurer of 12926
state shall disburse money from the fund solely upon order of the 12927
coordinatorsteering committee as authorized under division (A) of 12928
section 5507.55128.55 of the Revised Code. Annually, unless the 12929
fund is depleted, the treasurer of state shall certify to the 12930
coordinatorsteering committee the amount of moneys in the 12931
treasurer of state's custody belonging to the fund.12932

       (C) The commissionsteering committee shall transfer the 12933
funds remaining in the wireless 9-1-1 government assistance fund 12934
after the disbursements made under division (A) of section 5507.5512935
128.55 of the Revised Code to the credit of the next generation 12936
9-1-1 fund, created in section 5507.54128.54 of the Revised 12937
Code. 12938

       Sec. 5507.54.        Sec. 128.54. (A) Beginning January 1, 2014:12939

       (1) The periodic remittances of the wireless 9-1-1 charges 12940
under section 5507.46128.46 of the Revised Code shall be paid to 12941
the treasurer of state for deposit as follows: 12942

       (a) Ninety-eightNinety-seven per cent to the wireless 9-1-1 12943
government assistance fund, which is hereby created in the custody 12944
of the treasurer of state but which shall not be a part of the 12945
state treasury. The treasurer of state shall deposit or invest the 12946
moneys in this fund in accordance with Chapter 135. of the Revised 12947
Code and any other provision of law governing public moneys of the 12948
state as defined in section 135.01 of the Revised Code. The 12949
treasurer of state shall credit the interest earned to the fund. 12950
The treasurer of state shall disburse money from the fund solely 12951
upon order of the tax commissioner according to policies 12952
established by the statewide emergency services internet protocol 12953
network steering committee as authorized under section 5507.02112954
128.021 of the Revised Code. Annually, until the fund is depleted, 12955
the treasurer of state shall certify to the commissioner the 12956
amount of moneys in the treasurer of state's custody belonging to 12957
the fund.12958

       (b) One per cent to the wireless 9-1-1 administrative fund, 12959
which is hereby created in the state treasury. The treasurer of 12960
state shall credit the interest earned to the fund.12961

       (c) OneTwo per cent to the wireless 9-1-1 public safety 12962
administrativeprogram fund, which is hereby created in the state 12963
treasury. The treasurer of state shall credit the interest earned 12964
to the fund.12965

       (2) The tax commissioner shall use the remittances in the 12966
wireless 9-1-1 administrative fund to defray the costs in carrying 12967
out this chapter.12968

       (3) The director of public safetysteering committee shall 12969
use the remittances in the wireless 9-1-1 public safety 12970
administrativeprogram fund to defray the costs incurred by the 12971
departmentsteering committee in carrying out this chapter.12972

       (4) Annually, the tax commissioner and the director of public 12973
safetysteering committee, after paying administrative costs under 12974
division (B) of this section, shall transfer any excess remaining 12975
in the administrative funds to the next generation 9-1-1 fund, 12976
created under this section.12977

       (B)(1) There is hereby created the next generation 9-1-1 12978
fund, which shall be in the custody of the treasurer but shall not 12979
be a part of the state treasury.12980

       (2) Beginning on January 1, 2014, the tax commissioner shall 12981
transfer the funds remaining in the wireless 9-1-1 government 12982
assistance fund after the disbursements made under division (B)(1) 12983
of section 5507.55128.55 of the Revised Code to the credit of the 12984
next generation 9-1-1 fund. 12985

       (3) The treasurer of state shall deposit or invest the moneys 12986
in the next generation 9-1-1 fund in accordance with Chapter 135. 12987
of the Revised Code and any other provision of law governing 12988
public moneys of the state as defined in section 135.01 of the 12989
Revised Code. The treasurer of state shall credit the interest 12990
earned to the fund. The treasurer of state shall disburse money 12991
from the fund solely upon order of the tax commissioner according 12992
to policies established by the statewide emergency services 12993
internet protocol network steering committee as authorized under 12994
section 5507.021128.021 of the Revised Code. Annually, until the 12995
fund is depleted, the treasurer of state shall certify to the 12996
commissioner the amount of moneys in the treasurer of state's 12997
custody belonging to the fund.12998

       Sec. 5507.55.        Sec. 128.55. (A) Prior to January 1, 2014, the public 12999
utilities commissionsteering committee shall disburse moneys from 13000
the wireless 9-1-1 government assistance fund to each county in 13001
the same manner as the 2012 disbursements, in accordance with 13002
divisions (A) and (B) of section 4931.64 of the Revised Code as 13003
those divisions existed prior to the effective date of H.B. 360 of 13004
the 129th general assembly, December 20, 2012.13005

       (B) Beginning January 1, 2014:13006

       (1) The tax commissioner, not later than the last day of each 13007
month, shall disburse moneys from the wireless 9-1-1 government 13008
assistance fund to each county in the same manner as the 2012 13009
disbursements, in accordance with divisions (A) and (B) of section 13010
4931.64 of the Revised Code as those divisions existed prior to 13011
the effective date of H.B. 360 of the 129th general assembly, 13012
December 20, 2012.13013

       (2) The tax commissioner shall disburse moneys from the next 13014
generation 9-1-1 fund in accordance with the guidelines 13015
established under section 5507.022128.022 of the Revised Code.13016

       (C) Immediately upon receipt by a county treasurer of a 13017
disbursement under division (A) or (B)(1) of this section, the 13018
county shall disburse, in accordance with the allocation formula 13019
set forth in the final plan, the amount the county so received to 13020
any other subdivisions in the county and any regional councils of 13021
governments in the county that pay the costs of a public safety 13022
answering point providing wireless enhanced 9-1-1 under the plan.13023

       (D) Nothing in this chapter affects the authority of a 13024
subdivision operating or served by a public safety answering point 13025
of a 9-1-1 system or a regional council of governments operating a 13026
public safety answering point of a 9-1-1 system to use, as 13027
provided in the final plan for the system or in an agreement under 13028
section 5507.09128.09 of the Revised Code, any other authorized 13029
revenue of the subdivision or the regional council of governments 13030
for the purposes of providing basic or enhanced 9-1-1.13031

       Sec. 5507.57.        Sec. 128.57.  Except as otherwise provided in section 13032
5507.571128.571 of the Revised Code:13033

       (A) A countywide 9-1-1 system receiving a disbursement under 13034
section 5507.55128.55 of the Revised Code shall provide 13035
countywide wireless enhanced 9-1-1 in accordance with this chapter 13036
beginning as soon as reasonably possible after receipt of the 13037
first disbursement or, if that service is already implemented, 13038
shall continue to provide such service. Except as provided in 13039
divisions (B), (C), and (E) of this section, a disbursement shall 13040
be used solely for the purpose of paying either or both of the 13041
following:13042

       (1) Any costs of designing, upgrading, purchasing, leasing, 13043
programming, installing, testing, or maintaining the necessary 13044
data, hardware, software, and trunking required for the public 13045
safety answering point or points of the 9-1-1 system to provide 13046
wireless enhanced 9-1-1, which costs are incurred before or on or 13047
after May 6, 2005, and consist of such additional costs of the 13048
9-1-1 system over and above any costs incurred to provide wireline 13049
9-1-1 or to otherwise provide wireless enhanced 9-1-1. Annually, 13050
up to twenty-five thousand dollars of the disbursements received 13051
on or after January 1, 2009, may be applied to data, hardware, and 13052
software that automatically alerts personnel receiving a 9-1-1 13053
call that a person at the subscriber's address or telephone number 13054
may have a mental or physical disability, of which that personnel 13055
shall inform the appropriate emergency service provider. On or 13056
after the provision of technical and operational standards 13057
pursuant to division (D)(1) of section 5507.65128.021 of the 13058
Revised Code, a regional council of governments operating a public 13059
safety answering point or a subdivision shall consider the 13060
standards before incurring any costs described in this division.13061

       (2) Any costs of training the staff of the public safety 13062
answering point or points to provide wireless enhanced 9-1-1, 13063
which costs are incurred before or on or after May 6, 2005.13064

       (B) A subdivision or a regional council of governments that 13065
certifies to the department of public safetysteering committee13066
that it has paid the costs described in divisions (A)(1) and (2) 13067
of this section and is providing countywide wireless enhanced 13068
9-1-1 may use disbursements received under section 5507.55128.5513069
of the Revised Code to pay any of its personnel costs of one or 13070
more public safety answering points providing countywide wireless 13071
enhanced 9-1-1.13072

       (C) After receiving its July 2013 disbursement under division 13073
(A) of section 5507.55128.55 of the Revised Code, a regional 13074
council of governments operating a public safety answering point 13075
or a subdivision may use any remaining balance of disbursements it 13076
received under that division to pay any of its costs of providing 13077
countywide wireless 9-1-1, including the personnel costs of one or 13078
more public safety answering points providing that service.13079

       (D) The costs described in divisions (A), (B), (C), and (E) 13080
of this section may include any such costs payable pursuant to an 13081
agreement under division (J) of section 5507.03128.03 of the 13082
Revised Code.13083

       (E)(1) No disbursement to a countywide 9-1-1 system for costs 13084
of a public safety answering point shall be made from the wireless 13085
9-1-1 government assistance fund or the next generation 9-1-1 fund 13086
unless the public safety answering point meets the standards set 13087
by rule of the statewide emergency services internet protocol 13088
network steering committee under section 5507.021128.021 of the 13089
Revised Code. 13090

       (2) The department of public safetysteering committee shall 13091
monitor compliance with the standards set by the steering 13092
committee. The departmentand shall notify the tax commissioner to 13093
suspend disbursements to a countywide 9-1-1 system that fails to 13094
meet the standards. Upon receipt of this notification, the 13095
commissioner shall suspend disbursements until the commissioner is 13096
notified of compliance with the standards.13097

       (F) The auditor of state may audit and review each county's 13098
expenditures of funds received from the wireless 9-1-1 government 13099
assistance fund to verify that the funds were used in accordance 13100
with the requirements of this chapter.13101

       Sec. 5507.571.        Sec. 128.571.  (A) Payment of costs specified in 13102
divisions (A) to (D) of section 5507.57128.57 of the Revised Code 13103
from a disbursement under section 5507.55128.55 of the Revised 13104
Code shall be limited to those specified and payable costs 13105
incurred for a specified number of public safety answering points 13106
of the particular 9-1-1 system as follows:13107

       (1) For the period beginning on March 1, 2009, and ending on 13108
December 31, 2015, a countywide 9-1-1 system may use disbursements 13109
for not more than five public safety answering points per calendar 13110
year.13111

        (2) Except as provided in division (B) of this section: 13112

       (a) For the period beginning on January 1, 2016, and ending 13113
on December 31, 2017, a countywide 9-1-1 system may use 13114
disbursements for not more than four public safety answering 13115
points per calendar year.13116

       (b) For the period beginning on January 1, 2018, and 13117
thereafter a countywide 9-1-1 system may use disbursements for not 13118
more than three public safety answering points per calendar year.13119

        (B) If within a county there is a municipal corporation with 13120
a population of over 175,000one hundred seventy-five thousand13121
according to the most recent federal decennial census, that county 13122
may use disbursements for one public safety answering point in 13123
addition to the number of public safety answering points allowed 13124
under division (A)(2) of this section.13125

       (C) If a county exceeds the allowable number of public safety 13126
answering points under this section, disbursements to countywide 13127
9-1-1 systems made to the county from the wireless 9-1-1 13128
government assistance fund and the next generation 9-1-1 fund 13129
shall be reduced by fifty per cent until the county complies with 13130
the public safety answering point limitations established under 13131
this section.13132

       Sec. 5507.60.        Sec. 128.60.  (A)(1) A telephone company, the state 13133
highway patrol as described in division (J) of section 5507.0313134
128.03 of the Revised Code, and each subdivision or regional 13135
council of governments operating one or more public safety 13136
answering points for a countywide system providing wireless 9-1-1, 13137
shall provide the director of public safetysteering committee and 13138
the tax commissioner with such information as the director13139
steering committee and tax commissioner request for the purposes 13140
of carrying out their duties under this chapter, including, but 13141
not limited to, duties regarding the collection of the wireless 13142
9-1-1 charges imposed under section 5507.42128.42 of the Revised 13143
Code.13144

       (2) A wireless service provider shall provide an official, 13145
employee, agent, or representative of a subdivision or regional 13146
council of governments operating a public safety answering point, 13147
or of the state highway patrol as described in division (J) of 13148
section 5507.03128.03 of the Revised Code, with such technical, 13149
service, and location information as the official, employee, 13150
agent, or representative requests for the purpose of providing 13151
wireless 9-1-1.13152

       (3) A subdivision or regional council of governments 13153
operating one or more public safety answering points of a 9-1-1 13154
system, and a telephone company, shall provide to the Ohio 9-1-1 13155
councilsteering committee such information as the council13156
steering committee requires for the purpose of carrying out its 13157
duties under division (D) of section 5507.65Chapter 128. of the 13158
Revised Code.13159

       (B)(1) Any information provided under division (A) of this 13160
section that consists of trade secrets as defined in section 13161
1333.61 of the Revised Code or of information regarding the 13162
customers, revenues, expenses, or network information of a 13163
telephone company shall be confidential and does not constitute a 13164
public record for the purpose of section 149.43 of the Revised 13165
Code.13166

       (2) The directorsteering committee, tax commissioner, and 13167
any official, employee, agent, or representative of the director13168
steering committee, of the tax commissioner, of the state highway 13169
patrol as described in division (J) of section 5507.03128.03 of 13170
the Revised Code, or of a subdivision or regional council of 13171
governments operating a public safety answering point, while 13172
acting or claiming to act in the capacity of the directorsteering 13173
committee or tax commissioner or such official, employee, agent, 13174
or representative, shall not disclose any information provided 13175
under division (A) of this section regarding a telephone company's 13176
customers, revenues, expenses, or network information. Nothing in 13177
division (B)(2) of this section precludes any such information 13178
from being aggregated and included in any report required under 13179
division (D) of section 5507.66 of the Revised Codeof the 13180
steering committee, tax commissioner, or any official, employee, 13181
agent, or representative of the steering committee or tax 13182
commissioner, provided the aggregated information does not 13183
identify the number of any particular company's customers or the 13184
amount of its revenues or expenses or identify a particular 13185
company as to any network information.13186

       Sec. 5507.63.        Sec. 128.63.  (A) The tax commissioner may adopt 13187
rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to carry 13188
out this chapter, including rules prescribing the necessary 13189
accounting for the collection fee under division (B)(4) of section 13190
5507.46128.46 of the Revised Code. 13191

       (B) The amounts of the wireless 9-1-1 charges shall be 13192
prescribed only by act of the general assembly.13193

       Sec. 5507.99.        Sec. 128.99.  (A) Whoever violates division (E) of 13194
section 5507.32128.32 of the Revised Code is guilty of a 13195
misdemeanor of the fourth degree.13196

       (B) Whoever violates division (F) or (G) of section 5507.3213197
128.32 or division (B)(2) of section 5507.60128.60 of the Revised 13198
Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree on a first 13199
offense and a felony of the fifth degree on each subsequent 13200
offense.13201

       Sec. 133.01.  As used in this chapter, in sections 9.95, 13202
9.96, and 2151.655 of the Revised Code, in other sections of the 13203
Revised Code that make reference to this chapter unless the 13204
context does not permit, and in related proceedings, unless 13205
otherwise expressly provided:13206

       (A) "Acquisition" as applied to real or personal property 13207
includes, among other forms of acquisition, acquisition by 13208
exercise of a purchase option, and acquisition of interests in 13209
property, including, without limitation, easements and 13210
rights-of-way, and leasehold and other lease interests initially 13211
extending or extendable for a period of at least sixty months.13212

       (B) "Anticipatory securities" means securities, including 13213
notes, issued in anticipation of the issuance of other securities.13214

       (C) "Board of elections" means the county board of elections 13215
of the county in which the subdivision is located. If the 13216
subdivision is located in more than one county, "board of 13217
elections" means the county board of elections of the county that 13218
contains the largest portion of the population of the subdivision 13219
or that otherwise has jurisdiction in practice over and 13220
customarily handles election matters relating to the subdivision.13221

       (D) "Bond retirement fund" means the bond retirement fund 13222
provided for in section 5705.09 of the Revised Code, and also 13223
means a sinking fund or any other special fund, regardless of the 13224
name applied to it, established by or pursuant to law or the 13225
proceedings for the payment of debt charges. Provision may be made 13226
in the applicable proceedings for the establishment in a bond 13227
retirement fund of separate accounts relating to debt charges on 13228
particular securities, or on securities payable from the same or 13229
common sources, and for the application of moneys in those 13230
accounts only to specified debt charges on specified securities or 13231
categories of securities. Subject to law and any provisions in the 13232
applicable proceedings, moneys in a bond retirement fund or 13233
separate account in a bond retirement fund may be transferred to 13234
other funds and accounts.13235

       (E) "Capitalized interest" means all or a portion of the 13236
interest payable on securities from their date to a date stated or 13237
provided for in the applicable legislation, which interest is to 13238
be paid from the proceeds of the securities.13239

       (F) "Chapter 133. securities" means securities authorized by 13240
or issued pursuant to or in accordance with this chapter.13241

       (G) "County auditor" means the county auditor of the county 13242
in which the subdivision is located. If the subdivision is located 13243
in more than one county, "county auditor" means the county auditor 13244
of the county that contains the highest amount of the tax 13245
valuation of the subdivision or that otherwise has jurisdiction in 13246
practice over and customarily handles property tax matters 13247
relating to the subdivision. In the case of a county that has 13248
adopted a charter, "county auditor" means the officer who 13249
generally has the duties and functions provided in the Revised 13250
Code for a county auditor.13251

       (H) "Credit enhancement facilities" means letters of credit, 13252
lines of credit, stand-by, contingent, or firm securities purchase 13253
agreements, insurance, or surety arrangements, guarantees, and 13254
other arrangements that provide for direct or contingent payment 13255
of debt charges, for security or additional security in the event 13256
of nonpayment or default in respect of securities, or for making 13257
payment of debt charges to and at the option and on demand of 13258
securities holders or at the option of the issuer or upon certain 13259
conditions occurring under put or similar arrangements, or for 13260
otherwise supporting the credit or liquidity of the securities, 13261
and includes credit, reimbursement, marketing, remarketing, 13262
indexing, carrying, interest rate hedge, and subrogation 13263
agreements, and other agreements and arrangements for payment and 13264
reimbursement of the person providing the credit enhancement 13265
facility and the security for that payment and reimbursement.13266

       (I) "Current operating expenses" or "current expenses" means 13267
the lawful expenditures of a subdivision, except those for 13268
permanent improvements and for payments of debt charges of the 13269
subdivision.13270

       (J) "Debt charges" means the principal, including any 13271
mandatory sinking fund deposits and mandatory redemption payments, 13272
interest, and any redemption premium, payable on securities as 13273
those payments come due and are payable. The use of "debt charges" 13274
for this purpose does not imply that any particular securities 13275
constitute debt within the meaning of the Ohio Constitution or 13276
other laws.13277

       (K) "Financing costs" means all costs and expenses relating 13278
to the authorization, including any required election, issuance, 13279
sale, delivery, authentication, deposit, custody, clearing, 13280
registration, transfer, exchange, fractionalization, replacement, 13281
payment, and servicing of securities, including, without 13282
limitation, costs and expenses for or relating to publication and 13283
printing, postage, delivery, preliminary and final official 13284
statements, offering circulars, and informational statements, 13285
travel and transportation, underwriters, placement agents, 13286
investment bankers, paying agents, registrars, authenticating 13287
agents, remarketing agents, custodians, clearing agencies or 13288
corporations, securities depositories, financial advisory 13289
services, certifications, audits, federal or state regulatory 13290
agencies, accounting and computation services, legal services and 13291
obtaining approving legal opinions and other legal opinions, 13292
credit ratings, redemption premiums, and credit enhancement 13293
facilities. Financing costs may be paid from any moneys available 13294
for the purpose, including, unless otherwise provided in the 13295
proceedings, from the proceeds of the securities to which they 13296
relate and, as to future financing costs, from the same sources 13297
from which debt charges on the securities are paid and as though 13298
debt charges.13299

       (L) "Fiscal officer" means the following, or, in the case of 13300
absence or vacancy in the office, a deputy or assistant authorized 13301
by law or charter to act in the place of the named officer, or if 13302
there is no such authorization then the deputy or assistant 13303
authorized by legislation to act in the place of the named officer 13304
for purposes of this chapter, in the case of the following 13305
subdivisions:13306

       (1) A county, the county auditor;13307

       (2) A municipal corporation, the city auditor or village 13308
clerk or clerk-treasurer, or the officer who, by virtue of a 13309
charter, has the duties and functions provided in the Revised Code 13310
for the city auditor or village clerk or clerk-treasurer;13311

       (3) A school district, the treasurer of the board of 13312
education;13313

       (4) A regional water and sewer district, the secretary of the 13314
board of trustees;13315

       (5) A joint township hospital district, the treasurer of the 13316
district;13317

       (6) A joint ambulance district, the clerk of the board of 13318
trustees;13319

       (7) A joint recreation district, the person designated 13320
pursuant to section 755.15 of the Revised Code;13321

       (8) A detention facility district or a district organized 13322
under section 2151.65 of the Revised Code or a combined district 13323
organized under sections 2152.41 and 2151.65 of the Revised Code, 13324
the county auditor of the county designated by law to act as the 13325
auditor of the district;13326

       (9) A township, a fire district organized under division (C) 13327
of section 505.37 of the Revised Code, or a township police 13328
district, the fiscal officer of the township;13329

       (10) A joint fire district, the clerk of the board of 13330
trustees of that district;13331

       (11) A regional or county library district, the person 13332
responsible for the financial affairs of that district;13333

       (12) A joint solid waste management district, the fiscal 13334
officer appointed by the board of directors of the district under 13335
section 343.01 of the Revised Code;13336

       (13) A joint emergency medical services district, the person 13337
appointed as fiscal officer pursuant to division (D) of section 13338
307.053 of the Revised Code;13339

       (14) A fire and ambulance district, the person appointed as 13340
fiscal officer under division (B) of section 505.375 of the 13341
Revised Code;13342

       (15) A subdivision described in division (MM)(18)(19) of this 13343
section, the officer who is designated by law as or performs the 13344
functions of its chief fiscal officer;13345

       (16) A joint police district, the treasurer of the district;13346

       (17) A lake facilities authority, the fiscal officer 13347
designated under section 353.02 of the Revised Code.13348

       (M) "Fiscal year" has the same meaning as in section 9.34 of 13349
the Revised Code.13350

       (N) "Fractionalized interests in public obligations" means 13351
participations, certificates of participation, shares, or other 13352
instruments or agreements, separate from the public obligations 13353
themselves, evidencing ownership of interests in public 13354
obligations or of rights to receive payments of, or on account of, 13355
principal or interest or their equivalents payable by or on behalf 13356
of an obligor pursuant to public obligations.13357

       (O) "Fully registered securities" means securities in 13358
certificated or uncertificated form, registered as to both 13359
principal and interest in the name of the owner.13360

       (P) "Fund" means to provide for the payment of debt charges 13361
and expenses related to that payment at or prior to retirement by 13362
purchase, call for redemption, payment at maturity, or otherwise.13363

       (Q) "General obligation" means securities to the payment of 13364
debt charges on which the full faith and credit and the general 13365
property taxing power, including taxes within the tax limitation 13366
if available to the subdivision, of the subdivision are pledged.13367

       (R) "Interest" or "interest equivalent" means those payments 13368
or portions of payments, however denominated, that constitute or 13369
represent consideration for forbearing the collection of money, or 13370
for deferring the receipt of payment of money to a future time.13371

       (S) "Internal Revenue Code" means the "Internal Revenue Code 13372
of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1 et seq., as amended, and 13373
includes any laws of the United States providing for application 13374
of that code.13375

       (T) "Issuer" means any public issuer and any nonprofit 13376
corporation authorized to issue securities for or on behalf of any 13377
public issuer.13378

       (U) "Legislation" means an ordinance or resolution passed by 13379
a majority affirmative vote of the then members of the taxing 13380
authority unless a different vote is required by charter 13381
provisions governing the passage of the particular legislation by 13382
the taxing authority.13383

       (V) "Mandatory sinking fund redemption requirements" means 13384
amounts required by proceedings to be deposited in a bond 13385
retirement fund for the purpose of paying in any year or fiscal 13386
year by mandatory redemption prior to stated maturity the 13387
principal of securities that is due and payable, except for 13388
mandatory prior redemption requirements as provided in those 13389
proceedings, in a subsequent year or fiscal year.13390

       (W) "Mandatory sinking fund requirements" means amounts 13391
required by proceedings to be deposited in a year or fiscal year 13392
in a bond retirement fund for the purpose of paying the principal 13393
of securities that is due and payable in a subsequent year or 13394
fiscal year.13395

       (X) "Net indebtedness" has the same meaning as in division 13396
(A) of section 133.04 of the Revised Code.13397

       (Y) "Obligor," in the case of securities or fractionalized 13398
interests in public obligations issued by another person the debt 13399
charges or their equivalents on which are payable from payments 13400
made by a public issuer, means that public issuer.13401

       (Z) "One purpose" relating to permanent improvements means 13402
any one permanent improvement or group or category of permanent 13403
improvements for the same utility, enterprise, system, or project, 13404
development or redevelopment project, or for or devoted to the 13405
same general purpose, function, or use or for which 13406
self-supporting securities, based on the same or different sources 13407
of revenues, may be issued or for which special assessments may be 13408
levied by a single ordinance or resolution. "One purpose" 13409
includes, but is not limited to, in any case any off-street 13410
parking facilities relating to another permanent improvement, and:13411

       (1) Any number of roads, highways, streets, bridges, 13412
sidewalks, and viaducts;13413

       (2) Any number of off-street parking facilities;13414

       (3) In the case of a county, any number of permanent 13415
improvements for courthouse, jail, county offices, and other 13416
county buildings, and related facilities;13417

       (4) In the case of a school district, any number of 13418
facilities and buildings for school district purposes, and related 13419
facilities.13420

       (AA) "Outstanding," referring to securities, means securities 13421
that have been issued, delivered, and paid for, except any of the 13422
following:13423

       (1) Securities canceled upon surrender, exchange, or 13424
transfer, or upon payment or redemption;13425

       (2) Securities in replacement of which or in exchange for 13426
which other securities have been issued;13427

       (3) Securities for the payment, or redemption or purchase for 13428
cancellation prior to maturity, of which sufficient moneys or 13429
investments, in accordance with the applicable legislation or 13430
other proceedings or any applicable law, by mandatory sinking fund 13431
redemption requirements, mandatory sinking fund requirements, or 13432
otherwise, have been deposited, and credited for the purpose in a 13433
bond retirement fund or with a trustee or paying or escrow agent, 13434
whether at or prior to their maturity or redemption, and, in the 13435
case of securities to be redeemed prior to their stated maturity, 13436
notice of redemption has been given or satisfactory arrangements 13437
have been made for giving notice of that redemption, or waiver of 13438
that notice by or on behalf of the affected security holders has 13439
been filed with the subdivision or its agent for the purpose.13440

       (BB) "Paying agent" means the one or more banks, trust 13441
companies, or other financial institutions or qualified persons, 13442
including an appropriate office or officer of the subdivision, 13443
designated as a paying agent or place of payment of debt charges 13444
on the particular securities.13445

       (CC) "Permanent improvement" or "improvement" means any 13446
property, asset, or improvement certified by the fiscal officer, 13447
which certification is conclusive, as having an estimated life or 13448
period of usefulness of five years or more, and includes, but is 13449
not limited to, real estate, buildings, and personal property and 13450
interests in real estate, buildings, and personal property, 13451
equipment, furnishings, and site improvements, and reconstruction, 13452
rehabilitation, renovation, installation, improvement, 13453
enlargement, and extension of property, assets, or improvements so 13454
certified as having an estimated life or period of usefulness of 13455
five years or more. The acquisition of all the stock ownership of 13456
a corporation is the acquisition of a permanent improvement to the 13457
extent that the value of that stock is represented by permanent 13458
improvements. A permanent improvement for parking, highway, road, 13459
and street purposes includes resurfacing, but does not include 13460
ordinary repair.13461

       (DD) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of the 13462
Revised Code and also includes any federal, state, interstate, 13463
regional, or local governmental agency, any subdivision, and any 13464
combination of those persons.13465

       (EE) "Proceedings" means the legislation, certifications, 13466
notices, orders, sale proceedings, trust agreement or indenture, 13467
mortgage, lease, lease-purchase agreement, assignment, credit 13468
enhancement facility agreements, and other agreements, 13469
instruments, and documents, as amended and supplemented, and any 13470
election proceedings, authorizing, or providing for the terms and 13471
conditions applicable to, or providing for the security or sale or 13472
award of, public obligations, and includes the provisions set 13473
forth or incorporated in those public obligations and proceedings.13474

       (FF) "Public issuer" means any of the following that is 13475
authorized by law to issue securities or enter into public 13476
obligations:13477

       (1) The state, including an agency, commission, officer, 13478
institution, board, authority, or other instrumentality of the 13479
state;13480

       (2) A taxing authority, subdivision, district, or other local 13481
public or governmental entity, and any combination or consortium, 13482
or public division, district, commission, authority, department, 13483
board, officer, or institution, thereof;13484

       (3) Any other body corporate and politic, or other public 13485
entity.13486

       (GG) "Public obligations" means both of the following:13487

       (1) Securities;13488

       (2) Obligations of a public issuer to make payments under 13489
installment sale, lease, lease purchase, or similar agreements, 13490
which obligations may bear interest or interest equivalent.13491

       (HH) "Refund" means to fund and retire outstanding 13492
securities, including advance refunding with or without payment or 13493
redemption prior to maturity.13494

       (II) "Register" means the books kept and maintained by the 13495
registrar for registration, exchange, and transfer of registered 13496
securities.13497

       (JJ) "Registrar" means the person responsible for keeping the 13498
register for the particular registered securities, designated by 13499
or pursuant to the proceedings.13500

       (KK) "Securities" means bonds, notes, certificates of 13501
indebtedness, commercial paper, and other instruments in writing, 13502
including, unless the context does not admit, anticipatory 13503
securities, issued by an issuer to evidence its obligation to 13504
repay money borrowed, or to pay interest, by, or to pay at any 13505
future time other money obligations of, the issuer of the 13506
securities, but not including public obligations described in 13507
division (GG)(2) of this section.13508

       (LL) "Self-supporting securities" means securities or 13509
portions of securities issued for the purpose of paying costs of 13510
permanent improvements to the extent that receipts of the 13511
subdivision, other than the proceeds of taxes levied by that 13512
subdivision, derived from or with respect to the improvements or 13513
the operation of the improvements being financed, or the 13514
enterprise, system, project, or category of improvements of which 13515
the improvements being financed are part, are estimated by the 13516
fiscal officer to be sufficient to pay the current expenses of 13517
that operation or of those improvements or enterprise, system, 13518
project, or categories of improvements and the debt charges 13519
payable from those receipts on securities issued for the purpose. 13520
Until such time as the improvements or increases in rates and 13521
charges have been in operation or effect for a period of at least 13522
six months, the receipts therefrom, for purposes of this 13523
definition, shall be those estimated by the fiscal officer, except 13524
that those receipts may include, without limitation, payments made 13525
and to be made to the subdivision under leases or agreements in 13526
effect at the time the estimate is made. In the case of an 13527
operation, improvements, or enterprise, system, project, or 13528
category of improvements without at least a six-month history of 13529
receipts, the estimate of receipts by the fiscal officer, other 13530
than those to be derived under leases and agreements then in 13531
effect, shall be confirmed by the taxing authority.13532

       (MM) "Subdivision" means any of the following:13533

       (1) A county, including a county that has adopted a charter 13534
under Article X, Ohio Constitution;13535

       (2) A municipal corporation, including a municipal 13536
corporation that has adopted a charter under Article XVIII, Ohio 13537
Constitution;13538

       (3) A school district;13539

       (4) A regional water and sewer district organized under 13540
Chapter 6119. of the Revised Code;13541

       (5) A joint township hospital district organized under 13542
section 513.07 of the Revised Code;13543

       (6) A joint ambulance district organized under section 505.71 13544
of the Revised Code;13545

       (7) A joint recreation district organized under division (C) 13546
of section 755.14 of the Revised Code;13547

       (8) A detention facility district organized under section 13548
2152.41, a district organized under section 2151.65, or a combined 13549
district organized under sections 2152.41 and 2151.65 of the 13550
Revised Code;13551

       (9) A township police district organized under section 505.48 13552
of the Revised Code;13553

       (10) A township;13554

       (11) A joint fire district organized under section 505.371 of 13555
the Revised Code;13556

       (12) A county library district created under section 3375.19 13557
or a regional library district created under section 3375.28 of 13558
the Revised Code;13559

       (13) A joint solid waste management district organized under 13560
section 343.01 or 343.012 of the Revised Code;13561

       (14) A joint emergency medical services district organized 13562
under section 307.052 of the Revised Code;13563

       (15) A fire and ambulance district organized under section 13564
505.375 of the Revised Code;13565

       (16) A fire district organized under division (C) of section 13566
505.37 of the Revised Code;13567

       (17) A joint police district organized under section 505.482 13568
of the Revised Code;13569

       (18) A lake facilities authority created under Chapter 353. 13570
of the Revised Code;13571

       (19) Any other political subdivision or taxing district or 13572
other local public body or agency authorized by this chapter or 13573
other laws to issue Chapter 133. securities.13574

       (NN) "Taxing authority" means in the case of the following 13575
subdivisions:13576

       (1) A county, a county library district, or a regional 13577
library district, the board or boards of county commissioners, or 13578
other legislative authority of a county that has adopted a charter 13579
under Article X, Ohio Constitution, but with respect to such a 13580
library district acting solely as agent for the board of trustees 13581
of that district;13582

       (2) A municipal corporation, the legislative authority;13583

       (3) A school district, the board of education;13584

       (4) A regional water and sewer district, a joint ambulance 13585
district, a joint recreation district, a fire and ambulance 13586
district, or a joint fire district, the board of trustees of the 13587
district;13588

       (5) A joint township hospital district, the joint township 13589
hospital board;13590

       (6) A detention facility district or a district organized 13591
under section 2151.65 of the Revised Code, a combined district 13592
organized under sections 2152.41 and 2151.65 of the Revised Code, 13593
or a joint emergency medical services district, the joint board of 13594
county commissioners;13595

       (7) A township, a fire district organized under division (C) 13596
of section 505.37 of the Revised Code, or a township police 13597
district, the board of township trustees;13598

       (8) A joint solid waste management district organized under 13599
section 343.01 or 343.012 of the Revised Code, the board of 13600
directors of the district;13601

       (9) A subdivision described in division (MM)(18)(19) of this 13602
section, the legislative or governing body or official;13603

       (10) A joint police district, the joint police district 13604
board;13605

       (11) A lake facilities authority, the board of directors.13606

       (OO) "Tax limitation" means the "ten-mill limitation" as 13607
defined in section 5705.02 of the Revised Code without diminution 13608
by reason of section 5705.313 of the Revised Code or otherwise, 13609
or, in the case of a municipal corporation or county with a 13610
different charter limitation on property taxes levied to pay debt 13611
charges on unvoted securities, that charter limitation. Those 13612
limitations shall be respectively referred to as the "ten-mill 13613
limitation" and the "charter tax limitation."13614

       (PP) "Tax valuation" means the aggregate of the valuations of 13615
property subject to ad valorem property taxation by the 13616
subdivision on the real property, personal property, and public 13617
utility property tax lists and duplicates most recently certified 13618
for collection, and shall be calculated without deductions of the 13619
valuations of otherwise taxable property exempt in whole or in 13620
part from taxation by reason of exemptions of certain amounts of 13621
taxable value under division (C) of section 5709.01, tax 13622
reductions under section 323.152 of the Revised Code, or similar 13623
laws now or in the future in effect.13624

       For purposes of section 133.06 of the Revised Code, "tax 13625
valuation" shall not include the valuation of tangible personal 13626
property used in business, telephone or telegraph property, 13627
interexchange telecommunications company property, or personal 13628
property owned or leased by a railroad company and used in 13629
railroad operations listed under or described in section 5711.22, 13630
division (B) or (F) of section 5727.111, or section 5727.12 of the 13631
Revised Code.13632

       (QQ) "Year" means the calendar year.13633

       (RR) "Administrative agent," "agent," "commercial paper," 13634
"floating rate interest structure," "indexing agent," "interest 13635
rate hedge," "interest rate period," "put arrangement," and 13636
"remarketing agent" have the same meanings as in section 9.98 of 13637
the Revised Code.13638

       (SS) "Sales tax supported" means obligations to the payment 13639
of debt charges on which an additional sales tax or additional 13640
sales taxes have been pledged by the taxing authority of a county 13641
pursuant to section 133.081 of the Revised Code.13642

       Sec. 133.06.  (A) A school district shall not incur, without 13643
a vote of the electors, net indebtedness that exceeds an amount 13644
equal to one-tenth of one per cent of its tax valuation, except as 13645
provided in divisions (G) and (H) of this section and in division 13646
(C) of section 3313.372 of the Revised Code, or as prescribed in 13647
section 3318.052 or 3318.44 of the Revised Code, or as provided in 13648
division (J) of this section.13649

       (B) Except as provided in divisions (E), (F), and (I) of this 13650
section, a school district shall not incur net indebtedness that 13651
exceeds an amount equal to nine per cent of its tax valuation.13652

       (C) A school district shall not submit to a vote of the 13653
electors the question of the issuance of securities in an amount 13654
that will make the district's net indebtedness after the issuance 13655
of the securities exceed an amount equal to four per cent of its 13656
tax valuation, unless the superintendent of public instruction, 13657
acting under policies adopted by the state board of education, and 13658
the tax commissioner, acting under written policies of the 13659
commissioner, consent to the submission. A request for the 13660
consents shall be made at least one hundred twenty days prior to 13661
the election at which the question is to be submitted.13662

       The superintendent of public instruction shall certify to the 13663
district the superintendent's and the tax commissioner's decisions 13664
within thirty days after receipt of the request for consents.13665

       If the electors do not approve the issuance of securities at 13666
the election for which the superintendent of public instruction 13667
and tax commissioner consented to the submission of the question, 13668
the school district may submit the same question to the electors 13669
on the date that the next special election may be held under 13670
section 3501.01 of the Revised Code without submitting a new 13671
request for consent. If the school district seeks to submit the 13672
same question at any other subsequent election, the district shall 13673
first submit a new request for consent in accordance with this 13674
division.13675

       (D) In calculating the net indebtedness of a school district, 13676
none of the following shall be considered:13677

       (1) Securities issued to acquire school buses and other 13678
equipment used in transporting pupils or issued pursuant to 13679
division (D) of section 133.10 of the Revised Code;13680

       (2) Securities issued under division (F) of this section, 13681
under section 133.301 of the Revised Code, and, to the extent in 13682
excess of the limitation stated in division (B) of this section, 13683
under division (E) of this section;13684

       (3) Indebtedness resulting from the dissolution of a joint 13685
vocational school district under section 3311.217 of the Revised 13686
Code, evidenced by outstanding securities of that joint vocational 13687
school district;13688

       (4) Loans, evidenced by any securities, received under 13689
sections 3313.483, 3317.0210, and 3317.0211, and 3317.64 of the 13690
Revised Code;13691

       (5) Debt incurred under section 3313.374 of the Revised Code;13692

       (6) Debt incurred pursuant to division (B)(5) of section 13693
3313.37 of the Revised Code to acquire computers and related 13694
hardware;13695

       (7) Debt incurred under section 3318.042 of the Revised Code.13696

       (E) A school district may become a special needs district as 13697
to certain securities as provided in division (E) of this section.13698

       (1) A board of education, by resolution, may declare its 13699
school district to be a special needs district by determining both 13700
of the following:13701

       (a) The student population is not being adequately serviced 13702
by the existing permanent improvements of the district.13703

       (b) The district cannot obtain sufficient funds by the 13704
issuance of securities within the limitation of division (B) of 13705
this section to provide additional or improved needed permanent 13706
improvements in time to meet the needs.13707

       (2) The board of education shall certify a copy of that 13708
resolution to the superintendent of public instruction with a 13709
statistical report showing all of the following:13710

       (a) The history of and a projection of the growth of the tax 13711
valuation;13712

       (b) The projected needs;13713

       (c) The estimated cost of permanent improvements proposed to 13714
meet such projected needs.13715

       (3) The superintendent of public instruction shall certify 13716
the district as an approved special needs district if the 13717
superintendent finds both of the following:13718

       (a) The district does not have available sufficient 13719
additional funds from state or federal sources to meet the 13720
projected needs.13721

       (b) The projection of the potential average growth of tax 13722
valuation during the next five years, according to the information 13723
certified to the superintendent and any other information the 13724
superintendent obtains, indicates a likelihood of potential 13725
average growth of tax valuation of the district during the next 13726
five years of an average of not less than one and one-half per 13727
cent per year. The findings and certification of the 13728
superintendent shall be conclusive.13729

       (4) An approved special needs district may incur net 13730
indebtedness by the issuance of securities in accordance with the 13731
provisions of this chapter in an amount that does not exceed an 13732
amount equal to the greater of the following:13733

       (a) Twelve per cent of the sum of its tax valuation plus an 13734
amount that is the product of multiplying that tax valuation by 13735
the percentage by which the tax valuation has increased over the 13736
tax valuation on the first day of the sixtieth month preceding the 13737
month in which its board determines to submit to the electors the 13738
question of issuing the proposed securities;13739

       (b) Twelve per cent of the sum of its tax valuation plus an 13740
amount that is the product of multiplying that tax valuation by 13741
the percentage, determined by the superintendent of public 13742
instruction, by which that tax valuation is projected to increase 13743
during the next ten years.13744

       (F) A school district may issue securities for emergency 13745
purposes, in a principal amount that does not exceed an amount 13746
equal to three per cent of its tax valuation, as provided in this 13747
division.13748

       (1) A board of education, by resolution, may declare an 13749
emergency if it determines both of the following:13750

       (a) School buildings or other necessary school facilities in 13751
the district have been wholly or partially destroyed, or condemned 13752
by a constituted public authority, or that such buildings or 13753
facilities are partially constructed, or so constructed or planned 13754
as to require additions and improvements to them before the 13755
buildings or facilities are usable for their intended purpose, or 13756
that corrections to permanent improvements are necessary to remove 13757
or prevent health or safety hazards.13758

       (b) Existing fiscal and net indebtedness limitations make 13759
adequate replacement, additions, or improvements impossible.13760

       (2) Upon the declaration of an emergency, the board of 13761
education may, by resolution, submit to the electors of the 13762
district pursuant to section 133.18 of the Revised Code the 13763
question of issuing securities for the purpose of paying the cost, 13764
in excess of any insurance or condemnation proceeds received by 13765
the district, of permanent improvements to respond to the 13766
emergency need.13767

       (3) The procedures for the election shall be as provided in 13768
section 133.18 of the Revised Code, except that:13769

       (a) The form of the ballot shall describe the emergency 13770
existing, refer to this division as the authority under which the 13771
emergency is declared, and state that the amount of the proposed 13772
securities exceeds the limitations prescribed by division (B) of 13773
this section;13774

       (b) The resolution required by division (B) of section 133.18 13775
of the Revised Code shall be certified to the county auditor and 13776
the board of elections at least one hundred days prior to the 13777
election;13778

       (c) The county auditor shall advise and, not later than 13779
ninety-five days before the election, confirm that advice by 13780
certification to, the board of education of the information 13781
required by division (C) of section 133.18 of the Revised Code;13782

       (d) The board of education shall then certify its resolution 13783
and the information required by division (D) of section 133.18 of 13784
the Revised Code to the board of elections not less than ninety 13785
days prior to the election.13786

       (4) Notwithstanding division (B) of section 133.21 of the 13787
Revised Code, the first principal payment of securities issued 13788
under this division may be set at any date not later than sixty 13789
months after the earliest possible principal payment otherwise 13790
provided for in that division.13791

       (G)(1) The board of education may contract with an architect, 13792
professional engineer, or other person experienced in the design 13793
and implementation of energy conservation measures for an analysis 13794
and recommendations pertaining to installations, modifications of 13795
installations, or remodeling that would significantly reduce 13796
energy consumption in buildings owned by the district. The report 13797
shall include estimates of all costs of such installations, 13798
modifications, or remodeling, including costs of design, 13799
engineering, installation, maintenance, repairs, and debt service, 13800
forgone residual value of materials or equipment replaced by the 13801
energy conservation measure, as defined by the Ohio school 13802
facilities commission, a baseline analysis of actual energy 13803
consumption data for the preceding three years with the utility 13804
baseline based on only the actual energy consumption data for the 13805
preceding twelve months, and estimates of the amounts by which 13806
energy consumption and resultant operational and maintenance 13807
costs, as defined by the commission, would be reduced.13808

       If the board finds after receiving the report that the amount 13809
of money the district would spend on such installations, 13810
modifications, or remodeling is not likely to exceed the amount of 13811
money it would save in energy and resultant operational and 13812
maintenance costs over the ensuing fifteen years, the board may 13813
submit to the commission a copy of its findings and a request for 13814
approval to incur indebtedness to finance the making or 13815
modification of installations or the remodeling of buildings for 13816
the purpose of significantly reducing energy consumption.13817

       If the commission determines that the board's findings are 13818
reasonable, itThe school facilities commission, in consultation 13819
with the auditor of state, may deny a request under this division 13820
by the board of education any school district is in a state of 13821
fiscal watch pursuant to division (A) of section 3316.03 of the 13822
Revised Code, if it determines that the expenditure of funds is 13823
not in the best interest of the school district.13824

       No district board of education of a school district that is 13825
in a state of fiscal emergency pursuant to division (B) of section 13826
3316.03 of the Revised Code shall submit a request without 13827
submitting evidence that the installations, modifications, or 13828
remodeling have been approved by the district's financial planning 13829
and supervision commission established under section 3316.05 of 13830
the Revised Code.13831

       No board of education of a school district that, for three or 13832
more consecutive years, has been declared to be in a state of 13833
academic emergency under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code, as 13834
that section existed prior to March 22, 2013, and has failed to 13835
meet adequate yearly progress, or has met any condition set forth 13836
in division (A)(2), (3), or (4) of section 3302.10 of the Revised 13837
Code shall submit a request without first receiving approval to 13838
incur indebtedness from the district's academic distress 13839
commission established under that section, for so long as such 13840
commission continues to be required for the district.13841

       (2) The school facilities commission shall approve the 13842
board's request. Uponprovided that the following conditions are 13843
satisfied:13844

       (a) The commission determines that the board's findings are 13845
reasonable.13846

       (b) The request for approval is complete.13847

       (c) The installations, modifications, or remodeling are 13848
consistent with any project to construct or acquire classroom 13849
facilities, or to reconstruct or make additions to existing 13850
classroom facilities under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 or sections 13851
3318.40 to 3318.45 of the Revised Code.13852

       Upon receipt of the commission's approval, the district may 13853
issue securities without a vote of the electors in a principal 13854
amount not to exceed nine-tenths of one per cent of its tax 13855
valuation for the purpose of making such installations, 13856
modifications, or remodeling, but the total net indebtedness of 13857
the district without a vote of the electors incurred under this 13858
and all other sections of the Revised Code, except section 13859
3318.052 of the Revised Code, shall not exceed one per cent of the 13860
district's tax valuation.13861

       (3) So long as any securities issued under division (G) of13862
this sectiondivision remain outstanding, the board of education 13863
shall monitor the energy consumption and resultant operational and 13864
maintenance costs of buildings in which installations or 13865
modifications have been made or remodeling has been done pursuant 13866
to division (G) of this sectiondivision and shall maintain and 13867
annually update a report documenting the reductions in energy 13868
consumption and resultant operational and maintenance cost savings 13869
attributable to such installations, modifications, or remodeling. 13870
The report shall be certified by an architect or engineer 13871
independent of any person that provided goods or services to the 13872
board in connection with the energy conservation measures that are 13873
the subject of the report. The resultant operational and 13874
maintenance cost savings shall be certified by the school district 13875
treasurer. The report shall be submitted annually to the 13876
commission.13877

       (H) With the consent of the superintendent of public 13878
instruction, a school district may incur without a vote of the 13879
electors net indebtedness that exceeds the amounts stated in 13880
divisions (A) and (G) of this section for the purpose of paying 13881
costs of permanent improvements, if and to the extent that both of 13882
the following conditions are satisfied:13883

       (1) The fiscal officer of the school district estimates that 13884
receipts of the school district from payments made under or 13885
pursuant to agreements entered into pursuant to section 725.02, 13886
1728.10, 3735.671, 5709.081, 5709.082, 5709.40, 5709.41, 5709.62, 13887
5709.63, 5709.632, 5709.73, 5709.78, or 5709.82 of the Revised 13888
Code, or distributions under division (C) of section 5709.43 of 13889
the Revised Code, or any combination thereof, are, after 13890
accounting for any appropriate coverage requirements, sufficient 13891
in time and amount, and are committed by the proceedings, to pay 13892
the debt charges on the securities issued to evidence that 13893
indebtedness and payable from those receipts, and the taxing 13894
authority of the district confirms the fiscal officer's estimate, 13895
which confirmation is approved by the superintendent of public 13896
instruction;13897

       (2) The fiscal officer of the school district certifies, and 13898
the taxing authority of the district confirms, that the district, 13899
at the time of the certification and confirmation, reasonably 13900
expects to have sufficient revenue available for the purpose of 13901
operating such permanent improvements for their intended purpose 13902
upon acquisition or completion thereof, and the superintendent of 13903
public instruction approves the taxing authority's confirmation.13904

       The maximum maturity of securities issued under division (H) 13905
of this section shall be the lesser of twenty years or the maximum 13906
maturity calculated under section 133.20 of the Revised Code.13907

       (I) A school district may incur net indebtedness by the 13908
issuance of securities in accordance with the provisions of this 13909
chapter in excess of the limit specified in division (B) or (C) of 13910
this section when necessary to raise the school district portion 13911
of the basic project cost and any additional funds necessary to 13912
participate in a project under Chapter 3318. of the Revised Code, 13913
including the cost of items designated by the Ohio school 13914
facilities commission as required locally funded initiatives, the 13915
cost of other locally funded initiatives in an amount that does 13916
not exceed fifty per cent of the district's portion of the basic 13917
project cost, and the cost for site acquisition. The school 13918
facilities commission shall notify the superintendent of public 13919
instruction whenever a school district will exceed either limit 13920
pursuant to this division.13921

       (J) A school district whose portion of the basic project cost 13922
of its classroom facilities project under sections 3318.01 to 13923
3318.20 of the Revised Code is greater than or equal to one 13924
hundred million dollars may incur without a vote of the electors 13925
net indebtedness in an amount up to two per cent of its tax 13926
valuation through the issuance of general obligation securities in 13927
order to generate all or part of the amount of its portion of the 13928
basic project cost if the controlling board has approved the 13929
school facilities commission's conditional approval of the project 13930
under section 3318.04 of the Revised Code. The school district 13931
board and the Ohio school facilities commission shall include the 13932
dedication of the proceeds of such securities in the agreement 13933
entered into under section 3318.08 of the Revised Code. No state 13934
moneys shall be released for a project to which this section 13935
applies until the proceeds of any bonds issued under this section 13936
that are dedicated for the payment of the school district portion 13937
of the project are first deposited into the school district's 13938
project construction fund.13939

       Sec. 135.143.  (A) The treasurer of state may invest or 13940
execute transactions for any part or all of the interim funds of 13941
the state in the following classifications of obligations:13942

       (1) United States treasury bills, notes, bonds, or any other 13943
obligations or securities issued by the United States treasury or 13944
any other obligation guaranteed as to principal and interest by 13945
the United States;13946

       (2) Bonds, notes, debentures, or any other obligations or 13947
securities issued by any federal government agency or 13948
instrumentality;13949

       (3)(a) Bonds and other direct, notes, and other obligations 13950
of the state of Ohio issued by the treasurer of state and of, the 13951
Ohio public facilities commission, the Ohio building authority, 13952
and the Ohio housing finance agency, the Ohio water development 13953
authority, and the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission;13954

       (b) Bonds, notes, and other obligations of any state or 13955
political subdivision thereof rated at the time of purchase in the 13956
three highest categories by two nationally recognized rating 13957
agencies and purchased through a recognized securities dealer.13958

       (4)(a) Written repurchase agreements with any eligible Ohio 13959
financial institution that is a member of the federal reserve 13960
system or federal home loan bank or any recognized United States 13961
government securities dealer that is recognized as a primary 13962
dealer by the federal reserve bank of New York, under the terms of 13963
which agreement the treasurer of state purchases and the eligible 13964
financial institution or dealer agrees unconditionally to 13965
repurchase any of the securities that are listed in division 13966
(A)(1), (2), or (6) of this section and that will mature or are 13967
redeemable within ten years from the date of purchase. The market 13968
value of securities subject to these transactions must exceed the 13969
principal value of the repurchase agreement by an amount specified 13970
by the treasurer of state, and the securities must be delivered 13971
into the custody of the treasurer of state or the qualified 13972
trustee or agent designated by the treasurer of state. The 13973
agreement shall contain the requirement that for each transaction 13974
pursuant to the agreement, the participating institution or dealer 13975
shall provide all of the following information:13976

       (i) The par value of the securities;13977

       (ii) The type, rate, and maturity date of the securities;13978

       (iii) A numerical identifier generally accepted in the 13979
securities industry that designates the securities.13980

       (b) The treasurer of state also may sell any securities, 13981
listed in division (A)(1), (2), or (6) of this section, regardless 13982
of maturity or time of redemption of the securities, under the 13983
same terms and conditions for repurchase, provided that the 13984
securities have been fully paid for and are owned by the treasurer 13985
of state at the time of the sale.13986

       (5) Securities lending agreements with any eligible financial 13987
institution that is a member of the federal reserve system or 13988
federal home loan bank or any recognized United States government 13989
securities dealer, under the terms of which agreements the 13990
treasurer of state lends securities and the eligible financial 13991
institution or dealer agrees to simultaneously exchange similar 13992
securities or cash, equal value for equal value.13993

       Securities and cash received as collateral for a securities 13994
lending agreement are not interim funds of the state. The 13995
investment of cash collateral received pursuant to a securities 13996
lending agreement may be invested only in such instruments 13997
specified by the treasurer of state in accordance with a written 13998
investment policy.13999

       (6) Various forms of commercial paper issued by any 14000
corporationentity that is incorporatedorganized under the laws 14001
of the United States or a state, which notes are rated at the time 14002
of purchase in the two highest categories by two nationally 14003
recognized rating agencies, provided that the total amount 14004
invested under this section in any commercial paper at any time 14005
shall not exceed twenty-fiveforty per cent of the state's total 14006
average portfolio, as determined and calculated by the treasurer 14007
of state;14008

       (7) Bankers acceptances, maturing in two hundred seventy days 14009
or less, which are eligible for purchase by the federal reserve 14010
system, provided that the total amount invested in bankers 14011
acceptances at any time shall not exceed ten per cent of the 14012
state's total average portfolio, as determined and calculated by 14013
the treasurer of state;14014

       (8) Certificates of deposit in eligible institutions applying 14015
for interim moneys as provided in section 135.08 of the Revised 14016
Code, including linked deposits as provided in sections 135.61 to 14017
135.67 of the Revised Code, agricultural linked deposits as 14018
provided in sections 135.71 to 135.76 of the Revised Code, and 14019
housing linked deposits as provided in sections 135.81 to 135.87 14020
of the Revised Code;14021

       (9) The state treasurer's investment pool authorized under 14022
section 135.45 of the Revised Code;14023

       (10) Debt interests, other than commercial paper described in 14024
division (A)(6) of this section, rated at the time of purchase in 14025
the three highest categories by two nationally recognized rating 14026
agencies and issued by corporationsentities that are incorporated14027
organized under the laws of the United States or a state, or 14028
issued by foreign nations diplomatically recognized by the United 14029
States government, or any instrument based on, derived from, or 14030
related to such interests, provided that:14031

       (a) The investments in debt interests, other than commercial 14032
paper, shall not exceed in the aggregate twenty-five per cent of 14033
the state's portfolio;14034

       (b) The investments in debt interests issued by foreign 14035
nations shall not exceed in the aggregate one per cent of the 14036
state's portfolio;14037

       (c) TheWhen added to the investment in commercial paper, the14038
investments in the debt interests of a single issuer shall not 14039
exceed in the aggregate one-half of onefive per cent of the 14040
state's portfolio, except that debt interests of a single issuer 14041
that is a foreign nation shall not exceed in the aggregate one per 14042
cent of the state's portfolio.14043

       The treasurer of state shall invest under division (A)(10) of 14044
this section in a debt interest issued by a foreign nation only if 14045
the debt interest is backed by the full faith and credit of that 14046
foreign nation, and provided that all interest and principal shall 14047
be denominated and payable in United States funds. 14048

       For purposes of division (A)(10) of this section, a debt 14049
interest is rated in the three highest categories by two 14050
nationally recognized rating agencies if either the debt interest 14051
itself or the issuer of the debt interest is rated, or is 14052
implicitly rated, at the time of purchase in the three highest 14053
categories by two nationally recognized rating agencies.14054

       For purposes of division (A)(10) of this section, the 14055
"state's portfolio" means the state's total average portfolio, as 14056
determined and calculated by the treasurer of state.14057

       (11) No-load money market mutual funds consisting exclusively 14058
of obligations described in division (A)(1), (2), or (6) of this 14059
section and repurchase agreements secured by such obligations14060
rated at the time of purchase in the highest category by at least 14061
one nationally recognized rating agency.14062

       (12) Obligations of a political subdivision issued under 14063
Chapter 133. of the Revised Code and identified in an agreement 14064
described in division (G) of this section.14065

       (B) Whenever, during a period of designation, the treasurer 14066
of state classifies public moneys as interim moneys, the treasurer 14067
of state shall notify the state board of deposit of such action. 14068
The notification shall be given within thirty days after such 14069
classification and, in the event the state board of deposit does 14070
not concur in such classification or in the investments or 14071
deposits made under this section, the board may order the 14072
treasurer of state to sell or liquidate any of the investments or 14073
deposits, and any such order shall specifically describe the 14074
investments or deposits and fix the date upon which they are to be 14075
sold or liquidated. Investments or deposits so ordered to be sold 14076
or liquidated shall be sold or liquidated for cash by the 14077
treasurer of state on the date fixed in such order at the then 14078
current market price. Neither the treasurer of state nor the 14079
members of the state board of deposit shall be held accountable 14080
for any loss occasioned by sales or liquidations of investments or 14081
deposits at prices lower than their cost. Any loss or expense 14082
incurred in making these sales or liquidations is payable as other 14083
expenses of the treasurer's office.14084

       (C) If any securities or obligations invested in by the 14085
treasurer of state pursuant to this section are registrable either 14086
as to principal or interest, or both, such securities or 14087
obligations shall be registered in the name of the treasurer of 14088
state.14089

       (D) The treasurer of state is responsible for the safekeeping 14090
of all securities or obligations under this section. Any such 14091
securities or obligations may be deposited for safekeeping as 14092
provided in section 113.05 of the Revised Code.14093

       (E) Interest earned on any investments or deposits authorized 14094
by this section shall be collected by the treasurer of state and 14095
credited by the treasurer of state to the proper fund of the 14096
state.14097

       (F) Whenever investments or deposits acquired under this 14098
section mature and become due and payable, the treasurer of state 14099
shall present them for payment according to their tenor, and shall 14100
collect the moneys payable thereon. The moneys so collected shall 14101
be treated as public moneys subject to sections 135.01 to 135.21 14102
of the Revised Code.14103

       (G) The treasurer of state and any political subdivision 14104
issuing obligations referred to in division (A)(12) of this 14105
section, which obligations mature within one year from the 14106
original date of issuance, may enter into an agreement providing 14107
for:14108

       (1) The purchase of those obligations by the treasurer of 14109
state on terms and subject to conditions set forth in the 14110
agreement;14111

       (2) The payment by the political subdivision to the treasurer 14112
of state of a reasonable fee as consideration for the agreement of 14113
the treasurer of state to purchase those obligations; provided, 14114
however, that the treasurer of state shall not be authorized to 14115
enter into any such agreement with a board of education of a 14116
school district that has an outstanding obligation with respect to 14117
a loan received under authority of section 3313.483 of the Revised 14118
Code.14119

       (H) For purposes of division (G) of this section, a fee shall 14120
not be considered reasonable unless it is set to recover only the 14121
direct costs, a reasonable estimate of the indirect costs 14122
associated with the purchasing of obligations of a political 14123
subdivision under division (G) of this section and any reselling 14124
of the obligations or any interest in the obligations, including 14125
interests in a fund comprised of the obligations, and the 14126
administration thereof. No money from the general revenue fund 14127
shall be used to subsidize the purchase or resale of these 14128
obligations.14129

       (I) All money collected by the treasurer of state from the 14130
fee imposed by division (G) of this section shall be deposited to 14131
the credit of the state political subdivision obligations fund, 14132
which is hereby created in the state treasury. Money credited to 14133
the fund shall be used solely to pay the treasurer of state's 14134
direct and indirect costs associated with purchasing and reselling 14135
obligations of a political subdivision under division (G) of this 14136
section.14137

       (J) As used in this section, "political subdivision" means a 14138
county, township, municipal corporation, or board of education of14139
a school district.14140

       Sec. 135.22.  (A) For purposes of this section:14141

       (1) "Treasurer" has the same meaning as in section 135.01 of 14142
the Revised Code, but does not include a county treasurer or the 14143
treasurer of state. "Treasurer" includes any person whose duties 14144
include making investment decisions with respect to the investment 14145
or deposit of interim moneys.14146

       (2) "Subdivision" has the same meaning as in section 135.01 14147
of the Revised Code.14148

       (B) To enhance the background and working knowledge of 14149
treasurers in investments, cash management, andthe collection of 14150
taxes, ethics, and in any other subject area that the treasurer of 14151
state determines is reasonably related to the duties of a 14152
treasurer, the treasurer of state shall provide annual continuing 14153
education programs for treasurers. A treasurer annually shall 14154
complete the continuing education programs described in this 14155
section, unless the treasurer annually provides a notice of 14156
exemption described in division (E) of this section.14157

       (C) The treasurer of state shall determine the manner, 14158
content, and length of the continuing education programs after 14159
consultation with appropriate statewide organizations of local 14160
government officials.14161

       (D) Upon successful completion of a continuing education 14162
program required by this section, the treasurer of state shall 14163
issue a certificate indicating that the treasurer has successfully 14164
completed the continuing education program prescribed by the 14165
treasurer of state. The treasurer of state shall forward to the 14166
auditor of state any certificates issued pursuant to this division 14167
by the treasurer of state. The auditor of state shall maintain in 14168
the auditor's records any certificates forwarded by the treasurer 14169
of state pursuant to this division. As part of the auditor of 14170
state's audit of the subdivision conducted in accordance with 14171
section 117.11 of the Revised Code, the auditor of state shall 14172
report whether the treasurer is in compliance with this section of 14173
the Revised Code.14174

       (E) Division (B) of this section does not apply to any 14175
treasurer who annually provides a notice of exemption to the 14176
auditor of state. The notice shall be certified by the treasurer 14177
of state and shall provide that the treasurer is not subject to 14178
the continuing education requirements set forth in division (B) of 14179
this section, because the treasurer invests or deposits public 14180
moneys in the following investments only:14181

       (1) Interim deposits pursuant to division (B)(3) of section 14182
135.14 or section 135.145 of the Revised Code;14183

       (2) No-load money market mutual funds pursuant to division 14184
(B)(5) of section 135.14 of the Revised Code;14185

       (3) The Ohio subdivision's fund pursuant to division (B)(6) 14186
of section 135.14 of the Revised Code.14187

       (F) In carrying out the duties required by this section, the 14188
treasurer of state may charge the subdivision served by the 14189
treasurer a registration fee that will meet actual and necessary 14190
expenses in connection with the training of the treasurer, 14191
including instruction fees, site acquisition costs, and the cost 14192
of course materials. Any necessary personal expenses of a 14193
treasurer incurred as a result of attending the continuing 14194
education courses shall be borne by the subdivision represented by 14195
the treasurer.14196

       (G) The treasurer of state may allow any other interested 14197
person to attend any of the continuing education programs that are 14198
held pursuant to this section, provided that before attending any 14199
such continuing education program, the interested person has paid 14200
to the treasurer of state the full registration fee set for the 14201
continuing education program.14202

       (H) All funds collected pursuant to this section shall be 14203
paid into the county treasurer education fund created pursuant to 14204
section 321.46 of the Revised Code, and the actual and necessary 14205
expenses of the treasurer of state in conducting the continuing 14206
education programs required by this section shall be paid from 14207
this fund.14208

       (I) The treasurer of state may adopt reasonable rules not 14209
inconsistent with this section for the implementation of this 14210
section.14211

       Sec. 135.35.  (A) The investing authority shall deposit or 14212
invest any part or all of the county's inactive moneys and shall 14213
invest all of the money in the county public library fund when 14214
required by section 135.352 of the Revised Code. The following 14215
classifications of securities and obligations are eligible for 14216
such deposit or investment:14217

       (1) United States treasury bills, notes, bonds, or any other 14218
obligation or security issued by the United States treasury, any 14219
other obligation guaranteed as to principal or interest by the 14220
United States, or any book entry, zero-coupon United States 14221
treasury security that is a direct obligation of the United 14222
States.14223

       Nothing in the classification of eligible securities and 14224
obligations set forth in divisions (A)(2) to (11) of this section 14225
shall be construed to authorize any investment in stripped 14226
principal or interest obligations of such eligible securities and 14227
obligations.14228

       (2) Bonds, notes, debentures, or any other obligations or 14229
securities issued by any federal government agency or 14230
instrumentality, including, but not limited to, the federal 14231
national mortgage association, federal home loan bank, federal 14232
farm credit bank, federal home loan mortgage corporation, 14233
government national mortgage association, and student loan 14234
marketing association. All federal agency securities shall be 14235
direct issuances of federal government agencies or 14236
instrumentalities.14237

       (3) Time certificates of deposit or savings or deposit 14238
accounts, including, but not limited to, passbook accounts, in any 14239
eligible institution mentioned in section 135.32 of the Revised 14240
Code;14241

       (4) Bonds and other obligations of this state or the 14242
political subdivisions of this state;14243

       (5) No-load money market mutual funds consisting exclusively 14244
of obligations described in division (A)(1) or (2) of this section 14245
and repurchase agreements secured by such obligations, provided 14246
that investments in securities described in this division are made 14247
only through eligible institutions mentioned in section 135.32 of 14248
the Revised Code;14249

       (6) The Ohio subdivision's fund as provided in section 135.45 14250
of the Revised Code;14251

       (7) Securities lending agreements with any eligible 14252
institution mentioned in section 135.32 of the Revised Code that 14253
is a member of the federal reserve system or federal home loan 14254
bank or with any recognized United States government securities 14255
dealer meeting the description in division (J)(1) of this section, 14256
under the terms of which agreements the investing authority lends 14257
securities and the eligible institution or dealer agrees to 14258
simultaneously exchange similar securities or cash, equal value 14259
for equal value.14260

       Securities and cash received as collateral for a securities 14261
lending agreement are not inactive moneys of the county or moneys 14262
of a county public library fund. The investment of cash collateral 14263
received pursuant to a securities lending agreement may be 14264
invested only in instruments specified by the investing authority 14265
in the written investment policy described in division (K) of this 14266
section. 14267

       (8) Up to twenty-five per cent of the county's total average 14268
portfolio in either of the following investments:14269

       (a) Commercial paper notes issued by an entity that is 14270
defined in division (D) of section 1705.01 of the Revised Code and 14271
that has assets exceeding five hundred million dollars, to which 14272
notes all of the following apply:14273

       (i) The notes are rated at the time of purchase in the 14274
highest classification established by at least two nationally 14275
recognized standard rating services.14276

       (ii) The aggregate value of the notes does not exceed ten per 14277
cent of the aggregate value of the outstanding commercial paper of 14278
the issuing corporation.14279

       (iii) The notes mature not later than two hundred seventy 14280
days after purchase.14281

       (b) Bankers acceptances of banks that are insured by the 14282
federal deposit insurance corporation and to which both of the 14283
following apply:14284

       (i) The obligations are eligible for purchase by the federal 14285
reserve system.14286

       (ii) The obligations mature not later than one hundred eighty 14287
days after purchase.14288

       No investment shall be made pursuant to division (A)(8) of 14289
this section unless the investing authority has completed 14290
additional training for making the investments authorized by 14291
division (A)(8) of this section. The type and amount of additional 14292
training shall be approved by the auditor of state and may be 14293
conducted by or provided under the supervision of the auditor of 14294
state.14295

       (9) Up to fifteen per cent of the county's total average 14296
portfolio in notes issued by corporations that are incorporated 14297
under the laws of the United States and that are operating within 14298
the United States, or by depository institutions that are doing 14299
business under authority granted by the United States or any state 14300
and that are operating within the United States, provided both of 14301
the following apply:14302

        (a) The notes are rated in the second highest or higher 14303
category by at least two nationally recognized standard rating 14304
services at the time of purchase.14305

        (b) The notes mature not later than two years after purchase.14306

        (10) No-load money market mutual funds rated in the highest 14307
category at the time of purchase by at least one nationally 14308
recognized standard rating service and consisting exclusively of 14309
obligations described in division (A)(1), (2), or (6) of section 14310
135.143 of the Revised Code;14311

        (11) Debt interests rated at the time of purchase in the 14312
three highest categories by two nationally recognized standard 14313
rating services and issued by foreign nations diplomatically 14314
recognized by the United States government. All interest and 14315
principal shall be denominated and payable in United States funds. 14316
The investments made under division (A)(11) of this section shall 14317
not exceed in the aggregate one per cent of a county's total 14318
average portfolio.14319

       The investing authority shall invest under division (A)(11) 14320
of this section in a debt interest issued by a foreign nation only 14321
if the debt interest is backed by the full faith and credit of 14322
that foreign nation, there is no prior history of default, and the 14323
debt interest matures not later than five years after purchase. 14324
For purposes of division (A)(11) of this section, a debt interest 14325
is rated in the three highest categories by two nationally 14326
recognized standard rating services if either the debt interest 14327
itself or the issuer of the debt interest is rated, or is 14328
implicitly rated, at the time of purchase in the three highest 14329
categories by two nationally recognized standard rating services.14330

       (12) A current unpaid or delinquent tax line of credit 14331
authorized under division (G) of section 135.341 of the Revised 14332
Code, provided that all of the conditions for entering into such a 14333
line of credit under that division are satisfied, or bonds and 14334
other obligations of a county land reutilization corporation 14335
organized under Chapter 1724. of the Revised Code, if the county 14336
land reutilization corporation is located wholly or partly within 14337
the same county as the investing authority.14338

       (B) Nothing in the classifications of eligible obligations 14339
and securities set forth in divisions (A)(1) to (11) of this 14340
section shall be construed to authorize investment in a 14341
derivative, and no investing authority shall invest any county 14342
inactive moneys or any moneys in a county public library fund in a 14343
derivative. For purposes of this division, "derivative" means a 14344
financial instrument or contract or obligation whose value or 14345
return is based upon or linked to another asset or index, or both, 14346
separate from the financial instrument, contract, or obligation 14347
itself. Any security, obligation, trust account, or other 14348
instrument that is created from an issue of the United States 14349
treasury or is created from an obligation of a federal agency or 14350
instrumentality or is created from both is considered a derivative 14351
instrument. An eligible investment described in this section with 14352
a variable interest rate payment, based upon a single interest 14353
payment or single index comprised of other eligible investments 14354
provided for in division (A)(1) or (2) of this section, is not a 14355
derivative, provided that such variable rate investment has a 14356
maximum maturity of two years. A treasury inflation-protected 14357
security shall not be considered a derivative, provided the 14358
security matures not later than five years after purchase.14359

       (C) Except as provided in divisiondivisions (D) and (O) of 14360
this section, any investment made pursuant to this section must 14361
mature within fiveten years from the date of settlement, unless 14362
the investment is matched to a specific obligation or debt of the 14363
county or to a specific obligation or debt of a political 14364
subdivision of this state, and the investment is specifically 14365
approved by the investment advisory committee.14366

       (D) The investing authority may also enter into a written 14367
repurchase agreement with any eligible institution mentioned in 14368
section 135.32 of the Revised Code or any eligible securities 14369
dealer pursuant to division (J) of this section, under the terms 14370
of which agreement the investing authority purchases and the 14371
eligible institution or dealer agrees unconditionally to 14372
repurchase any of the securities listed in divisions (B)(1) to 14373
(5), except letters of credit described in division (B)(2), of 14374
section 135.18 of the Revised Code. The market value of securities 14375
subject to an overnight written repurchase agreement must exceed 14376
the principal value of the overnight written repurchase agreement 14377
by at least two per cent. A written repurchase agreement must 14378
exceed the principal value of the overnight written repurchase 14379
agreement, by at least two per cent. A written repurchase 14380
agreement shall not exceed thirty days, and the market value of 14381
securities subject to a written repurchase agreement must exceed 14382
the principal value of the written repurchase agreement by at 14383
least two per cent and be marked to market daily. All securities 14384
purchased pursuant to this division shall be delivered into the 14385
custody of the investing authority or the qualified custodian of 14386
the investing authority or an agent designated by the investing 14387
authority. A written repurchase agreement with an eligible 14388
securities dealer shall be transacted on a delivery versus payment 14389
basis. The agreement shall contain the requirement that for each 14390
transaction pursuant to the agreement the participating 14391
institution shall provide all of the following information:14392

       (1) The par value of the securities;14393

       (2) The type, rate, and maturity date of the securities;14394

       (3) A numerical identifier generally accepted in the 14395
securities industry that designates the securities.14396

       No investing authority shall enter into a written repurchase 14397
agreement under the terms of which the investing authority agrees 14398
to sell securities owned by the county to a purchaser and agrees 14399
with that purchaser to unconditionally repurchase those 14400
securities.14401

       (E) No investing authority shall make an investment under 14402
this section, unless the investing authority, at the time of 14403
making the investment, reasonably expects that the investment can 14404
be held until its maturity. The investing authority's written 14405
investment policy shall specify the conditions under which an 14406
investment may be redeemed or sold prior to maturity.14407

       (F) No investing authority shall pay a county's inactive 14408
moneys or moneys of a county public library fund into a fund 14409
established by another subdivision, treasurer, governing board, or 14410
investing authority, if that fund was established by the 14411
subdivision, treasurer, governing board, or investing authority 14412
for the purpose of investing or depositing the public moneys of 14413
other subdivisions. This division does not apply to the payment of 14414
public moneys into either of the following:14415

       (1) The Ohio subdivision's fund pursuant to division (A)(6) 14416
of this section;14417

       (2) A fund created solely for the purpose of acquiring, 14418
constructing, owning, leasing, or operating municipal utilities 14419
pursuant to the authority provided under section 715.02 of the 14420
Revised Code or Section 4 of Article XVIII, Ohio Constitution.14421

       For purposes of division (F) of this section, "subdivision" 14422
includes a county.14423

       (G) The use of leverage, in which the county uses its current 14424
investment assets as collateral for the purpose of purchasing 14425
other assets, is prohibited. The issuance of taxable notes for the 14426
purpose of arbitrage is prohibited. Contracting to sell securities 14427
not owned by the county, for the purpose of purchasing such 14428
securities on the speculation that bond prices will decline, is 14429
prohibited.14430

       (H) Any securities, certificates of deposit, deposit 14431
accounts, or any other documents evidencing deposits or 14432
investments made under authority of this section shall be issued 14433
in the name of the county with the county treasurer or investing 14434
authority as the designated payee. If any such deposits or 14435
investments are registrable either as to principal or interest, or 14436
both, they shall be registered in the name of the treasurer.14437

       (I) The investing authority shall be responsible for the 14438
safekeeping of all documents evidencing a deposit or investment 14439
acquired under this section, including, but not limited to, 14440
safekeeping receipts evidencing securities deposited with a 14441
qualified trustee, as provided in section 135.37 of the Revised 14442
Code, and documents confirming the purchase of securities under 14443
any repurchase agreement under this section shall be deposited 14444
with a qualified trustee, provided, however, that the qualified 14445
trustee shall be required to report to the investing authority, 14446
auditor of state, or an authorized outside auditor at any time 14447
upon request as to the identity, market value, and location of the 14448
document evidencing each security, and that if the participating 14449
institution is a designated depository of the county for the 14450
current period of designation, the securities that are the subject 14451
of the repurchase agreement may be delivered to the treasurer or 14452
held in trust by the participating institution on behalf of the 14453
investing authority.14454

       Upon the expiration of the term of office of an investing 14455
authority or in the event of a vacancy in the office for any 14456
reason, the officer or the officer's legal representative shall 14457
transfer and deliver to the officer's successor all documents 14458
mentioned in this division for which the officer has been 14459
responsible for safekeeping. For all such documents transferred 14460
and delivered, the officer shall be credited with, and the 14461
officer's successor shall be charged with, the amount of moneys 14462
evidenced by such documents.14463

       (J)(1) All investments, except for investments in securities 14464
described in divisions (A)(5), (6), and (12) of this section, 14465
shall be made only through a member of the national association of 14466
securities dealers, through a bank, savings bank, or savings and 14467
loan association regulated by the superintendent of financial 14468
institutions, or through an institution regulated by the 14469
comptroller of the currency, federal deposit insurance 14470
corporation, or board of governors of the federal reserve system. 14471

       (2) Payment for investments shall be made only upon the 14472
delivery of securities representing such investments to the 14473
treasurer, investing authority, or qualified trustee. If the 14474
securities transferred are not represented by a certificate, 14475
payment shall be made only upon receipt of confirmation of 14476
transfer from the custodian by the treasurer, governing board, or 14477
qualified trustee.14478

       (K)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (K)(2) of 14479
this section, no investing authority shall make an investment or 14480
deposit under this section, unless there is on file with the 14481
auditor of state a written investment policy approved by the 14482
investing authority. The policy shall require that all entities 14483
conducting investment business with the investing authority shall 14484
sign the investment policy of that investing authority. All 14485
brokers, dealers, and financial institutions, described in 14486
division (J)(1) of this section, initiating transactions with the 14487
investing authority by giving advice or making investment 14488
recommendations shall sign the investing authority's investment 14489
policy thereby acknowledging their agreement to abide by the 14490
policy's contents. All brokers, dealers, and financial 14491
institutions, described in division (J)(1) of this section, 14492
executing transactions initiated by the investing authority, 14493
having read the policy's contents, shall sign the investment 14494
policy thereby acknowledging their comprehension and receipt.14495

       (2) If a written investment policy described in division 14496
(K)(1) of this section is not filed on behalf of the county with 14497
the auditor of state, the investing authority of that county shall 14498
invest the county's inactive moneys and moneys of the county 14499
public library fund only in time certificates of deposits or 14500
savings or deposit accounts pursuant to division (A)(3) of this 14501
section, no-load money market mutual funds pursuant to division 14502
(A)(5) of this section, or the Ohio subdivision's fund pursuant to 14503
division (A)(6) of this section.14504

       (L)(1) The investing authority shall establish and maintain 14505
an inventory of all obligations and securities acquired by the 14506
investing authority pursuant to this section. The inventory shall 14507
include a description of each obligation or security, including 14508
type, cost, par value, maturity date, settlement date, and any 14509
coupon rate.14510

       (2) The investing authority shall also keep a complete record 14511
of all purchases and sales of the obligations and securities made 14512
pursuant to this section.14513

       (3) The investing authority shall maintain a monthly 14514
portfolio report and issue a copy of the monthly portfolio report 14515
describing such investments to the county investment advisory 14516
committee, detailing the current inventory of all obligations and 14517
securities, all transactions during the month that affected the 14518
inventory, any income received from the obligations and 14519
securities, and any investment expenses paid, and stating the 14520
names of any persons effecting transactions on behalf of the 14521
investing authority.14522

       (4) The monthly portfolio report shall be a public record and 14523
available for inspection under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.14524

       (5) The inventory and the monthly portfolio report shall be 14525
filed with the board of county commissioners. The monthly 14526
portfolio report also shall be filed with the treasurer of state.14527

       (M) An investing authority may enter into a written 14528
investment or deposit agreement that includes a provision under 14529
which the parties agree to submit to nonbinding arbitration to 14530
settle any controversy that may arise out of the agreement, 14531
including any controversy pertaining to losses of public moneys 14532
resulting from investment or deposit. The arbitration provision 14533
shall be set forth entirely in the agreement, and the agreement 14534
shall include a conspicuous notice to the parties that any party 14535
to the arbitration may apply to the court of common pleas of the 14536
county in which the arbitration was held for an order to vacate, 14537
modify, or correct the award. Any such party may also apply to the 14538
court for an order to change venue to a court of common pleas 14539
located more than one hundred miles from the county in which the 14540
investing authority is located.14541

       For purposes of this division, "investment or deposit 14542
agreement" means any agreement between an investing authority and 14543
a person, under which agreement the person agrees to invest, 14544
deposit, or otherwise manage, on behalf of the investing 14545
authority, a county's inactive moneys or moneys in a county public 14546
library fund, or agrees to provide investment advice to the 14547
investing authority.14548

       (N)(1) An investment held in the county portfolio on 14549
September 27, 1996, that was a legal investment under the law as 14550
it existed before September 27, 1996, may be held until maturity, 14551
or if the investment does not have a maturity date the investment 14552
may be held until five years from September 27, 1996, regardless 14553
of whether the investment would qualify as a legal investment 14554
under the terms of this section as amended.14555

       (2) An investment held in the county portfolio on the 14556
effective date of this amendmentSeptember 10, 2012, that was a 14557
legal investment under the law as it existed before the effective 14558
date of this amendmentSeptember 10, 2012, may be held until 14559
maturity.14560

       (O) Upon a majority affirmative vote of the county investment 14561
advisory committee in support of such action, an investment 14562
authority may invest up to twenty-five per cent of the county's 14563
total average portfolio of investments made under this section in 14564
securities and obligations that mature on a date that is more than 14565
ten years from the date of settlement.14566

       Sec. 135.61.  As used in sections 135.61 to 135.67 of the 14567
Revised Code:14568

       (A) "Eligible small business" means any person, including, 14569
but not limited to a person engaged in agriculture, that has all 14570
of the following characteristics:14571

       (1) Is headquartered in this state;14572

       (2) Maintains offices and operating facilities exclusively in 14573
this state and transacts business in this state;14574

       (3) Employs fewer than one hundred fifty employees, the 14575
majority of whom are residents of this state;14576

       (4) Is organized for profit.14577

       (B) "Eligible lending institution" means a financial 14578
institution that is eligible to make commercial loans, is a public 14579
depository of state funds under section 135.03 of the Revised 14580
Code, and agrees to participate in the linked deposit program.14581

       (C) "Linked deposit" means a certificate of deposit or other 14582
financial institution instrument placed by the treasurer of state 14583
with an eligible lending institution at a rate below current 14584
market rates, as determined and calculated by the treasurer of 14585
state, provided the institution agrees to lend the value of such 14586
deposit, according to the deposit agreement provided in division 14587
(C) of section 135.65 of the Revised Code, to eligible small 14588
businesses at a rate that reflects an equal percentage rate 14589
reduction below the present borrowing rate applicable to each 14590
specific business at the time of the deposit of state funds in the 14591
institution.14592

       (D) "Other financial institution instrument" has the same 14593
meaning as in section 135.81 of the Revised Code.14594

       (E) "Loan" means a contractual agreement under which an 14595
eligible lending institution agrees to lend money in the form of 14596
an upfront lump sum, a line of credit, or any other reasonable 14597
arrangement approved by the treasurer of state.14598

       Sec. 135.71.  As used in sections 135.71 to 135.76 of the 14599
Revised Code:14600

       (A) "Eligible agricultural business" means any person engaged 14601
in agriculture that has all of the following characteristics:14602

       (1) Is headquartered and domiciled in this state;14603

       (2) Maintains land or facilities for agricultural purposes in 14604
this state provided that the land or facilities within this state 14605
comprise not less than fifty-one per cent of the total of all 14606
lands or facilities maintained by the person;14607

       (3) Is organized for profit.14608

       (B) "Eligible lending institution" means a financial 14609
institution that is eligible to make commercial loans, agrees to 14610
participate in the agricultural linked deposit program, and:14611

       (1) Is a public depository of state funds under section 14612
135.03 of the Revised Code; or14613

       (2) Notwithstanding sections 135.01 to 135.21 of the Revised 14614
Code, is an institution of the farm credit system organized under 14615
the federal "Farm Credit Act of 1971," 85 Stat. 583, 12 U.S.C.A. 14616
2001, as amended.14617

       (C) "Agricultural linked deposit" means a certificate of 14618
deposit placed by the treasurer of state with an eligible lending 14619
institution under section 135.74 of the Revised Code or an 14620
investment in bonds, notes, debentures, or other obligations or 14621
securities issued by the federal farm credit bank with regard to 14622
an eligible lending institution.14623

       (D) "Loan" means a contractual agreement under which an 14624
eligible lending institution agrees to lend money in the form of 14625
an upfront lump sum, a line of credit, or any other reasonable 14626
arrangement approved by the treasurer of state.14627

       Sec. 135.80.  (A) The legislative authority of a municipal 14628
corporation, by ordinance; the board of directors of a port 14629
authority or a lake facilities authority, by resolution; or the 14630
board of county commissioners, by resolution, may establish a 14631
linked deposit program authorizing the treasurer or governing 14632
board of the municipal corporation, the board of directors of the 14633
port authority or lake facilities authority, or the investing 14634
authority of the county, as created or designated by the ordinance 14635
or resolution, to place certificates of deposit at up to three per 14636
cent below market rates with an eligible lending institution 14637
applying for interim moneys as provided in section 135.08 of the 14638
Revised Code, selected to invest port authority or lake facilities 14639
authority moneys in linked deposit programs pursuant to section 14640
4582.54 or 353.15 of the Revised Code, or applying for inactive 14641
moneys as provided in section 135.32 of the Revised Code, provided 14642
the institution agrees to lend the value of such deposit to 14643
eligible borrowers at up to three per cent below the present 14644
borrowing rate applicable to each borrower. The ordinance or 14645
resolution shall include requirements and provisions that are 14646
necessary to establish the program, including, but not limited to:14647

       (1) Eligibility requirements for borrowers who may receive 14648
reduced rate loans under the program;14649

       (2) Application procedures for borrowers and institutions 14650
wishing to participate in the program;14651

       (3) Review procedures for applications and criteria for 14652
acceptance or rejection of applications for reduced rate loans;14653

       (4) Necessary agreements between the eligible lending 14654
institution and the treasurer or governing board of the municipal 14655
corporation, the board of directors of the port authority or lake 14656
facilities authority, or the investing authority of the county to 14657
carry out the purposes of the linked deposit program;14658

       (5) Annual reports regarding the operation of the program to 14659
be made by the treasurer or governing board to the legislative 14660
authority, the eligible lending institution to the board of 14661
directors of the port authority or lake facilities authority, or 14662
the investing authority to the board of county commissioners.14663

       (B) The municipal corporation and the treasurer or governing 14664
board, the port authority or lake facilities authority and the 14665
board of directors, and the county and the investing authority or 14666
the board of county commissioners, are not liable to any eligible 14667
lending institution in any manner for the payment of the principal 14668
or interest on any reduced rate loan made under the program, and 14669
any delay in payment or default on the part of any borrower does 14670
not in any manner affect the deposit agreement between the 14671
eligible lending institution and the treasurer or governing board, 14672
the board of directors, or the investing authority or board of 14673
county commissioners.14674

       (C) For purposes of this section, both of the following 14675
apply:14676

       (1) "Investing authority" has the same meaning as in section 14677
135.31 of the Revised Code.14678

       (2) "Port authority" means a port authority created in 14679
accordance with section 4582.22 of the Revised Code.14680

       (3) "Lake facilities authority" means a lake facilities 14681
authority created in accordance with section 353.02 of the Revised 14682
Code.14683

       Sec. 135.81. As used in sections 135.81 to 135.87 of the 14684
Revised Code:14685

       (A) "Eligible governmental subdivision" means a municipal 14686
corporation, port authority created in accordance with section 14687
4582.22 of the Revised Code, or county in this state.14688

       (B) "Eligible governmental subdivision housing linked deposit 14689
program" means any program established pursuant to section 135.80 14690
of the Revised Code by the legislative authority of a municipal 14691
corporation, the board of directors of a port authority created in 14692
accordance with section 4582.22 of the Revised Code, or the board 14693
of county commissioners of a county, in which the program goals 14694
address specific housing issues relative to the geographic 14695
boundaries of that municipal corporation, port authority, or 14696
county. These program goals include, but are not limited to, home 14697
improvement, home restoration, energy efficiency, retention of 14698
historic significance, controlling urban sprawl, neighborhood 14699
revitalization, affordable housing, home ownership for persons 14700
unable to secure conventional financing, urban development, or 14701
economic revitalization of a residential area as a result of a 14702
natural disaster or other catastrophic occurrence.14703

       (C) "Eligible housing linked deposit participant" means any 14704
person or small business that meets the requirements set forth in 14705
an eligible governmental subdivision housing linked deposit 14706
program or set forth by the treasurer of state pursuant to 14707
division (B)(2) of section 135.82 of the Revised Code and that is 14708
a resident of this state.14709

       (D) "Eligible lending institution" means a financial 14710
institution meeting all of the following:14711

       (1) It is eligible to make commercial loans or residential 14712
loans.14713

       (2) It is a public depository of state funds under section 14714
135.03 of the Revised Code.14715

       (3) It agrees to participate in a program to provide housing 14716
linked deposits.14717

       (E) "Housing linked deposit" means a certificate of deposit 14718
or other financial institution instrument, described in section 14719
135.85 of the Revised Code, placed by the treasurer of state with 14720
an eligible lending institution, in accordance with division (B) 14721
of section 135.84 of the Revised Code, provided that the 14722
institution agrees, at the time of the deposit of state funds and 14723
for the period of the deposit, to lend the value of the deposit 14724
according to the deposit agreement described in section 135.85 of 14725
the Revised Code to eligible housing linked deposit participants 14726
at a fixed interest rate of up to three hundred basis points below 14727
the present borrowing rate applicable to each participant in the 14728
absence of approval to participate in the programs described in 14729
division (B) of section 135.82 of the Revised Code.14730

       (F) "Other financial institution instrument" means a fully 14731
collateralized product that otherwise would pay market rates of 14732
interest approved by the treasurer of state, for the purpose of 14733
providing eligible housing linked deposit participants with the 14734
benefits of a housing linked deposit.14735

       (G) "Loan" means a contractual agreement under which an 14736
eligible lending institution agrees to lend money in the form of 14737
an upfront lump sum, a line of credit, or any other reasonable 14738
arrangement approved by the treasurer of state.14739

       Sec. 135.85. (A) Upon placement of a housing linked deposit 14740
with an eligible lending institution pursuant to division (B) of 14741
section 135.84 of the Revised Code, the eligible lending 14742
institution shall do both of the following:14743

       (1) Enter into a deposit agreement with the treasurer of 14744
state that includes all of the following:14745

       (a) Any requirements necessary to carry out the purposes of 14746
sections 135.81 to 135.87 of the Revised Code;14747

       (b) Provisions for any certificate of deposit or other 14748
financial institution instrument meeting the requirements 14749
described in division (B) of this section and placed for any 14750
maturity considered appropriate by the treasurer of state but not 14751
exceeding five years;14752

       (c) A specification of the period of time in which the 14753
eligible lending institution is to provide the reduced interest 14754
rate to an approved applicant.14755

       (2) Lend funds as provided in division (C) of this section 14756
and in accordance with the deposit agreement described in this 14757
section to each eligible housing linked deposit participant 14758
approved by the treasurer of state pursuant to division (A) of 14759
section 135.84 of the Revised Code.14760

       (B) Both of the following apply to any certificate of deposit 14761
or other financial institution instrument described in division 14762
(A)(1)(b) of this section:14763

       (1) The certificate of deposit or other financial institution 14764
instrument shall not be renewed upon final maturity.14765

       (2) Interest shall be paid at the times and in the manner 14766
prescribed by the treasurer of state.14767

       (C) The loan described in division (A)(2) of this section 14768
shall be at a fixed rate of up to three hundred basis points below 14769
the present borrowing rate that would apply to the eligible 14770
housing linked deposit participant in the absence of approval to 14771
participate in the programs described in division (B) of section 14772
135.82 of the Revised Code.14773

       (D) A certificate of compliance with this section in the form 14774
and manner prescribed by the treasurer of state shall be provided 14775
by the eligible lending institution.14776

       (E)(1) Any delay in payments or default on the part of the 14777
eligible housing linked deposit participant does not in any manner 14778
affect the deposit agreement between the eligible lending 14779
institution and the treasurer of state.14780

       (2) If an eligible lending institution changes the terms of a 14781
loan to an eligible housing linked deposit participant because of 14782
a delay in payments or default, the housing linked deposit amount 14783
shall be returned to the treasurer of state by the eligible 14784
lending institution. In which case, the deposit amount plus 14785
interest and without early withdrawal penalties shall be returned 14786
in a timely manner as prescribed by the treasurer of state.14787

       (F) An eligible lending institution shall comply fully with 14788
sections 135.81 to 135.87 of the Revised Code.14789

       Sec. 140.01.  As used in this chapter:14790

       (A) "Hospital agency" means any public hospital agency or any 14791
nonprofit hospital agency.14792

       (B) "Public hospital agency" means any county, board of 14793
county hospital trustees established pursuant to section 339.02 of 14794
the Revised Code, county hospital commission established pursuant 14795
to section 339.14 of the Revised Code, municipal corporation, new 14796
community authority organized under Chapter 349. of the Revised 14797
Code, joint township hospital district, state or municipal 14798
university or college operating or authorized to operate a 14799
hospital facility, or the state.14800

       (C) "Nonprofit hospital agency" means a corporation or 14801
association not for profit, no part of the net earnings of which 14802
inures or may lawfully inure to the benefit of any private 14803
shareholder or individual, that has authority to own or operate a 14804
hospital facility or provides or is to provide services to one or 14805
more other hospital agencies.14806

       (D) "Governing body" means, in the case of a county, the 14807
board of county commissioners or other legislative body; in the 14808
case of a board of county hospital trustees, the board; in the 14809
case of a county hospital commission, the commission; in the case 14810
of a municipal corporation, the council or other legislative 14811
authority; in the case of a new community authority, its board of 14812
trustees; in the case of a joint township hospital district, the 14813
joint township district hospital board; in the case of a state or 14814
municipal university or college, its board of trustees or board of 14815
directors; in the case of a nonprofit hospital agency, the board 14816
of trustees or other body having general management of the agency; 14817
and, in the case of the state, the director of development 14818
services or the Ohio higher educational facility commission.14819

       (E) "Hospital facilities" means buildings, structures and 14820
other improvements, additions thereto and extensions thereof, 14821
furnishings, equipment, and real estate and interests in real 14822
estate, used or to be used for or in connection with one or more 14823
hospitals, emergency, intensive, intermediate, extended, 14824
long-term, or self-care facilities, diagnostic and treatment and 14825
out-patient facilities, facilities related to programs for home 14826
health services, clinics, laboratories, public health centers, 14827
research facilities, and rehabilitation facilities, for or 14828
pertaining to diagnosis, treatment, care, or rehabilitation of 14829
sick, ill, injured, infirm, impaired, disabled, or handicapped 14830
persons, or the prevention, detection, and control of disease, and 14831
also includes education, training, and food service facilities for 14832
health professions personnel, housing facilities for such 14833
personnel and their families, and parking and service facilities 14834
in connection with any of the foregoing; and includes any one, 14835
part of, or any combination of the foregoing; and further includes 14836
site improvements, utilities, machinery, facilities, furnishings, 14837
and any separate or connected buildings, structures, improvements, 14838
sites, utilities, facilities, or equipment to be used in, or in 14839
connection with the operation or maintenance of, or supplementing 14840
or otherwise related to the services or facilities to be provided 14841
by, any one or more of such hospital facilities.14842

       (F) "Costs of hospital facilities" means the costs of 14843
acquiring hospital facilities or interests in hospital facilities, 14844
including membership interests in nonprofit hospital agencies, 14845
costs of constructing hospital facilities, costs of improving one 14846
or more hospital facilities, including reconstructing, 14847
rehabilitating, remodeling, renovating, and enlarging, costs of 14848
equipping and furnishing such facilities, and all financing costs 14849
pertaining thereto, including, without limitation thereto, costs 14850
of engineering, architectural, and other professional services, 14851
designs, plans, specifications and surveys, and estimates of cost, 14852
costs of tests and inspections, the costs of any indemnity or 14853
surety bonds and premiums on insurance, all related direct or 14854
allocable administrative expenses pertaining thereto, fees and 14855
expenses of trustees, depositories, and paying agents for the 14856
obligations, cost of issuance of the obligations and financing 14857
charges and fees and expenses of financial advisors, attorneys, 14858
accountants, consultants and rating services in connection 14859
therewith, capitalized interest on the obligations, amounts 14860
necessary to establish reserves as required by the bond 14861
proceedings, the reimbursement of all moneys advanced or applied 14862
by the hospital agency or others or borrowed from others for the 14863
payment of any item or items of costs of such facilities, and all 14864
other expenses necessary or incident to planning or determining 14865
feasibility or practicability with respect to such facilities, and 14866
such other expenses as may be necessary or incident to the 14867
acquisition, construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, 14868
remodeling, renovation, enlargement, improvement, equipment, and 14869
furnishing of such facilities, the financing thereof, and the 14870
placing of the same in use and operation, including any one, part 14871
of, or combination of such classes of costs and expenses, and 14872
means the costs of refinancing obligations issued by, or 14873
reimbursement of money advanced by, nonprofit hospital agencies or 14874
others the proceeds of which were used for the payment of costs of 14875
hospital facilities, if the governing body of the public hospital 14876
agency determines that the refinancing or reimbursement advances 14877
the purposes of this chapter, whether or not the refinancing or 14878
reimbursement is in conjunction with the acquisition or 14879
construction of additional hospital facilities.14880

       (G) "Hospital receipts" means all moneys received by or on 14881
behalf of a hospital agency from or in connection with the 14882
ownership, operation, acquisition, construction, improvement, 14883
equipping, or financing of any hospital facilities, including, 14884
without limitation thereto, any rentals and other moneys received 14885
from the lease, sale, or other disposition of hospital facilities, 14886
and any gifts, grants, interest subsidies, or other moneys 14887
received under any federal program for assistance in financing the 14888
costs of hospital facilities, and any other gifts, grants, and 14889
donations, and receipts therefrom, available for financing the 14890
costs of hospital facilities.14891

       (H) "Obligations" means bonds, notes, or other evidences of 14892
indebtedness or obligation, including interest coupons pertaining 14893
thereto, issued or issuable by a public hospital agency to pay 14894
costs of hospital facilities.14895

       (I) "Bond service charges" means principal, interest, and 14896
call premium, if any, required to be paid on obligations.14897

       (J) "Bond proceedings" means one or more ordinances, 14898
resolutions, trust agreements, indentures, and other agreements or 14899
documents, and amendments and supplements to the foregoing, or any 14900
combination thereof, authorizing or providing for the terms, 14901
including any variable interest rates, and conditions applicable 14902
to, or providing for the security of, obligations and the 14903
provisions contained in such obligations.14904

       (K) "Nursing home" has the same meaning as in division (A)(1) 14905
of section 5701.13 of the Revised Code.14906

       (L) "Residential care facility" has the same meaning as in 14907
division (A)(2) of section 5701.13 of the Revised Code.14908

       (M) "Independent living facility" means any self-care 14909
facility or other housing facility designed or used as a residence 14910
for elderly persons. An "independent living facility" does not 14911
include a residential facility, or that part of a residential 14912
facility, that is any of the following:14913

       (1) A hospital required to be certified by section 3727.02 of 14914
the Revised Code;14915

       (2) A nursing home or residential care facility;14916

       (3) A facility operated by a hospice care program licensed 14917
under section 3712.04 of the Revised Code and used for the 14918
program's hospice patients;14919

        (4) A residential facility licensed by the department of 14920
mental healthmental health and addiction services under section 14921
5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 14922
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 14923
unrelated adults;14924

       (5) A residential facility licensed by the department of 14925
mental healthmental health and addiction services under section 14926
5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code that is not a residential 14927
facility described in division (M)(4) of this section;14928

       (6) A facility licensed to provide methadone treatment under 14929
section 3793.115119.39 of the Revised Code;14930

       (7) A facility certified as an alcohol and druga community14931
addiction programservices provider under section 3793.065119.3614932
of the Revised Code;14933

       (8) A residential facility licensed under section 5123.19 of 14934
the Revised Code or a facility providing services under a contract 14935
with the department of developmental disabilities under section 14936
5123.18 of the Revised Code;14937

       (9) A residential facility used as part of a hospital to 14938
provide housing for staff of the hospital or students pursuing a 14939
course of study at the hospital.14940

       Sec. 140.03.  (A) Two or more hospital agencies may enter 14941
into agreements for the acquisition, construction, reconstruction, 14942
rehabilitation, remodeling, renovating, enlarging, equipping, and 14943
furnishing of hospital facilities, or the management, operation, 14944
occupancy, use, maintenance, and repair of hospital facilities, or 14945
for participation in programs, projects, activities, and services 14946
useful to, connected with, supplementing, or otherwise related to 14947
the services provided by, or the operation of, hospital facilities 14948
operated by one or more participating hospital agencies, including 14949
any combination of such purposes, all in such manner as to promote 14950
the public purpose stated in section 140.02 of the Revised Code. A 14951
city health district; general health district; board of alcohol, 14952
drug addiction, and mental health services; county board of 14953
developmental disabilities; the department of mental healthmental 14954
health and addiction services; the department of developmental 14955
disabilities; or any public body engaged in the education or 14956
training of health professions personnel may join in any such 14957
agreement for purposes related to its authority under laws 14958
applicable to it, and as such a participant shall be considered a 14959
public hospital agency or hospital agency for the purposes of this 14960
section.14961

       (B) An agreement entered into under authority of this section 14962
shall, where appropriate, provide for:14963

       (1) The manner in which the title to the hospital facilities, 14964
including the sites and interest in real estate pertaining 14965
thereto, is to be held, transferred, or disposed of;14966

       (2) Unless provided for by lease pursuant to section 140.05 14967
of the Revised Code, the method by which such hospital facilities 14968
are to be acquired, constructed, or otherwise improved and by 14969
which they shall be managed, occupied, maintained, and repaired, 14970
including the designation of one of the hospital agencies to have 14971
charge of the details of acquisition, construction, or improvement 14972
pursuant to the contracting procedures prescribed under the law 14973
applicable to one of the participating public hospital agencies;14974

       (3) The management or administration of any such programs, 14975
projects, activities, or services, which may include management or 14976
administration by one of said hospital agencies or a board or 14977
agency thereof;14978

       (4) Annual, or more frequent, reports to the participating 14979
hospital agencies as to the revenues and receipts pertaining to 14980
the subject of the agreement, the expenditures thereof, the status 14981
and application of other funds contributed under such agreement, 14982
and such other matters as may be specified by or pursuant to such 14983
agreement;14984

       (5) The manner of apportionment or sharing of costs of 14985
hospital facilities, any other applicable costs of management, 14986
operation, maintenance, and repair of hospital facilities, and 14987
costs for the programs, projects, activities, and services forming 14988
the subject of the agreement, which apportionment or sharing may 14989
be prescribed in fixed amounts, or determined by ratios, formulas, 14990
or otherwise, and paid as service charges, rentals, or in such 14991
other manner as provided in the agreement, and may include amounts 14992
sufficient to meet the bond service charges and other payments and 14993
deposits required under the bond proceedings for obligations 14994
issued to pay costs of hospital facilities. A hospital agency may 14995
commit itself to make such payments at least for so long as any 14996
such obligations are outstanding. In the apportionment, different 14997
classes of costs or expenses may be apportioned to one or more, 14998
all or less than all, of the participating hospital agencies as 14999
determined under such agreement.15000

       (C) An agreement entered into under authority of this section 15001
may provide for:15002

       (1) An orderly process for making determinations or advising 15003
as to planning, execution, implementation, and operation, which 15004
may include designating one of the hospital agencies, or a board 15005
thereof, for any of such purposes, provisions for a committee, 15006
board, or commission, and for representation thereon, or as may 15007
otherwise be provided;15008

       (2) Securing necessary personnel, including participation of 15009
personnel from the respective hospital agencies;15010

       (3) Standards or conditions for the admission or 15011
participation of patients and physicians;15012

       (4) Conditions for admittance of other hospital agencies to 15013
participation under the agreement;15014

       (5) Fixing or establishing the method of determining charges 15015
to be made for particular services;15016

       (6) The manner of amending, supplementing, terminating, or 15017
withdrawal or removal of any party from, the agreement, and the 15018
term of the agreement, or an indefinite term;15019

       (7) Designation of the applicants for or recipients of any 15020
federal, state, or other aid, assistance, or loans available by 15021
reason of any activities conducted under the agreement;15022

       (8) Designation of one or more of the participating hospital 15023
agencies to maintain, prepare, and submit, on behalf of all 15024
parties to the agreement, any or all records and reports with 15025
regard to the activities conducted under the agreement;15026

       (9) Any incidental use of the hospital facilities, or 15027
services thereof, by participating public hospital agencies for 15028
any of their lawful purposes, which incidental use does not impair 15029
the character of the facilities as hospital facilities for any 15030
purpose of this chapter;15031

       (10) Such other matters as the parties thereto may agree upon 15032
for the purposes of division (A) of this section.15033

       (D) For the purpose of paying or contributing its share under 15034
an agreement made under this section, a public hospital agency 15035
may:15036

       (1) Expend any moneys from its general fund, and from any 15037
other funds not otherwise restricted by law, but including funds 15038
for permanent improvements of hospital facilities of such public 15039
hospital agency where the contribution is to be made toward the 15040
costs of hospital facilities under the agreement, and including 15041
funds derived from levies for, or receipts available for, 15042
operating expenses of hospital facilities or services of such 15043
public hospital agency where the contribution or payment is to be 15044
made toward operating expenses of the hospital facilities or 15045
services under the agreement or for the services provided thereby;15046

       (2) Issue obligations under Chapter 133. or section 140.06, 15047
339.14, 339.15, 513.12, or 3345.12 of the Revised Code, or Section 15048
3 of Article XVIII, Ohio Constitution, if applicable to such 15049
public hospital agency, to pay costs of hospital facilities, or 15050
issue obligations under any other provision of law authorizing 15051
such public hospital agency to issue obligations for any costs of 15052
hospital facilities;15053

       (3) Levy taxes under Chapter 5705. or section 513.13 or 15054
3709.29 of the Revised Code, if applicable to such public hospital 15055
agency, provided that the purpose of such levy may include the 15056
provision of funds for either or both permanent improvements and 15057
current expenses if required for the contribution or payment of 15058
such hospital agency under such agreement, and each such public 15059
hospital agency may issue notes in anticipation of any such levy, 15060
pursuant to the procedures provided in section 5705.191 of the 15061
Revised Code if the levy is solely for current expenses, and in 15062
section 5705.193 of the Revised Code if the levy is all or in part 15063
for permanent improvements;15064

       (4) Contribute real and personal property or interest therein 15065
without necessity for competitive bidding or public auction on 15066
disposition of such property.15067

       (E) Any funds provided by public hospital agencies that are 15068
parties to an agreement entered into under this section shall be 15069
transferred to and placed in a separate fund or funds of such 15070
participating public hospital agency as is designated under the 15071
agreement. The funds shall be applied for the purposes provided in 15072
such agreement and are subject to audit. Pursuant to any 15073
determinations to be made under such agreement, the funds shall be 15074
deposited, invested, and disbursed under the provisions of law 15075
applicable to the public hospital agency in whose custody the 15076
funds are held. This division is subject to the provisions of any 15077
applicable bond proceedings under section 133.08, 140.06, 339.15, 15078
or 3345.12 of the Revised Code or Section 3 of Article XVIII, Ohio 15079
Constitution. The records and reports of such public hospital 15080
agency under Chapter 117. of the Revised Code and sections 3702.51 15081
to 3702.62 of the Revised Code, with respect to the funds shall be 15082
sufficient without necessity for reports thereon by the other 15083
public hospital agencies participating under such agreement.15084

       (F)(1) Prior to its entry into any such agreement, the public 15085
hospital agency must determine, and set forth in a resolution or 15086
ordinance, that the contribution to be made by it under such 15087
agreement will be fair consideration for value and benefit to be 15088
derived by it under such agreement and that the agreement will 15089
promote the public purpose stated in section 140.02 of the Revised 15090
Code.15091

       (2) If the agreement is with a board of county commissioners, 15092
board of county hospital trustees, or county hospital commission 15093
and is an initial agreement for the acquisition or operation of a 15094
county hospital operated by a board of county hospital trustees 15095
under section 339.06 of the Revised Code, the governing body of 15096
the public hospital agency shall submit the agreement, accompanied 15097
by the resolution or ordinance, to the board of county 15098
commissioners for review pursuant to section 339.091 of the 15099
Revised Code. The agreement may be entered into only if the board 15100
of county commissioners adopts a resolution under that section. 15101
The requirements of division (F)(2) of this section do not apply 15102
to the agreement if one or more hospitals classified as general 15103
hospitals by the director of health under section 3701.07 of the 15104
Revised Code are operating in the same county as the county 15105
hospital.15106

       Sec. 140.05.  (A)(1) A public hospital agency may lease any 15107
hospital facility to one or more hospital agencies for use as a 15108
hospital facility, or to one or more city or general health 15109
districts; boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 15110
services; county boards of developmental disabilities; the 15111
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services; 15112
or the department of developmental disabilities, for uses which 15113
they are authorized to make thereof under the laws applicable to 15114
them, or any combination of them, and they may lease such 15115
facilities to or from a hospital agency for such uses, upon such 15116
terms and conditions as are agreed upon by the parties. Such lease 15117
may be for a term of fifty years or less and may provide for an 15118
option of the lessee to renew for a term of fifty years or less, 15119
as therein set forth. Prior to entering into such lease, the 15120
governing body of any public hospital agency granting such lease 15121
must determine, and set forth in a resolution or ordinance, that 15122
such lease will promote the public purpose stated in section 15123
140.02 of the Revised Code and that the lessor public hospital 15124
agency will be duly benefited thereby.15125

       (2) If the lease is with a board of county commissioners, 15126
board of county hospital trustees, or county hospital commission 15127
and is an agreement for the initial lease of a county hospital 15128
operated by a board of county hospital trustees under section 15129
339.06 of the Revised Code, the governing body of the public 15130
hospital agency shall submit the agreement, accompanied by the 15131
resolution or ordinance, to the board of county commissioners for 15132
review pursuant to section 339.091 of the Revised Code. The 15133
agreement may be entered into only if the board of county 15134
commissioners adopts a resolution under that section. The 15135
requirements of division (A)(2) of this section do not apply to 15136
the lease if one or more hospitals classified as general hospitals 15137
by the director of health under section 3701.07 of the Revised 15138
Code are operating in the same county as the county hospital.15139

       (B) Any lease entered into pursuant to this section shall 15140
provide that in the event that the lessee fails faithfully and 15141
efficiently to administer, maintain, and operate such leased 15142
facilities as hospital facilities, or fails to provide the 15143
services thereof without regard to race, creed, color, or national 15144
origin, or fails to require that any hospital agency using such 15145
facilities or the services thereof shall not discriminate by 15146
reason of race, creed, color, or national origin, after an 15147
opportunity to be heard upon written charges, said lease may be 15148
terminated at the time, in the manner and with consequences 15149
therein provided. If any such lease does not contain terms to the 15150
effect provided in this division, it shall nevertheless be deemed 15151
to contain such terms which shall be implemented as determined by 15152
the governing body of the lessor.15153

       (C) Such lease may provide for rentals commencing at any time 15154
agreed upon, or advance rental, and continuing for such period 15155
therein provided, notwithstanding and without diminution, rebate, 15156
or setoff by reason of time of availability of the hospital 15157
facility for use, delays in construction, failure of completion, 15158
damage or destruction of the hospital facilities, or for any other 15159
reason.15160

       (D) Such lease may provide for the sale or transfer of title 15161
of the leased facilities pursuant to an option to purchase, 15162
lease-purchase, or installment purchase upon terms therein 15163
provided or to be determined as therein provided, which may 15164
include provision for the continued use thereof as a hospital 15165
facility for some reasonable period, taking into account efficient 15166
useful life and other factors, as is provided therein.15167

       (E) Such lease may be entered as part of or in connection 15168
with an agreement pursuant to section 140.03 of the Revised Code. 15169
Any hospital facilities which are the subject of an agreement 15170
entered into under section 140.03 of the Revised Code may be 15171
leased pursuant to this section.15172

       (F) If land acquired by a public hospital agency for a 15173
hospital facility is adjacent to an existing hospital facility 15174
owned by another hospital agency, the public hospital agency may, 15175
in connection with such acquisition or the leasing of such land 15176
and hospital facilities thereon to one or more hospital agencies, 15177
enter into an agreement with the hospital agency which owns such 15178
adjacent hospital facility for the use of common walls in the 15179
construction, operation, or maintenance of hospital facilities of 15180
the public hospital agency. For the purpose of construction, 15181
operation, or maintenance of hospital facilities, a public 15182
hospital agency may acquire by purchase, gift, lease, lease with 15183
option to purchase, lease-purchase, or installment purchase, 15184
easement deed, or other agreement, real estate and interests in 15185
real estate, including rights to use space over, under or upon 15186
real property owned by others, and support, access, common wall, 15187
and other rights in connection therewith. Any public hospital 15188
agency or other political subdivision or any public agency, board, 15189
commission, institution, body, or instrumentality may grant such 15190
real estate, interests, or rights to any hospital agency upon such 15191
terms as are agreed upon without necessity for competitive bidding 15192
or public auction.15193

       Sec. 145.01.  As used in this chapter:15194

       (A) "Public employee" means:15195

       (1) Any person holding an office, not elective, under the 15196
state or any county, township, municipal corporation, park 15197
district, conservancy district, sanitary district, health 15198
district, metropolitan housing authority, state retirement board, 15199
Ohio historical society, public library, county law library, union 15200
cemetery, joint hospital, institutional commissary, state 15201
university, or board, bureau, commission, council, committee, 15202
authority, or administrative body as the same are, or have been, 15203
created by action of the general assembly or by the legislative 15204
authority of any of the units of local government named in 15205
division (A)(1) of this section, or employed and paid in whole or 15206
in part by the state or any of the authorities named in division 15207
(A)(1) of this section in any capacity not covered by section 15208
742.01, 3307.01, 3309.01, or 5505.01 of the Revised Code.15209

       (2) A person who is a member of the public employees 15210
retirement system and who continues to perform the same or similar 15211
duties under the direction of a contractor who has contracted to 15212
take over what before the date of the contract was a publicly 15213
operated function. The governmental unit with which the contract 15214
has been made shall be deemed the employer for the purposes of 15215
administering this chapter.15216

       (3) Any person who is an employee of a public employer, 15217
notwithstanding that the person's compensation for that employment 15218
is derived from funds of a person or entity other than the 15219
employer. Credit for such service shall be included as total 15220
service credit, provided that the employee makes the payments 15221
required by this chapter, and the employer makes the payments 15222
required by sections 145.48 and 145.51 of the Revised Code.15223

       (4) A person who elects in accordance with section 145.015 of 15224
the Revised Code to remain a contributing member of the public 15225
employees retirement system.15226

       (5) A person who is an employee of the legal rights service 15227
on September 30, 2012, and continues to be employed by the 15228
nonprofit entity established under Section 319.20 of Am. Sub. H.B. 15229
153 of the 129th general assembly. The nonprofit entity is the 15230
employer for the purpose of this chapter.15231

       In all cases of doubt, the public employees retirement board 15232
shall determine under section 145.036, 145.037, or 145.038 of the 15233
Revised Code whether any person is a public employee, and its 15234
decision is final.15235

       (B) "Member" means any public employee, other than a public 15236
employee excluded or exempted from membership in the retirement 15237
system by section 145.03, 145.031, 145.032, 145.033, 145.034, 15238
145.035, or 145.38 of the Revised Code. "Member" includes a PERS 15239
retirant who becomes a member under division (C) of section 145.38 15240
of the Revised Code. "Member" also includes a disability benefit 15241
recipient.15242

       (C) "Head of the department" means the elective or appointive 15243
head of the several executive, judicial, and administrative 15244
departments, institutions, boards, and commissions of the state 15245
and local government as the same are created and defined by the 15246
laws of this state or, in case of a charter government, by that 15247
charter.15248

       (D) "Employer" or "public employer" means the state or any 15249
county, township, municipal corporation, park district, 15250
conservancy district, sanitary district, health district, 15251
metropolitan housing authority, state retirement board, Ohio 15252
historical society, public library, county law library, union 15253
cemetery, joint hospital, institutional commissary, state medical 15254
university, state university, or board, bureau, commission, 15255
council, committee, authority, or administrative body as the same 15256
are, or have been, created by action of the general assembly or by 15257
the legislative authority of any of the units of local government 15258
named in this division not covered by section 742.01, 3307.01, 15259
3309.01, or 5505.01 of the Revised Code. In addition, "employer" 15260
means the employer of any public employee.15261

       (E) "Prior military service" also means all service credited 15262
for active duty with the armed forces of the United States as 15263
provided in section 145.30 of the Revised Code.15264

       (F) "Contributor" means any person who has an account in the 15265
employees' savings fund created by section 145.23 of the Revised 15266
Code. When used in the sections listed in division (B) of section 15267
145.82 of the Revised Code, "contributor" includes any person 15268
participating in a PERS defined contribution plan.15269

       (G) "Beneficiary" or "beneficiaries" means the estate or a 15270
person or persons who, as the result of the death of a member, 15271
contributor, or retirant, qualify for or are receiving some right 15272
or benefit under this chapter.15273

       (H)(1) "Total service credit," except as provided in section 15274
145.37 of the Revised Code, means all service credited to a member 15275
of the retirement system since last becoming a member, including 15276
restored service credit as provided by section 145.31 of the 15277
Revised Code; credit purchased under sections 145.293 and 145.299 15278
of the Revised Code; all the member's military service credit 15279
computed as provided in this chapter; all service credit 15280
established pursuant to section 145.297 of the Revised Code; and 15281
any other service credited under this chapter. For the exclusive 15282
purpose of satisfying the service credit requirement and of 15283
determining eligibility for benefits under sections 145.32, 15284
145.33, 145.331, 145.332, 145.35, 145.36, and 145.361 of the 15285
Revised Code, "five or more years of total service credit" means 15286
sixty or more calendar months of contributing service in this 15287
system.15288

       (2) "One and one-half years of contributing service credit," 15289
as used in division (B) of section 145.45 of the Revised Code, 15290
also means eighteen or more calendar months of employment by a 15291
municipal corporation that formerly operated its own retirement 15292
plan for its employees or a part of its employees, provided that 15293
all employees of that municipal retirement plan who have eighteen 15294
or more months of such employment, upon establishing membership in 15295
the public employees retirement system, shall make a payment of 15296
the contributions they would have paid had they been members of 15297
this system for the eighteen months of employment preceding the 15298
date membership was established. When that payment has been made 15299
by all such employee members, a corresponding payment shall be 15300
paid into the employers' accumulation fund by that municipal 15301
corporation as the employer of the employees.15302

       (3) Where a member also is a member of the state teachers 15303
retirement system or the school employees retirement system, or 15304
both, except in cases of retirement on a combined basis pursuant 15305
to section 145.37 of the Revised Code or as provided in section 15306
145.383 of the Revised Code, service credit for any period shall 15307
be credited on the basis of the ratio that contributions to the 15308
public employees retirement system bear to total contributions in 15309
all state retirement systems.15310

       (4) Not more than one year of credit may be given for any 15311
period of twelve months.15312

       (5) "Ohio service credit" means credit for service that was 15313
rendered to the state or any of its political subdivisions or any 15314
employer.15315

       (I) "Regular interest" means interest at any rates for the 15316
respective funds and accounts as the public employees retirement 15317
board may determine from time to time.15318

       (J) "Accumulated contributions" means the sum of all amounts 15319
credited to a contributor's individual account in the employees' 15320
savings fund together with any interest credited to the 15321
contributor's account under section 145.471 or 145.472 of the 15322
Revised Code.15323

       (K)(1) "Final average salary" means the greater of the 15324
following:15325

       (a) The sum of the member's earnable salaries for the 15326
appropriate number of calendar years of contributing service, 15327
determined under section 145.017 of the Revised Code, in which the 15328
member's earnable salary was highest, divided by the same number 15329
of calendar years or, if the member has fewer than the appropriate 15330
number of calendar years of contributing service, the total of the 15331
member's earnable salary for all years of contributing service 15332
divided by the number of calendar years of the member's 15333
contributing service;15334

       (b) The sum of a member's earnable salaries for the 15335
appropriate number of consecutive months, determined under section 15336
145.017 of the Revised Code, that were the member's last months of 15337
service, up to and including the last month, divided by the 15338
appropriate number of years or, if the time between the first and 15339
final months of service is less than the appropriate number of 15340
consecutive months, the total of the member's earnable salary for 15341
all months of contributing service divided by the number of years 15342
between the first and final months of contributing service, 15343
including any fraction of a year, except that the member's final 15344
average salary shall not exceed the member's highest earnable 15345
salary for any twelve consecutive months.15346

        (2) If contributions were made in only one calendar year, 15347
"final average salary" means the member's total earnable salary.15348

       (L) "Annuity" means payments for life derived from 15349
contributions made by a contributor and paid from the annuity and 15350
pension reserve fund as provided in this chapter. All annuities 15351
shall be paid in twelve equal monthly installments.15352

       (M) "Annuity reserve" means the present value, computed upon 15353
the basis of the mortality and other tables adopted by the board, 15354
of all payments to be made on account of any annuity, or benefit 15355
in lieu of any annuity, granted to a retirant as provided in this 15356
chapter.15357

       (N)(1) "Disability retirement" means retirement as provided 15358
in section 145.36 of the Revised Code.15359

       (2) "Disability allowance" means an allowance paid on account 15360
of disability under section 145.361 of the Revised Code.15361

       (3) "Disability benefit" means a benefit paid as disability 15362
retirement under section 145.36 of the Revised Code, as a 15363
disability allowance under section 145.361 of the Revised Code, or 15364
as a disability benefit under section 145.37 of the Revised Code.15365

       (4) "Disability benefit recipient" means a member who is 15366
receiving a disability benefit.15367

       (O) "Age and service retirement" means retirement as provided 15368
in sections 145.32, 145.33, 145.331, 145.332, 145.37, and 145.46 15369
and former section 145.34 of the Revised Code.15370

       (P) "Pensions" means annual payments for life derived from 15371
contributions made by the employer that at the time of retirement 15372
are credited into the annuity and pension reserve fund from the 15373
employers' accumulation fund and paid from the annuity and pension 15374
reserve fund as provided in this chapter. All pensions shall be 15375
paid in twelve equal monthly installments.15376

       (Q) "Retirement allowance" means the pension plus that 15377
portion of the benefit derived from contributions made by the 15378
member.15379

       (R)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (R) of this 15380
section, "earnable salary" means all salary, wages, and other 15381
earnings paid to a contributor by reason of employment in a 15382
position covered by the retirement system. The salary, wages, and 15383
other earnings shall be determined prior to determination of the 15384
amount required to be contributed to the employees' savings fund 15385
under section 145.47 of the Revised Code and without regard to 15386
whether any of the salary, wages, or other earnings are treated as 15387
deferred income for federal income tax purposes. "Earnable salary" 15388
includes the following:15389

       (a) Payments made by the employer in lieu of salary, wages, 15390
or other earnings for sick leave, personal leave, or vacation used 15391
by the contributor;15392

       (b) Payments made by the employer for the conversion of sick 15393
leave, personal leave, and vacation leave accrued, but not used if 15394
the payment is made during the year in which the leave is accrued, 15395
except that payments made pursuant to section 124.383 or 124.386 15396
of the Revised Code are not earnable salary;15397

       (c) Allowances paid by the employer for maintenance, 15398
consisting of housing, laundry, and meals, as certified to the 15399
retirement board by the employer or the head of the department 15400
that employs the contributor;15401

       (d) Fees and commissions paid under section 507.09 of the 15402
Revised Code;15403

       (e) Payments that are made under a disability leave program 15404
sponsored by the employer and for which the employer is required 15405
by section 145.296 of the Revised Code to make periodic employer 15406
and employee contributions;15407

       (f) Amounts included pursuant to former division (K)(3) and 15408
former division (Y) of this section and section 145.2916 of the 15409
Revised Code.15410

       (2) "Earnable salary" does not include any of the following:15411

       (a) Fees and commissions, other than those paid under section 15412
507.09 of the Revised Code, paid as sole compensation for personal 15413
services and fees and commissions for special services over and 15414
above services for which the contributor receives a salary;15415

       (b) Amounts paid by the employer to provide life insurance, 15416
sickness, accident, endowment, health, medical, hospital, dental, 15417
or surgical coverage, or other insurance for the contributor or 15418
the contributor's family, or amounts paid by the employer to the 15419
contributor in lieu of providing the insurance;15420

       (c) Incidental benefits, including lodging, food, laundry, 15421
parking, or services furnished by the employer, or use of the 15422
employer's property or equipment, or amounts paid by the employer 15423
to the contributor in lieu of providing the incidental benefits;15424

       (d) Reimbursement for job-related expenses authorized by the 15425
employer, including moving and travel expenses and expenses 15426
related to professional development;15427

       (e) Payments for accrued but unused sick leave, personal 15428
leave, or vacation that are made at any time other than in the 15429
year in which the sick leave, personal leave, or vacation was 15430
accrued;15431

       (f) Payments made to or on behalf of a contributor that are 15432
in excess of the annual compensation that may be taken into 15433
account by the retirement system under division (a)(17) of section 15434
401 of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 15435
U.S.C.A. 401(a)(17), as amended;15436

       (g) Payments made under division (B), (C), or (E) of section 15437
5923.05 of the Revised Code, Section 4 of Substitute Senate Bill 15438
No. 3 of the 119th general assembly, Section 3 of Amended 15439
Substitute Senate Bill No. 164 of the 124th general assembly, or 15440
Amended Substitute House Bill No. 405 of the 124th general 15441
assembly;15442

       (h) Anything of value received by the contributor that is 15443
based on or attributable to retirement or an agreement to retire, 15444
except that payments made on or before January 1, 1989, that are 15445
based on or attributable to an agreement to retire shall be 15446
included in earnable salary if both of the following apply:15447

       (i) The payments are made in accordance with contract 15448
provisions that were in effect prior to January 1, 1986;15449

       (ii) The employer pays the retirement system an amount 15450
specified by the retirement board equal to the additional 15451
liability resulting from the payments.15452

       (i) The portion of any amount included in section 145.2916 of 15453
the Revised Code that represents employer contributions.15454

       (3) The retirement board shall determine by rule whether any 15455
compensation not enumerated in division (R) of this section is 15456
earnable salary, and its decision shall be final.15457

       (S) "Pension reserve" means the present value, computed upon 15458
the basis of the mortality and other tables adopted by the board, 15459
of all payments to be made on account of any retirement allowance 15460
or benefit in lieu of any retirement allowance, granted to a 15461
member or beneficiary under this chapter.15462

       (T) "Contributing service" means both of the following:15463

       (1) All service credited to a member of the system since 15464
January 1, 1935, for which contributions are made as required by 15465
sections 145.47, 145.48, and 145.483 of the Revised Code. In any 15466
year subsequent to 1934, credit for any service shall be allowed 15467
in accordance with section 145.016 of the Revised Code.15468

       (2) Service credit received by election of the member under 15469
section 145.814 of the Revised Code.15470

       (U) "State retirement board" means the public employees 15471
retirement board, the school employees retirement board, or the 15472
state teachers retirement board.15473

       (V) "Retirant" means any former member who retires and is 15474
receiving a monthly allowance as provided in sections 145.32, 15475
145.33, 145.331, 145.332, and 145.46 and former section 145.34 of 15476
the Revised Code.15477

       (W) "Employer contribution" means the amount paid by an 15478
employer as determined under section 145.48 of the Revised Code.15479

       (X) "Public service terminates" means the last day for which 15480
a public employee is compensated for services performed for an 15481
employer or the date of the employee's death, whichever occurs 15482
first.15483

       (Y) "Five years of service credit," for the exclusive purpose 15484
of satisfying the service credit requirements and of determining 15485
eligibility under section 145.33 or 145.332 of the Revised Code, 15486
means employment covered under this chapter or under a former 15487
retirement plan operated, recognized, or endorsed by the employer 15488
prior to coverage under this chapter or under a combination of the 15489
coverage.15490

       (Z) "Deputy sheriff" means any person who is commissioned and 15491
employed as a full-time peace officer by the sheriff of any 15492
county, and has been so employed since on or before December 31, 15493
1965; any person who is or has been commissioned and employed as a 15494
peace officer by the sheriff of any county since January 1, 1966, 15495
and who has received a certificate attesting to the person's 15496
satisfactory completion of the peace officer training school as 15497
required by section 109.77 of the Revised Code; or any person 15498
deputized by the sheriff of any county and employed pursuant to 15499
section 2301.12 of the Revised Code as a criminal bailiff or court 15500
constable who has received a certificate attesting to the person's 15501
satisfactory completion of the peace officer training school as 15502
required by section 109.77 of the Revised Code.15503

       (AA) "Township constable or police officer in a township 15504
police department or district" means any person who is 15505
commissioned and employed as a full-time peace officer pursuant to 15506
Chapter 505. or 509. of the Revised Code, who has received a 15507
certificate attesting to the person's satisfactory completion of 15508
the peace officer training school as required by section 109.77 of 15509
the Revised Code.15510

       (BB) "Drug agent" means any person who is either of the 15511
following:15512

       (1) Employed full time as a narcotics agent by a county 15513
narcotics agency created pursuant to section 307.15 of the Revised 15514
Code and has received a certificate attesting to the satisfactory 15515
completion of the peace officer training school as required by 15516
section 109.77 of the Revised Code;15517

       (2) Employed full time as an undercover drug agent as defined 15518
in section 109.79 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 15519
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.15520

       (CC) "Department of public safety enforcement agent" means a 15521
full-time employee of the department of public safety who is 15522
designated under section 5502.14 of the Revised Code as an 15523
enforcement agent and who is in compliance with section 109.77 of 15524
the Revised Code.15525

       (DD) "Natural resources law enforcement staff officer" means 15526
a full-time employee of the department of natural resources who is 15527
designated a natural resources law enforcement staff officer under 15528
section 1501.013 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 15529
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.15530

       (EE) "Park officer" means a full-time employee of the 15531
department of natural resources who is designated a park officer 15532
under section 1541.10 of the Revised Code and is in compliance 15533
with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.15534

       (FF) "Forest officer" means a full-time employee of the 15535
department of natural resources who is designated a forest officer 15536
under section 1503.29 of the Revised Code and is in compliance 15537
with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.15538

       (GG) "Preserve officer" means a full-time employee of the 15539
department of natural resources who is designated a preserve 15540
officer under section 1517.10 of the Revised Code and is in 15541
compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.15542

       (HH) "Wildlife officer" means a full-time employee of the 15543
department of natural resources who is designated a wildlife 15544
officer under section 1531.13 of the Revised Code and is in 15545
compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.15546

       (II) "State watercraft officer" means a full-time employee of 15547
the department of natural resources who is designated a state 15548
watercraft officer under section 1547.521 of the Revised Code and 15549
is in compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.15550

       (JJ) "Park district police officer" means a full-time 15551
employee of a park district who is designated pursuant to section 15552
511.232 or 1545.13 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 15553
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.15554

       (KK) "Conservancy district officer" means a full-time 15555
employee of a conservancy district who is designated pursuant to 15556
section 6101.75 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 15557
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.15558

       (LL) "Municipal police officer" means a member of the 15559
organized police department of a municipal corporation who is 15560
employed full time, is in compliance with section 109.77 of the 15561
Revised Code, and is not a member of the Ohio police and fire 15562
pension fund.15563

       (MM) "Veterans' home police officer" means any person who is 15564
employed at a veterans' home as a police officer pursuant to 15565
section 5907.02 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 15566
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.15567

       (NN) "Special police officer for a mental health institution" 15568
means any person who is designated as such pursuant to section 15569
5119.145119.08 of the Revised Code and is in compliance with 15570
section 109.77 of the Revised Code.15571

       (OO) "Special police officer for an institution for the 15572
developmentally disabled" means any person who is designated as 15573
such pursuant to section 5123.13 of the Revised Code and is in 15574
compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.15575

       (PP) "State university law enforcement officer" means any 15576
person who is employed full time as a state university law 15577
enforcement officer pursuant to section 3345.04 of the Revised 15578
Code and who is in compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised 15579
Code.15580

       (QQ) "House sergeant at arms" means any person appointed by 15581
the speaker of the house of representatives under division (B)(1) 15582
of section 101.311 of the Revised Code who has arrest authority 15583
under division (E)(1) of that section.15584

       (RR) "Assistant house sergeant at arms" means any person 15585
appointed by the house sergeant at arms under division (C)(1) of 15586
section 101.311 of the Revised Code.15587

       (SS) "Regional transit authority police officer" means a 15588
person who is employed full time as a regional transit authority 15589
police officer under division (Y) of section 306.35 of the Revised 15590
Code and is in compliance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code.15591

       (TT) "State highway patrol police officer" means a special 15592
police officer employed full time and designated by the 15593
superintendent of the state highway patrol pursuant to section 15594
5503.09 of the Revised Code or a person serving full time as a 15595
special police officer pursuant to that section on a permanent 15596
basis on October 21, 1997, who is in compliance with section 15597
109.77 of the Revised Code.15598

       (UU) "Municipal public safety director" means a person who 15599
serves full time as the public safety director of a municipal 15600
corporation with the duty of directing the activities of the 15601
municipal corporation's police department and fire department.15602

        (VV) Notwithstanding section 2901.01 of the Revised Code, 15603
"PERS law enforcement officer" means a sheriff or any of the 15604
following whose primary duties are to preserve the peace, protect 15605
life and property, and enforce the laws of this state: a deputy 15606
sheriff, township constable or police officer in a township police 15607
department or district, drug agent, department of public safety 15608
enforcement agent, natural resources law enforcement staff 15609
officer, park officer, forest officer, preserve officer, wildlife 15610
officer, state watercraft officer, park district police officer, 15611
conservancy district officer, veterans' home police officer, 15612
special police officer for a mental health institution, special 15613
police officer for an institution for the developmentally 15614
disabled, state university law enforcement officer, municipal 15615
police officer, house sergeant at arms, assistant house sergeant 15616
at arms, regional transit authority police officer, or state 15617
highway patrol police officer. "PERS law enforcement officer" also 15618
includes a person serving as a municipal public safety director at 15619
any time during the period from September 29, 2005, to March 24, 15620
2009, if the duties of that service were to preserve the peace, 15621
protect life and property, and enforce the laws of this state.15622

       (WW) "Hamilton county municipal court bailiff" means a person 15623
appointed by the clerk of courts of the Hamilton county municipal 15624
court under division (A)(3) of section 1901.32 of the Revised Code 15625
who is employed full time as a bailiff or deputy bailiff, who has 15626
received a certificate attesting to the person's satisfactory 15627
completion of the peace officer basic training described in 15628
division (D)(1) of section 109.77 of the Revised Code.15629

       (XX) "PERS public safety officer" means a Hamilton county 15630
municipal court bailiff, or any of the following whose primary 15631
duties are other than to preserve the peace, protect life and 15632
property, and enforce the laws of this state: a deputy sheriff, 15633
township constable or police officer in a township police 15634
department or district, drug agent, department of public safety 15635
enforcement agent, natural resources law enforcement staff 15636
officer, park officer, forest officer, preserve officer, wildlife 15637
officer, state watercraft officer, park district police officer, 15638
conservancy district officer, veterans' home police officer, 15639
special police officer for a mental health institution, special 15640
police officer for an institution for the mentally retarded and15641
developmentally disabled, state university law enforcement 15642
officer, municipal police officer, house sergeant at arms, 15643
assistant house sergeant at arms, regional transit authority 15644
police officer, or state highway patrol police officer. "PERS 15645
public safety officer" also includes a person serving as a 15646
municipal public safety director at any time during the period 15647
from September 29, 2005, to March 24, 2009, if the duties of that 15648
service were other than to preserve the peace, protect life and 15649
property, and enforce the laws of this state.15650

       (YY) "Fiduciary" means a person who does any of the 15651
following:15652

       (1) Exercises any discretionary authority or control with 15653
respect to the management of the system or with respect to the 15654
management or disposition of its assets;15655

       (2) Renders investment advice for a fee, direct or indirect, 15656
with respect to money or property of the system;15657

       (3) Has any discretionary authority or responsibility in the 15658
administration of the system.15659

       (ZZ) "Actuary" means an individual who satisfies all of the 15660
following requirements:15661

       (1) Is a member of the American academy of actuaries;15662

       (2) Is an associate or fellow of the society of actuaries;15663

       (3) Has a minimum of five years' experience in providing 15664
actuarial services to public retirement plans.15665

       (AAA) "PERS defined benefit plan" means the plan described in 15666
sections 145.201 to 145.79 of the Revised Code.15667

       (BBB) "PERS defined contribution plans" means the plan or 15668
plans established under section 145.81 of the Revised Code.15669

       Sec. 145.012.  (A) "Public employee," as defined in division 15670
(A) of section 145.01 of the Revised Code, does not include any 15671
person:15672

       (1) Who is employed by a private, temporary-help service and 15673
performs services under the direction of a public employer or is 15674
employed on a contractual basis as an independent contractor under 15675
a personal service contract with a public employer;15676

       (2) Who is an emergency employee serving on a temporary basis 15677
in case of fire, snow, earthquake, flood, or other similar 15678
emergency;15679

       (3) Who is employed in a program established pursuant to the 15680
"Job Training Partnership Act," 96 Stat. 1322 (1982), 29 U.S.C.A. 15681
1501;15682

       (4) Who is an appointed member of either the motor vehicle 15683
salvage dealers board or the motor vehicle dealer's board whose 15684
rate and method of payment are determined pursuant to division (J) 15685
of section 124.15 of the Revised Code;15686

       (5) Who is employed as an election worker and paid less than 15687
five hundred dollars per calendar year for that service;15688

       (6) Who is employed as a firefighter in a position requiring 15689
satisfactory completion of a firefighter training course approved 15690
under former section 3303.07 or section 4765.55 of the Revised 15691
Code or conducted under section 3737.33 of the Revised Code except 15692
for the following:15693

       (a) Any firefighter who has elected under section 145.013 of 15694
the Revised Code to remain a contributing member of the public 15695
employees retirement system;15696

       (b) Any firefighter who was eligible to transfer from the 15697
public employees retirement system to the Ohio police and fire 15698
pension fund under section 742.51 or 742.515 of the Revised Code 15699
and did not elect to transfer;15700

       (c) Any firefighter who has elected under section 742.516 of 15701
the Revised Code to transfer from the Ohio police and fire pension 15702
fund to the public employees retirement system.15703

       (7) Who is a member of the board of health of a city or 15704
general health district, which pursuant to sections 3709.051 and 15705
3709.07 of the Revised Code includes a combined health district, 15706
and whose compensation for attendance at meetings of the board is 15707
set forth in division (B) of section 3709.02 or division (B) of 15708
section 3709.05 of the Revised Code, as appropriate;15709

       (8) Who participates in an alternative retirement plan 15710
established under Chapter 3305. of the Revised Code;15711

       (9) Who is a member of the board of directors of a sanitary 15712
district established under Chapter 6115. of the Revised Code;15713

       (10) Who is a member of the unemployment compensation 15714
advisory council;15715

       (11) Who is an employee, officer, or governor-appointed 15716
member of the board of directors of the nonprofit corporation 15717
formed under section 187.01 of the Revised Code;15718

       (12) Who is employed by the nonprofit entity established to 15719
provide advocacy services and a client assistance program for 15720
people with disabilities under Section 319.20 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 15721
of the 129th general assembly and whose employment begins on or 15722
after October 1, 2012.15723

       (B) No inmate of a correctional institution operated by the 15724
department of rehabilitation and correction, no patient in a 15725
hospital for the mentally ill or criminally insane operated by the 15726
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services, 15727
no resident in an institution for the mentally retarded operated 15728
by the department of developmental disabilities, no resident 15729
admitted as a patient of a veterans' home operated under Chapter 15730
5907. of the Revised Code, and no resident of a county home shall 15731
be considered as a public employee for the purpose of establishing 15732
membership or calculating service credit or benefits under this 15733
chapter. Nothing in this division shall be construed to affect any 15734
service credit attained by any person who was a public employee 15735
before becoming an inmate, patient, or resident at any institution 15736
listed in this division, or the payment of any benefit for which 15737
such a person or such a person's beneficiaries otherwise would be 15738
eligible.15739

       Sec. 145.22.  (A) The public employees retirement board shall 15740
have prepared annually by or under the supervision of an actuary 15741
an actuarial valuation of the pension assets, liabilities, and 15742
funding requirements of the public employees retirement system as 15743
established pursuant to this chapter. The actuary shall complete 15744
the valuation in accordance with actuarial standards of practice 15745
promulgated by the actuarial standards board of the American 15746
academy of actuaries and prepare a report of the valuation. The 15747
report shall include all of the following:15748

       (1) A summary of the benefit provisions evaluated;15749

       (2) A summary of the census data and financial information 15750
used in the valuation;15751

       (3) A description of the actuarial assumptions, actuarial 15752
cost method, and asset valuation method used in the valuation, 15753
including a statement of the assumed rate of payroll growth and 15754
assumed rate of growth or decline in the number of members 15755
contributing to the retirement system;15756

       (4) A summary of findings that includes a statement of the 15757
actuarial accrued pension liabilities and unfunded actuarial 15758
accrued pension liabilities;15759

       (5) A schedule showing the effect of any changes in the 15760
benefit provisions, actuarial assumptions, or cost methods since 15761
the last annual actuarial valuation;15762

       (6) A statement of whether contributions to the retirement 15763
system are expected to be sufficient to satisfy the funding 15764
objectives established by the board.15765

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 15766
study council, the director of budget and management, and the 15767
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 15768
with primary responsibility for retirement legislation immediately 15769
upon its availability and not later than the first day of 15770
September following the year for which the valuation was made.15771

       (B) At such time as the public employees retirement board 15772
determines, and at least once in each five-year period, the board 15773
shall have prepared by or under the supervision of an actuary an 15774
actuarial investigation of the mortality, service, and other 15775
experience of the members, retirants, contributors, and 15776
beneficiaries of the system to update the actuarial assumptions 15777
used in the actuarial valuation required by division (A) of this 15778
section. The actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial 15779
investigation. The report shall be prepared and any recommended 15780
changes in actuarial assumptions shall be made in accordance with 15781
the actuarial standards of practice promulgated by the actuarial 15782
standards board of the American academy of actuaries. The report 15783
shall include all of the following:15784

       (1) A summary of relevant decrement and economic assumption 15785
experience observed over the period of the investigation;15786

       (2) Recommended changes in actuarial assumptions to be used 15787
in subsequent actuarial valuations required by division (A) of 15788
this section;15789

       (3) A measurement of the financial effect of the recommended 15790
changes in actuarial assumptions.15791

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 15792
study council and the standing committees of the house of 15793
representatives and the senate with primary responsibility for 15794
retirement legislation not later than the first day of November 15795
following the last fiscal year of the period the report covers.15796

       (C) The board may at any time request the actuary to make any 15797
studies or actuarial valuations to determine the adequacy of the 15798
contribution rate determined under section 145.48 of the Revised 15799
Code, and those rates may be adjusted by the board, as recommended 15800
by the actuary, effective as of the first of any year thereafter.15801

       (D) The board shall have prepared by or under the supervision 15802
of an actuary an actuarial analysis of any introduced legislation 15803
expected to have a measurable financial impact on the retirement 15804
system. The actuarial analysis shall be completed in accordance 15805
with the actuarial standards of practice promulgated by the 15806
actuarial standards board of the American academy of actuaries. 15807
The actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial analysis, 15808
which shall include all of the following:15809

       (1) A summary of the statutory changes that are being 15810
evaluated;15811

       (2) A description of or reference to the actuarial 15812
assumptions and actuarial cost method used in the report;15813

       (3) A description of the participant group or groups included 15814
in the report;15815

       (4) A statement of the financial impact of the legislation, 15816
including the resulting increase, if any, in the employer normal 15817
cost percentage; the increase, if any, in actuarial accrued 15818
liabilities; and the per cent of payroll that would be required to 15819
amortize the increase in actuarial accrued liabilities as a level 15820
per cent of covered payroll for all active members over a period 15821
not to exceed thirty years;15822

       (5) A statement of whether the scheduled contributions to the 15823
system after the proposed change is enacted are expected to be 15824
sufficient to satisfy the funding objectives established by the 15825
board.15826

       Not later than sixty days from the date of introduction of 15827
the legislation, the board shall submit a copy of the actuarial 15828
analysis to the legislative service commission, the standing 15829
committees of the house of representatives and the senate with 15830
primary responsibility for retirement legislation, and the Ohio 15831
retirement study council.15832

       (E) The board shall have prepared annually a report giving a 15833
full accounting of the revenues and costs relating to the 15834
provision of benefits under sections 145.58 and 145.584 of the 15835
Revised Code. The report shall be made as of December 31, 1997, 15836
and the thirty-first day of December of each year thereafter. The 15837
report shall include the following:15838

       (1) A description of the statutory authority for the benefits 15839
provided;15840

       (2) A summary of the benefits;15841

       (3) A summary of the eligibility requirements for the 15842
benefits;15843

       (4) A statement of the number of participants eligible for 15844
the benefits;15845

       (5) A description of the accounting, asset valuation, and 15846
funding method used to provide the benefits;15847

       (6) A statement of the net assets available for the provision 15848
of the benefits as of the last day of the fiscal year;15849

       (7) A statement of any changes in the net assets available 15850
for the provision of benefits, including participant and employer 15851
contributions, net investment income, administrative expenses, and 15852
benefits provided to participants, as of the last day of the 15853
fiscal year;15854

       (8) For the last six consecutive fiscal years, a schedule of 15855
the net assets available for the benefits, the annual cost of 15856
benefits, administrative expenses incurred, and annual employer 15857
contributions allocated for the provision of benefits;15858

       (9) A description of any significant changes that affect the 15859
comparability of the report required under this division;15860

       (10) A statement of the amount paid under division (C) of 15861
section 145.58 of the Revised Code.15862

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 15863
study council, the director of budget and management, and the 15864
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 15865
with primary responsibility for retirement legislation immediately 15866
upon its availability and not later than the thirtieth day of June 15867
following the year for which the report was made.15868

       Sec. 149.01.  Each elective state officer, the adjutant 15869
general, the adult parole authority, the department of 15870
agriculture, the director of administrative services, the public 15871
utilities commission, the superintendent of insurance, the 15872
superintendent of financial institutions, the superintendent of 15873
purchases and printing, the fire marshal, the industrial 15874
commission, the administrator of workers' compensation, the state 15875
department of transportation, the department of health, the state 15876
medical board, the state dental board, the board of embalmers and 15877
funeral directors, the Ohio commission for the blind, the 15878
accountancy board of Ohio, the state council of uniform state 15879
laws, the board of commissioners of the sinking fund, the 15880
department of taxation, the board of tax appeals, the division of 15881
liquor control, the director of state armories, the trustees of 15882
the Ohio state university, and every private or quasi-public 15883
institution, association, board, or corporation receiving state 15884
money for its use and purpose shall make annually, at the end of 15885
each fiscal year, in quadruplicate, a report of the transactions 15886
and proceedings of that office or department for that fiscal year, 15887
excepting receipts and disbursements unless otherwise specifically 15888
required by law. The report shall contain a summary of the 15889
official acts of the officer, board, council, commission, 15890
institution, association, or corporation and any suggestions and 15891
recommendations that are proper. On the first day of August of 15892
each year, one15893

       One of the reports shall be filed with the governor, one with 15894
the secretary of state, and one with the state library, and one 15895
shall be kept on file in the office of the officer, board, 15896
council, commission, institution, association, or corporation. The 15897
reports shall be so filed by the first day of August, except that 15898
the report of the treasurer of state shall be so filed by the 15899
thirty-first day of December.15900

       Sec. 149.12.  The state library board shall forward, free of 15901
charge, in a paper or electronic format, one copy of each 15902
legislative bulletin, daily house and senate journal, pamphlet law 15903
as described in section 149.09 of the Revised Code, and summary of 15904
enactments published by the legislative service commission, to the 15905
following libraries:15906

       (A) Each library within the state that has been designated by 15907
the state library board under section 149.11 of the Revised Code 15908
as a depository for state publications;15909

       (B) In each county containing no library described in 15910
division (A) of this section, to a public library designated by 15911
the state library board to receive the journals, bulletins, and 15912
summaries described in this section. The state library board shall 15913
designate libraries that can best preserve the publications and 15914
are so located geographically that they can make the publications 15915
conveniently accessible to the residents of the county.15916

       The state library board shall forward the daily house and 15917
senate journals once every week while the general assembly is in 15918
session and the legislative bulletin, each pamphlet law, and the 15919
summary of enactments as they are published.15920

       Each library receiving publications under this section or 15921
under section 149.09 of the Revised Code shall make these 15922
publications accessible to the public.15923

       Sec. 149.307.  There is hereby created in the state treasury 15924
the Ohio history license plate contribution fund. The fund shall 15925
consist of the contributions that are paid to the registrar of 15926
motor vehicles by applicants who choose to obtain "Ohio history" 15927
license plates pursuant to section 4503.95 of the Revised Code.15928

       The contributions deposited in the fund shall be used by the 15929
Ohio historical society to provide grants to historical 15930
organizations located in this state. An organization that receives 15931
a grant under this section shall use the grant only to host 15932
exhibits and increase access to its collection by the public.15933

       The society shall establish and administer all aspects of the 15934
grant program, including eligibility requirements for receiving a 15935
grant under the program.15936

       Not later than the last business day of January of each year, 15937
the society shall prepare and submit to the general assembly a 15938
written report, detailing all aspects of the grant program during 15939
the immediately preceding calendar year.15940

       Sec. 149.311.  (A) As used in this section:15941

       (1) "Historic building" means a building, including its 15942
structural components, that is located in this state and that is 15943
either individually listed on the national register of historic 15944
places under 16 U.S.C. 470a, located in a registered historic 15945
district, and certified by the state historic preservation officer 15946
as being of historic significance to the district, or is 15947
individually listed as an historic landmark designated by a local 15948
government certified under 16 U.S.C. 470a(c).15949

       (2) "Qualified rehabilitation expenditures" means 15950
expenditures paid or incurred during the rehabilitation period, 15951
and before and after that period as determined under 26 U.S.C. 47, 15952
by an owner or qualified lessee of an historic building to 15953
rehabilitate the building. "Qualified rehabilitation expenditures" 15954
includes architectural or engineering fees paid or incurred in 15955
connection with the rehabilitation, and expenses incurred in the 15956
preparation of nomination forms for listing on the national 15957
register of historic places. "Qualified rehabilitation 15958
expenditures" does not include any of the following:15959

       (a) The cost of acquiring, expanding, or enlarging an 15960
historic building;15961

       (b) Expenditures attributable to work done to facilities 15962
related to the building, such as parking lots, sidewalks, and 15963
landscaping;15964

       (c) New building construction costs.15965

       (3) "Owner" of an historic building means a person holding 15966
the fee simple interest in the building. "Owner" does not include 15967
the state or a state agency, or any political subdivision as 15968
defined in section 9.23 of the Revised Code.15969

       (4) "Qualified lessee" means a person subject to a lease 15970
agreement for aan historic building and eligible for the federal 15971
rehabilitation tax credit under 26 U.S.C. 47. "Qualified lessee" 15972
does not include the state or a state agency or political 15973
subdivision as defined in section 9.23 of the Revised Code.15974

       (5) "Certificate owner" means the owner or qualified lessee 15975
of an historic building to which a rehabilitation tax credit 15976
certificate was issued under this section.15977

       (6) "Registered historic district" means an historic district 15978
listed in the national register of historic places under 16 U.S.C. 15979
470a, an historic district designated by a local government 15980
certified under 16 U.S.C. 470a(c), or a local historic district 15981
certified under 36 C.F.R. 67.8 and 67.9.15982

       (7) "Rehabilitation" means the process of repairing or 15983
altering an historic building or buildings, making possible an 15984
efficient use while preserving those portions and features of the 15985
building and its site and environment that are significant to its 15986
historic, architectural, and cultural values.15987

       (8) "Rehabilitation period" means one of the following:15988

       (a) If the rehabilitation initially was not planned to be 15989
completed in stages, a period chosen by the owner or qualified 15990
lessee not to exceed twenty-four months during which 15991
rehabilitation occurs;15992

       (b) If the rehabilitation initially was planned to be 15993
completed in stages, a period chosen by the owner or qualified 15994
lessee not to exceed sixty months during which rehabilitation 15995
occurs. Each stage shall be reviewed as a phase of a 15996
rehabilitation as determined under 26 C.F.R. 1.48-12 or a 15997
successor to that section.15998

       (9) "State historic preservation officer" or "officer" means 15999
the state historic preservation officer appointed by the governor 16000
under 16 U.S.C. 470a.16001

       (B) The owner or qualified lessee of an historic building may 16002
apply to the director of development services for a rehabilitation 16003
tax credit certificate for qualified rehabilitation expenditures 16004
paid or incurred by such owner or qualified lessee after April 4, 16005
2007, for rehabilitation of an historic building. If the owner of 16006
aan historic building enters a pass-through agreement with a 16007
qualified lessee for the purposes of the federal rehabilitation 16008
tax credit under 26 U.S.C. 47, the qualified rehabilitation 16009
expenditures paid or incurred by the owner after April 4, 2007, 16010
shallmay be attributed to the qualified lessee.16011

       The form and manner of filing such applications shall be 16012
prescribed by rule of the director. Each application shall state 16013
the amount of qualified rehabilitation expenditures the applicant 16014
estimates will be paid or incurred. The director may require 16015
applicants to furnish documentation of such estimates.16016

       The director, after consultation with the tax commissioner 16017
and in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall 16018
adopt rules that establish all of the following:16019

        (1) Forms and procedures by which applicants may apply for 16020
rehabilitation tax credit certificates;16021

        (2) Criteria for reviewing, evaluating, and approving 16022
applications for certificates within the limitations under 16023
division (D) of this section, criteria for assuring that the 16024
certificates issued encompass a mixture of high and low qualified 16025
rehabilitation expenditures, and criteria for issuing certificates 16026
under division (C)(3)(b) of this section;16027

        (3) Eligibility requirements for obtaining a certificate 16028
under this section;16029

        (4) The form of rehabilitation tax credit certificates;16030

        (5) Reporting requirements and monitoring procedures;16031

        (6) Procedures and criteria for conducting cost-benefit 16032
analyses of historic buildings that are the subjects of 16033
applications filed under this section. The purpose of a 16034
cost-benefit analysis shall be to determine whether rehabilitation 16035
of the historic building will result in a net revenue gain in 16036
state and local taxes once the building is used.16037

       (7) Any other rules necessary to implement and administer 16038
this section.16039

       (C) The director of development services shall review the 16040
applications with the assistance of the state historic 16041
preservation officer and determine whether all of the following 16042
criteria are met:16043

       (1) That the building that is the subject of the application 16044
is an historic building and the applicant is the owner or 16045
qualified lessee of the building;16046

       (2) That the rehabilitation will satisfy standards prescribed 16047
by the United States secretary of the interior under 16 U.S.C. 16048
470, et seq., as amended, and 36 C.F.R. 67.7 or a successor to 16049
that section;16050

       (3) That receiving a rehabilitation tax credit certificate 16051
under this section is a major factor in:16052

       (a) The applicant's decision to rehabilitate the historic 16053
building; or16054

       (b) To increase the level of investment in such 16055
rehabilitation.16056

       An applicant shall demonstrate to the satisfaction of the 16057
state historic preservation officer and director of development 16058
services that the rehabilitation will satisfy the standards 16059
described in division (C)(2) of this section before the applicant 16060
begins the physical rehabilitation of the historic building.16061

       (D)(1) If the director of development services determines 16062
that an application meets the criteria in divisions (C)(1), (2), 16063
and (3) of this section, the director shall conduct a cost-benefit 16064
analysis for the historic building that is the subject of the 16065
application to determine whether rehabilitation of the historic 16066
building will result in a net revenue gain in state and local 16067
taxes once the building is used. The director shall consider the 16068
results of the cost-benefit analysis in determining whether to 16069
approve the application. The director shall also consider the 16070
potential economic impact and the regional distributive balance of 16071
the credits throughout the state. The director may approve an 16072
application only after completion of the cost-benefit analysis.16073

       (2) A rehabilitation tax credit certificate shall not be 16074
issued for an amount greater than the estimated amount furnished 16075
by the applicant on the application for such certificate and 16076
approved by the director. The director shall not approve more than 16077
a total of sixty million dollars of rehabilitation tax credits per 16078
fiscal year but the director may reallocate unused tax credits 16079
from a prior fiscal year for new applicants and such reallocated 16080
credits shall not apply toward the dollar limit of this division.16081

       (3) For rehabilitations with a rehabilitation period not 16082
exceeding twenty-four months as provided in division (A)(7)(a) of 16083
this section, a rehabilitation tax credit certificate shall not be 16084
issued before the rehabilitation of the historic building is 16085
completed.16086

       (4) For rehabilitations with a rehabilitation period not 16087
exceeding sixty months as provided in division (A)(7)(b) of this 16088
section, a rehabilitation tax credit certificate shall not be 16089
issued before a stage of rehabilitation is completed. After all 16090
stages of rehabilitation are completed, if the director cannot 16091
determine that the criteria in division (C) of this section are 16092
satisfied for all stages of rehabilitations, the director shall 16093
certify this finding to the tax commissioner, and any 16094
rehabilitation tax credits received by the applicant shall be 16095
repaid by the applicant and may be collected by assessment as 16096
unpaid tax by the commissioner.16097

        (5) The director of development services shall require the 16098
applicant to provide a third-party cost certification by a 16099
certified public accountant of the actual costs attributed to the 16100
rehabilitation of the historic building when qualified 16101
rehabilitation expenditures exceed two hundred thousand dollars.16102

        If an applicant whose application is approved for receipt of 16103
a rehabilitation tax credit certificate fails to provide to the 16104
director sufficient evidence of reviewable progress, including a 16105
viable financial plan, copies of final construction drawings, and 16106
evidence that the applicant has obtained all historic approvals 16107
within twelve months after the date the applicant received 16108
notification of approval, and if the applicant fails to provide 16109
evidence to the director that the applicant has secured and closed 16110
on financing for the rehabilitation within eighteen months after 16111
receiving notification of approval, the director may rescind the 16112
approval of the application. The director shall notify the 16113
applicant if the approval has been rescinded. Credits that would 16114
have been available to an applicant whose approval was rescinded 16115
shall be available for other qualified applicants. Nothing in this 16116
division prohibits an applicant whose approval has been rescinded 16117
from submitting a new application for a rehabilitation tax credit 16118
certificate.16119

        (E) Issuance of a certificate represents a finding by the 16120
director of development services of the matters described in 16121
divisions (C)(1), (2), and (3) of this section only; issuance of a 16122
certificate does not represent a verification or certification by 16123
the director of the amount of qualified rehabilitation 16124
expenditures for which a tax credit may be claimed under section 16125
5725.151, 5725.34, 5726.52, 5729.17, 5733.47, or 5747.76 of the 16126
Revised Code. The amount of qualified rehabilitation expenditures 16127
for which a tax credit may be claimed is subject to inspection and 16128
examination by the tax commissioner or employees of the 16129
commissioner under section 5703.19 of the Revised Code and any 16130
other applicable law. Upon the issuance of a certificate, the 16131
director shall certify to the tax commissioner, in the form and 16132
manner requested by the tax commissioner, the name of the 16133
applicant, the amount of qualified rehabilitation expenditures 16134
shown on the certificate, and any other information required by 16135
the rules adopted under this section.16136

       (F)(1) On or before the first day of April each year, the 16137
director of development services and tax commissioner jointly 16138
shall submit to the president of the senate and the speaker of the 16139
house of representatives a report on the tax credit program 16140
established under this section and sections 5725.151, 5725.34, 16141
5726.52, 5729.17, 5733.47, and 5747.76 of the Revised Code. The 16142
report shall present an overview of the program and shall include 16143
information on the number of rehabilitation tax credit 16144
certificates issued under this section during the preceding fiscal 16145
year, an update on the status of each historic building for which 16146
an application was approved under this section, the dollar amount 16147
of the tax credits granted under sections 5725.151, 5725.34, 16148
5726.52, 5729.17, 5733.47, and 5747.76 of the Revised Code, and 16149
any other information the director and commissioner consider 16150
relevant to the topics addressed in the report.16151

        (2) On or before December 1, 2015, the director of 16152
development services and tax commissioner jointly shall submit to 16153
the president of the senate and the speaker of the house of 16154
representatives a comprehensive report that includes the 16155
information required by division (F)(1) of this section and a 16156
detailed analysis of the effectiveness of issuing tax credits for 16157
rehabilitating historic buildings. The report shall be prepared 16158
with the assistance of an economic research organization jointly 16159
chosen by the director and commissioner.16160

       (G) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 16161
historic rehabilitation tax credit operating fund. The director of 16162
development services is authorized to charge reasonable 16163
application and other fees in connection with the administration 16164
of tax credits authorized by this section and sections 5725.151, 16165
5725.34, 5726.52, 5729.17, 5733.44, and 5747.76 of the Revised 16166
Code. Any such fees collected shall be credited to the fund and 16167
used to pay reasonable costs incurred by the department of 16168
development services in administering this section and sections 16169
5725.151, 5725.34, 5726.52, 5729.17, 5733.44, and 5747.76 of the 16170
Revised Code.16171

       The Ohio historic preservation office is authorized to charge 16172
reasonable fees in connection with its review and approval of 16173
applications under this section. Any such fees collected shall be 16174
credited to the fund and used to pay administrative costs incurred 16175
by the Ohio historic preservation office pursuant to this section.16176

       Sec. 149.43.  (A) As used in this section:16177

       (1) "Public record" means records kept by any public office, 16178
including, but not limited to, state, county, city, village, 16179
township, and school district units, and records pertaining to the 16180
delivery of educational services by an alternative school in this 16181
state kept by the nonprofit or for-profit entity operating the 16182
alternative school pursuant to section 3313.533 of the Revised 16183
Code. "Public record" does not mean any of the following:16184

       (a) Medical records;16185

       (b) Records pertaining to probation and parole proceedings or 16186
to proceedings related to the imposition of community control 16187
sanctions and post-release control sanctions;16188

       (c) Records pertaining to actions under section 2151.85 and 16189
division (C) of section 2919.121 of the Revised Code and to 16190
appeals of actions arising under those sections;16191

       (d) Records pertaining to adoption proceedings, including the 16192
contents of an adoption file maintained by the department of 16193
health under section 3705.12 of the Revised Code;16194

       (e) Information in a record contained in the putative father 16195
registry established by section 3107.062 of the Revised Code, 16196
regardless of whether the information is held by the department of 16197
job and family services or, pursuant to section 3111.69 of the 16198
Revised Code, the office of child support in the department or a 16199
child support enforcement agency;16200

       (f) Records listed in division (A) of section 3107.42 of the 16201
Revised Code or specified in division (A) of section 3107.52 of 16202
the Revised Code;16203

       (g) Trial preparation records;16204

       (h) Confidential law enforcement investigatory records;16205

       (i) Records containing information that is confidential under 16206
section 2710.03 or 4112.05 of the Revised Code;16207

       (j) DNA records stored in the DNA database pursuant to 16208
section 109.573 of the Revised Code;16209

       (k) Inmate records released by the department of 16210
rehabilitation and correction to the department of youth services 16211
or a court of record pursuant to division (E) of section 5120.21 16212
of the Revised Code;16213

       (l) Records maintained by the department of youth services 16214
pertaining to children in its custody released by the department 16215
of youth services to the department of rehabilitation and 16216
correction pursuant to section 5139.05 of the Revised Code;16217

       (m) Intellectual property records;16218

       (n) Donor profile records;16219

       (o) Records maintained by the department of job and family 16220
services pursuant to section 3121.894 of the Revised Code;16221

       (p) Peace officer, parole officer, probation officer, 16222
bailiff, prosecuting attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, 16223
correctional employee, community-based correctional facility 16224
employee, youth services employee, firefighter, EMT, or 16225
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 16226
investigation residential and familial information;16227

       (q) In the case of a county hospital operated pursuant to 16228
Chapter 339. of the Revised Code or a municipal hospital operated 16229
pursuant to Chapter 749. of the Revised Code, information that 16230
constitutes a trade secret, as defined in section 1333.61 of the 16231
Revised Code;16232

       (r) Information pertaining to the recreational activities of 16233
a person under the age of eighteen;16234

       (s) Records provided to, statements made by review board 16235
members during meetings of, and all work products of a child 16236
fatality review board acting under sections 307.621 to 307.629 of 16237
the Revised Code, and child fatality review data submitted by the 16238
child fatality review board to the department of health or a 16239
national child death review database, other than the report 16240
prepared pursuant to division (A) of section 307.626 of the 16241
Revised Code;16242

       (t) Records provided to and statements made by the executive 16243
director of a public children services agency or a prosecuting 16244
attorney acting pursuant to section 5153.171 of the Revised Code 16245
other than the information released under that section;16246

       (u) Test materials, examinations, or evaluation tools used in 16247
an examination for licensure as a nursing home administrator that 16248
the board of examinersexecutives of nursing home administrators16249
long-term services and supports administers under section 4751.04 16250
of the Revised Code or contracts under that section with a private 16251
or government entity to administer;16252

       (v) Records the release of which is prohibited by state or 16253
federal law;16254

       (w) Proprietary information of or relating to any person that 16255
is submitted to or compiled by the Ohio venture capital authority 16256
created under section 150.01 of the Revised Code;16257

       (x) Information reported and evaluations conducted pursuant 16258
to section 3701.072 of the Revised Code;16259

       (y) Financial statements and data any person submits for any 16260
purpose to the Ohio housing finance agency or the controlling 16261
board in connection with applying for, receiving, or accounting 16262
for financial assistance from the agency, and information that 16263
identifies any individual who benefits directly or indirectly from 16264
financial assistance from the agency;16265

       (z)(y) Records listed in section 5101.29 of the Revised Code;16266

       (aa)(z) Discharges recorded with a county recorder under 16267
section 317.24 of the Revised Code, as specified in division 16268
(B)(2) of that section;16269

       (bb)(aa) Usage information including names and addresses of 16270
specific residential and commercial customers of a municipally 16271
owned or operated public utility;16272

       (cc)(bb) Records described in division (C) of section 187.04 16273
of the Revised Code that are not designated to be made available 16274
to the public as provided in that division.16275

       (2) "Confidential law enforcement investigatory record" means 16276
any record that pertains to a law enforcement matter of a 16277
criminal, quasi-criminal, civil, or administrative nature, but 16278
only to the extent that the release of the record would create a 16279
high probability of disclosure of any of the following:16280

       (a) The identity of a suspect who has not been charged with 16281
the offense to which the record pertains, or of an information 16282
source or witness to whom confidentiality has been reasonably 16283
promised;16284

       (b) Information provided by an information source or witness 16285
to whom confidentiality has been reasonably promised, which 16286
information would reasonably tend to disclose the source's or 16287
witness's identity;16288

       (c) Specific confidential investigatory techniques or 16289
procedures or specific investigatory work product;16290

       (d) Information that would endanger the life or physical 16291
safety of law enforcement personnel, a crime victim, a witness, or 16292
a confidential information source.16293

       (3) "Medical record" means any document or combination of 16294
documents, except births, deaths, and the fact of admission to or 16295
discharge from a hospital, that pertains to the medical history, 16296
diagnosis, prognosis, or medical condition of a patient and that 16297
is generated and maintained in the process of medical treatment.16298

       (4) "Trial preparation record" means any record that contains 16299
information that is specifically compiled in reasonable 16300
anticipation of, or in defense of, a civil or criminal action or 16301
proceeding, including the independent thought processes and 16302
personal trial preparation of an attorney.16303

       (5) "Intellectual property record" means a record, other than 16304
a financial or administrative record, that is produced or 16305
collected by or for faculty or staff of a state institution of 16306
higher learning in the conduct of or as a result of study or 16307
research on an educational, commercial, scientific, artistic, 16308
technical, or scholarly issue, regardless of whether the study or 16309
research was sponsored by the institution alone or in conjunction 16310
with a governmental body or private concern, and that has not been 16311
publicly released, published, or patented.16312

       (6) "Donor profile record" means all records about donors or 16313
potential donors to a public institution of higher education 16314
except the names and reported addresses of the actual donors and 16315
the date, amount, and conditions of the actual donation.16316

       (7) "Peace officer, parole officer, probation officer, 16317
bailiff, prosecuting attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, 16318
correctional employee, community-based correctional facility 16319
employee, youth services employee, firefighter, EMT, or 16320
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 16321
investigation residential and familial information" means any 16322
information that discloses any of the following about a peace 16323
officer, parole officer, probation officer, bailiff, prosecuting 16324
attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, 16325
community-based correctional facility employee, youth services 16326
employee, firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau of 16327
criminal identification and investigation:16328

       (a) The address of the actual personal residence of a peace 16329
officer, parole officer, probation officer, bailiff, assistant 16330
prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, community-based 16331
correctional facility employee, youth services employee, 16332
firefighter, EMT, or an investigator of the bureau of criminal 16333
identification and investigation, except for the state or 16334
political subdivision in which the peace officer, parole officer, 16335
probation officer, bailiff, assistant prosecuting attorney, 16336
correctional employee, community-based correctional facility 16337
employee, youth services employee, firefighter, EMT, or 16338
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 16339
investigation resides;16340

       (b) Information compiled from referral to or participation in 16341
an employee assistance program;16342

       (c) The social security number, the residential telephone 16343
number, any bank account, debit card, charge card, or credit card 16344
number, or the emergency telephone number of, or any medical 16345
information pertaining to, a peace officer, parole officer, 16346
probation officer, bailiff, prosecuting attorney, assistant 16347
prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, community-based 16348
correctional facility employee, youth services employee, 16349
firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau of criminal 16350
identification and investigation;16351

       (d) The name of any beneficiary of employment benefits, 16352
including, but not limited to, life insurance benefits, provided 16353
to a peace officer, parole officer, probation officer, bailiff, 16354
prosecuting attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, correctional 16355
employee, community-based correctional facility employee, youth 16356
services employee, firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau 16357
of criminal identification and investigation by the peace 16358
officer's, parole officer's, probation officer's, bailiff's, 16359
prosecuting attorney's, assistant prosecuting attorney's, 16360
correctional employee's, community-based correctional facility 16361
employee's, youth services employee's, firefighter's, EMT's, or 16362
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 16363
investigation's employer;16364

       (e) The identity and amount of any charitable or employment 16365
benefit deduction made by the peace officer's, parole officer's, 16366
probation officer's, bailiff's, prosecuting attorney's, assistant 16367
prosecuting attorney's, correctional employee's, community-based 16368
correctional facility employee's, youth services employee's, 16369
firefighter's, EMT's, or investigator of the bureau of criminal 16370
identification and investigation's employer from the peace 16371
officer's, parole officer's, probation officer's, bailiff's, 16372
prosecuting attorney's, assistant prosecuting attorney's, 16373
correctional employee's, community-based correctional facility 16374
employee's, youth services employee's, firefighter's, EMT's, or 16375
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 16376
investigation's compensation unless the amount of the deduction is 16377
required by state or federal law;16378

       (f) The name, the residential address, the name of the 16379
employer, the address of the employer, the social security number, 16380
the residential telephone number, any bank account, debit card, 16381
charge card, or credit card number, or the emergency telephone 16382
number of the spouse, a former spouse, or any child of a peace 16383
officer, parole officer, probation officer, bailiff, prosecuting 16384
attorney, assistant prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, 16385
community-based correctional facility employee, youth services 16386
employee, firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau of 16387
criminal identification and investigation;16388

       (g) A photograph of a peace officer who holds a position or 16389
has an assignment that may include undercover or plain clothes 16390
positions or assignments as determined by the peace officer's 16391
appointing authority.16392

       As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(9) of this section, 16393
"peace officer" has the same meaning as in section 109.71 of the 16394
Revised Code and also includes the superintendent and troopers of 16395
the state highway patrol; it does not include the sheriff of a 16396
county or a supervisory employee who, in the absence of the 16397
sheriff, is authorized to stand in for, exercise the authority of, 16398
and perform the duties of the sheriff.16399

       As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(5) of this section, 16400
"correctional employee" means any employee of the department of 16401
rehabilitation and correction who in the course of performing the 16402
employee's job duties has or has had contact with inmates and 16403
persons under supervision.16404

        As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(5) of this section, 16405
"youth services employee" means any employee of the department of 16406
youth services who in the course of performing the employee's job 16407
duties has or has had contact with children committed to the 16408
custody of the department of youth services.16409

       As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(9) of this section, 16410
"firefighter" means any regular, paid or volunteer, member of a 16411
lawfully constituted fire department of a municipal corporation, 16412
township, fire district, or village.16413

       As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(9) of this section, "EMT" 16414
means EMTs-basic, EMTs-I, and paramedics that provide emergency 16415
medical services for a public emergency medical service 16416
organization. "Emergency medical service organization," 16417
"EMT-basic," "EMT-I," and "paramedic" have the same meanings as in 16418
section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.16419

       As used in divisions (A)(7) and (B)(9) of this section, 16420
"investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 16421
investigation" has the meaning defined in section 2903.11 of the 16422
Revised Code.16423

       (8) "Information pertaining to the recreational activities of 16424
a person under the age of eighteen" means information that is kept 16425
in the ordinary course of business by a public office, that 16426
pertains to the recreational activities of a person under the age 16427
of eighteen years, and that discloses any of the following:16428

       (a) The address or telephone number of a person under the age 16429
of eighteen or the address or telephone number of that person's 16430
parent, guardian, custodian, or emergency contact person;16431

       (b) The social security number, birth date, or photographic 16432
image of a person under the age of eighteen;16433

       (c) Any medical record, history, or information pertaining to 16434
a person under the age of eighteen;16435

       (d) Any additional information sought or required about a 16436
person under the age of eighteen for the purpose of allowing that 16437
person to participate in any recreational activity conducted or 16438
sponsored by a public office or to use or obtain admission 16439
privileges to any recreational facility owned or operated by a 16440
public office.16441

       (9) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 16442
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.16443

       (10) "Post-release control sanction" has the same meaning as 16444
in section 2967.01 of the Revised Code.16445

        (11) "Redaction" means obscuring or deleting any information 16446
that is exempt from the duty to permit public inspection or 16447
copying from an item that otherwise meets the definition of a 16448
"record" in section 149.011 of the Revised Code.16449

       (12) "Designee" and "elected official" have the same meanings 16450
as in section 109.43 of the Revised Code.16451

       (B)(1) Upon request and subject to division (B)(8) of this 16452
section, all public records responsive to the request shall be 16453
promptly prepared and made available for inspection to any person 16454
at all reasonable times during regular business hours. Subject to 16455
division (B)(8) of this section, upon request, a public office or 16456
person responsible for public records shall make copies of the 16457
requested public record available at cost and within a reasonable 16458
period of time. If a public record contains information that is 16459
exempt from the duty to permit public inspection or to copy the 16460
public record, the public office or the person responsible for the 16461
public record shall make available all of the information within 16462
the public record that is not exempt. When making that public 16463
record available for public inspection or copying that public 16464
record, the public office or the person responsible for the public 16465
record shall notify the requester of any redaction or make the 16466
redaction plainly visible. A redaction shall be deemed a denial of 16467
a request to inspect or copy the redacted information, except if 16468
federal or state law authorizes or requires a public office to 16469
make the redaction.16470

       (2) To facilitate broader access to public records, a public 16471
office or the person responsible for public records shall organize 16472
and maintain public records in a manner that they can be made 16473
available for inspection or copying in accordance with division 16474
(B) of this section. A public office also shall have available a 16475
copy of its current records retention schedule at a location 16476
readily available to the public. If a requester makes an ambiguous 16477
or overly broad request or has difficulty in making a request for 16478
copies or inspection of public records under this section such 16479
that the public office or the person responsible for the requested 16480
public record cannot reasonably identify what public records are 16481
being requested, the public office or the person responsible for 16482
the requested public record may deny the request but shall provide 16483
the requester with an opportunity to revise the request by 16484
informing the requester of the manner in which records are 16485
maintained by the public office and accessed in the ordinary 16486
course of the public office's or person's duties.16487

       (3) If a request is ultimately denied, in part or in whole, 16488
the public office or the person responsible for the requested 16489
public record shall provide the requester with an explanation, 16490
including legal authority, setting forth why the request was 16491
denied. If the initial request was provided in writing, the 16492
explanation also shall be provided to the requester in writing. 16493
The explanation shall not preclude the public office or the person 16494
responsible for the requested public record from relying upon 16495
additional reasons or legal authority in defending an action 16496
commenced under division (C) of this section.16497

       (4) Unless specifically required or authorized by state or 16498
federal law or in accordance with division (B) of this section, no 16499
public office or person responsible for public records may limit 16500
or condition the availability of public records by requiring 16501
disclosure of the requester's identity or the intended use of the 16502
requested public record. Any requirement that the requester 16503
disclose the requestor's identity or the intended use of the 16504
requested public record constitutes a denial of the request.16505

       (5) A public office or person responsible for public records 16506
may ask a requester to make the request in writing, may ask for 16507
the requester's identity, and may inquire about the intended use 16508
of the information requested, but may do so only after disclosing 16509
to the requester that a written request is not mandatory and that 16510
the requester may decline to reveal the requester's identity or 16511
the intended use and when a written request or disclosure of the 16512
identity or intended use would benefit the requester by enhancing 16513
the ability of the public office or person responsible for public 16514
records to identify, locate, or deliver the public records sought 16515
by the requester.16516

       (6) If any person chooses to obtain a copy of a public record 16517
in accordance with division (B) of this section, the public office 16518
or person responsible for the public record may require that 16519
person to pay in advance the cost involved in providing the copy 16520
of the public record in accordance with the choice made by the 16521
person seeking the copy under this division. The public office or 16522
the person responsible for the public record shall permit that 16523
person to choose to have the public record duplicated upon paper, 16524
upon the same medium upon which the public office or person 16525
responsible for the public record keeps it, or upon any other 16526
medium upon which the public office or person responsible for the 16527
public record determines that it reasonably can be duplicated as 16528
an integral part of the normal operations of the public office or 16529
person responsible for the public record. When the person seeking 16530
the copy makes a choice under this division, the public office or 16531
person responsible for the public record shall provide a copy of 16532
it in accordance with the choice made by the person seeking the 16533
copy. Nothing in this section requires a public office or person 16534
responsible for the public record to allow the person seeking a 16535
copy of the public record to make the copies of the public record.16536

       (7) Upon a request made in accordance with division (B) of 16537
this section and subject to division (B)(6) of this section, a 16538
public office or person responsible for public records shall 16539
transmit a copy of a public record to any person by United States 16540
mail or by any other means of delivery or transmission within a 16541
reasonable period of time after receiving the request for the 16542
copy. The public office or person responsible for the public 16543
record may require the person making the request to pay in advance 16544
the cost of postage if the copy is transmitted by United States 16545
mail or the cost of delivery if the copy is transmitted other than 16546
by United States mail, and to pay in advance the costs incurred 16547
for other supplies used in the mailing, delivery, or transmission.16548

       Any public office may adopt a policy and procedures that it 16549
will follow in transmitting, within a reasonable period of time 16550
after receiving a request, copies of public records by United 16551
States mail or by any other means of delivery or transmission 16552
pursuant to this division. A public office that adopts a policy 16553
and procedures under this division shall comply with them in 16554
performing its duties under this division.16555

       In any policy and procedures adopted under this division, a 16556
public office may limit the number of records requested by a 16557
person that the office will transmit by United States mail to ten 16558
per month, unless the person certifies to the office in writing 16559
that the person does not intend to use or forward the requested 16560
records, or the information contained in them, for commercial 16561
purposes. For purposes of this division, "commercial" shall be 16562
narrowly construed and does not include reporting or gathering 16563
news, reporting or gathering information to assist citizen 16564
oversight or understanding of the operation or activities of 16565
government, or nonprofit educational research.16566

       (8) A public office or person responsible for public records 16567
is not required to permit a person who is incarcerated pursuant to 16568
a criminal conviction or a juvenile adjudication to inspect or to 16569
obtain a copy of any public record concerning a criminal 16570
investigation or prosecution or concerning what would be a 16571
criminal investigation or prosecution if the subject of the 16572
investigation or prosecution were an adult, unless the request to 16573
inspect or to obtain a copy of the record is for the purpose of 16574
acquiring information that is subject to release as a public 16575
record under this section and the judge who imposed the sentence 16576
or made the adjudication with respect to the person, or the 16577
judge's successor in office, finds that the information sought in 16578
the public record is necessary to support what appears to be a 16579
justiciable claim of the person.16580

       (9)(a) Upon written request made and signed by a journalist 16581
on or after December 16, 1999, a public office, or person 16582
responsible for public records, having custody of the records of 16583
the agency employing a specified peace officer, parole officer, 16584
probation officer, bailiff, prosecuting attorney, assistant 16585
prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, community-based 16586
correctional facility employee, youth services employee, 16587
firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau of criminal 16588
identification and investigation shall disclose to the journalist 16589
the address of the actual personal residence of the peace officer, 16590
parole officer, probation officer, bailiff, prosecuting attorney, 16591
assistant prosecuting attorney, correctional employee, 16592
community-based correctional facility employee, youth services 16593
employee, firefighter, EMT, or investigator of the bureau of 16594
criminal identification and investigation and, if the peace 16595
officer's, parole officer's, probation officer's, bailiff's, 16596
prosecuting attorney's, assistant prosecuting attorney's, 16597
correctional employee's, community-based correctional facility 16598
employee's, youth services employee's, firefighter's, EMT's, or 16599
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 16600
investigation's spouse, former spouse, or child is employed by a 16601
public office, the name and address of the employer of the peace 16602
officer's, parole officer's, probation officer's, bailiff's, 16603
prosecuting attorney's, assistant prosecuting attorney's, 16604
correctional employee's, community-based correctional facility 16605
employee's, youth services employee's, firefighter's, EMT's, or 16606
investigator of the bureau of criminal identification and 16607
investigation's spouse, former spouse, or child. The request shall 16608
include the journalist's name and title and the name and address 16609
of the journalist's employer and shall state that disclosure of 16610
the information sought would be in the public interest.16611

       (b) Division (B)(9)(a) of this section also applies to 16612
journalist requests for customer information maintained by a 16613
municipally owned or operated public utility, other than social 16614
security numbers and any private financial information such as 16615
credit reports, payment methods, credit card numbers, and bank 16616
account information.16617

       (c) As used in division (B)(9) of this section, "journalist" 16618
means a person engaged in, connected with, or employed by any news 16619
medium, including a newspaper, magazine, press association, news 16620
agency, or wire service, a radio or television station, or a 16621
similar medium, for the purpose of gathering, processing, 16622
transmitting, compiling, editing, or disseminating information for 16623
the general public.16624

       (C)(1) If a person allegedly is aggrieved by the failure of a 16625
public office or the person responsible for public records to 16626
promptly prepare a public record and to make it available to the 16627
person for inspection in accordance with division (B) of this 16628
section or by any other failure of a public office or the person 16629
responsible for public records to comply with an obligation in 16630
accordance with division (B) of this section, the person allegedly 16631
aggrieved may commence a mandamus action to obtain a judgment that 16632
orders the public office or the person responsible for the public 16633
record to comply with division (B) of this section, that awards 16634
court costs and reasonable attorney's fees to the person that 16635
instituted the mandamus action, and, if applicable, that includes 16636
an order fixing statutory damages under division (C)(1) of this 16637
section. The mandamus action may be commenced in the court of 16638
common pleas of the county in which division (B) of this section 16639
allegedly was not complied with, in the supreme court pursuant to 16640
its original jurisdiction under Section 2 of Article IV, Ohio 16641
Constitution, or in the court of appeals for the appellate 16642
district in which division (B) of this section allegedly was not 16643
complied with pursuant to its original jurisdiction under Section 16644
3 of Article IV, Ohio Constitution.16645

       If a requestor transmits a written request by hand delivery 16646
or certified mail to inspect or receive copies of any public 16647
record in a manner that fairly describes the public record or 16648
class of public records to the public office or person responsible 16649
for the requested public records, except as otherwise provided in 16650
this section, the requestor shall be entitled to recover the 16651
amount of statutory damages set forth in this division if a court 16652
determines that the public office or the person responsible for 16653
public records failed to comply with an obligation in accordance 16654
with division (B) of this section.16655

       The amount of statutory damages shall be fixed at one hundred 16656
dollars for each business day during which the public office or 16657
person responsible for the requested public records failed to 16658
comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of this 16659
section, beginning with the day on which the requester files a 16660
mandamus action to recover statutory damages, up to a maximum of 16661
one thousand dollars. The award of statutory damages shall not be 16662
construed as a penalty, but as compensation for injury arising 16663
from lost use of the requested information. The existence of this 16664
injury shall be conclusively presumed. The award of statutory 16665
damages shall be in addition to all other remedies authorized by 16666
this section.16667

       The court may reduce an award of statutory damages or not 16668
award statutory damages if the court determines both of the 16669
following:16670

       (a) That, based on the ordinary application of statutory law 16671
and case law as it existed at the time of the conduct or 16672
threatened conduct of the public office or person responsible for 16673
the requested public records that allegedly constitutes a failure 16674
to comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of 16675
this section and that was the basis of the mandamus action, a 16676
well-informed public office or person responsible for the 16677
requested public records reasonably would believe that the conduct 16678
or threatened conduct of the public office or person responsible 16679
for the requested public records did not constitute a failure to 16680
comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of this 16681
section;16682

       (b) That a well-informed public office or person responsible 16683
for the requested public records reasonably would believe that the 16684
conduct or threatened conduct of the public office or person 16685
responsible for the requested public records would serve the 16686
public policy that underlies the authority that is asserted as 16687
permitting that conduct or threatened conduct.16688

       (2)(a) If the court issues a writ of mandamus that orders the 16689
public office or the person responsible for the public record to 16690
comply with division (B) of this section and determines that the 16691
circumstances described in division (C)(1) of this section exist, 16692
the court shall determine and award to the relator all court 16693
costs.16694

       (b) If the court renders a judgment that orders the public 16695
office or the person responsible for the public record to comply 16696
with division (B) of this section, the court may award reasonable 16697
attorney's fees subject to reduction as described in division 16698
(C)(2)(c) of this section. The court shall award reasonable 16699
attorney's fees, subject to reduction as described in division 16700
(C)(2)(c) of this section when either of the following applies:16701

        (i) The public office or the person responsible for the 16702
public records failed to respond affirmatively or negatively to 16703
the public records request in accordance with the time allowed 16704
under division (B) of this section.16705

        (ii) The public office or the person responsible for the 16706
public records promised to permit the relator to inspect or 16707
receive copies of the public records requested within a specified 16708
period of time but failed to fulfill that promise within that 16709
specified period of time.16710

       (c) Court costs and reasonable attorney's fees awarded under 16711
this section shall be construed as remedial and not punitive. 16712
Reasonable attorney's fees shall include reasonable fees incurred 16713
to produce proof of the reasonableness and amount of the fees and 16714
to otherwise litigate entitlement to the fees. The court may 16715
reduce an award of attorney's fees to the relator or not award 16716
attorney's fees to the relator if the court determines both of the 16717
following:16718

       (i) That, based on the ordinary application of statutory law 16719
and case law as it existed at the time of the conduct or 16720
threatened conduct of the public office or person responsible for 16721
the requested public records that allegedly constitutes a failure 16722
to comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of 16723
this section and that was the basis of the mandamus action, a 16724
well-informed public office or person responsible for the 16725
requested public records reasonably would believe that the conduct 16726
or threatened conduct of the public office or person responsible 16727
for the requested public records did not constitute a failure to 16728
comply with an obligation in accordance with division (B) of this 16729
section;16730

       (ii) That a well-informed public office or person responsible 16731
for the requested public records reasonably would believe that the 16732
conduct or threatened conduct of the public office or person 16733
responsible for the requested public records as described in 16734
division (C)(2)(c)(i) of this section would serve the public 16735
policy that underlies the authority that is asserted as permitting 16736
that conduct or threatened conduct.16737

       (D) Chapter 1347. of the Revised Code does not limit the 16738
provisions of this section.16739

       (E)(1) To ensure that all employees of public offices are 16740
appropriately educated about a public office's obligations under 16741
division (B) of this section, all elected officials or their 16742
appropriate designees shall attend training approved by the 16743
attorney general as provided in section 109.43 of the Revised 16744
Code. In addition, all public offices shall adopt a public records 16745
policy in compliance with this section for responding to public 16746
records requests. In adopting a public records policy under this 16747
division, a public office may obtain guidance from the model 16748
public records policy developed and provided to the public office 16749
by the attorney general under section 109.43 of the Revised Code. 16750
Except as otherwise provided in this section, the policy may not 16751
limit the number of public records that the public office will 16752
make available to a single person, may not limit the number of 16753
public records that it will make available during a fixed period 16754
of time, and may not establish a fixed period of time before it 16755
will respond to a request for inspection or copying of public 16756
records, unless that period is less than eight hours.16757

       (2) The public office shall distribute the public records 16758
policy adopted by the public office under division (E)(1) of this 16759
section to the employee of the public office who is the records 16760
custodian or records manager or otherwise has custody of the 16761
records of that office. The public office shall require that 16762
employee to acknowledge receipt of the copy of the public records 16763
policy. The public office shall create a poster that describes its 16764
public records policy and shall post the poster in a conspicuous 16765
place in the public office and in all locations where the public 16766
office has branch offices. The public office may post its public 16767
records policy on the internet web site of the public office if 16768
the public office maintains an internet web site. A public office 16769
that has established a manual or handbook of its general policies 16770
and procedures for all employees of the public office shall 16771
include the public records policy of the public office in the 16772
manual or handbook.16773

       (F)(1) The bureau of motor vehicles may adopt rules pursuant 16774
to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to reasonably limit the number 16775
of bulk commercial special extraction requests made by a person 16776
for the same records or for updated records during a calendar 16777
year. The rules may include provisions for charges to be made for 16778
bulk commercial special extraction requests for the actual cost of 16779
the bureau, plus special extraction costs, plus ten per cent. The 16780
bureau may charge for expenses for redacting information, the 16781
release of which is prohibited by law.16782

       (2) As used in division (F)(1) of this section:16783

       (a) "Actual cost" means the cost of depleted supplies, 16784
records storage media costs, actual mailing and alternative 16785
delivery costs, or other transmitting costs, and any direct 16786
equipment operating and maintenance costs, including actual costs 16787
paid to private contractors for copying services.16788

       (b) "Bulk commercial special extraction request" means a 16789
request for copies of a record for information in a format other 16790
than the format already available, or information that cannot be 16791
extracted without examination of all items in a records series, 16792
class of records, or data basedatabase by a person who intends to 16793
use or forward the copies for surveys, marketing, solicitation, or 16794
resale for commercial purposes. "Bulk commercial special 16795
extraction request" does not include a request by a person who 16796
gives assurance to the bureau that the person making the request 16797
does not intend to use or forward the requested copies for 16798
surveys, marketing, solicitation, or resale for commercial 16799
purposes.16800

       (c) "Commercial" means profit-seeking production, buying, or 16801
selling of any good, service, or other product.16802

       (d) "Special extraction costs" means the cost of the time 16803
spent by the lowest paid employee competent to perform the task, 16804
the actual amount paid to outside private contractors employed by 16805
the bureau, or the actual cost incurred to create computer 16806
programs to make the special extraction. "Special extraction 16807
costs" include any charges paid to a public agency for computer or 16808
records services.16809

       (3) For purposes of divisions (F)(1) and (2) of this section, 16810
"surveys, marketing, solicitation, or resale for commercial 16811
purposes" shall be narrowly construed and does not include 16812
reporting or gathering news, reporting or gathering information to 16813
assist citizen oversight or understanding of the operation or 16814
activities of government, or nonprofit educational research.16815

       Sec. 149.431.  (A) Except as provided in sections 9.833 and 16816
2744.082744.081 of the Revised Code, any governmental entity or 16817
agency and any nonprofit corporation or association, except a 16818
corporation organized pursuant to Chapter 1719. of the Revised 16819
Code prior to January 1, 1980 or organized pursuant to Chapter 16820
3941. of the Revised Code, that enters into a contract or other 16821
agreement with the federal government, a unit of state government, 16822
or a political subdivision or taxing unit of this state for the 16823
provision of services shall keep accurate and complete financial 16824
records of any moneys expended in relation to the performance of 16825
the services pursuant to such contract or agreement according to 16826
generally accepted accounting principles. Such contract or 16827
agreement and such financial records shall be deemed to be public 16828
records as defined in division (A)(1) of section 149.43 of the 16829
Revised Code and are subject to the requirements of division (B) 16830
of that section, except that:16831

       (1) Any information directly or indirectly identifying a 16832
present or former individual patient or client or such an 16833
individual patient's or client's diagnosis, prognosis, or medical 16834
treatment, treatment for a mental or emotional disorder, treatment 16835
for mental retardation or a developmental disability, treatment 16836
for drug abuse or alcoholism, or counseling for personal or social 16837
problems is not a public record;16838

       (2) If disclosure of the contract or agreement or financial 16839
records is requested at a time when confidential professional 16840
services are being provided to a patient or client whose 16841
confidentiality might be violated if disclosure were made at that 16842
time, disclosure may be deferred if reasonable times are 16843
established when the contract or agreement or financial records 16844
will be disclosed.16845

       (3) Any nonprofit corporation or association that receives 16846
both public and private funds in fulfillment of any such contract 16847
or other agreement is not required to keep as public records the 16848
financial records of any private funds expended in relation to the 16849
performance of services pursuant to the contract or agreement.16850

       (B) Any nonprofit corporation or association that receives 16851
more than fifty per cent of its gross receipts excluding moneys 16852
received pursuant to Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 16853
Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, in a calendar year in 16854
fulfillment of a contract or other agreement for services with a 16855
governmental entity shall maintain information setting forth the 16856
compensation of any individual serving the nonprofit corporation 16857
or association in an executive or administrative capacity. Such 16858
information shall be deemed to be public records as defined in 16859
division (A)(1) of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and is 16860
subject to the requirements of division (B) of that section.16861

       Nothing in this section shall be construed to otherwise limit 16862
the provisions of section 149.43 of the Revised Code.16863

       Sec. 149.54.  In order to ensure that archaeological survey 16864
and salvage work on public lands, dedicated archaeological 16865
preserves, and registered state archaeological landmarks is 16866
conducted in a scientific manner, the director of the Ohio 16867
historical society shall, in consultation with the Ohio 16868
archaeological council and the archaeological society of Ohio, 16869
adopt and may amend or rescind rules, in accordance with Chapter 16870
119. of the Revised Code, prescribing minimum education, training, 16871
and experience requirements for personnel in charge of or 16872
otherwise engaging in archaeological survey and salvage work, and 16873
prescribing scientific methods for undertaking such activities.16874

       No person shall engage in archaeological survey or salvage 16875
work on any land that is owned, controlled, or administered by the 16876
state or any political subdivision of the state, or at any 16877
archaeological preserve, dedicated under section 149.52 of the 16878
Revised Code, or at any state archaeological landmark registered 16879
under section 149.51 of the Revised Code, without first obtaining 16880
the written permission of the director. To obtain permission, the 16881
applicant shall submit written application to the director, which 16882
application shall indicate the proposed location, the 16883
qualifications of personnel who will be engaged in the 16884
archaeological survey or salvage work, the proposed methods of 16885
survey or salvage, and such other information as the director 16886
requires by rule.16887

       The director shall deny the applicant permission to engage in 16888
archaeological survey or salvage work at the proposed location if 16889
the applicant's proposed undertaking will not comply with the 16890
rules adopted under this section. The director shall by written 16891
order approve or deny permission to disturb the site. If the 16892
director decides to deny permission, the order shall state the 16893
reasons for denial, and the director shall afford the applicant an 16894
adjudication hearing under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The 16895
requirements of this section and of any rule adopted pursuant to 16896
this section shall not apply to any department, agency, unit, 16897
instrumentality, or political subdivision of the state.16898

       Whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor of 16899
the second degree. Whoever violates or threatens to violate this 16900
section may be enjoined from violation.16901

       Sec. 151.11.  (A) As used in this section:16902

       (1) "Costs of sites and facilities" includes related direct 16903
administrative expenses and allocable portions of the direct costs 16904
of those projects. "Costs of sites and facilities" includes 16905
"allowable costs" as defined in section 122.085 of the Revised 16906
Code.16907

       (2) "Obligations" means obligations as defined in section 16908
151.01 of the Revised Code issued to pay costs of sites and 16909
facilities in Ohio for and in support of industry, commerce, 16910
distribution, and research and development purposes as referred to 16911
in division (A)(3) of Section 2p of Article VIII, Ohio 16912
Constitution.16913

       (B) The issuing authority shall issue general obligations of 16914
the state to pay costs of sites and facilities pursuant to 16915
division (B)(3) of Section 2p of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, 16916
section 151.01 of the Revised Code, and this section. The issuing 16917
authority shall issue obligations in the amount determined by the 16918
issuing authority to be required for those purposes. The total 16919
principal amount of obligations issued under this section shall 16920
not exceed one hundred fifty million dollars.16921

       (C) Net proceeds of obligations shall be deposited into the 16922
job ready site development fund created by section 122.0820 of the 16923
Revised Code.16924

       (D) There is hereby created in the state treasury the job 16925
ready site development bond service fund. All moneys received by 16926
the state and required by the bond proceedings, consistent with 16927
section 151.01 of the Revised Code and this section, to be 16928
deposited, transferred, or credited to the bond service fund, and 16929
all other moneys transferred or allocated to or received for the 16930
purposes of that fund, shall be deposited and credited to the bond 16931
service fund, subject to any applicable provisions of the bond 16932
proceedings, but without necessity for any act of appropriation. 16933
During the period beginning with the date of the first issuance of 16934
obligations and continuing during the time that any obligations 16935
are outstanding in accordance with their terms, so long as moneys 16936
in the bond service fund are insufficient to pay debt service when 16937
due on those obligations payable from that fund, except the 16938
principal amounts of bond anticipation notes payable from the 16939
proceeds of renewal notes or bonds anticipated, and due in the 16940
particular fiscal year, a sufficient amount of revenues of the 16941
state is committed and, without necessity for further act of 16942
appropriation, shall be paid to the bond service fund for the 16943
purpose of paying that debt service when due. All investment 16944
earnings on the cash balance in the fund shall be credited to the 16945
fund.16946

       Sec. 152.09.  (A) As used in sections 152.06 and 152.09 to 16947
152.33 of the Revised Code:16948

       (1) "Obligations" means bonds, notes, or other evidences of 16949
obligation, including interest coupons pertaining thereto, issued 16950
pursuant to sections 152.09 to 152.33 of the Revised Code.16951

       (2) "State agencies" means the state of Ohio and branches, 16952
officers, boards, commissions, authorities, departments, 16953
divisions, courts, general assembly, or other units or agencies of 16954
the state. "State agency" also includes counties, municipal 16955
corporations, and governmental entities of this state that enter 16956
into leases with the Ohio building authority pursuant to section 16957
152.31 of the Revised Code or that are designated by law as state 16958
agencies for the purpose of performing a state function that is to 16959
be housed by a capital facility for which the Ohio building 16960
authority is authorized to issue revenue obligations pursuant to 16961
sections 152.09 to 152.33 of the Revised Code.16962

       (3) "Bond service charges" means principal, including 16963
mandatory sinking fund requirements for retirement of obligations, 16964
and interest, and redemption premium, if any, required to be paid 16965
by the Ohio building authority on obligations.16966

       (4) "Capital facilities" means buildings, structures, and 16967
other improvements, and equipment, real estate, and interests in 16968
real estate therefor, within the state, and any one, part of, or 16969
combination of the foregoing, for housing of branches and agencies 16970
of state government, including capital facilities for the purpose 16971
of housing personnel, equipment, or functions, or any combination 16972
thereof that the state agencies are responsible for housing, for 16973
which the Ohio building authority is authorized to issue 16974
obligations pursuant to Chapter 152. of the Revised Code, and 16975
includes storage and parking facilities related to such capital 16976
facilities. For purposes of sections 152.10 to 152.15 of the 16977
Revised Code, "capital facilities" includes community or technical 16978
college capital facilities.16979

       (5) "Cost of capital facilities" means the costs of 16980
assessing, planning, acquiring, constructing, reconstructing, 16981
rehabilitating, remodeling, renovating, enlarging, improving, 16982
altering, maintaining, equipping, furnishing, repairing, painting, 16983
decorating, managing, or operating capital facilities, and the 16984
financing thereof, including the cost of clearance and preparation 16985
of the site and of any land to be used in connection with capital 16986
facilities, the cost of participating in capital facilities 16987
pursuant to section 152.33 of the Revised Code, the cost of any 16988
indemnity and surety bonds and premiums on insurance, all related 16989
direct administrative expenses and allocable portions of direct 16990
costs of the authority and lessee state agencies, cost of 16991
engineering and architectural services, designs, plans, 16992
specifications, surveys, and estimates of cost, legal fees, fees 16993
and expenses of trustees, depositories, and paying agents for the 16994
obligations, cost of issuance of the obligations and financing 16995
charges and fees and expenses of financial advisers and 16996
consultants in connection therewith, interest on obligations from 16997
the date thereof to the time when interest is to be covered from 16998
sources other than proceeds of obligations, amounts that represent 16999
the portion of investment earnings to be rebated or to be paid to 17000
the federal government in order to maintain the exclusion from 17001
gross income for federal income tax purposes of interest on those 17002
obligations pursuant to section 148(f) of the Internal Revenue 17003
Code, amounts necessary to establish reserves as required by the 17004
resolutions or the obligations, trust agreements, or indentures, 17005
costs of audits, the reimbursement of all moneys advanced or 17006
applied by or borrowed from any governmental entity, whether to or 17007
by the authority or others, from whatever source provided, for the 17008
payment of any item or items of cost of the capital facilities, 17009
any share of the cost undertaken by the authority pursuant to 17010
arrangements made with governmental entities under division (J) of 17011
section 152.21 of the Revised Code, and all other expenses 17012
necessary or incident to assessing, planning, or determining the 17013
feasibility or practicability with respect to capital facilities, 17014
and such other expenses as may be necessary or incident to the 17015
assessment, planning, acquisition, construction, reconstruction, 17016
rehabilitation, remodeling, renovation, enlargement, improvement, 17017
alteration, maintenance, equipment, furnishing, repair, painting, 17018
decoration, management, or operation of capital facilities, the 17019
financing thereof and the placing of the same in use and 17020
operation, including any one, part of, or combination of such 17021
classes of costs and expenses.17022

       (6) "Governmental entity" means any state agency, municipal 17023
corporation, county, township, school district, and any other 17024
political subdivision or special district in this state 17025
established pursuant to law, and, except where otherwise 17026
indicated, also means the United States or any of the states or 17027
any department, division, or agency thereof, and any agency, 17028
commission, or authority established pursuant to an interstate 17029
compact or agreement.17030

       (7) "Governing body" means:17031

       (a) In the case of a county, the board of county 17032
commissioners or other legislative authority; in the case of a 17033
municipal corporation, the legislative authority; in the case of a 17034
township, the board of township trustees; in the case of a school 17035
district, the board of education;17036

       (b) In the case of any other governmental entity, the 17037
officer, board, commission, authority, or other body having the 17038
general management of the entity or having jurisdiction or 17039
authority in the particular circumstances.17040

       (8) "Available receipts" means fees, charges, revenues, 17041
grants, subsidies, income from the investment of moneys, proceeds 17042
from the sale of goods or services, and all other revenues or 17043
receipts received by or on behalf of any state agency for which 17044
capital facilities are financed with obligations issued under 17045
Chapter 152. of the Revised Code, any state agency participating 17046
in capital facilities pursuant to section 152.33 of the Revised 17047
Code, or any state agency by which the capital facilities are 17048
constructed or financed; revenues or receipts derived by the 17049
authority from the operation, leasing, or other disposition of 17050
capital facilities, and the proceeds of obligations issued under 17051
Chapter 152. of the Revised Code; and also any moneys appropriated 17052
by a governmental entity, gifts, grants, donations, and pledges, 17053
and receipts therefrom, available for the payment of bond service 17054
charges on such obligations.17055

       (9) "Available community or technical college receipts" means 17056
all money received by a community or technical college or 17057
community or technical college district, including income, 17058
revenues, and receipts from the operation, ownership, or control 17059
of facilities, grants, gifts, donations, and pledges and receipts 17060
therefrom, receipts from fees and charges, the allocated state 17061
share of instruction as defined in section 3333.903333.59 of the 17062
Revised Code, and the proceeds of the sale of obligations, 17063
including proceeds of obligations issued to refund obligations 17064
previously issued, but excluding any special fee, and receipts 17065
therefrom, charged pursuant to division (D) of section 154.21 of 17066
the Revised Code.17067

        (10) "Community or technical college," "college," "community 17068
or technical college district," and "district" have the same 17069
meanings as in section 3333.903333.59 of the Revised Code.17070

       (11) "Community or technical college capital facilities" 17071
means auxiliary facilities, education facilities, and housing and 17072
dining facilities, as those terms are defined in section 3345.12 17073
of the Revised Code, to the extent permitted to be financed by the 17074
issuance of obligations under division (A)(2) of section 3357.112 17075
of the Revised Code, that are authorized by sections 3354.121, 17076
3357.112, and 3358.10 of the Revised Code to be financed by 17077
obligations issued by a community or technical college district, 17078
and for which the Ohio building authority is authorized to issue 17079
obligations pursuant to Chapter 152. of the Revised Code, and 17080
includes any one, part of, or any combination of the foregoing, 17081
and further includes site improvements, utilities, machinery, 17082
furnishings, and any separate or connected buildings, structures, 17083
improvements, sites, open space and green space areas, utilities, 17084
or equipment to be used in, or in connection with the operation or 17085
maintenance of, or supplementing or otherwise related to the 17086
services or facilities to be provided by, such facilities.17087

        (12) "Cost of community or technical college capital 17088
facilities" means the costs of acquiring, constructing, 17089
reconstructing, rehabilitating, remodeling, renovating, enlarging, 17090
improving, equipping, or furnishing community or technical college 17091
capital facilities, and the financing thereof, including the cost 17092
of clearance and preparation of the site and of any land to be 17093
used in connection with community or technical college capital 17094
facilities, the cost of any indemnity and surety bonds and 17095
premiums on insurance, all related direct administrative expenses 17096
and allocable portions of direct costs of the authority, community 17097
or technical college or community or technical college district, 17098
cost of engineering, architectural services, design, plans, 17099
specifications and surveys, estimates of cost, legal fees, fees 17100
and expenses of trustees, depositories, bond registrars, and 17101
paying agents for the obligations, cost of issuance of the 17102
obligations and financing costs and fees and expenses of financial 17103
advisers and consultants in connection therewith, interest on the 17104
obligations from the date thereof to the time when interest is to 17105
be covered by available receipts or other sources other than 17106
proceeds of the obligations, amounts that represent the portion of 17107
investment earnings to be rebated or to be paid to the federal 17108
government in order to maintain the exclusion from gross income 17109
for federal income tax purposes of interest on those obligations 17110
pursuant to section 148(f) of the Internal Revenue Code, amounts 17111
necessary to establish reserves as required by the bond 17112
proceedings, costs of audits, the reimbursements of all moneys 17113
advanced or applied by or borrowed from the community or technical 17114
college, community or technical college district, or others, from 17115
whatever source provided, including any temporary advances from 17116
state appropriations, for the payment of any item or items of cost 17117
of community or technical college facilities, and all other 17118
expenses necessary or incident to planning or determining 17119
feasibility or practicability with respect to such facilities, and 17120
such other expenses as may be necessary or incident to the 17121
acquisition, construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, 17122
remodeling, renovation, enlargement, improvement, equipment, and 17123
furnishing of community or technical college capital facilities, 17124
the financing thereof and the placing of them in use and 17125
operation, including any one, part of, or combination of such 17126
classes of costs and expenses.17127

       (B) Pursuant to the powers granted to the general assembly 17128
under Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, to authorize 17129
the issuance of revenue obligations and other obligations, the 17130
owners or holders of which are not given the right to have excises 17131
or taxes levied by the general assembly for the payment of 17132
principal thereof or interest thereon, the Ohio building authority 17133
may issue obligations, in accordance with Chapter 152. of the 17134
Revised Code, and shall cause the net proceeds thereof, after any 17135
deposits of accrued interest for the payment of bond service 17136
charges and after any deposit of all or such lesser portion as the 17137
authority may direct of the premium received upon the sale of 17138
those obligations for the payment of the bond service charges, to 17139
be applied to the costs of capital facilities designated by or 17140
pursuant to act of the general assembly for housing state agencies 17141
as authorized by Chapter 152. of the Revised Code. The authority 17142
shall provide by resolution for the issuance of such obligations. 17143
The bond service charges and all other payments required to be 17144
made by the trust agreement or indenture securing such obligations 17145
shall be payable solely from available receipts of the authority 17146
pledged thereto as provided in such resolution. The available 17147
receipts pledged and thereafter received by the authority are 17148
immediately subject to the lien of such pledge without any 17149
physical delivery thereof or further act, and the lien of any such 17150
pledge is valid and binding against all parties having claims of 17151
any kind against the authority, irrespective of whether those 17152
parties have notice thereof, and creates a perfected security 17153
interest for all purposes of Chapter 1309. of the Revised Code and 17154
a perfected lien for purposes of any real property interest, all 17155
without the necessity for separation or delivery of funds or for 17156
the filing or recording of the resolution, trust agreement, 17157
indenture, or other agreement by which such pledge is created or 17158
any certificate, statement, or other document with respect 17159
thereto; and the pledge of such available receipts is effective 17160
and the money therefrom and thereof may be applied to the purposes 17161
for which pledged. Every pledge, and every covenant and agreement 17162
made with respect to the pledge, made in the resolution may 17163
therein be extended to the benefit of the owners and holders of 17164
obligations authorized by Chapter 152. of the Revised Code, the 17165
net proceeds of which are to be applied to the costs of capital 17166
facilities, and to any trustee therefor, for the further securing 17167
of the payment of the bond service charges, and all or any rights 17168
under any agreement or lease made under this section may be 17169
assigned for such purpose. Obligations may be issued at one time 17170
or from time to time, and each issue shall be dated, shall mature 17171
at such time or times as determined by the authority not exceeding 17172
forty years from the date of issue, and may be redeemable before 17173
maturity at the option of the authority at such price or prices 17174
and under such terms and conditions as are fixed by the authority 17175
prior to the issuance of the obligations. The authority shall 17176
determine the form of the obligations, fix their denominations, 17177
establish their interest rate or rates, which may be a variable 17178
rate or rates, or the maximum interest rate, and establish within 17179
or without this state a place or places of payment of bond service 17180
charges.17181

       (C) The obligations shall be signed by the authority 17182
chairperson, vice-chairperson, and secretary-treasurer, and the 17183
authority seal shall be affixed. The signatures may be facsimile 17184
signatures and the seal affixed may be a facsimile seal, as 17185
provided by resolution of the authority. Any coupons attached may 17186
bear the facsimile signature of the chairperson. In case any 17187
officer who has signed any obligations, or caused the officer's 17188
facsimile signature to be affixed thereto, ceases to be such 17189
officer before such obligations have been delivered, such 17190
obligations may, nevertheless, be issued and delivered as though 17191
the person who had signed the obligations or caused the person's 17192
facsimile signature to be affixed thereto had not ceased to be 17193
such officer.17194

       Any obligations may be executed on behalf of the authority by 17195
an officer who, on the date of execution, is the proper officer 17196
although on the date of such obligations such person was not the 17197
proper officer.17198

       (D) All obligations issued by the authority shall have all 17199
the qualities and incidents of negotiable instruments and may be 17200
issued in coupon or in registered form, or both, as the authority 17201
determines. Provision may be made for the registration of any 17202
obligations with coupons attached thereto as to principal alone or 17203
as to both principal and interest, their exchange for obligations 17204
so registered, and for the conversion or reconversion into 17205
obligations with coupons attached thereto of any obligations 17206
registered as to both principal and interest, and for reasonable 17207
charges for such registration, exchange, conversion, and 17208
reconversion. The authority may sell its obligations in any manner 17209
and for such prices as it determines, except that the authority 17210
shall sell obligations sold at public or private sale in 17211
accordance with section 152.091 of the Revised Code.17212

       (E) The obligations of the authority, principal, interest, 17213
and any proceeds from their sale or transfer, are exempt from all 17214
taxation within this state.17215

       (F) The authority is authorized to issue revenue obligations 17216
and other obligations under Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio 17217
Constitution, for the purpose of paying the cost of capital 17218
facilities for housing of branches and agencies of state 17219
government, including capital facilities for the purpose of 17220
housing personnel, equipment, or functions, or any combination 17221
thereof that the state agencies are responsible for housing, as 17222
are authorized by Chapter 152. of the Revised Code, and that are 17223
authorized by the general assembly by the appropriation of lease 17224
payments or other moneys for such capital facilities or by any 17225
other act of the general assembly, but not including the 17226
appropriation of moneys for feasibility studies for such capital 17227
facilities. This division does not authorize the authority to 17228
issue obligations pursuant to Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio 17229
Constitution, to pay the cost of capital facilities for mental 17230
hygiene and retardation, parks and recreation, or state-supported 17231
or state-assisted institutions of higher education.17232

       (G) The authority is authorized to issue revenue obligations 17233
under Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, on behalf of 17234
a community or technical college district and shall cause the net 17235
proceeds thereof, after any deposits of accrued interest for the 17236
payment of bond service charges and after any deposit of all or 17237
such lesser portion as the authority may direct of the premium 17238
received upon the sale of those obligations for the payment of the 17239
bond service charges, to be applied to the cost of community or 17240
technical college capital facilities, provided that the issuance 17241
of such obligations is subject to the execution of a written 17242
agreement in accordance with division (C) of section 3333.9017243
3333.59 of the Revised Code for the withholding and depositing of 17244
funds otherwise due the district, or the college it operates, in 17245
respect of its allocated state share of instruction.17246

        The authority shall provide by resolution for the issuance of 17247
such obligations. The bond service charges and all other payments 17248
required to be made by the trust agreement or indenture securing 17249
the obligations shall be payable solely from available community 17250
or technical college receipts pledged thereto as provided in the 17251
resolution. The available community or technical college receipts 17252
pledged and thereafter received by the authority are immediately 17253
subject to the lien of such pledge without any physical delivery 17254
thereof or further act, and the lien of any such pledge is valid 17255
and binding against all parties having claims of any kind against 17256
the authority, irrespective of whether those parties have notice 17257
thereof, and creates a perfected security interest for all 17258
purposes of Chapter 1309. of the Revised Code and a perfected lien 17259
for purposes of any real property interest, all without the 17260
necessity for separation or delivery of funds or for the filing or 17261
recording of the resolution, trust agreement, indenture, or other 17262
agreement by which such pledge is created or any certificate, 17263
statement, or other document with respect thereto; and the pledge 17264
of such available community or technical college receipts is 17265
effective and the money therefrom and thereof may be applied to 17266
the purposes for which pledged. Every pledge, and every covenant 17267
and agreement made with respect to the pledge, made in the 17268
resolution may therein be extended to the benefit of the owners 17269
and holders of obligations authorized by this division, and to any 17270
trustee therefor, for the further securing of the payment of the 17271
bond service charges, and all or any rights under any agreement or 17272
lease made under this section may be assigned for such purpose. 17273
Obligations may be issued at one time or from time to time, and 17274
each issue shall be dated, shall mature at such time or times as 17275
determined by the authority not exceeding forty years from the 17276
date of issue, and may be redeemable before maturity at the option 17277
of the authority at such price or prices and under such terms and 17278
conditions as are fixed by the authority prior to the issuance of 17279
the obligations. The authority shall determine the form of the 17280
obligations, fix their denominations, establish their interest 17281
rate or rates, which may be a variable rate or rates, or the 17282
maximum interest rate, and establish within or without this state 17283
a place or places of payment of bond service charges.17284

       Sec. 153.692. For every design-build contract, the public 17285
authority planning to contract for design-build services shall 17286
first obtain the services of a criteria architect or engineer by 17287
doing either of the following: 17288

       (A) Contracting for the services consistent with sections 17289
153.65 to 153.70 of the Revised Code;17290

       (B) Obtaining the services through an architect or engineer 17291
who is an employee of the public authority and notifying the 17292
department of administrative servicesOhio facilities construction 17293
commission before the services are performed.17294

       Sec. 154.01.  As used in this chapter:17295

       (A) "Commission" means the Ohio public facilities commission 17296
created in section 151.02 of the Revised Code.17297

       (B) "Obligations" means bonds, notes, or other evidences of 17298
obligation, including interest coupons pertaining thereto, issued 17299
pursuant to Chapter 154. of the Revised Code.17300

       (C) "Bond proceedings" means the order or orders, resolution 17301
or resolutions, trust agreement, indenture, lease, and other 17302
agreements, amendments and supplements to the foregoing, or any 17303
combination thereof, authorizing or providing for the terms and 17304
conditions applicable to, or providing for the security of, 17305
obligations issued pursuant to Chapter 154. of the Revised Code, 17306
and the provisions contained in such obligations.17307

       (D) "State agencies" means the state of Ohio and officers, 17308
boards, commissions, departments, divisions, or other units or 17309
agencies of the state.17310

       (E) "Governmental agency" means state agencies, state 17311
supported and assisted institutions of higher education, municipal 17312
corporations, counties, townships, school districts, and any other 17313
political subdivision or special district in this state 17314
established pursuant to law, and, except where otherwise 17315
indicated, also means the United States or any department, 17316
division, or agency thereof, and any agency, commission, or 17317
authority established pursuant to an interstate compact or 17318
agreement.17319

       (F) "Institutions of higher education" and "state supported 17320
or state assisted institutions of higher education" means the 17321
state universities identified in section 3345.011 of the Revised 17322
Code, the northeast Ohio medical university, state universities or 17323
colleges at any time created, community college districts, 17324
university branch districts, and technical college districts at 17325
any time established or operating under Chapter 3354., 3355., or 17326
3357. of the Revised Code, and other institutions for education, 17327
including technical education, beyond the high school, receiving 17328
state support or assistance for their expenses of operation.17329

       (G) "Governing body" means:17330

       (1) In the case of institutions of higher education, the 17331
board of trustees, board of directors, commission, or other body 17332
vested by law with the general management, conduct, and control of 17333
one or more institutions of higher education;17334

       (2) In the case of a county, the board of county 17335
commissioners or other legislative body; in the case of a 17336
municipal corporation, the council or other legislative body; in 17337
the case of a township, the board of township trustees; in the 17338
case of a school district, the board of education;17339

       (3) In the case of any other governmental agency, the 17340
officer, board, commission, authority or other body having the 17341
general management thereof or having jurisdiction or authority in 17342
the particular circumstances.17343

       (H) "Person" means any person, firm, partnership, 17344
association, or corporation.17345

       (I) "Bond service charges" means principal, including 17346
mandatory sinking fund requirements for retirement of obligations, 17347
and interest, and redemption premium, if any, required to be paid 17348
by the state on obligations. If not prohibited by the applicable 17349
bond proceedings, bond service charges may include costs relating 17350
to credit enhancement facilities that are related to and 17351
represent, or are intended to provide a source of payment of or 17352
limitation on, other bond service charges.17353

       (J) "Capital facilities" means buildings, structures, and 17354
other improvements, and equipment, real estate, and interests in 17355
real estate therefor, within the state, and any one, part of, or 17356
combination of the foregoing, to serve the general purposes for 17357
which the issuing authority is authorized to issue obligations 17358
pursuant to Chapter 154. of the Revised Code, including, but not 17359
limited to, drives, roadways, parking facilities, walks, lighting, 17360
machinery, furnishings, utilities, landscaping, wharves, docks, 17361
piers, reservoirs, dams, tunnels, bridges, retaining walls, 17362
riprap, culverts, ditches, channels, watercourses, retention 17363
basins, standpipes and water storage facilities, waste treatment 17364
and disposal facilities, heating, air conditioning and 17365
communications facilities, inns, lodges, cabins, camping sites, 17366
golf courses, boat and bathing facilities, athletic and 17367
recreational facilities, and site improvements.17368

       (K) "Costs of capital facilities" means the costs of 17369
acquiring, constructing, reconstructing, rehabilitating, 17370
remodeling, renovating, enlarging, improving, equipping, or 17371
furnishing capital facilities, and the financing thereof, 17372
including the cost of clearance and preparation of the site and of 17373
any land to be used in connection with capital facilities, the 17374
cost of any indemnity and surety bonds and premiums on insurance, 17375
all related direct administrative expenses and allocable portions 17376
of direct costs of the commission or issuing authority and 17377
department of administrative services, or other designees of the 17378
commission under section 154.17 of the Revised Code, cost of 17379
engineering and architectural services, designs, plans, 17380
specifications, surveys, and estimates of cost, legal fees, fees 17381
and expenses of trustees, depositories, and paying agents for the 17382
obligations, cost of issuance of the obligations and financing 17383
charges and fees and expenses of financial advisers and 17384
consultants in connection therewith, interest on obligations, 17385
including but not limited to, interest from the date of their 17386
issuance to the time when interest is to be covered from sources 17387
other than proceeds of obligations, amounts necessary to establish 17388
reserves as required by the bond proceedings, costs of audits, the 17389
reimbursement of all moneys advanced or applied by or borrowed 17390
from any governmental agency, whether to or by the commission or 17391
others, from whatever source provided, for the payment of any item 17392
or items of cost of the capital facilities, any share of the cost 17393
undertaken by the commission pursuant to arrangements made with 17394
governmental agencies under division (H) of section 154.06 of the 17395
Revised Code, and all other expenses necessary or incident to 17396
planning or determining feasibility or practicability with respect 17397
to capital facilities, and such other expenses as may be necessary 17398
or incident to the acquisition, construction, reconstruction, 17399
rehabilitation, remodeling, renovation, enlargement, improvement, 17400
equipment, and furnishing of capital facilities, the financing 17401
thereof and the placing of the same in use and operation, 17402
including any one, part of, or combination of such classes of 17403
costs and expenses.17404

       (L) "Public service facilities" means inns, lodges, hotels, 17405
cabins, camping sites, scenic trails, picnic sites, restaurants, 17406
commissaries, golf courses, boating and bathing facilities and 17407
other similar facilities in state parks.17408

       (M) "State parks" means:17409

       (1) State reservoirs described and identified in section 17410
1541.06 of the Revised Code;17411

       (2) All lands or interests therein of the state identified as 17412
administered by the division of parks and recreation in the 17413
"inventory of state owned lands administered by the department of 17414
natural resources as of June 1, 1963," as recorded in the journal 17415
of the director, which inventory was prepared by the real estate 17416
section of the department and is supported by maps now on file in 17417
said real estate section;17418

       (3) All lands or interests in lands of the state designated 17419
after June 1, 1963, as state parks in the journal of the director 17420
with the approval of the recreation and resources council.17421

       State parks do not include any lands or interest in lands of 17422
the state administered jointly by two or more divisions of the 17423
department of natural resources. The designation of lands as state 17424
parks under divisions (M)(1) to (3) of this section is conclusive 17425
and such lands shall be under the control of and administered by 17426
the division of parks and recreation. No order or proceeding 17427
designating lands as state parks or park purchase areas is subject 17428
to any appeal or review by any officer, board, commission, or 17429
court.17430

       (N) "Bond service fund" means the applicable fund created for 17431
and pledged to the payment of bond service charges under section 17432
154.20, 154.21, 154.22, or 154.23 of the Revised Code, including 17433
all moneys and investments, and earnings from investments, 17434
credited and to be credited thereto.17435

       (O) "Improvement fund" means the applicable fund created for 17436
the payment of costs of capital facilities under section 123.201,17437
154.20, 154.21, or 154.22, or 3383.09 of the Revised Code, 17438
including all moneys and investments, and earnings from 17439
investments, credited and to be credited thereto.17440

       (P) "Special funds" or "funds" means, except where the 17441
context does not permit, the bond service funds, the improvements 17442
funds, and any other funds for similar or different purposes 17443
created under bond proceedings, including all moneys and 17444
investments, and earnings from investments, credited and to be 17445
credited thereto.17446

       (Q) "Year" unless the context indicates a different meaning 17447
or intent, means a calendar year beginning on the first day of 17448
January and ending on the thirty-first day of December.17449

       (R) "Fiscal year" means the period of twelve months beginning 17450
on the first day of July and ending on the thirtieth day of June.17451

       (S) "Issuing authority" means the treasurer of state or the 17452
officer or employee who by law performs the functions of that 17453
office.17454

       (T) "Credit enhancement facilities" has the same meaning as 17455
in section 133.01 of the Revised Code.17456

       (U) "Ohio cultural facility" and "Ohio sports facility" have 17457
the same meanings as in section 3383.01123.28 of the Revised 17458
Code.17459

       Sec. 154.17.  The departments of administrative services,17460
mental healthmental health and addiction services, developmental 17461
disabilities, rehabilitation and correction, and natural 17462
resources, the Ohio board of regents, institutions of higher 17463
education, and other state officers and state agencies shall 17464
cooperate with the commission in providing services and 17465
information requested by the commission for purposes of Chapter 17466
154. of the Revised Code, and the commission may make mutually 17467
satisfactory arrangements therefor and may thereunder designate 17468
any governmental agency for the management or performance of 17469
particular functions of the commission, other than the 17470
authorization and issuance of obligations provided for in Chapter 17471
154. of the Revised Code, pursuant to which designation, upon 17472
acceptance thereof by that governmental agency, that function may 17473
be carried out with the full force and effect as if performed by 17474
the commission. Any such designation shall be made only by formal 17475
action or written agreement of the commission. In the management 17476
of capital facilities or performance of other functions with 17477
respect thereto, a governmental agency may exercise all powers 17478
which it has under law with respect to other similar facilities 17479
under its jurisdiction.17480

       Contracts relating to capital facilities shall be made in 17481
accordance with the law pertaining to the governmental agency 17482
designated under authority of this section to perform such 17483
contracting function, and in any other case shall be made in 17484
accordance with Chapter 153. of the Revised Code, for which 17485
purpose the commission shall be considered the owner, provided 17486
that the commission may assign the function of owner to the 17487
department of administrative services or other governmental agency 17488
as it determines. The commission may acquire by assignment from 17489
any governmental agency contracts which are not completed and 17490
which involve acquiring, constructing, reconstructing, 17491
rehabilitating, remodeling, renovating, enlarging, improving, 17492
equipping, or furnishing capital facilities, provided that such 17493
governmental agency has complied with the procedures prescribed by 17494
laws for its letting of such contract.17495

       No contract shall be let or assignment thereof accepted under 17496
this section involving performance in accordance with plans and 17497
specifications until such plans and specifications have been 17498
submitted to and approved by the governmental agency to have 17499
responsibility for the management of the capital facilities 17500
provided for in such plans and specifications, which approval 17501
shall be considered to be given if no approval or disapproval is 17502
communicated in writing to the commission or its designee for such 17503
purpose within sixty days following such submission of plans and 17504
specifications. Approval by such governmental agency of changes in 17505
plans and specifications is not required if the director of 17506
administrative services or the designee of the commission for such 17507
purpose shall certify that such changes do not substantially 17508
change the location, character, or extent of such capital 17509
facilities.17510

       Sec. 154.20.  (A) Subject to authorization by the general 17511
assembly under section 154.02 of the Revised Code, the issuing 17512
authority may issue obligations pursuant to this chapter to pay 17513
costs of capital facilities for mental hygiene and retardation, 17514
including housing for mental hygiene and retardation patients and 17515
persons with substance use disorders.17516

       (B) Any capital facilities for mental hygiene or retardation, 17517
including housing for mental hygiene and retardation patients and 17518
persons with substance use disorders, may be leased by the 17519
commission to the department of mental health,mental health and 17520
addiction services or the department of developmental 17521
disabilities, or the department of alcohol and drug addiction 17522
services, and other agreements may be made by the commission and 17523
any one or more of these departments with respect to the use or 17524
purchase of such capital facilities or, subject to the approval of 17525
the director of the department, the commission may lease such 17526
capital facilities to, and make or provide for other agreements 17527
with respect to the use or purchase thereof with, any governmental 17528
agency having authority under law to operate such capital 17529
facilities, and the director of the department may sublease such 17530
capital facilities to, and make other agreements with respect to 17531
the use or purchase thereof with, any such governmental agency, 17532
which may include provisions for transmittal to the mental health 17533
bond service trust fund created under division (E) of this 17534
section, by such governmental agency or by a nonprofit corporation 17535
providing mental hygiene and retardation services for or under 17536
contract with or the supervision of that governmental agency, of 17537
receipts of that agency or nonprofit corporation from charges for 17538
the treatment or care of mental hygiene and retardation patients, 17539
all upon such terms and conditions as the parties may agree upon 17540
and pursuant to this chapter, notwithstanding any other provision 17541
of law affecting the leasing, acquisition, or disposition of 17542
capital facilities by the parties.17543

       (C) For purposes of this section, "available receipts" means 17544
all receipts of the state from charges for the treatment or care 17545
of mental hygiene and retardation patients, including support 17546
payments received under Chapter 5121. of the Revised Code and 17547
moneys required to be transmitted to the mental health bond 17548
service trust fund pursuant to subleases and other agreements 17549
between any of the departments and another governmental agency 17550
pursuant to division (B) of this section as the subleases and 17551
other agreements may be further implemented for internal planning, 17552
budgeting, and accounting purposes pursuant to rules adopted by 17553
the director of mental health,mental health and addiction 17554
services or director of developmental disabilities, or director of 17555
alcohol and drug addiction services, any revenues or receipts 17556
derived by the commission from the operation, leasing, or other 17557
disposition of capital facilities financed under this section, the 17558
proceeds of obligations issued under this section and sections 17559
154.11 and 154.12 of the Revised Code, and also means any gifts, 17560
grants, donations, and pledges, and receipts therefrom, available 17561
for the payment of bond service charges on such obligations. The 17562
issuing authority may pledge all, or such portion as that 17563
authority determines, of the available receipts to the payment of 17564
bond service charges on obligations issued under this section and 17565
under sections 154.11 and 154.12 of the Revised Code and for the 17566
establishment and maintenance of any reserves, as provided in the 17567
bond proceedings, and make other provisions therein with respect 17568
to such available receipts as authorized by this chapter, which 17569
provisions shall be controlling notwithstanding any other 17570
provision of law pertaining thereto.17571

       (D) The issuing authority may covenant in the bond 17572
proceedings that the state and state agencies shall, so long as 17573
any obligations issued under this section are outstanding, cause 17574
to be charged and collected charges for the treatment or care of 17575
mental hygiene and retardation patients sufficient in amount to 17576
provide for the payment of bond service charges on such 17577
obligations and for the establishment and maintenance of any 17578
reserves, as provided in the bond proceedings, and such covenants 17579
shall be controlling notwithstanding any other provision of law 17580
pertaining to such charges.17581

       (E) There is hereby created the mental health bond service 17582
trust fund, which shall be in the custody of the treasurer of 17583
state but shall be separate and apart from and not a part of the 17584
state treasury. All moneys received by or on account of the 17585
commission or issuing authority or state agencies and required by 17586
the applicable bond proceedings to be deposited, transferred, or 17587
credited to the fund, and all other moneys transferred or 17588
allocated to or received for the purposes of the fund, shall be 17589
deposited with the treasurer of state and credited to such fund, 17590
subject to applicable provisions of the bond proceedings, but 17591
without necessity for any act of appropriation. The mental health 17592
bond service trust fund is a trust fund and is hereby pledged to 17593
the payment of bond service charges on the obligations issued 17594
pursuant to this section and sections 154.11 and 154.12 of the 17595
Revised Code to the extent provided in the applicable bond 17596
proceedings, and payment thereof from such fund shall be made or 17597
provided for by the treasurer of state in accordance with such 17598
bond proceedings without necessity for any act of appropriation.17599

       (F) There is hereby created in the state treasury the mental 17600
health facilities improvement fund. Subject to the bond 17601
proceedings therefor, all of the proceeds of the sale of 17602
obligations pursuant to this section shall be credited to the 17603
fund, except that any accrued interest shall be credited to the 17604
mental health bond service fund. The mental health facilities 17605
improvement fund may also be comprised of gifts, grants, 17606
appropriated moneys, and other sums and securities received to the 17607
credit of such fund. All investment earnings on the cash balance 17608
in the fund shall be credited to the fund. The fund shall be 17609
applied only to the following purposes:17610

       (1) Paying costs of capital facilities for mental hygiene and 17611
retardation, including housing for mental hygiene and retardation 17612
patients or for persons with substance use disorders, under the 17613
jurisdiction of the department of mental health,mental health and 17614
addiction services or department of developmental disabilities, or 17615
department of alcohol and drug addiction services;17616

       (2) Participating in capital facilities for mental hygiene 17617
and retardation, including housing for mental hygiene and 17618
retardation patients or for persons with substance use disorders, 17619
with the federal government, municipal corporations, counties, or 17620
other governmental agencies, or a nonprofit corporation 17621
specifically chartered to provide a mental health, substance use,17622
or mental retardation service when such service fulfills a public 17623
purpose, which participation may be by grants or contributions to 17624
them for such capital facilities. Except as provided in division 17625
(G) of this section, the nonprofit corporation may act in concert 17626
with a limited partnership or a limited liability company eligible 17627
to participate in the nonprofit set-aside described in section 17628
42(h)(5) of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2198, 17629
26 U.S.C. 42, and the Ohio housing finance agency's housing tax 17630
credit program for the purpose of making use of low-income housing 17631
tax credits in support of housing for mental hygiene and 17632
retardation patients.17633

       (G) A nonprofit corporation providing a mental retardation 17634
service must obtain written approval from the director of 17635
developmental disabilities before acting in concert with a limited 17636
partnership or limited liability company as described in division 17637
(F)(2) of this section. However, the director may issue one 17638
blanket approval for all such nonprofit corporations.17639

       (H) This section is to be applied with other applicable 17640
provisions of this chapter.17641

       Sec. 154.22.  (A) Subject to authorization by the general 17642
assembly under section 154.02 of the Revised Code, the issuing 17643
authority may authorize and issue obligations pursuant to this 17644
chapter to pay costs of capital facilities for parks and 17645
recreation.17646

       (B) Any capital facilities for parks and recreation may be 17647
leased by the commission to the department of natural resources 17648
and other agreements may be made by the commission and such 17649
department with respect to the use or purchase of such capital 17650
facilities or, subject to the approval of the director of such 17651
department, the commission may lease such capital facilities to, 17652
and make other agreements with respect to their use or purchase 17653
with, any governmental agency having authority under law to 17654
operate such capital facilities, and the director of such 17655
department may sublease such capital facilities to, and make other 17656
agreements with respect to the use or purchase thereof with, any 17657
such governmental agency, or such director may sublease or 17658
contract for the operation of such capital facilities in 17659
accordance with the applicable provisions of sections 1501.09, 17660
1501.091, and 1501.10 of the Revised Code, all upon such terms and 17661
conditions as the parties may agree upon and pursuant to this 17662
chapter, notwithstanding any other provisions of law affecting the 17663
leasing, acquisition, or disposition of capital facilities by such 17664
parties.17665

       (C) For purposes of this section, "available receipts" means 17666
all receipts, including fees, charges, and rentals, derived or to 17667
be derived from state parks and public service facilities in any 17668
state park or parks, any other receipts of state agencies with 17669
respect to parks and recreational facilities, any revenues or 17670
receipts derived by the commission from the operation, leasing, or 17671
other disposition of capital facilities financed under this 17672
section, the proceeds of obligations issued under this section and 17673
sections 154.11 and 154.12 of the Revised Code, and also means any 17674
gifts, grants, donations, and pledges, and receipts thereon, 17675
available for the payment of bond service charges on obligations 17676
issued under this section. The issuing authority may pledge all, 17677
or such portion as it determines, of the available receipts to the 17678
payment of bond service charges on obligations issued under this 17679
section and sections 154.11 and 154.12 of the Revised Code and for 17680
the establishment and maintenance of any reserves, as provided in 17681
the bond proceedings, and make other provisions therein with 17682
respect to such available receipts as authorized by this chapter, 17683
which provisions shall be controlling notwithstanding any other 17684
provision of law pertaining thereto.17685

       (D) The issuing authority may covenant in the bond proceeding 17686
that the state and state agencies shall, so long as any 17687
obligations issued under this section are outstanding, cause to be 17688
charged and collected fees, charges, and rentals for the use of 17689
state parks and public service facilities and other fees and 17690
charges with respect to parks and recreation sufficient in amount 17691
to provide for the payment of bond service charges on such 17692
obligations and for the establishment and maintenance of any 17693
reserves as provided in the bond proceedings, and such covenants 17694
shall be controlling notwithstanding any other provision of law 17695
pertaining to such charges except any provision of law prohibiting 17696
or limiting charges for the use of swimming facilities of state 17697
parks and public service facilities by persons under sixteen years 17698
of age.17699

       (E) There is hereby created the parks and recreation bond 17700
service trust fund, which shall be in the custody of the treasurer 17701
of state but shall be separate and apart from and not a part of 17702
the state treasury. All moneys received by or on account of the 17703
commission or issuing authority or state agencies and required by 17704
the applicable bond proceedings to be deposited, transferred, or 17705
allocated to or received for the purposes of the trust fund shall 17706
be deposited with the treasurer of state and credited to such 17707
fund, subject to applicable provisions of the bond proceedings but 17708
without necessity for any act of appropriation. The trust fund is 17709
hereby pledged to the payment of bond service charges on the 17710
obligations issued pursuant to this section and sections 154.11 17711
and 154.12 of the Revised Code to the extent provided in the 17712
applicable bond proceedings, and payment thereof from such fund 17713
shall be made or provided for by the treasurer of state in 17714
accordance with such bond proceedings without necessity for any 17715
act of appropriation.17716

       (F) There is hereby created in the state treasury the parks 17717
and recreation improvement fund. Subject to the bond proceedings 17718
therefor, all of the proceeds of the sale of obligations issued 17719
pursuant to this section shall be credited to such fund, except 17720
that any accrued interest received shall be credited to the parks 17721
and recreation bond service trust fund. The parks and recreation 17722
improvement fund may also be comprised of gifts, grants, 17723
appropriated moneys, and other sums and securities received to the 17724
credit of such fund. Such fund shall be applied only to the 17725
purpose of paying costs of capital facilities for parks and 17726
recreation under the jurisdiction of the department of natural 17727
resources or for participation in capital facilities for parks and 17728
recreation with the federal government, municipal corporations, 17729
counties, or other governmental agencies, or any one or more of 17730
them, which participation may be by grants or contributions to 17731
them for such capital facilities. All investment earnings on the 17732
cash balance in the fund shall be credited to the fund.17733

       (G) All state parks shall be exclusively under the control 17734
and administration of the division of parks and recreation. With 17735
the approval of the recreation and resources council, the director 17736
of natural resources may by order remove from the classification 17737
as state parks any of the lands or interests therein referred to 17738
in divisions (M)(2) and (3) of section 154.01 of the Revised Code, 17739
subject to the limitations, provisions, and conditions in any 17740
order authorizing state park revenue bonds, in any trust agreement 17741
securing such bonds, or in bond proceedings with respect to 17742
obligations issued pursuant to this section. Lands or interests 17743
therein so removed shall be transferred to other divisions of the 17744
department for administration or may be sold as provided by law. 17745
Proceeds of any sale shall be used or transferred as provided in 17746
the order authorizing state park revenue bonds or in such trust 17747
agreement, or in bond proceedings with respect to obligations 17748
issued pursuant to this section, and if no such provision is made 17749
shall be transferred to the state park fund created by section 17750
1541.22 of the Revised Code.17751

       (H) This section shall be applied with other applicable 17752
provisions of this chapter.17753

       (I) Any instrument by which real property is acquired 17754
pursuant to this section shall identify the agency of the state 17755
that has the use and benefit of the real property as specified in 17756
section 5301.012 of the Revised Code.17757

       Sec. 154.23.  (A) Subject to authorization by the general 17758
assembly under section 154.02 of the Revised Code, the issuing 17759
authority may issue obligations pursuant to this chapter to pay 17760
costs of capital facilities for Ohio cultural facilities and Ohio 17761
sports facilities.17762

       (B) The Ohio public facilities commission may lease any 17763
capital facilities for Ohio cultural facilities or Ohio sports 17764
facilities to, and make or provide for other agreements with 17765
respect to the use or purchase of such capital facilities with, 17766
the Ohio cultural facilities construction commission and, with the 17767
Ohio cultural facilities construction commission's approval, any 17768
governmental agency having authority under law to operate such 17769
capital facilities. Any lease or agreement shall be subject to 17770
Chapter 3383. of the Revised Code.17771

       (C) For purposes of this section, "available receipts" means 17772
any revenues or receipts derived by the Ohio public facilities 17773
commission from the operation, leasing, or other disposition of 17774
capital facilities financed under this section, the proceeds of 17775
obligations issued under this section and section 154.11 or 154.12 17776
of the Revised Code, and also means any gifts, grants, donations, 17777
and pledges, and receipts thereon, available for the payment of 17778
bond service charges on obligations issued under this section. The 17779
issuing authority may pledge all, or such portion as it 17780
determines, of the available receipts to the payment of bond 17781
service charges on obligations issued under this section and 17782
section 154.11 or 154.12 of the Revised Code and for the 17783
establishment and maintenance of any reserves, as provided in the 17784
bond proceedings, and make other provisions therein with respect 17785
to such available receipts as authorized by this chapter, which 17786
provisions shall be controlling notwithstanding any other 17787
provision of law pertaining thereto.17788

       (D) There is hereby created one or more funds, as determined 17789
by the issuing authority in the bond proceedings, designated as 17790
the "Ohio cultural facilities commission bond service fund" with, 17791
if more than one such fund, such further identifying name as the 17792
issuing authority determines, which shall be in the custody of the 17793
treasurer of state but shall be separate and apart from and not a 17794
part of the state treasury. All money received by or on account of 17795
the issuing authority or the Ohio cultural facilities construction17796
commission and required by the applicable bond proceedings to be 17797
deposited, transferred, or credited to the Ohio cultural 17798
facilities commission bond service fund, and all other money 17799
transferred or allocated to or received for the purposes of that 17800
fund shall be deposited with the treasurer of state and credited 17801
to the applicable fund, subject to applicable provisions of the 17802
bond proceedings, but without necessity of any act or 17803
appropriation. The Ohio cultural facilities commission bond 17804
service funds are trust funds and are hereby pledged to the 17805
payment of bond service charges on the applicable obligations 17806
issued pursuant to this section and section 154.11 or 154.12 of 17807
the Revised Code to the extent provided in the applicable bond 17808
proceedings, and payment thereof from such funds shall be made or 17809
provided for by the treasurer of state in accordance with the 17810
applicable bond proceedings without necessity for any act or 17811
appropriation.17812

       (E) This section is to be applied with other applicable 17813
provisions of this chapter.17814

       Sec. 154.25. (A) As used in this section:17815

       (1) "Available community or technical college receipts" means 17816
all money received by a community or technical college or 17817
community or technical college district, including income, 17818
revenues, and receipts from the operation, ownership, or control 17819
of facilities, grants, gifts, donations, and pledges and receipts 17820
therefrom, receipts from fees and charges, the allocated state 17821
share of instruction as defined in section 3333.903333.59 of the 17822
Revised Code, and the proceeds of the sale of obligations, 17823
including proceeds of obligations issued to refund obligations 17824
previously issued, but excluding any special fee, and receipts 17825
therefrom, charged pursuant to division (D) of section 154.21 of 17826
the Revised Code.17827

       (2) "Community or technical college," "college," "community 17828
or technical college district," and "district" have the same 17829
meanings as in section 3333.903333.59 of the Revised Code.17830

       (3) "Community or technical college capital facilities" means 17831
auxiliary facilities, education facilities, and housing and dining 17832
facilities, as those terms are defined in section 3345.12 of the 17833
Revised Code, to the extent permitted to be financed by the 17834
issuance of obligations under division (A)(2) of section 3357.112 17835
of the Revised Code, that are authorized by sections 3354.121, 17836
3357.112, and 3358.10 of the Revised Code to be financed by 17837
obligations issued by a community or technical college district, 17838
and for which the issuing authority is authorized to issue 17839
obligations pursuant to this section, and includes any one, part 17840
of, or any combination of the foregoing, and further includes site 17841
improvements, utilities, machinery, furnishings, and any separate 17842
or connected buildings, structures, improvements, sites, open 17843
space and green space areas, utilities, or equipment to be used 17844
in, or in connection with the operation or maintenance of, or 17845
supplementing or otherwise related to the services or facilities 17846
to be provided by, such facilities.17847

       (4) "Cost of community or technical college capital 17848
facilities" means the costs of acquiring, constructing, 17849
reconstructing, rehabilitating, remodeling, renovating, enlarging, 17850
improving, equipping, or furnishing community or technical college 17851
capital facilities, and the financing thereof, including the cost 17852
of clearance and preparation of the site and of any land to be 17853
used in connection with community or technical college capital 17854
facilities, the cost of any indemnity and surety bonds and 17855
premiums on insurance, all related direct administrative expenses 17856
and allocable portions of direct costs of the commission and the 17857
issuing authority, community or technical college or community or 17858
technical college district, cost of engineering, architectural 17859
services, design, plans, specifications and surveys, estimates of 17860
cost, legal fees, fees and expenses of trustees, depositories, 17861
bond registrars, and paying agents for obligations, cost of 17862
issuance of obligations and financing costs and fees and expenses 17863
of financial advisers and consultants in connection therewith, 17864
interest on obligations from the date thereof to the time when 17865
interest is to be covered by available receipts or other sources 17866
other than proceeds of those obligations, amounts necessary to 17867
establish reserves as required by the bond proceedings, costs of 17868
audits, the reimbursements of all moneys advanced or applied by or 17869
borrowed from the community or technical college, community or 17870
technical college district, or others, from whatever source 17871
provided, including any temporary advances from state 17872
appropriations, for the payment of any item or items of cost of 17873
community or technical college facilities, and all other expenses 17874
necessary or incident to planning or determining feasibility or 17875
practicability with respect to such facilities, and such other 17876
expenses as may be necessary or incident to the acquisition, 17877
construction, reconstruction, rehabilitation, remodeling, 17878
renovation, enlargement, improvement, equipment, and furnishing of 17879
community or technical college capital facilities, the financing 17880
thereof and the placing of them in use and operation, including 17881
any one, part of, or combination of such classes of costs and 17882
expenses.17883

       (5) "Capital facilities" includes community or technical 17884
college capital facilities.17885

       (6) "Obligations" has the same meaning as in section 154.01 17886
or 3345.12 of the Revised Code, as the context requires.17887

       (B) The issuing authority is authorized to issue revenue 17888
obligations under Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, 17889
on behalf of a community or technical college district and shall 17890
cause the net proceeds thereof, after any deposits of accrued 17891
interest for the payment of bond service charges and after any 17892
deposit of all or such lesser portion as the issuing authority may 17893
direct of the premium received upon the sale of those obligations 17894
for the payment of the bond service charges, to be applied to the 17895
cost of community or technical college capital facilities, 17896
provided that the issuance of such obligations is subject to the 17897
execution of a written agreement in accordance with division (C) 17898
of section 3333.903333.59 of the Revised Code for the withholding 17899
and depositing of funds otherwise due the district, or the college 17900
it operates, in respect of its allocated state share of 17901
instruction.17902

       (C) The bond service charges and all other payments required 17903
to be made by the trust agreement or indenture securing the 17904
obligations shall be payable solely from available community or 17905
technical college receipts pledged thereto as provided in the 17906
resolution. The available community or technical college receipts 17907
pledged and thereafter received by the commission are immediately 17908
subject to the lien of such pledge without any physical delivery 17909
thereof or further act, and the lien of any such pledge is valid 17910
and binding against all parties having claims of any kind against 17911
the authority, irrespective of whether those parties have notice 17912
thereof, and creates a perfected security interest for all 17913
purposes of Chapter 1309. of the Revised Code and a perfected lien 17914
for purposes of any real property interest, all without the 17915
necessity for separation or delivery of funds or for the filing or 17916
recording of the resolution, trust agreement, indenture, or other 17917
agreement by which such pledge is created or any certificate, 17918
statement, or other document with respect thereto; and the pledge 17919
of such available community or technical college receipts is 17920
effective and the money therefrom and thereof may be applied to 17921
the purposes for which pledged. Every pledge, and every covenant 17922
and agreement made with respect to the pledge, made in the 17923
resolution may therein be extended to the benefit of the owners 17924
and holders of obligations authorized by this section, and to any 17925
trustee therefor, for the further securing of the payment of the 17926
bond service charges, and all or any rights under any agreement or 17927
lease made under this section may be assigned for such purpose.17928

       (D) This section is to be applied with other applicable 17929
provisions of this chapter.17930

       Sec. 156.02.  The executive director of administrative 17931
servicesthe Ohio facilities construction commission may contract 17932
with an energy or a water services company, architect, 17933
professional engineer, contractor, or other person experienced in 17934
the design and implementation of energy or water conservation 17935
measures for a report containing an analysis and recommendations 17936
pertaining to the implementation of energy or water conservation 17937
measures that result in energy, water, or wastewater cost savings, 17938
operating cost savings, or avoided capital costs for the 17939
institution. The report shall include estimates of all costs of 17940
such installations, including the costs of design, engineering, 17941
installation, maintenance, repairs, and debt service, and 17942
estimates of the energy, water, or wastewater cost savings, 17943
operating cost savings, and avoided capital costs created.17944

       Sec. 156.03.  (A) If the executive director of administrative 17945
servicesthe Ohio facilities construction commission wishes to 17946
enter into an installment payment contract pursuant to section 17947
156.04 of the Revised Code or any other contract to implement one 17948
or more energy or water saving measures, the executive director 17949
may proceed under Chapter 153. of the Revised Code, or, 17950
alternatively, the executive director may request the controlling 17951
board to exempt the contract from Chapter 153. of the Revised 17952
Code.17953

       If the controlling board by a majority vote approves an 17954
exemption, that chapter shall not apply to the contract and 17955
instead the executive director shall request proposals from at 17956
least three parties for the implementation of the energy or water 17957
saving measures. Prior to providing any interested party a copy of 17958
any such request, the executive director shall advertise, in a 17959
newspaper of general circulation in the county where the contract 17960
is to be performed, and may advertise by electronic means pursuant 17961
to rules adopted by the executive director, the executive17962
director's intent to request proposals for the implementation of 17963
the energy or water saving measures. The notice shall invite 17964
interested parties to submit proposals for consideration and shall 17965
be published at least thirty days prior to the date for accepting 17966
proposals.17967

       (B) Upon receiving the proposals, the executive director 17968
shall analyze them and, after considering the cost estimates of 17969
each proposal and the availability of funds to pay for each with 17970
current appropriations or by financing the cost of each through an 17971
installment payment contract under section 156.04 of the Revised 17972
Code, may select one or more proposals or reject all proposals. In 17973
selecting proposals, the executive director shall select the one 17974
or more proposals most likely to result in the greatest energy, 17975
water, or wastewater savings, operating costs savings, and avoided 17976
capital costs created.17977

       (C) No contract shall be awarded to implement energy or water 17978
saving measures under this section, unless the executive director 17979
finds that both of the following circumstances exists:17980

       (1) Not less than one-fifteenth of the costs of the contract 17981
shall be paid within two years from the date of purchase;17982

        (2) In the case of a contract for a cogeneration system 17983
described in division (B)(8) of section 156.01 of the Revised 17984
Code, the remaining balance of the cost of the contract shall be 17985
paid within twenty years from the date of purchase, and, in the 17986
case of all other contracts, fifteen years.17987

       Sec. 156.04.  (A) In accordance with this section and section 17988
156.03 of the Revised Code, the executive director of 17989
administrative servicesthe Ohio facilities construction 17990
commission may enter into an installment payment contract for the 17991
implementation of one or more energy or water saving measures. If 17992
the executive director wishes an installment payment contract to 17993
be exempted from Chapter 153. of the Revised Code, the executive17994
director shall proceed pursuant to section 156.03 of the Revised 17995
Code.17996

       (B) Any installment payment contract under this section shall 17997
provide that all payments, except payments for repairs and 17998
obligations on termination of the contract prior to its 17999
expiration, are to be a stated percentage of calculated energy, 18000
water, or wastewater cost savings, operating costs, and avoided 18001
capital costs attributable to the one or more measures over a 18002
defined period of time and are to be made only to the extent that 18003
those calculated amounts actually occur. No such contract shall 18004
contain either of the following:18005

       (1) A requirement of any additional capital investment or 18006
contribution of funds, other than funds available from state or 18007
federal grants;18008

        (2) In the case of a contract for a cogeneration system 18009
described in division (B)(8) of section 156.01 of the Revised 18010
Code, a payment term longer than twenty years, and, in the case of 18011
all other contracts, a payment term longer than fifteen years.18012

       (C) Any installment payment contract entered into under this 18013
section shall terminate no later than the last day of the fiscal 18014
biennium for which funds have been appropriated to the department 18015
of administrative servicesOhio facilities construction commission18016
by the general assembly and shall be renewed in each succeeding 18017
fiscal biennium in which any balance of the contract remains 18018
unpaid, provided that both an appropriation for that succeeding 18019
fiscal biennium and the certification required by section 126.07 18020
of the Revised Code are made.18021

       (D) Any installment payment contract entered into under this 18022
section shall be eligible for financing provided through the Ohio 18023
air quality development authority under Chapter 3706. of the 18024
Revised Code.18025

       Sec. 156.05.  In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 18026
Code, the executive director of administrative servicesthe Ohio 18027
facilities construction commission shall adopt, and enforce rules 18028
necessary to administer sections 156.01 to 156.04 of the Revised 18029
Code. Rules adopted under this section shall establish procedures 18030
by which the executive director may authorize in histhe executive 18031
director's stead the manager of any building owned by the state to 18032
enter into contracts authorized under sections 156.01 to 156.04 of 18033
the Revised Code.18034

       Sec. 166.02.  (A) The general assembly finds that many local 18035
areas throughout the state are experiencing economic stagnation or 18036
decline, and that the economic development programs provided for 18037
in this chapter will constitute deserved, necessary reinvestment 18038
by the state in those areas, materially contribute to their 18039
economic revitalization, and result in improving the economic 18040
welfare of all the people of the state. Accordingly, it is 18041
declared to be the public policy of the state, through the 18042
operations of this chapter and other applicable laws adopted 18043
pursuant to Section 2p or 13 of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, 18044
and other authority vested in the general assembly, to assist in 18045
and facilitate the establishment or development of eligible 18046
projects or assist and cooperate with any governmental agency in 18047
achieving such purpose.18048

       (B) In furtherance of such public policy and to implement 18049
such purpose, the director of development may:18050

       (1) After consultation with appropriate governmental 18051
agencies, enter into agreements with persons engaged in industry, 18052
commerce, distribution, or research and with governmental agencies 18053
to induce such persons to acquire, construct, reconstruct, 18054
rehabilitate, renovate, enlarge, improve, equip, or furnish, or 18055
otherwise develop, eligible projects and make provision therein 18056
for project facilities and governmental actions, as authorized by 18057
this chapter and other applicable laws, subject to any required 18058
actions by the general assembly or the controlling board and 18059
subject to applicable local government laws and regulations;18060

       (2) Provide for the guarantees and loans as provided for in 18061
sections 166.06 and 166.07 of the Revised Code;18062

       (3) Subject to release of such moneys by the controlling 18063
board, contract for labor and materials needed for, or contract 18064
with others, including governmental agencies, to provide, project 18065
facilities the allowable costs of which are to be paid for or 18066
reimbursed from moneys in the facilities establishment fund, and 18067
contract for the operation of such project facilities;18068

       (4) Subject to release thereof by the controlling board, from 18069
moneys in the facilities establishment fund acquire or contract to 18070
acquire by gift, exchange, or purchase, including the obtaining 18071
and exercise of purchase options, property, and convey or 18072
otherwise dispose of, or provide for the conveyance or disposition 18073
of, property so acquired or contracted to be acquired by sale, 18074
exchange, lease, lease purchase, conditional or installment sale, 18075
transfer, or other disposition, including the grant of an option 18076
to purchase, to any governmental agency or to any other person 18077
without necessity for competitive bidding and upon such terms and 18078
conditions and manner of consideration pursuant to and as the 18079
director determines to be appropriate to satisfy the objectives of 18080
sections 166.01 to 166.11 of the Revised Code;18081

       (5) Retain the services of or employ financial consultants, 18082
appraisers, consulting engineers, superintendents, managers, 18083
construction and accounting experts, attorneys, and employees, 18084
agents, and independent contractors as are necessary in the 18085
director's judgment and fix the compensation for their services;18086

       (6) Receive and accept from any person grants, gifts, and 18087
contributions of money, property, labor, and other things of 18088
value, to be held, used and applied only for the purpose for which 18089
such grants, gifts, and contributions are made;18090

       (7) Enter into appropriate arrangements and agreements with 18091
any governmental agency for the taking or provision by that 18092
governmental agency of any governmental action;18093

       (8) Do all other acts and enter into contracts and execute 18094
all instruments necessary or appropriate to carry out the 18095
provisions of this chapter;18096

       (9) Adopt rules to implement any of the provisions of this 18097
chapter applicable to the director.18098

       (C) The determinations by the director that facilities 18099
constitute eligible projects, that facilities are project 18100
facilities, that costs of such facilities are allowable costs, and 18101
all other determinations relevant thereto or to an action taken or 18102
agreement entered into shall be conclusive for purposes of the 18103
validity and enforceability of rights of parties arising from 18104
actions taken and agreements entered into under this chapter.18105

       (D) Except as otherwise prescribed in this chapter, all 18106
expenses and obligations incurred by the director in carrying out 18107
the director's powers and in exercising the director's duties 18108
under this chapter, shall be payable solely from, as appropriate, 18109
moneys in the facilities establishment fund, the loan guarantee 18110
fund, the innovation Ohio loan guarantee fund, the innovation Ohio 18111
loan fund, the research and development loan fund, the logistics 18112
and distribution infrastructure fund, the logistics and 18113
distribution infrastructure taxable bond fund, or moneys 18114
appropriated for such purpose by the general assembly. This 18115
chapter does not authorize the director or the issuing authority 18116
under section 166.08 of the Revised Code to incur bonded 18117
indebtedness of the state or any political subdivision thereof, or 18118
to obligate or pledge moneys raised by taxation for the payment of 18119
any bonds or notes issued or guarantees made pursuant to this 18120
chapter.18121

       (E) Any governmental agency may enter into an agreement with 18122
the director, any other governmental agency, or a person to be 18123
assisted under this chapter, to take or provide for the purposes 18124
of this chapter any governmental action it is authorized to take 18125
or provide, and to undertake on behalf and at the request of the 18126
director any action which the director is authorized to undertake 18127
pursuant to divisions (B)(3), (4), and (5) of this section or 18128
divisions (B)(3), (4), and (5) of section 166.12 of the Revised 18129
Code. Governmental agencies of the state shall cooperate with and 18130
provide assistance to the director of development and the 18131
controlling board in the exercise of their respective functions 18132
under this chapter.18133

       Sec. 166.03.  (A) There is hereby created the facilities 18134
establishment fund within the state treasury, consisting of 18135
proceeds from the issuance of obligations as specified under 18136
section 166.08 of the Revised Code; the moneys received by the 18137
state from the sources specified in section 166.09 of the Revised 18138
Code; service charges imposed under sections 166.06 and 166.07 of 18139
the Revised Code; any grants, gifts, or contributions of moneys 18140
received by the director of development services to be used for 18141
loans made under section 166.07 of the Revised Code or for the 18142
payment of the allowable costs of project facilities; and all 18143
other moneys appropriated or transferred to the fund. Moneys in 18144
the loan guarantee fund in excess of the loan guarantee reserve 18145
requirement, but subject to the provisions and requirements of any 18146
guarantee contracts, may be transferred to the facilities 18147
establishment fund by the treasurer of state upon the order of the 18148
director of development services. Moneys received by the state 18149
under Chapter 122. of the Revised Code, to the extent allocable to 18150
the utilization of moneys derived from proceeds of the sale of 18151
obligations pursuant to section 166.08 of the Revised Code, shall 18152
be credited to the facilities establishment fund. All investment 18153
earnings on the cash balance in the fund shall be credited to the 18154
fund.18155

       (B) All moneys appropriated or transferred to the facilities 18156
establishment fund may be released at the request of the director 18157
of development services for payment of allowable costs or the 18158
making of loans under section 166.07 of the Revised Code, for 18159
transfer to the loan guarantee fund established in section 166.06 18160
of the Revised Code, or for use for the purpose of or transfer to 18161
the funds established by sections 122.35, 122.42, 122.54, 122.55, 18162
122.56, 122.561, 122.57, 122.601, and 122.80 of the Revised Code 18163
and, until July 1, 2003, the fund established by section 166.031 18164
of the Revised Code, and, until July 1, 2007, the fund established 18165
by section 122.26 of the Revised Code, but only for such of those 18166
purposes as are within the authorization of Section 13 of Article 18167
VIII, Ohio Constitution, in all cases subject to the approval of 18168
the controlling board.18169

       (C) The department of development services agency, in the 18170
administration of the facilities establishment fund, is encouraged 18171
to utilize and promote the utilization of, to the maximum 18172
practicable extent, the other existing programs, business 18173
incentives, and tax incentives that department is required or 18174
authorized to administer or supervise.18175

       Sec. 166.04.  (A) Prior to entering into each agreement to 18176
provide assistance under sections 166.02, 166.06, and 166.07 of 18177
the Revised Code, the director of development services shall 18178
determine whether the assistance will conform to the requirements 18179
of sections 166.01 to 166.11 of the Revised Code. Such 18180
determination, and the facts upon which it is based, shall be set 18181
forth, where required, by the director in submissions made to the 18182
controlling board when the director seeks a release of moneys 18183
under section 166.02 of the Revised Code. An agreement to provide 18184
assistance under sections 166.02, 166.06, and 166.07 of the 18185
Revised Code shall set forth such determination, which shall be 18186
conclusive for purposes of the validity and enforceability of such 18187
agreement and any loan guarantees, loans, or other agreements 18188
entered into pursuant to such agreement to provide assistance.18189

       (B) Whenever a person applies for financial assistance under 18190
sections 166.02, 166.06, and 166.07 of the Revised Code and the 18191
project for which assistance is requested is to relocate 18192
facilities that are currently being operated by the person and 18193
that are located in another county, municipal corporation, or 18194
township, the directorperson shall provide written notification 18195
of the relocation to the appropriate local governmental bodies and 18196
state officials. ThePrior to entering into an agreement to 18197
provide the assistance, the director shall verify that such18198
notification shall contain the following information: 18199

       (1) The name of the person applying for financial assistance; 18200

       (2) The county, and the municipal corporation or township, in 18201
which the project for which assistance is requested is located; 18202
and 18203

       (3) The county, and the municipal corporation or township, in 18204
which the facility to be replaced is locatedhas been provided.18205

       (C) As used in division (B) of this section:18206

       (1), "Appropriateappropriate local governmental bodies" 18207
means:18208

       (a)(1) The boardsboard of county commissioners or 18209
legislative authoritiesauthority of the county in which the 18210
project for which assistance is requested is located and of the 18211
county in which the facility to be replaced is located;18212

       (b)(2) The legislative authority of the municipal corporation 18213
or the board of township trustees of the township in which the 18214
project for which assistance is requested is located; and 18215

       (c) The legislative authority of the municipal corporation or 18216
the board of township trustees of the township in which the18217
facility to be replaced is located.18218

       (2) "State officials" means: 18219

       (a) The state representative and state senator in whose 18220
districts the project for which assistance is requested is 18221
located;18222

       (b) The state representative and state senator in whose 18223
districts the facility to be replaced is located. 18224

       Sec. 166.08.  (A) As used in this chapter:18225

       (1) "Bond proceedings" means the resolution, order, trust 18226
agreement, indenture, lease, and other agreements, amendments and 18227
supplements to the foregoing, or any one or more or combination 18228
thereof, authorizing or providing for the terms and conditions 18229
applicable to, or providing for the security or liquidity of, 18230
obligations issued pursuant to this section, and the provisions 18231
contained in such obligations.18232

       (2) "Bond service charges" means principal, including 18233
mandatory sinking fund requirements for retirement of obligations, 18234
and interest, and redemption premium, if any, required to be paid 18235
by the state on obligations.18236

       (3) "Bond service fund" means the applicable fund and 18237
accounts therein created for and pledged to the payment of bond 18238
service charges, which may be, or may be part of, the economic 18239
development bond service fund created by division (S) of this 18240
section including all moneys and investments, and earnings from 18241
investments, credited and to be credited thereto.18242

       (4) "Issuing authority" means the treasurer of state, or the 18243
officer who by law performs the functions of such officer.18244

       (5) "Obligations" means bonds, notes, or other evidence of 18245
obligation including interest coupons pertaining thereto, issued 18246
pursuant to this section.18247

       (6) "Pledged receipts" means all receipts of the state 18248
representing the gross profit on the sale of spirituous liquor, as 18249
referred to in division (B)(4) of section 4301.10 of the Revised 18250
Code, after paying all costs and expenses of the division of 18251
liquor control and providing an adequate working capital reserve 18252
for the division of liquor control as provided in that division, 18253
but excluding the sum required by the second paragraph of section 18254
4301.12 of the Revised Code, as in effect on May 2, 1980, to be 18255
paid into the state treasury; moneys accruing to the state from 18256
the lease, sale, or other disposition, or use, of project 18257
facilities, and from the repayment, including interest, of loans 18258
made from proceeds received from the sale of obligations; accrued 18259
interest received from the sale of obligations; income from the 18260
investment of the special funds; and any gifts, grants, donations, 18261
and pledges, and receipts therefrom, available for the payment of 18262
bond service charges.18263

       (7) "Special funds" or "funds" means, except where the 18264
context does not permit, the bond service fund, and any other 18265
funds, including reserve funds, created under the bond 18266
proceedings, and the economic development bond service fund 18267
created by division (S) of this section to the extent provided in 18268
the bond proceedings, including all moneys and investments, and 18269
earnings from investment, credited and to be credited thereto.18270

       (B) Subject to the limitations provided in section 166.11 of 18271
the Revised Code, the issuing authority, upon the certification by 18272
the director of development or, with respect to eligible advanced 18273
energy projects, the Ohio air quality development authority to the 18274
issuing authority of the amount of moneys or additional moneys 18275
needed in the facilities establishment fund, the loan guarantee 18276
fund, the innovation Ohio loan fund, the innovation Ohio loan 18277
guarantee fund, the research and development loan fund, the 18278
logistics and distribution infrastructure fund, the logistics and 18279
distribution infrastructure taxable bond fund, the advanced energy 18280
research and development fund, or the advanced energy research and 18281
development taxable fund, as applicable, for the purpose of 18282
paying, or making loans for, allowable costs from the facilities 18283
establishment fund, allowable innovation costs from the innovation 18284
Ohio loan fund, allowable costs from the research and development 18285
loan fund, allowable costs from the logistics and distribution 18286
infrastructure fund, allowable costs from the logistics and 18287
distribution infrastructure taxable bond fund, allowable costs 18288
from the advanced energy research and development fund, or 18289
allowable costs from the advanced energy research and development 18290
taxable fund, as applicable, or needed for capitalized interest, 18291
for funding reserves, and for paying costs and expenses incurred 18292
in connection with the issuance, carrying, securing, paying, 18293
redeeming, or retirement of the obligations or any obligations 18294
refunded thereby, including payment of costs and expenses relating 18295
to letters of credit, lines of credit, insurance, put agreements, 18296
standby purchase agreements, indexing, marketing, remarketing and 18297
administrative arrangements, interest swap or hedging agreements, 18298
and any other credit enhancement, liquidity, remarketing, renewal, 18299
or refunding arrangements, all of which are authorized by this 18300
section, or providing moneys for the loan guarantee fund or the 18301
innovation Ohio loan guarantee fund, as provided in this chapter 18302
or needed for the purposes of funds established in accordance with 18303
or pursuant to sections 122.35, 122.42, 122.54, 122.55, 122.56, 18304
122.561, 122.57, and 122.80 of the Revised Code which are within 18305
the authorization of Section 13 of Article VIII, Ohio 18306
Constitution, or, with respect to certain eligible advanced energy 18307
projects, Section 2p of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, shall 18308
issue obligations of the state under this section in the required 18309
amount; provided that such obligations may be issued to satisfy 18310
the covenants in contracts of guarantee made under section 166.06 18311
or 166.15 of the Revised Code, notwithstanding limitations 18312
otherwise applicable to the issuance of obligations under this 18313
section. The proceeds of such obligations, except for the portion 18314
to be deposited in special funds, including reserve funds, as may 18315
be provided in the bond proceedings, shall as provided in the bond 18316
proceedings be deposited by the director of development to the 18317
facilities establishment fund, the loan guarantee fund, the 18318
innovation Ohio loan guarantee fund, the innovation Ohio loan 18319
fund, the research and development loan fund, or the logistics and 18320
distribution infrastructure fund, or the logistics and 18321
distribution infrastructure taxable bond fund, or be deposited by 18322
the Ohio air quality development authority to the advanced energy 18323
research and development fund or the advanced energy research and 18324
development taxable fund. Bond proceedings for project financing 18325
obligations may provide that the proceeds derived from the 18326
issuance of such obligations shall be deposited into such fund or 18327
funds provided for in the bond proceedings and, to the extent 18328
provided for in the bond proceedings, such proceeds shall be 18329
deemed to have been deposited into the facilities establishment 18330
fund and transferred to such fund or funds. The issuing authority 18331
may appoint trustees, paying agents, and transfer agents and may 18332
retain the services of financial advisors, accounting experts, and 18333
attorneys, and retain or contract for the services of marketing, 18334
remarketing, indexing, and administrative agents, other 18335
consultants, and independent contractors, including printing 18336
services, as are necessary in the issuing authority's judgment to 18337
carry out this section. The costs of such services are allowable 18338
costs payable from the facilities establishment fund or the 18339
research and development loan fund, allowable innovation costs 18340
payable from the innovation Ohio loan fund, or allowable costs 18341
payable from the logistics and distribution infrastructure fund, 18342
the logistics and distribution infrastructure taxable bond fund,18343
the advanced energy research and development fund, or the advanced 18344
energy research and development taxable fund, as applicable.18345

       (C) The holders or owners of such obligations shall have no 18346
right to have moneys raised by taxation obligated or pledged, and 18347
moneys raised by taxation shall not be obligated or pledged, for 18348
the payment of bond service charges. Such holders or owners shall 18349
have no rights to payment of bond service charges from any moneys 18350
accruing to the state from the lease, sale, or other disposition, 18351
or use, of project facilities, or from payment of the principal of 18352
or interest on loans made, or fees charged for guarantees made, or 18353
from any money or property received by the director, treasurer of 18354
state, or the state under Chapter 122. of the Revised Code, or 18355
from any other use of the proceeds of the sale of the obligations, 18356
and no such moneys may be used for the payment of bond service 18357
charges, except for accrued interest, capitalized interest, and 18358
reserves funded from proceeds received upon the sale of the 18359
obligations and except as otherwise expressly provided in the 18360
applicable bond proceedings pursuant to written directions by the 18361
director. The right of such holders and owners to payment of bond 18362
service charges is limited to all or that portion of the pledged 18363
receipts and those special funds pledged thereto pursuant to the 18364
bond proceedings in accordance with this section, and each such 18365
obligation shall bear on its face a statement to that effect.18366

       (D) Obligations shall be authorized by resolution or order of 18367
the issuing authority and the bond proceedings shall provide for 18368
the purpose thereof and the principal amount or amounts, and shall 18369
provide for or authorize the manner or agency for determining the 18370
principal maturity or maturities, not exceeding twenty-five years 18371
from the date of issuance, the interest rate or rates or the 18372
maximum interest rate, the date of the obligations and the dates 18373
of payment of interest thereon, their denomination, and the 18374
establishment within or without the state of a place or places of 18375
payment of bond service charges. Sections 9.98 to 9.983 of the 18376
Revised Code are applicable to obligations issued under this 18377
section, subject to any applicable limitation under section 166.11 18378
of the Revised Code. The purpose of such obligations may be stated 18379
in the bond proceedings in terms describing the general purpose or 18380
purposes to be served. The bond proceedings also shall provide, 18381
subject to the provisions of any other applicable bond 18382
proceedings, for the pledge of all, or such part as the issuing 18383
authority may determine, of the pledged receipts and the 18384
applicable special fund or funds to the payment of bond service 18385
charges, which pledges may be made either prior or subordinate to 18386
other expenses, claims, or payments, and may be made to secure the 18387
obligations on a parity with obligations theretofore or thereafter 18388
issued, if and to the extent provided in the bond proceedings. The 18389
pledged receipts and special funds so pledged and thereafter 18390
received by the state are immediately subject to the lien of such 18391
pledge without any physical delivery thereof or further act, and 18392
the lien of any such pledges is valid and binding against all 18393
parties having claims of any kind against the state or any 18394
governmental agency of the state, irrespective of whether such 18395
parties have notice thereof, and shall create a perfected security 18396
interest for all purposes of Chapter 1309. of the Revised Code, 18397
without the necessity for separation or delivery of funds or for 18398
the filing or recording of the bond proceedings by which such 18399
pledge is created or any certificate, statement or other document 18400
with respect thereto; and the pledge of such pledged receipts and 18401
special funds is effective and the money therefrom and thereof may 18402
be applied to the purposes for which pledged without necessity for 18403
any act of appropriation. Every pledge, and every covenant and 18404
agreement made with respect thereto, made in the bond proceedings 18405
may therein be extended to the benefit of the owners and holders 18406
of obligations authorized by this section, and to any trustee 18407
therefor, for the further security of the payment of the bond 18408
service charges.18409

       (E) The bond proceedings may contain additional provisions as 18410
to:18411

       (1) The redemption of obligations prior to maturity at the 18412
option of the issuing authority at such price or prices and under 18413
such terms and conditions as are provided in the bond proceedings;18414

       (2) Other terms of the obligations;18415

       (3) Limitations on the issuance of additional obligations;18416

       (4) The terms of any trust agreement or indenture securing 18417
the obligations or under which the same may be issued;18418

       (5) The deposit, investment and application of special funds, 18419
and the safeguarding of moneys on hand or on deposit, without 18420
regard to Chapter 131. or 135. of the Revised Code, but subject to 18421
any special provisions of this chapter, with respect to particular 18422
funds or moneys, provided that any bank or trust company which 18423
acts as depository of any moneys in the special funds may furnish 18424
such indemnifying bonds or may pledge such securities as required 18425
by the issuing authority;18426

       (6) Any or every provision of the bond proceedings being 18427
binding upon such officer, board, commission, authority, agency, 18428
department, or other person or body as may from time to time have 18429
the authority under law to take such actions as may be necessary 18430
to perform all or any part of the duty required by such provision;18431

       (7) Any provision that may be made in a trust agreement or 18432
indenture;18433

       (8) Any other or additional agreements with the holders of 18434
the obligations, or the trustee therefor, relating to the 18435
obligations or the security therefor, including the assignment of 18436
mortgages or other security obtained or to be obtained for loans 18437
under section 122.43, 166.07, or 166.16 of the Revised Code.18438

       (F) The obligations may have the great seal of the state or a 18439
facsimile thereof affixed thereto or printed thereon. The 18440
obligations and any coupons pertaining to obligations shall be 18441
signed or bear the facsimile signature of the issuing authority. 18442
Any obligations or coupons may be executed by the person who, on 18443
the date of execution, is the proper issuing authority although on 18444
the date of such bonds or coupons such person was not the issuing 18445
authority. If the issuing authority whose signature or a facsimile 18446
of whose signature appears on any such obligation or coupon ceases 18447
to be the issuing authority before delivery thereof, such 18448
signature or facsimile is nevertheless valid and sufficient for 18449
all purposes as if the former issuing authority had remained the 18450
issuing authority until such delivery; and if the seal to be 18451
affixed to obligations has been changed after a facsimile of the 18452
seal has been imprinted on such obligations, such facsimile seal 18453
shall continue to be sufficient as to such obligations and 18454
obligations issued in substitution or exchange therefor.18455

       (G) All obligations are negotiable instruments and securities 18456
under Chapter 1308. of the Revised Code, subject to the provisions 18457
of the bond proceedings as to registration. The obligations may be 18458
issued in coupon or in registered form, or both, as the issuing 18459
authority determines. Provision may be made for the registration 18460
of any obligations with coupons attached thereto as to principal 18461
alone or as to both principal and interest, their exchange for 18462
obligations so registered, and for the conversion or reconversion 18463
into obligations with coupons attached thereto of any obligations 18464
registered as to both principal and interest, and for reasonable 18465
charges for such registration, exchange, conversion, and 18466
reconversion.18467

       (H) Obligations may be sold at public sale or at private 18468
sale, as determined in the bond proceedings.18469

       Obligations issued to provide moneys for the loan guarantee 18470
fund or the innovation Ohio loan guarantee fund may, as determined 18471
by the issuing authority, be sold at private sale, and without 18472
publication of a notice of sale.18473

       (I) Pending preparation of definitive obligations, the 18474
issuing authority may issue interim receipts or certificates which 18475
shall be exchanged for such definitive obligations.18476

       (J) In the discretion of the issuing authority, obligations 18477
may be secured additionally by a trust agreement or indenture 18478
between the issuing authority and a corporate trustee which may be 18479
any trust company or bank having a place of business within the 18480
state. Any such agreement or indenture may contain the resolution 18481
or order authorizing the issuance of the obligations, any 18482
provisions that may be contained in any bond proceedings, and 18483
other provisions which are customary or appropriate in an 18484
agreement or indenture of such type, including, but not limited 18485
to:18486

       (1) Maintenance of each pledge, trust agreement, indenture, 18487
or other instrument comprising part of the bond proceedings until 18488
the state has fully paid the bond service charges on the 18489
obligations secured thereby, or provision therefor has been made;18490

       (2) In the event of default in any payments required to be 18491
made by the bond proceedings, or any other agreement of the 18492
issuing authority made as a part of the contract under which the 18493
obligations were issued, enforcement of such payments or agreement 18494
by mandamus, the appointment of a receiver, suit in equity, action 18495
at law, or any combination of the foregoing;18496

       (3) The rights and remedies of the holders of obligations and 18497
of the trustee, and provisions for protecting and enforcing them, 18498
including limitations on rights of individual holders of 18499
obligations;18500

       (4) The replacement of any obligations that become mutilated 18501
or are destroyed, lost, or stolen;18502

       (5) Such other provisions as the trustee and the issuing 18503
authority agree upon, including limitations, conditions, or 18504
qualifications relating to any of the foregoing.18505

       (K) Any holders of obligations or trustees under the bond 18506
proceedings, except to the extent that their rights are restricted 18507
by the bond proceedings, may by any suitable form of legal 18508
proceedings, protect and enforce any rights under the laws of this 18509
state or granted by such bond proceedings. Such rights include the 18510
right to compel the performance of all duties of the issuing 18511
authority, the director of development, the Ohio air quality 18512
development authority, or the division of liquor control required 18513
by this chapter or the bond proceedings; to enjoin unlawful 18514
activities; and in the event of default with respect to the 18515
payment of any bond service charges on any obligations or in the 18516
performance of any covenant or agreement on the part of the 18517
issuing authority, the director of development, the Ohio air 18518
quality development authority, or the division of liquor control 18519
in the bond proceedings, to apply to a court having jurisdiction 18520
of the cause to appoint a receiver to receive and administer the 18521
pledged receipts and special funds, other than those in the 18522
custody of the treasurer of state, which are pledged to the 18523
payment of the bond service charges on such obligations or which 18524
are the subject of the covenant or agreement, with full power to 18525
pay, and to provide for payment of bond service charges on, such 18526
obligations, and with such powers, subject to the direction of the 18527
court, as are accorded receivers in general equity cases, 18528
excluding any power to pledge additional revenues or receipts or 18529
other income or moneys of the issuing authority or the state or 18530
governmental agencies of the state to the payment of such 18531
principal and interest and excluding the power to take possession 18532
of, mortgage, or cause the sale or otherwise dispose of any 18533
project facilities.18534

       Each duty of the issuing authority and the issuing 18535
authority's officers and employees, and of each governmental 18536
agency and its officers, members, or employees, undertaken 18537
pursuant to the bond proceedings or any agreement or lease, 18538
lease-purchase agreement, or loan made under authority of this 18539
chapter, and in every agreement by or with the issuing authority, 18540
is hereby established as a duty of the issuing authority, and of 18541
each such officer, member, or employee having authority to perform 18542
such duty, specifically enjoined by the law resulting from an 18543
office, trust, or station within the meaning of section 2731.01 of 18544
the Revised Code.18545

       The person who is at the time the issuing authority, or the 18546
issuing authority's officers or employees, are not liable in their 18547
personal capacities on any obligations issued by the issuing 18548
authority or any agreements of or with the issuing authority.18549

       (L) The issuing authority may authorize and issue obligations 18550
for the refunding, including funding and retirement, and advance 18551
refunding with or without payment or redemption prior to maturity, 18552
of any obligations previously issued by the issuing authority. 18553
Such obligations may be issued in amounts sufficient for payment 18554
of the principal amount of the prior obligations, any redemption 18555
premiums thereon, principal maturities of any such obligations 18556
maturing prior to the redemption of the remaining obligations on a 18557
parity therewith, interest accrued or to accrue to the maturity 18558
dates or dates of redemption of such obligations, and any 18559
allowable costs including expenses incurred or to be incurred in 18560
connection with such issuance and such refunding, funding, and 18561
retirement. Subject to the bond proceedings therefor, the portion 18562
of proceeds of the sale of obligations issued under this division 18563
to be applied to bond service charges on the prior obligations 18564
shall be credited to an appropriate account held by the trustee 18565
for such prior or new obligations or to the appropriate account in 18566
the bond service fund for such obligations. Obligations authorized 18567
under this division shall be deemed to be issued for those 18568
purposes for which such prior obligations were issued and are 18569
subject to the provisions of this section pertaining to other 18570
obligations, except as otherwise provided in this section; 18571
provided that, unless otherwise authorized by the general 18572
assembly, any limitations imposed by the general assembly pursuant 18573
to this section with respect to bond service charges applicable to 18574
the prior obligations shall be applicable to the obligations 18575
issued under this division to refund, fund, advance refund or 18576
retire such prior obligations.18577

       (M) The authority to issue obligations under this section 18578
includes authority to issue obligations in the form of bond 18579
anticipation notes and to renew the same from time to time by the 18580
issuance of new notes. The holders of such notes or interest 18581
coupons pertaining thereto shall have a right to be paid solely 18582
from the pledged receipts and special funds that may be pledged to 18583
the payment of the bonds anticipated, or from the proceeds of such 18584
bonds or renewal notes, or both, as the issuing authority provides 18585
in the resolution or order authorizing such notes. Such notes may 18586
be additionally secured by covenants of the issuing authority to 18587
the effect that the issuing authority and the state will do such 18588
or all things necessary for the issuance of such bonds or renewal 18589
notes in appropriate amount, and apply the proceeds thereof to the 18590
extent necessary, to make full payment of the principal of and 18591
interest on such notes at the time or times contemplated, as 18592
provided in such resolution or order. For such purpose, the 18593
issuing authority may issue bonds or renewal notes in such 18594
principal amount and upon such terms as may be necessary to 18595
provide funds to pay when required the principal of and interest 18596
on such notes, notwithstanding any limitations prescribed by or 18597
for purposes of this section. Subject to this division, all 18598
provisions for and references to obligations in this section are 18599
applicable to notes authorized under this division.18600

       The issuing authority in the bond proceedings authorizing the 18601
issuance of bond anticipation notes shall set forth for such bonds 18602
an estimated interest rate and a schedule of principal payments 18603
for such bonds and the annual maturity dates thereof, and for 18604
purposes of any limitation on bond service charges prescribed 18605
under division (A) of section 166.11 of the Revised Code, the 18606
amount of bond service charges on such bond anticipation notes is 18607
deemed to be the bond service charges for the bonds anticipated 18608
thereby as set forth in the bond proceedings applicable to such 18609
notes, but this provision does not modify any authority in this 18610
section to pledge receipts and special funds to, and covenant to 18611
issue bonds to fund, the payment of principal of and interest and 18612
any premium on such notes.18613

       (N) Obligations issued under this section are lawful 18614
investments for banks, societies for savings, savings and loan 18615
associations, deposit guarantee associations, trust companies, 18616
trustees, fiduciaries, insurance companies, including domestic for 18617
life and domestic not for life, trustees or other officers having 18618
charge of sinking and bond retirement or other special funds of 18619
political subdivisions and taxing districts of this state, the 18620
commissioners of the sinking fund of the state, the administrator 18621
of workers' compensation, the state teachers retirement system, 18622
the public employees retirement system, the school employees 18623
retirement system, and the Ohio police and fire pension fund, 18624
notwithstanding any other provisions of the Revised Code or rules 18625
adopted pursuant thereto by any governmental agency of the state 18626
with respect to investments by them, and are also acceptable as 18627
security for the deposit of public moneys.18628

       (O) Unless otherwise provided in any applicable bond 18629
proceedings, moneys to the credit of or in the special funds 18630
established by or pursuant to this section may be invested by or 18631
on behalf of the issuing authority only in notes, bonds, or other 18632
obligations of the United States, or of any agency or 18633
instrumentality of the United States, obligations guaranteed as to 18634
principal and interest by the United States, obligations of this 18635
state or any political subdivision of this state, and certificates 18636
of deposit of any national bank located in this state and any 18637
bank, as defined in section 1101.01 of the Revised Code, subject 18638
to inspection by the superintendent of banks. If the law or the 18639
instrument creating a trust pursuant to division (J) of this 18640
section expressly permits investment in direct obligations of the 18641
United States or an agency of the United States, unless expressly 18642
prohibited by the instrument, such moneys also may be invested in 18643
no-front-end-load money market mutual funds consisting exclusively 18644
of obligations of the United States or an agency of the United 18645
States and in repurchase agreements, including those issued by the 18646
fiduciary itself, secured by obligations of the United States or 18647
an agency of the United States; and in common trust funds 18648
established in accordance with section 1111.20 of the Revised Code 18649
and consisting exclusively of any such securities, notwithstanding 18650
division (A)(4) of that section. The income from such investments 18651
shall be credited to such funds as the issuing authority 18652
determines, and such investments may be sold at such times as the 18653
issuing authority determines or authorizes.18654

       (P) Provision may be made in the applicable bond proceedings 18655
for the establishment of separate accounts in the bond service 18656
fund and for the application of such accounts only to the 18657
specified bond service charges on obligations pertinent to such 18658
accounts and bond service fund and for other accounts therein 18659
within the general purposes of such fund. Unless otherwise 18660
provided in any applicable bond proceedings, moneys to the credit 18661
of or in the several special funds established pursuant to this 18662
section shall be disbursed on the order of the treasurer of state, 18663
provided that no such order is required for the payment from the 18664
bond service fund when due of bond service charges on obligations.18665

       (Q) The issuing authority may pledge all, or such portion as 18666
the issuing authority determines, of the pledged receipts to the 18667
payment of bond service charges on obligations issued under this 18668
section, and for the establishment and maintenance of any 18669
reserves, as provided in the bond proceedings, and make other 18670
provisions therein with respect to pledged receipts as authorized 18671
by this chapter, which provisions are controlling notwithstanding 18672
any other provisions of law pertaining thereto.18673

       (R) The issuing authority may covenant in the bond 18674
proceedings, and any such covenants are controlling 18675
notwithstanding any other provision of law, that the state and 18676
applicable officers and governmental agencies of the state, 18677
including the general assembly, so long as any obligations are 18678
outstanding, shall:18679

       (1) Maintain statutory authority for and cause to be charged 18680
and collected wholesale and retail prices for spirituous liquor 18681
sold by the state or its agents so that the pledged receipts are 18682
sufficient in amount to meet bond service charges, and the 18683
establishment and maintenance of any reserves and other 18684
requirements provided for in the bond proceedings, and, as 18685
necessary, to meet covenants contained in contracts of guarantee 18686
made under section 166.06 of the Revised Code;18687

       (2) Take or permit no action, by statute or otherwise, that 18688
would impair the exemption from federal income taxation of the 18689
interest on the obligations.18690

       (S) There is hereby created the economic development bond 18691
service fund, which shall be in the custody of the treasurer of 18692
state but shall be separate and apart from and not a part of the 18693
state treasury. All moneys received by or on account of the 18694
issuing authority or state agencies and required by the applicable 18695
bond proceedings, consistent with this section, to be deposited, 18696
transferred, or credited to a bond service fund or the economic 18697
development bond service fund, and all other moneys transferred or 18698
allocated to or received for the purposes of the fund, shall be 18699
deposited and credited to such fund and to any separate accounts 18700
therein, subject to applicable provisions of the bond proceedings, 18701
but without necessity for any act of appropriation. During the 18702
period beginning with the date of the first issuance of 18703
obligations and continuing during such time as any such 18704
obligations are outstanding, and so long as moneys in the 18705
pertinent bond service funds are insufficient to pay all bond 18706
services charges on such obligations becoming due in each year, a 18707
sufficient amount of the gross profit on the sale of spirituous 18708
liquor included in pledged receipts are committed and shall be 18709
paid to the bond service fund or economic development bond service 18710
fund in each year for the purpose of paying the bond service 18711
charges becoming due in that year without necessity for further 18712
act of appropriation for such purpose and notwithstanding anything 18713
to the contrary in Chapter 4301. of the Revised Code. The economic 18714
development bond service fund is a trust fund and is hereby 18715
pledged to the payment of bond service charges to the extent 18716
provided in the applicable bond proceedings, and payment thereof 18717
from such fund shall be made or provided for by the treasurer of 18718
state in accordance with such bond proceedings without necessity 18719
for any act of appropriation.18720

       (T) The obligations, the transfer thereof, and the income 18721
therefrom, including any profit made on the sale thereof, shall at 18722
all times be free from taxation within the state.18723

       Sec. 166.25. (A) The director of development services, with 18724
the approval of the controlling board and subject to the other 18725
applicable provisions of this chapter, may lend money in the 18726
logistics and distribution infrastructure fund and the logistics 18727
and distribution infrastructure taxable bond fund to persons for 18728
the purpose of paying allowable costs of eligible logistics and 18729
distribution projects.18730

       (B) In determining the eligible logistics and distribution 18731
projects to be assisted and the nature, amount, and terms of 18732
assistance to be provided for an eligible logistics and 18733
distribution project, the director shall consult with appropriate 18734
governmental agencies, including the department of transportation 18735
and the Ohio rail development commission.18736

       (C) Any loan made pursuant to this section shall be evidenced 18737
by a loan agreement, which shall contain such terms as the 18738
director determines necessary or appropriate, including 18739
performance measures and reporting requirements. The director may 18740
take actions necessary or appropriate to collect or otherwise deal 18741
with any loan made under this section, including requiring a loan 18742
recipient to repay the amount of the loan plus interest at a rate 18743
of three per cent above the federal short term interest rate or 18744
any other rate determined by the director.18745

       Sec. 167.03.  (A) The council shall have the power to:18746

       (1) Study such area governmental problems common to two or 18747
more members of the council as it deems appropriate, including but 18748
not limited to matters affecting health, safety, welfare, 18749
education, economic conditions, and regional development;18750

       (2) Promote cooperative arrangements and coordinate action 18751
among its members, and between its members and other agencies of 18752
local or state governments, whether or not within Ohio, and the 18753
federal government;18754

       (3) Make recommendations for review and action to the members 18755
and other public agencies that perform functions within the 18756
region;18757

       (4) Promote cooperative agreements and contracts among its 18758
members or other governmental agencies and private persons, 18759
corporations, or agencies;18760

       (5) Operate a public safety answering point in accordance 18761
with Chapter 5507128. of the Revised Code;18762

       (6) Perform planning directly by personnel of the council, or 18763
under contracts between the council and other public or private 18764
planning agencies.18765

       (B) The council may:18766

       (1) Review, evaluate, comment upon, and make recommendations, 18767
relative to the planning and programming, and the location, 18768
financing, and scheduling of public facility projects within the 18769
region and affecting the development of the area;18770

       (2) Act as an areawide agency to perform comprehensive 18771
planning for the programming, locating, financing, and scheduling 18772
of public facility projects within the region and affecting the 18773
development of the area and for other proposed land development or 18774
uses, which projects or uses have public metropolitan wide or 18775
interjurisdictional significance;18776

       (3) Act as an agency for coordinating, based on metropolitan 18777
wide comprehensive planning and programming, local public 18778
policies, and activities affecting the development of the region 18779
or area.18780

       (C) The council may, by appropriate action of the governing 18781
bodies of the members, perform such other functions and duties as 18782
are performed or capable of performance by the members and 18783
necessary or desirable for dealing with problems of mutual 18784
concern.18785

       (D) The authority granted to the council by this section or 18786
in any agreement by the members thereof shall not displace any 18787
existing municipal, county, regional, or other planning commission 18788
or planning agency in the exercise of its statutory powers.18789

       Sec. 169.02.  Subject to division (B) of section 169.01 of 18790
the Revised Code, the following constitute unclaimed funds:18791

       (A) Except as provided in division (R) of this section, any 18792
demand, savings, or matured time deposit account, or matured 18793
certificate of deposit, together with any interest or dividend on 18794
it, less any lawful claims, that is held or owed by a holder which 18795
is a financial organization, unclaimed for a period of five years;18796

       (B) Any funds paid toward the purchase of withdrawable shares 18797
or other interest in a financial organization, and any interest or 18798
dividends on them, less any lawful claims, that is held or owed by 18799
a holder which is a financial organization, unclaimed for a period 18800
of five years;18801

       (C) Except as provided in division (A) of section 3903.45 of 18802
the Revised Code, moneys held or owed by a holder, including a 18803
fraternal association, providing life insurance, including annuity 18804
or endowment coverage, unclaimed for three years after becoming 18805
payable as established from the records of such holder under any 18806
life or endowment insurance policy or annuity contract that has 18807
matured or terminated. An insurance policy, the proceeds of which 18808
are payable on the death of the insured, not matured by proof of 18809
death of the insured is deemed matured and the proceeds payable if 18810
such policy was in force when the insured attained the limiting 18811
age under the mortality table on which the reserve is based.18812

       Moneys otherwise payable according to the records of such 18813
holder are deemed payable although the policy or contract has not 18814
been surrendered as required.18815

       (D) Any deposit made to secure payment or any sum paid in 18816
advance for utility services of a public utility and any amount 18817
refundable from rates or charges collected by a public utility for 18818
utility services held or owed by a holder, less any lawful claims, 18819
that has remained unclaimed for one year after the termination of 18820
the services for which the deposit or advance payment was made or 18821
one year from the date the refund was payable, whichever is 18822
earlier;18823

       (E) Except as provided in division (R) of this section, any 18824
certificates, securities as defined in section 1707.01 of the 18825
Revised Code, nonwithdrawable shares, other instruments evidencing 18826
ownership, or rights to them or funds paid toward the purchase of 18827
them, or any dividend, capital credit, profit, distribution, 18828
interest, or payment on principal or other sum, held or owed by a 18829
holder, including funds deposited with a fiscal agent or fiduciary 18830
for payment of them, and instruments representing an ownership 18831
interest, unclaimed for five years. Any underlying share or other 18832
intangible instrument representing an ownership interest in a 18833
business association, in which the issuer has recorded on its 18834
books the issuance of the share but has been unable to deliver the 18835
certificate to the shareholder, constitutes unclaimed funds if 18836
such underlying share is unclaimed for five years. In addition, an 18837
underlying share constitutes unclaimed funds if a dividend, 18838
distribution, or other sum payable as a result of the underlying 18839
share has remained unclaimed by the owner for five years.18840

       This division shall not prejudice the rights of fiscal agents 18841
or fiduciaries for payment to return the items described in this 18842
division to their principals, according to the terms of an agency 18843
or fiduciary agreement, but such a return shall constitute the 18844
principal as the holder of the items and shall not interrupt the 18845
period for computing the time for which the items have remained 18846
unclaimed.18847

       In the case of any such funds accruing and held or owed by a 18848
corporation under division (E) of section 1701.24 of the Revised 18849
Code, such corporation shall comply with this chapter, subject to 18850
the limitation contained in section 1701.34 of the Revised Code. 18851
The period of time for which such funds have gone unclaimed 18852
specified in section 1701.34 of the Revised Code shall be 18853
computed, with respect to dividends or distributions, commencing 18854
as of the dates when such dividends or distributions would have 18855
been payable to the shareholder had such shareholder surrendered 18856
the certificates for cancellation and exchange by the date 18857
specified in the order relating to them.18858

       Capital credits of a cooperative which after January 1, 1972, 18859
have been allocated to members and which by agreement are 18860
expressly required to be paid if claimed after death of the owner 18861
are deemed payable, for the purpose of this chapter, fifteen years 18862
after either the termination of service by the cooperative to the 18863
owner or upon the nonactivity as provided in division (B) of 18864
section 169.01 of the Revised Code, whichever occurs later, 18865
provided that this provision does not apply if the payment is not 18866
mandatory.18867

       (F) Any sum payable on certified checks or other written 18868
instruments certified or issued and representing funds held or 18869
owed by a holder, less any lawful claims, that are unclaimed for 18870
five years from the date payable or from the date of issuance if 18871
payable on demand; except that the unclaimed period for money 18872
orders that are not third party bank checks is seven years, and 18873
the unclaimed period for traveler's checks is fifteen years, from 18874
the date payable or from the date of issuance if payable on 18875
demand.18876

       As used in this division, "written instruments" include, but 18877
are not limited to, certified checks, cashier's checks, bills of 18878
exchange, letters of credit, drafts, money orders, and traveler's 18879
checks.18880

       If there is no address of record for the owner or other 18881
person entitled to the funds, such address is presumed to be the 18882
address where the instrument was certified or issued.18883

       (G) Except as provided in division (R) of this section, all 18884
moneys, rights to moneys, or other intangible property, arising 18885
out of the business of engaging in the purchase or sale of 18886
securities, or otherwise dealing in intangibles, less any lawful 18887
claims, that are held or owed by a holder and are unclaimed for 18888
five years from the date of transaction.18889

       (H) Except as provided in division (A) of section 3903.45 of 18890
the Revised Code, all moneys, rights to moneys, and other 18891
intangible property distributable in the course of dissolution or 18892
liquidation of a holder that are unclaimed for one year after the 18893
date set by the holder for distribution;18894

       (I) All moneys, rights to moneys, or other intangible 18895
property removed from a safe-deposit box or other safekeeping 18896
repository located in this state or removed from a safe-deposit 18897
box or other safekeeping repository of a holder, on which the 18898
lease or rental period has expired, or any amount arising from the 18899
sale of such property, less any lawful claims, that are unclaimed 18900
for three years from the date on which the lease or rental period 18901
expired;18902

       (J) Subject to division (M)(2) of this section, all moneys, 18903
rights to moneys, or other intangible property, and any income or 18904
increment on them, held or owed by a holder which is a fiduciary 18905
for the benefit of another, or a fiduciary or custodian of a 18906
qualified retirement plan or individual retirement arrangement 18907
under section 401 or 408 of the Internal Revenue Code, unclaimed 18908
for three years after the final date for distribution;18909

       (K) All moneys, rights to moneys, or other intangible 18910
property held or owed in this state or held for or owed to an 18911
owner whose last known address is within this state, by the United 18912
States government or any state, as those terms are described in 18913
division (E) of section 169.01 of the Revised Code, unclaimed by 18914
the owner for three years, excluding any property in the control 18915
of any court in a proceeding in which a final adjudication has not 18916
been made;18917

       (L) Amounts payable pursuant to the terms of any policy of 18918
insurance, other than life insurance, or any refund available 18919
under such a policy, held or owed by any holder, unclaimed for 18920
three years from the date payable or distributable;18921

       (M)(1) Subject to division (M)(2) of this section, any funds 18922
constituting rents or lease payments due, any deposit made to 18923
secure payment of rents or leases, or any sum paid in advance for 18924
rents, leases, possible damage to property, unused services, 18925
performance requirements, or any other purpose, held or owed by a 18926
holder unclaimed for one year;18927

       (2) Any escrow funds, security deposits, or other moneys that 18928
are received by a licensed broker in a fiduciary capacity and 18929
that, pursuant to division (A)(26) of section 4735.18 of the 18930
Revised Code, are required to be deposited into and maintained in 18931
a special or trust, noninterest-bearing bank account separate and 18932
distinct from any personal or other account of the licensed 18933
broker, held or owed by the licensed broker unclaimed for two 18934
years.18935

       (N) Any sum greater than fifty dollars payable as wages, any 18936
sum payable as salaries or commissions, any sum payable for 18937
services rendered, funds owed or held as royalties, oil and 18938
mineral proceeds, funds held for or owed to suppliers, and moneys 18939
owed under pension and profit-sharing plans, held or owed by any 18940
holder unclaimed for one year from date payable or distributable, 18941
and all other credits held or owed, or to be refunded to a retail 18942
customer, by any holder unclaimed for three years from date 18943
payable or distributable;18944

       (O) Amounts held in respect of or represented by lay-aways 18945
sold after January 1, 1972, less any lawful claims, when such 18946
lay-aways are unclaimed for three years after the sale of them;18947

       (P) All moneys, rights to moneys, and other intangible 18948
property not otherwise constituted as unclaimed funds by this 18949
section, including any income or increment on them, less any 18950
lawful claims, which are held or owed by any holder, other than a 18951
holder which holds a permit issued pursuant to Chapter 3769. of 18952
the Revised Code, and which have remained unclaimed for three 18953
years after becoming payable or distributable;18954

       (Q) All moneys that arise out of a sale held pursuant to 18955
section 5322.03 of the Revised Code, that are held by a holder for 18956
delivery on demand to the appropriate person pursuant to division 18957
(I) of that section, and that are unclaimed for two years after 18958
the date of the sale.18959

       (R)(1) Any funds that are subject to an agreement between the 18960
holder and owner providing for automatic reinvestment and that 18961
constitute dividends, distributions, or other sums held or owed by 18962
a holder in connection with a security as defined in section 18963
1707.01 of the Revised Code, an ownership interest in an 18964
investment company registered under the "Investment Company Act of 18965
1940," 54 Stat. 789, 15 U.S.C. 80a-1, as amended, or a certificate 18966
of deposit, unclaimed for a period of five years.18967

       (2) The five-year period under division (R)(1) of this 18968
section commences from the date a second shareholder notification 18969
or communication mailing to the owner of the funds is returned to 18970
the holder as undeliverable by the United States postal service or 18971
other carrier. The notification or communication mailing by the 18972
holder shall be no less frequent than quarterly.18973

       All moneys in a personal allowance account, as defined by 18974
rules adopted by the medicaid director of job and family services, 18975
up to and including the maximum resource limitation, of a medicaid 18976
patientrecipient who has died after receiving care in a long-term 18977
care facility, and for whom there is no identifiable heir or 18978
sponsor, are not subject to this chapter.18979

       Sec. 169.05.  (A) Every holder required to file a report 18980
under section 169.03 of the Revised Code shall, at the time of 18981
filing, pay to the director of commerce ten per cent of the 18982
aggregate amount of unclaimed funds as shown on the report, except 18983
for aggregate amounts of fifty dollars or less in which case one 18984
hundred per cent shall be paid. The funds may be deposited by the 18985
director in the state treasury to the credit of the unclaimed 18986
funds trust fund, which is hereby created, or placed with a 18987
financial organization. Any interest earned on money in the trust 18988
fund shall be credited to the trust fund. The remainder of the 18989
aggregate amount of unclaimed funds as shown on the report, plus 18990
earnings accrued to date of payment to the director, shall, at the 18991
option of the director, be retained by the holder or paid to the 18992
director for deposit as agent for the mortgage funds with a 18993
financial organization as defined in section 169.01 of the Revised 18994
Code, with the funds to be in income-bearing accounts to the 18995
credit of the mortgage funds, or the holder may enter into an 18996
agreement with the director specifying the obligations of the 18997
United States in which funds are to be invested, and agree to pay 18998
the interest on the obligations to the state. Holders retaining 18999
any funds not in obligations of the United States shall enter into 19000
an agreement with the director specifying the classification of 19001
income-bearing account in which the funds will be held and pay the 19002
state interest on the funds at a rate equal to the prevailing 19003
market rate for similar funds. Moneys that the holder is required 19004
to pay to the director rather than to retain may be deposited with 19005
the treasurer of state, or placed with a financial organization.19006

       Securities and other intangible property transferred to the 19007
director shall, within a reasonable time, be converted to cash and 19008
the proceeds deposited as provided for other funds.19009

       One-half of the funds evidenced by agreements, in 19010
income-bearing accounts, or on deposit with the treasurer of state 19011
shall be allocated on the records of the director to the mortgage 19012
insurance fund created by section 122.561 of the Revised Code. Out 19013
of the remaining half, after allocation of sufficient moneys to 19014
the minority business bonding fund to meet the provisions of 19015
division (B) of this section, the remainder shall be allocated on 19016
the records of the director to the housing development fund 19017
created by division (A) of section 175.11 of the Revised Code.19018

       (B) The director shall serve as agent for the director of 19019
development and as agent for the Ohio housing finance agency in 19020
making deposits and withdrawals and maintaining records pertaining 19021
to the minority business bonding fund created by section 122.88 of 19022
the Revised Code, the mortgage insurance fund, and the housing 19023
development fund created by section 175.11 of the Revised Code. 19024
Funds from the mortgage insurance fund are available to the 19025
director of development when those funds are to be disbursed to 19026
prevent or cure, or upon the occurrence of, a default of a 19027
mortgage insured pursuant to section 122.451 of the Revised Code. 19028
Funds from the housing development fund are available upon request 19029
to the Ohio housing finance agency, in an amount not to exceed the 19030
funds allocated on the records of the director, for the purposes 19031
of section 175.05 of the Revised Code. Funds from the minority 19032
business bonding fund are available to the director of development 19033
upon request to pay obligations on bonds the director writes 19034
pursuant to section 122.88 of the Revised Code; except that, 19035
unless the general assembly authorizes additional amounts, the 19036
total maximum amount of moneys that may be allocated to the 19037
minority business bonding fund under this division is ten million 19038
dollars.19039

       When funds are to be disbursed, the appropriate agency shall 19040
call upon the director to transfer the necessary funds to it. The 19041
director shall first withdraw the funds paid by the holders and 19042
deposited with the treasurer of state or in a financial 19043
institution as agent for the funds. Whenever these funds are 19044
inadequate to meet the request, the director shall provide for a 19045
withdrawal of funds, within a reasonable time and in the amount 19046
necessary to meet the request, from financial institutions in 19047
which the funds were retained or placed by a holder and from other 19048
holders who have retained funds, in an equitable manner as the 19049
director prescribes. In the event that the amount to be withdrawn 19050
from any one holder is less than five hundred dollars, the amount 19051
to be withdrawn is at the director's discretion. The director 19052
shall then transfer to the agency the amount of funds requested.19053

       Funds deposited in the unclaimed funds trust fund are subject 19054
to call by the director when necessary to pay claims the director 19055
allows under section 169.08 of the Revised Code, in accordance 19056
with the director's rules, to defray the necessary costs of making 19057
publications this chapter requires and to pay other operating and 19058
administrative expenses the department of commerce incurs in the 19059
administration and enforcement of this chapter.19060

       The unclaimed funds trust fund shall be assessed a 19061
proportionate share of the administrative costs of the department 19062
of commerce in accordance with procedures the director of commerce 19063
prescribes and the director of budget and management approves. The 19064
assessment shall be paid from the unclaimed funds trust fund to 19065
the division of administration fund.19066

       (C) Earnings on the accounts in financial organizations to 19067
the credit of the mortgage funds shall, at the option of the 19068
financial organization, be credited to the accounts at times and 19069
at rates as earnings are paid on other accounts of the same 19070
classification held in the financial organization or paid to the 19071
director. The director shall be notified annually, and at other 19072
times as the director may request, of the amount of the earnings 19073
credited to the accounts. Interest on unclaimed funds a holder 19074
retains shall be paid to the director or credited as specified in 19075
the agreement under which the organization retains the funds. 19076
Interest payable to the director under an agreement to invest 19077
unclaimed funds andin income-bearing accounts or obligations of 19078
the United States shall be paid annually by the holder to the 19079
director. Any earnings or interest the director receives under 19080
this division shall be deposited in and credited to the mortgage 19081
funds.19082

       Sec. 169.07.  (A) Upon the payment of unclaimed funds to the 19083
director of commerce under section 169.05 of the Revised Code the 19084
holder will be relieved of further responsibility for the 19085
safe-keeping thereof and will be held harmless by the state from 19086
any and all liabilities for any claim arising out of the transfer 19087
of such funds to the state.19088

       (B) If legal proceedings are instituted against a holder 19089
which has paid unclaimed funds to the director or entered into an 19090
agreement as provided in section 169.05 of the Revised Code in 19091
respect to such funds, such holder shall notify the director in 19092
writing of the pendency of such proceedings and the director shall 19093
intervene and assume the defense of such proceedings. Failure to 19094
give such notice shall absolve the state from any and all 19095
liability which it may have with regard to such funds. If judgment 19096
is entered against such holder, the director shall, upon proof of 19097
satisfaction of such judgment, forthwith reimburse such 19098
organization for the amount of the judgment or enter into an 19099
agreement modified to reflect the satisfaction of such judgment, 19100
if the holder retained such funds, and shall reimburse such holder 19101
for any legal fees, costs and other expenses incurred in such 19102
proceedings in the manner provided for the payment of claims under 19103
divisiondivisions (D) and (E) of section 169.08 of the Revised 19104
Code.19105

       Sec. 169.08.  (A) The director shall pay to the owner or 19106
other person who has established the right to payment under this 19107
section, funds from the unclaimed funds trust fund in an amount 19108
equal to the amount of property delivered or reported to the 19109
director, or equal to the net proceeds if the securities or other 19110
property have been sold, together with interest earned by the 19111
state if required to be paid under division (D) of this section.19112
Any person claiming a property interest in unclaimed funds 19113
delivered or reported to the state under Chapter 169. of the 19114
Revised Code, including the office of child support in the 19115
department of job and family services, pursuant to section 3123.88 19116
of the Revised Code, may file a claim thereto on the form 19117
prescribed by the director of commerce.19118

       (B) The director shall consider matters relevant to any claim 19119
filed under division (A) of this section and shall hold a formal 19120
hearing if requested or considered necessary and receive evidence 19121
concerning such claim. A finding and decision in writing on each 19122
claim filed shall be prepared, stating the substance of any 19123
evidence received or heard and the reasons for allowance or 19124
disallowance of the claim. The evidence and decision shall be a 19125
public record. No statute of limitations shall bar the allowance 19126
of a claim.19127

       (C) For the purpose of conducting any hearing, the director 19128
may require the attendance of such witnesses and the production of 19129
such books, records, and papers as the director desires, and the 19130
director may take the depositions of witnesses residing within or 19131
without this state in the same manner as is prescribed by law for 19132
the taking of depositions in civil actions in the court of common 19133
pleas, and for that purpose the director may issue a subpoena for 19134
any witness or a subpoena duces tecum to compel the production of 19135
any books, records, or papers, directed to the sheriff of the 19136
county where such witness resides or is found, which shall be 19137
served and returned. The fees of the sheriff shall be the same as 19138
that allowed in the court of common pleas in criminal cases. 19139
Witnesses shall be paid the fees and mileage provided for under 19140
section 119.094 of the Revised Code. Fees and mileage shall be 19141
paid from the unclaimed funds trust fund.19142

       (D) Interest is notearned by the state shall be payable to 19143
claimants of unclaimed funds held by the state in accordance with 19144
final court orders derived from the Sogg v. Zurz, 121 Ohio St.3d 19145
449 (2009), line of cases and final settlement agreement 19146
determining payment of interest on unclaimed funds. For properties 19147
received by the state on or before July 26, 1991, interest shall 19148
be paid at a rate of six per cent per annum from the date the 19149
state received the property up to and including July 26, 1991. No 19150
interest shall be payable on any properties for the period from 19151
July 27, 1991, up to and including August 2, 2000. For properties 19152
held by the state on August 3, 2000, or after, interest shall be 19153
paid at the applicable required rate per annum for the period held 19154
from August 3, 2000, or the date of receipt, whichever is later, 19155
up to and including the date the claim is paid. Claims19156

       (E) Claims shall be paid from the trust fund. If the amount 19157
available in the trust fund is not sufficient to pay pending 19158
claims, or other amounts disbursable from the trust fund, the 19159
treasurer of state shall certify such fact to the director, who 19160
shall then withdraw such amount of funds from the mortgage 19161
accounts as the director determines necessary to reestablish the 19162
trust fund to a level required to pay anticipated claims but not 19163
more than ten per cent of the net unclaimed funds reported to 19164
date.19165

       The director may withdraw the funds paid to the director by 19166
the holders and deposited by the director with the treasurer of 19167
state or in a financial institution as agent for such funds. 19168
Whenever these funds are inadequate to meet the requirements for 19169
the trust fund, the director shall provide for a withdrawal of 19170
funds, within a reasonable time, in such amount as is necessary to 19171
meet the requirements, from financial institutions in which such 19172
funds were retained or placed by a holder and from other holders 19173
who have retained funds, in an equitable manner as prescribed by 19174
the director. In the event that the amount to be withdrawn from 19175
any one such holder is less than five hundred dollars, the amount 19176
to be withdrawn shall be at the discretion of the director. Such 19177
funds may be reimbursed in the amounts withdrawn when the trust 19178
fund has a surplus over the amount required to pay anticipated 19179
claims. Whenever the trust fund has a surplus over the amount 19180
required to pay anticipated claims, the director may transfer such 19181
surplus to the mortgage accounts.19182

       (E)(F) If a claim which is allowed under this section relates 19183
to funds which have been retained by the reporting holder, and if 19184
the funds, on deposit with the treasurer of state pursuant to this 19185
chapter, are insufficient to pay claims, the director may notify 19186
such holder in writing of the payment of the claim and such holder 19187
shall immediately reimburse the state in the amount of such claim. 19188
The reimbursement shall be credited to the unclaimed funds trust 19189
fund.19190

       (F)(G) Any person, including the office of child support, 19191
adversely affected by a decision of the director may appeal such 19192
decision in the manner provided in Chapter 119. of the Revised 19193
Code.19194

       In the event the claimant prevails, the claimant shall be 19195
reimbursed for reasonable attorney's fees and costs.19196

       (G)(H) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this 19197
chapter, any holder who has paid moneys to or entered into an 19198
agreement with the director pursuant to section 169.05 of the 19199
Revised Code on certified checks, cashiers' checks, bills of 19200
exchange, letters of credit, drafts, money orders, or travelers' 19201
checks, may make payment to any person entitled thereto, including 19202
the office of child support, and upon surrender of the document, 19203
except in the case of travelers' checks, and proof of such 19204
payment, the director shall reimburse the holder for such payment 19205
without interest.19206

       Sec. 173.03.  (A) There is hereby created the Ohio advisory 19207
council for the aging, which shall consist of twelve members to be 19208
appointed by the governor with the advice and consent of the 19209
senate. Two ex officio members of the council shall be members of 19210
the house of representatives appointed by the speaker of the house 19211
of representatives and shall be members of two different political 19212
parties. Two ex officio members of the council shall be members of 19213
the senate appointed by the president of the senate and shall be 19214
members of two different political parties. The medicaid director 19215
and directors of mental healthmental health and addiction 19216
services, developmental disabilities, health, and job and family 19217
services, or their designees, shall serve as ex officio members of 19218
the council. The council shall carry out its role as defined under 19219
the "Older Americans Act of 1965," 79 Stat. 219, 42 U.S.C. 3001, 19220
as amended.19221

       At the first meeting of the council, and annually thereafter, 19222
the members shall select one of their members to serve as 19223
chairperson and one of their members to serve as vice-chairperson.19224

       (B) Members of the council shall be appointed for a term of 19225
three years, except that for the first appointment members of the 19226
Ohio commission on aging who were serving on the commission 19227
immediately prior to July 26, 1984, shall become members of the 19228
council for the remainder of their unexpired terms. Thereafter, 19229
appointment to the council shall be for a three-year term by the 19230
governor. Each member shall hold office from the date of 19231
appointment until the end of the term for which the member was 19232
appointed. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior 19233
to the expiration of the term for which the member's predecessor 19234
was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of the term. No 19235
member shall continue in office subsequent to the expiration date 19236
of the member's term unless reappointed under the provisions of 19237
this section, and no member shall serve more than three 19238
consecutive terms on the council.19239

       (C) Membership of the council shall represent all areas of 19240
Ohio and shall be as follows:19241

       (1) A majority of members of the council shall have attained 19242
the age of sixtyfifty and have a knowledge of and continuing 19243
interest in the affairs and welfare of the older citizens of Ohio. 19244
The fields of business, labor, health, law, and human services 19245
shall be represented in the membership.19246

       (2) No more than seven members shall be of the same political 19247
party.19248

       (D) Any member of the council may be removed from office by 19249
the governor for neglect of duty, misconduct, or malfeasance in 19250
office after being informed in writing of the charges and afforded 19251
an opportunity for a hearing. Two consecutive unexcused absences 19252
from regularly scheduled meetings constitute neglect of duty.19253

       (E) The director of aging may reimburse a member for actual 19254
and necessary traveling and other expenses incurred in the 19255
discharge of official duties. But reimbursement shall be made in 19256
the manner and at rates that do not exceed those prescribed by the 19257
director of budget and management for any officer, member, or 19258
employee of, or consultant to, any state agency.19259

       (F) Council members are not limited as to the number of terms 19260
they may serve.19261

       (G)(1) The department of aging may award grants to or enter 19262
into contracts with a member of the advisory council or an entity 19263
that the member represents if any of the following apply:19264

       (a) The department determines that the member or the entity 19265
the member represents is capable of providing the goods or 19266
services specified under the terms of the grant or contract.19267

       (b) The member has not taken part in any discussion or vote 19268
of the council related to whether the council should recommend 19269
that the department of aging award the grant to or enter into the 19270
contract with the member of the advisory council or the entity 19271
that the member represents.19272

       (2) A member of the advisory council is not in violation of 19273
Chapter 102. or section 2921.42 of the Revised Code with regard to 19274
receiving a grant or entering into a contract under this section 19275
if the conditions of division (G)(1)(a) and (b) of this section 19276
have been met.19277

       Sec. 173.14.  As used in sections 173.14 to 173.27 of the 19278
Revised Code:19279

       (A)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(2) of 19280
this section, "long-term care facility" includes any residential 19281
facility that provides personal care services for more than 19282
twenty-four hours for one or more unrelated adults, including all 19283
of the following:19284

       (a) A "nursing home," "residential care facility," or "home 19285
for the aging" as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;19286

       (b) A facility authorized to provide extended care services 19287
under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 19288
(1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, including a long-term acute 19289
care hospital that provides medical and rehabilitative care to 19290
patients who require an average length of stay greater than 19291
twenty-five days and is classified by the centers for medicare and 19292
medicaid services as a long-term care hospital pursuant to 42 19293
C.F.R. 412.23(e);19294

       (c) A county home or district home operated pursuant to 19295
Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;19296

       (d) A residential facility licensed under section 5119.2219297
5119.34 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 19298
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 19299
unrelated adults or accommodations and personal care services for 19300
only one or two adults who are recipients under thereceiving19301
residential state supplement program;19302

       (e) A facility approved by the veterans administration under 19303
section 104(a) of the "Veterans Health Care Amendments of 1983," 19304
97 Stat. 993, 38 U.S.C. 630, as amended, and used exclusively for 19305
the placement and care of veterans.19306

       (2) "Long-term care facility" does not include a residential 19307
facility licensed under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code.19308

       (B) "Resident" means a resident of a long-term care facility 19309
and, where appropriate, includes a prospective, previous, or 19310
deceased resident of a long-term care facility.19311

       (C) "Community-based long-term care services" means health 19312
and social services provided to persons in their own homes or in 19313
community care settings, and includes any of the following:19314

       (1) Case management;19315

       (2) Home health care;19316

       (3) Homemaker services;19317

       (4) Chore services;19318

       (5) Respite care;19319

       (6) Adult day care;19320

       (7) Home-delivered meals;19321

       (8) Personal care;19322

       (9) Physical, occupational, and speech therapy;19323

       (10) Transportation;19324

       (11) Any other health and social services provided to persons 19325
that allow them to retain their independence in their own homes or 19326
in community care settings.19327

       (D) "Recipient" means a recipient of community-based 19328
long-term care services and, where appropriate, includes a 19329
prospective, previous, or deceased recipient of community-based 19330
long-term care services.19331

       (E) "Sponsor" means an adult relative, friend, or guardian 19332
who has an interest in or responsibility for the welfare of a 19333
resident or a recipient.19334

       (F) "Personal care services" has the same meaning as in 19335
section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.19336

       (G) "Regional long-term care ombudspersonombudsman program" 19337
means an entity, either public or private and nonprofit, 19338
designated as a regional long-term care ombudspersonombudsman19339
program by the state long-term care ombudspersonombudsman.19340

       (H) "Representative of the office of the state long-term care 19341
ombudspersonombudsman program" means the state long-term care 19342
ombudspersonombudsman or a member of the ombudsperson's19343
ombudsman's staff, or a person certified as a representative of 19344
the office under section 173.21 of the Revised Code.19345

       (I) "Area agency on aging" means an area agency on aging 19346
established under the "Older Americans Act of 1965," 79 Stat. 219, 19347
42 U.S.C.A. 3001, as amended.19348

       Sec. 173.17.  (A) The state long-term care ombudsperson19349
ombudsman shall do all of the following:19350

       (1) Appoint a staff and direct and administer the work of the 19351
staff;19352

       (2) Supervise the nursing home investigative unit established 19353
under division (I) of section 173.01 of the Revised Code;19354

       (3) Oversee the performance and operation of the office of 19355
the state long-term care ombudspersonombudsman program, including 19356
the operation of regional long-term care ombudspersonombudsman19357
programs;19358

       (4) Establish and maintain a statewide uniform reporting 19359
system to collect and analyze information relating to complaints 19360
and conditions in long-term care facilities and complaints 19361
regarding the provision of community-based long-term care services 19362
for the purpose of identifying and resolving significant problems;19363

       (5) Provide for public forums to discuss concerns and 19364
problems relating to action, inaction, or decisions that may 19365
adversely affect the health, safety, welfare, or rights of 19366
residents and recipients of services by providers of long-term 19367
care and their representatives, public agencies and entities, and 19368
social service agencies. This may include any of the following: 19369
conducting public hearings; sponsoring workshops and conferences; 19370
holding meetings for the purpose of obtaining information about 19371
residents and recipients, discussing and publicizing their needs, 19372
and advocating solutions to their problems; and promoting the 19373
development of citizen organizations.19374

       (6) Encourage, cooperate with, and assist in the development 19375
and operation of services to provide current, objective, and 19376
verified information about long-term care;19377

       (7) Develop and implement, with the assistance of regional 19378
programs, a continuing program to publicize, through the media and 19379
civic organizations, the office, its purposes, and its methods of 19380
operation;19381

       (8) Maintain written descriptions of the duties and 19382
qualifications of representatives of the office;19383

       (9) Evaluate and make known concerns and issues regarding 19384
long-term care by doing all of the following:19385

       (a) Preparing an annual report containing information and 19386
findings regarding the types of problems experienced by residents 19387
and recipients and the complaints made by or on behalf of 19388
residents and recipients. The report shall include recommendations 19389
for policy, regulatory, and legislative changes to solve problems, 19390
resolve complaints, and improve the quality of care and life for 19391
residents and recipients and shall be submitted to the governor, 19392
the speaker of the house of representatives, the president of the 19393
senate, the directors of health and of job and family services, 19394
and the commissioner of the administration on aging of the United 19395
States department of health and human services.19396

       (b) Monitoring and analyzing the development and 19397
implementation of federal, state, and local laws, rules, and 19398
policies regarding long-term care services in this state and 19399
recommending to officials changes the office considers appropriate 19400
in these laws, rules, and policies;19401

       (c) Providing information and making recommendations to 19402
public agencies, members of the general assembly, and others 19403
regarding problems and concerns of residents and recipients.19404

       (10) Conduct training for employees and volunteers on19405
ombudsperson'sombudsman's staff and for representatives of the 19406
office employed by regional programs;19407

       (11) Monitor the training of representatives of the office 19408
who provide volunteer services to regional programs, and provide 19409
technical assistance to the regional programs in conducting the 19410
training;19411

       (12) Issue certificates attesting to the successful 19412
completion of training and specifying the level of responsibility 19413
for which a representative of the office who has completed 19414
training is qualified;19415

       (13) Register as a residents' rights advocate with the 19416
department of health under division (B) of section 3701.07 of the 19417
Revised Code;19418

       (14) Perform other duties specified by the department of 19419
aging.19420

       (B) The state ombudspersonombudsman may delegate any of the 19421
ombudsperson'sombudsman's authority or duties under sections 19422
173.14 to 173.26 of the Revised Code to any member of the 19423
ombudsperson'sombudsman's staff. The state ombudspersonombudsman19424
is responsible for any authority or duties the ombudsperson19425
ombudsman delegates.19426

       Sec. 173.19.  (A) The office of the state long-term care19427
ombudspersonombudsman program, through the state long-term care19428
ombudspersonombudsman and the regional long-term care 19429
ombudspersonombudsman programs, shall receive, investigate, and 19430
attempt to resolve complaints made by residents, recipients, 19431
sponsors, providers of long-term care, or any person acting on 19432
behalf of a resident or recipient, relating to either of the 19433
following:19434

       (1) The health, safety, welfare, or civil rights of a 19435
resident or recipient or any violation of a resident's rights 19436
described in sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code;19437

       (2) Any action or inaction or decision by a provider of 19438
long-term care or representative of a provider, a governmental 19439
entity, or a private social service agency that may adversely 19440
affect the health, safety, welfare, or rights of a resident or 19441
recipient.19442

       (B) The department of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 19443
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code regarding the handling of 19444
complaints received under this section, including procedures for 19445
conducting investigations of complaints. The rules shall include 19446
procedures to ensure that no representative of the office 19447
investigates any complaint involving a provider of long-term care 19448
with which the representative was once employed or associated.19449

       The state ombudspersonombudsman and regional programs shall 19450
establish procedures for handling complaints consistent with the 19451
department's rules. Complaints shall be dealt with in accordance 19452
with the procedures established under this division.19453

       (C) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson19454
ombudsman program may decline to investigate any complaint if it 19455
determines any of the following:19456

       (1) That the complaint is frivolous, vexatious, or not made 19457
in good faith;19458

       (2) That the complaint was made so long after the occurrence 19459
of the incident on which it is based that it is no longer 19460
reasonable to conduct an investigation;19461

       (3) That an adequate investigation cannot be conducted 19462
because of insufficient funds, insufficient staff, lack of staff 19463
expertise, or any other reasonable factor that would result in an 19464
inadequate investigation despite a good faith effort;19465

       (4) That an investigation by the office would create a real 19466
or apparent conflict of interest.19467

       (D) If a regional long-term care ombudspersonombudsman19468
program declines to investigate a complaint, it shall refer the 19469
complaint to the state long-term care ombudspersonombudsman.19470

       (E) Each complaint to be investigated by a regional program 19471
shall be assigned to a representative of the office of the state 19472
long-term care ombudspersonombudsman program. If the 19473
representative determines that the complaint is valid, the 19474
representative shall assist the parties in attempting to resolve 19475
it. If the representative is unable to resolve it, the 19476
representative shall refer the complaint to the state ombudsperson19477
ombudsman.19478

       In order to carry out the duties of sections 173.14 to 173.26 19479
of the Revised Code, a representative has the right to private 19480
communication with residents and their sponsors and access to 19481
long-term care facilities, including the right to tour resident 19482
areas unescorted and the right to tour facilities unescorted as 19483
reasonably necessary to the investigation of a complaint. Access 19484
to facilities shall be during reasonable hours or, during 19485
investigation of a complaint, at other times appropriate to the 19486
complaint.19487

       When community-based long-term care services are provided at 19488
a location other than the recipient's home, a representative has 19489
the right to private communication with the recipient and the 19490
recipient's sponsors and access to the community-based long-term 19491
care site, including the right to tour the site unescorted. Access 19492
to the site shall be during reasonable hours or, during the 19493
investigation of a complaint, at other times appropriate to the 19494
complaint.19495

       (F) The state ombudspersonombudsman shall determine whether 19496
complaints referred to the ombudspersonombudsman under division 19497
(D) or (E) of this section warrant investigation. The 19498
ombudsperson'sombudsman's determination in this matter is final.19499

       Sec. 173.20.  (A) If consent is given and unless otherwise 19500
prohibited by law, a representative of the office of the state 19501
long-term care ombudsman program shall have access to any records, 19502
including medical records, of a resident or a recipient that are 19503
reasonably necessary for investigation of a complaint. Consent may 19504
be given in any of the following ways:19505

       (1) In writing by the resident or recipient;19506

       (2) Orally by the resident or recipient, witnessed in writing 19507
at the time it is given by one other person, and, if the records 19508
involved are being maintained by a long-term care provider, also 19509
by an employee of the long-term care provider designated under 19510
division (E)(1) of this section;19511

       (3) In writing by the guardian of the resident or recipient;19512

       (4) In writing by the attorney in fact of the resident or 19513
recipient, if the resident or recipient has authorized the 19514
attorney in fact to give such consent;19515

       (5) In writing by the executor or administrator of the estate 19516
of a deceased resident or recipient.19517

       (B) If consent to access to records is not refused by a 19518
resident or recipient or histhe resident's or recipient's legal 19519
representative but cannot be obtained and any of the following 19520
circumstances exist, a representative of the office of the state 19521
long-term care ombudsman program, on approval of the state 19522
long-term care ombudsman, may inspect the records of a resident or 19523
a recipient, including medical records, that are reasonably 19524
necessary for investigation of a complaint:19525

       (1) The resident or recipient is unable to express written or 19526
oral consent and there is no guardian or attorney in fact;19527

       (2) There is a guardian or attorney in fact, but hethe 19528
guardian or attorney in fact cannot be contacted within three 19529
working days;19530

       (3) There is a guardianship or durable power of attorney, but 19531
its existence is unknown by the long-term care provider and the 19532
representative of the office at the time of the investigation;19533

       (4) There is no executor or administrator of the estate of a 19534
deceased resident or recipient.19535

       (C) If a representative of the office of the state long-term 19536
care ombudsman program has been refused access to records by a 19537
guardian or attorney in fact, but has reasonable cause to believe 19538
that the guardian or attorney in fact is not acting in the best 19539
interests of the resident or recipient, the representative may, on 19540
approval of the state long-term care ombudsman, inspect the 19541
records of the resident or recipient, including medical records, 19542
that are reasonably necessary for investigation of a complaint.19543

       (D) A representative of the office of the state long-term 19544
care ombudsman program shall have access to any records of a 19545
long-term care provider reasonably necessary to an investigation 19546
conducted under this section, including but not limited to: 19547
incident reports, dietary records, policies and procedures of a 19548
facility required to be maintained under section 5111.215165.0619549
of the Revised Code, admission agreements, staffing schedules, any 19550
document depicting the actual staffing pattern of the provider, 19551
any financial records that are matters of public record, resident 19552
council and grievance committee minutes, and any waiting list 19553
maintained by a facility in accordance with section 5111.3119554
5165.08 of the Revised Code, or any similar records or lists 19555
maintained by a provider of community-based long-term care 19556
services. Pursuant to division (E)(2) of this section, a 19557
representative shall be permitted to make or obtain copies of any 19558
of these records after giving the long-term care provider 19559
twenty-four hours' notice. A long-term care provider may impose a 19560
charge for providing copies of records under this division that 19561
does not exceed the actual and necessary expense of making the 19562
copies.19563

       The state ombudsman shall take whatever action is necessary 19564
to ensure that any copy of a record made or obtained under this 19565
division is returned to the long-term care provider no later than 19566
three years after the date the investigation for which the copy 19567
was made or obtained is completed.19568

       (E)(1) Each long-term care provider shall designate one or 19569
more of its employees to be responsible for witnessing the giving 19570
of oral consent under division (A) of this section. In the event 19571
that a designated employee is not available when a resident or 19572
recipient attempts to give oral consent, the provider shall 19573
designate another employee to witness the consent.19574

       (2) Each long-term care provider shall designate one or more 19575
of its employees to be responsible for releasing records for 19576
copying to representatives of the office of the long-term care 19577
ombudsman program who request permission to make or obtain copies 19578
of records specified in division (D) of this section. In the event 19579
that a designated employee is not available when a representative 19580
of the office makes the request, the long-term care provider shall 19581
designate another employee to release the records for copying.19582

       (F) A long-term care provider or any employee of such a 19583
provider is immune from civil or criminal liability or action 19584
taken pursuant to a professional disciplinary procedure for the 19585
release or disclosure of records to a representative of the office 19586
pursuant to this section.19587

       (G) A state or local government agency or entity with records 19588
relevant to a complaint or investigation being conducted by a 19589
representative of the office shall provide the representative 19590
access to the records.19591

       (H) The state ombudsman, with the approval of the director of 19592
aging, may issue a subpoena to compel any person hethe ombudsman19593
reasonably believes may be able to provide information to appear 19594
before himthe ombudsman or histhe ombudsman's designee and give 19595
sworn testimony and to produce documents, books, records, papers, 19596
or other evidence the state ombudsman believes is relevant to the 19597
investigation. On the refusal of a witness to be sworn or to 19598
answer any question put to himthe witness, or if a person 19599
disobeys a subpoena, the ombudsman shall apply to the Franklin 19600
county court of common pleas for a contempt order, as in the case 19601
of disobedience of the requirements of a subpoena issued from the 19602
court, or a refusal to testify in the court.19603

       (I) The state ombudsman may petition the court of common 19604
pleas in the county in which a long-term care facility is located 19605
to issue an injunction against any long-term care facility in 19606
violation of sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code.19607

       (J) Any suspected violation of Chapter 3721. of the Revised 19608
Code discovered during the course of an investigation may be 19609
reported to the department of health. Any suspected criminal 19610
violation discovered during the course of an investigation shall 19611
be reported to the attorney general or other appropriate law 19612
enforcement authorities.19613

       (K) The department of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 19614
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for referral by the state 19615
ombudsman and regional long-term care ombudsman programs of 19616
complaints to other public agencies or entities. A public agency 19617
or entity to which a complaint is referred shall keep the state 19618
ombudsman or regional program handling the complaint advised and 19619
notified in writing in a timely manner of the disposition of the 19620
complaint to the extent permitted by law.19621

       Sec. 173.21.  (A) The office of the state long-term care 19622
ombudspersonombudsman program, through the state long-term care 19623
ombudspersonombudsman and the regional long-term care 19624
ombudspersonombudsman programs, shall require each representative 19625
of the office to complete a training and certification program in 19626
accordance with this section and to meet the continuing education 19627
requirements established under this section.19628

       (B) The department of aging shall adopt rules under Chapter 19629
119. of the Revised Code specifying the content of training 19630
programs for representatives of the office of the state long-term 19631
care ombudspersonombudsman program. Training for representatives 19632
other than those who are volunteers providing services through 19633
regional long-term care ombudspersonombudsman programs shall 19634
include instruction regarding federal, state, and local laws, 19635
rules, and policies on long-term care facilities and 19636
community-based long-term care services; investigative techniques; 19637
and other topics considered relevant by the department and shall 19638
consist of the following:19639

       (1) A minimum of forty clock hours of basic instruction, 19640
which shall be completed before the trainee is permitted to handle 19641
complaints without the supervision of a representative of the 19642
office certified under this section;19643

       (2) An additional sixty clock hours of instruction, which 19644
shall be completed within the first fifteen months of employment;19645

       (3) An internship of twenty clock hours, which shall be 19646
completed within the first twenty-four months of employment, 19647
including instruction in, and observation of, basic nursing care 19648
and long-term care provider operations and procedures. The 19649
internship shall be performed at a site that has been approved as 19650
an internship site by the state long-term care ombudsperson19651
ombudsman.19652

       (4) One of the following, which shall be completed within the 19653
first twenty-four months of employment:19654

       (a) Observation of a survey conducted by the director of 19655
health to certify a nursing facility to receive funds under 19656
sections 5111.20 to 5111.32 of the Revised Codeparticipate in the 19657
medicaid program;19658

       (b) Observation of an inspection conducted by the director of 19659
mental healthmental health and addiction services to license a 19660
residential facility under section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised 19661
Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care 19662
services for three to sixteen unrelated adults.19663

       (5) Any other training considered appropriate by the 19664
department.19665

       (C) PersonsAny person who for a period of at least six 19666
months prior to June 11, 1990, served as ombudsmenan ombudsman19667
through the long-term care ombudspersonombudsman program 19668
established by the department of aging under division (M) of 19669
section 173.01 of the Revised Code shall not be required to 19670
complete a training program. These personsSuch a person and 19671
persons who complete a training program shall take an examination 19672
administered by the department of aging. On attainment of a 19673
passing score, the person shall be certified by the department as 19674
a representative of the office. The department shall issue the 19675
person an identification card, which the representative shall show 19676
at the request of any person with whom the representative deals 19677
while performing the representative's duties and which shall be 19678
surrendered at the time the representative separates from the 19679
office.19680

       (D) The state ombudspersonombudsman and each regional 19681
program shall conduct training programs for volunteers on their 19682
respective staffs in accordance with the rules of the department 19683
of aging adopted under division (B) of this section. Training 19684
programs may be conducted that train volunteers to complete some, 19685
but not all, of the duties of a representative of the office. Each 19686
regional office shall bear the cost of training its 19687
representatives who are volunteers. On completion of a training 19688
program, the representative shall take an examination administered 19689
by the department of aging. On attainment of a passing score, a 19690
volunteer shall be certified by the department as a representative 19691
authorized to perform services specified in the certification. The 19692
department shall issue an identification card, which the 19693
representative shall show at the request of any person with whom 19694
the representative deals while performing the representative's 19695
duties and which shall be surrendered at the time the 19696
representative separates from the office. Except as a supervised 19697
part of a training program, no volunteer shall perform any duty 19698
unless he is certified as a representative having received 19699
appropriate training for that duty.19700

       (E) The state ombudspersonombudsman shall provide technical 19701
assistance to regional programs conducting training programs for 19702
volunteers and shall monitor the training programs.19703

       (F) Prior to scheduling an observation of a certification 19704
survey or licensing inspection for purposes of division (B)(4) of 19705
this section, the state ombudspersonombudsman shall obtain 19706
permission to have the survey or inspection observed from both the 19707
director of health and the long-term care facility at which the 19708
survey or inspection is to take place.19709

       (G) The department of aging shall establish continuing 19710
education requirements for representatives of the office.19711

       Sec. 173.23.  (A) Representatives of the office of the state 19712
long-term care ombudspersonombudsman program are immune from 19713
civil or criminal liability for any action taken in the good faith 19714
performance of their official duties under sections 173.14 to 19715
173.26 of the Revised Code. 19716

       (B) A person acting in good faith is immune from civil or 19717
criminal liability incident to any of the following: providing 19718
information to the office, participating in registration of a 19719
complaint with the office, participating in investigation of a 19720
complaint by the office, or participating in an administrative or 19721
judicial proceeding resulting from a complaint.19722

       (C) No person shall knowingly register a false complaint with 19723
the office, or knowingly swear or affirm the truth of a false 19724
complaint previously registered, when the statement is made with 19725
purpose to incriminate another.19726

       (D) The attorney general shall provide legal counsel to the 19727
office of the state long-term care ombudspersonombudsman program 19728
and to the regional long-term care ombudspersonombudsman19729
programs. The attorney general shall represent any representative 19730
of the office and any representative of a regional program against 19731
whom any legal action is brought in connection with the 19732
representative's official duties under sections 173.14 to 173.26 19733
of the Revised Code.19734

       Sec. 173.25.  The office of the state long-term care19735
ombudspersonombudsman program shall, in carrying out the 19736
provisions and purposes of sections 173.14 to 173.26 of the 19737
Revised Code, advise, consult, and cooperate with any agency, 19738
program, or other entity related to the purposes of the office. 19739
Any agency, program, or other entity related to the purposes of 19740
the office shall advise, consult, and cooperate with the office.19741

       The office shall attempt to establish effective coordination 19742
with government-sponsored programs that provide legal services to 19743
the elderly and with protective and advocacy programs for 19744
individuals with developmental disabilities, mental retardation, 19745
or mental illness.19746

       Sec. 173.26.  (A) Each of the following facilities shall 19747
annually pay to the department of aging six dollars for each bed 19748
maintained by the facility for use by a residentwas licensed or 19749
otherwise authorized to maintain during any part of the previous 19750
year:19751

       (1) Nursing homes,and residential care facilities, and homes 19752
for the aging as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;19753

       (2) Facilities authorized to provide extended care services 19754
under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 19755
(1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, including a long-term acute 19756
care hospital that provides medical and rehabilitative care to 19757
patients who require an average length of stay greater than 19758
twenty-five days and is classified by the centers for medicare and 19759
medicaid services as a long-term care hospital pursuant to 42 19760
C.F.R. 412.23(e);19761

       (3) County homes and district homes operated pursuant to 19762
Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;19763

       (4) Residential facilities licensed under section 5119.2219764
5119.34 of the Revised Code that provide accommodations, 19765
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 19766
unrelated adults;19767

       (5) Facilities approved by the Veterans Administration under 19768
Section 104(a) of the "Veterans Health Care Amendments of 1983," 19769
97 Stat. 993, 38 U.S.C. 630, as amended, and used exclusively for 19770
the placement and care of veterans.19771

       The department shall, by rule adopted in accordance with 19772
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, establish deadlines for payments 19773
required by this section. A facility that fails, within ninety 19774
days after the established deadline, to pay a payment required by 19775
this section shall be assessed at two times the original invoiced 19776
payment.19777

       (B) All money collected under this section shall be deposited 19778
in the state treasury to the credit of the office of the state 19779
long-term care ombudspersonombudsman program fund, which is 19780
hereby created. Money credited to the fund shall be used solely to 19781
pay the costs of operating the regional long-term care 19782
ombudspersonombudsman programs.19783

       (C) The state long-term care ombudspersonombudsman and the 19784
regional programs may solicit and receive contributions to support 19785
the operation of the office or a regional program, except that no 19786
contribution shall be solicited or accepted that would interfere 19787
with the independence or objectivity of the office or program.19788

       Sec. 173.27.  (A) As used in this section:19789

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 19790
consideration for employment with the office of the state 19791
long-term care ombudsperson programby a responsible party in a 19792
full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves 19793
providing ombudspersonombudsman services to residents and 19794
recipients. "Applicant" includes a person who is under final 19795
consideration for employment as the state long-term care 19796
ombudspersonombudsman or the head of a regional long-term care 19797
ombudspersonombudsman program. "Applicant" does not include a 19798
person seeking to provide ombudspersonombudsman services to 19799
residents and recipients as a volunteer without receiving or 19800
expecting to receive any form of remuneration other than 19801
reimbursement for actual expenses.19802

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 19803
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.19804

       (3) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the offenses listed 19805
or described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 109.572 of 19806
the Revised Code.19807

       (4) "Employee" means a person employed by the office of the 19808
state long-term care ombudsperson programa responsible party in a 19809
full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves 19810
providing ombudspersonombudsman services to residents and 19811
recipients. "Employee" includes the person employed as the state 19812
long-term care ombudspersonombudsman and a person employed as the 19813
head of a regional long-term care ombudspersonombudsman program. 19814
"Employee" does not include a person who provides ombudsperson19815
ombudsman services to residents and recipients as a volunteer 19816
without receiving or expecting to receive any form of remuneration 19817
other than reimbursement for actual expenses.19818

       (5) "Responsible entityparty" means the following:19819

       (a) In the case of an applicant who is under final 19820
consideration for employment as the state long-term care 19821
ombudspersonombudsman or the person employed as the state 19822
long-term care ombudspersonombudsman, the director of aging;19823

       (b) In the case of any other applicant who is under final 19824
consideration for employment with the state long-term care 19825
ombudsman program or any other employee of the state long-term 19826
care ombudsman program, the state long-term care ombudsperson or 19827
the ombudsperson's designeeombudsman;19828

        (c) In the case of an applicant who is under final 19829
consideration for employment with a regional long-term care 19830
ombudsman program (including as the head of the regional program) 19831
or an employee of a regional long-term care ombudsman program 19832
(including the head of a regional program), the regional long-term 19833
care ombudsman program.19834

       (B) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 19835
programA responsible party may not employ an applicant or 19836
continue to employ an employee in a position that involves 19837
providing ombudspersonombudsman services to residents and 19838
recipients if any of the following apply:19839

       (1) A review of the databases listed in division (D) of this 19840
section reveals any of the following:19841

       (a) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 19842
of the databases listed in divisions (D)(1) to (5) of this 19843
section;19844

       (b) That there is in the state nurse aide registry 19845
established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code a statement 19846
detailing findings by the director of health that the applicant or 19847
employee neglected or abused a long-term care facility or 19848
residential care facility resident or misappropriated property of 19849
such a resident;19850

       (c) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 19851
of the databases, if any, specified in rules adopted under this 19852
section and the rules prohibit the officeresponsible party from 19853
employing an applicant or continuing to employ an employee 19854
included in such a database in a position that involves providing 19855
ombudspersonombudsman services to residents and recipients.19856

       (2) After the applicant or employee is provided, pursuant to 19857
division (E)(2)(a) of this section, a copy of the form prescribed 19858
pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 19859
and the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division 19860
(C)(2) of that section, the applicant or employee fails to 19861
complete the form or provide the applicant's or employee's 19862
fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheet.19863

       (3) Except as providedUnless the applicant or employee meets 19864
standards specified in rules adopted under this section, the 19865
applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check 19866
required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty 19867
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 19868
for a disqualifying offense.19869

       (C) TheA responsible entityparty or a responsible party's 19870
designee shall inform each applicant of both of the following at 19871
the time of the applicant's initial application for employment in 19872
a position that involves providing ombudspersonombudsman services 19873
to residents and recipients:19874

       (1) That a review of the databases listed in division (D) of 19875
this section will be conducted to determine whether the office of 19876
the state long-term care ombudsperson programresponsible party is 19877
prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section from employing the 19878
applicant in the position;19879

       (2) That, unless the database review reveals that the 19880
applicant may not be employed in the position, a criminal records 19881
check of the applicant will be conducted and the applicant is 19882
required to provide a set of the applicant's fingerprint 19883
impressions as part of the criminal records check.19884

       (D) As a condition of any applicant's being employed by the 19885
office of the state long-term care ombudsperson programa 19886
responsible party in a position that involves providing 19887
ombudspersonombudsman services to residents and recipients, the 19888
responsible entityparty or designee shall conduct a database 19889
review of the applicant in accordance with rules adopted under 19890
this section. If rules adopted under this section so require, the 19891
responsible entityparty or designee shall conduct a database 19892
review of an employee in accordance with the rules as a condition 19893
of the office'sresponsible party continuing to employ the 19894
employee in a position that involves providing ombudsperson19895
ombudsman services to residents and recipients. A database review 19896
shall determine whether the applicant or employee is included in 19897
any of the following:19898

       (1) The excluded parties list system that is maintained by 19899
the United States general services administration pursuant to 19900
subpart 9.4 of the federal acquisition regulation and available at 19901
the federal web site known as the system for award management;19902

       (2) The list of excluded individuals and entities maintained 19903
by the office of inspector general in the United States department 19904
of health and human services pursuant to section 1128 of the 19905
"Social Security Act," 94 Stat. 2619 (1980), 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7, as 19906
amended, and section 1156 of the "Social Security Act," 96 Stat. 19907
388 (1982), 42 U.S.C. 1320c-5, as amended;19908

       (3) The registry of MR/DD employees established under section 19909
5123.52 of the Revised Code;19910

       (4) The internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender 19911
database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of 19912
the Revised Code;19913

       (5) The internet-based database of inmates established under 19914
section 5120.66 of the Revised Code;19915

       (6) The state nurse aide registry established under section 19916
3721.32 of the Revised Code;19917

       (7) Any other database, if any, specified in rules adopted 19918
under this section.19919

       (E)(1) As a condition of any applicant's being employed by 19920
the office of the state long-term care ombudsperson programa 19921
responsible party in a position that involves providing 19922
ombudspersonombudsman services to residents and recipients, the 19923
responsible entityparty or designee shall request that the 19924
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 19925
investigation conduct a criminal records check of the applicant. 19926
If rules adopted under this section so require, the responsible 19927
entityparty or designee shall request that the superintendent 19928
conduct a criminal records check of an employee at times specified 19929
in the rules as a condition of the office'sresponsible party19930
continuing to employ the employee in a position that involves 19931
providing ombudspersonombudsman services to residents and 19932
recipients. However, the responsible entityparty or designee is 19933
not required to request the criminal records check of the 19934
applicant or employee if the officeresponsible party is 19935
prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section from employing the 19936
applicant or continuing to employ the employee in a position that 19937
involves providing ombudspersonombudsman services to residents 19938
and recipients. If an applicant or employee for whom a criminal 19939
records check request is required by this section does not present 19940
proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year 19941
period immediately prior to the date the criminal records check is 19942
requested or provide evidence that within that five-year period 19943
the superintendent has requested information about the applicant 19944
or employee from the federal bureau of investigation in a criminal 19945
records check, the responsible entityparty or designee shall 19946
request that the superintendent obtain information from the 19947
federal bureau of investigation as part of the criminal records 19948
check. Even if an applicant or employee for whom a criminal 19949
records check request is required by this section presents proof 19950
of having been a resident of this state for the five-year period, 19951
the responsible entityparty or designee may request that the 19952
superintendent include information from the federal bureau of 19953
investigation in the criminal records check.19954

       (2) TheA responsible entityparty or designee shall do all 19955
of the following:19956

       (a) Provide to each applicant and employee for whom a 19957
criminal records check request is required by this section a copy 19958
of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 19959
109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard impression sheet 19960
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section;19961

       (b) Obtain the completed form and standard impression sheet 19962
from the applicant or employee;19963

       (c) Forward the completed form and standard impression sheet 19964
to the superintendent. 19965

       (3) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 19966
programA responsible party shall pay to the bureau of criminal 19967
identification and investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to 19968
division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each 19969
criminal records check the responsible entityparty or the 19970
responsible party's designee requests under this section. The 19971
officeresponsible party may charge an applicant a fee not 19972
exceeding the amount the officeresponsible party pays to the 19973
bureau under this section if the responsible entityparty or 19974
designee notifies the applicant at the time of initial application 19975
for employment of the amount of the fee.19976

        (F)(1) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 19977
programA responsible party may employ conditionally an applicant 19978
for whom a criminal records check is required by this section 19979
prior to obtaining the results of the criminal records check if 19980
both of the officefollowing apply:19981

       (a) The responsible party is not prohibited by division 19982
(B)(1) of this section from employing the applicant in a position 19983
that involves providing ombudspersonombudsman services to 19984
residents and recipients and the;19985

       (b) The responsible entityparty or designee requests the 19986
criminal records check in accordance with division (E) of this 19987
section not later than five business days after the applicant 19988
begins conditional employment.19989

       (2) The office of the state long-term care ombudsperson 19990
programA responsible party shall terminate the employment of an 19991
applicant employed conditionally under division (F)(1) of this 19992
section if the results of the criminal records check, other than 19993
the results of any request for information from the federal bureau 19994
of investigation, are not obtained within the period ending sixty 19995
days after the date the request for the criminal records check is 19996
made. Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check 19997
are obtained, if the results indicate that the applicant has been 19998
convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for 19999
intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense, 20000
the officeresponsible party shall terminate the applicant's 20001
employment unless circumstancesthe applicant meets standards20002
specified in rules adopted under this section that permit the 20003
officeresponsible party to employ the applicant exist and the 20004
officeresponsible party chooses to employ the applicant. 20005
Termination of employment under this division shall be considered 20006
just cause for discharge for purposes of division (D)(2) of 20007
section 4141.29 of the Revised Code if the applicant makes any 20008
attempt to deceive the officeresponsible party or designee about 20009
the applicant's criminal record.20010

       (G) The report of any criminal records check conducted 20011
pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public 20012
record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and 20013
shall not be made available to any person other than the 20014
following:20015

       (1) The applicant or employee who is the subject of the 20016
criminal records check or the applicant's or employee's 20017
representative;20018

       (2) The responsible entityparty or the responsible entity's 20019
representativedesignee;20020

       (3) If the state long-term care ombudsperson designates the 20021
head or other employee ofIn the case of a criminal records check 20022
conducted for an applicant who is under final consideration for 20023
employment with a regional long-term care ombudspersonombudsman20024
program to request a criminal records check under this section20025
(including as the head of the regional program) or an employee of 20026
a regional long-term care ombudsman program (including the head of 20027
a regional program), the state long-term care ombudsman or a 20028
representative of the office of the state long-term care 20029
ombudspersonombudsman program who is responsible for monitoring 20030
the regional program's compliance with this section;20031

       (4) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 20032
involved in a case dealing with any of the following:20033

       (a) A denial of employment of the applicant or employee;20034

       (b) Employment or unemployment benefits of the applicant or 20035
employee;20036

       (c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid program 20037
or a program the department of aging administers.20038

       (H) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is 20039
brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or 20040
property caused by an applicant or employee who the office of the 20041
state long-term care ombudsperson programa responsible party20042
employs in a position that involves providing ombudsperson20043
ombudsman services to residents and recipients, all of the 20044
following shall apply:20045

       (1) If the officeresponsible party employed the applicant or 20046
employee in good faith and reasonable reliance on the report of a 20047
criminal records check requested under this section, the office20048
responsible party shall not be found negligent solely because of 20049
its reliance on the report, even if the information in the report 20050
is determined later to have been incomplete or inaccurate.20051

       (2) If the officeresponsible party employed the applicant in 20052
good faith on a conditional basis pursuant to division (F) of this 20053
section, the officeresponsible party shall not be found 20054
negligent solely because it employed the applicant prior to 20055
receiving the report of a criminal records check requested under 20056
this section.20057

       (3) If the officeresponsible party in good faith employed 20058
the applicant or employee according tobecause the personal 20059
characterapplicant or employee meets standards established20060
specified in rules adopted under this section, the office20061
responsible party shall not be found negligent solely because the 20062
applicant or employee has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or 20063
been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 20064
disqualifying offense.20065

       (I) The state long-term care ombudsman may not act as the 20066
director of aging's designee for the purpose of this section. The 20067
head of a regional long-term care ombudsman program may not act as 20068
the regional program's designee for the purpose of this section if 20069
the head is the employee for whom a database review or criminal 20070
records check is being conducted.20071

       (J) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 20072
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. 20073

       (1) The rules may do the following:20074

       (a) Require employees to undergo database reviews and 20075
criminal records checks under this section;20076

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 20077
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, exempt one 20078
or more classes of employees from the requirements;20079

       (c) For the purpose of division (D)(7) of this section, 20080
specify other databases that are to be checked as part of a 20081
database review conducted under this section.20082

       (2) The rules shall specify all of the following:20083

       (a) The procedures for conducting database reviews under this 20084
section;20085

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 20086
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, the times 20087
at which the database reviews and criminal records checks are to 20088
be conducted;20089

       (c) If the rules specify other databases to be checked as 20090
part of the database reviews, the circumstances under which the 20091
office of the state long-term care ombudsperson programa 20092
responsible party is prohibited from employing an applicant or 20093
continuing to employ an employee who is found by a database review 20094
to be included in one or more of those databases;20095

       (d) Circumstances under which the office of the state 20096
long-term care ombudsperson program may employStandards that an 20097
applicant or employee whomust meet for a responsible party to be 20098
permitted to employ the applicant or continue to employ the 20099
employee in a position that involves providing ombudsman services 20100
to residents and recipients if the applicant or employee is found 20101
by a criminal records check required by this section to have been 20102
convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for 20103
intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense 20104
but meets personal character standards.20105

       Sec. 173.28. (A)(1) As used in this division, "incident" 20106
means the occurrence of a violation with respect to a resident or 20107
recipient, as those terms are defined in section 173.14 of the 20108
Revised Code. A violation is a separate incident for each day it 20109
occurs and for each resident who is subject to it.20110

        In lieu of the fine that may be imposed under division (A) of 20111
section 173.99 of the Revised Code, the director of aging may, 20112
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, fine a long-term care 20113
provider or other entity, or a person employed by a long-term care 20114
provider or other entity, for a violation of division (C) of 20115
section 173.24 of the Revised Code. The fine shall not exceed one 20116
thousand dollars per incident.20117

        (2) In lieu of the fine that may be imposed under division 20118
(C) of section 173.99 of the Revised Code, the director may, under 20119
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, fine a long-term care provider 20120
or other entity, or a person employed by a long-term care provider 20121
or other entity, for violating division (E) of section 173.19 of 20122
the Revised Code by denying a representative of the office of the 20123
state long-term care ombudspersonombudsman program the access 20124
required by that division. The fine shall not exceed five hundred 20125
dollars for each day the violation continued.20126

        (B) On request of the director, the attorney general shall 20127
bring and prosecute to judgment a civil action to collect any fine 20128
imposed under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section that remains 20129
unpaid thirty days after the violator's final appeal is exhausted.20130

        (C) All fines collected under this section shall be deposited 20131
into the state treasury to the credit of the state long-term care 20132
ombudspersonombudsman program fund created under section 173.26 20133
of the Revised Code.20134

       Sec. 173.394.        Sec. 173.38.  (A) As used in this section:20135

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 20136
consideration for employment with a community-based long-term care 20137
agencyresponsible party in a full-time, part-time, or temporary 20138
direct-care position that involves providing direct care to an 20139
individual or is referred to a community-based long-term care 20140
agencyresponsible party by an employment service for such a 20141
position. "Applicant" does not include a person who provides 20142
direct care to an individualbeing considered for a direct-care 20143
position as a volunteer without receiving or expecting to receive 20144
any form of remuneration other than reimbursement for actual 20145
expenses.20146

       (2) "Area agency on aging" has the same meaning as in section 20147
173.14 of the Revised Code.20148

       (3) "Community-based long-term care services" means 20149
community-based long-term care services, as defined in section 20150
173.14 of the Revised Code, that are provided under a program the 20151
department of aging administers.20152

       (4) "Consumer" means an individual who receives 20153
community-based long-term care services.20154

       (5) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 20155
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.20156

       (6) "Direct-care position" means an employment position in 20157
which an employee has either or both of the following:20158

       (i) In-person contact with one or more consumers;20159

       (ii) Access to one or more consumers' personal property or 20160
records.20161

       (7) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the offenses listed 20162
or described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 109.572 of 20163
the Revised Code.20164

       (8) "Employee" means a person employed by a community-based 20165
long-term care agencyresponsible party in a full-time, part-time, 20166
or temporary direct-care position that involves providing direct 20167
care to an individual and a person who works in such a position 20168
due to being referred to a community-based long-term care agency20169
responsible party by an employment service. "Employee" does not 20170
include a person who provides direct care to an individualworks 20171
in a direct-care position as a volunteer without receiving or 20172
expecting to receive any form of remuneration other than 20173
reimbursement for actual expenses.20174

       (9) "PASSPORT administrative agency" has the same meaning as 20175
in section 173.42 of the Revised Code.20176

       (10) "Provider" has the same meaning as in section 173.39 of 20177
the Revised Code.20178

       (11) "Responsible party" means the following:20179

       (a) An area agency on aging in the case of either of the 20180
following:20181

       (i) A person who is an applicant because the person is under 20182
final consideration for employment with the agency in a full-time, 20183
part-time, or temporary direct-care position or is referred to the 20184
agency by an employment service for such a position;20185

       (ii) A person who is an employee because the person is 20186
employed by the agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary 20187
direct-care position or works in such a position due to being 20188
referred to the agency by an employment service.20189

       (b) A PASSPORT administrative agency in the case of either of 20190
the following:20191

       (i) A person who is an applicant because the person is under 20192
final consideration for employment with the agency in a full-time, 20193
part-time, or temporary direct-care position or is referred to the 20194
agency by an employment service for such a position;20195

       (ii) A person who is an employee because the person is 20196
employed by the agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary 20197
direct-care position or works in such a position due to being 20198
referred to the agency by an employment service.20199

       (c) A provider in the case of either of the following:20200

       (i) A person who is an applicant because the person is under 20201
final consideration for employment with the provider in a 20202
full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position or is 20203
referred to the provider by an employment service for such a 20204
position;20205

       (ii) A person who is an employee because the person is 20206
employed by the provider in a full-time, part-time, or temporary 20207
direct-care position or works in such a position due to being 20208
referred to the provider by an employment service.20209

       (d) A subcontractor in the case of either of the following:20210

       (i) A person who is an applicant because the person is under 20211
final consideration for employment with the subcontractor in a 20212
full-time, part-time, or temporary direct-care position or is 20213
referred to the subcontractor by an employment service for such a 20214
position;20215

       (ii) A person who is an employee because the person is 20216
employed by the subcontractor in a full-time, part-time, or 20217
temporary direct-care position or works in such a position due to 20218
being referred to the subcontractor by an employment service.20219

       (12) "Subcontractor" has the meaning specified in rules 20220
adopted under this section.20221

       (13) "Volunteer" means a person who serves in a direct-care 20222
position without receiving or expecting to receive any form of 20223
remuneration other than reimbursement for actual expenses.20224

       (14) "Waiver agency" has the same meaning as in section 20225
5111.0335164.342 of the Revised Code.20226

       (B) This section does not apply to any individual who is 20227
subject to a database review or criminal records check under 20228
section 3701.881 of the Revised Code or to any individual who is 20229
subject to a criminal records check under section 3721.121 of the 20230
Revised Code. If a community-based long-term care agencyprovider 20231
or subcontractor also is a waiver agency, the agencyprovider or 20232
subcontractor may provide for applicants and employees to undergo 20233
database reviews and criminal records checks in accordance with 20234
section 5111.0335164.342 of the Revised Code rather than this 20235
section.20236

       (C) No community-based long-term care agencyresponsible 20237
party shall employ an applicant or continue to employ an employee 20238
in a direct-care position that involves providing direct care to 20239
an individual if any of the following apply:20240

       (1) A review of the databases listed in division (E) of this 20241
section reveals any of the following:20242

       (a) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 20243
of the databases listed in divisions (E)(1) to (5) of this 20244
section;20245

       (b) That there is in the state nurse aide registry 20246
established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code a statement 20247
detailing findings by the director of health that the applicant or 20248
employee neglected or abused a long-term care facility or 20249
residential care facility resident or misappropriated property of 20250
such a resident;20251

       (c) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 20252
of the databases, if any, specified in rules adopted under this 20253
section and the rules prohibit the agencyresponsible party from 20254
employing an applicant or continuing to employ an employee 20255
included in such a database in a direct-care position that 20256
involves providing direct care to an individual.20257

       (2) After the applicant or employee is provided, pursuant to 20258
division (F)(2)(a) of this section, a copy of the form prescribed 20259
pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 20260
and the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division 20261
(C)(2) of that section, the applicant or employee fails to 20262
complete the form or provide the applicant's or employee's 20263
fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheet.20264

       (3) Except as providedUnless the applicant or employee meets 20265
standards specified in rules adopted under this section, the 20266
applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check 20267
required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty 20268
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 20269
for a disqualifying offense.20270

       (D) Except as provided by division (G) of this section, the 20271
chief administrator of a community-based long-term care agency20272
responsible party shall inform each applicant of both of the 20273
following at the time of the applicant's initial application for 20274
employment or referral to the agencyresponsible party by an 20275
employment service for a direct-care position that involves 20276
providing direct care to an individual:20277

       (1) That a review of the databases listed in division (E) of 20278
this section will be conducted to determine whether the agency20279
responsible party is prohibited by division (C)(1) of this section 20280
from employing the applicant in the direct-care position;20281

       (2) That, unless the database review reveals that the 20282
applicant may not be employed in the direct-care position, a 20283
criminal records check of the applicant will be conducted and the 20284
applicant is required to provide a set of the applicant's 20285
fingerprint impressions as part of the criminal records check.20286

       (E) As a condition of employing any applicant in a 20287
direct-care position that involves providing direct care to an 20288
individual, the chief administrator of a community-based long-term 20289
care agencyresponsible party shall conduct a database review of 20290
the applicant in accordance with rules adopted under this section. 20291
If rules adopted under this section so require, the chief 20292
administrator of a community-based long-term care agency20293
responsible party shall conduct a database review of an employee 20294
in accordance with the rules as a condition of continuing to 20295
employ the employee in a direct-care position that involves 20296
providing direct care to an individual. However, a chief 20297
administrator is not required to conduct a database review of an 20298
applicant or employee if division (G) of this section applies. A 20299
database review shall determine whether the applicant or employee 20300
is included in any of the following:20301

       (1) The excluded parties list system that is maintained by 20302
the United States general services administration pursuant to 20303
subpart 9.4 of the federal acquisition regulation and available at 20304
the federal web site known as the system for award management;20305

       (2) The list of excluded individuals and entities maintained 20306
by the office of inspector general in the United States department 20307
of health and human services pursuant to section 1128 of the 20308
"Social Security Act," 94 Stat. 2619 (1980)sections 1128 and 20309
1156, 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7, as amended, and section 1156 of the 20310
"Social Security Act," 96 Stat. 388 (1982), 42 U.S.C. 1320c-5, as 20311
amended;20312

       (3) The registry of MR/DD employees established under section 20313
5123.52 of the Revised Code;20314

       (4) The internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender 20315
database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of 20316
the Revised Code;20317

       (5) The internet-based database of inmates established under 20318
section 5120.66 of the Revised Code;20319

       (6) The state nurse aide registry established under section 20320
3721.32 of the Revised Code;20321

       (7) Any other database, if any, specified in rules adopted 20322
under this section.20323

       (F)(1) As a condition of employing any applicant in a 20324
direct-care position that involves providing direct care to an 20325
individual, the chief administrator of a community-based long-term 20326
care agencyresponsible party shall request that the 20327
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 20328
investigation conduct a criminal records check of the applicant. 20329
If rules adopted under this section so require, the chief 20330
administrator of a community-based long-term care agency20331
responsible party shall request that the superintendent conduct a 20332
criminal records check of an employee at times specified in the 20333
rules as a condition of continuing to employ the employee in a 20334
direct-care position that involves providing direct care to an 20335
individual. However, the chief administrator is not required to 20336
request the criminal records check of the applicant or employee if 20337
division (G) of this section applies or the agencyresponsible 20338
party is prohibited by division (C)(1) of this section from 20339
employing the applicant or continuing to employ the employee in a 20340
direct-care position that involves providing direct care to an 20341
individual. If an applicant or employee for whom a criminal 20342
records check request is required by this section does not present 20343
proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year 20344
period immediately prior to the date the criminal records check is 20345
requested or provide evidence that within that five-year period 20346
the superintendent has requested information about the applicant 20347
or employee from the federal bureau of investigation in a criminal 20348
records check, the chief administrator shall request that the 20349
superintendent obtain information from the federal bureau of 20350
investigation as part of the criminal records check. Even if an 20351
applicant or employee for whom a criminal records check request is 20352
required by this section presents proof of having been a resident 20353
of this state for the five-year period, the chief administrator 20354
may request that the superintendent include information from the 20355
federal bureau of investigation in the criminal records check.20356

       (2) The chief administrator shall do all of the following:20357

       (a) Provide to each applicant and employee for whom a 20358
criminal records check request is required by this section a copy 20359
of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 20360
109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard impression sheet 20361
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section;20362

       (b) Obtain the completed form and standard impression sheet 20363
from the applicant or employee;20364

       (c) Forward the completed form and standard impression sheet 20365
to the superintendent. 20366

       (3) A community-based long-term care agencyresponsible party20367
shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification and 20368
investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of 20369
section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records 20370
check the agencyresponsible party requests under this section. An 20371
agencyA responsible party may charge an applicant a fee not 20372
exceeding the amount the agencyresponsible party pays to the 20373
bureau under this section if both of the following apply:20374

       (a) The agencyresponsible party notifies the applicant at 20375
the time of initial application for employment of the amount of 20376
the fee and that, unless the fee is paid, the applicant will not 20377
be considered for employment.20378

       (b) The medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of 20379
the Revised Code does not reimbursepay the agencyresponsible 20380
party for the fee it pays to the bureau under this section.20381

       (G) Divisions (D) to (F) of this section do not apply with 20382
regard to an applicant or employee if the applicant or employee is 20383
referred to a community-based long-term agencyresponsible party20384
by an employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or 20385
temporary staff for direct-care positions that involve providing 20386
direct care to an individual and both of the following apply:20387

       (1) The chief administrator of the agencyresponsible party20388
receives from the employment service confirmation that a review of 20389
the databases listed in division (E) of this section was conducted 20390
of the applicant or employee.20391

       (2) The chief administrator of the agencyresponsible party20392
receives from the employment service, applicant, or employee a 20393
report of the results of a criminal records check of the applicant 20394
or employee that has been conducted by the superintendent within 20395
the one-year period immediately preceding the following:20396

       (a) In the case of an applicant, the date of the applicant's 20397
referral by the employment service to the agencyresponsible 20398
party;20399

       (b) In the case of an employee, the date by which the agency20400
responsible party would otherwise have to request a criminal 20401
records check of the employee under division (F) of this section.20402

       (H)(1) A community-based long-term care agencyresponsible 20403
party may employ conditionally an applicant for whom a criminal 20404
records check request is required by this section prior to 20405
obtaining the results of the criminal records check if the agency20406
responsible party is not prohibited by division (C)(1) of this 20407
section from employing the applicant in a direct-care position 20408
that involves providing direct care to an individual and either of 20409
the following applies:20410

       (a) The chief administrator of the agencyresponsible party20411
requests the criminal records check in accordance with division 20412
(F) of this section not later than five business days after the 20413
applicant begins conditional employment.20414

       (b) The applicant is referred to the agencyresponsible party20415
by an employment service, the employment service or the applicant 20416
provides the chief administrator of the agencyresponsible party a 20417
letter that is on the letterhead of the employment service, the 20418
letter is dated and signed by a supervisor or another designated 20419
official of the employment service, and the letter states all of 20420
the following:20421

       (i) That the employment service has requested the 20422
superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding the 20423
applicant;20424

       (ii) That the requested criminal records check is to include 20425
a determination of whether the applicant has been convicted of, 20426
pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu 20427
of conviction for a disqualifying offense;20428

       (iii) That the employment service has not received the 20429
results of the criminal records check as of the date set forth on 20430
the letter;20431

       (iv) That the employment service promptly will send a copy of 20432
the results of the criminal records check to the chief 20433
administrator of the agencyresponsible party when the employment 20434
service receives the results. 20435

       (2) If a community-based long-term care agencyresponsible 20436
party employs an applicant conditionally pursuant to division 20437
(H)(1)(b) of this section, the employment service, on its receipt 20438
of the results of the criminal records check, promptly shall send 20439
a copy of the results to the chief administrator of the agency20440
responsible party.20441

       (3) A community-based long-term care agencyresponsible party20442
that employs an applicant conditionally pursuant to division 20443
(H)(1)(a) or (b) of this section shall terminate the applicant's 20444
employment if the results of the criminal records check, other 20445
than the results of any request for information from the federal 20446
bureau of investigation, are not obtained within the period ending 20447
sixty days after the date the request for the criminal records 20448
check is made. Regardless of when the results of the criminal 20449
records check are obtained, if the results indicate that the 20450
applicant has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found 20451
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 20452
disqualifying offense, the agencyresponsible party shall 20453
terminate the applicant's employment unless circumstancesthe 20454
applicant meets standards specified in rules adopted under this 20455
section that permit the agencyresponsible party to employ the 20456
applicant exist and the agencyresponsible party chooses to employ 20457
the applicant. Termination of employment under this division shall 20458
be considered just cause for discharge for purposes of division 20459
(D)(2) of section 4141.29 of the Revised Code if the applicant 20460
makes any attempt to deceive the agencyresponsible party about 20461
the applicant's criminal record.20462

       (I) The report of any criminal records check conducted 20463
pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public 20464
record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and 20465
shall not be made available to any person other than the 20466
following:20467

       (1) The applicant or employee who is the subject of the 20468
criminal records check or the applicant's or employee's 20469
representative;20470

       (2) The chief administrator of the community-based long-term 20471
care agencyresponsible party requesting the criminal records 20472
check or the administrator's representative;20473

       (3) The administrator of any other facility, agency, or 20474
program that provides direct care to individualscommunity-based 20475
long-term care services that is owned or operated by the same 20476
entity that owns or operates the community-based long-term care 20477
agencyresponsible party that requested the criminal records 20478
check;20479

       (4) The employment service that requested the criminal 20480
records check;20481

       (5) The director of aging or a person authorized by the 20482
director to monitor a community-based long-term care agency's20483
responsible party's compliance with this section;20484

       (6) The medicaid director of job and family services and the 20485
staff of the department of job and family servicesmedicaid who 20486
are involved in the administration of the medicaid program if 20487
either of the following apply:20488

       (a) In the case of a criminal records check requested by a 20489
community-based long-term care agencyprovider or subcontractor, 20490
the agencyprovider or subcontractor also is a waiver agency;20491

       (b) In the case of a criminal records check requested by an 20492
employment service, the employment service makes the request for 20493
an applicant or employee the employment service refers to a 20494
community-based long-term care agencyprovider or subcontractor20495
that also is a waiver agency.20496

       (7) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 20497
involved in a case dealing with any of the following:20498

       (a) A denial of employment of the applicant or employee;20499

       (b) Employment or unemployment benefits of the applicant or 20500
employee;20501

        (c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid program 20502
or a program the department of aging administers.20503

       (J) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is 20504
brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or 20505
property caused by an applicant or employee who a community-based 20506
long-term care agencyresponsible party employs in a direct-care20507
position that involves providing direct care to individuals, all 20508
of the following shall apply:20509

       (1) If the agencyresponsible party employed the applicant or 20510
employee in good faith and reasonable reliance on the report of a 20511
criminal records check requested under this section, the agency20512
responsible party shall not be found negligent solely because of 20513
its reliance on the report, even if the information in the report 20514
is determined later to have been incomplete or inaccurate.20515

       (2) If the agencyresponsible party employed the applicant in 20516
good faith on a conditional basis pursuant to division (H) of this 20517
section, the agencyresponsible party shall not be found 20518
negligent solely because it employed the applicant prior to 20519
receiving the report of a criminal records check requested under 20520
this section.20521

       (3) If the agencyresponsible party in good faith employed 20522
the applicant or employee according tobecause the personal 20523
characterapplicant or employee meets standards established20524
specified in rules adopted under this section, the agency20525
responsible party shall not be found negligent solely because the 20526
applicant or employee has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or 20527
been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 20528
disqualifying offense.20529

       (K) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 20530
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section.20531

       (1) The rules may do the following:20532

       (a) Require employees to undergo database reviews and 20533
criminal records checks under this section;20534

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 20535
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, exempt one 20536
or more classes of employees from the requirements;20537

       (c) For the purpose of division (E)(7) of this section, 20538
specify other databases that are to be checked as part of a 20539
database review conducted under this section.20540

       (2) The rules shall specify all of the following:20541

       (a) The meaning of the term "subcontractor";20542

       (b) The procedures for conducting database reviews under this 20543
section;20544

       (b)(c) If the rules require employees to undergo database 20545
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, the times 20546
at which the database reviews and criminal records checks are to 20547
be conducted;20548

       (c)(d) If the rules specify other databases to be checked as 20549
part of the database reviews, the circumstances under which a 20550
community-based long-term care agencyresponsible party is 20551
prohibited from employing an applicant or continuing to employ an 20552
employee who is found by a database review to be included in one 20553
or more of those databases;20554

       (d) Circumstances under which a community-based long-term 20555
care agency may employ(e) Standards that an applicant or employee 20556
whomust meet for a responsible party to be permitted to employ 20557
the applicant or continue to employ the employee in a direct-care 20558
position if the applicant or employee is found by a criminal 20559
records check required by this section to have been convicted of, 20560
pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu 20561
of conviction for a disqualifying offense but meets personal 20562
character standards.20563

       Sec. 173.39. (A) As used in sections 173.39 to 173.39420564
173.393 of the Revised Code:20565

       (1) "Community-based long-term care agencyProvider" means a 20566
person or governmentgovernmental entity that provides 20567
community-based long-term care services under a program the 20568
department of aging administers, regardless of whether the person 20569
or government entity is certified under section 173.391 or 20570
authorized to receive payment for the services from the department 20571
under section 173.392 of the Revised Code. "Community-based 20572
long-term care agencyProvider" includes a person or government20573
governmental entity that provides home and community-based 20574
services to older adults through the PASSPORT program created 20575
underas defined in section 173.40173.51 of the Revised Code.20576

       (2) "Community-based long-term care services" has the same 20577
meaning as in section 173.14 of the Revised Code.20578

        (B) Except as provided in section 173.392 of the Revised 20579
Code, the department of aging may not pay a person or government 20580
entityprovider for providing community-based long-term care 20581
services under a program the department administers unless the 20582
person or government entityprovider is certified under section 20583
173.391 of the Revised Code and provides the services.20584

       Sec. 173.391. (A) The department of aging or its designee 20585
shall do all of the following in accordance with Chapter 119. of 20586
the Revised Code:20587

        (1) Certify a person or government entityprovider to provide 20588
community-based long-term care services under a program the 20589
department administers if the person or government entityprovider20590
satisfies the requirements for certification established by rules 20591
adopted under division (B) of this section and pays the fee, if 20592
any, established by rules adopted under division (G) of this 20593
section;20594

        (2) When required to do so by rules adopted under division 20595
(B) of this section, take one or more of the following 20596
disciplinary actions against a person or government entity20597
provider certified under division (A)(1) of this section:20598

        (a) Issue a written warning;20599

        (b) Require the submission of a plan of correction or 20600
evidence of compliance with requirements identified by the 20601
department;20602

        (c) Suspend referrals;20603

        (d) Remove clients;20604

        (e) Impose a fiscal sanction such as a civil monetary penalty 20605
or an order that unearned funds be repaid;20606

        (f) Suspend the certification;20607

       (g) Revoke the certification;20608

        (h) Impose another sanction.20609

        (3) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, hold 20610
hearings when there is a dispute between the department or its 20611
designee and a person or government entityprovider concerning 20612
actions the department or its designee takes regarding a decision 20613
not to certify the person or government entityprovider under 20614
division (A)(1) of this section or a disciplinary action under 20615
divisions (A)(2)(e) to (h) of this section.20616

        (B) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 20617
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing certification 20618
requirements and standards for determining which type of 20619
disciplinary action to take under division (A)(2) of this section 20620
in individual situations. The rules shall establish procedures for 20621
all of the following:20622

        (1) Ensuring that community-based long-term care agencies20623
providers comply with section 173.394173.38 of the Revised Code;20624

        (2) Evaluating the services provided by the agencies20625
providers to ensure that the services are provided in a quality 20626
manner advantageous to the individual receiving the services;20627

        (3) Determining when to take disciplinary action under 20628
division (A)(2) of this section and which disciplinary action to 20629
take;20630

       (4) Determining what constitutes another sanction for 20631
purposes of division (A)(2)(h) of this section.20632

        (C) The procedures established in rules adopted under 20633
division (B)(2) of this section shall require that all of the 20634
following be considered as part of an evaluation described in 20635
division (B)(2) of this section:20636

        (1) The community-based long-term care agency'sprovider's20637
experience and financial responsibility;20638

        (2) The agency'sprovider's ability to comply with standards 20639
for the community-based long-term care services that the agency20640
provider provides under a program the department administers;20641

        (3) The agency'sprovider's ability to meet the needs of the 20642
individuals served;20643

        (4) Any other factor the director considers relevant.20644

        (D) The rules adopted under division (B)(3) of this section 20645
shall specify that the reasons disciplinary action may be taken 20646
under division (A)(2) of this section include good cause, 20647
including misfeasance, malfeasance, nonfeasance, confirmed abuse 20648
or neglect, financial irresponsibility, or other conduct the 20649
director determines is injurious, or poses a threat, to the health 20650
or safety of individuals being served.20651

       (E) Subject to division (F) of this section, the department 20652
is not required to hold hearings under division (A)(3) of this 20653
section if any of the following conditions apply:20654

       (1) Rules adopted by the director of aging pursuant to this 20655
chapter require the community-based long-term care agencyprovider20656
to be a party to a provider agreement; hold a license, 20657
certificate, or permit; or maintain a certification, any of which 20658
is required or issued by a state or federal government entity 20659
other than the department of aging, and either of the following is 20660
the case:20661

       (a) The provider agreement has not been entered into or the 20662
license, certificate, permit, or certification has not been 20663
obtained or maintained.20664

       (b) The provider agreement, license, certificate, permit, or 20665
certification has been denied, revoked, not renewed, or suspended 20666
or has been otherwise restricted.20667

        (2) The agency'sprovider's certification under this section 20668
has been denied, suspended, or revoked for any of the following 20669
reasons:20670

       (a) A governmentgovernmental entity of this state, other 20671
than the department of aging, has terminated or refused to renew 20672
any of the following held by, or has denied any of the following 20673
sought by, a community-based long-term care agencyprovider: a 20674
provider agreement, license, certificate, permit, or 20675
certification. Division (E)(2)(a) of this section applies 20676
regardless of whether the agencyprovider has entered into a 20677
provider agreement in, or holds a license, certificate, permit, or 20678
certification issued by, another state.20679

       (b) The agencyprovider or a principal owner or manager of 20680
the agencyprovider who provides direct care has entered a guilty 20681
plea for, or has been convicted of, an offense materially related 20682
to the medicaid program.20683

        (c) The agencyprovider or a principal owner or manager of 20684
the agencyprovider who provides direct care has entered a guilty 20685
plea for, been convicted of, or been found eligible for 20686
intervention in lieu of conviction for an offense listed or 20687
described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 109.572 of the 20688
Revised Code, but only if none of the personal characterthe 20689
provider, principal owner, or manager does not meet standards 20690
establishedspecified by the director in rules adopted under 20691
section 173.394173.38 of the Revised Code apply.20692

       (d) The United States department of health and human services 20693
has taken adverse action against the agencyprovider and that 20694
action impacts the agency'sprovider's participation in the 20695
medicaid program.20696

        (e) The agencyprovider has failed to enter into or renew a 20697
provider agreement with the PASSPORT administrative agency, as 20698
that term is defined in section 173.42 of the Revised Code, that 20699
administers programs on behalf of the department of aging in the 20700
region of the state in which the agencyprovider is certified to 20701
provide services.20702

        (f) The agencyprovider has not billed or otherwise submitted 20703
a claim to the department for payment under the medicaid program 20704
in at least two years.20705

        (g) The agencyprovider denied or failed to provide the 20706
department or its designee access to the agency'sprovider's20707
facilities during the agency'sprovider's normal business hours 20708
for purposes of conducting an audit or structural compliance 20709
review.20710

        (h) The agencyprovider has ceased doing business.20711

        (i) The agencyprovider has voluntarily relinquished its 20712
certification for any reason.20713

        (3) The agency'sprovider's provider agreement with the 20714
department of job and family servicesmedicaid has been suspended 20715
under division (C) of section 5111.0315164.37 of the Revised 20716
Code.20717

        (4) The agency'sprovider's provider agreement with the 20718
department of job and family servicesmedicaid is denied or 20719
revoked because the agencyprovider or its owner, officer, 20720
authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee has been 20721
convicted of an offense that caused the provider agreement to be 20722
suspended under section 5111.0315164.37 of the Revised Code.20723

        (F) If the department does not hold hearings when any 20724
condition described in division (E) of this section applies, the 20725
department may send a notice to the agencyprovider describing a 20726
decision not to certify the agencyprovider under division (A)(1) 20727
of this section or the disciplinary action the department proposes 20728
to take under division (A)(2)(e) to (h) of this section. The 20729
notice shall be sent to the agency'sprovider's address that is on 20730
record with the department and may be sent by regular mail.20731

       (G) The director of aging may adopt rules in accordance with 20732
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing a fee to be charged 20733
by the department of aging or its designee for certification 20734
issued under this section.20735

        All fees collected by the department or its designee under 20736
this section shall be deposited in the state treasury to the 20737
credit of the provider certification fund, which is hereby 20738
created. Money credited to the fund shall be used to pay for 20739
community-based long-term care services, administrative costs 20740
associated with community-based long-term care agencyprovider20741
certification under this section, and administrative costs related 20742
to the publication of the Ohio long-term care consumer guide.20743

       Sec. 173.392. (A) The department of aging may pay a person or 20744
government entityprovider for providing community-based long-term 20745
care services under a program the department administers, even 20746
though the person or government entityprovider is not certified 20747
under section 173.391 of the Revised Code, if all of the following 20748
are the case:20749

        (1) The person or government entityprovider has a contract 20750
with the department of aging or the department's designee to 20751
provide the services in accordance with the contract or has 20752
received a grant from the department or its designee to provide 20753
the services in accordance with a grant agreement;20754

        (2) The contract or grant agreement includes detailed 20755
conditions of participation for providers of services under a 20756
program the department administersthe provider and service 20757
standards that the person or government entityprovider is 20758
required to satisfy;20759

        (3) The person or government entityprovider complies with 20760
the contract or grant agreement;20761

       (4) The contract or grant is not for medicaid-funded 20762
services, other than services provided under the PACE program 20763
administered by the department of aging under section 173.50 of 20764
the Revised Code.20765

       (B) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 20766
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing both of the 20767
following:20768

        (1) Contracts and grant agreements between the department of 20769
aging or its designee and persons and government entities 20770
regarding community-based long-term care services provided under a 20771
program the department administersproviders;20772

        (2) The department's payment for community-based long-term 20773
care services under this section.20774

       Sec. 173.42.  (A) As used in sections 173.42 to 173.434 of 20775
the Revised Code:20776

       (1) "Area agency on aging" means a public or private 20777
nonprofit entity designated under section 173.011 of the Revised 20778
Code to administer programs on behalf of the department of aging.20779

       (2) "Department of aging-administered medicaid waiver 20780
component" means each of the following:20781

       (a) The medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program 20782
created under section 173.40173.52 of the Revised Code;20783

       (b) The choices program created under section 173.403173.5320784
of the Revised Code;20785

       (c) The medicaid-funded component of the assisted living 20786
program created under section 5111.89173.54 of the Revised Code;20787

       (d) Any other medicaid waiver component, as defined in 20788
section 5111.855166.01 of the Revised Code, that the department 20789
of aging administers pursuant to an interagency agreement with the 20790
department of job and family servicesmedicaid under section 20791
5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code.20792

       (3) "Home and community-based services covered by medicaid 20793
components the department of aging administers" means all of the 20794
following:20795

       (a) Medicaid waiver services available to a participant in a 20796
department of aging-administered medicaid waiver component;20797

       (b) The following medicaid state plan services available to a 20798
participant in a department of aging-administered medicaid waiver 20799
component as specified in rules adopted under section 5111.0220800
5164.02 of the Revised Code:20801

       (i) Home health services;20802

       (ii) Private duty nursing services;20803

       (iii) Durable medical equipment;20804

       (iv) Services of a clinical nurse specialist;20805

       (v) Services of a certified nurse practitioner.20806

       (c) Services available to a participant of the PACE program.20807

       (4) "Long-term care consultation" or "consultation" means the 20808
consultation service made available by the department of aging or 20809
a program administrator through the long-term care consultation 20810
program established pursuant to this section.20811

       (5) "Medicaid" means the medical assistance program 20812
established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code.20813

       (6) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 20814
5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code.20815

       (7)(6) "PACE program" means the component of the medicaid 20816
program the department of aging administers pursuant to section 20817
173.50 of the Revised Code.20818

       (8)(7) "PASSPORT administrative agency" means an entity under 20819
contract with the department of aging to provide administrative 20820
services regarding the PASSPORT program. 20821

       (9)(8) "Program administrator" means an area agency on aging 20822
or other entity under contract with the department of aging to 20823
administer the long-term care consultation program in a geographic 20824
region specified in the contract.20825

       (10)(9) "Representative" means a person acting on behalf of 20826
an individual specified in division (G) of this section. A 20827
representative may be a family member, attorney, hospital social 20828
worker, or any other person chosen to act on behalf of the 20829
individual.20830

       (B) The department of aging shall develop a long-term care 20831
consultation program whereby individuals or their representatives 20832
are provided with long-term care consultations and receive through 20833
these professional consultations information about options 20834
available to meet long-term care needs and information about 20835
factors to consider in making long-term care decisions. The 20836
long-term care consultations provided under the program may be 20837
provided at any appropriate time, as permitted or required under 20838
this section and the rules adopted under it, including either 20839
prior to or after the individual who is the subject of a 20840
consultation has been admitted to a nursing facility or granted 20841
assistance in receiving home and community-based services covered 20842
by medicaid components the department of aging administers.20843

        (C) The long-term care consultation program shall be 20844
administered by the department of aging, except that the 20845
department may have the program administered on a regional basis 20846
by one or more program administrators. The department and each 20847
program administrator shall administer the program in such a 20848
manner that all of the following are included:20849

       (1) Coordination and collaboration with respect to all 20850
available funding sources for long-term care services;20851

       (2) Assessments of individuals regarding their long-term care 20852
service needs;20853

       (3) Assessments of individuals regarding their on-going 20854
eligibility for long-term care services;20855

       (4) Procedures for assisting individuals in obtaining access 20856
to, and coordination of, health and supportive services, including 20857
department of aging-administered medicaid waiver components;20858

       (5) Priorities for using available resources efficiently and 20859
effectively.20860

        (D) The program's long-term care consultations shall be 20861
provided by individuals certified by the department under section 20862
173.422 of the Revised Code.20863

        (E) The information provided through a long-term care 20864
consultation shall be appropriate to the individual's needs and 20865
situation and shall address all of the following:20866

       (1) The availability of any long-term care options open to 20867
the individual;20868

       (2) Sources and methods of both public and private payment 20869
for long-term care services;20870

       (3) Factors to consider when choosing among the available 20871
programs, services, and benefits;20872

       (4) Opportunities and methods for maximizing independence and 20873
self-reliance, including support services provided by the 20874
individual's family, friends, and community.20875

       (F) An individual's long-term care consultation may include 20876
an assessment of the individual's functional capabilities. The 20877
consultation may incorporate portions of the determinations 20878
required under sections 5111.202, 5119.0615119.40, and 5123.021, 20879
and 5165.03 of the Revised Code and may be provided concurrently 20880
with the assessment required under section 5111.204173.546 or 20881
5165.04 of the Revised Code.20882

       (G)(1) Unless an exemption specified in division (I) of this 20883
section is applicable, each of the following shall be provided 20884
with a long-term care consultation:20885

       (a) An individual who applies or indicates an intention to 20886
apply for admission to a nursing facility, regardless of the 20887
source of payment to be used for the individual's care in a 20888
nursing facility;20889

       (b) An individual who requests a long-term care consultation;20890

       (c) An individual identified by the department or a program 20891
administrator as being likely to benefit from a long-term care 20892
consultation.20893

       (2) In addition to the individuals specified in division 20894
(G)(1) of this section, a long-term care consultation may be 20895
provided to a nursing facility resident regardless of the source 20896
of payment being used for the resident's care in the nursing 20897
facility. 20898

       (H)(1) Except as provided in division (H)(2) or (3) of this 20899
section, a long-term care consultation provided pursuant to 20900
division (G) of this section shall be provided as follows:20901

       (a) If the individual for whom the consultation is being 20902
provided has applied for medicaid and the consultation is being 20903
provided concurrently with the assessment required under section 20904
5111.2045165.04 of the Revised Code, the consultation shall be 20905
completed in accordance with the applicable time frames specified 20906
in that section for providing a level of care determination based 20907
on the assessment.20908

       (b) In all other cases, the consultation shall be provided 20909
not later than five calendar days after the department or program 20910
administrator receives notice of the reason for which the 20911
consultation is to be provided pursuant to division (G) of this 20912
section.20913

       (2) An individual or the individual's representative may 20914
request that a long-term care consultation be provided on a date 20915
that is later than the date required under division (H)(1)(a) or 20916
(b) of this section.20917

       (3) If a long-term care consultation cannot be completed 20918
within the number of days required by division (H)(1) or (2) of 20919
this section, the department or program administrator may do any 20920
of the following:20921

       (a) In the case of an individual specified in division (G)(1) 20922
of this section, exempt the individual from the consultation 20923
pursuant to rules that may be adopted under division (L) of this 20924
section;20925

       (b) In the case of an applicant for admission to a nursing 20926
facility, provide the consultation after the individual is 20927
admitted to the nursing facility;20928

       (c) In the case of a resident of a nursing facility, provide 20929
the consultation as soon as practicable.20930

       (I) An individual is not required to be provided a long-term 20931
care consultation under division (G)(1) of this section if any of 20932
the following apply:20933

       (1) The department or program administrator has attempted to 20934
provide the consultation, but the individual or the individual's 20935
representative refuses to cooperate;20936

       (2) The individual is to receive care in a nursing facility 20937
under a contract for continuing care as defined in section 173.13 20938
of the Revised Code;20939

       (3) The individual has a contractual right to admission to a 20940
nursing facility operated as part of a system of continuing care 20941
in conjunction with one or more facilities that provide a less 20942
intensive level of services, including a residential care facility 20943
licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, a residential 20944
facility licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised 20945
Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care 20946
services for three to sixteen unrelated adults, or an independent 20947
living arrangement;20948

       (4) The individual is to receive continual care in a home for 20949
the aged exempt from taxation under section 5701.13 of the Revised 20950
Code;20951

       (5) The individual is seeking admission to a facility that is 20952
not a nursing facility with a provider agreement under section 20953
5111.225165.07, 5111.6715165.511, or 5111.6725165.512 of the 20954
Revised Code;20955

       (6) The individual is exempted from the long-term care 20956
consultation requirement by the department or the program 20957
administrator pursuant to rules that may be adopted under division 20958
(L) of this section.20959

        (J) As part of the long-term care consultation program, the 20960
department or program administrator shall assist an individual or 20961
individual's representative in accessing all sources of care and 20962
services that are appropriate for the individual and for which the 20963
individual is eligible, including all available home and 20964
community-based services covered by medicaid components the 20965
department of aging administers. The assistance shall include 20966
providing for the conduct of assessments or other evaluations and 20967
the development of individualized plans of care or services under 20968
section 173.424 of the Revised Code.20969

       (K) No nursing facility for which an operator has a provider 20970
agreement under section 5111.225165.07, 5111.6715165.511, or 20971
5111.6725165.512 of the Revised Code shall admit any individual 20972
as a resident, unless the nursing facility has received evidence 20973
that a long-term care consultation has been completed for the 20974
individual or division (I) of this section is applicable to the 20975
individual.20976

       (L) The director of aging may adopt any rules the director 20977
considers necessary for the implementation and administration of 20978
this section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with 20979
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and may specify any or all of the 20980
following:20981

       (1) Procedures for providing long-term care consultations 20982
pursuant to this section;20983

       (2) Information to be provided through long-term care 20984
consultations regarding long-term care services that are 20985
available;20986

       (3) Criteria and procedures to be used to identify and 20987
recommend appropriate service options for an individual receiving 20988
a long-term care consultation;20989

       (4) Criteria for exempting individuals from the long-term 20990
care consultation requirement;20991

       (5) Circumstances under which it may be appropriate to 20992
provide an individual's long-term care consultation after the 20993
individual's admission to a nursing facility rather than before 20994
admission;20995

        (6) Criteria for identifying nursing facility residents who 20996
would benefit from the provision of a long-term care consultation;20997

       (7) A description of the types of information from a nursing 20998
facility that is needed under the long-term care consultation 20999
program to assist a resident with relocation from the facility;21000

       (8) Standards to prevent conflicts of interest relative to 21001
the referrals made by a person who performs a long-term care 21002
consultation, including standards that prohibit the person from 21003
being employed by a provider of long-term care services;21004

       (9) Procedures for providing notice and an opportunity for a 21005
hearing under division (N) of this section.21006

       (M) To assist the department and each program administrator 21007
with identifying individuals who are likely to benefit from a 21008
long-term care consultation, the department and program 21009
administrator may ask to be given access to nursing facility 21010
resident assessment data collected through the use of the resident 21011
assessment instrument specified in rules adopted underauthorized 21012
by section 5111.025165.191 of the Revised Code for purposes of 21013
the medicaid program. Except when prohibited by state or federal 21014
law, the department of health, department of job and family 21015
servicesmedicaid, or nursing facility holding the data shall 21016
grant access to the data on receipt of the request from the 21017
department of aging or program administrator.21018

       (N)(1) The director of aging, after providing notice and an 21019
opportunity for a hearing, may fine a nursing facility an amount 21020
determined by rules the director shall adopt in accordance with 21021
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for any of the following reasons:21022

       (a) The nursing facility admits an individual, without 21023
evidence that a long-term care consultation has been provided, as 21024
required by this section;21025

       (b) The nursing facility denies a person attempting to 21026
provide a long-term care consultation access to the facility or a 21027
resident of the facility;21028

       (c) The nursing facility denies the department of aging or 21029
program administrator access to the facility or a resident of the 21030
facility, as the department or administrator considers necessary 21031
to administer the program.21032

       (2) In accordance with section 5111.625162.66 of the Revised 21033
Code, all fines collected under division (N)(1) of this section 21034
shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the 21035
residents protection fund.21036

       Sec. 173.43. (A) Subject to section 173.433 of the Revised 21037
Code, theThe department of aging shall enter into an interagency 21038
agreement with the department of job and family servicesmedicaid21039
under section 5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code under which the 21040
department of aging is required to establish for each biennium a 21041
unified long-term care budget for home and community-based 21042
services covered by medicaid components the department of aging 21043
administers. The interagency agreement shall require the 21044
department of aging to do all of the following:21045

       (1) Administer the unified long-term care budget in 21046
accordance with sections 173.43 to 173.434 of the Revised Code and 21047
the general assembly's appropriations for home and community-based 21048
services covered by medicaid components the department of aging 21049
administers for the applicable biennium;21050

       (2) Contract with each PASSPORT administrative agency for 21051
assistance in the administration of the unified long-term care 21052
budget;21053

       (3) Provide individuals who are eligible for home and 21054
community-based services covered by medicaid components the 21055
department of aging administers a choice of services that meet the 21056
individuals' needs and improve their quality of life;21057

       (4) Provide a continuum of services that meet the life-long 21058
needs of individuals who are eligible for home and community-based 21059
services covered by medicaid components the department of aging 21060
administers.21061

       (B) The director of budget and management shall create new 21062
appropriation items as necessary for establishment of the unified 21063
long-term care budget.21064

       Sec. 173.431. Subject to section 173.433 of the Revised 21065
Code, theThe department of aging shall ensure that the unified 21066
long-term care budget established under section 173.43 of the 21067
Revised Code is administered in a manner that provides medicaid 21068
coverage of and expands access to all of the following as 21069
necessary to meet the needs of individuals receiving home and 21070
community-based services covered by medicaid components the 21071
department of aging administers:21072

       (A) To the extent permitted by the medicaid waivers 21073
authorizing department of aging-administered medicaid waiver 21074
components, all of the following medicaid waiver services provided 21075
under department of aging-administered medicaid waiver components:21076

       (1) Personal care services;21077

       (2) Home-delivered meals;21078

       (3) Adult day-care;21079

       (4) Homemaker services;21080

       (5) Emergency response services;21081

       (6) Medical equipment and supplies;21082

       (7) Chore services;21083

       (8) Social work counseling;21084

       (9) Nutritional counseling;21085

       (10) Independent living assistance;21086

       (11) Medical transportation;21087

       (12) Nonmedical transportation;21088

       (13) Home care attendant services;21089

       (14) Assisted living services;21090

       (15) Community transition services;21091

       (16) Enhanced community living services;21092

       (17) All other medicaid waiver services provided under 21093
department of aging-administered medicaid waiver components.21094

       (B) All of the following state medicaid plan services as 21095
specified in rules adopted under section 5111.025164.02 of the 21096
Revised Code:21097

       (1) Home health services;21098

       (2) Private duty nursing services;21099

       (3) Durable medical equipment;21100

       (4) Services of a clinical nurse specialist;21101

       (5) Services of a certified nurse practitioner.21102

       (C) The services that the PACE program provides.21103

       Sec. 173.432. Subject to section 173.433 of the Revised Code, 21104
theThe department of aging or its designee shall provide care 21105
management and authorization services with regard to the state 21106
plan services specified in division (B) of section 173.431 of the 21107
Revised Code that are provided to participants of department of 21108
aging-administered medicaid waiver components. The department or 21109
its designee shall ensure that no person providing the care 21110
management and authorization services performs an activity that 21111
may not be performed without a valid certificate or license issued 21112
by an agency of this state unless the person holds the valid 21113
certificate or license.21114

       Sec. 173.434. The director of job and family services shall 21115
adoptTo the extent authorized by rules underauthorized by21116
section 5111.855162.021 of the Revised Code to authorize, the 21117
director of aging toshall adopt rules that are needed to 21118
implement sections 173.43 to 173.432 of the Revised Code. The 21119
director of aging's rules shall be adopted in accordance with 21120
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.21121

       Sec. 173.45. As used in this section and in sections 173.46 21122
to 173.49 of the Revised Code:21123

        (A) "Residential facility" means a residential facility 21124
licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code that 21125
provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care services 21126
for three to sixteen unrelated adults.21127

       (B) "Community-based long-term care services" has the same 21128
meaning as in section 173.14 of the Revised Code.21129

       (C) "Long-term care facility" means a nursing home or 21130
residential care facility.21131

        (D) "Nursing home" and "residential care facility" have the 21132
same meanings as in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.21133

        (E) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 21134
5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code.21135

       Sec. 173.47. (A) For purposes of publishing the Ohio 21136
long-term care consumer guide, the department of aging shall 21137
conduct or provide for the conduct of an annual customer 21138
satisfaction survey of each long-term care facility. The results 21139
of the surveys may include information obtained from long-term 21140
care facility residents, their families, or both. A survey that is 21141
to include information obtained from nursing facility residents 21142
shall include the questions specified in divisions (C)(7)(a) and 21143
(b) and (18) and (D)(7)(a) and (b) of section 5111.2445165.25 of 21144
the Revised Code. A survey that is to include information obtained 21145
from the families of nursing facility residents shall include the 21146
questions specified in divisions (C)(8)(a) and (b) and (19) and 21147
(D)(8)(a) and (b) of section 5111.2445165.25 of the Revised Code.21148

        (B) Each long-term care facility shall cooperate in the 21149
conduct of its annual customer satisfaction survey.21150

       Sec. 173.48. (A)(1) The department of aging may charge annual 21151
fees to long-term care facilities for the publication of the Ohio 21152
long-term care consumer guide. The department may contract with 21153
any person or government entity to collect the fees on its behalf. 21154
All fees collected under this section shall be deposited in 21155
accordance with division (B) of this section.21156

        (2) The annual fees charged under this section shall not 21157
exceed the following amounts:21158

       (a) Six hundred fifty dollars for each long-term care 21159
facility that is a nursing home;21160

        (b) Three hundred dollars for each long-term care facility 21161
that is a residential care facility.21162

       (3) Fees paid by a long-term care facility that is a nursing 21163
facility shall be reimbursed through the medicaid program operated 21164
under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code.21165

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 21166
long-term care consumer guide fund. Money collected from the fees 21167
charged for the publication of the Ohio long-term care consumer 21168
guide under division (A) of this section shall be credited to the 21169
fund. The department shall use money in the fund for costs 21170
associated with publishing the Ohio long-term care consumer guide, 21171
including, but not limited to, costs incurred in conducting or 21172
providing for the conduct of customer satisfaction surveys.21173

       Sec. 173.50. (A) Pursuant to a contract entered into with the 21174
department of job and family servicesmedicaid as an interagency 21175
agreement under section 5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code, the 21176
department of aging shall carry out the day-to-day administration 21177
of the component of the medicaid program established under Chapter 21178
5111. of the Revised Code known as the program of all-inclusive 21179
care for the elderly or PACE. The department of aging shall carry 21180
out its PACE administrative duties in accordance with the 21181
provisions of the interagency agreement and all applicable federal 21182
laws, including the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965)21183
section 1934, 42 U.S.C. 1396u-4, as amended.21184

       (B) The departmentTo the extent authorized by rules 21185
authorized by section 5162.021 of the Revised Code, the director21186
of aging may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 21187
Revised Code regarding the PACE program, including rules 21188
establishing priorities for enrolling in the program pursuant to 21189
section 173.501 of the Revised Code. The department's rules are 21190
subject to both of the following:21191

       (1) The rules shall be authorized by rules adopted by the 21192
department of job and family services.21193

       (2) The rules shall address only those issues that are not 21194
addressed in rules adopted by the department of job and family 21195
servicesmedicaid director for the PACE program.21196

       Sec. 173.501.  (A) As used in this section:21197

        "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5111.2021198
5165.01 of the Revised Code.21199

       "PACE provider" has the same meaning as in the "Social 21200
Security Act," section 1934(a)(3), 42 U.S.C. 1396u-4(a)(3).21201

       (B) The department of aging shall establish a home first 21202
component of the PACE program under which eligible individuals may 21203
be enrolled in the PACE program in accordance with this section. 21204
An individual is eligible for the PACE program's home first 21205
component if both of the following apply:21206

       (1) The individual has been determined to be eligible for the 21207
PACE program.21208

       (2) At least one of the following applies:21209

       (a) The individual has been admitted to a nursing facility.21210

       (b) A physician has determined and documented in writing that 21211
the individual has a medical condition that, unless the individual 21212
is enrolled in home and community-based services such as the PACE 21213
program, will require the individual to be admitted to a nursing 21214
facility within thirty days of the physician's determination.21215

       (c) The individual has been hospitalized and a physician has 21216
determined and documented in writing that, unless the individual 21217
is enrolled in home and community-based services such as the PACE 21218
program, the individual is to be transported directly from the 21219
hospital to a nursing facility and admitted.21220

       (d) Both of the following apply:21221

       (i) The individual is the subject of a report made under 21222
section 5101.61 of the Revised Code regarding abuse, neglect, or 21223
exploitation or such a report referred to a county department of 21224
job and family services under section 5126.31 of the Revised Code 21225
or has made a request to a county department for protective 21226
services as defined in section 5101.60 of the Revised Code.21227

       (ii) A county department of job and family services and an 21228
area agency on aging have jointly documented in writing that, 21229
unless the individual is enrolled in home and community-based 21230
services such as the PACE program, the individual should be 21231
admitted to a nursing facility.21232

       (C) Each month, the department of aging shall identify 21233
individuals who are eligible for the home first component of the 21234
PACE program. When the department identifies such an individual, 21235
the department shall notify the PACE provider serving the area in 21236
which the individual resides. The PACE provider shall determine 21237
whether the PACE program is appropriate for the individual and 21238
whether the individual would rather participate in the PACE 21239
program than continue or begin to reside in a nursing facility. If 21240
the PACE provider determines that the PACE program is appropriate 21241
for the individual and the individual would rather participate in 21242
the PACE program than continue or begin to reside in a nursing 21243
facility, the PACE provider shall so notify the department of 21244
aging. On receipt of the notice from the PACE provider, the 21245
department of aging shall approve the individual's enrollment in 21246
the PACE program in accordance with priorities established in 21247
rules adopted under section 173.50 of the Revised Code. 21248

       Sec. 173.51.  As used in sections 173.51 to 173.56 of the 21249
Revised Code:21250

       "Area agency on aging" has the same meaning as in section 21251
173.14 of the Revised Code.21252

       "Assisted living program" means the program that consists of 21253
a medicaid-funded component created under section 173.54 of the 21254
Revised Code and a state-funded component created under section 21255
173.543 of the Revised Code and provides assisted living services 21256
to individuals who meet the program's applicable eligibility 21257
requirements.21258

       "Assisted living services" means the following home and 21259
community-based services: personal care, homemaker, chore, 21260
attendant care, companion, medication oversight, and therapeutic 21261
social and recreational programming.21262

       "Assisted living waiver" means the federal medicaid waiver 21263
granted by the United States secretary of health and human 21264
services that authorizes the medicaid-funded component of the 21265
assisted living program.21266

       "Choices program" means the program created under section 21267
173.53 of the Revised Code.21268

       "County or district home" means a county or district home 21269
operated under Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code.21270

       "Long-term care consultation program" means the program the 21271
department of aging is required to develop under section 173.42 of 21272
the Revised Code.21273

       "Long-term care consultation program administrator" or 21274
"administrator" means the department of aging or, if the 21275
department contracts with an area agency on aging or other entity 21276
to administer the long-term care consultation program for a 21277
particular area, that agency or entity.21278

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 21279
section 5166.01 of the Revised Code.21280

       "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5165.01 21281
of the Revised Code.21282

       "PASSPORT administrative agency" has the same meaning as in 21283
section 173.42 of the Revised Code.21284

       "PASSPORT program" means the preadmission screening system 21285
providing options and resources today program (PASSPORT) that 21286
consists of a medicaid-funded component created under section 21287
173.52 of the Revised Code and a state-funded component created 21288
under section 173.522 of the Revised Code and provides home and 21289
community-based services as an alternative to nursing facility 21290
placement for individuals who are aged and disabled and meet the 21291
program's applicable eligibility requirements.21292

       "PASSPORT region" means a group of contiguous counties served 21293
by an individual PASSPORT administrative agency.21294

       "PASSPORT waiver" means the federal medicaid waiver granted 21295
by the United States secretary of health and human services that 21296
authorizes the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program.21297

       "Representative" means a person acting on behalf of an 21298
applicant for the medicaid-funded component or state-funded 21299
component of the assisted living program. A representative may be 21300
a family member, attorney, hospital social worker, or any other 21301
person chosen to act on behalf of an applicant.21302

       "Residential care facility" has the same meaning as in 21303
section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.21304

       "Unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 21305
component" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 21306
section 5166.14 of the Revised Code.21307

       Sec. 173.40.        Sec. 173.52.  (A) As used in sections 173.40 to 21308
173.402 of the Revised Code:21309

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 21310
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.21311

       "PASSPORT program" means the program created under this 21312
section.21313

       "PASSPORT waiver" means the federal medicaid waiver granted 21314
by the United States secretary of health and human services that 21315
authorizes the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program.21316

       "Unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 21317
component" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 21318
section 5111.864 of the Revised Code.21319

       (B) There is hereby createdThe department of medicaid shall 21320
create the medicaid-funded component of the preadmission screening 21321
system providing options and resources today program, or PASSPORT 21322
program. The PASSPORT program shall provide home and 21323
community-based services as an alternative to nursing facility 21324
placement for individuals who are aged and disabled and meet the 21325
program's applicable eligibility requirements. Subject to division 21326
(C) of this section, the program shall have a medicaid-funded 21327
component and a state-funded component.In creating the 21328
medicaid-funded component, the department of medicaid shall 21329
collaborate with the department of aging.21330

       (C)(1)(B) Unless the medicaid-funded component of the 21331
PASSPORT program is terminated under division (C)(2) of this 21332
section, all of the following apply:21333

       (a)(1) The department of aging shall administer the 21334
medicaid-funded component through a contract entered into with the 21335
department of job and family servicesmedicaid under section 21336
5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code.21337

       (b)(2) The medicaid-funded component shall be operated as a 21338
separate medicaid waiver component. 21339

       (c)(3) For an individual to be eligible for the 21340
medicaid-funded component, the individual must be a medicaid 21341
recipient and meet the additional eligibility requirements 21342
applicable to the individual established in rules adopted under 21343
division (C)(1)(d)(B)(4) of this section.21344

       (d) The director of job and family services shall adopt(4) 21345
To the extent authorized by rules underauthorization by section 21346
5111.855162.021 of the Revised Code and, the director of aging 21347
shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 21348
Code to implement the medicaid-funded component.21349

       (2)(C) If the unified long-term services and support medicaid 21350
waiver component is created, the departments of aging and job and 21351
family servicesmedicaid shall work together to determine whether 21352
the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program should 21353
continue to operate as a separate medicaid waiver component or be 21354
terminated. If the departments determine that the medicaid-funded 21355
component of the PASSPORT program should be terminated, the 21356
medicaid-funded component shall cease to exist on a date the 21357
departments shall specify.21358

       (D)(1) The department of aging shall administer the 21359
state-funded component of the PASSPORT program. The state-funded 21360
component shall not be administered as part of the medicaid 21361
program.21362

       (2) For an individual to be eligible for the state-funded 21363
component, the individual must meet one of the following 21364
requirements and meet the additional eligibility requirements 21365
applicable to the individual established in rules adopted under 21366
division (D)(4) of this section:21367

       (a) The individual must have been enrolled in the 21368
state-funded component on September 1, 1991, (as the state-funded 21369
component was authorized by uncodified law in effect at that time) 21370
and have had one or more applications for enrollment in the 21371
medicaid-funded component (or, if the medicaid-funded component is 21372
terminated under division (C)(2) of this section, the unified 21373
long-term services and support medicaid waiver component) denied.21374

       (b) The individual must have had the individual's enrollment 21375
in the medicaid-funded component (or, if the medicaid-funded 21376
component is terminated under division (C)(2) of this section, the 21377
unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver component) 21378
terminated and the individual must still need the home and 21379
community-based services provided under the PASSPORT program to 21380
protect the individual's health and safety.21381

       (c) The individual must have an application for the 21382
medicaid-funded component (or, if the medicaid-funded component is 21383
terminated under division (C)(2) of this section, the unified 21384
long-term services and support medicaid waiver component) pending 21385
and the department or the department's designee must have 21386
determined that the individual meets the nonfinancial eligibility 21387
requirements of the medicaid-funded component (or, if the 21388
medicaid-funded component is terminated under division (C)(2) of 21389
this section, the unified long-term services and support medicaid 21390
waiver component) and not have reason to doubt that the individual 21391
meets the financial eligibility requirements of the 21392
medicaid-funded component (or, if the medicaid-funded component is 21393
terminated under division (C)(2) of this section, the unified 21394
long-term services and support medicaid waiver component).21395

       (3) An individual who is eligible for the state-funded 21396
component because the individual meets the requirement of division 21397
(D)(2)(c) of this section may participate in the component on that 21398
basis for not more than ninety days.21399

       (4) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 21400
with section 111.15 of the Revised Code to implement the 21401
state-funded component. The additional eligibility requirements 21402
established in the rules may vary for the different groups of 21403
individuals specified in divisions (D)(2)(a), (b), and (c) of this 21404
section.21405

       Sec. 173.401.        Sec. 173.521.  (A) As used in this section:21406

        "Area agency on aging" has the same meaning as in section 21407
173.14 of the Revised Code.21408

        "Long-term care consultation program" means the program the 21409
department of aging is required to develop under section 173.42 of 21410
the Revised Code.21411

        "Long-term care consultation program administrator" or 21412
"administrator" means the department of aging or, if the 21413
department contracts with an area agency on aging or other entity 21414
to administer the long-term care consultation program for a 21415
particular area, that agency or entity.21416

        "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 21417
of the Revised Code.21418

       (B) SubjectUnless the medicaid-funded component of the 21419
PASSPORT program is terminated pursuant to division (C)(2) of 21420
section 173.40173.52 of the Revised Code, the department shall 21421
establish a home first component of the PASSPORT program under 21422
which eligible individuals may be enrolled in the medicaid-funded 21423
component of the PASSPORT program in accordance with this section. 21424
An individual is eligible for the PASSPORT program's home first 21425
component if both of the following apply:21426

       (1) The individual has been determined to be eligible for the 21427
medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program.21428

       (2) At least one of the following applies:21429

       (a) The individual has been admitted to a nursing facility.21430

       (b) A physician has determined and documented in writing that 21431
the individual has a medical condition that, unless the individual 21432
is enrolled in home and community-based services such as the 21433
PASSPORT program, will require the individual to be admitted to a 21434
nursing facility within thirty days of the physician's 21435
determination.21436

       (c) The individual has been hospitalized and a physician has 21437
determined and documented in writing that, unless the individual 21438
is enrolled in home and community-based services such as the 21439
PASSPORT program, the individual is to be transported directly 21440
from the hospital to a nursing facility and admitted.21441

       (d) Both of the following apply:21442

       (i) The individual is the subject of a report made under 21443
section 5101.61 of the Revised Code regarding abuse, neglect, or 21444
exploitation or such a report referred to a county department of 21445
job and family services under section 5126.31 of the Revised Code 21446
or has made a request to a county department for protective 21447
services as defined in section 5101.60 of the Revised Code.21448

       (ii) A county department of job and family services and an 21449
area agency on aging have jointly documented in writing that, 21450
unless the individual is enrolled in home and community-based 21451
services such as the PASSPORT program, the individual should be 21452
admitted to a nursing facility.21453

       (C)(B) Each month, each area agency on aging shall identify 21454
individuals residing in the area that the agency serves who are 21455
eligible for the home first component of the PASSPORT program. 21456
When an area agency on aging identifies such an individual, the 21457
agency shall notify the long-term care consultation program 21458
administrator serving the area in which the individual resides. 21459
The administrator shall determine whether the PASSPORT program is 21460
appropriate for the individual and whether the individual would 21461
rather participate in the PASSPORT program than continue or begin 21462
to reside in a nursing facility. If the administrator determines 21463
that the PASSPORT program is appropriate for the individual and 21464
the individual would rather participate in the PASSPORT program 21465
than continue or begin to reside in a nursing facility, the 21466
administrator shall so notify the department of aging. On receipt 21467
of the notice from the administrator, the department shall approve 21468
the individual's enrollment in the medicaid-funded component of 21469
the PASSPORT program regardless of the unified waiting list 21470
established under section 173.404173.55 of the Revised Code, 21471
unless the enrollment would cause the component to exceed any 21472
limit on the number of individuals who may be enrolled in the 21473
component as set by the United States secretary of health and 21474
human services in the PASSPORT waiver.21475

       Sec. 173.522.  (A) The department of aging shall create and 21476
administer the state-funded component of the PASSPORT program. The 21477
state-funded component shall not be administered as part of the 21478
medicaid program.21479

       (B) For an individual to be eligible for the state-funded 21480
component of the PASSPORT program, the individual must meet one of 21481
the following requirements and meet the additional eligibility 21482
requirements applicable to the individual established in rules 21483
adopted under division (D) of this section:21484

       (1) The individual must have been enrolled in the 21485
state-funded component on September 1, 1991, (as the state-funded 21486
component was authorized by uncodified law in effect at that time) 21487
and have had one or more applications for enrollment in the 21488
medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program (or, if the 21489
medicaid-funded component is terminated under division (C) of 21490
section 173.52 of the Revised Code, the unified long-term services 21491
and support medicaid waiver component) denied.21492

       (2) The individual must have had the individual's enrollment 21493
in the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program (or, if 21494
the medicaid-funded component is terminated under division (C) of 21495
section 173.52 of the Revised Code, the unified long-term services 21496
and support medicaid waiver component) terminated and the 21497
individual must still need the home and community-based services 21498
provided under the PASSPORT program to protect the individual's 21499
health and safety.21500

       (3) The individual must have an application for the 21501
medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program (or, if the 21502
medicaid-funded component is terminated under division (C) of 21503
section 173.52 of the Revised Code, the unified long-term services 21504
and support medicaid waiver component) pending and the department 21505
or the department's designee must have determined that the 21506
individual meets the nonfinancial eligibility requirements of the 21507
medicaid-funded component (or, if the medicaid-funded component is 21508
terminated under division (C) of section 173.52 of the Revised 21509
Code, the unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 21510
component) and not have reason to doubt that the individual meets 21511
the financial eligibility requirements of the medicaid-funded 21512
component (or, if the medicaid-funded component is terminated 21513
under division (C) of section 173.52 of the Revised Code, the 21514
unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver component).21515

       (C) An individual who is eligible for the state-funded 21516
component of the PASSPORT program because the individual meets the 21517
requirement of division (B)(3) of this section may participate in 21518
the component on that basis for not more than ninety days.21519

       (D) The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance 21520
with section 111.15 of the Revised Code to implement the 21521
state-funded component of the PASSPORT program. The additional 21522
eligibility requirements established in the rules may vary for the 21523
different groups of individuals specified in divisions (B)(1), 21524
(2), and (3) of this section.21525

       Sec. 173.523. (A) An individual who is an applicant for or 21526
participant or former participant in the state-funded component of 21527
the PASSPORT program may appeal an adverse action taken or 21528
proposed to be taken by the department of aging or an entity 21529
designated by the department concerning participation in or 21530
services provided under the component if the action will result in 21531
any of the following:21532

       (1) Denial of enrollment or continued enrollment in the 21533
component;21534

       (2) Denial of or reduction in the amount of services 21535
requested by or offered to the individual under the component;21536

       (3) Assessment of any patient liability payment pursuant to 21537
rules adopted by the department under this section.21538

       The appeal shall be made in accordance with section 173.56 of 21539
the Revised Code and rules adopted pursuant to that section.21540

       (B) An individual who is an applicant for or participant or 21541
former participant in the state-funded component of the PASSPORT 21542
program may not bring an appeal under this or any other section of 21543
the Revised Code if any of the following is the case:21544

       (1) The individual has voluntarily withdrawn the application 21545
for enrollment in the component;21546

       (2) The individual has voluntarily terminated enrollment in 21547
the component;21548

       (3) The individual agrees with the action being taken or 21549
proposed;21550

       (4) The individual fails to submit a written request for a 21551
hearing to the director of aging within the time specified in the 21552
rules adopted pursuant to section 173.56 of the Revised Code;21553

       (5) The individual has received services under the component 21554
for the maximum time permitted by this section. 21555

       Sec. 173.402.        Sec. 173.524. An individual enrolled in the PASSPORT 21556
program may request that home-delivered meals provided to the 21557
individual under the PASSPORT program be kosher. If such a request 21558
is made, the department of aging or the department's designee 21559
shall ensure that each home-delivered meal provided to the 21560
individual under the PASSPORT program is kosher. In complying with 21561
this requirement, the department or department's designee shall 21562
require each entity that provides home-delivered meals to the 21563
individual to provide the individual with meals that meet, as much 21564
as possible, the requirements established in rules adopted under 21565
section 173.40sections 173.52 and 173.522 of the Revised Code 21566
governing the home-delivered meal service while complying with 21567
kosher practices for meal preparation and dietary restrictions.21568

       An entity that provides a kosher home-delivered meal to a 21569
PASSPORT program enrollee pursuant to this section shall be 21570
reimbursed for the meal at a rate equal to the rate for 21571
home-delivered meals furnished to PASSPORT program enrollees 21572
requiring a therapeutic diet.21573

       Sec. 173.525. (A) The PASSPORT program shall include a 21574
structured family caregiver component as a pilot program in three 21575
rural PASSPORT regions under which an individual enrolled in the 21576
PASSPORT program may choose a family member to provide the 21577
individual home and community-based services that the individual 21578
receives under the PASSPORT program. A family member must do all 21579
of the following to be eligible to be a family caregiver under the 21580
PASSPORT program:21581

        (1) Complete all the training, obtain all required 21582
credentials, and satisfy all other applicable requirements to be a 21583
PASSPORT provider;21584

        (2) Arrange for an agency that is a PASSPORT provider to do 21585
all of the following:21586

        (a) Assist the family member with the requirements to be a 21587
family caregiver;21588

       (b) Provide or arrange professional staff training to or for 21589
the family member;21590

        (c) If possible, include the family member in electronic 21591
records used for the PASSPORT program;21592

        (d) Provide professional staff support that is appropriate 21593
for the PASSPORT enrollee's care needs to the enrollee for whom 21594
the family member serves as a family caregiver.21595

       (3) Comply with any other applicable requirements specified 21596
in rules adopted under sections 173.52 and 173.522 of the Revised 21597
Code.21598

        (B) An individual may serve as the family caregiver for not 21599
more than two PASSPORT enrollees. A family caregiver may provide 21600
home and community-based services covered by the PASSPORT program 21601
in the home of either the caregiver or the PASSPORT enrollee.21602

        (C) The structured family caregiver component of the PASSPORT 21603
program shall be available as a pilot program in three rural 21604
PASSPORT regions not later than January 1, 2014. The payment rate 21605
for the component shall be adequate to pay the family caregiver a 21606
stipend and reimburse the agency provider for the costs of 21607
providing professional staff support pursuant to division 21608
(A)(2)(d) of this section.21609

       Sec. 173.403.        Sec. 173.53.  (A) As used in this section:21610

       "Choices program" means the program created under this 21611
section.21612

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 21613
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.21614

       "Unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 21615
component" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 21616
section 5111.864 of the Revised Code.21617

       (B) Subject to division (C) of this section, there is hereby 21618
createdThe department of medicaid shall create the choices 21619
program. In creating the choices program, the department of 21620
medicaid shall collaborate with the department of aging. Subject 21621
to division (B) of this section:21622

       (1) The choices program shall provide home and 21623
community-based services. The;21624

       (2) The department of aging shall administer the choices21625
program through a contract entered into with the department of 21626
job and family servicesmedicaid under section 5111.915162.35 of 21627
the Revised Code. Subject to federal approval, the;21628

       (3) The choices program shall be available statewide.21629

       (C)(B) If the unified long-term services and support medicaid 21630
waiver component is created, the departments of aging and job and 21631
family servicesmedicaid shall work togethercollaborate to 21632
determine whether the choices program should continue to operate 21633
as a separate medicaid waiver component or be terminated. If the 21634
departments determine that the choices program should be 21635
terminated, the program shall cease to exist on a date the 21636
departments shall specify.21637

       (C) If the choices program is terminated pursuant to division 21638
(B) of this section or for another reason, not sooner than six 21639
months before the date on which the program ceases to exist, the 21640
director of aging may do both of the following:21641

       (1) Suspend new enrollments in the choices program;21642

       (2) Transfer participants of the choices program to the 21643
following:21644

       (a) Except as provided in division (C)(2)(b) of this section, 21645
the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program created 21646
under section 173.52 of the Revised Code;21647

       (b) If the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program 21648
is terminated pursuant to division (C) of section 173.52 of the 21649
Revised Code, the unified long-term services and support medicaid 21650
waiver component.21651

       Sec. 5111.89.        Sec. 173.54.  (A) As used in sections 5111.89 to 21652
5111.894 of the Revised Code:21653

       "Area agency on aging" has the same meaning as in section 21654
173.14 of the Revised Code.21655

       "Assisted living program" means the program created under 21656
this section.21657

       "Assisted living services" means the following home and 21658
community-based services: personal care, homemaker, chore, 21659
attendant care, companion, medication oversight, and therapeutic 21660
social and recreational programming.21661

       "Assisted living waiver" means the federal medicaid waiver 21662
granted by the United States secretary of health and human 21663
services that authorizes the medicaid-funded component of the 21664
assisted living program.21665

       "County or district home" means a county or district home 21666
operated under Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code.21667

       "Long-term care consultation program" means the program the 21668
department of aging is required to develop under section 173.42 of 21669
the Revised Code.21670

       "Long-term care consultation program administrator" or 21671
"administrator" means the department of aging or, if the 21672
department contracts with an area agency on aging or other entity 21673
to administer the long-term care consultation program for a 21674
particular area, that agency or entity.21675

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 21676
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.21677

       "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 21678
of the Revised Code.21679

       "Residential care facility" has the same meaning as in 21680
section 3721.01 of the Revised Code.21681

       "Unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 21682
component" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 21683
section 5111.864 of the Revised Code.21684

       (B) There is hereby createdThe department of medicaid shall 21685
create the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living 21686
program. The program shall provide assisted living services to 21687
individuals who meet the program's applicable eligibility 21688
requirements. Subject to division (C) of this section, the program 21689
shall have a medicaid-funded component and a state-funded 21690
componentIn creating the medicaid-funded component, the 21691
department of medicaid shall collaborate with the department of 21692
aging.21693

       (C)(1)(B) Unless the medicaid-funded component of the 21694
assisted living program is terminated under division (C)(2) of 21695
this section, all of the following apply:21696

       (a)(1) The department of aging shall administer the 21697
medicaid-funded component through a contract entered into with the 21698
department of job and family servicesmedicaid under section 21699
5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code.21700

       (b)(2) The contract shall include an estimate of the 21701
medicaid-funded component's costs. 21702

       (c)(3) The medicaid-funded component shall be operated as a 21703
separate medicaid waiver component. 21704

       (d)(4) The medicaid-funded component may not serve more 21705
individuals than is set by the United States secretary of health 21706
and human services in the assisted living waiver.21707

       (e) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 21708
under section 5111.85 of the Revised Code regarding the 21709
medicaid-funded component.21710

       (f) The(5) To the extent authorized by rules authorized by 21711
section 5162.021 of the Revised Code, the director of aging may 21712
adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code regarding the 21713
medicaid-funded component that the rules adopted by the director 21714
of job and family services under division (C)(1)(e) of this 21715
section authorize the director of aging to adopt.21716

       (2)(C) If the unified long-term services and support medicaid 21717
waiver component is created, the departments of aging and job and 21718
family servicesmedicaid shall work togethercollaborate to 21719
determine whether the medicaid-funded component of the assisted 21720
living program should continue to operate as a separate medicaid 21721
waiver component or be terminated. If the departments determine 21722
that the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program 21723
should be terminated, the medicaid-funded component shall cease to 21724
exist on a date the departments shall specify.21725

       (D) The department of aging shall administer the state-funded 21726
component of the assisted living program. The state-funded 21727
component shall not be administered as part of the medicaid 21728
program.21729

       An individual who is eligible for the state-funded component 21730
may participate in the component for not more than ninety days.21731

       The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance with 21732
section 111.15 of the Revised Code to implement the state-funded 21733
component.21734

       Sec. 5111.891.        Sec. 173.541.  To be eligible for the 21735
medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program, an 21736
individual must meet all of the following requirements:21737

       (A) Need an intermediate level of care as determined under 21738
rule 5101:3-3-06by an assessment conducted under section 173.54621739
of the AdministrativeRevised Code;21740

       (B) While receiving assisted living services under the 21741
medicaid-funded component, reside in a residential care facility 21742
that is authorized by a valid medicaid provider agreement to 21743
participate in the component, including both of the following: 21744

       (1) A residential care facility that is owned or operated by 21745
a metropolitan housing authority that has a contract with the 21746
United States department of housing and urban development to 21747
receive an operating subsidy or rental assistance for the 21748
residents of the facility;21749

       (2) A county or district home licensed as a residential care 21750
facility. 21751

       (C) Meet all other eligibility requirements for the 21752
medicaid-funded component established in rules adopted pursuant to 21753
division (C) ofunder section 5111.89173.54 of the Revised Code.21754

       Sec. 5111.894.        Sec. 173.542.  (A) SubjectUnless the 21755
medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program is 21756
terminated pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 5111.89173.5421757
of the Revised Code, the department of aging shall establish a 21758
home first component of the assisted living program under which 21759
eligible individuals may be enrolled in the medicaid-funded 21760
component of the assisted living program in accordance with this 21761
section. An individual is eligible for the assisted living 21762
program's home first component if both of the following apply:21763

       (1) The individual has been determined to be eligible for the 21764
medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program.21765

       (2) At least one of the following applies:21766

       (a) The individual has been admitted to a nursing facility.21767

       (b) A physician has determined and documented in writing that 21768
the individual has a medical condition that, unless the individual 21769
is enrolled in home and community-based services such as the 21770
assisted living program, will require the individual to be 21771
admitted to a nursing facility within thirty days of the 21772
physician's determination.21773

       (c) The individual has been hospitalized and a physician has 21774
determined and documented in writing that, unless the individual 21775
is enrolled in home and community-based services such as the 21776
assisted living program, the individual is to be transported 21777
directly from the hospital to a nursing facility and admitted.21778

       (d) Both of the following apply:21779

       (i) The individual is the subject of a report made under 21780
section 5101.61 of the Revised Code regarding abuse, neglect, or 21781
exploitation or such a report referred to a county department of 21782
job and family services under section 5126.31 of the Revised Code 21783
or has made a request to a county department for protective 21784
services as defined in section 5101.60 of the Revised Code.21785

       (ii) A county department of job and family services and an 21786
area agency on aging have jointly documented in writing that, 21787
unless the individual is enrolled in home and community-based 21788
services such as the assisted living program, the individual 21789
should be admitted to a nursing facility.21790

       (B) Each month, each area agency on aging shall identify 21791
individuals residing in the area that the area agency on aging 21792
serves who are eligible for the home first component of the 21793
assisted living program. When an area agency on aging identifies 21794
such an individual and determines that there is a vacancy in a 21795
residential care facility participating in the medicaid-funded 21796
component of the assisted living program that is acceptable to the 21797
individual, the agency shall notify the long-term care 21798
consultation program administrator serving the area in which the 21799
individual resides. The administrator shall determine whether the 21800
assisted living program is appropriate for the individual and 21801
whether the individual would rather participate in the assisted 21802
living program than continue or begin to reside in a nursing 21803
facility. If the administrator determines that the assisted living 21804
program is appropriate for the individual and the individual would 21805
rather participate in the assisted living program than continue or 21806
begin to reside in a nursing facility, the administrator shall so 21807
notify the department of aging. On receipt of the notice from the 21808
administrator, the department shall approve the individual's 21809
enrollment in the medicaid-funded component of the assisted living 21810
program regardless of the unified waiting list established under 21811
section 173.404173.55 of the Revised Code, unless the enrollment 21812
would cause the component to exceed any limit on the number of 21813
individuals who may participate in the component as set by the 21814
United States secretary of health and human services in the 21815
assisted living waiver. 21816

       Sec. 173.543.  The department of aging shall create and 21817
administer the state-funded component of the assisted living 21818
program. The state-funded component shall not be administered as 21819
part of the medicaid program.21820

       An individual who is eligible for the state-funded component 21821
may participate in the component for not more than ninety days.21822

       The director of aging shall adopt rules in accordance with 21823
section 111.15 of the Revised Code to implement the state-funded 21824
component.21825

       Sec. 5111.892.        Sec. 173.544. To be eligible for the state-funded 21826
component of the assisted living program, an individual must meet 21827
all of the following requirements:21828

       (A) The individual must need an intermediate level of care as 21829
determined under rule 5101:3-3-06by an assessment conducted under 21830
section 173.546 of the AdministrativeRevised Code;.21831

       (B) The individual must have an application for the 21832
medicaid-funded component of the assisted living program (or, if 21833
the medicaid-funded component is terminated under division (C)(2)21834
of section 5111.89173.54 of the Revised Code, the unified 21835
long-term services and support medicaid waiver component) pending 21836
and the department or the department's designee must have 21837
determined that the individual meets the nonfinancial eligibility 21838
requirements of the medicaid-funded component (or, if the 21839
medicaid-funded component is terminated under division (C)(2) of 21840
section 5111.89173.54 of the Revised Code, the unified long-term 21841
services and support medicaid waiver component) and not have 21842
reason to doubt that the individual meets the financial 21843
eligibility requirements of the medicaid-funded component (or, if 21844
the medicaid-funded component is terminated under division (C)(2)21845
of section 5111.89173.54 of the Revised Code, the unified 21846
long-term services and support medicaid waiver component).21847

       (C) While receiving assisted living services under the21848
state-funded component, the individual must reside in a 21849
residential care facility that is authorized by a valid provider 21850
agreement to participate in the component, including both of the 21851
following:21852

       (1) A residential care facility that is owned or operated by 21853
a metropolitan housing authority that has a contract with the 21854
United States department of housing and urban development to 21855
receive an operating subsidy or rental assistance for the 21856
residents of the facility;21857

       (2) A county or district home licensed as a residential care 21858
facility.21859

       (D) The individual must meet all other eligibility 21860
requirements for the state-funded component established in rules 21861
adopted under division (D) of section 5111.89173.54 of the 21862
Revised Code.21863

       Sec. 173.545. (A) An individual who is an applicant for or 21864
participant or former participant in the state-funded component of 21865
the assisted living program may appeal an adverse action taken or 21866
proposed to be taken by the department of aging or an entity 21867
designated by the department concerning participation in or 21868
services provided under the component if the action will result in 21869
any of the following:21870

       (1) Denial of enrollment or continued enrollment in the 21871
component; 21872

       (2) Denial of or reduction in the amount of services 21873
requested by or offered to the individual under the component;21874

       (3) Assessment of any patient liability payment pursuant to 21875
rules adopted by the department under this section.21876

       The appeal shall be made in accordance with section 173.56 of 21877
the Revised Code and rules adopted pursuant to that section.21878

       (B) An individual who is an applicant for or participant or 21879
former participant in the state-funded component of the assisted 21880
living program may not bring an appeal under this or any other 21881
section of the Revised Code if any of the following is the case:21882

       (1) The individual has voluntarily withdrawn the application 21883
for enrollment in the component;21884

       (2) The individual has voluntarily terminated enrollment in 21885
the component;21886

       (3) The individual agrees with the action being taken or 21887
proposed; 21888

       (4) The individual fails to submit a written request for a 21889
hearing to the director of aging within the time specified in the 21890
rules adopted pursuant to section 173.56 of the Revised Code;21891

       (5) The individual has received services under the component 21892
for the maximum time permitted by this section.21893

       Sec. 173.546.  (A) Each applicant for the assisted living 21894
program shall undergo an assessment to determine whether the 21895
applicant needs an intermediate level of care. The department of 21896
medicaid or an agency under contract pursuant to division (C) of 21897
this section shall conduct the assessment. The assessment may be 21898
performed concurrently with a long-term care consultation provided 21899
under section 173.42 of the Revised Code.21900

       (B) An applicant or applicant's representative has the right 21901
to appeal an assessment's findings. Section 5160.31 of the Revised 21902
Code applies to appeals regarding the medicaid-funded component of 21903
the assisted living program. The department or an agency under 21904
contract to conduct the assessment shall provide written notice of 21905
this right to the applicant or applicant's representative and the 21906
residential care facility in which the applicant intends to reside 21907
if enrolled in the assisted living program. The notice shall 21908
include an explanation of the appeal procedures. The department or 21909
agency under contract to conduct the assessment shall represent 21910
the state in any appeal of an assessment's findings.21911

       (C) The department may contract with one or more agencies to 21912
perform assessments under this section. A contract shall specify 21913
the agency's responsibilities regarding the assessments.21914

       Sec. 5111.893.        Sec. 173.547.  A residential care facility providing 21915
services covered by the assisted living program to an individual 21916
enrolled in the program shall have staff on-site twenty-four hours 21917
each day who are able to do all of the following:21918

       (A) Meet the scheduled and unpredicted needs of the 21919
individuals enrolled in the assisted living program in a manner 21920
that promotes the individuals' dignity and independence;21921

       (B) Provide supervision services for those individuals;21922

       (C) Help keep the individuals safe and secure.21923

       Sec. 173.404.        Sec. 173.55.  (A) As used in this section:21924

       (1) "Department of aging-administered medicaid waiver 21925
component" means each of the following:21926

       (a) The medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program 21927
created under section 173.40 of the Revised Code;21928

       (b) The choices program created under section 173.403 of the 21929
Revised Code;21930

       (c) The medicaid-funded component of the assisted living 21931
program created under section 5111.89 of the Revised Code.21932

       (2) "PACE program" means the component of the medicaid 21933
program the department of aging administers pursuant to section 21934
173.50 of the Revised Code.21935

       (B) If the department of aging determines that there are 21936
insufficient funds to enroll all individuals who have applied and 21937
been determined eligible for department of aging-administered 21938
medicaid waiver components and the PACE program, the department 21939
shall establish a unified waiting list for the components and 21940
program. Only individuals eligible for a department of 21941
aging-administered medicaid waiver component or the PACE program 21942
may be placed on the unified waiting list. An individual who may 21943
be enrolled in a department of aging-administered medicaid waiver 21944
component or the PACE program through a home first component 21945
established under section 173.401, 173.501, 173.521 or 5111.89421946
173.542 of the Revised Code may be so enrolled without being 21947
placed on the unified waiting list.21948

       Sec. 173.56.  (A) The department of aging shall adopt rules 21949
in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code governing 21950
appeals brought under section 173.523 or 173.545 of the Revised 21951
Code. The rules shall require notice and the opportunity for a 21952
hearing. The rules may allow an appeal hearing to be conducted by 21953
telephone and permit the department to record hearings conducted 21954
by telephone. Chapter 119. of the Revised Code applies to a 21955
hearing under section 173.523 or 173.545 of the Revised Code only 21956
to the extent provided in rules the department adopts under this 21957
section.21958

       (B) An appeal shall be commenced by submission of a written 21959
request for a hearing to the director of aging within the time 21960
specified in the rules adopted under this section. The hearing may 21961
be recorded, but neither the recording nor a transcript of the 21962
recording is part of the official record of the proceeding. The 21963
director shall notify the individual bringing the appeal of the 21964
director's decision and of the procedure for appealing the 21965
decision.21966

       (C) The director's decision may be appealed to a court of 21967
common pleas pursuant to section 119.12 of the Revised Code. The 21968
appeal shall be governed by that section except as follows:21969

       (1) The appeal shall be in the court of common pleas of the 21970
county in which the individual who brings the appeal resides or, 21971
if the individual does not reside in this state, to the Franklin 21972
county court of common pleas.21973

       (2) The notice of appeal must be mailed to the department and 21974
filed with the court not later than thirty days after the 21975
department mails notice of the director's decision. For good cause 21976
shown, the court may extend the time for mailing and filing the 21977
notice of appeal, but the time cannot exceed six months from the 21978
date the department mails the notice of the director's decision.21979

       (3) If an individual applies to the court for designation as 21980
an indigent and the court grants the application, the individual 21981
shall not be required to furnish the costs of the appeal.21982

       (4) The department is required to file a transcript of the 21983
testimony of the state hearing with the court only if the court 21984
orders that the transcript be filed. The court shall make such an 21985
order only if it finds that the department and the individual 21986
bringing the appeal are unable to stipulate to the facts of the 21987
case and that the transcript is essential to a determination of 21988
the appeal. The department shall file the transcript not later 21989
than thirty days after such an order is issued.21990

       Sec. 173.60. (A) As used in this section:21991

       (1) "Nursing home" has the same meaning as in section 3721.01 21992
of the Revised Code.21993

       (2) "Person-centered care" means a relationship-based 21994
approach to care that honors and respects the opinions of 21995
individuals receiving care and those working closely with them.21996

       (B) The department of aging shall implement a nursing home 21997
quality initiative to improve person-centered care that nursing 21998
homes provide. The office of the state long-term care ombudsman 21999
program shall assist the department with the initiative. The 22000
initiative shall include quality improvement projects that provide 22001
nursing homes with resources and on-site education promoting 22002
person-centered strategies and positive resident outcomes, as well 22003
as other assistance designed to improve the quality of nursing 22004
home services.22005

       (C) The department shall make available a list of quality 22006
improvement projects offered by the following entities that may be 22007
used by nursing homes in meeting the requirements of section 22008
3721.072 of the Revised Code:22009

       (1) The department;22010

       (2) A quality improvement organization under contract with 22011
the United States secretary of health and human services to carry 22012
out the state functions described in section 1154 of the "Social 22013
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1320c-3;22014

       (3) Other state agencies;22015

       (4) The Ohio person-centered care coalition;22016

       (5) Any other academic, research, or health care entity 22017
identified by the department.22018

       (D) The department shall consult with representatives of 22019
nursing homes when developing the list of quality improvement 22020
projects under division (C) of this section and include projects 22021
that the department and representatives agree should be on the 22022
list.22023

       (E) The director of aging may adopt rules in accordance with 22024
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 22025
section.22026

       Sec. 173.99.  (A) A long-term care provider, person employed 22027
by a long-term care provider, other entity, or employee of such 22028
other entity that violates division (C) of section 173.24 of the 22029
Revised Code is subject to a fine not to exceed one thousand 22030
dollars for each violation.22031

       (B) Whoever violates division (C) of section 173.23 of the 22032
Revised Code is guilty of registering a false complaint, a 22033
misdemeanor of the first degree.22034

       (C) A long-term care provider, other entity, or person 22035
employed by a long-term care provider or other entity that 22036
violates division (E) of section 173.19 of the Revised Code by 22037
denying a representative of the office of the state long-term care 22038
ombudspersonombudsman program the access required by that 22039
division is subject to a fine not to exceed five hundred dollars 22040
for each violation.22041

       (D) Whoever violates division (C) of section 173.44 of the 22042
Revised Code is subject to a fine of one hundred dollars.22043

       Sec. 175.04. (A) The governor shall appoint a chairperson 22044
from among the members. The agency members shall elect a member as 22045
vice-chairperson. The agency members may appoint other officers, 22046
who need not be members of the agency, as the agency deems 22047
necessary.22048

       (B) Six members of the agency constitute a quorum and the 22049
affirmative vote of six members is necessary for any action the 22050
agency takes. No vacancy in agency membership impairs the right of 22051
a quorum to exercise all of the agency's rights and perform all 22052
the agency's duties. Agency meetings may be held at any place 22053
within the state. Meetings shall comply with section 121.22 of the 22054
Revised Code.22055

       (C) The agency shall maintain accounting records in 22056
accordance with generally accepted accounting principals and other 22057
required accounting standards.22058

       (D) The agency shall develop policies and guidelines for the 22059
administration of its programs and annually shall conduct at least 22060
one public hearing to obtain input from any interested party 22061
regarding the administration of its programs. The hearing shall be 22062
held at a time and place as the agency determines and when a 22063
quorum of the agency is present.22064

       (E) The agency shall appoint committees and subcommittees 22065
comprised of members of the agency to handle matters it deems 22066
appropriate.22067

       (1) The agency shall adopt an annual plan to address this 22068
state's housing needs. The agency shall appoint an annual plan 22069
committee to develop the plan and present it to the agency for 22070
consideration.22071

        (2) The annual plan committee shall select an advisory board 22072
from a list of interested individuals the executive director 22073
provides or on its own recommendation. The advisory board shall 22074
provide input on the plan at committee meetings prior to the 22075
annual public hearing. At the public hearing, the committee shall 22076
discuss advisory board comments. The advisory board may include, 22077
but is not limited to, persons who represent state agencies, local 22078
governments, public corporations, nonprofit organizations, 22079
community development corporations, housing advocacy organizations 22080
for low- and moderate-income persons, realtors, syndicators, 22081
investors, lending institutions as recommended by a statewide 22082
banking organization, and other entities participating in the 22083
agency's programs.22084

       Each agency program that allows for loans to be made to 22085
finance housing for owner occupancy that benefits other than low- 22086
and moderate-income households, or for loans to be made to 22087
individuals under bonds issued pursuant to division (B) of section 22088
175.08 of the Revised Code, shall be presented to the advisory 22089
board and included in the annual plan as approved by the agency 22090
before the program's implementation.22091

       (F) The agency shall prepare an annual financial report 22092
describing its activities during the reporting year and submit 22093
that report in accordance with division (H) of this section and to 22094
the governor, the speaker of the house of representatives, and the 22095
president of the senate within three months after the end of the 22096
reporting year. The report shall include the agency's audited 22097
financial statements, prepared in accordance with generally 22098
accepted accounting principles and appropriate accounting 22099
standards.22100

       (G) The agency shall prepare an annual report of its programs 22101
describing how the programs have met this state's housing needs. 22102
The agency shall submit the report in accordance with division (H) 22103
of this section and to the governor, the speaker of the house of 22104
representatives, and the president of the senate within three 22105
months after the end of the reporting year.22106

       (H)(1) The agency shall submit, within a time frame agreed to 22107
by the agency and the chairs, the annual financial report 22108
described in division (F) of this section and the annual report of 22109
programs described in division (G) of this section to the chairs 22110
of the committees dealing with housing issues in the house of 22111
representatives and the senate.22112

       (2) Within forty-five days of issuance of the annual 22113
financial report, the agency shall cause the agency's executive 22114
director to appear in person before the committees described in 22115
division (H)(1) of this section to testify in regard to the 22116
financial report and the report of programs. The testimony shall 22117
include each of the following:22118

        (a) An overview of the annual plan adopted pursuant to 22119
division (E)(1) of this section;22120

        (b) An evaluation of whether the objectives in the annual 22121
plan were met through a comparison of the annual plan with the 22122
annual financial report and report of programs;22123

       (c) An evaluation and financial overview of all business and 22124
contractual relationships between the agency and other entities 22125
and organizations that actively participate in agency programs.22126

       Sec. 191.01.  As used in this chapter:22127

       (A) "Administrative safeguards," "availability," 22128
"confidentiality," "integrity," "physical safeguards," and 22129
"technical safeguards" have the same meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 22130
164.304.22131

        (B) "Business associate," "covered entity," "health plan," 22132
"individually identifiable health information," and "protected 22133
health information" have the same meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 22134
160.103.22135

       (C) "Executive director of the office of health 22136
transformation" or "executive director" means the executive 22137
director of the office of health transformation or the chief 22138
administrative officer of a successor governmental entity 22139
responsible for health system oversight in this state.22140

       (D) "Government program providing public benefits" means any 22141
program administered by a state agency that has been identified, 22142
pursuant to section 191.02 of the Revised Code, by the executive 22143
director of the office of health transformation in consultation 22144
with the individuals specified in that section. 22145

       (E) "Office of health transformation" means the office of 22146
health transformation created by executive order 2011-02K.22147

       (F) "Operating protocol" means a protocol adopted by the 22148
executive director of the office of health transformation or the 22149
executive director's designee under division (D) of section 191.06 22150
of the Revised Code.22151

       (G) "Participating agency" means a state agency that 22152
participates in a health transformation initiative as specified in 22153
the one or more operating protocols adopted for the initiative 22154
under division (D) of section 191.06 of the Revised Code.22155

       (H) "Personally identifiable information" means information 22156
that meets both of the following criteria: 22157

       (1) It identifies an individual or there is a reasonable 22158
basis to believe that it may be used to identify an individual;22159

       (2) It relates to an individual's eligibility for, 22160
application for, or receipt of public benefits from a government 22161
program providing public benefits.22162

       (I) "State agency" means each of the following:22163

       (1) The department of administrative services;22164

       (2) The department of aging;22165

       (2) The department of alcohol and drug addiction services;22166

       (3) The department of development services agency;22167

       (4) The department of developmental disabilities;22168

       (5) The department of education;22169

       (6) The department of health;22170

       (7) The department of insurance;22171

       (8) The department of job and family services;22172

       (9) The department of medicaid;22173

       (10) The department of mental healthmental health and 22174
addiction services;22175

       (10)(11) The department of rehabilitation and correction;22176

       (11)(12) The department of taxation;22177

       (12)(13) The department of veterans services;22178

       (13)(14) The department of youth services.22179

       (J) "Unsecured" has the same meaning as in 16 C.F.R. 318.2.22180

       Sec. 191.02.  The executive director of the office of health 22181
transformation, in consultation with all of the following 22182
individuals, shall identify each government program administered 22183
by a state agency that is to be considered a government program 22184
providing public benefits for purposes of section 191.04 of the 22185
Revised Code:22186

       (A) The director of administrative services;22187

       (B) The director of aging;22188

       (B) The director of alcohol and drug addiction services;22189

       (C) The director of development services;22190

       (D) The director of developmental disabilities;22191

       (E) The director of health;22192

       (F) The director of job and family services;22193

       (G) The director of medicaid;22194

       (H) The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 22195
services;22196

       (H)(I) The director of rehabilitation and correction;22197

       (I)(J) The director of veterans services;22198

       (J)(K) The director of youth services;22199

       (K)(L) The administratorexecutive director of the 22200
rehabilitation services commissionopportunities for Ohioans with 22201
disabilities agency;22202

       (L)(M) The administrator of workers' compensation;22203

       (M)(N) The superintendent of insurance;22204

       (N)(O) The superintendent of public instruction;22205

       (O)(P) The tax commissioner.22206

       Sec. 191.04.  (A) In accordance with federal laws governing 22207
the confidentiality of individually identifiable health 22208
information, including the "Health Insurance Portability and 22209
Accountability Act of 1996," 104 Pub. L. No. 191, 110 Stat. 2021, 22210
42 U.S.C. 1320d et seq., as amended, and regulations promulgated 22211
by the United States department of health and human services to 22212
implement the act, a state agency may exchange protected health 22213
information with another state agency relating to eligibility for 22214
or enrollment in a health plan or relating to participation in a 22215
government program providing public benefits if the exchange of 22216
information is necessary for either or both of the following:22217

       (1) Operating a health plan;22218

       (2) Coordinating, or improving the administration or 22219
management of, the health care-related functions of at least one 22220
government program providing public benefits.22221

       (B) For fiscal yearyears 2013, 2014, and 2015 only, a state 22222
agency also may exchange personally identifiable information with 22223
another state agency for purposes related to and in support of a 22224
health transformation initiative identified by the executive 22225
director of the office of health transformation pursuant to 22226
division (C) of section 191.06 of the Revised Code. 22227

       (C) With respect to a state agency that uses or discloses 22228
personally identifiable information, all of the following 22229
conditions apply:22230

       (1) The state agency shall use or disclose the information 22231
only as permitted or required by state and federal law. In 22232
addition, if the information is obtained during fiscal year 2013 22233
from an exchange of personally identifiable information permitted 22234
under division (B) of this section, the agency shall also use or 22235
disclose the information in accordance with all operating 22236
protocols that apply to the use or disclosure. 22237

       (2) If the state agency is a state agency other than the 22238
department of job and family servicesmedicaid and it uses or 22239
discloses protected health information that is related to a 22240
medicaid recipient and obtained from the department of job and 22241
family servicesmedicaid or another agency operating a component 22242
of the medicaid program, the state agency shall comply with all 22243
state and federal laws that apply to the department of job and 22244
family servicesmedicaid when that department, as the state's 22245
single state agency to supervise the medicaid program as specified 22246
in section 5111.01 of the Revised Code, uses or discloses 22247
protected health information. 22248

       (3) A state agency shall implement administrative, physical, 22249
and technical safeguards for the purpose of protecting the 22250
confidentiality, integrity, and availability of personally 22251
identifiable information the creation, receipt, maintenance, or 22252
transmittal of which is affected or governed by this section. 22253

       (4) If a state agency discovers an unauthorized use or 22254
disclosure of unsecured protected health information or unsecured 22255
individually identifiable health information, the state agency 22256
shall, not later than seventy-two hours after the discovery, do 22257
all of the following:22258

       (a) Identify the individuals who are the subject of the 22259
protected health information or individually identifiable health 22260
information;22261

       (b) Report the discovery and the names of all individuals 22262
identified pursuant to division (C)(4)(a) of this section to all 22263
other state agencies and the executive director of the office of 22264
health transformation or the executive director's designee;22265

       (c) Mitigate, to the extent reasonably possible, any 22266
potential adverse effects of the unauthorized use or disclosure.22267

       (5) A state agency shall make available to the executive 22268
director of the office of health transformation or the executive 22269
director's designee, and to any other state or federal 22270
governmental entity required by law to have access on that 22271
entity's request, all internal practices, records, and 22272
documentation relating to personally identifiable information it 22273
receives, uses, or discloses that is affected or governed by this 22274
section.22275

       (6) On termination or expiration of an operating protocol and 22276
if feasible, a state agency shall return or destroy all personally 22277
identifiable information received directly from or received on 22278
behalf of another state agency. If the personally identifiable 22279
information is not returned or destroyed, the state agency 22280
maintaining the information shall extend the protections set forth 22281
in this section for as long as it is maintained.22282

       (7) If a state agency enters into a subcontract or, when 22283
required by 45 C.F.R. 164.502(e)(2), a business associate 22284
agreement, the subcontract or business associate agreement shall 22285
require the subcontractor or business associate to comply with the 22286
terms of this section as if the subcontractor or business 22287
associate were a state agency.22288

       Sec. 191.06.  (A) The provisions of this section shall apply 22289
only for fiscal yearyears 2013, 2014, and 2015.22290

       (B) The executive director of the office of health 22291
transformation or the executive director's designee may facilitate 22292
the coordination of operations and exchange of information between 22293
state agencies. The purpose of the executive director's authority 22294
under this section is to support agency collaboration for health 22295
transformation purposes, including modernization of the medicaid 22296
program, streamlining of health and human services programs in 22297
this state, and improving the quality, continuity, and efficiency 22298
of health care and health care support systems in this state.22299

       (C) In furtherance of the authority of the executive director 22300
of the office of health transformation under division (B) of this 22301
section, the executive director or the executive director's 22302
designee shall identify each health transformation initiative in 22303
this state that involves the participation of two or more state 22304
agencies and that permits or requires an interagency agreement to 22305
be entered into for purposes of specifying each participating 22306
agency's role in coordinating, operating, or funding the 22307
initiative, or facilitating the exchange of data or other 22308
information for the initiative. The executive director shall 22309
publish a list of the identified health transformation initiatives 22310
on the internet web site maintained by the office of health 22311
transformation.22312

       (D) For each health transformation initiative that is 22313
identified under division (C) of this section, the executive 22314
director or the executive director's designee shall, in 22315
consultation with each participating agency, adopt one or more 22316
operating protocols. Notwithstanding any law enacted by the 22317
general assembly or rule adopted by a state agency, the provisions 22318
in a protocol shall supersede any provisions in an interagency 22319
agreement, including an interagency agreement entered into under 22320
section 5101.10 or 5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code, that 22321
differ from the provisions of the protocol.22322

       (E)(1) An operating protocol adopted under division (D) of 22323
this section shall include both of the following:22324

       (a) All terms necessary to meet the requirements of "other 22325
arrangements" between a covered entity and a business associate 22326
that are referenced in 45 C.F.R. 164.314(a)(2)(ii);22327

       (b) If known, the date on which the protocol will terminate 22328
or expire.22329

       (2) In addition, a protocol may specify the extent to which 22330
each participating agency is responsible and accountable for 22331
completing the tasks necessary for successful completion of the 22332
initiative, including tasks relating to the following components 22333
of the initiative: 22334

       (a) Workflow;22335

       (b) Funding;22336

       (c) Exchange of data or other information that is 22337
confidential pursuant to state or federal law. 22338

       (F) An operating protocol adopted under division (D) of this 22339
section shall have the same force and effect as an interagency 22340
agreement or data sharing agreement, and each participating agency 22341
shall comply with it.22342

       (G) The director of job and family services shall determine 22343
whether a waiver of federal medicaid requirements or a medicaid 22344
state plan amendment is necessary to fulfill the requirements of 22345
this section. If the director determines a waiver or medicaid 22346
state plan amendment is necessary, the director shall apply to the 22347
United States secretary of health and human services for the 22348
waiver or amendment.22349

       Sec. 191.061. (A) As used in this section:22350

       (1) "Core competencies" means the minimum standards a direct 22351
care worker must meet when providing direct care services and 22352
engaging in any one or more of the following activities associated 22353
with care for a medicaid recipient: maintaining a clean and safe 22354
environment, ensuring recipient-centered care, promoting the 22355
recipient's development, assisting the recipient with activities 22356
of daily living, communicating with the recipient, completing 22357
administrative tasks, and participating in professional 22358
development activities.22359

       (2) "Direct care services" means health care services, 22360
ancillary services, or services related to or in support of the 22361
provision of health care or ancillary services.22362

       (3) "Direct care worker" means an individual who, for direct 22363
or indirect payment, provides direct care services to a medicaid 22364
recipient in the recipient's home, place of residence, or other 22365
setting as specified in rules adopted under section 5164.02 of the 22366
Revised Code. 22367

       (B) Not later than June 30, 2014, the executive director of 22368
the office of health transformation or the executive director's 22369
designee, in consultation with the medicaid director and the 22370
directors of aging, developmental disabilities, health, and mental 22371
health and addiction services, shall execute an operating protocol 22372
in accordance with division (D) of section 191.06 of the Revised 22373
Code documenting the manner in which each of the directors' 22374
departments determine that direct care workers associated with 22375
programs administered by the departments demonstrate core 22376
competencies. The executive director or the executive director's 22377
designee and any one or more of the directors may decide that core 22378
competencies are demonstrated by a direct care worker attaining 22379
certification through the direct care worker certification program 22380
established by the director of health under section 3701.95 of the 22381
Revised Code. A decision to this effect does not preclude a 22382
director from specifying additional requirements a direct care 22383
worker must meet to participate in a program administered by the 22384
director's department.22385

       Sec. 301.28.  (A) As used in this section:22386

       (1) "Financial transaction device" includes a credit card, 22387
debit card, charge card, or prepaid or stored value card, or 22388
automated clearinghouse network credit, debit, or e-check entry 22389
that includes, but is not limited to, accounts receivable and 22390
internet-initiated, point of purchase, and telephone-initiated 22391
applications or any other device or method for making an 22392
electronic payment or transfer of funds.22393

       (2) "County expenses" includes fees, costs, taxes, 22394
assessments, fines, penalties, payments, or any other expense a 22395
person owes or otherwise pays to a county office under the 22396
authority of a county official, other than dog registration and 22397
kennel fees required to be paid under Chapter 955. of the Revised 22398
Code. "County expenses" includes payment to a county office of 22399
money confiscated during the commitment of an individual to a 22400
county jail, of bail, of money for a prisoner's inmate account, 22401
and of money for goods and services obtained by or for the use of 22402
an individual incarcerated by a county sheriff.22403

       (3) "County official" includes the county auditor, county 22404
treasurer, county engineer, county recorder, county prosecuting 22405
attorney, county sheriff, county coroner, county park district and 22406
board of county commissioners, the clerk of the probate court, the 22407
clerk of the juvenile court, the clerks of court for all divisions 22408
of the courts of common pleas, and the clerk of the court of 22409
common pleas, the clerk of a county-operated municipal court, and 22410
the clerk of a county court.22411

       The term "county expenses" includes county expenses owed to 22412
the board of health of the general health district or a combined 22413
health district in the county. If the board of county 22414
commissioners authorizes county expenses to be paid by financial 22415
transaction devices under this section, then the board of health 22416
and the general health district and the combined health district 22417
may accept payments by financial transaction devices under this 22418
section as if the board were a "county official" and the district 22419
were a county office. However, in the case of a general health 22420
district formed by unification of general health districts under 22421
section 3709.10 of the Revised Code, this entitlement applies only 22422
if all the boards of county commissioners of all counties in the 22423
district have authorized payments to be accepted by financial 22424
transaction devices.22425

       (B) Notwithstanding any other section of the Revised Code and 22426
except as provided in division (D) of this section, a board of 22427
county commissioners may adopt a resolution authorizing the 22428
acceptance of payments by financial transaction devices for county 22429
expenses. The resolution shall include the following:22430

       (1) A specification of those county officials who, and of the 22431
county offices under those county officials that, are authorized 22432
to accept payments by financial transaction devices;22433

       (2) A list of county expenses that may be paid for through 22434
the use of a financial transaction device;22435

       (3) Specific identification of financial transaction devices 22436
that the board authorizes as acceptable means of payment for 22437
county expenses. Uniform acceptance of financial transaction 22438
devices among different types of county expenses is not required.22439

       (4) The amount, if any, authorized as a surcharge or 22440
convenience fee under division (E) of this section for persons 22441
using a financial transaction device. Uniform application of 22442
surcharges or convenience fees among different types of county 22443
expenses is not required.22444

       (5) A specific provision as provided in division (G) of this 22445
section requiring the payment of a penalty if a payment made by 22446
means of a financial transaction device is returned or dishonored 22447
for any reason.22448

       The board's resolution shall also designate the county 22449
treasurer as an administrative agent to solicit proposals, within 22450
guidelines established by the board in the resolution and in 22451
compliance with the procedures provided in division (C) of this 22452
section, from financial institutions, issuers of financial 22453
transaction devices, and processors of financial transaction 22454
devices, to make recommendations about those proposals to the 22455
board, and to assist county offices in implementing the county's 22456
financial transaction devices program. The county treasurer may 22457
decline this responsibility within thirty days after receiving a 22458
copy of the board's resolution by notifying the board in writing 22459
within that period. If the treasurer so notifies the board, the 22460
board shall perform the duties of the administrative agent.22461

       If the county treasurer is the administrative agent and fails 22462
to administer the county financial transaction devices program in 22463
accordance with the guidelines in the board's resolution, the 22464
board shall notify the treasurer in writing of the board's 22465
findings, explain the failures, and give the treasurer six months 22466
to correct the failures. If the treasurer fails to make the 22467
appropriate corrections within that six-month period, the board 22468
may pass a resolution declaring the board to be the administrative 22469
agent. The board may later rescind that resolution at its 22470
discretion.22471

       (C) The county shall follow the procedures provided in this 22472
division whenever it plans to contract with financial 22473
institutions, issuers of financial transaction devices, or 22474
processors of financial transaction devices for the purposes of 22475
this section. The administrative agent shall request proposals 22476
from at least three financial institutions, issuers of financial 22477
transaction devices, or processors of financial transaction 22478
devices, as appropriate in accordance with the resolution adopted 22479
under division (B) of this section. Prior to sending any financial 22480
institution, issuer, or processor a copy of any such request, the 22481
county shall advertise its intent to request proposals in a 22482
newspaper of general circulation in the county once a week for two 22483
consecutive weeks or as provided in section 7.16 of the Revised 22484
Code. The notice shall state that the county intends to request 22485
proposals; specify the purpose of the request; indicate the date, 22486
which shall be at least ten days after the second publication, on 22487
which the request for proposals will be mailed to financial 22488
institutions, issuers, or processors; and require that any 22489
financial institution, issuer, or processor, whichever is 22490
appropriate, interested in receiving the request for proposals 22491
submit written notice of this interest to the county not later 22492
than noon of the day on which the request for proposals will be 22493
mailed.22494

       Upon receiving the proposals, the administrative agent shall 22495
review them and make a recommendation to the board of county 22496
commissioners on which proposals to accept. The board of county 22497
commissioners shall consider the agent's recommendation and review 22498
all proposals submitted, and then may choose to contract with any 22499
or all of the entities submitting proposals, as appropriate. The 22500
board shall provide any financial institution, issuer, or 22501
processor that submitted a proposal, but with which the board does 22502
not enter into a contract, notice that its proposal is rejected. 22503
The notice shall state the reasons for the rejection, indicate 22504
whose proposals were accepted, and provide a copy of the terms and 22505
conditions of the successful bids.22506

       (D) A board of county commissioners adopting a resolution 22507
under this section shall send a copy of the resolution to each 22508
county official in the county who is authorized by the resolution 22509
to accept payments by financial transaction devices. After 22510
receiving the resolution and before accepting payments by 22511
financial transaction devices, a county official shall provide 22512
written notification to the board of county commissioners of the 22513
official's intent to implement the resolution within the 22514
official's office. Each county office subject to the board's 22515
resolution adopted under division (B) of this section may use only 22516
the financial institutions, issuers of financial transaction 22517
devices, and processors of financial transaction devices with 22518
which the board of county commissioners contracts, and each such 22519
office is subject to the terms of those contracts.22520

       If a county office under the authority of a county official 22521
is directly responsible for collecting one or more county expenses 22522
and the county official determines not to accept payments by 22523
financial transaction devices for one or more of those expenses, 22524
the office shall not be required to accept payments by financial 22525
transaction devices, notwithstanding the adoption of a resolution 22526
by the board of county commissioners under this section.22527

       Any office of a clerk of the court of common pleas that 22528
accepts financial transaction devices on or before July 1, 1999, 22529
and any other county office that accepted such devices before 22530
January 1, 1998, may continue to accept such devices without being 22531
subject to any resolution passed by the board of county 22532
commissioners under division (B) of this section, or any other 22533
oversight by the board of the office's financial transaction 22534
devices program. Any such office may use surcharges or convenience 22535
fees in any manner the county official in charge of the office 22536
determines to be appropriate, and, if the county treasurer 22537
consents, may appoint the county treasurer to be the office's 22538
administrative agent for purposes of accepting financial 22539
transaction devices. In order not to be subject to the resolution 22540
of the board of county commissioners adopted under division (B) of 22541
this section, a county office shall notify the board in writing 22542
within thirty days after March 30, 1999, that it accepted 22543
financial transaction devices prior to January 1, 1998, or, in the 22544
case of the office of a clerk of the court of common pleas, the 22545
clerk has accepted or will accept such devices on or before July 22546
1, 1999. Each such notification shall explain how processing costs 22547
associated with financial transaction devices are being paid and 22548
shall indicate whether surcharge or convenience fees are being 22549
passed on to consumers.22550

       (E) A board of county commissioners may establish a surcharge 22551
or convenience fee that may be imposed upon a person making 22552
payment by a financial transaction device. The surcharge or 22553
convenience fee shall not be imposed unless authorized or 22554
otherwise permitted by the rules prescribed by an agreement 22555
governing the use and acceptance of the financial transaction 22556
device.22557

       If a surcharge or convenience fee is imposed, every county 22558
office accepting payment by a financial transaction device, 22559
regardless of whether that office is subject to a resolution 22560
adopted by a board of county commissioners, shall clearly post a 22561
notice in that office and shall notify each person making a 22562
payment by such a device about the surcharge or fee. Notice to 22563
each person making a payment shall be provided regardless of the 22564
medium used to make the payment and in a manner appropriate to 22565
that medium. Each notice shall include all of the following:22566

       (1) A statement that there is a surcharge or convenience fee 22567
for using a financial transaction device;22568

       (2) The total amount of the charge or fee expressed in 22569
dollars and cents for each transaction, or the rate of the charge 22570
or fee expressed as a percentage of the total amount of the 22571
transaction, whichever is applicable;22572

       (3) A clear statement that the surcharge or convenience fee 22573
is nonrefundable.22574

       (F) If a person elects to make a payment to the county by a 22575
financial transaction device and a surcharge or convenience fee is 22576
imposed, the payment of the surcharge or fee shall be considered 22577
voluntary and the surcharge or fee is not refundable.22578

       (G) If a person makes payment by financial transaction device 22579
and the payment is returned or dishonored for any reason, the 22580
person is liable to the county for payment of a penalty over and 22581
above the amount of the expense due. The board of county 22582
commissioners shall determine the amount of the penalty, which may 22583
be either a fee not to exceed twenty dollars or payment of the 22584
amount necessary to reimburse the county for banking charges, 22585
legal fees, or other expenses incurred by the county in collecting 22586
the returned or dishonored payment. The remedies and procedures 22587
provided in this section are in addition to any other available 22588
civil or criminal remedies provided by law.22589

       (H) No person making any payment by financial transaction 22590
device to a county office shall be relieved from liability for the 22591
underlying obligation except to the extent that the county 22592
realizes final payment of the underlying obligation in cash or its 22593
equivalent. If final payment is not made by the financial 22594
transaction device issuer or other guarantor of payment in the 22595
transaction, the underlying obligation shall survive and the 22596
county shall retain all remedies for enforcement that would have 22597
applied if the transaction had not occurred.22598

       (I) A county official or employee who accepts a financial 22599
transaction device payment in accordance with this section and any 22600
applicable state or local policies or rules is immune from 22601
personal liability for the final collection of such payments.22602

       Sec. 306.35.  Upon the creation of a regional transit 22603
authority as provided by section 306.32 of the Revised Code, and 22604
upon the qualifying of its board of trustees and the election of a 22605
president and a vice-president, the authority shall exercise in 22606
its own name all the rights, powers, and duties vested in and 22607
conferred upon it by sections 306.30 to 306.53 of the Revised 22608
Code. Subject to any reservations, limitations, and qualifications 22609
that are set forth in those sections, the regional transit 22610
authority:22611

       (A) May sue or be sued in its corporate name;22612

       (B) May make contracts in the exercise of the rights, powers, 22613
and duties conferred upon it;22614

       (C) May adopt and at will alter a seal and use such seal by 22615
causing it to be impressed, affixed, reproduced, or otherwise 22616
used, but failure to affix the seal shall not affect the validity 22617
of any instrument;22618

       (D)(1) May adopt, amend, and repeal bylaws for the 22619
administration of its affairs and rules for the control of the 22620
administration and operation of transit facilities under its 22621
jurisdiction, and for the exercise of all of its rights of 22622
ownership in those transit facilities;22623

       (2) The regional transit authority also may adopt bylaws and 22624
rules for the following purposes:22625

       (a) To prohibit selling, giving away, or using any beer or 22626
intoxicating liquor on transit vehicles or transit property;22627

       (b) For the preservation of good order within or on transit 22628
vehicles or transit property;22629

       (c) To provide for the protection and preservation of all 22630
property and life within or on transit vehicles or transit 22631
property;22632

       (d) To regulate and enforce the collection of fares.22633

       (3) Before a bylaw or rule adopted under division (D)(2) of 22634
this section takes effect, the regional transit authority shall 22635
provide for a notice of its adoption to be published once a week 22636
for two consecutive weeks in a newspaper of general circulation 22637
within the territorial boundaries of the regional transit 22638
authority, or as provided in section 7.16 of the Revised Code.22639

       (4) No person shall violate any bylaw or rule of a regional 22640
transit authority adopted under division (D)(2) of this section.22641

       (E) May fix, alter, and collect fares, rates, and rentals and 22642
other charges for the use of transit facilities under its 22643
jurisdiction to be determined exclusively by it for the purpose of 22644
providing for the payment of the expenses of the regional transit 22645
authority, the acquisition, construction, improvement, extension, 22646
repair, maintenance, and operation of transit facilities under its 22647
jurisdiction, the payment of principal and interest on its 22648
obligations, and to fulfill the terms of any agreements made with 22649
purchasers or holders of any such obligations, or with any person 22650
or political subdivision;22651

       (F) Shall have jurisdiction, control, possession, and 22652
supervision of all property, rights, easements, licenses, moneys, 22653
contracts, accounts, liens, books, records, maps, or other 22654
property rights and interests conveyed, delivered, transferred, or 22655
assigned to it;22656

       (G)(1) Except as provided in division (G)(2) of this section, 22657
may acquire, construct, improve, extend, repair, lease, operate, 22658
maintain, or manage transit facilities within or without its 22659
territorial boundaries, considered necessary to accomplish the 22660
purposes of its organization and make charges for the use of 22661
transit facilities.22662

       (2) Beginning on July 1, 2011, aA regional transit authority 22663
shall not extend its service or facilities into a political 22664
subdivisionacquire, construct, improve, extend, repair, lease, 22665
operate, maintain, or manage transit facilities outside theits22666
territorial boundaries of the authority without giving prior22667
until:22668

       (a) It has provided written notice of its proposed action to 22669
the legislative authority of theany political subdivision. The 22670
legislative authority shall have thirty days after receiving the 22671
notice to comment on the proposalin which the action of the 22672
regional transit authority is proposed to take place; and 22673

       (b) It has received from each such affected political 22674
subdivision an agreement containing the terms and conditions for 22675
the regional transit authority action.22676

       (H) May levy and collect taxes as provided in sections 306.40 22677
and 306.49 of the Revised Code;22678

       (I) May issue bonds secured by its general credit as provided 22679
in section 306.40 of the Revised Code;22680

       (J) May hold, encumber, control, acquire by donation, by 22681
purchase for cash or by installment payments, by lease-purchase 22682
agreement, by lease with option to purchase, or by condemnation, 22683
and may construct, own, lease as lessee or lessor, use, and sell, 22684
real and personal property, or any interest or right in real and 22685
personal property, within or without its territorial boundaries, 22686
for the location or protection of transit facilities and 22687
improvements and access to transit facilities and improvements, 22688
the relocation of buildings, structures, and improvements situated 22689
on lands acquired by the regional transit authority, or for any 22690
other necessary purpose, or for obtaining or storing materials to 22691
be used in constructing, maintaining, and improving transit 22692
facilities under its jurisdiction;22693

       (K) May exercise the power of eminent domain to acquire 22694
property or any interest in property, within or without its 22695
territorial boundaries, that is necessary or proper for the 22696
construction or efficient operation of any transit facility or 22697
access to any transit facility under its jurisdiction in 22698
accordance with section 306.36 of the Revised Code;22699

       (L) May provide by agreement with any county, including the 22700
counties within its territorial boundaries, or any municipal 22701
corporation or any combination of counties or municipal 22702
corporations for the making of necessary surveys, appraisals, and 22703
examinations preliminary to the acquisition or construction of any 22704
transit facility and the amount of the expense for the surveys, 22705
appraisals, and examinations to be paid by each such county or 22706
municipal corporation;22707

       (M) May provide by agreement with any county, including the 22708
counties within its territorial boundaries, or any municipal 22709
corporation or any combination of those counties or municipal 22710
corporations for the acquisition, construction, improvement, 22711
extension, maintenance, or operation of any transit facility owned 22712
or to be owned and operated by it or owned or to be owned and 22713
operated by any such county or municipal corporation and the terms 22714
on which it shall be acquired, leased, constructed, maintained, or 22715
operated, and the amount of the cost and expense of the 22716
acquisition, lease, construction, maintenance, or operation to be 22717
paid by each such county or municipal corporation;22718

       (N) May issue revenue bonds for the purpose of acquiring, 22719
replacing, improving, extending, enlarging, or constructing any 22720
facility or permanent improvement that it is authorized to 22721
acquire, replace, improve, extend, enlarge, or construct, 22722
including all costs in connection with and incidental to the 22723
acquisition, replacement, improvement, extension, enlargement, or 22724
construction, and their financing, as provided by section 306.37 22725
of the Revised Code;22726

       (O) May enter into and supervise franchise agreements for the 22727
operation of a transit system;22728

       (P) May accept the assignment of and supervise an existing 22729
franchise agreement for the operation of a transit system;22730

       (Q) May exercise a right to purchase a transit system in 22731
accordance with the acquisition terms of an existing franchise 22732
agreement; and in connection with the purchase the regional 22733
transit authority may issue revenue bonds as provided by section 22734
306.37 of the Revised Code or issue bonds secured by its general 22735
credit as provided in section 306.40 of the Revised Code;22736

       (R) May apply for and accept grants or loans from the United 22737
States, the state, or any other public body for the purpose of 22738
providing for the development or improvement of transit 22739
facilities, mass transportation facilities, equipment, techniques, 22740
methods, or services, and grants or loans needed to exercise a 22741
right to purchase a transit system pursuant to agreement with the 22742
owner of those transit facilities, or for providing lawful 22743
financial assistance to existing transit systems; and may provide 22744
any consideration that may be required in order to obtain those 22745
grants or loans from the United States, the state, or other public 22746
body, either of which grants or loans may be evidenced by the 22747
issuance of revenue bonds as provided by section 306.37 of the 22748
Revised Code or general obligation bonds as provided by section 22749
306.40 of the Revised Code;22750

       (S) May employ and fix the compensation of consulting 22751
engineers, superintendents, managers, and such other engineering, 22752
construction, accounting and financial experts, attorneys, and 22753
other employees and agents necessary for the accomplishment of its 22754
purposes;22755

       (T) May procure insurance against loss to it by reason of 22756
damages to its properties resulting from fire, theft, accident, or 22757
other casualties or by reason of its liability for any damages to 22758
persons or property occurring in the construction or operation of 22759
transit facilities under its jurisdiction or the conduct of its 22760
activities;22761

       (U) May maintain funds that it considers necessary for the 22762
efficient performance of its duties;22763

       (V) May direct its agents or employees, when properly 22764
identified in writing, after at least five days' written notice, 22765
to enter upon lands within or without its territorial boundaries 22766
in order to make surveys and examinations preliminary to the 22767
location and construction of transit facilities, without liability 22768
to it or its agents or employees except for actual damage done;22769

       (W) On its own motion, may request the appropriate zoning 22770
board, as defined in section 4563.03 of the Revised Code, to 22771
establish and enforce zoning regulations pertaining to any transit 22772
facility under its jurisdiction in the manner prescribed by 22773
sections 4563.01 to 4563.21 of the Revised Code;22774

       (X) If it acquires any existing transit system, shall assume 22775
all the employer's obligations under any existing labor contract 22776
between the employees and management of the system. If the board 22777
acquires, constructs, controls, or operates any such facilities, 22778
it shall negotiate arrangements to protect the interests of 22779
employees affected by the acquisition, construction, control, or 22780
operation. The arrangements shall include, but are not limited to:22781

       (1) The preservation of rights, privileges, and benefits 22782
under existing collective bargaining agreements or otherwise, the 22783
preservation of rights and benefits under any existing pension 22784
plans covering prior service, and continued participation in 22785
social security in addition to participation in the public 22786
employees retirement system as required in Chapter 145. of the 22787
Revised Code;22788

       (2) The continuation of collective bargaining rights;22789

       (3) The protection of individual employees against a 22790
worsening of their positions with respect to their employment;22791

       (4) Assurances of employment to employees of those transit 22792
systems and priority reemployment of employees terminated or laid 22793
off;22794

       (5) Paid training or retraining programs;22795

       (6) Signed written labor agreements.22796

       The arrangements may include provisions for the submission of 22797
labor disputes to final and binding arbitration.22798

       (Y) May provide for and maintain security operations, 22799
including a transit police department, subject to section 306.352 22800
of the Revised Code. Regional transit authority police officers 22801
shall have the power and duty to act as peace officers within 22802
transit facilities owned, operated, or leased by the transit 22803
authority to protect the transit authority's property and the 22804
person and property of passengers, to preserve the peace, and to 22805
enforce all laws of the state and ordinances and regulations of 22806
political subdivisions in which the transit authority operates. 22807
Regional transit authority police officers also shall have the 22808
power and duty to act as peace officers when they render emergency 22809
assistance outside their jurisdiction to any other peace officer 22810
who is not a regional transit authority police officer and who has 22811
arrest authority under section 2935.03 of the Revised Code. 22812
Regional transit authority police officers may render emergency 22813
assistance if there is a threat of imminent physical danger to the 22814
peace officer, a threat of physical harm to another person, or any 22815
other serious emergency situation and if either the peace officer 22816
who is assisted requests emergency assistance or it appears that 22817
the peace officer who is assisted is unable to request emergency 22818
assistance and the circumstances observed by the regional transit 22819
authority police officer reasonably indicate that emergency 22820
assistance is appropriate.22821

       Before exercising powers of arrest and the other powers and 22822
duties of a peace officer, each regional transit authority police 22823
officer shall take an oath and give bond to the state in a sum 22824
that the board of trustees prescribes for the proper performance 22825
of the officer's duties.22826

       Persons employed as regional transit authority police 22827
officers shall complete training for the position to which they 22828
have been appointed as required by the Ohio peace officer training 22829
commission as authorized in section 109.77 of the Revised Code, or 22830
be otherwise qualified. The cost of the training shall be provided 22831
by the regional transit authority.22832

       (Z) May procure a policy or policies insuring members of its 22833
board of trustees against liability on account of damages or 22834
injury to persons and property resulting from any act or omission 22835
of a member in the member's official capacity as a member of the 22836
board or resulting solely out of the member's membership on the 22837
board;22838

       (AA) May enter into any agreement for the sale and leaseback 22839
or lease and leaseback of transit facilities, which agreement may 22840
contain all necessary covenants for the security and protection of 22841
any lessor or the regional transit authority including, but not 22842
limited to, indemnification of the lessor against the loss of 22843
anticipated tax benefits arising from acts, omissions, or 22844
misrepresentations of the regional transit authority. In 22845
connection with that transaction, the regional transit authority 22846
may contract for insurance and letters of credit and pay any 22847
premiums or other charges for the insurance and letters of credit. 22848
The fiscal officer shall not be required to furnish any 22849
certificate under section 5705.41 of the Revised Code in 22850
connection with the execution of any such agreement.22851

       (BB) In regard to any contract entered into on or after March 22852
19, 1993, for the rendering of services or the supplying of 22853
materials or for the construction, demolition, alteration, repair, 22854
or reconstruction of transit facilities in which a bond is 22855
required for the faithful performance of the contract, may permit 22856
the person awarded the contract to utilize a letter of credit 22857
issued by a bank or other financial institution in lieu of the 22858
bond;22859

       (CC) May enter into agreements with municipal corporations 22860
located within the territorial jurisdiction of the regional 22861
transit authority permitting regional transit authority police 22862
officers employed under division (Y) of this section to exercise 22863
full arrest powers, as provided in section 2935.03 of the Revised 22864
Code, for the purpose of preserving the peace and enforcing all 22865
laws of the state and ordinances and regulations of the municipal 22866
corporation within the areas that may be agreed to by the regional 22867
transit authority and the municipal corporation.22868

       Sec. 307.07.  (A) The board of county commissioners, by 22869
resolution, may create an office of economic development, to 22870
develop and promote plans and programs designed to assure that 22871
county resources are efficiently used, economic growth is properly 22872
balanced, and that county economic development is coordinated with 22873
that of the state and other local governments. For this purpose, 22874
the board may appropriate moneys from the county general fund, or, 22875
pursuant to section 307.64 of the Revised Code, moneys derived 22876
from a tax levied pursuant to division (EE) of section 5705.19 of 22877
the Revised Code, for the creation and operation of the office 22878
for, any economic development purpose of the office, and to 22879
provide for the establishment and operation of a program of 22880
economic development, including in support of a county land 22881
reutilization corporation organized under Chapter 1724. of the 22882
Revised Code. The board may hire a director of economic 22883
development, who shall be a member of the unclassified civil 22884
service, and fix the director's compensation; or may do any of the 22885
following:22886

       (1) Enter into an agreement with a county planning commission 22887
within the county, created under section 713.22 of the Revised 22888
Code, or a regional planning commission, created under section 22889
713.21 of the Revised Code, regardless of whether the county is a 22890
member of the commission, to carry out all of the functions and 22891
duties of a director of economic development under division (B) of 22892
this section. Any agreement shall set forth the procedure by which 22893
the county or regional planning commission shall gain the approval 22894
of the board of county commissioners for any actions, functions, 22895
and duties under division (B) of this section. Any agreement may 22896
continue in effect for a period of one to three years and may be 22897
renewed with the consent of all parties. The civil service status 22898
of planning commission staff shall not be affected by any 22899
agreement under this division.22900

       (2) Enter into an agreement with the Ohio cooperativeOSU22901
extension service, providing for the use of employees hired by the 22902
Ohio state university under section 3335.36 of the Revised Code to 22903
carry out all of the functions and duties of a director of 22904
economic development under division (B) of this section. Any 22905
agreement shall set forth the procedure by which the Ohio 22906
cooperativeOSU extension service shall gain the approval of the 22907
board of county commissioners for any actions, functions, and 22908
duties under division (B) of this section. Any agreement may 22909
continue in effect for a period of one to three years and may be 22910
renewed with the consent of all parties. The employment 22911
classification of Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service employees 22912
shall not be affected by any agreement under this division.22913

       Any moneys appropriated by the board of county commissioners 22914
to execute an agreement for the provision of services pursuant to 22915
this section by the Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service shall 22916
be paid to the Ohio state university to the credit of the Ohio 22917
cooperativeOSU extension service fund created under section 22918
3335.35 of the Revised Code.22919

       (3) Enter into an agreement with a public or private 22920
nonprofit organization to carry out all of the functions and 22921
duties of a director of economic development under division (B) of 22922
this section. The agreement shall set forth the procedure by which 22923
the nonprofit organization shall gain the approval of the board of 22924
county commissioners for any actions, functions, and duties under 22925
that division. The agreement may continue in effect for a period 22926
of one to three years and may be renewed with the consent of all 22927
parties. The employment classification of the nonprofit 22928
organization's employees shall not be affected by an agreement 22929
under this division.22930

       (B) The director of economic development may:22931

       (1) With the approval of the board, hire such staff and 22932
employ such technical and advisory personnel as the director sees 22933
fit to enable the director to carry out the functions and duties 22934
of the office;22935

       (2) With the approval of the board, contract for services 22936
necessary to enable the director to carry out the functions and 22937
duties of the office;22938

       (3) With the approval of the board, enter into agreements 22939
with federal, state, and local governments and agencies thereof, 22940
and with public, private, or nonprofit organizations to carry out 22941
the functions and duties of the office;22942

       (4) Maintain membership in development organizations;22943

       (5) With the approval of the board, make loans or grants and 22944
provide other forms of financial assistance for the purpose of 22945
economic development, including financial assistance for permanent 22946
public improvements, in compliance with applicable laws of this 22947
state, and fix the rate of interest and charges to be made for 22948
such financial assistance;22949

       (6) With the approval of the board, receive and accept 22950
grants, gifts, and contributions of money, property, labor, and 22951
other things of value, to be held, used, and applied only for the 22952
purpose for which they are made, from individuals, private and 22953
public corporations, the United States government or any agency 22954
thereof, from the state or any agency thereof, or from any 22955
political subdivision or any agency thereof, and may agree to 22956
repay any contribution of money or return any property contributed 22957
or the value thereof in amounts, and on terms and conditions, 22958
excluding the payment of interest, as the director determines, and 22959
may evidence the obligations by written evidence;22960

       (7) Establish with the board any funds that are necessary for 22961
the deposit and disbursement of gifts or contributions of money 22962
accepted for economic development purposes;22963

       (8) With the approval of the board, design, implement, 22964
monitor, oversee, and evaluate economic development plans, 22965
programs, strategies, and policies;22966

       (9) Purchase real property to convey to a county land 22967
reutilization corporation to be used in accordance with its public 22968
purposes;22969

       (10) Perform all acts necessary to fulfill the functions and 22970
duties of the office.22971

       (C) The boards of county commissioners of two or more 22972
counties, by resolution, may create a joint office of economic 22973
development for the purposes set forth in division (A) of this 22974
section. The counties participating in a joint office of economic 22975
development shall enter into an agreement that sets forth the 22976
contribution of funds, services, and property to the joint office 22977
from each participating county; establishes the person, public 22978
agency, or nonprofit organization that shall carry out the 22979
functions and duties of the office; and discloses any other terms 22980
by which the joint office shall operate.22981

       The boards of county commissioners of counties participating 22982
in a joint office of economic development may appropriate moneys 22983
from their respective county general funds, or, pursuant to 22984
section 307.64 of the Revised Code, moneys derived from a tax 22985
levied pursuant to division (EE) of section 5705.19 of the Revised 22986
Code, for the creation and operation of the joint office, for any 22987
economic development purpose of the office, and to provide for the 22988
establishment and operation of a program of economic development. 22989
The participating counties may hire a director of economic 22990
development for the joint office or enter into an agreement with a 22991
public agency or nonprofit organization in a manner set forth in 22992
division (A) of this section to carry out the functions and duties 22993
set forth in division (B) of this section.22994

       Any agreement establishing a joint office of economic 22995
development shall set forth the procedure by which the person, 22996
public agency, or nonprofit organization carrying out the 22997
functions and duties of the office shall gain the approval of the 22998
participating boards of county commissioners for any actions, 22999
functions, and duties under division (B) of this section.23000

       (D) As used in this section, "economic development" has the 23001
same meaning as in section 307.64 of the Revised Code.23002

       Sec. 307.674.  (A) As used in this section:23003

       (1) "Bonds" means:23004

       (a) Revenue bonds of the port authority described in division 23005
(B)(2)(a) of this section;23006

       (b) Securities as defined in division (KK) of section 133.01 23007
of the Revised Code issued by the host municipal corporation, 23008
described in division (B)(3)(a) of this section;23009

       (c) Any bonds issued to refund any of those revenue bonds or 23010
securities.23011

       (2) "Corporation" means a nonprofit corporation that is 23012
organized under the laws of this state and that includes within 23013
the purposes for which it is incorporated the authorization to 23014
lease and operate facilities such as a port authority educational 23015
and cultural performing arts facility.23016

       (3) "Cost," as applied to a port authority educational and 23017
cultural performing arts facility, means the cost of acquiring, 23018
constructing, renovating, rehabilitating, equipping, or improving 23019
the facility, or any combination of those purposes, collectively 23020
referred to in this section as "construction," and the cost of 23021
acquisition of all land, rights of way, property rights, 23022
easements, franchise rights, and interests required for those 23023
purposes, the cost of demolishing or removing any buildings or 23024
structures on land so acquired, including the cost of acquiring 23025
any land to which those buildings or structures may be moved, the 23026
cost of public utility and common carrier relocation or 23027
duplication, the cost of all machinery, furnishings, and 23028
equipment, financing charges, interest prior to and during 23029
construction and for not more than three years after completion of 23030
construction, costs arising under guaranty agreements, 23031
reimbursement agreements, or other credit enhancement agreements 23032
relating to bonds, engineering, expenses of research and 23033
development with respect to such facility, legal expenses, plans, 23034
specifications, surveys, studies, estimates of costs and revenues, 23035
other expenses necessary or incident to determining the 23036
feasibility or practicability of acquiring or constructing the 23037
facility, administrative expense, and other expenses as may be 23038
necessary or incident to that acquisition or construction and the 23039
financing of such acquisition or construction, including, with 23040
respect to the revenue bonds of a port authority, amounts to be 23041
paid into any special funds from the proceeds of those bonds, and 23042
repayments to the port authority, host county, host municipal 23043
corporation, or corporation of any amounts advanced for the 23044
foregoing purposes.23045

       (4) "Debt service charges" means, for any period or payable 23046
at any time, the principal of and interest and any premium due on 23047
bonds for that period or payable at that time whether due at 23048
maturity or upon mandatory redemption, together with any required 23049
deposits to reserves for the payment of principal of and interest 23050
on those bonds, and includes any payments required by the port 23051
authority to satisfy any of its obligations under or arising from 23052
any guaranty agreements, reimbursement agreements, or other credit 23053
enhancement agreements described in division (C) of this section.23054

       (5) "Host county" means the county within the boundaries of 23055
which the port authority educational and cultural performing arts 23056
facility is or will be located.23057

       (6) "Host municipal corporation" means the municipal 23058
corporation within the boundaries of which the port authority 23059
educational and cultural performing arts facility is or will be 23060
located.23061

       (7) "Port authority" means a port authority created pursuant 23062
to section 4582.22 of the Revised Code.23063

       (8) "Port authority educational and cultural performing arts 23064
facility" means a facility that consists of a center for music or 23065
other performing arts, a theater or other facilities to provide 23066
programs of an educational, recreational, or cultural nature, or 23067
any combination of those purposes as determined by the parties to 23068
the cooperative agreement for which provision is made in division 23069
(B) of this section to fulfill the public educational, 23070
recreational, and cultural purposes set forth therein, together 23071
with all parking facilities, walkways, and other auxiliary 23072
facilities, real and personal property, property rights, 23073
easements, and interests that may be appropriate for, or used in 23074
connection with, the operation of the facility.23075

       (B) A host county, a host municipal corporation, and a port 23076
authority may enter into a cooperative agreement with a 23077
corporation under which, as further provided for in that 23078
agreement:23079

       (1) The host county may agree to do any or all of the 23080
following:23081

       (a) Levy and collect a tax under division (E) and division 23082
(F) of section 5739.09 of the Revised Code for the purposes, and 23083
in an amount sufficient for those purposes, described in divisions 23084
(B)(1)(b) and (c) of this section;23085

       (b) Pay to the port authority all or such portion as provided 23086
for in the cooperative agreement of the revenue from the tax, 23087
together with any investment earnings on that revenue, to be used 23088
to pay a portion of the costs of acquiring, constructing, 23089
renovating, rehabilitating, equipping, or improving the port 23090
authority educational and cultural performing arts facility;23091

       (c) Pledge and pay to the corporation all or such portion as 23092
provided for in the cooperative agreement of the revenue from the 23093
tax, together with any investment earnings on that revenue, to be 23094
used to pay a portion of the costs to the corporation of leasing 23095
the port authority educational and cultural performing arts 23096
facility from the port authority.23097

       (2) The port authority may agree to do any or all of the 23098
following:23099

       (a) Issue its revenue bonds pursuant to section 4582.48 of 23100
the Revised Code for the purpose of paying all or a portion of the 23101
costs of the port authority educational and cultural performing 23102
arts facility;23103

       (b) Acquire, construct, renovate, rehabilitate, equip, and 23104
improve the port authority educational and cultural performing 23105
arts facility;23106

       (c) Lease the port authority educational and cultural 23107
performing arts facility to the corporation;23108

       (d) To the extent provided for in the cooperative agreement 23109
or the lease to the corporation, authorize the corporation to 23110
administer on behalf of the port authority the contracts for 23111
acquiring, constructing, renovating, rehabilitating, or equipping 23112
the port authority educational and cultural performing arts 23113
facility;23114

       (e) Use the revenue derived from the lease of the port 23115
authority educational and cultural performing arts facility to the 23116
corporation solely to pay debt service charges on revenue bonds of 23117
the port authority issued pursuant to division (B)(2)(a) of this 23118
section and to pay its obligations under or arising from any 23119
guaranty agreements, reimbursement agreements, or other credit 23120
enhancement agreements provided for in this section.23121

       (3) The host municipal corporation may agree to do either or 23122
both of the following:23123

       (a) Issue its bonds for the purpose of paying all or a 23124
portion of the costs of the port authority educational and 23125
cultural performing arts facility, and pay the proceeds from the 23126
issuance to the port authority for that purpose;23127

       (b) Enter into a guaranty agreement, a reimbursement 23128
agreement, or other credit enhancement agreement with the port 23129
authority to provide a guaranty or other credit enhancement of the 23130
port authority revenue bonds referred to in division (B)(2)(a) of 23131
this section pledging taxes, other than ad valorem property taxes, 23132
or other revenues for the purpose of providing the funds required 23133
to satisfy the host municipal corporation's obligations under that 23134
agreement.23135

       The cooperative agreement may provide that the proceeds of 23136
such securities or of such guaranty agreement, reimbursement 23137
agreement, or other credit enhancement agreement be deposited with 23138
and administered by the trustee pursuant to the trust agreement 23139
authorized in division (C) of this section.23140

       (4) The corporation may agree to do any or all of the 23141
following:23142

       (a) Lease the port authority educational and cultural 23143
performing arts facility from the port authority;23144

       (b) Operate and maintain the port authority educational and 23145
cultural performing arts facility pursuant to the lease;23146

       (c) To the extent provided for in the cooperative agreement 23147
or the lease from the port authority, administer on behalf of the 23148
port authority the contracts for acquiring, constructing, 23149
renovating, rehabilitating, or equipping the port authority 23150
educational and cultural performing arts facility.23151

       (C) The pledge and payments referred to in divisions 23152
(B)(1)(b) and (c) of this section and provided for in the 23153
cooperative agreement shall be for the period stated in the 23154
cooperative agreement but shall not extend longer than the period 23155
necessary to provide for the final retirement of the port 23156
authority revenue bonds referred to in division (B)(2)(a) of this 23157
section, and for the satisfaction by the port authority of any of 23158
its obligations under or arising from any guaranty agreements, 23159
reimbursement agreements, or other credit enhancement agreements 23160
relating to those bonds or to the revenues pledged to them. The 23161
cooperative agreement shall provide for the termination of the 23162
cooperative agreement, including the pledge and payment referred 23163
to in division (B)(1)(c) of this section, if the port authority 23164
revenue bonds referred to in division (B)(2)(a) of this section 23165
have not been issued, sold, and delivered within five years of the 23166
effective date of the cooperative agreement.23167

       The cooperative agreement shall provide that any port 23168
authority revenue bonds shall be secured by a trust agreement 23169
between the port authority and a corporate trustee that is a trust 23170
company or bank having the powers of a trust company within or 23171
outside the state but authorized to exercise trust powers within 23172
the state. The host county may be a party to that trust agreement 23173
for the purpose of better securing the pledge by the host county 23174
of its payment to the corporation pursuant to division (B)(1)(c) 23175
of this section. A tax levied pursuant to section 5739.09 of the 23176
Revised Code for the purposes specified in division (B)(1)(b) or 23177
(c) of this section is not subject to diminution by initiative or 23178
referendum or diminution by statute, unless provision is made for 23179
an adequate substitute reasonably satisfactory to the trustee 23180
under the trust agreement that secures the port authority revenue 23181
bonds.23182

       (D) A pledge of money by a host county under this section 23183
shall not be net indebtedness of the host county for purposes of 23184
section 133.07 of the Revised Code. A guaranty or other credit 23185
enhancement by a host municipal corporation under this section 23186
shall not be net indebtedness of the host municipal corporation 23187
for purposes of section 133.05 of the Revised Code.23188

       (E) If the terms of the cooperative agreement so provide, any 23189
contract for the acquisition, construction, renovation, 23190
rehabilitation, equipping, or improving of a port authority 23191
educational and cultural performing arts facility shall be made in 23192
such manner as is determined by the board of directors of the port 23193
authority, and unless the cooperative agreement provides 23194
otherwise, such a contract is not subject to division (R)(2) of 23195
section 4582.31 of the Revised Code. The port authority may take 23196
the assignment of and assume any contracts for the acquisition, 23197
construction, renovation, rehabilitation, equipping, or improving 23198
of a port authority educational and cultural performing arts 23199
facility that had previously been authorized by any of the host 23200
county, the host municipality, or the corporation. Such contracts 23201
are not subject to division (R)(2) of section 4582.31 of the 23202
Revised Code.23203

       Any contract for the acquisition, construction, renovation, 23204
rehabilitation, equipping, or improving of a port authority 23205
educational and cultural performing arts facility entered into, 23206
assigned, or assumed pursuant to this division shall provide that 23207
all laborers and mechanics employed for the acquisition, 23208
construction, renovation, rehabilitation, equipping, or improving 23209
of that facility shall be paid at the prevailing rates of wages of 23210
laborers and mechanics for the class of work called for by the 23211
port authority educational and cultural performing arts facility, 23212
which wages shall be determined in accordance with the 23213
requirements of Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code for the 23214
determination of prevailing wage rates.23215

       Notwithstanding any provisions to the contrary in section23216
3383.07123.281 of the Revised Code, construction services and 23217
general building services for a port authority educational and 23218
cultural performing arts facility funded completely or in part 23219
with money appropriated by the state to the Ohio cultural23220
facilities construction commission may be provided by a port 23221
authority or a corporation that occupies, will occupy, or is 23222
responsible for that facility, as determined by the commission. 23223
The construction services and general building services to be 23224
provided by the port authority or the corporation shall be 23225
specified in an agreement between the commission and the port 23226
authority or corporation. That agreement, or any actions taken 23227
under it, are not subject to Chapters 123. or 153. of the Revised 23228
Code, but are subject to Chapter 4115. of the Revised Code.23229

       Sec. 307.699.  (A) As used in this section:23230

       (1) "Sports facility" has the same meaning as in section 23231
307.696 of the Revised Code.23232

       (2) "Residual cash" has the same meaning as in division 23233
(B)(5) of section 5709.081 of the Revised Code.23234

       (B) Any political subdivision or subdivisions or any 23235
corporation that owns a sports facility that is both constructed 23236
under section 307.696 of the Revised Code and includes property 23237
exempt from taxation under division (B) of section 5709.081 of the 23238
Revised Code, shall make an annual service payment in lieu of 23239
taxes on the exempt property for each tax year beginning with the 23240
first tax year in which the facility or part thereof is used by a 23241
major league professional athletic team for its home schedule. The 23242
amount of the service payment for a tax year shall be determined 23243
by the county auditor under division (D) of this section.23244

       (C) On or before the first day of September each year, the 23245
owner of property to which this section applies shall file both of 23246
the following with the county auditor:23247

       (1) A return in the same form as under section 5711.02 of the 23248
Revised Code listing all its exempt tangible personal property as 23249
of the first day of August of that year;23250

       (2) An audited financial statement certified by the owner and 23251
reflecting the actual receipts, revenue, expenses, expenditures, 23252
net income, and residual cash derived from the property during the 23253
most recently ended calendar year.23254

       For the purposes of this section, the county auditor shall 23255
determine the true value of the real and tangible personal 23256
property owned by the political subdivision or subdivisions or the 23257
corporation and included in the sports facility, including the 23258
taxable portion thereof, by capitalizing at an appropriate rate 23259
the net income of the owner derived from that property. The 23260
auditor shall use the net income as certified in the owner's 23261
financial statement, unless hethe auditor determines that the 23262
amount so certified is inaccurate, in which event hethe auditor23263
shall determine the accurate amount of net income to be 23264
capitalized. The county auditor shall compute net income before 23265
debt service, and shall not include any revenue from county taxes 23266
as defined in division (A)(1) of section 307.696 of the Revised 23267
Code. The true value so determined shall be allocated between real 23268
and tangible personal property and assessed for the purposes of 23269
this section at the appropriate percentages provided by law for 23270
determining taxable values.23271

       Using information reported or determined under this division, 23272
the county auditor shall determine the amount of putative taxes 23273
for the property for that tax year. As used in this section, 23274
"putative taxes" means the greater of one million dollars or the 23275
amount of property taxes that would have been charged and payable 23276
if all the real and tangible personal property owned by the 23277
political subdivision or subdivisions or the corporation and 23278
included in the sports facility was subject to taxation.23279

       (D) On or before the date that is sixty days before the date 23280
that the first payment of real property taxes are due without 23281
penalty under Chapter 323. of the Revised Code each tax year, the 23282
county auditor shall determine the amount of service payments for 23283
that tax year for property to which this section applies in the 23284
following manner:23285

       (1) The county auditor shall deduct from the amount of 23286
putative taxes under division (C) of this section any taxes 23287
assessed against the taxable portion of the sports facility owned 23288
by any of the entities in division (B)(1) of section 5709.081 of 23289
the Revised Code, any amounts paid by a municipal corporation 23290
under section 5709.082 of the Revised Code as a result of the 23291
exempt property, and any amounts available in the construction 23292
payments account established under division (G)(1) of this section 23293
as are required to make the total deductions under this division 23294
equal to one million dollars.23295

       (2) The county auditor shall fix the amount of the service 23296
payments for a tax year at the amount of the putative taxes minus 23297
deductions under division (D)(1) of this section. However, any 23298
amount of service payments required because the putative taxes 23299
exceed one million dollars shall not exceed the amount of residual 23300
cash of the owner of the exempt property as reported in division 23301
(C) of this section that would otherwise accrue to the political 23302
subdivision or subdivisions pursuant to division (B)(5) of section 23303
5709.081 of the Revised Code if no service payments were imposed 23304
under this section.23305

       (3) If the exempt property is an improvement under division 23306
(C)(2) of section 5709.081 of the Revised Code, the county auditor 23307
shall determine the percentage which such improvement constitutes 23308
of the total sports facility and shall substitute for the 23309
one-million-dollar amount, wherever it appears in this section, an 23310
amount equal to such percentage multiplied by one million dollars. 23311
The percentage shall be determined by dividing the reproduction 23312
cost new of the improvement by the reproduction cost new of the 23313
total sports facility including the improvement, owned by any of 23314
the entities under division (B)(1) of section 5709.081 of the 23315
Revised Code.23316

       (E) On or before the date that is sixty days before the date 23317
that the first payment of real property taxes are due without 23318
penalty under Chapter 323. of the Revised Code each tax year, the 23319
county auditor shall certify and send notice by certified mail to 23320
the owner of the property of the amount and the calculation of the 23321
service payments charged that tax year, including the separate 23322
valuations determined for the real and tangible personal property, 23323
the capitalization rate used, the separate deductions allowed 23324
under division (D) of this section, and any claimed inaccuracies 23325
in net income determined under division (C) of this section.23326

       The service payments for a tax year shall be charged and 23327
collected in the same manner as real property taxes for that tax 23328
year. Revenue collected as service payments shall be distributed 23329
to the taxing districts that would have received property tax 23330
revenue from the exempt property if it was not exempt, for the tax 23331
year for which the payments are made, in the same proportions as 23332
property taxes are distributed. However, if the sum of the 23333
deductions allowed under division (D) of this section and the 23334
service payments exceeds one million dollars, any service payments 23335
in excess of one million dollars shall first be paid to the 23336
municipal corporation to reimburse it for the payments made under 23337
section 5709.082 of the Revised Code from the inception of such 23338
payments. Any such payments to the municipal corporation shall be 23339
deducted from the municipal payments account established under 23340
division (G)(2) of this section.23341

       (F) The owner of property exempt from taxation under section 23342
5709.081 of the Revised Code or persons and political subdivisions 23343
entitled to file complaints under section 5715.19 of the Revised 23344
Codeany of the taxing districts may appeal the determination of 23345
the annual service payments required by this section to the board 23346
of revision in the county in which the exempt property is located 23347
within the time period for filing complaints under section 5715.19 23348
of the Revised Code. The appeal shall be taken by filing a 23349
complaint with that board which need not be on the form prescribed 23350
for other complaints filed under section 5715.19 of the Revised 23351
Code but which shall include an identification of the exempt 23352
property, a copy of the auditor's certification to the owner, a 23353
calculation of the service payments claimed to be correct and a 23354
statement of the errors in the auditor's determination. Upon 23355
receipt of such complaint, the board of revision shall notify the 23356
county auditor of the county in which the exempt property is 23357
located, who shall, within thirty days of such notice, certify to 23358
the board of revision a transcript of the record of the 23359
proceedings of the county auditor pertaining to the determination 23360
of the annual service payments. Any complaint filed under this 23361
section shall be regarded as a complaint for the purposes of 23362
divisions (B), (C), (E), (F), (G), and (H) of section 5715.19 of 23363
the Revised Code. The board of revision shall order the hearing of 23364
evidence and shall determine the amount of service payments due 23365
and payable pursuant to this section.23366

       (G) The county auditor of the county in which the exempt 23367
property is located shall establish the following two accounts:23368

       (1) A construction payments account to which shall be posted 23369
all payments made by a municipal corporation pursuant to section 23370
5709.082 of the Revised Code on account of such property derived 23371
from persons employed at the site of the sports facility in the 23372
construction of the facility. Deductions shall be made from such 23373
account as provided in division (D) of this section until the 23374
amounts so posted are exhausted;.23375

       (2) A municipal payments reimbursement account to which shall 23376
be posted all payments made by a municipal corporation pursuant to 23377
section 5709.082 of the Revised Code on account of such property 23378
including those posted under division (G)(1) of this section. 23379
Deductions shall be made from the municipal payments reimbursement 23380
account for reimbursements to the municipal corporation made under 23381
division (E) of this section until the amounts posted are 23382
exhausted.23383

       Sec. 307.86.  Anything to be purchased, leased, leased with 23384
an option or agreement to purchase, or constructed, including, but 23385
not limited to, any product, structure, construction, 23386
reconstruction, improvement, maintenance, repair, or service, 23387
except the services of an accountant, architect, attorney at law, 23388
physician, professional engineer, construction project manager, 23389
consultant, surveyor, or appraiser, by or on behalf of the county 23390
or contracting authority, as defined in section 307.92 of the 23391
Revised Code, at a cost in excess of fifty thousand dollars, 23392
except as otherwise provided in division (D) of section 713.23 and 23393
in sections 9.48, 125.04, 125.60 to 125.6012, 307.022, 307.041, 23394
307.861, 339.05, 340.03, 340.033, 4115.31 to 4115.35, 5119.1623395
5119.44, 5513.01, 5543.19, 5713.01, and 6137.05 of the Revised 23396
Code, shall be obtained through competitive bidding. However, 23397
competitive bidding is not required when any of the following 23398
applies:23399

       (A) The board of county commissioners, by a unanimous vote of 23400
its members, makes a determination that a real and present 23401
emergency exists, and that determination and the reasons for it 23402
are entered in the minutes of the proceedings of the board, when 23403
either of the following applies:23404

       (1) The estimated cost is less than one hundred thousand 23405
dollars.23406

       (2) There is actual physical disaster to structures, radio 23407
communications equipment, or computers.23408

       For purposes of this division, "unanimous vote" means all 23409
three members of a board of county commissioners when all three 23410
members are present, or two members of the board if only two 23411
members, constituting a quorum, are present.23412

       Whenever a contract of purchase, lease, or construction is 23413
exempted from competitive bidding under division (A)(1) of this 23414
section because the estimated cost is less than one hundred 23415
thousand dollars, but the estimated cost is fifty thousand dollars 23416
or more, the county or contracting authority shall solicit 23417
informal estimates from no fewer than three persons who could 23418
perform the contract, before awarding the contract. With regard to 23419
each such contract, the county or contracting authority shall 23420
maintain a record of such estimates, including the name of each 23421
person from whom an estimate is solicited. The county or 23422
contracting authority shall maintain the record for the longer of 23423
at least one year after the contract is awarded or the amount of 23424
time the federal government requires.23425

       (B)(1) The purchase consists of supplies or a replacement or 23426
supplemental part or parts for a product or equipment owned or 23427
leased by the county, and the only source of supply for the 23428
supplies, part, or parts is limited to a single supplier.23429

       (2) The purchase consists of services related to information 23430
technology, such as programming services, that are proprietary or 23431
limited to a single source.23432

       (C) The purchase is from the federal government, the state, 23433
another county or contracting authority of another county, or a 23434
board of education, educational service center, township, or 23435
municipal corporation.23436

       (D) The purchase is made by a county department of job and 23437
family services under section 329.04 of the Revised Code and 23438
consists of family services duties or workforce development 23439
activities or is made by a county board of developmental 23440
disabilities under section 5126.05 of the Revised Code and 23441
consists of program services, such as direct and ancillary client 23442
services, child care, case management services, residential 23443
services, and family resource services.23444

       (E) The purchase consists of criminal justice services, 23445
social services programs, family services, or workforce 23446
development activities by the board of county commissioners from 23447
nonprofit corporations or associations under programs funded by 23448
the federal government or by state grants.23449

       (F) The purchase consists of any form of an insurance policy 23450
or contract authorized to be issued under Title XXXIX of the 23451
Revised Code or any form of health care plan authorized to be 23452
issued under Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code, or any combination 23453
of such policies, contracts, plans, or services that the 23454
contracting authority is authorized to purchase, and the 23455
contracting authority does all of the following:23456

       (1) Determines that compliance with the requirements of this 23457
section would increase, rather than decrease, the cost of the 23458
purchase;23459

       (2) Requests issuers of the policies, contracts, plans, or 23460
services to submit proposals to the contracting authority, in a 23461
form prescribed by the contracting authority, setting forth the 23462
coverage and cost of the policies, contracts, plans, or services 23463
as the contracting authority desires to purchase;23464

       (3) Negotiates with the issuers for the purpose of purchasing 23465
the policies, contracts, plans, or services at the best and lowest 23466
price reasonably possible.23467

       (G) The purchase consists of computer hardware, software, or 23468
consulting services that are necessary to implement a computerized 23469
case management automation project administered by the Ohio 23470
prosecuting attorneys association and funded by a grant from the 23471
federal government.23472

       (H) Child care services are purchased for provision to county 23473
employees.23474

       (I)(1) Property, including land, buildings, and other real 23475
property, is leased for offices, storage, parking, or other 23476
purposes, and all of the following apply:23477

       (a) The contracting authority is authorized by the Revised 23478
Code to lease the property.23479

       (b) The contracting authority develops requests for proposals 23480
for leasing the property, specifying the criteria that will be 23481
considered prior to leasing the property, including the desired 23482
size and geographic location of the property.23483

       (c) The contracting authority receives responses from 23484
prospective lessors with property meeting the criteria specified 23485
in the requests for proposals by giving notice in a manner 23486
substantially similar to the procedures established for giving 23487
notice under section 307.87 of the Revised Code.23488

       (d) The contracting authority negotiates with the prospective 23489
lessors to obtain a lease at the best and lowest price reasonably 23490
possible considering the fair market value of the property and any 23491
relocation and operational costs that may be incurred during the 23492
period the lease is in effect.23493

       (2) The contracting authority may use the services of a real 23494
estate appraiser to obtain advice, consultations, or other 23495
recommendations regarding the lease of property under this 23496
division.23497

       (J) The purchase is made pursuant to section 5139.34 or 23498
sections 5139.41 to 5139.46 of the Revised Code and is of programs 23499
or services that provide case management, treatment, or prevention 23500
services to any felony or misdemeanant delinquent, unruly youth, 23501
or status offender under the supervision of the juvenile court, 23502
including, but not limited to, community residential care, day 23503
treatment, services to children in their home, or electronic 23504
monitoring.23505

       (K) The purchase is made by a public children services agency 23506
pursuant to section 307.92 or 5153.16 of the Revised Code and 23507
consists of family services, programs, or ancillary services that 23508
provide case management, prevention, or treatment services for 23509
children at risk of being or alleged to be abused, neglected, or 23510
dependent children.23511

       (L) The purchase is to obtain the services of emergency 23512
medical service organizations under a contract made by the board 23513
of county commissioners pursuant to section 307.05 of the Revised 23514
Code with a joint emergency medical services district.23515

       (M) The county contracting authority determines that the use 23516
of competitive sealed proposals would be advantageous to the 23517
county and the contracting authority complies with section 307.862 23518
of the Revised Code.23519

       Any issuer of policies, contracts, plans, or services listed 23520
in division (F) of this section and any prospective lessor under 23521
division (I) of this section may have the issuer's or prospective 23522
lessor's name and address, or the name and address of an agent, 23523
placed on a special notification list to be kept by the 23524
contracting authority, by sending the contracting authority that 23525
name and address. The contracting authority shall send notice to 23526
all persons listed on the special notification list. Notices shall 23527
state the deadline and place for submitting proposals. The 23528
contracting authority shall mail the notices at least six weeks 23529
prior to the deadline set by the contracting authority for 23530
submitting proposals. Every five years the contracting authority 23531
may review this list and remove any person from the list after 23532
mailing the person notification of that action.23533

       Any contracting authority that negotiates a contract under 23534
division (F) of this section shall request proposals and negotiate 23535
with issuers in accordance with that division at least every three 23536
years from the date of the signing of such a contract, unless the 23537
parties agree upon terms for extensions or renewals of the 23538
contract. Such extension or renewal periods shall not exceed six 23539
years from the date the initial contract is signed.23540

       Any real estate appraiser employed pursuant to division (I) 23541
of this section shall disclose any fees or compensation received 23542
from any source in connection with that employment.23543

       Sec. 309.09.  (A) The prosecuting attorney shall be the legal 23544
adviser of the board of county commissioners, board of elections, 23545
all other county officers and boards, and all tax-supported public 23546
libraries, and any of them may require written opinions or 23547
instructions from the prosecuting attorney in matters connected 23548
with their official duties. The prosecuting attorney shall 23549
prosecute and defend all suits and actions that any such officer, 23550
board, or tax-supported public library directs or to which it is a 23551
party, and no county officer may employ any other counsel or 23552
attorney at the expense of the county, except as provided in 23553
section 305.14 of the Revised Code.23554

       (B)(1) The prosecuting attorney shall be the legal adviser 23555
for all township officers, boards, and commissions, unless, 23556
subject to division (B)(2) of this section, the township has 23557
adopted a limited home rule government pursuant to Chapter 504. of 23558
the Revised Code and has not entered into a contract to have the 23559
prosecuting attorney serve as the township law director, in which 23560
case, subject to division (B)(2) of this section, the township law 23561
director, whether serving full-time or part-time, shall be the 23562
legal adviser for all township officers, boards, and commissions. 23563
When the board of township trustees finds it advisable or 23564
necessary to have additional legal counsel, it may employ an 23565
attorney other than the township law director or the prosecuting 23566
attorney of the county, either for a particular matter or on an 23567
annual basis, to represent the township and its officers, boards, 23568
and commissions in their official capacities and to advise them on 23569
legal matters. No such legal counsel may be employed, except on 23570
the order of the board of township trustees, duly entered upon its 23571
journal, in which the compensation to be paid for the legal 23572
services shall be fixed. The compensation shall be paid from the 23573
township fund.23574

       Nothing in this division confers any of the powers or duties 23575
of a prosecuting attorney under section 309.08 of the Revised Code 23576
upon a township law director.23577

       (2)(a) If any township in the county served by the 23578
prosecuting attorney has adopted any resolution regarding the 23579
operation of adult entertainment establishments pursuant to the 23580
authority that is granted under section 503.52 of the Revised Code 23581
or if a resolution of that nature has been adopted under section 23582
503.53 of the Revised Code in a township in the county served by 23583
the prosecuting attorney, all of the following apply:23584

       (i) Upon the request of a township in the county that has 23585
adopted, or in which has been adopted, a resolution of that nature 23586
that is made pursuant to division (E)(1)(c) of section 503.52 of 23587
the Revised Code, the prosecuting attorney shall prosecute and 23588
defend on behalf of the township in the trial and argument in any 23589
court or tribunal of any challenge to the validity of the 23590
resolution. If the challenge to the validity of the resolution is 23591
before a federal court, the prosecuting attorney may request the 23592
attorney general to assist the prosecuting attorney in prosecuting 23593
and defending the challenge and, upon the prosecuting attorney's 23594
making of such a request, the attorney general shall assist the 23595
prosecuting attorney in performing that service if the resolution 23596
was drafted in accordance with legal guidance provided by the 23597
attorney general as described in division (B)(2) of section 503.52 23598
of the Revised Code. The attorney general shall provide this 23599
assistance without charge to the township for which the service is 23600
performed. If a township adopts a resolution without the legal 23601
guidance of the attorney general, the attorney general is not 23602
required to provide assistance as described in this division to a 23603
prosecuting attorney.23604

       (ii) Upon the request of a township in the county that has 23605
adopted, or in which has been adopted, a resolution of that nature 23606
that is made pursuant to division (E)(1)(a) of section 503.52 of 23607
the Revised Code, the prosecuting attorney shall prosecute and 23608
defend on behalf of the township a civil action to enjoin the 23609
violation of the resolution in question.23610

       (iii) Upon the request of a township in the county that has 23611
adopted, or in which has been adopted, a resolution of that nature 23612
that is made pursuant to division (E)(1)(b) of section 503.52 of 23613
the Revised Code, the prosecuting attorney shall prosecute and 23614
defend on behalf of the township a civil action under Chapter 23615
3767. of the Revised Code to abate as a nuisance the place in the 23616
unincorporated area of the township at which the resolution is 23617
being or has been violated. Proceeds from the sale of personal 23618
property or contents seized pursuant to the action shall be 23619
applied and deposited in accordance with division (E)(1)(b) of 23620
section 503.52 of the Revised Code.23621

        (b) The provisions of division (B)(2)(a) of this section 23622
apply regarding all townships, including townships that have 23623
adopted a limited home rule government pursuant to Chapter 504. of 23624
the Revised Code, and regardless of whether a township that has so 23625
adopted a limited home rule government has entered into a contract 23626
with the prosecuting attorney as described in division (B) of 23627
section 504.15 of the Revised Code or has appointed a law director 23628
as described in division (A) of that section.23629

       The prosecuting attorney shall prosecute and defend in the 23630
actions and proceedings described in division (B)(2)(a) of this 23631
section without charge to the township for which the services are 23632
performed.23633

       (C) Whenever the board of county commissioners employs an 23634
attorney other than the prosecuting attorney of the county, 23635
without the authorization of the court of common pleas as provided 23636
in section 305.14 of the Revised Code, either for a particular 23637
matter or on an annual basis, to represent the board in its 23638
official capacity and to advise it on legal matters, the board 23639
shall enter upon its journal an order of the board in which the 23640
compensation to be paid for the legal services shall be fixed. The 23641
compensation shall be paid from the county general fund. The total 23642
compensation paid, in any year, by the board for legal services 23643
under this division shall not exceed the total annual compensation 23644
of the prosecuting attorney for that county.23645

       (D) The prosecuting attorney and the board of county 23646
commissioners jointly may contract with a board of park 23647
commissioners under section 1545.07 of the Revised Code for the 23648
prosecuting attorney to provide legal services to the park 23649
district the board of park commissioners operates.23650

       (E) The prosecuting attorney may be, in the prosecuting 23651
attorney's discretion and with the approval of the board of county 23652
commissioners, the legal adviser of a joint fire district created 23653
under section 505.371 of the Revised Code at no cost to the 23654
district or may be the legal adviser to the district under a 23655
contract that the prosecuting attorney and the district enter 23656
into, and that the board of county commissionercommissioners23657
approves, to authorize the prosecuting attorney to provide legal 23658
services to the district.23659

       (F) The prosecuting attorney may be, in the prosecuting 23660
attorney's discretion and with the approval of the board of county 23661
commissioners, the legal adviser of a joint ambulance district 23662
created under section 505.71 of the Revised Code at no cost to the 23663
district or may be the legal adviser to the district under a 23664
contract that the prosecuting attorney and the district enter 23665
into, and that the board of county commissioners approves, to 23666
authorize the prosecuting attorney to provide legal services to 23667
the district.23668

       (G) The prosecuting attorney may be, in the prosecuting 23669
attorney's discretion and with the approval of the board of county 23670
commissioners, the legal adviser of a joint emergency medical 23671
services district created under section 307.052 of the Revised 23672
Code at no cost to the district or may be the legal adviser to the 23673
district under a contract that the prosecuting attorney and the 23674
district enter into, and that the board of county commissioners 23675
approves, to authorize the prosecuting attorney to provide legal 23676
services to the district.23677

       (H) The prosecuting attorney may be, in the prosecuting 23678
attorney's discretion and with the approval of the board of county 23679
commissioners, the legal adviser of a fire and ambulance district 23680
created under section 505.375 of the Revised Code at no cost to 23681
the district or may be the legal adviser to the district under a 23682
contract that the prosecuting attorney and the district enter 23683
into, and that the board of county commissioners approves, to 23684
authorize the prosecuting attorney to provide legal services to 23685
the district.23686

       (I) All money received pursuant to a contract entered into 23687
under division (D), (E), (F), (G), or (H) of this section shall be 23688
deposited into the prosecuting attorney's legal services fund, 23689
which shall be established in the county treasury of each county 23690
in which such a contract exists. Moneys in that fund may be 23691
appropriated only to the prosecuting attorney for the purpose of 23692
providing legal services to a park district, joint fire district, 23693
joint ambulance district, joint emergency medical services 23694
district, or a fire and ambulance district, as applicable, under a 23695
contract entered into under the applicable division.23696

       (J) The prosecuting attorney shall be the legal advisor of a 23697
lake facilities authority as provided in section 353.02 of the 23698
Revised Code.23699

       Sec. 317.08. (A) Except as provided in divisions (C), (D), 23700
and (E) of this section, the county recorder shall keep six 23701
separate sets of records as follows:23702

       (1) A record of deeds, in which shall be recorded all deeds 23703
and other instruments of writing for the absolute and 23704
unconditional sale or conveyance of lands, tenements, and 23705
hereditaments; all notices as provided in sections 5301.47 to 23706
5301.56 of the Revised Code; all judgments or decrees in actions 23707
brought under section 5303.01 of the Revised Code; all 23708
declarations and bylaws, and all amendments to declarations and 23709
bylaws, as provided in Chapter 5311. of the Revised Code; 23710
affidavits as provided in sections 5301.252 and 5301.56 of the 23711
Revised Code; all certificates as provided in section 5311.17 of 23712
the Revised Code; all articles dedicating archaeological preserves 23713
accepted by the director of the Ohio historical society under 23714
section 149.52 of the Revised Code; all articles dedicating nature 23715
preserves accepted by the director of natural resources under 23716
section 1517.05 of the Revised Code; all agreements for the 23717
registration of lands as archaeological or historic landmarks 23718
under section 149.51 or 149.55 of the Revised Code; all 23719
conveyances of conservation easements and agricultural easements 23720
under section 5301.68 of the Revised Code; all instruments 23721
extinguishing agricultural easements under section 901.21 or 23722
5301.691 of the Revised Code or pursuant to terms of such an 23723
easement granted to a charitable organization under section 23724
5301.68 of the Revised Code; all instruments or orders described 23725
in division (B)(2)(b) of section 5301.56 of the Revised Code; all 23726
no further action letters issued under section 122.654 or 3746.11 23727
of the Revised Code; all covenants not to sue issued under section 23728
3746.12 of the Revised Code, including all covenants not to sue 23729
issued pursuant to section 122.654 of the Revised Code; any 23730
restrictions on the use of property contained in a no further 23731
action letter issued under section 122.654 of the Revised Code, 23732
any restrictions on the use of property identified pursuant to 23733
division (C)(3)(a) of section 3746.10 of the Revised Code, and any 23734
restrictions on the use of property contained in a deed or other 23735
instrument as provided in division (E) or (F) of section 3737.882 23736
of the Revised Code; any easement executed or granted under 23737
section 3734.22, 3734.24, 3734.25, or 3734.26 of the Revised Code; 23738
any environmental covenant entered into in accordance with 23739
sections 5301.80 to 5301.92 of the Revised Code; all memoranda of 23740
trust, as described in division (A) of section 5301.255 of the 23741
Revised Code, that describe specific real property; and all 23742
agreements entered into under division (A) of section 1506.44 of 23743
the Revised Code;23744

       (2) A record of mortgages, in which shall be recorded all of 23745
the following:23746

       (a) All mortgages, including amendments, supplements, 23747
modifications, and extensions of mortgages, or other instruments 23748
of writing by which lands, tenements, or hereditaments are or may 23749
be mortgaged or otherwise conditionally sold, conveyed, affected, 23750
or encumbered;23751

       (b) All executory installment contracts for the sale of land 23752
executed after September 29, 1961, that by their terms are not 23753
required to be fully performed by one or more of the parties to 23754
them within one year of the date of the contracts;23755

       (c) All options to purchase real estate, including 23756
supplements, modifications, and amendments of the options, but no 23757
option of that nature shall be recorded if it does not state a 23758
specific day and year of expiration of its validity;23759

       (d) Any tax certificate sold under section 5721.33 of the 23760
Revised Code, or memorandum of it, that is presented for filing of 23761
record.23762

       (3) A record of powers of attorney, including all memoranda 23763
of trust, as described in division (A) of section 5301.255 of the 23764
Revised Code, that do not describe specific real property;23765

       (4) A record of plats, in which shall be recorded all plats 23766
and maps of town lots, of the subdivision of town lots, and of 23767
other divisions or surveys of lands, any center line survey of a 23768
highway located within the county, the plat of which shall be 23769
furnished by the director of transportation or county engineer, 23770
and all drawings and amendments to drawings, as provided in 23771
Chapter 5311. of the Revised Code;23772

       (5) A record of leases, in which shall be recorded all 23773
leases, memoranda of leases, and supplements, modifications, and 23774
amendments of leases and memoranda of leases;23775

       (6) A record of declarations executed pursuant to section 23776
2133.02 of the Revised Code and durable powers of attorney for 23777
health care executed pursuant to section 1337.12 of the Revised 23778
Code.23779

       (B) All instruments or memoranda of instruments entitled to 23780
record shall be recorded in the proper record in the order in 23781
which they are presented for record. The recorder may index, keep, 23782
and record in one volume unemployment compensation liens, internal 23783
revenue tax liens and other liens in favor of the United States as 23784
described in division (A) of section 317.09 of the Revised Code, 23785
personal tax liens, mechanic's liens, agricultural product liens, 23786
notices of liens, certificates of satisfaction or partial release 23787
of estate tax liens, discharges of recognizances, excise and 23788
franchise tax liens on corporations, broker's liens, and liens 23789
provided for in sections 1513.33, 1513.37, 3752.13, 5111.02223790
5164.56, and 5311.18 of the Revised Code.23791

       The recording of an option to purchase real estate, including 23792
any supplement, modification, and amendment of the option, under 23793
this section shall serve as notice to any purchaser of an interest 23794
in the real estate covered by the option only during the period of 23795
the validity of the option as stated in the option.23796

       (C) In lieu of keeping the six separate sets of records 23797
required in divisions (A)(1) to (6) of this section and the 23798
records required in divisions (D) and (E) of this section, a 23799
county recorder may record all the instruments required to be 23800
recorded by this section in two separate sets of record books. One 23801
set shall be called the "official records" and shall contain the 23802
instruments listed in divisions (A)(1), (2), (3), (5), and (6) and 23803
(D) and (E) of this section. The second set of records shall 23804
contain the instruments listed in division (A)(4) of this section.23805

       (D) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, the 23806
county recorder shall keep a separate set of records containing 23807
all corrupt activity lien notices filed with the recorder pursuant 23808
to section 2923.36 of the Revised Code and a separate set of 23809
records containing all medicaid fraud lien notices filed with the 23810
recorder pursuant to section 2933.75 of the Revised Code.23811

       (E)(1) The county recorder shall keep a separate set of 23812
records containing all transfers, conveyances, or assignments of 23813
any type of tangible or intangible personal property or any rights 23814
or interests in that property if and to the extent that any person 23815
wishes to record that personal property transaction and if the 23816
applicable instrument is acknowledged before a notary public. If 23817
the transferor is a natural person, the notice of personal 23818
property transfer shall be recorded in the county in this state in 23819
which the transferor maintains the transferor's principal 23820
residence. If the transferor is not a natural person, the notice 23821
of personal property transfer shall be recorded in the county in 23822
this state in which the transferor maintains its principal place 23823
of business. If the transferor does not maintain a principal 23824
residence or a principal place of business in this state and the 23825
transfer is to a trustee of a legacy trust formed pursuant to 23826
Chapter 5816. of the Revised Code, the notice of personal property 23827
transfer shall be recorded in the county in this state where that 23828
trustee maintains a principal residence or principal place of 23829
business. In all other instances, the notice of personal property 23830
transfer shall be recorded in the county in this state where the 23831
property described in the notice is located.23832

       (2) The records described in division (E)(1) of this section 23833
shall be maintained in or as part of the "official records" under 23834
division (C) of this section.23835

       Sec. 317.36. (A) The county recorder shall collect the low- 23836
and moderate-income housing trust fund fee as specified in 23837
sections 317.114, 317.32, 1563.42, 1702.59, 2505.13, 4141.23, 23838
4509.60, 5111.0225164.56, 5310.15, 5719.07, 5727.56, 5733.18, 23839
5733.22, 6101.09, and 6115.09 of the Revised Code. The amount of 23840
any housing trust fund fee the recorder is authorized to collect 23841
is equal to the amount of any base fee the recorder is authorized 23842
to collect for services. The housing trust fund fee shall be 23843
collected in addition to the base fee.23844

       (B) The recorder shall certify the amounts collected as 23845
housing trust fund fees pursuant to division (A) of this section 23846
into the county treasury as housing trust fund fees to be paid to 23847
the treasurer of state pursuant to section 319.63 of the Revised 23848
Code.23849

       Sec. 321.35.  Upon demand of the treasurer of state while 23850
holding a school district, county, township, or municipal 23851
corporation obligation purchased under division (G)(1) of section 23852
135.143 of the Revised Code, in making any payment under section 23853
321.31 or 321.34 of the Revised Code, the county auditor shall 23854
withhold funds of the school district, county, township, or 23855
municipal corporation in an amount sufficient to pay debt service 23856
charges on that obligation and any of the fee for the agreement to 23857
purchase that obligation, less any amount deposited for that 23858
purpose under division (D) of section 3317.18 of the Revised Code. 23859
The county auditor shall promptly pay to the treasurer of state 23860
the amount withheld.23861

       Sec. 321.44.  (A)(1) A county probation services fund shall 23862
be established in the county treasury of each county. The fund a 23863
county establishes under this division shall contain all moneys 23864
paid to the treasurer of the county under section 2951.021 of the 23865
Revised Code for deposit into the fund. The moneys paid into the 23866
fund shall be deposited by the treasurer of the county into the 23867
appropriate account established under divisions (A)(1)(a) to (d) 23868
of this section. Separate accounts shall be maintained in 23869
accordance with the following criteria in the fund a county 23870
establishes under this division:23871

       (a) If a county department of probation is established in the 23872
county, a separate account shall be maintained in the fund for the 23873
county department of probation.23874

       (b) If the judges of the court of common pleas of the county 23875
have affiliated with the judges of the court of common pleas of 23876
one or more other counties and have established a multicounty 23877
department of probation, a separate account shall be maintained in 23878
the fund for the multicounty department of probation.23879

       (c) If a department of probation is established in a 23880
county-operated municipal court that has jurisdiction within the 23881
county, a separate account shall be maintained in the fund for the 23882
municipal court department of probation.23883

       (d) If a county department of probation has not been 23884
established in the county and if the court of common pleas of the 23885
county, pursuant to section 2301.32 of the Revised Code, has 23886
entered into an agreement with the adult parole authority under 23887
which the court may place defendants under a community control 23888
sanction in charge of the authority, a separate account shall be 23889
maintained in the fund for the court of common pleas.23890

       (2) For any county, if a county department of probation is 23891
established in the county or if a department of probation is 23892
established in a county-operated municipal court that has 23893
jurisdiction within the county, the board of county commissioners 23894
of the county shall appropriate to the county department of 23895
probation or municipal court department of probation all money 23896
that is contained in the department's account in the county 23897
probation services fund established in the county for use only for 23898
specialized staff, purchase of equipment, purchase of services, 23899
reconciliation programs for offenders and victims, other treatment 23900
programs, including alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programs23901
services providers certified under section 3793.065119.36 of the 23902
Revised Code, determined to be appropriate by the chief probation 23903
officer of the department of probation, and other similar expenses 23904
related to placing offenders under a community control sanction.23905

       For any county, if the judges of the court of common pleas of 23906
the county have affiliated with the judges of the court of common 23907
pleas of one or more other counties and have established a 23908
multicounty department of probation to serve the counties, the 23909
board of county commissioners of the county shall appropriate and 23910
the county treasurer shall transfer to the multicounty probation 23911
services fund established for the multicounty department of 23912
probation under division (B) of this section all money that is 23913
contained in the multicounty department of probation account in 23914
the county probation services fund established in the county for 23915
use in accordance with that division.23916

       For any county, if a county department of probation has not 23917
been established in the county and if the court of common pleas of 23918
the county, pursuant to section 2301.32 of the Revised Code, has 23919
entered into an agreement with the adult parole authority under 23920
which the court may place defendants under a community control 23921
sanction in charge of the authority, the board of county 23922
commissioners of the county shall appropriate to the court all 23923
money that is contained in the court's account in the county 23924
probation services fund established in the county for use only for 23925
specialized staff, purchase of equipment, purchase of services, 23926
reconciliation programs for offenders and victims, other treatment 23927
and recovery support services, including properly credentialed 23928
treatment and recovery support services program providers or those 23929
certified under section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code, 23930
determined to be appropriate by the authority, and other similar 23931
uses related to placing offenders under a community control 23932
sanction.23933

       (B) If the judges of the courts of common pleas of two or 23934
more counties have established a multicounty department of 23935
probation, a multicounty probation services fund shall be 23936
established in the county treasury of the county whose treasurer, 23937
in accordance with section 2301.27 of the Revised Code, is 23938
designated by the judges of the courts of common pleas as the 23939
treasurer to whom monthly supervision fees are to be appropriated 23940
and transferred under division (A)(2) of this section for deposit 23941
into the fund. The fund shall contain all moneys that are paid to 23942
the treasurer of any member county under section 2951.021 of the 23943
Revised Code for deposit into the county's probation services fund 23944
and that subsequently are appropriated and transferred to the 23945
multicounty probation services fund under division (A)(2) of this 23946
section. The board of county commissioners of the county in which 23947
the multicounty probation services fund is established shall 23948
appropriate the money contained in that fund to the multicounty 23949
department of probation, for use only for specialized staff, 23950
purchase of equipment, purchase of services, reconciliation 23951
programs for offenders and victims, other treatment programs, 23952
including alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programsservices 23953
providers certified under section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised 23954
Code, determined to be appropriate by the chief probation officer, 23955
and for other similar expenses related to placing offenders under 23956
a community control sanction.23957

       (C) Any money in a county or multicounty probation services 23958
fund at the end of a fiscal year shall not revert to the general 23959
fund of the county but shall be retained in the fund.23960

       (D) As used in this section:23961

       (1) "County-operated municipal court" has the same meaning as 23962
in section 1901.03 of the Revised Code.23963

       (2) "Multicounty department of probation" means a probation 23964
department established under section 2301.27 of the Revised Code 23965
to serve more than one county.23966

       (3) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 23967
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.23968

       Sec. 329.04.  (A) The county department of job and family 23969
services shall have, exercise, and perform the following powers 23970
and duties:23971

       (1) Perform any duties assigned by the state department of 23972
job and family services or department of medicaid regarding the 23973
provision of public family services, including the provision of 23974
the following services to prevent or reduce economic or personal 23975
dependency and to strengthen family life:23976

       (a) Services authorized by a Title IV-A program, as defined 23977
in section 5101.80 of the Revised Code;23978

       (b) Social services authorized by Title XX of the "Social 23979
Security Act" and provided for by section 5101.46 or 5101.461 of 23980
the Revised Code;23981

       (c) If the county department is designated as the child 23982
support enforcement agency, services authorized by Title IV-D of 23983
the "Social Security Act" and provided for by Chapter 3125. of the 23984
Revised Code. The county department may perform the services 23985
itself or contract with other government entities, and, pursuant 23986
to division (C) of section 2301.35 and section 2301.42 of the 23987
Revised Code, private entities, to perform the Title IV-D 23988
services.23989

       (d) Duties assigned under section 5111.985162.031 of the 23990
Revised Code.23991

       (2) Administer disability financial assistance, as required 23992
by the state department of job and family services under section 23993
5115.03 of the Revised Code;23994

       (3) Administer burials insofar as the administration of 23995
burials was, prior to September 12, 1947, imposed upon the board 23996
of county commissioners and if otherwise required by state law;23997

       (4) Cooperate with state and federal authorities in any 23998
matter relating to family services and to act as the agent of such 23999
authorities;24000

       (5) Submit an annual account of its work and expenses to the 24001
board of county commissioners and to the state department of job 24002
and family services and department of medicaid at the close of 24003
each fiscal year;24004

       (6) Exercise any powers and duties relating to family 24005
services duties or workforce development activities imposed upon 24006
the county department of job and family services by law, by 24007
resolution of the board of county commissioners, or by order of 24008
the governor, when authorized by law, to meet emergencies during 24009
war or peace;24010

       (7) Determine the eligibility for medical assistance of 24011
recipients of aid under Title XVI of the "Social Security Act";24012

       (8) If assigned by the state director of job and family 24013
services under section 5101.515 or 5101.525 of the Revised Code, 24014
determine applicants' eligibility for health assistance under the 24015
children's health insurance program part II or part III;24016

       (9) Enter into a plan of cooperation with the board of county 24017
commissioners under section 307.983, consult with the board in the 24018
development of the transportation work plan developed under 24019
section 307.985, establish with the board procedures under section 24020
307.986 for providing services to children whose families relocate 24021
frequently, and comply with the contracts the board enters into 24022
under sections 307.981 and 307.982 of the Revised Code that affect 24023
the county department;24024

       (10)(8) For the purpose of complying with a grant agreement 24025
the board of county commissioners enters into under sections 24026
307.98 and 5101.21 of the Revised Code, exercise the powers and 24027
perform the duties the grant agreement assigns to the county 24028
department;24029

       (11)(9) If the county department is designated as the 24030
workforce development agency, provide the workforce development 24031
activities specified in the contract required by section 330.05 of 24032
the Revised Code.24033

       (B) The powers and duties of a county department of job and 24034
family services are, and shall be exercised and performed, under 24035
the control and direction of the board of county commissioners. 24036
The board may assign to the county department any power or duty of 24037
the board regarding family services duties and workforce 24038
development activities. If the new power or duty necessitates the 24039
state department of job and family services or department of 24040
medicaid changing its federal cost allocation plan, the county 24041
department may not implement the power or duty unless the United 24042
States department of health and human services approves the 24043
changes.24044

       Sec. 329.051.  The county department of job and family 24045
services shall make voter registration applications as prescribed 24046
by the secretary of state under section 3503.10 of the Revised 24047
Code available to persons who are applying for, receiving 24048
assistance from, or participating in any of the following:24049

       (A) The disability financial assistance program established 24050
under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code;24051

       (B) The medical assistancemedicaid program established under 24052
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code;24053

       (C) The Ohio works first program established under Chapter 24054
5107. of the Revised Code;24055

       (D) The prevention, retention, and contingency program 24056
established under Chapter 5108. of the Revised Code.24057

       Sec. 329.06.  (A) Except as provided in division (C) of this 24058
section and section 6301.08 of the Revised Code, the board of 24059
county commissioners shall establish a county family services 24060
planning committee. The board shall appoint a member to represent 24061
the county department of job and family services; an employee in 24062
the classified civil service of the county department of job and 24063
family services, if there are any such employees; and a member to 24064
represent the public. The board shall appoint other individuals to 24065
the committee in such a manner that the committee's membership is 24066
broadly representative of the groups of individuals and the public 24067
and private entities that have an interest in the family services 24068
provided in the county. The board shall make appointments in a 24069
manner that reflects the ethnic and racial composition of the 24070
county. The following groups and entities may be represented on 24071
the committee:24072

       (1) Consumers of family services;24073

       (2) The public children services agency;24074

       (3) The child support enforcement agency;24075

       (4) The county family and children first council;24076

       (5) Public and private colleges and universities;24077

       (6) Public entities that provide family services, including 24078
boards of health, boards of education, the county board of 24079
developmental disabilities, and the board of alcohol, drug 24080
addiction, and mental health services that serves the county;24081

       (7) Private nonprofit and for-profit entities that provide 24082
family services in the county or that advocate for consumers of 24083
family services in the county, including entities that provide 24084
services to or advocate for victims of domestic violence;24085

       (8) Labor organizations;24086

       (9) Any other group or entity that has an interest in the 24087
family services provided in the county, including groups or 24088
entities that represent any of the county's business, urban, and 24089
rural sectors.24090

       (B) The county family services planning committee shall do 24091
all of the following:24092

       (1) Serve as an advisory body to the board of county 24093
commissioners with regard to the family services provided in the 24094
county, including assistance under Chapters 5107. and 5108. of the 24095
Revised Code, publicly funded child care under Chapter 5104. of 24096
the Revised Code, and social services provided under section 24097
5101.46 of the Revised Code;24098

       (2) At least once a year, review and analyze the county 24099
department of job and family services' implementation of the 24100
programs established under Chapters 5107. and 5108. of the Revised 24101
Code. In its review, the committee shall use information available 24102
to it to examine all of the following:24103

       (a) Return of assistance groups to participation in either 24104
program after ceasing to participate;24105

       (b) Teen pregnancy rates among the programs' participants;24106

       (c) The other types of assistance the programs' participants 24107
receive, including medicaid under Chapter 5111. of the Revised 24108
Code, publicly funded child care under Chapter 5104. of the 24109
Revised Code, supplemental nutrition assistance program benefits 24110
under section 5101.54 of the Revised Code, and energy assistance 24111
under Chapter 5117. of the Revised Code;24112

       (d) Other issues the committee considers appropriate.24113

       The committee shall make recommendations to the board of 24114
county commissioners and county department of job and family 24115
services regarding the committee's findings.24116

       (3) Conduct public hearings on proposed county profiles for 24117
the provision of social services under section 5101.46 of the 24118
Revised Code;24119

       (4) At the request of the board, make recommendations and 24120
provide assistance regarding the family services provided in the 24121
county;24122

       (5) At any other time the committee considers appropriate, 24123
consult with the board and make recommendations regarding the 24124
family services provided in the county. The committee's 24125
recommendations may address the following:24126

       (a) Implementation and administration of family service 24127
programs;24128

       (b) Use of federal, state, and local funds available for 24129
family service programs;24130

       (c) Establishment of goals to be achieved by family service 24131
programs;24132

       (d) Evaluation of the outcomes of family service programs;24133

       (e) Any other matter the board considers relevant to the 24134
provision of family services.24135

       (C) If there is a committee in existence in a county on 24136
October 1, 1997, that the board of county commissioners determines 24137
is capable of fulfilling the responsibilities of a county family 24138
services planning committee, the board may designate the committee 24139
as the county's family services planning committee and the 24140
committee shall serve in that capacity.24141

       Sec. 329.14.  (A) An individual whose household income does 24142
not exceed two hundred per cent of the federal poverty line is 24143
eligible to participate in an individual development account 24144
program established by the county department of job and family 24145
services of the county in which the individual resides. An 24146
eligible individual seeking to be a participant in the program 24147
shall enter into an agreement with the fiduciary organization 24148
administering the program. The agreement shall specify the terms 24149
and conditions of uses of funds deposited, financial documentation 24150
required to be maintained by the participant, expectations and 24151
responsibilities of the participant, and services to be provided 24152
by the fiduciary organization.24153

       (B) A participant may deposit earned income, as defined in 26 24154
U.S.C. 911(d)(2), as amended, into the account. The fiduciary 24155
organization may deposit into the account an amount not exceeding 24156
four times the amount deposited by the participant except that a 24157
fiduciary organization may not, pursuant to an agreement with an 24158
employer, deposit an amount into an account held by a participant 24159
who is employed by the employer. An account may have no more than 24160
ten thousand dollars in it at any time.24161

       (C) Notwithstanding eligibility requirements established in 24162
or pursuant to Chapter 5107.,or 5108., or 5111. of the Revised 24163
Code, to the extent permitted by federal statutes and regulations, 24164
money in an individual development account, including interest, is 24165
exempt from consideration in determining whether the participant 24166
or a member of the participant's assistance group is eligible for 24167
assistance under Chapter 5107.,or 5108., or 5111. of the Revised 24168
Code and the amount of assistance the participant or assistance 24169
group is eligible to receive.24170

       (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(2) of this section, 24171
an individual development account program participant may use 24172
money in the account only for the following purposes:24173

       (a) Postsecondary educational expenses paid directly from the 24174
account to an eligible education institution or vendor;24175

       (b) Qualified acquisition expenses of a principal residence, 24176
as defined in 26 U.S.C. 1034, as amended, paid directly from the 24177
account to the person or government entity to which the expenses 24178
are due;24179

       (c) Qualified business capitalization expenses made in 24180
accordance with a qualified business plan that has been approved 24181
by a financial institution or by a nonprofit microenterprise 24182
program having demonstrated business expertise and paid directly 24183
from the account to the person to whom the expenses are due.24184

       (2) A fiduciary organization shall permit a participant to 24185
withdraw money deposited by the participant if it is needed to 24186
deal with a personal emergency of the participant or a member of 24187
the participant's family or household. Withdrawal shall result in 24188
the loss of any matching funds in an amount equal to the amount of 24189
the withdrawal.24190

       (3) Regardless of the reason for the withdrawal, a withdrawal 24191
from an individual development account may be made only with the 24192
approval of the fiduciary organization.24193

       Sec. 339.02.  (A) As used in this section, "area served by 24194
the hospital" means the geographic area, whether or not included 24195
within the county, from which a county hospital regularly draws 24196
patients.24197

       (B) Unless a board of county hospital trustees for the county 24198
is in existence in accordance with this section, such board shall 24199
be created pursuant to this section after the board of county 24200
commissioners first determines by resolution to establish a county 24201
hospital. Copies of such resolution shall be certified to the 24202
probate judge of the county senior in point of service and to the 24203
judge, other than a probate judge, of the court of common pleas of 24204
the county senior in point of service. The board of county 24205
commissioners together with the probate judge of the county senior 24206
in point of service and the judge of the court of common pleas of 24207
the county senior in point of service shall, within ten days after 24208
such certification, appoint a board of county hospital trustees.24209

        (C) In making appointments to a board of county hospital 24210
trustees, allboth of the following apply with respect to the 24211
individuals who may be appointed:24212

       (1) Members shall be electors and representative of the area 24213
served by the hospital, except that not more than two members may 24214
be electors of the area served by the hospital that is outside the 24215
county in which the hospital is located.24216

       (2) In no case shall more than one-half of the members be 24217
independents or be members of any one political party.24218

       (3) A physician may serve as a member, including a physician 24219
who is authorized to admit and treat patients at the hospital, 24220
except as follows:24221

       (a) Not more than two physicians may serve as members at the 24222
same time;24223

       (b) No physician who is employed by the hospital may serve as 24224
a member.24225

       (D) A board of county hospital trustees shall be composed of 24226
six members, unless the board of county commissioners determines 24227
that the board of trustees can more effectively function with 24228
eight or ten members in which case there may be eight or ten 24229
members, as designated by the board of county commissioners.24230

       (E) With respect to the initial appointment of members to a 24231
board of county hospital trustees, all of the following apply:24232

       (1) When the board is composed of six members, their terms of 24233
office shall be one for one year, one for two years, one for three 24234
years, one for four years, one for five years, and one for six 24235
years from the first Monday of March thereafter.24236

       (2) When the board is composed of eight members, their terms 24237
of office shall be one for one year, one for two years, two for 24238
three years, one for four years, one for five years, and two for 24239
six years from the first Monday of March thereafter.24240

       (3) When the board is composed of ten members, their terms of 24241
office shall be two for one year, one for two years, two for three 24242
years, two for four years, one for five years, and two for six 24243
years from the first Monday of March thereafter.24244

       (F) Except as provided in division (G)(2) of this section, 24245
all of the following apply with respect to vacancies on a board of 24246
county hospital trustees:24247

       (1) Annually, on the first Monday of March, the board of 24248
county commissioners together with the probate judge of the county 24249
senior in point of service and the judge of the court of common 24250
pleas of the county senior in point of service shall appoint or 24251
reappoint for a term of six years a sufficient number of members 24252
to replace those members whose terms have expired.24253

       (2) The appointing authority shall fill a vacancy not later 24254
than six months after the vacancy occurs. If the vacancy remains 24255
unfilled on that date, the remaining members of the board, by 24256
majority vote, shall appoint an individual to fill the vacancy.24257

       (3) The appointing authority may fill a vacancy by seeking 24258
nominations from a selection committee consisting of one county 24259
commissioner designated by the board of county commissioners, the 24260
chair of the board of county hospital trustees, and the county 24261
hospital administrator. If nominations for filling a vacancy are 24262
sought from a selection committee, the committee shall nominate at 24263
least three individuals for the vacancy. The appointing authority 24264
may fill the vacancy by appointing one of the nominated 24265
individuals or by appointing another individual selected by the 24266
appointing authority.24267

       (4) Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to 24268
the expiration date of the term for which the member's predecessor 24269
was appointed shall hold office as a member for the remainder of 24270
that term.24271

       (G)(1) The board of county commissioners together with the 24272
probate judge senior in point of service and the judge of the 24273
court of common pleas senior in point of service in any county in 24274
which a board of county hospital trustees has been appointed may 24275
expand the number of members to eight or to ten. When the number 24276
of members is increased to eight, one shall be appointed for a 24277
three-year and one for a six-year term from the first Monday of 24278
March thereafter. When the number of members is increased from six 24279
to ten, the term for additional members shall be: one for one 24280
year, one for three years, one for four years, and one for six 24281
years from the first Monday of March thereafter. When the number 24282
of members is increased from eight to ten, the term for additional 24283
members shall be: one for one year and one for four years from the 24284
first Monday of March thereafter. Thereafter except as provided in 24285
division (G)(2) of this section, upon the expiration of the term 24286
of office of each member, the vacancy shall be filled in the 24287
manner specified in division (F) of this section.24288

       (2) The board of county commissioners together with the 24289
probate judge senior in point of service and the judge of the 24290
court of common pleas senior in point of service may reduce the 24291
number of members of a board of county hospital trustees to eight 24292
or to six. The reduction shall occur on expiration of a member's 24293
term of office, at which time no appointment shall be made. While 24294
the board of county commissioners and the judges are in the 24295
process of reducing the number of members, the board of county 24296
hospital trustees may consist of nine or seven members for one 24297
year.24298

       (H) Any member of a board of county hospital trustees may be 24299
removed from office by the appointing authority for neglect of 24300
duty, misconduct, or malfeasance in office. The member shall be 24301
informed in writing of the charges and afforded an opportunity for 24302
a hearing before the appointing authority. The appointing 24303
authority shall not remove a member from office for political 24304
reasons.24305

       (I) The board of county commissioners may provide members of 24306
a board of county hospital trustees shalla stipend for their 24307
service or require the members to serve without compensation, but. 24308
The members shall be allowed their necessary and reasonable 24309
expenses incurred in the performance of their duties, including 24310
the cost of their participation in any continuing education 24311
programs or developmental programs that the members consider 24312
necessary. Allowable stipends and expenses shall be paid out of 24313
the funds provided for the county hospital.24314

        (J) The persons selected to be members of a board of county 24315
hospital trustees shall forthwith be notified, by mail, of their 24316
appointment. When a board is initially appointed, the notice shall 24317
state a time, not more than ten days later, when such board shall 24318
meet at the county seat of such county to organize. On the date 24319
stated, the board shall meet and organize.24320

       (K) A board of county hospital trustees shall organize by 24321
electing one of its number as chairperson and such other officers 24322
as specified in the board's rules. Four members of a six-member 24323
board constitute a quorum, five members constitute a quorum of an 24324
eight-member board, and six members constitute a quorum of a 24325
ten-member board.24326

        A board of county hospital trustees shall hold meetings at 24327
least once a monthquarterly, shall adopt necessary rules of 24328
procedure, and shall keep a record of its proceedings and a strict 24329
account of all its receipts, disbursements, and expenditures. On 24330
completion of the construction and equipping of a county hospital, 24331
the board shall file such account with the board of county 24332
commissioners and make final settlement with the board of county 24333
commissioners for the construction and equipping of the hospital.24334

       Sec. 339.05. (A) A board of county hospital trustees may 24335
adopt, annually, bidding procedures and purchasing or leasing24336
policies for services provided through a joint purchasing 24337
arrangement sponsored by a nonprofit organization, and for 24338
services, supplies, and equipment, that are routinely used in the 24339
operation of the hospital and that cost in excess of the amount 24340
specified in section 307.86 of the Revised Code as the amount 24341
above which purchases must be competitively bid. If a board of 24342
county hospital trustees adopts those policies and procedures, and 24343
if the board of county commissioners approves them, the board of 24344
county hospital trustees may follow those policies and procedures 24345
in lieu of following the competitive bidding procedures of 24346
sections 307.86 to 307.92 of the Revised Code.24347

       (B) Notwithstanding section 307.86 of the Revised Code, the 24348
board of county hospital trustees is exempt from competitive 24349
bidding as required under that section if the board, by a 24350
unanimous vote of its members, makes a determination that a real 24351
and present emergency exists, and either of the following applies:24352

       (1) The estimated cost is less than one hundred thousand 24353
dollars.24354

       (2) There is actual physical damage to structures or 24355
equipment.24356

       The board shall enter the determination of emergency and the 24357
reasons for it in the minutes of its proceedings.24358

       For purposes of this section, a vote is unanimous if all 24359
members of a board of county hospital trustees are present, or a 24360
lesser number of members of the board if not all members are 24361
present, provided that the number of members present constitutes a 24362
quorum.24363

       Whenever a contract of purchase, lease, or construction is 24364
exempted from competitive bidding because the estimated cost is 24365
less than one hundred thousand dollars, but the estimated cost is 24366
fifty thousand dollars or more, the board shall solicit informal 24367
estimates from not fewer than three persons who could perform the 24368
contract, before awarding the contract. With regard to each such 24369
contract, the board shall maintain a record of the informal 24370
estimates, including the name of each person from whom an informal 24371
estimate was solicited. The board shall maintain the record for 24372
the longer of at least one year after the contract is awarded or 24373
an amount of time required by the federal government.24374

       Sec. 339.06.  (A) The board of county hospital trustees, upon 24375
completion of construction or leasing and equipping of a county 24376
hospital, shall assume and continue the operation of the hospital. 24377

       (B) The board of county hospital trustees shall have the 24378
entire management and control of the county hospital. The board 24379
may in writing delegate its management and control of the county 24380
hospital to the administrator of the county hospital employed 24381
under section 339.07 of the Revised Code. The board shall 24382
establish such rules for the hospital's government, management, 24383
control, and the admission of persons as are expedient.24384

        (C) The board of county hospital trustees has control of the 24385
property of the county hospital, including management and disposal 24386
of surplus property other than real estate or an interest in real 24387
estate.24388

       (D) With respect to the use of funds by the board of county 24389
hospital trustees and its accounting for the use of funds, all of 24390
the following apply:24391

       (1) The board of county hospital trustees has control of all 24392
funds used in the county hospital's operation, including moneys 24393
received from the operation of the hospital, moneys appropriated 24394
for its operation by the board of county commissioners, and moneys 24395
resulting from special levies submitted by the board of county 24396
commissioners as provided for in section 5705.22 of the Revised 24397
Code. 24398

       (2) Of the funds used in the county hospital's operation, all 24399
or part of any amount determined not to be necessary to meet 24400
current demands on the hospital may be invested by the board of 24401
county hospital trustees or its designee in any classifications of 24402
securities and obligations eligible for deposit or investment of 24403
county moneys pursuant to section 135.35 of the Revised Code, 24404
subject to the approval of the board's written investment policy 24405
by the county investment advisory committee established pursuant 24406
to section 135.341 of the Revised Code.24407

       (3) Annually, not later than sixty days before the end of the 24408
fiscal year used by the county hospital, the board of county 24409
hospital trustees shall submit its proposed budget for the ensuing 24410
fiscal year to the board of county commissioners for that board's 24411
review. The board of county commissioners shall review and approve 24412
the proposed budget by the first day of the fiscal year to which 24413
the budget applies. If the board of county commissioners has not 24414
approved the budget by the first day of the fiscal year to which 24415
the budget applies, the budget is deemed to have been approved by 24416
the board on the first day of that fiscal year.24417

       (4) The board of county hospital trustees shall not expend 24418
funds received from taxes collected pursuant to any tax levied 24419
under section 5705.22 of the Revised Code or the amount 24420
appropriated to the county hospital by the board of county 24421
commissioners in the annual appropriation measure for the county 24422
until its budget for the applicable fiscal year is approved in 24423
accordance with division (C)(3) of this section. At any time the 24424
amount received from those sources differs from the amount shown 24425
in the approved budget, the board of county commissioners may 24426
require the board of county hospital trustees to revise the county 24427
hospital budget accordingly. 24428

       (5) Funds under the control of the board of county hospital 24429
trustees may be disbursed by the board, consistent with the 24430
approved budget, for the uses and purposes of the county hospital; 24431
for the replacement of necessary equipment; for the acquisition, 24432
leasing, or construction of permanent improvements to county 24433
hospital property; or for making a donation authorized by division 24434
(E) of this section. Each disbursement of funds shall be made on a 24435
voucher signed by signatories designated and approved by the board 24436
of county hospital trustees.24437

       (6) The head of a board of county hospital trustees is not 24438
required to file an estimate of contemplated revenue and 24439
expenditures for the ensuing fiscal year under section 5705.28 of 24440
the Revised Code unless the board of county commissioners levies a 24441
tax for the county hospital, or such a tax is proposed, or the 24442
board of county hospital trustees desires that the board of county 24443
commissioners make an appropriation to the county hospital for the 24444
ensuing fiscal year.24445

       (7) All moneys appropriated by the board of county 24446
commissioners or from special levies by the board of county 24447
commissioners for the operation of the hospital, when collected 24448
shall be paid to the board of county hospital trustees on a 24449
warrant of the county auditor and approved by the board of county 24450
commissioners. 24451

       (8) The board of county hospital trustees shall provide for 24452
the conduct of an annual financial audit of the county hospital. 24453
Not later than thirty days after it receives the final report of 24454
an annual financial audit, the board shall file a copy of the 24455
report with the board of county commissioners.24456

       (E) For the public purpose of improving the health, safety, 24457
and general welfare of the community, the board of county hospital 24458
trustees may donate to a nonprofit entity any of the following:24459

       (1) Moneys and other financial assets determined not to be 24460
necessary to meet current demands on the hospital;24461

       (2) Surplus hospital property, including supplies, equipment, 24462
office facilities, and other property that is not real estate or 24463
an interest in real estate;24464

       (3) Services rendered by the hospital.24465

       (F)(1) For purposes of division (F)(2) of this section:24466

       (a) "Bank" has the same meaning as in section 1101.01 of the 24467
Revised Code.24468

       (b) "Savings and loan association" has the same meaning as in 24469
section 1151.01 of the Revised Code.24470

       (c) "Savings bank" has the same meaning as in section 1161.01 24471
of the Revised Code.24472

       (2) The board of county hospital trustees may enter into a 24473
contract for a secured line of credit with a bank, savings and 24474
loan association, or savings bank if the contract meets all of the 24475
following requirements:24476

       (a) The term of the contract does not exceed one year, except 24477
that the contract may provide for the automatic renewal of the 24478
contract for up to four additional one-year periods if, on the 24479
date of automatic renewal, the aggregate outstanding draws 24480
remaining unpaid under the secured line of credit do not exceed 24481
fifty per cent of the maximum amount that can be drawn under the 24482
secured line of credit.24483

       (b) The contract provides that the bank, savings and loan 24484
association, or savings bank shall not commence a civil action 24485
against the board of county commissioners, any member of the 24486
board, or the county to recover the principal, interest, or any 24487
charges or other amounts that remain outstanding on the secured 24488
line of credit at the time of any default by the board of county 24489
hospital trustees.24490

       (c) The contract provides that no assets other than those of 24491
the county hospital can be used to secure the line of credit.24492

       (d) The terms and conditions of the contract comply with all 24493
state and federal statutes and rules governing the extension of a 24494
secured line of credit.24495

       (3) Any obligation incurred by a board of county hospital 24496
trustees under division (F)(2) of this section is an obligation of 24497
that board only and not a general obligation of the board of 24498
county commissioners or the county within the meaning of division 24499
(Q) of section 133.01 of the Revised Code.24500

       (4) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in the Revised 24501
Code, the board of county hospital trustees may secure the line of 24502
credit authorized under division (F)(2) of this section by the 24503
grant of a security interest in any part or all of its tangible 24504
personal property and intangible personal property, including its 24505
deposit accounts, accounts receivable, or both.24506

       (5) No board of county hospital trustees shall at any time 24507
have more than one secured line of credit under division (F)(2) of 24508
this section.24509

       (G) The board of county hospital trustees shall establish a 24510
schedule of charges for all services and treatment rendered by the 24511
county hospital. It may provide for the free treatment in the 24512
hospital of soldiers, sailors, and marines of the county, under 24513
such conditions and rules as it prescribes.24514

       (H) The board of county hospital trustees may designate the 24515
amounts and forms of insurance protection to be provided, and the 24516
board of county commissioners shall assist in obtaining such 24517
protection. The expense of providing the protection shall be paid 24518
from hospital operating funds.24519

       (I) The board of county hospital trustees may authorize a 24520
county hospital and each of its units, hospital board members, 24521
designated hospital employees, and medical staff members to be a 24522
member of and maintain membership in any local, state, or national 24523
group or association organized and operated for the promotion of 24524
the public health and welfare or advancement of the efficiency of 24525
hospital administration and in connection therewith to use tax 24526
funds for the payment of dues and fees and related expenses but 24527
nothing in this section prohibits the board from using receipts 24528
from hospital operation, other than tax funds, for the payment of 24529
such dues and fees.24530

       (J) The following apply to the board of county hospital 24531
trustees in relation to its employees and the employees of the 24532
county hospital:24533

       (1) The board shall adopt the wage and salary schedule for 24534
employees.24535

       (2) The board may employ the hospital's administrator 24536
pursuant to section 339.07 of the Revised Code, and the 24537
administrator may employ individuals for the hospital in 24538
accordance with that section.24539

       (3) The board may employ assistants as necessary to perform 24540
its clerical work, superintend properly the construction of the 24541
county hospital, and pay the hospital's expenses. Such employees 24542
may be paid from funds provided for the county hospital.24543

       (4) The board may hire, by contract or as salaried employees, 24544
such management consultants, accountants, attorneys, engineers, 24545
architects, construction managers, and other professional advisors 24546
as it determines are necessary and desirable to assist in the 24547
management of the programs and operation of the county hospital. 24548
Such professional advisors may be paid from county hospital 24549
operating funds.24550

       (5) Notwithstanding section 325.19 of the Revised Code, the 24551
board may grant to employees any fringe benefits the board 24552
determines to be customary and usual in the nonprofit hospital 24553
field in its community, including, but not limited to:24554

       (a) Additional vacation leave with full pay for full-time 24555
employees, including full-time hourly rate employees, after 24556
service of one year;24557

       (b) Vacation leave and holiday pay for part-time employees on 24558
a pro rata basis;24559

       (c) Leave with full pay due to death in the employee's 24560
immediate family, which shall not be deducted from the employee's 24561
accumulated sick leave;24562

       (d) Premium pay for working on holidays listed in section 24563
325.19 of the Revised Code;24564

       (e) Moving expenses for new employees;24565

       (f) Discounts on hospital supplies and services.24566

       (6) The board may provide holiday leave by observing Martin 24567
Luther King day, Washington-Lincoln day, Columbus day, and 24568
Veterans' day on days other than those specified in section 1.14 24569
of the Revised Code.24570

       (7) The board may grant to employees the insurance benefits 24571
authorized by section 339.16 of the Revised Code.24572

       (8) Notwithstanding section 325.19 of the Revised Code, the 24573
board may grant to employees, including hourly rate employees, 24574
such personal holidays as the board determines to be customary and 24575
usual in the hospital field in its community.24576

       (9) The board may provide employee recognition awards and 24577
hold employee recognition dinners.24578

       (10) The board may grant to employees the recruitment and 24579
retention benefits specified under division (K) of this section.24580

       (K) Notwithstanding sections 325.191 and 325.20 of the 24581
Revised Code, the board of county hospital trustees may provide, 24582
without the prior authorization of the board of county 24583
commissioners, scholarships for education in the health care 24584
professions, tuition reimbursement, and other staff development 24585
programs to enhance the skills of health care professionals for 24586
the purpose of recruiting or retaining qualified employees.24587

       The board of county hospital trustees may pay reasonable 24588
expenses for recruiting or retaining physicians and other 24589
appropriate health care practitioners.24590

       (L) The board of county hospital trustees may retain counsel 24591
and institute legal action in its own name for the collection of 24592
delinquent accounts. The board may also employ any other lawful 24593
means for the collection of delinquent accounts.24594

       Sec. 339.07.  (A) The board of county hospital trustees shall 24595
provide for the administration of the county hospital by directly 24596
employing a hospital administrator or by entering into a contract 24597
for the management of the hospital under which an administrator is 24598
provided. When an administrator is employed directly, the board 24599
shall adopt a job description delineating the administrator's 24600
powers and duties and the board may pay the administrator's salary 24601
and other benefits from funds provided for the hospital. 24602

       (B) During the construction and equipping of the hospital, 24603
the administrator shall act in an advisory capacity to the board 24604
of county hospital trustees. After the hospital is completed, the 24605
administrator shall serve as the chief executive officer and shall 24606
carry out the administration of the county hospital according to 24607
the policies set forth by the board and any written delegation.24608

       The administrator shall administer the county hospital, make 24609
reports, and take any other action that the administrator 24610
determines is necessary for the operation of the hospital.24611

       At the end of each fiscal year, the administrator shall 24612
submit to the board a complete financial statement showing the 24613
receipts, revenues, and expenditures in detail for the entire 24614
fiscal year.24615

       The administrator shall ensure that the hospital has such 24616
physicians, nurses, and other employees as are necessary for the 24617
proper care, control, and management of the county hospital and 24618
its patients. The physicians, nurses, and other employees may be 24619
suspended or removed by the administrator at any time the welfare 24620
of the hospital warrants suspension or removal. The administrator 24621
may obtain physicians, nurses, and other employees by direct 24622
employment, entering into contracts, or granting authority to 24623
practice in the hospital. Persons employed directly shall be in 24624
the unclassified civil service, pursuant to section 124.11 of the 24625
Revised Code.24626

       Sec. 340.01.  (A) As used in this chapter, "addiction," 24627
"addiction services," "alcohol and drug addiction services," and24628
"community addiction services provider," "community mental health 24629
services provider," "alcohol and drug addiction programsgambling 24630
addiction services," "mental health services," and "mental 24631
illness" have the same meanings as in section 3793.015119.01 of 24632
the Revised Code.24633

       (B) An alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service 24634
district shall be established in any county or combination of 24635
counties having a population of at least fifty thousand to provide 24636
alcohol and drug addiction services and mental health services. 24637
With the approval of the directorsdirector of mental health and 24638
alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 24639
services, any county or combination of counties having a 24640
population of less than fifty thousand may establish such a 24641
district. Districts comprising more than one county shall be known 24642
as joint-county districts.24643

       The board of county commissioners of any county participating 24644
in a joint-county district may submit a resolution requesting 24645
withdrawal from the district together with a comprehensive plan or 24646
plans that are in compliance with rules adopted by the director of 24647
mental healthmental health and addiction services under section 24648
5119.61section 5119.22 of the Revised Code and rules adopted by 24649
the department of alcohol and drug addiction services under 24650
section 3793.05 of the Revised Code, and that provide for the 24651
equitable adjustment and division of all services, assets, 24652
property, debts, and obligations, if any, of the joint-county 24653
district to the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 24654
health services, to the boards of county commissioners of each 24655
county in the district, and to the directors. No county 24656
participating in a joint-county service district may withdraw from 24657
the district without the consent of the directorsdirector of 24658
mental health and alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental 24659
health and addiction services nor earlier than one year after the 24660
submission of such resolution unless all of the participating 24661
counties agree to an earlier withdrawal. Any county withdrawing 24662
from a joint-county district shall continue to have levied against 24663
its tax list and duplicate any tax levied by the district during 24664
the period in which the county was a member of the district until 24665
such time as the levy expires or is renewed or replaced.24666

       Sec. 340.011.  (A) This chapter shall be interpreted to 24667
accomplish all of the following:24668

       (1) Establish a unified system of treatment for mentally ill 24669
persons and persons with addictions;24670

       (2) Establish a community support system available for every 24671
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district;24672

       (3) Protect the personal liberty of mentally ill persons so 24673
that they may be treated in the least restrictive environment;24674

       (4) Encourage the development of high quality, cost 24675
effective, and comprehensive services, including culturally 24676
sensitive services;24677

       (5) Foster the development of comprehensive community mental 24678
health services, based on recognized local needs, especially for 24679
severely mentally disabled children, adolescents, and adults;24680

       (6) Ensure that services provided meet minimum standards 24681
established by the director of mental health or the department of 24682
alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 24683
services;24684

       (7) Promote the delivery of high quality and cost-effective 24685
alcohol and drug addiction and mental health services;24686

       (8) Promote the participation of consumers ofpersons 24687
receiving mental health services and alcohol and drug addiction 24688
services in the planning, delivery, and evaluation of these 24689
services.24690

       (B) Nothing in Chapter 340., 3793., 5119., or 5122. of the 24691
Revised Code shall be construed as requiring a board of county 24692
commissioners to provide resources beyond the total amount set 24693
forth in a communitybudget and statement of services to be 24694
provided by the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health plan24695
services board, as developed and submitted under section 340.0324696
340.08 of the Revised Code, to provide the services listed in 24697
section 340.09 of the Revised Code, and nothing in those chapters 24698
shall be construed as requiring a board of county commissioners to 24699
provide resources beyond the total amount set forth in a plan for 24700
alcohol and drug addiction services, prepared and submitted in 24701
accordance with sections 340.033 and 3793.05 of the Revised Code, 24702
to provide alcohol and drug addiction services.24703

       Sec. 340.02. As used in this section, "mental health 24704
professional" means a person who is qualified to work with 24705
mentally ill persons, pursuant to standards established by the 24706
director of mental health under section 5119.611 of the Revised 24707
Code.24708

       (A) For each alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 24709
service district, there shall be appointed a board of alcohol, 24710
drug addiction, and mental health services consisting of eighteen 24711
members or fourteen members. Should the board of alcohol, drug 24712
addiction, and mental health services elect to remain at eighteen 24713
members, as provided under section 340.02 of the Revised Code as 24714
it existed immediately prior to the date of this amendment, the 24715
board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services and 24716
the board of county commissioners shall not be required to take 24717
any action. Should the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 24718
mental health services elect a recommendation to become a 24719
fourteen-member board, that recommendation must be approved by the 24720
board of county commissioners of the county in which the alcohol, 24721
drug addiction, and mental health district is located in order for 24722
the transition to a fourteen-member board to occur. Not later than 24723
September 30, 2013, each board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 24724
mental health services wishing to become a fourteen-member board 24725
shall notify the board of county commissioners of that 24726
recommendation. Failure of the board of county commissioners to 24727
take action within thirty days after receipt of the recommendation 24728
shall be deemed agreement by the board of county commissioners to 24729
transition to a fourteen-member board of alcohol, drug addiction, 24730
and mental health services. Should the board of county 24731
commissioners reject the recommendation, the board of county 24732
commissioners shall adopt a resolution stating that rejection 24733
within thirty days after receipt of the recommendation. Upon 24734
adoption of the resolution, the board of county commissioners 24735
shall meet with the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 24736
health services to discuss the matter. After the meeting, the 24737
board of county commissioners shall notify the department of 24738
mental health and addiction services of its election not later 24739
than January 1, 2014. In a joint-county district, a majority of 24740
the boards of county commissioners must not reject the 24741
recommendation of a joint-county board to become a fourteen-member 24742
board in order for the transition to a fourteen-member board to 24743
occur. Should the joint-county district have an even number of 24744
counties, and the boards of county commissioners of these counties 24745
tie in terms of whether or not to accept the recommendation of the 24746
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services board, the 24747
recommendation of the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 24748
service board to become a fourteen-member board shall prevail. The 24749
election shall be final. Failure to provide notice of its election 24750
to the department on or before January 1, 2014, shall constitute 24751
an election to continue to operate as an eighteen-member board. If 24752
an existing board provides timely notice of its election to 24753
transition to operate as a fourteen-member board, the number of 24754
board members may decline from eighteen to fourteen by attrition 24755
as current members' terms expire. However, the composition of the 24756
board must reflect the requirements set forth in this section for 24757
fourteen-member boards. NineFor all boards, half of the members 24758
shall be interested in mental health programs and facilities24759
services and nine otherhalf of the members shall be interested 24760
in alcohol or, drug, or gambling addiction programsservices. 24761
All members shall be residents of the service district. The 24762
membership shall, as nearly as possible, reflect the composition 24763
of the population of the service district as to race and sex.24764

       The(B) For boards operating as eighteen-member boards, the24765
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services24766
shall appoint foureight members of the board, the director of 24767
alcohol and drug addiction services shall appoint four members,24768
and the board of county commissioners shall appoint ten members. 24769
For boards operating as fourteen-member boards, the director of 24770
mental health and addiction services shall appoint six members of 24771
the board and the board of county commissioners shall appoint 24772
eight members. In a joint-county district, the county 24773
commissioners of each participating county shall appoint members 24774
in as nearly as possible the same proportion as that county's 24775
population bears to the total population of the district, except 24776
that at least one member shall be appointed from each 24777
participating county.24778

       (C) The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 24779
services shall ensure that at least one member of the board is a 24780
psychiatrist and one member of the board is a mental health 24781
professional. If the appointment of a psychiatrist is not 24782
possible, as determined under rules adopted by the director, a 24783
licensed physician may be appointed in place of the psychiatrist. 24784
If the appointment of a licensed physician is not possible, the 24785
director of mental health may waive the requirement that the 24786
psychiatrist or licensed physician be a resident of the service 24787
district and appoint a psychiatrist or licensed physician from a 24788
contiguous county. The director of mental health shall ensure that24789
clinician with experience in the delivery of mental health 24790
services, at least one member of the board is a person who has 24791
received or is receiving mental health services paid for by public 24792
funds and, at least one member of the board is a parent or other 24793
relative of such a person.24794

       The director of alcohol and drug addiction services shall 24795
ensure that at least one member of the board is a professional in 24796
the field of alcohol or drug addiction services and one member of 24797
the board is an advocate for persons receiving treatment for 24798
alcohol or drug addiction. Of the members appointed by the 24799
director of alcohol and drug addiction services, at least one 24800
member of the board is a clinician with experience in the delivery 24801
of addiction services, at least one shall bemember of the board 24802
is a person who has received or is receiving services for alcohol 24803
or drug addiction services paid for by public funds, and at least 24804
one shall bemember of the board is a parent or other relative of 24805
such a person. A single member who meets both qualifications may 24806
fulfill the requirement for a clinician with experience in the 24807
delivery of mental health services and a clinician with experience 24808
in the delivery of addiction services.24809

       (D) No member or employee of a board of alcohol, drug 24810
addiction, and mental health services shall serve as a member of 24811
the board of any agencyprovider with which the board of alcohol, 24812
drug addiction, and mental health services has entered into a 24813
contract for the provision of services or facilities. No member of 24814
a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 24815
shall be an employee of any agencyprovider with which the board 24816
has entered into a contract for the provision of services or 24817
facilities, unless the board member's employment duties with the 24818
agency consist of providing, only outside the district the board 24819
serves, services for which the medicaid program pays. No person 24820
shall be an employee of a board and such an agencya provider24821
unless the board and agencyprovider both agree in writing.24822

       (E) No person shall serve as a member of the board of 24823
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services whose spouse, 24824
child, parent, brother, sister, grandchild, stepparent, stepchild, 24825
stepbrother, stepsister, father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, 24826
daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, or sister-in-law serves as a 24827
member of the board of any agencyprovider with which the board of 24828
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services has entered 24829
into a contract for the provision of services or facilities. No 24830
person shall serve as a member or employee of the board whose 24831
spouse, child, parent, brother, sister, stepparent, stepchild, 24832
stepbrother, stepsister, father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, 24833
daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, or sister-in-law serves as a 24834
county commissioner of a county or counties in the alcohol, drug 24835
addiction, and mental health service district.24836

       (F) Each year each board member shall attend at least one 24837
inservice training session provided or approved by the department 24838
of mental health or the department of alcohol and drug addiction 24839
servicesmental health and addiction services. Such training 24840
sessions shall not be considered to be regularly scheduled 24841
meetings of the board.24842

       Each(G) For boards operating as eighteen-member boards, each24843
member shall be appointed for a term of four years, commencing the 24844
first day of July, except that one-third of initial appointments 24845
to a newly established board, and to the extent possible to 24846
expanded boards, shall be for terms of two years, one-third of 24847
initial appointments shall be for terms of three years, and 24848
one-third of initial appointments shall be for terms of four 24849
years. For boards operating as fourteen-member boards, each member 24850
shall be appointed for a term of four years, commencing the first 24851
day of July, except that four of the initial appointments to a 24852
newly established board, and to the extent possible to expanded 24853
boards, shall be for terms of two years, five initial appointments 24854
shall be for terms of three years, and five initial appointments 24855
shall be for terms of four years. No member shall serve more than 24856
two consecutive four-year terms under the same appointing 24857
authority. A member may serve for three consecutive terms under 24858
the same appointing authority only if one of the terms is for less 24859
than two years. A member who has served two consecutive four-year 24860
terms or three consecutive terms totaling less than ten years is 24861
eligible for reappointment by the same appointing authority one 24862
year following the end of the second or third term, respectively.24863

       When a vacancy occurs, appointment for the expired or 24864
unexpired term shall be made in the same manner as an original 24865
appointment. The appointing authority shall be notified by 24866
certified mail of any vacancy and shall fill the vacancy within 24867
sixty days following that notice.24868

       Any member of the board may be removed from office by the 24869
appointing authority for neglect of duty, misconduct, or 24870
malfeasance in office, and shall be removed by the appointing 24871
authority if the member is barred by this section from serving as 24872
a board member. The member shall be informed in writing of the 24873
charges and afforded an opportunity for a hearing. Upon the 24874
absence of a member within one year from either four board 24875
meetings or from two board meetings without prior notice, the 24876
board shall notify the appointing authority, which may vacate the 24877
appointment and appoint another person to complete the member's 24878
term.24879

       Members of the board shall serve without compensation, but 24880
shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses incurred in 24881
the performance of their official duties, as defined by rules of 24882
the departmentsdepartment of mental health and alcohol and drug 24883
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services.24884

       Sec. 340.021.  (A) In an alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 24885
health service district comprised of a county with a population of 24886
two hundred fifty thousand or more on October 10, 1989, the board 24887
of county commissioners shall, within thirty days of October 10, 24888
1989, establish an alcohol and drug addiction services board as 24889
the entity responsible for providing alcohol and drug addiction 24890
services in the county, unless, prior to that date, the board 24891
adopts a resolution providing that the entity responsible for 24892
providing the services is a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 24893
mental health services. Ifwhere the board of county commissioners 24894
establisheshas established an alcohol and drug addiction services 24895
board, the community mental health board established under former 24896
section 340.02 of the Revised Code shall serve as the entity 24897
responsible for providing mental health services in the county. A 24898
community mental health board has all the powers, duties, and 24899
obligations of a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 24900
health services with regard to mental health services. An alcohol 24901
and drug addiction services board has all the powers, duties, and 24902
obligations of a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 24903
health services with regard to alcohol and drug addiction 24904
services. Any provision of the Revised Code that refers to a board 24905
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services with regard 24906
to mental health services also refers to a community mental health 24907
board and any provision that refers to a board of alcohol, drug 24908
addiction, and mental health services with regard to alcohol and 24909
drug addiction services also refers to an alcohol and drug 24910
addiction services board.24911

       An alcohol and drug addiction services board shall consist of 24912
eighteen members or fourteen members, six of whomat the election 24913
of the board. Not later than January 1, 2014, each alcohol and 24914
drug addiction services board shall notify the department of 24915
mental health and addiction services of its election to operate as 24916
an eighteen-member board or to operate as a fourteen-member board. 24917
The election shall be final. Failure to provide notice of its 24918
election to the department on or before January 1, 2014, shall 24919
constitute an election to continue to operate as an 24920
eighteen-member board. If an existing board provides timely notice 24921
of its election to operate as a fourteen-member board, the number 24922
of board members may decline from eighteen to fourteen by 24923
attrition as current members' terms expire. However, the 24924
composition of the board must reflect the requirements set forth 24925
in this section and in applicable provisions of section 340.02 of 24926
the Revised Code for fourteen-member boards. For boards operating 24927
as eighteen-member boards, six members shall be appointed by the 24928
director of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and 24929
addiction services and twelve of whommembers shall be appointed 24930
by the board of county commissioners. Of the members appointed by 24931
theThe director, one shall beof mental health and addiction 24932
services shall ensure that at least one member of the board is a 24933
person who has received or is receiving services for alcohol or,24934
drug, or gambling addiction, at least one shall bemember is a 24935
parent or relative of such a person, and at least one shall be24936
member is a professional in the field of alcohol or drug24937
clinician with experience in the delivery of addiction services, 24938
and one shall be an advocate for persons receiving treatment for 24939
alcohol or drug addiction. The membership of the board shall, as 24940
nearly as possible, reflect the composition of the population of 24941
the service district as to race and sex. Members shall be 24942
residents of the service district and shall be interested in 24943
alcohol and, drug, or gambling addiction services. Requirements 24944
for membership, including prohibitions against certain family and 24945
business relationships, and terms of office shall be the same as 24946
those for members of boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 24947
health services.24948

        A community mental health board shall consist of eighteen 24949
members or fourteen members, at the election of the board. Not 24950
later than January 1, 2014, each community mental health board 24951
shall notify the department of mental health and addiction 24952
services of its election to operate as an eighteen-member board or 24953
to operate as a fourteen-member board. The election shall be 24954
final. Failure to provide notice of its election to the department 24955
on or before January 1, 2014, shall constitute an election to 24956
continue to operate as an eighteen-member board. If an existing 24957
board provides timely notice of its election to operate as a 24958
fourteen-member board, the number of board members may decline 24959
from eighteen to fourteen by attrition as current members' terms 24960
expire. However, the composition of the board must reflect the 24961
requirements set forth in this section and in applicable 24962
provisions of section 340.02 of the Revised Code for 24963
fourteen-member boards. For boards operating as eighteen-member 24964
boards, six of whommembers shall be appointed by the director of 24965
mental healthmental health and addiction services and twelve of 24966
whommembers shall be appointed by the board of county 24967
commissioners. Of the members appointed by theThe director, one 24968
shall beof mental health and addiction services shall ensure that 24969
at least one member of the board is a person who has received or 24970
is receiving mental health services, at least one shall bemember 24971
is a parent or relative of such a person, and at least one shall 24972
bemember is a psychiatrist or a physician, and one shall be a24973
clinician with experience in the delivery of mental health 24974
professionalservices. The membership of the board as nearly as 24975
possible shall reflect the composition of the population of the 24976
service district as to race and sex. Members shall be residents of 24977
the service district and shall be interested in mental health 24978
services. Requirements for membership, including prohibitions 24979
against certain family and business relationships, and terms of 24980
office shall be the same as those for members of boards of 24981
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services.24982

       (B) If a board of county commissioners subject to division 24983
(A) of this section did not adopt a resolution providing for a 24984
board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, the 24985
board of county commissioners may establish such a board in 24986
accordance with the following procedures:24987

       (1) Not later than January 1, 2007, the board of county 24988
commissioners shall adopt a resolution expressing its intent to 24989
establish a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 24990
services.24991

       (2) After adopting a resolution under division (B)(1) of this 24992
section, the board of county commissioners shall instruct the 24993
county's community mental health board and alcohol and drug 24994
addiction services board to prepare a report on the feasibility, 24995
process, and proposed plan to establish a board of alcohol, drug 24996
addiction, and mental health services. The board of county 24997
commissioners shall specify the date by which the report must be 24998
submitted to the board for its review.24999

       (3) After reviewing the report prepared under division (B)(2) 25000
of this section, the board may adopt a final resolution 25001
establishing a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 25002
services. A final resolution establishing such a board shall be 25003
adopted not later than July 1, 2007.25004

       (C)(1) If a board of county commissioners subject to division 25005
(A) of this section did not adopt a final resolution providing for 25006
a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services and 25007
did not establish such a board under division (B) of this section25008
on or before July 1, 2007, the board of county commissioners may 25009
establish a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 25010
services on or after the effective date of this amendment. To 25011
establish the board, the board of county commissioners shall adopt 25012
a resolution providing for the board's establishment. The 25013
composition of the board, the procedures for appointing members, 25014
and all other matters related to the board and its members are 25015
subject to section 340.02 of the Revised Code, with the following 25016
exceptions:25017

       (a) For initial appointments to the board, the county's 25018
community mental health board and alcohol and drug addiction 25019
services board shall jointly recommend members of those boards for 25020
reappointment and shall submit the recommendations to the board of 25021
county commissioners, director of mental health, and the director 25022
of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 25023
services.25024

       (b) To the greatest extent possible, the appointing 25025
authorities shall appoint the initial members from among the 25026
members jointly recommended under division (C)(B)(1)(a) of this 25027
section.25028

       (2) If a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 25029
services is established pursuant to division (C)(B)(1) of this 25030
section, the board has the same rights, privileges, immunities, 25031
powers, and duties that were possessed by the county's community 25032
mental health board and alcohol and drug addiction services board. 25033
When the board is established, all property and obligations of the 25034
community mental health board and alcohol and drug addiction 25035
services board shall be transferred to the board of alcohol, drug 25036
addiction, and mental health services.25037

       Sec. 340.03.  (A) Subject to rules issued by the director of 25038
mental healthmental health and addiction services after 25039
consultation with relevant constituencies as required by division 25040
(L)(A)(10) of section 5119.065119.21 of the Revised Code, with 25041
regard to mental health services, the board of alcohol, drug 25042
addiction, and mental health services shall:25043

       (1) Serve as the community addiction and mental health 25044
services planning agency for the county or counties under its 25045
jurisdiction, and in so doing it shall:25046

       (a) Evaluate the need for facilities and community addiction 25047
and mental health services;25048

       (b) In cooperation with other local and regional planning and 25049
funding bodies and with relevant ethnic organizations, assess the 25050
community addiction and mental health needs, evaluate strengths 25051
and challenges, and set priorities, and develop plans for the 25052
operation of facilities and community addiction and mental health 25053
services, including treatment and prevention. When the board sets 25054
priorities for the operation of addiction services, the board 25055
shall consult with the county commissioners of the counties in the 25056
board's service district regarding the services described in 25057
section 340.15 of the Revised Code and shall give priority to 25058
those services, except that those services shall not have a 25059
priority over services provided to pregnant women under programs 25060
developed in relation to the mandate established in section 25061
5119.17 of the Revised Code;25062

       (c) In accordance with guidelines issued by the director of 25063
mental healthmental health and addiction services after 25064
consultation with board representatives, annually develop and 25065
submit to the department of mental healthmental health and 25066
addiction services a community addiction and mental health 25067
services plan listing community addiction and mental health 25068
services needs, including the needs of all residents of the 25069
district now residing in state mental institutions and severely 25070
mentally disabled adults, children, and adolescents;currently 25071
receiving inpatient services in state-operated hospitals, the 25072
needs of other populations as required by state or federal law or 25073
programs, the needs of all children subject to a determination 25074
made pursuant to section 121.38 of the Revised Code;, and all the25075
priorities for facilities and community addiction and mental 25076
health services that are or will be in operation or provided25077
during the period for which the plan will be in operation in the 25078
service district to meet such needseffect.25079

       In alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service 25080
districts that have separate alcohol and drug addiction services 25081
and community mental health boards, the alcohol and drug addiction 25082
services board shall submit a community addiction services plan 25083
and the community mental health board shall submit a community 25084
mental health services plan. Each board shall consult with its 25085
counterpart in developing its plan and address the interaction 25086
between the local addiction services and mental health services 25087
systems and populations with regard to needs and priorities in 25088
developing its plan.25089

       The plan shall include, but not be limited to, a statement of 25090
which of the services listed in section 340.09 of the Revised Code 25091
the board intends to make available. The board must include crisis 25092
intervention services for individuals in an emergency situation in 25093
the plan and explain how the board intends to make such services 25094
available. The plan must also include a statement of the inpatient 25095
and community-based services the board proposes that the 25096
department operate, an assessment of the number and types of 25097
residential facilities needed, such other information as the 25098
department requests, and a budget for moneys the board expects to 25099
receive. The department shall approve or disapprove the plan, in 25100
whole or in part, according to the criteria developed pursuant to 25101
section 5119.615119.22 of the Revised Code. The department's 25102
statement of approval or disapproval shall specify the inpatient 25103
and the community-based services that the department will operate 25104
for the board. Eligibility for state and federal funding shall be 25105
contingent upon an approved plan or relevant part of a plan. 25106

       If a board determines that it is necessary to amend a plan or 25107
an allocation request that has been approved under this division 25108
(A)(1)(c) of this section, the board shall submit a proposed 25109
amendment to the director. The director may approve or disapprove 25110
all or part of the amendment. The director shall inform the board 25111
of the reasons for disapproval of all or part of an amendment and 25112
of the criteria that must be met before the amendment may be 25113
approved. The director shall provide the board an opportunity to 25114
present its case on behalf of the amendment. The director shall 25115
give the board a reasonable time in which to meet the criteria, 25116
and shall offer the board technical assistance to help it meet the 25117
criteria.25118

       The board shall implementoperate in accordance with the plan 25119
approved by the department.25120

       (d) Promote, arrange, and implement working agreements with 25121
social agencies, both public and private, and with judicial 25122
agencies.25123

       (2) Investigate, or request another agency to investigate, 25124
any complaint alleging abuse or neglect of any person receiving 25125
services from a community addiction or mental health agency as 25126
defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised Codeservices provider 25127
certified under section 5119.36 of the Revised Code or alleging 25128
abuse or neglect of a personresident receiving addiction services 25129
or with mental illness or severe mental disability residing in a 25130
residential facility licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of the 25131
Revised Code. If the investigation substantiates the charge of 25132
abuse or neglect, the board shall take whatever action it 25133
determines is necessary to correct the situation, including 25134
notification of the appropriate authorities. Upon request, the 25135
board shall provide information about such investigations to the 25136
department.25137

       (3) For the purpose of section 5119.6115119.36 of the 25138
Revised Code, cooperate with the director of mental healthmental 25139
health and addiction services in visiting and evaluating whether 25140
the services of a community addiction or mental health agency25141
services provider satisfy the certification standards established 25142
by rules adopted under that section;25143

       (4) In accordance with criteria established under division 25144
(E) of section 5119.615119.22 of the Revised Code, conduct 25145
program audits that review and evaluate the quality, 25146
effectiveness, and efficiency of services provided through its 25147
community addiction and mental health plancontracted services and 25148
submit its findings and recommendations to the department of 25149
mental healthmental health and addiction services;25150

       (5) In accordance with section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised 25151
Code, review an application for a residential facility license and 25152
provide to the department of mental healthmental health and 25153
addiction services any information about the applicant or facility 25154
that the board would like the department to consider in reviewing 25155
the application;25156

       (6) Audit, in accordance with rules adopted by the auditor of 25157
state pursuant to section 117.20 of the Revised Code, at least 25158
annually all programs and services provided under contract with 25159
the board. In so doing, the board may contract for or employ the 25160
services of private auditors. AObtain a copy of the fiscal audit 25161
report of all provider organizations under contract with the 25162
board. The fiscal audit report shall be provided to the director 25163
of mental healthmental health and addiction services, the auditor 25164
of state, and the county auditor of each county in the board's 25165
district. Nothing in division (A)(6) of this section shall be 25166
interpreted as prohibiting or requiring the inclusion of 25167
provisions requiring performance audits or periodic fiscal reports 25168
in contracts negotiated between the board and services providers. 25169
However, any provision in such a contract requiring a performance 25170
audit or periodic fiscal report shall relate only to programs and 25171
services paid for by the board in question with local funds.25172

       (7) Recruit and promote local financial support for addiction 25173
and mental health programsservices from private and public 25174
sources;25175

       (8)(a) Enter into contracts with public and private 25176
facilities for the operation of facility services included in the 25177
board's community mental health plan and enter into contracts with 25178
public and private community addiction and mental health agencies25179
service providers for the provision of community addiction and25180
mental health services that are listed in section 340.09 of the 25181
Revised Code and included in the board's community mental health 25182
plan. The board may not contract with a residential facility 25183
subject to section 5119.34 of the Revised Code unless the facility 25184
is licensed by the director of mental health and addiction 25185
services and may not contract with a community addiction or mental 25186
health agencyservices provider to provide community addiction or25187
mental health services included in the board's community mental 25188
health plan unless the services are certified by the director of 25189
mental healthmental health and addiction services under section 25190
5119.6115119.36 of the Revised Code. Section 307.86 of the 25191
Revised Code does not apply to contracts entered into under this 25192
division. In contracting with a community addiction or mental 25193
health agencyservices provider, a board shall consider the cost 25194
effectiveness of services provided by that agencyprovider and 25195
the quality and continuity of care, and may review cost elements, 25196
including salary costs, of the services to be provided. A 25197
utilization review process shallmay be established as part of the 25198
contract for services entered into between a board and a community 25199
addiction or mental health agencyservices provider. The board 25200
may establish this process in a way that is most effective and 25201
efficient in meeting local needs. Until July 1, 2012, a contract 25202
with a community mental health agency or facility, as defined in 25203
section 5111.023 of the Revised Code, to provide services listed 25204
in division (B) of that section shall provide for the agency or 25205
facility to be paid in accordance with the contract entered into 25206
between the departments of job and family services and mental 25207
health under section 5111.91 of the Revised Code and any rules 25208
adopted under division (A) of section 5119.61 of the Revised Code.25209

       If either the board or a facility or community addiction or25210
mental health agencyservices provider with which the board 25211
contracts under this division (A)(8)(a) of this section proposes 25212
not to renew the contract or proposes substantial changes in 25213
contract terms, the other party shall be given written notice at 25214
least one hundred twenty days before the expiration date of the 25215
contract. During the first sixty days of this one hundred 25216
twenty-day period, both parties shall attempt to resolve any 25217
dispute through good faith collaboration and negotiation in order 25218
to continue to provide services to persons in need. If the dispute 25219
has not been resolved sixty days before the expiration date of the 25220
contract, either party may notify the department of mental health25221
mental health and addiction services of the unresolved dispute. 25222
The director may require both parties to submit the dispute to a 25223
third party with the cost to be shared by the board and the 25224
facility or community mental health agencyprovider. The third 25225
party shall issue to the board, the facility or agencyprovider, 25226
and the department recommendations on how the dispute may be 25227
resolved twenty days prior to the expiration date of the contract, 25228
unless both parties agree to a time extension. The director shall 25229
adopt rules establishing the procedures of this dispute resolution 25230
process.25231

       (b) With the prior approval of the director of mental health25232
mental health and addiction services, a board may operate a 25233
facility or provide a community addiction or mental health service 25234
as follows, if there is no other qualified private or public 25235
facility or community addiction or mental health agencyservices 25236
provider that is immediately available and willing to operate such 25237
a facility or provide the service:25238

       (i) In an emergency situation, any board may operate a 25239
facility or provide a community addiction or mental health service 25240
in order to provide essential services for the duration of the 25241
emergency;25242

       (ii) In a service district with a population of at least one 25243
hundred thousand but less than five hundred thousand, a board may 25244
operate a facility or provide a community addiction or mental 25245
health service for no longer than one year;25246

       (iii) In a service district with a population of less than 25247
one hundred thousand, a board may operate a facility or provide a 25248
community addiction or mental health service for no longer than 25249
one year, except that such a board may operate a facility or 25250
provide a community addiction or mental health service for more 25251
than one year with the prior approval of the director and the 25252
prior approval of the board of county commissioners, or of a 25253
majority of the boards of county commissioners if the district is 25254
a joint-county district.25255

       The director shall not give a board approval to operate a 25256
facility or provide a community addiction or mental health service 25257
under division (A)(8)(b)(ii) or (iii) of this section unless the 25258
director determines that it is not feasible to have the department 25259
operate the facility or provide the service.25260

       The director shall not give a board approval to operate a 25261
facility or provide a community addiction or mental health service 25262
under division (A)(8)(b)(iii) of this section unless the director 25263
determines that the board will provide greater administrative 25264
efficiency and more or better services than would be available if 25265
the board contracted with a private or public facility or 25266
community addiction or mental health agencyservices provider.25267

       The director shall not give a board approval to operate a 25268
facility previously operated by a person or other government 25269
entity unless the board has established to the director's 25270
satisfaction that the person or other government entity cannot 25271
effectively operate the facility or that the person or other 25272
government entity has requested the board to take over operation 25273
of the facility. The director shall not give a board approval to 25274
provide a community addiction or mental health service previously 25275
provided by a community addiction or mental health agencyservices 25276
provider unless the board has established to the director's 25277
satisfaction that the agencyprovider cannot effectively provide 25278
the service or that the agencyprovider has requested the board 25279
take over providing the service.25280

       The director shall review and evaluate a board's operation of 25281
a facility and provision of community addiction or mental health 25282
service under division (A)(8)(b) of this section.25283

       Nothing in division (A)(8)(b) of this section authorizes a 25284
board to administer or direct the daily operation of any facility 25285
or community addiction or mental health agencyservices provider, 25286
but a facility or agencyprovider may contract with a board to 25287
receive administrative services or staff direction from the board 25288
under the direction of the governing body of the facility or 25289
agencyprovider.25290

       (9) Approve fee schedules and related charges or adopt a unit 25291
cost schedule or other methods of payment for contract services 25292
provided by community addiction or mental health agenciesservices 25293
providers in accordance with guidelines issued by the department 25294
as necessary to comply with state and federal laws pertaining to 25295
financial assistance;25296

       (10) Submit to the director and the county commissioners of 25297
the county or counties served by the board, and make available to 25298
the public, an annual report of the programsservices under the 25299
jurisdiction of the board, including a fiscal accounting;25300

       (11) Establish, to the extent resources are available, a 25301
community support systemcontinuum of care, which provides for 25302
prevention, treatment, support, and rehabilitation services and 25303
opportunities. The essential elements of the systemcontinuum25304
include, but are not limited to, the following components in 25305
accordance with section 5119.065119.21 of the Revised Code:25306

       (a) To locate persons in need of addiction or mental health 25307
services to inform them of available services and benefits 25308
mechanisms;25309

       (b) Assistance for clientspersons receiving services to 25310
obtain services necessary to meet basic human needs for food, 25311
clothing, shelter, medical care, personal safety, and income;25312

       (c) MentalAddiction and mental health careservices, 25313
including, but not limited to, outpatient, residential, partial 25314
hospitalization, and, where appropriate, inpatient care;25315

       (d) Emergency services and crisis intervention;25316

       (e) Assistance for clientspersons receiving services to 25317
obtain vocational services and opportunities for jobs;25318

       (f) The provision of services designed to develop social, 25319
community, and personal living skills;25320

       (g) Access to a wide range of housing and the provision of 25321
residential treatment and support;25322

       (h) Support, assistance, consultation, and education for 25323
families, friends, consumers ofpersons receiving addiction or25324
mental health services, and others;25325

       (i) Recognition and encouragement of families, friends, 25326
neighborhood networks, especially networks that include racial and 25327
ethnic minorities, churches, community organizations, and 25328
meaningfulcommunity employment as natural supports for consumers 25329
ofpersons receiving addiction or mental health services;25330

       (j) Grievance procedures and protection of the rights of 25331
consumers ofpersons receiving addiction or mental health 25332
services;25333

       (k) Case managementCommunity psychiatric supportive 25334
treatment services, which includes continual individualized 25335
assistance and advocacy to ensure that needed services are offered 25336
and procured.25337

       (12) Establish a method for evaluating referrals for 25338
involuntary commitment and affidavits filed pursuant to section 25339
5122.11 of the Revised Code in order to assist the probate 25340
division of the court of common pleas in determining whether there 25341
is probable cause that a respondent is subject to involuntary 25342
hospitalization and what alternative treatment is available and 25343
appropriate, if any;25344

       (13) Designate the treatment programservices, agency25345
provider, or facility, or other placement for each person 25346
involuntarily committed to the board pursuant to Chapter 5122. of 25347
the Revised Code and authorize payment for such treatment. The 25348
board shall provide the least restrictive and most appropriate 25349
alternative that is available for any person involuntarily 25350
committed to it and shall assure that the listed services listed 25351
insubmitted and approved in accordance with division (B) of25352
section 340.09340.08 of the Revised Code are available to 25353
severely mentally disabled persons residing within its service 25354
district. The board shall establish the procedure for authorizing 25355
payment for services, which may include prior authorization in 25356
appropriate circumstances. The board may provide for services 25357
directly to a severely mentally disabled person when life or 25358
safety is endangered and when no community mental health agency25359
services provider is available to provide the service.25360

       (13) Establish a method for evaluating referrals for 25361
involuntary commitment and affidavits filed pursuant to section 25362
5122.11 of the Revised Code in order to assist the probate 25363
division of the court of common pleas in determining whether there 25364
is probable cause that a respondent is subject to involuntary 25365
hospitalization and what alternative treatment is available and 25366
appropriate, if any;25367

       (14) Ensure that apartments or rooms built, subsidized, 25368
renovated, rented, owned, or leased by the board or a community 25369
addiction or mental health agencyservices provider have been 25370
approved as meeting minimum fire safety standards and that persons 25371
residing in the rooms or apartments are receiving appropriate and 25372
necessary services, including culturally relevant services, from a 25373
community addiction or mental health agencyservices provider. 25374
This division does not apply to residential facilities licensed 25375
pursuant to section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code.25376

       (15) Establish a mechanism for obtaining advice and25377
involvement of consumer recommendation and advicepersons 25378
receiving publicly funded addiction or mental health services on 25379
matters pertaining to addiction and mental health services in the 25380
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district;25381

       (16) Perform the duties required by rules adopted under 25382
section 5119.615119.22 of the Revised Code regarding referrals by 25383
the board or mental health agenciesservices providers under 25384
contract with the board of individuals with mental illness or 25385
severe mental disability to residential facilities as defined in 25386
division (A)(9)(b)(iii) of section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised 25387
Code and effective arrangements for ongoing mental health services 25388
for the individuals. The board is accountable in the manner 25389
specified in the rules for ensuring that the ongoing mental health 25390
services are effectively arranged for the individuals.25391

       (B) The board shall establish such rules, operating 25392
procedures, standards, and bylaws, and perform such other duties 25393
as may be necessary or proper to carry out the purposes of this 25394
chapter.25395

       (C) A board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 25396
services may receive by gift, grant, devise, or bequest any 25397
moneys, lands, or property for the benefit of the purposes for 25398
which the board is established, and may hold and apply it 25399
according to the terms of the gift, grant, or bequest. All money 25400
received, including accrued interest, by gift, grant, or bequest 25401
shall be deposited in the treasury of the county, the treasurer of 25402
which is custodian of the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 25403
health services funds to the credit of the board and shall be 25404
available for use by the board for purposes stated by the donor or 25405
grantor.25406

       (D) No board member or employee of a board of alcohol, drug 25407
addiction, and mental health services shall be liable for injury 25408
or damages caused by any action or inaction taken within the scope 25409
of the board member's official duties or the employee's 25410
employment, whether or not such action or inaction is expressly 25411
authorized by this section, section 340.033, or any other section 25412
of the Revised Code, unless such action or inaction constitutes 25413
willful or wanton misconduct. Chapter 2744. of the Revised Code 25414
applies to any action or inaction by a board member or employee of 25415
a board taken within the scope of the board member's official 25416
duties or employee's employment. For the purposes of this 25417
division, the conduct of a board member or employee shall not be 25418
considered willful or wanton misconduct if the board member or 25419
employee acted in good faith and in a manner that the board member 25420
or employee reasonably believed was in or was not opposed to the 25421
best interests of the board and, with respect to any criminal 25422
action or proceeding, had no reasonable cause to believe the 25423
conduct was unlawful.25424

       (E) The meetings held by any committee established by a board 25425
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services shall be 25426
considered to be meetings of a public body subject to section 25427
121.22 of the Revised Code.25428

       Sec. 340.031.  A board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 25429
health services may:25430

       (A) Inspect any residential facility licensed under section 25431
5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code and located in its district, 25432
pursuant to a contract with the department of mental health;25433

       (B) Acquire, convey, lease, or enter into a contract to 25434
purchase, lease, or sell property for community addiction and25435
mental health and alcohol and drug addiction services and related 25436
purposes, and enter into loan agreements, including mortgages, for 25437
the acquisition of such property.25438

       Sec. 340.032.  The board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 25439
mental health services shall employ a qualified mental health or 25440
alcohol or drug addiction services professional with experience in 25441
administration or a professional administrator with experience in 25442
mental health or alcohol or drug addiction services to serve as 25443
executive director of the board and shall prescribe the director's 25444
duties.25445

       The board shall fix the compensation of the executive 25446
director. In addition to such compensation, the director shall be 25447
reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses incurred in the 25448
performance of histhe director's official duties. The board, by 25449
majority vote of the full membership, may remove the director for 25450
cause, upon written charges, after an opportunity has been 25451
afforded himthe director for a hearing before the board on 25452
request.25453

       The board may delegate to its executive director the 25454
authority to act in its behalf in the performance of its 25455
administrative duties.25456

       As used in this section, "mental health professional" and 25457
"addiction services professional" mean an individual who is 25458
qualified to work with mentally ill persons or persons receiving 25459
addiction services, pursuant to standards established by the 25460
director of mental health and addiction services under Chapter 25461
5119. of the Revised Code.25462

       Sec. 340.04.  In addition to such other duties as may be 25463
lawfully imposed, the executive director of a board of alcohol, 25464
drug addiction, and mental health services shall:25465

       (A) Serve as executive officer of the board and subject to 25466
the prior approval of the board for each contract, execute 25467
contracts on its behalf;25468

       (B) Supervise services and facilities provided, operated, 25469
contracted, or supported by the board to the extent of determining 25470
that programsservices and facilities are being administered in 25471
conformity with this chapter and rules of the director of mental 25472
health and the department of alcohol and drug addiction services25473
mental health and addiction services;25474

       (C) Provide consultation to agencies, associations, or 25475
individualsaddiction and mental health services providers25476
providing services supported by the board;25477

       (D) Recommend to the board the changes necessary to increase 25478
the effectiveness of addiction and mental health services and 25479
alcohol and drug addiction services and other matters necessary or 25480
desirable to carry out this chapter;25481

       (E) Employ and remove from office such employees and 25482
consultants in the classified civil service and, subject to the 25483
approval of the board, employ and remove from office such other 25484
employees and consultants as may be necessary for the work of the 25485
board, and fix their compensation and reimbursement within the 25486
limits set by the salary schedule and the budget approved by the 25487
board;25488

       (F) Encourage the development and expansion of preventive, 25489
treatment, rehabilitative, and consultative programsservices in 25490
the field of addiction and mental health services with emphasis on 25491
continuity of care;25492

       (G) Prepare for board approval an annual report of the 25493
programsservices and facilities under the jurisdiction of the 25494
board, including a fiscal accounting of all services;25495

       (H) Conduct such studies as may be necessary and practicable 25496
for the promotion of mental health, promotion of addiction 25497
services, and the prevention of mental illness, emotional 25498
disorders, and addiction to alcohol and drugs;25499

       (I) Authorize the county auditor, or in a joint-county 25500
district the county auditor designated as the auditor for the 25501
district, to issue warrants for the payment of board obligations 25502
approved by the board, provided that all payments from funds 25503
distributed to the board by the department of mental health and 25504
addiction services are in accordance with the comprehensive 25505
community mental health planbudget submitted pursuant to section 25506
340.08 of the Revised Code, as approved by the department of 25507
mental health, or with the alcohol and drug addiction services 25508
plan as approved by the department of alcohol and drug addiction 25509
servicesmental health and addiction services.25510

       Sec. 340.05.  A community addiction or mental health agency25511
services provider that receives a complaint alleging abuse or 25512
neglect of an individual with mental illness or severe mental 25513
disability, or an individual receiving addiction services, who 25514
resides in a residential facility as defined in division (A)(9)(b) 25515
of section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code shall report the 25516
complaint to the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 25517
health services serving the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 25518
health service district in which the residential facility is 25519
located. A board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 25520
services that receives such a complaint or a report from a 25521
community addiction or mental health agencyservices provider of 25522
such a complaint shall report the complaint to the director of 25523
mental healthmental health and addiction services for the 25524
purpose of the director conducting an investigation under section 25525
5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code. The board may enter the 25526
facility with or without the director and, if the health and 25527
safety of a resident is in immediate danger, take any necessary 25528
action to protect the resident. The board's action shall not 25529
violate any resident's rights specified in rules adopted by the 25530
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services25531
under section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code. The board shall 25532
immediately report to the director regarding the board's actions 25533
under this section.25534

       Sec. 340.07.  The board of county commissioners of any county 25535
participating in an alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 25536
service district or joint-county district, upon receipt from the 25537
board of alcohol, drug addition, and mental health services of a 25538
resolution so requesting, may appropriate money to such board for 25539
the operation, lease, acquisition, construction, renovation, and 25540
maintenance of addiction or mental health services, programs,25541
providers and facilities for mentally ill and emotionally 25542
disturbed persons in accordance with the comprehensive community 25543
addiction and mental health plan or for alcohol and drug addiction 25544
programs in accordance with the alcohol and drug addiction 25545
services planservices budget approved by the department of mental 25546
health and addiction services pursuant to section 340.08 of the 25547
Revised Code.25548

       Sec. 340.08.  In accordance with rules or guidelines issued 25549
by the director of mental health and addiction services, each 25550
board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services shall 25551
do all of the following:25552

       (A) Submit to the department a report of receipts and 25553
expenditures for all federal, state, and local moneys the board 25554
expects to receive;25555

       (1) The report shall identify funds the board and public 25556
children services agencies in the board's service district have 25557
available to fund jointly the services described in section 340.15 25558
of the Revised Code.25559

       (2) The board's proposed budget for expenditures of state and 25560
federal funds distributed to the board by the department shall be 25561
deemed an application for funds, and the department shall approve 25562
or disapprove the budget for these expenditures. The department 25563
shall inform the board of the reasons for disapproval of the 25564
budget for the expenditure of state and federal funds and of the 25565
criteria that must be met before the budget may be approved. The 25566
director shall provide the board an opportunity to present its 25567
case on behalf of the submitted budget. The director shall give 25568
the board a reasonable time in which to meet the criteria and 25569
shall offer the board technical assistance to help it meet the 25570
criteria.25571

        If a board determines that it is necessary to amend a budget 25572
that has been approved under this section, the board shall submit 25573
a proposed amendment to the director. The director may approve or 25574
disapprove all or part of the amendment. The director shall inform 25575
the board of the reasons for disapproval of all or part of the 25576
amendment and of the criteria that must be met before the 25577
amendment may be approved. The director shall provide the board an 25578
opportunity to present its case on behalf of the amendment. The 25579
director shall give the board a reasonable time in which to meet 25580
the criteria and shall offer the board technical assistance to 25581
help it meet the criteria.25582

       (3) The director of mental health and addiction services, in 25583
whole or in part, may withhold funds otherwise to be allocated to 25584
a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 25585
under Chapter 5119. of the Revised Code if the board's use of 25586
state and federal funds fails to comply with the approved budget, 25587
as it may be amended with the approval of the department.25588

       (B) Submit to the department a statement identifying the 25589
services described in section 340.09 of the Revised Code the board 25590
intends to make available. The board shall include crisis 25591
intervention services for individuals in emergency situations and 25592
services required pursuant to section 340.15 of the Revised Code, 25593
and the board shall explain the manner in which the board intends 25594
to make such services available. The list of services shall be 25595
compatible with the budget submitted pursuant to division (A) of 25596
this section. The department shall approve or disapprove the 25597
proposed listing of services to be made available. The department 25598
shall inform the board of the reasons for disapproval of the 25599
listing of proposed services and of the criteria that must be met 25600
before listing of proposed services may be approved. The director 25601
shall provide the board an opportunity to present its case on 25602
behalf of the submitted listing of proposed services. The director 25603
shall give the board a reasonable time in which to meet the 25604
criteria and shall offer the board technical assistance to help it 25605
meet the criteria.25606

       (C) Enter into a continuity of care agreement with the state 25607
institution operated by the department of mental health and 25608
addiction services and designated as the institution serving the 25609
district encompassing the board's service district. Subject to 25610
division (B) of section 340.011 of the Revised Code, the 25611
continuity of care agreement shall outline the department's and 25612
the board's responsibilities to plan for and coordinate with each 25613
other to address the needs of board residents who are patients in 25614
the institution, with an emphasis on managing appropriate hospital 25615
bed day use and discharge planning.25616

       (D) In conjunction with the department of mental health and 25617
addiction services, operate a coordinated system for tracking and 25618
monitoring persons found not guilty by reason of insanity and 25619
committed pursuant to section 2945.40 of the Revised Code who have 25620
been granted a conditional release and persons found incompetent 25621
to stand trial and committed pursuant to section 2945.39 of the 25622
Revised Code who have been granted a conditional release. The 25623
system shall do all of the following:25624

       (1) Centralize responsibility for the tracking of those 25625
persons;25626

       (2) Provide for uniformity in monitoring those persons;25627

       (3) Provide a mechanism to allow prompt rehospitalization, 25628
reinstitutionalization, or detention when a violation of the 25629
conditional release or decompensation occurs.25630

       (E) Submit to the department a report summarizing complaints 25631
and grievances received by the board concerning the rights of 25632
persons seeking or receiving services, investigations of 25633
complaints and grievances, and outcomes of the investigations.25634

       (F) Provide to the department information to be submitted to 25635
the community addiction and mental health information system or 25636
systems established by the department under Chapter 5119. of the 25637
Revised Code.25638

       (G) Annually, and upon any change in membership, submit to 25639
the department a list of all current members of the board of 25640
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, including the 25641
appointing authority for each member, and the member's specific 25642
qualification for appointment pursuant to section 340.02 or 25643
340.021 of the Revised Code, if applicable.25644

       (H) Submit to the department other information as is 25645
reasonably required for purposes of the department's operations, 25646
service evaluation, reporting activities, research, system 25647
administration, and oversight.25648

       Sec. 340.09. (A) The department of mental healthmental 25649
health and addiction services shall provide assistance to any 25650
county for the operation of boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 25651
mental health services and, the provision of the following25652
services approved by the department within the continuum of care, 25653
the provision of approved support functions, and the partnership 25654
in, or support for, approved continuum of care-related activities25655
from funds appropriated for that purpose by the general assembly:.25656

       (A) Outpatient;25657

       (B) Categories in the continuum of care may include all of 25658
the following:25659

       (1) Inpatient;25660

       (C) Partial hospitalization(2) Residential;25661

       (D) Rehabilitation(3) Outpatient treatment;25662

       (E)(4) Intensive and other supports;25663

       (5) Recovery support;25664

       (6) Prevention and wellness management.25665

       (C) Support functions may include all of the following:25666

       (1) Consultation;25667

       (F) Mental health education and other preventive services;25668

       (G) Emergency;25669

       (H) Crisis intervention;25670

       (I)(2) Research;25671

       (J)(3) Administrative;25672

       (K)(4) Referral and information;25673

       (L) Residential;25674

       (M)(5) Training;25675

       (N) Substance abuse;25676

       (O)(6) Service and program evaluation;25677

       (P) Community support system;25678

       (Q) Case management;25679

       (R) Residential housing;25680

       (S) Other services approved by the board and the director of 25681
mental health.25682

       Sec. 340.091.  Each board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 25683
mental health services shall contract with a community mental 25684
health agencyservices provider under division (A)(7)(8)(a) of 25685
section 340.03 of the Revised Code for the agencyprovider to do 25686
all of the following in accordance with rules adopted under 25687
section 5119.615119.22 of the Revised Code for an individual 25688
referred to the agencyprovider under division (D)(2) of section 25689
5119.695119.41 of the Revised Code:25690

       (A) Assess the individual and, if the agencyprovider25691
determines that the environment in which the individual will be 25692
living while receiving residential state supplement payments is 25693
appropriate for the individual's needs, issue a recommendation to 25694
the referring residential state supplement administrative agency 25695
that the referring agency should conclude that the living 25696
environment is appropriate when it makes its determination 25697
regarding the appropriateness of the environment;25698

       (B) Provide ongoing monitoring to ensure that listed services 25699
provided undersubmitted and approved under division (B) of25700
section 340.09340.08 of the Revised Code are available to the 25701
individual;25702

       (C) Provide discharge planning to ensure the individual's 25703
earliest possible transition to a less restrictive environment.25704

       Sec. 340.10.  The county auditor or, in a joint-county 25705
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district, the 25706
auditor of the county, the treasurer of which has been designated 25707
in the agreement between the counties of the district as custodian 25708
of the community addiction and mental health services funds and 25709
alcohol and drug addiction services funds, is hereby designated as 25710
the auditor and fiscal officer of an alcohol, drug addiction, and 25711
mental health service district or joint-county district. State 25712
funds allocated for the support of a service district shall be 25713
paid to the county treasurer or, in a joint-county district, to 25714
the treasurer of that county designated in the agreement as 25715
custodian of the community addiction and mental health services25716
funds and authorized to make payments from such funds on order of 25717
the county auditor and on recommendation of the board of alcohol, 25718
drug addiction, and mental health services, or the executive 25719
director of the board when authorized by the board. The auditor 25720
shall submit to the board a detailed monthly statement of all 25721
receipts, disbursements, and ending balances for the community 25722
addiction and mental health services funds.25723

       Sec. 340.11.  A board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 25724
health services may procure a policy or policies of insurance 25725
insuring board members or employees of the board or agencies25726
providers with which the board contracts against liability arising 25727
from the performance of their official duties. If the liability 25728
insurance is unavailable or the amount a board has procured or is 25729
able to procure is insufficient to cover the amount of a claim, 25730
the board may indemnify a board member or employee as follows:25731

       (A) For any action or inaction in the capacity of board 25732
member or employee or at the request of the board, whether or not 25733
the action or inaction is expressly authorized by this or any 25734
other section of the Revised Code, if both of the following apply:25735

       (1) The board member or employee acted in good faith and in a 25736
manner that the board member or employee reasonably believed was 25737
in or was not opposed to the best interests of the board; and25738

       (2) With respect to any criminal action or proceeding, the 25739
board member or employee had no reason to believe the board 25740
member's or employee's conduct was unlawful.25741

       (B) Against any expenses, including attorneys' fees, the 25742
board member or employee actually and reasonably incurs as a 25743
result of a suit or other proceeding involving the defense of any 25744
action or inaction in the capacity of board member or employee or 25745
at the request of the board, or in defense of any claim, issue, or 25746
matter raised in connection with the defense of such an action or 25747
inaction, to the extent that the board member or employee is 25748
successful on the merits or otherwise.25749

       Sec. 340.12.  No board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 25750
health services or any agency, corporation, or association25751
addiction or mental health services provider under contract with 25752
such a board shall discriminate in the provision of services under 25753
its authority, in employment, or contract on the basis of race, 25754
color, creed, sex, creed,national origin, or disability, or 25755
national origin.25756

       Each board,and each community addiction or mental health 25757
agency, and each alcohol and drug addiction programservices 25758
provider shall have a written affirmative action program. The 25759
affirmative action program shall include goals for the employment 25760
and effective utilization of, including contracts with, members of 25761
economically disadvantaged groups as defined in division (E)(1) of 25762
section 122.71 of the Revised Code in percentages reflecting as 25763
nearly as possible the composition of the alcohol, drug addiction, 25764
and mental health service district served by the board. Each 25765
board, agency, and programprovider shall file a description of 25766
the affirmative action program and a progress report on its 25767
implementation with the department of mental health or the 25768
department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health 25769
and addiction services.25770

       Sec. 340.13.  (A) As used in this section, "minority:25771

       (1) "Minority business enterprise" has the same meaning as in 25772
division (E)(1) of section 122.71 of the Revised Code.25773

       (2) "EDGE business enterprise" has the same meaning as in 25774
section 123.152 of the Revised Code.25775

       (B) Any minority business enterprise that desires to bid on a 25776
contract under division (C) or (D) of this section shall first 25777
apply to the equal employment opportunity coordinator in the 25778
department of administrative services for certification as a 25779
minority business enterprise. Any EDGE business enterprise that 25780
desires to bid on a contract under division (D) of this section 25781
shall first apply to the equal employment opportunity coordinator 25782
of the department of administrative services for certification as 25783
an EDGE business enterprise. The coordinator shall approve the 25784
application of any minority business enterprise or EDGE business 25785
enterprise that complies with the rules adopted under section 25786
122.71 or 123.152 of the Revised Code, respectively. The 25787
coordinator shall prepare and maintain a list of minority business 25788
enterprises and EDGE business enterprises certified under this 25789
sectionthose sections.25790

       (C) From the contracts to be awarded for the purchases of 25791
equipment, materials, supplies, or services, other than contracts 25792
entered into under section 340.03 or 340.033 of the Revised Code, 25793
each board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 25794
shall select a number of contracts with an aggregate value of 25795
approximately fifteen per cent of the total estimated value of 25796
contracts to be awarded in the current fiscal year. The board 25797
shall set aside the contracts so selected for bidding by minority 25798
business enterprises only. The bidding procedures for such 25799
contracts shall be the same as for all other contracts awarded 25800
under section 307.86 of the Revised Code, except that only 25801
minority business enterprises certified and listed underpursuant 25802
to division (B) of this section shall be qualified to submit bids.25803

       (D) To the extent that a board is authorized to enter into 25804
contracts for construction, the board shall set aside a number of 25805
contractsstrive to attain a yearly contract dollar procurement 25806
goal the aggregate value of which equals approximately five per 25807
cent of the aggregate value of construction contracts for the 25808
current fiscal year for bidding by minorityEDGE business 25809
enterprises only. The bidding procedures for the contracts set 25810
aside for minority business enterprises shall be the same as for 25811
all other contracts awarded by the board, except that only 25812
minority business enterprises certified and listed under division 25813
(B) of this section shall be qualified to submit bids.25814

       (E)(1) In the case of contracts set aside under divisions25815
division (C) and (D) of this section, if no bid is submitted by a 25816
minority business enterprise, the contract shall be awarded 25817
according to normal bidding procedures. The board shall from time 25818
to time set aside such additional contracts as are necessary to 25819
replace those contracts previously set aside on which no minority 25820
business enterprise bid.25821

       (2) If a board, after having made a good faith effort, is 25822
unable to comply with the goal of procurement for contracting with 25823
EDGE business enterprises pursuant to division (D) of this 25824
section, the board may apply in writing, on a form prescribed by 25825
the department of administrative services, to the director of 25826
mental health and addiction services for a waiver or modification 25827
of the goal.25828

       (F) This section does not preclude any minority business 25829
enterprise or EDGE business enterprise from bidding on any other 25830
contract not specifically set aside for minority business 25831
enterprises or subject to procurement goals for EDGE business 25832
enterprises.25833

       (G) Within ninety days after the beginning of each fiscal 25834
year, each board shall file a report with the department of mental 25835
healthmental health and addiction services that shows for that 25836
fiscal year the name of each minority business enterprise and EDGE 25837
business enterprise with which the board entered into a contract, 25838
the value and type of each such contract, the total value of 25839
contracts awarded under divisions (C) and (D) of this section, the 25840
total value of contracts awarded for the purchases of equipment, 25841
materials, supplies, or services, other than contracts entered 25842
into under section 340.03 of the Revised Code, and the total value 25843
of contracts entered into for construction.25844

       (H) Any person who intentionally misrepresents himselfself25845
as owning, controlling, operating, or participating in a minority 25846
business enterprise or an EDGE business enterprise for the purpose 25847
of obtaining contracts or any other benefits under this section 25848
shall be guilty of theft by deception as provided for in section 25849
2913.02 of the Revised Code.25850

       Sec. 340.15.  (A) A public children services agency that 25851
identifies a child by a risk assessment conducted pursuant to 25852
section 5153.16 of the Revised Code as being at imminent risk of 25853
being abused or neglected because of an addiction of a parent, 25854
guardian, or custodian of the child to a drug of abuse or alcohol 25855
shall refer the child's addicted parent, guardian, or custodian 25856
and, if the agency determines that the child needs alcohol or 25857
other drug addiction services, the child to an alcohol and druga 25858
community addiction programservices provider certified by the 25859
department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health 25860
and addiction services under section 3793.065119.36 of the 25861
Revised Code. A public children services agency that is sent a 25862
court order issued pursuant to division (B) of section 2151.3514 25863
of the Revised Code shall refer the addicted parent or other 25864
caregiver of the child identified in the court order to an alcohol 25865
and druga community addiction programservices provider25866
certified by the department of alcohol and drug addiction services25867
mental health and addiction services under section 3793.065119.3625868
of the Revised Code. On receipt of a referral under this division 25869
and to the extent funding identified under division (A)(1) of 25870
section 340.033340.08 of the Revised Code is available, the 25871
programprovider shall provide the following services to the 25872
addicted parent, guardian, custodian, or caregiver and child in 25873
need of alcohol or other drugaddiction services:25874

       (1) If it is determined pursuant to an initial screening to 25875
be needed, assessment and appropriate treatment; 25876

       (2) Documentation of progress in accordance with a treatment 25877
plan developed for the addicted parent, guardian, custodian, 25878
caregiver, or child;25879

       (3) If the referral is based on a court order issued pursuant 25880
to division (B) of section 2151.3514 of the Revised Code and the 25881
order requires the specified parent or other caregiver of the 25882
child to submit to alcohol or other drug testing during, after, or 25883
both during and after, treatment, testing in accordance with the 25884
court order.25885

       (B) The services described in division (A) of this section 25886
shall have a priority as provided in the alcohol and drug25887
addiction and mental health services plan and budget established 25888
pursuant to section 340.033sections 340.03 and 340.08 of the 25889
Revised Code. Once a referral has been received pursuant to this 25890
section, the public children services agency and the alcohol or 25891
drug addiction programservices provider shall, in accordance with 25892
42 C.F.R. Part 2, share with each other any information concerning 25893
the persons and services described in that division that the 25894
agency and programprovider determine are necessary to share. If 25895
the referral is based on a court order issued pursuant to division 25896
(B) of section 2151.3514 of the Revised Code, the results and 25897
recommendations of the alcohol and drug addiction program25898
services provider also shall be provided and used as described in 25899
division (D) of that section. Information obtained or maintained 25900
by the agency or programprovider pursuant to this section that 25901
could enable the identification of any person described in 25902
division (A) of this section is not a public record subject to 25903
inspection or copying under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.25904

       Sec. 340.16. Not later than ninety days after September 5, 25905
2001, theThe department of mental healthmental health and 25906
addiction services and the department of job and family services25907
medicaid shall adopt rules that establish requirements and 25908
procedures for prior notification and service coordination between 25909
public children services agencies and boards of alcohol, drug 25910
addiction, and mental health services when a public children 25911
services agency refers a child in its custody to a board for 25912
services funded by the board. The rules shall be adopted in 25913
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.25914

       The department of mental health and department of job and 25915
family services shall collaborate in formulating a plan that 25916
delineates the funding responsibilities of public children 25917
services agencies and boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 25918
mental health services for services provided under section 25919
5111.023 of the Revised Code to children in the custody of public 25920
children services agencies. The departments shall complete the 25921
plan not later than ninety days after September 5, 2001.25922

       Sec. 341.192. (A) As used in this section:25923

        (1) "Jail" means a county jail, or a multicounty, 25924
municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal correctional center.25925

       (2) "Medical assistance program" has the same meaning as in 25926
section 2913.40 of the Revised Code.25927

       (3) "Medical provider" means a physician, hospital, 25928
laboratory, pharmacy, or other health care provider that is not 25929
employed by or under contract to a county, municipal corporation, 25930
township, the department of youth services, or the department of 25931
rehabilitation and correction to provide medical services to 25932
persons confined in a jail or state correctional institution, or 25933
is in the custody of a law enforcement officer.25934

       (4)(3) "Necessary care" means medical care of a nonelective 25935
nature that cannot be postponed until after the period of 25936
confinement of a person who is confined in a jail or state 25937
correctional institution, or is in the custody of a law 25938
enforcement officer without endangering the life or health of the 25939
person.25940

        (B) If a physician employed by or under contract to a county, 25941
municipal corporation, township, the department of youth services, 25942
or the department of rehabilitation and correction to provide 25943
medical services to persons confined in a jail or state 25944
correctional institution determines that a person who is confined 25945
in the jail or state correctional institution or who is in the 25946
custody of a law enforcement officer prior to the person's 25947
confinement in a jail or state correctional institution requires 25948
necessary care that the physician cannot provide, the necessary 25949
care shall be provided by a medical provider. The county, 25950
municipal corporation, township, the department of youth services, 25951
or the department of rehabilitation and correction shall pay a 25952
medical provider for necessary care an amount not exceeding the 25953
authorized reimbursement rate for the same service established by 25954
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid under the 25955
medical assistancemedicaid program.25956

       Sec. 349.01.  As used in this chapter:25957

       (A) "New community" means a community or an addition to an 25958
existing community planned pursuant to this chapter so that it 25959
includes facilities for the conduct of industrial, commercial, 25960
residential, cultural, educational, and recreational activities, 25961
and designed in accordance with planning concepts for the 25962
placement of utility, open space, and other supportive facilities.25963

       In the case of a new community authority established within 25964
three years after March 22, 2012, the effective date of H.B. 225 25965
of the 129th general assembly, "new community" may mean a 25966
community or development of property planned under this chapter in 25967
relation to an existing community so that the community includes 25968
facilities for the conduct of community activities, and is 25969
designed in accordance with planning concepts for the placement of 25970
utility, open space, and other supportive facilities for the 25971
community.25972

       (B) "New community development program" means a program for 25973
the development of a new community characterized by well-balanced 25974
and diversified land use patterns and which includes land 25975
acquisition and land development, the acquisition, construction, 25976
operation, and maintenance of community facilities, and the 25977
provision of services authorized in this chapter.25978

       In the case of a new community authority established within 25979
three years after March 22, 2012, the effective date of H.B. 225 25980
of the 129th general assembly, a new community development program 25981
may take into account any existing community in relation to which 25982
a new community is developed for purposes of being characterized 25983
by well-balanced and diversified land use patterns.25984

       (C) "New community district" means the area of land described 25985
by the developer in the petition as set forth in division (A) of 25986
section 349.03 of the Revised Code for development as a new 25987
community and any lands added to the district by amendment of the 25988
resolution establishing the community authority.25989

       (D) "New community authority" means a body corporate and 25990
politic in this state, established pursuant to section 349.03 of 25991
the Revised Code and governed by a board of trustees as provided 25992
in section 349.04 of the Revised Code.25993

       (E) "Developer" means any person, organized for carrying out 25994
a new community development program who owns or controls, through 25995
leases of at least seventy-five years' duration, options, or 25996
contracts to purchase, the land within a new community district, 25997
or any municipal corporation, county, or port authority that owns 25998
the land within a new community district, or has the ability to 25999
acquire such land, either by voluntary acquisition or condemnation 26000
in order to eliminate slum, blighted, and deteriorated or 26001
deteriorating areas and to prevent the recurrence thereof. In the 26002
case of a new community authority established within three years 26003
after March 22, 2012, the effective date of H.B. 225 of the 129th 26004
general assembly, "developer" may mean a person, municipal 26005
corporation, county, or port authority that controls land within a 26006
new community district through leases of at least forty years' 26007
duration.26008

       (F) "Organizational board of commissioners" means, if thethe 26009
following:26010

       (1) For a new community district that is located in only one 26011
county, the board of county commissioners of suchthat county; if26012

       (2) For a new community district that is located in more than 26013
one county, a board consisting of the members of the board of 26014
county commissioners of each of the counties in which the district 26015
is located, provided that action of suchthe board shall require a 26016
majority vote of the members of each separate board of county 26017
commissioners; or, if26018

       (3) For a new community district that is located entirely 26019
within the boundaries of a municipal corporation or for a new 26020
community district where more than half of the new community 26021
district is located within the boundaries of the most populous 26022
municipal corporation of a county, the legislative authority of 26023
the municipal corporation.26024

       (G) "Land acquisition" means the acquisition of real property 26025
and interests in real property as part of a new community 26026
development program.26027

       (H) "Land development" means the process of clearing and 26028
grading land, making, installing, or constructing water 26029
distribution systems, sewers, sewage collection systems, steam, 26030
gas, and electric lines, roads, streets, curbs, gutters, 26031
sidewalks, storm drainage facilities, and other installations or 26032
work, whether within or without the new community district, and 26033
the construction of community facilities.26034

       (I)(1) "Community facilities" means all real property, 26035
buildings, structures, or other facilities, including related 26036
fixtures, equipment, and furnishings, to be owned, operated, 26037
financed, constructed, and maintained under this chapter, 26038
including public, community, village, neighborhood, or town 26039
buildings, centers and plazas, auditoriums, day care centers, 26040
recreation halls, educational facilities, hospital facilities as 26041
defined in section 140.01 of the Revised Code, recreational 26042
facilities, natural resource facilities, including parks and other 26043
open space land, lakes and streams, cultural facilities, community 26044
streets, pathway and bikeway systems, pedestrian underpasses and 26045
overpasses, lighting facilities, design amenities, or other 26046
community facilities, and buildings needed in connection with 26047
water supply or sewage disposal installations or steam, gas, or 26048
electric lines or installation.26049

       (2) In the case of a new community authority established 26050
within three years after March 22, 2012, the effective date of 26051
H.B. 225 of the 129th general assembly, "community facilities" may 26052
mean, in addition to the facilities authorized in division (I)(1) 26053
of this section, any community facilities that are owned, 26054
operated, financed, constructed, or maintained for, relating to, 26055
or in furtherance of community activities, including, but not 26056
limited to, town buildings or other facilities, health care 26057
facilities including, but limited to, hospital facilities, and 26058
off-street parking facilities.26059

       (J) "Cost" as applied to a new community development program 26060
means all costs related to land acquisition and land development, 26061
the acquisition, construction, maintenance, and operation of 26062
community facilities and offices of the community authority, and 26063
of providing furnishings and equipment therefor, financing charges 26064
including interest prior to and during construction and for the 26065
duration of the new community development program, planning 26066
expenses, engineering expenses, administrative expenses including 26067
working capital, and all other expenses necessary and incident to 26068
the carrying forward of the new community development program.26069

       (K) "Income source" means any and all sources of income to 26070
the community authority, including community development charges 26071
of which the new community authority is the beneficiary as 26072
provided in section 349.07 of the Revised Code, rentals, user fees 26073
and other charges received by the new community authority, any 26074
gift or grant received, any moneys received from any funds 26075
invested by or on behalf of the new community authority, and 26076
proceeds from the sale or lease of land and community facilities.26077

       (L) "Community development charge" means:26078

       (1) A dollar amount which shall be determined on the basis of 26079
the assessed valuation of real property or interests in real 26080
property in a new community district sold, leased, or otherwise 26081
conveyed by the developer or the new community authority, the 26082
income of the residents of such property subject to such charge 26083
under section 349.07 of the Revised Code, if such property is 26084
devoted to residential uses or to the profits of any business, a 26085
uniform fee on each parcel of such real property originally sold, 26086
leased, or otherwise conveyed by the developer or new community 26087
authority, or any combination of the foregoing bases.26088

        (2) For a new community authority that is established within 26089
three years after March 22, 2012, the effective date of H.B. 225 26090
of the 129th general assembly, "community development charge" 26091
includes, in addition to the charges authorized in division (L)(1) 26092
of this section, a charge determined on the basis of all or a part 26093
of the income of the residents of real property within the new 26094
community district if such property is devoted to residential uses 26095
or of persons employed within the district, or all or a part of 26096
the profits, gross receipts, or other revenues of any business 26097
operating in the new community district, including, but not 26098
limited to, rentals received from leases of real property located 26099
in the district. If a new community authority imposes a community 26100
development charge determined on the basis of rentals received 26101
from leases of real property, improvements of any such leased real 26102
property located in the new community district and subject to that 26103
charge may not be exempted from taxation under section 5709.40, 26104
5709.41, 5709.73, or 5709.78 of the Revised Code.26105

       (M) "Proximate city" means any city that, as of the date of 26106
filing of the petition under section 349.03 of the Revised Code, 26107
is the city with the greatest population located in the county in 26108
which the proposed new community district is located, is the city 26109
with the greatest population located in an adjoining county if any 26110
portion of such city is within five miles of any part of the 26111
boundaries of such district, or exercises extraterritorial 26112
subdivision authority under section 711.09 of the Revised Code 26113
with respect to any part of such district.26114

       In the case of a new community authority that is established 26115
within three years after March 22, 2012, the effective date of 26116
H.B. 225 of the 129th general assembly, "proximate city" may mean 26117
a municipal corporation in which, at the time of filing the 26118
petition under section 349.03 of the Revised Code, any portion of 26119
the proposed new community district is located, or, if at the time 26120
of that filing more than one-half of the proposed district is 26121
contained within a joint economic development district created 26122
under sections 715.70 to 715.83 of the Revised Code, the township 26123
containing the greatest portion of the territory of the joint 26124
economic development district.26125

       (N) "Community activities" means cultural, educational, 26126
governmental, recreational, residential, industrial, commercial, 26127
distribution and research activities, or any combination thereof 26128
that includes residential activities.26129

       Sec. 349.04.  The following method of selecting a board of 26130
trustees is deemed to be a compelling state interest. Within ten 26131
days after the new community authority has been established, as 26132
provided in section 349.03 of the Revised Code, an initial board 26133
of trustees shall be appointed as follows: the organizational 26134
board of commissioners shall appoint by resolution at least three, 26135
but not more than six, citizen members of the board of trustees to 26136
represent the interests of present and future residents of the new 26137
community district and one member to serve as a representative of 26138
local government, and the developer shall appoint a number of 26139
members equal to the number of citizen members to serve as 26140
representatives of the developer. In the case of a new community 26141
authority established within three years after March 22, 2012, the 26142
citizen members may represent present and future employers within 26143
the new community district and any present or future residents of 26144
the district.26145

       Members shall serve two-year overlapping terms, with two of 26146
each of the initial citizen and developer members appointed to 26147
serve initial one-year terms. The organizational board of 26148
commissioners shall adopt, by further resolution adopted within 26149
one year of such resolution establishing such initial board of 26150
trustees, a method for selection of successor members thereof 26151
which determines the projected total population of the projected 26152
new community and meets the following criteria:26153

       (A) The appointed citizen members shall be replaced by 26154
elected citizen members according to a schedule established by the 26155
organizational board of commissioners calculated to achieve one 26156
such replacement each time the new community district gains a 26157
proportion, having a numerator of one and a denominator of twice 26158
the number of citizen members, of its projected total population 26159
until such time as all of the appointed citizen members are 26160
replaced.26161

       (B) Representatives of the developer shall be replaced by 26162
elected citizen members according to a schedule established by the 26163
organizational board of commissioners calculated to achieve one 26164
such replacement each time the new community district gains a 26165
proportion, having a numerator of one and a denominator equal to 26166
the number of developer members, of its projected total population 26167
until such time as all of the developer's representatives are 26168
replaced.26169

       (C) The representative of local government shall be replaced 26170
by an elected citizen member at the time the new community 26171
district gains three-quarters of its projected total population.26172

       Elected citizen members of the board of trustees shall be 26173
elected by a majority of the residents of the new community 26174
district voting at elections held at the times and in the manner 26175
provided in a resolution of the organizational board of 26176
commissioners. Each citizen member except an appointed citizen 26177
member shall be a qualified elector who resides within the new 26178
community district. In the case of a new community authority for 26179
which a petition is filed within three years after March 22, 2012, 26180
theThe organizational board of commissioners, by resolution, may 26181
adopt an alternative method of selecting or electing successor 26182
members of the board of trustees provided that if an alternative 26183
method of selection is adopted for a new community authority 26184
organized prior to March 22, 2012, the board of trustees of that 26185
authority shall be limited in the collection of a community 26186
development charge, collected pursuant to division (Q) of section 26187
349.06 of the Revised Code, and the issuance of bonds or notes, 26188
issued pursuant to section 349.08 of the Revised Code, to the 26189
amount or to the extent otherwise permitted for a board of 26190
trustees whose members are not elected by residents of the new 26191
community district. If the alternative method provides for the 26192
election of citizen members, the elections may be held at the 26193
times and in the manner provided in the petition or in a 26194
resolution of the organizational board of commissioners, and the 26195
elected citizen members shall be qualified electors who reside in 26196
the new community district.26197

       Citizen members shall not be employees of or have financial 26198
interest in the developer. If a vacancy occurs in the office of a 26199
member other than a member appointed by the developer, the 26200
organizational board of commissioners may appoint a successor 26201
member for the remainder of the unexpired term. Any appointed 26202
member of the board of trustees may at any time be removed by the 26203
organizational board of commissioners for misfeasance, 26204
nonfeasance, or malfeasance in office. Members appointed by the 26205
developer may also at any time be removed by the developer without 26206
a showing of cause.26207

       Each member of the board of trustees, before entering upon 26208
official duties, shall take and subscribe to an oath before an 26209
officer authorized to administer oaths in Ohio that the member 26210
will honestly and faithfully perform the duties of the member's 26211
office. Such oath shall be filed in the office of the clerk of the 26212
board of county commissioners in which the petition was filed. 26213
Upon taking the oath, the board of trustees shall elect one of its 26214
number as chairperson and another as vice-chairperson, and shall 26215
appoint suitable persons as secretary and treasurer who need not 26216
be members of the board. The treasurer shall be the fiscal officer 26217
of the authority. The board shall adopt by-laws governing the 26218
administration of the affairs of the new community authority. Each 26219
member of the board shall post a bond for the faithful performance 26220
of official duties and give surety therefor in such amount, but 26221
not less than ten thousand dollars, as the resolution creating 26222
such board shall prescribe.26223

       All of the powers of the new community authority shall be 26224
exercised by its board of trustees, but without relief of such 26225
responsibility, such powers may be delegated to committees of the 26226
board or its officers and employees in accordance with its 26227
by-laws. A majority of the board shall constitute a quorum, and a 26228
concurrence of a majority of a quorum in any matter within the 26229
board's duties is sufficient for its determination, provided a 26230
quorum is present when such concurrence is had and a majority of 26231
those members constituting such quorum are trustees not appointed 26232
by the developer. All trustees shall be empowered to vote on all 26233
matters within the authority of the board of trustees, and no vote 26234
by a member appointed by the developer shall be construed to give 26235
rise to civil or criminal liability for conflict of interest on 26236
the part of public officials.26237

       Sec. 351.021.  (A) The resolution of the county commissioners 26238
creating a convention facilities authority, or any amendment or 26239
supplement to that resolution, may authorize the authority to levy 26240
one or both of the excise taxes authorized by division (B) of this 26241
section to pay the cost of one or more facilities; to pay 26242
principal, interest, and premium on convention facilities 26243
authority tax anticipation bonds issued to pay those costs; to pay 26244
the operating costs of the authority; to pay operating and 26245
maintenance costs of those facilities; and to pay the costs of 26246
administering the excise tax.26247

       (B) The board of directors of a convention facilities 26248
authority that has been authorized pursuant to resolution adopted, 26249
amended, or supplemented by the board of county commissioners 26250
pursuant to division (A) of this section may levy, by resolution 26251
adopted on or before December 31, 1988, either or both of the 26252
following:26253

       (1) Within the territory of the authority, an additional 26254
excise tax not to exceed four per cent on each transaction. The 26255
excise tax authorized by division (B)(1) of this section shall be 26256
in addition to any excise tax levied pursuant to section 5739.08 26257
or 5739.09 of the Revised Code, or division (B)(2) of this 26258
section.26259

       (2) Within that portion of any municipal corporation that is 26260
located within the territory of the authority or within the 26261
boundaries of any township that is located within the territory of 26262
the authority, which municipal corporation or township is levying 26263
any portion of the excise tax authorized by division (A) of 26264
section 5739.08 of the Revised Code, and with the approval, by 26265
ordinance or resolution, of the legislative authority of that 26266
municipal corporation or township, an additional excise tax not to 26267
exceed nine-tenths of one per cent on each transaction. The excise 26268
tax authorized by division (B)(2) of this section may be levied 26269
only if, on the effective date of the levy specified in the 26270
resolution making the levy, the amount being levied pursuant to 26271
division (A) of section 5739.08 of the Revised Code by each 26272
municipal corporation or township in which the tax authorized by 26273
division (B)(2) of this section will be levied, when added to the 26274
amount levied under division (B)(2) of this section, does not 26275
exceed three per cent on each transaction. The excise tax 26276
authorized by division (B)(2) of this section shall be in addition 26277
to any excise tax that is levied pursuant to section 5739.08 or 26278
5739.09 of the Revised Code, or division (B)(1) of this section.26279

       (C)(1) The board of directors of a convention facilities 26280
authority that is located in an eligible Appalachian county; that 26281
has been authorized pursuant to resolution adopted, amended, or 26282
supplemented by the board of county commissioners pursuant to 26283
division (A) of this section; and that is not levying a tax under 26284
division (B)(1) or (2) of this section may levy within the 26285
territory of the authority, by resolution adopted on or before 26286
December 31, 2005, an additional excise tax not to exceed three 26287
per cent on each transaction. The excise tax authorized under 26288
division (C)(1) of this section shall be in addition to any excise 26289
tax levied pursuant to section 5739.08 or 5739.09 of the Revised 26290
Code.26291

        As used in division (C)(1) of this section, "eligible 26292
Appalachian county" means a county in this state designated as 26293
being in the "Appalachian region" under the "Appalachian Regional 26294
Development Act of 1965," 79 Stat. 4, 40 U.S.C. App. 403, and 26295
having a population less than eighty thousand according to the 26296
most recent federal decennial census.26297

       (2) Division (B)(C)(2) of this section applies only to a 26298
convention facilities authority located in a county with a 26299
population, according to the 2000 federal decennial census, of at 26300
least one hundred thirty-five thousand and not more than one 26301
hundred fifty thousand and containing entirely within its 26302
boundaries the territory of a municipal corporation with a 26303
population according to that census of more than fifty thousand. 26304
The board of directors of such a convention facilities authority, 26305
by resolution adopted on or before November 1, 2009, may levy 26306
within the territory of the authority an excise tax on 26307
transactions by which lodging by a hotel is or is to be furnished 26308
to transient guests at a rate not to exceed three per cent on such 26309
transactions for the same purposes for which a tax may be levied 26310
under division (B) of this section. The resolution may be adopted 26311
only if the board of county commissioners of the county, by 26312
resolution, authorizes the levy of the tax. The resolution of the 26313
board of county commissioners is subject to referendum as 26314
prescribed by sections 305.31 to 305.41 of the Revised Code. If, 26315
pursuant to those procedures, a referendum is to be held, the 26316
board's resolution does not take effect until approved by a 26317
majority of electors voting on the question. The convention 26318
facilities authority may adopt the resolution authorized by 26319
division (C)(2) of this section before the election, but the 26320
authority's resolution shall not take effect if the board of 26321
commissioners' resolution is not approved at the election. A tax 26322
levied under division (C)(2) of this section is in addition to any 26323
tax levied under section 5739.09 of the Revised Code.26324

       (D) The authority shall provide for the administration and 26325
allocation of an excise tax levied pursuant to division (B) or (C) 26326
of this section. All receipts arising from those excise taxes 26327
shall be expended for the purposes provided in, and in accordance 26328
with this section and section 351.141 of the Revised Code. An 26329
excise tax levied under division (B) or (C) of this section shall 26330
remain in effect at the rate at which it is levied for at least 26331
the duration of the period for which the receipts from the tax 26332
have been anticipated and pledged pursuant to section 351.141 of 26333
the Revised Code.26334

       (E) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section, 26335
the levy of an excise tax on each transaction pursuant to sections 26336
5739.08 and 5739.09 of the Revised Code does not prevent a 26337
convention facilities authority from levying an excise tax 26338
pursuant to division (B) or (C) of this section.26339

       (F) A convention facilities authority located in a county 26340
with a population greater than eighty thousand but less than 26341
ninety thousand according to the 2010 federal decennial census 26342
that levies a tax under division (B) of this section may amend the 26343
resolution levying the tax to allocate a portion of the revenue 26344
from the tax for support of tourism-related sites or facilities 26345
and programs operated by the county or a municipal corporation 26346
within the county in which the authority is located or for the 26347
purpose of leasing lands for county fairs, erecting buildings for 26348
county fair purposes, making improvements on a county fairground, 26349
or for any purpose connected with the use of a county fairground 26350
or with the management thereof by the county in which the 26351
authority is located. The revenue allocated by the authority for 26352
such purposes in a calendar year shall not exceed fifteen per cent 26353
of the total revenue from the tax in the preceding calendar year.26354

       Sec. 353.01.  For purposes of this chapter:26355

       (A) "Lake facilities authority" means a body corporate and 26356
politic created pursuant to section 353.02 of the Revised Code.26357

       (B) "Watershed" means a watershed as determined by the United 26358
States geological survey.26359

       (C) "Impacted watershed" means a watershed meeting both of 26360
the following conditions:26361

       (1) The watershed contains a natural or man-made lake of at 26362
least one-half square mile that has experienced levels of 26363
microcystin toxins in excess of eighty parts-per-billion, as 26364
measured by the Ohio environmental protection agency, during the 26365
twenty-four month period immediately preceding the date the last 26366
resolution necessary for the creation of a lake facilities 26367
authority under section 353.02 of the Revised Code was adopted.26368

       (2) The watershed is partially or completely located within a 26369
state park, as defined in section 154.01 of the Revised Code, that 26370
has averaged at least four hundred thousand visitors per year for 26371
the four calendar years preceding the calendar year in which the 26372
last resolution necessary for the creation of a lake facilities 26373
authority under section 353.02 of the Revised Code was adopted.26374

       (D) "Impacted lake district" means the territory of all 26375
townships and municipal corporations having territory in an 26376
impacted watershed.26377

       (E) "Cost" as applied to a lake facilities authority facility 26378
means the cost of acquisition or construction of the facility; the 26379
cost of acquisition of all land, rights-of-way, property rights, 26380
easements, franchise rights, and interests required for such 26381
acquisition; the cost of demolishing or removing any buildings or 26382
structures on land so acquired, including the cost of acquiring 26383
any lands to which such buildings or structures may be moved; the 26384
cost of acquiring or constructing and equipping a principal office 26385
of the lake facilities authority; the cost of diverting highways, 26386
interchange of highways, and access roads to private property, 26387
including the cost of land or easements for the access roads, the 26388
cost of public utility and common carrier relocation or 26389
duplication, the cost of all machinery, furnishings, and 26390
equipment, financing charges, interest prior to and during any 26391
construction and for no more than eighteen months after completion 26392
of any construction; engineering; expenses of research and 26393
development with respect to an impacted lake district; legal 26394
expenses; expenses of developing or obtaining plans, 26395
specifications, engineering surveys, studies, and estimates of 26396
cost and revenues; expenses necessary or incident to determining 26397
the feasibility or practicability of acquiring or constructing the 26398
facility or remediating the impacted lake district; administrative 26399
expense; and such other expenses as may be necessary or incident 26400
to the acquisition or construction of the facility, the 26401
remediation of the impacted lake district and other activities 26402
authorized by this chapter, the financing of such acquisition, 26403
construction or remediation, including the amount authorized in 26404
the resolution of the lake facilities authority providing for the 26405
issuance of lake facilities authority revenue bonds to be paid 26406
into any special funds from the proceeds of such bonds and the 26407
financing of the placing of the facility in operation, the cost of 26408
issuing the bonds, and the financing of remediation and other 26409
purposes authorized by this chapter.26410

       (F) "Revenues" means all rentals and other charges received 26411
by the lake facilities authority with respect to an impacted 26412
watershed; any gift or grant received with respect to any impacted 26413
watershed; money received in repayment of, and for interest on, 26414
any loans made by the authority to a person or governmental 26415
agency, whether from the United States or any department, 26416
administration, or agency thereof, or otherwise; proceeds of lake 26417
facilities authority revenue bonds to the extent the use thereof 26418
for payment of principal or of premium, if any, or interest on the 26419
bonds is authorized by the authority; proceeds from any insurance, 26420
appropriation, or guaranty pertaining to an impacted watershed or 26421
property mortgaged to secure bonds or pertaining to the financing 26422
of any activities authorized under this chapter; income and profit 26423
from the investment of the proceeds of lake facilities authority 26424
revenue bonds or of any revenues; and contributions of service 26425
payments in lieu of taxes generated pursuant to section 5709.40, 26426
5709.41, 5709.73, or 5709.78 of the Revised Code, and all other 26427
nontax revenues paid or payable to the lake facilities authority.26428

       (G) "Lake facilities revenue bonds," unless the context 26429
indicates a different meaning or intent, includes revenue notes, 26430
revenue renewal notes, and revenue refunding bonds.26431

       (H) "Authorized purpose" means activities that remediate, 26432
rehabilitate, enhance, foster, aid, improve, provide, or promote 26433
an impacted watershed within the jurisdiction of the lake 26434
facilities authority, including, without limitation, research and 26435
development efforts related thereto.26436

       (I) "Lake facilities authority facility" or "facility" means 26437
real or personal property, or any combination thereof owned, 26438
leased, or otherwise controlled or financed by a lake facilities 26439
authority and directly related to an authorized purpose.26440

       Sec. 353.02.  A lake facilities authority may be created by 26441
the board of county commissioners of a county that contains all of 26442
the territory of an impacted watershed. If the territory of an 26443
impacted watershed is contained within more than one county, a 26444
joint facilities lake authority may be created by resolution of 26445
the board of commissioners of each county in which the impacted 26446
watershed is located. A resolution creating a lake facilities 26447
authority must include a finding that the watershed sought to be 26448
improved or remediated pursuant to this chapter is an impacted 26449
watershed.26450

       A lake facilities authority created pursuant to this section 26451
is a body corporate and politic which may sue and be sued, plead 26452
and be impleaded, and has the powers and jurisdiction enumerated 26453
in this chapter. The exercise by an authority of the powers 26454
conferred upon it shall be deemed to be essential governmental 26455
functions of this state.26456

       Within sixty days after the creation of a lake facilities 26457
authority, the county engineer of each county with territory in 26458
the impacted watershed shall prepare a survey denoting the 26459
boundaries of the impacted watershed in the county. The survey 26460
shall include references to the county auditor's permanent parcel 26461
number designations as those parcel number designations correspond 26462
to the boundaries of the impacted watershed. If requested by the 26463
county engineer of each county with territory in the impacted 26464
watershed, the cost of such surveys shall be paid from the funds 26465
of the lake facilities authority pursuant to an agreement between 26466
the lake facilities authority and the county engineer of each 26467
county. Such funds may be advanced by the board of county 26468
commissioners of any county with territory in the impacted 26469
watershed. 26470

       The county auditor of the county with the greatest amount of 26471
territory in the impacted watershed shall be the fiscal officer 26472
for the lake facilities authority. The county prosecutor of the 26473
county with the greatest amount of territory in the impacted 26474
watershed shall be the legal advisor of the lake facilities 26475
authority and shall prosecute and defend all suits and actions 26476
that the lake facilities authority directs or to which it is a 26477
party. 26478

       Upon the creation of a lake facilities authority, no 26479
authority that is granted by law any powers or duties that are 26480
substantially the same as the powers and duties of a lake 26481
facilities authority may be created if its territorial 26482
jurisdiction includes any territory within the impacted lake 26483
district.26484

       Sec. 353.03.  A lake facilities authority may do all of the 26485
following:26486

       (A) Acquire by purchase, lease, gift, or otherwise, on such 26487
terms and in such manner as it considers proper, real and personal 26488
property necessary for an authorized purpose or any estate, 26489
interest, or right therein, within or without the impacted lake 26490
district;26491

       (B) Improve, remediate, maintain, sell, lease, or otherwise 26492
dispose of real and personal property on such terms and in such 26493
manner as it considers proper;26494

       (C) Request that the department of natural resources, the 26495
environmental protection agency, or the department of agriculture 26496
adopt, modify, and enforce reasonable rules and regulations 26497
governing impacted watersheds;26498

       (D) Employ such managers, administrative officers, agents, 26499
engineers, architects, attorneys, contractors, subcontractors, and 26500
employees as may be appropriate in the exercise of the rights, 26501
powers, and duties conferred on it, prescribe the duties and 26502
compensation for such persons, require bonds to be given by any 26503
such persons and by officers of the authority for the faithful 26504
performance of their duties, and fix the amount and surety 26505
therefor, and pay the surety;26506

       (E) Sue and be sued in its corporate name;26507

       (F)(1) Make and enter into all contracts and agreements and 26508
execute all instruments relating to the provisions of this 26509
chapter;26510

       (2) Except as provided otherwise under divisions (F)(2) and 26511
(3) of this section, when the cost of a contract for the 26512
construction of any building, structure, or other improvement 26513
undertaken by a lake facilities authority involves an expenditure 26514
exceeding twenty-five thousand dollars, and the lake facilities 26515
authority is the contracting authority, the lake facilities 26516
authority shall make a written contract after notice calling for 26517
bids for the award of the contract has been given by publication 26518
twice, with at least seven days between publications, in a 26519
newspaper of general circulation in the impacted lake district. 26520
Each such contract shall be awarded to the lowest responsive and 26521
responsible bidder in accordance with section 9.312 of the Revised 26522
Code. The board of directors by rule may provide criteria for the 26523
negotiation and award without competitive bidding of any contract 26524
as to which the lake facilities authority is the contracting 26525
authority for the construction of any building or structure or 26526
other improvement under any of the following circumstances:26527

       (a) There exists a real and present emergency that threatens 26528
damage to property or injury to persons of the lake facilities 26529
authority or other persons, provided that a statement specifying 26530
the nature of the emergency that is the basis for the negotiation 26531
and award of a contract without competitive bidding shall be 26532
signed at the time of the contract's execution by the officer of 26533
the lake facilities authority that executes the contract and shall 26534
be attached to the contract.26535

       (b) A commonly recognized industry or other standard or 26536
specification does not exist and cannot objectively be articulated 26537
for the improvement.26538

       (c) The contract is for any energy conservation measure as 26539
defined in section 307.041 of the Revised Code.26540

       (d) With respect to material to be incorporated into the 26541
improvement, only a single source or supplier exists for the 26542
material.26543

       (e) A single bid is received by the lake facilities authority 26544
after complying with the above provisions.26545

       (3) In addition to the exceptions to competitive bidding 26546
requirements under division (F)(2) of this section, a lake 26547
facilities authority may contract for the acquisition or 26548
construction of any property for an authorized purpose and for the 26549
leasing, subleasing, sale, or other disposition of the property in 26550
a manner determined by the lake facilities authority in its sole 26551
discretion, without necessity for competitive bidding or 26552
performance bonds. 26553

       (4) With respect to any public improvement undertaken by, or 26554
under contract for, the lake facilities authority, the authority 26555
may elect to apply sections 4115.03 to 4115.21 of the Revised 26556
Code.26557

       (G) Accept aid or contributions from any source of money, 26558
property, labor, or other things of value, to be held, used, and 26559
applied only for the purposes for which the grants and 26560
contributions are made;26561

       (H) Apply for and accept grants, loans, or commitments of 26562
guarantee or insurance, including any guarantees of lake 26563
facilities authority bonds and notes, from the United States, the 26564
state, or other public body or other sources, and provide any 26565
consideration which may be required in order to obtain such 26566
grants, loans, or contracts of guarantee or insurance; 26567

       (I) Procure insurance against loss to the lake facilities 26568
authority by reason of damage to its properties resulting from 26569
fire, theft, accident, or other casualties, or by reason of its 26570
liability for any damages to persons or property occurring in the 26571
construction or operation of facilities or areas under its 26572
jurisdiction or the conduct of its activities;26573

       (J) Maintain such funds or reserves as it considers necessary 26574
for the efficient performance of its duties;26575

       (K) Enforce any covenants, of which the lake facilities 26576
authority is the beneficiary, running with the land.26577

       (L) Issue securities for the remediation of an impacted 26578
watershed and directly related permanent improvements in 26579
compliance with Chapter 133. of the Revised Code, except that such 26580
bonds or notes may be issued only pursuant to a vote of the 26581
electors residing within the impacted lake district. The net 26582
indebtedness incurred by a lake facilities authority pursuant to 26583
this division may not exceed one-tenth of one per cent of the 26584
total value of all property within the territory comprising the 26585
impacted lake district as listed and assessed for taxation.26586

       (M) Issue lake facilities authority revenue bonds beyond the 26587
limit of bonded indebtedness provided by law, payable solely from 26588
revenues as provided in section 353.09 of the Revised Code for the 26589
purpose of providing funds to pay costs of any facility or 26590
facilities or parts thereof;26591

       (N) Advise and provide input to political subdivisions within 26592
the impacted lake district with respect to zoning and land use 26593
planning within the impacted lake district;26594

       (O) Enter into agreements for the management, ownership, 26595
possession, or control of lands or property to be used for wetland 26596
mitigation banking;26597

       (P) Adopt and modify rules and regulations to carry out the 26598
authority granted to the lake facilities authority under this 26599
section.26600

       Sec. 353.04.  (A) Upon the creation of a lake facilities 26601
authority under section 353.02 of the Revised Code, a board of 26602
directors consisting of the county commissioners of each county 26603
with territory in the impacted lake district shall be created. 26604
Membership on the board is not a direct or indirect interest in a 26605
contract or expenditure of money by the county. Notwithstanding 26606
any provision of law to the contrary, no member of the board shall 26607
be disqualified from holding any public office or employment by 26608
reason of membership on the board. The board is a public body for 26609
the purposes of section 121.22 of the Revised Code and a public 26610
office for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code. 26611
Notwithstanding those sections, the board may hold closed meetings 26612
and protect the confidentiality of information under the same 26613
circumstances as authorized for a community improvement 26614
corporation under section 1724.11 of the Revised Code. Chapter 26615
2744. of the Revised Code applies to the board. Each year, the 26616
board shall prepare an annual report of its activities and make it 26617
available to the public.26618

       (B) A board of directors shall consult with the advisory 26619
council created under this division in performing the remediation 26620
and other activities authorized by this chapter. 26621

       Not later than sixty days after the creation of the board of 26622
directors, the board shall provide written notice of its creation 26623
to the legislative authority of each political subdivision with 26624
territory in the impacted lake district. The notice shall describe 26625
the process for the appointment of an advisory council. Upon 26626
receipt of such notice, the legislative authority of each 26627
political subdivision with territory in the impacted lake district 26628
shall appoint one representative each to serve on the advisory 26629
council. The representative need not be an elected or appointed 26630
official of the political subdivision. 26631

       Sec. 353.05. The board of directors of a lake facilities 26632
authority, by resolution, may propose the levy of a tax upon the 26633
taxable property in the impacted lake district pursuant to section 26634
5705.55 of the Revised Code.26635

       Sec. 353.06. As used in this section, "hotel" and "transient 26636
guests" have the same meanings as in section 5739.01 of the 26637
Revised Code.26638

        A resolution creating a lake facilities authority under 26639
section 353.02 of the Revised Code, or any amendments or 26640
supplements thereto, may authorize the authority to levy an excise 26641
tax on transactions by which lodging in a hotel is or is to be 26642
furnished to transient guests to pay any costs authorized under 26643
this chapter; to pay principal, interest, and premium on lake 26644
facilities authority tax anticipation bonds issued to pay those 26645
costs; to pay the operating costs of the authority; and to pay the 26646
costs of administering the tax.26647

       Upon the affirmative vote of at least a majority of the 26648
qualified electors in a primary or general election within the 26649
impacted lake district voting at an election held for the purpose 26650
of authorizing the tax, the board of directors of a lake 26651
facilities authority authorized to levy a tax under this section 26652
may, by resolution, levy an additional excise tax within the 26653
territory of the impacted lake district on all transactions by 26654
which lodging in a hotel is or is to be furnished to transient 26655
guests. The rate of the tax, when added to the aggregate rate of 26656
excise taxes levied in the impacted lake district pursuant to 26657
section 351.021, 5739.08, or 5739.09 of the Revised Code, shall 26658
not cause the total aggregate rate to exceed five per cent on any 26659
such transaction.26660

       The lake facilities authority shall provide for the 26661
administration and allocation of a tax levied pursuant to this 26662
section. All receipts arising from the tax shall be expended for 26663
the purposes provided in, and in accordance with, this section. An 26664
excise tax levied under this section shall remain in effect at the 26665
rate at which it is levied for at least the duration of the period 26666
for which the receipts from the tax have been anticipated and 26667
pledged pursuant to section 353.08 of the Revised Code.26668

       The form of the ballot in an election held on the question of 26669
levying a tax proposed pursuant to this section shall be as 26670
follows or in any other form acceptable to the secretary of state:26671

       "An excise tax on all transactions by which lodging in a 26672
hotel is or is to be furnished to transient guests within the 26673
territory of the (name of impacted lake district) ........... for 26674
the purpose of .......... at a rate of ......... for ............ 26675
(number of years the tax is to be levied).26676

        26677

 For the Excise Tax 26678
 Against the Excise Tax  " 26679

       Sec. 353.07. The director of natural resources may transfer 26680
real property owned by the state to a lake facilities authority 26681
for the purpose of promoting wetland banking, wildlife, or 26682
sporting activities. The division of wildlife within the 26683
department of natural resources may enter into an agreement with a 26684
lake facilities authority to establish wetland or natural areas to 26685
benefit wildlife or sporting activities. The agreement may be 26686
entered as part of, or in conjunction with, a mitigation banking 26687
program.26688

       Sec. 353.08.  A lake facilities authority that levies a tax 26689
authorized by sections 353.05 and 5705.55 or section 353.06 of the 26690
Revised Code may, by resolution, anticipate the proceeds of the 26691
tax and issue lake facilities authority anticipation bonds, and 26692
notes anticipating the proceeds or the bonds, in the principal 26693
amount that, in the opinion of the authority, are necessary for 26694
the purpose of paying the cost of an authorized purpose, and that 26695
the authority is able to pay over the term of the issue with the 26696
interest on the bonds or notes, or in the case of notes 26697
anticipating bonds over the term of the bonds, by the estimated 26698
amount of the taxes anticipated. The taxes are determined by the 26699
general assembly to satisfy any applicable requirement of Section 26700
11 of Article XII, Ohio Constitution.26701

       Every issue of outstanding anticipation bonds shall be 26702
payable out of the proceeds of the taxes anticipated and other 26703
revenues of the authority that are pledged for such payment. The 26704
pledge shall be valid and binding from the time the pledge is 26705
made, and the anticipated excise taxes and revenues so pledged and 26706
thereafter received by the authority immediately shall be subject 26707
to the lien of that pledge without any physical delivery of those 26708
taxes and revenues or further act. The lien of any pledge is valid 26709
and binding as against all parties having claims of any kind in 26710
tort, contract, or otherwise against the authority, whether or not 26711
such parties have notice of the lien. Neither the resolution nor 26712
any trust agreement by which a pledge is created need be filed or 26713
recorded except in the authority's records.26714

       The anticipation bonds shall bear such date or dates, and 26715
shall mature at such time or times, in the case of any such notes 26716
or any renewals of such notes not exceeding twenty years from the 26717
date of issue of such original notes and in the case of any such 26718
bonds or any refunding bonds not exceeding forty years from the 26719
date of the original issue of notes or bonds for the purpose, and 26720
shall be executed in the manner that the resolution authorizing 26721
the bonds may provide. The anticipation bonds shall bear interest 26722
at such rates, or at a variable rate or rates changing from time 26723
to time, in accordance with provisions provided in the authorizing 26724
resolution, be in such denominations and form, either coupon or 26725
registered, carry such registration privileges, be payable in such 26726
medium of payment and at such place or places, and be subject to 26727
such terms of redemption, as the authority may authorize or 26728
provide.26729

       Sec. 353.09.  A lake facilities authority at any time may 26730
issue lake facilities authority revenue bonds in such principal 26731
amounts as, in the opinion of the lake facilities authority, are 26732
necessary for the purpose of paying the cost of one or more lake 26733
facilities authority facilities or parts thereof. A lake 26734
facilities authority at any time may issue renewal notes, issue 26735
bonds to retire its notes and, whenever it considers refunding 26736
expedient, refund any bonds by the issuance of lake facilities 26737
authority revenue refunding bonds, whether the bonds to be 26738
refunded have or have not matured, and issue lake facilities 26739
authority revenue bonds partly to refund outstanding bonds and 26740
partly for any other authorized purpose. The lake facilities 26741
authority revenue refunding bonds shall be sold and the proceeds 26742
applied to the purchase, redemption, or payment of the bonds to be 26743
refunded. Lake facilities authority revenue bonds shall be special 26744
obligations of the lake facilities authority payable out of the 26745
revenues of the lake facilities authority that are pledged for 26746
such payment. The pledge shall be valid and binding from the time 26747
the pledge is made and the revenues so pledged and thereafter 26748
received by the lake facilities authority immediately shall be 26749
subject to the lien of the pledge without any physical delivery 26750
thereof or further act, and the lien of the pledge is valid and 26751
binding as against all parties having claims of any kind in tort, 26752
contract, or otherwise against the lake facilities authority, 26753
irrespective of whether those parties have notice thereof. Neither 26754
the resolution nor any trust agreement by which a pledge is 26755
created need be filed or recorded except in the records of the 26756
lake facilities authority.26757

       Whether or not the lake facilities authority revenue bonds 26758
are of such form and character as to be negotiable instruments, 26759
the lake facilities authority revenue bonds shall have all the 26760
qualities and incidents of negotiable instruments, subject only to 26761
the provisions of the bonds for registration.26762

       The lake facilities authority revenue bonds shall be 26763
authorized by resolution of the lake facilities authority, and 26764
shall bear interest at such rate or rates, shall bear such date or 26765
dates, and shall mature at such time or times, and in such number 26766
of installments as may be provided in or pursuant to that 26767
resolution. The final maturity of any lake facilities authority 26768
revenue bond in the form of a note and any renewals thereof shall 26769
not exceed five years from the date of issue of the original note. 26770
The final maturity of any issue of lake facilities authority 26771
revenue bonds shall not be later than forty-five years from the 26772
date of issue of the original issue of bonds. Any such bonds or 26773
notes shall be executed in a manner as the resolution or 26774
resolutions may provide. The lake facilities authority revenue 26775
bonds shall be in such denominations, be in such form, either 26776
coupon or registered, carry such registration privileges, be 26777
payable in such medium of payment, at such place or places, and be 26778
subject to such terms of redemption as may be provided in or 26779
pursuant to the resolution authorizing their issuance. Lake 26780
facilities authority revenue bonds of the lake facilities 26781
authority may be sold by the lake facilities authority, at public 26782
or private sale, at or at not less than a price or prices as the 26783
lake facilities authority determines. In case any officer whose 26784
signature or a facsimile of whose signature appears on any bonds, 26785
notes, or coupons, ceases to be such officer before delivery of 26786
bonds or notes, the signature or facsimile shall nevertheless be 26787
sufficient for all purposes the same as if the officer had 26788
remained in office until such delivery, and in case the seal of 26789
the lake facilities authority has been changed after a facsimile 26790
has been imprinted on such bonds or notes, the facsimile seal will 26791
continue to be sufficient for all purposes.26792

       Any resolution or resolutions authorizing any lake facilities 26793
authority revenue bonds or any issue of bonds may contain 26794
provisions, subject to any agreements with bondholders as may then 26795
exist, which provisions shall be a part of the contract with the 26796
holders of bonds, as to the pledging of all or any part of the 26797
revenues of the lake facilities authority to secure the payment of 26798
the lake facilities authority bonds or of any issue of the bonds; 26799
the use and disposition of revenues of the lake facilities 26800
authority; a covenant to fix, alter, and collect rentals and other 26801
charges so that pledged revenues will be sufficient to pay costs 26802
of operation, maintenance, and repairs, pay principal of and 26803
interest on bonds secured by the pledge of such revenues, and 26804
provide any reserves that may be required by the applicable 26805
resolution or trust agreement; the setting aside of reserve funds, 26806
sinking funds, or replacement and improvement funds and the 26807
regulation and disposition thereof; the crediting of the proceeds 26808
of the sale of bonds to and among the funds referred to or 26809
provided for in or pursuant to the resolution authorizing the 26810
issuance of the bonds or notes; the use, lease, sale, or other 26811
disposition of any lake facilities authority facility or any other 26812
assets of the lake facilities authority; limitations on the 26813
purpose to which the proceeds of sale of bonds may be applied and 26814
the pledging of those proceeds to secure the payment of the bonds 26815
or of any issue of the bonds; as to notes issued in anticipation 26816
of the issuance of bonds, the agreement of the lake facilities 26817
authority to do all things necessary for the authorization, 26818
issuance, and sale of the bonds in amounts that may be necessary 26819
for the timely retirement of the notes; limitations on the 26820
issuance of additional bonds; the terms upon which additional 26821
bonds may be issued and secured; the refunding of outstanding 26822
bonds; the procedure, if any, by which the terms of any contract 26823
with bondholders may be amended or abrogated, the amount of bonds 26824
the holders of which must consent thereto, and the manner in which 26825
such consent may be given; limitations on the amount of moneys to 26826
be expended by the lake facilities authority for operating, 26827
administrative, or other expenses of the lake facilities 26828
authority; securing any bonds or notes by a trust agreement; and 26829
any other matters, of like or different character, that in any way 26830
affect the security or protection of the bonds or notes.26831

       Neither the board of directors of the lake facilities 26832
authority nor any person executing the bonds shall be liable 26833
personally on the bonds or be subject to any personal liability or 26834
accountability by reason of the issuance thereof.26835

       The issuance of lake facilities authority revenue bonds under 26836
this section need not comply with any other law applicable to the 26837
issuance of bonds or notes.26838

       Sec. 353.10.  (A) With respect to facilities, and their 26839
financing, for an authorized purpose, under agreements whereby the 26840
person to whom the facility is to be leased, subleased, or sold, 26841
or to whom a loan is to be made for the facility, is to make 26842
payments sufficient to pay all of the principal of, premium, if 26843
any, and interest on the lake facilities authority revenue bonds 26844
issued for the facility, the lake facilities authority, in 26845
addition to other powers under this chapter, may do any of the 26846
following:26847

       (1) Make loans for the acquisition or construction of the 26848
facility to such person upon such terms as the lake facilities 26849
authority may determine or authorize including secured or 26850
unsecured loans, and, in connection therewith, enter into loan 26851
agreements and other agreements, accept notes and other forms of 26852
obligation to evidence such indebtedness and mortgages, liens, 26853
pledges, assignments, or other security interests to secure such 26854
indebtedness, which may be prior or subordinate to or on a parity 26855
with other indebtedness, obligations, mortgages, pledges, 26856
assignments, other security interests, or liens or encumbrances, 26857
and take actions it considers appropriate to protect such security 26858
and safeguard against losses, including, without limitation, 26859
foreclosure and the bidding upon and purchase of property upon 26860
foreclosure or other sale;26861

       (2) Sell the facility under such terms as it may determine, 26862
including, without limitation, sale by conditional sale or 26863
installment sale, under which title may pass prior to or after 26864
completion of the facility or payment or provisions for payment of 26865
all principal of, premium, if any, and interest on the bonds, or 26866
at any other time provided in the agreement pertaining to the 26867
sale, and including sale under an option to purchase at a price 26868
which may be a nominal amount or less than true value at the time 26869
of purchase;26870

       (3) Grant a mortgage, lien, or other encumbrance on, or 26871
pledge or assignment of, or other security interest with respect 26872
to, all or any part of the facility, revenues, reserve funds, or 26873
other funds established in connection with the bonds, or on, of, 26874
or with respect to any lease, sublease, sale, conditional sale or 26875
installment sale agreement, loan agreement, or other agreement 26876
pertaining to the lease, sublease, sale, or other disposition of a 26877
facility or pertaining to a loan made for a facility, or any 26878
guaranty or insurance agreement made with respect thereto, or any 26879
interest of the lake facilities authority therein, or any other 26880
interest granted, assigned, or released to secure payments of the 26881
principal of, premium, if any, or interest on the bonds or to 26882
secure any other payments to be made by the lake facilities 26883
authority, which mortgage, lien, encumbrance, pledge, assignment, 26884
or other security interest may be prior or subordinate to or on a 26885
parity with any other mortgage, assignment, or other security 26886
interest, or lien or encumbrance;26887

       (4) Provide that the interest on the bonds may be at a 26888
variable rate or rates changing from time to time in accordance 26889
with a base or formula as authorized by the lake facilities 26890
authority;26891

       (5) Contract for the acquisition or construction of the 26892
facility or any part thereof and for the leasing, subleasing, 26893
sale, or other disposition of the facility in a manner determined 26894
by the lake facilities authority in its sole discretion, without 26895
necessity for competitive bidding or performance bonds;26896

       (6) Make appropriate provision for adequate maintenance of 26897
the facility.26898

       (B) With respect to the facilities referred to in this 26899
section, the authority granted by this section is cumulative and 26900
supplementary to all other authority granted in this chapter. The 26901
authority granted by this section does not alter or impair any 26902
similar authority granted elsewhere in this chapter for or with 26903
respect to other facilities.26904

       Sec. 353.11.  In the discretion of the lake facilities 26905
authority, any lake facilities authority revenue bonds issued 26906
under this chapter may be secured by a trust agreement between the 26907
lake facilities authority and a corporate trustee that may be any 26908
trust company or bank having the powers of a trust company within 26909
or without the state.26910

       The trust agreement may pledge or assign revenues of the lake 26911
facilities authority to be received and may convey or mortgage any 26912
facility or any part thereof. The trust agreement or any 26913
resolution providing for the issuance of such bonds may contain 26914
any provisions for protecting and enforcing the rights and 26915
remedies of the bondholders as are reasonable and proper and not 26916
in violation of law, including covenants setting forth the duties 26917
of the lake facilities authority in relation to the acquisition of 26918
property, the construction, improvement, maintenance, repair, 26919
operation, and insurance of the facility in connection with which 26920
the bonds are authorized, the rentals or other charges to be 26921
imposed for the use or services of any facility, the custody, 26922
safeguarding, and application of all moneys, and provisions for 26923
the employment of consulting engineers in connection with the 26924
construction or operation of the facility.26925

        Any bank or trust company incorporated under the laws of this 26926
state that may act as depository of the proceeds of bonds or of 26927
revenues may furnish any indemnifying bonds or may pledge any 26928
securities that are required by the lake facilities authority. The 26929
trust agreement may set forth the rights and remedies of the 26930
bondholders and of the trustee, and may restrict the individual 26931
right of action by bondholders as is customary in trust agreements 26932
or trust indentures securing similar bonds. The trust agreement 26933
may contain any other provisions that the lake facilities 26934
authority determines reasonable and proper for the security of the 26935
bondholders. All expenses incurred in carrying out the provisions 26936
of the trust agreement may be treated as a part of the cost of the 26937
operation of the facility.26938

       Sec. 353.12.  Any holder of lake facilities authority revenue 26939
bonds issued under sections 353.09 to 353.15 of the Revised Code, 26940
or any of the coupons pertaining to those bonds, and the trustee 26941
under any trust agreement, except to the extent the rights given 26942
by those sections may be restricted by the applicable resolution 26943
or that trust agreement, may by suit, action, mandamus, or other 26944
proceedings, protect and enforce any rights under the laws of the 26945
state or granted under those sections, the trust agreement, or the 26946
resolution authorizing the issuance of the bonds, and may enforce 26947
and compel the performance of all duties required by those 26948
sections, or by the trust agreement or resolution, to be performed 26949
by the lake facilities authority or any officer of the lake 26950
facilities authority, including the fixing, charging, and 26951
collecting of rentals or other charges.26952

       Sec. 353.13.  Lake facilities authority revenue bonds issued 26953
under sections 353.09 to 353.15 of the Revised Code do not 26954
constitute a debt, or a pledge of the faith and credit, of the 26955
state or any political subdivision of the state. The holders or 26956
owners of the bonds have no right to have taxes levied by the 26957
general assembly or taxing authority of any political subdivision 26958
of the state for the payment of the principal of or interest on 26959
the bonds. The bonds are payable solely from the revenues and 26960
funds pledged for their payment as authorized by this chapter, 26961
unless the revenue bonds are notes issued in anticipation of the 26962
issuance of the bonds, or the revenue bonds are refunded by 26963
refunding bonds issued under section 353.09 of the Revised Code, 26964
provided that the refunding bonds shall be payable solely from 26965
revenues and funds pledged for their payment as authorized by that 26966
section. All bonds shall contain on the face thereof a statement 26967
to the effect that the bonds, as to both principal and interest, 26968
are not debts of the state or any political subdivision of the 26969
state, but are payable solely from revenues and funds pledged for 26970
their payment.26971

       Sec. 353.14.  All moneys, funds, properties, and assets 26972
acquired by the lake facilities authority under this chapter, 26973
whether as proceeds from the sale of lake facilities authority 26974
revenue bonds or as revenues, or otherwise, shall be held by it in 26975
trust for the purposes of carrying out its powers and duties, 26976
shall be used and reused as provided in this chapter, and shall at 26977
no time be part of other public funds. Such funds, except as 26978
otherwise provided in any resolution authorizing its lake 26979
facilities authority revenue bonds or in any trust agreement 26980
securing those bonds, or except when invested pursuant to section 26981
353.15 of the Revised Code, shall be kept in depositories selected 26982
by the lake facilities authority in the manner provided in Chapter 26983
135. of the Revised Code for the selection of eligible public 26984
depositories, and the deposits shall be secured as provided in 26985
that chapter. The resolution authorizing the issuance of such 26986
bonds or the trust agreement securing the bonds shall provide that 26987
any officer to whom, or any bank or trust company to which, such 26988
money is paid shall act as trustee of the money and hold and apply 26989
the money for the purposes for which the bonds are issued, subject 26990
to such conditions as Chapter 135. of the Revised Code and such 26991
resolutions or trust agreement provide.26992

       Sec. 353.15.  Except as otherwise provided in any resolution 26993
authorizing the issuance of its lake facilities authority revenue 26994
bonds or in any trust agreement securing the bonds, moneys in the 26995
funds of the lake facilities authority in excess of current needs 26996
may be invested as permitted by sections 135.01 to 135.21 of the 26997
Revised Code or invested in linked deposit programs established by 26998
resolution of the board of directors in accordance with section 26999
135.80 of the Revised Code. Income from all investments of moneys 27000
in any fund shall be credited to funds as the lake facilities 27001
authority determines, subject to the provisions of any such 27002
resolution or trust agreement, and the investments may be sold at 27003
any time the lake facilities authority determines.27004

       Sec. 353.16.  Bonds of a lake facilities authority and lake 27005
facilities authority revenue bonds are lawful investments of 27006
banks, societies for savings, trust companies, savings and loan 27007
associations, deposit guaranty associations, trustees, 27008
fiduciaries, trustees or other officers having charge of the bond 27009
retirement funds or sinking funds of port authorities and 27010
political subdivisions, and taxing districts of this state, the 27011
commissioners of the sinking fund of this state, the administrator 27012
of workers' compensation, the state teachers retirement system, 27013
the school employees retirement system, the public employees 27014
retirement system, the Ohio police and fire pension fund, and 27015
insurance companies, including domestic life insurance companies 27016
and domestic insurance companies other than life, and are 27017
acceptable as security for the deposit of public moneys.27018

       Sec. 511.261.  If a township park district enters into an 27019
agreement for the sale or lease of mineral rights regarding a park 27020
within the district, any royalties or other moneys resulting from 27021
the sale or lease shall be deposited into a special fund that the 27022
board of park commissioners shall establish under division (F) of 27023
section 5705.09 of the Revised Code. The fund shall be used 27024
exclusively for maintenance of parks within the district and for 27025
the acquisition of new park lands.27026

       Sec. 517.271.  Notwithstanding section 517.22 of the Revised 27027
Code, the company, association, or religious society that most 27028
recently owned and operated a cemetery currently owned by a board 27029
of township trustees may petition the probate court of the county 27030
in which the cemetery is located to transfer the ownership of the 27031
cemetery to the petitioner.27032

       If the court determines that the petitioner has met all of 27033
the following conditions, the court shall transfer the ownership 27034
of the cemetery to the petitioner and shall order the board to 27035
give the petitioner all necessary records and documents concerning 27036
the cemetery, including records of the board's sale of any lots 27037
pursuant to section 517.07 of the Revised Code:27038

       (A) The petitioner has the financial resources necessary to 27039
operate and maintain the cemetery;27040

       (B) The petitioner is in compliance with all applicable laws 27041
and administrative rules concerning the owners and operators of 27042
cemeteries, including registration under section 4767.02 of the 27043
Revised Code; and27044

       (C) The petitioner owes no delinquent taxes.27045

       Sec. 715.691.  (A) As used in this section:27046

       (1) "Contracting party" means a municipal corporation that 27047
has entered into a joint economic development zone contract or any 27048
party succeeding to the municipal corporation, or a township that 27049
entered into a joint economic development zone contract with a 27050
municipal corporation.27051

       (2) "Zone" means a joint economic development zone designated 27052
under this section.27053

       (B) This section provides alternative procedures and 27054
requirements for creating and operating a joint economic 27055
development zone to those set forth in section 715.69 of the 27056
Revised Code. This section applies only if one of the contracting 27057
parties to the zone does not levy a municipal income tax under 27058
Chapter 718. of the Revised Code. A municipal corporation that 27059
does not levy a municipal income tax may enter into an agreement 27060
to create and operate a joint economic development zone under this 27061
section or under section 715.69 of the Revised Code.27062

       Two or more municipal corporations or one or more townships 27063
and one or more municipal corporations may enter into a contract 27064
whereby they agree to share in the costs of improvements for an 27065
area or areas located in one or more of the contracting parties 27066
that they designate as a joint economic development zone for the 27067
purpose of facilitating new or expanded growth for commercial or 27068
economic development in the state. The contract and zone shall 27069
meet the requirements of divisions (B) to (J) of this section.27070

       (C) The contract shall set forth each contracting party's 27071
contribution to the joint economic development zone. The 27072
contributions may be in any form that the contracting parties 27073
agree to, and may include, but are not limited to, the provision 27074
of services, money, or equipment. The contract may be amended, 27075
renewed, or terminated with the consent of the contracting 27076
parties. The contract shall continue in existence throughout the 27077
term it specifies and shall be binding on the contracting parties 27078
and on any entities succeeding to the contracting parties.27079

       (D) Before the legislative authority of any of the 27080
contracting parties enacts an ordinance or resolution approving a 27081
contract to designate a joint economic development zone, the 27082
legislative authority of each of the contracting parties shall 27083
hold a public hearing concerning the contract and zone. Each 27084
legislative authority shall provide at least thirty days' public 27085
notice of the time and place of the public hearing in a newspaper 27086
of general circulation in the municipal corporation or township. 27087
During the thirty-day period prior to the public hearing, all of 27088
the following documents shall be available for public inspection 27089
in the office of the clerk of the legislative authority of a 27090
municipal corporation that is a contracting party and in the 27091
office of the fiscal officer of a township that is a contracting 27092
party:27093

       (1) A copy of the contract designating the zone;27094

       (2) A description of the area or areas to be included in the 27095
zone, including a map in sufficient detail to denote the specific 27096
boundaries of the area or areas;27097

       (3) An economic development plan for the zone that includes a 27098
schedule for the provision of any new, expanded, or additional 27099
services, facilities, or improvements.27100

       A public hearing held under division (D) of this section 27101
shall allow for public comment and recommendations on the contract 27102
and zone. The contracting parties may include in the contract any 27103
of those recommendations prior to approval of the contract.27104

       (E) After the public hearings required under division (D) of 27105
this section have been held, each contracting party may enact an 27106
ordinance or resolution approving the contract to designate a 27107
joint economic development zone. After each contracting party has 27108
enacted an ordinance or resolution, the clerk of the legislative 27109
authority of a municipal corporation that is a contracting party 27110
and the fiscal officer of a township that is a contracting party 27111
shall file with the board of elections of each county within which 27112
a contracting party is located a copy of the ordinance or 27113
resolution approving the contract and shall direct the board of 27114
elections to submit the ordinance or resolution to the electors of 27115
the contracting party on the day of the next general, primary, or 27116
special election occurring at least ninety days after the 27117
ordinance or resolution is filed with the board of elections. If 27118
any of the contracting parties is a township, however, then only 27119
the township or townships shall submit the resolution to the 27120
electors.27121

       (F)(1) If a vote is required to approve a municipal 27122
corporation as a contracting party to a joint economic development 27123
zone under this section, the ballot shall be in the following 27124
form:27125

       "Shall the ordinance of the legislative authority of the 27126
(city or village) of (name of contracting party) approving the 27127
contract with (name of each other contracting party) for the 27128
designation of a joint economic development zone be approved?27129

        27130

 FOR THE ORDINANCE AND CONTRACT 27131
 AGAINST THE ORDINANCE AND CONTRACT  " 27132

        27133

       (2) If a vote is required to approve a township as a 27134
contracting party to a joint economic development zone under this 27135
section, the ballot shall be in the following form:27136

       "Shall the resolution of the board of township trustees of 27137
the township of (name of contracting party) approving the contract 27138
with (name of each other contracting party) for the designation of 27139
a joint economic development zone be approved?27140

        27141

 FOR THE RESOLUTION AND CONTRACT 27142
 AGAINST THE RESOLUTION AND CONTRACT  " 27143

        27144

       If a majority of the electors of each contracting party 27145
voting on the issue vote for the ordinance or resolution and 27146
contract, the ordinance or resolution shall become effective 27147
immediately and the contract shall go into effect immediately or 27148
in accordance with its terms.27149

       (G)(1) A board of directors shall govern each joint economic 27150
development zone created under section 715.691 of the Revised 27151
Code. The members of the board shall be appointed as provided in 27152
the contract. Each of the contracting parties shall appoint three 27153
members to the board. Terms for each member shall be for two 27154
years, each term ending on the same day of the month of the year 27155
as did the term that it succeeds. A member may be reappointed to 27156
the board.27157

       (2) Membership on the board is not the holding of a public 27158
office or employment within the meaning of any section of the 27159
Revised Code or any charter provision prohibiting the holding of 27160
other public office or employment. Membership on the board is not 27161
a direct or indirect interest in a contract or expenditure of 27162
money by a municipal corporation, township, county, or other 27163
political subdivision with which a member may be affiliated. 27164
Notwithstanding any provision of law or a charter to the contrary, 27165
no member of the board shall forfeit or be disqualified from 27166
holding any public office or employment by reason of membership on 27167
the board.27168

       (3) The board is a public body for the purposes of section 27169
121.22 of the Revised Code. Chapter 2744. of the Revised Code 27170
applies to the board and the zone.27171

       (H) The contract may grant to the board of directors 27172
appointed under division (G) of this section the power to adopt a 27173
resolution to levy an income tax within the zone. The income tax 27174
shall be used for the purposes of the zone and for the purposes of 27175
the contracting municipal corporationsparties pursuant to the 27176
contract. The income tax may be levied in the zone based on income 27177
earned by persons working within the zone and on the net profits 27178
of businesses located in the zone. The income tax is subject to 27179
Chapter 718. of the Revised Code, except that a vote shall be 27180
required by the electors residing in the zone to approve the rate 27181
of income tax unless a majority of the electors residing within 27182
the zone, as determined by the total number of votes cast in the 27183
zone for the office of governor at the most recent general 27184
election for that office, submit a petition to the board 27185
requesting that the election provided for in division (H)(1) of 27186
this section not be held. If no electors reside within the zone, 27187
then division (H)(3) of this section applies. The rate of the 27188
income tax shall be no higher than the highest rate being levied 27189
by a municipal corporation that is a party to the contract.27190

       (1) The board of directors may levy an income tax at a rate 27191
that is not higher than the highest rate being levied by a 27192
municipal corporation that is a party to the contract, provided 27193
that the rate of the income tax is first submitted to and approved 27194
by the electors of the zone at the succeeding regular or primary 27195
election, or a special election called by the board, occurring 27196
subsequent to ninety days after a certified copy of the resolution 27197
levying the income tax and calling for the election is filed with 27198
the board of elections. If the voters approve the levy of the 27199
income tax, the income tax shall be in force for the full period 27200
of the contract establishing the zone. No election shall be held 27201
under this section if a majority of the electors residing within 27202
the zone, determined as specified in division (H) of this section, 27203
submit a petition to that effect to the board of directors. Any 27204
increase in the rate of an income tax by the board of directors 27205
shall be approved by a vote of the electors of the zone and shall 27206
be in force for the remaining period of the contract establishing 27207
the zone.27208

       (2) Whenever a zone is located in the territory of more than 27209
one contracting party, a majority vote of the electors in each of 27210
the several portions of the territory of the contracting parties 27211
constituting the zone approving the levy of the tax is required 27212
before it may be imposed under division (H) of this section.27213

       (3) If no electors reside in the zone, no election for the 27214
approval or rejection of an income tax shall be held under this 27215
section, provided that where no electors reside in the zone, the 27216
rate of the income tax shall be no higher than the highest rate 27217
being levied by a municipal corporation that is a party to the 27218
contract.27219

       (4) The board of directors of a zone levying an income tax 27220
shall enter into an agreement with one of the municipal 27221
corporations that is a party to the contract to administer, 27222
collect, and enforce the income tax on behalf of the zone.27223

       (5) The board of directors of a zone shall publish or post 27224
public notice within the zone of any resolution adopted levying an 27225
income tax in the same manner required of municipal corporations 27226
under sections 731.21 and 731.25 of the Revised Code.27227

       (I)(1) If for any reason a contracting party reverts to or 27228
has its boundaries changed so that it is classified as a township 27229
that is the entity succeeding to that contracting party, the 27230
township is considered to be a municipal corporation for the 27231
purposes of the contract for the full period of the contract 27232
establishing the joint economic development zone, except that if 27233
that contracting party is administering, collecting, and enforcing 27234
the income tax on behalf of the district as provided in division 27235
(H)(4) of this section, the contract shall be amended to allow one 27236
of the other contracting parties to administer, collect, and 27237
enforce that tax.27238

       (2) Notwithstanding any other section of the Revised Code, if 27239
there is any change in the boundaries of a township so that a 27240
municipal corporation once located within the township is no 27241
longer so located, the township shall remain in existence even 27242
though its remaining unincorporated area contains less than 27243
twenty-two square miles, if the township has been or becomes a 27244
party to a contract creating a joint economic development zone 27245
under this section or the contract creating that joint economic 27246
development zone under this section is terminated or repudiated 27247
for any reason by any party or person. The township shall continue 27248
its existing status in all respects, including having the same 27249
form of government and the same elected board of trustees as its 27250
governing body. The township shall continue to receive all of its 27251
tax levies and sources of income as a township in accordance with 27252
any section of the Revised Code, whether the levies and sources of 27253
income generate millage within the ten-mill limitation or in 27254
excess of the ten-mill limitation. The name of the township may be 27255
changed to the name of the contracting party appearing in the 27256
contract creating a joint economic development zone under this 27257
section, so long as the name does not conflict with any other name 27258
in the state that has been certified by the secretary of state. 27259
The township shall have all of the powers set out in sections 27260
715.79, 715.80, and 715.81 of the Revised Code.27261

       (J) If, after creating and operating a joint economic 27262
development zone under this section, a contracting party that did 27263
not levy a municipal income tax under Chapter 718. of the Revised 27264
Code levies such a tax, the tax shall not apply to the zone for 27265
the full period of the contract establishing the zone, if the 27266
board of directors of the zone has levied an income tax as 27267
provided in division (H) of this section.27268

       Sec. 721.01.  Municipal corporations have special power to 27269
sell or lease real estate or to sell personal property belonging 27270
to the municipal corporation, when such real estate or personal 27271
property is not needed for any municipal purpose. Such power shall 27272
be exercised in the manner provided by sections 721.01 to 721.26, 27273
inclusive, of the Revised Codethis chapter.27274

       Sec. 721.03.  No contract, except as provided in section 27275
721.28 of the Revised Code, for the sale or lease of real estate 27276
belonging to a municipal corporation shall be made unless 27277
authorized by an ordinance, approved by a two-thirds vote of the 27278
members of the legislative authority of such municipal 27279
corporation, and by the board or officer having supervision or 27280
management of such real estate. When the contract is so 27281
authorized, it shall be made in writing by such board or officer, 27282
and, except as provided in section 721.27 or 721.29 of the Revised 27283
Code, only with the highest bidder, after advertisement once a 27284
week for five consecutive weeks in a newspaper of general 27285
circulation within the municipal corporation or as provided in 27286
section 7.16 of the Revised Code. Such board or officer may reject 27287
any bids and readvertise until all such real estate is sold or 27288
leased.27289

       Sec. 721.29. The legislative authority of a city may sell to 27290
a board of county commissioners real estate belonging to the city 27291
that is no longer needed for city purposes upon such lawful terms 27292
as are agreed upon between the city and the board of county 27293
commissioners, without competitive bidding as required by section 27294
721.03 of the Revised Code. No such sale shall be made unless the 27295
contract for the sale is authorized by ordinance, approved by a 27296
two-thirds vote of the members of the legislative authority of the 27297
city, and by the board or officer having supervision or management 27298
of the real estate.27299

       Sec. 731.091. (A) The legislative authority of a village may, 27300
by the adoption of an ordinance or resolution to eliminate 27301
staggered terms of office, determine that all members of the 27302
legislative authority shall be elected at the same municipal 27303
election as provided for in this section.27304

       (B) At the regular municipal election occurring not less than 27305
ninety days after the certification of the ordinance or resolution 27306
to the board of elections eliminating staggered terms of office, 27307
the following apply:27308

        (1) If there are six members of the legislative authority, 27309
threethe number of members eligible for election at that regular 27310
municipal election shall be elected at the next regular municipal 27311
election forto two-year nonstaggered terms, and all members of 27312
the legislative authority shall be elected to four-year 27313
nonstaggered terms at all following municipal elections.27314

        (2) If there are five members of the legislative authority, 27315
threea number of members that is one less than the number of 27316
members that would otherwise be eligible for election at that 27317
regular municipal election but for the first-time implementation 27318
of the new membership of five, or, in the case of a village that 27319
has previously reduced its number of members to five, then the 27320
number of members eligible for election at that regular municipal 27321
election shall be elected at the next municipal election forto27322
two-year nonstaggered terms, and all members shall be elected to 27323
four-year nonstaggered terms at all following municipal elections.27324

       Sec. 737.41.  (A) The legislative authority of a municipal 27325
corporation in which is established a municipal court, other than 27326
a county-operated municipal court, that has a department of 27327
probation shall establish in the municipal treasury a municipal 27328
probation services fund. The fund shall contain all moneys paid to 27329
the treasurer of the municipal corporation under section 2951.021 27330
of the Revised Code for deposit into the fund. The treasurer of 27331
the municipal corporation shall disburse the money contained in 27332
the fund at the request of the municipal court department of 27333
probation, for use only by that department for specialized staff, 27334
purchase of equipment, purchase of services, reconciliation 27335
programs for offenders and victims, other treatment programs, 27336
including alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programsservices 27337
providers certified under section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised 27338
Code, determined to be appropriate by the chief probation officer, 27339
and other similar expenses related to placing offenders under a 27340
community control sanction.27341

       (B) Any money in a municipal probation services fund at the 27342
end of a fiscal year shall not revert to the treasury of the 27343
municipal corporation but shall be retained in the fund.27344

       (C) As used in this section:27345

       (1) "County-operated municipal court" has the same meaning as 27346
in section 1901.03 of the Revised Code.27347

       (2) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 27348
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.27349

       Sec. 742.14.  (A) The board of trustees of the Ohio police 27350
and fire pension fund shall have prepared triennially by or under 27351
the supervision of an actuary an actuarial valuation of the 27352
pension assets, liabilities, and funding requirements of the Ohio 27353
police and fire pension fund as established pursuant to sections 27354
742.01 to 742.61 of the Revised Code. The actuary shall complete 27355
the valuation in accordance with actuarial standards of practice 27356
promulgated by the actuarial standards board of the American 27357
academy of actuaries and prepare a report of the valuation. The 27358
report shall include all of the following:27359

       (1) A summary of the benefit provisions evaluated;27360

       (2) A summary of the census data and financial information 27361
used in the valuation;27362

       (3) A description of the actuarial assumptions, actuarial 27363
cost method, and asset valuation method used in the valuation, 27364
including a statement of the assumed rate of payroll growth and 27365
assumed rate of growth or decline in the number of members of the 27366
fund contributing to the pension fund;27367

       (4) A summary of findings that includes a statement of the 27368
actuarial accrued pension liabilities and unfunded actuarial 27369
accrued pension liabilities;27370

       (5) A schedule showing the effect of any changes in the 27371
benefit provisions, actuarial assumptions, or cost methods since 27372
the last triennial actuarial valuation;27373

       (6) A statement of whether employee and employer 27374
contributions to the pension fund are expected to be sufficient to 27375
satisfy the funding objectives established by the board.27376

       The first triennial report shall be made not later than 27377
November 1, 2013, to the Ohio retirement study council, the 27378
director of budget and management, and the standing committees of 27379
the house of representatives and the senate with primary 27380
responsibility for retirement legislation immediately upon its 27381
availability and thereafter triennially, not later than the first 27382
day of November.27383

       (B) At such times as the board determines, and at least once 27384
in each quinquennial period, the board shall have prepared by or 27385
under the supervision of an actuary an actuarial investigation of 27386
the mortality, service, and other experience of the members of the 27387
fund and of other system retirants, as defined in section 742.26 27388
of the Revised Code, who are members of a police department or a 27389
fire department to update the actuarial assumptions used in the 27390
actuarial valuation required by division (A) of this section. The 27391
actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial investigation. The 27392
report shall be prepared and any recommended changes in actuarial 27393
assumptions shall be made in accordance with the actuarial 27394
standards of practice promulgated by the actuarial standards board 27395
of the American academy of actuaries. The report shall include all 27396
of the following:27397

       (1) A summary of relevant decrement and economic assumption 27398
experience observed over the period of the investigation;27399

       (2) Recommended changes in actuarial assumptions to be used 27400
in subsequent actuarial valuations required by division (A) of 27401
this section;27402

       (3) A measurement of the financial effect of the recommended 27403
changes in actuarial assumptions;27404

       (4) If the investigation required by this division includes 27405
the investigation required by division (E) of this section, a 27406
report of the result of that investigation.27407

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 27408
study council and the standing committees of the house of 27409
representatives and the senate with primary responsibility for 27410
retirement legislation not later than the first day of November 27411
following the last fiscal year of the period the report covers.27412

       (C) The board shall have prepared by or under the supervision 27413
of an actuary an actuarial analysis of any introduced legislation 27414
expected to have a measurable financial impact on the pension 27415
fund. The actuarial analysis shall be completed in accordance with 27416
the actuarial standards of practice promulgated by the actuarial 27417
standards board of the American academy of actuaries. The actuary 27418
shall prepare a report of the actuarial analysis, which shall 27419
include all of the following:27420

       (1) A summary of the statutory changes that are being 27421
evaluated;27422

       (2) A description of or reference to the actuarial 27423
assumptions and actuarial cost method used in the report;27424

       (3) A description of the participant group or groups included 27425
in the report;27426

       (4) A statement of the financial impact of the legislation, 27427
including the resulting increase, if any, in the employer normal 27428
cost percentage; the increase, if any, in actuarial accrued 27429
liabilities; and the per cent of payroll that would be required to 27430
amortize the increase in actuarial accrued liabilities as a level 27431
per cent of covered payroll for all active members of the fund 27432
over a period not to exceed thirty years;27433

       (5) A statement of whether the scheduled contributions to the 27434
system after the proposed change is enacted are expected to be 27435
sufficient to satisfy the funding objectives established by the 27436
board.27437

       Not later than sixty days from the date of introduction of 27438
the legislation, the board shall submit a copy of the actuarial 27439
analysis to the legislative service commission, the standing 27440
committees of the house of representatives and the senate with 27441
primary responsibility for retirement legislation, and the Ohio 27442
retirement study council.27443

       (D) The board shall have prepared triennially a report giving 27444
a full accounting of the revenues and costs relating to the 27445
provision of benefits under section 742.45 of the Revised Code. 27446
The first triennial report shall be made as of December 31, 2013, 27447
and the thirty-first day of December triennially thereafter. The 27448
report shall include the following:27449

       (1) A description of the statutory authority for the benefits 27450
provided;27451

       (2) A summary of the benefits;27452

       (3) A summary of the eligibility requirements for the 27453
benefits;27454

       (4) A statement of the number of participants eligible for 27455
the benefits;27456

       (5) A description of the accounting, asset valuation, and 27457
funding method used to provide the benefits;27458

       (6) A statement of the net assets available for the provision 27459
of the benefits as of the last day of the fiscal year;27460

       (7) A statement of any changes in the net assets available 27461
for the provision of benefits, including participant and employer 27462
contributions, net investment income, administrative expenses, and 27463
benefits provided to participants, as of the last day of the 27464
fiscal year;27465

       (8) For the last six consecutive fiscal years, a schedule of 27466
the net assets available for the benefits, the annual cost of 27467
benefits, administrative expenses incurred, and annual employer 27468
contributions allocated for the provision of benefits;27469

       (9) A description of any significant changes that affect the 27470
comparability of the report required under this division;27471

       (10) A statement of the amount paid under division (B) of 27472
section 742.45 of the Revised Code.27473

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 27474
study council, the director of budget and management, and the 27475
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 27476
with primary responsibility for retirement legislation immediately 27477
upon its availability and not later than the thirtieth day of June 27478
following the year for which the report was made.27479

       (E) At least once in each quinquennial period, the board 27480
shall have prepared by or under the supervision of an actuary an 27481
actuarial investigation of the deferred retirement option plan 27482
established under section 742.43 of the Revised Code. The 27483
investigation shall include an examination of the financial 27484
impact, if any, on the fund of offering the plan to members.27485

       The actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial 27486
investigation. The report shall include a determination of whether 27487
the plan, as established or modified, has a negative financial 27488
impact on the fund and, if so, recommendations on how to modify 27489
the plan to eliminate the negative financial impact. If the 27490
actuarial report indicates that the plan has a negative financial 27491
impact on the fund, the board may modify the plan or cease to 27492
allow members who have not already done so to elect to participate 27493
in the plan. The firefighter and police officers employers' 27494
contributions shall not be increased to offset any negative 27495
financial impact of the plan.27496

       If the board ceases to allow members to elect to participate 27497
in the plan, the rights and obligations of members who have 27498
already elected to participate shall not be altered.27499

       The board may include the actuarial investigation required 27500
under this division as part of the actuarial investigation 27501
required under division (B) of this section. If the report of the 27502
actuarial investigation required by this division is not included 27503
in the report required by division (B) of this section, the board 27504
shall submit the report required by this division to the Ohio 27505
retirement study council and the standing committees of the house 27506
of representatives and the senate with primary responsibility for 27507
retirement legislation not later than the first day of November 27508
following the last fiscal year of the period the report covers.27509

       Sec. 755.06. (A) The board of park commissioners shall have 27510
the expenditures of all moneys appropriated by the legislative 27511
authority of the city or received from any other source for the 27512
purchase, acquisition, improvement, maintenance, equipment, or 27513
enjoyment of all property mentioned in section 755.05 of the 27514
Revised Code, but no liability shall be incurred or expenditure 27515
made unless the money required therefor is in the treasury to the 27516
credit of the park fund and not appropriated for any other 27517
purpose.27518

       (B) Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, if the 27519
legislative authority of a municipal corporation enters into an 27520
agreement for the sale or lease of mineral rights regarding lands 27521
that the board of park commissioners manages or controls, any 27522
royalties or other moneys resulting from the sale or lease shall 27523
be deposited into a special fund that the legislative authority 27524
shall establish under division (F) of section 5705.09 of the 27525
Revised Code. The board of park commissioners shall use the fund 27526
exclusively for maintenance of lands that the board manages or 27527
controls and for the acquisition of new park lands.27528

       Sec. 901.21.  (A) As used in this section and section 901.22 27529
of the Revised Code:27530

       (1) "Agricultural easement" has the same meaning as in 27531
section 5301.67 of the Revised Code.27532

       (2) "Agriculture" means those activities occurring on land 27533
devoted exclusively to agricultural use, as defined in section 27534
5713.30 of the Revised Code, or on land that constitutes a 27535
homestead.27536

       (3) "Homestead" means the portion of a farm on which is 27537
located a dwelling house, yard, or outbuildings such as a barn or 27538
garage.27539

       (B) The director of agriculture may acquire real property 27540
used predominantly in agriculture and agricultural easements by 27541
gift, devise, or bequest if, at the time an easement is granted, 27542
such an easement is on land that is valued for purposes of real 27543
property taxation at its current value for agricultural use under 27544
section 5713.31 of the Revised Code or that constitutes a 27545
homestead. Any terms may be included in an agricultural easement 27546
so acquired that are necessary or appropriate to preserve on 27547
behalf of the grantor of the easement the favorable tax 27548
consequences of the gift, devise, or bequest under the "Internal 27549
Revenue Act of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1, as amended. 27550
The director, by any such means or by purchase or lease, may 27551
acquire, or acquire the use of, stationary personal property or 27552
equipment that is located on land acquired in fee by the director 27553
under this section and that is necessary or appropriate for the 27554
use of the land predominantly in agriculture.27555

       (C) The director may include, in an agricultural easement 27556
acquired under division (B) of this section, a provision to 27557
preserve a unique natural or physical feature on the land so long 27558
as the use of the land remains predominantly agricultural.27559

       (D) The director may do all things necessary or appropriate 27560
to retain the use of real property acquired in fee under division 27561
(B) of this section predominantly in agriculture, including, 27562
without limitation, performing any of the activities described in 27563
division (A)(1) or (2) of section 5713.30 of the Revised Code or 27564
entering into contracts to lease or rent the real property so 27565
acquired to persons or governmental entities that will use the 27566
land predominantly in agriculture.27567

       (D)(E)(1) When the director considers it to be necessary or 27568
appropriate, the director may sell real property acquired in fee, 27569
and stationary personal property or equipment acquired by gift, 27570
devise, bequest, or purchase, under division (B) of this section 27571
on such terms as the director considers to be advantageous to this 27572
state.27573

       (2) An agricultural easement acquired under division (B) of 27574
this section may be extinguished under the circumstances 27575
prescribed, and in accordance with the terms and conditions set 27576
forth, in the instrument conveying the agricultural easement.27577

       (E)(F) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 27578
agricultural easement purchase fund. The fund shall consist of the 27579
proceeds received from the sale of real and personal property 27580
under division (D)(E) of this section; moneys received due to the 27581
extinguishment of agricultural easements acquired by the director 27582
under division (B) of this section or section 5301.691 of the 27583
Revised Code; moneys received due to the extinguishment of 27584
agricultural easements purchased with the assistance of matching 27585
grants made under section 901.22 of the Revised Code; gifts, 27586
bequests, devises, and contributions received by the director for 27587
the purpose of acquiring agricultural easements; and grants 27588
received from public or private sources for the purpose of 27589
purchasing agricultural easements. The fund shall be administered 27590
by the director, and moneys in the fund shall be used by the 27591
director exclusively to purchase agricultural easements under 27592
division (A) of section 5301.691 of the Revised Code and provide 27593
matching grants under section 901.22 of the Revised Code to 27594
municipal corporations, counties, townships, soil and water 27595
conservation districts established under Chapter 1515. of the 27596
Revised Code, and charitable organizations described in division 27597
(B) of section 5301.69 of the Revised Code for the purchase of 27598
agricultural easements. Money in the fund shall be used only to 27599
purchase agricultural easements on land that is valued for 27600
purposes of real property taxation at its current value for 27601
agricultural use under section 5713.31 of the Revised Code or that 27602
constitutes a homestead when the easement is purchased.27603

       (F)(G) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 27604
clean Ohio agricultural easement fund. Twelve and one-half per 27605
cent of net proceeds of obligations issued and sold pursuant to 27606
sections 151.01 and 151.09 of the Revised Code shall be deposited 27607
into the fund. The fund shall be used by the director for the 27608
purposes of this section, section 901.22 of the Revised Code, and 27609
the provisions of sections 5301.67 to 5301.70 of the Revised Code 27610
governing agricultural easements. Investment earnings of the fund 27611
shall be credited to the fund and may be used to pay costs 27612
incurred by the director in administering those sections and 27613
provisions.27614

       (G)(H) The term of an agricultural easement purchased wholly 27615
or in part with money from the clean Ohio agricultural easement 27616
fund or the agricultural easement purchase fund shall be perpetual 27617
and shall run with the land.27618

       Sec. 901.22.  (A) The director of agriculture, in accordance 27619
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules that do 27620
all of the following:27621

       (1) Establish procedures and eligibility criteria for making 27622
matching grants to municipal corporations, counties, townships, 27623
soil and water conservation districts established under Chapter 27624
1515. of the Revised Code, and charitable organizations described 27625
in division (B) of section 5301.69 of the Revised Code for the 27626
purchase of agricultural easements. With respect to agricultural 27627
easements that are purchased or proposed to be purchased with such 27628
matching grants that consist in whole or in part of moneys from 27629
the clean Ohio agricultural easement fund created in section 27630
901.21 of the Revised Code, the rules shall establish all of the 27631
following:27632

       (a) Procedures for all of the following:27633

       (i) Soliciting and accepting applications for matching 27634
grants;27635

       (ii) Participation by local governments and by the public in 27636
the process of making matching grants to charitable organizations;27637

       (iii) Notifying local governments, charitable organizations, 27638
and organizations that represent the interests of farmers of the 27639
ranking system established in rules adopted under division 27640
(A)(1)(b) of this section.27641

       (b) A ranking system for applications for the matching grants 27642
that is based on the soil type, proximity of the land or other 27643
land that is conducive to agriculture as defined by rules adopted 27644
under this section and that is the subject of an application to 27645
other agricultural land or other land that is conducive to 27646
agriculture as defined by rules adopted under this section and 27647
that is already or is in the process of becoming permanently 27648
protected from development, farm stewardship, development 27649
pressure, and, if applicable, a local comprehensive land use plan 27650
involved with a proposed agricultural easement. The rules shall 27651
require that preference be given to proposed agricultural 27652
easements that involve the greatest proportion of all of the 27653
following:27654

       (i) Prime soils, unique or locally important soils, 27655
microclimates, or similar features;27656

       (ii) Land that is adjacent to or that is in close proximity 27657
to other agricultural land or other land that is conducive to 27658
agriculture as defined by rules adopted under this section and 27659
that is already or is in the process of becoming permanently 27660
protected from development, by agricultural easement or otherwise, 27661
so that a buffer would exist between the land involving the 27662
proposed agricultural easement and areas that have been developed 27663
or likely will be developed for purposes other than agriculture;27664

       (iii) The use of best management practices, including 27665
federally or state approved conservation plans, and a history of 27666
substantial compliance with applicable federal and state laws;27667

       (iv) Development pressure that is imminent, but not a result 27668
of current location in the direct path of urban development;27669

       (v) Areas identified for agricultural protection in local 27670
comprehensive land use plans.27671

       (c) Any other criteria that the director determines are 27672
necessary for selecting applications for matching grants;27673

       (d) Requirements regarding the information that must be 27674
included in the annual monitoring report that must be prepared for 27675
an agricultural easement under division (E)(2) of section 5301.691 27676
of the Revised Code, procedures for submitting a copy of the 27677
report to the office of farmland preservation in the department of 27678
agriculture, and requirements and procedures governing corrective 27679
actions that may be necessary to enforce the terms of the 27680
agricultural easement.27681

       (2) Establish provisions that shall be included in the 27682
instrument conveying to a municipal corporation, county, township, 27683
soil and water conservation district, or charitable organization 27684
any agricultural easement purchased with matching grant funds 27685
provided by the director under this section, including, without 27686
limitation, all of the following provisions:27687

       (a) A provision stating that an easement so purchased may be 27688
extinguished only if an unexpected change in the conditions of or 27689
surrounding the land that is subject to the easement makes 27690
impossible or impractical the continued use of the land for the 27691
purposes described in the easement, or if the requirements of the 27692
easement are extinguished by judicial proceedings;27693

       (b) A provision requiring that, upon the sale, exchange, or 27694
involuntary conversion of the land subject to the easement, the 27695
holder of the easement shall be paid an amount of money that is at 27696
least equal to the proportionate value of the easement compared to 27697
the total value of the land at the time the easement was acquired;27698

       (c) A provision requiring that, upon receipt of the portion 27699
of the proceeds of a sale, exchange, or involuntary conversion 27700
described in division (A)(2)(b) of this section, the municipal 27701
corporation, county, township, soil and water conservation 27702
district, or charitable organization remit to the director an 27703
amount of money equal to the percentage of the cost of purchasing 27704
the easement it received as a matching grant under this section.27705

       Moneys received by the director pursuant to rules adopted 27706
under division (A)(2)(c) of this section shall be credited to the 27707
agricultural easement purchase fund created in section 901.21 of 27708
the Revised Code.27709

       (3) Establish a provision that provides a charitable 27710
organization, municipal corporation, township, county, or soil and 27711
water conservation district with the option of purchasing 27712
agricultural easements either in installments or with a lump sum 27713
payment. The rules shall include a requirement that a charitable 27714
organization, municipal corporation, township, county, or soil and 27715
water conservation district negotiate with the seller of the 27716
agricultural easement concerning any installment payment terms, 27717
including the dates and amounts of payments and the interest rate 27718
on the outstanding balance. The rules also shall require the 27719
director to approve any method of payment that is undertaken in 27720
accordance with the rules adopted under division (A)(3) of this 27721
section.27722

       (4) Establish any other requirements that the director 27723
considers to be necessary or appropriate to implement or 27724
administer a program to make matching grants under this section 27725
and monitor those grants.27726

       (B) The director may develop guidelines regarding the 27727
acquisition of agricultural easements by the department of 27728
agriculture and the provisions of instruments conveying those 27729
easements. The director may make the guidelines available to 27730
public and private entities authorized to acquire and hold 27731
agricultural easements.27732

       (C) The director may provide technical assistance in 27733
developing a program for the acquisition and monitoring of 27734
agricultural easements to public and private entities authorized 27735
to hold agricultural easements. The technical assistance may 27736
include, without limitation, reviewing and providing advisory 27737
recommendations regarding draft instruments conveying agricultural 27738
easements.27739

       (D)(1) The director may make matching grants from the 27740
agricultural easement purchase fund and the clean Ohio 27741
agricultural easement fund to municipal corporations, counties, 27742
townships, soil and water conservation districts, and charitable 27743
organizations to assist those political subdivisions and 27744
charitable organizations in purchasing agricultural easements. 27745
Application for a matching grant shall be made on forms prescribed 27746
and provided by the director. The matching grants shall be made in 27747
compliance with the criteria and procedures established in rules 27748
adopted under this section. Instruments conveying agricultural 27749
easements purchased with matching grant funds provided under this 27750
section, at a minimum, shall include the mandatory provisions set 27751
forth in those rules.27752

       Matching grants made under this division using moneys from 27753
the clean Ohio agricultural easement fund created in section 27754
901.21 of the Revised Code may provide up to seventy-five per cent 27755
of the value of an agricultural easement as determined by a 27756
general real estate appraiser who is certified under Chapter 4763. 27757
of the Revised Code or as determined through a points-based 27758
appraisal system established under division (D)(2) of this 27759
section. Not less than twenty-five per cent of the value of the 27760
agricultural easement shall be provided by the recipient of the 27761
matching grant or donated by the person who is transferring the 27762
easement to the grant recipient. The amount of such a matching 27763
grant used for the purchase of a single agricultural easement 27764
shall not exceed one million dollars.27765

       (2) The director shall establish a points-based appraisal 27766
system for the purposes of division (D)(1) of this section. The 27767
director may include any or all of the following factors in the 27768
system:27769

       (a) Whether the applicable county auditor has determined that 27770
the land is land that is devoted exclusively to agriculture for 27771
the purposes of sections 5713.30 to 5713.38 of the Revised Code;27772

       (b) Changes in land values following the completion of the 27773
applicable county auditor's reappraisal or triennial update;27774

       (c) Soil types and productivity;27775

       (d) Proximity of the land to land that is already subject to 27776
an agricultural easement, conservation easement created under 27777
sections 5301.67 to 5301.70 of the Revised Code, or similar 27778
land-use limitation;27779

       (e) Proximity of the land to water and sewer lines, road 27780
interchanges, and nonagricultural development;27781

       (f) Parcel size and roadway frontage of the land;27782

       (g) Existence of an agreement entered into under division (D) 27783
of section 1515.08 of the Revised Code or of an operation and 27784
management plan developed under division (A) of section 1511.021 27785
of the Revised Code;27786

       (h) Existence of a comprehensive plan that is adopted under 27787
section 303.02 or 519.02 of the Revised Code or that is adopted by 27788
the planning commission of a municipal corporation under section 27789
713.06 of the Revised Code;27790

       (i) Any other factors that the director determines are 27791
necessary for inclusion in the system.27792

       (E) An agricultural easement acquired as a result of a 27793
matching grant awarded under division (D) of this section may 27794
include a provision to preserve a unique natural or physical 27795
feature on the land so long as the use of the land remains 27796
predominantly agricultural.27797

       (F) For any agricultural easement purchased with a matching 27798
grant that consists in whole or in part of moneys from the clean 27799
Ohio agricultural easement fund, the director shall be named as a 27800
grantee on the instrument conveying the easement, as shall the 27801
municipal corporation, county, township, soil and water 27802
conservation district, or charitable organization that receives 27803
the grant.27804

       (F)(G)(1) The director shall monitor and evaluate the 27805
effectiveness and efficiency of the agricultural easement program 27806
as a farmland preservation tool. On or before July 1, 1999, and 27807
the first day of July of each year thereafter, the director shall 27808
prepare and submit a report to the chairpersons of the standing 27809
committees of the senate and the house of representatives that 27810
consider legislation regarding agriculture. The report shall 27811
consider and address the following criteria to determine the 27812
program's effectiveness:27813

       (a) The number of agricultural easements purchased during the 27814
preceding year;27815

       (b) The location of those easements;27816

       (c) The number of acres of land preserved for agricultural 27817
use;27818

       (d) The amount of money used by a municipal corporation, 27819
township, county, or soil and water conservation district from any 27820
fund to purchase the agricultural easements;27821

       (e) The number of state matching grants given to purchase the 27822
agricultural easements;27823

       (f) The amount of state matching grant moneys used to 27824
purchase the agricultural easements.27825

       (2) The report also shall consider and include, at a minimum, 27826
the following information for each county to determine the 27827
program's efficiency:27828

       (a) The total number of acres in the county;27829

       (b) The total number of acres in current agricultural use;27830

       (c) The total number of acres preserved for agricultural use 27831
in the preceding year;27832

       (d) The average cost, per acre, of land preserved for 27833
agricultural use in the preceding year.27834

       Sec. 901.23. (A) There is hereby created the farmland 27835
preservation advisory board consisting of twelve voting members 27836
appointed by the director of agriculture as follows:27837

       (1) One member who is a county commissioner or a 27838
representative of a statewide organization that represents county 27839
commissioners;27840

       (2) One member who is a township trustee or a representative 27841
of a statewide organization that represents township trustees;27842

       (3) One representative of the Ohio state university;27843

       (4) One representative of a national nonprofit organization 27844
dedicated to the preservation of farmland;27845

       (5) One representative each of development, environmental, 27846
planning, and soil and water conservation interests;27847

       (6) One farmer from each of the state's four quadrants.27848

        Terms of office shall be staggered and shall be for three 27849
years, with each term ending on the same day of the same month as 27850
did the term that it succeeds. Each member shall hold office from 27851
the date of appointment until the end of the term for which the 27852
member was appointed, except that the term of any member who is a 27853
county commissioner or township trustee shall end when the member 27854
ceases to serve as a county commissioner or township trustee.27855

       Members may be reappointed. Vacancies shall be filled in the 27856
manner provided for original appointments. Any member appointed to 27857
fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration date of the term 27858
for which the member was appointed shall serve for the remainder 27859
of that term. A member shall continue to serve subsequent to the 27860
expiration date of the member's term until the member's successor 27861
takes office or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, 27862
whichever occurs first. Members shall serve at the pleasure of the 27863
director.27864

       The executive director of the office of farmland preservation 27865
in the department of agriculture or another employee of the 27866
department who is designated by the director shall serve as the 27867
nonvoting chairperson of the board. The director annually shall 27868
designate one member of the board to serve as its 27869
vice-chairperson. The board may adopt bylaws governing its 27870
operation and shall meet at a time when the director, or the 27871
director's designee, considers it appropriate in order for the 27872
board to provide advice as required under division (B) of this 27873
section.27874

       (B) The board shall provide advice to the director regarding 27875
all of the following:27876

       (1) The design and implementation of an agricultural easement 27877
purchase program;27878

       (2) The selection of applications that will be awarded 27879
matching grants under division (D) of section 901.22 of the 27880
Revised Code for the purchase of agricultural easements;27881

       (3) The design and implementation of any other statewide 27882
farmland protection measures that the director considers 27883
appropriate.27884

       (C) Serving as a member of the board does not constitute 27885
holding a public office or position of employment under the laws 27886
of this state and does not constitute grounds for removal of 27887
public officers or employees from their offices or positions of 27888
employment.27889

       (D) A board member shall be reimbursed for actual and 27890
necessary expenses incurred in the discharge of duties as a board 27891
member.27892

       Sec. 903.11.  (A) The director of agriculture may enter into 27893
contracts or agreements to carry out the purposes of this chapter 27894
with any public or private person, including the Ohio state 27895
universityOSU extension service, the natural resources 27896
conservation service in the United States department of 27897
agriculture, the environmental protection agency, the division of 27898
soil and water resources in the department of natural resources, 27899
and soil and water conservation districts established under 27900
Chapter 1515. of the Revised Code. However, the director shall not 27901
enter into a contract or agreement with a private person for the 27902
review of applications for permits to install, permits to operate, 27903
NPDES permits, or review compliance certificates that are issued 27904
under this chapter or for the inspection of a facility regulated 27905
under this chapter or with any person for the issuance of any of 27906
those permits or certificates or for the enforcement of this 27907
chapter and rules adopted under it.27908

       (B) The director may administer grants and loans using moneys 27909
from the federal government and other sources, public or private, 27910
for carrying out any of the director's functions. Nothing in this 27911
chapter shall be construed to limit the eligibility of owners or 27912
operators of animal feeding facilities or other agricultural 27913
enterprises to receive moneys from the water pollution control 27914
loan fund established under section 6111.036 of the Revised Code 27915
and the nonpoint source pollution management fund established 27916
under section 6111.037 of the Revised Code.27917

       The director of agriculture shall provide the director of 27918
environmental protection with written recommendations for 27919
providing financial assistance from those funds to agricultural 27920
enterprises. The director of environmental protection shall 27921
consider the recommendations in developing priorities for 27922
providing financial assistance from the funds.27923

       Sec. 903.30. (A) No person shall violate division (B)(1), 27924
(C)(1), (K), or (M)(1) or (2) of section 903.08 of the Revised 27925
Code or the NPDES provisions of a permit to operate.27926

        (B) No person shall violate or fail to perform any duty 27927
required by sections 903.01 to 903.07 and 903.12 of the Revised 27928
Code, violate a rule, or violate an order or term or condition of 27929
a permit issued by the director of agriculture under those 27930
sections or rules.27931

        (C) The attorney general, upon the written request of the 27932
director, shall prosecute any person who violates division (A) or 27933
(B) of this section. 27934

       Sec. 903.99.  (A) Whoever negligently violates division 27935
(A)(2) of section 903.02 or division (A)(2) of section 903.0327936
903.30 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third 27937
degree on a first offense, a misdemeanor of the second degree on a 27938
second offense, and a misdemeanor of the first degree on a third 27939
or subsequent offense. Each ten-day period that the offense 27940
continuesshall be fined not more than ten thousand dollars or 27941
imprisoned for not more than ninety days, or both. Each day of 27942
violation constitutes a separate offense. For purposes of this 27943
division, notwithstanding division (D) of section 2901.22 of the 27944
Revised Code, a person acts negligently when, because of a lapse 27945
from due care, the person fails to perceive or avoid a risk that 27946
the person's conduct may cause a certain result or may be of a 27947
certain nature. A person is negligent with respect to 27948
circumstances when, because of a lapse from due care, the person 27949
fails to perceive or avoid a risk that such circumstances may 27950
exist.27951

       (B) Whoever recklessly violates the terms and conditions of a 27952
permit to install issued under section 903.02 of the Revised Code 27953
or of a permit to operate issued under section 903.03 of the 27954
Revised Code, division (A) or (B)(1), (C)(1), or (M)(1) or (2) of 27955
section 903.08 of the Revised Code, or the NPDES provisions of a 27956
permit to operate shall be fined not more than twenty-five 27957
thousand dollars.of section 903.30 of the Revised Code shall be 27958
fined not more than ten thousand dollars or imprisoned for not 27959
more than one year, or both. Each day of violation constitutes a 27960
separate offense.27961

       (C) Whoever knowingly violates division (K)(A) or (B) of 27962
section 903.08903.30 of the Revised Code is guilty of a felony 27963
and shall be fined not more than twenty-five thousand dollars or 27964
imprisoned for not more than three years, or both. Each day of 27965
violation constitutes a separate offense.27966

       Sec. 905.06.  The director of agriculture shall:27967

       (A) Gather information on the performance of various 27968
agricultural additives, including distributors' and manufacturers' 27969
claims, the results of investigation or research on additives, and 27970
the conditions when they are useful, and make the information 27971
available to the public;27972

       (B) Provide and distribute, in cooperation with the 27973
agriculturalOSU extension service, information on the use of 27974
agricultural additives;27975

       (C) Provide for the prompt and thorough investigation of 27976
written complaints received concerning agricultural additives.27977

       Sec. 909.15.  All moneys from registration fees and from 27978
fines imposed and recovered under sections 909.01 to 909.18 of the 27979
Revised Code, shall be paid to the director of agriculture, who 27980
shall deposit such moneys in the state treasury to the credit of 27981
the general revenueplant pest program fund created in section 27982
927.54 of the Revised Code.27983

       Sec. 924.02.  The director of agriculture, subject to 27984
sections 924.01 to 924.16 and Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 27985
shall do all of the following:27986

       (A) Establish procedures by which producers of Ohio 27987
agricultural commodities may propose, develop, and operate 27988
marketing programs to:27989

       (1) Promote the sale and use of their products;27990

       (2) Develop new uses and markets for such products;27991

       (3) Improve the methods of distributing such products to 27992
consumers;27993

       (4) Standardize the quality of such products for specific 27994
uses.27995

       (B) Adopt and enforce rules to put into effect the intent of 27996
sections 924.01 to 924.16 of the Revised Code;27997

       (C) DetermineExcept as provided in section 924.06 of the 27998
Revised Code, determine the eligibility of producers to 27999
participate in referendums and other procedures that may be 28000
required to establish marketing programs for agricultural 28001
commodities.28002

       Sec. 924.06.  (A) Within ninety days after he has approved a 28003
proposed amendment to an agricultural commodity marketing program 28004
established before April 10, 1985, the director of agriculture 28005
shall determine by a referendum whether the eligible producers 28006
favor the proposed amendment to the program. Any proposed 28007
amendment to a marketing program established before April 10, 28008
1985, is favored by the producers of the agricultural commodity 28009
which would be affected by the proposed amendment if either of the 28010
following occurs:28011

       (1) Sixty-six and two-thirds per cent or more, by number, of 28012
the producers who vote in the referendum, vote in favor of the 28013
amendment, and represent a majority of the volume of the affected 28014
commodity that was produced in the preceding marketing year by all 28015
producers who voted in the referendum;28016

       (2) A majority of the producers who vote in the referendum, 28017
vote in favor of the amendment and represent sixty-six and 28018
two-thirds per cent, or more, of the volume of the affected 28019
commodity that was produced in the preceding marketing year by all 28020
the producers who voted in the referendum.28021

       (B) Within ninety days after he has approvedapproving an 28022
agricultural commodity marketing program proposed on or after28023
April 10, 1985the effective date of this amendment, or a proposed 28024
amendment to such aan agricultural commodity marketing program, 28025
the director of agriculture shall determine by a referendum 28026
whether the eligible producers favor the proposed marketing 28027
program or amendment. Any such marketing program or amendment to 28028
such a marketing program is favored by the producers of the 28029
agricultural commodity that would be affected by the proposed 28030
program or amendment if a majority of the producers who vote in 28031
the referendum vote in favor of the program or amendment.28032

       (C)(B) If the producers who vote in any referendum held 28033
pursuant to this section do not favor a proposed marketing 28034
program, or proposed amendment to a program, the director shall 28035
hold no additional referendum on that proposed program or proposed 28036
amendment during the ten months following the close of the 28037
referendum at which the producers did not favor that proposed 28038
program or amendment.28039

       (D)(C) In any referendum held pursuant to this section, each 28040
eligible producer of the Ohio agricultural commodity whichthat28041
would be affected by the proposed marketing program, or amendment 28042
to a program, is entitled to one vote.28043

       (E)(D) In any referendum held on an agricultural commodity 28044
marketing program, or a proposed amendment to such a program, 28045
votes may be cast in person or by mailing a ballot to a polling 28046
place designated by the director. The director shall establish a 28047
three-day period during which eligible producers may vote in 28048
person during normal business hours at polling places designated 28049
by the director. The director or other appropriate person shall 28050
send a mail-in ballot by ordinary first-class mail to any eligible 28051
producer who requests one by calling the toll-free telephone 28052
number or sending in the ballot request form provided for in 28053
division (F)(E) of this section, by calling one of the polling 28054
places designated by the director, or by any additional method 28055
that the director or operating committee may provide. No ballot 28056
returned by mail shall be valid if it is postmarked later than the 28057
third day of the election period established by the director.28058

       (F)(E) For any referendum held on an agricultural commodity 28059
marketing program, or a proposed amendment to such a program, the 28060
director or operating committee shall cause a ballot request form 28061
to be published at least thirty days before the beginning of the 28062
election period established under division (E)(D) of this section 28063
in at least two appropriate periodicals designated by the 28064
director, and shall make the form available for reproduction to 28065
any interested group or association. The director shall provide a 28066
toll-free telephone number that producers may call to request a 28067
ballot.28068

       (F) For the purposes of a referendum held on an egg marketing 28069
program or a proposed amendment to such a program under this 28070
section, an eligible producer is a person who is in the business 28071
of producing and marketing, or causing to be produced and 28072
marketed, eggs from a flock of more than seventy-five thousand 28073
domesticated chickens and, if the referendum is held on a proposed 28074
amendment to an egg marketing program, is subject to an assessment 28075
under the program.28076

       Sec. 927.54. The plant pest program fund is hereby created in 28077
the state treasury. The fund shall consist of money credited to it 28078
under section 909.15 of the Revised Code and under this chapter 28079
and any rules adopted under it. The director of agriculture shall 28080
use money in the fund to administer this chapter and Chapter 909. 28081
of the Revised Code.28082

        The director shall keep accurate records of all receipts into 28083
and disbursements from the fund and shall prepare, and provide 28084
upon request, an annual report classifying the receipts and 28085
disbursements that pertain to plant pests.28086

       Sec. 935.01.  As used in this chapter:28087

       (A) "Board of health" means the board of health of a city or 28088
general health district or the authority having the duties of a 28089
board of health in any city authorized by section 3709.05 of the 28090
Revised Code.28091

       (B) "Circus" means a traveling show to which all of the 28092
following apply:28093

       (1) It is licensed by the United States department of 28094
agriculture under the federal animal welfare act.28095

       (2) It presents dangerous wild animals, restricted snakes, or 28096
both in a public performance as its own event or as part of a fair 28097
or carnival.28098

       (3) It does not allow physical contact between the public and 28099
the dangerous wild animals or restricted snakes possessed by it. 28100
Division (B)(3) of this section does not apply to rides or other 28101
interactions between the public and an elephant, provided that 28102
such a ride or other interaction is under the direct supervision 28103
of an experienced animal handler.28104

       (4) It is in the state for less than sixty-five days each 28105
year.28106

       (C) "Dangerous wild animal" means any of the following, 28107
including hybrids unless otherwise specified:28108

       (1) Hyenas; 28109

       (2) Gray wolves, excluding hybrids; 28110

       (3) Lions;28111

       (4) Tigers;28112

       (5) Jaguars;28113

       (6) Leopards, including clouded leopards, Sunda clouded 28114
leopards, and snow leopards;28115

       (7) All of the following, including hybrids with domestic 28116
cats unless otherwise specified:28117

       (a) Cheetahs;28118

       (b) Lynxes, including Canadian lynxes, Eurasian lynxes, and 28119
Iberian lynxes;28120

       (c) Cougars, also known as pumas or mountain lions; 28121

       (d) Caracals;28122

       (e) Servals, excluding hybrids with domestic cats commonly 28123
known as savannah cats. 28124

       (8) Bears;28125

       (9) Elephants;28126

       (10) Rhinoceroses;28127

       (11) Hippopotamuses;28128

       (12) Cape buffaloes;28129

       (13) African wild dogs;28130

       (14) Komodo dragons;28131

       (15) Alligators;28132

       (16) Crocodiles;28133

       (17) Caimans, excluding dwarf caimans;28134

       (18) Gharials;28135

       (19) Nonhuman primates other than lemurs and the nonhuman 28136
primates specified in division (C)(20) of this section;28137

       (20) All of the following nonhuman primates:28138

       (a) Golden lion, black-faced lion, golden-rumped lion, 28139
cotton-top, emperor, saddlebacked, black-mantled, and Geoffroy's 28140
tamarins;28141

       (b) Southern and northern night monkeys;28142

       (c) Dusky titi and masked titi monkeys;28143

       (d) Muriquis;28144

       (e) Goeldi's monkeys;28145

       (f) White-faced, black-bearded, white-nose bearded, and monk 28146
sakis;28147

       (g) Bald and black uakaris;28148

       (h) Black-handed, white-bellied, brown-headed, and black 28149
spider monkeys;28150

       (i) Common woolly monkeys;28151

       (j)(i) Red, black, and mantled howler monkeys.28152

       "Dangerous wild animal" does not include a domesticated 28153
animal that is considered livestock as defined in section 901.70 28154
of the Revised Code.28155

       (D) "Federal animal welfare act" has the same meaning as in 28156
section 959.131 of the Revised Code.28157

       (E) "Felony drug abuse offense" has the same meaning as in 28158
section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.28159

       (F) "Health district" means a city or general health district 28160
created by or under the authority of Chapter 3709. of the Revised 28161
Code.28162

       (G) "Humane society" means an organization that is organized 28163
under section 1717.05 of the Revised Code.28164

       (H) "Law enforcement officer" means a sheriff, deputy 28165
sheriff, constable, police officer of a township or joint police 28166
district, marshal, deputy marshal, municipal police officer, or 28167
state highway patrol trooper.28168

       (I) "Natural resources law enforcement officers" means peace 28169
officers as specified in division (A)(6) of section 109.71 of the 28170
Revised Code and employees of the division of wildlife specified 28171
in sections 1531.13 and 1531.14 of the Revised Code.28172

        (J) "Offense of violence" has the same meaning as in section 28173
2901.01 of the Revised Code.28174

       (K) "Rescue facility" means a nonprofit organization as 28175
described in section 170 of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 28176
100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 170, as amended, that operates a place 28177
of refuge where abused, neglected, unwanted, impounded, abandoned, 28178
orphaned, or displaced dangerous wild animals are provided care 28179
for their lifetime or released back to their natural habitat, and, 28180
with respect to an animal possessed by the organization, that does 28181
not do any of the following:28182

       (1) Sell, trade, or barter the animal or the animal's body 28183
parts;28184

       (2) Use the animal in any manner for profit;28185

       (3) Breed the animal;28186

       (4) Allow the public the opportunity to come into contact 28187
with the animal.28188

       (L) "Restricted snake" means any of the following:28189

       (1) All of the following constricting snakes that are twelve 28190
feet or longer: 28191

       (a) Green anacondas; 28192

       (b) Yellow anacondas; 28193

       (c) Reticulated pythons; 28194

       (d) Indian pythons; 28195

       (e) Burmese pythons; 28196

       (f) North African rock pythons; 28197

       (g) South African rock pythons; 28198

       (h) Amethystine pythons. 28199

       (2) Species of the following families: 28200

       (a) Atractaspididae; 28201

       (b) Elapidae; 28202

       (c) Viperidae. 28203

       (3) Boomslang snakes;28204

       (4) Twig snakes.28205

       (M) "Rule" means a rule adopted under section 935.17 of the 28206
Revised Code.28207

       (N) "Veterinarian" means a person who is licensed under 28208
Chapter 4741. of the Revised Code.28209

       (O) "Wildlife sanctuary" means a nonprofit organization as 28210
described in section 170 of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 28211
100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 170, as amended, that is accredited or 28212
verified by the global federation of animal sanctuaries, that 28213
operates a place of refuge where abused, neglected, unwanted, 28214
impounded, abandoned, orphaned, or displaced dangerous wild 28215
animals or restricted snakes are provided care for their lifetime 28216
or released back to their natural habitat, and, with respect to an 28217
animal or snake possessed by the organization, that does not do 28218
any of the following:28219

       (1) Use or allow the use of the animal or snake for any type 28220
of entertainment or in a traveling exhibit;28221

       (2) Sell, trade, lease, loan, or barter the animal or snake 28222
or the animal's or snake's body parts;28223

       (3) Use or allow the use of the animal or snake in any manner 28224
for profit;28225

       (4) Breed the animal or snake;28226

       (5) Allow the public the opportunity to come into physical 28227
contact with the animal or snake.28228

       Sec. 935.03. (A) Division (A) of section 935.02 of the 28229
Revised Code does not apply to any of the following:28230

       (1) A person to which all of the following apply:28231

       (a) The person possesses a dangerous wild animal.28232

       (b) The person has been issued a license by the United States 28233
department of agriculture under the federal animal welfare act.28234

       (c) The director of agriculture has determined that the 28235
person is in the process of becoming an accredited member of the 28236
association of zoos and aquariums or the zoological association of 28237
America.28238

       (d) The director has informed the person that the person is 28239
exempt from division (A) of section 935.02 of the Revised Code.28240

       (2) An organization to which all of the following apply:28241

       (a) The organization possesses a dangerous wild animal.28242

       (b) The director has determined that the organization is in 28243
the process of being accredited or verified by the global 28244
federation of animal sanctuaries as a wildlife sanctuary.28245

       (c) The director has informed the organization that it is 28246
exempt from division (A) of section 935.02 of the Revised Code.28247

       (3) A person whose possession of a dangerous wild animal is 28248
authorized by an unexpired permit issued under this chapter.28249

       (B) Except for the purposes of divisions (A) and (B) of 28250
section 935.04 of the Revised Code, this chapter does not apply to 28251
any of the following:28252

       (1) A facility that is an accredited member of the 28253
association of zoos and aquariums or the zoological association of 28254
America and that is licensed by the United States department of 28255
agriculture under the federal animal welfare act;28256

       (2) A research facility as defined in the federal animal 28257
welfare act;28258

       (3) A research facility that is accredited by the association 28259
for the assessment and accreditation of laboratory animal care 28260
international;28261

       (4) A circus;28262

       (5) A wildlife rehabilitation facility that is issued a 28263
permit by the chief of the division of wildlife in rules adopted 28264
under section 1531.08 of the Revised Code and that rehabilitates 28265
dangerous wild animals or restricted snakes that are native to the 28266
state for the purpose of reintroduction into the wild;28267

       (6) A veterinarian that is providing temporary veterinary 28268
care to a dangerous wild animal or restricted snake;28269

       (7) A wildlife sanctuary;28270

       (8) An individual who does not reside in this state, is 28271
traveling through this state with a dangerous wild animal or 28272
restricted snake, and does all of the following:28273

       (a) Confines the animal or snake in a cage at all times;28274

       (b) Confines the animal or snake in a cage that is not 28275
accessible to the public;28276

       (c) Does not exhibit the animal or snake;28277

       (d) Is in the state not more than forty-eight hours unless 28278
the animal or snake is receiving veterinary care.28279

       (9) An educational institution that displays a single 28280
dangerous wild animal as a sports mascot and that meets all of the 28281
following criteria:28282

       (a) An official of the educational institution has submitted 28283
an affidavit attesting that the institution will care for the 28284
animal as long as the animal lives and in a facility that is an 28285
accredited member of the association of zoos and aquariums or the 28286
zoological association of America.28287

       (b) The educational institution maintains a liability 28288
insurance policy with an insurer authorized or approved to write 28289
such insurance in this state that covers claims for injury or 28290
damage to persons or property caused by a dangerous wild animal. 28291
The amount of the insurance coverage shall be not less than one 28292
million dollars.28293

       (c) During display and transport, the educational institution 28294
confines the dangerous wild animal in a cage that does not permit 28295
physical contact between the animal and the public.28296

       (d) The educational institution began displaying a dangerous 28297
wild animal as a mascot prior to the effective date of this 28298
sectionSeptember 5, 2012.28299

       (10) Any person who has been issued a permit under section 28300
1533.08 of the Revised Code;28301

       (11) Any person authorized to possess a dangerous wild animal 28302
or restricted snake under section 1531.25 of the Revised Code or 28303
rules adopted under it;28304

       (12) A mobility impaired person as defined in section 955.011 28305
of the Revised Code who possesses a dangerous wild animal 28306
specified in division (C)(20)(h) of section 935.01 of the Revised 28307
Code that has been trained by a nonprofit agency or is in such 28308
training to assist the mobility impaired person;28309

       (13) A deaf or hearing-impaired person who possesses a 28310
dangerous wild animal specified in division (C)(20)(h) of section 28311
935.01 of the Revised Code that has been trained by a nonprofit 28312
agency or is in such training to assist the deaf or 28313
hearing-impaired person;28314

       (14) A person who is blind as defined in section 955.011 of 28315
the Revised Code and possesses a dangerous wild animal specified 28316
in division (C)(20)(h) of section 935.01 of the Revised Code that 28317
has been trained by a nonprofit agency or is in such training to 28318
assist the blind person.28319

       Sec. 935.12. (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this 28320
section, a person that has been issued a permit under this chapter 28321
for a dangerous wild animal or animals shall comply with the 28322
requirements regarding the care and housing of dangerous wild 28323
animals established in rules.28324

       (B) A person that has been issued a wildlife shelter, 28325
wildlife propagation permit, or rescue facility permit under this 28326
chapter for a dangerous wild animal or animals specified in 28327
division (C)(20) of section 935.01 of the Revised Code shall 28328
comply with both of the following:28329

       (1) The requirements regarding the care of those animals 28330
established in regulations adopted under the federal animal 28331
welfare act;28332

        (2) The requirements regarding the housing of those animals 28333
established in rules.28334

       (C) A person that has been issued a restricted snake 28335
possession or restricted snake propagation permit under this 28336
chapter shall comply with the requirements regarding the care and 28337
housing of those snakes established in standards adopted by the 28338
zoological association of America and in effect on September 5, 28339
2012.28340

       Sec. 955.01.  (A)(1) Except as otherwise provided in this 28341
section or in sections 955.011, 955.012, and 955.16 of the Revised 28342
Code, every person who owns, keeps, or harbors a dog more than 28343
three months of age, shall file, on or after the first day of the 28344
precedingapplicable December, but before the thirty-first day of 28345
the applicable January of each year, in the office of the county 28346
auditor of the county in which the dog is kept or harbored, an 28347
application for registration for the followinga period of one28348
year, beginning the thirty-first day of January of that yearthree 28349
years, or five years. The board of county commissioners, by 28350
resolution, may extend the period for filing the application. The 28351
application shall state the age, sex, color, character of hair, 28352
whether short or long, and breed, if known, of the dog and the 28353
name and address of the owner of the dog. A registration fee of 28354
two dollars for each year of registration for each dog shall 28355
accompany the application, unless a greater fee has been 28356
established under division (A)(2) of this section or under section 28357
955.14 of the Revised Code.28358

       (2) A board of county commissioners may establish a 28359
registration fee higher than the one provided for in division 28360
(A)(1) of this section for dogs more than nine months of age that 28361
have not been spayed or neutered, except that the higher 28362
registration fee permitted by this division shall not apply if a 28363
person registering a dog furnishes with the application either a 28364
certificate from a licensed veterinarian verifying that the dog 28365
should not be spayed or neutered because of its age or medical 28366
condition or because the dog is used or intended for use for show 28367
or breeding purposes or a certificate from the owner of the dog 28368
declaring that the owner holds a valid hunting license issued by 28369
the division of wildlife of the department of natural resources 28370
and that the dog is used or intended for use for hunting purposes. 28371
If the board establishes such a fee, the application for 28372
registration shall state whether the dog is spayed or neutered, 28373
and whether a licensed veterinarian has certified that the dog 28374
should not be spayed or neutered or the owner has stated that the 28375
dog is used or intended to be used for hunting purposes. The board 28376
may require a person who is registering a spayed or neutered dog 28377
to furnish with the application a certificate from a licensed 28378
veterinarian verifying that the dog is spayed or neutered. No 28379
person shall furnish a certificate under this division whichthat28380
the person knows to be false.28381

       (B) If the application for registration is not filed and the 28382
registration fee paid, on or before the thirty-first day of the 28383
applicable January of each year or, if the board of county 28384
commissioners by resolution has extended the date to a date later 28385
than the thirty-first day of January, the date established by the 28386
board, the auditor shall assess a penalty in an amount equal to 28387
the registration fee upon the owner, keeper, or harborer, which 28388
mustshall be paid with the registration fee.28389

       (C) An animal shelter that keeps or harbors a dog more than 28390
three months of age is exempt from paying any fees imposed under 28391
division (A) or (B) of this section if it is a nonprofit 28392
organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under 28393
subsection 501(a) and described in subsection 501(c)(3) of the 28394
"Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2852085, 26 U.S.C. 1.28395

       Sec. 955.05.  After the thirty-first day of January of any 28396
year, except as otherwise provided in section 955.012 or 955.16 of 28397
the Revised Code, every person, immediately upon becoming the 28398
owner, keeper, or harborer of any dog more than three months of 28399
age or brought from outside the state during any year, shall file 28400
like applications, with fees, as required by section 955.01 of the 28401
Revised Code, for registration for the current year. If suchthe28402
application is not filed and the fee paid, within thirty days 28403
after suchthe dog is acquired, becomes three months of age, or is 28404
brought from outside the state, the auditor shall assess a penalty 28405
in an amount equal to the registration fee upon suchthe owner, 28406
keeper, or harborer, which mustshall be paid with the 28407
registration fee. Thereafter, the owner, keeper, or harborer shall 28408
register the dog for a period of one year, three years, or five 28409
years as provided in section 955.01 of the Revised Code.28410

       Every person becoming the owner of a kennel of dogs after the 28411
thirty-first day of January of any year shall file like 28412
applications, with fees, as required by section 955.04 of the 28413
Revised Code, for the registration of such kennel for the current 28414
calendar year. If such application is not filed and the fee paid 28415
within thirty days after the person becomes the owner of such 28416
kennel, the auditor shall assess a penalty in an amount equal to 28417
the registration fee upon the owner of such kennel.28418

       Sec. 955.06. The owner, keeper, or harborer of a dog 28419
becoming three months of age after the first day of July in a 28420
calendar year and the owner, keeper, or harborer of a dog 28421
purchased outside the state after the first day of July in a 28422
calendar year shall register the dog for one year. The 28423
registration fee for any such dog becoming three months of age 28424
after the first day of July of any year and the registration fee 28425
of any dog purchased from outside the state after the first day of 28426
July of any year shall be one-half of the original fee. 28427
Thereafter, the owner, keeper, or harborer shall register the dog 28428
for a period of one year, three years, or five years as provided 28429
in section 955.01 of the Revised Code.28430

       Sec. 955.07.  Upon the filing of the application for 28431
registration required by sections 955.01 and 955.04 of the Revised 28432
Code and upon the payment of the registration fee and the 28433
administrative fee, if applicable, the county auditor shall assign 28434
a distinctive number to every dog or dog kennel described in the 28435
application and shall deliver a certificate of registration 28436
bearing the number to the owner of the dog or dog kennel. A record 28437
of all certificates of registration issued, together with the 28438
applications for registration, shall be kept by the auditor in a 28439
dog and kennel register for two years or until after an audit 28440
performed by the auditor of state, whichever is later. This record 28441
shall be open to the inspection of any person during reasonable 28442
business hours.28443

       Sec. 955.08.  In addition to the certificate of registration 28444
provided for by section 955.07 of the Revised Code, the county 28445
auditor shall issue to every person making application for the 28446
registration of a dog and paying the required fee therefor a metal 28447
tag for each dog so registered. The form, color, character, and 28448
lettering of the tag shall be prescribed by the county auditor. 28449
Each year the tag shall be a color distinctive from that of the 28450
previous year. If a tag is lost, a duplicate shall be furnished by 28451
the auditor upon proper proof of loss and the payment of five 28452
dollars for each duplicate tag issued.28453

       Sec. 955.09.  Certificates of registration and registration 28454
tags shall be valid only during the calendar year inor years for28455
which they are issued, and during the first thirty-one days of the 28456
following calendar year.28457

       Sec. 955.14.  (A) Notwithstanding section 955.01 of the 28458
Revised Code, a board of county commissioners by resolution may 28459
increase dog and kennel registration fees in the county. The 28460
amount of the fees shall not exceed an amount that the board, in 28461
its discretion, estimates is needed to pay all expenses for the 28462
administration of this chapter and to pay claims allowed for 28463
animals injured or destroyed by dogs. Such a resolution shall be 28464
adopted not earlier than the first day of February and not later 28465
than the thirty-first day of August of any year and shall apply to28466
specify the registration period commencing on the first day of 28467
December of the current year and ending on the thirty-first day of 28468
January of the following year, unless the period is extended under 28469
section 955.01 of the Revised Codeor periods to which the 28470
increased fees apply. Any increase in fees adopted under this 28471
division shall be in the ratio of two dollars for each year of 28472
registration for a dog registration fee and ten dollars for a 28473
kennel registration fee.28474

       (B) Not later than the fifteenth day of October of each year, 28475
the board of county commissioners shall determine if there is 28476
sufficient money in the dog and kennel fund, after paying the 28477
expenses of administration incurred or estimated to be incurred 28478
for the remainder of the year, to pay the claims allowed for 28479
animals injured or destroyed by dogs. If the board determines 28480
there is not sufficient money in the dog and kennel fund to pay 28481
the claims allowed, the board shall provide by resolution that all 28482
claims remaining unpaid shall be paid from the general fund of the 28483
county. All money paid out of the general fund for those purposes 28484
may be replaced by the board from the dog and kennel fund at any 28485
time during the following year notwithstanding section 5705.14 of 28486
the Revised Code.28487

       (C) Notwithstanding section 955.20 of the Revised Code, if 28488
dog and kennel registration fees in any county are increased above 28489
two dollars for each year of registration and ten dollars, 28490
respectively, under authority of division (A) of this section, 28491
then on or before the first day of March following each year in 28492
which the increased fees are in effect, the county auditor shall 28493
draw on the dog and kennel fund a warrant payable to the college 28494
of veterinary medicine of the Ohio state university in an amount 28495
equal to ten cents for each dog and kennel registration fee 28496
received during the preceding year. The money received by the 28497
college of veterinary medicine of the Ohio state university under 28498
this division shall be applied for research and study of the 28499
diseases of dogs, particularly those transmittable to humans, and 28500
for research of other diseases of dogs that by their nature will 28501
provide results applicable to the prevention and treatment of both 28502
human and canine illness.28503

       (D) The Ohio state university college of veterinary medicine 28504
shall be responsible to report annually to the general assembly 28505
the progress of the research and study authorized and funded by 28506
division (C) of this section. The report shall briefly describe 28507
the research projects undertaken and assess the value of each. The 28508
report shall account for funds received pursuant to division (C) 28509
of this section and for the funds expended attributable to each 28510
research project and for other necessary expenses in conjunction 28511
with the research authorized by division (C) of this section. The 28512
report shall be filed with the general assembly by the first day 28513
of May of each year.28514

       (E) The county auditor may authorize agents to receive 28515
applications for registration of dogs and kennels and to issue 28516
certificates of registration and tags. If authorized agents are 28517
employed in a county, each applicant for a dog or kennel 28518
registration shall pay to the agent an administrative fee of 28519
seventy-five cents in addition to the registration fee. The 28520
administrative fee shall be the compensation of the agent. The 28521
county auditor shall establish rules for reporting and accounting 28522
by the agents. No administrative or similar fee shall be charged 28523
in any county except as authorized by this division or division 28524
(F) of this section.28525

       (F) For any county that accepts the payment of dog and kennel 28526
registration fees by financial transaction devices in accordance 28527
with section 955.013 of the Revised Code, in addition to those 28528
registration fees, the county auditor shall collect for each 28529
registration paid by a financial transaction device one of the 28530
following:28531

       (1) An administrative fee of seventy-five cents or another 28532
amount necessary to cover actual costs designated by the county 28533
auditor;28534

       (2) If the board of county commissioners adopts a surcharge 28535
or convenience fee for making payments by a financial transaction 28536
device under division (E) of section 301.28 of the Revised Code, 28537
that surcharge or convenience fee;28538

       (3) If the county auditor contracts with a third party to 28539
provide services to enable registration via the internet as 28540
provided in section 955.013 of the Revised Code, a surcharge or 28541
convenience fee as agreed to between that third party and the 28542
county for those internet registration services. Any additional 28543
expenses incurred by the county auditor that result from a 28544
contract with a third party as provided in this section and 28545
section 955.013 of the Revised Code and that are not covered by a 28546
surcharge or convenience fee shall be paid out of the allowance 28547
provided to the county auditor under section 955.20 of the Revised 28548
Code.28549

       (G) The county auditor shall post conspicuously the amount of 28550
the administrative fee, surcharge, or convenience fee that is 28551
permissible under this section on the web page where the auditor 28552
accepts payments for registrations made under division (B)(1) of 28553
section 955.013 of the Revised Code. If any person chooses to pay 28554
by financial transaction device, the administrative fee, 28555
surcharge, or convenience fee shall be considered voluntary and is 28556
not refundable.28557

       (H) As used in this section, "animal" has the same meaning as 28558
in section 955.51 of the Revised Code.28559

       Sec. 955.201. (A) As used in this section and in section 28560
955.202 of the Revised Code, "Ohio pet fund" means a nonprofit 28561
corporation organized by that name under Chapter 1702. of the 28562
Revised Code that consists of humane societies, veterinarians, 28563
animal shelters, companion animal breeders, dog wardens, or 28564
similar individuals and entities.28565

        (B) The Ohio pet fund shall do all of the following:28566

       (1) Establish eligibility criteria for organizations that may 28567
receive financial assistance from the Ohio pet fund. Those 28568
organizations may include any of the following:28569

        (a) An animal shelter as defined in section 4729.01 of the 28570
Revised Code;28571

       (b) A local nonprofit veterinary association that operates a 28572
program for the sterilization of dogs and cats;28573

       (c) A charitable organization that is exempt from federal 28574
income taxation under subsection 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue 28575
Code and a purpose of which is to support programs for the 28576
sterilization of dogs and cats and educational programs concerning 28577
the proper veterinary care of those animals.28578

       (2) Establish procedures for applying for financial 28579
assistance from the Ohio pet fund. Application procedures shall 28580
require eligible organizations to submit detailed proposals that 28581
outline the intended uses of the moneys sought.28582

       (3) Establish eligibility criteria for sterilization and 28583
educational programs for which moneys from the Ohio pet fund may 28584
be used and, consistent with division (C) of this section, 28585
establish eligibility criteria for individuals who seek 28586
sterilization for their dogs and cats from eligible organizations;28587

       (4) Establish procedures for the disbursement of moneys the 28588
Ohio pet fund receives from license plate contributions pursuant 28589
to division (C) of section 4503.551 of the Revised Code;28590

       (5) Advertise or otherwise provide notification of the 28591
availability of financial assistance from the Ohio pet fund for 28592
eligible organizations;28593

       (6) Design markings to be inscribed on "pets" license plates 28594
under section 4503.551 of the Revised Code.28595

       (C)(1) The owner of a dog or cat is eligible for dog or cat 28596
sterilization services from an eligible organization when those 28597
services are subsidized in whole or in part by money from the Ohio 28598
pet fund if any of the following applies:28599

       (a) The income of the owner's family does not exceed one 28600
hundred fifty per cent of the federal poverty guideline.28601

       (b) The owner, or any member of the owner's family who 28602
resides with the owner, is a recipient or beneficiary of one of 28603
the following government assistance programs:28604

       (i) Low-income housing assistance under the "United States 28605
Housing Act of 1937," 42 U.S.C.A. 1437f, as amended, known as the 28606
federal section 8 housing program;28607

       (ii) The Ohio works first program established by Chapter 28608
5107. of the Revised Code;28609

       (iii) Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 28610
(1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, known as the medical 28611
assistanceThe medicaid program or medicaid, provided by the 28612
department of job and family services under Chapter 5111. of the 28613
Revised Code;28614

       (iv) A program or law administered by the United States 28615
department of veterans' affairs or veterans' administration for 28616
any service-connected disability;28617

       (v) The supplemental nutrition assistance program established 28618
under the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008 (7 U.S.C. 2011 et seq.), 28619
administered by the department of job and family services under 28620
section 5101.54 of the Revised Code;28621

       (vi) The "special supplemental nutrition program for women, 28622
infants, and children" established under the "Child Nutrition Act 28623
of 1966," 80 Stat. 885, 42 U.S.C. 1786, as amended, administered 28624
by the department of health under section 3701.132 of the Revised 28625
Code;28626

       (vii) Supplemental security income under Title XVI of the 28627
"Social Security Act," 86 Stat. 1475 (1972), 42 U.S.C.A. 1383, as 28628
amended;28629

       (viii) Social security disability insurance benefits provided 28630
under Title II of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 28631
42 U.S.C.A. 401, as amended.28632

       (c) The owner of the dog or cat submits to the eligible 28633
organization operating the sterilization program either of the 28634
following:28635

       (i) A certificate of adoption showing that the dog or cat was 28636
adopted from a licensed animal shelter, a municipal, county, or 28637
regional pound, or a holding and impoundment facility that 28638
contracts with a municipal corporation;28639

       (ii) A certificate of adoption showing that the dog or cat 28640
was adopted through a nonprofit corporation operating an animal 28641
adoption referral service whose holding facility, if any, is 28642
licensed in accordance with state law or a municipal ordinance.28643

       (2) The Ohio pet fund shall determine the type of documentary 28644
evidence that must be presented by the owner of a dog or cat to 28645
show that the income of the owner's family does not exceed one 28646
hundred fifty per cent of the federal poverty guideline or that 28647
the owner is eligible under division (C)(1)(b) of this section.28648

       (D) As used in division (C) of this section, "federal poverty 28649
guideline" means the official poverty guideline as revised 28650
annually by the United States department of health and human 28651
services in accordance with section 673(2) of the "Omnibus Budget 28652
Reconciliation Act of 1981," 95 Stat. 511, 42 U.S.C.A. 9902, as 28653
amended, for a family size equal to the size of the family of the 28654
person whose income is being determined.28655

       Sec. 956.07. (A) A person who is applying for a license to 28656
operate a high volume breeder or to act as or perform the 28657
functions of a dog retailer under section 956.04 or 956.05 of the 28658
Revised Code, as applicable, shall include with the application 28659
for a license a nonrefundable license application fee. For the 28660
purpose of calculating the application fee for a high volume 28661
breeder, the sale of one dog from a litter constitutes the sale of 28662
a litter. The application fees are as follows:28663

       (1) For a high volume breeder:28664

       (a) One hundred fifty dollars if the high volume breeder 28665
annually sells at least nine, but not more than fifteen litters;28666

       (b) Two hundred fifty dollars if the high volume breeder 28667
annually sells at least sixteen, but not more than twenty-five 28668
litters;28669

       (c) Three hundred fifty dollars if the high volume breeder 28670
annually sells at least twenty-six, but not more than thirty-five 28671
litters;28672

       (d) Five hundred dollars if the high volume breeder annually 28673
sells at least thirty-six, but not more than forty-five litters;28674

       (e) Seven hundred fifty dollars if the high volume breeder 28675
annually sells forty-six or more litters.28676

       (2) For a dog retailer, five hundred dollars.28677

       (B) Money collected by the director of agriculture from each 28678
application fee submitted under this section shall be transmitted 28679
by the director to the treasurer ofdeposited in the state 28680
treasury to be credited tothe credit of the high volume breeder 28681
kennel control license fund created in section 956.18 of the 28682
Revised Code. The treasurer of state shall transfer to the county 28683
auditor of the county in which a high volume breeder is located or 28684
will be locateddirector shall use fifty dollars of the 28685
application fee submitted by thea high volume breeder under this 28686
section or an amount equal to the fee charged in that county for 28687
the registration of a kennel under section 955.14 of the Revised 28688
Code in the county in which the high volume breeder is located or 28689
will be located, whichever is greater, to reimburse that county. 28690
The county auditor shall deposit the transferred money into that 28691
county's dog and kennel fund created under section 955.20 of the 28692
Revised Code.28693

       Sec. 956.18. (A) All money collected by the director of 28694
agriculture from license fees under section 956.08956.07 and 28695
civil penalties assessed under section 956.13 of the Revised Code 28696
shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the high 28697
volume breeder kennel control license fund, which is hereby 28698
created. The fund shall also consist of money appropriated to it.28699

       (B) No money may be released from the fund without 28700
controlling board approval. The director shall request the 28701
controlling board to release money in an amount not to exceed two 28702
million five hundred thousand dollars per biennium.28703

        (C) The director shall use the money in the fund for the 28704
purpose of administering this chapter and rules adopted under it.28705

       Sec. 991.03.  (A) The Ohio expositions commission shall:28706

       (1) Conduct at least one fair or exposition annually;28707

       (2) Maintain and manage property held by the state for the 28708
purpose of conducting fairs, expositions, and exhibits;28709

       (3) As provided in section 109.122 of the Revised Code, 28710
provide notice of or copies of any proposed entertainment or 28711
sponsorship contracts to the attorney general.28712

       (B) The commission may:28713

       (1) Conduct such additional fairs, expositions, or 28714
exhibitions as the commission determines are in the general public 28715
interest;28716

       (2) Accept on behalf of the state conveyances of property for 28717
the purposes of conducting fairs, expositions, and exhibits, 28718
subject to any terms and conditions agreed to by the commission 28719
and approved by the controlling board;28720

       (3) Accept gifts, devises, and bequests of money, lands, and 28721
other property and apply the money, lands, or other property 28722
according to the terms of the gift, devise, or bequest. A 28723
political subdivision as authorized by law may make gifts and 28724
devises to the commission, and the commission shall apply such a 28725
gift or devise according to the terms of the gift or devise. All 28726
gifts and bequests of money accepted under this division shall be 28727
deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the Ohio 28728
expositions support fund.28729

       (4) Enter into contracts that the commission considers 28730
necessary or worthwhile in the conduct of its purposes, provided 28731
that contracts made for a term exceeding two years, other than 28732
those described in division (B)(4) of this section, shall be 28733
subject to the approval of the controlling board and provided that 28734
the attorney general, pursuant to the attorney general's authority 28735
under section 109.122 of the Revised Code, has not disapproved the 28736
proposed contract;28737

       (4)(5) Enter into contracts for the mutual exchange of goods 28738
or services;28739

       (5)(6) Sell or convey all or a portion of the property, land, 28740
or buildings under its management subject to the approval of the 28741
legislature;28742

       (6)(7) Grant leases on all or any part of the property, land, 28743
or buildings under the management of the commission to private or 28744
public organizations, which appear to be in the best interests of 28745
the state, with the approval of the controlling board and director 28746
of administrative services, subject to the following conditions:28747

       (a) The lessees shall make or construct improvements on such 28748
lands or buildings at no cost to the commission or to the state, 28749
subject to prior approval by the director of administrative 28750
services of detailed plans and specifications of such 28751
improvements.28752

       (b) No person, firm, or corporation shall cause a lien to be 28753
filed against any funds or property of the state or of the 28754
commission as a result of a lessee's activities pursuant to 28755
division (B)(6)(7)(a) of this section.28756

       (c) Leases shall be entered into subject to the sale of such 28757
property, lands, or buildings during the term of the lease.28758

       (d) No leases shall be made which interfere with a fair, 28759
exposition, or exhibition on such lands.28760

       (7)(8) Encumber appropriations for the entire amount of a 28761
contract at the time the contract is made, even though the 28762
contract will not be performed in the fiscal year for which the 28763
appropriations were made.28764

       (8)(9) Implement a credit card payment program permitting 28765
payment by means of a credit card of any fees, charges, and 28766
rentals associated with conducting fairs, expositions, and 28767
exhibits. The commission may open an account outside the state 28768
treasury in a financial institution for the purpose of depositing 28769
credit card receipts. By the end of the business day following the 28770
deposit of the receipts, the financial institution shall make 28771
available to the commission funds in the amount of the receipts. 28772
The commission shall then pay these funds into the state treasury 28773
to the credit of the Ohio expositions fund.28774

       The commission shall adopt rules as necessary to carry out 28775
the purposes of division (B)(8)(9) of this section. The rules 28776
shall include standards for determining eligible financial 28777
institutions and the manner in which funds shall be made available 28778
and shall be consistent with the standards contained in sections 28779
135.03, 135.18, and 135.181 of the Revised Code.28780

       The commission shall not adopt or enforce any rules which 28781
will prohibit livestock exhibited at the Ohio state fair from 28782
participating in county and independent fairs in the state.28783

       Sec. 991.04.  There is hereby established in the state 28784
treasury the Ohio expositions fund. AllExcept for gifts and 28785
bequests of money accepted under division (B)(3) of section 991.03 28786
of the Revised Code, all moneys collected by the Ohio expositions 28787
commission pursuant to sections 991.01 to 991.07 of the Revised 28788
Code and any income generated from the investment of those moneys 28789
shall be paid into the fund and may be used to defray the costs of 28790
administration and carrying out the purposes of sections 991.01 to 28791
991.07 of the Revised Code.28792

       With the approval of the director of budget and management, 28793
provisions may be made for a cash fund to be established on the 28794
state fairgrounds during the period of activities related to the 28795
holding of the annual state fair. The purpose of such fund is to 28796
provide for payment of premiums and entertainers and for immediate 28797
payment of small amounts for obligations, including ticket 28798
refunds, of such nature as to require immediate payment.28799

       The expositions commission shall cause to be kept an accurate 28800
record of all transactions, contracts, and proceedings. The 28801
director of budget and management shall prescribe a system of 28802
accounting and reporting. Such system shall include methods and 28803
forms showing the sources from which all revenues of the 28804
expositions commission are received, the amount collected from 28805
each source, and the amount expended for each purpose.28806

       Sec. 991.041. There is in the state treasury the Ohio 28807
expositions support fund. All gifts and bequests of money accepted 28808
under division (B)(3) of section 991.03 of the Revised Code shall 28809
be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the fund. 28810
Investment earnings of the fund shall be deposited into the fund. 28811
The Ohio expositions commission may use the fund, consistent with 28812
the terms of the gift or bequest, to defray the cost of 28813
administration and of carrying out the purposes of sections 991.01 28814
to 991.07 of the Revised Code.28815

       Sec. 991.06.  Annually on or before the thirtieth day of 28816
September the Ohio expositions commission, through its general 28817
manager, shall prepare and file with the auditor of state a 28818
statement showing the total amount received from each source of 28819
revenue, the total amount disbursed for each class of 28820
expenditures, and the aggregate of all receipts and expenditures 28821
of the commission. This statement shall also include a summary of 28822
each contract for the mutual exchange of goods or services entered 28823
into by the commission under division (B)(4) of section 991.03 of 28824
the Revised Code. Upon receipt of such statement, the auditor of 28825
state shall have it verified and make a report of histhe auditor 28826
of state's findings thereon to the governor.28827

       Assistant auditors of state shall conduct an audit of 28828
activities of the annual Ohio state fair on the Ohio exposition 28829
center during the period when the fair is in progress.28830

       The cost of such audit shall be included in the annual 28831
expenses of the Ohio expositions commission.28832

       Sec. 1309.521.  (A) A filing office that accepts written 28833
records may not refuse to accept a written initial financing 28834
statement in the following form and format set forth in the 28835
official text of the 2010 amendments to article 9 of the uniform 28836
commercial code promulgated by the American law institute and the 28837
national conference of commissioners on uniform state laws, except 28838
for a reason prescribed in division (B) of section 1309.516 of the 28839
Revised Code:.28840

UCC FINANCING STATEMENT
28841

Follow instructions (front and back) carefully.
28842

A. Name and phone of contact at filer (optional) 28843
................................................................. 28844
B. Send acknowledgment to: (name and address) 28845
.................................. 28846
.................................. 28847
.................................. The above space is for filing office use only. 28848
1. DEBTOR'S EXACT FULL LEGAL NAME 28849
(Insert only one debtor name [1a or 1b]. Do not abbreviate or 28850
combine names. If completing 1b, insert the debtor's name exactly as it appears on the debtor's current driver's license or identification card issued by this state, if one exists.) 28851
1a. Organization's name ......................................... 28852
or 28853
1b. Individual's last name ............. First name ............. 28854
Middle name ........................... Suffix .................. 28855
1c. Mailing address ............................................. 28856
City .......... State ....... Postal code ...... Country ........ 28857
28858
Additional information regarding organization debtor 28859
1d. Type of organization ........................................ 28860
1e. Jurisdiction of organization ................................ 28861
2. ADDITIONAL DEBTOR'S EXACT FULL LEGAL NAME 28862
(Insert only one debtor name [2a or 2b]. Do not abbreviate or 28863
combine names. If completing 2b, insert the debtor's name exactly as it appears on the debtor's current driver's license or identification card issued by this state, if one exists.) 28864
2a. Organization's name ......................................... 28865
or 28866
2b. Individual's last name ............. First name ............. 28867
Middle name ........................... Suffix .................. 28868
2c. Mailing address ............................................. 28869
City .......... State ....... Postal code ...... Country ........ 28870
28871
Additional information regarding organization debtor 28872
2d. Type of organization ........................................ 28873
2e. Jurisdiction of organization ................................ 28874
3. SECURED PARTY'S NAME (or name of total assignee of assignor 28875
S/P). Insert only one secured party name (3a or 3b). 28876
3a. Organization's name ......................................... 28877
or 28878
3b. Individual's last name ............. First name ............. 28879
Middle name ........................... Suffix .................. 28880
3c. Mailing address ............................................. 28881
City .......... State ....... Postal code ...... Country ........ 28882
4. This FINANCING STATEMENT covers the following collateral: 28883
................................................................. 28884
................................................................. 28885
................................................................. 28886
................................................................. 28887
5. ALTERNATIVE DESIGNATION (if applicable): 28888
[ ] Lessee/lessor [ ] Consignee/consignor [ ] Bailee/bailor 28889
[ ] Seller/buyer [ ] Ag. lien [ ] Non-UCC filing 28890
6. [ ] This FINANCING STATEMENT is to be filed [for record] (or 28891
recorded) in the REAL ESTATE RECORDS. Attach addendum .......... 28892
[if applicable]. 28893
7. Check to REQUEST SEARCH REPORT(S) on debtor(s) 28894
[ADDITIONAL FEE] .......... [optional] 28895
[ ] All debtors [ ] Debtor 1 [ ] Debtor 2 28896
8. OPTIONAL FILER REFERENCE DATA 28897
................................................................. 28898
................................................................. 28899

UCC FINANCING STATEMENT ADDENDUM
28900

Follow instructions (front and back) carefully.
28901

9. NAME OF FIRST DEBTOR (1a OR 1b) ON RELATED FINANCING STATEMENT 28902
9a. Organization's name ......................................... 28903
or 28904
9b. Individual's last name ............. First name ............. 28905
Middle name ........................... Suffix .................. 28906
10. MISCELLANEOUS 28907
.................................. 28908
.................................. 28909
.................................. The above space is for filing office use only. 28910
11. ADDITIONAL DEBTOR'S EXACT FULL LEGAL NAME 28911
(Insert only one name [11a or 11b]. Do not abbreviate or combine 28912
names. If completing 11b, insert the debtor's name exactly as it appears on the debtor's current driver's license or identification card issued by this state, if one exists.) 28913
11a. Organization's name ........................................ 28914
or 28915
11b. Individual's last name ............. First name ............ 28916
Middle name ........................... Suffix .................. 28917
11c. Mailing address ............................................ 28918
City .......... State ....... Postal code ...... Country ........ 28919
28920
Additional information regarding organization debtor 28921
11d. Type of organization ....................................... 28922
11e. Jurisdiction of organization ............................... 28923
12. [ ] ADDITIONAL SECURED PARTY'S or [ ] ASSIGNOR S/P'S NAME 28924
(Insert only one name [12a or 12b].) 28925
12a. Organization's name ........................................ 28926
or 28927
12b. Individual's last name ............. First name ............ 28928
Middle name ........................... Suffix .................. 28929
12c. Mailing address ............................................ 28930
City .......... State ....... Postal code ...... Country ........ 28931
13. This FINANCING STATEMENT covers [ ] timber to be cut or 28932
[ ] as-extracted collateral, or is filed as a [ ] fixture filing. 28933
14. DESCRIPTION OF REAL ESTATE: 28934
................................................................. 28935
................................................................. 28936
................................................................. 28937
................................................................. 28938
15. Name and address of a RECORD OWNER of above-described real 28939
estate (if debtor does not have a record interest): 28940
................................................................. 28941
................................................................. 28942
................................................................. 28943
16. Additional collateral description: 28944
................................................................. 28945
................................................................. 28946
................................................................. 28947
................................................................. 28948
17. Check only if applicable and check only one box. 28949
Debtor is a [ ] Trust or [ ] Trustee acting with respect to 28950
property held in trust or [ ] Decedent's estate 28951
18. Check only if applicable and check only one box. 28952
[ ] Debtor is a transmitting utility 28953
[ ] Filed in connection with a manufactured-home transaction - 28954
effective 30 years 28955
[ ] Filed in connection with a public-finance transaction - 28956
effective 30 years 28957

       (B) A filing office that accepts written records may not 28958
refuse to accept a written record in the following form and format 28959
set forth as form UCC3 and form UCC3Ad in the final official text 28960
of the 2010 amendments to article 9 of the uniform commercial code 28961
promulgated by the American law institute and the national 28962
conference of commissioners on uniform state laws, except for a 28963
reason prescribed in division (B) of section 1309.516 of the 28964
Revised Code:.28965

UCC FINANCING STATEMENT AMENDMENT
28966

Follow instructions (front and back) carefully.
28967

A. Name and phone of contact at filer (optional) 28968
................................................................ 28969
B. Send acknowledgment to: (name and address) 28970
.................................. 28971
.................................. 28972
.................................. The above space is for filing office use only. 28973
1a. INITIAL FINANCING STATEMENT FILE NUMBER .................... 28974
1b. [ ] This financing statement amendment is to be filed [for 28975
record] (or recorded) in the real estate records. 28976
2. [ ] TERMINATION: Effectiveness of the financing statement identified above is terminated with respect to security interest(s) of the secured party authorizing this termination statement. 28977
3. [ ] CONTINUATION: Effectiveness of the financing statement identified above with respect to security interest(s) of the secured party authorizing this continuation statement is continued for the additional period provided by applicable law. 28978
4. [ ] ASSIGNMENT (full or partial): Give name of assignee in item 7a or 7b and address of assignee in item 7c; and also give name of assignor in item 9. 28979
5. AMENDMENT (PARTY INFORMATION): This amendment affects [ ] Debtor 28980
or [ ] Secured Party of record. Check only one of these two boxes. 28981

Also check one of the following three boxes and provide appropriate information in items 6 and/or 7. 28982
[ ] CHANGE name and/or address. Give current record name in item 6a or 6b; also give new name (if name change) in item 7a or 7b and/or new address (if address change) in item 7c. 28983
[ ] DELETE name. Give record name to be deleted in item 6a or 6b. 28984
[ ] ADD name. Complete item 7a or 7b, and also item 7c; also complete items 7d-7g (if applicable). 28985

6. CURRENT RECORD INFORMATION: 28986
6a. Organization's name ......................................... 28987
or 28988
6b. Individual's last name .................. First name ........ 28989
Middle name ................................. Suffix ............ 28990
7. CHANGED (NEW) OR ADDED INFORMATION: 28991
(If completing 7b and the amendment affects a debtor, insert the debtor's name exactly as it appears on the debtor's current driver's license or identification card issued by this state, if one exists.) 28992
7a. Organization's name ......................................... 28993
or 28994
7b. Individual's last name .................. First name ........ 28995
Middle name ................................. Suffix ............ 28996
7c. Mailing address ............................................. 28997
City ........ State ....... Postal code ....... Country ......... 28998
28999
Additional information regarding organization debtor 29000
7d. Type of organization ........................................ 29001
7e. Jurisdiction of organization ................................ 29002
8. AMENDMENT (COLLATERAL CHANGE). Check only one box. 29003
Describe collateral [ ] deleted or [ ] added, or give entire 29004
[ ] restated collateral description, or describe collateral 29005
[ ] assigned. 29006
................................................................. 29007
................................................................. 29008
................................................................. 29009
................................................................. 29010
9. NAME OF SECURED PARTY OF RECORD AUTHORIZING THIS AMENDMENT 29011
(name of assignor, if this is an assignment). If this is an 29012
amendment authorized by a debtor that adds collateral or adds 29013
the authorizing debtor, or if this is a termination authorized 29014
by a debtor, check here [ ] and enter name of debtor 29015
authorizing this amendment. 29016
9a. Organization's name ......................................... 29017
or 29018
9b. Individual's last name ................ First name .......... 29019
Middle name ............................... Suffix .............. 29020
10. OPTIONAL FILER REFERENCE DATA 29021
................................................................. 29022

UCC FINANCING STATEMENT AMENDMENT ADDENDUM
29023

Follow instructions (front and back) carefully.
29024

11. INITIAL FINANCING STATEMENT FILE NUMBER (same as item 1a 29025
on amendment form) ............................................. 29026
12. NAME OF PARTY AUTHORIZING 29027
THIS AMENDMENT (same as item 9 29028
on amendment form) 29029
12a. Organization's name 29030
................................. 29031
or 29032
12b. Individual's last name 29033
................................. 29034
First name ...................... 29035
Middle name .......... Suffix ... The above space is for filing office use only. 29036
13. Use this space for additional information. 29037
................................................................... 29038
................................................................... 29039
................................................................... 29040

................................................................... 29041

       Sec. 1321.51.  As used in sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the 29042
Revised Code:29043

       (A) "Person" means an individual, partnership, association, 29044
trust, corporation, or any other legal entity.29045

       (B) "Certificate" means a certificate of registration issued 29046
under sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code.29047

       (C) "Registrant" means a person to whom one or more 29048
certificates of registration have been issued under sections 29049
1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code.29050

       (D) "Principal amount" means the amount of cash paid to, or 29051
paid or payable for the account of, the borrower, and includes any 29052
charge, fee, or expense that is financed by the borrower at 29053
origination of the loan or during the term of the loan.29054

       (E) "Interest" means all charges payable directly or 29055
indirectly by a borrower to a registrant as a condition to a loan 29056
or an application for a loan, however denominated, but does not 29057
include default charges, deferment charges, insurance charges or 29058
premiums, court costs, loan origination charges, check collection 29059
charges, credit line charges, points, prepayment penalties, or 29060
other fees and charges specifically authorized by law.29061

       (F) "Interest-bearing loan" means a loan in which the debt is 29062
expressed as the principal amount and interest is computed, 29063
charged, and collected on unpaid principal balances outstanding 29064
from time to time.29065

       (G) "Precomputed loan" means a loan in which the debt is a 29066
sum comprising the principal amount and the amount of interest 29067
computed in advance on the assumption that all scheduled payments 29068
will be made when due.29069

       (H) "Actuarial method" means the method of allocating 29070
payments made on a loan between the principal amount and interest 29071
whereby a payment is applied first to the accumulated interest and 29072
the remainder to the unpaid principal amount.29073

       (I) "Applicable charge" means the amount of interest 29074
attributable to each monthly installment period of the loan 29075
contract. The applicable charge is computed as if each installment 29076
period were one month and any charge for extending the first 29077
installment period beyond one month is ignored. In the case of 29078
loans originally scheduled to be repaid in sixty-one months or 29079
less, the applicable charge for any installment period is that 29080
proportion of the total interest contracted for, as the balance 29081
scheduled to be outstanding during that period bears to the sum of 29082
all of the periodic balances, all determined according to the 29083
payment schedule originally contracted for. In all other cases, 29084
the applicable charge for any installment period is that which 29085
would have been made for such period had the loan been made on an 29086
interest-bearing basis, based upon the assumption that all 29087
payments were made according to schedule.29088

       (J) "Broker" means a person who acts as an intermediary or 29089
agent in finding, arranging, or negotiating loans, other than 29090
residential mortgage loans, and charges or receives a fee for 29091
these services.29092

       (K) "Annual percentage rate" means the ratio of the interest 29093
on a loan to the unpaid principal balances on the loan for any 29094
period of time, expressed on an annual basis.29095

       (L) "Point" means a charge equal to one per cent of either of 29096
the following:29097

       (1) The principal amount of a precomputed loan or 29098
interest-bearing loan;29099

       (2) The original credit line of an open-end loan.29100

       (M) "Prepayment penalty" means a charge for prepayment of a 29101
loan at any time prior to five years from the date the loan 29102
contract is executed.29103

       (N) "Refinancing" means a loan the proceeds of which are used 29104
in whole or in part to pay the unpaid balance of a prior loan made 29105
by the same registrant to the same borrower under sections 1321.51 29106
to 1321.60 of the Revised Code.29107

       (O) "Superintendent of financial institutions" includes the 29108
deputy superintendent for consumer finance as provided in section 29109
1181.21 of the Revised Code.29110

       (P)(1) "Mortgage loan originator" means an individual who for 29111
compensation or gain, or in anticipation of compensation or gain, 29112
does any of the following:29113

       (a) Takes or offers to take a residential mortgage loan 29114
application; 29115

       (b) Assists or offers to assist a borrower in obtaining or 29116
applying to obtain a residential mortgage loan by, among other 29117
things, advising on loan terms, including rates, fees, and other 29118
costs; 29119

       (c) Offers or negotiates terms of a residential mortgage 29120
loan; 29121

       (d) Issues or offers to issue a commitment for a residential 29122
mortgage loan to a borrower.29123

       (2) "Mortgage loan originator" does not include any of the 29124
following: 29125

       (a) An individual who performs purely administrative or 29126
clerical tasks on behalf of a mortgage loan originator; 29127

       (b) A person licensed pursuant to Chapter 4735. of the 29128
Revised Code, or under the similar law of another state, who 29129
performs only real estate brokerage activities permitted by that 29130
license, provided the person is not compensated by a mortgage 29131
lender, mortgage broker, mortgage loan originator, or by any agent 29132
thereof;29133

       (c) A person solely involved in extensions of credit relating 29134
to timeshare plans, as that term is defined in 11 U.S.C. 101, in 29135
effect on January 1, 2009;29136

       (d) A person acting solely as a loan processor or 29137
underwriter, who does not represent to the public, through 29138
advertising or other means of communicating, including the use of 29139
business cards, stationery, brochures, signs, rate lists, or other 29140
promotional items, that the person can or will perform any of the 29141
activities of a mortgage loan originator; 29142

       (e) A loan originator licensed under sections 1322.01 to 29143
1322.12 of the Revised Code, when acting solely under that 29144
authority; 29145

       (f) A licensed attorney who negotiates the terms of a 29146
residential mortgage loan on behalf of a client as an ancillary 29147
matter to the attorney's representation of the client, unless the 29148
attorney is compensated by a lender, a mortgage broker, or another 29149
mortgage loan originator, or by any agent thereof;29150

       (g) Any person engaged in the retail sale of manufactured 29151
homes, mobile homes, or industrialized units if, in connection 29152
with financing those retail sales, the person only assists the 29153
borrower by providing or transmitting the loan application and 29154
does not do any of the following:29155

       (i) Offer or negotiate the residential mortgage loan rates or 29156
terms;29157

       (ii) Provide any counseling with borrowers about residential 29158
mortgage loan rates or terms;29159

       (iii) Receive any payment or fee from any company or 29160
individual for assisting the borrower obtain or apply for 29161
financing to purchase the manufactured home, mobile home, or 29162
industrialized unit;29163

       (iv) Assist the borrower in completing the residential 29164
mortgage loan application.29165

       (3) An individual acting exclusively as a servicer engaging 29166
in loss mitigation efforts with respect to existing mortgage 29167
transactions shall not be considered a mortgage loan originator 29168
for purposes of sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code 29169
until July 1, 2011, unless such delay is denied by the United 29170
States department of housing and urban development.29171

       (Q) "Residential mortgage loan" means any loan primarily for 29172
personal, family, or household use that is secured by a mortgage, 29173
deed of trust, or other equivalent consensual security interest on 29174
a dwelling or on residential real estate upon which is constructed 29175
or intended to be constructed a dwelling. For purposes of this 29176
division, "dwelling" has the same meaning as in the "Truth in 29177
Lending Act," 82 Stat. 146, 15 U.S.C. 1602.29178

       (R) "Nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry" or 29179
"NMLS" means a mortgage licensing system developed and maintained 29180
by the conference of state bank supervisors and the American 29181
association of residential mortgage regulators, or their successor 29182
entities, for the licensing and registration of mortgage loan 29183
originators, or any system established by the secretary of housing 29184
and urban development pursuant to the "Secure and Fair Enforcement 29185
for Mortgage Licensing Act of 2008," 122 Stat. 2810, 12 U.S.C. 29186
5101.29187

       (S) "Registered mortgage loan originator" means an individual 29188
to whom both of the following apply: 29189

       (1) The individual is a mortgage loan originator and an 29190
employee of a depository institution, a subsidiary that is owned 29191
and controlled by a depository institution and regulated by a 29192
federal banking agency, or an institution regulated by the farm 29193
credit administration.29194

       (2) The individual is registered with, and maintains a unique 29195
identifier through, the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 29196
registryNMLS. 29197

       (T) "Administrative or clerical tasks" means the receipt, 29198
collection, and distribution of information common for the 29199
processing or underwriting of a loan in the mortgage industry, and 29200
communication with a consumer to obtain information necessary for 29201
the processing or underwriting of a residential mortgage loan.29202

       (U) "Federal banking agency" means the board of governors of 29203
the federal reserve system, the comptroller of the currency, the 29204
director of the office of thrift supervision, the national credit 29205
union administration, and the federal deposit insurance 29206
corporation.29207

       (V) "Loan processor or underwriter" means an individual who 29208
performs clerical or support duties at the direction of and 29209
subject to the supervision and instruction of a licensed mortgage 29210
loan originator or registered mortgage loan originator. For 29211
purposes of this division, to "perform clerical or support duties" 29212
means to do all of the following activities:29213

       (1) Receiving, collecting, distributing, and analyzing 29214
information common for the processing or underwriting of a 29215
residential mortgage loan; 29216

       (2) Communicating with a borrower to obtain the information 29217
necessary for the processing or underwriting of a loan, to the 29218
extent the communication does not include offering or negotiating 29219
loan rates or terms or counseling borrowers about residential 29220
mortgage loan rates or terms.29221

       (W) "Real estate brokerage activity" means any activity that 29222
involves offering or providing real estate brokerage services to 29223
the public, including all of the following:29224

       (1) Acting as a real estate agent or real estate broker for a 29225
buyer, seller, lessor, or lessee of real property; 29226

       (2) Bringing together parties interested in the sale, 29227
purchase, lease, rental, or exchange of real property; 29228

       (3) Negotiating, on behalf of any party, any portion of a 29229
contract relating to the sale, purchase, lease, rental, or 29230
exchange of real property, other than in connection with providing 29231
financing for any such transaction; 29232

       (4) Engaging in any activity for which a person engaged in 29233
that activity is required to be registered or licensed as a real 29234
estate agent or real estate broker under any applicable law; 29235

       (5) Offering to engage in any activity, or to act in any 29236
capacity, described in division (W) of this section.29237

       (X) "Licensee" means any person that has been issued a 29238
mortgage loan originator license under sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 29239
of the Revised Code.29240

       (Y) "Unique identifier" means a number or other identifier 29241
that permanently identifies a mortgage loan originator and is 29242
assigned by protocols established by the nationwide mortgage 29243
licensing system and registryNMLS or federal banking agencies to 29244
facilitate electronic tracking of mortgage loan originators and 29245
uniform identification of, and public access to, the employment 29246
history of and the publicly adjudicated disciplinary and 29247
enforcement actions against mortgage loan originators.29248

       (Z) "State" in the context of referring to states in addition 29249
to Ohio means any state of the United States, the district of 29250
Columbia, any territory of the United States, Puerto Rico, Guam, 29251
American Samoa, the trust territory of the Pacific islands, the 29252
virgin islands, and the northern Mariana islands.29253

       (AA) "Depository institution" has the same meaning as in 29254
section 3 of the "Federal Deposit Insurance Act," 64 Stat. 873, 12 29255
U.S.C. 1813, and includes any credit union.29256

       (BB) "Bona fide third party" means a person that is not an 29257
employee of, related to, or affiliated with, the registrant, and 29258
that is not used for the purpose of circumvention or evasion of 29259
sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code.29260

       (CC) "Nontraditional mortgage product" means any mortgage 29261
product other than a thirty-year fixed rate mortgage.29262

       (DD) "Employee" means an individual for whom a registrant or 29263
applicant, in addition to providing a wage or salary, pays social 29264
security and unemployment taxes, provides workers' compensation 29265
coverage, and withholds local, state, and federal income taxes. 29266
"Employee" also includes any individual who acts as a mortgage 29267
loan originator or operations manager of the registrant, but for 29268
whom the registrant is prevented by law from making income tax 29269
withholdings.29270

       (EE) "Primary point of contact" means the employee or owner 29271
designated by the registrant or applicant to be the individual who 29272
the division of financial institutions can contact regarding 29273
compliance or licensing matters relating to the registrant's or 29274
applicant's business or lending activities secured by an interest 29275
in real estate.29276

       (FF) "Consumer reporting agency" has the same meaning as in 29277
the "Fair Credit Reporting Act," 84 Stat. 1128, 15 U.S.C. 1681a, 29278
as amended.29279

       (GG) "Mortgage broker" has the same meaning as in section 29280
1322.01 of the Revised Code.29281

       Sec. 1321.535.  (A) Each applicant for a mortgage loan 29282
originator license shall submit to a written test that is 29283
developed and approved by the nationwide mortgage licensing system 29284
and registryNMLS and administered by a test provider approved by 29285
the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registryNMLS based 29286
upon reasonable standards.29287

       (1) The test shall adequately measure the applicant's 29288
knowledge and comprehension in appropriate subject matters, 29289
including ethics and federal and state law related to mortgage 29290
origination, fraud, consumer protection, the nontraditional 29291
mortgage marketplace, and fair lending issues.29292

       (2) An individual shall not be considered to have passed the 29293
test unless the individual achieves a test score of at least 29294
seventy-five per cent correct answers on all questions and at 29295
least seventy-five per cent correct answers on all questions 29296
relating to Ohio mortgage lending laws and the Ohio consumer sales 29297
practices act, Chapter 1345. of the Revised Code, as it applies to 29298
registrants and licensees.29299

       (3) An individual may retake the test three consecutive times 29300
provided the period between taking the tests is at least thirty 29301
days.29302

       (4) After failing three consecutive tests, an individual 29303
shall be required to wait at least six months before taking the 29304
test again.29305

       (5) If a mortgage loan originator fails to maintain a valid 29306
license for a period of five years or longer, the individual shall 29307
be required to retake the test. For this purpose, any time during 29308
which the individual is a registered mortgage loan originator 29309
shall not be taken into account.29310

       (B) Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, if the 29311
nationwide mortgage licensing system and registryNMLS fails to 29312
have in place a testing process that meets the criteria set forth 29313
in that division, the superintendent shall require, until that 29314
process is in place, evidence that the mortgage loan originator 29315
applicant passed a written test acceptable to the superintendent.29316

       Sec. 1321.55.  (A) Every registrant shall keep records 29317
pertaining to loans made under sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the 29318
Revised Code. Such records shall be segregated from records 29319
pertaining to transactions that are not subject to these sections 29320
of the Revised Code. Every registrant shall preserve records 29321
pertaining to loans made under sections 1321.51 to 1321.60 of the 29322
Revised Code for at least two years after making the final entry 29323
on such records. Accounting systems maintained in whole or in part 29324
by mechanical or electronic data processing methods that provide 29325
information equivalent to that otherwise required are acceptable 29326
for this purpose. At least once each eighteen-month cycle, the 29327
division of financial institutions shall make or cause to be made 29328
an examination of records pertaining to loans made under sections 29329
1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code, for the purpose of 29330
determining whether the registrant is complying with these 29331
sections and of verifying the registrant's annual report.29332

       (B)(1) As required by the superintendent of financial 29333
institutions, each registrant shall file with the division each 29334
year a report under oath or affirmation, on forms supplied by the 29335
division, concerning the business and operations for the preceding 29336
calendar year. Whenever a registrant operates two or more 29337
registered offices or whenever two or more affiliated registrants 29338
operate registered offices, then a composite report of the group 29339
of registered offices may be filed in lieu of individual reports.29340

       (2) The division shall publish annually an analysis of the 29341
information required under division (B)(1) of this section, but 29342
the individual reports shall not be public records and shall not 29343
be open to public inspection.29344

       (3) Each mortgage licensee shall submit to the nationwide 29345
mortgage licensing system and registryNMLS call reports or other 29346
reports of condition, which shall be in such form and shall 29347
contain such information as the nationwide mortgage licensing 29348
system and registryNMLS may require.29349

       (4) If the division obtains a call report from the NMLS, the 29350
call report is confidential and not a public record for the 29351
purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code.29352

       (C)(1) The following information is confidential:29353

       (a) Examination information, and any information leading to 29354
or arising from an examination;29355

       (b) Investigation information, and any information arising 29356
from or leading to an investigation.29357

       (2) The information described in division (C)(1) of this 29358
section shall remain confidential for all purposes except when it 29359
is necessary for the superintendent to take official action 29360
regarding the affairs of a registrant or licensee, or in 29361
connection with criminal or civil proceedings to be initiated by a 29362
prosecuting attorney or the attorney general. This information may 29363
also be introduced into evidence or disclosed when and in the 29364
manner authorized by section 1181.25 of the Revised Code.29365

       (D) All application information, except social security 29366
numbers, employer identification numbers, financial account 29367
numbers, the identity of the institution where financial accounts 29368
are maintained, personal financial information, fingerprint cards 29369
and the information contained on such cards, and criminal 29370
background information, is a public record as defined in section 29371
149.43 of the Revised Code.29372

       (E) This section does not prevent the division of financial 29373
institutions from releasing to or exchanging with other financial 29374
institution regulatory authorities information relating to 29375
registrants and licensees. For this purpose, a "financial 29376
institution regulatory authority" includes a regulator of a 29377
business activity in which a registrant or licensee is engaged, or 29378
has applied to engage in, to the extent that the regulator has 29379
jurisdiction over a registrant or licensee engaged in that 29380
business activity. A registrant or licensee is engaged in a 29381
business activity, and a regulator of that business activity has 29382
jurisdiction over the registrant or licensee, whether the 29383
registrant or licensee conducts the activity directly or a 29384
subsidiary or affiliate of the registrant or licensee conducts the 29385
activity. 29386

       (1) Any confidentiality or privilege arising under federal or 29387
state law with respect to any information or material provided to 29388
the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registryNMLS shall 29389
continue to apply to the information or material after the 29390
information or material has been provided to the nationwide 29391
mortgage licensing system and registryNMLS. The information and 29392
material so provided may be shared with all state and federal 29393
regulatory officials with mortgage industry oversight authority 29394
without the loss of confidentiality or privilege protections 29395
provided by federal law or the law of any state. Information or 29396
material described in division (E)(1) of this section to which 29397
confidentiality or privilege applies shall not be subject to any 29398
of the following: 29399

       (a) Disclosure under any federal or state law governing 29400
disclosure to the public of information held by an officer or an 29401
agency of the federal government or of the respective state; 29402

       (b) Subpoena or discovery, or admission into evidence, in any 29403
private civil action or administrative process, unless the person 29404
to whom such information or material pertains waives, in whole or 29405
in part and at the discretion of the person, any privilege held by 29406
the nationwide mortgage licensing system and registryNMLS with 29407
respect to that information or material.29408

       (2) The superintendent, in order to promote more effective 29409
regulation and reduce regulatory burden through supervisory 29410
information sharing, may enter into sharing arrangements with 29411
other governmental agencies, the conference of state bank 29412
supervisors, and the American association of residential mortgage 29413
regulators. 29414

       (3) Any state law, including section 149.43 of the Revised 29415
Code, relating to the disclosure of confidential supervisory 29416
information or any information or material described in division 29417
(C)(1) or (E)(1) of this section that is inconsistent with this 29418
section shall be superseded by the requirements of this section.29419

       (F) This section shall not apply with respect to information 29420
or material relating to the employment history of, and publicly 29421
adjudicated disciplinary and enforcement actions against, mortgage 29422
loan originators that is included in the nationwide mortgage 29423
licensing system and registryNMLS for access by the public.29424

       (G) This section does not prevent the division from releasing 29425
information relating to registrants and licensees to the attorney 29426
general, to the superintendent of real estate and professional 29427
licensing for purposes relating to the administration of Chapters 29428
4735. and 4763. of the Revised Code, to the superintendent of 29429
insurance for purposes relating to the administration of Chapter 29430
3953. of the Revised Code, to the commissioner of securities for 29431
purposes relating to the administration of Chapter 1707. of the 29432
Revised Code, or to local law enforcement agencies and local 29433
prosecutors. Information the division releases pursuant to this 29434
section remains confidential.29435

       (H) The superintendent of financial institutions shall, by 29436
rule adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 29437
establish a process by which mortgage loan originators may 29438
challenge information provided to the nationwide mortgage 29439
licensing system and registryNMLS by the superintendent. 29440

       (I) No person, in connection with any examination or 29441
investigation conducted by the superintendent under sections 29442
1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code, shall knowingly do any of 29443
the following:29444

       (1) Circumvent, interfere with, obstruct, or fail to 29445
cooperate, including making a false or misleading statement, 29446
failing to produce records, or intimidating or suborning any 29447
witness;29448

       (2) Withhold, abstract, remove, mutilate, destroy, or secrete 29449
any books, records, computer records, or other information; 29450

       (3) Tamper with, alter, or manufacture any evidence.29451

       Sec. 1322.01.  As used in sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the 29452
Revised Code:29453

       (A) "Buyer" means an individual who is solicited to purchase 29454
or who purchases the services of a mortgage broker for purposes of 29455
obtaining a residential mortgage loan.29456

       (B) "Consumer reporting agency" has the same meaning as in 29457
the "Fair Credit Reporting Act," 84 Stat. 1128, 15 U.S.C.A. 1681a, 29458
as amended.29459

       (C) "Employee" means an individual for whom a mortgage 29460
broker, in addition to providing a wage or salary, pays social 29461
security and unemployment taxes, provides workers' compensation 29462
coverage, and withholds local, state, and federal income taxes. 29463
"Employee" also includes any individual who acts as a loan 29464
originator or operations manager of a registrant, but for whom the 29465
registrant is prevented by law from making income tax 29466
withholdings.29467

       (D) "Licensee" means any individual who has been issued a 29468
loan originator license under sections 1322.01 to 1322.12 of the 29469
Revised Code.29470

       (E)(1) "Loan originator" means an individual who for 29471
compensation or gain, or in anticipation of compensation or gain, 29472
does any of the following:29473

       (a) Takes or offers to take a residential mortgage loan 29474
application;29475

       (b) Assists or offers to assist a buyer in obtaining or 29476
applying to obtain a residential mortgage loan by, among other 29477
things, advising on loan terms, including rates, fees, and other 29478
costs;29479

       (c) Offers or negotiates terms of a residential mortgage 29480
loan;29481

       (d) Issues or offers to issue a commitment for a residential 29482
mortgage loan to a buyer.29483

       (2) "Loan originator" does not include any of the following:29484

       (a) An individual who performs purely administrative or 29485
clerical tasks on behalf of a loan originator;29486

       (b) A person licensed under Chapter 4735. of the Revised 29487
Code, or under the similar law of another state, who performs only 29488
real estate brokerage activities permitted by that license, 29489
provided the person is not compensated by a mortgage lender, 29490
mortgage broker, loan originator, or by any agent thereof; 29491

       (c) A person solely involved in extensions of credit relating 29492
to timeshare plans, as that term is defined in 11 U.S.C. 101 in 29493
effect on January 1, 2009;29494

       (d) An employee of a registrant who acts solely as a loan 29495
processor or underwriter and who does not represent to the public, 29496
through advertising or other means of communicating, including the 29497
use of business cards, stationery, brochures, signs, rate lists, 29498
or other promotional items, that the employee can or will perform 29499
any of the activities of a loan originator;29500

       (e) A mortgage loan originator licensed under sections 29501
1321.51 to 1321.60 of the Revised Code, when acting solely under 29502
that authority; 29503

       (f) A licensed attorney who negotiates the terms of a 29504
residential mortgage loan on behalf of a client as an ancillary 29505
matter to the attorney's representation of the client, unless the 29506
attorney is compensated by a lender, a mortgage broker, or another 29507
loan originator, or by any agent thereof;29508

       (g) Any person engaged in the retail sale of manufactured 29509
homes, mobile homes, or industrialized units if, in connection 29510
with financing those retail sales, the person only assists the 29511
borrower by providing or transmitting the loan application and 29512
does not do any of the following:29513

       (i) Offer or negotiate the residential mortgage loan rates or 29514
terms;29515

       (ii) Provide any counseling with borrowers about residential 29516
mortgage loan rates or terms;29517

       (iii) Receive any payment or fee from any company or 29518
individual for assisting the borrower obtain or apply for 29519
financing to purchase the manufactured home, mobile home, or 29520
industrialized unit;29521

       (iv) Assist the borrower in completing a residential mortgage 29522
loan application.29523

       (h) An individual employed by a nonprofit organization that 29524
is recognized as tax exempt under 26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3) and whose 29525
primary activity is the construction, remodeling, or 29526
rehabilitation of homes for use by low-income families, provided 29527
that the nonprofit organization makes no-profit mortgage loans or 29528
mortgage loans at zero per cent interest to low-income families 29529
and no fees accrue directly to the nonprofit organization or 29530
individual employed by the nonprofit organization from those 29531
mortgage loans and that the United States department of housing 29532
and urban development does not deny this exemption.29533

       (F) "Mortgage" means any indebtedness secured by a deed of 29534
trust, security deed, or other lien on real property.29535

       (G)(1) "Mortgage broker" means any of the following:29536

       (a) A person that holds that person out as being able to 29537
assist a buyer in obtaining a mortgage and charges or receives 29538
from either the buyer or lender money or other valuable 29539
consideration readily convertible into money for providing this 29540
assistance;29541

       (b) A person that solicits financial and mortgage information 29542
from the public, provides that information to a mortgage broker or 29543
a person that makes residential mortgage loans, and charges or 29544
receives from either of them money or other valuable consideration 29545
readily convertible into money for providing the information;29546

       (c) A person engaged in table-funding or warehouse-lending 29547
mortgage loans that are first lien residential mortgage loans.29548

       (2) "Mortgage broker" does not include any of the following 29549
persons only with respect to business engaged in or authorized by 29550
the person's charter, license, authority, approval, or 29551
certificate, or as otherwise authorized by division (G)(2)(h) of 29552
this section:29553

       (a) A person that makes residential mortgage loans and 29554
receives a scheduled payment on each of those mortgage loans;29555

       (b) Any entity chartered and lawfully doing business under 29556
the authority of any law of this state, another state, or the 29557
United States as a bank, savings bank, trust company, savings and 29558
loan association, or credit union, or a subsidiary of any such 29559
entity, which subsidiary is regulated by a federal banking agency 29560
and is owned and controlled by a depository institution;29561

       (c) A consumer reporting agency that is in substantial 29562
compliance with the "Fair Credit Reporting Act," 84 Stat. 1128, 15 29563
U.S.C.A. 1681a, as amended;29564

       (d) Any political subdivision, or any governmental or other 29565
public entity, corporation, instrumentality, or agency, in or of 29566
the United States or any state;29567

       (e) A college or university, or controlled entity of a 29568
college or university, as those terms are defined in section 29569
1713.05 of the Revised Code; 29570

       (f) Any entity created solely for the purpose of securitizing 29571
loans secured by an interest in real estate, provided the entity 29572
does not service the loans. For purposes of division (G)(2)(f) of 29573
this section, "securitizing" means the packaging and sale of 29574
mortgage loans as a unit for sale as investment securities, but 29575
only to the extent of those activities. 29576

       (g) Any person engaged in the retail sale of manufactured 29577
homes, mobile homes, or industrialized units if, in connection 29578
with obtaining financing by others for those retail sales, the 29579
person only assists the borrower by providing or transmitting the 29580
loan application and does not do any of the following:29581

       (i) Offer or negotiate the residential mortgage loan rates or 29582
terms;29583

       (ii) Provide any counseling with borrowers about residential 29584
mortgage loan rates or terms;29585

       (iii) Receive any payment or fee from any company or 29586
individual for assisting the borrower obtain or apply for 29587
financing to purchase the manufactured home, mobile home, or 29588
industrialized unit;29589

       (iv) Assist the borrower in completing the residential 29590
mortgage loan application.29591

       (h) A mortgage banker, provided it complies with section 29592
1322.022 of the Revised Code and holds a valid letter of exemption 29593
issued by the superintendent. For purposes of this section, 29594
"mortgage banker" means any person that makes, services, buys, or 29595
sells residential mortgage loans secured by a first lien, that 29596
underwrites the loans, and that meets at least one of the 29597
following criteria:29598

       (i) The person has been directly approved by the United 29599
States department of housing and urban development as a 29600
nonsupervised mortgagee with participation in the direct 29601
endorsement program. Division (G)(2)(h)(i) of this section 29602
includes a person that has been directly approved by the United 29603
States department of housing and urban development as a 29604
nonsupervised mortgagee with participation in the direct 29605
endorsement program and that makes loans in excess of the 29606
applicable loan limit set by the federal national mortgage 29607
association, provided that the loans in all respects, except loan 29608
amounts, comply with the underwriting and documentation 29609
requirements of the United States department of housing and urban 29610
development. Division (G)(2)(h)(i) of this section does not 29611
include a mortgagee approved as a loan correspondent.29612

       (ii) The person has been directly approved by the federal 29613
national mortgage association as a seller/servicer. Division 29614
(G)(2)(h)(ii) of this section includes a person that has been 29615
directly approved by the federal national mortgage association as 29616
a seller/servicer and that makes loans in excess of the applicable 29617
loan limit set by the federal national mortgage association, 29618
provided that the loans in all respects, except loan amounts, 29619
comply with the underwriting and documentation requirements of the 29620
federal national mortgage association.29621

       (iii) The person has been directly approved by the federal 29622
home loan mortgage corporation as a seller/servicer. Division 29623
(G)(2)(h)(iii) of this section includes a person that has been 29624
directly approved by the federal home loan mortgage corporation as 29625
a seller/servicer and that makes loans in excess of the applicable 29626
loan limit set by the federal home loan mortgage corporation, 29627
provided that the loans in all respects, except loan amounts, 29628
comply with the underwriting and documentation requirements of the 29629
federal home loan mortgage corporation.29630

       (iv) The person has been directly approved by the United 29631
States department of veterans affairs as a nonsupervised automatic 29632
lender. Division (G)(2)(h)(iv) of this section does not include a 29633
person directly approved by the United States department of 29634
veterans affairs as a nonsupervised lender, an agent of a 29635
nonsupervised automatic lender, or an agent of a nonsupervised 29636
lender.29637

       (i) A nonprofit organization that is recognized as tax exempt 29638
under 26 U.S.C. 501(c)(3) and whose primary activity is the 29639
construction, remodeling, or rehabilitation of homes for use by 29640
low-income families, provided that the nonprofit organization 29641
makes no-profit mortgage loans or mortgage loans at zero per cent 29642
interest to low-income families and no fees accrue directly to the 29643
nonprofit organization from those mortgage loans and that the 29644
United States department of housing and urban development does not 29645
deny this exemption.29646

       (j) A credit union service organization, provided that the 29647
organization utilizes services provided by registered loan 29648
originators or that it holds a valid letter of exemption issued by 29649
the superintendent under section 1322.023 of the Revised Code and 29650
complies with that section.29651

       (H) "Operations manager" means the employee or owner 29652
responsible for the everyday operations, compliance requirements, 29653
and management of a mortgage broker business.29654

       (I) "Registered loan originator" means an individual to whom 29655
both of the following apply:29656

       (1) The individual is a loan originator and an employee of a 29657
depository institution, a subsidiary that is owned and controlled 29658
by a depository institution and regulated by a federal banking 29659
agency, or an institution regulated by the farm credit 29660
administration.29661

       (2) The individual is registered with, and maintains a unique 29662
identifier through, the nationwide mortgage licensing system and 29663
registryNMLS.29664

       (J) "Registrant" means any person that has been issued a 29665
mortgage broker certificate of registration under sections 1322.01 29666
to 1322.12 of the Revised Code.29667

       (K) "Superintendent of financial institutions" includes the 29668
deputy superintendent for consumer finance as provided in section 29669
1181.21 of the Revised Code.29670

       (L) "Table-funding mortgage loan" means a residential 29671
mortgage loan transaction in which the residential mortgage loan 29672
is initially payable to the mortgage broker, the mortgage broker 29673
does not use the mortgage broker's own funds to fund the 29674
transaction, and, by the terms of the mortgage or other agreement, 29675
the mortgage is simultaneously assigned to another person.29676

       (M) "Warehouse-lending mortgage loan" means a residential 29677
mortgage loan transaction in which the residential mortgage loan 29678
is initially payable to the mortgage broker, the mortgage broker 29679
uses the mortgage broker's own funds to fund the transaction, and 29680
the mortgage is sold or assigned before the mortgage broker 29681
receives a scheduled payment on the residential mortgage loan.29682

       (N) "Administrative or clerical tasks" means the receipt, 29683
collection, and distribution of information common for the 29684
processing or underwriting of a loan in the mortgage industry, and 29685
communication with a consumer to obtain information necessary for 29686
the processing or underwriting of a residential mortgage loan.29687

       (O) "Appraisal company" means a sole proprietorship, 29688
partnership, corporation, limited liability company, or any other 29689
business entity or association, that employs or retains the 29690
services of a person licensed or certified under Chapter 4763. of 29691
the Revised Code for purposes of performing residential real 29692
estate appraisals for mortgage loans.29693

       (P) "Depository institution" has the same meaning as in 29694
section 3 of the "Federal Deposit Insurance Act," 64 Stat. 873, 12 29695
U.S.C. 1813, and includes any credit union. 29696

       (Q) "Federal banking agency" means the board of governors of 29697
the federal reserve system, the comptroller of the currency, the 29698
director of the office of thrift supervision, the national credit 29699
union administration, and the federal deposit insurance 29700
corporation.29701

       (R) "Immediate family" means an individual's spouse, child, 29702
stepchild, parent, stepparent, grandparent, grandchild, brother, 29703
sister, parent-in-law, brother-in-law, or sister-in-law.29704

       (S) "Individual" means a natural person.29705

       (T) "Loan processor or underwriter" means an individual who 29706
performs clerical or support duties at the direction of and 29707
subject to the supervision and instruction of a licensed loan 29708
originator or registered loan originator. For purposes of this 29709
division, to "perform clerical or support duties" means to do all 29710
of the following activities:29711

       (1) Receiving, collecting, distributing, and analyzing 29712
information common for the processing or underwriting of a 29713
residential mortgage loan;29714

       (2) Communicating with a buyer to obtain the information 29715
necessary for the processing or underwriting of a loan, to the 29716
extent the communication does not include offering or negotiating 29717
loan rates or terms or counseling buyers about residential 29718
mortgage loan rates or terms.29719

       (U) "Nationwide mortgage licensing system and registry" or 29720
"NMLS" means a mortgage licensing system developed and maintained 29721
by the conference of state bank supervisors and the American 29722
association of residential mortgage regulators, or their successor 29723
entities, for the licensing and registration of loan originators, 29724
or any system established by the secretary of housing and urban 29725
development pursuant to the "Secure and Fair Enforcement for 29726
Mortgage Licensing Act of 2008," 122 Stat. 2810, 12 U.S.C. 5101.29727

       (V) "Nontraditional mortgage product" means any mortgage 29728
product other than a thirty-year fixed rate mortgage.29729

       (W) "Real estate brokerage activity" means any activity that 29730
involves offering or providing real estate brokerage services to 29731
the public, including all of the following:29732

       (1) Acting as a real estate agent or real estate broker for a 29733
buyer, seller, lessor, or lessee of real property;29734

       (2) Bringing together parties interested in the sale, 29735
purchase, lease, rental, or exchange of real property, other than 29736
in connection with providing financing for any such transaction;29737

       (3) Negotiating, on behalf of any party, any portion of a 29738
contract relating to the sale, purchase, lease, rental, or 29739
exchange of real property, other than in connection with providing 29740
financing for any such transaction;29741

       (4) Engaging in any activity for which a person engaged in 29742
that activity is required to be registered or licensed as a real 29743
estate agent or real estate broker under any applicable law;29744

       (5) Offering to engage in any activity, or to act in any 29745
capacity, described in division (W) of this section.29746

       (X) "Residential mortgage loan" means any loan primarily for 29747
personal, family, or household use that is secured by a mortgage 29748
or other equivalent consensual security interest on a dwelling or 29749
on residential real estate upon which is constructed or intended 29750
to be constructed a dwelling. For purposes of this division, 29751
"dwelling" has the same meaning as in section 103 of the "Truth in 29752
Lending Act," 82 Stat. 146, 15 U.S.C. 1602.29753

       (Y) "State," in the context of referring to states in 29754
addition to Ohio, means any state of the United States, the 29755
district of Columbia, any territory of the United States, Puerto 29756
Rico, Guam, American Samoa, the trust territory of the Pacific 29757
islands, the virgin islands, and the northern Mariana islands.29758

       (Z) "Unique identifier" means a number or other identifier 29759
that permanently identifies a loan originator and is assigned by 29760
protocols established by the nationwide mortgage licensing system 29761
and registryNMLS or federal banking agencies to facilitate 29762
electronic tracking of loan originators and uniform identification 29763
of, and public access to, the employment history of and the 29764
publicly adjudicated disciplinary and enforcement actions against 29765
loan originators.29766

       Sec. 1322.051.  (A) Each person designated under division 29767
(A)(3) of section 1322.03 of the Revised Code to act as operations 29768
manager for a mortgage broker business shall submit to a written 29769
test approved by the superintendent of financial institutions. An 29770
individual shall not be considered to have passed the written test 29771
unless the individual achieves a test score of at least 29772
seventy-five per cent correct answers to all questions.29773

       (B) Each applicant for a loan originator license shall submit 29774
to a written test that is developed and approved by the nationwide 29775
mortgage licensing system and registryNMLS and administered by a 29776
test provider approved by the nationwide mortgage licensing system 29777
and registryNMLS based on reasonable standards.29778

       (1) The test shall adequately measure the applicant's 29779
knowledge and comprehension in appropriate subject areas, 29780
including ethics, federal and state law related to mortgage 29781
origination, fraud, consumer protection, and the nontraditional 29782
mortgage marketplace, and fair lending issues.29783

       (2) An individual shall not be considered to have passed the 29784
written test unless the individual achieves a test score of at 29785
least seventy-five per cent correct answers on all questions and 29786
at least seventy-five per cent correct answers on all questions 29787
relating to state mortgage lending laws and the Ohio consumer 29788
sales practices act, Chapter 1345. of the Revised Code, as it 29789
applies to registrants and licensees.29790

       (3) An individual may retake the test three consecutive times 29791
provided the period between taking the tests is at least thirty 29792
days. If an individual fails three consecutive tests, the 29793
individual shall be required to wait at least six months before 29794
taking the test again.29795

       (4) If a loan originator fails to maintain a valid loan 29796
originator license for a period of five years or longer, the 29797
individual shall be required to retake the test.29798

       For this purpose, any time during which the individual is a 29799
registered loan originator shall not be taken into account.29800

       (C) Notwithstanding division (B) of this section, until the 29801
nationwide mortgage licensing system and registryNMLS implements 29802
a testing process that meets the criteria set forth in that 29803
division, the superintendent shall require each applicant to pass 29804
a written test acceptable to the superintendent.29805

       Sec. 1327.46.  As used in sections 1327.46 to 1327.61 of the 29806
Revised Code:29807

       (A) "Weights and measures" means all weights and measures of 29808
every kind, instruments and devices for weighing and measuring, 29809
and any appliances and accessories associated with any such 29810
instruments and devices, except that "weights and measures" shall 29811
not be construed to include meters for the measurement of 29812
electricity, gas, whether natural or manufactured, or water when 29813
the same are operated in a public utility system. Such 29814
electricity, gas, and water meters, and appliances or accessories 29815
associated therewith, are specifically excluded from the purview 29816
of the weights and measures laws.29817

       (B) "Intrastate commerce" means all commerce or trade that is 29818
begun, carried on, and completed wholly within the limits of this 29819
state, and "introduced into intrastate commerce" defines the time 29820
and place in which the first sale and delivery of a commodity is 29821
made within the state, the delivery being made either directly to 29822
the purchaser or to a common carrier for shipment to the 29823
purchaser.29824

       (C) "Package" means any commodity put up or packaged in any 29825
manner in advance of sale in units suitable for either wholesale 29826
or retail sale.29827

       (D) "Consumer package" means a package that is customarily 29828
produced or distributed for sale through a retail sales agency for 29829
consumption by an individual or use by an individual.29830

       (E) "Weight" as used in connection with any commodity means 29831
net weight.29832

       (F) "Correct" as used in connection with weights and measures 29833
means conformity with all applicable requirements of sections 29834
1327.46 to 1327.61 of the Revised Code and rules adopted pursuant 29835
to those sections.29836

       (G) "PrimaryReference standards" means the physical 29837
standards of the state that serve as the legal reference from 29838
which all other standards and weights and measures are derived.29839

       (H) "SecondaryWorking standards" means the physical 29840
standards that are traceable to the primaryreference standards 29841
through comparisons, using acceptable laboratory procedures, and 29842
used in the enforcement of weights and measures laws and rules.29843

       (I) "Sale from bulk" means the sale of commodities when the 29844
quantity is determined at the time of sale.29845

       (J) "Net weight" means the weight of a commodity, excluding 29846
any materials, substances, or items not considered to be a part of 29847
the commodity. Materials, substances, or items not considered to 29848
be part of the commodity include, but are not limited to, 29849
containers, conveyances, bags, wrappers, packaging materials, 29850
labels, individual piece coverings, decorative accompaniments, and 29851
coupons.29852

       (K) "Random weight package" means a package that is one of a 29853
lot, shipment, or delivery of packages of the same commodity with 29854
no fixed pattern of weights.29855

       (L) "Sold" includes keeping, offering, or exposing for sale.29856

       (M) "Commercially used weighing and measuring device" means a 29857
device described in the national institute of standards and 29858
technology handbook 44 or its supplements and revisions and any 29859
other weighing and measuring device designated by rules adopted 29860
under division (C) of section 1327.50 of the Revised Code. 29861
"Commercially used weighing and measuring device" includes, but is 29862
not limited to, a livestock scale, vehicle scale, railway scale, 29863
vehicle tank meter, bulk rack meter, and LPG meter.29864

       (N) "Livestock scale" means a scale equipped with stock racks 29865
and gates that is adapted to weighing livestock standing on the 29866
scale platform.29867

       (O) "Vehicle scale" means a scale that is adapted to weighing 29868
highway, farm, or other large industrial vehicles other than 29869
railroad cars.29870

       (P) "Railway scale" means a rail scale that is designed to 29871
weigh railroad cars.29872

       (Q) "Vehicle tank meter" means a vehicle mounted device that 29873
is designed for the measurement and delivery of liquid products 29874
from a tank.29875

       (R) "Bulk rack meter" means a wholesale device, usually 29876
mounted on a rack, that is designed for the measurement and 29877
delivery of liquid products.29878

       (S) "LPG meter" means a system, including a mechanism or 29879
machine of the meter type, that is designed to measure and deliver 29880
liquefied petroleum gas in the liquid state by a definite quantity 29881
whether installed in a permanent location or mounted on a vehicle.29882

       (T) "Service person" means an individual who installs, 29883
services, repairs, reconditions, or places into service a 29884
commercially used weighing and measuring device for any type of 29885
compensation.29886

       Sec. 1327.48.  Weights and measures that are traceable to the 29887
United States prototype standards supplied by the federal 29888
government, or approved as being satisfactory by the national 29889
institute of standards and technology, shall be the state primary29890
reference standards of weights and measures, and shall be 29891
maintained in such calibration as is prescribed by the national 29892
institute of standards and technology. All secondaryworking29893
standards may be prescribed by the director of agriculture and 29894
shall be verified upon their initial receipt, and as often as 29895
found necessary by the director.29896

       Sec. 1327.50.  The director of agriculture shall:29897

       (A) Maintain traceability of the state standards to those of 29898
the national institute of standards and technologyinternational 29899
system of units;29900

       (B) Enforce sections 1327.46 to 1327.61 of the Revised Code;29901

       (C) Issue reasonable rules for the uniform enforcement of 29902
sections 1327.46 to 1327.61 of the Revised Code, which rules shall 29903
have the force and effect of law;29904

       (D) Establish standards of weight, measure, or count, 29905
reasonable standards of fill, and standards for the voluntary 29906
presentation of cost per unit information for any package;29907

       (E) Grant any exemptions from sections 1327.46 to 1327.61 of 29908
the Revised Code, or any rules adopted under those sections, when 29909
appropriate to the maintenance of good commercial practices in the 29910
state;29911

       (F) Conduct investigations to ensure compliance with sections 29912
1327.46 to 1327.61 of the Revised Code;29913

       (G) Delegate to appropriate personnel any of these 29914
responsibilities for the proper administration of the director's 29915
office;29916

       (H) Test as often as is prescribed by rule the standards of 29917
weight and measure used by any municipal corporation or county 29918
within the state, and approve the same when found to be correct;29919

       (I) Inspect and test weights and measures that are sold;29920

       (J) Inspect and test to ascertain if they are correct, 29921
weights and measures commercially used either:29922

       (1) In determining the weight, measure, or count of 29923
commodities or things sold on the basis of weight, measure, or 29924
count;29925

       (2) In computing the basic charge or payment for goods or 29926
services rendered on the basis of weight, measure, or count.29927

       (K) Test all weights and measures used in checking the 29928
receipt or disbursement of supplies in every institution, for the 29929
maintenance of which funds are appropriated by the general 29930
assembly;29931

       (L) Approve for use, and may mark, such weights and measures 29932
as the director finds to be correct, and shall reject and mark as 29933
rejected such weights and measures as the director finds to be 29934
incorrect. Weights and measures that have been rejected may be 29935
seized if not corrected within the time specified or if used or 29936
disposed of in a manner not specifically authorized, and may be 29937
condemned and seized if found to be incorrect and not capable of 29938
being made correct.29939

       (M) Weigh, measure, or inspect packaged commodities that are 29940
sold or in the process of delivery to determine whether they 29941
contain the amounts represented and whether they are sold in 29942
accordance with sections 1327.46 to 1327.61 of the Revised Code or 29943
rules adopted under those sections. In carrying out this section, 29944
the director shall employ recognized sampling procedures, such as 29945
those designated in the national institute of standards and 29946
technology handbook 133 "checking the net contents of packaged 29947
goods."29948

       (N) Prescribe by rule the appropriate term or unit of weight 29949
or measure to be used, whenever the director determines in the 29950
case of a specific commodity that an existing practice of 29951
declaring the quantity by weight, measure, numerical count, or 29952
combination thereof, does not facilitate value comparisons by 29953
consumers, or offers an opportunity for consumer confusion;29954

       (O) Allow reasonable variations from the stated quantity of 29955
contents, which shall include those caused by unavoidable 29956
deviations in good manufacturing practice and by loss or gain of 29957
moisture during the course of good distribution practice, only 29958
after the commodity has entered intrastate commerce;29959

       (P) Provide for the weights and measures training of 29960
inspector personnel and establish minimum training requirements, 29961
which shall be met by all inspector personnel, whether county, 29962
municipal, or state;29963

       (Q) Prescribe the methods of tests and inspections to be 29964
employed in the enforcement of sections 1327.46 to 1327.61 of the 29965
Revised Code. The director may prescribe the official test and 29966
inspection forms to be used.29967

       (R) Provide by rule for voluntary registration with the 29968
director of privateservice persons who are employed by 29969
commercially used weighing and measuring device servicing 29970
agencies, and personnel;29971

       (S) In conjunction with the national institute of standards 29972
and technology, operate a type evaluation program for 29973
certification of weighing and measuring devices as part of the 29974
national type evaluation program. The director shall establish a 29975
schedule of fees for services rendered by the department of 29976
agriculture for type evaluation services. The director may require 29977
any weighing or measuring instrument or device to be traceable to 29978
a national type evaluation program certificate of conformance 29979
prior to use for commercial or law enforcement purposes.29980

        (T) Verify advertised prices, price representations, and 29981
point-of-sale systems, as necessary, to determine both the 29982
accuracy of prices and computations and the correct use of the 29983
equipment and the accuracy of prices printed or recalled from a 29984
database if a system utilizes scanning or coding in lieu of manual 29985
entry. In order to implement this division, the director shall do 29986
all of the following:29987

       (1) Employ recognized procedures such as those designated in 29988
the national institute of standards and technology handbook 130, 29989
uniform laws and regulations, "examination procedures for price 29990
verification";29991

        (2) Adopt rules establishing requirements governing the 29992
accuracy of advertised prices and point-of-sale systems and 29993
establishing requirements and procedures for the enforcement of 29994
this division;29995

       (3) Conduct necessary inspections.29996

       Sec. 1327.501.  (A) No person shall operate in this state a 29997
commercially used weighing and measuring device that provides the 29998
final quantity and finalor cost of a final transaction and for 29999
which a fee is established in division (G) of this section unless 30000
the operator of the device obtains a permit issued by the director 30001
of agriculture or the director's designee. 30002

       (B) An application for a permit shall be submitted to the 30003
director on a form that the director prescribes and provides. The 30004
applicant shall include with the application any information that 30005
is specified on the application form as well as the application 30006
fee established in this section.30007

       (C) Upon receipt of a completed application and the required 30008
fee from an applicant, the director or the director's designee 30009
shall issue or deny the permit to operate the commercially used 30010
weighing and measuring device that was the subject of the 30011
application.30012

       (D) A permit issued under this section expires on the 30013
thirtieth day of June of the year following its issuance and may 30014
be renewed annually on or before the first day of July of that 30015
year upon payment of a permit renewal fee established in this 30016
section.30017

       (E) If a permit renewal fee is more than sixty days past due, 30018
the director may assess a late penalty in an amount established 30019
under this section.30020

       (F) The director shall do both of the following:30021

       (1) Establish procedures and requirements governing the 30022
issuance or denial of permits under this section;30023

       (2) Establish late penalties to be assessed for the late 30024
payment of a permit renewal fee and fees for the replacement of 30025
lost or destroyed permits.30026

       (G) An applicant for a permit to operate under this section 30027
shall pay an application fee in the following applicable amount:30028

       (1) Seventy-five dollars for a livestock scale;30029

       (2) Seventy-five dollars for a vehicle scale;30030

       (3) Seventy-five dollars for a railway scale;30031

       (4) Seventy-five dollars for a vehicle tank meter;30032

       (5) Seventy-five dollars for a bulk rack meter;30033

       (6) Seventy-five dollars for aan LPG meter.30034

       A person who is issued a permit under this section and who 30035
seeks to renew that permit shall pay an annual permit renewal fee. 30036
The amount of a permit renewal fee shall be equal to the 30037
application fee for that permit established in this division. 30038

       (H) All money collected through the payment of fees and the 30039
imposition of penalties under this section shall be credited to 30040
the metrology and scale certification and device permitting fund 30041
created in section 1327.511 of the Revised Code.30042

       Sec. 1327.502.  A service person who is employed by a 30043
commercially used weighing and measuring device servicing agency 30044
shall register with the director of agriculture in accordance with 30045
rules adopted under section 1327.50 of the Revised Code.30046

       Sec. 1327.61.  No person shall do any of the following:30047

       (A) Use or have in possession for use in commerce any 30048
incorrect weight or measure;30049

       (B) Wrap, package, label, or advertise any product or service 30050
contrary to this chapter, or any rules adopted under it, or sell, 30051
offer, hold, or expose for sale any service or product wrapped, 30052
packaged, labeled, or offered for sale contrary to this chapter or 30053
any rules adopted under it, or misrepresent the quantity or price 30054
or service contrary to this chapter, or any rules adopted under 30055
it;30056

       (C) Remove any tag, seal, or mark from any weight or measure 30057
without specific written authorization from the proper authority;30058

       (D) Install for use, repair, service, or place into service a 30059
commercially used weighing and measuring device unless the 30060
installation, repair, service, or placement is performed by one of 30061
the following:30062

        (1) A department of agriculture division of weights and 30063
measures inspector;30064

        (2) A service person registered with the department;30065

        (3) A county or municipal weights and measures inspector.30066

        (E) Hinder or obstruct any weights and measures official in 30067
the performance of hisofficial duties;30068

       (E)(F) Sell or offer for use in commerce any incorrect weight 30069
or measure.30070

       Sec. 1327.99.  Whoever violates section 1327.501 or 1327.54 30071
or division (A), (B), (C), or (D)(E) of section 1327.61 of the 30072
Revised Code or a rule adopted under sections 1327.46 to 1327.61 30073
of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the second 30074
degree on a first offense; on each subsequent offense within seven 30075
years after the first offense, suchthe person is guilty of a 30076
misdemeanor of the first degree.30077

       Sec. 1332.26. (A) No political subdivision shall require a 30078
video service provider to obtain from it any authority to provide 30079
video service within its boundaries.30080

       (B) Except as authorized under division (C) of this section 30081
and under sections 1332.30 and 1332.32 of the Revised Code, no 30082
political subdivision shall request anything of value from a video 30083
service provider for providing video service; impose any fee, 30084
license, or gross receipt tax on the provision of video service by 30085
such a provider; or impose any franchise or other requirement on 30086
the provision of video service by a video service provider, 30087
including, but not limited to, any provision regulating rates 30088
charged by a video service provider or establishing any build-out 30089
requirement or requirement to deploy any facility or equipment.30090

       (C) When requested to do so, a video service provider shall 30091
assist a municipal corporation or township in addressing video 30092
service subscriber complaints, in a manner consistent with the 30093
provider's complaint handling process set forth in its application 30094
pursuant to division (A)(7) of section 1332.24 of the Revised 30095
Code. Nothing in sections 1332.21 to 1332.34 of the Revised Code 30096
affects any authority granted under sections 1345.01 to 1345.13 of 30097
the Revised Code.30098

       (D) A video service provider shall meet all of the following 30099
customer service standards:30100

       (1) The provider shall restore video service within 30101
seventy-two hours after a subscriber reports a service 30102
interruption or other problem if the cause was not a natural 30103
disaster.30104

       (2) Upon a report by a subscriber of a service interruption 30105
and if the interruption is caused by the video service provider 30106
and lasts for more than fours hours in a given day, the provider 30107
shall give the subscriber a credit in the amount of the cost of 30108
each such day's video service as would be billed to the 30109
subscriber.30110

       (3) Upon a report by a subscriber of a service interruption 30111
and if the interruption is not caused by the video service 30112
provider and lasts for more than twenty-four consecutive hours, 30113
the provider shall give the subscriber, for each hour of service 30114
interruption, a credit in the amount of the cost of per hour video 30115
service as would be billed to the subscriber.30116

       (4) The provider shall give a subscriber at least thirty 30117
days' advance, written notice before removing a channel from the 30118
provider's video service, but no such notice is required if the 30119
provider must remove the channel because of circumstances beyond 30120
its control.30121

       (5) The provider shall give a subscriber at least ten days' 30122
advance, written notice of a disconnection of all or part of the 30123
subscriber's video service, except if the disconnectionany of the 30124
following apply:30125

       (a) Disconnection has been requested by the subscriber,.30126

       (b) Disconnection is necessary to prevent theft of video 30127
service, or.30128

       (c) Disconnection is necessary to prevent the use of video 30129
service through fraud.30130

       (d) Disconnection is necessary to reduce or prevent signal 30131
leakage as described in 47 C.F.R. 76.611. 30132

       (6) The provider shall not establish a due date earlier than 30133
fourteen days after a video service bill is issued.30134

       (7) The provider shall not disconnect all or part of a 30135
subscriber's video service for failure of the subscriber to pay 30136
any amount of its video service bill, until the billamount is at 30137
least forty-fivefourteen days past due.30138

       (7)(8) The provider shall give a subscriber at least thirty 30139
days' advance, written notice before instituting an increase in 30140
video service rates.30141

       Sec. 1337.11.  As used in sections 1337.11 to 1337.17 of the 30142
Revised Code:30143

       (A) "Adult" means a person who is eighteen years of age or 30144
older.30145

       (B) "Attending physician" means the physician to whom a 30146
principal or the family of a principal has assigned primary 30147
responsibility for the treatment or care of the principal or, if 30148
the responsibility has not been assigned, the physician who has 30149
accepted that responsibility.30150

       (C) "Comfort care" means any of the following:30151

       (1) Nutrition when administered to diminish the pain or 30152
discomfort of a principal, but not to postpone death;30153

       (2) Hydration when administered to diminish the pain or 30154
discomfort of a principal, but not to postpone death;30155

       (3) Any other medical or nursing procedure, treatment, 30156
intervention, or other measure that is taken to diminish the pain 30157
or discomfort of a principal, but not to postpone death.30158

       (D) "Consulting physician" means a physician who, in 30159
conjunction with the attending physician of a principal, makes one 30160
or more determinations that are required to be made by the 30161
attending physician, or to be made by the attending physician and 30162
one other physician, by an applicable provision of sections 30163
1337.11 to 1337.17 of the Revised Code, to a reasonable degree of 30164
medical certainty and in accordance with reasonable medical 30165
standards.30166

       (E) "Declaration for mental health treatment" has the same 30167
meaning as in section 2135.01 of the Revised Code.30168

       (F) "Guardian" means a person appointed by a probate court 30169
pursuant to Chapter 2111. of the Revised Code to have the care and 30170
management of the person of an incompetent.30171

       (G) "Health care" means any care, treatment, service, or 30172
procedure to maintain, diagnose, or treat an individual's physical 30173
or mental condition or physical or mental health.30174

       (H) "Health care decision" means informed consent, refusal to 30175
give informed consent, or withdrawal of informed consent to health 30176
care.30177

       (I) "Health care facility" means any of the following:30178

       (1) A hospital;30179

       (2) A hospice care program, pediatric respite care program, 30180
or other institution that specializes in comfort care of patients 30181
in a terminal condition or in a permanently unconscious state;30182

       (3) A nursing home;30183

       (4) A home health agency;30184

       (5) An intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded30185
individuals with intellectual disabilities;30186

       (6) A regulated community mental health organization.30187

       (J) "Health care personnel" means physicians, nurses, 30188
physician assistants, emergency medical technicians-basic, 30189
emergency medical technicians-intermediate, emergency medical 30190
technicians-paramedic, medical technicians, dietitians, other 30191
authorized persons acting under the direction of an attending 30192
physician, and administrators of health care facilities.30193

       (K) "Home health agency" has the same meaning as in section 30194
3701.881 of the Revised Code.30195

       (L) "Hospice care program" and "pediatric respite care 30196
program" have the same meanings as in section 3712.01 of the 30197
Revised Code.30198

       (M) "Hospital" has the same meanings as in sections 3701.01, 30199
3727.01, and 5122.01 of the Revised Code.30200

       (N) "Hydration" means fluids that are artificially or 30201
technologically administered.30202

       (O) "Incompetent" has the same meaning as in section 2111.01 30203
of the Revised Code.30204

       (P) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded30205
individuals with intellectual disabilities" has the same meaning 30206
as in section 5111.205124.01 of the Revised Code.30207

       (Q) "Life-sustaining treatment" means any medical procedure, 30208
treatment, intervention, or other measure that, when administered 30209
to a principal, will serve principally to prolong the process of 30210
dying.30211

       (R) "Medical claim" has the same meaning as in section 30212
2305.113 of the Revised Code.30213

       (S) "Mental health treatment" has the same meaning as in 30214
section 2135.01 of the Revised Code.30215

       (T) "Nursing home" has the same meaning as in section 3721.01 30216
of the Revised Code.30217

       (U) "Nutrition" means sustenance that is artificially or 30218
technologically administered.30219

       (V) "Permanently unconscious state" means a state of 30220
permanent unconsciousness in a principal that, to a reasonable 30221
degree of medical certainty as determined in accordance with 30222
reasonable medical standards by the principal's attending 30223
physician and one other physician who has examined the principal, 30224
is characterized by both of the following:30225

       (1) Irreversible unawareness of one's being and environment.30226

       (2) Total loss of cerebral cortical functioning, resulting in 30227
the principal having no capacity to experience pain or suffering.30228

       (W) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of the 30229
Revised Code and additionally includes political subdivisions and 30230
governmental agencies, boards, commissions, departments, 30231
institutions, offices, and other instrumentalities.30232

       (X) "Physician" means a person who is authorized under 30233
Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery 30234
or osteopathic medicine and surgery.30235

       (Y) "Political subdivision" and "state" have the same 30236
meanings as in section 2744.01 of the Revised Code.30237

       (Z) "Professional disciplinary action" means action taken by 30238
the board or other entity that regulates the professional conduct 30239
of health care personnel, including the state medical board and 30240
the board of nursing.30241

       (AA) "Regulated community mental health organization" means a 30242
residential facility as defined and licensed under section 5119.2230243
5119.34 of the Revised Code or a community mental health agency30244
services provider as defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised 30245
Code.30246

        (BB) "Terminal condition" means an irreversible, incurable, 30247
and untreatable condition caused by disease, illness, or injury 30248
from which, to a reasonable degree of medical certainty as 30249
determined in accordance with reasonable medical standards by a 30250
principal's attending physician and one other physician who has 30251
examined the principal, both of the following apply:30252

       (1) There can be no recovery.30253

       (2) Death is likely to occur within a relatively short time 30254
if life-sustaining treatment is not administered.30255

       (CC) "Tort action" means a civil action for damages for 30256
injury, death, or loss to person or property, other than a civil 30257
action for damages for a breach of contract or another agreement 30258
between persons.30259

       Sec. 1347.08.  (A) Every state or local agency that maintains 30260
a personal information system, upon the request and the proper 30261
identification of any person who is the subject of personal 30262
information in the system, shall:30263

       (1) Inform the person of the existence of any personal 30264
information in the system of which the person is the subject;30265

       (2) Except as provided in divisions (C) and (E)(2) of this 30266
section, permit the person, the person's legal guardian, or an 30267
attorney who presents a signed written authorization made by the 30268
person, to inspect all personal information in the system of which 30269
the person is the subject;30270

       (3) Inform the person about the types of uses made of the 30271
personal information, including the identity of any users usually 30272
granted access to the system.30273

       (B) Any person who wishes to exercise a right provided by 30274
this section may be accompanied by another individual of the 30275
person's choice.30276

       (C)(1) A state or local agency, upon request, shall disclose 30277
medical, psychiatric, or psychological information to a person who 30278
is the subject of the information or to the person's legal 30279
guardian, unless a physician, psychiatrist, or psychologist 30280
determines for the agency that the disclosure of the information 30281
is likely to have an adverse effect on the person, in which case 30282
the information shall be released to a physician, psychiatrist, or 30283
psychologist who is designated by the person or by the person's 30284
legal guardian.30285

       (2) Upon the signed written request of either a licensed 30286
attorney at law or a licensed physician designated by the inmate, 30287
together with the signed written request of an inmate of a 30288
correctional institution under the administration of the 30289
department of rehabilitation and correction, the department shall 30290
disclose medical information to the designated attorney or 30291
physician as provided in division (C) of section 5120.21 of the 30292
Revised Code.30293

       (D) If an individual who is authorized to inspect personal 30294
information that is maintained in a personal information system 30295
requests the state or local agency that maintains the system to 30296
provide a copy of any personal information that the individual is 30297
authorized to inspect, the agency shall provide a copy of the 30298
personal information to the individual. Each state and local 30299
agency may establish reasonable fees for the service of copying, 30300
upon request, personal information that is maintained by the 30301
agency.30302

       (E)(1) This section regulates access to personal information 30303
that is maintained in a personal information system by persons who 30304
are the subject of the information, but does not limit the 30305
authority of any person, including a person who is the subject of 30306
personal information maintained in a personal information system, 30307
to inspect or have copied, pursuant to section 149.43 of the 30308
Revised Code, a public record as defined in that section.30309

       (2) This section does not provide a person who is the subject 30310
of personal information maintained in a personal information 30311
system, the person's legal guardian, or an attorney authorized by 30312
the person, with a right to inspect or have copied, or require an 30313
agency that maintains a personal information system to permit the 30314
inspection of or to copy, a confidential law enforcement 30315
investigatory record or trial preparation record, as defined in 30316
divisions (A)(2) and (4) of section 149.43 of the Revised Code.30317

       (F) This section does not apply to any of the following:30318

       (1) The contents of an adoption file maintained by the 30319
department of health under section 3705.12 of the Revised Code;30320

       (2) Information contained in the putative father registry 30321
established by section 3107.062 of the Revised Code, regardless of 30322
whether the information is held by the department of job and 30323
family services or, pursuant to section 3111.69 of the Revised 30324
Code, the office of child support in the department or a child 30325
support enforcement agency;30326

       (3) Papers, records, and books that pertain to an adoption 30327
and that are subject to inspection in accordance with section 30328
3107.17 of the Revised Code;30329

       (4) Records listed in division (A) of section 3107.42 of the 30330
Revised Code or specified in division (A) of section 3107.52 of 30331
the Revised Code;30332

       (5) Records that identify an individual described in division 30333
(A)(1) of section 3721.031 of the Revised Code, or that would tend 30334
to identify such an individual;30335

       (6) Files and records that have been expunged under division 30336
(D)(1) or (2) of section 3721.23 of the Revised Code;30337

       (7) Records that identify an individual described in division 30338
(A)(1) of section 3721.25 of the Revised Code, or that would tend 30339
to identify such an individual;30340

       (8) Records that identify an individual described in division 30341
(A)(1) of section 5111.615165.88 of the Revised Code, or that 30342
would tend to identify such an individual;30343

       (9) Test materials, examinations, or evaluation tools used in 30344
an examination for licensure as a nursing home administrator that 30345
the board of examinersexecutives of nursing home administrators30346
long-term services and supports administers under section 4751.04 30347
of the Revised Code or contracts under that section with a private 30348
or government entity to administer;30349

       (10) Information contained in a database established and 30350
maintained pursuant to section 5101.13 of the Revised Code.30351

       Sec. 1501.011. (A) TheExcept as provided in divisions (B), 30352
(C), and (D) of this section, the Ohio facilities construction 30353
commission shall supervise the design and construction of, and 30354
make contracts for the construction, reconstruction, improvement, 30355
enlargement, alteration, repair, or decoration of, any projects or 30356
improvements for the department of natural resources has the 30357
following powers in addition to its other powers: to prepare, or 30358
contract to be prepared, surveys, general and detailed plans, 30359
specifications, bills of materials, and estimates of cost for, to 30360
enter into contracts for, and to supervise the performance of 30361
labor, the furnishing of materials, or the construction, repair, 30362
or maintenance of any projects, improvements, or buildings, on 30363
lands and waters under the control of the department, asthat may 30364
be authorized by legislative appropriations or any other funds 30365
available therefor, the estimated cost of which amounts to two 30366
hundred thousand dollars or more or the amount determined pursuant 30367
to section 153.53 of the Revised Code or more.30368

       (B) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, the 30369
director of natural resources shall publish notice in a newspaper 30370
of general circulation in the region where the activity for which 30371
bids are submitted is to occur and in any other newspapers that 30372
the director determines are appropriate, at least once each week 30373
for four consecutive weeks, the last publication to be at least 30374
eight days preceding the day for opening bids, seeking proposals 30375
on each contract for the performance of labor, the furnishing of 30376
materials, or the construction, repair, or maintenance of 30377
projects, improvements, or buildings, as necessary for compliance 30378
with provisions of the act to make appropriations for capital 30379
improvements or the act to make general appropriations, and the 30380
director may also advertise in such trade journals as will afford 30381
adequate information to the public of the terms of the contract 30382
and the nature of the work to be performed, together with the time 30383
of the letting and place and manner of receiving proposals, and 30384
the places where plans and specifications are on file. A proposal 30385
is invalid and shall not be considered by the department unless 30386
the form for proposals specified by the department is used without 30387
change, alteration, or additionThe department of natural 30388
resources shall administer the construction of improvements under 30389
an agreement with the supervisors of a soil and water conservation 30390
district pursuant to division (I) of section 1515.08 of the 30391
Revised Code.30392

       (C) Each bidder for a contract for the performance of labor, 30393
the furnishing of materials, or the maintenance, construction, 30394
demolition, alteration, repair, or reconstruction of an 30395
improvement shall meet the requirements of section 153.54 of the 30396
Revised Code. The director may require each bidder to furnish 30397
under oath, upon such printed forms as the director may prescribe, 30398
detailed information with respect to the bidder's financial 30399
resources, equipment, past performance record, organization 30400
personnel, and experience, together with such other information as 30401
the director considers necessary.30402

       (D) The director shall award the contract to the lowest 30403
responsive and responsible bidder in accordance with section 9.312 30404
of the Revised Code. The award shall be made within a reasonable 30405
time after the date on which the bids were opened, and the 30406
successful bidder shall enter into a contract within ten days from 30407
the date the successful bidder is notified that the contract has 30408
been awarded, or within any longer period that the director 30409
considers necessary. Nothing in this section shall preclude the 30410
rejection of any bid the acceptance of which is not in the best 30411
interests of the state. No contract shall be entered into until 30412
the bureau of workers' compensation has certified that the 30413
corporation, partnership, or person awarded the contract has 30414
complied with Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code and until, if the 30415
bidder awarded the contract is a foreign corporation, the 30416
secretary of state has certified that the corporation is 30417
authorized to do business in this state, and until, if the bidder 30418
so awarded the contract is a person or partnership nonresident of 30419
this state, the person or partnership has filed with the secretary 30420
of state a power of attorney designating the secretary of state as 30421
its agency for the purpose of accepting service of process.30422

       (E) With respect to the director's entering into a contract 30423
for the performance of labor, the furnishing of materials, or the 30424
construction, repair, or maintenance of any projects, 30425
improvements, or buildings on lands and waters under the control 30426
of the department, both of the following apply:30427

       (1) The director is not required to advertise for and receive 30428
bids if the total estimated cost of the contract is less than 30429
twenty-five thousand dollars.30430

       (2) The director is not required to advertise for bids, 30431
regardless of the cost of the contract, if the(1) The department 30432
of natural resources shall supervise the design and construction 30433
of, and make contracts for the construction, reconstruction, 30434
improvement, enlargement, alteration, repair, or decoration of, 30435
any of the following activities, projects, or improvements:30436

       (a) Dam repairs administered by the division of engineering 30437
under Chapter 1507. of the Revised Code;30438

       (b) Projects or improvements administered by the division of 30439
watercraft and funded through the waterways safety fund 30440
established in section 1547.75 of the Revised Code;30441

       (c) Projects or improvements administered by the division of 30442
wildlife under Chapter 1531. or 1533. of the Revised Code;30443

       (d) Activities conducted by the department pursuant to 30444
section 5511.05 of the Revised Code in order to maintain the 30445
department's roadway inventory.30446

       (2) If a contract to be let under division (C)(1) of this 30447
section involves an exigency that concerns the public health, 30448
safety, or welfare or addresses an emergency situation in which 30449
timeliness is crucial in preventing the cost of the contract from 30450
increasing significantly. Regarding such a contract, the director 30451
may solicit bids by sending a letter to a minimum of three 30452
contractors in the region where the contract is to be let or by 30453
any other means that the director considers appropriate.30454

       (F) The director may insert in any contract awarded under 30455
this section a clause providing for value engineering change 30456
proposals, under which a contractor who has been awarded a 30457
contract may propose a change in the plans and specifications of 30458
the project that saves the department time or money on the project 30459
without impairing any of the essential functions and 30460
characteristics of the project such as service life, reliability, 30461
economy of operation, ease of maintenance, safety, and necessary 30462
standardized features. If the director adopts the value 30463
engineering proposal, the savings from the proposal shall be 30464
divided between the department and the contractor according to 30465
guidelines established by the director, provided that the 30466
contractor shall receive at least fifty per cent of the savings 30467
from the proposal. The adoption of a value engineering proposal 30468
does not invalidate the award of the contract or require the 30469
director to rebid the project.30470

       (G) When in the opinion of the department the work under any 30471
contract made under this section or any law of the state is 30472
neglected by the contractor, the work completed is deficient in 30473
quality or materials, or the work is not prosecuted with the 30474
diligence and force specified or intended in the contract, the 30475
department may require the contractor to provide, at no additional 30476
expense to the department, any additional labor and materials that 30477
are necessary to complete the improvements at the level of quality 30478
and within the time of performance specified in the contract. 30479
Procedures concerning such a requirement together with its format 30480
shall be specified in the contract. If the contractor fails to 30481
comply with the requirement within the period specified in the 30482
contract, the department may take action to complete the work 30483
through other means, up to and including termination of the 30484
contract.30485

       (H) When an exigency occurs or there is immediate danger of 30486
an exigency that would materially impair the successful bidding, 30487
construction, or completion of a project, improvement, or 30488
building, the director may revise related plans and specifications 30489
as necessary to address the exigency through the issuance of an 30490
addendum prior to the opening of bids or, in accordance with 30491
procedures established in section 153.62 of the Revised Code, 30492
through the issuance of a change order after the contract has been 30493
awarded, pursuant to the declaration of a public exigency, the 30494
department may award the contract without competitive bidding or 30495
selection as otherwise required by Chapter 153. of the Revised 30496
Code.30497

       (D) The executive director of the Ohio facilities 30498
construction commission may authorize the department of natural 30499
resources to administer any other project or improvement, the 30500
estimated cost of which, including design fees, construction, 30501
equipment, and contingency amounts, is not more than one million 30502
five hundred thousand dollars.30503

       Sec. 1501.45.  (A) As used in this section:30504

       (1) "Forfeiture laws" means provisions that are established 30505
in Title XXIX of the Revised Code and that govern the forfeiture 30506
and disposition of certain property that is seized pursuant to a 30507
law enforcement investigation.30508

       (2) "Law enforcement division" means the division of 30509
forestry, the division of natural areas and preserves, the 30510
division of wildlife, the division of parks and recreation, or the 30511
division of watercraft in the department of natural resources.30512

       (3) "Law enforcement fund" means a fund created in this 30513
section.30514

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in this section and 30515
notwithstanding any provision of the Revised Code that is not in 30516
Title XV of the Revised Code to the contrary, the forfeiture laws 30517
apply to a law enforcement division that substantially conducts an 30518
investigation that results in the ordered forfeiture of property 30519
and also apply to the involved forfeiture of property, and the law 30520
enforcement division shall comply with those forfeiture laws. 30521
Accordingly, the portion of the forfeiture laws that authorizes 30522
certain proceeds from forfeited property to be distributed to the 30523
law enforcement agency that substantially conducted the 30524
investigation that resulted in the seizure of the subsequently 30525
forfeited property apply to the law enforcement divisions except 30526
as provided in division (C)(2)(a) of this section. If a law 30527
enforcement division is eligible to receive such proceeds, the 30528
proceeds shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit 30529
of the applicable law enforcement fund.30530

       (C)(1) There are hereby created in the state treasury the 30531
division of forestry law enforcement fund, the division of natural 30532
areas and preserves law enforcement fund, the division of wildlife 30533
law enforcement fund, the division of parks and recreation law 30534
enforcement fund, and the division of watercraft law enforcement 30535
fund. The30536

       (2) The funds shall consist of proceeds from forfeited 30537
property that are deposited in accordance with this section. The30538
as follows:30539

       (a) Proceeds from forfeited property resulting from an 30540
investigation conducted by the division of forestry, the division 30541
of natural areas and preserves, or the division of parks and 30542
recreation shall be deposited in the division of parks and 30543
recreation law enforcement fund.30544

       (b) Proceeds from forfeited property resulting from an 30545
investigation conducted by the division of wildlife shall be 30546
deposited in the division of wildlife law enforcement fund.30547

       (c) Proceeds from forfeited property resulting from an 30548
investigation conducted by the division of watercraft shall be 30549
deposited in the division of watercraft law enforcement fund.30550

       (3) The funds shall be used by the applicable law enforcement 30551
division for law enforcement purposes specified in the forfeiture 30552
laws; however, aas follows:30553

       (a) Money in the division of parks and recreation law 30554
enforcement fund shall be used by the division of parks and 30555
recreation.30556

       (b) Money in the division of wildlife law enforcement fund 30557
shall be used by the division of wildlife.30558

       (c) Money in the division of watercraft law enforcement fund 30559
shall be used by the division of watercraft.30560

       (4) A law enforcement division shall not use such fundsits 30561
fund to pay the salaries of its employees or to provide for any 30562
other remuneration of personnel.30563

       (D) If the forfeiture laws conflict with any provisions that 30564
govern forfeitures and that are established in another section of 30565
Title XV of the Revised Code, the provisions established in the 30566
other section of Title XV apply.30567

       Sec. 1506.21.  (A) There is hereby created the Ohio Lake Erie 30568
commission, consisting of the directors of environmental 30569
protection, natural resources, health, agriculture, and30570
transportation, and development services, or their designees, and 30571
five additional members appointed by the governor who shall serve 30572
at the pleasure of the governor. The members of the commission 30573
annually shall designate a chairperson, who shall preside at the 30574
meetings of the commission, and a secretary.30575

       The commission shall hold at least one meeting every three 30576
months. The secretary of the commission shall keep a record of its 30577
proceedings. Special meetings shall be held at the call of the 30578
chairperson or upon the request of four members of the commission. 30579
All meetings and records of the commission shall be open to the 30580
public. Six members of the commission constitute a quorum. The 30581
agencies represented on the commission shall furnish clerical, 30582
technical, and other services required by the commission in the 30583
performance of its duties.30584

       (B) The commission shall do all of the following:30585

       (1) Ensure the coordination of state and local policies and 30586
programs pertaining to Lake Erie water quality, toxic pollution 30587
control, and resource protection;30588

       (2) Review, and make recommendations concerning, the 30589
development and implementation of policies, programs, and issues 30590
for long-term, comprehensive protection of Lake Erie water 30591
resources and water quality that are consistent with the great 30592
lakes water quality agreement and the great lakes toxic substances 30593
control agreement;30594

       (3) Recommend policies and programs to modify the coastal 30595
management program of this state;30596

       (4) At each regular meeting, consider matters relating to the 30597
implementation of sections 1506.22 and 1506.23 of the Revised 30598
Code;30599

       (5) Publish and submit the Lake Erie protection agenda in 30600
accordance with division (C) of section 1506.23 of the Revised 30601
Code;30602

       (6) Ensure the implementation of a basinwide approach to Lake 30603
Erie issues;30604

       (7) Increase representation of the interests of this state in 30605
state, regional, national, and international forums pertaining to 30606
the resources and water quality of Lake Erie and the Lake Erie 30607
basin;30608

       (8) Promote education concerning the wise management of the 30609
resources of Lake Erie;30610

       (9) Establish public advisory councils as considered 30611
necessary to assist in programs established under this section and 30612
sections 1506.22 and 1506.23 of the Revised Code. Members of the 30613
public advisory councils shall represent a broad cross section of 30614
interests, shall have experience or expertise in the subject for 30615
which the advisory council was established, and shall serve 30616
without compensation.30617

       (10) Prepare and submit the report required under division 30618
(D) of section 1506.23 of the Revised Code.30619

       (C) Each state agency, upon the request of the commission, 30620
shall cooperate in the implementation of this section and sections 30621
1506.22 and 1506.23 of the Revised Code.30622

       Sec. 1506.30.  As used in sections 1506.30 to 1506.36 of the 30623
Revised Code:30624

       (A) "Abandoned property" means a submerged aircraft; a 30625
submerged watercraft, including a ship, boat, canoe, skiff, raft, 30626
or barge; the rigging, gear, fittings, trappings, and equipment of 30627
a submerged aircraft or watercraft; the personal property of the 30628
officers, crew, and passengers of a submerged aircraft or 30629
watercraft; the cargo of a submerged aircraft or watercraft that 30630
has been deserted, relinquished, cast away, or left behind and for 30631
which attempts at reclamation have been abandoned by the owners 30632
and insurers; and submerged materials resulting from activities of 30633
prehistoric and historic native Americans.30634

       (B) "Lake Erie" means that portion of the waters and lands of 30635
Lake Erie belonging to the state as provided in section 1506.10 of 30636
the Revised Code.30637

       (C) "Historical value" means the quality of significance 30638
exemplified by an object, structure, site, or district that is 30639
included in or eligible for inclusion in the state registry of 30640
archaeological landmarks authorized under section 149.51 of the 30641
Revised Code, the state registry of historic landmarks authorized 30642
under section 149.55 of the Revised Code, or the national register 30643
of historic places.30644

       (D) "Marine surveyor" means a person engaged in the business 30645
of mapping or surveying submerged lands and abandoned property.30646

       (E) "Mechanical or other assistance" means all artificial 30647
devices used to raise or remove artifacts from abandoned property, 30648
including pry bars, wrenches and other hand or power tools, 30649
cutting torches, explosives, winches, flotation bags, lines to 30650
surface, extra divers buoyancy devices, and other buoyancy 30651
devices.30652

       (F) "Recreational value" means value relating to an activity 30653
in which the public engages or may engage for recreation or sport, 30654
including scuba diving and fishing, as determined by the director 30655
of natural resources.30656

       Sec. 1509.01.  As used in this chapter:30657

       (A) "Well" means any borehole, whether drilled or bored, 30658
within the state for production, extraction, or injection of any 30659
gas or liquid mineral, excluding potable water to be used as such, 30660
but including natural or artificial brines and oil field waters.30661

       (B) "Oil" means crude petroleum oil and all other 30662
hydrocarbons, regardless of gravity, that are produced in liquid 30663
form by ordinary production methods, but does not include 30664
hydrocarbons that were originally in a gaseous phase in the 30665
reservoir.30666

       (C) "Gas" means all natural gas and all other fluid 30667
hydrocarbons that are not oil, including condensate.30668

       (D) "Condensate" means liquid hydrocarbons separated at or 30669
near the well pad or along the gas production or gathering system 30670
prior to gas processing.30671

       (E) "Pool" means an underground reservoir containing a common 30672
accumulation of oil or gas, or both, but does not include a gas 30673
storage reservoir. Each zone of a geological structure that is 30674
completely separated from any other zone in the same structure may 30675
contain a separate pool.30676

       (F) "Field" means the general area underlaid by one or more 30677
pools.30678

       (G) "Drilling unit" means the minimum acreage on which one 30679
well may be drilled, but does not apply to a well for injecting 30680
gas into or removing gas from a gas storage reservoir.30681

       (H) "Waste" includes all of the following:30682

       (1) Physical waste, as that term generally is understood in 30683
the oil and gas industry;30684

       (2) Inefficient, excessive, or improper use, or the 30685
unnecessary dissipation, of reservoir energy;30686

       (3) Inefficient storing of oil or gas;30687

       (4) Locating, drilling, equipping, operating, or producing an 30688
oil or gas well in a manner that reduces or tends to reduce the 30689
quantity of oil or gas ultimately recoverable under prudent and 30690
proper operations from the pool into which it is drilled or that 30691
causes or tends to cause unnecessary or excessive surface loss or 30692
destruction of oil or gas;30693

       (5) Other underground or surface waste in the production or 30694
storage of oil, gas, or condensate, however caused.30695

       (I) "Correlative rights" means the reasonable opportunity to 30696
every person entitled thereto to recover and receive the oil and 30697
gas in and under the person's tract or tracts, or the equivalent 30698
thereof, without having to drill unnecessary wells or incur other 30699
unnecessary expense.30700

       (J) "Tract" means a single, individually taxed parcel of land 30701
appearing on the tax list.30702

       (K) "Owner," unless referring to a mine, means the person who 30703
has the right to drill on a tract or drilling unit, to drill into 30704
and produce from a pool, and to appropriate the oil or gas 30705
produced therefrom either for the person or for others, except 30706
that a person ceases to be an owner with respect to a well when 30707
the well has been plugged in accordance with applicable rules 30708
adopted and orders issued under this chapter. "Owner" does not 30709
include a person who obtains a lease of the mineral rights for oil 30710
and gas on a parcel of land if the person does not attempt to 30711
produce or produce oil or gas from a well or obtain a permit under 30712
this chapter for a well or if the entire interest of a well is 30713
transferred to the person in accordance with division (B) of 30714
section 1509.31 of the Revised Code.30715

       (L) "Royalty interest" means the fee holder's share in the 30716
production from a well.30717

       (M) "Discovery well" means the first well capable of 30718
producing oil or gas in commercial quantities from a pool.30719

       (N) "Prepared clay" means a clay that is plastic and is 30720
thoroughly saturated with fresh water to a weight and consistency 30721
great enough to settle through saltwater in the well in which it 30722
is to be used, except as otherwise approved by the chief of the 30723
division of oil and gas resources management.30724

       (O) "Rock sediment" means the combined cutting and residue 30725
from drilling sedimentary rocks and formation.30726

       (P) "Excavations and workings," "mine," and "pillar" have the 30727
same meanings as in section 1561.01 of the Revised Code.30728

       (Q) "Coal bearing township" means a township designated as 30729
such by the chief of the division of mineral resources management 30730
under section 1561.06 of the Revised Code.30731

       (R) "Gas storage reservoir" means a continuous area of a 30732
subterranean porous sand or rock stratum or strata into which gas 30733
is or may be injected for the purpose of storing it therein and 30734
removing it therefrom and includes a gas storage reservoir as 30735
defined in section 1571.01 of the Revised Code.30736

       (S) "Safe Drinking Water Act" means the "Safe Drinking Water 30737
Act," 88 Stat. 1661 (1974), 42 U.S.C.A. 300(f), as amended by the 30738
"Safe Drinking Water Amendments of 1977," 91 Stat. 1393, 42 30739
U.S.C.A. 300(f), the "Safe Drinking Water Act Amendments of 1986," 30740
100 Stat. 642, 42 U.S.C.A. 300(f), and the "Safe Drinking Water 30741
Act Amendments of 1996," 110 Stat. 1613, 42 U.S.C.A. 300(f), and 30742
regulations adopted under those acts.30743

       (T) "Person" includes any political subdivision, department, 30744
agency, or instrumentality of this state; the United States and 30745
any department, agency, or instrumentality thereof; and any legal 30746
entity defined as a person under section 1.59 of the Revised Code.30747

       (U) "Brine" means all saline geological formation water 30748
resulting from, obtained from, or produced in connection with 30749
exploration, drilling, well stimulation, production of oil or gas, 30750
or plugging of a well.30751

       (V) "Waters of the state" means all streams, lakes, ponds, 30752
marshes, watercourses, waterways, springs, irrigation systems, 30753
drainage systems, and other bodies of water, surface or 30754
underground, natural or artificial, that are situated wholly or 30755
partially within this state or within its jurisdiction, except 30756
those private waters that do not combine or effect a junction with 30757
natural surface or underground waters.30758

       (W) "Exempt Mississippian well" means a well that meets all 30759
of the following criteria:30760

       (1) Was drilled and completed before January 1, 1980;30761

       (2) Is located in an unglaciated part of the state;30762

       (3) Was completed in a reservoir no deeper than the 30763
Mississippian Big Injun sandstone in areas underlain by 30764
Pennsylvanian or Permian stratigraphy, or the Mississippian Berea 30765
sandstone in areas directly underlain by Permian stratigraphy;30766

       (4) Is used primarily to provide oil or gas for domestic use.30767

       (X) "Exempt domestic well" means a well that meets all of the 30768
following criteria:30769

       (1) Is owned by the owner of the surface estate of the tract 30770
on which the well is located;30771

       (2) Is used primarily to provide gas for the owner's domestic 30772
use;30773

       (3) Is located more than two hundred feet horizontal distance 30774
from any inhabited private dwelling house other than an inhabited 30775
private dwelling house located on the tract on which the well is 30776
located;30777

       (4) Is located more than two hundred feet horizontal distance 30778
from any public building that may be used as a place of resort, 30779
assembly, education, entertainment, lodging, trade, manufacture, 30780
repair, storage, traffic, or occupancy by the public.30781

       (Y) "Urbanized area" means an area where a well or production 30782
facilities of a well are located within a municipal corporation or 30783
within a township that has an unincorporated population of more 30784
than five thousand in the most recent federal decennial census 30785
prior to the issuance of the permit for the well or production 30786
facilities.30787

       (Z) "Well stimulation" or "stimulation of a well" means the 30788
process of enhancing well productivity, including hydraulic 30789
fracturing operations.30790

       (AA) "Production operation" means all operations and 30791
activities and all related equipment, facilities, and other 30792
structures that may be used in or associated with the exploration 30793
and production of oil, gas, or other mineral resources that are 30794
regulated under this chapter, including operations and activities 30795
associated with site preparation, site construction, access road 30796
construction, well drilling, well completion, well stimulation, 30797
well site activities, reclamation, and plugging. "Production 30798
operation" also includes all of the following:30799

       (1) The piping, equipment, and facilities used for the 30800
production and preparation of hydrocarbon gas or liquids for 30801
transportation or delivery;30802

       (2) The processes of extraction and recovery, lifting, 30803
stabilization, treatment, separation, production processing, 30804
storage, waste disposal, and measurement of hydrocarbon gas and 30805
liquids, including related equipment and facilities;30806

       (3) The processes and related equipment and facilities 30807
associated with production compression, gas lift, gas injection, 30808
fuel gas supply, well drilling, well stimulation, and well 30809
completion activities, including dikes, pits, and earthen and 30810
other impoundments used for the temporary storage of fluids and 30811
waste substances associated with well drilling, well stimulation, 30812
and well completion activities;30813

       (4) Equipment and facilities at a wellpad or other location 30814
that are used for the transportation, handling, recycling, 30815
temporary storage, management, processing, or treatment of any 30816
equipment, material, and by-products or other substances from an 30817
operation at a wellpad that may be used or reused at the same or 30818
another operation at a wellpad or that will be disposed of in 30819
accordance with applicable laws and rules adopted under them.30820

       (BB) "Annular overpressurization" means the accumulation of 30821
fluids within an annulus with sufficient pressure to allow 30822
migration of annular fluids into underground sources of drinking 30823
water.30824

       (CC) "Idle and orphaned well" means a well for which a bond 30825
has been forfeited or an abandoned well for which no money is 30826
available to plug the well in accordance with this chapter and 30827
rules adopted under it.30828

       (DD) "Temporarily inactive well" means a well that has been 30829
granted temporary inactive status under section 1509.062 of the 30830
Revised Code.30831

       (EE) "Material and substantial violation" means any of the 30832
following:30833

       (1) Failure to obtain a permit to drill, reopen, convert, 30834
plugback, or plug a well under this chapter;30835

       (2) Failure to obtain, maintain, update, or submit proof of 30836
insurance coverage that is required under this chapter;30837

       (3) Failure to obtain, maintain, update, or submit proof of a 30838
surety bond that is required under this chapter;30839

       (4) Failure to plug an abandoned well or idle and orphaned 30840
well unless the well has been granted temporary inactive status 30841
under section 1509.062 of the Revised Code or the chief of the 30842
division of oil and gas resources management has approved another 30843
option concerning the abandoned well or idle and orphaned well;30844

       (5) Failure to restore a disturbed land surface as required 30845
by section 1509.072 of the Revised Code;30846

       (6) Failure to reimburse the oil and gas well fund pursuant 30847
to a final order issued under section 1509.071 of the Revised 30848
Code;30849

       (7) Failure to comply with a final nonappealable order of the 30850
chief issued under section 1509.04 of the Revised Code;30851

       (8) Failure to submit a report, test result, fee, or document 30852
that is required in this chapter or rules adopted under it.30853

       (FF) "Severer" has the same meaning as in section 5749.01 of 30854
the Revised Code.30855

       (GG) "Horizontal well" means a well that is drilled for the 30856
production of oil or gas in which the wellbore reaches a 30857
horizontal or near horizontal position in the Point Pleasant, 30858
Utica, or Marcellus formation and the well is stimulated.30859

       (HH) "Well pad" means the area that is cleared or prepared 30860
for the drilling of one or more horizontal wells.30861

       Sec. 1509.02.  There is hereby created in the department of 30862
natural resources the division of oil and gas resources 30863
management, which shall be administered by the chief of the 30864
division of oil and gas resources management. The division has 30865
sole and exclusive authority to regulate the permitting, location, 30866
and spacing of oil and gas wells and production operations within 30867
the state, excepting only those activities regulated under federal 30868
laws for which oversight has been delegated to the environmental 30869
protection agency and activities regulated under sections 6111.02 30870
to 6111.0296111.028 of the Revised Code. The regulation of oil 30871
and gas activities is a matter of general statewide interest that 30872
requires uniform statewide regulation, and this chapter and rules 30873
adopted under it constitute a comprehensive plan with respect to 30874
all aspects of the locating, drilling, well stimulation, 30875
completing, and operating of oil and gas wells within this state, 30876
including site construction and restoration, permitting related to 30877
those activities, and the disposal of wastes from those wells. In 30878
order to assist the division in the furtherance of its sole and 30879
exclusive authority as established in this section, the chief may 30880
enter into cooperative agreements with other state agencies for 30881
advice and consultation, including visitations at the surface 30882
location of a well on behalf of the division. Such cooperative 30883
agreements do not confer on other state agencies any authority to 30884
administer or enforce this chapter and rules adopted under it. In 30885
addition, such cooperative agreements shall not be construed to 30886
dilute or diminish the division's sole and exclusive authority as 30887
established in this section. Nothing in this section affects the 30888
authority granted to the director of transportation and local 30889
authorities in section 723.01 or 4513.34 of the Revised Code, 30890
provided that the authority granted under those sections shall not 30891
be exercised in a manner that discriminates against, unfairly 30892
impedes, or obstructs oil and gas activities and operations 30893
regulated under this chapter.30894

       The chief shall not hold any other public office, nor shall 30895
the chief be engaged in any occupation or business that might 30896
interfere with or be inconsistent with the duties as chief.30897

       All moneys collected by the chief pursuant to sections 30898
1509.06, 1509.061, 1509.062, 1509.071, 1509.13, 1509.22, 1509.222, 30899
1509.28, 1509.34, and 1509.50 of the Revised Code, ninety per cent 30900
of moneys received by the treasurer of state from the tax levied 30901
in divisions (A)(5) and (6) of section 5749.02 of the Revised 30902
Code, all civil penalties paid under section 1509.33 of the 30903
Revised Code, and, notwithstanding any section of the Revised Code 30904
relating to the distribution or crediting of fines for violations 30905
of the Revised Code, all fines imposed under divisions (A) and (B) 30906
of section 1509.99 of the Revised Code and fines imposed under 30907
divisions (C) and (D) of section 1509.99 of the Revised Code for 30908
all violations prosecuted by the attorney general and for 30909
violations prosecuted by prosecuting attorneys that do not involve 30910
the transportation of brine by vehicle shall be deposited into the 30911
state treasury to the credit of the oil and gas well fund, which 30912
is hereby created. Fines imposed under divisions (C) and (D) of 30913
section 1509.99 of the Revised Code for violations prosecuted by 30914
prosecuting attorneys that involve the transportation of brine by 30915
vehicle and penalties associated with a compliance agreement 30916
entered into pursuant to this chapter shall be paid to the county 30917
treasury of the county where the violation occurred.30918

       The fund shall be used solely and exclusively for the 30919
purposes enumerated in division (B) of section 1509.071 of the 30920
Revised Code, for the expenses of the division associated with the 30921
administration of this chapter and Chapter 1571. of the Revised 30922
Code and rules adopted under them, and for expenses that are 30923
critical and necessary for the protection of human health and 30924
safety and the environment related to oil and gas production in 30925
this state. The expenses of the division in excess of the moneys 30926
available in the fund shall be paid from general revenue fund 30927
appropriations to the department.30928

       Sec. 1509.062. (A)(1) The owner of a well that has not been 30929
completed, a well that has not produced within one year after 30930
completion, or an existing well that is not a horizontal well and30931
that has no reported production for two consecutive reporting 30932
periods as reported in accordance with section 1509.11 of the 30933
Revised Code, or an existing horizontal well that has no reported 30934
production for eight consecutive reporting periods as reported in 30935
accordance with section 1509.11 of the Revised Code shall plug the 30936
well in accordance with section 1509.12 of the Revised Code, 30937
obtain temporary inactive well status for the well in accordance 30938
with this section, or perform another activity regarding the well 30939
that is approved by the chief of the division of oil and gas 30940
resources management.30941

       (2) If a well has a reported annual production that is less 30942
than one hundred thousand cubic feet of natural gas or fifteen 30943
barrels of crude oil, or a combination thereof, the chief may 30944
require the owner of the well to submit an application for 30945
temporary inactive well status under this section for the well.30946

       (B) In order for the owner of a well to submit an application 30947
for temporary inactive well status for the well under this 30948
division, the owner and the well shall be in compliance with this 30949
chapter and rules adopted under it, any terms and conditions of 30950
the permit for the well, and applicable orders issued by the 30951
chief. An application for temporary inactive status for a well 30952
shall be submitted to the chief on a form prescribed and provided 30953
by the chief and shall contain all of the following:30954

       (1) The owner's name and address and, if the owner is a 30955
corporation, the name and address of the corporation's statutory 30956
agent;30957

       (2) The signature of the owner or of the owner's authorized 30958
agent. When an authorized agent signs an application, the 30959
application shall be accompanied by a certified copy of the 30960
appointment as such agent.30961

       (3) The permit number assigned to the well. If the well has 30962
not been assigned a permit number, the chief shall assign a permit 30963
number to the well.30964

       (4) A map, on a scale not smaller than four hundred feet to 30965
the inch, that shows the location of the well and the tank 30966
battery, that includes the latitude and longitude of the well, and 30967
that contains all other data that are required by the chief;30968

       (5) A demonstration that the well is of future utility and 30969
that the applicant has a viable plan to utilize the well within a 30970
reasonable period of time;30971

       (6) A demonstration that the well poses no threat to the 30972
health or safety of persons, property, or the environment;30973

       (7) Any other relevant information that the chief prescribes 30974
by rule.30975

       The chief may waive any of the requirements established in 30976
divisions (B)(1) to (6) of this section if the division of oil and 30977
gas resources management possesses a current copy of the 30978
information or document that is required in the applicable 30979
division.30980

       (C) Upon receipt of an application for temporary inactive 30981
well status, the chief shall review the application and shall 30982
either deny the application by issuing an order or approve the 30983
application. The chief shall approve the application only if the 30984
chief determines that the well that is the subject of the 30985
application poses no threat to the health or safety of persons, 30986
property, or the environment. If the chief approves the 30987
application, the chief shall notify the applicant of the chief's 30988
approval. Upon receipt of the chief's approval, the owner shall 30989
shut in the well and empty all liquids and gases from all storage 30990
tanks, pipelines, and other equipment associated with the well. In 30991
addition, the owner shall maintain the well, other equipment 30992
associated with the well, and the surface location of the well in 30993
a manner that prevents hazards to the health and safety of people 30994
and the environment. The owner shall inspect the well at least 30995
every six months and submit to the chief within fourteen days 30996
after the inspection a record of inspection on a form prescribed 30997
and provided by the chief.30998

       (D) Not later than thirty days prior to the expiration of 30999
temporary inactive well status or a renewal of temporary inactive 31000
well status approved by the chief for a well, the owner of the 31001
well may submit to the chief an application for renewal of the 31002
temporary inactive well status on a form prescribed and provided 31003
by the chief. The application shall include a detailed plan that 31004
describes the ultimate disposition of the well, the time frames 31005
for that disposition, and any other information that the chief 31006
determines is necessary. The chief shall either deny an 31007
application by order or approve the application. If the chief 31008
approves the application, the chief shall notify the owner of the 31009
well of the chief's approval.31010

       (E) An application for temporary inactive well status shall 31011
be accompanied by a nonrefundable fee of one hundred dollars. An 31012
application for a renewal of temporary inactive well status shall 31013
be accompanied by a nonrefundable fee of two hundred fifty dollars 31014
for the first renewal and five hundred dollars for each subsequent 31015
renewal.31016

       (F) After a third renewal, the chief may require an owner to 31017
provide a surety bond in an amount not to exceed ten thousand 31018
dollars for each of the owner's wells that has been approved by 31019
the chief for temporary inactive well status.31020

       (G) Temporary inactive well status approved by the chief 31021
expires one year after the date of approval of the application for 31022
temporary inactive well status or production from the well 31023
commences, whichever occurs sooner. In addition, a renewal of a 31024
temporary inactive well status expires one year after the 31025
expiration date of the initial temporary inactive well status or 31026
one year after the expiration date of the previous renewal of the 31027
temporary inactive well status, as applicable, or production from 31028
the well commences, whichever occurs sooner.31029

       (H) The owner of a well that has been approved by the chief 31030
for temporary inactive well status may commence production from 31031
the well at any time. Not later than sixty days after the 31032
commencement of production from such a well, the owner shall 31033
notify the chief of the commencement of production.31034

       (I) This chapter and rules adopted under it, any terms and 31035
conditions of the permit for a well, and applicable orders issued 31036
by the chief apply to a well that has been approved by the chief 31037
for temporary inactive well status or renewal of that status.31038

       Sec. 1509.10.  (A) Any person drilling within the state 31039
shall, within sixty days after the completion of drilling 31040
operations to the proposed total depth or after a determination 31041
that a well is a dry or lost hole, file with the division of oil 31042
and gas resources management all wireline electric logs and an 31043
accurate well completion record on a form that is prescribed by 31044
the chief of the division of oil and gas resources management that 31045
designates:31046

       (1) The purpose for which the well was drilled;31047

       (2) The character, depth, and thickness of geological units 31048
encountered, including coal seams, mineral beds, associated fluids 31049
such as fresh water, brine, and crude oil, natural gas, and sour 31050
gas, if such seams, beds, fluids, or gases are known;31051

       (3) The dates on which drilling operations were commenced and 31052
completed;31053

       (4) The types of drilling tools used and the name of the 31054
person that drilled the well;31055

       (5) The length in feet of the various sizes of casing and 31056
tubing used in drilling the well, the amount removed after 31057
completion, the type and setting depth of each packer, all other 31058
data relating to cementing in the annular space behind such casing 31059
or tubing, and data indicating completion as a dry, gas, oil, 31060
combination oil and gas, brine injection, or artificial brine well 31061
or a stratigraphic test;31062

       (6) The number of perforations in the casing and the 31063
intervals of the perforations;31064

       (7) The elevation above mean sea level of the point from 31065
which the depth measurements were made, stating also the height of 31066
the point above ground level at the well, the total depth of the 31067
well, and the deepest geological unit that was penetrated in the 31068
drilling of the well;31069

       (8) If applicable, the type, volume, and concentration of 31070
acid, and the date on which acid was used in acidizing the well;31071

       (9)(a) If applicable, the trade name and the total amount of 31072
all products, fluids, and substances, and the supplier of each 31073
product, fluid, or substance, not including cement and its 31074
constituents and lost circulation materials, intentionally added 31075
to facilitate the drilling of any portion of the well until the 31076
surface casing is set and properly sealed. The owner shall 31077
identify each additive used and provide a brief description of the 31078
purpose for which the additive is used. In addition, the owner 31079
shall include a list of all chemicals, not including any 31080
information that is designated as a trade secret pursuant to 31081
division (I)(1) of this section, intentionally added to all 31082
products, fluids, or substances and include each chemical's 31083
corresponding chemical abstracts service number and the maximum 31084
concentration of each chemical. The owner shall obtain the 31085
chemical information, not including any information that is 31086
designated as a trade secret pursuant to division (I)(1) of this 31087
section, from the company that drilled the well, provided service 31088
at the well, or supplied the chemicals. If the company that 31089
drilled the well, provided service at the well, or supplied the 31090
chemicals provides incomplete or inaccurate chemical information, 31091
the owner shall make reasonable efforts to obtain the required 31092
information from the company or supplier.31093

       (b) For purposes of division (A)(9)(a) of this section, if 31094
recycled fluid was used, the total volume of recycled fluid and 31095
the well that is the source of the recycled fluid or the 31096
centralized facility that is the source of the recycled fluid.31097

       (10)(a) If applicable, the type and volume of fluid, not 31098
including cement and its constituents or information that is 31099
designated as a trade secret pursuant to division (I)(1) of this 31100
section, used to stimulate the reservoir of the well, the 31101
reservoir breakdown pressure, the method used for the containment 31102
of fluids recovered from the fracturing of the well, the methods 31103
used for the containment of fluids when pulled from the wellbore 31104
from swabbing the well, the average pumping rate of the well, and 31105
the name of the person that performed the well stimulation. In 31106
addition, the owner shall include a copy of the log from the 31107
stimulation of the well, a copy of the invoice for each of the 31108
procedures and methods described in division (A)(10) of this 31109
section that were used on a well, and a copy of the pumping 31110
pressure and rate graphs. However, the owner may redact from the 31111
copy of each invoice that is required to be included under 31112
division (A)(10) of this section the costs of and charges for the 31113
procedures and methods described in division (A)(10) of this 31114
section that were used on a well.31115

       (b) If applicable, the trade name and the total volume of all 31116
products, fluids, and substances, and the supplier of each 31117
product, fluid, or substance used to stimulate the well. The owner 31118
shall identify each additive used, provide a brief description of 31119
the purpose for which the additive is used, and include the 31120
maximum concentration of the additive used. In addition, the owner 31121
shall include a list of all chemicals, not including any 31122
information that is designated as a trade secret pursuant to 31123
division (I)(1) of this section, intentionally added to all 31124
products, fluids, or substances and include each chemical's 31125
corresponding chemical abstracts service number and the maximum 31126
concentration of each chemical. The owner shall obtain the 31127
chemical information, not including any information that is 31128
designated as a trade secret pursuant to division (I)(1) of this 31129
section, from the company that stimulated the well or supplied the 31130
chemicals. If the company that stimulated the well or supplied the 31131
chemicals provides incomplete or inaccurate chemical information, 31132
the owner shall make reasonable efforts to obtain the required 31133
information from the company or supplier.31134

       (c) For purposes of division (A)(10)(b) of this section, if 31135
recycled fluid was used, the total volume of recycled fluid and 31136
the well that is the source of the recycled fluid or the 31137
centralized facility that is the source of the recycled fluid.31138

       (11) The name of the company that performed the logging of 31139
the well and the types of wireline electric logs performed on the 31140
well.31141

       The well completion record shall be submitted in duplicate. 31142
The first copy shall be retained as a permanent record in the 31143
files of the division, and the second copy shall be transmitted by 31144
the chief to the division of geological survey.31145

        (B)(1) Not later than sixty days after the completion of the 31146
drilling operations to the proposed total depth, the owner shall 31147
file all wireline electric logs with the division of oil and gas 31148
resources management and the chief shall transmit such logs 31149
electronically, if available, to the division of geological 31150
survey. Such logs may be retained by the owner for a period of not 31151
more than six months, or such additional time as may be granted by 31152
the chief in writing, after the completion of the well 31153
substantially to the depth shown in the application required by 31154
section 1509.06 of the Revised Code.31155

       (2) If a well is not completed within sixty days after the 31156
completion of drilling operations, the owner shall file with the 31157
division of oil and gas resources management a supplemental well 31158
completion record that includes all of the information required 31159
under this section within sixty days after the completion of the 31160
well.31161

       (3) After a well is initially completed and stimulated and 31162
until the well is plugged, the owner shall report, on a form 31163
prescribed by the chief, all materials placed into the formation 31164
to refracture, restimulate, or newly complete the well. The owner 31165
shall submit the information within sixty days after completing 31166
the refracturing, restimulation, or new completion. In addition, 31167
the owner shall report the information required in divisions 31168
(A)(10)(a) to (c) of this section, as applicable, in a manner 31169
consistent with the requirements established in this section.31170

       (C) Upon request in writing by the chief of the division of 31171
geological survey prior to the beginning of drilling of the well, 31172
the person drilling the well shall make available a complete set 31173
of cuttings accurately identified as to depth.31174

       (D) The form of the well completion record required by this 31175
section shall be one that has been prescribed by the chief of the 31176
division of oil and gas resources management and the chief of the 31177
division of geological survey. The filing of a log as required by 31178
this section fulfills the requirement of filing a log with the 31179
chief of the division of geological survey in section 1505.04 of 31180
the Revised Code.31181

       (E) If a material listed or designated under division (A)(9) 31182
or (10) or (B)(3) of this section is a material for which the 31183
division of oil and gas resources management does not have a 31184
material safety data sheet, the owner shall provide a copy of the 31185
material safety data sheet for the material to the chief.31186

       (F) An owner shall submit to the chief the information that 31187
is required in divisions (A)(10)(b) and (c) and (B)(3) of this 31188
section consistent with the requirements established in this 31189
section using one of the following methods:31190

       (1) On a form prescribed by the chief;31191

       (2) Through the chemical disclosure registry that is 31192
maintained by the ground water protection council and the 31193
interstate oil and gas compact commission;31194

       (3) Any other means approved by the chief.31195

       (G) The chief shall post on the division's web site each 31196
material safety data sheet obtained under division (E) of this 31197
section. In addition, the chief shall make available through the 31198
division's web site the chemical information that is required by 31199
divisions (A)(9) and (10) and (B)(3) of this section.31200

       (H)(1) If a medical professional, in order to assist in the 31201
diagnosis or treatment of an individual who was affected by an 31202
incident associated with the production operations of a well, 31203
requests the exact chemical composition of each product, fluid, or 31204
substance and of each chemical component in a product, fluid, or 31205
substance that is designated as a trade secret pursuant to 31206
division (I) of this section, the person claiming the trade secret 31207
protection pursuant to that division shall provide to the medical 31208
professional the exact chemical composition of the product, fluid, 31209
or substance and of the chemical component in a product, fluid, or 31210
substance that is requested.31211

       (2) A medical professional who receives information pursuant 31212
to division (H)(1) of this section shall keep the information 31213
confidential and shall not disclose the information for any 31214
purpose that is not related to the diagnosis or treatment of an 31215
individual who was affected by an incident associated with the 31216
production operations of a well. Nothing in division (H)(2) of 31217
this section precludes a medical professional from making any 31218
report required by law or professional ethical standards.31219

       (I)(1) The owner of a well who is required to submit a well 31220
completion record under division (A) of this section or a report 31221
under division (B)(3) of this section or a person that provides 31222
information to the owner as described in and for purposes of 31223
division (A)(9) or (10) or (B)(3) of this section may designate 31224
without disclosing on a form prescribed by the chief and withhold 31225
from disclosure to the chief the identity, amount, concentration, 31226
or purpose of a product, fluid, or substance or of a chemical 31227
component in a product, fluid, or substance as a trade secret. The 31228
owner or person may pursue enforcement of any rights or remedies 31229
established in sections 1333.61 to 1333.69 of the Revised Code for 31230
misappropriation, as defined in section 1333.61 of the Revised 31231
Code, with respect to the identity, amount, concentration, or 31232
purpose of a product, fluid, or substance or a chemical component 31233
in a product, fluid, or substance designated as a trade secret 31234
pursuant to division (I)(1) of this section. The division shall 31235
not disclose information regarding the identity, amount, 31236
concentration, or purpose of any product, fluid, or substance or 31237
of any chemical component in a product, fluid, or substance 31238
designated as a trade secret pursuant to division (I)(1) of this 31239
section.31240

       (2) A property owner, an adjacent property owner, or any 31241
person or agency of this state having an interest that is or may 31242
be adversely affected by a product, fluid, or substance or by a 31243
chemical component in a product, fluid, or substance may commence 31244
a civil action in the court of common pleas of Franklin county 31245
against an owner or person described in division (I)(1) of this 31246
section challenging the owner's or person's claim to entitlement 31247
to trade secret protection for the specific identity, amount, 31248
concentration, or purpose of a product, fluid, or substance or of 31249
a chemical component in a product, fluid, or substance pursuant to 31250
division (I)(1) of this section. A person who commences a civil 31251
action pursuant to division (I)(2) of this section shall provide 31252
notice to the chief in a manner prescribed by the chief. In the 31253
civil action, the court shall conduct an in camera review of 31254
information submitted by an owner or person described in division 31255
(I)(1) of this section to determine if the identity, amount, 31256
concentration, or purpose of a product, fluid, or substance or of 31257
a chemical component in a product, fluid, or substance pursuant to 31258
division (I)(1) of this section is entitled to trade secret 31259
protection.31260

       (J)(1) Except for any information that is designated as a 31261
trade secret pursuant to division (I)(1) of this section and 31262
except as provided in division (J)(2) of this section, the owner 31263
of a well shall maintain records of all chemicals placed in a well 31264
for a period of not less than two years after the date on which 31265
each such chemical was placed in the well. The chief may inspect 31266
the records at any time concerning any such chemical.31267

       (2) An owner or person who has designated the identity, 31268
amount, concentration, or purpose of a product, fluid, or 31269
substance or of a chemical component in a product, fluid, or 31270
substance as a trade secret pursuant to division (I)(1) of this 31271
section shall maintain the records for such a product, fluid, or 31272
substance or for a chemical component in a product, fluid, or 31273
substance for a period of not less than two years after the date 31274
on which each such product, fluid, or substance or each such 31275
chemical component in a product, fluid, or substance was placed in 31276
the well. Upon the request of the chief, the owner or person, as 31277
applicable, shall disclose the records to the chief if the 31278
information is necessary to respond to a spill, release, or 31279
investigation. However, the chief shall not disclose the 31280
information that is designated as a trade secret.31281

       (K)(1) For purposes of correcting inaccuracies and 31282
incompleteness in chemical information required by divisions 31283
(A)(9) and (10) and (B)(3) of this section, an owner shall be 31284
considered in substantial compliance if the owner has made 31285
reasonable efforts to obtain the required information from the 31286
supplier.31287

       (2) For purposes of reporting under this section, an owner is 31288
not required to report chemicals that occur incidentally or in 31289
trace amounts.31290

       (L) As used in this section, the term "material safety data 31291
sheet" shall conform to any revision of or change in the term by 31292
the occupational safety and health administration in the United 31293
States department of labor.31294

       Sec. 1509.11. (A)(1) The owner of any well, includingexcept31295
a horizontal well, that is producing or capable of producing oil 31296
or gas shall file with the chief of the division of oil and gas 31297
resources management, on or before the thirty-first day of March, 31298
a statement of production of oil, gas, and brine for the last 31299
preceding calendar year in such form as the chief may prescribe. 31300
An owner that has more than one hundred such wells in this state 31301
shall submit electronically the statement of production in a 31302
format that is approved by the chief. The chief shall include on 31303
the form, at the minimum, a request for the submittal of the 31304
information that a person who is regulated under this chapter is 31305
required to submit under the "Emergency Planning and Community 31306
Right-To-Know Act of 1986," 100 Stat. 1728, 42 U.S.C.A. 11001, and 31307
regulations adopted under it, and that the division of oil and gas 31308
resources management does not obtain through other reporting 31309
mechanisms.31310

       (2) The owner of any horizontal well that is producing or 31311
capable of producing oil or gas shall file with the chief, on the 31312
forty-fifth day following the close of each calendar quarter, a 31313
statement of production of oil, gas, and brine for the preceding 31314
calendar quarter in a form that the chief prescribes. An owner 31315
that has more than one hundred horizontal wells in this state 31316
shall submit electronically the statement of production in a 31317
format that is approved by the chief. The chief shall include on 31318
the form, at a minimum, a request for the submittal of the 31319
information that a person who is regulated under this chapter is 31320
required to submit under the "Emergency Planning and Community 31321
Right-To-Know Act of 1986," 100 Stat. 1728, 42 U.S.C. 11001, and 31322
regulations adopted under it, and that the division does not 31323
obtain through other reporting mechanisms.31324

       (B) The chief shall not disclose information received from 31325
the department of taxation under division (C)(12) of section 31326
5703.21 of the Revised Code until the related statement of 31327
production required by division (A) of this section is filed with 31328
the chief.31329

       Sec. 1509.16.  (A) As used in this section, "oil country 31330
tubular goods" means circular steel pipes that are seamless or 31331
welded and used in drilling for oil or natural gas, including 31332
casing, tubing, and drill pipe, whether finished or unfinished, 31333
and steel couplings and drill collars used with the pipes.31334

       (B) An owner shall file with the division of oil and gas 31335
resources management a disclosure form that specifies the country 31336
in which each oil country tubular good initially used in a 31337
production operation on or after the effective date of this 31338
section was manufactured unless that country cannot be determined 31339
by the owner. The division shall prescribe the disclosure form and 31340
consult with representatives from the natural gas, oil, and steel 31341
industries when developing the form. The division shall use the 31342
information specified on the form to establish a quality well 31343
infrastructure catalog.31344

       (C) The division shall determine the date on which the 31345
disclosure form shall be filed.31346

       Sec. 1509.50.  (A) An oil and gas regulatory cost recovery 31347
assessment is hereby imposed by this section on an owner. An owner 31348
shall pay the assessment in the same manner as a severer who is 31349
required to file a return under section 5749.06 of the Revised 31350
Code. However, an owner may designate a severer who shall pay the 31351
owner's assessment on behalf of the owner on the return that the 31352
severer is required to file under that section. If a severer so 31353
pays an owner's assessment, the severer may recoup from the owner 31354
the amount of the assessment. Except for an exempt domestic well, 31355
the assessment imposed shall be in addition to the taxes levied on 31356
the severance of oil and gas under section 5749.02 of the Revised 31357
Code.31358

       (B)(1) Except for an exempt domestic well, the oil and gas 31359
regulatory cost recovery assessment shall be calculated on a 31360
quarterly basis and shall be one of the following:31361

       (a) If the sum of ten cents per barrel of oil for all of the 31362
wells of the owner, one-half of one cent per one thousand cubic 31363
feet of natural gas for all of the wells of the owner, and the 31364
amount of the severance tax levied on each severer for all of the 31365
wells of the owner under divisions (A)(5) and (6) of section 31366
5749.02 of the Revised Code, as applicable, is greater than the 31367
sum of fifteen dollars for each well owned by the owner, the 31368
amount of the assessment is the sum of ten cents per barrel of oil 31369
for all of the wells of the owner and one-half of one cent per one 31370
thousand cubic feet of natural gas for all of the wells of the 31371
owner.31372

       (b) If the sum of ten cents per barrel of oil for all of the 31373
wells of the owner, one-half of one cent per one thousand cubic 31374
feet of natural gas for all of the wells of the owner, and the 31375
amount of the severance tax levied on each severer for all of the 31376
wells of the owner under divisions (A)(5) and (6) of section 31377
5749.02 of the Revised Code, as applicable, is less than the sum 31378
of fifteen dollars for each well owned by the owner, the amount of 31379
the assessment is the sum of fifteen dollars for each well owned 31380
by the owner less the amount of the tax levied on each severer for 31381
all of the wells of the owner under divisions (A)(5) and (6) of 31382
section 5749.02 of the Revised Code, as applicable.31383

       (2) The oil and gas regulatory cost recovery assessment for a 31384
well that becomes an exempt domestic well on and after June 30, 31385
2010, shall be sixty dollars to be paid to the division of oil and 31386
gas resources management on the first day of July of each year.31387

       (C) All money collected pursuant to this section shall be 31388
deposited in the state treasury to the credit ofcredited to the 31389
severance tax receipts fund. After the director of budget and 31390
management transfers money from the severance tax receipts fund as 31391
required in division (H) of section 5749.06 of the Revised Code, 31392
money in the severance tax receipts fund from amounts collected 31393
pursuant to this section shall be credited to the oil and gas well 31394
fund created in section 1509.02 of the Revised Code.31395

       (D) Except for purposes of revenue distribution as specified 31396
in division (B) of section 5749.02 of the Revised Code, the oil 31397
and gas regulatory cost recovery assessment imposed by this 31398
section shall be treated the same and equivalent for all purposes 31399
as the taxes levied on the severance of oil and gas under that 31400
section. However, the assessment imposed by this section is not a 31401
tax under Chapter 5749. of the Revised Code.31402

       Sec. 1511.02.  The chief of the division of soil and water 31403
resources, subject to the approval of the director of natural 31404
resources, shall do all of the following:31405

       (A) Provide administrative leadership to local soil and water 31406
conservation districts in planning, budgeting, staffing, and 31407
administering district programs and the training of district 31408
supervisors and personnel in their duties, responsibilities, and 31409
authorities as prescribed in this chapter and Chapter 1515. of the 31410
Revised Code;31411

       (B) Administer this chapter and Chapter 1515. of the Revised 31412
Code pertaining to state responsibilities and provide staff 31413
assistance to the Ohio soil and water conservation commission in 31414
exercising its statutory responsibilities;31415

       (C) Assist in expediting state responsibilities for watershed 31416
development and other natural resource conservation works of 31417
improvement;31418

       (D) Coordinate the development and implementation of 31419
cooperative programs and working agreements between local soil and 31420
water conservation districts and divisions or sections of the 31421
department of natural resources, or other agencies of local, 31422
state, and federal government;31423

       (E) Subject to the approval of the Ohio soil and water 31424
conservation commission, adopt, amend, or rescind rules pursuant 31425
to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. Rules adopted pursuant to 31426
this section:31427

       (1) Shall establish technically feasible and economically 31428
reasonable standards to achieve a level of management and 31429
conservation practices in farming or silvicultural operations that 31430
will abate wind or water erosion of the soil or abate the 31431
degradation of the waters of the state by animal waste or by soil 31432
sediment including substances attached thereto, and establish 31433
criteria for determination of the acceptability of such management 31434
and conservation practices;31435

       (2) Shall establish technically feasible and economically 31436
reasonable standards to achieve a level of management and 31437
conservation practices that will abate wind or water erosion of 31438
the soil or abate the degradation of the waters of the state by 31439
soil sediment in conjunction with land grading, excavating, 31440
filling, or other soil-disturbing activities on land used or being 31441
developed for nonfarm commercial, industrial, residential, or 31442
other nonfarm purposes, and establish criteria for determination 31443
of the acceptability of such management and conservation 31444
practices. The standards shall be designed to implement applicable 31445
areawide waste treatment management plans prepared under section 31446
208 of the "Federal Water Pollution Control Act," 86 Stat. 816 31447
(1972), 33 U.S.C.A. 1288, as amended. The standards and criteria 31448
shall not apply in any municipal corporation or county that adopts 31449
ordinances or rules pertaining to sediment control, nor to lands 31450
being used in a strip mine operation as defined in section 1513.01 31451
of the Revised Code, nor to lands being used in a surface mining 31452
operation as defined in section 1514.01 of the Revised Code.31453

       (3) May recommend criteria and procedures for the approval of 31454
urban sediment pollution abatement plans and issuance of permits 31455
prior to any grading, excavating, filling, or other whole or 31456
partial disturbance of five or more contiguous acres of land owned 31457
by one person or operated as one development unit and require 31458
implementation of such a plan. Areas of less than five contiguous 31459
acres are not exempt from compliance with other provisions of this 31460
chapter and rules adopted under them.31461

       (4) Shall establish procedures for administration of rules 31462
for agricultural pollution abatement and urban sediment pollution 31463
abatement and for enforcement of rules for agricultural pollution 31464
abatement;31465

       (5) Shall specify the pollution abatement practices eligible 31466
for state cost sharing and determine the conditions for 31467
eligibility, the construction standards and specifications, the 31468
useful life, the maintenance requirements, and the limits of cost 31469
sharing for those practices. Eligible practices shall be limited 31470
to practices that address agricultural or silvicultural operations 31471
and that require expenditures that are likely to exceed the 31472
economic returns to the owner or operator and that abate soil 31473
erosion or degradation of the waters of the state by animal waste 31474
or soil sediment including pollutants attached thereto.31475

       (6) Shall establish procedures for administering grants to 31476
owners or operators of agricultural land or concentrated animal 31477
feeding operations for the implementation of operation and 31478
management plans;31479

       (7) Shall establish procedures for administering grants to 31480
soil and water conservation districts for urban sediment pollution 31481
abatement programs, specify the types of projects eligible for 31482
grants, establish limits on the availability of grants, and 31483
establish requirements governing the execution of projects to 31484
encourage the reduction of erosion and sedimentation associated 31485
with soil-disturbing activities;31486

       (8) Shall do all of the following with regard to composting 31487
conducted in conjunction with agricultural operations:31488

       (a) Provide for the distribution of educational material 31489
concerning composting to the offices of the Ohio cooperativeOSU31490
extension service for the purposes of section 1511.022 of the 31491
Revised Code;31492

       (b) Establish methods, techniques, or practices for 31493
composting dead animals, or particular types of dead animals, that 31494
are to be used at such operations, as the chief considers to be 31495
necessary or appropriate;31496

       (c) Establish requirements and procedures governing the 31497
review and approval or disapproval of composting plans by the 31498
supervisors of soil and water conservation districts under 31499
division (Q) of section 1515.08 of the Revised Code.31500

       (9) Shall be adopted, amended, or rescinded after the chief 31501
does all of the following:31502

       (a) Mails notice to each statewide organization that the 31503
chief determines represents persons or local governmental agencies 31504
who would be affected by the proposed rule, amendment thereto, or 31505
rescission thereof at least thirty-five days before any public 31506
hearing thereon;31507

       (b) Mails a copy of each proposed rule, amendment thereto, or 31508
rescission thereof to any person who requests a copy, within five 31509
days after receipt of the request;31510

       (c) Consults with appropriate state and local governmental 31511
agencies or their representatives, including statewide 31512
organizations of local governmental officials, industrial 31513
representatives, and other interested persons;31514

       (d) If the rule relates to agricultural pollution abatement, 31515
develops an economic impact statement concerning the effect of the 31516
proposed rule or amendment.31517

       (10) Shall not conflict with air or water quality standards 31518
adopted pursuant to section 3704.03 or 6111.041 of the Revised 31519
Code. Compliance with rules adopted pursuant to this section does 31520
not affect liability for noncompliance with air or water quality 31521
standards adopted pursuant to section 3704.03 or 6111.041 of the 31522
Revised Code. The application of a level of management and 31523
conservation practices recommended under this section to control 31524
windblown soil from farming operations creates a presumption of 31525
compliance with section 3704.03 of the Revised Code as that 31526
section applies to windblown soil.31527

       (11) Insofar as the rules relate to urban sediment pollution, 31528
shall not be applicable in a municipal corporation or county that 31529
adopts ordinances or rules for urban sediment control, except that 31530
a municipal corporation or county that adopts such ordinances or 31531
rules may receive moneys for urban sediment control that are 31532
disbursed by the board of supervisors of the applicable soil and 31533
water conservation district under division (N) of section 1515.08 31534
of the Revised Code. The rules shall not exempt any person from 31535
compliance with municipal ordinances enacted pursuant to Section 3 31536
of Article XVIII, Ohio Constitution.31537

       (F) Cost share with landowners on practices established 31538
pursuant to division (E)(5) of this section as moneys are 31539
appropriated and available for that purpose. Any practice for 31540
which cost share is provided shall be maintained for its useful 31541
life. Failure to maintain a cost share practice for its useful 31542
life shall subject the landowner to full repayment to the 31543
division.31544

       (G) Issue orders requiring compliance with any rule adopted 31545
under division (E)(1) of this section or with section 1511.022 of 31546
the Revised Code. Before the chief issues an order, the chief 31547
shall afford each person allegedly liable an adjudication hearing 31548
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The chief may require in 31549
an order that a person who has caused agricultural pollution by 31550
failure to comply with the standards established under division 31551
(E)(1) of this section operate under an operation and management 31552
plan approved by the chief under this section. The chief shall 31553
require in an order that a person who has failed to comply with 31554
division (A) of section 1511.022 of the Revised Code prepare a 31555
composting plan in accordance with rules adopted under division 31556
(E)(10)(c) of this section and operate in accordance with that 31557
plan or that a person who has failed to operate in accordance with 31558
such a plan begin to operate in accordance with it. Each order 31559
shall be issued in writing and contain a finding by the chief of 31560
the facts upon which the order is based and the standard that is 31561
not being met.31562

       (H) Employ field assistants and such other employees as are 31563
necessary for the performance of the work prescribed by Chapter 31564
1515. of the Revised Code, for performance of work of the 31565
division, and as agreed to under working agreements or contractual 31566
arrangements with local soil and water conservation districts, 31567
prescribe their duties, and fix their compensation in accordance 31568
with such schedules as are provided by law for the compensation of 31569
state employees.31570

       All employees of the division, unless specifically exempted 31571
by law, shall be employed subject to the classified civil service 31572
laws in force at the time of employment.31573

       (I) In connection with new or relocated projects involving 31574
highways, underground cables, pipelines, railroads, and other 31575
improvements affecting soil and water resources, including surface 31576
and subsurface drainage:31577

       (1) Provide engineering service as is mutually agreeable to 31578
the Ohio soil and water conservation commission and the director 31579
to aid in the design and installation of soil and water 31580
conservation practices as a necessary component of such projects;31581

       (2) Maintain close liaison between the owners of lands on 31582
which the projects are executed, local soil and water conservation 31583
districts, and authorities responsible for such projects;31584

       (3) Review plans for such projects to ensure their compliance 31585
with standards developed under division (E) of this section in 31586
cooperation with the department of transportation or with any 31587
other interested agency that is engaged in soil or water 31588
conservation projects in the state in order to minimize adverse 31589
impacts on soil and water resources adjacent to or otherwise 31590
affected by these projects;31591

       (4) Recommend measures to retard erosion and protect soil and 31592
water resources through the installation of water impoundment or 31593
other soil and water conservation practices;31594

       (5) Cooperate with other agencies and subdivisions of the 31595
state to protect the agricultural status of rural lands adjacent 31596
to such projects and control adverse impacts on soil and water 31597
resources.31598

       (J) Collect, analyze, inventory, and interpret all available 31599
information pertaining to the origin, distribution, extent, use, 31600
and conservation of the soil resources of the state;31601

       (K) Prepare and maintain up-to-date reports, maps, and other 31602
materials pertaining to the soil resources of the state and their 31603
use and make that information available to governmental agencies, 31604
public officials, conservation entities, and the public;31605

       (L) Provide soil and water conservation districts with 31606
technical assistance including on-site soil investigations and 31607
soil interpretation reports on the suitability or limitations of 31608
soil to support a particular use or to plan soil conservation 31609
measures. The assistance shall be upon such terms as are mutually 31610
agreeable to the districts and the department of natural 31611
resources.31612

       (M) Assist local government officials in utilizing land use 31613
planning and zoning, current agricultural use value assessment, 31614
development reviews, and land management activities;31615

       (N) When necessary for the purposes of this chapter or 31616
Chapter 1515. of the Revised Code, develop or approve operation 31617
and management plans.31618

       This section does not restrict the excrement of domestic or 31619
farm animals defecated on land outside a concentrated animal 31620
feeding operation or runoff therefrom into the waters of the 31621
state.31622

       Sec. 1511.022.  (A) Any person who owns or operates an 31623
agricultural operation, or owns the animals raised by the owner or 31624
operator of an agricultural operation, and who wishes to conduct 31625
composting of dead animals resulting from the agricultural 31626
operation shall do both of the following:31627

       (1) Participate in an educational course concerning 31628
composting conducted by the Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service31629
and obtain a certificate of completion for the course;31630

       (2) Use the appropriate method, technique, or practice of 31631
composting established in rules adopted under division (E)(8) of 31632
section 1511.02 of the Revised Code.31633

       (B) Any person who fails to comply with division (A) of this 31634
section shall prepare and operate under a composting plan in 31635
accordance with an order issued by the chief of the division of 31636
soil and water resources under division (G) of section 1511.02 of 31637
the Revised Code. If the person's proposed composting plan is 31638
disapproved by the board of supervisors of the appropriate soil 31639
and water conservation district under division (Q)(3) of section 31640
1515.08 of the Revised Code, the person may appeal the plan 31641
disapproval to the chief, who shall afford the person a hearing. 31642
Following the hearing, the chief shall uphold the plan disapproval 31643
or reverse it. If the chief reverses the disapproval, the plan 31644
shall be deemed approved.31645

       Sec. 1519.05. (A) As used in this section, "local political 31646
subdivision" and "nonprofit organization" have the same meanings 31647
as in section 164.20 of the Revised Code.31648

       (B)(1) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 31649
clean Ohio trail fund. Twelve and one-half per cent of the net 31650
proceeds of obligations issued and sold pursuant to sections 31651
151.01 and 151.09 of the Revised Code shall be deposited into the 31652
fund.31653

       (2) Investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the 31654
fund and may be used to pay costs incurred by the director of 31655
natural resources in administering this section.31656

       (3) Money in the clean Ohio trail fund shall not be used for 31657
the appropriation of land, rights, rights-of-way, franchises, 31658
easements, or other property through the exercise of the right of 31659
eminent domain.31660

       The(4) Except as provided in division (B)(5) of this 31661
section, the director shall use moneys in the fund exclusively to 31662
provide matching grants to nonprofit organizations and to local 31663
political subdivisions for the purposes of purchasing land or 31664
interests in land for recreational trails and for the construction 31665
of such trails. A matching grant may provide up to seventy-five 31666
per cent of the cost of a recreational trail project, and the 31667
recipient of the matching grant shall provide not less than 31668
twenty-five per cent of that cost.31669

       (5) The director, at the director's discretion, may use up to 31670
twenty-five per cent of moneys in the fund to provide grants to 31671
nonprofit organizations and to local political subdivisions for 31672
the purpose of maintaining recreational trails.31673

       (C) The director shall establish policies for the purposes of 31674
this section. The policies shall establish all of the following:31675

       (1) Procedures for providing matching grants to nonprofit 31676
organizations and local political subdivisions for the purposes of 31677
purchasing land or interests in land for recreational trails and 31678
for the construction of such trails, including, without 31679
limitation, procedures for both of the following:31680

       (a) Developing a grant application form and soliciting, 31681
accepting, and approving grant applications;31682

       (b) Participation by nonprofit organizations and local 31683
political subdivisions in the application process.31684

       (2) A requirement that an application for a matching grant 31685
for a recreational trail project include a copy of a resolution 31686
supporting the project from each county in which the proposed 31687
project is to be conducted and whichever of the following is 31688
applicable:31689

       (a) If the proposed project is to be conducted wholly within 31690
the geographical boundaries of one township, a copy of a 31691
resolution supporting the project from the township;31692

       (b) If the proposed project is to be conducted wholly within 31693
the geographical boundaries of one municipal corporation, a copy 31694
of a resolution supporting the project from the municipal 31695
corporation;31696

       (c) If the proposed project is to be conducted in more than 31697
one, but fewer than five townships or municipal corporations, a 31698
copy of a resolution supporting the project from at least one-half 31699
of the total number of townships and municipal corporations in 31700
which the proposed project is to be conducted;31701

       (d) If the proposed project is to be conducted in five or 31702
more municipal corporations, a copy of a resolution supporting the 31703
project from at least three-fifths of the total number of 31704
townships and municipal corporations in which the proposed project 31705
is to be conducted.31706

       (3) Eligibility criteria that must be satisfied by an 31707
applicant in order to receive a matching grant and that emphasize 31708
the following:31709

       (a) Synchronization with the statewide trail plan;31710

       (b) Complete regional systems and links to the statewide 31711
trail system;31712

       (c) A combination of funds from various state agencies;31713

       (d) The provision of links in urban areas that support 31714
commuter access and show economic impact on local communities;31715

       (e) The linkage of population centers with public outdoor 31716
recreation areas and facilities;31717

       (f) The purchase of rail lines that are linked to the 31718
statewide trail plan;31719

       (g) The preservation of natural corridors.31720

       (4) Items of value, such as in-kind contributions of land, 31721
easements or other interests in land, labor, or materials, that 31722
may be considered as contributing toward the percentage of the 31723
cost of a recreational trails project that must be provided by a 31724
matching grant recipient;31725

       (5) A requirement that an application for a matching grant 31726
for a recreational trail project include a study on the current 31727
use of existing trails in the county in which the proposed project 31728
will be located if there is an existing trail in that county. The 31729
study shall include a report on the maintenance needs and a plan 31730
for use of the proposed project.31731

        (6) Procedures for providing grants to nonprofit 31732
organizations and local political subdivisions for the purpose of 31733
maintaining recreational trails, including, without limitation, 31734
procedures for both of the following:31735

        (a) Developing a grant application form and soliciting, 31736
accepting, and approving grant applications;31737

        (b) Participation by nonprofit organizations and local 31738
political subdivisions in the application process.31739

        (7) Eligibility criteria that must be satisfied by an 31740
applicant in order to receive a grant for the purpose of 31741
maintaining recreational trails.31742

       Sec. 1531.06.  (A) The chief of the division of wildlife, 31743
with the approval of the director of natural resources, may 31744
acquire by gift, lease, purchase, or otherwise lands or surface 31745
rights upon lands and waters or surface rights upon waters for 31746
wild animals, fish or game management, preservation, propagation, 31747
and protection, outdoor and nature activities, public fishing and 31748
hunting grounds, and flora and fauna preservation. The chief, with 31749
the approval of the director, may receive by grant, devise, 31750
bequest, donation, or assignment evidences of indebtedness, the 31751
proceeds of which are to be used for the purchase of such lands or 31752
surface rights upon lands and waters or surface rights upon 31753
waters.31754

       (B)(1) The chief shall adopt rules for the protection of 31755
state-owned or leased lands and waters and property under the 31756
control of the division of wildlife against wrongful use or 31757
occupancy that will ensure the carrying out of the intent of this 31758
section, protect those lands, waters, and property from 31759
depredations, and preserve them from molestation, spoilation, 31760
destruction, or any improper use or occupancy thereof, including 31761
rules with respect to recreational activities and for the 31762
government and use of such lands, waters, and property.31763

       (2) The chief may adopt rules benefiting wild animals, fish 31764
or game management, preservation, propagation, and protection, 31765
outdoor and nature activities, public fishing and hunting grounds, 31766
and flora and fauna preservation, and regulating the taking and 31767
possession of wild animals on any lands or waters owned or leased 31768
or under the division's supervision and control and, for a 31769
specified period of years, may prohibit or recall the taking and 31770
possession of any wild animal on any portion of such lands or 31771
waters. The division clearly shall define and mark the boundaries 31772
of the lands and waters owned or leased or under its supervision 31773
and control upon which the taking of any wild animal is 31774
prohibited.31775

       (C) The chief, with the approval of the director, may acquire 31776
by gift, lease, or purchase land for the purpose of establishing 31777
state fish hatcheries and game farms and may erect on it buildings 31778
or structures that are necessary.31779

       The title to or lease of such lands and waters shall be taken 31780
by the chief in the name of the state. The lease or purchase price 31781
of all such lands and waters may be paid from hunting and trapping 31782
and fishing licenses and any other funds.31783

       (D) To provide more public recreation, stream and lake 31784
agreements for public fishing only may be obtained under rules 31785
adopted by the chief.31786

       (E) The chief, with the approval of the director, may 31787
establish user fees for the use of special public facilities or 31788
participation in special activities on lands and waters 31789
administered by the division. The special facilities and 31790
activities may include hunting or fishing on special designated 31791
public lands and waters intensively managed or stocked with 31792
artificially propagated game birds or fish, field trial 31793
facilities, wildlife nature centers, firearm ranges, boat mooring 31794
facilities, camping sites, and other similar special facilities 31795
and activities. The chief shall determine whether the user fees 31796
are refundable and shall ensure that that information is provided 31797
at the time the user fees are paid.31798

       (F) The chief, with the approval of the director, may enter 31799
into lease agreements for rental of concessions or other special 31800
projects situated on state-owned or leased lands or waters or 31801
other property under the division's control. The chief shall set 31802
and collect the fees for concession rentals or other special 31803
projects; regulate through contracts between the division and 31804
concessionaires the sale of tangible objects at concessions or 31805
other special projects; and keep a record of all such fee payments 31806
showing the amount received, from whom received, and for what 31807
purpose the fee was collected.31808

       (G) The chief may sell or donate conservation-related items 31809
or items that promote wildlife conservation, including, but not 31810
limited to, stamps, pins, badges, books, bulletins, maps, 31811
publications, calendars, and any other educational article or 31812
artifact pertaining to wild animals; sell confiscated or forfeited 31813
items; and sell surplus structures and equipment, and timber or 31814
crops from lands owned, administered, leased, or controlled by the 31815
division. The chief, with the approval of the director, also may 31816
engage in campaigns and special events that promote wildlife 31817
conservation by selling or donating wildlife-related materials, 31818
memberships, and other items of promotional value.31819

       (H) The chief may sell, lease, or transfer minerals or 31820
mineral rights, with the approval of the director, when the chief 31821
and the director determine it to be in the best interest of the 31822
state. Upon approval of the director, the chief may make, execute, 31823
and deliver contracts, including leases, to mine, drill, or 31824
excavate iron ore, stone, coal, salt, and other minerals, other 31825
than oil or gas, upon and under lands owned by the state and 31826
administered by the division to any person who complies with the 31827
terms of such a contract. No such contract shall be valid for more 31828
than fifty years from its effective date. Consideration for 31829
minerals and mineral rights shall be by rental or royalty basis as 31830
prescribed by the chief and payable as prescribed by contract. 31831
Moneys collected under this division shall be paid into the state 31832
treasury to the credit of the wildlife habitat fund created in 31833
section 1531.33 of the Revised Code. Contracts entered into under 31834
this division also may provide for consideration for minerals or 31835
mineral rights in the form of acquisition of lands as provided 31836
under divisions (A) and (C) of this section.31837

       (I) All moneys received under divisions (E), (F), and (G) of 31838
this section shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit 31839
of a fund that shall be used for the purposes outlined in section 31840
1533.15 of the Revised Code and for the management of other wild 31841
animals for their ecological and nonconsumptive recreational value 31842
or benefit.31843

       (J) The chief, with the approval of the director, may barter 31844
or sell wild animals to other states, state or federal agencies, 31845
and conservation or zoological organizations. Moneys received from 31846
the sale of wild animals shall be deposited into the wild animal31847
wildlife fund created in section 1531.341531.17 of the Revised 31848
Code.31849

       (K) The chief shall adopt rules establishing standards and 31850
guidelines for the administration of contraceptive chemicals to 31851
noncaptive wild animals. The rules may specify chemical delivery 31852
methods and devices and monitoring requirements.31853

       The chief shall establish criteria for the issuance of and 31854
shall issue permits for the administration of contraceptive 31855
chemicals to noncaptive wild animals. No person shall administer 31856
contraceptive chemicals to noncaptive wild animals without a 31857
permit issued by the chief.31858

       (L) All fees set by the chief under this section shall be 31859
approved by the wildlife council.31860

       (M) Information contained in the wildlife diversity database 31861
that is established pursuant to division (B)(2) of this section 31862
and section 1531.25 of the Revised Code may be made available to 31863
any individual or public or private agency for research, 31864
educational, environmental, land management, or other similar 31865
purposes that are not detrimental to the conservation of a species 31866
or feature. Information regarding sensitive site locations of 31867
species that are listed pursuant to section 1531.25 of the Revised 31868
Code and of features that are included in the wildlife diversity 31869
database is not subject to section 149.43 of the Revised Code if 31870
the chief determines that the release of the information could be 31871
detrimental to the conservation of a species or feature.31872

       Sec. 1531.17.  All fines, penalties, and forfeitures arising 31873
from prosecutions, convictions, confiscations, or otherwise under 31874
this chapter and Chapters 1517. and 1533. of the Revised Code, 31875
unless otherwise directed by the director of natural resources, 31876
shall be paid by the officer by whom collected to the director and 31877
by himthe director paid into the state treasury to the credit of 31878
the wildlife fund, which is hereby created, for the use of the 31879
division of wildlife. All moneys received from the sale of wild 31880
animals under division (J) of section 1531.06 shall be paid into 31881
the state treasury to the credit of the wildlife fund for the use 31882
of the division. All moneys collected as license fees on nets in 31883
the Lake Erie fishing district shall be paid by the director into 31884
the state treasury to the credit of the wildlife fund for use only 31885
in the betterment and the propagation of fish therein or in 31886
otherwise propagating fish in such district. All investment 31887
earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund. The wildlife 31888
fund shall not be used for compensation of personnel employed by 31889
other divisions of the department of natural resources who are 31890
assigned to law enforcement duties in aid of the division of 31891
wildlife or for compensation of division of wildlife personnel for 31892
activities related to the instruction of personnel of other 31893
divisions.31894

       Sec. 1545.071. The following applies until the department of 31895
administrative services implements for park districts the health 31896
care plans under section 9.901 of the Revised Code. If those plans 31897
do not include or address any benefits listed in this section, the 31898
following provisions continue in effect for those benefits.31899

       The board of park commissioners of any park district may 31900
procure and pay all or any part of the cost of group insurance 31901
policies that may provide benefits for hospitalization, surgical 31902
care, major medical care, disability, dental care, eye care, 31903
medical care, hearing aids, or prescription drugs, or sickness and 31904
accident insurance or a combination of any of the foregoing types 31905
of insurance or coverage for park district officers and employees 31906
and their immediate dependents issued by an insurance company duly 31907
authorized to do business in this state.31908

       The board may procure and pay all or any part of the cost of 31909
group life insurance to insure the lives of park district 31910
employees.31911

       The board also may contract for group health care services 31912
with health insuring corporations holding a certificate of 31913
authority under Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code provided that 31914
each officer or employee is permitted to:31915

       (A) Choose between a plan offered by an insurance company and 31916
a plan offered by a health insuring corporation and provided 31917
further that the officer or employee pays any amount by which the 31918
cost of the plan chosen by the officer or employee exceeds the 31919
cost of the plan offered by the board under this section;31920

       (B) Change the choice made under division (A) of this section 31921
at a time each year as determined in advance by the board.31922

       Any appointed member of the board of park commissioners and 31923
the spouse and dependent children of the member may be covered, at 31924
the option and expense of the member, as a noncompensated employee 31925
of the park district under any benefit plan described in division 31926
(A) of this section. The member shall pay to the park district the 31927
amount certified to it by the benefit provider as the provider's 31928
charge for the coverage the member has chosen under division (A) 31929
of this section. Payments for coverage shall be made, in advance, 31930
in a manner prescribed by the board. The member's exercise of an 31931
option to be covered under this section shall be in writing, 31932
announced at a regular public meeting of the board, and recorded 31933
as a public record in the minutes of the board.31934

       The board may provide the benefits authorized in this section 31935
by contributing to a health and welfare trust fund administered 31936
through or in conjunction with a collective bargaining 31937
representative of the park district employees.31938

       The board may provide the benefits described in this section 31939
through an individual self-insurance program or a joint 31940
self-insurance program as provided in section 9.833 of the Revised 31941
Code.31942

       Sec. 1545.23.  If a park district enters into an agreement 31943
for the sale or lease of mineral rights regarding a park within 31944
the district, any royalties or other moneys resulting from the 31945
sale or lease shall be deposited into a special fund that the 31946
board of park commissioners shall create. The fund shall be used 31947
exclusively for maintenance of parks within the district and for 31948
the acquisition of new park lands.31949

       Sec. 1547.532.  (A) All of the following are exempt from 31950
registration under this chapter:31951

       (1) Sailboards;31952

       (2) Kiteboards;31953

       (3) Paddleboards;31954

       (4) Belly boats or float tubes.31955

       (B) As used in this section:31956

       (1) "Belly boat" or "float tube" means a vessel that is 31957
inflatable, propelled solely by human muscular effort without 31958
using an oar, paddle, or pole, and designed to accommodate a 31959
single individual as an operator in such a manner that the 31960
operator remains partially submerged in the water.31961

       (2) "Kiteboard" means a recreational vessel that is 31962
inherently buoyant, has no cockpit, and is operated by an 31963
individual who is standing on the vessel while using a kite as a 31964
means of propulsion and lift.31965

       (3) "Paddleboard" means a recreational vessel that is 31966
inherently buoyant, is propelled by human muscular effort using a 31967
pole or single- or double-bladed paddle, and is operated by an 31968
individual who is kneeling, standing, or lying on the vessel.31969

       (4) "Sailboard" means a recreational vessel that is 31970
inherently buoyant, has no cockpit, has a single sail mounted on a 31971
mast that is connected to the vessel by a free-rotating, flexible 31972
joint, and is operated by an individual who is standing on the 31973
vessel.31974

       Sec. 1547.542. (A) Any person or organization owning any 31975
number of canoes, rowboats, inflatable watercraft, or sailboats 31976
for the purpose of rental to the public may apply with the chief 31977
of the division of watercraft for and receive an annual 31978
certificate of livery registration. No watercraft shall be rented 31979
to the public from a livery or other place of business in this 31980
state unless it first has been numbered and registered in 31981
accordance with this section or section 1547.54 of the Revised 31982
Code. Certificates of livery registration shall be issued by an 31983
authorized agent who is selected by the chief from among those 31984
designated under section 1547.54 of the Revised Code. The 31985
certificate shall display theall of the following:31986

       (1) The name of the owner of the livery, the;31987

       (2) The date of issuance, the;31988

       (3) The date of expiration, the;31989

       (4) The number of watercraft registered, the;31990

       (5) The fee paid, an;31991

       (6) An authorized facsimile of the signature of the chief 31992
provided by the authorized agent who is selected to issue the 31993
certificate, and the;31994

       (7) The signature of the livery owner. The certificate shall 31995
bear the;31996

       (8) The livery watercraft registration number assigned to the 31997
livery owner, which shall be displayed in accordance with section 31998
1547.57 of the Revised Code on each watercraft in the fleet for 31999
which the certificate was issued. The32000

       The owner of the livery shall be issued a tag for each 32001
watercraft that has been registered in accordance with this 32002
section. The tag shall be affixed to each such watercraft in 32003
accordance with this section prior to the watercraft's being 32004
rented to the public. The chief shall prescribe the content and 32005
form of the tag in rules adopted under section 1547.52 of the 32006
Revised Code.32007

       The owner of a livery shall obtain an amended certificate of 32008
livery registration from the chief whenever the composition of the 32009
fleet changes.32010

       (B) Not later than March 15, 2015, the owner of a livery 32011
shall identify each watercraft in the fleet for which a 32012
certificate of registration has been issued under this section in 32013
one of the following ways:32014

       (1) By displaying the livery watercraft registration number 32015
assigned to the livery owner on the forward half of both sides of 32016
the watercraft in block characters that are of a single color that 32017
contrasts with the color of the hull and are at least three inches 32018
in height. The livery watercraft registration number shall be 32019
displayed in such a manner that the number is visible under normal 32020
operating conditions. In addition, the tag that has been issued to 32021
the watercraft under this section shall be placed not more than 32022
six inches from the livery watercraft registration number on the 32023
port side of the watercraft.32024

       (2) By displaying the livery name on the rear half of the 32025
watercraft in such a manner that it is clearly visible under 32026
normal operating conditions. If there is insufficient space or it 32027
is impractical to display the livery name on the sides of the 32028
watercraft, the livery name may be displayed on the rear half of 32029
the watercraft's deck, provided that the display of the name does 32030
not interfere with the placement of the tag that has been issued 32031
to the watercraft. In addition, the tag shall be placed in one of 32032
the following locations:32033

       (a) In the upper right corner of the transom so that the tag 32034
does not interfere with the legibility of the hull identification 32035
number of the watercraft;32036

       (b) Six inches from the stern on the outside of the 32037
watercraft below the port side gunwale;32038

       (c) On the inside of the watercraft on the upper portion of 32039
the starboard side gunwale so that the tag is visible from the 32040
port side of the watercraft;32041

       (d) On a deck on the rear half of the watercraft.32042

       For purposes of division (B) of this section, each watercraft 32043
in a livery fleet shall be identified in a uniform and consistent 32044
manner.32045

       (C) The fee for each watercraft registered under this section 32046
shall be an annual registration fee. The fee shall be one-third of 32047
the triennial registration fees prescribed in section 1547.54 of 32048
the Revised Code. However, if the size of the fleet does not 32049
increase, the fee for an amended certificate of livery 32050
registration shall be the fee prescribed for issuing a duplicate 32051
registration certificate under section 1547.54 of the Revised 32052
Code, and the chief shall not refund to the livery owner all or 32053
any portion of an annual registration fee applicable to a 32054
watercraft transferred or abandoned by the livery owner. If the 32055
size of the fleet increases, the livery owner shall be required to 32056
pay the applicable annual registration fee for each watercraft 32057
registered under an amended certificate of livery registration 32058
that is in excess of the number of watercraft contained in the 32059
annual certificate of livery registration.32060

       In addition to the fees established in this section, 32061
watercraft that are not powercraft shall be charged a waterways 32062
conservation assessment fee. The fee shall be collected at the 32063
time of the issuance of an annual livery registration under this 32064
section and shall be one dollar and fifty cents for each 32065
watercraft included in the registration. The fee shall be 32066
deposited in the state treasury and credited to a distinct account 32067
in the waterways safety fund created in section 1547.75 of the 32068
Revised Code.32069

       (D) The certificate of livery registration, rental receipts32070
agreements, and required safety equipment are subject to 32071
inspection at any time at the livery's place of business by any 32072
authorized representative of the division of watercraft or any law 32073
enforcement officer in accordance with section 1547.63 of the 32074
Revised Code.32075

       (E) Except as provided in this section, all watercraft 32076
registered under this section are subject to this chapter and 32077
Chapter 1548. of the Revised Code.32078

       (F) The chief may issue an order temporarily or permanently32079
restricting or suspending a livery certificate of registration and 32080
the privileges associated with it without a hearing if the chief 32081
finds that the holder of the certificate has violated this 32082
chapter.32083

       Sec. 1547.99.  (A) Whoever violates section 1547.91 of the 32084
Revised Code is guilty of a felony of the fourth degree.32085

       (B) Whoever violates division (F) of section 1547.08, section 32086
1547.10, division (I) of section 1547.111, section 1547.13, or 32087
section 1547.66 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of 32088
the first degree.32089

       (C) Whoever violates a provision of this chapter or a rule 32090
adopted thereunder, for which no penalty is otherwise provided, is 32091
guilty of a minor misdemeanor.32092

       (D) Whoever violates section 1547.07, 1547.132, or 1547.12 of 32093
the Revised Code without causing injury to persons or damage to 32094
property is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.32095

       (E) Whoever violates section 1547.07, 1547.132, or 1547.12 of 32096
the Revised Code causing injury to persons or damage to property 32097
is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree.32098

       (F) Whoever violates division (N) of section 1547.54, 32099
division (G) of section 1547.30, or section 1547.131, 1547.25, 32100
1547.33, 1547.38, 1547.39, 1547.40, 1547.65, 1547.69, or 1547.92 32101
of the Revised Code or a rule adopted under division (A)(2) of 32102
section 1547.52 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of 32103
the fourth degree.32104

       (G) Whoever violates section 1547.11 of the Revised Code is 32105
guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree and shall be punished 32106
as provided in division (G)(1), (2), or (3) of this section.32107

       (1) Except as otherwise provided in division (G)(2) or (3) of 32108
this section, the court shall sentence the offender to a jail term 32109
of three consecutive days and may sentence the offender pursuant 32110
to section 2929.24 of the Revised Code to a longer jail term. In 32111
addition, the court shall impose upon the offender a fine of not 32112
less than one hundred fifty nor more than one thousand dollars.32113

       The court may suspend the execution of the mandatory jail 32114
term of three consecutive days that it is required to impose by 32115
division (G)(1) of this section if the court, in lieu of the 32116
suspended jail term, places the offender under a community control 32117
sanction pursuant to section 2929.25 of the Revised Code and 32118
requires the offender to attend, for three consecutive days, a 32119
drivers' intervention program that is certified pursuant to 32120
section 3793.105119.38 of the Revised Code. The court also may 32121
suspend the execution of any part of the mandatory jail term of 32122
three consecutive days that it is required to impose by division 32123
(G)(1) of this section if the court places the offender under a 32124
community control sanction pursuant to section 2929.25 of the 32125
Revised Code for part of the three consecutive days; requires the 32126
offender to attend, for that part of the three consecutive days, a 32127
drivers' intervention program that is certified pursuant to 32128
section 3793.105119.38 of the Revised Code; and sentences the 32129
offender to a jail term equal to the remainder of the three 32130
consecutive days that the offender does not spend attending the 32131
drivers' intervention program. The court may require the offender, 32132
as a condition of community control, to attend and satisfactorily 32133
complete any treatment or education programs, in addition to the 32134
required attendance at a drivers' intervention program, that the 32135
operators of the drivers' intervention program determine that the 32136
offender should attend and to report periodically to the court on 32137
the offender's progress in the programs. The court also may impose 32138
any other conditions of community control on the offender that it 32139
considers necessary.32140

       (2) If, within six years of the offense, the offender has 32141
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one violation of section 32142
1547.11 of the Revised Code or one other equivalent offense, the 32143
court shall sentence the offender to a jail term of ten 32144
consecutive days and may sentence the offender pursuant to section 32145
2929.24 of the Revised Code to a longer jail term. In addition, 32146
the court shall impose upon the offender a fine of not less than 32147
one hundred fifty nor more than one thousand dollars.32148

       In addition to any other sentence that it imposes upon the 32149
offender, the court may require the offender to attend a drivers' 32150
intervention program that is certified pursuant to section 3793.1032151
5119.38 of the Revised Code.32152

       (3) If, within six years of the offense, the offender has 32153
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to more than one violation or 32154
offense identified in division (G)(2) of this section, the court 32155
shall sentence the offender to a jail term of thirty consecutive 32156
days and may sentence the offender to a longer jail term of not 32157
more than one year. In addition, the court shall impose upon the 32158
offender a fine of not less than one hundred fifty nor more than 32159
one thousand dollars.32160

       In addition to any other sentence that it imposes upon the 32161
offender, the court may require the offender to attend a drivers' 32162
intervention program that is certified pursuant to section 3793.1032163
5119.38 of the Revised Code.32164

       (4) Upon a showing that serving a jail term would seriously 32165
affect the ability of an offender sentenced pursuant to division 32166
(G)(1), (2), or (3) of this section to continue the offender's 32167
employment, the court may authorize that the offender be granted 32168
work release after the offender has served the mandatory jail term 32169
of three, ten, or thirty consecutive days that the court is 32170
required by division (G)(1), (2), or (3) of this section to 32171
impose. No court shall authorize work release during the mandatory 32172
jail term of three, ten, or thirty consecutive days that the court 32173
is required by division (G)(1), (2), or (3) of this section to 32174
impose. The duration of the work release shall not exceed the time 32175
necessary each day for the offender to commute to and from the 32176
place of employment and the place in which the jail term is served 32177
and the time actually spent under employment.32178

       (5) Notwithstanding any section of the Revised Code that 32179
authorizes the suspension of the imposition or execution of a 32180
sentence or the placement of an offender in any treatment program 32181
in lieu of being imprisoned or serving a jail term, no court shall 32182
suspend the mandatory jail term of ten or thirty consecutive days 32183
required to be imposed by division (G)(2) or (3) of this section 32184
or place an offender who is sentenced pursuant to division (G)(2) 32185
or (3) of this section in any treatment program in lieu of being 32186
imprisoned or serving a jail term until after the offender has 32187
served the mandatory jail term of ten or thirty consecutive days 32188
required to be imposed pursuant to division (G)(2) or (3) of this 32189
section. Notwithstanding any section of the Revised Code that 32190
authorizes the suspension of the imposition or execution of a 32191
sentence or the placement of an offender in any treatment program 32192
in lieu of being imprisoned or serving a jail term, no court, 32193
except as specifically authorized by division (G)(1) of this 32194
section, shall suspend the mandatory jail term of three 32195
consecutive days required to be imposed by division (G)(1) of this 32196
section or place an offender who is sentenced pursuant to division 32197
(G)(1) of this section in any treatment program in lieu of 32198
imprisonment until after the offender has served the mandatory 32199
jail term of three consecutive days required to be imposed 32200
pursuant to division (G)(1) of this section.32201

       (6) As used in division (G) of this section:32202

       (a) "Equivalent offense" has the same meaning as in section 32203
4511.181 of the Revised Code.32204

       (b) "Jail term" and "mandatory jail term" have the same 32205
meanings as in section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.32206

       (H) Whoever violates section 1547.304 of the Revised Code is 32207
guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree and also shall be 32208
assessed any costs incurred by the state or a county, township, 32209
municipal corporation, or other political subdivision in disposing 32210
of an abandoned junk vessel or outboard motor, less any money 32211
accruing to the state, county, township, municipal corporation, or 32212
other political subdivision from that disposal.32213

       (I) Whoever violates division (B) or (C) of section 1547.49 32214
of the Revised Code is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.32215

       (J) Whoever violates section 1547.31 of the Revised Code is 32216
guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree on a first offense. 32217
On each subsequent offense, the person is guilty of a misdemeanor 32218
of the third degree.32219

       (K) Whoever violates section 1547.05 or 1547.051 of the 32220
Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree if 32221
the violation is not related to a collision, injury to a person, 32222
or damage to property and a misdemeanor of the third degree if the 32223
violation is related to a collision, injury to a person, or damage 32224
to property.32225

       (L) The sentencing court, in addition to the penalty provided 32226
under this section for a violation of this chapter or a rule 32227
adopted under it that involves a powercraft powered by more than 32228
ten horsepower and that, in the opinion of the court, involves a 32229
threat to the safety of persons or property, shall order the 32230
offender to complete successfully a boating course approved by the 32231
national association of state boating law administrators before 32232
the offender is allowed to operate a powercraft powered by more 32233
than ten horsepower on the waters in this state. Violation of a 32234
court order entered under this division is punishable as contempt 32235
under Chapter 2705. of the Revised Code.32236

       Sec. 1548.02.  The chief of the division of watercraft shall 32237
adopt such rules as the chief considers necessary to ensure 32238
uniform and orderly operation of this chapter, and the clerks of 32239
the courts of common pleas shall conform to those rules. The chief 32240
shall receive and file in the chief's office all information 32241
forwarded to the chief by the clerks under this chapter and shall 32242
maintain indexes covering the state at large for that information. 32243
These indexes shall be for the state at large and not for 32244
individual counties.32245

       The chief shall check with the chief's record all duplicate 32246
certificates of title received in the chief's office from the 32247
clerks.32248

       If it appears that any certificate of title has been 32249
improperly issued or is no longer required, the chief shall cancel 32250
the certificate. Upon the cancellation of any certificate of 32251
title, the chief shall notify the clerk who issued it, and the 32252
clerk shall enter the cancellation in the clerk's records. The 32253
chief also shall notify the person to whom the certificate of 32254
title was issued, as well as any lienholders appearing on it, of 32255
the cancellation and, if it is a physical certificate of title, 32256
shall demand the surrender of the certificate of title, but the 32257
cancellation shall not affect the validity of any lien noted on 32258
it. The holder of a physical certificate of title shall return it 32259
to the chief immediately.32260

       The clerks shall keep on hand a sufficient supply of blank 32261
forms that, except certificate of title and memorandum certificate 32262
forms, shall be furnished and distributed without charge to 32263
registered manufacturers or dealers or to other persons residing 32264
within the county. The clerks shall provide the certificates of 32265
title, theand ribbons, cartridges, or other devices necessary for 32266
datathe operation of the certificate of title processing, and 32267
removable backup mediaequipment as determined by the automated 32268
title processing board pursuant to division (C) of section 4505.09 32269
of the Revised Code from moneys provided to the clerks from the 32270
automated title processing fund in accordance with division 32271
(B)(3)(b) of section 4505.09 of the Revised Code. The clerks shall 32272
furnish all other supplies from other moneys available to the 32273
clerks.32274

       Sec. 1551.33.  (A) The director of development services shall 32275
appoint and fix the compensation of the director of the Ohio coal 32276
development office. The director shall serve at the pleasure of 32277
the director of development services.32278

       (B) The director of the office shall do all of the following:32279

       (1) Biennially prepare and maintain the Ohio coal development 32280
agenda required under section 1551.34 of the Revised Code;32281

       (2) Propose and support policies for the office consistent 32282
with the Ohio coal development agenda and develop means to 32283
implement the agenda;32284

       (3) Initiate, undertake, and support projects to carry out 32285
the office's purposes and ensure that the projects are consistent 32286
with and meet the selection criteria established by the Ohio coal 32287
development agenda;32288

       (4) Actively encourage joint participation in and, when 32289
feasible, joint funding of the office's projects with governmental 32290
agencies, electric utilities, universities and colleges, other 32291
public or private interests, or any other person;32292

       (5) Establish a table of organization for and employ such 32293
employees and agents as are necessary for the administration and 32294
operation of the office. Any such employees shall be in the 32295
unclassified service and shall serve at the pleasure of the 32296
director of development services.32297

       (6) Appoint specified members of and conveneConvene the 32298
technical advisory committee established under section 1551.35 of 32299
the Revised Code;32300

       (7) Review, with the assistance of the technical advisory 32301
committee, proposed coal research and development projects as 32302
defined in section 1555.01 of the Revised Code, and coal 32303
development projects, submitted to the office by public utilities 32304
for the purpose of section 4905.304 of the Revised Code. If the 32305
director and the advisory committee determine that any such 32306
facility or project has as its purpose the enhanced use of Ohio 32307
coal in an environmentally acceptable, cost effective manner, 32308
promotes energy conservation, is cost effective, and is 32309
environmentally sound, the director shall submit to the public 32310
utilities commission a report recommending that the commission 32311
allow the recovery of costs associated with the facility or 32312
project under section 4905.304 of the Revised Code and including 32313
the reasons for the recommendation.32314

       (8) Establish such policies, procedures, and guidelines as 32315
are necessary to achieve the office's purposes.32316

       (C) With the approval of the director of development 32317
services, the director of the office may exercise any of the 32318
powers and duties that the director of development services32319
considers appropriate or desirable to achieve the office's 32320
purposes, including, but not limited to, the powers and duties 32321
enumerated in sections 1551.11, 1551.12, and 1551.15 of the 32322
Revised Code.32323

       Additionally, the director of the office may make loans to 32324
governmental agencies or persons for projects to carry out the 32325
office's purposes. Fees, charges, rates of interest, times of 32326
payment of interest and principal, and other terms, conditions, 32327
and provisions of the loans shall be such as the director of the 32328
office determines to be appropriate and in furtherance of the 32329
purposes for which the loans are made. The mortgage lien securing 32330
any moneys lent by the director of the office may be subordinate 32331
to the mortgage lien securing any moneys lent or invested by a 32332
financial institution, but shall be superior to that securing any 32333
moneys lent or expended by any other person. The moneys used in 32334
making the loans shall be disbursed upon order of the director of 32335
the office.32336

       Sec. 1551.35.  (A) There is hereby established a technical 32337
advisory committee to assist the director of the Ohio coal 32338
development office in achieving the office's purposes. The 32339
director of development services shall appoint to the committee 32340
one member of the public utilities commission and one 32341
representative each of coal production companies, the united mine 32342
workers of America, electric utilities, manufacturers that use 32343
Ohio coal, and environmental organizations, as well as two people 32344
with a background in coal research and development technology, one 32345
of whom is employed at the time of the member's appointment by a 32346
state university, as defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised 32347
Code. In addition, the committee shall include four legislative 32348
members. The speaker and minority leader of the house of 32349
representatives each shall appoint one member of the house of 32350
representatives, and the president and minority leader of the 32351
senate each shall appoint one member of the senate, to the 32352
committee. The director of environmental protection shall serve on 32353
the committee as an ex officio member. Any member of the committee 32354
may designate in writing a substitute to serve in the member's 32355
absence on the committee. The director of environmental protection 32356
may designate in writing the chief of the air pollution control 32357
division of the agency to represent the agency. Members shall 32358
serve on the committee at the pleasure of their appointing 32359
authority. Members of the committee appointed by the director of 32360
the officedevelopment services and, notwithstanding section 32361
101.26 of the Revised Code, legislative members of the committee, 32362
when engaged in their official duties as members of the committee, 32363
shall be compensated on a per diem basis in accordance with 32364
division (J) of section 124.15 of the Revised Code, except that 32365
the member of the public utilities commission and, while employed 32366
by a state university, the member with a background in coal 32367
research, shall not be so compensated. Members shall receive their 32368
actual and necessary expenses incurred in the performance of their 32369
duties.32370

       (B) The technical advisory committee shall review and make 32371
recommendations concerning the Ohio coal development agenda 32372
required under section 1551.34 of the Revised Code, project 32373
proposals, research and development projects submitted to the 32374
office by public utilities for the purpose of section 4905.304 of 32375
the Revised Code, proposals for grants, loans, and loan guarantees 32376
for purposes of sections 1555.01 to 1555.06 of the Revised Code, 32377
and such other topics as the director of the office considers 32378
appropriate.32379

       (C) The technical advisory committee may hold an executive 32380
session at any regular or special meeting for the purpose of 32381
considering research and development project proposals or 32382
applications for assistance submitted to the Ohio coal development 32383
office under section 1551.33, or sections 1555.01 to 1555.06, of 32384
the Revised Code, to the extent that the proposals or applications 32385
consist of trade secrets or other proprietary information.32386

       Any materials or data submitted to, made available to, or 32387
received by the department of development services agency or the 32388
director of the Ohio coal development office in connection with 32389
agreements for assistance entered into under this chapter or 32390
Chapter 1555. of the Revised Code, or any information taken from 32391
those materials or data for any purpose, to the extent that the 32392
materials or data consist of trade secrets or other proprietary 32393
information, are not public records for the purposes of section 32394
149.43 of the Revised Code.32395

       As used in this division, "trade secrets" has the same 32396
meaning as in section 1333.61 of the Revised Code.32397

       Sec. 1555.15.  There is hereby created in the state treasury 32398
the coal research and development fund. Moneys obtained for coal 32399
research and development projects from federal grants or loans, 32400
private grants, and other sources, and moneys paid into the fund 32401
pursuant to section 151.07 or 1555.08 of the Revised Code, shall 32402
be expended for the purpose of making grants and making or 32403
guaranteeing loans for coal research and development projects that 32404
will encourage the use of Ohio coal, to any individual, 32405
association, or corporation doing business in this state, or to 32406
any educational or scientific institution located in this state as 32407
provided for in Section 15 of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution and 32408
section 1555.08 of the Revised Code, when appropriated for such 32409
purposes by the general assembly. All investment earnings on the 32410
cash balance in the fund shall be credited to the fund.32411

       The director of budget and management shall establish and 32412
maintain records or accounts for or within the coal research and 32413
development fund in such manner as to show the amounts credited to 32414
such fund pursuant to section 1555.08 of the Revised Code and that 32415
the amounts so credited have been expended for the purposes set 32416
forth in Section 15 of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and 32417
section 151.07 of the Revised Code. The director of budget and 32418
management may otherwise manage the fund to comply with any 32419
requirements established by federal grants or loans, private 32420
grants, or moneys from other sources.32421

       Sec. 1711.07.  The board of directors of a county or 32422
independent agricultural society shall consist of at least eight 32423
members. An employee of the Ohio state universityOSU extension 32424
service and the county school superintendent shall be members ex 32425
officio. Their terms of office shall be determined by the rules of 32426
the department of agriculture. Any vacancy in the board caused by 32427
death, resignation, refusal to qualify, removal from county, or 32428
other cause may be filled by the board until the society's next 32429
annual election, when a director shall be elected for the 32430
unexpired term. There shall be an annual election of directors by 32431
ballot at a time and a place fixed by the board, but this election 32432
shall not be held later than the first Saturday in December 1994, 32433
and not later than the fifteenth day of November each year 32434
thereafter, beginning in 1995. The secretary of the society shall 32435
give notice of suchthe election, for three weeks prior to the 32436
holding thereof, in a newspaper of general circulation in the 32437
county or as provided in section 7.16 of the Revised Code, or by 32438
letter mailed to each member of the society. Only persons holding 32439
membership certificates at the close of the annual county fair, or 32440
at least fifteen calendar days before the date of election, as may 32441
be fixed by the board, may vote, unless suchthe election is held 32442
on the fairground during the fair, in which case all persons 32443
holding membership certificates on the date and hour of the 32444
election may vote. When the election is to be held during the 32445
fair, notice of suchthe election mustshall be prominently 32446
mentioned in the premium list, in addition to the notice required 32447
in a newspaper. The terms of office of the retiring directors 32448
shall expire, and those of the directors-elect shall begin, not 32449
later than the first Saturday in January 1995, and not later than 32450
the thirtieth day of November each year thereafter, beginning in 32451
1995.32452

       The secretary of suchthe society shall send the name and 32453
address of each member of its board to the director of agriculture 32454
within ten days after the election.32455

       Sec. 1724.03. (A) After the articles of incorporation have 32456
been filed, and at the first meeting of the board of directors of 32457
a county land reutilization corporation, the board shall adopt 32458
regulations for the government of the corporation, the conduct of 32459
its affairs, and the management of its property, consistent with 32460
law and the articles. The content of the regulations shall be 32461
governed by section 1702.11 of the Revised Code to the extent not 32462
inconsistent with this chapter. 32463

       (B) The board of directors of a county land reutilization 32464
corporation shall be composed of five, seven, or nine members, 32465
including the county treasurer, at least two of the members of the 32466
board of county commissioners, one representative of the largest 32467
municipal corporation, based on the population according to the 32468
most recent federal decennial census, that is located in the 32469
county, one representative of a township with a population of at 32470
least ten thousand in the unincorporated area of the township 32471
according to the most recent federal decennial census, if at least 32472
two such townships exist in the county, and any remaining members 32473
selected by the treasurer and the county commissioners who are 32474
members of the corporation's board. The township representative 32475
shall be chosen by a majority of the boards of township trustees 32476
of townships with a population of at least ten thousand in the 32477
unincorporated area of the township according to the most recent 32478
federal decennial census. At least one board member shall have 32479
private sector or nonprofit experience in rehabilitation or real 32480
estate acquisitions. A county treasurer and the county 32481
commissioners each may appoint a representative, as a director of 32482
the corporation, to act for the officer at any of the meetings of 32483
the corporation. Except as may otherwise be authorized by the 32484
regulations of the corporation, all members of the board of 32485
directors shall serve without compensation, but shall be 32486
reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses. 32487

       Sec. 1739.061. (A)(1) This section applies to both of the 32488
following:32489

       (a) A multiple employer welfare arrangement that issues or 32490
requires the use of a standardized identification card or an 32491
electronic technology for submission and routing of prescription 32492
drug claims;32493

        (b) A person or entity that a multiple employer welfare 32494
arrangement contracts with to issue a standardized identification 32495
card or an electronic technology described in division (A)(1)(a) 32496
of this section.32497

       (2) Notwithstanding division (A)(1) of this section, this 32498
section does not apply to the issuance or required use of a 32499
standardized identification card or an electronic technology for 32500
the submission and routing of prescription drug claims in 32501
connection with any of the following:32502

       (a) Any program or arrangement covering only accident, 32503
credit, dental, disability income, long-term care, hospital 32504
indemnity, medicare supplement, medicare, tricare, specified 32505
disease, or vision care; coverage under a 32506
one-time-limited-duration policy of not longer than six months; 32507
coverage issued as a supplement to liability insurance; insurance 32508
arising out of workers' compensation or similar law; automobile 32509
medical payment insurance; or insurance under which benefits are 32510
payable with or without regard to fault and which is statutorily 32511
required to be contained in any liability insurance policy or 32512
equivalent self-insurance.32513

       (b) Coverage provided under the medicaid, as defined in 32514
section 5111.01 of the Revised Codeprogram.32515

       (c) Coverage provided under an employer's self-insurance plan 32516
or by any of its administrators, as defined in section 3959.01 of 32517
the Revised Code, to the extent that federal law supersedes, 32518
preempts, prohibits, or otherwise precludes the application of 32519
this section to the plan and its administrators.32520

       (B) A standardized identification card or an electronic 32521
technology issued or required to be used as provided in division 32522
(A)(1) of this section shall contain uniform prescription drug 32523
information in accordance with either division (B)(1) or (2) of 32524
this section.32525

        (1) The standardized identification card or the electronic 32526
technology shall be in a format and contain information fields 32527
approved by the national council for prescription drug programs or 32528
a successor organization, as specified in the council's or 32529
successor organization's pharmacy identification card 32530
implementation guide in effect on the first day of October most 32531
immediately preceding the issuance or required use of the 32532
standardized identification card or the electronic technology.32533

        (2) If the multiple employer welfare arrangement or person 32534
under contract with it to issue a standardized identification card 32535
or an electronic technology requires the information for the 32536
submission and routing of a claim, the standardized identification 32537
card or the electronic technology shall contain any of the 32538
following information:32539

        (a) The name of the multiple employer welfare arrangement;32540

        (b) The individual's name, group number, and identification 32541
number;32542

       (c) A telephone number to inquire about pharmacy-related 32543
issues;32544

        (d) The issuer's international identification number, labeled 32545
as "ANSI BIN" or "RxBIN";32546

        (e) The processor's control number, labeled as "RxPCN";32547

        (f) The individual's pharmacy benefits group number if 32548
different from the insured's medical group number, labeled as 32549
"RxGrp."32550

        (C) If the standardized identification card or the electronic 32551
technology issued or required to be used as provided in division 32552
(A)(1) of this section is also used for submission and routing of 32553
nonpharmacy claims, the designation "Rx" is required to be 32554
included as part of the labels identified in divisions (B)(2)(d) 32555
and (e) of this section if the issuer's international 32556
identification number or the processor's control number is 32557
different for medical and pharmacy claims.32558

        (D) Each multiple employer welfare arrangement described in 32559
division (A) of this section shall annually file a certificate 32560
with the superintendent of insurance certifying that it or any 32561
person it contracts with to issue a standardized identification 32562
card or electronic technology for submission and routing of 32563
prescription drug claims complies with this section.32564

       (E)(1) Except as provided in division (E)(2) of this section, 32565
if there is a change in the information contained in the 32566
standardized identification card or the electronic technology 32567
issued to an individual, the multiple employer welfare arrangement 32568
or person under contract with it to issue a standardized 32569
identification card or an electronic technology shall issue a new 32570
card or electronic technology to the individual.32571

        (2) A multiple employer welfare arrangement or person under 32572
contract with it is not required under division (E)(1) of this 32573
section to issue a new card or electronic technology to an 32574
individual more than once during a twelve-month period.32575

        (F) Nothing in this section shall be construed as requiring a 32576
multiple employer welfare arrangement to produce more than one 32577
standardized identification card or one electronic technology for 32578
use by individuals accessing health care benefits provided under a 32579
multiple employer welfare arrangement.32580

       Sec. 1751.01.  As used in this chapter:32581

       (A)(1) "Basic health care services" means the following 32582
services when medically necessary:32583

       (a) Physician's services, except when such services are 32584
supplemental under division (B) of this section;32585

       (b) Inpatient hospital services;32586

       (c) Outpatient medical services;32587

       (d) Emergency health services;32588

       (e) Urgent care services;32589

       (f) Diagnostic laboratory services and diagnostic and 32590
therapeutic radiologic services;32591

       (g) Diagnostic and treatment services, other than 32592
prescription drug services, for biologically based mental 32593
illnesses;32594

       (h) Preventive health care services, including, but not 32595
limited to, voluntary family planning services, infertility 32596
services, periodic physical examinations, prenatal obstetrical 32597
care, and well-child care;32598

       (i) Routine patient care for patients enrolled in an eligible 32599
cancer clinical trial pursuant to section 3923.80 of the Revised 32600
Code.32601

       "Basic health care services" does not include experimental 32602
procedures.32603

        Except as provided by divisions (A)(2) and (3) of this 32604
section in connection with the offering of coverage for diagnostic 32605
and treatment services for biologically based mental illnesses, a 32606
health insuring corporation shall not offer coverage for a health 32607
care service, defined as a basic health care service by this 32608
division, unless it offers coverage for all listed basic health 32609
care services. However, this requirement does not apply to the 32610
coverage of beneficiaries enrolled in medicare pursuant to a 32611
medicare contract, or to the coverage of beneficiaries enrolled in 32612
the federal employee health benefits program pursuant to 5 32613
U.S.C.A. 8905, or to the coverage of medicaid recipients, or to 32614
the coverage of beneficiaries under any federal health care 32615
program regulated by a federal regulatory body, or to the coverage 32616
of beneficiaries under any contract covering officers or employees 32617
of the state that has been entered into by the department of 32618
administrative services.32619

       (2) A health insuring corporation may offer coverage for 32620
diagnostic and treatment services for biologically based mental 32621
illnesses without offering coverage for all other basic health 32622
care services. A health insuring corporation may offer coverage 32623
for diagnostic and treatment services for biologically based 32624
mental illnesses alone or in combination with one or more 32625
supplemental health care services. However, a health insuring 32626
corporation that offers coverage for any other basic health care 32627
service shall offer coverage for diagnostic and treatment services 32628
for biologically based mental illnesses in combination with the 32629
offer of coverage for all other listed basic health care services.32630

       (3) A health insuring corporation that offers coverage for 32631
basic health care services is not required to offer coverage for 32632
diagnostic and treatment services for biologically based mental 32633
illnesses in combination with the offer of coverage for all other 32634
listed basic health care services if all of the following apply:32635

       (a) The health insuring corporation submits documentation 32636
certified by an independent member of the American academy of 32637
actuaries to the superintendent of insurance showing that incurred 32638
claims for diagnostic and treatment services for biologically 32639
based mental illnesses for a period of at least six months 32640
independently caused the health insuring corporation's costs for 32641
claims and administrative expenses for the coverage of basic 32642
health care services to increase by more than one per cent per 32643
year. 32644

       (b) The health insuring corporation submits a signed letter 32645
from an independent member of the American academy of actuaries to 32646
the superintendent of insurance opining that the increase in costs 32647
described in division (A)(3)(a) of this section could reasonably 32648
justify an increase of more than one per cent in the annual 32649
premiums or rates charged by the health insuring corporation for 32650
the coverage of basic health care services.32651

       (c) The superintendent of insurance makes the following 32652
determinations from the documentation and opinion submitted 32653
pursuant to divisions (A)(3)(a) and (b) of this section:32654

       (i) Incurred claims for diagnostic and treatment services for 32655
biologically based mental illnesses for a period of at least six 32656
months independently caused the health insuring corporation's 32657
costs for claims and administrative expenses for the coverage of 32658
basic health care services to increase by more than one per cent 32659
per year.32660

       (ii) The increase in costs reasonably justifies an increase 32661
of more than one per cent in the annual premiums or rates charged 32662
by the health insuring corporation for the coverage of basic 32663
health care services. 32664

       Any determination made by the superintendent under this 32665
division is subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.32666

       (B)(1) "Supplemental health care services" means any health 32667
care services other than basic health care services that a health 32668
insuring corporation may offer, alone or in combination with 32669
either basic health care services or other supplemental health 32670
care services, and includes:32671

       (a) Services of facilities for intermediate or long-term 32672
care, or both;32673

       (b) Dental care services;32674

       (c) Vision care and optometric services including lenses and 32675
frames;32676

       (d) Podiatric care or foot care services;32677

       (e) Mental health services, excluding diagnostic and 32678
treatment services for biologically based mental illnesses;32679

       (f) Short-term outpatient evaluative and crisis-intervention 32680
mental health services;32681

       (g) Medical or psychological treatment and referral services 32682
for alcohol and drug abuse or addiction;32683

       (h) Home health services;32684

       (i) Prescription drug services;32685

       (j) Nursing services;32686

       (k) Services of a dietitian licensed under Chapter 4759. of 32687
the Revised Code;32688

       (l) Physical therapy services;32689

       (m) Chiropractic services;32690

       (n) Any other category of services approved by the 32691
superintendent of insurance.32692

       (2) If a health insuring corporation offers prescription drug 32693
services under this division, the coverage shall include 32694
prescription drug services for the treatment of biologically based 32695
mental illnesses on the same terms and conditions as other 32696
physical diseases and disorders.32697

       (C) "Specialty health care services" means one of the 32698
supplemental health care services listed in division (B) of this 32699
section, when provided by a health insuring corporation on an 32700
outpatient-only basis and not in combination with other 32701
supplemental health care services.32702

       (D) "Biologically based mental illnesses" means 32703
schizophrenia, schizoaffective disorder, major depressive 32704
disorder, bipolar disorder, paranoia and other psychotic 32705
disorders, obsessive-compulsive disorder, and panic disorder, as 32706
these terms are defined in the most recent edition of the 32707
diagnostic and statistical manual of mental disorders published by 32708
the American psychiatric association.32709

       (E) "Closed panel plan" means a health care plan that 32710
requires enrollees to use participating providers.32711

       (F) "Compensation" means remuneration for the provision of 32712
health care services, determined on other than a fee-for-service 32713
or discounted-fee-for-service basis.32714

       (G) "Contractual periodic prepayment" means the formula for 32715
determining the premium rate for all subscribers of a health 32716
insuring corporation.32717

       (H) "Corporation" means a corporation formed under Chapter 32718
1701. or 1702. of the Revised Code or the similar laws of another 32719
state.32720

       (I) "Emergency health services" means those health care 32721
services that must be available on a seven-days-per-week, 32722
twenty-four-hours-per-day basis in order to prevent jeopardy to an 32723
enrollee's health status that would occur if such services were 32724
not received as soon as possible, and includes, where appropriate, 32725
provisions for transportation and indemnity payments or service 32726
agreements for out-of-area coverage.32727

       (J) "Enrollee" means any natural person who is entitled to 32728
receive health care benefits provided by a health insuring 32729
corporation.32730

       (K) "Evidence of coverage" means any certificate, agreement, 32731
policy, or contract issued to a subscriber that sets out the 32732
coverage and other rights to which such person is entitled under a 32733
health care plan.32734

       (L) "Health care facility" means any facility, except a 32735
health care practitioner's office, that provides preventive, 32736
diagnostic, therapeutic, acute convalescent, rehabilitation, 32737
mental health, mental retardation, intermediate care, or skilled 32738
nursing services.32739

       (M) "Health care services" means basic, supplemental, and 32740
specialty health care services.32741

       (N) "Health delivery network" means any group of providers or 32742
health care facilities, or both, or any representative thereof, 32743
that have entered into an agreement to offer health care services 32744
in a panel rather than on an individual basis.32745

       (O) "Health insuring corporation" means a corporation, as 32746
defined in division (H) of this section, that, pursuant to a 32747
policy, contract, certificate, or agreement, pays for, reimburses, 32748
or provides, delivers, arranges for, or otherwise makes available, 32749
basic health care services, supplemental health care services, or 32750
specialty health care services, or a combination of basic health 32751
care services and either supplemental health care services or 32752
specialty health care services, through either an open panel plan 32753
or a closed panel plan.32754

       "Health insuring corporation" does not include a limited 32755
liability company formed pursuant to Chapter 1705. of the Revised 32756
Code, an insurer licensed under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code if 32757
that insurer offers only open panel plans under which all 32758
providers and health care facilities participating receive their 32759
compensation directly from the insurer, a corporation formed by or 32760
on behalf of a political subdivision or a department, office, or 32761
institution of the state, or a public entity formed by or on 32762
behalf of a board of county commissioners, a county board of 32763
developmental disabilities, an alcohol and drug addiction services 32764
board, a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 32765
services, or a community mental health board, as those terms are 32766
used in Chapters 340. and 5126. of the Revised Code. Except as 32767
provided by division (D) of section 1751.02 of the Revised Code, 32768
or as otherwise provided by law, no board, commission, agency, or 32769
other entity under the control of a political subdivision may 32770
accept insurance risk in providing for health care services. 32771
However, nothing in this division shall be construed as 32772
prohibiting such entities from purchasing the services of a health 32773
insuring corporation or a third-party administrator licensed under 32774
Chapter 3959. of the Revised Code.32775

       (P) "Intermediary organization" means a health delivery 32776
network or other entity that contracts with licensed health 32777
insuring corporations or self-insured employers, or both, to 32778
provide health care services, and that enters into contractual 32779
arrangements with other entities for the provision of health care 32780
services for the purpose of fulfilling the terms of its contracts 32781
with the health insuring corporations and self-insured employers.32782

       (Q) "Intermediate care" means residential care above the 32783
level of room and board for patients who require personal 32784
assistance and health-related services, but who do not require 32785
skilled nursing care.32786

       (R) "Medicaid" has the same meaning as in section 5111.01 of 32787
the Revised Code.32788

       (S) "Medical record" means the personal information that 32789
relates to an individual's physical or mental condition, medical 32790
history, or medical treatment.32791

       (T) "Medicare" means the program established under Title 32792
XVIII of the "Social Security Act" 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 32793
1395, as amended.32794

       (U)(S)(1) "Open panel plan" means a health care plan that 32795
provides incentives for enrollees to use participating providers 32796
and that also allows enrollees to use providers that are not 32797
participating providers.32798

       (2) No health insuring corporation may offer an open panel 32799
plan, unless the health insuring corporation is also licensed as 32800
an insurer under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code, the health 32801
insuring corporation, on June 4, 1997, holds a certificate of 32802
authority or license to operate under Chapter 1736. or 1740. of 32803
the Revised Code, or an insurer licensed under Title XXXIX of the 32804
Revised Code is responsible for the out-of-network risk as 32805
evidenced by both an evidence of coverage filing under section 32806
1751.11 of the Revised Code and a policy and certificate filing 32807
under section 3923.02 of the Revised Code.32808

       (V)(T) "Osteopathic hospital" means a hospital registered 32809
under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code that advocates 32810
osteopathic principles and the practice and perpetuation of 32811
osteopathic medicine by doing any of the following:32812

       (1) Maintaining a department or service of osteopathic 32813
medicine or a committee on the utilization of osteopathic 32814
principles and methods, under the supervision of an osteopathic 32815
physician;32816

       (2) Maintaining an active medical staff, the majority of 32817
which is comprised of osteopathic physicians;32818

       (3) Maintaining a medical staff executive committee that has 32819
osteopathic physicians as a majority of its members.32820

       (W)(U) "Panel" means a group of providers or health care 32821
facilities that have joined together to deliver health care 32822
services through a contractual arrangement with a health insuring 32823
corporation, employer group, or other payor.32824

       (X)(V) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of 32825
the Revised Code, and, unless the context otherwise requires, 32826
includes any insurance company holding a certificate of authority 32827
under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code, any subsidiary and 32828
affiliate of an insurance company, and any government agency.32829

       (Y)(W) "Premium rate" means any set fee regularly paid by a 32830
subscriber to a health insuring corporation. A "premium rate" does 32831
not include a one-time membership fee, an annual administrative 32832
fee, or a nominal access fee, paid to a managed health care system 32833
under which the recipient of health care services remains solely 32834
responsible for any charges accessed for those services by the 32835
provider or health care facility.32836

       (Z)(X) "Primary care provider" means a provider that is 32837
designated by a health insuring corporation to supervise, 32838
coordinate, or provide initial care or continuing care to an 32839
enrollee, and that may be required by the health insuring 32840
corporation to initiate a referral for specialty care and to 32841
maintain supervision of the health care services rendered to the 32842
enrollee.32843

       (AA)(Y) "Provider" means any natural person or partnership of 32844
natural persons who are licensed, certified, accredited, or 32845
otherwise authorized in this state to furnish health care 32846
services, or any professional association organized under Chapter 32847
1785. of the Revised Code, provided that nothing in this chapter 32848
or other provisions of law shall be construed to preclude a health 32849
insuring corporation, health care practitioner, or organized 32850
health care group associated with a health insuring corporation 32851
from employing certified nurse practitioners, certified nurse 32852
anesthetists, clinical nurse specialists, certified nurse 32853
midwives, dietitians, physician assistants, dental assistants, 32854
dental hygienists, optometric technicians, or other allied health 32855
personnel who are licensed, certified, accredited, or otherwise 32856
authorized in this state to furnish health care services.32857

       (BB)(Z) "Provider sponsored organization" means a 32858
corporation, as defined in division (H) of this section, that is 32859
at least eighty per cent owned or controlled by one or more 32860
hospitals, as defined in section 3727.01 of the Revised Code, or 32861
one or more physicians licensed to practice medicine or surgery or 32862
osteopathic medicine and surgery under Chapter 4731. of the 32863
Revised Code, or any combination of such physicians and hospitals. 32864
Such control is presumed to exist if at least eighty per cent of 32865
the voting rights or governance rights of a provider sponsored 32866
organization are directly or indirectly owned, controlled, or 32867
otherwise held by any combination of the physicians and hospitals 32868
described in this division.32869

       (CC)(AA) "Solicitation document" means the written materials 32870
provided to prospective subscribers or enrollees, or both, and 32871
used for advertising and marketing to induce enrollment in the 32872
health care plans of a health insuring corporation.32873

       (DD)(BB) "Subscriber" means a person who is responsible for 32874
making payments to a health insuring corporation for participation 32875
in a health care plan, or an enrollee whose employment or other 32876
status is the basis of eligibility for enrollment in a health 32877
insuring corporation.32878

       (EE)(CC) "Urgent care services" means those health care 32879
services that are appropriately provided for an unforeseen 32880
condition of a kind that usually requires medical attention 32881
without delay but that does not pose a threat to the life, limb, 32882
or permanent health of the injured or ill person, and may include 32883
such health care services provided out of the health insuring 32884
corporation's approved service area pursuant to indemnity payments 32885
or service agreements.32886

       Sec. 1751.11.  (A) Every subscriber of a health insuring 32887
corporation is entitled to an evidence of coverage for the health 32888
care plan under which health care benefits are provided.32889

       (B) Every subscriber of a health insuring corporation that 32890
offers basic health care services is entitled to an identification 32891
card or similar document that specifies the health insuring 32892
corporation's name as stated in its articles of incorporation, and 32893
any trade or fictitious names used by the health insuring 32894
corporation. The identification card or document shall list at 32895
least one toll-free telephone number that provides the subscriber 32896
with access, to information on a twenty-four-hours-per-day, 32897
seven-days-per-week basis, as to how health care services may be 32898
obtained. The identification card or document shall also list at 32899
least one toll-free number that, during normal business hours, 32900
provides the subscriber with access to information on the coverage 32901
available under the subscriber's health care plan and information 32902
on the health care plan's internal and external review processes.32903

       (C) No evidence of coverage, or amendment to the evidence of 32904
coverage, shall be delivered, issued for delivery, renewed, or 32905
used, until the form of the evidence of coverage or amendment has 32906
been filed by the health insuring corporation with the 32907
superintendent of insurance. If the superintendent does not 32908
disapprove the evidence of coverage or amendment within sixty days 32909
after it is filed it shall be deemed approved, unless the 32910
superintendent sooner gives approval for the evidence of coverage 32911
or amendment. With respect to an amendment to an approved evidence 32912
of coverage, the superintendent only may disapprove provisions 32913
amended or added to the evidence of coverage. If the 32914
superintendent determines within the sixty-day period that any 32915
evidence of coverage or amendment fails to meet the requirements 32916
of this section, the superintendent shall so notify the health 32917
insuring corporation and it shall be unlawful for the health 32918
insuring corporation to use such evidence of coverage or 32919
amendment. At any time, the superintendent, upon at least thirty 32920
days' written notice to a health insuring corporation, may 32921
withdraw an approval, deemed or actual, of any evidence of 32922
coverage or amendment on any of the grounds stated in this 32923
section. Such disapproval shall be effected by a written order, 32924
which shall state the grounds for disapproval and shall be issued 32925
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.32926

       (D) No evidence of coverage or amendment shall be delivered, 32927
issued for delivery, renewed, or used:32928

       (1) If it contains provisions or statements that are 32929
inequitable, untrue, misleading, or deceptive;32930

       (2) Unless it contains a clear, concise, and complete 32931
statement of the following:32932

       (a) The health care services and insurance or other benefits, 32933
if any, to which an enrollee is entitled under the health care 32934
plan;32935

       (b) Any exclusions or limitations on the health care 32936
services, type of health care services, benefits, or type of 32937
benefits to be provided, including copayments and deductibles;32938

       (c) An enrollee's personal financial obligation for 32939
noncovered services;32940

       (d) Where and in what manner general information and 32941
information as to how health care services may be obtained is 32942
available, including a toll-free telephone number;32943

       (e) The premium rate with respect to individual and 32944
conversion contracts, and relevant copayment and deductible 32945
provisions with respect to all contracts. The statement of the 32946
premium rate, however, may be contained in a separate insert.32947

       (f) The method utilized by the health insuring corporation 32948
for resolving enrollee complaints;32949

       (g) The utilization review, internal review, and external 32950
review procedures established under sections 1751.77 to 1751.83 32951
and Chapter 3922. of the Revised Code.32952

       (3) Unless it provides for the continuation of an enrollee's 32953
coverage, in the event that the enrollee's coverage under the 32954
group policy, contract, certificate, or agreement terminates while 32955
the enrollee is receiving inpatient care in a hospital. This 32956
continuation of coverage shall terminate at the earliest 32957
occurrence of any of the following:32958

       (a) The enrollee's discharge from the hospital;32959

       (b) The determination by the enrollee's attending physician 32960
that inpatient care is no longer medically indicated for the 32961
enrollee; however, nothing in division (D)(3)(b) of this section 32962
precludes a health insuring corporation from engaging in 32963
utilization review as described in the evidence of coverage.32964

       (c) The enrollee's reaching the limit for contractual 32965
benefits;32966

       (d) The effective date of any new coverage.32967

       (4) Unless it contains a provision that states, in substance, 32968
that the health insuring corporation is not a member of any 32969
guaranty fund, and that in the event of the health insuring 32970
corporation's insolvency, an enrollee is protected only to the 32971
extent that the hold harmless provision required by section 32972
1751.13 of the Revised Code applies to the health care services 32973
rendered;32974

       (5) Unless it contains a provision that states, in substance, 32975
that in the event of the insolvency of the health insuring 32976
corporation, an enrollee may be financially responsible for health 32977
care services rendered by a provider or health care facility that 32978
is not under contract to the health insuring corporation, whether 32979
or not the health insuring corporation authorized the use of the 32980
provider or health care facility.32981

       (E) Notwithstanding divisions (C) and (D) of this section, a 32982
health insuring corporation may use an evidence of coverage that 32983
provides for the coverage of beneficiaries enrolled in medicare 32984
pursuant to a medicare contract, or an evidence of coverage that 32985
provides for the coverage of beneficiaries enrolled in the federal 32986
employees health benefits program pursuant to 5 U.S.C.A. 8905, or 32987
an evidence of coverage that provides for the coverage of medicaid 32988
recipients, or an evidence of coverage that provides for the 32989
coverage of beneficiaries under any other federal health care 32990
program regulated by a federal regulatory body, or an evidence of 32991
coverage that provides for the coverage of beneficiaries under any 32992
contract covering officers or employees of the state that has been 32993
entered into by the department of administrative services, if both 32994
of the following apply:32995

       (1) The evidence of coverage has been approved by the United 32996
States department of health and human services, the United States 32997
office of personnel management, the Ohio department of job and 32998
family servicesmedicaid, or the department of administrative 32999
services.33000

       (2) The evidence of coverage is filed with the superintendent 33001
of insurance prior to use and is accompanied by documentation of 33002
approval from the United States department of health and human 33003
services, the United States office of personnel management, the 33004
Ohio department of job and family servicesmedicaid, or the 33005
department of administrative services.33006

       Sec. 1751.12.  (A)(1) No contractual periodic prepayment and 33007
no premium rate for nongroup and conversion policies for health 33008
care services, or any amendment to them, may be used by any health 33009
insuring corporation at any time until the contractual periodic 33010
prepayment and premium rate, or amendment, have been filed with 33011
the superintendent of insurance, and shall not be effective until 33012
the expiration of sixty days after their filing unless the 33013
superintendent sooner gives approval. The filing shall be 33014
accompanied by an actuarial certification in the form prescribed 33015
by the superintendent. The superintendent shall disapprove the 33016
filing, if the superintendent determines within the sixty-day 33017
period that the contractual periodic prepayment or premium rate, 33018
or amendment, is not in accordance with sound actuarial principles 33019
or is not reasonably related to the applicable coverage and 33020
characteristics of the applicable class of enrollees. The 33021
superintendent shall notify the health insuring corporation of the 33022
disapproval, and it shall thereafter be unlawful for the health 33023
insuring corporation to use the contractual periodic prepayment or 33024
premium rate, or amendment.33025

       (2) No contractual periodic prepayment for group policies for 33026
health care services shall be used until the contractual periodic 33027
prepayment has been filed with the superintendent. The filing 33028
shall be accompanied by an actuarial certification in the form 33029
prescribed by the superintendent. The superintendent may reject a 33030
filing made under division (A)(2) of this section at any time, 33031
with at least thirty days' written notice to a health insuring 33032
corporation, if the contractual periodic prepayment is not in 33033
accordance with sound actuarial principles or is not reasonably 33034
related to the applicable coverage and characteristics of the 33035
applicable class of enrollees.33036

       (3) At any time, the superintendent, upon at least thirty 33037
days' written notice to a health insuring corporation, may 33038
withdraw the approval given under division (A)(1) of this section, 33039
deemed or actual, of any contractual periodic prepayment or 33040
premium rate, or amendment, based on information that either of 33041
the following applies:33042

       (a) The contractual periodic prepayment or premium rate, or 33043
amendment, is not in accordance with sound actuarial principles.33044

       (b) The contractual periodic prepayment or premium rate, or 33045
amendment, is not reasonably related to the applicable coverage 33046
and characteristics of the applicable class of enrollees.33047

       (4) Any disapproval under division (A)(1) of this section, 33048
any rejection of a filing made under division (A)(2) of this 33049
section, or any withdrawal of approval under division (A)(3) of 33050
this section, shall be effected by a written notice, which shall 33051
state the specific basis for the disapproval, rejection, or 33052
withdrawal and shall be issued in accordance with Chapter 119. of 33053
the Revised Code.33054

       (B) Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, a health 33055
insuring corporation may use a contractual periodic prepayment or 33056
premium rate for policies used for the coverage of beneficiaries 33057
enrolled in medicare pursuant to a medicare risk contract or 33058
medicare cost contract, or for policies used for the coverage of 33059
beneficiaries enrolled in the federal employees health benefits 33060
program pursuant to 5 U.S.C.A. 8905, or for policies used for the 33061
coverage of medicaid recipients, or for policies used for the 33062
coverage of beneficiaries under any other federal health care 33063
program regulated by a federal regulatory body, or for policies 33064
used for the coverage of beneficiaries under any contract covering 33065
officers or employees of the state that has been entered into by 33066
the department of administrative services, if both of the 33067
following apply:33068

       (1) The contractual periodic prepayment or premium rate has 33069
been approved by the United States department of health and human 33070
services, the United States office of personnel management, the 33071
department of job and family servicesmedicaid, or the department 33072
of administrative services.33073

       (2) The contractual periodic prepayment or premium rate is 33074
filed with the superintendent prior to use and is accompanied by 33075
documentation of approval from the United States department of 33076
health and human services, the United States office of personnel 33077
management, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid, or 33078
the department of administrative services.33079

       (C) The administrative expense portion of all contractual 33080
periodic prepayment or premium rate filings submitted to the 33081
superintendent for review must reflect the actual cost of 33082
administering the product. The superintendent may require that the 33083
administrative expense portion of the filings be itemized and 33084
supported.33085

       (D)(1) Copayments must be reasonable and must not be a 33086
barrier to the necessary utilization of services by enrollees.33087

       (2) A health insuring corporation, in order to ensure that 33088
copayments are reasonable and not a barrier to the necessary 33089
utilization of basic health care services by enrollees, may do one 33090
of the following:33091

       (a) Impose copayment charges on any single covered basic 33092
health care service that does not exceed forty per cent of the 33093
average cost to the health insuring corporation of providing the 33094
service;33095

       (b) Impose copayment charges that annually do not exceed 33096
twenty per cent of the total annual cost to the health insuring 33097
corporation of providing all covered basic health care services, 33098
including physician office visits, urgent care services, and 33099
emergency health services, when aggregated as to all persons 33100
covered under the filed product in question. In addition, annual 33101
copayment charges as to each enrollee shall not exceed twenty per 33102
cent of the total annual cost to the health insuring corporation 33103
of providing all covered basic health care services, including 33104
physician office visits, urgent care services, and emergency 33105
health services, as to such enrollee. The total annual cost of 33106
providing a health care service is the cost to the health insuring 33107
corporation of providing the health care service to its enrollees 33108
as reduced by any applicable provider discount.33109

       (3) To ensure that copayments are reasonable and not a 33110
barrier to the utilization of basic health care services, a health 33111
insuring corporation may not impose, in any contract year, on any 33112
subscriber or enrollee, copayments that exceed two hundred per 33113
cent of the average annual premium rate to subscribers or 33114
enrollees.33115

       (4) For purposes of division (D) of this section, both of the 33116
following apply:33117

        (a) Copayments imposed by health insuring corporations in 33118
connection with a high deductible health plan that is linked to a 33119
health savings account are reasonable and are not a barrier to the 33120
necessary utilization of services by enrollees.33121

        (b) Divisions (D)(2) and (3) of this section do not apply to 33122
a high deductible health plan that is linked to a health savings 33123
account.33124

       (E) A health insuring corporation shall not impose lifetime 33125
maximums on basic health care services. However, a health insuring 33126
corporation may establish a benefit limit for inpatient hospital 33127
services that are provided pursuant to a policy, contract, 33128
certificate, or agreement for supplemental health care services.33129

       (F) A health insuring corporation may require that an 33130
enrollee pay an annual deductible that does not exceed one 33131
thousand dollars per enrollee or two thousand dollars per family, 33132
except that:33133

       (1) A health insuring corporation may impose higher 33134
deductibles for high deductible health plans that are linked to 33135
health savings accounts;33136

       (2) The superintendent may adopt rules allowing different 33137
annual deductible amounts for plans with a medical savings 33138
account, health reimbursement arrangement, flexible spending 33139
account, or similar account;33140

       (3) A health insuring corporation may impose higher 33141
deductibles under health plans if requested by the group contract, 33142
policy, certificate, or agreement holder, or an individual seeking 33143
coverage under an individual health plan. This shall not be 33144
construed as requiring the health insuring corporation to create 33145
customized health plans for group contract holders or individuals.33146

        (G) As used in this section, "health savings account" and 33147
"high deductible health plan" have the same meanings as in the 33148
"Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 223, as 33149
amended.33150

       Sec. 1751.14.  (A) Notwithstanding section 3901.71 of the 33151
Revised Code, any policy, contract, or agreement for health care 33152
services authorized by this chapter that is issued, delivered, or 33153
renewed in this state and that provides that coverage of an 33154
unmarried dependent child will terminate upon attainment of the 33155
limiting age for dependent children specified in the policy, 33156
contract, or agreement, shall also provide in substance both of 33157
the following:33158

        (1) Once an unmarried child has attained the limiting age for 33159
dependent children, as provided in the policy, contract, or 33160
agreement, upon the request of the subscriber, the health insuring 33161
corporation shall offer to cover the unmarried child until the 33162
child attains twenty-eight years of age if all of the following 33163
are true:33164

        (a) The child is the natural child, stepchild, or adopted 33165
child of the subscriber.33166

       (b) The child is a resident of this state or a full-time 33167
student at an accredited public or private institution of higher 33168
education.33169

        (c) The child is not employed by an employer that offers any 33170
health benefit plan under which the child is eligible for 33171
coverage.33172

       (d) The child is not eligible for coverage under the medicaid 33173
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code or the 33174
medicare program established under Title XVIII of the "Social 33175
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1395.33176

        (2) That attainment of the limiting age for dependent 33177
children shall not operate to terminate the coverage of a 33178
dependent child if the child is and continues to be both of the 33179
following:33180

       (a) Incapable of self-sustaining employment by reason of 33181
mental retardation or physical handicap;33182

       (b) Primarily dependent upon the subscriber for support and 33183
maintenance.33184

       (B) Proof of incapacity and dependence for purposes of 33185
division (A)(2) of this section shall be furnished to the health 33186
insuring corporation within thirty-one days of the child's 33187
attainment of the limiting age. Upon request, but not more 33188
frequently than annually, the health insuring corporation may 33189
require proof satisfactory to it of the continuance of such 33190
incapacity and dependency.33191

       (C) Nothing in this section shall do any of the following:33192

       (1) Require that any policy, contract, or agreement offer 33193
coverage for dependent children or provide coverage for an 33194
unmarried dependent child's children as dependents on the policy, 33195
contract, or agreement;33196

       (2) Require an employer to pay for any part of the premium 33197
for an unmarried dependent child that has attained the limiting 33198
age for dependents, as provided in the policy, contract, or 33199
agreement;33200

       (3) Require an employer to offer health insurance coverage to 33201
the dependents of any employee.33202

        (D) This section does not apply to any health insuring 33203
corporation policy, contract, or agreement offering only 33204
supplemental health care services or specialty health care 33205
services.33206

       (E) As used in this section, "health benefit plan" has the 33207
same meaning as in section 3924.01 of the Revised Code and also 33208
includes both of the following:33209

        (1) A public employee benefit plan;33210

        (2) A health benefit plan as regulated under the "Employee 33211
Retirement Income Security Act of 1974," 29 U.S.C. 1001, et seq.33212

       Sec. 1751.271.  (A) Each health insuring corporation that 33213
provides coverage to medicaid recipients shall post a performance 33214
bond in the amount of three million dollars as security to fulfill 33215
the obligations of the health insuring corporation to pay claims 33216
of contracted providers for covered health care services provided 33217
to medicaid recipients. The bond shall be payable to the 33218
department of insurance in the event that the health insuring 33219
corporation is placed in rehabilitation or liquidation proceedings 33220
under Chapter 3903. of the Revised Code, and shall become a 33221
special deposit subject to section 3903.14 or 3903.421 of the 33222
Revised Code, as applicable. In lieu of the performance bond, a 33223
medicaid health insuring corporation may deposit securities with 33224
the superintendent of insurance, acceptable to the superintendent, 33225
in the amount of three million dollars, to satisfy the bonding 33226
requirements of this section. Upon rehabilitation or liquidation, 33227
the securities shall become a special deposit subject to sections 33228
3903.14 and 3903.421 of the Revised Code, as applicable. The 33229
health insuring corporation shall receive the interest on the 33230
deposited securities as long as the health insuring corporation 33231
remains solvent.33232

        (B) The bond shall be issued by a surety company licensed 33233
with the department of insurance. The bond or deposit, or any 33234
replacement bond or deposit, shall be in a form acceptable to the 33235
superintendent, and shall remain in effect during the duration of 33236
the medicaid health insuring corporation's license and thereafter 33237
until all claims against the medicaid health insuring corporation 33238
have been paid in full.33239

        (C) Documentation of the bond acceptable to the 33240
superintendent of insurance shall be filed with the superintendent 33241
prior to the issuance of a certificate of authority. Annually, 33242
thirty days prior to the renewal of its certificate of authority, 33243
every medicaid health insuring corporation shall furnish the 33244
superintendent of insurance with evidence that the required bond 33245
is still in effect.33246

        (D) As used in this section:33247

        (1) "Contracted provider" means a provider that has a 33248
contract with a medicaid health insuring corporation to provide 33249
covered health care services to medicaid recipients.33250

        (2) "Medicaid health insuring corporation" means a health 33251
insuring corporation that provides health insurance coverage or 33252
otherwise assumes claims liabilities for medicaid recipients.33253

        (3) "Medicaid recipient" means a person eligible for 33254
assistance underenrolled in the medicaid program operated 33255
pursuant to Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code.33256

       Sec. 1751.31.  (A) Any changes in a health insuring 33257
corporation's solicitation document shall be filed with the 33258
superintendent of insurance. The superintendent, within sixty days 33259
of filing, may disapprove any solicitation document or amendment 33260
to it on any of the grounds stated in this section. Such 33261
disapproval shall be effected by written notice to the health 33262
insuring corporation. The notice shall state the grounds for 33263
disapproval and shall be issued in accordance with Chapter 119. of 33264
the Revised Code.33265

       (B) The solicitation document shall contain all information 33266
necessary to enable a consumer to make an informed choice as to 33267
whether or not to enroll in the health insuring corporation. The 33268
information shall include a specific description of the health 33269
care services to be available and the approximate number and type 33270
of full-time equivalent medical practitioners. The information 33271
shall be presented in the solicitation document in a manner that 33272
is clear, concise, and intelligible to prospective applicants in 33273
the proposed service area.33274

       (C) Every potential applicant whose subscription to a health 33275
care plan is solicited shall receive, at or before the time of 33276
solicitation, a solicitation document approved by the 33277
superintendent.33278

       (D) Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, a health 33279
insuring corporation may use a solicitation document that the 33280
corporation uses in connection with policies for medicare 33281
beneficiaries pursuant to a medicare risk contract or medicare 33282
cost contract, or for policies for beneficiaries of the federal 33283
employees health benefits program pursuant to 5 U.S.C.A. 8905, or 33284
for policies for medicaid recipients, or for policies for 33285
beneficiaries of any other federal health care program regulated 33286
by a federal regulatory body, or for policies for beneficiaries of 33287
contracts covering officers or employees of the state entered into 33288
by the department of administrative services, if both of the 33289
following apply:33290

       (1) The solicitation document has been approved by the United 33291
States department of health and human services, the United States 33292
office of personnel management, the department of job and family 33293
servicesmedicaid, or the department of administrative services.33294

       (2) The solicitation document is filed with the 33295
superintendent of insurance prior to use and is accompanied by 33296
documentation of approval from the United States department of 33297
health and human services, the United States office of personnel 33298
management, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid, or 33299
the department of administrative services.33300

       (E) No health insuring corporation, or its agents or 33301
representatives, shall use monetary or other valuable 33302
consideration, engage in misleading or deceptive practices, or 33303
make untrue, misleading, or deceptive representations to induce 33304
enrollment. Nothing in this division shall prohibit incentive 33305
forms of remuneration such as commission sales programs for the 33306
health insuring corporation's employees and agents.33307

       (F) Any person obligated for any part of a premium rate in 33308
connection with an enrollment agreement, in addition to any right 33309
otherwise available to revoke an offer, may cancel such agreement 33310
within seventy-two hours after having signed the agreement or 33311
offer to enroll. Cancellation occurs when written notice of the 33312
cancellation is given to the health insuring corporation or its 33313
agents or other representatives. A notice of cancellation mailed 33314
to the health insuring corporation shall be considered to have 33315
been filed on its postmark date.33316

       (G) Nothing in this section shall prohibit healthy lifestyle 33317
programs.33318

       Sec. 1751.60.  (A) Except as provided for in divisions (E) 33319
and (F) of this section, every provider or health care facility 33320
that contracts with a health insuring corporation to provide 33321
health care services to the health insuring corporation's 33322
enrollees or subscribers shall seek compensation for covered 33323
services solely from the health insuring corporation and not, 33324
under any circumstances, from the enrollees or subscribers, except 33325
for approved copayments and deductibles.33326

       (B) No subscriber or enrollee of a health insuring 33327
corporation is liable to any contracting provider or health care 33328
facility for the cost of any covered health care services, if the 33329
subscriber or enrollee has acted in accordance with the evidence 33330
of coverage.33331

       (C) Except as provided for in divisions (E) and (F) of this 33332
section, every contract between a health insuring corporation and 33333
provider or health care facility shall contain a provision 33334
approved by the superintendent of insurance requiring the provider 33335
or health care facility to seek compensation solely from the 33336
health insuring corporation and not, under any circumstances, from 33337
the subscriber or enrollee, except for approved copayments and 33338
deductibles.33339

       (D) Nothing in this section shall be construed as preventing 33340
a provider or health care facility from billing the enrollee or 33341
subscriber of a health insuring corporation for noncovered 33342
services.33343

       (E) Upon application by a health insuring corporation and a 33344
provider or health care facility, the superintendent may waive the 33345
requirements of divisions (A) and (C) of this section when, in 33346
addition to the reserve requirements contained in section 1751.28 33347
of the Revised Code, the health insuring corporation provides 33348
sufficient assurances to the superintendent that the provider or 33349
health care facility has been provided with financial guarantees. 33350
No waiver of the requirements of divisions (A) and (C) of this 33351
section is effective as to enrollees or subscribers for whom the 33352
health insuring corporation is compensated under a provider 33353
agreement or risk contract entered into pursuant to Chapter 5111. 33354
or 5115. of the Revised Codeunder the medicaid program.33355

       (F) The requirements of divisions (A) to (C) of this section 33356
apply only to health care services provided to an enrollee or 33357
subscriber prior to the effective date of a termination of a 33358
contract between the health insuring corporation and the provider 33359
or health care facility.33360

       Sec. 1901.10.  (A)(1)(a) The judges of thea municipal court 33361
and officers of the court shall take an oath of office as provided 33362
in section 3.23 of the Revised Code. The33363

       (B) The office of judge of thea municipal court is subject 33364
to forfeiture, and the judge may be removed from office, for the 33365
causes and by the procedure provided in sections 3.07 to 3.10 of 33366
the Revised Code. A vacancy in the office of judge exists upon the 33367
death, resignation, forfeiture, removal from office, or absence 33368
from official duties for a period of six consecutive months, as 33369
determined under this section, of the judge and also by reason of 33370
the expiration of the term of an incumbent when no successor has 33371
been elected or qualified. The chief justice of the supreme court 33372
may designate a judge of another municipal court to act until that 33373
vacancy is filled in accordance with section 107.08 of the Revised 33374
Code. A vacancy resulting from the absence of a judge from 33375
official duties for a period of six consecutive months shall be 33376
determined and declared by the legislative authority.33377

       (b)(C)(1) If a vacancy occurs in the office of judge or clerk 33378
of thea municipal court after the one-hundredth day before the 33379
first Tuesday after the first Monday in May and prior to the 33380
fortieth day before the day of the general election, all 33381
candidates for election to the unexpired term of the judge or 33382
clerk shall file nominating petitions with the board of elections 33383
not later than four p.m. on the tenth day following the day on 33384
which the vacancy occurs, except that, when the vacancy occurs 33385
fewer than six days before the fortieth day before the general 33386
election, the deadline for filing shall be four p.m. on the 33387
thirty-sixth day before the day of the general election.33388

       (c)(2) Each nominating petition referred to in division 33389
(A)(C)(1)(b) of this section shall be in the form prescribed in 33390
section 3513.261 of the Revised Code and shall be signed by at 33391
least fifty qualified electors of the territory of the municipal 33392
court. No nominating petition shall be accepted for filing or 33393
filed if it appears on its face to contain signatures aggregating 33394
in number more than twice the minimum aggregate number of 33395
signatures required by this section.33396

       (2) If a judge of a municipal court that has only one judge 33397
is temporarily absent, incapacitated, or otherwise unavailable, 33398
the judge may appoint a substitute who has the qualifications 33399
required by section 1901.06 of the Revised Code or a retired judge 33400
of a court of record who is a qualified elector and a resident of 33401
the territory of the court. If the judge is unable to make the 33402
appointment, the chief justice of the supreme court shall appoint 33403
a substitute. The appointee shall serve during the absence, 33404
incapacity, or unavailability of the incumbent, shall have the 33405
jurisdiction and powers conferred upon the judge of the municipal 33406
court, and shall be styled "acting judge." During that time of 33407
service, the acting judge shall sign all process and records and 33408
shall perform all acts pertaining to the office, except that of 33409
removal and appointment of officers of the court. All courts shall 33410
take judicial notice of the selection and powers of the acting 33411
judge. The incumbent judge shall establish the amount of 33412
compensation of an acting judge upon either a per diem, hourly, or 33413
other basis, but the rate of pay shall not exceed the per diem 33414
amount received by the incumbent judge.33415

       (B) When the volume of cases pending in any municipal court 33416
necessitates an additional judge, the chief justice of the supreme 33417
court, upon the written request of the judge or presiding judge of 33418
that municipal court, may designate a judge of another municipal 33419
court or county court to serve for any period of time that the 33420
chief justice may prescribe. The compensation of a judge so 33421
designated shall be paid from the city treasury or, in the case of 33422
a county-operated municipal court, from the county treasury. In 33423
addition to the annual salary provided for in section 1901.11 of 33424
the Revised Code and in addition to any compensation under 33425
division (A)(5) or (6) of section 141.04 of the Revised Code to 33426
which the judge is entitled in connection with the judge's own 33427
court, a full-time or part-time judge while holding court outside 33428
the judge's territory on the designation of the chief justice 33429
shall receive actual and necessary expenses and compensation as 33430
follows:33431

       (1) A full-time judge shall receive thirty dollars for each 33432
day of the assignment.33433

       (2) A part-time judge shall receive for each day of the 33434
assignment the per diem compensation of the judges of the court to 33435
which the judge is assigned, less the per diem amount paid to 33436
those judges pursuant to section 141.04 of the Revised Code, 33437
calculated on the basis of two hundred fifty working days per 33438
year.33439

       If a request is made by a judge or the presiding judge of a 33440
municipal court to designate a judge of another municipal court 33441
because of the volume of cases in the court for which the request 33442
is made and the chief justice reports, in writing, that no 33443
municipal or county court judge is available to serve by 33444
designation, the judges of the court requesting the designation 33445
may appoint a substitute as provided in division (A)(2) of this 33446
section, who may serve for any period of time that is prescribed 33447
by the chief justice. The substitute judge shall be paid in the 33448
same manner and at the same rate as the incumbent judges, except 33449
that, if the substitute judge is entitled to compensation under 33450
division (A)(5) or (6) of section 141.04 of the Revised Code, then 33451
section 1901.121 of the Revised Code shall govern its payment.33452

       Sec. 1901.12.  (A) A municipal judge of a municipal court is 33453
entitled to thirty days of vacation in each calendar year. Not 33454
less than two hundred forty days of open session of the municipal 33455
court shall be held by each judge during the year, unless all 33456
business of the court is disposed of sooner.33457

       (B) When a court consists of a single judge, a qualified 33458
substitute may be appointed in accordance with division (A)(2) of 33459
section 1901.10 of the Revised Code to serve during the thirty-day 33460
vacation period, who shall be paid in the same manner and at the 33461
same rate as the incumbent judge, except that, if the substitute 33462
judge is entitled to compensation under division (A)(5) or (6) of 33463
section 141.04 of the Revised Code, then section 1901.121 of the 33464
Revised Code shall govern its payment. If a municipal court 33465
consists of two or more judges, one of the judges shall be in 33466
attendance at the court at all times, and the presiding judge 33467
shall have the authority to designate the vacation period for each 33468
judge, and when necessary, to appoint a substitute for the judge 33469
when on vacation or not in attendance. If a court consists of more 33470
than two judges, two-thirds of the court shall be in attendance at 33471
all times, and the presiding judge shall have authority to 33472
designate the vacation period of each judge, and, when necessary, 33473
to appoint a substitute for any judge on vacation or not in 33474
attendance.33475

       Sec. 1901.121.  (A)(1) If a vacancy occurs in the office of a 33476
judge of a municipal court that consists of only one judge or if 33477
the judge of a municipal court of that nature is incapacitated or 33478
unavailable due to disqualification, suspension, or recusal, the 33479
chief justice of the supreme court may assign a sitting judge of 33480
another court of record or a retired judge of a court of record to 33481
temporarily serve on the court in accordance with rules adopted by 33482
the supreme court pursuant to division (A)(1) of Section 5 of 33483
Article IV, Ohio Constitution. The assignee shall be styled 33484
"assigned judge" and shall serve for any period of time the chief 33485
justice may prescribe.33486

       (2) If a judge of a municipal court that consists of only one 33487
judge is otherwise temporarily absent for a reason other than as 33488
specified in division (A)(1) of this section, the judge may do 33489
either of the following:33490

       (a) Appoint a substitute who is a resident of the territory 33491
of the court or, if the territory of the court has a population of 33492
less than twenty-five thousand according to the latest federal 33493
decennial census and the judge is unable to appoint a substitute 33494
who is a resident of the territory of the court, appoint a 33495
substitute who is a resident of the territory of a municipal or 33496
county court that is contiguous to the court. The appointee shall 33497
either be admitted to the practice of law in this state and have 33498
been, for a total of at least six years preceding appointment, 33499
engaged in the practice of law in this state or a judge of a court 33500
of record in any jurisdiction in the United States or be a retired 33501
judge of a court of record. The appointee shall be styled "acting 33502
judge" and shall temporarily serve on the court during the 33503
temporary absence of the incumbent judge.33504

       (b) Request the chief justice of the supreme court to assign 33505
a sitting judge of another court of record or a retired judge of a 33506
court of record to temporarily serve on the court in accordance 33507
with rules adopted by the supreme court pursuant to division 33508
(A)(1) of Section 5 of Article IV, Ohio Constitution. The assignee 33509
shall be styled "assigned judge" and shall serve for any period of 33510
time the chief justice may prescribe.33511

       (B) If a vacancy occurs in the office of a judge of a 33512
municipal court that consists of two judges or if a judge of a 33513
municipal court of that nature is incapacitated, unavailable, or 33514
temporarily absent, the presiding judge may do either of the 33515
following:33516

       (1) Appoint a substitute who is a resident of the territory 33517
of the court or, if the territory of the court has a population of 33518
less than twenty-five thousand according to the latest federal 33519
decennial census and the judge is unable to appoint a substitute 33520
who is a resident of the territory of the court, appoint a 33521
substitute who is a resident of the territory of a municipal or 33522
county court that is contiguous to the court. The appointee shall 33523
either be admitted to the practice of law in this state and have 33524
been, for a total of at least six years preceding appointment, 33525
engaged in the practice of law in this state or a judge of a court 33526
of record in any jurisdiction in the United States or be a retired 33527
judge of a court of record. The appointee shall be styled "acting 33528
judge" and shall temporarily serve on the court during the vacancy 33529
or the incapacity, unavailability, or temporary absence of the 33530
incumbent judge.33531

       (2) Request the chief justice of the supreme court to assign 33532
a sitting judge of another court of record or a retired judge of a 33533
court of record to temporarily serve on the court in accordance 33534
with rules adopted by the supreme court pursuant to division 33535
(A)(1) of Section 5 of Article IV, Ohio Constitution. The assignee 33536
shall be styled "assigned judge" and shall serve for any period of 33537
time the chief justice may prescribe.33538

       (C) If a vacancy occurs in the office of a judge of a 33539
municipal court that consists of three or more judges or if a 33540
judge of a municipal court of that nature is incapacitated, 33541
unavailable, or temporarily absent, the presiding judge may do 33542
either of the following:33543

       (1) If no other judge of the court is available to perform 33544
the duties of the judge, appoint a substitute who is a resident of 33545
the territory of the court. The appointee shall either be admitted 33546
to the practice of law in this state and have been, for a total of 33547
at least six years preceding appointment, engaged in the practice 33548
of law in this state or a judge of a court of record in any 33549
jurisdiction in the United States or be a retired judge of a court 33550
of record. The appointee shall be styled "acting judge" and shall 33551
temporarily serve on the court during the vacancy or the 33552
incapacity, unavailability, or temporary absence of the incumbent 33553
judge.33554

       (2) Request the chief justice of the supreme court to assign 33555
a sitting judge of another court of record or a retired judge of a 33556
court of record to temporarily serve on the court in accordance 33557
with rules adopted by the supreme court pursuant to division 33558
(A)(1) of Section 5 of Article IV, Ohio Constitution. The assignee 33559
shall be styled "assigned judge" and shall serve for any period of 33560
time the chief justice may prescribe.33561

       (D) When the volume of cases pending in any municipal court 33562
necessitates an additional judge, the judge, if the court consists 33563
of a single judge, or the presiding judge, if the court consists 33564
of two or more judges, may request the chief justice of the 33565
supreme court to assign a sitting judge of another court of record 33566
or a retired judge of a court of record to temporarily serve on 33567
the court in accordance with rules adopted by the supreme court 33568
pursuant to division (A)(1) of Section 5 of Article IV, Ohio 33569
Constitution. The appointee shall be styled "assigned judge" and 33570
shall serve for any period of time the chief justice may 33571
prescribe.33572

       (E) An acting judge appointed pursuant to division (A)(2)(a), 33573
(B)(1), or (C)(1) of this section and an assigned judge assigned 33574
pursuant to division (A)(1), (A)(2)(b), (B)(2), (C)(2), or (D) of 33575
this section shall have the jurisdiction and adjudicatory powers 33576
conferred upon the judge of the municipal court. During the time 33577
of service, the acting judge or assigned judge shall sign all 33578
process and records and shall perform all acts pertaining to the 33579
office, except that of removal and appointment of officers of the 33580
municipal court. All courts shall take judicial notice of the 33581
selection and powers of the acting judge or assigned judge.33582

       Sec. 1901.122.  (A)(1) An acting judge appointed pursuant to 33583
division (A)(2)(a), (B)(1), or (C)(1) of section 1901.121 of the 33584
Revised Code shall receive reimbursement for actual and necessary 33585
expenses and a per diem compensation established by the incumbent 33586
judge, subject to the following limitations: 33587

       (a) If the incumbent judge receives compensation as described 33588
in division (A)(5) of section 141.04 of the Revised Code, the per 33589
diem compensation of the acting judge shall not exceed the per 33590
diem compensation paid to the incumbent judge based upon a work 33591
year of two hundred fifty days.33592

       (b) If the incumbent judge receives compensation as described 33593
in division (A)(6) of section 141.04 of the Revised Code, the per 33594
diem compensation of the acting judge shall not exceed the per 33595
diem compensation paid to the incumbent judge based upon a work 33596
year of one hundred thirty days.33597

       (2) The per diem compensation of the acting judge shall be 33598
payable in the same manner as the compensation paid to the 33599
incumbent judge during the same period.33600

       (B) An assigned judge assigned pursuant to division (A)(1), 33601
(A)(2)(b), (B)(2), (C)(2), or (D) of section 1901.121 of the 33602
Revised Code shall receive reimbursement for actual and necessary 33603
expenses and a per diem compensation computed as follows:33604

       (1) If the assigned judge receives compensation as described 33605
in division (A)(5) of section 141.04 of the Revised Code, thirty 33606
dollars;33607

       (2) If the assigned judge receives compensation as described 33608
in division (A)(6) of section 141.04 of the Revised Code, the per 33609
diem compensation of a judge of a municipal court compensated as 33610
described in division (A)(5) of section 141.04 of the Revised 33611
Code, less the per diem compensation of the assigned judge, each 33612
calculated on the basis of two hundred fifty working days per 33613
year;33614

       (3) If the assigned judge is a retired judge of a municipal 33615
or county court or a court of common pleas, the established per 33616
diem compensation for a judge of a municipal court compensated as 33617
described in division (A)(5) of section 141.04 of the Revised 33618
Code, calculated on the basis of two hundred fifty working days 33619
per year, in addition to any retirement benefits to which the 33620
assigned judge may be entitled; 33621

       (4) If the assigned judge is a sitting judge of the court of 33622
appeals or a court of common pleas, fifty dollars.33623

       Sec. 1901.123.  (A)(1) Subject to reimbursement under 33624
division (B) of this section, the treasurer of the county in which 33625
a county-operated municipal court or other municipal court is 33626
located shall pay the per diem compensation to which an acting 33627
judge appointed pursuant to division (A)(2)(a), (B)(1), or (C)(1) 33628
of section 1901.121 of the Revised Code is entitled pursuant to 33629
division (A)(1) of section 1901.122 of the Revised Code.33630

       (2) Subject to reimbursement under division (B) of this 33631
section, the treasurer of the county in which a county-operated 33632
municipal court or other municipal court is located shall pay the 33633
per diem compensation to which an assigned judge assigned pursuant 33634
to division (A)(1), (A)(2)(b), (B)(2), (C)(2), or (D) of section 33635
1901.121 of the Revised Code is entitled pursuant to division (B) 33636
of section 1901.122 of the Revised Code.33637

       (B) The treasurer of a county that, pursuant to division (A) 33638
of this section, is required to pay any compensation to which an 33639
acting judge or assigned judge is entitled under division (A)(5) 33640
or (6) of section 141.04 of the Revised Code, shall submit to the 33641
administrative director of the supreme court quarterly requests 33642
for reimbursements of the per diem amounts so paid. The requests 33643
shall include verifications of the payment of those amounts and an 33644
affidavit from the acting judge or assigned judge stating the days 33645
and hours worked. The administrative director shall cause 33646
reimbursements of those amounts to be issued to the county if the 33647
administrative director verifies that those amounts were, in fact, 33648
so paid.33649

       Sec. 1907.14. (A) A judge of a county court shall take an 33650
oath of office as provided in section 3.23 of the Revised Code, 33651
the.33652

       (B) The office of judge of a county court is subject to 33653
forfeiture, and a judge may be removed from office, for the causes 33654
and by the procedure provided in sections 3.07 to 3.10 of the 33655
Revised Code.33656

       When a judge of a county court is temporarily absent, 33657
incapacitated, or otherwise unavailable, the judge may appoint a 33658
substitute having the qualifications required by section 1907.13 33659
of the Revised Code or may appoint a retired judge of a court of 33660
record in the state who is a qualified elector and a resident of 33661
the county court district. If the judge is unable to make the 33662
appointment, the administrative judge of the county court district 33663
or the administrative judge of the court of common pleas of the 33664
county shall appoint the substitute. The appointee shall serve 33665
during the absence, incapacity, or unavailability of the 33666
incumbent, shall have the jurisdiction and powers conferred upon 33667
the judge of the county court, and shall be styled "acting judge." 33668
During that term of service, the acting judge shall sign all 33669
process and records and perform all acts pertaining to the office 33670
except that of removal and appointment of officers of the court. 33671
All courts shall take judicial notice of the selection and powers 33672
of the acting judge. The incumbent judge shall establish the 33673
amount of the compensation of an acting judge on a per diem, 33674
hourly, or other basis, and the compensation shall not exceed the 33675
per diem compensation paid to the incumbent judge based upon a 33676
work year of one hundred thirty days. The compensation shall be 33677
payable in the same manner as the compensation paid to the 33678
incumbent judge during the same period.33679

       Sec. 1907.141.  (A)(1) If a vacancy occurs in the office of a 33680
judge of a county court that consists of only one judge or if the 33681
judge of a county court of that nature is incapacitated or 33682
unavailable due to disqualification, suspension, or recusal, the 33683
chief justice of the supreme court may assign a sitting judge of 33684
another court of record or a retired judge of a court of record to 33685
temporarily serve on the court in accordance with rules adopted by 33686
the supreme court pursuant to division (A)(1) of Section 5 of 33687
Article IV, Ohio Constitution. The assignee shall be styled 33688
"assigned judge" and shall serve for any period of time the chief 33689
justice may prescribe.33690

       (2) If a judge of a county court that consists of only one 33691
judge is temporarily absent for a reason other than as specified 33692
in division (A)(1) of this section, the judge may do either of the 33693
following:33694

       (a) Appoint a substitute who is a resident of the territory 33695
of the court or, if the territory of the court has a population of 33696
less than twenty-five thousand according to the latest federal 33697
decennial census and the judge is unable to appoint a substitute 33698
who is a resident of the territory of the court, appoint a 33699
substitute who is a resident of the territory of a municipal or 33700
county court that is contiguous to the court. The appointee shall 33701
either be admitted to the practice of law in this state and have 33702
been, for a total of at least six years preceding appointment, 33703
engaged in the practice of law in this state or a judge of a court 33704
of record in any jurisdiction in the United States or be a retired 33705
judge of a court of record. The appointee shall be styled "acting 33706
judge" and shall temporarily serve on the court during the 33707
temporary absence of the incumbent judge.33708

       (b) Request the chief justice of the supreme court to assign 33709
a sitting judge of another court of record or a retired judge of a 33710
court of record to temporarily serve on the court in accordance 33711
with rules adopted by the supreme court pursuant to division 33712
(A)(1) of Section 5 of Article IV, Ohio Constitution. The assignee 33713
shall be styled "assigned judge" and shall serve for any period of 33714
time the chief justice may prescribe.33715

       (B) If a vacancy occurs in the office of a judge of a county 33716
court that consists of two judges or if a judge of a county court 33717
of that nature is incapacitated, unavailable, or temporarily 33718
absent, the presiding judge may do either of the following:33719

       (1) Appoint a substitute who is a resident of the territory 33720
of the court or, if the territory of the court has a population of 33721
less than twenty-five thousand according to the latest federal 33722
decennial census and the judge is unable to appoint a substitute 33723
who is a resident of the territory of the court, appoint a 33724
substitute who is a resident of the territory of a municipal or 33725
county court that is contiguous to the court. The appointee shall 33726
either be admitted to the practice of law in this state and have 33727
been, for a total of at least six years preceding appointment, 33728
engaged in the practice of law in this state or a judge of a court 33729
of record in any jurisdiction in the United States or be a retired 33730
judge of a court of record. The appointee shall be styled "acting 33731
judge" and shall temporarily serve on the court during the vacancy 33732
or the incapacity, unavailability, or temporary absence of the 33733
incumbent judge.33734

       (2) Request the chief justice of the supreme court to assign 33735
a sitting judge of another court of record or a retired judge of a 33736
court of record to temporarily serve on the court in accordance 33737
with rules adopted by the supreme court pursuant to division 33738
(A)(1) of Section 5 of Article IV, Ohio Constitution. The assignee 33739
shall be styled "assigned judge" and shall serve for any period of 33740
time the chief justice may prescribe.33741

       (C) If a vacancy occurs in the office of a judge of a county 33742
court that consists of three or more judges or if a judge of a 33743
county court of that nature is incapacitated, unavailable, or 33744
temporarily absent, the presiding judge may do either of the 33745
following:33746

       (1) If no other judge of the court is available to perform 33747
the duties of the judge, appoint a substitute who is a resident of 33748
the territory of the court. The appointee shall either be admitted 33749
to the practice of law in this state and have been, for a total of 33750
at least six years preceding appointment, engaged in the practice 33751
of law in this state or a judge of a court of record in any 33752
jurisdiction in the United States or be a retired judge of a court 33753
of record. The appointee shall be styled "acting judge" and shall 33754
temporarily serve on the court during the vacancy or the 33755
incapacity, unavailability, or temporary absence of the incumbent 33756
judge.33757

       (2) Request the chief justice of the supreme court to assign 33758
a sitting judge of another court of record or a retired judge of a 33759
court of record to temporarily serve on the court in accordance 33760
with rules adopted by the supreme court pursuant to division 33761
(A)(1) of Section 5 of Article IV, Ohio Constitution. The assignee 33762
shall be styled "assigned judge" and shall serve for any period of 33763
time the chief justice may prescribe33764

       (D) An acting judge appointed pursuant to division (A)(2)(a), 33765
(B)(1), or (C)(1) of this section and an assigned judge assigned 33766
pursuant to division (A)(1), (A)(2)(b), (B)(2), or (C)(2) of this 33767
section shall have the jurisdiction and adjudicatory powers 33768
conferred upon the judge of the county court. During the time of 33769
service, the acting judge or assigned judge shall sign all process 33770
and records and shall perform all acts pertaining to the office, 33771
except that of removal and appointment of officers of the court. 33772
All courts shall take judicial notice of the selection and powers 33773
of the acting judge or assigned judge.33774

       Sec. 1907.142.  (A) An acting judge appointed pursuant to 33775
division (A)(2)(a), (B)(1), or (C)(1) of section 1907.141 of the 33776
Revised Code shall receive reimbursement for actual and necessary 33777
expenses and a per diem compensation established by the incumbent 33778
judge, provided the per diem compensation of the acting judge 33779
shall not exceed the per diem compensation paid to the incumbent 33780
judge based upon a work year of one hundred thirty days. The per 33781
diem compensation of the acting judge shall be payable in the same 33782
manner as the compensation paid to the incumbent judge during the 33783
same period. 33784

       (B) An assigned judge assigned pursuant to division (A)(1), 33785
(A)(2)(b), (B)(2), or (C)(2) of section 1907.141 of the Revised 33786
Code shall receive reimbursement for actual and necessary expenses 33787
and a per diem compensation computed as follows:33788

       (1) If the assigned judge receives compensation as described 33789
in division (A)(5) of section 141.04 of the Revised Code, thirty 33790
dollars;33791

       (2) If the assigned judge receives compensation as described 33792
in division (A)(6) of section 141.04 of the Revised Code, the per 33793
diem compensation of a judge of a municipal court compensated as 33794
described in division (A)(5) of section 141.04 of the Revised 33795
Code, less the per diem compensation of the assigned judge, each 33796
calculated on the basis of two hundred fifty working days per 33797
year;33798

       (3) If the assigned judge is a retired judge of a municipal 33799
or county court or a court of common pleas, the established per 33800
diem compensation for a judge of a municipal court compensated as 33801
described in division (A)(5) of section 141.04 of the Revised 33802
Code, calculated on the basis of two hundred fifty working days 33803
per year, in addition to any retirement benefits to which the 33804
assigned judge may be entitled; 33805

       (4) If the assigned judge is a sitting judge of the court of 33806
appeals or a court of common pleas, fifty dollars.33807

       Sec. 1907.143.  (A)(1) Subject to reimbursement under 33808
division (B) of this section, the treasurer of the county in which 33809
a county court is located shall pay the per diem compensation to 33810
which an acting judge appointed pursuant to division (A)(2)(b), 33811
(B)(1), or (C)(1) of section 1907.141 of the Revised Code is 33812
entitled pursuant to division (A) of section 1907.142 of the 33813
Revised Code.33814

       (2) Subject to reimbursement under division (B) of this 33815
section, the treasurer of the county in which a county court is 33816
located shall pay the per diem compensation to which an assigned 33817
judge assigned pursuant to division (A)(1), (A)(2)(b), (B)(2), or 33818
(C)(2) of section 1907.141 of the Revised Code is entitled 33819
pursuant to division (B) of section 1907.142 of the Revised Code.33820

       (B) The treasurer of a county that, pursuant to division (A) 33821
of this section, is required to pay any compensation to which an 33822
acting judge or assigned judge is entitled under division (A)(5) 33823
or (6) of section 141.04 of the Revised Code, shall submit to the 33824
administrative director of the supreme court quarterly requests 33825
for reimbursements of the per diem amounts so paid. The requests 33826
shall include verifications of the payment of those amounts and an 33827
affidavit from the acting judge or assigned judge stating the days 33828
and hours worked. The administrative director shall cause 33829
reimbursements of those amounts to be issued to the county if the 33830
administrative director verifies that those amounts were, in fact, 33831
so paid.33832

       Sec. 1923.14. (A) Except as otherwise provided in this 33833
section, within ten days after receiving a writ of execution 33834
described in division (A) or (B) of section 1923.13 of the Revised 33835
Code, the sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff shall 33836
execute it by restoring the plaintiff to the possession of the 33837
premises, and shall levy and collect the costs and make return, as 33838
upon other executions. If an appeal from the judgment of 33839
restitution is filed and if, following the filing of the appeal, a 33840
stay of execution is obtained and any required bond is filed with 33841
the court of common pleas, municipal court, or county court, the 33842
judge of that court immediately shall issue an order to the 33843
sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff commanding the 33844
delay of all further proceedings upon the execution. If the 33845
premises have been restored to the plaintiff, the sheriff, police 33846
officer, constable, or bailiff shall forthwith place the defendant 33847
in possession of them, and return the writ with the sheriff's, 33848
police officer's, constable's, or bailiff's proceedings and the 33849
costs taxed on it.33850

       (B)(1) After a court of common pleas, municipal court, or 33851
county court issues a writ of execution described in division (B) 33852
of section 1923.13 of the Revised Code, the clerk of the court 33853
shall send by regular mail, to the last known address of the 33854
titled owner of the manufactured home, mobile home, or 33855
recreational vehicle that is the subject of the writ and to the 33856
last known address of each other person who is listed on the writ 33857
as having any outstanding right, title, or interest in the home, 33858
vehicle, or personal property and to the auditor and treasurer of 33859
the county in which the court is located, a written notice that 33860
the home or vehicle potentially may be sold, destroyed, or have 33861
its title transferred under the circumstances described in 33862
division (B)(3) or (4) of this section.33863

       (2) Except as otherwise provided in this division, after 33864
receiving a writ of execution described in division (B) of section 33865
1923.13 of the Revised Code, and after causing the defendant to be 33866
removed from the residential premises of the manufactured home 33867
park, if necessary, in accordance with the writ, the sheriff, 33868
police officer, constable, or bailiff may cause the manufactured 33869
home, mobile home, or recreational vehicle that is the subject of 33870
the writ, and all personal property on the residential premises, 33871
at the sheriff's, police officer's, constable's, or bailiff's 33872
option, either to be removed from the manufactured home park and, 33873
if necessary, moved to a storage facility of the sheriff's, police 33874
officer's, constable's, or bailiff's choice, or to be retained at 33875
their current location on the residential premises, until they are 33876
claimed by the defendant or they are disposed of in a manner 33877
authorized by division (B)(3), (4), or (6) of this section or by 33878
another section of the Revised Code. The sheriff, police officer, 33879
constable, or bailiff shall not cause the manufactured home, 33880
mobile home, or recreational vehicle that is the subject of the 33881
writ, or the personal property, to be removed from the 33882
manufactured home park or moved to a storage facility if the 33883
holder of any outstanding lien, right, title, or interest in the 33884
home or vehicle, other than the titled owner of the home or 33885
vehicle, meets the conditions set forth in division (B)(6) or (7) 33886
of this section.33887

       The sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff who 33888
removes the manufactured home, mobile home, or recreational 33889
vehicle, or the abandoned personal property, from the residential 33890
premises shall be immune from civil liability pursuant to section 33891
2744.03 of the Revised Code for any damage caused to the home, 33892
vehicle, or any personal property during the removal. The park 33893
operator shall not be liable for any damage caused by the park 33894
operator's removal of the manufactured home, mobile home, or 33895
recreational vehicle or the removal of the personal property from 33896
the residential premises, or for any damage to the home, vehicle, 33897
or personal property during the time the home, vehicle, or 33898
property remains abandoned or stored in the manufactured home 33899
park, unless the damage is the result of acts that the park 33900
operator or the park operator's agents or employees performed with 33901
malicious purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or reckless 33902
manner. The reasonable costs for a removal of the manufactured 33903
home, mobile home, or recreational vehicle and personal property 33904
and, as applicable, the reasonable costs for its storage shall 33905
constitute a lien upon the home or vehicle payable by the titled 33906
owner of the home or vehicle or payable pursuant to division 33907
(B)(3) of this section.33908

       (3) Except as provided in divisions (B)(4), (5), and (6) of 33909
this section and division (D) of section 1923.12 of the Revised 33910
Code, within sixty days after receiving a writ of execution 33911
described in division (B) of section 1923.13 of the Revised Code, 33912
the sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff shall commence 33913
proceedings for the sale of the manufactured home, mobile home, or 33914
recreational vehicle that is the subject of the writ, and the 33915
abandoned personal property on the residential premises, if the 33916
home or vehicle is determined to be abandoned in accordance with 33917
the procedures for the sale of goods on execution under Chapter 33918
2329. of the Revised Code. In addition to all notices required to 33919
be given under section 2329.13 of the Revised Code, the sheriff, 33920
police officer, constable, or bailiff shall serve at their 33921
respective last known addresses a written notice of the date, 33922
time, and place of the sale upon all persons who are listed on the 33923
writ of execution as having any outstanding right, title, or 33924
interest in the abandoned manufactured home, mobile home, or 33925
recreational vehicle and the personal property and shall provide 33926
written notice to the auditor and the treasurer of the county in 33927
which the court issuing the writ is located.33928

        Unless the proceedings are governed by division (D) of 33929
section 1923.12 of the Revised Code, notwithstanding any statutory 33930
provision to the contrary, including, but not limited to, section 33931
2329.66 of the Revised Code, there shall be no stay of execution 33932
or exemption from levy or sale on execution available to the 33933
titled owner of the abandoned manufactured home, mobile home, or 33934
recreational vehicle in relation to a sale under this division. 33935
Except as otherwise provided in sections 2113.031, 2117.25, and 33936
5111.115162.21 of the Revised Code in a case involving a deceased 33937
resident or resident's estate, the sheriff, police officer, 33938
constable, or bailiff shall distribute the proceeds from the sale 33939
of an abandoned manufactured home, mobile home, or recreational 33940
vehicle and any personal property under this division in the 33941
following manner:33942

       (a) The sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff shall 33943
first pay the costs for any moving of and any storage outside the 33944
manufactured home park of the home or vehicle and any personal 33945
property pursuant to division (B)(2) of this section, the costs of 33946
the sale, including reimbursing the park operator for the deposit 33947
that the park operator paid to the clerk of court under division 33948
(C) of section 1923.12 of the Revised Code, and any unpaid court 33949
costs assessed against the defendant in the underlying action.33950

       (b) Following the payment required by division (B)(3)(a) of 33951
this section, the sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff 33952
shall pay all outstanding tax liens on the home or vehicle.33953

       (c) Following the payment required by division (B)(3)(b) of 33954
this section, the sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff 33955
shall pay all other outstanding security interests, liens, or 33956
encumbrances on the home or vehicle by priority of filing or other 33957
priority.33958

       (d) Following the payment required by division (B)(3)(c) of 33959
this section, the sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff 33960
shall pay any outstanding monetary judgment rendered under section 33961
1923.09 or 1923.11 of the Revised Code in favor of the plaintiff 33962
and any costs associated with retaining the home or vehicle prior 33963
to the sale at its location on the residential premises within the 33964
manufactured home park pursuant to division (B)(2) of this 33965
section.33966

       (e) After complying with divisions (B)(3)(a) to (d) of this 33967
section, the sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff shall 33968
report any remaining money as unclaimed funds pursuant to Chapter 33969
169. of the Revised Code.33970

       Upon the return of any writ of execution for the satisfaction 33971
of which an abandoned manufactured home, mobile home, or 33972
recreational vehicle has been sold under this division, on careful 33973
examination of the proceedings of the sheriff, police officer, 33974
constable, or bailiff conducting the sale, if the court that 33975
issued the writ finds that the sale was made, in all respects, in 33976
conformity with the relevant provisions of Chapter 2329. of the 33977
Revised Code and with this division, it shall direct the clerk of 33978
the court to make an entry on the journal that the court is 33979
satisfied with the legality of the sale and the court shall direct 33980
the clerk of the court of common pleas of the county in which the 33981
writ was issued to issue a certificate of title, free and clear of 33982
all security interests, liens, and encumbrances, to the purchaser 33983
of the home or vehicle. The clerk of the court of common pleas 33984
shall issue the new certificate of title to the purchaser of the 33985
home or vehicle regardless of whether the writ was issued by the 33986
court of common pleas or another court duly authorized to issue 33987
the writ. If the manufactured home, mobile home, or recreational 33988
vehicle sold under this division is located in a manufactured home 33989
park, the purchaser of the home or vehicle shall have no right to 33990
maintain the home or vehicle in the manufactured home park without 33991
the park operator's consent and the sheriff, police officer, 33992
constable, or bailiff conducting the sale shall notify all 33993
prospective purchasers of this fact prior to the commencement of 33994
the sale.33995

       If, after it is offered for sale on two occasions under this 33996
division, the abandoned manufactured home, mobile home, or 33997
recreational vehicle cannot be sold due to a want of bidders, the 33998
sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff shall present the 33999
writ of execution unsatisfied to the clerk of the court of common 34000
pleas of the county in which the writ was issued for the issuance 34001
by the clerk in the manner prescribed in section 4505.10 of the 34002
Revised Code of a certificate of title transferring the title of 34003
the home or vehicle to the plaintiff, free and clear of all 34004
security interests, liens, and encumbrances. The clerk of the 34005
court of common pleas shall issue the new certificate of title 34006
transferring the title of the manufactured home, mobile home, or 34007
recreational vehicle to the plaintiff regardless of whether the 34008
writ was issued by the court of common pleas or another court duly 34009
authorized to issue the writ. If any taxes are owed on the home or 34010
vehicle at this time, the county auditor shall remove the 34011
delinquent taxes from the manufactured home tax list and the 34012
delinquent manufactured home tax list and remit any penalties for 34013
late payment of manufactured home taxes. Acceptance of the 34014
certificate of title by the plaintiff terminates all further 34015
proceedings under this section.34016

       (4) Except as provided in division (B)(5) or (6) of this 34017
section and division (D) of section 1923.12 of the Revised Code, 34018
within sixty days after receiving a writ of execution described in 34019
division (B) of section 1923.13 of the Revised Code, if the 34020
manufactured home, mobile home, or recreational vehicle is 34021
determined to be abandoned and to have a value of less than three 34022
thousand dollars, the sheriff, police officer, constable, or 34023
bailiff shall serve at their respective last known addresses a 34024
written notice of potential action as described in this division 34025
upon all persons who are listed on the writ as having any 34026
outstanding right, title, or interest in the home or vehicle. This 34027
notice shall be in addition to all notices required to be given 34028
under section 2329.13 of the Revised Code. Subject to the 34029
fulfillment of these notice requirements, the sheriff, police 34030
officer, constable, or bailiff shall take one of the following 34031
actions with respect to the abandoned manufactured home, mobile 34032
home, or recreational vehicle:34033

       (a) Cause its destruction if there is no person having an 34034
outstanding right, title, or interest in the home or vehicle, 34035
other than the titled owner of the home or vehicle;34036

       (b) Proceed with its sale under division (B)(3) of this 34037
section;34038

       (c) If there is no person having an outstanding right, title, 34039
or interest in the home or vehicle other than the titled owner of 34040
the home or vehicle, or if there is an outstanding right, title, 34041
or interest in the home or vehicle and the lienholder consents in 34042
writing, present the writ of execution to the clerk of the court 34043
of common pleas of the county in which the writ was issued for the 34044
issuance by the clerk in the manner prescribed in section 4505.10 34045
of the Revised Code of a certificate of title transferring the 34046
title of the home or vehicle to the plaintiff, free and clear of 34047
all security interests, liens, and encumbrances. The clerk of the 34048
court of common pleas shall issue the new certificate of title 34049
transferring the title of the home or vehicle regardless of 34050
whether the writ was issued by the court of common pleas or 34051
another court duly authorized to issue the writ. If any taxes are 34052
owed on the home or vehicle at this time, the county auditor shall 34053
remove the delinquent taxes from the manufactured home tax list 34054
and the delinquent manufactured home tax list and remit any 34055
penalties for late payment of manufactured home taxes. Acceptance 34056
of the certificate of title by the plaintiff terminates all 34057
further proceedings under this section.34058

       (5) At any time prior to the issuance of the writ of 34059
execution described in division (B) of section 1923.13 of the 34060
Revised Code, the titled owner of the manufactured home, mobile 34061
home, or recreational vehicle that would be the subject of the 34062
writ may remove the abandoned home or vehicle from the 34063
manufactured home park or other place of storage upon payment to 34064
the county auditor of all outstanding tax liens on the home or 34065
vehicle and, unless the owner is indigent, payment to the clerk of 34066
court of all unpaid court costs assessed against the defendant in 34067
the underlying action. After the issuance of the writ of 34068
execution, the titled owner of the home or vehicle may remove the 34069
abandoned home or vehicle from the manufactured home park or other 34070
place of storage at any time up to the day before the scheduled 34071
sale, destruction, or transfer of the home or vehicle pursuant to 34072
division (B)(3) or (4) of this section upon payment of all of the 34073
following:34074

        (a) All costs for moving and storage of the home or vehicle 34075
pursuant to division (B)(2) of this section and all costs incurred 34076
by the sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff up to and 34077
including the date of the removal of the home or vehicle;34078

       (b) All outstanding tax liens on the home or vehicle;34079

       (c) Unless the owner is indigent, all unpaid court costs 34080
assessed against the defendant in the underlying action.34081

       (6) At any time after the issuance of the writ of execution 34082
described in division (B) of section 1923.13 of the Revised Code, 34083
the holder of any outstanding lien, right, title, or interest in 34084
the manufactured home, mobile home, or recreational vehicle, other 34085
than the titled owner of the home or vehicle, may stop the 34086
sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff from proceeding 34087
with the sale under this division by doing both of the following:34088

        (a) Commencing a proceeding to repossess the home or vehicle 34089
pursuant to Chapters 1309. and 1317. of the Revised Code;34090

        (b) Paying to the park operator all monthly rental payments 34091
for the lot on which the home or vehicle is located from the time 34092
of the issuance of the writ of execution until the time that the 34093
home or vehicle is sold pursuant to Chapters 1309. and 1317. of 34094
the Revised Code.34095

       (7)(a) At any time prior to the day before the scheduled sale 34096
of the property pursuant to division (B)(3) of this section, the 34097
defendant may remove any personal property of the defendant from 34098
the abandoned home or vehicle or other place of storage.34099

       (b) If personal property owned by a person other than the 34100
defendant is abandoned on the residential premises and has not 34101
previously been removed, the owner of the personal property may 34102
remove the personal property from the abandoned home or vehicle or 34103
other place of storage up to the day before the scheduled sale of 34104
the property pursuant to division (B)(3) of this section upon 34105
presentation of proof of ownership of the property that is 34106
satisfactory to the sheriff, police officer, constable, or bailiff 34107
conducting the sale.34108

       Sec. 2101.24.  (A)(1) Except as otherwise provided by law, 34109
the probate court has exclusive jurisdiction:34110

       (a) To take the proof of wills and to admit to record 34111
authenticated copies of wills executed, proved, and allowed in the 34112
courts of any other state, territory, or country. If the probate 34113
judge is unavoidably absent, any judge of the court of common 34114
pleas may take proof of wills and approve bonds to be given, but 34115
the record of these acts shall be preserved in the usual records 34116
of the probate court.34117

       (b) To grant and revoke letters testamentary and of 34118
administration;34119

       (c) To direct and control the conduct and settle the accounts 34120
of executors and administrators and order the distribution of 34121
estates;34122

       (d) To appoint the attorney general to serve as the 34123
administrator of an estate pursuant to section 2113.06 of the 34124
Revised Code;34125

       (e) To appoint and remove guardians, conservators, and 34126
testamentary trustees, direct and control their conduct, and 34127
settle their accounts;34128

       (f) To grant marriage licenses;34129

       (g) To make inquests respecting persons who are so mentally 34130
impaired as a result of a mental or physical illness or 34131
disability, or mental retardation, or as a result of chronic 34132
substance abuse, that they are unable to manage their property and 34133
affairs effectively, subject to guardianship;34134

       (h) To qualify assignees, appoint and qualify trustees and 34135
commissioners of insolvents, control their conduct, and settle 34136
their accounts;34137

       (i) To authorize the sale of lands, equitable estates, or 34138
interests in lands or equitable estates, and the assignments of 34139
inchoate dower in such cases of sale, on petition by executors, 34140
administrators, and guardians;34141

       (j) To authorize the completion of real property contracts on 34142
petition of executors and administrators;34143

       (k) To construe wills;34144

       (l) To render declaratory judgments, including, but not 34145
limited to, those rendered pursuant to section 2107.084 of the 34146
Revised Code;34147

       (m) To direct and control the conduct of fiduciaries and 34148
settle their accounts;34149

       (n) To authorize the sale or lease of any estate created by 34150
will if the estate is held in trust, on petition by the trustee;34151

       (o) To terminate a testamentary trust in any case in which a 34152
court of equity may do so;34153

       (p) To hear and determine actions to contest the validity of 34154
wills;34155

       (q) To make a determination of the presumption of death of 34156
missing persons and to adjudicate the property rights and 34157
obligations of all parties affected by the presumption;34158

       (r) To hear and determine an action commenced pursuant to 34159
section 3107.41 of the Revised Code to obtain the release of 34160
information pertaining to the birth name of the adopted person and 34161
the identity of the adopted person's biological parents and 34162
biological siblings;34163

       (s) To act for and issue orders regarding wards pursuant to 34164
section 2111.50 of the Revised Code;34165

       (t) To hear and determine actions against sureties on the 34166
bonds of fiduciaries appointed by the probate court;34167

       (u) To hear and determine actions involving informed consent 34168
for medication of persons hospitalized pursuant to section 34169
5122.141 or 5122.15 of the Revised Code;34170

       (v) To hear and determine actions relating to durable powers 34171
of attorney for health care as described in division (D) of 34172
section 1337.16 of the Revised Code;34173

       (w) To hear and determine actions commenced by objecting 34174
individuals, in accordance with section 2133.05 of the Revised 34175
Code;34176

       (x) To hear and determine complaints that pertain to the use 34177
or continuation, or the withholding or withdrawal, of 34178
life-sustaining treatment in connection with certain patients 34179
allegedly in a terminal condition or in a permanently unconscious 34180
state pursuant to division (E) of section 2133.08 of the Revised 34181
Code, in accordance with that division;34182

       (y) To hear and determine applications that pertain to the 34183
withholding or withdrawal of nutrition and hydration from certain 34184
patients allegedly in a permanently unconscious state pursuant to 34185
section 2133.09 of the Revised Code, in accordance with that 34186
section;34187

       (z) To hear and determine applications of attending 34188
physicians in accordance with division (B) of section 2133.15 of 34189
the Revised Code;34190

       (aa) To hear and determine actions relative to the use or 34191
continuation of comfort care in connection with certain principals 34192
under durable powers of attorney for health care, declarants under 34193
declarations, or patients in accordance with division (E) of 34194
either section 1337.16 or 2133.12 of the Revised Code;34195

       (bb) To hear and determine applications for an order 34196
relieving an estate from administration under section 2113.03 of 34197
the Revised Code;34198

       (cc) To hear and determine applications for an order granting 34199
a summary release from administration under section 2113.031 of 34200
the Revised Code;34201

       (dd) To hear and determine actions relating to the exercise 34202
of the right of disposition, in accordance with section 2108.90 of 34203
the Revised Code;34204

       (ee) To hear and determine actions relating to the 34205
disinterment and reinterment of human remains under section 517.23 34206
of the Revised Code;34207

       (ff) To hear and determine petitions for an order for 34208
treatment of a person suffering from alcohol and other drug abuse 34209
filed under section 3793.345119.93 of the Revised Code and to 34210
order treatment of that nature in accordance with, and take other 34211
actions afforded to the court under, sections 3793.315119.90 to 34212
3793.395119.98 of the Revised Code.34213

       (2) In addition to the exclusive jurisdiction conferred upon 34214
the probate court by division (A)(1) of this section, the probate 34215
court shall have exclusive jurisdiction over a particular subject 34216
matter if both of the following apply:34217

       (a) Another section of the Revised Code expressly confers 34218
jurisdiction over that subject matter upon the probate court.34219

       (b) No section of the Revised Code expressly confers 34220
jurisdiction over that subject matter upon any other court or 34221
agency.34222

       (B)(1) The probate court has concurrent jurisdiction with, 34223
and the same powers at law and in equity as, the general division 34224
of the court of common pleas to issue writs and orders, and to 34225
hear and determine actions as follows:34226

       (a) If jurisdiction relative to a particular subject matter 34227
is stated to be concurrent in a section of the Revised Code or has 34228
been construed by judicial decision to be concurrent, any action 34229
that involves that subject matter;34230

       (b) Any action that involves an inter vivos trust; a trust 34231
created pursuant to section 5815.28 of the Revised Code; a 34232
charitable trust or foundation; subject to divisions (A)(1)(u) and 34233
(z) of this section, a power of attorney, including, but not 34234
limited to, a durable power of attorney; the medical treatment of 34235
a competent adult; or a writ of habeas corpus;34236

       (c) Subject to section 2101.31 of the Revised Code, any 34237
action with respect to a probate estate, guardianship, trust, or 34238
post-death dispute that involves any of the following:34239

        (i) A designation or removal of a beneficiary of a life 34240
insurance policy, annuity contract, retirement plan, brokerage 34241
account, security account, bank account, real property, or 34242
tangible personal property;34243

        (ii) A designation or removal of a payable-on-death 34244
beneficiary or transfer-on-death beneficiary;34245

        (iii) A change in the title to any asset involving a joint 34246
and survivorship interest;34247

        (iv) An alleged gift;34248

        (v) The passing of assets upon the death of an individual 34249
otherwise than by will, intestate succession, or trust.34250

       (2) Any action that involves a concurrent jurisdiction 34251
subject matter and that is before the probate court may be 34252
transferred by the probate court, on its order, to the general 34253
division of the court of common pleas.34254

       (C) The probate court has plenary power at law and in equity 34255
to dispose fully of any matter that is properly before the court, 34256
unless the power is expressly otherwise limited or denied by a 34257
section of the Revised Code.34258

       (D) The jurisdiction acquired by a probate court over a 34259
matter or proceeding is exclusive of that of any other probate 34260
court, except when otherwise provided by law.34261

       Sec. 2108.05.  (A) A donor may make an anatomical gift by 34262
doing any of the following:34263

       (1) Authorizing a statement or symbol to be imprinted on the 34264
donor's driver's license or identification card indicating that 34265
the donor has certified a willingness to make an anatomical gift;34266

       (2) Specifying in the donor's will an intent to make an 34267
anatomical gift;34268

       (3) Specifying an intent to make an anatomical gift in the 34269
donor's declaration as described in section 2133.16 of the Revised 34270
Code;34271

       (4) During a terminal illness or injury of the donor, 34272
communicating in any manner to a minimum of two adults, at least 34273
one of whom is a disinterested witness, that the donor intends to 34274
make an anatomical gift;34275

       (5) Following the procedure in division (B) of this section.34276

       (B) A donor or other person authorized to make an anatomical 34277
gift under section 2108.04 of the Revised Code may make a gift by 34278
a donor card or other record signed by the donor or other person 34279
making the gift or by authorizing that a statement or symbol 34280
indicating that the donor has certified a willingness to make an 34281
anatomical gift be included in a donor registry. If the donor or 34282
other person is physically unable to sign a record, the record may 34283
be signed by another individual at the direction of the donor or 34284
other person and shall do both of the following:34285

       (1) Be witnessed by at least two adults, at least one of whom 34286
is a disinterested witness, who have signed at the request of the 34287
donor or the other person;34288

       (2) State that it has been signed and witnessed as provided 34289
in division (B)(1) of this section.34290

       (C) Once a donor has authorized a statement or symbol to be 34291
imprinted on the donor's driver's license or identification card 34292
indicating that the donor has certified a willingness to make an 34293
anatomical gift, the donor does not need to recertify the donor's 34294
willingness to make an anatomical gift upon renewal of the 34295
driver's license or identification card. The authorization shall 34296
remain in effect until the donor withdraws that authorization.34297

       (D) Revocation, suspension, expiration, or cancellation of a 34298
driver's license or identification card upon which an anatomical 34299
gift is indicated does not invalidate the gift.34300

       (D)(E) An anatomical gift made by will takes effect on the 34301
donor's death whether or not the will is probated. Invalidation of 34302
the will after the donor's death does not invalidate the gift.34303

       Sec. 2113.041. (A) The administrator of the medicaid estate 34304
recovery program established pursuant to section 5111.115162.2134305
of the Revised Code may present an affidavit to a financial 34306
institution requesting that the financial institution release 34307
account proceeds to recover the cost of services correctly 34308
provided to a medicaid recipient who is subject to the medicaid 34309
estate recovery program. The affidavit shall include all of the 34310
following information:34311

        (1) The name of the decedent;34312

        (2) The name of any person who gave notice that the decedent 34313
was a medicaid recipient and that person's relationship to the 34314
decedent;34315

        (3) The name of the financial institution;34316

        (4) The account number;34317

        (5) A description of the claim for estate recovery;34318

        (6) The amount of funds to be recovered.34319

        (B) A financial institution may release account proceeds to 34320
the administrator of the medicaid estate recovery program if all 34321
of the following apply:34322

        (1) The decedent held an account at the financial institution 34323
that was in the decedent's name only.34324

        (2) No estate has been, and it is reasonable to assume that 34325
no estate will be, opened for the decedent.34326

        (3) The decedent has no outstanding debts known to the 34327
administrator of the medicaid estate recovery program.34328

        (4) The financial institution has received no objections or 34329
has determined that no valid objections to release of proceeds 34330
have been received.34331

        (C) If proceeds have been released pursuant to division (B) 34332
of this section and the department of job and family services34333
medicaid receives notice of a valid claim to the proceeds that has 34334
a higher priority under section 2117.25 of the Revised Code than 34335
the claim of the medicaid estate recovery program, the department 34336
may refund the proceeds to the financial institution or pay them 34337
to the person or government entity with the claim.34338

       Sec. 2113.06. (A) Administration of the estate of an 34339
intestate shall be granted to persons mentioned in this division, 34340
in the following order:34341

       (1) To the surviving spouse of the deceased, if resident of 34342
the state;34343

       (2) To one of the next of kin of the deceased, resident of 34344
the state.34345

       (B) If the persons entitled to administer the estate under 34346
division (A) of this section fail to take or renounce 34347
administration voluntarily, the matter shall be set for hearing 34348
and notice given to the persons.34349

       (C) If there are no persons entitled to administration, if 34350
they are for any reason unsuitable for the discharge of the trust, 34351
or if without sufficient cause they neglect to apply within a 34352
reasonable time for the administration of the estate, their right 34353
to priority shall be lost, and the court shall commit the 34354
administration to some suitable person who is a resident of the 34355
state, or to the attorney general or the attorney general's 34356
designee, if the department of job and family servicesmedicaid is 34357
seeking to recover medical assistancethe costs of medicaid 34358
services from the deceased pursuant to section 5111.115162.21 or 34359
5111.1115162.211 of the Revised Code. The person granted 34360
administration may be a creditor of the estate.34361

       (D) This section applies to the appointment of an 34362
administrator de bonis non.34363

       Sec. 2117.061. (A) As used in this section:34364

       (1) "Medicaid estate recovery program" means the program 34365
instituted under section 5111.115162.21 of the Revised Code.34366

        (2) "Person responsible for the estate" means the executor, 34367
administrator, commissioner, or person who filed pursuant to 34368
section 2113.03 of the Revised Code for release from 34369
administration of an estate.34370

        (B) The person responsible for the estate of a decedent 34371
subject to the medicaid estate recovery program or the estate of a 34372
decedent who was the spouse of a decedent subject to the medicaid 34373
estate recovery program shall submit a properly completed medicaid 34374
estate recovery notice form to the administrator of the medicaid 34375
estate recovery program not later than thirty days after the 34376
occurrence of any of the following:34377

        (1) The granting of letters of administration or letters 34378
testamentary;34379

        (2) The filing of an application for release from 34380
administration or summary release from administration.34381

        (C) The person responsible for the estate shall mark the 34382
appropriate box on the appropriate probate form that gives notice 34383
to the administrator of the medicaid estate recovery program to 34384
indicate compliance with the requirements of division (B) of this 34385
section.34386

       (D) The administrator of the medicaid estate recovery program 34387
shall present a claim for estate recovery to the person 34388
responsible for the estate of the decedent or the person's legal 34389
representative not later than ninety days after the date on which 34390
the medicaid estate recovery notice form is received under 34391
division (B) of this section or one year after the decedent's 34392
death, whichever is later.34393

       Sec. 2117.25. (A) Every executor or administrator shall 34394
proceed with diligence to pay the debts of the decedent and shall 34395
apply the assets in the following order:34396

       (1) Costs and expenses of administration;34397

       (2) An amount, not exceeding four thousand dollars, for 34398
funeral expenses that are included in the bill of a funeral 34399
director, funeral expenses other than those in the bill of a 34400
funeral director that are approved by the probate court, and an 34401
amount, not exceeding three thousand dollars, for burial and 34402
cemetery expenses, including that portion of the funeral 34403
director's bill allocated to cemetery expenses that have been paid 34404
to the cemetery by the funeral director.34405

       For purposes of division (A)(2) of this section, burial and 34406
cemetery expenses shall be limited to the following:34407

       (a) The purchase of a right of interment;34408

       (b) Monuments or other markers;34409

       (c) The outer burial container;34410

       (d) The cost of opening and closing the place of interment;34411

       (e) The urn.34412

       (3) The allowance for support made to the surviving spouse, 34413
minor children, or both under section 2106.13 of the Revised Code;34414

       (4) Debts entitled to a preference under the laws of the 34415
United States;34416

       (5) Expenses of the last sickness of the decedent;34417

       (6) If the total bill of a funeral director for funeral 34418
expenses exceeds four thousand dollars, then, in addition to the 34419
amount described in division (A)(2) of this section, an amount, 34420
not exceeding two thousand dollars, for funeral expenses that are 34421
included in the bill and that exceed four thousand dollars;34422

       (7) Expenses of the decedent's last continuous stay in a 34423
nursing home as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code, 34424
residential facility as defined in section 5123.19 of the Revised 34425
Code, or hospital long-term care unit as defined in section 34426
3721.505168.40 of the Revised Code.34427

       For purposes of division (A)(7) of this section, a decedent's 34428
last continuancecontinuous stay includes up to thirty consecutive 34429
days during which the decedent was temporarily absent from the 34430
nursing home, residential facility, or hospital long-term care 34431
unit.34432

       (8) Personal property taxes, claims made under the medicaid 34433
estate recovery program instituted pursuant to section 5111.1134434
5162.21 of the Revised Code, and obligations for which the 34435
decedent was personally liable to the state or any of its 34436
subdivisions;34437

       (9) Debts for manual labor performed for the decedent within 34438
twelve months preceding the decedent's death, not exceeding three 34439
hundred dollars to any one person;34440

       (10) Other debts for which claims have been presented and 34441
finally allowed.34442

       (B) The part of the bill of a funeral director that exceeds 34443
the total of six thousand dollars as described in divisions (A)(2) 34444
and (6) of this section, and the part of a claim included in 34445
division (A)(9) of this section that exceeds three hundred dollars 34446
shall be included as a debt under division (A)(10) of this 34447
section, depending upon the time when the claim for the additional 34448
amount is presented.34449

       (C) Any natural person or fiduciary who pays a claim of any 34450
creditor described in division (A) of this section shall be 34451
subrogated to the rights of that creditor proportionate to the 34452
amount of the payment and shall be entitled to reimbursement for 34453
that amount in accordance with the priority of payments set forth 34454
in that division.34455

       (D)(1) Chapters 2113. to 2125. of the Revised Code, relating 34456
to the manner in which and the time within which claims shall be 34457
presented, shall apply to claims set forth in divisions (A)(2), 34458
(6), and (9) of this section. Claims for an expense of 34459
administration or for the allowance for support need not be 34460
presented. The executor or administrator shall pay debts included 34461
in divisions (A)(4) and (8) of this section, of which the executor 34462
or administrator has knowledge, regardless of presentation.34463

       (2) The giving of written notice to an executor or 34464
administrator of a motion or application to revive an action 34465
pending against the decedent at the date of death shall be 34466
equivalent to the presentation of a claim to the executor or 34467
administrator for the purpose of determining the order of payment 34468
of any judgment rendered or decree entered in such an action.34469

       (E) No payments shall be made to creditors of one class until 34470
all those of the preceding class are fully paid or provided for. 34471
If the assets are insufficient to pay all the claims of one class, 34472
the creditors of that class shall be paid ratably.34473

       (F) If it appears at any time that the assets have been 34474
exhausted in paying prior or preferred charges, allowances, or 34475
claims, those payments shall be a bar to an action on any claim 34476
not entitled to that priority or preference.34477

       Sec. 2133.01.  Unless the context otherwise requires, as used 34478
in sections 2133.01 to 2133.15 of the Revised Code:34479

       (A) "Adult" means an individual who is eighteen years of age 34480
or older.34481

       (B) "Attending physician" means the physician to whom a 34482
declarant or other patient, or the family of a declarant or other 34483
patient, has assigned primary responsibility for the treatment or 34484
care of the declarant or other patient, or, if the responsibility 34485
has not been assigned, the physician who has accepted that 34486
responsibility.34487

       (C) "Comfort care" means any of the following:34488

       (1) Nutrition when administered to diminish the pain or 34489
discomfort of a declarant or other patient, but not to postpone 34490
the declarant's or other patient's death;34491

       (2) Hydration when administered to diminish the pain or 34492
discomfort of a declarant or other patient, but not to postpone 34493
the declarant's or other patient's death;34494

       (3) Any other medical or nursing procedure, treatment, 34495
intervention, or other measure that is taken to diminish the pain 34496
or discomfort of a declarant or other patient, but not to postpone 34497
the declarant's or other patient's death.34498

       (D) "Consulting physician" means a physician who, in 34499
conjunction with the attending physician of a declarant or other 34500
patient, makes one or more determinations that are required to be 34501
made by the attending physician, or to be made by the attending 34502
physician and one other physician, by an applicable provision of 34503
this chapter, to a reasonable degree of medical certainty and in 34504
accordance with reasonable medical standards.34505

       (E) "Declarant" means any adult who has executed a 34506
declaration in accordance with section 2133.02 of the Revised 34507
Code.34508

       (F) "Declaration" means a written document executed in 34509
accordance with section 2133.02 of the Revised Code.34510

       (G) "Durable power of attorney for health care" means a 34511
document created pursuant to sections 1337.11 to 1337.17 of the 34512
Revised Code.34513

       (H) "Guardian" means a person appointed by a probate court 34514
pursuant to Chapter 2111. of the Revised Code to have the care and 34515
management of the person of an incompetent.34516

       (I) "Health care facility" means any of the following:34517

       (1) A hospital;34518

       (2) A hospice care program, pediatric respite care program, 34519
or other institution that specializes in comfort care of patients 34520
in a terminal condition or in a permanently unconscious state;34521

       (3) A nursing home or residential care facility, as defined 34522
in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;34523

       (4) A home health agency and any residential facility where a 34524
person is receiving care under the direction of a home health 34525
agency;34526

       (5) An intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded34527
individuals with intellectual disabilities.34528

       (J) "Health care personnel" means physicians, nurses, 34529
physician assistants, emergency medical technicians-basic, 34530
emergency medical technicians-intermediate, emergency medical 34531
technicians-paramedic, medical technicians, dietitians, other 34532
authorized persons acting under the direction of an attending 34533
physician, and administrators of health care facilities.34534

       (K) "Home health agency" has the same meaning as in section 34535
3701.881 of the Revised Code.34536

       (L) "Hospice care program" and "pediatric respite care 34537
program" have the same meanings as in section 3712.01 of the 34538
Revised Code.34539

       (M) "Hospital" has the same meanings as in sections 3701.01, 34540
3727.01, and 5122.01 of the Revised Code.34541

       (N) "Hydration" means fluids that are artificially or 34542
technologically administered.34543

       (O) "Incompetent" has the same meaning as in section 2111.01 34544
of the Revised Code.34545

       (P) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded34546
individuals with intellectual disabilities" has the same meaning 34547
as in section 5111.205124.01 of the Revised Code.34548

       (Q) "Life-sustaining treatment" means any medical procedure, 34549
treatment, intervention, or other measure that, when administered 34550
to a qualified patient or other patient, will serve principally to 34551
prolong the process of dying.34552

       (R) "Nurse" means a person who is licensed to practice 34553
nursing as a registered nurse or to practice practical nursing as 34554
a licensed practical nurse pursuant to Chapter 4723. of the 34555
Revised Code.34556

       (S) "Nursing home" has the same meaning as in section 3721.01 34557
of the Revised Code.34558

       (T) "Nutrition" means sustenance that is artificially or 34559
technologically administered.34560

       (U) "Permanently unconscious state" means a state of 34561
permanent unconsciousness in a declarant or other patient that, to 34562
a reasonable degree of medical certainty as determined in 34563
accordance with reasonable medical standards by the declarant's or 34564
other patient's attending physician and one other physician who 34565
has examined the declarant or other patient, is characterized by 34566
both of the following:34567

       (1) Irreversible unawareness of one's being and environment.34568

       (2) Total loss of cerebral cortical functioning, resulting in 34569
the declarant or other patient having no capacity to experience 34570
pain or suffering.34571

       (V) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of the 34572
Revised Code and additionally includes political subdivisions and 34573
governmental agencies, boards, commissions, departments, 34574
institutions, offices, and other instrumentalities.34575

       (W) "Physician" means a person who is authorized under 34576
Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery 34577
or osteopathic medicine and surgery.34578

       (X) "Political subdivision" and "state" have the same 34579
meanings as in section 2744.01 of the Revised Code.34580

       (Y) "Professional disciplinary action" means action taken by 34581
the board or other entity that regulates the professional conduct 34582
of health care personnel, including the state medical board and 34583
the board of nursing.34584

       (Z) "Qualified patient" means an adult who has executed a 34585
declaration and has been determined to be in a terminal condition 34586
or in a permanently unconscious state.34587

       (AA) "Terminal condition" means an irreversible, incurable, 34588
and untreatable condition caused by disease, illness, or injury 34589
from which, to a reasonable degree of medical certainty as 34590
determined in accordance with reasonable medical standards by a 34591
declarant's or other patient's attending physician and one other 34592
physician who has examined the declarant or other patient, both of 34593
the following apply:34594

       (1) There can be no recovery.34595

       (2) Death is likely to occur within a relatively short time 34596
if life-sustaining treatment is not administered.34597

       (BB) "Tort action" means a civil action for damages for 34598
injury, death, or loss to person or property, other than a civil 34599
action for damages for breach of a contract or another agreement 34600
between persons.34601

       Sec. 2133.25.  (A) The department of health, by rule adopted 34602
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt a 34603
standardized method of procedure for the withholding of CPR by 34604
physicians, emergency medical services personnel, and health care 34605
facilities in accordance with sections 2133.21 to 2133.26 of the 34606
Revised Code. The standardized method shall specify criteria for 34607
determining when a do-not-resuscitate order issued by a physician 34608
is current. The standardized method so adopted shall be the 34609
"do-not-resuscitate protocol" for purposes of sections 2133.21 to 34610
2133.26 of the Revised Code. The department also shall approve one 34611
or more standard forms of DNR identification to be used throughout 34612
this state.34613

       (B) The department of health shall adopt rules in accordance 34614
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the administration of 34615
sections 2133.21 to 2133.26 of the Revised Code.34616

       (C) The department of health shall appoint an advisory 34617
committee to advise the department in the development of rules 34618
under this section. The advisory committee shall include, but 34619
shall not be limited to, representatives of each of the following 34620
organizations:34621

       (1) The association for hospitals and health systems (OHA);34622

       (2) The Ohio state medical association;34623

       (3) The Ohio chapter of the American college of emergency 34624
physicians;34625

       (4) The Ohio hospice organization;34626

       (5) The Ohio council for home care;34627

       (6) The Ohio health care association;34628

       (7) The Ohio ambulance association;34629

       (8) The Ohio medical directors association;34630

       (9) The Ohio association of emergency medical services;34631

       (10) The bioethics network of Ohio;34632

       (11) The Ohio nurses association;34633

       (12) The Ohio academy of nursing homes;34634

       (13) The Ohio association of professional firefighters;34635

       (14) The department of developmental disabilities;34636

       (15) The Ohio osteopathic association;34637

       (16) The association of Ohio philanthropic homes, housing and 34638
services for the aging;34639

       (17) The catholic conference of Ohio;34640

       (18) The department of aging;34641

       (19) The department of mental healthmental health and 34642
addiction services;34643

       (20) The Ohio private residential association;34644

       (21) The northern Ohio fire fighters association.34645

       Sec. 2151.011.  (A) As used in the Revised Code:34646

       (1) "Juvenile court" means whichever of the following is 34647
applicable that has jurisdiction under this chapter and Chapter 34648
2152. of the Revised Code:34649

       (a) The division of the court of common pleas specified in 34650
section 2101.022 or 2301.03 of the Revised Code as having 34651
jurisdiction under this chapter and Chapter 2152. of the Revised 34652
Code or as being the juvenile division or the juvenile division 34653
combined with one or more other divisions;34654

       (b) The juvenile court of Cuyahoga county or Hamilton county 34655
that is separately and independently created by section 2151.08 or 34656
Chapter 2153. of the Revised Code and that has jurisdiction under 34657
this chapter and Chapter 2152. of the Revised Code;34658

       (c) If division (A)(1)(a) or (b) of this section does not 34659
apply, the probate division of the court of common pleas.34660

       (2) "Juvenile judge" means a judge of a court having 34661
jurisdiction under this chapter.34662

       (3) "Private child placing agency" means any association, as 34663
defined in section 5103.02 of the Revised Code, that is certified 34664
under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code to accept temporary, 34665
permanent, or legal custody of children and place the children for 34666
either foster care or adoption.34667

       (4) "Private noncustodial agency" means any person, 34668
organization, association, or society certified by the department 34669
of job and family services that does not accept temporary or 34670
permanent legal custody of children, that is privately operated in 34671
this state, and that does one or more of the following:34672

       (a) Receives and cares for children for two or more 34673
consecutive weeks;34674

       (b) Participates in the placement of children in certified 34675
foster homes;34676

       (c) Provides adoption services in conjunction with a public 34677
children services agency or private child placing agency.34678

       (B) As used in this chapter:34679

       (1) "Adequate parental care" means the provision by a child's 34680
parent or parents, guardian, or custodian of adequate food, 34681
clothing, and shelter to ensure the child's health and physical 34682
safety and the provision by a child's parent or parents of 34683
specialized services warranted by the child's physical or mental 34684
needs.34685

       (2) "Adult" means an individual who is eighteen years of age 34686
or older.34687

       (3) "Agreement for temporary custody" means a voluntary 34688
agreement authorized by section 5103.15 of the Revised Code that 34689
transfers the temporary custody of a child to a public children 34690
services agency or a private child placing agency.34691

       (4) "Alternative response" means the public children services 34692
agency's response to a report of child abuse or neglect that 34693
engages the family in a comprehensive evaluation of child safety, 34694
risk of subsequent harm, and family strengths and needs and that 34695
does not include a determination as to whether child abuse or 34696
neglect occurred.34697

       (5) "Certified foster home" means a foster home, as defined 34698
in section 5103.02 of the Revised Code, certified under section 34699
5103.03 of the Revised Code.34700

       (6) "Child" means a person who is under eighteen years of 34701
age, except that the juvenile court has jurisdiction over any 34702
person who is adjudicated an unruly child prior to attaining 34703
eighteen years of age until the person attains twenty-one years of 34704
age, and, for purposes of that jurisdiction related to that 34705
adjudication, a person who is so adjudicated an unruly child shall 34706
be deemed a "child" until the person attains twenty-one years of 34707
age.34708

       (7) "Child day camp," "child care," "child day-care center," 34709
"part-time child day-care center," "type A family day-care home," 34710
"certified type B family day-care home," "type B home," 34711
"administrator of a child day-care center," "administrator of a 34712
type A family day-care home," "in-home aide," and "authorized 34713
provider" have the same meanings as in section 5104.01 of the 34714
Revised Code.34715

       (8) "Child care provider" means an individual who is a 34716
child-care staff member or administrator of a child day-care 34717
center, a type A family day-care home, or a type B family day-care 34718
home, or an in-home aide or an individual who is licensed, is 34719
regulated, is approved, operates under the direction of, or 34720
otherwise is certified by the department of job and family 34721
services, department of developmental disabilities, or the early 34722
childhood programs of the department of education.34723

       (9) "Chronic truant" has the same meaning as in section 34724
2152.02 of the Revised Code.34725

       (10) "Commit" means to vest custody as ordered by the court.34726

       (11) "Counseling" includes both of the following:34727

       (a) General counseling services performed by a public 34728
children services agency or shelter for victims of domestic 34729
violence to assist a child, a child's parents, and a child's 34730
siblings in alleviating identified problems that may cause or have 34731
caused the child to be an abused, neglected, or dependent child.34732

       (b) Psychiatric or psychological therapeutic counseling 34733
services provided to correct or alleviate any mental or emotional 34734
illness or disorder and performed by a licensed psychiatrist, 34735
licensed psychologist, or a person licensed under Chapter 4757. of 34736
the Revised Code to engage in social work or professional 34737
counseling.34738

       (12) "Custodian" means a person who has legal custody of a 34739
child or a public children services agency or private child 34740
placing agency that has permanent, temporary, or legal custody of 34741
a child.34742

       (13) "Delinquent child" has the same meaning as in section 34743
2152.02 of the Revised Code.34744

       (14) "Detention" means the temporary care of children pending 34745
court adjudication or disposition, or execution of a court order, 34746
in a public or private facility designed to physically restrict 34747
the movement and activities of children.34748

       (15) "Developmental disability" has the same meaning as in 34749
section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.34750

       (16) "Differential response approach" means an approach that 34751
a public children services agency may use to respond to accepted 34752
reports of child abuse or neglect with either an alternative 34753
response or a traditional response.34754

       (17) "Foster caregiver" has the same meaning as in section 34755
5103.02 of the Revised Code.34756

       (18) "Guardian" means a person, association, or corporation 34757
that is granted authority by a probate court pursuant to Chapter 34758
2111. of the Revised Code to exercise parental rights over a child 34759
to the extent provided in the court's order and subject to the 34760
residual parental rights of the child's parents.34761

       (19) "Habitual truant" means any child of compulsory school 34762
age who is absent without legitimate excuse for absence from the 34763
public school the child is supposed to attend for five or more 34764
consecutive school days, seven or more school days in one school 34765
month, or twelve or more school days in a school year.34766

       (20) "Juvenile traffic offender" has the same meaning as in 34767
section 2152.02 of the Revised Code.34768

       (21) "Legal custody" means a legal status that vests in the 34769
custodian the right to have physical care and control of the child 34770
and to determine where and with whom the child shall live, and the 34771
right and duty to protect, train, and discipline the child and to 34772
provide the child with food, shelter, education, and medical care, 34773
all subject to any residual parental rights, privileges, and 34774
responsibilities. An individual granted legal custody shall 34775
exercise the rights and responsibilities personally unless 34776
otherwise authorized by any section of the Revised Code or by the 34777
court.34778

       (22) A "legitimate excuse for absence from the public school 34779
the child is supposed to attend" includes, but is not limited to, 34780
any of the following:34781

       (a) The fact that the child in question has enrolled in and 34782
is attending another public or nonpublic school in this or another 34783
state;34784

       (b) The fact that the child in question is excused from 34785
attendance at school for any of the reasons specified in section 34786
3321.04 of the Revised Code;34787

       (c) The fact that the child in question has received an age 34788
and schooling certificate in accordance with section 3331.01 of 34789
the Revised Code.34790

       (23) "Mental illness" and "mentally ill person subject to 34791
hospitalization by court order" have the same meanings as in 34792
section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.34793

       (24) "Mental injury" means any behavioral, cognitive, 34794
emotional, or mental disorder in a child caused by an act or 34795
omission that is described in section 2919.22 of the Revised Code 34796
and is committed by the parent or other person responsible for the 34797
child's care.34798

       (25) "Mentally retarded person" has the same meaning as in 34799
section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.34800

       (26) "Nonsecure care, supervision, or training" means care, 34801
supervision, or training of a child in a facility that does not 34802
confine or prevent movement of the child within the facility or 34803
from the facility.34804

       (27) "Of compulsory school age" has the same meaning as in 34805
section 3321.01 of the Revised Code.34806

       (28) "Organization" means any institution, public, 34807
semipublic, or private, and any private association, society, or 34808
agency located or operating in the state, incorporated or 34809
unincorporated, having among its functions the furnishing of 34810
protective services or care for children, or the placement of 34811
children in certified foster homes or elsewhere.34812

       (29) "Out-of-home care" means detention facilities, shelter 34813
facilities, certified children's crisis care facilities, certified 34814
foster homes, placement in a prospective adoptive home prior to 34815
the issuance of a final decree of adoption, organizations, 34816
certified organizations, child day-care centers, type A family 34817
day-care homes, child care provided by type B family day-care home 34818
providers and by in-home aides, group home providers, group homes, 34819
institutions, state institutions, residential facilities, 34820
residential care facilities, residential camps, day camps, public 34821
schools, chartered nonpublic schools, educational service centers, 34822
hospitals, and medical clinics that are responsible for the care, 34823
physical custody, or control of children.34824

       (30) "Out-of-home care child abuse" means any of the 34825
following when committed by a person responsible for the care of a 34826
child in out-of-home care:34827

       (a) Engaging in sexual activity with a child in the person's 34828
care;34829

       (b) Denial to a child, as a means of punishment, of proper or 34830
necessary subsistence, education, medical care, or other care 34831
necessary for a child's health;34832

       (c) Use of restraint procedures on a child that cause injury 34833
or pain;34834

       (d) Administration of prescription drugs or psychotropic 34835
medication to the child without the written approval and ongoing 34836
supervision of a licensed physician;34837

       (e) Commission of any act, other than by accidental means, 34838
that results in any injury to or death of the child in out-of-home 34839
care or commission of any act by accidental means that results in 34840
an injury to or death of a child in out-of-home care and that is 34841
at variance with the history given of the injury or death.34842

       (31) "Out-of-home care child neglect" means any of the 34843
following when committed by a person responsible for the care of a 34844
child in out-of-home care:34845

       (a) Failure to provide reasonable supervision according to 34846
the standards of care appropriate to the age, mental and physical 34847
condition, or other special needs of the child;34848

       (b) Failure to provide reasonable supervision according to 34849
the standards of care appropriate to the age, mental and physical 34850
condition, or other special needs of the child, that results in 34851
sexual or physical abuse of the child by any person;34852

       (c) Failure to develop a process for all of the following:34853

       (i) Administration of prescription drugs or psychotropic 34854
drugs for the child;34855

       (ii) Assuring that the instructions of the licensed physician 34856
who prescribed a drug for the child are followed;34857

       (iii) Reporting to the licensed physician who prescribed the 34858
drug all unfavorable or dangerous side effects from the use of the 34859
drug.34860

       (d) Failure to provide proper or necessary subsistence, 34861
education, medical care, or other individualized care necessary 34862
for the health or well-being of the child;34863

       (e) Confinement of the child to a locked room without 34864
monitoring by staff;34865

       (f) Failure to provide ongoing security for all prescription 34866
and nonprescription medication;34867

       (g) Isolation of a child for a period of time when there is 34868
substantial risk that the isolation, if continued, will impair or 34869
retard the mental health or physical well-being of the child.34870

       (32) "Permanent custody" means a legal status that vests in a 34871
public children services agency or a private child placing agency, 34872
all parental rights, duties, and obligations, including the right 34873
to consent to adoption, and divests the natural parents or 34874
adoptive parents of all parental rights, privileges, and 34875
obligations, including all residual rights and obligations.34876

       (33) "Permanent surrender" means the act of the parents or, 34877
if a child has only one parent, of the parent of a child, by a 34878
voluntary agreement authorized by section 5103.15 of the Revised 34879
Code, to transfer the permanent custody of the child to a public 34880
children services agency or a private child placing agency.34881

       (34) "Person" means an individual, association, corporation, 34882
or partnership and the state or any of its political subdivisions, 34883
departments, or agencies.34884

       (35) "Person responsible for a child's care in out-of-home 34885
care" means any of the following:34886

       (a) Any foster caregiver, in-home aide, or provider;34887

       (b) Any administrator, employee, or agent of any of the 34888
following: a public or private detention facility; shelter 34889
facility; certified children's crisis care facility; organization; 34890
certified organization; child day-care center; type A family 34891
day-care home; certified type B family day-care home; group home; 34892
institution; state institution; residential facility; residential 34893
care facility; residential camp; day camp; school district; 34894
community school; chartered nonpublic school; educational service 34895
center; hospital; or medical clinic;34896

       (c) Any person who supervises or coaches children as part of 34897
an extracurricular activity sponsored by a school district, public 34898
school, or chartered nonpublic school;34899

       (d) Any other person who performs a similar function with 34900
respect to, or has a similar relationship to, children.34901

       (36) "Physically impaired" means having one or more of the 34902
following conditions that substantially limit one or more of an 34903
individual's major life activities, including self-care, receptive 34904
and expressive language, learning, mobility, and self-direction:34905

       (a) A substantial impairment of vision, speech, or hearing;34906

       (b) A congenital orthopedic impairment;34907

       (c) An orthopedic impairment caused by disease, rheumatic 34908
fever or any other similar chronic or acute health problem, or 34909
amputation or another similar cause.34910

       (37) "Placement for adoption" means the arrangement by a 34911
public children services agency or a private child placing agency 34912
with a person for the care and adoption by that person of a child 34913
of whom the agency has permanent custody.34914

       (38) "Placement in foster care" means the arrangement by a 34915
public children services agency or a private child placing agency 34916
for the out-of-home care of a child of whom the agency has 34917
temporary custody or permanent custody.34918

       (39) "Planned permanent living arrangement" means an order of 34919
a juvenile court pursuant to which both of the following apply:34920

       (a) The court gives legal custody of a child to a public 34921
children services agency or a private child placing agency without 34922
the termination of parental rights.34923

       (b) The order permits the agency to make an appropriate 34924
placement of the child and to enter into a written agreement with 34925
a foster care provider or with another person or agency with whom 34926
the child is placed.34927

       (40) "Practice of social work" and "practice of professional 34928
counseling" have the same meanings as in section 4757.01 of the 34929
Revised Code.34930

       (41) "Sanction, service, or condition" means a sanction, 34931
service, or condition created by court order following an 34932
adjudication that a child is an unruly child that is described in 34933
division (A)(4) of section 2152.19 of the Revised Code.34934

       (42) "Protective supervision" means an order of disposition 34935
pursuant to which the court permits an abused, neglected, 34936
dependent, or unruly child to remain in the custody of the child's 34937
parents, guardian, or custodian and stay in the child's home, 34938
subject to any conditions and limitations upon the child, the 34939
child's parents, guardian, or custodian, or any other person that 34940
the court prescribes, including supervision as directed by the 34941
court for the protection of the child.34942

       (43) "Psychiatrist" has the same meaning as in section 34943
5122.01 of the Revised Code.34944

       (44) "Psychologist" has the same meaning as in section 34945
4732.01 of the Revised Code.34946

       (45) "Residential camp" means a program in which the care, 34947
physical custody, or control of children is accepted overnight for 34948
recreational or recreational and educational purposes.34949

       (46) "Residential care facility" means an institution, 34950
residence, or facility that is licensed by the department of 34951
mental healthmental health and addiction services under section 34952
5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code and that provides care for a 34953
child.34954

       (47) "Residential facility" means a home or facility that is 34955
licensed by the department of developmental disabilities under 34956
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code and in which a child with a 34957
developmental disability resides.34958

       (48) "Residual parental rights, privileges, and 34959
responsibilities" means those rights, privileges, and 34960
responsibilities remaining with the natural parent after the 34961
transfer of legal custody of the child, including, but not 34962
necessarily limited to, the privilege of reasonable visitation, 34963
consent to adoption, the privilege to determine the child's 34964
religious affiliation, and the responsibility for support.34965

       (49) "School day" means the school day established by the 34966
state board of education pursuant to section 3313.48 of the 34967
Revised Code.34968

       (50) "School month" and "school year" have the same meanings 34969
as in section 3313.62 of the Revised Code.34970

       (51) "Secure correctional facility" means a facility under 34971
the direction of the department of youth services that is designed 34972
to physically restrict the movement and activities of children and 34973
used for the placement of children after adjudication and 34974
disposition.34975

       (52) "Sexual activity" has the same meaning as in section 34976
2907.01 of the Revised Code.34977

       (53) "Shelter" means the temporary care of children in 34978
physically unrestricted facilities pending court adjudication or 34979
disposition.34980

       (54) "Shelter for victims of domestic violence" has the same 34981
meaning as in section 3113.33 of the Revised Code.34982

       (55) "Temporary custody" means legal custody of a child who 34983
is removed from the child's home, which custody may be terminated 34984
at any time at the discretion of the court or, if the legal 34985
custody is granted in an agreement for temporary custody, by the 34986
person who executed the agreement.34987

       (56) "Traditional response" means a public children services 34988
agency's response to a report of child abuse or neglect that 34989
encourages engagement of the family in a comprehensive evaluation 34990
of the child's current and future safety needs and a fact-finding 34991
process to determine whether child abuse or neglect occurred and 34992
the circumstances surrounding the alleged harm or risk of harm.34993

       (C) For the purposes of this chapter, a child shall be 34994
presumed abandoned when the parents of the child have failed to 34995
visit or maintain contact with the child for more than ninety 34996
days, regardless of whether the parents resume contact with the 34997
child after that period of ninety days.34998

       Sec. 2151.3514.  (A) As used in this section:34999

       (1) "Alcohol and drugCommunity addiction programservices 35000
provider" has the same meaning as in section 3793.015119.01 of 35001
the Revised Code;35002

       (2) "Chemical dependency" means either of the following:35003

       (a) The chronic and habitual use of alcoholic beverages to 35004
the extent that the user no longer can control the use of alcohol 35005
or endangers the user's health, safety, or welfare or that of 35006
others;35007

       (b) The use of a drug of abuse to the extent that the user 35008
becomes physically or psychologically dependent on the drug or 35009
endangers the user's health, safety, or welfare or that of others.35010

       (3) "Drug of abuse" has the same meaning as in section 35011
3719.011 of the Revised Code.35012

       (4) "Medicaid" means the program established under Chapter 35013
5111. of the Revised Code.35014

       (B) If the juvenile court issues an order of temporary 35015
custody or protective supervision under division (A) of section 35016
2151.353 of the Revised Code with respect to a child adjudicated 35017
to be an abused, neglected, or dependent child and the alcohol or 35018
other drug addiction of a parent or other caregiver of the child 35019
was the basis for the adjudication of abuse, neglect, or 35020
dependency, the court shall issue an order requiring the parent or 35021
other caregiver to submit to an assessment and, if needed, 35022
treatment from an alcohol and druga community addiction program35023
services provider certified by the department of alcohol and drug 35024
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services. The court 35025
may order the parent or other caregiver to submit to alcohol or 35026
other drug testing during, after, or both during and after, the 35027
treatment. The court shall send any order issued pursuant to this 35028
division to the public children services agency that serves the 35029
county in which the court is located for use as described in 35030
section 340.15 of the Revised Code.35031

       (C) Any order requiring alcohol or other drug testing that is 35032
issued pursuant to division (B) of this section shall require one 35033
alcohol or other drug test to be conducted each month during a 35034
period of twelve consecutive months beginning the month 35035
immediately following the month in which the order for alcohol or 35036
other drug testing is issued. Arrangements for administering the 35037
alcohol or other drug tests, as well as funding the costs of the 35038
tests, shall be locally determined in accordance with sections 35039
340.033340.03 and 340.15 of the Revised Code. If a parent or 35040
other caregiver required to submit to alcohol or other drug tests 35041
under this section is not a recipient of medicaid, the agency that 35042
refers the parent or caregiver for the tests may require the 35043
parent or caregiver to reimburse the agency for the cost of 35044
conducting the tests.35045

       (D) The certified alcohol and drugcommunity addiction 35046
programservices provider that conducts any alcohol or other drug 35047
tests ordered in accordance with divisions (B) and (C) of this 35048
section shall send the results of the tests, along with the 35049
program'sprovider's recommendations as to the benefits of 35050
continued treatment, to the court and to the public children 35051
services agency providing services to the involved family, 35052
according to federal regulations set forth in 42 C.F.R. Part 2, 35053
and division (B) of section 340.15 of the Revised Code. The court 35054
shall consider the results and the recommendations sent to it 35055
under this division in any adjudication or review by the court, 35056
according to section 2151.353, 2151.414, or 2151.419 of the 35057
Revised Code.35058

       Sec. 2151.362. (A)(1) In the manner prescribed by division 35059
(C)(1) or (2) of section 3313.64 of the Revised Code, as 35060
applicable, the court, at the time of making any order that 35061
removes a child from the child's own home or that vests legal or 35062
permanent custody of the child in a person other than the child's 35063
parent or a government agency, shall determine the school district 35064
that is to bear the cost of educating the child. The court shall 35065
make the determination a part of the order that provides for the 35066
child's placement or commitment. That school district shall bear 35067
the cost of educating the child unless and until the department of 35068
education determines that a different district shall be 35069
responsible for bearing that cost pursuant to division (A)(2) of 35070
this section. The court's order shall state that the determination 35071
of which school district is responsible to bear the cost of 35072
educating the child is subject to re-determination by the 35073
department pursuant to that division.35074

        (2) If, while the child is in the custody of a person other 35075
than the child's parent or a government agency, the department of 35076
education determines that the place of residence of the child's 35077
parent has changed since the court issued its initial order, the 35078
department may name a different school district to bear the cost 35079
of educating the child. The department shall make this new 35080
determination, and any future determinations, based on evidence 35081
received from the school district currently responsible to bear 35082
the cost of educating the child. If the department finds that the 35083
evidence demonstrates to its satisfaction that the residence of 35084
the child's parent has changed since the court issued its initial 35085
order under division (A)(1) of this section, or since the 35086
department last made a determination under division (A)(2) of this 35087
section, the department shall name the district in which the 35088
child's parent currently resides or, if the parent's residence is 35089
not known, the district in which the parent's last known residence 35090
is located. If the department cannot determine any Ohio district 35091
in which the parent currently resides or has resided, the school 35092
district designated in the initial court order under division 35093
(A)(1) of this section, or in the most recent determination made 35094
by the department under division (A)(2) of this section, shall 35095
continue to bear the cost of educating the child.35096

       (B) Whenever a child is placed in a detention facility 35097
established under section 2152.41 of the Revised Code or a 35098
juvenile facility established under section 2151.65 of the Revised 35099
Code, the facility shall be responsible for coordinating the 35100
education of the child. The facility may take any of the following 35101
measures in coordinating the education of the child:35102

        (1) If applicable, use the chartered nonpublic school that 35103
the facility operates;35104

        (2) Arrange with the school district responsible for bearing 35105
the cost of educating the child determined under division (A) of 35106
this section, for the facility to educate the child on its own;35107

        (3) Contract with an educational service center for the 35108
service center to educate the child;35109

        (4) Contract with the school district in which the facility 35110
is located for that school district to educate the child;35111

       (5) If the child is enrolled in an internet- or 35112
computer-based community school established under Chapter 3314. of 35113
the Revised Code, and provided that the facility possesses the 35114
necessary hardware, software, and internet connectivity, permit 35115
continued instruction of the child by the internet- or 35116
computer-based community school. 35117

       If the facility coordinates the education of the child 35118
pursuant to division (B)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of this section,35119
child's school district as determined by the court or the 35120
department, in the same manner as prescribed in division (A) of 35121
this section, shall pay the cost of educating the child based on 35122
the per capita cost of the educational facility within the 35123
detention home or juvenile facility.35124

       If the facility coordinates the education of the child 35125
pursuant to division (B)(5) of this section, payment for the cost 35126
of educating the child shall be made only as provided in division 35127
(C) of section 3314.08 of the Revised Code.35128

       (C) Whenever a child is placed by the court in a private 35129
institution, school, or residential treatment center or any other 35130
private facility, the state shall pay to the court a subsidy to 35131
help defray the expense of educating the child in an amount equal 35132
to the product of the daily per capita educational cost of the 35133
private facility, as determined pursuant to this section, and the 35134
number of days the child resides at the private facility, provided 35135
that the subsidy shall not exceed twenty-five hundred dollars per 35136
year per child. The daily per capita educational cost of a private 35137
facility shall be determined by dividing the actual program cost 35138
of the private facility or twenty-five hundred dollars, whichever 35139
is less, by three hundred sixty-five days or by three hundred 35140
sixty-six days for years that include February twenty-ninth. The 35141
state shall pay seventy-five per cent of the total subsidy for 35142
each year quarterly to the court. The state may adjust the 35143
remaining twenty-five per cent of the total subsidy to be paid to 35144
the court for each year to an amount that is less than twenty-five 35145
per cent of the total subsidy for that year based upon the 35146
availability of funds appropriated to the department of education 35147
for the purpose of subsidizing courts that place a child in a 35148
private institution, school, or residential treatment center or 35149
any other private facility and shall pay that adjusted amount to 35150
the court at the end of the year.35151

       Sec. 2151.83.  (A) A public children services agency or 35152
private child placing agency, on the request of a young adult, 35153
shall enter into a jointly prepared written agreement with the 35154
young adult that obligates the agency to ensure that independent 35155
living services are provided to the young adult and sets forth the 35156
responsibilities of the young adult regarding the services. The 35157
agreement shall be developed based on the young adult's strengths, 35158
needs, and circumstances. The agreement shall be designed to 35159
promote the young adult's successful transition to independent 35160
adult living and emotional and economic self-sufficiency.35161

       (B) If the young adult appears to be eligible for services 35162
from one or more of the following entities, the agency must 35163
contact the appropriate entity to determine eligibility:35164

       (1) An entity, other than the agency, that is represented on 35165
a county family and children first council established pursuant to 35166
section 121.37 of the Revised Code. If the entity is a board of 35167
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, an alcohol 35168
and drug addiction services board, or a community mental health 35169
board, the agency shall contact the provider of alcohol, drug 35170
addiction, or mental health services that has been designated by 35171
the board to determine the young adult's eligibility for services.35172

       (2) The rehabilitation services commissionopportunities for 35173
Ohioans with disabilities agency;35174

       (3) A metropolitan housing authority established pursuant to 35175
section 3735.27 of the Revised Code.35176

       If an entity described in this division determines that the 35177
young adult qualifies for services from the entity, that entity, 35178
the young adult, and the agency to which the young adult made the 35179
request for independent living services shall enter into a written 35180
addendum to the jointly prepared agreement entered into under 35181
division (A) of this section. The addendum shall indicate how 35182
services under the agreement and addendum are to be coordinated 35183
and allocate the service responsibilities among the entities and 35184
agency that signed the addendum.35185

       Sec. 2151.86.  (A)(1) The appointing or hiring officer of any 35186
entity that appoints or employs any person responsible for a 35187
child's care in out-of-home care shall request the superintendent 35188
of BCII to conduct a criminal records check with respect to any 35189
person who is under final consideration for appointment or 35190
employment as a person responsible for a child's care in 35191
out-of-home care, except that section 3319.39 of the Revised Code 35192
shall apply instead of this section if the out-of-home care entity 35193
is a public school, educational service center, or chartered 35194
nonpublic school.35195

       (2) At the times specified in this division, the 35196
administrative director of an agency, or attorney, who arranges an 35197
adoption for a prospective adoptive parent shall request the 35198
superintendent of BCII to conduct a criminal records check with 35199
respect to that prospective adoptive parent and a criminal records 35200
check with respect to all persons eighteen years of age or older 35201
who reside with the prospective adoptive parent. The 35202
administrative director or attorney shall request a criminal 35203
records check pursuant to this division at the time of the initial 35204
home study, every four years after the initial home study at the 35205
time of an update, and at the time that an adoptive home study is 35206
completed as a new home study.35207

       (3) Before a recommending agency submits a recommendation to 35208
the department of job and family services on whether the 35209
department should issue a certificate to a foster home under 35210
section 5103.03 of the Revised Code, and every four years 35211
thereafter prior to a recertification under that section, the 35212
administrative director of the agency shall request that the 35213
superintendent of BCII conduct a criminal records check with 35214
respect to the prospective foster caregiver and a criminal records 35215
check with respect to all other persons eighteen years of age or 35216
older who reside with the foster caregiver.35217

       (B)(1) If a person subject to a criminal records check under 35218
division (A)(1) of this section does not present proof that the 35219
person has been a resident of this state for the five-year period 35220
immediately prior to the date upon which the criminal records 35221
check is requested or does not provide evidence that within that 35222
five-year period the superintendent of BCII has requested 35223
information about the person from the federal bureau of 35224
investigation in a criminal records check, the appointing or 35225
hiring officer shall request that the superintendent of BCII 35226
obtain information from the federal bureau of investigation as a 35227
part of the criminal records check, including fingerprint-based 35228
checks of national crime information databases as described in 42 35229
U.S.C. 671. If a person subject to a criminal records check under 35230
division (A)(1) of this section presents proof that the person has 35231
been a resident of this state for that five-year period, the 35232
appointing or hiring officer or attorney may request that the 35233
superintendent of BCII include information from the federal bureau 35234
of investigation in the criminal records check, including 35235
fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases 35236
as described in 42 U.S.C. 671.35237

       When the administrative director of an agency, or attorney, 35238
who arranges an adoption for a prospective parent requests, at the 35239
time of the initial home study, a criminal records check for a 35240
person pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section, the 35241
administrative director or attorney shall request that the 35242
superintendent of BCII obtain information from the federal bureau 35243
of investigation as part of the criminal records check, including 35244
fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases 35245
as described in 42 U.S.C. 671, for the person subject to the 35246
criminal records check. In all other cases in which the 35247
administrative director of an agency, or attorney, who arranges an 35248
adoption for a prospective parent requests a criminal records 35249
check for a person pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section, 35250
the administrative director or attorney may request that the 35251
superintendent of BCII include information from the federal bureau 35252
of investigation in the criminal records check, including 35253
fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases 35254
as described in 42 U.S.C. 671.35255

        When the administrative director of a recommending agency 35256
requests, before submitting a recommendation to the department of 35257
job and family services on whether the department should issue a 35258
certificate to a foster home under section 5103.03 of the Revised 35259
Code, a criminal records check for a person pursuant to division 35260
(A)(3) of this section, the administrative director shall request 35261
that the superintendent of BCII obtain information from the 35262
federal bureau of investigation as part of a criminal records 35263
check, including fingerprint-based checks of national crime 35264
information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671, for the 35265
person subject to the criminal records check. In all other cases 35266
in which the administrative director of a recommending agency 35267
requests a criminal records check for a person pursuant to 35268
division (A)(3) of this section, the administrative director may 35269
request that the superintendent of BCII include information from 35270
the federal bureau of investigation in the criminal records check, 35271
including fingerprint-based checks of national crime information 35272
databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671.35273

       Prior to a hearing on a final decree of adoption or 35274
interlocutory order of adoption by a probate court, the 35275
administrative director of an agency, or an attorney, who arranges 35276
an adoption for a prospective parent shall provide to the clerk of 35277
the probate court either of the following:35278

       (a) Any information received pursuant to a request made under 35279
this division from the superintendent of BCII or the federal 35280
bureau of investigation as part of the criminal records check, 35281
including fingerprint-based checks of national crime information 35282
databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671, for the person subject to 35283
the criminal records check;35284

       (b) Written notification that the person subject to a 35285
criminal records check pursuant to this division failed upon 35286
request to provide the information necessary to complete the form 35287
or failed to provide impressions of the person's fingerprints as 35288
required under division (B)(2) of this section. 35289

       (2) An appointing or hiring officer, administrative director, 35290
or attorney required by division (A) of this section to request a 35291
criminal records check shall provide to each person subject to a 35292
criminal records check a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to 35293
division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a 35294
standard impression sheet to obtain fingerprint impressions 35295
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 109.572 of the 35296
Revised Code, obtain the completed form and impression sheet from 35297
the person, and forward the completed form and impression sheet to 35298
the superintendent of BCII at the time the criminal records check 35299
is requested.35300

       Any person subject to a criminal records check who receives 35301
pursuant to this division a copy of the form prescribed pursuant 35302
to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a 35303
copy of an impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) 35304
of that section and who is requested to complete the form and 35305
provide a set of fingerprint impressions shall complete the form 35306
or provide all the information necessary to complete the form and 35307
shall provide the impression sheet with the impressions of the 35308
person's fingerprints. If a person subject to a criminal records 35309
check, upon request, fails to provide the information necessary to 35310
complete the form or fails to provide impressions of the person's 35311
fingerprints, the appointing or hiring officer shall not appoint 35312
or employ the person as a person responsible for a child's care in 35313
out-of-home care, a probate court may not issue a final decree of 35314
adoption or an interlocutory order of adoption making the person 35315
an adoptive parent, and the department of job and family services 35316
shall not issue a certificate authorizing the prospective foster 35317
caregiver to operate a foster home.35318

       (C)(1) No appointing or hiring officer shall appoint or 35319
employ a person as a person responsible for a child's care in 35320
out-of-home care, the department of job and family services shall 35321
not issue a certificate under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code 35322
authorizing a prospective foster caregiver to operate a foster 35323
home, and no probate court shall issue a final decree of adoption 35324
or an interlocutory order of adoption making a person an adoptive 35325
parent if the person or, in the case of a prospective foster 35326
caregiver or prospective adoptive parent, any person eighteen 35327
years of age or older who resides with the prospective foster 35328
caregiver or prospective adoptive parent previously has been 35329
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the violations described 35330
in division (A)(4) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, unless 35331
the person meets rehabilitation standards established in rules 35332
adopted under division (F) of this section.35333

       (2) The appointing or hiring officer may appoint or employ a 35334
person as a person responsible for a child's care in out-of-home 35335
care conditionally until the criminal records check required by 35336
this section is completed and the officer receives the results of 35337
the criminal records check. If the results of the criminal records 35338
check indicate that, pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, 35339
the person subject to the criminal records check does not qualify 35340
for appointment or employment, the officer shall release the 35341
person from appointment or employment.35342

       (3) Prior to certification or recertification under section 35343
5103.03 of the Revised Code, the prospective foster caregiver 35344
subject to a criminal records check under division (A)(3) of this 35345
section shall notify the recommending agency of the revocation of 35346
any foster home license, certificate, or other similar 35347
authorization in another state occurring within the five years 35348
prior to the date of application to become a foster caregiver in 35349
this state. The failure of a prospective foster caregiver to 35350
notify the recommending agency of any revocation of that type in 35351
another state that occurred within that five-year period shall be 35352
grounds for denial of the person's foster home application or the 35353
revocation of the person's foster home certification, whichever is 35354
applicable. If a person has had a revocation in another state 35355
within the five years prior to the date of the application, the 35356
department of job and family services shall not issue a foster 35357
home certificate to the prospective foster caregiver.35358

       (D) The appointing or hiring officer, administrative 35359
director, or attorney shall pay to the bureau of criminal 35360
identification and investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to 35361
division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each 35362
criminal records check conducted in accordance with that section 35363
upon a request pursuant to division (A) of this section. The 35364
officer, director, or attorney may charge the person subject to 35365
the criminal records check a fee for the costs the officer, 35366
director, or attorney incurs in obtaining the criminal records 35367
check. A fee charged under this division shall not exceed the 35368
amount of fees the officer, director, or attorney pays for the 35369
criminal records check. If a fee is charged under this division, 35370
the officer, director, or attorney shall notify the person who is 35371
the applicant at the time of the person's initial application for 35372
appointment or employment, an adoption to be arranged, or a 35373
certificate to operate a foster home of the amount of the fee and 35374
that, unless the fee is paid, the person who is the applicant will 35375
not be considered for appointment or employment or as an adoptive 35376
parent or foster caregiver.35377

       (E) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 35378
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 35379
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 35380
made under division (A) of this section is not a public record for 35381
the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not 35382
be made available to any person other than the following:35383

       (1) The person who is the subject of the criminal records 35384
check or the person's representative;35385

       (2) The appointing or hiring officer, administrative 35386
director, or attorney requesting the criminal records check or the 35387
officer's, director's, or attorney's representative;35388

       (3) The department of job and family services, a county 35389
department of job and family services, or a public children 35390
services agency;35391

       (4) Any court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 35392
involved in a case dealing with the denial of employment, a final 35393
decree of adoption or interlocutory order of adoption, or a foster 35394
home certificate.35395

       (F) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 35396
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement 35397
this section. The rules shall include rehabilitation standards a 35398
person who has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense 35399
listed in division (A)(4) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 35400
must meet for an appointing or hiring officer to appoint or employ 35401
the person as a person responsible for a child's care in 35402
out-of-home care, a probate court to issue a final decree of 35403
adoption or interlocutory order of adoption making the person an 35404
adoptive parent, or the department to issue a certificate 35405
authorizing the prospective foster caregiver to operate a foster 35406
home or not revoke a foster home certificate for a violation 35407
specified in section 5103.0328 of the Revised Code.35408

       (G) An appointing or hiring officer, administrative director, 35409
or attorney required by division (A) of this section to request a 35410
criminal records check shall inform each person who is the 35411
applicant, at the time of the person's initial application for 35412
appointment or employment, an adoption to be arranged, or a foster 35413
home certificate, that the person subject to the criminal records 35414
check is required to provide a set of impressions of the person's 35415
fingerprints and that a criminal records check is required to be 35416
conducted and satisfactorily completed in accordance with section 35417
109.572 of the Revised Code.35418

       (H) The department of job and family services may waive the 35419
requirement that a criminal records check based on fingerprints be 35420
conducted for an adult resident of a prospective adoptive or 35421
foster home or the home of a foster caregiver if the recommending 35422
agency documents to the department's satisfaction that the adult 35423
resident is physically unable to comply with the fingerprinting 35424
requirement and poses no danger to foster children or adoptive 35425
children who may be placed in the home. In such cases, the 35426
recommending or approving agency shall request that the bureau of 35427
criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal 35428
records check using the person's name and social security number.35429

        (I) As used in this section:35430

       (1) "Children's hospital" means any of the following:35431

       (a) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 35432
Revised Code that provides general pediatric medical and surgical 35433
care, and in which at least seventy-five per cent of annual 35434
inpatient discharges for the preceding two calendar years were 35435
individuals less than eighteen years of age;35436

       (b) A distinct portion of a hospital registered under section 35437
3701.07 of the Revised Code that provides general pediatric 35438
medical and surgical care, has a total of at least one hundred 35439
fifty registered pediatric special care and pediatric acute care 35440
beds, and in which at least seventy-five per cent of annual 35441
inpatient discharges for the preceding two calendar years were 35442
individuals less than eighteen years of age;35443

       (c) A distinct portion of a hospital, if the hospital is 35444
registered under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as a 35445
children's hospital and the children's hospital meets all the 35446
requirements of division (I)(H)(1)(a) of this section.35447

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 35448
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.35449

       (3) "Person responsible for a child's care in out-of-home 35450
care" has the same meaning as in section 2151.011 of the Revised 35451
Code, except that it does not include a prospective employee of 35452
the department of youth services or a person responsible for a 35453
child's care in a hospital or medical clinic other than a 35454
children's hospital.35455

       (4) "Person subject to a criminal records check" means the 35456
following:35457

       (a) A person who is under final consideration for appointment 35458
or employment as a person responsible for a child's care in 35459
out-of-home care;35460

       (b) A prospective adoptive parent;35461

       (c) A prospective foster caregiver;35462

       (d) A person eighteen years old or older who resides with a 35463
prospective foster caregiver or a prospective adoptive parent.35464

       (5) "Recommending agency" means a public children services 35465
agency, private child placing agency, or private noncustodial 35466
agency to which the department of job and family services has 35467
delegated a duty to inspect and approve foster homes.35468

       (6) "Superintendent of BCII" means the superintendent of the 35469
bureau of criminal identification and investigation.35470

       Sec. 2152.54.  (A) An evaluation of a child who does not 35471
appear to the court to be a person who is at least moderately 35472
intellectually disabled shall be made by an evaluator who is one 35473
of the following: 35474

       (1) A professional employed by a psychiatric facility or 35475
center certified by the department of mental healthmental health 35476
and addiction services to provide forensic services and appointed 35477
by the director of the facility or center to conduct the 35478
evaluation; 35479

       (2) A psychiatrist or a licensed clinical psychologist who 35480
satisfies the criteria of division (I)(1) of section 5122.01 of 35481
the Revised Code and has specialized education, training, or 35482
experience in forensic evaluations of children or adolescents.35483

       (B) An evaluation of a child who appears to the court to be a 35484
person who is at least moderately intellectually disabled shall be 35485
made by a psychiatrist or licensed clinical psychologist who 35486
satisfies the criteria of division (I)(1) of section 5122.01 of 35487
the Revised Code and has specialized education, training, or 35488
experience in forensic evaluations of children or adolescents who 35489
have intellectual disability.35490

       (C) If an evaluation is conducted by an evaluator of the type 35491
described in division (A)(1) or (2) of this section and the 35492
evaluator concludes that the child is a person who is at least 35493
moderately intellectually disabled, the evaluator shall 35494
discontinue the evaluation and notify the court within one 35495
business day after reaching the conclusion. Within two business 35496
days after receiving notification, the court shall order the child 35497
to undergo an evaluation by an evaluator of the type described in 35498
division (B) of this section. Within two business days after the 35499
appointment of the new evaluator, the original evaluator shall 35500
deliver to the new evaluator all information relating to the child 35501
obtained during the original evaluation. 35502

       Sec. 2152.59.  (A) If after a hearing held pursuant to 35503
section 2152.58 of the Revised Code the court determines that a 35504
child is competent, the court shall proceed with the delinquent 35505
child's proceeding as provided by law. No statement that a child 35506
makes during an evaluation or hearing conducted under sections 35507
2152.51 through 2152.59 of the Revised Code shall be used against 35508
the child on the issue of responsibility or guilt in any child or 35509
adult proceeding. 35510

       (B) If after a hearing held pursuant to section 2152.58 of 35511
the Revised Code the court determines that the child is not 35512
competent and cannot attain competency within the period of time 35513
applicable under division (D)(2) of this section, the court shall 35514
dismiss the charges without prejudice, except that the court may 35515
delay dismissal for up to ninety calendar days and do either of 35516
the following:35517

       (1) Refer the matter to a public children services agency and 35518
request that agency determine whether to file an action in 35519
accordance with section 2151.27 of the Revised Code alleging that 35520
the child is a dependent, neglected, or abused child;35521

       (2) Assign court staff to refer the child or the child's 35522
family to the local family and children first council or an agency 35523
funded by the department of mental healthmental health and 35524
addiction services or department of developmental disabilities or 35525
otherwise secure services to reduce the potential that the child 35526
would engage in behavior that could result in delinquent child or 35527
other criminal charges.35528

       (C) If after a hearing held pursuant to section 2152.58 of 35529
the Revised Code the court determines that a child is not 35530
competent but could likely attain competency by participating in 35531
services specifically designed to help the child develop 35532
competency, the court may order the child to participate in 35533
services specifically designed to help the child develop 35534
competency at county expense. The court shall name a reliable 35535
provider to deliver the competency attainment services and shall 35536
order the child's parent, guardian, or custodian to contact that 35537
provider by a specified date to arrange for services. 35538

       (D) The competency attainment services provided to a child 35539
shall be based on a competency attainment plan described in 35540
division (E)(2) of this section and approved by the court. 35541
Services are subject to the following conditions and time periods 35542
measured from the date the court approves the plan:35543

       (1) Services shall be provided in the least restrictive 35544
setting that is consistent with the child's ability to attain 35545
competency and the safety of both the child and the community. If 35546
the child has been released on temporary or interim orders and 35547
refuses or fails to cooperate with the service provider, the court 35548
may reassess the orders and amend them to require a more 35549
appropriate setting. 35550

       (2) No child shall be required to participate in competency 35551
attainment services for longer than is required for the child to 35552
attain competency. The following maximum periods of participation 35553
apply:35554

       (a) If a child is ordered to participate in competency 35555
attainment services that are provided outside of a residential 35556
setting, the child shall not participate in those services for a 35557
period exceeding three months if the child is charged with an act 35558
that would be a misdemeanor if committed by an adult, six months 35559
if the child is charged with an act that would be a felony of the 35560
third, fourth, or fifth degree if committed by an adult, or one 35561
year if the child is charged with an act that would be a felony of 35562
the first or second degree, aggravated murder, or murder if 35563
committed by an adult.35564

       (b) If a child is ordered to receive competency attainment 35565
services that are provided in a residential setting that is 35566
operated solely or in part for the purpose of providing competency 35567
attainment services, the child shall not participate in those 35568
services for a period exceeding forty-five calendar days if the 35569
child is charged with an act that would be a misdemeanor if 35570
committed by an adult, three months if the child is charged with 35571
an act that would be a felony of the third, fourth, or fifth 35572
degree if committed by an adult, six months if the child is 35573
charged with an act that would be a felony of the first or second 35574
degree if committed by an adult, or one year if the child is 35575
charged with an act that would be aggravated murder or murder if 35576
committed by an adult. 35577

       (c) If a child is ordered into a residential, detention, or 35578
other secured setting for reasons other than to participate in 35579
competency attainment services and is also ordered to participate 35580
in competency attainment services concurrently, the child shall 35581
participate in the competency attainment services for not longer 35582
than the relevant period set forth in division (D)(2)(a) of this 35583
section.35584

       (d) If a child is ordered to participate in competency 35585
attainment services that require the child to live for some but 35586
not all of the duration of the services in a residential setting 35587
that is operated solely or in part for the purpose of providing 35588
competency attainment services, the child shall participate in the 35589
competency attainment services for not longer than the relevant 35590
period set forth in division (D)(2)(b) of this section. For the 35591
purpose of calculating a time period under division (D)(2)(d) of 35592
this section, two days of participation in a nonresidential 35593
setting shall equal one day of participation in a residential 35594
setting. 35595

       (3) A child who receives competency attainment services in a 35596
residential setting that is operated solely or partly for the 35597
purpose of providing competency attainment services is in 35598
detention for purposes of section 2921.34 and division (B) of 35599
section 2152.18 of the Revised Code during the time that the child 35600
resides in the residential setting.35601

       (E)(1) Within ten business days after the court names the 35602
provider responsible for the child's competency attainment 35603
services under division (D) of this section, the court shall 35604
deliver to that provider a copy of each competency assessment 35605
report it has received for review. The provider shall return the 35606
copies of the reports to the court upon the termination of the 35607
services.35608

       (2) Not later than thirty calendar days after the child 35609
contacts the competency attainment services provider under 35610
division (C) of this section, the provider shall submit to the 35611
court a plan for the child to attain competency. The court shall 35612
provide copies of the plan to the prosecuting attorney, the 35613
child's attorney, the child's guardian ad litem, if any, and the 35614
child's parents, guardian, or custodian.35615

       (F) The provider that provides the child's competency 35616
attainment services pursuant to the competency attainment plan 35617
shall submit reports to the court on the following schedule:35618

       (1) A report on the child's progress every thirty calendar 35619
days and on the termination of services. The report shall not 35620
include any details of the alleged offense as reported by the 35621
child.35622

       (2) If the provider determines that the child is not 35623
cooperating to a degree that would allow the services to be 35624
effective to help the child attain competency, a report informing 35625
the court of the determination within three business days after 35626
making the determination;35627

       (3) If the provider determines that the current setting is no 35628
longer the least restrictive setting that is consistent with the 35629
child's ability to attain competency and the safety of both the 35630
child and the community, a report informing the court of the 35631
determination within three business days after making the 35632
determination;35633

       (4) If the provider determines that the child has achieved 35634
the goals of the plan and would be able to understand the nature 35635
and objectives of the proceeding against the child and to assist 35636
in the child's defense, with or without reasonable accommodations 35637
to meet the criteria set forth in division (B) of section 2152.56 35638
of the Revised Code, a report informing the court of that 35639
determination within three business days after making the 35640
determination. If the provider believes that accommodations would 35641
be necessary or desirable, the report shall include 35642
recommendations for accommodations.35643

       (5) If the provider determines that the child will not 35644
achieve the goals of the plan within the applicable period of time 35645
under division (D)(2) of this section, a report informing the 35646
court of the determination within three business days after making 35647
the determination. The report shall include recommendations for 35648
services for the child that would support the safety of the child 35649
or the community.35650

       (G) The court shall provide copies of any report made under 35651
division (F) of this section to the prosecuting attorney, the 35652
child's attorney, and the child's guardian ad litem, if any. The 35653
court shall provide copies of any report made under division (F) 35654
of this section to the child's parents, guardian, or custodian 35655
unless the court finds that doing so is not in the best interest 35656
of the child.35657

       (H)(1) Within fifteen business days after receiving a report 35658
under division (F) of this section, the court may hold a hearing 35659
to determine if a new order is necessary. To assist in making a 35660
determination under division (H) of this section, the court may 35661
order a new competency evaluation in accordance with section 35662
2152.53 of the Revised Code. Until a new order is issued or the 35663
required period of participation expires, the child shall continue 35664
to participate in competency attainment services.35665

       (2) If after a hearing held under division (H)(1) of this 35666
section the court determines that the child is not making progress 35667
toward competency or is so uncooperative that attainment services 35668
cannot be effective, the court may order a change in setting or 35669
services that would help the child attain competency within the 35670
relevant period of time under division (D)(2) of this section.35671

       (3) If after a hearing held under division (H)(1) of this 35672
section the court determines that the child has not or will not 35673
attain competency within the relevant period of time under 35674
division (D)(2) of this section, the court shall dismiss the 35675
delinquency complaint without prejudice, except that the court may 35676
delay dismissal for up to ninety calendar days and do either of 35677
the following:35678

       (a) Refer the matter to a public children services agency and 35679
request that agency determine whether to file an action in 35680
accordance with section 2151.27 of the Revised Code alleging that 35681
the child is a dependent, neglected, or abused child;35682

       (b) Assign court staff to refer the child or the child's 35683
family to the local family and children first council or an agency 35684
funded by the department of mental healthmental health and 35685
addiction services or department of developmental disabilities or 35686
otherwise secure services to reduce the potential that the child 35687
would engage in behavior that could result in delinquency or other 35688
criminal charges.35689

       (4) A dismissal under division (H)(3) of this section does 35690
not preclude a future delinquent child proceeding or criminal 35691
prosecution as provided under section 2151.23 of the Revised Code 35692
if the child eventually attains competency.35693

       (5) If after a hearing held under division (H)(1) of this 35694
section the court determines that the child has attained 35695
competency, the court shall proceed with the delinquent child's 35696
proceeding in accordance with division (A) of this section.35697

       (6) A dismissal under this section does not bar a civil 35698
action based on the acts or omissions that formed the basis of the 35699
complaint.35700

       Sec. 2301.14.  The clerk of the court of common pleas in 35701
which the service of a court interpreter is rendered shall tax in 35702
the cost bill in such case, to be collected as other costs, the 35703
sum of three dollars for each day of service of such interpreter, 35704
which fees shall be paid into the county treasury to the credit of 35705
the county fund. If the party taxed with costs is indigent, the 35706
clerk shall not tax the interpreter's fees as costs, and the 35707
county shall pay the interpreter's fees.35708

       Sec. 2303.201.  (A)(1) The court of common pleas of any 35709
county may determine that for the efficient operation of the court 35710
additional funds are required to computerize the court, to make 35711
available computerized legal research services, or to do both. 35712
Upon making a determination that additional funds are required for 35713
either or both of those purposes, the court shall authorize and 35714
direct the clerk of the court of common pleas to charge one 35715
additional fee, not to exceed six dollars, on the filing of each 35716
cause of action or appeal under divisions (A), (Q), and (U) of 35717
section 2303.20 of the Revised Code.35718

       (2) All fees collected under division (A)(1) of this section 35719
shall be paid to the county treasurer. The treasurer shall place 35720
the funds from the fees in a separate fund to be disbursed either 35721
upon an order of the court, subject to an appropriation by the 35722
board of county commissioners, or upon an order of the court, 35723
subject to the court making an annual report available to the 35724
public listing the use of all such funds, in an amount not greater 35725
than the actual cost to the court of procuring and maintaining 35726
computerization of the court, computerized legal research 35727
services, or both.35728

       (3) If the court determines that the funds in the fund 35729
described in division (A)(2) of this section are more than 35730
sufficient to satisfy the purpose for which the additional fee 35731
described in division (A)(1) of this section was imposed, the 35732
court may declare a surplus in the fund and, subject to an 35733
appropriation by the board of county commissioners, expend those 35734
surplus funds, or upon an order of the court, subject to the court 35735
making an annual report available to the public listing the use of 35736
all such funds, expend those surplus funds, for other appropriate 35737
technological expenses of the court.35738

       (B)(1) The court of common pleas of any county may determine 35739
that, for the efficient operation of the court, additional funds 35740
are required to make technological advances in or to computerize 35741
the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas and, upon 35742
that determination, authorize and direct the clerk of the court of 35743
common pleas to charge an additional fee, not to exceed twenty 35744
dollars, on the filing of each cause of action or appeal, on the 35745
filing, docketing, and endorsing of each certificate of judgment, 35746
or on the docketing and indexing of each aid in execution or 35747
petition to vacate, revive, or modify a judgment under divisions 35748
(A), (P), (Q), (T), and (U) of section 2303.20 of the Revised Code 35749
and not to exceed one dollar each for the services described in 35750
divisions (B), (C), (D), (F), (H), and (L) of section 2303.20 of 35751
the Revised Code. Subject to division (B)(2) of this section, all 35752
moneys collected under division (B)(1) of this section shall be 35753
paid to the county treasurer to be disbursed, upon an order of the 35754
court of common pleas and subject to appropriation by the board of 35755
county commissioners, in an amount no greater than the actual cost 35756
to the court of procuring and maintaining technology and computer 35757
systems for the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas.35758

       (2) If the court of common pleas of a county makes the 35759
determination described in division (B)(1) of this section, the 35760
board of county commissioners of that county may issue one or more 35761
general obligation bonds for the purpose of procuring and 35762
maintaining the technology and computer systems for the office of 35763
the clerk of the court of common pleas. In addition to the 35764
purposes stated in division (B)(1) of this section for which the 35765
moneys collected under that division may be expended, the moneys 35766
additionally may be expended to pay debt charges on and financing 35767
costs related to any general obligation bonds issued pursuant to 35768
division (B)(2) of this section as they become due. General 35769
obligation bonds issued pursuant to division (B)(2) of this 35770
section are Chapter 133. securities.35771

       (C) The court of common pleas shall collect the sum of 35772
twenty-six dollars as additional filing fees in each new civil 35773
action or proceeding for the charitable public purpose of 35774
providing financial assistance to legal aid societies that operate 35775
within the state and to support the office of the state public 35776
defender. This division does not apply to proceedings concerning 35777
annulments, dissolutions of marriage, divorces, legal separation, 35778
spousal support, marital property or separate property 35779
distribution, support, or other domestic relations matters; to a 35780
juvenile division of a court of common pleas; to a probate 35781
division of a court of common pleas, except that the additional 35782
filing fees shall apply to name change, guardianship, adoption, 35783
and decedents' estate proceedings; or to an execution on a 35784
judgment, proceeding in aid of execution, or other post-judgment 35785
proceeding arising out of a civil action. The filing fees required 35786
to be collected under this division shall be in addition to any 35787
other filing fees imposed in the action or proceeding and shall be 35788
collected at the time of the filing of the action or proceeding. 35789
The court shall not waive the payment of the additional filing 35790
fees in a new civil action or proceeding unless the court waives 35791
the advanced payment of all filing fees in the action or 35792
proceeding. All such moneys collected during a month except for an 35793
amount equal to up to one per cent of those moneys retained to 35794
cover administrative costs shall be transmitted on or before the 35795
twentieth day of the following month by the clerk of the court to 35796
the treasurer of state in a manner prescribed by the treasurer of 35797
state or by the Ohio legal assistance foundation. The treasurer of 35798
state shall deposit four per cent of the funds collected under 35799
this division to the credit of the civil case filing fee fund 35800
established under section 120.07 of the Revised Code and 35801
ninety-six per cent of the funds collected under this division to 35802
the credit of the legal aid fund established under section 120.52 35803
of the Revised Code.35804

       The court may retain up to one per cent of the moneys it 35805
collects under this division to cover administrative costs, 35806
including the hiring of any additional personnel necessary to 35807
implement this division. If the court fails to transmit to the 35808
treasurer of state the moneys the court collects under this 35809
division in a manner prescribed by the treasurer of state or by 35810
the Ohio legal assistance foundation, the court shall forfeit the 35811
moneys the court retains under this division to cover 35812
administrative costs, including the hiring of any additional 35813
personnel necessary to implement this division, and shall transmit 35814
to the treasurer of state all moneys collected under this 35815
division, including the forfeited amount retained for 35816
administrative costs, for deposit in the legal aid fund.35817

       (D) On and after the thirtieth day after December 9, 1994, 35818
the court of common pleas shall collect the sum of thirty-two 35819
dollars as additional filing fees in each new action or proceeding 35820
for annulment, divorce, or dissolution of marriage for the purpose 35821
of funding shelters for victims of domestic violence pursuant to 35822
sections 3113.35 to 3113.39 of the Revised Code. The filing fees 35823
required to be collected under this division shall be in addition 35824
to any other filing fees imposed in the action or proceeding and 35825
shall be collected at the time of the filing of the action or 35826
proceeding. The court shall not waive the payment of the 35827
additional filing fees in a new action or proceeding for 35828
annulment, divorce, or dissolution of marriage unless the court 35829
waives the advanced payment of all filing fees in the action or 35830
proceeding. On or before the twentieth day of each month, all 35831
moneys collected during the immediately preceding month pursuant 35832
to this division shall be deposited by the clerk of the court into 35833
the county treasury in the special fund used for deposit of 35834
additional marriage license fees as described in section 3113.34 35835
of the Revised Code. Upon their deposit into the fund, the moneys 35836
shall be retained in the fund and expended only as described in 35837
section 3113.34 of the Revised Code.35838

       (E)(1) The court of common pleas may determine that, for the 35839
efficient operation of the court, additional funds are necessary 35840
to acquire and pay for special projects of the court, including, 35841
but not limited to, the acquisition of additional facilities or 35842
the rehabilitation of existing facilities, the acquisition of 35843
equipment, the hiring and training of staff, community service 35844
programs, mediation or dispute resolution services, the employment 35845
of magistrates, the training and education of judges, acting 35846
judges, and magistrates, and other related services. Upon that 35847
determination, the court by rule may charge a fee, in addition to 35848
all other court costs, on the filing of each criminal cause, civil 35849
action or proceeding, or judgment by confession.35850

       If the court of common pleas offers or requires a special 35851
program or serviceadditional services in cases of a specific 35852
type, the court by rule may assess an additional charge in a case 35853
of that type, over and above court costs, to cover the special 35854
program or service. The court shall adjust the special assessment 35855
periodically, but not retroactively, so that the amount assessed 35856
in those cases does not exceed the actual cost of providing the 35857
service or program.35858

       All moneys collected under division (E) of this section shall 35859
be paid to the county treasurer for deposit into either a general 35860
special projects fund or a fund established for a specific special 35861
project. Moneys from a fund of that nature shall be disbursed upon 35862
an order of the court, subject to an appropriation by the board of 35863
county commissioners, in an amount no greater than the actual cost 35864
to the court of a project. If a specific fund is terminated 35865
because of the discontinuance of a program or service established 35866
under division (E) of this section, the court may order, subject 35867
to an appropriation by the board of county commissioners, that 35868
moneys remaining in the fund be transferred to an account 35869
established under this division for a similar purpose.35870

       (2) As used in division (E) of this section:35871

       (a) "Criminal cause" means a charge alleging the violation of 35872
a statute or ordinance, or subsection of a statute or ordinance, 35873
that requires a separate finding of fact or a separate plea before 35874
disposition and of which the defendant may be found guilty, 35875
whether filed as part of a multiple charge on a single summons, 35876
citation, or complaint or as a separate charge on a single 35877
summons, citation, or complaint. "Criminal cause" does not include 35878
separate violations of the same statute or ordinance, or 35879
subsection of the same statute or ordinance, unless each charge is 35880
filed on a separate summons, citation, or complaint.35881

       (b) "Civil action or proceeding" means any civil litigation 35882
that must be determined by judgment entry.35883

       Sec. 2305.234.  (A) As used in this section:35884

       (1) "Chiropractic claim," "medical claim," and "optometric 35885
claim" have the same meanings as in section 2305.113 of the 35886
Revised Code.35887

       (2) "Dental claim" has the same meaning as in section 35888
2305.113 of the Revised Code, except that it does not include any 35889
claim arising out of a dental operation or any derivative claim 35890
for relief that arises out of a dental operation.35891

       (3) "Governmental health care program" has the same meaning 35892
as in section 4731.65 of the Revised Code.35893

       (4) "Health care facility or location" means a hospital, 35894
clinic, ambulatory surgical facility, office of a health care 35895
professional or associated group of health care professionals, 35896
training institution for health care professionals, or any other 35897
place where medical, dental, or other health-related diagnosis, 35898
care, or treatment is provided to a person.35899

       (5) "Health care professional" means any of the following who 35900
provide medical, dental, or other health-related diagnosis, care, 35901
or treatment:35902

       (a) Physicians authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised 35903
Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and 35904
surgery;35905

       (b) Registered nurses and licensed practical nurses licensed 35906
under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code and individuals who hold a 35907
certificate of authority issued under that chapter that authorizes 35908
the practice of nursing as a certified registered nurse 35909
anesthetist, clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, 35910
or certified nurse practitioner;35911

       (c) Physician assistants authorized to practice under Chapter 35912
4730. of the Revised Code;35913

       (d) Dentists and dental hygienists licensed under Chapter 35914
4715. of the Revised Code;35915

       (e) Physical therapists, physical therapist assistants, 35916
occupational therapists, and occupational therapy assistants 35917
licensed under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;35918

       (f) Chiropractors licensed under Chapter 4734. of the Revised 35919
Code;35920

       (g) Optometrists licensed under Chapter 4725. of the Revised 35921
Code;35922

       (h) Podiatrists authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised 35923
Code to practice podiatry;35924

       (i) Dietitians licensed under Chapter 4759. of the Revised 35925
Code;35926

       (j) Pharmacists licensed under Chapter 4729. of the Revised 35927
Code;35928

       (k) Emergency medical technicians-basic, emergency medical 35929
technicians-intermediate, and emergency medical 35930
technicians-paramedic, certified under Chapter 4765. of the 35931
Revised Code;35932

       (l) Respiratory care professionals licensed under Chapter 35933
4761. of the Revised Code;35934

       (m) Speech-language pathologists and audiologists licensed 35935
under Chapter 4753. of the Revised Code;35936

       (n) Professional clinical counselors, professional 35937
counselors, independent social workers, social workers, 35938
independent marriage and family therapists, and marriage and 35939
family therapists, licensed under Chapter 4757. of the Revised 35940
Code;35941

       (o) Psychologists licensed under Chapter 4732. of the Revised 35942
Code;35943

       (p) Independent chemical dependency counselors, chemical 35944
dependency counselors III, chemical dependency counselors II, and 35945
chemical dependency counselors I, licensed under Chapter 4758. of 35946
the Revised Code.35947

       (6) "Health care worker" means a person other than a health 35948
care professional who provides medical, dental, or other 35949
health-related care or treatment under the direction of a health 35950
care professional with the authority to direct that individual's 35951
activities, including medical technicians, medical assistants, 35952
dental assistants, orderlies, aides, and individuals acting in 35953
similar capacities.35954

       (7) "Indigent and uninsured person" means a person who meets 35955
all of the following requirements:35956

       (a) The person's income is not greater than two hundred per 35957
cent of the current poverty line as defined by the United States 35958
office of management and budget and revised in accordance with 35959
section 673(2) of the "Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981," 35960
95 Stat. 511, 42 U.S.C. 9902, as amended.35961

       (b) The person is not eligible to receive medical assistance 35962
under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code or assistance underfor 35963
the medicaid program or any other governmental health care 35964
program.35965

       (c) Either of the following applies:35966

       (i) The person is not a policyholder, certificate holder, 35967
insured, contract holder, subscriber, enrollee, member, 35968
beneficiary, or other covered individual under a health insurance 35969
or health care policy, contract, or plan.35970

       (ii) The person is a policyholder, certificate holder, 35971
insured, contract holder, subscriber, enrollee, member, 35972
beneficiary, or other covered individual under a health insurance 35973
or health care policy, contract, or plan, but the insurer, policy, 35974
contract, or plan denies coverage or is the subject of insolvency 35975
or bankruptcy proceedings in any jurisdiction.35976

       (8) "Nonprofit health care referral organization" means an 35977
entity that is not operated for profit and refers patients to, or 35978
arranges for the provision of, health-related diagnosis, care, or 35979
treatment by a health care professional or health care worker.35980

       (9) "Operation" means any procedure that involves cutting or 35981
otherwise infiltrating human tissue by mechanical means, including 35982
surgery, laser surgery, ionizing radiation, therapeutic 35983
ultrasound, or the removal of intraocular foreign bodies. 35984
"Operation" does not include the administration of medication by 35985
injection, unless the injection is administered in conjunction 35986
with a procedure infiltrating human tissue by mechanical means 35987
other than the administration of medicine by injection. 35988
"Operation" does not include routine dental restorative 35989
procedures, the scaling of teeth, or extractions of teeth that are 35990
not impacted.35991

       (10) "Tort action" means a civil action for damages for 35992
injury, death, or loss to person or property other than a civil 35993
action for damages for a breach of contract or another agreement 35994
between persons or government entities.35995

       (11) "Volunteer" means an individual who provides any 35996
medical, dental, or other health-care related diagnosis, care, or 35997
treatment without the expectation of receiving and without receipt 35998
of any compensation or other form of remuneration from an indigent 35999
and uninsured person, another person on behalf of an indigent and 36000
uninsured person, any health care facility or location, any 36001
nonprofit health care referral organization, or any other person 36002
or government entity.36003

       (12) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 36004
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.36005

       (13) "Deep sedation" means a drug-induced depression of 36006
consciousness during which a patient cannot be easily aroused but 36007
responds purposefully following repeated or painful stimulation, a 36008
patient's ability to independently maintain ventilatory function 36009
may be impaired, a patient may require assistance in maintaining a 36010
patent airway and spontaneous ventilation may be inadequate, and 36011
cardiovascular function is usually maintained.36012

       (14) "General anesthesia" means a drug-induced loss of 36013
consciousness during which a patient is not arousable, even by 36014
painful stimulation, the ability to independently maintain 36015
ventilatory function is often impaired, a patient often requires 36016
assistance in maintaining a patent airway, positive pressure 36017
ventilation may be required because of depressed spontaneous 36018
ventilation or drug-induced depression of neuromuscular function, 36019
and cardiovascular function may be impaired.36020

       (B)(1) Subject to divisions (F) and (G)(3) of this section, a 36021
health care professional who is a volunteer and complies with 36022
division (B)(2) of this section is not liable in damages to any 36023
person or government entity in a tort or other civil action, 36024
including an action on a medical, dental, chiropractic, 36025
optometric, or other health-related claim, for injury, death, or 36026
loss to person or property that allegedly arises from an action or 36027
omission of the volunteer in the provision to an indigent and 36028
uninsured person of medical, dental, or other health-related 36029
diagnosis, care, or treatment, including the provision of samples 36030
of medicine and other medical products, unless the action or 36031
omission constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.36032

       (2) To qualify for the immunity described in division (B)(1) 36033
of this section, a health care professional shall do all of the 36034
following prior to providing diagnosis, care, or treatment:36035

       (a) Determine, in good faith, that the indigent and uninsured 36036
person is mentally capable of giving informed consent to the 36037
provision of the diagnosis, care, or treatment and is not subject 36038
to duress or under undue influence;36039

       (b) Inform the person of the provisions of this section, 36040
including notifying the person that, by giving informed consent to 36041
the provision of the diagnosis, care, or treatment, the person 36042
cannot hold the health care professional liable for damages in a 36043
tort or other civil action, including an action on a medical, 36044
dental, chiropractic, optometric, or other health-related claim, 36045
unless the action or omission of the health care professional 36046
constitutes willful or wanton misconduct;36047

       (c) Obtain the informed consent of the person and a written 36048
waiver, signed by the person or by another individual on behalf of 36049
and in the presence of the person, that states that the person is 36050
mentally competent to give informed consent and, without being 36051
subject to duress or under undue influence, gives informed consent 36052
to the provision of the diagnosis, care, or treatment subject to 36053
the provisions of this section. A written waiver under division 36054
(B)(2)(c) of this section shall state clearly and in conspicuous 36055
type that the person or other individual who signs the waiver is 36056
signing it with full knowledge that, by giving informed consent to 36057
the provision of the diagnosis, care, or treatment, the person 36058
cannot bring a tort or other civil action, including an action on 36059
a medical, dental, chiropractic, optometric, or other 36060
health-related claim, against the health care professional unless 36061
the action or omission of the health care professional constitutes 36062
willful or wanton misconduct.36063

       (3) A physician or podiatrist who is not covered by medical 36064
malpractice insurance, but complies with division (B)(2) of this 36065
section, is not required to comply with division (A) of section 36066
4731.143 of the Revised Code.36067

       (C) Subject to divisions (F) and (G)(3) of this section, 36068
health care workers who are volunteers are not liable in damages 36069
to any person or government entity in a tort or other civil 36070
action, including an action upon a medical, dental, chiropractic, 36071
optometric, or other health-related claim, for injury, death, or 36072
loss to person or property that allegedly arises from an action or 36073
omission of the health care worker in the provision to an indigent 36074
and uninsured person of medical, dental, or other health-related 36075
diagnosis, care, or treatment, unless the action or omission 36076
constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.36077

       (D) Subject to divisions (F) and (G)(3) of this section, a 36078
nonprofit health care referral organization is not liable in 36079
damages to any person or government entity in a tort or other 36080
civil action, including an action on a medical, dental, 36081
chiropractic, optometric, or other health-related claim, for 36082
injury, death, or loss to person or property that allegedly arises 36083
from an action or omission of the nonprofit health care referral 36084
organization in referring indigent and uninsured persons to, or 36085
arranging for the provision of, medical, dental, or other 36086
health-related diagnosis, care, or treatment by a health care 36087
professional described in division (B)(1) of this section or a 36088
health care worker described in division (C) of this section, 36089
unless the action or omission constitutes willful or wanton 36090
misconduct.36091

       (E) Subject to divisions (F) and (G)(3) of this section and 36092
to the extent that the registration requirements of section 36093
3701.071 of the Revised Code apply, a health care facility or 36094
location associated with a health care professional described in 36095
division (B)(1) of this section, a health care worker described in 36096
division (C) of this section, or a nonprofit health care referral 36097
organization described in division (D) of this section is not 36098
liable in damages to any person or government entity in a tort or 36099
other civil action, including an action on a medical, dental, 36100
chiropractic, optometric, or other health-related claim, for 36101
injury, death, or loss to person or property that allegedly arises 36102
from an action or omission of the health care professional or 36103
worker or nonprofit health care referral organization relative to 36104
the medical, dental, or other health-related diagnosis, care, or 36105
treatment provided to an indigent and uninsured person on behalf 36106
of or at the health care facility or location, unless the action 36107
or omission constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.36108

       (F)(1) Except as provided in division (F)(2) of this section, 36109
the immunities provided by divisions (B), (C), (D), and (E) of 36110
this section are not available to a health care professional, 36111
health care worker, nonprofit health care referral organization, 36112
or health care facility or location if, at the time of an alleged 36113
injury, death, or loss to person or property, the health care 36114
professionals or health care workers involved are providing one of 36115
the following:36116

       (a) Any medical, dental, or other health-related diagnosis, 36117
care, or treatment pursuant to a community service work order 36118
entered by a court under division (B) of section 2951.02 of the 36119
Revised Code or imposed by a court as a community control 36120
sanction;36121

       (b) Performance of an operation to which any one of the 36122
following applies:36123

        (i) The operation requires the administration of deep 36124
sedation or general anesthesia.36125

        (ii) The operation is a procedure that is not typically 36126
performed in an office.36127

       (iii) The individual involved is a health care professional, 36128
and the operation is beyond the scope of practice or the 36129
education, training, and competence, as applicable, of the health 36130
care professional.36131

       (c) Delivery of a baby or any other purposeful termination of 36132
a human pregnancy.36133

       (2) Division (F)(1) of this section does not apply when a 36134
health care professional or health care worker provides medical, 36135
dental, or other health-related diagnosis, care, or treatment that 36136
is necessary to preserve the life of a person in a medical 36137
emergency.36138

       (G)(1) This section does not create a new cause of action or 36139
substantive legal right against a health care professional, health 36140
care worker, nonprofit health care referral organization, or 36141
health care facility or location.36142

       (2) This section does not affect any immunities from civil 36143
liability or defenses established by another section of the 36144
Revised Code or available at common law to which a health care 36145
professional, health care worker, nonprofit health care referral 36146
organization, or health care facility or location may be entitled 36147
in connection with the provision of emergency or other medical, 36148
dental, or other health-related diagnosis, care, or treatment.36149

       (3) This section does not grant an immunity from tort or 36150
other civil liability to a health care professional, health care 36151
worker, nonprofit health care referral organization, or health 36152
care facility or location for actions that are outside the scope 36153
of authority of health care professionals or health care workers.36154

       (4) This section does not affect any legal responsibility of 36155
a health care professional, health care worker, or nonprofit 36156
health care referral organization to comply with any applicable 36157
law of this state or rule of an agency of this state.36158

       (5) This section does not affect any legal responsibility of 36159
a health care facility or location to comply with any applicable 36160
law of this state, rule of an agency of this state, or local code, 36161
ordinance, or regulation that pertains to or regulates building, 36162
housing, air pollution, water pollution, sanitation, health, fire, 36163
zoning, or safety.36164

       Sec. 2307.65. (A) The attorney general may bring a civil 36165
action in the Franklin county court of common pleas on behalf of 36166
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid, and the 36167
prosecuting attorney of the county in which a violation of 36168
division (B) of section 2913.401 of the Revised Code occurs may 36169
bring a civil action in the court of common pleas of that county 36170
on behalf of the county department of job and family services, 36171
against a person who violates division (B) of section 2913.401 of 36172
the Revised Code for the recovery of the amount of benefits paid 36173
on behalf of a person that either department would not have paid 36174
but for the violation minus any amounts paid in restitution under 36175
division (C)(2) of section 2913.401 of the Revised Code and for 36176
reasonable attorney's fees and all other fees and costs of 36177
litigation.36178

        (B) In a civil action brought under division (A) of this 36179
section, if the defendant failed to disclose a transfer of 36180
property in violation of division (B)(3) of section 2913.401 of 36181
the Revised Code, the court may also grant any of the following 36182
relief to the extent permitted by the "Social Security Act," 36183
section 1917, 42 U.S.C. 1396p:36184

        (1) Avoidance of the transfer of property that was not 36185
disclosed in violation of division (B)(3) of section 2913.401 of 36186
the Revised Code to the extent of the amount of benefits the 36187
department would not have paid but for the violation;36188

        (2) An order of attachment or garnishment against the 36189
property in accordance with Chapter 2715. or 2716. of the Revised 36190
Code;36191

        (3) An injunction against any further disposition by the 36192
transferor or transferee, or both, of the property the transfer of 36193
which was not disclosed in violation of division (B)(3) of section 36194
2913.401 of the Revised Code or against the disposition of other 36195
property by the transferor or transferee;36196

        (4) Appointment of a receiver to take charge of the property 36197
transferred or of other property of the transferee;36198

        (5) Any other relief that the court considers just and 36199
equitable.36200

        (C) To the extent permitted by the "Social Security Act," 36201
section 1917, 42 U.S.C. 1396p, the department of job and family 36202
servicesmedicaid or the county department of job and family 36203
services may enforce a judgment obtained under this section by 36204
levying on property the transfer of which was not disclosed in 36205
violation of division (B)(3) of section 2913.401 of the Revised 36206
Code or on the proceeds of the transfer of that property in 36207
accordance with Chapter 2329. of the Revised Code.36208

        (D) The remedies provided in divisions (B) and (C) of this 36209
section do not apply if the transferee of the property the 36210
transfer of which was not disclosed in violation of division 36211
(B)(3) of section 2913.401 of the Revised Code acquired the 36212
property in good faith and for fair market value.36213

        (E) The remedies provided in this section are not exclusive 36214
and do not preclude the use of any other criminal or civil remedy 36215
for any act that is in violation of section 2913.401 of the 36216
Revised Code.36217

        (F) Amounts of medicaid benefitsservices paid and recovered 36218
in an action brought under this section shall be credited to the 36219
general revenue fund, and any applicable federal share shall be 36220
returned to the appropriate agency or department of the United 36221
States.36222

       Sec. 2311.14.  (A)(1) Whenever because of a hearing, speech, 36223
or other impairment a party to or witness in a legal proceeding 36224
cannot readily understand or communicate, the court shall appoint 36225
a qualified interpreter to assist such person. Before appointing 36226
any interpreter under this division for a party or witness who is 36227
a mentally retarded person or developmentally disabled person, the 36228
court shall evaluate the qualifications of the interpreter and 36229
shall make a determination as to the ability of the interpreter to 36230
effectively interpret on behalf of the party or witness that the 36231
interpreter will assist, and the court may appoint the interpreter 36232
only if the court is satisfied that the interpreter is able to 36233
effectively interpret on behalf of that party or witness.36234

       (2) This section is not limited to a person who speaks a 36235
language other than English. It also applies to the language and 36236
descriptions of any mentally retarded person or developmentally 36237
disabled person who cannot be reasonably understood, or who cannot 36238
understand questioning, without the aid of an interpreter. The 36239
interpreter may aid the parties in formulating methods of 36240
questioning the person with mental retardation or a developmental 36241
disability and in interpreting the answers of the person.36242

       (B) Before entering upon official duties, the interpreter 36243
shall take an oath that the interpreter will make a true 36244
interpretation of the proceedings to the party or witness, and 36245
that the interpreter will truly repeat the statements made by such 36246
party or witness to the court, to the best of the interpreter's 36247
ability. If the interpreter is appointed to assist a mentally 36248
retarded person or developmentally disabled person as described in 36249
division (A)(2) of this section, the oath also shall include an 36250
oath that the interpreter will not prompt, lead, suggest, or 36251
otherwise improperly influence the testimony of the witness or 36252
party.36253

       (C) The court shall determine a reasonable fee for all such 36254
interpreter service which shall be paid out of the same funds as 36255
witness fees. If the party taxed with costs is indigent, the court 36256
shall not tax the interpreter's fees as costs, and the county 36257
shall pay the interpreter's fees.36258

       (D) As used in this section, "mentally retarded person" and 36259
"developmentally disabled person" have the same meanings as in 36260
section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.36261

       Sec. 2317.02.  The following persons shall not testify in 36262
certain respects:36263

       (A)(1) An attorney, concerning a communication made to the 36264
attorney by a client in that relation or concerning the attorney's 36265
advice to a client, except that the attorney may testify by 36266
express consent of the client or, if the client is deceased, by 36267
the express consent of the surviving spouse or the executor or 36268
administrator of the estate of the deceased client. However, if 36269
the client voluntarily reveals the substance of attorney-client 36270
communications in a nonprivileged context or is deemed by section 36271
2151.421 of the Revised Code to have waived any testimonial 36272
privilege under this division, the attorney may be compelled to 36273
testify on the same subject.36274

       The testimonial privilege established under this division 36275
does not apply concerning a communication between a client who has 36276
since died and the deceased client's attorney if the communication 36277
is relevant to a dispute between parties who claim through that 36278
deceased client, regardless of whether the claims are by testate 36279
or intestate succession or by inter vivos transaction, and the 36280
dispute addresses the competency of the deceased client when the 36281
deceased client executed a document that is the basis of the 36282
dispute or whether the deceased client was a victim of fraud, 36283
undue influence, or duress when the deceased client executed a 36284
document that is the basis of the dispute.36285

       (2) An attorney, concerning a communication made to the 36286
attorney by a client in that relationship or the attorney's advice 36287
to a client, except that if the client is an insurance company, 36288
the attorney may be compelled to testify, subject to an in camera 36289
inspection by a court, about communications made by the client to 36290
the attorney or by the attorney to the client that are related to 36291
the attorney's aiding or furthering an ongoing or future 36292
commission of bad faith by the client, if the party seeking 36293
disclosure of the communications has made a prima-facie showing of 36294
bad faith, fraud, or criminal misconduct by the client.36295

       (B)(1) A physician or a dentist concerning a communication 36296
made to the physician or dentist by a patient in that relation or 36297
the physician's or dentist's advice to a patient, except as 36298
otherwise provided in this division, division (B)(2), and division 36299
(B)(3) of this section, and except that, if the patient is deemed 36300
by section 2151.421 of the Revised Code to have waived any 36301
testimonial privilege under this division, the physician may be 36302
compelled to testify on the same subject.36303

       The testimonial privilege established under this division 36304
does not apply, and a physician or dentist may testify or may be 36305
compelled to testify, in any of the following circumstances:36306

       (a) In any civil action, in accordance with the discovery 36307
provisions of the Rules of Civil Procedure in connection with a 36308
civil action, or in connection with a claim under Chapter 4123. of 36309
the Revised Code, under any of the following circumstances:36310

       (i) If the patient or the guardian or other legal 36311
representative of the patient gives express consent;36312

       (ii) If the patient is deceased, the spouse of the patient or 36313
the executor or administrator of the patient's estate gives 36314
express consent;36315

       (iii) If a medical claim, dental claim, chiropractic claim, 36316
or optometric claim, as defined in section 2305.113 of the Revised 36317
Code, an action for wrongful death, any other type of civil 36318
action, or a claim under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code is 36319
filed by the patient, the personal representative of the estate of 36320
the patient if deceased, or the patient's guardian or other legal 36321
representative.36322

       (b) In any civil action concerning court-ordered treatment or 36323
services received by a patient, if the court-ordered treatment or 36324
services were ordered as part of a case plan journalized under 36325
section 2151.412 of the Revised Code or the court-ordered 36326
treatment or services are necessary or relevant to dependency, 36327
neglect, or abuse or temporary or permanent custody proceedings 36328
under Chapter 2151. of the Revised Code.36329

       (c) In any criminal action concerning any test or the results 36330
of any test that determines the presence or concentration of 36331
alcohol, a drug of abuse, a combination of them, a controlled 36332
substance, or a metabolite of a controlled substance in the 36333
patient's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, urine, or 36334
other bodily substance at any time relevant to the criminal 36335
offense in question.36336

       (d) In any criminal action against a physician or dentist. In 36337
such an action, the testimonial privilege established under this 36338
division does not prohibit the admission into evidence, in 36339
accordance with the Rules of Evidence, of a patient's medical or 36340
dental records or other communications between a patient and the 36341
physician or dentist that are related to the action and obtained 36342
by subpoena, search warrant, or other lawful means. A court that 36343
permits or compels a physician or dentist to testify in such an 36344
action or permits the introduction into evidence of patient 36345
records or other communications in such an action shall require 36346
that appropriate measures be taken to ensure that the 36347
confidentiality of any patient named or otherwise identified in 36348
the records is maintained. Measures to ensure confidentiality that 36349
may be taken by the court include sealing its records or deleting 36350
specific information from its records.36351

       (e)(i) If the communication was between a patient who has 36352
since died and the deceased patient's physician or dentist, the 36353
communication is relevant to a dispute between parties who claim 36354
through that deceased patient, regardless of whether the claims 36355
are by testate or intestate succession or by inter vivos 36356
transaction, and the dispute addresses the competency of the 36357
deceased patient when the deceased patient executed a document 36358
that is the basis of the dispute or whether the deceased patient 36359
was a victim of fraud, undue influence, or duress when the 36360
deceased patient executed a document that is the basis of the 36361
dispute.36362

       (ii) If neither the spouse of a patient nor the executor or 36363
administrator of that patient's estate gives consent under 36364
division (B)(1)(a)(ii) of this section, testimony or the 36365
disclosure of the patient's medical records by a physician, 36366
dentist, or other health care provider under division (B)(1)(e)(i) 36367
of this section is a permitted use or disclosure of protected 36368
health information, as defined in 45 C.F.R. 160.103, and an 36369
authorization or opportunity to be heard shall not be required.36370

       (iii) Division (B)(1)(e)(i) of this section does not require 36371
a mental health professional to disclose psychotherapy notes, as 36372
defined in 45 C.F.R. 164.501.36373

       (iv) An interested person who objects to testimony or 36374
disclosure under division (B)(1)(e)(i) of this section may seek a 36375
protective order pursuant to Civil Rule 26.36376

       (v) A person to whom protected health information is 36377
disclosed under division (B)(1)(e)(i) of this section shall not 36378
use or disclose the protected health information for any purpose 36379
other than the litigation or proceeding for which the information 36380
was requested and shall return the protected health information to 36381
the covered entity or destroy the protected health information, 36382
including all copies made, at the conclusion of the litigation or 36383
proceeding.36384

       (2)(a) If any law enforcement officer submits a written 36385
statement to a health care provider that states that an official 36386
criminal investigation has begun regarding a specified person or 36387
that a criminal action or proceeding has been commenced against a 36388
specified person, that requests the provider to supply to the 36389
officer copies of any records the provider possesses that pertain 36390
to any test or the results of any test administered to the 36391
specified person to determine the presence or concentration of 36392
alcohol, a drug of abuse, a combination of them, a controlled 36393
substance, or a metabolite of a controlled substance in the 36394
person's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine at 36395
any time relevant to the criminal offense in question, and that 36396
conforms to section 2317.022 of the Revised Code, the provider, 36397
except to the extent specifically prohibited by any law of this 36398
state or of the United States, shall supply to the officer a copy 36399
of any of the requested records the provider possesses. If the 36400
health care provider does not possess any of the requested 36401
records, the provider shall give the officer a written statement 36402
that indicates that the provider does not possess any of the 36403
requested records.36404

       (b) If a health care provider possesses any records of the 36405
type described in division (B)(2)(a) of this section regarding the 36406
person in question at any time relevant to the criminal offense in 36407
question, in lieu of personally testifying as to the results of 36408
the test in question, the custodian of the records may submit a 36409
certified copy of the records, and, upon its submission, the 36410
certified copy is qualified as authentic evidence and may be 36411
admitted as evidence in accordance with the Rules of Evidence. 36412
Division (A) of section 2317.422 of the Revised Code does not 36413
apply to any certified copy of records submitted in accordance 36414
with this division. Nothing in this division shall be construed to 36415
limit the right of any party to call as a witness the person who 36416
administered the test to which the records pertain, the person 36417
under whose supervision the test was administered, the custodian 36418
of the records, the person who made the records, or the person 36419
under whose supervision the records were made.36420

       (3)(a) If the testimonial privilege described in division 36421
(B)(1) of this section does not apply as provided in division 36422
(B)(1)(a)(iii) of this section, a physician or dentist may be 36423
compelled to testify or to submit to discovery under the Rules of 36424
Civil Procedure only as to a communication made to the physician 36425
or dentist by the patient in question in that relation, or the 36426
physician's or dentist's advice to the patient in question, that 36427
related causally or historically to physical or mental injuries 36428
that are relevant to issues in the medical claim, dental claim, 36429
chiropractic claim, or optometric claim, action for wrongful 36430
death, other civil action, or claim under Chapter 4123. of the 36431
Revised Code.36432

       (b) If the testimonial privilege described in division (B)(1) 36433
of this section does not apply to a physician or dentist as 36434
provided in division (B)(1)(c) of this section, the physician or 36435
dentist, in lieu of personally testifying as to the results of the 36436
test in question, may submit a certified copy of those results, 36437
and, upon its submission, the certified copy is qualified as 36438
authentic evidence and may be admitted as evidence in accordance 36439
with the Rules of Evidence. Division (A) of section 2317.422 of 36440
the Revised Code does not apply to any certified copy of results 36441
submitted in accordance with this division. Nothing in this 36442
division shall be construed to limit the right of any party to 36443
call as a witness the person who administered the test in 36444
question, the person under whose supervision the test was 36445
administered, the custodian of the results of the test, the person 36446
who compiled the results, or the person under whose supervision 36447
the results were compiled.36448

       (4) The testimonial privilege described in division (B)(1) of 36449
this section is not waived when a communication is made by a 36450
physician to a pharmacist or when there is communication between a 36451
patient and a pharmacist in furtherance of the physician-patient 36452
relation.36453

       (5)(a) As used in divisions (B)(1) to (4) of this section, 36454
"communication" means acquiring, recording, or transmitting any 36455
information, in any manner, concerning any facts, opinions, or 36456
statements necessary to enable a physician or dentist to diagnose, 36457
treat, prescribe, or act for a patient. A "communication" may 36458
include, but is not limited to, any medical or dental, office, or 36459
hospital communication such as a record, chart, letter, 36460
memorandum, laboratory test and results, x-ray, photograph, 36461
financial statement, diagnosis, or prognosis.36462

       (b) As used in division (B)(2) of this section, "health care 36463
provider" means a hospital, ambulatory care facility, long-term 36464
care facility, pharmacy, emergency facility, or health care 36465
practitioner.36466

       (c) As used in division (B)(5)(b) of this section:36467

       (i) "Ambulatory care facility" means a facility that provides 36468
medical, diagnostic, or surgical treatment to patients who do not 36469
require hospitalization, including a dialysis center, ambulatory 36470
surgical facility, cardiac catheterization facility, diagnostic 36471
imaging center, extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy center, home 36472
health agency, inpatient hospice, birthing center, radiation 36473
therapy center, emergency facility, and an urgent care center. 36474
"Ambulatory health care facility" does not include the private 36475
office of a physician or dentist, whether the office is for an 36476
individual or group practice.36477

       (ii) "Emergency facility" means a hospital emergency 36478
department or any other facility that provides emergency medical 36479
services.36480

       (iii) "Health care practitioner" has the same meaning as in 36481
section 4769.01 of the Revised Code.36482

       (iv) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 36483
the Revised Code.36484

       (v) "Long-term care facility" means a nursing home, 36485
residential care facility, or home for the aging, as those terms 36486
are defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code; a residential 36487
facility licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised 36488
Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care 36489
services for three to sixteen unrelated adults; a nursing facility 36490
or intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded, as those 36491
terms are defined in section 5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code; 36492
a facility or portion of a facility certified as a skilled 36493
nursing facility under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 36494
49 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C.A. 1395, as amended, as defined in 36495
section 5165.01 of the Revised Code; and an intermediate care 36496
facility for individuals with intellectual disabilities, as 36497
defined in section 5124.01 of the Revised Code.36498

       (vi) "Pharmacy" has the same meaning as in section 4729.01 of 36499
the Revised Code.36500

       (d) As used in divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this section, 36501
"drug of abuse" has the same meaning as in section 4506.01 of the 36502
Revised Code.36503

       (6) Divisions (B)(1), (2), (3), (4), and (5) of this section 36504
apply to doctors of medicine, doctors of osteopathic medicine, 36505
doctors of podiatry, and dentists.36506

       (7) Nothing in divisions (B)(1) to (6) of this section 36507
affects, or shall be construed as affecting, the immunity from 36508
civil liability conferred by section 307.628 of the Revised Code 36509
or the immunity from civil liability conferred by section 2305.33 36510
of the Revised Code upon physicians who report an employee's use 36511
of a drug of abuse, or a condition of an employee other than one 36512
involving the use of a drug of abuse, to the employer of the 36513
employee in accordance with division (B) of that section. As used 36514
in division (B)(7) of this section, "employee," "employer," and 36515
"physician" have the same meanings as in section 2305.33 of the 36516
Revised Code.36517

       (C)(1) A cleric, when the cleric remains accountable to the 36518
authority of that cleric's church, denomination, or sect, 36519
concerning a confession made, or any information confidentially 36520
communicated, to the cleric for a religious counseling purpose in 36521
the cleric's professional character. The cleric may testify by 36522
express consent of the person making the communication, except 36523
when the disclosure of the information is in violation of a sacred 36524
trust and except that, if the person voluntarily testifies or is 36525
deemed by division (A)(4)(c) of section 2151.421 of the Revised 36526
Code to have waived any testimonial privilege under this division, 36527
the cleric may be compelled to testify on the same subject except 36528
when disclosure of the information is in violation of a sacred 36529
trust.36530

       (2) As used in division (C) of this section:36531

        (a) "Cleric" means a member of the clergy, rabbi, priest, 36532
Christian Science practitioner, or regularly ordained, accredited, 36533
or licensed minister of an established and legally cognizable 36534
church, denomination, or sect.36535

        (b) "Sacred trust" means a confession or confidential 36536
communication made to a cleric in the cleric's ecclesiastical 36537
capacity in the course of discipline enjoined by the church to 36538
which the cleric belongs, including, but not limited to, the 36539
Catholic Church, if both of the following apply:36540

        (i) The confession or confidential communication was made 36541
directly to the cleric.36542

        (ii) The confession or confidential communication was made in 36543
the manner and context that places the cleric specifically and 36544
strictly under a level of confidentiality that is considered 36545
inviolate by canon law or church doctrine.36546

       (D) Husband or wife, concerning any communication made by one 36547
to the other, or an act done by either in the presence of the 36548
other, during coverture, unless the communication was made, or act 36549
done, in the known presence or hearing of a third person competent 36550
to be a witness; and such rule is the same if the marital relation 36551
has ceased to exist;36552

       (E) A person who assigns a claim or interest, concerning any 36553
matter in respect to which the person would not, if a party, be 36554
permitted to testify;36555

       (F) A person who, if a party, would be restricted under 36556
section 2317.03 of the Revised Code, when the property or thing is 36557
sold or transferred by an executor, administrator, guardian, 36558
trustee, heir, devisee, or legatee, shall be restricted in the 36559
same manner in any action or proceeding concerning the property or 36560
thing.36561

       (G)(1) A school guidance counselor who holds a valid educator 36562
license from the state board of education as provided for in 36563
section 3319.22 of the Revised Code, a person licensed under 36564
Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code as a professional clinical 36565
counselor, professional counselor, social worker, independent 36566
social worker, marriage and family therapist or independent 36567
marriage and family therapist, or registered under Chapter 4757. 36568
of the Revised Code as a social work assistant concerning a 36569
confidential communication received from a client in that relation 36570
or the person's advice to a client unless any of the following 36571
applies:36572

       (a) The communication or advice indicates clear and present 36573
danger to the client or other persons. For the purposes of this 36574
division, cases in which there are indications of present or past 36575
child abuse or neglect of the client constitute a clear and 36576
present danger.36577

       (b) The client gives express consent to the testimony.36578

       (c) If the client is deceased, the surviving spouse or the 36579
executor or administrator of the estate of the deceased client 36580
gives express consent.36581

       (d) The client voluntarily testifies, in which case the 36582
school guidance counselor or person licensed or registered under 36583
Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code may be compelled to testify on 36584
the same subject.36585

       (e) The court in camera determines that the information 36586
communicated by the client is not germane to the counselor-client, 36587
marriage and family therapist-client, or social worker-client 36588
relationship.36589

       (f) A court, in an action brought against a school, its 36590
administration, or any of its personnel by the client, rules after 36591
an in-camera inspection that the testimony of the school guidance 36592
counselor is relevant to that action.36593

       (g) The testimony is sought in a civil action and concerns 36594
court-ordered treatment or services received by a patient as part 36595
of a case plan journalized under section 2151.412 of the Revised 36596
Code or the court-ordered treatment or services are necessary or 36597
relevant to dependency, neglect, or abuse or temporary or 36598
permanent custody proceedings under Chapter 2151. of the Revised 36599
Code.36600

       (2) Nothing in division (G)(1) of this section shall relieve 36601
a school guidance counselor or a person licensed or registered 36602
under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code from the requirement to 36603
report information concerning child abuse or neglect under section 36604
2151.421 of the Revised Code.36605

       (H) A mediator acting under a mediation order issued under 36606
division (A) of section 3109.052 of the Revised Code or otherwise 36607
issued in any proceeding for divorce, dissolution, legal 36608
separation, annulment, or the allocation of parental rights and 36609
responsibilities for the care of children, in any action or 36610
proceeding, other than a criminal, delinquency, child abuse, child 36611
neglect, or dependent child action or proceeding, that is brought 36612
by or against either parent who takes part in mediation in 36613
accordance with the order and that pertains to the mediation 36614
process, to any information discussed or presented in the 36615
mediation process, to the allocation of parental rights and 36616
responsibilities for the care of the parents' children, or to the 36617
awarding of parenting time rights in relation to their children;36618

       (I) A communications assistant, acting within the scope of 36619
the communication assistant's authority, when providing 36620
telecommunications relay service pursuant to section 4931.06 of 36621
the Revised Code or Title II of the "Communications Act of 1934," 36622
104 Stat. 366 (1990), 47 U.S.C. 225, concerning a communication 36623
made through a telecommunications relay service. Nothing in this 36624
section shall limit the obligation of a communications assistant 36625
to divulge information or testify when mandated by federal law or 36626
regulation or pursuant to subpoena in a criminal proceeding.36627

       Nothing in this section shall limit any immunity or privilege 36628
granted under federal law or regulation.36629

       (J)(1) A chiropractor in a civil proceeding concerning a 36630
communication made to the chiropractor by a patient in that 36631
relation or the chiropractor's advice to a patient, except as 36632
otherwise provided in this division. The testimonial privilege 36633
established under this division does not apply, and a chiropractor 36634
may testify or may be compelled to testify, in any civil action, 36635
in accordance with the discovery provisions of the Rules of Civil 36636
Procedure in connection with a civil action, or in connection with 36637
a claim under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code, under any of the 36638
following circumstances:36639

       (a) If the patient or the guardian or other legal 36640
representative of the patient gives express consent.36641

       (b) If the patient is deceased, the spouse of the patient or 36642
the executor or administrator of the patient's estate gives 36643
express consent.36644

       (c) If a medical claim, dental claim, chiropractic claim, or 36645
optometric claim, as defined in section 2305.113 of the Revised 36646
Code, an action for wrongful death, any other type of civil 36647
action, or a claim under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code is 36648
filed by the patient, the personal representative of the estate of 36649
the patient if deceased, or the patient's guardian or other legal 36650
representative.36651

       (2) If the testimonial privilege described in division (J)(1) 36652
of this section does not apply as provided in division (J)(1)(c) 36653
of this section, a chiropractor may be compelled to testify or to 36654
submit to discovery under the Rules of Civil Procedure only as to 36655
a communication made to the chiropractor by the patient in 36656
question in that relation, or the chiropractor's advice to the 36657
patient in question, that related causally or historically to 36658
physical or mental injuries that are relevant to issues in the 36659
medical claim, dental claim, chiropractic claim, or optometric 36660
claim, action for wrongful death, other civil action, or claim 36661
under Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code.36662

       (3) The testimonial privilege established under this division 36663
does not apply, and a chiropractor may testify or be compelled to 36664
testify, in any criminal action or administrative proceeding.36665

       (4) As used in this division, "communication" means 36666
acquiring, recording, or transmitting any information, in any 36667
manner, concerning any facts, opinions, or statements necessary to 36668
enable a chiropractor to diagnose, treat, or act for a patient. A 36669
communication may include, but is not limited to, any 36670
chiropractic, office, or hospital communication such as a record, 36671
chart, letter, memorandum, laboratory test and results, x-ray, 36672
photograph, financial statement, diagnosis, or prognosis.36673

       (K)(1) Except as provided under division (K)(2) of this 36674
section, a critical incident stress management team member 36675
concerning a communication received from an individual who 36676
receives crisis response services from the team member, or the 36677
team member's advice to the individual, during a debriefing 36678
session.36679

        (2) The testimonial privilege established under division 36680
(K)(1) of this section does not apply if any of the following are 36681
true:36682

        (a) The communication or advice indicates clear and present 36683
danger to the individual who receives crisis response services or 36684
to other persons. For purposes of this division, cases in which 36685
there are indications of present or past child abuse or neglect of 36686
the individual constitute a clear and present danger.36687

        (b) The individual who received crisis response services 36688
gives express consent to the testimony.36689

       (c) If the individual who received crisis response services 36690
is deceased, the surviving spouse or the executor or administrator 36691
of the estate of the deceased individual gives express consent.36692

        (d) The individual who received crisis response services 36693
voluntarily testifies, in which case the team member may be 36694
compelled to testify on the same subject.36695

        (e) The court in camera determines that the information 36696
communicated by the individual who received crisis response 36697
services is not germane to the relationship between the individual 36698
and the team member.36699

       (f) The communication or advice pertains or is related to any 36700
criminal act.36701

       (3) As used in division (K) of this section:36702

       (a) "Crisis response services" means consultation, risk 36703
assessment, referral, and on-site crisis intervention services 36704
provided by a critical incident stress management team to 36705
individuals affected by crisis or disaster.36706

       (b) "Critical incident stress management team member" or 36707
"team member" means an individual specially trained to provide 36708
crisis response services as a member of an organized community or 36709
local crisis response team that holds membership in the Ohio 36710
critical incident stress management network.36711

       (c) "Debriefing session" means a session at which crisis 36712
response services are rendered by a critical incident stress 36713
management team member during or after a crisis or disaster.36714

       (L)(1) Subject to division (L)(2) of this section and except 36715
as provided in division (L)(3) of this section, an employee 36716
assistance professional, concerning a communication made to the 36717
employee assistance professional by a client in the employee 36718
assistance professional's official capacity as an employee 36719
assistance professional.36720

        (2) Division (L)(1) of this section applies to an employee 36721
assistance professional who meets either or both of the following 36722
requirements:36723

        (a) Is certified by the employee assistance certification 36724
commission to engage in the employee assistance profession;36725

        (b) Has education, training, and experience in all of the 36726
following:36727

        (i) Providing workplace-based services designed to address 36728
employer and employee productivity issues;36729

        (ii) Providing assistance to employees and employees' 36730
dependents in identifying and finding the means to resolve 36731
personal problems that affect the employees or the employees' 36732
performance;36733

       (iii) Identifying and resolving productivity problems 36734
associated with an employee's concerns about any of the following 36735
matters: health, marriage, family, finances, substance abuse or 36736
other addiction, workplace, law, and emotional issues;36737

       (iv) Selecting and evaluating available community resources;36738

        (v) Making appropriate referrals;36739

        (vi) Local and national employee assistance agreements;36740

        (vii) Client confidentiality.36741

        (3) Division (L)(1) of this section does not apply to any of 36742
the following:36743

        (a) A criminal action or proceeding involving an offense 36744
under sections 2903.01 to 2903.06 of the Revised Code if the 36745
employee assistance professional's disclosure or testimony relates 36746
directly to the facts or immediate circumstances of the offense;36747

        (b) A communication made by a client to an employee 36748
assistance professional that reveals the contemplation or 36749
commission of a crime or serious, harmful act;36750

        (c) A communication that is made by a client who is an 36751
unemancipated minor or an adult adjudicated to be incompetent and 36752
indicates that the client was the victim of a crime or abuse;36753

       (d) A civil proceeding to determine an individual's mental 36754
competency or a criminal action in which a plea of not guilty by 36755
reason of insanity is entered;36756

        (e) A civil or criminal malpractice action brought against 36757
the employee assistance professional;36758

        (f) When the employee assistance professional has the express 36759
consent of the client or, if the client is deceased or disabled, 36760
the client's legal representative;36761

        (g) When the testimonial privilege otherwise provided by 36762
division (L)(1) of this section is abrogated under law.36763

       Sec. 2317.422.  (A) Notwithstanding sections 2317.40 and 36764
2317.41 of the Revised Code but subject to division (B) of this 36765
section, the records, or copies or photographs of the records, of 36766
a hospital, homes required to be licensed pursuant to section 36767
3721.01 of the Revised Code, and residential facilities licensed 36768
pursuant to section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code that 36769
provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care services 36770
for three to sixteen unrelated adults, in lieu of the testimony in 36771
open court of their custodian, person who made them, or person 36772
under whose supervision they were made, may be qualified as 36773
authentic evidence if any such person endorses thereon the 36774
person's verified certification identifying such records, giving 36775
the mode and time of their preparation, and stating that they were 36776
prepared in the usual course of the business of the institution. 36777
Such records, copies, or photographs may not be qualified by 36778
certification as provided in this section unless the party 36779
intending to offer them delivers a copy of them, or of their 36780
relevant portions, to the attorney of record for each adverse 36781
party not less than five days before trial. Nothing in this 36782
section shall be construed to limit the right of any party to call 36783
the custodian, person who made such records, or person under whose 36784
supervision they were made, as a witness.36785

       (B) Division (A) of this section does not apply to any 36786
certified copy of the results of any test given to determine the 36787
presence or concentration of alcohol, a drug of abuse, a 36788
combination of them, a controlled substance, or a metabolite of a 36789
controlled substance in a patient's whole blood, blood serum or 36790
plasma, breath, or urine at any time relevant to a criminal 36791
offense that is submitted in a criminal action or proceeding in 36792
accordance with division (B)(2)(b) or (B)(3)(b) of section 2317.02 36793
of the Revised Code.36794

       Sec. 2329.192. (A) As used in this section:36795

        (1) "State lien" means a lien upon real estate, including 36796
lands and tenements, of persons indebted to the state for debt, 36797
taxes, or in any other manner recorded by a state agency in any 36798
office of the clerk of a county court or the county recorder.36799

        (2) "State lienholder" means the department, agency, or other 36800
division of the state in whose name a state lien has been filed or 36801
recorded.36802

        (B) In every action seeking the judicial sale of real estate 36803
that is subject to a state lien, all of the following apply:36804

        (1) The party seeking a judicial sale shall include the state 36805
lienholder as a party defendant and shall serve that state 36806
lienholder with a copy of the preliminary judicial report or 36807
commitment for an owner's fee policy of title insurance filed in 36808
accordance with section 2329.191 of the Revised Code.36809

        (2) A state lienholder shall not be made a party defendant if 36810
no state lien has been recorded against the owner of the real 36811
estate for which the judicial sale is sought.36812

        (3) The appearance of the state lienholder shall be presumed 36813
for purposes of jurisdiction, and the court shall take judicial 36814
notice that the state has a lien against the real estate.36815

        (4) A state lienholder may, but is not required to, file an 36816
answer to the complaint or any other pleading in the action if the 36817
amount, validity, or priority of the state lien is not identified 36818
in the pleadings as disputed and shall file an answer to the 36819
complaint or any other pleading in the action if the amount, 36820
validity, or priority of the state lien is identified in the 36821
pleadings as disputed. If a state lien is not identified as 36822
disputed, unless the state files an answer or other responsive 36823
pleading, the party seeking the judicial sale is not required to 36824
serve the state lienholder with any answer or subsequent pleadings 36825
in the action for judicial sale.36826

        (5) As part of any order confirming the sale of the real 36827
estate that is subject to any undisputed state lien or 36828
distributing the proceeds of any judicial sale of real estate, the 36829
undisputed state lien shall be protected as if the state had 36830
appeared in the action and filed an answer asserting the validity 36831
of the state lien as recorded in the office of the clerk of the 36832
county court or the office of the county recorder.36833

        (6) Any party asserting a dispute as to the amount, validity, 36834
or priority of the state lien or of any lien or other interest 36835
that has priority over the state lien shall serve the state 36836
lienholder and the attorney general with notice of the dispute, 36837
and the state lienholder shall be permitted to file a responsive 36838
pleading and participate in the proceedings as if the state 36839
lienholder had been served with a summons on the date the state 36840
lienholder received notice of the dispute.36841

        (C) Upon the judicial sale of the real estate that is the 36842
subject of an action under division (B) of this section, the 36843
interest of any undisputed state lien shall transfer to the 36844
proceeds of the sale of the real estate, and the state lienholder 36845
shall be entitled to payment from the proceeds of the sale of the 36846
real estate in accordance with the state lienholder's priority as 36847
set forth in the final judicial report or commitment for an 36848
owner's fee policy of title insurance filed in accordance with 36849
section 2329.191 of the Revised Code.36850

       Sec. 2335.09.  Whenever, in any criminal proceeding or 36851
prosecution for the violation of an ordinance, or in a hearing 36852
before a coroner, an interpreter is necessary, the judge, 36853
magistrate, or coroner may appoint interpreters, who shall receive 36854
fees as witnesses in the case or proceeding. Such fees shall be 36855
taxed and paid as provided by sections 2335.05 to 2335.08, 36856
inclusive, of the Revised Code for other witness fees. If the 36857
party taxed with costs is indigent, interpreter's fees shall not 36858
be taxed as costs, and the legislative authority of the court 36859
shall pay the interpreter's fees. This section shall not apply if, 36860
by law, an interpreter is otherwise provided.36861

       Sec. 2335.11.  In felony cases in which the defendant is 36862
convicted, the fees of the various magistrates and their officers, 36863
the witness fees, and interpreter's fees shall be inserted in the 36864
judgment of conviction and, when collected shall be disbursed by 36865
the clerk of the court of common pleas to the persons entitled 36866
thereto. In minor state cases, which have come to the court of 36867
common pleas through such magistrate's courts, the fees enumerated 36868
by this section shall be inserted in the judgment of conviction 36869
and, when collected shall be disbursed by the clerk to the persons 36870
entitled thereto. In both felonies and minor state cases, such 36871
clerk shall pay the witness and interpreter's fees into the county 36872
treasury, monthly.36873

       If the defendant is indigent, the interpreter's fees shall 36874
not be inserted in the judgment of conviction, and the county 36875
shall pay the interpreter's fees.36876

       In all cases in which recognizances are taken, forfeited, and 36877
collected, the amount recovered shall be paid into the county 36878
treasury, and if no conviction is had, such costs shall be paid by 36879
the county upon the allowance of the county auditor.36880

       Sec. 2505.02.  (A) As used in this section:36881

       (1) "Substantial right" means a right that the United States 36882
Constitution, the Ohio Constitution, a statute, the common law, or 36883
a rule of procedure entitles a person to enforce or protect.36884

       (2) "Special proceeding" means an action or proceeding that 36885
is specially created by statute and that prior to 1853 was not 36886
denoted as an action at law or a suit in equity.36887

       (3) "Provisional remedy" means a proceeding ancillary to an 36888
action, including, but not limited to, a proceeding for a 36889
preliminary injunction, attachment, discovery of privileged 36890
matter, suppression of evidence, a prima-facie showing pursuant to 36891
section 2307.85 or 2307.86 of the Revised Code, a prima-facie 36892
showing pursuant to section 2307.92 of the Revised Code, or a 36893
finding made pursuant to division (A)(3) of section 2307.93 of the 36894
Revised Code.36895

       (B) An order is a final order that may be reviewed, affirmed, 36896
modified, or reversed, with or without retrial, when it is one of 36897
the following:36898

       (1) An order that affects a substantial right in an action 36899
that in effect determines the action and prevents a judgment;36900

       (2) An order that affects a substantial right made in a 36901
special proceeding or upon a summary application in an action 36902
after judgment;36903

       (3) An order that vacates or sets aside a judgment or grants 36904
a new trial;36905

       (4) An order that grants or denies a provisional remedy and 36906
to which both of the following apply:36907

       (a) The order in effect determines the action with respect to 36908
the provisional remedy and prevents a judgment in the action in 36909
favor of the appealing party with respect to the provisional 36910
remedy.36911

       (b) The appealing party would not be afforded a meaningful or 36912
effective remedy by an appeal following final judgment as to all 36913
proceedings, issues, claims, and parties in the action.36914

       (5) An order that determines that an action may or may not be 36915
maintained as a class action;36916

       (6) An order determining the constitutionality of any changes 36917
to the Revised Code made by Am. Sub. S.B. 281 of the 124th general 36918
assembly, including the amendment of sections 1751.67, 2117.06, 36919
2305.11, 2305.15, 2305.234, 2317.02, 2317.54, 2323.56, 2711.21, 36920
2711.22, 2711.23, 2711.24, 2743.02, 2743.43, 2919.16, 3923.63, 36921
3923.64, 4705.15, and 5111.018 (renumbered as 5164.07 by H.B. 59 36922
of the 130th general assembly), and the enactment of sections 36923
2305.113, 2323.41, 2323.43, and 2323.55 of the Revised Code or any 36924
changes made by Sub. S.B. 80 of the 125th general assembly, 36925
including the amendment of sections 2125.02, 2305.10, 2305.131, 36926
2315.18, 2315.19, and 2315.21 of the Revised Code;36927

       (7) An order in an appropriation proceeding that may be 36928
appealed pursuant to division (B)(3) of section 163.09 of the 36929
Revised Code.36930

       (C) When a court issues an order that vacates or sets aside a 36931
judgment or grants a new trial, the court, upon the request of 36932
either party, shall state in the order the grounds upon which the 36933
new trial is granted or the judgment vacated or set aside.36934

       (D) This section applies to and governs any action, including 36935
an appeal, that is pending in any court on July 22, 1998, and all 36936
claims filed or actions commenced on or after July 22, 1998, 36937
notwithstanding any provision of any prior statute or rule of law 36938
of this state.36939

       Sec. 2701.03.  (A) If a judge of the court of common pleas 36940
allegedly is interested in a proceeding pending before the court, 36941
allegedly is related to or has a bias or prejudice for or against 36942
a party to a proceeding pending before the court or a party's 36943
counsel, or allegedly otherwise is disqualified to preside in a 36944
proceeding pending before the court, any party to the proceeding 36945
or the party's counsel may file an affidavit of disqualification 36946
with the clerk of the supreme court in accordance with division 36947
(B) of this section.36948

       (B) An affidavit of disqualification filed under section 36949
2101.39 or, 2501.13, 2701.031, or 2743.041 of the Revised Code or 36950
division (A) of this section shall be filed with the clerk of the 36951
supreme court not less than seven calendar days before the day on 36952
which the next hearing in the proceeding is scheduled and shall 36953
include all of the following:36954

       (1) The specific allegations on which the claim of interest, 36955
bias, prejudice, or disqualification is based and the facts to 36956
support each of those allegations or, in relation to an affidavit 36957
filed against a judge of a court of appeals, a specific allegation 36958
that the judge presided in the lower court in the same proceeding 36959
and the facts to support that allegation;36960

       (2) The jurat of a notary public or another person authorized 36961
to administer oaths or affirmations;36962

       (3) A certificate indicating that a copy of the affidavit has 36963
been served on the probate judge, judge of a court of appeals, or36964
judge of a court of common pleas, judge of a municipal or county 36965
court, or judge of the court of claims against whom the affidavit 36966
is filed and on all other parties or their counsel;36967

       (4) The date of the next scheduled hearing in the proceeding 36968
or, if there is no hearing scheduled, a statement that there is no 36969
hearing scheduled.36970

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, 36971
when an affidavit of disqualification is presented to the clerk of 36972
the supreme court for filing under division (B) of this section, 36973
all of the following apply:36974

       (a) The clerk of the supreme court shall accept the affidavit 36975
for filing and shall forward the affidavit to the chief justice of 36976
the supreme court.36977

       (b) The supreme court shall send notice of the filing of the 36978
affidavit to the probate court served by the judge if the 36979
affidavit is filed against a probate court judge, to the clerk of 36980
the court of appeals served by the judge if the affidavit is filed 36981
against a judge of a court of appeals, or to the clerk of the 36982
court of common pleas served by the judge if the affidavit is 36983
filed against a judge of a court of common pleas, to the clerk of 36984
the municipal or county court served by the judge if the affidavit 36985
is filed against a judge of a municipal or county court, or to the 36986
clerk of the court of claims if the affidavit is filed against a 36987
judge of the court of claims.36988

       (c) Upon receipt of the notice under division (C)(1)(b) of 36989
this section, the probate court, the clerk of the court of 36990
appeals, or the clerk of the court of common pleas, the clerk of 36991
the municipal or county court, or the clerk of the court of claims36992
shall enter the fact of the filing of the affidavit on the docket 36993
of the probate court, the docket of the court of appeals, or the 36994
docket in the proceeding in the court of common pleas, the docket 36995
of the proceeding in the municipal or county court, or the docket 36996
of the proceeding in the court of claims.36997

       (2) The clerk of the supreme court shall not accept an 36998
affidavit of disqualification presented for filing under division 36999
(B) of this section if it is not timely presented for filing or 37000
does not satisfy the requirements of divisions (B)(2), (3), and 37001
(4) of this section.37002

       (D)(1) Except as provided in divisions (D)(2) to (4) of this 37003
section, if the clerk of the supreme court accepts an affidavit of 37004
disqualification for filing under divisions (B) and (C) of this 37005
section, the affidavit deprives the judge against whom the 37006
affidavit was filed of any authority to preside in the proceeding 37007
until the chief justice of the supreme court, or a justice of the 37008
supreme court designated by the chief justice, rules on the 37009
affidavit pursuant to division (E) of this section.37010

       (2) A judge against whom an affidavit of disqualification has 37011
been filed under divisions (B) and (C) of this section may do any 37012
of the following that is applicable:37013

       (a) If, based on the scheduled hearing date, the affidavit 37014
was not timely filed, the judge may preside in the proceeding.37015

       (b) If the proceeding is a domestic relations proceeding, the 37016
judge may issue any temporary order relating to spousal support 37017
pendente lite and the support, maintenance, and allocation of 37018
parental rights and responsibilities for the care of children.37019

       (c) If the proceeding pertains to a complaint brought 37020
pursuant to Chapter 2151. or 2152. of the Revised Code, the judge 37021
may issue any temporary order pertaining to the relation and 37022
conduct of any other person toward a child who is the subject of a 37023
complaint as the interest and welfare of the child may require.37024

       (3) A judge against whom an affidavit of disqualification has 37025
been filed under divisions (B) and (C) of this section may 37026
determine a matter that does not affect a substantive right of any 37027
of the parties.37028

       (4) If the clerk of the supreme court accepts an affidavit of 37029
disqualification for filing under divisions (B) and (C) of this 37030
section, if the chief justice of the supreme court, or a justice 37031
of the supreme court designated by the chief justice, denies the 37032
affidavit of disqualification pursuant to division (E) of this 37033
section, and if, after the denial, a second or subsequent 37034
affidavit of disqualification regarding the same judge and the 37035
same proceeding is filed by the same party who filed or on whose 37036
behalf was filed the affidavit that was denied or by counsel for 37037
the same party who filed or on whose behalf was filed the 37038
affidavit that was denied, the judge against whom the second or 37039
subsequent affidavit is filed may preside in the proceeding prior 37040
to the ruling of the chief justice of the supreme court, or a 37041
justice designated by the chief justice, on the second or 37042
subsequent affidavit.37043

       (E) If the clerk of the supreme court accepts an affidavit of 37044
disqualification for filing under divisions (B) and (C) of this 37045
section and if the chief justice of the supreme court, or any 37046
justice of the supreme court designated by the chief justice, 37047
determines that the interest, bias, prejudice, or disqualification 37048
alleged in the affidavit does not exist, the chief justice or the 37049
designated justice shall issue an entry denying the affidavit of 37050
disqualification. If the chief justice of the supreme court, or 37051
any justice of the supreme court designated by the chief justice, 37052
determines that the interest, bias, prejudice, or disqualification 37053
alleged in the affidavit exists, the chief justice or the 37054
designated justice shall issue an entry that disqualifies that 37055
judge from presiding in the proceeding and either order that the 37056
proceeding be assigned to another judge of the court of which the 37057
disqualified judge is a member, to a judge of another court, or to 37058
a retired judge.37059

       Sec. 2701.031. (A) If a judge of a municipal or county court 37060
allegedly is interested in a proceeding pending before the judge, 37061
allegedly is related to or has a bias or prejudice for or against 37062
a party to a proceeding pending before the judge or to a party's 37063
counsel, or allegedly otherwise is disqualified to preside in a 37064
proceeding pending before the judge, any party to the proceeding 37065
or the party's counsel may file an affidavit of disqualification 37066
with the clerk of the supreme court in which the proceeding is 37067
pending. The affidavit of disqualification shall be filed and 37068
decided in accordance with divisions (B) to (E) of section 2701.03 37069
of the Revised Code, and, upon the filing of the affidavit, the 37070
provisions of those divisions apply to the affidavit, the 37071
proceeding, the judge, and the parties to the proceeding.37072

       (B) An affidavit of disqualification shall be filed under 37073
this section with the clerk of the court in which the proceeding 37074
is pending not less than seven calendar days before the day on 37075
which the next hearing in the proceeding is scheduled and shall 37076
include all of the following:37077

       (1) The specific allegations on which the claim of interest, 37078
bias, prejudice, or disqualification is based and the facts to 37079
support each of those allegations;37080

       (2) The jurat of a notary public or another person authorized 37081
to administer oaths or affirmations;37082

       (3) A certificate indicating that a copy of the affidavit has 37083
been served on the judge of the municipal or county court against 37084
whom the affidavit is filed and on all other parties or their 37085
counsel;37086

       (4) The date of the next scheduled hearing in the proceeding 37087
or, if there is no hearing scheduled, a statement that there is no 37088
hearing scheduled.37089

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, 37090
when an affidavit of disqualification is presented to the clerk of 37091
a municipal or county court for filing under division (B) of this 37092
section, the clerk shall enter the fact of the filing on the 37093
docket in that proceeding and shall provide notice of the filing 37094
of the affidavit to one of the following:37095

       (a) The presiding judge of the court of common pleas of the 37096
county;37097

       (b) If there is no presiding judge of the court of common 37098
pleas of the county, a judge of the court of common pleas of the 37099
county.37100

       (2) The clerk of the municipal or county court in which a 37101
proceeding is pending shall not accept an affidavit of 37102
disqualification presented for filing under division (B) of this 37103
section if it is not timely presented for filing or does not 37104
satisfy the requirements of divisions (B)(2), (3), and (4) of this 37105
section.37106

       (D)(1) Except as provided in divisions (D)(2) to (4) of this 37107
section, if the clerk of the municipal or county court in which a 37108
proceeding is pending accepts an affidavit of disqualification for 37109
filing under divisions (B) and (C) of this section, the affidavit 37110
deprives the judge of a municipal or county court against whom the 37111
affidavit was filed of any authority to preside in the proceeding 37112
until the judge who was notified pursuant to division (C)(1) of 37113
this section rules on the affidavit pursuant to division (E) of 37114
this section.37115

       (2) A judge of a municipal or county court against whom an 37116
affidavit of disqualification has been filed under divisions (B) 37117
and (C) of this section may preside in the proceeding if, based on 37118
the scheduled hearing date, the affidavit was not timely filed.37119

       (3) A judge of a municipal or county court against whom an 37120
affidavit of disqualification has been filed under divisions (B) 37121
and (C) of this section may determine a matter that does not 37122
affect a substantive right of any of the parties.37123

       (4) If the clerk of a municipal or county court accepts an 37124
affidavit of disqualification for filing under divisions (B) and 37125
(C) of this section, if the judge who is notified pursuant to 37126
division (C)(1) of this section of the filing of the affidavit of 37127
disqualification denies the affidavit pursuant to division (E) of 37128
this section, and if, after the denial, a second or subsequent 37129
affidavit of disqualification regarding the same judge and the 37130
same proceeding is filed by the same party who filed or on whose 37131
behalf was filed the affidavit that was denied or by counsel for 37132
the same party who filed or on whose behalf was filed the 37133
affidavit that was denied, the judge of a municipal or county 37134
court against whom the second or subsequent affidavit is filed may 37135
preside in the proceeding prior to the ruling, by the judge who is 37136
notified pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section, on the 37137
second or subsequent affidavit pursuant to division (E) of this 37138
section.37139

       (E) If the clerk of a municipal or county court accepts an 37140
affidavit of disqualification for filing under divisions (B) and 37141
(C) of this section and if the judge who is notified pursuant to 37142
division (C)(1) of this section of the filing of the affidavit 37143
determines that the interest, bias, prejudice, or disqualification 37144
alleged in the affidavit does not exist, the judge who is so 37145
notified shall issue an entry denying the affidavit of 37146
disqualification. If the judge who is notified pursuant to 37147
division (C)(1) of this section of the filing of the affidavit 37148
determines that the interest, bias, prejudice, or disqualification 37149
alleged in the affidavit exists, the judge who is so notified 37150
shall issue an entry that disqualifies the judge against whom the 37151
affidavit was filed from presiding in the proceeding and designate 37152
another judge of the municipal or county court, or of the court of 37153
common pleas, to preside in the proceeding in place of the 37154
disqualified judge.37155

       Sec. 2743.03.  (A)(1) There is hereby created a court of 37156
claims. The court of claims is a court of record and has 37157
exclusive, original jurisdiction of all civil actions against the 37158
state permitted by the waiver of immunity contained in section 37159
2743.02 of the Revised Code,and exclusive jurisdiction of the 37160
causes of action of all parties in civil actions that are removed 37161
to the court of claims, and jurisdiction to hear appeals from the 37162
decisions of the court of claims commissioners. The court shall 37163
have full equity powers in all actions within its jurisdiction and 37164
may entertain and determine all counterclaims, cross-claims, and 37165
third-party claims.37166

       (2) If the claimant in a civil action as described in 37167
division (A)(1) of this section also files a claim for a 37168
declaratory judgment, injunctive relief, or other equitable relief 37169
against the state that arises out of the same circumstances that 37170
gave rise to the civil action described in division (A)(1) of this 37171
section, the court of claims has exclusive, original jurisdiction 37172
to hear and determine that claim in that civil action. This 37173
division does not affect, and shall not be construed as affecting, 37174
the original jurisdiction of another court of this state to hear 37175
and determine a civil action in which the sole relief that the 37176
claimant seeks against the state is a declaratory judgment, 37177
injunctive relief, or other equitable relief.37178

       (3) In addition to its exclusive, original jurisdiction as 37179
conferred by division (A)(1) and (2) of this section, the court of 37180
claims has exclusive, original jurisdiction as described in 37181
division (F) of section 2743.02, division (B) of section 3335.03, 37182
and division (C) of section 5903.02 of the Revised Code.37183

       (B) The court of claims shall sit in Franklin county, its 37184
hearings shall be public, and it shall consist of incumbent 37185
justices or judges of the supreme court, courts of appeals, or 37186
courts of common pleas, or retired justices or judges eligible for 37187
active duty pursuant to division (C) of Section 6 of Article IV, 37188
Ohio Constitution, sitting by temporary assignment of the chief 37189
justice of the supreme court. The chief justice may direct the 37190
court to sit in any county for cases on removal upon a showing of 37191
substantial hardship and whenever justice dictates.37192

       (C)(1) A civil action against the state shall be heard and 37193
determined by a single judge. Upon application by the claimant or 37194
the state, the chief justice of the supreme court may assign a 37195
panel of three judges to hear and determine a civil action 37196
presenting novel or complex issues of law or fact. Concurrence of 37197
two members of the panel is necessary for any judgment or order.37198

       (2) Whenever the chief justice of the supreme court believes 37199
an equitable resolution of a case will be expedited, the chief 37200
justice may appoint refereesmagistrates in accordance with Civil 37201
Rule 53 to hear the case.37202

       (3) When any dispute under division (B) of section 153.12 of 37203
the Revised Code is brought to the court of claims, upon request 37204
of either party to the dispute, the chief justice of the supreme 37205
court shall appoint a single referee or a panel of three referees. 37206
The referees need not be attorneys, but shall be persons 37207
knowledgeable about construction contract law, a member of the 37208
construction industry panel of the American arbitration 37209
association, or an individual or individuals deemed qualified by 37210
the chief justice to serve. No person shall serve as a referee if 37211
that person has been employed by an affected state agency or a 37212
contractor or subcontractor involved in the dispute at any time in 37213
the preceding five years. Proceedings governing referees shall be 37214
in accordance with Civil Rule 53, except as modified by this 37215
division. The referee or panel of referees shall submit its 37216
report, which shall include a recommendation and finding of fact, 37217
to the judge assigned to the case by the chief justice, within 37218
thirty days of the conclusion of the hearings. Referees appointed 37219
pursuant to this division shall be compensated on a per diem basis 37220
at the same rate as is paid to judges of the court and also shall 37221
be paid their expenses. If a single referee is appointed or a 37222
panel of three referees is appointed, then, with respect to one 37223
referee of the panel, the compensation and expenses of the referee 37224
shall not be taxed as part of the costs in the case but shall be 37225
included in the budget of the court. If a panel of three referees 37226
is appointed, the compensation and expenses of the two remaining 37227
referees shall be taxed as costs of the case.37228

       All costs of a case shall be apportioned among the parties. 37229
The court may not require that any party deposit with the court 37230
cash, bonds, or other security in excess of two hundred dollars to 37231
guarantee payment of costs without the prior approval in each case 37232
of the chief justice.37233

       (4) An appeal from a decision of the court of claims 37234
commissionersattorney general shall be heard and determined by 37235
one judge of the court of claims.37236

       (D) The Rules of Civil Procedure shall govern practice and 37237
procedure in all actions in the court of claims, except insofar as 37238
inconsistent with this chapter. The supreme court may promulgate 37239
rules governing practice and procedure in actions in the court as 37240
provided in Section 5 of Article IV, Ohio Constitution.37241

       (E)(1) A party who files a counterclaim against the state or 37242
makes the state a third-party defendant in an action commenced in 37243
any court, other than the court of claims, shall file a petition 37244
for removal in the court of claims. The petition shall state the 37245
basis for removal, be accompanied by a copy of all process, 37246
pleadings, and other papers served upon the petitioner, and shall 37247
be signed in accordance with Civil Rule 11. A petition for removal 37248
based on a counterclaim shall be filed within twenty-eight days 37249
after service of the counterclaim of the petitioner. A petition 37250
for removal based on third-party practice shall be filed within 37251
twenty-eight days after the filing of the third-party complaint of 37252
the petitioner.37253

       (2) Within seven days after filing a petition for removal, 37254
the petitioner shall give written notice to the parties, and shall 37255
file a copy of the petition with the clerk of the court in which 37256
the action was brought originally. The filing effects the removal 37257
of the action to the court of claims, and the clerk of the court 37258
where the action was brought shall forward all papers in the case 37259
to the court of claims. The court of claims shall adjudicate all 37260
civil actions removed. The court may remand a civil action to the 37261
court in which it originated upon a finding that the removal 37262
petition does not justify removal, or upon a finding that the 37263
state is no longer a party.37264

       (3) Bonds, undertakings, or security and injunctions, 37265
attachments, sequestrations, or other orders issued prior to 37266
removal remain in effect until dissolved or modified by the court 37267
of claims.37268

       Sec. 2743.041.  If a judge of the court of claims allegedly 37269
is interested in a proceeding pending before the judge, allegedly 37270
is related to or has a bias or prejudice for or against a party to 37271
a proceeding pending before the judge or to a party's counsel, or 37272
allegedly otherwise is disqualified to preside in a proceeding 37273
pending before the judge, any party to the proceeding or the 37274
party's counsel may file an affidavit of disqualification with the 37275
clerk of the supreme court. The affidavit of disqualification 37276
shall be filed and decided in accordance with divisions (B) to (E) 37277
of section 2701.03 of the Revised Code, and, upon the filing of 37278
the affidavit, the provisions of those divisions apply to the 37279
affidavit, the proceeding, the judge, and the parties to the 37280
proceeding.37281

       Sec. 2743.09.  The clerk of the court of claims shall do all 37282
of the following:37283

       (A) Administer oaths and take and certify affidavits, 37284
depositions, and acknowledgments of powers of attorney and other 37285
instruments in writing;37286

       (B) Prepare the dockets, enter and record the orders, 37287
judgments, decisions, awards, and proceedings of the court of 37288
claims and the court of claims commissioners, and issue writs and 37289
process;37290

       (C) Maintain an office in Franklin county in rooms provided 37291
by the supreme court for that purpose;37292

       (D) Keep an appearance docket of civil actions,and claims 37293
for an award of reparations, and appeals from decisions of the 37294
court of claims commissioners. The clerk may refuse to accept for 37295
filing any pleading or paper that relates to a civil action in the 37296
court of claims and that is submitted for filing by a person who 37297
has been found to be a vexatious litigator under section 2323.52 37298
of the Revised Code and who has failed to obtain leave to proceed 37299
under that section.37300

       Upon the commencement of an action or claim, the clerk shall 37301
assign it a number. This number shall be placed on the first page, 37302
and every continuation page, of the appearance docket that 37303
concerns the particular action or claim. In addition, this number 37304
and the names of the parties shall be placed on the case file and 37305
every paper filed in the action or claim.37306

       At the time the action is commenced the clerk shall enter in 37307
the appearance docket the names of the parties in full and the 37308
names of counsel and shall index the action alphabetically by the 37309
last name of each party. Thereafter, the clerk shall 37310
chronologically note in the appearance docket all process issued 37311
and returns, pleas, motions, papers filed in the action, orders, 37312
verdicts, and judgments. The notations shall be brief but shall 37313
show the date of filing, substance, and journal volume and page of 37314
each order, verdict, and judgment. An action is commenced for 37315
purposes of this division by the filing of a complaint, including 37316
a form complaint under section 2743.10 of the Revised Code or a 37317
petition for removal.37318

       At the time an appeal for an award of reparations is 37319
commenced, the clerk shall enter the full names of the claimant, 37320
the victim, and the attorneys in the appearance docket and shall 37321
index the claim alphabetically by the last name of the claimant 37322
and the victim. Thereafter, the clerk shall chronologically note 37323
in the appearance docket all process issued and returns, motions, 37324
papers filed in the claim, orders, decisions, and awards. The 37325
notations shall be brief but shall show the date of filing, 37326
substance, and journal volume and page of each order. 37327

       (E) Keep all original papers filed in an action or claim in a 37328
separate file folder and a journal in which all orders, verdicts, 37329
and judgments of the court and commissioners shall be recorded;37330

       (F) Charge and collect fees pursuant to section 2303.20 of 37331
the Revised Code, keep a cashbook in which the clerk shall enter 37332
the amounts received, make a report to the clerk of the supreme 37333
court each quarter of the fees received during the preceding 37334
quarter, and pay them monthly into the state treasury;37335

       (G) Appoint reporters and other clerical personnel;37336

       (H) Under the direction of the chief justice, establish 37337
procedures for hearing and determining appeals for an award of 37338
reparations pursuant to sections 2743.51 to 2743.72 of the Revised 37339
Code.37340

       Sec. 2743.121. (A) A panel of court of claims commissioners 37341
shall render its decisions as to claims for an award of 37342
reparations in writing and shall include separate findings of fact 37343
and any conclusions of law that are necessary. Orders as to claims 37344
for an award of reparations shall be entered on the journal, and 37345
the clerk shall certify on the order the date of journalization 37346
and shall send copies of the order and decision to the claimant, 37347
the attorney general, and the prosecuting attorney of the county 37348
in which the criminally injurious conduct occurred.37349

       (B) A judge of theThe court of claims shall render the 37350
judge'sits decisions as to appeals from decisions of a panel of 37351
court of claims commissionersthe attorney general pursuant to 37352
sections 2743.51 to 2743.72 of the Revised Code in writing and 37353
shall include a separate finding for each issue contested upon 37354
appeal. Orders as to appeals shall be entered on the journal, and 37355
the clerk shall certify on the order the date of journalization 37356
and shall send copies of the order and decision to the claimant, 37357
the attorney general, and the prosecuting attorney of the county 37358
in which the criminally injurious conduct occurred.37359

       Sec. 2743.20.  Appeals from orders and judgments of the court 37360
of claims lie to the same courts under the same circumstances, as 37361
appeals from the court of common pleas of Franklin county, and the 37362
same rules of law govern their determination. The decision of the 37363
court of claims with respect to an appeal from a decision of the 37364
court of claims commissionersthe attorney general pursuant to 37365
sections 2743.51 to 2743.72 of the Revised Code is final, and no 37366
appeal from the decision of the court of claims lies to any other 37367
court.37368

       Sec. 2743.48.  (A) As used in this section and section 37369
2743.49 of the Revised Code, a "wrongfully imprisoned individual" 37370
means an individual who satisfies each of the following:37371

       (1) The individual was charged with a violation of a section 37372
of the Revised Code by an indictment or information, and the 37373
violation charged was an aggravated felony or felony.37374

       (2) The individual was found guilty of, but did not plead 37375
guilty to, the particular charge or a lesser-included offense by 37376
the court or jury involved, and the offense of which the 37377
individual was found guilty was an aggravated felony or felony.37378

       (3) The individual was sentenced to an indefinite or definite 37379
term of imprisonment in a state correctional institution for the 37380
offense of which the individual was found guilty.37381

       (4) The individual's conviction was vacated, dismissed, or 37382
reversed on appeal, the prosecuting attorney in the case cannot or 37383
will not seek any further appeal of right or upon leave of court, 37384
and no criminal proceeding is pending, can be brought, or will be 37385
brought by any prosecuting attorney, city director of law, village 37386
solicitor, or other chief legal officer of a municipal corporation 37387
against the individual for any act associated with that 37388
conviction.37389

       (5) Subsequent to sentencing and during or subsequent to 37390
imprisonment, an error in procedure resulted in the individual's 37391
release, or it was determined by the court of common pleas in the 37392
county where the underlying criminal action was initiated that the 37393
charged offense, including all lesser-included offenses, either 37394
was not committed by the individual or was not committed by any 37395
person.37396

       (B)(1) A person may file a civil action to be declared a 37397
wrongfully imprisoned individual in the court of common pleas in 37398
the county where the underlying criminal action was initiated. 37399
That civil action shall be separate from the underlying finding of 37400
guilt by the court of common pleas. The prosecuting attorney of 37401
that county shall be served with a copy of the complaint and shall 37402
defend all civil actions to determine a person to be a wrongfully 37403
imprisoned individual under this section. Upon the filing of a 37404
civil action to be determined a wrongfully imprisoned individual, 37405
the attorney general also shall be served with a copy of the 37406
complaint and shall be heard.37407

       (2) When the court of common pleas in the county where the 37408
underlying criminal action was initiated determines in a separate 37409
civil action that a person is a wrongfully imprisoned individual, 37410
the court shall provide the person with a copy of this section and 37411
orally inform the person and the person's attorney of the person's 37412
rights under this section to commence a civil action against the 37413
state in the court of claims because of the person's wrongful 37414
imprisonment and to be represented in that civil action by counsel 37415
of the person's own choice.37416

       (3) The court described in division (B)(1) of this section 37417
shall notify the clerk of the court of claims, in writing and 37418
within seven days after the date of the entry of its determination 37419
that the person is a wrongfully imprisoned individual, of the name 37420
and proposed mailing address of the person and of the fact that 37421
the person has the rights to commence a civil action and to have 37422
legal representation as provided in this section. The clerk of the 37423
court of claims shall maintain in the clerk's office a list of 37424
wrongfully imprisoned individuals for whom notices are received 37425
under this section and shall create files in the clerk's office 37426
for each such individual.37427

       (4) Within sixty days after the date of the entry of the 37428
determination by the court of common pleas in the county where the 37429
underlying criminal action was initiated that a person is a 37430
wrongfully imprisoned individual, the clerk of the court of claims 37431
shall forward a preliminary judgment to the president of the 37432
controlling board requesting the payment of fifty per cent of the 37433
amount described in division (E)(2)(b) of this section to the 37434
wrongfully imprisoned individual. The board shall take all actions 37435
necessary to cause the payment of that amount out of the emergency 37436
purposes special purpose account of the board.37437

       (5) If an individual was serving at the time of the wrongful 37438
imprisonment concurrent sentences on other convictions that were 37439
not vacated, dismissed, or reversed on appeal, the individual is 37440
not eligible for compensation as described in this section for any 37441
portion of that wrongful imprisonment that occurred during a 37442
concurrent sentence of that nature.37443

       (C)(1) In a civil action under this section, a wrongfully 37444
imprisoned individual has the right to have counsel of the 37445
individual's own choice.37446

       (2) If a wrongfully imprisoned individual who is the subject 37447
of a court determination as described in division (B)(2) of this 37448
section does not commence a civil action under this section within 37449
six months after the entry of that determination, the clerk of the 37450
court of claims shall send a letter to the wrongfully imprisoned 37451
individual, at the address set forth in the notice received from 37452
the court of common pleas pursuant to division (B)(3) of this 37453
section or to any later address provided by the wrongfully 37454
imprisoned individual, that reminds the wrongfully imprisoned 37455
individual of the wrongfully imprisoned individual's rights under 37456
this section. Until the statute of limitations provided in 37457
division (H) of this section expires and unless the wrongfully 37458
imprisoned individual commences a civil action under this section, 37459
the clerk of the court of claims shall send a similar letter in a 37460
similar manner to the wrongfully imprisoned individual at least 37461
once each three months after the sending of the first reminder.37462

       (D) Notwithstanding any provisions of this chapter to the 37463
contrary, a wrongfully imprisoned individual has and may file a 37464
civil action against the state, in the court of claims, to recover 37465
a sum of money as described in this section, because of the 37466
individual's wrongful imprisonment. The court of claims shall have 37467
exclusive, original jurisdiction over such a civil action. The 37468
civil action shall proceed, be heard, and be determined as 37469
provided in sections 2743.01 to 2743.20 of the Revised Code, 37470
except that if a provision of this section conflicts with a 37471
provision in any of those sections, the provision in this section 37472
controls.37473

       (E)(1) In a civil action as described in division (D) of this 37474
section, the complainant may establish that the claimant is a 37475
wrongfully imprisoned individual by submitting to the court of 37476
claims a certified copy of the judgment entry of the court of 37477
common pleas associated with the claimant's conviction and 37478
sentencing, and a certified copy of the entry of the determination 37479
of the court of common pleas that the claimant is a wrongfully 37480
imprisoned individual under division (B)(2) of this section. No 37481
other evidence shall be required of the complainant to establish 37482
that the claimant is a wrongfully imprisoned individual, and the 37483
claimant shall be irrebuttably presumed to be a wrongfully 37484
imprisoned individual.37485

       (2) In a civil action as described in division (D) of this 37486
section, upon presentation of requisite proof to the court of 37487
claims, a wrongfully imprisoned individual is entitled to receive 37488
a sum of money that equals the total of each of the following 37489
amounts:37490

       (a) The amount of any fine or court costs imposed and paid, 37491
and the reasonable attorney's fees and other expenses incurred by 37492
the wrongfully imprisoned individual in connection with all 37493
associated criminal proceedings and appeals, and, if applicable, 37494
in connection with obtaining the wrongfully imprisoned 37495
individual's discharge from confinement in the state correctional 37496
institution;37497

       (b) For each full year of imprisonment in the state 37498
correctional institution for the offense of which the wrongfully 37499
imprisoned individual was found guilty, forty thousand three 37500
hundred thirty dollars or the adjusted amount determined by the 37501
auditor of state pursuant to section 2743.49 of the Revised Code, 37502
and for each part of a year of being so imprisoned, a pro-rated 37503
share of forty thousand three hundred thirty dollars or the 37504
adjusted amount determined by the auditor of state pursuant to 37505
section 2743.49 of the Revised Code;37506

       (c) Any loss of wages, salary, or other earned income that 37507
directly resulted from the wrongfully imprisoned individual's 37508
arrest, prosecution, conviction, and wrongful imprisonment;37509

       (d) The amount of the following cost debts the department of 37510
rehabilitation and correction recovered from the wrongfully 37511
imprisoned individual who was in custody of the department or 37512
under the department's supervision:37513

       (i) Any user fee or copayment for services at a detention 37514
facility, including, but not limited to, a fee or copayment for 37515
sick call visits;37516

       (ii) The cost of housing and feeding the wrongfully 37517
imprisoned individual in a detention facility;37518

       (iii) The cost of supervision of the wrongfully imprisoned 37519
individual;37520

       (iv) The cost of any ancillary services provided to the 37521
wrongfully imprisoned individual.37522

       (F)(1) If the court of claims determines in a civil action as 37523
described in division (D) of this section that the complainant is 37524
a wrongfully imprisoned individual, it shall enter judgment for 37525
the wrongfully imprisoned individual in the amount of the sum of 37526
money to which the wrongfully imprisoned individual is entitled 37527
under division (E)(2) of this section. In determining that sum, 37528
the court of claims shall not take into consideration any expenses 37529
incurred by the state or any of its political subdivisions in 37530
connection with the arrest, prosecution, and imprisonment of the 37531
wrongfully imprisoned individual, including, but not limited to, 37532
expenses for food, clothing, shelter, and medical services. The 37533
court shall reduce that sum by the amount of the payment to the 37534
wrongfully imprisoned individual described in division (B)(4) of 37535
this section.37536

       (2) If the wrongfully imprisoned individual was represented 37537
in the civil action under this section by counsel of the 37538
wrongfully imprisoned individual's own choice, the court of claims 37539
shall include in the judgment entry referred to in division (F)(1) 37540
of this section an award for the reasonable attorney's fees of 37541
that counsel. These fees shall be paid as provided in division (G) 37542
of this section.37543

       (3) The state consents to be sued by a wrongfully imprisoned 37544
individual because the imprisonment was wrongful, and to liability 37545
on its part because of that fact, only as provided in this 37546
section. However, this section does not affect any liability of 37547
the state or of its employees to a wrongfully imprisoned 37548
individual on a claim for relief that is not based on the fact of 37549
the wrongful imprisonment, including, but not limited to, a claim 37550
for relief that arises out of circumstances occurring during the 37551
wrongfully imprisoned individual's confinement in the state 37552
correctional institution.37553

       (G) The clerk of the court of claims shall forward a 37554
certified copy of a judgment under division (F) of this section to 37555
the president of the controlling board. The board shall take all 37556
actions necessary to cause the payment of the judgment out of the 37557
emergency purposes special purpose account of the board.37558

       (H) To be eligible to recover a sum of money as described in 37559
this section because of wrongful imprisonment, both of the 37560
following shall apply to a wrongfully imprisoned individual:37561

       (1) The wrongfully imprisoned individual shall not have been, 37562
prior to September 24, 1986, the subject of an act of the general 37563
assembly that authorized an award of compensation for the wrongful 37564
imprisonment or have been the subject of an action before the 37565
former sundry claims board that resulted in an award of 37566
compensation for the wrongful imprisonment. 37567

       (2) The wrongfully imprisoned individual shall commence a 37568
civil action under this section in the court of claims no later 37569
than two years after the date of the entry of the determination of 37570
the court of common pleas that the individual is a wrongfully 37571
imprisoned individual under division (B)(2) of this section.37572

       Sec. 2743.52.  (A) The attorney general shall make awards of 37573
reparations for economic loss arising from criminally injurious 37574
conduct, if satisfied by a preponderance of the evidence that the 37575
requirements for an award of reparations have been met.37576

       (B) AThe court of claims panel of commissioners or a judge 37577
of the court of claims has appellate jurisdiction to order awards 37578
of reparations for economic loss arising from criminally injurious 37579
conduct, if satisfied by a preponderance of the evidence that the 37580
requirements for an award of reparations have been met.37581

       (C) A decision of the attorney general, an order of a court 37582
of claims panel of commissioners, or the judgment of a judge of37583
the court of claims concerning an OVI violation shall not be used 37584
as the basis for any civil or criminal action and shall not be 37585
admissible as evidence in any civil or criminal proceeding.37586

       Sec. 2743.53. (A) AThe court of claims panel of 37587
commissioners shall hear and determine all matters relating to 37588
appeals from decisions of the attorney general pursuant to 37589
sections 2743.51 to 2743.72 of the Revised Code.37590

       (B) A judge of the court of claims shall hear and determine 37591
all matters relating to appeals from decisions or orders of a 37592
panel of commissioners of the court of claims.37593

       Sec. 2743.531.  The court of claims victims of crime fund is 37594
hereby created in the state treasury. The fund shall be used to 37595
pay the compensation of the court of claims commissioners, the 37596
compensation of judges of the court of claims necessary to hear 37597
and determine appeals from the commissioners, the compensation of 37598
any court of claims personnel needed to administer sections 37599
2743.51 to 2743.72 of the Revised Code, and other administrative 37600
expenses of hearing and determining appeals by court of claims 37601
commissioners and judgesunder sections 2743.51 to 2743.72 of the 37602
Revised Code.37603

       At the beginning of each fiscal year, the director of budget 37604
and management shall transfer cash from the reparations fund to 37605
the court of claims victims of crime fund in an amount sufficient 37606
to make the cash balance in the court of claims victims of crime 37607
fund equal to the sum of the appropriation for that fiscal year 37608
and all prior fiscal year encumbrances. If the appropriation from 37609
the court of claims victims of crime fund is increased during the 37610
fiscal year, the director shall transfer cash from the reparations 37611
fund to the court of claims victims of crime fund in an amount 37612
equal to the increase in the appropriation.37613

       Sec. 2743.55. (A) The attorney general, a court of claims 37614
panel of commissioners, or a judge of the court of claims shall 37615
determine all matters relating to claims for an award of 37616
reparations. The attorney general, a court of claims panel of 37617
commissioners, or a judge of the court of claims may order law 37618
enforcement officers to provide copies of any information or data 37619
gathered in the investigation of the criminally injurious conduct 37620
that is the basis of any claim to enable the attorney general, a 37621
court of claims panel of commissioners, or a judge of the court of 37622
claims to determine whether, and the extent to which, a claimant 37623
qualifies for an award of reparations.37624

       (B) A court of claims panel of commissioners shall sit in 37625
Franklin county.37626

       Sec. 2743.60.  (A) The attorney general, a court of claims 37627
panel of commissioners, or a judge of the court of claims shall 37628
not make or order an award of reparations to a claimant if the 37629
criminally injurious conduct upon which the claimant bases a claim 37630
never was reported to a law enforcement officer or agency.37631

       (B)(1) The attorney general, a panel of commissioners, or a 37632
judge of the court of claims shall not make or order an award of 37633
reparations to a claimant if any of the following apply:37634

       (a) The claimant is the offender or an accomplice of the 37635
offender who committed the criminally injurious conduct, or the 37636
award would unjustly benefit the offender or accomplice.37637

       (b) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section, 37638
both of the following apply:37639

       (i) The victim was a passenger in a motor vehicle and knew or 37640
reasonably should have known that the driver was under the 37641
influence of alcohol, a drug of abuse, or both.37642

       (ii) The claimant is seeking compensation for injuries 37643
proximately caused by the driver described in division 37644
(B)(1)(b)(i) of this section being under the influence of alcohol, 37645
a drug of abuse, or both.37646

       (c) Both of the following apply:37647

       (i) The victim was under the influence of alcohol, a drug of 37648
abuse, or both and was a passenger in a motor vehicle and, if 37649
sober, should have reasonably known that the driver was under the 37650
influence of alcohol, a drug of abuse, or both.37651

       (ii) The claimant is seeking compensation for injuries 37652
proximately caused by the driver described in division 37653
(B)(1)(b)(i) of this section being under the influence of alcohol, 37654
a drug of abuse, or both.37655

       (2) Division (B)(1)(b) of this section does not apply if on 37656
the date of the occurrence of the criminally injurious conduct, 37657
the victim was under sixteen years of age or was at least sixteen 37658
years of age but less than eighteen years of age and was riding 37659
with a parent, guardian, or care-provider.37660

       (C) The attorney general, a panel of commissioners, or a 37661
judge of the court of claims, upon a finding that the claimant or 37662
victim has not fully cooperated with appropriate law enforcement 37663
agencies, may deny a claim or reconsider and reduce an award of 37664
reparations.37665

       (D) The attorney general, a panel of commissioners, or a 37666
judge of the court of claims shall reduce an award of reparations 37667
or deny a claim for an award of reparations that is otherwise 37668
payable to a claimant to the extent that the economic loss upon 37669
which the claim is based is recouped from other persons, including 37670
collateral sources. If an award is reduced or a claim is denied 37671
because of the expected recoupment of all or part of the economic 37672
loss of the claimant from a collateral source, the amount of the 37673
award or the denial of the claim shall be conditioned upon the 37674
claimant's economic loss being recouped by the collateral source. 37675
If the award or denial is conditioned upon the recoupment of the 37676
claimant's economic loss from a collateral source and it is 37677
determined that the claimant did not unreasonably fail to present 37678
a timely claim to the collateral source and will not receive all 37679
or part of the expected recoupment, the claim may be reopened and 37680
an award may be made in an amount equal to the amount of expected 37681
recoupment that it is determined the claimant will not receive 37682
from the collateral source.37683

       If the claimant recoups all or part of the economic loss upon 37684
which the claim is based from any other person or entity, 37685
including a collateral source, the attorney general may recover 37686
pursuant to section 2743.72 of the Revised Code the part of the 37687
award that represents the economic loss for which the claimant 37688
received the recoupment from the other person or entity.37689

       (E)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (E)(2) of 37690
this section, the attorney general, a panel of commissioners, or a 37691
judge of the court of claims shall not make an award to a claimant 37692
if any of the following applies:37693

       (a) The victim was convicted of a felony within ten years 37694
prior to the criminally injurious conduct that gave rise to the 37695
claim or is convicted of a felony during the pendency of the 37696
claim.37697

       (b) The claimant was convicted of a felony within ten years 37698
prior to the criminally injurious conduct that gave rise to the 37699
claim or is convicted of a felony during the pendency of the 37700
claim.37701

       (c) It is proved by a preponderance of the evidence that the 37702
victim or the claimant engaged, within ten years prior to the 37703
criminally injurious conduct that gave rise to the claim or during 37704
the pendency of the claim, in an offense of violence, a violation 37705
of section 2925.03 of the Revised Code, or any substantially 37706
similar offense that also would constitute a felony under the laws 37707
of this state, another state, or the United States.37708

       (d) The claimant was convicted of a violation of section 37709
2919.22 or 2919.25 of the Revised Code, or of any state law or 37710
municipal ordinance substantially similar to either section, 37711
within ten years prior to the criminally injurious conduct that 37712
gave rise to the claim or during the pendency of the claim.37713

       (e) It is proved by a preponderance of the evidence that the 37714
victim at the time of the criminally injurious conduct that gave 37715
rise to the claim engaged in conduct that was a felony violation 37716
of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code or engaged in any 37717
substantially similar conduct that would constitute a felony under 37718
the laws of this state, another state, or the United States.37719

       (2) The attorney general, a panel of commissioners, or a 37720
judge of the court of claims may make an award to a minor 37721
dependent of a deceased victim for dependent's economic loss or 37722
for counseling pursuant to division (F)(2) of section 2743.51 of 37723
the Revised Code if the minor dependent is not ineligible under 37724
division (E)(1) of this section due to the minor dependent's 37725
criminal history and if the victim was not killed while engaging 37726
in illegal conduct that contributed to the criminally injurious 37727
conduct that gave rise to the claim. For purposes of this section, 37728
the use of illegal drugs by the deceased victim shall not be 37729
deemed to have contributed to the criminally injurious conduct 37730
that gave rise to the claim.37731

       (F) In determining whether to make an award of reparations 37732
pursuant to this section, the attorney general or panel of 37733
commissionersthe court of claims shall consider whether there was 37734
contributory misconduct by the victim or the claimant. The 37735
attorney general, a panel of commissioners, or a judge of the 37736
court of claims shall reduce an award of reparations or deny a 37737
claim for an award of reparations to the extent it is determined 37738
to be reasonable because of the contributory misconduct of the 37739
claimant or the victim.37740

       When the attorney general decides whether a claim should be 37741
denied because of an allegation of contributory misconduct, the 37742
burden of proof on the issue of that alleged contributory 37743
misconduct shall be upon the claimant, if either of the following 37744
apply:37745

       (1) The victim was convicted of a felony more than ten years 37746
prior to the criminally injurious conduct that is the subject of 37747
the claim or has a record of felony arrests under the laws of this 37748
state, another state, or the United States.37749

       (2) There is good cause to believe that the victim engaged in 37750
an ongoing course of criminal conduct within five years or less of 37751
the criminally injurious conduct that is the subject of the claim.37752

       (G) The attorney general, a panel of commissioners, or a 37753
judge of the court of claims shall not make an award of 37754
reparations to a claimant if the criminally injurious conduct that 37755
caused the injury or death that is the subject of the claim 37756
occurred to a victim who was an adult and while the victim, after 37757
being convicted of or pleading guilty to an offense, was serving a 37758
sentence of imprisonment in any detention facility, as defined in 37759
section 2921.01 of the Revised Code.37760

       (H) If a claimant unreasonably fails to present a claim 37761
timely to a source of benefits or advantages that would have been 37762
a collateral source and that would have reimbursed the claimant 37763
for all or a portion of a particular expense, the attorney 37764
general, a panel of commissioners, or a judge of the court of 37765
claims may reduce an award of reparations or deny a claim for an 37766
award of reparations to the extent that it is reasonable to do so.37767

       (I) Reparations payable to a victim and to all other 37768
claimants sustaining economic loss because of injury to or the 37769
death of that victim shall not exceed fifty thousand dollars in 37770
the aggregate. If the attorney general, a panel of commissioners,37771
or a judge of the court of claims reduces an award under division 37772
(F) of this section, the maximum aggregate amount of reparations 37773
payable under this division shall be reduced proportionately to 37774
the reduction under division (F) of this section.37775

       (J) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit an 37776
award to a claimant whose claim is based on the claimant's being a 37777
victim of a violation of section 2905.32 of the Revised Code if 37778
the claimant was less than eighteen years of age when the 37779
criminally injurious conduct occurred.37780

       Sec. 2743.601. Except as otherwise provided in this section, 37781
the amendments to sections 2743.51, 2743.56, 2743.59, and 2743.60 37782
of the Revised Code made by the act in which this section was 37783
enacted apply to all applications for an award of reparations 37784
filed on or after the effective date of this sectionSeptember 30, 37785
2011, and to all applications for an award of reparations filed 37786
before the effective date of this sectionSeptember 30, 2011, for 37787
which an award or denial of the claim by the attorney general, a 37788
panel of commissioners, or the court of claims has not yet become 37789
final. The amendments to section 2743.60 of the Revised Code made 37790
by the act in which this section was enacted, to the extent that 37791
they eliminate the statute of limitations and to the extent that 37792
they remove the seventy-two hour reporting requirement, and the 37793
amendments to section 2743.51 of the Revised Code concerning 37794
guardian bonds shall apply to all claims for an award of 37795
reparations pending on the effective date of this section37796
September 30, 2011, and to all claims for an award of reparations 37797
filed on or after the effective date of this sectionSeptember 30, 37798
2011, that are based on criminally injurious conduct not 37799
previously addressed by the attorney general, by a panel of 37800
commissioners, or by the court of claims.37801

       Sec. 2743.61.  (A) The attorney general, on the attorney 37802
general's own motion or upon request of a claimant or victim, may 37803
reconsider a decision to make an award of reparations, the amount 37804
of an award of reparations, or a decision to deny a claim for an 37805
award of reparations. A claimant may file a request for 37806
reconsideration with the attorney general not later than thirty 37807
days after the attorney general renders an initial decision. A 37808
claimant may submit with the request any additional information 37809
that is relevant to the claimant's claim for an award of 37810
reparation.37811

       The attorney general shall reconsider the application based 37812
upon evidence that is relevant to the application and issue a 37813
final decision within sixty days of receiving the request for 37814
reconsideration. The attorney general may extend the sixty-day 37815
time limit and shall record in writing specific reasons to justify 37816
the extension. The attorney general shall notify the claimant of 37817
the extension and of the reasons for the extension.37818

       If a claimant does not file a request for reconsideration of 37819
a decision of the attorney general to make an award or to deny a 37820
claim or of the amount of an award within thirty days after the 37821
decision is rendered, the award, the denial of the claim, or the 37822
amount of the award is final unless the attorney general in the 37823
interest of justice allows the reconsideration after the 37824
expiration of that period of time.37825

       (B) A claimant may appeal an award of reparations, the amount 37826
of an award of reparations, or the denial of a claim for an award 37827
of reparations that is made by a final decision of the attorney 37828
general after any reconsideration. If the final decision of the 37829
attorney general with respect to any claim for an award of 37830
reparations is appealed, athe court of claims panel of 37831
commissioners, within ninety days of receiving the notice of 37832
appeal, shall schedule and conduct a hearing on the appeal. The 37833
panel of commissionerscourt shall determine the appeal within 37834
sixty days from the date of the hearing on the basis of the record 37835
of the hearing before the commissionerscourt, including the 37836
original award or denial and the finding of fact of the attorney 37837
general, any information or documents that the attorney general 37838
used in the investigation, any information or data provided to the 37839
attorney general, any briefs or oral arguments that may be 37840
requested by athe court of claims panel of commissioners, and any 37841
additional evidence presented at the hearing. The panel of 37842
commissionerscourt may extend the sixty-day time limit and shall 37843
record in writing specific reasons to justify the extension. The 37844
attorney general shall supply the panel of commissionerscourt37845
with the original decision awarding or denying compensation, the 37846
finding of fact of the attorney general, any information or 37847
documents that the attorney general used in the investigation, and 37848
any information or data provided to the attorney general within 37849
fourteen days of the filing of the objection and notice of appeal 37850
by the applicant. The panel of commissionerscourt shall notify 37851
the claimant and attorney general of the extension and of the 37852
reasons for the extension. If upon hearing and consideration of 37853
the record and evidence, the court of claims panel of 37854
commissioners decides that the decision of the attorney general 37855
appealed from is reasonable and lawful, it shall affirm the same. 37856
If the court of claims panel of commissioners decides that the 37857
decision of the attorney general is not supported by a 37858
preponderance of the evidence or is unreasonable or unlawful, it37859
the court shall reverse and vacate the decision or modify it and 37860
enter judgment thereon. The37861

       (C) The attorney general or a claimant may appeal an award of 37862
reparations, the amount of an award of reparations, or the denial 37863
of a claim for an award of reparations that is made by a panel of 37864
court of claims commissioners. If the determination of the panel 37865
of commissioners with respect to any claim for an award of 37866
reparations is appealed, a judge of the court of claims shall hear 37867
and determine the appeal on the basis of the record of the hearing 37868
before the commissioners, including the original award or denial 37869
made by the attorney general, any information or documents 37870
presented to the panel of commissioners, and any briefs or oral 37871
arguments that may be requested by the judge. If upon hearing and 37872
consideration of the record and evidence, the judge decides that 37873
the decision of the panel of commissioners is unreasonable or 37874
unlawful, the judge shall reverse and vacate the decision or 37875
modify it and enter judgment on the claim. The decision of the 37876
judge of the court of claims is final.37877

       (D)(C) Notices of an appeal concerning an award of 37878
reparations shall be filed within thirty days after the date on 37879
which the award or the denial of a claim is made by a final 37880
decision of the attorney general. If a notice of appeal is not 37881
filed within the thirty-day period, the award or denial of the 37882
claim is final unless athe court of claims panel of commissioners37883
in the interests of justice allows the appeal.37884

       (E) The attorney general or a claimant shall file a notice of 37885
an appeal concerning an order or decision of a panel of 37886
commissioners within thirty days after the date on which the award 37887
or the denial of a claim is made by the panel of commissioners. If 37888
the attorney general or a claimant does not file a notice of 37889
appeal with respect to an award or denial within the thirty-day 37890
period, the award or denial of the claim is final unless a judge 37891
of the court of claims in the interests of justice allows the 37892
appeal.37893

       Sec. 2743.62.  (A)(1) Subject to division (A)(2) of this 37894
section, there is no privilege, except the privileges arising from 37895
the attorney-client relationship, as to communications or records 37896
that are relevant to the physical, mental, or emotional condition 37897
of the claimant or victim in a proceeding under sections 2743.51 37898
to 2743.72 of the Revised Code in which that condition is an 37899
element.37900

       (2)(a) Except as specified in division (A)(2)(b) of this 37901
section, any record or report that a judge of the court of claims, 37902
a court of claims panel of commissioners, or the attorney general 37903
has obtained prior to, or obtains on or after, June 30, 1998, 37904
under the provisions of sections 2743.51 to 2743.72 of the Revised 37905
Code and that is confidential or otherwise exempt from public 37906
disclosure under section 149.43 of the Revised Code while in the 37907
possession of the creator of the record or report shall remain 37908
confidential or exempt from public disclosure under section 149.43 37909
of the Revised Code while in the possession of the court of claims 37910
or the attorney general.37911

       (b) Notwithstanding division (A)(2)(a) of this section, a 37912
judge of the court of claims, a panel of commissionersmagistrate, 37913
a claimant, a claimant's attorney, or the attorney general may 37914
disclose or refer to records or reports described in that division 37915
in any hearing conducted under sections 2743.51 to 2743.72 of the 37916
Revised Code or in the judge's, panel of commissioners'37917
magistrate's, claimant's, or attorney general's written pleadings, 37918
findings, recommendations, and decisions.37919

       (B) If the mental, physical, or emotional condition of a 37920
victim or claimant is material to a claim for an award of 37921
reparations, the attorney general, a panel of commissioners, or a 37922
judge of the court of claims may order the victim or claimant to 37923
submit to a mental or physical examination and may order an 37924
autopsy of a deceased victim. The order may be made for good cause 37925
shown and upon notice to the person to be examined and to the 37926
claimant. The order shall specify the time, place, manner, 37927
conditions, and scope of the examination or autopsy and the person 37928
by whom it is to be made. In the case of a mental examination, the 37929
person specified may be a physician or psychologist. In the case 37930
of a physical examination, the person specified may be a 37931
physician, a physician assistant, a clinical nurse specialist, a 37932
certified nurse practitioner, or a certified nurse-midwife. In the 37933
case of an autopsy, the person specified must be a physician. The 37934
order shall require the person who performs the examination or 37935
autopsy to file with the attorney general a detailed written 37936
report of the examination or autopsy. The report shall set out the 37937
findings, including the results of all tests made, diagnoses, 37938
prognoses, and other conclusions and reports of earlier 37939
examinations of the same conditions.37940

       (C) On request of the person examined, the attorney general 37941
shall furnish the person a copy of the report. If the victim is 37942
deceased, the attorney general, on request, shall furnish the 37943
claimant a copy of the report.37944

       (D) The attorney general, a panel of commissioners, or a 37945
judge of the court of claims may require the claimant to 37946
supplement the application for an award of reparations with any 37947
reasonably available medical or psychological reports relating to 37948
the injury for which the award of reparations is claimed.37949

       (E) The attorney general, a panel of commissioners, or a 37950
judge of the court of claims, in a claim arising out of a 37951
violation of any provision of sections 2907.02 to 2907.07 of the 37952
Revised Code, shall not request the victim or the claimant to 37953
supply, or permit any person to supply, any evidence of specific 37954
instances of the victim's sexual activity, opinion evidence of the 37955
victim's sexual activity, or reputation evidence of the victim's 37956
sexual activity unless it involves evidence of the origin of 37957
semen, pregnancy, or disease or evidence of the victim's past 37958
sexual activity with the offender and only to the extent that the37959
judge, the panelcourt of commissioners,claims or the attorney 37960
general finds that the evidence is relevant to a fact at issue in 37961
the claim.37962

       Sec. 2743.63.  If a person refuses to comply with an order 37963
under sections 2743.51 to 2743.72 of the Revised Code, or asserts 37964
a privilege, except privileges arising from the attorney-client 37965
relationship, to withhold or suppress evidence relevant to a claim 37966
for an award of reparations, the attorney general may make any 37967
just decision including denial of the claim but shall not find the 37968
person in contempt. If necessary to carry out any of the attorney 37969
general's powers and duties, the attorney general may petition a37970
the court of claims panel of commissioners for an appropriate 37971
order, including but not limited to a finding of contempt, but a 37972
panel of commissionersthe court shall not find a person in 37973
contempt for refusal to submit to a mental or physical 37974
examination.37975

       Sec. 2743.64.  The attorney general, a court of claims panel 37976
of commissioners, or a judge of the court of claims may make an 37977
award of reparations whether or not any person is prosecuted or 37978
convicted for committing the conduct that is the basis of the 37979
award. Proof of conviction of a person whose conduct gave rise to 37980
a claim is conclusive evidence that the crime was committed, 37981
unless an application for rehearing, an appeal of the conviction, 37982
or certiorari is pending, or a rehearing or new trial has been 37983
ordered.37984

       If the prosecuting attorney of the county in which the 37985
criminally injurious conduct allegedly occurred requests the 37986
suspension of proceedings in any claim for an award of reparations 37987
and if the request is made because of the commencement of a 37988
criminal prosecution, the attorney general may suspend, because a 37989
criminal prosecution has been commenced or is imminent, the 37990
proceedings in any claim for an award of reparations for a 37991
definite period of time, and may make an emergency award under 37992
section 2743.67 of the Revised Code.37993

       Sec. 2743.65.  (A) The attorney general shall determine, and 37994
the state shall pay, in accordance with this section attorney's 37995
fees, commensurate with services rendered, to the attorney 37996
representing a claimant under sections 2743.51 to 2743.72 of the 37997
Revised Code. The attorney shall submit on an application form an 37998
itemized fee bill at the rate of sixty dollars per hour upon 37999
receipt of the final decision on the claim. Attorney's fees paid 38000
pursuant to this section are subject to the following maximum 38001
amounts:38002

       (1) A maximum of seven hundred twenty dollars for claims 38003
resolved without the filing of an appeal to the panelcourt of 38004
commissionersclaims;38005

       (2) A maximum of one thousand twenty dollars for claims in 38006
which an appeal to the panelcourt of commissionersclaims is 38007
filed plus, at the request of an attorney whose main office is not 38008
in Franklin county, Delaware county, Licking county, Fairfield 38009
county, Pickaway county, Madison county, or Union county, an 38010
amount for the attorney's travel time to attend the oral hearing 38011
before the panelcourt of commissionersclaims at the rate of 38012
thirty dollars per hour;38013

       (3) A maximum of one thousand three hundred twenty dollars 38014
for claims in which an appeal to a judge of the court of claims is 38015
filed plus, at the request of an attorney whose main office is not 38016
in Franklin county, Delaware county, Licking county, Fairfield 38017
county, Pickaway county, Madison county, or Union county, an 38018
amount for the attorney's travel time to attend the oral hearing 38019
before the judgecourt at the rate of thirty dollars per hour;38020

       (4) A maximum of seven hundred twenty dollars for a 38021
supplemental reparations application;38022

       (5) A maximum of two hundred dollars if the claim is denied 38023
on the basis of a claimant's or victim's conviction of a felony 38024
offense prior to the filing of the claim. If the claimant or 38025
victim is convicted of a felony offense during the pendency of the 38026
claim, the two hundred dollars maximum does not apply. If the 38027
attorney had knowledge of the claimant's or victim's felony 38028
conviction prior to the filing of the application for the claim, 38029
the attorney general may determine that the filing of the claim 38030
was frivolous and may deny attorney's fees.38031

       (B) The attorney general may determine that an attorney be 38032
reimbursed for fees incurred in the creation of a guardianship if 38033
the guardianship is required in order for an individual to receive 38034
an award of reparations, and those fees shall be reimbursed at a 38035
rate of sixty dollars per hour. 38036

       (C)(1) The attorney general shall forward an application form 38037
for attorney's fees to a claimant's attorney before or when the 38038
final decision on a claim is rendered. The application form for 38039
attorney's fees shall do all of the following:38040

       (a) Inform the attorney of the requirements of this section;38041

       (b) Require a verification statement comporting with the law 38042
prohibiting falsification;38043

       (c) Require an itemized fee statement;38044

       (d) Require a verification statement that the claimant was 38045
served a copy of the completed application form; 38046

       (e) Include notice that the claimant may oppose the 38047
application by notifying the attorney general in writing within 38048
ten days.38049

       (2) The attorney general shall forward a copy of this section 38050
to the attorney with the application form for attorney's fees. The 38051
attorney shall file the application form with the attorney 38052
general. The attorney general's decision with respect to an award 38053
of attorney's fees is final ten days after the attorney general 38054
renders the decision and mails a copy of the decision to the 38055
attorney at the address provided by the attorney. The attorney may 38056
request reconsideration of the decision on grounds that it is 38057
insufficient or calculated incorrectly. The attorney general's 38058
decision on the request for reconsideration is final.38059

       (D) The attorney general shall review all application forms 38060
for attorney's fees that are submitted by a claimant's attorney 38061
and shall issue an order approving the amount of fees to be paid 38062
to the attorney within sixty days after receipt of the application 38063
form.38064

       (E) No attorney's fees shall be paid for the following:38065

       (1) Estate work or representation of a claimant against a 38066
collateral source;38067

       (2) Duplication of investigative work required to be 38068
performed by the attorney general;38069

       (3) Performance of unnecessary criminal investigation of the 38070
offense;38071

       (4) Presenting or appealing an issue that has been repeatedly 38072
ruled upon by the highest appellate authority, unless a unique set 38073
of facts or unique issue of law exists that distinguishes it;38074

       (5) A fee request that is unreasonable, is not commensurate 38075
with services rendered, violates the Ohio code of professional 38076
responsibility, or is based upon services that are determined to 38077
be frivolous.38078

       (F)(1) The attorney general may reduce or deny the payment of 38079
attorney's fees to an attorney who has filed a frivolous claim. 38080
Subject to division (A)(5) of this section, the denial of a claim 38081
on the basis of a felony conviction, felony conduct, or 38082
contributory misconduct does not constitute a frivolous claim.38083

       (2) As used in this section, "frivolous claim" means a claim 38084
in which there is clearly no legal grounds under the existing laws 38085
of this state to support the filing of a claim on behalf of the 38086
claimant or victim.38087

       (G) The attorney general may determine that a lesser number 38088
of hours should have been required in a given case. Additional 38089
reimbursement may be made where the attorney demonstrates to the 38090
attorney general that the nature of the particular claim required 38091
the expenditure of an amount in excess of that allowed.38092

       (H) No attorney shall receive payment under this section for 38093
assisting a claimant with an application for an award of 38094
reparations under sections 2743.51 to 2743.72 of the Revised Code 38095
if that attorney's fees have been allowed as an expense in 38096
accordance with division (F)(4) of section 2743.51 of the Revised 38097
Code.38098

       (I) A contract or other agreement between an attorney and any 38099
person that provides for the payment of attorney's fees or other 38100
payments in excess of the attorney's fees allowed under this 38101
section for representing a claimant under sections 2743.51 to 38102
2743.72 of the Revised Code shall be void and unenforceable.38103

       (J) Each witness who appears in a hearing on a claim for an 38104
award of reparations shall receive compensation in an amount equal 38105
to that received by witnesses under section 119.094 of the Revised 38106
Code.38107

       Sec. 2743.66.  (A) A decision of the attorney general,or38108
order of a court of claims panel of commissioners, or judgment of 38109
a judge of the court of claims granting an award of reparations 38110
may provide for the payment of the award in a lump sum or in 38111
installments. The part of an award equal to the amount of economic 38112
loss accrued to the date of the award shall be paid in a lump sum. 38113
An award for allowable expense that would accrue after the award 38114
is made shall not be paid in a lump sum. Except as provided in 38115
division (B) of this section, the part of an award not paid in a 38116
lump sum shall be paid in installments.38117

       (B) Upon the motion of the claimant, the attorney general may 38118
commute future economic loss, other than allowable expense, to a 38119
lump sum but only upon a finding that either of the following 38120
applies:38121

       (1) The award in a lump sum will promote the interests of the 38122
claimant.38123

       (2) The present value of all future economic loss, other than 38124
allowable expense, does not exceed one thousand dollars.38125

       (C) The attorney general may make an award for future 38126
economic loss payable in installments only for a period as to 38127
which future economic loss reasonably can be determined. An award 38128
for future economic loss payable in installments may be 38129
reconsidered and modified upon a finding that a material and 38130
substantial change of circumstances has occurred.38131

       (D) An award is not subject to execution, attachment, 38132
garnishment, or other process, except that, upon receipt of an 38133
award by a claimant:38134

       (1) The part of the award that is for allowable expense or 38135
funeral expense is not exempt from such action by a creditor to 38136
the extent that the creditor provided products, services, or 38137
accommodations the costs of which are included in the award.38138

       (2) The part of the award that is for work loss shall not be 38139
exempt from such action to secure payment of spousal support, 38140
other maintenance, or child support.38141

       (3) The attorney general may recover the award pursuant to 38142
section 2743.72 of the Revised Code if it is discovered that the 38143
claimant actually was not eligible for the award or that the award 38144
otherwise should not have been made under the standards and 38145
criteria set forth in sections 2743.51 to 2743.72 of the Revised 38146
Code.38147

       (4) If the claimant receives compensation from any other 38148
person or entity, including a collateral source, for an expense 38149
that is included within the award, the attorney general may 38150
recover pursuant to section 2743.72 of the Revised Code the part 38151
of the award that represents the expense for which the claimant 38152
received the compensation from the other person or entity.38153

       (E) If a person entitled to an award of reparations is under 38154
eighteen years of age and if the amount of the award exceeds one 38155
thousand dollars, the order providing for the payment of the award 38156
shall specify that the award be paid either to the guardian of the 38157
estate of the minor appointed pursuant to Chapter 2111. of the 38158
Revised Code or to the person or depository designated by the 38159
probate court under section 2111.05 of the Revised Code. If a 38160
person entitled to an award of reparations is under eighteen years 38161
of age and if the amount of the award is one thousand dollars or 38162
less, the order providing for the payment of the award may specify 38163
that the award be paid to an adult member of the family of the 38164
minor who is legally responsible for the minor's care or to any 38165
other person designated by the attorney general or panel of 38166
commissioners issuing the decision or ordercourt of claims.38167

       Sec. 2743.67.  The attorney general may make an emergency 38168
award if, before acting on an application for an award of 38169
reparations under this section, it appears likely that a final 38170
award will be made, and the claimant or victim will suffer undue 38171
hardship if immediate economic relief is not obtained. An 38172
emergency award shall not exceed two thousand dollars. The 38173
attorney general or the court of claims panel of commissioners38174
shall deduct an amount of the emergency award from the final 38175
award, or the claimant or victim shall repay the amount of the 38176
emergency award that exceeds the final award made to the claimant. 38177
If no final award is made, the claimant or victim shall repay the 38178
entire emergency award.38179

       Sec. 2743.68.  A claimant may file a supplemental reparations 38180
application in a claim if the attorney general, a court of claims 38181
panel of commissioners, or judge of the court of claims, within 38182
five years prior to the filing of the supplemental application, 38183
has made any of the following determinations:38184

       (A) That an award, supplemental award, or installment award 38185
be granted;38186

       (B) That an award, supplemental award, or installment award 38187
be conditioned or denied because of actual or potential recovery 38188
from a collateral source;38189

       (C) That an award, supplemental award, or installment award 38190
be denied because the claimant had not incurred any economic loss 38191
at that time.38192

       Sec. 2743.69. (A) The attorney general shall prepare and 38193
transmit annually to the governor, the president of the senate, 38194
the speaker of the house of representatives, and the minority 38195
leaders of both houses a report of the activities of the Ohio 38196
crime victims compensation program under sections 2743.51 to 38197
2743.72 of the Revised Code. The report shall include all of the 38198
following:38199

       (1) The number of claims filed, the number of awards made and 38200
the amount of each award, and a statistical summary of awards made 38201
and denied, including the average size of awards; 38202

       (2) The balance in the reparations fund, with a listing by 38203
source and amount of the moneys that have been deposited in the 38204
fund; 38205

       (3) The amount that has been withdrawn from the fund, 38206
including separate listings of the administrative costs incurred 38207
by the attorney general and athe court of claims panel of 38208
commissioners, compensation of judges and court personnel, the 38209
amount awarded as attorney's fees, and the amount of payments made 38210
pursuant to divisions (A)(1)(k) and (l) of section 2743.191 of the 38211
Revised Code. 38212

       (B) The director of budget and management shall assist the 38213
attorney general in the preparation of the report required by this 38214
section.38215

       Sec. 2743.71.  (A) Any law enforcement agency that 38216
investigates, and any prosecuting attorney, city director of law, 38217
village solicitor, or similar prosecuting authority who 38218
prosecutes, an offense committed in this state shall, upon first 38219
contact with the victim or the victim's family or dependents, give 38220
the victim or the victim's family or dependents a copy of an 38221
information card or other printed material provided by the 38222
attorney general pursuant to division (B) of this section and 38223
explain, upon request, the information on the card or material to 38224
the victim or the victim's family or dependents.38225

       (B) The attorney general shall have printed, and shall 38226
provide to law enforcement agencies, prosecuting attorneys, city 38227
directors of law, village solicitors, and similar prosecuting 38228
authorities, cards or other materials that contain information 38229
explaining awards of reparations. The information on the cards or 38230
other materials shall include, but shall not be limited to, the 38231
following statements:38232

       (1) Awards of reparations are limited to losses that are 38233
caused by physical injury resulting from criminally injurious 38234
conduct;38235

       (2) Reparations applications are required to be filed within 38236
two years after the date of the criminally injurious conduct if 38237
the victim was an adult, or within the period provided by division 38238
(C)(B)(1) of section 2743.56 of the Revised Code if the victim of 38239
the criminally injurious conduct was a minor;38240

       (3) An attorney who represents an applicant for an award of 38241
reparations cannot charge the applicant for the services rendered 38242
in relation to that representation but is required to apply to the 38243
attorney general for payment for the representation;38244

       (4) Applications for awards of reparations may be obtained 38245
from the attorney general, law enforcement agencies, and victim 38246
assistance agencies and are to be filed with the attorney general.38247

       (C) The attorney general may order that a reasonable amount 38248
of money be paid out of the reparations fund, subject to the 38249
limitation imposed by division (D) of this section, for use by the 38250
attorney general to publicize the availability of awards of 38251
reparations.38252

       (D) During any fiscal year, the total expenditure for the 38253
printing and providing of information cards or other materials 38254
pursuant to division (B) of this section and for the publicizing 38255
of the availability of awards of reparations pursuant to division 38256
(C) of this section shall not exceed two per cent of the total of 38257
all court costs deposited, in accordance with section 2743.70 of 38258
the Revised Code, in the reparations fund during the immediately 38259
preceding fiscal year.38260

       Sec. 2744.05.  Notwithstanding any other provisions of the 38261
Revised Code or rules of a court to the contrary, in an action 38262
against a political subdivision to recover damages for injury, 38263
death, or loss to person or property caused by an act or omission 38264
in connection with a governmental or proprietary function:38265

       (A) Punitive or exemplary damages shall not be awarded.38266

       (B)(1) If a claimant receives or is entitled to receive 38267
benefits for injuries or loss allegedly incurred from a policy or 38268
policies of insurance or any other source, the benefits shall be 38269
disclosed to the court, and the amount of the benefits shall be 38270
deducted from any award against a political subdivision recovered 38271
by that claimant. No insurer or other person is entitled to bring 38272
an action under a subrogation provision in an insurance or other 38273
contract against a political subdivision with respect to those 38274
benefits.38275

       The amount of the benefits shall be deducted from an award 38276
against a political subdivision under division (B)(1) of this 38277
section regardless of whether the claimant may be under an 38278
obligation to pay back the benefits upon recovery, in whole or in 38279
part, for the claim. A claimant whose benefits have been deducted 38280
from an award under division (B)(1) of this section is not 38281
considered fully compensated and shall not be required to 38282
reimburse a subrogated claim for benefits deducted from an award 38283
pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section.38284

       (2) Nothing in division (B)(1) of this section shall be 38285
construed to do either of the following:38286

       (a) Limit the rights of a beneficiary under a life insurance 38287
policy or the rights of sureties under fidelity or surety bonds;38288

       (b) Prohibit the department of job and family services38289
medicaid from recovering from the political subdivision, pursuant 38290
to section 5101.585160.37 of the Revised Code, the cost of 38291
medical assistance benefits provided under Chapter 5107. or 5111. 38292
of the Revised Codeprovided under a medical assistance program.38293

       (C)(1) There shall not be any limitation on compensatory 38294
damages that represent the actual loss of the person who is 38295
awarded the damages. However, except in wrongful death actions 38296
brought pursuant to Chapter 2125. of the Revised Code, damages 38297
that arise from the same cause of action, transaction or 38298
occurrence, or series of transactions or occurrences and that do 38299
not represent the actual loss of the person who is awarded the 38300
damages shall not exceed two hundred fifty thousand dollars in 38301
favor of any one person. The limitation on damages that do not 38302
represent the actual loss of the person who is awarded the damages 38303
provided in this division does not apply to court costs that are 38304
awarded to a plaintiff, or to interest on a judgment rendered in 38305
favor of a plaintiff, in an action against a political 38306
subdivision.38307

       (2) As used in this division, "the actual loss of the person 38308
who is awarded the damages" includes all of the following:38309

       (a) All wages, salaries, or other compensation lost by the 38310
person injured as a result of the injury, including wages, 38311
salaries, or other compensation lost as of the date of a judgment 38312
and future expected lost earnings of the person injured;38313

       (b) All expenditures of the person injured or another person 38314
on behalf of the person injured for medical care or treatment, for 38315
rehabilitation services, or for other care, treatment, services, 38316
products, or accommodations that were necessary because of the 38317
injury;38318

       (c) All expenditures to be incurred in the future, as 38319
determined by the court, by the person injured or another person 38320
on behalf of the person injured for medical care or treatment, for 38321
rehabilitation services, or for other care, treatment, services, 38322
products, or accommodations that will be necessary because of the 38323
injury;38324

       (d) All expenditures of a person whose property was injured 38325
or destroyed or of another person on behalf of the person whose 38326
property was injured or destroyed in order to repair or replace 38327
the property that was injured or destroyed;38328

       (e) All expenditures of the person injured or of the person 38329
whose property was injured or destroyed or of another person on 38330
behalf of the person injured or of the person whose property was 38331
injured or destroyed in relation to the actual preparation or 38332
presentation of the claim involved;38333

       (f) Any other expenditures of the person injured or of the 38334
person whose property was injured or destroyed or of another 38335
person on behalf of the person injured or of the person whose 38336
property was injured or destroyed that the court determines 38337
represent an actual loss experienced because of the personal or 38338
property injury or property loss.38339

       "The actual loss of the person who is awarded the damages" 38340
does not include any fees paid or owed to an attorney for any 38341
services rendered in relation to a personal or property injury or 38342
property loss, and does not include any damages awarded for pain 38343
and suffering, for the loss of society, consortium, companionship, 38344
care, assistance, attention, protection, advice, guidance, 38345
counsel, instruction, training, or education of the person 38346
injured, for mental anguish, or for any other intangible loss.38347

       Sec. 2744.08.  (A)(1) A political subdivision may use public 38348
funds to secure insurance with respect to its and its employees' 38349
potential liability in damages in civil actions for injury, death, 38350
or loss to persons or property allegedly caused by an act or 38351
omission of the political subdivision or any of its employees in 38352
connection with a governmental or proprietary function. The 38353
insurance may be at the limits, for the circumstances, and subject 38354
to the terms and conditions, that are determined by the political 38355
subdivision in its discretion.38356

       The insurance may be for the period of time that is set forth 38357
in specifications for competitive bids or, when competitive 38358
bidding is not required, for the period of time that is mutually 38359
agreed upon by the political subdivision and insurance company. 38360
The period of time does not have to be, but can be, limited to the 38361
fiscal cycle under which the political subdivision is funded and 38362
operates.38363

       (2)(a) Regardless of whether a political subdivision procures 38364
a policy or policies of liability insurance pursuant to division 38365
(A)(1) of this section or otherwise, the political subdivision may 38366
establish and maintain a self-insurance program relative to its 38367
and its employees' potential liability in damages in civil actions 38368
for injury, death, or loss to persons or property allegedly caused 38369
by an act or omission of the political subdivision or any of its 38370
employees in connection with a governmental or proprietary 38371
function. The political subdivision may reserve such funds as it 38372
deems appropriate in a special fund that may be established 38373
pursuant to an ordinance or resolution of the political 38374
subdivision and not subject to section 5705.12 of the Revised 38375
Code. The political subdivision may allocate theits costs of 38376
funding insurance or a self-insurance program, or both, among the 38377
funds or accounts in the subdivision's treasury on the basis of 38378
relative payroll, relative exposure and, relative loss experience, 38379
or any combination of these factors. The political subdivision may 38380
require any deductibles under an insurance or self-insurance 38381
program, or both, to be paid from funds or accounts in the 38382
subdivision's treasury from which a loss was directly 38383
attributable. If it so chooses, the political subdivision may 38384
contract with any person, other political subdivision, or regional 38385
council of governments for purposes of the administration of such 38386
a program.38387

       (b) Political subdivisions that have established 38388
self-insurance programs relative to their and their employees' 38389
potential liability as described in division (A)(2)(a) of this 38390
section may mutually agree that their self-insurance programs will 38391
be jointly administered in a specified manner.38392

       (B) The purchase of liability insurance, or the establishment 38393
and maintenance of a self-insurance program, by a political 38394
subdivision does not constitute a waiver of any immunity or 38395
defense of the political subdivision or its employees, except that 38396
the political subdivision may specifically waive any immunity or 38397
defense to which it or its employees may be entitled if a 38398
provision to that effect is specifically included in the policy of 38399
insurance or in a written plan of operation of the self-insurance 38400
program, or, if any, the legislative enactment of the political 38401
subdivision authorizing the purchase of the insurance or the 38402
establishment and maintenance of the self-insurance program. Such 38403
a specific waiver shall be only to the extent of the insurance or 38404
self-insurance program coverage.38405

       (C) The authorizations for political subdivisions to secure 38406
insurance and to establish and maintain self-insurance programs in 38407
this section are in addition to any other authority to secure 38408
insurance or to establish and maintain self-insurance programs 38409
that is granted pursuant to the Revised Code or the constitution 38410
of this state, and they are not in derogation of any other 38411
authorization.38412

       Sec. 2744.081.  (A) Regardless of whether a political 38413
subdivision, under section 2744.08 of the Revised Code, secures a 38414
policy or policies of liability insurance, establishes and 38415
maintains a self-insurance program, or enters into an agreement 38416
for the joint administration of a self-insurance program, the 38417
political subdivision may, pursuant to a written agreement and to 38418
the extent that it considers necessary, join with other political 38419
subdivisions in establishing and maintaining a joint 38420
self-insurance pool to provide for the payment of judgments, 38421
settlement of claims, expense, loss, and damage that arises, or is 38422
claimed to have arisen, from an act or omission of the political 38423
subdivision or any of its employees in connection with a 38424
governmental or proprietary function and to indemnify or hold 38425
harmless the subdivision's employees against such loss or damage.38426

       All of the following apply to a joint self-insurance pool 38427
under this section:38428

       (1) Such funds shall be reserved as are necessary, in the 38429
exercise of sound and prudent actuarial judgment, to cover 38430
potential political subdivision and employee liability, expense, 38431
loss, and damage. A report of aggregate amounts so reserved and 38432
aggregate disbursements made from such funds, together with a 38433
written report of a member of the American academy of actuaries 38434
certifying whether the amounts reserved conform to the 38435
requirements of this division, are computed in accordance with 38436
accepted loss reserving standards, and are fairly stated in 38437
accordance with sound loss reserving principles, shall be prepared 38438
and maintained in the office of the pool administrator described 38439
in division (A)(2) of this section. The report shall be prepared 38440
and maintained on or before the last day of March for the 38441
preceding calendar year or, if the joint self-insurance pool's 38442
fiscal year is other than a calendar year, not later than ninety 38443
days after the close of the pool's fiscal year.38444

       The report required by this division shall include, but not 38445
be limited to, the aggregate of disbursements made for the 38446
administration of the pool, including claims paid, costs of the 38447
legal representation of political subdivisions and employees, and 38448
fees paid to consultants.38449

       The pool administrator described in division (A)(2) of this 38450
section shall make the report required by this division available 38451
for inspection by any person at all reasonable times during 38452
regular business hours, and, upon the request of such person, 38453
shall make copies of the report available at cost within a 38454
reasonable period of time. The report required by this division is 38455
in lieu of the records required by division (A) of section 149.431 38456
of the Revised Code.38457

       (2) A contract may be awarded, without the necessity of 38458
competitive bidding, to any person, political subdivision, 38459
nonprofit corporation organized under Chapter 1702. of the Revised 38460
Code, or regional council of governments created under Chapter 38461
167. of the Revised Code for purposes of administration of a joint 38462
self-insurance pool. No such contract shall be entered into 38463
without full, prior, public disclosure of all terms and 38464
conditions. Such disclosure shall include, at a minimum, a 38465
statement listing all representations made in connection with any 38466
possible savings and losses resulting from such contract, and 38467
potential liability of any political subdivision or employee. The 38468
proposed contract and statement shall be disclosed and presented 38469
at a meeting of the political subdivision not less than one week 38470
prior to the meeting at which the political subdivision authorizes 38471
the contract.38472

       (3) A joint self-insurance pool shall include a contract with 38473
a member of the American academy of actuaries for the preparation 38474
of the written evaluation of the reserve funds required under 38475
division (A)(1) of this section.38476

       (4) A political subdivision that has joined with other 38477
political subdivisions in establishing and maintaining a joint 38478
self-insurance pool may allocate the costs of funding the pool 38479
among the funds or accounts in the treasuries of the political 38480
subdivisions on the basis of their relative payroll, relative 38481
exposure and, and relative loss experience, or any combination of 38482
these factors. A joint self-insurance programsuch a political 38483
subdivision may require any deductible under the program to be 38484
paid from funds or accounts in the treasury of the political 38485
subdivision from which a loss was directly attributable.38486

       (B) Two or more political subdivisions may also authorize the 38487
establishment and maintenance of a joint risk-management program, 38488
including but not limited to the employment of risk managers and 38489
consultants, for the purpose of preventing and reducing the risks 38490
covered by insurance, self-insurance, or joint self-insurance 38491
programs.38492

       (C) A political subdivision is not liable under a joint 38493
self-insurance pool for any amount in excess of amounts payable 38494
pursuant to the written agreement for the participation of the 38495
political subdivision in the joint self-insurance pool. Under a 38496
joint self-insurance pool agreement a political subdivision may, 38497
to the extent permitted under the written agreement, assume the 38498
risks of any other political subdivision, including the 38499
indemnification of its employees. A joint self-insurance pool, 38500
established under this section, is deemed a separate legal entity 38501
for the public purpose of enabling the members of the joint 38502
self-insurance pool to obtain insurance or to provide for a 38503
formalized, jointly administered self-insurance fund for its 38504
members. An entity created pursuant to this section is exempt from 38505
all state and local taxes.38506

       (D) Any political subdivision may issue general obligation 38507
bonds, or special obligation bonds which are not payable from real 38508
or personal property taxes, and may also issue notes in 38509
anticipation of such bonds, pursuant to an ordinance or resolution 38510
of its legislative authority or other governing body for the 38511
purpose of providing funds to pay judgments, losses, damages, and 38512
the expenses of litigation or settlement of claims, whether by way 38513
of a reserve or otherwise, and to pay the political subdivision's 38514
portion of the cost of establishing and maintaining a joint 38515
self-insurance pool or to provide for the reserve in the special 38516
fund authorized by division (A)(2)(a) of section 2744.08 of the 38517
Revised Code.38518

       In its ordinance or resolution authorizing bonds or notes 38519
under this section, a political subdivision may elect to issue 38520
such bonds or notes under the procedures set forth in Chapter 133. 38521
of the Revised Code. In the event of such an election, 38522
notwithstanding Chapter 133. of the Revised Code, the maturity of 38523
the bonds may be for any period authorized in the ordinance or 38524
resolution not exceeding twenty years, which period shall be the 38525
maximum maturity of the bonds for purposes of section 133.22 of 38526
the Revised Code.38527

       Bonds and notes issued under this section shall not be 38528
considered in calculating the net indebtedness of the political 38529
subdivision under sections 133.04, 133.05, 133.06, and 133.07 of 38530
the Revised Code. Sections 9.98 to 9.983 of the Revised Code apply 38531
to bonds or notes authorized under this section.38532

       (E)(1) A joint self-insurance pool, in addition to its powers 38533
to provide self-insurance against any and all liabilities under 38534
this chapter, may also include any one or more of the following 38535
forms of property or casualty self-insurance for the purpose of 38536
covering any other liabilities or risks of the members of the 38537
pool:38538

       (a) Public general liability, professional liability, or 38539
employees liability;38540

       (b) Individual or fleet motor vehicle or automobile liability 38541
and protection against other liability and loss associated with 38542
the ownership, maintenance, and use of motor vehicles;38543

       (c) Aircraft liability and protection against other liability 38544
and loss associated with the ownership, maintenance, and use of 38545
aircraft;38546

       (d) Fidelity, surety, and guarantee;38547

       (e) Loss or damage to property and loss of use and occupancy 38548
of property by fire, lightning, hail, tempest, flood, earthquake, 38549
or snow, explosion, accident, or other risk;38550

       (f) Marine, inland transportation and navigation, boiler, 38551
containers, pipes, engines, flywheels, elevators, and machinery;38552

       (g) Environmental impairment;38553

       (h) Loss or damage by any hazard upon any other risk to which 38554
political subdivisions are subject, which is not prohibited by 38555
statute or at common law from being the subject of casualty or 38556
property insurance.38557

       (2) A joint self-insurance pool is not an insurance company. 38558
Its operation does not constitute doing an insurance business and 38559
is not subject to the insurance laws of this state.38560

       (F) A public official or employee of a political subdivision 38561
who is or becomes a member of the governing body of a joint 38562
self-insurance pool in which the political subdivision 38563
participates is not in violation of division (D) or (E) of section 38564
102.03, division (C) of section 102.04, or section 2921.42 of the 38565
Revised Code as a result of the political subdivision's entering 38566
under this section into the written agreement to participate in 38567
the pool or into any contract with the pool.38568

       (G) This section shall not be construed to affect the ability 38569
of any political subdivision to self-insure under the authority 38570
conferred by any other section of the Revised Code.38571

       Sec. 2744.082.  (A) If a political subdivision, pursuant to 38572
division (A)(2)(a) of section 2744.08 of the Revised Code or a 38573
joint self-insurance pool pursuant todivision (A)(4) of section 38574
2744.081 of the Revised Code, has allocated costs to, or required 38575
the payment of deductibles from, funds or accounts in the 38576
subdivision's treasury, the subdivision's fiscal officer, pursuant 38577
to an ordinance or resolution of the subdivision's legislative 38578
authority, shall transfer amounts equal to those costs or 38579
deductibles from the funds or accounts to the subdivision's 38580
general fund if both of the following occur:38581

       (1) The subdivision requests payment from the employee 38582
responsible for the funds or accounts for those costs or 38583
deductibles;38584

       (2) The employee receiving the request fails to remit payment 38585
within forty-five days after the date of receipt of the request. 38586

       (B) Sections 5705.14, 5705.15, and 5705.16 of the Revised 38587
Code do not apply to transfers made pursuant to this section.38588

       Sec. 2901.13.  (A)(1) Except as provided in division (A)(2) 38589
or (3) of this section or as otherwise provided in this section, a 38590
prosecution shall be barred unless it is commenced within the 38591
following periods after an offense is committed:38592

       (a) For a felony, six years;38593

       (b) For a misdemeanor other than a minor misdemeanor, two 38594
years;38595

       (c) For a minor misdemeanor, six months.38596

       (2) There is no period of limitation for the prosecution of a 38597
violation of section 2903.01 or 2903.02 of the Revised Code.38598

       (3) Except as otherwise provided in divisions (B) to (H) of 38599
this section, a prosecution of any of the following offenses shall 38600
be barred unless it is commenced within twenty years after the 38601
offense is committed:38602

       (a) A violation of section 2903.03, 2903.04, 2905.01, 38603
2905.32, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.04, 2907.05, 2907.21, 2909.02, 38604
2909.22, 2909.23, 2909.24, 2909.26, 2909.27, 2909.28, 2909.29, 38605
2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 2911.12, or 2917.02 of the Revised 38606
Code, a violation of section 2903.11 or 2903.12 of the Revised 38607
Code if the victim is a peace officer, a violation of section 38608
2903.13 of the Revised Code that is a felony, or a violation of 38609
former section 2907.12 of the Revised Code;38610

       (b) A conspiracy to commit, attempt to commit, or complicity 38611
in committing a violation set forth in division (A)(3)(a) of this 38612
section.38613

       (B)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (B)(2) of 38614
this section, if the period of limitation provided in division 38615
(A)(1) or (3) of this section has expired, prosecution shall be 38616
commenced for an offense of which an element is fraud or breach of 38617
a fiduciary duty, within one year after discovery of the offense 38618
either by an aggrieved person, or by the aggrieved person's legal 38619
representative who is not a party to the offense.38620

       (2) If the period of limitation provided in division (A)(1) 38621
or (3) of this section has expired, prosecution for a violation of 38622
section 2913.49 of the Revised Code shall be commenced within five 38623
years after discovery of the offense either by an aggrieved person 38624
or the aggrieved person's legal representative who is not a party 38625
to the offense.38626

       (C)(1) If the period of limitation provided in division 38627
(A)(1) or (3) of this section has expired, prosecution shall be 38628
commenced for the following offenses during the following 38629
specified periods of time:38630

       (a) For an offense involving misconduct in office by a public 38631
servant, at any time while the accused remains a public servant, 38632
or within two years thereafter;38633

       (b) For an offense by a person who is not a public servant 38634
but whose offense is directly related to the misconduct in office 38635
of a public servant, at any time while that public servant remains 38636
a public servant, or within two years thereafter.38637

       (2) As used in this division:38638

       (a) An "offense is directly related to the misconduct in 38639
office of a public servant" includes, but is not limited to, a 38640
violation of section 101.71, 101.91, 121.61 or 2921.13, division 38641
(F) or (H) of section 102.03, division (A) of section 2921.02, 38642
division (A) or (B) of section 2921.43, or division (F) or (G) of 38643
section 3517.13 of the Revised Code, that is directly related to 38644
an offense involving misconduct in office of a public servant.38645

       (b) "Public servant" has the same meaning as in section 38646
2921.01 of the Revised Code.38647

       (D) An offense is committed when every element of the offense 38648
occurs. In the case of an offense of which an element is a 38649
continuing course of conduct, the period of limitation does not 38650
begin to run until such course of conduct or the accused's 38651
accountability for it terminates, whichever occurs first.38652

       (E) A prosecution is commenced on the date an indictment is 38653
returned or an information filed, or on the date a lawful arrest 38654
without a warrant is made, or on the date a warrant, summons, 38655
citation, or other process is issued, whichever occurs first. A 38656
prosecution is not commenced by the return of an indictment or the 38657
filing of an information unless reasonable diligence is exercised 38658
to issue and execute process on the same. A prosecution is not 38659
commenced upon issuance of a warrant, summons, citation, or other 38660
process, unless reasonable diligence is exercised to execute the 38661
same.38662

       (F) The period of limitation shall not run during any time 38663
when the corpus delicti remains undiscovered.38664

       (G) The period of limitation shall not run during any time 38665
when the accused purposely avoids prosecution. Proof that the 38666
accused departed this state or concealed the accused's identity or 38667
whereabouts is prima-facie evidence of the accused's purpose to 38668
avoid prosecution.38669

       (H) The period of limitation shall not run during any time a 38670
prosecution against the accused based on the same conduct is 38671
pending in this state, even though the indictment, information, or 38672
process that commenced the prosecution is quashed or the 38673
proceedings on the indictment, information, or process are set 38674
aside or reversed on appeal.38675

       (I) The period of limitation for a violation of any provision 38676
of Title XXIX of the Revised Code that involves a physical or 38677
mental wound, injury, disability, or condition of a nature that 38678
reasonably indicates abuse or neglect of a child under eighteen 38679
years of age or of a mentally retarded, developmentally disabled, 38680
or physically impaired child under twenty-one years of age shall 38681
not begin to run until either of the following occurs:38682

       (1) The victim of the offense reaches the age of majority.38683

       (2) A public children services agency, or a municipal or 38684
county peace officer that is not the parent or guardian of the 38685
child, in the county in which the child resides or in which the 38686
abuse or neglect is occurring or has occurred has been notified 38687
that abuse or neglect is known, suspected, or believed to have 38688
occurred.38689

       (J) As used in this section, "peace officer" has the same 38690
meaning as in section 2935.01 of the Revised Code.38691

       Sec. 2901.30.  (A) As used in sections 2901.30 to 2901.32 of 38692
the Revised Code:38693

       (1) "Information" means information that can be integrated 38694
into the computer system and that relates to the physical or 38695
mental description of a minor including, but not limited to, 38696
height, weight, color of hair and eyes, use of eyeglasses or 38697
contact lenses, skin coloring, physical or mental handicaps, 38698
special medical conditions or needs, abnormalities, problems, 38699
scars and marks, and distinguishing characteristics, and other 38700
information that could assist in identifying a minor including, 38701
but not limited to, full name and nickname, date and place of 38702
birth, age, names and addresses of parents and other relatives, 38703
fingerprints, dental records, photographs, social security number, 38704
driver's license number, credit card numbers, bank account 38705
numbers, and clothing.38706

       (2) "Minor" means a person under eighteen years of age.38707

       (3) "Missing children" or "missing child" means either of the 38708
following:38709

       (a) A minor who has run away from or who otherwise is missing 38710
from the home of, or the care, custody, and control of, the 38711
minor's parents, parent who is the residential parent and legal 38712
custodian, guardian, legal custodian, or other person having 38713
responsibility for the care of the minor;38714

       (b) A minor who is missing and about whom there is reason to 38715
believe the minor could be the victim of a violation of section 38716
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.03, or 2919.23 of the Revised Code or of a 38717
violation of section 2905.04 of the Revised Code as it existed 38718
prior to July 1, 1996.38719

       (B) When a law enforcement agency in this state that has 38720
jurisdiction in the matter is informed that a minor is or may be a 38721
missing child and that the person providing the information wishes 38722
to file a missing child report, the law enforcement agency shall 38723
take that report. Upon taking the report, the law enforcement 38724
agency shall take prompt action upon it, including, but not 38725
limited to, concerted efforts to locate the missing child. No law 38726
enforcement agency in this state shall have a rule or policy that 38727
prohibits or discourages the filing of or the taking of action 38728
upon a missing child report, within a specified period following 38729
the discovery or formulation of a belief that a minor is or could 38730
be a missing child.38731

       (C) If a missing child report is made to a law enforcement 38732
agency in this state that has jurisdiction in the matter, the law 38733
enforcement agency shall gather readily available information 38734
about the missing child and integrate it into the national crime 38735
information center computer immediately following the making of 38736
the report. The law enforcement agency shall make reasonable 38737
efforts to acquire additional information about the missing child 38738
following the transmittal of the initially available information, 38739
and promptly integrate any additional information acquired into 38740
such computer systems.38741

       Whenever a law enforcement agency integrates information 38742
about a missing child into the national crime information center 38743
computer, the law enforcement agency promptly shall notify the 38744
missing child's parents, parent who is the residential parent and 38745
legal custodian, guardian, or legal custodian, or any other person 38746
responsible for the care of the missing child, that it has so 38747
integrated the information.38748

       The parents, parent who is the residential parent and legal 38749
custodian, guardian, legal custodian, or other person responsible 38750
for the care of the missing child shall provide available 38751
information upon request, and may provide information voluntarily, 38752
to the law enforcement agency during the information gathering 38753
process. The law enforcement agency also may obtain available 38754
information about the missing child from other persons, subject to 38755
constitutional and statutory limitations.38756

       (D) Upon the filing of a missing child report, the law 38757
enforcement agency involved may notify the public or nonpublic 38758
school in which the missing child is or was most recently 38759
enrolled, as ascertained by the agency, that the child is the 38760
subject of a missing child report and that the child's school 38761
records are to be marked in accordance with section 3313.672 of 38762
the Revised Code.38763

        (E) Upon the filing of a missing child report, the law 38764
enforcement agency involved promptly shall make a reasonable 38765
attempt to notify other law enforcement agencies within its county 38766
and, if the agency has jurisdiction in a municipal corporation or 38767
township that borders another county, to notify the law 38768
enforcement agency for the municipal corporation or township in 38769
the other county with which it shares the border, that it has 38770
taken a missing child report and may be requesting assistance or 38771
cooperation in the case, and provide relevant information to the 38772
other law enforcement agencies. The agency may notify additional 38773
law enforcement agencies, or appropriate public children services 38774
agencies, about the case, request their assistance or cooperation 38775
in the case, and provide them with relevant information.38776

       Upon request from a law enforcement agency, a public children 38777
services agency shall grant the law enforcement agency access to 38778
all information concerning a missing child that the agency 38779
possesses that may be relevant to the law enforcement agency in 38780
investigating a missing child report concerning that child. The 38781
information obtained by the law enforcement agency shall be used 38782
only to further the investigation to locate the missing child.38783

       (F) Upon request, law enforcement agencies in this state 38784
shall provide assistance to, and cooperate with, other law 38785
enforcement agencies in their investigation of missing child 38786
cases. The assistance and cooperation under this paragraph shall 38787
be pursuant to any terms agreed upon by the law enforcement 38788
agencies, which may include the provision of law enforcement 38789
services or the use of law enforcement equipment or the 38790
interchange of services and equipment among the cooperating law 38791
enforcement agencies. Chapter 2744. of the Revised Code, insofar 38792
as it applies to the operation of law enforcement agencies, shall 38793
apply to the cooperating political subdivisions and to the law 38794
enforcement agency employees when they are rendering services 38795
pursuant to this paragraph outside the territory of the political 38796
subdivision by which they are employed. Law enforcement agency 38797
employees rendering services outside the territory of the 38798
political subdivision in which they are employed, pursuant to this 38799
paragraph, shall be entitled to participate in any indemnity fund 38800
established by their employer to the same extent as if they were 38801
rendering service within the territory of their employing 38802
political subdivision. Those law enforcement agency employees also 38803
shall be entitled to all the rights and benefits of Chapter 4123. 38804
of the Revised Code to the same extent as if rendering services 38805
within the territory of their employing political subdivision.38806

       The information in any missing child report made to a law 38807
enforcement agency shall be made available, upon request, to law 38808
enforcement personnel of this state, other states, and the federal 38809
government when the law enforcement personnel indicate that the 38810
request is to aid in identifying or locating a missing child or 38811
the possible identification of a deceased minor who, upon 38812
discovery, cannot be identified.38813

       (G) When a missing child has not been located within thirty 38814
days after the date on which the missing child report pertaining 38815
to the child was filed with a law enforcement agency, that law 38816
enforcement agency shall request the missing child's parents, 38817
parent who is the residential parent and legal custodian, 38818
guardian, or legal custodian, or any other person responsible for 38819
the care of the missing child, to provide written consent for the 38820
law enforcement agency to contact the missing child's dentist and 38821
request the missing child's dental records. Upon receipt of such 38822
written consent, the dentist shall release a copy of the missing 38823
child's dental records to the law enforcement agency and shall 38824
provide and encode the records in such form as requested by the 38825
law enforcement agency. The law enforcement agency then shall 38826
integrate information in the records into the national crime 38827
information center computer in order to compare the records to 38828
those of unidentified deceased persons. This division does not 38829
prevent a law enforcement agency from seeking consent to obtain 38830
copies of a missing child's dental records, or prevent a missing 38831
child's parents, parent who is the residential parent and legal 38832
custodian, guardian, or legal custodian, or any other person 38833
responsible for the care of the missing child, from granting 38834
consent for the release of copies of the missing child's dental 38835
records to a law enforcement agency, at any time.38836

       (H) A missing child's parents, parent who is the residential 38837
parent and legal custodian, guardian, or legal custodian, or any 38838
other persons responsible for the care of a missing child, 38839
immediately shall notify the law enforcement agency with which 38840
they filed the missing child report whenever the child has 38841
returned to their home or to their care, custody, and control, has 38842
been released if the missing child was the victim of an offense 38843
listed in division (A)(3)(b) of this section, or otherwise has 38844
been located. Upon such notification or upon otherwise learning 38845
that a missing child has returned to the home of, or to the care, 38846
custody, and control of the missing child's parents, parent who is 38847
the residential parent and legal custodian, guardian, legal 38848
custodian, or other person responsible for the missing child's 38849
care, has been released if the missing child was the victim of an 38850
offense listed in division (A)(3)(b) of this section, or otherwise 38851
has been located, the law enforcement agency involved promptly 38852
shall integrate the fact that the minor no longer is a missing 38853
child into the national crime information center computer and 38854
shall inform any school that was notified under division (D) of 38855
this section that the minor is no longer a missing child.38856

       (I) Nothing contained in this section shall be construed to 38857
impair the confidentiality of services provided to runaway minors 38858
by shelters for runaway minors pursuant to sections 5119.64 to 38859
5119.68 of the Revised Code.38860

       Sec. 2903.33.  As used in sections 2903.33 to 2903.36 of the 38861
Revised Code:38862

       (A) "Care facility" means any of the following:38863

       (1) Any "home" as defined in section 3721.10 or 5111.20 of 38864
the Revised Code;38865

       (2) Any "residential facility" as defined in section 5123.19 38866
of the Revised Code;38867

       (3) Any institution or facility operated or provided by the 38868
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services38869
or by the department of developmental disabilities pursuant to 38870
sections 5119.025119.14 and 5123.03 of the Revised Code;38871

       (4) Any "residential facility" as defined in section 5119.2238872
5119.34 of the Revised Code;38873

       (5) Any unit of any hospital, as defined in section 3701.01 38874
of the Revised Code, that provides the same services as a nursing 38875
home, as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;38876

       (6) Any institution, residence, or facility that provides, 38877
for a period of more than twenty-four hours, whether for a 38878
consideration or not, accommodations to one individual or two 38879
unrelated individuals who are dependent upon the services of 38880
others.38881

       (B) "Abuse" means knowingly causing physical harm or 38882
recklessly causing serious physical harm to a person by physical 38883
contact with the person or by the inappropriate use of a physical 38884
or chemical restraint, medication, or isolation on the person.38885

       (C)(1) "Gross neglect" means knowingly failing to provide a 38886
person with any treatment, care, goods, or service that is 38887
necessary to maintain the health or safety of the person when the 38888
failure results in physical harm or serious physical harm to the 38889
person.38890

       (2) "Neglect" means recklessly failing to provide a person 38891
with any treatment, care, goods, or service that is necessary to 38892
maintain the health or safety of the person when the failure 38893
results in serious physical harm to the person.38894

       (D) "Inappropriate use of a physical or chemical restraint, 38895
medication, or isolation" means the use of physical or chemical 38896
restraint, medication, or isolation as punishment, for staff 38897
convenience, excessively, as a substitute for treatment, or in 38898
quantities that preclude habilitation and treatment.38899

       Sec. 2907.22.  (A) No person shall knowingly:38900

       (1) Establish, maintain, operate, manage, supervise, control, 38901
or have an interest in a brothel or any other enterprise a purpose 38902
of which is to facilitate engagement in sexual activity for hire;38903

       (2) Supervise, manage, or control the activities of a 38904
prostitute in engaging in sexual activity for hire;38905

       (3) Transport another, or cause another to be transported 38906
across the boundary of this state or of any county in this state, 38907
in order to facilitate the other person's engaging in sexual 38908
activity for hire;38909

       (4) For the purpose of violating or facilitating a violation 38910
of this section, induce or procure another to engage in sexual 38911
activity for hire.38912

       (B) Whoever violates this section is guilty of promoting 38913
prostitution. Except as otherwise provided in this division, 38914
promoting prostitution is a felony of the fourth degree. If any 38915
prostitute in the brothel involved in the offense, or the 38916
prostitute whose activities are supervised, managed, or controlled 38917
by the offender, or the person transported, induced, or procured 38918
by the offender to engage in sexual activity for hire, is a minor, 38919
whether or not the offender knows the age of the minor, then 38920
promoting prostitution is a felony of the third degree. If the 38921
offender in any case also is convicted of or pleads guilty to a 38922
specification as described in section 2941.1422 of the Revised 38923
Code that was included in the indictment, count in the indictment, 38924
or information charging the offense, the court shall sentence the 38925
offender to a mandatory prison term as provided in division (B)(7) 38926
of section 2929.14 of the Revised Code and shall order the 38927
offender to make restitution as provided in division (B)(8) of 38928
section 2929.18 of the Revised Code.38929

       Sec. 2913.01.  As used in this chapter, unless the context 38930
requires that a term be given a different meaning:38931

       (A) "Deception" means knowingly deceiving another or causing 38932
another to be deceived by any false or misleading representation, 38933
by withholding information, by preventing another from acquiring 38934
information, or by any other conduct, act, or omission that 38935
creates, confirms, or perpetuates a false impression in another, 38936
including a false impression as to law, value, state of mind, or 38937
other objective or subjective fact.38938

       (B) "Defraud" means to knowingly obtain, by deception, some 38939
benefit for oneself or another, or to knowingly cause, by 38940
deception, some detriment to another.38941

       (C) "Deprive" means to do any of the following:38942

       (1) Withhold property of another permanently, or for a period 38943
that appropriates a substantial portion of its value or use, or 38944
with purpose to restore it only upon payment of a reward or other 38945
consideration;38946

       (2) Dispose of property so as to make it unlikely that the 38947
owner will recover it;38948

       (3) Accept, use, or appropriate money, property, or services, 38949
with purpose not to give proper consideration in return for the 38950
money, property, or services, and without reasonable justification 38951
or excuse for not giving proper consideration.38952

       (D) "Owner" means, unless the context requires a different 38953
meaning, any person, other than the actor, who is the owner of, 38954
who has possession or control of, or who has any license or 38955
interest in property or services, even though the ownership, 38956
possession, control, license, or interest is unlawful.38957

       (E) "Services" include labor, personal services, professional 38958
services, rental services, public utility services including 38959
wireless service as defined in division (F)(1) of section 5507.0138960
128.01 of the Revised Code, common carrier services, and food, 38961
drink, transportation, entertainment, and cable television 38962
services and, for purposes of section 2913.04 of the Revised Code, 38963
include cable services as defined in that section.38964

       (F) "Writing" means any computer software, document, letter, 38965
memorandum, note, paper, plate, data, film, or other thing having 38966
in or upon it any written, typewritten, or printed matter, and any 38967
token, stamp, seal, credit card, badge, trademark, label, or other 38968
symbol of value, right, privilege, license, or identification.38969

       (G) "Forge" means to fabricate or create, in whole or in part 38970
and by any means, any spurious writing, or to make, execute, 38971
alter, complete, reproduce, or otherwise purport to authenticate 38972
any writing, when the writing in fact is not authenticated by that 38973
conduct.38974

       (H) "Utter" means to issue, publish, transfer, use, put or 38975
send into circulation, deliver, or display.38976

       (I) "Coin machine" means any mechanical or electronic device 38977
designed to do both of the following:38978

       (1) Receive a coin, bill, or token made for that purpose;38979

       (2) In return for the insertion or deposit of a coin, bill, 38980
or token, automatically dispense property, provide a service, or 38981
grant a license.38982

       (J) "Slug" means an object that, by virtue of its size, 38983
shape, composition, or other quality, is capable of being inserted 38984
or deposited in a coin machine as an improper substitute for a 38985
genuine coin, bill, or token made for that purpose.38986

       (K) "Theft offense" means any of the following:38987

       (1) A violation of section 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 38988
2911.12, 2911.13, 2911.31, 2911.32, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 38989
2913.041, 2913.05, 2913.06, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, 2913.32, 38990
2913.33, 2913.34, 2913.40, 2913.42, 2913.43, 2913.44, 2913.45, 38991
2913.47, 2913.48, former section 2913.47 or 2913.48, or section 38992
2913.51, 2915.05, or 2921.41 of the Revised Code;38993

       (2) A violation of an existing or former municipal ordinance 38994
or law of this or any other state, or of the United States, 38995
substantially equivalent to any section listed in division (K)(1) 38996
of this section or a violation of section 2913.41, 2913.81, or 38997
2915.06 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to July 1, 1996;38998

       (3) An offense under an existing or former municipal 38999
ordinance or law of this or any other state, or of the United 39000
States, involving robbery, burglary, breaking and entering, theft, 39001
embezzlement, wrongful conversion, forgery, counterfeiting, 39002
deceit, or fraud;39003

       (4) A conspiracy or attempt to commit, or complicity in 39004
committing, any offense under division (K)(1), (2), or (3) of this 39005
section.39006

       (L) "Computer services" includes, but is not limited to, the 39007
use of a computer system, computer network, computer program, data 39008
that is prepared for computer use, or data that is contained 39009
within a computer system or computer network.39010

       (M) "Computer" means an electronic device that performs 39011
logical, arithmetic, and memory functions by the manipulation of 39012
electronic or magnetic impulses. "Computer" includes, but is not 39013
limited to, all input, output, processing, storage, computer 39014
program, or communication facilities that are connected, or 39015
related, in a computer system or network to an electronic device 39016
of that nature.39017

       (N) "Computer system" means a computer and related devices, 39018
whether connected or unconnected, including, but not limited to, 39019
data input, output, and storage devices, data communications 39020
links, and computer programs and data that make the system capable 39021
of performing specified special purpose data processing tasks.39022

       (O) "Computer network" means a set of related and remotely 39023
connected computers and communication facilities that includes 39024
more than one computer system that has the capability to transmit 39025
among the connected computers and communication facilities through 39026
the use of computer facilities.39027

       (P) "Computer program" means an ordered set of data 39028
representing coded instructions or statements that, when executed 39029
by a computer, cause the computer to process data.39030

       (Q) "Computer software" means computer programs, procedures, 39031
and other documentation associated with the operation of a 39032
computer system.39033

       (R) "Data" means a representation of information, knowledge, 39034
facts, concepts, or instructions that are being or have been 39035
prepared in a formalized manner and that are intended for use in a 39036
computer, computer system, or computer network. For purposes of 39037
section 2913.47 of the Revised Code, "data" has the additional 39038
meaning set forth in division (A) of that section.39039

       (S) "Cable television service" means any services provided by 39040
or through the facilities of any cable television system or other 39041
similar closed circuit coaxial cable communications system, or any 39042
microwave or similar transmission service used in connection with 39043
any cable television system or other similar closed circuit 39044
coaxial cable communications system.39045

       (T) "Gain access" means to approach, instruct, communicate 39046
with, store data in, retrieve data from, or otherwise make use of 39047
any resources of a computer, computer system, or computer network, 39048
or any cable service or cable system both as defined in section 39049
2913.04 of the Revised Code.39050

       (U) "Credit card" includes, but is not limited to, a card, 39051
code, device, or other means of access to a customer's account for 39052
the purpose of obtaining money, property, labor, or services on 39053
credit, or for initiating an electronic fund transfer at a 39054
point-of-sale terminal, an automated teller machine, or a cash 39055
dispensing machine. It also includes a county procurement card 39056
issued under section 301.29 of the Revised Code.39057

       (V) "Electronic fund transfer" has the same meaning as in 92 39058
Stat. 3728, 15 U.S.C.A. 1693a, as amended.39059

       (W) "Rented property" means personal property in which the 39060
right of possession and use of the property is for a short and 39061
possibly indeterminate term in return for consideration; the 39062
rentee generally controls the duration of possession of the 39063
property, within any applicable minimum or maximum term; and the 39064
amount of consideration generally is determined by the duration of 39065
possession of the property.39066

       (X) "Telecommunication" means the origination, emission, 39067
dissemination, transmission, or reception of data, images, 39068
signals, sounds, or other intelligence or equivalence of 39069
intelligence of any nature over any communications system by any 39070
method, including, but not limited to, a fiber optic, electronic, 39071
magnetic, optical, digital, or analog method.39072

       (Y) "Telecommunications device" means any instrument, 39073
equipment, machine, or other device that facilitates 39074
telecommunication, including, but not limited to, a computer, 39075
computer network, computer chip, computer circuit, scanner, 39076
telephone, cellular telephone, pager, personal communications 39077
device, transponder, receiver, radio, modem, or device that 39078
enables the use of a modem.39079

       (Z) "Telecommunications service" means the providing, 39080
allowing, facilitating, or generating of any form of 39081
telecommunication through the use of a telecommunications device 39082
over a telecommunications system.39083

       (AA) "Counterfeit telecommunications device" means a 39084
telecommunications device that, alone or with another 39085
telecommunications device, has been altered, constructed, 39086
manufactured, or programmed to acquire, intercept, receive, or 39087
otherwise facilitate the use of a telecommunications service or 39088
information service without the authority or consent of the 39089
provider of the telecommunications service or information service. 39090
"Counterfeit telecommunications device" includes, but is not 39091
limited to, a clone telephone, clone microchip, tumbler telephone, 39092
or tumbler microchip; a wireless scanning device capable of 39093
acquiring, intercepting, receiving, or otherwise facilitating the 39094
use of telecommunications service or information service without 39095
immediate detection; or a device, equipment, hardware, or software 39096
designed for, or capable of, altering or changing the electronic 39097
serial number in a wireless telephone.39098

       (BB)(1) "Information service" means, subject to division 39099
(BB)(2) of this section, the offering of a capability for 39100
generating, acquiring, storing, transforming, processing, 39101
retrieving, utilizing, or making available information via 39102
telecommunications, including, but not limited to, electronic 39103
publishing.39104

       (2) "Information service" does not include any use of a 39105
capability of a type described in division (BB)(1) of this section 39106
for the management, control, or operation of a telecommunications 39107
system or the management of a telecommunications service.39108

       (CC) "Elderly person" means a person who is sixty-five years 39109
of age or older.39110

       (DD) "Disabled adult" means a person who is eighteen years of 39111
age or older and has some impairment of body or mind that makes 39112
the person unable to work at any substantially remunerative 39113
employment that the person otherwise would be able to perform and 39114
that will, with reasonable probability, continue for a period of 39115
at least twelve months without any present indication of recovery 39116
from the impairment, or who is eighteen years of age or older and 39117
has been certified as permanently and totally disabled by an 39118
agency of this state or the United States that has the function of 39119
so classifying persons.39120

       (EE) "Firearm" and "dangerous ordnance" have the same 39121
meanings as in section 2923.11 of the Revised Code.39122

       (FF) "Motor vehicle" has the same meaning as in section 39123
4501.01 of the Revised Code.39124

       (GG) "Dangerous drug" has the same meaning as in section 39125
4729.01 of the Revised Code.39126

       (HH) "Drug abuse offense" has the same meaning as in section 39127
2925.01 of the Revised Code.39128

       (II)(1) "Computer hacking" means any of the following:39129

       (a) Gaining access or attempting to gain access to all or 39130
part of a computer, computer system, or a computer network without 39131
express or implied authorization with the intent to defraud or 39132
with intent to commit a crime;39133

       (b) Misusing computer or network services including, but not 39134
limited to, mail transfer programs, file transfer programs, proxy 39135
servers, and web servers by performing functions not authorized by 39136
the owner of the computer, computer system, or computer network or 39137
other person authorized to give consent. As used in this division, 39138
"misuse of computer and network services" includes, but is not 39139
limited to, the unauthorized use of any of the following:39140

       (i) Mail transfer programs to send mail to persons other than 39141
the authorized users of that computer or computer network;39142

       (ii) File transfer program proxy services or proxy servers to 39143
access other computers, computer systems, or computer networks;39144

       (iii) Web servers to redirect users to other web pages or web 39145
servers.39146

       (c)(i) Subject to division (II)(1)(c)(ii) of this section, 39147
using a group of computer programs commonly known as "port 39148
scanners" or "probes" to intentionally access any computer, 39149
computer system, or computer network without the permission of the 39150
owner of the computer, computer system, or computer network or 39151
other person authorized to give consent. The group of computer 39152
programs referred to in this division includes, but is not limited 39153
to, those computer programs that use a computer network to access 39154
a computer, computer system, or another computer network to 39155
determine any of the following: the presence or types of computers 39156
or computer systems on a network; the computer network's 39157
facilities and capabilities; the availability of computer or 39158
network services; the presence or versions of computer software 39159
including, but not limited to, operating systems, computer 39160
services, or computer contaminants; the presence of a known 39161
computer software deficiency that can be used to gain unauthorized 39162
access to a computer, computer system, or computer network; or any 39163
other information about a computer, computer system, or computer 39164
network not necessary for the normal and lawful operation of the 39165
computer initiating the access.39166

       (ii) The group of computer programs referred to in division 39167
(II)(1)(c)(i) of this section does not include standard computer 39168
software used for the normal operation, administration, 39169
management, and test of a computer, computer system, or computer 39170
network including, but not limited to, domain name services, mail 39171
transfer services, and other operating system services, computer 39172
programs commonly called "ping," "tcpdump," and "traceroute" and 39173
other network monitoring and management computer software, and 39174
computer programs commonly known as "nslookup" and "whois" and 39175
other systems administration computer software.39176

       (d) The intentional use of a computer, computer system, or a 39177
computer network in a manner that exceeds any right or permission 39178
granted by the owner of the computer, computer system, or computer 39179
network or other person authorized to give consent.39180

       (2) "Computer hacking" does not include the introduction of a 39181
computer contaminant, as defined in section 2909.01 of the Revised 39182
Code, into a computer, computer system, computer program, or 39183
computer network.39184

       (JJ) "Police dog or horse" has the same meaning as in section 39185
2921.321 of the Revised Code.39186

       (KK) "Anhydrous ammonia" is a compound formed by the 39187
combination of two gaseous elements, nitrogen and hydrogen, in the 39188
manner described in this division. Anhydrous ammonia is one part 39189
nitrogen to three parts hydrogen (NH3). Anhydrous ammonia by 39190
weight is fourteen parts nitrogen to three parts hydrogen, which 39191
is approximately eighty-two per cent nitrogen to eighteen per cent 39192
hydrogen.39193

       (LL) "Assistance dog" has the same meaning as in section 39194
955.011 of the Revised Code.39195

       (MM) "Federally licensed firearms dealer" has the same 39196
meaning as in section 5502.63 of the Revised Code.39197

       Sec. 2913.40.  (A) As used in this section: 39198

       (1) "Statement or representation" means any oral, written, 39199
electronic, electronic impulse, or magnetic communication that is 39200
used to identify an item of goods or a service for which 39201
reimbursement may be made under the medical assistancemedicaid39202
program or that states income and expense and is or may be used to 39203
determine a rate of reimbursement under the medical assistance39204
medicaid program. 39205

       (2) "Medical assistance program" means the program 39206
established by the department of job and family services to 39207
provide medical assistance under section 5111.01 of the Revised 39208
Code and the medicaid program of Title XIX of the "Social Security 39209
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended.39210

       (3) "Provider" means any person who has signed a provider 39211
agreement with the department of job and family servicesmedicaid39212
to provide goods or services pursuant to the medical assistance39213
medicaid program or any person who has signed an agreement with a 39214
party to such a provider agreement under which the person agrees 39215
to provide goods or services that are reimbursable under the 39216
medical assistancemedicaid program. 39217

       (4)(3) "Provider agreement" means an oral or written 39218
agreement between the department of job and family services and a 39219
person in which the person agrees to provide goods or services 39220
under the medical assistance programhas the same meaning as in 39221
section 5164.01 of the Revised Code. 39222

       (5)(4) "Recipient" means any individual who receives goods or 39223
services from a provider under the medical assistancemedicaid39224
program. 39225

       (6)(5) "Records" means any medical, professional, financial, 39226
or business records relating to the treatment or care of any 39227
recipient, to goods or services provided to any recipient, or to 39228
rates paid for goods or services provided to any recipient and any 39229
records that are required by the rules of the medicaid director of 39230
job and family services to be kept for the medical assistance39231
medicaid program. 39232

       (B) No person shall knowingly make or cause to be made a 39233
false or misleading statement or representation for use in 39234
obtaining reimbursement from the medical assistancemedicaid39235
program. 39236

       (C) No person, with purpose to commit fraud or knowing that 39237
the person is facilitating a fraud, shall do either of the 39238
following: 39239

       (1) Contrary to the terms of the person's provider agreement, 39240
charge, solicit, accept, or receive for goods or services that the 39241
person provides under the medical assistancemedicaid program any 39242
property, money, or other consideration in addition to the amount 39243
of reimbursement under the medical assistancemedicaid program and 39244
the person's provider agreement for the goods or services and any 39245
cost-sharing expenses authorized by section 5111.01125162.20 of 39246
the Revised Code or rules adopted pursuant to section 5111.01, 39247
5111.011, or 5111.02 of the Revised Codeby the medicaid director 39248
regarding the medicaid program. 39249

       (2) Solicit, offer, or receive any remuneration, other than 39250
any cost-sharing expenses authorized by section 5111.01125162.2039251
of the Revised Code or rules adopted under section 5111.01, 39252
5111.011, or 5111.02 of the Revised Codeby the medicaid director 39253
regarding the medicaid program, in cash or in kind, including, but 39254
not limited to, a kickback or rebate, in connection with the 39255
furnishing of goods or services for which whole or partial 39256
reimbursement is or may be made under the medical assistance39257
medicaid program. 39258

       (D) No person, having submitted a claim for or provided goods 39259
or services under the medical assistancemedicaid program, shall 39260
do either of the following for a period of at least six years 39261
after a reimbursement pursuant to that claim, or a reimbursement 39262
for those goods or services, is received under the medical 39263
assistancemedicaid program: 39264

       (1) Knowingly alter, falsify, destroy, conceal, or remove any 39265
records that are necessary to fully disclose the nature of all 39266
goods or services for which the claim was submitted, or for which 39267
reimbursement was received, by the person; 39268

       (2) Knowingly alter, falsify, destroy, conceal, or remove any 39269
records that are necessary to disclose fully all income and 39270
expenditures upon which rates of reimbursements were based for the 39271
person. 39272

       (E) Whoever violates this section is guilty of medicaid 39273
fraud. Except as otherwise provided in this division, medicaid 39274
fraud is a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the value of 39275
property, services, or funds obtained in violation of this section 39276
is one thousand dollars or more and is less than seven thousand 39277
five hundred dollars, medicaid fraud is a felony of the fifth 39278
degree. If the value of property, services, or funds obtained in 39279
violation of this section is seven thousand five hundred dollars 39280
or more and is less than one hundred fifty thousand dollars, 39281
medicaid fraud is a felony of the fourth degree. If the value of 39282
the property, services, or funds obtained in violation of this 39283
section is one hundred fifty thousand dollars or more, medicaid 39284
fraud is a felony of the third degree. 39285

       (F) Upon application of the governmental agency, office, or 39286
other entity that conducted the investigation and prosecution in a 39287
case under this section, the court shall order any person who is 39288
convicted of a violation of this section for receiving any 39289
reimbursement for furnishing goods or services under the medical 39290
assistancemedicaid program to which the person is not entitled to 39291
pay to the applicant its cost of investigating and prosecuting 39292
the case. The costs of investigation and prosecution that a 39293
defendant is ordered to pay pursuant to this division shall be in 39294
addition to any other penalties for the receipt of that 39295
reimbursement that are provided in this section, section 5111.0339296
5164.35 of the Revised Code, or any other provision of law. 39297

       (G) The provisions of this section are not intended to be 39298
exclusive remedies and do not preclude the use of any other 39299
criminal or civil remedy for any act that is in violation of this 39300
section. 39301

       Sec. 2913.401.  (A) As used in this section: 39302

       (1) "Medicaid benefitsservices" means benefits under the 39303
medical assistance program established under Chapter 5111.has the 39304
same meaning as in section 5164.01 of the Revised Code. 39305

       (2) "Property" means any real or personal property or other 39306
asset in which a person has any legal title or interest. 39307

       (B) No person shall knowingly do any of the following in an 39308
application for enrollment in the medicaid benefitsprogram or in 39309
a document that requires a disclosure of assets for the purpose of 39310
determining eligibility to receivefor the medicaid benefits39311
program: 39312

       (1) Make or cause to be made a false or misleading statement; 39313

       (2) Conceal an interest in property; 39314

       (3)(a) Except as provided in division (B)(3)(b) of this 39315
section, fail to disclose a transfer of property that occurred 39316
during the period beginning thirty-six months before submission of 39317
the application or document and ending on the date the application 39318
or document was submitted; 39319

       (b) Fail to disclose a transfer of property that occurred 39320
during the period beginning sixty months before submission of the 39321
application or document and ending on the date the application or 39322
document was submitted and that was made to an irrevocable trust a 39323
portion of which is not distributable to the applicant for 39324
medicaid benefits or the recipient of medicaid benefits or to a 39325
revocable trust. 39326

       (C)(1) Whoever violates this section is guilty of medicaid 39327
eligibility fraud. Except as otherwise provided in this division, 39328
a violation of this section is a misdemeanor of the first degree. 39329
If the value of the medicaid benefitsservices paid as a result of 39330
the violation is one thousand dollars or more and is less than 39331
seven thousand five hundred dollars, a violation of this section 39332
is a felony of the fifth degree. If the value of the medicaid 39333
benefitsservices paid as a result of the violation is seven 39334
thousand five hundred dollars or more and is less than one hundred 39335
fifty thousand dollars, a violation of this section is a felony of 39336
the fourth degree. If the value of the medicaid benefitsservices39337
paid as a result of the violation is one hundred fifty thousand 39338
dollars or more, a violation of this section is a felony of the 39339
third degree. 39340

       (2) In addition to imposing a sentence under division (C)(1) 39341
of this section, the court shall order that a person who is guilty 39342
of medicaid eligibility fraud make restitution in the full amount 39343
of any medicaid benefitsservices paid on behalf of an applicant 39344
for or recipient of medicaid benefits for which the applicant or 39345
recipient was not eligible, plus interest at the rate applicable 39346
to judgments on unreimbursed amounts from the date on which the 39347
benefitsmedicaid services were paid to the date on which 39348
restitution is made. 39349

       (3) The remedies and penalties provided in this section are 39350
not exclusive and do not preclude the use of any other criminal or 39351
civil remedy for any act that is in violation of this section. 39352

       (D) This section does not apply to a person who fully 39353
disclosed in an application for medicaid benefits or in a document 39354
that requires a disclosure of assets for the purpose of 39355
determining eligibility to receivefor medicaid benefits all of 39356
the interests in property of the applicant for or recipient of 39357
medicaid benefits, all transfers of property by the applicant for 39358
or recipient of medicaid benefits, and the circumstances of all 39359
those transfers. 39360

       (E) Any amounts of medicaid benefitsservices recovered as 39361
restitution under this section and any interest on those amounts 39362
shall be credited to the general revenue fund, and any applicable 39363
federal share shall be returned to the appropriate agency or 39364
department of the United States. 39365

       Sec. 2919.271.  (A)(1)(a) If a defendant is charged with a 39366
violation of section 2919.27 of the Revised Code or of a municipal 39367
ordinance that is substantially similar to that section, the court 39368
may order an evaluation of the mental condition of the defendant 39369
if the court determines that either of the following criteria 39370
apply:39371

       (i) If the alleged violation is a violation of a protection 39372
order issued or consent agreement approved pursuant to section 39373
2919.26 or 3113.31 of the Revised Code, that the violation 39374
allegedly involves conduct by the defendant that caused physical 39375
harm to the person or property of a family or household member 39376
covered by the order or agreement, or conduct by the defendant 39377
that caused a family or household member to believe that the 39378
defendant would cause physical harm to that member or that 39379
member's property.39380

       (ii) If the alleged violation is a violation of a protection 39381
order issued pursuant to section 2903.213 or 2903.214 of the 39382
Revised Code or a protection order issued by a court of another 39383
state, that the violation allegedly involves conduct by the 39384
defendant that caused physical harm to the person or property of 39385
the person covered by the order, or conduct by the defendant that 39386
caused the person covered by the order to believe that the 39387
defendant would cause physical harm to that person or that 39388
person's property.39389

       (b) If a defendant is charged with a violation of section 39390
2903.211 of the Revised Code or of a municipal ordinance that is 39391
substantially similar to that section, the court may order an 39392
evaluation of the mental condition of the defendant.39393

       (2) An evaluation ordered under division (A)(1) of this 39394
section shall be completed no later than thirty days from the date 39395
the order is entered pursuant to that division. In that order, the 39396
court shall do either of the following:39397

       (a) Order that the evaluation of the mental condition of the 39398
defendant be preceded by an examination conducted either by a 39399
forensic center that is designated by the department of mental 39400
healthmental health and addiction services to conduct 39401
examinations and make evaluations of defendants charged with 39402
violations of section 2903.211 or 2919.27 of the Revised Code or 39403
of substantially similar municipal ordinances in the area in which 39404
the court is located, or by any other program or facility that is 39405
designated by the department of mental healthmental health and 39406
addiction services or the department of developmental disabilities 39407
to conduct examinations and make evaluations of defendants charged 39408
with violations of section 2903.211 or 2919.27 of the Revised Code 39409
or of substantially similar municipal ordinances, and that is 39410
operated by either department or is certified by either department 39411
as being in compliance with the standards established under 39412
division (H)(B)(7) of section 5119.015119.10 of the Revised Code 39413
or division (C) of section 5123.04 of the Revised Code.39414

       (b) Designate a center, program, or facility other than one 39415
designated by the department of mental healthmental health and 39416
addiction services or the department of developmental 39417
disabilities, as described in division (A)(2)(a) of this section, 39418
to conduct the evaluation and preceding examination of the mental 39419
condition of the defendant.39420

       Whether the court acts pursuant to division (A)(2)(a) or (b) 39421
of this section, the court may designate examiners other than the 39422
personnel of the center, program, facility, or department involved 39423
to make the evaluation and preceding examination of the mental 39424
condition of the defendant.39425

       (B) If the court considers that additional evaluations of the 39426
mental condition of a defendant are necessary following the 39427
evaluation authorized by division (A) of this section, the court 39428
may order up to two additional similar evaluations. These 39429
evaluations shall be completed no later than thirty days from the 39430
date the applicable court order is entered. If more than one 39431
evaluation of the mental condition of the defendant is ordered 39432
under this division, the prosecutor and the defendant may 39433
recommend to the court an examiner whom each prefers to perform 39434
one of the evaluations and preceding examinations.39435

       (C)(1) The court may order a defendant who has been released 39436
on bail to submit to an examination under division (A) or (B) of 39437
this section. The examination shall be conducted either at the 39438
detention facility in which the defendant would have been confined 39439
if the defendant had not been released on bail, or, if so 39440
specified by the center, program, facility, or examiners involved, 39441
at the premises of the center, program, or facility. Additionally, 39442
the examination shall be conducted at the times established by the 39443
examiners involved. If such a defendant refuses to submit to an 39444
examination or a complete examination as required by the court or 39445
the center, program, facility, or examiners involved, the court 39446
may amend the conditions of the bail of the defendant and order 39447
the sheriff to take the defendant into custody and deliver the 39448
defendant to the detention facility in which the defendant would 39449
have been confined if the defendant had not been released on bail, 39450
or, if so specified by the center, program, facility, or examiners 39451
involved, to the premises of the center, program, or facility, for 39452
purposes of the examination.39453

       (2) A defendant who has not been released on bail shall be 39454
examined at the detention facility in which the defendant is 39455
confined or, if so specified by the center, program, facility, or 39456
examiners involved, at the premises of the center, program, or 39457
facility.39458

       (D) The examiner of the mental condition of a defendant under 39459
division (A) or (B) of this section shall file a written report 39460
with the court within thirty days after the entry of an order for 39461
the evaluation of the mental condition of the defendant. The 39462
report shall contain the findings of the examiner; the facts in 39463
reasonable detail on which the findings are based; the opinion of 39464
the examiner as to the mental condition of the defendant; the 39465
opinion of the examiner as to whether the defendant represents a 39466
substantial risk of physical harm to other persons as manifested 39467
by evidence of recent homicidal or other violent behavior, 39468
evidence of recent threats that placed other persons in reasonable 39469
fear of violent behavior and serious physical harm, or evidence of 39470
present dangerousness; and the opinion of the examiner as to the 39471
types of treatment or counseling that the defendant needs. The 39472
court shall provide copies of the report to the prosecutor and 39473
defense counsel.39474

       (E) The costs of any evaluation and preceding examination of 39475
a defendant that is ordered pursuant to division (A) or (B) of 39476
this section shall be taxed as court costs in the criminal case.39477

       (F) If the examiner considers it necessary in order to make 39478
an accurate evaluation of the mental condition of a defendant, an 39479
examiner under division (A) or (B) of this section may request any 39480
family or household member of the defendant to provide the 39481
examiner with information. A family or household member may, but 39482
is not required to, provide information to the examiner upon 39483
receipt of the request.39484

       (G) As used in this section:39485

       (1) "Bail" includes a recognizance.39486

       (2) "Examiner" means a psychiatrist, a licensed independent 39487
social worker who is employed by a forensic center that is 39488
certified as being in compliance with the standards established 39489
under division (H)(B)(7) of section 5119.015119.10 or division 39490
(C) of section 5123.04 of the Revised Code, a licensed 39491
professional clinical counselor who is employed at a forensic 39492
center that is certified as being in compliance with such 39493
standards, or a licensed clinical psychologist, except that in 39494
order to be an examiner, a licensed clinical psychologist shall 39495
meet the criteria of division (I)(1) of section 5122.01 of the 39496
Revised Code or be employed to conduct examinations by the 39497
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services39498
or by a forensic center certified as being in compliance with the 39499
standards established under division (H)(B)(7) of section 5119.0139500
5119.10 or division (C) of section 5123.04 of the Revised Code 39501
that is designated by the department of mental healthmental 39502
health and addiction services.39503

       (3) "Family or household member" has the same meaning as in 39504
section 2919.25 of the Revised Code.39505

       (4) "Prosecutor" has the same meaning as in section 2935.01 39506
of the Revised Code.39507

       (5) "Psychiatrist" and "licensed clinical psychologist" have 39508
the same meanings as in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.39509

       (6) "Protection order issued by a court of another state" has 39510
the same meaning as in section 2919.27 of the Revised Code.39511

       Sec. 2921.01.  As used in sections 2921.01 to 2921.45 of the 39512
Revised Code:39513

       (A) "Public official" means any elected or appointed officer, 39514
or employee, or agent of the state or any political subdivision, 39515
whether in a temporary or permanent capacity, and includes, but is 39516
not limited to, legislators, judges, and law enforcement officers. 39517
"Public official" does not include an employee, officer, or 39518
governor-appointed member of the board of directors of the 39519
nonprofit corporation formed under section 187.01 of the Revised 39520
Code.39521

       (B) "Public servant" means any of the following:39522

       (1) Any public official;39523

       (2) Any person performing ad hoc a governmental function, 39524
including, but not limited to, a juror, member of a temporary 39525
commission, master, arbitrator, advisor, or consultant;39526

       (3) A person who is a candidate for public office, whether or 39527
not the person is elected or appointed to the office for which the 39528
person is a candidate. A person is a candidate for purposes of 39529
this division if the person has been nominated according to law 39530
for election or appointment to public office, or if the person has 39531
filed a petition or petitions as required by law to have the 39532
person's name placed on the ballot in a primary, general, or 39533
special election, or if the person campaigns as a write-in 39534
candidate in any primary, general, or special election.39535

       "Public servant" does not include an employee, officer, or 39536
governor-appointed member of the board of directors of the 39537
nonprofit corporation formed under section 187.01 of the Revised 39538
Code.39539

       (C) "Party official" means any person who holds an elective 39540
or appointive post in a political party in the United States or 39541
this state, by virtue of which the person directs, conducts, or 39542
participates in directing or conducting party affairs at any level 39543
of responsibility.39544

       (D) "Official proceeding" means any proceeding before a 39545
legislative, judicial, administrative, or other governmental 39546
agency or official authorized to take evidence under oath, and 39547
includes any proceeding before a referee, hearing examiner, 39548
commissioner, notary, or other person taking testimony or a 39549
deposition in connection with an official proceeding.39550

       (E) "Detention" means arrest; confinement in any vehicle 39551
subsequent to an arrest; confinement in any public or private 39552
facility for custody of persons charged with or convicted of crime 39553
in this state or another state or under the laws of the United 39554
States or alleged or found to be a delinquent child or unruly 39555
child in this state or another state or under the laws of the 39556
United States; hospitalization, institutionalization, or 39557
confinement in any public or private facility that is ordered 39558
pursuant to or under the authority of section 2945.37, 2945.371, 39559
2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised 39560
Code; confinement in any vehicle for transportation to or from any 39561
facility of any of those natures; detention for extradition or 39562
deportation; except as provided in this division, supervision by 39563
any employee of any facility of any of those natures that is 39564
incidental to hospitalization, institutionalization, or 39565
confinement in the facility but that occurs outside the facility; 39566
supervision by an employee of the department of rehabilitation and 39567
correction of a person on any type of release from a state 39568
correctional institution; or confinement in any vehicle, airplane, 39569
or place while being returned from outside of this state into this 39570
state by a private person or entity pursuant to a contract entered 39571
into under division (E) of section 311.29 of the Revised Code or 39572
division (B) of section 5149.03 of the Revised Code. For a person 39573
confined in a county jail who participates in a county jail 39574
industry program pursuant to section 5147.30 of the Revised Code, 39575
"detention" includes time spent at an assigned work site and going 39576
to and from the work site.39577

       (F) "Detention facility" means any public or private place 39578
used for the confinement of a person charged with or convicted of 39579
any crime in this state or another state or under the laws of the 39580
United States or alleged or found to be a delinquent child or 39581
unruly child in this state or another state or under the laws of 39582
the United States.39583

       (G) "Valuable thing or valuable benefit" includes, but is not 39584
limited to, a contribution. This inclusion does not indicate or 39585
imply that a contribution was not included in those terms before 39586
September 17, 1986.39587

       (H) "Campaign committee," "contribution," "political action 39588
committee," "legislative campaign fund," "political party," and 39589
"political contributing entity" have the same meanings as in 39590
section 3517.01 of the Revised Code.39591

       (I) "Provider agreement" and "medical assistance program" 39592
havehas the same meaningsmeaning as in section 2913.405164.0139593
of the Revised Code.39594

       Sec. 2921.22.  (A)(1) Except as provided in division (A)(2) 39595
of this section, no person, knowing that a felony has been or is 39596
being committed, shall knowingly fail to report such information 39597
to law enforcement authorities.39598

       (2) No person, knowing that a violation of division (B) of 39599
section 2913.04 of the Revised Code has been, or is being 39600
committed or that the person has received information derived from 39601
such a violation, shall knowingly fail to report the violation to 39602
law enforcement authorities.39603

       (B) Except for conditions that are within the scope of 39604
division (E) of this section, no physician, limited practitioner, 39605
nurse, or other person giving aid to a sick or injured person 39606
shall negligently fail to report to law enforcement authorities 39607
any gunshot or stab wound treated or observed by the physician, 39608
limited practitioner, nurse, or person, or any serious physical 39609
harm to persons that the physician, limited practitioner, nurse, 39610
or person knows or has reasonable cause to believe resulted from 39611
an offense of violence.39612

       (C) No person who discovers the body or acquires the first 39613
knowledge of the death of a person shall fail to report the death 39614
immediately to a physician whom the person knows to be treating 39615
the deceased for a condition from which death at such time would 39616
not be unexpected, or to a law enforcement officer, an ambulance 39617
service, an emergency squad, or the coroner in a political 39618
subdivision in which the body is discovered, the death is believed 39619
to have occurred, or knowledge concerning the death is obtained.39620

       (D) No person shall fail to provide upon request of the 39621
person to whom a report required by division (C) of this section 39622
was made, or to any law enforcement officer who has reasonable 39623
cause to assert the authority to investigate the circumstances 39624
surrounding the death, any facts within the person's knowledge 39625
that may have a bearing on the investigation of the death.39626

       (E)(1) As used in this division, "burn injury" means any of 39627
the following:39628

       (a) Second or third degree burns;39629

       (b) Any burns to the upper respiratory tract or laryngeal 39630
edema due to the inhalation of superheated air;39631

       (c) Any burn injury or wound that may result in death;39632

       (d) Any physical harm to persons caused by or as the result 39633
of the use of fireworks, novelties and trick noisemakers, and wire 39634
sparklers, as each is defined by section 3743.01 of the Revised 39635
Code.39636

       (2) No physician, nurse, or limited practitioner who, outside 39637
a hospital, sanitarium, or other medical facility, attends or 39638
treats a person who has sustained a burn injury that is inflicted 39639
by an explosion or other incendiary device or that shows evidence 39640
of having been inflicted in a violent, malicious, or criminal 39641
manner shall fail to report the burn injury immediately to the 39642
local arson, or fire and explosion investigation, bureau, if there 39643
is a bureau of this type in the jurisdiction in which the person 39644
is attended or treated, or otherwise to local law enforcement 39645
authorities.39646

       (3) No manager, superintendent, or other person in charge of 39647
a hospital, sanitarium, or other medical facility in which a 39648
person is attended or treated for any burn injury that is 39649
inflicted by an explosion or other incendiary device or that shows 39650
evidence of having been inflicted in a violent, malicious, or 39651
criminal manner shall fail to report the burn injury immediately 39652
to the local arson, or fire and explosion investigation, bureau, 39653
if there is a bureau of this type in the jurisdiction in which the 39654
person is attended or treated, or otherwise to local law 39655
enforcement authorities.39656

       (4) No person who is required to report any burn injury under 39657
division (E)(2) or (3) of this section shall fail to file, within 39658
three working days after attending or treating the victim, a 39659
written report of the burn injury with the office of the state 39660
fire marshal. The report shall comply with the uniform standard 39661
developed by the state fire marshal pursuant to division (A)(15) 39662
of section 3737.22 of the Revised Code.39663

       (5) Anyone participating in the making of reports under 39664
division (E) of this section or anyone participating in a judicial 39665
proceeding resulting from the reports is immune from any civil or 39666
criminal liability that otherwise might be incurred or imposed as 39667
a result of such actions. Notwithstanding section 4731.22 of the 39668
Revised Code, the physician-patient relationship is not a ground 39669
for excluding evidence regarding a person's burn injury or the 39670
cause of the burn injury in any judicial proceeding resulting from 39671
a report submitted under division (E) of this section.39672

       (F)(1) Any doctor of medicine or osteopathic medicine, 39673
hospital intern or resident, registered or licensed practical 39674
nurse, psychologist, social worker, independent social worker, 39675
social work assistant, professional clinical counselor, or 39676
professional counselor who knows or has reasonable cause to 39677
believe that a patient or client has been the victim of domestic 39678
violence, as defined in section 3113.31 of the Revised Code, shall 39679
note that knowledge or belief and the basis for it in the 39680
patient's or client's records.39681

       (2) Notwithstanding section 4731.22 of the Revised Code, the 39682
doctor-patient privilege shall not be a ground for excluding any 39683
information regarding the report containing the knowledge or 39684
belief noted under division (F)(1) of this section, and the 39685
information may be admitted as evidence in accordance with the 39686
Rules of Evidence.39687

       (G) Divisions (A) and (D) of this section do not require 39688
disclosure of information, when any of the following applies:39689

       (1) The information is privileged by reason of the 39690
relationship between attorney and client; doctor and patient; 39691
licensed psychologist or licensed school psychologist and client; 39692
member of the clergy, rabbi, minister, or priest and any person 39693
communicating information confidentially to the member of the 39694
clergy, rabbi, minister, or priest for a religious counseling 39695
purpose of a professional character; husband and wife; or a 39696
communications assistant and those who are a party to a 39697
telecommunications relay service call.39698

       (2) The information would tend to incriminate a member of the 39699
actor's immediate family.39700

       (3) Disclosure of the information would amount to revealing a 39701
news source, privileged under section 2739.04 or 2739.12 of the 39702
Revised Code.39703

       (4) Disclosure of the information would amount to disclosure 39704
by a member of the ordained clergy of an organized religious body 39705
of a confidential communication made to that member of the clergy 39706
in that member's capacity as a member of the clergy by a person 39707
seeking the aid or counsel of that member of the clergy.39708

       (5) Disclosure would amount to revealing information acquired 39709
by the actor in the course of the actor's duties in connection 39710
with a bona fide program of treatment or services for drug 39711
dependent persons or persons in danger of drug dependence, which 39712
program is maintained or conducted by a hospital, clinic, person, 39713
agency, or organizationservices provider certified pursuant to 39714
section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code.39715

       (6) Disclosure would amount to revealing information acquired 39716
by the actor in the course of the actor's duties in connection 39717
with a bona fide program for providing counseling services to 39718
victims of crimes that are violations of section 2907.02 or 39719
2907.05 of the Revised Code or to victims of felonious sexual 39720
penetration in violation of former section 2907.12 of the Revised 39721
Code. As used in this division, "counseling services" include 39722
services provided in an informal setting by a person who, by 39723
education or experience, is competent to provide those services.39724

       (H) No disclosure of information pursuant to this section 39725
gives rise to any liability or recrimination for a breach of 39726
privilege or confidence.39727

       (I) Whoever violates division (A) or (B) of this section is 39728
guilty of failure to report a crime. Violation of division (A)(1) 39729
of this section is a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. Violation 39730
of division (A)(2) or (B) of this section is a misdemeanor of the 39731
second degree.39732

       (J) Whoever violates division (C) or (D) of this section is 39733
guilty of failure to report knowledge of a death, a misdemeanor of 39734
the fourth degree.39735

       (K)(1) Whoever negligently violates division (E) of this 39736
section is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.39737

       (2) Whoever knowingly violates division (E) of this section 39738
is guilty of a misdemeanor of the second degree.39739

       Sec. 2921.36.  (A) No person shall knowingly convey, or 39740
attempt to convey, onto the grounds of a detention facility or of 39741
an institution, office building, or other place that is under the 39742
control of the department of mental healthmental health and 39743
addiction services, the department of developmental disabilities, 39744
the department of youth services, or the department of 39745
rehabilitation and correction any of the following items:39746

       (1) Any deadly weapon or dangerous ordnance, as defined in 39747
section 2923.11 of the Revised Code, or any part of or ammunition 39748
for use in such a deadly weapon or dangerous ordnance;39749

       (2) Any drug of abuse, as defined in section 3719.011 of the 39750
Revised Code;39751

       (3) Any intoxicating liquor, as defined in section 4301.01 of 39752
the Revised Code.39753

       (B) Division (A) of this section does not apply to any person 39754
who conveys or attempts to convey an item onto the grounds of a 39755
detention facility or of an institution, office building, or other 39756
place under the control of the department of mental healthmental 39757
health and addiction services, the department of developmental 39758
disabilities, the department of youth services, or the department 39759
of rehabilitation and correction pursuant to the written 39760
authorization of the person in charge of the detention facility or 39761
the institution, office building, or other place and in accordance 39762
with the written rules of the detention facility or the 39763
institution, office building, or other place.39764

       (C) No person shall knowingly deliver, or attempt to deliver, 39765
to any person who is confined in a detention facility, to a child 39766
confined in a youth services facility, to a prisoner who is 39767
temporarily released from confinement for a work assignment, or to 39768
any patient in an institution under the control of the department 39769
of mental healthmental health and addiction services or the 39770
department of developmental disabilities any item listed in 39771
division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of this section.39772

       (D) No person shall knowingly deliver, or attempt to deliver, 39773
cash to any person who is confined in a detention facility, to a 39774
child confined in a youth services facility, or to a prisoner who 39775
is temporarily released from confinement for a work assignment.39776

       (E) No person shall knowingly deliver, or attempt to deliver, 39777
to any person who is confined in a detention facility, to a child 39778
confined in a youth services facility, or to a prisoner who is 39779
temporarily released from confinement for a work assignment a 39780
cellular telephone, two-way radio, or other electronic 39781
communications device.39782

       (F)(1) It is an affirmative defense to a charge under 39783
division (A)(1) of this section that the weapon or dangerous 39784
ordnance in question was being transported in a motor vehicle for 39785
any lawful purpose, that it was not on the actor's person, and, if 39786
the weapon or dangerous ordnance in question was a firearm, that 39787
it was unloaded and was being carried in a closed package, box, or 39788
case or in a compartment that can be reached only by leaving the 39789
vehicle.39790

       (2) It is an affirmative defense to a charge under division 39791
(C) of this section that the actor was not otherwise prohibited by 39792
law from delivering the item to the confined person, the child, 39793
the prisoner, or the patient and that either of the following 39794
applies:39795

       (a) The actor was permitted by the written rules of the 39796
detention facility or the institution, office building, or other 39797
place to deliver the item to the confined person or the patient.39798

       (b) The actor was given written authorization by the person 39799
in charge of the detention facility or the institution, office 39800
building, or other place to deliver the item to the confined 39801
person or the patient.39802

       (G)(1) Whoever violates division (A)(1) of this section or 39803
commits a violation of division (C) of this section involving an 39804
item listed in division (A)(1) of this section is guilty of 39805
illegal conveyance of weapons onto the grounds of a specified 39806
governmental facility, a felony of the third degree. If the 39807
offender is an officer or employee of the department of 39808
rehabilitation and correction, the court shall impose a mandatory 39809
prison term.39810

       (2) Whoever violates division (A)(2) of this section or 39811
commits a violation of division (C) of this section involving any 39812
drug of abuse is guilty of illegal conveyance of drugs of abuse 39813
onto the grounds of a specified governmental facility, a felony of 39814
the third degree. If the offender is an officer or employee of the 39815
department of rehabilitation and correction or of the department 39816
of youth services, the court shall impose a mandatory prison term.39817

       (3) Whoever violates division (A)(3) of this section or 39818
commits a violation of division (C) of this section involving any 39819
intoxicating liquor is guilty of illegal conveyance of 39820
intoxicating liquor onto the grounds of a specified governmental 39821
facility, a misdemeanor of the second degree.39822

       (4) Whoever violates division (D) of this section is guilty 39823
of illegal conveyance of cash onto the grounds of a detention 39824
facility, a misdemeanor of the first degree. If the offender 39825
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation 39826
of division (D) of this section, illegal conveyance of cash onto 39827
the grounds of a detention facility is a felony of the fifth 39828
degree.39829

       (5) Whoever violates division (E) of this section is guilty 39830
of illegal conveyance of a communications device onto the grounds 39831
of a specified governmental facility, a misdemeanor of the first 39832
degree, or if the offender previously has been convicted of or 39833
pleaded guilty to a violation of division (E) of this section, a 39834
felony of the fifth degree.39835

       Sec. 2921.38.  (A) No person who is confined in a detention 39836
facility, with intent to harass, annoy, threaten, or alarm another 39837
person, shall cause or attempt to cause the other person to come 39838
into contact with blood, semen, urine, feces, or another bodily 39839
substance by throwing the bodily substance at the other person, by 39840
expelling the bodily substance upon the other person, or in any 39841
other manner.39842

       (B) No person, with intent to harass, annoy, threaten, or 39843
alarm a law enforcement officer, shall cause or attempt to cause 39844
the law enforcement officer to come into contact with blood, 39845
semen, urine, feces, or another bodily substance by throwing the 39846
bodily substance at the law enforcement officer, by expelling the 39847
bodily substance upon the law enforcement officer, or in any other 39848
manner.39849

       (C) No person, with knowledge that the person is a carrier of 39850
the virus that causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome, is a 39851
carrier of a hepatitis virus, or is infected with tuberculosis and 39852
with intent to harass, annoy, threaten, or alarm another person, 39853
shall cause or attempt to cause the other person to come into 39854
contact with blood, semen, urine, feces, or another bodily 39855
substance by throwing the bodily substance at the other person, by 39856
expelling the bodily substance upon the other person, or in any 39857
other manner.39858

       (D) Whoever violates this section is guilty of harassment 39859
with a bodily substance. A violation of division (A) or (B) of 39860
this section is a felony of the fifth degree. A violation of 39861
division (C) of this section is a felony of the third degree.39862

       (E)(1) The court, on request of the prosecutor, or the law 39863
enforcement authority responsible for the investigation of the 39864
violation, shall cause a person who allegedly has committed a 39865
violation of this section to submit to one or more appropriate 39866
tests to determine if the person is a carrier of the virus that 39867
causes acquired immunodeficiency syndrome, is a carrier of a 39868
hepatitis virus, or is infected with tuberculosis.39869

       (2) The court shall charge the offender with the costs of the 39870
test or tests ordered under division (E)(1) of this section unless 39871
the court determines that the accused is unable to pay, in which 39872
case the costs shall be charged to the entity that operates the 39873
detention facility in which the alleged offense occurred.39874

       (F) This section does not apply to a person who is 39875
hospitalized, institutionalized, or confined in a facility 39876
operated by the department of mental healthmental health and 39877
addiction services or the department of developmental 39878
disabilities.39879

       Sec. 2923.126.  (A) A concealed handgun license that is 39880
issued under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code shall expire 39881
five years after the date of issuance. A licensee who has been 39882
issued a license under that section shall be granted a grace 39883
period of thirty days after the licensee's license expires during 39884
which the licensee's license remains valid. Except as provided in 39885
divisions (B) and (C) of this section, a licensee who has been 39886
issued a concealed handgun license under section 2923.125 or 39887
2923.1213 of the Revised Code may carry a concealed handgun 39888
anywhere in this state if the licensee also carries a valid 39889
license and valid identification when the licensee is in actual 39890
possession of a concealed handgun. The licensee shall give notice 39891
of any change in the licensee's residence address to the sheriff 39892
who issued the license within forty-five days after that change.39893

       If a licensee is the driver or an occupant of a motor vehicle 39894
that is stopped as the result of a traffic stop or a stop for 39895
another law enforcement purpose and if the licensee is 39896
transporting or has a loaded handgun in the motor vehicle at that 39897
time, the licensee shall promptly inform any law enforcement 39898
officer who approaches the vehicle while stopped that the licensee 39899
has been issued a concealed handgun license and that the licensee 39900
currently possesses or has a loaded handgun; the licensee shall 39901
not knowingly disregard or fail to comply with lawful orders of a 39902
law enforcement officer given while the motor vehicle is stopped, 39903
knowingly fail to remain in the motor vehicle while stopped, or 39904
knowingly fail to keep the licensee's hands in plain sight after 39905
any law enforcement officer begins approaching the licensee while 39906
stopped and before the officer leaves, unless directed otherwise 39907
by a law enforcement officer; and the licensee shall not knowingly 39908
have contact with the loaded handgun by touching it with the 39909
licensee's hands or fingers, in any manner in violation of 39910
division (E) of section 2923.16 of the Revised Code, after any law 39911
enforcement officer begins approaching the licensee while stopped 39912
and before the officer leaves. Additionally, if a licensee is the 39913
driver or an occupant of a commercial motor vehicle that is 39914
stopped by an employee of the motor carrier enforcement unit for 39915
the purposes defined in section 5503.04 of the Revised Code and if 39916
the licensee is transporting or has a loaded handgun in the 39917
commercial motor vehicle at that time, the licensee shall promptly 39918
inform the employee of the unit who approaches the vehicle while 39919
stopped that the licensee has been issued a concealed handgun 39920
license and that the licensee currently possesses or has a loaded 39921
handgun. 39922

       If a licensee is stopped for a law enforcement purpose and if 39923
the licensee is carrying a concealed handgun at the time the 39924
officer approaches, the licensee shall promptly inform any law 39925
enforcement officer who approaches the licensee while stopped that 39926
the licensee has been issued a concealed handgun license and that 39927
the licensee currently is carrying a concealed handgun; the 39928
licensee shall not knowingly disregard or fail to comply with 39929
lawful orders of a law enforcement officer given while the 39930
licensee is stopped or knowingly fail to keep the licensee's hands 39931
in plain sight after any law enforcement officer begins 39932
approaching the licensee while stopped and before the officer 39933
leaves, unless directed otherwise by a law enforcement officer; 39934
and the licensee shall not knowingly remove, attempt to remove, 39935
grasp, or hold the loaded handgun or knowingly have contact with 39936
the loaded handgun by touching it with the licensee's hands or 39937
fingers, in any manner in violation of division (B) of section 39938
2923.12 of the Revised Code, after any law enforcement officer 39939
begins approaching the licensee while stopped and before the 39940
officer leaves.39941

        (B) A valid concealed handgun license does not authorize the 39942
licensee to carry a concealed handgun in any manner prohibited 39943
under division (B) of section 2923.12 of the Revised Code or in 39944
any manner prohibited under section 2923.16 of the Revised Code. A 39945
valid license does not authorize the licensee to carry a concealed 39946
handgun into any of the following places:39947

       (1) A police station, sheriff's office, or state highway 39948
patrol station, premises controlled by the bureau of criminal 39949
identification and investigation, a state correctional 39950
institution, jail, workhouse, or other detention facility, an 39951
airport passenger terminal, or an institution that is maintained, 39952
operated, managed, and governed pursuant to division (A) of 39953
section 5119.025119.14 of the Revised Code or division (A)(1) of 39954
section 5123.03 of the Revised Code;39955

        (2) A school safety zone if the licensee's carrying the 39956
concealed handgun is in violation of section 2923.122 of the 39957
Revised Code;39958

       (3) A courthouse or another building or structure in which a 39959
courtroom is located, in violation of section 2923.123 of the 39960
Revised Code;39961

       (4) Any premises or open air arena for which a D permit has 39962
been issued under Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code if the 39963
licensee's carrying the concealed handgun is in violation of 39964
section 2923.121 of the Revised Code;39965

        (5) Any premises owned or leased by any public or private 39966
college, university, or other institution of higher education, 39967
unless the handgun is in a locked motor vehicle or the licensee is 39968
in the immediate process of placing the handgun in a locked motor 39969
vehicle;39970

        (6) Any church, synagogue, mosque, or other place of worship, 39971
unless the church, synagogue, mosque, or other place of worship 39972
posts or permits otherwise;39973

       (7) A child day-care center, a type A family day-care home, a 39974
type B family day-care home, or a type C family day-care home, 39975
except that this division does not prohibit a licensee who resides 39976
in a type A family day-care home, a type B family day-care home, 39977
or a type C family day-care home from carrying a concealed handgun 39978
at any time in any part of the home that is not dedicated or used 39979
for day-care purposes, or from carrying a concealed handgun in a 39980
part of the home that is dedicated or used for day-care purposes 39981
at any time during which no children, other than children of that 39982
licensee, are in the home;39983

       (8) An aircraft that is in, or intended for operation in, 39984
foreign air transportation, interstate air transportation, 39985
intrastate air transportation, or the transportation of mail by 39986
aircraft;39987

       (9) Any building that is a government facility of this state 39988
or a political subdivision of this state and that is not a 39989
building that is used primarily as a shelter, restroom, parking 39990
facility for motor vehicles, or rest facility and is not a 39991
courthouse or other building or structure in which a courtroom is 39992
located that is subject to division (B)(3) of this section;39993

       (10) A place in which federal law prohibits the carrying of 39994
handguns.39995

       (C)(1) Nothing in this section shall negate or restrict a 39996
rule, policy, or practice of a private employer that is not a 39997
private college, university, or other institution of higher 39998
education concerning or prohibiting the presence of firearms on 39999
the private employer's premises or property, including motor 40000
vehicles owned by the private employer. Nothing in this section 40001
shall require a private employer of that nature to adopt a rule, 40002
policy, or practice concerning or prohibiting the presence of 40003
firearms on the private employer's premises or property, including 40004
motor vehicles owned by the private employer.40005

       (2)(a) A private employer shall be immune from liability in a 40006
civil action for any injury, death, or loss to person or property 40007
that allegedly was caused by or related to a licensee bringing a 40008
handgun onto the premises or property of the private employer, 40009
including motor vehicles owned by the private employer, unless the 40010
private employer acted with malicious purpose. A private employer 40011
is immune from liability in a civil action for any injury, death, 40012
or loss to person or property that allegedly was caused by or 40013
related to the private employer's decision to permit a licensee to 40014
bring, or prohibit a licensee from bringing, a handgun onto the 40015
premises or property of the private employer. As used in this 40016
division, "private employer" includes a private college, 40017
university, or other institution of higher education.40018

       (b) A political subdivision shall be immune from liability in 40019
a civil action, to the extent and in the manner provided in 40020
Chapter 2744. of the Revised Code, for any injury, death, or loss 40021
to person or property that allegedly was caused by or related to a 40022
licensee bringing a handgun onto any premises or property owned, 40023
leased, or otherwise under the control of the political 40024
subdivision. As used in this division, "political subdivision" has 40025
the same meaning as in section 2744.01 of the Revised Code.40026

       (3)(a) Except as provided in division (C)(3)(b) of this 40027
section, the owner or person in control of private land or 40028
premises, and a private person or entity leasing land or premises 40029
owned by the state, the United States, or a political subdivision 40030
of the state or the United States, may post a sign in a 40031
conspicuous location on that land or on those premises prohibiting 40032
persons from carrying firearms or concealed firearms on or onto 40033
that land or those premises. Except as otherwise provided in this 40034
division, a person who knowingly violates a posted prohibition of 40035
that nature is guilty of criminal trespass in violation of 40036
division (A)(4) of section 2911.21 of the Revised Code and is 40037
guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If a person 40038
knowingly violates a posted prohibition of that nature and the 40039
posted land or premises primarily was a parking lot or other 40040
parking facility, the person is not guilty of criminal trespass in 40041
violation of division (A)(4) of section 2911.21 of the Revised 40042
Code and instead is subject only to a civil cause of action for 40043
trespass based on the violation.40044

       (b) A landlord may not prohibit or restrict a tenant who is a 40045
licensee and who on or after September 9, 2008, enters into a 40046
rental agreement with the landlord for the use of residential 40047
premises, and the tenant's guest while the tenant is present, from 40048
lawfully carrying or possessing a handgun on those residential 40049
premises.40050

       (c) As used in division (C)(3) of this section:40051

       (i) "Residential premises" has the same meaning as in section 40052
5321.01 of the Revised Code, except "residential premises" does 40053
not include a dwelling unit that is owned or operated by a college 40054
or university.40055

       (ii) "Landlord," "tenant," and "rental agreement" have the 40056
same meanings as in section 5321.01 of the Revised Code.40057

        (D) A person who holds a concealed handgun license issued by 40058
another state that is recognized by the attorney general pursuant 40059
to a reciprocity agreement entered into pursuant to section 109.69 40060
of the Revised Code has the same right to carry a concealed 40061
handgun in this state as a person who was issued a concealed 40062
handgun license under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code and is 40063
subject to the same restrictions that apply to a person who 40064
carries a license issued under that section.40065

       (E) A peace officer has the same right to carry a concealed 40066
handgun in this state as a person who was issued a concealed 40067
handgun license under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code. For 40068
purposes of reciprocity with other states, a peace officer shall 40069
be considered to be a licensee in this state.40070

       (F)(1) A qualified retired peace officer who possesses a 40071
retired peace officer identification card issued pursuant to 40072
division (F)(2) of this section and a valid firearms 40073
requalification certification issued pursuant to division (F)(3) 40074
of this section has the same right to carry a concealed handgun in 40075
this state as a person who was issued a concealed handgun license 40076
under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code and is subject to the 40077
same restrictions that apply to a person who carries a license 40078
issued under that section. For purposes of reciprocity with other 40079
states, a qualified retired peace officer who possesses a retired 40080
peace officer identification card issued pursuant to division 40081
(F)(2) of this section and a valid firearms requalification 40082
certification issued pursuant to division (F)(3) of this section 40083
shall be considered to be a licensee in this state.40084

        (2)(a) Each public agency of this state or of a political 40085
subdivision of this state that is served by one or more peace 40086
officers shall issue a retired peace officer identification card 40087
to any person who retired from service as a peace officer with 40088
that agency, if the issuance is in accordance with the agency's 40089
policies and procedures and if the person, with respect to the 40090
person's service with that agency, satisfies all of the following:40091

        (i) The person retired in good standing from service as a 40092
peace officer with the public agency, and the retirement was not 40093
for reasons of mental instability.40094

        (ii) Before retiring from service as a peace officer with 40095
that agency, the person was authorized to engage in or supervise 40096
the prevention, detection, investigation, or prosecution of, or 40097
the incarceration of any person for, any violation of law and the 40098
person had statutory powers of arrest.40099

        (iii) At the time of the person's retirement as a peace 40100
officer with that agency, the person was trained and qualified to 40101
carry firearms in the performance of the peace officer's duties.40102

        (iv) Before retiring from service as a peace officer with 40103
that agency, the person was regularly employed as a peace officer 40104
for an aggregate of fifteen years or more, or, in the alternative, 40105
the person retired from service as a peace officer with that 40106
agency, after completing any applicable probationary period of 40107
that service, due to a service-connected disability, as determined 40108
by the agency.40109

        (b) A retired peace officer identification card issued to a 40110
person under division (F)(2)(a) of this section shall identify the 40111
person by name, contain a photograph of the person, identify the 40112
public agency of this state or of the political subdivision of 40113
this state from which the person retired as a peace officer and 40114
that is issuing the identification card, and specify that the 40115
person retired in good standing from service as a peace officer 40116
with the issuing public agency and satisfies the criteria set 40117
forth in divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section. In 40118
addition to the required content specified in this division, a 40119
retired peace officer identification card issued to a person under 40120
division (F)(2)(a) of this section may include the firearms 40121
requalification certification described in division (F)(3) of this 40122
section, and if the identification card includes that 40123
certification, the identification card shall serve as the firearms 40124
requalification certification for the retired peace officer. If 40125
the issuing public agency issues credentials to active law 40126
enforcement officers who serve the agency, the agency may comply 40127
with division (F)(2)(a) of this section by issuing the same 40128
credentials to persons who retired from service as a peace officer 40129
with the agency and who satisfy the criteria set forth in 40130
divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section, provided that the 40131
credentials so issued to retired peace officers are stamped with 40132
the word "RETIRED."40133

        (c) A public agency of this state or of a political 40134
subdivision of this state may charge persons who retired from 40135
service as a peace officer with the agency a reasonable fee for 40136
issuing to the person a retired peace officer identification card 40137
pursuant to division (F)(2)(a) of this section.40138

        (3) If a person retired from service as a peace officer with 40139
a public agency of this state or of a political subdivision of 40140
this state and the person satisfies the criteria set forth in 40141
divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section, the public agency 40142
may provide the retired peace officer with the opportunity to 40143
attend a firearms requalification program that is approved for 40144
purposes of firearms requalification required under section 40145
109.801 of the Revised Code. The retired peace officer may be 40146
required to pay the cost of the course.40147

        If a retired peace officer who satisfies the criteria set 40148
forth in divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section attends a 40149
firearms requalification program that is approved for purposes of 40150
firearms requalification required under section 109.801 of the 40151
Revised Code, the retired peace officer's successful completion of 40152
the firearms requalification program requalifies the retired peace 40153
officer for purposes of division (F) of this section for five 40154
years from the date on which the program was successfully 40155
completed, and the requalification is valid during that five-year 40156
period. If a retired peace officer who satisfies the criteria set 40157
forth in divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section 40158
satisfactorily completes such a firearms requalification program, 40159
the retired peace officer shall be issued a firearms 40160
requalification certification that identifies the retired peace 40161
officer by name, identifies the entity that taught the program, 40162
specifies that the retired peace officer successfully completed 40163
the program, specifies the date on which the course was 40164
successfully completed, and specifies that the requalification is 40165
valid for five years from that date of successful completion. The 40166
firearms requalification certification for a retired peace officer 40167
may be included in the retired peace officer identification card 40168
issued to the retired peace officer under division (F)(2) of this 40169
section.40170

        A retired peace officer who attends a firearms 40171
requalification program that is approved for purposes of firearms 40172
requalification required under section 109.801 of the Revised Code 40173
may be required to pay the cost of the program.40174

        (G) As used in this section:40175

       (1) "Qualified retired peace officer" means a person who 40176
satisfies all of the following:40177

        (a) The person satisfies the criteria set forth in divisions 40178
(F)(2)(a)(i) to (v) of this section.40179

       (b) The person is not under the influence of alcohol or 40180
another intoxicating or hallucinatory drug or substance.40181

        (c) The person is not prohibited by federal law from 40182
receiving firearms.40183

       (2) "Retired peace officer identification card" means an 40184
identification card that is issued pursuant to division (F)(2) of 40185
this section to a person who is a retired peace officer.40186

       (3) "Government facility of this state or a political 40187
subdivision of this state" means any of the following:40188

       (a) A building or part of a building that is owned or leased 40189
by the government of this state or a political subdivision of this 40190
state and where employees of the government of this state or the 40191
political subdivision regularly are present for the purpose of 40192
performing their official duties as employees of the state or 40193
political subdivision;40194

       (b) The office of a deputy registrar serving pursuant to 40195
Chapter 4503. of the Revised Code that is used to perform deputy 40196
registrar functions.40197

       Sec. 2925.03.  (A) No person shall knowingly do any of the 40198
following:40199

       (1) Sell or offer to sell a controlled substance or a 40200
controlled substance analog;40201

       (2) Prepare for shipment, ship, transport, deliver, prepare 40202
for distribution, or distribute a controlled substance or a 40203
controlled substance analog, when the offender knows or has 40204
reasonable cause to believe that the controlled substance or a 40205
controlled substance analog is intended for sale or resale by the 40206
offender or another person.40207

       (B) This section does not apply to any of the following:40208

       (1) Manufacturers, licensed health professionals authorized 40209
to prescribe drugs, pharmacists, owners of pharmacies, and other 40210
persons whose conduct is in accordance with Chapters 3719., 4715., 40211
4723., 4729., 4730., 4731., and 4741. of the Revised Code;40212

       (2) If the offense involves an anabolic steroid, any person 40213
who is conducting or participating in a research project involving 40214
the use of an anabolic steroid if the project has been approved by 40215
the United States food and drug administration;40216

       (3) Any person who sells, offers for sale, prescribes, 40217
dispenses, or administers for livestock or other nonhuman species 40218
an anabolic steroid that is expressly intended for administration 40219
through implants to livestock or other nonhuman species and 40220
approved for that purpose under the "Federal Food, Drug, and 40221
Cosmetic Act," 52 Stat. 1040 (1938), 21 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, 40222
and is sold, offered for sale, prescribed, dispensed, or 40223
administered for that purpose in accordance with that act.40224

       (C) Whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty 40225
of one of the following:40226

       (1) If the drug involved in the violation is any compound, 40227
mixture, preparation, or substance included in schedule I or 40228
schedule II, with the exception of marihuana, cocaine, L.S.D., 40229
heroin, hashish, and controlled substance analogs, whoever 40230
violates division (A) of this section is guilty of aggravated 40231
trafficking in drugs. The penalty for the offense shall be 40232
determined as follows:40233

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(1)(b), (c), 40234
(d), (e), or (f) of this section, aggravated trafficking in drugs 40235
is a felony of the fourth degree, and division (C) of section 40236
2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in determining whether to 40237
impose a prison term on the offender.40238

       (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(1)(c), (d), 40239
(e), or (f) of this section, if the offense was committed in the 40240
vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, aggravated 40241
trafficking in drugs is a felony of the third degree, and division 40242
(C) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in determining 40243
whether to impose a prison term on the offender.40244

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 40245
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds the bulk amount but 40246
is less than five times the bulk amount, aggravated trafficking in 40247
drugs is a felony of the third degree, and, except as otherwise 40248
provided in this division, there is a presumption for a prison 40249
term for the offense. If aggravated trafficking in drugs is a 40250
felony of the third degree under this division and if the offender 40251
two or more times previously has been convicted of or pleaded 40252
guilty to a felony drug abuse offense, the court shall impose as a 40253
mandatory prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for a 40254
felony of the third degree. If the amount of the drug involved is 40255
within that range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity 40256
of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, aggravated 40257
trafficking in drugs is a felony of the second degree, and the 40258
court shall impose as a mandatory prison term one of the prison 40259
terms prescribed for a felony of the second degree.40260

       (d) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 40261
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds five times the bulk 40262
amount but is less than fifty times the bulk amount, aggravated 40263
trafficking in drugs is a felony of the second degree, and the 40264
court shall impose as a mandatory prison term one of the prison 40265
terms prescribed for a felony of the second degree. If the amount 40266
of the drug involved is within that range and if the offense was 40267
committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a 40268
juvenile, aggravated trafficking in drugs is a felony of the first 40269
degree, and the court shall impose as a mandatory prison term one 40270
of the prison terms prescribed for a felony of the first degree.40271

       (e) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds 40272
fifty times the bulk amount but is less than one hundred times the 40273
bulk amount and regardless of whether the offense was committed in 40274
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 40275
aggravated trafficking in drugs is a felony of the first degree, 40276
and the court shall impose as a mandatory prison term one of the 40277
prison terms prescribed for a felony of the first degree.40278

       (f) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds one 40279
hundred times the bulk amount and regardless of whether the 40280
offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in the 40281
vicinity of a juvenile, aggravated trafficking in drugs is a 40282
felony of the first degree, the offender is a major drug offender, 40283
and the court shall impose as a mandatory prison term the maximum 40284
prison term prescribed for a felony of the first degree.40285

       (2) If the drug involved in the violation is any compound, 40286
mixture, preparation, or substance included in schedule III, IV, 40287
or V, whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of 40288
trafficking in drugs. The penalty for the offense shall be 40289
determined as follows:40290

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(2)(b), (c), 40291
(d), or (e) of this section, trafficking in drugs is a felony of 40292
the fifth degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 of the 40293
Revised Code applies in determining whether to impose a prison 40294
term on the offender.40295

       (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(2)(c), (d), 40296
or (e) of this section, if the offense was committed in the 40297
vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking 40298
in drugs is a felony of the fourth degree, and division (C) of 40299
section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in determining whether 40300
to impose a prison term on the offender.40301

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 40302
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds the bulk amount but 40303
is less than five times the bulk amount, trafficking in drugs is a 40304
felony of the fourth degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 40305
of the Revised Code applies in determining whether to impose a 40306
prison term for the offense. If the amount of the drug involved is 40307
within that range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity 40308
of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in drugs 40309
is a felony of the third degree, and there is a presumption for a 40310
prison term for the offense.40311

       (d) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 40312
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds five times the bulk 40313
amount but is less than fifty times the bulk amount, trafficking 40314
in drugs is a felony of the third degree, and there is a 40315
presumption for a prison term for the offense. If the amount of 40316
the drug involved is within that range and if the offense was 40317
committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a 40318
juvenile, trafficking in drugs is a felony of the second degree, 40319
and there is a presumption for a prison term for the offense.40320

       (e) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 40321
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds fifty times the bulk 40322
amount, trafficking in drugs is a felony of the second degree, and 40323
the court shall impose as a mandatory prison term one of the 40324
prison terms prescribed for a felony of the second degree. If the 40325
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds fifty times the bulk 40326
amount and if the offense was committed in the vicinity of a 40327
school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in drugs is a 40328
felony of the first degree, and the court shall impose as a 40329
mandatory prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for a 40330
felony of the first degree.40331

       (3) If the drug involved in the violation is marihuana or a 40332
compound, mixture, preparation, or substance containing marihuana 40333
other than hashish, whoever violates division (A) of this section 40334
is guilty of trafficking in marihuana. The penalty for the offense 40335
shall be determined as follows:40336

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(3)(b), (c), 40337
(d), (e), (f), (g), or (h) of this section, trafficking in 40338
marihuana is a felony of the fifth degree, and division (B) of 40339
section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in determining whether 40340
to impose a prison term on the offender.40341

       (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(3)(c), (d), 40342
(e), (f), (g), or (h) of this section, if the offense was 40343
committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a 40344
juvenile, trafficking in marihuana is a felony of the fourth 40345
degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code 40346
applies in determining whether to impose a prison term on the 40347
offender.40348

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 40349
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds two hundred grams 40350
but is less than one thousand grams, trafficking in marihuana is a 40351
felony of the fourth degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 40352
of the Revised Code applies in determining whether to impose a 40353
prison term on the offender. If the amount of the drug involved is 40354
within that range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity 40355
of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in 40356
marihuana is a felony of the third degree, and division (C) of 40357
section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in determining whether 40358
to impose a prison term on the offender.40359

       (d) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 40360
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds one thousand grams 40361
but is less than five thousand grams, trafficking in marihuana is 40362
a felony of the third degree, and division (C) of section 2929.13 40363
of the Revised Code applies in determining whether to impose a 40364
prison term on the offender. If the amount of the drug involved is 40365
within that range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity 40366
of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in 40367
marihuana is a felony of the second degree, and there is a 40368
presumption that a prison term shall be imposed for the offense.40369

       (e) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 40370
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds five thousand grams 40371
but is less than twenty thousand grams, trafficking in marihuana 40372
is a felony of the third degree, and there is a presumption that a 40373
prison term shall be imposed for the offense. If the amount of the 40374
drug involved is within that range and if the offense was 40375
committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a 40376
juvenile, trafficking in marihuana is a felony of the second 40377
degree, and there is a presumption that a prison term shall be 40378
imposed for the offense.40379

       (f) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 40380
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds twenty thousand 40381
grams but is less than forty thousand grams, trafficking in 40382
marihuana is a felony of the second degree, and the court shall 40383
impose a mandatory prison term of five, six, seven, or eight 40384
years. If the amount of the drug involved is within that range and 40385
if the offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in the 40386
vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in marihuana is a felony of 40387
the first degree, and the court shall impose as a mandatory prison 40388
term the maximum prison term prescribed for a felony of the first 40389
degree.40390

       (g) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 40391
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds forty thousand 40392
grams, trafficking in marihuana is a felony of the second degree, 40393
and the court shall impose as a mandatory prison term the maximum 40394
prison term prescribed for a felony of the second degree. If the 40395
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds forty thousand grams 40396
and if the offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in 40397
the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in marihuana is a felony 40398
of the first degree, and the court shall impose as a mandatory 40399
prison term the maximum prison term prescribed for a felony of the 40400
first degree.40401

       (h) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 40402
offense involves a gift of twenty grams or less of marihuana, 40403
trafficking in marihuana is a minor misdemeanor upon a first 40404
offense and a misdemeanor of the third degree upon a subsequent 40405
offense. If the offense involves a gift of twenty grams or less of 40406
marihuana and if the offense was committed in the vicinity of a 40407
school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in marihuana 40408
is a misdemeanor of the third degree.40409

       (4) If the drug involved in the violation is cocaine or a 40410
compound, mixture, preparation, or substance containing cocaine, 40411
whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of 40412
trafficking in cocaine. The penalty for the offense shall be 40413
determined as follows:40414

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(4)(b), (c), 40415
(d), (e), (f), or (g) of this section, trafficking in cocaine is a 40416
felony of the fifth degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 of 40417
the Revised Code applies in determining whether to impose a prison 40418
term on the offender.40419

       (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(4)(c), (d), 40420
(e), (f), or (g) of this section, if the offense was committed in 40421
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 40422
trafficking in cocaine is a felony of the fourth degree, and 40423
division (C) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in 40424
determining whether to impose a prison term on the offender.40425

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 40426
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds five grams but is 40427
less than ten grams of cocaine, trafficking in cocaine is a felony 40428
of the fourth degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 of the 40429
Revised Code applies in determining whether to impose a prison 40430
term for the offense. If the amount of the drug involved is within 40431
that range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity of a 40432
school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in cocaine is 40433
a felony of the third degree, and there is a presumption for a 40434
prison term for the offense.40435

       (d) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 40436
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds ten grams but is 40437
less than twenty grams of cocaine, trafficking in cocaine is a 40438
felony of the third degree, and, except as otherwise provided in 40439
this division, there is a presumption for a prison term for the 40440
offense. If trafficking in cocaine is a felony of the third degree 40441
under this division and if the offender two or more times 40442
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a felony 40443
drug abuse offense, the court shall impose as a mandatory prison 40444
term one of the prison terms prescribed for a felony of the third 40445
degree. If the amount of the drug involved is within that range 40446
and if the offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in 40447
the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in cocaine is a felony of 40448
the second degree, and the court shall impose as a mandatory 40449
prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for a felony of the 40450
second degree.40451

       (e) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 40452
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds twenty grams but is 40453
less than twenty-seven grams of cocaine, trafficking in cocaine is 40454
a felony of the second degree, and the court shall impose as a 40455
mandatory prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for a 40456
felony of the second degree. If the amount of the drug involved is 40457
within that range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity 40458
of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in 40459
cocaine is a felony of the first degree, and the court shall 40460
impose as a mandatory prison term one of the prison terms 40461
prescribed for a felony of the first degree.40462

       (f) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds 40463
twenty-seven grams but is less than one hundred grams of cocaine 40464
and regardless of whether the offense was committed in the 40465
vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking 40466
in cocaine is a felony of the first degree, and the court shall 40467
impose as a mandatory prison term one of the prison terms 40468
prescribed for a felony of the first degree.40469

       (g) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds one 40470
hundred grams of cocaine and regardless of whether the offense was 40471
committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a 40472
juvenile, trafficking in cocaine is a felony of the first degree, 40473
the offender is a major drug offender, and the court shall impose 40474
as a mandatory prison term the maximum prison term prescribed for 40475
a felony of the first degree.40476

       (5) If the drug involved in the violation is L.S.D. or a 40477
compound, mixture, preparation, or substance containing L.S.D., 40478
whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of 40479
trafficking in L.S.D. The penalty for the offense shall be 40480
determined as follows:40481

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(5)(b), (c), 40482
(d), (e), (f), or (g) of this section, trafficking in L.S.D. is a 40483
felony of the fifth degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 of 40484
the Revised Code applies in determining whether to impose a prison 40485
term on the offender.40486

       (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(5)(c), (d), 40487
(e), (f), or (g) of this section, if the offense was committed in 40488
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 40489
trafficking in L.S.D. is a felony of the fourth degree, and 40490
division (C) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in 40491
determining whether to impose a prison term on the offender.40492

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 40493
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds ten unit doses but 40494
is less than fifty unit doses of L.S.D. in a solid form or equals 40495
or exceeds one gram but is less than five grams of L.S.D. in a 40496
liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or liquid distillate form, 40497
trafficking in L.S.D. is a felony of the fourth degree, and 40498
division (B) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in 40499
determining whether to impose a prison term for the offense. If 40500
the amount of the drug involved is within that range and if the 40501
offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in the 40502
vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in L.S.D. is a felony of the 40503
third degree, and there is a presumption for a prison term for the 40504
offense.40505

       (d) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 40506
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds fifty unit doses but 40507
is less than two hundred fifty unit doses of L.S.D. in a solid 40508
form or equals or exceeds five grams but is less than twenty-five 40509
grams of L.S.D. in a liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or liquid 40510
distillate form, trafficking in L.S.D. is a felony of the third 40511
degree, and, except as otherwise provided in this division, there 40512
is a presumption for a prison term for the offense. If trafficking 40513
in L.S.D. is a felony of the third degree under this division and 40514
if the offender two or more times previously has been convicted of 40515
or pleaded guilty to a felony drug abuse offense, the court shall 40516
impose as a mandatory prison term one of the prison terms 40517
prescribed for a felony of the third degree. If the amount of the 40518
drug involved is within that range and if the offense was 40519
committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a 40520
juvenile, trafficking in L.S.D. is a felony of the second degree, 40521
and the court shall impose as a mandatory prison term one of the 40522
prison terms prescribed for a felony of the second degree.40523

       (e) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 40524
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds two hundred fifty 40525
unit doses but is less than one thousand unit doses of L.S.D. in a 40526
solid form or equals or exceeds twenty-five grams but is less than 40527
one hundred grams of L.S.D. in a liquid concentrate, liquid 40528
extract, or liquid distillate form, trafficking in L.S.D. is a 40529
felony of the second degree, and the court shall impose as a 40530
mandatory prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for a 40531
felony of the second degree. If the amount of the drug involved is 40532
within that range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity 40533
of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in 40534
L.S.D. is a felony of the first degree, and the court shall impose 40535
as a mandatory prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for 40536
a felony of the first degree.40537

       (f) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds one 40538
thousand unit doses but is less than five thousand unit doses of 40539
L.S.D. in a solid form or equals or exceeds one hundred grams but 40540
is less than five hundred grams of L.S.D. in a liquid concentrate, 40541
liquid extract, or liquid distillate form and regardless of 40542
whether the offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or 40543
in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in L.S.D. is a felony 40544
of the first degree, and the court shall impose as a mandatory 40545
prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for a felony of the 40546
first degree.40547

       (g) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds five 40548
thousand unit doses of L.S.D. in a solid form or equals or exceeds 40549
five hundred grams of L.S.D. in a liquid concentrate, liquid 40550
extract, or liquid distillate form and regardless of whether the 40551
offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in the 40552
vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in L.S.D. is a felony of the 40553
first degree, the offender is a major drug offender, and the court 40554
shall impose as a mandatory prison term the maximum prison term 40555
prescribed for a felony of the first degree.40556

       (6) If the drug involved in the violation is heroin or a 40557
compound, mixture, preparation, or substance containing heroin, 40558
whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of 40559
trafficking in heroin. The penalty for the offense shall be 40560
determined as follows:40561

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(6)(b), (c), 40562
(d), (e), (f), or (g) of this section, trafficking in heroin is a 40563
felony of the fifth degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 of 40564
the Revised Code applies in determining whether to impose a prison 40565
term on the offender.40566

       (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(6)(c), (d), 40567
(e), (f), or (g) of this section, if the offense was committed in 40568
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 40569
trafficking in heroin is a felony of the fourth degree, and 40570
division (C) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in 40571
determining whether to impose a prison term on the offender.40572

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 40573
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds ten unit doses but 40574
is less than fifty unit doses or equals or exceeds one gram but is 40575
less than five grams, trafficking in heroin is a felony of the 40576
fourth degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 of the Revised 40577
Code applies in determining whether to impose a prison term for 40578
the offense. If the amount of the drug involved is within that 40579
range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity of a school 40580
or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in heroin is a 40581
felony of the third degree, and there is a presumption for a 40582
prison term for the offense.40583

       (d) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 40584
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds fifty unit doses but 40585
is less than one hundred unit doses or equals or exceeds five 40586
grams but is less than ten grams, trafficking in heroin is a 40587
felony of the third degree, and there is a presumption for a 40588
prison term for the offense. If the amount of the drug involved is 40589
within that range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity 40590
of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in 40591
heroin is a felony of the second degree, and there is a 40592
presumption for a prison term for the offense.40593

       (e) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 40594
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds one hundred unit 40595
doses but is less than five hundred unit doses or equals or 40596
exceeds ten grams but is less than fifty grams, trafficking in 40597
heroin is a felony of the second degree, and the court shall 40598
impose as a mandatory prison term one of the prison terms 40599
prescribed for a felony of the second degree. If the amount of the 40600
drug involved is within that range and if the offense was 40601
committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a 40602
juvenile, trafficking in heroin is a felony of the first degree, 40603
and the court shall impose as a mandatory prison term one of the 40604
prison terms prescribed for a felony of the first degree.40605

       (f) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds five 40606
hundred unit doses but is less than two thousand five hundred unit 40607
doses or equals or exceeds fifty grams but is less than two 40608
hundred fifty grams and regardless of whether the offense was 40609
committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a 40610
juvenile, trafficking in heroin is a felony of the first degree, 40611
and the court shall impose as a mandatory prison term one of the 40612
prison terms prescribed for a felony of the first degree.40613

       (g) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds two 40614
thousand five hundred unit doses or equals or exceeds two hundred 40615
fifty grams and regardless of whether the offense was committed in 40616
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 40617
trafficking in heroin is a felony of the first degree, the 40618
offender is a major drug offender, and the court shall impose as a 40619
mandatory prison term the maximum prison term prescribed for a 40620
felony of the first degree.40621

       (7) If the drug involved in the violation is hashish or a 40622
compound, mixture, preparation, or substance containing hashish, 40623
whoever violates division (A) of this section is guilty of 40624
trafficking in hashish. The penalty for the offense shall be 40625
determined as follows:40626

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(7)(b), (c), 40627
(d), (e), (f), or (g) of this section, trafficking in hashish is a 40628
felony of the fifth degree, and division (B) of section 2929.13 of 40629
the Revised Code applies in determining whether to impose a prison 40630
term on the offender.40631

       (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(7)(c), (d), 40632
(e), (f), or (g) of this section, if the offense was committed in 40633
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 40634
trafficking in hashish is a felony of the fourth degree, and 40635
division (B) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in 40636
determining whether to impose a prison term on the offender.40637

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 40638
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds ten grams but is 40639
less than fifty grams of hashish in a solid form or equals or 40640
exceeds two grams but is less than ten grams of hashish in a 40641
liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or liquid distillate form, 40642
trafficking in hashish is a felony of the fourth degree, and 40643
division (B) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in 40644
determining whether to impose a prison term on the offender. If 40645
the amount of the drug involved is within that range and if the 40646
offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in the 40647
vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in hashish is a felony of the 40648
third degree, and division (C) of section 2929.13 of the Revised 40649
Code applies in determining whether to impose a prison term on the 40650
offender.40651

       (d) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 40652
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds fifty grams but is 40653
less than two hundred fifty grams of hashish in a solid form or 40654
equals or exceeds ten grams but is less than fifty grams of 40655
hashish in a liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or liquid 40656
distillate form, trafficking in hashish is a felony of the third 40657
degree, and division (C) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code 40658
applies in determining whether to impose a prison term on the 40659
offender. If the amount of the drug involved is within that range 40660
and if the offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in 40661
the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in hashish is a felony of 40662
the second degree, and there is a presumption that a prison term 40663
shall be imposed for the offense.40664

       (e) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 40665
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds two hundred fifty 40666
grams but is less than one thousand grams of hashish in a solid 40667
form or equals or exceeds fifty grams but is less than two hundred 40668
grams of hashish in a liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or 40669
liquid distillate form, trafficking in hashish is a felony of the 40670
third degree, and there is a presumption that a prison term shall 40671
be imposed for the offense. If the amount of the drug involved is 40672
within that range and if the offense was committed in the vicinity 40673
of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in 40674
hashish is a felony of the second degree, and there is a 40675
presumption that a prison term shall be imposed for the offense.40676

       (f) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 40677
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds one thousand grams 40678
but is less than two thousand grams of hashish in a solid form or 40679
equals or exceeds two hundred grams but is less than four hundred 40680
grams of hashish in a liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or 40681
liquid distillate form, trafficking in hashish is a felony of the 40682
second degree, and the court shall impose a mandatory prison term 40683
of five, six, seven, or eight years. If the amount of the drug 40684
involved is within that range and if the offense was committed in 40685
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 40686
trafficking in hashish is a felony of the first degree, and the 40687
court shall impose as a mandatory prison term the maximum prison 40688
term prescribed for a felony of the first degree.40689

       (g) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 40690
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds two thousand grams 40691
of hashish in a solid form or equals or exceeds four hundred grams 40692
of hashish in a liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or liquid 40693
distillate form, trafficking in hashish is a felony of the second 40694
degree, and the court shall impose as a mandatory prison term the 40695
maximum prison term prescribed for a felony of the second degree. 40696
If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds two thousand 40697
grams of hashish in a solid form or equals or exceeds four hundred 40698
grams of hashish in a liquid concentrate, liquid extract, or 40699
liquid distillate form and if the offense was committed in the 40700
vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking 40701
in hashish is a felony of the first degree, and the court shall 40702
impose as a mandatory prison term the maximum prison term 40703
prescribed for a felony of the first degree.40704

       (8) If the drug involved in the violation is a controlled 40705
substance analog or compound, mixture, preparation, or substance 40706
that contains a controlled substance analog, whoever violates 40707
division (A) of this section is guilty of trafficking in a 40708
controlled substance analog. The penalty for the offense shall be 40709
determined as follows:40710

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(8)(b), (c), 40711
(d), (e), (f), or (g) of this section, trafficking in a controlled 40712
substance analog is a felony of the fifth degree, and division (C) 40713
of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in determining 40714
whether to impose a prison term on the offender.40715

       (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(8)(c), (d), 40716
(e), (f), or (g) of this section, if the offense was committed in 40717
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 40718
trafficking in a controlled substance analog is a felony of the 40719
fourth degree, and division (C) of section 2929.13 of the Revised 40720
Code applies in determining whether to impose a prison term on the 40721
offender.40722

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 40723
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds ten grams but is 40724
less than twenty grams, trafficking in a controlled substance 40725
analog is a felony of the fourth degree, and division (B) of 40726
section 2929.13 of the Revised Code applies in determining whether 40727
to impose a prison term for the offense. If the amount of the drug 40728
involved is within that range and if the offense was committed in 40729
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 40730
trafficking in a controlled substance analog is a felony of the 40731
third degree, and there is a presumption for a prison term for the 40732
offense.40733

       (d) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 40734
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds twenty grams but is 40735
less than thirty grams, trafficking in a controlled substance 40736
analog is a felony of the third degree, and there is a presumption 40737
for a prison term for the offense. If the amount of the drug 40738
involved is within that range and if the offense was committed in 40739
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 40740
trafficking in a controlled substance analog is a felony of the 40741
second degree, and there is a presumption for a prison term for 40742
the offense.40743

       (e) Except as otherwise provided in this division, if the 40744
amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds thirty grams but is 40745
less than forty grams, trafficking in a controlled substance 40746
analog is a felony of the second degree, and the court shall 40747
impose as a mandatory prison term one of the prison terms 40748
prescribed for a felony of the second degree. If the amount of the 40749
drug involved is within that range and if the offense was 40750
committed in the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a 40751
juvenile, trafficking in a controlled substance analog is a felony 40752
of the first degree, and the court shall impose as a mandatory 40753
prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for a felony of the 40754
first degree.40755

       (f) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds 40756
forty grams but is less than fifty grams and regardless of whether 40757
the offense was committed in the vicinity of a school or in the 40758
vicinity of a juvenile, trafficking in a controlled substance 40759
analog is a felony of the first degree, and the court shall impose 40760
as a mandatory prison term one of the prison terms prescribed for 40761
a felony of the first degree.40762

       (g) If the amount of the drug involved equals or exceeds 40763
fifty grams and regardless of whether the offense was committed in 40764
the vicinity of a school or in the vicinity of a juvenile, 40765
trafficking in a controlled substance analog is a felony of the 40766
first degree, the offender is a major drug offender, and the court 40767
shall impose as a mandatory prison term the maximum prison term 40768
prescribed for a felony of the first degree.40769

       (D) In addition to any prison term authorized or required by 40770
division (C) of this section and sections 2929.13 and 2929.14 of 40771
the Revised Code, and in addition to any other sanction imposed 40772
for the offense under this section or sections 2929.11 to 2929.18 40773
of the Revised Code, the court that sentences an offender who is 40774
convicted of or pleads guilty to a violation of division (A) of 40775
this section shall do all of the following that are applicable 40776
regarding the offender:40777

       (1) If the violation of division (A) of this section is a 40778
felony of the first, second, or third degree, the court shall 40779
impose upon the offender the mandatory fine specified for the 40780
offense under division (B)(1) of section 2929.18 of the Revised 40781
Code unless, as specified in that division, the court determines 40782
that the offender is indigent. Except as otherwise provided in 40783
division (H)(1) of this section, a mandatory fine or any other 40784
fine imposed for a violation of this section is subject to 40785
division (F) of this section. If a person is charged with a 40786
violation of this section that is a felony of the first, second, 40787
or third degree, posts bail, and forfeits the bail, the clerk of 40788
the court shall pay the forfeited bail pursuant to divisions 40789
(D)(1) and (F) of this section, as if the forfeited bail was a 40790
fine imposed for a violation of this section. If any amount of the 40791
forfeited bail remains after that payment and if a fine is imposed 40792
under division (H)(1) of this section, the clerk of the court 40793
shall pay the remaining amount of the forfeited bail pursuant to 40794
divisions (H)(2) and (3) of this section, as if that remaining 40795
amount was a fine imposed under division (H)(1) of this section.40796

       (2) The court shall suspend the driver's or commercial 40797
driver's license or permit of the offender in accordance with 40798
division (G) of this section.40799

       (3) If the offender is a professionally licensed person, the 40800
court immediately shall comply with section 2925.38 of the Revised 40801
Code.40802

       (E) When a person is charged with the sale of or offer to 40803
sell a bulk amount or a multiple of a bulk amount of a controlled 40804
substance, the jury, or the court trying the accused, shall 40805
determine the amount of the controlled substance involved at the 40806
time of the offense and, if a guilty verdict is returned, shall 40807
return the findings as part of the verdict. In any such case, it 40808
is unnecessary to find and return the exact amount of the 40809
controlled substance involved, and it is sufficient if the finding 40810
and return is to the effect that the amount of the controlled 40811
substance involved is the requisite amount, or that the amount of 40812
the controlled substance involved is less than the requisite 40813
amount.40814

       (F)(1) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of section 40815
3719.21 of the Revised Code and except as provided in division (H) 40816
of this section, the clerk of the court shall pay any mandatory 40817
fine imposed pursuant to division (D)(1) of this section and any 40818
fine other than a mandatory fine that is imposed for a violation 40819
of this section pursuant to division (A) or (B)(5) of section 40820
2929.18 of the Revised Code to the county, township, municipal 40821
corporation, park district, as created pursuant to section 511.18 40822
or 1545.04 of the Revised Code, or state law enforcement agencies 40823
in this state that primarily were responsible for or involved in 40824
making the arrest of, and in prosecuting, the offender. However, 40825
the clerk shall not pay a mandatory fine so imposed to a law 40826
enforcement agency unless the agency has adopted a written 40827
internal control policy under division (F)(2) of this section that 40828
addresses the use of the fine moneys that it receives. Each agency 40829
shall use the mandatory fines so paid to subsidize the agency's 40830
law enforcement efforts that pertain to drug offenses, in 40831
accordance with the written internal control policy adopted by the 40832
recipient agency under division (F)(2) of this section.40833

       (2)(a) Prior to receiving any fine moneys under division 40834
(F)(1) of this section or division (B) of section 2925.42 of the 40835
Revised Code, a law enforcement agency shall adopt a written 40836
internal control policy that addresses the agency's use and 40837
disposition of all fine moneys so received and that provides for 40838
the keeping of detailed financial records of the receipts of those 40839
fine moneys, the general types of expenditures made out of those 40840
fine moneys, and the specific amount of each general type of 40841
expenditure. The policy shall not provide for or permit the 40842
identification of any specific expenditure that is made in an 40843
ongoing investigation. All financial records of the receipts of 40844
those fine moneys, the general types of expenditures made out of 40845
those fine moneys, and the specific amount of each general type of 40846
expenditure by an agency are public records open for inspection 40847
under section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Additionally, a written 40848
internal control policy adopted under this division is such a 40849
public record, and the agency that adopted it shall comply with 40850
it.40851

       (b) Each law enforcement agency that receives in any calendar 40852
year any fine moneys under division (F)(1) of this section or 40853
division (B) of section 2925.42 of the Revised Code shall prepare 40854
a report covering the calendar year that cumulates all of the 40855
information contained in all of the public financial records kept 40856
by the agency pursuant to division (F)(2)(a) of this section for 40857
that calendar year, and shall send a copy of the cumulative 40858
report, no later than the first day of March in the calendar year 40859
following the calendar year covered by the report, to the attorney 40860
general. Each report received by the attorney general is a public 40861
record open for inspection under section 149.43 of the Revised 40862
Code. Not later than the fifteenth day of April in the calendar 40863
year in which the reports are received, the attorney general shall 40864
send to the president of the senate and the speaker of the house 40865
of representatives a written notification that does all of the 40866
following:40867

       (i) Indicates that the attorney general has received from law 40868
enforcement agencies reports of the type described in this 40869
division that cover the previous calendar year and indicates that 40870
the reports were received under this division;40871

       (ii) Indicates that the reports are open for inspection under 40872
section 149.43 of the Revised Code;40873

       (iii) Indicates that the attorney general will provide a copy 40874
of any or all of the reports to the president of the senate or the 40875
speaker of the house of representatives upon request.40876

       (3) As used in division (F) of this section:40877

       (a) "Law enforcement agencies" includes, but is not limited 40878
to, the state board of pharmacy and the office of a prosecutor.40879

       (b) "Prosecutor" has the same meaning as in section 2935.01 40880
of the Revised Code.40881

       (G) When required under division (D)(2) of this section or 40882
any other provision of this chapter, the court shall suspend for 40883
not less than six months or more than five years the driver's or 40884
commercial driver's license or permit of any person who is 40885
convicted of or pleads guilty to any violation of this section or 40886
any other specified provision of this chapter. If an offender's 40887
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit is suspended 40888
pursuant to this division, the offender, at any time after the 40889
expiration of two years from the day on which the offender's 40890
sentence was imposed or from the day on which the offender finally 40891
was released from a prison term under the sentence, whichever is 40892
later, may file a motion with the sentencing court requesting 40893
termination of the suspension; upon the filing of such a motion 40894
and the court's finding of good cause for the termination, the 40895
court may terminate the suspension.40896

       (H)(1) In addition to any prison term authorized or required 40897
by division (C) of this section and sections 2929.13 and 2929.14 40898
of the Revised Code, in addition to any other penalty or sanction 40899
imposed for the offense under this section or sections 2929.11 to 40900
2929.18 of the Revised Code, and in addition to the forfeiture of 40901
property in connection with the offense as prescribed in Chapter 40902
2981. of the Revised Code, the court that sentences an offender 40903
who is convicted of or pleads guilty to a violation of division 40904
(A) of this section may impose upon the offender an additional 40905
fine specified for the offense in division (B)(4) of section 40906
2929.18 of the Revised Code. A fine imposed under division (H)(1) 40907
of this section is not subject to division (F) of this section and 40908
shall be used solely for the support of one or more eligible 40909
alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programsservices provider in 40910
accordance with divisions (H)(2) and (3) of this section.40911

       (2) The court that imposes a fine under division (H)(1) of 40912
this section shall specify in the judgment that imposes the fine 40913
one or more eligible alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programs40914
services provider for the support of which the fine money is to be 40915
used. No alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programservices 40916
provider shall receive or use money paid or collected in 40917
satisfaction of a fine imposed under division (H)(1) of this 40918
section unless the programservices provider is specified in the 40919
judgment that imposes the fine. No alcohol and drugcommunity40920
addiction programservices provider shall be specified in the 40921
judgment unless the programservices provider is an eligible 40922
alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programservices provider40923
and, except as otherwise provided in division (H)(2) of this 40924
section, unless the programservices provider is located in the 40925
county in which the court that imposes the fine is located or in a 40926
county that is immediately contiguous to the county in which that 40927
court is located. If no eligible alcohol and drugcommunity40928
addiction programservices provider is located in any of those 40929
counties, the judgment may specify an eligible alcohol and drug40930
community addiction programservices provider that is located 40931
anywhere within this state.40932

       (3) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of section 3719.21 40933
of the Revised Code, the clerk of the court shall pay any fine 40934
imposed under division (H)(1) of this section to the eligible 40935
alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programservices provider40936
specified pursuant to division (H)(2) of this section in the 40937
judgment. The eligible alcohol and drugcommunity addiction 40938
programservices provider that receives the fine moneys shall use 40939
the moneys only for the alcohol and drug addiction services 40940
identified in the application for certification under section 40941
3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code or in the application for a 40942
license under section 3793.115119.39 of the Revised Code filed 40943
with the department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental 40944
health and addiction services by the alcohol and drugcommunity40945
addiction programservices provider specified in the judgment.40946

       (4) Each alcohol and drugcommunity addiction program40947
services provider that receives in a calendar year any fine moneys 40948
under division (H)(3) of this section shall file an annual report 40949
covering that calendar year with the court of common pleas and the 40950
board of county commissioners of the county in which the program40951
services provider is located, with the court of common pleas and 40952
the board of county commissioners of each county from which the 40953
programservices provider received the moneys if that county is 40954
different from the county in which the programservices provider40955
is located, and with the attorney general. The alcohol and drug40956
community addiction programservices provider shall file the 40957
report no later than the first day of March in the calendar year 40958
following the calendar year in which the programservices provider40959
received the fine moneys. The report shall include statistics on 40960
the number of persons served by the alcohol and drugcommunity40961
addiction programservices provider, identify the types of alcohol 40962
and drug addiction services provided to those persons, and include 40963
a specific accounting of the purposes for which the fine moneys 40964
received were used. No information contained in the report shall 40965
identify, or enable a person to determine the identity of, any 40966
person served by the alcohol and drugcommunity addiction program40967
services provider. Each report received by a court of common 40968
pleas, a board of county commissioners, or the attorney general is 40969
a public record open for inspection under section 149.43 of the 40970
Revised Code.40971

       (5) As used in divisions (H)(1) to (5) of this section:40972

       (a) "Alcohol and drugCommunity addiction programservices 40973
provider" and "alcohol and drug addiction services" have the same 40974
meanings as in section 3793.015119.01 of the Revised Code.40975

       (b) "Eligible alcohol and drugcommunity addiction program40976
services provider" means an alcohol and druga community addiction 40977
programservices provider that is certified under section 3793.0640978
5119.36 of the Revised Code or licensed under section 3793.1140979
5119.39 of the Revised Code by the department of alcohol and drug 40980
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services.40981

       (I) As used in this section, "drug" includes any substance 40982
that is represented to be a drug.40983

       (J) It is an affirmative defense to a charge of trafficking 40984
in a controlled substance analog under division (C)(8) of this 40985
section that the person charged with violating that offense sold 40986
or offered to sell, or prepared for shipment, shipped, 40987
transported, delivered, prepared for distribution, or distributed 40988
an item described in division (HH)(2)(a), (b), or (c) of section 40989
3719.01 of the Revised Code.40990

       Sec. 2929.15.  (A)(1) If in sentencing an offender for a 40991
felony the court is not required to impose a prison term, a 40992
mandatory prison term, or a term of life imprisonment upon the 40993
offender, the court may directly impose a sentence that consists 40994
of one or more community control sanctions authorized pursuant to 40995
section 2929.16, 2929.17, or 2929.18 of the Revised Code. If the 40996
court is sentencing an offender for a fourth degree felony OVI 40997
offense under division (G)(1) of section 2929.13 of the Revised 40998
Code, in addition to the mandatory term of local incarceration 40999
imposed under that division and the mandatory fine required by 41000
division (B)(3) of section 2929.18 of the Revised Code, the court 41001
may impose upon the offender a community control sanction or 41002
combination of community control sanctions in accordance with 41003
sections 2929.16 and 2929.17 of the Revised Code. If the court is 41004
sentencing an offender for a third or fourth degree felony OVI 41005
offense under division (G)(2) of section 2929.13 of the Revised 41006
Code, in addition to the mandatory prison term or mandatory prison 41007
term and additional prison term imposed under that division, the 41008
court also may impose upon the offender a community control 41009
sanction or combination of community control sanctions under 41010
section 2929.16 or 2929.17 of the Revised Code, but the offender 41011
shall serve all of the prison terms so imposed prior to serving 41012
the community control sanction.41013

        The duration of all community control sanctions imposed upon 41014
an offender under this division shall not exceed five years. If 41015
the offender absconds or otherwise leaves the jurisdiction of the 41016
court in which the offender resides without obtaining permission 41017
from the court or the offender's probation officer to leave the 41018
jurisdiction of the court, or if the offender is confined in any 41019
institution for the commission of any offense while under a 41020
community control sanction, the period of the community control 41021
sanction ceases to run until the offender is brought before the 41022
court for its further action. If the court sentences the offender 41023
to one or more nonresidential sanctions under section 2929.17 of 41024
the Revised Code, the court shall impose as a condition of the 41025
nonresidential sanctions that, during the period of the sanctions, 41026
the offender must abide by the law and must not leave the state 41027
without the permission of the court or the offender's probation 41028
officer. The court may impose any other conditions of release 41029
under a community control sanction that the court considers 41030
appropriate, including, but not limited to, requiring that the 41031
offender not ingest or be injected with a drug of abuse and submit 41032
to random drug testing as provided in division (D) of this section 41033
to determine whether the offender ingested or was injected with a 41034
drug of abuse and requiring that the results of the drug test 41035
indicate that the offender did not ingest or was not injected with 41036
a drug of abuse.41037

       (2)(a) If a court sentences an offender to any community 41038
control sanction or combination of community control sanctions 41039
authorized pursuant to section 2929.16, 2929.17, or 2929.18 of the 41040
Revised Code, the court shall place the offender under the general 41041
control and supervision of a department of probation in the county 41042
that serves the court for purposes of reporting to the court a 41043
violation of any condition of the sanctions, any condition of 41044
release under a community control sanction imposed by the court, a 41045
violation of law, or the departure of the offender from this state 41046
without the permission of the court or the offender's probation 41047
officer. Alternatively, if the offender resides in another county 41048
and a county department of probation has been established in that 41049
county or that county is served by a multicounty probation 41050
department established under section 2301.27 of the Revised Code, 41051
the court may request the court of common pleas of that county to 41052
receive the offender into the general control and supervision of 41053
that county or multicounty department of probation for purposes of 41054
reporting to the court a violation of any condition of the 41055
sanctions, any condition of release under a community control 41056
sanction imposed by the court, a violation of law, or the 41057
departure of the offender from this state without the permission 41058
of the court or the offender's probation officer, subject to the 41059
jurisdiction of the trial judge over and with respect to the 41060
person of the offender, and to the rules governing that department 41061
of probation.41062

       If there is no department of probation in the county that 41063
serves the court, the court shall place the offender, regardless 41064
of the offender's county of residence, under the general control 41065
and supervision of the adult parole authority for purposes of 41066
reporting to the court a violation of any of the sanctions, any 41067
condition of release under a community control sanction imposed by 41068
the court, a violation of law, or the departure of the offender 41069
from this state without the permission of the court or the 41070
offender's probation officer.41071

       (b) If the court imposing sentence upon an offender sentences 41072
the offender to any community control sanction or combination of 41073
community control sanctions authorized pursuant to section 41074
2929.16, 2929.17, or 2929.18 of the Revised Code, and if the 41075
offender violates any condition of the sanctions, any condition of 41076
release under a community control sanction imposed by the court, 41077
violates any law, or departs the state without the permission of 41078
the court or the offender's probation officer, the public or 41079
private person or entity that operates or administers the sanction 41080
or the program or activity that comprises the sanction shall 41081
report the violation or departure directly to the sentencing 41082
court, or shall report the violation or departure to the county or 41083
multicounty department of probation with general control and 41084
supervision over the offender under division (A)(2)(a) of this 41085
section or the officer of that department who supervises the 41086
offender, or, if there is no such department with general control 41087
and supervision over the offender under that division, to the 41088
adult parole authority. If the public or private person or entity 41089
that operates or administers the sanction or the program or 41090
activity that comprises the sanction reports the violation or 41091
departure to the county or multicounty department of probation or 41092
the adult parole authority, the department's or authority's 41093
officers may treat the offender as if the offender were on 41094
probation and in violation of the probation, and shall report the 41095
violation of the condition of the sanction, any condition of 41096
release under a community control sanction imposed by the court, 41097
the violation of law, or the departure from the state without the 41098
required permission to the sentencing court.41099

       (3) If an offender who is eligible for community control 41100
sanctions under this section admits to being drug addicted or the 41101
court has reason to believe that the offender is drug addicted, 41102
and if the offense for which the offender is being sentenced was 41103
related to the addiction, the court may require that the offender 41104
be assessed by a properly credentialed professional within a 41105
specified period of time and shall require the professional to 41106
file a written assessment of the offender with the court. If a 41107
court imposes treatment and recovery support services as a 41108
community control sanction, the court shall direct the level and 41109
type of treatment and recovery support services after 41110
consideration of the written assessment, if available at the time 41111
of sentencing, and recommendations of the professional and other 41112
treatment and recovery support services providers.41113

        (4) If an assessment completed pursuant to division (A)(3) of 41114
this section indicates that the offender is addicted to drugs or 41115
alcohol, the court may include in any community control sanction 41116
imposed for a violation of section 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.04, 41117
2925.05, 2925.06, 2925.11, 2925.13, 2925.22, 2925.23, 2925.36, or 41118
2925.37 of the Revised Code a requirement that the offender 41119
participate in a treatment and recovery support services program 41120
certified under section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code or 41121
offered by another properly credentialed programcommunity 41122
addiction services provider.41123

       (B)(1) If the conditions of a community control sanction are 41124
violated or if the offender violates a law or leaves the state 41125
without the permission of the court or the offender's probation 41126
officer, the sentencing court may impose upon the violator one or 41127
more of the following penalties:41128

       (a) A longer time under the same sanction if the total time 41129
under the sanctions does not exceed the five-year limit specified 41130
in division (A) of this section;41131

       (b) A more restrictive sanction under section 2929.16, 41132
2929.17, or 2929.18 of the Revised Code;41133

       (c) A prison term on the offender pursuant to section 2929.14 41134
of the Revised Code. 41135

       (2) The prison term, if any, imposed upon a violator pursuant 41136
to this division shall be within the range of prison terms 41137
available for the offense for which the sanction that was violated 41138
was imposed and shall not exceed the prison term specified in the 41139
notice provided to the offender at the sentencing hearing pursuant 41140
to division (B)(2) of section 2929.19 of the Revised Code. The 41141
court may reduce the longer period of time that the offender is 41142
required to spend under the longer sanction, the more restrictive 41143
sanction, or a prison term imposed pursuant to this division by 41144
the time the offender successfully spent under the sanction that 41145
was initially imposed.41146

       (C) If an offender, for a significant period of time, 41147
fulfills the conditions of a sanction imposed pursuant to section 41148
2929.16, 2929.17, or 2929.18 of the Revised Code in an exemplary 41149
manner, the court may reduce the period of time under the sanction 41150
or impose a less restrictive sanction, but the court shall not 41151
permit the offender to violate any law or permit the offender to 41152
leave the state without the permission of the court or the 41153
offender's probation officer.41154

       (D)(1) If a court under division (A)(1) of this section 41155
imposes a condition of release under a community control sanction 41156
that requires the offender to submit to random drug testing, the 41157
department of probation or the adult parole authority that has 41158
general control and supervision of the offender under division 41159
(A)(2)(a) of this section may cause the offender to submit to 41160
random drug testing performed by a laboratory or entity that has 41161
entered into a contract with any of the governmental entities or 41162
officers authorized to enter into a contract with that laboratory 41163
or entity under section 341.26, 753.33, or 5120.63 of the Revised 41164
Code.41165

       (2) If no laboratory or entity described in division (D)(1) 41166
of this section has entered into a contract as specified in that 41167
division, the department of probation or the adult parole 41168
authority that has general control and supervision of the offender 41169
under division (A)(2)(a) of this section shall cause the offender 41170
to submit to random drug testing performed by a reputable public 41171
laboratory to determine whether the individual who is the subject 41172
of the drug test ingested or was injected with a drug of abuse.41173

       (3) A laboratory or entity that has entered into a contract 41174
pursuant to section 341.26, 753.33, or 5120.63 of the Revised Code 41175
shall perform the random drug tests under division (D)(1) of this 41176
section in accordance with the applicable standards that are 41177
included in the terms of that contract. A public laboratory shall 41178
perform the random drug tests under division (D)(2) of this 41179
section in accordance with the standards set forth in the policies 41180
and procedures established by the department of rehabilitation and 41181
correction pursuant to section 5120.63 of the Revised Code. An 41182
offender who is required under division (A)(1) of this section to 41183
submit to random drug testing as a condition of release under a 41184
community control sanction and whose test results indicate that 41185
the offender ingested or was injected with a drug of abuse shall 41186
pay the fee for the drug test if the department of probation or 41187
the adult parole authority that has general control and 41188
supervision of the offender requires payment of a fee. A 41189
laboratory or entity that performs the random drug testing on an 41190
offender under division (D)(1) or (2) of this section shall 41191
transmit the results of the drug test to the appropriate 41192
department of probation or the adult parole authority that has 41193
general control and supervision of the offender under division 41194
(A)(2)(a) of this section.41195

       Sec. 2930.01.  As used in this chapter:41196

       (A) "Crime" means any of the following:41197

       (1) A felony;41198

       (2) A violation of section 2903.05, 2903.06, 2903.13, 41199
2903.21, 2903.211, 2903.22, 2907.06, 2919.25, or 2921.04 of the 41200
Revised Code, a violation of section 2903.07 of the Revised Code 41201
as it existed prior to March 23, 2000, or a violation of a 41202
substantially equivalent municipal ordinance;41203

       (3) A violation of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19, 41204
division (A) or (B) of section 1547.11, or division (A)(3) of 41205
section 4561.15 of the Revised Code or of a municipal ordinance 41206
substantially similar to any of those divisions that is the 41207
proximate cause of a vehicle, streetcar, trackless trolley, 41208
aquatic device, or aircraft accident in which the victim receives 41209
injuries for which the victim receives medical treatment either at 41210
the scene of the accident by emergency medical services personnel 41211
or at a hospital, ambulatory care facility, physician's office, 41212
specialist's office, or other medical care facility.41213

       (4) A motor vehicle accident to which both of the following 41214
apply:41215

       (a) The motor vehicle accident is caused by a violation of a 41216
provision of the Revised Code that is a misdemeanor of the first 41217
degree or higher.41218

       (b) As a result of the motor vehicle accident, the victim 41219
receives injuries for which the victim receives medical treatment 41220
either at the scene of the accident by emergency medical services 41221
personnel or at a hospital, ambulatory care facility, physician's 41222
office, specialist's office, or other medical care facility.41223

       (B) "Custodial agency" means one of the following:41224

       (1) The entity that has custody of a defendant or an alleged 41225
juvenile offender who is incarcerated for a crime, is under 41226
detention for the commission of a specified delinquent act, or who 41227
is detained after a finding of incompetence to stand trial or not 41228
guilty by reason of insanity relative to a crime, including any of 41229
the following:41230

       (a) The department of rehabilitation and correction or the 41231
adult parole authority;41232

       (b) A county sheriff;41233

       (c) The entity that administers a jail, as defined in section 41234
2929.01 of the Revised Code;41235

       (d) The entity that administers a community-based 41236
correctional facility and program or a district community-based 41237
correctional facility and program;41238

       (e) The department of mental healthmental health and 41239
addiction services or other entity to which a defendant found 41240
incompetent to stand trial or not guilty by reason of insanity is 41241
committed.41242

       (2) The entity that has custody of an alleged juvenile 41243
offender pursuant to an order of disposition of a juvenile court, 41244
including the department of youth services or a school, camp, 41245
institution, or other facility operated for the care of delinquent 41246
children.41247

       (C) "Defendant" means a person who is alleged to be the 41248
perpetrator of a crime in a police report or in a complaint, 41249
indictment, or information that charges the commission of a crime 41250
and that provides the basis for the criminal prosecution and 41251
subsequent proceedings to which this chapter makes reference.41252

       (D) "Member of the victim's family" means a spouse, child, 41253
stepchild, sibling, parent, stepparent, grandparent, or other 41254
relative of a victim but does not include a person who is charged 41255
with, convicted of, or adjudicated to be a delinquent child for 41256
the crime or specified delinquent act against the victim or 41257
another crime or specified delinquent act arising from the same 41258
conduct, criminal episode, or plan.41259

       (E) "Prosecutor" means one of the following:41260

       (1) With respect to a criminal case, it has the same meaning 41261
as in section 2935.01 of the Revised Code and also includes the 41262
attorney general and, when appropriate, the employees of any 41263
person listed in section 2935.01 of the Revised Code or of the 41264
attorney general.41265

       (2) With respect to a delinquency proceeding, it includes any 41266
person listed in division (C) of section 2935.01 of the Revised 41267
Code or an employee of a person listed in that division who 41268
prosecutes a delinquency proceeding.41269

       (F) "Public agency" means an office, agency, department, 41270
bureau, or other governmental entity of the state or of a 41271
political subdivision of the state.41272

       (G) "Public official" has the same meaning as in section 41273
2921.01 of the Revised Code.41274

       (H) "Victim" means either of the following:41275

       (1) A person who is identified as the victim of a crime or 41276
specified delinquent act in a police report or in a complaint, 41277
indictment, or information that charges the commission of a crime 41278
and that provides the basis for the criminal prosecution or 41279
delinquency proceeding and subsequent proceedings to which this 41280
chapter makes reference.41281

       (2) A person who receives injuries as a result of a vehicle, 41282
streetcar, trackless trolley, aquatic device, or aircraft accident 41283
that is proximately caused by a violation described in division 41284
(A)(3) of this section or a motor vehicle accident that is 41285
proximately caused by a violation described in division (A)(4) of 41286
this section and who receives medical treatment as described in 41287
division (A)(3) or (4) of this section, whichever is applicable.41288

       (I) "Victim's representative" means a member of the victim's 41289
family or another person who pursuant to the authority of section 41290
2930.02 of the Revised Code exercises the rights of a victim under 41291
this chapter.41292

       (J) "Court" means a court of common pleas, juvenile court, 41293
municipal court, or county court.41294

       (K) "Delinquency proceeding" means all proceedings in a 41295
juvenile court that are related to a case in which a complaint has 41296
been filed alleging that a child is a delinquent child.41297

       (L) "Case" means a delinquency proceeding and all related 41298
activity or a criminal prosecution and all related activity.41299

       (M) The "defense" means the defense against criminal charges 41300
in a criminal prosecution or the defense against a delinquent 41301
child complaint in a delinquency proceeding.41302

       (N) The "prosecution" means the prosecution of criminal 41303
charges in a criminal prosecution or the prosecution of a 41304
delinquent child complaint in a delinquency proceeding.41305

       (O) "Specified delinquent act" means any of the following:41306

       (1) An act committed by a child that if committed by an adult 41307
would be a felony;41308

       (2) An act committed by a child that is a violation of a 41309
section listed in division (A)(1) or (2) of this section or is a 41310
violation of a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance;41311

       (3) An act committed by a child that is described in division 41312
(A)(3) or (4) of this section.41313

       (P)(1) "Alleged juvenile offender" means a child who is 41314
alleged to have committed a specified delinquent act in a police 41315
report or in a complaint in juvenile court that charges the 41316
commission of a specified delinquent act and that provides the 41317
basis for the delinquency proceeding and all subsequent 41318
proceedings to which this chapter makes reference.41319

       (2) As used in divisions (O) and (P)(1) of this section, 41320
"child" has the same meaning as in section 2151.011 of the Revised 41321
Code.41322

       (Q) "Motor vehicle accident" means any accident involving a 41323
motor vehicle.41324

       (R) "Motor vehicle" has the same meaning as in section 41325
4509.01 of the Revised Code.41326

       (S) "Aircraft" has the same meaning as in section 4561.01 of 41327
the Revised Code.41328

       (T) "Aquatic device" means any vessel, or any water skis, 41329
aquaplane, or similar device.41330

        (U) "Vehicle," "streetcar," and "trackless trolley" have the 41331
same meanings as in section 4511.01 of the Revised Code.41332

        (V) "Vehicle, streetcar, trackless trolley, aquatic device, 41333
or aircraft accident" means any accident involving a vehicle, 41334
streetcar, trackless trolley, aquatic device, or aircraft.41335

        (W) "Vessel" has the same meaning as in section 1547.01 of 41336
the Revised Code.41337

       Sec. 2935.03.  (A)(1) A sheriff, deputy sheriff, marshal, 41338
deputy marshal, municipal police officer, township constable, 41339
police officer of a township or joint police district, member of a 41340
police force employed by a metropolitan housing authority under 41341
division (D) of section 3735.31 of the Revised Code, member of a 41342
police force employed by a regional transit authority under 41343
division (Y) of section 306.35 of the Revised Code, state 41344
university law enforcement officer appointed under section 3345.04 41345
of the Revised Code, veterans' home police officer appointed under 41346
section 5907.02 of the Revised Code, special police officer 41347
employed by a port authority under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of 41348
the Revised Code, or a special police officer employed by a 41349
municipal corporation at a municipal airport, or other municipal 41350
air navigation facility, that has scheduled operations, as defined 41351
in section 119.3 of Title 14 of the Code of Federal Regulations, 41352
14 C.F.R. 119.3, as amended, and that is required to be under a 41353
security program and is governed by aviation security rules of the 41354
transportation security administration of the United States 41355
department of transportation as provided in Parts 1542. and 1544. 41356
of Title 49 of the Code of Federal Regulations, as amended, shall 41357
arrest and detain, until a warrant can be obtained, a person found 41358
violating, within the limits of the political subdivision, 41359
metropolitan housing authority housing project, regional transit 41360
authority facilities or areas of a municipal corporation that have 41361
been agreed to by a regional transit authority and a municipal 41362
corporation located within its territorial jurisdiction, college, 41363
university, veterans' home operated under Chapter 5907. of the 41364
Revised Code, port authority, or municipal airport or other 41365
municipal air navigation facility, in which the peace officer is 41366
appointed, employed, or elected, a law of this state, an ordinance 41367
of a municipal corporation, or a resolution of a township.41368

       (2) A peace officer of the department of natural resources, a 41369
state fire marshal law enforcement officer described in division 41370
(A)(23) of section 109.71 of the Revised Code, or an individual 41371
designated to perform law enforcement duties under section 41372
511.232, 1545.13, or 6101.75 of the Revised Code shall arrest and 41373
detain, until a warrant can be obtained, a person found violating, 41374
within the limits of the peace officer's, state fire marshal law 41375
enforcement officer's, or individual's territorial jurisdiction, a 41376
law of this state.41377

       (3) The house sergeant at arms, if the house sergeant at arms 41378
has arrest authority pursuant to division (E)(1) of section 41379
101.311 of the Revised Code, and an assistant house sergeant at 41380
arms shall arrest and detain, until a warrant can be obtained, a 41381
person found violating, within the limits of the sergeant at 41382
arms's or assistant sergeant at arms's territorial jurisdiction 41383
specified in division (D)(1)(a) of section 101.311 of the Revised 41384
Code or while providing security pursuant to division (D)(1)(f) of 41385
section 101.311 of the Revised Code, a law of this state, an 41386
ordinance of a municipal corporation, or a resolution of a 41387
township.41388

       (4) The senate sergeant at arms and an assistant senate 41389
sergeant at arms shall arrest and detain, until a warrant can be 41390
obtained, a person found violating, within the limits of the 41391
sergeant at arms's or assistant sergeant at arms's territorial 41392
jurisdiction specified in division (B) of section 101.312 of the 41393
Revised Code, a law of this state, an ordinance of a municipal 41394
corporation, or a resolution of a township.41395

       (B)(1) When there is reasonable ground to believe that an 41396
offense of violence, the offense of criminal child enticement as 41397
defined in section 2905.05 of the Revised Code, the offense of 41398
public indecency as defined in section 2907.09 of the Revised 41399
Code, the offense of domestic violence as defined in section 41400
2919.25 of the Revised Code, the offense of violating a protection 41401
order as defined in section 2919.27 of the Revised Code, the 41402
offense of menacing by stalking as defined in section 2903.211 of 41403
the Revised Code, the offense of aggravated trespass as defined in 41404
section 2911.211 of the Revised Code, a theft offense as defined 41405
in section 2913.01 of the Revised Code, or a felony drug abuse 41406
offense as defined in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code, has 41407
been committed within the limits of the political subdivision, 41408
metropolitan housing authority housing project, regional transit 41409
authority facilities or those areas of a municipal corporation 41410
that have been agreed to by a regional transit authority and a 41411
municipal corporation located within its territorial jurisdiction, 41412
college, university, veterans' home operated under Chapter 5907. 41413
of the Revised Code, port authority, or municipal airport or other 41414
municipal air navigation facility, in which the peace officer is 41415
appointed, employed, or elected or within the limits of the 41416
territorial jurisdiction of the peace officer, a peace officer 41417
described in division (A) of this section may arrest and detain 41418
until a warrant can be obtained any person who the peace officer 41419
has reasonable cause to believe is guilty of the violation.41420

       (2) For purposes of division (B)(1) of this section, the 41421
execution of any of the following constitutes reasonable ground to 41422
believe that the offense alleged in the statement was committed 41423
and reasonable cause to believe that the person alleged in the 41424
statement to have committed the offense is guilty of the 41425
violation:41426

       (a) A written statement by a person alleging that an alleged 41427
offender has committed the offense of menacing by stalking or 41428
aggravated trespass;41429

       (b) A written statement by the administrator of the 41430
interstate compact on mental health appointed under section 41431
5119.515119.71 of the Revised Code alleging that a person who had 41432
been hospitalized, institutionalized, or confined in any facility 41433
under an order made pursuant to or under authority of section 41434
2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 41435
2945.402 of the Revised Code has escaped from the facility, from 41436
confinement in a vehicle for transportation to or from the 41437
facility, or from supervision by an employee of the facility that 41438
is incidental to hospitalization, institutionalization, or 41439
confinement in the facility and that occurs outside of the 41440
facility, in violation of section 2921.34 of the Revised Code;41441

       (c) A written statement by the administrator of any facility 41442
in which a person has been hospitalized, institutionalized, or 41443
confined under an order made pursuant to or under authority of 41444
section 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 41445
2945.402 of the Revised Code alleging that the person has escaped 41446
from the facility, from confinement in a vehicle for 41447
transportation to or from the facility, or from supervision by an 41448
employee of the facility that is incidental to hospitalization, 41449
institutionalization, or confinement in the facility and that 41450
occurs outside of the facility, in violation of section 2921.34 of 41451
the Revised Code.41452

       (3)(a) For purposes of division (B)(1) of this section, a 41453
peace officer described in division (A) of this section has 41454
reasonable grounds to believe that the offense of domestic 41455
violence or the offense of violating a protection order has been 41456
committed and reasonable cause to believe that a particular person 41457
is guilty of committing the offense if any of the following 41458
occurs:41459

       (i) A person executes a written statement alleging that the 41460
person in question has committed the offense of domestic violence 41461
or the offense of violating a protection order against the person 41462
who executes the statement or against a child of the person who 41463
executes the statement.41464

       (ii) No written statement of the type described in division 41465
(B)(3)(a)(i) of this section is executed, but the peace officer, 41466
based upon the peace officer's own knowledge and observation of 41467
the facts and circumstances of the alleged incident of the offense 41468
of domestic violence or the alleged incident of the offense of 41469
violating a protection order or based upon any other information, 41470
including, but not limited to, any reasonably trustworthy 41471
information given to the peace officer by the alleged victim of 41472
the alleged incident of the offense or any witness of the alleged 41473
incident of the offense, concludes that there are reasonable 41474
grounds to believe that the offense of domestic violence or the 41475
offense of violating a protection order has been committed and 41476
reasonable cause to believe that the person in question is guilty 41477
of committing the offense.41478

       (iii) No written statement of the type described in division 41479
(B)(3)(a)(i) of this section is executed, but the peace officer 41480
witnessed the person in question commit the offense of domestic 41481
violence or the offense of violating a protection order.41482

       (b) If pursuant to division (B)(3)(a) of this section a peace 41483
officer has reasonable grounds to believe that the offense of 41484
domestic violence or the offense of violating a protection order 41485
has been committed and reasonable cause to believe that a 41486
particular person is guilty of committing the offense, it is the 41487
preferred course of action in this state that the officer arrest 41488
and detain that person pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section 41489
until a warrant can be obtained.41490

       If pursuant to division (B)(3)(a) of this section a peace 41491
officer has reasonable grounds to believe that the offense of 41492
domestic violence or the offense of violating a protection order 41493
has been committed and reasonable cause to believe that family or 41494
household members have committed the offense against each other, 41495
it is the preferred course of action in this state that the 41496
officer, pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section, arrest and 41497
detain until a warrant can be obtained the family or household 41498
member who committed the offense and whom the officer has 41499
reasonable cause to believe is the primary physical aggressor. 41500
There is no preferred course of action in this state regarding any 41501
other family or household member who committed the offense and 41502
whom the officer does not have reasonable cause to believe is the 41503
primary physical aggressor, but, pursuant to division (B)(1) of 41504
this section, the peace officer may arrest and detain until a 41505
warrant can be obtained any other family or household member who 41506
committed the offense and whom the officer does not have 41507
reasonable cause to believe is the primary physical aggressor.41508

       (c) If a peace officer described in division (A) of this 41509
section does not arrest and detain a person whom the officer has 41510
reasonable cause to believe committed the offense of domestic 41511
violence or the offense of violating a protection order when it is 41512
the preferred course of action in this state pursuant to division 41513
(B)(3)(b) of this section that the officer arrest that person, the 41514
officer shall articulate in the written report of the incident 41515
required by section 2935.032 of the Revised Code a clear statement 41516
of the officer's reasons for not arresting and detaining that 41517
person until a warrant can be obtained.41518

       (d) In determining for purposes of division (B)(3)(b) of this 41519
section which family or household member is the primary physical 41520
aggressor in a situation in which family or household members have 41521
committed the offense of domestic violence or the offense of 41522
violating a protection order against each other, a peace officer 41523
described in division (A) of this section, in addition to any 41524
other relevant circumstances, should consider all of the 41525
following:41526

       (i) Any history of domestic violence or of any other violent 41527
acts by either person involved in the alleged offense that the 41528
officer reasonably can ascertain;41529

       (ii) If violence is alleged, whether the alleged violence was 41530
caused by a person acting in self-defense;41531

       (iii) Each person's fear of physical harm, if any, resulting 41532
from the other person's threatened use of force against any person 41533
or resulting from the other person's use or history of the use of 41534
force against any person, and the reasonableness of that fear;41535

       (iv) The comparative severity of any injuries suffered by the 41536
persons involved in the alleged offense.41537

       (e)(i) A peace officer described in division (A) of this 41538
section shall not require, as a prerequisite to arresting or 41539
charging a person who has committed the offense of domestic 41540
violence or the offense of violating a protection order, that the 41541
victim of the offense specifically consent to the filing of 41542
charges against the person who has committed the offense or sign a 41543
complaint against the person who has committed the offense.41544

       (ii) If a person is arrested for or charged with committing 41545
the offense of domestic violence or the offense of violating a 41546
protection order and if the victim of the offense does not 41547
cooperate with the involved law enforcement or prosecuting 41548
authorities in the prosecution of the offense or, subsequent to 41549
the arrest or the filing of the charges, informs the involved law 41550
enforcement or prosecuting authorities that the victim does not 41551
wish the prosecution of the offense to continue or wishes to drop 41552
charges against the alleged offender relative to the offense, the 41553
involved prosecuting authorities, in determining whether to 41554
continue with the prosecution of the offense or whether to dismiss 41555
charges against the alleged offender relative to the offense and 41556
notwithstanding the victim's failure to cooperate or the victim's 41557
wishes, shall consider all facts and circumstances that are 41558
relevant to the offense, including, but not limited to, the 41559
statements and observations of the peace officers who responded to 41560
the incident that resulted in the arrest or filing of the charges 41561
and of all witnesses to that incident.41562

       (f) In determining pursuant to divisions (B)(3)(a) to (g) of 41563
this section whether to arrest a person pursuant to division 41564
(B)(1) of this section, a peace officer described in division (A) 41565
of this section shall not consider as a factor any possible 41566
shortage of cell space at the detention facility to which the 41567
person will be taken subsequent to the person's arrest or any 41568
possibility that the person's arrest might cause, contribute to, 41569
or exacerbate overcrowding at that detention facility or at any 41570
other detention facility.41571

       (g) If a peace officer described in division (A) of this 41572
section intends pursuant to divisions (B)(3)(a) to (g) of this 41573
section to arrest a person pursuant to division (B)(1) of this 41574
section and if the officer is unable to do so because the person 41575
is not present, the officer promptly shall seek a warrant for the 41576
arrest of the person.41577

       (h) If a peace officer described in division (A) of this 41578
section responds to a report of an alleged incident of the offense 41579
of domestic violence or an alleged incident of the offense of 41580
violating a protection order and if the circumstances of the 41581
incident involved the use or threatened use of a deadly weapon or 41582
any person involved in the incident brandished a deadly weapon 41583
during or in relation to the incident, the deadly weapon that was 41584
used, threatened to be used, or brandished constitutes contraband, 41585
and, to the extent possible, the officer shall seize the deadly 41586
weapon as contraband pursuant to Chapter 2981. of the Revised 41587
Code. Upon the seizure of a deadly weapon pursuant to division 41588
(B)(3)(h) of this section, section 2981.12 of the Revised Code 41589
shall apply regarding the treatment and disposition of the deadly 41590
weapon. For purposes of that section, the "underlying criminal 41591
offense" that was the basis of the seizure of a deadly weapon 41592
under division (B)(3)(h) of this section and to which the deadly 41593
weapon had a relationship is any of the following that is 41594
applicable:41595

       (i) The alleged incident of the offense of domestic violence 41596
or the alleged incident of the offense of violating a protection 41597
order to which the officer who seized the deadly weapon responded;41598

       (ii) Any offense that arose out of the same facts and 41599
circumstances as the report of the alleged incident of the offense 41600
of domestic violence or the alleged incident of the offense of 41601
violating a protection order to which the officer who seized the 41602
deadly weapon responded.41603

       (4) If, in the circumstances described in divisions (B)(3)(a) 41604
to (g) of this section, a peace officer described in division (A) 41605
of this section arrests and detains a person pursuant to division 41606
(B)(1) of this section, or if, pursuant to division (B)(3)(h) of 41607
this section, a peace officer described in division (A) of this 41608
section seizes a deadly weapon, the officer, to the extent 41609
described in and in accordance with section 9.86 or 2744.03 of the 41610
Revised Code, is immune in any civil action for damages for 41611
injury, death, or loss to person or property that arises from or 41612
is related to the arrest and detention or the seizure.41613

       (C) When there is reasonable ground to believe that a 41614
violation of division (A)(1), (2), (3), (4), or (5) of section 41615
4506.15 or a violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code has 41616
been committed by a person operating a motor vehicle subject to 41617
regulation by the public utilities commission of Ohio under Title 41618
XLIX of the Revised Code, a peace officer with authority to 41619
enforce that provision of law may stop or detain the person whom 41620
the officer has reasonable cause to believe was operating the 41621
motor vehicle in violation of the division or section and, after 41622
investigating the circumstances surrounding the operation of the 41623
vehicle, may arrest and detain the person.41624

       (D) If a sheriff, deputy sheriff, marshal, deputy marshal, 41625
municipal police officer, member of a police force employed by a 41626
metropolitan housing authority under division (D) of section 41627
3735.31 of the Revised Code, member of a police force employed by 41628
a regional transit authority under division (Y) of section 306.35 41629
of the Revised Code, special police officer employed by a port 41630
authority under section 4582.04 or 4582.28 of the Revised Code, 41631
special police officer employed by a municipal corporation at a 41632
municipal airport or other municipal air navigation facility 41633
described in division (A) of this section, township constable, 41634
police officer of a township or joint police district, state 41635
university law enforcement officer appointed under section 3345.04 41636
of the Revised Code, peace officer of the department of natural 41637
resources, individual designated to perform law enforcement duties 41638
under section 511.232, 1545.13, or 6101.75 of the Revised Code, 41639
the house sergeant at arms if the house sergeant at arms has 41640
arrest authority pursuant to division (E)(1) of section 101.311 of 41641
the Revised Code, or an assistant house sergeant at arms is 41642
authorized by division (A) or (B) of this section to arrest and 41643
detain, within the limits of the political subdivision, 41644
metropolitan housing authority housing project, regional transit 41645
authority facilities or those areas of a municipal corporation 41646
that have been agreed to by a regional transit authority and a 41647
municipal corporation located within its territorial jurisdiction, 41648
port authority, municipal airport or other municipal air 41649
navigation facility, college, or university in which the officer 41650
is appointed, employed, or elected or within the limits of the 41651
territorial jurisdiction of the peace officer, a person until a 41652
warrant can be obtained, the peace officer, outside the limits of 41653
that territory, may pursue, arrest, and detain that person until a 41654
warrant can be obtained if all of the following apply:41655

       (1) The pursuit takes place without unreasonable delay after 41656
the offense is committed;41657

       (2) The pursuit is initiated within the limits of the 41658
political subdivision, metropolitan housing authority housing 41659
project, regional transit authority facilities or those areas of a 41660
municipal corporation that have been agreed to by a regional 41661
transit authority and a municipal corporation located within its 41662
territorial jurisdiction, port authority, municipal airport or 41663
other municipal air navigation facility, college, or university in 41664
which the peace officer is appointed, employed, or elected or 41665
within the limits of the territorial jurisdiction of the peace 41666
officer;41667

       (3) The offense involved is a felony, a misdemeanor of the 41668
first degree or a substantially equivalent municipal ordinance, a 41669
misdemeanor of the second degree or a substantially equivalent 41670
municipal ordinance, or any offense for which points are 41671
chargeable pursuant to section 4510.036 of the Revised Code.41672

       (E) In addition to the authority granted under division (A) 41673
or (B) of this section:41674

       (1) A sheriff or deputy sheriff may arrest and detain, until 41675
a warrant can be obtained, any person found violating section 41676
4503.11, 4503.21, or 4549.01, sections 4549.08 to 4549.12, section 41677
4549.62, or Chapter 4511. or 4513. of the Revised Code on the 41678
portion of any street or highway that is located immediately 41679
adjacent to the boundaries of the county in which the sheriff or 41680
deputy sheriff is elected or appointed.41681

       (2) A member of the police force of a township police 41682
district created under section 505.48 of the Revised Code, a 41683
member of the police force of a joint police district created 41684
under section 505.482 of the Revised Code, or a township constable 41685
appointed in accordance with section 509.01 of the Revised Code, 41686
who has received a certificate from the Ohio peace officer 41687
training commission under section 109.75 of the Revised Code, may 41688
arrest and detain, until a warrant can be obtained, any person 41689
found violating any section or chapter of the Revised Code listed 41690
in division (E)(1) of this section, other than sections 4513.33 41691
and 4513.34 of the Revised Code, on the portion of any street or 41692
highway that is located immediately adjacent to the boundaries of 41693
the township police district or joint police district, in the case 41694
of a member of a township police district or joint police district 41695
police force, or the unincorporated territory of the township, in 41696
the case of a township constable. However, if the population of 41697
the township that created the township police district served by 41698
the member's police force, or the townships and municipal 41699
corporations that created the joint police district served by the 41700
member's police force, or the township that is served by the 41701
township constable, is sixty thousand or less, the member of the 41702
township police district or joint police district police force or 41703
the township constable may not make an arrest under division 41704
(E)(2) of this section on a state highway that is included as part 41705
of the interstate system.41706

       (3) A police officer or village marshal appointed, elected, 41707
or employed by a municipal corporation may arrest and detain, 41708
until a warrant can be obtained, any person found violating any 41709
section or chapter of the Revised Code listed in division (E)(1) 41710
of this section on the portion of any street or highway that is 41711
located immediately adjacent to the boundaries of the municipal 41712
corporation in which the police officer or village marshal is 41713
appointed, elected, or employed.41714

       (4) A peace officer of the department of natural resources, a 41715
state fire marshal law enforcement officer described in division 41716
(A)(23) of section 109.71 of the Revised Code, or an individual 41717
designated to perform law enforcement duties under section 41718
511.232, 1545.13, or 6101.75 of the Revised Code may arrest and 41719
detain, until a warrant can be obtained, any person found 41720
violating any section or chapter of the Revised Code listed in 41721
division (E)(1) of this section, other than sections 4513.33 and 41722
4513.34 of the Revised Code, on the portion of any street or 41723
highway that is located immediately adjacent to the boundaries of 41724
the lands and waters that constitute the territorial jurisdiction 41725
of the peace officer or state fire marshal law enforcement 41726
officer.41727

       (F)(1) A department of mental healthmental health and 41728
addiction services special police officer or a department of 41729
developmental disabilities special police officer may arrest 41730
without a warrant and detain until a warrant can be obtained any 41731
person found committing on the premises of any institution under 41732
the jurisdiction of the particular department a misdemeanor under 41733
a law of the state.41734

       A department of mental healthmental health and addiction 41735
services special police officer or a department of developmental 41736
disabilities special police officer may arrest without a warrant 41737
and detain until a warrant can be obtained any person who has been 41738
hospitalized, institutionalized, or confined in an institution 41739
under the jurisdiction of the particular department pursuant to or 41740
under authority of section 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 41741
2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code and who is 41742
found committing on the premises of any institution under the 41743
jurisdiction of the particular department a violation of section 41744
2921.34 of the Revised Code that involves an escape from the 41745
premises of the institution.41746

       (2)(a) If a department of mental healthmental health and 41747
addiction services special police officer or a department of 41748
developmental disabilities special police officer finds any person 41749
who has been hospitalized, institutionalized, or confined in an 41750
institution under the jurisdiction of the particular department 41751
pursuant to or under authority of section 2945.37, 2945.371, 41752
2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised 41753
Code committing a violation of section 2921.34 of the Revised Code 41754
that involves an escape from the premises of the institution, or 41755
if there is reasonable ground to believe that a violation of 41756
section 2921.34 of the Revised Code has been committed that 41757
involves an escape from the premises of an institution under the 41758
jurisdiction of the department of mental healthmental health and 41759
addiction services or the department of developmental disabilities 41760
and if a department of mental healthmental health and addiction 41761
services special police officer or a department of developmental 41762
disabilities special police officer has reasonable cause to 41763
believe that a particular person who has been hospitalized, 41764
institutionalized, or confined in the institution pursuant to or 41765
under authority of section 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 41766
2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code is guilty of 41767
the violation, the special police officer, outside of the premises 41768
of the institution, may pursue, arrest, and detain that person for 41769
that violation of section 2921.34 of the Revised Code, until a 41770
warrant can be obtained, if both of the following apply:41771

       (i) The pursuit takes place without unreasonable delay after 41772
the offense is committed;41773

       (ii) The pursuit is initiated within the premises of the 41774
institution from which the violation of section 2921.34 of the 41775
Revised Code occurred.41776

       (b) For purposes of division (F)(2)(a) of this section, the 41777
execution of a written statement by the administrator of the 41778
institution in which a person had been hospitalized, 41779
institutionalized, or confined pursuant to or under authority of 41780
section 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 41781
2945.402 of the Revised Code alleging that the person has escaped 41782
from the premises of the institution in violation of section 41783
2921.34 of the Revised Code constitutes reasonable ground to 41784
believe that the violation was committed and reasonable cause to 41785
believe that the person alleged in the statement to have committed 41786
the offense is guilty of the violation.41787

       (G) As used in this section:41788

       (1) A "department of mental healthmental health and 41789
addiction services special police officer" means a special police 41790
officer of the department of mental healthmental health and 41791
addiction services designated under section 5119.145119.08 of the 41792
Revised Code who is certified by the Ohio peace officer training 41793
commission under section 109.77 of the Revised Code as having 41794
successfully completed an approved peace officer basic training 41795
program.41796

       (2) A "department of developmental disabilities special 41797
police officer" means a special police officer of the department 41798
of developmental disabilities designated under section 5123.13 of 41799
the Revised Code who is certified by the Ohio peace officer 41800
training council under section 109.77 of the Revised Code as 41801
having successfully completed an approved peace officer basic 41802
training program.41803

       (3) "Deadly weapon" has the same meaning as in section 41804
2923.11 of the Revised Code.41805

       (4) "Family or household member" has the same meaning as in 41806
section 2919.25 of the Revised Code.41807

       (5) "Street" or "highway" has the same meaning as in section 41808
4511.01 of the Revised Code.41809

       (6) "Interstate system" has the same meaning as in section 41810
5516.01 of the Revised Code.41811

       (7) "Peace officer of the department of natural resources" 41812
means an employee of the department of natural resources who is a 41813
natural resources law enforcement staff officer designated 41814
pursuant to section 1501.013 of the Revised Code, a forest officer 41815
designated pursuant to section 1503.29 of the Revised Code, a 41816
preserve officer designated pursuant to section 1517.10 of the 41817
Revised Code, a wildlife officer designated pursuant to section 41818
1531.13 of the Revised Code, a park officer designated pursuant to 41819
section 1541.10 of the Revised Code, or a state watercraft officer 41820
designated pursuant to section 1547.521 of the Revised Code.41821

       (8) "Portion of any street or highway" means all lanes of the 41822
street or highway irrespective of direction of travel, including 41823
designated turn lanes, and any berm, median, or shoulder.41824

       Sec. 2935.33.  (A) If a person charged with a misdemeanor is 41825
taken before a judge of a court of record and if it appears to the 41826
judge that the person is an alcoholic or is suffering from acute 41827
alcohol intoxication and that the person would benefit from 41828
services provided by an alcohol and druga community addiction 41829
programservices provider certified under Chapter 3793.5119. of 41830
the Revised Code, the judge may place the person temporarily in a 41831
programservices provider certified under that chapter in the area 41832
in which the court has jurisdiction for inpatient care and 41833
treatment for an indefinite period not exceeding five days. The 41834
commitment does not limit the right to release on bail. The judge 41835
may dismiss a charge of a violation of division (B) of section 41836
2917.11 of the Revised Code or of a municipal ordinance 41837
substantially equivalent to that division if the defendant 41838
complies with all the conditions of treatment ordered by the 41839
court.41840

       The court may order that any fines or court costs collected 41841
by the court from defendants who have received inpatient care from 41842
an alcohol and druga community addiction programservices 41843
provider be paid, for the benefit of the program, to the board of 41844
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services of the 41845
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district in 41846
which the programservices provider is located or to the director 41847
of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 41848
services.41849

       (B) If a person is being sentenced for a violation of 41850
division (B) of section 2917.11 or section 4511.19 of the Revised 41851
Code, a misdemeanor violation of section 2919.25 of the Revised 41852
Code, a misdemeanor violation of section 2919.27 of the Revised 41853
Code involving a protection order issued or consent agreement 41854
approved pursuant to section 2919.26 or 3113.31 of the Revised 41855
Code, or a violation of a municipal ordinance substantially 41856
equivalent to that division or any of those sections and if it 41857
appears to the judge at the time of sentencing that the person is 41858
an alcoholic or is suffering from acute alcohol intoxication and 41859
that, in lieu of imprisonment, the person would benefit from 41860
services provided by an alcohol and druga community addiction 41861
programservices provider certified under Chapter 3793.5119. of 41862
the Revised Code, the court may commit the person to close 41863
supervision in any facility in the area in which the court has 41864
jurisdiction that is, or is operated by, such a programservices 41865
provider. Such close supervision may include outpatient services 41866
and part-time release, except that a person convicted of a 41867
violation of division (A) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code 41868
shall be confined to the facility for at least three days and 41869
except that a person convicted of a misdemeanor violation of 41870
section 2919.25 of the Revised Code, a misdemeanor violation of 41871
section 2919.27 of the Revised Code involving a protection order 41872
issued or consent agreement approved pursuant to section 2919.26 41873
or 3113.31 of the Revised Code, or a violation of a substantially 41874
equivalent municipal ordinance shall be confined to the facility 41875
in accordance with the order of commitment. A commitment of a 41876
person to a facility for purposes of close supervision shall not 41877
exceed the maximum term for which the person could be imprisoned.41878

       (C) A law enforcement officer who finds a person subject to 41879
prosecution for violation of division (B) of section 2917.11 of 41880
the Revised Code or a municipal ordinance substantially equivalent 41881
to that division and who has reasonable cause to believe that the 41882
person is an alcoholic or is suffering from acute alcohol 41883
intoxication and would benefit from immediate treatment 41884
immediately may place the person in an alcohol and druga 41885
community addiction programservices provider certified under 41886
Chapter 3793.5119. of the Revised Code in the area in which the 41887
person is found, for emergency treatment, in lieu of other arrest 41888
procedures, for a maximum period of forty-eight hours. During that 41889
time, if the person desires to leave such custody, the person 41890
shall be released forthwith.41891

       (D) As used in this section:41892

       (1) "Alcoholic" has the same meaning as in section 3793.0141893
5119.01 of the Revised Code;41894

       (2) "Acute alcohol intoxication" means a heavy consumption of 41895
alcohol over a relatively short period of time, resulting in 41896
dysfunction of the brain centers controlling behavior, speech, and 41897
memory and causing characteristic withdrawal symptoms.41898

       Sec. 2945.37.  (A) As used in sections 2945.37 to 2945.402 of 41899
the Revised Code:41900

       (1) "Prosecutor" means a prosecuting attorney or a city 41901
director of law, village solicitor, or similar chief legal officer 41902
of a municipal corporation who has authority to prosecute a 41903
criminal case that is before the court or the criminal case in 41904
which a defendant in a criminal case has been found incompetent to 41905
stand trial or not guilty by reason of insanity.41906

       (2) "Examiner" means either of the following:41907

       (a) A psychiatrist or a licensed clinical psychologist who 41908
satisfies the criteria of division (I)(1) of section 5122.01 of 41909
the Revised Code or is employed by a certified forensic center 41910
designated by the department of mental healthmental health and 41911
addiction services to conduct examinations or evaluations.41912

       (b) For purposes of a separate mental retardation evaluation 41913
that is ordered by a court pursuant to division (H) of section 41914
2945.371 of the Revised Code, a psychologist designated by the 41915
director of developmental disabilities pursuant to that section to 41916
conduct that separate mental retardation evaluation.41917

       (3) "Nonsecured status" means any unsupervised, off-grounds 41918
movement or trial visit from a hospital or institution, or any 41919
conditional release, that is granted to a person who is found 41920
incompetent to stand trial and is committed pursuant to section 41921
2945.39 of the Revised Code or to a person who is found not guilty 41922
by reason of insanity and is committed pursuant to section 2945.40 41923
of the Revised Code.41924

       (4) "Unsupervised, off-grounds movement" includes only 41925
off-grounds privileges that are unsupervised and that have an 41926
expectation of return to the hospital or institution on a daily 41927
basis.41928

       (5) "Trial visit" means a patient privilege of a longer 41929
stated duration of unsupervised community contact with an 41930
expectation of return to the hospital or institution at designated 41931
times.41932

       (6) "Conditional release" means a commitment status under 41933
which the trial court at any time may revoke a person's 41934
conditional release and order the rehospitalization or 41935
reinstitutionalization of the person as described in division (A) 41936
of section 2945.402 of the Revised Code and pursuant to which a 41937
person who is found incompetent to stand trial or a person who is 41938
found not guilty by reason of insanity lives and receives 41939
treatment in the community for a period of time that does not 41940
exceed the maximum prison term or term of imprisonment that the 41941
person could have received for the offense in question had the 41942
person been convicted of the offense instead of being found 41943
incompetent to stand trial on the charge of the offense or being 41944
found not guilty by reason of insanity relative to the offense.41945

       (7) "Licensed clinical psychologist," "mentally ill person 41946
subject to hospitalization by court order," and "psychiatrist" 41947
have the same meanings as in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.41948

       (8) "Mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization 41949
by court order" has the same meaning as in section 5123.01 of the 41950
Revised Code.41951

       (B) In a criminal action in a court of common pleas, a county 41952
court, or a municipal court, the court, prosecutor, or defense may 41953
raise the issue of the defendant's competence to stand trial. If 41954
the issue is raised before the trial has commenced, the court 41955
shall hold a hearing on the issue as provided in this section. If 41956
the issue is raised after the trial has commenced, the court shall 41957
hold a hearing on the issue only for good cause shown or on the 41958
court's own motion.41959

       (C) The court shall conduct the hearing required or 41960
authorized under division (B) of this section within thirty days 41961
after the issue is raised, unless the defendant has been referred 41962
for evaluation in which case the court shall conduct the hearing 41963
within ten days after the filing of the report of the evaluation 41964
or, in the case of a defendant who is ordered by the court 41965
pursuant to division (H) of section 2945.371 of the Revised Code 41966
to undergo a separate mental retardation evaluation conducted by a 41967
psychologist designated by the director of developmental 41968
disabilities, within ten days after the filing of the report of 41969
the separate mental retardation evaluation under that division. A 41970
hearing may be continued for good cause.41971

       (D) The defendant shall be represented by counsel at the 41972
hearing conducted under division (C) of this section. If the 41973
defendant is unable to obtain counsel, the court shall appoint 41974
counsel under Chapter 120. of the Revised Code or under the 41975
authority recognized in division (C) of section 120.06, division 41976
(E) of section 120.16, division (E) of section 120.26, or section 41977
2941.51 of the Revised Code before proceeding with the hearing.41978

       (E) The prosecutor and defense counsel may submit evidence on 41979
the issue of the defendant's competence to stand trial. A written 41980
report of the evaluation of the defendant may be admitted into 41981
evidence at the hearing by stipulation, but, if either the 41982
prosecution or defense objects to its admission, the report may be 41983
admitted under sections 2317.36 to 2317.38 of the Revised Code or 41984
any other applicable statute or rule.41985

       (F) The court shall not find a defendant incompetent to stand 41986
trial solely because the defendant is receiving or has received 41987
treatment as a voluntary or involuntary mentally ill patient under 41988
Chapter 5122. or a voluntary or involuntary mentally retarded 41989
resident under Chapter 5123. of the Revised Code or because the 41990
defendant is receiving or has received psychotropic drugs or other 41991
medication, even if the defendant might become incompetent to 41992
stand trial without the drugs or medication.41993

       (G) A defendant is presumed to be competent to stand trial. 41994
If, after a hearing, the court finds by a preponderance of the 41995
evidence that, because of the defendant's present mental 41996
condition, the defendant is incapable of understanding the nature 41997
and objective of the proceedings against the defendant or of 41998
assisting in the defendant's defense, the court shall find the 41999
defendant incompetent to stand trial and shall enter an order 42000
authorized by section 2945.38 of the Revised Code.42001

       (H) Municipal courts shall follow the procedures set forth in 42002
sections 2945.37 to 2945.402 of the Revised Code. Except as 42003
provided in section 2945.371 of the Revised Code, a municipal 42004
court shall not order an evaluation of the defendant's competence 42005
to stand trial or the defendant's mental condition at the time of 42006
the commission of the offense to be conducted at any hospital 42007
operated by the department of mental healthmental health and 42008
addiction services. Those evaluations shall be performed through 42009
community resources including, but not limited to, certified 42010
forensic centers, court probation departments, and community 42011
mental health agenciesservices providers. All expenses of the 42012
evaluations shall be borne by the legislative authority of the 42013
municipal court, as defined in section 1901.03 of the Revised 42014
Code, and shall be taxed as costs in the case. If a defendant is 42015
found incompetent to stand trial or not guilty by reason of 42016
insanity, a municipal court may commit the defendant as provided 42017
in sections 2945.38 to 2945.402 of the Revised Code.42018

       Sec. 2945.371.  (A) If the issue of a defendant's competence 42019
to stand trial is raised or if a defendant enters a plea of not 42020
guilty by reason of insanity, the court may order one or more 42021
evaluations of the defendant's present mental condition or, in the 42022
case of a plea of not guilty by reason of insanity, of the 42023
defendant's mental condition at the time of the offense charged. 42024
An examiner shall conduct the evaluation.42025

       (B) If the court orders more than one evaluation under 42026
division (A) of this section, the prosecutor and the defendant may 42027
recommend to the court an examiner whom each prefers to perform 42028
one of the evaluations. If a defendant enters a plea of not guilty 42029
by reason of insanity and if the court does not designate an 42030
examiner recommended by the defendant, the court shall inform the 42031
defendant that the defendant may have independent expert 42032
evaluation and that, if the defendant is unable to obtain 42033
independent expert evaluation, it will be obtained for the 42034
defendant at public expense if the defendant is indigent.42035

       (C) If the court orders an evaluation under division (A) of 42036
this section, the defendant shall be available at the times and 42037
places established by the examiners who are to conduct the 42038
evaluation. The court may order a defendant who has been released 42039
on bail or recognizance to submit to an evaluation under this 42040
section. If a defendant who has been released on bail or 42041
recognizance refuses to submit to a complete evaluation, the court 42042
may amend the conditions of bail or recognizance and order the 42043
sheriff to take the defendant into custody and deliver the 42044
defendant to a center, program, or facility operated or certified 42045
by the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 42046
services or the department of developmental disabilities where the 42047
defendant may be held for evaluation for a reasonable period of 42048
time not to exceed twenty days.42049

       (D) A defendant who has not been released on bail or 42050
recognizance may be evaluated at the defendant's place of 42051
detention. Upon the request of the examiner, the court may order 42052
the sheriff to transport the defendant to a program or facility 42053
operated or certified by the department of mental healthmental 42054
health and addiction services or the department of developmental 42055
disabilities, where the defendant may be held for evaluation for a 42056
reasonable period of time not to exceed twenty days, and to return 42057
the defendant to the place of detention after the evaluation. A 42058
municipal court may make an order under this division only upon 42059
the request of a certified forensic center examiner.42060

       (E) If a court orders the evaluation to determine a 42061
defendant's mental condition at the time of the offense charged, 42062
the court shall inform the examiner of the offense with which the 42063
defendant is charged.42064

       (F) In conducting an evaluation of a defendant's mental 42065
condition at the time of the offense charged, the examiner shall 42066
consider all relevant evidence. If the offense charged involves 42067
the use of force against another person, the relevant evidence to 42068
be considered includes, but is not limited to, any evidence that 42069
the defendant suffered, at the time of the commission of the 42070
offense, from the "battered woman syndrome."42071

       (G) The examiner shall file a written report with the court 42072
within thirty days after entry of a court order for evaluation, 42073
and the court shall provide copies of the report to the prosecutor 42074
and defense counsel. The report shall include all of the 42075
following:42076

       (1) The examiner's findings;42077

       (2) The facts in reasonable detail on which the findings are 42078
based;42079

       (3) If the evaluation was ordered to determine the 42080
defendant's competence to stand trial, all of the following 42081
findings or recommendations that are applicable:42082

       (a) Whether the defendant is capable of understanding the 42083
nature and objective of the proceedings against the defendant or 42084
of assisting in the defendant's defense;42085

       (b) If the examiner's opinion is that the defendant is 42086
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 42087
proceedings against the defendant or of assisting in the 42088
defendant's defense, whether the defendant presently is mentally 42089
ill or mentally retarded and, if the examiner's opinion is that 42090
the defendant presently is mentally retarded, whether the 42091
defendant appears to be a mentally retarded person subject to 42092
institutionalization by court order;42093

       (c) If the examiner's opinion is that the defendant is 42094
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 42095
proceedings against the defendant or of assisting in the 42096
defendant's defense, the examiner's opinion as to the likelihood 42097
of the defendant becoming capable of understanding the nature and 42098
objective of the proceedings against the defendant and of 42099
assisting in the defendant's defense within one year if the 42100
defendant is provided with a course of treatment;42101

       (d) If the examiner's opinion is that the defendant is 42102
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 42103
proceedings against the defendant or of assisting in the 42104
defendant's defense and that the defendant presently is mentally 42105
ill or mentally retarded, the examiner's recommendation as to the 42106
least restrictive placement or commitment alternative, consistent 42107
with the defendant's treatment needs for restoration to competency 42108
and with the safety of the community.42109

       (4) If the evaluation was ordered to determine the 42110
defendant's mental condition at the time of the offense charged, 42111
the examiner's findings as to whether the defendant, at the time 42112
of the offense charged, did not know, as a result of a severe 42113
mental disease or defect, the wrongfulness of the defendant's acts 42114
charged.42115

       (H) If the examiner's report filed under division (G) of this 42116
section indicates that in the examiner's opinion the defendant is 42117
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 42118
proceedings against the defendant or of assisting in the 42119
defendant's defense and that in the examiner's opinion the 42120
defendant appears to be a mentally retarded person subject to 42121
institutionalization by court order, the court shall order the 42122
defendant to undergo a separate mental retardation evaluation 42123
conducted by a psychologist designated by the director of 42124
developmental disabilities. Divisions (C) to (F) of this section 42125
apply in relation to a separate mental retardation evaluation 42126
conducted under this division. The psychologist appointed under 42127
this division to conduct the separate mental retardation 42128
evaluation shall file a written report with the court within 42129
thirty days after the entry of the court order requiring the 42130
separate mental retardation evaluation, and the court shall 42131
provide copies of the report to the prosecutor and defense 42132
counsel. The report shall include all of the information described 42133
in divisions (G)(1) to (4) of this section. If the court orders a 42134
separate mental retardation evaluation of a defendant under this 42135
division, the court shall not conduct a hearing under divisions 42136
(B) to (H) of section 2945.37 of the Revised Code regarding that 42137
defendant until a report of the separate mental retardation 42138
evaluation conducted under this division has been filed. Upon the 42139
filing of that report, the court shall conduct the hearing within 42140
the period of time specified in division (C) of section 2945.37 of 42141
the Revised Code.42142

       (I) An examiner appointed under divisions (A) and (B) of this 42143
section or under division (H) of this section to evaluate a 42144
defendant to determine the defendant's competence to stand trial 42145
also may be appointed to evaluate a defendant who has entered a 42146
plea of not guilty by reason of insanity, but an examiner of that 42147
nature shall prepare separate reports on the issue of competence 42148
to stand trial and the defense of not guilty by reason of 42149
insanity.42150

       (J) No statement that a defendant makes in an evaluation or 42151
hearing under divisions (A) to (H) of this section relating to the 42152
defendant's competence to stand trial or to the defendant's mental 42153
condition at the time of the offense charged shall be used against 42154
the defendant on the issue of guilt in any criminal action or 42155
proceeding, but, in a criminal action or proceeding, the 42156
prosecutor or defense counsel may call as a witness any person who 42157
evaluated the defendant or prepared a report pursuant to a 42158
referral under this section. Neither the appointment nor the 42159
testimony of an examiner appointed under this section precludes 42160
the prosecutor or defense counsel from calling other witnesses or 42161
presenting other evidence on competency or insanity issues.42162

       (K) Persons appointed as examiners under divisions (A) and 42163
(B) of this section or under division (H) of this section shall be 42164
paid a reasonable amount for their services and expenses, as 42165
certified by the court. The certified amount shall be paid by the 42166
county in the case of county courts and courts of common pleas and 42167
by the legislative authority, as defined in section 1901.03 of the 42168
Revised Code, in the case of municipal courts.42169

       Sec. 2945.38.  (A) If the issue of a defendant's competence 42170
to stand trial is raised and if the court, upon conducting the 42171
hearing provided for in section 2945.37 of the Revised Code, finds 42172
that the defendant is competent to stand trial, the defendant 42173
shall be proceeded against as provided by law. If the court finds 42174
the defendant competent to stand trial and the defendant is 42175
receiving psychotropic drugs or other medication, the court may 42176
authorize the continued administration of the drugs or medication 42177
or other appropriate treatment in order to maintain the 42178
defendant's competence to stand trial, unless the defendant's 42179
attending physician advises the court against continuation of the 42180
drugs, other medication, or treatment.42181

       (B)(1)(a) If, after taking into consideration all relevant 42182
reports, information, and other evidence, the court finds that the 42183
defendant is incompetent to stand trial and that there is a 42184
substantial probability that the defendant will become competent 42185
to stand trial within one year if the defendant is provided with a 42186
course of treatment, the court shall order the defendant to 42187
undergo treatment. If the defendant has been charged with a felony 42188
offense and if, after taking into consideration all relevant 42189
reports, information, and other evidence, the court finds that the 42190
defendant is incompetent to stand trial, but the court is unable 42191
at that time to determine whether there is a substantial 42192
probability that the defendant will become competent to stand 42193
trial within one year if the defendant is provided with a course 42194
of treatment, the court shall order continuing evaluation and 42195
treatment of the defendant for a period not to exceed four months 42196
to determine whether there is a substantial probability that the 42197
defendant will become competent to stand trial within one year if 42198
the defendant is provided with a course of treatment.42199

       (b) The court order for the defendant to undergo treatment or 42200
continuing evaluation and treatment under division (B)(1)(a) of 42201
this section shall specify that the defendant, if determined to 42202
require mental health treatment or continuing evaluation and 42203
treatment, either shall be committed to the department of mental 42204
healthmental health and addiction services for treatment or 42205
continuing evaluation and treatment at a hospital, facility, or 42206
agency, as determined to be clinically appropriate by the 42207
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services42208
or shall be committed to a facility certified by the department of 42209
mental healthmental health and addiction services as being 42210
qualified to treat mental illness, to a public or community mental 42211
health facility, or to a psychiatrist or another mental health 42212
professional for treatment or continuing evaluation and treatment. 42213
Prior to placing the defendant, the department of mental health42214
mental health and addiction services shall obtain court approval 42215
for that placement following a hearing. The court order for the 42216
defendant to undergo treatment or continuing evaluation and 42217
treatment under division (B)(1)(a) of this section shall specify 42218
that the defendant, if determined to require treatment or 42219
continuing evaluation and treatment for mental retardation, shall 42220
receive treatment or continuing evaluation and treatment at an 42221
institution or facility operated by the department of 42222
developmental disabilities, at a facility certified by the 42223
department of developmental disabilities as being qualified to 42224
treat mental retardation, at a public or private mental 42225
retardation facility, or by a psychiatrist or another mental 42226
retardation professional. In any case, the order may restrict the 42227
defendant's freedom of movement as the court considers necessary. 42228
The prosecutor in the defendant's case shall send to the chief 42229
clinical officer of the hospital, facility, or agency where the 42230
defendant is placed by the department of mental healthmental 42231
health and addiction services, or to the managing officer of the 42232
institution, the director of the program or facility, or the 42233
person to which the defendant is committed, copies of relevant 42234
police reports and other background information that pertains to 42235
the defendant and is available to the prosecutor unless the 42236
prosecutor determines that the release of any of the information 42237
in the police reports or any of the other background information 42238
to unauthorized persons would interfere with the effective 42239
prosecution of any person or would create a substantial risk of 42240
harm to any person.42241

       In determining the place of commitment, the court shall 42242
consider the extent to which the person is a danger to the person 42243
and to others, the need for security, and the type of crime 42244
involved and shall order the least restrictive alternative 42245
available that is consistent with public safety and treatment 42246
goals. In weighing these factors, the court shall give preference 42247
to protecting public safety.42248

       (c) If the defendant is found incompetent to stand trial, if 42249
the chief clinical officer of the hospital, facility, or agency 42250
where the defendant is placed, or the managing officer of the 42251
institution, the director of the program or facility, or the 42252
person to which the defendant is committed for treatment or 42253
continuing evaluation and treatment under division (B)(1)(b) of 42254
this section determines that medication is necessary to restore 42255
the defendant's competency to stand trial, and if the defendant 42256
lacks the capacity to give informed consent or refuses medication, 42257
the chief clinical officer of the hospital, facility, or agency 42258
where the defendant is placed, or the managing officer of the 42259
institution, the director of the program or facility, or the 42260
person to which the defendant is committed for treatment or 42261
continuing evaluation and treatment may petition the court for 42262
authorization for the involuntary administration of medication. 42263
The court shall hold a hearing on the petition within five days of 42264
the filing of the petition if the petition was filed in a 42265
municipal court or a county court regarding an incompetent 42266
defendant charged with a misdemeanor or within ten days of the 42267
filing of the petition if the petition was filed in a court of 42268
common pleas regarding an incompetent defendant charged with a 42269
felony offense. Following the hearing, the court may authorize the 42270
involuntary administration of medication or may dismiss the 42271
petition.42272

       (2) If the court finds that the defendant is incompetent to 42273
stand trial and that, even if the defendant is provided with a 42274
course of treatment, there is not a substantial probability that 42275
the defendant will become competent to stand trial within one 42276
year, the court shall order the discharge of the defendant, unless 42277
upon motion of the prosecutor or on its own motion, the court 42278
either seeks to retain jurisdiction over the defendant pursuant to 42279
section 2945.39 of the Revised Code or files an affidavit in the 42280
probate court for the civil commitment of the defendant pursuant 42281
to Chapter 5122. or 5123. of the Revised Code alleging that the 42282
defendant is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by 42283
court order or a mentally retarded person subject to 42284
institutionalization by court order. If an affidavit is filed in 42285
the probate court, the trial court shall send to the probate court 42286
copies of all written reports of the defendant's mental condition 42287
that were prepared pursuant to section 2945.371 of the Revised 42288
Code.42289

       The trial court may issue the temporary order of detention 42290
that a probate court may issue under section 5122.11 or 5123.71 of 42291
the Revised Code, to remain in effect until the probable cause or 42292
initial hearing in the probate court. Further proceedings in the 42293
probate court are civil proceedings governed by Chapter 5122. or 42294
5123. of the Revised Code.42295

       (C) No defendant shall be required to undergo treatment, 42296
including any continuing evaluation and treatment, under division 42297
(B)(1) of this section for longer than whichever of the following 42298
periods is applicable:42299

       (1) One year, if the most serious offense with which the 42300
defendant is charged is one of the following offenses:42301

       (a) Aggravated murder, murder, or an offense of violence for 42302
which a sentence of death or life imprisonment may be imposed;42303

       (b) An offense of violence that is a felony of the first or 42304
second degree;42305

       (c) A conspiracy to commit, an attempt to commit, or 42306
complicity in the commission of an offense described in division 42307
(C)(1)(a) or (b) of this section if the conspiracy, attempt, or 42308
complicity is a felony of the first or second degree.42309

       (2) Six months, if the most serious offense with which the 42310
defendant is charged is a felony other than a felony described in 42311
division (C)(1) of this section;42312

       (3) Sixty days, if the most serious offense with which the 42313
defendant is charged is a misdemeanor of the first or second 42314
degree;42315

       (4) Thirty days, if the most serious offense with which the 42316
defendant is charged is a misdemeanor of the third or fourth 42317
degree, a minor misdemeanor, or an unclassified misdemeanor.42318

       (D) Any defendant who is committed pursuant to this section 42319
shall not voluntarily admit the defendant or be voluntarily 42320
admitted to a hospital or institution pursuant to section 5122.02, 42321
5122.15, 5123.69, or 5123.76 of the Revised Code.42322

       (E) Except as otherwise provided in this division, a 42323
defendant who is charged with an offense and is committed by the 42324
court under this section to the department of mental healthmental 42325
health and addiction services or is committed to an institution or 42326
facility for the treatment of mental retardation shall not be 42327
granted unsupervised on-grounds movement, supervised off-grounds 42328
movement, or nonsecured status except in accordance with the court 42329
order. The court may grant a defendant supervised off-grounds 42330
movement to obtain medical treatment or specialized habilitation 42331
treatment services if the person who supervises the treatment or 42332
the continuing evaluation and treatment of the defendant ordered 42333
under division (B)(1)(a) of this section informs the court that 42334
the treatment or continuing evaluation and treatment cannot be 42335
provided at the hospital or facility where the defendant is placed 42336
by the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 42337
services or the institution or facility to which the defendant is 42338
committed. The chief clinical officer of the hospital or facility 42339
where the defendant is placed by the department of mental health42340
mental health and addiction services or the managing officer of 42341
the institution or director of the facility to which the defendant 42342
is committed, or a designee of any of those persons, may grant a 42343
defendant movement to a medical facility for an emergency medical 42344
situation with appropriate supervision to ensure the safety of the 42345
defendant, staff, and community during that emergency medical 42346
situation. The chief clinical officer of the hospital or facility 42347
where the defendant is placed by the department of mental health42348
mental health and addiction services or the managing officer of 42349
the institution or director of the facility to which the defendant 42350
is committed shall notify the court within twenty-four hours of 42351
the defendant's movement to the medical facility for an emergency 42352
medical situation under this division.42353

       (F) The person who supervises the treatment or continuing 42354
evaluation and treatment of a defendant ordered to undergo 42355
treatment or continuing evaluation and treatment under division 42356
(B)(1)(a) of this section shall file a written report with the 42357
court at the following times:42358

       (1) Whenever the person believes the defendant is capable of 42359
understanding the nature and objective of the proceedings against 42360
the defendant and of assisting in the defendant's defense;42361

       (2) For a felony offense, fourteen days before expiration of 42362
the maximum time for treatment as specified in division (C) of 42363
this section and fourteen days before the expiration of the 42364
maximum time for continuing evaluation and treatment as specified 42365
in division (B)(1)(a) of this section, and, for a misdemeanor 42366
offense, ten days before the expiration of the maximum time for 42367
treatment, as specified in division (C) of this section;42368

       (3) At a minimum, after each six months of treatment;42369

       (4) Whenever the person who supervises the treatment or 42370
continuing evaluation and treatment of a defendant ordered under 42371
division (B)(1)(a) of this section believes that there is not a 42372
substantial probability that the defendant will become capable of 42373
understanding the nature and objective of the proceedings against 42374
the defendant or of assisting in the defendant's defense even if 42375
the defendant is provided with a course of treatment.42376

       (G) A report under division (F) of this section shall contain 42377
the examiner's findings, the facts in reasonable detail on which 42378
the findings are based, and the examiner's opinion as to the 42379
defendant's capability of understanding the nature and objective 42380
of the proceedings against the defendant and of assisting in the 42381
defendant's defense. If, in the examiner's opinion, the defendant 42382
remains incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 42383
proceedings against the defendant and of assisting in the 42384
defendant's defense and there is a substantial probability that 42385
the defendant will become capable of understanding the nature and 42386
objective of the proceedings against the defendant and of 42387
assisting in the defendant's defense if the defendant is provided 42388
with a course of treatment, if in the examiner's opinion the 42389
defendant remains mentally ill or mentally retarded, and if the 42390
maximum time for treatment as specified in division (C) of this 42391
section has not expired, the report also shall contain the 42392
examiner's recommendation as to the least restrictive placement or 42393
commitment alternative that is consistent with the defendant's 42394
treatment needs for restoration to competency and with the safety 42395
of the community. The court shall provide copies of the report to 42396
the prosecutor and defense counsel.42397

       (H) If a defendant is committed pursuant to division (B)(1) 42398
of this section, within ten days after the treating physician of 42399
the defendant or the examiner of the defendant who is employed or 42400
retained by the treating facility advises that there is not a 42401
substantial probability that the defendant will become capable of 42402
understanding the nature and objective of the proceedings against 42403
the defendant or of assisting in the defendant's defense even if 42404
the defendant is provided with a course of treatment, within ten 42405
days after the expiration of the maximum time for treatment as 42406
specified in division (C) of this section, within ten days after 42407
the expiration of the maximum time for continuing evaluation and 42408
treatment as specified in division (B)(1)(a) of this section, 42409
within thirty days after a defendant's request for a hearing that 42410
is made after six months of treatment, or within thirty days after 42411
being advised by the treating physician or examiner that the 42412
defendant is competent to stand trial, whichever is the earliest, 42413
the court shall conduct another hearing to determine if the 42414
defendant is competent to stand trial and shall do whichever of 42415
the following is applicable:42416

       (1) If the court finds that the defendant is competent to 42417
stand trial, the defendant shall be proceeded against as provided 42418
by law.42419

       (2) If the court finds that the defendant is incompetent to 42420
stand trial, but that there is a substantial probability that the 42421
defendant will become competent to stand trial if the defendant is 42422
provided with a course of treatment, and the maximum time for 42423
treatment as specified in division (C) of this section has not 42424
expired, the court, after consideration of the examiner's 42425
recommendation, shall order that treatment be continued, may 42426
change the facility or program at which the treatment is to be 42427
continued, and shall specify whether the treatment is to be 42428
continued at the same or a different facility or program.42429

       (3) If the court finds that the defendant is incompetent to 42430
stand trial, if the defendant is charged with an offense listed in 42431
division (C)(1) of this section, and if the court finds that there 42432
is not a substantial probability that the defendant will become 42433
competent to stand trial even if the defendant is provided with a 42434
course of treatment, or if the maximum time for treatment relative 42435
to that offense as specified in division (C) of this section has 42436
expired, further proceedings shall be as provided in sections 42437
2945.39, 2945.401, and 2945.402 of the Revised Code.42438

       (4) If the court finds that the defendant is incompetent to 42439
stand trial, if the most serious offense with which the defendant 42440
is charged is a misdemeanor or a felony other than a felony listed 42441
in division (C)(1) of this section, and if the court finds that 42442
there is not a substantial probability that the defendant will 42443
become competent to stand trial even if the defendant is provided 42444
with a course of treatment, or if the maximum time for treatment 42445
relative to that offense as specified in division (C) of this 42446
section has expired, the court shall dismiss the indictment, 42447
information, or complaint against the defendant. A dismissal under 42448
this division is not a bar to further prosecution based on the 42449
same conduct. The court shall discharge the defendant unless the 42450
court or prosecutor files an affidavit in probate court for civil 42451
commitment pursuant to Chapter 5122. or 5123. of the Revised Code. 42452
If an affidavit for civil commitment is filed, the court may 42453
detain the defendant for ten days pending civil commitment. All of 42454
the following provisions apply to persons charged with a 42455
misdemeanor or a felony other than a felony listed in division 42456
(C)(1) of this section who are committed by the probate court 42457
subsequent to the court's or prosecutor's filing of an affidavit 42458
for civil commitment under authority of this division:42459

       (a) The chief clinical officer of the entity, hospital, or 42460
facility, the managing officer of the institution, the director of 42461
the program, or the person to which the defendant is committed or 42462
admitted shall do all of the following:42463

       (i) Notify the prosecutor, in writing, of the discharge of 42464
the defendant, send the notice at least ten days prior to the 42465
discharge unless the discharge is by the probate court, and state 42466
in the notice the date on which the defendant will be discharged;42467

       (ii) Notify the prosecutor, in writing, when the defendant is 42468
absent without leave or is granted unsupervised, off-grounds 42469
movement, and send this notice promptly after the discovery of the 42470
absence without leave or prior to the granting of the 42471
unsupervised, off-grounds movement, whichever is applicable;42472

       (iii) Notify the prosecutor, in writing, of the change of the 42473
defendant's commitment or admission to voluntary status, send the 42474
notice promptly upon learning of the change to voluntary status, 42475
and state in the notice the date on which the defendant was 42476
committed or admitted on a voluntary status.42477

       (b) Upon receiving notice that the defendant will be granted 42478
unsupervised, off-grounds movement, the prosecutor either shall 42479
re-indict the defendant or promptly notify the court that the 42480
prosecutor does not intend to prosecute the charges against the 42481
defendant.42482

       (I) If a defendant is convicted of a crime and sentenced to a 42483
jail or workhouse, the defendant's sentence shall be reduced by 42484
the total number of days the defendant is confined for evaluation 42485
to determine the defendant's competence to stand trial or 42486
treatment under this section and sections 2945.37 and 2945.371 of 42487
the Revised Code or by the total number of days the defendant is 42488
confined for evaluation to determine the defendant's mental 42489
condition at the time of the offense charged.42490

       Sec. 2945.39.  (A) If a defendant who is charged with an 42491
offense described in division (C)(1) of section 2945.38 of the 42492
Revised Code is found incompetent to stand trial, after the 42493
expiration of the maximum time for treatment as specified in 42494
division (C) of that section or after the court finds that there 42495
is not a substantial probability that the defendant will become 42496
competent to stand trial even if the defendant is provided with a 42497
course of treatment, one of the following applies:42498

       (1) The court or the prosecutor may file an affidavit in 42499
probate court for civil commitment of the defendant in the manner 42500
provided in Chapter 5122. or 5123. of the Revised Code. If the 42501
court or prosecutor files an affidavit for civil commitment, the 42502
court may detain the defendant for ten days pending civil 42503
commitment. If the probate court commits the defendant subsequent 42504
to the court's or prosecutor's filing of an affidavit for civil 42505
commitment, the chief clinical officer of the entity, hospital, or 42506
facility, the managing officer of the institution, the director of 42507
the program, or the person to which the defendant is committed or 42508
admitted shall send to the prosecutor the notices described in 42509
divisions (H)(4)(a)(i) to (iii) of section 2945.38 of the Revised 42510
Code within the periods of time and under the circumstances 42511
specified in those divisions.42512

       (2) On the motion of the prosecutor or on its own motion, the 42513
court may retain jurisdiction over the defendant if, at a hearing, 42514
the court finds both of the following by clear and convincing 42515
evidence:42516

       (a) The defendant committed the offense with which the 42517
defendant is charged.42518

       (b) The defendant is a mentally ill person subject to 42519
hospitalization by court order or a mentally retarded person 42520
subject to institutionalization by court order.42521

       (B) In making its determination under division (A)(2) of this 42522
section as to whether to retain jurisdiction over the defendant, 42523
the court may consider all relevant evidence, including, but not 42524
limited to, any relevant psychiatric, psychological, or medical 42525
testimony or reports, the acts constituting the offense charged, 42526
and any history of the defendant that is relevant to the 42527
defendant's ability to conform to the law.42528

       (C) If the court conducts a hearing as described in division 42529
(A)(2) of this section and if the court does not make both 42530
findings described in divisions (A)(2)(a) and (b) of this section 42531
by clear and convincing evidence, the court shall dismiss the 42532
indictment, information, or complaint against the defendant. Upon 42533
the dismissal, the court shall discharge the defendant unless the 42534
court or prosecutor files an affidavit in probate court for civil 42535
commitment of the defendant pursuant to Chapter 5122. or 5123. of 42536
the Revised Code. If the court or prosecutor files an affidavit 42537
for civil commitment, the court may order that the defendant be 42538
detained for up to ten days pending the civil commitment. If the 42539
probate court commits the defendant subsequent to the court's or 42540
prosecutor's filing of an affidavit for civil commitment, the 42541
chief clinical officer of the entity, hospital, or facility, the 42542
managing officer of the institution, the director of the program, 42543
or the person to which the defendant is committed or admitted 42544
shall send to the prosecutor the notices described in divisions 42545
(H)(4)(a)(i) to (iii) of section 2945.38 of the Revised Code 42546
within the periods of time and under the circumstances specified 42547
in those divisions. A dismissal of charges under this division is 42548
not a bar to further criminal proceedings based on the same 42549
conduct.42550

       (D)(1) If the court conducts a hearing as described in 42551
division (A)(2) of this section and if the court makes the 42552
findings described in divisions (A)(2)(a) and (b) of this section 42553
by clear and convincing evidence, the court shall commit the 42554
defendant, if determined to require mental health treatment, 42555
either to the department of mental healthmental health and 42556
addiction services for treatment at a hospital, facility, or 42557
agency as determined clinically appropriate by the department of 42558
mental healthmental health and addiction services or to another 42559
medical or psychiatric facility, as appropriate. Prior to placing 42560
the defendant, the department of mental healthmental health and 42561
addiction services shall obtain court approval for that placement. 42562
If the court conducts such a hearing and if it makes those 42563
findings by clear and convincing evidence, the court shall commit 42564
the defendant, if determined to require treatment for mental 42565
retardation, to a facility operated by the department of 42566
developmental disabilities, or another facility, as appropriate. 42567
In determining the place of commitment, the court shall consider 42568
the extent to which the person is a danger to the person and to 42569
others, the need for security, and the type of crime involved and 42570
shall order the least restrictive alternative available that is 42571
consistent with public safety and the welfare of the defendant. In 42572
weighing these factors, the court shall give preference to 42573
protecting public safety.42574

       (2) If a court makes a commitment of a defendant under 42575
division (D)(1) of this section, the prosecutor shall send to the 42576
hospital, facility, or agency where the defendant is placed by the 42577
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services42578
or to the defendant's place of commitment all reports of the 42579
defendant's current mental condition and, except as otherwise 42580
provided in this division, any other relevant information, 42581
including, but not limited to, a transcript of the hearing held 42582
pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section, copies of relevant 42583
police reports, and copies of any prior arrest and conviction 42584
records that pertain to the defendant and that the prosecutor 42585
possesses. The prosecutor shall send the reports of the 42586
defendant's current mental condition in every case of commitment, 42587
and, unless the prosecutor determines that the release of any of 42588
the other relevant information to unauthorized persons would 42589
interfere with the effective prosecution of any person or would 42590
create a substantial risk of harm to any person, the prosecutor 42591
also shall send the other relevant information. Upon admission of 42592
a defendant committed under division (D)(1) of this section, the 42593
place of commitment shall send to the board of alcohol, drug 42594
addiction, and mental health services or the community mental 42595
health board serving the county in which the charges against the 42596
defendant were filed a copy of all reports of the defendant's 42597
current mental condition and a copy of the other relevant 42598
information provided by the prosecutor under this division, 42599
including, if provided, a transcript of the hearing held pursuant 42600
to division (A)(2) of this section, the relevant police reports, 42601
and the prior arrest and conviction records that pertain to the 42602
defendant and that the prosecutor possesses.42603

       (3) If a court makes a commitment under division (D)(1) of 42604
this section, all further proceedings shall be in accordance with 42605
sections 2945.401 and 2945.402 of the Revised Code.42606

       Sec. 2945.40.  (A) If a person is found not guilty by reason 42607
of insanity, the verdict shall state that finding, and the trial 42608
court shall conduct a full hearing to determine whether the person 42609
is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court order 42610
or a mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization by 42611
court order. Prior to the hearing, if the trial judge believes 42612
that there is probable cause that the person found not guilty by 42613
reason of insanity is a mentally ill person subject to 42614
hospitalization by court order or mentally retarded person subject 42615
to institutionalization by court order, the trial judge may issue 42616
a temporary order of detention for that person to remain in effect 42617
for ten court days or until the hearing, whichever occurs first.42618

       Any person detained pursuant to a temporary order of 42619
detention issued under this division shall be held in a suitable 42620
facility, taking into consideration the place and type of 42621
confinement prior to and during trial.42622

       (B) The court shall hold the hearing under division (A) of 42623
this section to determine whether the person found not guilty by 42624
reason of insanity is a mentally ill person subject to 42625
hospitalization by court order or a mentally retarded person 42626
subject to institutionalization by court order within ten court 42627
days after the finding of not guilty by reason of insanity. 42628
Failure to conduct the hearing within the ten-day period shall 42629
cause the immediate discharge of the respondent, unless the judge 42630
grants a continuance for not longer than ten court days for good 42631
cause shown or for any period of time upon motion of the 42632
respondent.42633

       (C) If a person is found not guilty by reason of insanity, 42634
the person has the right to attend all hearings conducted pursuant 42635
to sections 2945.37 to 2945.402 of the Revised Code. At any 42636
hearing conducted pursuant to one of those sections, the court 42637
shall inform the person that the person has all of the following 42638
rights:42639

       (1) The right to be represented by counsel and to have that 42640
counsel provided at public expense if the person is indigent, with 42641
the counsel to be appointed by the court under Chapter 120. of the 42642
Revised Code or under the authority recognized in division (C) of 42643
section 120.06, division (E) of section 120.16, division (E) of 42644
section 120.26, or section 2941.51 of the Revised Code;42645

       (2) The right to have independent expert evaluation and to 42646
have that independent expert evaluation provided at public expense 42647
if the person is indigent;42648

       (3) The right to subpoena witnesses and documents, to present 42649
evidence on the person's behalf, and to cross-examine witnesses 42650
against the person;42651

       (4) The right to testify in the person's own behalf and to 42652
not be compelled to testify;42653

       (5) The right to have copies of any relevant medical or 42654
mental health document in the custody of the state or of any place 42655
of commitment other than a document for which the court finds that 42656
the release to the person of information contained in the document 42657
would create a substantial risk of harm to any person.42658

       (D) The hearing under division (A) of this section shall be 42659
open to the public, and the court shall conduct the hearing in 42660
accordance with the Rules of Civil Procedure. The court shall make 42661
and maintain a full transcript and record of the hearing 42662
proceedings. The court may consider all relevant evidence, 42663
including, but not limited to, any relevant psychiatric, 42664
psychological, or medical testimony or reports, the acts 42665
constituting the offense in relation to which the person was found 42666
not guilty by reason of insanity, and any history of the person 42667
that is relevant to the person's ability to conform to the law.42668

       (E) Upon completion of the hearing under division (A) of this 42669
section, if the court finds there is not clear and convincing 42670
evidence that the person is a mentally ill person subject to 42671
hospitalization by court order or a mentally retarded person 42672
subject to institutionalization by court order, the court shall 42673
discharge the person, unless a detainer has been placed upon the 42674
person by the department of rehabilitation and correction, in 42675
which case the person shall be returned to that department.42676

       (F) If, at the hearing under division (A) of this section, 42677
the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the person 42678
is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 42679
order, the court shall commit the person either to the department 42680
of mental healthmental health and addiction services for 42681
treatment in a hospital, facility, or agency as determined 42682
clinically appropriate by the department of mental healthmental 42683
health and addiction services or to another medical or psychiatric 42684
facility, as appropriate. Prior to placing the defendant, the 42685
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services42686
shall obtain court approval for that placement. If, at the hearing 42687
under division (A) of this section, the court determines by clear 42688
and convincing evidence that the person requires treatment for 42689
mental retardation, it shall commit the person to a facility 42690
operated by the department of developmental disabilities or 42691
another facility, as appropriate. Further proceedings shall be in 42692
accordance with sections 2945.401 and 2945.402 of the Revised 42693
Code. In determining the place of commitment, the court shall 42694
consider the extent to which the person is a danger to the person 42695
and to others, the need for security, and the type of crime 42696
involved and shall order the least restrictive alternative 42697
available that is consistent with public safety and the welfare of 42698
the person. In weighing these factors, the court shall give 42699
preference to protecting public safety.42700

       (G) If a court makes a commitment of a person under division 42701
(F) of this section, the prosecutor shall send to the hospital, 42702
facility, or agency where the person is placed by the department 42703
of mental healthmental health and addiction services or to the 42704
defendant's place of commitment all reports of the person's 42705
current mental condition, and, except as otherwise provided in 42706
this division, any other relevant information, including, but not 42707
limited to, a transcript of the hearing held pursuant to division 42708
(A) of this section, copies of relevant police reports, and copies 42709
of any prior arrest and conviction records that pertain to the 42710
person and that the prosecutor possesses. The prosecutor shall 42711
send the reports of the person's current mental condition in every 42712
case of commitment, and, unless the prosecutor determines that the 42713
release of any of the other relevant information to unauthorized 42714
persons would interfere with the effective prosecution of any 42715
person or would create a substantial risk of harm to any person, 42716
the prosecutor also shall send the other relevant information. 42717
Upon admission of a person committed under division (F) of this 42718
section, the place of commitment shall send to the board of 42719
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services or the 42720
community mental health board serving the county in which the 42721
charges against the person were filed a copy of all reports of the 42722
person's current mental condition and a copy of the other relevant 42723
information provided by the prosecutor under this division, 42724
including, if provided, a transcript of the hearing held pursuant 42725
to division (A) of this section, the relevant police reports, and 42726
the prior arrest and conviction records that pertain to the person 42727
and that the prosecutor possesses. 42728

       (H) A person who is committed pursuant to this section shall 42729
not voluntarily admit the person or be voluntarily admitted to a 42730
hospital or institution pursuant to section 5122.02, 5122.15, 42731
5123.69, or 5123.76 of the Revised Code.42732

       Sec. 2945.401.  (A) A defendant found incompetent to stand 42733
trial and committed pursuant to section 2945.39 of the Revised 42734
Code or a person found not guilty by reason of insanity and 42735
committed pursuant to section 2945.40 of the Revised Code shall 42736
remain subject to the jurisdiction of the trial court pursuant to 42737
that commitment, and to the provisions of this section, until the 42738
final termination of the commitment as described in division 42739
(J)(1) of this section. If the jurisdiction is terminated under 42740
this division because of the final termination of the commitment 42741
resulting from the expiration of the maximum prison term or term 42742
of imprisonment described in division (J)(1)(b) of this section, 42743
the court or prosecutor may file an affidavit for the civil 42744
commitment of the defendant or person pursuant to Chapter 5122. or 42745
5123. of the Revised Code.42746

       (B) A hearing conducted under any provision of sections 42747
2945.37 to 2945.402 of the Revised Code shall not be conducted in 42748
accordance with Chapters 5122. and 5123. of the Revised Code. Any 42749
person who is committed pursuant to section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of 42750
the Revised Code shall not voluntarily admit the person or be 42751
voluntarily admitted to a hospital or institution pursuant to 42752
section 5122.02, 5122.15, 5123.69, or 5123.76 of the Revised Code. 42753
All other provisions of Chapters 5122. and 5123. of the Revised 42754
Code regarding hospitalization or institutionalization shall apply 42755
to the extent they are not in conflict with this chapter. A 42756
commitment under section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of the Revised Code 42757
shall not be terminated and the conditions of the commitment shall 42758
not be changed except as otherwise provided in division (D)(2) of 42759
this section with respect to a mentally retarded person subject to 42760
institutionalization by court order or except by order of the 42761
trial court.42762

       (C) The department of mental healthmental health and 42763
addiction services or the institution, facility, or program to 42764
which a defendant or person has been committed under section 42765
2945.39 or 2945.40 of the Revised Code shall report in writing to 42766
the trial court, at the times specified in this division, as to 42767
whether the defendant or person remains a mentally ill person 42768
subject to hospitalization by court order or a mentally retarded 42769
person subject to institutionalization by court order and, in the 42770
case of a defendant committed under section 2945.39 of the Revised 42771
Code, as to whether the defendant remains incompetent to stand 42772
trial. The department, institution, facility, or program shall 42773
make the reports after the initial six months of treatment and 42774
every two years after the initial report is made. The trial court 42775
shall provide copies of the reports to the prosecutor and to the 42776
counsel for the defendant or person. Within thirty days after its 42777
receipt pursuant to this division of a report from the department, 42778
institution, facility, or program, the trial court shall hold a 42779
hearing on the continued commitment of the defendant or person or 42780
on any changes in the conditions of the commitment of the 42781
defendant or person. The defendant or person may request a change 42782
in the conditions of confinement, and the trial court shall 42783
conduct a hearing on that request if six months or more have 42784
elapsed since the most recent hearing was conducted under this 42785
section.42786

       (D)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(2) of 42787
this section, when a defendant or person has been committed under 42788
section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of the Revised Code, at any time after 42789
evaluating the risks to public safety and the welfare of the 42790
defendant or person, the designee of the department of mental 42791
healthmental health and addiction services or the managing 42792
officer of the institution or director of the facility or program 42793
to which the defendant or person is committed may recommend a 42794
termination of the defendant's or person's commitment or a change 42795
in the conditions of the defendant's or person's commitment.42796

       Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(2) of this 42797
section, if the designee of the department of mental healthmental 42798
health and addiction services recommends on-grounds unsupervised 42799
movement, off-grounds supervised movement, or nonsecured status 42800
for the defendant or person or termination of the defendant's or 42801
person's commitment, the following provisions apply:42802

       (a) If the department's designee recommends on-grounds 42803
unsupervised movement or off-grounds supervised movement, the 42804
department's designee shall file with the trial court an 42805
application for approval of the movement and shall send a copy of 42806
the application to the prosecutor. Within fifteen days after 42807
receiving the application, the prosecutor may request a hearing on 42808
the application and, if a hearing is requested, shall so inform 42809
the department's designee. If the prosecutor does not request a 42810
hearing within the fifteen-day period, the trial court shall 42811
approve the application by entering its order approving the 42812
requested movement or, within five days after the expiration of 42813
the fifteen-day period, shall set a date for a hearing on the 42814
application. If the prosecutor requests a hearing on the 42815
application within the fifteen-day period, the trial court shall 42816
hold a hearing on the application within thirty days after the 42817
hearing is requested. If the trial court, within five days after 42818
the expiration of the fifteen-day period, sets a date for a 42819
hearing on the application, the trial court shall hold the hearing 42820
within thirty days after setting the hearing date. At least 42821
fifteen days before any hearing is held under this division, the 42822
trial court shall give the prosecutor written notice of the date, 42823
time, and place of the hearing. At the conclusion of each hearing 42824
conducted under this division, the trial court either shall 42825
approve or disapprove the application and shall enter its order 42826
accordingly.42827

       (b) If the department's designee recommends termination of 42828
the defendant's or person's commitment at any time or if the 42829
department's designee recommends the first of any nonsecured 42830
status for the defendant or person, the department's designee 42831
shall send written notice of this recommendation to the trial 42832
court and to the local forensic center. The local forensic center 42833
shall evaluate the committed defendant or person and, within 42834
thirty days after its receipt of the written notice, shall submit 42835
to the trial court and the department's designee a written report 42836
of the evaluation. The trial court shall provide a copy of the 42837
department's designee's written notice and of the local forensic 42838
center's written report to the prosecutor and to the counsel for 42839
the defendant or person. Upon the local forensic center's 42840
submission of the report to the trial court and the department's 42841
designee, all of the following apply:42842

       (i) If the forensic center disagrees with the recommendation 42843
of the department's designee, it shall inform the department's 42844
designee and the trial court of its decision and the reasons for 42845
the decision. The department's designee, after consideration of 42846
the forensic center's decision, shall either withdraw, proceed 42847
with, or modify and proceed with the recommendation. If the 42848
department's designee proceeds with, or modifies and proceeds 42849
with, the recommendation, the department's designee shall proceed 42850
in accordance with division (D)(1)(b)(iii) of this section.42851

       (ii) If the forensic center agrees with the recommendation of 42852
the department's designee, it shall inform the department's 42853
designee and the trial court of its decision and the reasons for 42854
the decision, and the department's designee shall proceed in 42855
accordance with division (D)(1)(b)(iii) of this section.42856

       (iii) If the forensic center disagrees with the 42857
recommendation of the department's designee and the department's 42858
designee proceeds with, or modifies and proceeds with, the 42859
recommendation or if the forensic center agrees with the 42860
recommendation of the department's designee, the department's 42861
designee shall work with community mental health agenciesservices 42862
providers, programs, facilities, or boards of alcohol, drug 42863
addiction, and mental health services or community mental health 42864
boards to develop a plan to implement the recommendation. If the 42865
defendant or person is on medication, the plan shall include, but 42866
shall not be limited to, a system to monitor the defendant's or 42867
person's compliance with the prescribed medication treatment plan. 42868
The system shall include a schedule that clearly states when the 42869
defendant or person shall report for a medication compliance 42870
check. The medication compliance checks shall be based upon the 42871
effective duration of the prescribed medication, taking into 42872
account the route by which it is taken, and shall be scheduled at 42873
intervals sufficiently close together to detect a potential 42874
increase in mental illness symptoms that the medication is 42875
intended to prevent.42876

       The department's designee, after consultation with the board 42877
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services or the 42878
community mental health board serving the area, shall send the 42879
recommendation and plan developed under division (D)(1)(b)(iii) of 42880
this section, in writing, to the trial court, the prosecutor, and 42881
the counsel for the committed defendant or person. The trial court 42882
shall conduct a hearing on the recommendation and plan developed 42883
under division (D)(1)(b)(iii) of this section. Divisions (D)(1)(c) 42884
and (d) and (E) to (J) of this section apply regarding the 42885
hearing.42886

       (c) If the department's designee's recommendation is for 42887
nonsecured status or termination of commitment, the prosecutor may 42888
obtain an independent expert evaluation of the defendant's or 42889
person's mental condition, and the trial court may continue the 42890
hearing on the recommendation for a period of not more than thirty 42891
days to permit time for the evaluation.42892

       The prosecutor may introduce the evaluation report or present 42893
other evidence at the hearing in accordance with the Rules of 42894
Evidence.42895

       (d) The trial court shall schedule the hearing on a 42896
department's designee's recommendation for nonsecured status or 42897
termination of commitment and shall give reasonable notice to the 42898
prosecutor and the counsel for the defendant or person. Unless 42899
continued for independent evaluation at the prosecutor's request 42900
or for other good cause, the hearing shall be held within thirty 42901
days after the trial court's receipt of the recommendation and 42902
plan.42903

       (2)(a) Division (D)(1) of this section does not apply to 42904
on-grounds unsupervised movement of a defendant or person who has 42905
been committed under section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of the Revised 42906
Code, who is a mentally retarded person subject to 42907
institutionalization by court order, and who is being provided 42908
residential habilitation, care, and treatment in a facility 42909
operated by the department of developmental disabilities.42910

       (b) If, pursuant to section 2945.39 of the Revised Code, the 42911
trial court commits a defendant who is found incompetent to stand 42912
trial and who is a mentally retarded person subject to 42913
institutionalization by court order, if the defendant is being 42914
provided residential habilitation, care, and treatment in a 42915
facility operated by the department of developmental disabilities, 42916
if an individual who is conducting a survey for the department of 42917
health to determine the facility's compliance with the 42918
certification requirements of the medicaid program under Chapter 42919
5111. of the Revised Code and Title XIX of the "Social Security 42920
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, cites the 42921
defendant's receipt of the residential habilitation, care, and 42922
treatment in the facility as being inappropriate under the 42923
certification requirements, if the defendant's receipt of the 42924
residential habilitation, care, and treatment in the facility 42925
potentially jeopardizes the facility's continued receipt of 42926
federal medicaid moneys, and if as a result of the citation the 42927
chief clinical officer of the facility determines that the 42928
conditions of the defendant's commitment should be changed, the 42929
department of developmental disabilities may cause the defendant 42930
to be removed from the particular facility and, after evaluating 42931
the risks to public safety and the welfare of the defendant and 42932
after determining whether another type of placement is consistent 42933
with the certification requirements, may place the defendant in 42934
another facility that the department selects as an appropriate 42935
facility for the defendant's continued receipt of residential 42936
habilitation, care, and treatment and that is a no less secure 42937
setting than the facility in which the defendant had been placed 42938
at the time of the citation. Within three days after the 42939
defendant's removal and alternative placement under the 42940
circumstances described in division (D)(2)(b) of this section, the 42941
department of developmental disabilities shall notify the trial 42942
court and the prosecutor in writing of the removal and alternative 42943
placement.42944

       The trial court shall set a date for a hearing on the removal 42945
and alternative placement, and the hearing shall be held within 42946
twenty-one days after the trial court's receipt of the notice from 42947
the department of developmental disabilities. At least ten days 42948
before the hearing is held, the trial court shall give the 42949
prosecutor, the department of developmental disabilities, and the 42950
counsel for the defendant written notice of the date, time, and 42951
place of the hearing. At the hearing, the trial court shall 42952
consider the citation issued by the individual who conducted the 42953
survey for the department of health to be prima-facie evidence of 42954
the fact that the defendant's commitment to the particular 42955
facility was inappropriate under the certification requirements of 42956
the medicaid program under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code and 42957
Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 42958
U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, and potentially jeopardizes the 42959
particular facility's continued receipt of federal medicaid 42960
moneys. At the conclusion of the hearing, the trial court may 42961
approve or disapprove the defendant's removal and alternative 42962
placement. If the trial court approves the defendant's removal and 42963
alternative placement, the department of developmental 42964
disabilities may continue the defendant's alternative placement. 42965
If the trial court disapproves the defendant's removal and 42966
alternative placement, it shall enter an order modifying the 42967
defendant's removal and alternative placement, but that order 42968
shall not require the department of developmental disabilities to 42969
replace the defendant for purposes of continued residential 42970
habilitation, care, and treatment in the facility associated with 42971
the citation issued by the individual who conducted the survey for 42972
the department of health.42973

       (E) In making a determination under this section regarding 42974
nonsecured status or termination of commitment, the trial court 42975
shall consider all relevant factors, including, but not limited 42976
to, all of the following:42977

       (1) Whether, in the trial court's view, the defendant or 42978
person currently represents a substantial risk of physical harm to 42979
the defendant or person or others;42980

       (2) Psychiatric and medical testimony as to the current 42981
mental and physical condition of the defendant or person;42982

       (3) Whether the defendant or person has insight into the 42983
defendant's or person's condition so that the defendant or person 42984
will continue treatment as prescribed or seek professional 42985
assistance as needed;42986

       (4) The grounds upon which the state relies for the proposed 42987
commitment;42988

       (5) Any past history that is relevant to establish the 42989
defendant's or person's degree of conformity to the laws, rules, 42990
regulations, and values of society;42991

       (6) If there is evidence that the defendant's or person's 42992
mental illness is in a state of remission, the medically suggested 42993
cause and degree of the remission and the probability that the 42994
defendant or person will continue treatment to maintain the 42995
remissive state of the defendant's or person's illness should the 42996
defendant's or person's commitment conditions be altered.42997

       (F) At any hearing held pursuant to division (C) or (D)(1) or 42998
(2) of this section, the defendant or the person shall have all 42999
the rights of a defendant or person at a commitment hearing as 43000
described in section 2945.40 of the Revised Code.43001

       (G) In a hearing held pursuant to division (C) or (D)(1) of 43002
this section, the prosecutor has the burden of proof as follows:43003

       (1) For a recommendation of termination of commitment, to 43004
show by clear and convincing evidence that the defendant or person 43005
remains a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 43006
order or a mentally retarded person subject to 43007
institutionalization by court order;43008

       (2) For a recommendation for a change in the conditions of 43009
the commitment to a less restrictive status, to show by clear and 43010
convincing evidence that the proposed change represents a threat 43011
to public safety or a threat to the safety of any person.43012

       (H) In a hearing held pursuant to division (C) or (D)(1) or 43013
(2) of this section, the prosecutor shall represent the state or 43014
the public interest.43015

       (I) At the conclusion of a hearing conducted under division 43016
(D)(1) of this section regarding a recommendation from the 43017
designee of the department of mental healthmental health and 43018
addiction services, managing officer of the institution, or 43019
director of a facility or program, the trial court may approve, 43020
disapprove, or modify the recommendation and shall enter an order 43021
accordingly.43022

       (J)(1) A defendant or person who has been committed pursuant 43023
to section 2945.39 or 2945.40 of the Revised Code continues to be 43024
under the jurisdiction of the trial court until the final 43025
termination of the commitment. For purposes of division (J) of 43026
this section, the final termination of a commitment occurs upon 43027
the earlier of one of the following:43028

       (a) The defendant or person no longer is a mentally ill 43029
person subject to hospitalization by court order or a mentally 43030
retarded person subject to institutionalization by court order, as 43031
determined by the trial court;43032

       (b) The expiration of the maximum prison term or term of 43033
imprisonment that the defendant or person could have received if 43034
the defendant or person had been convicted of the most serious 43035
offense with which the defendant or person is charged or in 43036
relation to which the defendant or person was found not guilty by 43037
reason of insanity;43038

       (c) The trial court enters an order terminating the 43039
commitment under the circumstances described in division 43040
(J)(2)(a)(ii) of this section.43041

       (2)(a) If a defendant is found incompetent to stand trial and 43042
committed pursuant to section 2945.39 of the Revised Code, if 43043
neither of the circumstances described in divisions (J)(1)(a) and 43044
(b) of this section applies to that defendant, and if a report 43045
filed with the trial court pursuant to division (C) of this 43046
section indicates that the defendant presently is competent to 43047
stand trial or if, at any other time during the period of the 43048
defendant's commitment, the prosecutor, the counsel for the 43049
defendant, or the designee of the department of mental health43050
mental health and addiction services or the managing officer of 43051
the institution or director of the facility or program to which 43052
the defendant is committed files an application with the trial 43053
court alleging that the defendant presently is competent to stand 43054
trial and requesting a hearing on the competency issue or the 43055
trial court otherwise has reasonable cause to believe that the 43056
defendant presently is competent to stand trial and determines on 43057
its own motion to hold a hearing on the competency issue, the 43058
trial court shall schedule a hearing on the competency of the 43059
defendant to stand trial, shall give the prosecutor, the counsel 43060
for the defendant, and the department's designee or the managing 43061
officer of the institution or the director of the facility to 43062
which the defendant is committed notice of the date, time, and 43063
place of the hearing at least fifteen days before the hearing, and 43064
shall conduct the hearing within thirty days of the filing of the 43065
application or of its own motion. If, at the conclusion of the 43066
hearing, the trial court determines that the defendant presently 43067
is capable of understanding the nature and objective of the 43068
proceedings against the defendant and of assisting in the 43069
defendant's defense, the trial court shall order that the 43070
defendant is competent to stand trial and shall be proceeded 43071
against as provided by law with respect to the applicable offenses 43072
described in division (C)(1) of section 2945.38 of the Revised 43073
Code and shall enter whichever of the following additional orders 43074
is appropriate:43075

       (i) If the trial court determines that the defendant remains 43076
a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court order or 43077
a mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization by 43078
court order, the trial court shall order that the defendant's 43079
commitment to the department of mental healthmental health and 43080
addiction services or to an institution, facility, or program for 43081
the treatment of mental retardation be continued during the 43082
pendency of the trial on the applicable offenses described in 43083
division (C)(1) of section 2945.38 of the Revised Code.43084

       (ii) If the trial court determines that the defendant no 43085
longer is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by 43086
court order or a mentally retarded person subject to 43087
institutionalization by court order, the trial court shall order 43088
that the defendant's commitment to the department of mental health43089
mental health and addiction services or to an institution, 43090
facility, or program for the treatment of mental retardation shall 43091
not be continued during the pendency of the trial on the 43092
applicable offenses described in division (C)(1) of section 43093
2945.38 of the Revised Code. This order shall be a final 43094
termination of the commitment for purposes of division (J)(1)(c) 43095
of this section.43096

       (b) If, at the conclusion of the hearing described in 43097
division (J)(2)(a) of this section, the trial court determines 43098
that the defendant remains incapable of understanding the nature 43099
and objective of the proceedings against the defendant or of 43100
assisting in the defendant's defense, the trial court shall order 43101
that the defendant continues to be incompetent to stand trial, 43102
that the defendant's commitment to the department of mental health43103
mental health and addiction services or to an institution, 43104
facility, or program for the treatment of mental retardation shall 43105
be continued, and that the defendant remains subject to the 43106
jurisdiction of the trial court pursuant to that commitment, and 43107
to the provisions of this section, until the final termination of 43108
the commitment as described in division (J)(1) of this section.43109

       Sec. 2951.041.  (A)(1) If an offender is charged with a 43110
criminal offense, including but not limited to a violation of 43111
section 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.11, 2913.21, 2913.31, or 2919.21 of 43112
the Revised Code, and the court has reason to believe that drug or 43113
alcohol usage by the offender was a factor leading to the criminal 43114
offense with which the offender is charged or that, at the time of 43115
committing that offense, the offender had a mental illness or was 43116
a person with intellectual disability and that the mental illness 43117
or status as a person with intellectual disability was a factor 43118
leading to the offender's criminal behavior, the court may accept, 43119
prior to the entry of a guilty plea, the offender's request for 43120
intervention in lieu of conviction. The request shall include a 43121
statement from the offender as to whether the offender is alleging 43122
that drug or alcohol usage by the offender was a factor leading to 43123
the criminal offense with which the offender is charged or is 43124
alleging that, at the time of committing that offense, the 43125
offender had a mental illness or was a person with intellectual 43126
disability and that the mental illness or status as a person with 43127
intellectual disability was a factor leading to the criminal 43128
offense with which the offender is charged. The request also shall 43129
include a waiver of the defendant's right to a speedy trial, the 43130
preliminary hearing, the time period within which the grand jury 43131
may consider an indictment against the offender, and arraignment, 43132
unless the hearing, indictment, or arraignment has already 43133
occurred. The court may reject an offender's request without a 43134
hearing. If the court elects to consider an offender's request, 43135
the court shall conduct a hearing to determine whether the 43136
offender is eligible under this section for intervention in lieu 43137
of conviction and shall stay all criminal proceedings pending the 43138
outcome of the hearing. If the court schedules a hearing, the 43139
court shall order an assessment of the offender for the purpose of 43140
determining the offender's eligibility for intervention in lieu of 43141
conviction and recommending an appropriate intervention plan.43142

       If the offender alleges that drug or alcohol usage by the 43143
offender was a factor leading to the criminal offense with which 43144
the offender is charged, the court may order that the offender be 43145
assessed by a programan addiction services provider certified 43146
pursuant to section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code or a 43147
properly credentialed professional for the purpose of determining 43148
the offender's eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction 43149
and recommending an appropriate intervention plan. The program43150
addiction services provider or the properly credentialed 43151
professional shall provide a written assessment of the offender to 43152
the court.43153

       (2) The victim notification provisions of division (C) of 43154
section 2930.08 of the Revised Code apply in relation to any 43155
hearing held under division (A)(1) of this section.43156

       (B) An offender is eligible for intervention in lieu of 43157
conviction if the court finds all of the following:43158

       (1) The offender previously has not been convicted of or 43159
pleaded guilty to a felony offense of violence or previously has 43160
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any felony that is not an 43161
offense of violence and the prosecuting attorney recommends that 43162
the offender be found eligible for participation in intervention 43163
in lieu of treatment under this section, previously has not been 43164
through intervention in lieu of conviction under this section or 43165
any similar regimen, and is charged with a felony for which the 43166
court, upon conviction, would impose a community control sanction 43167
on the offender under division (B)(2) of section 2929.13 of the 43168
Revised Code or with a misdemeanor.43169

       (2) The offense is not a felony of the first, second, or 43170
third degree, is not an offense of violence, is not a violation of 43171
division (A)(1) or (2) of section 2903.06 of the Revised Code, is 43172
not a violation of division (A)(1) of section 2903.08 of the 43173
Revised Code, is not a violation of division (A) of section 43174
4511.19 of the Revised Code or a municipal ordinance that is 43175
substantially similar to that division, and is not an offense for 43176
which a sentencing court is required to impose a mandatory prison 43177
term, a mandatory term of local incarceration, or a mandatory term 43178
of imprisonment in a jail.43179

       (3) The offender is not charged with a violation of section 43180
2925.02, 2925.04, or 2925.06 of the Revised Code, is not charged 43181
with a violation of section 2925.03 of the Revised Code that is a 43182
felony of the first, second, third, or fourth degree, and is not 43183
charged with a violation of section 2925.11 of the Revised Code 43184
that is a felony of the first, second, or third degree.43185

       (4) If an offender alleges that drug or alcohol usage by the 43186
offender was a factor leading to the criminal offense with which 43187
the offender is charged, the court has ordered that the offender 43188
be assessed by a programan addiction services provider certified 43189
pursuant to section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code or a 43190
properly credentialed professional for the purpose of determining 43191
the offender's eligibility for intervention in lieu of conviction 43192
and recommending an appropriate intervention plan, the offender 43193
has been assessed by a programan addiction services provider of 43194
that nature or a properly credentialed professional in accordance 43195
with the court's order, and the programaddiction services 43196
provider or properly credentialed professional has filed the 43197
written assessment of the offender with the court.43198

       (5) If an offender alleges that, at the time of committing 43199
the criminal offense with which the offender is charged, the 43200
offender had a mental illness or was a person with intellectual 43201
disability and that the mental illness or status as a person with 43202
intellectual disability was a factor leading to that offense, the 43203
offender has been assessed by a psychiatrist, psychologist, 43204
independent social worker, or professional clinical counselor for 43205
the purpose of determining the offender's eligibility for 43206
intervention in lieu of conviction and recommending an appropriate 43207
intervention plan.43208

       (6) The offender's drug usage, alcohol usage, mental illness, 43209
or intellectual disability, whichever is applicable, was a factor 43210
leading to the criminal offense with which the offender is 43211
charged, intervention in lieu of conviction would not demean the 43212
seriousness of the offense, and intervention would substantially 43213
reduce the likelihood of any future criminal activity.43214

       (7) The alleged victim of the offense was not sixty-five 43215
years of age or older, permanently and totally disabled, under 43216
thirteen years of age, or a peace officer engaged in the officer's 43217
official duties at the time of the alleged offense.43218

       (8) If the offender is charged with a violation of section 43219
2925.24 of the Revised Code, the alleged violation did not result 43220
in physical harm to any person, and the offender previously has 43221
not been treated for drug abuse.43222

       (9) The offender is willing to comply with all terms and 43223
conditions imposed by the court pursuant to division (D) of this 43224
section.43225

       (10) The offender is not charged with an offense that would 43226
result in the offender being disqualified under Chapter 4506. of 43227
the Revised Code from operating a commercial motor vehicle or 43228
would subject the offender to any other sanction under that 43229
chapter. 43230

       (C) At the conclusion of a hearing held pursuant to division 43231
(A) of this section, the court shall enter its determination as to 43232
whether the offender is eligible for intervention in lieu of 43233
conviction and as to whether to grant the offender's request. If 43234
the court finds under division (B) of this section that the 43235
offender is eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction and 43236
grants the offender's request, the court shall accept the 43237
offender's plea of guilty and waiver of the defendant's right to a 43238
speedy trial, the preliminary hearing, the time period within 43239
which the grand jury may consider an indictment against the 43240
offender, and arraignment, unless the hearing, indictment, or 43241
arraignment has already occurred. In addition, the court then may 43242
stay all criminal proceedings and order the offender to comply 43243
with all terms and conditions imposed by the court pursuant to 43244
division (D) of this section. If the court finds that the offender 43245
is not eligible or does not grant the offender's request, the 43246
criminal proceedings against the offender shall proceed as if the 43247
offender's request for intervention in lieu of conviction had not 43248
been made.43249

       (D) If the court grants an offender's request for 43250
intervention in lieu of conviction, the court shall place the 43251
offender under the general control and supervision of the county 43252
probation department, the adult parole authority, or another 43253
appropriate local probation or court services agency, if one 43254
exists, as if the offender was subject to a community control 43255
sanction imposed under section 2929.15, 2929.18, or 2929.25 of the 43256
Revised Code. The court shall establish an intervention plan for 43257
the offender. The terms and conditions of the intervention plan 43258
shall require the offender, for at least one year from the date on 43259
which the court grants the order of intervention in lieu of 43260
conviction, to abstain from the use of illegal drugs and alcohol, 43261
to participate in treatment and recovery support services, and to 43262
submit to regular random testing for drug and alcohol use and may 43263
include any other treatment terms and conditions, or terms and 43264
conditions similar to community control sanctions, which may 43265
include community service or restitution, that are ordered by the 43266
court.43267

       (E) If the court grants an offender's request for 43268
intervention in lieu of conviction and the court finds that the 43269
offender has successfully completed the intervention plan for the 43270
offender, including the requirement that the offender abstain from 43271
using illegal drugs and alcohol for a period of at least one year 43272
from the date on which the court granted the order of intervention 43273
in lieu of conviction, the requirement that the offender 43274
participate in treatment and recovery support services, and all 43275
other terms and conditions ordered by the court, the court shall 43276
dismiss the proceedings against the offender. Successful 43277
completion of the intervention plan and period of abstinence under 43278
this section shall be without adjudication of guilt and is not a 43279
criminal conviction for purposes of any disqualification or 43280
disability imposed by law and upon conviction of a crime, and the 43281
court may order the sealing of records related to the offense in 43282
question in the manner provided in sections 2953.31 to 2953.36 of 43283
the Revised Code.43284

       (F) If the court grants an offender's request for 43285
intervention in lieu of conviction and the offender fails to 43286
comply with any term or condition imposed as part of the 43287
intervention plan for the offender, the supervising authority for 43288
the offender promptly shall advise the court of this failure, and 43289
the court shall hold a hearing to determine whether the offender 43290
failed to comply with any term or condition imposed as part of the 43291
plan. If the court determines that the offender has failed to 43292
comply with any of those terms and conditions, it shall enter a 43293
finding of guilty and shall impose an appropriate sanction under 43294
Chapter 2929. of the Revised Code. If the court sentences the 43295
offender to a prison term, the court, after consulting with the 43296
department of rehabilitation and correction regarding the 43297
availability of services, may order continued court-supervised 43298
activity and treatment of the offender during the prison term and, 43299
upon consideration of reports received from the department 43300
concerning the offender's progress in the program of activity and 43301
treatment, may consider judicial release under section 2929.20 of 43302
the Revised Code.43303

       (G) As used in this section:43304

       (1) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 43305
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.43306

       (2) "Intervention in lieu of conviction" means any 43307
court-supervised activity that complies with this section.43308

       (3) "Peace officer" has the same meaning as in section 43309
2935.01 of the Revised Code.43310

       (4) "Mental illness" and "psychiatrist" have the same 43311
meanings as in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.43312

       (5) "Person with intellectual disability" means a person 43313
having significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning 43314
existing concurrently with deficiencies in adaptive behavior, 43315
manifested during the developmental period.43316

       (6) "Psychologist" has the same meaning as in section 4732.01 43317
of the Revised Code.43318

       (H) Whenever the term "mentally retarded person" is used in 43319
any statute, rule, contract, grant, or other document, the 43320
reference shall be deemed to include a "person with intellectual 43321
disability," as defined in this section.43322

       Sec. 2953.32.  (A)(1) Except as provided in section 2953.61 43323
of the Revised Code, an eligible offender may apply to the 43324
sentencing court if convicted in this state, or to a court of 43325
common pleas if convicted in another state or in a federal court, 43326
for the sealing of the conviction record. Application may be made 43327
at the expiration of three years after the offender's final 43328
discharge if convicted of a felony, or at the expiration of one 43329
year after the offender's final discharge if convicted of a 43330
misdemeanor.43331

       (2) Any person who has been arrested for any misdemeanor 43332
offense and who has effected a bail forfeiture may apply to the 43333
court in which the misdemeanor criminal case was pending when bail 43334
was forfeited for the sealing of the record of the case. Except as 43335
provided in section 2953.61 of the Revised Code, the application 43336
may be filed at any time after the expiration of one year from the 43337
date on which the bail forfeiture was entered upon the minutes of 43338
the court or the journal, whichever entry occurs first.43339

       (B) Upon the filing of an application under this section, the 43340
court shall set a date for a hearing and shall notify the 43341
prosecutor for the case of the hearing on the application. The 43342
prosecutor may object to the granting of the application by filing 43343
an objection with the court prior to the date set for the hearing. 43344
The prosecutor shall specify in the objection the reasons for 43345
believing a denial of the application is justified. The court 43346
shall direct its regular probation officer, a state probation 43347
officer, or the department of probation of the county in which the 43348
applicant resides to make inquiries and written reports as the 43349
court requires concerning the applicant. If the applicant was 43350
convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of division (A)(2) 43351
or (B) of section 2919.21 of the Revised Code, the probation 43352
officer or county department of probation that the court directed 43353
to make inquiries concerning the applicant shall contact the child 43354
support enforcement agency enforcing the applicant's obligations 43355
under the child support order to inquire about the offender's 43356
compliance with the child support order.43357

       (C)(1) The court shall do each of the following:43358

       (a) Determine whether the applicant is an eligible offender 43359
or whether the forfeiture of bail was agreed to by the applicant 43360
and the prosecutor in the case. If the applicant applies as an 43361
eligible offender pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section and 43362
has two or three convictions that result from the same indictment, 43363
information, or complaint, from the same plea of guilty, or from 43364
the same official proceeding, and result from related criminal 43365
acts that were committed within a three-month period but do not 43366
result from the same act or from offenses committed at the same 43367
time, in making its determination under this division, the court 43368
initially shall determine whether it is not in the public interest 43369
for the two or three convictions to be counted as one conviction. 43370
If the court determines that it is not in the public interest for 43371
the two or three convictions to be counted as one conviction, the 43372
court shall determine that the applicant is not an eligible 43373
offender; if the court does not make that determination, the court 43374
shall determine that the offender is an eligible offender.43375

       (b) Determine whether criminal proceedings are pending 43376
against the applicant;43377

       (c) If the applicant is an eligible offender who applies 43378
pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section, determine whether the 43379
applicant has been rehabilitated to the satisfaction of the court;43380

       (d) If the prosecutor has filed an objection in accordance 43381
with division (B) of this section, consider the reasons against 43382
granting the application specified by the prosecutor in the 43383
objection;43384

       (e) Weigh the interests of the applicant in having the 43385
records pertaining to the applicant's conviction sealed against 43386
the legitimate needs, if any, of the government to maintain those 43387
records.43388

       (2) If the court determines, after complying with division 43389
(C)(1) of this section, that the applicant is an eligible offender 43390
or the subject of a bail forfeiture, that no criminal proceeding 43391
is pending against the applicant, and that the interests of the 43392
applicant in having the records pertaining to the applicant's 43393
conviction or bail forfeiture sealed are not outweighed by any 43394
legitimate governmental needs to maintain those records, and that 43395
the rehabilitation of an applicant who is an eligible offender 43396
applying pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section has been 43397
attained to the satisfaction of the court, the court, except as 43398
provided in divisions (G) and (H) of this section, shall order all 43399
official records pertaining to the case sealed and, except as 43400
provided in division (F) of this section, all index references to 43401
the case deleted and, in the case of bail forfeitures, shall 43402
dismiss the charges in the case. The proceedings in the case shall 43403
be considered not to have occurred and the conviction or bail 43404
forfeiture of the person who is the subject of the proceedings 43405
shall be sealed, except that upon conviction of a subsequent 43406
offense, the sealed record of prior conviction or bail forfeiture 43407
may be considered by the court in determining the sentence or 43408
other appropriate disposition, including the relief provided for 43409
in sections 2953.31 to 2953.33 of the Revised Code.43410

       (3) Upon the filing of an application under this section, the 43411
applicant, unless indigent, shall pay a fee of fifty dollars. The 43412
court shall pay thirty dollars of the fee into the state treasury. 43413
It shall pay twenty dollars of the fee into the county general 43414
revenue fund if the sealed conviction or bail forfeiture was 43415
pursuant to a state statute, or into the general revenue fund of 43416
the municipal corporation involved if the sealed conviction or 43417
bail forfeiture was pursuant to a municipal ordinance.43418

       (D) Inspection of the sealed records included in the order 43419
may be made only by the following persons or for the following 43420
purposes:43421

       (1) By a law enforcement officer or prosecutor, or the 43422
assistants of either, to determine whether the nature and 43423
character of the offense with which a person is to be charged 43424
would be affected by virtue of the person's previously having been 43425
convicted of a crime;43426

       (2) By the parole or probation officer of the person who is 43427
the subject of the records, for the exclusive use of the officer 43428
in supervising the person while on parole or under a community 43429
control sanction or a post-release control sanction, and in making 43430
inquiries and written reports as requested by the court or adult 43431
parole authority;43432

       (3) Upon application by the person who is the subject of the 43433
records, by the persons named in the application;43434

       (4) By a law enforcement officer who was involved in the 43435
case, for use in the officer's defense of a civil action arising 43436
out of the officer's involvement in that case;43437

       (5) By a prosecuting attorney or the prosecuting attorney's 43438
assistants, to determine a defendant's eligibility to enter a 43439
pre-trial diversion program established pursuant to section 43440
2935.36 of the Revised Code;43441

       (6) By any law enforcement agency or any authorized employee 43442
of a law enforcement agency or by the department of rehabilitation 43443
and correction as part of a background investigation of a person 43444
who applies for employment with the agency as a law enforcement 43445
officer or with the department as a corrections officer;43446

       (7) By any law enforcement agency or any authorized employee 43447
of a law enforcement agency, for the purposes set forth in, and in 43448
the manner provided in, section 2953.321 of the Revised Code;43449

       (8) By the bureau of criminal identification and 43450
investigation or any authorized employee of the bureau for the 43451
purpose of providing information to a board or person pursuant to 43452
division (F) or (G) of section 109.57 of the Revised Code;43453

       (9) By the bureau of criminal identification and 43454
investigation or any authorized employee of the bureau for the 43455
purpose of performing a criminal history records check on a person 43456
to whom a certificate as prescribed in section 109.77 of the 43457
Revised Code is to be awarded;43458

       (10) By the bureau of criminal identification and 43459
investigation or any authorized employee of the bureau for the 43460
purpose of conducting a criminal records check of an individual 43461
pursuant to division (B) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 43462
that was requested pursuant to any of the sections identified in 43463
division (B)(1) of that section;43464

       (11) By the bureau of criminal identification and 43465
investigation, an authorized employee of the bureau, a sheriff, or 43466
an authorized employee of a sheriff in connection with a criminal 43467
records check described in section 311.41 of the Revised Code;43468

       (12) By the attorney general or an authorized employee of the 43469
attorney general or a court for purposes of determining a person's 43470
classification pursuant to Chapter 2950. of the Revised Code;43471

       (13) By a prosecuting attorney or the attorney general, or 43472
the assistants of either, for purposes of defending or 43473
participating in a civil action brought pursuant to division 43474
(B)(1) of section 2743.48 of the Revised Code.43475

       When the nature and character of the offense with which a 43476
person is to be charged would be affected by the information, it 43477
may be used for the purpose of charging the person with an 43478
offense.43479

       (E) In any criminal proceeding, proof of any otherwise 43480
admissible prior conviction may be introduced and proved, 43481
notwithstanding the fact that for any such prior conviction an 43482
order of sealing previously was issued pursuant to sections 43483
2953.31 to 2953.36 of the Revised Code.43484

       (F) The person or governmental agency, office, or department 43485
that maintains sealed records pertaining to convictions or bail 43486
forfeitures that have been sealed pursuant to this section may 43487
maintain a manual or computerized index to the sealed records. The 43488
index shall contain only the name of, and alphanumeric identifiers 43489
that relate to, the persons who are the subject of the sealed 43490
records, the word "sealed," and the name of the person, agency, 43491
office, or department that has custody of the sealed records, and 43492
shall not contain the name of the crime committed. The index shall 43493
be made available by the person who has custody of the sealed 43494
records only for the purposes set forth in divisions (C), (D), and 43495
(E) of this section.43496

       (G) Notwithstanding any provision of this section or section 43497
2953.33 of the Revised Code that requires otherwise, a board of 43498
education of a city, local, exempted village, or joint vocational 43499
school district that maintains records of an individual who has 43500
been permanently excluded under sections 3301.121 and 3313.662 of 43501
the Revised Code is permitted to maintain records regarding a 43502
conviction that was used as the basis for the individual's 43503
permanent exclusion, regardless of a court order to seal the 43504
record. An order issued under this section to seal the record of a 43505
conviction does not revoke the adjudication order of the 43506
superintendent of public instruction to permanently exclude the 43507
individual who is the subject of the sealing order. An order 43508
issued under this section to seal the record of a conviction of an 43509
individual may be presented to a district superintendent as 43510
evidence to support the contention that the superintendent should 43511
recommend that the permanent exclusion of the individual who is 43512
the subject of the sealing order be revoked. Except as otherwise 43513
authorized by this division and sections 3301.121 and 3313.662 of 43514
the Revised Code, any school employee in possession of or having 43515
access to the sealed conviction records of an individual that were 43516
the basis of a permanent exclusion of the individual is subject to 43517
section 2953.35 of the Revised Code.43518

       (H) For purposes of sections 2953.31 to 2953.36 of the 43519
Revised Code, DNA records collected in the DNA database and 43520
fingerprints filed for record by the superintendent of the bureau 43521
of criminal identification and investigation shall not be sealed 43522
unless the superintendent receives a certified copy of a final 43523
court order establishing that the offender's conviction has been 43524
overturned. For purposes of this section, a court order is not 43525
"final" if time remains for an appeal or application for 43526
discretionary review with respect to the order.43527

       Sec. 2967.22.  Whenever it is brought to the attention of the 43528
adult parole authority or a department of probation that a 43529
parolee, person under a community control sanction, person under 43530
transitional control, or releasee appears to be a mentally ill 43531
person subject to hospitalization by court order, as defined in 43532
section 5122.01 of the Revised Code, or a mentally retarded person 43533
subject to institutionalization by court order, as defined in 43534
section 5123.01 of the Revised Code, the parole or probation 43535
officer, subject to the approval of the chief of the adult parole 43536
authority, the designee of the chief of the adult parole 43537
authority, or the chief probation officer, may file an affidavit 43538
under section 5122.11 or 5123.71 of the Revised Code. A parolee, 43539
person under a community control sanction, or releasee who is 43540
involuntarily detained under Chapter 5122. or 5123. of the Revised 43541
Code shall receive credit against the period of parole or 43542
community control or the term of post-release control for the 43543
period of involuntary detention.43544

       If a parolee, person under a community control sanction, 43545
person under transitional control, or releasee escapes from an 43546
institution or facility within the department of mental health43547
mental health and addiction services or the department of 43548
developmental disabilities, the superintendent of the institution 43549
immediately shall notify the chief of the adult parole authority 43550
or the chief probation officer. Notwithstanding the provisions of 43551
section 5122.26 of the Revised Code, the procedure for the 43552
apprehension, detention, and return of the parolee, person under a 43553
community control sanction, person under transitional control, or 43554
releasee is the same as that provided for the apprehension, 43555
detention, and return of persons who escape from institutions 43556
operated by the department of rehabilitation and correction. If 43557
the escaped parolee, person under transitional control, or 43558
releasee is not apprehended and returned to the custody of the 43559
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services43560
or the department of developmental disabilities within ninety days 43561
after the escape, the parolee, person under transitional control, 43562
or releasee shall be discharged from the custody of the department 43563
of mental healthmental health and addiction services or the 43564
department of developmental disabilities and returned to the 43565
custody of the department of rehabilitation and correction. If the 43566
escaped person under a community control sanction is not 43567
apprehended and returned to the custody of the department of43568
mental healthmental health and addiction services or the 43569
department of developmental disabilities within ninety days after 43570
the escape, the person under a community control sanction shall be 43571
discharged from the custody of the department of mental health43572
mental health and addiction services or the department of 43573
developmental disabilities and returned to the custody of the 43574
court that sentenced that person.43575

       Sec. 2981.01. (A) Forfeitures under this chapter shall be 43576
governed by all of the following purposes:43577

       (1) To provide economic disincentives and remedies to deter 43578
and offset the economic effect of offenses by seizing and 43579
forfeiting contraband, proceeds, and certain instrumentalities;43580

       (2) To ensure that seizures and forfeitures of 43581
instrumentalities are proportionate to the offense committed;43582

       (3) To protect third parties from wrongful forfeiture of 43583
their property;43584

       (4) To prioritize restitution for victims of offenses.43585

       (B) As used in this chapter:43586

       (1) "Aircraft" has the same meaning as in section 4561.01 of 43587
the Revised Code.43588

       (2) "Computers," "computer networks," "computer systems," 43589
"computer software," and "telecommunications device" have the same 43590
meanings as in section 2913.01 of the Revised Code.43591

       (3) "Financial institution" means a bank, credit union, 43592
savings and loan association, or a licensee or registrant under 43593
Chapter 1321. of the Revised Code.43594

       (4) "Firearm" and "dangerous ordnance" have the same meanings 43595
as in section 2923.11 of the Revised Code.43596

       (5) "Innocent person" includes any bona fide purchaser of 43597
property that is subject to forfeiture, including any person who 43598
establishes a valid claim to or interest in the property in 43599
accordance with section 2923.04 of the Revised Code, and any 43600
victim of an alleged offense.43601

       (6) "Instrumentality" means property otherwise lawful to 43602
possess that is used in or intended to be used in an offense. An 43603
"instrumentality" may include, but is not limited to, a firearm, a 43604
mobile instrumentality, a computer, a computer network, a computer 43605
system, computer software, a telecommunications device, money, and 43606
any other means of exchange.43607

       (7) "Law enforcement agency" includes, but is not limited to, 43608
the state board of pharmacy, the enforcement division of the 43609
department of taxation, the Ohio casino control commission, and 43610
the office of the prosecutor.43611

       (8) "Mobile instrumentality" means an instrumentality that is 43612
inherently mobile and used in the routine transport of persons. 43613
"Mobile instrumentality" includes, but is not limited to, any 43614
vehicle, any watercraft, and any aircraft.43615

       (9) "Money" has the same meaning as in section 1301.201 of 43616
the Revised Code.43617

       (10) "Offense" means any act or omission that could be 43618
charged as a criminal offense or a delinquent act, whether or not 43619
a formal criminal prosecution or delinquent child proceeding began 43620
at the time the forfeiture is initiated. Except as otherwise 43621
specified, an offense for which property may be forfeited includes 43622
any felony and any misdemeanor. The commission of an "offense" 43623
includes the commission of a delinquent act.43624

       (11) "Proceeds" means both of the following:43625

       (a) In cases involving unlawful goods, services, or 43626
activities, "proceeds" means any property derived directly or 43627
indirectly from an offense. "Proceeds" may include, but is not 43628
limited to, money or any other means of exchange. "Proceeds" is 43629
not limited to the net gain or profit realized from the offense.43630

       (b) In cases involving lawful goods or services that are sold 43631
or provided in an unlawful manner, "proceeds" means the amount of 43632
money or other means of exchange acquired through the illegal 43633
transactions resulting in the forfeiture, less the direct costs 43634
lawfully incurred in providing the goods or services. The lawful 43635
costs deduction does not include any part of the overhead expenses 43636
of, or income taxes paid by, the entity providing the goods or 43637
services. The alleged offender or delinquent child has the burden 43638
to prove that any costs are lawfully incurred.43639

       (12) "Property" means "property" as defined in section 43640
2901.01 of the Revised Code and any benefit, privilege, claim, 43641
position, interest in an enterprise, or right derived, directly or 43642
indirectly, from the offense.43643

       (13) "Property subject to forfeiture" includes contraband and 43644
proceeds and may include instrumentalities as provided in this 43645
chapter.43646

       (14) "Prosecutor" has the same meaning as in section 2935.01 43647
of the Revised Code. When relevant, "prosecutor" also includes the 43648
attorney general.43649

       (15) "Vehicle" has the same meaning as in section 4501.01 of 43650
the Revised Code.43651

       (16) "Watercraft" has the same meaning as in section 1547.01 43652
of the Revised Code.43653

       (C) The penalties and procedures under Chapters 2923., 2925., 43654
and 2933., and 3772. of the Revised Code remain in effect to the 43655
extent that they do not conflict with this chapter.43656

       Sec. 2981.12. (A) Unclaimed or forfeited property in the 43657
custody of a law enforcement agency, other than property described 43658
in division (A)(2) of section 2981.11 of the Revised Code, shall 43659
be disposed of by order of any court of record that has 43660
territorial jurisdiction over the political subdivision that 43661
employs the law enforcement agency, as follows:43662

       (1) Drugs shall be disposed of pursuant to section 3719.11 of 43663
the Revised Code or placed in the custody of the secretary of the 43664
treasury of the United States for disposal or use for medical or 43665
scientific purposes under applicable federal law.43666

       (2) Firearms and dangerous ordnance suitable for police work 43667
may be given to a law enforcement agency for that purpose. 43668
Firearms suitable for sporting use or as museum pieces or 43669
collectors' items may be sold at public auction pursuant to 43670
division (B) of this section. The agency may sell other firearms 43671
and dangerous ordnance to a federally licensed firearms dealer in 43672
a manner that the court considers proper. The agency shall destroy 43673
any firearms or dangerous ordnance not given to a law enforcement 43674
agency or sold or shall send them to the bureau of criminal 43675
identification and investigation for destruction by the bureau.43676

       (3) Obscene materials shall be destroyed.43677

       (4) Beer, intoxicating liquor, or alcohol seized from a 43678
person who does not hold a permit issued under Chapters 4301. and 43679
4303. of the Revised Code or otherwise forfeited to the state for 43680
an offense under section 4301.45 or 4301.53 of the Revised Code 43681
shall be sold by the division of liquor control if the division 43682
determines that it is fit for sale or shall be placed in the 43683
custody of the investigations unit in the department of public 43684
safety and be used for training relating to law enforcement 43685
activities. The department, with the assistance of the division of 43686
liquor control, shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. 43687
of the Revised Code to provide for the distribution to state or 43688
local law enforcement agencies upon their request. If any tax 43689
imposed under Title XLIII of the Revised Code has not been paid in 43690
relation to the beer, intoxicating liquor, or alcohol, any moneys 43691
acquired from the sale shall first be used to pay the tax. All 43692
other money collected under this division shall be paid into the 43693
state treasury. Any beer, intoxicating liquor, or alcohol that the 43694
division determines to be unfit for sale shall be destroyed.43695

       (5) Money received by an inmate of a correctional institution 43696
from an unauthorized source or in an unauthorized manner shall be 43697
returned to the sender, if known, or deposited in the inmates' 43698
industrial and entertainment fund of the institution if the sender 43699
is not known.43700

       (6)(a) Any mobile instrumentality forfeited under this 43701
chapter may be given to the law enforcement agency that initially 43702
seized the mobile instrumentality for use in performing its 43703
duties, if the agency wants the mobile instrumentality. The agency 43704
shall take the mobile instrumentality subject to any security 43705
interest or lien on the mobile instrumentality.43706

       (b) Vehicles and vehicle parts forfeited under sections 43707
4549.61 to 4549.63 of the Revised Code may be given to a law 43708
enforcement agency for use in performing its duties. Those parts 43709
may be incorporated into any other official vehicle. Parts that do 43710
not bear vehicle identification numbers or derivatives of them may 43711
be sold or disposed of as provided by rules of the director of 43712
public safety. Parts from which a vehicle identification number or 43713
derivative of it has been removed, defaced, covered, altered, or 43714
destroyed and that are not suitable for police work or 43715
incorporation into an official vehicle shall be destroyed and sold 43716
as junk or scrap.43717

       (7) Computers, computer networks, computer systems, and 43718
computer software suitable for police work may be given to a law 43719
enforcement agency for that purpose or disposed of under division 43720
(B) of this section.43721

       (8) Money seized in connection with a violation of section 43722
2905.32, 2907.21, or 2907.22 of the Revised Code shall be 43723
deposited in the victims of human trafficking fund created by 43724
section 5101.87 of the Revised Code.43725

       (B) Unclaimed or forfeited property that is not described in 43726
division (A) of this section or division (A)(2) of section 2981.11 43727
of the Revised Code, with court approval, may be used by the law 43728
enforcement agency in possession of it. If it is not used by the 43729
agency, it may be sold without appraisal at a public auction to 43730
the highest bidder for cash or disposed of in another manner that 43731
the court considers proper.43732

       (C) Except as provided in divisions (A) and (F) of this 43733
section and after compliance with division (D) of this section 43734
when applicable, any moneys acquired from the sale of property 43735
disposed of pursuant to this section shall be placed in the 43736
general revenue fund of the state, or the general fund of the 43737
county, the township, or the municipal corporation of which the 43738
law enforcement agency involved is an agency.43739

       (D) If the property was in the possession of the law 43740
enforcement agency in relation to a delinquent child proceeding in 43741
a juvenile court, ten per cent of any moneys acquired from the 43742
sale of property disposed of under this section shall be applied 43743
to one or more alcohol and drugcommunity addiction treatment 43744
programsservices providers that are certified by the department 43745
of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 43746
services under section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code. A 43747
juvenile court shall not specify a programservices provider, 43748
except as provided in this division, unless the programservices 43749
provider is in the same county as the court or in a contiguous 43750
county. If no certified programservices provider is located in 43751
any of those counties, the juvenile court may specify a certified 43752
programservices provider anywhere in Ohio. The remaining ninety 43753
per cent of the proceeds or cash shall be applied as provided in 43754
division (C) of this section.43755

       Each treatment programservices provider that receives in any 43756
calendar year forfeited money under this division shall file an 43757
annual report for that year with the attorney general and with the 43758
court of common pleas and board of county commissioners of the 43759
county in which the programservices provider is located and of 43760
any other county from which the programservices provider received 43761
forfeited money. The programservices provider shall file the 43762
report on or before the first day of March in the calendar year 43763
following the calendar year in which the programservices provider43764
received the money. The report shall include statistics on the 43765
number of persons the programservices provider served, identify 43766
the types of treatment services it provided to them, and include a 43767
specific accounting of the purposes for which it used the money so 43768
received. No information contained in the report shall identify, 43769
or enable a person to determine the identity of, any person served 43770
by the programservices provider.43771

       (E) Each certified alcohol and drugcommunity addiction 43772
treatment programservices provider that receives in any calendar 43773
year money under this section or under section 2981.13 of the 43774
Revised Code as the result of a juvenile forfeiture order shall 43775
file an annual report for that calendar year with the attorney 43776
general and with the court of common pleas and board of county 43777
commissioners of the county in which the programservices provider43778
is located and of any other county from which the programservices 43779
provider received the money. The programservices provider shall 43780
file the report on or before the first day of March in the 43781
calendar year following the year in which the programservices 43782
provider received the money. The report shall include statistics 43783
on the number of persons served with the money, identify the types 43784
of treatment services provided, and specifically account for how 43785
the money was used. No information in the report shall identify or 43786
enable a person to determine the identity of anyone served by the 43787
programservices provider.43788

       As used in this division, "juvenile-related forfeiture order" 43789
means any forfeiture order issued by a juvenile court under 43790
section 2981.04 or 2981.05 of the Revised Code and any disposal of 43791
property ordered by a court under section 2981.11 of the Revised 43792
Code regarding property that was in the possession of a law 43793
enforcement agency in relation to a delinquent child proceeding in 43794
a juvenile court.43795

       (F) Each board of county commissioners that recognizes a 43796
citizens' reward program under section 9.92 of the Revised Code 43797
shall notify each law enforcement agency of that county and of a 43798
township or municipal corporation wholly located in that county of 43799
the recognition by filing a copy of its resolution conferring that 43800
recognition with each of those agencies. When the board recognizes 43801
a citizens' reward program and the county includes a part, but not 43802
all, of the territory of a municipal corporation, the board shall 43803
so notify the law enforcement agency of that municipal corporation 43804
of the recognition of the citizens' reward program only if the 43805
county contains the highest percentage of the municipal 43806
corporation's population.43807

       Upon being so notified, each law enforcement agency shall pay 43808
twenty-five per cent of any forfeited proceeds or cash derived 43809
from each sale of property disposed of pursuant to this section to 43810
the citizens' reward program for use exclusively to pay rewards. 43811
No part of the funds may be used to pay expenses associated with 43812
the program. If a citizens' reward program that operates in more 43813
than one county or in another state in addition to this state 43814
receives funds under this section, the funds shall be used to pay 43815
rewards only for tips and information to law enforcement agencies 43816
concerning offenses committed in the county from which the funds 43817
were received.43818

       Receiving funds under this section or section 2981.11 of the 43819
Revised Code does not make the citizens' reward program a 43820
governmental unit or public office for purposes of section 149.43 43821
of the Revised Code.43822

       (G) Any property forfeited under this chapter shall not be 43823
used to pay any fine imposed upon a person who is convicted of or 43824
pleads guilty to an underlying criminal offense or a different 43825
offense arising out of the same facts and circumstances.43826

       (H) Any moneys acquired from the sale of personal effects, 43827
tools, or other property seized because the personal effects, 43828
tools, or other property were used in the commission of a 43829
violation of section 2905.32, 2907.21, or 2907.22 of the Revised 43830
Code or derived from the proceeds of the commission of a violation 43831
of section 2905.32, 2907.21, or 2907.22 of the Revised Code and 43832
disposed of pursuant to this section shall be placed in the 43833
victims of human trafficking fund created by section 5101.87 of 43834
the Revised Code.43835

       Sec. 2981.13. (A) Except as otherwise provided in this 43836
section, property ordered forfeited as contraband, proceeds, or an 43837
instrumentality pursuant to this chapter shall be disposed of, 43838
used, or sold pursuant to section 2981.12 of the Revised Code. If 43839
the property is to be sold under that section, the prosecutor 43840
shall cause notice of the proposed sale to be given in accordance 43841
with law.43842

       (B) If the contraband or instrumentality forfeited under this 43843
chapter is sold, any moneys acquired from a sale and any proceeds 43844
forfeited under this chapter shall be applied in the following 43845
order:43846

       (1) First, to pay costs incurred in the seizure, storage, 43847
maintenance, security, and sale of the property and in the 43848
forfeiture proceeding;43849

       (2) Second, in a criminal forfeiture case, to satisfy any 43850
restitution ordered to the victim of the offense or, in a civil 43851
forfeiture case, to satisfy any recovery ordered for the person 43852
harmed, unless paid from other assets;43853

       (3) Third, to pay the balance due on any security interest 43854
preserved under this chapter;43855

       (4) Fourth, apply the remaining amounts as follows: 43856

       (a) If the forfeiture was ordered by a juvenile court, ten 43857
per cent to one or more certified alcohol and drug addiction 43858
treatment programs as provided in division (D) of section 2981.12 43859
of the Revised Code;43860

       (b) If the forfeiture was ordered in a juvenile court, ninety 43861
per cent, and if the forfeiture was ordered in a court other than 43862
a juvenile court, one hundred per cent to the law enforcement 43863
trust fund of the prosecutor and to the following fund supporting 43864
the law enforcement agency that substantially conducted the 43865
investigation: the law enforcement trust fund of the county 43866
sheriff, municipal corporation, township, or park district created 43867
under section 511.18 or 1545.01 of the Revised Code; the state 43868
highway patrol contraband, forfeiture, and other fund; the 43869
department of public safety investigative unit contraband, 43870
forfeiture, and other fund; the department of taxation enforcement 43871
fund; the board of pharmacy drug law enforcement fund created by 43872
division (B)(1) of section 4729.65 of the Revised Code; the 43873
medicaid fraud investigation and prosecution fund; the casino 43874
control commission enforcement fund created by section 3772.36 of 43875
the Revised Code; or the treasurer of state for deposit into the 43876
peace officer training commission fund if any other state law 43877
enforcement agency substantially conducted the investigation. In 43878
the case of property forfeited for medicaid fraud, any remaining 43879
amount shall be used by the attorney general to investigate and 43880
prosecute medicaid fraud offenses.43881

       If the prosecutor declines to accept any of the remaining 43882
amounts, the amounts shall be applied to the fund of the agency 43883
that substantially conducted the investigation.43884

       (c) If more than one law enforcement agency is substantially 43885
involved in the seizure of property forfeited under this chapter, 43886
the court ordering the forfeiture shall equitably divide the 43887
amounts, after calculating any distribution to the law enforcement 43888
trust fund of the prosecutor pursuant to division (B)(4) of this 43889
section, among the entities that the court determines were 43890
substantially involved in the seizure.43891

       (C)(1) A law enforcement trust fund shall be established by 43892
the prosecutor of each county who intends to receive any remaining 43893
amounts pursuant to this section, by the sheriff of each county, 43894
by the legislative authority of each municipal corporation, by the 43895
board of township trustees of each township that has a township 43896
police department, township or joint police district police force, 43897
or office of the constable, and by the board of park commissioners 43898
of each park district created pursuant to section 511.18 or 43899
1545.01 of the Revised Code that has a park district police force 43900
or law enforcement department, for the purposes of this section.43901

       There is hereby created in the state treasury the state 43902
highway patrol contraband, forfeiture, and other fund, the 43903
department of public safety investigative unit contraband, 43904
forfeiture, and other fund, the medicaid fraud investigation and 43905
prosecution fund, the department of taxation enforcement fund, and 43906
the peace officer training commission fund, for the purposes of 43907
this section.43908

       Amounts distributed to any municipal corporation, township, 43909
or park district law enforcement trust fund shall be allocated 43910
from the fund by the legislative authority only to the police 43911
department of the municipal corporation, by the board of township 43912
trustees only to the township police department, township police 43913
district police force, or office of the constable, by the joint 43914
police district board only to the joint police district, and by 43915
the board of park commissioners only to the park district police 43916
force or law enforcement department.43917

       (2)(a) No amounts shall be allocated to a fund created under 43918
this section or used by an agency unless the agency has adopted a 43919
written internal control policy that addresses the use of moneys 43920
received from the appropriate fund. The appropriate fund shall be 43921
expended only in accordance with that policy and, subject to the 43922
requirements specified in this section, only for the following 43923
purposes:43924

       (i) To pay the costs of protracted or complex investigations 43925
or prosecutions;43926

       (ii) To provide reasonable technical training or expertise;43927

       (iii) To provide matching funds to obtain federal grants to 43928
aid law enforcement, in the support of DARE programs or other 43929
programs designed to educate adults or children with respect to 43930
the dangers associated with the use of drugs of abuse;43931

       (iv) To pay the costs of emergency action taken under section 43932
3745.13 of the Revised Code relative to the operation of an 43933
illegal methamphetamine laboratory if the forfeited property or 43934
money involved was that of a person responsible for the operation 43935
of the laboratory;43936

       (v) For other law enforcement purposes that the 43937
superintendent of the state highway patrol, department of public 43938
safety, prosecutor, county sheriff, legislative authority, 43939
department of taxation, Ohio casino control commission, board of 43940
township trustees, or board of park commissioners determines to be 43941
appropriate.43942

       (b) The board of pharmacy drug law enforcement fund shall be 43943
expended only in accordance with the written internal control 43944
policy so adopted by the board and only in accordance with section 43945
4729.65 of the Revised Code, except that it also may be expended 43946
to pay the costs of emergency action taken under section 3745.13 43947
of the Revised Code relative to the operation of an illegal 43948
methamphetamine laboratory if the forfeited property or money 43949
involved was that of a person responsible for the operation of the 43950
laboratory.43951

       (c) The state highway patrol contraband, forfeiture, and 43952
other fund, the department of public safety investigative unit 43953
contraband, forfeiture, and other fund, the department of taxation 43954
enforcement fund, the board of pharmacy drug law enforcement fund, 43955
the casino control commission enforcement fund, and a law 43956
enforcement trust fund shall not be used to meet the operating 43957
costs of the state highway patrol, of the investigative unit of 43958
the department of public safety, of the state board of pharmacy, 43959
of any political subdivision, of the Ohio casino control 43960
commission, or of any office of a prosecutor or county sheriff 43961
that are unrelated to law enforcement.43962

       (d) Forfeited moneys that are paid into the state treasury to 43963
be deposited into the peace officer training commission fund shall 43964
be used by the commission only to pay the costs of peace officer 43965
training.43966

       (3) Any of the following offices or agencies that receive 43967
amounts under this section during any calendar year shall file a 43968
report with the specified entity, not later than the thirty-first 43969
day of January of the next calendar year, verifying that the 43970
moneys were expended only for the purposes authorized by this 43971
section or other relevant statute and specifying the amounts 43972
expended for each authorized purpose:43973

       (a) Any sheriff or prosecutor shall file the report with the 43974
county auditor.43975

       (b) Any municipal corporation police department shall file 43976
the report with the legislative authority of the municipal 43977
corporation.43978

       (c) Any township police department, township or joint police 43979
district police force, or office of the constable shall file the 43980
report with the board of township trustees of the township.43981

       (d) Any park district police force or law enforcement 43982
department shall file the report with the board of park 43983
commissioners of the park district.43984

       (e) The superintendent of the state highway patrol and the 43985
tax commissioner shall file the report with the attorney general.43986

       (f) The executive director of the state board of pharmacy 43987
shall file the report with the attorney general, verifying that 43988
cash and forfeited proceeds paid into the board of pharmacy drug 43989
law enforcement fund were used only in accordance with section 43990
4729.65 of the Revised Code.43991

       (g) The peace officer training commission shall file a report 43992
with the attorney general, verifying that cash and forfeited 43993
proceeds paid into the peace officer training commission fund 43994
pursuant to this section during the prior calendar year were used 43995
by the commission during the prior calendar year only to pay the 43996
costs of peace officer training.43997

       (h) The executive director of the Ohio casino control 43998
commission shall file the report with the attorney general, 43999
verifying that cash and forfeited proceeds paid into the casino 44000
control commission enforcement fund were used only in accordance 44001
with section 3772.36 of the Revised Code.44002

       (D) The written internal control policy of a county sheriff, 44003
prosecutor, municipal corporation police department, township 44004
police department, township or joint police district police force, 44005
office of the constable, or park district police force or law 44006
enforcement department shall provide that at least ten per cent of 44007
the first one hundred thousand dollars of amounts deposited during 44008
each calendar year in the agency's law enforcement trust fund 44009
under this section, and at least twenty per cent of the amounts 44010
exceeding one hundred thousand dollars that are so deposited, 44011
shall be used in connection with community preventive education 44012
programs. The manner of use shall be determined by the sheriff, 44013
prosecutor, department, police force, or office of the constable 44014
after receiving and considering advice on appropriate community 44015
preventive education programs from the county's board of alcohol, 44016
drug addiction, and mental health services, from the county's 44017
alcohol and drug addiction services board, or through appropriate 44018
community dialogue.44019

       The financial records kept under the internal control policy 44020
shall specify the amount deposited during each calendar year in 44021
the portion of that amount that was used pursuant to this 44022
division, and the programs in connection with which the portion of 44023
that amount was so used.44024

       As used in this division, "community preventive education 44025
programs" include, but are not limited to, DARE programs and other 44026
programs designed to educate adults or children with respect to 44027
the dangers associated with using drugs of abuse.44028

       (E) Upon the sale, under this section or section 2981.12 of 44029
the Revised Code, of any property that is required by law to be 44030
titled or registered, the state shall issue an appropriate 44031
certificate of title or registration to the purchaser. If the 44032
state is vested with title and elects to retain property that is 44033
required to be titled or registered under law, the state shall 44034
issue an appropriate certificate of title or registration.44035

       (F) Any failure of a law enforcement officer or agency, 44036
prosecutor, court, or the attorney general to comply with this 44037
section in relation to any property seized does not affect the 44038
validity of the seizure and shall not be considered to be the 44039
basis for suppressing any evidence resulting from the seizure, 44040
provided the seizure itself was lawful.44041

       Sec. 3101.051.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of 44042
this section, a probate court shall make available to any person 44043
for inspection the records pertaining to the issuance of marriage 44044
licenses as provided under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.44045

       (B) Before it makes available to a person any records 44046
pertaining to the issuance of a marriage license as described in 44047
division (A) of this section, subject to division (C) of this 44048
section, a probate court shall delete or otherwise remove any 44049
social security numbers of the parties to a marriage so that they 44050
are not available to the person inspecting the records.44051

       (C) Division (B) of this section does not apply in any of the 44052
following circumstances:44053

       (1) If the records in question are inspected by authorized 44054
personnel of the division of child support in the department of 44055
job and family services under section 5101.315101.37 of the 44056
Revised Code;44057

       (2) If the records in question are inspected by law 44058
enforcement personnel for purposes of a criminal investigation;44059

       (3) If the records in question with the social security 44060
numbers are necessary for use in a civil or criminal trial and the 44061
release of the records with the social security numbers is ordered 44062
by a court with jurisdiction over the trial;44063

       (4) If the records in question are inspected by either party 44064
to the marriage to which the records pertain;44065

       (5) If the court possessed the records in question prior to 44066
the effective date of this section.44067

       Sec. 3107.083.  Not later than ninety days after June 20, 44068
1996, the director of job and family services shall do all of the 44069
following:44070

       (A)(1) For a parent of a child who, if adopted, will be an 44071
adopted person as defined in section 3107.45 of the Revised Code, 44072
prescribe a form that has the following six components:44073

       (a) A component the parent signs under section 3107.071, 44074
3107.081, or 5103.151 of the Revised Code to indicate the 44075
requirements of section 3107.082 or 5103.152 of the Revised Code 44076
have been met. The component shall be as follows:44077

"Statement Concerning Ohio Law and Adoption Materials
44078

       By signing this component of this form, I acknowledge that it 44079
has been explained to me, and I understand, that, if I check the 44080
space on the next component of this form that indicates that I 44081
authorize the release, the adoption file maintained by the Ohio 44082
Department of Health, which contains identifying information about 44083
me at the time of my child's birth, will be released, on request, 44084
to the adoptive parent when the adoptee is at least age eighteen 44085
but younger than age twenty-one and to the adoptee when he or she 44086
is age twenty-one or older. It has also been explained to me, and 44087
I understand, that I may prohibit the release of identifying 44088
information about me contained in the adoption file by checking 44089
the space on the next component of this form that indicates that I 44090
do not authorize the release of the identifying information. It 44091
has additionally been explained to me, and I understand, that I 44092
may change my mind regarding the decision I make on the next 44093
component of this form at any time and as many times as I desire 44094
by signing, dating, and having filed with the Ohio Department of 44095
Health a denial of release form or authorization of release form 44096
prescribed and provided by the Department of Health and providing 44097
the Department two items of identification.44098

       By signing this component of this form, I also acknowledge 44099
that I have been provided a copy of written materials about 44100
adoption prepared by the Ohio Department of Job and Family 44101
Services, the adoption process and ramifications of consenting to 44102
adoption or entering into a voluntary permanent custody surrender 44103
agreement have been discussed with me, and I have been provided 44104
the opportunity to review the materials and ask questions about 44105
the materials and discussion.44106

Signature of biological parent: 44107
Signature of witness: 44108
Date: " 44109

       (b) A component the parent signs under section 3107.071, 44110
3107.081, or 5103.151 of the Revised Code regarding the parent's 44111
decision whether to allow identifying information about the parent 44112
contained in an adoption file maintained by the department of 44113
health to be released to the parent's child and adoptive parent 44114
pursuant to section 3107.47 of the Revised Code. The component 44115
shall be as follows:44116

"Statement Regarding Release of Identifying Information
44117

       The purpose of this component of this form is to allow a 44118
biological parent to decide whether to allow the Ohio Department 44119
of Health to provide an adoptee and adoptive parent identifying 44120
information about the adoptee's biological parent contained in an 44121
adoption file maintained by the Department. Please check one of 44122
the following spaces:44123

...... YES, I authorize the Ohio Department of Health to release identifying information about me, on request, to the adoptive parent when the adoptee is at least age eighteen but younger than age twenty-one and to the adoptee when he or she is age twenty-one or older. 44124
...... NO, I do not authorize the release of identifying information about me to the adoptive parent or adoptee. 44125

Signature of biological parent: 44126
Signature of witness: 44127
Date: " 44128

       (c) A component the parent, if the mother of the child, 44129
completes and signs under section 3107.071, 3107.081, or 5103.151 44130
of the Revised Code to indicate, to the extent of the mother's 44131
knowledge, all of the following:44132

       (i) Whether the mother, during her pregnancy, was a recipient 44133
of the medical assistancemedicaid program established under 44134
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code or other public health insurance 44135
program and, if so, the dates her eligibility began and ended;44136

       (ii) Whether the mother, during her pregnancy, was covered by 44137
private health insurance and, if so, the dates the coverage began 44138
and ended, the name of the insurance provider, the type of 44139
coverage, and the identification number of the coverage;44140

       (iii) The name and location of the hospital, freestanding 44141
birthbirthing center, or other place where the mother gave birth 44142
and, if different, received medical care immediately after giving 44143
birth;44144

       (iv) The expenses of the obstetrical and neonatal care;44145

       (v) Whether the mother has been informed that the adoptive 44146
parent or the agency or attorney arranging the adoption are to pay 44147
expenses involved in the adoption, including expenses the mother 44148
has paid and expects to receive or has received reimbursement, 44149
and, if so, what expenses are to be or have been paid and an 44150
estimate of the expenses;44151

       (vi) Any other information related to expenses the department 44152
determines appropriate to be included in this component.44153

       (d) A component the parent may sign to authorize the agency 44154
or attorney arranging the adoption to provide to the child or 44155
adoptive parent materials, other than photographs of the parent, 44156
that the parent requests be given to the child or adoptive parent 44157
pursuant to section 3107.68 of the Revised Code.44158

       (e) A component the parent may sign to authorize the agency 44159
or attorney arranging the adoption to provide to the child or 44160
adoptive parent photographs of the parent pursuant to section 44161
3107.68 of the Revised Code.44162

       (f) A component the parent may sign to authorize the agency 44163
or attorney arranging the adoption to provide to the child or 44164
adoptive parent the first name of the parent pursuant to section 44165
3107.68 of the Revised Code.44166

       (2) State at the bottom of the form that the parent is to 44167
receive a copy of the form the parent signed.44168

       (3) Provide copies of the form prescribed under this division 44169
to probate and juvenile courts, public children services agencies, 44170
private child placing agencies, private noncustodial agencies, 44171
attorneys, and persons authorized to take acknowledgments.44172

       (B)(1) For a parent of a child who, if adopted, will become 44173
an adopted person as defined in section 3107.39 of the Revised 44174
Code, prescribe a form that has the following five components:44175

       (a) A component the parent signs under section 3107.071, 44176
3107.081, or 5103.151 of the Revised Code to attest that the 44177
requirement of division (A) of section 3107.082 or division (A) of 44178
section 5103.152 of the Revised Code has been met;44179

       (b) A component the parent, if the mother of the child, 44180
completes and signs under section 3107.071, 3107.081, or 5103.151 44181
of the Revised Code to indicate, to the extent of the mother's 44182
knowledge, all of the following:44183

       (i) Whether the mother, during her pregnancy, was a recipient 44184
of the medical assistancemedicaid program established under 44185
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code or other public health insurance 44186
program and, if so, the dates her eligibility began and ended;44187

       (ii) Whether the mother, during her pregnancy, was covered by 44188
private health insurance and, if so, the dates the coverage began 44189
and ended, the name of the insurance provider, the type of 44190
coverage, and the identification number of the coverage;44191

       (iii) The name and location of the hospital, freestanding 44192
birthbirthing center, or other place where the mother gave birth 44193
and, if different, received medical care immediately after giving 44194
birth;44195

       (iv) The expenses of the obstetrical and neonatal care;44196

       (v) Whether the mother has been informed that the adoptive 44197
parent or the agency or attorney arranging the adoption are to pay 44198
expenses involved in the adoption, including expenses the mother 44199
has paid and expects to receive or has received reimbursement for, 44200
and, if so, what expenses are to be or have been paid and an 44201
estimate of the expenses;44202

       (vi) Any other information related to expenses the department 44203
determines appropriate to be included in the component.44204

       (c) A component the parent may sign to authorize the agency 44205
or attorney arranging the adoption to provide to the child or 44206
adoptive parent materials, other than photographs of the parent, 44207
that the parent requests be given to the child or adoptive parent 44208
pursuant to section 3107.68 of the Revised Code.44209

       (d) A component the parent may sign to authorize the agency 44210
or attorney arranging the adoption to provide to the child or 44211
adoptive parent photographs of the parent pursuant to section 44212
3107.68 of the Revised Code.44213

       (e) A component the parent may sign to authorize the agency 44214
or attorney arranging the adoption to provide to the child or 44215
adoptive parent the first name of the parent pursuant to section 44216
3107.68 of the Revised Code.44217

       (2) State at the bottom of the form that the parent is to 44218
receive a copy of the form the parent signed.44219

       (3) Provide copies of the form prescribed under this division 44220
to probate and juvenile courts, public children services agencies, 44221
private child placing agencies, private noncustodial agencies, and 44222
attorneys.44223

       (C) Prepare the written materials about adoption that are 44224
required to be given to parents under division (A) of section 44225
3107.082 and division (A) of section 5103.152 of the Revised Code. 44226
The materials shall provide information about the adoption 44227
process, including ramifications of a parent consenting to a 44228
child's adoption or entering into a voluntary permanent custody 44229
surrender agreement. The materials also shall include referral 44230
information for professional counseling and adoption support 44231
organizations. The director shall provide the materials to 44232
assessors.44233

       (D) Adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 44234
Revised Code specifying the documents that must be filed with a 44235
probate court under divisions (B) and (D) of section 3107.081 of 44236
the Revised Code and a juvenile court under divisions (C) and (E) 44237
of section 5103.151 of the Revised Code.44238

       Sec. 3109.15.  There is hereby created within the department 44239
of job and family services the children's trust fund board 44240
consisting of fifteen members. The directors of alcohol and drug 44241
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services, health, 44242
and job and family services shall be members of the board. Eight 44243
public members shall be appointed by the governor. These members 44244
shall be persons with demonstrated knowledge in programs for 44245
children, shall be representative of the demographic composition 44246
of this state, and, to the extent practicable, shall be 44247
representative of the following categories: the educational 44248
community; the legal community; the social work community; the 44249
medical community; the voluntary sector; and professional 44250
providers of child abuse and child neglect services. Five of these 44251
members shall be residents of metropolitan statistical areas as 44252
defined by the United States office of management and budget where 44253
the population exceeds four hundred thousand; no two such members 44254
shall be residents of the same metropolitan statistical area. Two 44255
members of the board shall be members of the house of 44256
representatives appointed by the speaker of the house of 44257
representatives and shall be members of two different political 44258
parties. Two members of the board shall be members of the senate 44259
appointed by the president of the senate and shall be members of 44260
two different political parties. All members of the board 44261
appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives or the 44262
president of the senate shall serve until the expiration of the 44263
sessions of the general assembly during which they were appointed. 44264
They may be reappointed to an unlimited number of successive terms 44265
of two years at the pleasure of the speaker of the house of 44266
representatives or president of the senate. Public members shall 44267
serve terms of three years. Each member shall serve until the 44268
member's successor is appointed, or until a period of sixty days 44269
has elapsed, whichever occurs first. No public member may serve 44270
more than two consecutive full terms. All vacancies on the board 44271
shall be filled for the balance of the unexpired term in the same 44272
manner as the original appointment.44273

       Any member of the board may be removed by the member's 44274
appointing authority for misconduct, incompetency, or neglect of 44275
duty after first being given the opportunity to be heard in the 44276
member's own behalf. Pursuant to section 3.17 of the Revised Code, 44277
a member, except a member of the general assembly or a judge of 44278
any court in the state, who fails to attend at least three-fifths 44279
of the regular and special meetings held by the board during any 44280
two-year period forfeits the member's position on the board.44281

       Each member of the board shall serve without compensation but 44282
shall be reimbursed for all actual and necessary expenses incurred 44283
in the performance of official duties.44284

       At the beginning of the first year of each even-numbered 44285
general assembly, the chairperson of the board shall be appointed 44286
by the speaker of the house of representatives from among members 44287
of the board who are members of the house of representatives. At 44288
the beginning of the first year of each odd-numbered general 44289
assembly, the chairperson of the board shall be appointed by the 44290
president of the senate from among the members of the board who 44291
are senate members.44292

       The board shall biennially select a vice-chair from among its 44293
nonlegislative members.44294

       Sec. 3111.04.  (A) An action to determine the existence or 44295
nonexistence of the father and child relationship may be brought 44296
by the child or the child's personal representative, the child's 44297
mother or her personal representative, a man alleged or alleging 44298
himself to be the child's father, the child support enforcement 44299
agency of the county in which the child resides if the child's 44300
mother, father, or alleged father is a recipient of public 44301
assistance or of services under Title IV-D of the "Social Security 44302
Act," 88 Stat. 2351 (1975), 42 U.S.C.A. 651, as amended, or the 44303
alleged father's personal representative.44304

       (B) An agreement does not bar an action under this section.44305

       (C) If an action under this section is brought before the 44306
birth of the child and if the action is contested, all 44307
proceedings, except service of process and the taking of 44308
depositions to perpetuate testimony, may be stayed until after the 44309
birth.44310

       (D) A recipient of public assistance or of services under 44311
Title IV-D of the "Social Security Act," 88 Stat. 2351 (1975), 42 44312
U.S.C.A. 651, as amended, shall cooperate with the child support 44313
enforcement agency of the county in which a child resides to 44314
obtain an administrative determination pursuant to sections 44315
3111.38 to 3111.54 of the Revised Code, or, if necessary, a court 44316
determination pursuant to sections 3111.01 to 3111.18 of the 44317
Revised Code, of the existence or nonexistence of a parent and 44318
child relationship between the father and the child. If the 44319
recipient fails to cooperate, the agency may commence an action to 44320
determine the existence or nonexistence of a parent and child 44321
relationship between the father and the child pursuant to sections 44322
3111.01 to 3111.18 of the Revised Code.44323

       (E) As used in this section, "public assistance" means all of 44324
the following:44325

       (1) Medicaid under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code;44326

       (2) Ohio works first under Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code;44327

       (3) Disability financial assistance under Chapter 5115. of 44328
the Revised Code.44329

       Sec. 3111.72.  The contract between the department of job and 44330
family services and a local hospital shall require all of the 44331
following:44332

       (A) That the hospital provide a staff person to meet with 44333
each unmarried mother who gave birth in or en route to the 44334
hospital within twenty-four hours of the birth or before the 44335
mother is released from the hospital;44336

       (B) That the staff person attempt to meet with the father of 44337
the unmarried mother's child if possible;44338

       (C) That the staff person explain to the unmarried mother and 44339
the father, if he is present, the benefit to the child of 44340
establishing a parent and child relationship between the father 44341
and the child and the various proper procedures for establishing a 44342
parent and child relationship;44343

       (D) That the staff person present to the unmarried mother 44344
and, if possible, the father, the pamphlet or statement regarding 44345
the rights and responsibilities of a natural parent that is 44346
prepared and provided by the department of job and family services 44347
pursuant to section 3111.32 of the Revised Code;44348

       (E) That the staff person provide the mother and, if 44349
possible, the father, all forms and statements necessary to 44350
voluntarily establish a parent and child relationship, including, 44351
but not limited to, the acknowledgment of paternity affidavit 44352
prepared by the department of job and family services pursuant to 44353
section 3111.31 of the Revised Code;44354

       (F) That the staff person, at the request of both the mother 44355
and father, help the mother and father complete any form or 44356
statement necessary to establish a parent and child relationship;44357

       (G) That the hospital provide a notary public to notarize an 44358
acknowledgment of paternity affidavit signed by the mother and 44359
father;44360

       (H) That the staff person present to an unmarried mother who 44361
is not participating in the Ohio works first program established 44362
under Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code or receiving medical 44363
assistance under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Codemedicaid an 44364
application for Title IV-D services;44365

       (I) That the staff person forward any completed 44366
acknowledgment of paternity, no later than ten days after it is 44367
completed, to the office of child support in the department of job 44368
and family services;44369

       (J) That the department of job and family services pay the 44370
hospital twenty dollars for every correctly signed and notarized 44371
acknowledgment of paternity affidavit from the hospital.44372

       Sec. 3119.29. (A) As used in this section and sections 44373
3119.30 to 3119.56 of the Revised Code:44374

       (1) "Cash medical support" means an amount ordered to be paid 44375
in a child support order toward the cost of health insurance 44376
provided by a public entity, another parent, or person with whom 44377
the child resides, through employment or otherwise, or for other 44378
medical cost not covered by insurance.44379

       (2) "Federal poverty line" has the same meaning as defined in 44380
section 5104.01 of the Revised Code.44381

       (3) "Health care" means such medical support that includes 44382
coverage under a health insurance plan, payment of costs of 44383
premiums, co-paymentscopayments, and deductibles, or payment for 44384
medical expenses incurred on behalf of the child.44385

       (4) "Health insurance coverage" means accessible private 44386
health insurance that provides primary care services within thirty 44387
miles from the residence of the child subject to the child support 44388
order.44389

       (5) "Health plan administrator" means any entity authorized 44390
under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code to engage in the business of 44391
insurance in this state, any health insuring corporation, any 44392
legal entity that is self-insured and provides benefits to its 44393
employees or members, and the administrator of any such entity or 44394
corporation.44395

       (6) "National medical support notice" means a form required 44396
by the "Child Support Performance and Incentive Act of 1998," P.L. 44397
105-200, 112 Stat. 659, 42 U.S.C. 666(a)(19), as amended, and 44398
jointly developed and promulgated by the secretary of health and 44399
human services and the secretary of labor in federal regulations 44400
adopted under that act as modified by the department of job and 44401
family services under section 3119.291 of the Revised Code.44402

       (7) "Person required to provide health insurance coverage" 44403
means the obligor, obligee, or both, required by the court under a 44404
court child support order or by the child support enforcement 44405
agency under an administrative child support order to provide 44406
health insurance coverage pursuant to section 3119.30 of the 44407
Revised Code.44408

       (8) Subject to division (B) of this section, "reasonable 44409
cost" means the contributing cost of private family health 44410
insurance to the person responsible for the health care of the 44411
children subject to the child support order that does not exceed 44412
an amount equal to five per cent of the annual gross income of 44413
that person.44414

       (9) "Title XIX" has the same meaning as defined in section 44415
5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code.44416

       (B) If the United States secretary of health and human 44417
services issues a regulation defining "reasonable cost" or a 44418
similar term or phrase relevant to the provisions in child support 44419
orders relating to the provision of health care for children 44420
subject to the orders, and if that definition is substantively 44421
different from the meaning of "reasonable cost" as defined in 44422
division (A) of this section, "reasonable cost" as used in this 44423
section shall have the meaning as defined by the United States 44424
secretary of health and human services.44425

       Sec. 3119.54.  A party to a child support order issued in 44426
accordance with section 3119.30 of the Revised Code shall notify 44427
any physician, hospital, or other provider of medical services 44428
that provides medical services to the child who is the subject of 44429
the child support order of the number of any health insurance or 44430
health care policy, contract, or plan that covers the child if the 44431
child is eligible for medical assistance under Chapter 5111. of 44432
the Revised Codemedicaid. The party shall include in the notice 44433
the name and address of the insurer. Any physician, hospital, or 44434
other provider of medical services for which medical assistance is 44435
available under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Codecovered by the 44436
medicaid program who is notified under this section of the 44437
existence of a health insurance or health care policy, contract, 44438
or plan with coverage for children who are eligible for medical 44439
assistancemedicaid shall first bill the insurer for any services 44440
provided for those children. If the insurer fails to pay all or 44441
any part of a claim filed under this section and the services for 44442
which the claim is filed are covered by Chapter 5111. of the 44443
Revised Codethe medicaid program, the physician, hospital, or 44444
other medical services provider shall bill the remaining unpaid 44445
costs of the services in accordance with Chapter 5111. of the 44446
Revised Codeto the medicaid program.44447

       Sec. 3121.441. (A) Notwithstanding the provisions of this 44448
chapter, Chapters 3119., 3123., and 3125., and sections 3770.071 44449
and 5107.20 of the Revised Code providing for the office of child 44450
support in the department of job and family services to collect, 44451
withhold, or deduct spousal support, when a court pursuant to 44452
section 3105.18 or 3105.65 of the Revised Code issues or modifies 44453
an order requiring an obligor to pay spousal support or grants or 44454
modifies a decree of dissolution of marriage incorporating a 44455
separation agreement that provides for spousal support, or at any 44456
time after the issuance, granting, or modification of an order or 44457
decree of that type, the court may permit the obligor to make the 44458
spousal support payments directly to the obligee instead of to the 44459
office if the obligee and the obligor have no minor children born 44460
as a result of their marriage and the obligee has not assigned the 44461
spousal support amounts to the department pursuant to section44462
5101.59 or 5107.20 or 5160.38 of the Revised Code.44463

       (B) A court that permits an obligor to make spousal support 44464
payments directly to the obligee pursuant to division (A) of this 44465
section shall order the obligor to make the spousal support 44466
payments as a check, as a money order, or in any other form that 44467
establishes a clear record of payment.44468

       (C) If a court permits an obligor to make spousal support 44469
payments directly to an obligee pursuant to division (A) of this 44470
section and the obligor is in default in making any spousal 44471
support payment to the obligee, the court, upon motion of the 44472
obligee or on its own motion, may rescind the permission granted 44473
under that division. After the rescission, the court shall 44474
determine the amount of arrearages in the spousal support payments 44475
and order the obligor to make to the office of child support in 44476
the department of job and family services any spousal support 44477
payments that are in arrears and any future spousal support 44478
payments. Upon the issuance of the order of the court under this 44479
division, the provisions of this chapter, Chapters 3119., 3123., 44480
and 3125., and sections 3770.071 and 5107.20 of the Revised Code 44481
apply with respect to the collection, withholding, or deduction of 44482
the obligor's spousal support payments that are the subject of 44483
that order of the court.44484

       Sec. 3121.89.  As used in sections 3121.891 to 3121.8911 of 44485
the Revised Code:44486

       (A) "Contractor" means an individual who provides services to 44487
an employer as an independent contractor for compensation that is 44488
reported as income other than wages and who is an individual, the 44489
sole shareholder of a corporation, or the sole member of a limited 44490
liability company. "Contractor" does not include any of the 44491
following:44492

       (1) An individual performing intelligence or 44493
counterintelligence functions for a state agency if the head of 44494
the agency has determined that reporting pursuant to this section 44495
could endanger the safety of the individual or compromise an 44496
ongoing investigation or intelligence mission;44497

       (2) A professionally licensed person who is providing 44498
services to the employer under that license;44499

       (3) An individual who will receive for the services provided 44500
under the contract compensation of less than two thousand five 44501
hundred dollars per year or a greater amount that the director of 44502
job and family services establishes by rule adopted under section 44503
3121.896 of the Revised Code.44504

       (B) "Employee" means an individual who is employed to provide 44505
services to an employer for compensation that is reported as 44506
income from wages. "Employee" does not include an individual 44507
performing intelligence or counterintelligence functions for a 44508
state agency, if the head of the agency has determined that 44509
reporting pursuant to this section could endanger the safety of 44510
the employee or compromise an ongoing investigation or 44511
intelligence mission.44512

       (C) "Employer" means any person or governmental entity other 44513
than the federal government for which an individual performs any 44514
service, of whatever nature, as the employee or contractor of such 44515
person, except that:44516

       (1) If the person for whom the individual performs services 44517
does not have control of the payment of compensation for the 44518
services, "employer" means the person having control of the 44519
payment of the compensation.44520

       (2) In the case of a person paying compensation on behalf of 44521
a nonresident alien individual, foreign partnership, or foreign 44522
corporation not engaged in trade or business within the United 44523
States, "employer" means the person paying the compensation.44524

       (3) In the case of compensation paid to a contractor, 44525
"employer" does not include any person or entity that lacks a 44526
federal employer identification number.44527

       (D) "Newly hired employee" means either of the following:44528

       (1) An employee who has not previously been employed by the 44529
employer;44530

       (2) An employee who was previously employed by an employer 44531
but has been separated from that prior employment for at least 44532
sixty consecutive days.44533

       (E) "Professionally licensed person" has the same meaning as 44534
in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.44535

       Sec. 3121.891.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) or (C) 44536
of this section, every employer shall make a new hire report to 44537
the department of job and family services regarding the hiring, 44538
rehiring, or return to work as ana newly hired employee or a44539
contractor of a person who resides, works, or will be assigned to 44540
work in this state to whom the employer anticipates paying 44541
compensation.44542

       (B) An employer with employees or contractors in two or more 44543
states that transmits new hire reports magnetically or 44544
electronically may make the new hire report to another state if 44545
the employer does both of the following:44546

       (1) Notifies the Ohio department of job and family services 44547
and the United States secretary of health and human services in 44548
writing that the employer has designated another state as the 44549
state to which the employer will transmit the report;44550

       (2) Transmits the report to that state in compliance with 44551
federal law.44552

       (C) The department may by rule exempt employers from making 44553
new hire reports on any classification of contractors if the 44554
department determines that exempting the employer will assist the 44555
administration of the new hire reporting requirement.44556

       Sec. 3121.892. (A) An employer shall include all of the 44557
following in each new hire report:44558

        (1) For each employee, the employee's name, address, date of 44559
birth, social security number, and date of hire, rehire, or return 44560
to work;44561

        (2) For each contractor, the contractor's name, address, 44562
social security or tax identification number, the date payments 44563
begin, and the length of time the contractor will be performing 44564
services for the employer;44565

       (3) The employer's name, address, and identification number.44566

       (B) The department of job and family services may by rule 44567
require that additional information, specified in the rule, be 44568
included in each new hire report.44569

       Sec. 3121.893.  An employer shall make a new hire report for 44570
each newly hired employee or contractor in a manner prescribed by 44571
the department of job and family services. The department may 44572
require that the report include or consist of the submission of a 44573
copy of the United States internal revenue service form W-4 44574
(employee's withholding allowance certificate) for the employee, a 44575
form provided by the department, or any other hiring document or 44576
data storage device or mechanism the department authorizes. An 44577
employer may make the new hire report by mail, fax, magnetic or 44578
electronic means, or other means the department authorizes. If an 44579
employer makes a new hire report by mail, the date of making the 44580
report is the postmark date if the report is mailed in the United 44581
States with first class postage and is addressed as the department 44582
authorizes. An employer shall make the new hire report not later 44583
than twenty days after the date on which the employer hires or 44584
rehires an employee or the employee returns to work or the date on 44585
which the employer engages or re-engages the contractor or the 44586
contractor resumes providing services under the contract.44587

       Sec. 3121.898.  The department of job and family services 44588
shall use the new hire reports it receives for any of the 44589
following purposes set forth in 42 U.S.C. 653a, as amended, 44590
including:44591

       (A) To locate individuals for the purposes of establishing 44592
paternity and for establishing, modifying, and enforcing child 44593
support orders.44594

       (B) As used in this division, "state agency" means every 44595
department, bureau, board, commission, office, or other organized 44596
body established by the constitution or laws of this state for the 44597
exercise of state government; every entity of county government 44598
that is subject to the rules of a state agency; and every 44599
contractual agent of a state agency.44600

       To make available to any state agency responsible for 44601
administering any of the following programs for purposes of 44602
verifying program eligibility:44603

       (1) Any Title IV-A program as defined in section 5101.80 of 44604
the Revised Code;44605

       (2) The medicaid program authorized by Chapter 5111. of the 44606
Revised Code;44607

       (3) The unemployment compensation program authorized by 44608
Chapter 4141. of the Revised Code;44609

       (4) The supplemental nutrition assistance program authorized 44610
by section 5101.54 of the Revised Code;44611

       (5) Any other program authorized in 42 U.S.C. 1320b-7(b), as 44612
amended.44613

       (C) The administration of the employment security program 44614
under the director of job and family services.44615

       Sec. 3123.958.  The office of child support shallmay publish 44616
and distribute the firsta set of posters throughout the state not 44617
later than October 1, 1992. The office shall publish and 44618
distribute subsequent sets of posters not less than twice44619
annually.44620

       Sec. 3125.18. A child support enforcement agency shall 44621
administer a Title IV-A program identified under division 44622
(A)(4)(c) or (f)(g) of section 5101.80 of the Revised Code that 44623
the department of job and family services provides for the agency 44624
to administer under the department's supervision pursuant to 44625
section 5101.801 of the Revised Code.44626

       Sec. 3125.36.  (A) Subject to division (B) of this section, 44627
all support orders that are administered by a child support 44628
enforcement agency designated under section 307.981 of the Revised 44629
Code or former section 2301.35 of the Revised Code and are 44630
eligible for Title IV-D services shall be Title IV-D cases under 44631
Title IV-D of the "Social Security Act." Subject to division (B) 44632
of this section, all obligees of support orders administered by 44633
the agency shall be considered to have filed a signed application 44634
for Title IV-D services.44635

       (B) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, a 44636
court that issues or modifies a support order shall require the 44637
obligee under the order to sign, at the time of the issuance or 44638
modification of the order, an application for Title IV-D services 44639
and to file, as soon as possible, the signed application with the 44640
child support enforcement agency that will administer the order. 44641
The application shall be on a form prescribed by the department of 44642
job and family services. Except as provided in division (D) of 44643
this section, a support order that is administered by a child 44644
support enforcement agency, and that is eligible for Title IV-D 44645
services shall be a Title IV-D case under Title IV-D of the 44646
"Social Security Act" only upon the filing of the signed 44647
application for Title IV-D services.44648

       (C) A child support enforcement agency shall make available 44649
an application for Title IV-D services to all persons requesting a 44650
child support enforcement agency's assistance in an action under 44651
sections 3111.01 to 3111.18 of the Revised Code or in an 44652
administrative proceeding brought to establish a parent and child 44653
relationship, to establish or modify an administrative support 44654
order, or to establish or modify an order to provide health 44655
insurance coverage for the children subject to a support order.44656

       (D) An obligee under a support order who has assigned the 44657
right to the support pursuant to section 5101.59 or 5107.20 or 44658
5160.38 of the Revised Code shall not be required to sign an 44659
application for Title IV-D services. The support order shall be 44660
considered a Title IV-D case.44661

       Sec. 3301.07.  The state board of education shall exercise 44662
under the acts of the general assembly general supervision of the 44663
system of public education in the state. In addition to the powers 44664
otherwise imposed on the state board under the provisions of law, 44665
the board shall have the powers described in this section.44666

       (A) The state board shall exercise policy forming, planning, 44667
and evaluative functions for the public schools of the state 44668
except as otherwise provided by law.44669

       (B)(1) The state board shall exercise leadership in the 44670
improvement of public education in this state, and administer the 44671
educational policies of this state relating to public schools, and 44672
relating to instruction and instructional material, building and 44673
equipment, transportation of pupils, administrative 44674
responsibilities of school officials and personnel, and finance 44675
and organization of school districts, educational service centers, 44676
and territory. Consultative and advisory services in such matters 44677
shall be provided by the board to school districts and educational 44678
service centers of this state. 44679

       (2) The state board also shall develop a standard of 44680
financial reporting which shall be used by each school district 44681
board of education and educational service centereach governing 44682
board of an educational service center, each governing authority 44683
of a community school established under Chapter 3314., each 44684
governing body of a STEM school established under Chapter 3328., 44685
and each board of trustees of a college-preparatory boarding 44686
school established under Chapter 3328. of the Revised Code to make 44687
its financial information and annual budgets for each school 44688
building under its control available to the public in a format 44689
understandable by the average citizen. The format shall show, 44690
among other things,both at the district and educational service 44691
center level orand at the school building level, as determined 44692
appropriate by the department of education, revenue by source; 44693
expenditures for salaries, wages, and benefits of employees, 44694
showing such amounts separately for classroom teachers, other 44695
employees required to hold licenses issued pursuant to sections 44696
3319.22 to 3319.31 of the Revised Code, and all other employees; 44697
expenditures other than for personnel, by category, including 44698
utilities, textbooks and other educational materials, equipment, 44699
permanent improvements, pupil transportation, extracurricular 44700
athletics, and other extracurricular activities; and per pupil 44701
expenditures. The format shall also include information on total 44702
revenue and expenditures, per pupil revenue, and expenditures for 44703
both classroom and nonclassroom purposes, as defined by the 44704
standards adopted under section 3302.20 of the Revised Code in the 44705
aggregate and for each subgroup of students, as defined by section 44706
3317.40 of the Revised Code, that receives services provided for 44707
by state or federal funding.44708

       (3) Each school district board, governing authority, 44709
governing body, or board of trustees, or its respective designee, 44710
shall annually report, to the department of education, all 44711
financial information required by the standards for financial 44712
reporting, as prescribed by division (B)(2) of this section and 44713
adopted by the state board. The department shall post these 44714
reports in a prominent location on its web site and shall notify 44715
each school when reports are made available.44716

       (C) The state board shall administer and supervise the 44717
allocation and distribution of all state and federal funds for 44718
public school education under the provisions of law, and may 44719
prescribe such systems of accounting as are necessary and proper 44720
to this function. It may require county auditors and treasurers, 44721
boards of education, educational service center governing boards, 44722
treasurers of such boards, teachers, and other school officers and 44723
employees, or other public officers or employees, to file with it 44724
such reports as it may prescribe relating to such funds, or to the 44725
management and condition of such funds.44726

       (D)(1) Wherever in Titles IX, XXIII, XXIX, XXXIII, XXXVII, 44727
XLVII, and LI of the Revised Code a reference is made to standards 44728
prescribed under this section or division (D) of this section, 44729
that reference shall be construed to refer to the standards 44730
prescribed under division (D)(2) of this section, unless the 44731
context specifically indicates a different meaning or intent.44732

        (2) The state board shall formulate and prescribe minimum 44733
standards to be applied to all elementary and secondary schools in 44734
this state for the purpose of requiringproviding children access 44735
to a general education of high quality according to the learning 44736
needs of each individual, including students with disabilities, 44737
economically disadvantaged students, limited English proficient 44738
students, and students identified as gifted. Such standards shall 44739
provide adequately for: the licensing of teachers, administrators, 44740
and other professional personnel and their assignment according to 44741
training and qualifications; efficient and effective instructional 44742
materials and equipment, including library facilities; the proper 44743
organization, administration, and supervision of each school, 44744
including regulations for preparing all necessary records and 44745
reports and the preparation of a statement of policies and 44746
objectives for each school; the provision of safe buildings, 44747
grounds, health and sanitary facilities and services; admission of 44748
pupils, and such requirements for their promotion from grade to 44749
grade as will assure that they are capable and prepared for the 44750
level of study to which they are certified; requirements for 44751
graduation; and such other factors as the board finds necessary.44752

       The state board shall base any standards governing the 44753
promotion of students or requirements for graduation on the 44754
ability of students, at any grade level, to earn credits or 44755
advance upon demonstration of mastery of knowledge and skills 44756
through competency-based learning models. Credits of grade level 44757
advancement shall not require a minimum number of days or hours in 44758
a classroom.44759

       The state board shall base any standards governing the 44760
assignment of staff on ensuring each school has a sufficient 44761
number of teachers to ensure a student has an appropriate level of 44762
interaction to meet each student's personal learning goals.44763

       In the formulation and administration of such standards for 44764
nonpublic schools the board shall also consider the particular 44765
needs, methods and objectives of those schools, provided they do 44766
not conflict with the provision of a general education of a high 44767
quality and provided that regular procedures shall be followed for 44768
promotion from grade to grade of pupils who have met the 44769
educational requirements prescribed.44770

        In the formulation and administration of such standards as 44771
they relate to instructional materials and equipment in public 44772
schools, including library materials, the board shall require that 44773
the material and equipment be aligned with and promote skills 44774
expected under the statewide academic standards adopted under 44775
section 3301.079 of the Revised Code.44776

        (3) In addition to the minimum standards required by division 44777
(D)(2) of this section, the state board may formulate and 44778
prescribe the following additional minimum operating standards for 44779
school districts:44780

       (a) Standards for the effective and efficient organization, 44781
administration, and supervision of each school district so that it 44782
becomes a thinking and learning organization according to 44783
principles of systems design and collaborative professional 44784
learning communities research as defined by the superintendent of 44785
public instruction, including a focus on the personalized and 44786
individualized needs of each student; a shared responsibility 44787
among school boards, administrators, faculty, and staff to develop 44788
a common vision, mission, and set of guiding principles; a shared 44789
responsibility among school boards, administrators, faculty, and 44790
staff to engage in a process of collective inquiry, action 44791
orientation, and experimentation to ensure the academic success of 44792
all students; commitment to teaching and learning strategies that 44793
utilize technological tools and emphasize inter-disciplinary, 44794
real-world, project-based, and technology-oriented learning 44795
experiences to meet the individual needs of every student;with a44796
commitment to high expectations for every student based on the 44797
learning needs of each individual, including students with 44798
disabilities, economically disadvantaged students, limited English 44799
proficient students, and students identified as gifted, and 44800
commitment to closing the achievement gap without suppressing the 44801
achievement levels of higher achieving students so that all 44802
students achieve core knowledge and skills in accordance with the 44803
statewide academic standards adopted under section 3301.079 of the 44804
Revised Code; commitment to the use of assessments to diagnose 44805
the needs of each student; effective connections and relationships 44806
with families and others that support student success; and 44807
commitment to the use of positive behavior intervention supports 44808
throughout a district to ensure a safe and secure learning 44809
environment for all students;44810

       (b) Standards for the establishment of business advisory 44811
councils under section 3313.82 of the Revised Code;44812

        (c) Standards for school district buildings that may require:44813

       (i) Thethe effective and efficient organization, 44814
administration, and supervision of each school district building 44815
so that it becomes a thinking and learning organization according 44816
to principles of systems design and collaborative professional 44817
learning communities research as defined by the state 44818
superintendent, including a focus on the personalized and 44819
individualized needs of each student; a shared responsibility 44820
among building administrators, faculty, and staff to develop a 44821
common vision, mission, and set of guiding principles; a shared 44822
responsibility among building administrators, faculty, and staff 44823
to engage in a process of collective inquiry, action orientation, 44824
and experimentation to ensure the academic success of all 44825
students; commitment to job embedded professional development and 44826
professional mentoring and coaching; established periods of time 44827
for teachers to pursue planning time for the development of lesson 44828
plans, professional development, and shared learning; commitment 44829
to effective management strategies that allow administrators 44830
reasonable access to classrooms for observation and professional 44831
development experiences; commitment to teaching and learning 44832
strategies that utilize technological tools and emphasize 44833
inter-disciplinary, real-world, project-based, and 44834
technology-oriented learning experiences to meet the individual 44835
needs of every student;with a commitment to high expectations for 44836
every student based on the learning needs of each individual, 44837
including students with disabilities, economically disadvantaged 44838
students, limited English proficient students, and students 44839
identified as gifted, and commitment to closing the achievement 44840
gap without suppressing the achievement levels of higher achieving 44841
students so that all students achieve core knowledge and skills in 44842
accordance with the statewide academic standards adopted under 44843
section 3301.079 of the Revised Code; commitment to the use of 44844
assessments to diagnose the needs of each student; effective 44845
connections and relationships with families and others that 44846
support student success; commitment to the use of positive 44847
behavior intervention supports throughout the building to ensure a 44848
safe and secure learning environment for all students;44849

       (ii) A school building leadership team to coordinate positive 44850
behavior intervention supports, learning environments, thinking 44851
and learning systems, collaborative planning, planning time, 44852
student academic interventions, student extended learning 44853
opportunities, and other activities identified by the team and 44854
approved by the district board of education. The team shall 44855
include the building principal, representatives from each 44856
collective bargaining unit, a classroom teacher, parents, business 44857
representatives, and others that support student success. 44858

        (E) The state board may require as part of the health 44859
curriculum information developed under section 2108.34 of the 44860
Revised Code promoting the donation of anatomical gifts pursuant 44861
to Chapter 2108. of the Revised Code and may provide the 44862
information to high schools, educational service centers, and 44863
joint vocational school district boards of education;44864

       (F) The state board shall prepare and submit annually to the 44865
governor and the general assembly a report on the status, needs, 44866
and major problems of the public schools of the state, with 44867
recommendations for necessary legislative action and a ten-year 44868
projection of the state's public and nonpublic school enrollment, 44869
by year and by grade level.44870

       (G) The state board shall prepare and submit to the director 44871
of budget and management the biennial budgetary requests of the 44872
state board of education, for its agencies and for the public 44873
schools of the state.44874

       (H) The state board shall cooperate with federal, state, and 44875
local agencies concerned with the health and welfare of children 44876
and youth of the state.44877

       (I) The state board shall require such reports from school 44878
districts and educational service centers, school officers, and 44879
employees as are necessary and desirable. The superintendents and 44880
treasurers of school districts and educational service centers 44881
shall certify as to the accuracy of all reports required by law or 44882
state board or state department of education rules to be submitted 44883
by the district or educational service center and which contain 44884
information necessary for calculation of state funding. Any 44885
superintendent who knowingly falsifies such report shall be 44886
subject to license revocation pursuant to section 3319.31 of the 44887
Revised Code.44888

       (J) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 44889
state board shall adopt procedures, standards, and guidelines for 44890
the education of children with disabilities pursuant to Chapter 44891
3323. of the Revised Code, including procedures, standards, and 44892
guidelines governing programs and services operated by county 44893
boards of developmental disabilities pursuant to section 3323.09 44894
of the Revised Code.44895

       (K) For the purpose of encouraging the development of special 44896
programs of education for academically gifted children, the state 44897
board shall employ competent persons to analyze and publish data, 44898
promote research, advise and counsel with boards of education, and 44899
encourage the training of teachers in the special instruction of 44900
gifted children. The board may provide financial assistance out of 44901
any funds appropriated for this purpose to boards of education and 44902
educational service center governing boards for developing and 44903
conducting programs of education for academically gifted children.44904

       (L) The state board shall require that all public schools 44905
emphasize and encourage, within existing units of study, the 44906
teaching of energy and resource conservation as recommended to 44907
each district board of education by leading business persons 44908
involved in energy production and conservation, beginning in the 44909
primary grades.44910

       (M) The state board shall formulate and prescribe minimum 44911
standards requiring the use of phonics as a technique in the 44912
teaching of reading in grades kindergarten through three. In 44913
addition, the state board shall provide in-service training 44914
programs for teachers on the use of phonics as a technique in the 44915
teaching of reading in grades kindergarten through three.44916

       (N) The state board may adopt rules necessary for carrying 44917
out any function imposed on it by law, and may provide rules as 44918
are necessary for its government and the government of its 44919
employees, and may delegate to the superintendent of public 44920
instruction the management and administration of any function 44921
imposed on it by law. It may provide for the appointment of board 44922
members to serve on temporary committees established by the board 44923
for such purposes as are necessary. Permanent or standing 44924
committees shall not be created.44925

        (O) Upon application from the board of education of a school 44926
district, the superintendent of public instruction may issue a 44927
waiver exempting the district from compliance with the standards 44928
adopted under divisions (B)(2) and (D) of this section, as they 44929
relate to the operation of a school operated by the district. The 44930
state board shall adopt standards for the approval or disapproval 44931
of waivers under this division. The state superintendent shall 44932
consider every application for a waiver, and shall determine 44933
whether to grant or deny a waiver in accordance with the state 44934
board's standards. For each waiver granted, the state 44935
superintendent shall specify the period of time during which the 44936
waiver is in effect, which shall not exceed five years. A district 44937
board may apply to renew a waiver.44938

       Sec. 3301.0712.  (A) The state board of education, the 44939
superintendent of public instruction, and the chancellor of the 44940
Ohio board of regents shall develop a system of college and work 44941
ready assessments as described in divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this 44942
section to assess whether each student upon graduating from high 44943
school is ready to enter college or the workforce. The system 44944
shall replace the Ohio graduation tests prescribed in division 44945
(B)(1) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code as a measure of 44946
student academic performance and a prerequisite for eligibility 44947
for a high school diploma in the manner prescribed by rule of the 44948
state board adopted under division (D) of this section.44949

       (B) The college and work ready assessment system shall 44950
consist of the following:44951

       (1) A nationally standardized assessment that measures 44952
college and career readiness selected jointly by the state 44953
superintendent and the chancellor. 44954

       (2) A series of end-of-course examinations in the areas of 44955
science, mathematics, English language arts, American history, and 44956
American government selected jointly by the state superintendent 44957
and the chancellor in consultation with faculty in the appropriate 44958
subject areas at institutions of higher education of the 44959
university system of Ohio. For each subject area, the state 44960
superintendent and chancellor shall select multiple assessments 44961
that school districts, public schools, and chartered nonpublic 44962
schools may use as end-of-course examinations. Subject to division 44963
(B)(3)(b) of this section, those assessments shall include 44964
nationally recognized subject area assessments, such as advanced 44965
placement examinations, SAT subject tests, international 44966
baccalaureate examinations, and other assessments of college and 44967
work readiness. 44968

       (3)(a) Not later than July 1, 2013, each school district 44969
board of education shall adopt interim end-of-course examinations 44970
that comply with the requirements of divisions (B)(3)(b)(i) and 44971
(ii) of this section to assess mastery of American history and 44972
American government standards adopted under division (A)(1)(b) of 44973
section 3301.079 of the Revised Code and the topics required under 44974
division (M) of section 3313.603 of the Revised Code. Each high 44975
school of the district shall use the interim examinations until 44976
the state superintendent and chancellor select end-of-course 44977
examinations in American history and American government under 44978
division (B)(2) of this section.44979

       (b) Not later than July 1, 2014, the state superintendent and 44980
the chancellor shall select the end-of-course examinations in 44981
American history and American government. 44982

       (i) The end-of-course examinations in American history and 44983
American government shall require demonstration of mastery of the 44984
American history and American government content for social 44985
studies standards adopted under division (A)(1)(b) of section 44986
3301.079 of the Revised Code and the topics required under 44987
division (M) of section 3313.603 of the Revised Code.44988

       (ii) At least twenty per cent of the end-of-course 44989
examination in American government shall address the topics on 44990
American history and American government described in division (M) 44991
of section 3313.603 of the Revised Code.44992

       (C) The state board shall convene a group of national 44993
experts, state experts, and local practitioners to provide advice, 44994
guidance, and recommendations for the alignment of standards and 44995
model curricula to the assessments and in the design of the 44996
end-of-course examinations prescribed by this section.44997

       (D) Upon completion of the development of the assessment 44998
system, the state board shall adopt rules prescribing all of the 44999
following:45000

       (1) A timeline and plan for implementation of the assessment 45001
system, including a phased implementation if the state board 45002
determines such a phase-in is warranted;45003

       (2) The date after which a person entering ninth grade shall 45004
meet the requirements of the entire assessment system as a 45005
prerequisite for a high school diploma under section 3313.61, 45006
3313.612, or 3325.08 of the Revised Code;45007

       (3) The date after which a person shall meet the requirements 45008
of the entire assessment system as a prerequisite for a diploma of 45009
adult education under section 3313.611 of the Revised Code;45010

       (4) Whether and the extent to which a person may be excused 45011
from an American history end-of-course examination and an American 45012
government end-of-course examination under division (H) of section 45013
3313.61 and division (B)(2)(3) of section 3313.612 of the Revised 45014
Code;45015

       (5) The date after which a person who has fulfilled the 45016
curriculum requirement for a diploma but has not passed one or 45017
more of the required assessments at the time the person fulfilled 45018
the curriculum requirement shall meet the requirements of the 45019
entire assessment system as a prerequisite for a high school 45020
diploma under division (B) of section 3313.614 of the Revised 45021
Code;45022

       (6) The extent to which the assessment system applies to 45023
students enrolled in a dropout recovery and prevention program for 45024
purposes of division (F) of section 3313.603 and section 3314.36 45025
of the Revised Code.45026

       No rule adopted under this division shall be effective 45027
earlier than one year after the date the rule is filed in final 45028
form pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 45029

       (E) Not later than forty-five days prior to the state board's 45030
adoption of a resolution directing the department of education to 45031
file the rules prescribed by division (D) of this section in final 45032
form under section 119.04 of the Revised Code, the superintendent 45033
of public instruction shall present the assessment system 45034
developed under this section to the respective committees of the 45035
house of representatives and senate that consider education 45036
legislation.45037

       Sec. 3301.0714.  (A) The state board of education shall adopt 45038
rules for a statewide education management information system. The 45039
rules shall require the state board to establish guidelines for 45040
the establishment and maintenance of the system in accordance with 45041
this section and the rules adopted under this section. The 45042
guidelines shall include:45043

       (1) Standards identifying and defining the types of data in 45044
the system in accordance with divisions (B) and (C) of this 45045
section;45046

       (2) Procedures for annually collecting and reporting the data 45047
to the state board in accordance with division (D) of this 45048
section;45049

       (3) Procedures for annually compiling the data in accordance 45050
with division (G) of this section;45051

       (4) Procedures for annually reporting the data to the public 45052
in accordance with division (H) of this section.45053

       (B) The guidelines adopted under this section shall require 45054
the data maintained in the education management information system 45055
to include at least the following:45056

       (1) Student participation and performance data, for each 45057
grade in each school district as a whole and for each grade in 45058
each school building in each school district, that includes:45059

       (a) The numbers of students receiving each category of 45060
instructional service offered by the school district, such as 45061
regular education instruction, vocational education instruction, 45062
specialized instruction programs or enrichment instruction that is 45063
part of the educational curriculum, instruction for gifted 45064
students, instruction for students with disabilities, and remedial 45065
instruction. The guidelines shall require instructional services 45066
under this division to be divided into discrete categories if an 45067
instructional service is limited to a specific subject, a specific 45068
type of student, or both, such as regular instructional services 45069
in mathematics, remedial reading instructional services, 45070
instructional services specifically for students gifted in 45071
mathematics or some other subject area, or instructional services 45072
for students with a specific type of disability. The categories of 45073
instructional services required by the guidelines under this 45074
division shall be the same as the categories of instructional 45075
services used in determining cost units pursuant to division 45076
(C)(3) of this section.45077

       (b) The numbers of students receiving support or 45078
extracurricular services for each of the support services or 45079
extracurricular programs offered by the school district, such as 45080
counseling services, health services, and extracurricular sports 45081
and fine arts programs. The categories of services required by the 45082
guidelines under this division shall be the same as the categories 45083
of services used in determining cost units pursuant to division 45084
(C)(4)(a) of this section.45085

       (c) Average student grades in each subject in grades nine 45086
through twelve;45087

       (d) Academic achievement levels as assessed under sections 45088
3301.0710, 3301.0711, and 3301.0712 of the Revised Code;45089

       (e) The number of students designated as having a disabling 45090
condition pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 3301.0711 of the 45091
Revised Code;45092

       (f) The numbers of students reported to the state board 45093
pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 3301.0711 of the Revised 45094
Code;45095

       (g) Attendance rates and the average daily attendance for the 45096
year. For purposes of this division, a student shall be counted as 45097
present for any field trip that is approved by the school 45098
administration.45099

       (h) Expulsion rates;45100

       (i) Suspension rates;45101

       (j) Dropout rates;45102

       (k) Rates of retention in grade;45103

       (l) For pupils in grades nine through twelve, the average 45104
number of carnegie units, as calculated in accordance with state 45105
board of education rules;45106

       (m) Graduation rates, to be calculated in a manner specified 45107
by the department of education that reflects the rate at which 45108
students who were in the ninth grade three years prior to the 45109
current year complete school and that is consistent with 45110
nationally accepted reporting requirements;45111

       (n) Results of diagnostic assessments administered to 45112
kindergarten students as required under section 3301.0715 of the 45113
Revised Code to permit a comparison of the academic readiness of 45114
kindergarten students. However, no district shall be required to 45115
report to the department the results of any diagnostic assessment 45116
administered to a kindergarten student if the parent of that 45117
student requests the district not to report those results.45118

       (2) Personnel and classroom enrollment data for each school 45119
district, including:45120

       (a) The total numbers of licensed employees and nonlicensed 45121
employees and the numbers of full-time equivalent licensed 45122
employees and nonlicensed employees providing each category of 45123
instructional service, instructional support service, and 45124
administrative support service used pursuant to division (C)(3) of 45125
this section. The guidelines adopted under this section shall 45126
require these categories of data to be maintained for the school 45127
district as a whole and, wherever applicable, for each grade in 45128
the school district as a whole, for each school building as a 45129
whole, and for each grade in each school building.45130

       (b) The total number of employees and the number of full-time 45131
equivalent employees providing each category of service used 45132
pursuant to divisions (C)(4)(a) and (b) of this section, and the 45133
total numbers of licensed employees and nonlicensed employees and 45134
the numbers of full-time equivalent licensed employees and 45135
nonlicensed employees providing each category used pursuant to 45136
division (C)(4)(c) of this section. The guidelines adopted under 45137
this section shall require these categories of data to be 45138
maintained for the school district as a whole and, wherever 45139
applicable, for each grade in the school district as a whole, for 45140
each school building as a whole, and for each grade in each school 45141
building.45142

       (c) The total number of regular classroom teachers teaching 45143
classes of regular education and the average number of pupils 45144
enrolled in each such class, in each of grades kindergarten 45145
through five in the district as a whole and in each school 45146
building in the school district.45147

       (d) The number of lead teachers employed by each school 45148
district and each school building.45149

       (3)(a) Student demographic data for each school district, 45150
including information regarding the gender ratio of the school 45151
district's pupils, the racial make-up of the school district's 45152
pupils, the number of limited English proficient students in the 45153
district, and an appropriate measure of the number of the school 45154
district's pupils who reside in economically disadvantaged 45155
households. The demographic data shall be collected in a manner to 45156
allow correlation with data collected under division (B)(1) of 45157
this section. Categories for data collected pursuant to division 45158
(B)(3) of this section shall conform, where appropriate, to 45159
standard practices of agencies of the federal government.45160

       (b) With respect to each student entering kindergarten, 45161
whether the student previously participated in a public preschool 45162
program, a private preschool program, or a head start program, and 45163
the number of years the student participated in each of these 45164
programs.45165

       (4) Any data required to be collected pursuant to federal 45166
law.45167

       (C) The education management information system shall include 45168
cost accounting data for each district as a whole and for each 45169
school building in each school district. The guidelines adopted 45170
under this section shall require the cost data for each school 45171
district to be maintained in a system of mutually exclusive cost 45172
units and shall require all of the costs of each school district 45173
to be divided among the cost units. The guidelines shall require 45174
the system of mutually exclusive cost units to include at least 45175
the following:45176

       (1) Administrative costs for the school district as a whole. 45177
The guidelines shall require the cost units under this division 45178
(C)(1) to be designed so that each of them may be compiled and 45179
reported in terms of average expenditure per pupil in formula ADM 45180
in the school district, as determined pursuant to section 3317.03 45181
of the Revised Code.45182

       (2) Administrative costs for each school building in the 45183
school district. The guidelines shall require the cost units under 45184
this division (C)(2) to be designed so that each of them may be 45185
compiled and reported in terms of average expenditure per 45186
full-time equivalent pupil receiving instructional or support 45187
services in each building.45188

       (3) Instructional services costs for each category of 45189
instructional service provided directly to students and required 45190
by guidelines adopted pursuant to division (B)(1)(a) of this 45191
section. The guidelines shall require the cost units under 45192
division (C)(3) of this section to be designed so that each of 45193
them may be compiled and reported in terms of average expenditure 45194
per pupil receiving the service in the school district as a whole 45195
and average expenditure per pupil receiving the service in each 45196
building in the school district and in terms of a total cost for 45197
each category of service and, as a breakdown of the total cost, a 45198
cost for each of the following components:45199

       (a) The cost of each instructional services category required 45200
by guidelines adopted under division (B)(1)(a) of this section 45201
that is provided directly to students by a classroom teacher;45202

       (b) The cost of the instructional support services, such as 45203
services provided by a speech-language pathologist, classroom 45204
aide, multimedia aide, or librarian, provided directly to students 45205
in conjunction with each instructional services category;45206

       (c) The cost of the administrative support services related 45207
to each instructional services category, such as the cost of 45208
personnel that develop the curriculum for the instructional 45209
services category and the cost of personnel supervising or 45210
coordinating the delivery of the instructional services category.45211

       (4) Support or extracurricular services costs for each 45212
category of service directly provided to students and required by 45213
guidelines adopted pursuant to division (B)(1)(b) of this section. 45214
The guidelines shall require the cost units under division (C)(4) 45215
of this section to be designed so that each of them may be 45216
compiled and reported in terms of average expenditure per pupil 45217
receiving the service in the school district as a whole and 45218
average expenditure per pupil receiving the service in each 45219
building in the school district and in terms of a total cost for 45220
each category of service and, as a breakdown of the total cost, a 45221
cost for each of the following components:45222

       (a) The cost of each support or extracurricular services 45223
category required by guidelines adopted under division (B)(1)(b) 45224
of this section that is provided directly to students by a 45225
licensed employee, such as services provided by a guidance 45226
counselor or any services provided by a licensed employee under a 45227
supplemental contract;45228

       (b) The cost of each such services category provided directly 45229
to students by a nonlicensed employee, such as janitorial 45230
services, cafeteria services, or services of a sports trainer;45231

       (c) The cost of the administrative services related to each 45232
services category in division (C)(4)(a) or (b) of this section, 45233
such as the cost of any licensed or nonlicensed employees that 45234
develop, supervise, coordinate, or otherwise are involved in 45235
administering or aiding the delivery of each services category.45236

       (D)(1) The guidelines adopted under this section shall 45237
require school districts to collect information about individual 45238
students, staff members, or both in connection with any data 45239
required by division (B) or (C) of this section or other reporting 45240
requirements established in the Revised Code. The guidelines may 45241
also require school districts to report information about 45242
individual staff members in connection with any data required by 45243
division (B) or (C) of this section or other reporting 45244
requirements established in the Revised Code. The guidelines shall 45245
not authorize school districts to request social security numbers 45246
of individual students. The guidelines shall prohibit the 45247
reporting under this section of a student's name, address, and 45248
social security number to the state board of education or the 45249
department of education. The guidelines shall also prohibit the 45250
reporting under this section of any personally identifiable 45251
information about any student, except for the purpose of assigning 45252
the data verification code required by division (D)(2) of this 45253
section, to any other person unless such person is employed by the 45254
school district or the information technology center operated 45255
under section 3301.075 of the Revised Code and is authorized by 45256
the district or technology center to have access to such 45257
information or is employed by an entity with which the department 45258
contracts for the scoring or the development of state assessments. 45259
The guidelines may require school districts to provide the social 45260
security numbers of individual staff members and the county of 45261
residence for a student. Nothing in this section prohibits the 45262
state board of education or department of education from providing 45263
a student's county of residence to the department of taxation to 45264
facilitate the distribution of tax revenue.45265

       (2)(a) The guidelines shall provide for each school district 45266
or community school to assign a data verification code that is 45267
unique on a statewide basis over time to each student whose 45268
initial Ohio enrollment is in that district or school and to 45269
report all required individual student data for that student 45270
utilizing such code. The guidelines shall also provide for 45271
assigning data verification codes to all students enrolled in 45272
districts or community schools on the effective date of the 45273
guidelines established under this section. The assignment of data 45274
verification codes for other entities, as described in division 45275
(D)(2)(c) of this section, the use of those codes, and the 45276
reporting and use of associated individual student data shall be 45277
coordinated by the department in accordance with state and federal 45278
law.45279

        School districts shall report individual student data to the 45280
department through the information technology centers utilizing 45281
the code. The entities described in division (D)(2)(c) of this 45282
section shall report individual student data to the department in 45283
the manner prescribed by the department.45284

        Except as provided in sections 3301.941, 3310.11, 3310.42, 45285
3310.63, 3313.978, and 3317.20 of the Revised Code, at no time 45286
shall the state board or the department have access to information 45287
that would enable any data verification code to be matched to 45288
personally identifiable student data.45289

       (b) Each school district and community school shall ensure 45290
that the data verification code is included in the student's 45291
records reported to any subsequent school district, community 45292
school, or state institution of higher education, as defined in 45293
section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, in which the student 45294
enrolls. Any such subsequent district or school shall utilize the 45295
same identifier in its reporting of data under this section.45296

       (c) The director of any state agency that administers a 45297
publicly funded program providing services to children who are 45298
younger than compulsory school age, as defined in section 3321.01 45299
of the Revised Code, including the directors of health, job and 45300
family services, mental healthmental health and addiction 45301
services, and developmental disabilities, shall request and 45302
receive, pursuant to sections 3301.0723 and 3701.62 of the Revised 45303
Code, a data verification code for a child who is receiving those 45304
services. 45305

       (E) The guidelines adopted under this section may require 45306
school districts to collect and report data, information, or 45307
reports other than that described in divisions (A), (B), and (C) 45308
of this section for the purpose of complying with other reporting 45309
requirements established in the Revised Code. The other data, 45310
information, or reports may be maintained in the education 45311
management information system but are not required to be compiled 45312
as part of the profile formats required under division (G) of this 45313
section or the annual statewide report required under division (H) 45314
of this section.45315

       (F) Beginning with the school year that begins July 1, 1991, 45316
the board of education of each school district shall annually 45317
collect and report to the state board, in accordance with the 45318
guidelines established by the board, the data required pursuant to 45319
this section. A school district may collect and report these data 45320
notwithstanding section 2151.357 or 3319.321 of the Revised Code.45321

       (G) The state board shall, in accordance with the procedures 45322
it adopts, annually compile the data reported by each school 45323
district pursuant to division (D) of this section. The state board 45324
shall design formats for profiling each school district as a whole 45325
and each school building within each district and shall compile 45326
the data in accordance with these formats. These profile formats 45327
shall:45328

       (1) Include all of the data gathered under this section in a 45329
manner that facilitates comparison among school districts and 45330
among school buildings within each school district;45331

       (2) Present the data on academic achievement levels as 45332
assessed by the testing of student achievement maintained pursuant 45333
to division (B)(1)(d) of this section.45334

       (H)(1) The state board shall, in accordance with the 45335
procedures it adopts, annually prepare a statewide report for all 45336
school districts and the general public that includes the profile 45337
of each of the school districts developed pursuant to division (G) 45338
of this section. Copies of the report shall be sent to each school 45339
district.45340

       (2) The state board shall, in accordance with the procedures 45341
it adopts, annually prepare an individual report for each school 45342
district and the general public that includes the profiles of each 45343
of the school buildings in that school district developed pursuant 45344
to division (G) of this section. Copies of the report shall be 45345
sent to the superintendent of the district and to each member of 45346
the district board of education.45347

       (3) Copies of the reports received from the state board under 45348
divisions (H)(1) and (2) of this section shall be made available 45349
to the general public at each school district's offices. Each 45350
district board of education shall make copies of each report 45351
available to any person upon request and payment of a reasonable 45352
fee for the cost of reproducing the report. The board shall 45353
annually publish in a newspaper of general circulation in the 45354
school district, at least twice during the two weeks prior to the 45355
week in which the reports will first be available, a notice 45356
containing the address where the reports are available and the 45357
date on which the reports will be available.45358

       (I) Any data that is collected or maintained pursuant to this 45359
section and that identifies an individual pupil is not a public 45360
record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code.45361

       (J) As used in this section:45362

       (1) "School district" means any city, local, exempted 45363
village, or joint vocational school district and, in accordance 45364
with section 3314.17 of the Revised Code, any community school. As 45365
used in division (L) of this section, "school district" also 45366
includes any educational service center or other educational 45367
entity required to submit data using the system established under 45368
this section.45369

       (2) "Cost" means any expenditure for operating expenses made 45370
by a school district excluding any expenditures for debt 45371
retirement except for payments made to any commercial lending 45372
institution for any loan approved pursuant to section 3313.483 of 45373
the Revised Code.45374

       (K) Any person who removes data from the information system 45375
established under this section for the purpose of releasing it to 45376
any person not entitled under law to have access to such 45377
information is subject to section 2913.42 of the Revised Code 45378
prohibiting tampering with data.45379

       (L)(1) In accordance with division (L)(2) of this section and 45380
the rules adopted under division (L)(10) of this section, the 45381
department of education may sanction any school district that 45382
reports incomplete or inaccurate data, reports data that does not 45383
conform to data requirements and descriptions published by the 45384
department, fails to report data in a timely manner, or otherwise 45385
does not make a good faith effort to report data as required by 45386
this section.45387

       (2) If the department decides to sanction a school district 45388
under this division, the department shall take the following 45389
sequential actions:45390

       (a) Notify the district in writing that the department has 45391
determined that data has not been reported as required under this 45392
section and require the district to review its data submission and 45393
submit corrected data by a deadline established by the department. 45394
The department also may require the district to develop a 45395
corrective action plan, which shall include provisions for the 45396
district to provide mandatory staff training on data reporting 45397
procedures.45398

       (b) Withhold up to ten per cent of the total amount of state 45399
funds due to the district for the current fiscal year and, if not 45400
previously required under division (L)(2)(a) of this section, 45401
require the district to develop a corrective action plan in 45402
accordance with that division;45403

       (c) Withhold an additional amount of up to twenty per cent of 45404
the total amount of state funds due to the district for the 45405
current fiscal year;45406

       (d) Direct department staff or an outside entity to 45407
investigate the district's data reporting practices and make 45408
recommendations for subsequent actions. The recommendations may 45409
include one or more of the following actions:45410

       (i) Arrange for an audit of the district's data reporting 45411
practices by department staff or an outside entity;45412

       (ii) Conduct a site visit and evaluation of the district;45413

       (iii) Withhold an additional amount of up to thirty per cent 45414
of the total amount of state funds due to the district for the 45415
current fiscal year;45416

       (iv) Continue monitoring the district's data reporting;45417

       (v) Assign department staff to supervise the district's data 45418
management system;45419

       (vi) Conduct an investigation to determine whether to suspend 45420
or revoke the license of any district employee in accordance with 45421
division (N) of this section;45422

       (vii) If the district is issued a report card under section 45423
3302.03 of the Revised Code, indicate on the report card that the 45424
district has been sanctioned for failing to report data as 45425
required by this section;45426

       (viii) If the district is issued a report card under section 45427
3302.03 of the Revised Code and incomplete or inaccurate data 45428
submitted by the district likely caused the district to receive a 45429
higher performance rating than it deserved under that section, 45430
issue a revised report card for the district;45431

       (ix) Any other action designed to correct the district's data 45432
reporting problems.45433

       (3) Any time the department takes an action against a school 45434
district under division (L)(2) of this section, the department 45435
shall make a report of the circumstances that prompted the action. 45436
The department shall send a copy of the report to the district 45437
superintendent or chief administrator and maintain a copy of the 45438
report in its files.45439

       (4) If any action taken under division (L)(2) of this section 45440
resolves a school district's data reporting problems to the 45441
department's satisfaction, the department shall not take any 45442
further actions described by that division. If the department 45443
withheld funds from the district under that division, the 45444
department may release those funds to the district, except that if 45445
the department withheld funding under division (L)(2)(c) of this 45446
section, the department shall not release the funds withheld under 45447
division (L)(2)(b) of this section and, if the department withheld 45448
funding under division (L)(2)(d) of this section, the department 45449
shall not release the funds withheld under division (L)(2)(b) or 45450
(c) of this section.45451

       (5) Notwithstanding anything in this section to the contrary, 45452
the department may use its own staff or an outside entity to 45453
conduct an audit of a school district's data reporting practices 45454
any time the department has reason to believe the district has not 45455
made a good faith effort to report data as required by this 45456
section. If any audit conducted by an outside entity under 45457
division (L)(2)(d)(i) or (5) of this section confirms that a 45458
district has not made a good faith effort to report data as 45459
required by this section, the district shall reimburse the 45460
department for the full cost of the audit. The department may 45461
withhold state funds due to the district for this purpose.45462

       (6) Prior to issuing a revised report card for a school 45463
district under division (L)(2)(d)(viii) of this section, the 45464
department may hold a hearing to provide the district with an 45465
opportunity to demonstrate that it made a good faith effort to 45466
report data as required by this section. The hearing shall be 45467
conducted by a referee appointed by the department. Based on the 45468
information provided in the hearing, the referee shall recommend 45469
whether the department should issue a revised report card for the 45470
district. If the referee affirms the department's contention that 45471
the district did not make a good faith effort to report data as 45472
required by this section, the district shall bear the full cost of 45473
conducting the hearing and of issuing any revised report card.45474

       (7) If the department determines that any inaccurate data 45475
reported under this section caused a school district to receive 45476
excess state funds in any fiscal year, the district shall 45477
reimburse the department an amount equal to the excess funds, in 45478
accordance with a payment schedule determined by the department. 45479
The department may withhold state funds due to the district for 45480
this purpose.45481

       (8) Any school district that has funds withheld under 45482
division (L)(2) of this section may appeal the withholding in 45483
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.45484

       (9) In all cases of a disagreement between the department and 45485
a school district regarding the appropriateness of an action taken 45486
under division (L)(2) of this section, the burden of proof shall 45487
be on the district to demonstrate that it made a good faith effort 45488
to report data as required by this section.45489

       (10) The state board of education shall adopt rules under 45490
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement division (L) of this 45491
section.45492

       (M) No information technology center or school district shall 45493
acquire, change, or update its student administration software 45494
package to manage and report data required to be reported to the 45495
department unless it converts to a student software package that 45496
is certified by the department.45497

       (N) The state board of education, in accordance with sections 45498
3319.31 and 3319.311 of the Revised Code, may suspend or revoke a 45499
license as defined under division (A) of section 3319.31 of the 45500
Revised Code that has been issued to any school district employee 45501
found to have willfully reported erroneous, inaccurate, or 45502
incomplete data to the education management information system.45503

       (O) No person shall release or maintain any information about 45504
any student in violation of this section. Whoever violates this 45505
division is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.45506

       (P) The department shall disaggregate the data collected 45507
under division (B)(1)(n) of this section according to the race and 45508
socioeconomic status of the students assessed. No data collected 45509
under that division shall be included on the report cards required 45510
by section 3302.03 of the Revised Code.45511

       (Q) If the department cannot compile any of the information 45512
required by division (H) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code 45513
based upon the data collected under this section, the department 45514
shall develop a plan and a reasonable timeline for the collection 45515
of any data necessary to comply with that division.45516

       Sec. 3301.0715.  (A) Except as otherwise required under 45517
division (B)(1) of section 3313.608 of the Revised Code, the board 45518
of education of each city, local, and exempted village school 45519
district shall administer each applicable diagnostic assessment 45520
developed and provided to the district in accordance with section 45521
3301.079 of the Revised Code to the following:45522

       (1) Any student who transfers into the district or to a 45523
different school within the district if each applicable diagnostic 45524
assessment was not administered by the district or school the 45525
student previously attended in the current school year, within 45526
thirty days after the date of transfer. If the district or school 45527
into which the student transfers cannot determine whether the 45528
student has taken any applicable diagnostic assessment in the 45529
current school year, the district or school may administer the 45530
diagnostic assessment to the student.45531

       (2) Each(a) Prior to July 1, 2014, each kindergarten 45532
student, not earlier than four weeks prior to the first day of 45533
school and not later than the first day of October. For45534

       (b) Beginning July 1, 2014, each kindergarten student, not 45535
earlier than the first day of the school year and not later than 45536
the first day of November, except that the language and reading 45537
skills portion of the assessment shall be administered by the 45538
thirtieth day of September to fulfill the requirements of division 45539
(B) of section 3313.608 of the Revised Code.45540

       For the purpose of division (A)(2) of this section, the 45541
district shall administer the kindergarten readiness assessment 45542
provided by the department of education. In no case shall the 45543
results of the readiness assessment be used to prohibit a student 45544
from enrolling in kindergarten.45545

       (3) Each student enrolled in first, second, or third grade.45546

       (B) Each district board shall administer each diagnostic 45547
assessment when the board deems appropriate, provided the 45548
administration complies with section 3313.608 of the Revised Code. 45549
However, the board shall administer any diagnostic assessment at 45550
least once annually to all students in the appropriate grade 45551
level. A district board may administer any diagnostic assessment 45552
in the fall and spring of a school year to measure the amount of 45553
academic growth attributable to the instruction received by 45554
students during that school year.45555

       (C) Any district that received an excellent or effective 45556
rating for the immediately preceding school year, pursuant to 45557
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code as it existed prior to the 45558
effective date of this amendmentMarch 22, 2013, or the equivalent 45559
of such rating as determined by the department of education, may 45560
use different diagnostic assessments from those adopted under 45561
division (D) of section 3301.079 of the Revised Code in order to 45562
satisfy the requirements of division (A)(2) of this section.45563

       (D) Each district board shall utilize and score any 45564
diagnostic assessment administered under division (A) of this 45565
section in accordance with rules established by the department. 45566
After the administration of any diagnostic assessment, each 45567
district shall provide a student's completed diagnostic 45568
assessment, the results of such assessment, and any other 45569
accompanying documents used during the administration of the 45570
assessment to the parent of that student, and shall include all 45571
such documents and information in any plan developed for the 45572
student under division (C) of section 3313.608 of the Revised 45573
Code. Each district shall submit to the department, in the manner 45574
the department prescribes, the results of the diagnostic 45575
assessments administered under this section, regardless of the 45576
type of assessment used under section 3313.608 of the Revised 45577
Code. The department may issue reports with respect to the data 45578
collected.45579

       (E) Each district board shall provide intervention services 45580
to students whose diagnostic assessments show that they are 45581
failing to make satisfactory progress toward attaining the 45582
academic standards for their grade level.45583

       Sec. 3301.0723.  (A) The independent contractor engaged by 45584
the department of education to create and maintain for school 45585
districts and community schools the student data verification 45586
codes required by division (D)(2) of section 3301.0714 of the 45587
Revised Code, upon request of the director of any state agency 45588
that administers a publicly funded program providing services to 45589
children who are younger than compulsory school age, as defined in 45590
section 3321.01 of the Revised Code, including the directors of 45591
health, job and family services, mental healthmental health and 45592
addiction services, and developmental disabilities, shall assign a 45593
data verification code to a child who is receiving such services 45594
and shall provide that code to the director. The contractor also 45595
shall provide that code to the department of education.45596

       (B) The director of a state agency that receives a child's 45597
data verification code under division (A) of this section shall 45598
use that code to submit information for that child to the 45599
department of education in accordance with section 3301.0714 of 45600
the Revised Code.45601

       (C) A public school that receives from the independent 45602
contractor the data verification code for a child assigned under 45603
division (A) of this section shall not request or assign to that 45604
child another data verification code under division (D)(2) of 45605
section 3301.0714 of the Revised Code. That school and any other 45606
public school in which the child subsequently enrolls shall use 45607
the data verification code assigned under division (A) of this 45608
section to report data relative to that student required under 45609
section 3301.0714 of the Revised Code.45610

       Sec. 3301.0725.  A school district may employ certificated 45611
instructional personnel for more days during a school year than 45612
the district normally employs its regular classroom teachershours 45613
outside of the normal school day for the purpose of providing 45614
extended programming, subject to the provisions of section 45615
3319.0812 of the Revised Code. Extended programming, as defined by 45616
rule of the state board of education, shall be based upon learner 45617
needs and, if applicable, business and industry validated 45618
standards and competencies and shall enhance student learning 45619
opportunities. Extended programming shall be subject to the 45620
requirements of sections 3313.6018 and 3313.6019 of the Revised 45621
Code.45622

       No rule of the state board shall require extended programming 45623
employment of certificated instructional personnel as a condition 45624
of eligibility for funding under any other section of the Revised 45625
Code.45626

       Sec. 3301.15.  The state board of education or its authorized 45627
representatives may inspect all institutions under the control of 45628
the department of job and family services, the department of45629
mental healthmental health and addiction services, the department 45630
of developmental disabilities, and the department of 45631
rehabilitation and correction which employ teachers, and may make 45632
a report on the teaching, discipline, and school equipment in 45633
these institutions to the director of job and family services, the 45634
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services, 45635
the director of developmental disabilities, the director of 45636
rehabilitation and correction, and the governor.45637

       Sec. 3302.01.  As used in this chapter:45638

       (A) "Performance index score" means the average of the totals 45639
derived from calculations for each subject area of English 45640
language arts, mathematics, science, and social studies of the 45641
weighted proportion of untested students and students scoring at 45642
each level of skill described in division (A)(2) of section 45643
3301.0710 of the Revised Code on the assessments prescribed by 45644
divisions (A) and (B)(1) of that section. The department of 45645
education shall assign weights such that students who do not take 45646
an assessment receive a weight of zero and students who take an 45647
assessment receive progressively larger weights dependent upon the 45648
level of skill attained on the assessment. The department shall 45649
assign additional weights to students who have been permitted to 45650
pass over a subject in accordance with a student acceleration 45651
policy adopted under section 3324.10 of the Revised Code. If such 45652
a student attains the proficient score prescribed under division 45653
(A)(2)(c) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code or higher on an 45654
assessment, the department shall assign the student the weight 45655
prescribed for the next higher scoring level. If such a student 45656
attains the advanced score, prescribed under division (A)(2)(a) of 45657
section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code, on an assessment, the 45658
department shall assign to the student an additional proportional 45659
weight, as approved by the state board. For each school year that 45660
such a student's score is included in the performance index score 45661
and the student attains the proficient score on an assessment, 45662
that additional weight shall be assigned to the student on a 45663
subject-by-subject basis.45664

       Students shall be included in the "performance index score" 45665
in accordance with division (K)(2) of section 3302.03 of the 45666
Revised Code.45667

       (B) "Subgroup" means a subset of the entire student 45668
population of the state, a school district, or a school building 45669
and includes each of the following:45670

       (1) Major racial and ethnic groups;45671

       (2) Students with disabilities;45672

       (3) Economically disadvantaged students;45673

       (4) Limited English proficient students;45674

       (5) Students identified as gifted in superior cognitive 45675
ability and specific academic ability fields under Chapter 3324. 45676
of the Revised Code. For students who are gifted in specific 45677
academic ability fields, the department shall use data for those 45678
students with specific academic ability in math and reading. If 45679
any other academic field is assessed, the department shall also 45680
include data for students with specific academic ability in that 45681
field.45682

       (6) Students in the lowest quintile for achievement 45683
statewide, as determined by a method prescribed by the state board 45684
of education.45685

       (C) "No Child Left Behind Act of 2001" includes the statutes 45686
codified at 20 U.S.C. 6301 et seq. and any amendments, waivers, or 45687
both thereto, rules and regulations promulgated pursuant to those 45688
statutes, guidance documents, and any other policy directives 45689
regarding implementation of that act issued by the United States 45690
department of education.45691

       (D) "Adequate yearly progress" means a measure of annual 45692
academic performance as calculated in accordance with the "No 45693
Child Left Behind Act of 2001." 45694

       (E) "Supplemental educational services" means additional 45695
academic assistance, such as tutoring, remediation, or other 45696
educational enrichment activities, that is conducted outside of 45697
the regular school day by a provider approved by the department in 45698
accordance with the "No Child Left Behind Act of 2001." 45699

       (F) "Value-added progress dimension" means a measure of 45700
academic gain for a student or group of students over a specific 45701
period of time that is calculated by applying a statistical 45702
methodology to individual student achievement data derived from 45703
the achievement assessments prescribed by section 3301.0710 of the 45704
Revised Code. The "value-added progress dimension" shall be 45705
developed and implemented in accordance with section 3302.021 of 45706
the Revised Code.45707

       (G)(1) "Four-year adjusted cohort graduation rate" means the 45708
number of students who graduate in four years or less with a 45709
regular high school diploma divided by the number of students who 45710
form the adjusted cohort for the graduating class.45711

       (2) "Five-year adjusted cohort graduation rate" means the 45712
number of students who graduate in five years with a regular high 45713
school diploma divided by the number of students who form the 45714
adjusted cohort for the four-year graduation rate.45715

        (H) "State institution of higher education" has the same 45716
meaning as in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.45717

       (I) "Annual measurable objectives" means a measure of student 45718
progress determined in accordance with an agreement between the 45719
department of education and the United States department of 45720
education.45721

       Sec. 3302.03.  Annually, not later than the fifteenth day of 45722
September or the preceding Friday when that day falls on a 45723
Saturday or Sunday, the department of education shall assign a 45724
letter grade for overall academic performance and for each 45725
separate performance measure for each school district, and each 45726
school building in a district, in accordance with this section. 45727
The state board shall adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the 45728
Revised Code to establish performance criteria for each letter 45729
grade and prescribe a method by which the department assigns each 45730
letter grade. For a school building to which any of the 45731
performance measures do not apply, due to grade levels served by 45732
the building, the state board shall designate the performance 45733
measures that are applicable to the building and that must be 45734
calculated separately and used to calculate the building's overall 45735
grade. The department shall issue annual report cards reflecting 45736
the performance of each school district, each building within each 45737
district, and for the state as a whole using the performance 45738
measures and letter grade system described in this section. The 45739
department shall include on the report card for each district and 45740
each building within each district the most recent two-year trend 45741
data in student achievement for each subject and each grade.45742

       (A)(1) For the 2012-2013 school year, the department shall 45743
issue grades as described in division (E) of this section for each 45744
of the following performance measures:45745

       (a) Annual measurable objectives; 45746

       (b) Performance index score for a school district or 45747
building. Grades shall be awarded as a percentage of the total 45748
possible points on the performance index system as adopted by the 45749
state board. In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades 45750
under division (A)(1)(b) of this section, the state board of 45751
education shall designate ninety per cent or higher for an "A," at 45752
least seventy per cent but not more than eighty per cent for a 45753
"C," and less than fifty per cent for an "F."45754

       (c) The extent to which the school district or building meets 45755
each of the applicable performance indicators established by the 45756
state board under section 3302.02 of the Revised Code and the 45757
percentage of applicable performance indicators that have been 45758
achieved. In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades under 45759
division (A)(1)(c) of this section, the state board shall 45760
designate ninety per cent or higher for an "A."45761

       (d) The four- and five-year adjusted cohort graduation rates.45762

        In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades under 45763
division (A)(1)(d), (B)(1)(d), or (C)(1)(d) of this section, the 45764
department shall designate a four-year adjusted cohort graduation 45765
rate of ninety-three per cent or higher for an "A" and a five-year 45766
cohort graduation rate of ninety-five per cent or higher for an 45767
"A."45768

       (e) The overall score under the value-added progress 45769
dimension of a school district or building, for which the 45770
department shall use up to three years of value-added data as 45771
available. The letter grade assigned for this growth measure shall 45772
be as follows:45773

       (i) A score that is at least two standard errors of measure 45774
above the mean score shall be designated as an "A."45775

       (ii) A score that is at least one standard error of measure 45776
but less than two standard errors of measure above the mean score 45777
shall be designated as a "B."45778

       (iii) A score that is less than one standard error of measure 45779
above the mean score but greater than or equal to one standard 45780
error of measure below the mean score shall be designated as a 45781
"C."45782

       (iv) A score that is not greater than one standard error of 45783
measure below the mean score but is greater than or equal to two 45784
standard errors of measure below the mean score shall be 45785
designated as a "D."45786

       (v) A score that is not greater than two standard errors of 45787
measure below the mean score shall be designated as an "F."45788

       Whenever the value-added progress dimension is used as a 45789
graded performance measure, whether as an overall measure or as a 45790
measure of separate subgroups, the grades for the measure shall be 45791
calculated in the same manner as prescribed in division (A)(1)(e) 45792
of this section.45793

       (f) The value-added progress dimension score for a school 45794
district or building disaggregated for each of the following 45795
subgroups: students identified as gifted, students with 45796
disabilities, and students whose performance places them in the 45797
lowest quintile for achievement on a statewide basis. Each 45798
subgroup shall be a separate graded measure.45799

       (2) Not later than April 30, 2013, the state board of 45800
education shall adopt a resolution describing the performance 45801
measures, benchmarks, and grading system for the 2012-2013 school 45802
year and, not later than June 30, 2013, shall adopt rules in 45803
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that prescribe 45804
the methods by which the performance measures under division 45805
(A)(1) of this section shall be assessed and assigned a letter 45806
grade, including performance benchmarks for each letter grade.45807

       At least forty-five days prior to the state board's adoption 45808
of rules to prescribe the methods by which the performance 45809
measures under division (A)(1) of this section shall be assessed 45810
and assigned a letter grade, the department shall conduct a public 45811
presentation before the standing committees of the house of 45812
representatives and the senate that consider education legislation 45813
describing such methods, including performance benchmarks.45814

       (3) There shall not be an overall letter grade for a school 45815
district or building for the 2012-2013 school year.45816

       (B)(1) For the 2013-2014 school year, the department shall 45817
issue grades as described in division (E) of this section for each 45818
of the following performance measures:45819

       (a) Annual measurable objectives; 45820

       (b) Performance index score for a school district or 45821
building. Grades shall be awarded as a percentage of the total 45822
possible points on the performance index system as created by the 45823
department. In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades 45824
under division (B)(1)(b) of this section, the state board shall 45825
designate ninety per cent or higher for an "A," at least seventy 45826
per cent but not more than eighty per cent for a "C," and less 45827
than fifty per cent for an "F."45828

       (c) The extent to which the school district or building meets 45829
each of the applicable performance indicators established by the 45830
state board under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and the 45831
percentage of applicable performance indicators that have been 45832
achieved. In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades under 45833
division (B)(1)(c) of this section, the state board shall 45834
designate ninety per cent or higher for an "A."45835

       (d) The four- and five-year adjusted cohort graduation rates;45836

       (e) The overall score under the value-added progress 45837
dimension of a school district or building, for which the 45838
department shall use up to three years of value-added data as 45839
available.45840

       (f) The value-added progress dimension score for a school 45841
district or building disaggregated for each of the following 45842
subgroups: students identified as gifted in superior cognitive 45843
ability and specific academic ability fields under Chapter 3324. 45844
of the Revised Code, students with disabilities, and students 45845
whose performance places them in the lowest quintile for 45846
achievement on a statewide basis. Each subgroup shall be a 45847
separate graded measure.45848

       (g) Whether a school district or building is making progress 45849
in improving literacy in grades kindergarten through three, as 45850
determined using a method prescribed by the state board. The state 45851
board shall adopt rules to prescribe benchmarks and standards for 45852
assigning grades to districts and buildings for purposes of 45853
division (B)(1)(j)(g) of this section. In adopting benchmarks for 45854
assigning letter grades under divisions (B)(1)(g) and (C)(1)(g) of 45855
this section, the state board shall determine progress made based 45856
on the reduction in the percentage of students scoring below grade 45857
level, or below proficient, compared from year to year on the 45858
English language artsreading and writing diagnostic assessments 45859
administered under section 3301.0715 of the Revised Code and the 45860
third grade English language arts assessment under section 45861
3301.0710 of the Revised Code, as applicable. The state board 45862
shall designate for a "C" grade a value that is not lower than the 45863
statewide average value for this measure. No grade shall be issued 45864
under divisions (B)(1)(g) and (C)(1)(j)(g) of this section for a 45865
district or building in which less than five per cent of students 45866
have scored below grade level on the diagnostic assessment 45867
administered to students in kindergarten under division (B)(1) of 45868
section 3313.608 of the Revised Code.45869

       (2) In addition to the graded measures in division (B)(1) of 45870
this section, the department shall include on a school district's 45871
or building's report card all of the following without an assigned 45872
letter grade:45873

       (a) The percentage of students enrolled in a district or 45874
building participating in advanced placement classes and the 45875
percentage of those students who received a score of three or 45876
better on advanced placement examinations;45877

        (b) The number of a district's or building's students who 45878
have earned at least three college credits through dual enrollment 45879
programs, such as the post-secondary enrollment options program 45880
under Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code and state-approved 45881
career-technical courses offered through dual enrollment or 45882
statewide articulation, that appear on a student's transcript or 45883
other official document, either of which is issued by the 45884
institution of higher education from which the student earned the 45885
college credit. The credits earned that are reported under 45886
divisions (B)(2)(b) and (C)(2)(c) of this section shall not 45887
include any that are remedial or developmental and shall include 45888
those that count toward the curriculum requirements established 45889
for completion of a degree.45890

       (c) The percentage of students enrolled in a district or 45891
building who have taken a national standardized test used for 45892
college admission determinations and the percentage of those 45893
students who are determined to be remediation-free in accordance 45894
with standards adopted under division (F) of section 3345.061 of 45895
the Revised Code;45896

        (d) The percentage of the district's or the building's 45897
students who receive industry credentials. The state board shall 45898
adopt criteria for acceptable industry credentials.45899

        (e) The percentage of students enrolled in a district or 45900
building who are participating in an international baccalaureate 45901
program and the percentage of those students who receive a score 45902
of four or better on the international baccalaureate examinations.45903

        (f) The percentage of the district's or building's students 45904
who receive an honors diploma under division (B) of section 45905
3313.61 of the Revised Code.45906

       (3) Not later than December 31, 2013, the state board shall 45907
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 45908
that prescribe the methods by which the performance measures under 45909
divisions (B)(1)(f) and (B)(1)(g) of this section will be assessed 45910
and assigned a letter grade, including performance benchmarks for 45911
each grade.45912

       At least forty-five days prior to the state board's adoption 45913
of rules to prescribe the methods by which the performance 45914
measures under division (B)(1) of this section shall be assessed 45915
and assigned a letter grade, the department shall conduct a public 45916
presentation before the standing committees of the house of 45917
representatives and the senate that consider education legislation 45918
describing such methods, including performance benchmarks.45919

       (4) There shall not be an overall letter grade for a school 45920
district or building for the 2013-2014 school year.45921

       (C)(1) For the 2014-2015 school year and each school year 45922
thereafter, the department shall issue grades as described in 45923
division (E) of this section for each of the following performance 45924
measures and an overall letter grade based on an aggregate of 45925
those measures:45926

       (a) Annual measurable objectives; 45927

       (b) Performance index score for a school district or 45928
building. Grades shall be awarded as a percentage of the total 45929
possible points on the performance index system as created by the 45930
department. In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades 45931
under division (C)(1)(b) of this section, the state board shall 45932
designate ninety per cent or higher for an "A," at least seventy 45933
per cent but not more than eighty per cent for a "C," and less 45934
than fifty per cent for an "F."45935

       (c) The extent to which the school district or building meets 45936
each of the applicable performance indicators established by the 45937
state board under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and the 45938
percentage of applicable performance indicators that have been 45939
achieved. In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades under 45940
division (C)(1)(c) of this section, the state board shall 45941
designate ninety per cent or higher for an "A."45942

       (d) The four- and five-year adjusted cohort graduation rates;45943

       (e) The overall score under the value-added progress 45944
dimension, or another measure of student academic progress if 45945
adopted by the state board, of a school district or building, for 45946
which the department shall use up to three years of value-added 45947
data as available.45948

       In adopting benchmarks for assigning letter grades for 45949
overall score on value-added progress dimension under division 45950
(C)(1)(e) of this section, the state board shall prohibit the 45951
assigning of a grade of "A" for that measure unless the district's 45952
or building's grade assigned for value-added progress dimension 45953
for all subgroups under division (C)(1)(i)(f) of this section is a 45954
"B" or higher.45955

       For the metric prescribed by division (C)(1)(e) of this 45956
section, the state board may adopt a student academic progress 45957
measure to be used instead of the value-added progress dimension. 45958
If the state board adopts such a measure, it also shall prescribe 45959
a method for assigning letter grades for the new measure that is 45960
comparable to the method prescribed in division (A)(1)(e) of this 45961
section.45962

       (f) The value-added progress dimension score of a school 45963
district or building disaggregated for each of the following 45964
subgroups: students identified as gifted in superior cognitive 45965
ability and specific academic ability fields under Chapter 3324. 45966
of the Revised Code, students with disabilities, and students 45967
whose performance places them in the lowest quintile for 45968
achievement on a statewide basis, as determined by a method 45969
prescribed by the state board. Each subgroup shall be a separate 45970
graded measure.45971

       The state board may adopt student academic progress measures 45972
to be used instead of the value-added progress dimension. If the 45973
state board adopts such measures, it also shall prescribe a method 45974
for assigning letter grades for the new measures that is 45975
comparable to the method prescribed in division (A)(1)(e) of this 45976
section.45977

       (g) Whether a school district or building is making progress 45978
in improving literacy in grades kindergarten through three, as 45979
determined using a method prescribed by the state board. The state 45980
board shall adopt rules to prescribe benchmarks and standards for 45981
assigning grades to a district or building for purposes of 45982
division (C)(1)(j)(g) of this section. The state board shall 45983
designate for a "C" grade a value that is not lower than the 45984
statewide average value for this measure. No grade shall be issued 45985
under division (C)(1)(g) of this section for a district or 45986
building in which less than five per cent of students have scored 45987
below grade level on the kindergarten diagnostic assessment under 45988
division (B)(1) of section 3313.608 of the Revised Code.45989

       (2) In addition to the graded measures in division (C)(1) of 45990
this section, the department shall include on a school district's 45991
or building's report card all of the following without an assigned 45992
letter grade:45993

        (a) The percentage of students enrolled in a district or 45994
building who have taken a national standardized test used for 45995
college admission determinations and the percentage of those 45996
students who are determined to be remediation-free in accordance 45997
with the standards adopted under division (F) of section 3345.061 45998
of the Revised Code;45999

        (b) The percentage of students enrolled in a district or 46000
building participating in advanced placement classes and the 46001
percentage of those students who received a score of three or 46002
better on advanced placement examinations;46003

        (c) The number of a district's or building's students who 46004
have earned at least three college credits through dual enrollment 46005
programs, such as the post-secondary enrollment options program 46006
under Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code and state-approved 46007
career-technical courses offered through dual enrollment or 46008
statewide articulation, that appear on a student's transcript or 46009
other official document, either of which is issued by the 46010
institution of higher education from which the student earned the 46011
college credit. The credits earned that are reported under 46012
divisions (B)(2)(b) and (C)(2)(c) of this section shall not 46013
include any that are remedial or developmental and shall include 46014
those that count toward the curriculum requirements established 46015
for completion of a degree.46016

        (d) The percentage of the district's or building's students 46017
who receive an honor's diploma under division (B) of section 46018
3313.61 of the Revised Code;46019

        (e) The percentage of the district's or building's students 46020
who receive industry credentials;46021

        (f) The percentage of students enrolled in a district or 46022
building who are participating in an international baccalaureate 46023
program and the percentage of those students who receive a score 46024
of four or better on the international baccalaureate examinations;46025

        (g) The results of the college and career-ready assessments 46026
administered under division (B)(1) of section 3301.0712 of the 46027
Revised Code.46028

        (3) The state board shall adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 46029
119. of the Revised Code that establish a method to assign an 46030
overall grade for a school district or school building for the 46031
2014-2015 school year and each school year thereafter. The rules 46032
shall group the performance measures in divisions (C)(1) and (2) 46033
of this section into the following components:46034

        (a) Gap closing, which shall include the performance measure 46035
in division (C)(1)(a) of this section;46036

        (b) Achievement, which shall include the performance measures 46037
in divisions (C)(1)(b) and (c) of this section;46038

        (c) Progress, which shall include the performance measures in 46039
divisions (C)(1)(e) and (i)(f) of this section;46040

        (d) Graduation, which shall include the performance measure 46041
in division (C)(1)(d) of this section;46042

        (e) Kindergarten through third-grade literacy, which shall 46043
include the performance measure in division (C)(1)(k)(g) of this 46044
section;46045

        (f) Prepared for success, which shall include the performance 46046
measures in divisions (C)(2)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), and (f) of 46047
this section. The state board shall develop a method to determine 46048
a grade for the component in division (C)(3)(f) of this section 46049
using the performance measures in divisions (C)(2)(a), (b), (c), 46050
(d), (e), and (f) of this section. When available, the state board 46051
may incorporate the performance measure under division (C)(2)(g) 46052
of this section into the component under division (C)(3)(f) of 46053
this section. When determining the overall grade for the prepared 46054
for success component prescribed by division (C)(3)(f) of this 46055
section, no individual student shall be counted in more than one 46056
performance measure. However, if a student qualifies for more than 46057
one performance measure in the component, the state board may, in 46058
its method to determine a grade for the component, specify an 46059
additional weight for such a student that is not greater than or 46060
equal to 1.0. In determining the overall score under division 46061
(C)(3)(f) of this section, the state board shall ensure that the 46062
pool of students included in the performance measures aggregated 46063
under that division are all of the students included in the four- 46064
and five-year adjusted graduation cohort.46065

        In the rules adopted under division (C)(3) of this section, 46066
the state board shall adopt a method for determining a grade for 46067
each component in divisions (C)(3)(a) to (f) of this section. The 46068
state board also shall establish a method to assign an overall 46069
grade of "A," "B," "C," "D," or "F" using the grades assigned for 46070
each component. The method the state board adopts for assigning an 46071
overall grade shall give equal weight to the components in 46072
divisions (C)(3)(b) and (c) of this section.46073

       At least forty-five days prior to the state board's adoption 46074
of rules to prescribe the methods for calculating the overall 46075
grade for the report card, as required by this division, the 46076
department shall conduct a public presentation before the standing 46077
committees of the house of representatives and the senate that 46078
consider education legislation describing the format for the 46079
report card, weights that will be assigned to the components of 46080
the overall grade, and the method for calculating the overall 46081
grade.46082

       (D) Not later than July 1, 2015, the state board shall 46083
develop a measure of student academic progress for high school 46084
students. Beginning with the report card for the 2015-2016 school 46085
year, each school district and applicable school building shall be 46086
assigned a separate letter grade for this measure and the 46087
district's or building's grade for that measure shall be included 46088
in determining the district's or building's overall letter grade. 46089
This measure shall be included within the measure prescribed in 46090
division (C)(2)(3)(c) of this section in the calculation for the 46091
overall letter grade.46092

       (E) The letter grades assigned to a school district or 46093
building under this section shall be as follows:46094

       (1) "A" for a district or school making excellent progress;46095

       (2) "B" for a district or school making above average 46096
progress;46097

       (3) "C" for a district or school making average progress;46098

       (4) "D" for a district or school making below average 46099
progress;46100

       (5) "F" for a district or school failing to meet minimum 46101
progress.46102

        (F) When reporting data on student achievement and progress, 46103
the department shall disaggregate that data according to the 46104
following categories: 46105

       (1) Performance of students by grade-level; 46106

       (2) Performance of students by race and ethnic group; 46107

       (3) Performance of students by gender; 46108

       (4) Performance of students grouped by those who have been 46109
enrolled in a district or school for three or more years; 46110

       (5) Performance of students grouped by those who have been 46111
enrolled in a district or school for more than one year and less 46112
than three years; 46113

       (6) Performance of students grouped by those who have been 46114
enrolled in a district or school for one year or less; 46115

       (7) Performance of students grouped by those who are 46116
economically disadvantaged; 46117

       (8) Performance of students grouped by those who are enrolled 46118
in a conversion community school established under Chapter 3314. 46119
of the Revised Code; 46120

       (9) Performance of students grouped by those who are 46121
classified as limited English proficient; 46122

       (10) Performance of students grouped by those who have 46123
disabilities; 46124

       (11) Performance of students grouped by those who are 46125
classified as migrants; 46126

       (12) Performance of students grouped by those who are 46127
identified as gifted in superior cognitive ability and the 46128
specific academic ability fields of reading and math pursuant to 46129
Chapter 3324. of the Revised Code. In disaggregating specific 46130
academic ability fields for gifted students, the department shall 46131
use data for those students with specific academic ability in math 46132
and reading. If any other academic field is assessed, the 46133
department shall also include data for students with specific 46134
academic ability in that field as well.46135

       (13) Performance of students grouped by those who perform in 46136
the lowest quintile for achievement on a statewide basis, as 46137
determined by a method prescribed by the state board. 46138

       The department may disaggregate data on student performance 46139
according to other categories that the department determines are 46140
appropriate. To the extent possible, the department shall 46141
disaggregate data on student performance according to any 46142
combinations of two or more of the categories listed in divisions 46143
(F)(1) to (13) of this section that it deems relevant. 46144

       In reporting data pursuant to division (F) of this section, 46145
the department shall not include in the report cards any data 46146
statistical in nature that is statistically unreliable or that 46147
could result in the identification of individual students. For 46148
this purpose, the department shall not report student performance 46149
data for any group identified in division (F) of this section that 46150
contains less than ten students. If the department does not report 46151
student performance data for a group because it contains less than 46152
ten students, the department shall indicate on the report card 46153
that is why data was not reported.46154

       (G) The department may include with the report cards any 46155
additional education and fiscal performance data it deems 46156
valuable. 46157

       (H) The department shall include on each report card a list 46158
of additional information collected by the department that is 46159
available regarding the district or building for which the report 46160
card is issued. When available, such additional information shall 46161
include student mobility data disaggregated by race and 46162
socioeconomic status, college enrollment data, and the reports 46163
prepared under section 3302.031 of the Revised Code. 46164

       The department shall maintain a site on the world wide web. 46165
The report card shall include the address of the site and shall 46166
specify that such additional information is available to the 46167
public at that site. The department shall also provide a copy of 46168
each item on the list to the superintendent of each school 46169
district. The district superintendent shall provide a copy of any 46170
item on the list to anyone who requests it. 46171

       (I) Division (I) of this section does not apply to conversion 46172
community schools that primarily enroll students between sixteen 46173
and twenty-two years of age who dropped out of high school or are 46174
at risk of dropping out of high school due to poor attendance, 46175
disciplinary problems, or suspensions. 46176

       (1) For any district that sponsors a conversion community 46177
school under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, the department 46178
shall combine data regarding the academic performance of students 46179
enrolled in the community school with comparable data from the 46180
schools of the district for the purpose of determining the 46181
performance of the district as a whole on the report card issued 46182
for the district under this section or section 3302.033 of the 46183
Revised Code. 46184

       (2) Any district that leases a building to a community school 46185
located in the district or that enters into an agreement with a 46186
community school located in the district whereby the district and 46187
the school endorse each other's programs may elect to have data 46188
regarding the academic performance of students enrolled in the 46189
community school combined with comparable data from the schools of 46190
the district for the purpose of determining the performance of the 46191
district as a whole on the district report card. Any district that 46192
so elects shall annually file a copy of the lease or agreement 46193
with the department. 46194

       (3) Any municipal school district, as defined in section 46195
3311.71 of the Revised Code, that sponsors a community school 46196
located within the district's territory, or that enters into an 46197
agreement with a community school located within the district's 46198
territory whereby the district and the community school endorse 46199
each other's programs, may exercise either or both of the 46200
following elections:46201

        (a) To have data regarding the academic performance of 46202
students enrolled in that community school combined with 46203
comparable data from the schools of the district for the purpose 46204
of determining the performance of the district as a whole on the 46205
district's report card;46206

        (b) To have the number of students attending that community 46207
school noted separately on the district's report card.46208

       The election authorized under division (I)(3)(a) of this 46209
section is subject to approval by the governing authority of the 46210
community school.46211

       Any municipal school district that exercises an election to 46212
combine or include data under division (I)(3) of this section, by 46213
the first day of October of each year, shall file with the 46214
department documentation indicating eligibility for that election, 46215
as required by the department.46216

       (J) The department shall include on each report card the 46217
percentage of teachers in the district or building who are highly 46218
qualified, as defined by the "No Child Left Behind Act of 2001," 46219
and a comparison of that percentage with the percentages of such 46220
teachers in similar districts and buildings. 46221

       (K)(1) In calculating English language arts, mathematics, 46222
social studies, or science assessment passage rates used to 46223
determine school district or building performance under this 46224
section, the department shall include all students taking an 46225
assessment with accommodation or to whom an alternate assessment 46226
is administered pursuant to division (C)(1) or (3) of section 46227
3301.0711 of the Revised Code. 46228

        (2) In calculating performance index scores, rates of 46229
achievement on the performance indicators established by the state 46230
board under section 3302.02 of the Revised Code, and annual 46231
measurable objectives for determining adequate yearly progress for 46232
school districts and buildings under this section, the department 46233
shall do all of the following: 46234

       (a) Include for each district or building only those students 46235
who are included in the ADM certified for the first full school 46236
week of October and are continuously enrolled in the district or 46237
building through the time of the spring administration of any 46238
assessment prescribed by division (A)(1) or (B)(1) of section 46239
3301.0710 of the Revised Code that is administered to the 46240
student's grade level; 46241

       (b) Include cumulative totals from both the fall and spring 46242
administrations of the third grade English language arts 46243
achievement assessment; 46244

       (c) Except as required by the "No Child Left Behind Act of 46245
2001," exclude for each district or building any limited English 46246
proficient student who has been enrolled in United States schools 46247
for less than one full school year.46248

       (L) Beginning with the 2015-2016 school year and at least 46249
once every three years thereafter, the state board of education 46250
shall review and may adjust the benchmarks for assigning letter 46251
grades to the performance measures and components prescribed under 46252
divisions (C)(3) and (D) of this section.46253

       Sec. 3302.032. (A) Not later than December 31, 2011, the 46254
state board of education shall establish a measure of the 46255
following:46256

       (1) Student success in meeting the benchmarks contained in 46257
the physical education standards adopted under division (A)(3) of 46258
section 3301.079 of the Revised Code;46259

       (2) Compliance with the requirements for local wellness 46260
policies prescribed by section 204 of the "Child Nutrition and WIC 46261
Reauthorization Act of 2004," 42 U.S.C. 1751 note;46262

       (3) Whether a school district or building has elected to 46263
administer the screenings authorized by sections 3313.674, 46264
3314.15, and 3326.26 of the Revised Code;46265

       (4) Whether a school district or building is participating in 46266
the physical activity pilot program administered under section 46267
3313.6016 of the Revised Code.46268

       (B) The measure shall be included on the school district and 46269
building report cards issued under section 3302.03 of the Revised 46270
Code, beginning with the report cards issued for the 2012-2013 46271
school year, but it shall not be a factor in the performance 46272
ratings issued under that section.46273

       (C) The department of education may accept, receive, and 46274
expend gifts, devises, or bequests of money for the purpose of 46275
establishing the measure required by this section.46276

       (D) The department shall not include students enrolled in an 46277
internet- or computer-based community school, as defined in 46278
section 3314.02 of the Revised Code, in any reports using the 46279
measures required under division (A) of this section.46280

       Sec. 3302.20.  (A) The department of education shall develop 46281
standards for determining, from the existing data reported in 46282
accordance with sections 3301.0714 and 3314.17 of the Revised 46283
Code, the amount of annual operating expenditures for classroom 46284
instructional purposes and for nonclassroom purposes for each 46285
city, exempted village, local, and joint vocational school 46286
district, each community school established under Chapter 3314. 46287
that is not an internet- or computer-based community school, each 46288
internet- or computer-based community school, and each STEM school 46289
established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code. The 46290
department shall present those standards to the state board of 46291
education for consideration. In developing the standards, the 46292
department shall adapt existing standards used by professional 46293
organizations, research organizations, and other state 46294
governments. The department also shall align the expenditure 46295
categories required for reporting under the standards with the 46296
categories that are required for reporting to the United States 46297
department of education under federal law.46298

       The state board shall consider the proposed standards and 46299
adopt a final set of standards not later than December 31, 2012. 46300
School districts, community schools, and STEM schools shall begin 46301
reporting data in accordance with the standards on June 30, 2013. 46302

       (B)(1) The department shall categorize all city, exempted 46303
village, and local school districts into not less than three nor 46304
more than five groups based primarily on average daily student 46305
enrollment as reported on the most recent report card issued for 46306
each district under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code. 46307

       (2) The department shall categorize all joint vocational 46308
school districts into not less than three nor more than five 46309
groups based primarily on average daily membership as reported 46310
under division (D) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code rounded 46311
to the nearest whole number.46312

       (3) The department shall categorize all community schools 46313
that are not internet- or computer-based community schools into 46314
not less than three nor more than five groups based primarily on 46315
average daily student enrollment as reported on the most recent 46316
report card issued for each community school under sections 46317
3302.03 and 3314.012 of the Revised Code or, in the case of a 46318
school to which section 3314.017 of the Revised Code applies, on 46319
the total number of students reported under divisions (B)(2)(a) 46320
and (b) of section 3314.08 of the Revised Code.46321

       (4) The department shall categorize all internet- or 46322
computer-based community schools into a single category.46323

       (5) The department shall categorize all STEM schools into a 46324
single category.46325

       (C) Using the standards adopted under division (A) of this 46326
section and the data reported under sections 3301.0714 and 3314.17 46327
of the Revised Code, the department shall compute annually for 46328
each fiscal year, the following:46329

       (1) The percentage of each district's, community school's, or 46330
STEM school's total operating budget spent for classroom 46331
instructional purposes;46332

       (2) The statewide average percentage for all districts, 46333
community schools, and STEM schools combined spent for classroom 46334
instructional purposes;46335

       (3) The average percentage for each of the categories of 46336
districts and schools established under division (B) of this 46337
section spent for classroom instructional purposes;46338

       (4) The ranking of each district, community school, or STEM 46339
school within its respective category established under division 46340
(B) of this section according to the following:46341

       (a) From highest to lowest percentage spent for classroom 46342
instructional purposes;46343

       (b) From lowest to highest percentage spent for 46344
noninstructional purposes. 46345

       (D) In its display of rankings within each category under 46346
division (C)(4) of this section, the department shall make the 46347
following notations:46348

       (1) Within each category of city, exempted village, and local 46349
school districts, the department shall denote each district that 46350
is:46351

       (a) Among the twenty per cent of all city, exempted village, 46352
and local school districts statewide with the lowest total 46353
operating expenditures per pupil;46354

       (b) Among the twenty per cent of all city, exempted village, 46355
and local school districts statewide with the highest performance 46356
index scores.46357

       (2) Within each category of joint vocational school 46358
districts, the department shall denote each district that is:46359

       (a) Among the twenty per cent of all joint vocational school 46360
districts statewide with the lowest total operating expenditures 46361
per pupil;46362

       (b) Among the twenty per cent of all joint vocational school 46363
districts statewide with the highest report card scores under 46364
section 3302.033 of the Revised Code.46365

       (3) Within each category of community schools that are not 46366
internet- or computer-based community schools, the department 46367
shall denote each school that is:46368

       (a) Among the twenty per cent of all such community schools 46369
statewide with the lowest total operating expenditures per pupil;46370

       (b) Among the twenty per cent of all such community schools 46371
statewide with the highest performance index scores, excluding 46372
such community schools to which section 3314.017 of the Revised 46373
Code applies. 46374

       (4) Within the category of internet- or computer-based 46375
community schools, the department shall denote each school that 46376
is:46377

       (a) Among the twenty per cent of all such community schools 46378
statewide with the lowest total operating expenditures per pupil;46379

       (b) Among the twenty per cent of all such community schools 46380
statewide with the highest performance index scores, excluding 46381
such community schools to which section 3314.017 of the Revised 46382
Code applies.46383

       (5) Within the category of STEM schools, the department shall 46384
denote each school that is:46385

       (a) Among the twenty per cent of all STEM schools statewide 46386
with the lowest total operating expenditures per pupil;46387

       (b) Among the twenty per cent of all STEM schools statewide 46388
with the highest performance index scores.46389

       For purposes of divisions (D)(3)(b) and (4)(b) of this 46390
section, the display shall note that, in accordance with section 46391
3314.017 of the Revised Code, a performance index score is not 46392
reported for some community schools that serve primarily students 46393
enrolled in dropout prevention and recovery programs.46394

       (E) The department shall post in a prominent location on its 46395
web site the information prescribed by divisions (C) and (D) of 46396
this section. The department also shall include on each 46397
district's, community school's, and STEM school's annual report 46398
card issued under section 3302.03 or 3314.017 of the Revised Code 46399
the respective information computed for the district or school 46400
under divisions (C)(1) and (4) of this section, the statewide 46401
information computed under division (C)(2) of this section, and 46402
the information computed for the district's or school's category 46403
under division (C)(3) of this section. 46404

       (F) As used in this section:46405

       (1) "Internet- or computer-based community school" has the 46406
same meaning as in section 3314.02 of the Revised Code.46407

       (2) A school district's, community school's, or STEM school's 46408
performance index score rank is its performance index score rank 46409
as computed under section 3302.21 of the Revised Code.46410

       (3) "Operating expenditures per pupil" has the same meaning 46411
as "expenditure per equivalent pupils" as defined in section 46412
3302.26 of the Revised Code.46413

       Sec. 3302.21.  (A) The department of education shall develop 46414
a system to rank order all city, exempted village, and local 46415
school districts, community schools established under Chapter 46416
3314. of the Revised Code except those community schools to which 46417
section 3314.017 of the Revised Code applies, and STEM schools 46418
established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code according to 46419
the following measures:46420

       (1) Performance index score for each school district, 46421
community school, and STEM school and for each separate building 46422
of a district, community school, or STEM school. For districts, 46423
schools, or buildings to which the performance index score does 46424
not apply, the superintendent of public instruction may develop 46425
another measure of student academic performance based on similar 46426
data and performance measures if appropriate and use that measure 46427
to include those buildings in the ranking so that districts, 46428
schools, and buildings may be reliably compared to each other.46429

       (2) Student performance growth from year to year, using the 46430
value-added progress dimension, if applicable, and other measures 46431
of student performance growth designated by the superintendent of 46432
public instruction for subjects and grades not covered by the 46433
value-added progress dimension or the alternative student academic 46434
progress measure if adopted under division (C)(1)(e) of section 46435
3302.03 of the Revised Code;46436

       (3) Current operating expenditures per pupil as determined 46437
under standards adopted by the state board of education under 46438
section 3302.20 of the Revised Code;46439

       (4) Of total current operating expenditures, percentage spent 46440
for classroom instruction as determined under standards adopted by 46441
the state board under section 3302.20 of the Revised Code;46442

       (5) Performance of, and opportunities provided to, students 46443
identified as gifted using value-added progress dimensions, if 46444
applicable, and other relevant measures as designated by the 46445
superintendent of public instruction.46446

       The department shall rank each district, each community 46447
school except a community school to which section 3314.017 of the 46448
Revised Code applies, and each STEM school annually in accordance 46449
with the system developed under this section.46450

       (B) In addition to the reports required by sections 3302.03 46451
and 3302.031 of the Revised Code, not later than the first day of 46452
September each year, the department shall issue a report for each 46453
city, exempted village, and local school district, each community 46454
school except a community school to which section 3314.017 of the 46455
Revised Code applies, and each STEM school indicating the 46456
district's or school's rank on each measure described in divisions 46457
(A)(1) to (4) of this section, including each separate building's 46458
rank among all public school buildings according to performance 46459
index score under division (A)(1) of this section.46460

       (C) As used in this section, "operating expenditures per 46461
pupil" has the same meaning as "expenditure per equivalent pupils" 46462
as defined in section 3302.26 of the Revised Code.46463

       Sec. 3302.22.  (A) The governor's effective and efficient 46464
schools recognition program is hereby created. Each year, the 46465
governor shall recognize, in a manner deemed appropriate by the 46466
governor, the top ten per cent of all public schools in this 46467
state, including schools of city, exempted village, and local 46468
school districts, or joint vocational school districts, community 46469
schools established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, and 46470
STEM schools established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code.46471

       (B) The top ten per cent of schools shall be determined by 46472
the department of education according to standards established by 46473
the department, in consultation with the governor's office of 21st 46474
century education. The standards for recognition for each type of 46475
school may vary depending upon the unique characteristics of that 46476
type of school. The standards shall include, but need not be 46477
limited to, both of the following, provided that sufficient data 46478
is available for each school:46479

       (1) Student performance, as determined by factors including46480
that may include, but not be limited to, performance indicators 46481
under section 3302.02 of the Revised Code, report cards issued 46482
under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code, performance index score 46483
rankings under section 3302.21 of the Revised Code, and any other 46484
statewide or national assessment or student performance 46485
recognition program the department selects;46486

       (2) Fiscal performance, includingwhich may include46487
cost-effective measures taken by the school.46488

       (C) If applicable, the standards under divisions (B)(1) and 46489
(2) of this section may be applied at the school building or 46490
district level, depending upon the quality and availability of 46491
data.46492

       Sec. 3302.26. (A) As used in this section:46493

       (1) "Expenditure per equivalent pupils" is the total 46494
operating expenditures of a school district divided by the measure 46495
of equivalent pupils.46496

       (2) "Measure of equivalent pupils" is the total number of 46497
students in a school district adjusted for the relative 46498
differences in costs associated with the unique characteristics 46499
and needs of each category of pupil.46500

       (B) The department of education shall create a performance 46501
management section on the department's public web site. The 46502
performance management section shall include information on 46503
academic and financial performance metrics for each school 46504
district to assist schools and districts in providing an effective 46505
and efficient delivery of educational services. The section shall 46506
include a graph that illustrates the relationship between a 46507
district's academic performance, as measured by the performance 46508
index score, and its expenditure per equivalent pupils as compared 46509
to similar districts. The section shall include statistics of 46510
academic and financial performance measures for each school 46511
district to allow for a comparison and benchmarking between 46512
districts.46513

       (C) The department may contract with an independent 46514
organization to develop and host the performance management 46515
section of its web site.46516

       Sec. 3303.41.  There is hereby created the governor's council 46517
on people with disabilities. The council shall consist of 46518
twenty-one members of which the majority shall be people with 46519
disabilities as defined in this section, appointed by the governor 46520
for a term of three years except that for initial appointments, 46521
seven members shall be appointed for a term of one year, seven 46522
members shall be appointed for a term of two years, and seven 46523
members shall be appointed for a term of three years. Members may 46524
succeed themselves not more than one time. The governor shall 46525
annually appoint a chairmanchairperson who may succeed himself or 46526
herself not more than one time. Members of the council shall serve 46527
without compensation, but shall be paid the actual and necessary 46528
expenses they incur in the performance of their duties.46529

       The council shall meet at least six times annually at such 46530
times and places as may be designated by the chairmanchairperson.46531

       The governor's council on people with disabilities shall be 46532
assigned to the rehabilitation services commissionopportunities 46533
for Ohioans with disabilities agency for administrative purposes. 46534
The administratorexecutive director of the rehabilitation 46535
services commissionopportunities for Ohioans with disabilities 46536
agency shall assign one professional staff person to the council 46537
to serve as executive secretary and other personnel as determined 46538
advisable.46539

       The council shall have the following powers:46540

       (A) To cooperate with the president's committee on employment 46541
of the handicapped;46542

       (B) To cooperate with all employers both public and private 46543
in locating or developing employment opportunities for people with 46544
disabilities;46545

       (C) To encourage and assist in the creation of committees at 46546
the community level;46547

       (D) To assist local, state, and federal agencies to 46548
coordinate their activities for the purpose of securing maximum 46549
utilization of funds and efforts that benefit people with 46550
disabilities;46551

       (E) To encourage cooperation among public and private 46552
employers, unions, and rehabilitation agencies, bureaus, and 46553
organizations both public and private with a specific goal to 46554
facilitate employment of people with disabilities;46555

       (F) To serve in an advisory capacity to the governor's office 46556
directly and as needed to the general assembly on issues relating 46557
to the needs, problems, and other concerns of people with 46558
disabilities;46559

       (G) To conduct educational programs to acquaint the public 46560
with the abilities and accomplishments of people with 46561
disabilities;46562

       (H) To promote the elimination of architectural barriers to 46563
make buildings used by the public accessible and useable by 46564
persons with physical limitations;46565

       (I) To make such rules as it determines advisable for the 46566
conduct of its own business.46567

       The council shall annually report to the governor on council 46568
activities and on the state of Ohio'sthe people of this state46569
with disabilities. This report may include any recommendations 46570
believed necessary or desirable to carry out the purposes of this 46571
section.46572

       As used in this section, "person with a disability" means any 46573
individual who has a disability or condition whichthat, 46574
regardless of its physical or mental origin, imposes a functional 46575
limitation. It46576

       It shall be lawful for any public employee or officer to 46577
serve as a member of the council.46578

       Sec. 3304.11.  As used in sections 3304.11 to 3304.27, 46579
inclusive, of the Revised Code:46580

       (A) "Handicapped person" or "disabled person""Person with a 46581
disability" means any person with a physical or mental disability 46582
whichimpairment that is a substantial handicapimpediment to 46583
employment and which is of a nature thatwho can benefit in terms 46584
of an employment outcome from the provision of vocational 46585
rehabilitation services may reasonably be expected to render him 46586
fit to engage in a gainful occupation consistent with his 46587
capacities and abilities, and any person with a physical or mental 46588
disability that constitutes a substantial handicap to employment 46589
for whom vocational rehabilitation services are necessary to 46590
determine his rehabilitation potential.46591

       (B) "Physical or mental disabilityimpairment" means a 46592
physical or mental condition that materially limits, contributes 46593
to limiting or, if not corrected, will probably result in limiting 46594
a person's activities or functioning.46595

       (C) "Substantial handicapimpediment to employment" means a 46596
physical or mental disability that impedes a person's occupational 46597
performance, by preventing histhe person's obtaining, retaining, 46598
or preparing for a gainful occupation consistent with histhe 46599
person's capacities and abilities.46600

       (D) "Vocational rehabilitation" and "vocational 46601
rehabilitation services" means any activity or service calculated 46602
to enable a handicapped person with a disability or groups of 46603
handicapped persons with disabilities to engage in gainful 46604
occupation and includes, but is not limited to, medical and 46605
vocational evaluation, including diagnostic and related services, 46606
vocational counseling, guidance and placement, including follow-up 46607
services, rehabilitation training, including books and other 46608
training materials, physical restoration, recruitment and training 46609
services designed to provide handicapped persons with disabilities46610
new employment opportunities, maintenance, occupational tools, 46611
equipment, supplies, transportation, services to families of 46612
handicapped persons whichwith disabilities that contribute 46613
substantially to the rehabilitation of these persons, and any 46614
other goods or service necessary to render a handicapped person 46615
with a disability employable.46616

       (E) "Establishment of a rehabilitation facility" means the 46617
expansion, remodeling, or alteration of an existing building, 46618
whichthat is necessary to adapt or to increase the effectiveness 46619
of that building for rehabilitation facility purposes, the 46620
acquisition of equipment for these purposes, and the initial 46621
staffing.46622

       (F) "Construction" means the construction of new buildings, 46623
acquisition of land or existing buildings and their expansion, 46624
remodeling, alteration and renovation, and the initial staffing 46625
and equipment of any new, newly acquired, expanded, remodeled, 46626
altered, or renovated buildings.46627

       (G) "Physical restoration services" means those services46628
whichthat are necessary to correct or substantially modify within 46629
a reasonable period of time a physical or mental condition which46630
that is stable or slowly progressive.46631

       (H) "Occupational license" means any license, permit, or 46632
other written authority required by any governmental unit in order 46633
to engage in any occupation or business.46634

       (I) "Maintenance" means money payments to disabled persons 46635
with disabilities who need financial assistance for their 46636
subsistence during their vocational rehabilitation.46637

       Sec. 3304.12.  (A) The governor, with the advice and consent 46638
of the senate, shall appoint a rehabilitation servicesthe 46639
opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities commission within the 46640
opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency consisting of 46641
seven members, no more than four of whom shall be members of the 46642
same political party and who shall include at least three from 46643
rehabilitation professions, including at least one member from the 46644
field of services to the blind, and at least four handicapped46645
individuals with disabilities, no less than two nor more than 46646
three of whom have received vocational rehabilitation services 46647
offered by a state vocational rehabilitation agency or the 46648
veterans' administration. Such handicappedThe members with 46649
disabilities shall be representative of several major categories 46650
of handicapped persons with disabilities served by the commission46651
opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency.46652

       (B) Of the members first appointed to the commission, one 46653
shall be appointed for a term of seven years, one for a term of 46654
six years, one for a term of five years, one for a term of four 46655
years, one for a term of three years, one for a term of two years, 46656
and one for a term of one year. Thereafter, termsTerms of office 46657
shall be for seven years, commencing on the ninth day of September 46658
and ending on the eighth day of September, with no person eligible 46659
to serve more than two seven-year terms. Each member shall hold 46660
office from the date of his appointment until the end of the term 46661
for which hethe member was appointed. Any member appointed to 46662
fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for 46663
which histhe member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office 46664
for the remainder of suchthat term. Any member shall continue in 46665
office subsequent to the expiration date of histhe member's term 46666
until hisa successor takes office, or until a period of sixty 46667
days has elapsed, whichever occurs first. Members appointed to the 46668
commission after September 1, 1977, shall be handicapped 46669
individuals representing those who have received vocational 46670
rehabilitation services offered by a state vocational 46671
rehabilitaion agency or the veterans' administration until the 46672
commission membership includes at least four such individuals.46673
Members who fail to perform their duties or who are guilty of 46674
misconduct may be removed on written charges preferred by the 46675
governor or by a majority of the commission.46676

       (C) Members of the commission shall be reimbursed for travel 46677
and necessary expenses incurred in the conduct of their duties, 46678
and shall receive an amount fixed pursuant to division (J) of 46679
section 124.15 of the Revised Code while actually engaged in 46680
attendance at meetings or in the performance of their duties.46681

       Sec. 3304.13.  The rehabilitation services commission46682
opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities commission shall hold 46683
its first meeting at the call of the governor, and at that 46684
meeting, shall elect one of its members as chairmanchairperson46685
and adopt rules governing the time and place of regular meetings, 46686
which shall be held not less than once every four months. Special 46687
meetings shall be held at the call of the chairmanchairperson or 46688
any three members of the commission. The chairmanchairperson46689
shall serve for four years, unless removed earlier by a majority 46690
vote of the commission, and shall be ineligible to serve as 46691
chairmanchairperson during the succeeding four years. Each member 46692
of the commission, before entering upon the duties of office, 46693
shall take and subscribe an oath to uphold the constitution and 46694
laws of the United States and this state and to perform the duties 46695
of office honestly, faithfully, and impartially. Each member shall 46696
give a bond of five thousand dollars, with a sufficient surety 46697
approved by the treasurer of state. After approval, the bond shall 46698
be filed with the secretary of state. If the bond is executed by a 46699
surety company, the premiums on it shall be paid from the funds 46700
appropriated for the expenses of the rehabilitation services 46701
commissionopportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency.46702

       Sec. 3304.16.        Sec. 3304.14. In carrying outFor the purposes of 46703
sections 3304.11 to 3304.27 of the Revised Code, the 46704
rehabilitation services commissionopportunities for Ohioans with 46705
disabilities commission shall approve the state vocational 46706
rehabilitation plan, jointly approve the state plan for 46707
independent living with the Ohio state independent living council, 46708
appoint a consumer advisory committee, and, to the extent 46709
feasible, conduct a review and analysis of the effectiveness of 46710
and consumer satisfaction with all of the following:46711

       (A) Shall develop all necessary rulesThe functions performed 46712
by the opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency;46713

       (B) Shall prepare and submit to the governor annual reports 46714
of activities and expenditures and, prior to each first regular 46715
session of the general assembly, an estimate of sums required to 46716
carry out the commission's responsibilitiesThe vocational 46717
rehabilitation services provided by state agencies and other 46718
public and private entities responsible for providing vocational 46719
rehabilitation services to persons with disabilities under the 46720
"Rehabilitation Act of 1973," 87 Stat. 355, 29 U.S.C. 701, as 46721
amended;46722

       (C) Shall certify any disbursement of funds available to the 46723
commission for vocational rehabilitation activities;46724

       (D) Shall serve as the sole state agency designated to 46725
administer the plan under the "Rehabilitation Act of 1973," 87 46726
Stat. 355, 29 U.S.C. 701, as amended;46727

       (E) Shall take appropriate action to guarantee rights of and 46728
services to handicapped persons;46729

       (F) Shall consult with and advise other state agencies to 46730
assist them in meeting the needs of handicapped persons more 46731
effectively and to achieve maximum coordination among programs for 46732
the handicapped;46733

       (G) Shall establish an administrative division of consumer 46734
affairs and advocacy within the commission to promote and help 46735
guarantee the rights of handicapped persons;46736

       (H) Shall maintain an inventory of state services that are 46737
available to handicapped persons;46738

       (I) Shall utilize, support, assist, and cooperate with the 46739
governor's committee on employment of the handicapped;46740

       (J) May delegate to any officer or employee of the commission 46741
any necessary powers and duties, except that the commission shall 46742
delegate to the administrator of the commission, as provided in 46743
section 3304.14 of the Revised Code, the power and duty to 46744
administer the daily operation and provision of vocational 46745
rehabilitation services;46746

       (K) May take any other necessary or appropriate action for 46747
cooperation with public and private agencies and organizations 46748
which may include:46749

       (1) Reciprocal agreements with other states to provide for 46750
the vocational rehabilitation of individuals within the states 46751
concerned;46752

       (2) Contracts or other arrangements with public and other 46753
nonprofit agencies and organizations for the construction or 46754
establishment and operation of vocational rehabilitation programs 46755
and facilities;46756

       (3) Cooperative arrangements with the federal government for 46757
carrying out sections 3304.11 to 3304.27 of the Revised Code, the 46758
"Vocational Rehabilitation Act," 41 Stat. 735 (1920), 29 U.S.C. 46759
31, as amended, or other federal statutes pertaining to vocational 46760
rehabilitation, and to this end, may adopt plans and methods of 46761
administration found necessary by the federal government for the 46762
efficient operation of any joint arrangements or the efficient 46763
application of any federal statutes;46764

       (4) Upon the designation of the governor, performing 46765
functions and services for the federal government relating to 46766
individuals under a physical or mental disability.46767

       (L) May take any appropriate action necessary to obtain 46768
federal funds in the maximum amount and most advantageous 46769
proportion possible;46770

       (M) May conduct research and demonstration projects, 46771
including inquiries concerning the causes of blindness and its 46772
prevention, provide training and instruction, including the 46773
establishment and maintenance of research fellowships and 46774
traineeships along with all necessary stipends and allowances, 46775
disseminate information, and provide technical assistance relating 46776
to vocational rehabilitation;46777

       (N) May plan, establish, and operate programs, facilities, 46778
and services relating to vocational rehabilitation;46779

       (O) May accept and hold, invest, reinvest, or otherwise use 46780
gifts made for the purpose of furthering vocational 46781
rehabilitation;46782

       (P) May ameliorate the condition of the aged blind or other 46783
severely disabled individuals by establishing a program of home 46784
visitation by commission employees for the purpose of instruction;46785

       (Q) May establish and manage small business enterprises that 46786
are operated by persons with a substantial handicap to employment, 46787
including blind persons;46788

       (R) May purchase from insurance companies licensed to do 46789
business in this state any insurance deemed necessary by the 46790
commission for the efficient operation of a suitable vending 46791
facility as defined in division (A) of section 3304.28 of the 46792
Revised Code;46793

       (S) May accept directly from any state agency, and any state 46794
agency may transfer directly to the commission, surplus computers 46795
and computer equipment to be used for any purposes the commission 46796
considers appropriate, notwithstanding sections 125.12 to 125.14 46797
of the Revised CodeThe employment outcomes achieved by eligible 46798
individuals receiving services under sections 3304.11 to 3304.27 46799
of the Revised Code, including the availability of health and 46800
other employment benefits in connection with those employment 46801
outcomes.46802

       Sec. 3304.14.        Sec. 3304.15. (A) There is hereby created the 46803
opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency. The agency is 46804
the designated state unit authorized under the "Rehabilitation Act 46805
of 1973," 87 Stat. 355, 29 U.S.C. 701, as amended, to provide 46806
vocational rehabilitation to eligible persons with disabilities.46807

       (B) The governor shall appoint an administratorexecutive 46808
director of the rehabilitation services commissionopportunities 46809
for Ohioans with disabilities agency to serve at the pleasure of 46810
the governor and shall fix the administrator'sexecutive 46811
director's compensation. The administratorexecutive director46812
shall devote the administrator'sexecutive director's entire time 46813
to the duties of the administrator'sexecutive director's office, 46814
shall hold no other office or position of trust and profit, and 46815
shall engage in no other business during the administrator's46816
executive director's term of office. The governor may grant the 46817
administratorexecutive director the authority to appoint, remove, 46818
and discipline without regard to sex, race, creed, color, age, or 46819
national origin, such other professional, administrative, and 46820
clerical staff members as are necessary to carry out the functions 46821
and duties of the commissionagency.46822

       (B)(1)The executive director of the opportunities for 46823
Ohioans with disabilities agency is the executive and 46824
administrative officer of the agency. Whenever the Revised Code 46825
imposes a duty on or requires an action of the agency, the 46826
executive director shall perform the duty or action on behalf of 46827
the agency. The executive director may establish procedures for 46828
all of the following:46829

       (1) The governance of the agency;46830

       (2) The conduct of agency employees and officers;46831

       (3) The performance of agency business;46832

       (4) The custody, use, and preservation of agency records, 46833
papers, books, documents, and property.46834

       (C) The administratorexecutive director shall have exclusive 46835
authority to administer the daily operation and provision of 46836
vocational rehabilitation services under this chapter. In 46837
exercising that authority, the executive director may do all of 46838
the following:46839

       (1) Adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 46840
Revised Code;46841

       (2) Prepare and submit an annual report to the governor;46842

       (3) Certify any disbursement of funds available to the agency 46843
for vocational rehabilitation activities;46844

       (4) Take appropriate action to guarantee rights of services 46845
to people with disabilities;46846

       (5) Consult with and advise other state agencies and 46847
coordinate programs for persons with disabilities;46848

       (6) Comply with the requirements for match as part of budget 46849
submission;46850

       (7) Establish research and demonstration projects;46851

       (8) Accept, hold, invest, reinvest, or otherwise use gifts to 46852
further vocational rehabilitation;46853

       (9) For the purposes of the business enterprise program 46854
administered under sections 3304.28 to 3304.35 of the Revised 46855
Code:46856

       (a) Establish and manage small business entities owned or 46857
operated by visually impaired persons;46858

       (b) Purchase insurance;46859

       (c) Accept computers.46860

       (10) Enter into contracts and other agreements for the 46861
provision of services.46862

       (2)(D) The administratorexecutive director shall establish a 46863
fee schedule for vocational rehabilitation services in accordance 46864
with 34 C.F.R. 361.50.46865

       Sec. 3304.15.        Sec. 3304.16.  The rehabilitation services commission46866
executive director of the opportunities for Ohioans with 46867
disabilities agency shall establish administrative subdivisions 46868
under its control as it determines necessary or appropriate to 46869
carry out itsthe agency's functions and duties, but there shall 46870
be a bureau of services for the visually impaired and a bureau of 46871
vocational rehabilitation, each of which has as its head a deputy46872
director appointed by the administrator, subject to commission46873
approvalexecutive director. The commissionexecutive director46874
shall prescribe the budgets for the government of each division, 46875
and rules for the conduct of its employees, the performance of its 46876
business, and the custody, use, and preservation of the records, 46877
papers, books, documents, and property pertaining thereto.46878

       Sec. 3304.17.  The rehabilitation services commission46879
opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency shall provide 46880
vocational rehabilitation services to all eligible handicapped46881
persons with disabilities, including any handicapped person with a 46882
disability who is eligible under the terms of an agreement or 46883
arrangement with another state or with the federal government.46884

       Sec. 3304.18.  The treasurer of state shall be the custodian 46885
of all moneys received from the federal government for vocational 46886
rehabilitation programs and shall disburse the money upon the 46887
certification of the rehabilitation services commissionexecutive 46888
director of the opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities 46889
agency. If federal funds are not available to the state for 46890
vocational rehabilitation purposes, the governor shall include as 46891
part of histhe governor's biennial budget request to the general 46892
assembly a request for funds sufficient to support the activities 46893
of the commissionagency.46894

       Sec. 3304.181.  If the total of all funds available from 46895
nonfederal sources to support the activities of the rehabilitation 46896
services commissionopportunities for Ohioans with disabilities 46897
agency does not comply with the expenditure requirements of 34 46898
C.F.R. 361.60 and 361.62 for those activities or would cause the 46899
state to lose an allotment or fail to receive a reallotment under 46900
34 C.F.R. 361.65, the commissionagency may solicit additional 46901
funds from, and enter into agreements for the use of those funds 46902
with, private or public entities, including local government 46903
entities of this state. The commissionagency may continue to 46904
solicit additional funds and enter into agreements until the total 46905
funding available is sufficient for the commissionagency to 46906
receive federal funds at the maximum amount and in the most 46907
advantageous proportion possible.46908

       Any agreement entered into between the commissionagency and 46909
a private or public entity to provide funds under this section 46910
shall be in accordance with 34 C.F.R. 361.28 and section 3304.182 46911
of the Revised Code.46912

       Sec. 3304.182.  Any agreement between the rehabilitation 46913
services commissionopportunities for Ohioans with disabilities 46914
agency and a private or public entity providing funds under 46915
section 3304.181 of the Revised Code may permit the commission46916
agency to receive a specified percentage of the funds, but the 46917
percentage shall be not more than twenty-five per cent of the 46918
total funds available under the agreement. The commissionagency46919
may terminate an agreement at any time for just cause. It may 46920
terminate an agreement for any other reason by giving at least 46921
thirty days' notice to the public or private entity.46922

       Any services provided under an agreement entered into under 46923
section 3304.181 of the Revised Code shall be provided by a person 46924
or government entity that meets the accreditation standards 46925
established in rules adopted by the commissionagency under 46926
section 3304.163304.15 of the Revised Code.46927

       Sec. 3304.19.  The right of a handicapped person with a 46928
disability to living maintenance under sections 3304.11 to 46929
3304.27, inclusive, of the Revised Code, is not transferable or 46930
assignable at law or in equity, and none of the money paid or 46931
payable or rights existing under this actchapter are subject to 46932
execution, levy, attachment, garnishment, or other legal process, 46933
or to the operation of any bankruptcy or insolvency law.46934

       Sec. 3304.20.  Any person applying for or receiving 46935
vocational rehabilitation services who is dissatisfied with regard 46936
to the furnishing or denial of services, may file a request for an 46937
administrative review and redetermination of that action in 46938
accordance with rules of the rehabilitation services commission46939
opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency. When the 46940
person is dissatisfied with the finding of this administrative 46941
review, hethe person is entitled, in accordance with commission46942
agency rules and in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 46943
Code, to a fair hearing before the administratorexecutive 46944
director of the rehabilitation services commissionagency.46945

       Sec. 3304.21.  No person shall, except for the purposes of 46946
sections 3304.11 to 3304.27, inclusive, of the Revised Code, and 46947
in accordance with the rules established by the rehabilitation 46948
services commissionopportunities for Ohioans with disabilities 46949
agency, solicit, disclose, receive, make use of, authorize, 46950
knowingly permit, participate in, or acquiesce in the use of any 46951
list of names or information concerning persons applying for or 46952
receiving any services from the commissionagency, which 46953
information is directly or indirectly derived from the records of 46954
the agency or is acquired in the performance of the person's 46955
official duties.46956

       Sec. 3304.22.  No officer or employee of the rehabilitation 46957
servicesopportunities for Ohioans with disabilities commission, 46958
the opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency, or any 46959
person engaged in the administration of a vocational 46960
rehabilitation program sponsored by or affiliated with the state 46961
shall use or permit the use of any vocational rehabilitation 46962
program for the purpose of interfering with an election for any 46963
partisan political purpose; solicit or receive money for a 46964
partisan political purpose; or require any other person to 46965
contribute any service or money for a partisan political purpose. 46966
Whoever violates this section shall be removed from histhe 46967
officer's or employee's office or employment.46968

       Sec. 3304.25.  The members of the bureauconsumer advisory 46969
committeescommittee appointed under section 3304.14 of the 46970
Revised Code shall receive no compensation for their services 46971
except their actual and necessary traveling and other expenses 46972
incurred in the performance of their official duties, which shall 46973
first be approved by the administratorexecutive director of the 46974
rehabilitation services commissionopportunities for Ohioans with 46975
disabilities agency.46976

       Sec. 3304.27.  All vocational rehabilitation services made 46977
available under sections 3304.11 to 3304.27, inclusive, of the 46978
Revised Code, are made available subject to amendment or repeal of 46979
those sections 3304.11 to 3304.27, inclusive, of the Revised Code, 46980
and no disabled person with a disability shall have any claim by 46981
reason of histhe person's vocational rehabilitation being 46982
affected in any way by such an amendment or repeal.46983

       Sec. 3304.28.  As used in sections 3304.28 to 3304.34 of the 46984
Revised Code:46985

       (A) "Suitable vending facility" means automatic vending 46986
machines, cafeterias, snack bars, cart service shelters, counters, 46987
and other appropriate auxiliary food service equipment determined 46988
to be necessary by the bureau of services for the visually 46989
impaired for the automatic or manual dispensing of foods, 46990
beverages, and other such commodities for sale by persons, no 46991
fewer than one-half of whom are blind, under the supervision of a 46992
licensed blind vendor or an employee of the commission46993
opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency.46994

       (B) "Blind" means either of the following:46995

       (1) Vision twenty/two hundred or less in the better eye with 46996
proper correction;46997

       (2) Field defect in the better eye with proper correction46998
whichthat contracts the peripheral field so that the diameter of 46999
the visual field subtends an angle no greater than twenty degrees.47000

       (C) "Governmental property" means any real property, 47001
building, or facility owned, leased, or rented by the state or any 47002
board, commission, department, division, or other unit or agency 47003
thereof, but does not include any institution under the management 47004
of the department of rehabilitation and correction pursuant to 47005
section 5120.05 of the Revised Code, or under the management of 47006
the department of youth services created pursuant to section 47007
5139.01 of the Revised Code.47008

       Sec. 3304.41.  The rehabilitation services commission47009
opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency shall establish 47010
and administer a program for the use of funds appropriated for 47011
that purpose to provide personal care assistance to enable 47012
eligible severely physically disabled persons to live 47013
independently or work, shall adopt rules in accordance with 47014
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary to carry out the 47015
purposes of this section, and shall apply to the controlling board 47016
for the release of the funds.47017

       Sec. 3305.03.  (A) The Ohio board of regents shall designate 47018
the entities that are eligible to provide investment options under 47019
alternative retirement plans maintained by public institutions of 47020
higher education. The board shall accept and review applications 47021
from entities seeking designation as a vendor. The board shall not 47022
designate an entity as a vendor unless the entity meets the 47023
requirements described in division (B) of this section.47024

       (B) To be eligible for designation as a vendor, an entity 47025
must meet both of the following requirements:47026

       (1) The entity must be authorized to conduct business in this 47027
state with regard to the investment options to be offered under an 47028
alternative retirement plan maintained by a public institution of 47029
higher education.47030

       (2) The entity must offermeet one of the following 47031
requirements:47032

       (a) Have provided investment options for not less than ten 47033
years under alternative retirement plans maintained by public 47034
institutions of higher education in this state;47035

       (b) Offer the same or similar investment options under 47036
alternative retirement plans, optional retirement plans, or 47037
similar types of plans with respect to which all of the following 47038
apply:47039

       (a)(i) The plans are defined contribution plans that are 47040
qualified plans under Internal Revenue Code 401(a) or 403(b).47041

       (b)(ii) The plans are maintained by institutions of higher 47042
education in at least ten other states.47043

       (c)(iii) The plans are established as primary retirement 47044
plans that are alternatives to or a component of the applicable 47045
state retirement system.47046

       (C) In determining whether to designate an entity as a 47047
vendor, the board of regents shall identify, consider, and 47048
evaluate all of the following:47049

       (1) The experience of the entity in providing in this state 47050
or other states investment options under alternative retirement 47051
plans, optional retirement plans, or similar types of plans that 47052
meet the requirements of division (B)(2)(a) or (b) of this 47053
section, as applicable;47054

       (2) The potential effectiveness of the entity in recruiting 47055
eligible employees to select that entity for purposes of 47056
participating in an alternative retirement plan and in retaining 47057
those employees' accounts;47058

       (3) Whether the entity intends to offer a broad range of 47059
investment options to the electing employees;47060

       (4) The suitability of the investment options to the needs 47061
and interests of the electing employees and their beneficiaries;47062

       (5) The capability of the entity to offer sufficient 47063
information to the electing employees and their beneficiaries to 47064
make informed decisions with regard to investment options offered 47065
by the entity;47066

       (6) The capability of the entity to perform in a manner that 47067
is in the best interests of the electing employees and their 47068
beneficiaries;47069

       (7) The fees and expenses associated with the entity's 47070
investment options and the manner in which the entity intends to 47071
disclose those fees and expenses;47072

       (8) The rights and benefits to be provided under the 47073
investment options;47074

       (9) The capability of the entity to provide the rights and 47075
benefits under the investment options;47076

       (10) Comments submitted by a public institution of higher 47077
education under section 3305.031 of the Revised Code;47078

       (11) Any other matters the board of regents considers 47079
relevant.47080

       (D) The board of regents shall conduct periodic reviews of 47081
each entity designated as a vendor and the investment options 47082
being offered to ensure that the requirements and purposes of this 47083
chapter are being met. The reviews of a vendor shall occur not 47084
less frequently than once every three years.47085

       If it finds that the vendor is not in compliance with the 47086
requirements of this chapter or the vendor is not satisfactorily 47087
meeting the purposes of this chapter, the board shall rescind the 47088
vendor's designation.47089

       (E) Notwithstanding sections 125.01 to 125.11 of the Revised 47090
Code, designation of a vendor or the execution of any agreement 47091
under this chapter is not subject to competitive bidding under 47092
those sections.47093

       Sec. 3307.51.  (A) The state teachers retirement board shall 47094
have prepared annually by or under the supervision of an actuary 47095
an actuarial valuation of the pension assets, liabilities, and 47096
funding requirements of the STRS defined benefit plan. The actuary 47097
shall complete the valuation in accordance with actuarial 47098
standards of practice promulgated by the actuarial standards board 47099
of the American academy of actuaries and prepare a report of the 47100
valuation. The report shall include all of the following:47101

       (1) A summary of the benefit provisions evaluated;47102

       (2) A summary of the census data and financial information 47103
used in the valuation;47104

       (3) A description of the actuarial assumptions, actuarial 47105
cost method, and asset valuation method used in the valuation, 47106
including a statement of the assumed rate of payroll growth and 47107
assumed rate of growth or decline in the number of members 47108
contributing to the retirement system;47109

       (4) A summary of findings that includes a statement of the 47110
actuarial accrued pension liabilities and unfunded actuarial 47111
accrued pension liabilities;47112

       (5) A schedule showing the effect of any changes in the 47113
benefit provisions, actuarial assumptions, or cost methods since 47114
the last annual actuarial valuation;47115

       (6) A statement of whether contributions to the retirement 47116
system are expected to be sufficient to satisfy the funding 47117
objectives established by the board.47118

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 47119
study council, the director of budget and management, and the 47120
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 47121
with primary responsibility for retirement legislation immediately 47122
upon its availability and not later than the first day of January 47123
following the year for which the valuation was made.47124

       (B) At such times as the state teachers retirement board 47125
determines, and at least once in each quinquennial period, the 47126
board shall have prepared by or under the supervision of an 47127
actuary an actuarial investigation of the mortality, service, and 47128
other experience of the members, retirants, and beneficiaries of 47129
the system, and other system retirants as defined in section 47130
3307.35 of the Revised Code to update the actuarial assumptions 47131
used in the actuarial valuation required by division (A) of this 47132
section. The actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial 47133
investigation. The report shall be prepared and any recommended 47134
changes in actuarial assumptions shall be made in accordance with 47135
the actuarial standards of practice promulgated by the actuarial 47136
standards board of the American academy of actuaries. The report 47137
shall include all of the following:47138

       (1) A summary of relevant decrement and economic assumption 47139
experience observed over the period of the investigation;47140

       (2) Recommended changes in actuarial assumptions to be used 47141
in subsequent actuarial valuations required by division (A) of 47142
this section;47143

       (3) A measurement of the financial effect of the recommended 47144
changes in actuarial assumptions.47145

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 47146
study council and the standing committees of the house of 47147
representatives and the senate with primary responsibility for 47148
retirement legislation not later than the first day of May 47149
following the last fiscal year of the period the report covers.47150

       (C) The board may at any time request the actuary to make any 47151
other studies or actuarial valuations to determine the adequacy of 47152
the normal and deficiency rates of contribution provided by 47153
section 3307.28 of the Revised Code, and those rates may be 47154
adjusted by the board, as recommended by the actuary, effective as 47155
of the first of any year thereafter.47156

       (D) The board shall have prepared by or under the supervision 47157
of an actuary an actuarial analysis of any introduced legislation 47158
expected to have a measurable financial impact on the retirement 47159
system. The actuarial analysis shall be completed in accordance 47160
with the actuarial standards of practice promulgated by the 47161
actuarial standards board of the American academy of actuaries. 47162
The actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial analysis, 47163
which shall include all of the following:47164

       (1) A summary of the statutory changes that are being 47165
evaluated;47166

       (2) A description of or reference to the actuarial 47167
assumptions and actuarial cost method used in the report;47168

       (3) A description of the participant group or groups included 47169
in the report;47170

       (4) A statement of the financial impact of the legislation, 47171
including the resulting increase, if any, in the employer normal 47172
cost percentage; the increase, if any, in actuarial accrued 47173
liabilities; and the per cent of payroll that would be required to 47174
amortize the increase in actuarial accrued liabilities as a level 47175
per cent of covered payroll for all active members over a period 47176
not to exceed thirty years;47177

       (5) A statement of whether the scheduled contributions to the 47178
system after the proposed change is enacted are expected to be 47179
sufficient to satisfy the funding objectives established by the 47180
board.47181

       Not later than sixty days from the date of introduction of 47182
the legislation, the board shall submit a copy of the actuarial 47183
analysis to the legislative service commission, the standing 47184
committees of the house of representatives and the senate with 47185
primary responsibility for retirement legislation, and the Ohio 47186
retirement study council.47187

       (E) The board shall have prepared annually a report giving a 47188
full accounting of the revenues and costs relating to the 47189
provision of benefits under section 3307.39 of the Revised Code. 47190
The report shall be made as of June 30, 1997, and the thirtieth 47191
day of June of each year thereafter. The report shall include the 47192
following:47193

       (1) A description of the statutory authority for the benefits 47194
provided;47195

       (2) A summary of the benefits;47196

       (3) A summary of the eligibility requirements for the 47197
benefits;47198

       (4) A statement of the number of participants eligible for 47199
the benefits;47200

       (5) A description of the accounting, asset valuation, and 47201
funding method used to provide the benefits;47202

       (6) A statement of the net assets available for the 47203
provisions of benefits as of the last day of the fiscal year;47204

       (7) A statement of any changes in the net assets available 47205
for the provision of benefits, including participant and employer 47206
contributions, net investment income, administrative expenses, and 47207
benefits provided to participants, as of the last day of the 47208
fiscal year;47209

       (8) For the last six consecutive fiscal years, a schedule of 47210
the net assets available for the benefits, the annual cost of 47211
benefits, administrative expenses incurred, and annual employer 47212
contributions allocated for the provision of benefits;47213

       (9) A description of any significant changes that affect the 47214
comparability of the report required under this division;47215

       (10) A statement of the amount paid under division (B) of 47216
section 3307.39 of the Revised Code.47217

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 47218
study council, the director of budget and management, and the 47219
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 47220
with primary responsibility for retirement legislation immediately 47221
upon its availability and not later than the thirty-first day of 47222
December following the year for which the report was made.47223

       Sec. 3309.21.  (A) The school employees retirement board 47224
shall have prepared annually by or under the supervision of an 47225
actuary an actuarial valuation of the pension assets, liabilities, 47226
and funding requirements of the school employees retirement system 47227
as established pursuant to this chapter. The actuary shall 47228
complete the valuation in accordance with actuarial standards of 47229
practice promulgated by the actuarial standards board of the 47230
American academy of actuaries and prepare a report of the 47231
valuation. The report shall include all of the following:47232

       (1) A summary of the benefit provisions evaluated;47233

       (2) A summary of the census data and financial information 47234
used in the valuation;47235

       (3) A description of the actuarial assumptions, actuarial 47236
cost method, and asset valuation method used in the valuation, 47237
including a statement of the assumed rate of payroll growth and 47238
assumed rate of growth or decline in the number of members 47239
contributing to the retirement system;47240

       (4) A summary of findings that includes a statement of the 47241
actuarial accrued pension liabilities and unfunded actuarial 47242
accrued pension liabilities;47243

       (5) A schedule showing the effect of any changes in the 47244
benefit provisions, actuarial assumptions, or cost methods since 47245
the last annual actuarial valuation;47246

       (6) A statement of whether contributions to the retirement 47247
system are expected to be sufficient to satisfy the funding 47248
objectives established by the board.47249

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 47250
study council, the director of budget and management, and the 47251
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 47252
with primary responsibility for retirement legislation immediately 47253
upon its availability and not later than the first day of May 47254
following the year for which the valuation was made.47255

       (B) At such times as the school employees retirement board 47256
determines, and at least once in each quinquennial period, the 47257
board shall have prepared by or under the supervision of an 47258
actuary an actuarial investigation of the mortality, service, and 47259
other experience of the members, retirants, and beneficiaries of 47260
the retirement system, and SERS retirants and other system 47261
retirants as defined in section 3309.341 of the Revised Code to 47262
update the actuarial assumptions used in the actuarial valuation 47263
required by division (A) of this section. The actuary shall 47264
prepare a report of the actuarial investigation. The report shall 47265
be prepared and any recommended changes in actuarial assumptions 47266
shall be made in accordance with the actuarial standards of 47267
practice promulgated by the actuarial standards board of the 47268
American academy of actuaries. The report shall include all of the 47269
following:47270

       (1) A summary of relevant decrement and economic assumption 47271
experience observed over the period of the investigation;47272

       (2) Recommended changes in actuarial assumptions to be used 47273
in subsequent actuarial valuations required by division (A) of 47274
this section;47275

       (3) A measurement of the financial effect of the recommended 47276
changes in actuarial assumptions.47277

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 47278
study council and the standing committees of the house of 47279
representatives and the senate with primary responsibility for 47280
retirement legislation not later than the first day of May 47281
following the last fiscal year of the period the report covers.47282

       (C) The board may at any time request the actuary to make any 47283
studies or actuarial valuations to determine the adequacy of the 47284
rates of contribution as provided by section 3309.49 of the 47285
Revised Code, and those rates may be adjusted by the board, as 47286
recommended by the actuary, effective as of the first of any year 47287
thereafter.47288

       (D) The board shall have prepared by or under the supervision 47289
of an actuary an actuarial analysis of any introduced legislation 47290
expected to have a measurable financial impact on the retirement 47291
system. The actuarial analysis shall be completed in accordance 47292
with the actuarial standards of practice promulgated by the 47293
actuarial standards board of the American academy of actuaries. 47294
The actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial analysis, 47295
which shall include all of the following:47296

       (1) A summary of the statutory changes that are being 47297
evaluated;47298

       (2) A description of or reference to the actuarial 47299
assumptions and actuarial cost method used in the report;47300

       (3) A description of the participant group or groups included 47301
in the report;47302

       (4) A statement of the financial impact of the legislation, 47303
including the resulting increase, if any, in the employer normal 47304
cost percentage; the increase, if any, in actuarial accrued 47305
liabilities; and the per cent of payroll that would be required to 47306
amortize the increase in actuarial accrued liabilities as a level 47307
per cent of covered payroll for all active members over a period 47308
not to exceed thirty years;47309

       (5) A statement of whether the scheduled contributions to the 47310
system after the proposed change is enacted are expected to be 47311
sufficient to satisfy the funding objectives established by the 47312
board.47313

       Not later than sixty days from the date of introduction of 47314
the legislation, the board shall submit a copy of the actuarial 47315
analysis to the legislative service commission, the standing 47316
committees of the house of representatives and the senate with 47317
primary responsibility for retirement legislation, and the Ohio 47318
retirement study council.47319

       (E) The board shall have prepared annually a report giving a 47320
full accounting of the revenues and costs relating to the 47321
provision of benefits under sections 3309.375 and 3309.69 of the 47322
Revised Code. The report shall be made as of June 30, 1997, and 47323
the thirtieth day of June of each year thereafter. The report 47324
shall include the following:47325

       (1) A description of the statutory authority for the benefits 47326
provided;47327

       (2) A summary of the benefits;47328

       (3) A summary of the eligibility requirements for the 47329
benefits;47330

       (4) A statement of the number of participants eligible for 47331
the benefits;47332

       (5) A description of the accounting, asset valuation, and 47333
funding method used to provide the benefits;47334

       (6) A statement of the net assets available for the provision 47335
of the benefits as of the last day of the fiscal year;47336

       (7) A statement of any changes in the net assets available 47337
for the provision of benefits, including participant and employer 47338
contributions, net investment income, administrative expenses, and 47339
benefits provided to participants, as of the last day of the 47340
fiscal year;47341

       (8) For the last six consecutive fiscal years, a schedule of 47342
the net assets available for the benefits, the annual cost of 47343
benefits, administrative expenses incurred, and annual employer 47344
contributions allocated for the provision of benefits;47345

       (9) A description of any significant changes that affect the 47346
comparability of the report required under this division;47347

       (10) A statement of the amount paid under division (E) of 47348
section 3309.69 of the Revised Code.47349

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 47350
study council, the director of budget and management, and the 47351
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 47352
with primary responsibility for retirement legislation immediately 47353
upon its availability and not later than the thirty-first day of 47354
December following the year for which the report was made.47355

       Sec. 3310.01.  As used in sections 3310.01 to 3310.17 of the 47356
Revised Code:47357

       (A) "Chartered nonpublic school" means a nonpublic school 47358
that holds a valid charter issued by the state board of education 47359
under section 3301.16 of the Revised Code and meets the standards 47360
established for such schools in rules adopted by the state board.47361

       (B) An "eligible student" is a student who satisfies the 47362
conditions specified in section 3310.03 or 3310.032 of the Revised 47363
Code.47364

       (C) "Parent" has the same meaning as in section 3313.98 of 47365
the Revised Code.47366

       (D) "Resident district" means the school district in which a 47367
student is entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 47368
3313.65 of the Revised Code.47369

       (E) "School year" has the same meaning as in section 3313.62 47370
of the Revised Code.47371

       Sec. 3310.02. (A) The educational choice scholarship pilot 47372
program is hereby established. Under the program, the department 47373
of education annually shall pay scholarships to attend chartered 47374
nonpublic schools in accordance with section 3310.08 of the 47375
Revised Code for up to the following number of eligible students:47376

       (1) Thirty thousand in the 2011-2012 school year;47377

       (2) Sixty thousand in the 2012-2013 school year and 47378
thereafter. 47379

       (B) If the number of students who apply for a scholarship 47380
exceeds the number of scholarships available under division (A) of 47381
this section for the applicable school year, the department shall 47382
award scholarships in the following order of priority:47383

       (1) First, to eligible students who received scholarships in 47384
the prior school year;47385

       (2) Second, to eligible students with family incomes at or 47386
below two hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines, as 47387
defined in section 5101.46 of the Revised Code, who qualify under 47388
division (A) of section 3310.03 of the Revised Code. If the number 47389
of students described in division (B)(2) of this section who apply 47390
for a scholarship exceeds the number of available scholarships 47391
after awards are made under division (B)(1) of this section, the 47392
department shall select students described in division (B)(2) of 47393
this section by lot to receive any remaining scholarships.47394

        (3) Third, to other eligible students who qualify under 47395
division (A) of section 3310.03 of the Revised Code. If the number 47396
of students described in division (B)(3) of this section who apply 47397
for a scholarship exceeds the number of available scholarships 47398
after awards are made under divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this 47399
section, the department shall select students described in 47400
division (B)(3) of this section by lot to receive any remaining 47401
scholarships.47402

       (4) Fourth, to eligible students with family incomes at or 47403
below two hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines who 47404
qualify under division (B)(D) of section 3310.03 of the Revised 47405
Code. If the number of students described in division (B)(4) of 47406
this section who apply for a scholarship exceeds the number of 47407
available scholarships after awards are made under divisions 47408
(B)(1) to (3) of this section, the department shall select 47409
students described in division (B)(4) of this section by lot to 47410
receive any remaining scholarships.47411

       (5) Fifth, to other eligible students who qualify under 47412
division (B)(D) of section 3310.03 of the Revised Code. If the 47413
number of students described in division (B)(5) of this section 47414
who apply for a scholarship exceeds the number of available 47415
scholarships after awards are made under divisions (B)(1) to (4) 47416
of this section, the department shall select students described in 47417
division (B)(5) of this section by lot to receive any remaining 47418
scholarships.47419

       (6) Sixth, to eligible students with family incomes at or 47420
below two hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines who 47421
qualify under division (B) of section 3310.03 of the Revised Code. 47422
If the number of students described in division (B)(6) of this 47423
section who apply for a scholarship exceeds the number of 47424
available scholarships after awards are made under divisions 47425
(B)(1) to (5) of this section, the department shall select 47426
students described in division (B)(6) of this section by lot to 47427
receive any remaining scholarships.47428

        (7) Seventh, to other eligible students who qualify under 47429
division (B) of section 3310.03 of the Revised Code. If the number 47430
of students described in division (B)(7) of this section who apply 47431
for a scholarship exceeds the number of available scholarships 47432
after awards are made under divisions (B)(1) to (6) of this 47433
section, the department shall select students described in 47434
division (B)(7) of this section by lot to receive any remaining 47435
scholarships. 47436

       Sec. 3310.03.  A student is an "eligible student" for 47437
purposes of the educational choice scholarship pilot program if 47438
the student's resident district is not a school district in which 47439
the pilot project scholarship program is operating under sections 47440
3313.974 to 3313.979 of the Revised Code and the student satisfies 47441
one of the conditions in division (A), (B), or (C), or (D) of this 47442
section:47443

       (A)(1) The student is enrolled in a school building operated 47444
by the student's resident district that, on the report card issued 47445
under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code published prior to the 47446
first day of July of the school year for which a scholarship is 47447
sought, did not receive a rating as described in division (G)(H)47448
of this section, and to which any or a combination of any of the 47449
following apply for two of the three most recent report cards 47450
published prior to the first day of July of the school year for 47451
which a scholarship is sought:47452

       (a) The building was declared to be in a state of academic 47453
emergency or academic watch under section 3302.03 of the Revised 47454
Code as that section existed prior to the effective date of this 47455
amendmentMarch 22, 2013.47456

       (b) The building received a grade of "D" or "F" for the 47457
performance index score under division (A)(1)(b) or (B)(1)(b) of 47458
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and for the value-added 47459
progress dimension under division (A)(1)(e) or (B)(1)(e) of 47460
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for the 2012-2013 or 2013-2014 47461
school year, or both; or if the building serves only grades ten 47462
through twelve, the building received a grade of "D" or "F" for 47463
the performance index score under division (A)(1)(b) or (B)(1)(b) 47464
of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and had a four-year 47465
adjusted cohort graduation rate of less than seventy-five per 47466
cent.47467

        (c) The building received an overall grade of "D" or "F" 47468
under division (C)(3) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code or a 47469
grade of "F" for the value-added progress dimension under division 47470
(C)(1)(e) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for the 2014-2015 47471
school year or any school year thereafter.47472

       (2) The student is eligible to enroll in kindergartenwill be 47473
enrolling in school in this state for the first time in the school 47474
year for which a scholarship is sought and otherwise would be 47475
assigned under section 3319.01 of the Revised Code, in the school 47476
year for which a scholarship is sought, to a school building 47477
described in division (A)(1) of this section.47478

       (3) The student is enrolled in a community school established 47479
under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code but otherwise would be 47480
assigned under section 3319.01 of the Revised Code to a building 47481
described in division (A)(1) of this section.47482

       (4) The student is enrolled in a school building operated by 47483
the student's resident district or in a community school 47484
established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code and otherwise 47485
would be assigned under section 3319.01 of the Revised Code to a 47486
school building described in division (A)(1) of this section in 47487
the school year for which the scholarship is sought.47488

       (5) The student is eligible to enroll in kindergartenwill be 47489
enrolling in school in this state for the first time in the school 47490
year for which a scholarship is sought, or is enrolled in a 47491
community school established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised 47492
Code, and all of the following apply to the student's resident 47493
district:47494

        (a) The district has in force an intradistrict open 47495
enrollment policy under which no student in kindergarten or the 47496
community school student's grade level, respectively, is 47497
automatically assigned to a particular school building;47498

       (b) In the most recent rating published prior to the first 47499
day of July of the school year for which scholarship is sought, 47500
the district did not receive a rating described in division (G)(H)47501
of this section, and in at least two of the three most recent 47502
report cards published prior to the first day of July of that 47503
school year, any or a combination of the following apply to the 47504
district:47505

        (i) The district was declared to be in a state of academic 47506
emergency under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code as it existed 47507
prior to the effective date of this amendmentMarch 22, 2013.47508

        (ii) The district received a grade of "D" or "F" for the 47509
performance index score under division (A)(1)(b) or (B)(1)(b) of 47510
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and for the value-added 47511
progress dimension under division (A)(1)(e) or (B)(1)(e) of 47512
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for the 2012-2013 or 2013-2014 47513
school year, or both.47514

        (c) The district received an overall grade of "D" or "F" 47515
under division (C)(3) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code or a 47516
grade of "F" for the value-added progress dimension under division 47517
(C)(1)(e) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for the 2014-2015 47518
school year or any school year thereafter.47519

       (B)(1) The student is enrolled in a school building operated 47520
by the student's resident district and to which both of the 47521
following apply:47522

       (a) The building was ranked, for at least two of the three 47523
most recent rankings published under section 3302.21 of the 47524
Revised Code prior to the first day of July of the school year for 47525
which a scholarship is sought, in the lowest ten per cent of all 47526
public school buildings according to performance index score under 47527
section 3302.21 of the Revised Code.47528

       (b) The building was not declared to be excellent or 47529
effective, or the equivalent of such ratings as determined by the 47530
department of education, under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code 47531
in the most recent rating published prior to the first day of July 47532
of the school year for which a scholarship is sought.47533

       (2) The student is eligible to enroll in kindergartenwill be 47534
enrolling in school in this state for the first time in the school 47535
year for which a scholarship is sought and otherwise would be 47536
assigned under section 3319.01 of the Revised Code, in the school 47537
year for which a scholarship is sought, to a school building 47538
described in division (B)(1) of this section.47539

       (3) The student is enrolled in a community school established 47540
under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code but otherwise would be 47541
assigned under section 3319.01 of the Revised Code to a building 47542
described in division (B)(1) of this section.47543

       (4) The student is enrolled in a school building operated by 47544
the student's resident district or in a community school 47545
established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code and otherwise 47546
would be assigned under section 3319.01 of the Revised Code to a 47547
school building described in division (B)(1) of this section in 47548
the school year for which the scholarship is sought.47549

       (C) The student is enrolled in a nonpublic school at the time 47550
the school is granted a charter by the state board of education 47551
under section 3301.16 of the Revised Code and the student meets 47552
the standards of division (B) of section 3310.031 of the Revised 47553
Code.47554

        (D) For the 2016-2017 school year and each school year 47555
thereafter, the student is in any of grades kindergarten through 47556
three, is enrolled in a school building that is operated by the 47557
student's resident district or will be enrolling in school in this 47558
state for the first time in the school year for which a 47559
scholarship is sought, and to which both of the following apply:47560

        (1) The building, in at least two of the three most recent 47561
ratings of school buildings published prior to the first day of 47562
July of the school year for which a scholarship is sought, 47563
received a grade of "D" or "F" for making progress in improving 47564
literacy in grades kindergarten through three under division 47565
(B)(1)(g) or (C)(1)(g) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code;47566

        (2) The building did not receive a grade of "A" for making 47567
progress in improving literacy in grades kindergarten through 47568
three under division (B)(1)(g) or (C)(1)(g) of section 3302.03 of 47569
the Revised Code in the most recent rating published prior to the 47570
first day of July of the school year for which a scholarship is 47571
sought.47572

        (E) A student who receives a scholarship under the 47573
educational choice scholarship pilot program remains an eligible 47574
student and may continue to receive scholarships in subsequent 47575
school years until the student completes grade twelve, so long as 47576
all of the following apply:47577

       (1) The student's resident district remains the same, or the 47578
student transfers to a new resident district and otherwise would 47579
be assigned in the new resident district to a school building 47580
described in division (A)(1) or, (B)(1), or (D) of this section; 47581

       (2) The student takes each assessment prescribed for the 47582
student's grade level under section 3301.0710 or 3301.0712 of the 47583
Revised Code while enrolled in a chartered nonpublic school;47584

       (3) In each school year that the student is enrolled in a 47585
chartered nonpublic school, the student is absent from school for 47586
not more than twenty days that the school is open for instruction, 47587
not including excused absences.47588

        (E)(F)(1) The department shall cease awarding first-time 47589
scholarships pursuant to divisions (A)(1) to (4) of this section 47590
with respect to a school building that, in the most recent ratings 47591
of school buildings published under section 3302.03 of the Revised 47592
Code prior to the first day of July of the school year, ceases to 47593
meet the criteria in division (A)(1) of this section. The 47594
department shall cease awarding first-time scholarships pursuant 47595
to division (A)(5) of this section with respect to a school 47596
district that, in the most recent ratings of school districts 47597
published under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code prior to the 47598
first day of July of the school year, ceases to meet the criteria 47599
in division (A)(5) of this section. 47600

       (2) The department shall cease awarding first-time 47601
scholarships pursuant to divisions (B)(1) to (4) of this section 47602
with respect to a school building that, in the most recent ratings 47603
of school buildings under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code 47604
prior to the first day of July of the school year, ceases to meet 47605
the criteria in division (B)(1) of this section. 47606

       (3) The department shall cease awarding first-time 47607
scholarships pursuant to division (D) of this section with respect 47608
to a school building that, in the most recent ratings of school 47609
buildings under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code prior to the 47610
first day of July of the school year, ceases to meet the criteria 47611
in division (D) of this section.47612

        (4) However, students who have received scholarships in the 47613
prior school year remain eligible students pursuant to division 47614
(D)(E) of this section.47615

       (F)(G) The state board of education shall adopt rules 47616
defining excused absences for purposes of division (D)(E)(3) of 47617
this section.47618

       (G)(H)(1) A student who satisfies only the conditions 47619
prescribed in divisions (A)(1) to (4) of this section shall not be 47620
eligible for a scholarship if the student's resident building 47621
meets any of the following in the most recent rating under section 47622
3302.03 of the Revised Code published prior to the first day of 47623
July of the school year for which a scholarship is sought:47624

        (a) The building has an overall designation of excellent or 47625
effective under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code as it existed 47626
prior to the effective date of this amendmentMarch 22, 2013.47627

        (b) For the 2012-2013 or 2013-2014 school year or both, the 47628
building has a grade of "A" or "B" for the performance index score 47629
under division (A)(1)(b) or (B)(1)(b) of section 3302.03 of the 47630
Revised Code and for the value-added progress dimension under 47631
division (A)(1)(e) or (B)(1)(e) of section 3302.03 of the Revised 47632
Code; or if the building serves only grades ten through twelve, 47633
the building received a grade of "A" or "B" for the performance 47634
index score under division (A)(1)(b) or (B)(1)(b) of section 47635
3302.03 of the Revised Code and had a four-year adjusted cohort 47636
graduation rate of greater than or equal to seventy-five per cent.47637

        (c) For the 2014-2015 school year or any school year 47638
thereafter, the building has a grade of "A" or "B" under division 47639
(C)(3) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and a grade of "A" 47640
for the value-added progress dimension under division (C)(1)(e) of 47641
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code; or if the building serves 47642
only grades ten through twelve, the building received a grade of 47643
"A" or "B" for the performance index score under division 47644
(C)(1)(b) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and had a 47645
four-year adjusted cohort graduation rate of greater than or equal 47646
to seventy-five per cent.47647

        (2) A student who satisfies only the conditions prescribed in 47648
division (A)(5) of this section shall not be eligible for a 47649
scholarship if the student's resident district meets any of the 47650
following in the most recent rating under section 3302.03 of the 47651
Revised Code published prior to the first day of July of the 47652
school year for which a scholarship is sought:47653

        (a) The district has an overall designation of excellent or 47654
effective under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code as it existed 47655
prior to the effective date of this amendmentMarch 22, 2013.47656

        (b) The district has a grade of "A" or "B" for the 47657
performance index score under division (A)(1)(b) or (B)(1)(b) of 47658
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and for the value-added 47659
progress dimension under division (A)(1)(e) or (B)(1)(e) of 47660
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for the 2012-2013 and 47661
2013-2014 school years.47662

        (c) The district has an overall grade of "A" or "B" under 47663
division (C)(3) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and a grade 47664
of "A" for the value-added progress dimension under division 47665
(C)(1)(e) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for the 2014-2015 47666
school year or any school year thereafter.47667

       Sec. 3310.032.  (A) A student is an "eligible student" for 47668
purposes of the expansion of the educational choice scholarship 47669
pilot program under this section if the student's resident 47670
district is not a school district in which the pilot project 47671
scholarship program is operating under sections 3313.974 to 47672
3313.979 of the Revised Code, the student is not eligible for an 47673
educational choice scholarship under section 3310.03 of the 47674
Revised Code, and the student's family income is at or below two 47675
hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines, as defined in 47676
section 5101.46 of the Revised Code.47677

       (B) In each fiscal year for which the general assembly 47678
appropriates funds for purposes of this section, the department of 47679
education shall pay scholarships to attend chartered nonpublic 47680
schools in accordance with section 3310.08 of the Revised Code. 47681
The number of scholarships awarded under this section shall not 47682
exceed the number that can be funded with appropriations made by 47683
the general assembly for this purpose.47684

       (C) Scholarships under this section shall be awarded as 47685
follows:47686

       (1) For the 2013-2014 school year, to eligible students who 47687
are entering kindergarten in that school year for the first time;47688

       (2) For each subsequent school year, scholarships shall be 47689
awarded to eligible students in the next grade level above the 47690
highest grade level awarded in the preceding school year, in 47691
addition to the grade levels for which students received 47692
scholarships in the preceding school year.47693

       (D) If the number of eligible students who apply for a 47694
scholarship under this section exceeds the scholarships available 47695
based on the appropriation for this section, the department shall 47696
award scholarships in the following order of priority:47697

       (1) First, to eligible students who received scholarships 47698
under this section in the prior school year;47699

       (2) Second, to eligible students with family incomes at or 47700
below one hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines. If 47701
the number of students described in division (D)(2) of this 47702
section who apply for a scholarship exceeds the number of 47703
available scholarships after awards are made under division (D)(1) 47704
of this section, the department shall select students described in 47705
division (D)(2) of this section by lot to receive any remaining 47706
scholarships.47707

       (3) Third, to other eligible students who qualify under this 47708
section. If the number of students described in division (D)(3) of 47709
this section exceeds the number of available scholarships after 47710
awards are made under divisions (D)(1) and (2) of this section, 47711
the department shall select students described in division (D)(3) 47712
of this section by lot to receive any remaining scholarships.47713

       (E) A student who receives a scholarship under this section 47714
remains an eligible student and may continue to receive 47715
scholarships under this section in subsequent school years until 47716
the student completes grade twelve, so long as the student 47717
satisfies the conditions specified in divisions (E)(2) and (3) of 47718
section 3310.03 of the Revised Code.47719

       Once a scholarship is awarded under this section, the student 47720
shall remain eligible for that scholarship for the current school 47721
year and subsequent school years even if the student's family 47722
income rises above the amount specified in division (A) of this 47723
section, provided the student remains enrolled in a chartered 47724
nonpublic school.47725

       Sec. 3310.035. (A) A student who is eligible for an 47726
educational choice scholarship under both sections 3310.03 and 47727
3310.032 of the Revised Code, and applies for a scholarship for 47728
the first time after the effective date of this section shall 47729
receive a scholarship under section 3310.03 of the Revised Code.47730

        (B) A student who is eligible under both sections 3310.03 and 47731
3310.032 of the Revised Code and received a scholarship in the 47732
previous school year shall continue to receive the scholarship 47733
under the section from which the student received the scholarship 47734
in the previous school year, so long as:47735

        (1) The number of students who apply for a scholarship does 47736
not exceed the number of scholarships available under division (A) 47737
of section 3310.02 of the Revised Code.47738

        (2) A student who receives a scholarship under section 47739
3310.03 of the Revised Code satisfies with the conditions 47740
specified in divisions (E)(1) to (3) of that section, and a 47741
student who receives a scholarship under section 3310.032 47742
satisfies with the conditions specified in divisions (E)(2) and 47743
(3) of section 3310.03 of the Revised Code. 47744

       Sec. 3310.05.  A scholarship under the educational choice 47745
scholarship pilot program is not available for any student whose 47746
resident district is a school district in which the pilot project 47747
scholarship program is operating under sections 3313.974 to 47748
3313.979 of the Revised Code. The two pilot programs are separate 47749
and distinct, with differing eligibility criteria. The pilot 47750
project scholarship program operating under sections 3313.974 to 47751
3313.979 of the Revised Code is a district-wide program that may 47752
award scholarships to students who do not attend district schools 47753
that face academic challenges, whereas the educational choice 47754
scholarship pilot program established under sections 3310.01 to 47755
3310.17 of the Revised Code is limited to students of individual 47756
district school buildings that face academic challenges and to 47757
students from low-income families.47758

       Sec. 3310.06.  It is the policy adopted by the general 47759
assembly that the educational choice scholarship pilot program 47760
shall be construed as one of several educational options available 47761
for students enrolled in persistently low-performing school 47762
buildings or for students from low-income families. Students may 47763
be enrolled in the schools of the student's resident district, in 47764
a community school established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised 47765
Code, in the schools of another school district pursuant to an 47766
open enrollment policy adopted under section 3313.98 of the 47767
Revised Code, in a chartered nonpublic school with or without a 47768
scholarship under the educational choice scholarship pilot 47769
program, or in other schools as the law may provide.47770

       Sec. 3310.08. (A) The amount paid for an eligible student 47771
under the educational choice scholarship pilot program shall be 47772
the lesser of the tuition of the chartered nonpublic school in 47773
which the student is enrolled or the maximum amount prescribed in 47774
section 3310.09 of the Revised Code.47775

        (B)(1) The department of education shall pay to the parent of 47776
each eligible student for whom a scholarship is awarded under the 47777
program, or to the student if at least eighteen years of age, 47778
periodic partial payments of the scholarship.47779

        (2) The department shall proportionately reduce or terminate 47780
the payments for any student who withdraws from a chartered 47781
nonpublic school prior to the end of the school year.47782

       (C)(1) The department shall deduct from the payments made to 47783
each school district under Chapter 3317., and if necessary, 47784
sections 321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code, the amount paid 47785
under division (B) of this section for each eligible student 47786
awardedwho qualifies for a scholarship under the programsection 47787
3310.03 of the Revised Code and who is entitled under section 47788
3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code to attend school in the 47789
district. In the case of a student entitled to attend school in a 47790
school district under division (B)(2)(a) of section 3313.64 or 47791
division (C) of section 3313.65 of the Revised Code, the 47792
department shall deduct the payments from the school district that 47793
includes the student in its average daily membership as reported 47794
to the department under section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, as 47795
determined by the department.47796

       (2) If the department reduces or terminates payments to a 47797
parent or a student, as prescribed in division (B)(2) of this 47798
section, and the student enrolls in the schools of the student's 47799
resident district or in a community school, established under 47800
Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, before the end of the school 47801
year, the department shall proportionally restore to the resident 47802
district the amount deducted for that student under division 47803
(C)(1) of this section.47804

       Sec. 3310.56. (A) The amount of the scholarship awarded and 47805
paid to an eligible applicant for services for a qualified special 47806
education child under the Jon Peterson special needs scholarship 47807
program in each school year shall be the least of the amounts 47808
prescribed in divisions (A)(1), (2), orand (3) of this section, 47809
as follows:47810

       (1) The amount of fees charged for that school year by the 47811
alternative public provider or registered private provider;47812

       (2) The sum of the amounts calculated under divisions 47813
(A)(2)(a) and (b) of this section:47814

        (a) The sum of the formula amount plus the per pupil amount 47815
of the base funding supplements specified in divisions (C)(1) to 47816
(4) of section 3317.012 of the Revised Code for fiscal year 2009;47817

       (b) An amount equal to $5,732the formula amount times the 47818
following multiple prescribed for the child's disability:47819

        (i) For a student in category one, 0.2892the multiple 47820
specified in division (A) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;47821

        (ii) For a student in category two, 0.3691the multiple 47822
specified in division (B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;47823

       (iii) For a student in category three, 1.7695the multiple 47824
specified in division (C) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;47825

       (iv) For a student in category four, 2.3646the multiple 47826
specified in division (D) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;47827

        (v) For a student in category five, 3.1129the multiple 47828
specified in division (E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;47829

        (vi) For a student in category six, 4.7342the multiple 47830
specified in division (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.47831

        Before applying the multiples specified in divisions 47832
(A)(2)(b)(i) to (vi) of this section, they first shall be adjusted 47833
by multiplying them by 0.90.47834

       (3) Twenty thousand dollars.47835

        (B) As used in division (A)(2)(b) of this section, a child 47836
with a disability is in:47837

        (1) "Category one" if the child's primary or only identified 47838
disability is a speech and language disability, as this term is 47839
defined pursuant to Chapter 3323.child is receiving special 47840
education services for a disability specified in division (A) of 47841
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;47842

        (2) "Category two" if the child is identified as specific 47843
learning disabled or developmentally disabled, as these terms are 47844
defined pursuant to Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code, or as 47845
having an other health impairment-minor, as defined in section 47846
3317.02receiving special education services for a disability 47847
specified in division (B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;47848

        (3) "Category three" if the child is identified as vision 47849
impaired, hearing disabled, or severe behavior disabled, as these 47850
terms are defined pursuant to Chapter 3323.receiving special 47851
education services for a disability specified in division (C) of 47852
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;47853

       (4) "Category four" if the child is identified as 47854
orthopedically disabled, as this term is defined pursuant to 47855
Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code, or as having an other health 47856
impairment-major, as defined in section 3317.02receiving special 47857
education services for a disability specified in division (D) of 47858
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;47859

       (5) "Category five" if the child is identified as having 47860
multiple disabilities, as this term is defined pursuant to Chapter 47861
3323.receiving special education services for a disability 47862
specified in division (E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;47863

       (6) "Category six" if the child is identified as autistic, 47864
having traumatic brain injuries, or both visually and hearing 47865
impaired, as these terms are defined pursuant to Chapter 3323.47866
receiving special education services for a disability specified in 47867
division (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.47868

       Sec. 3311.0510.  (A) If all of the client school districts of 47869
an educational service center have terminated their agreements 47870
with the service center under division (D) of section 3313.843 of 47871
the Revised Code, upon the latest effective date of the 47872
terminations, the governing board of that service center shall be 47873
abolished and such service center shall be dissolved by order of 47874
the superintendent of public instruction. The superintendent's 47875
order shall provide for the equitable division and disposition of 47876
the assets, property, debts, and obligations of the service center 47877
among the school districts that were client school districts of 47878
the service center for the service center's last fiscal year of 47879
operation. The superintendent's order shall provide that the tax 47880
duplicate of each of those school districts shall be bound for and 47881
assume the district's equitable share of the outstanding 47882
indebtedness of the service center. The superintendent's order is 47883
final and is not appealable.47884

       Immediately upon the abolishment of the service center 47885
governing board pursuant to this section, the superintendent of 47886
public instruction shall appoint a qualified individual to 47887
administer the dissolution of the service center and to implement 47888
the terms of the superintendent's dissolution order.47889

        Prior to distributing assets to any school district under 47890
this section, but after paying in full other debts and obligations 47891
of the service center under this section, the superintendent of 47892
public instruction may assess against the remaining assets of the 47893
service center the amount of the costs incurred by the department 47894
of education in performing the superintendent's duties under this 47895
division, including the fees, if any, owed to the individual 47896
appointed to administer the superintendent's dissolution order. 47897
Any excess cost incurred by the department under this division 47898
shall be divided equitably among the school districts that were 47899
client school districts of the service center for the service 47900
center's last fiscal year of operation. Each district's share of 47901
that excess cost shall be bound against the tax duplicate of that 47902
district.47903

       (B) A final audit of the former service center shall be 47904
performed in accordance with procedures established by the auditor 47905
of state.47906

       (C) The public records of an educational service center that 47907
is dissolved under this section shall be transferred in accordance 47908
with this division. Public records maintained by the service 47909
center in connection with services provided by the service center 47910
to local school districts of which the territory of the service 47911
center is or previously was made up shall be transferred to each 47912
of the respective local school districts. Public records 47913
maintained by the service center in connection with services 47914
provided to client school districts shall be transferred to each 47915
of the respective client school districts. All other public 47916
records maintained by the service center at the time the service 47917
center ceases operations shall be transferred to the Ohio 47918
historical society for analysis and disposition by the society in 47919
its capacity as archives administrator for the state and its 47920
political subdivisions pursuant to division (C) of section 149.30 47921
and section 149.31 of the Revised Code.47922

       (D) As used in this section, "client school district" has the 47923
same meaning as in section 3317.11 of the Revised Codemeans a 47924
city, exempted village, or local school district that has entered 47925
into an agreement under section 3313.843 or 3313.845 of the 47926
Revised Code to receive any services from an educational service 47927
center.47928

       Sec. 3311.19.  (A) The management and control of a joint 47929
vocational school district shall be vested in the joint vocational 47930
school district board of education. Where a joint vocational 47931
school district is composed only of two or more local school 47932
districts located in one county, or when all the participating 47933
districts are in one county and the boards of such participating 47934
districts so choose, the educational service center governing 47935
board of the county in which the joint vocational school district 47936
is located shall serve as the joint vocational school district 47937
board of education. Where a joint vocational school district is 47938
composed of local school districts of more than one county, or of 47939
any combination of city, local, or exempted village school 47940
districts or educational service centers, unless administration by 47941
the educational service center governing board has been chosen by 47942
all the participating districts in one county pursuant to this 47943
section, the board of education of the joint vocational school 47944
district shall be composed of one or more persons who are members 47945
of the boards of education from each of the city or exempted 47946
village school districts or members of the educational service 47947
centers' governing boards affected to be appointed by the boards 47948
of education or governing boards of such school districts and 47949
educational service centers. In such joint vocational school 47950
districts the number and terms of members of the joint vocational 47951
school district board of education and the allocation of a given 47952
number of members to each of the city and exempted village 47953
districts and educational service centers shall be determined in 47954
the plan for such district, provided that each such joint 47955
vocational school district board of education shall be composed of 47956
an odd number of members.47957

       (B) Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, a governing 47958
board of an educational service center that has members of its 47959
governing board serving on a joint vocational school district 47960
board of education may make a request to the joint vocational 47961
district board that the joint vocational school district plan be 47962
revised to provide for one or more members of boards of education 47963
of local school districts that are within the territory of the 47964
educational service district and within the joint vocational 47965
school district to serve in the place of or in addition to its 47966
educational service center governing board members. If agreement 47967
is obtained among a majority of the boards of education and 47968
governing boards that have a member serving on the joint 47969
vocational school district board of education and among a majority 47970
of the local school district boards of education included in the 47971
district and located within the territory of the educational 47972
service center whose board requests the substitution or addition, 47973
the state board of education may revise the joint vocational 47974
school district plan to conform with such agreement.47975

       (C) If the board of education of any school district or 47976
educational service center governing board included within a joint 47977
vocational district that has had its board or governing board 47978
membership revised under division (B) of this section requests the 47979
joint vocational school district board to submit to the state 47980
board of education a revised plan under which one or more joint 47981
vocational board members chosen in accordance with a plan revised 47982
under such division would again be chosen in the manner prescribed 47983
by division (A) of this section, the joint vocational board shall 47984
submit the revised plan to the state board of education, provided 47985
the plan is agreed to by a majority of the boards of education 47986
represented on the joint vocational board, a majority of the local 47987
school district boards included within the joint vocational 47988
district, and each educational service center governing board 47989
affected by such plan. The state board of education may revise the 47990
joint vocational school district plan to conform with the revised 47991
plan.which, beginning on the effective date of this amendment, 47992
shall be appointed under division (C) of this section. Beginning 47993
on the effective date of this amendment, no board member shall be 47994
appointed in the manner formerly provided by this section, as it 47995
existed prior to the effective date of this amendment.47996

       All members of a joint vocational school district board 47997
serving unexpired terms on the effective date of this amendment 47998
may continue in office until the expiration of their terms. If a 47999
member leaves office for any reason prior to the expiration of 48000
that member's term, the vacancy shall be filled only in the manner 48001
provided in division (C) of this section.48002

       (B) Members of the joint vocational school district board 48003
appointed on or after the effective date of this amendment shall 48004
serve for three year terms of office. No member shall hold office 48005
for a period of longer than two consecutive terms. Terms shall be 48006
considered consecutive unless separated by three or more years.48007

       Members of the board shall be selected based on the diversity 48008
of the employers from the geographical region of the state in 48009
which the territory of the joint vocational school district is 48010
located represented by the members. A majority of the members of 48011
the board shall reside in or be employed within the territory of 48012
the joint vocational school district board upon which the member 48013
serves.48014

       Not more than three members of the board shall be affiliated 48015
with or be a member of a labor organization.48016

       Two members of the board shall be selected based on their 48017
experience in career development and career counseling for grades 48018
kindergarten through twelve or career counseling for adult 48019
education.48020

       (C) The board of education of each city, exempted village, or 48021
local school district that belongs to the joint vocational school 48022
district shall appoint one member to the joint vocational school 48023
district board; however, that individual shall not be a member of 48024
an appointing school district board.48025

       Initial appointments under this section shall be made as the 48026
terms of members of each joint vocational school district board 48027
who are serving unexpired terms on the effective date of this 48028
amendment expire or as those offices are otherwise vacated prior 48029
to the expiration date. The appointing district boards shall 48030
continue to replace members in such a way that, by the time all 48031
terms of members serving on the effective date of this amendment 48032
have expired or their offices have been vacated prior to 48033
expiration of the term of office, the joint vocational school 48034
district board consists of one member appointed by the board of 48035
each school district belonging to the joint vocational school 48036
district. Thereafter, appointments shall be made by a district 48037
board as terms expire or are otherwise vacated.48038

       Appointing boards may also appoint students of the district 48039
to serve as additional members of the board, but student members 48040
shall be nonvoting members.48041

       Members of the joint vocational board shall have experience 48042
as chief financial officers, chief executive officers, human 48043
resources managers, or other business and industry professionals 48044
who are qualified to discuss the labor needs of the region with 48045
respect to the regional economy. The appointing board shall 48046
appoint members who represent employers in the region served by 48047
the joint vocational school district who are qualified to consider 48048
a region's workforce needs with an understanding of the skills, 48049
training, and education needed for current and future employment 48050
needs in the region.48051

       (D) The vocational schools in suchthe joint vocational 48052
school district shall be available to all youth of school age 48053
within the joint vocational school district subject to the rules 48054
adopted by the joint vocational school district board of education 48055
in regard to the standards requisite to admission. A joint 48056
vocational school district board of education shall have the same 48057
powers, duties, and authority for the management and operation of 48058
such joint vocational school district as is granted by law, except 48059
by this chapter and Chapters 124., 3317., 3323., and 3331. of the 48060
Revised Code, to a board of education of a city school district, 48061
and shall be subject to all the provisions of law that apply to a 48062
city school district, except such provisions in this chapter and 48063
Chapters 124., 3317., 3323., and 3331. of the Revised Code.48064

       (E) Where a governing board of an educational service center 48065
has been designated to serve as the joint vocational school 48066
district board of education, the educational service center 48067
superintendent shall be the executive officer for the joint 48068
vocational school district, and the governing board may provide 48069
for additional compensation to be paid to the educational service 48070
center superintendent by the joint vocational school district, but 48071
the educational service center superintendent shall have no 48072
continuing tenure other than that of educational service center 48073
superintendent. The superintendent of schools of a joint 48074
vocational school district shall exercise the duties and authority 48075
vested by law in a superintendent of schools pertaining to the 48076
operation of a school district and the employment and supervision 48077
of its personnel. The joint vocational school district board of 48078
education shall appoint a treasurer of the joint vocational school 48079
district who shall be the fiscal officer for such district and who 48080
shall have all the powers, duties, and authority vested by law in 48081
a treasurer of a board of education. Where a governing board of an 48082
educational service center has been designated to serve as the 48083
joint vocational school district board of education, such board 48084
may appoint the educational service center superintendent as the 48085
treasurer of the joint vocational school district.48086

       (F) Each member of a joint vocational school district board 48087
of education may be paid such compensation as the board provides 48088
by resolution, but it shall not exceed one hundred twenty-five 48089
dollars per member for each meeting attended plus mileage, at the 48090
rate per mile provided by resolution of the board, to and from 48091
meetings of the board.48092

       The board may provide by resolution for the deduction of 48093
amounts payable for benefits under section 3313.202 of the Revised 48094
Code.48095

       Each member of a joint vocational school district board may 48096
be paid such compensation as the board provides by resolution for 48097
attendance at an approved training program, provided that such 48098
compensation shall not exceed sixty dollars per day for attendance 48099
at a training program three hours or fewer in length and one 48100
hundred twenty-five dollars a day for attendance at a training 48101
program longer than three hours in length. However, no board 48102
member shall be compensated for the same training program under 48103
this section and section 3313.12 of the Revised Code.48104

       Sec. 3311.22.  A governing board of an educational service 48105
center may propose, by resolution adopted by majority vote of its 48106
full membership, or qualified electors of the area affected equal 48107
in number to at least fifty-five per cent of the qualified 48108
electors voting at the last general election residing within that 48109
portion of a school district, or districts proposed to be 48110
transferred may propose, by petition, the transfer of a part or 48111
all of one or more local school districts to another local school 48112
district or districts within the territory of the educational 48113
service center. Such transfers may be made only to local school 48114
districts adjoining the school district that is proposed to be 48115
transferred, unless the board of education of the district 48116
proposed to be transferred has entered into an agreement pursuant 48117
to section 3313.42 of the Revised Code, in which case such 48118
transfers may be made to any local school district within the 48119
territory of the educational service center.48120

       When a governing board of an educational service center 48121
adopts a resolution proposing a transfer of school territory it 48122
shall forthwith file a copy of such resolution, together with an 48123
accurate map of the territory described in the resolution, with 48124
the board of education of each school district whose boundaries 48125
would be altered by such proposal. A governing board of an 48126
educational service center proposing a transfer of territory under 48127
the provisions of this section shall at its next regular meeting 48128
that occurs not earlier than thirty days after the adoption by the 48129
governing board of a resolution proposing such transfer, adopt a 48130
resolution making the transfer effective at any time prior to the 48131
next succeeding first day of July, unless, prior to the expiration 48132
of such thirty-day period, qualified electors residing in the area 48133
proposed to be transferred, equal in number to a majority of the 48134
qualified electors voting at the last general election, file a 48135
petition of referendum against such transfer.48136

       Any petition of transfer or petition of referendum filed 48137
under the provisions of this section shall be filed at the office 48138
of the educational service center superintendent. The person 48139
presenting the petition shall be given a receipt containing 48140
thereon the time of day, the date, and the purpose of the 48141
petition.48142

       The educational service center superintendent shall cause the 48143
board of elections to check the sufficiency of signatures on any 48144
petition of transfer or petition of referendum filed under this 48145
section and, if found to be sufficient, the superintendent shall 48146
present the petition to the educational service center governing 48147
board at a meeting of the board which shall occur not later than 48148
thirty days following the filing of the petition.48149

       Upon presentation to the educational service center governing 48150
board of a proposal to transfer territory as requested by petition 48151
of fifty-five per cent of the qualified electors voting at the 48152
last general election or a petition of referendum against a 48153
proposal of the county board to transfer territory, the governing 48154
board shall promptly certify the proposal to the board of 48155
elections for the purpose of having the proposal placed on the 48156
ballot at the next general or primary election which occurs not 48157
less than ninety days after the date of such certification, or at 48158
a special election, the date of which shall be specified in the 48159
certification, which date shall not be less than ninety days after 48160
the date of such certification. Signatures on a petition of 48161
transfer or petition of referendum may be withdrawn up to and 48162
including the above mentioned meeting of the educational service 48163
center governing board only by order of the board upon testimony 48164
of the petitioner concerned under oath before the board that the 48165
petitioner's signature was obtained by fraud, duress, or 48166
misrepresentation.48167

       If a petition is filed with the educational service center 48168
governing board which proposes the transfer of a part or all of 48169
the territory included in a resolution of transfer previously 48170
adopted by the educational service center governing board, no 48171
action shall be taken on such petition if within the thirty-day 48172
period after the adoption of the resolution of transfer a 48173
referendum petition is filed. After the election, if the proposed 48174
transfer fails to receive a majority vote, action on such petition 48175
shall then be processed under this section as though originally 48176
filed under the provisions hereof. If no referendum petition is 48177
filed within the thirty-day period after the adoption of the 48178
resolution of transfer, no action shall be taken on such petition.48179

       If a petition is filed with the educational service center 48180
governing board which proposes the transfer of a part or all of 48181
the territory included in a petition previously filed by electors 48182
no action shall be taken on such new petition.48183

       Upon certification of a proposal to the board or boards of 48184
elections pursuant to this section, the board or boards of 48185
elections shall make the necessary arrangements for the submission 48186
of such question to the electors of the county or counties 48187
qualified to vote thereon, and the election shall be conducted and 48188
canvassed and the results shall be certified in the same manner as 48189
in regular elections for the election of members of a board of 48190
education.48191

       The persons qualified to vote upon a proposal are the 48192
electors residing in the district or districts containing 48193
territory that is proposed to be transferred. If the proposed 48194
transfer be approved by at least a majority of the electors voting 48195
on the proposal, the educational service center governing board 48196
shall make such transfer at any time prior to the next succeeding 48197
first day of July. If the proposed transfer is not approved by at 48198
least a majority of the electors voting on the proposal, the 48199
question of transferring any property included in the territory 48200
covered by the proposal shall not be submitted to electors at any 48201
election prior to the first general election the date of which is 48202
at least two years after the date of the original election, or the 48203
first primary election held in an even-numbered year the date of 48204
which is at least two years after the date of the original 48205
election. A transfer shall be subject to the approval of the 48206
receiving board or boards of education, unless the proposal was 48207
initiated by the educational service center governing board, in 48208
which case, if the transfer is opposed by the board of education 48209
offered the territory, the local board may, within thirty days, 48210
following the receipt of the notice of transfer, appeal to the 48211
state board of education which shall then either approve or 48212
disapprove the transfer.48213

       Following an election upon a proposed transfer initiated by a 48214
petition the board of education that is offered territory shall, 48215
within thirty days following receipt of the proposal, either 48216
accept or reject the transfer.48217

       When an entire school district is proposed to be transferred 48218
to two or more school districts and the offer is rejected by any 48219
one of the receiving boards of education, none of the territory 48220
included in the proposal shall be transferred.48221

       Upon the acceptance of territory by the receiving board or 48222
boards of education the educational service center governing board 48223
offering the territory shall file with the county auditor and with 48224
the state board of education an accurate map showing the 48225
boundaries of the territory transferred.48226

       Upon the making of such transfer, the net indebtedness of the 48227
former district from which territory was transferred shall be 48228
apportioned between the acquiring school district and that portion 48229
of the former school district remaining after the transfer in the 48230
ratio which the assessed valuation of the territory transferred to 48231
the acquiring school district bears to the assessed valuation of 48232
the original school district as of the effective date of the 48233
transfer. As used in this section "net indebtedness" means the 48234
difference between the par value of the outstanding and unpaid 48235
bonds and notes of the school district and the amount held in the 48236
sinking fund and other indebtedness retirement funds for their 48237
redemption.48238

       If an entire district is transferred, any indebtedness of the 48239
former district incurred as a result of a loan made under section 48240
3317.64 of the Revised Code is hereby canceled and such 48241
indebtedness shall not be apportioned among any districts 48242
acquiring the territory. 48243

       Upon the making of any transfer under this section, the funds 48244
of the district from which territory was transferred shall be 48245
divided equitably by the educational service center governing 48246
board between the acquiring district and any part of the original 48247
district remaining after the transfer.48248

       If an entire district is transferred the board of education 48249
of such district is thereby abolished or if a member of the board 48250
of education lives in that part of a school district transferred 48251
the member becomes a nonresident of the school district from which 48252
the territory was transferred and such member ceases to be a 48253
member of the board of education of such district.48254

       The legal title of all property of the board of education in 48255
the territory transferred shall become vested in the board of 48256
education of the school district to which such territory is 48257
transferred.48258

       Subsequent to June 30, 1959, if an entire district is 48259
transferred, foundation program moneys accruing to a district 48260
accepting school territory under the provisions of this section or 48261
former section 3311.22 of the Revised Code, shall not be less, in 48262
any year during the next succeeding three years following the 48263
transfer, than the sum of the amounts received by the districts 48264
separately in the year in which the transfer was consummated.48265

       Sec. 3311.231.  A governing board of an educational service 48266
center may propose, by resolution adopted by majority vote of its 48267
full membership, or qualified electors of the area affected equal 48268
in number to not less than fifty-five per cent of the qualified 48269
electors voting at the last general election residing within that 48270
portion of a school district proposed to be transferred may 48271
propose, by petition, the transfer of a part or all of one or more 48272
local school districts within the territory of the center to an 48273
adjoining educational service center or to an adjoining city or 48274
exempted village school district.48275

       A governing board of an educational service center adopting a 48276
resolution proposing a transfer of school territory under this 48277
section shall file a copy of such resolution together with an 48278
accurate map of the territory described in the resolution, with 48279
the board of education of each school district whose boundaries 48280
would be altered by such proposal. Where a transfer of territory 48281
is proposed by a governing board of an educational service center 48282
under this section, the governing board shall, at its next regular 48283
meeting that occurs not earlier than the thirtieth day after the 48284
adoption by the governing board of the resolution proposing such 48285
transfer, adopt a resolution making the transfer as originally 48286
proposed, effective at any time prior to the next succeeding first 48287
day of July, unless, prior to the expiration of such thirty-day 48288
period, qualified electors residing in the area proposed to be 48289
transferred, equal in number to a majority of the qualified 48290
electors voting at the last general election, file a petition of 48291
referendum against such transfer.48292

       Any petition of transfer or petition of referendum under the 48293
provisions of this section shall be filed at the office of the 48294
educational service center superintendent. The person presenting 48295
the petition shall be given a receipt containing thereon the time 48296
of day, the date, and the purpose of the petition.48297

       The educational service center superintendent shall cause the 48298
board of elections to check the sufficiency of signatures on any 48299
such petition, and, if found to be sufficient, the superintendent 48300
shall present the petition to the educational service center 48301
governing board at a meeting of said governing board which shall 48302
occur not later than thirty days following the filing of said 48303
petition.48304

       The educational service center governing board shall promptly 48305
certify the proposal to the board of elections of such counties in 48306
which school districts whose boundaries would be altered by such 48307
proposal are located for the purpose of having the proposal placed 48308
on the ballot at the next general or primary election which occurs 48309
not less than ninety days after the date of such certification or 48310
at a special election, the date of which shall be specified in the 48311
certification, which date shall not be less than ninety days after 48312
the date of such certification.48313

       Signatures on a petition of transfer or petition of 48314
referendum may be withdrawn up to and including the above 48315
mentioned meeting of the educational service center governing 48316
board only by order of the governing board upon testimony of the 48317
petitioner concerned under oath before the board that the 48318
petitioner's signature was obtained by fraud, duress, or 48319
misrepresentation.48320

       If a petition is filed with the educational service center 48321
governing board which proposes the transfer of a part or all of 48322
the territory included either in a petition previously filed by 48323
electors or in a resolution of transfer previously adopted by the 48324
educational service center governing board, no action shall be 48325
taken on such new petition as long as the previously initiated 48326
proposal is pending before the governing board or is subject to an 48327
election.48328

       Upon certification of a proposal to the board or boards of 48329
elections pursuant to this section, the board or boards of 48330
elections shall make the necessary arrangements for the submission 48331
of such question to the electors of the county or counties 48332
qualified to vote thereon, and the election shall be conducted and 48333
canvassed and the results shall be certified in the same manner as 48334
in regular elections for the election of members of a board of 48335
education.48336

       The persons qualified to vote upon a proposal are the 48337
electors residing in the district or districts containing 48338
territory that is proposed to be transferred. If the proposed 48339
transfer is approved by at least a majority of the electors voting 48340
on the proposal, the educational service center governing board 48341
shall make such transfer at any time prior to the next succeeding 48342
first day of July, subject to the approval of the receiving board 48343
of education in case of a transfer to a city or exempted village 48344
school district, and subject to the approval of the educational 48345
service center governing board of the receiving center, in case of 48346
a transfer to an educational service center. If the proposed 48347
transfer is not approved by at least a majority of the electors 48348
voting on the proposal, the question of transferring any property 48349
included in the territory covered by the proposal shall not be 48350
submitted to electors at any election prior to the first general 48351
election the date of which is at least two years after the date of 48352
the original election, or the first primary election held in an 48353
even-numbered year the date of which is at least two years after 48354
the date of the original election.48355

       Where a territory is transferred under this section to a city 48356
or exempted village school district, the board of education of 48357
such district shall, and where territory is transferred to an 48358
educational service center the governing board of such educational 48359
service center shall, within thirty days following receipt of the 48360
proposal, either accept or reject the transfer.48361

       Where a governing board of an educational service center 48362
adopts a resolution accepting territory transferred to the 48363
educational service center under the provisions of sections 48364
3311.231 and 3311.24 of the Revised Code, the governing board 48365
shall, at the time of the adoption of the resolution accepting the 48366
territory, designate the school district to which the accepted 48367
territory shall be annexed.48368

       When an entire school district is proposed to be transferred 48369
to two or more adjoining school districts and the offer is 48370
rejected by any one of the receiving boards of education, none of 48371
the territory included in the proposal shall be transferred.48372

       Upon the acceptance of territory by the receiving board or 48373
boards of education the educational service center governing board 48374
offering the territory shall file with the county auditor of each 48375
county affected by the transfer and with the state board of 48376
education an accurate map showing the boundaries of the territory 48377
transferred.48378

       Upon the making of such transfer, the net indebtedness of the 48379
former district from which territory was transferred shall be 48380
apportioned between the acquiring school district and the portion 48381
of the former school district remaining after the transfer in the 48382
ratio which the assessed valuation of the territory transferred to 48383
the acquiring school district bears to the assessed valuation of 48384
the original school district as of the effective date of the 48385
transfer. As used in this section "net indebtedness" means the 48386
difference between the par value of the outstanding and unpaid 48387
bonds and notes of the school district and the amount held in the 48388
sinking fund and other indebtedness retirement funds for their 48389
redemption.48390

       If an entire district is transferred, any indebtedness of the 48391
former district incurred as a result of a loan made under section 48392
3317.64 of the Revised Code is hereby canceled and such 48393
indebtedness shall not be apportioned among any districts 48394
acquiring the territory. 48395

       Upon the making of any transfer under this section, the funds 48396
of the district from which territory was transferred shall be 48397
divided equitably by the educational service center governing 48398
board, between the acquiring district and any part of the original 48399
district remaining after the transfer.48400

       If an entire district is transferred the board of education 48401
of such district is thereby abolished or if a member of the board 48402
of education lives in that part of a school district transferred 48403
the member becomes a nonresident of the school district from which 48404
the territory was transferred and such member ceases to be a 48405
member of the board of education of such district.48406

       The legal title of all property of the board of education in 48407
the territory transferred shall become vested in the board of 48408
education of the school district to which such territory is 48409
transferred.48410

       If an entire district is transferred, foundation program 48411
moneys accruing to a district receiving school territory under the 48412
provisions of this section shall not be less, in any year during 48413
the next succeeding three years following the transfer, than the 48414
sum of the amounts received by the districts separately in the 48415
year in which the transfer was consummated.48416

       Sec. 3311.38.  The state board of education may conduct, or 48417
may direct the superintendent of public instruction to conduct, 48418
studies where there is evidence of need for transfer of local, 48419
exempted village, or city school districts, or parts of any such 48420
districts, to contiguous or noncontiguous local, exempted village, 48421
or city school districts. Such studies shall include a study of 48422
the effect of any proposal upon any portion of a school district 48423
remaining after such proposed transfer. The state board, in 48424
conducting such studies and in making recommendations as a result 48425
thereof, shall consider the possibility of improving school 48426
district organization as well as the desires of the residents of 48427
the school districts which would be affected.48428

       (A) After the adoption of recommendations growing out of any 48429
such study, or upon receipt of a resolution adopted by majority 48430
vote of the full membership of the board of any city, local, or 48431
exempted village school district requesting that the entire 48432
district be transferred to another city, local, or exempted 48433
village school district, the state board may propose by resolution 48434
the transfer of territory, which may consist of part or all of the 48435
territory of a local, exempted village, or city school district to 48436
a contiguous local, exempted village, or city school district.48437

       The state board shall thereupon file a copy of such proposal 48438
with the board of education of each school district whose 48439
boundaries would be altered by the proposal and with the governing 48440
board of any educational service center in which such school 48441
district is located.48442

       The state board may, not less than thirty days following the 48443
adoption of the resolution proposing the transfer of territory, 48444
certify the proposal to the board of elections of the county or 48445
counties in which any of the territory of the proposed district is 48446
located, for the purpose of having the proposal placed on the 48447
ballot at the next general election or at a primary election 48448
occurring not less than ninety days after the adoption of such 48449
resolution.48450

       If any proposal has been previously initiated pursuant to 48451
section 3311.22, 3311.231, or 3311.26 of the Revised Code which 48452
affects any of the territory affected by the proposal of the state 48453
board, the proposal of the state board shall not be placed on the 48454
ballot while the previously initiated proposal is subject to an 48455
election.48456

       Upon certification of a proposal to the board of elections of 48457
any county pursuant to this section, the board of elections of 48458
such county shall make the necessary arrangements for the 48459
submission of such question to the electors of the county 48460
qualified to vote thereon, and the election shall be counted and 48461
canvassed and the results shall be certified in the same manner as 48462
in regular elections for the election of members of a board of 48463
education.48464

       The electors qualified to vote upon a proposal are the 48465
electors residing in the local, exempted village, or city school 48466
districts, containing territory proposed to be transferred.48467

       If the proposed transfer be approved by a majority of the 48468
electors voting on the proposal, the state board, subject to the 48469
approval of the board of education of the district to which the 48470
territory would be transferred, shall make such transfer prior to 48471
the next succeeding July 1.48472

       (B) If a study conducted in accordance with this section 48473
involves a school district with less than four thousand dollars of 48474
assessed value for each pupil in the total student count 48475
determined under section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, the state 48476
board of education, with the approval of the educational service 48477
center governing board, and upon recommendation by the state 48478
superintendent of public instruction, may by resolution transfer 48479
all or any part of such a school district to any city, exempted 48480
village, or local school district which has more than twenty-five 48481
thousand pupils in average daily membership. Such resolution of 48482
transfer shall be adopted only after the board of education of the 48483
receiving school district has adopted a resolution approving the 48484
proposed transfer. For the purposes of this division, the assessed 48485
value shall be as certified in accordance with section 3317.021 of 48486
the Revised Code.48487

       (C) Upon the making of a transfer of an entire school 48488
district pursuant to this section, the indebtedness of the 48489
district transferred shall be assumed in full by the acquiring 48490
district and the funds of the district transferred shall be paid 48491
over in full to the acquiring district, except that any 48492
indebtedness of the transferred district incurred as a result of a 48493
loan made under section 3317.64 of the Revised Code is hereby 48494
canceled and shall not be assumed by the acquiring district.48495

       (D) Upon the making of a transfer pursuant to this section, 48496
when only part of a district is transferred, the net indebtedness 48497
of each original district of which only a part is taken by the 48498
acquiring district shall be apportioned between the acquiring 48499
district and the original district in the ratio which the assessed 48500
valuation of the part taken by the acquiring district bears to the 48501
assessed valuation of the original district as of the effective 48502
date of the transfer. As used in this section "net indebtedness" 48503
means the difference between the par value of the outstanding and 48504
unpaid bonds and notes of the school district and the amount held 48505
in the sinking fund and other indebtedness retirement funds for 48506
their redemption.48507

       (E) Upon the making of a transfer pursuant to this section, 48508
when only part of a district is transferred, the funds of the 48509
district from which territory was transferred shall be divided 48510
equitably by the state board between the acquiring district and 48511
that part of the former district remaining after the transfer.48512

       (F) If an entire school district is transferred, the board of 48513
education of such district is thereby abolished. If part of a 48514
school district is transferred, any member of the board of 48515
education who is a legal resident of that part which is 48516
transferred shall thereby cease to be a member of that board.48517

       If an entire school district is transferred, foundation 48518
program moneys accruing to a district accepting school territory 48519
under the provisions of this section shall not be less, in any 48520
year during the next succeeding three years following the 48521
transfer, than the sum of the amounts received by the districts 48522
separately in the year in which the transfer became effective.48523

       Sec. 3311.86.  (A) As used in this section:48524

       (1) "Alliance" means a municipal school district 48525
transformation alliance established as a nonprofit corporation.48526

       (2) "Alliance municipal school district" means a municipal 48527
school district for which an alliance has been created under this 48528
section.48529

       (3) "Partnering community school" means a community school 48530
established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code that is 48531
located within the territory of a municipal school district and 48532
that either is sponsored by the district or is a party to an 48533
agreement with the district whereby the district and the community 48534
school endorse each other's programs.48535

       (4) "Transformation alliance education plan" means a plan 48536
prepared by the mayor, and confirmed by the alliance, to transform 48537
public education in the alliance municipal school district to a 48538
system of municipal school district schools and partnering 48539
community schools that will be held to the highest standards of 48540
school performance and student achievement.48541

       (B) If one or more partnering community schools are located 48542
in a municipal school district, the mayor may initiate proceedings 48543
to establish a municipal school district transformation alliance 48544
as a nonprofit corporation under Chapter 1702. of the Revised 48545
Code. The mayor shall have sole authority to appoint the directors 48546
of any alliance created under this section. The directors of the 48547
alliance shall include representatives of all of the following:48548

       (1) The municipal school district;48549

       (2) Partnering community schools;48550

       (3) Members of the community at large, including parents and 48551
educators;48552

       (4) The business community, including business leaders and 48553
foundation leaders.48554

        No one group listed in divisions (B)(1) to (4) of this 48555
section shall comprise a majority of the directors. The mayor 48556
shall be an ex officio director, and serve as the chairperson of 48557
the board of directors, of any alliance created under this 48558
section. If the proceedings are initiated, the mayor shall 48559
identify the directors in the articles of incorporation filed 48560
under section 1702.04 of the Revised Code.48561

       (C)(1) A majority of the members of the board of directors of 48562
the alliance shall constitute a quorum of the board. Any formal 48563
action taken by the board of directors shall take place at a 48564
meeting of the board and shall require the concurrence of a 48565
majority of the members of the board. Meetings of the board of 48566
directors shall be public meetings open to the public at all 48567
times, except that the board may hold an executive session, as if 48568
it were a public body with public employees, for any of the 48569
purposes for which an executive session of a public body is 48570
permitted under division (G) of section 121.22 of the Revised 48571
Code, notwithstanding that the alliance is not a public body as 48572
defined in that section, and its employees are not public 48573
employees as provided in division (F) of this section. The board 48574
of directors shall establish reasonable methods whereby any person 48575
may determine the time and place of all of the board's public 48576
meetings and by which any person, upon request, may obtain 48577
reasonable advance notification of the board's public meetings. 48578
Provisions for that advance notification may include, but are not 48579
limited to, mailing notices to all subscribers on a mailing list 48580
or mailing notices in self-addressed, stamped envelopes provided 48581
by the person.48582

       (2) All records of the alliance shall be organized and 48583
maintained by the alliance and also filed with the department of 48584
education. The alliance and the department shall make those 48585
records available to the public as though those records were 48586
public records for purposes of Chapter 149. of the Revised Code. 48587
The department shall promptly notify the alliance upon the 48588
department's receipt of any requests for records relating to the 48589
alliance pursuant to section 149.43 of the Revised Code.48590

       (3) The board of directors of the alliance shall establish a 48591
conflicts of interest policy and shall adopt that policy, and any 48592
amendments to the policy, at a meeting of the board held in 48593
accordance with this section.48594

       (D) If an alliance is created under this section, the 48595
alliance shall do all of the following:48596

       (1) Report annually on the performance of all municipal 48597
school district schools and all community schools established 48598
under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code and located in the 48599
district, using the criteria adopted under division (B) of section 48600
3311.87 of the Revised Code;48601

       (2) Confirm and monitor implementation of the transformation 48602
alliance education plan;48603

       (3) Suggest national education models for and provide input 48604
in the development of new municipal school district schools and 48605
partnering community schools.48606

       (E) Divisions (E)(1) to (3) of this section apply to each 48607
community school sponsor that is subject to approval by the 48608
department of education under section 3314.015 of the Revised Code 48609
whose approval under that section is granted or renewed on or 48610
after the effective date of this sectionOctober 1, 2012. 48611
Divisions (E)(1) to (3) of this section do not apply to a sponsor 48612
that has been approved by the department prior to that date, until 48613
the sponsor's approval is renewed or granted anew on or after that 48614
date.48615

        (1) Before a sponsor to which this section applies may 48616
sponsor new community schools in an alliance municipal school 48617
district, the sponsor shall request recommendation from the 48618
alliance to sponsor community schools in the district.48619

        (2) The alliance shall review the sponsor's application and 48620
shall make a recommendation based on the standards for sponsors 48621
developed under division (A)(2) of section 3311.87 of the Revised 48622
Code. 48623

       (3) The department shall use the standards developed under 48624
division (A)(2) of section 3311.87 of the Revised Code, in 48625
addition to any other requirements of the Revised Code, to review 48626
a sponsor's request and make a final determination, on 48627
recommendation of the alliance, of whether the sponsor may sponsor 48628
new community schools in the alliance municipal school district.48629

        No sponsor shall be required to receive authorization to 48630
sponsor new community schools under division (E)(3) of this 48631
section more than one time. 48632

       (F) Directors, officers, and employees of an alliance are not 48633
public employees or public officials, are not subject to Chapters 48634
124., 145., and 4117. of the Revised Code, and are not "public 48635
officials" or "public servants" as defined in section 2921.01 of 48636
the Revised Code. Membership on the board of directors of an 48637
alliance does not constitute the holding of an incompatible public 48638
office or employment in violation of any statutory or common law 48639
prohibition against the simultaneous holding of more than one 48640
public office or employment. Members of the board of directors of 48641
an alliance are not disqualified from holding any public office by 48642
reason of that membership, and do not forfeit by reason of that 48643
membership the public office or employment held when appointed to 48644
the board, notwithstanding any contrary disqualification or 48645
forfeiture requirement under the Revised Code or the common law of 48646
this state.48647

       (G) The authority to establish an alliance under this section 48648
expires on January 1, 2018. Any alliance established under this 48649
section is terminated, and any related authority granted to the 48650
alliance under this section expires on that date.48651

       Sec. 3312.08.  Each fiscal agent selected by the department 48652
of education pursuant to section 3312.07 of the Revised Code shall 48653
do all of the following:48654

       (A) Enter into performance contracts with the department in 48655
accordance with section 3312.09 of the Revised Code for the 48656
implementation of state and regional education initiatives and 48657
school improvement efforts;48658

       (B) Receive federal and state funds, including federal funds 48659
for the provision of special education and related services, as 48660
specified in the performance contracts, and disburse those funds 48661
as specified in the performance contracts to educational service 48662
centers, information technology centers, and other regional 48663
service providers. However, any funds owed to an educational 48664
service center in accordance with an agreement entered into under 48665
section 3317.113313.843, 3313.844, or 3313.845 of the Revised 48666
Code shall be paid directly to the service center by the 48667
department in accordance with that section and any operating funds 48668
appropriated for an information technology center shall be paid 48669
directly to the information technology center by the department 48670
pursuant to section 3301.075 of the Revised Code.48671

       (C) Implement any expenditure of funds recommended by the 48672
advisory council for the region pursuant to section 3312.04 of the 48673
Revised Code or required by the terms of any performance contract, 48674
unless there are insufficient funds available to the region to pay 48675
for the expenditure or the expenditure violates a provision of the 48676
Revised Code, a rule of the state board of education regarding 48677
such expenditure, or the terms of a performance contract;48678

       (D) Exercise fiscal oversight of the implementation of state 48679
and regional education initiatives and school improvement efforts.48680

       Sec. 3313.372.  (A) As used in this section, "energy 48681
conservation measure" means an installation or modification of an 48682
installation in, or remodeling of, a building, to reduce energy 48683
consumption. It includes:48684

       (1) Insulation of the building structure and systems within 48685
the building;48686

       (2) Storm windows and doors, multiglazed windows and doors, 48687
heat absorbing or heat reflective glazed and coated window and 48688
door systems, additional glazing, reductions in glass area, and 48689
other window and door system modifications that reduce energy 48690
consumption;48691

       (3) Automatic energy control systems;48692

       (4) Heating, ventilating, or air conditioning system 48693
modifications or replacements;48694

       (5) Caulking and weatherstripping;48695

       (6) Replacement or modification of lighting fixtures to 48696
increase the energy efficiency of the system without increasing 48697
the overall illumination of a facility, unless such increase in 48698
illumination is necessary to conform to the applicable state or 48699
local building code for the proposed lighting system;48700

       (7) Energy recovery systems;48701

       (8) Cogeneration systems that produce steam or forms of 48702
energy such as heat, as well as electricity, for use primarily 48703
within a building or complex of buildings;48704

       (9) Any other modification, installation, or remodeling 48705
approved by the Ohio school facilities commission as an energy 48706
conservation measure.48707

       (B) A board of education of a city, exempted village, local, 48708
or joint vocational school district may enter into an installment 48709
payment contract for the purchase and installation of energy 48710
conservation measures. The provisions of such installment payment 48711
contracts dealing with interest charges and financing terms shall 48712
not be subject to the competitive bidding requirements of section 48713
3313.46 of the Revised Code, and shall be on the following terms:48714

       (1) Not less than one-fifteenth of the costs thereof shall be 48715
paid within two years from the date of purchase.48716

       (2) The remaining balance of the costs thereof shall be paid 48717
within fifteen years from the date of purchase.48718

       The provisions of any installment payment contract entered 48719
into pursuant to this section shall provide that all payments, 48720
except payments for repairs and obligations on termination of the 48721
contract prior to its expiration, be stated as a percentage of 48722
calculated energy, water, or waste water cost savings, avoided 48723
operating costs, and avoided capital costs attributable to the one 48724
or more measures over a defined period of time. Those payments 48725
shall be made only to the extent that the savings described in 48726
this division actually occur. The contractor shall warrant and 48727
guarantee that the energy conservation measures shall realize 48728
guaranteed savings. In order to ensure payment of any savings 48729
shortfall, the contractor shall provide an energy guarantee bond 48730
for the full term of the contract, including any partial guarantee 48731
year.48732

        The commission may reduce the term of any installment payment 48733
contract entered into under this section on or after the effective 48734
date of this amendment to three years. 48735

       An installment payment contract entered into by a board of 48736
education under this section shall require the board to contract 48737
in accordance with division (A) of section 3313.46 of the Revised 48738
Code for the installation, modification, or remodeling of energy 48739
conservation measures unless division (A) of section 3313.46 of 48740
the Revised Code does not apply pursuant to division (B)(3) of 48741
that section.48742

       (C) The board may issue the notes of the school district 48743
signed by the president and the treasurer of the board and 48744
specifying the terms of the purchase and securing the deferred 48745
payments provided in this section, payable at the times provided 48746
and bearing interest at a rate not exceeding the rate determined 48747
as provided in section 9.95 of the Revised Code. The notes may 48748
contain an option for prepayment and shall not be subject to 48749
Chapter 133. of the Revised Code. In the resolution authorizing 48750
the notes, the board may provide, without the vote of the electors 48751
of the district, for annually levying and collecting taxes in 48752
amounts sufficient to pay the interest on and retire the notes, 48753
except that the total net indebtedness of the district without a 48754
vote of the electors incurred under this and all other sections of 48755
the Revised Code, except section 3318.052 of the Revised Code, 48756
shall not exceed one per cent of the district's tax valuation. 48757
Revenues derived from local taxes or otherwise, for the purpose of 48758
conserving energy or for defraying the current operating expenses 48759
of the district, may be applied to the payment of interest and the 48760
retirement of such notes. The notes may be sold at private sale or 48761
given to the contractor under the installment payment contract 48762
authorized by division (B) of this section.48763

       (D) Debt incurred under this section shall not be included in 48764
the calculation of the net indebtedness of a school district under 48765
section 133.06 of the Revised Code.48766

       (E) No school district board shall enter into an installment 48767
payment contract under division (B) of this section unless it 48768
first obtains a report of the costs of the energy conservation 48769
measures and the savings thereof as described under division (G) 48770
of section 133.06 of the Revised Code as a requirement for issuing 48771
energy securities, makes a finding that the amount spent on such 48772
measures is not likely to exceed the amount of money it would save 48773
in energy costs and resultant operational and maintenance costs as 48774
described in that division, except that that finding shall cover 48775
the ensuing fifteen years, and the Ohio school facilities 48776
commission determines that the district board's findings are 48777
reasonable and approves the contract as described in that 48778
division.48779

       The district board shall monitor the savings and maintain a 48780
report of those savings, which shall be submitted to the 48781
commission in the same manner as required by division (G) of 48782
section 133.06 of the Revised Code in the case of energy 48783
securities.48784

       Sec. 3313.376.  As used in this section, "client school 48785
district" has the same meaning as in section 3317.11 of the 48786
Revised Codemeans a city, exempted village, or local school 48787
district that has entered into an agreement under section 3313.843 48788
or 3313.845 of the Revised Code to receive any services from an 48789
educational service center.48790

       For the purpose of obtaining quantity discounts in purchasing 48791
textbooks; computer equipment, including computer software; school 48792
buses; and natural gas, electricity, and other utility services, 48793
the governing boards of two or more educational service centers 48794
may enter into agreements, including installment purchase and 48795
lease-purchase contracts, to jointly purchase such commodities to 48796
be utilized by client school districts of the educational service 48797
centers.48798

       Sec. 3313.48. (A) The board of education of each city, 48799
exempted village, local, and joint vocational school district 48800
shall provide for the free education of the youth of school age 48801
within the district under its jurisdiction, at such places as will 48802
be most convenient for the attendance of the largest number 48803
thereof. Except as provided in section 3313.481 of the Revised 48804
Code, eachEach school so provided and each chartered nonpublic 48805
school shall be open for instruction with pupils in attendance, 48806
including scheduled classes, supervised activities, and approved 48807
education options but excluding lunch and breakfast periods and 48808
extracurricular activities, for not less than one hundred 48809
eighty-two daysfour hundred fifty-five hours in the case of 48810
pupils in kindergarten unless such pupils are provided all-day 48811
kindergarten, as defined in section 3321.05 of the Revised Code, 48812
in which case the pupils shall be in attendance for nine hundred 48813
ten hours; nine hundred ten hours in the case of pupils in grades 48814
one through six; and one thousand one hours in the case of pupils 48815
in grades seven through twelve in each school year, which may 48816
include all of the following:48817

       (A)(1) Up to fourthe equivalent of two school days per year 48818
in which classes are dismissed one-half day early or the 48819
equivalent amount of time during a different number of daysduring 48820
which pupils would otherwise be in attendance but are not required 48821
to attend for the purpose of individualized parent-teacher 48822
conferences and reporting periods;48823

       (B)(2) Up to the equivalent of two school days per year 48824
during which pupils would otherwise be in attendance but are not 48825
required to attend for professional meetings of teachers when such 48826
days occur during a regular school week and schools are not in 48827
session;48828

       (C) The number of days the school is closed as a result of 48829
public calamity, as provided in section 3317.01 of the Revised 48830
Code(3) Morning and afternoon recess periods of not more than 48831
fifteen minutes duration per period for pupils in grades 48832
kindergarten through six.48833

       The state board of education shall adopt standards for 48834
defining "school day" as used in sections 3313.48 and 3317.01 of 48835
the Revised Code.48836

       Except as otherwise provided in this section, each day for 48837
grades seven through twelve shall consist of not less than five 48838
clock hours with pupils in attendance, except in such emergency 48839
situations, including lack of classroom space, as are approved by 48840
the state board of education. Except as otherwise provided in this 48841
section, each day for grades one through six shall consist of not 48842
less than five clock hours with pupils in attendance which may 48843
include fifteen minute morning and afternoon recess periods, 48844
except in such emergency situations, including lack of classroom 48845
space, as are approved by the state board of education.48846

       (B) Not later than thirty days prior to adopting a school 48847
calendar, the board of education of each city, exempted village, 48848
and local school district shall hold a public hearing on the 48849
school calendar, addressing topics that include, but are not 48850
limited to, the total number of hours in a school year, length of 48851
school day, and beginning and end dates of instruction.48852

        (C) No school operated by a city, exempted village, local, or 48853
joint vocational school district shall reduce the number of hours 48854
in each school year that the school is scheduled to be open for 48855
instruction from the number of hours per year the school was open 48856
for instruction during the previous school year unless the 48857
reduction is approved by a resolution adopted by the district 48858
board of education. Any reduction so approved shall not result in 48859
fewer hours of instruction per school year than the applicable 48860
number of hours required under division (A) of this section.48861

       (D) Prior to making any change in the hours or days in which 48862
a high school under its jurisdiction is open for instruction, the 48863
board of education of each city, exempted village, and local 48864
school district shall consider the compatibility of the proposed 48865
change with the scheduling needs of any joint vocational school 48866
district in which any of the high school's students are also 48867
enrolled. The board shall consider the impact of the proposed 48868
change on student access to the instructional programs offered by 48869
the joint vocational school district, incentives for students to 48870
participate in career-technical education, transportation, and the 48871
timing of graduation. The board shall provide the joint vocational 48872
school district board with advance notice of the proposed change 48873
and the two boards shall enter into a written agreement 48874
prescribing reasonable accommodations to meet the scheduling needs 48875
of the joint vocational school district prior to implementation of 48876
the change.48877

       (E) Prior to making any change in the hours or days in which 48878
a school under its jurisdiction is open for instruction, the board 48879
of education of each city, exempted village, and local school 48880
district shall consider the compatibility of the proposed change 48881
with the scheduling needs of any community school established 48882
under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code to which the district is 48883
required to transport students under sections 3314.09 and 3327.01 48884
of the Revised Code. The board shall consider the impact of the 48885
proposed change on student access to the instructional programs 48886
offered by the community school, transportation, and the timing of 48887
graduation. The board shall provide the sponsor, governing 48888
authority, and operator of the community school with advance 48889
notice of the proposed change, and the board and the governing 48890
authority, or operator if such authority is delegated to the 48891
operator, shall enter into a written agreement prescribing 48892
reasonable accommodations to meet the scheduling needs of the 48893
community school prior to implementation of the change.48894

       (F) Prior to making any change in the hours or days in which 48895
the schools under its jurisdiction are open for instruction, the 48896
board of education of each city, exempted village, and local 48897
school district shall consult with the chartered nonpublic schools 48898
to which the district is required to transport students under 48899
section 3327.01 of the Revised Code and shall consider the effect 48900
of the proposed change on the schedule for transportation of those 48901
students to their nonpublic schools. The governing authority of a 48902
chartered nonpublic school shall consult with each school district 48903
board of education that transports students to the chartered 48904
nonpublic school under section 3327.01 of the Revised Code prior 48905
to making any change in the hours or days in which the nonpublic 48906
school is open for instruction.48907

       (G) The state board of education shall not adopt or enforce 48908
any rule or standard that imposes on chartered nonpublic schools 48909
the procedural requirements imposed on school districts by 48910
divisions (B), (C), (D), and (E) of this section.48911

       Sec. 3313.481. Wherever in Title XXXIII of the Revised Code 48912
the term "school day" is used, unless otherwise specified, that 48913
term shall be construed to mean the time during a calendar day 48914
that a school is open for instruction pursuant to the schedule 48915
adopted by the board of education of the school district or the 48916
governing authority of the chartered nonpublic school in 48917
accordance with section 3313.48 of the Revised Code.48918

       Sec. 3313.483.  (A) A board of education, upon the adoption 48919
of a resolution stating that it may be financially unable to open 48920
on the day or to remain open for instruction on all days set forth 48921
in its adopted school calendar and pay all obligated expenses, or 48922
the superintendent of public instruction upon the issuance of 48923
written notification under division (B) of section 3313.489 of the 48924
Revised Code, shall request the auditor of state to determine 48925
whether such situation exists. The auditor shall deliver a copy of 48926
each request from a board of education to the superintendent of 48927
public instruction. In the case of a school district not under a 48928
fiscal emergency pursuant to Chapter 3316. of the Revised Code the 48929
auditor shall not issue a finding under this section until written 48930
notification is received from the superintendent pursuant to 48931
section 3313.487 of the Revised Code.48932

       (B) If the auditor of state finds that the board of education 48933
has attempted to avail itself to the fullest extent authorized by 48934
law of all lawful revenue sources available to it except those 48935
authorized by section 5705.21 of the Revised Code, the auditor 48936
shall certify that finding to the superintendent of public 48937
instruction and the state board of education and shall certify the 48938
operating deficit the district will have at the end of the fiscal 48939
year if it commences or continues operating its instructional 48940
program in accordance with its adopted school calendar and pays 48941
all obligated expenses.48942

       (C) No board of education may delay the opening of its 48943
schools or close its schools for financial reasons. Upon the 48944
request of the superintendent of public instruction, the attorney 48945
general shall seek injunctive relief and any other relief required 48946
to enforce this prohibition in the court of common pleas of 48947
Franklin county. The court of common pleas of Franklin county has 48948
exclusive original jurisdiction over all such actions.48949

       (D) Upon the receipt of any certification of an operating 48950
deficit from the auditor of state, a board of education shall make 48951
application to a commercial bank, underwriter, or other 48952
prospective lender or purchaser of its obligations for a loan in 48953
an amount sufficient to enable the district to open or remain open 48954
for instruction on all days set forth in its adopted school 48955
calendar but not to exceed the amount of the deficit certified.48956

       (E)(1) Any board of education that has applied for and been 48957
denied a loan from a commercial bank, underwriter, or other 48958
prospective lender or purchaser of its obligations pursuant to 48959
division (D) of this section shall submit to the superintendent of 48960
public instruction a plan for implementing reductions in the 48961
school district's budget; apply for a loan from a commercial bank, 48962
underwriter, or other prospective lender or purchaser of its 48963
obligations in an amount not to exceed its certified deficit; and 48964
provide the superintendent such information as the superintendent 48965
requires concerning its application for such a loan. The board of 48966
education of a school district declared to be under a fiscal watch 48967
pursuant to division (A) of section 3316.03 of the Revised Code 48968
may, upon approval of the superintendent, utilize the financial 48969
plan required by section 3316.04 of the Revised Code, or 48970
applicable parts thereof, as the plan required under this 48971
division. The board of education of a school district declared to 48972
be under a fiscal emergency pursuant to division (B) of section 48973
3316.03 of the Revised Code may utilize the financial recovery 48974
plan for the district, or applicable parts thereof, as the plan 48975
required under this division. Except for the plan of a school 48976
district under a fiscal emergency, the superintendent shall 48977
evaluate, make recommendations concerning, and approve or 48978
disapprove each plan. When a plan is submitted, the superintendent 48979
shall immediately notify the members of the general assembly whose 48980
legislative districts include any or all of the territory of the 48981
school district submitting the plan.48982

       (2) The superintendent shall submit to the controlling board 48983
a copy of each plan the superintendent approves, or each plan 48984
submitted by a district under a fiscal emergency pursuant to 48985
division (B) of section 3316.03 of the Revised Code, and the 48986
general terms of each proposed loan, and shall make 48987
recommendations regarding the plan and whether a proposed loan to 48988
the board of education should be approved for payment as provided 48989
in division (E)(3) of this section. The controlling board shall 48990
approve or disapprove the plan and the proposed loan presented to 48991
it by the superintendent. In the case of a district not under a 48992
fiscal emergency pursuant to division (B) of section 3316.03 of 48993
the Revised Code, the controlling board may require a board of 48994
education to implement the superintendent's recommendations for 48995
expenditure reductions or impose other requirements. Loan 48996
repayments shall be in accordance with a schedule approved by the 48997
superintendent, except that the principal amount of the loan shall 48998
be payable in monthly, semiannual, or annual installments of 48999
principal and interest that are substantially equal principal and 49000
interest installments. Except as otherwise provided in division 49001
(E)(2) of this section, repayment shall be made no later than the 49002
fifteenth day of June of the second fiscal year following the 49003
approval of the loan. A school district with a certified deficit 49004
in excess of either twenty-five million dollars or fifteen per 49005
cent of the general fund expenditures of the district during the 49006
fiscal year shall repay the loan no later than the fifteenth day 49007
of June of the tenth fiscal year following the approval of the 49008
loan. In deciding whether to approve or disapprove a proposed 49009
loan, the controlling board shall consider the deficit certified 49010
by the auditor of state pursuant to this section. A board of 49011
education that has an outstanding loan approved pursuant to this 49012
section with a repayment date of more than two fiscal years after 49013
the date of approval of such loan may not apply for another loan 49014
with such a repayment date until the outstanding loan has been 49015
repaid.49016

       (3) If a board of education has submitted and received 49017
controlling board approval of a plan and proposed loan in 49018
accordance with this section, the superintendent of public 49019
instruction shall report to the controlling board the actual 49020
amounts loaned to the board of education. Such board of education 49021
shall request the superintendent to pay any funds the board of 49022
education would otherwise receive pursuant to Chapter 3306. of the 49023
Revised Code first directly to the holders of the board of 49024
education's notes, or an agent thereof, such amounts as are 49025
specified under the terms of the loan. Such payments shall be made 49026
only from and to the extent of money appropriated by the general 49027
assembly for purposes of such sections. No note or other 49028
obligation of the board of education under the loan constitutes an 49029
obligation nor a debt or a pledge of the faith, credit, or taxing 49030
power of the state, and the holder or owner of such note or 49031
obligation has no right to have taxes levied by the general 49032
assembly for the payment of such note or obligation, and such note 49033
or obligation shall contain a statement to that effect.49034

       (4) Pursuant to the terms of such a loan, a board of 49035
education may issue its notes in anticipation of the collection of 49036
its voted levies for current expenses or its receipt of such state 49037
funds or both. Such notes shall be issued in accordance with 49038
division (E) of section 133.10 of the Revised Code and constitute 49039
Chapter 133. securities to the extent such division and the 49040
otherwise applicable provisions of Chapter 133. of the Revised 49041
Code are not inconsistent with this section, provided that in any 49042
event sections 133.24 and 5705.21 and divisions (A), (B), (C), and 49043
(E)(2) of section 133.10 of the Revised Code do not apply to such 49044
notes.49045

       (5) Notwithstanding section 133.36 or 3313.17, any other 49046
section of the Revised Code, or any other provision of law, a 49047
board of education that has received a loan under this section may 49048
not declare bankruptcy, so long as any portion of such loan 49049
remains unpaid.49050

       (F) Under this section and sectionssection 3313.4810 and 49051
3313.4811, "board of education" or "district board" includes the 49052
financial planning and supervision commission of a school district 49053
under a fiscal emergency pursuant to Chapter 3316. of the Revised 49054
Code where such commission chooses to exercise the powers and 49055
duties otherwise required of the district board of education under 49056
this section and sectionssection 3313.4810 and 3313.4811 of the 49057
Revised Code.49058

       Sec. 3313.484.  No loan shall be approved under sections 49059
3313.483 to 3313.48113313.4810 of the Revised Code after March 1, 49060
1998.49061

       By the last day of June each year, the department of 49062
education shall calculate and pay a subsidy to every school 49063
district that during the current fiscal year paid and was 49064
obligated to pay interest on a loan under sections 3313.483 to 49065
3313.48113313.4810 of the Revised Code in excess of two per cent 49066
simple interest. The amount of the subsidy shall equal the 49067
difference between the amount of interest the district paid and 49068
was obligated to pay during the year and the interest that the 49069
district would have been obligated to pay if the interest rate on 49070
the loan had been two per cent per year.49071

       Sec. 3313.488.  (A) Within fifteen days ofafter the date a 49072
board of education requests that its school district be made 49073
subject to this section as authorized by section 3317.62 of the 49074
Revised Code, or the state board of education has issuedissues an 49075
order under section 3313.487 of the Revised Code making a school 49076
district subject to this section, the district's board of 49077
education shall prepare a fiscal statement of expenses and 49078
expenditures for the remainder of the current fiscal year. The 49079
fiscal statement shall be submitted to the superintendent of 49080
public instruction and shall set forth all revenues to be received 49081
by the district during the remainder of the fiscal year and their 49082
sources, the expenses to be incurred by the district during the 49083
remainder of the fiscal year, the outstanding and unpaid expenses 49084
at the time the fiscal statement is prepared and the date or dates 49085
by which such expenses must be paid, and such other information as 49086
the superintendent requires to enable the superintendent to ensure 49087
that during the remainder of the fiscal year, the district will 49088
not incur any expenses that will further impair its ability to 49089
operate an instructional program that meets or exceeds the minimum 49090
standards of the state board of education and requirements of the 49091
Revised Code during the current and ensuing fiscal years with the 49092
revenue available to it from existing revenue sources. The fiscal 49093
statement shall be presented in such detail and form as the 49094
superintendent prescribes. Beginning the tenth day after the 49095
fiscal statement is submitted and for the remainder of the fiscal 49096
year, the board shall not make any expenditure of money, make any 49097
employment, purchase, or rental contract, give any order involving 49098
the expenditure of money, or increase any wage or salary schedule 49099
unless the superintendent of public instruction has approved the 49100
fiscal statement in writing and the expenditure, contract, order, 49101
or schedule has been approved in writing by the superintendent as 49102
being in conformity with the fiscal statement.49103

       Any contract or expenditure made, order given, or schedule 49104
adopted or put into effect without the written approval of the 49105
superintendent of public instruction is void, and no warrant shall 49106
be issued in payment of any amount due thereon.49107

       (B) A board of education subject to division (A) of this 49108
section shall prepare a fiscal statement of expenses and 49109
expenditures for the ensuing fiscal year. The fiscal statement 49110
shall be submitted to the superintendent of public instruction and 49111
shall set forth all revenues to be received by the district during 49112
such year and their source, the expenses to be incurred by the 49113
district during such year, the outstanding and unpaid expenses on 49114
the first day of such fiscal year, the date or dates by which such 49115
expenses must be paid, and such other information as the 49116
superintendent requires to enable the superintendent to ensure 49117
that during such year, the district will not incur any expenses 49118
that will further impair its ability to operate an instructional 49119
program that meets or exceeds the minimum standards of the state 49120
board of education and requirements of the Revised Code during 49121
such year with the revenue available to it from existing revenue 49122
sources. The fiscal statement shall be presented at the time and 49123
in such detail and form as the superintendent prescribes. During 49124
the fiscal year following the year in which a board of education 49125
first becomes subject to division (A) of this section it shall not 49126
make any expenditure of money, make any employment, purchase, or 49127
rental contract, give any order involving the expenditure of 49128
money, or increase any wage or salary schedule unless the 49129
superintendent of public instruction has approved the fiscal 49130
statement submitted under this division in writing and has 49131
approved the expenditure, contract, order, or schedule in writing 49132
as being in conformity with the fiscal statement.49133

       Any contract or expenditure made, order given, or schedule 49134
adopted or put into effect without the written approval of the 49135
superintendent of public instruction is void, and no warrant shall 49136
be issued in payment of any amount due thereon.49137

       (C) The state board of education shall examine any fiscal 49138
statement presented to and approved by the superintendent of 49139
public instruction under division (B) of this section and shall 49140
determine whether the data set forth in the fiscal statement are 49141
factual and based upon assumptions that in its judgment are 49142
reasonable expectations consistent with acceptable governmental 49143
budget and accounting practices. If the state board so determines 49144
and finds that the revenues and expenditures in the fiscal 49145
statement are in balance for the fiscal year and the fiscal 49146
statement will enable the district to operate during such year 49147
without interrupting its school calendar, it shall certify its 49148
determination and finding to the district at least thirty days 49149
prior to the beginning of the fiscal year, and the district shall 49150
thereupon cease to be subject to this section. If the state board 49151
does not make such a determination and finding, the board of 49152
education and school district are subject to this division and 49153
division (B) of this section in the ensuing fiscal year and each 49154
fiscal year thereafter until the state board makes a 49155
determination, finding, and certification under this division.49156

       (D) Any officer, employee, or other person who knowingly 49157
expends or authorizes the expenditure of any public funds or 49158
knowingly authorizes or executes any contract, order, or schedule 49159
contrary to division (A) or (B) of this section or who knowingly 49160
expends or authorizes the expenditure of any public funds on any 49161
such void contract, order, or schedule is jointly and severally 49162
liable in person and upon any official bond that the officer, 49163
employee, or other person has given to such school district to the 49164
extent of any payments on the void claim, not to exceed twenty 49165
thousand dollars. The attorney general at the written request of 49166
the superintendent of public instruction shall enforce this 49167
liability by civil action brought in any court of appropriate 49168
jurisdiction in the name of and on behalf of the school district.49169

       (E) During each month that a board of education is subject to 49170
division (A), (B), or (C) of this section, the superintendent of 49171
public instruction shall submit a report to the speaker of the 49172
house of representatives and the president of the senate on the 49173
financial condition of the school district. The report shall 49174
contain the date by which the superintendent anticipates the 49175
district will cease to be subject to such divisions, the 49176
district's plans for becoming exempt from such section, and such 49177
other information the superintendent determines appropriate or the 49178
speaker of the house of representatives or president of the senate 49179
requests.49180

       In addition to the other reports required under this 49181
division, on the thirty-first day of each school district fiscal 49182
year following a fiscal year in which a school district first 49183
becomes subject to this section, the superintendent shall submit a 49184
written report to the speaker of the house of representatives and 49185
the president of the senate. The report shall include 49186
recommendations to the general assembly for strengthening the 49187
financial condition of school districts based upon the experiences 49188
of the superintendent and the state board in exercising their 49189
powers under this section and sections 3313.483 and 3313.487 of 49190
the Revised Code.49191

       (F) This section does not apply to a school district declared 49192
to be under a fiscal emergency pursuant to division (B) of section 49193
3316.03 of the Revised Code.49194

       Sec. 3313.4810.  Any school district receiving a loan under 49195
section 3313.483 or 3317.64 of the Revised Code in excess of seven 49196
per cent of the general fund expenditures of the district during 49197
the fiscal year in which the loan is received and that has 49198
received a loan under that section within the last five years is 49199
subject to section 3313.488 of the Revised Code for the duration 49200
of the fiscal year in which the district receives the loan and 49201
during the ensuing two fiscal years. The controlling board may not 49202
relieve a school district to which this section applies from any 49203
requirements imposed under section 3313.483 or 3317.64 of the 49204
Revised Code to implement recommendations of the superintendent of 49205
public instruction for expenditure reduction and may not modify 49206
any other requirements imposed under such section upon such a 49207
district as a condition for receiving the loan unless expressly 49208
authorized to do so by law. The superintendent of public 49209
instruction shall, among any recommendations hethe superintendent49210
makes for expenditure reduction under section 3313.483 or 3317.6349211
of the Revised Code affecting the number of employees of a school 49212
district to which this section applies, provide wherever possible 49213
for the retention of teachers who are actually involved in the 49214
daily teaching of students in the classroom.49215

       Sec. 3313.533.  (A) The board of education of a city, 49216
exempted village, or local school district may adopt a resolution 49217
to establish and maintain an alternative school in accordance with 49218
this section. The resolution shall specify, but not necessarily be 49219
limited to, all of the following:49220

       (1) The purpose of the school, which purpose shall be to 49221
serve students who are on suspension, who are having truancy 49222
problems, who are experiencing academic failure, who have a 49223
history of class disruption, who are exhibiting other academic or 49224
behavioral problems specified in the resolution, or who have been 49225
discharged or released from the custody of the department of youth 49226
services under section 5139.51 of the Revised Code;49227

       (2) The grades served by the school, which may include any of 49228
grades kindergarten through twelve;49229

       (3) A requirement that the school be operated in accordance 49230
with this section. The board of education adopting the resolution 49231
under division (A) of this section shall be the governing board of 49232
the alternative school. The board shall develop and implement a 49233
plan for the school in accordance with the resolution establishing 49234
the school and in accordance with this section. Each plan shall 49235
include, but not necessarily be limited to, all of the following:49236

       (a) Specification of the reasons for which students will be 49237
accepted for assignment to the school and any criteria for 49238
admission that are to be used by the board to approve or 49239
disapprove the assignment of students to the school;49240

       (b) Specification of the criteria and procedures that will be 49241
used for returning students who have been assigned to the school 49242
back to the regular education program of the district;49243

       (c) An evaluation plan for assessing the effectiveness of the 49244
school and its educational program and reporting the results of 49245
the evaluation to the public.49246

       (B) Notwithstanding any provision of Title XXXIII of the 49247
Revised Code to the contrary, the alternative school plan may 49248
include any of the following:49249

       (1) A requirement that on each school day students must 49250
attend school or participate in other programs specified in the 49251
plan or by the chief administrative officer of the school for a 49252
period equal to the minimum school day set by the state board of 49253
education under section 3313.48 of the Revised Code plus any 49254
additional time required in the plan or by the chief 49255
administrative officer;49256

       (2) Restrictions on student participation in extracurricular 49257
or interscholastic activities;49258

       (3) A requirement that students wear uniforms prescribed by 49259
the district board of education.49260

       (C) In accordance with the alternative school plan, the 49261
district board of education may employ teachers and nonteaching 49262
employees necessary to carry out its duties and fulfill its 49263
responsibilities or may contract with a nonprofit or for profit 49264
entity to operate the alternative school, including the provision 49265
of personnel, supplies, equipment, or facilities.49266

       (D) An alternative school may be established in all or part 49267
of a school building.49268

       (E) If a district board of education elects under this 49269
section, or is required by section 3313.534 of the Revised Code, 49270
to establish an alternative school, the district board may join 49271
with the board of education of one or more other districts to form 49272
a joint alternative school by forming a cooperative education 49273
school district under section 3311.52 or 3311.521 of the Revised 49274
Code, or a joint educational program under section 3313.842 of the 49275
Revised Code. The authority to employ personnel or to contract 49276
with a nonprofit or for profit entity under division (C) of this 49277
section applies to any alternative school program established 49278
under this division.49279

       (F) Any individual employed as a teacher at an alternative 49280
school operated by a nonprofit or for profit entity under this 49281
section shall be licensed and shall be subject to background 49282
checks, as described in section 3319.39 of the Revised Code, in 49283
the same manner as an individual employed by a school district.49284

       (G) Division (G) of this section applies only to any 49285
alternative school that is operated by a nonprofit or for profit 49286
entity under contract with the school district.49287

       (1) In addition to the specifications authorized under 49288
division (B) of this section, any plan adopted under that division 49289
for an alternative school to which division (G) of this section 49290
also applies shall include the following:49291

       (a) A description of the educational program provided at the 49292
alternative school, which shall include:49293

       (i) Provisions for the school to be configured in clusters or 49294
small learning communities;49295

       (ii) Provisions for the incorporation of education technology 49296
into the curriculum;49297

       (iii) Provisions for accelerated learning programs in reading 49298
and mathematics.49299

       (b) A method to determine the reading and mathematics level 49300
of each student assigned to the alternative school and a method to 49301
continuously monitor each student's progress in those areas. The 49302
methods employed under this division shall be aligned with the 49303
curriculum adopted by the school district board of education under 49304
section 3313.60 of the Revised Code.49305

       (c) A plan for social services to be provided at the 49306
alternative school, such as, but not limited to, counseling 49307
services, psychological support services, and enrichment programs;49308

       (d) A plan for a student's transition from the alternative 49309
school back to a school operated by the school district;49310

       (e) A requirement that the alternative school maintain 49311
financial records in a manner that is compatible with the form 49312
prescribed for school districts by the auditor of state to enable 49313
the district to comply with any rules adopted by the auditor of 49314
state.49315

       (2) Notwithstanding division (A)(2) of this section, any 49316
alternative school to which division (G) of this section applies 49317
shall include only grades six through twelve.49318

       (3) Notwithstanding anything in division (A)(3)(a) of this 49319
section to the contrary, the characteristics of students who may 49320
be assigned to an alternative school to which division (G) of this 49321
section applies shall include only disruptive and low-performing 49322
students.49323

       (H) When any district board of education determines to 49324
contract with a nonprofit or for profit entity to operate an 49325
alternative school under this section, the board shall use the 49326
procedure set forth in this division.49327

       (1) The board shall publish notice of a request for proposals 49328
in a newspaper of general circulation in the district once each 49329
week for a period of two consecutive weeks, or as provided in 49330
section 7.16 of the Revised Code, prior to the date specified by 49331
the board for receiving proposals. Notices of requests for 49332
proposals shall contain a general description of the subject of 49333
the proposed contract and the location where the request for 49334
proposals may be obtained. The request for proposals shall include 49335
all of the following information:49336

       (a) Instructions and information to respondents concerning 49337
the submission of proposals, including the name and address of the 49338
office where proposals are to be submitted;49339

       (b) Instructions regarding communications, including at least 49340
the names, titles, and telephone numbers of persons to whom 49341
questions concerning a proposal may be directed;49342

       (c) A description of the performance criteria that will be 49343
used to evaluate whether a respondent to which a contract is 49344
awarded is meeting the district's educational standards or the 49345
method by which such performance criteria will be determined;49346

       (d) Factors and criteria to be considered in evaluating 49347
proposals, the relative importance of each factor or criterion, 49348
and a description of the evaluation procedures to be followed;49349

       (e) Any terms or conditions of the proposed contract, 49350
including any requirement for a bond and the amount of such bond;49351

       (f) Documents that may be incorporated by reference into the 49352
request for proposals, provided that the request for proposals 49353
specifies where such documents may be obtained and that such 49354
documents are readily available to all interested parties.49355

       (2) After the date specified for receiving proposals, the 49356
board shall evaluate the submitted proposals and may hold 49357
discussions with any respondent to ensure a complete understanding 49358
of the proposal and the qualifications of such respondent to 49359
execute the proposed contract. Such qualifications shall include, 49360
but are not limited to, all of the following:49361

       (a) Demonstrated competence in performance of the required 49362
services as indicated by effective implementation of educational 49363
programs in reading and mathematics and at least three years of 49364
experience successfully serving a student population similar to 49365
the student population assigned to the alternative school;49366

       (b) Demonstrated performance in the areas of cost 49367
containment, the provision of educational services of a high 49368
quality, and any other areas determined by the board;49369

       (c) Whether the respondent has the resources to undertake the 49370
operation of the alternative school and to provide qualified 49371
personnel to staff the school;49372

       (d) Financial responsibility.49373

       (3) The board shall select for further review at least three 49374
proposals from respondents the board considers qualified to 49375
operate the alternative school in the best interests of the 49376
students and the district. If fewer than three proposals are 49377
submitted, the board shall select each proposal submitted. The 49378
board may cancel a request for proposals or reject all proposals 49379
at any time prior to the execution of a contract.49380

       The board may hold discussions with any of the three selected 49381
respondents to clarify or revise the provisions of a proposal or 49382
the proposed contract to ensure complete understanding between the 49383
board and the respondent of the terms under which a contract will 49384
be entered. Respondents shall be accorded fair and equal treatment 49385
with respect to any opportunity for discussion regarding 49386
clarifications or revisions. The board may terminate or 49387
discontinue any further discussion with a respondent upon written 49388
notice.49389

       (4) Upon further review of the three proposals selected by 49390
the board, the board shall award a contract to the respondent the 49391
board considers to have the most merit, taking into consideration 49392
the scope, complexity, and nature of the services to be performed 49393
by the respondent under the contract.49394

       (5) Except as provided in division (H)(6) of this section, 49395
the request for proposals, submitted proposals, and related 49396
documents shall become public records under section 149.43 of the 49397
Revised Code after the award of the contract.49398

       (6) Any respondent may request in writing that the board not 49399
disclose confidential or proprietary information or trade secrets 49400
contained in the proposal submitted by the respondent to the 49401
board. Any such request shall be accompanied by an offer of 49402
indemnification from the respondent to the board. The board shall 49403
determine whether to agree to the request and shall inform the 49404
respondent in writing of its decision. If the board agrees to 49405
nondisclosure of specified information in a proposal, such 49406
information shall not become a public record under section 149.43 49407
of the Revised Code. If the respondent withdraws its proposal at 49408
any time prior to the execution of a contract, the proposal shall 49409
not be a public record under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.49410

       (I) Upon a recommendation from the department and in 49411
accordance with section 3301.16 of the Revised Code, the state 49412
board of education may revoke the charter of any alternative 49413
school operated by a school district that violates this section.49414

       Sec. 3313.539. (A) As used in this section, "physician":49415

       "Physician" means a person authorized under Chapter 4731. of 49416
the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic 49417
medicine and surgery.49418

       "Chiropractor" means a person licensed under Chapter 4734. of 49419
the Revised Code to practice chiropractic.49420

       (B) No school district board of education or governing 49421
authority of a chartered or nonchartered nonpublic school shall 49422
permit a student to practice for or compete in interscholastic 49423
athletics until the student has submitted, to a school official 49424
designated by the board or governing authority, a form signed by 49425
the parent, guardian, or other person having care or charge of the 49426
student stating that the student and the parent, guardian, or 49427
other person having care or charge of the student have received 49428
the concussion and head injury information sheet required by 49429
section 3707.52 of the Revised Code. A completed form shall be 49430
submitted each school year, as defined in section 3313.62 of the 49431
Revised Code, for each sport or other category of interscholastic 49432
athletics for or in which the student practices or competes.49433

       (C)(1) No school district board of education or governing 49434
authority of a chartered or nonchartered nonpublic school shall 49435
permit an individual to coach interscholastic athletics unless the 49436
individual holds a pupil-activity program permit issued under 49437
section 3319.303 of the Revised Code for coaching interscholastic 49438
athletics.49439

       (2) No school district board of education or governing 49440
authority of a chartered or nonchartered nonpublic school shall 49441
permit an individual to referee interscholastic athletics unless 49442
the individual holds a pupil-activity program permit issued under 49443
section 3319.303 of the Revised Code for coaching interscholastic 49444
athletics or presents evidence that the individual has 49445
successfully completed, within the previous three years, a 49446
training program in recognizing the symptoms of concussions and 49447
head injuries to which the department of health has provided a 49448
link on its internet web site under section 3707.52 of the Revised 49449
Code or a training program authorized and required by an 49450
organization that regulates interscholastic conferences or events.49451

       (D) If a student practicing for or competing in an 49452
interscholastic athletic event exhibits signs, symptoms, or 49453
behaviors consistent with having sustained a concussion or head 49454
injury while participating in the practice or competition, the 49455
student shall be removed from the practice or competition by 49456
either of the following:49457

        (1) The individual who is serving as the student's coach 49458
during that practice or competition;49459

        (2) An individual who is serving as a referee during that 49460
practice or competition.49461

       (E)(1) If a student is removed from practice or competition 49462
under division (D) of this section, the coach or referee who 49463
removed the student shall not allow the student, on the same day 49464
the student is removed, to return to that practice or competition 49465
or to participate in any other practice or competition for which 49466
the coach or referee is responsible. Thereafter, the coach or 49467
referee shall not allow the student to return to that practice or 49468
competition or to participate in any other practice or competition 49469
for which the coach or referee is responsible until both of the 49470
following conditions are satisfied:49471

       (a) The student's condition is assessed by eitherany of the 49472
following:49473

       (i) A physician;49474

        (ii) A chiropractor;49475

       (iii) Any other licensed health care provider the school 49476
district board of education or governing authority of the 49477
chartered or nonchartered nonpublic school, pursuant to division 49478
(E)(2) of this section, authorizes to assess a student who has 49479
been removed from practice or competition under division (D) of 49480
this section.49481

       (b) The student receives written clearance that it is safe 49482
for the student to return to practice or competition from a 49483
physician, chiropractor, or from another licensed health care 49484
provider authorized pursuant to division (E)(2) of this section to 49485
grant the clearance.49486

       (2) A school district board of education or governing 49487
authority of a chartered or nonchartered nonpublic school may 49488
authorize a licensed health care provider who is not a physician 49489
or a chiropractor to make an assessment or grant a clearance for 49490
purposes of division (E)(1) of this section only if the provider 49491
is acting in accordance with one of the following, as applicable 49492
to the provider's authority to practice in this state:49493

       (a) In consultation with a physician;49494

       (b) Pursuant to the referral of a physician;49495

       (c) In collaboration with a physician;49496

       (d) Under the supervision of a physician.49497

       (3) A physician, chiropractor, or other licensed health care 49498
provider who makes an assessment or grants a clearance for 49499
purposes of division (E)(1) of this section may be a volunteer.49500

       (F) A school district board of education or governing 49501
authority of a chartered or nonchartered nonpublic school that is 49502
subject to the rules of an interscholastic conference or an 49503
organization that regulates interscholastic conferences or events 49504
shall be considered to be in compliance with divisions (B), (D), 49505
and (E) of this section, as long as the requirements of those 49506
rules are substantially similar to the requirements of divisions 49507
(B), (D), and (E) of this section.49508

       (G)(1) A school district, member of a school district board 49509
of education, or school district employee or volunteer, including 49510
a coach or referee, is not liable in damages in a civil action for 49511
injury, death, or loss to person or property allegedly arising 49512
from providing services or performing duties under this section, 49513
unless the act or omission constitutes willful or wanton 49514
misconduct.49515

       This section does not eliminate, limit, or reduce any other 49516
immunity or defense that a school district, member of a school 49517
district board of education, or school district employee or 49518
volunteer, including a coach or referee, may be entitled to under 49519
Chapter 2744. or any other provision of the Revised Code or under 49520
the common law of this state.49521

       (2) A chartered or nonchartered nonpublic school or any 49522
officer, director, employee, or volunteer of the school, including 49523
a coach or referee, is not liable in damages in a civil action for 49524
injury, death, or loss to person or property allegedly arising 49525
from providing services or performing duties under this section, 49526
unless the act or omission constitutes willful or wanton 49527
misconduct.49528

       Sec. 3313.603.  (A) As used in this section:49529

       (1) "One unit" means a minimum of one hundred twenty hours of 49530
course instruction, except that for a laboratory course, "one 49531
unit" means a minimum of one hundred fifty hours of course 49532
instruction.49533

       (2) "One-half unit" means a minimum of sixty hours of course 49534
instruction, except that for physical education courses, "one-half 49535
unit" means a minimum of one hundred twenty hours of course 49536
instruction.49537

       (3) "Internet- or computer-based community school" has the 49538
same meaning as in section 3314.02 of the Revised Code.49539

       (B) Beginning September 15, 2001, except as required in 49540
division (C) of this section and division (C) of section 3313.614 49541
of the Revised Code, the requirements for graduation from every 49542
high school shall include twenty units earned in grades nine 49543
through twelve and shall be distributed as follows:49544

       (1) English language arts, four units;49545

       (2) Health, one-half unit;49546

       (3) Mathematics, three units;49547

       (4) Physical education, one-half unit;49548

       (5) Science, two units until September 15, 2003, and three 49549
units thereafter, which at all times shall include both of the 49550
following:49551

       (a) Biological sciences, one unit;49552

       (b) Physical sciences, one unit.49553

       (6) History and government, one unit, which shall comply with 49554
division (M) of this section and shall include both of the 49555
following:49556

       (a) American history, one-half unit;49557

       (b) American government, one-half unit.49558

       (7) Social studies, two units.49559

       (8) Elective units, seven units until September 15, 2003, and 49560
six units thereafter.49561

       Each student's electives shall include at least one unit, or 49562
two half units, chosen from among the areas of 49563
business/technology, fine arts, and/or foreign language.49564

       (C) Beginning with students who enter ninth grade for the 49565
first time on or after July 1, 2010, except as provided in 49566
divisions (D) to (F) of this section, the requirements for 49567
graduation from every public and chartered nonpublic high school 49568
shall include twenty units that are designed to prepare students 49569
for the workforce and college. The units shall be distributed as 49570
follows:49571

       (1) English language arts, four units;49572

       (2) Health, one-half unit, which shall include instruction in 49573
nutrition and the benefits of nutritious foods and physical 49574
activity for overall health;49575

       (3) Mathematics, four units, which shall include one unit of 49576
algebra II or the equivalent of algebra II;49577

       (4) Physical education, one-half unit;49578

       (5) Science, three units with inquiry-based laboratory 49579
experience that engages students in asking valid scientific 49580
questions and gathering and analyzing information, which shall 49581
include the following, or their equivalent:49582

       (a) Physical sciences, one unit;49583

       (b) Life sciences, one unit;49584

       (c) Advanced study in one or more of the following sciences, 49585
one unit:49586

       (i) Chemistry, physics, or other physical science;49587

       (ii) Advanced biology or other life science;49588

       (iii) Astronomy, physical geology, or other earth or space 49589
science.49590

       (6) History and government, one unit, which shall comply with 49591
division (M) of this section and shall include both of the 49592
following:49593

       (a) American history, one-half unit;49594

       (b) American government, one-half unit.49595

       (7) Social studies, two units.49596

       Each school shall integrate the study of economics and 49597
financial literacy, as expressed in the social studies academic 49598
content standards adopted by the state board of education under 49599
division (A)(1) of section 3301.079 of the Revised Code and the 49600
academic content standards for financial literacy and 49601
entrepreneurship adopted under division (A)(2) of that section, 49602
into one or more existing social studies credits required under 49603
division (C)(7) of this section, or into the content of another 49604
class, so that every high school student receives instruction in 49605
those concepts. In developing the curriculum required by this 49606
paragraph, schools shall use available public-private partnerships 49607
and resources and materials that exist in business, industry, and 49608
through the centers for economics education at institutions of 49609
higher education in the state.49610

       (8) Five units consisting of one or any combination of 49611
foreign language, fine arts, business, career-technical education, 49612
family and consumer sciences, technology, agricultural education, 49613
a junior reserve officer training corps (JROTC) program approved 49614
by the congress of the United States under title 10 of the United 49615
States Code, or English language arts, mathematics, science, or 49616
social studies courses not otherwise required under division (C) 49617
of this section.49618

       Ohioans must be prepared to apply increased knowledge and 49619
skills in the workplace and to adapt their knowledge and skills 49620
quickly to meet the rapidly changing conditions of the 49621
twenty-first century. National studies indicate that all high 49622
school graduates need the same academic foundation, regardless of 49623
the opportunities they pursue after graduation. The goal of Ohio's 49624
system of elementary and secondary education is to prepare all 49625
students for and seamlessly connect all students to success in 49626
life beyond high school graduation, regardless of whether the next 49627
step is entering the workforce, beginning an apprenticeship, 49628
engaging in post-secondary training, serving in the military, or 49629
pursuing a college degree.49630

        The Ohio core curriculum is the standard expectation for all 49631
students entering ninth grade for the first time at a public or 49632
chartered nonpublic high school on or after July 1, 2010. A 49633
student may satisfy this expectation through a variety of methods, 49634
including, but not limited to, integrated, applied, 49635
career-technical, and traditional coursework.49636

       Whereas teacher quality is essential for student success in 49637
completing the Ohio core curriculum, the general assembly shall 49638
appropriate funds for strategic initiatives designed to strengthen 49639
schools' capacities to hire and retain highly qualified teachers 49640
in the subject areas required by the curriculum. Such initiatives 49641
are expected to require an investment of $120,000,000 over five 49642
years.49643

       Stronger coordination between high schools and institutions 49644
of higher education is necessary to prepare students for more 49645
challenging academic endeavors and to lessen the need for academic 49646
remediation in college, thereby reducing the costs of higher 49647
education for Ohio's students, families, and the state. The state 49648
board and the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents shall 49649
develop policies to ensure that only in rare instances will 49650
students who complete the Ohio core curriculum require academic 49651
remediation after high school.49652

       School districts, community schools, and chartered nonpublic 49653
schools shall integrate technology into learning experiences 49654
across the curriculum in order to maximize efficiency, enhance 49655
learning, and prepare students for success in the 49656
technology-driven twenty-first century. Districts and schools 49657
shall use distance and web-based course delivery as a method of 49658
providing or augmenting all instruction required under this 49659
division, including laboratory experience in science. Districts 49660
and schools shall utilize technology access and electronic 49661
learning opportunities provided by the eTech Ohiobroadcast 49662
educational media commission, chancellor, the Ohio learning 49663
network, education technology centers, public television stations, 49664
and other public and private providers.49665

       (D) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, a 49666
student who enters ninth grade on or after July 1, 2010, and 49667
before July 1, 2014, may qualify for graduation from a public or 49668
chartered nonpublic high school even though the student has not 49669
completed the Ohio core curriculum prescribed in division (C) of 49670
this section if all of the following conditions are satisfied:49671

       (1) After the student has attended high school for two years, 49672
as determined by the school, the student and the student's parent, 49673
guardian, or custodian sign and file with the school a written 49674
statement asserting the parent's, guardian's, or custodian's 49675
consent to the student's graduating without completing the Ohio 49676
core curriculum and acknowledging that one consequence of not 49677
completing the Ohio core curriculum is ineligibility to enroll in 49678
most state universities in Ohio without further coursework.49679

       (2) The student and parent, guardian, or custodian fulfill 49680
any procedural requirements the school stipulates to ensure the 49681
student's and parent's, guardian's, or custodian's informed 49682
consent and to facilitate orderly filing of statements under 49683
division (D)(1) of this section.49684

       (3) The student and the student's parent, guardian, or 49685
custodian and a representative of the student's high school 49686
jointly develop an individual career plan for the student that 49687
specifies the student matriculating to a two-year degree program, 49688
acquiring a business and industry credential, or entering an 49689
apprenticeship.49690

       (4) The student's high school provides counseling and support 49691
for the student related to the plan developed under division 49692
(D)(3) of this section during the remainder of the student's high 49693
school experience.49694

       (5) The student successfully completes, at a minimum, the 49695
curriculum prescribed in division (B) of this section.49696

       The department of education, in collaboration with the 49697
chancellor, shall analyze student performance data to determine if 49698
there are mitigating factors that warrant extending the exception 49699
permitted by division (D) of this section to high school classes 49700
beyond those entering ninth grade before July 1, 2014. The 49701
department shall submit its findings and any recommendations not 49702
later than August 1, 2014, to the speaker and minority leader of 49703
the house of representatives, the president and minority leader of 49704
the senate, the chairpersons and ranking minority members of the 49705
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 49706
that consider education legislation, the state board of education, 49707
and the superintendent of public instruction.49708

       (E) Each school district and chartered nonpublic school 49709
retains the authority to require an even more rigorous minimum 49710
curriculum for high school graduation than specified in division 49711
(B) or (C) of this section. A school district board of education, 49712
through the adoption of a resolution, or the governing authority 49713
of a chartered nonpublic school may stipulate any of the 49714
following:49715

        (1) A minimum high school curriculum that requires more than 49716
twenty units of academic credit to graduate;49717

        (2) An exception to the district's or school's minimum high 49718
school curriculum that is comparable to the exception provided in 49719
division (D) of this section but with additional requirements, 49720
which may include a requirement that the student successfully 49721
complete more than the minimum curriculum prescribed in division 49722
(B) of this section;49723

        (3) That no exception comparable to that provided in division 49724
(D) of this section is available.49725

       (F) A student enrolled in a dropout prevention and recovery 49726
program, which program has received a waiver from the department, 49727
may qualify for graduation from high school by successfully 49728
completing a competency-based instructional program administered 49729
by the dropout prevention and recovery program in lieu of 49730
completing the Ohio core curriculum prescribed in division (C) of 49731
this section. The department shall grant a waiver to a dropout 49732
prevention and recovery program, within sixty days after the 49733
program applies for the waiver, if the program meets all of the 49734
following conditions:49735

       (1) The program serves only students not younger than sixteen 49736
years of age and not older than twenty-one years of age.49737

       (2) The program enrolls students who, at the time of their 49738
initial enrollment, either, or both, are at least one grade level 49739
behind their cohort age groups or experience crises that 49740
significantly interfere with their academic progress such that 49741
they are prevented from continuing their traditional programs.49742

       (3) The program requires students to attain at least the 49743
applicable score designated for each of the assessments prescribed 49744
under division (B)(1) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code or, 49745
to the extent prescribed by rule of the state board under division 49746
(D)(6) of section 3301.0712 of the Revised Code, division (B)(2) 49747
of that section.49748

       (4) The program develops an individual career plan for the 49749
student that specifies the student's matriculating to a two-year 49750
degree program, acquiring a business and industry credential, or 49751
entering an apprenticeship.49752

       (5) The program provides counseling and support for the 49753
student related to the plan developed under division (F)(4) of 49754
this section during the remainder of the student's high school 49755
experience.49756

       (6) The program requires the student and the student's 49757
parent, guardian, or custodian to sign and file, in accordance 49758
with procedural requirements stipulated by the program, a written 49759
statement asserting the parent's, guardian's, or custodian's 49760
consent to the student's graduating without completing the Ohio 49761
core curriculum and acknowledging that one consequence of not 49762
completing the Ohio core curriculum is ineligibility to enroll in 49763
most state universities in Ohio without further coursework.49764

       (7) Prior to receiving the waiver, the program has submitted 49765
to the department an instructional plan that demonstrates how the 49766
academic content standards adopted by the state board under 49767
section 3301.079 of the Revised Code will be taught and assessed.49768

       If the department does not act either to grant the waiver or 49769
to reject the program application for the waiver within sixty days 49770
as required under this section, the waiver shall be considered to 49771
be granted.49772

       (G) Every high school may permit students below the ninth 49773
grade to take advanced work. If a high school so permits, it shall 49774
award high school credit for successful completion of the advanced 49775
work and shall count such advanced work toward the graduation 49776
requirements of division (B) or (C) of this section if the 49777
advanced work was both:49778

       (1) Taught by a person who possesses a license or certificate 49779
issued under section 3301.071, 3319.22, or 3319.222 of the Revised 49780
Code that is valid for teaching high school;49781

       (2) Designated by the board of education of the city, local, 49782
or exempted village school district, the board of the cooperative 49783
education school district, or the governing authority of the 49784
chartered nonpublic school as meeting the high school curriculum 49785
requirements.49786

        Each high school shall record on the student's high school 49787
transcript all high school credit awarded under division (G) of 49788
this section. In addition, if the student completed a seventh- or 49789
eighth-grade fine arts course described in division (K) of this 49790
section and the course qualified for high school credit under that 49791
division, the high school shall record that course on the 49792
student's high school transcript.49793

       (H) The department shall make its individual academic career 49794
plan available through its Ohio career information system web site 49795
for districts and schools to use as a tool for communicating with 49796
and providing guidance to students and families in selecting high 49797
school courses.49798

        (I) Units earned in English language arts, mathematics, 49799
science, and social studies that are delivered through integrated 49800
academic and career-technical instruction are eligible to meet the 49801
graduation requirements of division (B) or (C) of this section.49802

       (J) The state board, in consultation with the chancellor, 49803
shall adopt a statewide plan implementing methods for students to 49804
earn units of high school credit based on a demonstration of 49805
subject area competency, instead of or in combination with 49806
completing hours of classroom instruction. The state board shall 49807
adopt the plan not later than March 31, 2009, and commence phasing 49808
in the plan during the 2009-2010 school year. The plan shall 49809
include a standard method for recording demonstrated proficiency 49810
on high school transcripts. Each school district and community 49811
school shall comply with the state board's plan adopted under this 49812
division and award units of high school credit in accordance with 49813
the plan. The state board may adopt existing methods for earning 49814
high school credit based on a demonstration of subject area 49815
competency as necessary prior to the 2009-2010 school year.49816

       (K) This division does not apply to students who qualify for 49817
graduation from high school under division (D) or (F) of this 49818
section, or to students pursuing a career-technical instructional 49819
track as determined by the school district board of education or 49820
the chartered nonpublic school's governing authority. 49821
Nevertheless, the general assembly encourages such students to 49822
consider enrolling in a fine arts course as an elective.49823

       Beginning with students who enter ninth grade for the first 49824
time on or after July 1, 2010, each student enrolled in a public 49825
or chartered nonpublic high school shall complete two semesters or 49826
the equivalent of fine arts to graduate from high school. The 49827
coursework may be completed in any of grades seven to twelve. Each 49828
student who completes a fine arts course in grade seven or eight 49829
may elect to count that course toward the five units of electives 49830
required for graduation under division (C)(8) of this section, if 49831
the course satisfied the requirements of division (G) of this 49832
section. In that case, the high school shall award the student 49833
high school credit for the course and count the course toward the 49834
five units required under division (C)(8) of this section. If the 49835
course in grade seven or eight did not satisfy the requirements of 49836
division (G) of this section, the high school shall not award the 49837
student high school credit for the course but shall count the 49838
course toward the two semesters or the equivalent of fine arts 49839
required by this division.49840

       (L)(1) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this 49841
section, the board of education of each school district and the 49842
governing authority of each chartered nonpublic school may adopt a 49843
policy to excuse from the high school physical education 49844
requirement each student who, during high school, has participated 49845
in interscholastic athletics, marching band, or cheerleading for 49846
at least two full seasons or in the junior reserve officer 49847
training corps for at least two full school years. If the board or 49848
authority adopts such a policy, the board or authority shall not 49849
require the student to complete any physical education course as a 49850
condition to graduate. However49851

       (2) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this section, 49852
a student enrolled in an internet- or computer-based community 49853
school shall be excused from the high school physical education 49854
requirement prescribed by this section.49855

       (3) However, theany student excused from the physical 49856
education requirement under division (L) of this section shall be 49857
required to complete one-half unit, consisting of at least sixty 49858
hours of instruction, in another course of study. In the case of a 49859
student who has participated in the junior reserve officer 49860
training corps for at least two full school years, credit received 49861
for that participation may be used to satisfy the requirement to 49862
complete one-half unit in another course of study.49863

       (M) It is important that high school students learn and 49864
understand United States history and the governments of both the 49865
United States and the state of Ohio. Therefore, beginning with 49866
students who enter ninth grade for the first time on or after July 49867
1, 2012, the study of American history and American government 49868
required by divisions (B)(6) and (C)(6) of this section shall 49869
include the study of all of the following documents:49870

        (1) The Declaration of Independence;49871

        (2) The Northwest Ordinance;49872

        (3) The Constitution of the United States with emphasis on 49873
the Bill of Rights;49874

        (4) The Ohio Constitution.49875

        The study of each of the documents prescribed in divisions 49876
(M)(1) to (4) of this section shall include study of that document 49877
in its original context.49878

        The study of American history and government required by 49879
divisions (B)(6) and (C)(6) of this section shall include the 49880
historical evidence of the role of documents such as the 49881
Federalist Papers and the Anti-Federalist Papers to firmly 49882
establish the historical background leading to the establishment 49883
of the provisions of the Constitution and Bill of Rights.49884

       Sec. 3313.6013. (A) As used in this section, "dual enrollment 49885
program" means a program that enables a student to earn credit 49886
toward a degree from an institution of higher education while 49887
enrolled in high school or that enables a student to complete 49888
coursework while enrolled in high school that may earn credit 49889
toward a degree from an institution of higher education upon the 49890
student's attainment of a specified score on an examination 49891
covering the coursework. Dual enrollment programs may include any 49892
of the following:49893

        (1) The post-secondary enrollment options program established 49894
under Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code;49895

       (2) Advanced placement courses;49896

       (3) Any similar program established pursuant to an agreement 49897
between a school district or chartered nonpublic high school and 49898
an institution of higher education;49899

       (4) Early college high schools.49900

        (B) Each city, local, exempted village, and joint vocational 49901
school district and each chartered nonpublic high school shall 49902
provide students enrolled in grades nine through twelve with the 49903
opportunity to participate in a dual enrollment program. For this 49904
purpose, each school district and chartered nonpublic high school 49905
shall offer at least one dual enrollment program in accordance 49906
with division (B)(1) or (2) of this section, as applicable.49907

        (1) A city, local, or exempted village school district meets 49908
the requirements of this division through its mandatory 49909
participation in the post-secondary enrollment options program 49910
established under Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code. However, a 49911
city, local, or exempted village school district may offer any 49912
other dual enrollment program, in addition to the post-secondary 49913
enrollment options program, and each joint vocational school 49914
district shall offer at least one other dual enrollment program, 49915
to students in good standing, as defined by the partnership for 49916
continued learning under section 3301.42 of the Revised Code as it 49917
existed prior to October 16, 2009, or as subsequently defined by 49918
the department of education.49919

        (2) A chartered nonpublic high school that elects to 49920
participate in the post-secondary enrollment options program 49921
established under Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code meets the 49922
requirements of this division. Each chartered nonpublic high 49923
school that elects not to participate in the post-secondary 49924
enrollment options program instead shall offer at least one other 49925
dual enrollment program to students in good standing, as defined 49926
by the partnership for continued learning under section 3301.42 of 49927
the Revised Code as it existed prior to October 16, 2009, or as 49928
subsequently defined by the department of education.49929

       (C) Each school district and each chartered nonpublic high 49930
school shall provide information about the dual enrollment 49931
programs offered by the district or school to all students 49932
enrolled in grades eight through eleven.49933

       Sec. 3313.6016.  (A) Beginning in the 2011-2012 school year, 49934
the department of education shall administer a pilot program 49935
requiring daily physical activity for students. Any school 49936
district; community school established under Chapter 3314. of the 49937
Revised Code; science, technology, engineering, and mathematics 49938
school established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code; or 49939
chartered nonpublic school annually may elect to participate in 49940
the pilot program by notifying the department of its interest by a 49941
date established by the department. If a school district elects to 49942
participate in the pilot program, each school building operated by 49943
the district shall be requiredthe district shall select one or 49944
more school buildings to participate in the program. To the 49945
maximum extent possible, the department shall seek to include in 49946
the pilot program districts and schools that are located in urban, 49947
suburban, and rural areas distributed geographically throughout 49948
the state. The department shall administer the pilot program in 49949
accordance with this section.49950

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, each 49951
district or school participating in the pilot program shall 49952
require all students in each of grades kindergarten through twelve49953
the school building selected under division (A) of this section to 49954
engage in at least thirty minutes of moderate to rigorous physical 49955
activity each school day or at least one hundred fifty minutes of 49956
moderate to rigorous physical activity each week, exclusive of 49957
recess. Physical activity engaged in during the following may 49958
count toward the daily requirement:49959

       (1) A physical education course;49960

       (2) A program or activity occurring before or after the 49961
regular school day, as defined in section 3313.814 of the Revised 49962
Code, that is sponsored or approved by the school of attendance, 49963
provided school officials are able to monitor students' 49964
participation to ensure compliance with the requirement.49965

       (C) None of the following shall be subject to the requirement 49966
of division (B) of this section:49967

       (1) Any student enrolled in the post-secondary enrollment 49968
options program established under Chapter 3365. of the Revised 49969
Code;49970

       (2) Any student enrolled in a career-technical education 49971
program operated by the district or school;49972

       (3) Any student enrolled in a dropout prevention and recovery 49973
program operated by the district or school;49974

       (4) Any student enrolled in an internet- or computer-based 49975
community school.49976

       (D) For any period in which a student is participating in 49977
interscholastic athletics, marching band, cheerleading, or a 49978
junior reserve officer training corps program, the district or 49979
school may excuse the student from the requirement of division (B) 49980
of this section.49981

       (E) The district or school may excuse any kindergarten 49982
student who is not enrolled in all-day kindergarten, as defined in 49983
section 3321.05 of the Revised Code, from the requirement of 49984
division (B) of this section.49985

       (F) Each district or school annually shall report to the 49986
department, in the manner prescribed by the department, how the 49987
district or school implemented the thirty minutes of daily 49988
physical activity and the financial costs of implementation. The 49989
department shall issue an annual report of the data collected 49990
under this division.49991

       Sec. 3313.6018.  (A) As used in this section and section 49992
3313.6019 of the Revised Code, "extended programming" means 49993
extended programming as described in section 3301.0725 of the 49994
Revised Code.49995

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of section 3313.6019 49996
of the Revised Code, extended programming shall be used for 49997
activities that involve direct contact with students or are 49998
directly related to student programs and activities. On any given 49999
day that extended programming is provided, it shall be provided 50000
for at least one hour.50001

       Sec. 3313.6019. (A) Not later than December 31, 2013, the 50002
department of education shall issue a report with recommendations 50003
for quality agricultural education programs. These recommendations 50004
shall be developed using both of the following:50005

       (1) The standards for exemplary agricultural education that 50006
are described in the national quality program standards for 50007
secondary (grades 9-12) agricultural education developed by the 50008
national council for agricultural education or a successor 50009
document developed by the national council for agricultural 50010
education or its successor;50011

       (2) The quality program standards for Ohio's agricultural and 50012
environmental systems career field programs or a successor 50013
document developed by the department, the Ohio association of 50014
agricultural educators, the Ohio state university, and wilmington 50015
college of Ohio.50016

        The report shall include the appropriate use of extended 50017
programming in agricultural education programs and the recommended 50018
number of hours outside the normal school day that licensed 50019
educators may be permitted to provide extended programming 50020
instruction. Following the initial issuance of the report, the 50021
department may periodically review and update the report as it 50022
considers necessary.50023

       (B) All agricultural education instructors shall utilize a 50024
three-part model of agricultural education instruction of 50025
classroom instruction, FFA activities, and extended programming 50026
projects.50027

       (C) Professional development associated with agricultural 50028
education shall be considered an acceptable use of extended 50029
student programming funds.50030

       (D) All agricultural education instructors shall submit a 50031
monthly time log to the principal of the school at which the 50032
extended programming is offered, or the principal's designee, for 50033
review.50034

       Sec. 3313.612.  (A) No nonpublic school chartered by the 50035
state board of education shall grant a high school diploma to any 50036
person unless, subject to section 3313.614 of the Revised Code, 50037
the person has met the assessment requirements of division (A)(1) 50038
or (2) of this section, as applicable.50039

       (1) If the person entered the ninth grade prior to the date 50040
prescribed by rule of the state board under division (D)(2) of 50041
section 3301.0712 of the Revised Code, the person has attained at 50042
least the applicable scores designated under division (B)(1) of 50043
section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code on all the assessments 50044
required by that division, or has satisfied the alternative 50045
conditions prescribed in section 3313.615 of the Revised Code.50046

       (2) If the person entered the ninth grade on or after the 50047
date prescribed by rule of the state board under division (E)(2) 50048
of section 3301.0712 of the Revised Code, the person has met the 50049
requirements of the entire assessment system prescribed under 50050
division (B)(2) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code.50051

       (B) This section does not apply to eitherany of the 50052
following:50053

       (1) Any person with regard to any assessment from which the 50054
person was excused pursuant to division (C)(1)(c) of section 50055
3301.0711 of the Revised Code;50056

       (2) Any person that attends a nonpublic school accredited 50057
through the independent school association of the central states 50058
with regard to any end-of-course examination required under 50059
divisions (B)(2) and (3) of section 3301.0712 of the Revised Code;50060

        (3) Any person with regard to the social studies assessment 50061
under division (B)(1) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code, 50062
any American history end-of-course examination and any American 50063
government end-of-course examination required under division 50064
(B)(2) of that section if such an exemption is prescribed by rule 50065
of the state board of education under division (D)(4) of section 50066
3301.0712 of the Revised Code, or the citizenship test under 50067
former division (B) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code as it 50068
existed prior to September 11, 2001, if all of the following 50069
apply:50070

       (a) The person is not a citizen of the United States;50071

       (b) The person is not a permanent resident of the United 50072
States;50073

       (c) The person indicates no intention to reside in the United 50074
States after completion of high school.50075

       (C) As used in this division, "limited English proficient 50076
student" has the same meaning as in division (C)(3) of section 50077
3301.0711 of the Revised Code.50078

        Notwithstanding division (C)(3) of section 3301.0711 of the 50079
Revised Code, no limited English proficient student who has not 50080
either attained the applicable scores designated under division 50081
(B)(1) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code on all the 50082
assessments required by that division, or met the requirements of 50083
the assessments under division (B)(2) of that section, shall be 50084
awarded a diploma under this section.50085

       Sec. 3313.615.  This section shall apply to diplomas awarded 50086
after September 15, 2006, to students who are required to take the 50087
five Ohio graduation tests prescribed by division (B)(1) of 50088
section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code.50089

       (A) As an alternative to the requirement that a person attain 50090
the scores designated under division (B)(1) of section 3301.0710 50091
of the Revised Code on all the assessments required under that 50092
division in order to be eligible for a high school diploma or an 50093
honors diploma under sections 3313.61, 3313.612, or 3325.08 of the 50094
Revised Code or for a diploma of adult education under section 50095
3313.611 of the Revised Code, a person who has attained at least 50096
the applicable scores designated under division (B)(1) of section 50097
3301.0710 of the Revised Code on all but one of the assessments 50098
required by that division and from which the person was not 50099
excused or exempted, pursuant to division (L) of section 3313.61, 50100
division (B)(1) of section 3313.612, or section 3313.532 of the 50101
Revised Code, may be awarded a diploma or honors diploma if the 50102
person has satisfied all of the following conditions:50103

       (1) On the one assessment required under division (B)(1) of 50104
section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code for which the person failed 50105
to attain the designated score, the person missed that score by 50106
ten points or less;50107

       (2) Has a ninety-seven per cent school attendance rate in 50108
each of the last four school years, excluding any excused 50109
absences;50110

       (3) Has not been expelled from school under section 3313.66 50111
of the Revised Code in any of the last four school years;50112

       (4) Has a grade point average of at least 2.5 out of 4.0, or 50113
its equivalent as designated in rules adopted by the state board 50114
of education, in the subject area of the assessment required under 50115
division (B)(1) of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code for which 50116
the person failed to attain the designated score;50117

       (5) Has completed the high school curriculum requirements 50118
prescribed in section 3313.603 of the Revised Code or has 50119
qualified under division (D) or (F) of that section;50120

       (6) Has taken advantage of any intervention programs provided 50121
by the school district or school in the subject area described in 50122
division (A)(4) of this section and has a ninety-seven per cent 50123
attendance rate, excluding any excused absences, in any of those 50124
programs that are provided at times beyond the normal school day, 50125
school week, or school year or has received comparable 50126
intervention services from a source other than the school district 50127
or school;50128

       (7) Holds a letter recommending graduation from each of the 50129
person's high school teachers in the subject area described in 50130
division (A)(4) of this section and from the person's high school 50131
principal.50132

       (B) The state board of education shall establish rules 50133
designating grade point averages equivalent to the average 50134
specified in division (A)(4) of this section for use by school 50135
districts and schools with different grading systems.50136

       (C) Any student who is exempt from attaining the applicable 50137
score designated under division (B)(1) of section 3301.0710 of the 50138
Revised Code on the Ohio graduation test in social studies 50139
pursuant to division (H) of section 3313.61 or division (B)(2)(3)50140
of section 3313.612 of the Revised Code shall not qualify for a 50141
high school diploma under this section, unless, notwithstanding 50142
the exemption, the student attains the applicable score on that 50143
assessment. If the student attains the applicable score on that 50144
assessment, the student may qualify for a diploma under this 50145
section in the same manner as any other student who is required to 50146
take the five Ohio graduation tests prescribed by division (B)(1) 50147
of section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code.50148

       Sec. 3313.62.  The school year shall begin on the first day 50149
of July of each calendar year and close on the thirtieth day of 50150
June of the succeeding calendar year. A school week shall consist 50151
of five days, and a school month of four school weeks. A chartered 50152
nonpublic school may be open for instruction with pupils in 50153
attendance on any day of the week, including Saturday or Sunday.50154

       Sec. 3313.64.  (A) As used in this section and in section 50155
3313.65 of the Revised Code:50156

       (1)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(1)(b) of this 50157
section, "parent" means either parent, unless the parents are 50158
separated or divorced or their marriage has been dissolved or 50159
annulled, in which case "parent" means the parent who is the 50160
residential parent and legal custodian of the child. When a child 50161
is in the legal custody of a government agency or a person other 50162
than the child's natural or adoptive parent, "parent" means the 50163
parent with residual parental rights, privileges, and 50164
responsibilities. When a child is in the permanent custody of a 50165
government agency or a person other than the child's natural or 50166
adoptive parent, "parent" means the parent who was divested of 50167
parental rights and responsibilities for the care of the child and 50168
the right to have the child live with the parent and be the legal 50169
custodian of the child and all residual parental rights, 50170
privileges, and responsibilities.50171

       (b) When a child is the subject of a power of attorney 50172
executed under sections 3109.51 to 3109.62 of the Revised Code, 50173
"parent" means the grandparent designated as attorney in fact 50174
under the power of attorney. When a child is the subject of a 50175
caretaker authorization affidavit executed under sections 3109.64 50176
to 3109.73 of the Revised Code, "parent" means the grandparent 50177
that executed the affidavit.50178

       (2) "Legal custody," "permanent custody," and "residual 50179
parental rights, privileges, and responsibilities" have the same 50180
meanings as in section 2151.011 of the Revised Code.50181

       (3) "School district" or "district" means a city, local, or 50182
exempted village school district and excludes any school operated 50183
in an institution maintained by the department of youth services.50184

       (4) Except as used in division (C)(2) of this section, "home" 50185
means a home, institution, foster home, group home, or other 50186
residential facility in this state that receives and cares for 50187
children, to which any of the following applies:50188

       (a) The home is licensed, certified, or approved for such 50189
purpose by the state or is maintained by the department of youth 50190
services.50191

       (b) The home is operated by a person who is licensed, 50192
certified, or approved by the state to operate the home for such 50193
purpose.50194

       (c) The home accepted the child through a placement by a 50195
person licensed, certified, or approved to place a child in such a 50196
home by the state.50197

       (d) The home is a children's home created under section 50198
5153.21 or 5153.36 of the Revised Code.50199

       (5) "Agency" means all of the following:50200

       (a) A public children services agency;50201

       (b) An organization that holds a certificate issued by the 50202
Ohio department of job and family services in accordance with the 50203
requirements of section 5103.03 of the Revised Code and assumes 50204
temporary or permanent custody of children through commitment, 50205
agreement, or surrender, and places children in family homes for 50206
the purpose of adoption;50207

       (c) Comparable agencies of other states or countries that 50208
have complied with applicable requirements of section 2151.39 of 50209
the Revised Code or as applicable, sections 5103.20 to 5103.22 or 50210
5103.23 to 5103.237 of the Revised Code.50211

       (6) A child is placed for adoption if either of the following 50212
occurs:50213

       (a) An agency to which the child has been permanently 50214
committed or surrendered enters into an agreement with a person 50215
pursuant to section 5103.16 of the Revised Code for the care and 50216
adoption of the child.50217

       (b) The child's natural parent places the child pursuant to 50218
section 5103.16 of the Revised Code with a person who will care 50219
for and adopt the child.50220

       (7) "Preschool child with a disability" has the same meaning 50221
as in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code.50222

       (8) "Child," unless otherwise indicated, includes preschool 50223
children with disabilities.50224

       (9) "Active duty" means active duty pursuant to an executive 50225
order of the president of the United States, an act of the 50226
congress of the United States, or section 5919.29 or 5923.21 of 50227
the Revised Code.50228

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in section 3321.01 of the 50229
Revised Code for admittance to kindergarten and first grade, a 50230
child who is at least five but under twenty-two years of age and 50231
any preschool child with a disability shall be admitted to school 50232
as provided in this division.50233

       (1) A child shall be admitted to the schools of the school 50234
district in which the child's parent resides.50235

       (2) AExcept as provided in division (B) of section 2151.362 50236
and section 3317.30 of the Revised Code, a child who does not 50237
reside in the district where the child's parent resides shall be 50238
admitted to the schools of the district in which the child resides 50239
if any of the following applies:50240

       (a) The child is in the legal or permanent custody of a 50241
government agency or a person other than the child's natural or 50242
adoptive parent.50243

       (b) The child resides in a home.50244

       (c) The child requires special education.50245

       (3) A child who is not entitled under division (B)(2) of this 50246
section to be admitted to the schools of the district where the 50247
child resides and who is residing with a resident of this state 50248
with whom the child has been placed for adoption shall be admitted 50249
to the schools of the district where the child resides unless 50250
either of the following applies:50251

       (a) The placement for adoption has been terminated.50252

       (b) Another school district is required to admit the child 50253
under division (B)(1) of this section.50254

       Division (B) of this section does not prohibit the board of 50255
education of a school district from placing a child with a 50256
disability who resides in the district in a special education 50257
program outside of the district or its schools in compliance with 50258
Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code.50259

       (C) A district shall not charge tuition for children admitted 50260
under division (B)(1) or (3) of this section. If the district 50261
admits a child under division (B)(2) of this section, tuition 50262
shall be paid to the district that admits the child as provided in 50263
divisions (C)(1) to (3) of this section, unless division (C)(4) of 50264
this section applies to the child:50265

       (1) If the child receives special education in accordance 50266
with Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code, the school district of 50267
residence, as defined in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code, 50268
shall pay tuition for the child in accordance with section 50269
3323.091, 3323.13, 3323.14, or 3323.141 of the Revised Code 50270
regardless of who has custody of the child or whether the child 50271
resides in a home.50272

       (2) For a child that does not receive special education in 50273
accordance with Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code, except as 50274
otherwise provided in division (C)(2)(d) of this section, if the 50275
child is in the permanent or legal custody of a government agency 50276
or person other than the child's parent, tuition shall be paid by:50277

       (a) The district in which the child's parent resided at the 50278
time the court removed the child from home or at the time the 50279
court vested legal or permanent custody of the child in the person 50280
or government agency, whichever occurred first;50281

       (b) If the parent's residence at the time the court removed 50282
the child from home or placed the child in the legal or permanent 50283
custody of the person or government agency is unknown, tuition 50284
shall be paid by the district in which the child resided at the 50285
time the child was removed from home or placed in legal or 50286
permanent custody, whichever occurred first;50287

       (c) If a school district cannot be established under division 50288
(C)(2)(a) or (b) of this section, tuition shall be paid by the 50289
district determined as required by section 2151.362 of the Revised 50290
Code by the court at the time it vests custody of the child in the 50291
person or government agency;50292

       (d) If at the time the court removed the child from home or 50293
vested legal or permanent custody of the child in the person or 50294
government agency, whichever occurred first, one parent was in a 50295
residential or correctional facility or a juvenile residential 50296
placement and the other parent, if living and not in such a 50297
facility or placement, was not known to reside in this state, 50298
tuition shall be paid by the district determined under division 50299
(D) of section 3313.65 of the Revised Code as the district 50300
required to pay any tuition while the parent was in such facility 50301
or placement;50302

       (e) If the department of education has determined, pursuant 50303
to division (A)(2) of section 2151.362 of the Revised Code, that a 50304
school district other than the one named in the court's initial 50305
order, or in a prior determination of the department, is 50306
responsible to bear the cost of educating the child, the district 50307
so determined shall be responsible for that cost.50308

       (3) If the child is not in the permanent or legal custody of 50309
a government agency or person other than the child's parent and 50310
the child resides in a home, tuition shall be paid by one of the 50311
following:50312

       (a) The school district in which the child's parent resides;50313

       (b) If the child's parent is not a resident of this state, 50314
the home in which the child resides.50315

       (4) Division (C)(4) of this section applies to any child who 50316
is admitted to a school district under division (B)(2) of this 50317
section, resides in a home that is not a foster home or, a home 50318
maintained by the department of youth services, a detention 50319
facility established under section 2152.41 of the Revised Code, or 50320
a juvenile facility established under section 2151.65 of the 50321
Revised Code, receives educational services at the home or 50322
facility in which the child resides pursuant to a contract between 50323
the home or facility and the school district providing those 50324
services, and does not receive special education.50325

        In the case of a child to which division (C)(4) of this 50326
section applies, the total educational cost to be paid for the 50327
child shall be determined by a formula approved by the department 50328
of education, which formula shall be designed to calculate a per 50329
diem cost for the educational services provided to the child for 50330
each day the child is served and shall reflect the total actual 50331
cost incurred in providing those services. The department shall 50332
certify the total educational cost to be paid for the child to 50333
both the school district providing the educational services and, 50334
if different, the school district that is responsible to pay 50335
tuition for the child. The department shall deduct the certified 50336
amount from the state basic aid funds payable under Chapter 3317. 50337
of the Revised Code to the district responsible to pay tuition and 50338
shall pay that amount to the district providing the educational 50339
services to the child.50340

       (D) Tuition required to be paid under divisions (C)(2) and 50341
(3)(a) of this section shall be computed in accordance with 50342
section 3317.08 of the Revised Code. Tuition required to be paid 50343
under division (C)(3)(b) of this section shall be computed in 50344
accordance with section 3317.081 of the Revised Code. If a home 50345
fails to pay the tuition required by division (C)(3)(b) of this 50346
section, the board of education providing the education may 50347
recover in a civil action the tuition and the expenses incurred in 50348
prosecuting the action, including court costs and reasonable 50349
attorney's fees. If the prosecuting attorney or city director of 50350
law represents the board in such action, costs and reasonable 50351
attorney's fees awarded by the court, based upon the prosecuting 50352
attorney's, director's, or one of their designee's time spent 50353
preparing and presenting the case, shall be deposited in the 50354
county or city general fund.50355

       (E) A board of education may enroll a child free of any 50356
tuition obligation for a period not to exceed sixty days, on the 50357
sworn statement of an adult resident of the district that the 50358
resident has initiated legal proceedings for custody of the child.50359

       (F) In the case of any individual entitled to attend school 50360
under this division, no tuition shall be charged by the school 50361
district of attendance and no other school district shall be 50362
required to pay tuition for the individual's attendance. 50363
Notwithstanding division (B), (C), or (E) of this section:50364

       (1) All persons at least eighteen but under twenty-two years 50365
of age who live apart from their parents, support themselves by 50366
their own labor, and have not successfully completed the high 50367
school curriculum or the individualized education program 50368
developed for the person by the high school pursuant to section 50369
3323.08 of the Revised Code, are entitled to attend school in the 50370
district in which they reside.50371

       (2) Any child under eighteen years of age who is married is 50372
entitled to attend school in the child's district of residence.50373

       (3) A child is entitled to attend school in the district in 50374
which either of the child's parents is employed if the child has a 50375
medical condition that may require emergency medical attention. 50376
The parent of a child entitled to attend school under division 50377
(F)(3) of this section shall submit to the board of education of 50378
the district in which the parent is employed a statement from the 50379
child's physician certifying that the child's medical condition 50380
may require emergency medical attention. The statement shall be 50381
supported by such other evidence as the board may require.50382

       (4) Any child residing with a person other than the child's 50383
parent is entitled, for a period not to exceed twelve months, to 50384
attend school in the district in which that person resides if the 50385
child's parent files an affidavit with the superintendent of the 50386
district in which the person with whom the child is living resides 50387
stating all of the following:50388

       (a) That the parent is serving outside of the state in the 50389
armed services of the United States;50390

       (b) That the parent intends to reside in the district upon 50391
returning to this state;50392

       (c) The name and address of the person with whom the child is 50393
living while the parent is outside the state.50394

       (5) Any child under the age of twenty-two years who, after 50395
the death of a parent, resides in a school district other than the 50396
district in which the child attended school at the time of the 50397
parent's death is entitled to continue to attend school in the 50398
district in which the child attended school at the time of the 50399
parent's death for the remainder of the school year, subject to 50400
approval of that district board.50401

       (6) A child under the age of twenty-two years who resides 50402
with a parent who is having a new house built in a school district 50403
outside the district where the parent is residing is entitled to 50404
attend school for a period of time in the district where the new 50405
house is being built. In order to be entitled to such attendance, 50406
the parent shall provide the district superintendent with the 50407
following:50408

       (a) A sworn statement explaining the situation, revealing the 50409
location of the house being built, and stating the parent's 50410
intention to reside there upon its completion;50411

       (b) A statement from the builder confirming that a new house 50412
is being built for the parent and that the house is at the 50413
location indicated in the parent's statement.50414

       (7) A child under the age of twenty-two years residing with a 50415
parent who has a contract to purchase a house in a school district 50416
outside the district where the parent is residing and who is 50417
waiting upon the date of closing of the mortgage loan for the 50418
purchase of such house is entitled to attend school for a period 50419
of time in the district where the house is being purchased. In 50420
order to be entitled to such attendance, the parent shall provide 50421
the district superintendent with the following:50422

       (a) A sworn statement explaining the situation, revealing the 50423
location of the house being purchased, and stating the parent's 50424
intent to reside there;50425

       (b) A statement from a real estate broker or bank officer 50426
confirming that the parent has a contract to purchase the house, 50427
that the parent is waiting upon the date of closing of the 50428
mortgage loan, and that the house is at the location indicated in 50429
the parent's statement.50430

       The district superintendent shall establish a period of time 50431
not to exceed ninety days during which the child entitled to 50432
attend school under division (F)(6) or (7) of this section may 50433
attend without tuition obligation. A student attending a school 50434
under division (F)(6) or (7) of this section shall be eligible to 50435
participate in interscholastic athletics under the auspices of 50436
that school, provided the board of education of the school 50437
district where the student's parent resides, by a formal action, 50438
releases the student to participate in interscholastic athletics 50439
at the school where the student is attending, and provided the 50440
student receives any authorization required by a public agency or 50441
private organization of which the school district is a member 50442
exercising authority over interscholastic sports.50443

       (8) A child whose parent is a full-time employee of a city, 50444
local, or exempted village school district, or of an educational 50445
service center, may be admitted to the schools of the district 50446
where the child's parent is employed, or in the case of a child 50447
whose parent is employed by an educational service center, in the 50448
district that serves the location where the parent's job is 50449
primarily located, provided the district board of education 50450
establishes such an admission policy by resolution adopted by a 50451
majority of its members. Any such policy shall take effect on the 50452
first day of the school year and the effective date of any 50453
amendment or repeal may not be prior to the first day of the 50454
subsequent school year. The policy shall be uniformly applied to 50455
all such children and shall provide for the admission of any such 50456
child upon request of the parent. No child may be admitted under 50457
this policy after the first day of classes of any school year.50458

       (9) A child who is with the child's parent under the care of 50459
a shelter for victims of domestic violence, as defined in section 50460
3113.33 of the Revised Code, is entitled to attend school free in 50461
the district in which the child is with the child's parent, and no 50462
other school district shall be required to pay tuition for the 50463
child's attendance in that school district.50464

       The enrollment of a child in a school district under this 50465
division shall not be denied due to a delay in the school 50466
district's receipt of any records required under section 3313.672 50467
of the Revised Code or any other records required for enrollment. 50468
Any days of attendance and any credits earned by a child while 50469
enrolled in a school district under this division shall be 50470
transferred to and accepted by any school district in which the 50471
child subsequently enrolls. The state board of education shall 50472
adopt rules to ensure compliance with this division.50473

       (10) Any child under the age of twenty-two years whose parent 50474
has moved out of the school district after the commencement of 50475
classes in the child's senior year of high school is entitled, 50476
subject to the approval of that district board, to attend school 50477
in the district in which the child attended school at the time of 50478
the parental move for the remainder of the school year and for one 50479
additional semester or equivalent term. A district board may also 50480
adopt a policy specifying extenuating circumstances under which a 50481
student may continue to attend school under division (F)(10) of 50482
this section for an additional period of time in order to 50483
successfully complete the high school curriculum for the 50484
individualized education program developed for the student by the 50485
high school pursuant to section 3323.08 of the Revised Code.50486

       (11) As used in this division, "grandparent" means a parent 50487
of a parent of a child. A child under the age of twenty-two years 50488
who is in the custody of the child's parent, resides with a 50489
grandparent, and does not require special education is entitled to 50490
attend the schools of the district in which the child's 50491
grandparent resides, provided that, prior to such attendance in 50492
any school year, the board of education of the school district in 50493
which the child's grandparent resides and the board of education 50494
of the school district in which the child's parent resides enter 50495
into a written agreement specifying that good cause exists for 50496
such attendance, describing the nature of this good cause, and 50497
consenting to such attendance.50498

       In lieu of a consent form signed by a parent, a board of 50499
education may request the grandparent of a child attending school 50500
in the district in which the grandparent resides pursuant to 50501
division (F)(11) of this section to complete any consent form 50502
required by the district, including any authorization required by 50503
sections 3313.712, 3313.713, 3313.716, and 3313.718 of the Revised 50504
Code. Upon request, the grandparent shall complete any consent 50505
form required by the district. A school district shall not incur 50506
any liability solely because of its receipt of a consent form from 50507
a grandparent in lieu of a parent.50508

       Division (F)(11) of this section does not create, and shall 50509
not be construed as creating, a new cause of action or substantive 50510
legal right against a school district, a member of a board of 50511
education, or an employee of a school district. This section does 50512
not affect, and shall not be construed as affecting, any 50513
immunities from defenses to tort liability created or recognized 50514
by Chapter 2744. of the Revised Code for a school district, 50515
member, or employee.50516

       (12) A child under the age of twenty-two years is entitled to 50517
attend school in a school district other than the district in 50518
which the child is entitled to attend school under division (B), 50519
(C), or (E) of this section provided that, prior to such 50520
attendance in any school year, both of the following occur:50521

       (a) The superintendent of the district in which the child is 50522
entitled to attend school under division (B), (C), or (E) of this 50523
section contacts the superintendent of another district for 50524
purposes of this division;50525

       (b) The superintendents of both districts enter into a 50526
written agreement that consents to the attendance and specifies 50527
that the purpose of such attendance is to protect the student's 50528
physical or mental well-being or to deal with other extenuating 50529
circumstances deemed appropriate by the superintendents.50530

       While an agreement is in effect under this division for a 50531
student who is not receiving special education under Chapter 3323. 50532
of the Revised Code and notwithstanding Chapter 3327. of the 50533
Revised Code, the board of education of neither school district 50534
involved in the agreement is required to provide transportation 50535
for the student to and from the school where the student attends.50536

       A student attending a school of a district pursuant to this 50537
division shall be allowed to participate in all student 50538
activities, including interscholastic athletics, at the school 50539
where the student is attending on the same basis as any student 50540
who has always attended the schools of that district while of 50541
compulsory school age.50542

       (13) All school districts shall comply with the 50543
"McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act," 42 U.S.C.A. 11431 et 50544
seq., for the education of homeless children. Each city, local, 50545
and exempted village school district shall comply with the 50546
requirements of that act governing the provision of a free, 50547
appropriate public education, including public preschool, to each 50548
homeless child.50549

       When a child loses permanent housing and becomes a homeless 50550
person, as defined in 42 U.S.C.A. 11481(5), or when a child who is 50551
such a homeless person changes temporary living arrangements, the 50552
child's parent or guardian shall have the option of enrolling the 50553
child in either of the following:50554

       (a) The child's school of origin, as defined in 42 U.S.C.A. 50555
11432(g)(3)(C);50556

       (b) The school that is operated by the school district in 50557
which the shelter where the child currently resides is located and 50558
that serves the geographic area in which the shelter is located.50559

       (14) A child under the age of twenty-two years who resides 50560
with a person other than the child's parent is entitled to attend 50561
school in the school district in which that person resides if both 50562
of the following apply:50563

       (a) That person has been appointed, through a military power 50564
of attorney executed under section 574(a) of the "National Defense 50565
Authorization Act for Fiscal Year 1994," 107 Stat. 1674 (1993), 10 50566
U.S.C. 1044b, or through a comparable document necessary to 50567
complete a family care plan, as the parent's agent for the care, 50568
custody, and control of the child while the parent is on active 50569
duty as a member of the national guard or a reserve unit of the 50570
armed forces of the United States or because the parent is a 50571
member of the armed forces of the United States and is on a duty 50572
assignment away from the parent's residence.50573

       (b) The military power of attorney or comparable document 50574
includes at least the authority to enroll the child in school.50575

        The entitlement to attend school in the district in which the 50576
parent's agent under the military power of attorney or comparable 50577
document resides applies until the end of the school year in which 50578
the military power of attorney or comparable document expires.50579

       (G) A board of education, after approving admission, may 50580
waive tuition for students who will temporarily reside in the 50581
district and who are either of the following:50582

       (1) Residents or domiciliaries of a foreign nation who 50583
request admission as foreign exchange students;50584

       (2) Residents or domiciliaries of the United States but not 50585
of Ohio who request admission as participants in an exchange 50586
program operated by a student exchange organization.50587

       (H) Pursuant to sections 3311.211, 3313.90, 3319.01, 3323.04, 50588
3327.04, and 3327.06 of the Revised Code, a child may attend 50589
school or participate in a special education program in a school 50590
district other than in the district where the child is entitled to 50591
attend school under division (B) of this section.50592

       (I)(1) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this 50593
section or section 3313.65 of the Revised Code, a child under 50594
twenty-two years of age may attend school in the school district 50595
in which the child, at the end of the first full week of October 50596
of the school year, was entitled to attend school as otherwise 50597
provided under this section or section 3313.65 of the Revised 50598
Code, if at that time the child was enrolled in the schools of the 50599
district but since that time the child or the child's parent has 50600
relocated to a new address located outside of that school district 50601
and within the same county as the child's or parent's address 50602
immediately prior to the relocation. The child may continue to 50603
attend school in the district, and at the school to which the 50604
child was assigned at the end of the first full week of October of 50605
the current school year, for the balance of the school year. 50606
Division (I)(1) of this section applies only if both of the 50607
following conditions are satisfied:50608

       (a) The board of education of the school district in which 50609
the child was entitled to attend school at the end of the first 50610
full week in October and of the district to which the child or 50611
child's parent has relocated each has adopted a policy to enroll 50612
children described in division (I)(1) of this section.50613

       (b) The child's parent provides written notification of the 50614
relocation outside of the school district to the superintendent of 50615
each of the two school districts.50616

       (2) At the beginning of the school year following the school 50617
year in which the child or the child's parent relocated outside of 50618
the school district as described in division (I)(1) of this 50619
section, the child is not entitled to attend school in the school 50620
district under that division.50621

       (3) Any person or entity owing tuition to the school district 50622
on behalf of the child at the end of the first full week in 50623
October, as provided in division (C) of this section, shall 50624
continue to owe such tuition to the district for the child's 50625
attendance under division (I)(1) of this section for the lesser of 50626
the balance of the school year or the balance of the time that the 50627
child attends school in the district under division (I)(1) of this 50628
section.50629

       (4) A pupil who may attend school in the district under 50630
division (I)(1) of this section shall be entitled to 50631
transportation services pursuant to an agreement between the 50632
district and the district in which the child or child's parent has 50633
relocated unless the districts have not entered into such 50634
agreement, in which case the child shall be entitled to 50635
transportation services in the same manner as a pupil attending 50636
school in the district under interdistrict open enrollment as 50637
described in division (H) of section 3313.981 of the Revised Code, 50638
regardless of whether the district has adopted an open enrollment 50639
policy as described in division (B)(1)(b) or (c) of section 50640
3313.98 of the Revised Code.50641

       (J) This division does not apply to a child receiving special 50642
education.50643

       A school district required to pay tuition pursuant to 50644
division (C)(2) or (3) of this section or section 3313.65 of the 50645
Revised Code shall have an amount deducted under division (C) of 50646
section 3317.023 of the Revised Code equal to its own tuition rate 50647
for the same period of attendance. A school district entitled to 50648
receive tuition pursuant to division (C)(2) or (3) of this section 50649
or section 3313.65 of the Revised Code shall have an amount 50650
credited under division (C) of section 3317.023 of the Revised 50651
Code equal to its own tuition rate for the same period of 50652
attendance. If the tuition rate credited to the district of 50653
attendance exceeds the rate deducted from the district required to 50654
pay tuition, the department of education shall pay the district of 50655
attendance the difference from amounts deducted from all 50656
districts' payments under division (C) of section 3317.023 of the 50657
Revised Code but not credited to other school districts under such 50658
division and from appropriations made for such purpose. The 50659
treasurer of each school district shall, by the fifteenth day of 50660
January and July, furnish the superintendent of public instruction 50661
a report of the names of each child who attended the district's 50662
schools under divisions (C)(2) and (3) of this section or section 50663
3313.65 of the Revised Code during the preceding six calendar 50664
months, the duration of the attendance of those children, the 50665
school district responsible for tuition on behalf of the child, 50666
and any other information that the superintendent requires.50667

       Upon receipt of the report the superintendent, pursuant to 50668
division (C) of section 3317.023 of the Revised Code, shall deduct 50669
each district's tuition obligations under divisions (C)(2) and (3) 50670
of this section or section 3313.65 of the Revised Code and pay to 50671
the district of attendance that amount plus any amount required to 50672
be paid by the state.50673

       (K) In the event of a disagreement, the superintendent of 50674
public instruction shall determine the school district in which 50675
the parent resides.50676

       (L) Nothing in this section requires or authorizes, or shall 50677
be construed to require or authorize, the admission to a public 50678
school in this state of a pupil who has been permanently excluded 50679
from public school attendance by the superintendent of public 50680
instruction pursuant to sections 3301.121 and 3313.662 of the 50681
Revised Code.50682

       (M) In accordance with division (B)(1) of this section, a 50683
child whose parent is a member of the national guard or a reserve 50684
unit of the armed forces of the United States and is called to 50685
active duty, or a child whose parent is a member of the armed 50686
forces of the United States and is ordered to a temporary duty 50687
assignment outside of the district, may continue to attend school 50688
in the district in which the child's parent lived before being 50689
called to active duty or ordered to a temporary duty assignment 50690
outside of the district, as long as the child's parent continues 50691
to be a resident of that district, and regardless of where the 50692
child lives as a result of the parent's active duty status or 50693
temporary duty assignment. However, the district is not 50694
responsible for providing transportation for the child if the 50695
child lives outside of the district as a result of the parent's 50696
active duty status or temporary duty assignment.50697

       Sec. 3313.646.  (A) The board of education of a school 50698
district, except a cooperative education district established 50699
pursuant to section 3311.521 of the Revised Code, may establish 50700
and operate a preschool program to provide services to 50701
preschool-age children, provided the board has demonstrated a need 50702
for the program. A board may use school funds in support of 50703
preschool programs. The board shall maintain, operate, and admit 50704
children to any such program pursuant to rules adopted by such 50705
board and the rules of the state board of education adopted under 50706
sections 3301.52 to 3301.57 of the Revised Code.50707

       A board of education may establish fees or tuition, which may 50708
be graduated in proportion to family income, for participation in 50709
a preschool program. In cases where payment of fees or tuition 50710
would create a hardship for the child's parent or guardian, the 50711
board may waive any such fees or tuition.50712

       (B) No board of education that is not receiving funds under 50713
the "Head Start Act," 95 Stat. 489 (1981), 42 U.S.C.A. 9831, on 50714
March 17, 1989, shall compete for funds under the "Head Start Act" 50715
with any grantee receiving funds under that act.50716

       (C) A board of education may contract with any of the 50717
following preschool providers to provide preschool programs50718
services to preschool-age children, other than programs for units 50719
described by divisions (B) and (C) ofthose services for which the 50720
district is eligible to receive funding under section 3317.0550721
3317.0213 of the Revised Code, for children of the school 50722
district:50723

       (1) Any organization receiving funds under the "Head Start 50724
Act";50725

       (2) Any nonsectarian eligible nonpublic school as defined in 50726
division (H) of section 3301.52 of the Revised Code;50727

       (3) Any child care provider licensed under Chapter 5104. of 50728
the Revised Code.50729

       Boards may contract to provide preschool programsservices to 50730
preschool-age children only with such organizations whose staff 50731
meet the requirements of rules adopted under section 3301.53 of 50732
the Revised Code or those of the child development associate 50733
credential established by the national association for the 50734
education of young children.50735

       (D) A contract entered into under division (C) of this 50736
section may provide for the board of education to lease school 50737
facilities to the preschool provider or to furnish transportation, 50738
utilities, or staff for the preschool program.50739

       (E) The treasurer of any board of education operating a 50740
preschool program pursuant to this section shall keep an account 50741
of all funds used to operate the program in the same manner as the 50742
treasurer would any other funds of the district pursuant to this 50743
chapter.50744

       Sec. 3313.65.  (A) As used in this section and section 50745
3313.64 of the Revised Code:50746

       (1) A person is "in a residential facility" if the person is 50747
a resident or a resident patient of an institution, home, or other 50748
residential facility that is:50749

       (a) Licensed as a nursing home, residential care facility, or 50750
home for the aging by the director of health under section 3721.02 50751
of the Revised Code;50752

       (b) Maintained as a county home or district home by the board 50753
of county commissioners or a joint board of county commissioners 50754
under Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;50755

       (c) Operated or administered by a board of alcohol, drug 50756
addiction, and mental health services under section 340.03 or 50757
340.06 of the Revised Code, or provides residential care pursuant 50758
to contracts made under section 340.03 or 340.033 of the Revised 50759
Code;50760

       (d) Maintained as a state institution for the mentally ill 50761
under Chapter 5119. of the Revised Code;50762

       (e) Licensed by the department of mental healthmental health 50763
and addiction services under section 5119.205119.33 or 5119.2250764
5119.34 of the Revised Code;50765

       (f) Licensed as a residential facility by the department of 50766
developmental disabilities under section 5123.19 of the Revised 50767
Code;50768

       (g) Operated by the veteran's administration or another 50769
agency of the United States government;50770

       (h) Operated by the Ohio veterans' home.50771

       (2) A person is "in a correctional facility" if any of the 50772
following apply:50773

       (a) The person is an Ohio resident and is:50774

       (i) Imprisoned, as defined in section 1.05 of the Revised 50775
Code;50776

       (ii) Serving a term in a community-based correctional 50777
facility or a district community-based correctional facility;50778

       (iii) Required, as a condition of parole, a post-release 50779
control sanction, a community control sanction, transitional 50780
control, or early release from imprisonment, as a condition of 50781
shock parole or shock probation granted under the law in effect 50782
prior to July 1, 1996, or as a condition of a furlough granted 50783
under the version of section 2967.26 of the Revised Code in effect 50784
prior to March 17, 1998, to reside in a halfway house or other 50785
community residential center licensed under section 2967.14 of the 50786
Revised Code or a similar facility designated by the court of 50787
common pleas that established the condition or by the adult parole 50788
authority.50789

       (b) The person is imprisoned in a state correctional 50790
institution of another state or a federal correctional institution 50791
but was an Ohio resident at the time the sentence was imposed for 50792
the crime for which the person is imprisoned.50793

       (3) A person is "in a juvenile residential placement" if the 50794
person is an Ohio resident who is under twenty-one years of age 50795
and has been removed, by the order of a juvenile court, from the 50796
place the person resided at the time the person became subject to 50797
the court's jurisdiction in the matter that resulted in the 50798
person's removal.50799

       (4) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 50800
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.50801

       (5) "Post-release control sanction" has the same meaning as 50802
in section 2967.01 of the Revised Code.50803

       (B) If the circumstances described in division (C) of this 50804
section apply, the determination of what school district must 50805
admit a child to its schools and what district, if any, is liable 50806
for tuition shall be made in accordance with this section, rather 50807
than section 3313.64 of the Revised Code.50808

       (C) A child who does not reside in the school district in 50809
which the child's parent resides and for whom a tuition obligation 50810
previously has not been established under division (C)(2) of 50811
section 3313.64 of the Revised Code shall be admitted to the 50812
schools of the district in which the child resides if at least one 50813
of the child's parents is in a residential or correctional 50814
facility or a juvenile residential placement and the other parent, 50815
if living and not in such a facility or placement, is not known to 50816
reside in this state.50817

       (D) Regardless of who has custody or care of the child, 50818
whether the child resides in a home, or whether the child receives 50819
special education, if a district admits a child under division (C) 50820
of this section, tuition shall be paid to that district as 50821
follows:50822

       (1) If the child's parent is in a juvenile residential 50823
placement, by the district in which the child's parent resided at 50824
the time the parent became subject to the jurisdiction of the 50825
juvenile court;50826

       (2) If the child's parent is in a correctional facility, by 50827
the district in which the child's parent resided at the time the 50828
sentence was imposed;50829

       (3) If the child's parent is in a residential facility, by 50830
the district in which the parent resided at the time the parent 50831
was admitted to the residential facility, except that if the 50832
parent was transferred from another residential facility, tuition 50833
shall be paid by the district in which the parent resided at the 50834
time the parent was admitted to the facility from which the parent 50835
first was transferred;50836

       (4) In the event of a disagreement as to which school 50837
district is liable for tuition under division (C)(1), (2), or (3) 50838
of this section, the superintendent of public instruction shall 50839
determine which district shall pay tuition.50840

       (E) If a child covered by division (D) of this section 50841
receives special education in accordance with Chapter 3323. of the 50842
Revised Code, the tuition shall be paid in accordance with section 50843
3323.13 or 3323.14 of the Revised Code. Tuition for children who 50844
do not receive special education shall be paid in accordance with 50845
division (J) of section 3313.64 of the Revised Code.50846

       Sec. 3313.714.  (A) As used in this section:50847

       (1) "Board of education" means the board of education of a 50848
city, local, exempted village, or joint vocational school 50849
district.50850

       (2) "Healthcheck" means the early and periodic screening, 50851
diagnosis, and treatment program, a component of the medical 50852
assistancemedicaid program established under Title XIX of the 50853
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 302, as 50854
amended, and Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code.50855

       (3) "Pupil" means a person under age twenty-two enrolled in 50856
the schools of a city, local, exempted village, or joint 50857
vocational school district.50858

       (4) "Parent" means either parent with the following 50859
exceptions:50860

       (a) If one parent has custody by court order, "parent" means 50861
the parent with custody.50862

       (b) If neither parent has legal custody, "parent" means the 50863
person or government entity with legal custody.50864

       (c) The child's legal guardian or a person who has accepted 50865
responsibility for the health, safety, and welfare of the child.50866

       (B) At the request of the department of job and family 50867
servicesmedicaid, a board of education shall establish and 50868
conduct a healthcheck program for pupils enrolled in the schools 50869
of the district who are medicaid recipients of medical assistance 50870
under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code. At the request of a board 50871
of education, the department may authorize the board to establish 50872
a healthcheck program. A board that establishes a healthcheck 50873
program shall enter into a medical assistancemedicaid provider 50874
agreement with the department.50875

       A healthcheck program established by a board of education 50876
shall be conducted in accordance with rules adopted by the 50877
medicaid director of job and family services under division (F) of 50878
this section. The healthcheck program shall include all of the 50879
following components:50880

       (1) A comprehensive health and development history;50881

       (2) A comprehensive physical examination;50882

       (3) A developmental assessment;50883

       (4) A nutritional assessment;50884

       (5) A vision assessment;50885

       (6) A hearing assessment;50886

       (7) An immunization assessment;50887

       (8) Lead screening and laboratory tests ordered by a doctor 50888
of medicine or osteopathic medicine as part of one of the other 50889
components;50890

       (9) Such other assessment as may be required by the 50891
department of job and family servicesmedicaid in accordance with 50892
the requirements of the healthcheck program.50893

       All services included in a board of education's healthcheck 50894
program that the board provided under sections 3313.67, 3313.673, 50895
3313.68, 3313.69, and 3313.71 of the Revised Code during the 50896
1990-1991 school year shall continue to be provided to medical 50897
assistancemedicaid recipients by the board pursuant to those 50898
sections. The services shall be considered part of the healthcheck 50899
program for medicaid recipients of medical assistance, and the 50900
board shall be eligible for reimbursementpayment from the state50901
department in accordance with this division for providing the 50902
services.50903

       The department shall reimbursepay boards of education for 50904
healthcheck program services provided under this division at the 50905
rates paid under the medical assistancemedicaid program to 50906
physicians, dentists, nurses, and other providers of healthcheck 50907
services.50908

       (C) Each board of education that conducts a healthcheck 50909
program shall determine for each pupil enrolled in the schools of 50910
the district whether the pupil is a medical assistancemedicaid50911
recipient. The department of job and family servicesmedicaid and 50912
county departments of human servicesjob and family services shall 50913
assist the board in making these determinations. Except as 50914
necessary to carry out the purposes of this section, all 50915
information received by a board under this division shall be 50916
confidential.50917

       Before the first day of October of each year, each board that 50918
conducts a healthcheck program shall send the parent of each pupil 50919
who is under age eighteen and a medicaid recipient of medical 50920
assistance notice that the pupil will be examined under the 50921
district's healthcheck program unless the parent notifies the 50922
board that the parent denies consent for the examination. The 50923
notice shall include a form to be used by the parent to indicate 50924
that the parent denies consent. The denial shall be effective only 50925
if the form is signed by the parent and returned to the board or 50926
the school in which the pupil is enrolled. If the parent does not 50927
return a signed form indicating denial of consent within two weeks 50928
after the date the notice is sent, the school district and the 50929
department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall deem the 50930
parent to have consented to examination of the parent's child 50931
under the healthcheck program. In the case of a pupil age eighteen 50932
or older, the notice shall be given to the pupil, and the school 50933
district and the department of job and family servicesmedicaid50934
shall deem the pupil to have consented to examination unless the 50935
pupil returns the signed form indicating the pupil's denial of 50936
consent.50937

       (D)(1) As used in this division:50938

       (a) "Nonfederal share" means the portion of expenditures for 50939
services that is required under the medical assistancemedicaid50940
program to be paid for with state or local government funds.50941

       (b) "Federal financial participation" means the portion of 50942
expenditures for services that is reimbursedpayable under the 50943
medical assistancemedicaid program with federal funds.50944

       (2) At the request of a board of education, the state 50945
department may enter into an agreement with the board under which 50946
the board provides medical services to a medicaid recipient of 50947
medical assistance that are reimbursablepayable under the medical 50948
assistancemedicaid program but not under the healthcheck program. 50949
The agreement may be for a term specified in the agreement and 50950
renewable by mutual consent of the board and the department, or 50951
may continue in force as long as agreeable to the board and the 50952
department.50953

       The board shall use state or local funds of the district to 50954
pay the nonfederal share of expenditures for services provided 50955
under this division. Prior to entering into or renewing an 50956
agreement and at any other time requested by the department while 50957
the agreement is in force, the board shall certify to the 50958
department in accordance with the rules adopted under division (F) 50959
of this section that it will have sufficient state or local funds 50960
to pay the nonfederal share of expenditures under this division. 50961
If the board fails to make the certification, the department shall 50962
not enter into or renew the agreement. If an agreement has been 50963
entered into, it shall be void unless the board makes the 50964
certification not later than fifteen days after receiving notice 50965
from the department that the certification is due. The board shall 50966
report to the department, in accordance with the rules, the amount 50967
of state or local funds it spends to provide services under this 50968
division.50969

       The department shall reimbursepay the board the federal 50970
financial participation allowed for the board's expenditures for 50971
services under this division. The total of the nonfederal share 50972
spent by the board and the federal financial participation 50973
reimbursedpaid by the department for a service rendered under 50974
this division shall be an amount agreed to by the board and the 50975
department, but shall not exceed the maximum reimbursablepayable 50976
amount for that service under rules adopted by the director of job 50977
and family services under Chapter 5111.section 5164.02 of the 50978
Revised Code. The rules adopted under division (F) of this section 50979
shall include procedures under which the department will recover 50980
from a board overpayments and subsequent federal audit 50981
disallowances of federal financial participation reimbursedpaid50982
by the department.50983

       (E) A board of education shall provide services under 50984
division (D) of this section and under its healthcheck program as 50985
provided in division (E)(1), (2), or (3) of this section:50986

       (1) By having the services performed by physicians, dentists, 50987
and nurses employed by the board;50988

       (2) By contracting with physicians, dentists, nurses, and 50989
other providers of services who have medical assistancemedicaid50990
provider agreements with the department of job and family services50991
medicaid;50992

       (3) By having some of the services performed by persons 50993
described in division (E)(1) of this section and others performed 50994
by persons described in division (E)(2) of this section.50995

       (F) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 50996
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 50997
governing healthcheck programs conducted under this section and 50998
services provided under division (D) of this section.50999

       Sec. 3313.715.  The board of education of a school district 51000
may request from the director of developmental disabilities the 51001
appropriate identification numbers for all students residing in 51002
the district who are medical assistancemedicaid recipients under 51003
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code. The director shall furnish such 51004
numbers upon receipt of lists of student names furnished by the 51005
district board, in such form as the director may require.51006

       The medicaid director of job and family services shall 51007
provide the director of developmental disabilities with the data 51008
necessary for compliance with this section.51009

       Section 3319.321 of the Revised Code does not apply to the 51010
release of student names or other data to the director of 51011
developmental disabilities for the purposes of this section. 51012
Chapter 1347. of the Revised Code does not apply to information 51013
required to be kept by a school board or the departments of job 51014
and family servicesmedicaid or developmental disabilities to the 51015
extent necessary to comply with this section and section 3313.714 51016
of the Revised Code. However, any such information or data shall 51017
be used only for the specific legal purposes of such boards and 51018
departments and shall not be released to any unauthorized person.51019

       Sec. 3313.83.  (A)(1) For the purpose of pooling resources, 51020
operating more cost effectively, minimizing administrative 51021
overhead, encouraging the sharing of resource development, and 51022
diminishing duplication, the boards of education of two or more 51023
city, local, or exempted village school districts each having a 51024
majority of its territory in a county with a population greater 51025
than one million two hundred thousand, by adopting identical 51026
resolutions, may enter into an agreement providing for the 51027
creation of a regional student education district for the purpose 51028
of funding the following for students enrolled in those school 51029
districts, including students diagnosed as autistic and students 51030
with special needs, and their immediate family members:51031

        (a) Special education services;51032

        (b) Behavioral health services for persons with special 51033
needs.51034

        If more than eight boards of education adopt resolutions to 51035
form a regional student education district, the boards may meet at 51036
facilities of the educational service center of the county to 51037
discuss membership in the district.51038

       (2) The territory of a regional student education district at 51039
any time shall be composed of the combined territories of the 51040
school districts that are parties to the agreement at that time. 51041
Services funded by a regional student education district shall be 51042
available to all individuals enrolled in a school district that is 51043
a part of the regional student education district and members of 51044
their immediate family.51045

       (3) The agreement may be amended pursuant to terms and 51046
procedures mutually agreed to by the boards of education that are 51047
parties to the agreement.51048

       (B) Each regional student education district shall be 51049
governed by a board of directors. The superintendent of each board 51050
of education that is a party to the agreement shall serve on the 51051
board of directors. The agreement shall provide for the terms of 51052
office of directors. Directors shall receive no compensation, but 51053
shall be reimbursed, from the special fund of the regional student 51054
education district, for the reasonable and necessary expenses they 51055
incur in the performance of their duties for the district. The 51056
agreement shall provide for the conduct of the board's initial 51057
organizational meeting and for the frequency of subsequent 51058
meetings and quorum requirements. At its first meeting, the board 51059
shall designate from among its members a president and secretary 51060
in the manner provided in the agreement.51061

       The board of directors of a regional student education 51062
district is a body corporate and politic, is capable of suing and 51063
being sued, is capable of contracting within the limits of this 51064
section and the agreement governing the district, and is capable 51065
of accepting gifts, donations, bequests, or other grants of money 51066
for use in paying its expenses. The district is a public office 51067
and its directors are public officials within the meaning of 51068
section 117.01 of the Revised Code, the board of directors is a 51069
public body within the meaning of section 121.22 of the Revised 51070
Code, and records of the board and of the district are public 51071
records within the meaning of section 149.43 of the Revised Code.51072

       The agreement shall require the board to designate a 51073
permanent location for its offices and meeting place, and may 51074
provide for the use of such facilities and property for the 51075
provision of services by the agencies with which the board 51076
contracts under division (C) of this section.51077

       (C)(1) To provide the services identified in division (A)(1) 51078
of this section, the board of directors of a regional student 51079
education district shall provide for the hiring of employees or 51080
shall contract with one or more entities. Except as provided in 51081
division (C)(2) of this section, any entity with which the board 51082
of directors contracts to provide the services identified in 51083
division (A)(1)(b) of this section shall be a qualified nonprofit, 51084
nationally accredited agency to which both of the following apply:51085

        (a) The agency is licensed or certified by the departments of 51086
mental health,mental health and addiction services and job and 51087
family services, and alcohol and drug addiction services.51088

        (b) The agency provides school-based behavioral health 51089
services.51090

       (2) The board of directors may contract with an entity that 51091
does not meet the conditions stated in division (C)(1) of this 51092
section if the services to be provided by the entity are only 51093
incidental to the services identified in division (A)(1)(b) of 51094
this section.51095

       (3) The board of directors may levy a tax throughout the 51096
district as provided in section 5705.2111 of the Revised Code. The 51097
board of directors shall provide for the creation of a special 51098
fund to hold the proceeds of any tax levied under section 51099
5705.2111 of the Revised Code and any gifts, donations, bequests, 51100
or other grants of money coming into the possession of the 51101
district. A regional student education district is a subdivision, 51102
and the board of directors is a governing body, within the meaning 51103
of section 135.01 of the Revised Code. The board of directors may 51104
not issue securities or otherwise incur indebtedness.51105

       (4) The adoption or rejection by electors of a tax levy to 51106
fund a regional student education district pursuant to section 51107
5705.2111 of the Revised Code does not alter the duty of each 51108
school district member of the regional student education district 51109
to provide special education and related services as required 51110
under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code. On the expiration of a 51111
regional student education district levy, the state, member school 51112
districts of the regional student education district, and any 51113
other governmental entity shall not be obligated to provide 51114
replacement funding for the revenues under the expired levy. The 51115
tax levy, in whole or in part, shall not be considered a levy for 51116
current operating expenses pursuant to division (A) of section 51117
3317.01 of the Revised Code for any of the school districts that 51118
are members of the regional student education district.51119

       (D)(1) The agreement shall provide for the manner of 51120
appointing an individual or entity to perform the duties of fiscal 51121
officer of the regional student education district. The agreement 51122
shall specify the length of time the individual or entity shall 51123
perform those duties and whether the individual or entity may be 51124
reappointed upon the completion of a term. The fiscal officer may 51125
receive compensation for performing the duties of the position and 51126
be reimbursed for reasonable expenses of performing those duties 51127
from the regional student education district's special fund.51128

       (2) The legal advisor of the board of directors of a regional 51129
student education district shall be the prosecuting attorney of 51130
the most populous county containing a school district that is a 51131
member of the regional student education district. The prosecuting 51132
attorney shall prosecute all actions against a member of the board 51133
of directors for malfeasance or misfeasance in office and shall be 51134
the legal counsel for the board and its members in all other 51135
actions brought by or against them and shall conduct those actions 51136
in the prosecuting attorney's official capacity. No compensation 51137
in addition to the prosecuting attorney's regular salary shall be 51138
allowed.51139

       (E) The board of directors of a regional student education 51140
district shall procure a policy or policies of insurance insuring 51141
the board, the fiscal officer, and the legal representative 51142
against liability on account of damage or injury to persons and 51143
property. Before procuring such insurance the board shall adopt a 51144
resolution setting forth the amount of insurance to be purchased, 51145
the necessity of the insurance, and a statement of its estimated 51146
premium cost. Insurance procured pursuant to this section shall be 51147
from one or more recognized insurance companies authorized to do 51148
business in this state. The cost of the insurance shall be paid 51149
from the district's special fund.51150

       A regional student education district is a political 51151
subdivision within the meaning of section 2744.01 of the Revised 51152
Code.51153

       (F)(1) The board of education of a school district having a 51154
majority of its territory in the county may join an existing 51155
regional student education district by adopting a resolution 51156
requesting to join as a party to the agreement and upon approval 51157
by the boards of education that currently are parties to the 51158
agreement. If a tax is levied in the regional student education 51159
district under section 5705.2111 of the Revised Code, a board of 51160
education may join the district only after a majority of qualified 51161
electors in the school district voting on the question vote in 51162
favor of levying the tax throughout the school district. A board 51163
of education joining an existing district shall have the same 51164
powers, rights, and obligations under the agreement as other 51165
boards of education that are parties to the agreement.51166

       (2) A board of education that is a party to an agreement 51167
under this section may withdraw the school district from a 51168
regional student education district by adopting a resolution. The 51169
withdrawal shall take effect on the date provided in the 51170
resolution. If a tax is levied in the regional student education 51171
district under section 5705.2111 of the Revised Code, the 51172
resolution shall take effect not later than the first day of 51173
January following adoption of the resolution. Beginning with the 51174
first day of January following adoption of the resolution, any tax 51175
levied under section 5705.2111 of the Revised Code shall not be 51176
levied within the territory of the withdrawing school district. 51177
Any collection of tax levied in the territory of the withdrawing 51178
school district under that section that has not been settled and 51179
distributed when the resolution takes effect shall be credited to 51180
the district's special fund.51181

       (G) An agreement entered into under this section shall 51182
provide for the manner of the regional student education 51183
district's dissolution. The district shall cease to exist when not 51184
more than one school district remains in the district, and the 51185
levy of any tax under section 5705.2111 of the Revised Code shall 51186
not be extended on the tax lists in any tax year beginning after 51187
the dissolution of the district. The agreement shall provide that, 51188
upon dissolution of the district, any unexpended balance in the 51189
district's special fund shall be divided among the school 51190
districts that are parties to the agreement immediately before 51191
dissolution in proportion to the taxable valuation of taxable 51192
property in the districts, and credited to their respective 51193
general funds.51194

       Sec. 3313.841.  The boards of education and governing boards 51195
of two or more city, local, joint vocational, or exempted village 51196
school districts or educational service centers may contract in 51197
accordance with the terms of this section for the sharing on a 51198
cooperative basis of the services of supervisory teachers, special 51199
instruction teachers, special education teachers, and other 51200
licensed personnel necessary to conduct approved cooperative 51201
classes for special education and related services and gifted 51202
education.51203

       The boards of two or more districts or service centers 51204
desiring to enroll students in such classes shall each adopt 51205
resolutions indicating such desire and designating one of the 51206
participating districts or service centers as the funding agent 51207
for purposes of this section. The district or service center 51208
designated as the funding agent shall enter into an employment 51209
contract with each licensed teacher whose services are to be 51210
shared among the participating districts and service centers. In 51211
turn, the funding agent shall enter into contracts with each of 51212
the districts and service centers which have adopted resolutions 51213
agreeing to participate in the cooperative program upon terms 51214
agreed to by all parties to such contract. Such contracts between 51215
districts and service centers shall set forth the services to be 51216
provided by the licensed teacher employed by the funding agent 51217
whose services are to be shared by the participating districts and 51218
service centers and the basis for computing the amounts to be paid 51219
for such services to the funding agent by the participating 51220
districts and service centers.51221

       For purposes of division (B) of section 3317.053317.0213 of 51222
the Revised Code, the funding agent shall count all pupils 51223
enrolled in cooperative programs for pupils with disabilities as 51224
pupils enrolled in such programs in the funding agent district. 51225
Upon receipt of payment for such programs, the funding agent 51226
district shall credit the account of districts participating in 51227
the cooperative program for the amounts due under contracts 51228
entered into under the terms of this section in proportion to the 51229
number of resident students enrolled in the cooperative program 51230
from each participating district and service center.51231

       In determining the terms of the contract entered into by the 51232
funding agent district or service center and the participating 51233
districts and service centers, the superintendent of schools of 51234
each participating board of education and governing board shall 51235
serve as a committee which shall recommend such terms to such 51236
boards.51237

       Sec. 3313.843.  (A) Notwithstanding division (D) of section 51238
3311.52 of the Revised Code, this section does not apply to any 51239
cooperative education school district.51240

       (B)(1) The board of education of each city, exempted village, 51241
or local school district with an average daily student enrollment 51242
of sixteen thousand or less, reported for the district on the most 51243
recent report card issued under section 3302.03 of the Revised 51244
Code, shall enter into an agreement with the governing board of an 51245
educational service center, under which the educational service 51246
center governing board will provide services to the district.51247

       (2) The board of education of a city, exempted village, or 51248
local school district with an average daily student enrollment of 51249
more than sixteen thousand may enter into an agreement with the 51250
governing board of an educational service center, under which the 51251
educational service center governing board will provide services 51252
to the district.51253

       (3) Services provided under an agreement entered into under 51254
division (B)(1) or (2) of this section shall be specified in the 51255
agreement, and may include any of the following: supervisory 51256
teachers; in-service and continuing education programs for 51257
district personnel; curriculum services; research and development 51258
programs; academic instruction for which the governing board 51259
employs teachers pursuant to section 3319.02 of the Revised Code; 51260
assistance in the provision of special accommodations and classes 51261
for students with disabilities; or any other services the district 51262
board and service center governing board agree can be better 51263
provided by the service center and are not provided under an 51264
agreement entered into under section 3313.845 of the Revised Code. 51265
Services included in the agreement shall be provided to the 51266
district in the manner specified in the agreement. The district 51267
board of education shall reimburse the educational service center 51268
governing board pursuant to section 3317.11 of the Revised Code51269
division (H) of this section.51270

       Beginning with the 2012-2013 school year, the board of any 51271
district described in division (B)(2) of this section may elect 51272
not to receive the supervisory services for which supervisory 51273
units are paid under division (B) of section 3317.11 of the 51274
Revised Code, provided that election is specified in the 51275
agreement.51276

       (C) Any agreement entered into pursuant to this section shall 51277
be filed with the department of education by the first day of July 51278
of the school year for which the agreement is in effect.51279

       (D)(1) An agreement for services from an educational service 51280
center entered into under this section may be terminated by the 51281
school district board of education, at its option, by notifying 51282
the governing board of the service center by March 1, 2012, or by 51283
the first day of January of any odd-numbered year thereafter, that 51284
the district board intends to terminate the agreement in that 51285
year, and that termination shall be effective on the thirtieth day 51286
of June of that year. The failure of a district board to notify an 51287
educational service center of its intent to terminate an agreement 51288
by March 1, 2012, shall result in renewal of the existing 51289
agreement for the following school year. Thereafter, the failure 51290
of a district board to notify an educational service center of its 51291
intent to terminate an agreement by the first day of January of an 51292
odd-numbered year shall result in renewal of the existing 51293
agreement for the following two school years.51294

       (2) If the school district that terminates an agreement for 51295
services under division (D)(1) of this section is also subject to 51296
the requirement of division (B)(1) of this section, the district 51297
board shall enter into a new agreement with any educational 51298
service center so that the new agreement is effective on the first 51299
day of July of that same year.51300

       (3) If all moneys owed by a school district to an educational 51301
service center under an agreement for services terminated under 51302
division (D)(1) of this section have been paid in full by the 51303
effective date of the termination, the governing board of the 51304
service center shall submit an affidavit to the department 51305
certifying that fact not later than fifteen days after the 51306
termination's effective date. Notwithstanding anything in the 51307
Revised Code to the contrary, until the department receives such 51308
an affidavit, it shall not make any payments to any other 51309
educational service center with which the district enters into an 51310
agreement under this section for services that the educational 51311
service center provides to the district.51312

        (E) An educational service center may apply to any state or 51313
federal agency for competitive grants. It may also apply to any 51314
private entity for additional funds. 51315

       (F) Not later than January 1, 2014, each educational service 51316
center shall post on its web site a list of all of the services 51317
that it provides and the corresponding cost for each of those 51318
services.51319

       (G)(1) For purposes of calculating any state subsidy to be 51320
paid to an educational service center for services provided to a 51321
school district, the service center's student count shall be the 51322
sum of the total student counts of all the school districts with 51323
which the educational service center has entered into an agreement 51324
under this section.51325

        (2) When a district enters into a new agreement with a new 51326
educational service center, the department of education shall 51327
ensure that the state subsidy for services provided to the 51328
district is paid to the new educational service center and that 51329
the educational service center with which the district previously 51330
had an agreement is no longer paid a state subsidy for providing 51331
services to that district. 51332

       (H) Pursuant to division (B) of section 3317.023 of the 51333
Revised Code, the department annually shall deduct from each 51334
school district that enters into an agreement with an educational 51335
service center under this section, and pay to the service center, 51336
an amount equal to six dollars and fifty cents times the school 51337
district's total student count. The district board of education, 51338
or the district superintendent acting on behalf of the district 51339
board, may agree to pay an amount in excess of six dollars and 51340
fifty cents per student in total student count. If a majority of 51341
the boards of education, or superintendents acting on behalf of 51342
the boards, of the districts that entered into an agreement under 51343
this section approve an amount in excess of six dollars and fifty 51344
cents per student in total student count, each district shall pay 51345
the excess amount to the service center.51346

        (I) For purposes of this section, a school district's "total 51347
student count" means the average daily student enrollment reported 51348
on the most recent report card issued for the district pursuant to 51349
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code.51350

       Sec. 3313.844.  The governing authority of a community school 51351
established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code and the 51352
governing board of an educational service center may enter into an 51353
agreement, through adoption of identical resolutions, under which 51354
the service center board will provide services to the community 51355
school. Services provided under the agreement and the amount and 51356
manner in which the community school board will pay for such 51357
services shall be mutually agreed to by the school's governing51358
boardauthority and the service center board, and shall be 51359
specified in the service agreement. If specified in the agreement 51360
as the manner of payment, the department of education shall pay 51361
the service center the amount due to it under the agreement and 51362
shall deduct that amount from the payments made to the community 51363
school under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code. Any agreement 51364
entered into under this section shall be valid only if a copy is 51365
filed with the department.51366

       Sec. 3313.845.  The board of education of a city, exempted 51367
village, or local, or joint vocational school district and the 51368
governing board of an educational service center may enter into an 51369
agreement under which the educational service center will provide 51370
services to the school district. Services provided under the 51371
agreement and the amount to be paid for such services shall be 51372
mutually agreed to by the district board of education and the 51373
service center governing board, and shall be specified in the 51374
agreement. Payment for services specified in the agreement shall 51375
be made pursuant to division (D) of section 3317.11 of the 51376
Revised Code and shall not include any deduction under division 51377
(B), (C), or (F) of that sectionthe terms of that agreement. If 51378
specified in the agreement as the manner of payment, the 51379
department of education shall pay the service center the amount 51380
due to it under the agreement and shall deduct that amount from 51381
the payments made to the joint vocational school district under 51382
Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code. Any agreement entered into 51383
pursuant to this section shall be valid only if a copy is filed 51384
with the department of education.51385

       The authority granted under this section to the boards of 51386
education of city, exempted village, and local school districts is 51387
in addition to the authority granted to such boards under section 51388
3313.843 of the Revised Code. 51389

       Sec. 3313.848.  (A) As used in this section:51390

       (1) "Client" means a city, local, or exempted village school 51391
district, community school established under Chapter 3314. of the 51392
Revised Code, STEM school established under Chapter 3326. of the 51393
Revised Code, or political subdivision.51394

       (2) "Governing body" means the board of education of a school 51395
district, governing authority of a community school, governing 51396
body of a STEM school, or governing body of a political 51397
subdivision.51398

       (3) "Political subdivision" has the same meaning as used in 51399
section 3313.846 of the Revised Code.51400

       (4) "Service agreement" means an agreement that a client has 51401
entered into with an educational service center under section 51402
3313.843, 3313.844, 3313.845, 3313.846, or 3326.45 of the Revised 51403
Code and any subsequent amendment to that agreement.51404

       (B) If at the end of a fiscal year for which a service 51405
agreement is in effect any of the funds paid directly by a client 51406
to the educational service center under the agreement have not 51407
been expended, a client's governing body may elect to have the 51408
service center retain the unexpended funds for the purpose of 51409
applying them toward any payment the client will owe to the 51410
service center under a service agreement for the next fiscal year. 51411
The treasurer or fiscal officer of the client shall indicate on 51412
the client's end-of-year financial report that unexpended funds 51413
have been retained by the service center and the amount of those 51414
funds.51415

       (C) If the chief administrator of a client requests that the 51416
treasurer of an educational service center spend a portion of the 51417
client's funds retained under division (B) of this section for a 51418
purpose other than services specifically set forth under a service 51419
agreement and the treasurer fulfills that request, the treasurer 51420
shall keep a record of the expenditure and the purpose for which 51421
the expenditure was made. On at least an annual basis, or upon the 51422
request of the client's governing body or its treasurer or fiscal 51423
officer, the treasurer of the service center shall notify the 51424
client's treasurer or fiscal officer of the expenditures recorded 51425
under this division. The client's treasurer or fiscal officer 51426
shall include that information in the financial report made by the 51427
treasurer or fiscal officer at the next meeting of the client's 51428
governing body that occurs following receipt of the information.51429

       Sec. 3313.849.  The governing bodies of two or more city, 51430
exempted village, local, or joint vocational school districts, 51431
community schools established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised 51432
Code, or STEM schools established under Chapter 3326. of the 51433
Revised Code, may mutually agree to share supervisory, curriculum, 51434
teaching, special education, professional development, or any 51435
other services offered by an educational service center and may 51436
pool their funding to pay the cost of receiving those services. 51437
Each of the governing bodies of the districts or schools 51438
participating in shared services pursuant to this section shall 51439
specify in its service agreement with the service center under 51440
section 3313.843, 3313.844, 3313.845, or 3326.45 of the Revised 51441
Code which services that the participants have agreed to share, 51442
any other districts or schools participating in the shared 51443
services, and the amount of funds that the governing body will 51444
contribute toward the total cost of the shared services. Each 51445
governing body's funding contribution shall be paid to the service 51446
center in accordance with section 3313.843, 3313.844, 3313.845, or 51447
3326.45 of the Revised Code, as applicable.51448

       The authority granted under this section is in addition to 51449
the authority granted to school district boards of education under 51450
section 3313.841 of the Revised Code.51451

       Sec. 3313.88.  (A)(1) Prior to the first day of August of 51452
each school year, the board of education of any school district or 51453
the governing authority of any chartered nonpublic school may 51454
submit to the department of education a plan to require students 51455
to access and complete classroom lessons posted on the district's 51456
or nonpublic school's web portal or web site in order to make up 51457
days in that school year on which it is necessary to close schools 51458
for any of the reasons specified in division (B) of section 51459
3317.01 of the Revised Code in excess of the number of days 51460
permitted under sections 3313.48, 3313.481, and 3317.01 of the 51461
Revised Code.51462

       Prior to the first day of August of each school year, the 51463
governing authority of any community school established under 51464
Chapter 3314. that is not an internet- or computer-based community 51465
school, as defined in section 3314.02 of the Revised Code, may 51466
submit to the department a plan to require students to access and 51467
complete classroom lessons posted on the school's web portal or 51468
web site in order to make up days or hours in that school year on 51469
which it is necessary to close the school for any of the reasons 51470
specified in division (L)(H)(4) of section 3314.08 of the Revised 51471
Code so that the school is in compliance with the minimum number 51472
of hours required under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code.51473

        A plan submitted by a school district board or chartered 51474
nonpublic school governing authority shall provide for making up 51475
any number of days, up to a maximum of three days. A plan 51476
submitted by a community school governing authority shall provide 51477
for making up any number of hours, up to a maximum of the 51478
equivalent of three days. Provided the plan meets all requirements 51479
of this section, the department shall permit the board or 51480
governing authority to implement the plan for the applicable 51481
school year.51482

       (2) Each plan submitted under this section by a school 51483
district board of education shall include the written consent of 51484
the teachers' employee representative designated under division 51485
(B) of section 4117.04 of the Revised Code.51486

       (3) Each plan submitted under this section shall provide for 51487
the following:51488

       (a) Not later than the first day of November of the school 51489
year, each classroom teacher shall develop a sufficient number of 51490
lessons for each course taught by the teacher that school year to 51491
cover the number of make-up days or hours specified in the plan. 51492
The teacher shall designate the order in which the lessons are to 51493
be posted on the district's, community school's, or nonpublic 51494
school's web portal or web site in the event of a school closure. 51495
Teachers may be granted up to one professional development day to 51496
create lesson plans for those lessons.51497

       (b) To the extent possible and necessary, a classroom teacher 51498
shall update or replace, based on current instructional progress, 51499
one or more of the lesson plans developed under division (A)(3)(a) 51500
of this section before they are posted on the web portal or web 51501
site under division (A)(3)(c) of this section or distributed under 51502
division (B) of this section.51503

       (c) As soon as practicable after a school closure, a district 51504
or school employee responsible for web portal or web site 51505
operations shall make the designated lessons available to students 51506
on the district's, community school's, or nonpublic school's 51507
portal or site. A lesson shall be posted for each course that was 51508
scheduled to meet on the day or hours of the closure.51509

       (d) Each student enrolled in a course for which a lesson is 51510
posted on the portal or site shall be granted a two-week period 51511
from the date of posting to complete the lesson. The student's 51512
classroom teacher shall grade the lesson in the same manner as 51513
other lessons. The student may receive an incomplete or failing 51514
grade if the lesson is not completed on time.51515

       (e) If a student does not have access to a computer at the 51516
student's residence and the plan does not include blizzard bags 51517
under division (B) of this section, the student shall be permitted 51518
to work on the posted lessons at school after the student's school 51519
reopens. If the lessons were posted prior to the reopening, the 51520
student shall be granted a two-week period from the date of the 51521
reopening, rather than from the date of posting as otherwise 51522
required under division (A)(3)(d) of this section, to complete the 51523
lessons. The district board or community school or nonpublic 51524
school governing authority may provide the student access to a 51525
computer before, during, or after the regularly scheduled school 51526
day or may provide a substantially similar paper lesson in order 51527
to complete the lessons.51528

       (B)(1) In addition to posting classroom lessons online under 51529
division (A) of this section, the board of education of any school 51530
district or governing authority of any community or chartered 51531
nonpublic school may include in the plan distribution of "blizzard 51532
bags," which are paper copies of the lessons posted online.51533

        (2) If a school opts to use blizzard bags, teachers shall 51534
prepare paper copies in conjunction with the lessons to be posted 51535
online and update the paper copies whenever the teacher updates 51536
the online lesson plans.51537

        (3) The board of education of any school district or 51538
governing authority of any community or chartered nonpublic school 51539
that opts to use blizzard bags shall specify in the plan the 51540
method of distribution of blizzard bag lessons, which may include, 51541
but not be limited to, requiring distribution by a specific 51542
deadline or requiring distribution prior to anticipated school 51543
closure as directed by the superintendent of a school district or 51544
the principal, director, chief administrative officer, or the 51545
equivalent, of a school.51546

        (4) Students shall turn in completed lessons in accordance 51547
with division (A)(3)(d) of this section. 51548

       (C)(1) No school district that implements a plan in 51549
accordance with this section shall be considered to have failed to 51550
comply with division (B) of section 3317.01 of the Revised Code 51551
with respect to the number of make-up days specified in the plan.51552

       (2) No community school that implements a plan in accordance 51553
with this section shall be considered to have failed to comply 51554
with the minimum number of hours required under Chapter 3314. of 51555
the Revised Code with respect to the number of make-up hours 51556
specified in the plan.51557

       Sec. 3313.911.  The state board of education may adopt a 51558
resolution assigning a city, exempted village, or local school 51559
district that is not a part of a joint vocational school district 51560
to membership in a joint vocational school district. A copy of the 51561
resolution shall be certified to the board of education of the 51562
joint vocational school district and the board of education of the 51563
district proposed to be assigned. The board of education of the 51564
joint vocational school district shall advertise a copy of the 51565
resolution in a newspaper of general circulation in the district 51566
proposed to be assigned once each week for two weeks, or as 51567
provided in section 7.16 of the Revised Code, immediately 51568
following the certification of the resolution to the board. The 51569
assignment shall take effect on the ninety-first day after the 51570
state board adopts the resolution, unless prior to that date 51571
qualified electors residing in the school district proposed for 51572
assignment, equal in number to ten per cent of the qualified 51573
electors of that district voting at the last general election, 51574
file a petition against the assignment.51575

       The petition of referendum shall be filed with the treasurer 51576
of the board of education of the district proposed to be assigned 51577
to the joint vocational school district. The treasurer shall give 51578
the person presenting the petition a receipt showing the time of 51579
day, date, and purpose of the petition. The treasurer shall cause 51580
the board of elections to determine the sufficiency of signatures 51581
on the petition and if the signatures are found to be sufficient, 51582
shall present the petition to the board of education of the 51583
district. The board of education shall promptly certify the 51584
question to the board of elections for the purpose of having the 51585
question placed on the ballot at the next general, primary, or 51586
special election not earlier than sixty days after the date of the 51587
certification.51588

       Only those qualified electors residing in the district 51589
proposed for assignment to the joint vocational school district 51590
are qualified to vote on the question. If a majority of the 51591
electors voting on the question vote against the assignment, it 51592
shall not take place, and the state board of education shall 51593
require the district to contract with the joint vocational school 51594
district or another school district as authorized by section 51595
3313.91 of the Revised Code.51596

       If a majority of the electors voting on the question do not 51597
vote against the assignment, the assignment shall take immediate 51598
effect, and the board of education of the joint vocational school 51599
district shall notify the county auditor of the county in which 51600
the school district becoming a part of the joint vocational school 51601
district is located to have any outstanding levy of the joint 51602
vocational school district spread over the territory of the school 51603
district that has become a part of the joint vocational school 51604
district.51605

       The assignment of a school district to a joint vocational 51606
school district pursuant to this section is subject to any 51607
agreements made between the board of education of the assigned 51608
school district and the board of education of the joint vocational 51609
school district. Such an agreement may include provisions for a 51610
payment by the assigned school district to the joint vocational 51611
school district of an amount to be contributed toward the cost of 51612
the existing facilities of the joint vocational school district.51613

       On the assignment of a school district to a joint vocational 51614
school district pursuant to this section, the joint vocational 51615
school district's board of education shall submit a proposal to 51616
the state board of education to enlarge or reorganize the 51617
membership of the joint vocational school district's board of 51618
education if expansion or reorganization of the board is necessary 51619
in order to comply with section 3311.19 of the Revised Code.51620

       Sec. 3313.978.  (A) Annually by the first day of November, 51621
the superintendent of public instruction shall notify the pilot 51622
project school district of the number of initial scholarships that 51623
the state superintendent will be awarding in each of grades 51624
kindergarten through twelve.51625

       The state superintendent shall provide information about the 51626
scholarship program to all students residing in the district, 51627
shall accept applications from any such students until such date 51628
as shall be established by the state superintendent as a deadline 51629
for applications, and shall establish criteria for the selection 51630
of students to receive scholarships from among all those applying 51631
prior to the deadline, which criteria shall give preference to 51632
students from low-income families. The state superintendent shall 51633
notify students of their selection prior to the fifteenth day of 51634
January. 51635

       (1) A student receiving a pilot project scholarship may 51636
utilize it at an alternative public school by notifying the 51637
district superintendent, at any time before the beginning of the 51638
school year, of the name of the public school in an adjacent 51639
school district to which the student has been accepted pursuant to 51640
section 3327.06 of the Revised Code.51641

       (2) A student may decide to utilize a pilot project 51642
scholarship at a registered private school in the district if all 51643
of the following conditions are met:51644

       (a) By the fifteenth day of February of the preceding school 51645
year, or at any time prior to the start of the school year, the 51646
parent makes an application on behalf of the student to a 51647
registered private school.51648

       (b) The registered private school notifies the parent and the 51649
state superintendent as follows that the student has been 51650
admitted:51651

       (i) By the fifteenth day of March of the preceding school 51652
year if the student filed an application by the fifteenth day of 51653
February and was admitted by the school pursuant to division (A) 51654
of section 3313.977 of the Revised Code;51655

       (ii) Within one week of the decision to admit the student if 51656
the student is admitted pursuant to division (C) of section 51657
3313.977 of the Revised Code.51658

       (c) The student actually enrolls in the registered private 51659
school to which the student was first admitted or in another 51660
registered private school in the district or in a public school in 51661
an adjacent school district.51662

       (B) The state superintendent shall also award in any school 51663
year tutorial assistance grants to a number of students equal to 51664
the number of students who receive scholarships under division (A) 51665
of this section. Tutorial assistance grants shall be awarded 51666
solely to students who are enrolled in the public schools of the 51667
district in a grade level covered by the pilot project. Tutorial 51668
assistance grants may be used solely to obtain tutorial assistance 51669
from a provider approved pursuant to division (D) of section 51670
3313.976 of the Revised Code.51671

       All students wishing to obtain tutorial assistance grants 51672
shall make application to the state superintendent by the first 51673
day of the school year in which the assistance will be used. The 51674
state superintendent shall award assistance grants in accordance 51675
with criteria the superintendent shall establish. 51676

       (C)(1) In the case of basic scholarships for students in 51677
grades kindergarten through eight, the scholarship amount shall 51678
not exceed the lesser of the net tuition charges of the 51679
alternative school the scholarship recipient attends or three 51680
thousand dollars before fiscal year 2007, three thousand four 51681
hundred fifty dollars in fiscal year 2007 through fiscal year 51682
2011, and four thousand two hundred fifty dollars in fiscal year 51683
2012 and thereafter.51684

       In the case of basic scholarships for students in grades nine 51685
through twelve, the scholarship amount shall not exceed the lesser 51686
of the net tuition charges of the alternative school the 51687
scholarship recipient attends or two thousand seven hundred 51688
dollars before fiscal year 2007, three thousand four hundred fifty 51689
dollars in fiscal year 2007 through fiscal year 2011, and five 51690
thousand dollars in fiscal year 2012 and thereafterfiscal year 51691
2013, and five thousand seven hundred dollars in fiscal year 2014 51692
and thereafter.51693

       The net tuition and fees charged to a student shall be the 51694
tuition amount specified by the alternative school minus all other 51695
financial aid, discounts, and adjustments received for the 51696
student. In cases where discounts are offered for multiple 51697
students from the same family, and not all students in the same 51698
family are scholarship recipients, the net tuition amount 51699
attributable to the scholarship recipient shall be the lowest net 51700
tuition to which the family is entitled.51701

       (2) The state superintendent shall provide for an increase in 51702
the basic scholarship amount in the case of any student who is a 51703
mainstreamed student with a disability and shall further increase 51704
such amount in the case of any separately educated student with a 51705
disability. Such increases shall take into account the 51706
instruction, related services, and transportation costs of 51707
educating such students.51708

       (3) In the case of tutorial assistance grants, the grant 51709
amount shall not exceed the lesser of the provider's actual 51710
charges for such assistance or:51711

       (a) Before fiscal year 2007, a percentage established by the 51712
state superintendent, not to exceed twenty per cent, of the amount 51713
of the pilot project school district's average basic scholarship 51714
amount;51715

       (b) In fiscal year 2007 and thereafter, four hundred dollars.51716

       (D)(1) Annually by the first day of November, the state 51717
superintendent shall estimate the maximum per-pupil scholarship 51718
amounts for the ensuing school year. The state superintendent 51719
shall make this estimate available to the general public at the 51720
offices of the district board of education together with the forms 51721
required by division (D)(2) of this section.51722

       (2) Annually by the fifteenth day of January, the chief 51723
administrator of each registered private school located in the 51724
pilot project district and the principal of each public school in 51725
such district shall complete a parental information form and 51726
forward it to the president of the board of education. The 51727
parental information form shall be prescribed by the department of 51728
education and shall provide information about the grade levels 51729
offered, the numbers of students, tuition amounts, achievement 51730
test results, and any sectarian or other organizational 51731
affiliations.51732

       (E)(1) Only for the purpose of administering the pilot 51733
project scholarship program, the department may request from any 51734
of the following entities the data verification code assigned 51735
under division (D)(2) of section 3301.0714 of the Revised Code to 51736
any student who is seeking a scholarship under the program:51737

        (a) The school district in which the student is entitled to 51738
attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised 51739
Code;51740

        (b) If applicable, the community school in which the student 51741
is enrolled;51742

        (c) The independent contractor engaged to create and maintain 51743
data verification codes.51744

        (2) Upon a request by the department under division (E)(1) of 51745
this section for the data verification code of a student seeking a 51746
scholarship or a request by the student's parent for that code, 51747
the school district or community school shall submit that code to 51748
the department or parent in the manner specified by the 51749
department. If the student has not been assigned a code, because 51750
the student will be entering kindergarten during the school year 51751
for which the scholarship is sought, the district shall assign a 51752
code to that student and submit the code to the department or 51753
parent by a date specified by the department. If the district does 51754
not assign a code to the student by the specified date, the 51755
department shall assign a code to the student.51756

       The department annually shall submit to each school district 51757
the name and data verification code of each student residing in 51758
the district who is entering kindergarten, who has been awarded a 51759
scholarship under the program, and for whom the department has 51760
assigned a code under this division.51761

       (3) The department shall not release any data verification 51762
code that it receives under division (E) of this section to any 51763
person except as provided by law.51764

       (F) Any document relative to the pilot project scholarship 51765
program that the department holds in its files that contains both 51766
a student's name or other personally identifiable information and 51767
the student's data verification code shall not be a public record 51768
under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.51769

       (G)(1) The department annually shall compile the scores 51770
attained by scholarship students enrolled in registered private 51771
schools on the assessments administered to the students pursuant 51772
to division (A)(11) of section 3313.976 of the Revised Code. The 51773
scores shall be aggregated as follows:51774

       (a) By school district, which shall include all scholarship 51775
students residing in the pilot project school district who are 51776
enrolled in a registered private school and were required to take 51777
an assessment pursuant to division (A)(11) of section 3313.976 of 51778
the Revised Code;51779

       (b) By registered private school, which shall include all 51780
scholarship students enrolled in that school who were required to 51781
take an assessment pursuant to division (A)(11) of section 51782
3313.976 of the Revised Code.51783

       (2) The department shall disaggregate the student performance 51784
data described in division (G)(1) of this section according to the 51785
following categories:51786

       (a) Grade level;51787

       (b) Race and ethnicity;51788

       (c) Gender;51789

       (d) Students who have participated in the scholarship program 51790
for three or more years;51791

       (e) Students who have participated in the scholarship program 51792
for more than one year and less than three years;51793

       (f) Students who have participated in the scholarship program 51794
for one year or less;51795

       (g) Economically disadvantaged students.51796

       (3) The department shall post the student performance data 51797
required under divisions (G)(1) and (2) of this section on its web 51798
site and shall include that data in the information about the 51799
scholarship program provided to students under division (A) of 51800
this section. In reporting student performance data under this 51801
division, the department shall not include any data that is 51802
statistically unreliable or that could result in the 51803
identification of individual students. For this purpose, the 51804
department shall not report performance data for any group that 51805
contains less than ten students.51806

       (4) The department shall provide the parent of each 51807
scholarship student enrolled in a registered private school with 51808
information comparing the student's performance on the assessments 51809
administered pursuant to division (A)(11) of section 3313.976 of 51810
the Revised Code with the average performance of similar students 51811
enrolled in the building operated by the pilot project school 51812
district that the scholarship student would otherwise attend. In 51813
calculating the performance of similar students, the department 51814
shall consider age, grade, race and ethnicity, gender, and 51815
socioeconomic status.51816

       Sec. 3313.98.  Notwithstanding division (D) of section 51817
3311.19 and division (D) of section 3311.52 of the Revised Code, 51818
the provisions of this section and sections 3313.981 to 3313.983 51819
of the Revised Code that apply to a city school district do not 51820
apply to a joint vocational or cooperative education school 51821
district unless expressly specified.51822

       (A) As used in this section and sections 3313.981 to 3313.983 51823
of the Revised Code:51824

       (1) "Parent" means either of the natural or adoptive parents 51825
of a student, except under the following conditions:51826

       (a) When the marriage of the natural or adoptive parents of 51827
the student has been terminated by a divorce, dissolution of 51828
marriage, or annulment or the natural or adoptive parents of the 51829
student are living separate and apart under a legal separation 51830
decree and the court has issued an order allocating the parental 51831
rights and responsibilities with respect to the student, "parent" 51832
means the residential parent as designated by the court except 51833
that "parent" means either parent when the court issues a shared 51834
parenting decree.51835

       (b) When a court has granted temporary or permanent custody 51836
of the student to an individual or agency other than either of the 51837
natural or adoptive parents of the student, "parent" means the 51838
legal custodian of the child.51839

       (c) When a court has appointed a guardian for the student, 51840
"parent" means the guardian of the student.51841

       (2) "Native student" means a student entitled under section 51842
3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code to attend school in a 51843
district adopting a resolution under this section.51844

       (3) "Adjacent district" means a city, exempted village, or 51845
local school district having territory that abuts the territory of 51846
a district adopting a resolution under this section.51847

       (4) "Adjacent district student" means a student entitled 51848
under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code to attend 51849
school in an adjacent district.51850

       (5) "Adjacent district joint vocational student" means an 51851
adjacent district student who enrolls in a city, exempted village, 51852
or local school district pursuant to this section and who also 51853
enrolls in a joint vocational school district that does not 51854
contain the territory of the district for which that student is a 51855
native student and does contain the territory of the city, 51856
exempted village, or local district in which the student enrolls.51857

       (6) "Formula amount" has the same meaning as in section 51858
3317.02 of the Revised Code.51859

       (7) "Adjusted formula amount" means the sum of the formula 51860
amount plus the per pupil amount of the base funding supplements 51861
specified in divisions (C)(1) to (4) of section 3317.012 of the 51862
Revised Code for fiscal year 2009.51863

       (8) "Poverty line" means the poverty line established by the 51864
director of the United States office of management and budget as 51865
revised by the directorsecretary of the office of community51866
health and human services in accordance with section 673(2) of the 51867
"Community Services Block Grant Act," 95 Stat. 1609, 42 U.S.C.A. 51868
9902, as amended.51869

       (9)(8) "IEP" has the same meaning as in section 3323.01 of 51870
the Revised Code.51871

       (10)(9) "Other district" means a city, exempted village, or 51872
local school district having territory outside of the territory of 51873
a district adopting a resolution under this section.51874

       (11)(10) "Other district student" means a student entitled 51875
under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code to attend 51876
school in an other district.51877

       (12)(11) "Other district joint vocational student" means a 51878
student who is enrolled in any city, exempted village, or local 51879
school district and who also enrolls in a joint vocational school 51880
district that does not contain the territory of the district for 51881
which that student is a native student in accordance with a policy 51882
adopted under section 3313.983 of the Revised Code.51883

       (B)(1) The board of education of each city, local, and 51884
exempted village school district shall adopt a resolution 51885
establishing for the school district one of the following 51886
policies:51887

       (a) A policy that entirely prohibits the enrollment of 51888
students from adjacent districts or other districts, other than 51889
students for whom tuition is paid in accordance with section 51890
3317.08 of the Revised Code;51891

       (b) A policy that permits enrollment of students from all 51892
adjacent districts in accordance with policy statements contained 51893
in the resolution;51894

       (c) A policy that permits enrollment of students from all 51895
other districts in accordance with policy statements contained in 51896
the resolution.51897

       (2) A policy permitting enrollment of students from adjacent 51898
or from other districts, as applicable, shall provide for all of 51899
the following:51900

       (a) Application procedures, including deadlines for 51901
application and for notification of students and the 51902
superintendent of the applicable district whenever an adjacent or 51903
other district student's application is approved.51904

       (b) Procedures for admitting adjacent or other district 51905
applicants free of any tuition obligation to the district's 51906
schools, including, but not limited to:51907

       (i) The establishment of district capacity limits by grade 51908
level, school building, and education program;51909

       (ii) A requirement that all native students wishing to be 51910
enrolled in the district will be enrolled and that any adjacent or 51911
other district students previously enrolled in the district shall 51912
receive preference over first-time applicants;51913

       (iii) Procedures to ensure that an appropriate racial balance 51914
is maintained in the district schools.51915

       (C) Except as provided in section 3313.982 of the Revised 51916
Code, the procedures for admitting adjacent or other district 51917
students, as applicable, shall not include:51918

       (1) Any requirement of academic ability, or any level of 51919
athletic, artistic, or other extracurricular skills;51920

       (2) Limitations on admitting applicants because of 51921
disability, except that a board may refuse to admit a student 51922
receiving services under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code, if the 51923
services described in the student's IEP are not available in the 51924
district's schools;51925

       (3) A requirement that the student be proficient in the 51926
English language;51927

       (4) Rejection of any applicant because the student has been 51928
subject to disciplinary proceedings, except that if an applicant 51929
has been suspended or expelled by the student's district for ten 51930
consecutive days or more in the term for which admission is sought 51931
or in the term immediately preceding the term for which admission 51932
is sought, the procedures may include a provision denying 51933
admission of such applicant.51934

       (D)(1) Each school board permitting only enrollment of 51935
adjacent district students shall provide information about the 51936
policy adopted under this section, including the application 51937
procedures and deadlines, to the superintendent and the board of 51938
education of each adjacent district and, upon request, to the 51939
parent of any adjacent district student.51940

       (2) Each school board permitting enrollment of other district 51941
students shall provide information about the policy adopted under 51942
this section, including the application procedures and deadlines, 51943
upon request, to the board of education of any other school 51944
district or to the parent of any student anywhere in the state.51945

       (E) Any school board shall accept all credits toward 51946
graduation earned in adjacent or other district schools by an 51947
adjacent or other district student or a native student.51948

       (F)(1) No board of education may adopt a policy discouraging 51949
or prohibiting its native students from applying to enroll in the 51950
schools of an adjacent or any other district that has adopted a 51951
policy permitting such enrollment, except that:51952

       (a) A district may object to the enrollment of a native 51953
student in an adjacent or other district in order to maintain an 51954
appropriate racial balance.51955

       (b) The board of education of a district receiving funds 51956
under 64 Stat. 1100 (1950), 20 U.S.C.A. 236 et seq., as amended, 51957
may adopt a resolution objecting to the enrollment of its native 51958
students in adjacent or other districts if at least ten per cent 51959
of its students are included in the determination of the United 51960
States secretary of education made under section 20 U.S.C.A. 51961
238(a).51962

       (2) If a board objects to enrollment of native students under 51963
this division, any adjacent or other district shall refuse to 51964
enroll such native students unless tuition is paid for the 51965
students in accordance with section 3317.08 of the Revised Code. 51966
An adjacent or other district enrolling such students may not 51967
receive funding for those students in accordance with section 51968
3313.981 of the Revised Code.51969

       (G) The state board of education shall monitor school 51970
districts to ensure compliance with this section and the 51971
districts' policies. The board may adopt rules requiring uniform 51972
application procedures, deadlines for application, notification 51973
procedures, and record-keeping requirements for all school boards 51974
that adopt policies permitting the enrollment of adjacent or other 51975
district students, as applicable. If the state board adopts such 51976
rules, no school board shall adopt a policy that conflicts with 51977
those rules.51978

       (H) A resolution adopted by a board of education under this 51979
section that entirely prohibits the enrollment of students from 51980
adjacent and from other school districts does not abrogate any 51981
agreement entered into under section 3313.841 or 3313.92 of the 51982
Revised Code or any contract entered into under section 3313.90 of 51983
the Revised Code between the board of education adopting the 51984
resolution and the board of education of any adjacent or other 51985
district or prohibit these boards of education from entering into 51986
any such agreement or contract.51987

       (I) Nothing in this section shall be construed to permit or 51988
require the board of education of a city, exempted village, or 51989
local school district to exclude any native student of the 51990
district from enrolling in the district.51991

       Sec. 3313.981.  (A) The state board of education shall adopt 51992
rules requiring all of the following:51993

       (1) The board of education of each city, exempted village, 51994
and local school district to annually report to the department of 51995
education all of the following:51996

       (a) The number of adjacent district or other district 51997
students, as applicable, and adjacent district or other district 51998
joint vocational students, as applicable, enrolled in the district 51999
and the number of native students enrolled in adjacent or other 52000
districts, in accordance with a policy adopted under division (B) 52001
of section 3313.98 of the Revised Code;52002

       (b) Each adjacent district or other district student's or 52003
adjacent district or other district joint vocational student's 52004
date of enrollment in the district;52005

       (c) The full-time equivalent number of adjacent district or 52006
other district students enrolled in vocationaleach of the 52007
categories of career-technical education programs or classes 52008
described in division (A) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code 52009
and the full-time equivalent number of such students enrolled in 52010
vocational education programs or classes described in division (B) 52011
of that section;52012

       (d) Each native student's date of enrollment in an adjacent 52013
or other district.52014

       (2) The board of education of each joint vocational school 52015
district to annually report to the department all of the 52016
following:52017

       (a) The number of adjacent district or other district joint 52018
vocational students, as applicable, enrolled in the district;52019

       (b) The full-time equivalent number of adjacent district or 52020
other district joint vocational students enrolled in vocational52021
each category of career-technical education programs or classes 52022
described in division (A) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code 52023
and the full-time equivalent number of such students enrolled in 52024
vocational education programs or classes described in division (B) 52025
of that section;52026

       (c) For each adjacent district or other district joint 52027
vocational student, the city, exempted village, or local school 52028
district in which the student is also enrolled.52029

       (3) Prior to the first full school week in October each year, 52030
the superintendent of each city, local, or exempted village school 52031
district that admits adjacent district or other district students 52032
or adjacent district or other district joint vocational students 52033
in accordance with a policy adopted under division (B) of section 52034
3313.98 of the Revised Code to notify each adjacent or other 52035
district where those students are entitled to attend school under 52036
section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code of the number of 52037
the adjacent or other district's native students who are enrolled 52038
in the superintendent's district under the policy.52039

       The rules shall provide for the method of counting students 52040
who are enrolled for part of a school year in an adjacent or other 52041
district or as an adjacent district or other district joint 52042
vocational student.52043

       (B) From the payments made to a city, exempted village, or 52044
local school district under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code and, 52045
if necessary, from the payments made to the district under 52046
sections 321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code, the department of 52047
education shall annually subtract both of the following:52048

       (1) An amount equal to the number of the district's native 52049
students reported under division (A)(1) of this section who are 52050
enrolled in adjacent or other school districts pursuant to 52051
policies adopted by such districts under division (B) of section 52052
3313.98 of the Revised Code multiplied by the adjusted formula 52053
amount;52054

       (2) The excess costs computed in accordance with division (E) 52055
of this section for any such native students receiving special 52056
education and related services in adjacent or other school 52057
districts or as an adjacent district or other district joint 52058
vocational student;52059

       (3) For the full-time equivalent number the formula amount of 52060
the district's native students reported under division (A)(1)(c) 52061
or (2)(b) of this section as enrolled in vocational52062
career-technical education programs or classes described in 52063
section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, an amount equal to $5,73252064
the formula amount times the applicable multiple prescribed by 52065
that section.52066

       (C) To the payments made to a city, exempted village, or 52067
local school district under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code, the 52068
department of education shall annually add all of the following:52069

       (1) An amount equal to the adjusted formula amount multiplied 52070
by the remainder obtained by subtracting the number of adjacent 52071
district or other district joint vocational students from the 52072
number of adjacent district or other district students enrolled in 52073
the district, as reported under division (A)(1) of this section;52074

       (2) The excess costs computed in accordance with division (E) 52075
of this section for any adjacent district or other district 52076
students, except for any adjacent or other district joint 52077
vocational students, receiving special education and related 52078
services in the district;52079

       (3) For the full-time equivalent number of the adjacent or 52080
other district students who are not adjacent district or other 52081
district joint vocational students and are reported under division 52082
(A)(1)(c) of this section as enrolled in vocational52083
career-technical education programs or classes described in 52084
section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, an amount equal to $5,73252085
the formula amount times the applicable multiple prescribed by 52086
that section;52087

       (4) An amount equal to the number of adjacent district or 52088
other district joint vocational students reported under division 52089
(A)(1) of this section multiplied by an amount equal to twenty per 52090
cent of the adjusted formula amount.52091

       (D) To the payments made to a joint vocational school 52092
district under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code, the department 52093
of education shall add, for each adjacent district or other 52094
district joint vocational student reported under division (A)(2) 52095
of this section, both of the following:52096

       (1) The adjusted formula amount;52097

       (2) An amount equal to the full-time equivalent number of 52098
students reported pursuant to division (A)(2)(b) of this section 52099
times $5,732the formula amount times the applicable multiple 52100
prescribed by section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.52101

       (E)(1) A city, exempted village, or local school board 52102
providing special education and related services to an adjacent or 52103
other district student in accordance with an IEP shall, pursuant 52104
to rules of the state board, compute the excess costs to educate 52105
such student as follows:52106

       (a) Subtract the adjusted formula amount from the actual 52107
costs to educate the student;52108

       (b) From the amount computed under division (E)(1)(a) of this 52109
section subtract the amount of any funds received by the district 52110
under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code to provide special 52111
education and related services to the student.52112

       (2) The board shall report the excess costs computed under 52113
this division to the department of education.52114

       (3) If any student for whom excess costs are computed under 52115
division (E)(1) of this section is an adjacent or other district 52116
joint vocational student, the department of education shall add 52117
the amount of such excess costs to the payments made under Chapter 52118
3317. of the Revised Code to the joint vocational school district 52119
enrolling the student.52120

       (F) As provided in division (D)(1)(b) of section 3317.03 of 52121
the Revised Code, no joint vocational school district shall count 52122
any adjacent or other district joint vocational student enrolled 52123
in the district in its formula ADM certified under section 3317.03 52124
of the Revised Code.52125

       (G) No city, exempted village, or local school district shall 52126
receive a payment under division (C) of this section for a 52127
student, and no joint vocational school district shall receive a 52128
payment under division (D) of this section for a student, if for 52129
the same school year that student is counted in the district's 52130
formula ADM certified under section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.52131

       (H) Upon request of a parent, and provided the board offers 52132
transportation to native students of the same grade level and 52133
distance from school under section 3327.01 of the Revised Code, a 52134
city, exempted village, or local school board enrolling an 52135
adjacent or other district student shall provide transportation 52136
for the student within the boundaries of the board's district, 52137
except that the board shall be required to pick up and drop off a 52138
nonhandicapped student only at a regular school bus stop 52139
designated in accordance with the board's transportation policy. 52140
Pursuant to rules of the state board of education, such board may 52141
reimburse the parent from funds received for pupil transportation 52142
under section 3317.0212 of the Revised Code, or other provisions 52143
of law, for the reasonable cost of transportation from the 52144
student's home to the designated school bus stop if the student's 52145
family has an income below the federal poverty line.52146

       Sec. 3314.015.  (A) The department of education shall be 52147
responsible for the oversight of any and all sponsors of the 52148
community schools established under this chapter and shall provide 52149
technical assistance to schools and sponsors in their compliance 52150
with applicable laws and the terms of the contracts entered into 52151
under section 3314.03 of the Revised Code and in the development 52152
and start-up activities of those schools. In carrying out its 52153
duties under this section, the department shall do all of the 52154
following:52155

        (1) In providing technical assistance to proposing parties, 52156
governing authorities, and sponsors, conduct training sessions and 52157
distribute informational materials;52158

       (2) Approve entities to be sponsors of community schools; 52159

       (3) Monitor and evaluate, as required under section 3314.016 52160
of the Revised Code, the effectiveness of any and all sponsors in 52161
their oversight of the schools with which they have contracted;52162

        (4) By December thirty-first of each year, issue a report to 52163
the governor, the speaker of the house of representatives, the 52164
president of the senate, and the chairpersons of the house and 52165
senate committees principally responsible for education matters 52166
regarding the effectiveness of academic programs, operations, and 52167
legal compliance and of the financial condition of all community 52168
schools established under this chapter and on the performance of 52169
community school sponsors;52170

        (5) From time to time, make legislative recommendations to 52171
the general assembly designed to enhance the operation and 52172
performance of community schools.52173

        (B)(1) Except as provided in sections 3314.021 and 3314.027 52174
of the Revised Code, no entity listed in division (C)(1) of 52175
section 3314.02 of the Revised Code shall enter into a preliminary 52176
agreement under division (C)(2) of section 3314.02 of the Revised 52177
Code until it has received approval from the department of 52178
education to sponsor community schools under this chapter and has 52179
entered into a written agreement with the department regarding the 52180
manner in which the entity will conduct such sponsorship. The52181

       The initial term of a sponsor's agreement with the department 52182
shall be for up to seven years. For every year that the sponsor 52183
satisfies the conditions of division (B)(1)(a) or (b) of this 52184
section, as applicable, the department shall add one year to the 52185
agreement term, subject to divisions (C) and (F) of this section, 52186
unless the sponsor notifies the department that it does not wish 52187
to have the term of the agreement so extended.52188

       To qualify for the extension of the term of the sponsor's 52189
agreement, the sponsor shall satisfy one of the following, as 52190
applicable:52191

       (a) Prior to January 1, 2015, the sponsor is not in the 52192
lowest twenty per cent of sponsors statewide according to the 52193
composite performance index score as ranked under section 3314.016 52194
of the Revised Code, as that section exists prior to that date, 52195
and the sponsor continues to meet all the requirements of this 52196
chapter pertaining to community school sponsors.52197

       (b) On or after January 1, 2015, the sponsor is rated as 52198
"exemplary" or "effective" under section 3314.016 of the Revised 52199
Code, as that section exists on and after that date, and the 52200
sponsor continues to meet all the requirements of this chapter 52201
pertaining to community school sponsors.52202

       The department shall adopt in accordance with Chapter 119. of 52203
the Revised Code rules containing criteria, procedures, and 52204
deadlines for processing applications for such approval of 52205
sponsors, for oversight of sponsors, for notifying a sponsor of 52206
noncompliance with applicable laws and administrative rules under 52207
division (F) of this section, for revocation of the approval of 52208
sponsors under division (C) of this section, and for entering 52209
into written agreements with sponsors. The rules shall require an 52210
entity to submit evidence of the entity's ability and willingness 52211
to comply with the provisions of division (D) of section 3314.03 52212
of the Revised Code. The rules also shall require entities 52213
approved as sponsors on and after June 30, 2005, to demonstrate a 52214
record of financial responsibility and successful implementation 52215
of educational programs. If an entity seeking approval on or after 52216
June 30, 2005, to sponsor community schools in this state sponsors 52217
or operates schools in another state, at least one of the schools 52218
sponsored or operated by the entity must be comparable to or 52219
better than the performance of Ohio schools in need of continuous 52220
improvement under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code, as 52221
determined by the department.52222

        Subject to section 3314.016 of the Revised Code, an entity 52223
that sponsors community schools may enter into preliminary 52224
agreements and sponsor up to one hundred schools, provided each 52225
school and the contract for sponsorship meets the requirements of 52226
this chapter.52227

       (2) The state board of education shall determine, pursuant to 52228
criteria specified in rules adopted in accordance with Chapter 52229
119. of the Revised Code, whether the mission proposed to be 52230
specified in the contract of a community school to be sponsored by 52231
a state university board of trustees or the board's designee under 52232
division (C)(1)(e) of section 3314.02 of the Revised Code complies 52233
with the requirements of that division. Such determination of the 52234
state board is final.52235

       (3) The state board of education shall determine, pursuant to 52236
criteria specified in rules adopted in accordance with Chapter 52237
119. of the Revised Code, if any tax-exempt entity under section 52238
501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code that is proposed to be a 52239
sponsor of a community school is an education-oriented entity for 52240
purpose of satisfying the condition prescribed in division 52241
(C)(1)(f)(iii) of section 3314.02 of the Revised Code. Such 52242
determination of the state board is final.52243

       (C) If at any time the state board of education finds that a 52244
sponsor is not in compliance or is no longer willing to comply 52245
with its contract with any community school or with the 52246
department's rules for sponsorship, the state board or designee 52247
shall conduct a hearing in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 52248
Revised Code on that matter. If after the hearing, the state board 52249
or designee has confirmed the original finding, the department of 52250
education may revoke the sponsor's approval to sponsor community 52251
schools. In that case, the department's office of Ohio school 52252
sponsorship, established under section 3314.029 of the Revised 52253
Code, may assume the sponsorship of any schools with which the 52254
sponsor has contracted until the earlier of the expiration of two 52255
school years or until a new sponsor as described in division 52256
(C)(1) of section 3314.02 of the Revised Code is secured by the 52257
school's governing authority. The office of Ohio school 52258
sponsorship may extend the term of the contract in the case of a 52259
school for which it has assumed sponsorship under this division as 52260
necessary to accommodate the term of the department's 52261
authorization to sponsor the school specified in this division. 52262
Community schools sponsored under this division shall not apply to 52263
the limit on directly authorized community schools under division 52264
(A)(3) of section 3314.029 of the Revised Code. However, nothing 52265
in this division shall preclude a community school affected by 52266
this division from applying for sponsorship under that section.52267

       (D) The decision of the department to disapprove an entity 52268
for sponsorship of a community school or to revoke approval for 52269
such sponsorship under division (C) of this section, may be 52270
appealed by the entity in accordance with section 119.12 of the 52271
Revised Code.52272

       (E) The department shall adopt procedures for use by a 52273
community school governing authority and sponsor when the school 52274
permanently closes and ceases operation, which shall include at 52275
least procedures for data reporting to the department, handling of 52276
student records, distribution of assets in accordance with section 52277
3314.074 of the Revised Code, and other matters related to ceasing 52278
operation of the school.52279

       (F)(1) In lieu of revoking a sponsor's authority to sponsor 52280
community schools under division (C) of this section, if the 52281
department finds that a sponsor is not in compliance with 52282
applicable laws and administrative rules, the department shall 52283
declare in a written notice to the sponsor the specific laws or 52284
rules, or both, for which the sponsor is noncompliant. A sponsor 52285
notified under division (F)(1) of this section shall respond to 52286
the department not later than fourteen days after the notification 52287
with a proposed plan to remedy the conditions for which the 52288
sponsor was found to be noncompliant. The department shall approve 52289
or disapprove the plan not later than fourteen days after 52290
receiving it. If the plan is disapproved, the sponsor may submit a 52291
revised plan to the department not later than fourteen days after 52292
receiving notification of disapproval from the department or not 52293
later than sixty days after the date the sponsor received 52294
notification of noncompliance from the department, whichever is 52295
earlier. The department shall approve or disapprove the revised 52296
plan not later than fourteen days after receiving it or not later 52297
than sixty days after the date the sponsor received notification 52298
of noncompliance from the department, whichever is earlier. A 52299
sponsor may continue to make revisions by the deadlines prescribed 52300
in division (F)(1) of this section to any revised plan that is 52301
disapproved by the department until the sixtieth day after the 52302
date the sponsor received notification of noncompliance from the 52303
department.52304

        If a plan or a revised plan is approved, the sponsor shall 52305
implement it not later than sixty days after the date the sponsor 52306
received notification of noncompliance from the department or not 52307
later than thirty days after the plan is approved, whichever is 52308
later. If a sponsor does not respond to the department or 52309
implement an approved compliance plan by the deadlines prescribed 52310
by division (F)(1) of this section, or if a sponsor does not 52311
receive approval of a compliance plan on or before the sixtieth 52312
day after the date the sponsor received notification of 52313
noncompliance from the department, the department shall declare in 52314
written notice to the sponsor that the sponsor is in probationary 52315
status, and may limit the sponsor's ability to sponsor additional 52316
schools.52317

        (2) A sponsor that has been placed on probationary status 52318
under division (F)(1) of this section may apply to the department 52319
for its probationary status to be lifted. The application for a 52320
sponsor's probationary status to be lifted shall include evidence, 52321
occurring after the initial notification of noncompliance, of the 52322
sponsor's compliance with applicable laws and administrative 52323
rules. Not later than fourteen days after receiving an application 52324
from the sponsor, the department shall decide whether or not to 52325
remove the sponsor's probationary status.52326

       (G) In carrying out its duties under this chapter, the 52327
department shall not impose requirements on community schools or 52328
their sponsors that are not permitted by law or duly adopted 52329
rules.52330

       (H) This section applies to entities that sponsor conversion 52331
community schools and new start-up schools.52332

       Sec. 3314.017.  (A) The state board of education shall 52333
prescribe by rules, adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 52334
Revised Code, an academic performance rating and report card 52335
system that satisfies the requirements of this section for 52336
community schools that primarily serve students enrolled in 52337
dropout prevention and recovery programs as described in division 52338
(A)(4)(a) of section 3314.35 of the Revised Code, to be used in 52339
lieu of the system prescribed under sections 3302.03 and 3314.012 52340
of the Revised Code beginning with the 2012-2013 school year. Each 52341
such school shall comply with the testing and reporting 52342
requirements of the system as prescribed by the state board.52343

       (B) Nothing in this section shall at any time relieve a 52344
school from its obligations under the "No Child Left Behind Act of 52345
2001" to make "adequate yearly progress," as both that act and 52346
that term are defined in section 3302.01 of the Revised Code, or a 52347
school's amenability to the provisions of section 3302.04 or 52348
3302.041 of the Revised Code. The department shall continue to 52349
report each school's performance as required by the act and to 52350
enforce applicable sanctions under section 3302.04 or 3302.041 of 52351
the Revised Code. 52352

       (C) The rules adopted by the state board shall prescribe the 52353
following performance indicators for the rating and report card 52354
system required by this section:52355

       (1) Graduation rate for each of the following student 52356
cohorts:52357

       (a) The number of students who graduate in four years or less 52358
with a regular high school diploma divided by the number of 52359
students who form the adjusted cohort for the graduating class;52360

       (b) The number of students who graduate in five years with a 52361
regular high school diploma divided by the number of students who 52362
form the adjusted cohort for the four-year graduation rate;52363

       (c) The number of students who graduate in six years with a 52364
regular high school diploma divided by the number of students who 52365
form the adjusted cohort for the four-year graduation rate;52366

       (d) The number of students who graduate in seven years with a 52367
regular high school diploma divided by the number of students who 52368
form the adjusted cohort for the four-year graduation rate;52369

       (e) The number of students who graduate in eight years with a 52370
regular high school diploma divided by the number of students who 52371
form the adjusted cohort for the four-year graduation rate.52372

       (2) The percentage of twelfth-grade students currently 52373
enrolled in the school who have attained the designated passing 52374
score on all of the applicable state high school achievement 52375
assessments required under division (B)(1) or (2) of section 52376
3301.0710 of the Revised Code and other students enrolled in the 52377
school, regardless of grade level, who are within three months of 52378
their twenty-second birthday and have attained the designated 52379
passing score on all of the applicable state high school 52380
achievement assessments by their twenty-second birthday;52381

       (3) Annual measurable objectives as defined in section 52382
3302.01 of the Revised Code;52383

        (4) Growth in student achievement in reading, or mathematics, 52384
or both as measured by separate nationally norm-referenced 52385
assessments that have developed appropriate standards for students 52386
enrolled in dropout prevention and recovery programs, adopted or 52387
approved by the state board.52388

       (D)(1) The state board's rules shall prescribe the expected 52389
performance levels and benchmarks for each of the indicators 52390
prescribed by division (C) of this section based on the data 52391
gathered by the department under division (F) of this section. 52392
Based on a school's level of attainment or nonattainment of the 52393
expected performance levels and benchmarks for each of the 52394
indicators, the department shall rate each school in one of the 52395
following categories:52396

       (a) Exceeds standards;52397

       (b) Meets standards;52398

       (c) Does not meet standards.52399

       (2) The state board's rules shall establish all of the 52400
following:52401

       (a) Not later than June 30, 2013, performance levels and 52402
benchmarks for the indicators described in divisions (C)(1) to (3) 52403
of this section;52404

       (b) Not later than December 31, 2014, both of the following:52405

       (i) Performance levels and benchmarks for the indicator 52406
described in division (C)(4) of this section;52407

       (ii) Standards for awarding a community school described in 52408
division (A)(4)(a) of section 3314.35 of the Revised Code an 52409
overall designation, which shall be calculated as follows:52410

       (I) Thirty per cent of the score shall be based on the 52411
indicators described in division (C)(1) of this section that are 52412
applicable to the school year for which the overall designation is 52413
granted.52414

       (II) Thirty per cent of the score shall be based on the 52415
indicators described in division (C)(4) of this section.52416

       (III) Twenty per cent of the score shall be based on the 52417
indicators described in division (C)(2) of this section.52418

       (IV) Twenty per cent of the score shall be based on the 52419
indicators described in division (C)(3) of this section.52420

       (3) If both of the indicators described in divisions (C)(1) 52421
and (2) of this section improve by ten per cent for two 52422
consecutive years, a school shall be rated asnot less than "meets 52423
standards."52424

       The rating and the relevant performance data for each school 52425
shall be posted on the department's web site, and a copy of the 52426
rating and data shall be provided to the governing authority of 52427
the community school. 52428

       (E)(1) For the 2012-2013 school year, the department shall 52429
issue a report card including the following performance measures, 52430
but without a performance rating as described in divisions 52431
(D)(1)(a) to (c) of this section, for each community school 52432
described in division (A)(4)(a) of section 3314.35 of the Revised 52433
Code:52434

       (a) The graduation rates as described in divisions (C)(1)(a) 52435
to (c) of this section;52436

       (b) The percentage of twelfth-grade students and other 52437
students who have attained a designated passing score on high 52438
school achievement assessments as described in division (C)(2) of 52439
this section;52440

       (c) The statewide average for the graduation rates and 52441
assessment passage rates described in divisions (C)(1)(a) to (c) 52442
and (C)(2) of this section;52443

        (d) Annual measurable objectives described in division (C)(3) 52444
of this section.52445

       (2) For the 2013-2014 school year, the department shall issue 52446
a report card including the following performance measures for 52447
each community school described in division (A)(4) of section 52448
3314.35 of the Revised Code:52449

       (a) The graduation rates described in divisions (C)(1)(a) to 52450
(d) of this section, including a performance rating as described 52451
in divisions (D)(1)(a) to (c) of this section;52452

       (b) The percentage of twelfth-grade students and other 52453
students who have attained a designated passing score on high 52454
school achievement assessments as described in division (C)(2) of 52455
this section, including a performance rating as described in 52456
divisions (D)(1)(a) to (c) of this section;52457

       (c) Annual measurable objectives described in division (C)(3) 52458
of this section, including a performance rating as described in 52459
divisions (D)(1)(a) to (c) of this section;52460

        (d) Both of the following without an assigned rating:52461

        (i) Growth in annual student achievement in reading and 52462
mathematics described in division (C)(4) of this section, if 52463
available;52464

       (ii) Student outcome data, including postsecondary credit 52465
earned, nationally recognized career or technical certification, 52466
military enlistment, job placement, and attendance rate. 52467

       (3) Beginning with the 2014-2015 school year, and annually 52468
thereafter, the department shall issue a report card for each 52469
community school described in division (A)(4)(a) of section 52470
3314.35 of the Revised Code that includes all of the following 52471
performance measures, including a performance rating for each 52472
measure as described in divisions (D)(1)(a) to (c) of this 52473
section:52474

       (a) The graduation rates as described in division (C)(1) of 52475
this section;52476

       (b) The percentage of twelfth-grade students and other 52477
students who have attained a designated passing score on high 52478
school achievement assessments as described in division (C)(2) of 52479
this section;52480

       (c) Annual measurable objectives described in division (C)(3) 52481
of this section, including a performance rating as described in 52482
divisions (D)(1)(a) to (c) of this section;52483

        (d) Growth in annual student achievement in reading and 52484
mathematics as described in division (C)(4) of this section;52485

       (e) An overall performance designation for the school 52486
calculated under rules adopted under division (D)(2) of this 52487
section.52488

       The department shall also include student outcome data, 52489
including postsecondary credit earned, nationally recognized 52490
career or technical certification, military enlistment, job 52491
placement, attendance rate, and progress on closing achievement 52492
gaps for each school. This information shall not be included in 52493
the calculation of a school's performance rating.52494

        (F) In developing the rating and report card system required 52495
by this section, during the 2012-2013 and 2013-2014 school years, 52496
the department shall gather and analyze data as determined 52497
necessary from each community school described in division 52498
(A)(4)(a) of section 3314.35 of the Revised Code. Each such school 52499
shall cooperate with the department by supplying requested data 52500
and administering required assessments, including sample 52501
assessments for purposes of measuring student achievement growth 52502
as described in division (C)(4) of this section. The department 52503
shall consult with stakeholder groups in performing its duties 52504
under this division.52505

       The department shall also identify one or more states that 52506
have established or are in the process of establishing similar 52507
academic performance rating systems for dropout prevention and 52508
recovery programs and consult with the departments of education of 52509
those states in developing the system required by this section.52510

       (G) Not later than December 31, 2014, the state board shall 52511
review the performance levels and benchmarks for performance 52512
indicators in the report card issued under this section and may 52513
revise them based on the data collected under division (F) of this 52514
section.52515

       Sec. 3314.027. Notwithstanding the requirement for initial 52516
approval of sponsorship by the department of education prescribed 52517
in divisions (A)(2) and (B)(1) of section 3314.015 of the Revised 52518
Code and any geographical restriction or mission requirement 52519
prescribed in division (C)(1) of section 3314.02 of the Revised 52520
Code, an entity that has entered into a contract to sponsor a 52521
community school on April 8, 2003, may continue to sponsor the 52522
school in conformance with the terms of that contract as long as 52523
the entity complies with all other sponsorship provisions of this 52524
chapter. Such an entityand also may enter into new contracts to 52525
sponsor community schools after April 8, 2003, and need not be 52526
approved by the department for such sponsorship, as otherwise 52527
required under divisions (A)(2) and (B)(1) of section 3314.015 of 52528
the Revised Code, as long as the contracts conform to and the 52529
entity complies with all other provisions of this chapter.52530

       Regardless of the entity's authority to sponsor community 52531
schools without the initial approval of the department, each 52532
entity described in this section is under the continuing oversight 52533
of the department in accordance with rules adopted under section 52534
3314.015 of the Revised Code.52535

       Sec. 3314.029. This section establishes the Ohio school 52536
sponsorship program. The department of education shall establish 52537
an office of Ohio school sponsorship to perform the department's 52538
duties prescribed by this section.52539

        (A)(1) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this 52540
chapter, but subject to section 3314.20 of the Revised Code, any 52541
person, group of individuals, or entity may apply to the 52542
department for direct authorization to establish a community 52543
school and, upon approval of the application, may establish the 52544
school. Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this chapter, 52545
the governing authority of an existing community school, upon the 52546
expiration or termination of its contract with the school's 52547
sponsor entered into under section 3314.03 of the Revised Code, 52548
may apply to the department for direct authorization to continue 52549
operating the school and, upon approval of the application, may 52550
continue to operate the school.52551

        Each application submitted to the department shall include 52552
the following:52553

       (a) Evidence that the applicant will be able to comply with 52554
division (C) of this section;52555

       (b) A statement indicating that the applicant agrees to 52556
comply with all applicable provisions of this chapter, including 52557
the requirement to be established as a nonprofit corporation or 52558
public benefit corporation in accordance with division (A)(1) of 52559
section 3314.03 of the Revised Code;52560

       (c) A statement attesting that no unresolved finding of 52561
recovery has been issued by the auditor of state against any 52562
person, group of individuals, or entity that is a party to the 52563
application and that no person who is party to the application has 52564
been a member of the governing authority of any community school 52565
that has permanently closed and against which an unresolved 52566
finding of recovery has been issued by the auditor of state. In 52567
the case of an application submitted by the governing authority of 52568
an existing community school, a person who is party to the 52569
application shall include each individual member of that governing 52570
authority.52571

       (d) A statement that the school will be nonsectarian in its 52572
programs, admission policies, employment practices, and all other 52573
operations, and will not be operated by a sectarian school or 52574
religious institution;52575

       (e) A statement of whether the school is to be created by 52576
converting all or part of an existing public school or educational 52577
service center building or is to be a new start-up school. If it 52578
is a converted public school or service center building, the 52579
statement shall include a specification of any duties or 52580
responsibilities of an employer that the board of education or 52581
service center governing board that operated the school or 52582
building before conversion is delegating to the governing 52583
authority of the community school with respect to all or any 52584
specified group of employees, provided the delegation is not 52585
prohibited by a collective bargaining agreement applicable to such 52586
employees.52587

       (f) A statement that the school's teachers will be licensed 52588
in the manner prescribed by division (A)(10) of section 3314.03 of 52589
the Revised Code;52590

       (g) A statement that the school will comply with all of the 52591
provisions of law enumerated in divisions (A)(11)(d) and (e) of 52592
section 3314.03 of the Revised Code and of division (A)(11)(h) of 52593
that section, if applicable;52594

       (h) A statement that the school's graduation and curriculum 52595
requirements will comply with division (A)(11)(f) of section 52596
3314.03 of the Revised Code;52597

       (i) A description of each of the following:52598

       (i) The school's mission and educational program, the 52599
characteristics of the students the school is expected to attract, 52600
the ages and grade levels of students, and the focus of the 52601
curriculum;52602

       (ii) The school's governing authority, which shall be in 52603
compliance with division (E) of section 3314.02 of the Revised 52604
Code;52605

       (iii) The school's admission and dismissal policies, which 52606
shall be in compliance with divisions (A)(5) and (6) of section 52607
3314.03 of the Revised Code;52608

       (iv) The school's business plan, including a five-year 52609
financial forecast;52610

       (v) In the case of an application to establish a community 52611
school, the applicant's resources and capacity to establish and 52612
operate the school;52613

       (vi) The school's academic goals to be achieved and the 52614
method of measurement that will be used to determine progress 52615
toward those goals, which shall include the statewide achievement 52616
assessments;52617

       (vii) The facilities to be used by the school and their 52618
locations;52619

       (viii) A description of the learning opportunities that will 52620
be offered to students including both classroom-based and 52621
nonclassroom-based learning opportunities that are in compliance 52622
with criteria for student participation established by the 52623
department under division (L)(H)(2) of section 3314.08 of the 52624
Revised Code.52625

       (2) Subject to division (A)(3) of this section, the 52626
department shall approve each application, unless, within thirty 52627
days after receipt of the application, the department determines 52628
that the application does not satisfy the requirements of division 52629
(A)(1) of this section and provides the applicant a written 52630
explanation of the reasons for the determination. In that case, 52631
the department shall grant the applicant thirty days to correct 52632
the insufficiencies in the application. If the department 52633
determines that the insufficiencies have been corrected, it shall 52634
approve the application. If the department determines that the 52635
insufficiencies have not been corrected, it shall deny the 52636
application and provide the applicant with a written explanation 52637
of the reasons for the denial. The denial of an application may be 52638
appealed in accordance with section 119.12 of the Revised Code.52639

       (3) For each of five school years, beginning with the school 52640
year that begins in the calendar year in which this section takes 52641
effect, the department may approve up to twenty applications for 52642
community schools to be established or to continue operation under 52643
division (A) of this section; however, of the twenty applications 52644
that may be approved each school year, only up to five may be for 52645
the establishment of new schools.52646

       (4) Notwithstanding division (A)(2) of this section, the 52647
department may deny an application submitted by the governing 52648
authority of an existing community school, if a previous sponsor 52649
of that school did not renew its contract or terminated its 52650
contract with the school entered into under section 3314.03 of the 52651
Revised Code.52652

       (B) The department and the governing authority of each 52653
community school authorized under this section shall enter into a 52654
contract under section 3314.03 of the Revised Code. 52655
Notwithstanding division (A)(13) of that section, the contract 52656
with an existing community school may begin at any time during the 52657
academic year. The length of the initial contract of any community 52658
school under this section may be for any term up to five years. 52659
The contract may be renewed in accordance with division (E) of 52660
that section. The contract may provide for the school's governing 52661
authority to pay a fee for oversight and monitoring of the school 52662
that does not exceed three per cent of the total amount of 52663
payments for operating expenses that the school receives from the 52664
state.52665

       (C) The department may require a community school authorized 52666
under this section to post and file with the superintendent of 52667
public instruction a bond payable to the state or to file with the 52668
state superintendent a guarantee, which shall be used to pay the 52669
state any moneys owed by the community school in the event the 52670
school closes.52671

       (D) Except as otherwise provided in this section, a community 52672
school authorized under this section shall comply with all 52673
applicable provisions of this chapter. The department may take any 52674
action that a sponsor may take under this chapter to enforce the 52675
school's compliance with this division and the terms of the 52676
contract entered into under division (B) of this section.52677

       (E) Not later than December 31, 2012, and annually 52678
thereafter, the department shall issue a report on the program, 52679
including information about the number of community schools 52680
participating in the program and their compliance with the 52681
provisions of this chapter. In its fifth report, the department 52682
shall include a complete evaluation of the program and 52683
recommendations regarding the program's continuation. Each report 52684
shall be provided to the general assembly, in accordance with 52685
section 101.68 of the Revised Code, and to the governor.52686

       Sec. 3314.03.  A copy of every contract entered into under 52687
this section shall be filed with the superintendent of public 52688
instruction. The department of education shall make available on 52689
its web site a copy of every approved, executed contract filed 52690
with the superintendent under this section.52691

       (A) Each contract entered into between a sponsor and the 52692
governing authority of a community school shall specify the 52693
following:52694

       (1) That the school shall be established as either of the 52695
following:52696

       (a) A nonprofit corporation established under Chapter 1702. 52697
of the Revised Code, if established prior to April 8, 2003;52698

       (b) A public benefit corporation established under Chapter 52699
1702. of the Revised Code, if established after April 8, 2003.52700

       (2) The education program of the school, including the 52701
school's mission, the characteristics of the students the school 52702
is expected to attract, the ages and grades of students, and the 52703
focus of the curriculum;52704

       (3) The academic goals to be achieved and the method of 52705
measurement that will be used to determine progress toward those 52706
goals, which shall include the statewide achievement assessments;52707

       (4) Performance standards by which the success of the school 52708
will be evaluated by the sponsor;52709

       (5) The admission standards of section 3314.06 of the Revised 52710
Code and, if applicable, section 3314.061 of the Revised Code;52711

       (6)(a) Dismissal procedures;52712

       (b) A requirement that the governing authority adopt an 52713
attendance policy that includes a procedure for automatically 52714
withdrawing a student from the school if the student without a 52715
legitimate excuse fails to participate in one hundred five 52716
consecutive hours of the learning opportunities offered to the 52717
student.52718

       (7) The ways by which the school will achieve racial and 52719
ethnic balance reflective of the community it serves;52720

       (8) Requirements for financial audits by the auditor of 52721
state. The contract shall require financial records of the school 52722
to be maintained in the same manner as are financial records of 52723
school districts, pursuant to rules of the auditor of state. 52724
Audits shall be conducted in accordance with section 117.10 of the 52725
Revised Code.52726

       (9) The facilities to be used and their locations;52727

       (10) Qualifications of teachers, including the following:52728

       (a) A requirement that the school's classroom teachers be 52729
licensed in accordance with sections 3319.22 to 3319.31 of the 52730
Revised Code, except that a community school may engage 52731
noncertificated persons to teach up to twelve hours per week 52732
pursuant to section 3319.301 of the Revised Code;52733

       (b) A requirement that each classroom teacher initially hired 52734
by the school on or after July 1, 2013, and employed to provide 52735
instruction in physical education hold a valid license issued 52736
pursuant to section 3319.22 of the Revised Code for teaching 52737
physical education.52738

       (11) That the school will comply with the following 52739
requirements:52740

       (a) The school will provide learning opportunities to a 52741
minimum of twenty-five students for a minimum of nine hundred 52742
twenty hours per school year.52743

       (b) The governing authority will purchase liability 52744
insurance, or otherwise provide for the potential liability of the 52745
school.52746

       (c) The school will be nonsectarian in its programs, 52747
admission policies, employment practices, and all other 52748
operations, and will not be operated by a sectarian school or 52749
religious institution.52750

       (d) The school will comply with sections 9.90, 9.91, 109.65, 52751
121.22, 149.43, 2151.357, 2151.421, 2313.19, 3301.0710, 3301.0711, 52752
3301.0712, 3301.0715, 3313.472, 3313.50, 3313.536, 3313.539, 52753
3313.608, 3313.609, 3313.6012, 3313.6013, 3313.6014, 3313.6015, 52754
3313.643, 3313.648, 3313.6411, 3313.66, 3313.661, 3313.662, 52755
3313.666, 3313.667, 3313.67, 3313.671, 3313.672, 3313.673, 52756
3313.69, 3313.71, 3313.716, 3313.718, 3313.719, 3313.80, 3313.814, 52757
3313.816, 3313.817, 3313.86, 3313.96, 3319.073, 3319.321, 3319.39, 52758
3319.391, 3319.41, 3321.01, 3321.041, 3321.13, 3321.14, 3321.17, 52759
3321.18, 3321.19, 3321.191, 3327.10, 4111.17, 4113.52, and 52760
5705.391 and Chapters 117., 1347., 2744., 3365., 3742., 4112., 52761
4123., 4141., and 4167. of the Revised Code as if it were a school 52762
district and will comply with section 3301.0714 of the Revised 52763
Code in the manner specified in section 3314.17 of the Revised 52764
Code.52765

       (e) The school shall comply with Chapter 102. and section 52766
2921.42 of the Revised Code.52767

       (f) The school will comply with sections 3313.61, 3313.611, 52768
and 3313.614 of the Revised Code, except that for students who 52769
enter ninth grade for the first time before July 1, 2010, the 52770
requirement in sections 3313.61 and 3313.611 of the Revised Code 52771
that a person must successfully complete the curriculum in any 52772
high school prior to receiving a high school diploma may be met by 52773
completing the curriculum adopted by the governing authority of 52774
the community school rather than the curriculum specified in Title 52775
XXXIII of the Revised Code or any rules of the state board of 52776
education. Beginning with students who enter ninth grade for the 52777
first time on or after July 1, 2010, the requirement in sections 52778
3313.61 and 3313.611 of the Revised Code that a person must 52779
successfully complete the curriculum of a high school prior to 52780
receiving a high school diploma shall be met by completing the 52781
Ohio core curriculum prescribed in division (C) of section 52782
3313.603 of the Revised Code, unless the person qualifies under 52783
division (D) or (F) of that section. Each school shall comply with 52784
the plan for awarding high school credit based on demonstration of 52785
subject area competency, adopted by the state board of education 52786
under division (J) of section 3313.603 of the Revised Code.52787

       (g) The school governing authority will submit within four 52788
months after the end of each school year a report of its 52789
activities and progress in meeting the goals and standards of 52790
divisions (A)(3) and (4) of this section and its financial status 52791
to the sponsor and the parents of all students enrolled in the 52792
school.52793

       (h) The school, unless it is an internet- or computer-based 52794
community school, will comply with section 3313.801 of the Revised 52795
Code as if it were a school district.52796

       (i) If the school is the recipient of moneys from a grant 52797
awarded under the federal race to the top program, Division (A), 52798
Title XIV, Sections 14005 and 14006 of the "American Recovery and 52799
Reinvestment Act of 2009," Pub. L. No. 111-5, 123 Stat. 115, the 52800
school will pay teachers based upon performance in accordance with 52801
section 3317.141 and will comply with section 3319.111 of the 52802
Revised Code as if it were a school district.52803

       (12) Arrangements for providing health and other benefits to 52804
employees;52805

       (13) The length of the contract, which shall begin at the 52806
beginning of an academic year. No contract shall exceed five years 52807
unless such contract has been renewed pursuant to division (E) of 52808
this section.52809

       (14) The governing authority of the school, which shall be 52810
responsible for carrying out the provisions of the contract;52811

       (15) A financial plan detailing an estimated school budget 52812
for each year of the period of the contract and specifying the 52813
total estimated per pupil expenditure amount for each such year. 52814
The plan shall specify for each year the base formula amount that 52815
will be used for purposes of funding calculations under section 52816
3314.08 of the Revised Code. This base formula amount for any year 52817
shall not exceed the formula amount defined under section 3317.02 52818
of the Revised Code. The plan may also specify for any year a 52819
percentage figure to be used for reducing the per pupil amount of 52820
the subsidy calculated pursuant to section 3317.029 of the Revised 52821
Code the school is to receive that year under section 3314.08 of 52822
the Revised Code. 52823

       (16) Requirements and procedures regarding the disposition of 52824
employees of the school in the event the contract is terminated or 52825
not renewed pursuant to section 3314.07 of the Revised Code;52826

       (17) Whether the school is to be created by converting all or 52827
part of an existing public school or educational service center 52828
building or is to be a new start-up school, and if it is a 52829
converted public school or service center building, specification 52830
of any duties or responsibilities of an employer that the board of 52831
education or service center governing board that operated the 52832
school or building before conversion is delegating to the 52833
governing authority of the community school with respect to all or 52834
any specified group of employees provided the delegation is not 52835
prohibited by a collective bargaining agreement applicable to such 52836
employees;52837

       (18) Provisions establishing procedures for resolving 52838
disputes or differences of opinion between the sponsor and the 52839
governing authority of the community school;52840

       (19) A provision requiring the governing authority to adopt a 52841
policy regarding the admission of students who reside outside the 52842
district in which the school is located. That policy shall comply 52843
with the admissions procedures specified in sections 3314.06 and 52844
3314.061 of the Revised Code and, at the sole discretion of the 52845
authority, shall do one of the following:52846

       (a) Prohibit the enrollment of students who reside outside 52847
the district in which the school is located;52848

       (b) Permit the enrollment of students who reside in districts 52849
adjacent to the district in which the school is located;52850

       (c) Permit the enrollment of students who reside in any other 52851
district in the state.52852

       (20) A provision recognizing the authority of the department 52853
of education to take over the sponsorship of the school in 52854
accordance with the provisions of division (C) of section 3314.015 52855
of the Revised Code;52856

       (21) A provision recognizing the sponsor's authority to 52857
assume the operation of a school under the conditions specified in 52858
division (B) of section 3314.073 of the Revised Code;52859

        (22) A provision recognizing both of the following:52860

       (a) The authority of public health and safety officials to 52861
inspect the facilities of the school and to order the facilities 52862
closed if those officials find that the facilities are not in 52863
compliance with health and safety laws and regulations;52864

       (b) The authority of the department of education as the 52865
community school oversight body to suspend the operation of the 52866
school under section 3314.072 of the Revised Code if the 52867
department has evidence of conditions or violations of law at the 52868
school that pose an imminent danger to the health and safety of 52869
the school's students and employees and the sponsor refuses to 52870
take such action.52871

        (23) A description of the learning opportunities that will be 52872
offered to students including both classroom-based and 52873
non-classroom-based learning opportunities that is in compliance 52874
with criteria for student participation established by the 52875
department under division (L)(H)(2) of section 3314.08 of the 52876
Revised Code;52877

       (24) The school will comply with sections 3302.04 and 52878
3302.041 of the Revised Code, except that any action required to 52879
be taken by a school district pursuant to those sections shall be 52880
taken by the sponsor of the school. However, the sponsor shall not 52881
be required to take any action described in division (F) of 52882
section 3302.04 of the Revised Code.52883

       (25) Beginning in the 2006-2007 school year, the school will 52884
open for operation not later than the thirtieth day of September 52885
each school year, unless the mission of the school as specified 52886
under division (A)(2) of this section is solely to serve dropouts. 52887
In its initial year of operation, if the school fails to open by 52888
the thirtieth day of September, or within one year after the 52889
adoption of the contract pursuant to division (D) of section 52890
3314.02 of the Revised Code if the mission of the school is solely 52891
to serve dropouts, the contract shall be void.52892

       (B) The community school shall also submit to the sponsor a 52893
comprehensive plan for the school. The plan shall specify the 52894
following:52895

       (1) The process by which the governing authority of the 52896
school will be selected in the future;52897

       (2) The management and administration of the school;52898

       (3) If the community school is a currently existing public 52899
school or educational service center building, alternative 52900
arrangements for current public school students who choose not to 52901
attend the converted school and for teachers who choose not to 52902
teach in the school or building after conversion;52903

       (4) The instructional program and educational philosophy of 52904
the school;52905

       (5) Internal financial controls.52906

       (C) A contract entered into under section 3314.02 of the 52907
Revised Code between a sponsor and the governing authority of a 52908
community school may provide for the community school governing 52909
authority to make payments to the sponsor, which is hereby 52910
authorized to receive such payments as set forth in the contract 52911
between the governing authority and the sponsor. The total amount 52912
of such payments for oversight and monitoring of the school shall 52913
not exceed three per cent of the total amount of payments for 52914
operating expenses that the school receives from the state.52915

       (D) The contract shall specify the duties of the sponsor 52916
which shall be in accordance with the written agreement entered 52917
into with the department of education under division (B) of 52918
section 3314.015 of the Revised Code and shall include the 52919
following:52920

        (1) Monitor the community school's compliance with all laws 52921
applicable to the school and with the terms of the contract;52922

        (2) Monitor and evaluate the academic and fiscal performance 52923
and the organization and operation of the community school on at 52924
least an annual basis;52925

        (3) Report on an annual basis the results of the evaluation 52926
conducted under division (D)(2) of this section to the department 52927
of education and to the parents of students enrolled in the 52928
community school;52929

        (4) Provide technical assistance to the community school in 52930
complying with laws applicable to the school and terms of the 52931
contract;52932

        (5) Take steps to intervene in the school's operation to 52933
correct problems in the school's overall performance, declare the 52934
school to be on probationary status pursuant to section 3314.073 52935
of the Revised Code, suspend the operation of the school pursuant 52936
to section 3314.072 of the Revised Code, or terminate the contract 52937
of the school pursuant to section 3314.07 of the Revised Code as 52938
determined necessary by the sponsor;52939

        (6) Have in place a plan of action to be undertaken in the 52940
event the community school experiences financial difficulties or 52941
closes prior to the end of a school year.52942

        (E) Upon the expiration of a contract entered into under this 52943
section, the sponsor of a community school may, with the approval 52944
of the governing authority of the school, renew that contract for 52945
a period of time determined by the sponsor, but not ending earlier 52946
than the end of any school year, if the sponsor finds that the 52947
school's compliance with applicable laws and terms of the contract 52948
and the school's progress in meeting the academic goals prescribed 52949
in the contract have been satisfactory. Any contract that is 52950
renewed under this division remains subject to the provisions of 52951
sections 3314.07, 3314.072, and 3314.073 of the Revised Code.52952

       (F) If a community school fails to open for operation within 52953
one year after the contract entered into under this section is 52954
adopted pursuant to division (D) of section 3314.02 of the Revised 52955
Code or permanently closes prior to the expiration of the 52956
contract, the contract shall be void and the school shall not 52957
enter into a contract with any other sponsor. A school shall not 52958
be considered permanently closed because the operations of the 52959
school have been suspended pursuant to section 3314.072 of the 52960
Revised Code. 52961

       Sec. 3314.042.  The governing authority of each community 52962
school shall comply with the standards for financial reporting 52963
adopted under division (B)(2) of section 3301.07 of the Revised 52964
Code.52965

       Sec. 3314.05.  (A) The contract between the community school 52966
and the sponsor shall specify the facilities to be used for the 52967
community school and the method of acquisition. Except as provided 52968
in divisions (B)(3) and (4) of this section, no community school 52969
shall be established in more than one school district under the 52970
same contract.52971

        (B) Division (B) of this section shall not apply to internet- 52972
or computer-based community schools.52973

       (1) A community school may be located in multiple facilities 52974
under the same contract only if the limitations on availability of 52975
space prohibit serving all the grade levels specified in the 52976
contract in a single facility or division (B)(2), (3), or (4) of 52977
this section applies to the school. The school shall not offer the 52978
same grade level classrooms in more than one facility.52979

       (2) A community school may be located in multiple facilities 52980
under the same contract and, notwithstanding division (B)(1) of 52981
this section, may assign students in the same grade level to 52982
multiple facilities, as long as all of the following apply:52983

       (a) The governing authority of the community school filed a 52984
copy of its contract with the school's sponsor under section 52985
3314.03 of the Revised Code with the superintendent of public 52986
instruction on or before May 15, 2008.52987

       (b) The school was not open for operation prior to July 1, 52988
2008.52989

       (c) The governing authority has entered into and maintains a 52990
contract with an operator of the type described in division 52991
(A)(8)(b) of section 3314.02 of the Revised Code.52992

       (d)(b) The contract with that operator qualified the school 52993
to be established pursuant to division (A) of former section 52994
3314.016 of the Revised Code.52995

       (e)(c) The school's rating under section 3302.03 of the 52996
Revised Code does not fall below a combination of any of the 52997
following for two or more consecutive years:52998

       (i) A rating of "in need of continuous improvement" under 52999
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code, as that section existed prior 53000
to the effective date of this sectionMarch 22, 2013;53001

       (ii) For the 2012-2013 and 2013-2014 school years, a rating 53002
of "C" for both the performance index score under division 53003
(A)(1)(b) or (B)(1)(b) and the value-added dimension under 53004
division (A)(1)(e) or (B)(1)(e) of section 3302.03 of the Revised 53005
Code; or if the building serves only grades ten through twelve, 53006
the building received a grade of "C" for the performance index 53007
score under division (A)(1)(b) or (B)(1)(b) of section 3302.03 of 53008
the Revised Code;53009

       (iii) For the 2014-2015 school year and for any school year 53010
thereafter, an overall grade of "C" under division (C)(3) of 53011
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code or an overall performance 53012
designation of "meets standards" under division (E)(3)(e) of 53013
section 3314.017 of the Revised Code.53014

       (3) A new start-up community school may be established in two 53015
school districts under the same contract if all of the following 53016
apply:53017

       (a) At least one of the school districts in which the school 53018
is established is a challenged school district;53019

       (b) The school operates not more than one facility in each 53020
school district and, in accordance with division (B)(1) of this 53021
section, the school does not offer the same grade level classrooms 53022
in both facilities; and53023

       (c) Transportation between the two facilities does not 53024
require more than thirty minutes of direct travel time as measured 53025
by school bus.53026

       In the case of a community school to which division (B)(3) of 53027
this section applies, if only one of the school districts in which 53028
the school is established is a challenged school district, that 53029
district shall be considered the school's primary location and the 53030
district in which the school is located for the purposes of 53031
division (A)(19) of section 3314.03 and divisions (C) and (H) of 53032
section 3314.06 of the Revised Code and for all other purposes of 53033
this chapter. If both of the school districts in which the school 53034
is established are challenged school districts, the school's 53035
governing authority shall designate one of those districts to be 53036
considered the school's primary location and the district in which 53037
the school is located for the purposes of those divisions and all 53038
other purposes of this chapter and shall notify the department of 53039
education of that designation.53040

       (4) A community school may be located in multiple facilities 53041
under the same contract and, notwithstanding division (B)(1) of 53042
this section, may assign students in the same grade level to 53043
multiple facilities, as long as both of the following apply:53044

       (a) The facilities are all located in the same county.53045

       (b) Either of the following conditions are satisfied:53046

        (i) The community school is sponsored by a board of education 53047
of a city, local, or exempted village school district having 53048
territory in the same county where the facilities of the community 53049
school are located;53050

        (ii) The community school is managed by an operator.53051

       In the case of a community school to which division (B)(4) of 53052
this section applies and that maintains facilities in more than 53053
one school district, the school's governing authority shall 53054
designate one of those districts to be considered the school's 53055
primary location and the district in which the school is located 53056
for the purposes of division (A)(19) of section 3314.03 and 53057
divisions (C) and (H) of section 3314.06 of the Revised Code and 53058
for all other purposes of this chapter and shall notify the 53059
department of that designation.53060

       (5) Any facility used for a community school shall meet all 53061
health and safety standards established by law for school 53062
buildings.53063

       (C) In the case where a community school is proposed to be 53064
located in a facility owned by a school district or educational 53065
service center, the facility may not be used for such community 53066
school unless the district or service center board owning the 53067
facility enters into an agreement for the community school to 53068
utilize the facility. Use of the facility may be under any terms 53069
and conditions agreed to by the district or service center board 53070
and the school.53071

       (D) Two or more separate community schools may be located in 53072
the same facility.53073

       (E) In the case of a community school that is located in 53074
multiple facilities, beginning July 1, 2012, the department shall 53075
assign a unique identification number to the school and to each 53076
facility maintained by the school. Each number shall be used for 53077
identification purposes only. Nothing in this division shall be 53078
construed to require the department to calculate the amount of 53079
funds paid under this chapter, or to compute any data required for 53080
the report cards issued under section 3314.012 of the Revised 53081
Code, for each facility separately. The department shall make all 53082
such calculations or computations for the school as a whole.53083

       Sec. 3314.06.  The governing authority of each community 53084
school established under this chapter shall adopt admission 53085
procedures that specify the following:53086

       (A) That, except as otherwise provided in this section, 53087
admission to the school shall be open to any individual age five 53088
to twenty-two entitled to attend school pursuant to section 53089
3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code in a school district in the 53090
state.53091

       Additionally, except as otherwise provided in this section, 53092
admission to the school may be open on a tuition basis to any 53093
individual age five to twenty-two who is not a resident of this 53094
state. The school shall not receive state funds under section 53095
3314.08 of the Revised Code for any student who is not a resident 53096
of this state.53097

       An individual younger than five years of age may be admitted 53098
to the school in accordance with division (A)(2) of section 53099
3321.01 of the Revised Code.53100

       (B)(1) That admission to the school may be limited to 53101
students who have attained a specific grade level or are within a 53102
specific age group; to students that meet a definition of 53103
"at-risk," as defined in the contract; to residents of a specific 53104
geographic area within the district, as defined in the contract; 53105
or to separate groups of autistic students and nondisabled 53106
students, as authorized in section 3314.061 of the Revised Code 53107
and as defined in the contract.53108

       (2) For purposes of division (B)(1) of this section, 53109
"at-risk" students may include those students identified as gifted 53110
students under section 3324.03 of the Revised Code.53111

       (C) Whether enrollment is limited to students who reside in 53112
the district in which the school is located or is open to 53113
residents of other districts, as provided in the policy adopted 53114
pursuant to the contract.53115

       (D)(1) That there will be no discrimination in the admission 53116
of students to the school on the basis of race, creed, color, 53117
disability, or sex except that:53118

       (a) The governing authority may do either of the following 53119
for the purpose described in division (G) of this section:53120

       (i) Establish a single-gender school for either sex;53121

       (ii) Establish single-gender schools for each sex under the 53122
same contract, provided substantially equal facilities and 53123
learning opportunities are offered for both boys and girls. Such 53124
facilities and opportunities may be offered for each sex at 53125
separate locations.53126

       (b) The governing authority may establish a school that 53127
simultaneously serves a group of students identified as autistic 53128
and a group of students who are not disabled, as authorized in 53129
section 3314.061 of the Revised Code. However, unless the total 53130
capacity established for the school has been filled, no student 53131
with any disability shall be denied admission on the basis of that 53132
disability.53133

       (2) That upon admission of any student with a disability, the 53134
community school will comply with all federal and state laws 53135
regarding the education of students with disabilities.53136

       (E) That the school may not limit admission to students on 53137
the basis of intellectual ability, measures of achievement or 53138
aptitude, or athletic ability, except that a school may limit its 53139
enrollment to students as described in division (B) of this 53140
section.53141

       (F) That the community school will admit the number of 53142
students that does not exceed the capacity of the school's 53143
programs, classes, grade levels, or facilities.53144

       (G) That the purpose of single-gender schools that are 53145
established shall be to take advantage of the academic benefits 53146
some students realize from single-gender instruction and 53147
facilities and to offer students and parents residing in the 53148
district the option of a single-gender education.53149

       (H) That, except as otherwise provided under division (B) of 53150
this section or section 3314.061 of the Revised Code, if the 53151
number of applicants exceeds the capacity restrictions of division 53152
(F) of this section, students shall be admitted by lot from all 53153
those submitting applications, except preference shall be given to 53154
students attending the school the previous year and to students 53155
who reside in the district in which the school is located. 53156
Preference may be given to siblings of students attending the 53157
school the previous year.53158

       Notwithstanding divisions (A) to (H) of this section, in the 53159
event the racial composition of the enrollment of the community 53160
school is violative of a federal desegregation order, the 53161
community school shall take any and all corrective measures to 53162
comply with the desegregation order.53163

       Sec. 3314.072. The provisions of this section are enacted to 53164
promote the public health, safety, and welfare by establishing 53165
procedures under which the governing authorities of community 53166
schools established under this chapter will be held accountable 53167
for their compliance with the terms of the contracts they enter 53168
into with their school's sponsors and the law relating to the 53169
school's operation. Suspension of the operation of a school 53170
imposed under this section is intended to encourage the governing 53171
authority's compliance with the terms of the school's contract and 53172
the law and is not intended to be an alteration of the terms of 53173
that contract.53174

       (A) If a sponsor of a community school established under this 53175
chapter suspends the operation of that school pursuant to 53176
procedures set forth in this section, the governing authority 53177
shall not operate that school while the suspension is in effect. 53178
Any such suspension shall remain in effect until the sponsor 53179
notifies the governing authority that it is no longer in effect. 53180
The contract of a school of which operation is suspended under 53181
this section also may be subject to termination or nonrenewal 53182
under section 3314.07 of the Revised Code.53183

       (B) If at any time conditions at the school do not comply 53184
with a health and safety standard established by law for school 53185
buildings, the sponsor shall immediately suspend the operation of 53186
the school pursuant to procedures set forth in division (D) of 53187
this section. If the sponsor fails to take action to suspend the 53188
operation of a school to which this division applies, the 53189
department of education may take such action.53190

       (C)(1) For any of the reasons prescribed in division 53191
(B)(1)(a) to (d) of section 3314.07 of the Revised Code, the 53192
sponsor of a community school established under this chapter may 53193
suspend the operation of the school only if it first issues to the 53194
governing authority notice of the sponsor's intent to suspend the 53195
operation of the contract. Such notice shall explain the reasons 53196
for the sponsor's intent to suspend operation of the contract and 53197
shall provide the school's governing authority with five business 53198
days to submit to the sponsor a proposal to remedy the conditions 53199
cited as reasons for the suspension.53200

       (2) The sponsor shall promptly review any proposed remedy 53201
timely submitted by the governing authority and either approve or 53202
disapprove the remedy. If the sponsor disapproves the remedy 53203
proposed by the governing authority, if the governing authority 53204
fails to submit a proposed remedy in the manner prescribed by the 53205
sponsor, or if the governing authority fails to implement the 53206
remedy as approved by the sponsor, the sponsor may suspend 53207
operation of the school pursuant to procedures set forth in 53208
division (D) of this section.53209

       (D)(1) If division (B) of this section applies or if the 53210
sponsor of a community school established under this chapter 53211
decides to suspend the operation of a school as permitted in 53212
division (C)(2) of this section, the sponsor shall promptly send 53213
written notice to the governing authority stating that the 53214
operation of the school is immediately suspended, and explaining 53215
the specific reasons for the suspension. The notice shall state 53216
that the governing authority has five business days to submit a 53217
proposed remedy to the conditions cited as reasons for the 53218
suspension or face potential contract termination.53219

       (2) Upon receipt of the notice of suspension prescribed under 53220
division (D)(1) of this section, the governing authority shall 53221
immediately notify the employees of the school and the parents of 53222
the students enrolled in the school of the suspension and the 53223
reasons therefore, and shall cease all school operations on the 53224
next business day.53225

       (E)(1) Beginning with the 2013-2014 school year, if the 53226
sponsor of a community school suspends the operation of that 53227
school pursuant to procedures set forth in this section, the 53228
school's contract with the sponsor under section 3314.03 of the 53229
Revised Code shall become void, if the governing authority of the 53230
school fails to provide a proposal to remedy the conditions cited 53231
by the sponsor as reasons for the suspension, to the satisfaction 53232
of the sponsor, by the thirtieth day of September of the school 53233
year immediately following the school year in which the operation 53234
of school was suspended.53235

       (2) If, prior to the effective date of this amendment, the 53236
sponsor of a community school has suspended the operation of the 53237
school, the contract with the sponsor under section 3314.03 of the 53238
Revised Code shall become void if the governing authority of the 53239
school fails to provide by September 30, 2014, a proposal to 53240
remedy the conditions cited by the sponsor as reasons for the 53241
suspension, to the satisfaction of the sponsor.53242

       Sec. 3314.074. Divisions (A) and (B) of this section apply 53243
only to the extent permitted under Chapter 1702. of the Revised 53244
Code.53245

       (A) If any community school established under this chapter 53246
permanently closes and ceases its operation as a community school, 53247
the assets of that school shall be distributed first to the 53248
retirement funds of employees of the school, employees of the 53249
school, and private creditors who are owed compensation, and then 53250
any remaining funds shall be paid to the department of education 53251
for redistribution to the school districts in which the students 53252
who were enrolled in the school at the time it ceased operation 53253
were entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of 53254
the Revised Code. The amount distributed to each school district 53255
shall be proportional to the district's share of the total 53256
enrollment in the community school.53257

       (B) If a community school closes and ceases to operate as a 53258
community school and the school has received computer hardware or 53259
software from the former Ohio SchoolNet commission or the former53260
eTech Ohio commission, such hardware or software shall be returned53261
turned over to the eTech Ohio commissiondepartment of education, 53262
and the eTech Ohio commissionwhich shall redistribute the 53263
hardware and software, to the extent such redistribution is 53264
possible, to school districts in conformance with the provisions 53265
of the programs as they were operated and administered by the 53266
former eTech Ohio commission.53267

       (C) If the assets of the school are insufficient to pay all 53268
persons or entities to whom compensation is owed, the 53269
prioritization of the distribution of the assets to individual 53270
persons or entities within each class of payees may be determined 53271
by decree of a court in accordance with this section and Chapter 53272
1702. of the Revised Code.53273

       Sec. 3314.08. The deductions under division (C) and the 53274
payments under division (D) of this section for fiscal years 2012 53275
and 2013 shall be made in accordance with section 3314.088 of the 53276
Revised Code.53277

       (A) As used in this section:53278

       (1) "Base formula amount" means the amount specified as such 53279
in a community school's financial plan for a school year pursuant 53280
to division (A)(15) of section 3314.03 of the Revised Code.53281

       (2) "IEP" has the same meaning as in section 3323.01 of the 53282
Revised Code.53283

       (3) "Applicable special education weight" means the multiple 53284
specified in section 3317.013 of the Revised Code for a disability 53285
described in that section.53286

       (4) "Applicable vocational education weight" means:53287

       (a) For a student enrolled in vocational education programs 53288
or classes described in division (A) of section 3317.014 of the 53289
Revised Code, the multiple specified in that division;53290

       (b) For a student enrolled in vocational education programs 53291
or classes described in division (B) of section 3317.014 of the 53292
Revised Code, the multiple specified in that division.53293

       (5) "Entitled to attend school" means entitled to attend 53294
school in a district under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the 53295
Revised Code.53296

       (6) A community school student is "included in the poverty 53297
student count" of a school district if the student is entitled to 53298
attend school in the district and the student's family receives 53299
assistance under the Ohio works first program.53300

       (7) "Poverty-based assistance reduction factor" means the 53301
percentage figure, if any, for reducing the per pupil amount of 53302
poverty-based assistance a community school is entitled to receive 53303
pursuant to divisions (D)(5) to (9) of this section in any year, 53304
as specified in the school's financial plan for the year pursuant 53305
to division (A)(15) of section 3314.03 of the Revised Code.53306

       (8) "All-day kindergarten" has the same meaning as in section 53307
3321.05 of the Revised Code.53308

        (9)(a) "Category one career-technical education student" 53309
means a student who is receiving the career-technical education 53310
services described in division (A) of section 3317.014 of the 53311
Revised Code.53312

       (b) "Category two career-technical student" means a student 53313
who is receiving the career-technical education services described 53314
in division (B) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.53315

       (c) "Category three career-technical student" means a student 53316
who is receiving the career-technical education services described 53317
in division (C) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.53318

       (d) "Category four career-technical student" means a student 53319
who is receiving the career-technical education services described 53320
in division (D) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.53321

       (e) "Category five career-technical education student" means 53322
a student who is receiving the career-technical education services 53323
described in division (E) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.53324

       (2)(a) "Category one limited English proficient student" 53325
means a limited English proficient student described in division 53326
(A) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.53327

       (b) "Category two limited English proficient student" means a 53328
limited English proficient student described in division (B) of 53329
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.53330

       (c) "Category three limited English proficient student" means 53331
a limited English proficient student described in division (C) of 53332
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.53333

       (3)(a) "Category one special education student" means a 53334
student who is receiving special education services for a 53335
disability specified in division (A) of section 3317.013 of the 53336
Revised Code.53337

       (b) "Category two special education student" means a student 53338
who is receiving special education services for a disability 53339
specified in division (B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.53340

       (c) "Category three special education student" means a 53341
student who is receiving special education services for a 53342
disability specified in division (C) of section 3317.013 of the 53343
Revised Code.53344

       (d) "Category four special education student" means a student 53345
who is receiving special education services for a disability 53346
specified in division (D) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.53347

       (e) "Category five special education student" means a student 53348
who is receiving special education services for a disability 53349
specified in division (E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.53350

       (f) "Category six special education student" means a student 53351
who is receiving special education services for a disability 53352
specified in division (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.53353

       (4) "Formula amount" has the same meaning as in section 53354
3317.02 of the Revised Code.53355

       (5) "IEP" has the same meaning as in section 3323.01 of the 53356
Revised Code.53357

       (6) "Resident district" means the school district in which a 53358
student is entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 53359
3313.65 of the Revised Code.53360

       (7) "State education aid" has the same meaning as in section 53361
5751.20 of the Revised Code.53362

       (B) The state board of education shall adopt rules requiring 53363
both of the following:53364

       (1) The board of education of each city, exempted village, 53365
and local school district to annually report the number of 53366
students entitled to attend school in the district who are 53367
enrolled in grades oneeach grade kindergarten through twelve in a 53368
community school established under this chapter, the number of 53369
students entitled to attend school in the district who are 53370
enrolled in kindergarten in a community school, the number of 53371
those kindergartners who are enrolled in all-day kindergarten in 53372
their community school, and for each child, the community school 53373
in which the child is enrolled.53374

       (2) The governing authority of each community school 53375
established under this chapter to annually report all of the 53376
following:53377

       (a) The number of students enrolled in grades one through 53378
twelve and the full-time equivalent number of students enrolled in 53379
kindergarten in the school who are not receiving special education 53380
and related services pursuant to an IEP;53381

       (b) The number of enrolled students in grades one through 53382
twelve and the full-time equivalent number of enrolled students in 53383
kindergarten, who are receiving special education and related 53384
services pursuant to an IEP;53385

       (c) The number of students reported under division (B)(2)(b) 53386
of this section receiving special education and related services 53387
pursuant to an IEP for a disability described in each of divisions 53388
(A) to (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;53389

       (d) The full-time equivalent number of students reported 53390
under divisions (B)(2)(a) and (b) of this section who are enrolled 53391
in vocationalcareer-technical education programs or classes 53392
described in each of divisions (A) and (B)to (E) of section 53393
3317.014 of the Revised Code that are provided by the community 53394
school;53395

       (e) Twenty per cent of the number of students reported under 53396
divisions (B)(2)(a) and (b) of this section who are not reported 53397
under division (B)(2)(d) of this section but who are enrolled in 53398
vocationalcareer-technical education programs or classes 53399
described in each of divisions (A) and (B)to (E) of section 53400
3317.014 of the Revised Code at a joint vocational school district 53401
under a contract between the community school and the joint 53402
vocational school district and are entitled to attend school in a 53403
city, local, or exempted village school district whose territory 53404
is part of the territory of the joint vocational school district53405
or another district in the career-technical planning district to 53406
which the school is assigned;53407

       (f) The number of enrolled preschool children with 53408
disabilities receiving special education services in a 53409
state-funded unit;53410

       (g) The community school's base formula amount;53411

       (h)The number of students reported under divisions (B)(2)(a) 53412
and (b) of this section who are category one to three limited 53413
English proficient students described in each of divisions (A) to 53414
(C) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;53415

       (g) The number of students reported under divisions (B)(2)(a) 53416
and (b) who are economically disadvantaged, as defined by the 53417
department. A student shall not be categorically excluded from the 53418
number reported under division (B)(2)(g) of this section based on 53419
anything other than family income.53420

       (h) For each student, the city, exempted village, or local 53421
school district in which the student is entitled to attend school;53422

       (i) Any poverty-based assistance reduction factor that 53423
applies to a school yearunder section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the 53424
Revised Code.53425

       A school district board and a community school governing 53426
authority shall include in their respective reports under division 53427
(B) of this section any child admitted in accordance with division 53428
(A)(2) of section 3321.01 of the Revised Code.53429

       A governing authority of a community school shall not include 53430
in its report under division (B)(2) of this section any student 53431
for whom tuition is charged under division (F) of this section.53432

       (C) From the state education aid calculated for a city, 53433
exempted village, or local school district and, if necessary, from 53434
the payment made to the district under sections 321.24 and 323.156 53435
of the Revised Code, the department of education shall annually 53436
subtract the sum of the amounts described in divisions (C)(1) to 53437
(9) of this section. However, when deducting payments on behalf of 53438
students enrolled in internet- or computer-based community 53439
schools, the department shall deduct only those amounts described 53440
in divisions (C)(1) and (2) of this section. Furthermore, the 53441
aggregate amount deducted under this division shall not exceed the 53442
sum of the district's state education aid and its payment under 53443
sections 321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code.53444

       (1) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 53445
for each community school where the district's students are 53446
enrolled, the number of the district's students reported under 53447
divisions (B)(2)(a), (b), and (e) of this section who are enrolled 53448
in grades one through twelve, and one-half the number of students 53449
reported under those divisions who are enrolled in kindergarten, 53450
in that community school is multiplied by the sum of the base 53451
formula amount of that community school plus the per pupil amount 53452
of the base funding supplements specified in divisions (C)(1) to 53453
(4) of section 3317.012 of the Revised Code.53454

       (2) The sum of the amounts calculated under divisions 53455
(C)(2)(a) and (b) of this section:53456

       (a) For each of the district's students reported under 53457
division (B)(2)(c) of this section as enrolled in a community 53458
school in grades one through twelve and receiving special 53459
education and related services pursuant to an IEP for a disability 53460
described in section 3317.013 of the Revised Code, the product of 53461
the applicable special education weight times the community 53462
school's base formula amount;53463

       (b) For each of the district's students reported under 53464
division (B)(2)(c) of this section as enrolled in kindergarten in 53465
a community school and receiving special education and related 53466
services pursuant to an IEP for a disability described in section 53467
3317.013 of the Revised Code, one-half of the amount calculated as 53468
prescribed in division (C)(2)(a) of this section.53469

       (3) For each of the district's students reported under 53470
division (B)(2)(d) of this section for whom payment is made under 53471
division (D)(4) of this section, the amount of that payment;53472

       (4) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 53473
for each community school where the district's students are 53474
enrolled, the number of the district's students enrolled in that 53475
community school who are included in the district's poverty 53476
student count is multiplied by the per pupil amount of 53477
poverty-based assistance the school district receives that year 53478
pursuant to division (C) of section 3317.029 of the Revised Code, 53479
as adjusted by any poverty-based assistance reduction factor of 53480
that community school. The per pupil amount of that aid for the 53481
district shall be calculated by the department.53482

       (5) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 53483
for each community school where the district's students are 53484
enrolled, the district's per pupil amount of aid received under 53485
division (E) of section 3317.029 of the Revised Code, as adjusted 53486
by any poverty-based assistance reduction factor of the community 53487
school, is multiplied by the sum of the following:53488

       (a) The number of the district's students reported under 53489
division (B)(2)(a) of this section who are enrolled in grades one 53490
to three in that community school and who are not receiving 53491
special education and related services pursuant to an IEP;53492

       (b) One-half of the district's students who are enrolled in 53493
all-day or any other kindergarten class in that community school 53494
and who are not receiving special education and related services 53495
pursuant to an IEP;53496

       (c) One-half of the district's students who are enrolled in 53497
all-day kindergarten in that community school and who are not 53498
receiving special education and related services pursuant to an 53499
IEP.53500

       The district's per pupil amount of aid under division (E) of 53501
section 3317.029 of the Revised Code is the quotient of the amount 53502
the district received under that division divided by the 53503
district's kindergarten through third grade ADM, as defined in 53504
that section.53505

       (6) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 53506
for each community school where the district's students are 53507
enrolled, the district's per pupil amount received under division 53508
(F) of section 3317.029 of the Revised Code, as adjusted by any 53509
poverty-based assistance reduction factor of that community 53510
school, is multiplied by the number of the district's students 53511
enrolled in the community school who are identified as 53512
limited-English proficient.53513

       (7) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 53514
for each community school where the district's students are 53515
enrolled, the district's per pupil amount received under division 53516
(G) of section 3317.029 of the Revised Code, as adjusted by any 53517
poverty-based assistance reduction factor of that community 53518
school, is multiplied by the sum of the following:53519

       (a) The number of the district's students enrolled in grades 53520
one through twelve in that community school;53521

       (b) One-half of the number of the district's students 53522
enrolled in kindergarten in that community school.53523

       The district's per pupil amount under division (G) of section 53524
3317.029 of the Revised Code is the district's amount per teacher 53525
calculated under division (G)(1) or (2) of that section divided by 53526
17.53527

       (8) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 53528
for each community school where the district's students are 53529
enrolled, the district's per pupil amount received under divisions 53530
(H) and (I) of section 3317.029 of the Revised Code, as adjusted 53531
by any poverty-based assistance reduction factor of that community 53532
school, is multiplied by the sum of the following:53533

       (a) The number of the district's students enrolled in grades 53534
one through twelve in that community school;53535

       (b) One-half of the number of the district's students 53536
enrolled in kindergarten in that community school.53537

       The district's per pupil amount under divisions (H) and (I) 53538
of section 3317.029 of the Revised Code is the amount calculated 53539
under each division divided by the district's formula ADM, as 53540
defined in section 3317.02 of the Revised Code.53541

       (9) An amount equal to the per pupil state parity aid funding 53542
calculated for the school district under either division (C) or 53543
(D) of section 3317.0217 of the Revised Code multiplied by the sum 53544
of the number of students in grades one through twelve, and 53545
one-half of the number of students in kindergarten, who are 53546
entitled to attend school in the district and are enrolled in a 53547
community school as reported under division (B)(1) of this 53548
section.53549

       (D) The department shall annually pay to a community school 53550
established under this chapter the sum of the amounts described in 53551
divisions (D)(1) to (10) of this section. However, the department 53552
shall calculate and pay to each internet- or computer-based 53553
community school only the amounts described in divisions (D)(1) to 53554
(3) of this section. Furthermore, the sum of the payments to all 53555
community schools under divisions (D)(1), (2), and (4) to (10) of 53556
this section for the students entitled to attend school in any 53557
particular school district shall not exceed the sum of that 53558
district's state education aid and its payment under sections 53559
321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code. If the sum of the payments 53560
calculated under those divisions for the students entitled to 53561
attend school in a particular school district exceeds the sum of 53562
that district's state education aid and its payment under sections 53563
321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code, the department shall 53564
calculate and apply a proration factor to the payments to all 53565
community schools under those divisions for the students entitled 53566
to attend school in that district.53567

       (1) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when 53568
the number of students enrolled in grades one through twelve, plus 53569
one-half of the kindergarten students in the school, reported 53570
under divisions (B)(2)(a), (b), and (e) of this section who are 53571
not receiving special education and related services pursuant to 53572
an IEP for a disability described in section 3317.013 of the 53573
Revised Code is multiplied by the sum of the community school's 53574
base formula amount plus the per pupil amount of the base funding 53575
supplements specified in divisions (C)(1) to (4) of section 53576
3317.012 of the Revised Code.53577

       (2) The sum of the following amounts:53578

       (a) For each student reported under division (B)(2)(c) of 53579
this section as enrolled in the school in grades one through 53580
twelve and receiving special education and related services 53581
pursuant to an IEP for a disability described in section 3317.013 53582
of the Revised Code, the following amount:53583

(the school's base formula amount plus
53584

the per pupil amount of the base funding supplements specified in
53585

divisions (C)(1) to (4) of section 3317.012 of the Revised Code)
53586

+ (the applicable special education weight X the
53587

community school's base formula amount);
53588

       (b) For each student reported under division (B)(2)(c) of 53589
this section as enrolled in kindergarten and receiving special 53590
education and related services pursuant to an IEP for a disability 53591
described in section 3317.013 of the Revised Code, one-half of the 53592
amount calculated under the formula prescribed in division 53593
(D)(2)(a) of this section.53594

       (3) An amount received from federal funds to provide special 53595
education and related services to students in the community 53596
school, as determined by the superintendent of public instruction.53597

       (4) For each student reported under division (B)(2)(d) of 53598
this section as enrolled in vocational education programs or 53599
classes that are described in section 3317.014 of the Revised 53600
Code, are provided by the community school, and are comparable as 53601
determined by the superintendent of public instruction to school 53602
district vocational education programs and classes eligible for 53603
state weighted funding under section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, 53604
an amount equal to the applicable vocational education weight 53605
times the community school's base formula amount times the 53606
percentage of time the student spends in the vocational education 53607
programs or classes.53608

       (5) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 53609
for each school district where the community school's students are 53610
entitled to attend school, the number of that district's students 53611
enrolled in the community school who are included in the 53612
district's poverty student count is multiplied by the per pupil 53613
amount of poverty-based assistance that school district receives 53614
that year pursuant to division (C) of section 3317.029 of the 53615
Revised Code, as adjusted by any poverty-based assistance 53616
reduction factor of the community school. The per pupil amount of 53617
aid shall be determined as described in division (C)(4) of this 53618
section.53619

       (6) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 53620
for each school district where the community school's students are 53621
entitled to attend school, the district's per pupil amount of aid 53622
received under division (E) of section 3317.029 of the Revised 53623
Code, as adjusted by any poverty-based assistance reduction factor 53624
of the community school, is multiplied by the sum of the 53625
following:53626

       (a) The number of the district's students reported under 53627
division (B)(2)(a) of this section who are enrolled in grades one 53628
to three in that community school and who are not receiving 53629
special education and related services pursuant to an IEP;53630

       (b) One-half of the district's students who are enrolled in 53631
all-day or any other kindergarten class in that community school 53632
and who are not receiving special education and related services 53633
pursuant to an IEP;53634

       (c) One-half of the district's students who are enrolled in 53635
all-day kindergarten in that community school and who are not 53636
receiving special education and related services pursuant to an 53637
IEP.53638

       The district's per pupil amount of aid under division (E) of 53639
section 3317.029 of the Revised Code shall be determined as 53640
described in division (C)(5) of this section.53641

       (7) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 53642
for each school district where the community school's students are 53643
entitled to attend school, the number of that district's students 53644
enrolled in the community school who are identified as 53645
limited-English proficient is multiplied by the district's per 53646
pupil amount received under division (F) of section 3317.029 of 53647
the Revised Code, as adjusted by any poverty-based assistance 53648
reduction factor of the community school.53649

       (8) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 53650
for each school district where the community school's students are 53651
entitled to attend school, the district's per pupil amount 53652
received under division (G) of section 3317.029 of the Revised 53653
Code, as adjusted by any poverty-based assistance reduction factor 53654
of the community school, is multiplied by the sum of the 53655
following:53656

       (a) The number of the district's students enrolled in grades 53657
one through twelve in that community school;53658

       (b) One-half of the number of the district's students 53659
enrolled in kindergarten in that community school.53660

       The district's per pupil amount under division (G) of section 53661
3317.029 of the Revised Code shall be determined as described in 53662
division (C)(7) of this section.53663

       (9) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 53664
for each school district where the community school's students are 53665
entitled to attend school, the district's per pupil amount 53666
received under divisions (H) and (I) of section 3317.029 of the 53667
Revised Code, as adjusted by any poverty-based assistance 53668
reduction factor of the community school, is multiplied by the sum 53669
of the following:53670

       (a) The number of the district's students enrolled in grades 53671
one through twelve in that community school;53672

       (b) One-half of the number of the district's students 53673
enrolled in kindergarten in that community school.53674

       The district's per pupil amount under divisions (H) and (I) 53675
of section 3317.029 of the Revised Code shall be determined as 53676
described in division (C)(8) of this section.53677

       (10) An amount equal to the sum of the amounts obtained when, 53678
for each school district where the community school's students are 53679
entitled to attend school, the district's per pupil amount of 53680
state parity aid funding calculated under either division (C) or 53681
(D) of section 3317.0217 of the Revised Code is multiplied by the 53682
sum of the number of that district's students enrolled in grades 53683
one through twelve, and one-half of the number of that district's 53684
students enrolled in kindergarten, in the community school as 53685
reported under divisions (B)(2)(a) and (b) of this section.53686

       (E)(1) If a community school's costs for a fiscal year for a 53687
student receiving special education and related services pursuant 53688
to an IEP for a disability described in divisions (B) to (F) of 53689
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code exceed the threshold 53690
catastrophic cost for serving the student as specified in division 53691
(C)(3)(b) of section 3317.022 of the Revised Code, the school may 53692
submit to the superintendent of public instruction documentation, 53693
as prescribed by the superintendent, of all its costs for that 53694
student. Upon submission of documentation for a student of the 53695
type and in the manner prescribed, the department shall pay to the 53696
community school an amount equal to the school's costs for the 53697
student in excess of the threshold catastrophic costs.53698

       (2) The community school shall only report under division 53699
(E)(1) of this section, and the department shall only pay for, the 53700
costs of educational expenses and the related services provided to 53701
the student in accordance with the student's individualized 53702
education program. Any legal fees, court costs, or other costs 53703
associated with any cause of action relating to the student may 53704
not be included in the amount.53705

       (F) A community school may apply to the department of 53706
education for preschool children with disabilities unit funding 53707
the school would receive if it were a school district. Upon 53708
request of its governing authority, a community school that 53709
received such unit funding as a school district-operated school 53710
before it became a community school shall retain any units awarded 53711
to it as a school district-operated school provided the school 53712
continues to meet eligibility standards for the unit.53713

       A community school shall be considered a school district and 53714
its governing authority shall be considered a board of education 53715
for the purpose of applying to any state or federal agency for 53716
grants that a school district may receive under federal or state 53717
law or any appropriations act of the general assembly. The 53718
governing authority of a community school may apply to any private 53719
entity for additional funds.53720

       (G)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, 53721
and subject to divisions (C)(3) and (4) of this section, on a 53722
full-time equivalency basis, for each student enrolled in a 53723
community school established under this chapter, the department of 53724
education annually shall deduct from the state education aid of a 53725
student's resident district and, if necessary, from the payment 53726
made to the district under sections 321.24 and 323.156 of the 53727
Revised Code and pay to the community school the sum of the 53728
following:53729

       (a) An opportunity grant in an amount equal to the formula 53730
amount;53731

       (b) The per pupil amount of targeted assistance funds 53732
calculated under division (A) of section 3317.0217 of the Revised 53733
Code for the student's resident district, as determined by the 53734
department, X 0.25;53735

       (c) Additional state aid for special education and related 53736
services provided under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code as 53737
follows:53738

       (i) If the student is a category one special education 53739
student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in division 53740
(A) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;53741

       (ii) If the student is a category two special education 53742
student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in division 53743
(B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;53744

       (iii) If the student is a category three special education 53745
student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in division 53746
(C) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;53747

       (iv) If the student is a category four special education 53748
student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in division 53749
(D) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;53750

       (v) If the student is a category five special education 53751
student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in division 53752
(E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;53753

       (vi) If the student is a category six special education 53754
student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in division 53755
(F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.53756

       (d) If the student is in kindergarten through third grade, an 53757
additional amount of $300, in fiscal year 2014, and $303, in 53758
fiscal year 2015;53759

       (e) If the student is economically disadvantaged, an 53760
additional amount equal to the following:53761

       ($340, in fiscal year 2014, or $343, in fiscal year 2015) X 53762
(the resident district's economically disadvantaged index)53763

       (f) Limited English proficiency funds as follows:53764

       (i) If the student is a category one limited English 53765
proficient student, the amount specified in division (A) of 53766
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;53767

       (ii) If the student is a category two limited English 53768
proficient student, the amount specified in division (B) of 53769
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;53770

       (iii) If the student is a category three limited English 53771
proficient student, the amount specified in division (C) of 53772
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.53773

       (g) Career-technical education funds as follows:53774

       (i) If the student is a category one career-technical 53775
education student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in 53776
division (A) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;53777

       (ii) If the student is a category two career-technical 53778
education student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in 53779
division (B) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;53780

       (iii) If the student is a category three career-technical 53781
education student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in 53782
division (C) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;53783

       (iv) If the student is a category four career-technical 53784
education student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in 53785
division (D) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;53786

       (v) If the student is a category five career-technical 53787
education student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in 53788
division (E) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.53789

       Deduction and payment of funds under division (C)(1)(g) of 53790
this section is subject to approval by the lead district of a 53791
career-technical planning district or the department of education 53792
under section 3317.161 of the Revised Code.53793

       (2) When deducting from the state education aid of a 53794
student's resident district for students enrolled in an internet- 53795
or computer-based community school and making payments to such 53796
school under this section, the department shall make the 53797
deductions and payments described in only divisions (C)(1)(a), 53798
(c), and (g) of this section.53799

       No deductions or payments shall be made for a student 53800
enrolled in such school under division (C)(1)(b), (d), (e), or (f) 53801
of this section.53802

       (3)(a) If a community school's costs for a fiscal year for a 53803
student receiving special education and related services pursuant 53804
to an IEP for a disability described in divisions (B) to (F) of 53805
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code exceed the threshold 53806
catastrophic cost for serving the student as specified in division 53807
(B) of section 3317.0214 of the Revised Code, the school may 53808
submit to the superintendent of public instruction documentation, 53809
as prescribed by the superintendent, of all its costs for that 53810
student. Upon submission of documentation for a student of the 53811
type and in the manner prescribed, the department shall pay to the 53812
community school an amount equal to the school's costs for the 53813
student in excess of the threshold catastrophic costs.53814

       (b) The community school shall report under division 53815
(C)(3)(a) of this section, and the department shall pay for, only 53816
the costs of educational expenses and the related services 53817
provided to the student in accordance with the student's 53818
individualized education program. Any legal fees, court costs, or 53819
other costs associated with any cause of action relating to the 53820
student may not be included in the amount.53821

       (4) In any fiscal year, a community school receiving funds 53822
under division (C)(1)(g) of this section shall spend those funds 53823
only for the purposes that the department designates as approved 53824
for career-technical education expenses. Career-technical 53825
educational expenses approved by the department shall include only 53826
expenses connected to the delivery of career-technical programming 53827
to career-technical students. The department shall require the 53828
school to report data annually so that the department may monitor 53829
the school's compliance with the requirements regarding the manner 53830
in which funding received under division (C)(1)(g) of this section 53831
may be spent.53832

       (5) All funds received under division (C)(1)(g) of this 53833
section shall be spent in the following manner:53834

       (a) At least seventy-five per cent of the funds shall be 53835
spent on curriculum development, purchase, and implementation; 53836
instructional resources and supplies; industry-based program 53837
certification; student assessment, credentialing, and placement; 53838
curriculum specific equipment purchases and leases; 53839
career-technical student organization fees and expenses; home and 53840
agency linkages; work-based learning experiences; professional 53841
development; and other costs directly associated with 53842
career-technical education programs including development of new 53843
programs.53844

       (b) Not more than twenty-five per cent of the funds shall be 53845
used for personnel expenditures.53846

       (6) If the sum of the payments computed under division (C)(1) 53847
of this section for the students entitled to attend school in a 53848
particular school district under sections 3313.64 and 3313.65 of 53849
the Revised Code exceeds the sum of that district's state 53850
education aid and its payment under sections 321.24 and 323.156 of 53851
the Revised Code, the department shall calculate and apply a 53852
proration factor to the payments to all community schools under 53853
that division for the students entitled to attend school in that 53854
district.53855

       (D) A board of education sponsoring a community school may 53856
utilize local funds to make enhancement grants to the school or 53857
may agree, either as part of the contract or separately, to 53858
provide any specific services to the community school at no cost 53859
to the school.53860

       (H)(E) A community school may not levy taxes or issue bonds 53861
secured by tax revenues.53862

       (I)(F) No community school shall charge tuition for the 53863
enrollment of any student who is a resident of this state. A 53864
community school may charge tuition for the enrollment of any 53865
student who is not a resident of this state.53866

       (J)(G)(1)(a) A community school may borrow money to pay any 53867
necessary and actual expenses of the school in anticipation of the 53868
receipt of any portion of the payments to be received by the 53869
school pursuant to division (D)(C) of this section. The school may 53870
issue notes to evidence such borrowing. The proceeds of the notes 53871
shall be used only for the purposes for which the anticipated 53872
receipts may be lawfully expended by the school.53873

       (b) A school may also borrow money for a term not to exceed 53874
fifteen years for the purpose of acquiring facilities.53875

       (2) Except for any amount guaranteed under section 3318.50 of 53876
the Revised Code, the state is not liable for debt incurred by the 53877
governing authority of a community school.53878

       (K) For purposes of determining the number of students for 53879
which divisions (D)(5) and (6) of this section applies in any 53880
school year, a community school may submit to the department of 53881
job and family services, no later than the first day of March, a 53882
list of the students enrolled in the school. For each student on 53883
the list, the community school shall indicate the student's name, 53884
address, and date of birth and the school district where the 53885
student is entitled to attend school. Upon receipt of a list under 53886
this division, the department of job and family services shall 53887
determine, for each school district where one or more students on 53888
the list is entitled to attend school, the number of students 53889
residing in that school district who were included in the 53890
department's report under section 3317.10 of the Revised Code. The 53891
department shall make this determination on the basis of 53892
information readily available to it. Upon making this 53893
determination and no later than ninety days after submission of 53894
the list by the community school, the department shall report to 53895
the state department of education the number of students on the 53896
list who reside in each school district who were included in the 53897
department's report under section 3317.10 of the Revised Code. In 53898
complying with this division, the department of job and family 53899
services shall not report to the state department of education any 53900
personally identifiable information on any student.53901

       (L)(H) The department of education shall adjust the amounts 53902
subtracted and paid under divisionsdivision (C) and (D) of this 53903
section to reflect any enrollment of students in community schools 53904
for less than the equivalent of a full school year. The state 53905
board of education within ninety days after April 8, 2003, shall 53906
adopt in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code rules 53907
governing the payments to community schools under this section and 53908
section 3314.13 of the Revised Code including initial payments in 53909
a school year and adjustments and reductions made in subsequent 53910
periodic payments to community schools and corresponding 53911
deductions from school district accounts as provided under 53912
divisionsdivision (C) and (D) of this section and section 3314.13 53913
of the Revised Code. For purposes of this section and section 53914
3314.13 of the Revised Code:53915

       (1) A student shall be considered enrolled in the community 53916
school for any portion of the school year the student is 53917
participating at a college under Chapter 3365. of the Revised 53918
Code.53919

       (2) A student shall be considered to be enrolled in a 53920
community school for the period of time beginning on the later of 53921
the date on which the school both has received documentation of 53922
the student's enrollment from a parent and the student has 53923
commenced participation in learning opportunities as defined in 53924
the contract with the sponsor, or thirty days prior to the date on 53925
which the student is entered into the education management 53926
information system established under section 3301.0714 of the 53927
Revised Code. For purposes of applying this division and divisions 53928
(L)(H)(3) and (4) of this section to a community school student, 53929
"learning opportunities" shall be defined in the contract, which 53930
shall describe both classroom-based and non-classroom-based 53931
learning opportunities and shall be in compliance with criteria 53932
and documentation requirements for student participation which 53933
shall be established by the department. Any student's instruction 53934
time in non-classroom-based learning opportunities shall be 53935
certified by an employee of the community school. A student's 53936
enrollment shall be considered to cease on the date on which any 53937
of the following occur:53938

        (a) The community school receives documentation from a parent 53939
terminating enrollment of the student.53940

        (b) The community school is provided documentation of a 53941
student's enrollment in another public or private school.53942

        (c) The community school ceases to offer learning 53943
opportunities to the student pursuant to the terms of the contract 53944
with the sponsor or the operation of any provision of this 53945
chapter.53946

       Except as otherwise specified in this paragraph, beginning in 53947
the 2011-2012 school year, any student who completed the prior 53948
school year in an internet- or computer-based community school 53949
shall be considered to be enrolled in the same school in the 53950
subsequent school year until the student's enrollment has ceased 53951
as specified in division (L)(H)(2) of this section. The department 53952
shall continue subtracting and paying amounts for the student 53953
under divisionsdivision (C) and (D) of this section without 53954
interruption at the start of the subsequent school year. However, 53955
if the student without a legitimate excuse fails to participate in 53956
the first one hundred five consecutive hours of learning 53957
opportunities offered to the student in that subsequent school 53958
year, the student shall be considered not to have re-enrolled in 53959
the school for that school year and the department shall 53960
recalculate the payments to the school for that school year to 53961
account for the fact that the student is not enrolled.53962

        (3) The department shall determine each community school 53963
student's percentage of full-time equivalency based on the 53964
percentage of learning opportunities offered by the community 53965
school to that student, reported either as number of hours or 53966
number of days, is of the total learning opportunities offered by 53967
the community school to a student who attends for the school's 53968
entire school year. However, no internet- or computer-based 53969
community school shall be credited for any time a student spends 53970
participating in learning opportunities beyond ten hours within 53971
any period of twenty-four consecutive hours. Whether it reports 53972
hours or days of learning opportunities, each community school 53973
shall offer not less than nine hundred twenty hours of learning 53974
opportunities during the school year.53975

       (4) With respect to the calculation of full-time equivalency 53976
under division (L)(H)(3) of this section, the department shall 53977
waive the number of hours or days of learning opportunities not 53978
offered to a student because the community school was closed 53979
during the school year due to disease epidemic, hazardous weather 53980
conditions, law enforcement emergencies, inoperability of school 53981
buses or other equipment necessary to the school's operation, 53982
damage to a school building, or other temporary circumstances due 53983
to utility failure rendering the school building unfit for school 53984
use, so long as the school was actually open for instruction with 53985
students in attendance during that school year for not less than 53986
the minimum number of hours required by this chapter. The 53987
department shall treat the school as if it were open for 53988
instruction with students in attendance during the hours or days 53989
waived under this division.53990

       (M)(I) The department of education shall reduce the amounts 53991
paid under division (D) of this section to reflect payments made 53992
to colleges under division (B) of section 3365.07 of the Revised 53993
Code or through alternative funding agreements entered into under 53994
rules adopted under section 3365.12 of the Revised Code.53995

       (N)(J)(1) No student shall be considered enrolled in any 53996
internet- or computer-based community school or, if applicable to 53997
the student, in any community school that is required to provide 53998
the student with a computer pursuant to division (C) of section 53999
3314.22 of the Revised Code, unless both of the following 54000
conditions are satisfied:54001

       (a) The student possesses or has been provided with all 54002
required hardware and software materials and all such materials 54003
are operational so that the student is capable of fully 54004
participating in the learning opportunities specified in the 54005
contract between the school and the school's sponsor as required 54006
by division (A)(23) of section 3314.03 of the Revised Code;54007

       (b) The school is in compliance with division (A) of section 54008
3314.22 of the Revised Code, relative to such student.54009

       (2) In accordance with policies adopted jointly by the 54010
superintendent of public instruction and the auditor of state, the 54011
department shall reduce the amounts otherwise payable under 54012
division (D)(C) of this section to any community school that 54013
includes in its program the provision of computer hardware and 54014
software materials to any student, if such hardware and software 54015
materials have not been delivered, installed, and activated for 54016
each such student in a timely manner or other educational 54017
materials or services have not been provided according to the 54018
contract between the individual community school and its sponsor.54019

       The superintendent of public instruction and the auditor of 54020
state shall jointly establish a method for auditing any community 54021
school to which this division pertains to ensure compliance with 54022
this section.54023

       The superintendent, auditor of state, and the governor shall 54024
jointly make recommendations to the general assembly for 54025
legislative changes that may be required to assure fiscal and 54026
academic accountability for such schools.54027

       (O)(K)(1) If the department determines that a review of a 54028
community school's enrollment is necessary, such review shall be 54029
completed and written notice of the findings shall be provided to 54030
the governing authority of the community school and its sponsor 54031
within ninety days of the end of the community school's fiscal 54032
year, unless extended for a period not to exceed thirty additional 54033
days for one of the following reasons:54034

        (a) The department and the community school mutually agree to 54035
the extension.54036

        (b) Delays in data submission caused by either a community 54037
school or its sponsor.54038

       (2) If the review results in a finding that additional 54039
funding is owed to the school, such payment shall be made within 54040
thirty days of the written notice. If the review results in a 54041
finding that the community school owes moneys to the state, the 54042
following procedure shall apply:54043

       (a) Within ten business days of the receipt of the notice of 54044
findings, the community school may appeal the department's 54045
determination to the state board of education or its designee.54046

        (b) The board or its designee shall conduct an informal 54047
hearing on the matter within thirty days of receipt of such an 54048
appeal and shall issue a decision within fifteen days of the 54049
conclusion of the hearing.54050

        (c) If the board has enlisted a designee to conduct the 54051
hearing, the designee shall certify its decision to the board. The 54052
board may accept the decision of the designee or may reject the 54053
decision of the designee and issue its own decision on the matter.54054

        (d) Any decision made by the board under this division is 54055
final.54056

        (3) If it is decided that the community school owes moneys to 54057
the state, the department shall deduct such amount from the 54058
school's future payments in accordance with guidelines issued by 54059
the superintendent of public instruction.54060

       (P)(L) The department shall not subtract from a school 54061
district's state aid account under division (C) of this section54062
and shall not pay to a community school under division (D)(C) of 54063
this section any amount for any of the following:54064

        (1) Any student who has graduated from the twelfth grade of a 54065
public or nonpublic high school;54066

        (2) Any student who is not a resident of the state;54067

        (3) Any student who was enrolled in the community school 54068
during the previous school year when assessments were administered 54069
under section 3301.0711 of the Revised Code but did not take one 54070
or more of the assessments required by that section and was not 54071
excused pursuant to division (C)(1) or (3) of that section, unless 54072
the superintendent of public instruction grants the student a 54073
waiver from the requirement to take the assessment and a parent is 54074
not paying tuition for the student pursuant to section 3314.26 of 54075
the Revised Code. The superintendent may grant a waiver only for 54076
good cause in accordance with rules adopted by the state board of 54077
education.54078

       (4) Any student who has attained the age of twenty-two years, 54079
except for veterans of the armed services whose attendance was 54080
interrupted before completing the recognized twelve-year course of 54081
the public schools by reason of induction or enlistment in the 54082
armed forces and who apply for enrollment in a community school 54083
not later than four years after termination of war or their 54084
honorable discharge. If, however, any such veteran elects to 54085
enroll in special courses organized for veterans for whom tuition 54086
is paid under federal law, or otherwise, the department shall not 54087
subtract from a school district's state aid account under division 54088
(C) of this section and shall not pay to a community school under 54089
division (D)(C) of this section any amount for that veteran.54090

       Sec. 3314.082.  A community school shall be considered a 54091
school district and its governing authority shall be considered a 54092
board of education for the purpose of applying to any state or 54093
federal agency for grants that a school district may receive under 54094
federal or state law or any appropriations act of the general 54095
assembly. The governing authority of a community school may apply 54096
to any private entity for additional funds.54097

       Sec. 3314.083. If the department of education pays a joint 54098
vocational school district under division (G)(4)(C)(3) of section 54099
3317.16 of the Revised Code for excess costs of providing special 54100
education and related services to a student with a disability who 54101
is enrolled in a community school, as calculated under division 54102
(G)(2)(C)(1) of that section, the department shall deduct the 54103
amount of that payment from the amount calculated for payment to 54104
the community school under section 3314.08 of the Revised Code.54105

       Sec. 3314.084.  (A) As used in this section:54106

       (1) "Formula ADM" has the same meaning as in section 3317.03 54107
of the Revised Code.54108

       (2) "Home" has the same meaning as in section 3313.64 of the 54109
Revised Code.54110

       (3) "School district of residence" has the same meaning as in 54111
section 3323.01 of the Revised Code; however, a community school 54112
established under this chapter is not a "school district of 54113
residence" for purposes of this section.54114

       (B) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in section 54115
3314.08 or 3317.03 of the Revised Code, all of the following apply 54116
in the case of a child who is enrolled in a community school and 54117
is also living in a home:54118

       (1) For purposes of the report required under division (B)(1) 54119
of section 3314.08 of the Revised Code, the child's school 54120
district of residence, and not the school district in which the 54121
home that the child is living in is located, shall be considered 54122
to be the school district in which the child is entitled to attend 54123
school. That school district of residence, therefore, shall make 54124
the report required under division (B)(1) of section 3314.08 of 54125
the Revised Code with respect to the child.54126

       (2) For purposes of the report required under division (B)(2) 54127
of section 3314.08 of the Revised Code, the community school shall 54128
report the name of the child's school district of residence.54129

       (3) The child's school district of residence shall count the 54130
child in that district's formula ADM.54131

       (4) The school district in which the home that the child is 54132
living in is located shall not count the child in that district's 54133
formula ADM.54134

       (5) The Departmentdepartment of Educationeducation shall 54135
deduct the applicable amounts prescribed under division (C) of 54136
section 3314.08 and division (D) of section 3314.13 of the Revised 54137
Code from the child's school district of residence and shall not 54138
deduct those amounts from the school district in which the home 54139
that the child is living in is located.54140

       (6) The Departmentdepartment shall make the payments 54141
prescribed in divisions (D) and (E)division (C) of section 54142
3314.08 and section 3314.13 of the Revised Code, as applicable, to 54143
the community school.54144

       Sec. 3314.086. A community school established under this 54145
chapter, including an internet- or computer-based community 54146
school, may provide career-technical education in the manner 54147
prescribed by section 3313.90 of the Revised Code. The community 54148
school may contract with any public agency, board, or bureau or 54149
with any private individual or firm for the purchase of any 54150
career-technical education or vocational rehabilitation service 54151
for any student enrolled in the community school and may pay for 54152
such services with funds received under section 3314.08 of the 54153
Revised Code.54154

       Sec. 3314.087.  (A) As used in this section:54155

        (1) "Career-technical program" means vocational54156
career-technical programs or classes described in division (A) or,54157
(B), (C), (D), or (E) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code in 54158
which a student is enrolled.54159

        (2) "Formula ADM," "category one or two vocationalthrough 54160
five career-technical education ADM," and "FTE basis" have the 54161
same meanings as in section 3317.02 of the Revised Code.54162

        (3) "Resident school district" means the city, exempted 54163
village, or local school district in which a student is entitled 54164
to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised 54165
Code.54166

        (B) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in this chapter 54167
or Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code, a student enrolled in a 54168
community school may simultaneously enroll in the career-technical 54169
program operated by the student's resident school district54170
career-technical planning district to which the student's resident 54171
district belongs. On an FTE basis, the student's resident school 54172
district shall count the student in the category one or two 54173
vocationalthrough five career-technical education ADM for the 54174
proportion of the time the student is enrolled in the district'sa54175
career-technical program of the career-technical planning district 54176
to which the student's resident district belongs and, accordingly, 54177
the department of education shall calculate funds under Chapter 54178
3317. for the resident district attributable to the student for 54179
the proportion of time the student attends the career-technical 54180
program. The community school shall count the student in its 54181
enrollment report under section 3314.08 of the Revised Code and 54182
shall report to the department the proportion of time that the 54183
student attends classes at the community school. The department 54184
shall pay the community school and deduct from the student's 54185
resident school district the amount computed for the student under 54186
section 3314.08 of the Revised Code in proportion to the fraction 54187
of the time on an FTE basis that the student attends classes at 54188
the community school. "Full-time equivalency" for a community 54189
school student, as defined in division (L)(H) of section 3314.08 54190
of the Revised Code, does not apply to the student.54191

       Sec. 3314.09.  (A) As used in this section and section 54192
3314.091 of the Revised Code, "native student" means a student 54193
entitled to attend school in the school district under section 54194
3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.54195

       (B) Except as provided in section 3314.091 or 3327.02 of the 54196
Revised Code, the board of education of each city, local, and 54197
exempted village school district shall provide transportation to 54198
and from school for its district's native students in accordance 54199
with section 3327.01 of the Revised Code.54200

       Sec. 3314.091. (A)A student who attends a community school 54201
that provides or arranges for transporting students pursuant to 54202
this section, or the student's parent or guardian, is not eligible 54203
for the subsidy prescribed by section 3327.02 of the Revised Code.54204

       (A) A school district is not required to provide 54205
transportation for any native student enrolled in a community 54206
school if the district board of education has entered into an 54207
agreement with the community school's governing authority that 54208
designates the community school as responsible for providing or 54209
arranging for the transportation of the district's native students 54210
to and from the community school. For any such agreement to be 54211
effective, it must be certified by the superintendent of public 54212
instruction as having met all of the following requirements:54213

       (1) It is submitted to the department of education by a 54214
deadline which shall be established by the department.54215

       (2) In accordance with divisions (C)(1) and (2) of this 54216
section, it specifies qualifications, such as residing a minimum 54217
distance from the school, for students to have their 54218
transportation provided or arranged.54219

       (3) The transportation provided by the community school is 54220
subject to all provisions of the Revised Code and all rules 54221
adopted under the Revised Code pertaining to pupil transportation.54222

        (4) The sponsor of the community school also has signed the 54223
agreement.54224

       (B)(1) For the school year that begins on July 1, 2007, a 54225
school district is not required to provide transportation for any 54226
native student enrolled in a community school, if the community 54227
school during the previous school year transported the students 54228
enrolled in the school or arranged for the students' 54229
transportation, even if that arrangement consisted of having 54230
parents transport their children to and from the school, but did 54231
not enter into an agreement to transport or arrange for 54232
transportation for those students under division (A) of this 54233
section, and if the governing authority of the community school by 54234
July 15, 2007, submits written notification to the district board 54235
of education stating that the governing authority is accepting 54236
responsibility for providing or arranging for the transportation 54237
of the district's native students to and from the community 54238
school. 54239

       (2) ForExcept as provided in division (B)(4) of this 54240
section, for any school year subsequent to the school year that 54241
begins on July 1, 2007, a school district is not required to 54242
provide transportation for any native student enrolled in a 54243
community school if the governing authority of the community 54244
school, by the thirty-first day of January of the previous school 54245
year, submits written notification to the district board of 54246
education stating that the governing authority is accepting 54247
responsibility for providing or arranging for the transportation 54248
of the district's native students to and from the community 54249
school. If the governing authority of the community school has 54250
previously accepted responsibility for providing or arranging for 54251
the transportation of a district's native students to and from the 54252
community school, under division (B)(1) or (2) of this section, 54253
and has since relinquished that responsibility under division 54254
(B)(3) of this section, the governing authority shall not accept 54255
that responsibility again unless the district board consents to 54256
the governing authority's acceptance of that responsibility.54257

       (3) A governing authority's acceptance of responsibility 54258
under division (B)(1) or (2) of this section shall cover an entire 54259
school year, and shall remain in effect for subsequent school 54260
years unless the governing authority submits written notification 54261
to the district board that the governing authority is 54262
relinquishing the responsibility. However, a governing authority 54263
shall not relinquish responsibility for transportation before the 54264
end of a school year, and shall submit the notice relinquishing 54265
responsibility by the thirty-first day of January, in order to 54266
allow the school district reasonable time to prepare 54267
transportation for its native students enrolled in the school. 54268

       (4)(a) For any school year that begins on or after July 1, 54269
2014, a school district is not required to provide transportation 54270
for any native student enrolled in a community school scheduled to 54271
open for operation in the current school year, if the governing 54272
authority of the community school, by the fifteenth day of April 54273
of the previous school year, submits written notification to the 54274
district board of education stating that the governing authority 54275
is accepting responsibility for providing or arranging for the 54276
transportation of the district's native students to and from the 54277
community school.54278

        (b) The governing authority of a community school that 54279
accepts responsibility for transporting its students under 54280
division (4)(a) of this section shall comply with divisions (B)(2) 54281
and (3) of this section to renew or relinquish that authority for 54282
subsequent school years. 54283

        (C)(1) A community school governing authority that enters 54284
into an agreement under division (A) of this section, or that 54285
accepts responsibility under division (B) of this section, shall 54286
provide or arrange transportation free of any charge for each of 54287
its enrolled students who is required to be transported under 54288
section 3327.01 of the Revised Code or who would otherwise be 54289
transported by the school district under the district's 54290
transportation policy. The governing authority shall report to the 54291
department of education the number of students transported or for 54292
whom transportation is arranged under this section in accordance 54293
with rules adopted by the state board of education.54294

       (2) The governing authority may provide or arrange 54295
transportation for any other enrolled student who is not eligible 54296
for transportation in accordance with division (C)(1) of this 54297
section and may charge a fee for such service up to the actual 54298
cost of the service.54299

       (3) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in division 54300
(C)(1) or (2) of this section, a community school governing 54301
authority shall provide or arrange transportation free of any 54302
charge for any disabled student enrolled in the school for whom 54303
the student's individualized education program developed under 54304
Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code specifies transportation.54305

       (D)(1) If a school district board and a community school 54306
governing authority elect to enter into an agreement under 54307
division (A) of this section, the department of education shall 54308
make payments to the community school according to the terms of 54309
the agreement for each student actually transported under division 54310
(C)(1) of this section.54311

        If a community school governing authority accepts 54312
transportation responsibility under division (B) of this section, 54313
the department shall make payments to the community school for 54314
each student actually transported or for whom transportation is 54315
arranged by the community school under division (C)(1) of this 54316
section, calculated as follows:54317

       (a) For any fiscal year which the general assembly has 54318
specified that transportation payments to school districts be 54319
based on an across-the-board percentage of the district's payment 54320
for the previous school year, the per pupil payment to the 54321
community school shall be the following quotient:54322

       (i) The total amount calculated for the school district in 54323
which the child is entitled to attend school for student 54324
transportation other than transportation of children with 54325
disabilities; divided by54326

       (ii) The number of students included in the district's 54327
transportation ADM for the current fiscal year, as reported under 54328
division (B)(13)(19) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, plus 54329
the number of students enrolled in the community school not 54330
counted in the district's transportation ADM who are transported 54331
under division (B)(1) or (2) of this section.54332

       (b) For any fiscal year which the general assembly has 54333
specified that the transportation payments to school districts be 54334
calculated in accordance with section 3317.0212 of the Revised 54335
Code and any rules of the state board of education implementing 54336
that section, the payment to the community school shall be the 54337
amount so calculated that otherwise would be paid to the school 54338
district in which the student is entitled to attend school by the 54339
method of transportation the district would have used. The 54340
community school, however, is not required to use the same method 54341
to transport that student.54342

       (c) Divisions (D)(1)(a) and (b) of this section do not apply 54343
to fiscal years 2012 and 2013. Rather, for each of those fiscal 54344
years, the per pupil payment to a community school for 54345
transporting a student shall be the total amount paid under former 54346
section 3306.12 of the Revised Code for fiscal year 2011 to the 54347
school district in which the child is entitled to attend school 54348
divided by that district's "qualifying ridership," as defined in 54349
that section for fiscal year 2011.54350

       As used in this division "entitled to attend school" means 54351
entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the 54352
Revised Code. 54353

        (2) The department shall deduct the payment under division 54354
(D)(1) of this section from the state education aid, as defined in 54355
section 3314.08 of the Revised Code, and, if necessary, the 54356
payment under sections 321.14 and 323.156 of the Revised Code, 54357
that is otherwise paid to the school district in which the student 54358
enrolled in the community school is entitled to attend school. The 54359
department shall include the number of the district's native 54360
students for whom payment is made to a community school under 54361
division (D)(1) of this section in the calculation of the 54362
district's transportation payment under section 3317.0212 of the 54363
Revised Code and the operating appropriations act.54364

       (3) A community school shall be paid under division (D)(1) of 54365
this section only for students who are eligible as specified in 54366
section 3327.01 of the Revised Code and division (C)(1) of this 54367
section, and whose transportation to and from school is actually 54368
provided, who actually utilized transportation arranged, or for 54369
whom a payment in lieu of transportation is made by the community 54370
school's governing authority. To qualify for the payments, the 54371
community school shall report to the department, in the form and 54372
manner required by the department, data on the number of students 54373
transported or whose transportation is arranged, the number of 54374
miles traveled, cost to transport, and any other information 54375
requested by the department.54376

       (4) A community school shall use payments received under this 54377
section solely to pay the costs of providing or arranging for the 54378
transportation of students who are eligible as specified in 54379
section 3327.01 of the Revised Code and division (C)(1) of this 54380
section, which may include payments to a parent, guardian, or 54381
other person in charge of a child in lieu of transportation.54382

       (E) Except when arranged through payment to a parent, 54383
guardian, or person in charge of a child, transportation provided 54384
or arranged for by a community school pursuant to an agreement 54385
under this section is subject to all provisions of the Revised 54386
Code, and all rules adopted under the Revised Code, pertaining to 54387
the construction, design, equipment, and operation of school buses 54388
and other vehicles transporting students to and from school. The 54389
drivers and mechanics of the vehicles are subject to all 54390
provisions of the Revised Code, and all rules adopted under the 54391
Revised Code, pertaining to drivers and mechanics of such 54392
vehicles. The community school also shall comply with sections 54393
3313.201, 3327.09, and 3327.10 of the Revised Code, division (B) 54394
of section 3327.16 of the Revised Code and, subject to division 54395
(C)(1) of this section, sectionsand section 3327.01 and 3327.0254396
of the Revised Code, as if it were a school district. 54397

       Sec. 3314.092. The governing authority or operator of a 54398
community school established under this chapter shall consult with 54399
each school district board of education that transports students 54400
to the community school under sections 3314.09 and 3327.01 of the 54401
Revised Code prior to making any change in the hours or days in 54402
which the community school is open for instruction.54403

       Sec. 3314.11.  (A) The board of education of each city, 54404
exempted village, and local school district monthly shall review 54405
enrollment for students enrolled in community schools established 54406
under this chapter and entitled to attend school in the district 54407
under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code. For each 54408
student, the district shall verify to the department of education 54409
both of the following:54410

       (1) The community school in which the student is enrolled;54411

       (2) That the student is entitled to attend school in the 54412
district under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.54413

       (B) For purposes of its initial reporting of the school 54414
districts its students are entitled to attend, the governing 54415
authority of a community school may adopt a policy that prescribes 54416
the number of documents listed in division (E) of this section 54417
required to verify a student's residency. This policy, if adopted, 54418
shall supersede any policy concerning the number of documents for 54419
initial residency verification adopted by the district the student 54420
is entitled to attend. If a community school does not adopt a 54421
policy under this division, the policy of the school district in 54422
which the student is entitled to attend shall prevail.54423

       (C) In making the determinations under this section, the 54424
school district in which a parent or child resides is the location 54425
the parent or student has established as the primary residence and 54426
where substantial family activity takes place.54427

        (D) If a district's determination under division (A) of this 54428
section of the school district a student is entitled to attend 54429
under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code differs from 54430
a community school's determination under division (B) of this 54431
section, the community school shall provide the school district 54432
that made the determination under division (A) of this section 54433
with documentation of the student's residency and shall make a 54434
good faith effort to accurately identify the correct residence of 54435
the student.54436

        (E) For purposes of this section, the following documents may 54437
serve as evidence of primary residence:54438

       (1) A deed, mortgage, lease, current home owner's or renter's 54439
insurance declaration page, or current real property tax bill;54440

       (2) A utility bill or receipt of utility installation issued 54441
within ninety days of enrollment;54442

       (3) A paycheck or paystub issued to the parent or student 54443
within ninety days of the date of enrollment that includes the 54444
address of the parent's or student's primary residence;54445

       (4) The most current available bank statement issued to the 54446
parent or student that includes the address of the parent's or 54447
student's primary residence;54448

       (5) Any other official document issued to the parent or 54449
student that includes the address of the parent's or student's 54450
primary residence. The superintendent of public instruction shall 54451
develop guidelines for determining what qualifies as an "official 54452
document" under this division.54453

       (F) When a student loses permanent housing and becomes a 54454
homeless child or youth, as defined in 42 U.S.C. 11434a, or when a 54455
child who is such a homeless child or youth changes temporary 54456
living arrangements, the district in which the student is entitled 54457
to attend school shall be determined in accordance with division 54458
(F)(13) of section 3313.64 of the Revised Code and the 54459
"McKinney-Vento Homeless Assistance Act," 42 U.S.C. 11431 et seq.54460

       (G) In the event of a disagreement as to which school 54461
district a student is entitled to attend, the community school, 54462
after complying with division (D) of this section, but not more 54463
than sixty days after the monthly deadline established by the 54464
department of education for reporting of community school 54465
enrollment, may present the matter to the superintendent of public 54466
instruction. Not later than thirty days after the community school 54467
presents the matter, the state superintendent, or the state 54468
superintendent's designee, shall determine which district the 54469
student is entitled to attend and shall direct any necessary 54470
adjustments to payments and deductions under sectionssection54471
3314.08 and 3314.13 of the Revised Code based on that 54472
determination.54473

       Sec. 3314.26. (A) Each internet- or computer-based community 54474
school shall withdraw from the school any student who, for two 54475
consecutive school years, has failed to participate in the spring 54476
administration of any assessment prescribed under section 54477
3301.0710 or 3301.0712 of the Revised Code for the student's grade 54478
level and was not excused from the assessment pursuant to division 54479
(C)(1) or (3) of section 3301.0711 of the Revised Code, regardless 54480
of whether a waiver was granted for the student under division 54481
(P)(L)(3) of section 3314.08 of the Revised Code. The school shall 54482
report any such student's data verification code, as assigned 54483
pursuant to section 3301.0714 of the Revised Code, to the 54484
department of education. The department shall maintain a list of 54485
all data verification codes reported under this division and 54486
section 3313.6410 of the Revised Code and provide that list to 54487
each internet- or computer-based community school and to each 54488
school to which section 3313.6410 of the Revised Code applies.54489

        (B) No internet- or computer-based community school shall 54490
receive any state funds under this chapter for any enrolled 54491
student whose data verification code appears on the list 54492
maintained by the department under division (A) of this section.54493

       Notwithstanding any provision of the Revised Code to the 54494
contrary, the parent of any such student shall pay tuition to the 54495
internet- or computer-based community school in an amount equal to 54496
the state funds the school otherwise would receive for that 54497
student, as determined by the department. An internet- or 54498
computer-based community school may withdraw any student for whom 54499
the parent does not pay tuition as required by this division.54500

       Sec. 3314.29.  (A) Notwithstanding anything in this chapter 54501
to the contrary, an internet- or computer-based community school 54502
may divide into two separate internet- or computer-based community 54503
schools by grade level, if all of the following apply:54504

       (1) The school was in operation on or before the effective 54505
date of this section.54506

       (2) The school offers at least grades one through eight.54507

       (3) The sponsor of the school approves dividing the school 54508
into two separate schools under this section.54509

       (4) The school exercises the option to divide into two 54510
separate schools under this section during either the 2013-2014 or 54511
2014-2015 school year. 54512

       (5) Either of the following applies:54513

        (a) For a school that divides into separate schools in the 54514
2013-2014 school year, the school is rated in continuous 54515
improvement or higher for the 2011-2012 school year on the report 54516
cards issued under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code as that 54517
section existed prior to March 22, 2013, and the school receives a 54518
grade of "C" or higher on its performance index score under 54519
division (A)(1)(b) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for the 54520
report cards issued for the 2012-2013 school year.54521

        (b) For a school that divides into separate schools in the 54522
2013-2014 school year, the school receives a grade of "C" or 54523
higher on its performance index score under divisions (A)(1)(b) 54524
and (B)(1)(b) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code on the report 54525
cards issued for both the 2012-2013 and 2013-2014 school years.54526

       (B) No school may exercise the option under this section 54527
after the 2014-2015 school year. However, the authority of a 54528
school that has exercised the option under this section to operate 54529
separately as two schools continues for all subsequent school 54530
years in which the schools are in operation.54531

       (C) If a school divides into separate schools under this 54532
section, the accountability data of the original school, including 54533
report card ratings under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code, 54534
shall continue to apply to the applicable grade levels of the new 54535
schools.54536

        (D) An internet- or computer-based community school created 54537
under this section shall not count toward the annual limit on new 54538
internet- or computer-based community schools prescribed by 54539
division (B) of section 3314.013 of the Revised Code.54540

       Sec. 3314.35.  (A)(1) Except as provided in division (A)(4) 54541
of this section, this section applies to any community school that 54542
meets one of the following criteria after July 1, 2009, but before 54543
July 1, 2011:54544

       (a) The school does not offer a grade level higher than three 54545
and has been declared to be in a state of academic emergency under 54546
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for three of the four most 54547
recent school years.54548

       (b) The school satisfies all of the following conditions:54549

       (i) The school offers any of grade levels four to eight but 54550
does not offer a grade level higher than nine.54551

       (ii) The school has been declared to be in a state of 54552
academic emergency under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for 54553
two of the three most recent school years.54554

       (iii) In at least two of the three most recent school years, 54555
the school showed less than one standard year of academic growth 54556
in either reading or mathematics, as determined by the department 54557
of education in accordance with rules adopted under division (A) 54558
of section 3302.021 of the Revised Code.54559

       (c) The school offers any of grade levels ten to twelve and 54560
has been declared to be in a state of academic emergency under 54561
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for three of the four most 54562
recent school years.54563

       (2) Except as provided in division (A)(4) of this section, 54564
this section applies to any community school that meets one of the 54565
following criteria after July 1, 2011, but before July 1, 2013:54566

       (a) The school does not offer a grade level higher than three 54567
and has been declared to be in a state of academic emergency under 54568
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for two of the three most 54569
recent school years.54570

       (b) The school satisfies all of the following conditions:54571

       (i) The school offers any of grade levels four to eight but 54572
does not offer a grade level higher than nine.54573

       (ii) The school has been declared to be in a state of 54574
academic emergency under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for 54575
two of the three most recent school years.54576

       (iii) In at least two of the three most recent school years, 54577
the school showed less than one standard year of academic growth 54578
in either reading or mathematics, as determined by the department 54579
in accordance with rules adopted under division (A) of section 54580
3302.021 of the Revised Code.54581

       (c) The school offers any of grade levels ten to twelve and 54582
has been declared to be in a state of academic emergency under 54583
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code for two of the three most 54584
recent school years.54585

       (3) Except as provided in division (A)(4) of this section, 54586
this section applies to any community school that meets one of the 54587
following criteria on or after July 1, 2013:54588

        (a) The school does not offer a grade level higher than three 54589
and, for two of the three most recent school years, satisfies any 54590
of the following criteria:54591

        (i) The school has been declared to be in a state of academic 54592
emergency under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code, as it existed 54593
prior to the effective date of this amendmentMarch 22, 2013;54594

        (ii) The school has received a grade of "F" in improving 54595
literacy in grades kindergarten through three under division 54596
(B)(1)(j) or (C)(1)(k) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code;54597

        (iii) The school has received an overall grade of "F" under 54598
division (C) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code.54599

        (b) The school offers any of grade levels four to eight but 54600
does not offer a grade level higher than nine and, for two of the 54601
three most recent school years, satisfies any of the following 54602
criteria:54603

        (i) The school has been declared to be in a state of academic 54604
emergency under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code, as it existed 54605
prior to the effective date of this amendmentMarch 22, 2013, and 54606
the school showed less than one standard year of academic growth 54607
in either reading or mathematics, as determined by the department 54608
in accordance with rules adopted under division (A) of section 54609
3302.021 of the Revised Code;54610

        (ii) The school has received a grade of "F" for the 54611
performance index score under division (A)(1)(b), (B)(1)(b), or 54612
(C)(1)(b) and a grade of "F" for the value-added progress 54613
dimension under division (A)(1)(e), (B)(1)(e), or (C)(1)(e) of 54614
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code;54615

        (iii) The school has received an overall grade of "F" under 54616
division (C) and a grade of "F" for the value-added progress 54617
dimension under division (C)(1)(e) of section 3302.03 of the 54618
Revised Code.54619

        (c) The school offers any of grade levels ten to twelve and, 54620
for two of the three most recent school years, satisfies any of 54621
the following criteria:54622

        (i) The school has been declared to be in a state of academic 54623
emergency under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code, as it existed 54624
prior to the effective date of this amendmentMarch 22, 2013;54625

        (ii) The school has received a grade of "F" for the 54626
performance index score under division (A)(1)(b), (B)(1)(b), or 54627
(C)(1)(b) and has not met annual measurable objectives under 54628
division (A)(1)(a), (B)(1)(a), or (C)(1)(a) of section 3302.03 of 54629
the Revised Code;54630

        (iii) The school has received an overall grade of "F" under 54631
division (C) and a grade of "F" for the value-added progress 54632
dimension under division (C)(1)(e) of section 3302.03 of the 54633
Revised Code.54634

       For purposes of division (A)(3) of this section only, the 54635
value-added progress dimension for a community school shall be 54636
calculated using assessment scores for only those students to whom 54637
the school has administered the achievement assessments prescribed 54638
by section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code for at least the two most 54639
recent school years.54640

        (4) This section does not apply to either of the following:54641

       (a) Any community school in which a majority of the students 54642
are enrolled in a dropout prevention and recovery program that is 54643
operated by the school. Rather, such schools shall be subject to 54644
closure only as provided in section 3314.351 of the Revised Code. 54645
However, prior to July 1, 2014, a community school in which a 54646
majority of the students are enrolled in a dropout prevention and 54647
recovery program shall be exempt from this section only if it has 54648
been granted a waiver under section 3314.36 of the Revised Code.54649

       (b) Any community school in which a majority of the enrolled 54650
students are children with disabilities receiving special 54651
education and related services in accordance with Chapter 3323. of 54652
the Revised Code.54653

       (B) Any community school to which this section applies shall 54654
permanently close at the conclusion of the school year in which 54655
the school first becomes subject to this section. The sponsor and 54656
governing authority of the school shall comply with all procedures 54657
for closing a community school adopted by the department under 54658
division (E) of section 3314.015 of the Revised Code. The 54659
governing authority of the school shall not enter into a contract 54660
with any other sponsor under section 3314.03 of the Revised Code 54661
after the school closes.54662

       (C) In accordance with division (B) of section 3314.012 of 54663
the Revised Code, the department shall not consider the 54664
performance ratings assigned to a community school for its first 54665
two years of operation when determining whether the school meets 54666
the criteria prescribed by division (A)(1) or (2) of this section.54667

       Sec. 3315.40.  The board of education of a city, local, 54668
exempted village, or joint vocational school district or the 54669
governing board of any educational service center may establish an 54670
education foundation fund. Moneys in the fund shall consist of 54671
proceeds paid into the fund under division (B) of section 3313.36 54672
of the Revised Code. In addition, by resolution adopted by a 54673
majority of its members, a city, local, exempted village, or joint 54674
vocational board may annually direct the school district treasurer 54675
to pay into the education foundation fund an amount from the 54676
school district general fund not to exceed one-half of one per 54677
cent of the total appropriations of the school district as 54678
estimated by the board at the time the resolution is adopted or as 54679
set forth in the annual appropriation measure as most recently 54680
amended or supplemented; and any governing board, by resolution 54681
adopted by a majority of its members, may annually direct the 54682
service center treasurer to pay into the education foundation fund 54683
an amount not to exceed one-half of one per cent of the funds 54684
received by the governing board pursuant to an agreement entered 54685
into under section 3317.113313.843 or 3313.845 of the Revised 54686
Code.54687

       Income from the investment of moneys in the fund shall be 54688
paid into the fund. A board, by resolution adopted by a majority 54689
of its members, may accept a trust created under section 3315.41 54690
of the Revised Code for the investment of money in the educational 54691
foundation fund and direct the school district or service center 54692
treasurer to pay to the trustee, the initial trust principal 54693
contemplated by the instrument creating the trust. A board that 54694
has accepted a trust created under section 3315.41 of the Revised 54695
Code may do any of the following by resolution adopted by a 54696
majority of its members: direct the school district or service 54697
center treasurer to pay additional amounts to the trust principal, 54698
amend the trust, revoke the trust, or provide for payment of 54699
compensation to the trustee.54700

       Moneys in the fund shall be expended only by resolution 54701
adopted by a majority of the members of the board for operating or 54702
capital costs of any existing or new and innovative program 54703
designed to enhance or promote education within the district or 54704
service center, such as scholarships for students or teachers.54705

       A board of education or governing board may appoint a 54706
committee of administrators to administer the education foundation 54707
fund and to make recommendations for the use of the fund. Members 54708
of the committee shall serve at the discretion of the appointing 54709
board. Members shall receive no compensation, but may be 54710
reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses incurred in the 54711
performance of their official duties.54712

       Sec. 3315.42.  Sections 3315.40 and 3315.41 of the Revised 54713
Code do not apply to either of the following:54714

       (A) A school district that has received funds for a project 54715
under Chapter 3318. of the Revised Code, so long as the purchase 54716
price to be paid by the board for the state's interest in the 54717
project has not been paid;54718

       (B) A school district that has an outstanding loan under 54719
section 3313.483 or sections 3317.62 to 3317.64 of the Revised 54720
Code.54721

       Sec. 3316.041.  (A) Notwithstanding any provision of Chapter 54722
133. or sections 3313.483 to 3313.48113313.4810 of the Revised 54723
Code, and subject to the approval of the superintendent of public 54724
instruction, a school district that is in a state of fiscal watch 54725
declared under section 3316.03 of the Revised Code may restructure 54726
or refinance loans obtained or in the process of being obtained 54727
under section 3313.483 of the Revised Code if all of the following 54728
requirements are met:54729

       (1) The operating deficit certified for the school district 54730
for the current or preceding fiscal year under section 3313.483 of 54731
the Revised Code exceeds fifteen per cent of the district's 54732
general revenue fund for the fiscal year preceding the year for 54733
which the certification of the operating deficit is made.54734

       (2) The school district voters have, during the period of the 54735
fiscal watch, approved the levy of a tax under section 718.09, 54736
718.10, 5705.194, 5705.21, 5748.02, or 5748.09 of the Revised Code 54737
that is not a renewal or replacement levy, or a levy under section 54738
5705.199 of the Revised Code, and that will provide new operating 54739
revenue.54740

       (3) The board of education of the school district has adopted 54741
or amended the financial plan required by section 3316.04 of the 54742
Revised Code to reflect the restructured or refinanced loans, and 54743
sets forth the means by which the district will bring projected 54744
operating revenues and expenditures, and projected debt service 54745
obligations, into balance for the life of any such loan.54746

       (B) Subject to the approval of the superintendent of public 54747
instruction, the school district may issue securities to evidence 54748
the restructuring or refinancing authorized by this section. Such 54749
securities may extend the original period for repayment not to 54750
exceed ten years, and may alter the frequency and amount of 54751
repayments, interest or other financing charges, and other terms 54752
or agreements under which the loans were originally contracted, 54753
provided the loans received under sections 3313.483 of the Revised 54754
Code are repaid from funds the district would otherwise receive 54755
under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code, as required under 54756
division (E)(3) of section 3313.483 of the Revised Code. 54757
Securities issued for the purpose of restructuring or refinancing 54758
under this section shall be repaid in equal payments and at equal 54759
intervals over the term of the debt and are not eligible to be 54760
included in any subsequent proposal to restructure or refinance.54761

       (C) Unless the district is declared to be in a state of 54762
fiscal emergency under division (D) of section 3316.04 of the 54763
Revised Code, a school district shall remain in a state of fiscal 54764
watch for the duration of the repayment period of any loan 54765
restructured or refinanced under this section.54766

       Sec. 3316.06.  (A) Within one hundred twenty days after the 54767
first meeting of a school district financial planning and 54768
supervision commission, the commission shall adopt a financial 54769
recovery plan regarding the school district for which the 54770
commission was created. During the formulation of the plan, the 54771
commission shall seek appropriate input from the school district 54772
board and from the community. This plan shall contain the 54773
following:54774

       (1) Actions to be taken to:54775

       (a) Eliminate all fiscal emergency conditions declared to 54776
exist pursuant to division (B) of section 3316.03 of the Revised 54777
Code;54778

       (b) Satisfy any judgments, past-due accounts payable, and all 54779
past-due and payable payroll and fringe benefits;54780

       (c) Eliminate the deficits in all deficit funds, except that 54781
any prior year deficits in the capital and maintenance fund 54782
established pursuant to section 3315.18 of the Revised Code shall 54783
be forgiven;54784

       (d) Restore to special funds any moneys from such funds that 54785
were used for purposes not within the purposes of such funds, or 54786
borrowed from such funds by the purchase of debt obligations of 54787
the school district with the moneys of such funds, or missing from 54788
the special funds and not accounted for, if any;54789

       (e) Balance the budget, avoid future deficits in any funds, 54790
and maintain on a current basis payments of payroll, fringe 54791
benefits, and all accounts;54792

       (f) Avoid any fiscal emergency condition in the future;54793

       (g) Restore the ability of the school district to market 54794
long-term general obligation bonds under provisions of law 54795
applicable to school districts generally.54796

       (2) The management structure that will enable the school 54797
district to take the actions enumerated in division (A)(1) of this 54798
section. The plan shall specify the level of fiscal and management 54799
control that the commission will exercise within the school 54800
district during the period of fiscal emergency, and shall 54801
enumerate respectively, the powers and duties of the commission 54802
and the powers and duties of the school board during that period. 54803
The commission may elect to assume any of the powers and duties of 54804
the school board it considers necessary, including all powers 54805
related to personnel, curriculum, and legal issues in order to 54806
successfully implement the actions described in division (A)(1) of 54807
this section.54808

       (3) The target dates for the commencement, progress upon, and 54809
completion of the actions enumerated in division (A)(1) of this 54810
section and a reasonable period of time expected to be required to 54811
implement the plan. The commission shall prepare a reasonable time 54812
schedule for progress toward and achievement of the requirements 54813
for the plan, and the plan shall be consistent with that time 54814
schedule.54815

       (4) The amount and purpose of any issue of debt obligations 54816
that will be issued, together with assurances that any such debt 54817
obligations that will be issued will not exceed debt limits 54818
supported by appropriate certifications by the fiscal officer of 54819
the school district and the county auditor. Debt obligations 54820
issued pursuant to section 133.301 of the Revised Code shall 54821
include assurances that such debt shall be in an amount not to 54822
exceed the amount certified under division (B) of such section. If 54823
the commission considers it necessary in order to maintain or 54824
improve educational opportunities of pupils in the school 54825
district, the plan may include a proposal to restructure or 54826
refinance outstanding debt obligations incurred by the board under 54827
section 3313.483 of the Revised Code contingent upon the approval, 54828
during the period of the fiscal emergency, by district voters of a 54829
tax levied under section 718.09, 718.10, 5705.194, 5705.21, 54830
5748.02, 5748.08, or 5748.09 of the Revised Code that is not a 54831
renewal or replacement levy, or a levy under section 5705.199 of 54832
the Revised Code, and that will provide new operating revenue. 54833
Notwithstanding any provision of Chapter 133. or sections 3313.483 54834
to 3313.48113313.4810 of the Revised Code, following the required 54835
approval of the district voters and with the approval of the 54836
commission, the school district may issue securities to evidence 54837
the restructuring or refinancing. Those securities may extend the 54838
original period for repayment, not to exceed ten years, and may 54839
alter the frequency and amount of repayments, interest or other 54840
financing charges, and other terms of agreements under which the 54841
debt originally was contracted, at the discretion of the 54842
commission, provided that any loans received pursuant to section 54843
3313.483 of the Revised Code shall be paid from funds the district 54844
would otherwise receive under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code, 54845
as required under division (E)(3) of section 3313.483 of the 54846
Revised Code. The securities issued for the purpose of 54847
restructuring or refinancing the debt shall be repaid in equal 54848
payments and at equal intervals over the term of the debt and are 54849
not eligible to be included in any subsequent proposal for the 54850
purpose of restructuring or refinancing debt under this section.54851

       (5) An evaluation of the feasibility of entering into shared 54852
services agreements with other political subdivisions for the 54853
joint exercise of any power, performance of any function, or 54854
rendering of any service, if so authorized by statute.54855

       (B) Any financial recovery plan may be amended subsequent to 54856
its adoption. Each financial recovery plan shall be updated 54857
annually.54858

       (C) Each school district financial planning and supervision 54859
commission shall submit the financial recovery plan it adopts or 54860
updates under this section to the state superintendent of public 54861
instruction for approval immediately following its adoption or 54862
updating. The state superintendent shall evaluate the plan and 54863
either approve or disapprove it within thirty calendar days from 54864
the date of its submission. If the plan is disapproved, the state 54865
superintendent shall recommend modifications that will render it 54866
acceptable. No financial planning and supervision commission shall 54867
implement a financial recovery plan that is adopted or updated on 54868
or after April 10, 2001, unless the state superintendent has 54869
approved it.54870

       Sec. 3317.01.  As used in this section, "school district," 54871
unless otherwise specified, means any city, local, exempted 54872
village, joint vocational, or cooperative education school 54873
district and any educational service center.54874

       This chapter shall be administered by the state board of 54875
education. The superintendent of public instruction shall 54876
calculate the amounts payable to each school district and shall 54877
certify the amounts payable to each eligible district to the 54878
treasurer of the district as provided by this chapter. As soon as 54879
possible after such amounts are calculated, the superintendent 54880
shall certify to the treasurer of each school district the 54881
district's adjusted charge-off increase, as defined in section 54882
5705.211 of the Revised Code. Certification of moneys pursuant to 54883
this section shall include the amounts payable to each school 54884
building, at a frequency determined by the superintendent, for 54885
each subgroup of students, as defined in section 3317.40 of the 54886
Revised Code, receiving services, provided for by state funding, 54887
from the district or school. No moneys shall be distributed 54888
pursuant to this chapter without the approval of the controlling 54889
board.54890

       The state board of education shall, in accordance with 54891
appropriations made by the general assembly, meet the financial 54892
obligations of this chapter.54893

       Moneys distributed pursuant to this chapter shall be 54894
calculated based on the annualized average of the monthly 54895
certifications required under section 3317.03 of the Revised Code54896
and paid on a fiscal year basis, beginning with the first day of 54897
July and extending through the thirtieth day of June. The moneys 54898
appropriated for each fiscal year shall be distributed 54899
periodically to each school district unless otherwise provided 54900
for. The state board, in June of each year, shall submit to the 54901
controlling board the state board's year-end distributions 54902
pursuant to this chapter.54903

       Except as otherwise provided, payments under this chapter 54904
shall be made only to those school districts in which:54905

       (A) The school district, except for any educational service 54906
center and any joint vocational or cooperative education school 54907
district, levies for current operating expenses at least twenty 54908
mills. Levies for joint vocational or cooperative education school 54909
districts or county school financing districts, limited to or to 54910
the extent apportioned to current expenses, shall be included in 54911
this qualification requirement. School district income tax levies 54912
under Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code, limited to or to the 54913
extent apportioned to current operating expenses, shall be 54914
included in this qualification requirement to the extent 54915
determined by the tax commissioner under division (D) of section 54916
3317.021 of the Revised Code.54917

       (B) The school year next preceding the fiscal year for which 54918
such payments are authorized meets the requirement of section 54919
3313.48 or 3313.481 of the Revised Code, with regard to the 54920
minimum number of days or hours school must be open for 54921
instruction with pupils in attendance, for individualized 54922
parent-teacher conference and reporting periods, and for 54923
professional meetings of teachers. This requirement shall be 54924
waived by the superintendent of public instruction if it had been 54925
necessary for a school to be closed because of disease epidemic, 54926
hazardous weather conditions, law enforcement emergencies, 54927
inoperability of school buses or other equipment necessary to the 54928
school's operation, damage to a school building, or other 54929
temporary circumstances due to utility failure rendering the 54930
school building unfit for school use, provided that for those 54931
school districts operating pursuant to section 3313.48 of the 54932
Revised Code the number of days the school was actually open for 54933
instruction with pupils in attendance and for individualized 54934
parent-teacher conference and reporting periods is not less than 54935
one hundred seventy-five, or for those school districts operating 54936
on a trimester plan the number of days the school was actually 54937
open for instruction with pupils in attendance not less than 54938
seventy-nine days in any trimester, for those school districts 54939
operating on a quarterly plan the number of days the school was 54940
actually open for instruction with pupils in attendance not less 54941
than fifty-nine days in any quarter, or for those school districts 54942
operating on a pentamester plan the number of days the school was 54943
actually open for instruction with pupils in attendance not less 54944
than forty-four days in any pentamester.54945

       A school district shall not be considered to have failed to 54946
comply with this division or section 3313.481 of the Revised Code54947
because schools were open for instruction but either twelfth grade 54948
students were excused from attendance for up to the equivalent of54949
three school days or only a portion of the kindergarten students 54950
were in attendance for up to the equivalent of three school days 54951
in order to allow for the gradual orientation to school of such 54952
students.54953

       The superintendent of public instruction shall waive the 54954
requirements of this section with reference to the minimum number 54955
of days or hours school must be in session with pupils in 54956
attendance for the school year succeeding the school year in which 54957
a board of education initiates a plan of operation pursuant to 54958
section 3313.481 of the Revised Code. The minimum requirements of 54959
this section shall again be applicable to such a district 54960
beginning with the school year commencing the second July 54961
succeeding the initiation of one such plan, and for each school 54962
year thereafter.54963

       A school district shall not be considered to have failed to 54964
comply with this division or section 3313.48 or 3313.481 of the 54965
Revised Code because schools were open for instruction but the 54966
length of the regularly scheduled school day, for any number of 54967
days during the school year, was reduced by not more than two 54968
hours due to hazardous weather conditions.54969

       A board of education or governing board of an educational 54970
service center which has not conformed with other law and the 54971
rules pursuant thereto, shall not participate in the distribution 54972
of funds authorized by this chapter, except for good and 54973
sufficient reason established to the satisfaction of the state 54974
board of education and the state controlling board.54975

       All funds allocated to school districts under this chapter, 54976
except those specifically allocated for other purposes, shall be 54977
used to pay current operating expenses only.54978

       Sec. 3317.013. Except for a preschool child with a 54979
disability for whom a scholarship has been awarded under section 54980
3310.41 of the Revised Code, this section does not apply to 54981
preschool children with disabilities.54982

       Analysis of special education cost data has resulted in a 54983
finding that the average special education additional cost per 54984
pupil, including the costs of related services, can be expressed 54985
as a multiple of the formula amount. The multiples for the 54986
following categories of special education programs, as these 54987
programs are defined for purposes of Chapter 3323. of the Revised 54988
Code, and adjusted as provided in this section, are as follows:54989

       (A) A multiple of 0.2906 for students whose primary or only 54990
identified disability is a speech and language disability, as this 54991
term is defined pursuant to Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code;54992

       (B) A multiple of 0.7374 for students identified as specific 54993
learning disabled or developmentally disabled, as these terms are 54994
defined pursuant to Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code, or54995
identified as having an other health impairment-minor, or 54996
identified as a preschool child who is developmentally delayed;54997

       (C) A multiple of 1.7716 for students identified as hearing 54998
disabled or severe behavior disabled, as these terms are defined 54999
pursuant to Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code;55000

       (D) A multiple of 2.3643 for students identified as vision 55001
impaired, as this term is defined pursuant to Chapter 3323. of the 55002
Revised Code, or as having an other health impairment-major;55003

       (E) A multiple of 3.2022 for students identified as 55004
orthopedically disabled or as having multiple disabilities, as 55005
these terms are defined pursuant to Chapter 3323. of the Revised 55006
Code;55007

       (F) A multiple of 4.7205 for students identified as autistic, 55008
having traumatic brain injuries, or as both visually and hearing 55009
impaired, as these terms are defined pursuant to Chapter 3323. of 55010
the Revised Code.55011

       In fiscal years 2008, 2009, 2010, 2011, 2012, and 2013, the55012
The multiples specified in divisions (A) to (F) of this section 55013
shall be adjusted by multiplying them by 0.90.55014

       Sec.  3317.014.  The career-technical education additional 55015
cost per pupil for each student enrolled in career-technical 55016
education programs approved by the department of education in 55017
accordance with rules adopted under section 3313.90 of the Revised 55018
Code can be expressed as a multiple of the formula amount. The 55019
multiples for the following categories of career-technical 55020
education programs are as follows:55021

       (A) A multiple of 0.76 for each student enrolled in 55022
career-technical education workforce development programs in 55023
environmental and agricultural systems, construction technologies, 55024
engineering and science technologies, finance, health science, 55025
information technology, and manufacturing technologies;55026

       (B) A multiple of 0.68 for each student enrolled in workforce 55027
development programs in business and administration, hospitality 55028
and tourism, human services, law and public safety, and 55029
transportation systems;55030

       (C) A multiple of 0.43 for students enrolled in workforce 55031
development career-based intervention programs;55032

       (D) A multiple of 0.31 for students enrolled in workforce 55033
development programs in arts and communications, education and 55034
training, marketing, workforce development academics, and career 55035
development;55036

       (E) A multiple of 0.24 for students enrolled in family and 55037
consumer science programs.55038

       Career-technical education associated services costs can be 55039
expressed as a multiple of 0.05 of the formula amount.55040

       Sec. 3317.016.  The amounts for limited English proficient 55041
students shall be as follows:55042

       (A) An amount of $1,500, in fiscal year 2014, and $1,515, in 55043
fiscal year 2015, for each student who has been enrolled in 55044
schools in the United States for 180 school days or less and was 55045
not previously exempted from taking the spring administration of 55046
either of the state's English language arts assessments prescribed 55047
by section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code (reading or writing).55048

       (B) An amount of $1,125, in fiscal year 2014, and $1,136, in 55049
fiscal year 2015, for each student who has been enrolled in 55050
schools in the United States for more than 180 school days or was 55051
previously exempted from taking the spring administration of 55052
either of the state's English language arts assessments prescribed 55053
by section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code (reading or writing).55054

       (C) An amount of $750, in fiscal year 2014, and $758, in 55055
fiscal year 2015, for each student who does not qualify for 55056
inclusion under division (A) or (B) of this section and is in a 55057
trial-mainstream period, as defined by the department.55058

       Sec. 3317.017.  The department of education shall compute a 55059
school district's state share index as follows:55060

       (A) Calculate the district's valuation index, which equals 55061
the following quotient:55062

       (The district's three-year average valuation / the district's 55063
total ADM) / (the statewide three-year average valuation for 55064
school districts with a total ADM greater than zero / the 55065
statewide total ADM)55066

       (B) Calculate the district's median income index, which 55067
equals the following quotient:55068

       (The district's median Ohio adjusted gross income / the 55069
median of the median Ohio adjusted gross income of all districts 55070
statewide)55071

       (C) Determine the district's wealth index as follows:55072

       (1) If the district's median income index is less than the 55073
district's valuation index, then the district's wealth index shall 55074
be equal to [(1/3 X the district's median income index) + (2/3 X 55075
the district's valuation index)].55076

       (2) If the district's median income index is greater than or 55077
equal to the district's valuation index, then the district's 55078
wealth index shall be equal to the district's valuation index.55079

       (D) Determine the district's state share index as follows:55080

       (1) If the district's wealth index is less than or equal to 55081
0.35, then the district's state share index shall be equal to 55082
0.90.55083

       (2) If the district's wealth index is greater than 0.35 but 55084
less than or equal to 0.90, then the district's state share index 55085
shall be equal to {0.40 X [(0.90 – the district's wealth index) / 55086
0.55]} + 0.50.55087

       (3) If the district's wealth index is greater than 0.90 but 55088
less than 1.8, then the district's state share index shall be 55089
equal to {0.45 X [(1.8 – the district's wealth index) / 0.9]} + 55090
0.05.55091

       (4) If the district's wealth index is greater than or equal 55092
to 1.8, then the district's state share index shall be equal to 55093
0.05.55094

       (E)(1) For each school district for which the tax-exempt 55095
value of the district, as certified under division (A)(4) of 55096
section 3317.021 of the Revised Code, equals or exceeds thirty per 55097
cent of the potential value of the district, the department shall 55098
calculate the difference between the district's tax-exempt value 55099
and thirty per cent of the district's potential value. For this 55100
purpose, the "potential value" of a school district is the 55101
three-year average valuation of the district plus the tax-exempt 55102
value of the district.55103

       (2) For each school district to which division (E)(1) of this 55104
section applies, the department shall adjust the three-year 55105
average valuation used in the calculation under division (A) of 55106
this section by subtracting from it the amount calculated under 55107
division (E)(1) of this section.55108

       (F) When performing the calculations required under this 55109
section, the department shall not round to fewer than four decimal 55110
places.55111

        For purposes of these calculations for fiscal years 2014 and 55112
2015, "three-year average valuation" means the average of total 55113
taxable value for fiscal years 2012, 2013, and 2014; "total ADM" 55114
means the total ADM for fiscal year 2014; "median Ohio adjusted 55115
gross income" means the median Ohio adjusted gross income for tax 55116
year 2011; and "tax-exempt value" means the tax-exempt value for 55117
fiscal year 2014.55118

       Sec. 3317.02.  As used in this chapter:55119

       (A)(1) "Category one career-technical education ADM" means 55120
the average daily membership of students receiving 55121
career-technical education services described in division (A) of 55122
section 3317.014 of the Revised Code and reported under division 55123
(B)(11) or (D)(2)(h) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.55124

       (2) "Category two career-technical education ADM" means the 55125
average daily membership of students receiving career-technical 55126
education services described in division (B) of section 3317.014 55127
of the Revised Code and reported under division (B)(12) or 55128
(D)(2)(i) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.55129

       (3) "Category three career-technical education ADM" means the 55130
average daily membership of students receiving career-technical 55131
education services described in division (C) of section 3317.014 55132
of the Revised Code and reported under division (B)(13) or 55133
(D)(2)(j) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.55134

       (4) "Category four career-technical education ADM" means the 55135
average daily membership of students receiving career-technical 55136
education services described in division (D) of section 3317.014 55137
of the Revised Code and reported under division (B)(14) or 55138
(D)(2)(k) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.55139

       (5) "Category five career-technical education ADM" means the 55140
average daily membership of students receiving career-technical 55141
education services described in division (E) of section 3317.014 55142
of the Revised Code and reported under division (B)(15) or 55143
(D)(2)(l) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.55144

       (B)(1) "Category one limited English proficient ADM" means 55145
the average daily membership of limited English proficient 55146
students described in division (A) of section 3317.016 of the 55147
Revised Code and reported under division (B)(16) or (D)(2)(m) of 55148
section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.55149

       (2) "Category two limited English proficient ADM" means the 55150
average daily membership of limited English proficient students 55151
described in division (B) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code 55152
and reported under division (B)(17) or (D)(2)(n) of section 55153
3317.03 of the Revised Code.55154

       (3) "Category three limited English proficient ADM" means the 55155
average daily membership of limited English proficient students 55156
described in division (C) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code 55157
and reported under division (B)(18) or (D)(2)(o) of section 55158
3317.03 of the Revised Code.55159

       (C)(1) "Category one special education ADM" means the average 55160
daily membership of children with disabilities receiving special 55161
education services for the disability specified in division (A) of 55162
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code and reported under division 55163
(B)(5) or (D)(2)(b) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.55164

       (2) "Category two special education ADM" means the average 55165
daily membership of children with disabilities receiving special 55166
education services for those disabilities specified in division 55167
(B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code and reported under 55168
division (B)(6) or (D)(2)(c) of section 3317.03 of the Revised 55169
Code.55170

       (3) "Category three special education ADM" means the average 55171
daily membership of students receiving special education services 55172
for those disabilities specified in division (C) of section 55173
3317.013 of the Revised Code, and reported under division (B)(7) 55174
or (D)(2)(d) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.55175

       (4) "Category four special education ADM" means the average 55176
daily membership of students receiving special education services 55177
for those disabilities specified in division (D) of section 55178
3317.013 of the Revised Code and reported under division (B)(8) or 55179
(D)(2)(e) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.55180

       (5) "Category five special education ADM" means the average 55181
daily membership of students receiving special education services 55182
for the disabilities specified in division (E) of section 3317.013 55183
of the Revised Code and reported under division (B)(9) or 55184
(D)(2)(f) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.55185

       (6) "Category six special education ADM" means the average 55186
daily membership of students receiving special education services 55187
for the disabilities specified in division (F) of section 3317.013 55188
of the Revised Code and reported under division (B)(10) or 55189
(D)(2)(g) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.55190

       (D) "County DD board" means a county board of developmental 55191
disabilities.55192

       (E) "Economically disadvantaged index for a school district" 55193
means the square of the quotient of that district's percentage of 55194
students in its total ADM who are identified as economically 55195
disadvantaged as defined by the department of education, divided 55196
by the statewide percentage of students identified as economically 55197
disadvantaged.55198

       (F)(1) "Formula ADM" means, for a city, local, or exempted 55199
village school district, the average daily membership described in 55200
division (A) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, as verified 55201
by the superintendent of public instruction and adjusted if so 55202
ordered under division (K) of that section, and as further 55203
adjusted by counting only twenty per cent of the number of joint 55204
vocational school district students counted under division (A)(3) 55205
of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.55206

       (2) "Formula ADM" means, for a joint vocational school 55207
district, the final number verified by the superintendent of 55208
public instruction, based on the number reported pursuant to 55209
division (D) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, as adjusted, 55210
if so ordered, under division (K) of that section.55211

       (G) "Formula amount" means $5,732, for fiscal year 2014, and 55212
$5,789, for fiscal year 2015.55213

       (H) "FTE basis" means a count of students based on full-time 55214
equivalency, in accordance with rules adopted by the department of 55215
education pursuant to section 3317.03 of the Revised Code. In 55216
adopting its rules under this division, the department shall 55217
provide for counting any student in category one, two, three, 55218
four, five, or six special education ADM or in category one, two, 55219
three, four, or five career technical education ADM in the same 55220
proportion the student is counted in formula ADM.55221

       (I) "Internet- or computer-based community school" has the 55222
same meaning as in section 3314.02 of the Revised Code.55223

       (J) "Medically fragile child" means a child to whom all of 55224
the following apply:55225

       (1) The child requires the services of a doctor of medicine 55226
or osteopathic medicine at least once a week due to the 55227
instability of the child's medical condition.55228

       (2) The child requires the services of a registered nurse on 55229
a daily basis.55230

       (3) The child is at risk of institutionalization in a 55231
hospital, skilled nursing facility, or intermediate care facility 55232
for individuals with intellectual disabilities.55233

       (K)(1) A child may be identified as having an "other health 55234
impairment-major" if the child's condition meets the definition of 55235
"other health impaired" established in rules previously adopted by 55236
the state board of education and if either of the following apply:55237

       (a) The child is identified as having a medical condition 55238
that is among those listed by the superintendent of public 55239
instruction as conditions where a substantial majority of cases 55240
fall within the definition of "medically fragile child."55241

       (b) The child is determined by the superintendent of public 55242
instruction to be a medically fragile child. A school district 55243
superintendent may petition the superintendent of public 55244
instruction for a determination that a child is a medically 55245
fragile child.55246

       (2) A child may be identified as having an "other health 55247
impairment-minor" if the child's condition meets the definition of 55248
"other health impaired" established in rules previously adopted by 55249
the state board of education but the child's condition does not 55250
meet either of the conditions specified in division (K)(1)(a) or 55251
(b) of this section.55252

       (L) "Preschool child with a disability" means a child with a 55253
disability, as defined in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code, who 55254
is at least age three but is not of compulsory school age, as 55255
defined in section 3321.01 of the Revised Code, and who is not 55256
currently enrolled in kindergarten.55257

       (M) "Preschool scholarship ADM" means the number of preschool 55258
children with disabilities reported under division (B)(3)(h) of 55259
section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.55260

       (N) "Related services" includes:55261

       (1) Child study, special education supervisors and 55262
coordinators, speech and hearing services, adaptive physical 55263
development services, occupational or physical therapy, teacher 55264
assistants for children with disabilities whose disabilities are 55265
described in division (B) of section 3317.013 or division (B)(3) 55266
of this section, behavioral intervention, interpreter services, 55267
work study, nursing services, and specialized integrative services 55268
as those terms are defined by the department;55269

       (2) Speech and language services provided to any student with 55270
a disability, including any student whose primary or only 55271
disability is a speech and language disability;55272

       (3) Any related service not specifically covered by other 55273
state funds but specified in federal law, including but not 55274
limited to, audiology and school psychological services;55275

       (4) Any service included in units funded under former 55276
division (O)(1) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code;55277

       (5) Any other related service needed by children with 55278
disabilities in accordance with their individualized education 55279
programs.55280

       (O) "School district," unless otherwise specified, means 55281
city, local, and exempted village school districts.55282

       (P) "State education aid" has the same meaning as in section 55283
5751.20 of the Revised Code.55284

       (Q) "State share index" means the state share index 55285
calculated for a district under section 3317.017 of the Revised 55286
Code.55287

       (R) "Taxes charged and payable" means the taxes charged and 55288
payable against real and public utility property after making the 55289
reduction required by section 319.301 of the Revised Code, plus 55290
the taxes levied against tangible personal property.55291

       (S) "Total ADM" means, for a city, local, or exempted village 55292
school district, the average daily membership described in 55293
division (A) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, as verified 55294
by the superintendent of public instruction and adjusted if so 55295
ordered under division (K) of that section.55296

       (T) "Total career-technical education weight" for a district 55297
means the sum of the following:55298

       (1) The district's category one career-technical education 55299
ADM multiplied by the multiple specified in division (A) of 55300
section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;55301

       (2) The district's category two career-technical education 55302
ADM multiplied by the multiple specified in division (B) of 55303
section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;55304

       (3) The district's category three career-technical education 55305
ADM multiplied by the multiple specified in division (C) of 55306
section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;55307

       (4) The district's category four career-technical education 55308
ADM multiplied by the multiple specified in division (D) of 55309
section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;55310

       (5) The district's category five career-technical education 55311
ADM multiplied by the multiple specified in division (E) of 55312
section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.55313

       (U) "Total special education ADM" means the sum of categories 55314
one through six special education ADM.55315

       (V) "Total special education weight" for a district means the 55316
sum of the following:55317

       (1) The district's category one special education ADM 55318
multiplied by the multiple specified in division (A) of section 55319
3317.013 of the Revised Code;55320

       (2) The district's category two special education ADM 55321
multiplied by the multiple specified in division (B) of section 55322
3317.013 of the Revised Code;55323

       (3) The district's category three special education ADM 55324
multiplied by the multiple specified in division (C) of section 55325
3317.013 of the Revised Code; 55326

       (4) The district's category four special education ADM 55327
multiplied by the multiple specified in division (D) of section 55328
3317.013 of the Revised Code;55329

       (5) The district's category five special education ADM 55330
multiplied by the multiple specified in division (E) of section 55331
3317.013 of the Revised Code;55332

       (6) The district's category six special education ADM 55333
multiplied by the multiple specified in division (F) of section 55334
3317.013 of the Revised Code.55335

       (W) "Total taxable value" means the sum of the amounts 55336
certified for a city, local, exempted village, or joint vocational 55337
school district under divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 3317.021 55338
of the Revised Code.55339

       Sec. 3317.021.  (A) On or before the first day of June of 55340
each year, the tax commissioner shall certify to the department of 55341
education and the office of budget and management the information 55342
described in divisions (A)(1) to (7) of this section for each 55343
city, exempted village, and local school district, and the 55344
information required by divisions (A)(1) and (2) of this section 55345
for each joint vocational school district, and it shall be used, 55346
along with the information certified under division (B) of this 55347
section, in making the computations for the district under this 55348
chapter.55349

       (1) The taxable value of real and public utility real 55350
property in the school district subject to taxation in the 55351
preceding tax year, by class and by county of location.55352

       (2) The taxable value of tangible personal property, 55353
including public utility personal property, subject to taxation by 55354
the district for the preceding tax year.55355

       (3)(a) The total property tax rate and total taxes charged 55356
and payable for the current expenses for the preceding tax year 55357
and the total property tax rate and the total taxes charged and 55358
payable to a joint vocational district for the preceding tax year 55359
that are limited to or to the extent apportioned to current 55360
expenses.55361

       (b) The portion of the amount of taxes charged and payable 55362
reported for each city, local, and exempted village school 55363
district under division (A)(3)(a) of this section attributable to 55364
a joint vocational school district.55365

       (4) The value of all real and public utility real property in 55366
the school district exempted from taxation minus both of the 55367
following:55368

       (a) The value of real and public utility real property in the 55369
district owned by the United States government and used 55370
exclusively for a public purpose;55371

       (b) The value of real and public utility real property in the 55372
district exempted from taxation under Chapter 725. or 1728. or 55373
section 3735.67, 5709.40, 5709.41, 5709.62, 5709.63, 5709.632, 55374
5709.73, or 5709.78 of the Revised Code.55375

       (5) The total federal adjusted gross income of the residents 55376
of the school district, based on tax returns filed by the 55377
residents of the district, for the most recent year for which this 55378
information is available.55379

       (6) The sum of the school district compensation value as 55380
indicated on the list of exempted property for the preceding tax 55381
year under section 5713.08 of the Revised Code as if such property 55382
had been assessed for taxation that year and the other 55383
compensation value for the school district, minus the amounts 55384
described in divisions (A)(6)(c) to (i) of this section. The 55385
portion of school district compensation value or other 55386
compensation value attributable to an incentive district exemption 55387
may be subtracted only once even if that incentive district 55388
satisfies more than one of the criteria in divisions (A)(6)(c) to 55389
(i) of this section.55390

       (a) "School district compensation value" means the aggregate 55391
value of real property in the school district exempted from 55392
taxation pursuant to an ordinance or resolution adopted under 55393
division (C) of section 5709.40, division (C) of section 5709.73, 55394
or division (B) of section 5709.78 of the Revised Code to the 55395
extent that the exempted value results in the charging of payments 55396
in lieu of taxes required to be paid to the school district under 55397
division (D)(1) or (2) of section 5709.40, division (D) of section 55398
5709.73, or division (C) of section 5709.78 of the Revised Code.55399

       (b) "Other compensation value" means the quotient that 55400
results from dividing (i) the dollar value of compensation 55401
received by the school district during the preceding tax year 55402
pursuant to division (B), (C), or (D) of section 5709.82 of the 55403
Revised Code and the amounts received pursuant to an agreement as 55404
specified in division (D)(2) of section 5709.40, division (D) of 55405
section 5709.73, or division (C) of section 5709.78 of the Revised 55406
Code to the extent those amounts were not previously reported or 55407
included in division (A)(6)(a) of this section, and so that any 55408
such amount is reported only once under division (A)(6)(b) of this 55409
section, in relation to exemptions from taxation granted pursuant 55410
to an ordinance or resolution adopted under division (C) of 55411
section 5709.40, division (C) of section 5709.73, or division (B) 55412
of section 5709.78 of the Revised Code, by (ii) the real property 55413
tax rate in effect for the preceding tax year for 55414
nonresidential/agricultural real property after making the 55415
reductions required by section 319.301 of the Revised Code.55416

       (c) The portion of school district compensation value or 55417
other compensation value that was exempted from taxation pursuant 55418
to such an ordinance or resolution for the preceding tax year, if 55419
the ordinance or resolution is adopted prior to January 1, 2006, 55420
and the legislative authority or board of township trustees or 55421
county commissioners, prior to January 1, 2006, executes a 55422
contract or agreement with a developer, whether for-profit or 55423
not-for-profit, with respect to the development of a project 55424
undertaken or to be undertaken and identified in the ordinance or 55425
resolution, and upon which parcels such project is being, or will 55426
be, undertaken;55427

        (d) The portion of school district compensation value that 55428
was exempted from taxation for the preceding tax year and for 55429
which payments in lieu of taxes for the preceding tax year were 55430
provided to the school district under division (D)(1) of section 55431
5709.40 of the Revised Code.55432

       (e) The portion of school district compensation value that 55433
was exempted from taxation for the preceding tax year pursuant to 55434
such an ordinance or resolution, if and to the extent that, on or 55435
before April 1, 2006, the fiscal officer of the municipal 55436
corporation that adopted the ordinance, or of the township or 55437
county that adopted the resolution, certifies and provides 55438
appropriate supporting documentation to the tax commissioner and 55439
the director of development that, based on hold-harmless 55440
provisions in any agreement between the school district and the 55441
legislative authority of the municipal corporation, board of 55442
township trustees, or board of county commissioners that was 55443
entered into on or before June 1, 2005, the ability or obligation 55444
of the municipal corporation, township, or county to repay bonds, 55445
notes, or other financial obligations issued or entered into prior 55446
to January 1, 2006, will be impaired, including obligations to or 55447
of any other body corporate and politic with whom the legislative 55448
authority of the municipal corporation or board of township 55449
trustees or county commissioners has entered into an agreement 55450
pertaining to the use of service payments derived from the 55451
improvements exempted;55452

       (f) The portion of school district compensation value that 55453
was exempted from taxation for the preceding tax year pursuant to 55454
such an ordinance or resolution, if the ordinance or resolution is 55455
adopted prior to January 1, 2006, in a municipal corporation with 55456
a population that exceeds one hundred thousand, as shown by the 55457
most recent federal decennial census, that includes a major 55458
employment center and that is adjacent to historically distressed 55459
neighborhoods, if the legislative authority of the municipal 55460
corporation that exempted the property prepares an economic 55461
analysis that demonstrates that all taxes generated within the 55462
incentive district accruing to the state by reason of improvements 55463
constructed within the district during its existence exceed the 55464
amount the state pays the school district under section 3317.022 55465
of the Revised Code attributable to such property exemption from 55466
the school district's recognized valuation. The analysis shall be 55467
submitted to and approved by the department of development prior 55468
to January 1, 2006, and the department shall not unreasonably 55469
withhold approval.55470

       (g) The portion of school district compensation value that 55471
was exempted from taxation for the preceding tax year under such 55472
an ordinance or resolution, if the ordinance or resolution is 55473
adopted prior to January 1, 2006, and if service payments have 55474
been pledged to be used for mixed-use riverfront entertainment 55475
development in any county with a population that exceeds six 55476
hundred thousand, as shown by the most recent federal decennial 55477
census;55478

       (h) The portion of school district compensation value that 55479
was exempted from taxation for the preceding tax year under such 55480
an ordinance or resolution, if, prior to January 1, 2006, the 55481
legislative authority of a municipal corporation, board of 55482
township trustees, or board of county commissioners has pledged 55483
service payments for a designated transportation capacity project 55484
approved by the transportation review advisory council under 55485
Chapter 5512. of the Revised Code;55486

       (i) The portion of school district compensation value that 55487
was exempted from taxation for the preceding tax year under such 55488
an ordinance or resolution if the legislative authority of a 55489
municipal corporation, board of township trustees, or board of 55490
county commissioners have, by January 1, 2006, pledged proceeds 55491
for designated transportation improvement projects that involve 55492
federal funds for which the proceeds are used to meet a local 55493
share match requirement for such funding.55494

       As used in division (A)(6) of this section, "project" has the 55495
same meaning as in section 5709.40 of the Revised Code.55496

       (7) The aggregate value of real property in the school 55497
district for which an exemption from taxation is granted by an 55498
ordinance or resolution adopted on or after January 1, 2006, under 55499
Chapter 725. or 1728., sections 3735.65 to 3735.70, or section 55500
5709.62, 5709.63, 5709.632, 5709.84, or 5709.88 of the Revised 55501
Code, as indicated on the list of exempted property for the 55502
preceding tax year under section 5713.08 of the Revised Code and 55503
as if such property had been assessed for taxation that year, 55504
minus the product determined by multiplying (a) the aggregate 55505
value of the real property in the school district exempted from 55506
taxation for the preceding tax year under any of the chapters or 55507
sections specified in this division, by (b) a fraction, the 55508
numerator of which is the difference between (i) the amount of 55509
anticipated revenue such school district would have received for 55510
the preceding tax year if the real property exempted from taxation 55511
had not been exempted from taxation and (ii) the aggregate amount 55512
of payments in lieu of taxes on the exempt real property for the 55513
preceding tax year and other compensation received for the 55514
preceding tax year by the school district pursuant to any 55515
agreements entered into on or after January 1, 2006, under section 55516
5709.82 of the Revised Code between the school district and the 55517
legislative authority of a political subdivision that acted under 55518
the authority of a chapter or statute specified in this division, 55519
that were entered into in relation to such exemption, and the 55520
denominator of which is the amount of anticipated revenue such 55521
school district would have received in the preceding fiscal year 55522
if the real property exempted from taxation had not been exempted.55523

       (B) On or before the first day of May each year, the tax 55524
commissioner shall certify to the department of education and the 55525
office of budget and management the total taxable real property 55526
value of railroads and, separately, the total taxable tangible 55527
personal property value of all public utilities for the preceding 55528
tax year, by school district and by county of location.55529

       (C) If a public utility has properly and timely filed a 55530
petition for reassessment under section 5727.47 of the Revised 55531
Code with respect to an assessment issued under section 5727.23 of 55532
the Revised Code affecting taxable property apportioned by the tax 55533
commissioner to a school district, the taxable value of public 55534
utility tangible personal property included in the certification 55535
under divisions (A)(2) and (B) of this section for the school 55536
district shall include only the amount of taxable value on the 55537
basis of which the public utility paid tax for the preceding year 55538
as provided in division (B)(1) or (2) of section 5727.47 of the 55539
Revised Code.55540

       (D) If on the basis of the information certified under 55541
division (A) of this section, the department determines that any 55542
district fails in any year to meet the qualification requirement 55543
specified in division (A) of section 3317.01 of the Revised Code, 55544
the department shall immediately request the tax commissioner to 55545
determine the extent to which any school district income tax 55546
levied by the district under Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code 55547
shall be included in meeting that requirement. Within five days of 55548
receiving such a request from the department, the tax commissioner 55549
shall make the determination required by this division and report 55550
the quotient obtained under division (D)(3) of this section to the 55551
department and the office of budget and management. This quotient 55552
represents the number of mills that the department shall include 55553
in determining whether the district meets the qualification 55554
requirement of division (A) of section 3317.01 of the Revised 55555
Code.55556

       The tax commissioner shall make the determination required by 55557
this division as follows:55558

       (1) Multiply one mill times the total taxable value of the 55559
district as determined in divisions (A)(1) and (2) of this 55560
section;55561

       (2) Estimate the total amount of tax liability for the 55562
current tax year under taxes levied by Chapter 5748. of the 55563
Revised Code that are apportioned to current operating expenses of 55564
the district, excluding any income tax receipts allocated for the 55565
project cost, debt service, or maintenance set-aside associated 55566
with a state-assisted classroom facilities project as authorized 55567
by section 3318.052 of the Revised Code;55568

       (3) Divide the amount estimated under division (D)(2) of this 55569
section by the product obtained under division (D)(1) of this 55570
section.55571

       (E)(1) On or before June 1, 2006, and the first day of April 55572
of each year thereafter, the director of development shall report 55573
to the department of education, the tax commissioner, and the 55574
director of budget and management the total amounts of payments 55575
received by each city, local, exempted village, or joint 55576
vocational school district for the preceding tax year pursuant to 55577
division (D) of section 5709.40, division (D) of section 5709.73, 55578
division (C) of section 5709.78, or division (B)(1), (B)(2), (C), 55579
or (D) of section 5709.82 of the Revised Code in relation to 55580
exemptions from taxation granted pursuant to an ordinance adopted 55581
by the legislative authority of a municipal corporation under 55582
division (C) of section 5709.40 of the Revised Code, or a 55583
resolution adopted by a board of township trustees or board of 55584
county commissioners under division (C) of section 5709.73 or 55585
division (B) of section 5709.78 of the Revised Code, respectively. 55586
On or before April 1, 2006, and the first day of March of each 55587
year thereafter, the treasurer of each city, local, exempted 55588
village, or joint vocational school district that has entered into 55589
such an agreement shall report to the director of development the 55590
total amounts of such payments the district received for the 55591
preceding tax year as provided in this section. The state board of 55592
education, in accordance with sections 3319.31 and 3319.311 of the 55593
Revised Code, may suspend or revoke the license of a treasurer 55594
found to have willfully reported erroneous, inaccurate, or 55595
incomplete data under this division.55596

       (2) On or before April 1, 2007, and the first day of April of 55597
each year thereafter, the director of development shall report to 55598
the department of education, the tax commissioner, and the 55599
director of budget and management the total amounts of payments 55600
received by each city, local, exempted village, or joint 55601
vocational school district for the preceding tax year pursuant to 55602
divisions (B), (C), and (D) of section 5709.82 of the Revised Code 55603
in relation to exemptions from taxation granted pursuant to 55604
ordinances or resolutions adopted on or after January 1, 2006, 55605
under Chapter 725. or 1728., sections 3735.65 to 3735.70, or 55606
section 5709.62, 5709.63, 5709.632, 5709.84, or 5709.88 of the 55607
Revised Code. On or before March 1, 2007, and the first day of 55608
March of each year thereafter, the treasurer of each city, local, 55609
exempted village, or joint vocational school district that has 55610
entered into such an agreement shall report to the director of 55611
development the total amounts of such payments the district 55612
received for the preceding tax year as provided by this section. 55613
The state board of education, in accordance with sections 3319.31 55614
and 3319.311 of the Revised Code, may suspend or revoke the 55615
license of a treasurer found to have willfully reported erroneous, 55616
inaccurate, or incomplete data under this division.55617

       Sec. 3317.022. (A) The department of education shall compute 55618
and distribute state core foundation funding to each eligible 55619
school district for the fiscal year, using the information 55620
obtained under section 3317.021 of the Revised Code in the 55621
calendar year in which the fiscal year begins, as prescribed in 55622
the following divisions:55623

       (1) An opportunity grant calculated according to the 55624
following formula:55625

       The formula amount X formula ADM X the district's state share 55626
index55627

       (2) Targeted assistance funds calculated under divisions (A) 55628
and (B) of section 3317.0217 of the Revised Code;55629

       (3) Additional state aid for special education and related 55630
services provided under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code 55631
calculated according to the following formula:55632

The formula amount X the district's total special education
55633

weight X the district's state share index
55634

       (4) Kindergarten through third grade literacy funds 55635
calculated according to the following formula:55636

       ($300, in fiscal year 2014, or $303, in fiscal year 2015) X 55637
formula ADM for grades kindergarten through three X the district's 55638
state share index55639

       (5) Economically disadvantaged funds calculated according to 55640
the following formula:55641

       ($340, in fiscal year 2014, or $343, in fiscal year 2015) X 55642
(the district's economically disadvantaged index) X the number of 55643
students who are economically disadvantaged as reported under 55644
division (B)(21) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code55645

       (6) Limited English proficiency funds calculated as the sum 55646
of the following:55647

       (a) The district's category one limited English proficient 55648
ADM X the amount specified in division (A) of section 3317.016 of 55649
the Revised Code X the district's state share index;55650

       (b) The district's category two limited English proficient 55651
ADM X the amount specified in division (B) of section 3317.016 of 55652
the Revised Code X the district's state share index;55653

       (c) The district's category three limited English proficient 55654
ADM X the amount specified in division (C) of section 3317.016 of 55655
the Revised Code X the district's state share index.55656

       (7)(a) Gifted identification funds calculated according to 55657
the following formula:55658

($5, in fiscal year 2014, or $5.05, in fiscal year 2015) X the
55659

district's formula ADM
55660

       (b) Gifted unit funding calculated under section 3317.051 of 55661
the Revised Code.55662

       (8) Career-technical education funds calculated according to 55663
the following formula:55664

The formula amount X the district's total career-technical
55665

education weight X the district's state share index
55666

       Payment of funds under division (A)(8) of this section is 55667
subject to approval under section 3317.161 of the Revised Code.55668

       (9) Career-technical education associated services funds 55669
calculated according to the following formula:55670

The district's state share index X 0.05 X the formula
55671

amount X the sum of categories one through five career-technical
55672

education ADM
55673

       (B) In any fiscal year, a school district shall spend for 55674
purposes that the department designates as approved for special 55675
education and related services expenses at least the amount 55676
calculated as follows:55677

(The formula amount X the total special education ADM) +
55678

(the formula amount X the district's total special education
55679

weight)
55680

       The purposes approved by the department for special education 55681
expenses shall include, but shall not be limited to, 55682
identification of children with disabilities, compliance with 55683
state rules governing the education of children with disabilities 55684
and prescribing the continuum of program options for children with 55685
disabilities, provision of speech language pathology services, and 55686
the portion of the school district's overall administrative and 55687
overhead costs that are attributable to the district's special 55688
education student population.55689

       The scholarships deducted from the school district's account 55690
under sections 3310.41 and 3310.55 of the Revised Code shall be 55691
considered to be an approved special education and related 55692
services expense for the purpose of the school district's 55693
compliance with this division.55694

       (C) In any fiscal year, a school district receiving funds 55695
under division (A)(8) of this section shall spend those funds only 55696
for the purposes that the department designates as approved for 55697
career-technical education expenses. Career-technical educational 55698
expenses approved by the department shall include only expenses 55699
connected to the delivery of career-technical programming to 55700
career-technical students. The department shall require the school 55701
district to report data annually so that the department may 55702
monitor the district's compliance with the requirements regarding 55703
the manner in which funding received under division (A)(8) of this 55704
section may be spent.55705

       (D) In any fiscal year, a school district receiving funds 55706
under division (A)(9) of this section, or through a transfer of 55707
funds pursuant to division (I) of section 3317.023 of the Revised 55708
Code, shall spend those funds only for the purposes that the 55709
department designates as approved for career-technical education 55710
associated services expenses, which may include such purposes as 55711
apprenticeship coordinators, coordinators for other 55712
career-technical education services, career-technical evaluation, 55713
and other purposes designated by the department. The department 55714
may deny payment under division (A)(9) of this section to any 55715
district that the department determines is not operating those 55716
services or is using funds paid under division (A)(9) of this 55717
section, or through a transfer of funds pursuant to division (I) 55718
of section 3317.023 of the Revised Code, for other purposes.55719

       (E) All funds received under division (A)(8) of this section 55720
shall be spent in the following manner:55721

        (1) At least seventy-five per cent of the funds shall be 55722
spent on curriculum development, purchase, and implementation; 55723
instructional resources and supplies; industry-based program 55724
certification; student assessment, credentialing, and placement; 55725
curriculum specific equipment purchases and leases; 55726
career-technical student organization fees and expenses; home and 55727
agency linkages; work-based learning experiences; professional 55728
development; and other costs directly associated with 55729
career-technical education programs including development of new 55730
programs.55731

        (2) Not more than twenty-five per cent of the funds shall be 55732
used for personnel expenditures. 55733

       Sec. 3317.023.  (A) The amounts required to be paid to a 55734
district under this chapter shall be adjusted by the amount of the 55735
computations made under divisions (B) to (K) of this section. 55736

       As used in this section:55737

       (1) "VEPDCTPD" means a school district or group of school 55738
districts designated by the department of education as being 55739
responsible for the planning for and provision of vocational55740
career-technical education services to students within the 55741
district or group. A community school established under Chapter 55742
3314. of the Revised Code or a STEM school established under 55743
Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code may be assigned to a 55744
career-technical planning district.55745

       (2) "Lead district" means a school district, including a 55746
joint vocational school district, designated by the department as 55747
a VEPDCTPD, or designated to provide primary vocational55748
career-technical education leadership within a VEPDCTPD composed 55749
of a group of districts and, if assigned to the CTPD, community 55750
schools and STEM schools. 55751

       (B) If a local school district, or a, city, or exempted 55752
village school district to which a governing board of an 55753
educational service center provides services pursuant to an 55754
agreement entered into under section 3313.843 of the Revised Code, 55755
deduct the amount of the payment required for the reimbursement of 55756
the governing board under that section 3317.11 of the Revised 55757
Code.55758

       (C)(1) If the district is required to pay to or entitled to 55759
receive tuition from another school district under division (C)(2) 55760
or (3) of section 3313.64 or section 3313.65 of the Revised Code, 55761
or if the superintendent of public instruction is required to 55762
determine the correct amount of tuition and make a deduction or 55763
credit under section 3317.08 of the Revised Code, deduct and 55764
credit such amounts as provided in division (J) of section 3313.64 55765
or section 3317.08 of the Revised Code.55766

       (2) For each child for whom the district is responsible for 55767
tuition or payment under division (A)(1) of section 3317.082 or 55768
section 3323.091 of the Revised Code, deduct the amount of tuition 55769
or payment for which the district is responsible.55770

       (D) If the district has been certified by the superintendent 55771
of public instruction under section 3313.90 of the Revised Code as 55772
not in compliance with the requirements of that section, deduct an 55773
amount equal to ten per cent of the amount computed for the 55774
district under this chapter.55775

       (E) If the district has received a loan from a commercial 55776
lending institution for which payments are made by the 55777
superintendent of public instruction pursuant to division (E)(3) 55778
of section 3313.483 of the Revised Code, deduct an amount equal to 55779
such payments.55780

       (F)(1) If the district is a party to an agreement entered 55781
into under division (D), (E), or (F) of section 3311.06 or 55782
division (B) of section 3311.24 of the Revised Code and is 55783
obligated to make payments to another district under such an 55784
agreement, deduct an amount equal to such payments if the district 55785
school board notifies the department in writing that it wishes to 55786
have such payments deducted.55787

       (2) If the district is entitled to receive payments from 55788
another district that has notified the department to deduct such 55789
payments under division (F)(1) of this section, add the amount of 55790
such payments.55791

       (G) If the district is required to pay an amount of funds to 55792
a cooperative education district pursuant to a provision described 55793
by division (B)(4) of section 3311.52 or division (B)(8) of 55794
section 3311.521 of the Revised Code, deduct such amounts as 55795
provided under that provision and credit those amounts to the 55796
cooperative education district for payment to the district under 55797
division (B)(1) of section 3317.19 of the Revised Code.55798

       (H)(1) If a district is educating a student entitled to 55799
attend school in another district pursuant to a shared education 55800
contract, compact, or cooperative education agreement other than 55801
an agreement entered into pursuant to section 3313.842 of the 55802
Revised Code, credit to that educating district on an FTE basis 55803
both of the following:55804

       (a) An amount equal to the formula amount.55805

       (b) An amount equal to $5,732the formula amount times the 55806
state share percentageindex times any multiple applicable to the 55807
student for fiscal year 2009 pursuant to section 3317.013 or 55808
3317.014 of the Revised Code, as those sections existed for that 55809
fiscal year.55810

       (2) Deduct any amount credited pursuant to division (H)(1) of 55811
this section from amounts paid to the school district in which the 55812
student is entitled to attend school pursuant to section 3313.64 55813
or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.55814

       (3) If the district is required by a shared education 55815
contract, compact, or cooperative education agreement to make 55816
payments to an educational service center, deduct the amounts from 55817
payments to the district and add them to the amounts paid to the 55818
service center pursuant to section 3317.11 of the Revised Code.55819

       (I)(1) If a district, including a joint vocational school 55820
district, is a lead district of a VEPDCTPD, credit to that 55821
district the following amountsamount calculated for all theeach55822
school districtsdistrict within that VEPDCTPD:55823

       (a) In any fiscal year except fiscal year 2012 or 2013, the 55824
amount computed under division (D)(2) of section 3317.022 of the 55825
Revised Code;55826

       (b) In fiscal years 2012 and 2013, an amount equal to the 55827
following:55828

state share
percentage
index
X .05 X
$5,732
the formula amount
X
55829

the sum of categories one
55830

and two vocational
through five career-technical
education ADM
55831

       (2) Deduct from each appropriate district that is not a lead 55832
district, the amount attributable to that district that is 55833
credited to a lead district under division (I)(1) of this section.55834

       (J) If the department pays a joint vocational school district 55835
under division (G)(4)(C)(3) of section 3317.16 of the Revised Code 55836
for excess costs of providing special education and related 55837
services to a student with a disability, as calculated under 55838
division (G)(2)(C)(1) of that section, the department shall 55839
deduct the amount of that payment from the city, local, or 55840
exempted village school district that is responsible as specified 55841
in that section for the excess costs.55842

       (K)(1) If the district reports an amount of excess cost for 55843
special education services for a child under division (C) of 55844
section 3323.14 of the Revised Code, the department shall pay that 55845
amount to the district.55846

       (2) If the district reports an amount of excess cost for 55847
special education services for a child under division (C) of 55848
section 3323.14 of the Revised Code, the department shall deduct 55849
that amount from the district of residence of that child.55850

       Sec. 3317.0212. The department of education shall make no 55851
payments under this section for fiscal year 2012 or 2013.55852

       (A) As used in this section:55853

        (1) "Assigned bus" means a school bus used to transport 55854
qualifying riders.55855

       (2) "Nontraditional ridership" means the average number of 55856
qualifying riders who are enrolled in a community school 55857
established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, in a STEM 55858
school established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code, or in 55859
a nonpublic school and are provided school bus service by a school 55860
district during the first full week of October.55861

        (3) "Qualifying riders" means resident students enrolled in 55862
regular education in grades kindergarten to twelve who are 55863
provided school bus service by a school district and who live more 55864
than one mile from the school they attend, including students with 55865
dual enrollment in a joint vocational school district or a 55866
cooperative education school district, and students enrolled in a 55867
community school, STEM school, or nonpublic school.55868

       (4)(2) "Qualifying ridership" means the average number of 55869
qualifying riders who are provided school bus service by a school 55870
district during the first full week of October.55871

       (5)(3) "Rider density" means the number of qualifying riders 55872
per square mile of a school district.55873

       (6)(4) "School bus service" means a school district's 55874
transportation of qualifying riders in any of the following types 55875
of vehicles:55876

       (a) School buses owned or leased by the district;55877

       (b) School buses operated by a private contractor hired by 55878
the district;55879

       (c) School buses operated by another school district or 55880
entity with which the district has contracted, either as part of a 55881
consortium for the provision of transportation or otherwise.55882

       (B) Not later than the fifteenth day of October each year, 55883
each city, local, and exempted village school district shall 55884
report to the department of education its qualifying ridership, 55885
nontraditional ridership, number of qualifying riders per assigned 55886
bus, and any other information requested by the department. 55887
Subsequent adjustments to the reported numbers shall be made only 55888
in accordance with rules adopted by the department.55889

       (C) The department shall calculate the statewide 55890
transportation cost per student as follows:55891

       (1) Determine each city, local, and exempted village school 55892
district's transportation cost per student by dividing the 55893
district's total costs for school bus service in the previous 55894
fiscal year by its qualifying ridership in the previous fiscal 55895
year.55896

       (2) After excluding districts that do not provide school bus 55897
service and the ten districts with the highest transportation 55898
costs per student and the ten districts with the lowest 55899
transportation costs per student, divide the aggregate cost for 55900
school bus service for the remaining districts in the previous 55901
fiscal year by the aggregate qualifying ridership of those 55902
districts in the previous fiscal year.55903

       (D) The department shall calculate the statewide 55904
transportation cost per mile as follows:55905

       (1) Determine each city, local, and exempted village school 55906
district's transportation cost per mile by dividing the district's 55907
total costs for school bus service in the previous fiscal year by 55908
its total number of miles driven for school bus service in the 55909
previous fiscal year.55910

       (2) After excluding districts that do not provide school bus 55911
service and the ten districts with the highest transportation 55912
costs per mile and the ten districts with the lowest 55913
transportation costs per mile, divide the aggregate cost for 55914
school bus service for the remaining districts in the previous 55915
fiscal year by the aggregate miles driven for school bus service 55916
in those districts in the previous fiscal year.55917

       (E) The department shall calculate each city, local, and 55918
exempted village school district's transportation base payment as 55919
follows:55920

       (1) Multiply the statewide transportation cost per student by 55921
the district's qualifying ridership for the current fiscal year.55922

       (2) Multiply the statewide transportation cost per mile by 55923
the district's total number of miles driven for school bus service 55924
in the current fiscal year.55925

       (3) Multiply the greater of the amounts calculated under 55926
divisions (E)(1) and (2) of this section by the greater of sixty 55927
per cent or the district's state share percentageindex, as 55928
defined in section 3317.02 of the Revised Code.55929

       (F) The department shall calculate each city, local, and 55930
exempted village school district's nontraditional ridership 55931
adjustment according to the following formula:55932

(nontraditional ridership for the current fiscal year /
55933

qualifying ridership for the current fiscal year) X 0.1 X
55934

transportation base payment
55935

       (G) If a city, local, or exempted village school district 55936
offers school bus service to all resident students who are 55937
enrolled in regular education in district schools in grades nine 55938
to twelve and who live more than one mile from the school they 55939
attend, the department shall calculate the district's high school 55940
ridership adjustment according to the following formula:55941

0.025 X transportation base payment
55942

       (H) If a city, local, or exempted village school district 55943
offers school bus service to students enrolled in grades 55944
kindergarten to eight who live more than one mile, but two miles 55945
or less, from the school they attend, the department shall 55946
calculate an additional adjustment according to the following 55947
formula:55948

0.025 X transportation base payment
55949

       (I)(1) The department annually shall establish a target 55950
number of qualifying riders per assigned bus for each city, local, 55951
and exempted village school district. The department shall use the 55952
most recently available data in establishing the target number. 55953
The target number shall be based on the statewide median number of 55954
qualifying riders per assigned bus as adjusted to reflect the 55955
district's rider density in comparison to the rider density of all 55956
other districts. The department shall post on the department's web 55957
site each district's target number of qualifying riders per 55958
assigned bus and a description of how the target number was 55959
determined.55960

       (2) The department shall determine each school district's 55961
efficiency index by dividing the district's median number of 55962
qualifying riders per assigned bus by its target number of 55963
qualifying riders per assigned bus.55964

       (3) The department shall determine each city, local, and 55965
exempted village school district's efficiency adjustment as 55966
follows:55967

       (a) If the district's efficiency index is equal to or greater 55968
than 1.5, the efficiency adjustment shall be calculated according 55969
to the following formula:55970

0.1 X transportation base payment
55971

       (b) If the district's efficiency index is less than 1.5 but 55972
equal to or greater than 1.0, the efficiency adjustment shall be 55973
calculated according to the following formula:55974

[(efficiency index – 1) / 5] X transportation base payment
55975

       (c) If the district's efficiency index is less than 1.0, the 55976
efficiency adjustment shall be zero.55977

       (J) The department shall pay each city, local, and exempted 55978
village school district the lesser of the following:55979

       (1) The sum of the amounts calculated under divisions (E) to 55980
(H) and (I)(3) of this section;55981

       (2) The district's total costs for school bus service for the 55982
prior fiscal year.55983

       (K) In addition to funds paid under division (J)(E) of this 55984
section, each city, local, and exempted village district shall 55985
receive in accordance with rules adopted by the state board of 55986
education a payment for students transported by means other than 55987
school bus service and whose transportation is not funded under 55988
division (C) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code. The rules 55989
shall include provisions for school district reporting of such 55990
students.55991

       (G)(1) In fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the department shall 55992
pay each district a pro rata portion of the amounts calculated 55993
under division (E) of this section and described in division (F) 55994
of this section, based on state appropriations.55995

       (2) In addition to the prorated payment under division (G)(1) 55996
of this section, in fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the department 55997
shall pay each school district that meets the conditions 55998
prescribed in division (G)(3) of this section an additional amount 55999
equal to the difference of (a) the amounts calculated under 56000
division (E) of this section and prescribed in division (F) of 56001
this section minus (b) that prorated payment.56002

       (3) Division (G)(2) of this section applies to each school 56003
district that meets all of the following conditions:56004

       (a) The district qualifies for the calculation of a payment 56005
under division (E) of this section because it transports students 56006
on board-owned or contractor-owned school buses.56007

       (b) The district's state share index is greater than or equal 56008
to 0.50.56009

       (c) The district's rider density is at or below the median 56010
rider density of all districts that qualify for calculation of a 56011
payment under division (E) of this section.56012

       (H) Each city, local, and exempted village school district 56013
shall report all data used to calculate funding for transportation 56014
under this section through the education management information 56015
system pursuant to section 3301.0714 of the Revised Code.56016

       Sec. 3317.0213. (A) The department of education shall compute 56017
and pay in accordance with this section additional state aid for 56018
preschool special education children to each city, local, and 56019
exempted village school district and to each institution, as 56020
defined in section 3323.091 of the Revised Code. Funding shall be 56021
provided for children who are not enrolled in kindergarten and who 56022
are under age six on the thirtieth day of September of the 56023
academic year, or on the first day of August of the academic year 56024
if the school district in which the child is enrolled has adopted 56025
a resolution under division (A)(3) of section 3321.01 of the 56026
Revised Code, but not less than age three on the first day of 56027
December of the academic year.56028

       The additional state aid shall be calculated under the 56029
following formula:56030

       ($4,000 X the number of preschool special education children) 56031
+ the sum of the following:56032

       (1) The district's or institution's category one special 56033
education preschool students X the multiple specified in division 56034
(A) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code X the formula amount X 56035
the district's state share index X 0.50;56036

       (2) The district's or institution's category two special 56037
education preschool students X the multiple specified in division 56038
(B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code X the formula amount X 56039
the district's state share index X 0.50;56040

       (3) The district's or institution's category three special 56041
education preschool students X the multiple specified in division 56042
(C) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code X the formula amount X 56043
the district's state share index X 0.50;56044

       (4) The district's or institution's category four special 56045
education preschool students X the multiple specified in division 56046
(D) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code X the formula amount X 56047
the district's state share index X 0.50;56048

       (5) The district's or institution's category five special 56049
education preschool students X the multiple specified in division 56050
(E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code X the formula amount X 56051
the district's state share index X 0.50;56052

       (6) The district's or institution's category six special 56053
education preschool students X the multiple specified in division 56054
(F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code X the formula amount X 56055
the district's state share index X 0.50.56056

       The special education disability categories for preschool 56057
children used in this section are the same categories prescribed 56058
in section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.56059

       As used in division (A) of this section, the state share 56060
index of a student enrolled in an institution is the state share 56061
index of the school district in which the student is entitled to 56062
attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised 56063
Code.56064

       (B) If an educational service center is providing services to 56065
preschool special education students under agreement with the 56066
city, local, or exempted village school district in which the 56067
students are entitled to attend school, that district may 56068
authorize the department to transfer funds computed under this 56069
section to the service center providing those services.56070

       (C) If a county DD board is providing services to preschool 56071
special education students under agreement with the city, local, 56072
or exempted village school district in which the students are 56073
entitled to attend school, the department shall deduct from the 56074
district's payment computed under division (A) of this section the 56075
total amount of those funds that are attributable to the students 56076
served by the county DD board and pay that amount to that board.56077

       Sec. 3317.0214. (A) The department shall compute and pay in 56078
accordance with this section additional state aid to school 56079
districts for students in categories two through six special 56080
education ADM. If a district's costs for the fiscal year for a 56081
student in its categories two through six special education ADM 56082
exceed the threshold catastrophic cost for serving the student, 56083
the district may submit to the superintendent of public 56084
instruction documentation, as prescribed by the superintendent, of 56085
all its costs for that student. Upon submission of documentation 56086
for a student of the type and in the manner prescribed, the 56087
department shall pay to the district an amount equal to the sum of 56088
the following:56089

       (1) One-half of the district's costs for the student in 56090
excess of the threshold catastrophic cost;56091

       (2) The product of one-half of the district's costs for the 56092
student in excess of the threshold catastrophic cost multiplied by 56093
the district's state share index.56094

       (B) For purposes of division (A) of this section, the 56095
threshold catastrophic cost for serving a student equals:56096

       (1) For a student in the school district's category two, 56097
three, four, or five special education ADM, twenty-seven thousand 56098
three hundred seventy-five dollars;56099

       (2) For a student in the district's category six special 56100
education ADM, thirty-two thousand eight hundred fifty dollars.56101

       (C) The district shall report under division (A) of this 56102
section, and the department shall pay for, only the costs of 56103
educational expenses and the related services provided to the 56104
student in accordance with the student's individualized education 56105
program. Any legal fees, court costs, or other costs associated 56106
with any cause of action relating to the student may not be 56107
included in the amount.56108

       Sec. 3317.0217. Payment of the amount calculated for a school 56109
district under this section shall be made under division (A) of 56110
section 3317.022 of the Revised Code.56111

       (A) The department of education shall annually compute 56112
targeted assistance funds to school districts, as follows:56113

        (1) Calculate the local wealth per pupil of each school 56114
district, which equals the following sum:56115

        (a) One-half times the quotient of (i) the district's 56116
three-year average valuation divided by (ii) its formula ADM; plus56117

        (b) One-half times the quotient of (i) the average of the 56118
total federal adjusted gross income of the school district's 56119
residents for the three years most recently reported under section 56120
3317.021 of the Revised Code divided by (ii) its formula ADM.56121

        (2) Rank all school districts in order of local wealth per 56122
pupil, from the district with the lowest local wealth per pupil to 56123
the district with the highest local wealth per pupil.56124

       (3) Compute the statewide wealth per pupil, which equals the 56125
following sum:56126

        (a) One-half times the quotient of (i) the sum of the 56127
three-year average valuations for all school districts divided by 56128
(ii) the sum of formula ADM counts for all schools districts; plus56129

        (b) One-half times the quotient of (i) the sum of the 56130
three-year average total federal adjusted gross incomes for all 56131
school districts divided by (ii) the sum of formula ADM counts for 56132
all school districts.56133

        (4) Compute each district's wealth index by dividing the 56134
statewide wealth per pupil by the district's local wealth per 56135
pupil.56136

       (5) Compute the per pupil targeted assistance for each 56137
eligible school district in accordance with the following formula:56138

(Threshold local wealth per pupil - the district's local wealth
56139
per pupil)
56140

X target millage X the district's wealth index
56141

       Where:56142

       (a) An "eligible school district" means a school district 56143
with a local wealth per pupil less than that of the school 56144
district with the 490th lowest local wealth per pupil.56145

       (b) "Threshold local wealth per pupil" means the local wealth 56146
per pupil of the school district with the 490th lowest local 56147
wealth per pupil.56148

       (c) "Target millage" means 0.006.56149

        If the result of the calculation for a school district under 56150
division (A)(5) of this section is less than zero, the district's 56151
targeted assistance shall be zero.56152

       (6) Calculate the aggregate amount to be paid as targeted 56153
assistance funds to each school district under division (A) of 56154
section 3317.022 of the Revised Code by multiplying the per pupil 56155
targeted assistance computed under division (A)(5) of this section 56156
by the district's net formula ADM.56157

       As used in this division, a district's "net formula ADM" 56158
means its formula ADM minus both the number of internet- and 56159
computer-based community school students reported under division 56160
(B)(3)(e) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code and scholarship 56161
students reported under divisions (B)(3)(f), (g), and (l) of that 56162
section.56163

       (B) The department shall annually compute supplemental 56164
targeted assistance funds to school districts, as follows:56165

       (1) Compute each district's agricultural percentage as the 56166
quotient of (a) the three-year average tax valuation of real 56167
property in the district that is classified as agricultural 56168
property divided by (b) the three-year average tax valuation of 56169
all of the real property in the district. For purposes of this 56170
computation, a district's "three-year average tax valuation" means 56171
the average of a district's tax valuation for fiscal years 2012, 56172
2013, and 2014.56173

       (2) Determine each district's agricultural targeted 56174
percentage as follows:56175

       (a) If a district's agricultural percentage is greater than 56176
or equal to 0.10, then the district's agricultural targeted 56177
percentage shall be equal to 0.40.56178

       (b) If a district's agricultural percentage is less than 56179
0.10, then the district's agricultural targeted percentage shall 56180
be equal to 4 X the district's agricultural percentage.56181

       (3) Calculate the aggregate amount to be paid as supplemental 56182
targeted assistance funds to each school district under division 56183
(A) of section 3317.022 of the Revised Code by multiplying the 56184
district's agricultural targeted percentage by the amount 56185
calculated for the district under division (A)(6) of this section.56186

       Sec. 3317.03.  (A) The superintendent of each city, local, 56187
and exempted village school district and of each educational 56188
service center shall, for the schools under the superintendent's 56189
supervision, certify to the state board of education on or before 56190
the fifteenth day of October in each yearmonth for the first full 56191
school week in Octoberof that month the average daily membership 56192
of students receiving services from schools under the 56193
superintendent's supervision, and the numbers of other students 56194
entitled to attend school in the district under section 3313.64 or 56195
3313.65 of the Revised Code the superintendent is required to 56196
report under this section, so that the department of education can 56197
calculate the district's formula ADM. If a school under the 56198
superintendent's supervision is closed for one or more days during 56199
thata week for which the average daily membership must be 56200
certified due to hazardous weather conditions or other 56201
circumstances described in the first paragraph of division 56202
(B)(A)(1) of section 3317.013313.482 of the Revised Code, the 56203
superintendent may apply to the superintendent of public 56204
instruction for a waiver, under which the superintendent of public 56205
instruction may exempt the district superintendent from certifying 56206
the average daily membership for that school for that week and 56207
specify an alternate week in the same month for certifying the 56208
average daily membership of that school.56209

       The average daily membership during sucha week shall consist 56210
of the sum of the following:56211

       (1) On an FTE basis, the number of students in grades 56212
kindergarten through twelve receiving any educational services 56213
from the district, except that the following categories of 56214
students shall not be included in the determination:56215

       (a) Students enrolled in adult education classes;56216

       (b) Adjacent or other district students enrolled in the 56217
district under an open enrollment policy pursuant to section 56218
3313.98 of the Revised Code;56219

       (c) Students receiving services in the district pursuant to a 56220
compact, cooperative education agreement, or a contract, but who 56221
are entitled to attend school in another district pursuant to 56222
section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code;56223

       (d) Students for whom tuition is payable pursuant to sections 56224
3317.081 and 3323.141 of the Revised Code;56225

       (e) Students receiving services in the district through a 56226
scholarship awarded under either section 3310.41 or sections 56227
3310.51 to 3310.64 of the Revised Code.56228

       (2) On an FTE basis, the number of students entitled to 56229
attend school in the district pursuant to section 3313.64 or 56230
3313.65 of the Revised Code, but receiving educational services in 56231
grades kindergarten through twelve from one or more of the 56232
following entities:56233

       (a) A community school pursuant to Chapter 3314. of the 56234
Revised Code, including any participation in a college pursuant to 56235
Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code while enrolled in such community 56236
school;56237

       (b) An alternative school pursuant to sections 3313.974 to 56238
3313.979 of the Revised Code as described in division (I)(2)(a) or 56239
(b) of this section;56240

       (c) A college pursuant to Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code, 56241
except when the student is enrolled in the college while also 56242
enrolled in a community school pursuant to Chapter 3314. or a 56243
science, technology, engineering, and mathematics school 56244
established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code;56245

       (d) An adjacent or other school district under an open 56246
enrollment policy adopted pursuant to section 3313.98 of the 56247
Revised Code;56248

       (e) An educational service center or cooperative education 56249
district;56250

       (f) Another school district under a cooperative education 56251
agreement, compact, or contract;56252

       (g) A chartered nonpublic school with a scholarship paid 56253
under section 3310.08 of the Revised Code, if the students 56254
qualified for the scholarship under section 3310.03 of the Revised 56255
Code;56256

        (h) An alternative public provider or a registered private 56257
provider with a scholarship awarded under either section 3310.41 56258
or sections 3310.51 to 3310.64 of the Revised Code. 56259

       As used in this section, "alternative public provider" and 56260
"registered private provider" have the same meanings as in section 56261
3310.41 or 3310.51 of the Revised Code, as applicable.56262

       (i) A science, technology, engineering, and mathematics 56263
school established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code, 56264
including any participation in a college pursuant to Chapter 3365. 56265
of the Revised Code while enrolled in the school;56266

       (j) A college-preparatory boarding school established under 56267
Chapter 3328. of the Revised Code.56268

       (3) The number of students enrolled in a joint vocational 56269
school district or under a vocationalcareer-technical education 56270
compact, excluding any students entitled to attend school in the 56271
district under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code who 56272
are enrolled in another school district through an open enrollment 56273
policy as reported under division (A)(2)(d) of this section and 56274
then enroll in a joint vocational school district or under a 56275
vocationalcareer-technical education compact;56276

       (4) The number of children with disabilities, other than 56277
preschool children with disabilities, entitled to attend school in 56278
the district pursuant to section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised 56279
Code who are placed by the district with a county DD board, minus 56280
the number of such children placed with a county DD board in 56281
fiscal year 1998. If this calculation produces a negative number, 56282
the number reported under division (A)(4) of this section shall be 56283
zero.56284

       (B) To enable the department of education to obtain the data 56285
needed to complete the calculation of payments pursuant to this 56286
chapter, in addition to the average daily membership, each 56287
superintendent shall report separately the following student 56288
counts for the same weekweeks for which average daily membership 56289
is certified:56290

       (1) The total average daily membership in regular learning 56291
day classes included in the report under division (A)(1) or (2) of 56292
this section for each of the individual grades kindergarten 56293
through twelve in schools under the superintendent's supervision;56294

       (2) The number of all preschool children with disabilities 56295
enrolled as of the first day of December in classes in the 56296
district that arefor whom the district is eligible for approval56297
to receive funding under division (B) of section 3317.053317.021356298
of the Revised Code and the number of those classes, which shall 56299
be reported not later than the fifteenth day of December, in 56300
accordance with rules adopted under thatthe disability categories 56301
prescribed in section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;56302

       (3) The number of children entitled to attend school in the 56303
district pursuant to section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised 56304
Code who are:56305

       (a) Participating in a pilot project scholarship program 56306
established under sections 3313.974 to 3313.979 of the Revised 56307
Code as described in division (I)(2)(a) or (b) of this section;56308

       (b) Enrolled in a college under Chapter 3365. of the Revised 56309
Code, except when the student is enrolled in the college while 56310
also enrolled in a community school pursuant to Chapter 3314. or a 56311
science, technology, engineering, and mathematics school 56312
established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code;56313

       (c) Enrolled in an adjacent or other school district under 56314
section 3313.98 of the Revised Code;56315

       (d) Enrolled in a community school established under Chapter 56316
3314. of the Revised Code that is not an internet- or 56317
computer-based community school as defined in section 3314.02 of 56318
the Revised Code, including any participation in a college 56319
pursuant to Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code while enrolled in 56320
such community school;56321

       (e) Enrolled in an internet- or computer-based community 56322
school, as defined in section 3314.02 of the Revised Code, 56323
including any participation in a college pursuant to Chapter 3365. 56324
of the Revised Code while enrolled in the school;56325

        (f) Enrolled in a chartered nonpublic school with a 56326
scholarship paid under section 3310.08 of the Revised Code and who 56327
qualified for the scholarship under section 3310.03 of the Revised 56328
Code;56329

       (g) Enrolled in kindergarten through grade twelve in an 56330
alternative public provider or a registered private provider with 56331
a scholarship awarded under section 3310.41 of the Revised Code;56332

        (h) Enrolled as a preschool child with a disability in an 56333
alternative public provider or a registered private provider with 56334
a scholarship awarded under section 3310.41 of the Revised Code;56335

       (i) Participating in a program operated by a county DD board 56336
or a state institution;56337

       (j) Enrolled in a science, technology, engineering, and 56338
mathematics school established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised 56339
Code, including any participation in a college pursuant to Chapter 56340
3365. of the Revised Code while enrolled in the school;56341

       (k) Enrolled in a college-preparatory boarding school 56342
established under Chapter 3328. of the Revised Code;56343

       (l) Enrolled in an alternative public provider or a 56344
registered private provider with a scholarship awarded under 56345
sections 3310.51 to 3310.64 of the Revised Code.56346

       (4) The number of pupils enrolled in joint vocational 56347
schools;56348

       (5) The combined average daily membership of children with 56349
disabilities reported under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section 56350
receiving special education services for the category one 56351
disability described in division (A) of section 3317.013 of the 56352
Revised Code, including children attending a special education 56353
program operated by an alternative public provider or a registered 56354
private provider with a scholarship awarded under sections 3310.51 56355
to 3310.64 of the Revised Code;56356

       (6) The combined average daily membership of children with 56357
disabilities reported under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section 56358
receiving special education services for category two disabilities 56359
described in division (B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code, 56360
including children attending a special education program operated 56361
by an alternative public provider or a registered private provider 56362
with a scholarship awarded under sections 3310.51 to 3310.64 of 56363
the Revised Code;56364

       (7) The combined average daily membership of children with 56365
disabilities reported under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section 56366
receiving special education services for category three 56367
disabilities described in division (C) of section 3317.013 of the 56368
Revised Code, including children attending a special education 56369
program operated by an alternative public provider or a registered 56370
private provider with a scholarship awarded under sections 3310.51 56371
to 3310.64 of the Revised Code;56372

       (8) The combined average daily membership of children with 56373
disabilities reported under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section 56374
receiving special education services for category four 56375
disabilities described in division (D) of section 3317.013 of the 56376
Revised Code, including children attending a special education 56377
program operated by an alternative public provider or a registered 56378
private provider with a scholarship awarded under sections 3310.51 56379
to 3310.64 of the Revised Code;56380

       (9) The combined average daily membership of children with 56381
disabilities reported under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section 56382
receiving special education services for the category five 56383
disabilities described in division (E) of section 3317.013 of the 56384
Revised Code, including children attending a special education 56385
program operated by an alternative public provider or a registered 56386
private provider with a scholarship awarded under sections 3310.51 56387
to 3310.64 of the Revised Code;56388

       (10) The combined average daily membership of children with 56389
disabilities reported under division (A)(1) or (2) and under 56390
division (B)(3)(h) of this section receiving special education 56391
services for category six disabilities described in division (F) 56392
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code, including children 56393
attending a special education program operated by an alternative 56394
public provider or a registered private provider with a 56395
scholarship awarded under either section 3310.41 or sections 56396
3310.51 to 3310.64 of the Revised Code;56397

       (11) The average daily membership of pupils reported under 56398
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section enrolled in category one 56399
vocationalcareer-technical education programs or classes, 56400
described in division (A) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, 56401
operated by the school district or by another district that is a 56402
member of the district's career-technical planning district, other 56403
than a joint vocational school district, or by an educational 56404
service center, excluding any student reported under division 56405
(B)(3)(e) of this section as enrolled in an internet- or 56406
computer-based community school, notwithstanding division (C)(H)56407
of section 3317.02 of the Revised Code and division (C)(3) of this 56408
section;56409

       (12) The average daily membership of pupils reported under 56410
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section enrolled in category two 56411
vocationalcareer-technical education programs or services, 56412
described in division (B) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, 56413
operated by the school district or another school district that is 56414
a member of the district's career-technical planning district, 56415
other than a joint vocational school district, or by an 56416
educational service center, excluding any student reported under 56417
division (B)(3)(e) of this section as enrolled in an internet- or 56418
computer-based community school, notwithstanding division (C)(H)56419
of section 3317.02 of the Revised Code and division (C)(3) of this 56420
section;56421

       Beginning with fiscal year 2010, vocational education ADM 56422
shall not be used to calculate a district's funding but shall be 56423
reported under divisions (B)(11) and (12) of this section for 56424
statistical purposes.56425

       (13) The average daily membership of pupils reported under 56426
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section enrolled in category three 56427
career-technical education programs or services, described in 56428
division (C) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, operated by 56429
the school district or another school district that is a member of 56430
the district's career-technical planning district, other than a 56431
joint vocational school district, or by an educational service 56432
center, notwithstanding division (H) of section 3317.02 of the 56433
Revised Code and division (C)(3) of this section;56434

       (14) The average daily membership of pupils reported under 56435
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section enrolled in category four 56436
career-technical education programs or services, described in 56437
division (D) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, operated by 56438
the school district or another school district that is a member of 56439
the district's career-technical planning district, other than a 56440
joint vocational school district, or by an educational service 56441
center, notwithstanding division (H) of section 3317.02 of the 56442
Revised Code and division (C)(3) of this section;56443

       (15) The average daily membership of pupils reported under 56444
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section enrolled in category five 56445
career-technical education programs or services, described in 56446
division (E) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, operated by 56447
the school district or another school district that is a member of 56448
the district's career-technical planning district, other than a 56449
joint vocational school district, or by an educational service 56450
center, notwithstanding division (H) of section 3317.02 of the 56451
Revised Code and division (C)(3) of this section;56452

       (16) The average daily membership of pupils reported under 56453
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section who are limited English 56454
proficient students described in division (A) of section 3317.016 56455
of the Revised Code;56456

       (17) The average daily membership of pupils reported under 56457
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section who are limited English 56458
proficient students described in division (B) of section 3317.016 56459
of the Revised Code;56460

       (18) The average daily membership of pupils reported under 56461
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section who are limited English 56462
proficient students described in division (C) of section 3317.016 56463
of the Revised Code;56464

       (19) The average number of children transported by the school 56465
district on board-owned or contractor-owned and -operated buses, 56466
reported in accordance with rules adopted by the department of 56467
education;56468

       (14)(20)(a) The number of children, other than preschool 56469
children with disabilities, the district placed with a county DD 56470
board in fiscal year 1998;. Division (B)(20)(a) of this section 56471
does not apply after fiscal year 2013.56472

       (b) The number of children with disabilities, other than 56473
preschool children with disabilities, placed with a county DD 56474
board in the current fiscal year to receive special education 56475
services for the category one disability described in division (A) 56476
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;56477

       (c) The number of children with disabilities, other than 56478
preschool children with disabilities, placed with a county DD 56479
board in the current fiscal year to receive special education 56480
services for category two disabilities described in division (B) 56481
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;56482

       (d) The number of children with disabilities, other than 56483
preschool children with disabilities, placed with a county DD 56484
board in the current fiscal year to receive special education 56485
services for category three disabilities described in division (C) 56486
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;56487

       (e) The number of children with disabilities, other than 56488
preschool children with disabilities, placed with a county DD 56489
board in the current fiscal year to receive special education 56490
services for category four disabilities described in division (D) 56491
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;56492

       (f) The number of children with disabilities, other than 56493
preschool children with disabilities, placed with a county DD 56494
board in the current fiscal year to receive special education 56495
services for the category five disabilities described in division 56496
(E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;56497

       (g) The number of children with disabilities, other than 56498
preschool children with disabilities, placed with a county DD 56499
board in the current fiscal year to receive special education 56500
services for category six disabilities described in division (F) 56501
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.56502

       (21) The number of students who are economically 56503
disadvantaged, as defined by the department. A student shall not 56504
be categorically excluded from the number reported under division 56505
(B)(21) of this section based on anything other than family 56506
income.56507

       (C)(1) The average daily membership in divisions (B)(1) to 56508
(12) of this section shall be based upon the number of full-time 56509
equivalent students. The state board of education shall adopt 56510
rules defining full-time equivalent students and for determining 56511
the average daily membership therefrom for the purposes of 56512
divisions (A), (B), and (D) of this section. Each student enrolled 56513
in kindergarten shall be counted as one full-time equivalent 56514
student regardless of whether the student is enrolled in a 56515
part-day or all-day kindergarten class.56516

       (2) A student enrolled in a community school established 56517
under Chapter 3314., a science, technology, engineering, and 56518
mathematics school established under Chapter 3326., or a 56519
college-preparatory boarding school established under Chapter 56520
3328. of the Revised Code shall be counted in the formula ADM and, 56521
if applicable, the category one, two, three, four, five, or six 56522
special education ADM of the school district in which the student 56523
is entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of 56524
the Revised Code for the same proportion of the school year that 56525
the student is counted in the enrollment of the community school, 56526
the science, technology, engineering, and mathematics school, or 56527
the college-preparatory boarding school for purposes of section 56528
3314.08, 3326.33, or 3328.24 of the Revised Code. Notwithstanding 56529
the number of students reported pursuant to division (B)(3)(d), 56530
(e), (j), or (k) of this section, the department may adjust the 56531
formula ADM of a school district to account for students entitled 56532
to attend school in the district under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 56533
of the Revised Code who are enrolled in a community school, a 56534
science, technology, engineering, and mathematics school, or a 56535
college-preparatory boarding school for only a portion of the 56536
school year.56537

        (3) No child shall be counted as more than a total of one 56538
child in the sum of the average daily memberships of a school 56539
district under division (A), divisions (B)(1) to (12)(22), or 56540
division (D) of this section, except as follows:56541

       (a) A child with a disability described in section 3317.013 56542
of the Revised Code may be counted both in formula ADM and in 56543
category one, two, three, four, five, or six special education ADM 56544
and, if applicable, in category one or, two vocational, three, 56545
four, or five career-technical education ADM. As provided in 56546
division (C)(H) of section 3317.02 of the Revised Code, such a 56547
child shall be counted in category one, two, three, four, five, or 56548
six special education ADM in the same proportion that the child is 56549
counted in formula ADM.56550

       (b) A child enrolled in vocationalcareer-technical education 56551
programs or classes described in section 3317.014 of the Revised 56552
Code may be counted both in formula ADM and category one or, two 56553
vocational, three, four, or five career-technical education ADM 56554
and, if applicable, in category one, two, three, four, five, or 56555
six special education ADM. Such a child shall be counted in 56556
category one or, two vocational, three, four, or five 56557
career-technical education ADM in the same proportion as the 56558
percentage of time that the child spends in the vocational56559
career-technical education programs or classes.56560

       (4) Based on the information reported under this section, the 56561
department of education shall determine the total student count, 56562
as defined in section 3301.011 of the Revised Code, for each 56563
school district.56564

       (D)(1) The superintendent of each joint vocational school 56565
district shall certify to the superintendent of public instruction 56566
on or before the fifteenth day of October in each yearmonth for 56567
the first full school week in October the formula ADM, for 56568
purposes of section 3318.42 of the Revised Code and for any other 56569
purpose prescribed by law for which "formula ADM" of the joint 56570
vocational district is a factorof that month the average daily 56571
membership. If a school operated by the joint vocational school 56572
district is closed for one or more days during thata week for 56573
which the average daily membership must be certified due to 56574
hazardous weather conditions or other circumstances described in 56575
the first paragraph of division (B)(A)(1) of section 3317.0156576
3313.482 of the Revised Code, the superintendent may apply to the 56577
superintendent of public instruction for a waiver, under which the 56578
superintendent of public instruction may exempt the district 56579
superintendent from certifying the formula ADMaverage daily 56580
membership for that school for that week and specify an alternate 56581
week in the same month for certifying the formula ADMaverage 56582
daily membership of that school.56583

       The formula ADMaverage daily membership, except as otherwise 56584
provided in this division, shall consist of the average daily 56585
membership during sucha week, on an FTE basis, of the number of 56586
students receiving any educational services from the district, 56587
including students enrolled in a community school established 56588
under Chapter 3314. or a science, technology, engineering, and 56589
mathematics school established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised 56590
Code who are attending the joint vocational district under an 56591
agreement between the district board of education and the 56592
governing authority of the community school or the governing body 56593
of the science, technology, engineering, and mathematics school56594
and are entitled to attend school in a city, local, or exempted 56595
village school district whose territory is part of the territory 56596
of the joint vocational district.56597

        The following categories of students shall not be included in 56598
the determination made under division (D)(1) of this section:56599

       (a) Students enrolled in adult education classes;56600

       (b) Adjacent or other district joint vocational students 56601
enrolled in the district under an open enrollment policy pursuant 56602
to section 3313.98 of the Revised Code;56603

       (c) Students receiving services in the district pursuant to a 56604
compact, cooperative education agreement, or a contract, but who 56605
are entitled to attend school in a city, local, or exempted 56606
village school district whose territory is not part of the 56607
territory of the joint vocational district;56608

       (d) Students for whom tuition is payable pursuant to sections 56609
3317.081 and 3323.141 of the Revised Code.56610

       (2) To enable the department of education to obtain the data 56611
needed to complete the calculation of payments pursuant to this 56612
chapter, in addition to the formula ADM, each superintendent shall 56613
report separately the average daily membership included in the 56614
report under division (D)(1) of this section for each of the 56615
following categories of students for each of the same weekweeks56616
for which formula ADM is certified:56617

       (a) Students enrolled in each individual grade included in 56618
the joint vocational district schools;56619

       (b) Children with disabilities receiving special education 56620
services for the category one disability described in division (A) 56621
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;56622

       (c) Children with disabilities receiving special education 56623
services for the category two disabilities described in division 56624
(B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;56625

       (d) Children with disabilities receiving special education 56626
services for category three disabilities described in division (C) 56627
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;56628

       (e) Children with disabilities receiving special education 56629
services for category four disabilities described in division (D) 56630
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;56631

       (f) Children with disabilities receiving special education 56632
services for the category five disabilities described in division 56633
(E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;56634

       (g) Children with disabilities receiving special education 56635
services for category six disabilities described in division (F) 56636
of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;56637

       (h) Students receiving category one vocational56638
career-technical education services, described in division (A) of 56639
section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;56640

       (i) Students receiving category two vocational56641
career-technical education services, described in division (B) of 56642
section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;56643

       (j) Students receiving category three career-technical 56644
education services, described in division (C) of section 3317.014 56645
of the Revised Code;56646

       (k) Students receiving category four career-technical 56647
education services, described in division (D) of section 3317.014 56648
of the Revised Code;56649

       (l) Students receiving category five career-technical 56650
education services, described in division (E) of section 3317.014 56651
of the Revised Code;56652

       (m) Limited English proficient students described in division 56653
(A) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;56654

       (n) Limited English proficient students described in division 56655
(B) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;56656

       (o) Limited English proficient students described in division 56657
(C) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;56658

       (p) Students who are economically disadvantaged, as defined 56659
by the department. A student shall not be categorically excluded 56660
from the number reported under division (D)(2)(p) of this section 56661
based on anything other than family income.56662

       The superintendent of each joint vocational school district 56663
shall also indicate the city, local, or exempted village school 56664
district in which each joint vocational district pupil is entitled 56665
to attend school pursuant to section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the 56666
Revised Code.56667

       (E) In each school of each city, local, exempted village, 56668
joint vocational, and cooperative education school district there 56669
shall be maintained a record of school membership, which record 56670
shall accurately show, for each day the school is in session, the 56671
actual membership enrolled in regular day classes. For the purpose 56672
of determining average daily membership, the membership figure of 56673
any school shall not include any pupils except those pupils 56674
described by division (A) of this section. The record of 56675
membership for each school shall be maintained in such manner that 56676
no pupil shall be counted as in membership prior to the actual 56677
date of entry in the school and also in such manner that where for 56678
any cause a pupil permanently withdraws from the school that pupil 56679
shall not be counted as in membership from and after the date of 56680
such withdrawal. There shall not be included in the membership of 56681
any school any of the following:56682

       (1) Any pupil who has graduated from the twelfth grade of a 56683
public or nonpublic high school;56684

       (2) Any pupil who is not a resident of the state;56685

       (3) Any pupil who was enrolled in the schools of the district 56686
during the previous school year when assessments were administered 56687
under section 3301.0711 of the Revised Code but did not take one 56688
or more of the assessments required by that section and was not 56689
excused pursuant to division (C)(1) or (3) of that section;56690

       (4) Any pupil who has attained the age of twenty-two years, 56691
except for veterans of the armed services whose attendance was 56692
interrupted before completing the recognized twelve-year course of 56693
the public schools by reason of induction or enlistment in the 56694
armed forces and who apply for reenrollment in the public school 56695
system of their residence not later than four years after 56696
termination of war or their honorable discharge.56697

       If, however, any veteran described by division (E)(4) of this 56698
section elects to enroll in special courses organized for veterans 56699
for whom tuition is paid under the provisions of federal laws, or 56700
otherwise, that veteran shall not be included in average daily 56701
membership.56702

       Notwithstanding division (E)(3) of this section, the 56703
membership of any school may include a pupil who did not take an 56704
assessment required by section 3301.0711 of the Revised Code if 56705
the superintendent of public instruction grants a waiver from the 56706
requirement to take the assessment to the specific pupil and a 56707
parent is not paying tuition for the pupil pursuant to section 56708
3313.6410 of the Revised Code. The superintendent may grant such a 56709
waiver only for good cause in accordance with rules adopted by the 56710
state board of education.56711

       Except as provided in divisions (B)(2) and (F) of this 56712
section, the average daily membership figure of any local, city, 56713
exempted village, or joint vocational school district shall be 56714
determined by dividing the figure representing the sum of the 56715
number of pupils enrolled during each day the school of attendance 56716
is actually open for instruction during the week for which the 56717
average daily membership is being certified by the total number of 56718
days the school was actually open for instruction during that 56719
week. For purposes of state funding, "enrolled" persons are only 56720
those pupils who are attending school, those who have attended 56721
school during the current school year and are absent for 56722
authorized reasons, and those children with disabilities currently 56723
receiving home instruction.56724

       The average daily membership figure of any cooperative 56725
education school district shall be determined in accordance with 56726
rules adopted by the state board of education.56727

       (F)(1) If the formula ADM for the first full school week in 56728
February is at least three per cent greater than that certified 56729
for the first full school week in the preceding October, the 56730
superintendent of schools of any city, exempted village, or joint 56731
vocational school district or educational service center shall 56732
certify such increase to the superintendent of public instruction. 56733
Such certification shall be submitted no later than the fifteenth 56734
day of February. For the balance of the fiscal year, beginning 56735
with the February payments, the superintendent of public 56736
instruction shall use the increased formula ADM in calculating or 56737
recalculating the amounts to be allocated in accordance with 56738
section 3317.022 or 3317.16 of the Revised Code. In no event shall 56739
the superintendent use an increased membership certified to the 56740
superintendent after the fifteenth day of February. Division 56741
(F)(1) of this section does not apply after fiscal year 2006.56742

       (2) If on the first school day of April the total number of 56743
classes or units for preschool children with disabilities that are 56744
eligible for approval under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the 56745
Revised Code exceeds the number of units that have been approved 56746
for the year under that division, the superintendent of schools of 56747
any city, exempted village, or cooperative education school 56748
district or educational service center shall make the 56749
certifications required by this section for that day. If the 56750
department determines additional units can be approved for the 56751
fiscal year within any limitations set forth in the acts 56752
appropriating moneys for the funding of such units, the department 56753
shall approve additional units for the fiscal year on the basis of 56754
such average daily membership. For each unit so approved, the 56755
department shall pay an amount computed in the manner prescribed 56756
in section 3317.052 or 3317.19 and section 3317.053 of the Revised 56757
Code.56758

       (3) If a student attending a community school under Chapter 56759
3314., a science, technology, engineering, and mathematics school 56760
established under Chapter 3326., or a college-preparatory boarding 56761
school established under Chapter 3328. of the Revised Code is not 56762
included in the formula ADM certified for the school district in 56763
which the student is entitled to attend school under section 56764
3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code, the department of 56765
education shall adjust the formula ADM of that school district to 56766
include the student in accordance with division (C)(2) of this 56767
section, and shall recalculate the school district's payments 56768
under this chapter for the entire fiscal year on the basis of that 56769
adjusted formula ADM. This requirement applies regardless of 56770
whether the student was enrolled, as defined in division (E) of 56771
this section, in the community school, the science, technology, 56772
engineering, and mathematics school, or the college-preparatory 56773
boarding school during the weekweeks for which the formula ADM is 56774
being certified.56775

        (4)(2) If a student awarded an educational choice scholarship 56776
is not included in the formula ADM of the school district from 56777
which the department deducts funds for the scholarship under 56778
section 3310.08 of the Revised Code, the department shall adjust 56779
the formula ADM of that school district to include the student to 56780
the extent necessary to account for the deduction, and shall 56781
recalculate the school district's payments under this chapter for 56782
the entire fiscal year on the basis of that adjusted formula ADM. 56783
This requirement applies regardless of whether the student was 56784
enrolled, as defined in division (E) of this section, in the 56785
chartered nonpublic school, the school district, or a community 56786
school during the weekweeks for which the formula ADM is being 56787
certified.56788

       (5)(3) If a student awarded a scholarship under the Jon 56789
Peterson special needs scholarship program is not included in the 56790
formula ADM of the school district from which the department 56791
deducts funds for the scholarship under section 3310.55 of the 56792
Revised Code, the department shall adjust the formula ADM of that 56793
school district to include the student to the extent necessary to 56794
account for the deduction, and shall recalculate the school 56795
district's payments under this chapter for the entire fiscal year 56796
on the basis of that adjusted formula ADM. This requirement 56797
applies regardless of whether the student was enrolled, as defined 56798
in division (E) of this section, in an alternative public 56799
provider, a registered private provider, or the school district 56800
during the weekweeks for which the formula ADM is being 56801
certified. 56802

       (G)(1)(a) The superintendent of an institution operating a 56803
special education program pursuant to section 3323.091 of the 56804
Revised Code shall, for the programs under such superintendent's 56805
supervision, certify to the state board of education, in the 56806
manner prescribed by the superintendent of public instruction, 56807
both of the following:56808

       (i) The average daily membership of all children with 56809
disabilities other than preschool children with disabilities 56810
receiving services at the institution for each category of 56811
disability described in divisions (A) to (F) of section 3317.013 56812
of the Revised Code;56813

       (ii) The average daily membership of all preschool children 56814
with disabilities in classes or programs approved annually by the 56815
department of education for unitfor whom the district is eligible 56816
to receive funding under section 3317.053317.0213 of the Revised 56817
Code, reported according to the categories prescribed in section 56818
3317.013 of the Revised Code.56819

       (b) The superintendent of an institution with vocational56820
career-technical education units approved under division (A) of56821
section 3317.05 of the Revised Code shall, for the units under the 56822
superintendent's supervision, certify to the state board of 56823
education the average daily membership in those units, in the 56824
manner prescribed by the superintendent of public instruction.56825

       (2) The superintendent of each county DD board that maintains 56826
special education classes under section 3317.20 of the Revised 56827
Code or units approvedprovides services to preschool children 56828
with disabilities pursuant to section 3317.05 of the Revised Code56829
an agreement between the DD board and the appropriate school 56830
district shall do both of the following:56831

       (a) Certify to the state board, in the manner prescribed by 56832
the board, the average daily membership in classes under section 56833
3317.20 of the Revised Code for each school district that has 56834
placed children in the classes;56835

       (b) Certify to the state board, in the manner prescribed by 56836
the board, the number of all preschool children with disabilities 56837
enrolled as of the first day of December in classes for which the 56838
DD board is eligible for approvalto receive funding under 56839
division (B) of section 3317.053317.0213 of the Revised Code, 56840
reported according to the categories prescribed in section 56841
3317.013 of the Revised Code, and the number of those classes.56842

       (3)(a) If on the first school day of April the number of 56843
classes or units maintained for preschool children with 56844
disabilities by the county DD board that are eligible for approval 56845
under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the Revised Code is 56846
greater than the number of units approved for the year under that 56847
division, the superintendent shall make the certification required 56848
by this section for that day.56849

       (b) If the department determines that additional classes or 56850
units can be approved for the fiscal year within any limitations 56851
set forth in the acts appropriating moneys for the funding of the 56852
classes and units described in division (G)(3)(a) of this section, 56853
the department shall approve and fund additional units for the 56854
fiscal year on the basis of such average daily membership. For 56855
each unit so approved, the department shall pay an amount computed 56856
in the manner prescribed in sections 3317.052 and 3317.053 of the 56857
Revised Code.56858

       (H) Except as provided in division (I) of this section, when 56859
any city, local, or exempted village school district provides 56860
instruction for a nonresident pupil whose attendance is 56861
unauthorized attendance as defined in section 3327.06 of the 56862
Revised Code, that pupil's membership shall not be included in 56863
that district's membership figure used in the calculation of that 56864
district's formula ADM or included in the determination of any 56865
unitfunding approved for the district under section 3317.0556866
3317.0213 of the Revised Code. The reporting official shall report 56867
separately the average daily membership of all pupils whose 56868
attendance in the district is unauthorized attendance, and the 56869
membership of each such pupil shall be credited to the school 56870
district in which the pupil is entitled to attend school under 56871
division (B) of section 3313.64 or section 3313.65 of the Revised 56872
Code as determined by the department of education.56873

       (I)(1) A city, local, exempted village, or joint vocational 56874
school district admitting a scholarship student of a pilot project 56875
district pursuant to division (C) of section 3313.976 of the 56876
Revised Code may count such student in its average daily 56877
membership.56878

       (2) In any year for which funds are appropriated for pilot 56879
project scholarship programs, a school district implementing a 56880
state-sponsored pilot project scholarship program that year 56881
pursuant to sections 3313.974 to 3313.979 of the Revised Code may 56882
count in average daily membership:56883

       (a) All children residing in the district and utilizing a 56884
scholarship to attend kindergarten in any alternative school, as 56885
defined in section 3313.974 of the Revised Code;56886

       (b) All children who were enrolled in the district in the 56887
preceding year who are utilizing a scholarship to attend an 56888
alternative school.56889

       (J) The superintendent of each cooperative education school 56890
district shall certify to the superintendent of public 56891
instruction, in a manner prescribed by the state board of 56892
education, the applicable average daily memberships for all 56893
students in the cooperative education district, also indicating 56894
the city, local, or exempted village district where each pupil is 56895
entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the 56896
Revised Code.56897

       (K) If the superintendent of public instruction determines 56898
that a component of the average daily membership certified or 56899
reported by a district superintendent, or other reporting entity, 56900
is not correct, the superintendent of public instruction may order 56901
that the formula ADM used for the purposes of payments under any 56902
section of Title XXXIII of the Revised Code be adjusted in the 56903
amount of the error.56904

       Sec. 3317.032. (A) Each city, local, exempted village, and 56905
cooperative education school district, each educational service 56906
center, each county DD board, and each institution operating a 56907
special education program pursuant to section 3323.091 of the 56908
Revised Code shall, in accordance with procedures adopted by the 56909
state board of education, maintain a record of district membership 56910
of both of the following:56911

       (1) All preschool children with disabilities in units 56912
approved under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the Revised 56913
Code; 56914

       (2) Allall preschool children with disabilities who are not 56915
in units approved under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the 56916
Revised Code but who are otherwise served by a special education 56917
program.56918

       (B) The superintendent of each district, board, or 56919
institution subject to division (A) of this section shall certify 56920
to the state board of education, in accordance with procedures 56921
adopted by that board, membership figures of all preschool 56922
children with disabilities whose membership is maintained under 56923
division (A)(2) of this section. The figures certified under this 56924
division shall be used in the determination of the ADM used to 56925
compute funds for educational service center governing boards 56926
under section 3317.11 of the Revised Code.56927

       Sec. 3317.05.  (A) For the purpose of calculating payments 56928
under sections 3317.052 and 3317.053 of the Revised Code, theThe56929
department of education shall determine for each institution, by 56930
the last day of January of each year and based on information 56931
certified under section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, the number of 56932
vocationalcareer-technical education units or fractions of units 56933
approved by the department on the basis of standards and rules 56934
adopted by the state board of education. As used in this division56935
section, "institution" means an institution operated by a 56936
department specified in section 3323.091 of the Revised Code and 56937
that provides vocationalcareer-technical education programs under 56938
the supervision of the division of vocationalcareer-technical56939
education of the department that meet the standards and rules for 56940
these programs, including licensure of professional staff involved 56941
in the programs, as established by the state board.56942

       (B) For the purpose of calculating payments under sections 56943
3317.052, 3317.053, 3317.11, and 3317.19 of the Revised Code, the 56944
department shall determine, based on information certified under 56945
section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, the following by the last day 56946
of January of each year for each educational service center, for 56947
each school district, including each cooperative education school 56948
district, for each institution eligible for payment under section 56949
3323.091 of the Revised Code, and for each county DD board: the 56950
number of classes operated by the school district, service center, 56951
institution, or county DD board for preschool children with 56952
disabilities, or fraction thereof, including in the case of a 56953
district or service center that is a funding agent, classes taught 56954
by a licensed teacher employed by that district or service center 56955
under section 3313.841 of the Revised Code, approved annually by 56956
the department on the basis of standards and rules adopted by the 56957
state board.56958

       (C) For the purpose of calculating payments under sections 56959
3317.052, 3317.053, 3317.11, and 3317.19 of the Revised Code, the 56960
department shall determine, based on information certified under 56961
section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, the following by the last day 56962
of January of each year for each school district, including each 56963
cooperative education school district, for each institution 56964
eligible for payment under section 3323.091 of the Revised Code, 56965
and for each county DD board: the number of units for related 56966
services, as defined in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code, for 56967
preschool children with disabilities approved annually by the 56968
department on the basis of standards and rules adopted by the 56969
state board.56970

       (D) All of the arithmetical calculations made under this 56971
section shall be carried to the second decimal place. The total 56972
number of units for school districts, service centers, and56973
institutions approved annually under this section shall not exceed 56974
the number of units included in the estimate of cost for these 56975
units and appropriations made for them by the general assembly.56976

        In the case of units for preschool children with disabilities 56977
described in division (B) of this section, the department shall 56978
approve only preschool units for children who are under age six on 56979
the thirtieth day of September of the academic year, or on the 56980
first day of August of the academic year if the school district in 56981
which the child is enrolled has adopted a resolution under 56982
division (A)(3) of section 3321.01 of the Revised Code, but not 56983
less than age three on the first day of December of the academic 56984
year, except that such a unit may include one or more children who 56985
are under age three or are age six or over on the applicable date, 56986
as reported under division (B)(2) or (G)(2)(b) of section 3317.03 56987
of the Revised Code, if such children have been admitted to the 56988
unit pursuant to rules of the state board. The number of units for 56989
county DD boards and institutions eligible for payment under 56990
section 3323.091 of the Revised Code approved under this section 56991
shall not exceed the number that can be funded with appropriations 56992
made for such purposes by the general assembly.56993

       No unit shall be approved under divisions (B) and (C) of this 56994
section unless a plan has been submitted and approved under 56995
Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code.56996

       (C) The department shall pay each institution approved for 56997
career-technical education units under division (A) of this 56998
section an amount for the total of all the units approved under 56999
that division. The amount for each unit shall be the sum of the 57000
minimum salary for the teacher of the unit, calculated on the 57001
basis of the teacher's training level and years of experience 57002
pursuant to the salary schedule prescribed in the version of 57003
section 3317.13 of the Revised Code in effect prior to July 1, 57004
2001, plus fifteen per cent of that minimum salary amount, and 57005
nine thousand five hundred ten dollars. Each institution that 57006
receives unit funds under this division annually shall report to 57007
the department on the delivery of services and the performance of 57008
students and any other information required by the department to 57009
evaluate the institution's career-technical education program.57010

       (D) For each unit allocated to an institution pursuant to 57011
division (A) of this section, the department, in addition to the 57012
amount specified in division (B) of this section, shall pay a 57013
supplemental unit allowance of $7,227.57014

       Sec. 3317.051.  (A) As used in this section, "gifted unit 57015
ADM" means a school district's formula ADM minus the number of 57016
students reported by a district under divisions (A)(2)(a) and (i) 57017
of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code.57018

       (B) The department of education shall compute and pay to a 57019
school district funds based on units for services to students 57020
identified as gifted under Chapter 3324. of the Revised Code as 57021
prescribed by this section.57022

       (C) The department shall allocate gifted units for a school 57023
district as follows:57024

       (1) One gifted coordinator unit shall be allocated for every 57025
3,300 students in a district's gifted unit ADM, with a minimum of 57026
0.5 units and a maximum of 8 units allocated for the district.57027

       (2) One gifted intervention specialist unit shall be 57028
allocated for every 1,100 students in a district's gifted unit 57029
ADM, with a minimum of 0.3 units allocated for the district.57030

       (D) The department shall pay the following amount to a school 57031
district for gifted units:57032

       (1) In fiscal year 2014, $37,000 multiplied by the number of 57033
units allocated to a school district under division (C) of this 57034
section;57035

       (2) In fiscal year 2015, $37,370 multiplied by the number of 57036
units allocated to a school district under division (C) of this 57037
section.57038

       A school district shall use the funds it receives for units 57039
allocated under division (C)(1) of this section only for gifted 57040
coordinator services as prescribed by the department. Qualified 57041
personnel shall be employed by the district for this purpose on a 57042
full-time equivalency basis that corresponds to the number of 57043
units allocated to the district under division (C)(1) of this 57044
section.57045

       A school district shall use the funds it receives for units 57046
allocated under division (C)(2) of this section only for gifted 57047
intervention specialist services as prescribed by the department. 57048
Qualified personnel shall be employed by the district for this 57049
purpose on a full-time equivalency basis that corresponds to the 57050
number of units allocated to the district under division (C)(2) of 57051
this section.57052

       (E) A school district may assign gifted unit funding that it 57053
receives under division (D) of this section to another school 57054
district, an educational service center, a community school, or a 57055
STEM school as part of an arrangement to provide services to the 57056
district as follows:57057

       (1) Funds received for units allocated under division (C)(1) 57058
of this section may be assigned to a district, service center, or 57059
school that employs qualified gifted coordinators;57060

       (2) Funds received for units allocated under division (C)(2) 57061
of this section may be assigned to a district, service center, or 57062
school that employs qualified gifted intervention specialists.57063

       Sec. 3317.06.  Moneys paid to school districts under division 57064
(E) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code shall be used for the 57065
following independent and fully severable purposes:57066

       (A) To purchase such secular textbooks or electronic 57067
textbooksdigital texts as have been approved by the 57068
superintendent of public instruction for use in public schools in 57069
the state and to loan such textbooks or electronic textbooks57070
digital texts to pupils attending nonpublic schools within the 57071
district or to their parents and to hire clerical personnel to 57072
administer such lending program. Such loans shall be based upon 57073
individual requests submitted by such nonpublic school pupils or 57074
parents. Such requests shall be submitted to the school district 57075
in which the nonpublic school is located. Such individual requests 57076
for the loan of textbooks or electronic textbooksdigital texts57077
shall, for administrative convenience, be submitted by the 57078
nonpublic school pupil or the pupil's parent to the nonpublic 57079
school, which shall prepare and submit collective summaries of the 57080
individual requests to the school district. As used in this 57081
section:57082

       (1) "Textbook" means any book or book substitute that a pupil 57083
uses as a consumable or nonconsumable text, text substitute, or 57084
text supplement in a particular class or program in the school the 57085
pupil regularly attends.57086

       (2) "Electronic textbook""Digital text" means anya 57087
consumable book or book substitute that a student accesses through 57088
the use of a computer or other electronic medium or that is 57089
available through an internet-based provider of course content, or 57090
any other material that contributes to the learning process 57091
through electronic means.57092

       (B) To provide speech and hearing diagnostic services to 57093
pupils attending nonpublic schools within the district. Such 57094
service shall be provided in the nonpublic school attended by the 57095
pupil receiving the service.57096

       (C) To provide physician, nursing, dental, and optometric 57097
services to pupils attending nonpublic schools within the 57098
district. Such services shall be provided in the school attended 57099
by the nonpublic school pupil receiving the service.57100

       (D) To provide diagnostic psychological services to pupils 57101
attending nonpublic schools within the district. Such services 57102
shall be provided in the school attended by the pupil receiving 57103
the service.57104

       (E) To provide therapeutic psychological and speech and 57105
hearing services to pupils attending nonpublic schools within the 57106
district. Such services shall be provided in the public school, in 57107
nonpublic schools, in public centers, or in mobile units located 57108
on or off of the nonpublic premises. If such services are provided 57109
in the public school or in public centers, transportation to and 57110
from such facilities shall be provided by the school district in 57111
which the nonpublic school is located.57112

       (F) To provide guidance, counseling, and social work services 57113
to pupils attending nonpublic schools within the district. Such 57114
services shall be provided in the public school, in nonpublic 57115
schools, in public centers, or in mobile units located on or off 57116
of the nonpublic premises. If such services are provided in the 57117
public school or in public centers, transportation to and from 57118
such facilities shall be provided by the school district in which 57119
the nonpublic school is located.57120

       (G) To provide remedial services to pupils attending 57121
nonpublic schools within the district. Such services shall be 57122
provided in the public school, in nonpublic schools, in public 57123
centers, or in mobile units located on or off of the nonpublic 57124
premises. If such services are provided in the public school or in 57125
public centers, transportation to and from such facilities shall 57126
be provided by the school district in which the nonpublic school 57127
is located.57128

       (H) To supply for use by pupils attending nonpublic schools 57129
within the district such standardized tests and scoring services 57130
as are in use in the public schools of the state;57131

       (I) To provide programs for children who attend nonpublic 57132
schools within the district and are children with disabilities as 57133
defined in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code or gifted children. 57134
Such programs shall be provided in the public school, in nonpublic 57135
schools, in public centers, or in mobile units located on or off 57136
of the nonpublic premises. If such programs are provided in the 57137
public school or in public centers, transportation to and from 57138
such facilities shall be provided by the school district in which 57139
the nonpublic school is located.57140

       (J) To hire clerical personnel to assist in the 57141
administration of programs pursuant to divisions (B), (C), (D), 57142
(E), (F), (G), and (I) of this section and to hire supervisory 57143
personnel to supervise the providing of services and textbooks 57144
pursuant to this section.57145

       (K) To purchase or lease any secular, neutral, and 57146
nonideological computer application software designed to assist 57147
students in performing a single task or multiple related tasks, 57148
device management software, learning management software, 57149
site-licensing, digital video on demand (DVD), wide area 57150
connectivity and related technology as it relates to internet 57151
access, mathematics or science equipment and materials, 57152
instructional materials, and school library materials that are in 57153
general use in the public schools of the state and loan such items 57154
to pupils attending nonpublic schools within the district or to 57155
their parents, and to hire clerical personnel to administer the 57156
lending program. Only such items that are incapable of diversion 57157
to religious use and that are susceptible of loan to individual 57158
pupils and are furnished for the use of individual pupils shall be 57159
purchased and loaned under this division. As used in this section, 57160
"instructional materials" means prepared learning materials that 57161
are secular, neutral, and nonideological in character and are of 57162
benefit to the instruction of school children, and may include 57163
educational resources and services developed by the eTech Ohio 57164
commission.57165

       Mobile applications that are secular, neutral, and 57166
nonideological in character and that are purchased for less than 57167
ten dollars for instructional use shall be considered to be 57168
consumable and shall be distributed to students without the 57169
expectation that the applications must be returned.57170

       (L) To purchase or lease instructional equipment, including 57171
computer hardware and related equipment in general use in the 57172
public schools of the state, for use by pupils attending nonpublic 57173
schools within the district and to loan such items to pupils 57174
attending nonpublic schools within the district or to their 57175
parents, and to hire clerical personnel to administer the lending 57176
program. "Computer hardware and related equipment" includes 57177
desktop computers and workstations; laptop computers, computer 57178
tablets, and other mobile handheld devices; and their operating 57179
systems and accessories.57180

       (M) To purchase mobile units to be used for the provision of 57181
services pursuant to divisions (E), (F), (G), and (I) of this 57182
section and to pay for necessary repairs and operating costs 57183
associated with these units.57184

       (N) To reimburse costs the district incurred to store the 57185
records of a chartered nonpublic school that closes. 57186
Reimbursements under this division shall be made one time only for 57187
each chartered nonpublic school that closes.57188

       (O) To purchase life-saving medical or other emergency 57189
equipment for placement in nonpublic schools within the district 57190
or to maintain such equipment.57191

       Clerical and supervisory personnel hired pursuant to division 57192
(J) of this section shall perform their services in the public 57193
schools, in nonpublic schools, public centers, or mobile units 57194
where the services are provided to the nonpublic school pupil, 57195
except that such personnel may accompany pupils to and from the 57196
service sites when necessary to ensure the safety of the children 57197
receiving the services.57198

       All services provided pursuant to this section may be 57199
provided under contract with educational service centers, the 57200
department of health, city or general health districts, or private 57201
agencies whose personnel are properly licensed by an appropriate 57202
state board or agency.57203

       Transportation of pupils provided pursuant to divisions (E), 57204
(F), (G), and (I) of this section shall be provided by the school 57205
district from its general funds and not from moneys paid to it 57206
under division (E) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code unless 57207
a special transportation request is submitted by the parent of the 57208
child receiving service pursuant to such divisions. If such an 57209
application is presented to the school district, it may pay for 57210
the transportation from moneys paid to it under division (E) of 57211
section 3317.024 of the Revised Code.57212

       No school district shall provide health or remedial services 57213
to nonpublic school pupils as authorized by this section unless 57214
such services are available to pupils attending the public schools 57215
within the district.57216

       Materials, equipment, computer hardware or software, 57217
textbooks, electronic textbooksdigital texts, and health and 57218
remedial services provided for the benefit of nonpublic school 57219
pupils pursuant to this section and the admission of pupils to 57220
such nonpublic schools shall be provided without distinction as to 57221
race, creed, color, or national origin of such pupils or of their 57222
teachers.57223

       No school district shall provide services, materials, or 57224
equipment that contain religious content for use in religious 57225
courses, devotional exercises, religious training, or any other 57226
religious activity.57227

       As used in this section, "parent" includes a person standing 57228
in loco parentis to a child.57229

       Notwithstanding section 3317.01 of the Revised Code, payments 57230
shall be made under this section to any city, local, or exempted 57231
village school district within which is located one or more 57232
nonpublic elementary or high schools and any payments made to 57233
school districts under division (E) of section 3317.024 of the 57234
Revised Code for purposes of this section may be disbursed without 57235
submission to and approval of the controlling board.57236

       The allocation of payments for materials, equipment, 57237
textbooks, electronic textbooksdigital texts, health services, 57238
and remedial services to city, local, and exempted village school 57239
districts shall be on the basis of the state board of education's 57240
estimated annual average daily membership in nonpublic elementary 57241
and high schools located in the district.57242

       Payments made to city, local, and exempted village school 57243
districts under this section shall be equal to specific 57244
appropriations made for the purpose. All interest earned by a 57245
school district on such payments shall be used by the district for 57246
the same purposes and in the same manner as the payments may be 57247
used.57248

       The department of education shall adopt guidelines and 57249
procedures under which such programs and services shall be 57250
provided, under which districts shall be reimbursed for 57251
administrative costs incurred in providing such programs and 57252
services, and under which any unexpended balance of the amounts 57253
appropriated by the general assembly to implement this section may 57254
be transferred to the auxiliary services personnel unemployment 57255
compensation fund established pursuant to section 4141.47 of the 57256
Revised Code. The department shall also adopt guidelines and 57257
procedures limiting the purchase and loan of the items described 57258
in division (K) of this section to items that are in general use 57259
in the public schools of the state, that are incapable of 57260
diversion to religious use, and that are susceptible to individual 57261
use rather than classroom use. Within thirty days after the end of 57262
each biennium, each board of education shall remit to the 57263
department all moneys paid to it under division (E) of section 57264
3317.024 of the Revised Code and any interest earned on those 57265
moneys that are not required to pay expenses incurred under this 57266
section during the biennium for which the money was appropriated 57267
and during which the interest was earned. If a board of education 57268
subsequently determines that the remittal of moneys leaves the 57269
board with insufficient money to pay all valid expenses incurred 57270
under this section during the biennium for which the remitted 57271
money was appropriated, the board may apply to the department of 57272
education for a refund of money, not to exceed the amount of the 57273
insufficiency. If the department determines the expenses were 57274
lawfully incurred and would have been lawful expenditures of the 57275
refunded money, it shall certify its determination and the amount 57276
of the refund to be made to the director of job and family 57277
services who shall make a refund as provided in section 4141.47 of 57278
the Revised Code.57279

       Each school district shall label materials, equipment, 57280
computer hardware or software, textbooks, and electronic textbooks57281
digital texts purchased or leased for loan to a nonpublic school 57282
under this section, acknowledging that they were purchased or 57283
leased with state funds under this section. However, a district 57284
need not label materials, equipment, computer hardware or 57285
software, textbooks, or electronic textbooksdigital texts that 57286
the district determines are consumable in nature or have a value 57287
of less than two hundred dollars.57288

       Sec. 3317.063.  The superintendent of public instruction, in 57289
accordance with rules adopted by the department of education, 57290
shall annually reimburse each chartered nonpublic school for the 57291
actual mandated service administrative and clerical costs incurred 57292
by such school during the preceding school year in preparing, 57293
maintaining, and filing reports, forms, and records, and in 57294
providing such other administrative and clerical services that are 57295
not an integral part of the teaching process as may be required by 57296
state law or rule or by requirements duly promulgated by city, 57297
exempted village, or local school districts. The mandated service 57298
costs reimbursed pursuant to this section shall include, but are 57299
not limited to, the preparation, filing and maintenance of forms, 57300
reports, or records and other clerical and administrative services 57301
relating to state chartering or approval of the nonpublic school, 57302
pupil attendance, pupil health and health testing, transportation 57303
of pupils, federally funded education programs, pupil appraisal, 57304
pupil progress, educator licensure, unemployment and workers' 57305
compensation, transfer of pupils, and such other education related 57306
data which are now or hereafter shall be required of such 57307
nonpublic school by state law or rule, or by requirements of the 57308
state department of education, other state agencies, or city, 57309
exempted village, or local school districts.57310

       The reimbursement required by this section shall be for 57311
school years beginning on or after July 1, 1981.57312

       Each nonpublic school which seeks reimbursement pursuant to 57313
this section shall submit to the superintendent of public 57314
instruction an application together with such additional reports 57315
and documents as the department of education may require. Such 57316
application, reports, and documents shall contain such information 57317
as the department of education may prescribe in order to carry out 57318
the purposes of this section. No payment shall be made until the 57319
superintendent of public instruction has approved such 57320
application.57321

       Each nonpublic school which applies for reimbursement 57322
pursuant to this section shall maintain a separate account or 57323
system of accounts for the expenses incurred in rendering the 57324
required services for which reimbursement is sought. Such accounts 57325
shall contain such information as is required by the department of 57326
education and shall be maintained in accordance with rules adopted 57327
by the department of education.57328

       Reimbursement payments to a nonpublic school pursuant to this 57329
section shall not exceed an amount for each school year equal to 57330
three hundred twenty-fivesixty dollars per pupil enrolled in that 57331
nonpublic school.57332

       The superintendent of public instruction may, from time to 57333
time, examine any and all accounts and records of a nonpublic 57334
school which have been maintained pursuant to this section in 57335
support of an application for reimbursement, for the purpose of 57336
determining the costs to such school of rendering the services for 57337
which reimbursement is sought. If after such audit it is 57338
determined that any school has received funds in excess of the 57339
actual cost of providing such services, said school shall 57340
immediately reimburse the state in such excess amount.57341

       Any payments made to chartered nonpublic schools under this 57342
section may be disbursed without submission to and approval of the 57343
controlling board.57344

       Sec. 3317.08.  A board of education may admit to its schools 57345
a child it is not required by section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the 57346
Revised Code to admit, if tuition is paid for the child.57347

       Unless otherwise provided by law, tuition shall be computed 57348
in accordance with this section. A district's tuition charge for a 57349
school year shall be one of the following:57350

       (A) For any child, except a preschool child with a disability 57351
described in division (B) of this section, the quotient obtained 57352
by dividing the sum of the amounts described in divisions (A)(1) 57353
and (2) of this section by the district's formula ADM.57354

       (1) The district's total taxes charged and payable for 57355
current expenses for the tax year preceding the tax year in which 57356
the school year begins as certified under division (A)(3) of 57357
section 3317.021 of the Revised Code.57358

       (2) The district's total taxes collected for current expenses 57359
under a school district income tax adopted pursuant to section 57360
5748.03, 5748.08, or 5748.09 of the Revised Code that are 57361
disbursed to the district during the fiscal year, excluding any 57362
income tax receipts allocated for the project cost, debt service, 57363
or maintenance set-aside associated with a state-assisted 57364
classroom facilities project as authorized by section 3318.052 of 57365
the Revised Code. On or before the first day of June of each year, 57366
the tax commissioner shall certify the amount to be used in the 57367
calculation under this division for the next fiscal year to the 57368
department of education and the office of budget and management 57369
for each city, local, and exempted village school district that 57370
levies a school district income tax.57371

       (B) For any preschool child with a disability not included in 57372
a unit approved under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the 57373
Revised Code, an amount computed for the school year as follows:57374

       (1) For each type of special education service provided to 57375
the child for whom tuition is being calculated, determine the 57376
amount of the district's operating expenses in providing that type 57377
of service to all preschool children with disabilities not 57378
included in units approved under division (B) of section 3317.05 57379
of the Revised Code;57380

       (2) For each type of special education service for which 57381
operating expenses are determined under division (B)(1) of this 57382
section, determine the amount of such operating expenses that was 57383
paid from any state funds received under this chapter;57384

       (3) For each type of special education service for which 57385
operating expenses are determined under division (B)(1) of this 57386
section, divide the difference between the amount determined under 57387
division (B)(1) of this section and the amount determined under 57388
division (B)(2) of this section by the total number of preschool 57389
children with disabilities not included in units approved under 57390
division (B) of section 3317.05 of the Revised Code who received 57391
that type of service;57392

       (4) Determine the sum of the quotients obtained under 57393
division (B)(3) of this section for all types of special education 57394
services provided to the child for whom tuition is being 57395
calculated.57396

       The state board of education shall adopt rules defining the 57397
types of special education services and specifying the operating 57398
expenses to be used in the computation under this section.57399

       If any child for whom a tuition charge is computed under this 57400
section for any school year is enrolled in a district for only 57401
part of that school year, the amount of the district's tuition 57402
charge for the child for the school year shall be computed in 57403
proportion to the number of school days the child is enrolled in 57404
the district during the school year.57405

       Except as otherwise provided in division (J) of section 57406
3313.64 of the Revised Code, whenever a district admits a child to 57407
its schools for whom tuition computed in accordance with this 57408
section is an obligation of another school district, the amount of 57409
the tuition shall be certified by the treasurer of the board of 57410
education of the district of attendance, to the board of education 57411
of the district required to pay tuition for its approval and 57412
payment. If agreement as to the amount payable or the district 57413
required to pay the tuition cannot be reached, or the board of 57414
education of the district required to pay the tuition refuses to 57415
pay that amount, the board of education of the district of 57416
attendance shall notify the superintendent of public instruction. 57417
The superintendent shall determine the correct amount and the 57418
district required to pay the tuition and shall deduct that amount, 57419
if any, under division (D) of section 3317.023 of the Revised 57420
Code, from the district required to pay the tuition and add that 57421
amount to the amount allocated to the district attended under such 57422
division. The superintendent of public instruction shall send to 57423
the district required to pay the tuition an itemized statement 57424
showing such deductions at the time of such deduction.57425

       When a political subdivision owns and operates an airport, 57426
welfare, or correctional institution or other project or facility 57427
outside its corporate limits, the territory within which the 57428
facility is located is exempt from taxation by the school district 57429
within which such territory is located, and there are school age 57430
children residing within such territory, the political subdivision 57431
owning such tax exempt territory shall pay tuition to the district 57432
in which such children attend school. The tuition for these 57433
children shall be computed as provided for in this section.57434

       Sec. 3317.10.  (A) On or before the first day of March of 57435
each year, the department of job and family services shall certify 57436
to the state board of education the unduplicated number of 57437
children ages five through seventeen residing in each school 57438
district and living in a family that, during the preceding 57439
October, participated in Ohio works first.57440

       The department of job and family services shall certify this 57441
information according to the school district of residence for each 57442
child. Except as provided under division (B) of this section, the 57443
number of children so certified in any year shall be used by the 57444
department of education in calculating the distribution of moneys 57445
for the ensuing fiscal year as provided in section 3317.029 of the 57446
Revised Code.57447

       (B) Upon the transfer of part of the territory of one school 57448
district to the territory of one or more other school districts, 57449
the department of education may adjust the number of children 57450
certified under division (A) of this section for any district 57451
gaining or losing territory in such a transfer in order to take 57452
into account the effect of the transfer on the number of such 57453
children who reside in the district. Within sixty days of receipt 57454
of a request for information from the department of education, the 57455
department of job and family services shall provide any 57456
information the department of education determines is necessary to 57457
make such adjustments. The department of education may use the 57458
adjusted number for any district for the applicable fiscal year, 57459
in lieu of the number certified for the district for that fiscal 57460
year under division (A) of this section, in the calculation of the 57461
distribution of moneys provided in section 3317.029 of the Revised 57462
Code.57463

       Sec. 3317.14.  Any school district board of education or 57464
educational service center governing board participating in funds 57465
distributed under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code shall annually 57466
adopt a teachers' salary schedule with provision for increments 57467
based upon training and years of service. Notwithstanding sections 57468
3317.13 and 3319.088 of the Revised Code, the board may establish 57469
its own service requirements and may grant service credit for such 57470
activities as teaching in public or nonpublic schools in this 57471
state or in another state, for service as an educational assistant 57472
other than as a classroom aide employed in accordance with section 57473
5107.541 of the Revised Code, and for service in the military or 57474
in an appropriate state or federal governmental agency, provided 57475
no teacher receives less than the amount required to be paid 57476
pursuant to section 3317.13 of the Revised Code and provided full 57477
credit for a minimum of five years of actual teaching and military 57478
experience as defined in division (A) of section 3317.13 of the 57479
Revised Code is given to each teacher.57480

       On the fifteenth day of October of each year, a copy of the 57481
salary schedule in effect on that date shall be filed by the board 57482
of education of each local school district with the educational 57483
service center superintendent, who thereupon shall certify to the 57484
treasurer of such local district the correct salary to be paid to 57485
each teacher in accordance with the adopted schedule.57486

       Each teacher who has completed training which would qualify 57487
such teacher for a higher salary bracket pursuant to this section 57488
shall file by the fifteenth day of September with the treasurer of 57489
the board of education or educational service center satisfactory 57490
evidence of the completion of such additional training. The 57491
treasurer shall then immediately place the teacher, pursuant to 57492
this section and section 3317.13 of the Revised Code, in the 57493
proper salary bracket in accordance with training and years of 57494
service before certifying such salary, training, and years of 57495
service to the superintendent of public instruction. No teacher 57496
shall be paid less than the salary to which such teacher is 57497
entitled pursuant to section 3317.13 of the Revised Code.57498

       Sec. 3317.16.  (A) The department of education shall compute 57499
and distribute state core foundation funding to each joint 57500
vocational school district for the fiscal year as prescribed in 57501
the following divisions:57502

       (1) An opportunity grant calculated according to the 57503
following formula:57504

(The formula amount X formula ADM) - (0.0005 X the
57505

district's three-year average valuation)
57506

       If the result of the calculation for a joint vocational 57507
school district under division (A)(1) of this section is less than 57508
zero, the joint vocational school district's opportunity grant 57509
shall be zero.57510

       (2) Additional state aid for special education and related 57511
services provided under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code 57512
calculated as the sum of the following:57513

The formula amount X the district's total special education
57514

weight X the district's state share percentage
57515

       (3) Economically disadvantaged funds calculated according to 57516
the following formula:57517

($340, in fiscal year 2014, or $343, in fiscal year 2015) X
57518

(the district's economically disadvantaged index) X the number
57519

of students who are economically disadvantaged as reported under
57520

division (D)(2)(p) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code
57521

       (4) Limited English proficiency funds calculated as the sum 57522
of the following:57523

       (a) The district's category one limited English proficient 57524
ADM X the amount specified in division (A) of section 3317.016 of 57525
the Revised Code X the district's state share percentage;57526

       (b) The district's category two limited English proficient 57527
ADM X the amount specified in division (B) of section 3317.016 of 57528
the Revised Code X the district's state share percentage;57529

       (c) The district's category three limited English proficient 57530
ADM X the amount specified in division (C) of section 3317.016 of 57531
the Revised Code X the district's state share percentage;57532

       (5) Career-technical education funds calculated according to 57533
the following formula:57534

The formula amount X the district's total career-technical
57535

education weight X the district's state share percentage
57536

       Payment of funds under division (A)(5) of this section is 57537
subject to approval under section 3317.161 of the Revised Code.57538

       (6) Career-technical education associated services funds 57539
calculated under the following formula:57540

The district's state share percentage X 0.05 X the formula
57541

amount X the sum of categories one through five career-technical
57542

education ADM
57543

       (B)(1) If a joint vocational school district's costs for a 57544
fiscal year for a student in its categories two through six 57545
special education ADM exceed the threshold catastrophic cost for 57546
serving the student, as specified in division (B) of section 57547
3317.0214 of the Revised Code, the district may submit to the 57548
superintendent of public instruction documentation, as prescribed 57549
by the superintendent, of all of its costs for that student. Upon 57550
submission of documentation for a student of the type and in the 57551
manner prescribed, the department shall pay to the district an 57552
amount equal to the sum of the following:57553

       (a) One-half of the district's costs for the student in 57554
excess of the threshold catastrophic cost;57555

       (b) The product of one-half of the district's costs for the 57556
student in excess of the threshold catastrophic cost multiplied by 57557
the district's state share percentage.57558

       (2) The district shall report under division (B)(1) of this 57559
section, and the department shall pay for, only the costs of 57560
educational expenses and the related services provided to the 57561
student in accordance with the student's individualized education 57562
program. Any legal fees, court costs, or other costs associated 57563
with any cause of action relating to the student may not be 57564
included in the amount.57565

       (C)(1) For each student with a disability receiving special 57566
education and related services under an individualized education 57567
program, as defined in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code, at a 57568
joint vocational district, the resident district or, if the 57569
student is enrolled in a community school, the community school 57570
shall be responsible for the amount of any costs of providing 57571
those special education and related services to that student that 57572
exceed the sum of the amount calculated for those services 57573
attributable to that student under division (A) of this section.57574

       Those excess costs shall be calculated by subtracting the sum 57575
of the following from the actual cost to provide special education 57576
and related services to the student:57577

       (a) The formula amount;57578

       (b) The formula amount times the multiple specified in 57579
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code that is applicable to the 57580
student;57581

       (c) Any funds paid under section 3317.0214 for the student.57582

       (2) The board of education of the joint vocational school 57583
district may report the excess costs calculated under division 57584
(C)(1) of this section to the department of education.57585

       (3) If the board of education of the joint vocational school 57586
district reports excess costs under division (C)(2) of this 57587
section, the department shall pay the amount of excess cost 57588
calculated under division (C)(2) of this section to the joint 57589
vocational school district and shall deduct that amount as 57590
provided in division (C)(3)(a) or (b) of this section, as 57591
applicable:57592

       (a) If the student is not enrolled in a community school, the 57593
department shall deduct the amount from the account of the 57594
student's resident district pursuant to division (J) of section 57595
3317.023 of the Revised Code.57596

       (b) If the student is enrolled in a community school, the 57597
department shall deduct the amount from the account of the 57598
community school pursuant to section 3314.083 of the Revised Code.57599

       (D)(1) In any fiscal year, a school district receiving funds 57600
under division (A)(5) of this section shall spend those funds only 57601
for the purposes that the department designates as approved for 57602
career-technical education expenses. Career-technical educational 57603
expenses approved by the department shall include only expenses 57604
connected to the delivery of career-technical programming to 57605
career-technical students. The department shall require the school 57606
district to report data annually so that the department may 57607
monitor the district's compliance with the requirements regarding 57608
the manner in which funding received under division (A)(5) of this 57609
section may be spent.57610

       (2) All funds received under division (A)(5) of this section 57611
shall be spent in the following manner:57612

        (a) At least seventy-five per cent of the funds shall be 57613
spent on curriculum development, purchase, and implementation; 57614
instructional resources and supplies; industry-based program 57615
certification; student assessment, credentialing, and placement; 57616
curriculum specific equipment purchases and leases; 57617
career-technical student organization fees and expenses; home and 57618
agency linkages; work-based learning experiences; professional 57619
development; and other costs directly associated with 57620
career-technical education programs including development of new 57621
programs.57622

        (b) Not more than twenty-five per cent of the funds shall be 57623
used for personnel expenditures.57624

       (E) In any fiscal year, a school district receiving funds 57625
under division (A)(6) of this section, or through a transfer of 57626
funds pursuant to division (I) of section 3317.023 of the Revised 57627
Code, shall spend those funds only for the purposes that the 57628
department designates as approved for career-technical education 57629
associated services expenses, which may include such purposes as 57630
apprenticeship coordinators, coordinators for other 57631
career-technical education services, career-technical evaluation, 57632
and other purposes designated by the department. The department 57633
may deny payment under division (A)(6) of this section to any 57634
district that the department determines is not operating those 57635
services or is using funds paid under division (A)(6) of this 57636
section, or through a transfer of funds pursuant to division (I) 57637
of section 3317.023 of the Revised Code, for other purposes.57638

       (F) As used in this section:57639

       (1) "Community school" means a community school established 57640
under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code.57641

       (2) "Resident district" means the city, local, or exempted 57642
village school district in which a student is entitled to attend 57643
school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.57644

       (3) "State share percentage" is equal to the following:57645

The amount computed under division (A)(1) of this section /
57646

(the formula amount X formula ADM)
57647

       Sec. 3317.161.  (A) As used in this section, "lead district" 57648
has the same meaning as in section 3317.023 of the Revised Code.57649

       (B) The lead district of a career-technical planning district 57650
shall review the career-technical education program of each city, 57651
local, and exempted village school district, each community 57652
school, and each STEM school that is assigned to the 57653
career-technical planning district and determine whether to 57654
approve or disapprove the program. The lead district shall notify 57655
the department of its determination.57656

       (C) Upon receiving notification of a lead district's 57657
approval, the department shall pay to the member city, local, or 57658
exempted village school district or deduct from the state 57659
education aid of a district and pay to a community school or STEM 57660
school the funds attributed to the career-technical students 57661
enrolled in the district or school, according to a payment 57662
schedule prescribed by the department.57663

       (D) Upon receiving notification from a lead district of 57664
disapproval of a city, local, or exempted village school 57665
district's, a community school's, or STEM school's 57666
career-technical education program, the department shall 57667
automatically review the lead district's decision. In reviewing 57668
the lead district's decision, the department shall consider the 57669
demand for the career-technical education program and the 57670
availability of the program within the career-technical planning 57671
district. If, as a result of the review, the department decides to 57672
approve the city, local, or exempted village school district's, 57673
the community school's, or the STEM school's career-technical 57674
education program, the department shall pay the funds to the 57675
district or deduct and pay the funds to the community school or 57676
STEM school in the manner described in division (C) of this 57677
section. The department's decision shall be final.57678

       Sec. 3317.18.  (A) As used in this section, the terms 57679
"Chapter 133. securities," "credit enhancement facilities," "debt 57680
charges," "general obligation," "legislation," "public 57681
obligations," and "securities" have the same meanings as in 57682
section 133.01 of the Revised Code.57683

       (B) The board of education of any school district authorizing 57684
the issuance of securities under section 133.10, 133.301, or 57685
3313.372 of the Revised Code or general obligation Chapter 133. 57686
securities may adopt legislation requesting the state department 57687
of education to approve, and enter into an agreement with the 57688
school district and the primary paying agent or fiscal agent for 57689
such securities providing for, the withholding and deposit of 57690
funds, otherwise due the district under Chapter 3317. of the 57691
Revised Code, for the payment of debt service charges on such 57692
securities.57693

       The board of education shall deliver to the state department 57694
a copy of such resolution and any additional pertinent information 57695
the state department may require.57696

       The department of education and the office of budget and 57697
management shall evaluate each request received from a school 57698
district under this section and the department, with the advice 57699
and consent of the director of budget and management, shall 57700
approve or deny each request based on all of the following:57701

       (1) Whether approval of the request will enhance the 57702
marketability of the securities for which the request is made;57703

       (2) Any other pertinent factors or limitations established in 57704
rules made under division (I) of this section, including:57705

       (a) Current and projected obligations of funds due to the 57706
requesting school district under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code 57707
including obligations of those funds to public obligations or 57708
relevant credit enhancement facilities under this section, Chapter 57709
133. and section 3313.483 of the Revised Code, and under any other 57710
similar provisions of law;57711

       (b) Whether the department of education or the office of 57712
budget and management has any reason to believe the requesting 57713
school district will be unable to pay when due the debt charges on 57714
the securities for which the request is made.57715

       The department may require a school district to establish 57716
schedules for the payment of all debt charges that take into 57717
account the amount and timing of anticipated distributions of 57718
funds to the district under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code.57719

       (C) If the department approves the request of a school 57720
district to withhold and deposit funds pursuant to this section, 57721
the department shall enter into a written agreement with the 57722
district and the primary paying agent or fiscal agent for the 57723
securities which shall provide for the withholding of funds 57724
pursuant to this section for the payment of debt charges on those 57725
securities, and may include both of the following:57726

       (1) Provisions for certification by the district to the 57727
department, at a time prior to any date for the payment of 57728
applicable debt charges, whether the district is able to pay those 57729
debt charges when due;57730

       (2) Requirements that the district deposit amounts for the 57731
payment of debt charges on the securities with the primary paying 57732
agent or fiscal agent for the securities prior to the date on 57733
which those debt charge payments are due to the owners or holders 57734
of the securities.57735

       (D) Whenever a district notifies the department of education 57736
that it will be unable to pay debt charges when they are due, 57737
subject to the withholding provisions of this section, or whenever 57738
the applicable paying agent or fiscal agent notifies the 57739
department that it has not timely received from a school district 57740
the full amount needed for the payment when due of those debt 57741
charges to the holders or owners of such securities, the 57742
department shall immediately contact the school district and the 57743
paying agent or fiscal agent to confirm or determine whether the 57744
district is unable to make the required payment by the date on 57745
which it is due.57746

       Upon demand of the treasurer of state while holding a school 57747
district obligation purchased under division (G)(1) of section 57748
135.143 of the Revised Code, the state department of education, 57749
without a request of the school district, shall withhold and 57750
deposit funds pursuant to this section for payment of debt service 57751
charges on that obligation.57752

       If the department confirms or determines that the district 57753
will be unable to make such payment and payment will not be made 57754
pursuant to a credit enhancement facility, the department shall 57755
promptly pay to the applicable primary paying agent or fiscal 57756
agent the lesser of the amount due for debt charges or the amount 57757
due the district for the remainder of the fiscal year under 57758
Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code. If this amount is insufficient 57759
to pay the total amount then due the agent for the payment of debt 57760
charges, the department shall pay to the agent each fiscal year 57761
thereafter, and until the full amount due the agent for unpaid 57762
debt charges is paid in full, the lesser of the remaining amount 57763
due the agent for debt charges or the amount due the district for 57764
the fiscal year under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code.57765

       (E) The state department may make any payments under this 57766
division by direct deposit of funds by electronic transfer.57767

       Any amount received by a paying agent or fiscal agent under 57768
this section shall be applied only to the payment of debt charges 57769
on the securities of the school district subject to this section 57770
or to the reimbursement to the provider of a credit enhancement 57771
facility that has paid such debt charges.57772

       (F) To the extent a school district whose securities are 57773
subject to this section is unable to pay applicable debt charges 57774
because of the failure to collect property taxes levied for the 57775
payment of those debt charges, the district may transfer to or 57776
deposit into any fund that would have received payments under 57777
Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code that were withheld under this 57778
section any such delinquent property taxes when later collected, 57779
provided that transfer or deposit shall be limited to the amounts 57780
withheld from that fund under this section.57781

       (G) The department may make payments under this section to 57782
paying agents or fiscal agents only from and to the extent that 57783
money is appropriated by the general assembly for Chapter 3317. of 57784
the Revised Code or for the purposes of this section. No 57785
securities of a school district to which this section is made 57786
applicable constitute an obligation or a debt or a pledge of the 57787
faith, credit, or taxing power of the state, and the holders or 57788
owners of such securities have no right to have taxes levied or 57789
appropriations made by the general assembly for the payment of 57790
debt charges on those securities, and those securities, if the 57791
department requires, shall contain a statement to that effect. The 57792
agreement for or the actual withholding and payment of moneys 57793
under this section does not constitute the assumption by the state 57794
of any debt of a school district.57795

       (H) In the case of securities subject to the withholding 57796
provisions of this section, the issuing board of education shall 57797
appoint a paying agent or fiscal agent who is not an officer or 57798
employee of the school district.57799

       (I) The department of education, with the advice of the 57800
office of budget and management, may adopt reasonable rules not 57801
inconsistent with this section for the implementation of this 57802
section and division (B) of section 133.25 of the Revised Code as 57803
it relates to the withholding and depositing of payments under 57804
Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code to secure payment of debt 57805
charges on school district securities. Those rules shall include 57806
criteria for the evaluation and approval or denial of school 57807
district requests for withholding under this section and limits on 57808
the obligation for the purpose of paying debt charges or 57809
reimbursing credit enhancement facilities of funds otherwise to be 57810
paid to school districts under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code.57811

       (J) The authority granted by this section is in addition to 57812
and not a limitation on any other authorizations granted by or 57813
pursuant to law for the same or similar purposes.57814

       Sec. 3317.19. (A) As used in this section, "total unit 57815
allowance" means an amount equal to the sum of the following:57816

       (1) The total of the salary allowances for the teachers 57817
employed in the cooperative education school district for all 57818
units approved under division (B) or (C) of section 3317.05 of the 57819
Revised Code. The salary allowance for each unit shall equal the 57820
minimum salary for the teacher of the unit calculated on the basis 57821
of the teacher's training level and years of experience pursuant 57822
to the salary schedule prescribed in the version of section 57823
3317.13 of the Revised Code in effect prior to July 1, 2001.57824

       (2) Fifteen per cent of the total computed under division 57825
(A)(1) of this section;57826

       (3) The total of the unit operating allowances for all 57827
approved units. The amount of each allowance shall equal one of 57828
the following:57829

       (a) Eight thousand twenty-three dollars times the number of 57830
units for preschool children with disabilities or fraction thereof 57831
approved for the year under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the 57832
Revised Code;57833

       (b) Two thousand one hundred thirty-two dollars times the 57834
number of units or fraction thereof approved for the year under 57835
division (C) of section 3317.05 of the Revised Code.57836

       (B) The state board of education shall compute and distribute 57837
to each cooperative education school district for each fiscal year 57838
an amount equal to the sum of the following:57839

       (1)(A) An amount equal to the total of the amounts credited 57840
to the cooperative education school district pursuant to division 57841
(H) of section 3317.023 of the Revised Code;57842

       (2) The total unit allowance;57843

       (3)(B) An amount for assisting in providing free lunches to 57844
needy children pursuant to division (D) of section 3317.024 of the 57845
Revised Code.57846

       (C) If a cooperative education school district has had 57847
additional special education units approved for the year under 57848
division (F)(2) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, the 57849
district shall receive an additional amount during the last half 57850
of the fiscal year. For each unit, the additional amount shall 57851
equal fifty per cent of the amount computed under division (A) of 57852
this section for a unit approved under division (B) of section 57853
3317.05 of the Revised Code.57854

       Sec. 3317.20.  This section does not apply to preschool 57855
children with disabilities.57856

       (A) As used in this section:57857

       (1) "Applicable weight" means the multiple specified in 57858
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code for a disability described in 57859
that section.57860

       (2) "Child's school district" means the school district in 57861
which a child is entitled to attend school pursuant to section 57862
3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.57863

       (3) "State share percentageindex" means the state share 57864
percentageindex of the child's school district.57865

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, the57866
The department shall annually pay each county DD board for each 57867
child with a disability, other than a preschool child with a 57868
disability, for whom the county DD board provides special 57869
education and related services an amount equal to the formula 57870
amount + (state share percentageindex X formula amount X the 57871
applicable weight).57872

       (C) If any school district places with a county DD board more 57873
children with disabilities than it had placed with a county DD 57874
board in fiscal year 1998, the department shall not make a payment 57875
under division (B) of this section for the number of children 57876
exceeding the number placed in fiscal year 1998. The department 57877
instead shall deduct from the district's payments under this 57878
chapter, and pay to the county DD board, an amount calculated in 57879
accordance with the formula prescribed in division (B) of this 57880
section for each child over the number of children placed in 57881
fiscal year 1998.57882

       (D) The department shall calculate for each county DD board 57883
receiving payments under divisions (B) and (C) of this section the 57884
following amounts: 57885

       (1) The amount received by the county DD board for approved 57886
special education and related services units, other than units for 57887
preschool children with disabilities, in fiscal year 1998, divided 57888
by the total number of children served in the units that year;57889

       (2) The product of the quotient calculated under division 57890
(D)(1) of this section times the number of children for whom 57891
payments are made under divisions (B) and (C) of this section.57892

       If the amount calculated under division (D)(2) of this 57893
section is greater than the total amount calculated under 57894
divisions (B) and (C) of this section, the department shall pay 57895
the county DD board one hundred per cent of the difference in 57896
addition to the payments under divisions (B) and (C) of this 57897
section.57898

       (E)(C) Each county DD board shall report to the department, 57899
in the manner specified by the department, the name of each child 57900
for whom the county DD board provides special education and 57901
related services and the child's school district.57902

        (F)(D)(1) For the purpose of verifying the accuracy of the 57903
payments under this section, the department may request from 57904
either of the following entities the data verification code 57905
assigned under division (D)(2) of section 3301.0714 of the Revised 57906
Code to any child who is placed with a county DD board:57907

        (a) The child's school district;57908

        (b) The independent contractor engaged to create and maintain 57909
data verification codes.57910

        (2) Upon a request by the department under division (F)(D)(1) 57911
of this section for the data verification code of a child, the 57912
child's school district shall submit that code to the department 57913
in the manner specified by the department. If the child has not 57914
been assigned a code, the district shall assign a code to that 57915
child and submit the code to the department by a date specified by 57916
the department. If the district does not assign a code to the 57917
child by the specified date, the department shall assign a code to 57918
the child.57919

        The department annually shall submit to each school district 57920
the name and data verification code of each child residing in the 57921
district for whom the department has assigned a code under this 57922
division.57923

        (3) The department shall not release any data verification 57924
code that it receives under division (F)(D) of this section to any 57925
person except as provided by law.57926

       (G)(E) Any document relative to special education and related 57927
services provided by a county DD board that the department holds 57928
in its files that contains both a student's name or other 57929
personally identifiable information and the student's data 57930
verification code shall not be a public record under section 57931
149.43 of the Revised Code.57932

       Sec. 3313.847.        Sec. 3317.30. (A) In the case of a child placed in 57933
the custody of a juvenile facility established under section 57934
2151.65 or a detention facility established under section 2152.41 57935
of the Revised Code, ifpayment for the child's education services 57936
shall be administered by one of the following methods:57937

        (1) If the facility educates the child, the facility, or the 57938
chartered nonpublic school it operates, may submit its request for 57939
payment directly to the school district that is to bear the cost 57940
of educating the child, as determined under section 2151.362 of 57941
the Revised Code. That district shall pay the facility or the 57942
chartered nonpublic school directly for those services.57943

        (2) If the facility contracts directly with a school district 57944
in which the facility is located for services for that child, the 57945
school district may submit its request for payment directly to the 57946
school district that is to bear the cost of educating the child, 57947
as determined under section 2151.362 of the Revised Code. That 57948
district shall pay the school district where the facility is 57949
located directly for those services.57950

        (3) If that facility contracts directly with an educational 57951
service center for services for that child, the service center may 57952
submit its request for payment for services for the child directly 57953
to the school district that is responsible to bear the cost of 57954
educating the child, as determined under section 2151.362 of the 57955
Revised Code. That district shall pay the service center directly 57956
for those services. Notwithstanding57957

       (B) Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in section 57958
3317.03 of the Revised Code, the district that pays a service 57959
center, facility or chartered nonpublic school the facility 57960
operates, or other school district for services for a particular 57961
child under this section shall include that child in the 57962
district's average daily membership as reported under division (A) 57963
of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code. No other district shall 57964
include the child in its average daily membership.57965

       Payments made for a child under this section shall be 57966
determined in accordance with division (C)(4) of section 3313.64 57967
of the Revised Code.57968

       Sec. 3317.40.  (A) As used in this section, "subgroup" means 57969
one of the following subsets of the entire student population of a 57970
school district or a school building:57971

       (1) Students with disabilities;57972

       (2) Economically disadvantaged students;57973

       (3) Limited English proficient students;57974

       (4) Students identified as gifted in superior cognitive 57975
ability and specific academic ability fields under Chapter 3324. 57976
of the Revised Code. 57977

       (B) When funds are provided under this chapter specifically 57978
for services for a subgroup of students, the general assembly has 57979
determined that these students experience unique challenges 57980
requiring additional resources and intends that the funds so 57981
provided be used for services that will allow students in those 57982
subgroups to master the knowledge base required for high school 57983
graduation.57984

       (C) If a district or school fails to show satisfactory 57985
achievement and progress, as determined by the state board of 57986
education, for any subgroup of students based on performance 57987
measures reported or graded under section 3302.03 of the Revised 57988
Code, the district or school shall submit an improvement plan to 57989
the department for approval. The plan may be included in any other 57990
improvement plan required of the district or school under state or 57991
federal law. The department may require that a plan required under 57992
division (C) of this section include an agreement to partner with 57993
another organization that has demonstrated the ability to improve 57994
the educational outcome for that subgroup of students to provide 57995
services to those students. The partner organization may be 57996
another school, district, or other education provider.57997

       Not later than December 31, 2014, the state board of 57998
education shall establish measures of satisfactory achievement and 57999
progress, which include, but are not limited to, performance 58000
measures under section 3302.03 of the Revised Code. The department 58001
shall make the initial determination of satisfactory achievement 58002
and progress under this section using those measures not later 58003
than September 1, 2015, and then make determinations under this 58004
section annually thereafter.58005

       The department shall publish a list of schools, school 58006
districts, and other educational providers that have demonstrated 58007
an ability to serve each subgroup of students.58008

       Sec. 3317.50.  The eTech Ohio telecommunity education fund is 58009
hereby created in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of 58010
certain excess local exchange telephone company contributions 58011
transferred from the reserve fund of the Ohio telecommunications 58012
advisory board pursuant to an agreement between the public 58013
utilities commission of Ohio and the Ohio department of education. 58014
The fund shall be used by the chancellor of the Ohio board of 58015
regents, in the amounts appropriated, to finance technology grants 58016
to state-chartered elementary and secondary schools. Investment 58017
earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.58018

       Sec. 3317.51.  (A) The distance learning fund is hereby 58019
created in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of moneys 58020
paid to the eTech Ohio commission by any telephone company as a 58021
part of a settlement agreement between such company and the public 58022
utilities commission in fiscal year 1995 in part to establish 58023
distance learning throughout the state. The commissionchancellor 58024
of the Ohio board of regents shall administer the fund and expend 58025
moneys from it to finance technology grants to eligible schools 58026
chartered by the state board of education to establish distance 58027
learning in those schools. Chartered schools are eligible for 58028
funds if they are within the service area of the telephone 58029
company. Investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the 58030
fund.58031

       (B) For purposes of this section, "distance learning" means 58032
the creation of a learning environment involving a school setting 58033
and at least one other location outside of the school which allows 58034
for information available at one site to be accessed at the other 58035
through the use of such educational applications as one-way or 58036
two-way transmission of data, voice, and video, singularly or in 58037
appropriate combinations.58038

       Sec. 3318.011.  For purposes of providing assistance under 58039
sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code, the department of 58040
education shall annually do all of the following:58041

       (A) Calculate the adjusted valuation per pupil of each city, 58042
local, and exempted village school district according to the 58043
following formula:58044

The district's valuation per pupil -
58045

[$30,000 X (1 - the district's income factor)].
58046

       For purposes of this calculation:58047

       (1) Except for a district with an open enrollment net gain 58048
that is ten per cent or more of its formula ADM, "valuation per 58049
pupil" for a district means its average taxable value, divided by 58050
its formula ADM for the previous fiscal year. "Valuation per 58051
pupil," for a district with an open enrollment net gain that is 58052
ten per cent or more of its formula ADM, means its average taxable 58053
value, divided by the sum of its formula ADM for the previous 58054
fiscal year plus its open enrollment net gain for the previous 58055
fiscal year. 58056

       (2) "Average taxable value" means the average of the sum of 58057
the amounts certified for a district under divisions (A)(1) and 58058
(2) of section 3317.021 of the Revised Code in the second, third, 58059
and fourth preceding fiscal years.58060

       (3) "Entitled to attend school" means entitled to attend 58061
school in a city, local, or exempted village school district under 58062
section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.58063

        (4) "Formula ADM" and "income factor" havehas the same 58064
meaningsmeaning as in section 3317.02 of the Revised Code.58065

       (5) "Native student" has the same meaning as in section 58066
3313.98 of the Revised Code.58067

        (6) "Open enrollment net gain" for a district means (a) the 58068
number of the students entitled to attend school in another 58069
district but who are enrolled in the schools of the district under 58070
its open enrollment policy minus (b) the number of the district's 58071
native students who are enrolled in the schools of another 58072
district under the other district's open enrollment policy, both 58073
numbers as certified to the department under section 3313.981 of 58074
the Revised Code. If the difference is a negative number, the 58075
district's "open enrollment net gain" is zero.58076

        (7) "Open enrollment policy" means an interdistrict open 58077
enrollment policy adopted under section 3313.98 of the Revised 58078
Code.58079

       (8) "District median income" means the median Ohio adjusted 58080
gross income certified for a school district. On or before the 58081
first day of July of each year, the tax commissioner shall certify 58082
to the department of education and the office of budget and 58083
management for each city, exempted village, and local school 58084
district the median Ohio adjusted gross income of the residents of 58085
the school district determined on the basis of tax returns filed 58086
for the second preceding tax year by the residents of the 58087
district.58088

       (9) "Statewide median income" means the median district 58089
median income of all city, exempted village, and local school 58090
districts in the state.58091

       (10) "Income factor" for a city, exempted village, or local 58092
school district means the quotient obtained by dividing that 58093
district's median income by the statewide median income.58094

       (B) Calculate for each district the three-year average of the 58095
adjusted valuations per pupil calculated for the district for the 58096
current and two preceding fiscal years;58097

       (C) Rank all such districts in order of adjusted valuation 58098
per pupil from the district with the lowest three-year average 58099
adjusted valuation per pupil to the district with the highest 58100
three-year average adjusted valuation per pupil;58101

       (D) Divide such ranking into percentiles with the first 58102
percentile containing the one per cent of school districts having 58103
the lowest three-year average adjusted valuations per pupil and 58104
the one-hundredth percentile containing the one per cent of school 58105
districts having the highest three-year average adjusted 58106
valuations per pupil;58107

       (E) Determine the school districts that have three-year 58108
average adjusted valuations per pupil that are greater than the 58109
median three-year average adjusted valuation per pupil for all 58110
school districts in the state;58111

       (F) On or before the first day of September, certify the 58112
information described in divisions (A) to (E) of this section to 58113
the Ohio school facilities commission.58114

       Sec. 3318.031. (A) The Ohio school facilities commission 58115
shall consider student and staff safety and health when reviewing 58116
design plans for classroom facility construction projects proposed 58117
under this chapter. After consulting with appropriate education, 58118
health, and law enforcement personnel, the commission may require 58119
as a condition of project approval under either section 3318.03 or 58120
division (B)(1) of section 3318.41 of the Revised Code such 58121
changes in the design plans as the commission believes will 58122
advance or improve student and staff safety and health in the 58123
proposed classroom facility.58124

       To carry out its duties under this division, the commission 58125
shall review and, if necessary, amend any construction and design 58126
standards used in its project approval process, including 58127
standards for location and number of exits, standards for lead 58128
safety in classroom facilities constructed before 1978 in which 58129
services are provided to children under six years of age, and 58130
location of restrooms, with a focus on advancing student and staff 58131
safety and health.58132

       (B) When reviewing design standards for classroom facility 58133
construction projects proposed under this chapter, the commission 58134
shall also consider the extent to which the design standards 58135
support the following:58136

       (1) Support and facilitation of smaller classes and the trend 58137
toward smaller schoolsTrends in educational delivery methods, 58138
including digital access and blended learning;58139

       (2) Provision of sufficient space for training new teachers 58140
and promotion of collaboration among teaching candidates, 58141
experienced teachers, and teacher educators;58142

       (3) Provision of adequate space for teacher planning and 58143
collaboration;58144

       (4) Provision of adequate space for parent involvement 58145
activities;58146

       (5) Provision of sufficient space for innovative partnerships 58147
between schools and health and social service agencies.58148

       Sec. 3318.08.  Except in the case of a joint vocational 58149
school district that receives assistance under sections 3318.40 to 58150
3318.45 of the Revised Code, if the requisite favorable vote on 58151
the election is obtained, or if the school district board has 58152
resolved to apply the proceeds of a property tax levy or the 58153
proceeds of an income tax, or a combination of proceeds from such 58154
taxes, as authorized in section 3318.052 of the Revised Code, the 58155
Ohio school facilities commission, upon certification to it of 58156
either the results of the election or the resolution under section 58157
3318.052 of the Revised Code, shall enter into a written agreement 58158
with the school district board for the construction and sale of 58159
the project. In the case of a joint vocational school district 58160
that receives assistance under sections 3318.40 to 3318.45 of the 58161
Revised Code, if the school district board of education and the 58162
school district electors have satisfied the conditions prescribed 58163
in division (D)(1) of section 3318.41 of the Revised Code, the 58164
commission shall enter into an agreement with the school district 58165
board for the construction and sale of the project. In either 58166
case, the agreement shall include, but need not be limited to, the 58167
following provisions:58168

       (A) The sale and issuance of bonds or notes in anticipation 58169
thereof, as soon as practicable after the execution of the 58170
agreement, in an amount equal to the school district's portion of 58171
the basic project cost, including any securities authorized under 58172
division (J) of section 133.06 of the Revised Code and dedicated 58173
by the school district board to payment of the district's portion 58174
of the basic project cost of the project; provided, that if at 58175
that time the county treasurer of each county in which the school 58176
district is located has not commenced the collection of taxes on 58177
the general duplicate of real and public utility property for the 58178
year in which the controlling board approved the project, the 58179
school district board shall authorize the issuance of a first 58180
installment of bond anticipation notes in an amount specified by 58181
the agreement, which amount shall not exceed an amount necessary 58182
to raise the net bonded indebtedness of the school district as of 58183
the date of the controlling board's approval to within five 58184
thousand dollars of the required level of indebtedness for the 58185
preceding year. In the event that a first installment of bond 58186
anticipation notes is issued, the school district board shall, as 58187
soon as practicable after the county treasurer of each county in 58188
which the school district is located has commenced the collection 58189
of taxes on the general duplicate of real and public utility 58190
property for the year in which the controlling board approved the 58191
project, authorize the issuance of a second and final installment 58192
of bond anticipation notes or a first and final issue of bonds.58193

       The combined value of the first and second installment of 58194
bond anticipation notes or the value of the first and final issue 58195
of bonds shall be equal to the school district's portion of the 58196
basic project cost. The proceeds of any such bonds shall be used 58197
first to retire any bond anticipation notes. Otherwise, the 58198
proceeds of such bonds and of any bond anticipation notes, except 58199
the premium and accrued interest thereon, shall be deposited in 58200
the school district's project construction fund. In determining 58201
the amount of net bonded indebtedness for the purpose of fixing 58202
the amount of an issue of either bonds or bond anticipation notes, 58203
gross indebtedness shall be reduced by moneys in the bond 58204
retirement fund only to the extent of the moneys therein on the 58205
first day of the year preceding the year in which the controlling 58206
board approved the project. Should there be a decrease in the tax 58207
valuation of the school district so that the amount of 58208
indebtedness that can be incurred on the tax duplicates for the 58209
year in which the controlling board approved the project is less 58210
than the amount of the first installment of bond anticipation 58211
notes, there shall be paid from the school district's project 58212
construction fund to the school district's bond retirement fund to 58213
be applied against such notes an amount sufficient to cause the 58214
net bonded indebtedness of the school district, as of the first 58215
day of the year following the year in which the controlling board 58216
approved the project, to be within five thousand dollars of the 58217
required level of indebtedness for the year in which the 58218
controlling board approved the project. The maximum amount of 58219
indebtedness to be incurred by any school district board as its 58220
share of the cost of the project is either an amount that will 58221
cause its net bonded indebtedness, as of the first day of the year 58222
following the year in which the controlling board approved the 58223
project, to be within five thousand dollars of the required level 58224
of indebtedness, or an amount equal to the required percentage of 58225
the basic project costs, whichever is greater. All bonds and bond 58226
anticipation notes shall be issued in accordance with Chapter 133. 58227
of the Revised Code, and notes may be renewed as provided in 58228
section 133.22 of the Revised Code.58229

       (B) The transfer of such funds of the school district board 58230
available for the project, together with the proceeds of the sale 58231
of the bonds or notes, except premium, accrued interest, and 58232
interest included in the amount of the issue, to the school 58233
district's project construction fund;58234

       (C) For all school districts except joint vocational school 58235
districts that receive assistance under sections 3318.40 to 58236
3318.45 of the Revised Code, the following provisions as 58237
applicable:58238

       (1) If section 3318.052 of the Revised Code applies, the 58239
earmarking of the proceeds of a tax levied under section 5705.21 58240
of the Revised Code for general permanent improvements or under 58241
section 5705.218 of the Revised Code for the purpose of permanent 58242
improvements, or the proceeds of a school district income tax 58243
levied under Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code, or the proceeds 58244
from a combination of those two taxes, in an amount to pay all or 58245
part of the service charges on bonds issued to pay the school 58246
district portion of the project and an amount equivalent to all or 58247
part of the tax required under division (B) of section 3318.05 of 58248
the Revised Code;58249

       (2) If section 3318.052 of the Revised Code does not apply, 58250
one of the following:58251

       (a) The levy of the tax authorized at the election for the 58252
payment of maintenance costs, as specified in division (B) of 58253
section 3318.05 of the Revised Code;58254

       (b) If the school district electors have approved a 58255
continuing tax for general permanent improvements under section 58256
5705.21 of the Revised Code and that tax can be used for 58257
maintenance, the earmarking of an amount of the proceeds from such 58258
tax for maintenance of classroom facilities as specified in 58259
division (B) of section 3318.05 of the Revised Code;58260

       (c) If, in lieu of the tax otherwise required under division 58261
(B) of section 3318.05 of the Revised Code, the commission has 58262
approved the transfer of money to the maintenance fund in 58263
accordance with section 3318.051 of the Revised Code, a 58264
requirement that the district board comply with the provisions of58265
that section. The district board may rescind the provision 58266
prescribed under division (C)(2)(c) of this section only so long 58267
as the electors of the district have approved, in accordance with 58268
section 3318.063 of the Revised Code, the levy of a tax for the 58269
maintenance of the classroom facilities acquired under the 58270
district's project and that levy continues to be collected as 58271
approved by the electors.58272

       (D) For joint vocational school districts that receive 58273
assistance under sections 3318.40 to 3318.45 of the Revised Code, 58274
provision for deposit of school district moneys dedicated to 58275
maintenance of the classroom facilities acquired under those 58276
sections as prescribed in section 3318.43 of the Revised Code;58277

       (E) Dedication of any local donated contribution as provided 58278
for under section 3318.084 of the Revised Code, including a 58279
schedule for depositing such moneys applied as an offset of the 58280
district's obligation to levy the tax described in division (B) of 58281
section 3318.05 of the Revised Code as required under division 58282
(D)(2) of section 3318.084 of the Revised Code;58283

       (F) Ownership of or interest in the project during the period 58284
of construction, which shall be divided between the commission and 58285
the school district board in proportion to their respective 58286
contributions to the school district's project construction fund;58287

       (G) Maintenance of the state's interest in the project until 58288
any obligations issued for the project under section 3318.26 of 58289
the Revised Code are no longer outstanding;58290

       (H) The insurance of the project by the school district from 58291
the time there is an insurable interest therein and so long as the 58292
state retains any ownership or interest in the project pursuant to 58293
division (F) of this section, in such amounts and against such 58294
risks as the commission shall require; provided, that the cost of 58295
any required insurance until the project is completed shall be a 58296
part of the basic project cost;58297

       (I) The certification by the director of budget and 58298
management that funds are available and have been set aside to 58299
meet the state's share of the basic project cost as approved by 58300
the controlling board pursuant to either section 3318.04 or 58301
division (B)(1) of section 3318.41 of the Revised Code;58302

       (J) Authorization of the school district board to advertise 58303
for and receive construction bids for the project, for and on 58304
behalf of the commission, and to award contracts in the name of 58305
the state subject to approval by the commission;58306

       (K) Provisions for the disbursement of moneys from the school 58307
district's project account upon issuance by the commission or the 58308
commission's designated representative of vouchers for work done 58309
to be certified to the commission by the treasurer of the school 58310
district board;58311

       (L) Disposal of any balance left in the school district's 58312
project construction fund upon completion of the project;58313

       (M) Limitations upon use of the project or any part of it so 58314
long as any obligations issued to finance the project under 58315
section 3318.26 of the Revised Code are outstanding;58316

       (N) Provision for vesting the state's interest in the project 58317
to the school district board when the obligations issued to 58318
finance the project under section 3318.26 of the Revised Code are 58319
outstanding;58320

       (O) Provision for deposit of an executed copy of the 58321
agreement in the office of the commission;58322

       (P) Provision for termination of the contract and release of 58323
the funds encumbered at the time of the conditional approval, if 58324
the proceeds of the sale of the bonds of the school district board 58325
are not paid into the school district's project construction fund 58326
and if bids for the construction of the project have not been 58327
taken within such period after the execution of the agreement as 58328
may be fixed by the commission;58329

       (Q) Provision for the school district to maintain the project 58330
in accordance with a plan approved by the commission;58331

       (R) Provision that all state funds reserved and encumbered to 58332
pay the state share of the cost of the project and the funds 58333
provided by the school district to pay for its share of the 58334
project cost, including the respective shares of the cost of a 58335
segment if the project is divided into segments, be spent on the 58336
construction and acquisition of the project or segment 58337
simultaneously in proportion to the state's and the school 58338
district's respective shares of that basic project cost as 58339
determined under section 3318.032 of the Revised Code or, if the 58340
district is a joint vocational school district, under section 58341
3318.42 of the Revised Code. However, if the school district 58342
certifies to the commission that expenditure by the school 58343
district is necessary to maintain the federal tax status or 58344
tax-exempt status of notes or bonds issued by the school district 58345
to pay for its share of the project cost or to comply with 58346
applicable temporary investment periods or spending exceptions to 58347
rebate as provided for under federal law in regard to those notes 58348
or bonds, the school district may commit to spend, or spend, a 58349
greater portion of the funds it provides during any specific 58350
period than would otherwise be required under this division.58351

       (S) A provision stipulating that the commission may prohibit 58352
the district from proceeding with any project if the commission 58353
determines that the site is not suitable for construction 58354
purposes. The commission may perform soil tests in its 58355
determination of whether a site is appropriate for construction 58356
purposes.58357

       (T) A provision stipulating that, unless otherwise authorized 58358
by the commission, any contingency reserve portion of the 58359
construction budget prescribed by the commission shall be used 58360
only to pay costs resulting from unforeseen job conditions, to 58361
comply with rulings regarding building and other codes, to pay 58362
costs related to design clarifications or corrections to contract 58363
documents, and to pay the costs of settlements or judgments 58364
related to the project as provided under section 3318.086 of the 58365
Revised Code;58366

       (U) ProvisionA provision stipulating that for continued 58367
release of project funds the school district board shall comply 58368
with sectionsections 3313.41 and 3313.411 of the Revised Code 58369
throughout the project and shall notify the department of 58370
education and the Ohio community school association when the board 58371
plans to dispose of facilities by sale under that section;58372

       (V) ProvisionA provision stipulating that the commission 58373
shall not approve a contract for demolition of a facility until 58374
the school district board has complied with sectionsections58375
3313.41 and 3313.411 of the Revised Code relative to that 58376
facility, unless demolition of that facility is to clear a site 58377
for construction of a replacement facility included in the 58378
district's project;58379

       (W) A requirement for the school district to adhere to a 58380
facilities maintenance plan approved by the commission.58381

       Sec. 3318.31.  (A) The Ohio school facilities commission may 58382
perform any act and ensure the performance of any function 58383
necessary or appropriate to carry out the purposes of, and 58384
exercise the powers granted under, Chapter 3318. of the Revised 58385
Code, including any of the following:58386

       (1) Adopt, amend, and rescind, pursuant to section 111.15 of 58387
the Revised Code, rules for the administration of programs 58388
authorized under Chapter 3318. of the Revised Code.58389

       (2) Contract with, retain the services of, or designate, and 58390
fix the compensation of, such agents, accountants, consultants, 58391
advisers, and other independent contractors as may be necessary or 58392
desirable to carry out the programs authorized under Chapter 3318. 58393
of the Revised Code, or authorize the executive director to 58394
perform such powers and duties.58395

       (3) Receive and accept any gifts, grants, donations, and 58396
pledges, and receipts therefrom, to be used for the programs 58397
authorized under Chapter 3318. of the Revised Code.58398

       (4) Make and enter into all contracts, commitments, and 58399
agreements, and execute all instruments, necessary or incidental 58400
to the performance of its duties and the execution of its rights 58401
and powers under Chapter 3318. of the Revised Code, or authorize 58402
the executive director or the Ohio facilities construction 58403
commission to perform such powers and duties.58404

       (5) Request the Ohio facilities construction commission to 58405
debar a contractor as provided in section 153.02 of the Revised 58406
Code.58407

       (B) The Ohio school facilities commission shall appoint and 58408
fix the compensation of an executive director whoof the Ohio 58409
facilities construction commission, as appointed under division 58410
(B) of section 123.21 of the Revised Code, shall also serve at the 58411
pleasure ofas the executive director for the Ohio school 58412
facilities commission. The executive director shall exercise all 58413
powers that the Ohio school facilities commission possesses, 58414
supervise the operations of the Ohio school facilities commission 58415
and perform such other duties as delegated by the Ohio school 58416
facilities commission. The executive director also shall employ 58417
and fix the compensation of such employees as will facilitate the 58418
activities and purposes of the Ohio school facilities commission, 58419
who shall serve at the pleasure of the executive director. The 58420
employees of the Ohio school facilities commission shall be exempt 58421
from Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code and shall not be public 58422
employees as defined in section 4117.01 of the Revised Code. Any 58423
agreement entered into prior to July 1, 2012, between the office 58424
of collective bargaining and the exclusive representative for 58425
employees of the commission is binding and shall continue to have 58426
effect.58427

       (C) The attorney general shall serve as the legal 58428
representative for the Ohio school facilities commission and may 58429
appoint other counsel as necessary for that purpose in accordance 58430
with section 109.07 of the Revised Code.58431

       Sec. 3318.36.  (A)(1) As used in this section:58432

       (a) "Ohio school facilities commission," "classroom 58433
facilities," "school district," "school district board," "net 58434
bonded indebtedness," "required percentage of the basic project 58435
costs," "basic project cost," "valuation," and "percentile" have 58436
the same meanings as in section 3318.01 of the Revised Code.58437

       (b) "Required level of indebtedness" means five per cent of 58438
the school district's valuation for the year preceding the year in 58439
which the commission and school district enter into an agreement 58440
under division (B) of this section, plus [two one-hundredths of 58441
one per cent multiplied by (the percentile in which the district 58442
ranks minus one)].58443

       (c) "Local resources" means any moneys generated in any 58444
manner permitted for a school district board to raise the school 58445
district portion of a project undertaken with assistance under 58446
sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code.58447

       (d) "Tangible personal property phase-out impacted district" 58448
means a school district for which the taxable value of its 58449
tangible personal property certified under division (A)(2) of 58450
section 3317.021 of the Revised Code for tax year 2005, excluding 58451
the taxable value of public utility personal property, made up 58452
eighteen per cent or more of its total taxable value for tax year 58453
2005 as certified under that section.58454

       (2) For purposes of determining the required level of 58455
indebtedness, the required percentage of the basic project costs 58456
under division (C)(1) of this section, and priority for assistance 58457
under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code, the 58458
percentile ranking of a school district with which the commission 58459
has entered into an agreement under this section between the first 58460
day of July and the thirty-first day of August in each fiscal year 58461
is the percentile ranking calculated for that district for the 58462
immediately preceding fiscal year, and the percentile ranking of a 58463
school district with which the commission has entered into such 58464
agreement between the first day of September and the thirtieth day 58465
of June in each fiscal year is the percentile ranking calculated 58466
for that district for the current fiscal year. However, in the 58467
case of a tangible personal property phase-out impacted district, 58468
the district's priority for assistance under sections 3318.01 to 58469
3318.20 of the Revised Code and its portion of the basic project 58470
cost under those sections shall be determined in the manner 58471
prescribed, respectively, in divisions (B)(3)(b) and (E)(1)(b) of 58472
this section.58473

       (B)(1) There is hereby established the school building 58474
assistance expedited local partnership program. Under the program, 58475
the Ohio school facilities commission may enter into an agreement 58476
with the board of any school district under which the board may 58477
proceed with the new construction or major repairs of a part of 58478
the district's classroom facilities needs, as determined under 58479
sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code, through the 58480
expenditure of local resources prior to the school district's 58481
eligibility for state assistance under those sections, and may 58482
apply that expenditure toward meeting the school district's 58483
portion of the basic project cost of the total of the district's 58484
classroom facilities needs, as recalculated under division (E) of 58485
this section, when the district becomes eligible for state 58486
assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 or section 3318.364 58487
of the Revised Code. Any school district that is reasonably 58488
expected to receive assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 58489
of the Revised Code within two fiscal years from the date the 58490
school district adopts its resolution under division (B) of this 58491
section shall not be eligible to participate in the program 58492
established under this section.58493

       (2) To participate in the program, a school district board 58494
shall first adopt a resolution certifying to the commission the 58495
board's intent to participate in the program.58496

       The resolution shall specify the approximate date that the 58497
board intends to seek elector approval of any bond or tax measures 58498
or to apply other local resources to use to pay the cost of 58499
classroom facilities to be constructed under this section. The 58500
resolution may specify the application of local resources or 58501
elector-approved bond or tax measures after the resolution is 58502
adopted by the board, and in such case the board may proceed with 58503
a discrete portion of its project under this section as soon as 58504
the commission and the controlling board have approved the basic 58505
project cost of the district's classroom facilities needs as 58506
specified in division (D) of this section. The board shall submit 58507
its resolution to the commission not later than ten days after the 58508
date the resolution is adopted by the board.58509

       The commission shall not consider any resolution that is 58510
submitted pursuant to division (B)(2) of this section, as amended 58511
by this amendment, sooner than September 14, 2000.58512

       (3) For purposes of determining when a district that enters 58513
into an agreement under this section becomes eligible for 58514
assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code 58515
or priority for assistance under section 3318.364 of the Revised 58516
Code, the commission shall use one of the following as applicable:58517

       (a) Except for a tangible personal property phase-out 58518
impacted district, the district's percentile ranking determined at 58519
the time the district entered into the agreement under this 58520
section, as prescribed by division (A)(2) of this section;58521

       (b) For a tangible personal property phase-out impacted 58522
district, the lesser of (i) the district's percentile ranking 58523
determined at the time the district entered into the agreement 58524
under this section, as prescribed by division (A)(2) of this 58525
section, or (ii) the district's current percentile ranking under 58526
section 3318.011 of the Revised Code.58527

       (4) Any project under this section shall comply with section 58528
3318.03 of the Revised Code and with any specifications for plans 58529
and materials for classroom facilities adopted by the commission 58530
under section 3318.04 of the Revised Code.58531

       (5) If a school district that enters into an agreement under 58532
this section has not begun a project applying local resources as 58533
provided for under that agreement at the time the district is 58534
notified by the commission that it is eligible to receive state 58535
assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code, 58536
all assessment and agreement documents entered into under this 58537
section are void.58538

       (6) Only construction of or repairs to classroom facilities 58539
that have been approved by the commission and have been therefore 58540
included as part of a district's basic project cost qualify for 58541
application of local resources under this section.58542

       (C) Based on the results of on-site visits and assessment, 58543
the commission shall determine the basic project cost of the 58544
school district's classroom facilities needs. The commission shall 58545
determine the school district's portion of such basic project 58546
cost, which shall be the greater of:58547

       (1) The required percentage of the basic project costs, 58548
determined based on the school district's percentile ranking;58549

       (2) An amount necessary to raise the school district's net 58550
bonded indebtedness, as of the fiscal year the commission and the 58551
school district enter into the agreement under division (B) of 58552
this section, to within five thousand dollars of the required 58553
level of indebtedness.58554

       (D)(1) When the commission determines the basic project cost 58555
of the classroom facilities needs of a school district and the 58556
school district's portion of that basic project cost under 58557
division (C) of this section, the project shall be conditionally 58558
approved. Such conditional approval shall be submitted to the 58559
controlling board for approval thereof. The controlling board 58560
shall forthwith approve or reject the commission's determination, 58561
conditional approval, and the amount of the state's portion of the 58562
basic project cost; however, no state funds shall be encumbered 58563
under this section. Upon approval by the controlling board, the 58564
school district board may identify a discrete part of its 58565
classroom facilities needs, which shall include only new 58566
construction of or additions or major repairs to a particular 58567
building, to address with local resources. Upon identifying a part 58568
of the school district's basic project cost to address with local 58569
resources, the school district board may allocate any available 58570
school district moneys to pay the cost of that identified part, 58571
including the proceeds of an issuance of bonds if approved by the 58572
electors of the school district.58573

       All local resources utilized under this division shall first 58574
be deposited in the project construction account required under 58575
section 3318.08 of the Revised Code.58576

       (2) Unless the school district board exercises its option 58577
under division (D)(3) of this section, for a school district to 58578
qualify for participation in the program authorized under this 58579
section, one of the following conditions shall be satisfied:58580

       (a) The electors of the school district by a majority vote 58581
shall approve the levy of taxes outside the ten-mill limitation 58582
for a period of twenty-three years at the rate of not less than 58583
one-half mill for each dollar of valuation to be used to pay the 58584
cost of maintaining the classroom facilities included in the basic 58585
project cost as determined by the commission. The form of the 58586
ballot to be used to submit the question whether to approve the 58587
tax required under this division to the electors of the school 58588
district shall be the form for an additional levy of taxes 58589
prescribed in section 3318.361 of the Revised Code, which may be 58590
combined in a single ballot question with the questions prescribed 58591
under section 5705.218 of the Revised Code.58592

       (b) As authorized under division (C) of section 3318.05 of 58593
the Revised Code, the school district board shall earmark from the 58594
proceeds of a permanent improvement tax levied under section 58595
5705.21 of the Revised Code, an amount equivalent to the 58596
additional tax otherwise required under division (D)(2)(a) of this 58597
section for the maintenance of the classroom facilities included 58598
in the basic project cost as determined by the commission.58599

       (c) As authorized under section 3318.051 of the Revised Code, 58600
the school district board shall, if approved by the commission, 58601
annually transfer into the maintenance fund required under section 58602
3318.05 of the Revised Code the amount prescribed in section 58603
3318.051 of the Revised Code in lieu of the tax otherwise required 58604
under division (D)(2)(a) of this section for the maintenance of 58605
the classroom facilities included in the basic project cost as 58606
determined by the commission.58607

        (d) If the school district board has rescinded the agreement 58608
to make transfers under section 3318.051 of the Revised Code, as 58609
provided under division (F) of that section, the electors of the 58610
school district, in accordance with section 3318.063 of the 58611
Revised Code, first shall approve the levy of taxes outside the 58612
ten-mill limitation for the period specified in that section at a 58613
rate of not less than one-half mill for each dollar of valuation.58614

       (e) The school district board shall apply the proceeds of a 58615
tax to leverage bonds as authorized under section 3318.052 of the 58616
Revised Code or dedicate a local donated contribution in the 58617
manner described in division (B) of section 3318.084 of the 58618
Revised Code in an amount equivalent to the additional tax 58619
otherwise required under division (D)(2)(a) of this section for 58620
the maintenance of the classroom facilities included in the basic 58621
project cost as determined by the commission.58622

       (3) A school district board may opt to delay taking any of 58623
the actions described in division (D)(2) of this section until the 58624
school district becomes eligible for state assistance under 58625
sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code. In order to 58626
exercise this option, the board shall certify to the commission a 58627
resolution indicating the board's intent to do so prior to 58628
entering into an agreement under division (B) of this section.58629

       (4) If pursuant to division (D)(3) of this section a district 58630
board opts to delay levying an additional tax until the district 58631
becomes eligible for state assistance, it shall submit the 58632
question of levying that tax to the district electors as follows:58633

       (a) In accordance with section 3318.06 of the Revised Code if 58634
it will also be necessary pursuant to division (E) of this section 58635
to submit a proposal for approval of a bond issue;58636

       (b) In accordance with section 3318.361 of the Revised Code 58637
if it is not necessary to also submit a proposal for approval of a 58638
bond issue pursuant to division (E) of this section.58639

       (5) No state assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of 58640
the Revised Code shall be released until a school district board 58641
that adopts and certifies a resolution under division (D) of this 58642
section also demonstrates to the satisfaction of the commission 58643
compliance with the provisions of division (D)(2) of this section.58644

       Any amount required for maintenance under division (D)(2) of 58645
this section shall be deposited into a separate fund as specified 58646
in division (B) of section 3318.05 of the Revised Code.58647

       (E)(1) If the school district becomes eligible for state 58648
assistance under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code 58649
based on its percentile ranking under division (B)(3) of this 58650
section or is offered assistance under section 3318.364 of the 58651
Revised Code, the commission shall conduct a new assessment of the 58652
school district's classroom facilities needs and shall recalculate 58653
the basic project cost based on this new assessment. The basic 58654
project cost recalculated under this division shall include the 58655
amount of expenditures made by the school district board under 58656
division (D)(1) of this section. The commission shall then 58657
recalculate the school district's portion of the new basic project 58658
cost, which shall be one of the following as applicable:58659

       (a) Except for a tangible personal property phase-out 58660
impacted district, the percentage of the original basic project 58661
cost assigned to the school district as its portion under division 58662
(C) of this section;58663

       (b) For a tangible personal property phase-out impacted 58664
district, the lesser of (i) the percentage of the original basic 58665
project cost assigned to the school district as its portion under 58666
division (C) of this section, or (ii) the percentage of the new 58667
basic project cost determined under section 3318.032 of the 58668
Revised Code using the district's current percentile ranking under 58669
section 3318.011 of the Revised Code. The58670

       The commission shall deduct the expenditure of school 58671
district moneys made under division (D)(1) of this section from 58672
the school district's portion of the basic project cost as 58673
recalculated under this division. If the amount of school district 58674
resources applied by the school district board to the school 58675
district's portion of the basic project cost under this section is 58676
less than the total amount of such portion as recalculated under 58677
this division, the school district board by a majority vote of all 58678
of its members shall, if it desires to seek state assistance under 58679
sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of the Revised Code, adopt a 58680
resolution as specified in section 3318.06 of the Revised Code to 58681
submit to the electors of the school district the question of 58682
approval of a bond issue in order to pay any additional amount of 58683
school district portion required for state assistance. Any tax 58684
levy approved under division (D) of this section satisfies the 58685
requirements to levy the additional tax under section 3318.06 of 58686
the Revised Code.58687

       (2) If the amount of school district resources applied by the 58688
school district board to the school district's portion of the 58689
basic project cost under this section is more than the total 58690
amount of such portion as recalculated under this division (E)(1) 58691
of this section, within one year after the school district's 58692
portion is so recalculated under division (E)(1) of this section58693
the commission may grant to the school district the difference 58694
between the two calculated portions, but at no time shall the 58695
commission expend any state funds on a project in an amount 58696
greater than the state's portion of the basic project cost as 58697
recalculated under this division (E)(1) of this section.58698

       Any reimbursement under this division shall be only for local 58699
resources the school district has applied toward construction cost 58700
expenditures for the classroom facilities approved by the 58701
commission, which shall not include any financing costs associated 58702
with that construction.58703

       The school district board shall use any moneys reimbursed to 58704
the district under this division to pay off any debt service the 58705
district owes for classroom facilities constructed under its 58706
project under this section before such moneys are applied to any 58707
other purpose. However, the district board first may deposit 58708
moneys reimbursed under this division into the district's general 58709
fund or a permanent improvement fund to replace local resources 58710
the district withdrew from those funds, as long as, and to the 58711
extent that, those local resources were used by the district for 58712
constructing classroom facilities included in the district's basic 58713
project cost.58714

       (3) A tangible personal property phase-out impacted district 58715
shall receive credit under division (E) of this section for the 58716
expenditure of local resources pursuant to any prior agreement 58717
authorized by this section, notwithstanding any recalculation of 58718
its average taxable value.58719

       Sec. 3318.363. (A) This section applies beginning in fiscal 58720
year 2003 and only to a school district participating in the 58721
school building assistance expedited local partnership program 58722
under section 3318.36 of the Revised Code.58723

       (B) If there is a decrease in the tax valuation of a school 58724
district to which this section applies by ten per cent or greater 58725
from one tax year to the next due to a decrease in the assessment 58726
rate of the taxable property of an electric company that owns 58727
property in the district, as provided for in section 5727.111 of 58728
the Revised Code as amended by Am. Sub. S.B. 3 of the 123rd 58729
General Assembly, the Ohio school facilities commission shall 58730
calculate or recalculate the state and school district portions of 58731
the basic project cost of the school district's project by 58732
determining the percentile rank in which the district would be 58733
located if such ranking were made using the adjusted valuation per 58734
pupil calculated under division (C) of this section rather than 58735
the three-year average adjusted valuation per pupil, calculated 58736
under division (B) of section 3318.011 of the Revised Code. For 58737
such district, the required percentage of the basic project cost 58738
used to determine the state and school district shares of that 58739
cost under division (C) of section 3318.36 of the Revised Code 58740
shall be based on the percentile rank as calculated under this 58741
section rather than as otherwise provided in division (C)(1) of 58742
section 3318.36 of the Revised Code. If the commission has 58743
determined the state and school district portion of the basic 58744
project cost of such a district's project under section 3318.36 of 58745
the Revised Code prior to that decrease in tax valuation, the 58746
commission shall adjust the state and school district shares of 58747
the basic project cost of such project in accordance with this 58748
section.58749

       (C)(1) As used in divisions (C) and (D) of this section, 58750
"total taxable value," and "formula ADM," and "income factor" have 58751
the same meanings as in section 3317.02 of the Revised Code, and 58752
"income factor" has the same meaning as in section 3318.011 of the 58753
Revised Code.58754

       (2) The adjusted valuation per pupil for a school district to 58755
which this section applies shall be calculated using the following 58756
formula:58757

       (The district's total taxable value for the tax year 58758
preceding the calendar year in which the current fiscal year 58759
begins / the district's formula ADM for the previous fiscal year) 58760
- [$30,000 x (1 - the district's income factor)].58761

       (D) At the request of the Ohio school facilities commission, 58762
the department of education shall report a district's total 58763
taxable value for the tax year preceding the calendar year in 58764
which the current fiscal year begins for any district to which 58765
this section applies as that information has been certified to the 58766
department by the tax commissioner pursuant to section 3317.021 of 58767
the Revised Code.58768

       Sec. 3319.031.  Notwithstanding any provision of the Revised 58769
Code to the contrary, if the board of education of a city, local, 58770
or exempted village school district does not appoint a business 58771
manager under section 3319.03 of the Revised Code, the board may 58772
assign powers and duties specified in section 3319.04 of the 58773
Revised Code to one or more employees or officers of the board, 58774
including the treasurer, and may give the employees or officers 58775
any title recognizing the assignment of the powers and duties. The 58776
prohibition, in section 3319.04 of the Revised Code, against a 58777
business manager having possession of moneys does not prevent a 58778
board from assigning powers and duties specified in that section 58779
to the treasurer and does not prevent a treasurer who is assigned 58780
those powers and duties from exercising the powers and duties of 58781
treasurer. If the board assigns the duties of a business manager 58782
under section 3319.04 of the Revised Code to the treasurer, the 58783
treasurer shall not have the authority to make recommendations to 58784
appoint or discharge noneducational employees, except as provided 58785
under section 3313.31 of the Revised Code. Instead, the district 58786
superintendent shall be responsible for making recommendations, 58787
subject to confirmation by the board, for the appointment or 58788
discharge of noneducational employees. 58789

       Sec. 3319.07.  (A) The board of education of each city, 58790
exempted village, local, and joint vocational school district 58791
shall employ the teachers of the public schools of their 58792
respective districts.58793

       The governing board of each educational service center may 58794
employ special instruction teachers, special education teachers, 58795
and teachers of academic courses in which there are too few 58796
students in each of the school districts entering into agreements 58797
pursuant to section 3313.843 of the Revised Code to warrant each 58798
district's employing teachers for those courses.58799

       When any board makes appointments of teachers, the teachers 58800
in the employ of the board shall be considered before new teachers 58801
are chosen in their stead. In all school districts and in service 58802
centers, no teacher shall be employed unless such person is 58803
nominated by the superintendent of such district or center, or by 58804
another individual designated by the board in the event that the 58805
superintendent's nomination would be a violation of section 58806
2921.42 of the Revised Code. Such board, by a three-fourths vote 58807
of its full membership, may re-employ any teacher whom the 58808
superintendent refuses to appoint.58809

       (B) The board of education of any school district may 58810
contract with the governing board of the educational service 58811
center from which it otherwise receives services to conduct 58812
searches and recruitment of candidates for teacher positions.58813

       Sec. 3319.073.  (A) The board of education of each city and 58814
exempted village school district and the governing board of each 58815
educational service center shall adopt or adapt the curriculum 58816
developed by the department of education for, or shall develop in 58817
consultation with public or private agencies or persons involved 58818
in child abuse prevention or intervention programs, a program of 58819
in-service training in the prevention of child abuse, violence, 58820
and substance abuse and the promotion of positive youth 58821
development. Each person employed by any school district or 58822
service center to work in a school as a nurse, teacher, counselor, 58823
school psychologist, or administrator shall complete at least four 58824
hours of the in-service training within two years of commencing 58825
employment with the district or center, and every five years 58826
thereafter. A person who is employed by any school district or 58827
service center to work in an elementary school as a nurse, 58828
teacher, counselor, school psychologist, or administrator on March 58829
30, 2007, shall complete at least four hours of the in-service 58830
training not later than March 30, 2009, and every five years 58831
thereafter. A person who is employed by any school district or 58832
service center to work in a middle or high school as a nurse, 58833
teacher, counselor, school psychologist, or administrator on 58834
October 16, 2009, shall complete at least four hours of the 58835
in-service training not later than October 16, 2011, and every 58836
five years thereafter.58837

       (B) Each board shall incorporate training in school safety 58838
and violence prevention, including human trafficking content, into 58839
the in-service training required by division (A) of this section. 58840
For this purpose, the board shall adopt or adapt the curriculum 58841
developed by the department or shall develop its own curriculum in 58842
consultation with public or private agencies or persons involved 58843
in school safety and violence prevention programs.58844

       (C) Each board shall incorporate training on the board's 58845
harassment, intimidation, or bullying policy adopted under section 58846
3313.666 of the Revised Code into the in-service training required 58847
by division (A) of this section. Each board also shall incorporate 58848
training in the prevention of dating violence into the in-service 58849
training required by that division for middle and high school 58850
employees. The board shall develop its own curricula for these 58851
purposes.58852

       (D) Each board shall incorporate training in youth suicide 58853
awareness and prevention into the in-service training required by 58854
division (A) of this section for each person employed by a school 58855
district or service center to work in a school as a nurse, 58856
teacher, counselor, school psychologist, or administrator, and any 58857
other personnel that the board determines appropriate. For this 58858
purpose, the board shall adopt or adapt the curriculum developed 58859
by the department or shall develop its own curriculum in 58860
consultation with public or private agencies or persons involved 58861
in youth suicide awareness and prevention programs.58862

       The training completed under this division shall count toward 58863
the satisfaction of requirements for professional development 58864
required by the school district or service center board, and the 58865
training may be accomplished through self-review of suitable 58866
suicide prevention materials approved by the board.58867

       Sec. 3319.0811. IfExcept as provided in section 3319.0812 of 58868
the Revised Code, if the board of education of a school district 58869
offers to students of compulsory school age courses for high 58870
school credit that are taught at times outside the district's 58871
normal school day, the board shall enter into supplemental 58872
contracts under section 3319.08 of the Revised Code with the 58873
teachers assigned to teach those courses and shall not include 58874
such assignment of duties within the teachers' regular employment 58875
contracts under that section.58876

       Sec. 3319.0812.  (A) As used in this section, "extended 58877
programming" means extended programming as described in section 58878
3301.0725 of the Revised Code.58879

       (B) The board of education of a school district shall pay a 58880
licensed educator who is providing extended programming on an 58881
hourly basis at the regular per diem rate determined under the 58882
licensed educator's employment contract or collective bargaining 58883
agreement.58884

       (C) A licensed educator shall not provide more than eight 58885
hours of extended programming in a twenty-four-hour day.58886

       Sec. 3319.112.  (A) Not later than December 31, 2011, the 58887
state board of education shall develop a standards-based state 58888
framework for the evaluation of teachers. The state board may 58889
update the framework periodically by adoption of a resolution. The 58890
framework shall establish an evaluation system that does the 58891
following:58892

        (1) Provides for multiple evaluation factors. One factor 58893
shall be student academic growth which shall account for fifty58894
thirty-five per cent of each evaluation. A school district may 58895
attribute an additional percentage to the academic growth factor, 58896
not to exceed fifteen per cent of each evaluation. When applicable 58897
to the grade level or subject area taught by a teacher, the 58898
value-added progress dimension established under section 3302.021 58899
of the Revised Code or an alternative student academic progress 58900
measure if adopted under division (C)(1)(e) of section 3302.03 of 58901
the Revised Code shall be used in the student academic growth 58902
portion of an evaluation in proportion to the part of a teacher's 58903
schedule of courses or subjects for which the value-added progress 58904
dimension is applicable.58905

        If a teacher's schedule is comprised only of courses or 58906
subjects for which the value-added progress dimension is 58907
applicable, one of the following applies:58908

        (a) Beginning with the effective date of this amendmentMarch 58909
22, 2013, until June 30, 2014, the majority of the student 58910
academic growth factor of the evaluation shall be based on the 58911
value-added progress dimension.58912

        (b) On or after July 1, 2014, the entire student academic 58913
growth factor of the evaluation shall be based on the value-added 58914
progress dimension. In calculating student academic growth for an 58915
evaluation, a student shall not be included if the student has 58916
sixtythirty or more excused or unexcused absences for the school 58917
year.58918

        (2) Is aligned with the standards for teachers adopted under 58919
section 3319.61 of the Revised Code;58920

        (3) Requires observation of the teacher being evaluated, 58921
including at least two formal observations by the evaluator of at 58922
least thirty minutes each and classroom walkthroughs;58923

        (4) Assigns a rating on each evaluation in accordance with 58924
division (B) of this section;58925

        (5) Requires each teacher to be provided with a written 58926
report of the results of the teacher's evaluation;58927

        (6) Identifies measures of student academic growth for grade 58928
levels and subjects for which the value-added progress dimension 58929
prescribed by section 3302.021 of the Revised Code or an 58930
alternative student academic progress measure if adopted under 58931
division (C)(1)(e) of section 3302.03 of the Revised Code does not 58932
apply;58933

        (7) Implements a classroom-level, value-added program 58934
developed by a nonprofit organization described in division (B) of 58935
section 3302.021 of the Revised Code or an alternative student 58936
academic progress measure if adopted under division (C)(1)(e) of 58937
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code;58938

        (8) Provides for professional development to accelerate and 58939
continue teacher growth and provide support to poorly performing 58940
teachers;58941

        (9) Provides for the allocation of financial resources to 58942
support professional development.58943

       (B) For purposes of the framework developed under this 58944
section, the state board also shall do the following:58945

       (1) Develop specific standards and criteria that distinguish 58946
between the following levels of performance for teachers and 58947
principals for the purpose of assigning ratings on the evaluations 58948
conducted under sections 3311.80, 3311.84, 3319.02, and 3319.111 58949
of the Revised Code:58950

       (a) Accomplished;58951

       (b) Proficient;58952

       (c) Developing;58953

       (d) Ineffective.58954

       (2) For grade levels and subjects for which the assessments 58955
prescribed under sections 3301.0710 and 3301.0712 of the Revised 58956
Code and the value-added progress dimension prescribed by section 58957
3302.021 of the Revised Code, or alternative student academic 58958
progress measure, do not apply, develop a list of student 58959
assessments that measure mastery of the course content for the 58960
appropriate grade level, which may include nationally normed 58961
standardized assessments, industry certification examinations, or 58962
end-of-course examinations.58963

       (C) The state board shall consult with experts, teachers and 58964
principals employed in public schools, and representatives of 58965
stakeholder groups in developing the standards and criteria 58966
required by division (B)(1) of this section.58967

       (D) To assist school districts in developing evaluation 58968
policies under sections 3311.80, 3311.84, 3319.02, and 3319.111 of 58969
the Revised Code, the department shall do both of the following:58970

       (1) Serve as a clearinghouse of promising evaluation 58971
procedures and evaluation models that districts may use;58972

       (2) Provide technical assistance to districts in creating 58973
evaluation policies.58974

       (E) Not later than June 30, 2013, the state board, in 58975
consultation with state agencies that employ teachers, shall 58976
develop a standards-based framework for the evaluation of teachers 58977
employed by those agencies. Each state agency that employs 58978
teachers shall adopt a standards-based teacher evaluation policy 58979
that conforms with the framework developed under this division. 58980
The policy shall become operative at the expiration of any 58981
collective bargaining agreement covering teachers employed by the 58982
agency that is in effect on September 24, 2012, and shall be 58983
included in any renewal or extension of such an agreement. 58984
However, this division does not apply to any person who is 58985
employed as a substitute teacher or as an instructor of adult 58986
education.58987

       Sec. 3319.17.  (A) As used in this section, "interdistrict 58988
contract" means any contract or agreement entered into by an 58989
educational service center governing board and another board or 58990
other public entity pursuant to section 3313.17, 3313.841, 58991
3313.842, 3313.843, 3313.844, 3313.845, 3313.91, or 3323.08 of the 58992
Revised Code, including any such contract or agreement for the 58993
provision of services funded under division (E) of section 58994
3317.024 of the Revised Code or provided in any unit approved 58995
under section 3317.05 of the Revised Code.58996

       (B) When, for any of the following reasons that apply to any 58997
city, exempted village, local, or joint vocational school district 58998
or any educational service center, the board decides that it will 58999
be necessary to reduce the number of teachers it employs, it may 59000
make a reasonable reduction:59001

       (1) In the case of any district or service center, return to 59002
duty of regular teachers after leaves of absence including 59003
suspension of schools, territorial changes affecting the district 59004
or center, or financial reasons;59005

       (2) In the case of any city, exempted village, local, or 59006
joint vocational school district, decreased enrollment of pupils 59007
in the district;59008

       (3) In the case of any governing board of a service center 59009
providing any particular service directly to pupils pursuant to 59010
one or more interdistrict contracts requiring such service, 59011
reduction in the total number of pupils the governing board is 59012
required to provide with the service under all interdistrict 59013
contracts as a result of the termination or nonrenewal of one or 59014
more of these interdistrict contracts;59015

       (4) In the case of any governing board providing any 59016
particular service that it does not provide directly to pupils 59017
pursuant to one or more interdistrict contracts requiring such 59018
service, reduction in the total level of the service the governing 59019
board is required to provide under all interdistrict contracts as 59020
a result of the termination or nonrenewal of one or more of these 59021
interdistrict contracts.59022

       (C) In making any such reduction, any city, exempted village, 59023
local, or joint vocational school board shall proceed to suspend 59024
contracts in accordance with the recommendation of the 59025
superintendent of schools who shall, within each teaching field 59026
affected, give preference to teachers on continuing contracts. The 59027
board shall not give preference to any teacher based on seniority, 59028
except when making a decision between teachers who have comparable 59029
evaluations.59030

       On a case-by-case basis, in lieu of suspending a contract in 59031
whole, a board may suspend a contract in part, so that an 59032
individual is required to work a percentage of the time the 59033
employee otherwise is required to work under the contract and 59034
receives a commensurate percentage of the full compensation the 59035
employee otherwise would receive under the contract.59036

       The teachers whose continuing contracts are suspended by any 59037
board pursuant to this section shall have the right of restoration 59038
to continuing service status by that board if and when teaching 59039
positions become vacant or are created for which any of such 59040
teachers are or become qualified. No teacher whose continuing 59041
contract has been suspended pursuant to this section shall lose 59042
that right of restoration to continuing service status by reason 59043
of having declined recall to a position that is less than 59044
full-time or, if the teacher was not employed full-time just prior 59045
to suspension of the teacher's continuing contract, to a position 59046
requiring a lesser percentage of full-time employment than the 59047
position the teacher last held while employed in the district or 59048
service center. Seniority shall not be the basis for rehiring a 59049
teacher, except when making a decision between teachers who have 59050
comparable evaluations.59051

       (D) Notwithstanding any provision to the contrary in Chapter 59052
4117. of the Revised Code:59053

       (1) The requirements of this section, as it existed prior to 59054
the effective date of this amendmentSeptember 29, 2011, prevail 59055
over any conflicting provisions of agreements between employee 59056
organizations and public employers entered into between September 59057
29, 2005, and that effective dateSeptember 29, 2011;59058

       (2) The requirements of this section, as it exists on and 59059
after the effective date of this amendmentSeptember 29, 2011, 59060
prevail over any conflicting provisions of agreements between 59061
employee organizations and public employers entered into on or 59062
after that effective dateSeptember 29, 2011.59063

       Sec. 3319.22.  (A)(1) The state board of education shall 59064
issue the following educator licenses:59065

       (a) A resident educator license, which shall be valid for 59066
four years, except that the state board, on a case-by-case basis, 59067
may extend the license's duration as necessary to enable the 59068
license holder to complete the Ohio teacher residency program 59069
established under section 3319.223 of the Revised Code;59070

       (b) A professional educator license, which shall be valid for 59071
five years and shall be renewable;59072

       (c) A senior professional educator license, which shall be 59073
valid for five years and shall be renewable;59074

       (d) A lead professional educator license, which shall be 59075
valid for five years and shall be renewable.59076

       (2) The state board may issue any additional educator 59077
licenses of categories, types, and levels the board elects to 59078
provide. 59079

       (3) The state board shall adopt rules establishing the 59080
standards and requirements for obtaining each educator license 59081
issued under this section.59082

       (B) The rules adopted under this section shall require at 59083
least the following standards and qualifications for the educator 59084
licenses described in division (A)(1) of this section:59085

       (1) An applicant for a resident educator license shall hold 59086
at least a bachelor's degree from an accredited teacher 59087
preparation program or be a participant in the teach for America 59088
program and meet the qualifications required under section 59089
3319.227 of the Revised Code.59090

       (2) An applicant for a professional educator license shall:59091

       (a) Hold at least a bachelor's degree from an institution of 59092
higher education accredited by a regional accrediting 59093
organization;59094

       (b) Have successfully completed the Ohio teacher residency 59095
program established under section 3319.223 of the Revised Code, if 59096
the applicant's current or most recently issued license is a 59097
resident educator license issued under this section or an 59098
alternative resident educator license issued under section 3319.26 59099
of the Revised Code.59100

       (3) An applicant for a senior professional educator license 59101
shall:59102

       (a) Hold at least a master's degree from an institution of 59103
higher education accredited by a regional accrediting 59104
organization;59105

       (b) Have previously held a professional educator license 59106
issued under this section or section 3319.222 or under former 59107
section 3319.22 of the Revised Code;59108

       (c) Meet the criteria for the accomplished or distinguished 59109
level of performance, as described in the standards for teachers 59110
adopted by the state board under section 3319.61 of the Revised 59111
Code.59112

       (4) An applicant for a lead professional educator license 59113
shall:59114

       (a) Hold at least a master's degree from an institution of 59115
higher education accredited by a regional accrediting 59116
organization;59117

       (b) Have previously held a professional educator license or a 59118
senior professional educator license issued under this section or 59119
a professional educator license issued under section 3319.222 or 59120
former section 3319.22 of the Revised Code;59121

       (c) Meet the criteria for the distinguished level of 59122
performance, as described in the standards for teachers adopted by 59123
the state board under section 3319.61 of the Revised Code;59124

       (d) Either hold a valid certificate issued by the national 59125
board for professional teaching standards or meet the criteria for 59126
a master teacher or other criteria for a lead teacher adopted by 59127
the educator standards board under division (F)(4) or (5) of 59128
section 3319.61 of the Revised Code.59129

       (C) The state board shall align the standards and 59130
qualifications for obtaining a principal license with the 59131
standards for principals adopted by the state board under section 59132
3319.61 of the Revised Code. 59133

       (D) If the state board requires any examinations for educator 59134
licensure, the department of education shall provide the results 59135
of such examinations received by the department to the chancellor 59136
of the Ohio board of regents, in the manner and to the extent 59137
permitted by state and federal law.59138

       (E) Any rules the state board of education adopts, amends, or 59139
rescinds for educator licenses under this section, division (D) of 59140
section 3301.07 of the Revised Code, or any other law shall be 59141
adopted, amended, or rescinded under Chapter 119. of the Revised 59142
Code except as follows:59143

       (1) Notwithstanding division (D) of section 119.03 and 59144
division (A)(1) of section 119.04 of the Revised Code, in the case 59145
of the adoption of any rule or the amendment or rescission of any 59146
rule that necessitates institutions' offering preparation programs 59147
for educators and other school personnel that are approved by the 59148
chancellor of the Ohio board of regents under section 3333.048 of 59149
the Revised Code to revise the curriculum of those programs, the 59150
effective date shall not be as prescribed in division (D) of 59151
section 119.03 and division (A)(1) of section 119.04 of the 59152
Revised Code. Instead, the effective date of such rules, or the 59153
amendment or rescission of such rules, shall be the date 59154
prescribed by section 3333.048 of the Revised Code.59155

       (2) Notwithstanding the authority to adopt, amend, or rescind 59156
emergency rules in division (F) of section 119.03 of the Revised 59157
Code, this authority shall not apply to the state board of 59158
education with regard to rules for educator licenses.59159

       (F)(1) The rules adopted under this section establishing 59160
standards requiring additional coursework for the renewal of any 59161
educator license shall require a school district and a chartered 59162
nonpublic school to establish local professional development 59163
committees. In a nonpublic school, the chief administrative 59164
officer shall establish the committees in any manner acceptable to 59165
such officer. The committees established under this division shall 59166
determine whether coursework that a district or chartered 59167
nonpublic school teacher proposes to complete meets the 59168
requirement of the rules. The department of education shall 59169
provide technical assistance and support to committees as the 59170
committees incorporate the professional development standards 59171
adopted by the state board of education pursuant to section 59172
3319.61 of the Revised Code into their review of coursework that 59173
is appropriate for license renewal. The rules shall establish a 59174
procedure by which a teacher may appeal the decision of a local 59175
professional development committee.59176

       (2) In any school district in which there is no exclusive 59177
representative established under Chapter 4117. of the Revised 59178
Code, the professional development committees shall be established 59179
as described in division (F)(2) of this section.59180

       Not later than the effective date of the rules adopted under 59181
this section, the board of education of each school district shall 59182
establish the structure for one or more local professional 59183
development committees to be operated by such school district. The 59184
committee structure so established by a district board shall 59185
remain in effect unless within thirty days prior to an anniversary 59186
of the date upon which the current committee structure was 59187
established, the board provides notice to all affected district 59188
employees that the committee structure is to be modified. 59189
Professional development committees may have a district-level or 59190
building-level scope of operations, and may be established with 59191
regard to particular grade or age levels for which an educator 59192
license is designated.59193

       Each professional development committee shall consist of at 59194
least three classroom teachers employed by the district, one 59195
principal employed by the district, and one other employee of the 59196
district appointed by the district superintendent. For committees 59197
with a building-level scope, the teacher and principal members 59198
shall be assigned to that building, and the teacher members shall 59199
be elected by majority vote of the classroom teachers assigned to 59200
that building. For committees with a district-level scope, the 59201
teacher members shall be elected by majority vote of the classroom 59202
teachers of the district, and the principal member shall be 59203
elected by a majority vote of the principals of the district, 59204
unless there are two or fewer principals employed by the district, 59205
in which case the one or two principals employed shall serve on 59206
the committee. If a committee has a particular grade or age level 59207
scope, the teacher members shall be licensed to teach such grade 59208
or age levels, and shall be elected by majority vote of the 59209
classroom teachers holding such a license and the principal shall 59210
be elected by all principals serving in buildings where any such 59211
teachers serve. The district superintendent shall appoint a 59212
replacement to fill any vacancy that occurs on a professional 59213
development committee, except in the case of vacancies among the 59214
elected classroom teacher members, which shall be filled by vote 59215
of the remaining members of the committee so selected.59216

       Terms of office on professional development committees shall 59217
be prescribed by the district board establishing the committees. 59218
The conduct of elections for members of professional development 59219
committees shall be prescribed by the district board establishing 59220
the committees. A professional development committee may include 59221
additional members, except that the majority of members on each 59222
such committee shall be classroom teachers employed by the 59223
district. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior 59224
to the expiration date of the term for which a predecessor was 59225
appointed shall hold office as a member for the remainder of that 59226
term.59227

       The initial meeting of any professional development 59228
committee, upon election and appointment of all committee members, 59229
shall be called by a member designated by the district 59230
superintendent. At this initial meeting, the committee shall 59231
select a chairperson and such other officers the committee deems 59232
necessary, and shall adopt rules for the conduct of its meetings. 59233
Thereafter, the committee shall meet at the call of the 59234
chairperson or upon the filing of a petition with the district 59235
superintendent signed by a majority of the committee members 59236
calling for the committee to meet.59237

       (3) In the case of a school district in which an exclusive 59238
representative has been established pursuant to Chapter 4117. of 59239
the Revised Code, professional development committees shall be 59240
established in accordance with any collective bargaining agreement 59241
in effect in the district that includes provisions for such 59242
committees.59243

       If the collective bargaining agreement does not specify a 59244
different method for the selection of teacher members of the 59245
committees, the exclusive representative of the district's 59246
teachers shall select the teacher members.59247

       If the collective bargaining agreement does not specify a 59248
different structure for the committees, the board of education of 59249
the school district shall establish the structure, including the 59250
number of committees and the number of teacher and administrative 59251
members on each committee; the specific administrative members to 59252
be part of each committee; whether the scope of the committees 59253
will be district levels, building levels, or by type of grade or 59254
age levels for which educator licenses are designated; the lengths 59255
of terms for members; the manner of filling vacancies on the 59256
committees; and the frequency and time and place of meetings. 59257
However, in all cases, except as provided in division (F)(4) of 59258
this section, there shall be a majority of teacher members of any 59259
professional development committee, there shall be at least five 59260
total members of any professional development committee, and the 59261
exclusive representative shall designate replacement members in 59262
the case of vacancies among teacher members, unless the collective 59263
bargaining agreement specifies a different method of selecting 59264
such replacements.59265

       (4) Whenever an administrator's coursework plan is being 59266
discussed or voted upon, the local professional development 59267
committee shall, at the request of one of its administrative 59268
members, cause a majority of the committee to consist of 59269
administrative members by reducing the number of teacher members 59270
voting on the plan.59271

       (G)(1) The department of education, educational service 59272
centers, county boards of developmental disabilities, regional 59273
professional development centers, special education regional 59274
resource centers, college and university departments of education, 59275
head start programs, the eTech Ohio commission, and the Ohio 59276
education computer network may establish local professional 59277
development committees to determine whether the coursework 59278
proposed by their employees who are licensed or certificated under 59279
this section or section 3319.222 of the Revised Code, or under the 59280
former version of either section as it existed prior to October 59281
16, 2009, meet the requirements of the rules adopted under this 59282
section. They may establish local professional development 59283
committees on their own or in collaboration with a school district 59284
or other agency having authority to establish them.59285

       Local professional development committees established by 59286
county boards of developmental disabilities shall be structured in 59287
a manner comparable to the structures prescribed for school 59288
districts in divisions (F)(2) and (3) of this section, as shall 59289
the committees established by any other entity specified in 59290
division (G)(1) of this section that provides educational services 59291
by employing or contracting for services of classroom teachers 59292
licensed or certificated under this section or section 3319.222 of 59293
the Revised Code, or under the former version of either section as 59294
it existed prior to October 16, 2009. All other entities specified 59295
in division (G)(1) of this section shall structure their 59296
committees in accordance with guidelines which shall be issued by 59297
the state board.59298

       (2) Any public agency that is not specified in division 59299
(G)(1) of this section but provides educational services and 59300
employs or contracts for services of classroom teachers licensed 59301
or certificated under this section or section 3319.222 of the 59302
Revised Code, or under the former version of either section as it 59303
existed prior to October 16, 2009, may establish a local 59304
professional development committee, subject to the approval of the 59305
department of education. The committee shall be structured in 59306
accordance with guidelines issued by the state board.59307

       Sec. 3319.235.  (A) The standards for the preparation of 59308
teachers adopted under section 3333.048 of the Revised Code shall 59309
require any institution that provides a course of study for the 59310
training of teachers to ensure that graduates of such course of 59311
study are skilled at integrating educational technology in the 59312
instruction of children, as evidenced by the graduate having 59313
either demonstrated proficiency in such skills in a manner 59314
prescribed by the department of education or completed a course 59315
that includes training in such skills.59316

       (B) The eTech Ohio commissionchancellor of the Ohio board of 59317
regents, in consultation with the department of education, shall 59318
establish model professional development programs to assist 59319
teachers who completed their teacher preparation prior to the 59320
effective date of division (A) of this section to become skilled 59321
at integrating educational technology in the instruction of 59322
children. The commissionchancellor shall provide technical 59323
assistance to school districts wishing to establish such programs.59324

       Sec. 3319.57.  (A) A grant program is hereby established 59325
under which the department of education shall award grants to 59326
assist certain schools in a city, exempted village, local, or 59327
joint vocational school district in implementing one of the 59328
following innovations:59329

       (1) The use of instructional specialists to mentor and 59330
support classroom teachers;59331

       (2) The use of building managers to supervise the 59332
administrative functions of school operation so that a school 59333
principal can focus on supporting instruction, providing 59334
instructional leadership, and engaging teachers as part of the 59335
instructional leadership team;59336

       (3) The reconfiguration of school leadership structure in a 59337
manner that allows teachers to serve in leadership roles so that 59338
teachers may share the responsibility for making and implementing 59339
school decisions;59340

       (4) The adoption of new models for restructuring the school 59341
day or school year, such as including teacher planning and 59342
collaboration time as part of the school day;59343

       (5) The creation of smaller schools or smaller units within 59344
larger schools for the purpose of facilitating teacher 59345
collaboration to improve and advance the professional practice of 59346
teaching;59347

       (6) The implementation of "grow your own" recruitment 59348
strategies that are designed to assist individuals who show a 59349
commitment to education become licensed teachers, to assist 59350
experienced teachers obtain licensure in subject areas for which 59351
there is need, and to assist teachers in becoming principals;59352

       (7) The provision of better conditions for new teachers, such 59353
as reduced teaching load and reduced class size;59354

        (8) The provision of incentives to attract qualified 59355
mathematics, science, or special education teachers;59356

        (9) The development and implementation of a partnership with 59357
teacher preparation programs at colleges and universities to help 59358
attract teachers qualified to teach in shortage areas;59359

        (10) The implementation of a program to increase the cultural 59360
competency of both new and veteran teachers;59361

        (11) The implementation of a program to increase the subject 59362
matter competency of veteran teachers.59363

       (B) To qualify for a grant to implement one of the 59364
innovations described in division (A) of this section, a school 59365
must meet both of the following criteria:59366

       (1) Be hard to staff, as defined by the department.59367

       (2) Use existing school district funds for the implementation 59368
of the innovation in an amount equal to the grant amount 59369
multiplied by (1 - the district's state share percentageindex for 59370
the fiscal year in which the grant is awarded). 59371

       For purposes of division (B)(2) of this section, "state share 59372
percentageindex" has the same meaning as in section 3317.02 of 59373
the Revised Code.59374

       (C) The amount and number of grants awarded under this 59375
section shall be determined by the department based on any 59376
appropriations made by the general assembly for grants under this 59377
section. 59378

       (D) The state board of education shall adopt rules for the 59379
administration of this grant program.59380

       Sec. 3319.58.  (A) As used in this section, "core subject 59381
area" has the same meaning as in section 3319.074 of the Revised 59382
Code.59383

       (B) Each year, beginning with the 2015-2016 school year, the 59384
board of education of each city, exempted village, local, and 59385
joint vocational school district shall require each classroom 59386
teacher who is currently teaching in a core subject area and has 59387
received a rating of ineffective on the evaluations conducted 59388
under section 3319.111 of the Revised Code for two of the three 59389
most recent school years to register for and take all written 59390
examinations of content knowledge selected by the department of 59391
education as appropriate to determine expertise to teach that core 59392
subject area and the grade level to which the teacher is assigned.59393

       (C) Each year, beginning with the 2015-2016 school year, the 59394
governing authority of each community school established under 59395
Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, except a community school to 59396
which section 3314.017 of the Revised Code applies or a community 59397
school described in division (A)(4)(b) of section 3314.35 of the 59398
Revised Code, and governing body of each STEM school established 59399
under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code with a building ranked in 59400
the lowest ten per cent of all public school buildings according 59401
to performance index score, under section 3302.21 of the Revised 59402
Code, shall require each classroom teacher currently teaching in a 59403
core subject area in such a building to register for and take all 59404
written examinations of content knowledge selected by the 59405
department as appropriate to determine expertise to teach that 59406
core subject area and the grade level to which the teacher is 59407
assigned. 59408

       (D) If a teacher who takes an examination under division (B) 59409
of this section passes that examination and provides proof of that 59410
passage to the teacher's employer, the employer shall require the 59411
teacher, at the teacher's expense, to complete professional 59412
development that is targeted to the deficiencies identified in the 59413
teacher's evaluations conducted under section 3319.111 of the 59414
Revised Code. The receipt by the teacher of a rating of 59415
ineffective on the teacher's next evaluation after completion of 59416
the professional development, or the failure of the teacher to 59417
complete the professional development, shall be grounds for 59418
termination of the teacher under section 3319.16 of the Revised 59419
Code.59420

       (E) If a teacher who takes an examination under this section 59421
passes that examination and provides proof of that passage to the 59422
teacher's employer, the teacher shall not be required to take the 59423
examination again for three years, regardless of the teacher's 59424
evaluation ratings or the performance index score ranking of the 59425
building in which the teacher teaches. No teacher shall be 59426
responsible for the cost of taking an examination under this 59427
section.59428

       (F) Each district board of education, each community school 59429
governing authority, and each STEM school governing body may use 59430
the results of a teacher's examinations required under division 59431
(B) or (C) of this section in developing and revising professional 59432
development plans and in deciding whether or not to continue 59433
employing the teacher in accordance with the provisions of this 59434
chapter or Chapter 3314. or 3326. of the Revised Code. However, no 59435
decision to terminate or not to renew a teacher's employment 59436
contract shall be made solely on the basis of the results of a 59437
teacher's examination under this section until and unless the 59438
teacher has not attained a passing score on the same required 59439
examination for at least three consecutive administrations of that 59440
examination.59441

       Sec. 3321.01. (A)(1) As used in this chapter, "parent," 59442
"guardian," or "other person having charge or care of a child" 59443
means either parent unless the parents are separated or divorced 59444
or their marriage has been dissolved or annulled, in which case 59445
"parent" means the parent who is the residential parent and legal 59446
custodian of the child. If the child is in the legal or permanent 59447
custody of a person or government agency, "parent" means that 59448
person or government agency. When a child is a resident of a home, 59449
as defined in section 3313.64 of the Revised Code, and the child's 59450
parent is not a resident of this state, "parent," "guardian," or 59451
"other person having charge or care of a child" means the head of 59452
the home.59453

       A child between six and eighteen years of age is "of 59454
compulsory school age" for the purpose of sections 3321.01 to 59455
3321.13 of the Revised Code. A child under six years of age who 59456
has been enrolled in kindergarten also shall be considered "of 59457
compulsory school age" for the purpose of sections 3321.01 to 59458
3321.13 of the Revised Code unless at any time the child's parent 59459
or guardian, at the parent's or guardian's discretion and in 59460
consultation with the child's teacher and principal, formally 59461
withdraws the child from kindergarten. The compulsory school age 59462
of a child shall not commence until the beginning of the term of 59463
such schools, or other time in the school year fixed by the rules 59464
of the board of the district in which the child resides.59465

       (2) No child shall be admitted to a kindergarten or a first 59466
grade of a public school in a district in which all children are 59467
admitted to kindergarten and the first grade in August or 59468
September unless the child is five or six years of age, 59469
respectively, by the thirtieth day of September of the year of 59470
admittance, or by the first day of a term or semester other than 59471
one beginning in August or September in school districts granting 59472
admittance at the beginning of such term or semester, unless the 59473
child has been recommended for early admittance in accordance with 59474
the district's acceleration policy adopted under section 3324.10 59475
of the Revised Code. A child who does not meet the age requirement 59476
for admittance to kindergarten or first grade shall be evaluated 59477
for early admittance upon referral by the child's parent or 59478
guardian, an educator employed by the district, a preschool 59479
educator who knows the child, or a pediatrician or psychologist 59480
who knows the child.59481

       (3) Notwithstanding division (A)(2) of this section, 59482
beginning with the school year that starts in 2001 and continuing 59483
thereafter the board of education of any district may adopt a 59484
resolution establishing the first day of August in lieu of the 59485
thirtieth day of September as the required date by which students 59486
must have attained the age specified in that division.59487

       (4) After a student has been admitted to kindergarten in a 59488
school district or chartered nonpublic school, no board of 59489
education of a school district to which the student transfers 59490
shall deny that student admission based on the student's age.59491

       (B) As used in division (C) of this section, "successfully 59492
completed kindergarten" means that the child has completed the 59493
kindergarten requirements at one of the following:59494

       (1) A public or chartered nonpublic school;59495

       (2) A kindergarten class that is both of the following:59496

       (a) Offered by a day-care provider licensed under Chapter 59497
5104. of the Revised Code;59498

       (b) If offered after July 1, 1991, is directly taught by a 59499
teacher who holds one of the following:59500

       (i) A valid educator license issued under section 3319.22 of 59501
the Revised Code;59502

       (ii) A Montessori preprimary credential or age-appropriate 59503
diploma granted by the American Montessori society or the 59504
association Montessori internationale;59505

       (iii) Certification determined under division (F) of this 59506
section to be equivalent to that described in division 59507
(B)(2)(b)(ii) of this section;59508

       (iv) Certification for teachers in nontax-supported schools 59509
pursuant to section 3301.071 of the Revised Code.59510

       (C) Except as provided in division (A)(2) of this section, no 59511
school district shall admit to the first grade any child who has 59512
not successfully completed kindergarten.59513

       (D) The scheduling of times for kindergarten classes and 59514
length of the school day for kindergarten shall be determined by 59515
the board of education of a city, exempted village, or local 59516
school district.59517

       (E) Any kindergarten class offered by a day-care provider or 59518
school described by division (B)(1) or (B)(2)(a) of this section 59519
shall be developmentally appropriate.59520

       (F) Upon written request of a day-care provider described by 59521
division (B)(2)(a) of this section, the department of education 59522
shall determine whether certification held by a teacher employed 59523
by the provider meets the requirement of division (B)(2)(b)(iii) 59524
of this section and, if so, shall furnish the provider a statement 59525
to that effect.59526

        (G) As used in this division, "all-day kindergarten" has the 59527
same meaning as in section 3321.05 of the Revised Code.59528

       (1) AnyA school district that did not receive for fiscal 59529
year 2009 poverty-based assistance for all-day kindergarten under 59530
division (D) of section 3317.029 of the Revised Code may charge 59531
fees or tuition for studentsa student enrolled in all-day 59532
kindergarten only so long as the student is reported as less than 59533
one full-time equivalent student under division (A) of section 59534
3317.03 of the Revised Code. If a district charges fees or tuition 59535
for all-day kindergarten under this division, the district shall 59536
develop a sliding fee scale based on family incomes.59537

       (2) The department of education shall conduct an annual 59538
survey of each school district described in division (G)(1) of 59539
this section to determine the following:59540

       (a) Whether the district charges fees or tuition for students 59541
enrolled in all-day kindergarten;59542

       (b) The amount of the fees or tuition charged;59543

       (c) How many of the students for whom tuition is charged are 59544
eligible for free lunches under the "National School Lunch Act," 59545
60 Stat. 230 (1946), 42 U.S.C. 1751, as amended, and the "Child 59546
Nutrition Act of 1966," 80 Stat. 885, 42 U.S.C. 1771, as amended, 59547
and how many of the students for whom tuition is charged are 59548
eligible for reduced price lunches under those acts;59549

       (d) How many students are enrolled in traditional half-day 59550
kindergarten rather than all-day kindergarten.59551

       Each district shall report to the department, in the manner 59552
prescribed by the department, the information described in 59553
divisions (G)(2)(a) to (d) of this section.59554

       The department shall issue an annual report on the results of 59555
the survey and shall post the report on its web site. The 59556
department shall issue the first report not later than April 30, 59557
2008, and shall issue a report not later than the thirtieth day of 59558
April each year thereafter.59559

       Sec. 3321.05.  (A) As used in this section, "all-day 59560
kindergarten" means a kindergarten class that is in session five 59561
days per week for not less than the same number of clock hours 59562
each dayweek as for students in grades one through six.59563

        (B) Any school district may operate all-day kindergarten or 59564
extended kindergarten, but no district shall require any student 59565
to attend kindergarten for more than the number of clock hours 59566
required each day for traditional kindergarten by the minimum 59567
standards adopted under division (D) of section 3301.07 of the 59568
Revised Code. Each school district that operates all-day or 59569
extended kindergarten shall accommodate kindergarten students 59570
whose parents or guardians elect to enroll them for the minimum 59571
number of hours.59572

       (C) A school district may use space in child day-care centers 59573
licensed under Chapter 5104. of the Revised Code to provide 59574
all-day kindergarten under this section.59575

       Sec. 3323.021.  As used in this section, "participating 59576
county DD board" means a county board of developmental 59577
disabilities electing to participate in the provision of or 59578
contracting for educational services for children under division 59579
(D) of section 5126.05 of the Revised Code.59580

       (A) When a school district, educational service center, or 59581
participating county DD board enters into an agreement or contract 59582
with another school district, educational service center, or 59583
participating county DD board to provide educational services to a 59584
disabled child during a school year, both of the following shall 59585
apply:59586

       (1) Beginning with fiscal year 1999, if the provider of the 59587
services intends to increase the amount it charges for some or all 59588
of those services during the next school year or if the provider 59589
intends to cease offering all or part of those services during the 59590
next school year, the provider shall notify the entity for which 59591
the services are provided of these intended changes no later than 59592
the first day of March of the current fiscal year.59593

       (2) Beginning with fiscal year 1999, if the entity for which 59594
services are provided intends to cease obtaining those services 59595
from the provider for the next school year or intends to change 59596
the type or amount of services it obtains from the provider for 59597
the next school year, the entity shall notify the service provider 59598
of these intended changes no later than the first day of March of 59599
the current fiscal year.59600

       (B) School districts, educational service centers, 59601
participating county DD boards, and other applicable governmental 59602
entities shall collaborate where possible to maximize federal 59603
sources of revenue to provide additional funds for special 59604
education related services for disabled children. Annually, each 59605
school district shall report to the department of education any 59606
amounts of moneysuch federal revenue the district received 59607
through such medical assistance program.59608

       (C) The state board of education, the department of 59609
developmental disabilities, and the department of job and family 59610
servicesmedicaid shall develop working agreements for pursuing 59611
additional funds for services for disabled children.59612

       Sec. 3323.03.  The state board of education shall, in 59613
consultation with the department of health, the department of 59614
mental healthmental health and addiction services, and the 59615
department of developmental disabilities, establish standards and 59616
procedures for the identification, location, and evaluation of all 59617
children with disabilities residing in the state, including 59618
children with disabilities who are homeless children or are wards 59619
of the state and children with disabilities attending nonpublic 59620
schools, regardless of the severity of their disabilities, and who 59621
are in need of special education and related services. The state 59622
board shall develop and implement a practical method to determine 59623
which children with disabilities are currently receiving needed 59624
special education and related services.59625

       In conducting the evaluation, the board of education of each 59626
school district shall use a variety of assessment tools and 59627
strategies to gather relevant functional, developmental, and 59628
academic information about the child, including information 59629
provided by the child's parent. The board of education of each 59630
school district, in consultation with the county DD board, the 59631
county family and children first council, and the board of 59632
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services of each county 59633
in which the school district has territory, shall identify, 59634
locate, and evaluate all children with disabilities residing 59635
within the district to determine which children with disabilities 59636
are not receiving appropriate special education and related 59637
services. In addition, the board of education of each school 59638
district, in consultation with such county boards or council, 59639
shall identify, locate, and evaluate all children with 59640
disabilities who are enrolled by their parents in nonpublic 59641
elementary and secondary schools located within the public school 59642
district, without regard to where those children reside in 59643
accordance with rules of the state board of education or 59644
guidelines of the superintendent of public instruction.59645

        Each county DD board, county family and children first 59646
council, and board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 59647
services and the board's or council's contract agencies may 59648
transmit to boards of education the names and addresses of 59649
children with disabilities who are not receiving appropriate 59650
special education and related services.59651

       Sec. 3323.04.  The state board of education, in consultation 59652
with the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 59653
services and the department of developmental disabilities, shall 59654
establish procedures and standards for the development of 59655
individualized education programs for children with disabilities.59656

       The state board shall require the board of education of each 59657
school district to develop an individualized education program for 59658
each child with a disability who is at least three years of age 59659
and less than twenty-two years of age residing in the district in 59660
a manner that is in accordance with rules of the state board.59661

       Prior to the placement of a child with a disability in a 59662
program operated under section 3323.09 of the Revised Code, the 59663
district board of education shall consult the county DD board of 59664
the county in which the child resides regarding the proposed 59665
placement.59666

       A child with a disability enrolled in a nonpublic school or 59667
facility shall be provided special education and related services, 59668
in accordance with an individualized education program, at no cost 59669
for those services, if the child is placed in, or referred to, 59670
that nonpublic school or facility by the department of education 59671
or a school district.59672

       The IEP team shall review the individualized education 59673
program of each child with a disability periodically, but at least 59674
annually, to determine whether the annual goals for the child are 59675
being achieved, and shall revise the individualized education 59676
program as appropriate.59677

       The state board shall establish procedures and standards to 59678
assure that to the maximum extent appropriate, children with 59679
disabilities, including children in public or private institutions 59680
or other care facilities, shall be educated with children who are 59681
not disabled. Special classes, separate schools, or other removal 59682
of children with disabilities from the regular educational 59683
environment shall be used only when the nature or severity of a 59684
child's disability is such that education in regular classes with 59685
supplementary aids and services cannot be achieved satisfactorily.59686

       If an agency directly affected by a placement decision 59687
objects to such decision, an impartial hearing officer, appointed 59688
by the department of education from a list prepared by the 59689
department, shall conduct a hearing to review the placement 59690
decision. The agencies that are parties to a hearing shall divide 59691
the costs of such hearing equally. The decision of the hearing 59692
officer shall be final, except that any party to the hearing who 59693
is aggrieved by the findings or the decision of the hearing 59694
officer may appeal the findings or decision in accordance with 59695
division (H) of section 3323.05 of the Revised Code or the parent 59696
of any child affected by such decision may present a complaint in 59697
accordance with that section.59698

       Sec. 3323.07.  The state board of education shall authorize 59699
the establishment and maintenance of special education and related 59700
services for all children with disabilities who are at least three 59701
years of age and less than twenty-two years of age, including 59702
children with disabilities who have been suspended or expelled 59703
from school, and may authorize special education and related 59704
services for children with disabilities who are less than three 59705
years of age in accordance with rules adopted by the state board. 59706
The state board shall require the boards of education of school 59707
districts, shall authorize the department of mental healthmental 59708
health and addiction services and the department of developmental 59709
disabilities, and may authorize any other educational agency, to 59710
establish and maintain such special education and related services 59711
in accordance with standards adopted by the state board.59712

       Sec. 3323.08.  (A) Each school district shall submit a plan 59713
to the superintendent of public instruction that provides 59714
assurances that the school district will provide for the education 59715
of children with disabilities within its jurisdiction and has in 59716
effect policies, procedures, and programs that are consistent with 59717
the policies and procedures adopted by the state board of 59718
education in accordance with section 612 of the "Individuals with 59719
Disabilities Education Improvement Act of 2004," 20 U.S.C. 1412, 59720
and that meet the conditions applicable to school districts under 59721
section 613 of that act, 20 U.S.C. 1413.59722

       Each district's plan shall do all of the following:59723

       (1) Provide, as specified in section 3323.11 of the Revised 59724
Code and in accordance with standards established by the state 59725
board, for an organizational structure and necessary and qualified 59726
staffing and supervision for the identification of and provision 59727
of special education and related services for children with 59728
disabilities;59729

       (2) Provide, as specified by section 3323.03 of the Revised 59730
Code and in accordance with standards established by the state 59731
board, for the identification, location, and evaluation of all 59732
children with disabilities residing in the district, including 59733
children with disabilities who are homeless children or are wards 59734
of the state and children with disabilities attending private 59735
schools and who are in need of special education and related 59736
services. A practical method shall be developed and implemented to 59737
determine which children with disabilities are currently receiving 59738
needed special education and related services.59739

       (3) Provide, as specified by section 3323.07 of the Revised 59740
Code and standards established by the state board, for the 59741
establishment and maintenance of special education and related 59742
services for children with disabilities who are at least three 59743
years of age and less than twenty-two years of age, including 59744
children with disabilities who have been suspended or expelled 59745
from school.59746

       (4) Provide, as specified by section 3323.04 of the Revised 59747
Code and in accordance with standards adopted by the state board, 59748
for an individualized education program for each child with a 59749
disability who is at least three years of age and less than 59750
twenty-two years of age residing within the district;59751

       (5) Provide, as specified by section 3323.02 of the Revised 59752
Code and in accordance with standards established by the state 59753
board, for special education and related services and a free 59754
appropriate public education for every child with a disability who 59755
is at least three years of age and less than twenty-two years of 59756
age, including children with disabilities who have been suspended 59757
or expelled from school;59758

       (6) Provide procedural safeguards and prior written notice as 59759
required under section 3323.05 of the Revised Code and the 59760
standards established by the state board;59761

       (7) Outline the steps that have been or are being taken to 59762
comply with standards established by the state board.59763

       (B)(1) A school district may arrange, by a cooperative 59764
agreement or contract with one or more school districts or with a 59765
cooperative education or joint vocational school district or an 59766
educational service center, to provide for the identification, 59767
location, and evaluation of children with disabilities, and to 59768
provide special education and related services for such children 59769
that meet the standards established by the state board. A school 59770
district may arrange, by a cooperative agreement or contract, for 59771
the provision of related services for children with disabilities 59772
that meet the standards established by the state board.59773

       (2) A school district shall arrange by interagency agreement 59774
with one or more school districts or with a cooperative education 59775
or joint vocational school district or an educational service 59776
center or other providers of early learning services to provide 59777
for the identification, location, evaluation of children with 59778
disabilities of ages birth through five years of age and for the 59779
transition of children with disabilities at age three in 59780
accordance with the standards established by the state board. A 59781
school district may arrange by interagency agreement with 59782
providers of early learning services to provide special education 59783
and related services for such children that meet the standards 59784
established by the state board.59785

       (3) If at the time an individualized education program is 59786
developed for a child a school district is not providing special 59787
education and related services required by that individualized 59788
education program, the school district may arrange by contract 59789
with a nonpublic entity for the provision of the special education 59790
and related services, provided the special education and related 59791
services meet the standards for special education and related 59792
services established by the state board and is provided within the 59793
state.59794

       (4) Any cooperative agreement or contract under division 59795
(B)(1) or (2) of this section involving a local school district 59796
shall be approved by the governing board of the educational 59797
service center which serves that district.59798

       (C) No plan of a local school district shall be submitted to 59799
the superintendent of public instruction until it has been 59800
approved by the superintendent of the educational service center 59801
which serves that district.59802

       (D) Upon approval of a school district's plan by the 59803
superintendent of public instruction, the district shall 59804
immediately certify students for state funds under section 3317.03 59805
of the Revised Code to implement and maintain such plan. The 59806
district also shall request approval of classroom units under 59807
division (B) of section 3317.05 of the Revised Code for which the 59808
district has adequately identified preschool children with 59809
disabilities and shall, in accordance with procedures adopted by 59810
the state board, request approval of units under division (C) of 59811
section 3317.05 of the Revised Code. The district shall, in 59812
accordance with guidelines adopted by the state board, identify 59813
problems relating to the provision of qualified personnel and 59814
adequate facilities, and indicate the extent to which the cost of 59815
programs required under the plan will exceed anticipated state 59816
reimbursement. Each school district shall immediately implement 59817
the identification, location, and evaluation of children with 59818
disabilities in accordance with this chapter, and shall implement 59819
those parts of the plan involving placement and provision of 59820
special education and related services.59821

       Sec. 3323.09.  (A) As used in this section:59822

       (1) "Home" has the meaning given in section 3313.64 of the 59823
Revised Code.59824

       (2) "Preschool child" means a child who is at least age three 59825
but under age six on the thirtieth day of September of an academic 59826
year.59827

       (B) Each county DD board shall establish special education 59828
programs for all children with disabilities who in accordance with 59829
section 3323.04 of the Revised Code have been placed in special 59830
education programs operated by the county board and for preschool 59831
children who are developmentally delayed or at risk of being 59832
developmentally delayed. The board annually shall submit to the 59833
department of education a plan for the provision of these programs 59834
and, if applicable, a request for approval of units under section 59835
3317.05 of the Revised Code. The superintendent of public 59836
instruction shall review the plan and approve or modify it in 59837
accordance with rules adopted by the state board of education 59838
under section 3301.07 of the Revised Code. The superintendent of 59839
public instruction shall compile the plans submitted by county 59840
boards and shall submit a comprehensive plan to the state board.59841

       A county DD board may combine transportation for children 59842
enrolled in classes funded under sectionsections 3317.0213 or59843
3317.20 or units approved under section 3317.05 with 59844
transportation for children and adults enrolled in programs and 59845
services offered by the board under Chapter 5126. of the Revised 59846
Code.59847

       (C) A county DD board that during the school year provided 59848
special education pursuant to this section for any child with 59849
mental disabilities under twenty-two years of age shall prepare 59850
and submit the following reports and statements:59851

       (1) The board shall prepare a statement for each child who at 59852
the time of receiving such special education was a resident of a 59853
home and was not in the legal or permanent custody of an Ohio 59854
resident or a government agency in this state, and whose natural 59855
or adoptive parents are not known to have been residents of this 59856
state subsequent to the child's birth. The statement shall contain 59857
the child's name, the name of the child's school district of 59858
residence, the name of the county board providing the special 59859
education, and the number of months, including any fraction of a 59860
month, it was provided. Not later than the thirtieth day of June, 59861
the board shall forward a certified copy of such statement to both 59862
the director of developmental disabilities and to the home.59863

       Within thirty days after its receipt of a statement, the home 59864
shall pay tuition to the county board computed in the manner 59865
prescribed by section 3323.141 of the Revised Code.59866

       (2) The board shall prepare a report for each school district 59867
that is the school district of residence of one or more of such 59868
children for whom statements are not required by division (C)(1) 59869
of this section. The report shall contain the name of the county 59870
board providing special education, the name of each child 59871
receiving special education, the number of months, including 59872
fractions of a month, that the child received it, and the name of 59873
the child's school district of residence. Not later than the 59874
thirtieth day of June, the board shall forward certified copies of 59875
each report to the school district named in the report, the 59876
superintendent of public instruction, and the director of 59877
developmental disabilities.59878

       Sec. 3323.091.  (A) The department of mental healthmental 59879
health and addiction services, the department of developmental 59880
disabilities, the department of youth services, and the department 59881
of rehabilitation and correction shall establish and maintain 59882
special education programs for children with disabilities in 59883
institutions under their jurisdiction according to standards 59884
adopted by the state board of education.59885

       (B) The superintendent of each state institution required to 59886
provide services under division (A) of this section, and each 59887
county DD board, providing special education for preschool 59888
children with disabilities under this chapter may apply to the 59889
state department of education for unit funding, which shall be 59890
paid in accordance with sections 3317.052 and 3317.053 of the 59891
Revised Code.59892

        The superintendent of each state institution required to 59893
provide services under division (A) of this section may apply to 59894
the department of education for special education and related 59895
services weighted funding for children with disabilities other 59896
than preschool children with disabilities, calculated in 59897
accordance with section 3317.201 of the Revised Code.59898

       Each county DD board providing special education for children 59899
with disabilities other than preschool children with disabilities 59900
may apply to the department of education for base cost and59901
opportunity funds and special education and related services 59902
weighted funding calculated in accordance with section 3317.20 of 59903
the Revised Code.59904

       (C) In addition to the authorization to apply for state 59905
funding described in division (B) of this section, each state 59906
institution required to provide services under division (A) of 59907
this section is entitled to tuition payments calculated in the 59908
manner described in division (C) of this section.59909

       On or before the thirtieth day of June of each year, the 59910
superintendent of each institution that during the school year 59911
provided special education pursuant to this section shall prepare 59912
a statement for each child with a disability under twenty-two 59913
years of age who has received special education. The statement 59914
shall contain the child's data verification code assigned pursuant 59915
to division (D)(2) of section 3301.0714 of the Revised Code and 59916
the name of the child's school district of residence. Within sixty 59917
days after receipt of such statement, the department of education 59918
shall perform one of the following:59919

       (1) For any child except a preschool child with a disability 59920
described in division (C)(2) of this section, pay to the 59921
institution submitting the statement an amount equal to the 59922
tuition calculated under division (A) of section 3317.08 of the 59923
Revised Code for the period covered by the statement, and deduct 59924
the same from the amount of state funds, if any, payable under 59925
Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code, to the child's school district 59926
of residence or, if the amount of such state funds is 59927
insufficient, require the child's school district of residence to 59928
pay the institution submitting the statement an amount equal to 59929
the amount determined under this division.59930

       (2) For any preschool child with a disability not included in 59931
a unit approved under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the 59932
Revised Code, perform the following:59933

       (a) Pay to the institution submitting the statement an amount 59934
equal to the tuition calculated under division (B) of section 59935
3317.08 of the Revised Code for the period covered by the 59936
statement, except that in calculating the tuition under that 59937
section the operating expenses of the institution submitting the 59938
statement under this section shall be used instead of the 59939
operating expenses of the school district of residence;59940

       (b) Deduct from the amount of state funds, if any, payable 59941
under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code to the child's school 59942
district of residence an amount equal to the amount paid under 59943
division (C)(2)(a) of this section.59944

       Sec. 3323.13. (A) If a child who is a school resident of one 59945
school district receives special education from another district, 59946
the board of education of the district providing the education, 59947
subject to division (C) of this section, may require the payment 59948
by the board of education of the district of residence of a sum 59949
not to exceed one of the following, as applicable:59950

       (1) For any child except a preschool child with a disability 59951
described in division (A)(2) of this section, the tuition of the 59952
district providing the education for a child of normal needs of 59953
the same school grade. The determination of the amount of such 59954
tuition shall be in the manner provided for by division (A) of 59955
section 3317.08 of the Revised Code.59956

       (2) For any preschool child with a disability not included in 59957
a unit approved under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the 59958
Revised Code, the tuition of the district providing the education 59959
for the child as calculated under division (B) of section 3317.08 59960
of the Revised Code, multiplied by 0.50.59961

       (B) The board of the district of residence may contract with 59962
the board of another district for the transportation of such child 59963
into any school in such other district, on terms agreed upon by 59964
such boards. Upon direction of the state board of education, the 59965
board of the district of residence shall pay for the child's 59966
transportation and the tuition.59967

       (C) The board of education of a district providing the 59968
education for a child shall be entitled to require payment from 59969
the district of residence under this section or section 3323.14 of 59970
the Revised Code only if the district providing the education has 59971
done at least one of the following:59972

        (1) Invited the district of residence to send representatives 59973
to attend the meetings of the team developing the child's 59974
individualized education program;59975

        (2) Received from the district of residence a copy of the 59976
individualized education program or a multifactored evaluation 59977
developed for the child by the district of residence;59978

        (3) Informed the district of residence in writing that the 59979
district is providing the education for the child.59980

        As used in division (C)(2) of this section, "multifactored 59981
evaluation" means an evaluation, conducted by a multidisciplinary 59982
team, of more than one area of the child's functioning so that no 59983
single procedure shall be the sole criterion for determining an 59984
appropriate educational program placement for the child.59985

       Sec. 3323.14. This section does not apply to any preschool 59986
child with a disability except if included in a unit approved 59987
under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the Revised Code.59988

       (A) Where a child who is a school resident of one school 59989
district receives special education from another district and the 59990
per capita cost to the educating district for that child exceeds 59991
the sum of the amount received by the educating district for that 59992
child under division (A) of section 3317.08 of the Revised Code 59993
and the amount received by the district from the state board of 59994
education for that child, then the board of education of the 59995
district of residence shall pay to the board of the school 59996
district that is providing the special education such excess cost 59997
as is determined by using a formula approved by the department of 59998
education and agreed upon in contracts entered into by the boards 59999
of the districts concerned at the time the district providing such 60000
special education accepts the child for enrollment. The department 60001
shall certify the amount of the payments under Chapter 3317. of 60002
the Revised Code for such pupils with disabilities for each school 60003
year ending on the thirtieth day of July.60004

       (B) In the case of a child described in division (A) of this 60005
section who has been placed in a home, as defined in section 60006
3313.64 of the Revised Code, pursuant to the order of a court and 60007
who is not subject to section 3323.141 of the Revised Code, the 60008
district providing the child with special education and related 60009
services may charge to the child's district of residence the 60010
excess cost determined by formula approved by the department, 60011
regardless of whether the district of residence has entered into a 60012
contract with the district providing the services. If the district 60013
providing the services chooses to charge excess costs, the 60014
district may report the amount calculated under this division to 60015
the department.60016

       (C) If a district providing special education for a child 60017
reports an amount for the excess cost of those services, as 60018
authorized and calculated under division (A) or (B) of this 60019
section, the department shall pay that amount of excess cost to 60020
the district providing the services and shall deduct that amount 60021
from the child's district of residence in accordance with division 60022
(K) of section 3317.023 of the Revised Code.60023

       Sec. 3323.141.  (A) When a child who is not in the legal or 60024
permanent custody of an Ohio resident or a government agency in 60025
this state and whose natural or adoptive parents are not known to 60026
have been residents of this state subsequent to the child's birth 60027
is a resident of a home as defined in section 3313.64 of the 60028
Revised Code and receives special education and related services 60029
from a school district or county MR/DDDD board, the home shall 60030
pay tuition to the board providing the special education.60031

       (B) In the case of a child described in division (A) of this 60032
section who receives special education and related services from a 60033
school district, tuition shall be the amount determined under 60034
division (B)(1) or (2) of this section.60035

       (1) For a child other than a child described in division 60036
(B)(2) of this section the tuition shall be an amount equal to the 60037
sum of the following:60038

       (a) Tuition as determined in the manner provided for by 60039
division (B) of section 3317.081 of the Revised Code for the 60040
district that provides the special education;60041

       (b) Such excess cost as is determined by using a formula 60042
established by rule of the department of education. The excess 60043
cost computed in this section shall not be used as excess cost 60044
computed under section 3323.14 of the Revised Code.60045

       (2) For a child who is a preschool child with a disability 60046
not included in a unit approved under division (B) of section 60047
3317.05 of the Revised Code, the tuition shall be computed as 60048
follows:60049

       (a) Determine the amount of the tuition of the district 60050
providing the education for the child as calculated under division 60051
(B) of section 3317.08 of the Revised Code;60052

       (b) For each type of special education service included in 60053
the computation of the amount of tuition under division (B)(2)(a) 60054
of this section, divide the amount determined for that computation 60055
under division (B)(2) of section 3317.08 of the Revised Code by 60056
the total number of preschool children with disabilities used for 60057
that computation under division (B)(3) of section 3317.08 of the 60058
Revised Code;60059

       (c) Determine the sum of the quotients obtained under 60060
division (B)(2)(b) of this section;60061

       (d) Determine the sum of the amounts determined under 60062
divisions (B)(2)(a) and (c) of this section.60063

       (C) In the case of a child described in division (A) of this 60064
section who receives special education and related services from a 60065
county MR/DDDD board, tuition shall be the amount determined 60066
under division (C)(1) or (2) of this section.60067

       (1) For a child other than a child described in division 60068
(C)(2) of this section, the tuition shall be an amount equal to 60069
such board's per capita cost of providing special education and 60070
related services for children at least three but less than 60071
twenty-two years of age as determined by using a formula 60072
established by rule of the department of developmental 60073
disabilities.60074

       (2) For a child who is a preschool child with a disability 60075
not included in a unit approved under division (B) of section 60076
3317.05 of the Revised Code, the tuition shall equal the sum of 60077
the amounts of each such board's per capita cost of providing each 60078
of the special education or related service that the child 60079
receives. The calculation of tuition shall be made by using a 60080
formula established by rule of the department of developmental 60081
disabilities. The formula for the calculation of per capita costs 60082
under division (C)(2) of this section shall be based only on each 60083
such MR/DDDD board's cost of providing each type of special 60084
education or related service to preschool children with 60085
disabilities not included in a unit approved under division (B) of 60086
section 3317.05 of the Revised Code.60087

       (D) If a home fails to pay the tuition required under this 60088
section, the board of education or county MR/DDDD board providing 60089
the education may recover in a civil action the tuition and the 60090
expenses incurred in prosecuting the action, including court costs 60091
and reasonable attorney's fees. If the prosecuting attorney or 60092
city director of law represents the board in such action, costs 60093
and reasonable attorney's fees awarded by the court, based upon 60094
the time spent preparing and presenting the case by the 60095
prosecuting attorney, director, or a designee of either, shall be 60096
deposited in the county or city general fund.60097

       Sec. 3323.142. This section does not apply to any preschool 60098
child with a disability except if included in a unit approved 60099
under division (B) of section 3317.05 of the Revised Code.60100

       As used in this section, "per pupil amount" for a preschool 60101
child with a disability included in such an approved unit means 60102
the amount determined by dividing the amount received for the 60103
classroom unit in which the child has been placed by the number of 60104
children in the unit. For any other child, "per pupil amount" 60105
means the amount paid for the child under section 3317.20 of the 60106
Revised Code.60107

       When a school district places or has placed a child with a 60108
county DD board for special education, but another district is 60109
responsible for tuition under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the 60110
Revised Code and the child is not a resident of the territory 60111
served by the county DD board, the board may charge the district 60112
responsible for tuition with the educational costs in excess of 60113
the per pupil amount received by the board under Chapter 3317. of 60114
the Revised Code. The amount of the excess cost shall be 60115
determined by the formula established by rule of the department of 60116
education under section 3323.14 of the Revised Code, and the 60117
payment for such excess cost shall be made by the school district 60118
directly to the county DD board.60119

       A school district board of education and the county DD board 60120
that serves the school district may negotiate and contract, at or 60121
after the time of placement, for payments by the board of 60122
education to the county DD board for additional services provided 60123
to a child placed with the county DD board and whose 60124
individualized education program established pursuant to section 60125
3323.08 of the Revised Code requires additional services that are 60126
not routinely provided children in the county DD board's program 60127
but are necessary to maintain the child's enrollment and 60128
participation in the program. Additional services may include, but 60129
are not limited to, specialized supplies and equipment for the 60130
benefit of the child and instruction, training, or assistance 60131
provided by staff members other than staff members for which 60132
funding is received under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code.60133

       Sec. 3325.13.  The state school for the blind employees food 60134
service fund is hereby created in the state treasury. The fund 60135
shall consist of payments received from employees who make 60136
purchases from the school's food service program. Notwithstanding 60137
section 3325.01 of the Revised Code, the approval of the state 60138
board of education is not required to designate money for deposit 60139
into the fund. The school for the blind shall use money in the 60140
fund to pay costs associated with the school's food service 60141
program.60142

       Sec. 3325.14. The state school for the deaf employees food 60143
service fund is hereby created in the state treasury. The fund 60144
shall consist of payments received from employees who make 60145
purchases from the school's food service program. Notwithstanding 60146
section 3325.01 of the Revised Code, the approval of the state 60147
board of education is not required to designate money for deposit 60148
into the fund. The school for the deaf shall use money in the fund 60149
to pay costs associated with the school's food service program.60150

       Sec. 3326.07. Each science, technology, engineering, and 60151
mathematics school established under this chapter is a public 60152
school, is part of the state's program of education, may contract 60153
for any services necessary for the operation of the school, and 60154
may continue in operation for as long as the school is in 60155
compliance with the provisions of this chapter and with the 60156
proposal for its establishment as approved by the STEM committee. 60157
If the school closes for any reason, its assets shall be 60158
distributed in the manner provided in the proposal for its 60159
establishment as required by division (C)(9) of section 3326.03 of 60160
the Revised Code.60161

       Sec. 3326.08. (A) The governing body of each science, 60162
technology, engineering, and mathematics school shall employ and 60163
fix the compensation for theengage the services of administrative 60164
officers, teachers, and nonteaching employees of the STEM school 60165
necessary for the school to carry out its mission and shall 60166
oversee the operations of the school. The governing body of each 60167
STEM school shall employengage the services of a chief 60168
administrative officer to serve as the school's instructional and 60169
administrative leader. The chief administrative officer shall be 60170
granted the authority to oversee the recruitment, retention, and 60171
employment of teachers and nonteaching employees.60172

       (B) The department of education shall monitor the oversight 60173
of each STEM school exercised by the school's governing body and 60174
shall monitor the school's compliance with this chapter and with 60175
the proposal for the establishment of the school as it was 60176
approved by the STEM committee under section 3326.04 of the 60177
Revised Code. If the department finds that the school is not in 60178
compliance with this chapter or with the proposal, the department 60179
shall consult with the STEM committee, and the committee may order 60180
the school to close on the last day of the school year in which 60181
the committee issues its order.60182

       (C) The governing body of each STEM school shall comply with 60183
sections 121.22 and 149.43 of the Revised Code.60184

       Sec. 3326.11. Each science, technology, engineering, and 60185
mathematics school established under this chapter and its 60186
governing body shall comply with sections 9.90, 9.91, 109.65, 60187
121.22, 149.43, 2151.357, 2151.421, 2313.19, 2921.42, 2921.43, 60188
3301.0714, 3301.0715, 3313.14, 3313.15, 3313.16, 3313.18, 60189
3313.201, 3313.26, 3313.472, 3313.48, 3313.481, 3313.482, 3313.50, 60190
3313.536, 3313.539, 3313.608, 3313.6012, 3313.6013, 3313.6014, 60191
3313.6015, 3313.61, 3313.611, 3313.614, 3313.615, 3313.643, 60192
3313.648, 3313.6411, 3313.66, 3313.661, 3313.662, 3313.666, 60193
3313.667, 3313.67, 3313.671, 3313.672, 3313.673, 3313.69, 3313.71, 60194
3313.716, 3313.718, 3313.719, 3313.80, 3313.801, 3313.814, 60195
3313.816, 3313.817, 3313.86, 3313.88, 3313.96, 3319.073, 3319.21, 60196
3319.32, 3319.321, 3319.35, 3319.39, 3319.391, 3319.41, 3319.45, 60197
3321.01, 3321.041, 3321.13, 3321.14, 3321.17, 3321.18, 3321.19, 60198
3321.191, 3327.10, 4111.17, 4113.52, and 5705.391 and Chapters 60199
102., 117., 1347., 2744., 3307., 3309., 3365., 3742., 4112., 60200
4123., 4141., and 4167. of the Revised Code as if it were a school 60201
district.60202

       Sec. 3326.112.  The governing body of each STEM school shall 60203
comply with the standards for financial reporting adopted under 60204
division (B)(2) of section 3301.07 of the Revised Code.60205

       Sec. 3326.20.  (A) As used in this section, "native student" 60206
means a student entitled to attend school in the school district 60207
under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.60208

       (B) Unless either the proposal for the establishment of a 60209
science, technology, engineering, and mathematics school, as it 60210
was approved by the STEM committee under section 3326.03 of the 60211
Revised Code, otherwise provides for the transportation of 60212
students to and from the STEM school, or the parent of a native 60213
student or that student opts to receive the transportation subsidy 60214
prescribed by section 3327.02 of the Revised Code, the board of 60215
education of each city, local, and exempted village school 60216
district shall provide transportation to and from school for its 60217
district's native students enrolled in the STEM school in the same 60218
manner that section 3327.01 of the Revised Code requires for its 60219
native students enrolled in nonpublic schools.60220

       Sec. 3326.31.  As used in sections 3326.31 to 3326.50 of the 60221
Revised Code:60222

       (A) "Applicable special education weight" means the multiple 60223
specified in section 3317.013 of the Revised Code for a disability 60224
described in that section.60225

       (B) "Applicable vocational education weight" means the 60226
multiple specified in section 3317.014 of the Revised Code for 60227
vocational education programs or classes described in that section60228
(1) "Category one career-technical education student" means a 60229
student who is receiving the career-technical education services 60230
described in division (A) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.60231

       (2) "Category two career-technical student" means a student 60232
who is receiving the career-technical education services described 60233
in division (B) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.60234

       (3) "Category three career-technical student" means a student 60235
who is receiving the career-technical education services described 60236
in division (C) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.60237

       (4) "Category four career-technical student" means a student 60238
who is receiving the career-technical education services described 60239
in division (D) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.60240

       (5) "Category five career-technical education student" means 60241
a student who is receiving the career-technical education services 60242
described in division (E) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.60243

       (B)(1) "Category one limited English proficient student" 60244
means a limited English proficient student described in division 60245
(A) of section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.60246

       (2) "Category two limited English proficient student" means a 60247
limited English proficient student described in division (B) of 60248
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.60249

       (3) "Category three limited English proficient student" means 60250
a limited English proficient student described in division (C) of 60251
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.60252

       (C)(1) "Category one special education student" means a 60253
student who is receiving special education services for a 60254
disability specified in division (A) of section 3317.013 of the 60255
Revised Code.60256

       (2) "Category two special education student" means a student 60257
who is receiving special education services for a disability 60258
specified in division (B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.60259

       (3) "Category three special education student" means a 60260
student who is receiving special education services for a 60261
disability specified in division (C) of section 3317.013 of the 60262
Revised Code.60263

       (4) "Category four special education student" means a student 60264
who is receiving special education services for a disability 60265
specified in division (D) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.60266

       (5) "Category five special education student" means a student 60267
who is receiving special education services for a disability 60268
specified in division (E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.60269

       (6) "Category six special education student" means a student 60270
who is receiving special education services for a disability 60271
specified in division (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.60272

       (C)(D) "Formula amount" has the same meaning as in section 60273
3317.02 of the Revised Code.60274

       (D)(E) "IEP" means an individualized education program as 60275
defined in section 3323.01 of the Revised Code.60276

       (E) A student is "included in the poverty student count of 60277
the student's resident district" if the student's family receives 60278
assistance under the Ohio works first program.60279

       (F) "Resident district" means the school district in which a 60280
student is entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 60281
3313.65 of the Revised Code.60282

       (G) "State education aid" has the same meaning as in section 60283
5751.20 of the Revised Code.60284

       Sec. 3326.32.  Each science, technology, engineering, and 60285
mathematics school shall report to the department of education, in 60286
the form and manner required by the department, all of the 60287
following information:60288

       (A) The total number of students enrolled in the school;60289

       (B) The number of students who are receiving special 60290
education and related services pursuant to an IEP;60291

       (C) For each student reported under division (B) of this 60292
section, which category specified in divisions (A) to (F) of 60293
section 3317.013 of the Revised Code applies to the student;60294

       (D) The full-time equivalent number of students who are 60295
enrolled in vocationalcareer-technical education programs or 60296
classes described in each of divisions (A) and, (B), (C), (D), and 60297
(E) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code that are provided by 60298
the STEM school;60299

       (E) The number of students who are limited English proficient 60300
students and which category specified in divisions (A) to (C) of 60301
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code applies to each student;60302

       (F) The number of students reported under division (A) of 60303
this section who are economically disadvantaged, as defined by the 60304
department. A student shall not be categorically excluded from the 60305
number reported under division (F) of this section based on 60306
anything other than family income.60307

       (G) The resident district of each student;60308

       (F)(H) Any additional information the department determines 60309
necessary to make payments under this chapter.60310

       Sec. 3326.33. Payments and deductions under this section for 60311
fiscal years 2012 and 2013 shall be made in accordance with 60312
section 3326.39 of the Revised Code.60313

       For each student enrolled in a science, technology, 60314
engineering, and mathematics school established under this 60315
chapter, on a full-time equivalency basis, the department of 60316
education annually shall deduct from the state education aid of a 60317
student's resident school district and, if necessary, from the 60318
payment made to the district under sections 321.24 and 323.156 of 60319
the Revised Code and pay to the school the sum of the following:60320

       (A) The sum of the formula amount plus the per pupil amount 60321
of the base funding supplements specified in divisions (C)(1) to 60322
(4) of section 3317.012 of the Revised Code.60323

       (B) If the student is receiving special education and related 60324
services pursuant to an IEP, the product of the applicable special 60325
education weight times the formula amount;60326

       (C) If the student is enrolled in vocational education 60327
programs or classes that are described in section 3317.014 of the 60328
Revised Code, are provided by the school, and are comparable as 60329
determined by the superintendent of public instruction to school 60330
district vocational education programs and classes eligible for 60331
state weighted funding under section 3317.014 of the Revised Code, 60332
the product of the applicable vocational education weight times 60333
the formula amount times the percentage of time the student spends 60334
in the vocational education programs or classes;60335

       (D) If the student is included in the poverty student count 60336
of the student's resident district, the per pupil amount of the 60337
district's payment under division (C) of section 3317.029 of the 60338
Revised Code;60339

       (E) If the student is identified as limited English 60340
proficient and the student's resident district receives a payment 60341
for services to limited English proficient students under division 60342
(F) of section 3317.029 of the Revised Code, the per pupil amount 60343
of the district's payment under that division, calculated in the 60344
same manner as per pupil payments are calculated under division 60345
(C)(6) of section 3314.08 of the Revised Code;60346

       (F) If the student's resident district receives a payment 60347
under division (G), (H), or (I) of section 3317.029 of the Revised 60348
Code, the per pupil amount of the district's payments under each 60349
division, calculated in the same manner as per pupil payments are 60350
calculated under divisions (C)(7) and (8) of section 3314.08 of 60351
the Revised Code;60352

       (G) If the student's resident district receives a parity aid 60353
payment under section 3317.0217 of the Revised Code, the per pupil 60354
amount calculated for the district under division (C) or (D) of 60355
that sectionAn opportunity grant in an amount equal to the 60356
formula amount;60357

       (B) The per pupil amount of targeted assistance funds 60358
calculated under division (A) of section 3317.0217 of the Revised 60359
Code for the student's resident district, as determined by the 60360
department, X 0.25;60361

       (C) Additional state aid for special education and related 60362
services provided under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code as 60363
follows:60364

       (1) If the student is a category one special education 60365
student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in division 60366
(A) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;60367

       (2) If the student is a category two special education 60368
student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in division 60369
(B) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;60370

       (3) If the student is a category three special education 60371
student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in division 60372
(C) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;60373

       (4) If the student is a category four special education 60374
student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in division 60375
(D) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;60376

       (5) If the student is a category five special education 60377
student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in division 60378
(E) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code;60379

       (6) If the student is a category six special education 60380
student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in division 60381
(F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code.60382

       (D) If the student is in kindergarten through third grade, 60383
$300, in fiscal year 2014, or $303, in fiscal year 2015;60384

       (E) If the student is economically disadvantaged, an amount 60385
equal to the following:60386

($340, in fiscal year 2014, or $343, in fiscal year 2015) X (the
60387
resident district's economically disadvantaged index)
60388

       (F) Limited English proficiency funds, as follows:60389

       (1) If the student is a category one limited English 60390
proficient student, the amount specified in division (A) of 60391
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;60392

       (2) If the student is a category two limited English 60393
proficient student, the amount specified in division (B) of 60394
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code;60395

       (3) If the student is a category three limited English 60396
proficient student, the amount specified in division (C) of 60397
section 3317.016 of the Revised Code.60398

       (G) Career-technical education funds as follows:60399

       (1) If the student is a category one career-technical 60400
education student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in 60401
division (A) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;60402

       (2) If the student is a category two career-technical 60403
education student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in 60404
division (B) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;60405

       (3) If the student is a category three career-technical 60406
education student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in 60407
division (C) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;60408

       (4) If the student is a category four career-technical 60409
education student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in 60410
division (D) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code;60411

       (5) If the student is a category five career-technical 60412
education student, the formula amount X the multiple specified in 60413
division (E) of section 3317.014 of the Revised Code.60414

       Deduction and payment of funds under division (G) of this 60415
section is subject to approval under section 3317.161 of the 60416
Revised Code.60417

       Sec. 3326.34. If a science, technology, engineering, and 60418
mathematics school established under this chapter incurs costs for 60419
a fiscal year for a student receiving special education and 60420
related services pursuant to an IEP for a disability described in 60421
divisions (B) to (F) of section 3317.013 of the Revised Code that 60422
exceed the threshold catastrophic cost for serving the student as 60423
specified in division (C)(3)(b)(B) of section 3317.0223317.021460424
of the Revised Code, the STEM school may submit to the 60425
superintendent of public instruction documentation, as prescribed 60426
by the superintendent, of all its costs for that student. Upon 60427
submission of documentation for a student of the type and in the 60428
manner prescribed, the department of education shall pay to the 60429
school an amount equal to the school's costs for the student in 60430
excess of the threshold catastrophic costs.60431

       The school shall only report under this section, and the 60432
department shall only pay for, the costs of educational expenses 60433
and the related services provided to the student in accordance 60434
with the student's IEP. Any legal fees, court costs, or other 60435
costs associated with any cause of action relating to the student 60436
may not be included in the amount.60437

       Sec. 3326.38. A science, technology, engineering, and 60438
mathematics school may do allboth of the following:60439

       (A) Apply to the department of education for gifted unit 60440
funding;60441

       (B) Apply to any state or federal agency for grants that a 60442
school district or public school may receive under federal or 60443
state law or any appropriations act of the general assembly;60444

       (C)(B) Apply to any private entity or foundation for 60445
additional funds.60446

       Sec. 3326.39. Sec. 3326.39. (A) In any fiscal year, a STEM 60447
school receiving funds under division (G) of section 3326.33 of 60448
the Revised Code shall spend those funds only for the purposes 60449
that the department designates as approved for career-technical 60450
education expenses. Career-technical educational expenses approved 60451
by the department shall include only expenses connected to the 60452
delivery of career-technical programming to career-technical 60453
students. The department shall require the school to report data 60454
annually so that the department may monitor the school's 60455
compliance with the requirements regarding the manner in which 60456
funding received under division (G) of section 3326.33 of the 60457
Revised Code may be spent.60458

        (B) All funds received under division (G) of section 3326.33 60459
of the Revised Code shall be spent in the following manner:60460

        (1) At least seventy-five per cent of the funds shall be 60461
spent on curriculum development, purchase, and implementation; 60462
instructional resources and supplies; industry-based program 60463
certification; student assessment, credentialing, and placement; 60464
curriculum specific equipment purchases and leases; 60465
career-technical student organization fees and expenses; home and 60466
agency linkages; work-based learning experiences; professional 60467
development; and other costs directly associated with 60468
career-technical education programs including development of new 60469
programs.60470

        (2) Not more than twenty-five per cent of the funds shall be 60471
used for personnel expenditures.60472

       Sec. 3326.45. (A) The governing body of a science, 60473
technology, engineering, and mathematics school may contract with 60474
the governing board of an educational service center or the board 60475
of education of a joint vocational school district for the 60476
provision of services to the STEM school or to any student 60477
enrolled in the school. Services provided under the contract and 60478
the amount to be paid for those services shall be mutually agreed 60479
to by the parties to the contract, and shall be specified in the 60480
contract.60481

       (B) A contract entered into under this section may require an 60482
educational service center to provide any one or a combination of 60483
the following services to a STEM school:60484

       (1) Supervisory teachers;60485

       (2) In-service and continuing education programs for 60486
personnel of the STEM school;60487

       (3) Curriculum services as provided to the client school 60488
districts of the service center;60489

       (4) Research and development programs;60490

       (5) Academic instruction for which the service center 60491
governing board employs teachers;60492

       (6) Assistance in the provision of special accommodations and 60493
classes for students with disabilities.60494

       Services described in division (B) of this section shall be 60495
provided to the STEM school in the same manner they are provided 60496
to client school districts of the service center, unless otherwise 60497
specified in the contract. The contract shall specify whether the 60498
service center will receive a per-pupil payment from the 60499
department of education for the provision of these services and, 60500
if so, the amount of the per-pupil payment, which shall not exceed 60501
the per-pupil amount paid to the service center under division (F) 60502
of section 3317.11 of the Revised Code for each student in the 60503
service center ADM.60504

       (C) For each contract entered into under this section, the 60505
department shall deduct the amount owed by the STEM school from 60506
the state funds due to the STEM school under this chapter and 60507
shall pay that amount to the educational service center or joint 60508
vocational school district that is party to the contract. In the 60509
case of a contract with an educational service center that 60510
specifies per-pupil payments for the provision of services 60511
described in division (B) of this section, the department also 60512
shall pay the service center the amount calculated under division 60513
(H) of section 3317.11 of the Revised Code.60514

       (D) No contract entered into under this section shall be 60515
valid unless a copy is filed with the department by the first day 60516
of the school year for which the contract is in effect.60517

       (E) As used in this section, "client school district" has the 60518
same meaning as in section 3317.11 of the Revised Codemeans a 60519
city, exempted village, or local school district that has entered 60520
into an agreement under section 3313.843 or 3313.845 of the 60521
Revised Code to receive any services from an educational service 60522
center.60523

       Sec. 3327.01.  Notwithstanding division (D) of section 60524
3311.19 and division (D) of section 3311.52 of the Revised Code, 60525
this section and sections 3327.011, 3327.012, and 3327.02 of the 60526
Revised Code do not apply to any joint vocational or cooperative 60527
education school district.60528

       In(A) Except as provided in division (D) of this section or 60529
section 3314.091 or 3327.02 of the Revised Code, in all city, 60530
local, and exempted village school districts where resident school 60531
pupils in grades kindergarten through eight live more than two 60532
miles from the school for which the state board of education 60533
prescribes minimum standards pursuant to division (D) of section 60534
3301.07 of the Revised Code and to which they are assigned by the 60535
board of education of the district of residence or to and from the 60536
nonpublic or community school which they attend, the board of 60537
education shall provide transportation for such pupils to and from 60538
suchthat school except as provided in section 3327.02 of the 60539
Revised Code.60540

       (B) In all city, local, and exempted village school districts 60541
where pupil transportation is required under a career-technical 60542
plan approved by the state board of education under section 60543
3313.90 of the Revised Code, for any student attending a 60544
career-technical program operated by another school district, 60545
including a joint vocational school district, as prescribed under 60546
that section, the board of education of the student's district of 60547
residence shall provide transportation from the public high school 60548
operated by that district to which the student is assigned to the 60549
career-technical program.60550

       In(C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section or 60551
section 3314.091 or 3327.02 of the Revised Code, in all city, 60552
local, and exempted village school districts, the board may 60553
provide transportation for resident school pupils in grades nine 60554
through twelve to and from the high school to which they are 60555
assigned by the board of education of the district of residence or 60556
to and from the nonpublic or community high school which they 60557
attend for which the state board of education prescribes minimum 60558
standards pursuant to division (D) of section 3301.07 of the 60559
Revised Code.60560

       (D)(1) A board of education shall not be required to 60561
transport elementary or high school pupils to and from a nonpublic 60562
or community school where such transportation would require more 60563
than thirty minutes of direct travel time as measured by school 60564
bus from the public school building to which the pupils would be 60565
assigned if attending the public school designated by the district 60566
of residence.60567

       Where it is impractical to transport a pupil by school 60568
conveyance, a board of education may offer payment, in lieu of 60569
providing such transportation in accordance with section 3327.02 60570
of the Revised Code.60571

       (2) A board of education shall not be required to transport 60572
elementary or high school pupils to and from a nonpublic or 60573
community school on Saturday or Sunday, unless a board of 60574
education and a nonpublic or community school have an agreement in 60575
place to do so before the effective date of this amendment.60576

       (E) In all city, local, and exempted village school 60577
districts, the board shall provide transportation for all children 60578
who are so disabled that they are unable to walk to and from the 60579
school for which the state board of education prescribes minimum 60580
standards pursuant to division (D) of section 3301.07 of the 60581
Revised Code and which they attend. In case of dispute whether the 60582
child is able to walk to and from the school, the health 60583
commissioner shall be the judge of such ability. In all city, 60584
exempted village, and local school districts, the board shall 60585
provide transportation to and from school or special education 60586
classes for educable mentally retardeddisabled children in 60587
accordance with standards adopted by the state board of education.60588

       (F) When transportation of pupils is provided the conveyance 60589
shall be run on a time schedule that shall be adopted and put in 60590
force by the board not later than ten days after the beginning of 60591
the school term.60592

       The cost of any transportation service authorized by this 60593
section shall be paid first out of federal funds, if any, 60594
available for the purpose of pupil transportation, and secondly 60595
out of state appropriations, in accordance with regulations 60596
adopted by the state board of education.60597

       (G) No transportation of any pupils shall be provided by any 60598
board of education to or from any school which in the selection of 60599
pupils, faculty members, or employees, practices discrimination 60600
against any person on the grounds of race, color, religion, or 60601
national origin.60602

       Sec. 3327.02.  (A) As used in this section:60603

       (1) "Community school" means a community school established 60604
under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code.60605

       (2) "Parent" has the same meaning as in section 3313.98 of 60606
the Revised Code.60607

       (3) "Resident school district" means the city, exempted 60608
village, or local school district in which a student is entitled 60609
to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised 60610
Code.60611

       (4) "School year" has the same meaning as in section 3313.62 60612
of the Revised Code. 60613

       (5) "State education aid" has the same meaning as in section 60614
5751.20 of the Revised Code.60615

       (6) "STEM school" means a science, technology, engineering, 60616
and mathematics school established under Chapter 3326. of the 60617
Revised Code.60618

       (B) Beginning July 1, 2014, the board of education of a city, 60619
exempted village, or local school district is not required to 60620
provide transportation to and from school for a student attending 60621
one of the district's schools or a community school, STEM school, 60622
or nonpublic school under division (A) or (C) of section 3327.01 60623
of the Revised Code, if the student's parent or the student, if at 60624
least eighteen years old and no guardian or custodian is currently 60625
appointed for the student, opts instead to receive the subsidy 60626
prescribed by division (D) of this section. The parent or student 60627
may exercise that option on an annual basis by submitting an 60628
application to the department of education and by notifying the 60629
district board in accordance with procedures and deadlines 60630
prescribed by the department. The department shall prescribe 60631
deadlines for that application and notice so that the district 60632
board has sufficient time to take the exercise of the parent's or 60633
student's option into account when planning its transportation 60634
routes and schedules for the succeeding school year. The 60635
department shall not accept an application that is submitted after 60636
the deadline. The department shall award a subsidy as long as the 60637
parent or student complies with the application and notice 60638
procedures. The award shall be for one school year at a time and 60639
may be renewed if the parent or student again submits an 60640
application to the department and notice to the district board in 60641
accordance with the prescribed procedures and deadlines. The 60642
parent or student shall use the subsidy to pay the cost of the 60643
student's transportation to and from school for the entire school 60644
year. 60645

       (C) The subsidy prescribed by this section is not available 60646
for any of the following:60647

       (1) A student attending a community school or nonpublic 60648
school that is more than thirty minutes of direct travel time, as 60649
measured by school bus, from the building of the student's 60650
resident school district to which the student would be assigned if 60651
attending school in the district, as provided in division (D) of 60652
section 3327.01 of the Revised Code;60653

       (2) A student attending a community school that either:60654

        (a) Has an agreement with the student's resident school 60655
district for the community school to transport students to that 60656
school under division (A) of section 3314.091 of the Revised Code;60657

       (b) Accepts responsibility to transport students to the 60658
school under division (B) of that section.60659

       (3) A student who attends a school district other than the 60660
student's resident school district under an open enrollment policy 60661
adopted in accordance with section 3313.98 of the Revised Code;60662

       (4) A student who attends school in a school district under 60663
division (I) of section 3313.64 of the Revised Code. 60664

       (D) The amount of the subsidy awarded for each student under 60665
this section shall equal the lesser of the following:60666

       (1) The statewide average cost of pupil transportation for 60667
the previous school year; 60668

       (2) The average cost of pupil transportation for the previous 60669
school year for the student's resident school district.60670

       The department shall pay that amount to the student's parent 60671
or the student, if at least eighteen years old and no guardian or 60672
custodian is currently appointed for the student, in quarterly 60673
periodic payments. 60674

       (E) The department shall deduct the amount of each subsidy 60675
awarded for a student under this section from the state education 60676
aid of the student's resident school district and, if necessary, 60677
from that district's payments under sections 321.24 and 323.156 of 60678
the Revised Code. 60679

       The department shall include the student in the calculation 60680
of the district's transportation payment under section 3317.0212 60681
of the Revised Code and the operating appropriations act. 60682

       (F) This section has no effect on a school district's 60683
responsibility to transport a student to and from a 60684
college-preparatory boarding school established under Chapter 60685
3328. of the Revised Code. 60686

       (G) The state board of education shall adopt rules under 60687
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code prescribing procedures necessary 60688
to implement this section.60689

       Sec. 3327.07. (A) The governing authority of a chartered 60690
nonpublic school that transports a student enrolled in the school 60691
to and from school may charge the parent or guardian of the 60692
student a fee for the transportation, if the governing authority 60693
purchased the vehicle that transports the student using no state 60694
or federal funds. The fee shall not exceed the per student cost of 60695
the transportation, as determined by the governing authority.60696

        (B) If the parent or guardian of a student who is enrolled in 60697
a chartered nonpublic school opts to receive the subsidy 60698
prescribed by section 3327.02 of the Revised Code, instead of 60699
transportation by a school district under section 3327.01 of the 60700
Revised Code, and the governing authority of the chartered 60701
nonpublic school transports the student to and from school in a 60702
vehicle that the governing authority purchased using no state or 60703
federal funds, the governing authority may charge the parent or 60704
guardian a fee for transportation.60705

        (C) The parent or guardian of a student who is enrolled in a 60706
chartered nonpublic school and is eligible for transportation by a 60707
school district under section 3327.01 of the Revised Code may 60708
decline that transportation and accept transportation from the 60709
chartered nonpublic school. The governing authority of a chartered 60710
nonpublic school may charge a fee under division (A) of this 60711
section regardless of whether a student is eligible for 60712
transportation under section 3327.01 of the Revised Code.60713

        (D) The offering by the governing authority of a chartered 60714
nonpublic school of transportation to and from the school does not 60715
relieve any school district board of education from any duty 60716
imposed by section 3327.01 of the Revised Code with respect to the 60717
chartered nonpublic school's students.60718

       Sec. 3328.27.  The board of trustees of each 60719
college-preparatory boarding school shall comply with the 60720
standards for financial reporting adopted under division (B)(2) of 60721
section 3301.07 of the Revised Code.60722

       Sec. 3333.041.  (A) On or before the last day of December of 60723
each year, the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents shall 60724
submit to the governor and, in accordance with section 101.68 of 60725
the Revised Code, the general assembly a report or reports 60726
concerning all of the following:60727

       (1) The status of graduates of Ohio school districts at state 60728
institutions of higher education during the twelve-month period 60729
ending on the thirtieth day of September of the current calendar 60730
year. The report shall list, by school district, the number of 60731
graduates of each school district who attended a state institution 60732
of higher education and the percentage of each district's 60733
graduates enrolled in a state institution of higher education 60734
during the reporting period who were required during such period 60735
by the college or university, as a prerequisite to enrolling in 60736
those courses generally required for first-year students, to 60737
enroll in a remedial course in English, including composition or 60738
reading, mathematics, and any other area designated by the 60739
chancellor. The chancellor also shall make the information 60740
described in division (A)(1) of this section available to the 60741
board of education of each city, exempted village, and local 60742
school district.60743

       Each state institution of higher education shall, by the 60744
first day of November of each year, submit to the chancellor in 60745
the form specified by the chancellor the information the 60746
chancellor requires to compile the report.60747

       (2) Aggregate academic growth data for students assigned to 60748
graduates of teacher preparation programs approved under section 60749
3333.048 of the Revised Code who teach English language arts or 60750
mathematics in any of grades four to eight in a public school in 60751
Ohio. For this purpose, the chancellor shall use the value-added 60752
progress dimension prescribed by section 3302.021 of the Revised 60753
Code or the alternative student academic progress measure if 60754
adopted under division (C)(1)(e) of section 3302.03 of the Revised 60755
Code. The chancellor shall aggregate the data by graduating class 60756
for each approved teacher preparation program, except that if a 60757
particular class has ten or fewer graduates to which this section 60758
applies, the chancellor shall report the data for a group of 60759
classes over a three-year period. In no case shall the report 60760
identify any individual graduate. The department of education 60761
shall share any data necessary for the report with the chancellor.60762

       (3) The following information with respect to the Ohio 60763
tuition trust authority:60764

       (a) The name of each investment manager that is a minority 60765
business enterprise or a women's business enterprise with which 60766
the chancellor contracts;60767

       (b) The amount of assets managed by investment managers that 60768
are minority business enterprises or women's business enterprises, 60769
expressed as a percentage of assets managed by investment managers 60770
with which the chancellor has contracted;60771

       (c) Efforts by the chancellor to increase utilization of 60772
investment managers that are minority business enterprises or 60773
women's business enterprises.60774

       (4) The status of implementation of faculty improvement 60775
programs under section 3345.28 of the Revised Code. The report 60776
shall include, but need not be limited to, the following: the 60777
number of professional leave grants made by each institution; the 60778
purpose of each professional leave; and a statement of the cost to 60779
the institution of each professional leave, to the extent that the 60780
cost exceeds the salary of the faculty member on professional 60781
leave.60782

       (5) The number and types of biobased products purchased under 60783
section 125.092 of the Revised Code and the amount of money spent 60784
by state institutions of higher education for those biobased 60785
products as that information is provided to the chancellor under 60786
division (A) of section 3345.692 of the Revised Code.60787

       (6) A description of dual enrollment programs, as defined in 60788
section 3313.6013 of the Revised Code, that are offered by school 60789
districts, community schools established under Chapter 3314. of 60790
the Revised Code, STEM schools established under Chapter 3326. of 60791
the Revised Code, college-preparatory boarding schools established 60792
under Chapter 3328. of the Revised Code, and chartered nonpublic 60793
high schools. The chancellor also shall post the information on 60794
the chancellor's web site.60795

       (7) The academic and economic impact of the Ohio innovation 60796
partnership established under section 3333.61 of the Revised Code. 60797
At a minimum, the report shall include the following:60798

       (a) Progress and performance metrics for each initiative that 60799
received an award in the previous fiscal year;60800

       (b) Economic indicators of the impact of each initiative, and 60801
all initiatives as a whole, on the regional economies and the 60802
statewide economy;60803

       (c)(5) The chancellor's strategy in assigning choose Ohio 60804
first scholarships, as established under section 3333.61 of the 60805
Revised Code, among state universities and colleges and how the 60806
actual awards fit that strategy.60807

       (8)(6) The academic and economic impact of the Ohio 60808
co-op/internship program established under section 3333.72 of the 60809
Revised Code. At a minimum, the report shall include the 60810
following:60811

        (a) Progress and performance metrics for each initiative that 60812
received an award in the previous fiscal year;60813

        (b) Economic indicators of the impact of each initiative, and 60814
all initiatives as a whole, on the regional economies and the 60815
statewide economy;60816

        (c) The chancellor's strategy in allocating awards among 60817
state institutions of higher education and how the actual awards 60818
fit that strategy.60819

       (B) As used in this section:60820

       (1) "Minority business enterprise" has the same meaning as in 60821
section 122.71 of the Revised Code.60822

       (2) "State institution of higher education" and "state 60823
university" have the same meanings as in section 3345.011 of the 60824
Revised Code.60825

       (3) "State university or college" has the same meaning as in 60826
section 3345.12 of the Revised Code.60827

        (4) "Women's business enterprise" means a business, or a 60828
partnership, corporation, limited liability company, or joint 60829
venture of any kind, that is owned and controlled by women who are 60830
United States citizens and residents of this state.60831

       Sec. 3333.049. No nonprofit institution that holds a 60832
certificate of authorization issued under Chapter 1713. of the 60833
Revised Code shall be liable for a breach of confidentiality 60834
arising from the institution's submission of student data or 60835
records to the board of regents or any other state agency in 60836
compliance with any law, rule, or regulation, provided that the 60837
breach occurs as a result of one of the following:60838

        (A) An action by a third party during and after the 60839
transmission of the data or records by the institution but prior 60840
to receipt of the data or records by the board of regents or other 60841
state agency;60842

        (B) An action by the board of regents or the state agency.60843

        This provision shall apply to the submission of any student 60844
data or records that are subject to any laws of this state or, to 60845
the extent permitted, any federal law, including the "Family 60846
Educational Rights and Privacy Act of 1974," 88 Stat. 571, 20 60847
U.S.C. 1232g. 60848

       Sec. 3333.124. There is hereby created in the state treasury 60849
the Ohio college opportunity grant program reserve fund. Not later 60850
than the first day of July of each fiscal year, the chancellor of 60851
the Ohio board of regents shall certify to the director of budget 60852
and management the unencumbered balance of the general revenue 60853
fund appropriations made in the immediately preceding fiscal year 60854
for purposes of the Ohio college opportunity grant program created 60855
in section 3333.122 of the Revised Code. Upon receipt of the 60856
certification, the director may transfer an amount not exceeding 60857
the certified amount from the general revenue fund to the Ohio 60858
college opportunity grant program reserve fund. Moneys in the Ohio 60859
college opportunity grant program reserve fund shall be used to 60860
pay grant obligations in excess of the general revenue fund 60861
appropriations made for that purpose.60862

       The director may transfer any unencumbered balance from the 60863
Ohio college opportunity grant program reserve fund to the general 60864
revenue fund.60865

       Sec. 3333.342. (A) The chancellor of the Ohio board of 60866
regents may designate a "certificate of value" for a certificate 60867
program at any adult career-technical education institution or 60868
state institution of higher education, as defined under section 60869
3345.011 of the Revised Code, based on the standards adopted under 60870
division (B) of this section.60871

       (B) The chancellor shall develop standards for designation of 60872
the certificates of value for certificate programs at adult 60873
career-technical education institutions and state institutions of 60874
higher education. The standards shall include at least the 60875
following considerations:60876

       (1) The quality of the certificate program;60877

       (2) The ability to transfer agreed-upon technical courses 60878
completed through an adult career-technical education institution 60879
to a state institution of higher education without unnecessary 60880
duplication or institutional barriers;60881

       (3) The extent to which the certificate program encourages a 60882
student to obtain an associate's or bachelor's degree;60883

       (4) The extent to which the certificate program increases a 60884
student's likelihood to complete other certificate programs or an 60885
associate's or bachelor's degree;60886

       (5) The ability of the certificate program to meet the 60887
expectations of the workplace and higher education;60888

       (6) The extent to which the certificate program is aligned 60889
with the strengths of the regional economy;60890

       (7) The extent to which the certificate program increases the 60891
amount of individuals who remain in or enter the state's 60892
workforce;60893

       (8) The extent of a certificate program's relationship with 60894
private companies in the state to fill potential job growth. 60895

       (C) The designation of a certificate of value under this 60896
section shall expire six years after its designation date.60897

       (D) The chancellor may revoke a designation prior to its 60898
expiration date if the chancellor determines that the program no 60899
longer complies with the standards developed under division (B) of 60900
this section.60901

       (E) Any revocation of a certificate of value under this 60902
section shall become effective one hundred eighty days after the 60903
date the revocation was declared by the chancellor.60904

       (F) Any adult career-technical education institution or state 60905
institution of higher education that desires to be eligible to 60906
receive a designation of certificate of value for one or more of 60907
its certificate programs shall comply with all records and data 60908
requests required by the chancellor.60909

       Sec. 3333.90.        Sec. 3333.59.  (A) As used in this section:60910

       (1) "Allocated state share of instruction" means, for any 60911
fiscal year, the amount of the state share of instruction 60912
appropriated to the Ohio board of regents by the general assembly 60913
that is allocated to a community or technical college or community 60914
or technical college district for such fiscal year.60915

       (2) "Issuing authority" has the same meaning as in section 60916
154.01 of the Revised Code.60917

       (3) "Bond service charges" has the same meaning as in section 60918
154.01 of the Revised Code.60919

       (4) "Chancellor" means the chancellor of the Ohio board of 60920
regents.60921

       (5) "Community or technical college" or "college" means any 60922
of the following state-supported or state-assisted institutions of 60923
higher education:60924

       (a) A community college as defined in section 3354.01 of the 60925
Revised Code;60926

       (b) A technical college as defined in section 3357.01 of the 60927
Revised Code;60928

       (c) A state community college as defined in section 3358.01 60929
of the Revised Code.60930

       (6) "Community or technical college district" or "district" 60931
means any of the following institutions of higher education that 60932
are state-supported or state-assisted:60933

       (a) A community college district as defined in section 60934
3354.01 of the Revised Code;60935

       (b) A technical college district as defined in section 60936
3357.01 of the Revised Code;60937

       (c) A state community college district as defined in section 60938
3358.01 of the Revised Code. 60939

       (7) "Credit enhancement facilities" has the same meaning as 60940
in section 133.01 of the Revised Code.60941

       (8) "Obligations" has the meaning as in section 154.01 or 60942
3345.12 of the Revised Code, as the context requires.60943

       (B) The board of trustees of any community or technical 60944
college district authorizing the issuance of obligations under 60945
section 3354.12, 3354.121, 3357.11, 3357.112, or 3358.10 of the 60946
Revised Code, or for whose benefit and on whose behalf the issuing 60947
authority proposes to issue obligations under section 154.25 of 60948
the Revised Code, may adopt a resolution requesting the chancellor 60949
to enter into an agreement with the community or technical college 60950
district and the primary paying agent or fiscal agent for such 60951
obligations, providing for the withholding and deposit of funds 60952
otherwise due the district or the community or technical college 60953
it operates in respect of its allocated state share of 60954
instruction, for the payment of bond service charges on such 60955
obligations.60956

       The board of trustees shall deliver to the chancellor a copy 60957
of the resolution and any additional pertinent information the 60958
chancellor may require.60959

       The chancellor and the office of budget and management, and 60960
the issuing authority in the case of obligations to be issued by 60961
the issuing authority, shall evaluate each request received from a 60962
community or technical college district under this section. The 60963
chancellor, with the advice and consent of the director of budget 60964
and management and the issuing authority in the case of 60965
obligations to be issued by the issuing authority, shall approve 60966
each request if all of the following conditions are met:60967

       (1) Approval of the request will enhance the marketability of 60968
the obligations for which the request is made;60969

       (2) The chancellor and the office of budget and management, 60970
and the issuing authority in the case of obligations to be issued 60971
by the issuing authority, have no reason to believe the requesting 60972
community or technical college district or the community or 60973
technical college it operates will be unable to pay when due the 60974
bond service charges on the obligations for which the request is 60975
made, and bond service charges on those obligations are therefore 60976
not anticipated to be paid pursuant to this section from the 60977
allocated state share of instruction for purposes of Section 17 of 60978
Article VIII, Ohio Constitution.60979

       (3) Any other pertinent conditions established in rules 60980
adopted under division (H) of this section.60981

       (C) If the chancellor approves the request of a community or 60982
technical college district to withhold and deposit funds pursuant 60983
to this section, the chancellor shall enter into a written 60984
agreement with the district and the primary paying agent or fiscal 60985
agent for the obligations, which agreement shall provide for the 60986
withholding of funds pursuant to this section for the payment of 60987
bond service charges on those obligations. The agreement may also 60988
include both of the following:60989

       (1) Provisions for certification by the district to the 60990
chancellor, prior to the deadline for payment of the applicable 60991
bond service charges, whether the district and the community or 60992
technical college it operates are able to pay those bond service 60993
charges when due;60994

       (2) Requirements that the district or the community or 60995
technical college it operates deposits amounts for the payment of 60996
those bond service charges with the primary paying agent or fiscal 60997
agent for the obligations prior to the date on which the bond 60998
service charges are due to the owners or holders of the 60999
obligations.61000

       (D) Whenever a district or the community or technical college 61001
it operates notifies the chancellor that it will not be able to 61002
pay the bond service charges when they are due, subject to the 61003
withholding provisions of this section, or whenever the applicable 61004
paying agent or fiscal agent notifies the chancellor that it has 61005
not timely received from a district or from the college it 61006
operates the full amount needed for payment of the bond service 61007
charges when due to the holders or owners of such obligations, the 61008
chancellor shall immediately contact the district or college and 61009
the paying agent or fiscal agent to confirm that the district and 61010
the college are not able to make the required payment by the date 61011
on which it is due.61012

       If the chancellor confirms that the district and the college 61013
are not able to make the payment and the payment will not be made 61014
pursuant to a credit enhancement facility, the chancellor shall 61015
promptly pay to the applicable primary paying agent or fiscal 61016
agent the lesser of the amount due for bond service charges or the 61017
amount of the next periodic distribution scheduled to be made to 61018
the district or to the college in respect of its allocated state 61019
share of instruction. If this amount is insufficient to pay the 61020
total amount then due the agent for the payment of bond service 61021
charges, the chancellor shall continue to pay to the agent from 61022
each periodic distribution thereafter, and until the full amount 61023
due the agent for unpaid bond service charges is paid in full, the 61024
lesser of the remaining amount due the agent for bond service 61025
charges or the amount of the next periodic distribution scheduled 61026
to be made to the district or college in respect of its allocated 61027
state share of instruction.61028

       (E) The chancellor may make any payments under this section 61029
by direct deposit of funds by electronic transfer.61030

       Any amount received by a paying agent or fiscal agent under 61031
this section shall be applied only to the payment of bond service 61032
charges on the obligations of the community or technical college 61033
district or community or technical college subject to this section 61034
or to the reimbursement of the provider of a credit enhancement 61035
facility that has paid the bond service charges.61036

       (F) The chancellor may make payments under this section to 61037
paying agents or fiscal agents during any fiscal biennium of the 61038
state only from and to the extent that money is appropriated to 61039
the board of regents by the general assembly for distribution 61040
during such biennium for the state share of instruction and only 61041
to the extent that a portion of the state share of instruction has 61042
been allocated to the community or technical college district or 61043
community or technical college. Obligations of the issuing 61044
authority or of a community or technical college district to which 61045
this section is made applicable do not constitute an obligation or 61046
a debt or a pledge of the faith, credit, or taxing power of the 61047
state, and the holders or owners of those obligations have no 61048
right to have excises or taxes levied or appropriations made by 61049
the general assembly for the payment of bond service charges on 61050
the obligations, and the obligations shall contain a statement to 61051
that effect. The agreement for or the actual withholding and 61052
payment of money under this section does not constitute the 61053
assumption by the state of any debt of a community or technical 61054
college district or a community or technical college, and bond 61055
service charges on the related obligations are not anticipated to 61056
be paid from the state general revenue fund for purposes of 61057
Section 17 of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution.61058

       (G) In the case of obligations subject to the withholding 61059
provisions of this section, the issuing community or technical 61060
college district, or the issuing authority in the case of 61061
obligations issued by the issuing authority, shall appoint a 61062
paying agent or fiscal agent who is not an officer or employee of 61063
the district or college.61064

       (H) The chancellor, with the advice and consent of the office 61065
of budget and management, may adopt reasonable rules not 61066
inconsistent with this section for the implementation of this 61067
section to secure payment of bond service charges on obligations 61068
issued by a community or technical college district or by the 61069
issuing authority for the benefit of a community or technical 61070
college district or the community or technical college it 61071
operates. Those rules shall include criteria for the evaluation 61072
and approval or denial of community or technical college district 61073
requests for withholding under this section.61074

       (I) The authority granted by this section is in addition to 61075
and not a limitation on any other authorizations granted by or 61076
pursuant to law for the same or similar purposes.61077

       Sec. 3333.613. There is hereby created in the state treasury 61078
the choose Ohio first scholarship reserve fund. Not later than the 61079
first day of July of each fiscal year, the chancellor of the Ohio 61080
board of regents shall certify to the director of budget and 61081
management the unencumbered balance of the general revenue fund 61082
appropriations made in the immediately preceding fiscal year for 61083
purposes of the choose Ohio first scholarship program created in 61084
section 3333.61 of the Revised Code. Upon receipt of the 61085
certification, the director may transfer an amount not exceeding 61086
the certified amount from the general revenue fund to the choose 61087
Ohio first scholarship reserve fund. Moneys in the choose Ohio 61088
first scholarship reserve fund shall be used to pay scholarship 61089
obligations in excess of the general revenue fund appropriations 61090
made for that purpose.61091

       The director may transfer any unencumbered balance from the 61092
choose Ohio first scholarship reserve fund to the general revenue 61093
fund.61094

       Sec. 3333.73.  The chancellor of the Ohio board of regents 61095
shall establish a competitive process for making awards under the 61096
Ohio co-op/internship program. The chancellor, on completion of 61097
that process, shall make a recommendation to the controlling board 61098
asking for approval of each award selected by the chancellor.61099

       The state institution of higher education shall submit a 61100
proposal and other documentation required by the chancellor, in 61101
the form and manner prescribed by the chancellor, for each award 61102
it seeks. A proposal may propose an initiative to be implemented 61103
solely by the state institution of higher education or in 61104
collaboration with other state institutions of higher education or 61105
nonpublic Ohio universities or colleges.61106

       The chancellor shall determine which proposals will receive 61107
awards each fiscal year, and the amount of each award, on the 61108
basis of the merit of each proposal, which the chancellor, subject 61109
to approval by the controlling board, shall determine based on one 61110
or more of the following criteria:61111

       (A) The extent to which the proposal will keep Ohio students 61112
in Ohio institutions of higher education;61113

       (B) The extent to which the proposal will attract Ohio 61114
residents who left Ohio to attend out-of-state institutions of 61115
higher education to return to Ohio institutions of higher 61116
education;61117

       (C) The extent to which the proposal will increase the number 61118
of Ohio graduates who remain in Ohio and enter Ohio's workforce;61119

       (D) The quality of the program that is the subject of the 61120
proposal and the extent to which additional resources will enhance 61121
its quality;61122

       (E) The extent to which the proposal is integrated with the 61123
strengths of the regional economy;61124

       (F) The extent to which the proposal is aligned with the 61125
report submitted by the chancellor pursuant to Section 4 of Sub. 61126
H.B. 2 of the 127th general assembly, as amendedsupports the 61127
workforce policies of the governor's office of workforce 61128
transformation to meet the workforce needs of the state and to 61129
provide a student participating in the program with the skills 61130
needed for workplace success;61131

       (G) The extent to which the proposal facilitates the 61132
development of high quality academic programs with a cooperative 61133
education program or a significant internship program at state 61134
institutions of higher education;61135

       (H) The extent to which the proposal is integrated with 61136
supporting private companies to fill potential job growth, is 61137
responsive to the needs of employers, aligns with the skills 61138
identified by employers as necessary to fill high-demand job 61139
openings, particularly job openings in targeted industry sectors 61140
as identified by the governor's office of workforce 61141
transformation;61142

       (I) The amount of other institutional, public, or private 61143
resources, whether monetary or nonmonetary, the proposal pledges 61144
to leverage that are in addition to the monetary cost-sharing 61145
requirement prescribed in section 3333.74 of the Revised Code;61146

       (J) The extent to which the proposal is collaborative with 61147
other Ohio institutions of higher education;61148

       (K) The extent to which the proposal is integrated with the 61149
institution's mission;61150

       (L) The extent to which the proposal meets a statewide 61151
educational need at the undergraduate or graduate level;61152

       (M) The demonstrated productivity or future capacity of the 61153
students to be recruited;61154

       (N) The extent to which the proposal will create additional 61155
capacity in a high quality academic program with a cooperative 61156
education program or significant internship program;61157

       (O) The extent to which the proposal will encourage students 61158
who received degrees from two-year institutions to pursue 61159
baccalaureate degrees;61160

       (P) The extent to which the proposal facilitates the 61161
completion of a baccalaureate degree in a cost-effective manner;61162

       (Q) The extent to which other institutional, public, or 61163
private resources that are pledged to the proposal, in addition to 61164
the monetary cost-sharing requirement prescribed in section 61165
3333.74 of the Revised Code, will be deployed to assist in 61166
sustaining the academic program of excellence;61167

       (R) The extent to which the proposal increases the likelihood 61168
that students will successfully complete their degree programs or 61169
certificate programs;61170

       (S) The extent to which the proposal ensures that a student 61171
participating in the high quality academic program funded by the 61172
Ohio co-op/internship program is appropriately qualified and 61173
prepared to successfully transition into professions in Ohio's 61174
growing companies and industries.61175

       Sec. 3333.82.  (A) The chancellor of the Ohio board of 61176
regents shall establish a clearinghouse of interactive distance 61177
learning courses and other distance learning courses delivered via 61178
a computer-based method offered by school districts, community 61179
schools, STEM schools, state institutions of higher education, 61180
private colleges and universities, and other nonprofit and 61181
for-profit course providers for sharing with other school 61182
districts, community schools, STEM schools, state institutions of 61183
higher education, private colleges and universities, and 61184
individuals for the fee set pursuant to section 3333.84 of the 61185
Revised Code. The chancellor shall not be responsible for the 61186
content of courses offered through the clearinghouse; however, all 61187
such courses shall be delivered only in accordance with technical 61188
specifications approved by the chancellor and on a common 61189
statewide platform administered by the chancellor.61190

       The clearinghouse's distance learning program for students in 61191
grades kindergarten to twelve shall be based on the following 61192
principles:61193

       (1) All Ohio students shall have access to high quality 61194
distance learning courses at any point in their educational 61195
careers.61196

       (2) All students shall be able to customize their education 61197
using distance learning courses offered through the clearinghouse 61198
and no student shall be denied access to any course in the 61199
clearinghouse in which the student is eligible to enroll.61200

       (3) Students may take distance learning courses for all or 61201
any portion of their curriculum requirements and may utilize a 61202
combination of distance learning courses and courses taught in a 61203
traditional classroom setting.61204

       (4) Students may earn an unlimited number of academic credits 61205
through distance learning courses.61206

       (5) Students may take distance learning courses at any time 61207
of the calendar year.61208

       (6) Student advancement to higher coursework shall be based 61209
on a demonstration of subject area competency instead of 61210
completion of any particular number of hours of instruction.61211

       (B) To offer a course through the clearinghouse, a course 61212
provider shall apply to the chancellor in a form and manner 61213
prescribed by the chancellor. The application for each course 61214
shall describe the course of study in as much detail as required 61215
by the chancellor, whether an instructor is provided, the 61216
qualification and credentials of the instructor, the number of 61217
hours of instruction, and any other information required by the 61218
chancellor. The chancellor may require course providers to include 61219
in their applications information recommended by the state board 61220
of education under former section 3353.30 of the Revised Code.61221

       (C) The chancellor shall review the technical specifications 61222
of each application submitted under division (B) of this section. 61223
In reviewing applications, the chancellor may consult with the 61224
department of education; however, the responsibility to either 61225
approve or not approve a course for the clearinghouse belongs to 61226
the chancellor. The chancellor may request additional information 61227
from a course provider that submits an application under division 61228
(B) of this section, if the chancellor determines that such 61229
information is necessary. The chancellor may negotiate changes in 61230
the proposal to offer a course, if the chancellor determines that 61231
changes are necessary in order to approve the course.61232

       (D) The chancellor shall catalog each course approved for the 61233
clearinghouse, through a print or electronic medium, displaying 61234
the following:61235

       (1) Information necessary for a student and the student's 61236
parent, guardian, or custodian and the student's school district, 61237
community school, STEM school, college, or university to decide 61238
whether to enroll in or subscribe to the course;61239

       (2) Instructions for enrolling in that course, including 61240
deadlines for enrollment.61241

       (E) Any expenses related to the installation of a course into 61242
the common statewide platform shall be borne by the course 61243
provider. 61244

       (F) The eTech Ohio commission, in consultation with the 61245
chancellor and the state board, shall distribute information to 61246
students and parents describing the clearinghouse. The information 61247
shall be provided in an easily understandable formatThe 61248
chancellor may contract with an entity to perform any or all of 61249
the chancellor's duties under sections 3333.81 to 3333.88 of the 61250
Revised Code.61251

       Sec. 3334.08.  (A) Subject to division (B) of this section, 61252
in addition to any other powers conferred by this chapter, the 61253
Ohio tuition trust authority may do any of the following:61254

       (1) Impose reasonable residency requirements for 61255
beneficiaries of tuition units;61256

       (2) Impose reasonable limits on the number of tuition unit 61257
participants;61258

       (3) Impose and collect administrative fees and charges in 61259
connection with any transaction under this chapter;61260

       (4) Purchase insurance from insurers licensed to do business 61261
in this state providing for coverage against any loss in 61262
connection with the authority's property, assets, or activities or 61263
to further ensure the value of tuition units;61264

       (5) Indemnify or purchase policies of insurance on behalf of 61265
members, officers, and employees of the authority from insurers 61266
licensed to do business in this state providing for coverage for 61267
any liability incurred in connection with any civil action, 61268
demand, or claim against a director, officer, or employee by 61269
reason of an act or omission by the director, officer, or employee 61270
that was not manifestly outside the scope of the employment or 61271
official duties of the director, officer, or employee or with 61272
malicious purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or reckless 61273
manner;61274

       (6) Make, execute, and deliver contracts, conveyances, and 61275
other instruments necessary to the exercise and discharge of the 61276
powers and duties of the authority;61277

       (7) Promote, advertise, and publicize the Ohio college 61278
savings program and the variable college savings program;61279

       (8) Adopt rules under section 111.15 of the Revised Code for 61280
the implementation of the Ohio college savings program;61281

       (9) Contract, for the provision of all or part of the 61282
services necessary for the management and operation of the Ohio 61283
college savings program and the variable college savings program, 61284
with a bank, trust company, savings and loan association, 61285
insurance company, or licensed dealer in securities if the bank, 61286
company, association, or dealer is authorized to do business in 61287
this state and information about the contract is filed with61288
approved by the controlling board pursuant to division (D)(6) of 61289
section 127.16 of the Revised Code; provided, however, that any61290
funds of the Ohio college savings program and the variable college 61291
savings program that are not needed for immediate use shall be 61292
deposited by the treasurer of state in the same manner provided 61293
under Chapter 135. of the Revised Code for public moneys of the 61294
state. All interest earned on those deposits shall be credited to 61295
the Ohio college savings program or the variable college savings 61296
program, as applicable.61297

       (10) Contract for other services, or for goods, needed by the 61298
authority in the conduct of its business, including but not 61299
limited to credit card services;61300

       (11) Employ an executive director and other personnel as 61301
necessary to carry out its responsibilities under this chapter, 61302
and fix the compensation of these persons. All employees of the 61303
authority shall be in the unclassified civil service and shall be 61304
eligible for membership in the public employees retirement system. 61305
In the hiring of the executive director, the Ohio tuition trust 61306
authority shall obtain the advice and consent of the Ohio tuition 61307
trust board created in section 3334.03 of the Revised Code, 61308
provided that the executive director shall not be hired unless a 61309
majority of the board votes in favor of the hiring. In addition, 61310
the board may remove the executive director at any time subject to 61311
the advice and consent of the chancellor of the Ohio board of 61312
regents.61313

       (12) Contract with financial consultants, actuaries, 61314
auditors, and other consultants as necessary to carry out its 61315
responsibilities under this chapter;61316

       (13) Enter into agreements with any agency of the state or 61317
its political subdivisions or with private employers under which 61318
an employee may agree to have a designated amount deducted in each 61319
payroll period from the wages or salary due the employee for the 61320
purpose of purchasing tuition units pursuant to a tuition payment 61321
contract or making contributions pursuant to a variable college 61322
savings program contract;61323

       (14) Enter into an agreement with the treasurer of state 61324
under which the treasurer of state will receive, and credit to the 61325
Ohio tuition trust fund or variable college savings program fund, 61326
from any bank or savings and loan association authorized to do 61327
business in this state, amounts that a depositor of the bank or 61328
association authorizes the bank or association to withdraw 61329
periodically from the depositor's account for the purpose of 61330
purchasing tuition units pursuant to a tuition payment contract or 61331
making contributions pursuant to a variable college savings 61332
program contract;61333

       (15) Solicit and accept gifts, grants, and loans from any 61334
person or governmental agency and participate in any governmental 61335
program;61336

       (16) Impose limits on the number of units which may be 61337
purchased on behalf of or assigned or awarded to any beneficiary 61338
and on the total amount of contributions that may be made on 61339
behalf of a beneficiary;61340

       (17) Impose restrictions on the substitution of another 61341
individual for the original beneficiary under the Ohio college 61342
savings program;61343

       (18) Impose a limit on the age of a beneficiary, above which 61344
tuition units may not be purchased on behalf of that beneficiary;61345

       (19) Enter into a cooperative agreement with the treasurer of 61346
state to provide for the direct disbursement of payments under 61347
tuition payment or variable college savings program contracts;61348

       (20) Determine the other higher education expenses for which 61349
tuition units or contributions may be used;61350

       (21) Terminate any tuition payment or variable college 61351
savings program contract if no purchases or contributions are made 61352
for a period of three years or more and there are fewer than a 61353
total of five tuition units or less than a dollar amount set by 61354
rule on account, provided that notice of a possible termination 61355
shall be provided in advance, explaining any options to prevent 61356
termination, and a reasonable amount of time shall be provided 61357
within which to act to prevent a termination;61358

       (22) Maintain a separate account for each tuition payment or 61359
variable college savings program contract;61360

       (23) Perform all acts necessary and proper to carry out the 61361
duties and responsibilities of the authority pursuant to this 61362
chapter.61363

       (B) The authority shall adopt rules under section 111.15 of 61364
the Revised Code for the implementation and administration of the 61365
variable college savings program. The rules shall provide 61366
taxpayers with the maximum tax advantages and flexibility 61367
consistent with section 529 of the Internal Revenue Code and 61368
regulations adopted thereunder with regard to disposition of 61369
contributions and earnings, designation of beneficiaries, and 61370
rollover of account assets to other programs.61371

       (C) Except as otherwise specified in this chapter, the 61372
provisions of Chapters 123., 125., and 4117. of the Revised Code 61373
shall not apply to the authority. The department of administrative 61374
services shall, upon the request of the authority, act as the 61375
authority's agent for the purchase of equipment, supplies, 61376
insurance, or services, or the performance of administrative 61377
services pursuant to Chapter 125. of the Revised Code.61378

       Sec. 3335.35.  There is hereby created the "Ohio cooperative61379
OSU extension service fund," which shall be under the custody and 61380
control of the board of trustees of the Ohio state university and 61381
shall consist of all moneys appropriated, given, granted, or 61382
bequeathed to the university for the use of the Ohio cooperative61383
OSU extension service by the United States, this state, any 61384
political subdivision of this state, or any person. The board 61385
shall have responsibility for expenditure of all moneys in the 61386
fund in accordance with state and federal law and memoranda of 61387
agreement between the university and the United States department 61388
of agriculture.61389

       Sec. 3335.36.  The board of trustees of the Ohio state 61390
university may employ such employees as it considers appropriate 61391
for the conduct of educational programs of the Ohio cooperative61392
OSU extension service and may provide for the payment from the 61393
Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service fund created by section 61394
3335.35 of the Revised Code of reasonable compensation to such 61395
employees and of reasonable expenses incurred by them in the 61396
discharge of their duties, including expenses of travel and of 61397
maintaining, equipping, and supplying their offices.61398

       The employees shall cooperate with the department of 61399
agriculture, the Ohio agricultural research and development 61400
center, the department of education, and the United States 61401
department of agriculture, for the purpose of making available the 61402
educational materials of theOSU extension service. SuchThe61403
employees shall represent the university and shall conduct 61404
educational activities related to agriculture, natural resources,61405
home economicscommunity development, family livingand consumer 61406
sciences, and 4-H programs for the citizens of this state through 61407
personal instruction, bulletins, practical demonstrations, mass 61408
media, and otherwise, subject to such rules as may be prescribed 61409
by the board of trustees of the university. SuchThe employees 61410
shall have offices provided by the county or other political 61411
subdivision in which they serve in which bulletins and other 61412
educational materials of value to the people may be consulted and 61413
through which the employees may be reached.61414

       The board of trustees of the Ohio state university may hire 61415
or use employees of the Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service to 61416
carry out the functions and duties of a director of economic 61417
development under division (B) of section 307.07 of the Revised 61418
Code pursuant to any agreement with a county under division (A)(2) 61419
of section 307.07 of the Revised Code.61420

       Sec. 3335.37.  The board of county commissioners of any 61421
county may levy a tax, within the limitations prescribed by law, 61422
and appropriate money from the proceeds thereof or from the 61423
general fund of the county to be paid to the Ohio state university 61424
to the credit of the Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service fund 61425
created by section 3335.35 of the Revised Code and expended for 61426
the purposes prescribed in section 3335.36 of the Revised Code for 61427
the benefit of the citizens of suchthat county. Any money paid 61428
into the fund under this section that aggregates more than ten per 61429
cent of the county appropriation in the preceding year and that 61430
remains unexpended for two years from the time of suchthe payment 61431
shall be returned to the county from which it came unless the 61432
board of county commissioners determines by resolution to 61433
contribute it to the Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service for 61434
general purposes.61435

       Sec. 3335.38.  The board of trustees of the Ohio state 61436
university shall establish a farm financial management institute 61437
in the Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service to train interested 61438
and qualified persons to assist farmers needing help with farm 61439
financial management problems.61440

       Participation shall be open to all interested persons, but 61441
the following persons shall be given priority as to enrollment: 61442
employees or representatives of banks and other farm credit 61443
agencies, agricultural teachers, and faculty and employees of the 61444
Ohio state university and the Ohio cooperativeOSU extension 61445
service who agree to assist Ohio farmers in completing and 61446
understanding the coordinated financial statement and other 61447
subjects. A fee may be charged participants, as determined by the61448
OSU extension service, but may be waived for those participants 61449
granted priority status at enrollment.61450

       Sec. 3304.23.        Sec. 3335.60.  (A) There is hereby created in the61451
rehabilitation services commissionOhio state university college 61452
of medicine a brain injury program consisting of a program 61453
director and at least one support staff person.61454

       (B) To the extent that funds are available, the brain injury 61455
program may do the following:61456

       (1) Identify existing services in this state to assist 61457
survivors and families of survivors of brain injury;61458

       (2) Promote the coordination of services for survivors and 61459
families of survivors of brain injury;61460

       (3) Explore options for delivery of services to survivors and 61461
families of survivors of brain injury;61462

       (4) Explore the establishment of a traumatic brain injury 61463
incidence reporting system to collect information on the incidence 61464
and character of traumatic brain injury in this state;61465

       (5) Promote practices that will reduce the incidence of brain 61466
injury;61467

       (6) Develop training programs on dealing with brain injury 61468
and the special needs of survivors of brain injury;61469

       (7) Identify sources of available funds for services for 61470
survivors and families of survivors of brain injury;61471

       (8) Explore options for the delivery of case management 61472
services to residents of this state who are survivors of brain 61473
injury;61474

       (9) Provide assistance to assure that services for survivors 61475
and families of survivors of brain injury are all of the 61476
following:61477

       (a) Designed to enhance the survivor's ability to lead an 61478
independent and productive life;61479

       (b) Available within close proximity of the survivor's home;61480

       (c) Provided in the least restrictive environment;61481

       (d) Appropriate to the unique needs of the survivor.61482

       (C) The staff of the brain injury program shall prepare a 61483
biennial report on the incidence of brain injury in this state61484
that. The report shall be submitted to the administrator of the 61485
rehabilitation services commission on or before December 15, 1992,61486
completed not later than two years after the effective date of 61487
this amendment and every two years thereafter. A copy of the 61488
report shall beand submitted to the brain injury advisory 61489
committee created under section 3304.2313335.61 of the Revised 61490
Code.61491

       Sec. 3304.231.        Sec. 3335.61.  There is hereby created a brain 61492
injury advisory committee, which shall advise the administrator of 61493
the rehabilitation services commission and the brain injury 61494
program with regard to unmet needs of survivors of brain injury, 61495
development of programs for survivors and their families, 61496
establishment of training programs for health care professionals, 61497
and any other matter within the province of the brain injury 61498
program. The committee shall consist of not fewer than twenty61499
nineteen and not more than twenty-twotwenty-one members as 61500
follows:61501

       (A) Not fewer than ten and not more than twelve members 61502
appointed by the administrator of the rehabilitation services 61503
commissiondean of the college of medicine of the Ohio state 61504
university, including all of the following: a survivor of brain 61505
injury, a relative of a survivor of brain injury, a licensed 61506
physician recommended by the Ohio chapter of the American college 61507
of emergency physicians, a licensed physician recommended by the 61508
Ohio state medical association, one other health care 61509
professional, a rehabilitation professional, an individual who 61510
represents the brain injury association of Ohio, and not fewer 61511
than three nor more than five individuals who shall represent the 61512
public;61513

       (B) The directors of the departments of health, alcohol and 61514
drug addiction servicesmental health and drug addiction services, 61515
developmental disabilities, mental health, job and family 61516
services, aging, and public safety; the medicaid director; the 61517
administrator of workers' compensation; the superintendent of 61518
public instruction; and the administrator of the rehabilitation 61519
services commission. Any of the officials specified in this 61520
division may designate an individual to serve in the official's 61521
place as a member of the committee.61522

        Terms of office of the appointed members shall be two years. 61523
Members may be reappointed. Vacancies shall be filled in the 61524
manner provided for original appointments. Any member appointed to 61525
fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration date of the term 61526
for which the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office 61527
as a member for the remainder of that term.61528

       Members of the committee shall serve without compensation, 61529
but shall be reimbursed for actual and necessary expenses incurred 61530
in the performance of their duties.61531

       Sec. 3337.16.  (A) The president of Ohio university may 61532
create an advisory committee to do both of the following:61533

       (1) Review the comprehensive land use plans and any updates 61534
of those land use plans prepared by Ohio university for the 61535
property conveyed to the university in Sub. H.B. 576 of the 117th 61536
general assembly;61537

       (2) Comment on and periodically review the progress on the 61538
implementation of the comprehensive land use plans described in 61539
division (A)(1) of this section.61540

       (B) The advisory committee created under division (A) of this 61541
section shall consist of the following members:61542

       (1) The president of Ohio university or the president's 61543
designee, who shall serve as chairperson of the advisory 61544
committee;61545

       (2) The mayor of the city of Athens or the mayor's designee;61546

       (3) The following members appointed by the president of Ohio 61547
university:61548

       (a) One Athens county commissioner;61549

       (b) One to three individuals who reside in Athens county and 61550
have special knowledge and experience in land use planning, 61551
preservation, or economic development.61552

       Vacancies on the committee shall be filled in the same manner 61553
as the original appointments.61554

       Sec. 3345.05.  (A) All registration fees, nonresident tuition 61555
fees, academic fees for the support of off-campus instruction, 61556
laboratory and course fees when so assessed and collected, student 61557
health fees for the support of a student health service, all other 61558
fees, deposits, charges, receipts, and income from all or part of 61559
the students, all subsidy or other payments from state 61560
appropriations, and all other fees, deposits, charges, receipts, 61561
income, and revenue received by each state institution of higher 61562
education, the Ohio state university hospitals and their ancillary 61563
facilities, the Ohio agricultural research and development center, 61564
and the Ohio state university cooperativeOSU extension service61565
shall be held and administered by the respective boards of 61566
trustees of the state institution of higher education; provided, 61567
that such fees, deposits, charges, receipts, income and revenue, 61568
to the extent required by resolutions, trust agreements, 61569
indentures, leases, and agreements adopted, made, or entered into 61570
under Chapter 154. or section 3345.07, 3345.11, or 3345.12 of the 61571
Revised Code, shall be held, administered, transferred, and 61572
applied in accordance therewith.61573

       (B) The Ohio board of regents shall require annual reporting 61574
by the Ohio agricultural research and development center and by 61575
each university and college receiving state aid in such form and 61576
detail as determined by the board in consultation with such 61577
center, universities and colleges, and the director of budget and 61578
management.61579

       (C) Notwithstanding any provision of the Revised Code to the 61580
contrary, the title to investments made by the board of trustees 61581
of a state institution of higher education with funds derived from 61582
any of the sources described in division (A) of this section shall 61583
not be vested in the state or the political subdivision but shall 61584
be held in trust by the board. Such investments shall be made 61585
pursuant to an investment policy adopted by the board in public 61586
session that requires all fiduciaries to discharge their duties 61587
with the care, skill, prudence, and diligence under the 61588
circumstances then prevailing that a prudent person acting in like 61589
capacity and familiar with such matters would use in the conduct 61590
of an enterprise of a like character and with like aims. The 61591
policy also shall require at least the following:61592

       (1) A stipulation that investment of at least twenty-five per 61593
cent of the average amount of the investment portfolio over the 61594
course of the previous fiscal year be invested in securities of 61595
the United States government or of its agencies or 61596
instrumentalities, the treasurer of state's pooled investment 61597
program, obligations of this state or any political subdivision of 61598
this state, certificates of deposit of any national bank located 61599
in this state, written repurchase agreements with any eligible 61600
Ohio financial institution that is a member of the federal reserve 61601
system or federal home loan bank, money market funds, or bankers 61602
acceptances maturing in two hundred seventy days or less which are 61603
eligible for purchase by the federal reserve system, as a reserve;61604

       (2) Eligible funds above those that meet the conditions of 61605
division (C)(1) of this section may be pooled with other 61606
institutional funds and invested in accordance with section 61607
1715.52 of the Revised Code.61608

        (3) The establishment of an investment committee.61609

       (D) The investment committee established under division 61610
(C)(3) of this section shall meet at least quarterly. The 61611
committee shall review and recommend revisions to the board's 61612
investment policy and shall advise the board on its investments 61613
made under division (C) of this section in an effort to assist it 61614
in meeting its obligations as a fiduciary as described in division 61615
(C) of this section. The committee shall be authorized to retain 61616
the services of an investment advisor who meets both of the 61617
following qualifications:61618

       (1) The advisor is either:61619

       (a) Licensed by the division of securities under section 61620
1707.141 of the Revised Code;61621

       (b) Registered with the securities and exchange commission.61622

       (2) The advisor either:61623

       (a) Has experience in the management of investments of public 61624
funds, especially in the investment of state-government investment 61625
portfolios;61626

       (b) Is an eligible institution referenced in section 135.03 61627
of the Revised Code.61628

       (E) As used in this section, "state institution of higher 61629
education" means a state institution of higher education as 61630
defined in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.61631

       Sec. 3345.06.  (A) Subject to divisions (B) and (C) of this 61632
section, a graduate of the twelfth grade shall be entitled to 61633
admission without examination to any college or university which 61634
is supported wholly or in part by the state, but for unconditional 61635
admission may be required to complete such units not included in 61636
the graduate's high school course as may be prescribed, not less 61637
than two years prior to the graduate's entrance, by the faculty of 61638
the institution.61639

       (B) Beginning with the 2014-2015 academic year, each state 61640
university listed in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, except 61641
for Central state university, Shawnee state university, and 61642
Youngstown state university, shall permit a resident of this state 61643
who entered ninth grade for the first time on or after July 1, 61644
2010, to begin undergraduate coursework at the university only if 61645
the person has successfully completed the Ohio core curriculum for 61646
high school graduation prescribed in division (C) of section 61647
3313.603 of the Revised Code, unless one of the following applies:61648

       (1) The person has earned at least ten semester hours, or the 61649
equivalent, at a community college, state community college, 61650
university branch, technical college, or another post-secondary 61651
institution except a state university to which division (B) of 61652
this section applies, in courses that are college-credit-bearing 61653
and may be applied toward the requirements for a degree. The 61654
university shall grant credit for successful completion of those 61655
courses pursuant to any applicable articulation and transfer 61656
policy of the Ohio board of regents or any agreements the 61657
university has entered into in accordance with policies and 61658
procedures adopted under section 3333.16, 3313.161, or 3333.162 of 61659
the Revised Code. The university may count college credit that the 61660
student earned while in high school through the post-secondary 61661
enrollment options program under Chapter 3365. of the Revised 61662
Code, or through other dual enrollment programs, toward the 61663
requirements of division (B)(1) of this section if the credit may 61664
be applied toward a degree.61665

       (2) The person qualified to graduate from high school under 61666
division (D) or (F) of section 3313.603 of the Revised Code and 61667
has successfully completed the topics or courses that the person 61668
lacked to graduate under division (C) of that section at any 61669
post-secondary institution or at a summer program at the state 61670
university. A state university may admit a person for enrollment 61671
contingent upon completion of such topics or courses or summer 61672
program.61673

       (3) The person met the high school graduation requirements by 61674
successfully completing the person's individualized education 61675
program developed under section 3323.08 of the Revised Code.61676

       (3)(4) The person is receiving or has completed the final 61677
year of instruction at home as authorized under section 3321.04 of 61678
the Revised Code, or has graduated from a nonchartered, nonpublic 61679
school in Ohio, and demonstrates mastery of the academic content 61680
and skills in reading, writing, and mathematics needed to 61681
successfully complete introductory level coursework at an 61682
institution of higher education and to avoid remedial coursework.61683

       (4)(5) The person is a high school student participating in 61684
the post-secondary enrollment options program under Chapter 3365. 61685
of the Revised Code or another dual enrollment program.61686

       (C) A state university subject to division (B) of this 61687
section may delay admission for or admit conditionally an 61688
undergraduate student who has successfully completed the Ohio core 61689
curriculum if the university determines the student requires 61690
academic remedial or developmental coursework. The university may 61691
delay admission pending, or make admission conditional upon, the 61692
student's successful completion of the academic remedial or 61693
developmental coursework at a university branch, community 61694
college, state community college, or technical college.61695

       (D) This section does not deny the right of a college of law, 61696
medicine, or other specialized education to require college 61697
training for admission, or the right of a department of music or 61698
other art to require particular preliminary training or talent.61699

       Sec. 3345.12.  (A) As used in this section and sections 61700
3345.07 and 3345.11 of the Revised Code, in other sections of the 61701
Revised Code that make reference to this section unless the 61702
context does not permit, and in related bond proceedings unless 61703
otherwise expressly provided:61704

       (1) "State university or college" means each of the state 61705
universities identified in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code 61706
and the northeast Ohio medical university, and includes its board 61707
of trustees.61708

       (2) "Institution of higher education" or "institution" means 61709
a state university or college, or a community college district, 61710
technical college district, university branch district, or state 61711
community college, and includes the applicable board of trustees 61712
or, in the case of a university branch district, any other 61713
managing authority.61714

       (3) "Housing and dining facilities" means buildings, 61715
structures, and other improvements, and equipment, real estate, 61716
and interests in real estate therefor, to be used for or in 61717
connection with dormitories or other living quarters and 61718
accommodations, or related dining halls or other food service and 61719
preparation facilities, for students, members of the faculty, 61720
officers, or employees of the institution of higher education, and 61721
their spouses and families.61722

       (4) "Auxiliary facilities" means buildings, structures, and 61723
other improvements, and equipment, real estate, and interests in 61724
real estate therefor, to be used for or in connection with student 61725
activity or student service facilities, housing and dining 61726
facilities, dining halls, and other food service and preparation 61727
facilities, vehicular parking facilities, bookstores, athletic and 61728
recreational facilities, faculty centers, auditoriums, assembly 61729
and exhibition halls, hospitals, infirmaries and other medical and 61730
health facilities, research, and continuing education facilities.61731

       (5) "Education facilities" means buildings, structures, and 61732
other improvements, and equipment, real estate, and interests in 61733
real estate therefor, to be used for or in connection with, 61734
classrooms or other instructional facilities, libraries, 61735
administrative and office facilities, and other facilities, other 61736
than auxiliary facilities, to be used directly or indirectly for 61737
or in connection with the conduct of the institution of higher 61738
education.61739

       (6) "Facilities" means housing and dining facilities, 61740
auxiliary facilities, or education facilities, and includes any 61741
one, part of, or any combination of such facilities, and further 61742
includes site improvements, utilities, machinery, furnishings, and 61743
any separate or connected buildings, structures, improvements, 61744
sites, open space and green space areas, utilities or equipment to 61745
be used in, or in connection with the operation or maintenance of, 61746
or supplementing or otherwise related to the services or 61747
facilities to be provided by, such facilities.61748

       (7) "Obligations" means bonds or notes or other evidences of 61749
obligation, including interest coupons pertaining thereto, 61750
authorized to be issued under this section or section 3345.07, 61751
3345.11, 3354.121, 3355.091, 3357.112, or 3358.10 of the Revised 61752
Code.61753

       (8) "Bond service charges" means principal, including any 61754
mandatory sinking fund or redemption requirements for the 61755
retirement of obligations or assurances, interest, or interest 61756
equivalent and other accreted amounts, and any call premium 61757
required to be paid on obligations or assurances.61758

       (9) "Bond proceedings" means the resolutions, trust 61759
agreement, indenture, and other agreements and credit enhancement 61760
facilities, and amendments and supplements to the foregoing, or 61761
any one or more or combination thereof, authorizing, awarding, or 61762
providing for the terms and conditions applicable to, or providing 61763
for the security or liquidity of, obligations or assurances, and 61764
the provisions contained in those obligations or assurances.61765

       (10) "Costs of facilities" means the costs of acquiring, 61766
constructing, reconstructing, rehabilitating, remodeling, 61767
renovating, enlarging, improving, equipping, or furnishing 61768
facilities, and the financing thereof, including the cost of 61769
clearance and preparation of the site and of any land to be used 61770
in connection with facilities, the cost of any indemnity and 61771
surety bonds and premiums on insurance, all related direct 61772
administrative expenses and allocable portions of direct costs of 61773
the institution of higher education or state agency, cost of 61774
engineering, architectural services, design, plans, specifications 61775
and surveys, estimates of cost, legal fees, fees and expenses of 61776
trustees, depositories, bond registrars, and paying agents for the 61777
obligations, cost of issuance of the obligations and financing 61778
costs and fees and expenses of financial advisers and consultants 61779
in connection therewith, interest on the obligations from the date 61780
thereof to the time when interest is to be covered by available 61781
receipts or other sources other than proceeds of the obligations, 61782
amounts necessary to establish reserves as required by the bond 61783
proceedings, costs of audits, the reimbursements of all moneys 61784
advanced or applied by or borrowed from the institution or others, 61785
from whatever source provided, including any temporary advances 61786
from state appropriations, for the payment of any item or items of 61787
cost of facilities, and all other expenses necessary or incident 61788
to planning or determining feasibility or practicability with 61789
respect to facilities, and such other expenses as may be necessary 61790
or incident to the acquisition, construction, reconstruction, 61791
rehabilitation, remodeling, renovation, enlargement, improvement, 61792
equipment, and furnishing of facilities, the financing thereof and 61793
the placing of them in use and operation, including any one, part 61794
of, or combination of such classes of costs and expenses.61795

       (11) "Available receipts" means all moneys received by the 61796
institution of higher education, including income, revenues, and 61797
receipts from the operation, ownership, or control of facilities 61798
or entrepreneurial projects, grants, gifts, donations, and pledges 61799
and receipts therefrom, receipts from fees and charges, and the 61800
proceeds of the sale of obligations or assurances, including 61801
proceeds of obligations or assurances issued to refund obligations 61802
or assurances previously issued, but excluding any special fee, 61803
and receipts therefrom, charged pursuant to division (D) of 61804
section 154.21 of the Revised Code.61805

       (12) "Credit enhancement facilities" has the meaning given in 61806
division (H) of section 133.01 of the Revised Code.61807

       (13) "Financing costs" has the meaning given in division (K) 61808
of section 133.01 of the Revised Code.61809

       (14) "Interest" or "interest equivalent" has the meaning 61810
given in division (R) of section 133.01 of the Revised Code.61811

       (15) "Assurances" means bonds, notes, or other evidence of 61812
indebtedness, including interest coupons pertaining thereto, 61813
authorized to be issued under section 3345.36 of the Revised Code.61814

       (16) "Entrepreneurial project" has the same meaning as in 61815
section 3345.36 of the Revised Code.61816

        (17) "Costs of entrepreneurial projects" means any costs 61817
related to the establishment or development of entrepreneurial 61818
projects pursuant to a resolution adopted under section 3345.36 of 61819
the Revised Code.61820

       (B) Obligations issued under section 3345.07 or 3345.11 of 61821
the Revised Code by a state university or college shall be 61822
authorized by resolution of its board of trustees. Obligations 61823
issued by any other institution of higher education shall be 61824
authorized by resolution of its board of trustees, or managing 61825
directors in the case of certain university branch districts, as 61826
applicable. Sections 9.96 and 9.98 to 9.983 of the Revised Code 61827
apply to obligations and assurances. Obligations and assurances 61828
may be issued to pay costs of facilities or entrepreneurial 61829
projects even if the institution anticipates the possibility of a 61830
future state appropriation to pay all or a portion of such costs.61831

       (C) Obligations and assurances shall be secured by a pledge 61832
of and lien on all or such part of the available receipts of the 61833
institution of higher education as it provides for in the bond 61834
proceedings, excluding moneys raised by taxation and state 61835
appropriations except as permitted by section 3333.903333.59 of 61836
the Revised Code. Such pledge and lien may be made prior to all 61837
other expenses, claims, or payments, excepting any pledge of such 61838
available receipts previously made to the contrary and except as 61839
provided by any existing restrictions on the use thereof, or such 61840
pledge and lien may be made subordinate to such other expenses, 61841
claims, or payments, as provided in the bond proceedings. 61842
Obligations or assurances may be additionally secured by covenants 61843
of the institution to make, fix, adjust, collect, and apply such 61844
charges, rates, fees, rentals, and other items of available 61845
receipts as will produce pledged available receipts sufficient to 61846
meet bond service charges, reserve, and other requirements 61847
provided for in the bond proceedings. Notwithstanding this and any 61848
other sections of the Revised Code, the holders or owners of the 61849
obligations or assurances shall not be given the right and shall 61850
have no right to have excises or taxes levied by the general 61851
assembly for the payment of bond service charges thereon, and each 61852
such obligation or assurance shall bear on its face a statement to 61853
that effect and to the effect that the right to such payment is 61854
limited to the available receipts and special funds pledged to 61855
such purpose under the bond proceedings.61856

       All pledged available receipts and funds and the proceeds of 61857
obligations or assurances are trust funds and, subject to the 61858
provisions of this section and the applicable bond proceedings, 61859
shall be held, deposited, invested, reinvested, disbursed, 61860
applied, and used to such extent, in such manner, at such times, 61861
and for such purposes, as are provided in the bond proceedings.61862

       (D) The bond proceedings for obligations or assurances shall 61863
provide for the purpose thereof and the principal amount or 61864
maximum principal amount, and provide for or authorize the manner 61865
of determining the principal maturity or maturities, the sale 61866
price including any permitted discount, the interest rate or 61867
rates, which may be a variable rate or rates, or the maximum 61868
interest rate, the date of the obligations or assurances and the 61869
date or dates of payment of interest thereon, their denominations, 61870
the manner of sale thereof, and the establishment within or 61871
without the state of a place or places of payment of bond service 61872
charges. The bond proceedings also shall provide for a pledge of 61873
and lien on available receipts of the institution of higher 61874
education as provided in division (C) of this section, and a 61875
pledge of and lien on such fund or funds provided in the bond 61876
proceedings arising from available receipts, which pledges and 61877
liens may provide for parity with obligations or assurances 61878
theretofore or thereafter issued by the institution. The available 61879
receipts so pledged and thereafter received by the institution and 61880
the funds so pledged are immediately subject to the lien of such 61881
pledge without any physical delivery thereof or further act, and 61882
the lien of any such pledge is valid and binding against all 61883
parties having claims of any kind against the institution, 61884
irrespective of whether such parties have notice thereof, and 61885
shall create a perfected security interest for all purposes of 61886
Chapter 1309. of the Revised Code, without the necessity for 61887
separation or delivery of funds or for the filing or recording of 61888
the bond proceedings by which such pledge is created or any 61889
certificate, statement, or other document with respect thereto; 61890
and the pledge of such available receipts and funds shall be 61891
effective and the money therefrom and thereof may be applied to 61892
the purposes for which pledged without necessity for any act of 61893
appropriation.61894

       (E) The bond proceedings may contain additional provisions 61895
customary or appropriate to the financing or to the obligations or 61896
assurances or to particular obligations and assurances, including:61897

       (1) The acquisition, construction, reconstruction, equipment, 61898
furnishing, improvement, operation, alteration, enlargement, 61899
maintenance, insurance, and repair of facilities or 61900
entrepreneurial projects, and the duties of the institution of 61901
higher education with reference thereto;61902

       (2) The terms of the obligations or assurances, including 61903
provisions for their redemption prior to maturity at the option of 61904
the institution of higher education at such price or prices and 61905
under such terms and conditions as are provided in the bond 61906
proceedings;61907

       (3) Limitations on the purposes to which the proceeds of the 61908
obligations or assurances may be applied;61909

       (4) The rates or rentals or other charges for the use of or 61910
right to use the facilities or entrepreneurial projects financed 61911
by the obligations or assurances, or other properties the revenues 61912
or receipts from which are pledged to the obligations or 61913
assurances, and rules for assuring any applicable use and 61914
occupancy thereof, including limitations upon the right to modify 61915
such rates, rentals, other charges, or regulations;61916

       (5) The use and expenditure of the pledged available receipts 61917
in such manner and to such extent as shall be determined, which 61918
may include provision for the payment of the expenses of 61919
operation, maintenance, and repair of facilities or 61920
entrepreneurial projects so that such expenses, or part thereof, 61921
shall be paid or provided as a charge prior or subsequent to the 61922
payment of bond service charges and any other payments required to 61923
be made by the bond proceedings;61924

       (6) Limitations on the issuance of additional obligations or 61925
assurances;61926

       (7) The terms of any trust agreement or indenture securing 61927
the obligations or assurances or under which the same may be 61928
issued;61929

       (8) The deposit, investment, and application of funds, and 61930
the safeguarding of funds on hand or on deposit without regard to 61931
Chapter 131. or 135. of the Revised Code, and any bank or trust 61932
company or other financial institution that acts as depository of 61933
any moneys under the bond proceedings shall furnish such 61934
indemnifying bonds or pledge such securities as required by the 61935
bond proceedings or otherwise by the institution of higher 61936
education;61937

       (9) The binding effect of any or every provision of the bond 61938
proceedings upon such officer, board, commission, authority, 61939
agency, department, or other person or body as may from time to 61940
time have the authority under law to take such actions as may be 61941
necessary to perform all or any part of the duty required by such 61942
provision;61943

       (10) Any provision that may be made in a trust agreement or 61944
indenture;61945

       (11) Any other or additional agreements with respect to the 61946
facilities of the institution of higher education or its 61947
entrepreneurial projects, their operation, the available receipts 61948
and funds pledged, and insurance of facilities or entrepreneurial 61949
projects and of the institution, its officers and employees.61950

       (F) Such obligations or assurances may have the seal of the 61951
institution of higher education or a facsimile thereof affixed 61952
thereto or printed thereon and shall be executed by such officers 61953
as are designated in the bond proceedings, which execution may be 61954
by facsimile signatures. Any obligations or assurances may be 61955
executed by an officer who, on the date of execution, is the 61956
proper officer although on the date of such obligations or 61957
assurances such person was not the proper officer. In case any 61958
officer whose signature or a facsimile of whose signature appears 61959
on any such obligation or assurance ceases to be such officer 61960
before delivery thereof, such signature or facsimile is 61961
nevertheless valid and sufficient for all purposes as if the 61962
person had remained such officer until such delivery; and in case 61963
the seal of the institution has been changed after a facsimile of 61964
the seal has been imprinted on such obligations or assurances, 61965
such facsimile seal continues to be sufficient as to such 61966
obligations or assurances and obligations or assurances issued in 61967
substitution or exchange therefor.61968

       (G) All such obligations or assurances are negotiable 61969
instruments and securities under Chapter 1308. of the Revised 61970
Code, subject to the provisions of the bond proceedings as to 61971
registration. The obligations or assurances may be issued in 61972
coupon or in registered form, or both. Provision may be made for 61973
the registration of any obligations or assurances with coupons 61974
attached thereto as to principal alone or as to both principal and 61975
interest, their exchange for obligations or assurances so 61976
registered, and for the conversion or reconversion into 61977
obligations or assurances with coupons attached thereto of any 61978
obligations or assurances registered as to both principal and 61979
interest, and for reasonable charges for such registration, 61980
exchange, conversion, and reconversion.61981

       (H) Pending preparation of definitive obligations or 61982
assurances, the institution of higher education may issue interim 61983
receipts or certificates which shall be exchanged for such 61984
definitive obligations or assurances.61985

       (I) Such obligations or assurances may be secured 61986
additionally by a trust agreement or indenture between the 61987
institution of higher education and a corporate trustee, which may 61988
be any trust company or bank having the powers of a trust company 61989
within or without this state but authorized to exercise trust 61990
powers within this state. Any such agreement or indenture may 61991
contain the resolution authorizing the issuance of the obligations 61992
or assurances, any provisions that may be contained in the bond 61993
proceedings as authorized by this section, and other provisions 61994
which are customary or appropriate in an agreement or indenture of 61995
such type, including:61996

       (1) Maintenance of each pledge, trust agreement, and 61997
indenture, or other instrument comprising part of the bond 61998
proceedings until the institution of higher education has fully 61999
paid the bond service charges on the obligations or assurances 62000
secured thereby, or provision therefor has been made;62001

       (2) In the event of default in any payments required to be 62002
made by the bond proceedings, or any other agreement of the 62003
institution of higher education made as a part of the contract 62004
under which the obligations or assurances were issued, enforcement 62005
of such payments or agreement by mandamus, the appointment of a 62006
receiver, suit in equity, action at law, or any combination of the 62007
foregoing;62008

       (3) The rights and remedies of the holders of obligations or 62009
assurances and of the trustee, and provisions for protecting and 62010
enforcing them, including limitations on rights of individual 62011
holders of obligations or assurances;62012

       (4) The replacement of any obligations or assurances that 62013
become mutilated or are destroyed, lost, or stolen;62014

       (5) Such other provisions as the trustee and the institution 62015
of higher education agree upon, including limitations, conditions, 62016
or qualifications relating to any of the foregoing.62017

       (J) Each duty of the institution of higher education and its 62018
officers or employees, undertaken pursuant to the bond proceedings 62019
or any related agreement or lease made under authority of law, is 62020
hereby established as a duty of such institution, and of each such 62021
officer or employee having authority to perform such duty, 62022
specially enjoined by law resulting from an office, trust, or 62023
station within the meaning of section 2731.01 of the Revised Code. 62024
The persons who are at the time the members of the board of 62025
trustees or the managing directors of the institution or its 62026
officers or employees are not liable in their personal capacities 62027
on such obligations or assurances, or lease, or other agreement of 62028
the institution.62029

       (K) The authority to issue obligations or assurances includes 62030
authority to:62031

       (1) Issue obligations or assurances in the form of bond 62032
anticipation notes and to renew them from time to time by the 62033
issuance of new notes. Such notes are payable solely from the 62034
available receipts and funds that may be pledged to the payment of 62035
such bonds, or from the proceeds of such bonds or renewal notes, 62036
or both, as the institution of higher education provides in its 62037
resolution authorizing such notes. Such notes may be additionally 62038
secured by covenants of the institution to the effect that it will 62039
do such or all things necessary for the issuance of such bonds or 62040
renewal notes in appropriate amount, and either exchange such 62041
bonds or renewal notes therefor or apply the proceeds thereof to 62042
the extent necessary, to make full payment of the bond service 62043
charges on such notes at the time or times contemplated, as 62044
provided in such resolution. Subject to the provisions of this 62045
division, all references to obligations or assurances in this 62046
section apply to such anticipation notes.62047

       (2) Issue obligations or assurances to refund, including 62048
funding and retirement of, obligations or assurances previously 62049
issued to pay costs of facilities or entrepreneurial projects. 62050
Such obligations or assurances may be issued in amounts sufficient 62051
for payment of the principal amount of the obligations or 62052
assurances to be so refunded, any redemption premiums thereon, 62053
principal maturities of any obligations or assurances maturing 62054
prior to the redemption of any other obligations or assurances on 62055
a parity therewith to be so refunded, interest accrued or to 62056
accrue to the maturity date or dates of redemption of such 62057
obligations or assurances, and any expenses incurred or to be 62058
incurred in connection with such refunding or the issuance of the 62059
obligations or assurances.62060

       (L) Obligations and assurances are lawful investments for 62061
banks, societies for savings, savings and loan associations, 62062
deposit guarantee associations, trust companies, trustees, 62063
fiduciaries, insurance companies, including domestic for life and 62064
domestic not for life, trustees or other officers having charge of 62065
sinking and bond retirement or other special funds of political 62066
subdivisions and taxing districts of this state, the commissioners 62067
of the sinking fund, the administrator of workers' compensation in 62068
accordance with the investment policy approved by the bureau of 62069
workers' compensation board of directors pursuant to section 62070
4121.12 of the Revised Code, the state teachers retirement system, 62071
the public employees retirement system, the school employees 62072
retirement system, and the Ohio police and fire pension fund, 62073
notwithstanding any other provisions of the Revised Code or rules 62074
adopted pursuant thereto by any state agency with respect to 62075
investments by them, and are also acceptable as security for the 62076
deposit of public moneys.62077

       (M) All facilities or entrepreneurial projects purchased, 62078
acquired, constructed, or owned by an institution of higher 62079
education, or financed in whole or in part by obligations or 62080
assurances issued by an institution, and used for the purposes of 62081
the institution or other publicly owned and controlled college or 62082
university, is public property used exclusively for a public 62083
purpose, and such property and the income therefrom is exempt from 62084
all taxation and assessment within this state, including ad 62085
valorem and excise taxes. The obligations or assurances, the 62086
transfer thereof, and the income therefrom, including any profit 62087
made on the sale thereof, are at all times free from taxation 62088
within the state. The transfer of tangible personal property by 62089
lease under authority of this section or section 3345.07, 3345.11, 62090
3345.36, 3354.121, 3355.091, 3357.112, or 3358.10 of the Revised 62091
Code is not a sale as used in Chapter 5739. of the Revised Code.62092

       (N) The authority granted by this section is cumulative with 62093
the authority granted to institutions of higher education under 62094
Chapter 154. of the Revised Code, and nothing in this section 62095
impairs or limits the authority granted by Chapter 154. of the 62096
Revised Code. In any lease, agreement, or commitment made by an 62097
institution of higher education under Chapter 154. of the Revised 62098
Code, it may agree to restrict or subordinate any pledge it may 62099
thereafter make under authority of this section.62100

       (O) Title to lands acquired under this section and sections 62101
3345.07 and 3345.11 of the Revised Code by a state university or 62102
college shall be taken in the name of the state.62103

       (P) Except where costs of facilities or entrepreneurial 62104
projects are to be paid in whole or in part from funds 62105
appropriated by the general assembly, section 125.81 of the 62106
Revised Code and the requirement for certification with respect 62107
thereto under section 153.04 of the Revised Code do not apply to 62108
such facilities or entrepreneurial projects.62109

       (Q) A state university or college may sell or lease lands or 62110
interests in land owned by it or by the state for its use, or 62111
facilities authorized to be acquired or constructed by it under 62112
section 3345.07 or 3345.11 of the Revised Code, to permit the 62113
purchasers or lessees thereof to acquire, construct, equip, 62114
furnish, reconstruct, alter, enlarge, remodel, renovate, 62115
rehabilitate, improve, maintain, repair, or maintain and operate 62116
thereon and to provide by lease or otherwise to such institution, 62117
facilities authorized in section 3345.07 or 3345.11 of the Revised 62118
Code or entrepreneurial projects authorized under section 3345.36 62119
of the Revised Code. Such land or interests therein shall be sold 62120
for such appraised value, or leased, and on such terms as the 62121
board of trustees determines. All deeds or other instruments 62122
relating to such sales or leases shall be executed by such officer 62123
of the state university or college as the board of trustees 62124
designates. The state university or college shall hold, invest, or 62125
use the proceeds of such sales or leases for the same purposes for 62126
which proceeds of borrowings may be used under sections 3345.07 62127
and 3345.11 of the Revised Code or, if the proceeds relate to the 62128
sale or lease of entrepreneurial projects, for purposes of section 62129
3345.36 of the Revised Code.62130

       (R) An institution of higher education may pledge available 62131
receipts, to the extent permitted by division (C) of this section 62132
with respect to obligations, to secure the payments to be made by 62133
it under any lease, lease with option to purchase, or 62134
lease-purchase agreement authorized under this section or section 62135
3345.07, 3345.11, 3345.36, 3354.121, 3355.091, 3357.112, or 62136
3358.10 of the Revised Code.62137

       Sec. 3345.48. (A) As used in this section:62138

        (1) "Cohort" means a group of students who will complete 62139
their bachelor's degree requirements and graduate from a state 62140
university at the same time. A cohort may include transfer 62141
students and other selected undergraduate student academic 62142
programs as determined by the board of trustees of a state 62143
university.62144

        (2) "Eligible student" means an undergraduate student who:62145

        (a) Is enrolled full-time in a bachelor's degree program at a 62146
state university;62147

        (b) Is a resident of this state, as defined by the chancellor 62148
of the Ohio board of regents under section 3333.31 of the Revised 62149
Code.62150

        (3) "State university" has the same meaning as in section 62151
3345.011 of the Revised Code.62152

        (B) The board of trustees of a state university may establish 62153
an undergraduate tuition guarantee program that allows eligible 62154
students in the same cohort to pay a fixed rate for general and 62155
instructional fees for four years. A board of trustees may include 62156
room and board and any additional fees in the program.62157

        If the board of trustees chooses to establish such a program, 62158
the board shall adopt rules for the program that include, but are 62159
not limited to, all of the following:62160

        (1) The number of credit hours required to earn an 62161
undergraduate degree in each major;62162

        (2) A guarantee that the general and instructional fees for 62163
each student in the cohort shall remain constant for four years so 62164
long as the student complies with the requirements of the program, 62165
except that, notwithstanding any law to the contrary, the board 62166
may increase the guaranteed amount by up to six per cent above 62167
what has been charged in the previous academic year one time for 62168
the first cohort enrolled under the tuition guarantee program. If 62169
the board of trustees determines that economic conditions or other 62170
circumstances require an increase for the first cohort of above 62171
six per cent, the board shall submit a request to increase the 62172
amount by a specified percentage to the chancellor. The 62173
chancellor, based on information the chancellor requires from the 62174
board of trustees, shall approve or disapprove such a request. 62175
Thereafter, the board of trustees may increase the guaranteed 62176
amount by up to the sum of the following above what has been 62177
charged in the previous academic year one time per subsequent 62178
cohort:62179

        (a) The average rate of inflation, as measured by the 62180
consumer price index prepared by the bureau of labor statistics of 62181
the United States department of labor (all urban consumers, all 62182
items), for the previous sixty-month period; and62183

        (b) The percentage amount the general assembly restrains 62184
increases on in-state undergraduate instructional and general fees 62185
for the applicable fiscal year. If the general assembly does not 62186
enact a limit on the increase of in-state undergraduate 62187
instructional and general fees, then no limit shall apply under 62188
this division for the cohort that first enrolls in any academic 62189
year for which the general assembly does not prescribe a limit.62190

        If, beginning with the academic year that starts four years 62191
after the effective date of this section, the board of trustees 62192
determines that the general and instructional fees charged under 62193
the tuition guarantee have fallen significantly lower than those 62194
of other state universities, the board of trustees may submit a 62195
request to increase the amount charged to a cohort by a specified 62196
percentage to the chancellor, who shall approve or disapprove such 62197
a request.62198

        (3) A benchmark by which the board sets annual increases in 62199
general and instructional fees. This benchmark and any subsequent 62200
change to the benchmark shall be subject to approval of the 62201
chancellor.62202

        (4) Eligibility requirements for students to participate in 62203
the program;62204

        (5) Student rights and privileges under the program;62205

        (6) Consequences to the university for students unable to 62206
complete a degree program within four years, as follows:62207

        (a) For a student who could not complete the program in four 62208
years due to a lack of available classes or space in classes 62209
provided by the university, the university shall provide the 62210
necessary course or courses for completion to the student free of 62211
charge.62212

        (b) For a student who could not complete the program in four 62213
years due to military service or other circumstances beyond a 62214
student's control, as determined by the board of trustees, the 62215
university shall provide the necessary course or courses for 62216
completion to the student at the student's initial cohort rate.62217

        (c) For a student who did not complete the program in four 62218
years for any other reason, as determined by the board of 62219
trustees, the university shall provide the necessary course or 62220
courses for completion to the student at a rate determined through 62221
a method established by the board under division (B)(7) of this 62222
section.62223

        (7) Guidelines for adjusting a student's annual charges if 62224
the student, due to circumstances under the student's control, is 62225
unable to complete a degree program within four years;62226

        (8) A requirement that the rules adopted under division (B) 62227
of this section be published or posted in the university handbook, 62228
course catalog, and web site.62229

        (C) If a board of trustees implements a program under this 62230
section, the board shall submit the rules adopted under division 62231
(B) of this section to the chancellor for approval before 62232
beginning implementation of the program.62233

        The chancellor shall not unreasonably withhold approval of a 62234
program if the program conforms in principle with the parameters 62235
and guidelines of this section.62236

        (D) A board of trustees of a state university may establish 62237
an undergraduate tuition guarantee program for nonresident 62238
students.62239

        (E) Within five years after the effective date of this 62240
section, the chancellor shall publish on the board of regents web 62241
site a report that includes all of the following:62242

        (1) The state universities that have adopted an undergraduate 62243
tuition guarantee program under this section;62244

        (2) The details of each undergraduate tuition guarantee 62245
program established under this section;62246

        (3) Comparative data, including general and instructional 62247
fees, room and board, graduation rates, and retention rates, from 62248
all state universities.62249

       Sec. 3345.81. Not later than May 1, 2014, the board of 62250
trustees of each institution of higher education, as defined by 62251
section 3345.12 of the Revised Code, shall adopt an 62252
institution-specific strategic completion plan designed to 62253
increase the number of degrees awarded. The plan shall be 62254
consistent with the mission and strategic priorities of the 62255
institution and include measurable completion goals.62256

       Sec. 3350.15. The northeast Ohio medical university may enter 62257
into a partnership with Cleveland state university to establish 62258
the northeast Ohio medical university academic campus at Cleveland 62259
state university, to enable fifty per cent or more of the medical 62260
curriculum taught to students enrolled under this partnership to 62261
be based in Cleveland at Cleveland state university, local 62262
hospitals, and community- and neighborhood-based primary care 62263
clinics. Cleveland state university shall not receive state 62264
capital appropriations to pay for facilities for the academic 62265
campus.62266

       Sec. 3353.01.  As used in this chapter:62267

       (A) "Educational television or radio" means television or 62268
radio programs which serve the educational needs of the community 62269
and which meet the requirements of the federal communications 62270
commission for noncommercial educational television or radio.62271

       (B) "Educational telecommunications network" means a system 62272
of connected educational television, radio, or radio reading 62273
service facilities and coordinated programs established and 62274
operated or controlled by the eTech Ohiobroadcast educational 62275
media commission, pursuant to this chapter.62276

       (C) "Transmission" means the sending out of television, 62277
radio, or radio reading service programs, either directly to the 62278
public, or to broadcasting stations or services for simultaneous 62279
broadcast or rebroadcast.62280

       (D) "Transmission facilities" means structures, equipment, 62281
material, and services used in the transmission of educational 62282
television, radio, or radio reading service programs.62283

       (E) "Interconnection facilities" means the equipment, 62284
material, and services used to link one location to another 62285
location or to several locations by means of telephone line, 62286
coaxial cable, microwave relays, or other available technologies.62287

       (F) "Broadcasting station" means a properly licensed 62288
noncommercial educational television or radio station, 62289
appropriately staffed and equipped to produce programs or lessons 62290
and to broadcast programs.62291

       (G) "Radio reading service" means a nonprofit organization 62292
that disseminates news and other information to blind and 62293
physically handicapped persons.62294

       (H) "Affiliate" means an educational telecommunication 62295
entity, including a television or radio broadcasting station or 62296
radio reading service.62297

       Sec. 3353.02.  (A) There is hereby created the eTech Ohio62298
broadcast educational media commission as an independent agency to 62299
advance education and accelerate the learning of the citizens of 62300
this state through technologypublic educational broadcasting 62301
services. The commission shall provide leadership and support in 62302
extending the knowledge of the citizens of this state by promoting 62303
access to and use of all forms of educational technology62304
broadcasting services, including educational television and radio,62305
and radio reading services, broadband networks, videotapes, 62306
compact discs, digital video on demand (DVD), and the internet. 62307
The commission also shall administer programs to provide financial 62308
and other assistance to school districts and other educational 62309
institutions for the acquisition and utilization of educational 62310
technologytelevision and radio and radio reading services.62311

       The commission is a body corporate and politic, an agency of 62312
the state performing essential governmental functions of the 62313
state.62314

       (B) The commission shall consist of thirteen members, nine of 62315
whom shall be voting members. Six of the voting members shall be 62316
representatives of the public selected from among leading citizens 62317
in the state who have demonstrated interest in educational 62318
broadcast media through service on boards or advisory councils of 62319
educational television stations, educational radio stations, 62320
educational technology agencies, or radio reading services. Of the 62321
representatives of the public, four shall be appointed by the 62322
governor with the advice and consent of the senate, one shall be 62323
appointed by the speaker of the house of representatives, and one 62324
shall be appointed by the president of the senate. The 62325
superintendent of public instruction or a designee of the 62326
superintendent, the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents or a 62327
designee of the chancellor, and the state chief information 62328
officer or a designee of the officer shall be ex officio voting 62329
members. Of the nonvoting members, two shall be members of the 62330
house of representatives appointed by the speaker of the house of 62331
representatives and two shall be members of the senate appointed 62332
by the president of the senate. The members appointed from each 62333
chamber shall not be members of the same political party.62334

       (C) Initial terms of office for members appointed by the 62335
governor shall be one year for one member, two years for one 62336
member, three years for one member, and four years for one member. 62337
At the first meeting of the commission, members appointed by the 62338
governor shall draw lots to determine the length of the term each 62339
member will serve. Thereafter, terms of office for members 62340
appointed by the governor shall be for four years. Terms of office 62341
for voting members appointed by the speaker of the house of 62342
representatives and the president of the senate shall be for four 62343
years. Any member who is a representative of the public may be 62344
reappointed by the member's respective appointing authority, but 62345
no such member may serve more than two consecutive four-year 62346
terms. Such a member may be removed by the member's respective 62347
appointing authority for cause.62348

       Any legislative member appointed by the speaker of the house 62349
of representatives or the president of the senate who ceases to be 62350
a member of the legislative chamber from which the member was 62351
appointed shall cease to be a member of the commission. The 62352
speaker of the house of representatives and the president of the 62353
senate may remove their respective appointments to the commission 62354
at any time.62355

       (D) Vacancies among appointed members shall be filled in the 62356
manner provided for original appointments. Any member appointed to 62357
fill a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for 62358
which the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for 62359
the remainder of that term. Any appointed member shall continue in 62360
office subsequent to the expiration of that member's term until 62361
the member's successor takes office or until a period of sixty 62362
days has elapsed, whichever occurs first.62363

       (E) Members of the commission shall serve without 62364
compensation. The members who are representatives of the public 62365
shall be reimbursed, pursuant to office of budget and management 62366
guidelines, for actual and necessary expenses incurred in the 62367
performance of official duties.62368

       (F) The governor shall appoint the chairperson of the 62369
commission from among the commission's public voting members. The 62370
chairperson shall serve a term of two years and may be 62371
reappointed. The commission shall elect other officers as 62372
necessary from among its voting members and shall prescribe its 62373
rules of procedure.62374

       (G) The commission shall establish advisory groups as needed 62375
to address topics of interest and to provide guidance to the 62376
commission regarding educational technology issues and the 62377
technology needs of educators, learners, and the public. Members 62378
of each advisory group shall be appointed by the commission and 62379
shall include representatives of individuals or organizations with 62380
an interest in the topic addressed by the advisory group.62381

       Sec. 3353.03.  (A) The eTech Ohiobroadcast educational media62382
commission shall appoint an executive director, who shall serve at 62383
the pleasure of the commission. The executive director shall have 62384
no authority other than that provided by law or delegated to the 62385
executive director by the commission. The executive director shall 62386
do all of the following:62387

       (1) Direct commission employees in the administration of all 62388
programs of the commission;62389

       (2) Provide leadership and support in extending the knowledge 62390
of the citizens of this state by promoting equal access to and use 62391
of all forms of educational technologybroadcast media, as 62392
directed by the commission;62393

       (3) Provide financial and other assistance to school 62394
districts, educational television and radio stations, radio 62395
reading services, educational technology organizations, and other 62396
educational institutions for the acquisition and utilization of 62397
educational technologyand related organizations and activities;62398

       (4) Implement policies and directives issued by the 62399
commission;62400

       (5) Perform other duties authorized by the commission.62401

       (B) The commission shall fix the compensation of the 62402
executive director. The executive director shall employ and fix 62403
the compensation for such employees as necessary to facilitate the 62404
activities and purposes of the commission. The employees shall 62405
serve at the pleasure of the executive director.62406

       (C) The employees of the commission shall be placed in the 62407
unclassified service. 62408

       (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(2) of this section, 62409
the employees of the commission shall be exempt from Chapter 4117. 62410
of the Revised Code and shall not be public employees as defined 62411
in section 4117.01 of the Revised Code.62412

       (2) All employees of the commission who transferred to the 62413
commission from one of the commission's predecessor agencies upon 62414
the commission's creation and, when employed by the predecessor 62415
agency were included in a bargaining unit established under 62416
Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code, shall continue to be included 62417
in that bargaining unit, are public employees as defined in 62418
section 4117.01 of the Revised Code, and may collectively bargain 62419
with the commission in accordance with that chapter. Otherwise, 62420
any employee hired by the commission after July 1, 2005, either to 62421
fill vacancies or to fill new positions, shall be exempt from 62422
Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code and shall not be public 62423
employees as defined in section 4117.10 of the Revised Code.62424

       Sec. 3353.04. (A) The eTech Ohiobroadcast educational media62425
commission may perform any act necessary to carry out the 62426
functions of this chapter, including any of the following:62427

       (1) Make grants to institutions and other organizations as 62428
prescribed by the general assembly for the provision of technical 62429
assistance, professional development, and other support services 62430
to enable school districts, community schools established under 62431
Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, other educational institutions, 62432
and affiliates to utilize educational technology;62433

       (2) Establish a reporting system for school districts, 62434
community schools, other educational institutions, affiliates, and 62435
educational technology organizations that receive financial 62436
assistance from the commission. The system may require the 62437
reporting of information regarding the manner in which the 62438
assistance was expended, the manner in which the equipment or 62439
services purchased with the assistance is being utilized, the 62440
results or outcome of the utilization, the manner in which the 62441
utilization is compatible with the statewide academic standards 62442
adopted by the state board of education pursuant to section 62443
3301.079 of the Revised Code, and any other information determined 62444
by the commission.62445

       (3) Ensure that, where appropriate, products produced by any 62446
entity to which the commission provides financial assistance for 62447
use in elementary and secondary education are aligned with the 62448
statewide academic standards adopted by the state board pursuant 62449
to section 3301.079 of the Revised Code;62450

       (4) Promote accessibility tothrough broadcasting services of62451
educational products aligned with the statewide academic 62452
standards, adopted by the state board pursuant to section 3301.079 62453
of the Revised Code, for school districts, community schools, and 62454
other entities serving grades kindergarten through twelve;62455

       (5)(2) Own or operate transmission facilities and 62456
interconnection facilities, or contract for transmission 62457
facilities and interconnection facilities, for an educational 62458
television, radio, or radio reading service network;62459

       (6)(3) Establish standards for interconnection facilities 62460
used by the commission in the transmission of educational 62461
television, radio, or radio reading service programming;62462

        (7)(4) Enter into agreements with noncommercial educational 62463
television or radio broadcasting stations or radio reading 62464
services for the operation of the interconnection; 62465

       (8)(5) Enter into agreements with noncommercial educational 62466
television or radio broadcasting stations or radio reading 62467
services for the production and use of educational television, 62468
radio, or radio reading service programs to be transmitted by the 62469
educational telecommunications network;62470

       (9)(6) Execute contracts and other agreements necessary and 62471
desirable to carry out the purposes of this chapter and other 62472
duties prescribed to the commission by law or authorize the 62473
executive director of the commission to execute such contracts and 62474
agreements on the commission's behalf;62475

       (10)(7) Act as consultant with educational television and 62476
educational radio stations and radio reading services toward 62477
coordination within the state of the distribution of federal funds 62478
that may become available for equipment for educational 62479
broadcasting or radio reading services;62480

       (11)(8) Make payments to noncommercial Ohio educational 62481
television or radio broadcasting stations or radio reading 62482
services to sustain the operation of such stations or services;62483

       (12)(9) In consultation with participants in programs 62484
administered by the commission, establish guidelines governing 62485
purchasing and procurement that facilitate the timely and 62486
effective implementation of such programs;62487

       (13)(10) In consultation with participants in programs 62488
administered by the commission, consider the efficiency and cost 62489
savings of statewide procurement prior to allocating and releasing 62490
funds for such programs;62491

       (14)(11) In consultation with participants in programs 62492
administered by the commission, establish a systems support 62493
network to facilitate the timely implementation of the programs 62494
and other projects and activities for which the commission 62495
provides assistance.62496

       (B) Chapters 123., 124., 125., and 153. of the Revised Code 62497
and sections 9.331 to 9.335 of the Revised Code do not apply to 62498
contracts, programs, projects, or activities of the commission.62499

       Sec. 3353.06.  (A) The affiliates services fund is hereby 62500
created in the state treasury. The eTech Ohiobroadcast 62501
educational media commission shall deposit any money it receives 62502
for services provided to affiliates to the credit of the fund, 62503
including:62504

       (1) Reimbursements for services provided to stations;62505

       (2) Charges levied for maintenance of telecommunications, 62506
broadcasting, or transmission equipment;62507

       (3) Contract or grant payments from affiliates.62508

       (B) The commission shall use money credited to the affiliates 62509
services fund for any commission operating purposes, including:62510

       (1) The purchase, repair, or maintenance of 62511
telecommunications, broadcasting, or transmission equipment;62512

       (2) The purchase or lease of educational programming;62513

       (3) The purchase of tape and digital media storage and 62514
maintenance of a media library;62515

       (4) Professional development programs and services;62516

       (5) Administrative expenses.62517

       Sec. 3353.07.  (A) There is hereby created the Ohio 62518
government telecommunications service. The Ohio government 62519
telecommunications service shall provide the state government and 62520
affiliated organizations with multimedia support including audio, 62521
visual, and internet services, multimedia streaming, and hosting 62522
multimedia programs.62523

       Services relating to the official activities of the general 62524
assembly and the executive offices provided by the Ohio government 62525
telecommunications service shall be funded through grants to a 62526
publican educational television broadcasting station that will 62527
manage the staff and provide the services of the Ohio government 62528
telecommunications service. The Ohio educational television 62529
stations shall select a member station to manage the Ohio 62530
government telecommunications service. The Ohio government 62531
telecommunications service shall receive grants from, or contract 62532
with, any of the three branches of Ohio government, and their 62533
affiliates, to provide additional services. Services provided by 62534
the Ohio government telecommunications service shall not be used 62535
for political purposes included in campaign materials, or 62536
otherwise used to influence an election, legislation, issue, 62537
judicial decision, or other policy of state government.62538

       (B)(1) There is hereby created the legislative programming 62539
committee of the Ohio government telecommunications service that 62540
shall consist of the president of the senate, speaker of the house 62541
of representatives, minority leader of the senate, and minority 62542
leader of the house of representatives, or their designees, and 62543
the clerks of the senate and house of representatives as 62544
nonvoting, ex officio members. By a vote of a majority of its 62545
members, the program committee may add additional members to the 62546
committee.62547

       (2) The legislative programming committee shall adopt rules 62548
that govern the operation of the Ohio government 62549
telecommunications service relating to the general assembly and 62550
any affiliated organizations.62551

       Sec. 3365.01.  As used in this chapter:62552

       (A) "College" means any state-assisted college or university 62553
described in section 3333.041 of the Revised Code, any nonprofit 62554
institution holding a certificate of authorization pursuant to 62555
Chapter 1713. of the Revised Code, any private institution exempt 62556
from regulation under Chapter 3332. of the Revised Code as 62557
prescribed in section 3333.046 of the Revised Code, and any 62558
institution holding a certificate of registration from the state 62559
board of career colleges and schools and program authorization for 62560
an associate or bachelor's degree program issued under section 62561
3332.05 of the Revised Code.62562

       (B) "School district," except as specified in division (G) of 62563
this section, means any school district to which a student is 62564
admitted under section 3313.64, 3313.65, 3313.98, or 3317.08 of 62565
the Revised Code and does not include a joint vocational or 62566
cooperative education school district.62567

       (C) "Parent" has the same meaning as in section 3313.64 of 62568
the Revised Code.62569

       (D) "Participant" means a student enrolled in a college under 62570
the post-secondary enrollment options program established by this 62571
chapter, including a student who has been excused from the 62572
compulsory attendance law for the purpose of home instruction 62573
under section 3321.04 of the Revised Code.62574

       (E) "Secondary grade" means the ninth through twelfth grades.62575

       (F) "School foundation payments" means the amount required to 62576
be paid to a school district for a fiscal year under Chapter 3317. 62577
of the Revised Code.62578

       (G) "Tuition base" means, with respect to a participant's 62579
school district, the sum of the formula amount plus the per pupil 62580
amount of the base funding supplements specified in divisions 62581
(C)(1) to (4) of section 3317.0123317.02 of the Revised Code for 62582
the applicable fiscal year 2009.62583

       The participant's "school district" in the case of a 62584
participant enrolled in a community school shall be the school 62585
district in which the student is entitled to attend school under 62586
section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the Revised Code.62587

       (H) "Educational program" means enrollment in one or more 62588
school districts, in a nonpublic school, or in a college under 62589
division (B) of section 3365.04 of the Revised Code.62590

       (I) "Nonpublic school" means a chartered or nonchartered 62591
school for which minimum standards are prescribed by the state 62592
board of education pursuant to division (D) of section 3301.07 of 62593
the Revised Code.62594

       (J) "School year" means the year beginning on the first day 62595
of July and ending on the thirtieth day of June.62596

       (K) "Community school" means any school established pursuant 62597
to Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code that includes secondary 62598
grades.62599

       (L) "STEM school" means a science, technology, engineering, 62600
and mathematics school established under Chapter 3326. of the 62601
Revised Code.62602

       Sec. 3365.02.  There is hereby established the post-secondary 62603
enrollment options program under which a secondary grade student 62604
who is a resident of this state may enroll at a college, on a 62605
full- or part-time basis, and complete nonsectarian courses for 62606
high school and college credit.62607

       Secondary grade students in a nonpublic school may 62608
participate in the post-secondary enrollment options program if 62609
the chief administrator of such school notifies the department of 62610
education by the first day of April prior to the school year in 62611
which the school's students will participate.62612

       The state board of education, after consulting with the board 62613
of regents, shall adopt rules governing the program. The rules 62614
shall include:62615

       (A) Requirements for school districts, community schools, or 62616
participating nonpublic schools to provide information about the 62617
program prior to the first day of March of each year to all 62618
students enrolled in grades eight through eleven;62619

       (B) A requirement that a student or the student's parent 62620
inform the district board of education, the governing authority of 62621
a community school, the STEM school chief administrative officer, 62622
or the nonpublic school administrator by the thirtieth day of 62623
March of the student's intent to participate in the program during 62624
the following school year. The rule shall provide that any student 62625
who fails to provide the notification by the required date may not 62626
participate in the program during the following school year 62627
without the written consent of the district superintendent, the 62628
governing authority of a community school, the STEM school chief 62629
administrative officer, or the nonpublic school administrator.62630

       (C) Requirements that school districts, community schools, 62631
and STEM schools provide counseling services to students in grades 62632
eight through eleven and to their parents before the students 62633
participate in the program under this chapter to ensure that 62634
students and parents are fully aware of the possible risks and 62635
consequences of participation. Counseling information shall 62636
include without limitation:62637

       (1) Program eligibility;62638

       (2) The process for granting academic credits;62639

       (3) Financial arrangements for tuition, books, materials, and 62640
fees;62641

       (4) Criteria for any transportation aid;62642

       (5) Available support services;62643

       (6) Scheduling;62644

       (7) The consequences of failing or not completing a course in 62645
which the student enrolls and the effect of the grade attained in 62646
the course being included in the student's grade point average, if 62647
applicable;62648

       (8) The effect of program participation on the student's 62649
ability to complete the district's or school's graduation 62650
requirements;62651

       (9) The academic and social responsibilities of students and 62652
parents under the program;62653

       (10) Information about and encouragement to use the 62654
counseling services of the college in which the student intends to 62655
enroll.62656

       (11) A list of all institutions of higher education that 62657
currently participate in the program or in another dual enrollment 62658
program, as defined in section 3313.6013 of the Revised Code, 62659
compiled and distributed by the department of education pursuant 62660
to division (G) of this section.62661

       (D) A requirement that the student and the student's parent 62662
sign a form, provided by the school district or school, stating 62663
that they have received the counseling required by division (C) of 62664
this section and that they understand the responsibilities they 62665
must assume in the program;62666

       (E) The options required by section 3365.04 of the Revised 62667
Code;62668

       (F) A requirement that a student may not enroll in any 62669
specific college course through the program if the student has 62670
taken high school courses in the same subject area as that college 62671
course and has failed to attain a cumulative grade point average 62672
of at least 3.0 on a 4.0 scale, or the equivalent, in such 62673
completed high school coursesA requirement that student 62674
participation in the program be based solely on a participating 62675
college's established admission standards.62676

       (G) A requirement that the department of education annually 62677
compile a list of all institutions of higher education that 62678
currently participate in the program or in another dual enrollment 62679
program as defined in section 3313.6013 of the Revised Code and, 62680
not later than the thirty-first day of December of each school 62681
year, distribute this list to all school districts, community 62682
schools, STEM schools, and chartered nonpublic schools in the 62683
state.62684

       Sec. 3365.021.  The chief administrator of any nonpublic 62685
school notifying the department of education that students of the 62686
school will participate in the post-secondary enrollment options 62687
program shall provide counseling to students in grades eight 62688
through eleven and to their parents before the students 62689
participate in the program to ensure that students and parents are 62690
fully aware of the possible risks and consequences of 62691
participation. Such counseling shall include explaining the fact 62692
that funding may be limited and that not all students who wish to 62693
participate may be able to do so.62694

       The chief administrator also shall provide students and 62695
parents with a list of all institutions of higher education that 62696
currently participate in the program or in another dual enrollment 62697
program as defined in section 3313.6013 of the Revised Code, 62698
compiled and distributed by the department of education pursuant 62699
to division (G) of section 3365.02 of the Revised Code.62700

       Sec. 3365.022.  (A) Beginning July 1, 2013, a student who has 62701
been excused from the compulsory attendance law for the purpose of 62702
home instruction under section 3321.04 of the Revised Code, and is 62703
the equivalent of a ninth, tenth, eleventh, or twelfth grader may 62704
participate in the post-secondary enrollment options program 62705
established under this chapter. 62706

       (B)(1) If a student meets the criteria established in 62707
division (A) of this section and wishes to participate in the 62708
post-secondary enrollment options program, the parent or guardian 62709
of that student shall notify the department of education by the 62710
first day of April prior to the school year in which the student 62711
wishes to participate. 62712

       (2) For the 2013-2014 school year, the department may accept 62713
applications at a later date if that student wishes to participate 62714
in the program during the 2013-2014 school year.62715

       (C) Pursuant to rules adopted by the state board of education 62716
under section 3365.02 of the Revised Code, payments to a 62717
participating college, in which home-instructed students enrolled 62718
pursuant to this section, shall be made in the same manner as 62719
payments made for participating students from nonpublic secondary 62720
schools, pursuant to section 3365.07 of the Revised Code.62721

       Sec. 3365.07.  (A) The rules adopted under section 3365.02 of 62722
the Revised Code shall specify a method for each of the following:62723

       (1) Determining, with respect to any participant, the 62724
percentage of a full-time educational program constituted by the 62725
participant's total educational program. That percentage shall be 62726
the participant's full-time equivalency percentage for purposes of 62727
the computation required by division (B)(1) of this section.62728

       (2) In the case of a participant who is not enrolled in a 62729
participating nonpublic school, determining the percentage of a 62730
participant's school day during which the participant is 62731
participating in each of the following:62732

       (a) Programs provided by the city, local, or exempted village 62733
school district, a community school, or a STEM school;62734

       (b) Programs provided by a joint vocational school district;62735

       (c) Programs provided by a college under division (B) of 62736
section 3365.04 of the Revised Code.62737

The sum of divisions (A)(2)(a) to (c) of this section shall equal 62738
one hundred per cent.62739

       (3) In the case of a participant who is not enrolled in a 62740
participating nonpublic school, determining the percentage of a 62741
participant's enrollment that shall be deemed to be enrollment in 62742
a joint vocational school district and the percentage that shall 62743
be deemed to be enrollment in a city, local, or exempted village 62744
school district. The sum of such percentages shall equal one 62745
hundred per cent.62746

       (4) In the case of a participant who is enrolled in a 62747
participating nonpublic school, determining the percentage of a 62748
participant's school day during which the participant is 62749
participating in programs provided by a college under division (B) 62750
of section 3365.04 of the Revised Code.62751

       (B) Each July, unless provided otherwise in an alternative 62752
funding agreement entered into under rules adopted under section 62753
3365.12 of the Revised Code, the department of education shall pay 62754
each college for any participant enrolled in the college in the 62755
prior school year under division (B) of section 3365.04 of the 62756
Revised Code an amount computed as follows:62757

       (1) Multiply the tuition base by the participant's full-time 62758
equivalency percentage and multiply the resulting amount by a 62759
percentage equal to the percentage of the participant's school day 62760
apportioned to the college under division (A)(2)(c) or (4) of this 62761
section, as applicable.62762

       (2) Pay the college the lesser of:62763

       (a) The amount computed under division (B)(1) of this 62764
section;62765

       (b) The actual costs that would have been the responsibility 62766
of the participant had the participant elected to enroll under 62767
division (A) of section 3365.04 of the Revised Code, as verified 62768
by the department, of tuition, textbooks, materials, and fees 62769
directly related to any courses elected by the participant during 62770
the prior school year under division (B) of section 3365.04 of the 62771
Revised Code.62772

       (C) The department shall not reimburse anya college for any 62773
of the following:62774

       (1) A college course taken by a participant under division 62775
(A) of section 3365.04 of the Revised Code;62776

       (2) A remedial college course taken by a participant.62777

       (D) If the participant was not enrolled in a participating 62778
nonpublic school, the amount paid under division (B) of this 62779
section for each participant shall be subtracted from the school 62780
foundation payments made to the participant's school district or, 62781
if the participant was enrolled in a community school or a STEM 62782
school, from the payments made to the participant's school under 62783
section 3314.08 or 3326.33 of the Revised Code. If the participant 62784
was enrolled in a joint vocational school district, a portion of 62785
the amount shall be subtracted from the payments to the joint 62786
vocational school district and a portion shall be subtracted from 62787
the payments to the participant's city, local, or exempted village 62788
school district. The amount of the payment subtracted from the 62789
city, local, or exempted village school district shall be computed 62790
as follows:62791

       (1) Add the following:62792

       (a) The percentage of the participant's enrollment in the 62793
school district, determined under division (A)(3) of this section; 62794
and62795

       (b) Twenty-five per cent times the percentage of the 62796
participant's enrollment in the joint vocational school district, 62797
determined under division (A)(3) of this section.62798

       (2) Multiply the sum obtained under division (D)(1) of this 62799
section by the amount computed under division (B)(2) of this 62800
section.62801

The balance of the payment shall be subtracted from the joint 62802
vocational district's school foundation payments.62803

       (E) If the participant was enrolled in a participating 62804
nonpublic school, the amount paid under division (B) of this 62805
section shall be subtracted from moneys set aside by the general 62806
assembly for such purpose from funds appropriated for the purposes 62807
of section 3317.06 of the Revised Code.62808

       Sec. 3365.12. The superintendent of public instruction and 62809
the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents jointly may adopt 62810
rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 62811
permitting a board of education of a school district or joint 62812
vocational school district, governing authority of a community 62813
school, governing body of a STEM school, or governing authority of 62814
a participating nonpublic school to enter into an agreement with a 62815
college or university to use an alternate funding formula to 62816
calculate, or an alternate method to transmit, the amount the 62817
college or university would be paid for a student participating in 62818
a program under this chapter, including the program known as 62819
seniors to sophomores.62820

       Rules adopted under this section may include, but need not be 62821
limited to, any of the following alternative funding options:62822

       (A) Direct payment of funds necessary to support students 62823
participating in a program under this chapter, including the 62824
seniors to sophomores program, by the school district, joint 62825
vocational school district, community school, STEM school, or any 62826
combination thereof, to the college or university in which the 62827
student enrolled;62828

       (B) Alternate funding formulas to calculate the amount of 62829
money to be paid to colleges for participants;62830

       (C) A negotiated amount to be paid, as agreed by the school 62831
district, joint vocational school district, community school, or 62832
STEM school and the college or university. 62833

       Rules adopted under this section shall prohibit any 62834
alternative funding option to include charging a student 62835
participating in the program under this chapter any tuition or 62836
fees.62837

       Sec. 3501.01.  As used in the sections of the Revised Code 62838
relating to elections and political communications:62839

       (A) "General election" means the election held on the first 62840
Tuesday after the first Monday in each November.62841

       (B) "Regular municipal election" means the election held on 62842
the first Tuesday after the first Monday in November in each 62843
odd-numbered year.62844

       (C) "Regular state election" means the election held on the 62845
first Tuesday after the first Monday in November in each 62846
even-numbered year.62847

       (D) "Special election" means any election other than those 62848
elections defined in other divisions of this section. A special 62849
election may be held only on the first Tuesday after the first 62850
Monday in February, May, August, or November, or on the day 62851
authorized by a particular municipal or county charter for the 62852
holding of a primary election, except that in any year in which a 62853
presidential primary election is held, no special election shall 62854
be held in February or May, except as authorized by a municipal or 62855
county charter, but may be held on the first Tuesday after the 62856
first Monday in March.62857

       (E)(1) "Primary" or "primary election" means an election held 62858
for the purpose of nominating persons as candidates of political 62859
parties for election to offices, and for the purpose of electing 62860
persons as members of the controlling committees of political 62861
parties and as delegates and alternates to the conventions of 62862
political parties. Primary elections shall be held on the first 62863
Tuesday after the first Monday in May of each year except in years 62864
in which a presidential primary election is held.62865

       (2) "Presidential primary election" means a primary election 62866
as defined by division (E)(1) of this section at which an election 62867
is held for the purpose of choosing delegates and alternates to 62868
the national conventions of the major political parties pursuant 62869
to section 3513.12 of the Revised Code. Unless otherwise 62870
specified, presidential primary elections are included in 62871
references to primary elections. In years in which a presidential 62872
primary election is held, all primary elections shall be held on 62873
the first Tuesday after the first Monday in March except as 62874
otherwise authorized by a municipal or county charter.62875

       (F) "Political party" means any group of voters meeting the 62876
requirements set forth in section 3517.01 of the Revised Code for 62877
the formation and existence of a political party.62878

       (1) "Major political party" means any political party 62879
organized under the laws of this state whose candidate for 62880
governor or nominees for presidential electors received no less 62881
than twenty per cent of the total vote cast for such office at the 62882
most recent regular state election.62883

       (2) "Intermediate political party" means any political party 62884
organized under the laws of this state whose candidate for 62885
governor or nominees for presidential electors received less than 62886
twenty per cent but not less than ten per cent of the total vote 62887
cast for such office at the most recent regular state election.62888

       (3) "Minor political party" means any political party 62889
organized under the laws of this state whose candidate for 62890
governor or nominees for presidential electors received less than 62891
ten per cent but not less than five per cent of the total vote 62892
cast for such office at the most recent regular state election or 62893
which has filed with the secretary of state, subsequent to any 62894
election in which it received less than five per cent of such 62895
vote, a petition signed by qualified electors equal in number to 62896
at least one per cent of the total vote cast for such office in 62897
the last preceding regular state election, except that a newly 62898
formed political party shall be known as a minor political party 62899
until the time of the first election for governor or president 62900
which occurs not less than twelve months subsequent to the 62901
formation of such party, after which election the status of such 62902
party shall be determined by the vote for the office of governor 62903
or president.62904

       (G) "Dominant party in a precinct" or "dominant political 62905
party in a precinct" means that political party whose candidate 62906
for election to the office of governor at the most recent regular 62907
state election at which a governor was elected received more votes 62908
than any other person received for election to that office in such 62909
precinct at such election.62910

       (H) "Candidate" means any qualified person certified in 62911
accordance with the provisions of the Revised Code for placement 62912
on the official ballot of a primary, general, or special election 62913
to be held in this state, or any qualified person who claims to be 62914
a write-in candidate, or who knowingly assents to being 62915
represented as a write-in candidate by another at either a 62916
primary, general, or special election to be held in this state.62917

       (I) "Independent candidate" means any candidate who claims 62918
not to be affiliated with a political party, and whose name has 62919
been certified on the office-type ballot at a general or special 62920
election through the filing of a statement of candidacy and 62921
nominating petition, as prescribed in section 3513.257 of the 62922
Revised Code.62923

       (J) "Nonpartisan candidate" means any candidate whose name is 62924
required, pursuant to section 3505.04 of the Revised Code, to be 62925
listed on the nonpartisan ballot, including all candidates for 62926
judicial office, for member of any board of education, for 62927
municipal or township offices in which primary elections are not 62928
held for nominating candidates by political parties, and for 62929
offices of municipal corporations having charters that provide for 62930
separate ballots for elections for these offices.62931

       (K) "Party candidate" means any candidate who claims to be a 62932
member of a political party, whose name has been certified on the 62933
office-type ballot at a general or special election through the 62934
filing of a declaration of candidacy and petition of candidate, 62935
and who has won the primary election of the candidate's party for 62936
the public office the candidate seeks or is selected by party 62937
committee in accordance with section 3513.31 of the Revised Code.62938

       (L) "Officer of a political party" includes, but is not 62939
limited to, any member, elected or appointed, of a controlling 62940
committee, whether representing the territory of the state, a 62941
district therein, a county, township, a city, a ward, a precinct, 62942
or other territory, of a major, intermediate, or minor political 62943
party.62944

       (M) "Question or issue" means any question or issue certified 62945
in accordance with the Revised Code for placement on an official 62946
ballot at a general or special election to be held in this state.62947

       (N) "Elector" or "qualified elector" means a person having 62948
the qualifications provided by law to be entitled to vote.62949

       (O) "Voter" means an elector who votes at an election.62950

       (P) "Voting residence" means that place of residence of an 62951
elector which shall determine the precinct in which the elector 62952
may vote.62953

       (Q) "Precinct" means a district within a county established 62954
by the board of elections of such county within which all 62955
qualified electors having a voting residence therein may vote at 62956
the same polling place.62957

       (R) "Polling place" means that place provided for each 62958
precinct at which the electors having a voting residence in such 62959
precinct may vote.62960

       (S) "Board" or "board of elections" means the board of 62961
elections appointed in a county pursuant to section 3501.06 of the 62962
Revised Code.62963

       (T) "Political subdivision" means a county, township, city, 62964
village, or school district.62965

       (U) "Election officer" or "election official" means any of 62966
the following:62967

       (1) Secretary of state;62968

       (2) Employees of the secretary of state serving the division 62969
of elections in the capacity of attorney, administrative officer, 62970
administrative assistant, elections administrator, office manager, 62971
or clerical supervisor;62972

       (3) Director of a board of elections;62973

       (4) Deputy director of a board of elections;62974

       (5) Member of a board of elections;62975

       (6) Employees of a board of elections;62976

       (7) Precinct polling place judges;62977

       (8) Employees appointed by the boards of elections on a 62978
temporary or part-time basis.62979

       (V) "Acknowledgment notice" means a notice sent by a board of 62980
elections, on a form prescribed by the secretary of state, 62981
informing a voter registration applicant or an applicant who 62982
wishes to change the applicant's residence or name of the status 62983
of the application; the information necessary to complete or 62984
update the application, if any; and if the application is 62985
complete, the precinct in which the applicant is to vote.62986

       (W) "Confirmation notice" means a notice sent by a board of 62987
elections, on a form prescribed by the secretary of state, to a 62988
registered elector to confirm the registered elector's current 62989
address.62990

       (X) "Designated agency" means an office or agency in the 62991
state that provides public assistance or that provides 62992
state-funded programs primarily engaged in providing services to 62993
persons with disabilities and that is required by the National 62994
Voter Registration Act of 1993 to implement a program designed and 62995
administered by the secretary of state for registering voters, or 62996
any other public or government office or agency that implements a 62997
program designed and administered by the secretary of state for 62998
registering voters, including the department of job and family 62999
services, the program administered under section 3701.132 of the 63000
Revised Code by the department of health, the department of mental 63001
healthmental health and addiction services, the department of 63002
developmental disabilities, the rehabilitation services commission63003
opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency, and any other 63004
agency the secretary of state designates. "Designated agency" does 63005
not include public high schools and vocational schools, public 63006
libraries, or the office of a county treasurer.63007

       (Y) "National Voter Registration Act of 1993" means the 63008
"National Voter Registration Act of 1993," 107 Stat. 77, 42 63009
U.S.C.A. 1973gg.63010

       (Z) "Voting Rights Act of 1965" means the "Voting Rights Act 63011
of 1965," 79 Stat. 437, 42 U.S.C.A. 1973, as amended.63012

       (AA) "Photo identification" means a document that meets each 63013
of the following requirements:63014

        (1) It shows the name of the individual to whom it was 63015
issued, which shall conform to the name in the poll list or 63016
signature pollbook.63017

        (2) It shows the current address of the individual to whom it 63018
was issued, which shall conform to the address in the poll list or 63019
signature pollbook, except for a driver's license or a state 63020
identification card issued under section 4507.50 of the Revised 63021
Code, which may show either the current or former address of the 63022
individual to whom it was issued, regardless of whether that 63023
address conforms to the address in the poll list or signature 63024
pollbook.63025

        (3) It shows a photograph of the individual to whom it was 63026
issued.63027

        (4) It includes an expiration date that has not passed.63028

        (5) It was issued by the government of the United States or 63029
this state.63030

       Sec. 3501.054. (A) The secretary of state shall adopt rules 63031
under section 111.15 of the Revised Code establishing customer 63032
service standards for the members and employees of the boards of 63033
elections and a method for the secretary of state to evaluate each 63034
board's compliance with those standards.63035

        (B) The secretary of state shall adopt rules under section 63036
111.15 of the Revised Code establishing a method for the secretary 63037
of state to evaluate the efficiency of each board of elections.63038

       Sec. 3517.10.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in this 63039
division, every campaign committee, political action committee, 63040
legislative campaign fund, political party, and political 63041
contributing entity that made or received a contribution or made 63042
an expenditure in connection with the nomination or election of 63043
any candidate or in connection with any ballot issue or question 63044
at any election held or to be held in this state shall file, on a 63045
form prescribed under this section or by electronic means of 63046
transmission as provided in this section and section 3517.106 of 63047
the Revised Code, a full, true, and itemized statement, made under 63048
penalty of election falsification, setting forth in detail the 63049
contributions and expenditures, not later than four p.m. of the 63050
following dates: 63051

       (1) The twelfth day before the election to reflect 63052
contributions received and expenditures made from the close of 63053
business on the last day reflected in the last previously filed 63054
statement, if any, to the close of business on the twentieth day 63055
before the election; 63056

       (2) The thirty-eighth day after the election to reflect the 63057
contributions received and expenditures made from the close of 63058
business on the last day reflected in the last previously filed 63059
statement, if any, to the close of business on the seventh day 63060
before the filing of the statement; 63061

       (3) The last business day of January of every year to reflect 63062
the contributions received and expenditures made from the close of 63063
business on the last day reflected in the last previously filed 63064
statement, if any, to the close of business on the last day of 63065
December of the previous year; 63066

       (4) The last business day of July of every year to reflect 63067
the contributions received and expenditures made from the close of 63068
business on the last day reflected in the last previously filed 63069
statement, if any, to the close of business on the last day of 63070
June of that year. 63071

       A campaign committee shall only be required to file the 63072
statements prescribed under divisions (A)(1) and (2) of this 63073
section in connection with the nomination or election of the 63074
committee's candidate. 63075

       The statement required under division (A)(1) of this section 63076
shall not be required of any campaign committee, political action 63077
committee, legislative campaign fund, political party, or 63078
political contributing entity that has received contributions of 63079
less than one thousand dollars and has made expenditures of less 63080
than one thousand dollars at the close of business on the 63081
twentieth day before the election. Those contributions and 63082
expenditures shall be reported in the statement required under 63083
division (A)(2) of this section. 63084

       If an election to select candidates to appear on the general 63085
election ballot is held within sixty days before a general 63086
election, the campaign committee of a successful candidate in the 63087
earlier election may file the statement required by division 63088
(A)(1) of this section for the general election instead of the 63089
statement required by division (A)(2) of this section for the 63090
earlier election if the pregeneral election statement reflects the 63091
status of contributions and expenditures for the period twenty 63092
days before the earlier election to twenty days before the general 63093
election. 63094

       If a person becomes a candidate less than twenty days before 63095
an election, the candidate's campaign committee is not required to 63096
file the statement required by division (A)(1) of this section. 63097

       No statement under division (A)(3) of this section shall be 63098
required for any year in which a campaign committee, political 63099
action committee, legislative campaign fund, political party, or 63100
political contributing entity is required to file a postgeneral 63101
election statement under division (A)(2) of this section. However, 63102
a statement under division (A)(3) of this section may be filed, at 63103
the option of the campaign committee, political action committee, 63104
legislative campaign fund, political party, or political 63105
contributing entity. 63106

       No campaign committee of a candidate for the office of chief 63107
justice or justice of the supreme court, and no campaign committee 63108
of a candidate for the office of judge of any court in this state, 63109
shall be required to file a statement under division (A)(4) of 63110
this section. 63111

       Except as otherwise provided in this paragraph and in the 63112
next paragraph of this section, the only campaign committees 63113
required to file a statement under division (A)(4) of this section 63114
are the campaign committee of a statewide candidate and the 63115
campaign committee of a candidate for county office. The campaign 63116
committee of a candidate for any other nonjudicial office is 63117
required to file a statement under division (A)(4) of this section 63118
if that campaign committee receives, during that period, 63119
contributions exceeding ten thousand dollars. 63120

       No statement under division (A)(4) of this section shall be 63121
required of a campaign committee, a political action committee, a 63122
legislative campaign fund, a political party, or a political 63123
contributing entity for any year in which the campaign committee, 63124
political action committee, legislative campaign fund, political 63125
party, or political contributing entity is required to file a 63126
postprimary election statement under division (A)(2) of this 63127
section. However, a statement under division (A)(4) of this 63128
section may be filed at the option of the campaign committee, 63129
political action committee, legislative campaign fund, political 63130
party, or political contributing entity. 63131

       No statement under division (A)(3) or (4) of this section 63132
shall be required if the campaign committee, political action 63133
committee, legislative campaign fund, political party, or 63134
political contributing entity has no contributions that it has 63135
received and no expenditures that it has made since the last date 63136
reflected in its last previously filed statement. However, the 63137
campaign committee, political action committee, legislative 63138
campaign fund, political party, or political contributing entity 63139
shall file a statement to that effect, on a form prescribed under 63140
this section and made under penalty of election falsification, on 63141
the date required in division (A)(3) or (4) of this section, as 63142
applicable. 63143

       The campaign committee of a statewide candidate shall file a 63144
monthly statement of contributions received during each of the 63145
months of July, August, and September in the year of the general 63146
election in which the candidate seeks office. The campaign 63147
committee of a statewide candidate shall file the monthly 63148
statement not later than three business days after the last day of 63149
the month covered by the statement. During the period beginning on 63150
the nineteenth day before the general election in which a 63151
statewide candidate seeks election to office and extending through 63152
the day of that general election, each time the campaign committee 63153
of the joint candidates for the offices of governor and lieutenant 63154
governor or of a candidate for the office of secretary of state, 63155
auditor of state, treasurer of state, or attorney general receives 63156
a contribution from a contributor that causes the aggregate amount 63157
of contributions received from that contributor during that period 63158
to equal or exceed ten thousand dollars and each time the campaign 63159
committee of a candidate for the office of chief justice or 63160
justice of the supreme court receives a contribution from a 63161
contributor that causes the aggregate amount of contributions 63162
received from that contributor during that period to exceed ten 63163
thousand dollars, the campaign committee shall file a 63164
two-business-day statement reflecting that contribution. During 63165
the period beginning on the nineteenth day before a primary 63166
election in which a candidate for statewide office seeks 63167
nomination to office and extending through the day of that primary 63168
election, each time either the campaign committee of a statewide 63169
candidate in that primary election that files a notice under 63170
division (C)(1) of section 3517.103 of the Revised Code or the 63171
campaign committee of a statewide candidate in that primary 63172
election to which, in accordance with division (D) of section 63173
3517.103 of the Revised Code, the contribution limitations 63174
prescribed in section 3517.102 of the Revised Code no longer apply 63175
receives a contribution from a contributor that causes the 63176
aggregate amount of contributions received from that contributor 63177
during that period to exceed ten thousand dollars, the campaign 63178
committee shall file a two-business-day statement reflecting that 63179
contribution. Contributions reported on a two-business-day 63180
statement required to be filed by a campaign committee of a 63181
statewide candidate in a primary election shall also be included 63182
in the postprimary election statement required to be filed by that 63183
campaign committee under division (A)(2) of this section. A 63184
two-business-day statement required by this paragraph shall be 63185
filed not later than two business days after receipt of the 63186
contribution. The statements required by this paragraph shall be 63187
filed in addition to any other statements required by this 63188
section. 63189

       Subject to the secretary of state having implemented, tested, 63190
and verified the successful operation of any system the secretary 63191
of state prescribes pursuant to divisions (C)(6)(b) and (D)(6) of 63192
this section and division (H)(1) of section 3517.106 of the 63193
Revised Code for the filing of campaign finance statements by 63194
electronic means of transmission, a campaign committee of a 63195
statewide candidate shall file a two-business-day statement under 63196
the preceding paragraph by electronic means of transmission if the 63197
campaign committee is required to file a pre-election, 63198
postelection, or monthly statement of contributions and 63199
expenditures by electronic means of transmission under this 63200
section or section 3517.106 of the Revised Code. 63201

       If a campaign committee or political action committee has no 63202
balance on hand and no outstanding obligations and desires to 63203
terminate itself, it shall file a statement to that effect, on a 63204
form prescribed under this section and made under penalty of 63205
election falsification, with the official with whom it files a 63206
statement under division (A) of this section after filing a final 63207
statement of contributions and a final statement of expenditures, 63208
if contributions have been received or expenditures made since the 63209
period reflected in its last previously filed statement. 63210

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(7) of this 63211
section, each statement required by division (A) of this section 63212
shall contain the following information: 63213

       (1) The full name and address of each campaign committee, 63214
political action committee, legislative campaign fund, political 63215
party, or political contributing entity, including any treasurer 63216
of the committee, fund, party, or entity, filing a contribution 63217
and expenditure statement; 63218

       (2)(a) In the case of a campaign committee, the candidate's 63219
full name and address; 63220

       (b) In the case of a political action committee, the 63221
registration number assigned to the committee under division 63222
(D)(1) of this section. 63223

       (3) The date of the election and whether it was or will be a 63224
general, primary, or special election; 63225

       (4) A statement of contributions received, which shall 63226
include the following information: 63227

       (a) The month, day, and year of the contribution; 63228

       (b)(i) The full name and address of each person, political 63229
party, campaign committee, legislative campaign fund, political 63230
action committee, or political contributing entity from whom 63231
contributions are received and the registration number assigned to 63232
the political action committee under division (D)(1) of this 63233
section. The requirement of filing the full address does not apply 63234
to any statement filed by a state or local committee of a 63235
political party, to a finance committee of such committee, or to a 63236
committee recognized by a state or local committee as its 63237
fund-raising auxiliary. Notwithstanding division (F) of this 63238
section, the requirement of filing the full address shall be 63239
considered as being met if the address filed is the same address 63240
the contributor provided under division (E)(1) of this section. 63241

       (ii) If a political action committee, political contributing 63242
entity, legislative campaign fund, or political party that is 63243
required to file campaign finance statements by electronic means 63244
of transmission under section 3517.106 of the Revised Code or a 63245
campaign committee of a statewide candidate or candidate for the 63246
office of member of the general assembly receives a contribution 63247
from an individual that exceeds one hundred dollars, the name of 63248
the individual's current employer, if any, or, if the individual 63249
is self-employed, the individual's occupation and the name of the 63250
individual's business, if any; 63251

       (iii) If a campaign committee of a statewide candidate or 63252
candidate for the office of member of the general assembly 63253
receives a contribution transmitted pursuant to section 3599.031 63254
of the Revised Code from amounts deducted from the wages and 63255
salaries of two or more employees that exceeds in the aggregate 63256
one hundred dollars during any one filing period under division 63257
(A)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of this section, the full name of the 63258
employees' employer and the full name of the labor organization of 63259
which the employees are members, if any. 63260

       (c) A description of the contribution received, if other than 63261
money; 63262

       (d) The value in dollars and cents of the contribution; 63263

       (e) A separately itemized account of all contributions and 63264
expenditures regardless of the amount, except a receipt of a 63265
contribution from a person in the sum of twenty-five dollars or 63266
less at one social or fund-raising activity and a receipt of a 63267
contribution transmitted pursuant to section 3599.031 of the 63268
Revised Code from amounts deducted from the wages and salaries of 63269
employees if the contribution from the amount deducted from the 63270
wages and salary of any one employee is twenty-five dollars or 63271
less aggregated in a calendar year. An account of the total 63272
contributions from each social or fund-raising activity shall 63273
include a description of and the value of each in-kind 63274
contribution received at that activity from any person who made 63275
one or more such contributions whose aggregate value exceeded two 63276
hundred fifty dollars and shall be listed separately, together 63277
with the expenses incurred and paid in connection with that 63278
activity. A campaign committee, political action committee, 63279
legislative campaign fund, political party, or political 63280
contributing entity shall keep records of contributions from each 63281
person in the amount of twenty-five dollars or less at one social 63282
or fund-raising activity and contributions from amounts deducted 63283
under section 3599.031 of the Revised Code from the wages and 63284
salary of each employee in the amount of twenty-five dollars or 63285
less aggregated in a calendar year. No continuing association that 63286
is recognized by a state or local committee of a political party 63287
as an auxiliary of the party and that makes a contribution from 63288
funds derived solely from regular dues paid by members of the 63289
auxiliary shall be required to list the name or address of any 63290
members who paid those dues. 63291

       Contributions that are other income shall be itemized 63292
separately from all other contributions. The information required 63293
under division (B)(4) of this section shall be provided for all 63294
other income itemized. As used in this paragraph, "other income" 63295
means a loan, investment income, or interest income. 63296

       (f) In the case of a campaign committee of a state elected 63297
officer, if a person doing business with the state elected officer 63298
in the officer's official capacity makes a contribution to the 63299
campaign committee of that officer, the information required under 63300
division (B)(4) of this section in regard to that contribution, 63301
which shall be filed together with and considered a part of the 63302
committee's statement of contributions as required under division 63303
(A) of this section but shall be filed on a separate form provided 63304
by the secretary of state. As used in this division: 63305

       (i) "State elected officer" has the same meaning as in 63306
section 3517.092 of the Revised Code. 63307

       (ii) "Person doing business" means a person or an officer of 63308
an entity who enters into one or more contracts with a state 63309
elected officer or anyone authorized to enter into contracts on 63310
behalf of that officer to receive payments for goods or services, 63311
if the payments total, in the aggregate, more than five thousand 63312
dollars during a calendar year. 63313

       (5) A statement of expenditures which shall include the 63314
following information: 63315

       (a) The month, day, and year of the expenditure; 63316

       (b) The full name and address of each person, political 63317
party, campaign committee, legislative campaign fund, political 63318
action committee, or political contributing entity to whom the 63319
expenditure was made and the registration number assigned to the 63320
political action committee under division (D)(1) of this section; 63321

       (c) The object or purpose for which the expenditure was made; 63322

       (d) The amount of each expenditure. 63323

       (C)(1) The statement of contributions and expenditures shall 63324
be signed by the person completing the form. If a statement of 63325
contributions and expenditures is filed by electronic means of 63326
transmission pursuant to this section or section 3517.106 of the 63327
Revised Code, the electronic signature of the person who executes 63328
the statement and transmits the statement by electronic means of 63329
transmission, as provided in division (H) of section 3517.106 of 63330
the Revised Code, shall be attached to or associated with the 63331
statement and shall be binding on all persons and for all purposes 63332
under the campaign finance reporting law as if the signature had 63333
been handwritten in ink on a printed form. 63334

       (2) The person filing the statement, under penalty of 63335
election falsification, shall include with it a list of each 63336
anonymous contribution, the circumstances under which it was 63337
received, and the reason it cannot be attributed to a specific 63338
donor. 63339

       (3) Each statement of a campaign committee of a candidate who 63340
holds public office shall contain a designation of each 63341
contributor who is an employee in any unit or department under the 63342
candidate's direct supervision and control. In a space provided in 63343
the statement, the person filing the statement shall affirm that 63344
each such contribution was voluntarily made. 63345

       (4) A campaign committee that did not receive contributions 63346
or make expenditures in connection with the nomination or election 63347
of its candidate shall file a statement to that effect, on a form 63348
prescribed under this section and made under penalty of election 63349
falsification, on the date required in division (A)(2) of this 63350
section. 63351

       (5) The campaign committee of any person who attempts to 63352
become a candidate and who, for any reason, does not become 63353
certified in accordance with Title XXXV of the Revised Code for 63354
placement on the official ballot of a primary, general, or special 63355
election to be held in this state, and who, at any time prior to 63356
or after an election, receives contributions or makes 63357
expenditures, or has given consent for another to receive 63358
contributions or make expenditures, for the purpose of bringing 63359
about the person's nomination or election to public office, shall 63360
file the statement or statements prescribed by this section and a 63361
termination statement, if applicable. Division (C)(5) of this 63362
section does not apply to any person with respect to an election 63363
to the offices of member of a county or state central committee, 63364
presidential elector, or delegate to a national convention or 63365
conference of a political party. 63366

       (6)(a) The statements required to be filed under this section 63367
shall specify the balance in the hands of the campaign committee, 63368
political action committee, legislative campaign fund, political 63369
party, or political contributing entity and the disposition 63370
intended to be made of that balance. 63371

       (b) The secretary of state shall prescribe the form for all 63372
statements required to be filed under this section and shall 63373
furnish the forms to the boards of elections in the several 63374
counties. The boards of elections shall supply printed copies of 63375
those forms without charge. The secretary of state shall prescribe 63376
the appropriate methodology, protocol, and data file structure for 63377
statements required or permitted to be filed by electronic means 63378
of transmission under division (A) of this section, divisions (E), 63379
(F), and (G) of section 3517.106, division (D) of section 63380
3517.1011, division (B) of section 3517.1012, division (C) of 63381
section 3517.1013, and divisions (D) and (I) of section 3517.1014 63382
of the Revised Code. Subject to division (A) of this section, 63383
divisions (E), (F), and (G) of section 3517.106, division (D) of 63384
section 3517.1011, division (B) of section 3517.1012, division (C) 63385
of section 3517.1013, and divisions (D) and (I) of section 63386
3517.1014 of the Revised Code, the statements required to be 63387
stored on computer by the secretary of state under division (B) of 63388
section 3517.106 of the Revised Code shall be filed in whatever 63389
format the secretary of state considers necessary to enable the 63390
secretary of state to store the information contained in the 63391
statements on computer. Any such format shall be of a type and 63392
nature that is readily available to whoever is required to file 63393
the statements in that format. 63394

       (c) The secretary of state shall assess the need for training 63395
regarding the filing of campaign finance statements by electronic 63396
means of transmission and regarding associated technologies for 63397
candidates, campaign committees, political action committees, 63398
legislative campaign funds, political parties, or political 63399
contributing entities, for individuals, partnerships, or other 63400
entities, for persons making disbursements to pay the direct costs 63401
of producing or airing electioneering communications, or for 63402
treasurers of transition funds, required or permitted to file 63403
statements by electronic means of transmission under this section 63404
or section 3517.105, 3517.106, 3517.1011, 3517.1012, 3517.1013, or 63405
3517.1014 of the Revised Code. If, in the opinion of the secretary 63406
of state, training in these areas is necessary, the secretary of 63407
state shall arrange for the provision of voluntary training 63408
programs for candidates, campaign committees, political action 63409
committees, legislative campaign funds, political parties, or 63410
political contributing entities, for individuals, partnerships, 63411
and other entities, for persons making disbursements to pay the 63412
direct costs of producing or airing electioneering communications, 63413
or for treasurers of transition funds, as appropriate. 63414

       (7) Each monthly statement and each two-business-day 63415
statement required by division (A) of this section shall contain 63416
the information required by divisions (B)(1) to (4), (C)(2), and, 63417
if appropriate, (C)(3) of this section. Each statement shall be 63418
signed as required by division (C)(1) of this section. 63419

       (D)(1) Prior to receiving a contribution or making an 63420
expenditure, every campaign committee, political action committee, 63421
legislative campaign fund, political party, or political 63422
contributing entity shall appoint a treasurer and shall file, on a 63423
form prescribed by the secretary of state, a designation of that 63424
appointment, including the full name and address of the treasurer 63425
and of the campaign committee, political action committee, 63426
legislative campaign fund, political party, or political 63427
contributing entity. That designation shall be filed with the 63428
official with whom the campaign committee, political action 63429
committee, legislative campaign fund, political party, or 63430
political contributing entity is required to file statements under 63431
section 3517.11 of the Revised Code. The name of a campaign 63432
committee shall include at least the last name of the campaign 63433
committee's candidate. If two or more candidates are the 63434
beneficiaries of a single campaign committee under division (B) of 63435
section 3517.081 of the Revised Code, the name of the campaign 63436
committee shall include at least the last name of each candidate 63437
who is a beneficiary of that campaign committee. The secretary of 63438
state shall assign a registration number to each political action 63439
committee that files a designation of the appointment of a 63440
treasurer under this division if the political action committee is 63441
required by division (A)(1) of section 3517.11 of the Revised Code 63442
to file the statements prescribed by this section with the 63443
secretary of state. 63444

       (2) The treasurer appointed under division (D)(1) of this 63445
section shall keep a strict account of all contributions, from 63446
whom received and the purpose for which they were disbursed. 63447

       (3)(a) Except as otherwise provided in section 3517.108 of 63448
the Revised Code, a campaign committee shall deposit all monetary 63449
contributions received by the committee into an account separate 63450
from a personal or business account of the candidate or campaign 63451
committee. 63452

       (b) A political action committee shall deposit all monetary 63453
contributions received by the committee into an account separate 63454
from all other funds. 63455

       (c) A state or county political party may establish a state 63456
candidate fund that is separate from an account that contains the 63457
public moneys received from the Ohio political party fund under 63458
section 3517.17 of the Revised Code and from all other funds. A 63459
state or county political party may deposit into its state 63460
candidate fund any amounts of monetary contributions that are made 63461
to or accepted by the political party subject to the applicable 63462
limitations, if any, prescribed in section 3517.102 of the Revised 63463
Code. A state or county political party shall deposit all other 63464
monetary contributions received by the party into one or more 63465
accounts that are separate from its state candidate fund and from 63466
its account that contains the public moneys received from the Ohio 63467
political party fund under section 3517.17 of the Revised Code. 63468

       (d) Each state political party shall have only one 63469
legislative campaign fund for each house of the general assembly. 63470
Each such fund shall be separate from any other funds or accounts 63471
of that state party. A legislative campaign fund is authorized to 63472
receive contributions and make expenditures for the primary 63473
purpose of furthering the election of candidates who are members 63474
of that political party to the house of the general assembly with 63475
which that legislative campaign fund is associated. Each 63476
legislative campaign fund shall be administered and controlled in 63477
a manner designated by the caucus. As used in this division, 63478
"caucus" has the same meaning as in section 3517.01 of the Revised 63479
Code and includes, as an ex officio member, the chairperson of the 63480
state political party with which the caucus is associated or that 63481
chairperson's designee. 63482

       (4) Every expenditure in excess of twenty-five dollars shall 63483
be vouched for by a receipted bill, stating the purpose of the 63484
expenditure, that shall be filed with the statement of 63485
expenditures. A canceled check with a notation of the purpose of 63486
the expenditure is a receipted bill for purposes of division 63487
(D)(4) of this section. 63488

       (5) The secretary of state or the board of elections, as the 63489
case may be, shall issue a receipt for each statement filed under 63490
this section and shall preserve a copy of the receipt for a period 63491
of at least six years. All statements filed under this section 63492
shall be open to public inspection in the office where they are 63493
filed and shall be carefully preserved for a period of at least 63494
six years after the year in which they are filed. 63495

       (6) The secretary of state, by rule adopted pursuant to 63496
section 3517.23 of the Revised Code, shall prescribe both of the 63497
following: 63498

       (a) The manner of immediately acknowledging, with date and 63499
time received, and preserving the receipt of statements that are 63500
transmitted by electronic means of transmission to the secretary 63501
of state pursuant to this section or section 3517.106, 3517.1011, 63502
3517.1012, 3517.1013, or 3517.1014 of the Revised Code; 63503

       (b) The manner of preserving the contribution and 63504
expenditure, contribution and disbursement, deposit and 63505
disbursement, gift and disbursement, or donation and disbursement 63506
information in the statements described in division (D)(6)(a) of 63507
this section. The secretary of state shall preserve the 63508
contribution and expenditure, contribution and disbursement, 63509
deposit and disbursement, gift and disbursement, or donation and 63510
disbursement information in those statements for at least ten 63511
years after the year in which they are filed by electronic means 63512
of transmission. 63513

       (7) The secretary of state, pursuant to division (I) of 63514
section 3517.106 of the Revised Code, shall make available online 63515
to the public through the internet the contribution and 63516
expenditure, contribution and disbursement, deposit and 63517
disbursement, gift and disbursement, or donation and disbursement 63518
information in all statements, all addenda, amendments, or other 63519
corrections to statements, and all amended statements filed with 63520
the secretary of state by electronic or other means of 63521
transmission under this section, division (B)(2)(b) or (C)(2)(b) 63522
of section 3517.105, or section 3517.106, 3517.1011, 3517.1012, 63523
3517.1013, 3517.1014, or 3517.11 of the Revised Code. The 63524
secretary of state may remove the information from the internet 63525
after a reasonable period of time. 63526

       (E)(1) Any person, political party, campaign committee, 63527
legislative campaign fund, political action committee, or 63528
political contributing entity that makes a contribution in 63529
connection with the nomination or election of any candidate or in 63530
connection with any ballot issue or question at any election held 63531
or to be held in this state shall provide its full name and 63532
address to the recipient of the contribution at the time the 63533
contribution is made. The political action committee also shall 63534
provide the registration number assigned to the committee under 63535
division (D)(1) of this section to the recipient of the 63536
contribution at the time the contribution is made. 63537

       (2) Any individual who makes a contribution that exceeds one 63538
hundred dollars to a political action committee, political 63539
contributing entity, legislative campaign fund, or political party 63540
or to a campaign committee of a statewide candidate or candidate 63541
for the office of member of the general assembly shall provide the 63542
name of the individual's current employer, if any, or, if the 63543
individual is self-employed, the individual's occupation and the 63544
name of the individual's business, if any, to the recipient of the 63545
contribution at the time the contribution is made. Sections 63546
3599.39 and 3599.40 of the Revised Code do not apply to division 63547
(E)(2) of this section. 63548

       (3) If a campaign committee shows that it has exercised its 63549
best efforts to obtain, maintain, and submit the information 63550
required under divisions (B)(4)(b)(ii) and (iii) of this section, 63551
that committee is considered to have met the requirements of those 63552
divisions. A campaign committee shall not be considered to have 63553
exercised its best efforts unless, in connection with written 63554
solicitations, it regularly includes a written request for the 63555
information required under division (B)(4)(b)(ii) of this section 63556
from the contributor or the information required under division 63557
(B)(4)(b)(iii) of this section from whoever transmits the 63558
contribution. 63559

       (4) Any check that a political action committee uses to make 63560
a contribution or an expenditure shall contain the full name and 63561
address of the committee and the registration number assigned to 63562
the committee under division (D)(1) of this section. 63563

       (F) As used in this section: 63564

       (1)(a) Except as otherwise provided in division (F)(1) of 63565
this section, "address" means all of the following if they exist: 63566
apartment number, street, road, or highway name and number, rural 63567
delivery route number, city or village, state, and zip code as 63568
used in a person's post-office address, but not post-office box. 63569

        (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (F)(1) of this 63570
section, if an address is required in this section, a post-office 63571
box and office, room, or suite number may be included in addition 63572
to, but not in lieu of, an apartment, street, road, or highway 63573
name and number. 63574

        (c) If an address is required in this section, a campaign 63575
committee, political action committee, legislative campaign fund, 63576
political party, or political contributing entity may use the 63577
business or residence address of its treasurer or deputy 63578
treasurer. The post-office box number of the campaign committee, 63579
political action committee, legislative campaign fund, political 63580
party, or political contributing entity may be used in addition to 63581
that address. 63582

       (d) For the sole purpose of a campaign committee's reporting 63583
of contributions on a statement of contributions received under 63584
division (B)(4) of this section, "address" has one of the 63585
following meanings at the option of the campaign committee: 63586

       (i) The same meaning as in division (F)(1)(a) of this 63587
section; 63588

       (ii) All of the following, if they exist: the contributor's 63589
post-office box number and city or village, state, and zip code as 63590
used in the contributor's post-office address. 63591

       (e) As used with regard to the reporting under this section 63592
of any expenditure, "address" means all of the following if they 63593
exist: apartment number, street, road, or highway name and number, 63594
rural delivery route number, city or village, state, and zip code 63595
as used in a person's post-office address, or post-office box. If 63596
an address concerning any expenditure is required in this section, 63597
a campaign committee, political action committee, legislative 63598
campaign fund, political party, or political contributing entity 63599
may use the business or residence address of its treasurer or 63600
deputy treasurer or its post-office box number. 63601

       (2) "Statewide candidate" means the joint candidates for the 63602
offices of governor and lieutenant governor or a candidate for the 63603
office of secretary of state, auditor of state, treasurer of 63604
state, attorney general, member of the state board of education, 63605
chief justice of the supreme court, or justice of the supreme 63606
court. 63607

       (3) "Candidate for county office" means a candidate for the 63608
office of county auditor, county treasurer, clerk of the court of 63609
common pleas, judge of the court of common pleas, sheriff, county 63610
recorder, county engineer, county commissioner, prosecuting 63611
attorney, or coroner. 63612

       (G) An independent expenditure shall be reported whenever and 63613
in the same manner that an expenditure is required to be reported 63614
under this section and shall be reported pursuant to division 63615
(B)(2)(a) or (C)(2)(a) of section 3517.105 of the Revised Code. 63616

       (H)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (H)(2) of 63617
this section, if, during the combined pre-election and 63618
postelection reporting periods for an election, a campaign 63619
committee has received contributions of five hundred dollars or 63620
less and has made expenditures in the total amount of five hundred 63621
dollars or less, it may file a statement to that effect, under 63622
penalty of election falsification, in lieu of the statement 63623
required by division (A)(2) of this section. The statement shall 63624
indicate the total amount of contributions received and the total 63625
amount of expenditures made during those combined reporting 63626
periods. 63627

       (2) In the case of a successful candidate at a primary 63628
election, if either the total contributions received by or the 63629
total expenditures made by the candidate's campaign committee 63630
during the preprimary, postprimary, pregeneral, and postgeneral 63631
election periods combined equal more than five hundred dollars, 63632
the campaign committee may file the statement under division 63633
(H)(1) of this section only for the primary election. The first 63634
statement that the campaign committee files in regard to the 63635
general election shall reflect all contributions received and all 63636
expenditures made during the preprimary and postprimary election 63637
periods. 63638

       (3) Divisions (H)(1) and (2) of this section do not apply if 63639
a campaign committee receives contributions or makes expenditures 63640
prior to the first day of January of the year of the election at 63641
which the candidate seeks nomination or election to office or if 63642
the campaign committee does not file a termination statement with 63643
its postprimary election statement in the case of an unsuccessful 63644
primary election candidate or with its postgeneral election 63645
statement in the case of other candidates. 63646

       (I) In the case of a contribution made by a partner of a 63647
partnership or an owner or a member of another unincorporated 63648
business from any funds of the partnership or other unincorporated 63649
business, all of the following apply: 63650

       (1) The recipient of the contribution shall report the 63651
contribution by listing both the partnership or other 63652
unincorporated business and the name of the partner, owner, or 63653
member making the contribution. 63654

       (2) In reporting the contribution, the recipient of the 63655
contribution shall be entitled to conclusively rely upon the 63656
information provided by the partnership or other unincorporated 63657
business, provided that the information includes one of the 63658
following: 63659

       (a) The name of each partner, owner, or member as of the date 63660
of the contribution or contributions, and a statement that the 63661
total contributions are to be allocated equally among all of the 63662
partners, owners, or members; or 63663

       (b) The name of each partner, owner, or member as of the date 63664
of the contribution or contributions who is participating in the 63665
contribution or contributions, and a statement that the 63666
contribution or contributions are to be allocated to those 63667
individuals in accordance with the information provided by the 63668
partnership or other unincorporated business to the recipient of 63669
the contribution. 63670

       (3) For purposes of section 3517.102 of the Revised Code, the 63671
contribution shall be considered to have been made by the partner, 63672
owner, or member reported under division (I)(1) of this section. 63673

       (4) No contribution from a partner of a partnership or an 63674
owner or a member of another unincorporated business shall be 63675
accepted from any funds of the partnership or other unincorporated 63676
business unless the recipient reports the contribution under 63677
division (I)(1) of this section together with the information 63678
provided under division (I)(2) of this section. 63679

       (5) No partnership or other unincorporated business shall 63680
make a contribution or contributions solely in the name of the 63681
partnership or other unincorporated business. 63682

       (6) As used in division (I) of this section, "partnership or 63683
other unincorporated business" includes, but is not limited to, a 63684
cooperative, a sole proprietorship, a general partnership, a 63685
limited partnership, a limited partnership association, a limited 63686
liability partnership, and a limited liability company. 63687

       (J) A candidate shall have only one campaign committee at any 63688
given time for all of the offices for which the person is a 63689
candidate or holds office. 63690

       (K)(1) In addition to filing a designation of appointment of 63691
a treasurer under division (D)(1) of this section, the campaign 63692
committee of any candidate for an elected municipal office that 63693
pays an annual amount of compensation of five thousand dollars or 63694
less, the campaign committee of any candidate for member of a 63695
board of education except member of the state board of education, 63696
or the campaign committee of any candidate for township trustee or 63697
township fiscal officer may sign, under penalty of election 63698
falsification, a certificate attesting that the committee will not 63699
accept contributions during an election period that exceed in the 63700
aggregate two thousand dollars from all contributors and one 63701
hundred dollars from any one individual, and that the campaign 63702
committee will not make expenditures during an election period 63703
that exceed in the aggregate two thousand dollars. 63704

       The certificate shall be on a form prescribed by the 63705
secretary of state and shall be filed not later than ten days 63706
after the candidate files a declaration of candidacy and petition, 63707
a nominating petition, or a declaration of intent to be a write-in 63708
candidate. 63709

       (2) Except as otherwise provided in division (K)(3) of this 63710
section, a campaign committee that files a certificate under 63711
division (K)(1) of this section is not required to file the 63712
statements required by division (A) of this section. 63713

       (3) If, after filing a certificate under division (K)(1) of 63714
this section, a campaign committee exceeds any of the limitations 63715
described in that division during an election period, the 63716
certificate is void and thereafter the campaign committee shall 63717
file the statements required by division (A) of this section. If 63718
the campaign committee has not previously filed a statement, then 63719
on the first statement the campaign committee is required to file 63720
under division (A) of this section after the committee's 63721
certificate is void, the committee shall report all contributions 63722
received and expenditures made from the time the candidate filed 63723
the candidate's declaration of candidacy and petition, nominating 63724
petition, or declaration of intent to be a write-in candidate. 63725

       (4) As used in division (K) of this section, "election 63726
period" means the period of time beginning on the day a person 63727
files a declaration of candidacy and petition, nominating 63728
petition, or declaration of intent to be a write-in candidate 63729
through the day of the election at which the person seeks 63730
nomination to office if the person is not elected to office, or, 63731
if the candidate was nominated in a primary election, the day of 63732
the election at which the candidate seeks office. 63733

       (L) A political contributing entity that receives 63734
contributions from the dues, membership fees, or other assessments 63735
of its members or from its officers, shareholders, and employees 63736
may report the aggregate amount of contributions received from 63737
those contributors and the number of individuals making those 63738
contributions, for each filing period under divisions (A)(1), (2), 63739
(3), and (4) of this section, rather than reporting information as 63740
required under division (B)(4) of this section, including, when 63741
applicable, the name of the current employer, if any, of a 63742
contributor whose contribution exceeds one hundred dollars or, if 63743
such a contributor is self-employed, the contributor's occupation 63744
and the name of the contributor's business, if any. Division 63745
(B)(4) of this section applies to a political contributing entity 63746
with regard to contributions it receives from all other 63747
contributors. 63748

       Sec. 3517.102.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in section 63749
3517.103 of the Revised Code, as used in this section and sections 63750
3517.103 and 3517.104 of the Revised Code:63751

       (1) "Candidate" has the same meaning as in section 3517.01 of 63752
the Revised Code but includes only candidates for the offices of 63753
governor, lieutenant governor, secretary of state, auditor of 63754
state, treasurer of state, attorney general, member of the state 63755
board of education, member of the general assembly, chief justice 63756
of the supreme court, and justice of the supreme court.63757

       (2) "Statewide candidate" or "any one statewide candidate" 63758
means the joint candidates for the offices of governor and 63759
lieutenant governor or a candidate for the office of secretary of 63760
state, auditor of state, treasurer of state, attorney general, 63761
member of the state board of education, chief justice of the 63762
supreme court, or justice of the supreme court.63763

       (3) "Senate candidate" means a candidate for the office of 63764
state senator.63765

       (4) "House candidate" means a candidate for the office of 63766
state representative.63767

       (5)(a) "Primary election period" for a candidate begins on 63768
the beginning date of the candidate's pre-filing period specified 63769
in division (A)(9) of section 3517.109 of the Revised Code and 63770
ends on the day of the primary election.63771

       (b) In regard to any candidate, the "general election period" 63772
begins on the day after the primary election immediately preceding 63773
the general election at which the candidate seeks an office 63774
specified in division (A)(1) of this section and ends on the 63775
thirty-first day of December following that general election.63776

       (6) "State candidate fund" means the state candidate fund 63777
established by a state or county political party under division 63778
(D)(3)(c) of section 3517.10 of the Revised Code.63779

       (7) "Postgeneral election statement" means the statement 63780
filed under division (A)(2) of section 3517.10 of the Revised Code 63781
by the campaign committee of a candidate after the general 63782
election in which the candidate ran for office or filed by 63783
legislative campaign fund after the general election in an 63784
even-numbered year.63785

       (8) "Contribution" means any contribution that is required to 63786
be reported in the statement of contributions under section 63787
3517.10 of the Revised Code.63788

       (9)(a) Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(9)(b) of 63789
this section and in division (F) of section 3517.103 and division 63790
(B)(3)(b) of section 3517.1010 of the Revised Code, "designated 63791
state campaign committee" means:63792

       (i) In the case of contributions to or from a state political 63793
party, a campaign committee of a statewide candidate, statewide 63794
officeholder, senate candidate, house candidate, or member of the 63795
general assembly.63796

       (ii) In the case of contributions to or from a county 63797
political party, a campaign committee of a senate candidate or 63798
house candidate whose candidacy is to be submitted to some or all 63799
of the electors in that county, or member of the general assembly 63800
whose district contains all or part of that county.63801

       (iii) In the case of contributions to or from a legislative 63802
campaign fund, a campaign committee of any of the following:63803

       (I) A senate or house candidate who, if elected, will be a 63804
member of the same party that established the legislative campaign 63805
fund and the same house with which the legislative campaign fund 63806
is associated;63807

       (II) A state senator or state representative who is a member 63808
of the same party that established the legislative campaign fund 63809
and the same house with which the legislative campaign fund is 63810
associated.63811

       (b) A campaign committee is no longer a "designated state 63812
campaign committee" after the campaign committee's candidate 63813
changes the designation of treasurer required to be filed under 63814
division (D)(1) of section 3517.10 of the Revised Code to indicate 63815
that the person intends to be a candidate for, or becomes a 63816
candidate for nomination or election to, any office that, if 63817
elected, would not qualify that candidate's campaign committee as 63818
a "designated state campaign committee" under division (A)(9)(a) 63819
of this section.63820

       (B)(1)(a) No individual who is seven years of age or older 63821
shall make a contribution or contributions aggregating more than:63822

        (i) Ten thousand dollars to the campaign committee of any one 63823
statewide candidate in a primary election period or in a general 63824
election period;63825

        (ii) Ten thousand dollars to the campaign committee of any 63826
one senate candidate in a primary election period or in a general 63827
election period;63828

        (iii) Ten thousand dollars to the campaign committee of any 63829
one house candidate in a primary election period or in a general 63830
election period;63831

        (iv) Ten thousand dollars to a county political party of the 63832
county in which the individual's designated Ohio residence is 63833
located for the party's state candidate fund in a calendar year; 63834

       (v) Fifteen thousand dollars to any one legislative campaign 63835
fund in a calendar year;63836

        (vi) Thirty thousand dollars to any one state political party 63837
for the party's state candidate fund in a calendar year;63838

        (vii) Ten thousand dollars to any one political action 63839
committee in a calendar year;63840

       (viii) Ten thousand dollars to any one political contributing 63841
entity in a calendar year.63842

       (b) No individual shall make a contribution or contributions 63843
to the state candidate fund of a county political party of any 63844
county other than the county in which the individual's designated 63845
Ohio residence is located.63846

       (c) No individual who is under seven years of age shall make 63847
any contribution.63848

       (2)(a) Subject to division (D)(1) of this section, no 63849
political action committee shall make a contribution or 63850
contributions aggregating more than:63851

        (i) Ten thousand dollars to the campaign committee of any one 63852
statewide candidate in a primary election period or in a general 63853
election period;63854

        (ii) Ten thousand dollars to the campaign committee of any 63855
one senate candidate in a primary election period or in a general 63856
election period;63857

        (iii) Ten thousand dollars to the campaign committee of any 63858
one house candidate in a primary election period or in a general 63859
election period;63860

        (iv) Fifteen thousand dollars to any one legislative campaign 63861
fund in a calendar year;63862

        (v) Thirty thousand dollars to any one state political party 63863
for the party's state candidate fund in a calendar year;63864

        (vi) Ten thousand dollars to another political action 63865
committee or to a political contributing entity in a calendar 63866
year. This division does not apply to a political action committee 63867
that makes a contribution to a political action committee or a 63868
political contributing entity affiliated with it. For purposes of 63869
this division, a political action committee is affiliated with 63870
another political action committee or with a political 63871
contributing entity if they are both established, financed, 63872
maintained, or controlled by, or if they are, the same 63873
corporation, organization, labor organization, continuing 63874
association, or other person, including any parent, subsidiary, 63875
division, or department of that corporation, organization, labor 63876
organization, continuing association, or other person.63877

       (b) No political action committee shall make a contribution 63878
or contributions to a county political party for the party's state 63879
candidate fund.63880

       (3) No campaign committee shall make a contribution or 63881
contributions aggregating more than:63882

       (a) Ten thousand dollars to the campaign committee of any one 63883
statewide candidate in a primary election period or in a general 63884
election period;63885

       (b) Ten thousand dollars to the campaign committee of any one 63886
senate candidate in a primary election period or in a general 63887
election period;63888

       (c) Ten thousand dollars to the campaign committee of any one 63889
house candidate in a primary election period or in a general 63890
election period;63891

       (d) Ten thousand dollars to any one political action 63892
committee in a calendar year;63893

       (e) Ten thousand dollars to any one political contributing 63894
entity in a calendar year.63895

       (4)(a) Subject to division (D)(3) of this section, no 63896
political party shall make a contribution or contributions 63897
aggregating more than ten thousand dollars to any one political 63898
action committee or to any one political contributing entity in a 63899
calendar year.63900

       (b) No county political party shall make a contribution or 63901
contributions to another county political party.63902

       (5)(a) Subject to division (B)(5)(b) of this section, no 63903
campaign committee, other than a designated state campaign 63904
committee, shall make a contribution or contributions aggregating 63905
in a calendar year more than:63906

        (i) Thirty thousand dollars to any one state political party 63907
for the party's state candidate fund;63908

        (ii) Fifteen thousand dollars to any one legislative campaign 63909
fund;63910

        (iii) Ten thousand dollars to any one county political party 63911
for the party's state candidate fund.63912

       (b) No campaign committee shall make a contribution or 63913
contributions to a county political party for the party's state 63914
candidate fund unless one of the following applies:63915

       (i) The campaign committee's candidate will appear on a 63916
ballot in that county.63917

       (ii) The campaign committee's candidate is the holder of an 63918
elected public office that represents all or part of the 63919
population of that county at the time the contribution is made.63920

       (6)(a) No state candidate fund of a county political party 63921
shall make a contribution or contributions, except a contribution 63922
or contributions to a designated state campaign committee, in a 63923
primary election period or a general election period, aggregating 63924
more than:63925

       (i) Two hundred fifty thousand dollars to the campaign 63926
committee of any one statewide candidate;63927

       (ii) Ten thousand dollars to the campaign committee of any 63928
one senate candidate;63929

        (iii) Ten thousand dollars to the campaign committee of any 63930
one house candidate.63931

       (b)(i) No state candidate fund of a state or county political 63932
party shall make a transfer or a contribution or transfers or 63933
contributions of cash or cash equivalents to a designated state 63934
campaign committee in a primary election period or in a general 63935
election period aggregating more than:63936

       (I) Five hundred thousand dollars to the campaign committee 63937
of any one statewide candidate;63938

       (II) One hundred thousand dollars to the campaign committee 63939
of any one senate candidate;63940

       (III) Fifty thousand dollars to the campaign committee of any 63941
one house candidate.63942

       (ii) No legislative campaign fund shall make a transfer or a 63943
contribution or transfers or contributions of cash or cash 63944
equivalents to a designated state campaign committee aggregating 63945
more than:63946

       (I) Fifty thousand dollars in a primary election period or 63947
one hundred thousand dollars in a general election period to the 63948
campaign committee of any one senate candidate;63949

       (II) Twenty-five thousand dollars in a primary election 63950
period or fifty thousand dollars in a general election period to 63951
the campaign committee of any one house candidate.63952

       (iii) As used in divisions (B)(6)(b) and (C)(6) of this 63953
section, "transfer or contribution of cash or cash equivalents" 63954
does not include any in-kind contributions.63955

       (c) A county political party that has no state candidate fund 63956
and that is located in a county having a population of less than 63957
one hundred fifty thousand may make one or more contributions from 63958
other accounts to any one statewide candidate or to any one 63959
designated state campaign committee that do not exceed, in the 63960
aggregate, two thousand five hundred dollars in any primary 63961
election period or general election period. As used in this 63962
division, "other accounts" does not include an account that 63963
contains the public moneys received from the Ohio political party 63964
fund under section 3517.17 of the Revised Code.63965

       (d) No legislative campaign fund shall make a contribution, 63966
other than to a designated state campaign committee or to the 63967
state candidate fund of a political party.63968

       (7)(a) Subject to division (D)(1) of this section, no 63969
political contributing entity shall make a contribution or 63970
contributions aggregating more than:63971

        (i) Ten thousand dollars to the campaign committee of any one 63972
statewide candidate in a primary election period or in a general 63973
election period;63974

        (ii) Ten thousand dollars to the campaign committee of any 63975
one senate candidate in a primary election period or in a general 63976
election period;63977

        (iii) Ten thousand dollars to the campaign committee of any 63978
one house candidate in a primary election period or in a general 63979
election period;63980

        (iv) Fifteen thousand dollars to any one legislative campaign 63981
fund in a calendar year;63982

        (v) Thirty thousand dollars to any one state political party 63983
for the party's state candidate fund in a calendar year;63984

        (vi) Ten thousand dollars to another political contributing 63985
entity or to a political action committee in a calendar year. This 63986
division does not apply to a political contributing entity that 63987
makes a contribution to a political contributing entity or a 63988
political action committee affiliated with it. For purposes of 63989
this division, a political contributing entity is affiliated with 63990
another political contributing entity or with a political action 63991
committee if they are both established, financed, maintained, or 63992
controlled by, or if they are, the same corporation, organization, 63993
labor organization, continuing association, or other person, 63994
including any parent, subsidiary, division, or department of that 63995
corporation, organization, labor organization, continuing 63996
association, or other person.63997

       (b) No political contributing entity shall make a 63998
contribution or contributions to a county political party for the 63999
party's state candidate fund.64000

       (C)(1)(a) Subject to division (D)(1) of this section, no 64001
campaign committee of a statewide candidate shall do any of the 64002
following:64003

       (i) Knowingly accept a contribution or contributions from any 64004
individual who is under seven years of age;64005

       (ii) Accept a contribution or contributions aggregating more 64006
than ten thousand dollars from any one individual who is seven 64007
years of age or older, from any one political action committee, 64008
from any one political contributing entity, or from any one other 64009
campaign committee in a primary election period or in a general 64010
election period;64011

       (iii) Accept a contribution or contributions aggregating more 64012
than two hundred fifty thousand dollars from any one or 64013
combination of state candidate funds of county political parties 64014
in a primary election period or in a general election period.64015

       (b) No campaign committee of a statewide candidate shall 64016
accept a contribution or contributions aggregating more than two 64017
thousand five hundred dollars in a primary election period or in a 64018
general election period from a county political party that has no 64019
state candidate fund and that is located in a county having a 64020
population of less than one hundred fifty thousand.64021

       (2)(a) Subject to division (D)(1) of this section and except 64022
for a designated state campaign committee, no campaign committee 64023
of a senate candidate shall do either of the following:64024

       (i) Knowingly accept a contribution or contributions from any 64025
individual who is under seven years of age;64026

       (ii) Accept a contribution or contributions aggregating more 64027
than ten thousand dollars from any one individual who is seven 64028
years of age or older, from any one political action committee, 64029
from any one political contributing entity, from any one state 64030
candidate fund of a county political party, or from any one other 64031
campaign committee in a primary election period or in a general 64032
election period.64033

       (b) No campaign committee of a senate candidate shall accept 64034
a contribution or contributions aggregating more than two thousand 64035
five hundred dollars in a primary election period or in a general 64036
election period from a county political party that has no state 64037
candidate fund and that is located in a county having a population 64038
of less than one hundred fifty thousand.64039

       (3)(a) Subject to division (D)(1) of this section and except 64040
for a designated state campaign committee, no campaign committee 64041
of a house candidate shall do either of the following:64042

       (i) Knowingly accept a contribution or contributions from any 64043
individual who is under seven years of age;64044

       (ii) Accept a contribution or contributions aggregating more 64045
than ten thousand dollars from any one individual who is seven 64046
years of age or older, from any one political action committee, 64047
from any one political contributing entity, from any one state 64048
candidate fund of a county political party, or from any one other 64049
campaign committee in a primary election period or in a general 64050
election period.64051

       (b) No campaign committee of a house candidate shall accept a 64052
contribution or contributions aggregating more than two thousand 64053
five hundred dollars in a primary election period or in a general 64054
election period from a county political party that has no state 64055
candidate fund and that is located in a county having a population 64056
of less than one hundred fifty thousand.64057

       (4)(a)(i) Subject to division (C)(4)(a)(ii) of this section 64058
and except for a designated state campaign committee, no county 64059
political party shall knowingly accept a contribution or 64060
contributions from any individual who is under seven years of age, 64061
or accept a contribution or contributions for the party's state 64062
candidate fund aggregating more than ten thousand dollars from any 64063
one individual whose designated Ohio residence is located within 64064
that county and who is seven years of age or older or from any one 64065
campaign committee in a calendar year.64066

       (ii) Subject to division (D)(1) of this section, no county 64067
political party shall accept a contribution or contributions for 64068
the party's state candidate fund from any individual whose 64069
designated Ohio residence is located outside of that county and 64070
who is seven years of age or older, from any campaign committee 64071
unless the campaign committee's candidate will appear on a ballot 64072
in that county or unless the campaign committee's candidate is the 64073
holder of an elected public office that represents all or part of 64074
the population of that county at the time the contribution is 64075
accepted, or from any political action committee or any political 64076
contributing entity.64077

       (iii) No county political party shall accept a contribution 64078
or contributions from any other county political party.64079

       (b) Subject to division (D)(1) of this section, no state 64080
political party shall do either of the following:64081

       (i) Knowingly accept a contribution or contributions from any 64082
individual who is under seven years of age;64083

        (ii) Accept a contribution or contributions for the party's 64084
state candidate fund aggregating more than thirty thousand dollars 64085
from any one individual who is seven years of age or older, from 64086
any one political action committee, from any one political 64087
contributing entity, or from any one campaign committee, other 64088
than a designated state campaign committee, in a calendar year.64089

       (5) Subject to division (D)(1) of this section, no 64090
legislative campaign fund shall do either of the following:64091

       (a) Knowingly accept a contribution or contributions from any 64092
individual who is under seven years of age;64093

        (b) Accept a contribution or contributions aggregating more 64094
than fifteen thousand dollars from any one individual who is seven 64095
years of age or older, from any one political action committee, 64096
from any one political contributing entity, or from any one 64097
campaign committee, other than a designated state campaign 64098
committee, in a calendar year.64099

       (6)(a) No designated state campaign committee shall accept a 64100
transfer or contribution of cash or cash equivalents from a state 64101
candidate fund of a state political party aggregating in a primary 64102
election period or a general election period more than:64103

       (i) Five hundred thousand dollars, in the case of a campaign 64104
committee of a statewide candidate;64105

       (ii) One hundred thousand dollars, in the case of a campaign 64106
committee of a senate candidate;64107

       (iii) Fifty thousand dollars, in the case of a campaign 64108
committee of a house candidate.64109

       (b) No designated state campaign committee shall accept a 64110
transfer or contribution of cash or cash equivalents from a 64111
legislative campaign fund aggregating more than:64112

       (i) Fifty thousand dollars in a primary election period or 64113
one hundred thousand dollars in a general election period, in the 64114
case of a campaign committee of a senate candidate;64115

       (ii) Twenty-five thousand dollars in a primary election 64116
period or fifty thousand dollars in a general election period, in 64117
the case of a campaign committee of a house candidate.64118

       (c) No campaign committee of a candidate for the office of 64119
member of the general assembly, including a designated state 64120
campaign committee, shall accept a transfer or contribution of 64121
cash or cash equivalents from any one or combination of state 64122
candidate funds of county political parties aggregating in a 64123
primary election period or a general election period more than:64124

       (i) One hundred thousand dollars, in the case of a campaign 64125
committee of a senate candidate;64126

       (ii) Fifty thousand dollars, in the case of a campaign 64127
committee of a house candidate.64128

       (7)(a) Subject to division (D)(3) of this section, no 64129
political action committee and no political contributing entity 64130
shall do either of the following:64131

       (i) Knowingly accept a contribution or contributions from any 64132
individual who is under seven years of age;64133

        (ii) Accept a contribution or contributions aggregating more 64134
than ten thousand dollars from any one individual who is seven 64135
years of age or older, from any one campaign committee, or from 64136
any one political party in a calendar year.64137

       (b) Subject to division (D)(1) of this section, no political 64138
action committee shall accept a contribution or contributions 64139
aggregating more than ten thousand dollars from another political 64140
action committee or from a political contributing entity in a 64141
calendar year. Subject to division (D)(1) of this section, no 64142
political contributing entity shall accept a contribution or 64143
contributions aggregating more than ten thousand dollars from 64144
another political contributing entity or from a political action 64145
committee in a calendar year. This division does not apply to a 64146
political action committee or political contributing entity that 64147
accepts a contribution from a political action committee or 64148
political contributing entity affiliated with it. For purposes of 64149
this division, a political action committee is affiliated with 64150
another political action committee or with a political 64151
contributing entity if they are both established, financed, 64152
maintained, or controlled by the same corporation, organization, 64153
labor organization, continuing association, or other person, 64154
including any parent, subsidiary, division, or department of that 64155
corporation, organization, labor organization, continuing 64156
association, or other person.64157

       (D)(1)(a) For purposes of the limitations prescribed in 64158
division (B)(2) of this section and the limitations prescribed in 64159
divisions (C)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), and (7)(b) of this section, 64160
whichever is applicable, all contributions made by and all 64161
contributions accepted from political action committees that are 64162
established, financed, maintained, or controlled by, or that are, 64163
the same corporation, organization, labor organization, continuing 64164
association, or other person, including any parent, subsidiary, 64165
division, or department of that corporation, organization, labor 64166
organization, continuing association, or other person, are 64167
considered to have been made by or accepted from a single 64168
political action committee.64169

       (b) For purposes of the limitations prescribed in division 64170
(B)(7) of this section and the limitations prescribed in divisions 64171
(C)(1), (2), (3), (4), (5), and (7)(b) of this section, whichever 64172
is applicable, all contributions made by and all contributions 64173
accepted from political contributing entities that are 64174
established, financed, maintained, or controlled by, or that are, 64175
the same corporation, organization, labor organization, continuing 64176
association, or other person, including any parent, subsidiary, 64177
division, or department of that corporation, organization, labor 64178
organization, continuing association, or other person, are 64179
considered to have been made by or accepted from a single 64180
political contributing entity.64181

       (2) As used in divisions (B)(1)(a)(vii), (B)(3)(d), 64182
(B)(4)(a), and (C)(7) of this section, "political action 64183
committee" does not include a political action committee that is 64184
organized to support or oppose a ballot issue or question and that 64185
makes no contributions to or expenditures on behalf of a political 64186
party, campaign committee, legislative campaign fund, political 64187
action committee, or political contributing entity. As used in 64188
divisions (B)(1)(a)(viii), (B)(3)(e), (B)(4)(a), and (C)(7) of 64189
this section, "political contributing entity" does not include a 64190
political contributing entity that is organized to support or 64191
oppose a ballot issue or question and that makes no contributions 64192
to or expenditures on behalf of a political party, campaign 64193
committee, legislative campaign fund, political action committee, 64194
or political contributing entity.64195

       (3) For purposes of the limitations prescribed in divisions 64196
(B)(4) and (C)(7)(a) of this section, all contributions made by 64197
and all contributions accepted from a national political party, a 64198
state political party, and a county political party are considered 64199
to have been made by or accepted from a single political party and 64200
shall be combined with each other to determine whether the 64201
limitations have been exceeded.64202

       (E)(1) If a legislative campaign fund has kept a total amount 64203
of contributions exceeding one hundred fifty thousand dollars at 64204
the close of business on the seventh day before the postgeneral 64205
election statement is required to be filed under section 3517.10 64206
of the Revised Code, the legislative campaign fund shall comply 64207
with division (E)(2) of this section.64208

       (2)(a) Any legislative campaign fund that has kept a total 64209
amount of contributions in excess of the amount specified in 64210
division (E)(1) of this section at the close of business on the 64211
seventh day before the postgeneral election statement is required 64212
to be filed under section 3517.10 of the Revised Code shall 64213
dispose of the excess amount in the manner prescribed in division 64214
(E)(2)(b)(i), (ii), or (iii) of this section not later than ninety 64215
days after the day the postgeneral election statement is required 64216
to be filed under section 3517.10 of the Revised Code. Any 64217
legislative campaign fund that is required to dispose of an excess 64218
amount of contributions under this division shall file a statement 64219
on the ninetieth day after the postgeneral election statement is 64220
required to be filed under section 3517.10 of the Revised Code 64221
indicating the total amount of contributions the fund has at the 64222
close of business on the seventh day before the postgeneral 64223
election statement is required to be filed under section 3517.10 64224
of the Revised Code and that the excess contributions were 64225
disposed of pursuant to this division and division (E)(2)(b) of 64226
this section. The statement shall be on a form prescribed by the 64227
secretary of state and shall contain any additional information 64228
the secretary of state considers necessary.64229

       (b) Any legislative campaign fund that is required to dispose 64230
of an excess amount of contributions under division (E)(2) of this 64231
section shall dispose of that excess amount by doing any of the 64232
following:64233

       (i) Giving the amount to the treasurer of state for deposit 64234
into the state treasury to the credit of the Ohio elections 64235
commission fund created by division (I) of section 3517.152 of the 64236
Revised Code;64237

       (ii) Giving the amount to individuals who made contributions 64238
to that legislative campaign fund as a refund of all or part of 64239
their contributions;64240

       (iii) Giving the amount to a corporation that is exempt from 64241
federal income taxation under subsection 501(a) and described in 64242
subsection 501(c) of the Internal Revenue Code.64243

       (F)(1) No legislative campaign fund shall fail to file a 64244
statement required by division (E) of this section.64245

       (2) No legislative campaign fund shall fail to dispose of 64246
excess contributions as required by division (E) of this section.64247

       (G) Nothing in this section shall affect, be used in 64248
determining, or supersede a limitation on campaign contributions 64249
as provided for in the Federal Election Campaign Act.64250

       Sec. 3517.103.  (A)(1) For purposes of this section:64251

       (a)(1) "Statewide candidate" means the joint candidates for 64252
the offices of governor and lieutenant governor or a candidate for 64253
the office of secretary of state, auditor of state, treasurer of 64254
state, attorney general, or member of the state board of 64255
education.64256

       (b)(i)(2)(a) "Personal funds" means contributions to the 64257
campaign committee of a candidate by the candidate or by the 64258
candidate's spouse, parents, children, sons-in-law, 64259
daughters-in-law, brothers, sisters, grandparents, mother-in-law, 64260
father-in-law, brothers-in-law, sisters-in-law, or grandparents by 64261
marriage.64262

       (ii)(b) A loan obtained by, guaranteed by, or for the benefit 64263
of a statewide candidate, senate candidate, or house candidate 64264
shall be considered "personal funds" subject to the provisions of 64265
this section and section 3517.1010 of the Revised Code to the 64266
extent that the loan is obtained or guaranteed by the candidate or 64267
is for the benefit of the candidate and is obtained or guaranteed 64268
by the candidate's spouse, parents, children, sons-in-law, 64269
daughters-in-law, brothers, sisters, grandparents, mother-in-law, 64270
father-in-law, brothers-in-law, sisters-in-law, or grandparents by 64271
marriage. A loan that is obtained or guaranteed and that is for 64272
the benefit of a statewide candidate, senate candidate, or house 64273
candidate shall not be considered "personal funds" for the 64274
purposes of this section and section 3517.1010 of the Revised Code64275
but shall be considered to be a "contribution" for the purposes of 64276
this chapter if the loan is obtained or guaranteed by anyone other 64277
than the candidate or the candidate's spouse, parents, children, 64278
sons-in-law, daughters-in-law, brothers, sisters, grandparents, 64279
mother-in-law, father-in-law, brothers-in-law, sisters-in-law, or 64280
grandparents by marriage.64281

       (iii)(c) When a debt or other obligation incurred by a 64282
committee or by a candidate on behalf of the candidate's committee 64283
described in division (C)(1) or (2) of this section is to be paid 64284
from "personal funds," those funds are considered to be expended 64285
when the debt or other obligation is incurred, regardless of when 64286
it is paid.64287

       (2) For purposes of this chapter, a candidate is an 64288
"opponent" when the candidate has indicated on the candidate's 64289
most recently filed designation of treasurer that the candidate 64290
seeks the same office at the same primary or general election as 64291
another candidate whose campaign committee has filed a personal 64292
funds notice required by division (C)(1) or (2) of this section.64293

       (B)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (B)(2) of 64294
this section, no statewide candidate or candidate for the office 64295
of member of the general assembly shall make an expenditure of 64296
personal funds to influence the results of an election for that 64297
candidate's nomination or election to office unless the personal 64298
funds are first deposited into the campaign fund of that 64299
candidate's campaign committee.64300

       (2) A statewide candidate or candidate for the office of 64301
member of the general assembly may make an expenditure of personal 64302
funds without first depositing those funds into the campaign 64303
committee's funds as long as the aggregate total of those 64304
expenditures does not exceed five hundred dollars at any time 64305
during an election period. After the candidate's campaign 64306
committee reimburses the candidate for any direct expenditure of 64307
personal funds, the amount that was reimbursed is no longer 64308
included in the aggregate total of expenditures of personal funds 64309
subject to the five-hundred-dollar limit.64310

       (C)(1) If the campaign committee of any statewide candidate 64311
has received or expended or expects to expend more than one 64312
hundred thousand dollars of personal funds during a primary 64313
election period or one hundred fifty thousand dollars of personal 64314
funds during a general election period, the campaign committee 64315
shall file a personal funds notice in the manner provided in 64316
division (C)(3) of this section indicating that the committee has 64317
received or expended or expects to expend more than that amount. 64318
For the purpose of this division, a joint team of candidates for 64319
governor and lieutenant governor shall be considered a single 64320
candidate and their personal funds shall be combined.64321

       (2) If the campaign committee of any senate candidate or 64322
house candidate has received or expended or expects to expend more 64323
than twenty-five thousand dollars of personal funds during a 64324
primary election period or twenty-five thousand dollars of 64325
personal funds during a general election period, the campaign 64326
committee shall file a personal funds notice in the manner 64327
provided in division (C)(3) of this section indicating that the 64328
committee has received or expended or expects to expend more than 64329
that amount.64330

       (3) The personal funds notice required in divisions (C)(1) 64331
and (2) of this section and the declaration of no limits required 64332
under division (D)(2) of this section shall be on a form 64333
prescribed by the secretary of state. The personal funds notice 64334
required in divisions (C)(1) and (2) of this section shall be 64335
filed not later than the earlier of the following times:64336

       (a) One hundred twenty days before a primary election, in the 64337
case of personal funds received, expended, or expected to be 64338
expended during a primary election period, or not later than one 64339
hundred twenty days before a general election, in the case of 64340
personal funds received, expended, or expected to be expended 64341
during a general election period;64342

       (b) Two business days after the candidate's campaign 64343
committee receives or makes an expenditure of personal funds or 64344
the candidate makes an expenditure of personal funds on behalf of 64345
the candidate's campaign committee during that election period 64346
that exceed, in the aggregate, the amount specified in division 64347
(C)(1) or (2) of this section.64348

       The personal funds notice required under divisions (C)(1) and 64349
(2) of this section and the declaration of no limits required 64350
under division (D)(2) of this section shall be filed wherever the 64351
campaign committee files statements of contributions and 64352
expenditures under section 3517.11 of the Revised Code. The board 64353
of elections shall send to the secretary of state a copy of any 64354
personal funds notice or declaration of no limits filed by the 64355
campaign committee of a senate candidate or house candidate under 64356
division (C)(3) or (D)(2) of this section.64357

       (D)(1) Whenever a campaign committee files a notice under 64358
division (C)(1) or (2) of this section, and the campaign committee 64359
of an opponent files a declaration of no limits pursuant to 64360
division (D)(2) of this section within thirty days of the filing 64361
of the personal funds notice under division (C)(1) or (2) of this 64362
section, the contribution limitations prescribed in section 64363
3517.102 of the Revised Code no longer apply to the campaign 64364
committee of the candidate's opponent.64365

       (2) No campaign committee of a candidate described in 64366
division (D)(1) of this section shall accept any contribution or 64367
contributions from a contributor that exceed the limitations 64368
prescribed in section 3517.102 of the Revised Code until the 64369
committee files a declaration that the committee will accept 64370
contributions that exceed those limitations. This declaration 64371
shall be filed not later than thirty days after a candidate's 64372
opponent has filed a personal funds notice pursuant to division 64373
(C)(1) or (2) of section 3517.103 of the Revised Code, shall be 64374
referred to as the "declaration of no limits," and shall list all 64375
of the following:64376

       (a) The amount of cash on hand in the candidate's campaign 64377
fund at the end of the day immediately preceding the day on which 64378
the candidate's campaign committee files the declaration of no 64379
limits;64380

       (b) The value and description of all campaign assets worth 64381
five hundred dollars or more available to the candidate at the end 64382
of the day immediately preceding the day on which the candidate's 64383
campaign committee files the declaration of no limits.64384

       (3) A candidate who was not an opponent of a candidate who 64385
filed the personal funds notice required under division (C)(3) of 64386
this section on the date the personal funds notice was filed may 64387
file the declaration of no limits pursuant to division (D)(2) of 64388
this section within thirty days after becoming an opponent of the 64389
candidate who filed the personal funds notice.64390

       (4) If the candidate whose campaign committee filed a 64391
personal funds notice under division (C)(1) or (2) of this section 64392
fails to file a declaration of candidacy for the office listed on 64393
the designation of treasurer filed under division (D) of section 64394
3517.10 of the Revised Code or files a declaration of candidacy or 64395
nominating petition for that office and dies or withdraws, both of 64396
the following apply to the campaign committee of that candidate's 64397
opponent if the opponent has filed a declaration of no limits 64398
pursuant to division (D) of this section:64399

       (a) No contribution from a contributor may thereafter be 64400
accepted that, when added to the aggregate total of all 64401
contributions received by that committee from that contributor 64402
during the primary election period or general election period, 64403
whichever is applicable, would cause that committee to exceed the 64404
contribution limitations prescribed in section 3517.102 of the 64405
Revised Code for the applicable election period.64406

       (b) The statement of primary-day finances or the year-end 64407
statement required to be filed under division (E) of section 64408
3517.1010 of the Revised Code shall be filed not later than 64409
fourteen days after the date the candidate's opponent fails to 64410
file a declaration of candidacy or nominating petition by the 64411
appropriate filing deadline, or dies or withdraws. For purposes of 64412
calculating permitted funds under division (A)(4) of section 64413
3517.1010 of the Revised Code, the primary or general election 64414
period, whichever is applicable, shall be considered to have ended 64415
on the filing deadline, in the case of an opponent who fails to 64416
file a declaration of candidacy or nominating petition, or on the 64417
date of the opponent's death or withdrawal. In such an event, the 64418
filing of a statement of primary-day finances or year-end finances 64419
and the disposing of any excess funds as required under division 64420
(B) of section 3517.1010 of the Revised Code satisfies the 64421
candidate's obligation to file such a statement for that election 64422
period.64423

       (E)(1) No campaign committee shall fail to file a personal 64424
funds notice as required under division (C)(1) or (2) of this 64425
section.64426

       (2) No campaign committee shall accept any contribution in 64427
excess of the contribution limitations prescribed in section 64428
3517.102 of the Revised Code:64429

       (a) Unless a declaration of no limits has been filed under 64430
division (D)(2) of this section;64431

       (b) In violation of division (D)(4) of this section once the 64432
candidate who filed a personal funds notice under division (C)(3) 64433
of this section fails to file a declaration of candidacy or 64434
nominating petition or that candidate dies or withdraws.64435

       (3) No campaign committee that violates division (E)(1) of 64436
this section shall expend any personal funds in excess of the 64437
amount specified in division (C)(1) or (2) of this section, 64438
whichever is appropriate to the committee. 64439

       (4) The candidate of any campaign committee that violates 64440
division (E) of this section shall forfeit the candidate's 64441
nomination, if the candidate was nominated, or the office to which 64442
the candidate was elected, if the candidate was elected to office. 64443

       (F)(1) Whenever a campaign committee files a notice under 64444
division (C)(1) or (2) of this section or whenever the 64445
contribution limitations prescribed in section 3517.102 of the 64446
Revised Code do not apply to a campaign committee under division 64447
(D)(1) of this section, that committee is not a designated state 64448
campaign committee for the purpose of the limitations prescribed 64449
in section 3517.102 of the Revised Code with regard to 64450
contributions made by that campaign committee to a legislative 64451
campaign fund or to a state candidate fund of a state or county 64452
political party.64453

       (2) Division (F)(1) of this section no longer applies to a 64454
campaign committee after both of the following occur:64455

       (a) The primary or general election period during which the 64456
contribution limitations prescribed in section 3517.102 of the 64457
Revised Code did not apply after being removed pursuant to 64458
division (D) of this section has expired;64459

       (b) When the campaign committee has disposed of all excess 64460
funds and excess aggregate contributions as required under section 64461
3517.1010 of the Revised Code.64462

       Sec. 3517.153.  (A) Upon the filing of a complaint with the 64463
Ohio elections commission, which shall be made by affidavit of any 64464
person, on personal knowledge, and subject to the penalties for 64465
perjury, or upon the filing of a complaint made by the secretary 64466
of state or an official at the board of elections, setting forth a 64467
failure to comply with or a violation of any provision in sections 64468
3517.08 to 3517.13, 3517.17, 3517.18, 3517.20 to 3517.22, 3599.03, 64469
or 3599.031 of the Revised Code, the commission shall proceed in 64470
accordance with sections 3517.154 to 3517.157 of the Revised Code. 64471

       (B) The commission shall prescribe the form for complaints 64472
made under division (A) of this section. The secretary of state 64473
and boards of elections shall furnish the information that the 64474
commission requests. The commission or a member of the commission 64475
may administer oaths, and the commission may issue subpoenas to 64476
any person in the state compelling the attendance of witnesses and 64477
the production of relevant papers, books, accounts, and reports. 64478
Section 101.42 of the Revised Code governs the issuance of 64479
subpoenas insofar as applicable. Upon the refusal of any person to 64480
obey a subpoena or to be sworn or to answer as a witness, the 64481
commission may apply to the court of common pleas of Franklin 64482
county under section 2705.03 of the Revised Code. The court shall 64483
hold proceedings in accordance with Chapter 2705. of the Revised 64484
Code. 64485

       (C) No prosecution shall commence for a violation of a 64486
provision in sections 3517.08 to 3517.13, 3517.17, 3517.18, 64487
3517.20 to 3517.22, 3599.03, or 3599.031 of the Revised Code 64488
unless a complaint has been filed with the commission under this 64489
section and all proceedings of the commission or a panel of the 64490
commission, as appropriate, under sections 3517.154 to 3517.157 of 64491
the Revised Code are completed. 64492

       (D) The commission may recommend legislation and render 64493
advisory opinions concerning sections 3517.08, 3517.082, 3517.092, 64494
3517.102, 3517.103, 3517.105, 3517.1014, 3517.13, 3517.18, 3517.20 64495
to 3517.22, 3599.03, and 3599.031 of the Revised Code for persons 64496
over whose acts it has or may have jurisdiction. When the 64497
commission renders an advisory opinion relating to a specific set 64498
of circumstances involving any of those sections stating that 64499
there is no violation of a provision in those sections, the person 64500
to whom the opinion is directed or a person who is similarly 64501
situated may reasonably rely on the opinion and is immune from 64502
criminal prosecution and a civil action, including, without 64503
limitation, a civil action for removal from public office or 64504
employment, based on facts and circumstances covered by the 64505
opinion. 64506

       (E) The commission shall establish a web site on which it 64507
shall post, at a minimum, all decisions and advisory opinions 64508
issued by the commission and copies of each election law as it is 64509
amended by the general assembly. The commission shall update the 64510
web site regularly to reflect any changes to those decisions and 64511
advisory opinions and any new decisions and advisory opinions. 64512

       Sec. 3517.154.  (A)(1) The full-time attorney for the Ohio 64513
elections commission shall review each complaint filed with the 64514
commission under section 3517.153 of the Revised Code, shall 64515
determine the nature of the complaint, and, unless division 64516
(A)(2)(a) of this section requires that the complaint receive an 64517
automatic expedited hearing, shall make a recommendation to the 64518
commission for its disposition, in accordance with this section. 64519
The attorney shall make the determination and the recommendation, 64520
if required, not later than one business day after the complaint 64521
is filed. 64522

       (2)(a) If the attorney determines that the complaint sets 64523
forth a violation of division (B) of section 3517.21 or division 64524
(B) of section 3517.22 of the Revised Code and that the complaint 64525
is filed during one of the periods of time specified in division 64526
(B)(1) of section 3517.156 of the Revised Code, or that the 64527
complaint sets forth a violation of section 3517.103 of the 64528
Revised Code or a violation described in division (D) of section 64529
3517.1010 of the Revised Code, the complaint shall receive an 64530
automatic expedited hearing under section 3517.156 of the Revised 64531
Code. 64532

       (b) If the attorney determines that the complaint sets forth 64533
a failure to comply with or a violation of division (G), (I), (J), 64534
(O), (P), or (Q) of section 3517.13, division (A) of section 64535
3517.21, or division (A) of section 3517.22 of the Revised Code 64536
and that the complaint is filed during one of the periods of time 64537
specified in division (B)(1) of section 3517.156 of the Revised 64538
Code, the attorney shall recommend to the commission that the 64539
complaint receive an expedited hearing under section 3517.156 of 64540
the Revised Code, and the complaint shall receive such a hearing. 64541

       (c) If the attorney determines that the complaint sets forth 64542
a failure to comply with or a violation of a section of the 64543
Revised Code over which the commission has jurisdiction to hear 64544
complaints other than the sections described in divisions 64545
(A)(2)(a) and (b) of this section, and unless the attorney makes a 64546
determination as provided for in division (A)(3) of this section, 64547
the attorney shall recommend to the commission that the complaint 64548
be submitted to the commission under section 3517.155 of the 64549
Revised Code. After the attorney makes that recommendation, the 64550
attorney shall notify all parties to the complaint of the 64551
attorney's recommendation. 64552

       (3)(a) If a complaint sets forth a failure to comply with or 64553
a violation of a section of the Revised Code over which the 64554
commission has jurisdiction to hear complaints other than the 64555
sections described in divisions (A)(2)(a) and (b) of this section 64556
and if the complaint is filed during one of the periods of time 64557
specified in division (B)(1) of section 3517.156 of the Revised 64558
Code, the attorney may determine that the complaint should receive 64559
an expedited hearing under that section. The attorney shall make 64560
that determination by considering one or more of the following: 64561

       (i) The number of prior failures to comply with or violations 64562
of Title XXXV of the Revised Code that the person or entity 64563
against whom the complaint has been brought has committed and any 64564
prior penalties the commission has imposed on the person or 64565
entity; 64566

       (ii) If the complaint involves a statement required to be 64567
filed under section 3517.10, division (E) of section 3517.102, or 64568
section 3517.103, 3517.105, 3517.107, 3517.108, 3517.109, 64569
3517.1011, 3517.1012, or 3517.1014 of the Revised Code or an 64570
addendum required to be filed under section 3517.11 of the Revised 64571
Code that is filed late, how late the filing is and how much time 64572
has elapsed between the deadline for filing the statement or 64573
addendum and the filing of the complaint; 64574

       (iii) If the complaint involves contributions and 64575
expenditures, contributions and disbursements, deposits and 64576
disbursements, gifts and disbursements, or donations and 64577
disbursements required to be reported under section 3517.10, 64578
division (E) of section 3517.102, or section 3517.105, 3517.107, 64579
3517.108, 3517.109, 3517.1011, 3517.1012, 3517.1013, or 3517.1014 64580
of the Revised Code that are either not reported or reported late, 64581
the number of contributions and expenditures, contributions and 64582
disbursements, deposits and disbursements, gifts and 64583
disbursements, or donations and disbursements not reported or how 64584
late they were reported; 64585

       (iv) If the complaint involves contributions required to be 64586
reported by a campaign committee under section 3517.10, division 64587
(E) of section 3517.102, or section 3517.105, 3517.107, 3517.108, 64588
or 3517.109 of the Revised Code that are not reported, whether any 64589
of the contributors of the contributions not reported have a 64590
personal or professional relationship with the campaign 64591
committee's candidate; 64592

       (v) If the complaint involves a statement required to be 64593
filed under section 3517.10, division (E) of section 3517.102, or 64594
section 3517.103, 3517.105, 3517.107, 3517.108, 3517.109, 64595
3517.1011, 3517.1012, 3517.1013, or 3517.1014 of the Revised Code 64596
that is incomplete, the degree to which it is incomplete; 64597

       (vi) If the complaint involves the receipt of contributions 64598
in violation of section 3599.03 of the Revised Code, the dollar 64599
amount and number of contributions received in violation of that 64600
section; 64601

       (vii) If the complaint involves a failure to make the 64602
identification or a misstatement of the identification required 64603
under section 3517.105 or 3517.20 of the Revised Code, whether the 64604
failure or misstatement was purposely made; 64605

       (viii) If the complaint sets forth a failure to comply with 64606
or a violation of a section of the Revised Code described in 64607
division (A)(2)(c) of this section, whether the person or entity 64608
against whom the complaint has been made has committed more than 64609
one such failure or violation within a reasonable amount of time, 64610
or whether the cumulative nature of the failures or violations 64611
indicates a systematic disregard for the law. 64612

       (b) Prior to making a determination under division (A)(3)(a) 64613
of this section that the complaint should receive an expedited 64614
hearing under section 3517.156 of the Revised Code, the attorney 64615
shall take into consideration the number of panels of the 64616
commission that have cases pending before them and the number of 64617
cases pending before the panels and shall not make a determination 64618
that will place an undue burden on a panel of the commission. 64619

       (c) If the attorney determines that the complaint should 64620
receive an expedited hearing under section 3517.156 of the Revised 64621
Code, the attorney shall recommend to the commission that the 64622
complaint receive an expedited hearing, and, if a majority of the 64623
members of the commission agrees with the recommendation, the 64624
complaint shall receive an expedited hearing under that section. 64625

       (4) The attorney may join two or more complaints if the 64626
attorney determines that the allegations in each complaint are of 64627
the same or similar character, are based on the same act or 64628
failure to act, or are based on two or more acts or failures to 64629
act constituting parts of a common scheme or plan. If one 64630
complaint contains two or more allegations, the attorney may 64631
separate the allegations if they are not of the same or similar 64632
character, if they are not based on the same act or failure to 64633
act, or if they are not based on two or more acts or failures to 64634
act constituting parts of a common scheme or plan. If the attorney 64635
separates the allegations in a complaint, the attorney may make 64636
separate recommendations under division (A)(2) or (3) of this 64637
section for each allegation. 64638

       (B) Whenever a person or other entity files a complaint with 64639
the commission setting forth a failure to comply with or a 64640
violation of a section of the Revised Code as described in 64641
division (A)(2)(c) of this section and the complaint is filed 64642
during one of the periods of time specified in division (B)(1) of 64643
section 3517.156 of the Revised Code, the person or entity may 64644
request an expedited hearing under that section at the time the 64645
complaint is filed. The attorney for the commission shall inform 64646
the members of the commission of that request at the time the 64647
attorney makes a recommendation under division (A) of this 64648
section. The commission may grant the request for an expedited 64649
hearing under this division if it determines that an expedited 64650
hearing is practicable. 64651

       Sec. 3517.155.  (A)(1) Except as otherwise provided in 64652
division (B) of this section, the Ohio elections commission shall 64653
hold its first hearing on a complaint filed with it, other than a 64654
complaint that receives an expedited hearing under section 64655
3517.156 of the Revised Code, not later than ninety business days 64656
after the complaint is filed unless the commission has good cause 64657
to hold the hearing after that time, in which case it shall hold 64658
the hearing not later than one hundred eighty business days after 64659
the complaint is filed. At the hearing, the commission shall 64660
determine whether or not the failure to act or the violation 64661
alleged in the complaint has occurred and shall do only one of the 64662
following, except as otherwise provided in division (B) of this 64663
section or in division (B) of section 3517.151 of the Revised 64664
Code:64665

       (a) Enter a finding that good cause has been shown not to 64666
impose a fine or not to refer the matter to the appropriate 64667
prosecutor;64668

       (b) Impose a fine under section 3517.993 of the Revised Code;64669

       (c) Refer the matter to the appropriate prosecutor;64670

       (d) Direct the secretary of state or appropriate board of 64671
elections with the authority to certify a candidate to the ballot 64672
to remove a candidate's name from the ballot if the candidate is 64673
barred from the ballot under division (D) of section 3517.1010 of 64674
the Revised Code.64675

       (2) As used in division (A) of this section, "appropriate 64676
prosecutor" means a prosecutor as defined in section 2935.01 of 64677
the Revised Code and either of the following:64678

       (a) In the case of a failure to comply with or a violation of 64679
law involving a campaign committee or the committee's candidate, a 64680
political party, a legislative campaign fund, a political action 64681
committee, or a political contributing entity, that is required to 64682
file a statement of contributions and expenditures with the 64683
secretary of state under division (A) of section 3517.11 of the 64684
Revised Code, the prosecutor of Franklin county;64685

       (b) In the case of a failure to comply with or a violation of 64686
law involving any other campaign committee or committee's 64687
candidate, or any other political party, political action 64688
committee, or political contributing entity either of the 64689
following as determined by the commission:64690

       (i) The prosecutor of Franklin county;64691

       (ii) The prosecutor of the county in which the candidacy or 64692
ballot question or issue is submitted to the electors or, if it is 64693
submitted in more than one county, the most populous of those 64694
counties.64695

       (B) If the commission decides that the evidence is 64696
insufficient for it to determine whether or not the failure to act 64697
or the violation alleged in the complaint has occurred, the 64698
commission, by the affirmative vote of five members, may request 64699
that an investigatory attorney investigate the complaint. Upon 64700
that request, an investigatory attorney shall make an 64701
investigation in order to produce sufficient evidence for the 64702
commission to decide the matter. If the commission requests an 64703
investigation under this division, for good cause shown by the 64704
investigatory attorney, the commission may extend by sixty days 64705
the deadline for holding its first hearing on the complaint as 64706
required in division (A) of this section.64707

       (C) The commission shall take one of the actions required 64708
under division (A) of this section not later than thirty days 64709
after the close of all the evidence presented.64710

       (D)(1) The commission shall make any finding of a failure to 64711
comply with or a violation of law in regard to a complaint that 64712
alleges a violation of division (D) of section 3517.1010, division 64713
(A) or (B) of section 3517.21, or division (A) or (B) of section 64714
3517.22 of the Revised Code by clear and convincing evidence. The 64715
commission shall make any finding of a failure to comply with or a 64716
violation of law in regard to any other complaint by a 64717
preponderance of the evidence.64718

       (2) If the commission finds a violation of division (B) of 64719
section 3517.21 or division (B) of section 3517.22 of the Revised 64720
Code, it shall refer the matter to the appropriate prosecutor 64721
under division (A)(1)(c) of this section and shall not impose a 64722
fine under division (A)(1)(b) of this section or section 3517.993 64723
of the Revised Code.64724

       (E) In an action before the commission or a panel of the 64725
commission, if the allegations of the complainant are not proved, 64726
and the commission takes the action described in division 64727
(A)(1)(a) of this section or a panel of the commission takes the 64728
action described in division (C)(1) of section 3517.156 of the 64729
Revised Code, the commission or a panel of the commission may find 64730
that the complaint is frivolous, and, if the commission or panel 64731
so finds, the commission shall order the complainant to pay 64732
reasonable attorney's fees and to pay the costs of the commission 64733
or panel as determined by a majority of the members of the 64734
commission. The costs paid to the commission or panel under this 64735
division shall be deposited into the Ohio elections commission 64736
fund.64737

       Sec. 3517.20.  (A)(1) As used in this section:64738

       (a) "Political publication for or against a candidate" means 64739
a notice, placard, advertisement, sample ballot, brochure, flyer, 64740
direct mailer, or other form of general publication that is 64741
designed to promote the nomination, election, or defeat of a 64742
candidate.64743

       (b) "Political publication for or against an issue" means a 64744
notice, placard, advertisement, sample ballot, brochure, flyer, 64745
direct mailer, or other form of general publication that is 64746
designed to promote the adoption or defeat of a ballot issue or 64747
question or to influence the voters in an election.64748

       (c) "Public political advertising" means newspapers, 64749
magazines, outdoor advertising facilities, direct mailings, or 64750
other similar types of general public political advertising, or 64751
flyers, handbills, or other nonperiodical printed matter.64752

       (d) "Statewide candidate" has the same meaning as in section 64753
3517.102 of the Revised Code.64754

       (e) "Legislative candidate" means a candidate for the office 64755
of member of the general assembly.64756

       (f) "Local candidate" means a candidate for an elective 64757
office of a political subdivision of this state.64758

       (g) "Legislative campaign fund" has the same meaning as in 64759
section 3517.01 of the Revised Code.64760

       (h) "Limited political action committee" means a political 64761
action committee of fewer than ten members.64762

       (i) "Limited political contributing entity" means a political 64763
contributing entity of fewer than ten members.64764

        (j) "Designated amount" means one hundred dollars in the case 64765
of a local candidate or a local ballot issue, two hundred fifty 64766
dollars in the case of a legislative candidate, or five hundred 64767
dollars in the case of a statewide candidate or a statewide ballot 64768
issue.64769

       (k) "To issue" includes to print, post, distribute, reproduce 64770
for distribution, or cause to be issued, printed, posted, 64771
distributed, or reproduced for distribution.64772

       (l) "Telephone bank" means more than five hundred telephone 64773
calls of an identical or substantially similar nature within any 64774
thirty-day period, whether those telephone calls are made by 64775
individual callers or by recording.64776

       (2)(a) No candidate, legislative campaign fund, political 64777
party, or other entity, except a political action committee, a 64778
political contributing entity, a candidate, a legislative campaign 64779
fund, or a campaign committee, shall issue a form of political 64780
publication for or against a candidate, or shall make an 64781
expenditure for the purpose of financing political communications 64782
in support of or opposition to a candidate through public 64783
political advertising, unless the name and residence or business 64784
address of the candidate or the chairperson, treasurer, or 64785
secretary of the legislative campaign fund, political party, or 64786
other entity that issues or otherwise is responsible for that 64787
political publication or that makes an expenditure for that 64788
political communication appears in a conspicuous place on that 64789
political publication or is contained within that political 64790
communication. 64791

       (b) No candidate, legislative campaign fund, or campaign 64792
committee shall issue a form of political publication for or 64793
against a candidate, or shall make an expenditure for the purpose 64794
of financing political communications in support of or opposition 64795
to a candidate through public political advertising, unless the 64796
name of the campaign committeeentity appears in a conspicuous 64797
place on that political publication or is contained within that 64798
political communication.64799

       (3) No limited political action committee or limited 64800
political contributing entity shall do either of the following 64801
unless the name and residence or business address of the 64802
chairperson, treasurer, or secretary of the limited political 64803
action committee or limited political contributing entity involved 64804
appears in a conspicuous place in the political publication for or 64805
against a candidate described in division (A)(3)(a) of this 64806
section or is contained within the political communication 64807
described in division (A)(3)(b) of this section:64808

       (a) Issue a form of political publication for or against a 64809
candidate that costs in excess of the designated amount or that is 64810
issued in cooperation, consultation, or concert with, or at the 64811
request or suggestion of, a candidate, a campaign committee, a 64812
legislative campaign fund, a political party, a political action 64813
committee with ten or more members, a political contributing 64814
entity with ten or more members, or a limited political action 64815
committee or limited political contributing entity that spends in 64816
excess of the designated amount on a related or the same or 64817
similar political publication for or against a candidate;64818

       (b) Make an expenditure in excess of the designated amount in 64819
support of or opposition to a candidate or make an expenditure in 64820
cooperation, consultation, or concert with, or at the request or 64821
suggestion of, a candidate, a campaign committee, a legislative 64822
campaign fund, a political party, a political action committee 64823
with ten or more members, a political contributing entity with ten 64824
or more members, or a limited political action committee or 64825
limited political contributing entity that spends in excess of the 64826
designated amount in support of or opposition to the same 64827
candidate, for the purpose of financing political communications 64828
in support of or opposition to that candidate through public 64829
political advertising.64830

       (4) No political action committee with ten or more members 64831
and no political contributing entity with ten or more members 64832
shall issue a form of political publication for or against a 64833
candidate, or shall make an expenditure for the purpose of 64834
financing political communications in support of or opposition to 64835
a candidate through public political advertising, unless the name 64836
and residence or business address of the chairperson, treasurer, 64837
or secretary of the political action committee or political 64838
contributing entity that issues or otherwise is responsible for 64839
that political publication or that makes an expenditure for that 64840
political communication through public political advertising 64841
appears in a conspicuous place in that political publication or is 64842
contained within that political communication.64843

       (5)(a) No corporation, labor organization, legislative 64844
campaign fund, political party, or other entity, except a 64845
political action committee, a legislative campaign fund, or a 64846
campaign committee, shall issue a form of political publication 64847
for or against an issue, or shall make an expenditure for the 64848
purpose of financing political communications in support of or 64849
opposition to a ballot issue or question through public political 64850
advertising, unless the name and residence or business address of 64851
the chairperson, treasurer, or secretary of the corporation, labor 64852
organization, legislative campaign fund, political party, or other 64853
entity that issues or otherwise is responsible for that political 64854
publication or that makes an expenditure for that political 64855
communication through public political advertising appears in a 64856
conspicuous place in that political publication or is contained 64857
within that political communication.64858

       (b) No campaign committee or legislative campaign fund shall 64859
issue a form of political publication for or against an issue, or 64860
shall make an expenditure for the purpose of financing political 64861
communications in support of or opposition to a ballot issue or 64862
question through public political advertising, unless the name of 64863
the campaign committee or legislative campaign fund appears in a 64864
conspicuous place in that political publication or is contained 64865
within that political communication.64866

       (6) No limited political action committee shall do either of 64867
the following unless the name and residence or business address of 64868
the chairperson, treasurer, or secretary of the limited political 64869
action committee involved appears in a conspicuous place in the 64870
political publication for or against a ballot issue described in 64871
division (A)(6)(a) of this section or is contained within the 64872
political communication described in division (A)(6)(b) of this 64873
section:64874

       (a) Issue a form of political publication for or against a 64875
ballot issue that costs in excess of the designated amount or that 64876
is issued in cooperation, consultation, or concert with, or at the 64877
request or suggestion of, a candidate, a campaign committee, a 64878
legislative campaign fund, a political party, a political action 64879
committee with ten or more members, or a limited political action 64880
committee that spends in excess of the designated amount for a 64881
related or the same or similar political publication for or 64882
against an issue;64883

       (b) Make an expenditure in excess of the designated amount in 64884
support of or opposition to a ballot issue or make an expenditure 64885
in cooperation, consultation, or concert with, or at the request 64886
or suggestion of, a candidate, a campaign committee, a legislative 64887
campaign fund, a political party, a political action committee 64888
with ten or more members, or a limited political action committee 64889
that spends in excess of the designated amount in support of or 64890
opposition to the same ballot issue, for the purpose of financing 64891
political communications in support of or opposition to that 64892
ballot issue through public political advertising.64893

       (7) No political action committee with ten or more members 64894
shall issue a form of political publication for or against an 64895
issue, or shall make an expenditure for the purpose of financing 64896
political communications in support of or opposition to a ballot 64897
issue or question through public political advertising, unless the 64898
name and residence or business address of the chairperson, 64899
treasurer, or secretary of the political action committee that 64900
issues or otherwise is responsible for that political publication 64901
or that makes an expenditure for that political communication 64902
appears in a conspicuous place in that political publication or is 64903
contained within that political communication.64904

       (8) The disclaimer "paid political advertisement" is not 64905
sufficient to meet the requirements of this section. 64906

       (9) If the political publication described in division (A) of 64907
this section is issued by the regularly constituted central or 64908
executive committee of a political party that is organized as 64909
provided in this chapter, it shall be sufficiently identified if 64910
it bears the name of the committee and its chairperson or 64911
treasurer. 64912

       (10) If more than one piece of printed matter or printed 64913
political communications are mailed as a single packet, the 64914
requirements of division (A) of this section are met if one of the 64915
pieces of printed matter or printed political communications in 64916
the packet contains the name and residence or business address of 64917
the chairperson, treasurer, or secretary of the organization or 64918
entity that issues or is responsible for the printed matter or 64919
other printed political communications, except that if a campaign 64920
committee or legislative campaign fund mails more than one piece 64921
of printed matter or printed political communications as a single 64922
packet, the requirements of division (A) of this section are met 64923
if one of the pieces of printed matter or printed political 64924
communications in the packet contains the name of the campaign 64925
committee or legislative campaign fund.64926

       (11) This section does not apply to the transmittal of 64927
personal correspondence that is not reproduced by machine for 64928
general distribution.64929

       (12) The secretary of state, by rule, may exempt from the 64930
requirements of this section, printed matter and certain other 64931
kinds of printed communications such as campaign buttons, 64932
balloons, pencils, or similar items, the size or nature of which 64933
makes it unreasonable to add an identification or disclaimer. 64934

       (13) The disclaimer or identification described in division 64935
(A) of this section, when paid for by a candidate, legislative 64936
campaign fund, or campaign committee, shall be identified by the 64937
words "paid for by" followed by the name of the campaign committee 64938
and the appropriate officer of the committee, identified by name 64939
and titleentity. The identification or disclaimer may use 64940
reasonable abbreviations for common terms such as "treasurer" or64941
"committee".64942

       (B)(1) No candidate, campaign committee, legislative campaign 64943
fund, political party, political action committee, limited 64944
political action committee, political contributing entity, limited 64945
political contributing entity, or other entity shall utter or 64946
cause to be uttered, over the broadcasting facilities of any radio 64947
or television station within this state, any communication that is 64948
designed to promote the nomination, election, or defeat of a 64949
candidate, or the adoption or defeat of an issue or to influence 64950
the voters in an election, unless the speaker identifies the 64951
speaker with the speaker's name and residence address or unless 64952
the communication identifies the chairperson, treasurer, or 64953
secretary of the organization responsible for the communication 64954
with the name and residence or business address of that officer, 64955
except that communications by radio need not broadcast the 64956
residence or business address of the officer. However, a radio 64957
station, for a period of at least six months, shall keep the 64958
residence or business address on file and divulge it to any person 64959
upon request.64960

       No person operating a broadcast station or an organ of 64961
printed media shall broadcast or print a paid political 64962
communication that does not contain the identification required by 64963
this section.64964

       (2) Division (B) of this section does not apply to any 64965
communications made on behalf of a radio or television station or 64966
network by any employee of such radio or television station or 64967
network while acting in the course of the employee's employment.64968

       (3) No candidate or entity described in division (B)(1) of 64969
this section shall use or cause to be used a false, fictitious, or 64970
fraudulent name or address in the making or issuing of a 64971
publication or communication included within the provisions of 64972
this section.64973

       (C) No candidate, campaign committee, legislative campaign 64974
fund, political party, political action committee, limited 64975
political action committee, political contributing entity, limited 64976
political contributing entity, or other person or entity shall 64977
conduct a telephone bank for the purpose of promoting the 64978
nomination, election, or defeat of a candidate or the adoption or 64979
defeat of an issue or to influence the voters in an election, 64980
unless the call includes a disclaimer that identifies the name of 64981
the candidate, campaign committee, legislative campaign fund, 64982
political party, political action committee, limited political 64983
action committee, political contributing entity, limited political 64984
contributing entity, or other person or entity paying for the 64985
telephone bank.64986

        (D) Before a prosecution may commence under this section, a 64987
complaint shall be filed with the Ohio elections commission under 64988
section 3517.153 of the Revised Code. After the complaint is 64989
filed, the commission shall proceed in accordance with sections 64990
3517.154 to 3517.157 of the Revised Code.64991

       Sec. 3517.992.  This section establishes penalties only with 64992
respect to acts or failures to act that occur on and after August 64993
24, 1995. 64994

       (A)(1) A candidate whose campaign committee violates division 64995
(A), (B), (C), (D), or (V) of section 3517.13 of the Revised Code, 64996
or a treasurer of a campaign committee who violates any of those 64997
divisions, shall be fined not more than one hundred dollars for 64998
each day of violation. 64999

       (2) Whoever violates division (E) or (X)(5) of section 65000
3517.13 or division (E)(1) of section 3517.1014 of the Revised 65001
Code shall be fined not more than one hundred dollars for each day 65002
of violation. 65003

       (B) A political party that violates division (F)(1) of 65004
section 3517.101 of the Revised Code shall be fined not more than 65005
one hundred dollars for each day of violation. 65006

       (C) Whoever violates division (F)(2) of section 3517.101, 65007
division (G) of section 3517.13, or division (E)(2) or (3) of 65008
section 3517.1014 of the Revised Code shall be fined not more than 65009
ten thousand dollars or, if the offender is a person who was 65010
nominated or elected to public office, shall forfeit the 65011
nomination or the office to which the offender was elected, or 65012
both. 65013

       (D) Whoever violates division (F) of section 3517.13 of the 65014
Revised Code shall be fined not more than three times the amount 65015
contributed. 65016

       (E) Whoever violates division (H) of section 3517.13 of the 65017
Revised Code shall be fined not more than one hundred dollars. 65018

       (F) Whoever violates division (O), (P), or (Q) of section 65019
3517.13 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the 65020
first degree. 65021

       (G) A state or county committee of a political party that 65022
violates division (B)(1) of section 3517.18 of the Revised Code 65023
shall be fined not more than twice the amount of the improper 65024
expenditure. 65025

       (H) A state or county political party that violates division 65026
(G) of section 3517.101 of the Revised Code shall be fined not 65027
more than twice the amount of the improper expenditure or use. 65028

       (I)(1) Any individual who violates division (B)(1) of section 65029
3517.102 of the Revised Code and knows that the contribution the 65030
individual makes violates that division shall be fined an amount 65031
equal to three times the amount contributed in excess of the 65032
amount permitted by that division. 65033

       (2) Any political action committee that violates division 65034
(B)(2) of section 3517.102 of the Revised Code shall be fined an 65035
amount equal to three times the amount contributed in excess of 65036
the amount permitted by that division. 65037

       (3) Any campaign committee that violates division (B)(3) or 65038
(5) of section 3517.102 of the Revised Code shall be fined an 65039
amount equal to three times the amount contributed in excess of 65040
the amount permitted by that division. 65041

       (4)(a) Any legislative campaign fund that violates division 65042
(B)(6) of section 3517.102 of the Revised Code shall be fined an 65043
amount equal to three times the amount transferred or contributed 65044
in excess of the amount permitted by that division, as applicable. 65045

       (b) Any state political party, county political party, or 65046
state candidate fund of a state political party or county 65047
political party that violates division (B)(6) of section 3517.102 65048
of the Revised Code shall be fined an amount equal to three times 65049
the amount transferred or contributed in excess of the amount 65050
permitted by that division, as applicable. 65051

       (c) Any political contributing entity that violates division 65052
(B)(7) of section 3517.102 of the Revised Code shall be fined an 65053
amount equal to three times the amount contributed in excess of 65054
the amount permitted by that division. 65055

       (5) Any political party that violates division (B)(4) of 65056
section 3517.102 of the Revised Code shall be fined an amount 65057
equal to three times the amount contributed in excess of the 65058
amount permitted by that division. 65059

       (6) Notwithstanding divisions (I)(1), (2), (3), (4), and (5) 65060
of this section, no violation of division (B) of section 3517.102 65061
of the Revised Code occurs, and the secretary of state shall not 65062
refer parties to the Ohio elections commission, if the amount 65063
transferred or contributed in excess of the amount permitted by 65064
that division meets either of the following conditions: 65065

       (a) It is completely refunded within five business days after 65066
it is accepted. 65067

       (b) It is completely refunded on or before the tenth business 65068
day after notification to the recipient of the excess transfer or 65069
contribution by the board of elections or the secretary of state 65070
that a transfer or contribution in excess of the permitted amount 65071
has been received. 65072

       (J)(1) Any campaign committee that violates division (C)(1), 65073
(2), (3), or (6) of section 3517.102 of the Revised Code shall be 65074
fined an amount equal to three times the amount accepted in excess 65075
of the amount permitted by that division. 65076

       (2)(a) Any county political party that violates division 65077
(C)(4)(a)(ii) or (iii) of section 3517.102 of the Revised Code 65078
shall be fined an amount equal to three times the amount accepted. 65079

       (b) Any county political party that violates division 65080
(C)(4)(a)(i) of section 3517.102 of the Revised Code shall be 65081
fined an amount from its state candidate fund equal to three times 65082
the amount accepted in excess of the amount permitted by that 65083
division. 65084

       (c) Any state political party that violates division 65085
(C)(4)(b) of section 3517.102 of the Revised Code shall be fined 65086
an amount from its state candidate fund equal to three times the 65087
amount accepted in excess of the amount permitted by that 65088
division. 65089

       (3) Any legislative campaign fund that violates division 65090
(C)(5) of section 3517.102 of the Revised Code shall be fined an 65091
amount equal to three times the amount accepted in excess of the 65092
amount permitted by that division. 65093

       (4) Any political action committee or political contributing 65094
entity that violates division (C)(7) of section 3517.102 of the 65095
Revised Code shall be fined an amount equal to three times the 65096
amount accepted in excess of the amount permitted by that 65097
division. 65098

       (5) Notwithstanding divisions (J)(1), (2), (3), and (4) of 65099
this section, no violation of division (C) of section 3517.102 of 65100
the Revised Code occurs, and the secretary of state shall not 65101
refer parties to the Ohio elections commission, if the amount 65102
transferred or contributed in excess of the amount permitted to be 65103
accepted by that division meets either of the following 65104
conditions: 65105

       (a) It is completely refunded within five business days after 65106
its acceptance. 65107

       (b) It is completely refunded on or before the tenth business 65108
day after notification to the recipient of the excess transfer or 65109
contribution by the board of elections or the secretary of state 65110
that a transfer or contribution in excess of the permitted amount 65111
has been received. 65112

       (K)(1) Any legislative campaign fund that violates division 65113
(F)(1) of section 3517.102 of the Revised Code shall be fined 65114
twenty-five dollars for each day of violation. 65115

       (2) Any legislative campaign fund that violates division 65116
(F)(2) of section 3517.102 of the Revised Code shall give to the 65117
treasurer of state for deposit into the state treasury to the 65118
credit of the Ohio elections commission fund all excess 65119
contributions not disposed of as required by division (E) of 65120
section 3517.102 of the Revised Code. 65121

       (L) Whoever violates section 3517.105 of the Revised Code 65122
shall be fined one thousand dollars. 65123

       (M)(1) Whoever solicits a contribution in violation of 65124
section 3517.092 or violates division (B) of section 3517.09 of 65125
the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. 65126

       (2) Whoever knowingly accepts a contribution in violation of 65127
division (B) or (C) of section 3517.092 of the Revised Code shall 65128
be fined an amount equal to three times the amount accepted in 65129
violation of either of those divisions and shall return to the 65130
contributor any amount so accepted. Whoever unknowingly accepts a 65131
contribution in violation of division (B) or (C) of section 65132
3517.092 of the Revised Code shall return to the contributor any 65133
amount so accepted. 65134

       (N) Whoever violates division (S) of section 3517.13 of the 65135
Revised Code shall be fined an amount equal to three times the 65136
amount of funds transferred or three times the value of the assets 65137
transferred in violation of that division. 65138

       (O) Any campaign committee that accepts a contribution or 65139
contributions in violation of section 3517.108 of the Revised 65140
Code, uses a contribution in violation of that section, or fails 65141
to dispose of excess contributions in violation of that section 65142
shall be fined an amount equal to three times the amount accepted, 65143
used, or kept in violation of that section. 65144

       (P) Any political party, state candidate fund, legislative 65145
candidate fund, or campaign committee that violates division (T) 65146
of section 3517.13 of the Revised Code shall be fined an amount 65147
equal to three times the amount contributed or accepted in 65148
violation of that section. 65149

       (Q) A treasurer of a committee or another person who violates 65150
division (U) of section 3517.13 of the Revised Code shall be fined 65151
not more than two hundred fifty dollars. 65152

       (R) Whoever violates division (I) or (J) of section 3517.13 65153
of the Revised Code shall be fined not more than one thousand 65154
dollars. Whenever a person is found guilty of violating division 65155
(I) or (J) of section 3517.13 of the Revised Code, the contract 65156
awarded in violation of either of those divisions shall be 65157
rescinded if its terms have not yet been performed. 65158

       (S) A candidate whose campaign committee violates or a 65159
treasurer of a campaign committee who violates section 3517.081 of 65160
the Revised Code, and a candidate whose campaign committee 65161
violates or a treasurer of a campaign committee or another person 65162
who violates division (C) of section 3517.10 of the Revised Code, 65163
shall be fined not more than five hundred dollars. 65164

       (T) A candidate whose campaign committee violates or a 65165
treasurer of a committee who violates division (B) of section 65166
3517.09 of the Revised Code, or a candidate whose campaign 65167
committee violates or a treasurer of a campaign committee or 65168
another person who violates division (C) of section 3517.09 of the 65169
Revised Code shall be fined not more than one thousand dollars. 65170

       (U) Whoever violates section 3517.20 of the Revised Code 65171
shall be fined not more than five hundred dollars. 65172

       (V) Whoever violates section 3517.21 or 3517.22 of the 65173
Revised Code shall be imprisoned for not more than six months or 65174
fined not more than five thousand dollars, or both. 65175

       (W) A campaign committee that is required to file a 65176
declaration of no limits under division (D)(2) of section 3517.103 65177
of the Revised Code that, before filing that declaration, accepts 65178
a contribution or contributions that exceed the limitations 65179
prescribed in section 3517.102 of the Revised Code, shall return 65180
that contribution or those contributions to the contributor. 65181

       (X) Any campaign committee that fails to file the declaration 65182
of filing-day finances required by division (F) of section 65183
3517.109 or the declaration of primary-day finances or declaration 65184
of year-end finances required by division (E) of section 3517.101065185
of the Revised Code shall be fined twenty-five dollars for each 65186
day of violation. 65187

       (Y)(1) Any campaign committee that fails to dispose of excess 65188
funds or excess aggregate contributions under division (B) of 65189
section 3517.109 of the Revised Code in the manner required by 65190
division (C) of that section or under division (B) of section 65191
3517.1010 of the Revised Code in the manner required by division 65192
(C) of that section shall give to the treasurer of state for 65193
deposit into the Ohio elections commission fund created under 65194
division (I) of section 3517.152 of the Revised Code all funds not 65195
disposed of pursuant to those divisionsthat division. 65196

       (2) Any treasurer of a transition fund that fails to dispose 65197
of assets remaining in the transition fund as required under 65198
division (H)(1) or (2) of section 3517.1014 of the Revised Code 65199
shall give to the treasurer of state for deposit into the Ohio 65200
elections commission fund all assets not disposed of pursuant to 65201
that division. 65202

       (Z) Any individual, campaign committee, political action 65203
committee, political contributing entity, legislative campaign 65204
fund, political party, treasurer of a transition fund, or other 65205
entity that violates any provision of sections 3517.09 to 3517.12 65206
of the Revised Code for which no penalty is provided for under any 65207
other division of this section shall be fined not more than one 65208
thousand dollars. 65209

       (AA)(1) Whoever knowingly violates division (W)(1) of section 65210
3517.13 of the Revised Code shall be fined an amount equal to 65211
three times the amount contributed, expended, or promised in 65212
violation of that division or ten thousand dollars, whichever 65213
amount is greater. 65214

       (2) Whoever knowingly violates division (W)(2) of section 65215
3517.13 of the Revised Code shall be fined an amount equal to 65216
three times the amount solicited or accepted in violation of that 65217
division or ten thousand dollars, whichever amount is greater. 65218

       (BB) Whoever knowingly violates division (C) or (D) of 65219
section 3517.1011 of the Revised Code shall be fined not more than 65220
ten thousand dollars plus not more than one thousand dollars for 65221
each day of violation. 65222

       (CC)(1) Subject to division (CC)(2) of this section, whoever 65223
violates division (H) of section 3517.1011 of the Revised Code 65224
shall be fined an amount up to three times the amount disbursed 65225
for the direct costs of airing the communication made in violation 65226
of that division. 65227

       (2) Whoever has been ordered by the Ohio elections commission 65228
or by a court of competent jurisdiction to cease making 65229
communications in violation of division (H) of section 3517.1011 65230
of the Revised Code who again violates that division shall be 65231
fined an amount equal to three times the amount disbursed for the 65232
direct costs of airing the communication made in violation of that 65233
division. 65234

       (DD)(1) Any corporation or labor organization that violates 65235
division (X)(3)(a) of section 3517.13 of the Revised Code shall be 65236
fined an amount equal to three times the amount given in excess of 65237
the amount permitted by that division. 65238

       (2) Any state or county political party that violates 65239
division (X)(3)(b) of section 3517.13 of the Revised Code shall be 65240
fined an amount equal to three times the amount accepted in excess 65241
of the amount permitted by that division. 65242

       (EE)(1) Any campaign committee or person who violates 65243
division (C)(1)(b) or (c) of section 3517.1014 of the Revised Code 65244
shall be fined an amount equal to three times the amount donated 65245
in excess of the amount permitted by that division. 65246

       (2) Any officeholder or treasurer of a transition fund who 65247
violates division (C)(3)(a) or (b) of section 3517.1014 of the 65248
Revised Code shall be fined an amount equal to three times the 65249
amount accepted in excess of the amount permitted by that 65250
division.65251

       Sec. 3599.45.  (A) As used in this section:65252

       "Candidate," "campaign committee," and "contribution" have 65253
the same meanings as in section 3517.01 of the Revised Code.65254

       "Medicaid provider" has the same meaning as in section 65255
5164.01 of the Revised Code.65256

       (B) No candidate for the office of attorney general or county 65257
prosecutor or such a candidate's campaign committee shall 65258
knowingly accept any contribution from a medicaid provider of 65259
services or goods under contract with the department of job and 65260
family services pursuant to the medicaid program of Title XIX of 65261
the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as 65262
amended, or from any person having an ownership interest in the 65263
medicaid provider.65264

       As used in this section "candidate," "campaign committee," 65265
and "contribution" have the same meaning as in section 3517.01 of 65266
the Revised Code.65267

       (B)(C) Whoever violates this section is guilty of a 65268
misdemeanor of the first degree.65269

       Sec. 3701.023.  (A) The department of health shall review 65270
applications for eligibility for the program for medically 65271
handicapped children that are submitted to the department by city 65272
and general health districts and physician providers approved in 65273
accordance with division (C) of this section. The department shall 65274
determine whether the applicants meet the medical and financial 65275
eligibility requirements established by the director of health 65276
pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 3701.021 of the Revised 65277
Code, and by the department in the manual of operational 65278
procedures and guidelines for the program for medically 65279
handicapped children developed pursuant to division (B) of that 65280
section. Referrals of potentially eligible children for the 65281
program may be submitted to the department on behalf of the child 65282
by parents, guardians, public health nurses, or any other 65283
interested person. The department of health may designate other 65284
agencies to refer applicants to the department of health.65285

       (B) In accordance with the procedures established in rules 65286
adopted under division (A)(4) of section 3701.021 of the Revised 65287
Code, the department of health shall authorize a provider or 65288
providers to provide to any Ohio resident under twenty-one years 65289
of age, without charge to the resident or the resident's family 65290
and without restriction as to the economic status of the resident 65291
or the resident's family, diagnostic services necessary to 65292
determine whether the resident has a medically handicapping or 65293
potentially medically handicapping condition.65294

       (C) The department of health shall review the applications of 65295
health professionals, hospitals, medical equipment suppliers, and 65296
other individuals, groups, or agencies that apply to become 65297
providers. The department shall enter into a written agreement 65298
with each applicant who is determined, pursuant to the 65299
requirements set forth in rules adopted under division (A)(2) of 65300
section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, to be eligible to be a 65301
provider in accordance with the provider agreement required by the 65302
medical assistancemedicaid program established under section 65303
5111.01 of the Revised Code. No provider shall charge a medically 65304
handicapped child or the child's parent or guardian for services 65305
authorized by the department under division (B) or (D) of this 65306
section.65307

       The department, in accordance with rules adopted under 65308
division (A)(3) of section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, may 65309
disqualify any provider from further participation in the program 65310
for violating any requirement set forth in rules adopted under 65311
division (A)(2) of that section. The disqualification shall not 65312
take effect until a written notice, specifying the requirement 65313
violated and describing the nature of the violation, has been 65314
delivered to the provider and the department has afforded the 65315
provider an opportunity to appeal the disqualification under 65316
division (H) of this section.65317

       (D) The department of health shall evaluate applications from 65318
city and general health districts and approved physician providers 65319
for authorization to provide treatment services, service 65320
coordination, and related goods to children determined to be 65321
eligible for the program for medically handicapped children 65322
pursuant to division (A) of this section. The department shall 65323
authorize necessary treatment services, service coordination, and 65324
related goods for each eligible child in accordance with an 65325
individual plan of treatment for the child. As an alternative, the 65326
department may authorize payment of health insurance premiums on 65327
behalf of eligible children when the department determines, in 65328
accordance with criteria set forth in rules adopted under division 65329
(A)(9) of section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, that payment of 65330
the premiums is cost-effective.65331

       (E) The department of health shall pay, from appropriations 65332
to the department, any necessary expenses, including but not 65333
limited to, expenses for diagnosis, treatment, service 65334
coordination, supportive services, transportation, and accessories 65335
and their upkeep, provided to medically handicapped children, 65336
provided that the provision of the goods or services is authorized 65337
by the department under division (B) or (D) of this section. Money 65338
appropriated to the department of health may also be expended for 65339
reasonable administrative costs incurred by the program. The 65340
department of health also may purchase liability insurance 65341
covering the provision of services under the program for medically 65342
handicapped children by physicians and other health care 65343
professionals.65344

       Payments made to providers by the department of health 65345
pursuant to this division for inpatient hospital care, outpatient 65346
care, and all other medical assistance furnished to eligible 65347
recipients shall be made in accordance with rules adopted by the 65348
director of health pursuant to division (A) of section 3701.021 of 65349
the Revised Code.65350

       The departments of health and job and family services65351
medicaid shall jointly implement procedures to ensure that 65352
duplicate payments are not made under the program for medically 65353
handicapped children and the medical assistancemedicaid program 65354
established under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code and to 65355
identify and recover duplicate payments.65356

       (F) At the time of applying for participation in the program 65357
for medically handicapped children, a medically handicapped child 65358
or the child's parent or guardian shall disclose the identity of 65359
any third party against whom the child or the child's parent or 65360
guardian has or may have a right of recovery for goods and 65361
services provided under division (B) or (D) of this section. The 65362
department of health shall require a medically handicapped child 65363
who receives services from the program or the child's parent or 65364
guardian to apply for all third-party benefits for which the child 65365
may be eligible and require the child, parent, or guardian to 65366
apply all third-party benefits received to the amount determined 65367
under division (E) of this section as the amount payable for goods 65368
and services authorized under division (B) or (D) of this section. 65369
The department is the payer of last resort and shall pay for 65370
authorized goods or services, up to the amount determined under 65371
division (E) of this section for the authorized goods or services, 65372
only to the extent that payment for the authorized goods or 65373
services is not made through third-party benefits. When a third 65374
party fails to act on an application or claim for benefits by a 65375
medically handicapped child or the child's parent or guardian, the 65376
department shall pay for the goods or services only after ninety 65377
days have elapsed since the date the child, parents, or guardians 65378
made an application or claim for all third-party benefits. 65379
Third-party benefits received shall be applied to the amount 65380
determined under division (E) of this section. Third-party 65381
payments for goods and services not authorized under division (B) 65382
or (D) of this section shall not be applied to payment amounts 65383
determined under division (E) of this section. Payment made by the 65384
department shall be considered payment in full of the amount 65385
determined under division (E) of this section. Medicaid payments 65386
for persons eligible for the medical assistancemedicaid program 65387
established under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code shall be 65388
considered payment in full of the amount determined under division 65389
(E) of this section.65390

       (G) The department of health shall administer a program to 65391
provide services to Ohio residents who are twenty-one or more 65392
years of age who have cystic fibrosis and who meet the eligibility 65393
requirements established in rules adopted by the director of 65394
health pursuant to division (A)(7) of section 3701.021 of the 65395
Revised Code, subject to all provisions of this section, but not 65396
subject to section 3701.024 of the Revised Code.65397

       (H) The department of health shall provide for appeals, in 65398
accordance with rules adopted under section 3701.021 of the 65399
Revised Code, of denials of applications for the program for 65400
medically handicapped children under division (A) or (D) of this 65401
section, disqualification of providers, or amounts paid under 65402
division (E) of this section. Appeals under this division are not 65403
subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.65404

       The department may designate ombudspersons to assist 65405
medically handicapped children or their parents or guardians, upon 65406
the request of the children, parents, or guardians, in filing 65407
appeals under this division and to serve as children's, parents', 65408
or guardians' advocates in matters pertaining to the 65409
administration of the program for medically handicapped children 65410
and eligibility for program services. The ombudspersons shall 65411
receive no compensation but shall be reimbursed by the department, 65412
in accordance with rules of the office of budget and management, 65413
for their actual and necessary travel expenses incurred in the 65414
performance of their duties.65415

       (I) The department of health, and city and general health 65416
districts providing service coordination pursuant to division 65417
(A)(2) of section 3701.024 of the Revised Code, shall provide 65418
service coordination in accordance with the standards set forth in 65419
the rules adopted under section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, 65420
without charge, and without restriction as to economic status.65421

       (J)(1) The department of health may establish a manufacturer 65422
discount program under which a manufacturer of a drug or 65423
nutritional formula is permitted to enter into an agreement with 65424
the department to provide a discount on the price of the drug or 65425
nutritional formula distributed to medically handicapped children 65426
participating in the program for medically handicapped children. 65427
The program shall be administered in accordance with rules adopted 65428
under section 3701.021 of the Revised Code.65429

       (2) If a manufacturer enters into an agreement with the 65430
department as described in division (J)(1) of this section, the 65431
manufacturer and the department may negotiate the amount and terms 65432
of the discount.65433

       (3) In lieu of establishing a discount program as described 65434
in division (J)(1) of this section, the department and a 65435
manufacturer of a drug or nutritional formula may discuss a 65436
donation of drugs, nutritional formulas, or money by the 65437
manufacturer to the department.65438

       Sec. 3701.024.  (A)(1) Under a procedure established in rules 65439
adopted under section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, the department 65440
of health shall determine the amount each county shall provide 65441
annually for the program for medically handicapped children, based 65442
on a proportion of the county's total general property tax 65443
duplicate, not to exceed one-tenth of a mill, and charge the 65444
county for any part of expenses incurred under the program for 65445
treatment services on behalf of medically handicapped children 65446
having legal settlement in the county that is not paid from 65447
federal funds or through the medical assistancemedicaid program 65448
established under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code. The 65449
department shall not charge the county for expenses exceeding the 65450
difference between the amount determined under division (A)(1) of 65451
this section and any amounts retained under divisions (A)(2) and 65452
(3) of this section.65453

       All amounts collected by the department under division (A)(1) 65454
of this section shall be deposited into the state treasury to the 65455
credit of the medically handicapped children-county assessment 65456
fund, which is hereby created. The fund shall be used by the 65457
department to comply with sections 3701.021 to 3701.028 of the 65458
Revised Code.65459

       (2) The department, in accordance with rules adopted under 65460
section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, may allow each county to 65461
retain up to ten per cent of the amount determined under division 65462
(A)(1) of this section to provide funds to city or general health 65463
districts of the county with which the districts shall provide 65464
service coordination, public health nursing, or transportation 65465
services for medically handicapped children.65466

       (3) In addition to any amount retained under division (A)(2) 65467
of this section, the department, in accordance with rules adopted 65468
under section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, may allow counties 65469
that it determines have significant numbers of potentially 65470
eligible medically handicapped children to retain an amount equal 65471
to the difference between:65472

       (a) Twenty-five per cent of the amount determined under 65473
division (A)(1) of this section;65474

       (b) Any amount retained under division (A)(2) of this 65475
section.65476

       Counties shall use amounts retained under division (A)(3) of 65477
this section to provide funds to city or general health districts 65478
of the county with which the districts shall conduct outreach 65479
activities to increase participation in the program for medically 65480
handicapped children.65481

       (4) Prior to any increase in the millage charged to a county, 65482
the director of health shall hold a public hearing on the proposed 65483
increase and shall give notice of the hearing to each board of 65484
county commissioners that would be affected by the increase at 65485
least thirty days prior to the date set for the hearing. Any 65486
county commissioner may appear and give testimony at the hearing. 65487
Any increase in the millage any county is required to provide for 65488
the program for medically handicapped children shall be 65489
determined, and notice of the amount of the increase shall be 65490
provided to each affected board of county commissioners, no later 65491
than the first day of June of the fiscal year next preceding the 65492
fiscal year in which the increase will take effect.65493

       (B) Each board of county commissioners shall establish a 65494
medically handicapped children's fund and shall appropriate 65495
thereto an amount, determined in accordance with division (A)(1) 65496
of this section, for the county's share in providing medical, 65497
surgical, and other aid to medically handicapped children residing 65498
in such county and for the purposes specified in divisions (A)(2) 65499
and (3) of this section. Each county shall use money retained 65500
under divisions (A)(2) and (3) of this section only for the 65501
purposes specified in those divisions.65502

       Sec. 3701.027.  The department of health shall administer 65503
funds received from the "Maternal and Child Health Block Grant," 65504
Title V of the "Social Security Act," 95 Stat. 818 (1981), 42 65505
U.S.C.A. 701, as amended, for programs including the program for 65506
medically handicapped children, and to provide technical 65507
assistance and consultation to city and general health districts 65508
and local health planning organizations in implementing local, 65509
community-based, family-centered, coordinated systems of care for 65510
medically handicapped children. The department may make grants to 65511
persons and other entities for the provision of services with the 65512
funds. In addition, the department may use the funds to purchase 65513
liability insurance covering the provision of services under the 65514
programs by physicians and other health care professionals, and to 65515
pay health insurance premiums on behalf of medically handicapped 65516
children participating in the program for medically handicapped 65517
children when the department determines, in accordance with 65518
criteria set forth in rules adopted under division (A)(9) of 65519
section 3701.021 of the Revised Code, that payment of the premiums 65520
is cost effective.65521

       In determining eligibility for services provided with funds 65522
received from the "Maternal and Child Health Block Grant," the 65523
department may use the application form established under section65524
5111.0135163.40 of the Revised Code. The department may require 65525
applicants to furnish their social security numbers. Funds from 65526
the "Maternal and Child Health Block Grant" that are administered 65527
for the purpose of providing family planning services shall be 65528
distributed in accordance with section 3701.033 of the Revised 65529
Code.65530

       Sec. 3701.033.  (A) This section establishes the order of 65531
priority to be followed by the department of health when 65532
distributing funds for the purpose of providing family planning 65533
services, including funds the department receives through the 65534
"Maternal and Child Health Block Grant," Title V of the "Social 65535
Security Act," 95 Stat. 818 (1981), 42 U.S.C. 701, as amended, and 65536
funds the department receives through Title X of the "Public 65537
Health Service Act," 84 Stat. 1504 (1970), 42 U.S.C. 300a, as 65538
amended. This section does not apply to grants awarded by the 65539
department under section 3701.046 of the Revised Code.65540

       (B) With respect to each period during which funds from a 65541
particular source are distributed for the purpose of providing 65542
family planning services, the department is subject to both of the 65543
following when distributing the funds to applicants seeking those 65544
funds:65545

        (1) Foremost priority shall be given to public entities that 65546
are operated by state or local government entities and that 65547
provide or are able to provide family planning services.65548

       (2) If any funds remain after the department distributes 65549
funds to public entities under division (B)(1) of this section, 65550
the department may distribute funds to nonpublic entities. If 65551
funds are distributed to nonpublic entities, the department shall 65552
distribute the funds in the following order of descending 65553
priority:65554

       (a) Nonpublic entities that are federally qualified health 65555
centers or federally qualified health center look-alikes, both as 65556
defined in section 3701.047 of the Revised Code, or community 65557
action agencies, as defined in section 122.66 of the Revised Code;65558

       (b) Nonpublic entities that provide comprehensive primary and 65559
preventive care services in addition to family planning services;65560

       (c) Nonpublic entities that provide family planning services, 65561
but do not provide comprehensive primary and preventive care 65562
services.65563

       Sec. 3701.13.  The department of health shall have 65564
supervision of all matters relating to the preservation of the 65565
life and health of the people and have ultimate authority in 65566
matters of quarantine and isolation, which it may declare and 65567
enforce, when neither exists, and modify, relax, or abolish, when 65568
either has been established. The department may approve methods of 65569
immunization against the diseases specified in section 3313.671 of 65570
the Revised Code for the purpose of carrying out the provisions of 65571
that section and take such actions as are necessary to encourage 65572
vaccination against those diseases.65573

       The department may make special or standing orders or rules 65574
for preventing the use of fluoroscopes for nonmedical purposes65575
whichthat emit doses of radiation likely to be harmful to any 65576
person, for preventing the spread of contagious or infectious 65577
diseases, for governing the receipt and conveyance of remains of 65578
deceased persons, and for such other sanitary matters as are best 65579
controlled by a general rule. Whenever possible, the department 65580
shall work in cooperation with the health commissioner of a 65581
general or city health district. ItThe department may make and 65582
enforce orders in local matters or reassign substantive authority 65583
for mandatory programs from a general or city health district to 65584
another general or city health district when an emergency exists, 65585
or when the board of health of a general or city health district 65586
has neglected or refused to act with sufficient promptness or 65587
efficiency, or when such board has not been established as 65588
provided by sections 3709.02, 3709.03, 3709.05, 3709.06, 3709.11, 65589
3709.12, and 3709.14 of the Revised Code. In such cases, the 65590
necessary expense incurred shall be paid by the general health 65591
district or city for which the services are rendered.65592

       The department of health may require general or city health 65593
districts to enter into agreements for shared services under 65594
section 9.482 of the Revised Code. The department shall prepare 65595
and offer to boards of health a model contract and memorandum of 65596
understanding that are easily adaptable for use by boards of 65597
health when entering into shared services agreements. The 65598
department also shall offer financial and other technical 65599
assistance to boards of health to encourage the sharing of 65600
services.65601

       As a condition precedent to receiving funding from the 65602
department of health, the director of health may require general 65603
or city health districts to complete the prerequisites for 65604
national public health agency accreditation not later than July 1, 65605
2018. An objective body approved by the director in conjunction 65606
with the association of Ohio health commissioners, shall 65607
independently verify that the prerequisites have been timely 65608
completed.65609

       The department may make evaluative studies of the nutritional 65610
status of Ohio residents, and of the food and nutrition-related 65611
programs operating within the state. Every agency of the state, at 65612
the request of the department, shall provide information and 65613
otherwise assist in the execution of such studies.65614

       Sec. 3701.132.  The department of health is hereby designated 65615
as the state agency to administer the "special supplemental 65616
nutrition program for women, infants, and children" established 65617
under the "Child Nutrition Act of 1966," 80 Stat. 885, 42 U.S.C. 65618
1786, as amended. The director of health may adopt rules pursuant 65619
to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary for administering 65620
the program. The rules may include civil money penalties for 65621
violations of the rules.65622

       In determining eligibility for services provided under the 65623
program, the department may use the application form established 65624
under section 5111.0135163.40 of the Revised Code for the healthy 65625
start program. The department may require applicants to furnish 65626
their social security numbers.65627

       If the department determines that a vendor has committed an 65628
act with respect to the program that federal statutes or 65629
regulations or state statutes or rules prohibit, the department 65630
shall take action against the vendor in the manner required by 7 65631
C.F.R. part 246, including imposition of a civil money penalty in 65632
accordance with 7 C.F.R. 246.12, or rules adopted under this 65633
section.65634

       Sec. 3701.243.  (A) Except as provided in this section or 65635
section 3701.248 of the Revised Code, no person or agency of state 65636
or local government that acquires the information while providing 65637
any health care service or while in the employ of a health care 65638
facility or health care provider shall disclose or compel another 65639
to disclose any of the following:65640

       (1) The identity of any individual on whom an HIV test is 65641
performed;65642

       (2) The results of an HIV test in a form that identifies the 65643
individual tested;65644

       (3) The identity of any individual diagnosed as having AIDS 65645
or an AIDS-related condition.65646

       (B)(1) Except as provided in divisions (B)(2), (C), (D), and 65647
(F) of this section, the results of an HIV test or the identity of 65648
an individual on whom an HIV test is performed or who is diagnosed 65649
as having AIDS or an AIDS-related condition may be disclosed only 65650
to the following:65651

       (a) The individual who was tested or the individual's legal 65652
guardian, and the individual's spouse or any sexual partner;65653

       (b) A person to whom disclosure is authorized by a written 65654
release, executed by the individual tested or by the individual's 65655
legal guardian and specifying to whom disclosure of the test 65656
results or diagnosis is authorized and the time period during 65657
which the release is to be effective;65658

       (c) The individual's physician;65659

       (d) The department of health or a health commissioner to 65660
which reports are made under section 3701.24 of the Revised Code;65661

       (e) A health care facility or provider that procures, 65662
processes, distributes, or uses a human body part from a deceased 65663
individual, donated for a purpose specified in Chapter 2108. of 65664
the Revised Code, and that needs medical information about the 65665
deceased individual to ensure that the body part is medically 65666
acceptable for its intended purpose;65667

       (f) Health care facility staff committees or accreditation or 65668
oversight review organizations conducting program monitoring, 65669
program evaluation, or service reviews;65670

       (g) A health care provider, emergency medical services 65671
worker, or peace officer who sustained a significant exposure to 65672
the body fluids of another individual, if that individual was 65673
tested pursuant to division (E)(6) of section 3701.242 of the 65674
Revised Code, except that the identity of the individual tested 65675
shall not be revealed;65676

       (h) To law enforcement authorities pursuant to a search 65677
warrant or a subpoena issued by or at the request of a grand jury, 65678
a prosecuting attorney, a city director of law or similar chief 65679
legal officer of a municipal corporation, or a village solicitor, 65680
in connection with a criminal investigation or prosecution.65681

       (2) The results of an HIV test or a diagnosis of AIDS or an 65682
AIDS-related condition may be disclosed to a health care provider, 65683
or an authorized agent or employee of a health care facility or a 65684
health care provider, if the provider, agent, or employee has a 65685
medical need to know the information and is participating in the 65686
diagnosis, care, or treatment of the individual on whom the test 65687
was performed or who has been diagnosed as having AIDS or an 65688
AIDS-related condition.65689

       This division does not impose a standard of disclosure 65690
different from the standard for disclosure of all other specific 65691
information about a patient to health care providers and 65692
facilities. Disclosure may not be requested or made solely for the 65693
purpose of identifying an individual who has a positive HIV test 65694
result or has been diagnosed as having AIDS or an AIDS-related 65695
condition in order to refuse to treat the individual. Referral of 65696
an individual to another health care provider or facility based on 65697
reasonable professional judgment does not constitute refusal to 65698
treat the individual.65699

       (3) Not later than ninety days after November 1, 1989, each 65700
health care facility in this state shall establish a protocol to 65701
be followed by employees and individuals affiliated with the 65702
facility in making disclosures authorized by division (B)(2) of 65703
this section. A person employed by or affiliated with a health 65704
care facility who determines in accordance with the protocol 65705
established by the facility that a disclosure is authorized by 65706
division (B)(2) of this section is immune from liability to any 65707
person in a civil action for damages for injury, death, or loss to 65708
person or property resulting from the disclosure.65709

       (C)(1) Any person or government agency may seek access to or 65710
authority to disclose the HIV test records of an individual in 65711
accordance with the following provisions:65712

       (a) The person or government agency shall bring an action in 65713
a court of common pleas requesting disclosure of or authority to 65714
disclose the results of an HIV test of a specific individual, who 65715
shall be identified in the complaint by a pseudonym but whose name 65716
shall be communicated to the court confidentially, pursuant to a 65717
court order restricting the use of the name. The court shall 65718
provide the individual with notice and an opportunity to 65719
participate in the proceedings if the individual is not named as a 65720
party. Proceedings shall be conducted in chambers unless the 65721
individual agrees to a hearing in open court.65722

       (b) The court may issue an order granting the plaintiff 65723
access to or authority to disclose the test results only if the 65724
court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the plaintiff 65725
has demonstrated a compelling need for disclosure of the 65726
information that cannot be accommodated by other means. In 65727
assessing compelling need, the court shall weigh the need for 65728
disclosure against the privacy right of the individual tested and 65729
against any disservice to the public interest that might result 65730
from the disclosure, such as discrimination against the individual 65731
or the deterrence of others from being tested.65732

       (c) If the court issues an order, it shall guard against 65733
unauthorized disclosure by specifying the persons who may have 65734
access to the information, the purposes for which the information 65735
shall be used, and prohibitions against future disclosure.65736

       (2) A person or government agency that considers it necessary 65737
to disclose the results of an HIV test of a specific individual in 65738
an action in which it is a party may seek authority for the 65739
disclosure by filing an in camera motion with the court in which 65740
the action is being heard. In hearing the motion, the court shall 65741
employ procedures for confidentiality similar to those specified 65742
in division (C)(1) of this section. The court shall grant the 65743
motion only if it finds by clear and convincing evidence that a 65744
compelling need for the disclosure has been demonstrated.65745

       (3) Except for an order issued in a criminal prosecution or 65746
an order under division (C)(1) or (2) of this section granting 65747
disclosure of the result of an HIV test of a specific individual, 65748
a court shall not compel a blood bank, hospital blood center, or 65749
blood collection facility to disclose the result of HIV tests 65750
performed on the blood of voluntary donors in a way that reveals 65751
the identity of any donor.65752

       (4) In a civil action in which the plaintiff seeks to recover 65753
damages from an individual defendant based on an allegation that 65754
the plaintiff contracted the HIV virus as a result of actions of 65755
the defendant, the prohibitions against disclosure in this section 65756
do not bar discovery of the results of any HIV test given to the 65757
defendant or any diagnosis that the defendant suffers from AIDS or 65758
an AIDS-related condition.65759

       (D) The results of an HIV test or the identity of an 65760
individual on whom an HIV test is performed or who is diagnosed as 65761
having AIDS or an AIDS-related condition may be disclosed to a 65762
federal, state, or local government agency, or the official 65763
representative of such an agency, for purposes of the medical 65764
assistancemedicaid program established under section 5111.01 of 65765
the Revised Code, the medicare program established under Title 65766
XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935) 42 65767
U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, or any other public assistance program.65768

       (E) Any disclosure pursuant to this section shall be in 65769
writing and accompanied by a written statement that includes the 65770
following or substantially similar language: "This information has 65771
been disclosed to you from confidential records protected from 65772
disclosure by state law. You shall make no further disclosure of 65773
this information without the specific, written, and informed 65774
release of the individual to whom it pertains, or as otherwise 65775
permitted by state law. A general authorization for the release of 65776
medical or other information is not sufficient for the purpose of 65777
the release of HIV test results or diagnoses."65778

       (F) An individual who knows that the individual has received 65779
a positive result on an HIV test or has been diagnosed as having 65780
AIDS or an AIDS-related condition shall disclose this information 65781
to any other person with whom the individual intends to make 65782
common use of a hypodermic needle or engage in sexual conduct as 65783
defined in section 2907.01 of the Revised Code. An individual's 65784
compliance with this division does not prohibit a prosecution of 65785
the individual for a violation of division (B) of section 2903.11 65786
of the Revised Code.65787

       (G) Nothing in this section prohibits the introduction of 65788
evidence concerning an HIV test of a specific individual in a 65789
criminal proceeding.65790

       Sec. 3701.261.  (A) As used in this section, "state 65791
university" has the same meaning as in section 3345.011 of the 65792
Revised Code.65793

       (B) The director of health shall:65794

       (1) Establish a population-based cancer registry, which shall 65795
be known as the Ohio cancer incidence surveillance system, to 65796
monitor the incidence of various types of malignant diseases in 65797
Ohio, make appropriate epidemiologic studies to determine any 65798
causal relations of such diseases with occupational, nutritional, 65799
environmental, or infectious conditions, and alleviate or 65800
eliminate any such conditions;65801

       (2) Advise, consult, cooperate with, and assist, by contract 65802
or otherwise, agencies of the state and federal government, 65803
agencies of the governments of other states, agencies of political 65804
subdivisions of this state, universities, private organizations, 65805
corporations, and associations for the purposes of division 65806
(A)(B)(1) of this section;65807

       (3) Accept and administer grants from the federal government 65808
or other sources, public or private, for carrying out any of the 65809
functions enumerated in divisions (A)(B)(1) and (2) of this 65810
section.65811

       (B)(C) The Ohio cancer incidence surveillance system shall 65812
follow a model of cancer data collection as set forth by the 65813
survey epidemiology and end results system (SEERS). 65814

       (D) The department may, by contract, designate a state 65815
university as an agent to implement some or all of this section 65816
and section 3701.262 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted 65817
under those sections.65818

       Sec. 3701.262.  (A) As used in this section and section 65819
3701.263 of the Revised Code:65820

       (1) "Physician" means a person who holds a valid certificate 65821
issued under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code authorizing the 65822
person to practice medicine orand surgery or osteopathic medicine 65823
and surgery.65824

       (2) "Dentist" means a person who is licensed under Chapter 65825
4715. of the Revised Code to practice dentistry.65826

       (3) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 65827
the Revised Code.65828

       (4) "Cancer" includes those diseases specified by rule of the 65829
director of health under division (B)(2) of this section.65830

       (B) The director of health shall adopt rules in accordance 65831
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to do all of the following:65832

       (1) Establish the Ohio cancer incidence surveillance system 65833
required by section 3701.261 of the Revised Code;65834

       (2) Specify the types of cancer and other tumorous and 65835
precancerous diseases to be reported to the department of health 65836
under division (D) of this section;65837

       (3) Establish reporting requirements for information 65838
concerning diagnosed cancer cases as the director considers 65839
necessary to conduct epidemiologic surveys of cancer in this 65840
state;65841

       (4) Establish standards that must be met by research projects 65842
to be eligible to receive information concerning individual cancer 65843
patients from the department of health under division (B) of 65844
section 3701.263 of the Revised Code.65845

       (C) The department of health shall record in the registry all 65846
reports of cancer received by it. In the development and 65847
administration of the cancer registry the department may use 65848
information compiled by public or private cancer registries and 65849
may contract for the collection and analysis of, and research 65850
related to, the information recorded under this section.65851

       (D)(1) Each physician, dentist, hospital, or person providing 65852
diagnostic or treatment services to patients with cancer shall 65853
report each case of cancer to the department. Any person required 65854
to report pursuant to this section may elect to report to the 65855
department through an existing cancer registry if the registry 65856
meets the reporting standards established by the director and 65857
reports to the department.65858

       (2) No person shall fail to make the cancer reports required 65859
by division (D)(1) of this section.65860

       (E) All physicians, dentists, hospitals, or persons providing 65861
diagnostic or treatment services to patients with cancer shall 65862
grant to the department or its authorized representative access to 65863
all records that identify cases of cancer or establish 65864
characteristics of cancer, the treatment of cancer, or the medical 65865
status of any identified cancer patient.65866

       (F) The Arthur G. James cancer hospital and Richard J. Solove 65867
research institute of the Ohio state university, shall analyze and 65868
evaluate the cancer reports collected pursuant to this section. 65869
The department shall publish and make available to the public 65870
reports summarizing the information collected. Reports shall be 65871
made on a calendar year basis and published not later than ninety 65872
days after the end of each calendar year.65873

       (G) Furnishing information, including records, reports, 65874
statements, notes, memoranda, or other information, to the 65875
department of health, either voluntarily or as required by this 65876
section, or to a person or governmental entity designated as a 65877
medical research project by the department, does not subject a 65878
physician, dentist, hospital, or person providing diagnostic or 65879
treatment services to patients with cancer to liability in an 65880
action for damages or other relief for furnishing the information.65881

       (H) This section does not affect the authority of any person 65882
or facility providing diagnostic or treatment services to patients 65883
with cancer to maintain facility-based tumor registries, in 65884
addition to complying with the reporting requirements of this 65885
section.65886

       (I) No person shall fail to make the cancer reports required 65887
by division (D) of this section.65888

       Sec. 3701.264.  There is hereby created the Ohio cancer 65889
incidence surveillance system advisory board. The board shall 65890
consist of the director of health, who shall serve as chair of the 65891
board, and one representative, appointed by the governor, from 65892
each medical school accredited by the liaison committee on medical 65893
education and each osteopathic medical school accredited by the 65894
American osteopathic association in Ohio. In addition, the 65895
director of health shall appoint up to three additional members of 65896
the board. Vacancies on the board shall be filled in the same 65897
manner as the initial appointments. Members shall serve without 65898
compensation.65899

       The board shall provide oversight of the collection and 65900
analysis of data by the Ohio cancer incidence surveillance system 65901
to the director of health and the Arthur G. James cancer hospital 65902
and Richard J. Solove research institute of the Ohio state 65903
university and advise in the implementation of sections 3701.261 65904
to 3701.263and 3701.262 of the Revised Code. The board shall meet 65905
and conduct its business as directed by the chair.65906

       The board shall report to the finance committees of both 65907
houses of the general assembly, not later than March 1, 2001, on 65908
the progress made in implementing sections 3701.261 to 3701.263 of 65909
the Revised Code.65910

       The board is not subject to sections 101.82 to 101.87 of the 65911
Revised Code.65912

       Sec. 3701.342. After consultation with the public health 65913
standards task force established under section 3701.343 of the 65914
Revised Code, theThe director of health shall adopt rules 65915
establishing minimum standards and optimum achievable standards 65916
for boards of health and local health departments. The minimum 65917
standards shall assure that boards of health and local health 65918
departments provide for:65919

       (A) Analysis and prevention of communicable disease;65920

       (B) Analysis of the causes of, and appropriate treatment for, 65921
the leading causes of morbidity and mortality;65922

       (C) The administration and management of the local health 65923
department;65924

       (D) Access to primary health care by medically underserved 65925
individuals;65926

       (E) Environmental health management programs;65927

       (F) Health promotion services designed to encourage 65928
individual and community wellness;65929

       (G) Annual completion of two hours of continuing education by 65930
each member of a board of health. The minimum standards shall 65931
provide that continuing education credits earned for the purpose 65932
of license renewal or certification by licensed health 65933
professionals serving on boards of health may be counted to 65934
fulfill the two-hour continuing education requirement.65935

       The director shall adopt rules establishing a formula for 65936
distribution of state health district subsidy funds to boards of 65937
health and local health departments. The formula shall provide no 65938
subsidy funds to a board or department unless it meets minimum 65939
standards and shall provide higher funding levels for boards and 65940
districts that meet optimum achievable standards.65941

       Notwithstanding section 119.03 of the Revised Code, rules 65942
adopted under this section shall not take effect unless approved 65943
by concurrent resolution of the general assembly.65944

       Sec. 3701.344.  As used in this section and sections 65945
3701.345, 3701.346, and 3701.347 of the Revised Code:65946

       (A) "Private water system" means any water system for the 65947
provision of water for human consumption, if such system has fewer 65948
than fifteen service connections and does not regularly serve an 65949
average of at least twenty-five individuals daily at least sixty 65950
days out of the year. A private water system includes any well, 65951
spring, cistern, pond, or hauled water and any equipment for the 65952
collection, transportation, filtration, disinfection, treatment, 65953
or storage of such water extending from and including the source 65954
of the water to the point of discharge from any pressure tank or 65955
other storage vessel; to the point of discharge from the water 65956
pump where no pressure tank or other storage vessel is present; 65957
or, in the case of multiple service connections serving more than 65958
one dwelling, to the point of discharge from each service 65959
connection. "Private water system" does not include the water 65960
service line extending from the point of discharge to a structure.65961

       (B) Notwithstanding section 3701.347 of the Revised Code and 65962
subject to division (C) of this section, rules adopted by the 65963
director of health regarding private water systems shall provide 65964
for the following:65965

       (1) Except as otherwise provided in this division, boards of 65966
health of city or general health districts shall be given the 65967
exclusive power to establish fees in accordance with section 65968
3709.09 of the Revised Code for administering and enforcing such 65969
rules. Such fees shall establish a different rate for 65970
administering and enforcing the rules relative to private water 65971
systems serving single-family dwelling houses and nonsingle-family 65972
dwelling houses. Except for an amount established by the director, 65973
pursuant to division (B)(5) of this section, for each new private 65974
water system installation, no portion of any fee for administering 65975
and enforcing such rules shall be returned to the department of 65976
health. If the director of health determines that a board of 65977
health of a city or general health district is unable to 65978
administer and enforce a private water system program in the 65979
district, the director shall administer and enforce such a program 65980
in the district and establish fees for such administration and 65981
enforcement.65982

       (2) Boards of health of city or general health districts 65983
shall be given the exclusive power to determine the number of 65984
inspections necessary for determining the safe drinking 65985
characteristics of a private water system.65986

       (3) Private water systems contractors, as a condition of 65987
doing business in this state, shall annually register with, and 65988
comply with surety bonding requirements of, the department of 65989
health. No such contractor shall be permitted to register if the 65990
contractor fails to comply with all applicable rules adopted by 65991
the director and the board of health of the city or general health 65992
district. The annual registration fee for private water systems 65993
contractors shall be sixty-five dollars. The director, by rule 65994
adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, may 65995
increase the annual registration fee. 65996

       (4) Subject to rules adopted by the director, boards of 65997
health of city or general health districts shall have the option 65998
of determining whether bacteriological examinations shall be 65999
performed at approved laboratories of the state or at approved 66000
private laboratories.66001

       (5) The director may establish fees for each new private 66002
water system installation, which shall be collected by the 66003
appropriate board of health and transmitted to the director 66004
pursuant to section 3709.092 of the Revised Code.66005

       (6) All fees received by the director of health under 66006
divisions (B)(1), (3), and (5) of this section shall be deposited 66007
in the state treasury to the credit of the general operations fund 66008
created in section 3701.83 of the Revised Code for use in the 66009
administration and enforcement of sections 3701.344 to 3701.347 of 66010
the Revised Code and the rules pertaining to private water systems 66011
adopted under those sections. 66012

       (C) To the extent that rules adopted under division (B) of 66013
this section require health districts to follow specific 66014
procedures or use prescribed forms, no such procedure or form 66015
shall be implemented until it is approved by majority vote of an 66016
approval board of health commissioners, hereby created. Members of 66017
the board shall be the officers of the association of Ohio health 66018
commissioners, or any successor organization, and membership on 66019
the board shall be coterminous with holding an office of the 66020
association. No health district is required to follow a procedure 66021
or use a form required by a rule adopted under division (B) of 66022
this section without the approval of the board.66023

       (D) A board of health shall collect well log filing fees on 66024
behalf of the division of soil and water resources in the 66025
department of natural resources in accordance with section 1521.05 66026
of the Revised Code and rules adopted under it. The fees shall be 66027
submitted to the division quarterly as provided in those rules.66028

       (E) A water system that does not provide water for human 66029
consumption shall not be required to obtain a permit or license 66030
issued under, pay any fees assessed or levied under, or comply 66031
with any rule adopted under sections 3701.34 to 3701.347 of the 66032
Revised Code.66033

       Sec. 3701.507.  (A) To assist in implementing sections 66034
3701.503 to 3701.509 of the Revised Code, the medically 66035
handicapped children's medical advisory council created in section 66036
3701.025 of the Revised Code shall appoint a permanent infant 66037
hearing screening subcommittee. The subcommittee shall consist of 66038
the following members:66039

       (1) One otolaryngologist;66040

       (2) One neonatologist;66041

       (3) One pediatrician;66042

       (4) One neurologist;66043

       (5) One hospital administrator;66044

       (6) Two or more audiologists who are experienced in infant 66045
hearing screening and evaluation;66046

       (7) One speech-language pathologist licensed under section 66047
4753.07 of the Revised Code;66048

       (8) Two persons who are each a parent of a hearing-impaired 66049
child;66050

       (9) One geneticist;66051

       (10) One epidemiologist;66052

       (11) One adult who is deaf or hearing impaired;66053

       (12) One representative from an organization for the deaf or 66054
hearing impaired;66055

       (13) One family advocate;66056

       (14) One nurse from a well-baby neonatal nursery;66057

       (15) One nurse from a special care neonatal nursery;66058

       (16) One teacher of the deaf who works with infants and 66059
toddlers;66060

       (17) One representative of the health insurance industry;66061

       (18) One representative of the bureau for children with 66062
medical handicaps;66063

       (19) One representative of the department of education;66064

       (20) One representative of the Ohio department of job and 66065
family services who has responsibilities regarding medicaid;66066

       (21) Any other person the advisory council appoints.66067

       (B) The infant hearing subcommittee shall:66068

       (1) Consult with the director of health regarding the 66069
administration of sections 3701.503 to 3701.509 of the Revised 66070
Code;66071

       (2) Advise and make recommendations regarding proposed rules 66072
prior to their adoption by the director under section 3701.508 of 66073
the Revised Code;66074

       (3) Consult with the director of health and advise and make 66075
recommendations regarding program development and implementation 66076
under sections 3701.503 to 3701.509 of the Revised Code, including 66077
all of the following:66078

       (a) Establishment under section 3701.504 of the Revised Code 66079
of the statewide hearing screening, tracking, and early 66080
intervention program to identify newborn and infant hearing 66081
impairment;66082

       (b) Identification of locations where hearing evaluations may 66083
be conducted;66084

       (c) Recommendations for methods and techniques of hearing 66085
screening and hearing evaluation;66086

       (d) Referral, data recording and compilation, and procedures 66087
to encourage follow-up hearing care;66088

       (e) Maintenance of a register of newborns and infants who do 66089
not pass the hearing screening;66090

       (f) Preparation of the information required by section 66091
3701.506 of the Revised Code. 66092

       Sec. 3701.74.  (A) As used in this section and section 66093
3701.741 of the Revised Code:66094

       (1) "Ambulatory care facility" means a facility that provides 66095
medical, diagnostic, or surgical treatment to patients who do not 66096
require hospitalization, including a dialysis center, ambulatory 66097
surgical facility, cardiac catheterization facility, diagnostic 66098
imaging center, extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy center, home 66099
health agency, inpatient hospice, birthing center, radiation 66100
therapy center, emergency facility, and an urgent care center. 66101
"Ambulatory care facility" does not include the private office of 66102
a physician or dentist, whether the office is for an individual or 66103
group practice.66104

       (2) "Chiropractor" means an individual licensed under Chapter 66105
4734. of the Revised Code to practice chiropractic.66106

       (3) "Emergency facility" means a hospital emergency 66107
department or any other facility that provides emergency medical 66108
services.66109

       (4) "Health care practitioner" means all of the following:66110

       (a) A dentist or dental hygienist licensed under Chapter 66111
4715. of the Revised Code;66112

       (b) A registered or licensed practical nurse licensed under 66113
Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code;66114

       (c) An optometrist licensed under Chapter 4725. of the 66115
Revised Code;66116

       (d) A dispensing optician, spectacle dispensing optician, 66117
contact lens dispensing optician, or spectacle-contact lens 66118
dispensing optician licensed under Chapter 4725. of the Revised 66119
Code;66120

       (e) A pharmacist licensed under Chapter 4729. of the Revised 66121
Code;66122

       (f) A physician;66123

       (g) A physician assistant authorized under Chapter 4730. of 66124
the Revised Code to practice as a physician assistant;66125

       (h) A practitioner of a limited branch of medicine issued a 66126
certificate under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code;66127

       (i) A psychologist licensed under Chapter 4732. of the 66128
Revised Code;66129

       (j) A chiropractor;66130

       (k) A hearing aid dealer or fitter licensed under Chapter 66131
4747. of the Revised Code;66132

       (l) A speech-language pathologist or audiologist licensed 66133
under Chapter 4753. of the Revised Code;66134

       (m) An occupational therapist or occupational therapy 66135
assistant licensed under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;66136

       (n) A physical therapist or physical therapy assistant 66137
licensed under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code;66138

       (o) A professional clinical counselor, professional 66139
counselor, social worker, or independent social worker licensed, 66140
or a social work assistant registered, under Chapter 4757. of the 66141
Revised Code;66142

       (p) A dietitian licensed under Chapter 4759. of the Revised 66143
Code;66144

       (q) A respiratory care professional licensed under Chapter 66145
4761. of the Revised Code;66146

       (r) An emergency medical technician-basic, emergency medical 66147
technician-intermediate, or emergency medical technician-paramedic 66148
certified under Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code.66149

       (5) "Health care provider" means a hospital, ambulatory care 66150
facility, long-term care facility, pharmacy, emergency facility, 66151
or health care practitioner.66152

       (6) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 66153
the Revised Code.66154

       (7) "Long-term care facility" means a nursing home, 66155
residential care facility, or home for the aging, as those terms 66156
are defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code; a residential 66157
facility licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised 66158
Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care 66159
services for three to sixteen unrelated adults; a nursing facility 66160
or intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded, as those 66161
terms are defined in section 5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code; 66162
a facility or portion of a facility certified as a skilled nursing 66163
facility under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 66164
286 (1965), 42 U.S.C.A. 1395, as amended, as defined in section 66165
5165.01 of the Revised Code; and an intermediate care facility for 66166
individuals with intellectual disabilities, as defined in section 66167
5124.01 of the Revised Code.66168

       (8) "Medical record" means data in any form that pertains to 66169
a patient's medical history, diagnosis, prognosis, or medical 66170
condition and that is generated and maintained by a health care 66171
provider in the process of the patient's health care treatment.66172

       (9) "Medical records company" means a person who stores, 66173
locates, or copies medical records for a health care provider, or 66174
is compensated for doing so by a health care provider, and charges 66175
a fee for providing medical records to a patient or patient's 66176
representative.66177

       (10) "Patient" means either of the following:66178

       (a) An individual who received health care treatment from a 66179
health care provider;66180

       (b) A guardian, as defined in section 1337.11 of the Revised 66181
Code, of an individual described in division (A)(10)(a) of this 66182
section.66183

       (11) "Patient's personal representative" means a minor 66184
patient's parent or other person acting in loco parentis, a 66185
court-appointed guardian, or a person with durable power of 66186
attorney for health care for a patient, the executor or 66187
administrator of the patient's estate, or the person responsible 66188
for the patient's estate if it is not to be probated. "Patient's 66189
personal representative" does not include an insurer authorized 66190
under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code to do the business of 66191
sickness and accident insurance in this state, a health insuring 66192
corporation holding a certificate of authority under Chapter 1751. 66193
of the Revised Code, or any other person not named in this 66194
division.66195

       (12) "Pharmacy" has the same meaning as in section 4729.01 of 66196
the Revised Code.66197

       (13) "Physician" means a person authorized under Chapter 66198
4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery, 66199
osteopathic medicine and surgery, or podiatric medicine and 66200
surgery.66201

       (14) "Authorized person" means a person to whom a patient has 66202
given written authorization to act on the patient's behalf 66203
regarding the patient's medical record.66204

       (B) A patient, a patient's personal representative or an 66205
authorized person who wishes to examine or obtain a copy of part 66206
or all of a medical record shall submit to the health care 66207
provider a written request signed by the patient, personal 66208
representative, or authorized person dated not more than one year 66209
before the date on which it is submitted. The request shall 66210
indicate whether the copy is to be sent to the requestor, 66211
physician or chiropractor, or held for the requestor at the office 66212
of the health care provider. Within a reasonable time after 66213
receiving a request that meets the requirements of this division 66214
and includes sufficient information to identify the record 66215
requested, a health care provider that has the patient's medical 66216
records shall permit the patient to examine the record during 66217
regular business hours without charge or, on request, shall 66218
provide a copy of the record in accordance with section 3701.741 66219
of the Revised Code, except that if a physician or chiropractor 66220
who has treated the patient determines for clearly stated 66221
treatment reasons that disclosure of the requested record is 66222
likely to have an adverse effect on the patient, the health care 66223
provider shall provide the record to a physician or chiropractor 66224
designated by the patient. The health care provider shall take 66225
reasonable steps to establish the identity of the person making 66226
the request to examine or obtain a copy of the patient's record.66227

       (C) If a health care provider fails to furnish a medical 66228
record as required by division (B) of this section, the patient, 66229
personal representative, or authorized person who requested the 66230
record may bring a civil action to enforce the patient's right of 66231
access to the record.66232

       (D)(1) This section does not apply to medical records whose 66233
release is covered by section 173.20 or 3721.13 of the Revised 66234
Code, by Chapter 1347. or 5122. of the Revised Code, by 42 C.F.R. 66235
part 2, "Confidentiality of Alcohol and Drug Abuse Patient 66236
Records," or by 42 C.F.R. 483.10.66237

       (2) Nothing in this section is intended to supersede the 66238
confidentiality provisions of sections 2305.24, 2305.25, 2305.251, 66239
and 2305.252 of the Revised Code.66240

       Sec. 3701.741.  (A) Each health care provider and medical 66241
records company shall provide copies of medical records in 66242
accordance with this section.66243

       (B) Except as provided in divisions (C) and (E) of this 66244
section, a health care provider or medical records company that 66245
receives a request for a copy of a patient's medical record shall 66246
charge not more than the amounts set forth in this section. 66247

       (1) If the request is made by the patient or the patient's 66248
personal representative, total costs for copies and all services 66249
related to those copies shall not exceed the sum of the following:66250

       (a) Except as provided in division (B)(1)(b) of this section, 66251
with respect to data recorded on paper or electronically, the 66252
following amounts adjusted in accordance with section 3701.742 of 66253
the Revised Code:66254

        (i) Two dollars and seventy-four cents per page for the first 66255
ten pages;66256

        (ii) Fifty-seven cents per page for pages eleven through 66257
fifty;66258

       (iii) Twenty-three cents per page for pages fifty-one and 66259
higher;66260

        (b) With respect to data resulting from an x-ray, magnetic 66261
resonance imaging (MRI), or computed axial tomography (CAT) scan 66262
and recorded on paper or film, one dollar and eighty-seven cents 66263
per page;66264

        (c) The actual cost of any related postage incurred by the 66265
health care provider or medical records company.66266

        (2) If the request is made other than by the patient or the 66267
patient's personal representative, total costs for copies and all 66268
services related to those copies shall not exceed the sum of the 66269
following:66270

       (a) An initial fee of sixteen dollars and eighty-four cents 66271
adjusted in accordance with section 3701.742 of the Revised Code, 66272
which shall compensate for the records search;66273

       (b) Except as provided in division (B)(2)(c) of this section, 66274
with respect to data recorded on paper or electronically, the 66275
following amounts adjusted in accordance with section 3701.742 of 66276
the Revised Code:66277

       (i) One dollar and eleven cents per page for the first ten 66278
pages;66279

       (ii) Fifty-seven cents per page for pages eleven through 66280
fifty;66281

       (iii) Twenty-three cents per page for pages fifty-one and 66282
higher.66283

       (c) With respect to data resulting from an x-ray, magnetic 66284
resonance imaging (MRI), or computed axial tomography (CAT) scan 66285
and recorded on paper or film, one dollar and eighty-seven cents 66286
per page;66287

       (d) The actual cost of any related postage incurred by the 66288
health care provider or medical records company.66289

       (C)(1) On request, a health care provider or medical records 66290
company shall provide one copy of the patient's medical record and 66291
one copy of any records regarding treatment performed subsequent 66292
to the original request, not including copies of records already 66293
provided, without charge to the following:66294

       (a) The bureau of workers' compensation, in accordance with 66295
Chapters 4121. and 4123. of the Revised Code and the rules adopted 66296
under those chapters;66297

       (b) The industrial commission, in accordance with Chapters 66298
4121. and 4123. of the Revised Code and the rules adopted under 66299
those chapters;66300

       (c) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or a 66301
county department of job and family services, in accordance with 66302
Chapters 5101.5160., 5161., 5162., 5163., 5164., 5165., 5166.,66303
and 5111.5167. of the Revised Code and the rules adopted under 66304
those chapters;66305

       (d) The attorney general, in accordance with sections 2743.51 66306
to 2743.72 of the Revised Code and any rules that may be adopted 66307
under those sections;66308

       (e) A patient, patient's personal representative, or 66309
authorized person if the medical record is necessary to support a 66310
claim under Title II or Title XVI of the "Social Security Act," 49 66311
Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 401 and 1381, as amended, and the 66312
request is accompanied by documentation that a claim has been 66313
filed.66314

       (2) Nothing in division (C)(1) of this section requires a 66315
health care provider or medical records company to provide a copy 66316
without charge to any person or entity not listed in division 66317
(C)(1) of this section.66318

       (D) Division (C) of this section shall not be construed to 66319
supersede any rule of the bureau of workers' compensation, the 66320
industrial commission, or the department of job and family 66321
servicesmedicaid.66322

       (E) A health care provider or medical records company may 66323
enter into a contract with either of the following for the copying 66324
of medical records at a fee other than as provided in division (B) 66325
of this section:66326

       (1) A patient, a patient's personal representative, or an 66327
authorized person;66328

       (2) An insurer authorized under Title XXXIX of the Revised 66329
Code to do the business of sickness and accident insurance in this 66330
state or health insuring corporations holding a certificate of 66331
authority under Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code.66332

       (F) This section does not apply to medical records the 66333
copying of which is covered by section 173.20 of the Revised Code 66334
or by 42 C.F.R. 483.10.66335

       Sec. 3701.742. Not later than January 31, 2006, theThe66336
amounts specified in division (B) of section 3701.741 of the 66337
Revised Code and, not later than the first day of January of each 66338
year thereafter,shall be adjusted annually in accordance with 66339
this section. These amounts plus any amounts previously computed 66340
by annual adjustments made under this section, shall be increased 66341
or decreased by the average percentage of increase or decrease in 66342
the consumer price index for all urban consumers (United States 66343
city average, all items), prepared by the United States department 66344
of labor, bureau of labor statistics, for the66345
twelve-calendar-month period prior to the immediately preceding 66346
first day of Januarycalendar year over the calendar year66347
immediately preceding twelve-calendar-month periodthat year, as 66348
reported by the bureau. The director of health shall make this 66349
determination and adjust the amounts accordingly. The director 66350
shall provide a list of the adjusted amounts to any party upon 66351
request and the department of health shall make thea list of the 66352
adjusted amounts available to the public on itsthe internet web 66353
site maintained by the department of health.66354

       Sec. 3701.78.  (A) There is hereby created the commission on 66355
minority health, consisting of twenty-one members. The governor 66356
shall appoint to the commission nine members from among health 66357
researchers, health planners, and health professionals. The 66358
governor also shall appoint two members who are representatives of 66359
the lupus awareness and education program. The speaker of the 66360
house of representatives shall appoint to the commission two 66361
members of the house of representatives, not more than one of whom 66362
is a member of the same political party, and the president of the 66363
senate shall appoint to the commission two members of the senate, 66364
not more than one of whom is a member of the same political party. 66365
The following shall be members of the commission: the directors of 66366
health, mental healthmental health and addiction services, 66367
developmental disabilities, alcohol and drug addiction services,66368
and job and family services, or their designees,; the medicaid 66369
director, or the director's designee; and the superintendent of 66370
public instruction, or the superintendent's designee, shall be 66371
members of the commission. The66372

       The commission shall elect a chairperson from among its 66373
members. Of66374

       Of the members appointed by the governor, five shall be 66375
appointed to initial terms of one year, and four shall be 66376
appointed to initial terms of two years. Thereafter, all members 66377
appointed by the governor shall be appointed to terms of two 66378
years. All members of the commission appointed by the speaker of 66379
the house of representatives or the president of the senate shall 66380
be nonvoting members of the commission and be appointed within 66381
thirty days after the commencement of the first regular session of 66382
each general assembly, and shall serve until the expiration of the 66383
session of the general assembly during which they were appointed. 66384
Members66385

       Members of the commission shall serve without compensation, 66386
but shall be reimbursed for the actual and necessary expenses they 66387
incur in the performance of their official duties.66388

       (B) The commission shall promote health and the prevention of 66389
disease among members of minority groups. Each year the commission 66390
shall distribute grants from available funds to community-based 66391
health groups to be used to promote health and the prevention of 66392
disease among members of minority groups. As used in this 66393
division, "minority group" means any of the following economically 66394
disadvantaged groups: Blacks, American Indians, Hispanics, and 66395
Orientals. The commission shall adopt and maintain rules pursuant 66396
to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to provide for the 66397
distribution of these grants. No group shall qualify to receive a 66398
grant from the commission unless it receives at least twenty per 66399
cent of its funds from sources other than grants distributed under 66400
this section.66401

       (C) The commission may appoint such employees as it considers 66402
necessary to carry out its duties under this section. The 66403
department of health shall provide office space for the 66404
commission.66405

       (D) The commission shall meet at the call of its chairperson 66406
to conduct its official business. A majority of the voting members 66407
of the commission constitute a quorum. The votes of at least eight 66408
voting members of the commission are necessary for the commission 66409
to take any official action or to approve the distribution of 66410
grants under this section.66411

       Sec. 3701.83.  (A) There is hereby created in the state 66412
treasury the general operations fund. Moneys in the fund shall be 66413
used for the purposes specified in sections 3701.04, 3701.344, 66414
3702.20, 3710.15, 3711.16, 3717.45, 3718.06, 3721.02, 3721.022, 66415
3729.07, 3733.43, 3748.04, 3748.05, 3748.07, 3748.12, 3748.13, 66416
3749.04, 3749.07, 4747.04, 4751.04, and 4769.09 of the Revised 66417
Code.66418

       (B) The alcohol testing program fund is hereby created in the 66419
state treasury. The director of health shall use the fund to 66420
administer and enforce the alcohol testing and permit program 66421
authorized by section 3701.143 of the Revised Code.66422

       The fund shall receive transfers from the liquor control fund 66423
created under section 4301.12 of the Revised Code. All investment 66424
earnings of the alcohol testing program fund shall be credited to 66425
the fund.66426

       Sec. 3701.881.  (A) As used in this section:66427

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 66428
consideration for employment with a home health agency in a 66429
full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves 66430
providing direct care to an individual or is referred to a home 66431
health agency by an employment service for such a position. 66432

       (2) "Community-based long-term care agencyprovider" has the 66433
same meaningmeans a provider as defined in section 173.39 of the 66434
Revised Code.66435

       (3) "Community-based long-term care subcontractor" means a 66436
subcontractor as defined in section 173.38 of the Revised Code.66437

       (4) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 66438
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.66439

       (4)(5) "Direct care" means any of the following:66440

       (a) Any service identified in divisions (A)(7)(8)(a) to (f) 66441
of this section that is provided in a patient's place of residence 66442
used as the patient's home;66443

       (b) Any activity that requires the person performing the 66444
activity to be routinely alone with a patient or to routinely have 66445
access to a patient's personal property or financial documents 66446
regarding a patient;66447

       (c) For each home health agency individually, any other 66448
routine service or activity that the chief administrator of the 66449
home health agency designates as direct care.66450

       (5)(6) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the offenses 66451
listed or described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 66452
109.572 of the Revised Code.66453

       (6)(7) "Employee" means a person employed by a home health 66454
agency in a full-time, part-time, or temporary position that 66455
involves providing direct care to an individual and a person who 66456
works in such a position due to being referred to a home health 66457
agency by an employment service.66458

       (7)(8) "Home health agency" means a person or government 66459
entity, other than a nursing home, residential care facility, 66460
hospice care program, or pediatric respite care program, that has 66461
the primary function of providing any of the following services to 66462
a patient at a place of residence used as the patient's home:66463

       (a) Skilled nursing care;66464

       (b) Physical therapy;66465

       (c) Speech-language pathology;66466

       (d) Occupational therapy;66467

       (e) Medical social services;66468

       (f) Home health aide services.66469

       (8)(9) "Home health aide services" means any of the following 66470
services provided by an employee of a home health agency:66471

       (a) Hands-on bathing or assistance with a tub bath or shower;66472

       (b) Assistance with dressing, ambulation, and toileting;66473

       (c) Catheter care but not insertion;66474

       (d) Meal preparation and feeding.66475

       (9)(10) "Hospice care program" and "pediatric respite care 66476
program" have the same meanings as in section 3712.01 of the 66477
Revised Code.66478

       (10)(11) "Medical social services" means services provided by 66479
a social worker under the direction of a patient's attending 66480
physician.66481

       (11)(12) "Minor drug possession offense" has the same meaning 66482
as in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.66483

       (12)(13) "Nursing home," "residential care facility," and 66484
"skilled nursing care" have the same meanings as in section 66485
3721.01 of the Revised Code.66486

       (13)(14) "Occupational therapy" has the same meaning as in 66487
section 4755.04 of the Revised Code.66488

       (14)(15) "Physical therapy" has the same meaning as in 66489
section 4755.40 of the Revised Code.66490

       (15)(16) "Social worker" means a person licensed under 66491
Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code to practice as a social worker 66492
or independent social worker.66493

       (16)(17) "Speech-language pathology" has the same meaning as 66494
in section 4753.01 of the Revised Code.66495

       (17)(18) "Waiver agency" has the same meaning as in section 66496
5111.0335164.342 of the Revised Code.66497

       (B) No home health agency shall employ an applicant or 66498
continue to employ an employee in a position that involves 66499
providing direct care to an individual if any of the following 66500
apply:66501

       (1) A review of the databases listed in division (D) of this 66502
section reveals any of the following:66503

       (a) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 66504
of the databases listed in divisions (D)(1) to (5) of this 66505
section;66506

       (b) That there is in the state nurse aide registry 66507
established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code a statement 66508
detailing findings by the director of health that the applicant or 66509
employee neglected or abused a long-term care facility or 66510
residential care facility resident or misappropriated property of 66511
such a resident;66512

       (c) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 66513
of the databases, if any, specified in rules adopted under this 66514
section and the rules prohibit the home health agency from 66515
employing an applicant or continuing to employ an employee 66516
included in such a database in a position that involves providing 66517
direct care to an individual.66518

       (2) After the applicant or employee is provided, pursuant to 66519
division (E)(2)(a) of this section, a copy of the form prescribed 66520
pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 66521
and the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division 66522
(C)(2) of that section, the applicant or employee fails to 66523
complete the form or provide the applicant's or employee's 66524
fingerprint impressions on the standard impression sheet.66525

       (3) Except as provided in rules adopted under this section, 66526
the applicant or employee is found by a criminal records check 66527
required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty 66528
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 66529
for a disqualifying offense.66530

       (C) Except as provided by division (F) of this section, the 66531
chief administrator of a home health agency shall inform each 66532
applicant of both of the following at the time of the applicant's 66533
initial application for employment or referral to the home health 66534
agency by an employment service for a position that involves 66535
providing direct care to an individual:66536

       (1) That a review of the databases listed in division (D) of 66537
this section will be conducted to determine whether the home 66538
health agency is prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section 66539
from employing the applicant in the position;66540

       (2) That, unless the database review reveals that the 66541
applicant may not be employed in the position, a criminal records 66542
check of the applicant will be conducted and the applicant is 66543
required to provide a set of the applicant's fingerprint 66544
impressions as part of the criminal records check.66545

       (D) As a condition of employing any applicant in a position 66546
that involves providing direct care to an individual, the chief 66547
administrator of a home health agency shall conduct a database 66548
review of the applicant in accordance with rules adopted under 66549
this section. If rules adopted under this section so require, the 66550
chief administrator of a home health agency shall conduct a 66551
database review of an employee in accordance with the rules as a 66552
condition of continuing to employ the employee in a position that 66553
involves providing direct care to an individual. However, the 66554
chief administrator is not required to conduct a database review 66555
of an applicant or employee if division (F) of this section 66556
applies. A database review shall determine whether the applicant 66557
or employee is included in any of the following:66558

       (1) The excluded parties list system that is maintained by 66559
the United States general services administration pursuant to 66560
subpart 9.4 of the federal acquisition regulation and available at 66561
the federal web site known as the system for award management;66562

       (2) The list of excluded individuals and entities maintained 66563
by the office of inspector general in the United States department 66564
of health and human services pursuant to section 1128 of the 66565
"Social Security Act," 94 Stat. 2619 (1980)sections 1128 and 66566
1156, 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7, as amended, and section 1156 of the 66567
"Social Security Act," 96 Stat. 388 (1982), 42 U.S.C.and 1320c-5, 66568
as amended;66569

       (3) The registry of MR/DD employees established under section 66570
5123.52 of the Revised Code;66571

       (4) The internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender 66572
database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of 66573
the Revised Code;66574

       (5) The internet-based database of inmates established under 66575
section 5120.66 of the Revised Code;66576

       (6) The state nurse aide registry established under section 66577
3721.32 of the Revised Code;66578

       (7) Any other database, if any, specified in rules adopted 66579
under this section.66580

       (E)(1) As a condition of employing any applicant in a 66581
position that involves providing direct care to an individual, the 66582
chief administrator of a home health agency shall request the 66583
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 66584
investigation to conduct a criminal records check of the 66585
applicant. If rules adopted under this section so require, the 66586
chief administrator of a home health agency shall request the 66587
superintendent to conduct a criminal records check of an employee 66588
at times specified in the rules as a condition of continuing to 66589
employ the employee in a position that involves providing direct 66590
care to an individual. However, the chief administrator is not 66591
required to request the criminal records check of the applicant or 66592
the employee if division (F) of this section applies or the home 66593
health agency is prohibited by division (B)(1) of this section 66594
from employing the applicant or continuing to employ the employee 66595
in a position that involves providing direct care to an 66596
individual. If an applicant or employee for whom a criminal 66597
records check request is required by this section does not present 66598
proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year 66599
period immediately prior to the date upon which the criminal 66600
records check is requested or does not provide evidence that 66601
within that five-year period the superintendent has requested 66602
information about the applicant from the federal bureau of 66603
investigation in a criminal records check, the chief administrator 66604
shall request that the superintendent obtain information from the 66605
federal bureau of investigation as a part of the criminal records 66606
check. Even if an applicant or employee for whom a criminal 66607
records check request is required by this section presents proof 66608
that the applicant or employee has been a resident of this state 66609
for that five-year period, the chief administrator may request 66610
that the superintendent include information from the federal 66611
bureau of investigation in the criminal records check.66612

       (2) The chief administrator shall do all of the following:66613

       (a) Provide to each applicant and employee for whom a 66614
criminal records check request is required by this section a copy 66615
of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 66616
109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard impression sheet 66617
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section;66618

       (b) Obtain the completed form and standard impression sheet 66619
from each applicant and employee;66620

       (c) Forward the completed form and standard impression sheet 66621
to the superintendent at the time the chief administrator requests 66622
the criminal records check. 66623

       (3) A home health agency shall pay to the bureau of criminal 66624
identification and investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to 66625
division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each 66626
criminal records check the agency requests under this section. A 66627
home health agency may charge an applicant a fee not exceeding the 66628
amount the agency pays to the bureau under this section if both of 66629
the following apply:66630

       (a) The home health agency notifies the applicant at the time 66631
of initial application for employment of the amount of the fee and 66632
that, unless the fee is paid, the applicant will not be considered 66633
for employment.66634

       (b) The medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of 66635
the Revised Code does not reimburse the home health agency for the 66636
fee it pays to the bureau under this section.66637

       (F) Divisions (C) to (E) of this section do not apply with 66638
regard to an applicant or employee if the applicant or employee is 66639
referred to a home health agency by an employment service that 66640
supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for positions 66641
that involve providing direct care to an individual and both of 66642
the following apply:66643

       (1) The chief administrator of the home health agency 66644
receives from the employment service confirmation that a review of 66645
the databases listed in division (D) of this section was conducted 66646
with regard to the applicant or employee.66647

       (2) The chief administrator of the home health agency 66648
receives from the employment service, applicant, or employee a 66649
report of the results of a criminal records check of the applicant 66650
or employee that has been conducted by the superintendent within 66651
the one-year period immediately preceding the following:66652

       (a) In the case of an applicant, the date of the applicant's 66653
referral by the employment service to the home health agency;66654

       (b) In the case of an employee, the date by which the home 66655
health agency would otherwise have to request a criminal records 66656
check of the employee under division (E) of this section.66657

       (G)(1) A home health agency may employ conditionally an 66658
applicant for whom a criminal records check request is required by 66659
this section before obtaining the results of the criminal records 66660
check if the agency is not prohibited by division (B) of this 66661
section from employing the applicant in a position that involves 66662
providing direct care to an individual and either of the following 66663
applies:66664

       (a) The chief administrator of the home health agency 66665
requests the criminal records check in accordance with division 66666
(E) of this section not later than five business days after the 66667
applicant begins conditional employment.66668

       (b) The applicant is referred to the home health agency by an 66669
employment service, the employment service or the applicant 66670
provides the chief administrator of the agency a letter that is on 66671
the letterhead of the employment service, the letter is dated and 66672
signed by a supervisor or another designated official of the 66673
employment service, and the letter states all of the following:66674

       (i) That the employment service has requested the 66675
superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding the 66676
applicant;66677

       (ii) That the requested criminal records check is to include 66678
a determination of whether the applicant has been convicted of, 66679
pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu 66680
of conviction for a disqualifying offense;66681

       (iii) That the employment service has not received the 66682
results of the criminal records check as of the date set forth on 66683
the letter;66684

       (iv) That the employment service promptly will send a copy of 66685
the results of the criminal records check to the chief 66686
administrator of the home health agency when the employment 66687
service receives the results.66688

       (2) If a home health agency employs an applicant 66689
conditionally pursuant to division (G)(1)(b) of this section, the 66690
employment service, on its receipt of the results of the criminal 66691
records check, promptly shall send a copy of the results to the 66692
chief administrator of the agency. 66693

       (3) A home health agency that employs an applicant 66694
conditionally pursuant to division (G)(1)(a) or (b) of this 66695
section shall terminate the applicant's employment if the results 66696
of the criminal records check, other than the results of any 66697
request for information from the federal bureau of investigation, 66698
are not obtained within the period ending sixty days after the 66699
date the request for the criminal records check is made. 66700
Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check are 66701
obtained, if the results indicate that the applicant has been 66702
convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for 66703
intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense, 66704
the home health agency shall terminate the applicant's employment 66705
unless circumstances specified in rules adopted under this section 66706
that permit the agency to employ the applicant exist and the 66707
agency chooses to employ the applicant. Termination of employment 66708
under this division shall be considered just cause for discharge 66709
for purposes of division (D)(2) of section 4141.29 of the Revised 66710
Code if the applicant makes any attempt to deceive the home health 66711
agency about the applicant's criminal record.66712

       (H) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 66713
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 66714
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 66715
made under this section is not a public record for the purposes of 66716
section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not be made available 66717
to any person other than the following:66718

       (1) The applicant or employee who is the subject of the 66719
criminal records check or the applicant's or employee's 66720
representative;66721

       (2) The home health agency requesting the criminal records 66722
check or its representative;66723

       (3) The administrator of any other facility, agency, or 66724
program that provides direct care to individuals that is owned or 66725
operated by the same entity that owns or operates the home health 66726
agency that requested the criminal records check;66727

       (4) The employment service that requested the criminal 66728
records check;66729

       (5) The director of health and the staff of the department of 66730
health who monitor a home health agency's compliance with this 66731
section;66732

       (6) The director of aging or the director's designee if 66733
either of the following apply:66734

       (a) In the case of a criminal records check requested by a 66735
home health agency, the home health agency also is a 66736
community-based long-term care agencyprovider or community-based 66737
long-term care subcontractor;66738

       (b) In the case of a criminal records check requested by an 66739
employment service, the employment service makes the request for 66740
an applicant or employee the employment service refers to a home 66741
health agency that also is a community-based long-term care 66742
agencyprovider or community-based long-term care subcontractor.66743

       (7) The medicaid director of job and family services and the 66744
staff of the department of job and family servicesmedicaid who 66745
are involved in the administration of the medicaid program if 66746
either of the following apply:66747

       (a) In the case of a criminal records check requested by a 66748
home health agency, the home health agency also is a waiver 66749
agency;66750

       (b) In the case of a criminal records check requested by an 66751
employment service, the employment service makes the request for 66752
an applicant or employee the employment service refers to a home 66753
health agency that also is a waiver agency.66754

        (8) Any court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 66755
involved in a case dealing with any of the following:66756

       (a) A denial of employment of the applicant or employee;66757

       (b) Employment or unemployment benefits of the applicant or 66758
employee;66759

        (c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid 66760
program.66761

       (I) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is 66762
brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or 66763
property caused by an applicant or employee who a home health 66764
agency employs in a position that involves providing direct care 66765
to an individual, all of the following shall apply:66766

       (1) If the home health agency employed the applicant or 66767
employee in good faith and reasonable reliance on the report of a 66768
criminal records check requested under this section, the agency 66769
shall not be found negligent solely because of its reliance on the 66770
report, even if the information in the report is determined later 66771
to have been incomplete or inaccurate.66772

       (2) If the home health agency employed the applicant in good 66773
faith on a conditional basis pursuant to division (G) of this 66774
section, the agency shall not be found negligent solely because it 66775
employed the applicant prior to receiving the report of a criminal 66776
records check requested under this section.66777

       (3) If the home health agency in good faith employed the 66778
applicant or employee according to the personal character 66779
standards established in rules adopted under this section, the 66780
agency shall not be found negligent solely because the applicant 66781
or employee had been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been 66782
found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 66783
disqualifying offense. 66784

       (J) The director of health shall adopt rules in accordance 66785
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. 66786

       (1) The rules may do the following:66787

       (a) Require employees to undergo database reviews and 66788
criminal records checks under this section;66789

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 66790
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, exempt one 66791
or more classes of employees from the requirements;66792

       (c) For the purpose of division (D)(7) of this section, 66793
specify other databases that are to be checked as part of a 66794
database review conducted under this section.66795

       (2) The rules shall specify all of the following:66796

       (a) The procedures for conducting database reviews under this 66797
section;66798

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 66799
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, the times 66800
at which the database reviews and criminal records checks are to 66801
be conducted;66802

       (c) If the rules specify other databases to be checked as 66803
part of the database reviews, the circumstances under which a home 66804
health agency is prohibited from employing an applicant or 66805
continuing to employ an employee who is found by a database review 66806
to be included in one or more of those databases;66807

       (d) Circumstances under which a home health agency may employ 66808
an applicant or employee who is found by a criminal records check 66809
required by this section to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty 66810
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 66811
for a disqualifying offense but meets personal character 66812
standards.66813

       Sec. 3701.921.  There is hereby established the patient 66814
centered medical home education program in the department of 66815
health. For the purpose of advancing education in the patient 66816
centered medical home model of care, the director of health may 66817
implement and administer the program pursuant to sections 3701.922 66818
to 3701.929 of the Revised Code. The patient centered medical home 66819
model of care is an enhanced model of primary care in which care 66820
teams attend to the multifaceted needs of patients, providing 66821
whole person comprehensive and coordinate patient centered care.66822

       To the extent that funds are available, the program shall 66823
include the patient centered medical home education pilot project 66824
and may include any other pilot projects the director establishes 66825
pursuant to division (A)(3) of section 3701.922 of the Revised 66826
Code.66827

       Sec. 3701.922.  (A) The director of health may do any of the 66828
following to implement and administer the patient centered medical 66829
home education program:66830

       (1) Develop and implement programs of education or training 66831
on the patient centered medical home model of care or other 66832
similar enhanced models of coordinated patient centered care that 66833
are intended to address the multifaceted needs of patients and 66834
provide whole person comprehensive and coordinated patient 66835
centered care;66836

       (2) Advise, consult, cooperate with, and assist, by contract 66837
or other arrangement, government agencies or institutions or 66838
private organizations, corporations, or associations in the 66839
development and promotion of programs pertaining to the evaluation 66840
and implementation of the patient centered medical home model of 66841
care or other similar enhanced models of coordinated patient 66842
centered care;66843

       (3) Establish pilot projects that do any of the following:66844

       (a) Evaluate or implement the patient centered medical home 66845
model of care or other similar enhanced models of coordinated 66846
patient centered care;66847

       (b) Provideprovide education or training on the patient 66848
centered medical home model of care or other similar enhanced 66849
models of coordinated patient centered care.66850

       (4) Seek and administer state funds or grants from other 66851
sources to carry out any functions of the patient centered medical 66852
home education program.66853

        Any funds or grants received by the director for purposes of 66854
the program shall be used for the program.66855

       (B) The director may adopt rules as necessary to implement 66856
and administer the patient centered medical home education 66857
program, including rules that define what constitutes a "patient 66858
centered medical home" for purposes of an entity authorized to 66859
provide care coordination services. The rules shall be adopted in 66860
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.66861

       Sec. 3701.94. There is hereby established the patient 66862
centered medical home program in the department of health. The 66863
patient centered medical home model of care is an advanced model 66864
of primary care in which care teams attend to the multifaceted 66865
needs of patients, providing whole person comprehensive and 66866
coordinated patient centered care.66867

       Sec. 3701.941. (A) As part of the patient centered medical 66868
home program established under section 3701.94 of the Revised 66869
Code, the department of health shall establish a voluntary patient 66870
centered medical home certification program.66871

       (B) Each primary care practice, that seeks a patient centered 66872
medical home certificate shall submit an application on a form 66873
prepared by the department. The department may require an 66874
application fee and annual renewal fee as determined by the 66875
department. If the department establishes a fee under this 66876
section, the fee shall be in an amount that is sufficient to cover 66877
the cost of any on-site evaluations conducted by the department or 66878
an entity under contract with the department pursuant to section 66879
3701.942 of the Revised Code.66880

       (C) A practice certified under this section shall do all of 66881
the following:66882

       (1) Meet any standards developed by national independent 66883
accrediting and medical home organizations, as determined by the 66884
department;66885

       (2) Develop a systematic follow-up procedure for patients, 66886
including the use of health information technology and patient 66887
registries;66888

       (3) Implement and maintain health information technology that 66889
meets the requirements of 42 U.S.C. 300jj;66890

       (4) Comply with the reporting requirements of section 66891
3701.942 of the Revised Code;66892

       (5) Meet any process, outcome, and quality standards 66893
specified by the department of health;66894

       (6) Meet any other requirements established by the 66895
department.66896

       (D) The department shall seek to do all of the following 66897
through the certification of patient centered medical homes:66898

       (1) Expand, enhance, and encourage the use of primary care 66899
providers, including primary care physicians, advanced practice 66900
registered nurses, and physician assistants, as personal 66901
clinicians;66902

       (2) Develop a focus on delivering high-quality, efficient, 66903
and effective health care services;66904

       (3) Encourage patient centered care and the provision of care 66905
that is appropriate for a patient's race, ethnicity, and language;66906

       (4) Encourage the education and active participation of 66907
patients and patients' families or legal guardians, as 66908
appropriate, in decision making and care plan development;66909

       (5) Provide patients with consistent, ongoing contact with a 66910
personal clinician or team of clinical professionals to ensure 66911
continuous and appropriate care;66912

       (6) Ensure that patient centered medical homes develop and 66913
maintain appropriate comprehensive care plans for patients with 66914
complex or chronic conditions, including an assessment of health 66915
risks and chronic conditions;66916

       (7) Ensure that patient centered medical homes plan for 66917
transition of care from youth to adult to senior;66918

       (8) Enable and encourage use of a range of qualified health 66919
care professionals, including dedicated care coordinators, in a 66920
manner that enables those professionals to practice to the fullest 66921
extent of their professional licenses.66922

       Sec. 3701.942. (A) Each certified patient centered medical 66923
home shall report health care quality and performance information 66924
to the department of health, including any data necessary for 66925
monitoring compliance with certification standards and for 66926
evaluating the impact of patient centered medical homes on health 66927
care quality, cost, and outcomes.66928

       (B) The department may contract with a private entity to 66929
evaluate the effectiveness of certified patient centered medical 66930
homes. The department may provide the entity with data collected 66931
under division (A) of this section.66932

       (C) The department may contract with national independent 66933
accrediting and medical home organizations to provide on-site 66934
evaluation of primary care practices and verification of data 66935
collected under division (A) of this section.66936

       (D) Data collected under this section is not a public record 66937
under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.66938

       Sec. 3701.943. (A) The department of health shall submit a 66939
report to the governor and, in accordance with section 101.68 of 66940
the Revised Code, the general assembly, evaluating the patient 66941
centered medical home program not later than three years after 66942
rules adopted pursuant to section 3701.944 of the Revised Code 66943
first become effective. The department shall submit a second 66944
report not later than five years after those rules first become 66945
effective.66946

       (B) The reports submitted under division (A) of this section 66947
shall include all of the following:66948

       (1) The number of patients receiving primary care services 66949
from certified patient centered medical homes and the number and 66950
characteristics of those patients with complex or chronic 66951
conditions. To the extent available, information regarding the 66952
income, race, ethnicity, and language of patients shall be 66953
included in the reports;66954

       (2) The number and geographic distribution of certified 66955
patient centered medical homes;66956

       (3) Performance of and quality of care measures implemented 66957
by certified patient centered medical homes;66958

       (4) Preventive care measures implemented by certified patient 66959
centered medical homes;66960

       (5) Payment arrangements of certified patient centered 66961
medical homes;66962

       (6) Costs related to implementation of the patient centered 66963
medical home program and payment of care coordination fees;66964

       (7) The estimated effect of certified patient centered 66965
medical homes on health disparities;66966

       (8) The estimated savings from establishing the patient 66967
centered medical home program, as those savings apply to the fee 66968
for service, managed care, and state-based purchasing sectors.66969

       Sec. 3701.944. The department of health shall adopt rules in 66970
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to do all of the 66971
following:66972

       (A) Considering the goals set forth in section 3701.941 of 66973
the Revised Code, establish standards and procedures for 66974
certifying a primary care practice as a patient centered medical 66975
home;66976

       (B) Specify the types of medical practices that constitute 66977
primary care practices for the purpose of certifying patient 66978
centered medical homes; 66979

       (C) Specify the health care quality and performance 66980
information that certified patient centered medical homes must 66981
report to the department pursuant to section 3701.942 of the 66982
Revised Code.66983

       Sec. 3701.95.  (A) As used in this section, "direct care 66984
services" and "direct care worker" have the same meanings as in 66985
section 191.061 of the Revised Code.66986

       (B) Not later than October 1, 2014, the director of health 66987
shall establish a direct care worker certification program. The 66988
director may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 66989
Revised Code as necessary to implement the program. The rules may 66990
address standards, procedures, and application fees charged for 66991
certification.66992

       (C) For purposes of the program, the director shall do both 66993
of the following: 66994

       (1) Specify the minimum standards that must be met by a 66995
direct care worker to attain certification, which may include 66996
standards pertaining to education, experience, and continuing 66997
education requirements, as well as standards for compliance with 66998
administrative requirements.66999

       (2) Specify a procedure for determining whether a direct care 67000
worker satisfies the standards specified under division (C)(1) of 67001
this section.67002

       Sec. 3701.96. As used in this section, "board of health" 67003
means a board of health of a city or general health district or an 67004
authority having the duties of a board of health under section 67005
3709.05 of the Revised Code.67006

        If a zoonotic disease program is administered by the 67007
department of health, the director of health may charge a board of 67008
health a fee for each service the program provides to the board. 67009
The fee amount shall be determined by the director and be 67010
commensurate with the department's cost to provide the service. 67011
The board shall pay the fee associated with a service at the time 67012
the service is provided.67013

       Sec. 3701.98. Not later than July 1, 2014, the director of 67014
health shall establish both of the following by rule adopted under 67015
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code:67016

        (A) A standardized process by which all general and city 67017
health districts shall collect and report to the director 67018
information regarding public health quality indicators.67019

        (B) A policy and procedures for the sharing of health data 67020
reported under this section with payers, providers, general and 67021
city health districts, and public health professionals.67022

        The rules shall identify the public health quality indicators 67023
that are to be a priority for general and city health districts 67024
and the information to be collected and reported regarding those 67025
indicators.67026

       Sec. 3701.99.  (A) Whoever violates division (C) of section 67027
3701.23, division (C) of section 3701.232, division (C) of section 67028
3701.24, division (B) of section 3701.25, division (I)(D)(2) of 67029
section 3701.262, division (D) of section 3701.263, or sections 67030
3701.46 to 3701.55 of the Revised Code is guilty of a minor 67031
misdemeanor on a first offense; on each subsequent offense, the 67032
person is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.67033

       (B) Whoever violates section 3701.82 of the Revised Code is 67034
guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree.67035

       (C) Whoever violates section 3701.352 or 3701.81 of the 67036
Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the second degree.67037

       Sec. 3702.30.  (A) As used in this section:67038

       (1) "Ambulatory surgical facility" means a facility, whether 67039
or not part of the same organization as a hospital, that is 67040
located in a building distinct from another in which inpatient 67041
care is provided, and to which any of the following apply:67042

       (a) Outpatient surgery is routinely performed in the 67043
facility, and the facility functions separately from a hospital's 67044
inpatient surgical service and from the offices of private 67045
physicians, podiatrists, and dentists.67046

       (b) Anesthesia is administered in the facility by an 67047
anesthesiologist or certified registered nurse anesthetist, and 67048
the facility functions separately from a hospital's inpatient 67049
surgical service and from the offices of private physicians, 67050
podiatrists, and dentists.67051

       (c) The facility applies to be certified by the United States 67052
centers for medicare and medicaid services as an ambulatory 67053
surgical center for purposes of reimbursement under Part B of the 67054
medicare program, Part B of Title XVIII of the "Social Security 67055
Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C.A. 1395, as amended.67056

       (d) The facility applies to be certified by a national 67057
accrediting body approved by the centers for medicare and medicaid 67058
services for purposes of deemed compliance with the conditions for 67059
participating in the medicare program as an ambulatory surgical 67060
center.67061

       (e) The facility bills or receives from any third-party 67062
payer, governmental health care program, or other person or 67063
government entity any ambulatory surgical facility fee that is 67064
billed or paid in addition to any fee for professional services.67065

       (f) The facility is held out to any person or government 67066
entity as an ambulatory surgical facility or similar facility by 67067
means of signage, advertising, or other promotional efforts.67068

       "Ambulatory surgical facility" does not include a hospital 67069
emergency department.67070

       (2) "Ambulatory surgical facility fee" means a fee for 67071
certain overhead costs associated with providing surgical services 67072
in an outpatient setting. A fee is an ambulatory surgical facility 67073
fee only if it directly or indirectly pays for costs associated 67074
with any of the following:67075

       (a) Use of operating and recovery rooms, preparation areas, 67076
and waiting rooms and lounges for patients and relatives;67077

       (b) Administrative functions, record keeping, housekeeping, 67078
utilities, and rent;67079

       (c) Services provided by nurses, orderlies, technical 67080
personnel, and others involved in patient care related to 67081
providing surgery.67082

       "Ambulatory surgical facility fee" does not include any 67083
additional payment in excess of a professional fee that is 67084
provided to encourage physicians, podiatrists, and dentists to 67085
perform certain surgical procedures in their office or their group 67086
practice's office rather than a health care facility, if the 67087
purpose of the additional fee is to compensate for additional cost 67088
incurred in performing office-based surgery.67089

       (3) "Governmental health care program" has the same meaning 67090
as in section 4731.65 of the Revised Code.67091

       (4) "Health care facility" means any of the following:67092

       (a) An ambulatory surgical facility;67093

       (b) A freestanding dialysis center;67094

       (c) A freestanding inpatient rehabilitation facility;67095

       (d) A freestanding birthing center;67096

       (e) A freestanding radiation therapy center;67097

       (f) A freestanding or mobile diagnostic imaging center.67098

       (5) "Third-party payer" has the same meaning as in section 67099
3901.38 of the Revised Code.67100

       (B) By rule adopted in accordance with sections 3702.12 and 67101
3702.13 of the Revised Code, the director of health shall 67102
establish quality standards for health care facilities. The 67103
standards may incorporate accreditation standards or other quality 67104
standards established by any entity recognized by the director.67105

       In the case of an ambulatory surgical facility, the standards 67106
shall require the ambulatory surgical facility to maintain an 67107
infection control program. The purposes of the program are to 67108
minimize infections and communicable diseases and facilitate a 67109
functional and sanitary environment consistent with standards of 67110
professional practice. To achieve these purposes, ambulatory 67111
surgical facility staff managing the program shall create and 67112
administer a plan designed to prevent, identify, and manage 67113
infections and communicable diseases; ensure that the program is 67114
directed by a qualified professional trained in infection control; 67115
ensure that the program is an integral part of the ambulatory 67116
surgical facility's quality assessment and performance improvement 67117
program; and implement in an expeditious manner corrective and 67118
preventive measures that result in improvement. 67119

       (C) Every ambulatory surgical facility shall require that 67120
each physician who practices at the facility comply with all 67121
relevant provisions in the Revised Code that relate to the 67122
obtaining of informed consent from a patient.67123

       (D) The director shall issue a license to each health care 67124
facility that makes application for a license and demonstrates to 67125
the director that it meets the quality standards established by 67126
the rules adopted under division (B) of this section and satisfies 67127
the informed consent compliance requirements specified in division 67128
(C) of this section.67129

       (E)(1) Except as provided in division (H) of this section and 67130
in section 3702.301 of the Revised Code, no health care facility 67131
shall operate without a license issued under this section.67132

       (2) If the department of health finds that a physician who 67133
practices at a health care facility is not complying with any 67134
provision of the Revised Code related to the obtaining of informed 67135
consent from a patient, the department shall report its finding to 67136
the state medical board, the physician, and the health care 67137
facility.67138

       (3) This division does not create, and shall not be construed 67139
as creating, a new cause of action or substantive legal right 67140
against a health care facility and in favor of a patient who 67141
allegedly sustains harm as a result of the failure of the 67142
patient's physician to obtain informed consent from the patient 67143
prior to performing a procedure on or otherwise caring for the 67144
patient in the health care facility.67145

       (F) The rules adopted under division (B) of this section 67146
shall include all of the following:67147

       (1) Provisions governing application for, renewal, 67148
suspension, and revocation of a license under this section;67149

       (2) Provisions governing orders issued pursuant to section 67150
3702.32 of the Revised Code for a health care facility to cease 67151
its operations or to prohibit certain types of services provided 67152
by a health care facility;67153

       (3) Provisions governing the imposition under section 3702.32 67154
of the Revised Code of civil penalties for violations of this 67155
section or the rules adopted under this section, including a scale 67156
for determining the amount of the penalties;67157

       (4) Provisions specifying the form inspectors must use when 67158
conducting inspections of ambulatory surgical facilities.67159

       (G) An ambulatory surgical facility that performs or induces 67160
abortions shall comply with section 3701.791 of the Revised Code.67161

       (H) The following entities are not required to obtain a 67162
license as a freestanding diagnostic imaging center issued under 67163
this section:67164

       (1) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 67165
Revised Code that provides diagnostic imaging;67166

       (2) An entity that is reviewed as part of a hospital 67167
accreditation or certification program and that provides 67168
diagnostic imaging;67169

       (3) An ambulatory surgical facility that provides diagnostic 67170
imaging in conjunction with or during any portion of a surgical 67171
procedure.67172

       Sec. 3702.302.  In the case of an ambulatory surgical 67173
facility not certified by the centers for medicare and medicaid 67174
services as an ambulatory surgical center, the director of health 67175
shall conduct an inspection of the facility each time the facility 67176
submits an application for license renewal. The director shall not 67177
renew the license unless all of the following conditions are met:67178

       (A) The inspector conducting the inspection completes each 67179
item on the following, as applicable:67180

       (1) Until the director adopts rules under division (F) of 67181
section 3702.30 of the Revised Code, the form approved by the 67182
director on the effective date of this section;67183

       (2) The form specified by the director pursuant to rules 67184
adopted under division (F) of section 3702.30 of the Revised Code.67185

       (B) The inspection demonstrates that the ambulatory surgical 67186
facility complies with all quality standards established by the 67187
director in rules adopted under division (B) of section 3702.30 of 67188
the Revised Code.67189

       (C) The director determines that the most recent version of 67190
the updated written transfer agreement filed in accordance with 67191
division (B) of section 3702.303 of the Revised Code is 67192
satisfactory, unless the director has granted a variance from the 67193
written transfer agreement requirement as permitted by section 67194
3702.304 of the Revised Code.67195

       Sec. 3702.303. (A) Except as provided in division (C) of this 67196
section, an ambulatory surgical facility shall have a written 67197
transfer agreement with a local hospital that specifies an 67198
effective procedure for the safe and immediate transfer of 67199
patients from the facility to the hospital when medical care 67200
beyond the care that can be provided at the ambulatory surgical 67201
facility is necessary, including when emergency situations occur 67202
or medical complications arise. A copy of the agreement shall be 67203
filed with the director of health.67204

       (B) An ambulatory surgical facility shall update a written 67205
transfer agreement every two years and file a copy of the updated 67206
agreement with the director.67207

       (C) The requirement for a written transfer agreement between 67208
an ambulatory surgical facility and a hospital does not apply if 67209
either of the following is the case:67210

       (1) The facility is a provider-based entity, as defined in 42 67211
C.F.R. 413.65(a)(2), of a hospital and the facility's policies and 67212
procedures to address situations when care beyond the care that 67213
can be provided at the ambulatory surgical facility are approved 67214
by the governing body of the facility's parent hospital and 67215
implemented;67216

       (2) The director of health has, pursuant to the procedure 67217
specified in section 3702.304 of the Revised Code, granted the 67218
facility a variance from the requirement.67219

       Sec. 3702.304. (A) The director of health may grant a 67220
variance from the written transfer agreement requirement of 67221
section 3702.303 of the Revised Code if the ambulatory surgical 67222
facility submits to the director a complete variance application, 67223
prescribed by the director, and the director determines after 67224
reviewing the application that the facility is capable of 67225
achieving the purpose of a written transfer agreement in the 67226
absence of one. The director's determination is final.67227

       (B) A variance application is complete for purposes of 67228
division (A) of this section if it contains or includes as 67229
attachments all of the following:67230

       (1) A statement explaining why application of the requirement 67231
would cause the facility undue hardship and why the variance will 67232
not jeopardize the health and safety of any patient;67233

       (2) A letter, contract, or memorandum of understanding signed 67234
by the facility and one or more consulting physicians who have 67235
admitting privileges at a minimum of one local hospital, 67236
memorializing the physician or physicians' agreement to provide 67237
back-up coverage when medical care beyond the level the facility 67238
can provide is necessary;67239

       (3) For each consulting physician described in division 67240
(B)(2) of this section:67241

       (a) A signed statement in which the physician attests that 67242
the physician is familiar with the facility and its operations, 67243
and agrees to provide notice to the facility of any changes in the 67244
physician's ability to provide back-up coverage;67245

       (b) The estimated travel time from the physician's main 67246
residence or office to each local hospital where the physician has 67247
admitting privileges;67248

       (c) Written verification that the facility has a record of 67249
the name, telephone numbers, and practice specialties of the 67250
physician;67251

       (d) Written verification from the state medical board that 67252
the physician possesses a valid certificate to practice medicine 67253
and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery issued under 67254
Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code;67255

       (e) Documented verification that each hospital at which the 67256
physician has admitting privileges has been informed in writing by 67257
the physician that the physician is a consulting physician for the 67258
ambulatory surgical facility and has agreed to provide back-up 67259
coverage for the facility when medical care beyond the care the 67260
facility can provide is necessary.67261

       (4) A copy of the facility's operating procedures or 67262
protocols that, at a minimum, do all of the following: 67263

       (a) Address how back-up coverage by consulting physicians is 67264
to occur, including how back-up coverage is to occur when 67265
consulting physicians are temporarily unavailable;67266

       (b) Specify that each consulting physician is required to 67267
notify the facility, without delay, when the physician is unable 67268
to expeditiously admit patients to a local hospital and provide 67269
for continuity of patient care;67270

       (c) Specify that a patient's medical record maintained by the 67271
facility must be transferred contemporaneously with the patient 67272
when the patient is transferred from the facility to a hospital.67273

       (5) Any other information the director considers necessary.67274

       (C) The director's decision to grant, refuse, or rescind a 67275
variance is final.67276

       (D) The director shall consider each application for a 67277
variance independently without regard to any decision the director 67278
may have made on a prior occasion to grant or deny a variance to 67279
that ambulatory surgical facility or any other facility. 67280

       Sec. 3702.305. The director of health may impose conditions 67281
on any variance the director has granted under section 3702.304 of 67282
the Revised Code. The director may, at any time, rescind the 67283
variance for any reason, including a determination by the director 67284
that the facility is failing to meet one or more of the conditions 67285
or no longer adequately protects public health and safety. The 67286
director's decision to rescind a variance is final.67287

       Sec. 3702.306. A variance the director of health grants under 67288
section 3702.304 of the Revised Code is effective for the period 67289
of time specified by the director, except that it shall not be 67290
effective beyond the date the ambulatory surgical facility's 67291
license expires. If a variance is to expire on the date the 67292
facility's license expires, the facility may submit to the 67293
director an application for a new variance with its next license 67294
renewal application.67295

       Sec. 3702.307. An ambulatory surgical facility shall notify 67296
the director of health when any of the following occurs:67297

       (A) The facility modifies any provision of its most recent 67298
written transfer agreement filed with the director under section 67299
3702.303 of the Revised Code. Notification under these 67300
circumstances shall occur not later than the business day after 67301
the modification is finalized. As used in this division, "business 67302
day" means a day of the week excluding Saturday, Sunday, and a 67303
legal holiday as defined in section 1.14 of the Revised Code.67304

        (B) The facility modifies its operating procedures or 67305
protocols described in division (B)(4) of section 3702.304 of the 67306
Revised Code. Notification under these circumstances shall occur 67307
not later than forty-eight hours after the modification is made.67308

       (C) The ambulatory surgical facility becomes aware of an 67309
event, including disciplinary action by the state medical board 67310
pursuant to section 4731.22 of the Revised Code, that may affect a 67311
consulting physician's certificate to practice medicine and 67312
surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery or the physician's 67313
ability to admit patients to a hospital identified in a variance 67314
application, as described in division (B)(3)(e) of section 67315
3702.304 of the Revised Code. Notification under these 67316
circumstances shall occur not later than one week after the 67317
facility becomes aware of the event's occurrence.67318

       Sec. 3702.308. If any provision in sections 3702.302 to 67319
3702.307 of the Revised Code is enjoined, the injunction does not 67320
affect any remaining provision of those sections, any provision of 67321
section 3702.30 of the Revised Code, or any provision of the rules 67322
adopted under that section.67323

       Sec. 3702.51.  As used in sections 3702.51 to 3702.62 of the 67324
Revised Code:67325

       (A) "Applicant" means any person that submits an application 67326
for a certificate of need and who is designated in the application 67327
as the applicant.67328

       (B) "Person" means any individual, corporation, business 67329
trust, estate, firm, partnership, association, joint stock 67330
company, insurance company, government unit, or other entity.67331

       (C) "Certificate of need" means a written approval granted by 67332
the director of health to an applicant to authorize conducting a 67333
reviewable activity.67334

       (D) "Service area" means the current and projected primary 67335
and secondary service areas to which the long-term care facility 67336
is, or will be, providing long-term care services.67337

       (E) "Primary service area" means the geographic region, 67338
usually comprised of the Ohio zip code in which the long-term care 67339
facility is located and contiguous zip codes, from which 67340
approximately seventy-five to eighty per cent of the facility's 67341
residents currently originate or are expected to originate.67342

       (F) "Secondary service area" means the geographic region, 67343
usually comprised of Ohio zip codes not included in the primary 67344
service area, excluding isolated exceptions, from which the 67345
facility's remaining residents currently originate or are expected 67346
to originate.67347

       (G) "Third-party payer" means a health insuring corporation 67348
licensed under Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code, a health 67349
maintenance organization as defined in division (I) of this 67350
section, an insurance company that issues sickness and accident 67351
insurance in conformity with Chapter 3923. of the Revised Code, a 67352
state-financed health insurance program under Chapter 3701.,or67353
4123., or 5111. of the Revised Code, the medicaid program, or any 67354
self-insurance plan.67355

       (H) "Government unit" means the state and any county, 67356
municipal corporation, township, or other political subdivision of 67357
the state, or any department, division, board, or other agency of 67358
the state or a political subdivision.67359

       (I) "Health maintenance organization" means a public or 67360
private organization organized under the law of any state that is 67361
qualified under section 1310(d) of Title XIII of the "Public 67362
Health Service Act," 87 Stat. 931 (1973), 42 U.S.C. 300e-9.67363

       (J) "Existing long-term care facility" means either of the 67364
following:67365

       (1) A long-term care facility that is licensed or otherwise 67366
authorized to operate in this state in accordance with applicable 67367
law, including a county home or a county nursing home that is 67368
certified under Title XVIII or Title XIX of the "Social Security 67369
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, is staffed 67370
and equipped to provide long-term care services, and is actively 67371
providing long-term care services;67372

       (2) A long-term care facility that is licensed or otherwise 67373
authorized to operate in this state in accordance with applicable 67374
law, including a county home or a county nursing home that is 67375
certified under Title XVIII or Title XIX of the "Social Security 67376
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, or that has 67377
beds registered under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as 67378
skilled nursing beds or long-term care beds and has provided 67379
long-term care services for at least three hundred sixty-five 67380
consecutive days within the twenty-four months immediately 67381
preceding the date a certificate of need application is filed with 67382
the director of health.67383

       (K) "State" means the state of Ohio, including, but not 67384
limited to, the general assembly, the supreme court, the offices 67385
of all elected state officers, and all departments, boards, 67386
offices, commissions, agencies, institutions, and other 67387
instrumentalities of the state of Ohio. "State" does not include 67388
political subdivisions.67389

       (L) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 67390
township, county, school district, and all other bodies corporate 67391
and politic responsible for governmental activities only in 67392
geographic areas smaller than that of the state to which the 67393
sovereign immunity of the state attaches.67394

       (M) "Affected person" means:67395

       (1) An applicant for a certificate of need, including an 67396
applicant whose application was reviewed comparatively with the 67397
application in question;67398

       (2) The person that requested the reviewability ruling in 67399
question;67400

       (3) Any person that resides or regularly uses long-term care 67401
facilities within the service area served or to be served by the 67402
long-term care services that would be provided under the 67403
certificate of need or reviewability ruling in question;67404

       (4) Any long-term care facility that is located in the 67405
service area where the long-term care services would be provided 67406
under the certificate of need or reviewability ruling in question;67407

       (5) Third-party payers that reimburse long-term care 67408
facilities for services in the service area where the long-term 67409
care services would be provided under the certificate of need or 67410
reviewability ruling in question.67411

       (N) "Long-term care facility" means any of the following:67412

       (1) A nursing home licensed under section 3721.02 of the 67413
Revised Code or by a political subdivision certified under section 67414
3721.09 of the Revised Code;67415

       (2) The portion of any facility, including a county home or 67416
county nursing home, that is certified as a skilled nursing 67417
facility or a nursing facility under Title XVIII or XIX of the 67418
"Social Security Act";67419

       (3) The portion of any hospital that contains beds registered 67420
under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as skilled nursing beds 67421
or long-term care beds.67422

       (O) "Long-term care bed" or "bed" means a bed that is 67423
categorized as one of the following:67424

        (1) A bed that is located in a facility that is a nursing 67425
home licensed under section 3721.02 of the Revised Code or a 67426
facility licensed by a political subdivision certified under 67427
section 3721.09 of the Revised Code and is included in the 67428
authorized maximum licensed capacity of the facility;67429

       (2) A bed that is located in the portion of any facility, 67430
including a county home or county nursing home, that is certified 67431
as a skilled nursing facility under the medicare program or a 67432
nursing facility under the medicaid program and is included in the 67433
authorized maximum certified capacity of that portion of the 67434
facility;67435

       (3) A bed that is registered under section 3701.07 of the 67436
Revised Code as a skilled nursing bed, a long-term care bed, or a 67437
special skilled nursing bed;67438

       (4) A bed in a county home or county nursing home that has 67439
been certified under section 5155.38 of the Revised Code as having 67440
been in operation on July 1, 1993, and is eligible for licensure 67441
as a nursing home bed;67442

       (5) A bed held as an approved bed under a certificate of need 67443
approved by the director.67444

       A bed cannot simultaneously be both a bed described in 67445
division (O)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of this section and a bed 67446
described in division (O)(5) of this section.67447

       (P) "Reviewability ruling" means a ruling issued by the 67448
director of health under division (A) of section 3702.52 of the 67449
Revised Code as to whether a particular proposed project is or is 67450
not a reviewable activity.67451

       (Q) "County nursing home" has the same meaning as in section 67452
5155.31 of the Revised Code.67453

       (R) "Principal participant" means both of the following:67454

       (1) A person who has an ownership or controlling interest of 67455
at least five per cent in an applicant, in a long-term care 67456
facility that is the subject of an application for a certificate 67457
of need, or in the owner or operator of the applicant or such a 67458
facility;67459

       (2) An officer, director, trustee, or general partner of an 67460
applicant, of a long-term care facility that is the subject of an 67461
application for a certificate of need, or of the owner or operator 67462
of the applicant or such a facility.67463

       (S) "Actual harm but not immediate jeopardy deficiency" means 67464
a deficiency that, under 42 C.F.R. 488.404, either constitutes a 67465
pattern of deficiencies resulting in actual harm that is not 67466
immediate jeopardy or represents widespread deficiencies resulting 67467
in actual harm that is not immediate jeopardy.67468

       (T) "Immediate jeopardy deficiency" means a deficiency that, 67469
under 42 C.F.R. 488.404, either constitutes a pattern of 67470
deficiencies resulting in immediate jeopardy to resident health or 67471
safety or represents widespread deficiencies resulting in 67472
immediate jeopardy to resident health or safety.67473

       (U) "Existing bed" or "existing long-term care bed" means a 67474
bed from an existing long-term care facility, a bed described in 67475
division (O)(5) of this section, or a bed correctly reported as a 67476
long-term care bed pursuant to section 5155.38 of the Revised 67477
Code.67478

       Sec. 3702.521.  (A) Reviews of applications for certificates 67479
of need to recategorize hospital beds to skilled nursing beds 67480
shall be conducted in accordance with this division and rules 67481
adopted by the director of health. 67482

       (1) No hospital recategorizing beds shall apply for a 67483
certificate of need for more than twenty skilled nursing beds.67484

       (2) No beds for which a certificate of need is requested 67485
under this division shall be reviewed under or counted in any 67486
formula developed under rules adopted by the director for the 67487
purpose of determining the number of long-term care beds that may 67488
be needed within the state.67489

       (3) No beds shall be approved under this division unless the 67490
hospital certifies and demonstrates in the application that the 67491
beds will be dedicated to patients with a length of stay of no 67492
more than thirty days.67493

       (4) No beds shall be approved under this division unless the 67494
hospital can satisfactorily demonstrate in the application that it 67495
is routinely unable to place the patients planned for the beds in 67496
accessible skilled nursing facilities.67497

       (5) In developing rules to implement this division, the 67498
director shall give special attention to the required 67499
documentation of the need for such beds, including the efforts 67500
made by the hospital to place patients in suitable skilled nursing 67501
facilities, and special attention to the appropriate size of units 67502
with such beds given the historical pattern of the applicant 67503
hospital's documented difficulty in placing skilled nursing 67504
patients.67505

       (B) For assistance in monitoring the use of hospital beds 67506
recategorized as skilled nursing beds after August 5, 1989, the 67507
director shall adopt rules specifying appropriate quarterly 67508
procedures for reporting to the department of health.67509

       (C) A patient may stay in a hospital bed that, after August 67510
5, 1989, has been recategorized as a skilled nursing bed for more 67511
than thirty days if the hospital is able to demonstrate that it 67512
made a good faith effort to place the patient in an accessible 67513
skilled nursing facility acceptable to the patient within the 67514
thirty-day period, but was unable to do so.67515

       (D) No hospital bed recategorized after August 5, 1989, as a 67516
skilled nursing bed shall be covered by a provider agreement under 67517
the medical assistancemedicaid program established under Chapter 67518
5111. of the Revised Code.67519

       (E) Nothing in this section requires a hospital to place a 67520
patient in any nursing home if the patient does not wish to be 67521
placed in the nursing home. Nothing in this section limits the 67522
ability of a hospital to file a certificate of need application 67523
for the addition of long-term care beds that meet the definition 67524
of "home" in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code. Nothing in this 67525
section limits the ability of the director to grant certificates 67526
of need necessary for hospitals to engage in demonstration 67527
projects authorized by the federal government for the purpose of 67528
enhancing long-term quality of care and cost containment. Nothing 67529
in this section limits the ability of hospitals to develop swing 67530
bed programs in accordance with federal regulations.67531

       No hospital that is granted a certificate of need after 67532
August 5, 1989, to recategorize hospital beds as skilled nursing 67533
beds is subject to sections 3721.01 to 3721.09 of the Revised 67534
Code. If the portion of the hospital in which the recategorized 67535
beds are located is certified as a skilled nursing facility under 67536
Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 67537
U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, that portion of the hospital is subject 67538
to sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 and sections 3721.21 to 3721.34 of 67539
the Revised Code. If the beds are registered pursuant to section 67540
3701.07 of the Revised Code as long-term care beds, the beds are 67541
subject to sections 3721.505168.40 to 3721.585168.56 of the 67542
Revised Code.67543

       Sec. 3702.55.  A person that the director of health 67544
determines has violated section 3702.53 of the Revised Code shall 67545
cease conducting the activity that constitutes the violation or 67546
utilizing the facility resulting from the violation not later than 67547
thirty days after the person receives the notice mailed under 67548
section 3702.532 of the Revised Code or, if the person appeals the 67549
director's determination under section 3702.60 of the Revised 67550
Code, thirty days after the person receives an order upholding the 67551
director's determination that is not subject to further appeal. 67552

       If any person determined to have violated section 3702.53 of 67553
the Revised Code fails to cease conducting an activity or using a 67554
facility as required by this section or if the person continues to 67555
seek payment or reimbursement for services rendered or costs 67556
incurred in conducting the activity as prohibited by section 67557
3702.56 of the Revised Code, in addition to the penalties imposed 67558
under section 3702.54 or 3702.541 of the Revised Code:67559

       (A) The director of health may refuse to include any beds 67560
involved in the activity in the bed capacity of a hospital for 67561
purposes of registration under section 3701.07 of the Revised 67562
Code;67563

       (B) The director of health may refuse to license, or may 67564
revoke a license or reduce bed capacity previously granted to, a 67565
hospice care program under section 3712.04 of the Revised Code; a 67566
nursing home, residential care facility, or home for the aging 67567
under section 3721.02 of the Revised Code; or any beds within any 67568
of those facilities that are involved in the activity;67569

       (C) A political subdivision certified under section 3721.09 67570
of the Revised Code may refuse to license, or may revoke a license 67571
or reduce bed capacity previously granted to, a nursing home, 67572
residential care facility, or home for the aging, or any beds 67573
within any of those facilities that are involved in the activity;67574

       (D) The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 67575
services may refuse to license under section 5119.205119.33 of 67576
the Revised Code, or may revoke a license or reduce bed capacity 67577
previously granted to, a hospital receiving mentally ill persons 67578
or beds within such a hospital that are involved in the activity;67579

       (E) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid may 67580
refuse to enter into a provider agreement that includes a 67581
facility, beds, or services that result from the activity.67582

       Sec. 3702.62.  Sections 3702.51 to 3702.61 of the Revised 67583
Code do not apply to any part of a long-term care facility's 67584
campus that is certified as an intermediate care facility for the 67585
mentally retarded under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 79 67586
Stat. 343 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396 et seq., as amendedindividuals 67587
with intellectual disabilities, as defined in section 5124.01 of 67588
the Revised Code.67589

       Sec. 3702.74.  (A) A primary care physician who has signed a 67590
letter of intent under section 3702.73 of the Revised Code and the 67591
director of health may enter into a contract for the physician's 67592
participation in the physician loan repayment program. The 67593
physician's employer or other funding source may also be a party 67594
to the contract.67595

       (B) The contract shall include all of the following 67596
obligations:67597

       (1) The primary care physician agrees to provide primary care 67598
services in the health resource shortage area identified in the 67599
letter of intent for at least two years;67600

       (2) When providing primary care services in the health 67601
resource shortage area, the primary care physician agrees to do 67602
all of the following:67603

       (a) Provide primary care services for a minimum of forty 67604
hours per week, of which at least twenty-one hours will be spent 67605
providing patient care in an outpatient or ambulatory setting;67606

       (b) Provide primary care services without regard to a 67607
patient's ability to pay;67608

       (c) Meet the conditions prescribed by the "Social Security 67609
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, and the 67610
department of job and family servicesrequirements for 67611
participation in thea medicaid program established under Chapter 67612
5111. of the Revised Codeprovider agreement and enter into a 67613
contractthe agreement with the department of medicaid to provide 67614
primary care services to medicaid recipients of the medical 67615
assistance program.67616

       (3) The department of health agrees, as provided in section 67617
3702.75 of the Revised Code, to repay, so long as the primary care 67618
physician performs the service obligation agreed to under division 67619
(B)(1) of this section, all or part of the principal and interest 67620
of a government or other educational loan taken by the primary 67621
care physician for expenses described in section 3702.75 of the 67622
Revised Code;67623

       (4) The primary care physician agrees to pay the department 67624
of health an amount established by rules adopted under section 67625
3702.79 of the Revised Code if the physician fails to complete the 67626
service obligation agreed to under division (B)(1) of this 67627
section.67628

       (C) The contract may include any other terms agreed upon by 67629
the parties.67630

       Sec. 3702.91.  (A) An individual who has signed a letter of 67631
intent under section 3702.90 of the Revised Code may enter into a 67632
contract with the director of health for participation in the 67633
dentist loan repayment program. The dentist's employer or other 67634
funding source may also be a party to the contract.67635

       (B) The contract shall include all of the following 67636
obligations:67637

       (1) The individual agrees to provide dental services in the 67638
dental health resource shortage area identified in the letter of 67639
intent for at least two years.67640

       (2) When providing dental services in the dental health 67641
resource shortage area, the individual agrees to do all of the 67642
following:67643

       (a) Provide dental services for a minimum of forty hours per 67644
week;67645

       (b) Provide dental services without regard to a patient's 67646
ability to pay;67647

       (c) Meet the conditions prescribed by the "Social Security 67648
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, and the 67649
department of job and family servicesrequirements for 67650
participation in thea medicaid program established under Chapter 67651
5111. of the Revised Codeprovider agreement and enter into a 67652
contractthe agreement with the department of medicaid to provide 67653
dental services to medicaid recipients.67654

       (3) The department of health agrees, as provided in section 67655
3702.85 of the Revised Code, to repay, so long as the individual 67656
performs the service obligation agreed to under division (B)(1) of 67657
this section, all or part of the principal and interest of a 67658
government or other educational loan taken by the individual for 67659
expenses described in section 3702.85 of the Revised Code.67660

       (4) The individual agrees to pay the department of health an 67661
amount established by rules adopted under section 3702.86 of the 67662
Revised Code, if the individual fails to complete the service 67663
obligation agreed to under division (B)(1) of this section.67664

       (C) The contract may include any other terms agreed upon by 67665
the parties.67666

       (D) Not later than the thirty-first day of January of each 67667
year, the department of health shall mail to each individual to 67668
whom or on whose behalf repayment is made under the dentist loan 67669
repayment program a statement showing the amount of principal and 67670
interest repaid by the department pursuant to the contract in the 67671
preceding year. The statement shall be sent by ordinary mail with 67672
address correction and forwarding requested in the manner 67673
prescribed by the United States postal service.67674

       Sec. 3704.144. (A) Gifts, grants, and contributions for the 67675
purpose of adding pollution control equipment to diesel-powered 67676
school buses and converting diesel-powered school buses to 67677
alternative fuels, including contributions that are made pursuant 67678
to the settlement of an administrative action or civil action that 67679
is brought at the request of the director of environmental 67680
protection pursuant to Chapter 3704., 3714., 3734., 6109., or 67681
6111. of the Revised Code, shall be credited to the clean diesel 67682
school bus fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury. 67683
The director shall use money credited to the fund to make grants 67684
to school districts in the state and to county boards of 67685
developmental disabilities for the purpose of adding pollution 67686
control equipment to diesel-powered school buses and converting 67687
diesel-powered school buses to alternative fuels by means of 67688
certified engine configurations and verified technologies that are 67689
consistent with the requirements of section 793 and any 67690
regulations adopted under that section and to pay the 67691
environmental protection agency's costs incurred in administering 67692
this section. In addition, the director may use money credited to 67693
the fund to make grants to school districts and to county boards 67694
of developmental disabilities for the purpose of maintaining 67695
pollution control equipment that is installed on diesel-powered 67696
school buses and to pay the additional cost incurred by a school 67697
district or a county board for using ultra-low sulfur diesel fuel 67698
instead of diesel fuel for the operation of diesel-powered school 67699
buses.67700

       (B) In making grants under this section, the director shall 67701
give priority to school districts and to county boards of 67702
developmental disabilities that are located in a county that is 67703
designated as nonattainment by the United States environmental 67704
protection agency for the fine particulate national ambient air 67705
quality standard under the federal Clean Air Act. In addition, the 67706
director may give a higher priority to a school district or a 67707
county board of developmental disabilities that employs additional 67708
measures that reduce air pollution from the district's or the 67709
county board's school bus fleet.67710

       (C) The director shall adopt rules establishing procedures 67711
and requirements that are necessary to implement this section, 67712
including procedures and requirements governing applications for 67713
grants.67714

       (D) As used in this section:67715

        (1) "Alternative fuel" has the same meaning as in section 67716
125.831 of the Revised Code.67717

        (2) "Certified engine configuration" and "section 793" have 67718
the same meanings as in section 122.861 of the Revised Code.67719

        (3) "Verified technology" means a pollution control 67720
technology, including retrofit technology and auxiliary power 67721
unit, that has been verified by the administrator of the United 67722
States environmental protection agency or the California air 67723
resources board.67724

       Sec. 3706.01.  As used in this chapter:67725

       (A) "Governmental agency" means a department, division, or 67726
other unit of state government, a municipal corporation, county, 67727
township, and other political subdivision, or any other public 67728
corporation or agency having the power to acquire, construct, or 67729
operate air quality facilities, the United States or any agency 67730
thereof, and any agency, commission, or authority established 67731
pursuant to an interstate compact or agreement.67732

       (B) "Person" means any individual, firm, partnership, 67733
association, or corporation, or any combination thereof.67734

       (C) "Air contaminant" means particulate matter, dust, fumes, 67735
gas, mist, smoke, noise, vapor, heat, radioactivity, radiation, or 67736
odorous substance, or any combination thereof.67737

       (D) "Air pollution" means the presence in the ambient air of 67738
one or more air contaminants in sufficient quantity and of such 67739
characteristics and duration as to injure human health or welfare, 67740
plant or animal life, or property, or that unreasonably interferes 67741
with the comfortable enjoyment of life or property.67742

       (E) "Ambient air" means that portion of the atmosphere 67743
outside of buildings and other enclosures, stacks, or ducts that 67744
surrounds human, plant, or animal life, or property.67745

       (F) "Emission" means the release into the outdoor atmosphere 67746
of an air contaminant.67747

       (G) "Air quality facility" means any of the following:67748

       (1) Any method, modification or replacement of property, 67749
process, device, structure, or equipment that removes, reduces, 67750
prevents, contains, alters, conveys, stores, disperses, or 67751
disposes of air contaminants or substances containing air 67752
contaminants, or that renders less noxious or reduces the 67753
concentration of air contaminants in the ambient air, including, 67754
without limitation, facilities and expenditures that qualify as 67755
air pollution control facilities under section 103 (C)(4)(F) of 67756
the Internal Revenue Code of 1954, as amended, and regulations 67757
adopted thereunder;67758

       (2) Motor vehicle inspection stations operated in accordance 67759
with, and any equipment used for motor vehicle inspections 67760
conducted under, section 3704.14 of the Revised Code and rules 67761
adopted under it;67762

       (3) Ethanol or other biofuel facilities, including any 67763
equipment used at the ethanol or other biofuel facility for the 67764
production of ethanol or other biofuels;67765

       (4) Any property or portion thereof used for the collection, 67766
storage, treatment, utilization, processing, or final disposal of 67767
a by-product or solid waste resulting from any method, process, 67768
device, structure, or equipment that removes, reduces, prevents, 67769
contains, alters, conveys, stores, disperses, or disposes of air 67770
contaminants, or that renders less noxious or reduces the 67771
concentration of air contaminants in the ambient air;67772

       (5) Any property, device, or equipment that promotes the 67773
reduction of emissions of air contaminants into the ambient air 67774
through improvements in the efficiency of energy utilization or 67775
energy conservation;67776

       (6) Any coal research and development project conducted under 67777
Chapter 1555. of the Revised Code;67778

        (7) As determined by the director of the Ohio coal 67779
development office, any property or portion thereof that is used 67780
for the collection, storage, treatment, utilization, processing, 67781
or final disposal of a by-product resulting from a coal research 67782
and development project as defined in section 1555.01 of the 67783
Revised Code or from the use of clean coal technology, excluding 67784
any property or portion thereof that is used primarily for other 67785
subsequent commercial purposes;67786

        (8) Any property or portion thereof that is part of the 67787
FutureGen project of the United States department of energy or 67788
related to the siting of the FutureGen project.;67789

       (9) Any property, device, or equipment that promotes the 67790
reduction of emissions of air contaminants into the ambient air 67791
through the generation of clean, renewable energy with renewable 67792
energy resources or advanced energy resources as defined in 67793
section 3706.25 of the Revised Code.;67794

        (10) Any property, device, structure or equipment necessary 67795
for the manufacture and production of equipment described as an 67796
air quality facility under this chapter;67797

       (11) Any property, device, or equipment related to the 67798
recharging or refueling of vehicles that promotes the reduction of 67799
emissions of air contaminants into the ambient air through the use 67800
of an alternative fuel as defined in section 125.831 of the 67801
Revised Code or the use of a renewable energy resource as defined 67802
in section 3706.25 of the Revised Code.67803

       "Air quality facility" further includes any property or 67804
system to be used in whole or in part for any of the purposes in 67805
divisions (G)(1) to (10)(11) of this section, whether another 67806
purpose is also served, and any property or system incidental to 67807
or that has to do with, or the end purpose of which is, any of the 67808
foregoing. Air quality facilities that are defined in this 67809
division for industry, commerce, distribution, or research, 67810
including public utility companies, are hereby determined to be 67811
those that qualify as facilities for the control of air pollution 67812
and thermal pollution related to air under Section 13 of Article 67813
VIII, Ohio Constitution.67814

       (H) "Project" or "air quality project" means any air quality 67815
facility, including undivided or other interests therein, acquired 67816
or to be acquired or constructed or to be constructed by the Ohio 67817
air quality development authority under this chapter, or acquired 67818
or to be acquired or constructed or to be constructed by a 67819
governmental agency or person with all or a part of the cost 67820
thereof being paid from a loan or grant from the authority under 67821
this chapter or otherwise paid from the proceeds of air quality 67822
revenue bonds, including all buildings and facilities that the 67823
authority determines necessary for the operation of the project, 67824
together with all property, rights, easements, and interests that 67825
may be required for the operation of the project.67826

       (I) "Cost" as applied to an air quality project means the 67827
cost of acquisition and construction, the cost of acquisition of 67828
all land, rights-of-way, property rights, easements, franchise 67829
rights, and interests required for such acquisition and 67830
construction, the cost of demolishing or removing any buildings or 67831
structures on land so acquired, including the cost of acquiring 67832
any lands to which such buildings or structures may be moved, the 67833
cost of acquiring or constructing and equipping a principal office 67834
and sub-offices of the authority, the cost of diverting highways, 67835
interchange of highways, and access roads to private property, 67836
including the cost of land or easements for such access roads, the 67837
cost of public utility and common carrier relocation or 67838
duplication, the cost of all machinery, furnishings, and 67839
equipment, financing charges, interest prior to and during 67840
construction and for no more than eighteen months after completion 67841
of construction, engineering, expenses of research and development 67842
with respect to air quality facilities, the cost of any commodity 67843
contract, including fees and expenses related thereto, legal 67844
expenses, plans, specifications, surveys, studies, estimates of 67845
cost and revenues, working capital, other expenses necessary or 67846
incident to determining the feasibility or practicability of 67847
acquiring or constructing such project, administrative expense, 67848
and such other expense as may be necessary or incident to the 67849
acquisition or construction of the project, the financing of such 67850
acquisition or construction, including the amount authorized in 67851
the resolution of the authority providing for the issuance of air 67852
quality revenue bonds to be paid into any special funds from the 67853
proceeds of such bonds, and the financing of the placing of such 67854
project in operation. Any obligation, cost, or expense incurred by 67855
any governmental agency or person for surveys, borings, 67856
preparation of plans and specifications, and other engineering 67857
services, or any other cost described above, in connection with 67858
the acquisition or construction of a project may be regarded as a 67859
part of the cost of that project and may be reimbursed out of the 67860
proceeds of air quality revenue bonds as authorized by this 67861
chapter.67862

       (J) "Owner" includes an individual, copartnership, 67863
association, or corporation having any title or interest in any 67864
property, rights, easements, or interests authorized to be 67865
acquired by this chapter.67866

       (K) "Revenues" means all rentals and other charges received 67867
by the authority for the use or services of any air quality 67868
project, any gift or grant received with respect to any air 67869
quality project, any moneys received with respect to the lease, 67870
sublease, sale, including installment sale or conditional sale, or 67871
other disposition of an air quality project, moneys received in 67872
repayment of and for interest on any loans made by the authority 67873
to a person or governmental agency, whether from the United States 67874
or any department, administration, or agency thereof, or 67875
otherwise, proceeds of such bonds to the extent that use thereof 67876
for payment of principal of, premium, if any, or interest on the 67877
bonds is authorized by the authority, amounts received or 67878
otherwise derived from a commodity contract or from the sale of 67879
the related commodity under such a contract, proceeds from any 67880
insurance, condemnation, or guaranty pertaining to a project or 67881
property mortgaged to secure bonds or pertaining to the financing 67882
of the project, and income and profit from the investment of the 67883
proceeds of air quality revenue bonds or of any revenues.67884

       (L) "Public roads" includes all public highways, roads, and 67885
streets in the state, whether maintained by the state, county, 67886
city, township, or other political subdivision.67887

       (M) "Public utility facilities" includes tracks, pipes, 67888
mains, conduits, cables, wires, towers, poles, and other equipment 67889
and appliances of any public utility.67890

       (N) "Construction," unless the context indicates a different 67891
meaning or intent, includes reconstruction, enlargement, 67892
improvement, or providing furnishings or equipment.67893

       (O) "Air quality revenue bonds," unless the context indicates 67894
a different meaning or intent, includes air quality revenue notes, 67895
air quality revenue renewal notes, and air quality revenue 67896
refunding bonds, except that notes issued in anticipation of the 67897
issuance of bonds shall have a maximum maturity of five years as 67898
provided in section 3706.05 of the Revised Code and notes or 67899
renewal notes issued as the definitive obligation may be issued 67900
maturing at such time or times with a maximum maturity of forty 67901
years from the date of issuance of the original note.67902

       (P) "Solid waste" means any garbage; refuse; sludge from a 67903
waste water treatment plant, water supply treatment plant, or air 67904
pollution control facility; and other discarded material, 67905
including solid, liquid, semisolid, or contained gaseous material 67906
resulting from industrial, commercial, mining, and agricultural 67907
operations, and from community activities, but not including solid 67908
or dissolved material in domestic sewage, or solid or dissolved 67909
material in irrigation return flows or industrial discharges that 67910
are point sources subject to permits under section 402 of the 67911
"Federal Water Pollution Control Act Amendments of 1972," 86 Stat. 67912
880, 33 U.S.C.A. 1342, as amended, or source, special nuclear, or 67913
byproduct material as defined by the "Atomic Energy Act of 1954," 67914
68 Stat. 921, 42 U.S.C.A. 2011, as amended.67915

       (Q) "Sludge" means any solid, semisolid, or liquid waste, 67916
other than a recyclable by-product, generated from a municipal, 67917
commercial, or industrial waste water treatment plant, water 67918
supply plant, or air pollution control facility or any other such 67919
wastes having similar characteristics and effects.67920

       (R) "Ethanol or other biofuel facility" means a plant at 67921
which ethanol or other biofuel is produced.67922

       (S) "Ethanol" means fermentation ethyl alcohol derived from 67923
agricultural products, including potatoes, cereal, grains, cheese 67924
whey, and sugar beets; forest products; or other renewable or 67925
biomass resources, including residue and waste generated from the 67926
production, processing, and marketing of agricultural products, 67927
forest products, and other renewable or biomass resources, that 67928
meets all of the specifications in the American society for 67929
testing and materials (ASTM) specification D 4806-88 and is 67930
denatured as specified in Parts 20 and 21 of Title 27 of the Code 67931
of Federal Regulations.67932

       (T) "Biofuel" means any fuel that is made from cellulosic 67933
biomass resources, including renewable organic matter, crop waste 67934
residue, wood, aquatic plants and other crops, animal waste, solid 67935
waste, or sludge, and that is used for the production of energy 67936
for transportation or other purposes.67937

       (U) "FutureGen project" means the buildings, equipment, and 67938
real property and functionally related buildings, equipment, and 67939
real property, including related research projects that support 67940
the development and operation of the buildings, equipment, and 67941
real property, designated by the United States department of 67942
energy and the FutureGen industrial alliance, inc., as the 67943
coal-fueled, zero-emissions power plant designed to prove the 67944
technical and economic feasibility of producing electricity and 67945
hydrogen from coal and nearly eliminating carbon dioxide emissions 67946
through capture and permanent storage.67947

       (V) "Commodity contract" means a contract or series of 67948
contracts entered into in connection with the acquisition or 67949
construction of air quality facilities for the purchase or sale of 67950
a commodity that is eligible for prepayment with the proceeds of 67951
federally tax exempt bonds under sections 103, 141, and 148 of the 67952
Internal Revenue Code of 1986, as amended, and regulations adopted 67953
under it.67954

       Sec. 3707.511.  (A) As used in this section, "physician":67955

       "Physician" means a person authorized under Chapter 4731. of 67956
the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic 67957
medicine and surgery.67958

       "Chiropractor" means a person licensed under Chapter 4734. of 67959
the Revised Code to practice chiropractic.67960

        (B) A youth sports organization shall provide to the parent, 67961
guardian, or other person having care or charge of an individual 67962
who wishes to practice for or compete in an athletic activity 67963
organized by a youth sports organization the concussion and head 67964
injury information sheet required by section 3707.52 of the 67965
Revised Code. The organization shall provide the information sheet 67966
annually for each sport or other category of athletic activity for 67967
or in which the individual practices or competes.67968

        (C)(1) No individual shall act as a coach or referee for a 67969
youth sports organization unless the individual holds a 67970
pupil-activity program permit issued under section 3319.303 of the 67971
Revised Code for coaching interscholastic athletics or presents 67972
evidence that the individual has successfully completed, within 67973
the previous three years, a training program in recognizing the 67974
symptoms of concussions and head injuries to which the department 67975
of health has provided a link on its internet web site under 67976
section 3707.52 of the Revised Code.67977

       (2) The youth sports organization for which the individual 67978
intends to act as a coach or referee shall inform the individual 67979
of the requirement described in division (C)(1) of this section.67980

       (D) If an individual practicing for or competing in an 67981
athletic event organized by a youth sports organization exhibits 67982
signs, symptoms, or behaviors consistent with having sustained a 67983
concussion or head injury while participating in the practice or 67984
competition, the individual shall be removed from the practice or 67985
competition by one of the following:67986

       (1) The individual who is serving as the individual's coach 67987
during that practice or competition;67988

       (2) An individual who is serving as a referee during that 67989
practice or competition;67990

       (3) An official of the youth sports organization who is 67991
supervising that practice or competition.67992

       (E)(1) If an individual is removed from practice or 67993
competition under division (D) of this section, the coach, 67994
referee, or official who removed the individual shall not allow 67995
the individual, on the same day the individual is removed, to 67996
return to that practice or competition or to participate in any 67997
other practice or competition for which the coach, referee, or 67998
official is responsible. Thereafter, the coach, referee, or 67999
official shall not allow the student to return to that practice or 68000
competition or to participate in any other practice or competition 68001
for which the coach, referee, or official is responsible until 68002
both of the following conditions are satisfied:68003

       (a) The individual's condition is assessed by eitherany of 68004
the following:68005

       (i) A physician;68006

        (ii) A chiropractor;68007

       (iii) Any other licensed health care provider the youth 68008
sports organization, pursuant to division (E)(2) of this section, 68009
authorizes to assess an individual who has been removed from 68010
practice or competition under division (D) of this section.68011

       (b) The individual receives written clearance that it is safe 68012
for the individual to return to practice or competition from a 68013
physician, chiropractor, or from another licensed health care 68014
provider authorized pursuant to division (E)(2) of this section to 68015
grant the clearance.68016

       (2) A youth sports organization may authorize a licensed 68017
health care provider who is not a physician or a chiropractor to 68018
make an assessment or grant a clearance for purposes of division 68019
(E)(1) of this section only if the provider is acting in 68020
accordance with one of the following, as applicable to the 68021
provider's authority to practice in this state:68022

       (a) In consultation with a physician;68023

       (b) Pursuant to the referral of a physician;68024

       (c) In collaboration with a physician;68025

       (d) Under the supervision of a physician.68026

       (3) A physician, chiropractor, or other licensed health care 68027
provider who makes an assessment or grants a clearance for 68028
purposes of division (E)(1) of this section may be a volunteer.68029

       (F)(1) A youth sports organization or official, employee, or 68030
volunteer of a youth sports organization, including a coach or 68031
referee, is not liable in damages in a civil action for injury, 68032
death, or loss to person or property allegedly arising from 68033
providing services or performing duties under this section, unless 68034
the act or omission constitutes willful or wanton misconduct.68035

       (2) This section does not eliminate, limit, or reduce any 68036
other immunity or defense that a public entity, public official, 68037
or public employee may be entitled to under Chapter 2744. or any 68038
other provision of the Revised Code or under the common law of 68039
this state.68040

       Sec. 3709.01.  The state shall be divided into health 68041
districts. Each city constitutes a health district and shall be 68042
known as a "city health district."68043

       The townships and villages in each county shall be combined 68044
into a health district and shall be known as a "general health 68045
district."68046

       As provided for in sections 3709.051, 3709.07, 3709.071, and 68047
3709.10 of the Revised Code, there may be a union of two or more 68048
contiguous general health districts, not to exceed five, a union 68049
of two or more contiguous city health districts to form a single68050
city health district, or a union of a general health district and 68051
one or more city health districts located within or partially 68052
within such general health district.68053

       Sec. 3709.051.  Two or more contiguous city health districts 68054
may be united to form a single city health district by a majority 68055
affirmative vote of the legislative authority of each city 68056
affected by the union.68057

       If at least three per cent of the qualified electors residing 68058
within each of two or more contiguous city health districts sign a 68059
petition proposing a union into a single city health district, an 68060
election shall be held as provided in this section to determine 68061
whether a single city health district shall be formed. The 68062
petition for union may specify regarding the board of health of 68063
the new district:68064

       (A) The qualifications for membership;68065

       (B) The term of office;68066

       (C) The number of members or a method by which the number may 68067
be determined from time to time;68068

       (D) The method of appointment.68069

       Such petition shall be filed with the boards of county 68070
commissioners of the respective counties affected, subject to 68071
approval of the director of health, and such boards shall promptly 68072
certify the text of the proposal to the boards of election for the 68073
purpose of having the proposal placed on the ballot at the next 68074
general election occurring more than ninety days after such 68075
certification. The election procedures provided in Chapter 3505. 68076
of the Revised Code for questions and issues shall apply to the 68077
election. If a majority of the electors voting on the proposal in 68078
each of the health districts affected vote in favor thereof, the 68079
union of such districts into a single city health district shall 68080
be established on the second succeeding first day of January.68081

       Sec. 3709.10.  When it is proposed that two or more68082
contiguous general health districts, not to exceed five, unite in 68083
the formation of one general health district, the district 68084
advisory council of each general health district shall meet and 68085
vote on the question of union. An affirmative majority vote of the 68086
district advisory council shall be required for approval. When the 68087
district advisory councils have voted affirmatively on the 68088
question, they shall meet in joint session and shall elect a board 68089
of health for the combined districts. Each original general health 68090
district shall be entitled to at least one member on the board of 68091
health of the combined districts.68092

       When such union is completed, suchthe district shall 68093
constitute a general health district and shall be governed in the 68094
manner provided for general health districts. When two or more 68095
general health districts unite to form one district, the office of 68096
the board of health shall be located at the county seat of the 68097
county selected by the joint board of district advisory councils.68098

       When two or more general health districts have been combined 68099
into a single district, the county auditor of the county selected 68100
by the joint board of district advisory councils as the location 68101
of the central office of the board of health shall be the auditor 68102
of such district and the county treasurer of such county shall be 68103
the custodian of the health funds of such district. When the 68104
budget of such combined general health district is a matter for 68105
consideration, the members of the budget commissions of the 68106
counties constituting the district shall sit as a joint board for 68107
considering and acting on such budget.68108

       Sec. 3712.051.  (A) As used in this division, "person" does 68109
not include a member of an interdisciplinary team, as defined in 68110
section 3712.01 of the Revised Code, or any individual who is 68111
employed by a person or public agency licensed under section 68112
3712.041 of the Revised Code.68113

       Except as provided in division (B) of this section, no person 68114
or public agency, other than a person or public agency licensed 68115
pursuant to section 3712.041 of the Revised Code, shall hold 68116
itself out as providing a pediatric respite care program, or 68117
provide a pediatric respite care program, or use the term 68118
"pediatric respite care program" or any term containing "pediatric 68119
respite care" to describe or refer to a health program, facility, 68120
or agency.68121

       (B) Division (A) of this section does not apply to any of the 68122
following:68123

        (1) A hospital;68124

        (2) A nursing home or residential care facility, as those 68125
terms are defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;68126

       (3) A home health agency, if it provides services under 68127
contract with a person or public agency providing a pediatric 68128
respite care program licensed under section 3712.041 of the 68129
Revised Code;68130

        (4) A regional, state, or national nonprofit organization 68131
whose members are providers of pediatric respite care programs, 68132
individuals interested in pediatric respite care programs, or 68133
both, as long as the organization does not provide or represent 68134
that it provides pediatric respite care programs;68135

       (5) A person or government entity certified under section 68136
5123.161 of the Revised Code as a supported living provider;68137

       (6) A residential facility licensed under section 5123.19 of 68138
the Revised Code;68139

       (7) A respite care home certified under section 5126.05 of 68140
the Revised Code;68141

       (8) A person providing respite care under a family support 68142
services program established under section 5126.11 of the Revised 68143
Code;68144

       (9) A person or government entity providing respite care 68145
under a medicaid waiver component that the department of 68146
developmental disabilities administers pursuant to section 68147
5111.8715166.21 of the Revised Code.68148

       (C) The department of health shall petition the court of 68149
common pleas of any county in which a person or public agency, 68150
without a license granted under section 3712.041 of the Revised 68151
Code, is holding itself out as providing a pediatric respite care 68152
program, is providing a pediatric respite care program, or is 68153
representing a health program, facility, or agency as a pediatric 68154
respite care program, for an order enjoining that person or public 68155
agency from conducting those activities without a license. The 68156
court has jurisdiction to grant injunctive relief upon a showing 68157
that the respondent named in the petition is conducting those 68158
activities without a license.68159

       Any person or public agency may request the department to 68160
petition the court for injunctive relief under this division, and 68161
the department shall do so if it determines that the person or 68162
public agency named in the request is violating division (A) of 68163
this section.68164

       Sec. 3712.07.  (A) As used in this section, "terminal care 68165
facility for the homeless" means a facility that provides 68166
accommodations to homeless individuals who are terminally ill.68167

       (B) A person or public agency licensed under this chapter to 68168
provide a hospice care program may enter into an agreement with a 68169
terminal care facility for the homeless under which hospice care 68170
program services may be provided to individuals residing at the 68171
facility, if all of the following apply:68172

       (1) Each resident of the facility has been diagnosed by a 68173
physician as having a terminal condition and an anticipated life 68174
expectancy of six months or less;68175

       (2) No resident of the facility has a relative or other 68176
person willing or capable of providing the care necessary to cope 68177
with histhe resident's terminal illness or is financially capable 68178
of hiring a person to provide such care;68179

       (3) Each resident of the facility is under the direct care of 68180
a physician;68181

       (4) No resident of the facility requires the staff of the 68182
facility to administer medication by injection;68183

       (5) The facility does not receive any remuneration, directly 68184
or indirectly, from the residents;68185

       (6) The facility does not receive any remuneration, directly 68186
or indirectly, from the medical assistancemedicaid program68187
established under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code or the 68188
medicare program established under Title XVIII of the "Social 68189
Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended;68190

       (7) The facility meets all applicable state and federal 68191
health and safety standards, including standards for fire 68192
prevention, maintenance of safe and sanitary conditions, and 68193
proper preparation and storage of foods.68194

       (C) Hospice care program services may be provided at a 68195
terminal care facility for the homeless only by the personnel of 68196
the person or public agency that has entered into an agreement 68197
with the facility under this section.68198

       (D) A terminal care facility for the homeless that has 68199
entered into an agreement under this section may assist its 68200
residents with the self-administration of medication if the 68201
medication has been prescribed by a physician and is not 68202
administered by injection. In the event that a resident has 68203
entered the final stages of dying and is no longer mentally alert, 68204
the facility may administer medication to that resident if the 68205
medication has been prescribed by a physician and is not 68206
administered by injection. Determinations of whether an individual 68207
has entered the final stages of dying and is no longer mentally 68208
alert shall be based on directions from the personnel who provide 68209
hospice care program services at the facility.68210

       Sec. 3712.09.  (A) As used in this section:68211

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 68212
consideration for employment with a hospice care program or 68213
pediatric respite care program in a full-time, part-time, or 68214
temporary position that involves providing direct care to an older 68215
adult or pediatric respite care patient. "Applicant" does not 68216
include a person who provides direct care as a volunteer without 68217
receiving or expecting to receive any form of remuneration other 68218
than reimbursement for actual expenses.68219

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 68220
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.68221

       (3) "Older adult" means a person age sixty or older.68222

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (I) of this section, 68223
the chief administrator of a hospice care program or pediatric 68224
respite care program shall request that the superintendent of the 68225
bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a 68226
criminal records check of each applicant. If an applicant for whom 68227
a criminal records check request is required under this division 68228
does not present proof of having been a resident of this state for 68229
the five-year period immediately prior to the date the criminal 68230
records check is requested or provide evidence that within that 68231
five-year period the superintendent has requested information 68232
about the applicant from the federal bureau of investigation in a 68233
criminal records check, the chief administrator shall request that 68234
the superintendent obtain information from the federal bureau of 68235
investigation as part of the criminal records check of the 68236
applicant. Even if an applicant for whom a criminal records check 68237
request is required under this division presents proof of having 68238
been a resident of this state for the five-year period, the chief 68239
administrator may request that the superintendent include 68240
information from the federal bureau of investigation in the 68241
criminal records check.68242

       (2) A person required by division (B)(1) of this section to 68243
request a criminal records check shall do both of the following:68244

       (a) Provide to each applicant for whom a criminal records 68245
check request is required under that division a copy of the form 68246
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the 68247
Revised Code and a standard fingerprint impression sheet 68248
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section, and obtain 68249
the completed form and impression sheet from the applicant;68250

       (b) Forward the completed form and impression sheet to the 68251
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 68252
investigation.68253

       (3) An applicant provided the form and fingerprint impression 68254
sheet under division (B)(2)(a) of this section who fails to 68255
complete the form or provide fingerprint impressions shall not be 68256
employed in any position for which a criminal records check is 68257
required by this section.68258

       (C)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted by the director of 68259
health in accordance with division (F) of this section and subject 68260
to division (C)(2) of this section, no hospice care program or 68261
pediatric respite care program shall employ a person in a position 68262
that involves providing direct care to an older adult or pediatric 68263
respite care patient if the person has been convicted of or 68264
pleaded guilty to any of the following:68265

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 68266
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 68267
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 68268
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 68269
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 68270
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 68271
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 68272
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 68273
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code.68274

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 68275
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 68276
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (C)(1)(a) of 68277
this section.68278

       (2)(a) A hospice care program or pediatric respite care 68279
program may employ conditionally an applicant for whom a criminal 68280
records check request is required under division (B) of this 68281
section prior to obtaining the results of a criminal records check 68282
regarding the individual, provided that the program shall request 68283
a criminal records check regarding the individual in accordance 68284
with division (B)(1) of this section not later than five business 68285
days after the individual begins conditional employment. In the 68286
circumstances described in division (I)(2) of this section, a 68287
hospice care program or pediatric respite care program may employ 68288
conditionally an applicant who has been referred to the hospice 68289
care program or pediatric respite care program by an employment 68290
service that supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for 68291
positions involving the direct care of older adults or pediatric 68292
respite care patients and for whom, pursuant to that division, a 68293
criminal records check is not required under division (B) of this 68294
section.68295

       (b) A hospice care program or pediatric respite care program 68296
that employs an individual conditionally under authority of 68297
division (C)(2)(a) of this section shall terminate the 68298
individual's employment if the results of the criminal records 68299
check requested under division (B) of this section or described in 68300
division (I)(2) of this section, other than the results of any 68301
request for information from the federal bureau of investigation, 68302
are not obtained within the period ending thirty days after the 68303
date the request is made. Regardless of when the results of the 68304
criminal records check are obtained, if the results indicate that 68305
the individual has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of 68306
the offenses listed or described in division (C)(1) of this 68307
section, the program shall terminate the individual's employment 68308
unless the program chooses to employ the individual pursuant to 68309
division (F) of this section. Termination of employment under this 68310
division shall be considered just cause for discharge for purposes 68311
of division (D)(2) of section 4141.29 of the Revised Code if the 68312
individual makes any attempt to deceive the program about the 68313
individual's criminal record.68314

       (D)(1) Each hospice care program or pediatric respite care 68315
program shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification and 68316
investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of 68317
section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records 68318
check conducted pursuant to a request made under division (B) of 68319
this section.68320

       (2) A hospice care program or pediatric respite care program 68321
may charge an applicant a fee not exceeding the amount the program 68322
pays under division (D)(1) of this section. A program may collect 68323
a fee only if both of the following apply:68324

       (a) The program notifies the person at the time of initial 68325
application for employment of the amount of the fee and that, 68326
unless the fee is paid, the person will not be considered for 68327
employment;68328

       (b) The medical assistancemedicaid program established under 68329
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code does not reimburse the program 68330
the fee it pays under division (D)(1) of this section.68331

       (E) The report of a criminal records check conducted pursuant 68332
to a request made under this section is not a public record for 68333
the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not 68334
be made available to any person other than the following:68335

       (1) The individual who is the subject of the criminal records 68336
check or the individual's representative;68337

       (2) The chief administrator of the program requesting the 68338
criminal records check or the administrator's representative;68339

       (3) The administrator of any other facility, agency, or 68340
program that provides direct care to older adults or pediatric 68341
respite care patients that is owned or operated by the same entity 68342
that owns or operates the hospice care program or pediatric 68343
respite care program;68344

       (4) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 68345
involved in a case dealing with a denial of employment of the 68346
applicant or dealing with employment or unemployment benefits of 68347
the applicant;68348

       (5) Any person to whom the report is provided pursuant to, 68349
and in accordance with, division (I)(1) or (2) of this section.68350

       (F) The director of health shall adopt rules in accordance 68351
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. 68352
The rules shall specify circumstances under which a hospice care 68353
program or pediatric respite care program may employ a person who 68354
has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense listed or 68355
described in division (C)(1) of this section but meets personal 68356
character standards set by the director.68357

       (G) The chief administrator of a hospice care program or 68358
pediatric respite care program shall inform each individual, at 68359
the time of initial application for a position that involves 68360
providing direct care to an older adult or pediatric respite care 68361
patient, that the individual is required to provide a set of 68362
fingerprint impressions and that a criminal records check is 68363
required to be conducted if the individual comes under final 68364
consideration for employment.68365

       (H) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is 68366
brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or 68367
property caused by an individual who a hospice care program or 68368
pediatric respite care program employs in a position that involves 68369
providing direct care to older adults or pediatric respite care 68370
patients, all of the following shall apply:68371

       (1) If the program employed the individual in good faith and 68372
reasonable reliance on the report of a criminal records check 68373
requested under this section, the program shall not be found 68374
negligent solely because of its reliance on the report, even if 68375
the information in the report is determined later to have been 68376
incomplete or inaccurate;68377

       (2) If the program employed the individual in good faith on a 68378
conditional basis pursuant to division (C)(2) of this section, the 68379
program shall not be found negligent solely because it employed 68380
the individual prior to receiving the report of a criminal records 68381
check requested under this section;68382

       (3) If the program in good faith employed the individual 68383
according to the personal character standards established in rules 68384
adopted under division (F) of this section, the program shall not 68385
be found negligent solely because the individual prior to being 68386
employed had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense 68387
listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section.68388

       (I)(1) The chief administrator of a hospice care program or 68389
pediatric respite care program is not required to request that the 68390
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 68391
investigation conduct a criminal records check of an applicant if 68392
the applicant has been referred to the program by an employment 68393
service that supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for 68394
positions involving the direct care of older adults or pediatric 68395
respite care patients and both of the following apply:68396

       (a) The chief administrator receives from the employment 68397
service or the applicant a report of the results of a criminal 68398
records check regarding the applicant that has been conducted by 68399
the superintendent within the one-year period immediately 68400
preceding the applicant's referral;68401

       (b) The report of the criminal records check demonstrates 68402
that the person has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an 68403
offense listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section, or 68404
the report demonstrates that the person has been convicted of or 68405
pleaded guilty to one or more of those offenses, but the hospice 68406
care program or pediatric respite care program chooses to employ 68407
the individual pursuant to division (F) of this section.68408

       (2) The chief administrator of a hospice care program or 68409
pediatric respite care program is not required to request that the 68410
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 68411
investigation conduct a criminal records check of an applicant and 68412
may employ the applicant conditionally as described in this 68413
division, if the applicant has been referred to the program by an 68414
employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or 68415
temporary staff for positions involving the direct care of older 68416
adults or pediatric respite care patients and if the chief 68417
administrator receives from the employment service or the 68418
applicant a letter from the employment service that is on the 68419
letterhead of the employment service, dated, and signed by a 68420
supervisor or another designated official of the employment 68421
service and that states that the employment service has requested 68422
the superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding 68423
the applicant, that the requested criminal records check will 68424
include a determination of whether the applicant has been 68425
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense listed or described 68426
in division (C)(1) of this section, that, as of the date set forth 68427
on the letter, the employment service had not received the results 68428
of the criminal records check, and that, when the employment 68429
service receives the results of the criminal records check, it 68430
promptly will send a copy of the results to the hospice care 68431
program or pediatric respite care program. If a hospice care 68432
program or pediatric respite care program employs an applicant 68433
conditionally in accordance with this division, the employment 68434
service, upon its receipt of the results of the criminal records 68435
check, promptly shall send a copy of the results to the hospice 68436
care program or pediatric respite care program, and division 68437
(C)(2)(b) of this section applies regarding the conditional 68438
employment.68439

       Sec. 3713.06. (A) Any person required to register under 68440
division (A) of section 3713.02 of the Revised Code who imports 68441
bedding or stuffed toys into this state for retail sale or use in 68442
this state and any person required to register under division (A) 68443
of section 3713.02 of the Revised Code who manufactures bedding or 68444
stuffed toys in this state for retail sale or use in this state 68445
shall submit a report to the superintendent of industrial 68446
compliance, in a form and manner prescribed by the superintendent. 68447
The form shall be submitted once every six monthsper year and 68448
shall show the total number of items of bedding or stuffed toys 68449
imported into this state or manufactured in this state. Each 68450
report shall be accompanied by a fee of four cents for each item 68451
of bedding or stuffed toy imported into this state or manufactured 68452
in this state.68453

       (B) Every importer, manufacturer, or wholesaler of stuffed 68454
toys or articles of bedding, and every mobile home and 68455
recreational vehicle dealer, conversion van dealer, secondhand 68456
dealer, and auction house shall retain records, designated by the 68457
superintendent in rule, for the time period established in rule.68458

       (C) Every importer, manufacturer, or wholesaler of stuffed 68459
toys or articles of bedding, and every mobile home and 68460
recreational vehicle dealer, conversion van dealer, secondhand 68461
dealer, and auction house shall make sufficient investigation of 68462
its records to ensure that the information reported to the 68463
superintendent under division (A) of this section is accurate.68464

       Sec. 3714.03. (A) As used in this section:68465

       (1) "Aquifer system" means one or more geologic units or 68466
formations that are wholly or partially saturated with water and 68467
are capable of storing, transmitting, and yielding significant 68468
amounts of water to wells or springs.68469

       (2) "Category 3 wetland" means a wetland that supports 68470
superior habitat or hydrological or recreational functions as 68471
determined by an appropriate wetland evaluation methodology 68472
acceptable to the director of environmental protection. "Category 68473
3 wetland" includes a wetland with high levels of diversity, a 68474
high proportion of native species, and high functional values and 68475
includes, but is not limited to, a wetland that contains or 68476
provides habitat for threatened or endangered species. "Category 3 68477
wetland" may include high quality forested wetlands, including old 68478
growth forested wetlands, mature forested riparian wetlands, 68479
vernal pools, bogs, fens, and wetlands that are scarce regionally.68480

       (3) "Natural area" means either of the following:68481

        (a) An area designated by the director of natural resources 68482
as a wild, scenic, or recreational river under section 1547.81 of 68483
the Revised Code;68484

       (b) An area designated by the United States department of the 68485
interior as a national wild, scenic, or recreational river.68486

       (4) "Occupied dwelling" means a residential dwelling and also 68487
includes a place of worship as defined in section 5104.01 of the 68488
Revised Code, a child day-care center as defined in that section, 68489
a hospital as defined in section 3727.01 of the Revised Code, a 68490
nursing home as defined in that section, a school, and a 68491
restaurant or other eating establishment. "Occupied dwelling" does 68492
not include a dwelling owned or controlled by the owner or 68493
operator of a construction and demolition debris facility to which 68494
the siting criteria established under this section are being 68495
applied.68496

       (5) "Residential dwelling" means a building used or intended 68497
to be used in whole or in part as a personal residence by the 68498
owner, part-time owner, or lessee of the building or any person 68499
authorized by the owner, part-time owner, or lessee to use the 68500
building as a personal residence.68501

       (B) Neither the director of environmental protection nor any 68502
board of health shall issue a permit to install under section 68503
3714.051 of the Revised Code to establish a new construction and 68504
demolition debris facility when any portion of the facility is 68505
proposed to be located in either of the following locations:68506

       (1) Within the boundaries of a one-hundred-year flood plain, 68507
as those boundaries are shown on the applicable maps prepared 68508
under the "National Flood Insurance Act of 1968," 82 Stat. 572, 42 68509
U.S.C.A. 4001, as amended, unless the owner or operator has 68510
obtained an exemption from division (B)(1) of this section in 68511
accordance with section 3714.04 of the Revised Code. If no such 68512
maps have been prepared, the boundaries of a one-hundred-year 68513
flood plain shall be determined by the applicant for a permit 68514
based upon standard methodologies set forth in "urban hydrology 68515
for small watersheds" (soil conservation service technical release 68516
number 55) and section 4 of the "national engineering hydrology 68517
handbook" of the soil conservation service of the United States 68518
department of agriculture.68519

       (2) Within the boundaries of a sole source aquifer designated 68520
by the administrator of the United States environmental protection 68521
agency under the "Safe Drinking Water Act," 88 Stat. 1660 (1974), 68522
42 U.S.C.A. 300f, as amended.68523

       (C) Neither the director nor any board shall issue a permit 68524
to install under section 3714.051 of the Revised Code to establish 68525
a new construction and demolition debris facility when the 68526
horizontal limits of construction and demolition debris placement 68527
at the new facility are proposed to be located in any of the 68528
following locations:68529

       (1) Within one hundred feet of a perennial stream as defined 68530
by the United States geological survey seven and one-half minute 68531
quadrangle map or a category 3 wetland;68532

       (2) Within one hundred feet of the facility's property line;68533

       (3)(a) Except as provided in division (C)(3)(b) of this 68534
section, within five hundred feet of a residential or public water 68535
supply well.68536

       (b) Division (C)(3)(a) of this section does not apply to a 68537
residential well under any of the circumstances specified in 68538
divisions (C)(3)(b)(i) to (iii) of this section as follows:68539

        (i) The well is controlled by the owner or operator of the 68540
construction and demolition debris facility.68541

        (ii) The well is hydrologically separated from the horizontal 68542
limits of construction and demolition debris placement.68543

        (iii) The well is at least three hundred feet upgradient from 68544
the horizontal limits of construction and demolition debris 68545
placement and division (D) of this section does not prohibit the 68546
issuance of the permit to install.68547

       (4) Within five hundred feet of a park created or operated 68548
pursuant to section 301.26, 511.18, 755.08, 1545.04, or 1545.041 68549
of the Revised Code, a state park established or dedicated under 68550
Chapter 1541. of the Revised Code, a state park purchase area 68551
established under section 1541.02 of the Revised Code, a national 68552
recreation area, any unit of the national park system, or any 68553
property that lies within the boundaries of a national park or 68554
recreation area, but that has not been acquired or is not 68555
administered by the secretary of the United States department of 68556
the interior, located in this state, or any area located in this 68557
state that is recommended by the secretary for study for potential 68558
inclusion in the national park system in accordance with "The Act 68559
of August 18, 1970," 84 Stat. 825, 16 U.S.C.A. 1a-5, as amended;68560

       (5) Within five hundred feet of a natural area, any area 68561
established by the department of natural resources as a state 68562
wildlife area under Chapter 1531. of the Revised Code and rules 68563
adopted under it, any area that is formally dedicated as a nature 68564
preserve under section 1517.05 of the Revised Code, or any area 68565
designated by the United States department of the interior as a 68566
national wildlife refuge;68567

       (6) Within five hundred feet of a lake or reservoir of one 68568
acre or more that is hydrogeologically connected to ground water. 68569
For purposes of division (C)(6) of this section, a lake or 68570
reservoir does not include a body of water constructed and used 68571
for purposes of surface water drainage or sediment control.68572

        (7) Within five hundred feet of a state forest purchased or 68573
otherwise acquired under Chapter 1503. of the Revised Code;68574

       (8) Within five hundred feet of land that is placed on the 68575
state registry of historic landmarks under section 149.55 of the 68576
Revised Code;68577

       (9) Within five hundred feet of an occupied dwelling unless 68578
written permission is given by the owner of the dwelling.68579

       (D) Neither the director nor any board shall issue a permit 68580
to install under section 3714.051 of the Revised Code to establish 68581
a new construction and demolition debris facility when the limits 68582
of construction and demolition debris placement at the new 68583
facility are proposed to have an isolation distance of less than 68584
five feet from the uppermost aquifer system that consists of 68585
material that has a maximum hydraulic conductivity of 1 x 10-568586
cm/sec and all of the geologic material comprising the isolation 68587
distance has a hydraulic conductivity equivalent to or less than 1 68588
x 10-6 cm/sec.68589

       (E) Neither the director nor any board shall issue a permit 68590
to install under section 3714.051 of the Revised Code to establish 68591
a new construction and demolition debris facility when the road 68592
that is designated by the owner or operator as the main hauling 68593
road at the facility to and from the limits of construction and 68594
demolition debris placement is proposed to be located within five 68595
hundred feet of an occupied dwelling unless written permission is 68596
given by the owner of the occupied dwelling.68597

       (F) Neither the director nor any board shall issue a permit 68598
to install under section 3714.051 of the Revised Code to establish 68599
a new construction and demolition debris facility unless the new 68600
facility will have all of the following:68601

        (1) Access roads that shall be constructed in a manner that 68602
allows use in all weather conditions and will withstand the 68603
anticipated degree of use and minimize erosion and generation of 68604
dust;68605

        (2) Surface water drainage and sediment controls that are 68606
required by the director;68607

        (3) If the facility is proposed to be located in an area in 68608
which an applicable zoning resolution allows residential 68609
construction, vegetated earthen berms or an equivalent barrier 68610
with a minimum height of six feet separating the facility from 68611
adjoining property.68612

       (G)(1) The siting criteria established in this section shall 68613
be applied to an application for a permit to install at the time 68614
that the application is submitted to the director or a board of 68615
health, as applicable. Circumstances related to the siting 68616
criteria that change after the application is submitted shall not 68617
be considered in approving or disapproving the application.68618

       (2) The siting criteria established in this section by this 68619
amendment do not apply to an expansion of a construction and 68620
demolition debris facility that was in operation prior to December 68621
22, 2005, onto property within the property boundaries identified 68622
in the application for the initial license for that facility or 68623
any subsequent license issued for that facility up to and 68624
including the license issued for that facility for calendar year 68625
2005. The siting criteria established in this section prior to 68626
December 22, 2005, apply to such an expansion.68627

       Sec. 3714.07.  (A)(1) For the purpose of assisting boards of 68628
health and the environmental protection agency in administering 68629
and enforcing this chapter and rules adopted under it, there is 68630
hereby levied a fee of thirty cents per cubic yard or sixty cents 68631
per ton, as applicable, on both of the following:68632

       (a) The disposal of construction and demolition debris at a 68633
construction and demolition debris facility that is licensed under 68634
this chapter or at a solid waste facility that is licensed under 68635
Chapter 3734. of the Revised Code;68636

       (b) The disposal of asbestos or asbestos-containing materials 68637
or products at a construction and demolition debris facility that 68638
is licensed under this chapter or at a solid waste facility that 68639
is licensed under Chapter 3734. of the Revised Code.68640

       (2) The owner or operator of a construction and demolition 68641
debris facility or a solid waste facility shall determine if cubic 68642
yards or tons will be used as the unit of measurement. If basing 68643
the fee on cubic yards, the owner or operator shall utilize either 68644
the maximum cubic yard capacity of the container, or the hauling 68645
volume of the vehicle, that transports the construction and 68646
demolition debris to the facility or the cubic yards actually 68647
logged for disposal by the owner or operator in accordance with 68648
rules adopted under section 3714.02 of the Revised Code. If basing 68649
the fee on tonnage, the owner or operator shall use certified 68650
scales to determine the tonnage of construction and demolition 68651
debris that is disposed of.68652

       (3) The owner or operator of a construction and demolition 68653
debris facility or a solid waste facility shall calculate the 68654
amount of money generated from the fee levied under division 68655
(A)(1) of this section and shall hold that amount as a trustee for 68656
the health district having jurisdiction over the facility, if that 68657
district is on the approved list under section 3714.09 of the 68658
Revised Code, or for the state. The owner or operator shall 68659
prepare and file with the appropriate board of health or the 68660
director of environmental protection monthly returns indicating 68661
the total volume or weight, as applicable, of construction and 68662
demolition debris and asbestos or asbestos-containing materials or 68663
products disposed of at the facility and the total amount of money 68664
generated during that month from the fee levied under division 68665
(A)(1) of this section on the disposal of construction and 68666
demolition debris and asbestos or asbestos-containing materials or 68667
products. Not later than thirty days after the last day of the 68668
month to which the return applies, the owner or operator shall 68669
mail to the board of health or the director the return for that 68670
month together with the amount of money calculated under division 68671
(A)(3) of this section on the disposal of construction and 68672
demolition debris and asbestos or asbestos-containing materials or 68673
products during that month or may submit the return and money 68674
electronically in a manner approved by the director. The owner or 68675
operator may request, in writing, an extension of not more than 68676
thirty days after the last day of the month to which the return 68677
applies. A request for extension may be denied. If the owner or 68678
operator submits the money late, the owner or operator shall pay a 68679
penalty of ten per cent of the amount of the money due for each 68680
month that it is late.68681

       (4) Of the money that is submitted by a construction and 68682
demolition debris facility or a solid waste facility on a per 68683
cubic yard or per ton basis under this section, a board of health 68684
shall transmit three cents per cubic yard or six cents per ton, as 68685
applicable, to the director not later than forty-five days after 68686
the receipt of the money. The money retained by a board of health 68687
under this section shall be paid into a special fund, which is 68688
hereby created in each health district, and used solely tofor the 68689
following purposes:68690

       (a) To administer and enforce this chapter and rules adopted 68691
under it;68692

       (b) To abate abandoned accumulations of construction and 68693
demolition debris as provided in section 3714.074 of the Revised 68694
Code.68695

       The director shall transmit all money received under this 68696
section to the treasurer of state to be credited to the 68697
construction and demolition debris facility oversight fund, which 68698
is hereby created in the state treasury. The fund shall be 68699
administered by the director, and money credited to the fund shall 68700
be used exclusively for the administration and enforcement of this 68701
chapter and rules adopted under it.68702

       (B) The board of health of a health district or the director 68703
may enter into an agreement with the owner or operator of a 68704
construction and demolition debris facility or a solid waste 68705
facility for the quarterly payment of money generated from the 68706
disposal fee as calculated in division (A)(3) of this section. The 68707
board of health shall notify the director of any such agreement. 68708
Not later than forty-five days after receipt of the quarterly 68709
payment, the board of health shall transmit the amount established 68710
in division (A)(4) of this section to the director. The money 68711
retained by the board of health shall be deposited in the special 68712
fund of the district as required under that division. Upon receipt 68713
of the money from a board of health, the director shall transmit 68714
the money to the treasurer of state to be credited to the 68715
construction and demolition debris facility oversight fund.68716

       (C) If a construction and demolition debris facility or a 68717
solid waste facility is located within the territorial boundaries 68718
of a municipal corporation or the unincorporated area of a 68719
township, the municipal corporation or township may appropriate up 68720
to four cents per cubic yard or up to eight cents per ton of the 68721
disposal fee required to be paid by the facility under division 68722
(A)(1) of this section for the same purposes that a municipal 68723
corporation or township may levy a fee under division (C) of 68724
section 3734.57 of the Revised Code.68725

       The legislative authority of the municipal corporation or 68726
township may appropriate the money from the fee by enacting an 68727
ordinance or adopting a resolution establishing the amount of the 68728
fee to be appropriated. Upon doing so, the legislative authority 68729
shall mail a certified copy of the ordinance or resolution to the 68730
board of health of the health district in which the construction 68731
and demolition debris facility or the solid waste facility is 68732
located or, if the facility is located in a health district that 68733
is not on the approved list under section 3714.09 of the Revised 68734
Code, to the director. Upon receipt of the copy of the ordinance 68735
or resolution and not later than forty-five days after receipt of 68736
money generated from the fee, the board or the director, as 68737
applicable, shall transmit to the treasurer or other appropriate 68738
officer of the municipal corporation or clerk of the township that 68739
portion of the money generated from the disposal fee by the owner 68740
or operator of the facility that is required by the ordinance or 68741
resolution to be paid to that municipal corporation or township.68742

       Money received by the treasurer or other appropriate officer 68743
of a municipal corporation under this division shall be paid into 68744
the general fund of the municipal corporation. Money received by 68745
the clerk of a township under this division shall be paid into the 68746
general fund of the township. The treasurer or other officer of 68747
the municipal corporation or the clerk of the township, as 68748
appropriate, shall maintain separate records of the money received 68749
under this division.68750

       The legislative authority of a municipal corporation or 68751
township may cease appropriating money under this division by 68752
repealing the ordinance or resolution that was enacted or adopted 68753
under this division.68754

       The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 68755
119. of the Revised Code establishing requirements for prorating 68756
the amount of the fee that may be appropriated under this division 68757
by a municipal corporation or township in which only a portion of 68758
a construction and demolition debris facility is located within 68759
the territorial boundaries of the municipal corporation or 68760
township.68761

       (D) The board of county commissioners of a county in which a 68762
construction and demolition debris facility or a solid waste 68763
facility is located may appropriate up to three cents per cubic 68764
yard or up to six cents per ton of the disposal fee required to be 68765
paid by the facility under division (A)(1) of this section for the 68766
same purposes that a solid waste management district may levy a 68767
fee under division (B) of section 3734.57 of the Revised Code.68768

        The board of county commissioners may appropriate the money 68769
from the fee by adopting a resolution establishing the amount of 68770
the fee to be appropriated. Upon doing so, the board of county 68771
commissioners shall mail a certified copy of the resolution to the 68772
board of health of the health district in which the construction 68773
and demolition debris facility or the solid waste facility is 68774
located or, if the facility is located in a health district that 68775
is not on the approved list under section 3714.09 of the Revised 68776
Code, to the director. Upon receipt of the copy of the resolution 68777
and not later than forty-five days after receipt of money 68778
generated from the fee, the board of health or the director, as 68779
applicable, shall transmit to the treasurer of the county that 68780
portion of the money generated from the disposal fee by the owner 68781
or operator of the facility that is required by the resolution to 68782
be paid to that county.68783

        Money received by a county treasurer under this division 68784
shall be paid into the general fund of the county. The county 68785
treasurer shall maintain separate records of the money received 68786
under this division.68787

        A board of county commissioners may cease appropriating money 68788
under this division by repealing the resolution that was adopted 68789
under this division.68790

       (E)(1) This section does not apply to the disposal of 68791
construction and demolition debris at a solid waste facility that 68792
is licensed under Chapter 3734. of the Revised Code if there is no 68793
construction and demolition debris facility licensed under this 68794
chapter within thirty-five miles of the solid waste facility as 68795
determined by a facility's property boundaries.68796

        (2) This section does not apply to the disposal of 68797
construction and demolition debris at a solid waste facility that 68798
is licensed under Chapter 3734. of the Revised Code if the owner 68799
or operator of the facility chooses to collect fees on the 68800
disposal of the construction and demolition debris and asbestos or 68801
asbestos-containing materials or products that are identical to 68802
the fees that are collected under Chapters 343. and 3734. of the 68803
Revised Code on the disposal of solid wastes at that facility.68804

       (3) This section does not apply to the disposal of source 68805
separated materials that are exclusively composed of reinforced or 68806
nonreinforced concrete, asphalt, clay tile, building or paving 68807
brick, or building or paving stone at a construction and 68808
demolition debris facility that is licensed under this chapter 68809
when either of the following applies:68810

        (a) The materials are placed within the limits of 68811
construction and demolition debris placement at the facility as 68812
specified in the license issued to the facility under section 68813
3714.06 of the Revised Code, are not placed within the unloading 68814
zone of the facility, and are used as a fire prevention measure in 68815
accordance with rules adopted by the director under section 68816
3714.02 of the Revised Code.68817

       (b) The materials are not placed within the unloading zone of 68818
the facility or within the limits of construction and demolition 68819
debris placement at the facility as specified in the license 68820
issued to the facility under section 3714.06 of the Revised Code, 68821
but are used as fill material, either alone or in conjunction with 68822
clean soil, sand, gravel, or other clean aggregates, in legitimate 68823
fill operations for construction purposes at the facility or to 68824
bring the facility up to a consistent grade.68825

       Sec. 3714.074.  (A) A board of health may use money in the 68826
board's special fund created in section 3714.07 of the Revised 68827
Code for the purpose specified in division (B) of this section if 68828
both of the following apply:68829

       (1) It is the end of the fiscal year.68830

       (2) The board determines that it has more money in the fund 68831
than is necessary for the board to administer and enforce this 68832
chapter and rules adopted under it for the following fiscal year.68833

       (B) A board of health may use excess money as described in 68834
division (A) of this section to abate abandoned accumulations of 68835
construction and demolition debris at a location for which a 68836
license has not been issued pursuant to section 3714.05 of the 68837
Revised Code if the board has reason to believe that there is a 68838
substantial threat to public health or safety or the environment 68839
and all of the following apply to the property on which the 68840
accumulations are located:68841

       (1) The construction and demolition debris was placed on the 68842
property under either of the following circumstances:68843

       (a) After the owner of the property acquired title to it; 68844

       (b) Before the owner of the property acquired title to it if 68845
the owner acquired title to the property by bequest or devise.68846

       (2) The owner of the property did not have knowledge that the 68847
construction and demolition debris was being placed on the 68848
property, or the owner posted on the property signs prohibiting 68849
dumping or took other action to prevent the placing of 68850
construction and demolition debris on the property.68851

       (3) The owner of the property did not participate in or 68852
consent to the placement of the construction and demolition debris 68853
on the property.68854

       (4) The owner of the property did not receive any financial 68855
benefit from the placement of the construction and demolition 68856
debris on the property or from having the construction and 68857
demolition debris on the property.68858

       (5) Title to the property was not transferred to the owner of 68859
that property for the purpose of avoiding liability for violations 68860
of this chapter or rules adopted under it.68861

       (6) The person responsible for the placement of the 68862
construction and demolition debris on the property, in placing the 68863
construction and demolition debris on the property, was not acting 68864
as an agent for the owner of the property.68865

       Sec. 3717.08.  (A) The director of agriculture and director 68866
of health shall strive to increase consumer confidence in the 68867
state's food supply by promoting food safety awareness and 68868
education. The efforts of the director of agriculture and director 68869
of health shall be made, when appropriate and available, through 68870
partnerships with representatives of retail food establishments, 68871
representatives of food service operations, and representatives of 68872
the academic community, including the Ohio state universityOSU68873
extension service.68874

       (B) As part of their promotion of food safety awareness, the 68875
director of agriculture and the director of health shall do the 68876
following:68877

       (1) Develop training programs regarding the Ohio uniform food 68878
safety code. The directors may offer the training programs 68879
separately but shall coordinate the content of the programs to the 68880
greatest extent practicable. The training programs shall be made 68881
available to the employees of the department of agriculture, 68882
employees of the department of health, representatives of boards 68883
of health and the health officials employed by the boards, 68884
representatives of retail food establishments, and representatives 68885
of food service operations.68886

       (2) Co-sponsor a biennial statewide food safety conference. 68887
Additional statewide food safety conferences may be held as 68888
considered appropriate by the director of agriculture and director 68889
of health.68890

       Sec. 3718.06. (A) A board of health shall establish fees in 68891
accordance with section 3709.09 of the Revised Code for the 68892
purpose of carrying out its duties under this chapter and rules 68893
adopted under it, including fees for installation permits, 68894
operation permits, and alteration permits issued by the board. All 68895
fees so established and collected by the board shall be deposited 68896
in a special fund of the district to be used exclusively by the 68897
board in carrying out those duties.68898

        (B) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 68899
director of health may establish by rule a fee to be collected 68900
from applicants for installation permits and alteration permits 68901
issued under rules adopted under this chapter. The director of 68902
health shall use not more than seventy-fiveninety per cent of the 68903
proceeds from that fee for administering and enforcing this 68904
chapter and the rules adopted under it by the director. The 68905
director shall use not less than twenty-fiveten per cent of the 68906
proceeds from that fee to establish a program in cooperation with 68907
boards of health to fund installation and evaluation of sewage 68908
treatment system new technology pilot projects through grants or 68909
other agreements. In the selection of pilot projects, the director 68910
shall consult with the sewage treatment system technical advisory 68911
committee. A board of health shall collect and transmit the fee to 68912
the director pursuant to section 3709.092 of the Revised Code. 68913

       Sec. 3719.61.  Nothing in the laws dealing with drugs of 68914
abuse shall be construed to prohibit treatment of narcotic drug 68915
dependent persons by the continuing maintenance of their 68916
dependence through the administration of methadone in accordance 68917
with the rules adopted by the department of alcohol and drug 68918
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services under 68919
section 3793.115119.39 of the Revised Code, when all of the 68920
following apply:68921

       (A) The likelihood that any person undergoing maintenance 68922
treatment will be cured of dependence on narcotic drugs is remote, 68923
the treatment is prescribed for the purpose of alleviating or 68924
controlling the patient's drug dependence, and the patient's 68925
prognosis while undergoing treatment is at least a partial 68926
improvement in the patient's asocial or antisocial behavior 68927
patterns;68928

       (B) In the case of an inpatient in a hospital or clinic, the 68929
amount of the maintenance drug dispensed at any one time does not 68930
exceed the quantity necessary for a single dose, and the dose is 68931
administered to the patient immediately;68932

       (C) In the case of an outpatient, the amount of the 68933
maintenance drug dispensed at any one time shall be determined by 68934
the patient's treatment provider taking into account the patient's 68935
progress in the treatment program and the patient's needs for 68936
gainful employment, education, and responsible homemaking, except 68937
that in no event shall the dosage be greater than the amount 68938
permitted by federal law and rules adopted by the department 68939
pursuant to section 3793.115119.39 of the Revised Code;68940

       (D) The drug is not dispensed in any case to replace or 68941
supplement any part of a supply of the drug previously dispensed, 68942
or when there is reasonable cause to believe it will be used or 68943
disposed of unlawfully;68944

       (E) The drug is dispensed through a program licensed and 68945
operated in accordance with section 3793.115119.39 of the Revised 68946
Code.68947

       Sec. 3721.01.  (A) As used in sections 3721.01 to 3721.09 and 68948
3721.99 of the Revised Code:68949

       (1)(a) "Home" means an institution, residence, or facility 68950
that provides, for a period of more than twenty-four hours, 68951
whether for a consideration or not, accommodations to three or 68952
more unrelated individuals who are dependent upon the services of 68953
others, including a nursing home, residential care facility, home 68954
for the aging, and a veterans' home operated under Chapter 5907. 68955
of the Revised Code.68956

       (b) "Home" also means both of the following:68957

       (i) Any facility that a person, as defined in section 3702.51 68958
of the Revised Code, proposes for certification as a skilled 68959
nursing facility or nursing facility under Title XVIII or XIX of 68960
the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, 68961
as amended, and for which a certificate of need, other than a 68962
certificate to recategorize hospital beds as described in section 68963
3702.521 of the Revised Code or division (R)(7)(d) of the version 68964
of section 3702.51 of the Revised Code in effect immediately prior 68965
to April 20, 1995, has been granted to the person under sections 68966
3702.51 to 3702.62 of the Revised Code after August 5, 1989;68967

       (ii) A county home or district home that is or has been 68968
licensed as a residential care facility.68969

       (c) "Home" does not mean any of the following:68970

       (i) Except as provided in division (A)(1)(b) of this section, 68971
a public hospital or hospital as defined in section 3701.01 or 68972
5122.01 of the Revised Code;68973

       (ii) A residential facility as defined in section 5119.2268974
5119.34 of the Revised Code;68975

       (iii) A residential facility as defined in section 5123.19 of 68976
the Revised Code;68977

       (iv) An alcohol or drugA community addiction program68978
services provider as defined in section 3793.015119.01 of the 68979
Revised Code;68980

       (v) A facility licensed to provide methadone treatment under 68981
section 3793.115119.39 of the Revised Code;68982

       (vi) A facility providing services under contract with the 68983
department of developmental disabilities under section 5123.18 of 68984
the Revised Code;68985

       (vii) A facility operated by a hospice care program licensed 68986
under section 3712.04 of the Revised Code that is used exclusively 68987
for care of hospice patients;68988

       (viii) A facility operated by a pediatric respite care 68989
program licensed under section 3712.041 of the Revised Code that 68990
is used exclusively for care of pediatric respite care patients;68991

       (ix) A facility, infirmary, or other entity that is operated 68992
by a religious order, provides care exclusively to members of 68993
religious orders who take vows of celibacy and live by virtue of 68994
their vows within the orders as if related, and does not 68995
participate in the medicare program established under Title XVIII 68996
of the "Social Security Act" or the medical assistancemedicaid68997
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code and 68998
Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," if on January 1, 1994, the 68999
facility, infirmary, or entity was providing care exclusively to 69000
members of the religious order;69001

       (x) A county home or district home that has never been 69002
licensed as a residential care facility.69003

       (2) "Unrelated individual" means one who is not related to 69004
the owner or operator of a home or to the spouse of the owner or 69005
operator as a parent, grandparent, child, grandchild, brother, 69006
sister, niece, nephew, aunt, uncle, or as the child of an aunt or 69007
uncle.69008

       (3) "Mental impairment" does not mean mental illness as 69009
defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code or mental 69010
retardation as defined in section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.69011

       (4) "Skilled nursing care" means procedures that require 69012
technical skills and knowledge beyond those the untrained person 69013
possesses and that are commonly employed in providing for the 69014
physical, mental, and emotional needs of the ill or otherwise 69015
incapacitated. "Skilled nursing care" includes, but is not limited 69016
to, the following:69017

       (a) Irrigations, catheterizations, application of dressings, 69018
and supervision of special diets;69019

       (b) Objective observation of changes in the patient's 69020
condition as a means of analyzing and determining the nursing care 69021
required and the need for further medical diagnosis and treatment;69022

       (c) Special procedures contributing to rehabilitation;69023

       (d) Administration of medication by any method ordered by a 69024
physician, such as hypodermically, rectally, or orally, including 69025
observation of the patient after receipt of the medication;69026

       (e) Carrying out other treatments prescribed by the physician 69027
that involve a similar level of complexity and skill in 69028
administration.69029

       (5)(a) "Personal care services" means services including, but 69030
not limited to, the following:69031

       (i) Assisting residents with activities of daily living;69032

       (ii) Assisting residents with self-administration of 69033
medication, in accordance with rules adopted under section 3721.04 69034
of the Revised Code;69035

       (iii) Preparing special diets, other than complex therapeutic 69036
diets, for residents pursuant to the instructions of a physician 69037
or a licensed dietitian, in accordance with rules adopted under 69038
section 3721.04 of the Revised Code.69039

       (b) "Personal care services" does not include "skilled 69040
nursing care" as defined in division (A)(4) of this section. A 69041
facility need not provide more than one of the services listed in 69042
division (A)(5)(a) of this section to be considered to be 69043
providing personal care services.69044

       (6) "Nursing home" means a home used for the reception and 69045
care of individuals who by reason of illness or physical or mental 69046
impairment require skilled nursing care and of individuals who 69047
require personal care services but not skilled nursing care. A 69048
nursing home is licensed to provide personal care services and 69049
skilled nursing care.69050

       (7) "Residential care facility" means a home that provides 69051
either of the following:69052

       (a) Accommodations for seventeen or more unrelated 69053
individuals and supervision and personal care services for three 69054
or more of those individuals who are dependent on the services of 69055
others by reason of age or physical or mental impairment;69056

       (b) Accommodations for three or more unrelated individuals, 69057
supervision and personal care services for at least three of those 69058
individuals who are dependent on the services of others by reason 69059
of age or physical or mental impairment, and, to at least one of 69060
those individuals, any of the skilled nursing care authorized by 69061
section 3721.011 of the Revised Code.69062

       (8) "Home for the aging" means a home that provides services 69063
as a residential care facility and a nursing home, except that the 69064
home provides its services only to individuals who are dependent 69065
on the services of others by reason of both age and physical or 69066
mental impairment.69067

       The part or unit of a home for the aging that provides 69068
services only as a residential care facility is licensed as a 69069
residential care facility. The part or unit that may provide 69070
skilled nursing care beyond the extent authorized by section 69071
3721.011 of the Revised Code is licensed as a nursing home.69072

       (9) "County home" and "district home" mean a county home or 69073
district home operated under Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code.69074

       (B) The director of health may further classify homes. For 69075
the purposes of this chapter, any residence, institution, hotel, 69076
congregate housing project, or similar facility that meets the 69077
definition of a home under this section is such a home regardless 69078
of how the facility holds itself out to the public.69079

       (C) For purposes of this chapter, personal care services or 69080
skilled nursing care shall be considered to be provided by a 69081
facility if they are provided by a person employed by or 69082
associated with the facility or by another person pursuant to an 69083
agreement to which neither the resident who receives the services 69084
nor the resident's sponsor is a party.69085

       (D) Nothing in division (A)(4) of this section shall be 69086
construed to permit skilled nursing care to be imposed on an 69087
individual who does not require skilled nursing care.69088

       Nothing in division (A)(5) of this section shall be construed 69089
to permit personal care services to be imposed on an individual 69090
who is capable of performing the activity in question without 69091
assistance.69092

       (E) Division (A)(1)(c)(ix) of this section does not prohibit 69093
a facility, infirmary, or other entity described in that division 69094
from seeking licensure under sections 3721.01 to 3721.09 of the 69095
Revised Code or certification under Title XVIII or XIX of the 69096
"Social Security Act." However, such a facility, infirmary, or 69097
entity that applies for licensure or certification must meet the 69098
requirements of those sections or titles and the rules adopted 69099
under them and obtain a certificate of need from the director of 69100
health under section 3702.52 of the Revised Code.69101

       (F) Nothing in this chapter, or rules adopted pursuant to it, 69102
shall be construed as authorizing the supervision, regulation, or 69103
control of the spiritual care or treatment of residents or 69104
patients in any home who rely upon treatment by prayer or 69105
spiritual means in accordance with the creed or tenets of any 69106
recognized church or religious denomination.69107

       Sec. 3721.011.  (A) In addition to providing accommodations, 69108
supervision, and personal care services to its residents, a 69109
residential care facility may do the following:69110

       (1) Provide the following skilled nursing care to its 69111
residents:69112

       (a) Supervision of special diets;69113

       (b) Application of dressings, in accordance with rules 69114
adopted under section 3721.04 of the Revised Code;69115

       (c) Subject to division (B)(1) of this section, 69116
administration of medication.69117

       (2) Subject to division (C) of this section, provide other 69118
skilled nursing care on a part-time, intermittent basis for not 69119
more than a total of one hundred twenty days in a twelve-month 69120
period;69121

        (3) Provide skilled nursing care for more than one hundred 69122
twenty days in a twelve-month period to a resident when the 69123
requirements of division (D) of this section are met.69124

       A residential care facility may not admit or retain an 69125
individual requiring skilled nursing care that is not authorized 69126
by this section. A residential care facility may not provide 69127
skilled nursing care beyond the limits established by this 69128
section.69129

       (B)(1) A residential care facility may admit or retain an 69130
individual requiring medication, including biologicals, only if 69131
the individual's personal physician has determined in writing that 69132
the individual is capable of self-administering the medication or 69133
the facility provides for the medication to be administered to the 69134
individual by a home health agency certified under Title XVIII of 69135
the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 620 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as 69136
amended; a hospice care program licensed under Chapter 3712. of 69137
the Revised Code; or a member of the staff of the residential care 69138
facility who is qualified to perform medication administration. 69139
Medication may be administered in a residential care facility only 69140
by the following persons authorized by law to administer 69141
medication:69142

       (a) A registered nurse licensed under Chapter 4723. of the 69143
Revised Code;69144

       (b) A licensed practical nurse licensed under Chapter 4723. 69145
of the Revised Code who holds proof of successful completion of a 69146
course in medication administration approved by the board of 69147
nursing and who administers the medication only at the direction 69148
of a registered nurse or a physician authorized under Chapter 69149
4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or 69150
osteopathic medicine and surgery;69151

       (c) A medication aide certified under Chapter 4723. of the 69152
Revised Code;69153

       (d) A physician authorized under Chapter 4731. of the Revised 69154
Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and 69155
surgery.69156

       (2) In assisting a resident with self-administration of 69157
medication, any member of the staff of a residential care facility 69158
may do the following:69159

       (a) Remind a resident when to take medication and watch to 69160
ensure that the resident follows the directions on the container;69161

       (b) Assist a resident by taking the medication from the 69162
locked area where it is stored, in accordance with rules adopted 69163
pursuant to section 3721.04 of the Revised Code, and handing it to 69164
the resident. If the resident is physically unable to open the 69165
container, a staff member may open the container for the resident.69166

       (c) Assist a physically impaired but mentally alert resident, 69167
such as a resident with arthritis, cerebral palsy, or Parkinson's 69168
disease, in removing oral or topical medication from containers 69169
and in consuming or applying the medication, upon request by or 69170
with the consent of the resident. If a resident is physically 69171
unable to place a dose of medicine to the resident's mouth without 69172
spilling it, a staff member may place the dose in a container and 69173
place the container to the mouth of the resident.69174

       (C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, a 69175
residential care facility may admit or retain individuals who 69176
require skilled nursing care beyond the supervision of special 69177
diets, application of dressings, or administration of medication, 69178
only if the care will be provided on a part-time, intermittent 69179
basis for not more than a total of one hundred twenty days in any 69180
twelve-month period. In accordance with Chapter 119. of the 69181
Revised Code, the director of health shall adopt rules specifying 69182
what constitutes the need for skilled nursing care on a part-time, 69183
intermittent basis. The director shall adopt rules that are 69184
consistent with rules pertaining to home health care adopted by 69185
the medicaid director of job and family services for the medicaid 69186
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code. 69187
Skilled nursing care provided pursuant to this division may be 69188
provided by a home health agency certified under Title XVIII of 69189
the "Social Security Actfor participation in the medicare 69190
program," a hospice care program licensed under Chapter 3712. of 69191
the Revised Code, or a member of the staff of a residential care 69192
facility who is qualified to perform skilled nursing care.69193

       A residential care facility that provides skilled nursing 69194
care pursuant to this division shall do both of the following:69195

       (1) Evaluate each resident receiving the skilled nursing care 69196
at least once every seven days to determine whether the resident 69197
should be transferred to a nursing home;69198

       (2) Meet the skilled nursing care needs of each resident 69199
receiving the care.69200

       (D)(1) A residential care facility may admit or retain an 69201
individual who requires skilled nursing care for more than one 69202
hundred twenty days in any twelve-month period only if the 69203
facility has entered into a written agreement with each of the 69204
following:69205

        (a) The individual or individual's sponsor;69206

        (b) The individual's personal physician;69207

        (c) Unless the individual's personal physician oversees the 69208
skilled nursing care, the provider of the skilled nursing care;69209

        (d) If the individual is a hospice patient as defined in 69210
section 3712.01 of the Revised Code, a hospice care program 69211
licensed under Chapter 3712. of the Revised Code. 69212

       (2) The agreement required by division (D)(1) of this section 69213
shall include all of the following provisions:69214

        (a) That the individual will be provided skilled nursing care 69215
in the facility only if a determination has been made that the 69216
individual's needs can be met at the facility;69217

       (b) That the individual will be retained in the facility only 69218
if periodic redeterminations are made that the individual's needs 69219
are being met at the facility;69220

       (c) That the redeterminations will be made according to a 69221
schedule specified in the agreement;69222

        (d) If the individual is a hospice patient, that the 69223
individual has been given an opportunity to choose the hospice 69224
care program that best meets the individual's needs;69225

       (e) Unless the individual is a hospice patient, that the 69226
individual's personal physician has determined that the skilled 69227
nursing care the individual needs is routine.69228

       (E) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, a 69229
residential care facility in which residents receive skilled 69230
nursing care pursuant to this section is not a nursing home.69231

       Sec. 3721.02. (A) As used in this section, "residential 69232
facility" means a residential facility licensed under section 69233
5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 69234
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 69235
unrelated adults.69236

        (B) The director of health shall license homes and establish 69237
procedures to be followed in inspecting and licensing homes. The 69238
director may inspect a home at any time. Each home shall be 69239
inspected by the director at least once prior to the issuance of a 69240
license and at least once every fifteen months thereafter. The 69241
state fire marshal or a township, municipal, or other legally 69242
constituted fire department approved by the marshal shall also 69243
inspect a home prior to issuance of a license, at least once every 69244
fifteen months thereafter, and at any other time requested by the 69245
director. A home does not have to be inspected prior to issuance 69246
of a license by the director, state fire marshal, or a fire 69247
department if ownership of the home is assigned or transferred to 69248
a different person and the home was licensed under this chapter 69249
immediately prior to the assignment or transfer. The director may 69250
enter at any time, for the purposes of investigation, any 69251
institution, residence, facility, or other structure that has been 69252
reported to the director or that the director has reasonable cause 69253
to believe is operating as a nursing home, residential care 69254
facility, or home for the aging without a valid license required 69255
by section 3721.05 of the Revised Code or, in the case of a county 69256
home or district home, is operating despite the revocation of its 69257
residential care facility license. The director may delegate the 69258
director's authority and duties under this chapter to any 69259
division, bureau, agency, or official of the department of health.69260

       (C) A single facility may be licensed both as a nursing home 69261
pursuant to this chapter and as a residential facility pursuant to 69262
section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code if the director 69263
determines that the part or unit to be licensed as a nursing home 69264
can be maintained separate and discrete from the part or unit to 69265
be licensed as a residential facility.69266

       (D) In determining the number of residents in a home for the 69267
purpose of licensing, the director shall consider all the 69268
individuals for whom the home provides accommodations as one group 69269
unless one of the following is the case:69270

       (1) The home is a home for the aging, in which case all the 69271
individuals in the part or unit licensed as a nursing home shall 69272
be considered as one group, and all the individuals in the part or 69273
unit licensed as a rest home shall be considered as another group.69274

       (2) The home is both a nursing home and a residential 69275
facility. In that case, all the individuals in the part or unit 69276
licensed as a nursing home shall be considered as one group, and 69277
all the individuals in the part or unit licensed as an adult care 69278
facility shall be considered as another group.69279

       (3) The home maintains, in addition to a nursing home or 69280
residential care facility, a separate and discrete part or unit 69281
that provides accommodations to individuals who do not require or 69282
receive skilled nursing care and do not receive personal care 69283
services from the home, in which case the individuals in the 69284
separate and discrete part or unit shall not be considered in 69285
determining the number of residents in the home if the separate 69286
and discrete part or unit is in compliance with the Ohio basic 69287
building code established by the board of building standards under 69288
Chapters 3781. and 3791. of the Revised Code and the home permits 69289
the director, on request, to inspect the separate and discrete 69290
part or unit and speak with the individuals residing there, if 69291
they consent, to determine whether the separate and discrete part 69292
or unit meets the requirements of this division.69293

       (E)(1) The director of health shall charge the following 69294
application fee and annual renewal licensing and inspection fee 69295
for each fifty persons or part thereof of a home's licensed 69296
capacity:69297

       (a) For state fiscal year 2010, two hundred twenty dollars;69298

       (b) For state fiscal year 2011, two hundred seventy dollars;69299

       (c) For each state fiscal year thereafter, three hundred 69300
twenty dollars. 69301

       (2) All fees collected by the director for the issuance or 69302
renewal of licenses shall be deposited into the state treasury to 69303
the credit of the general operations fund created in section 69304
3701.83 of the Revised Code for use only in administering and 69305
enforcing this chapter and rules adopted under it.69306

       (F)(1) Except as otherwise provided in this section, the 69307
results of an inspection or investigation of a home that is 69308
conducted under this section, including any statement of 69309
deficiencies and all findings and deficiencies cited in the 69310
statement on the basis of the inspection or investigation, shall 69311
be used solely to determine the home's compliance with this 69312
chapter or another chapter of the Revised Code in any action or 69313
proceeding other than an action commenced under division (I) of 69314
section 3721.17 of the Revised Code. Those results of an 69315
inspection or investigation, that statement of deficiencies, and 69316
the findings and deficiencies cited in that statement shall not be 69317
used in any court or in any action or proceeding that is pending 69318
in any court and are not admissible in evidence in any action or 69319
proceeding unless that action or proceeding is an appeal of an 69320
action by the department of health under this chapter or is an 69321
action by any department or agency of the state to enforce this 69322
chapter or another chapter of the Revised Code.69323

       (2) Nothing in division (E)(1) of this section prohibits the 69324
results of an inspection or investigation conducted under this 69325
section from being used in a criminal investigation or 69326
prosecution.69327

       Sec. 3721.022.  (A) As used in this section:69328

       (1) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 69329
5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code.69330

       (2) "Deficiency" and "survey" have the same meanings as in 69331
section 5111.355165.60 of the Revised Code.69332

       (3) "Title XIX" and "Title XVIII" have the same meanings as 69333
in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code.69334

       (B) The department of health is hereby designated the state 69335
agency responsible for establishing and maintaining health 69336
standards and serving as the state survey agency for the purposes 69337
of TitlesTitle XVIII and Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 69338
49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended. The department 69339
shall carry out these functions in accordance with the 69340
regulations, guidelines, and procedures issued under TitlesTitle69341
XVIII and Title XIX by the United States secretary of health and 69342
human services and with sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.6269343
5165.89 of the Revised Code. The director of health shall enter 69344
into agreements with regard to these functions with the department 69345
of job and family servicesmedicaid and the United States 69346
department of health and human services. The director may also 69347
enter into agreements with the department of job and family 69348
servicesmedicaid under which the department of health is 69349
designated to perform functions under sections 5111.355165.60 to 69350
5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code.69351

       The director, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 69352
Code, shall adopt rules necessary to implement the survey and 69353
certification requirements for skilled nursing facilities and 69354
nursing facilities established by the United States secretary of 69355
health and human services under TitlesTitle XVIII and Title XIX 69356
of the "Social Security Act," and the survey requirements 69357
established under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of 69358
the Revised Code. The rules shall include an informal process by 69359
which a facility may obtain up to two reviews of any deficiencies 69360
that have been cited on a statement of deficiencies made by the 69361
department of health under 42 C.F.R. Part 488 and cause the 69362
facility to be in noncompliance as defined in 42 C.F.R. 488.301. 69363
The first review shall be conducted by an employee of the 69364
department who did not participate in and was not otherwise 69365
involved in any way with the survey. A facility that is not 69366
satisfied with the results of a first review may receive a second 69367
review on payment of a fee to the department. The amount of the 69368
fee shall be specified in rules adopted under this section. The 69369
fee shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of 69370
the general operations fund created in section 3701.83 of the 69371
Revised Code for use in the implementation of this section. The 69372
second review shall be conducted by either of the following as 69373
selected by the facility: a hearing officer employed by the 69374
department or a hearing officer included on a list the department 69375
shall provide the facility. A final determination that any 69376
deficiency citation is unjustified shall be reflected clearly in 69377
all records relating to the survey.69378

       The director need not adopt as rules any of the regulations, 69379
guidelines, or procedures issued under TitlesTitle XVIII and 69380
Title XIX of the "Social Security Act" by the United States 69381
secretary of health and human services.69382

       Sec. 3721.024.  As used in this section, "nursing facility" 69383
has the same meaning as in section 5111.205165.01 of the Revised 69384
Code.69385

       The department of health may establish a program of 69386
recognition of nursing facilities that provide the highest quality 69387
care to residents who are medicaid recipients of medical 69388
assistance under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code. The program 69389
may be funded with public funds appropriated by the general 69390
assembly for the purpose of the program or any funds appropriated 69391
for nursing home licensure.69392

       Sec. 3721.027. (A) As used in this section, "survey" has the 69393
same meaning as in section 5165.60 of the Revised Code.69394

       (B) The department of health shall investigate within ten 69395
working days after referral, in accordance with procedures and 69396
criteria to be established by the department of health and the 69397
department of aging, any unresolved complaint that the office of 69398
the state long-term care ombudspersonombudsman has investigated 69399
and found to be valid and refers to the department of health. This 69400
requirement does not supersede federal requirements for survey 69401
agency complaint investigations.69402

       Sec. 3721.042.  The director of health may not deny a nursing 69403
home license to a facility seeking a license under this chapter as 69404
a nursing home on the grounds that the facility does not satisfy a 69405
requirement established in rules adopted under section 3721.04 of 69406
the Revised Code regarding the toilet rooms and dining and 69407
recreational areas of nursing homes if all of the following 69408
requirements are met:69409

       (A) The facility seeks a license under this chapter because 69410
it is a county home or district home being sold under section 69411
5155.31 of the Revised Code to a person who may not operate the 69412
facility without a nursing home license under this chapter.69413

       (B) The requirement would not have applied to the facility 69414
had the facility been a nursing home first licensed under this 69415
chapter before October 20, 2001.69416

       (C) The facility was a nursing facility, as defined in 69417
section 5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code, on the date 69418
immediately preceding the date the facility is sold to the person 69419
seeking the license.69420

       Sec. 3721.071.  The buildings in which a home is housed shall 69421
be equipped with both an automatic fire extinguishing system and 69422
fire alarm system. Such systems shall conform to standards set 69423
forth in the regulations of the board of building standards and 69424
the state fire marshal.69425

       The time for compliance with the requirements imposed by this 69426
section shall be January 1, 1975, except that the date for 69427
compliance with the automatic fire extinguishing requirements is 69428
extended to January 1, 1976, provided the buildings of the home 69429
are otherwise in compliance with fire safety laws and regulations 69430
and:69431

       (A) The home within thirty days after August 4, 1975, files a 69432
written plan with the state fire marshal's office that:69433

       (1) Outlines the interim safety procedures which shall be 69434
carried out to reduce the possibility of a fire;69435

       (2) Provides evidence that the home has entered into an 69436
agreement for a fire safety inspection to be conducted not less 69437
than monthly by a qualified independent safety engineer consultant 69438
or a township, municipal, or other legally constituted fire 69439
department, or by a township or municipal fire prevention officer;69440

       (3) Provides verification that the home has entered into a 69441
valid contract for the installation of an automatic fire 69442
extinguishing system or fire alarm system, or both, as required to 69443
comply with this section;69444

       (4) Includes a statement regarding the expected date for the 69445
completion of the fire extinguishing system or fire alarm system, 69446
or both.69447

       (B) Inspections by a qualified independent safety engineer 69448
consultant or a township, municipal, or other legally constituted 69449
fire department, or by a township or municipal fire prevention 69450
officer are initiated no later than sixty days after August 4, 69451
1975, and are conducted no less than monthly thereafter, and 69452
reports of the consultant, fire department, or fire prevention 69453
officer identifying existing hazards and recommended corrective 69454
actions are submitted to the state fire marshal, the division of 69455
industrial compliance in the department of commerce, and the 69456
department of health.69457

       It is the express intent of the general assembly that the 69458
department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall terminate 69459
payments under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 69460
620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, tothe medicaid provider 69461
agreements of those homes whichthat do not comply with the 69462
requirements of this section for the submission of a written fire 69463
safety plan and the deadline for entering into contracts for the 69464
installation of systems.69465

       Sec. 3721.072.  (A) As used in this section:69466

       (1) "Advance care planning" means providing each nursing home 69467
resident, or the resident's sponsor if the resident is unable to 69468
participate, on admission to the nursing home and quarterly 69469
thereafter, with the opportunity to discuss the resident's care 69470
goals.69471

       (2) "Overhead paging" means sending audible announcements via 69472
an electronic sound amplification and distribution system 69473
throughout part or all of a nursing home to staff, residents, 69474
residents' families, or others.69475

       (3) "Quality improvement project" means a project listed by 69476
the department of aging under the nursing home quality initiative 69477
established under section 173.60 of the Revised Code.69478

       (B) Beginning July 1, 2013, each nursing home shall 69479
participate in at least one quality improvement project each year. 69480
Each nursing facility shall select the project in which it will 69481
participate from the list the department of aging makes available 69482
pursuant to section 173.60 of the Revised Code.69483

       (C) Beginning July 1, 2015, each nursing home shall 69484
participate in advance care planning with all residents or their 69485
sponsors.69486

       (D) Beginning July 1, 2015, each nursing home shall prohibit 69487
the use of overhead paging within the nursing home, except that 69488
the nursing home may permit the use of overhead paging for matters 69489
of urgent public safety or urgent clinical operations. The nursing 69490
home shall develop a written policy regarding its use of overhead 69491
paging and make the policy available to staff, residents, and 69492
residents' families.69493

       Sec. 3721.08.  (A) As used in this section, "real and present 69494
danger" means imminent danger of serious physical or 69495
life-threatening harm to one or more occupants of a home.69496

       (B) The director of health may petition the court of common 69497
pleas of the county in which the home is located for an order 69498
enjoining any person from operating a home without a license or 69499
enjoining a county home or district home that has had its license 69500
revoked from continuing to operate. The court shall have 69501
jurisdiction to grant such injunctive relief upon a showing that 69502
the respondent named in the petition is operating a home without a 69503
license or that the county home or district home named in the 69504
petition is operating despite the revocation of its license. The 69505
court shall have jurisdiction to grant such injunctive relief 69506
against the operation of a home without a valid license regardless 69507
of whether the home meets essential licensing requirements.69508

       (C) Unless the department of job and family servicesmedicaid69509
or contracting agency has taken action under section 5111.5169510
5165.77 of the Revised Code to appoint a temporary manager or seek 69511
injunctive relief, if, in the judgment of the director of health, 69512
real and present danger exists at any home, the director may 69513
petition the court of common pleas of the county in which the home 69514
is located for such injunctive relief as is necessary to close the 69515
home, transfer one or more occupants to other homes or other 69516
appropriate care settings, or otherwise eliminate the real and 69517
present danger. The court shall have the jurisdiction to grant 69518
such injunctive relief upon a showing that there is real and 69519
present danger.69520

       (D)(1) If the director determines that real and present 69521
danger exists at a home and elects not to immediately seek 69522
injunctive relief under division (C) of this section, the director 69523
may give written notice of proposed action to the home. The notice 69524
shall specify all of the following:69525

       (a) The nature of the conditions giving rise to the real and 69526
present danger;69527

       (b) The measures that the director determines the home must 69528
take to respond to the conditions;69529

       (c) The date on which the director intends to seek injunctive 69530
relief under division (C) of this section if the director 69531
determines that real and present danger exists at the home.69532

       (2) If the home notifies the director, within the time 69533
specified pursuant to division (D)(1)(c) of this section, that it 69534
believes the conditions giving rise to the real and present danger 69535
have been substantially corrected, the director shall conduct an 69536
inspection to determine whether real and present danger exists. If 69537
the director determines on the basis of the inspection that real 69538
and present danger exists, the director may petition under 69539
division (C) of this section for injunctive relief.69540

       (E)(1) If in the judgment of the director of health 69541
conditions exist at a home that will give rise to real and present 69542
danger if not corrected, the director shall give written notice of 69543
proposed action to the home. The notice shall specify all of the 69544
following:69545

       (a) The nature of the conditions giving rise to the 69546
director's judgment;69547

       (b) The measures that the director determines the home must 69548
take to respond to the conditions;69549

       (c) The date, which shall be no less than ten days after the 69550
notice is delivered, on which the director intends to seek 69551
injunctive relief under division (C) of this section if the 69552
conditions are not substantially corrected and the director 69553
determines that a real and present danger exists.69554

       (2) If the home notifies the director, within the period of 69555
time specified pursuant to division (E)(1)(c) of this section, 69556
that the conditions giving rise to the director's determination 69557
have been substantially corrected, the director shall conduct an 69558
inspection. If the director determines on the basis of the 69559
inspection that the conditions have not been corrected and a real 69560
and present danger exists, the director may petition under 69561
division (C) of this section for injunctive relief.69562

       (F)(1) A court that grants injunctive relief under division 69563
(C) of this section may also appoint a special master who, subject 69564
to division (F)(2) of this section, shall have such powers and 69565
authority over the home and length of appointment as the court 69566
considers necessary. Subject to division (F)(2) of this section, 69567
the salary of a special master and any costs incurred by a special 69568
master shall be the obligation of the home.69569

       (2) No special master shall enter into any employment 69570
contract on behalf of a home, or purchase with the home's funds 69571
any capital goods totaling more than ten thousand dollars, unless 69572
the special master has obtained approval for the contract or 69573
purchase from the home's operator or the court.69574

       (G) If the director takes action under division (C), (D), or 69575
(E) of this section, the director may also appoint employees of 69576
the department of health to conduct on-site monitoring of the 69577
home. Appointment of monitors is not subject to appeal under 69578
Chapter 119. or any other section of the Revised Code. No employee 69579
of a home for which monitors are appointed, no person employed by 69580
the home within the previous two years, and no person who 69581
currently has a consulting contract with the department or a home, 69582
shall be appointed under this division. Every monitor shall have 69583
the professional qualifications necessary to monitor correction of 69584
the conditions that give rise to or, in the director's judgment, 69585
will give rise to real and present danger. The number of monitors 69586
present at a home at any given time shall not exceed one for every 69587
fifty residents, or fraction thereof.69588

       (H) On finding that the real and present danger for which 69589
injunctive relief was granted under division (C) of this section 69590
has been eliminated and that the home's operator has demonstrated 69591
the capacity to prevent the real and present danger from 69592
recurring, the court shall terminate its jurisdiction over the 69593
home and return control and management of the home to the 69594
operator. If the real and present danger cannot be eliminated 69595
practicably within a reasonable time following appointment of a 69596
special master, the court may order the special master to close 69597
the home and transfer all residents to other homes or other 69598
appropriate care settings.69599

       (I) The director of health shall give notice of proposed 69600
action under divisions (D) and (E) of this section to both of the 69601
following:69602

       (1) The home's administrator;69603

       (2) If the home is operated by an organization described in 69604
subsection 501(c)(3) and tax exempt under subsection 501(a) of the 69605
"Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1, as 69606
amended, the board of trustees of the organization; or, if the 69607
home is not operated by such an organization, the owner of the 69608
home.69609

       Notices shall be delivered by certified mail or hand 69610
delivery. If notices are mailed, they shall be addressed to the 69611
persons specified in divisions (I)(1) and (2) of this section, as 69612
indicated in the department of health's records. If they are hand 69613
delivered, they shall be delivered to persons who would reasonably 69614
appear to the average prudent person to have authority to accept 69615
them.69616

       (J) If ownership of a home is assigned or transferred to a 69617
different person, the new owner is responsible and liable for 69618
compliance with any notice of proposed action or order issued 69619
under this section prior to the effective date of the assignment 69620
or transfer.69621

       Sec. 3721.10.  As used in sections 3721.10 to 3721.18 of the 69622
Revised Code:69623

       (A) "Home" means all of the following:69624

       (1) A home as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;69625

       (2) Any facility or part of a facility not defined as a home 69626
under section 3721.01 of the Revised Code that is certified as a 69627
skilled nursing facility under Title XVIII of the "Social Security 69628
Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C.A. 1395 and 1396, as amended, 69629
or as aor nursing facility, both as defined in section 5111.2069630
5165.01 of the Revised Code;69631

       (3) A county home or district home operated pursuant to 69632
Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code.69633

       (B) "Resident" means a resident or a patient of a home.69634

       (C) "Administrator" means all of the following:69635

       (1) With respect to a home as defined in section 3721.01 of 69636
the Revised Code, a nursing home administrator as defined in 69637
section 4751.01 of the Revised Code;69638

       (2) With respect to a facility or part of a facility not 69639
defined as a home in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code that is 69640
authorized to provide skilled nursing facility or nursing facility 69641
services, the administrator of the facility or part of a facility;69642

       (3) With respect to a county home or district home, the 69643
superintendent appointed under Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code.69644

       (D) "Sponsor" means an adult relative, friend, or guardian of 69645
a resident who has an interest or responsibility in the resident's 69646
welfare.69647

       (E) "Residents' rights advocate" means:69648

       (1) An employee or representative of any state or local 69649
government entity that has a responsibility regarding residents 69650
and that has registered with the department of health under 69651
division (B) of section 3701.07 of the Revised Code;69652

       (2) An employee or representative of any private nonprofit 69653
corporation or association that qualifies for tax-exempt status 69654
under section 501(a) of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 69655
Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1, as amended, and that has registered 69656
with the department of health under division (B) of section 69657
3701.07 of the Revised Code and whose purposes include educating 69658
and counseling residents, assisting residents in resolving 69659
problems and complaints concerning their care and treatment, and 69660
assisting them in securing adequate services to meet their needs;69661

       (3) A member of the general assembly.69662

       (F) "Physical restraint" means, but is not limited to, any 69663
article, device, or garment that interferes with the free movement 69664
of the resident and that the resident is unable to remove easily, 69665
a geriatric chair, or a locked room door.69666

       (G) "Chemical restraint" means any medication bearing the 69667
American hospital formulary service therapeutic class 4.004:00, 69668
28:16:08, 28:24:08, or 28:24:92 that alters the functioning of the 69669
central nervous system in a manner that limits physical and 69670
cognitive functioning to the degree that the resident cannot 69671
attain the resident's highest practicable physical, mental, and 69672
psychosocial well-being.69673

       (H) "Ancillary service" means, but is not limited to, 69674
podiatry, dental, hearing, vision, physical therapy, occupational 69675
therapy, speech therapy, and psychological and social services.69676

       (I) "Facility" means a facility, or part of a facility, 69677
certified as a nursing facility or skilled nursing facility under 69678
Title XVIII or Title XIX of the "Social Security Act, both as 69679
defined in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code." "Facility" does 69680
not include an intermediate care facility for the mentally 69681
retardedindividuals with intellectual disabilities, as defined in 69682
section 5111.205124.01 of the Revised Code.69683

       (J) "Medicare" means the program established by Title XVIII 69684
of the "Social Security Act."69685

       (K) "Medicaid" means the program established by Title XIX of 69686
the "Social Security Act" and Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code.69687

       Sec. 3721.12.  (A) The administrator of a home shall:69688

       (1) With the advice of residents, their sponsors, or both, 69689
establish and review at least annually, written policies regarding 69690
the applicability and implementation of residents' rights under 69691
sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code, the 69692
responsibilities of residents regarding the rights, and the home's 69693
grievance procedure established under division (A)(2) of this 69694
section. The administrator is responsible for the development of, 69695
and adherence to, procedures implementing the policies.69696

       (2) Establish a grievance committee for review of complaints 69697
by residents. The grievance committee shall be comprised of the 69698
home's staff and residents, sponsors, or outside representatives 69699
in a ratio of not more than one staff member to every two 69700
residents, sponsors, or outside representatives.69701

       (3) Furnish to each resident and sponsor prior to or at the 69702
time of admission, and to each member of the home's staff, at 69703
least one of each of the following:69704

       (a) A copy of the rights established under sections 3721.10 69705
to 3721.17 of the Revised Code;69706

       (b) A written explanation of the provisions of sections 69707
3721.16 to 3721.162 of the Revised Code;69708

       (c) A copy of the home's policies and procedures established 69709
under this section;69710

       (d) A copy of the home's rules;69711

       (e) A copy of the addresses and telephone numbers of the 69712
board of health of the health district of the county in which the 69713
home is located, the county department of job and family services 69714
of the county in which the home is located, the state departments 69715
of health and job and family servicesmedicaid, the state and 69716
local offices of the department of aging, and any Ohio nursing 69717
home ombudspersonombudsman program.69718

       (B) Written acknowledgment of the receipt of copies of the 69719
materials listed in this section shall be made part of the 69720
resident's record and the staff member's personnel record.69721

       (C) The administrator shall post all of the following 69722
prominently within the home:69723

       (1) A copy of the rights of residents as listed in division 69724
(A) of section 3721.13 of the Revised Code;69725

       (2) A copy of the home's rules and its policies and 69726
procedures regarding the rights and responsibilities of residents;69727

       (3) A notice that a copy of this chapter, rules of the 69728
department of health applicable to the home, and federal 69729
regulations adopted under the medicare and medicaid programs, and 69730
the materials required to be available in the home under section 69731
3721.021 of the Revised Code, are available for inspection in the 69732
home at reasonable hours;69733

       (4) A list of residents' rights advocates;69734

       (5) A notice that the following are available in a place 69735
readily accessible to residents:69736

       (a) If the home is licensed under section 3721.02 of the 69737
Revised Code, a copy of the most recent licensure inspection 69738
report prepared for the home under that section;69739

       (b) If the home is a facility, a copy of the most recent 69740
statement of deficiencies issued to the home under section 5111.4269741
5165.68 of the Revised Code.69742

       (D) The administrator of a home may, with the advice of 69743
residents, their sponsors, or both, establish written policies 69744
regarding the applicability and administration of any additional 69745
residents' rights beyond those set forth in sections 3721.10 to 69746
3721.17 of the Revised Code, and the responsibilities of residents 69747
regarding the rights. Policies established under this division 69748
shall be reviewed, and procedures developed and adhered to as in 69749
division (A)(1) of this section.69750

       Sec. 3721.121.  (A) As used in this section:69751

       (1) "Adult day-care program" means a program operated 69752
pursuant to rules adopted by the director of health under section 69753
3721.04 of the Revised Code and provided by and on the same site 69754
as homes licensed under this chapter.69755

       (2) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 69756
consideration for employment with a home or adult day-care program 69757
in a full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves 69758
providing direct care to an older adult. "Applicant" does not 69759
include a person who provides direct care as a volunteer without 69760
receiving or expecting to receive any form of remuneration other 69761
than reimbursement for actual expenses.69762

       (3) "Community-based long-term care services provider" means 69763
a provider as defined in section 173.39 of the Revised Code.69764

       (4) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 69765
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.69766

       (4)(5) "Home" means a home as defined in section 3721.10 of 69767
the Revised Code.69768

       (5)(6) "Older adult" means a person age sixty or older.69769

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (I) of this section, 69770
the chief administrator of a home or adult day-care program shall 69771
request that the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 69772
identification and investigation conduct a criminal records check 69773
of each applicant. If an applicant for whom a criminal records 69774
check request is required under this division does not present 69775
proof of having been a resident of this state for the five-year 69776
period immediately prior to the date the criminal records check is 69777
requested or provide evidence that within that five-year period 69778
the superintendent has requested information about the applicant 69779
from the federal bureau of investigation in a criminal records 69780
check, the chief administrator shall request that the 69781
superintendent obtain information from the federal bureau of 69782
investigation as part of the criminal records check of the 69783
applicant. Even if an applicant for whom a criminal records check 69784
request is required under this division presents proof of having 69785
been a resident of this state for the five-year period, the chief 69786
administrator may request that the superintendent include 69787
information from the federal bureau of investigation in the 69788
criminal records check.69789

       (2) A person required by division (B)(1) of this section to 69790
request a criminal records check shall do both of the following:69791

       (a) Provide to each applicant for whom a criminal records 69792
check request is required under that division a copy of the form 69793
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the 69794
Revised Code and a standard fingerprint impression sheet 69795
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section, and obtain 69796
the completed form and impression sheet from the applicant;69797

       (b) Forward the completed form and impression sheet to the 69798
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 69799
investigation.69800

       (3) An applicant provided the form and fingerprint impression 69801
sheet under division (B)(2)(a) of this section who fails to 69802
complete the form or provide fingerprint impressions shall not be 69803
employed in any position for which a criminal records check is 69804
required by this section.69805

       (C)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted by the director of 69806
health in accordance with division (F) of this section and subject 69807
to division (C)(2) of this section, no home or adult day-care 69808
program shall employ a person in a position that involves 69809
providing direct care to an older adult if the person has been 69810
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the following:69811

       (a) A violation of section 2903.01, 2903.02, 2903.03, 69812
2903.04, 2903.11, 2903.12, 2903.13, 2903.16, 2903.21, 2903.34, 69813
2905.01, 2905.02, 2905.11, 2905.12, 2907.02, 2907.03, 2907.05, 69814
2907.06, 2907.07, 2907.08, 2907.09, 2907.12, 2907.25, 2907.31, 69815
2907.32, 2907.321, 2907.322, 2907.323, 2911.01, 2911.02, 2911.11, 69816
2911.12, 2911.13, 2913.02, 2913.03, 2913.04, 2913.11, 2913.21, 69817
2913.31, 2913.40, 2913.43, 2913.47, 2913.51, 2919.25, 2921.36, 69818
2923.12, 2923.13, 2923.161, 2925.02, 2925.03, 2925.11, 2925.13, 69819
2925.22, 2925.23, or 3716.11 of the Revised Code.69820

       (b) A violation of an existing or former law of this state, 69821
any other state, or the United States that is substantially 69822
equivalent to any of the offenses listed in division (C)(1)(a) of 69823
this section.69824

       (2)(a) A home or an adult day-care program may employ 69825
conditionally an applicant for whom a criminal records check 69826
request is required under division (B) of this section prior to 69827
obtaining the results of a criminal records check regarding the 69828
individual, provided that the home or program shall request a 69829
criminal records check regarding the individual in accordance with 69830
division (B)(1) of this section not later than five business days 69831
after the individual begins conditional employment. In the 69832
circumstances described in division (I)(2) of this section, a home 69833
or adult day-care program may employ conditionally an applicant 69834
who has been referred to the home or adult day-care program by an 69835
employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or 69836
temporary staff for positions involving the direct care of older 69837
adults and for whom, pursuant to that division, a criminal records 69838
check is not required under division (B) of this section.69839

       (b) A home or adult day-care program that employs an 69840
individual conditionally under authority of division (C)(2)(a) of 69841
this section shall terminate the individual's employment if the 69842
results of the criminal records check requested under division (B) 69843
of this section or described in division (I)(2) of this section, 69844
other than the results of any request for information from the 69845
federal bureau of investigation, are not obtained within the 69846
period ending thirty days after the date the request is made. 69847
Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check are 69848
obtained, if the results indicate that the individual has been 69849
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the offenses listed or 69850
described in division (C)(1) of this section, the home or program 69851
shall terminate the individual's employment unless the home or 69852
program chooses to employ the individual pursuant to division (F) 69853
of this section. Termination of employment under this division 69854
shall be considered just cause for discharge for purposes of 69855
division (D)(2) of section 4141.29 of the Revised Code if the 69856
individual makes any attempt to deceive the home or program about 69857
the individual's criminal record.69858

       (D)(1) Each home or adult day-care program shall pay to the 69859
bureau of criminal identification and investigation the fee 69860
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the 69861
Revised Code for each criminal records check conducted pursuant to 69862
a request made under division (B) of this section.69863

       (2) A home or adult day-care program may charge an applicant 69864
a fee not exceeding the amount the home or program pays under 69865
division (D)(1) of this section. A home or program may collect a 69866
fee only if both of the following apply:69867

       (a) The home or program notifies the person at the time of 69868
initial application for employment of the amount of the fee and 69869
that, unless the fee is paid, the person will not be considered 69870
for employment;69871

       (b) The medical assistancemedicaid program established under 69872
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code does not reimburse the home or 69873
program the fee it pays under division (D)(1) of this section.69874

       (E) The report of any criminal records check conducted 69875
pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public 69876
record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and 69877
shall not be made available to any person other than the 69878
following:69879

       (1) The individual who is the subject of the criminal records 69880
check or the individual's representative;69881

       (2) The chief administrator of the home or program requesting 69882
the criminal records check or the administrator's representative;69883

       (3) The administrator of any other facility, agency, or 69884
program that provides direct care to older adults that is owned or 69885
operated by the same entity that owns or operates the home or 69886
program;69887

       (4) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 69888
involved in a case dealing with a denial of employment of the 69889
applicant or dealing with employment or unemployment benefits of 69890
the applicant;69891

       (5) Any person to whom the report is provided pursuant to, 69892
and in accordance with, division (I)(1) or (2) of this section;69893

       (6) The board of nursing for purposes of accepting and 69894
processing an application for a medication aide certificate issued 69895
under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code;69896

       (7) The director of aging or the director's designee if the 69897
criminal records check is requested by the chief administrator of 69898
a home that is also a community-based long-term care services 69899
provider.69900

       (F) In accordance with section 3721.11 of the Revised Code, 69901
the director of health shall adopt rules to implement this 69902
section. The rules shall specify circumstances under which a home 69903
or adult day-care program may employ a person who has been 69904
convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense listed or described 69905
in division (C)(1) of this section but meets personal character 69906
standards set by the director.69907

       (G) The chief administrator of a home or adult day-care 69908
program shall inform each individual, at the time of initial 69909
application for a position that involves providing direct care to 69910
an older adult, that the individual is required to provide a set 69911
of fingerprint impressions and that a criminal records check is 69912
required to be conducted if the individual comes under final 69913
consideration for employment.69914

       (H) In a tort or other civil action for damages that is 69915
brought as the result of an injury, death, or loss to person or 69916
property caused by an individual who a home or adult day-care 69917
program employs in a position that involves providing direct care 69918
to older adults, all of the following shall apply:69919

       (1) If the home or program employed the individual in good 69920
faith and reasonable reliance on the report of a criminal records 69921
check requested under this section, the home or program shall not 69922
be found negligent solely because of its reliance on the report, 69923
even if the information in the report is determined later to have 69924
been incomplete or inaccurate;69925

       (2) If the home or program employed the individual in good 69926
faith on a conditional basis pursuant to division (C)(2) of this 69927
section, the home or program shall not be found negligent solely 69928
because it employed the individual prior to receiving the report 69929
of a criminal records check requested under this section;69930

       (3) If the home or program in good faith employed the 69931
individual according to the personal character standards 69932
established in rules adopted under division (F) of this section, 69933
the home or program shall not be found negligent solely because 69934
the individual prior to being employed had been convicted of or 69935
pleaded guilty to an offense listed or described in division 69936
(C)(1) of this section.69937

       (I)(1) The chief administrator of a home or adult day-care 69938
program is not required to request that the superintendent of the 69939
bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a 69940
criminal records check of an applicant if the applicant has been 69941
referred to the home or program by an employment service that 69942
supplies full-time, part-time, or temporary staff for positions 69943
involving the direct care of older adults and both of the 69944
following apply:69945

       (a) The chief administrator receives from the employment 69946
service or the applicant a report of the results of a criminal 69947
records check regarding the applicant that has been conducted by 69948
the superintendent within the one-year period immediately 69949
preceding the applicant's referral;69950

       (b) The report of the criminal records check demonstrates 69951
that the person has not been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an 69952
offense listed or described in division (C)(1) of this section, or 69953
the report demonstrates that the person has been convicted of or 69954
pleaded guilty to one or more of those offenses, but the home or 69955
adult day-care program chooses to employ the individual pursuant 69956
to division (F) of this section.69957

       (2) The chief administrator of a home or adult day-care 69958
program is not required to request that the superintendent of the 69959
bureau of criminal identification and investigation conduct a 69960
criminal records check of an applicant and may employ the 69961
applicant conditionally as described in this division, if the 69962
applicant has been referred to the home or program by an 69963
employment service that supplies full-time, part-time, or 69964
temporary staff for positions involving the direct care of older 69965
adults and if the chief administrator receives from the employment 69966
service or the applicant a letter from the employment service that 69967
is on the letterhead of the employment service, dated, and signed 69968
by a supervisor or another designated official of the employment 69969
service and that states that the employment service has requested 69970
the superintendent to conduct a criminal records check regarding 69971
the applicant, that the requested criminal records check will 69972
include a determination of whether the applicant has been 69973
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense listed or described 69974
in division (C)(1) of this section, that, as of the date set forth 69975
on the letter, the employment service had not received the results 69976
of the criminal records check, and that, when the employment 69977
service receives the results of the criminal records check, it 69978
promptly will send a copy of the results to the home or adult 69979
day-care program. If a home or adult day-care program employs an 69980
applicant conditionally in accordance with this division, the 69981
employment service, upon its receipt of the results of the 69982
criminal records check, promptly shall send a copy of the results 69983
to the home or adult day-care program, and division (C)(2)(b) of 69984
this section applies regarding the conditional employment.69985

       Sec. 3721.13.  (A) The rights of residents of a home shall 69986
include, but are not limited to, the following:69987

       (1) The right to a safe and clean living environment pursuant 69988
to the medicare and medicaid programs and applicable state laws 69989
and rules adopted by the director of health;69990

       (2) The right to be free from physical, verbal, mental, and 69991
emotional abuse and to be treated at all times with courtesy, 69992
respect, and full recognition of dignity and individuality;69993

       (3) Upon admission and thereafter, the right to adequate and 69994
appropriate medical treatment and nursing care and to other 69995
ancillary services that comprise necessary and appropriate care 69996
consistent with the program for which the resident contracted. 69997
This care shall be provided without regard to considerations such 69998
as race, color, religion, national origin, age, or source of 69999
payment for care.70000

       (4) The right to have all reasonable requests and inquiries 70001
responded to promptly;70002

       (5) The right to have clothes and bed sheets changed as the 70003
need arises, to ensure the resident's comfort or sanitation;70004

       (6) The right to obtain from the home, upon request, the name 70005
and any specialty of any physician or other person responsible for 70006
the resident's care or for the coordination of care;70007

       (7) The right, upon request, to be assigned, within the 70008
capacity of the home to make the assignment, to the staff 70009
physician of the resident's choice, and the right, in accordance 70010
with the rules and written policies and procedures of the home, to 70011
select as the attending physician a physician who is not on the 70012
staff of the home. If the cost of a physician's services is to be 70013
met under a federally supported program, the physician shall meet 70014
the federal laws and regulations governing such services.70015

       (8) The right to participate in decisions that affect the 70016
resident's life, including the right to communicate with the 70017
physician and employees of the home in planning the resident's 70018
treatment or care and to obtain from the attending physician 70019
complete and current information concerning medical condition, 70020
prognosis, and treatment plan, in terms the resident can 70021
reasonably be expected to understand; the right of access to all 70022
information in the resident's medical record; and the right to 70023
give or withhold informed consent for treatment after the 70024
consequences of that choice have been carefully explained. When 70025
the attending physician finds that it is not medically advisable 70026
to give the information to the resident, the information shall be 70027
made available to the resident's sponsor on the resident's behalf, 70028
if the sponsor has a legal interest or is authorized by the 70029
resident to receive the information. The home is not liable for a 70030
violation of this division if the violation is found to be the 70031
result of an act or omission on the part of a physician selected 70032
by the resident who is not otherwise affiliated with the home.70033

       (9) The right to withhold payment for physician visitation if 70034
the physician did not visit the resident;70035

       (10) The right to confidential treatment of personal and 70036
medical records, and the right to approve or refuse the release of 70037
these records to any individual outside the home, except in case 70038
of transfer to another home, hospital, or health care system, as 70039
required by law or rule, or as required by a third-party payment 70040
contract;70041

       (11) The right to privacy during medical examination or 70042
treatment and in the care of personal or bodily needs;70043

       (12) The right to refuse, without jeopardizing access to 70044
appropriate medical care, to serve as a medical research subject;70045

       (13) The right to be free from physical or chemical 70046
restraints or prolonged isolation except to the minimum extent 70047
necessary to protect the resident from injury to self, others, or 70048
to property and except as authorized in writing by the attending 70049
physician for a specified and limited period of time and 70050
documented in the resident's medical record. Prior to authorizing 70051
the use of a physical or chemical restraint on any resident, the 70052
attending physician shall make a personal examination of the 70053
resident and an individualized determination of the need to use 70054
the restraint on that resident.70055

       Physical or chemical restraints or isolation may be used in 70056
an emergency situation without authorization of the attending 70057
physician only to protect the resident from injury to self or 70058
others. Use of the physical or chemical restraints or isolation 70059
shall not be continued for more than twelve hours after the onset 70060
of the emergency without personal examination and authorization by 70061
the attending physician. The attending physician or a staff 70062
physician may authorize continued use of physical or chemical 70063
restraints for a period not to exceed thirty days, and at the end 70064
of this period and any subsequent period may extend the 70065
authorization for an additional period of not more than thirty 70066
days. The use of physical or chemical restraints shall not be 70067
continued without a personal examination of the resident and the 70068
written authorization of the attending physician stating the 70069
reasons for continuing the restraint.70070

       If physical or chemical restraints are used under this 70071
division, the home shall ensure that the restrained resident 70072
receives a proper diet. In no event shall physical or chemical 70073
restraints or isolation be used for punishment, incentive, or 70074
convenience.70075

       (14) The right to the pharmacist of the resident's choice and 70076
the right to receive pharmaceutical supplies and services at 70077
reasonable prices not exceeding applicable and normally accepted 70078
prices for comparably packaged pharmaceutical supplies and 70079
services within the community;70080

       (15) The right to exercise all civil rights, unless the 70081
resident has been adjudicated incompetent pursuant to Chapter 70082
2111. of the Revised Code and has not been restored to legal 70083
capacity, as well as the right to the cooperation of the home's 70084
administrator in making arrangements for the exercise of the right 70085
to vote;70086

       (16) The right of access to opportunities that enable the 70087
resident, at the resident's own expense or at the expense of a 70088
third-party payer, to achieve the resident's fullest potential, 70089
including educational, vocational, social, recreational, and 70090
habilitation programs;70091

       (17) The right to consume a reasonable amount of alcoholic 70092
beverages at the resident's own expense, unless not medically 70093
advisable as documented in the resident's medical record by the 70094
attending physician or unless contradictory to written admission 70095
policies;70096

       (18) The right to use tobacco at the resident's own expense 70097
under the home's safety rules and under applicable laws and rules 70098
of the state, unless not medically advisable as documented in the 70099
resident's medical record by the attending physician or unless 70100
contradictory to written admission policies;70101

       (19) The right to retire and rise in accordance with the 70102
resident's reasonable requests, if the resident does not disturb 70103
others or the posted meal schedules and upon the home's request 70104
remains in a supervised area, unless not medically advisable as 70105
documented by the attending physician;70106

       (20) The right to observe religious obligations and 70107
participate in religious activities; the right to maintain 70108
individual and cultural identity; and the right to meet with and 70109
participate in activities of social and community groups at the 70110
resident's or the group's initiative;70111

       (21) The right upon reasonable request to private and 70112
unrestricted communications with the resident's family, social 70113
worker, and any other person, unless not medically advisable as 70114
documented in the resident's medical record by the attending 70115
physician, except that communications with public officials or 70116
with the resident's attorney or physician shall not be restricted. 70117
Private and unrestricted communications shall include, but are not 70118
limited to, the right to:70119

       (a) Receive, send, and mail sealed, unopened correspondence;70120

       (b) Reasonable access to a telephone for private 70121
communications;70122

       (c) Private visits at any reasonable hour.70123

       (22) The right to assured privacy for visits by the spouse, 70124
or if both are residents of the same home, the right to share a 70125
room within the capacity of the home, unless not medically 70126
advisable as documented in the resident's medical record by the 70127
attending physician;70128

       (23) The right upon reasonable request to have room doors 70129
closed and to have them not opened without knocking, except in the 70130
case of an emergency or unless not medically advisable as 70131
documented in the resident's medical record by the attending 70132
physician;70133

       (24) The right to retain and use personal clothing and a 70134
reasonable amount of possessions, in a reasonably secure manner, 70135
unless to do so would infringe on the rights of other residents or 70136
would not be medically advisable as documented in the resident's 70137
medical record by the attending physician;70138

       (25) The right to be fully informed, prior to or at the time 70139
of admission and during the resident's stay, in writing, of the 70140
basic rate charged by the home, of services available in the home, 70141
and of any additional charges related to such services, including 70142
charges for services not covered under the medicare or medicaid 70143
program. The basic rate shall not be changed unless thirty days' 70144
notice is given to the resident or, if the resident is unable to 70145
understand this information, to the resident's sponsor.70146

       (26) The right of the resident and person paying for the care 70147
to examine and receive a bill at least monthly for the resident's 70148
care from the home that itemizes charges not included in the basic 70149
rates;70150

       (27)(a) The right to be free from financial exploitation;70151

       (b) The right to manage the resident's own personal financial 70152
affairs, or, if the resident has delegated this responsibility in 70153
writing to the home, to receive upon written request at least a 70154
quarterly accounting statement of financial transactions made on 70155
the resident's behalf. The statement shall include:70156

       (i) A complete record of all funds, personal property, or 70157
possessions of a resident from any source whatsoever, that have 70158
been deposited for safekeeping with the home for use by the 70159
resident or the resident's sponsor;70160

       (ii) A listing of all deposits and withdrawals transacted, 70161
which shall be substantiated by receipts which shall be available 70162
for inspection and copying by the resident or sponsor.70163

       (28) The right of the resident to be allowed unrestricted 70164
access to the resident's property on deposit at reasonable hours, 70165
unless requests for access to property on deposit are so 70166
persistent, continuous, and unreasonable that they constitute a 70167
nuisance;70168

       (29) The right to receive reasonable notice before the 70169
resident's room or roommate is changed, including an explanation 70170
of the reason for either change.70171

       (30) The right not to be transferred or discharged from the 70172
home unless the transfer is necessary because of one of the 70173
following:70174

       (a) The welfare and needs of the resident cannot be met in 70175
the home.70176

       (b) The resident's health has improved sufficiently so that 70177
the resident no longer needs the services provided by the home.70178

       (c) The safety of individuals in the home is endangered.70179

       (d) The health of individuals in the home would otherwise be 70180
endangered.70181

       (e) The resident has failed, after reasonable and appropriate 70182
notice, to pay or to have the medicare or medicaid program pay on 70183
the resident's behalf, for the care provided by the home. A 70184
resident shall not be considered to have failed to have the 70185
resident's care paid for if the resident has applied for medicaid, 70186
unless both of the following are the case:70187

       (i) The resident's application, or a substantially similar 70188
previous application, has been denied by the county department of 70189
job and family services.70190

       (ii) If the resident appealed the denial pursuant to division 70191
(C) of section 5101.35 of the Revised Code, the director of job 70192
and family services has upheld the denial was upheld.70193

       (f) The home's license has been revoked, the home is being 70194
closed pursuant to section 3721.08, sections 5111.355165.60 to 70195
5111.625165.89, or section 5155.31 of the Revised Code, or the 70196
home otherwise ceases to operate.70197

       (g) The resident is a recipient of medicaid, and the home's 70198
participation in the medicaid program is involuntarily terminated 70199
or denied.70200

       (h) The resident is a beneficiary under the medicare program, 70201
and the home's participation in the medicare program is 70202
involuntarily terminated or denied.70203

       (31) The right to voice grievances and recommend changes in 70204
policies and services to the home's staff, to employees of the 70205
department of health, or to other persons not associated with the 70206
operation of the home, of the resident's choice, free from 70207
restraint, interference, coercion, discrimination, or reprisal. 70208
This right includes access to a residents' rights advocate, and 70209
the right to be a member of, to be active in, and to associate 70210
with persons who are active in organizations of relatives and 70211
friends of nursing home residents and other organizations engaged 70212
in assisting residents.70213

       (32) The right to have any significant change in the 70214
resident's health status reported to the resident's sponsor. As 70215
soon as such a change is known to the home's staff, the home shall 70216
make a reasonable effort to notify the sponsor within twelve 70217
hours.70218

       (B) A sponsor may act on a resident's behalf to assure that 70219
the home does not deny the residents' rights under sections 70220
3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code.70221

       (C) Any attempted waiver of the rights listed in division (A) 70222
of this section is void.70223

       Sec. 3721.14.  To assist in the implementation of the rights 70224
granted in division (A) of section 3721.13 of the Revised Code, 70225
each home shall provide:70226

       (A) Appropriate staff training to implement each resident's 70227
rights under division (A) of section 3721.13 of the Revised Code, 70228
including, but not limited to, explaining:70229

       (1) The resident's rights and the staff's responsibility in 70230
the implementation of the rights;70231

       (2) The staff's obligation to provide all residents who have 70232
similar needs with comparable service.70233

       (B) Arrangements for a resident's needed ancillary services;70234

       (C) Protected areas outside the home for residents to enjoy 70235
outdoor activity, within the capacity of the facility, consistent 70236
with applicable laws and rules;70237

       (D) Adequate indoor space, which need not be dedicated to 70238
that purpose, for families of residents to meet privately with 70239
families of other residents;70240

       (E) Access to the following persons to enter the home during 70241
reasonable hours, except where such access would interfere with 70242
resident care or the privacy of residents:70243

       (1) Employees of the department of health, department of 70244
mental healthmental health and addiction services, department of 70245
developmental disabilities, department of aging, department of job 70246
and family services, and county departments of job and family 70247
services;70248

       (2) Prospective residents and their sponsors;70249

       (3) A resident's sponsors;70250

       (4) Residents' rights advocates;70251

       (5) A resident's attorney;70252

       (6) A minister, priest, rabbi, or other person ministering to 70253
a resident's religious needs.70254

       (F) In writing, a description of the home's grievance 70255
procedures.70256

       Sec. 3721.15.  (A) Authorization from a resident or a sponsor 70257
with a power of attorney for a home to manage the resident's 70258
financial affairs shall be in writing and shall be attested to by 70259
a witness who is not connected in any manner whatsoever with the 70260
home or its administrator. The home shall maintain accounts 70261
pursuant to division (A)(27) of section 3721.13 of the Revised 70262
Code. Upon the resident's transfer, discharge, or death, the 70263
account shall be closed and a final accounting made. All remaining 70264
funds shall be returned to the resident or resident's sponsor, 70265
except in the case of death, when all remaining funds shall be 70266
transferred or used in accordance with section 5111.1135162.22 of 70267
the Revised Code.70268

       (B) A home that manages a resident's financial affairs shall 70269
deposit the resident's funds in excess of one hundredthousand70270
dollars, and may deposit the resident's funds that are one hundred70271
thousand dollars or less, in an interest-bearing account separate 70272
from any of the home's operating accounts. Interest earned on the 70273
resident's funds shall be credited to the resident's account. A 70274
resident's funds that are one hundredthousand dollars or less and 70275
have not been deposited in an interest-bearing account may be 70276
deposited in a noninterest-bearing account or petty cash fund.70277

       (C) Each resident whose financial affairs are managed by a 70278
home shall be promptly notified by the home when the total of the 70279
amount of funds in the resident's accounts and the petty cash fund 70280
plus other nonexempt resources reaches two hundred dollars less 70281
than the maximum amount permitted a recipient of medicaid. The 70282
notice shall include an explanation of the potential effect on the 70283
resident's eligibility for medicaid if the amount in the 70284
resident's accounts and the petty cash fund, plus the value of 70285
other nonexempt resources, exceeds the maximum assets a medicaid 70286
recipient may retain.70287

       (D) Each home that manages the financial affairs of residents 70288
shall purchase a surety bond or otherwise provide assurance 70289
satisfactory to the director of health, or, in the case of a home 70290
that participates in the medicaid program, to the medicaid70291
director of job and family services, to assure the security of all 70292
residents' funds managed by the home.70293

       Sec. 3721.16. For each resident of a home, notice of a 70294
proposed transfer or discharge shall be in accordance with this 70295
section.70296

       (A)(1) The administrator of a home shall notify a resident in 70297
writing, and the resident's sponsor in writing by certified mail, 70298
return receipt requested, in advance of any proposed transfer or 70299
discharge from the home. The administrator shall send a copy of 70300
the notice to the state department of health. The notice shall be 70301
provided at least thirty days in advance of the proposed transfer 70302
or discharge, unless any of the following applies:70303

       (a) The resident's health has improved sufficiently to allow 70304
a more immediate discharge or transfer to a less skilled level of 70305
care;70306

       (b) The resident has resided in the home less than thirty 70307
days;70308

       (c) An emergency arises in which the safety of individuals in 70309
the home is endangered;70310

       (d) An emergency arises in which the health of individuals in 70311
the home would otherwise be endangered;70312

       (e) An emergency arises in which the resident's urgent 70313
medical needs necessitate a more immediate transfer or discharge.70314

       In any of the circumstances described in divisions (A)(1)(a) 70315
to (e) of this section, the notice shall be provided as many days 70316
in advance of the proposed transfer or discharge as is 70317
practicable.70318

       (2) The notice required under division (A)(1) of this section 70319
shall include all of the following:70320

       (a) The reasons for the proposed transfer or discharge;70321

       (b) The proposed date the resident is to be transferred or 70322
discharged;70323

       (c) Subject to division (A)(3) of this section, a proposed 70324
location to which the resident may relocate and a notice that the 70325
resident and resident's sponsor may choose another location to 70326
which the resident will relocate;70327

       (d) Notice of the right of the resident and the resident's 70328
sponsor to an impartial hearing at the home on the proposed 70329
transfer or discharge, and of the manner in which and the time 70330
within which the resident or sponsor may request a hearing 70331
pursuant to section 3721.161 of the Revised Code;70332

       (e) A statement that the resident will not be transferred or 70333
discharged before the date specified in the notice unless the home 70334
and the resident or, if the resident is not competent to make a 70335
decision, the home and the resident's sponsor, agree to an earlier 70336
date;70337

       (f) The address of the legal services office of the 70338
department of health;70339

       (g) The name, address, and telephone number of a 70340
representative of the state long-term care ombudspersonombudsman70341
program and, if the resident or patient has a developmental 70342
disability or mental illness, the name, address, and telephone 70343
number of the Ohio protection and advocacy system.70344

       (3) The proposed location to which a resident may relocate as 70345
specified pursuant to division (A)(2)(c) of this section in the 70346
proposed transfer or discharge notice shall be capable of meeting 70347
the resident's health-care and safety needs. The proposed location 70348
for relocation need not have accepted the resident at the time the 70349
notice is issued to the resident and resident's sponsor.70350

       (B) No home shall transfer or discharge a resident before the 70351
date specified in the notice required by division (A) of this 70352
section unless the home and the resident or, if the resident is 70353
not competent to make a decision, the home and the resident's 70354
sponsor, agree to an earlier date.70355

       (C) Transfer or discharge actions shall be documented in the 70356
resident's medical record by the home if there is a medical basis 70357
for the action.70358

       (D) A resident or resident's sponsor may challenge a transfer 70359
or discharge by requesting an impartial hearing pursuant to 70360
section 3721.161 of the Revised Code, unless the transfer or 70361
discharge is required because of one of the following reasons:70362

       (1) The home's license has been revoked under this chapter;70363

       (2) The home is being closed pursuant to section 3721.08, 70364
sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89, or section 5155.31 of 70365
the Revised Code;70366

       (3) The resident is a recipient of medicaid and the home's 70367
participation in the medicaid program has been involuntarily 70368
terminated or denied by the federal government;70369

       (4) The resident is a beneficiary under the medicare program 70370
and the home's certification under the medicare program has been 70371
involuntarily terminated or denied by the federal government.70372

       (E) If a resident is transferred or discharged pursuant to 70373
this section, the home from which the resident is being 70374
transferred or discharged shall provide the resident with adequate 70375
preparation prior to the transfer or discharge to ensure a safe 70376
and orderly transfer or discharge from the home, and the home or 70377
alternative setting to which the resident is to be transferred or 70378
discharged shall have accepted the resident for transfer or 70379
discharge.70380

       (F) At the time of a transfer or discharge of a resident who 70381
is a recipient of medicaid from a home to a hospital or for 70382
therapeutic leave, the home shall provide notice in writing to the 70383
resident and in writing by certified mail, return receipt 70384
requested, to the resident's sponsor, specifying the number of 70385
days, if any, during which the resident will be permitted under 70386
the medicaid program to return and resume residence in the home 70387
and specifying the medicaid program's coverage of the days during 70388
which the resident is absent from the home. An individual who is 70389
absent from a home for more than the number of days specified in 70390
the notice and continues to require the services provided by the 70391
facility shall be given priority for the first available bed in a 70392
semi-private room.70393

       Sec. 3721.17.  (A) Any resident who believes that the 70394
resident's rights under sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised 70395
Code have been violated may file a grievance under procedures 70396
adopted pursuant to division (A)(2) of section 3721.12 of the 70397
Revised Code.70398

       When the grievance committee determines a violation of 70399
sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code has occurred, it 70400
shall notify the administrator of the home. If the violation 70401
cannot be corrected within ten days, or if ten days have elapsed 70402
without correction of the violation, the grievance committee shall 70403
refer the matter to the department of health.70404

       (B) Any person who believes that a resident's rights under 70405
sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code have been violated 70406
may report or cause reports to be made of the information directly 70407
to the department of health. No person who files a report is 70408
liable for civil damages resulting from the report.70409

       (C)(1) Within thirty days of receiving a complaint under this 70410
section, the department of health shall investigate any complaint 70411
referred to it by a home's grievance committee and any complaint 70412
from any source that alleges that the home provided substantially 70413
less than adequate care or treatment, or substantially unsafe 70414
conditions, or, within seven days of receiving a complaint, refer 70415
it to the attorney general, if the attorney general agrees to 70416
investigate within thirty days.70417

       (2) Within thirty days of receiving a complaint under this 70418
section, the department of health may investigate any alleged 70419
violation of sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code, or 70420
of rules, policies, or procedures adopted pursuant to those 70421
sections, not covered by division (C)(1) of this section, or it 70422
may, within seven days of receiving a complaint, refer the 70423
complaint to the grievance committee at the home where the alleged 70424
violation occurred, or to the attorney general if the attorney 70425
general agrees to investigate within thirty days.70426

       (D) If, after an investigation, the department of health 70427
finds probable cause to believe that a violation of sections 70428
3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code, or of rules, policies, or 70429
procedures adopted pursuant to those sections, has occurred at a 70430
home that is certified under the medicare or medicaid program, it 70431
shall cite one or more findings or deficiencies under sections 70432
5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code. If the 70433
home is not so certified, the department shall hold an 70434
adjudicative hearing within thirty days under Chapter 119. of the 70435
Revised Code.70436

       (E) Upon a finding at an adjudicative hearing under division 70437
(D) of this section that a violation of sections 3721.10 to 70438
3721.17 of the Revised Code, or of rules, policies, or procedures 70439
adopted pursuant thereto, has occurred, the department of health 70440
shall make an order for compliance, set a reasonable time for 70441
compliance, and assess a fine pursuant to division (F) of this 70442
section. The fine shall be paid to the general revenue fund only 70443
if compliance with the order is not shown to have been made within 70444
the reasonable time set in the order. The department of health may 70445
issue an order prohibiting the continuation of any violation of 70446
sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code.70447

       Findings at the hearings conducted under this section may be 70448
appealed pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, except that 70449
an appeal may be made to the court of common pleas of the county 70450
in which the home is located.70451

       The department of health shall initiate proceedings in court 70452
to collect any fine assessed under this section that is unpaid 70453
thirty days after the violator's final appeal is exhausted.70454

       (F) Any home found, pursuant to an adjudication hearing under 70455
division (D) of this section, to have violated sections 3721.10 to 70456
3721.17 of the Revised Code, or rules, policies, or procedures 70457
adopted pursuant to those sections may be fined not less than one 70458
hundred nor more than five hundred dollars for a first offense. 70459
For each subsequent offense, the home may be fined not less than 70460
two hundred nor more than one thousand dollars.70461

       A violation of sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised 70462
Code is a separate offense for each day of the violation and for 70463
each resident who claims the violation.70464

       (G) No home or employee of a home shall retaliate against any 70465
person who:70466

       (1) Exercises any right set forth in sections 3721.10 to 70467
3721.17 of the Revised Code, including, but not limited to, filing 70468
a complaint with the home's grievance committee or reporting an 70469
alleged violation to the department of health;70470

       (2) Appears as a witness in any hearing conducted under this 70471
section or section 3721.162 of the Revised Code;70472

       (3) Files a civil action alleging a violation of sections 70473
3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code, or notifies a county 70474
prosecuting attorney or the attorney general of a possible 70475
violation of sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code.70476

       If, under the procedures outlined in this section, a home or 70477
its employee is found to have retaliated, the violator may be 70478
fined up to one thousand dollars.70479

       (H) When legal action is indicated, any evidence of criminal 70480
activity found in an investigation under division (C) of this 70481
section shall be given to the prosecuting attorney in the county 70482
in which the home is located for investigation.70483

       (I)(1)(a) Any resident whose rights under sections 3721.10 to 70484
3721.17 of the Revised Code are violated has a cause of action 70485
against any person or home committing the violation.70486

       (b) An action under division (I)(1)(a) of this section may be 70487
commenced by the resident or by the resident's legal guardian or 70488
other legally authorized representative on behalf of the resident 70489
or the resident's estate. If the resident or the resident's legal 70490
guardian or other legally authorized representative is unable to 70491
commence an action under that division on behalf of the resident, 70492
the following persons in the following order of priority have the 70493
right to and may commence an action under that division on behalf 70494
of the resident or the resident's estate:70495

       (i) The resident's spouse;70496

       (ii) The resident's parent or adult child;70497

       (iii) The resident's guardian if the resident is a minor 70498
child;70499

       (iv) The resident's brother or sister;70500

       (v) The resident's niece, nephew, aunt, or uncle.70501

       (c) Notwithstanding any law as to priority of persons 70502
entitled to commence an action, if more than one eligible person 70503
within the same level of priority seeks to commence an action on 70504
behalf of a resident or the resident's estate, the court shall 70505
determine, in the best interest of the resident or the resident's 70506
estate, the individual to commence the action. A court's 70507
determination under this division as to the person to commence an 70508
action on behalf of a resident or the resident's estate shall bar 70509
another person from commencing the action on behalf of the 70510
resident or the resident's estate.70511

       (d) The result of an action commenced pursuant to division 70512
(I)(1)(a) of this section by a person authorized under division 70513
(I)(1)(b) of this section shall bind the resident or the 70514
resident's estate that is the subject of the action.70515

       (e) A cause of action under division (I)(1)(a) of this 70516
section shall accrue, and the statute of limitations applicable to 70517
that cause of action shall begin to run, based upon the violation 70518
of a resident's rights under sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the 70519
Revised Code, regardless of the party commencing the action on 70520
behalf of the resident or the resident's estate as authorized 70521
under divisions (I)(1)(b) and (c) of this section.70522

       (2)(a) The plaintiff in an action filed under division (I)(1) 70523
of this section may obtain injunctive relief against the violation 70524
of the resident's rights. The plaintiff also may recover 70525
compensatory damages based upon a showing, by a preponderance of 70526
the evidence, that the violation of the resident's rights resulted 70527
from a negligent act or omission of the person or home and that 70528
the violation was the proximate cause of the resident's injury, 70529
death, or loss to person or property.70530

       (b) If compensatory damages are awarded for a violation of 70531
the resident's rights, section 2315.21 of the Revised Code shall 70532
apply to an award of punitive or exemplary damages for the 70533
violation.70534

       (c) The court, in a case in which only injunctive relief is 70535
granted, may award to the prevailing party reasonable attorney's 70536
fees limited to the work reasonably performed.70537

       (3) Division (I)(2) (b) of this section shall be considered 70538
to be purely remedial in operation and shall be applied in a 70539
remedial manner in any civil action in which this section is 70540
relevant, whether the action is pending in court or commenced on 70541
or after July 9, 1998.70542

       (4) Within thirty days after the filing of a complaint in an 70543
action for damages brought against a home under division (I)(1)(a) 70544
of this section by or on behalf of a resident or former resident 70545
of the home, the plaintiff or plaintiff's counsel shall send 70546
written notice of the filing of the complaint to the department of 70547
job and family servicesmedicaid if the department has a right of 70548
recovery under section 5101.585160.37 of the Revised Code against 70549
the liability of the home for the cost of medicalmedicaid70550
services and care arising out of injury, disease, or disability of 70551
the resident or former resident.70552

       Sec. 3721.19.  (A) As used in this section:70553

       (1) "Home" and "residential care facility" have the same 70554
meanings as in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code;70555

       (2) "Provider agreement" has the same meaning as in section 70556
5165.01 of the Revised Code.70557

       (3) "Sponsor" and "residents' rights advocate" have the same 70558
meanings as in section 3721.10 of the Revised Code.70559

       A home licensed under this chapter that is not a party to a 70560
provider agreement, as defined in section 5111.20 of the Revised 70561
Code, shall provide each prospective resident, before admission, 70562
with the following information, orally and in a separate written 70563
notice on which is printed in a conspicuous manner: "This home is 70564
not a participant in the medical assistancemedicaid program 70565
administered by the Ohio department of job and family services70566
medicaid. Consequently, you may be discharged from this home if 70567
you are unable to pay for the services provided by this home."70568

       If the prospective resident has a sponsor whose identity is 70569
made known to the home, the home shall also inform the sponsor, 70570
before admission of the resident, of the home's status relative to 70571
the medical assistancemedicaid program. Written acknowledgement 70572
of the receipt of the information shall be provided by the 70573
resident and, if the prospective resident has a sponsor who has 70574
been identified to the home, by the sponsor. The written 70575
acknowledgement shall be made part of the resident's record by the 70576
home.70577

       No home shall terminate its status as a provider under the 70578
medicaid programagreement unless it has complied with section 70579
5111.665165.50 of the Revised Code and, at least ninety days 70580
prior to such termination, provided written notice to the 70581
residents of the home and their sponsors of such action. This 70582
requirement shall not apply in cases where the department of job 70583
and family servicesmedicaid terminates a home's provider 70584
agreement or provider status.70585

       (B) A home licensed under this chapter as a residential care 70586
facility shall provide notice to each prospective resident or the 70587
individual's sponsor of the services offered by the facility and 70588
the types of skilled nursing care that the facility may provide. A 70589
residential care facility that, pursuant to section 3721.012 of 70590
the Revised Code, has a policy of entering into risk agreements 70591
with residents or their sponsors shall provide each prospective 70592
resident or the individual's sponsor a written explanation of the 70593
policy and the provisions that may be contained in a risk 70594
agreement. At the time the information is provided, the facility 70595
shall obtain a statement signed by the individual receiving the 70596
information acknowledging that the individual received the 70597
information. The facility shall maintain on file the individual's 70598
signed statement.70599

       (C) A resident has a cause of action against a home for 70600
breach of any duty imposed by this section. The action may be 70601
commenced by the resident, or on the resident's behalf by the 70602
resident's sponsor or a residents' rights advocate, by the filing 70603
of a civil action in the court of common pleas of the county in 70604
which the home is located, or in the court of common pleas of 70605
Franklin county.70606

       If the court finds that a breach of any duty imposed by this 70607
section has occurred, the court shall enjoin the home from 70608
discharging the resident from the home until arrangements 70609
satisfactory to the court are made for the orderly transfer of the 70610
resident to another mode of health care including, but not limited 70611
to, another home, and may award the resident and a person or 70612
public agency that brings an action on behalf of a resident 70613
reasonable attorney's fees. If a home discharges a resident to 70614
whom or to whose sponsor information concerning its status 70615
relative to the medical assistancemedicaid program was not 70616
provided as required under this section, the court shall grant any 70617
appropriate relief including, but not limited to, actual damages, 70618
reasonable attorney's fees, and costs.70619

       Sec. 3727.01. (A) As used in this section, "health 70620
maintenance organization" means a public or private organization 70621
organized under the law of any state that is qualified under 70622
section 1310(d) of Title XIII of the "Public Health Service Act," 70623
87 Stat. 931 (1973), 42 U.S.C. 300e-9, or that does all of the 70624
following:70625

       (1) Provides or otherwise makes available to enrolled 70626
participants health care services including at least the following 70627
basic health care services: usual physician services, 70628
hospitalization, laboratory, x-ray, emergency and preventive 70629
service, and out-of-area coverage;70630

       (2) Is compensated, except for copayments, for the provision 70631
of basic health care services to enrolled participants by a 70632
payment that is paid on a periodic basis without regard to the 70633
date the health care services are provided and that is fixed 70634
without regard to the frequency, extent, or kind of health service 70635
actually provided;70636

       (3) Provides physician services primarily in either of the 70637
following ways:70638

       (a) Directly through physicians who are either employees or 70639
partners of the organization;70640

       (b) Through arrangements with individual physicians or one or 70641
more groups of physicians organized on a group-practice or 70642
individual-practice basis.70643

       (B) As used in this chapter:70644

       (1) "Children's hospital" means any of the following:70645

       (a) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 70646
Revised Code that provides general pediatric medical and surgical 70647
care, and in which at least seventy-five per cent of annual 70648
inpatient discharges for the preceding two calendar years were 70649
individuals less than eighteen years of age; 70650

       (b) A distinct portion of a hospital registered under section 70651
3701.07 of the Revised Code that provides general pediatric 70652
medical and surgical care, has a total of at least one hundred 70653
fifty registered pediatric special care and pediatric acute care 70654
beds, and in which at least seventy-five per cent of annual 70655
inpatient discharges for the preceding two calendar years were 70656
individuals less than eighteen years of age; 70657

       (c) A distinct portion of a hospital, if the hospital is 70658
registered under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as a 70659
children's hospital and the children's hospital meets all the 70660
requirements of division (B)(1)(a) of this section.70661

        (2) "Hospital" means an institution classified as a hospital 70662
under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code in which are provided to 70663
inpatients diagnostic, medical, surgical, obstetrical, 70664
psychiatric, or rehabilitation care for a continuous period longer 70665
than twenty-four hours or a hospital operated by a health 70666
maintenance organization. "Hospital" does not include a facility 70667
licensed under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, a health care 70668
facility operated by the department of mental healthmental health 70669
and addiction services or the department of developmental 70670
disabilities, a health maintenance organization that does not 70671
operate a hospital, the office of any private licensed health care 70672
professional, whether organized for individual or group practice, 70673
or a clinic that provides ambulatory patient services and where 70674
patients are not regularly admitted as inpatients. "Hospital" also 70675
does not include an institution for the sick that is operated 70676
exclusively for patients who use spiritual means for healing and 70677
for whom the acceptance of medical care is inconsistent with their 70678
religious beliefs, accredited by a national accrediting 70679
organization, exempt from federal income taxation under section 70680
501 of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 100 Stat. 2085, 26 70681
U.S.C.A. 1, as amended, and providing twenty-four hour nursing 70682
care pursuant to the exemption in division (E) of section 4723.32 70683
of the Revised Code from the licensing requirements of Chapter 70684
4723. of the Revised Code.70685

       (3) "Joint commission" means the commission formerly known as 70686
the joint commission on accreditation of healthcare organizations 70687
or the joint commission on accreditation of hospitals.70688

       Sec. 3734.28.  Except as otherwise provided in sections 70689
3734.281 and 3734.282 of the Revised Code, moneys collected under 70690
sections 3734.122, 3734.13, 3734.20, 3734.22, 3734.24, and 3734.26 70691
of the Revised Code and under the "Comprehensive Environmental 70692
Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980," 94 Stat. 2767, 70693
42 U.S.C.A. 9601, et seq., as amended, including moneys recovered 70694
under division (B)(1) of this section, shall be paid into the 70695
state treasury to the credit of the hazardous waste clean-up fund, 70696
which is hereby created. In addition, both of the following shall 70697
be credited to the fund:70698

       (A) Moneys recovered for costs paid from the fund for 70699
activities described in divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 70700
3745.12 of the Revised Code;70701

       (B) Natural resource damage assessment costs recovered under 70702
any of the following:70703

       (1) The "Comprehensive Environmental Response, Compensation, 70704
and Liability Act of 1980," 94 Stat. 2767, 42 U.S.C. 9601, et 70705
seq., as amended;70706

       (2) The "Oil Pollution Act of 1990," 104 Stat. 484, 33 U.S.C. 70707
2701, et seq., as amended;70708

       (3) The Federal Water Pollution Control Act as defined in 70709
section 6111.01 of the Revised Code"Clean Water Act of 1977," 91 70710
Stat. 1566, 33 U.S.C. 1321, et seq., as amended;70711

       (4) Any other applicable federal or state law. 70712

       The environmental protection agency shall use the moneys in 70713
the fund for the purposes set forth in division (D) of section 70714
3734.122, sections 3734.19, 3734.20, 3734.21, 3734.23, 3734.25, 70715
3734.26, and 3734.27, divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 3745.12, 70716
and Chapter 3746. of the Revised Code, including any related 70717
enforcement expenses and administrative expenses of any related 70718
closure or corrective action program. In addition, the agency 70719
shall use the moneys in the fund to pay the state's long-term 70720
operation and maintenance costs or matching share for actions 70721
taken under the "Comprehensive Environmental Response, 70722
Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980," as amended. If those 70723
moneys are reimbursed by grants or other moneys from the United 70724
States or any other person, the moneys shall be placed in the fund 70725
and not in the general revenue fund.70726

       The director of environmental protection may enter into 70727
contracts and grant agreements with federal, state, or local 70728
government agencies, nonprofit organizations, and colleges and 70729
universities for the purpose of carrying out the responsibilities 70730
of the environmental protection agency for which money may be 70731
expended from the fund.70732

       Sec. 3734.57.  (A) The following fees are hereby levied on 70733
the transfer or disposal of solid wastes in this state:70734

       (1) One dollar per ton through June 30, 20142016, one-half70735
thirty per cent of the proceeds of which shall be deposited in the 70736
state treasury to the credit of the hazardous waste facility 70737
management fund created in section 3734.18 of the Revised Code and 70738
one-halfseventy per cent of the proceeds of which shall be 70739
deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the hazardous 70740
waste clean-up fund created in section 3734.28 of the Revised 70741
Code;70742

       (2) An additional one dollar per ton through June 30, 201470743
2016, the proceeds of which shall be deposited in the state 70744
treasury to the credit of the solid waste fund, which is hereby 70745
created. The environmental protection agency shall use money in 70746
the solid waste fund to pay the costs of administering and 70747
enforcing the laws pertaining to solid wastes, infectious wastes, 70748
and construction and demolition debris, including, without 70749
limitation, ground water evaluations related to solid wastes, 70750
infectious wastes, and construction and demolition debris, under 70751
this chapter and Chapter 3714. of the Revised Code and any rules 70752
adopted under them, providing compliance assistance to small 70753
businesses, and paying a share of the administrative costs of the 70754
environmental protection agency pursuant to section 3745.014 of 70755
the Revised Code.70756

        (3) An additional two dollars and fifty cents per ton through 70757
June 30, 20142016, the proceeds of which shall be deposited in 70758
the state treasury to the credit of the environmental protection 70759
fund created in section 3745.015 of the Revised Code;70760

       (4) An additional twenty-five cents per ton through June 30, 70761
20132016, the proceeds of which shall be deposited in the state 70762
treasury to the credit of the soil and water conservation district 70763
assistance fund created in section 1515.14 of the Revised Code.70764

       In the case of solid wastes that are taken to a solid waste 70765
transfer facility located in this state prior to being transported 70766
for disposal at a solid waste disposal facility located in this 70767
state or outside of this state, the fees levied under this 70768
division shall be collected by the owner or operator of the 70769
transfer facility as a trustee for the state. The amount of fees 70770
required to be collected under this division at such a transfer 70771
facility shall equal the total tonnage of solid wastes received at 70772
the facility multiplied by the fees levied under this division. In 70773
the case of solid wastes that are not taken to a solid waste 70774
transfer facility located in this state prior to being transported 70775
to a solid waste disposal facility, the fees shall be collected by 70776
the owner or operator of the solid waste disposal facility as a 70777
trustee for the state. The amount of fees required to be collected 70778
under this division at such a disposal facility shall equal the 70779
total tonnage of solid wastes received at the facility that was 70780
not previously taken to a solid waste transfer facility located in 70781
this state multiplied by the fees levied under this division. Fees 70782
levied under this division do not apply to materials separated 70783
from a mixed waste stream for recycling by a generator or 70784
materials removed from the solid waste stream through recycling, 70785
as "recycling" is defined in rules adopted under section 3734.02 70786
of the Revised Code.70787

       The owner or operator of a solid waste transfer facility or 70788
disposal facility, as applicable, shall prepare and file with the 70789
director of environmental protection each month a return 70790
indicating the total tonnage of solid wastes received at the 70791
facility during that month and the total amount of the fees 70792
required to be collected under this division during that month. In 70793
addition, the owner or operator of a solid waste disposal facility 70794
shall indicate on the return the total tonnage of solid wastes 70795
received from transfer facilities located in this state during 70796
that month for which the fees were required to be collected by the 70797
transfer facilities. The monthly returns shall be filed on a form 70798
prescribed by the director. Not later than thirty days after the 70799
last day of the month to which a return applies, the owner or 70800
operator shall mail to the director the return for that month 70801
together with the fees required to be collected under this 70802
division during that month as indicated on the return or may 70803
submit the return and fees electronically in a manner approved by 70804
the director. If the return is filed and the amount of the fees 70805
due is paid in a timely manner as required in this division, the 70806
owner or operator may retain a discount of three-fourths of one 70807
per cent of the total amount of the fees that are required to be 70808
paid as indicated on the return.70809

        The owner or operator may request an extension of not more 70810
than thirty days for filing the return and remitting the fees, 70811
provided that the owner or operator has submitted such a request 70812
in writing to the director together with a detailed description of 70813
why the extension is requested, the director has received the 70814
request not later than the day on which the return is required to 70815
be filed, and the director has approved the request. If the fees 70816
are not remitted within thirty days after the last day of the 70817
month to which the return applies or are not remitted by the last 70818
day of an extension approved by the director, the owner or 70819
operator shall not retain the three-fourths of one per cent 70820
discount and shall pay an additional ten per cent of the amount of 70821
the fees for each month that they are late. For purposes of 70822
calculating the late fee, the first month in which fees are late 70823
begins on the first day after the deadline has passed for timely 70824
submitting the return and fees, and one additional month shall be 70825
counted every thirty days thereafter.70826

       The owner or operator of a solid waste facility may request a 70827
refund or credit of fees levied under this division and remitted 70828
to the director that have not been paid to the owner or operator. 70829
Such a request shall be made only if the fees have not been 70830
collected by the owner or operator, have become a debt that has 70831
become worthless or uncollectable for a period of six months or 70832
more, and may be claimed as a deduction, including a deduction 70833
claimed if the owner or operator keeps accounts on an accrual 70834
basis, under the "Internal Revenue Code of 1954," 68A Stat. 50, 26 70835
U.S.C. 166, as amended, and regulations adopted under it. Prior to 70836
making a request for a refund or credit, an owner or operator 70837
shall make reasonable efforts to collect the applicable fees. A 70838
request for a refund or credit shall not include any costs 70839
resulting from those efforts to collect unpaid fees.70840

       A request for a refund or credit of fees shall be made in 70841
writing, on a form prescribed by the director, and shall be 70842
supported by evidence that may be required in rules adopted by the 70843
director under this chapter. After reviewing the request, and if 70844
the request and evidence submitted with the request indicate that 70845
a refund or credit is warranted, the director shall grant a refund 70846
to the owner or operator or shall permit a credit to be taken by 70847
the owner or operator on a subsequent monthly return submitted by 70848
the owner or operator. The amount of a refund or credit shall not 70849
exceed an amount that is equal to ninety days' worth of fees owed 70850
to an owner or operator by a particular debtor of the owner or 70851
operator. A refund or credit shall not be granted by the director 70852
to an owner or operator more than once in any twelve-month period 70853
for fees owed to the owner or operator by a particular debtor.70854

       If, after receiving a refund or credit from the director, an 70855
owner or operator receives payment of all or part of the fees, the 70856
owner or operator shall remit the fees with the next monthly 70857
return submitted to the director together with a written 70858
explanation of the reason for the submittal.70859

        For purposes of computing the fees levied under this division 70860
or division (B) of this section, any solid waste transfer or 70861
disposal facility that does not use scales as a means of 70862
determining gate receipts shall use a conversion factor of three 70863
cubic yards per ton of solid waste or one cubic yard per ton for 70864
baled waste, as applicable.70865

       The fees levied under this division and divisions (B) and (C) 70866
of this section are in addition to all other applicable fees and 70867
taxes and shall be paid by the customer or a political subdivision 70868
to the owner or operator of a solid waste transfer or disposal 70869
facility. In the alternative, the fees shall be paid by a customer 70870
or political subdivision to a transporter of waste who 70871
subsequently transfers the fees to the owner or operator of such a 70872
facility. The fees shall be paid notwithstanding the existence of 70873
any provision in a contract that the customer or a political 70874
subdivision may have with the owner or operator or with a 70875
transporter of waste to the facility that would not require or 70876
allow such payment regardless of whether the contract was entered 70877
prior to or after October 16, 2009. For those purposes, "customer" 70878
means a person who contracts with, or utilizes the solid waste 70879
services of, the owner or operator of a solid waste transfer or 70880
disposal facility or a transporter of solid waste to such a 70881
facility.70882

       (B) For the purposes specified in division (G) of this 70883
section, the solid waste management policy committee of a county 70884
or joint solid waste management district may levy fees upon the 70885
following activities:70886

       (1) The disposal at a solid waste disposal facility located 70887
in the district of solid wastes generated within the district;70888

       (2) The disposal at a solid waste disposal facility within 70889
the district of solid wastes generated outside the boundaries of 70890
the district, but inside this state;70891

       (3) The disposal at a solid waste disposal facility within 70892
the district of solid wastes generated outside the boundaries of 70893
this state.70894

        The solid waste management plan of the county or joint 70895
district approved under section 3734.521 or 3734.55 of the Revised 70896
Code and any amendments to it, or the resolution adopted under 70897
this division, as appropriate, shall establish the rates of the 70898
fees levied under divisions (B)(1), (2), and (3) of this section, 70899
if any, and shall specify whether the fees are levied on the basis 70900
of tons or cubic yards as the unit of measurement. A solid waste 70901
management district that levies fees under this division on the 70902
basis of cubic yards shall do so in accordance with division (A) 70903
of this section.70904

        The fee levied under division (B)(1) of this section shall be 70905
not less than one dollar per ton nor more than two dollars per 70906
ton, the fee levied under division (B)(2) of this section shall be 70907
not less than two dollars per ton nor more than four dollars per 70908
ton, and the fee levied under division (B)(3) of this section 70909
shall be not more than the fee levied under division (B)(1) of 70910
this section.70911

       Prior to the approval of the solid waste management plan of a 70912
district under section 3734.55 of the Revised Code, the solid 70913
waste management policy committee of a district may levy fees 70914
under this division by adopting a resolution establishing the 70915
proposed amount of the fees. Upon adopting the resolution, the 70916
committee shall deliver a copy of the resolution to the board of 70917
county commissioners of each county forming the district and to 70918
the legislative authority of each municipal corporation and 70919
township under the jurisdiction of the district and shall prepare 70920
and publish the resolution and a notice of the time and location 70921
where a public hearing on the fees will be held. Upon adopting the 70922
resolution, the committee shall deliver written notice of the 70923
adoption of the resolution; of the amount of the proposed fees; 70924
and of the date, time, and location of the public hearing to the 70925
director and to the fifty industrial, commercial, or institutional 70926
generators of solid wastes within the district that generate the 70927
largest quantities of solid wastes, as determined by the 70928
committee, and to their local trade associations. The committee 70929
shall make good faith efforts to identify those generators within 70930
the district and their local trade associations, but the 70931
nonprovision of notice under this division to a particular 70932
generator or local trade association does not invalidate the 70933
proceedings under this division. The publication shall occur at 70934
least thirty days before the hearing. After the hearing, the 70935
committee may make such revisions to the proposed fees as it 70936
considers appropriate and thereafter, by resolution, shall adopt 70937
the revised fee schedule. Upon adopting the revised fee schedule, 70938
the committee shall deliver a copy of the resolution doing so to 70939
the board of county commissioners of each county forming the 70940
district and to the legislative authority of each municipal 70941
corporation and township under the jurisdiction of the district. 70942
Within sixty days after the delivery of a copy of the resolution 70943
adopting the proposed revised fees by the policy committee, each 70944
such board and legislative authority, by ordinance or resolution, 70945
shall approve or disapprove the revised fees and deliver a copy of 70946
the ordinance or resolution to the committee. If any such board or 70947
legislative authority fails to adopt and deliver to the policy 70948
committee an ordinance or resolution approving or disapproving the 70949
revised fees within sixty days after the policy committee 70950
delivered its resolution adopting the proposed revised fees, it 70951
shall be conclusively presumed that the board or legislative 70952
authority has approved the proposed revised fees. The committee 70953
shall determine if the resolution has been ratified in the same 70954
manner in which it determines if a draft solid waste management 70955
plan has been ratified under division (B) of section 3734.55 of 70956
the Revised Code.70957

       The committee may amend the schedule of fees levied pursuant 70958
to a resolution adopted and ratified under this division by 70959
adopting a resolution establishing the proposed amount of the 70960
amended fees. The committee may repeal the fees levied pursuant to 70961
such a resolution by adopting a resolution proposing to repeal 70962
them. Upon adopting such a resolution, the committee shall proceed 70963
to obtain ratification of the resolution in accordance with this 70964
division.70965

       Not later than fourteen days after declaring the new fees to 70966
be ratified or the fees to be repealed under this division, the 70967
committee shall notify by certified mail the owner or operator of 70968
each solid waste disposal facility that is required to collect the 70969
fees of the ratification and the amount of the fees or of the 70970
repeal of the fees. Collection of any fees shall commence or 70971
collection of repealed fees shall cease on the first day of the 70972
second month following the month in which notification is sent to 70973
the owner or operator.70974

       Fees levied under this division also may be established, 70975
amended, or repealed by a solid waste management policy committee 70976
through the adoption of a new district solid waste management 70977
plan, the adoption of an amended plan, or the amendment of the 70978
plan or amended plan in accordance with sections 3734.55 and 70979
3734.56 of the Revised Code or the adoption or amendment of a 70980
district plan in connection with a change in district composition 70981
under section 3734.521 of the Revised Code.70982

       Not later than fourteen days after the director issues an 70983
order approving a district's solid waste management plan, amended 70984
plan, or amendment to a plan or amended plan that establishes, 70985
amends, or repeals a schedule of fees levied by the district, the 70986
committee shall notify by certified mail the owner or operator of 70987
each solid waste disposal facility that is required to collect the 70988
fees of the approval of the plan or amended plan, or the amendment 70989
to the plan, as appropriate, and the amount of the fees, if any. 70990
In the case of an initial or amended plan approved under section 70991
3734.521 of the Revised Code in connection with a change in 70992
district composition, other than one involving the withdrawal of a 70993
county from a joint district, the committee, within fourteen days 70994
after the change takes effect pursuant to division (G) of that 70995
section, shall notify by certified mail the owner or operator of 70996
each solid waste disposal facility that is required to collect the 70997
fees that the change has taken effect and of the amount of the 70998
fees, if any. Collection of any fees shall commence or collection 70999
of repealed fees shall cease on the first day of the second month 71000
following the month in which notification is sent to the owner or 71001
operator.71002

       If, in the case of a change in district composition involving 71003
the withdrawal of a county from a joint district, the director 71004
completes the actions required under division (G)(1) or (3) of 71005
section 3734.521 of the Revised Code, as appropriate, forty-five 71006
days or more before the beginning of a calendar year, the policy 71007
committee of each of the districts resulting from the change that 71008
obtained the director's approval of an initial or amended plan in 71009
connection with the change, within fourteen days after the 71010
director's completion of the required actions, shall notify by 71011
certified mail the owner or operator of each solid waste disposal 71012
facility that is required to collect the district's fees that the 71013
change is to take effect on the first day of January immediately 71014
following the issuance of the notice and of the amount of the fees 71015
or amended fees levied under divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this 71016
section pursuant to the district's initial or amended plan as so 71017
approved or, if appropriate, the repeal of the district's fees by 71018
that initial or amended plan. Collection of any fees set forth in 71019
such a plan or amended plan shall commence on the first day of 71020
January immediately following the issuance of the notice. If such 71021
an initial or amended plan repeals a schedule of fees, collection 71022
of the fees shall cease on that first day of January.71023

       If, in the case of a change in district composition involving 71024
the withdrawal of a county from a joint district, the director 71025
completes the actions required under division (G)(1) or (3) of 71026
section 3734.521 of the Revised Code, as appropriate, less than 71027
forty-five days before the beginning of a calendar year, the 71028
director, on behalf of each of the districts resulting from the 71029
change that obtained the director's approval of an initial or 71030
amended plan in connection with the change proceedings, shall 71031
notify by certified mail the owner or operator of each solid waste 71032
disposal facility that is required to collect the district's fees 71033
that the change is to take effect on the first day of January 71034
immediately following the mailing of the notice and of the amount 71035
of the fees or amended fees levied under divisions (B)(1) to (3) 71036
of this section pursuant to the district's initial or amended plan 71037
as so approved or, if appropriate, the repeal of the district's 71038
fees by that initial or amended plan. Collection of any fees set 71039
forth in such a plan or amended plan shall commence on the first 71040
day of the second month following the month in which notification 71041
is sent to the owner or operator. If such an initial or amended 71042
plan repeals a schedule of fees, collection of the fees shall 71043
cease on the first day of the second month following the month in 71044
which notification is sent to the owner or operator.71045

        If the schedule of fees that a solid waste management 71046
district is levying under divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this section 71047
is amended or repealed, the fees in effect immediately prior to 71048
the amendment or repeal shall continue to be collected until 71049
collection of the amended fees commences or collection of the 71050
repealed fees ceases, as applicable, as specified in this 71051
division. In the case of a change in district composition, money 71052
so received from the collection of the fees of the former 71053
districts shall be divided among the resulting districts in 71054
accordance with division (B) of section 343.012 of the Revised 71055
Code and the agreements entered into under division (B) of section 71056
343.01 of the Revised Code to establish the former and resulting 71057
districts and any amendments to those agreements.71058

       For the purposes of the provisions of division (B) of this 71059
section establishing the times when newly established or amended 71060
fees levied by a district are required to commence and the 71061
collection of fees that have been amended or repealed is required 71062
to cease, "fees" or "schedule of fees" includes, in addition to 71063
fees levied under divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this section, those 71064
levied under section 3734.573 or 3734.574 of the Revised Code.71065

       (C) For the purposes of defraying the added costs to a 71066
municipal corporation or township of maintaining roads and other 71067
public facilities and of providing emergency and other public 71068
services, and compensating a municipal corporation or township for 71069
reductions in real property tax revenues due to reductions in real 71070
property valuations resulting from the location and operation of a 71071
solid waste disposal facility within the municipal corporation or 71072
township, a municipal corporation or township in which such a 71073
solid waste disposal facility is located may levy a fee of not 71074
more than twenty-five cents per ton on the disposal of solid 71075
wastes at a solid waste disposal facility located within the 71076
boundaries of the municipal corporation or township regardless of 71077
where the wastes were generated.71078

       The legislative authority of a municipal corporation or 71079
township may levy fees under this division by enacting an 71080
ordinance or adopting a resolution establishing the amount of the 71081
fees. Upon so doing the legislative authority shall mail a 71082
certified copy of the ordinance or resolution to the board of 71083
county commissioners or directors of the county or joint solid 71084
waste management district in which the municipal corporation or 71085
township is located or, if a regional solid waste management 71086
authority has been formed under section 343.011 of the Revised 71087
Code, to the board of trustees of that regional authority, the 71088
owner or operator of each solid waste disposal facility in the 71089
municipal corporation or township that is required to collect the 71090
fee by the ordinance or resolution, and the director of 71091
environmental protection. Although the fees levied under this 71092
division are levied on the basis of tons as the unit of 71093
measurement, the legislative authority, in its ordinance or 71094
resolution levying the fees under this division, may direct that 71095
the fees be levied on the basis of cubic yards as the unit of 71096
measurement based upon a conversion factor of three cubic yards 71097
per ton generally or one cubic yard per ton for baled wastes.71098

       Not later than five days after enacting an ordinance or 71099
adopting a resolution under this division, the legislative 71100
authority shall so notify by certified mail the owner or operator 71101
of each solid waste disposal facility that is required to collect 71102
the fee. Collection of any fee levied on or after March 24, 1992, 71103
shall commence on the first day of the second month following the 71104
month in which notification is sent to the owner or operator.71105

       (D)(1) The fees levied under divisions (A), (B), and (C) of 71106
this section do not apply to the disposal of solid wastes that:71107

       (a) Are disposed of at a facility owned by the generator of 71108
the wastes when the solid waste facility exclusively disposes of 71109
solid wastes generated at one or more premises owned by the 71110
generator regardless of whether the facility is located on a 71111
premises where the wastes are generated;71112

       (b) Are generated from the combustion of coal, or from the 71113
combustion of primarily coal, regardless of whether the disposal 71114
facility is located on the premises where the wastes are 71115
generated;71116

       (c) Are asbestos or asbestos-containing materials or products 71117
disposed of at a construction and demolition debris facility that 71118
is licensed under Chapter 3714. of the Revised Code or at a solid 71119
waste facility that is licensed under this chapter.71120

       (2) Except as provided in section 3734.571 of the Revised 71121
Code, any fees levied under division (B)(1) of this section apply 71122
to solid wastes originating outside the boundaries of a county or 71123
joint district that are covered by an agreement for the joint use 71124
of solid waste facilities entered into under section 343.02 of the 71125
Revised Code by the board of county commissioners or board of 71126
directors of the county or joint district where the wastes are 71127
generated and disposed of.71128

       (3) When solid wastes, other than solid wastes that consist 71129
of scrap tires, are burned in a disposal facility that is an 71130
incinerator or energy recovery facility, the fees levied under 71131
divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this section shall be levied upon 71132
the disposal of the fly ash and bottom ash remaining after burning 71133
of the solid wastes and shall be collected by the owner or 71134
operator of the sanitary landfill where the ash is disposed of.71135

       (4) When solid wastes are delivered to a solid waste transfer 71136
facility, the fees levied under divisions (B) and (C) of this 71137
section shall be levied upon the disposal of solid wastes 71138
transported off the premises of the transfer facility for disposal 71139
and shall be collected by the owner or operator of the solid waste 71140
disposal facility where the wastes are disposed of.71141

       (5) The fees levied under divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this 71142
section do not apply to sewage sludge that is generated by a waste 71143
water treatment facility holding a national pollutant discharge 71144
elimination system permit and that is disposed of through 71145
incineration, land application, or composting or at another 71146
resource recovery or disposal facility that is not a landfill.71147

       (6) The fees levied under divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this 71148
section do not apply to solid wastes delivered to a solid waste 71149
composting facility for processing. When any unprocessed solid 71150
waste or compost product is transported off the premises of a 71151
composting facility and disposed of at a landfill, the fees levied 71152
under divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this section shall be 71153
collected by the owner or operator of the landfill where the 71154
unprocessed waste or compost product is disposed of.71155

       (7) When solid wastes that consist of scrap tires are 71156
processed at a scrap tire recovery facility, the fees levied under 71157
divisions (A), (B), and (C) of this section shall be levied upon 71158
the disposal of the fly ash and bottom ash or other solid wastes 71159
remaining after the processing of the scrap tires and shall be 71160
collected by the owner or operator of the solid waste disposal 71161
facility where the ash or other solid wastes are disposed of.71162

       (8) The director of environmental protection may issue an 71163
order exempting from the fees levied under this section solid 71164
wastes, including, but not limited to, scrap tires, that are 71165
generated, transferred, or disposed of as a result of a contract 71166
providing for the expenditure of public funds entered into by the 71167
administrator or regional administrator of the United States 71168
environmental protection agency, the director of environmental 71169
protection, or the director of administrative services on behalf 71170
of the director of environmental protection for the purpose of 71171
remediating conditions at a hazardous waste facility, solid waste 71172
facility, or other location at which the administrator or regional 71173
administrator or the director of environmental protection has 71174
reason to believe that there is a substantial threat to public 71175
health or safety or the environment or that the conditions are 71176
causing or contributing to air or water pollution or soil 71177
contamination. An order issued by the director of environmental 71178
protection under division (D)(8) of this section shall include a 71179
determination that the amount of the fees not received by a solid 71180
waste management district as a result of the order will not 71181
adversely impact the implementation and financing of the 71182
district's approved solid waste management plan and any approved 71183
amendments to the plan. Such an order is a final action of the 71184
director of environmental protection.71185

       (E) The fees levied under divisions (B) and (C) of this 71186
section shall be collected by the owner or operator of the solid 71187
waste disposal facility where the wastes are disposed of as a 71188
trustee for the county or joint district and municipal corporation 71189
or township where the wastes are disposed of. Moneys from the fees 71190
levied under division (B) of this section shall be forwarded to 71191
the board of county commissioners or board of directors of the 71192
district in accordance with rules adopted under division (H) of 71193
this section. Moneys from the fees levied under division (C) of 71194
this section shall be forwarded to the treasurer or such other 71195
officer of the municipal corporation as, by virtue of the charter, 71196
has the duties of the treasurer or to the fiscal officer of the 71197
township, as appropriate, in accordance with those rules.71198

       (F) Moneys received by the treasurer or other officer of the 71199
municipal corporation under division (E) of this section shall be 71200
paid into the general fund of the municipal corporation. Moneys 71201
received by the fiscal officer of the township under that division 71202
shall be paid into the general fund of the township. The treasurer 71203
or other officer of the municipal corporation or the township 71204
fiscal officer, as appropriate, shall maintain separate records of 71205
the moneys received from the fees levied under division (C) of 71206
this section.71207

       (G) Moneys received by the board of county commissioners or 71208
board of directors under division (E) of this section or section 71209
3734.571, 3734.572, 3734.573, or 3734.574 of the Revised Code 71210
shall be paid to the county treasurer, or other official acting in 71211
a similar capacity under a county charter, in a county district or 71212
to the county treasurer or other official designated by the board 71213
of directors in a joint district and kept in a separate and 71214
distinct fund to the credit of the district. If a regional solid 71215
waste management authority has been formed under section 343.011 71216
of the Revised Code, moneys received by the board of trustees of 71217
that regional authority under division (E) of this section shall 71218
be kept by the board in a separate and distinct fund to the credit 71219
of the district. Moneys in the special fund of the county or joint 71220
district arising from the fees levied under division (B) of this 71221
section and the fee levied under division (A) of section 3734.573 71222
of the Revised Code shall be expended by the board of county 71223
commissioners or directors of the district in accordance with the 71224
district's solid waste management plan or amended plan approved 71225
under section 3734.521, 3734.55, or 3734.56 of the Revised Code 71226
exclusively for the following purposes:71227

       (1) Preparation of the solid waste management plan of the 71228
district under section 3734.54 of the Revised Code, monitoring 71229
implementation of the plan, and conducting the periodic review and 71230
amendment of the plan required by section 3734.56 of the Revised 71231
Code by the solid waste management policy committee;71232

       (2) Implementation of the approved solid waste management 71233
plan or amended plan of the district, including, without 71234
limitation, the development and implementation of solid waste 71235
recycling or reduction programs;71236

       (3) Providing financial assistance to boards of health within 71237
the district, if solid waste facilities are located within the 71238
district, for enforcement of this chapter and rules, orders, and 71239
terms and conditions of permits, licenses, and variances adopted 71240
or issued under it, other than the hazardous waste provisions of 71241
this chapter and rules adopted and orders and terms and conditions 71242
of permits issued under those provisions;71243

       (4) Providing financial assistance to each county within the 71244
district to defray the added costs of maintaining roads and other 71245
public facilities and of providing emergency and other public 71246
services resulting from the location and operation of a solid 71247
waste facility within the county under the district's approved 71248
solid waste management plan or amended plan;71249

       (5) Pursuant to contracts entered into with boards of health 71250
within the district, if solid waste facilities contained in the 71251
district's approved plan or amended plan are located within the 71252
district, for paying the costs incurred by those boards of health 71253
for collecting and analyzing samples from public or private water 71254
wells on lands adjacent to those facilities;71255

       (6) Developing and implementing a program for the inspection 71256
of solid wastes generated outside the boundaries of this state 71257
that are disposed of at solid waste facilities included in the 71258
district's approved solid waste management plan or amended plan;71259

       (7) Providing financial assistance to boards of health within 71260
the district for the enforcement of section 3734.03 of the Revised 71261
Code or to local law enforcement agencies having jurisdiction 71262
within the district for enforcing anti-littering laws and 71263
ordinances;71264

       (8) Providing financial assistance to boards of health of 71265
health districts within the district that are on the approved list 71266
under section 3734.08 of the Revised Code to defray the costs to 71267
the health districts for the participation of their employees 71268
responsible for enforcement of the solid waste provisions of this 71269
chapter and rules adopted and orders and terms and conditions of 71270
permits, licenses, and variances issued under those provisions in 71271
the training and certification program as required by rules 71272
adopted under division (L) of section 3734.02 of the Revised Code;71273

       (9) Providing financial assistance to individual municipal 71274
corporations and townships within the district to defray their 71275
added costs of maintaining roads and other public facilities and 71276
of providing emergency and other public services resulting from 71277
the location and operation within their boundaries of a 71278
composting, energy or resource recovery, incineration, or 71279
recycling facility that either is owned by the district or is 71280
furnishing solid waste management facility or recycling services 71281
to the district pursuant to a contract or agreement with the board 71282
of county commissioners or directors of the district;71283

       (10) Payment of any expenses that are agreed to, awarded, or 71284
ordered to be paid under section 3734.35 of the Revised Code and 71285
of any administrative costs incurred pursuant to that section. In 71286
the case of a joint solid waste management district, if the board 71287
of county commissioners of one of the counties in the district is 71288
negotiating on behalf of affected communities, as defined in that 71289
section, in that county, the board shall obtain the approval of 71290
the board of directors of the district in order to expend moneys 71291
for administrative costs incurred.71292

       Prior to the approval of the district's solid waste 71293
management plan under section 3734.55 of the Revised Code, moneys 71294
in the special fund of the district arising from the fees shall be 71295
expended for those purposes in the manner prescribed by the solid 71296
waste management policy committee by resolution.71297

       Notwithstanding division (G)(6) of this section as it existed 71298
prior to October 29, 1993, or any provision in a district's solid 71299
waste management plan prepared in accordance with division 71300
(B)(2)(e) of section 3734.53 of the Revised Code as it existed 71301
prior to that date, any moneys arising from the fees levied under 71302
division (B)(3) of this section prior to January 1, 1994, may be 71303
expended for any of the purposes authorized in divisions (G)(1) to 71304
(10) of this section.71305

       (H) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 71306
119. of the Revised Code prescribing procedures for collecting and 71307
forwarding the fees levied under divisions (B) and (C) of this 71308
section to the boards of county commissioners or directors of 71309
county or joint solid waste management districts and to the 71310
treasurers or other officers of municipal corporations and the 71311
fiscal officers of townships. The rules also shall prescribe the 71312
dates for forwarding the fees to the boards and officials and may 71313
prescribe any other requirements the director considers necessary 71314
or appropriate to implement and administer divisions (A), (B), and 71315
(C) of this section.71316

       Sec. 3734.901.  (A)(1) For the purpose of providing revenue 71317
to defray the cost of administering and enforcing the scrap tire 71318
provisions of this chapter, rules adopted under those provisions, 71319
and terms and conditions of orders, variances, and licenses issued 71320
under those provisions; to abate accumulations of scrap tires; to 71321
make grants supporting market development activities for scrap 71322
tires and synthetic rubber from tire manufacturing processes and 71323
tire recycling processes and to support scrap tire amnesty and 71324
cleanup events; to make loans to promote the recycling or recovery 71325
of energy from scrap tires; and to defray the costs of 71326
administering and enforcing sections 3734.90 to 3734.9014 of the 71327
Revised Code, a fee of fifty cents per tire is hereby levied on 71328
the sale of tires. The proceeds of the fee shall be deposited in 71329
the state treasury to the credit of the scrap tire management fund 71330
created in section 3734.82 of the Revised Code. The fee is levied 71331
from the first day of the calendar month that begins next after 71332
thirty days from October 29, 1993, through June 30, 20132016.71333

       (2) Beginning on July 1, 2011, and ending on June 30, 201371334
2016, there is hereby levied an additional fee of fifty cents per 71335
tire on the sale of tires the proceeds of which shall be deposited 71336
in the state treasury to the credit of the soil and water 71337
conservation district assistance fund created in section 1515.14 71338
of the Revised Code.71339

       (B) Only one sale of the same article shall be used in 71340
computing the amount of the fee due.71341

       Sec. 3734.907.  (A) Any person required to pay the fee 71342
imposed by section 3734.901 of the Revised Code is personally 71343
liable for the fee. The tax commissioner may make an assessment, 71344
based upon any information in the commissioner's possession, 71345
against any person who fails to file a return or pay any fee, 71346
interest, or additional charge as required by sections 3734.90 to 71347
3734.9014 of the Revised Code. The commissioner shall give the 71348
person assessed written notice of the assessment in the manner 71349
provided in section 5703.37 of the Revised Code. With the notice, 71350
the commissioner shall provide instructions on how to petition for 71351
reassessment and request a hearing on the petition.71352

       (B) When the information in the possession of the tax 71353
commissioner indicates that a person liable for the fee imposed by 71354
section 3734.901 of the Revised Code has not paid the full amount 71355
of fee due, the commissioner may audit a representative sample of 71356
the person's business and may issue an assessment based on the 71357
audit.71358

       (C) A penalty of up to fifteen per cent may be added to all 71359
amounts assessed under this section. The commissioner may adopt 71360
rules providing for the imposition and remission of the penalties.71361

       (D) Unless the person assessed files with the tax 71362
commissioner within sixty days after service of the notice of 71363
assessment, either personally or by certified mail, a written 71364
petition for reassessment signed by the person assessed or that 71365
person's authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the 71366
assessment becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due 71367
and payable from the person assessed to the treasurer of state. 71368
The petition shall indicate the objections of the person assessed, 71369
but additional objections may be raised in writing if received by 71370
the commissioner prior to the date shown on the final 71371
determination. If the petition has been properly filed, the 71372
commissioner shall proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised 71373
Code.71374

       (E) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 71375
assessment, including accrued interest, remains unpaid, a 71376
certified copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the 71377
assessment final may be filed in the office of the clerk of the 71378
court of common pleas in the county in which the person assessed 71379
resides or in which the person's business is conducted. If the 71380
person assessed maintains no place of business in this state and 71381
is not a resident of this state, the certified copy of the entry 71382
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 71383
pleas of Franklin county.71384

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 71385
enter a judgment for the state against the person assessed in the 71386
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 71387
in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for state tire 71388
fee," and shall have the same effect as other judgments. Execution 71389
shall issue upon the judgment upon the request of the tax 71390
commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on execution shall 71391
apply to sales made under the judgment.71392

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety71393
within sixty days after the day the assessment was issued, the 71394
portion of the assessment consisting of the fee due shall bear 71395
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 71396
the Revised Code from the day the commissioner issues the 71397
assessment until the day the assessment is paid or until it is 71398
certified to the attorney general for collection under section 71399
131.02 of the Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid 71400
portion of the assessment is certified to the attorney general for 71401
collection, the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear 71402
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 71403
the Revised Code from the date of certification until the date it 71404
is paid in its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner 71405
as the fee and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment 71406
under this section.71407

       (F) If the tax commissioner believes that collection of the 71408
fee will be jeopardized unless proceedings to collect or secure 71409
collection of the fee are instituted without delay, the 71410
commissioner may issue a jeopardy assessment against the person 71411
liable for the fee. Immediately upon the issuance of the jeopardy 71412
assessment, the commissioner shall file an entry with the clerk of 71413
the court of common pleas in the manner prescribed by division (E) 71414
of this section. Notice of the jeopardy assessment shall be served 71415
on the person assessed or the person's legal representative, as 71416
provided in section 5703.37 of the Revised Code, within five days 71417
of the filing of the entry with the clerk. The total amount 71418
assessed is immediately due and payable, unless the person 71419
assessed files a petition for reassessment in accordance with 71420
division (D) of this section and provides security in a form 71421
satisfactory to the commissioner and in an amount sufficient to 71422
satisfy the unpaid balance of the assessment. Full or partial 71423
payment of the assessment does not prejudice the commissioner's 71424
consideration of the petition for reassessment.71425

       (G) All money collected by the tax commissioner under this 71426
section shall be paid to the treasurer of state as revenue arising 71427
from the fee imposed by section 3734.901 of the Revised Code.71428

       Sec. 3735.58.  (A) The director of mental healthmental 71429
health and addiction services, the director of developmental 71430
disabilities, or the director of rehabilitation and correction may 71431
enter into contracts for the sale of land not needed by their 71432
departments and under their jurisdiction or supervision to 71433
metropolitan housing authorities for use by such an authority for 71434
a housing project or projects. Such contract may contain such 71435
conditions and terms as are, in the discretion of the directors, 71436
in the best interests of the state and the welfare of the 71437
residents of the state.71438

       (B) The director may, upon receipt of a request from a 71439
metropolitan housing authority, request the approval of the 71440
governor to sell and convey land not needed by the director's 71441
department and under the director's jurisdiction or supervision to 71442
an authority, subject to such terms and conditions consistent with 71443
the public interest and welfare of the residents of the state as 71444
the director considers necessary. The governor, with the approval 71445
of the controlling board, may approve the request. Such property 71446
shall be appraised at its fair market value before it is conveyed. 71447
The director of administrative services shall cause it to be 71448
appraised by three disinterested persons and shall determine the 71449
fee which each appraiser shall receive, not to exceed fifty 71450
dollars. All appraisal fees shall be paid by the authority which 71451
shall deposit with the director one hundred fifty dollars before 71452
the appraisal is made. If the deposit exceeds the appraisal fee, 71453
the balance shall be returned to the authority. The appraisal 71454
value, when approved by the director, is the purchase price. If 71455
the purchase price is not paid within ninety days after notice to 71456
the authority of the approved appraisal value, the director shall 71457
withdraw approval of the appraisal value and no deed shall be 71458
delivered to the authority without the written approval of the 71459
director of the purchase price. If the purchase price is paid 71460
within ninety days, a deed shall be prepared and recorded pursuant 71461
to section 5301.13 of the Revised Code.71462

       (C) Moneys received from sales of land to a metropolitan 71463
housing authority shall be placed in the state treasury in special 71464
funds, to be used for such purposes of the department of mental 71465
healthmental health and addiction services, the department of 71466
developmental disabilities, or the department of rehabilitation 71467
and correction as is appropriate.71468

       Sec. 3735.67.  (A) The owner of real property located in a 71469
community reinvestment area and eligible for exemption from 71470
taxation under a resolution adopted pursuant to section 3735.66 of 71471
the Revised Code may file an application for an exemption from 71472
real property taxation of a percentage of the assessed valuation 71473
of a new structure or remodeling, completed after the effective 71474
date of the resolution adopted pursuant to section 3735.66 of the 71475
Revised Code, with the housing officer designated pursuant to 71476
section 3735.66 of the Revised Code for the community reinvestment 71477
area in which the property is located. If any part of the new 71478
structure or remodeling that would be exempted is of real property 71479
to be used for commercial or industrial purposes, the legislative 71480
authority and the owner of the property shall enter into a written 71481
agreement pursuant to section 3735.671 of the Revised Code prior 71482
to commencement of construction or remodeling; if such an 71483
agreement is subject to approval by the board of education of the 71484
school district within the territory of which the property is or 71485
will be located, the agreement shall not be formally approved by 71486
the legislative authority until the board of education approves 71487
the agreement in the manner prescribed by that section.71488

       (B) The housing officer shall verify the construction of the 71489
new structure or the cost of the remodeling and the facts asserted 71490
in the application. The housing officer shall determine whether 71491
the construction or the cost of the remodeling meets the 71492
requirements for an exemption under this section. In cases 71493
involving a structure of historical or architectural significance, 71494
the housing officer shall not determine whether the remodeling 71495
meets the requirements for a tax exemption unless the 71496
appropriateness of the remodeling has been certified, in writing, 71497
by the society, association, agency, or legislative authority that 71498
has designated the structure or by any organization or person 71499
authorized, in writing, by such society, association, agency, or 71500
legislative authority to certify the appropriateness of the 71501
remodeling.71502

       (C) If the construction or remodeling meets the requirements 71503
for exemption, the housing officer shall forward the application 71504
to the county auditor with a certification as to the division of 71505
this section under which the exemption is granted, and the period 71506
and percentage of the exemption as determined by the legislative 71507
authority pursuant to that division. If the construction or 71508
remodeling is of commercial or industrial property and the 71509
legislative authority is not required to certify a copy of a 71510
resolution under section 3735.671 of the Revised Code, the housing 71511
officer shall comply with the notice requirements prescribed under 71512
section 5709.83 of the Revised Code, unless the board has adopted 71513
a resolution under that section waiving its right to receive such 71514
a notice.71515

       (D) Except as provided in division (F) of this section, the 71516
tax exemption shall first apply in the year the construction or 71517
remodeling would first be taxable but for this section. In the 71518
case of remodeling that qualifies for exemption, a percentage, not 71519
to exceed one hundred per cent, of the amount by which the 71520
remodeling increased the assessed value of the structure shall be 71521
exempted from real property taxation. In the case of construction 71522
of a structure that qualifies for exemption, a percentage, not to 71523
exceed one hundred per cent, of the assessed value of the 71524
structure shall be exempted from real property taxation. In either 71525
case, the percentage shall be the percentage set forth in the 71526
agreement if the structure or remodeling is to be used for 71527
commercial or industrial purposes, or the percentage set forth in 71528
the resolution describing the community reinvestment area if the 71529
structure or remodeling is to be used for residential purposes.71530

       The construction of new structures and the remodeling of 71531
existing structures are hereby declared to be a public purpose for 71532
which exemptions from real property taxation may be granted for 71533
the following periods:71534

       (1) For every dwelling containing not more than two family 71535
units located within the same community reinvestment area and upon 71536
which the cost of remodeling is at least two thousand five hundred 71537
dollars, a period to be determined by the legislative authority 71538
adopting the resolution describing the community reinvestment area 71539
where the dwelling is located, but not exceeding ten years unless 71540
extended pursuant to division (D)(3) of this section;71541

       (2) For every dwelling containing more than two units and 71542
commercial or industrial properties, located within the same 71543
community reinvestment area, upon which the cost of remodeling is 71544
at least five thousand dollars, a period to be determined by the 71545
legislative authority adopting the resolution, but not exceeding 71546
twelve years unless extended pursuant to division (D)(3) of this 71547
section;71548

       (3) The period of exemption for a dwelling described in 71549
division (D)(1) or (2) of this section may be extended by a 71550
legislative authority for up to an additional ten years if the 71551
dwelling is a structure of historical or architectural 71552
significance, is a certified historic structure that has been 71553
subject to federal tax treatment under 26 U.S.C. 47 and 170(h), 71554
and units within the structure have been leased to individual 71555
tenants for five consecutive years;71556

       (4) Except as provided in division (F) of this section, for 71557
construction of every dwelling, and commercial or industrial 71558
structure located within the same community reinvestment area, a 71559
period to be determined by the legislative authority adopting the 71560
resolution, but not exceeding fifteen years.71561

       (E) Any person, board, or officer authorized by section 71562
5715.19 of the Revised Code to file complaints with the county 71563
board of revision, the board of county commissioners, the 71564
prosecuting attorney or treasurer of the county, the board of 71565
township trustees of any township with territory in the county, 71566
the board of education of any school district with any territory 71567
in the county, or the mayor or legislative authority of a 71568
municipal corporation with any territory in the county, may file a 71569
complaint with the housing officer challenging the continued 71570
exemption of any property granted an exemption under this section. 71571
A complaint against exemption shall be filed prior to the 71572
thirty-first day of December of the tax year for which taxation of 71573
the property is requested. The housing officer shall determine 71574
whether the property continues to meet the requirements for 71575
exemption and shall certify the housing officer's findings to the 71576
complainant. If the housing officer determines that the property 71577
does not meet the requirements for exemption, the housing officer 71578
shall notify the county auditor, who shall correct the tax list 71579
and duplicate accordingly.71580

       (F) The owner of a dwelling constructed in a community 71581
reinvestment area may file an application for an exemption after 71582
the year the construction first became subject to taxation. The 71583
application shall be processed in accordance with the procedures 71584
prescribed under this section and shall be granted if the 71585
construction that is the subject of the application otherwise 71586
meets the requirements for an exemption under this section. If 71587
approved, the exemption sought in the application first applies in 71588
the year the application is filed. An exemption approved pursuant 71589
to this division continues only for those years remaining in the 71590
period described in division (D)(4) of this section. No exemption 71591
may be claimed for any year in that period that precedes the year 71592
in which the application is filed.71593

       Sec. 3737.02.  (A) The fire marshal may collect fees to cover 71594
the costs of performing inspections and other duties that the fire 71595
marshal is authorized or required by law to perform. Except as 71596
provided in division (B) of this section, all fees collected by 71597
the fire marshal shall be deposited to the credit of the fire 71598
marshal's fund.71599

       (B) All of the following shall be credited to the underground 71600
storage tank administration fund, which is hereby created in the 71601
state treasury:71602

       (1) Fees collected under sections 3737.88 and 3737.881 of the 71603
Revised Code for operation of the underground storage tank and 71604
underground storage tank installer certification programs, moneys;71605

       (2) Moneys recovered under section 3737.89 of the Revised 71606
Code for the state's costs of undertaking corrective or 71607
enforcement actions under that section or section 3737.882 of the 71608
Revised Code, and fines;71609

       (3) Fines and penalties collected under section 3737.882 of 71610
the Revised Code shall be credited to the underground storage tank 71611
administration fund, which is hereby created in the state 71612
treasury. All;71613

       (4) Amounts repaid for underground storage tank revolving 71614
loans under section 3737.883 of the Revised Code.71615

       (C) All interest earned on moneys credited to the underground 71616
storage tank administration fund shall be credited to the fund. 71617
Moneys credited to the underground storage tank administration 71618
fund shall be used by the fire marshal for implementation and 71619
enforcement of underground storage tank, corrective action, and 71620
installer certification programs under sections 3737.88 to 3737.89 71621
of the Revised Code. Only moneys described in divisions (B)(3) and 71622
(4) of this section may be used by the fire marshal to make 71623
underground storage tank revolving loans under section 3737.883 of 71624
the Revised Code, and no other moneys may be used to make those 71625
loans.71626

       (C)(D) The fire marshal shall take all actions necessary to 71627
obtain any federal funding available to carry out the fire 71628
marshal's responsibilities under sections 3737.88 to 3737.89 of 71629
the Revised Code and federal laws regarding the cleaning up of 71630
releases of petroleum, as "release" is defined in section 3737.87 71631
of the Revised Code, including, without limitation, any federal 71632
funds that are available to reimburse the state for the costs of 71633
undertaking corrective actions for such releases of petroleum. The 71634
state may, when appropriate, return to the United States any 71635
federal funds recovered under sections 3737.882 and 3737.89 of the 71636
Revised Code.71637

       Sec. 3737.83.  The fire marshal shall, as part of the state 71638
fire code, adopt rules to:71639

       (A) Establish minimum standards of performance for fire 71640
protection equipment and fire fighting equipment;71641

       (B) Establish minimum standards of training, fix minimum 71642
qualifications, and require certificates for all persons who 71643
engage in the business for profit of installing, testing, 71644
repairing, or maintaining fire protection equipment;71645

       (C) Provide for the issuance of certificates required under 71646
division (B) of this section and establish the fees to be charged 71647
for such certificates. A certificate shall be granted, renewed, or 71648
revoked according to rules the fire marshal shall adopt.71649

       (D) Establish minimum standards of flammability for consumer 71650
goods in any case where the federal government or any department 71651
or agency thereof has established, or may from time to time 71652
establish standards of flammability for consumer goods. The 71653
standards established by the fire marshal shall be identical to 71654
the minimum federal standards.71655

       In any case where the federal government or any department or 71656
agency thereof, establishes standards of flammability for consumer 71657
goods subsequent to the adoption of a flammability standard by the 71658
fire marshal, standards previously adopted by the fire marshal 71659
shall not continue in effect to the extent such standards are not 71660
identical to the minimum federal standards.71661

       With respect to the adoption of minimum standards of 71662
flammability, this division shall supersede any authority granted 71663
a political subdivision by any other section of the Revised Code.71664

       (E) Establish minimum standards pursuant to section 5104.05 71665
of the Revised Code for fire prevention and fire safety in child 71666
day-care centers and in type A family day-care homes, as defined 71667
in section 5104.01 of the Revised Code.71668

       (F) Establish minimum standards for fire prevention and 71669
safety in a residential facility licensed under section 5119.2271670
5119.34 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 71671
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 71672
unrelated adults. The fire marshal shall adopt the rules under 71673
this division in consultation with the director of mental health71674
mental health and addiction services and interested parties 71675
designated by the director of mental healthmental health and 71676
addiction services. 71677

       Sec. 3737.841.  As used in this section and section 3737.842 71678
of the Revised Code:71679

       (A) "Public occupancy" means all of the following:71680

       (1) Any state correctional institution as defined in section 71681
2967.01 of the Revised Code and any county, multicounty, 71682
municipal, or municipal-county jail or workhouse;71683

       (2) Any hospital as defined in section 3727.01 of the Revised 71684
Code, any hospital licensed by the department of mental health71685
mental health and addiction services under section 5119.205119.3371686
of the Revised Code, and any institution, hospital, or other place 71687
established, controlled, or supervised by the department of mental 71688
healthmental health and addiction services under Chapter 5119. of 71689
the Revised Code;71690

       (3) Any nursing home, residential care facility, or home for 71691
the aging as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code and 71692
any residential facility licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of 71693
the Revised Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and 71694
personal care services for three to sixteen unrelated adults;71695

       (4) Any child day-care center and any type A family day-care 71696
home as defined in section 5104.01 of the Revised Code;71697

       (5) Any public auditorium or stadium;71698

       (6) Public assembly areas of hotels and motels containing 71699
more than ten articles of seating furniture.71700

       (B) "Sell" includes sell, offer or expose for sale, barter, 71701
trade, deliver, give away, rent, consign, lease, possess for sale, 71702
or dispose of in any other commercial manner.71703

       (C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, 71704
"seating furniture" means any article of furniture, including 71705
children's furniture, that can be used as a support for an 71706
individual, or an individual's limbs or feet, when sitting or 71707
resting in an upright or reclining position and that either:71708

       (1) Is made with loose or attached cushions or pillows;71709

       (2) Is stuffed or filled in whole or in part with any filling 71710
material;71711

       (3) Is or can be stuffed or filled in whole or in part with 71712
any substance or material, concealed by fabric or any other 71713
covering.71714

       "Seating furniture" includes the cushions or pillows 71715
belonging to or forming a part of the furniture, the structural 71716
unit, and the filling material and its container or covering.71717

       (D) "Seating furniture" does not include, except if intended 71718
for use by children or in facilities designed for the care or 71719
treatment of humans, any of the following:71720

       (1) Cushions or pads intended solely for outdoor use;71721

       (2) Any article with a smooth surface that contains no more 71722
than one-half inch of filling material, if that article does not 71723
have an upholstered horizontal surface meeting an upholstered 71724
vertical surface;71725

       (3) Any article manufactured solely for recreational use or 71726
physical fitness purposes, including weight-lifting benches, 71727
gymnasium mats or pads, and sidehorses.71728

       (E) "Filling material" means cotton, wool, kapok, feathers, 71729
down, hair, liquid, or any other natural or artificial material or 71730
substance that is used or can be used as stuffing in seating 71731
furniture.71732

       Sec. 3737.88.  (A)(1) The fire marshal shall have 71733
responsibility for implementation of the underground storage tank 71734
program and corrective action program for releases of petroleum 71735
from underground storage tanks established by the "Resource 71736
Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 90 Stat. 2795, 42 U.S.C.A. 71737
6901, as amended. To implement the programs, the fire marshal may 71738
adopt, amend, and rescind such rules, conduct such inspections, 71739
require annual registration of underground storage tanks, issue 71740
such citations and orders to enforce those rules, enter into 71741
environmental covenants in accordance with sections 5301.80 to 71742
5301.92 of the Revised Code, and perform such other duties, as are 71743
consistent with those programs. The fire marshal, by rule, may 71744
delegate the authority to conduct inspections of underground 71745
storage tanks to certified fire safety inspectors.71746

       (2) In the place of any rules regarding release containment 71747
and release detection for underground storage tanks adopted under 71748
division (A)(1) of this section, the fire marshal, by rule, shall 71749
designate areas as being sensitive for the protection of human 71750
health and the environment and adopt alternative rules regarding 71751
release containment and release detection methods for new and 71752
upgraded underground storage tank systems located in those areas. 71753
In designating such areas, the fire marshal shall take into 71754
consideration such factors as soil conditions, hydrogeology, water 71755
use, and the location of public and private water supplies. Not 71756
later than July 11, 1990, the fire marshal shall file the rules 71757
required under this division with the secretary of state, director 71758
of the legislative service commission, and joint committee on 71759
agency rule review in accordance with divisions (B) and (H) of 71760
section 119.03 of the Revised Code.71761

       (3) Notwithstanding sections 3737.87 to 3737.89 of the 71762
Revised Code, a person who is not a responsible person, as 71763
determined by the fire marshal pursuant to this chapter, may 71764
conduct a voluntary action in accordance with Chapter 3746. of the 71765
Revised Code and rules adopted under it for either of the 71766
following:71767

       (a) A class C release;71768

       (b) A release, other than a class C release, that is subject 71769
to the rules adopted by the fire marshal under division (B) of 71770
section 3737.882 of the Revised Code pertaining to a corrective 71771
action, provided that both of the following apply:71772

       (i) The voluntary action also addresses hazardous substances 71773
or petroleum that is not subject to the rules adopted under 71774
division (B) of section 3737.882 of the Revised Code pertaining to 71775
a corrective action.71776

       (ii) The fire marshal has not issued an administrative order 71777
concerning the release or referred the release to the attorney 71778
general for enforcement. 71779

       The director of environmental protection, pursuant to section 71780
3746.12 of the Revised Code, may issue a covenant not to sue to 71781
any person who properly completes a voluntary action with respect 71782
to any such release in accordance with Chapter 3746. of the 71783
Revised Code and rules adopted under it.71784

       (B) Before adopting any rule under this section or section 71785
3737.881 or 3737.882 of the Revised Code, the fire marshal shall 71786
file written notice of the proposed rule with the chairperson of 71787
the state fire council, and, within sixty days after notice is 71788
filed, the council may file responses to or comments on and may 71789
recommend alternative or supplementary rules to the fire marshal. 71790
At the end of the sixty-day period or upon the filing of 71791
responses, comments, or recommendations by the council, the fire 71792
marshal may adopt the rule filed with the council or any 71793
alternative or supplementary rule recommended by the council.71794

       (C) The state fire council may recommend courses of action to 71795
be taken by the fire marshal in carrying out the fire marshal's 71796
duties under this section. The council shall file its 71797
recommendations in the office of the fire marshal, and, within 71798
sixty days after the recommendations are filed, the fire marshal 71799
shall file with the chairperson of the council comments on, and 71800
proposed action in response to, the recommendations.71801

       (D) For the purpose of sections 3737.87 to 3737.89 of the 71802
Revised Code, the fire marshal shall adopt, and may amend and 71803
rescind, rules identifying or listing hazardous substances. The 71804
rules shall be consistent with and equivalent in scope, coverage, 71805
and content to regulations identifying or listing hazardous 71806
substances adopted under the "Comprehensive Environmental 71807
Response, Compensation, and Liability Act of 1980," 94 Stat. 2779, 71808
42 U.S.C.A. 9602, as amended, except that the fire marshal shall 71809
not identify or list as a hazardous substance any hazardous waste 71810
identified or listed in rules adopted under division (A) of 71811
section 3734.12 of the Revised Code.71812

       (E) Except as provided in division (A)(3) of this section, 71813
the fire marshal shall have exclusive jurisdiction to regulate the 71814
storage, treatment, and disposal of petroleum contaminated soil 71815
generated from corrective actions undertaken in response to 71816
releases of petroleum from underground storage tank systems. The 71817
fire marshal may adopt, amend, or rescind such rules as the fire 71818
marshal considers to be necessary or appropriate to regulate the 71819
storage, treatment, or disposal of petroleum contaminated soil so 71820
generated.71821

       (F) The fire marshal shall adopt, amend, and rescind rules 71822
under sections 3737.88 to 3737.8823737.883 of the Revised Code in 71823
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.71824

       Sec. 3737.882.  (A) If, after an examination or inspection, 71825
the fire marshal or an assistant fire marshal finds that a release 71826
of petroleum is suspected, the fire marshal shall take such action 71827
as the fire marshal considers necessary to ensure that a suspected 71828
release is confirmed or disproved and, if the occurrence of a 71829
release is confirmed, to correct the release. These actions may 71830
include one or more of the following:71831

       (1) Issuance of a citation and order requiring the 71832
responsible person to undertake, in a manner consistent with the 71833
requirements of section 9003 of the "Resource Conservation and 71834
Recovery Act of 1976," 98 Stat. 3279, 42 U.S.C.A. 6991b, as 71835
amended, applicable regulations adopted thereunder, and rules 71836
adopted under division (B) of this section, such actions as are 71837
necessary to protect human health and the environment, including, 71838
without limitation, the investigation of a suspected release;71839

       (2) Requesting the attorney general to bring a civil action 71840
for appropriate relief, including a temporary restraining order or 71841
preliminary or permanent injunction, in the court of common pleas 71842
of the county in which a suspected release is located or in which 71843
the release occurred, to obtain the corrective action necessary to 71844
protect human health and the environment. In granting any such 71845
relief, the court shall ensure that the terms of the temporary 71846
restraining order or injunction are sufficient to provide 71847
comprehensive corrective action to protect human health and the 71848
environment.71849

       (3) Entry onto premises and undertaking corrective action 71850
with respect to a release of petroleum if, in the fire marshal's 71851
judgment, such action is necessary to protect human health and the 71852
environment. Any corrective action undertaken by the fire marshal 71853
or assistant fire marshal under division (A)(3) of this section 71854
shall be consistent with the requirements of sections 9003 and 71855
9005 of the "Resource Conservation and Recovery Act of 1976," 98 71856
Stat. 3279, 42 U.S.C.A. 6991b, and 98 Stat. 3284, 42 U.S.C.A. 71857
6991e, respectively, as amended, applicable regulations adopted 71858
thereunder, and rules adopted under division (B) of this section.71859

       (B) The fire marshal shall adopt, and may amend and rescind, 71860
such rules as the fire marshal considers necessary to establish 71861
standards for corrective actions for suspected and confirmed 71862
releases of petroleum and standards for the recovery of costs 71863
incurred for undertaking corrective or enforcement actions with 71864
respect to such releases. The rules also shall include 71865
requirements for financial responsibility for the cost of 71866
corrective actions for and compensation of bodily injury and 71867
property damage incurred by third parties that are caused by 71868
releases of petroleum. Rules regarding financial responsibility 71869
shall, without limitation, require responsible persons to provide 71870
evidence that the parties guaranteeing payment of the deductible 71871
amount established under division (E) or (F) of section 3737.91 of 71872
the Revised Code are, at a minimum, secondarily liable for all 71873
corrective action and third-party liability costs incurred within 71874
the scope of the deductible amount. The rules shall be consistent 71875
with sections 9003 and 9005 of the "Resource Conservation and 71876
Recovery Act of 1976," 98 Stat. 3279, 42 U.S.C.A. 6991b, and 98 71877
Stat. 3284, 42 U.S.C.A. 6991e, respectively, as amended, and 71878
applicable regulations adopted thereunder.71879

       (C)(1) No person shall violate or fail to comply with a rule 71880
adopted under division (A) of section 3737.88 of the Revised Code 71881
or division (B) of this section, and no person shall violate or 71882
fail to comply with the terms of any order issued under division 71883
(A) of section 3737.88 of the Revised Code or division (A)(1) of 71884
this section.71885

       (2) Whoever violates division (C)(1) of this section or 71886
division (F) of section 3737.881 of the Revised Code shall pay a 71887
civil penalty of not more than ten thousand dollars for each day 71888
that the violation continues. The fire marshal may, by order, 71889
assess a civil penalty under this division, or the fire marshal 71890
may request the attorney general to bring a civil action for 71891
imposition of the civil penalty in the court of common pleas of 71892
the county in which the violation occurred. If the fire marshal 71893
determines that a responsible person is in violation of division 71894
(C)(1) of this section or division (F) of section 3737.881 of the 71895
Revised Code, the fire marshal may request the attorney general to 71896
bring a civil action for appropriate relief, including a temporary 71897
restraining order or preliminary or permanent injunction, in the 71898
court of common pleas of the county in which the underground 71899
storage tank or, in the case of a violation of division (F)(3) of 71900
section 3737.881 of the Revised Code, the training program that is 71901
the subject of the violation is located. The court shall issue a 71902
temporary restraining order or an injunction upon a demonstration 71903
that a violation of division (C)(1) of this section or division 71904
(F) of section 3737.881 of the Revised Code has occurred or is 71905
occurring.71906

       Any action brought by the attorney general under this 71907
division is a civil action, governed by the Rules of Civil 71908
Procedure and other rules of practice and procedure applicable to 71909
civil actions.71910

       Nothing in section 3737.883 of the Revised Code limits the 71911
powers of the fire marshal or the attorney general under this 71912
division.71913

       (D) Orders issued under division (A) of section 3737.88 of 71914
the Revised Code and divisions (A)(1) and (C) of this section, and 71915
appeals thereof, are subject to and governed by Chapter 3745. of 71916
the Revised Code. Such orders shall be issued without the 71917
necessity for issuance of a proposed action under that chapter. 71918
For purposes of appeals of any such orders, the term "director" as 71919
used in Chapter 3745. of the Revised Code includes the fire 71920
marshal and an assistant fire marshal.71921

       (E) Any restrictions on the use of real property for the 71922
purpose of the achievement by an owner or operator of applicable 71923
standards pursuant to rules adopted under division (B) of this 71924
section shall be contained in a deed or in another instrument that 71925
is signed and acknowledged by the property owner in the same 71926
manner as a deed or an environmental covenant that is entered into 71927
in accordance with sections 5301.80 to 5301.92 of the Revised 71928
Code. The deed, other instrument containing the restrictions, or 71929
environmental covenant shall be filed and recorded in the office 71930
of the county recorder of the county in which the property is 71931
located. Pursuant to Chapter 5309. of the Revised Code, if the use 71932
restrictions or environmental covenant are connected with 71933
registered land, as defined in section 5309.01 of the Revised 71934
Code, the restrictions or environmental covenant shall be entered 71935
as a memorial on the page of the register where the title of the 71936
owner is registered.71937

       (F) Any restrictions on the use of real property for the 71938
purpose of the achievement by a person that is not a responsible 71939
person, or by a person undertaking a voluntary action of 71940
applicable standards pursuant to rules adopted under division (B) 71941
of this section shall be contained in an environmental covenant 71942
that is entered into in accordance with sections 5301.80 to 71943
5301.92 of the Revised Code. The environmental covenant shall be 71944
filed and recorded in the office of the county recorder of the 71945
county in which the property is located. Pursuant to Chapter 5309. 71946
of the Revised Code, if the environmental covenant is connected 71947
with registered land, as defined in section 5309.01 of the Revised 71948
Code, the environmental covenant shall be entered as a memorial on 71949
the page of the register where the title of the owner is 71950
registered.71951

       Sec. 3737.883.  (A) As used in this section, "political 71952
subdivision" has the same meaning as in section 2744.01 of the 71953
Revised Code, but includes a community improvement corporation as 71954
that term is defined in section 1724.01 of the Revised Code.71955

       (B)(1) A political subdivision may do any of the following 71956
for an underground storage tank located within its territorial 71957
boundaries if the political subdivision is the tank owner but not 71958
the operator:71959

       (a) Initiate, continue, or properly complete the closure in 71960
place or removal of an underground storage tank system;71961

       (b) Initiate, continue, or properly complete an assessment of 71962
the site of an underground storage tank or the site of an 71963
underground storage tank system;71964

       (c) Initiate, continue, or properly complete a corrective 71965
action.71966

       (2) A political subdivision may take any of the actions 71967
described in divisions (B)(1)(a) to (c) of this section for the 71968
site of a previously existing release to which all of the 71969
following apply:71970

       (a) The political subdivision is not the responsible person.71971

       (b) The release has not received a no-further-action 71972
determination from the state fire marshal.71973

       (c) The site of the release is located within the political 71974
subdivision's territorial boundaries.71975

       (d) The responsible person is not identifiable or the state 71976
fire marshal determines that an identified responsible person is 71977
unable to pay the costs of the action to be taken by the political 71978
subdivision.71979

       (C) The state fire marshal or the state fire marshal's 71980
designee shall administer an underground storage tank revolving 71981
loan program under which the state fire marshal issues loans to 71982
assist with the costs of actions taken under divisions (B)(1) and 71983
(2) of this section. The state fire marshal shall issue a loan 71984
under the program to a political subdivision that meets the 71985
application requirements of division (D) of this section and 71986
agrees to written terms and conditions of the loan with the state 71987
fire marshal.71988

       (D) A political subdivision shall apply to the state fire 71989
marshal for a loan under this section on a form prescribed by the 71990
state fire marshal. In the application, the political subdivision 71991
shall do all of the following:71992

       (1) Describe the action for which it is requesting a loan;71993

        (2) State the requested loan amount;71994

       (3) Explain how the political subdivision plans to spend, of 71995
its own funds, in undertaking the action for which the loan is 71996
requested, an amount equal to at least five per cent of the 71997
requested loan amount;71998

       (4) Provide any other information requested by the state fire 71999
marshal.72000

       (E) The state fire marshal shall consult with the director of 72001
development services before issuing any loan under this section.72002

       (F) A loan issued under this section shall not carry 72003
interest. No loan issued under this section shall have a term of 72004
more than ten years. The political subdivision shall repay a loan 72005
issued under this section to the state fire marshal.72006

       (G) If, at any time after the expenditure of loan funds by a 72007
political subdivision under division (B)(2) of this section, the 72008
state fire marshal or any law enforcement agency identifies the 72009
responsible person or determines, for any reason, that the 72010
previously identified responsible person was or is able to pay the 72011
costs of the action for which the loan was issued, the political 72012
subdivision may bring any appropriate proceedings against the 72013
responsible person to recover the costs incurred by the political 72014
subdivision. The proceedings may be brought in either the court of 72015
common pleas having jurisdiction where the underground storage 72016
tank is located or the court of common pleas of Franklin county.72017

       (H)(1) The state fire marshal shall adopt and may amend and 72018
rescind rules as necessary for the administration and operation of 72019
the underground storage tank revolving loan program. The rules may 72020
do any of the following:72021

       (a) Further define the entities considered "political 72022
subdivisions" eligible to receive loans;72023

       (b) Establish qualifying criteria for loan recipients;72024

       (c) Establish criteria for awarding loans, loan amounts, loan 72025
payment terms, and permissible expenditures of loan funds, 72026
including methods that the state fire marshal may use to verify 72027
the proper use of loan funds or to obtain reimbursement for or the 72028
return of improperly used loan funds.72029

       (2) The state fire marshal may adopt and may amend and 72030
rescind rules for the issuance of emergency underground storage 72031
tank revolving loans to qualifying entities during a natural 72032
disaster or another similar event as defined in the rules.72033

       Sec. 3737.883.        Sec. 3737.884.  On receipt of a notice pursuant to 72034
section 3123.43 of the Revised Code, the state fire marshal shall 72035
comply with sections 3123.41 to 3123.50 of the Revised Code and 72036
any applicable rules adopted under section 3123.63 of the Revised 72037
Code with respect to a certificate issued pursuant to section 72038
3737.34, 3737.65, 3737.83, or 3737.881 of the Revised Code.72039

       Sec. 3742.30. Each child at risk of lead poisoning shall 72040
undergo a blood lead screening test to determine whether the child 72041
has lead poisoning. The at-risk children shall undergo the test at 72042
times determined by rules the director of health shall adopt in 72043
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that are 72044
consistent with the guidelines established by the centers for 72045
disease control and prevention in the public health service of the 72046
United States department of health and human services. The rules 72047
shall specify which children are at risk of lead poisoning.72048

       Neither this section nor the rules adopted under it affect 72049
the coverage of blood lead screening tests by any publicly funded 72050
health program, including the medicaid program established by 72051
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code. Neither this section nor the 72052
rules adopted under it apply to a child if a parent of the child 72053
objects to the test on the grounds that the test conflicts with 72054
the parent's religious tenets and practices.72055

       Sec. 3742.31.  (A) The director of health shall establish, 72056
promote, and maintain a child lead poisoning prevention program. 72057
The program shall provide statewide coordination of screening, 72058
diagnosis, and treatment services for children under age six, 72059
including both of the following:72060

       (1) Collecting the social security numbers of all children 72061
screened, diagnosed, or treated as part of the program's case 72062
management system;72063

       (2) Disclosing to the office of medical assistance in the72064
department of job and family servicesmedicaid on at least an 72065
annual basis the identity and lead screening test results of each 72066
child screened pursuant to section 3742.30 of the Revised Code. 72067
The director shall collect and disseminate information relating to 72068
child lead poisoning and controlling lead hazards.72069

       (B) The director of health shall operate the child lead 72070
poisoning prevention program in accordance with rules adopted 72071
under section 3742.50 of the Revised Code. The director may enter 72072
into an interagency agreement with one or more other state 72073
agencies to perform one or more of the program's duties. The 72074
director shall supervise and direct an agency's performance of 72075
such a duty.72076

       Sec. 3742.32. (A) The director of health shall appoint an 72077
advisory council to assist in the ongoing development and 72078
implementation of the child lead poisoning prevention program 72079
created under section 3742.31 of the Revised Code. The advisory 72080
council shall consist of the following members:72081

       (1) A representative of the office of medical assistance in 72082
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid;72083

       (2) A representative of the bureau of child care in the 72084
department of job and family services;72085

       (3) A representative of the department of environmental 72086
protection;72087

       (4) A representative of the department of education;72088

       (5) A representative of the department of development 72089
services agency;72090

       (6) A representative of the Ohio apartment owner's 72091
association;72092

       (7) A representative of the Ohio help end lead poisoning 72093
coalition;72094

       (8) A representative of the Ohio environmental health 72095
association;72096

        (9) An Ohio representative of the national paint and coatings 72097
association.72098

       (B) The advisory council shall do both of the following:72099

       (1) Provide the director with advice regarding the policies 72100
the child lead poisoning prevention program should emphasize, 72101
preferred methods of financing the program, and any other matter 72102
relevant to the program's operation;72103

       (2) Submit a report of the state's activities to the 72104
governor, president of the senate, and speaker of the house of 72105
representatives on or before the first day of March each year.72106

       (C) The advisory council is not subject to sections 101.82 to 72107
101.87 of the Revised Code.72108

       Sec. 3742.51. (A) There is hereby created in the state 72109
treasury the lead poisoning prevention fund. The fund shall 72110
include all moneys appropriated to the department of health for 72111
the administration and enforcement of sections 3742.31 to 3742.50 72112
of the Revised Code and the rules adopted under those sections. 72113
Any grants, contributions, or other moneys collected by the 72114
department for purposes of preventing lead poisoning shall be 72115
deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the fund.72116

       (B) Moneys in the fund shall be used solely for the purposes 72117
of the child lead poisoning prevention program established under 72118
section 3742.31 of the Revised Code, including providing financial 72119
assistance to individuals who are unable to pay for the following:72120

       (1) Costs associated with obtaining lead tests and lead 72121
poisoning treatment for children under six years of age who are 72122
not covered by private medical insurance or are underinsured, are 72123
not eligible for the medicaid program established under Chapter 72124
5111. of the Revised Code or any other government health program, 72125
and do not have access to another source of funds to cover the 72126
cost of lead tests and any indicated treatments;72127

       (2) Costs associated with having lead abatement performed or 72128
having the preventive treatments specified in section 3742.41 of 72129
the Revised Code performed.72130

       Sec. 3745.11.  (A) Applicants for and holders of permits, 72131
licenses, variances, plan approvals, and certifications issued by 72132
the director of environmental protection pursuant to Chapters 72133
3704., 3734., 6109., and 6111. of the Revised Code shall pay a fee 72134
to the environmental protection agency for each such issuance and 72135
each application for an issuance as provided by this section. No 72136
fee shall be charged for any issuance for which no application has 72137
been submitted to the director.72138

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(2) of this 72139
section, beginning July 1, 1994, each person who owns or operates 72140
an air contaminant source and who is required to apply for and 72141
obtain a Title V permit under section 3704.036 of the Revised Code 72142
shall pay the fees set forth in this division. For the purposes of 72143
this division, total emissions of air contaminants may be 72144
calculated using engineering calculations, emissions factors, 72145
material balance calculations, or performance testing procedures, 72146
as authorized by the director.72147

       The following fees shall be assessed on the total actual 72148
emissions from a source in tons per year of the regulated 72149
pollutants particulate matter, sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, 72150
organic compounds, and lead:72151

       (1) Fifteen dollars per ton on the total actual emissions of 72152
each such regulated pollutant during the period July through 72153
December 1993, to be collected no sooner than July 1, 1994;72154

       (2) Twenty dollars per ton on the total actual emissions of 72155
each such regulated pollutant during calendar year 1994, to be 72156
collected no sooner than April 15, 1995;72157

       (3) Twenty-five dollars per ton on the total actual emissions 72158
of each such regulated pollutant in calendar year 1995, and each 72159
subsequent calendar year, to be collected no sooner than the 72160
fifteenth day of April of the year next succeeding the calendar 72161
year in which the emissions occurred.72162

       The fees levied under this division do not apply to that 72163
portion of the emissions of a regulated pollutant at a facility 72164
that exceed four thousand tons during a calendar year.72165

       (C)(1) The fees assessed under division (B) of this section 72166
are for the purpose of providing funding for the Title V permit 72167
program.72168

       (2) The fees assessed under division (B) of this section do 72169
not apply to emissions from any electric generating unit 72170
designated as a Phase I unit under Title IV of the federal Clean 72171
Air Act prior to calendar year 2000. Those fees shall be assessed 72172
on the emissions from such a generating unit commencing in 72173
calendar year 2001 based upon the total actual emissions from the 72174
generating unit during calendar year 2000 and shall continue to be 72175
assessed each subsequent calendar year based on the total actual 72176
emissions from the generating unit during the preceding calendar 72177
year.72178

       (3) The director shall issue invoices to owners or operators 72179
of air contaminant sources who are required to pay a fee assessed 72180
under division (B) or (D) of this section. Any such invoice shall 72181
be issued no sooner than the applicable date when the fee first 72182
may be collected in a year under the applicable division, shall 72183
identify the nature and amount of the fee assessed, and shall 72184
indicate that the fee is required to be paid within thirty days 72185
after the issuance of the invoice.72186

       (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(3) of this section, 72187
from January 1, 1994, through December 31, 2003, each person who 72188
owns or operates an air contaminant source; who is required to 72189
apply for a permit to operate pursuant to rules adopted under 72190
division (G), or a variance pursuant to division (H), of section 72191
3704.03 of the Revised Code; and who is not required to apply for 72192
and obtain a Title V permit under section 3704.036 of the Revised 72193
Code shall pay a single fee based upon the sum of the actual 72194
annual emissions from the facility of the regulated pollutants 72195
particulate matter, sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, organic 72196
compounds, and lead in accordance with the following schedule:72197

Total tons per year 72198
of regulated pollutants Annual fee 72199
emitted per facility 72200
More than 0, but less than 50    $ 75 72201
50 or more, but less than 100     300 72202
100 or more     700 72203

       (2) Except as provided in division (D)(3) of this section, 72204
beginning January 1, 2004, each person who owns or operates an air 72205
contaminant source; who is required to apply for a permit to 72206
operate pursuant to rules adopted under division (G), or a 72207
variance pursuant to division (H), of section 3704.03 of the 72208
Revised Code; and who is not required to apply for and obtain a 72209
Title V permit under section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay 72210
a single fee based upon the sum of the actual annual emissions 72211
from the facility of the regulated pollutants particulate matter, 72212
sulfur dioxide, nitrogen oxides, organic compounds, and lead in 72213
accordance with the following schedule:72214

Total tons per year 72215
of regulated pollutants Annual fee 72216
emitted per facility 72217
More than 0, but less than 10    $ 100 72218
10 or more, but less than 50      200 72219
50 or more, but less than 100      300 72220
100 or more      700 72221

       (3)(a) As used in division (D) of this section, "synthetic 72222
minor facility" means a facility for which one or more permits to 72223
install or permits to operate have been issued for the air 72224
contaminant sources at the facility that include terms and 72225
conditions that lower the facility's potential to emit air 72226
contaminants below the major source thresholds established in 72227
rules adopted under section 3704.036 of the Revised Code.72228

       (b) Beginning January 1, 2000, through June 30, 20142016, 72229
each person who owns or operates a synthetic minor facility shall 72230
pay an annual fee based on the sum of the actual annual emissions 72231
from the facility of particulate matter, sulfur dioxide, nitrogen 72232
dioxide, organic compounds, and lead in accordance with the 72233
following schedule:72234

Combined total tons 72235
per year of all regulated Annual fee 72236
pollutants emitted per facility 72237

Less than 10 $ 170 72238
10 or more, but less than 20   340 72239
20 or more, but less than 30   670 72240
30 or more, but less than 40 1,010 72241
40 or more, but less than 50 1,340 72242
50 or more, but less than 60 1,680 72243
60 or more, but less than 70 2,010 72244
70 or more, but less than 80 2,350 72245
80 or more, but less than 90 2,680 72246
90 or more, but less than 100 3,020 72247
100 or more 3,350 72248

       (4) The fees assessed under division (D)(1) of this section 72249
shall be collected annually no sooner than the fifteenth day of 72250
April, commencing in 1995. The fees assessed under division (D)(2) 72251
of this section shall be collected annually no sooner than the 72252
fifteenth day of April, commencing in 2005. The fees assessed 72253
under division (D)(3) of this section shall be collected no sooner 72254
than the fifteenth day of April, commencing in 2000. The fees 72255
assessed under division (D) of this section in a calendar year 72256
shall be based upon the sum of the actual emissions of those 72257
regulated pollutants during the preceding calendar year. For the 72258
purpose of division (D) of this section, emissions of air 72259
contaminants may be calculated using engineering calculations, 72260
emission factors, material balance calculations, or performance 72261
testing procedures, as authorized by the director. The director, 72262
by rule, may require persons who are required to pay the fees 72263
assessed under division (D) of this section to pay those fees 72264
biennially rather than annually.72265

       (E)(1) Consistent with the need to cover the reasonable costs 72266
of the Title V permit program, the director annually shall 72267
increase the fees prescribed in division (B) of this section by 72268
the percentage, if any, by which the consumer price index for the 72269
most recent calendar year ending before the beginning of a year 72270
exceeds the consumer price index for calendar year 1989. Upon 72271
calculating an increase in fees authorized by division (E)(1) of 72272
this section, the director shall compile revised fee schedules for 72273
the purposes of division (B) of this section and shall make the 72274
revised schedules available to persons required to pay the fees 72275
assessed under that division and to the public.72276

       (2) For the purposes of division (E)(1) of this section:72277

       (a) The consumer price index for any year is the average of 72278
the consumer price index for all urban consumers published by the 72279
United States department of labor as of the close of the 72280
twelve-month period ending on the thirty-first day of August of 72281
that year.72282

       (b) If the 1989 consumer price index is revised, the director 72283
shall use the revision of the consumer price index that is most 72284
consistent with that for calendar year 1989.72285

       (F) Each person who is issued a permit to install pursuant to 72286
rules adopted under division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised 72287
Code on or after July 1, 2003, shall pay the fees specified in the 72288
following schedules:72289

       (1) Fuel-burning equipment (boilers, furnaces, or process 72290
heaters used in the process of burning fuel for the primary 72291
purpose of producing heat or power by indirect heat transfer)72292

Input capacity (maximum) 72293
(million British thermal units per hour) Permit to install 72294
Greater than 0, but less than 10    $ 200 72295
10 or more, but less than 100      400 72296
100 or more, but less than 300     1000 72297
300 or more, but less than 500     2250 72298
500 or more, but less than 1000     3750 72299
1000 or more, but less than 5000     6000 72300
5000 or more     9000 72301

       Units burning exclusively natural gas, number two fuel oil, 72302
or both shall be assessed a fee that is one-half the applicable 72303
amount shown in division (F)(1) of this section.72304

       (2) Combustion turbines and stationary internal combustion 72305
engines designed to generate electricity72306

Generating capacity (mega watts) Permit to install 72307
0 or more, but less than 10    $  25 72308
10 or more, but less than 25      150 72309
25 or more, but less than 50      300 72310
50 or more, but less than 100      500 72311
100 or more, but less than 250     1000 72312
250 or more     2000 72313

       (3) Incinerators72314

Input capacity (pounds per hour) Permit to install 72315
0 to 100    $ 100 72316
101 to 500      500 72317
501 to 2000     1000 72318
2001 to 20,000     1500 72319
more than 20,000     3750 72320

       (4)(a) Process72321

Process weight rate (pounds per hour) Permit to install 72322
0 to 1000    $ 200 72323
1001 to 5000      500 72324
5001 to 10,000      750 72325
10,001 to 50,000     1000 72326
more than 50,000     1250 72327

       In any process where process weight rate cannot be 72328
ascertained, the minimum fee shall be assessed. A boiler, furnace, 72329
combustion turbine, stationary internal combustion engine, or 72330
process heater designed to provide direct heat or power to a 72331
process not designed to generate electricity shall be assessed a 72332
fee established in division (F)(4)(a) of this section. A 72333
combustion turbine or stationary internal combustion engine 72334
designed to generate electricity shall be assessed a fee 72335
established in division (F)(2) of this section.72336

       (b) Notwithstanding division (F)(4)(a) of this section, any 72337
person issued a permit to install pursuant to rules adopted under 72338
division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay the 72339
fees set forth in division (F)(4)(c) of this section for a process 72340
used in any of the following industries, as identified by the 72341
applicable two-digit, three-digit, or four-digit standard 72342
industrial classification code according to the Standard 72343
Industrial Classification Manual published by the United States 72344
office of management and budget in the executive office of the 72345
president, 1987, as revised:72346

        Major group 10, metal mining;72347

       Major group 12, coal mining;72348

       Major group 14, mining and quarrying of nonmetallic minerals;72349

       Industry group 204, grain mill products;72350

       2873 Nitrogen fertilizers;72351

       2874 Phosphatic fertilizers;72352

       3281 Cut stone and stone products;72353

       3295 Minerals and earth, ground or otherwise treated;72354

       4221 Grain elevators (storage only);72355

       5159 Farm related raw materials;72356

       5261 Retail nurseries and lawn and garden supply stores.72357

       (c) The fees set forth in the following schedule apply to the 72358
issuance of a permit to install pursuant to rules adopted under 72359
division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code for a process 72360
identified in division (F)(4)(b) of this section:72361

Process weight rate (pounds per hour) Permit to install 72362
0 to 10,000   $  200 72363
10,001 to 50,000      400 72364
50,001 to 100,000      500 72365
100,001 to 200,000      600 72366
200,001 to 400,000      750 72367
400,001 or more      900 72368

       (5) Storage tanks72369

Gallons (maximum useful capacity) Permit to install 72370
0 to 20,000   $  100 72371
20,001 to 40,000      150 72372
40,001 to 100,000      250 72373
100,001 to 500,000      400 72374
500,001 or greater      750 72375

       (6) Gasoline/fuel dispensing facilities72376

For each gasoline/fuel 72377
dispensing facility (includes all Permit to install 72378
units at the facility)     $ 100 72379

       (7) Dry cleaning facilities72380

For each dry cleaning 72381
facility (includes all units Permit to install 72382
at the facility)     $ 100 72383

       (8) Registration status72384

For each source covered Permit to install 72385
by registration status     $  75 72386

       (G) An owner or operator who is responsible for an asbestos 72387
demolition or renovation project pursuant to rules adopted under 72388
section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay the fees set forth 72389
in the following schedule:72390

Action Fee 72391
Each notification $75 72392
Asbestos removal $3/unit 72393
Asbestos cleanup $4/cubic yard 72394

For purposes of this division, "unit" means any combination of 72395
linear feet or square feet equal to fifty.72396

       (H) A person who is issued an extension of time for a permit 72397
to install an air contaminant source pursuant to rules adopted 72398
under division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall 72399
pay a fee equal to one-half the fee originally assessed for the 72400
permit to install under this section, except that the fee for such 72401
an extension shall not exceed two hundred dollars.72402

       (I) A person who is issued a modification to a permit to 72403
install an air contaminant source pursuant to rules adopted under 72404
section 3704.03 of the Revised Code shall pay a fee equal to 72405
one-half of the fee that would be assessed under this section to 72406
obtain a permit to install the source. The fee assessed by this 72407
division only applies to modifications that are initiated by the 72408
owner or operator of the source and shall not exceed two thousand 72409
dollars.72410

       (J) Notwithstanding division (F) of this section, a person 72411
who applies for or obtains a permit to install pursuant to rules 72412
adopted under division (F) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code 72413
after the date actual construction of the source began shall pay a 72414
fee for the permit to install that is equal to twice the fee that 72415
otherwise would be assessed under the applicable division unless 72416
the applicant received authorization to begin construction under 72417
division (W) of section 3704.03 of the Revised Code. This division 72418
only applies to sources for which actual construction of the 72419
source begins on or after July 1, 1993. The imposition or payment 72420
of the fee established in this division does not preclude the 72421
director from taking any administrative or judicial enforcement 72422
action under this chapter, Chapter 3704., 3714., 3734., or 6111. 72423
of the Revised Code, or a rule adopted under any of them, in 72424
connection with a violation of rules adopted under division (F) of 72425
section 3704.03 of the Revised Code.72426

       As used in this division, "actual construction of the source" 72427
means the initiation of physical on-site construction activities 72428
in connection with improvements to the source that are permanent 72429
in nature, including, without limitation, the installation of 72430
building supports and foundations and the laying of underground 72431
pipework.72432

       (K)(1) Money received under division (B) of this section 72433
shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the 72434
Title V clean air fund created in section 3704.035 of the Revised 72435
Code. Annually, fifty cents per ton of each fee assessed under 72436
division (B) of this section on actual emissions from a source and 72437
received by the environmental protection agency pursuant to that 72438
division shall be transferred using an interstate transfer voucher 72439
to the state treasury to the credit of the small business 72440
assistance fund created in section 3706.19 of the Revised Code. In 72441
addition, annually, the amount of money necessary for the 72442
operation of the office of ombudsperson as determined under 72443
division (B) of that section shall be transferred to the state 72444
treasury to the credit of the small business ombudsperson fund 72445
created by that section.72446

       (2) Money received by the agency pursuant to divisions (D), 72447
(F), (G), (H), (I), and (J) of this section shall be deposited in 72448
the state treasury to the credit of the non-Title V clean air fund 72449
created in section 3704.035 of the Revised Code.72450

       (L)(1)(a) Except as otherwise provided in division (L)(1)(b) 72451
or (c) of this section, a person issued a water discharge permit 72452
or renewal of a water discharge permit pursuant to Chapter 6111. 72453
of the Revised Code shall pay a fee based on each point source to 72454
which the issuance is applicable in accordance with the following 72455
schedule:72456

Design flow discharge (gallons per day) Fee  72457
0 to 1000 $  0 72458
1,001 to 5000 100 72459
5,001 to 50,000 200 72460
50,001 to 100,000 300 72461
100,001 to 300,000 525 72462
over 300,000 750 72463

       (b) Notwithstanding the fee schedule specified in division 72464
(L)(1)(a) of this section, the fee for a water discharge permit 72465
that is applicable to coal mining operations regulated under 72466
Chapter 1513. of the Revised Code shall be two hundred fifty 72467
dollars per mine.72468

       (c) Notwithstanding the fee schedule specified in division 72469
(L)(1)(a) of this section, the fee for a water discharge permit 72470
for a public discharger identified by I in the third character of 72471
the permittee's NPDES permit number shall not exceed seven hundred 72472
fifty dollars.72473

       (2) A person applying for a plan approval for a wastewater 72474
treatment works pursuant to section 6111.44, 6111.45, or 6111.46 72475
of the Revised Code shall pay a fee of one hundred dollars plus 72476
sixty-five one-hundredths of one per cent of the estimated project 72477
cost through June 30, 20142016, and one hundred dollars plus 72478
two-tenths of one per cent of the estimated project cost on and 72479
after July 1, 20142016, except that the total fee shall not 72480
exceed fifteen thousand dollars through June 30, 20142016, and 72481
five thousand dollars on and after July 1, 20142016. The fee 72482
shall be paid at the time the application is submitted.72483

       (3) A person issued a modification of a water discharge 72484
permit shall pay a fee equal to one-half the fee that otherwise 72485
would be charged for a water discharge permit, except that the fee 72486
for the modification shall not exceed four hundred dollars.72487

       (4) A person who has entered into an agreement with the 72488
director under section 6111.14 of the Revised Code shall pay an 72489
administrative service fee for each plan submitted under that 72490
section for approval that shall not exceed the minimum amount 72491
necessary to pay administrative costs directly attributable to 72492
processing plan approvals. The director annually shall calculate 72493
the fee and shall notify all persons who have entered into 72494
agreements under that section, or who have applied for agreements, 72495
of the amount of the fee.72496

       (5)(a)(i) Not later than January 30, 20122014, and January 72497
30, 20132015, a person holding an NPDES discharge permit issued 72498
pursuant to Chapter 6111. of the Revised Code with an average 72499
daily discharge flow of five thousand gallons or more shall pay a 72500
nonrefundable annual discharge fee. Any person who fails to pay 72501
the fee at that time shall pay an additional amount that equals 72502
ten per cent of the required annual discharge fee.72503

       (ii) The billing year for the annual discharge fee 72504
established in division (L)(5)(a)(i) of this section shall consist 72505
of a twelve-month period beginning on the first day of January of 72506
the year preceding the date when the annual discharge fee is due. 72507
In the case of an existing source that permanently ceases to 72508
discharge during a billing year, the director shall reduce the 72509
annual discharge fee, including the surcharge applicable to 72510
certain industrial facilities pursuant to division (L)(5)(c) of 72511
this section, by one-twelfth for each full month during the 72512
billing year that the source was not discharging, but only if the 72513
person holding the NPDES discharge permit for the source notifies 72514
the director in writing, not later than the first day of October 72515
of the billing year, of the circumstances causing the cessation of 72516
discharge.72517

       (iii) The annual discharge fee established in division 72518
(L)(5)(a)(i) of this section, except for the surcharge applicable 72519
to certain industrial facilities pursuant to division (L)(5)(c) of 72520
this section, shall be based upon the average daily discharge flow 72521
in gallons per day calculated using first day of May through 72522
thirty-first day of October flow data for the period two years 72523
prior to the date on which the fee is due. In the case of NPDES 72524
discharge permits for new sources, the fee shall be calculated 72525
using the average daily design flow of the facility until actual 72526
average daily discharge flow values are available for the time 72527
period specified in division (L)(5)(a)(iii) of this section. The 72528
annual discharge fee may be prorated for a new source as described 72529
in division (L)(5)(a)(ii) of this section.72530

       (b) An NPDES permit holder that is a public discharger shall 72531
pay the fee specified in the following schedule:72532

Average daily Fee due by 72533
discharge flow January 30, 72534
2012 2014, and 72535
January 30, 2013 2015 72536

5,000 to 49,999 $ 200 72537
50,000 to 100,000 500 72538
100,001 to 250,000 1,050 72539
250,001 to 1,000,000 2,600 72540
1,000,001 to 5,000,000 5,200 72541
5,000,001 to 10,000,000 10,350 72542
10,000,001 to 20,000,000 15,550 72543
20,000,001 to 50,000,000 25,900 72544
50,000,001 to 100,000,000 41,400 72545
100,000,001 or more 62,100 72546

       Public dischargers owning or operating two or more publicly 72547
owned treatment works serving the same political subdivision, as 72548
"treatment works" is defined in section 6111.01 of the Revised 72549
Code, and that serve exclusively political subdivisions having a 72550
population of fewer than one hundred thousand shall pay an annual 72551
discharge fee under division (L)(5)(b) of this section that is 72552
based on the combined average daily discharge flow of the 72553
treatment works.72554

       (c) An NPDES permit holder that is an industrial discharger, 72555
other than a coal mining operator identified by P in the third 72556
character of the permittee's NPDES permit number, shall pay the 72557
fee specified in the following schedule:72558

Average daily Fee due by 72559
discharge flow January 30, 72560
2012 2014, and 72561
January 30, 2013 2015 72562

5,000 to 49,999 $ 250 72563
50,000 to 250,000 1,200 72564
250,001 to 1,000,000 2,950 72565
1,000,001 to 5,000,000 5,850 72566
5,000,001 to 10,000,000 8,800 72567
10,000,001 to 20,000,000 11,700 72568
20,000,001 to 100,000,000 14,050 72569
100,000,001 to 250,000,000 16,400 72570
250,000,001 or more 18,700 72571

       In addition to the fee specified in the above schedule, an 72572
NPDES permit holder that is an industrial discharger classified as 72573
a major discharger during all or part of the annual discharge fee 72574
billing year specified in division (L)(5)(a)(ii) of this section 72575
shall pay a nonrefundable annual surcharge of seven thousand five 72576
hundred dollars not later than January 30, 20122014, and not 72577
later than January 30, 20132015. Any person who fails to pay the 72578
surcharge at that time shall pay an additional amount that equals 72579
ten per cent of the amount of the surcharge.72580

       (d) Notwithstanding divisions (L)(5)(b) and (c) of this 72581
section, a public discharger identified by I in the third 72582
character of the permittee's NPDES permit number and an industrial 72583
discharger identified by I, J, L, V, W, X, Y, or Z in the third 72584
character of the permittee's NPDES permit number shall pay a 72585
nonrefundable annual discharge fee of one hundred eighty dollars 72586
not later than January 30, 20122014, and not later than January 72587
30, 20132015. Any person who fails to pay the fee at that time 72588
shall pay an additional amount that equals ten per cent of the 72589
required fee.72590

       (6) Each person obtaining a national pollutant discharge 72591
elimination system general or individual permit for municipal 72592
storm water discharge shall pay a nonrefundable storm water 72593
discharge fee of one hundred dollars per square mile of area 72594
permitted. The fee shall not exceed ten thousand dollars and shall 72595
be payable on or before January 30, 2004, and the thirtieth day of 72596
January of each year thereafter. Any person who fails to pay the 72597
fee on the date specified in division (L)(6) of this section shall 72598
pay an additional amount per year equal to ten per cent of the 72599
annual fee that is unpaid.72600

       (7) The director shall transmit all moneys collected under 72601
division (L) of this section to the treasurer of state for deposit 72602
into the state treasury to the credit of the surface water 72603
protection fund created in section 6111.038 of the Revised Code.72604

       (8) As used in division (L) of this section:72605

       (a) "NPDES" means the federally approved national pollutant 72606
discharge elimination system program for issuing, modifying, 72607
revoking, reissuing, terminating, monitoring, and enforcing 72608
permits and imposing and enforcing pretreatment requirements under 72609
Chapter 6111. of the Revised Code and rules adopted under it.72610

       (b) "Public discharger" means any holder of an NPDES permit 72611
identified by P in the second character of the NPDES permit number 72612
assigned by the director.72613

       (c) "Industrial discharger" means any holder of an NPDES 72614
permit identified by I in the second character of the NPDES permit 72615
number assigned by the director.72616

       (d) "Major discharger" means any holder of an NPDES permit 72617
classified as major by the regional administrator of the United 72618
States environmental protection agency in conjunction with the 72619
director.72620

       (M) Through June 30, 20142016, a person applying for a 72621
license or license renewal to operate a public water system under 72622
section 6109.21 of the Revised Code shall pay the appropriate fee 72623
established under this division at the time of application to the 72624
director. Any person who fails to pay the fee at that time shall 72625
pay an additional amount that equals ten per cent of the required 72626
fee. The director shall transmit all moneys collected under this 72627
division to the treasurer of state for deposit into the drinking 72628
water protection fund created in section 6109.30 of the Revised 72629
Code.72630

        Except as provided in divisiondivisions (M)(4) and (5) of 72631
this section, fees required under this division shall be 72632
calculated and paid in accordance with the following schedule:72633

       (1) For the initial license required under section 6109.21 of 72634
the Revised Code for any public water system that is a community 72635
water system as defined in section 6109.01 of the Revised Code, 72636
and for each license renewal required for such a system prior to 72637
January 31, 20142016, the fee is:72638

Number of service connections Fee amount 72639
Not more than 49    $ 112 72640
50 to 99      176 72641

Number of service connections Average cost per connection 72642
100 to 2,499 $ 1.92 72643
2,500 to 4,999   1.48 72644
5,000 to 7,499   1.42 72645
7,500 to 9,999   1.34 72646
10,000 to 14,999   1.16 72647
15,000 to 24,999   1.10 72648
25,000 to 49,999   1.04 72649
50,000 to 99,999   .92 72650
100,000 to 149,999   .86 72651
150,000 to 199,999   .80 72652
200,000 or more   .76 72653

       A public water system may determine how it will pay the total 72654
amount of the fee calculated under division (M)(1) of this 72655
section, including the assessment of additional user fees that may 72656
be assessed on a volumetric basis.72657

       As used in division (M)(1) of this section, "service 72658
connection" means the number of active or inactive pipes, 72659
goosenecks, pigtails, and any other fittings connecting a water 72660
main to any building outlet.72661

       (2) For the initial license required under section 6109.21 of 72662
the Revised Code for any public water system that is not a 72663
community water system and serves a nontransient population, and 72664
for each license renewal required for such a system prior to 72665
January 31, 20142016, the fee is:72666

Population served Fee amount 72667
Fewer than 150 $    112 72668
150 to 299      176 72669
300 to 749      384 72670
750 to 1,499      628 72671
1,500 to 2,999    1,268 72672
3,000 to 7,499    2,816 72673
7,500 to 14,999    5,510 72674
15,000 to 22,499    9,048 72675
22,500 to 29,999   12,430 72676
30,000 or more   16,820 72677

       As used in division (M)(2) of this section, "population 72678
served" means the total number of individuals having access to the 72679
water supply during a twenty-four-hour period for at least sixty 72680
days during any calendar year. In the absence of a specific 72681
population count, that number shall be calculated at the rate of 72682
three individuals per service connection.72683

       (3) For the initial license required under section 6109.21 of 72684
the Revised Code for any public water system that is not a 72685
community water system and serves a transient population, and for 72686
each license renewal required for such a system prior to January 72687
31, 20142016, the fee is:72688

  Number of wells or sources, other than surface water, supplying system Fee amount 72689
1 $112 72690
2  112 72691
3  176 72692
4  278 72693
5  568 72694
System designated as using a 72695
surface water source  792 72696

       As used in division (M)(3) of this section, "number of wells 72697
or sources, other than surface water, supplying system" means 72698
those wells or sources that are physically connected to the 72699
plumbing system serving the public water system.72700

       (4) A public water system designated as using a surface water 72701
source shall pay a fee of seven hundred ninety-two dollars or the 72702
amount calculated under division (M)(1) or (2) of this section, 72703
whichever is greater.72704

       (5) An applicant for an initial license who is proposing to 72705
operate a new public water supply system shall submit a fee that 72706
equals a prorated amount of the appropriate fee for the remainder 72707
of the licensing year.72708

       (N)(1) A person applying for a plan approval for a public 72709
water supply system under section 6109.07 of the Revised Code 72710
shall pay a fee of one hundred fifty dollars plus thirty-five 72711
hundredths of one per cent of the estimated project cost, except 72712
that the total fee shall not exceed twenty thousand dollars 72713
through June 30, 20142016, and fifteen thousand dollars on and 72714
after July 1, 20142016. The fee shall be paid at the time the 72715
application is submitted.72716

       (2) A person who has entered into an agreement with the 72717
director under division (A)(2) of section 6109.07 of the Revised 72718
Code shall pay an administrative service fee for each plan 72719
submitted under that section for approval that shall not exceed 72720
the minimum amount necessary to pay administrative costs directly 72721
attributable to processing plan approvals. The director annually 72722
shall calculate the fee and shall notify all persons that have 72723
entered into agreements under that division, or who have applied 72724
for agreements, of the amount of the fee.72725

       (3) Through June 30, 20142016, the following fee, on a per 72726
survey basis, shall be charged any person for services rendered by 72727
the state in the evaluation of laboratories and laboratory 72728
personnel for compliance with accepted analytical techniques and 72729
procedures established pursuant to Chapter 6109. of the Revised 72730
Code for determining the qualitative characteristics of water:72731

microbiological 72732
MMO-MUG $2,000 72733
MF 2,100 72734
MMO-MUG and MF 2,550 72735
organic chemical 5,400 72736
trace metals 5,400 72737
standard chemistry 2,800 72738
limited chemistry 1,550 72739

       On and after July 1, 20142016, the following fee, on a per 72740
survey basis, shall be charged any such person:72741

microbiological $ 1,650 72742
organic chemicals 3,500 72743
trace metals 3,500 72744
standard chemistry 1,800 72745
limited chemistry 1,000 72746

The fee for those services shall be paid at the time the request 72747
for the survey is made. Through June 30, 2014 2016, an individual 72748
laboratory shall not be assessed a fee under this division more 72749
than once in any three-year period unless the person requests the 72750
addition of analytical methods or analysts, in which case the 72751
person shall pay eighteen hundred dollars for each additional 72752
survey requested.72753

       As used in division (N)(3) of this section:72754

        (a) "MF" means microfiltration.72755

        (b) "MMO" means minimal medium ONPG.72756

        (c) "MUG" means 4-methylumbelliferyl-beta-D-glucuronide.72757

        (d) "ONPG" means o-nitrophenyl-beta-D-galactopyranoside.72758

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under this 72759
division to the treasurer of state for deposit into the drinking 72760
water protection fund created in section 6109.30 of the Revised 72761
Code.72762

        (O) Any person applying to the director to take an 72763
examination for certification as an operator of a water supply 72764
system or wastewater system under Chapter 6109. or 6111. of the 72765
Revised Code that is administered by the director, at the time the 72766
application is submitted, shall pay a fee in accordance with the 72767
following schedule through November 30, 20142016:72768

Class A operator $ 80 72769
Class I operator   105 72770
Class II operator   120 72771
Class III operator   130 72772
Class IV operator   145 72773

       On and after December 1, 20142016, the applicant shall pay a 72774
fee in accordance with the following schedule:72775

Class A operator $ 50 72776
Class I operator   70 72777
Class II operator   80 72778
Class III operator   90 72779
Class IV operator   100 72780

       Any person applying to the director for certification as an 72781
operator of a water supply system or wastewater system who has 72782
passed an examination administered by an examination provider 72783
approved by the director shall pay a certification fee of 72784
forty-five dollars.72785

       A person shall pay a biennial certification renewal fee for 72786
each applicable class of certification in accordance with the 72787
following schedule:72788

Class A operator $25 72789
Class I operator  35 72790
Class II operator  45 72791
Class III operator  55 72792
Class IV operator  65 72793

        If a certification renewal fee is received by the director 72794
more than thirty days, but not more than one year after the 72795
expiration date of the certification, the person shall pay a 72796
certification renewal fee in accordance with the following 72797
schedule:72798

Class A operator $45 72799
Class I operator  55 72800
Class II operator  65 72801
Class III operator  75 72802
Class IV operator  85 72803

       A person who requests a replacement certificate shall pay a 72804
fee of twenty-five dollars at the time the request is made.72805

       Any person applying to be a water supply system or wastewater 72806
treatment system examination provider shall pay an application fee 72807
of five hundred dollars. Any person approved by the director as a 72808
water supply system or wastewater treatment system examination 72809
provider shall pay an annual fee that is equal to ten per cent of 72810
the fees that the provider assesses and collects for administering 72811
water supply system or wastewater treatment system certification 72812
examinations in this state for the calendar year. The fee shall be 72813
paid not later than forty-five days after the end of a calendar 72814
year.72815

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under this 72816
division to the treasurer of state for deposit into the drinking 72817
water protection fund created in section 6109.30 of the Revised 72818
Code.72819

       (P) Any person submitting an application for an industrial 72820
water pollution control certificate under section 6111.31 of the 72821
Revised Code, as that section existed before its repeal by H.B. 95 72822
of the 125th general assembly, shall pay a nonrefundable fee of 72823
five hundred dollars at the time the application is submitted. The 72824
director shall transmit all moneys collected under this division 72825
to the treasurer of state for deposit into the surface water 72826
protection fund created in section 6111.038 of the Revised Code. A 72827
person paying a certificate fee under this division shall not pay 72828
an application fee under division (S)(1) of this section. On and 72829
after June 26, 2003, persons shall file such applications and pay 72830
the fee as required under sections 5709.20 to 5709.27 of the 72831
Revised Code, and proceeds from the fee shall be credited as 72832
provided in section 5709.212 of the Revised Code.72833

       (Q) Except as otherwise provided in division (R) of this 72834
section, a person issued a permit by the director for a new solid 72835
waste disposal facility other than an incineration or composting 72836
facility, a new infectious waste treatment facility other than an 72837
incineration facility, or a modification of such an existing 72838
facility that includes an increase in the total disposal or 72839
treatment capacity of the facility pursuant to Chapter 3734. of 72840
the Revised Code shall pay a fee of ten dollars per thousand cubic 72841
yards of disposal or treatment capacity, or one thousand dollars, 72842
whichever is greater, except that the total fee for any such 72843
permit shall not exceed eighty thousand dollars. A person issued a 72844
modification of a permit for a solid waste disposal facility or an 72845
infectious waste treatment facility that does not involve an 72846
increase in the total disposal or treatment capacity of the 72847
facility shall pay a fee of one thousand dollars. A person issued 72848
a permit to install a new, or modify an existing, solid waste 72849
transfer facility under that chapter shall pay a fee of two 72850
thousand five hundred dollars. A person issued a permit to install 72851
a new or to modify an existing solid waste incineration or 72852
composting facility, or an existing infectious waste treatment 72853
facility using incineration as its principal method of treatment, 72854
under that chapter shall pay a fee of one thousand dollars. The 72855
increases in the permit fees under this division resulting from 72856
the amendments made by Amended Substitute House Bill 592 of the 72857
117th general assembly do not apply to any person who submitted an 72858
application for a permit to install a new, or modify an existing, 72859
solid waste disposal facility under that chapter prior to 72860
September 1, 1987; any such person shall pay the permit fee 72861
established in this division as it existed prior to June 24, 1988. 72862
In addition to the applicable permit fee under this division, a 72863
person issued a permit to install or modify a solid waste facility 72864
or an infectious waste treatment facility under that chapter who 72865
fails to pay the permit fee to the director in compliance with 72866
division (V) of this section shall pay an additional ten per cent 72867
of the amount of the fee for each week that the permit fee is 72868
late.72869

       Permit and late payment fees paid to the director under this 72870
division shall be credited to the general revenue fund.72871

       (R)(1) A person issued a registration certificate for a scrap 72872
tire collection facility under section 3734.75 of the Revised Code 72873
shall pay a fee of two hundred dollars, except that if the 72874
facility is owned or operated by a motor vehicle salvage dealer 72875
licensed under Chapter 4738. of the Revised Code, the person shall 72876
pay a fee of twenty-five dollars.72877

       (2) A person issued a registration certificate for a new 72878
scrap tire storage facility under section 3734.76 of the Revised 72879
Code shall pay a fee of three hundred dollars, except that if the 72880
facility is owned or operated by a motor vehicle salvage dealer 72881
licensed under Chapter 4738. of the Revised Code, the person shall 72882
pay a fee of twenty-five dollars.72883

       (3) A person issued a permit for a scrap tire storage 72884
facility under section 3734.76 of the Revised Code shall pay a fee 72885
of one thousand dollars, except that if the facility is owned or 72886
operated by a motor vehicle salvage dealer licensed under Chapter 72887
4738. of the Revised Code, the person shall pay a fee of fifty 72888
dollars.72889

       (4) A person issued a permit for a scrap tire monocell or 72890
monofill facility under section 3734.77 of the Revised Code shall 72891
pay a fee of ten dollars per thousand cubic yards of disposal 72892
capacity or one thousand dollars, whichever is greater, except 72893
that the total fee for any such permit shall not exceed eighty 72894
thousand dollars.72895

       (5) A person issued a registration certificate for a scrap 72896
tire recovery facility under section 3734.78 of the Revised Code 72897
shall pay a fee of one hundred dollars.72898

       (6) A person issued a permit for a scrap tire recovery 72899
facility under section 3734.78 of the Revised Code shall pay a fee 72900
of one thousand dollars.72901

       (7) In addition to the applicable registration certificate or 72902
permit fee under divisions (R)(1) to (6) of this section, a person 72903
issued a registration certificate or permit for any such scrap 72904
tire facility who fails to pay the registration certificate or 72905
permit fee to the director in compliance with division (V) of this 72906
section shall pay an additional ten per cent of the amount of the 72907
fee for each week that the fee is late.72908

       (8) The registration certificate, permit, and late payment 72909
fees paid to the director under divisions (R)(1) to (7) of this 72910
section shall be credited to the scrap tire management fund 72911
created in section 3734.82 of the Revised Code.72912

       (S)(1) Except as provided by divisions (L), (M), (N), (O), 72913
(P), and (S)(2) of this section, division (A)(2) of section 72914
3734.05 of the Revised Code, section 3734.79 of the Revised Code, 72915
and rules adopted under division (T)(1) of this section, any 72916
person applying for a registration certificate under section 72917
3734.75, 3734.76, or 3734.78 of the Revised Code or a permit, 72918
variance, or plan approval under Chapter 3734. of the Revised Code 72919
shall pay a nonrefundable fee of fifteen dollars at the time the 72920
application is submitted.72921

       Except as otherwise provided, any person applying for a 72922
permit, variance, or plan approval under Chapter 6109. or 6111. of 72923
the Revised Code shall pay a nonrefundable fee of one hundred 72924
dollars at the time the application is submitted through June 30, 72925
20142016, and a nonrefundable fee of fifteen dollars at the time 72926
the application is submitted on and after July 1, 20142016. 72927
Except as provided in division (S)(3) of this section, through 72928
June 30, 20142016, any person applying for a national pollutant 72929
discharge elimination system permit under Chapter 6111. of the 72930
Revised Code shall pay a nonrefundable fee of two hundred dollars 72931
at the time of application for the permit. On and after July 1, 72932
20142016, such a person shall pay a nonrefundable fee of fifteen 72933
dollars at the time of application.72934

       In addition to the application fee established under division 72935
(S)(1) of this section, any person applying for a national 72936
pollutant discharge elimination system general storm water 72937
construction permit shall pay a nonrefundable fee of twenty 72938
dollars per acre for each acre that is permitted above five acres 72939
at the time the application is submitted. However, the per acreage 72940
fee shall not exceed three hundred dollars. In addition, any 72941
person applying for a national pollutant discharge elimination 72942
system general storm water industrial permit shall pay a 72943
nonrefundable fee of one hundred fifty dollars at the time the 72944
application is submitted.72945

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under 72946
division (S)(1) of this section pursuant to Chapter 6109. of the 72947
Revised Code to the treasurer of state for deposit into the 72948
drinking water protection fund created in section 6109.30 of the 72949
Revised Code.72950

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under 72951
division (S)(1) of this section pursuant to Chapter 6111. of the 72952
Revised Code and under division (S)(3) of this section to the 72953
treasurer of state for deposit into the surface water protection 72954
fund created in section 6111.038 of the Revised Code.72955

       If a registration certificate is issued under section 72956
3734.75, 3734.76, or 3734.78 of the Revised Code, the amount of 72957
the application fee paid shall be deducted from the amount of the 72958
registration certificate fee due under division (R)(1), (2), or 72959
(5) of this section, as applicable.72960

       If a person submits an electronic application for a 72961
registration certificate, permit, variance, or plan approval for 72962
which an application fee is established under division (S)(1) of 72963
this section, the person shall pay the applicable application fee 72964
as expeditiously as possible after the submission of the 72965
electronic application. An application for a registration 72966
certificate, permit, variance, or plan approval for which an 72967
application fee is established under division (S)(1) of this 72968
section shall not be reviewed or processed until the applicable 72969
application fee, and any other fees established under this 72970
division, are paid.72971

       (2) Division (S)(1) of this section does not apply to an 72972
application for a registration certificate for a scrap tire 72973
collection or storage facility submitted under section 3734.75 or 72974
3734.76 of the Revised Code, as applicable, if the owner or 72975
operator of the facility or proposed facility is a motor vehicle 72976
salvage dealer licensed under Chapter 4738. of the Revised Code.72977

       (3) A person applying for coverage under a national pollutant 72978
discharge elimination system general discharge permit for 72979
household sewage treatment systems shall pay the following fees:72980

       (a) A nonrefundable fee of two hundred dollars at the time of 72981
application for initial permit coverage;72982

       (b) A nonrefundable fee of one hundred dollars at the time of 72983
application for a renewal of permit coverage.72984

       (T) The director may adopt, amend, and rescind rules in 72985
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that do all of 72986
the following:72987

       (1) Prescribe fees to be paid by applicants for and holders 72988
of any license, permit, variance, plan approval, or certification 72989
required or authorized by Chapter 3704., 3734., 6109., or 6111. of 72990
the Revised Code that are not specifically established in this 72991
section. The fees shall be designed to defray the cost of 72992
processing, issuing, revoking, modifying, denying, and enforcing 72993
the licenses, permits, variances, plan approvals, and 72994
certifications.72995

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under rules 72996
adopted under division (T)(1) of this section pursuant to Chapter 72997
6109. of the Revised Code to the treasurer of state for deposit 72998
into the drinking water protection fund created in section 6109.30 72999
of the Revised Code.73000

       The director shall transmit all moneys collected under rules 73001
adopted under division (T)(1) of this section pursuant to Chapter 73002
6111. of the Revised Code to the treasurer of state for deposit 73003
into the surface water protection fund created in section 6111.038 73004
of the Revised Code.73005

       (2) Exempt the state and political subdivisions thereof, 73006
including education facilities or medical facilities owned by the 73007
state or a political subdivision, or any person exempted from 73008
taxation by section 5709.07 or 5709.12 of the Revised Code, from 73009
any fee required by this section;73010

       (3) Provide for the waiver of any fee, or any part thereof, 73011
otherwise required by this section whenever the director 73012
determines that the imposition of the fee would constitute an 73013
unreasonable cost of doing business for any applicant, class of 73014
applicants, or other person subject to the fee;73015

       (4) Prescribe measures that the director considers necessary 73016
to carry out this section.73017

       (U) When the director reasonably demonstrates that the direct 73018
cost to the state associated with the issuance of a permit to 73019
install, license, variance, plan approval, or certification 73020
exceeds the fee for the issuance or review specified by this 73021
section, the director may condition the issuance or review on the 73022
payment by the person receiving the issuance or review of, in 73023
addition to the fee specified by this section, the amount, or any 73024
portion thereof, in excess of the fee specified under this 73025
section. The director shall not so condition issuances for which a 73026
fee is prescribed in division (L)(1)(b) of this section.73027

       (V) Except as provided in divisions (L), (M), and (P) of this 73028
section or unless otherwise prescribed by a rule of the director 73029
adopted pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, all fees 73030
required by this section are payable within thirty days after the 73031
issuance of an invoice for the fee by the director or the 73032
effective date of the issuance of the license, permit, variance, 73033
plan approval, or certification. If payment is late, the person 73034
responsible for payment of the fee shall pay an additional ten per 73035
cent of the amount due for each month that it is late.73036

       (W) As used in this section, "fuel-burning equipment," 73037
"fuel-burning equipment input capacity," "incinerator," 73038
"incinerator input capacity," "process," "process weight rate," 73039
"storage tank," "gasoline dispensing facility," "dry cleaning 73040
facility," "design flow discharge," and "new source treatment 73041
works" have the meanings ascribed to those terms by applicable 73042
rules or standards adopted by the director under Chapter 3704. or 73043
6111. of the Revised Code.73044

       (X) As used in divisions (B), (D), (E), (F), (H), (I), and 73045
(J) of this section, and in any other provision of this section 73046
pertaining to fees paid pursuant to Chapter 3704. of the Revised 73047
Code:73048

       (1) "Facility," "federal Clean Air Act," "person," and "Title 73049
V permit" have the same meanings as in section 3704.01 of the 73050
Revised Code.73051

       (2) "Title V permit program" means the following activities 73052
as necessary to meet the requirements of Title V of the federal 73053
Clean Air Act and 40 C.F.R. part 70, including at least:73054

       (a) Preparing and adopting, if applicable, generally 73055
applicable rules or guidance regarding the permit program or its 73056
implementation or enforcement;73057

       (b) Reviewing and acting on any application for a Title V 73058
permit, permit revision, or permit renewal, including the 73059
development of an applicable requirement as part of the processing 73060
of a permit, permit revision, or permit renewal;73061

       (c) Administering the permit program, including the 73062
supporting and tracking of permit applications, compliance 73063
certification, and related data entry;73064

       (d) Determining which sources are subject to the program and 73065
implementing and enforcing the terms of any Title V permit, not 73066
including any court actions or other formal enforcement actions;73067

       (e) Emission and ambient monitoring;73068

       (f) Modeling, analyses, or demonstrations;73069

       (g) Preparing inventories and tracking emissions;73070

       (h) Providing direct and indirect support to small business 73071
stationary sources to determine and meet their obligations under 73072
the federal Clean Air Act pursuant to the small business 73073
stationary source technical and environmental compliance 73074
assistance program required by section 507 of that act and 73075
established in sections 3704.18, 3704.19, and 3706.19 of the 73076
Revised Code.73077

       (3) "Organic compound" means any chemical compound of carbon, 73078
excluding carbon monoxide, carbon dioxide, carbonic acid, metallic 73079
carbides or carbonates, and ammonium carbonate.73080

       (Y)(1) Except as provided in divisions (Y)(2), (3), and (4) 73081
of this section, each sewage sludge facility shall pay a 73082
nonrefundable annual sludge fee equal to three dollars and fifty 73083
cents per dry ton of sewage sludge, including the dry tons of 73084
sewage sludge in materials derived from sewage sludge, that the 73085
sewage sludge facility treats or disposes of in this state. The 73086
annual volume of sewage sludge treated or disposed of by a sewage 73087
sludge facility shall be calculated using the first day of January 73088
through the thirty-first day of December of the calendar year 73089
preceding the date on which payment of the fee is due.73090

       (2)(a) Except as provided in division (Y)(2)(d) of this 73091
section, each sewage sludge facility shall pay a minimum annual 73092
sewage sludge fee of one hundred dollars.73093

       (b) The annual sludge fee required to be paid by a sewage 73094
sludge facility that treats or disposes of exceptional quality 73095
sludge in this state shall be thirty-five per cent less per dry 73096
ton of exceptional quality sludge than the fee assessed under 73097
division (Y)(1) of this section, subject to the following 73098
exceptions:73099

       (i) Except as provided in division (Y)(2)(d) of this section, 73100
a sewage sludge facility that treats or disposes of exceptional 73101
quality sludge shall pay a minimum annual sewage sludge fee of one 73102
hundred dollars.73103

       (ii) A sewage sludge facility that treats or disposes of 73104
exceptional quality sludge shall not be required to pay the annual 73105
sludge fee for treatment or disposal in this state of exceptional 73106
quality sludge generated outside of this state and contained in 73107
bags or other containers not greater than one hundred pounds in 73108
capacity.73109

       A thirty-five per cent reduction for exceptional quality 73110
sludge applies to the maximum annual fees established under 73111
division (Y)(3) of this section.73112

       (c) A sewage sludge facility that transfers sewage sludge to 73113
another sewage sludge facility in this state for further treatment 73114
prior to disposal in this state shall not be required to pay the 73115
annual sludge fee for the tons of sewage sludge that have been 73116
transferred. In such a case, the sewage sludge facility that 73117
disposes of the sewage sludge shall pay the annual sludge fee. 73118
However, the facility transferring the sewage sludge shall pay the 73119
one-hundred-dollar minimum fee required under division (Y)(2)(a) 73120
of this section.73121

       In the case of a sewage sludge facility that treats sewage 73122
sludge in this state and transfers it out of this state to another 73123
entity for disposal, the sewage sludge facility in this state 73124
shall be required to pay the annual sludge fee for the tons of 73125
sewage sludge that have been transferred.73126

       (d) A sewage sludge facility that generates sewage sludge 73127
resulting from an average daily discharge flow of less than five 73128
thousand gallons per day is not subject to the fees assessed under 73129
division (Y) of this section.73130

       (3) No sewage sludge facility required to pay the annual 73131
sludge fee shall be required to pay more than the maximum annual 73132
fee for each disposal method that the sewage sludge facility uses. 73133
The maximum annual fee does not include the additional amount that 73134
may be charged under division (Y)(5) of this section for late 73135
payment of the annual sludge fee. The maximum annual fee for the 73136
following methods of disposal of sewage sludge is as follows:73137

       (a) Incineration: five thousand dollars;73138

       (b) Preexisting land reclamation project or disposal in a 73139
landfill: five thousand dollars;73140

       (c) Land application, land reclamation, surface disposal, or 73141
any other disposal method not specified in division (Y)(3)(a) or 73142
(b) of this section: twenty thousand dollars.73143

       (4)(a) In the case of an entity that generates sewage sludge 73144
or a sewage sludge facility that treats sewage sludge and 73145
transfers the sewage sludge to an incineration facility for 73146
disposal, the incineration facility, and not the entity generating 73147
the sewage sludge or the sewage sludge facility treating the 73148
sewage sludge, shall pay the annual sludge fee for the tons of 73149
sewage sludge that are transferred. However, the entity or 73150
facility generating or treating the sewage sludge shall pay the 73151
one-hundred-dollar minimum fee required under division (Y)(2)(a) 73152
of this section.73153

       (b) In the case of an entity that generates sewage sludge and 73154
transfers the sewage sludge to a landfill for disposal or to a 73155
sewage sludge facility for land reclamation or surface disposal, 73156
the entity generating the sewage sludge, and not the landfill or 73157
sewage sludge facility, shall pay the annual sludge fee for the 73158
tons of sewage sludge that are transferred.73159

       (5) Not later than the first day of April of the calendar 73160
year following March 17, 2000, and each first day of April 73161
thereafter, the director shall issue invoices to persons who are 73162
required to pay the annual sludge fee. The invoice shall identify 73163
the nature and amount of the annual sludge fee assessed and state 73164
the first day of May as the deadline for receipt by the director 73165
of objections regarding the amount of the fee and the first day of 73166
July as the deadline for payment of the fee.73167

       Not later than the first day of May following receipt of an 73168
invoice, a person required to pay the annual sludge fee may submit 73169
objections to the director concerning the accuracy of information 73170
regarding the number of dry tons of sewage sludge used to 73171
calculate the amount of the annual sludge fee or regarding whether 73172
the sewage sludge qualifies for the exceptional quality sludge 73173
discount established in division (Y)(2)(b) of this section. The 73174
director may consider the objections and adjust the amount of the 73175
fee to ensure that it is accurate.73176

       If the director does not adjust the amount of the annual 73177
sludge fee in response to a person's objections, the person may 73178
appeal the director's determination in accordance with Chapter 73179
119. of the Revised Code.73180

       Not later than the first day of June, the director shall 73181
notify the objecting person regarding whether the director has 73182
found the objections to be valid and the reasons for the finding. 73183
If the director finds the objections to be valid and adjusts the 73184
amount of the annual sludge fee accordingly, the director shall 73185
issue with the notification a new invoice to the person 73186
identifying the amount of the annual sludge fee assessed and 73187
stating the first day of July as the deadline for payment.73188

       Not later than the first day of July, any person who is 73189
required to do so shall pay the annual sludge fee. Any person who 73190
is required to pay the fee, but who fails to do so on or before 73191
that date shall pay an additional amount that equals ten per cent 73192
of the required annual sludge fee.73193

       (6) The director shall transmit all moneys collected under 73194
division (Y) of this section to the treasurer of state for deposit 73195
into the surface water protection fund created in section 6111.038 73196
of the Revised Code. The moneys shall be used to defray the costs 73197
of administering and enforcing provisions in Chapter 6111. of the 73198
Revised Code and rules adopted under it that govern the use, 73199
storage, treatment, or disposal of sewage sludge.73200

       (7) Beginning in fiscal year 2001, and every two years 73201
thereafter, the director shall review the total amount of moneys 73202
generated by the annual sludge fees to determine if that amount 73203
exceeded six hundred thousand dollars in either of the two 73204
preceding fiscal years. If the total amount of moneys in the fund 73205
exceeded six hundred thousand dollars in either fiscal year, the 73206
director, after review of the fee structure and consultation with 73207
affected persons, shall issue an order reducing the amount of the 73208
fees levied under division (Y) of this section so that the 73209
estimated amount of moneys resulting from the fees will not exceed 73210
six hundred thousand dollars in any fiscal year.73211

       If, upon review of the fees under division (Y)(7) of this 73212
section and after the fees have been reduced, the director 73213
determines that the total amount of moneys collected and 73214
accumulated is less than six hundred thousand dollars, the 73215
director, after review of the fee structure and consultation with 73216
affected persons, may issue an order increasing the amount of the 73217
fees levied under division (Y) of this section so that the 73218
estimated amount of moneys resulting from the fees will be 73219
approximately six hundred thousand dollars. Fees shall never be 73220
increased to an amount exceeding the amount specified in division 73221
(Y)(7) of this section.73222

       Notwithstanding section 119.06 of the Revised Code, the 73223
director may issue an order under division (Y)(7) of this section 73224
without the necessity to hold an adjudicatory hearing in 73225
connection with the order. The issuance of an order under this 73226
division is not an act or action for purposes of section 3745.04 73227
of the Revised Code.73228

       (8) As used in division (Y) of this section:73229

       (a) "Sewage sludge facility" means an entity that performs 73230
treatment on or is responsible for the disposal of sewage sludge.73231

       (b) "Sewage sludge" means a solid, semi-solid, or liquid 73232
residue generated during the treatment of domestic sewage in a 73233
treatment works as defined in section 6111.01 of the Revised Code. 73234
"Sewage sludge" includes, but is not limited to, scum or solids 73235
removed in primary, secondary, or advanced wastewater treatment 73236
processes. "Sewage sludge" does not include ash generated during 73237
the firing of sewage sludge in a sewage sludge incinerator, grit 73238
and screenings generated during preliminary treatment of domestic 73239
sewage in a treatment works, animal manure, residue generated 73240
during treatment of animal manure, or domestic septage.73241

       (c) "Exceptional quality sludge" means sewage sludge that 73242
meets all of the following qualifications:73243

       (i) Satisfies the class A pathogen standards in 40 C.F.R. 73244
503.32(a);73245

       (ii) Satisfies one of the vector attraction reduction 73246
requirements in 40 C.F.R. 503.33(b)(1) to (b)(8);73247

       (iii) Does not exceed the ceiling concentration limitations 73248
for metals listed in table one of 40 C.F.R. 503.13;73249

       (iv) Does not exceed the concentration limitations for metals 73250
listed in table three of 40 C.F.R. 503.13.73251

       (d) "Treatment" means the preparation of sewage sludge for 73252
final use or disposal and includes, but is not limited to, 73253
thickening, stabilization, and dewatering of sewage sludge.73254

       (e) "Disposal" means the final use of sewage sludge, 73255
including, but not limited to, land application, land reclamation, 73256
surface disposal, or disposal in a landfill or an incinerator.73257

       (f) "Land application" means the spraying or spreading of 73258
sewage sludge onto the land surface, the injection of sewage 73259
sludge below the land surface, or the incorporation of sewage 73260
sludge into the soil for the purposes of conditioning the soil or 73261
fertilizing crops or vegetation grown in the soil.73262

       (g) "Land reclamation" means the returning of disturbed land 73263
to productive use.73264

       (h) "Surface disposal" means the placement of sludge on an 73265
area of land for disposal, including, but not limited to, 73266
monofills, surface impoundments, lagoons, waste piles, or 73267
dedicated disposal sites.73268

       (i) "Incinerator" means an entity that disposes of sewage 73269
sludge through the combustion of organic matter and inorganic 73270
matter in sewage sludge by high temperatures in an enclosed 73271
device.73272

       (j) "Incineration facility" includes all incinerators owned 73273
or operated by the same entity and located on a contiguous tract 73274
of land. Areas of land are considered to be contiguous even if 73275
they are separated by a public road or highway.73276

       (k) "Annual sludge fee" means the fee assessed under division 73277
(Y)(1) of this section.73278

       (l) "Landfill" means a sanitary landfill facility, as defined 73279
in rules adopted under section 3734.02 of the Revised Code, that 73280
is licensed under section 3734.05 of the Revised Code.73281

       (m) "Preexisting land reclamation project" means a 73282
property-specific land reclamation project that has been in 73283
continuous operation for not less than five years pursuant to 73284
approval of the activity by the director and includes the 73285
implementation of a community outreach program concerning the 73286
activity.73287

       Sec. 3745.113. (A) A person that applies for a state isolated 73288
wetland permit under Chapter 6111. of the Revised Code and rules 73289
adopted under it shall pay an application fee of two hundred 73290
dollars at the time of application.73291

       In addition, that person shall pay, at the time of 73292
application, a review fee of five hundred dollars per acre of the 73293
wetlands to be impacted.73294

       However, the review fee shall not exceed five thousand 73295
dollars per application. In addition, if an application is denied, 73296
the director of environmental protection shall refund to the 73297
applicant one-half of the amount of the review fee paid by the 73298
applicant under division (A) of this section.73299

       (B) If a person conducts any activities for which an 73300
individual state isolated wetland permit is required under Chapter 73301
6111. of the Revised Code and rules adopted under it without first 73302
obtaining such a permit, the person shall pay twice the amount of 73303
the application and review fees that the person otherwise would 73304
have been required to pay under division (A) of this section, not 73305
to exceed ten thousand dollars.73306

       (C) All moneys collected under this section shall be 73307
deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the dredge and 73308
fillsurface water protection fund created in section 6111.02973309
6111.038 of the Revised Code.73310

       (D) Fees established under this section shall not apply to 73311
any agency or department of the state or to any county, township, 73312
or municipal corporation in this state.73313

       Sec. 3745.72.  (A) The owner or operator of a facility or 73314
property who conducts an environmental audit of the facility or 73315
property and promptly and voluntarily discloses information 73316
contained in or derived from an audit report that is based on the 73317
audit and concerns an alleged violation of environmental laws to 73318
the director of the state agency that has jurisdiction over the 73319
alleged violation is immune from any administrative and civil 73320
penalties for the specific violation disclosed, except that where 73321
the disclosed violation has resulted in significant economic 73322
benefit to the owner or operator of the facility or property, 73323
there is no immunity for the economic benefit component of the 73324
administrative and civil penalties for that violation. An owner or 73325
operator asserting entitlement to such immunity has the burden of 73326
proving that entitlement by a preponderance of the evidence.73327

       (B) For the purposes of this section, a disclosure of 73328
information is voluntary with respect to an alleged violation of 73329
environmental laws only if all of the following apply:73330

       (1) The disclosure is made promptly after the information is 73331
obtained through the environmental audit by the owner or operator 73332
who conducts the environmental audit.73333

       (2) A reasonable, good faith effort is made to achieve 73334
compliance as quickly as practicable with environmental laws 73335
applicable to the information disclosed.73336

       (3) Compliance with environmental laws applicable to the 73337
information disclosed is achieved as quickly as practicable or 73338
within such period as is reasonably ordered by the director of the 73339
state agency that has jurisdiction over the alleged violation.73340

       (4) The owner or operator cooperates with the director of the 73341
state agency that has jurisdiction over the alleged violation in 73342
investigating the cause, nature, extent, and effects of the 73343
noncompliance.73344

       (5) The disclosure is not required by law, prior litigation, 73345
or an order by a court or a government agency.73346

       (6) The owner or operator who makes the disclosure does not 73347
know or have reason to know that a government agency charged with 73348
enforcing environmental laws has commenced an investigation or 73349
enforcement action that concerns a violation of such laws 73350
involving the activity.73351

       (C) For the purposes of this section, a disclosure shall be 73352
in writing, dated, and hand delivered or sent by certified mail to 73353
the director of the state agency that has jurisdiction over the 73354
alleged violation, and shall contain all of the following in a 73355
printed letter attached to the front of the disclosure:73356

       (1) The name, address, and telephone number of the owner or 73357
operator making the disclosure;73358

       (2) The name, title, address, and telephone number of one or 73359
more persons associated with the owner or operator who may be 73360
contacted regarding the disclosure;73361

       (3) A brief summary of the alleged violation of environmental 73362
laws, including, without limitation, the nature, date, and 73363
location of the alleged violation to the extent that the 73364
information is known by the owner or operator;73365

       (4) A statement that the information is part of an 73366
environmental audit report and is being disclosed under section 73367
3745.72 of the Revised Code in order to obtain the immunity 73368
provided by that section.73369

       (D) This section does not provide immunity from the payment 73370
of damages for harm to persons, property, or the environment; the 73371
payment of reasonable costs incurred by a government agency in 73372
responding to a disclosure; or responsibility for the remediation 73373
or cleanup of environmental harm under environmental laws.73374

       (E) The immunity provided by this section does not apply 73375
under any of the following circumstances:73376

       (1) Within the three-year period prior to disclosure, the 73377
owner or operator of a facility or property has committed 73378
significant violations that constitute a pattern of continuous or 73379
repeated violations of environmental laws, environmental related 73380
settlement agreements, or environmental related judicial orders 73381
and that arose from separate and distinct events. For the purposes 73382
of division (E)(1) of this section, a pattern of continuous or 73383
repeated violations also may be demonstrated by multiple 73384
settlement agreements related to substantially the same alleged 73385
significant violations that occurred within the three-year period 73386
immediately prior to the voluntary disclosure. Determination of 73387
whether a person has a pattern of continuous or repeated 73388
violations under division (E)(1) of this section shall be based on 73389
the compliance history of the property or specific facility at 73390
issue.73391

       (2) With respect to a specific violation, the violation 73392
resulted in serious harm or in imminent and substantial 73393
endangerment to human health or the environment.73394

       (3) With respect to a specific violation, the violation is of 73395
a specific requirement of an administrative or judicial order.73396

       (F) The immunity provided by this section applies only to 73397
disclosures made concerning environmental audits initiated after 73398
March 13, 1997, and completed before January 1, 2014, in 73399
accordance with the time frames specified in division (A) of 73400
section 3745.70 of the Revised Code.73401

       (G) The immunity provided by this section applies to a person 73402
who makes a good faith disclosure to a state agency under this 73403
section even though another state agency is determined to have 73404
jurisdiction over an alleged violation of environmental laws 73405
indicated in the disclosure.73406

       (H) Each state agency that receives a disclosure under this 73407
section promptly shall record receipt of the disclosure, determine 73408
whether it has jurisdiction over the alleged violation of 73409
environmental laws indicated in the disclosure, and, if it does 73410
not have such jurisdiction, deliver the disclosure documents to 73411
the director of a state agency that has jurisdiction over the 73412
alleged violation. If a disclosure indicates alleged violations of 73413
environmental laws that are under the jurisdiction of more than 73414
one state agency, the state agency that first receives the 73415
disclosure and has jurisdiction over any of the alleged violations 73416
promptly shall notify the director of each state agency that has 73417
jurisdiction over any of such alleged violations. The director of 73418
each state agency that receives a disclosure under this section, 73419
or is notified by another state agency that the director's agency 73420
has jurisdiction over an alleged violation of environmental laws 73421
indicated in the disclosure, promptly shall deliver written notice 73422
of that fact by certified mail to the owner or operator who made 73423
the disclosure. The notice shall identify the state agency that 73424
sends the notice; state the name, title, address, and telephone 73425
number of a person in the agency whom the owner or operator may 73426
contact regarding the disclosure; and state the name, address, and 73427
telephone number of the director of any other state agency 73428
notified about the disclosure because that agency has jurisdiction 73429
over an alleged violation of environmental laws indicated in the 73430
disclosure.73431

       Sec. 3769.08.  (A) Any person holding a permit to conduct a 73432
horse-racing meeting may provide a place in the race meeting 73433
grounds or enclosure at which the permit holder may conduct and 73434
supervise the pari-mutuel system of wagering by patrons of legal 73435
age on the live racing programs and simulcast racing programs 73436
conducted by the permit holder.73437

       The pari-mutuel method of wagering upon the live racing 73438
programs and simulcast racing programs held at or conducted within 73439
such race track, and at the time of such horse-racing meeting, or 73440
at other times authorized by the state racing commission, shall 73441
not be unlawful. No other place, except that provided and 73442
designated by the permit holder and except as provided in section 73443
3769.26 of the Revised Code, nor any other method or system of 73444
betting or wagering on live racing programs and simulcast racing 73445
programs, except the pari-mutuel system, shall be used or 73446
permitted by the permit holder; nor, except as provided in section 73447
3769.089 or 3769.26 of the Revised Code, shall the pari-mutuel 73448
system of wagering be conducted by the permit holder on any races 73449
except the races at the race track, grounds, or enclosure for 73450
which the person holds a permit. Each permit holder may retain as 73451
a commission an amount not to exceed eighteen per cent of the 73452
total of all moneys wagered on live racing programs and simulcast 73453
racing programs.73454

       The pari-mutuel wagering authorized by this section is 73455
subject to sections 3769.25 to 3769.28 of the Revised Code.73456

       (B) At the close of each racing day, each permit holder 73457
authorized to conduct thoroughbred racing, out of the amount 73458
retained on that day by the permit holder, shall pay by check, 73459
draft, or money order to the tax commissioner, as a tax, a sum 73460
equal to the following percentages of the total of all moneys 73461
wagered on live racing programs on that day and shall separately 73462
compute and pay by check, draft, or money order to the tax 73463
commissioner, as a tax, a sum equal to the following percentages 73464
of the total of all money wagered on simulcast racing programs on 73465
that day:73466

       (1) One per cent of the first two hundred thousand dollars 73467
wagered, or any part of that amount;73468

       (2) Two per cent of the next one hundred thousand dollars 73469
wagered, or any part of that amount;73470

       (3) Three per cent of the next one hundred thousand dollars 73471
wagered, or any part of that amount;73472

       (4) Four per cent of all sums over four hundred thousand 73473
dollars wagered.73474

       Except as otherwise provided in section 3769.089 of the 73475
Revised Code, each permit holder authorized to conduct 73476
thoroughbred racing shall use for purse money a sum equal to fifty 73477
per cent of the pari-mutuel revenues retained by the permit holder 73478
as a commission after payment of the state tax. This fifty per 73479
cent payment shall be in addition to the purse distribution from 73480
breakage specified in this section.73481

       Subject to division (M) of this section, from the moneys paid 73482
to the tax commissioner by thoroughbred racing permit holders, 73483
one-half of one per cent of the total of all moneys so wagered on 73484
a racing day shall be paid into the Ohio fairs fund created by 73485
section 3769.082 of the Revised Code, one and one-eighth per cent 73486
of the total of all moneys so wagered on a racing day shall be 73487
paid into the Ohio thoroughbred race fund created by section 73488
3769.083 of the Revised Code, and one-quarter of one per cent of 73489
the total of all moneys wagered on a racing day by each permit 73490
holder shall be paid into the state racing commission operating 73491
fund created by section 3769.03 of the Revised Code. The required 73492
payment to the state racing commission operating fund does not 73493
apply to county and independent fairs and agricultural societies. 73494
The remaining moneys may be retained by the permit holder, except 73495
as provided in this section with respect to the odd cents 73496
redistribution. Amounts paid into the nursing home franchise 73497
permit fee fund pursuant to this section and section 3769.26 of 73498
the Revised Code shall be used solely for the support of the 73499
PASSPORT program as determined in appropriations made by the 73500
general assembly. If the PASSPORT program is abolished, the amount 73501
that would have been paid to the nursing home franchise permit fee 73502
fund under this chapter shall be paid to the general revenue fund 73503
of the state. As used in this chapter, "PASSPORT program" means 73504
the PASSPORT program created underhas the same meaning as in73505
section 173.40173.51 of the Revised Code.73506

       The total amount paid to the Ohio thoroughbred race fund 73507
under this section and division (A) of section 3769.087 of the 73508
Revised Code shall not exceed by more than six per cent the total 73509
amount paid to this fund under this section and division (A) of 73510
that section during the immediately preceding calendar year.73511

       Each year, the total amount calculated for payment into the 73512
Ohio fairs fund under this division, division (C) of this section, 73513
and division (A) of section 3769.087 of the Revised Code shall be 73514
an amount calculated using the percentages specified in this 73515
division, division (C) of this section, and division (A) of 73516
section 3769.087 of the Revised Code.73517

       A permit holder may contract with a thoroughbred horsemen's 73518
organization for the organization to act as a representative of 73519
all thoroughbred owners and trainers participating in a 73520
horse-racing meeting conducted by the permit holder. A 73521
"thoroughbred horsemen's organization" is any corporation or 73522
association that represents, through membership or otherwise, more 73523
than one-half of the aggregate of all thoroughbred owners and 73524
trainers who were licensed and actively participated in racing 73525
within this state during the preceding calendar year. Except as 73526
otherwise provided in this paragraph, any moneys received by a 73527
thoroughbred horsemen's organization shall be used exclusively for 73528
the benefit of thoroughbred owners and trainers racing in this 73529
state through the administrative purposes of the organization, 73530
benevolent activities on behalf of the horsemen, promotion of the 73531
horsemen's rights and interests, and promotion of equine research. 73532
A thoroughbred horsemen's organization may expend not more than an 73533
aggregate of five per cent of its annual gross receipts, or a 73534
larger amount as approved by the organization, for dues, 73535
assessments, and other payments to all other local, national, or 73536
international organizations having as their primary purposes the 73537
promotion of thoroughbred horse racing, thoroughbred horsemen's 73538
rights, and equine research.73539

       (C) Except as otherwise provided in division (B) of this 73540
section, at the close of each racing day, each permit holder 73541
authorized to conduct harness or quarter horse racing, out of the 73542
amount retained that day by the permit holder, shall pay by check, 73543
draft, or money order to the tax commissioner, as a tax, a sum 73544
equal to the following percentages of the total of all moneys 73545
wagered on live racing programs and shall separately compute and 73546
pay by check, draft, or money order to the tax commissioner, as a 73547
tax, a sum equal to the following percentages of the total of all 73548
money wagered on simulcast racing programs on that day:73549

       (1) One per cent of the first two hundred thousand dollars 73550
wagered, or any part of that amount;73551

       (2) Two per cent of the next one hundred thousand dollars 73552
wagered, or any part of that amount;73553

       (3) Three per cent of the next one hundred thousand dollars 73554
wagered, or any part of that amount;73555

       (4) Four per cent of all sums over four hundred thousand 73556
dollars wagered.73557

       Except as otherwise provided in division (B) and subject to 73558
division (M) of this section, from the moneys paid to the tax 73559
commissioner by permit holders authorized to conduct harness or 73560
quarter horse racing, one-half of one per cent of all moneys 73561
wagered on that racing day shall be paid into the Ohio fairs fund; 73562
from the moneys paid to the tax commissioner by permit holders 73563
authorized to conduct harness racing, five-eighths of one per cent 73564
of all moneys wagered on that racing day shall be paid into the 73565
Ohio standardbred development fund; and from the moneys paid to 73566
the tax commissioner by permit holders authorized to conduct 73567
quarter horse racing, five-eighths of one per cent of all moneys 73568
wagered on that racing day shall be paid into the Ohio quarter 73569
horse development fund.73570

       (D) In addition, subject to division (M) of this section, 73571
beginning on January 1, 1996, from the money paid to the tax 73572
commissioner as a tax under this section and division (A) of 73573
section 3769.087 of the Revised Code by harness horse permit 73574
holders, one-half of one per cent of the amount wagered on a 73575
racing day shall be paid into the Ohio standardbred development 73576
fund. Beginning January 1, 1998, the payment to the Ohio 73577
standardbred development fund required under this division does 73578
not apply to county agricultural societies or independent 73579
agricultural societies.73580

       The total amount paid to the Ohio standardbred development 73581
fund under this division, division (C) of this section, and 73582
division (A) of section 3769.087 of the Revised Code and the total 73583
amount paid to the Ohio quarter horse development fund under this 73584
division and division (A) of that section shall not exceed by more 73585
than six per cent the total amount paid into the fund under this 73586
division, division (C) of this section, and division (A) of 73587
section 3769.087 of the Revised Code in the immediately preceding 73588
calendar year.73589

       (E) Subject to division (M) of this section, from the money 73590
paid as a tax under this chapter by harness and quarter horse 73591
permit holders, one-quarter of one per cent of the total of all 73592
moneys wagered on a racing day by each permit holder shall be paid 73593
into the state racing commission operating fund created by section 73594
3769.03 of the Revised Code. This division does not apply to 73595
county and independent fairs and agricultural societies.73596

       (F) Except as otherwise provided in section 3769.089 of the 73597
Revised Code, each permit holder authorized to conduct harness 73598
racing shall pay to the harness horsemen's purse pool a sum equal 73599
to fifty per cent of the pari-mutuel revenues retained by the 73600
permit holder as a commission after payment of the state tax. This 73601
fifty per cent payment is to be in addition to the purse 73602
distribution from breakage specified in this section.73603

       (G) In addition, each permit holder authorized to conduct 73604
harness racing shall be allowed to retain the odd cents of all 73605
redistribution to be made on all mutual contributions exceeding a 73606
sum equal to the next lowest multiple of ten.73607

       Forty per cent of that portion of that total sum of such odd 73608
cents shall be used by the permit holder for purse money for Ohio 73609
sired, bred, and owned colts, for purse money for Ohio bred 73610
horses, and for increased purse money for horse races. Upon the 73611
formation of the corporation described in section 3769.21 of the 73612
Revised Code to establish a harness horsemen's health and 73613
retirement fund, twenty-five per cent of that portion of that 73614
total sum of odd cents shall be paid at the close of each racing 73615
day by the permit holder to that corporation to establish and fund 73616
the health and retirement fund. Until that corporation is formed, 73617
that twenty-five per cent shall be paid at the close of each 73618
racing day by the permit holder to the tax commissioner or the tax 73619
commissioner's agent in the county seat of the county in which the 73620
permit holder operates race meetings. The remaining thirty-five 73621
per cent of that portion of that total sum of odd cents shall be 73622
retained by the permit holder.73623

       (H) In addition, each permit holder authorized to conduct 73624
thoroughbred racing shall be allowed to retain the odd cents of 73625
all redistribution to be made on all mutuel contributions 73626
exceeding a sum equal to the next lowest multiple of ten. Twenty 73627
per cent of that portion of that total sum of such odd cents shall 73628
be used by the permit holder for increased purse money for horse 73629
races. Upon the formation of the corporation described in section 73630
3769.21 of the Revised Code to establish a thoroughbred horsemen's 73631
health and retirement fund, forty-five per cent of that portion of 73632
that total sum of odd cents shall be paid at the close of each 73633
racing day by the permit holder to that corporation to establish 73634
and fund the health and retirement fund. Until that corporation is 73635
formed, that forty-five per cent shall be paid by the permit 73636
holder to the tax commissioner or the tax commissioner's agent in 73637
the county seat of the county in which the permit holder operates 73638
race meetings, at the close of each racing day. The remaining 73639
thirty-five per cent of that portion of that total sum of odd 73640
cents shall be retained by the permit holder.73641

       (I) In addition, each permit holder authorized to conduct 73642
quarter horse racing shall be allowed to retain the odd cents of 73643
all redistribution to be made on all mutuel contributions 73644
exceeding a sum equal to the next lowest multiple of ten, subject 73645
to a tax of twenty-five per cent on that portion of the total sum 73646
of such odd cents that is in excess of two thousand dollars during 73647
a calendar year, which tax shall be paid at the close of each 73648
racing day by the permit holder to the tax commissioner or the tax 73649
commissioner's agent in the county seat of the county within which 73650
the permit holder operates race meetings. Forty per cent of that 73651
portion of that total sum of such odd cents shall be used by the 73652
permit holder for increased purse money for horse races. The 73653
remaining thirty-five per cent of that portion of that total sum 73654
of odd cents shall be retained by the permit holder.73655

       (J)(1) To encourage the improvement of racing facilities for 73656
the benefit of the public, breeders, and horse owners, and to 73657
increase the revenue to the state from the increase in pari-mutuel 73658
wagering resulting from those improvements, the taxes paid by a 73659
permit holder to the state as provided for in this chapter shall 73660
be reduced by three-fourths of one per cent of the total amount 73661
wagered for those permit holders who make capital improvements to 73662
existing race tracks or construct new race tracks. The percentage 73663
of the reduction that may be taken each racing day shall equal 73664
seventy-five per cent of the taxes levied under divisions (B) and 73665
(C) of this section and section 3769.087 of the Revised Code, and 73666
division (F)(2) of section 3769.26 of the Revised Code, as 73667
applicable, divided by the calculated amount each fund should 73668
receive under divisions (B) and (C) of this section and section 73669
3769.087 of the Revised Code, and division (F)(2) of section 73670
3769.26 of the Revised Code and the reduction provided for in this 73671
division. If the resulting percentage is less than one, that 73672
percentage shall be multiplied by the amount of the reduction 73673
provided for in this division. Otherwise, the permit holder shall 73674
receive the full reduction provided for in this division. The 73675
amount of the allowable reduction not received shall be carried 73676
forward and applied against future tax liability. After any 73677
reductions expire, any reduction carried forward shall be treated 73678
as a reduction as provided for in this division.73679

       If more than one permit holder is authorized to conduct 73680
racing at the facility that is being built or improved, the cost 73681
of the new race track or capital improvement shall be allocated 73682
between or among all the permit holders in the ratio that the 73683
permit holders' number of racing days bears to the total number of 73684
racing days conducted at the facility.73685

       A reduction for a new race track or a capital improvement 73686
shall start from the day racing is first conducted following the 73687
date actual construction of the new race track or each capital 73688
improvement is completed and the construction cost has been 73689
approved by the racing commission, unless otherwise provided in 73690
this section. A reduction for a new race track or a capital 73691
improvement shall continue for a period of twenty-five years for 73692
new race tracks and for fifteen years for capital improvements if 73693
the construction of the capital improvement or new race track 73694
commenced prior to March 29, 1988, and for a period of ten years 73695
for new race tracks or capital improvements if the construction of 73696
the capital improvement or new race track commenced on or after 73697
March 29, 1988, but before June 6, 2001, or until the total tax 73698
reduction reaches seventy per cent of the approved cost of the new 73699
race track or capital improvement, as allocated to each permit 73700
holder, whichever occurs first. A reduction for a new race track 73701
or a capital improvement approved after June 6, 2001, shall 73702
continue until the total tax reduction reaches one hundred per 73703
cent of the approved cost of the new race track or capital 73704
improvement, as allocated to each permit holder.73705

       A reduction granted for a new race track or a capital 73706
improvement, the application for which was approved by the racing 73707
commission after March 29, 1988, but before June 6, 2001, shall 73708
not commence nor shall the ten-year period begin to run until all 73709
prior tax reductions with respect to the same race track have 73710
ended. The total tax reduction because of capital improvements 73711
shall not during any one year exceed for all permit holders using 73712
any one track three-fourths of one per cent of the total amount 73713
wagered, regardless of the number of capital improvements made. 73714
Several capital improvements to a race track may be consolidated 73715
in an application if the racing commission approved the 73716
application prior to March 29, 1988. No permit holder may receive 73717
a tax reduction for a capital improvement approved by the racing 73718
commission on or after March 29, 1988, at a race track until all 73719
tax reductions have ended for all prior capital improvements 73720
approved by the racing commission under this section or section 73721
3769.20 of the Revised Code at that race track. If there are two 73722
or more permit holders operating meetings at the same track, they 73723
may consolidate their applications. The racing commission shall 73724
notify the tax commissioner when the reduction of tax begins and 73725
when it ends.73726

       Each fiscal year the racing commission shall submit a report 73727
to the tax commissioner, the office of budget and management, and 73728
the legislative service commission. The report shall identify each 73729
capital improvement project undertaken under this division and in 73730
progress at each race track, indicate the total cost of each 73731
project, state the tax reduction that resulted from each project 73732
during the immediately preceding fiscal year, estimate the tax 73733
reduction that will result from each project during the current 73734
fiscal year, state the total tax reduction that resulted from all 73735
such projects at all race tracks during the immediately preceding 73736
fiscal year, and estimate the total tax reduction that will result 73737
from all such projects at all race tracks during the current 73738
fiscal year.73739

       (2) In order to qualify for the reduction in tax, a permit 73740
holder shall apply to the racing commission in such form as the 73741
commission may require and shall provide full details of the new 73742
race track or capital improvement, including a schedule for its 73743
construction and completion, and set forth the costs and expenses 73744
incurred in connection with it. The racing commission shall not 73745
approve an application unless the permit holder shows that a 73746
contract for the new race track or capital improvement has been 73747
let under an unrestricted competitive bidding procedure, unless 73748
the contract is exempted by the controlling board because of its 73749
unusual nature. In determining whether to approve an application, 73750
the racing commission shall consider whether the new race track or 73751
capital improvement will promote the safety, convenience, and 73752
comfort of the racing public and horse owners and generally tend 73753
towards the improvement of racing in this state.73754

       (3) If a new race track or capital improvement is approved by 73755
the racing commission and construction has started, the tax 73756
reduction may be authorized by the commission upon presentation of 73757
copies of paid bills in excess of one hundred thousand dollars or 73758
ten per cent of the approved cost, whichever is greater. After the 73759
initial authorization, the permit holder shall present copies of 73760
paid bills. If the permit holder is in substantial compliance with 73761
the schedule for construction and completion of the new race track 73762
or capital improvement, the racing commission may authorize the 73763
continuation of the tax reduction upon the presentation of the 73764
additional paid bills. The total amount of the tax reduction 73765
authorized shall not exceed the percentage of the approved cost of 73766
the new race track or capital improvement specified in division 73767
(J)(1) of this section. The racing commission may terminate any 73768
tax reduction immediately if a permit holder fails to complete the 73769
new race track or capital improvement, or to substantially comply 73770
with the schedule for construction and completion of the new race 73771
track or capital improvement. If a permit holder fails to complete 73772
a new race track or capital improvement, the racing commission 73773
shall order the permit holder to repay to the state the total 73774
amount of tax reduced. The normal tax paid by the permit holder 73775
shall be increased by three-fourths of one per cent of the total 73776
amount wagered until the total amount of the additional tax 73777
collected equals the total amount of tax reduced.73778

       (4) As used in this section:73779

       (a) "Capital improvement" means an addition, replacement, or 73780
remodeling of a structural unit of a race track facility costing 73781
at least one hundred thousand dollars, including, but not limited 73782
to, the construction of barns used exclusively for the race track 73783
facility, backstretch facilities for horsemen, paddock facilities, 73784
new pari-mutuel and totalizator equipment and appurtenances to 73785
that equipment purchased by the track, new access roads, new 73786
parking areas, the complete reconstruction, reshaping, and 73787
leveling of the racing surface and appurtenances, the installation 73788
of permanent new heating or air conditioning, roof replacement or 73789
restoration, installations of a permanent nature forming a part of 73790
the track structure, and construction of buildings that are 73791
located on a permit holder's premises. "Capital improvement" does 73792
not include the cost of replacement of equipment that is not 73793
permanently installed, ordinary repairs, painting, and maintenance 73794
required to keep a race track facility in ordinary operating 73795
condition.73796

       (b) "New race track" includes the reconstruction of a race 73797
track damaged by fire or other cause that has been declared by the 73798
racing commission, as a result of the damage, to be an inadequate 73799
facility for the safe operation of horse racing.73800

       (c) "Approved cost" includes all debt service and interest 73801
costs that are associated with a capital improvement or new race 73802
track and that the racing commission approves for a tax reduction 73803
under division (J) of this section.73804

       (5) The racing commission shall not approve an application 73805
for a tax reduction under this section if it has reasonable cause 73806
to believe that the actions or negligence of the permit holder 73807
substantially contributed to the damage suffered by the track due 73808
to fire or other cause. The racing commission shall obtain any 73809
data or information available from a fire marshal, law enforcement 73810
official, or insurance company concerning any fire or other damage 73811
suffered by a track, prior to approving an application for a tax 73812
reduction.73813

       (6) The approved cost to which a tax reduction applies shall 73814
be determined by generally accepted accounting principles and 73815
verified by an audit of the permit holder's records upon 73816
completion of the project by the racing commission, or by an 73817
independent certified public accountant selected by the permit 73818
holder and approved by the commission.73819

       (K) No other license or excise tax or fee, except as provided 73820
in sections 3769.01 to 3769.14 of the Revised Code, shall be 73821
assessed or collected from such licensee by any county, township, 73822
district, municipal corporation, or other body having power to 73823
assess or collect a tax or fee. That portion of the tax paid under 73824
this section by permit holders for racing conducted at and during 73825
the course of an agricultural exposition or fair, and that portion 73826
of the tax that would have been paid by eligible permit holders 73827
into the nursing home franchise permit fee fund as a result of 73828
racing conducted at and during the course of an agricultural 73829
exposition or fair, shall be deposited into the state treasury to 73830
the credit of the horse racing tax fund, which is hereby created 73831
for the use of the agricultural societies of the several counties 73832
in which the taxes originate. The state racing commission shall 73833
determine eligible permit holders for purposes of the preceding 73834
sentence, taking into account the breed of horse, the racing 73835
dates, the geographic proximity to the fair, and the best 73836
interests of Ohio racing. On the first day of any month on which 73837
there is money in the fund, the tax commissioner shall provide for 73838
payment to the treasurer of each agricultural society the amount 73839
of the taxes collected under this section upon racing conducted at 73840
and during the course of any exposition or fair conducted by the 73841
society.73842

       (L) From the tax paid under this section by harness track 73843
permit holders, the tax commissioner shall pay into the Ohio 73844
thoroughbred race fund a sum equal to a percentage of the amount 73845
wagered upon which the tax is paid. The percentage shall be 73846
determined by the tax commissioner and shall be rounded to the 73847
nearest one-hundredth. The percentage shall be such that, when 73848
multiplied by the amount wagered upon which tax was paid by the 73849
harness track permit holders in the most recent year for which 73850
final figures are available, it results in a sum that 73851
substantially equals the same amount of tax paid by the tax 73852
commissioner during that year into the Ohio fairs fund from taxes 73853
paid by thoroughbred permit holders. This division does not apply 73854
to county and independent fairs and agricultural societies.73855

       (M) Twenty-five per cent of the taxes levied on thoroughbred 73856
racing permit holders, harness racing permit holders, and quarter 73857
horse racing permit holders under this section, division (A) of 73858
section 3769.087 of the Revised Code, and division (F)(2) of 73859
section 3769.26 of the Revised Code shall be paid into the nursing 73860
home franchise permit fee fund. The tax commissioner shall pay any 73861
money remaining, after the payment into the nursing home franchise 73862
permit fee fund and the reductions provided for in division (J) of 73863
this section and in section 3769.20 of the Revised Code, into the 73864
Ohio fairs fund, Ohio thoroughbred race fund, Ohio standardbred 73865
development fund, Ohio quarter horse fund, and state racing 73866
commission operating fund as prescribed in this section and 73867
division (A) of section 3769.087 of the Revised Code. The tax 73868
commissioner shall thereafter use and apply the balance of the 73869
money paid as a tax by any permit holder to cover any shortage in 73870
the accounts of such funds resulting from an insufficient payment 73871
as a tax by any other permit holder. The moneys received by the 73872
tax commissioner shall be deposited weekly and paid by the tax 73873
commissioner into the funds to cover the total aggregate amount 73874
due from all permit holders to the funds, as calculated under this 73875
section and division (A) of section 3769.087 of the Revised Code, 73876
as applicable. If, after the payment into the nursing home 73877
franchise permit fee fund, sufficient funds are not available from 73878
the tax deposited by the tax commissioner to pay the required 73879
amounts into the Ohio fairs fund, Ohio standardbred development 73880
fund, Ohio thoroughbred race fund, Ohio quarter horse fund, and 73881
the state racing commission operating fund, the tax commissioner 73882
shall prorate on a proportional basis the amount paid to each of 73883
the funds. Any shortage to the funds as a result of a proration 73884
shall be applied against future deposits for the same calendar 73885
year when funds are available. After this application, the tax 73886
commissioner shall pay any remaining money paid as a tax by all 73887
permit holders into the nursing home franchise permit fee fund. 73888
This division does not apply to permit holders conducting racing 73889
at the course of an agricultural exposition or fair as described 73890
in division (K) of this section.73891

       Sec. 3769.087.  (A) In addition to the commission of eighteen 73892
per cent retained by each permit holder as provided in section 73893
3769.08 of the Revised Code, each permit holder shall retain an 73894
additional amount equal to four per cent of the total of all 73895
moneys wagered on each racing day on all wagering pools other than 73896
win, place, and show, of which amount retained an amount equal to 73897
three per cent of the total of all moneys wagered on each racing 73898
day on those pools shall be paid by check, draft, or money order 73899
to the tax commissioner, as a tax. Subject to the restrictions 73900
contained in divisions (B), (C), and (M) of section 3769.08 of the 73901
Revised Code, from such additional moneys paid to the tax 73902
commissioner:73903

       (1) Four-sixths shall be allocated to fund distribution as 73904
provided in division (M) of section 3769.08 of the Revised Code.73905

       (2) One-twelfth shall be paid into the Ohio fairs fund 73906
created by section 3769.082 of the Revised Code.73907

       (3) One-twelfth of the additional moneys paid to the tax 73908
commissioner by thoroughbred racing permit holders shall be paid 73909
into the Ohio thoroughbred race fund created by section 3769.083 73910
of the Revised Code.73911

       (4) One-twelfth of the additional moneys paid to the tax 73912
commissioner by harness horse racing permit holders shall be paid 73913
to the Ohio standardbred development fund created by section 73914
3769.085 of the Revised Code.73915

       (5) One-twelfth of the additional moneys paid to the tax 73916
commissioner by quarter horse racing permit holders shall be paid 73917
to the Ohio quarter horse development fund created by section 73918
3769.086 of the Revised Code.73919

       (6) One-sixth shall be paid into the state racing commission 73920
operating fund created by section 3769.03 of the Revised Code.73921

       The remaining one per cent that is retained of the total of 73922
all moneys wagered on each racing day on all pools other than win, 73923
place, and show, shall be retained by racing permit holders, and, 73924
except as otherwise provided in section 3769.089 of the Revised 73925
Code, racing permit holders shall use one-half for purse money and 73926
retain one-half.73927

       (B) In addition to the commission of eighteen per cent 73928
retained by each permit holder as provided in section 3769.08 of 73929
the Revised Code and the additional amount retained by each permit 73930
holder as provided in division (A) of this section, each permit 73931
holder shall retain an additional amount equal to one-half of one 73932
per cent of the total of all moneys wagered on each racing day on 73933
all wagering pools other than win, place, and show. The additional 73934
amount retained under this division shall be paid by check, draft, 73935
or money order to the tax commissioner, as a tax. The tax 73936
commissioner shall pay the amount of the tax received under this 73937
division to the state racing commission operating fund created by 73938
section 3769.03 of the Revised Code.73939

       (C) Unless otherwise agreed to by the video lottery sales 73940
agent and the applicable horsemen's association recognized by the 73941
state racing commission to represent such persons, the state 73942
racing commission mayshall direct through rule that a percentage 73943
of the lottery sales agent's commission as determined by the state 73944
lottery commission for conducting video lottery terminal gaming on 73945
behalf of the state be paid to the state racing commission for the 73946
benefit of breeding and racing in this state. The percentage so 73947
determined shall not be less than nine per cent or more than 73948
eleven per cent of the video lottery terminal income, and shall be 73949
a sliding scale based upon capital expenditures necessary to build 73950
the video lottery sales agent's facility. The aggregate of one 73951
hundred per cent of video lottery terminal income minus the 73952
lottery sales agent's commission percentage as determined by the 73953
state lottery commission plus the percentage of the lottery sale 73954
agent's commission, as determined by the state racing commission 73955
or otherwise agreed to by the video lottery sales agent and the 73956
applicable horsemen's association recognized by the state racing 73957
commission to represent such persons, for the benefit of breeding 73958
and racing in this state shall not exceed forty-five per cent of 73959
the video lottery terminal income. In addition, beginning July 1, 73960
2013, the state lottery commission shall adopt a rule to require 73961
the lottery sales agent conducting video lottery terminal gaming 73962
on behalf of the state to disperse to the state lottery commission 73963
one-half of one per cent of such a lottery sales agent's 73964
commission for the purpose of providing funding support to 73965
appropriate state agencies for programs that provide for gambling 73966
addiction and other related addiction services. The state lottery 73967
commission's rule also may require the lottery sales agent 73968
conducting video lottery terminal gaming on behalf of the state to 73969
disperse to the state lottery commission an additional amount up 73970
to one-half of one per cent of such a lottery sales agent's 73971
commission for that purpose.73972

       Sec. 3769.088.  (A) If any permit holder required by this 73973
chapter to pay the taxes levied by sections 3769.08, 3769.087, 73974
3769.26, and 3769.28 of the Revised Code fails to pay the taxes, 73975
the tax commissioner may make an assessment against the permit 73976
holder based upon any information in the commissioner's 73977
possession.73978

       A penalty of up to fifteen per cent may be added to the 73979
amount of every assessment made under this section. The 73980
commissioner may adopt rules providing for the imposition and 73981
remission of penalties added to assessments made under this 73982
section.73983

       The commissioner shall give the party assessed written notice 73984
of the assessment in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the 73985
Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner shall provide 73986
instructions on how to petition for reassessment and request a 73987
hearing on the petition.73988

       (B) Unless the party assessed files with the tax commissioner 73989
within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, 73990
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition for 73991
reassessment signed by the party assessed or that party's 73992
authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 73993
becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due and payable 73994
from the party assessed to the commissioner. The petition shall 73995
indicate the objections of the party assessed, but additional 73996
objections may be raised in writing if received by the 73997
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 73998
If the petition has been properly filed, the commissioner shall 73999
proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.74000

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 74001
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 74002
copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the assessment final 74003
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 74004
pleas in the county in which the place, track, or enclosure for 74005
which the permit was issued is located or the county in which the 74006
party assessed resides or has its principal place of business. If 74007
the party assessed maintains no place of business in this state 74008
and is not a resident of this state, the certified copy of the 74009
entry may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of 74010
common pleas of Franklin county.74011

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 74012
enter a judgment for the state against the party assessed in the 74013
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 74014
in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for state horse 74015
racing tax," and shall have the same effect as other judgments. 74016
Execution shall issue upon the judgment upon the request of the 74017
tax commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on execution 74018
shall apply to sales made under the judgment.74019

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety74020
within sixty days after the day the assessment was issued, the 74021
portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear 74022
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 74023
the Revised Code from the day the tax commissioner issues the 74024
assessment until the day the assessment is paid or until it is 74025
certified to the attorney general for collection under section 74026
131.02 of the Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid 74027
portion of the assessment is certified to the attorney general for 74028
collection, the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear 74029
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 74030
the Revised Code from the date of certification until the date it 74031
is paid in its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner 74032
as the tax and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment 74033
under this section.74034

       (D) All money collected by the tax commissioner under this 74035
section shall be treated as revenue arising from the taxes imposed 74036
by sections 3769.08, 3769.087, 3769.26, and 3769.28 of the Revised 74037
Code.74038

       Sec. 3770.02.  (A) Subject to the advice and consent of the 74039
senate, the governor shall appoint a director of the state lottery 74040
commission who shall serve at the pleasure of the governor. The 74041
director shall devote full time to the duties of the office and 74042
shall hold no other office or employment. The director shall meet 74043
all requirements for appointment as a member of the commission and 74044
shall, by experience and training, possess management skills that 74045
equip the director to administer an enterprise of the nature of a 74046
state lottery. The director shall receive an annual salary in 74047
accordance with pay range 48 of section 124.152 of the Revised 74048
Code.74049

       (B)(1) The director shall attend all meetings of the 74050
commission and shall act as its secretary. The director shall keep 74051
a record of all commission proceedings and shall keep the 74052
commission's records, files, and documents at the commission's 74053
principal office. All records of the commission's meetings shall 74054
be available for inspection by any member of the public, upon a 74055
showing of good cause and prior notification to the director.74056

       (2) The director shall be the commission's executive officer 74057
and shall be responsible for keeping all commission records and 74058
supervising and administering the state lottery in accordance with 74059
this chapter, and carrying out all commission rules adopted under 74060
section 3770.03 of the Revised Code.74061

       (C)(1) The director shall appoint an assistant director, 74062
deputy directors of marketing, operations, sales, finance, public 74063
relations, security, and administration, and as many regional 74064
managers as are required. The director may also appoint necessary 74065
professional, technical, and clerical assistants. All such 74066
officers and employees shall be appointed and compensated pursuant 74067
to Chapter 124. of the Revised Code. Regional and assistant 74068
regional managers, sales representatives, and any lottery 74069
executive account representatives shall remain in the unclassified 74070
service.74071

       (2) The director, in consultation with the director of 74072
administrative services, may establish standards of proficiency 74073
and productivity for commission field representatives.74074

       (D) The director shall request the bureau of criminal 74075
identification and investigation, the department of public safety, 74076
or any other state, local, or federal agency to supply the 74077
director with the criminal records of any job applicant and may 74078
periodically request the criminal records of commission employees. 74079
At or prior to the time of making such a request, the director 74080
shall require a job applicant or commission employee to obtain 74081
fingerprint cards prescribed by the superintendent of the bureau 74082
of criminal identification and investigation at a qualified law 74083
enforcement agency, and the director shall cause these fingerprint 74084
cards to be forwarded to the bureau of criminal identification and 74085
investigation and the federal bureau of investigation. The 74086
commission shall assume the cost of obtaining the fingerprint 74087
cards and shall pay to each agency supplying criminal records for 74088
each investigation under this division a reasonable fee, as 74089
determined by the agency.74090

       (E) The director shall license lottery sales agents pursuant 74091
to section 3770.05 of the Revised Code and, when it is considered 74092
necessary, may revoke or suspend the license of any lottery sales 74093
agent. The director may license video lottery technology 74094
providers, independent testing laboratories, and gaming employees, 74095
and promulgate rules relating thereto. When the director considers 74096
it necessary, the director may suspend or revoke the license of a 74097
video lottery technology provider, independent testing laboratory, 74098
or gaming employee, including suspension or revocation without 74099
affording an opportunity for a prior hearing under section 119.07 74100
of the Revised Code when the public safety, convenience, or trust 74101
requires immediate action.74102

       (F) The director shall confer at least once each month with 74103
the commission, at which time the director shall advise it 74104
regarding the operation and administration of the lottery. The 74105
director shall make available at the request of the commission all 74106
documents, files, and other records pertaining to the operation 74107
and administration of the lottery. The director shall prepare and 74108
make available to the commission each month a complete and 74109
accurate accounting of lottery revenues, prize money disbursements 74110
and the cost of goods and services awarded as prizes, operating 74111
expenses, and all other relevant financial information, including 74112
an accounting of all transfers made from any lottery funds in the 74113
custody of the treasurer of state to benefit education.74114

       (G) The director may enter into contracts for the operation 74115
or promotion of the lottery pursuant to Chapter 125. of the 74116
Revised Code. 74117

       (H)(1) Pursuant to rules adopted by the commission under 74118
section 3770.03 of the Revised Code, the director shall require 74119
any lottery sales agents to either mail directly to the commission 74120
or deposit to the credit of the state lottery fund, in banking 74121
institutions designated by the treasurer of state, net proceeds 74122
due the commission as determined by the director, and to file with 74123
the director or the director's designee reports of their receipts 74124
and transactions in the sale of lottery tickets in the form 74125
required by the director.74126

       (2) Pursuant to rules adopted by the commission under Chapter 74127
119. of the Revised Code, the director may impose penalties for 74128
the failure of a sales agent to transfer funds to the commission 74129
in a timely manner. Penalties may include monetary penalties, 74130
immediate suspension or revocation of a license, or any other 74131
penalty the commission adopts by rule.74132

       (I) The director may arrange for any person, or any banking 74133
institution, to perform functions and services in connection with 74134
the operation of the lottery as the director may consider 74135
necessary to carry out this chapter.74136

       (J)(1) As used in this chapter, "statewide joint lottery 74137
game" means a lottery game that the commission sells solely within 74138
this state under an agreement with other lottery jurisdictions to 74139
sell the same lottery game solely within their statewide or other 74140
jurisdictional boundaries.74141

       (2) If the governor directs the director to do so, the 74142
director shall enter into an agreement with other lottery 74143
jurisdictions to conduct statewide joint lottery games. If the 74144
governor signs the agreement personally or by means of an 74145
authenticating officer pursuant to section 107.15 of the Revised 74146
Code, the director then may conduct statewide joint lottery games 74147
under the agreement.74148

       (3) The entire net proceeds from any statewide joint lottery 74149
games shall be used to fund elementary, secondary, vocational, and 74150
special education programs in this state.74151

       (4) The commission shall conduct any statewide joint lottery 74152
games in accordance with rules it adopts under division (B)(5) of 74153
section 3770.03 of the Revised Code.74154

       (K)(1) The director shall enter into an agreement with the 74155
department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health 74156
and addiction services under which the department shall provide a 74157
program of gambling addiction services on behalf of the 74158
commission. The commission shall pay the costs of the program 74159
provided pursuant to the agreement.74160

        (2) As used in this section, "gambling addiction services" 74161
has the same meaning as in section 3793.015119.01 of the Revised 74162
Code.74163

       Sec. 3770.06.  (A) There is hereby created the state lottery 74164
gross revenue fund, which shall be in the custody of the treasurer 74165
of state but shall not be part of the state treasury. All gross 74166
revenues received from sales of lottery tickets, fines, fees, and 74167
related proceeds in connection with the statewide lottery and all 74168
gross proceeds from statewide joint lottery games shall be 74169
deposited into the fund. The treasurer of state shall invest any 74170
portion of the fund not needed for immediate use in the same 74171
manner as, and subject to all provisions of law with respect to 74172
the investment of, state funds. The treasurer of state shall 74173
disburse money from the fund on order of the director of the state 74174
lottery commission or the director's designee.74175

       Except for gross proceeds from statewide joint lottery games, 74176
all revenues of the state lottery gross revenue fund that are not 74177
paid to holders of winning lottery tickets, that are not required 74178
to meet short-term prize liabilities, that are not credited to 74179
lottery sales agents in the form of bonuses, commissions, or 74180
reimbursements, that are not paid to financial institutions to 74181
reimburse those institutions for sales agent nonsufficient funds, 74182
and that are collected from sales agents for remittance to 74183
insurers under contract to provide sales agent bonding services 74184
shall be transferred to the state lottery fund, which is hereby 74185
created in the state treasury. In addition, all revenues of the 74186
state lottery gross revenue fund that represent the gross proceeds 74187
from the statewide joint lottery games and that are not paid to 74188
holders of winning lottery tickets, that are not required to meet 74189
short-term prize liabilities, that are not credited to lottery 74190
sales agents in the form of bonuses, commissions, or 74191
reimbursements, and that are not necessary to cover operating 74192
expenses associated with those games or to otherwise comply with 74193
the agreements signed by the governor that the director enters 74194
into under division (J) of section 3770.02 of the Revised Code or 74195
the rules the commission adopts under division (B)(5) of section 74196
3770.03 of the Revised Code shall be transferred to the state 74197
lottery fund. All investment earnings of the fund shall be 74198
credited to the fund. Moneys shall be disbursed from the fund 74199
pursuant to vouchers approved by the director. Total disbursements 74200
for monetary prize awards to holders of winning lottery tickets in 74201
connection with the statewide lottery and purchases of goods and 74202
services awarded as prizes to holders of winning lottery tickets 74203
shall be of an amount equal to at least fifty per cent of the 74204
total revenue accruing from the sale of lottery tickets.74205

       (B) Pursuant to Section 6 of Article XV, Ohio Constitution, 74206
there is hereby established in the state treasury the lottery 74207
profits education fund. Whenever, in the judgment of the director 74208
of the state lottery commission, the amount to the credit of the 74209
state lottery fund that does not represent proceeds from statewide 74210
joint lottery games is in excess of that needed to meet the 74211
maturing obligations of the commission and as working capital for 74212
its further operations, the director of the state lottery 74213
commission shall recommend the amount of the excess to be 74214
transferred to the lottery profits education fund, and the 74215
director of budget and management may transfer the excess to the 74216
lottery profits education fund in connection with the statewide 74217
lottery. In addition, whenever, in the judgment of the director of 74218
the state lottery commission, the amount to the credit of the 74219
state lottery fund that represents proceeds from statewide joint 74220
lottery games equals the entire net proceeds of those games as 74221
described in division (B)(5) of section 3770.03 of the Revised 74222
Code and the rules adopted under that division, the director of 74223
the state lottery commission shall recommend the amount of the 74224
proceeds to be transferred to the lottery profits education fund, 74225
and the director of budget and management may transfer those 74226
proceeds to the lottery profits education fund. Investment 74227
earnings of the lottery profits education fund shall be credited 74228
to the fund.74229

       The lottery profits education fund shall be used solely for 74230
the support of elementary, secondary, vocational, and special 74231
education programs as determined in appropriations made by the 74232
general assembly, or as provided in applicable bond proceedings 74233
for the payment of debt service on obligations issued to pay costs 74234
of capital facilities, including those for a system of common 74235
schools throughout the state pursuant to section 2n of Article 74236
VIII, Ohio Constitution. When determining the availability of 74237
money in the lottery profits education fund, the director of 74238
budget and management may consider all balances and estimated 74239
revenues of the fund.74240

        (C) There is hereby established in the state treasury the 74241
deferred prizes trust fund. With the approval of the director of 74242
budget and management, an amount sufficient to fund annuity prizes 74243
shall be transferred from the state lottery fund and credited to 74244
the trust fund. The treasurer of state shall credit all earnings 74245
arising from investments purchased under this division to the 74246
trust fund. Within sixty days after the end of each fiscal year, 74247
the treasurer of state shall certify to the director of budget and 74248
management whether the actuarial amount of the trust fund is 74249
sufficient over the fund's life for continued funding of all 74250
remaining deferred prize liabilities as of the last day of the 74251
fiscal year just ended. Also, within that sixty days, the director 74252
of budget and management shall certify the amount of investment 74253
earnings necessary to have been credited to the trust fund during 74254
the fiscal year just ending to provide for such continued funding 74255
of deferred prizes. Any earnings credited in excess of the latter 74256
certified amount shall be transferred to the lottery profits 74257
education fund.74258

       To provide all or a part of the amounts necessary to fund 74259
deferred prizes awarded by the commission in connection with the 74260
statewide lottery, the treasurer of state, in consultation with 74261
the commission, may invest moneys contained in the deferred prizes 74262
trust fund which represents proceeds from the statewide lottery in 74263
obligations of the type permitted for the investment of state 74264
funds but whose maturities are thirty years or less. 74265
Notwithstanding the requirements of any other section of the 74266
Revised Code, to provide all or part of the amounts necessary to 74267
fund deferred prizes awarded by the commission in connection with 74268
statewide joint lottery games, the treasurer of state, in 74269
consultation with the commission, may invest moneys in the trust 74270
fund which represent proceeds derived from the statewide joint 74271
lottery games in accordance with the rules the commission adopts 74272
under division (B)(5) of section 3770.03 of the Revised Code. 74273
Investments of the trust fund are not subject to the provisions of 74274
division (A)(10) of section 135.143 of the Revised Code limiting 74275
to twenty-five per cent the amount of the state's total average 74276
portfolio that may be invested in debt interests and limiting to 74277
one-half of one per cent the amount that may be invested in debt 74278
interests of a single issuer.74279

       All purchases made under this division shall be effected on a 74280
delivery versus payment method and shall be in the custody of the 74281
treasurer of state.74282

       The treasurer of state may retain an investment advisor, if 74283
necessary. The commission shall pay any costs incurred by the 74284
treasurer of state in retaining an investment advisor.74285

       (D) The auditor of state shall conduct annual audits of all 74286
funds and any other audits as the auditor of state or the general 74287
assembly considers necessary. The auditor of state may examine all 74288
records, files, and other documents of the commission, and records 74289
of lottery sales agents that pertain to their activities as 74290
agents, for purposes of conducting authorized audits.74291

       (E) The state lottery commission shall establish an internal 74292
audit programplan before the beginning of each fiscal year, 74293
subject to the approval of the auditoroffice of stateinternal 74294
audit in the office of budget and management. At the end of each 74295
fiscal year, the commission shall prepare and submit an annual 74296
report to the auditoroffice of stateinternal audit for the 74297
auditor of state'soffice's review and approval, specifying the 74298
internal audit work completed by the end of that fiscal year and 74299
reporting on compliance with the annual internal audit program. 74300
The form and content of the report shall be prescribed by the 74301
auditor of state under division (C) of section 117.20 of the 74302
Revised Codeplan.74303

       (E)(F) Whenever, in the judgment of the director of budget 74304
and management, an amount of net state lottery proceeds is 74305
necessary to be applied to the payment of debt service on 74306
obligations, all as defined in sections 151.01 and 151.03 of the 74307
Revised Code, the director shall transfer that amount directly 74308
from the state lottery fund or from the lottery profits education 74309
fund to the bond service fund defined in those sections. The 74310
provisions of this division are subject to any prior pledges or 74311
obligation of those amounts to the payment of bond service charges 74312
as defined in division (C) of section 3318.21 of the Revised Code, 74313
as referred to in division (B) of this section.74314

       Sec. 3772.062. (A) The executive director of the commission 74315
shall enter into an agreement with the department of alcohol and 74316
drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction services under 74317
which the department provides a program of gambling and addiction 74318
services on behalf of the commission.74319

       (B) The executive director of the commission, in conjunction 74320
with the department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental 74321
health and addiction services and the state lottery commission, 74322
shall establish, operate, and publicize an in-state, toll-free 74323
telephone number Ohio residents may call to obtain basic 74324
information about problem gambling, the gambling addiction 74325
services available to problem gamblers, and how a problem gambler 74326
may obtain help. The telephone number shall be staffed twenty-four 74327
hours per day, seven days a week, to respond to inquiries and 74328
provide that information. The costs of establishing, operating, 74329
and publicizing the telephone number shall be paid for with money 74330
in the problem casino gambling and addictions fund.74331

       Sec. 3772.36.  (A) There is hereby created in the state 74332
treasury the casino control commission enforcement fund. All 74333
moneys that are derived from any fines, mandatory fines, or 74334
forfeited bail to which the commission may be entitled under this 74335
chapter and all moneys that are derived from forfeitures of 74336
property to which the commission may be entitled under this 74337
chapter or Chapter 2981. of the Revised Code, any other provision 74338
of the Revised Code, or federal law shall be deposited into the 74339
fund. Subject to division (B) of this section and divisions (B), 74340
(C), and (D) of section 2981.13 of the Revised Code, the moneys in 74341
the fund shall be used solely to subsidize the commission's 74342
division of enforcement and its efforts to ensure the integrity of 74343
casino gaming.74344

       (B) Notwithstanding any contrary provision in the Revised 74345
Code, moneys that are derived from forfeitures of property under 74346
federal law and that are deposited into the casino control 74347
commission enforcement fund in accordance with division (A) of 74348
this section shall be used and accounted for in accordance with 74349
the applicable federal law, and the commission otherwise shall 74350
comply with federal law in connection with that money.74351

       Sec. 3781.112. (A) As used in this section, "secured 74352
facility" means any of the following:74353

        (1) A maternity unit, newborn care nursery, or maternity home 74354
licensed under Chapter 3711. of the Revised Code;74355

        (2) A pediatric intensive care unit subject to rules adopted 74356
by the director of health pursuant to section 3702.11 of the 74357
Revised Code;74358

        (3) A children's hospital, as defined in section 3727.01 of 74359
the Revised Code;74360

        (4) A hospital that is licensed under section 5119.205119.3374361
of the Revised Code to receive mentally ill persons;74362

       (5) The portion of a nursing home licensed under section 74363
3721.02 of the Revised Code or in accordance with section 3721.09 74364
of the Revised Code in which specialized care is provided to 74365
residents of the nursing home who have physical or mental 74366
conditions that require a resident to be restricted in the 74367
resident's freedom of movement for the health and safety of the 74368
resident, the staff attending the resident, or the general public.74369

        (B) A secured facility may take reasonable steps in 74370
accordance with rules the board of building standards adopts under 74371
division (A) of section 3781.10 of the Revised Code and in 74372
accordance with the state fire code the fire marshal adopts under 74373
section 3737.82 of the Revised Code, to deny egress to confine and 74374
protect patients or residents of the secured facility who are not 74375
capable of self-preservation. A secured facility that wishes to 74376
deny egress to those patients or residents may use delayed-egress 74377
doors and electronically coded doors to deny egress, on the 74378
condition that those doors are installed and used in accordance 74379
with rules the board of building standards adopts under division 74380
(A) of section 3781.10 of the Revised Code and in accordance with 74381
the state fire code the fire marshal adopts under section 3737.82 74382
of the Revised Code. A secured facility also may install 74383
controlled-egress locks, in compliance with rules the board of 74384
building standards adopts under division (A) of section 3781.10 of 74385
the Revised Code and in compliance with the state fire code the 74386
fire marshal adopts under section 3737.82 of the Revised Code, in 74387
areas of the secured facility where patients or residents who have 74388
physical or mental conditions that would endanger the patients or 74389
residents, the staff attending the patients or residents, or the 74390
general public if those patients or residents are not restricted 74391
in their freedom of movement. A secured facility that uses 74392
delayed-egress doors and electronically coded doors, 74393
controlled-egress locks, or both, shall do both of the following:74394

        (1) Provide continuous, twenty-four-hour custodial care to 74395
the patients or residents of the facility;74396

        (2) Establish a system to evacuate patients or residents in 74397
the event of fire or other emergency.74398

       Sec. 3795.01. As used in sections 3795.01, 3795.02, and 74399
3795.03 of the Revised Code:74400

       (A) "Assist suicide" or "assisting suicide" means knowingly 74401
doing either of the following, with the purpose of helping another 74402
person to commit or attempt suicide:74403

       (1) Providing the physical means by which the person commits 74404
or attempts to commit suicide;74405

       (2) Participating in a physical act by which the person 74406
commits or attempts to commit suicide.74407

       (B) "Certified nurse practitioner," "certified 74408
nurse-midwife," and "clinical nurse specialist" have the same 74409
meanings as in section 4723.01 of the Revised Code.74410

       (C) "CPR" has the same meaning as in section 2133.21 of the 74411
Revised Code.74412

       (D) "Health care" means any care, treatment, service, or 74413
procedure to maintain, diagnose, or treat a person's physical or 74414
mental condition.74415

       (E) "Health care decision" means informed consent, refusal to 74416
give informed consent, or withdrawal of informed consent to health 74417
care.74418

       (F) "Health care facility" means any of the following:74419

       (1) A hospital;74420

       (2) A hospice care program or pediatric respite care program 74421
as defined in section 3712.01 of the Revised Code;74422

       (3) A nursing home;74423

       (4) A home health agency;74424

       (5) An intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded74425
individuals with intellectual disabilities.74426

       (G) "Health care personnel" means physicians, nurses, 74427
physician assistants, emergency medical technicians-basic, 74428
emergency medical technicians-intermediate, emergency medical 74429
technicians-paramedic, medical technicians, dietitians, other 74430
authorized persons acting under the direction of an attending 74431
physician, and administrators of health care facilities.74432

       (H) "Physician" means a person who is authorized under 74433
Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery 74434
or osteopathic medicine and surgery.74435

       Sec. 3798.01. As used in this chapter:74436

       (A) "Administrative safeguards," "physical safeguards," and 74437
"technical safeguards" have the same meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 74438
164.304.74439

       (B) "Approved health information exchange" means a health 74440
information exchange that has been approved or reapproved by the 74441
medicaid director of job and family services pursuant to the 74442
approval or reapproval process, as applicable, the director 74443
establishes in rules adopted under division (A) of section 3798.15 74444
of the Revised Code or that has been certified by the office of 74445
the national coordinator for health information technology in the 74446
United States department of health and human services.74447

       (C) "Covered entity," "disclosure," "health care provider," 74448
"health information," "individually identifiable health 74449
information," "protected health information," and "use" have the 74450
same meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 160.103.74451

       (D) "Designated record set" has the same meaning as in 45 74452
C.F.R. 164.501.74453

       (E) "Direct exchange" means the activity of electronic 74454
transmission of health information through a direct connection 74455
between the electronic record systems of health care providers 74456
without the use of a health information exchange. 74457

       (F) "Health care component" and "hybrid entity" have the same 74458
meanings as in 45 C.F.R. 164.103.74459

       (G) "Health information exchange" means any person or 74460
governmental entity that provides in this state a technical 74461
infrastructure to connect computer systems or other electronic 74462
devices used by covered entities to facilitate the secure 74463
transmission of health information. "Health information exchange" 74464
excludes health care providers engaged in direct exchange, 74465
including direct exchange through the use of a health information 74466
service provider.74467

       (H) "HIPAA privacy rule" means the standards for privacy of 74468
individually identifiable health information in 45 C.F.R. part 160 74469
and in 45 C.F.R. part 164, subparts A and E.74470

       (I) "Interoperability" means the capacity of two or more 74471
information systems to exchange information in an accurate, 74472
effective, secure, and consistent manner.74473

       (J) "Minor" means an unemancipated person under eighteen 74474
years of age or a mentally or physically disabled person under 74475
twenty-one years of age who meets criteria specified in rules 74476
adopted by the medicaid director of job and family services under 74477
section 3798.13 of the Revised Code.74478

       (K) "More stringent" has the same meaning as in 45 C.F.R. 74479
160.202.74480

        (L) "Office of health transformation" means the office of 74481
health transformation created by executive order 2011-02K or a 74482
successor governmental entity responsible for health system 74483
oversight in this state.74484

       (M) "Personal representative" means a person who has 74485
authority under applicable law to make decisions related to health 74486
care on behalf of an adult or emancipated minor, or the parent, 74487
legal guardian, or other person acting in loco parentis who is 74488
authorized under law to make health care decisions on behalf of an 74489
unemancipated minor. "Personal representative" does not include 74490
the parent or legal guardian of, or another person acting in loco 74491
parentis to, a minor who consents to the minor's own receipt of 74492
health care or a minor who makes medical decisions on the minor's 74493
own behalf pursuant to law, court approval, or because the minor's 74494
parent, legal guardian, or other person acting in loco parentis 74495
has assented to an agreement of confidentiality between the 74496
provider and the minor.74497

       (N) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 74498
township, county, school district, or other body corporate and 74499
politic responsible for governmental activities in a geographic 74500
area smaller than that of the state.74501

       (O) "State agency" means any one or more of the following:74502

       (1) The department of administrative services;74503

       (2) The department of aging;74504

       (2)(3) The department of alcohol and drug addiction services74505
mental health and addiction services;74506

       (3)(4) The department of developmental disabilities;74507

       (4)(5) The department of education;74508

       (5)(6) The department of health;74509

       (6)(7) The department of insurance;74510

       (7)(8) The department of job and family services;74511

       (8)(9) The department of mental healthmedicaid;74512

       (9)(10) The department of rehabilitation and correction;74513

       (10)(11) The department of youth services;74514

       (11)(12) The bureau of workers' compensation;74515

       (12)(13) The rehabilitation services commissionopportunities 74516
for Ohioans with disabilities agency;74517

       (13)(14) The office of the attorney general;74518

       (14)(15) A health care licensing board created under Title 74519
XLVII of the Revised Code that possesses individually identifiable 74520
health information.74521

       Sec. 3798.10.  (A) Not later than six months after the 74522
effective date of this sectionSeptember 10, 2012, the medicaid74523
director of job and family services, in consultation with the 74524
office of health transformation, shall prescribe by rules adopted 74525
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code a standard 74526
authorization form for the use and disclosure of protected health 74527
information by covered entities in this state. The form shall meet 74528
all requirements specified in 45 C.F.R. 164.508 and, where 74529
applicable, 42 C.F.R. part 2. 74530

       (B) If a form the medicaid director prescribes under division 74531
(A) of this section is properly executed by an individual or the 74532
individual's personal representative, it shall be accepted by any 74533
person or governmental entity in this state as valid authorization 74534
for the use or disclosure of the individual's protected health 74535
information to the persons or governmental entities specified in 74536
the form.74537

       (C) This section does not preclude a person or governmental 74538
entity from accepting as valid authorization for the use or 74539
disclosure of protected health information a form other than the 74540
form prescribed under division (A) of this section if the other 74541
form meets all requirements specified in 45 C.F.R. 164.508 and, if 74542
applicable, 42 C.F.R. part 2.74543

       Sec. 3798.13. The medicaid director of job and family 74544
services shall adopt rules for purposes of specifying the criteria 74545
a person who is mentally or physically disabled and who is under 74546
twenty-one years of age must meet to be considered a minor for 74547
purposes of sections 3798.07 and 3798.12 of the Revised Code.74548

       Sec. 3798.14. (A) The medicaid director of job and family 74549
services, in consultation with the office of health 74550
transformation, shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. 74551
of the Revised Code for the purpose of establishing standards the 74552
director must use to approve health information exchanges 74553
operating in this state. The rules shall not be adopted until the 74554
earlier of sixty days following the adoption of a federal 74555
certification process for health information exchanges by the 74556
office of the national coordinator for health information 74557
technology in the United States department of health and human 74558
services or January 1, 2013. Subject to division (B) of this 74559
section, the rules may include standards and procedures to be 74560
followed by a health information exchange regarding the following:74561

       (1) Access to and use and disclosure of protected health 74562
information maintained by or on an approved health information 74563
exchange;74564

       (2) Demonstration of adequate financial resources to sustain 74565
continued operations in compliance with the rules adopted under 74566
this section;74567

       (3) Participation in outreach activities for individuals and 74568
covered entities;74569

       (4) Conduct of operations in a transparent manner to promote 74570
consumer confidence;74571

       (5) Implementation of security breach notification 74572
procedures.74573

       (B) The rules the medicaid director adopts pursuant to 74574
division (A) of this section shall be consistent with 74575
certification standards for health information exchanges 74576
established in federal statutes and regulations, including 74577
nationally recognized standards for interoperability.74578

       Sec. 3798.15.  (A) The medicaid director of job and family 74579
services, in consultation with the office of health 74580
transformation, shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. 74581
of the Revised Code for the purpose of establishing processes for 74582
all of the following:74583

       (1) A health information exchange to obtain approval to 74584
operate as an approved health information exchange in this state 74585
and, at times specified by the director, obtain reapproval of such 74586
status;74587

       (2) The director to investigate and resolve concerns and 74588
complaints submitted to the director regarding an approved health 74589
information exchange;74590

       (3) A health information exchange to apply for 74591
reconsideration of a decision the director makes under a process 74592
established under division (A)(1) or (2) of this section;74593

       (4) Covered entities and approved health information 74594
exchanges to enter into participation agreements and enforce the 74595
terms of such agreements.74596

       (B) Any decision the medicaid director makes in relation to a 74597
request for reconsideration made in accordance with rules adopted 74598
under division (A)(3) of this section is not subject to appeal 74599
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.74600

       Sec. 3798.16.  (A) The medicaid director of job and family 74601
services, in consultation with the office of health 74602
transformation, shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. 74603
of the Revised Code for the purpose of specifying the content of 74604
agreements governing covered entities' participation in approved 74605
health information exchanges. At a minimum, the rules shall 74606
require the content of such participation agreements to include 74607
all of the following: 74608

       (1) Procedures for a covered entity to disclose an 74609
individual's protected health information to an approved health 74610
information exchange;74611

       (2) Procedures for a covered entity to access an individual's 74612
protected health information from an approved health information 74613
exchange;74614

       (3) Subject to division (B) of this section, a written notice 74615
to be provided by a covered entity to an individual or the 74616
individual's personal representative prior to the covered entity's 74617
disclosure of the individual's protected health information to an 74618
approved health information exchange; 74619

       (4) Documentation the covered entity must use to verify that 74620
a notice described in division (A)(3) of this section has been 74621
provided by the covered entity to an individual or the 74622
individual's personal representative prior to the disclosure of 74623
the individual's protected health information to an approved 74624
health information exchange;74625

       (5) Procedures for an individual or the individual's personal 74626
representative to submit to the covered entity a written request 74627
to place restrictions on the covered entity's disclosure of 74628
protected health information to the approved health information 74629
exchange;74630

       (6) The standards a covered entity must use to determine 74631
whether, and to what extent, to comply with a written request 74632
described in division (A)(5) of this section;74633

       (7) The purposes for which a covered entity may access and 74634
use protected health information from the approved health 74635
information exchange.74636

       (B) With respect to the written notice described in division 74637
(A)(3) of this section, the rules may specify that the notice can 74638
be incorporated into the covered entity's notice of privacy 74639
practices required by 45 C.F.R. 164.520 and shall specify that the 74640
notice include the following statements:74641

       (1) The individual's protected health information will be 74642
disclosed to the approved health information exchange to 74643
facilitate the provision of health care to the individual.74644

       (2) The approved health information exchange maintains 74645
appropriate administrative, physical, and technical safeguards to 74646
protect the privacy and security of protected health information.74647

       (3) Only authorized individuals may access and use protected 74648
health information from the approved health information exchange.74649

       (4) The individual or the individual's personal 74650
representative has the right to request in writing that the 74651
covered entity do either or both of the following:74652

       (a) Not disclose any of the individual's protected health 74653
information to the approved health information exchange;74654

       (b) Not disclose specific categories of the individual's 74655
protected health information to the approved health information 74656
exchange.74657

       (5) Any restrictions on the disclosure of protected health 74658
information an individual requests as described in either division 74659
(B)(4)(a) or (b) of this section may result in a health care 74660
provider not having access to information that is necessary for 74661
the provider to render appropriate care to the individual.74662

       (6) Any restrictions on the disclosure of protected health 74663
information an individual requests as described in division 74664
(B)(4)(a) of this section must be honored by the covered entity.74665

       (7) Any restrictions on the disclosure of protected health 74666
information an individual requests as described in division 74667
(B)(4)(b) of this section must be honored if the restriction is 74668
consistent with rules adopted under this chapter. 74669

       (C) In adopting standards under division (A)(6) of this 74670
section, the medicaid director shall take into consideration the 74671
technical capabilities of software available to health information 74672
exchanges."74673

       Sec. 3901.3814. Sections 3901.38 and 3901.381 to 3901.3813 of 74674
the Revised Code do not apply to the following:74675

       (A) Policies offering coverage that is regulated under 74676
Chapters 3935. and 3937. of the Revised Code;74677

       (B) An employer's self-insurance plan and any of its 74678
administrators, as defined in section 3959.01 of the Revised Code, 74679
to the extent that federal law supersedes, preempts, prohibits, or 74680
otherwise precludes the application of any provisions of those 74681
sections to the plan and its administrators;74682

       (C) A third-party payer for coverage provided under the 74683
medicare advantage program operated under Title XVIII of the 74684
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as 74685
amended;74686

       (D) A third-party payer for coverage provided under the 74687
medicaid program operated under Title XIX of the "Social Security 74688
Act," except that if a federal waiver applied for under section 74689
5111.1785167.25 of the Revised Code is granted or the medicaid74690
director of job and family services determines that this provision 74691
can be implemented without a waiver, sections 3901.38 and 3901.381 74692
to 3901.3813 of the Revised Code apply to claims submitted 74693
electronically or non-electronically that are made with respect to 74694
coverage of medicaid recipients by health insuring corporations 74695
licensed under Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code, instead of the 74696
prompt payment requirements of 42 C.F.R. 447.46;74697

       (E) A third-party payer for coverage provided under the 74698
tricare program offered by the United States department of 74699
defense.74700

       Sec. 3903.14.  (A) The superintendent of insurance as 74701
rehabilitator may appoint one or more special deputies, who shall 74702
have all the powers and responsibilities of the rehabilitator 74703
granted under this section, and the superintendent may employ such 74704
clerks and assistants as considered necessary. The compensation of 74705
the special deputies, clerks, and assistants and all expenses of 74706
taking possession of the insurer and of conducting the proceedings 74707
shall be fixed by the superintendent, with the approval of the 74708
court and shall be paid out of the funds or assets of the insurer. 74709
The persons appointed under this section shall serve at the 74710
pleasure of the superintendent. In the event that the property of 74711
the insurer does not contain sufficient cash or liquid assets to 74712
defray the costs incurred, the superintendent may advance the 74713
costs so incurred out of any appropriation for the maintenance of 74714
the department of insurance. Any amounts so advanced for expenses 74715
of administration shall be repaid to the superintendent for the 74716
use of the department out of the first available money of the 74717
insurer.74718

       (B) The rehabilitator may take such action as the 74719
rehabilitator considers necessary or appropriate to reform and 74720
revitalize the insurer. The rehabilitator shall have all the 74721
powers of the directors, officers, and managers, whose authority 74722
shall be suspended, except as they are redelegated by the 74723
rehabilitator. The rehabilitator shall have full power to direct 74724
and manage, to hire and discharge employees subject to any 74725
contract rights they may have, and to deal with the property and 74726
business of the insurer.74727

       (C) If it appears to the rehabilitator that there has been 74728
criminal or tortious conduct, or breach of any contractual or 74729
fiduciary obligation detrimental to the insurer by any officer, 74730
manager, agent, director, trustee, broker, employee, or other 74731
person, the rehabilitator may pursue all appropriate legal 74732
remedies on behalf of the insurer.74733

       (D) If the rehabilitator determines that reorganization, 74734
consolidation, conversion, reinsurance, merger, or other 74735
transformation of the insurer is appropriate, the rehabilitator 74736
shall prepare a plan to effect such changes. Upon application of 74737
the rehabilitator for approval of the plan, and after such notice 74738
and hearings as the court may prescribe, the court may either 74739
approve or disapprove the plan proposed, or may modify it and 74740
approve it as modified. Any plan approved under this section shall 74741
be, in the judgment of the court, fair and equitable to all 74742
parties concerned. If the plan is approved, the rehabilitator 74743
shall carry out the plan. In the case of a life insurer, the plan 74744
proposed may include the imposition of liens upon the policies of 74745
the company, if all rights of shareholders are first relinquished. 74746
A plan for a life insurer may also propose imposition of a 74747
moratorium upon loan and cash surrender rights under policies, for 74748
such period and to such an extent as may be necessary.74749

       (E) In the case of a medicaid health insuring corporation 74750
that has posted a bond or deposited securities in accordance with 74751
section 1751.271 of the Revised Code, the plan proposed under 74752
division (D) of this section may include the use of the proceeds 74753
of the bond or securities to first pay the claims of contracted 74754
providers for covered health care services provided to medicaid 74755
recipients, then next to pay other claimants with any remaining 74756
funds, consistent with the priorities set forth in sections 74757
3903.421 and 3903.42 of the Revised Code.74758

       (F) The rehabilitator shall have the power under sections 74759
3903.26 and 3903.27 of the Revised Code to avoid fraudulent 74760
transfers.74761

       (G) As used in this section:74762

        (1) "Contracted provider" means a provider with a contract 74763
with a medicaid health insuring corporation to provide covered 74764
health care services to medicaid recipients.74765

        (2) "Medicaid recipient" means a person eligible for 74766
assistance underenrolled in the medicaid program operated 74767
pursuant to Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code.74768

       Sec. 3905.40.  There shall be paid to the superintendent of 74769
insurance the following fees:74770

       (A) Each insurance company doing business in this state shall 74771
pay:74772

       (1) For filing a copy of its charter or deed of settlement, 74773
two hundred fifty dollars;74774

       (2) For filing each statement, one hundred seventy-five 74775
dollars;74776

       (3) For each certificate of authority or license, one hundred 74777
seventy-five, and for each certified copy thereof, five dollars;74778

       (4) For each copy of a paper filed in the superintendent's 74779
office, twenty cents per page;74780

       (5) For issuing certificates of deposits or certified copies 74781
thereof, five dollars for the first certificate or copy and one 74782
dollar for each additional certificate or copy;74783

       (6) For issuing certificates of compliance or certified 74784
copies thereof, sixty dollars;74785

       (7) For affixing the seal of office and certifying documents, 74786
other than those enumerated herein, two dollars;74787

       (8) For each agent appointment and each annual renewal of an 74788
agent appointment, not more than twenty dollars;74789

       (9) For each termination of an agent appointment, five 74790
dollars.74791

       (B) Each domestic life insurance company doing business in 74792
this state shall pay for annual valuation of its policies, one 74793
cent on every one thousand dollars of insurance.74794

       (C) Each applicant for licensure as an insurance agent except 74795
applicants for licensure as surety bail bond agents, surplus line 74796
brokers, and portable electronics insurance vendors shall pay ten 74797
dollars for each line of authority requested. Fees collected under 74798
this division shall be credited to the department of insurance 74799
operating fund created in section 3901.021 of the Revised Code.74800

       (D) Each domestic mutual life insurance company shall pay for 74801
verifying that any amendment to its articles of incorporation was 74802
regularly adopted, two hundred fifty dollars with each application 74803
for verification. Any such amendment shall be considered to have 74804
been regularly adopted when approved by the affirmative vote of 74805
two-thirds of the policyholders present in person or by proxy at 74806
any annual meeting of policyholders or at a special meeting of 74807
policyholders called for that purpose.74808

       (E) Each insurance agent doing business in this state shall 74809
pay a biennial license renewal fee of twenty-five dollars, except 74810
the following insurance agents are not required to pay that 74811
license renewal fee:74812

       (1) Individual resident agents who have met their continuing 74813
education requirements under section 3905.481 of the Revised Code;74814

       (2) Surety bail bond agents;74815

       (3) Surplus line brokers;74816

       (4) Portable electronics insurance vendors.74817

       (F) Each applicant for licensure as a portable electronics 74818
insurance vendor with a portable electronics insurance limited 74819
lines license and each licensed vendor doing business in this 74820
state shall pay the following fees prescribed by the 74821
superintendent: 74822

       (1) For vendors engaged in portable electronic transactions 74823
at more than ten locations in this state, an application fee not 74824
to exceed five thousand dollars for an initial license and a 74825
biennial license renewal fee not to exceed two thousand five 74826
hundred dollars for each renewal thereafter;74827

       (2) For vendors engaged in portable electronic transactions 74828
at ten or fewer locations in this state, an application fee not to 74829
exceed three thousand dollars for an initial license and a 74830
biennial license renewal fee not to exceed one thousand dollars 74831
for each renewal thereafter.74832

       (G) All fees collected by the superintendent under this 74833
section except any fees collected under divisions (A)(2), (3), and 74834
(6) of this section shall be credited to the department of 74835
insurance operating fund created under section 3901.021 of the 74836
Revised Code.74837

       Sec. 3905.483.  (A) There is hereby created the insurance 74838
agent education advisory council to advise the superintendent of 74839
insurance in carrying out the duties imposed under sections 74840
3905.04 and 3905.481 to 3905.486 of the Revised Code.74841

       (B) The council shall be composed of the superintendent, or 74842
the superintendent's designee, and twelve members appointed by the 74843
superintendent, as follows:74844

       (1) One representative of the association of Ohio life 74845
insurance companies;74846

       (2) One representative of the independent insurance agents of 74847
Ohio;74848

       (3) One representative of the Ohio association of health 74849
underwriters;74850

       (4) One representative of the national association of 74851
insurance and financial advisors-Ohio;74852

       (5) One representative of the Ohio insurance institute;74853

       (6) One representative of the professional insurance agents 74854
association of Ohio;74855

       (7) One representative of the Ohio land title association;74856

       (8) Two insurance agents each of whom has been licensed 74857
continuously during the five-year period immediately preceding the 74858
agent's appointment;74859

       (9) One representative of an insurance company admitted to 74860
transact business in this state;74861

       (10) Two representatives of consumers, one of whom shall be 74862
at least sixtyfifty years of age.74863

       (C)(1) Of the initial eleven appointments made by the 74864
superintendent, three shall be for terms ending December 31, 1994, 74865
four shall be for terms ending December 31, 1995, and four shall 74866
be for terms ending December 31, 1996. Thereafter, terms of office 74867
shall be for three years, each term ending on the thirty-first day 74868
of December of the third year.74869

       (2) The initial appointment of the twelfth member made by the 74870
superintendent under division (B)(7) of this section, pursuant to 74871
Am. Sub. S.B. 129 of the 124th general assembly, shall be for a 74872
term ending December 31, 2003. Thereafter, the term of office 74873
shall be for three years, ending on the thirty-first day of 74874
December of the third year.74875

       (D) Each member shall hold office from the date of 74876
appointment until the end of the term for which the member was 74877
appointed. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior 74878
to the expiration of the term for which the member's predecessor 74879
was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of such term. 74880
Any member shall continue in office subsequent to the expiration 74881
date of the member's term until the member's successor takes 74882
office, or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, whichever 74883
occurs first. A vacancy shall be filled in the same manner as the 74884
original appointment.74885

       (E) Initial appointments to the council shall be made no 74886
later than thirty days after April 16, 1993. The initial 74887
appointment of the twelfth member to the council under division 74888
(B)(7) of this section, pursuant to Am. Sub. S.B. 129 of the 124th 74889
general assembly, shall be made no later than December 31, 2002.74890

       (F) Any member is eligible for reappointment. The 74891
superintendent, after notice and opportunity for a hearing, may 74892
remove for cause any member the superintendent appoints.74893

       (G) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee shall 74894
serve as chairperson of the council. Meetings shall be held upon 74895
the call of the chairperson and as may be provided by procedures 74896
adopted by the superintendent. Seven members of the council 74897
constitute a quorum.74898

       (H) Each member shall receive mileage and necessary and 74899
actual expenses while engaged in the business of the council.74900

       Sec. 3905.862.  Upon the expiration or cancellation of a 74901
surety bail bond agent's appointment, the agent shall not engage 74902
or attempt to engage in any activity requiring such an 74903
appointment. However, an insurer that cancels the appointment of a 74904
surety bail bond agent may authorize the agent to continue to 74905
attempt the arrest and surrender of a defendant for whom a bail 74906
bond had been written prior to the cancellation and to seek 74907
discharge of forfeitures and judgments.74908

       An insurer that cancels the appointment of a surety bail bond 74909
agent or allows that appointment to expire shall pay to the 74910
superintendent of insurance a fee pursuant to division (A)(9) of 74911
section 3905.40 of the Revised Code.74912

       Sec. 3916.06.  (A)(1) With each application for a viatical 74913
settlement, a viatical settlement provider or viatical settlement 74914
broker shall disclose at least the following to a viator no later 74915
than the time all parties sign the application for the viatical 74916
settlement contract:74917

       (a) That there are possible alternatives to viatical 74918
settlement contracts, including any accelerated death benefits 74919
offered under the viator's policy;74920

       (b) That some or all of the proceeds of the viatical 74921
settlement may be subject to federal income taxation and state 74922
franchise and income taxation, and that assistance should be 74923
sought from a professional tax advisor;74924

       (c) That the proceeds of the viatical settlement could be 74925
subject to the claims of creditors;74926

       (d) That receipt of the proceeds of the viatical settlement 74927
may adversely affect the viator's eligibility for medical 74928
assistance under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Codethe medicaid 74929
program or other government benefits or entitlements, and that 74930
advice should be obtained from the appropriate government 74931
agencies;74932

       (e) That the viator has a right to rescind the viatical 74933
settlement contract for at least fifteen calendar days after the 74934
viator receives the viatical settlement proceeds, as provided in 74935
section 3916.08 of the Revised Code. If the insured dies during 74936
the rescission period, the viatical settlement contract shall be 74937
deemed to have been rescinded, subject to repayment of all 74938
viatical settlement proceeds to the viatical settlement company.74939

       (f) That funds will be sent to the viator within three 74940
business days after the viatical settlement provider has received 74941
written acknowledgment from the insurer or group administrator 74942
that ownership of the policy or interest in the certificate has 74943
been transferred and that the beneficiary has been designated 74944
pursuant to the viatical settlement contract;74945

       (g) That entering into a viatical settlement contract may 74946
cause other rights or benefits, including conversion rights and 74947
waiver of premium benefits that may exist under the policy, to be 74948
forfeited by the viator and that assistance should be sought from 74949
a financial advisor.74950

       (h) That following execution of the viatical settlement 74951
contract, the viatical settlement provider or the authorized 74952
representative of the viatical settlement provider may contact the 74953
insured for the purpose of determining the insured's health status 74954
and to confirm the insured's residential or business address and 74955
telephone number or for other purposes permitted by law. Any such 74956
contact shall be limited to once in any three-month period if the 74957
insured has a life expectancy of more than one year or to once per 74958
month if the insured has a life expectancy of one year or less.74959

       (2) The viatical settlement provider or viatical settlement 74960
broker shall provide the disclosures under division (A)(1) of this 74961
section in a separate document that is signed by the viator and 74962
the viatical settlement provider or viatical settlement broker.74963

       (3) Disclosure to a viator under division (A)(1) of this 74964
section shall include distribution of a brochure describing the 74965
process of viatical settlements. The viatical settlement provider 74966
or viatical settlement broker shall use the NAIC's form for the 74967
brochure unless another form is developed or approved by the 74968
superintendent.74969

       (4) The disclosure document under division (A)(1) of this 74970
section shall contain the following language:74971

       "All medical, financial, or personal information solicited or 74972
obtained by a viatical settlement provider or viatical settlement 74973
broker about an insured, including the insured's identity or the 74974
identity of family members, a spouse, or a significant other may 74975
be disclosed as necessary to effect the viatical settlement 74976
between the viator and the viatical settlement provider. If you 74977
are asked to provide this information, you will be asked to 74978
consent to the disclosure. The information may be provided to 74979
someone who buys the policy or provides funds for the purchase. 74980
You may be asked to renew your permission to share information 74981
every two years."74982

       (B)(1) A viatical settlement provider shall disclose at least 74983
the following to a viator prior to the date the viatical 74984
settlement contract is signed by all the necessary parties:74985

       (a) The affiliation, if any, between the viatical settlement 74986
provider and the issuer of the policy to be viaticated;74987

       (b) The name, business address, and telephone number of the 74988
viatical settlement provider;74989

       (c) Regarding a viatical settlement broker, the amount and 74990
method of calculating the broker's compensation. As used in this 74991
division, "compensation" includes anything of value paid or given 74992
to a viatical settlement broker for the placement of a policy or 74993
certificate.74994

       (d) Any affiliations or contractual arrangements between the 74995
viatical settlement provider and the viatical settlement broker;74996

       (e) If a policy to be viaticated has been issued as a joint 74997
policy or involves family riders or any coverage of a life other 74998
than the insured under the policy to be viaticated, the possible 74999
loss of coverage on the other lives under the policy and that 75000
advice should be sought from the viator's insurance agent or the 75001
company issuing the policy;75002

       (f) The dollar amount of the current death benefit payable to 75003
the viatical settlement provider under the policy, and, if known, 75004
the availability of any additional guaranteed insurance benefits, 75005
the dollar amount of any accidental death and dismemberment 75006
benefits under the policy, and the extent to which the viator's 75007
interest in those benefits will be transferred as a result of the 75008
viatical settlement contract.75009

        (g) That an escrow agent shall provide escrow services to the 75010
parties pursuant to a written agreement, signed by the viatical 75011
settlement provider, the viatical settlement broker, and the 75012
viator. At the close of escrow, the escrow agent will distribute 75013
the proceeds of the sale to the viator, minus any compensation to 75014
be paid to any other persons who provided services and to whom the 75015
viator has agreed to compensate out of the gross amount offered by 75016
the viatical settlement purchaser. All persons receiving any form 75017
of compensation under the escrow agreement shall be clearly 75018
identified, including name, business address, telephone number, 75019
and tax identification number.75020

       (2) The viatical settlement broker shall disclose at least 75021
the following to a viator prior to the execution of the viatical 75022
settlement contract:75023

       (a) The name, business address, and telephone number of the 75024
viatical settlement broker;75025

       (b) A full, complete, and accurate description of all offers, 75026
counteroffers, acceptances, and rejections relating to the 75027
proposed viatical settlement contract;75028

       (c) Any affiliations or contractual agreements between the 75029
viatical settlement broker and any person making an offer in 75030
connection with the proposed viatical settlement contract;75031

       (d) The amount and method of calculating the viatical 75032
settlement broker's compensation and, if any portion of the 75033
viatical settlement broker's compensation is taken from the 75034
viatical settlement offer, the total amount of the viatical 75035
settlement offer and the viatical settlement broker's compensation 75036
as a percentage of that total. As used in this division, 75037
"compensation" includes anything of value paid or given to a 75038
viatical settlement broker related to the settlement of a policy.75039

       (3) The viatical settlement provider or viatical settlement 75040
broker shall conspicuously display the disclosures required under 75041
divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this section in the viatical 75042
settlement contract or in a separate document signed by the viator 75043
and the viatical settlement provider or viatical settlement 75044
broker, as appropriate.75045

       (C) If the viatical settlement provider transfers ownership 75046
or changes the beneficiary of the policy, the viatical settlement 75047
provider shall communicate in writing the change in ownership or 75048
beneficiary to the insured within twenty days after the change.75049

       Sec. 3923.24.  (A) Notwithstanding section 3901.71 of the 75050
Revised Code, every certificate furnished by an insurer in 75051
connection with, or pursuant to any provision of, any group 75052
sickness and accident insurance policy delivered, issued for 75053
delivery, renewed, or used in this state on or after January 1, 75054
1972, every policy of sickness and accident insurance delivered, 75055
issued for delivery, renewed, or used in this state on or after 75056
January 1, 1972, and every multiple employer welfare arrangement 75057
offering an insurance program, which provides that coverage of an 75058
unmarried dependent child of a parent or legal guardian will 75059
terminate upon attainment of the limiting age for dependent 75060
children specified in the contract shall also provide in substance 75061
both of the following:75062

        (1) Once an unmarried child has attained the limiting age for 75063
dependent children, as provided in the policy, upon the request of 75064
the insured, the insurer shall offer to cover the unmarried child 75065
until the child attains twenty-eight years of age if all of the 75066
following are true:75067

        (a) The child is the natural child, stepchild, or adopted 75068
child of the insured.75069

       (b) The child is a resident of this state or a full-time 75070
student at an accredited public or private institution of higher 75071
education.75072

        (c) The child is not employed by an employer that offers any 75073
health benefit plan under which the child is eligible for 75074
coverage.75075

       (d) The child is not eligible for coverage under the medicaid 75076
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code or the 75077
medicare program established under Title XVIII of the "Social 75078
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1395.75079

        (2) That attainment of the limiting age for dependent 75080
children shall not operate to terminate the coverage of a 75081
dependent child if the child is and continues to be both of the 75082
following:75083

       (a) Incapable of self-sustaining employment by reason of 75084
mental retardation or physical handicap;75085

       (b) Primarily dependent upon the policyholder or certificate 75086
holder for support and maintenance.75087

       (B) Proof of such incapacity and dependence for purposes of 75088
division (A)(2) of this section shall be furnished by the 75089
policyholder or by the certificate holder to the insurer within 75090
thirty-one days of the child's attainment of the limiting age. 75091
Upon request, but not more frequently than annually after the 75092
two-year period following the child's attainment of the limiting 75093
age, the insurer may require proof satisfactory to it of the 75094
continuance of such incapacity and dependency.75095

       (C) Nothing in this section shall require an insurer to cover 75096
a dependent child who is mentally retarded or physically 75097
handicapped if the contract is underwritten on evidence of 75098
insurability based on health factors set forth in the application, 75099
or if such dependent child does not satisfy the conditions of the 75100
contract as to any requirement for evidence of insurability or 75101
other provision of the contract, satisfaction of which is required 75102
for coverage thereunder to take effect. In any such case, the 75103
terms of the contract shall apply with regard to the coverage or 75104
exclusion of the dependent from such coverage. Nothing in this 75105
section shall apply to accidental death or dismemberment benefits 75106
provided by any such policy of sickness and accident insurance.75107

       (D) Nothing in this section shall do any of the following:75108

       (1) Require that any policy offer coverage for dependent 75109
children or provide coverage for an unmarried dependent child's 75110
children as dependents on the policy;75111

       (2) Require an employer to pay for any part of the premium 75112
for an unmarried dependent child that has attained the limiting 75113
age for dependents, as provided in the policy;75114

       (3) Require an employer to offer health insurance coverage to 75115
the dependents of any employee.75116

        (E) This section does not apply to any policies or 75117
certificates covering only accident, credit, dental, disability 75118
income, long-term care, hospital indemnity, medicare supplement, 75119
specified disease, or vision care; coverage under a 75120
one-time-limited-duration policy of not longer than six months; 75121
coverage issued as a supplement to liability insurance; insurance 75122
arising out of a workers' compensation or similar law; automobile 75123
medical-payment insurance; or insurance under which benefits are 75124
payable with or without regard to fault and that is statutorily 75125
required to be contained in any liability insurance policy or 75126
equivalent self-insurance.75127

       (F) As used in this section, "health benefit plan" has the 75128
same meaning as in section 3924.01 of the Revised Code and also 75129
includes both of the following:75130

        (1) A public employee benefit plan;75131

        (2) A health benefit plan as regulated under the "Employee 75132
Retirement Income Security Act of 1974," 29 U.S.C. 1001, et seq.75133

       Sec. 3923.241. (A) Notwithstanding section 3901.71 of the 75134
Revised Code, any public employee benefit plan that provides that 75135
coverage of an unmarried dependent child will terminate upon 75136
attainment of the limiting age for dependent children specified in 75137
the plan shall also provide in substance both of the following:75138

        (1) Once an unmarried child has attained the limiting age for 75139
dependent children, as provided in the plan, upon the request of 75140
the employee, the public employee benefit plan shall offer to 75141
cover the unmarried child until the child attains twenty-eight 75142
years of age if all of the following are true:75143

        (a) The child is the natural child, stepchild, or adopted 75144
child of the employee.75145

       (b) The child is a resident of this state or a full-time 75146
student at an accredited public or private institution of higher 75147
education.75148

        (c) The child is not employed by an employer that offers any 75149
health benefit plan under which the child is eligible for 75150
coverage.75151

       (d) The child is not eligible for coverage under the medicaid 75152
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code or the 75153
medicare program established under Title XVIII of the "Social 75154
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1395.75155

       (2) That attainment of the limiting age for dependent 75156
children shall not operate to terminate the coverage of a 75157
dependent child if the child is and continues to be both of the 75158
following:75159

       (a) Incapable of self-sustaining employment by reason of 75160
mental retardation or physical handicap;75161

       (b) Primarily dependent upon the plan member for support and 75162
maintenance.75163

       (B) Proof of incapacity and dependence for purposes of 75164
division (A)(2) of this section shall be furnished to the public 75165
employee benefit plan within thirty-one days of the child's 75166
attainment of the limiting age. Upon request, but not more 75167
frequently than annually, the public employee benefit plan may 75168
require proof satisfactory to it of the continuance of such 75169
incapacity and dependency.75170

       (C) Nothing in this section shall do any of the following:75171

       (1) Require that any public employee benefit plan offer 75172
coverage for dependent children or provide coverage for an 75173
unmarried dependent child's children as dependents on the public 75174
employee benefit plan;75175

       (2) Require an employer to pay for any part of the premium 75176
for an unmarried dependent child that has attained the limiting 75177
age for dependents, as provided in the plan;75178

       (3) Require an employer to offer health insurance coverage to 75179
the dependents of any employee.75180

       (D) This section does not apply to any public employee 75181
benefit plan covering only accident, credit, dental, disability 75182
income, long-term care, hospital indemnity, medicare supplement, 75183
specified disease, or vision care; coverage under a 75184
one-time-limited-duration policy of not longer than six months; 75185
coverage issued as a supplement to liability insurance; insurance 75186
arising out of a workers' compensation or similar law; automobile 75187
medical-payment insurance; or insurance under which benefits are 75188
payable with or without regard to fault and which is statutorily 75189
required to be contained in any liability insurance policy or 75190
equivalent self-insurance.75191

       (E) As used in this section, "health benefit plan" has the 75192
same meaning as in section 3924.01 of the Revised Code and also 75193
includes both of the following:75194

        (1) A public employee benefit plan;75195

        (2) A health benefit plan as regulated under the "Employee 75196
Retirement Income Security Act of 1974," 29 U.S.C. 1001, et seq.75197

       Sec. 3923.281.  (A) As used in this section:75198

       (1) "Biologically based mental illness" means schizophrenia, 75199
schizoaffective disorder, major depressive disorder, bipolar 75200
disorder, paranoia and other psychotic disorders, 75201
obsessive-compulsive disorder, and panic disorder, as these terms 75202
are defined in the most recent edition of the diagnostic and 75203
statistical manual of mental disorders published by the American 75204
psychiatric association.75205

       (2) "Policy of sickness and accident insurance" has the same 75206
meaning as in section 3923.01 of the Revised Code, but excludes 75207
any hospital indemnity, medicare supplement, long-term care, 75208
disability income, one-time-limited-duration policy of not longer 75209
than six months, supplemental benefit, or other policy that 75210
provides coverage for specific diseases or accidents only; any 75211
policy that provides coverage for workers' compensation claims 75212
compensable pursuant to Chapters 4121. and 4123. of the Revised 75213
Code; and any policy that provides coverage to beneficiaries 75214
enrolled in Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 75215
(1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, known as the medical 75216
assistance program or medicaid, as provided by the Ohio department 75217
of job and family services under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code75218
recipients.75219

       (B) Notwithstanding section 3901.71 of the Revised Code, and 75220
subject to division (E) of this section, every policy of sickness 75221
and accident insurance shall provide benefits for the diagnosis 75222
and treatment of biologically based mental illnesses on the same 75223
terms and conditions as, and shall provide benefits no less 75224
extensive than, those provided under the policy of sickness and 75225
accident insurance for the treatment and diagnosis of all other 75226
physical diseases and disorders, if both of the following apply:75227

       (1) The biologically based mental illness is clinically 75228
diagnosed by a physician authorized under Chapter 4731. of the 75229
Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic 75230
medicine and surgery; a psychologist licensed under Chapter 4732. 75231
of the Revised Code; a professional clinical counselor, 75232
professional counselor, or independent social worker licensed 75233
under Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code; or a clinical nurse 75234
specialist licensed under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code whose 75235
nursing specialty is mental health.75236

       (2) The prescribed treatment is not experimental or 75237
investigational, having proven its clinical effectiveness in 75238
accordance with generally accepted medical standards.75239

       (C) Division (B) of this section applies to all coverages and 75240
terms and conditions of the policy of sickness and accident 75241
insurance, including, but not limited to, coverage of inpatient 75242
hospital services, outpatient services, and medication; maximum 75243
lifetime benefits; copayments; and individual and family 75244
deductibles.75245

       (D) Nothing in this section shall be construed as prohibiting 75246
a sickness and accident insurance company from taking any of the 75247
following actions:75248

       (1) Negotiating separately with mental health care providers 75249
with regard to reimbursement rates and the delivery of health care 75250
services;75251

       (2) Offering policies that provide benefits solely for the 75252
diagnosis and treatment of biologically based mental illnesses;75253

       (3) Managing the provision of benefits for the diagnosis or 75254
treatment of biologically based mental illnesses through the use 75255
of pre-admission screening, by requiring beneficiaries to obtain 75256
authorization prior to treatment, or through the use of any other 75257
mechanism designed to limit coverage to that treatment determined 75258
to be necessary;75259

       (4) Enforcing the terms and conditions of a policy of 75260
sickness and accident insurance.75261

       (E) An insurer that offers any policy of sickness and 75262
accident insurance is not required to provide benefits for the 75263
diagnosis and treatment of biologically based mental illnesses 75264
pursuant to division (B) of this section if all of the following 75265
apply:75266

       (1) The insurer submits documentation certified by an 75267
independent member of the American academy of actuaries to the 75268
superintendent of insurance showing that incurred claims for 75269
diagnostic and treatment services for biologically based mental 75270
illnesses for a period of at least six months independently caused 75271
the insurer's costs for claims and administrative expenses for the 75272
coverage of all other physical diseases and disorders to increase 75273
by more than one per cent per year. 75274

       (2) The insurer submits a signed letter from an independent 75275
member of the American academy of actuaries to the superintendent 75276
of insurance opining that the increase described in division 75277
(E)(1) of this section could reasonably justify an increase of 75278
more than one per cent in the annual premiums or rates charged by 75279
the insurer for the coverage of all other physical diseases and 75280
disorders.75281

       (3) The superintendent of insurance makes the following 75282
determinations from the documentation and opinion submitted 75283
pursuant to divisions (E)(1) and (2) of this section:75284

       (a) Incurred claims for diagnostic and treatment services for 75285
biologically based mental illnesses for a period of at least six 75286
months independently caused the insurer's costs for claims and 75287
administrative expenses for the coverage of all other physical 75288
diseases and disorders to increase by more than one per cent per 75289
year.75290

       (b) The increase in costs reasonably justifies an increase of 75291
more than one per cent in the annual premiums or rates charged by 75292
the insurer for the coverage of all other physical diseases and 75293
disorders.75294

       Any determination made by the superintendent under this 75295
division is subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.75296

       Sec. 3923.443. (A)(1) No agent shall sell, solicit, or 75297
negotiate long-term care insurance on or after September 1, 2008, 75298
without completing an initial eight-hour partnership program 75299
training course as described in division (B) of this section.75300

        (2)(a) Any agent that sells, solicits, or negotiates any 75301
long-term care insurance shall complete at least four hours of 75302
continuing education in every twenty-four-month period commencing 75303
on the first day of January of the year immediately following the 75304
year of the issuance of the agent's license.75305

       (b) No agent shall fail to complete the continuing education 75306
requirements in division (A)(2)(a) of this section in the 75307
twenty-four-month period described in that division.75308

       (B) The initial training course and continuing education 75309
required under division (A) of this section may be approved by the 75310
superintendent of insurance as continuing education courses under 75311
sections 3905.481 to 3905.486 of the Revised Code and shall 75312
consist of combined topics related to long-term care insurance, 75313
long-term care services, and state long-term care insurance 75314
partnership programs, including all of the following:75315

       (1) State and federal regulations and requirements and the 75316
relationship between state long-term care insurance partnership 75317
programs and other public and private coverage of long-term care 75318
services, including medicaid;75319

       (2) Available long-term care services and providers;75320

       (3) Changes or improvements in long-term care services or 75321
providers;75322

       (4) Alternatives to the purchase of private long-term care 75323
insurance;75324

       (5) The effect of inflation on benefits and the importance of 75325
inflation protection;75326

       (6) Consumer suitability standards and guidelines;75327

       (7) Any other topics required by the superintendent.75328

       (C) The initial training and continuing education required by 75329
division (A) of this section shall not include training that is 75330
specific to a particular insurer or company product or that 75331
includes any sales or marketing information, materials, or 75332
training other than those required by state or federal law.75333

       (D) A resident agent shall satisfy the training and 75334
continuing education required by division (A) of this section by 75335
completing long-term care courses that are approved by the 75336
superintendent. A nonresident agent may satisfy the training and 75337
continuing education required by division (A) of this section by 75338
completing the training requirements in any other state, provided 75339
that the course is approved for credit by the insurance department 75340
of that state prior to the agent taking the course.75341

       (E) Each insurer shall obtain records of the initial training 75342
and continuing education completed by agents of that insurer 75343
pursuant to division (A) of this section as well as the training 75344
completed by the insurer's agents concerning the distribution of 75345
the insurer's partnership program policies and shall make those 75346
records available to the superintendent upon request.75347

       (F) Each insurer shall maintain records with respect to the 75348
training of its agents concerning the distribution of the 75349
insurer's partnership program policies. Each insurer shall provide 75350
documentation to the superintendent that will allow the 75351
superintendent to provide assurance to the medicaid director of 75352
job and family services that agents have received the training 75353
required by this section and that agents have demonstrated an 75354
understanding of the partnership program policies and their 75355
relationship to public and private coverage of long-term care in 75356
this state, including medicaid. The superintendent may audit each 75357
insurer's records annually to verify that the insurer is 75358
maintaining the records required by this division. The 75359
superintendent shall make the records provided to the 75360
superintendent pursuant to division (E) of this section available 75361
to the director.75362

       Sec. 3923.49.  The department of insurance shall establish an 75363
outreach program to educate consumers about the following:75364

       (A) The need for long-term care insurance;75365

       (B) Mechanisms for financing long-term care;75366

       (C) The availability of long-term care insurance;75367

       (D) The resource protection provided by the Ohio long-term 75368
care insurance program under section 5111.185164.86 of the 75369
Revised Code;75370

       (E) That a consumer who purchased a long-term care insurance 75371
policy that does not meet the requirements of section 3923.50 of 75372
the Revised Code may purchase a policy that meets those 75373
requirements.75374

       The department shall develop and make available to consumers 75375
information to assist them in choosing long-term care insurance 75376
coverage.75377

       Sec. 3923.50.  For the purposes of the Ohio long-term care 75378
insurance program established under section 5111.185164.86 of the 75379
Revised Code, the department of insurance shall notify the 75380
department of job and family servicesmedicaid of all long-term 75381
care insurance policies that meet all of the following 75382
requirements:75383

       (A) Comply with sections 3923.41 to 3923.48 of the Revised 75384
Code and the rules adopted under section 3923.47 of the Revised 75385
Code;75386

       (B) Provide benefits for home and community-based services in 75387
addition to nursing home care;75388

       (C) Include case management services in its coverage of home 75389
and community-based services;75390

       (D) Provide five per cent inflation protection compounded 75391
annually;75392

       (E) Provide for the keeping of records and 75393
explanation-of-benefit reports on insurance payments that count 75394
toward resource exclusion for the medical assistancemedicaid75395
program;75396

       (F) Provide the information the medicaid director of job and 75397
family services determines is necessary to document the extent of 75398
resource exclusion and to evaluate the Ohio long-term care 75399
insurance program;75400

       (G) Comply with other requirements established in rules 75401
adopted under this section.75402

       The superintendent of insurance shall adopt rules in 75403
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing 75404
requirements under division (G) of this section that policies must 75405
meet to qualify under the Ohio long-term care insurance program. 75406
The superintendent shall consult with the departments of aging and 75407
job and family servicesmedicaid in adopting those rules.75408

       Sec. 3923.601. (A)(1) This section applies to both of the 75409
following:75410

       (a) A sickness and accident insurer that issues or requires 75411
the use of a standardized identification card or an electronic 75412
technology for submission and routing of prescription drug claims 75413
pursuant to a policy, contract, or agreement for health care 75414
services;75415

        (b) A person that a sickness and accident insurer contracts 75416
with to issue a standardized identification card or an electronic 75417
technology described in division (A)(1)(a) of this section.75418

       (2) Notwithstanding division (A)(1) of this section, this 75419
section does not apply to the issuance or required use of a 75420
standardized identification card or an electronic technology for 75421
the submission and routing of prescription drug claims in 75422
connection with any of the following:75423

       (a) Any individual or group policy of sickness and accident 75424
insurance covering only accident, credit, dental, disability 75425
income, long-term care, hospital indemnity, medicare supplement, 75426
medicare, tricare, specified disease, or vision care; coverage 75427
under a one-time-limited-duration policy of not longer than six 75428
months; coverage issued as a supplement to liability insurance; 75429
insurance arising out of workers' compensation or similar law; 75430
automobile medical payment insurance; or insurance under which 75431
benefits are payable with or without regard to fault and which is 75432
statutorily required to be contained in any liability insurance 75433
policy or equivalent self-insurance.75434

       (b) Coverage provided under the medicaid, as defined in 75435
section 5111.01 of the Revised Codeprogram.75436

       (c) Coverage provided under an employer's self-insurance plan 75437
or by any of its administrators, as defined in section 3959.01 of 75438
the Revised Code, to the extent that federal law supersedes, 75439
preempts, prohibits, or otherwise precludes the application of 75440
this section to the plan and its administrators.75441

       (B) A standardized identification card or an electronic 75442
technology issued or required to be used as provided in division 75443
(A)(1) of this section shall contain uniform prescription drug 75444
information in accordance with either division (B)(1) or (2) of 75445
this section.75446

        (1) The standardized identification card or the electronic 75447
technology shall be in a format and contain information fields 75448
approved by the national council for prescription drug programs or 75449
a successor organization, as specified in the council's or 75450
successor organization's pharmacy identification card 75451
implementation guide in effect on the first day of October most 75452
immediately preceding the issuance or required use of the 75453
standardized identification card or the electronic technology.75454

        (2) If the insurer or person under contract with the insurer 75455
to issue a standardized identification card or an electronic 75456
technology requires the information for the submission and routing 75457
of a claim, the standardized identification card or the electronic 75458
technology shall contain any of the following information:75459

        (a) The insurer's name;75460

        (b) The insured's name, group number, and identification 75461
number;75462

       (c) A telephone number to inquire about pharmacy-related 75463
issues;75464

        (d) The issuer's international identification number, labeled 75465
as "ANSI BIN" or "RxBIN";75466

        (e) The processor's control number, labeled as "RxPCN";75467

        (f) The insured's pharmacy benefits group number if different 75468
from the insured's medical group number, labeled as "RxGrp."75469

        (C) If the standardized identification card or the electronic 75470
technology issued or required to be used as provided in division 75471
(A)(1) of this section is also used for submission and routing of 75472
nonpharmacy claims, the designation "Rx" is required to be 75473
included as part of the labels identified in divisions (B)(2)(d) 75474
and (e) of this section if the issuer's international 75475
identification number or the processor's control number is 75476
different for medical and pharmacy claims.75477

        (D) Each sickness and accident insurer described in division 75478
(A) of this section shall annually file a certificate with the 75479
superintendent of insurance certifying that it or any person it 75480
contracts with to issue a standardized identification card or 75481
electronic technology for submission and routing of prescription 75482
drug claims complies with this section.75483

       (E)(1) Except as provided in division (E)(2) of this section, 75484
if there is a change in the information contained in the 75485
standardized identification card or the electronic technology 75486
issued to an insured, the insurer or person under contract with 75487
the insurer to issue a standardized identification card or an 75488
electronic technology shall issue a new card or electronic 75489
technology to the insured.75490

        (2) An insurer or person under contract with the insurer is 75491
not required under division (E)(1) of this section to issue a new 75492
card or electronic technology to an insured more than once during 75493
a twelve-month period.75494

        (F) Nothing in this section shall be construed as requiring 75495
an insurer to produce more than one standardized identification 75496
card or one electronic technology for use by insureds accessing 75497
health care benefits provided under a policy of sickness and 75498
accident insurance.75499

       Sec. 3923.83. (A)(1) This section applies to both of the 75500
following:75501

       (a) A public employee benefit plan that issues or requires 75502
the use of a standardized identification card or an electronic 75503
technology for submission and routing of prescription drug claims 75504
pursuant to a policy, contract, or agreement for health care 75505
services;75506

        (b) A person or entity that a public employee benefit plan 75507
contracts with to issue a standardized identification card or an 75508
electronic technology described in division (A)(1)(a) of this 75509
section.75510

       (2) Notwithstanding division (A)(1) of this section, this 75511
section does not apply to the issuance or required use of a 75512
standardized identification card or an electronic technology for 75513
the submission and routing of prescription drug claims in 75514
connection with either of the following:75515

       (a) Any individual or group policy of insurance covering only 75516
accident, credit, dental, disability income, long-term care, 75517
hospital indemnity, medicare supplement, medicare, tricare, 75518
specified disease, or vision care; coverage under a 75519
one-time-limited-duration policy of not longer than six months; 75520
coverage issued as a supplement to liability insurance; insurance 75521
arising out of workers' compensation or similar law; automobile 75522
medical payment insurance; or insurance under which benefits are 75523
payable with or without regard to fault and which is statutorily 75524
required to be contained in any liability insurance policy or 75525
equivalent self-insurance.75526

       (b) Coverage provided under the medicaid, as defined in 75527
section 5111.01 of the Revised Codeprogram.75528

       (B) A standardized identification card or an electronic 75529
technology issued or required to be used as provided in division 75530
(A)(1) of this section shall contain uniform prescription drug 75531
information in accordance with either division (B)(1) or (2) of 75532
this section.75533

        (1) The standardized identification card or the electronic 75534
technology shall be in a format and contain information fields 75535
approved by the national council for prescription drug programs or 75536
a successor organization, as specified in the council's or 75537
successor organization's pharmacy identification card 75538
implementation guide in effect on the first day of October most 75539
immediately preceding the issuance or required use of the 75540
standardized identification card or the electronic technology.75541

        (2) If the public employee benefit plan or person under 75542
contract with the plan to issue a standardized identification card 75543
or an electronic technology requires the information for the 75544
submission and routing of a claim, the standardized identification 75545
card or the electronic technology shall contain any of the 75546
following information:75547

        (a) The plan's name;75548

        (b) The insured's name, group number, and identification 75549
number;75550

       (c) A telephone number to inquire about pharmacy-related 75551
issues;75552

        (d) The issuer's international identification number, labeled 75553
as "ANSI BIN" or "RxBIN";75554

        (e) The processor's control number, labeled as "RxPCN";75555

        (f) The insured's pharmacy benefits group number if different 75556
from the insured's medical group number, labeled as "RxGrp."75557

        (C) If the standardized identification card or the electronic 75558
technology issued or required to be used as provided in division 75559
(A)(1) of this section is also used for submission and routing of 75560
nonpharmacy claims, the designation "Rx" is required to be 75561
included as part of the labels identified in divisions (B)(2)(d) 75562
and (e) of this section if the issuer's international 75563
identification number or the processor's control number is 75564
different for medical and pharmacy claims.75565

        (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(2) of this section, 75566
if there is a change in the information contained in the 75567
standardized identification card or the electronic technology 75568
issued to an insured, the public employee benefit plan or person 75569
under contract with the plan to issue a standardized 75570
identification card or electronic technology shall issue a new 75571
card or electronic technology to the insured. 75572

       (2) A public employee benefit plan or person under contract 75573
with the plan is not required under division (D)(1) of this 75574
section to issue a new card or electronic technology to an insured 75575
more than once during a twelve-month period.75576

       (F)(E) Nothing in this section shall be construed as 75577
requiring a public employee benefit plan to produce more than one 75578
standardized identification card or one electronic technology for 75579
use by insureds accessing health care benefits provided under a 75580
health benefit plan.75581

       Sec. 3924.41.  (A) As used in sections 3924.41 and 3924.42 of 75582
the Revised Code, "health insurer" means any sickness and accident 75583
insurer or health insuring corporation. "Health insurer" also 75584
includes any group health plan as defined in section 607 of the 75585
federal "Employee Retirement Income Security Act of 1974," 88 75586
Stat. 832, 29 U.S.C.A. 1167.75587

       (B) Notwithstanding any other provision of the Revised Code, 75588
no health insurer shall take into consideration the availability 75589
of, or eligibility for, medical assistancethe medicaid program in 75590
this state under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code or in any other 75591
state pursuant to Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 75592
620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, when determining an 75593
individual's eligibility for coverage or when making payments to 75594
or on behalf of an enrollee, subscriber, policyholder, or 75595
certificate holder.75596

       Sec. 3924.42.  No health insurer shall impose requirements on 75597
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid, when it has 75598
been assigned the rights of an individual who is eligible for 75599
medical assistance under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code75600
medicaid and who is covered under a health care policy, contract, 75601
or plan issued by the health insurer, that are different from the 75602
requirements applicable to an agent or assignee of any other 75603
individual so covered.75604

       Sec. 3963.01. As used in this chapter:75605

       (A) "Affiliate" means any person or entity that has ownership 75606
or control of a contracting entity, is owned or controlled by a 75607
contracting entity, or is under common ownership or control with a 75608
contracting entity.75609

       (B) "Basic health care services" has the same meaning as in 75610
division (A) of section 1751.01 of the Revised Code, except that 75611
it does not include any services listed in that division that are 75612
provided by a pharmacist or nursing home.75613

       (C) "Contracting entity" means any person that has a primary 75614
business purpose of contracting with participating providers for 75615
the delivery of health care services.75616

       (D) "Credentialing" means the process of assessing and 75617
validating the qualifications of a provider applying to be 75618
approved by a contracting entity to provide basic health care 75619
services, specialty health care services, or supplemental health 75620
care services to enrollees.75621

       (E) "Edit" means adjusting one or more procedure codes billed 75622
by a participating provider on a claim for payment or a practice 75623
that results in any of the following:75624

       (1) Payment for some, but not all of the procedure codes 75625
originally billed by a participating provider;75626

       (2) Payment for a different procedure code than the procedure 75627
code originally billed by a participating provider;75628

       (3) A reduced payment as a result of services provided to an 75629
enrollee that are claimed under more than one procedure code on 75630
the same service date.75631

       (F) "Electronic claims transport" means to accept and 75632
digitize claims or to accept claims already digitized, to place 75633
those claims into a format that complies with the electronic 75634
transaction standards issued by the United States department of 75635
health and human services pursuant to the "Health Insurance 75636
Portability and Accountability Act of 1996," 110 Stat. 1955, 42 75637
U.S.C. 1320d, et seq., as those electronic standards are 75638
applicable to the parties and as those electronic standards are 75639
updated from time to time, and to electronically transmit those 75640
claims to the appropriate contracting entity, payer, or 75641
third-party administrator.75642

       (G) "Enrollee" means any person eligible for health care 75643
benefits under a health benefit plan, including an eligible 75644
recipient of medicaid under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code, and 75645
includes all of the following terms:75646

       (1) "Enrollee" and "subscriber" as defined by section 1751.01 75647
of the Revised Code;75648

       (2) "Member" as defined by section 1739.01 of the Revised 75649
Code;75650

       (3) "Insured" and "plan member" pursuant to Chapter 3923. of 75651
the Revised Code;75652

       (4) "Beneficiary" as defined by section 3901.38 of the 75653
Revised Code.75654

       (H) "Health care contract" means a contract entered into, 75655
materially amended, or renewed between a contracting entity and a 75656
participating provider for the delivery of basic health care 75657
services, specialty health care services, or supplemental health 75658
care services to enrollees.75659

       (I) "Health care services" means basic health care services, 75660
specialty health care services, and supplemental health care 75661
services.75662

       (J) "Material amendment" means an amendment to a health care 75663
contract that decreases the participating provider's payment or 75664
compensation, changes the administrative procedures in a way that 75665
may reasonably be expected to significantly increase the 75666
provider's administrative expenses, or adds a new product. A 75667
material amendment does not include any of the following:75668

       (1) A decrease in payment or compensation resulting solely 75669
from a change in a published fee schedule upon which the payment 75670
or compensation is based and the date of applicability is clearly 75671
identified in the contract;75672

       (2) A decrease in payment or compensation that was 75673
anticipated under the terms of the contract, if the amount and 75674
date of applicability of the decrease is clearly identified in the 75675
contract;75676

       (3) An administrative change that may significantly increase 75677
the provider's administrative expense, the specific applicability 75678
of which is clearly identified in the contract;75679

       (4) Changes to an existing prior authorization, 75680
precertification, notification, or referral program that do not 75681
substantially increase the provider's administrative expense;75682

       (5) Changes to an edit program or to specific edits if the 75683
participating provider is provided notice of the changes pursuant 75684
to division (A)(1) of section 3963.04 of the Revised Code and the 75685
notice includes information sufficient for the provider to 75686
determine the effect of the change;75687

       (6) Changes to a health care contract described in division 75688
(B) of section 3963.04 of the Revised Code.75689

       (K) "Participating provider" means a provider that has a 75690
health care contract with a contracting entity and is entitled to 75691
reimbursement for health care services rendered to an enrollee 75692
under the health care contract.75693

       (L) "Payer" means any person that assumes the financial risk 75694
for the payment of claims under a health care contract or the 75695
reimbursement for health care services provided to enrollees by 75696
participating providers pursuant to a health care contract.75697

       (M) "Primary enrollee" means a person who is responsible for 75698
making payments for participation in a health care plan or an 75699
enrollee whose employment or other status is the basis of 75700
eligibility for enrollment in a health care plan.75701

       (N) "Procedure codes" includes the American medical 75702
association's current procedural terminology code, the American 75703
dental association's current dental terminology, and the centers 75704
for medicare and medicaid services health care common procedure 75705
coding system.75706

       (O) "Product" means one of the following types of categories 75707
of coverage for which a participating provider may be obligated to 75708
provide health care services pursuant to a health care contract:75709

       (1) A health maintenance organization or other product 75710
provided by a health insuring corporation;75711

       (2) A preferred provider organization;75712

       (3) Medicare;75713

       (4) Medicaid;75714

       (5) Workers' compensation.75715

       (P) "Provider" means a physician, podiatrist, dentist, 75716
chiropractor, optometrist, psychologist, physician assistant, 75717
advanced practice registered nurse, occupational therapist, 75718
massage therapist, physical therapist, professional counselor, 75719
professional clinical counselor, hearing aid dealer, orthotist, 75720
prosthetist, home health agency, hospice care program, pediatric 75721
respite care program, or hospital, or a provider organization or 75722
physician-hospital organization that is acting exclusively as an 75723
administrator on behalf of a provider to facilitate the provider's 75724
participation in health care contracts. "Provider" does not mean a 75725
pharmacist, pharmacy, nursing home, or a provider organization or 75726
physician-hospital organization that leases the provider 75727
organization's or physician-hospital organization's network to a 75728
third party or contracts directly with employers or health and 75729
welfare funds.75730

       (Q) "Specialty health care services" has the same meaning as 75731
in section 1751.01 of the Revised Code, except that it does not 75732
include any services listed in division (B) of section 1751.01 of 75733
the Revised Code that are provided by a pharmacist or a nursing 75734
home.75735

       (R) "Supplemental health care services" has the same meaning 75736
as in division (B) of section 1751.01 of the Revised Code, except 75737
that it does not include any services listed in that division that 75738
are provided by a pharmacist or nursing home.75739

       Sec. 3963.04. (A)(1) If an amendment to a health care 75740
contract is not a material amendment, the contracting entity shall 75741
provide the participating provider notice of the amendment at 75742
least fifteen days prior to the effective date of the amendment. 75743
The contracting entity shall provide all other notices to the 75744
participating provider pursuant to the health care contract.75745

       (2) A material amendment to a health care contract shall 75746
occur only if the contracting entity provides to the participating 75747
provider the material amendment in writing and notice of the 75748
material amendment not later than ninety days prior to the 75749
effective date of the material amendment. The notice shall be 75750
conspicuously entitled "Notice of Material Amendment to Contract."75751

       (3) If within fifteen days after receiving the material 75752
amendment and notice described in division (A)(2) of this section, 75753
the participating provider objects in writing to the material 75754
amendment, and there is no resolution of the objection, either 75755
party may terminate the health care contract upon written notice 75756
of termination provided to the other party not later than sixty 75757
days prior to the effective date of the material amendment.75758

       (4) If the participating provider does not object to the 75759
material amendment in the manner described in division (A)(3) of 75760
this section, the material amendment shall be effective as 75761
specified in the notice described in division (A)(2) of this 75762
section.75763

       (B)(1) Division (A) of this section does not apply if the 75764
delay caused by compliance with that division could result in 75765
imminent harm to an enrollee, if the material amendment of a 75766
health care contract is required by state or federal law, rule, or 75767
regulation, or if the provider affirmatively accepts the material 75768
amendment in writing and agrees to an earlier effective date than 75769
otherwise required by division (A)(2) of this section.75770

       (2) This section does not apply under any of the following 75771
circumstances:75772

       (a) The participating provider's payment or compensation is 75773
based on the current medicaid or medicare physician fee schedule, 75774
and the change in payment or compensation results solely from a 75775
change in that physician fee schedule.75776

       (b) A routine change or update of the health care contract is 75777
made in response to any addition, deletion, or revision of any 75778
service code, procedure code, or reporting code, or a pricing 75779
change is made by any third party source.75780

        For purposes of division (B)(2)(b) of this section:75781

        (i) "Service code, procedure code, or reporting code" means 75782
the current procedural terminology (CPT), current dental 75783
terminology (CDT), the healthcare common procedure coding system 75784
(HCPCS), the international classification of diseases (ICD), or 75785
the drug topics redbook average wholesale price (AWP).75786

        (ii) "Third party source" means the American medical 75787
association, American dental association, the centers for medicare 75788
and medicaid services, the national center for health statistics, 75789
the department of health and human services office of the 75790
inspector general, the Ohio department of insurance, or the Ohio 75791
department of job and family servicesmedicaid.75792

       (C) Notwithstanding divisions (A) and (B) of this section, a 75793
health care contract may be amended by operation of law as 75794
required by any applicable state or federal law, rule, or 75795
regulation. Nothing in this section shall be construed to require 75796
the renegotiation of a health care contract that is in existence 75797
before the effective date of this sectionJune 25, 2008, until the 75798
time that the contract is renewed or materially amended.75799

       Sec. 4104.33. There is hereby created the historical boilers 75800
licensing board consisting of seven members, three of whom shall 75801
be appointed by the governor with the advice and consent of the 75802
senate. The governor shall make initial appointments to the board 75803
within ninety days after October 24, 2002. Of the initial members 75804
appointed by the governor, one shall be for a term ending three 75805
years after October 24, 2002, one shall be for a term ending four 75806
years after October 24, 2002, and one shall be for a term ending 75807
five years after October 24, 2002. Thereafter, terms of office 75808
shall be for five years, each term ending on the same day of the 75809
same month of the year as did the term that it succeeds. Of the 75810
three members the governor appoints, one member shall be an 75811
employee of the division of boiler inspection in the department of 75812
commerce; one member shall be an independent mechanical engineer 75813
who is not involved in selling or inspecting historical boilers; 75814
and one shall be an active member of an association that 75815
represents managers of fairs or festivals.75816

       Two members of the board shall be appointed by the president 75817
of the senate and two members of the board shall be appointed by 75818
the speaker of the house of representatives. The president and 75819
speaker shall make initial appointments to the board within ninety 75820
days after October 24, 2002. Of the initial members appointed by 75821
the president, one shall be for a term ending four years after 75822
October 24, 2002 and one shall be for a term ending five years 75823
after October 24, 2002. Of the initial members appointed by the 75824
speaker, one shall be for a term ending three years after October 75825
24, 2002 and one shall be for a term ending five years after 75826
October 24, 2002. Thereafter, terms of office shall be for five 75827
years, each term ending on the same day of the same month of the 75828
year as did the term that it succeeds. Of the four members 75829
appointed by the president and speaker, each shall own a 75830
historical boiler and also have at least ten years of experience 75831
in the operation of historical boilers, and each of these four 75832
members shall reside in a different region of the state.75833

       Each member shall hold office from the date of the member's 75834
appointment until the end of the term for which the member was 75835
appointed. Members may be reappointed. Vacancies shall be filled 75836
in the manner provided for initial appointmentsby the director of 75837
commerce, and shall not require the advice and consent of the 75838
senate. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to 75839
the expiration date of the term for which the member's predecessor 75840
was appointed shall hold office as a member for the remainder of 75841
that term. A member shall continue in office subsequent to the 75842
expiration date of the member's term until the successor takes 75843
office or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, whichever 75844
occurs first.75845

       The members of the board, annually, shall elect, by majority 75846
vote, a chairperson from among their members. The board shall meet 75847
at least once annually and at other times at the call of the 75848
chairperson. Board members shall receive their actual and 75849
necessary expenses incurred in the discharge of their duties as 75850
board members.75851

       The superintendent of industrial compliance shall furnish 75852
office space, staff, and supplies to the board as the 75853
superintendent determines are necessary for the board to carry out 75854
its official duties under sections 4104.33 to 4104.37 of the 75855
Revised Code.75856

       Sec. 4112.02.  It shall be an unlawful discriminatory 75857
practice:75858

       (A) For any employer, because of the race, color, religion, 75859
sex, military status, national origin, disability, age, or 75860
ancestry of any person, to discharge without just cause, to refuse 75861
to hire, or otherwise to discriminate against that person with 75862
respect to hire, tenure, terms, conditions, or privileges of 75863
employment, or any matter directly or indirectly related to 75864
employment.75865

       (B) For an employment agency or personnel placement service, 75866
because of race, color, religion, sex, military status, national 75867
origin, disability, age, or ancestry, to do any of the following:75868

       (1) Refuse or fail to accept, register, classify properly, or 75869
refer for employment, or otherwise discriminate against any 75870
person;75871

       (2) Comply with a request from an employer for referral of 75872
applicants for employment if the request directly or indirectly 75873
indicates that the employer fails to comply with the provisions of 75874
sections 4112.01 to 4112.07 of the Revised Code.75875

       (C) For any labor organization to do any of the following:75876

       (1) Limit or classify its membership on the basis of race, 75877
color, religion, sex, military status, national origin, 75878
disability, age, or ancestry;75879

       (2) Discriminate against, limit the employment opportunities 75880
of, or otherwise adversely affect the employment status, wages, 75881
hours, or employment conditions of any person as an employee 75882
because of race, color, religion, sex, military status, national 75883
origin, disability, age, or ancestry.75884

       (D) For any employer, labor organization, or joint 75885
labor-management committee controlling apprentice training 75886
programs to discriminate against any person because of race, 75887
color, religion, sex, military status, national origin, 75888
disability, or ancestry in admission to, or employment in, any 75889
program established to provide apprentice training.75890

       (E) Except where based on a bona fide occupational 75891
qualification certified in advance by the commission, for any 75892
employer, employment agency, personnel placement service, or labor 75893
organization, prior to employment or admission to membership, to 75894
do any of the following:75895

       (1) Elicit or attempt to elicit any information concerning 75896
the race, color, religion, sex, military status, national origin, 75897
disability, age, or ancestry of an applicant for employment or 75898
membership;75899

       (2) Make or keep a record of the race, color, religion, sex, 75900
military status, national origin, disability, age, or ancestry of 75901
any applicant for employment or membership;75902

       (3) Use any form of application for employment, or personnel 75903
or membership blank, seeking to elicit information regarding race, 75904
color, religion, sex, military status, national origin, 75905
disability, age, or ancestry; but an employer holding a contract 75906
containing a nondiscrimination clause with the government of the 75907
United States, or any department or agency of that government, may 75908
require an employee or applicant for employment to furnish 75909
documentary proof of United States citizenship and may retain that 75910
proof in the employer's personnel records and may use photographic 75911
or fingerprint identification for security purposes;75912

       (4) Print or publish or cause to be printed or published any 75913
notice or advertisement relating to employment or membership 75914
indicating any preference, limitation, specification, or 75915
discrimination, based upon race, color, religion, sex, military 75916
status, national origin, disability, age, or ancestry;75917

       (5) Announce or follow a policy of denying or limiting, 75918
through a quota system or otherwise, employment or membership 75919
opportunities of any group because of the race, color, religion, 75920
sex, military status, national origin, disability, age, or 75921
ancestry of that group;75922

       (6) Utilize in the recruitment or hiring of persons any 75923
employment agency, personnel placement service, training school or 75924
center, labor organization, or any other employee-referring source 75925
known to discriminate against persons because of their race, 75926
color, religion, sex, military status, national origin, 75927
disability, age, or ancestry.75928

       (F) For any person seeking employment to publish or cause to 75929
be published any advertisement that specifies or in any manner 75930
indicates that person's race, color, religion, sex, military 75931
status, national origin, disability, age, or ancestry, or 75932
expresses a limitation or preference as to the race, color, 75933
religion, sex, military status, national origin, disability, age, 75934
or ancestry of any prospective employer.75935

       (G) For any proprietor or any employee, keeper, or manager of 75936
a place of public accommodation to deny to any person, except for 75937
reasons applicable alike to all persons regardless of race, color, 75938
religion, sex, military status, national origin, disability, age, 75939
or ancestry, the full enjoyment of the accommodations, advantages, 75940
facilities, or privileges of the place of public accommodation.75941

       (H) For any person to do any of the following:75942

       (1) Refuse to sell, transfer, assign, rent, lease, sublease, 75943
or finance housing accommodations, refuse to negotiate for the 75944
sale or rental of housing accommodations, or otherwise deny or 75945
make unavailable housing accommodations because of race, color, 75946
religion, sex, military status, familial status, ancestry, 75947
disability, or national origin;75948

       (2) Represent to any person that housing accommodations are 75949
not available for inspection, sale, or rental, when in fact they 75950
are available, because of race, color, religion, sex, military 75951
status, familial status, ancestry, disability, or national origin;75952

       (3) Discriminate against any person in the making or 75953
purchasing of loans or the provision of other financial assistance 75954
for the acquisition, construction, rehabilitation, repair, or 75955
maintenance of housing accommodations, or any person in the making 75956
or purchasing of loans or the provision of other financial 75957
assistance that is secured by residential real estate, because of 75958
race, color, religion, sex, military status, familial status, 75959
ancestry, disability, or national origin or because of the racial 75960
composition of the neighborhood in which the housing 75961
accommodations are located, provided that the person, whether an 75962
individual, corporation, or association of any type, lends money 75963
as one of the principal aspects or incident to the person's 75964
principal business and not only as a part of the purchase price of 75965
an owner-occupied residence the person is selling nor merely 75966
casually or occasionally to a relative or friend;75967

       (4) Discriminate against any person in the terms or 75968
conditions of selling, transferring, assigning, renting, leasing, 75969
or subleasing any housing accommodations or in furnishing 75970
facilities, services, or privileges in connection with the 75971
ownership, occupancy, or use of any housing accommodations, 75972
including the sale of fire, extended coverage, or homeowners 75973
insurance, because of race, color, religion, sex, military status, 75974
familial status, ancestry, disability, or national origin or 75975
because of the racial composition of the neighborhood in which the 75976
housing accommodations are located;75977

       (5) Discriminate against any person in the terms or 75978
conditions of any loan of money, whether or not secured by 75979
mortgage or otherwise, for the acquisition, construction, 75980
rehabilitation, repair, or maintenance of housing accommodations 75981
because of race, color, religion, sex, military status, familial 75982
status, ancestry, disability, or national origin or because of the 75983
racial composition of the neighborhood in which the housing 75984
accommodations are located;75985

       (6) Refuse to consider without prejudice the combined income 75986
of both husband and wife for the purpose of extending mortgage 75987
credit to a married couple or either member of a married couple;75988

       (7) Print, publish, or circulate any statement or 75989
advertisement, or make or cause to be made any statement or 75990
advertisement, relating to the sale, transfer, assignment, rental, 75991
lease, sublease, or acquisition of any housing accommodations, or 75992
relating to the loan of money, whether or not secured by mortgage 75993
or otherwise, for the acquisition, construction, rehabilitation, 75994
repair, or maintenance of housing accommodations, that indicates 75995
any preference, limitation, specification, or discrimination based 75996
upon race, color, religion, sex, military status, familial status, 75997
ancestry, disability, or national origin, or an intention to make 75998
any such preference, limitation, specification, or discrimination;75999

       (8) Except as otherwise provided in division (H)(8) or (17) 76000
of this section, make any inquiry, elicit any information, make or 76001
keep any record, or use any form of application containing 76002
questions or entries concerning race, color, religion, sex, 76003
military status, familial status, ancestry, disability, or 76004
national origin in connection with the sale or lease of any 76005
housing accommodations or the loan of any money, whether or not 76006
secured by mortgage or otherwise, for the acquisition, 76007
construction, rehabilitation, repair, or maintenance of housing 76008
accommodations. Any person may make inquiries, and make and keep 76009
records, concerning race, color, religion, sex, military status, 76010
familial status, ancestry, disability, or national origin for the 76011
purpose of monitoring compliance with this chapter.76012

       (9) Include in any transfer, rental, or lease of housing 76013
accommodations any restrictive covenant, or honor or exercise, or 76014
attempt to honor or exercise, any restrictive covenant;76015

       (10) Induce or solicit, or attempt to induce or solicit, a 76016
housing accommodations listing, sale, or transaction by 76017
representing that a change has occurred or may occur with respect 76018
to the racial, religious, sexual, military status, familial 76019
status, or ethnic composition of the block, neighborhood, or other 76020
area in which the housing accommodations are located, or induce or 76021
solicit, or attempt to induce or solicit, a housing accommodations 76022
listing, sale, or transaction by representing that the presence or 76023
anticipated presence of persons of any race, color, religion, sex, 76024
military status, familial status, ancestry, disability, or 76025
national origin, in the block, neighborhood, or other area will or 76026
may have results including, but not limited to, the following:76027

       (a) The lowering of property values;76028

       (b) A change in the racial, religious, sexual, military 76029
status, familial status, or ethnic composition of the block, 76030
neighborhood, or other area;76031

       (c) An increase in criminal or antisocial behavior in the 76032
block, neighborhood, or other area;76033

       (d) A decline in the quality of the schools serving the 76034
block, neighborhood, or other area.76035

       (11) Deny any person access to or membership or participation 76036
in any multiple-listing service, real estate brokers' 76037
organization, or other service, organization, or facility relating 76038
to the business of selling or renting housing accommodations, or 76039
discriminate against any person in the terms or conditions of that 76040
access, membership, or participation, on account of race, color, 76041
religion, sex, military status, familial status, national origin, 76042
disability, or ancestry;76043

       (12) Coerce, intimidate, threaten, or interfere with any 76044
person in the exercise or enjoyment of, or on account of that 76045
person's having exercised or enjoyed or having aided or encouraged 76046
any other person in the exercise or enjoyment of, any right 76047
granted or protected by division (H) of this section;76048

       (13) Discourage or attempt to discourage the purchase by a 76049
prospective purchaser of housing accommodations, by representing 76050
that any block, neighborhood, or other area has undergone or might 76051
undergo a change with respect to its religious, racial, sexual, 76052
military status, familial status, or ethnic composition;76053

       (14) Refuse to sell, transfer, assign, rent, lease, sublease, 76054
or finance, or otherwise deny or withhold, a burial lot from any 76055
person because of the race, color, sex, military status, familial 76056
status, age, ancestry, disability, or national origin of any 76057
prospective owner or user of the lot;76058

       (15) Discriminate in the sale or rental of, or otherwise make 76059
unavailable or deny, housing accommodations to any buyer or renter 76060
because of a disability of any of the following:76061

       (a) The buyer or renter;76062

       (b) A person residing in or intending to reside in the 76063
housing accommodations after they are sold, rented, or made 76064
available;76065

       (c) Any individual associated with the person described in 76066
division (H)(15)(b) of this section.76067

       (16) Discriminate in the terms, conditions, or privileges of 76068
the sale or rental of housing accommodations to any person or in 76069
the provision of services or facilities to any person in 76070
connection with the housing accommodations because of a disability 76071
of any of the following:76072

       (a) That person;76073

       (b) A person residing in or intending to reside in the 76074
housing accommodations after they are sold, rented, or made 76075
available;76076

       (c) Any individual associated with the person described in 76077
division (H)(16)(b) of this section.76078

       (17) Except as otherwise provided in division (H)(17) of this 76079
section, make an inquiry to determine whether an applicant for the 76080
sale or rental of housing accommodations, a person residing in or 76081
intending to reside in the housing accommodations after they are 76082
sold, rented, or made available, or any individual associated with 76083
that person has a disability, or make an inquiry to determine the 76084
nature or severity of a disability of the applicant or such a 76085
person or individual. The following inquiries may be made of all 76086
applicants for the sale or rental of housing accommodations, 76087
regardless of whether they have disabilities:76088

       (a) An inquiry into an applicant's ability to meet the 76089
requirements of ownership or tenancy;76090

       (b) An inquiry to determine whether an applicant is qualified 76091
for housing accommodations available only to persons with 76092
disabilities or persons with a particular type of disability;76093

       (c) An inquiry to determine whether an applicant is qualified 76094
for a priority available to persons with disabilities or persons 76095
with a particular type of disability;76096

       (d) An inquiry to determine whether an applicant currently 76097
uses a controlled substance in violation of section 2925.11 of the 76098
Revised Code or a substantively comparable municipal ordinance;76099

       (e) An inquiry to determine whether an applicant at any time 76100
has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to any offense, an element 76101
of which is the illegal sale, offer to sell, cultivation, 76102
manufacture, other production, shipment, transportation, delivery, 76103
or other distribution of a controlled substance.76104

       (18)(a) Refuse to permit, at the expense of a person with a 76105
disability, reasonable modifications of existing housing 76106
accommodations that are occupied or to be occupied by the person 76107
with a disability, if the modifications may be necessary to afford 76108
the person with a disability full enjoyment of the housing 76109
accommodations. This division does not preclude a landlord of 76110
housing accommodations that are rented or to be rented to a 76111
disabled tenant from conditioning permission for a proposed 76112
modification upon the disabled tenant's doing one or more of the 76113
following:76114

       (i) Providing a reasonable description of the proposed 76115
modification and reasonable assurances that the proposed 76116
modification will be made in a workerlike manner and that any 76117
required building permits will be obtained prior to the 76118
commencement of the proposed modification;76119

       (ii) Agreeing to restore at the end of the tenancy the 76120
interior of the housing accommodations to the condition they were 76121
in prior to the proposed modification, but subject to reasonable 76122
wear and tear during the period of occupancy, if it is reasonable 76123
for the landlord to condition permission for the proposed 76124
modification upon the agreement;76125

       (iii) Paying into an interest-bearing escrow account that is 76126
in the landlord's name, over a reasonable period of time, a 76127
reasonable amount of money not to exceed the projected costs at 76128
the end of the tenancy of the restoration of the interior of the 76129
housing accommodations to the condition they were in prior to the 76130
proposed modification, but subject to reasonable wear and tear 76131
during the period of occupancy, if the landlord finds the account 76132
reasonably necessary to ensure the availability of funds for the 76133
restoration work. The interest earned in connection with an escrow 76134
account described in this division shall accrue to the benefit of 76135
the disabled tenant who makes payments into the account.76136

       (b) A landlord shall not condition permission for a proposed 76137
modification upon a disabled tenant's payment of a security 76138
deposit that exceeds the customarily required security deposit of 76139
all tenants of the particular housing accommodations.76140

       (19) Refuse to make reasonable accommodations in rules, 76141
policies, practices, or services when necessary to afford a person 76142
with a disability equal opportunity to use and enjoy a dwelling 76143
unit, including associated public and common use areas;76144

       (20) Fail to comply with the standards and rules adopted 76145
under division (A) of section 3781.111 of the Revised Code;76146

       (21) Discriminate against any person in the selling, 76147
brokering, or appraising of real property because of race, color, 76148
religion, sex, military status, familial status, ancestry, 76149
disability, or national origin;76150

       (22) Fail to design and construct covered multifamily 76151
dwellings for first occupancy on or after June 30, 1992, in 76152
accordance with the following conditions:76153

       (a) The dwellings shall have at least one building entrance 76154
on an accessible route, unless it is impractical to do so because 76155
of the terrain or unusual characteristics of the site.76156

       (b) With respect to dwellings that have a building entrance 76157
on an accessible route, all of the following apply:76158

       (i) The public use areas and common use areas of the 76159
dwellings shall be readily accessible to and usable by persons 76160
with a disability.76161

       (ii) All the doors designed to allow passage into and within 76162
all premises shall be sufficiently wide to allow passage by 76163
persons with a disability who are in wheelchairs.76164

       (iii) All premises within covered multifamily dwelling units 76165
shall contain an accessible route into and through the dwelling; 76166
all light switches, electrical outlets, thermostats, and other 76167
environmental controls within such units shall be in accessible 76168
locations; the bathroom walls within such units shall contain 76169
reinforcements to allow later installation of grab bars; and the 76170
kitchens and bathrooms within such units shall be designed and 76171
constructed in a manner that enables an individual in a wheelchair 76172
to maneuver about such rooms.76173

       For purposes of division (H)(22) of this section, "covered 76174
multifamily dwellings" means buildings consisting of four or more 76175
units if such buildings have one or more elevators and ground 76176
floor units in other buildings consisting of four or more units.76177

       (I) For any person to discriminate in any manner against any 76178
other person because that person has opposed any unlawful 76179
discriminatory practice defined in this section or because that 76180
person has made a charge, testified, assisted, or participated in 76181
any manner in any investigation, proceeding, or hearing under 76182
sections 4112.01 to 4112.07 of the Revised Code.76183

       (J) For any person to aid, abet, incite, compel, or coerce 76184
the doing of any act declared by this section to be an unlawful 76185
discriminatory practice, to obstruct or prevent any person from 76186
complying with this chapter or any order issued under it, or to 76187
attempt directly or indirectly to commit any act declared by this 76188
section to be an unlawful discriminatory practice.76189

       (K)(1) Nothing in division (H) of this section shall bar any 76190
religious or denominational institution or organization, or any 76191
nonprofit charitable or educational organization that is operated, 76192
supervised, or controlled by or in connection with a religious 76193
organization, from limiting the sale, rental, or occupancy of 76194
housing accommodations that it owns or operates for other than a 76195
commercial purpose to persons of the same religion, or from giving 76196
preference in the sale, rental, or occupancy of such housing 76197
accommodations to persons of the same religion, unless membership 76198
in the religion is restricted on account of race, color, or 76199
national origin.76200

       (2) Nothing in division (H) of this section shall bar any 76201
bona fide private or fraternal organization that, incidental to 76202
its primary purpose, owns or operates lodgings for other than a 76203
commercial purpose, from limiting the rental or occupancy of the 76204
lodgings to its members or from giving preference to its members.76205

       (3) Nothing in division (H) of this section limits the 76206
applicability of any reasonable local, state, or federal 76207
restrictions regarding the maximum number of occupants permitted 76208
to occupy housing accommodations. Nothing in that division 76209
prohibits the owners or managers of housing accommodations from 76210
implementing reasonable occupancy standards based on the number 76211
and size of sleeping areas or bedrooms and the overall size of a 76212
dwelling unit, provided that the standards are not implemented to 76213
circumvent the purposes of this chapter and are formulated, 76214
implemented, and interpreted in a manner consistent with this 76215
chapter and any applicable local, state, or federal restrictions 76216
regarding the maximum number of occupants permitted to occupy 76217
housing accommodations.76218

       (4) Nothing in division (H) of this section requires that 76219
housing accommodations be made available to an individual whose 76220
tenancy would constitute a direct threat to the health or safety 76221
of other individuals or whose tenancy would result in substantial 76222
physical damage to the property of others.76223

       (5) Nothing in division (H) of this section pertaining to 76224
discrimination on the basis of familial status shall be construed 76225
to apply to any of the following:76226

       (a) Housing accommodations provided under any state or 76227
federal program that have been determined under the "Fair Housing 76228
Amendments Act of 1988," 102 Stat. 1623, 42 U.S.C.A. 3607, as 76229
amended, to be specifically designed and operated to assist 76230
elderly persons;76231

       (b) Housing accommodations intended for and solely occupied 76232
by persons who are sixty-two years of age or older;76233

       (c) Housing accommodations intended and operated for 76234
occupancy by at least one person who is fifty-five years of age or 76235
older per unit, as determined under the "Fair Housing Amendments 76236
Act of 1988," 102 Stat. 1623, 42 U.S.C.A. 3607, as amended.76237

       (L) Nothing in divisions (A) to (E) of this section shall be 76238
construed to require a person with a disability to be employed or 76239
trained under circumstances that would significantly increase the 76240
occupational hazards affecting either the person with a 76241
disability, other employees, the general public, or the facilities 76242
in which the work is to be performed, or to require the employment 76243
or training of a person with a disability in a job that requires 76244
the person with a disability routinely to undertake any task, the 76245
performance of which is substantially and inherently impaired by 76246
the person's disability.76247

       (M) Nothing in divisions (H)(1) to (18) of this section shall 76248
be construed to require any person selling or renting property to 76249
modify the property in any way or to exercise a higher degree of 76250
care for a person with a disability, to relieve any person with a 76251
disability of any obligation generally imposed on all persons 76252
regardless of disability in a written lease, rental agreement, or 76253
contract of purchase or sale, or to forbid distinctions based on 76254
the inability to fulfill the terms and conditions, including 76255
financial obligations, of the lease, agreement, or contract.76256

       (N) An aggrieved individual may enforce the individual's 76257
rights relative to discrimination on the basis of age as provided 76258
for in this section by instituting a civil action, within one 76259
hundred eighty days after the alleged unlawful discriminatory 76260
practice occurred, in any court with jurisdiction for any legal or 76261
equitable relief that will effectuate the individual's rights.76262

       A person who files a civil action under this division is 76263
barred, with respect to the practices complained of, from 76264
instituting a civil action under section 4112.14 of the Revised 76265
Code and from filing a charge with the commission under section 76266
4112.05 of the Revised Code.76267

       (O) With regard to age, it shall not be an unlawful 76268
discriminatory practice and it shall not constitute a violation of 76269
division (A) of section 4112.14 of the Revised Code for any 76270
employer, employment agency, joint labor-management committee 76271
controlling apprenticeship training programs, or labor 76272
organization to do any of the following:76273

       (1) Establish bona fide employment qualifications reasonably 76274
related to the particular business or occupation that may include 76275
standards for skill, aptitude, physical capability, intelligence, 76276
education, maturation, and experience;76277

       (2) Observe the terms of a bona fide seniority system or any 76278
bona fide employee benefit plan, including, but not limited to, a 76279
retirement, pension, or insurance plan, that is not a subterfuge 76280
to evade the purposes of this section. However, no such employee 76281
benefit plan shall excuse the failure to hire any individual, and 76282
no such seniority system or employee benefit plan shall require or 76283
permit the involuntary retirement of any individual, because of 76284
the individual's age except as provided for in the "Age 76285
Discrimination in Employment Act Amendment of 1978," 92 Stat. 189, 76286
29 U.S.C.A. 623, as amended by the "Age Discrimination in 76287
Employment Act Amendments of 1986," 100 Stat. 3342, 29 U.S.C.A. 76288
623, as amended.76289

       (3) Retire an employee who has attained sixty-five years of 76290
age who, for the two-year period immediately before retirement, is 76291
employed in a bona fide executive or a high policymaking position, 76292
if the employee is entitled to an immediate nonforfeitable annual 76293
retirement benefit from a pension, profit-sharing, savings, or 76294
deferred compensation plan, or any combination of those plans, of 76295
the employer of the employee, which equals, in the aggregate, at 76296
least forty-four thousand dollars, in accordance with the 76297
conditions of the "Age Discrimination in Employment Act Amendment 76298
of 1978," 92 Stat. 189, 29 U.S.C.A. 631, as amended by the "Age 76299
Discrimination in Employment Act Amendments of 1986," 100 Stat. 76300
3342, 29 U.S.C.A. 631, as amended;76301

       (4) Observe the terms of any bona fide apprenticeship program 76302
if the program is registered with the Ohio apprenticeship council 76303
pursuant to sections 4139.01 to 4139.06 of the Revised Code and is 76304
approved by the federal committee on apprenticeship of the United 76305
States department of labor.76306

       (P) Nothing in this chapter prohibiting age discrimination 76307
and nothing in division (A) of section 4112.14 of the Revised Code 76308
shall be construed to prohibit the following:76309

       (1) The designation of uniform age the attainment of which is 76310
necessary for public employees to receive pension or other 76311
retirement benefits pursuant to Chapter 145., 742., 3307., 3309., 76312
or 5505. of the Revised Code;76313

       (2) The mandatory retirement of uniformed patrol officers of 76314
the state highway patrol as provided in section 5505.16 of the 76315
Revised Code;76316

       (3) The maximum age requirements for appointment as a patrol 76317
officer in the state highway patrol established by section 5503.01 76318
of the Revised Code;76319

       (4) The maximum age requirements established for original 76320
appointment to a police department or fire department in sections 76321
124.41 and 124.42 of the Revised Code;76322

       (5) Any maximum age not in conflict with federal law that may 76323
be established by a municipal charter, municipal ordinance, or 76324
resolution of a board of township trustees for original 76325
appointment as a police officer or firefighter;76326

       (6) Any mandatory retirement provision not in conflict with 76327
federal law of a municipal charter, municipal ordinance, or 76328
resolution of a board of township trustees pertaining to police 76329
officers and firefighters;76330

       (7) Until January 1, 1994, the mandatory retirement of any 76331
employee who has attained seventy years of age and who is serving 76332
under a contract of unlimited tenure, or similar arrangement 76333
providing for unlimited tenure, at an institution of higher 76334
education as defined in the "Education Amendments of 1980," 94 76335
Stat. 1503, 20 U.S.C.A. 1141(a).76336

       (Q)(1)(a) Except as provided in division (Q)(1)(b) of this 76337
section, for purposes of divisions (A) to (E) of this section, a 76338
disability does not include any physiological disorder or 76339
condition, mental or psychological disorder, or disease or 76340
condition caused by an illegal use of any controlled substance by 76341
an employee, applicant, or other person, if an employer, 76342
employment agency, personnel placement service, labor 76343
organization, or joint labor-management committee acts on the 76344
basis of that illegal use.76345

       (b) Division (Q)(1)(a) of this section does not apply to an 76346
employee, applicant, or other person who satisfies any of the 76347
following:76348

       (i) The employee, applicant, or other person has successfully 76349
completed a supervised drug rehabilitation program and no longer 76350
is engaging in the illegal use of any controlled substance, or the 76351
employee, applicant, or other person otherwise successfully has 76352
been rehabilitated and no longer is engaging in that illegal use.76353

       (ii) The employee, applicant, or other person is 76354
participating in a supervised drug rehabilitation program and no 76355
longer is engaging in the illegal use of any controlled substance.76356

       (iii) The employee, applicant, or other person is erroneously 76357
regarded as engaging in the illegal use of any controlled 76358
substance, but the employee, applicant, or other person is not 76359
engaging in that illegal use.76360

       (2) Divisions (A) to (E) of this section do not prohibit an 76361
employer, employment agency, personnel placement service, labor 76362
organization, or joint labor-management committee from doing any 76363
of the following:76364

       (a) Adopting or administering reasonable policies or 76365
procedures, including, but not limited to, testing for the illegal 76366
use of any controlled substance, that are designed to ensure that 76367
an individual described in division (Q)(1)(b)(i) or (ii) of this 76368
section no longer is engaging in the illegal use of any controlled 76369
substance;76370

       (b) Prohibiting the illegal use of controlled substances and 76371
the use of alcohol at the workplace by all employees;76372

       (c) Requiring that employees not be under the influence of 76373
alcohol or not be engaged in the illegal use of any controlled 76374
substance at the workplace;76375

       (d) Requiring that employees behave in conformance with the 76376
requirements established under "The Drug-Free Workplace Act of 76377
1988," 102 Stat. 4304, 41 U.S.C.A. 701, as amended;76378

       (e) Holding an employee who engages in the illegal use of any 76379
controlled substance or who is an alcoholic to the same 76380
qualification standards for employment or job performance, and the 76381
same behavior, to which the employer, employment agency, personnel 76382
placement service, labor organization, or joint labor-management 76383
committee holds other employees, even if any unsatisfactory 76384
performance or behavior is related to an employee's illegal use of 76385
a controlled substance or alcoholism;76386

       (f) Exercising other authority recognized in the "Americans 76387
with Disabilities Act of 1990," 104 Stat. 327, 42 U.S.C.A. 12101, 76388
as amended, including, but not limited to, requiring employees to 76389
comply with any applicable federal standards.76390

       (3) For purposes of this chapter, a test to determine the 76391
illegal use of any controlled substance does not include a medical 76392
examination.76393

       (4) Division (Q) of this section does not encourage, 76394
prohibit, or authorize, and shall not be construed as encouraging, 76395
prohibiting, or authorizing, the conduct of testing for the 76396
illegal use of any controlled substance by employees, applicants, 76397
or other persons, or the making of employment decisions based on 76398
the results of that type of testing.76399

       (R) This section does not apply to a religious corporation, 76400
association, educational institution, or society with respect to 76401
the employment of an individual of a particular religion to 76402
perform work connected with the carrying on by that religious 76403
corporation, association, educational institution, or society of 76404
its activities.76405

       The unlawful discriminatory practices defined in this section 76406
do not make it unlawful for a person or an appointing authority 76407
administering an examination under section 124.23 of the Revised 76408
Code to obtain information about an applicant's military status 76409
for the purpose of determining if the applicant is eligible for 76410
the additional credit that is available under that section.76411

       Sec. 4112.12.  (A) There is hereby created the commission on 76412
African-American males, which shall consist of not more than 76413
twenty-five members as follows: the directors or their designees 76414
of the departments of health, development, alcohol and drug 76415
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services, and job 76416
and family services; the equal employment opportunity officer of 76417
the department of administrative services or the equal employment 76418
opportunity officer's designee; the executive director or the 76419
executive director's designee of the Ohio civil rights commission; 76420
the executive director or the executive director's designee of the 76421
division of criminal justice services in the department of public 76422
safety; the superintendent of public instruction; the chancellor 76423
or the chancellor's designee of the Ohio board of regents; two 76424
members of the house of representatives appointed by the speaker 76425
of the house of representatives each of whom shall be members of 76426
different political parties; and two members of the senate 76427
appointed by the president of the senate each of whom shall be 76428
members of different political parties. The members who are 76429
members of the general assembly shall be nonvoting members. The 76430
Ohio state university African American and African studies 76431
community extension center, in consultation with the governor, 76432
shall appoint four members from the private corporate sector, at 76433
least four members from the public sector, and two members from 76434
the nonprofit sector.76435

       (B) Terms of office shall be for three years, except that 76436
members of the general assembly appointed to the commission shall 76437
be members only so long as they are members of the general 76438
assembly. Each term ends on the same day of the same month as did 76439
the term that it succeeds. Each member shall hold office from the 76440
date of appointment until the end of the term for which the member 76441
was appointed. Members may be reappointed. Vacancies shall be 76442
filled in the manner provided for original appointments. Any 76443
member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the 76444
expiration date of the term for which the member's predecessor was 76445
appointed shall hold office as a member for the remainder of that 76446
term. A member shall continue in office subsequent to the 76447
expiration date of the member's term until the member's successor 76448
takes office or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, 76449
whichever occurs first.76450

       The commission annually shall elect a chairperson from among 76451
its members.76452

       (C) Members of the commission and members of subcommittees 76453
appointed under division (B) of section 4112.13 of the Revised 76454
Code shall not be compensated, but shall be reimbursed for their 76455
necessary and actual expenses incurred in the performance of their 76456
official duties.76457

       (D) The Ohio state university African American and African 76458
studies community extension center, in consultation with the 76459
governor, shall appoint an executive director of the commission on 76460
African-American males, who shall be in the unclassified civil 76461
service. The executive director shall supervise the commission's 76462
activities and report to the commission and to the Ohio state 76463
university African American and African studies community 76464
extension center on the progress of those activities. The 76465
executive director shall do all things necessary for the efficient 76466
and effective implementation of the duties of the commission.76467

       The responsibilities assigned to the executive director do 76468
not relieve the members of the commission from final 76469
responsibility for the proper performance of the requirements of 76470
this division.76471

       (E) The commission on African-American males shall do all of 76472
the following:76473

       (1) Employ, promote, supervise, and remove all employees, as 76474
needed, in connection with the performance of its duties under 76475
this section;76476

       (2) Maintain its office in Columbus;76477

       (3) Acquire facilities, equipment, and supplies necessary to 76478
house the commission, its employees, and files and records under 76479
its control, and to discharge any duty imposed upon it by law. The 76480
expense of these acquisitions shall be audited and paid for in the 76481
same manner as other state expenses.76482

       (4) Establish the overall policy and management of the 76483
commission in accordance with this chapter;76484

       (5) Follow all state procurement requirements;76485

        (6) Implement the policies and plans of the Ohio state 76486
university African American and African studies community 76487
extension center as those policies and plans are formulated and 76488
adopted by the Ohio state university African American and African 76489
studies community extension center;76490

        (7) Report to the Ohio state university African American and 76491
African studies community extension center on the progress of the 76492
commission on African-American males in implementing the policies 76493
and plans of the Ohio state university African American and 76494
African studies community extension center.76495

       (F) The commission on African-American males may:76496

       (1) Hold sessions at any place within the state, except that 76497
the commission on African-American males shall meet at least 76498
quarterly;76499

       (2) Establish, change, or abolish positions, and assign and 76500
reassign duties and responsibilities of any employee of the 76501
commission on African-American males as necessary to achieve the 76502
most efficient performance of its functions.76503

       (G) The Ohio state university African American and African 76504
studies community extension center shall establish the overall 76505
policy and management of the commission on African-American males 76506
and shall direct, manage, and oversee the commission. The Ohio 76507
state university African American and African studies community 76508
extension center shall develop overall policies and plans, and the 76509
commission on African-American males shall implement those 76510
policies and plans. The commission on African-American males, 76511
through its executive director, shall keep the Ohio state 76512
university African American and African studies community 76513
extension center informed as to the activities of the commission 76514
on African-American males in such manner and at such times as the 76515
Ohio state university African American and African studies 76516
community extension center shall determine.76517

        The Ohio state university African American and African 76518
studies community extension center may prescribe duties and 76519
responsibilities of the commission on African-American males in 76520
addition to those prescribed in section 4112.13 of the Revised 76521
Code.76522

        (H) The Ohio state university African American and African 76523
studies community extension center annually shall contract for a 76524
report on the status of African Americans in this state. Issues to 76525
be evaluated in the report shall include the criminal justice 76526
system, education, employment, health care, and housing, and such 76527
other issues as the Ohio state university African American and 76528
African studies community extension center may specify. The report 76529
shall include policy recommendations relating to the issues 76530
covered in the report.76531

       Sec. 4112.31.  The new African immigrants commission shall do 76532
all of the following:76533

       (A) Gather and disseminate information and conduct hearings, 76534
conferences, investigations, and special studies on problems and 76535
programs concerning sub-Saharan African people;76536

       (B) Secure appropriate recognition of the accomplishments and 76537
contributions of sub-Saharan African people to this state;76538

       (C) Stimulate public awareness of the problems of sub-Saharan 76539
African people by conducting a program of public education;76540

       (D) Develop, coordinate, and assist other public and private 76541
organizations that serve sub-Saharan African people, including the 76542
conducting of training programs for community leadership and 76543
service project staff;76544

       (E) Advise the governor, general assembly, and state 76545
departments and agencies of the nature, magnitude, and priorities 76546
of the problems of sub-Saharan African people;76547

       (F) Advise the governor, general assembly, and state 76548
departments and agencies on, and assist in the development and 76549
implementation of, comprehensive and coordinated policies, 76550
programs, and procedures focusing on the special problems and 76551
needs of sub-Saharan African people, especially in the fields of 76552
education, employment, energy, health, housing, welfare, and 76553
recreation;76554

       (G) Propose new programs concerning sub-Saharan African 76555
people to public and private agencies and evaluate for such 76556
agencies existing programs or prospective legislation concerning 76557
sub-Saharan African people;76558

       (H) Review and approve grants to be made from federal, state, 76559
or private funds that are administered or subcontracted by the 76560
commission;76561

       (I) Prepare, review, and approve an annual report;76562

       (J) Serve as a clearinghouse to review and comment on all 76563
proposals to meet the needs of sub-Saharan African people that are 76564
submitted to it by public and private agencies;76565

       (K) Apply for and accept grants and gifts from governmental 76566
and private sources to be administered by the commission or 76567
subcontracted to local agencies;76568

       (L) Monitor and evaluate all programs subcontracted to local 76569
agencies by the commission;76570

       (M) Endeavor to assure that sub-Saharan African people have 76571
access to decision-making bodies in all state and local 76572
governmental departments and agencies;76573

       (N) Establish advisory committees on special subjects as 76574
needed to facilitate and maximize community participation in the 76575
operation of the commission;76576

       (O) Establish with state and local governments and private 76577
business and industry relationships that promote and assure equal 76578
opportunity for sub-Saharan African people in government, 76579
education, and employment.76580

       (P) Create an interagency council consisting of the following 76581
persons or their authorized representatives: one member of the 76582
senate appointed by the president of the senate; one member of the 76583
house of representatives appointed by the speaker of the house of 76584
representatives; the directors of administrative services, 76585
agriculture, education, development services, health, highway 76586
safety, job and family services, liquor control, mental health76587
mental health and addiction services, mental retardation and 76588
developmental disabilities, natural resources, rehabilitation and 76589
correction, youth services, transportation, environmental 76590
protection, and budget and management; the chairperson of the Ohio 76591
civil rights commission, the administratorsadministrator of the 76592
bureau of workers' compensation and, the rehabilitation services 76593
commissionexecutive director of the opportunities for Ohioans 76594
with disabilities agency, and an additional member of the 76595
governor's cabinet appointed by the governor. The new African 76596
immigrants commission, by rule, may designate other state officers 76597
or their representatives to be members of the council. The 76598
director of the commission shall be the chairperson of the 76599
council.76600

       The interagency council shall provide and coordinate the 76601
exchange of information relative to the needs of sub-Saharan 76602
African people and promote the delivery of state services to such 76603
people. The council shall meet at the call of the chairperson.76604

       Advisory committees shall be composed of persons representing 76605
community organizations and charitable institutions, public 76606
officials, and such other persons as the commission determines.76607

       Sec. 4115.034.  On January 1, 1996, and the first day of 76608
January of every even-numbered year thereafter, the director of 76609
commerce shall adjust the threshold levels for which public 76610
improvement projects are subject to sections 4115.03 to 4115.16 of 76611
the Revised Code as set forth in divisions (B)(3) and (4) of 76612
section 4115.03 of the Revised Code. The director shall adjust 76613
those amounts according to the average increase or decrease for 76614
each of the two years immediately preceding the adjustment as set 76615
forth in the United States department of commerce, bureau of the 76616
census implicit price deflator forthe construction cost index 76617
published by the engineering news-record or, should that index 76618
cease to be published, a similar recognized industry index chosen 76619
by the director, provided that no increase or decrease for any 76620
year shall exceed three per cent of the threshold level in 76621
existence at the time of the adjustment.76622

       Sec. 4115.32.  (A) Subject to section 4115.36 of the Revised 76623
Code, there is hereby created the state committee for the purchase 76624
of products and services provided by persons with severe 76625
disabilities. The committee shall be composed ex officio of the 76626
following persons, or their designees:76627

       (1) The directors of administrative services, mental health76628
mental health and addiction services, developmental disabilities, 76629
transportation, natural resources, and commerce;76630

       (2) The administratorsadministrator of the rehabilitation 76631
services commission and the bureau of workers' compensation and 76632
the executive director of the opportunities for Ohioans with 76633
disabilities agency;76634

       (3) The secretary of state;76635

       (4) One representative of a purchasing department of a 76636
political subdivision who is designated by the governor.76637

       The governor shall appoint two representatives of a qualified 76638
nonprofit agency for persons with severe disabilities, and a 76639
person with a severe disability to the committee.76640

       (B) Within thirty days after September 29, 1995, the governor 76641
shall appoint the representatives of a qualified nonprofit agency 76642
for persons with severe disabilities to the committee for a term 76643
ending August 31, 1996. Thereafter, terms for such representatives 76644
are for three years, each term ending on the same day of the same 76645
month of the year as did the term that it succeeds. Each committee 76646
member shall serve from the date of the member's appointment until 76647
the end of the term for which the member was appointed. Vacancies 76648
shall be filled in the same manner provided for original 76649
appointments. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring 76650
prior to the expiration date of the term for which the member's 76651
predecessor was appointed shall serve as a member for the 76652
remainder of that term. A member shall serve subsequent to the 76653
expiration of the member's term and shall continue to serve until 76654
the member's successor takes office.76655

       (C) Members of the committee shall serve without 76656
compensation. Except as otherwise provided in divisions (C)(1) and 76657
(2) of this section, members shall be reimbursed for actual and 76658
necessary expenses, including travel expenses, incurred while away 76659
from their homes or regular places of business and incurred while 76660
performing services for the committee.76661

       (1) The members listed in divisions (A)(1) to (3) of this 76662
section, or their designees, shall not be reimbursed for any 76663
expenses.76664

       (2) No member of the committee who is entitled to receive 76665
reimbursement for the performance of services for the committee 76666
from another agency or entity shall receive reimbursement from the 76667
committee.76668

       (D) The committee shall elect from among its members a 76669
chairperson. The committee may request from any agency of the 76670
state, political subdivision, or instrumentality of the state any 76671
information necessary to enable it to carry out the intent of 76672
sections 4115.31 to 4115.35 of the Revised Code. Upon request of 76673
the committee, the agency, subdivision, or instrumentality shall 76674
furnish the information to the chairperson of the committee.76675

       (E) The committee shall not later than one hundred eighty 76676
days following the close of each fiscal year transmit to the 76677
governor, the general assembly, and each qualified nonprofit 76678
agency for persons with severe disabilities a report that includes 76679
the names of the committee members serving during the preceding 76680
fiscal year, the dates of committee meetings in that year, and any 76681
recommendations for changes in sections 4115.31 to 4115.35 of the 76682
Revised Code that the committee determines are necessary.76683

       (F) The director of administrative services shall designate a 76684
subordinate to act as executive director of the committee and 76685
shall furnish other staff and clerical assistance, office space, 76686
and supplies required by the committee.76687

       Sec. 4117.06.  (A) The state employment relations board shall 76688
decide in each case the unit appropriate for the purposes of 76689
collective bargaining. The determination is final and conclusive 76690
and not appealable to the court.76691

       (B) The board shall determine the appropriateness of each 76692
bargaining unit and shall consider among other relevant factors: 76693
the desires of the employees; the community of interest; wages, 76694
hours, and other working conditions of the public employees; the 76695
effect of over-fragmentation; the efficiency of operations of the 76696
public employer; the administrative structure of the public 76697
employer; and the history of collective bargaining.76698

       (C) The board may determine a unit to be the appropriate unit 76699
in a particular case, even though some other unit might also be 76700
appropriate.76701

       (D) In addition, in determining the appropriate unit, the 76702
board shall not:76703

       (1) Decide that any unit is appropriate if the unit includes 76704
both professional and nonprofessional employees, unless a majority 76705
of the professional employees and a majority of the 76706
nonprofessional employees first vote for inclusion in the unit;76707

       (2) Include guards or correction officers at correctional or 76708
mental institutions, special police officers appointed in 76709
accordance with sections 5119.145119.08 and 5123.13 of the 76710
Revised Code, psychiatric attendants employed at mental health 76711
forensic facilities, youth leaders employed at juvenile correction 76712
facilities, or any public employee employed as a guard to enforce 76713
against other employees rules to protect property of the employer 76714
or to protect the safety of persons on the employer's premises in 76715
a unit with other employees;76716

       (3) Include members of a police or fire department or members 76717
of the state highway patrol in a unit with other classifications 76718
of public employees of the department;76719

       (4) Designate as appropriate a bargaining unit that contains 76720
more than one institution of higher education; nor shall it within 76721
any such institution of higher education designate as appropriate 76722
a unit where such designation would be inconsistent with the 76723
accreditation standards or interpretations of such standards, 76724
governing such institution of higher education or any department, 76725
school, or college thereof. For the purposes of this division, any 76726
branch or regional campus of a public institution of higher 76727
education is part of that institution of higher education.76728

       (5) Designate as appropriate a bargaining unit that contains 76729
employees within the jurisdiction of more than one elected county 76730
office holder, unless the county-elected office holder and the 76731
board of county commissioners agree to such other designation;76732

       (6) With respect to members of a police department, designate 76733
as appropriate a unit that includes rank and file members of the 76734
department with members who are of the rank of sergeant or above;76735

       (7) Except as otherwise provided by division (A)(3) of 76736
section 3314.10 or division (B) of section 3326.18 of the Revised 76737
Code, designate as appropriate a bargaining unit that contains 76738
employees from multiple community schools established under 76739
Chapter 3314. or multiple science, technology, engineering, and 76740
mathematics schools established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised 76741
Code. For purposes of this division, more than one unit may be 76742
designated within a single community school or science, 76743
technology, engineering, and mathematics school.76744

       This section shall not be deemed to prohibit multiunit 76745
bargaining.76746

       Sec. 4117.14.  (A) The procedures contained in this section 76747
govern the settlement of disputes between an exclusive 76748
representative and a public employer concerning the termination or 76749
modification of an existing collective bargaining agreement or 76750
negotiation of a successor agreement, or the negotiation of an 76751
initial collective bargaining agreement.76752

       (B)(1) In those cases where there exists a collective 76753
bargaining agreement, any public employer or exclusive 76754
representative desiring to terminate, modify, or negotiate a 76755
successor collective bargaining agreement shall:76756

       (a) Serve written notice upon the other party of the proposed 76757
termination, modification, or successor agreement. The party must 76758
serve the notice not less than sixty days prior to the expiration 76759
date of the existing agreement or, in the event the existing 76760
collective bargaining agreement does not contain an expiration 76761
date, not less than sixty days prior to the time it is proposed to 76762
make the termination or modifications or to make effective a 76763
successor agreement.76764

       (b) Offer to bargain collectively with the other party for 76765
the purpose of modifying or terminating any existing agreement or 76766
negotiating a successor agreement;76767

       (c) Notify the state employment relations board of the offer 76768
by serving upon the board a copy of the written notice to the 76769
other party and a copy of the existing collective bargaining 76770
agreement.76771

       (2) In the case of initial negotiations between a public 76772
employer and an exclusive representative, where a collective 76773
bargaining agreement has not been in effect between the parties, 76774
any party may serve notice upon the board and the other party 76775
setting forth the names and addresses of the parties and offering 76776
to meet, for a period of ninety days, with the other party for the 76777
purpose of negotiating a collective bargaining agreement.76778

       If the settlement procedures specified in divisions (B), (C), 76779
and (D) of this section govern the parties, where those procedures 76780
refer to the expiration of a collective bargaining agreement, it 76781
means the expiration of the sixty-day period to negotiate a 76782
collective bargaining agreement referred to in this subdivision, 76783
or in the case of initial negotiations, it means the ninety-day 76784
period referred to in this subdivision.76785

       (3) The parties shall continue in full force and effect all 76786
the terms and conditions of any existing collective bargaining 76787
agreement, without resort to strike or lock-out, for a period of 76788
sixty days after the party gives notice or until the expiration 76789
date of the collective bargaining agreement, whichever occurs 76790
later, or for a period of ninety days where applicable.76791

       (4) Upon receipt of the notice, the parties shall enter into 76792
collective bargaining.76793

       (C) In the event the parties are unable to reach an 76794
agreement, they may submit, at any time prior to forty-five days 76795
before the expiration date of the collective bargaining agreement, 76796
the issues in dispute to any mutually agreed upon dispute 76797
settlement procedure which supersedes the procedures contained in 76798
this section.76799

       (1) The procedures may include:76800

       (a) Conventional arbitration of all unsettled issues;76801

       (b) Arbitration confined to a choice between the last offer 76802
of each party to the agreement as a single package;76803

       (c) Arbitration confined to a choice of the last offer of 76804
each party to the agreement on each issue submitted;76805

       (d) The procedures described in division (C)(1)(a), (b), or 76806
(c) of this section and including among the choices for the 76807
arbitrator, the recommendations of the fact finder, if there are 76808
recommendations, either as a single package or on each issue 76809
submitted;76810

       (e) Settlement by a citizens' conciliation council composed 76811
of three residents within the jurisdiction of the public employer. 76812
The public employer shall select one member and the exclusive 76813
representative shall select one member. The two members selected 76814
shall select the third member who shall chair the council. If the 76815
two members cannot agree upon a third member within five days 76816
after their appointments, the board shall appoint the third 76817
member. Once appointed, the council shall make a final settlement 76818
of the issues submitted to it pursuant to division (G) of this 76819
section.76820

       (f) Any other dispute settlement procedure mutually agreed to 76821
by the parties.76822

       (2) If, fifty days before the expiration date of the 76823
collective bargaining agreement, the parties are unable to reach 76824
an agreement, any party may request the state employment relations 76825
board to intervene. The request shall set forth the names and 76826
addresses of the parties, the issues involved, and, if applicable, 76827
the expiration date of any agreement.76828

       The board shall intervene and investigate the dispute to 76829
determine whether the parties have engaged in collective 76830
bargaining.76831

       If an impasse exists or forty-five days before the expiration 76832
date of the collective bargaining agreement if one exists, the 76833
board shall appoint a mediator to assist the parties in the 76834
collective bargaining process.76835

       (3) Any time after the appointment of a mediator, either 76836
party may request the appointment of a fact-finding panel. Within 76837
fifteen days after receipt of a request for a fact-finding panel, 76838
the board shall appoint a fact-finding panel of not more than 76839
three members who have been selected by the parties in accordance 76840
with rules established by the board, from a list of qualified 76841
persons maintained by the board.76842

       (a) The fact-finding panel shall, in accordance with rules 76843
and procedures established by the board that include the 76844
regulation of costs and expenses of fact-finding, gather facts and 76845
make recommendations for the resolution of the matter. The board 76846
shall by its rules require each party to specify in writing the 76847
unresolved issues and its position on each issue to the 76848
fact-finding panel. The fact-finding panel shall make final 76849
recommendations as to all the unresolved issues.76850

       (b) The board may continue mediation, order the parties to 76851
engage in collective bargaining until the expiration date of the 76852
agreement, or both.76853

       (4) The following guidelines apply to fact-finding:76854

       (a) The fact-finding panel may establish times and place of 76855
hearings which shall be, where feasible, in the jurisdiction of 76856
the state.76857

       (b) The fact-finding panel shall conduct the hearing pursuant 76858
to rules established by the board.76859

       (c) Upon request of the fact-finding panel, the board shall 76860
issue subpoenas for hearings conducted by the panel.76861

       (d) The fact-finding panel may administer oaths.76862

       (e) The board shall prescribe guidelines for the fact-finding 76863
panel to follow in making findings. In making its recommendations, 76864
the fact-finding panel shall take into consideration the factors 76865
listed in divisions (G)(7)(a) to (f) of this section.76866

       (f) The fact-finding panel may attempt mediation at any time 76867
during the fact-finding process. From the time of appointment 76868
until the fact-finding panel makes a final recommendation, it 76869
shall not discuss the recommendations for settlement of the 76870
dispute with parties other than the direct parties to the dispute.76871

       (5) The fact-finding panel, acting by a majority of its 76872
members, shall transmit its findings of fact and recommendations 76873
on the unresolved issues to the public employer and employee 76874
organization involved and to the board no later than fourteen days 76875
after the appointment of the fact-finding panel, unless the 76876
parties mutually agree to an extension. The parties shall share 76877
the cost of the fact-finding panel in a manner agreed to by the 76878
parties.76879

       (6)(a) Not later than seven days after the findings and 76880
recommendations are sent, the legislative body, by a three-fifths 76881
vote of its total membership, and in the case of the public 76882
employee organization, the membership, by a three-fifths vote of 76883
the total membership, may reject the recommendations; if neither 76884
rejects the recommendations, the recommendations shall be deemed 76885
agreed upon as the final resolution of the issues submitted and a 76886
collective bargaining agreement shall be executed between the 76887
parties, including the fact-finding panel's recommendations, 76888
except as otherwise modified by the parties by mutual agreement. 76889
If either the legislative body or the public employee organization 76890
rejects the recommendations, the board shall publicize the 76891
findings of fact and recommendations of the fact-finding panel. 76892
The board shall adopt rules governing the procedures and methods 76893
for public employees to vote on the recommendations of the 76894
fact-finding panel.76895

        (b) As used in division (C)(6)(a) of this section, 76896
"legislative body" means the controlling board when the state or 76897
any of its agencies, authorities, commissions, boards, or other 76898
branch of public employment is party to the fact-finding process.76899

       (D) If the parties are unable to reach agreement within seven 76900
days after the publication of findings and recommendations from 76901
the fact-finding panel or the collective bargaining agreement, if 76902
one exists, has expired, then the:76903

       (1) Public employees, who are members of a police or fire 76904
department, members of the state highway patrol, deputy sheriffs, 76905
dispatchers employed by a police, fire, or sheriff's department or 76906
the state highway patrol or civilian dispatchers employed by a 76907
public employer other than a police, fire, or sheriff's department 76908
to dispatch police, fire, sheriff's department, or emergency 76909
medical or rescue personnel and units, an exclusive nurse's unit, 76910
employees of the state school for the deaf or the state school for 76911
the blind, employees of any public employee retirement system, 76912
corrections officers, guards at penal or mental institutions, 76913
special police officers appointed in accordance with sections76914
5119.145119.08 and 5123.13 of the Revised Code, psychiatric 76915
attendants employed at mental health forensic facilities, youth 76916
leaders employed at juvenile correctional facilities, or members 76917
of a law enforcement security force that is established and 76918
maintained exclusively by a board of county commissioners and 76919
whose members are employed by that board, shall submit the matter 76920
to a final offer settlement procedure pursuant to a board order 76921
issued forthwith to the parties to settle by a conciliator 76922
selected by the parties. The parties shall request from the board 76923
a list of five qualified conciliators and the parties shall select 76924
a single conciliator from the list by alternate striking of names. 76925
If the parties cannot agree upon a conciliator within five days 76926
after the board order, the board shall on the sixth day after its 76927
order appoint a conciliator from a list of qualified persons 76928
maintained by the board or shall request a list of qualified 76929
conciliators from the American arbitration association and appoint 76930
therefrom.76931

       (2) Public employees other than those listed in division 76932
(D)(1) of this section have the right to strike under Chapter 76933
4117. of the Revised Code provided that the employee organization 76934
representing the employees has given a ten-day prior written 76935
notice of an intent to strike to the public employer and to the 76936
board, and further provided that the strike is for full, 76937
consecutive work days and the beginning date of the strike is at 76938
least ten work days after the ending date of the most recent prior 76939
strike involving the same bargaining unit; however, the board, at 76940
its discretion, may attempt mediation at any time.76941

       (E) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit 76942
the parties, at any time, from voluntarily agreeing to submit any 76943
or all of the issues in dispute to any other alternative dispute 76944
settlement procedure. An agreement or statutory requirement to 76945
arbitrate or to settle a dispute pursuant to a final offer 76946
settlement procedure and the award issued in accordance with the 76947
agreement or statutory requirement is enforceable in the same 76948
manner as specified in division (B) of section 4117.09 of the 76949
Revised Code.76950

       (F) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prohibit a 76951
party from seeking enforcement of a collective bargaining 76952
agreement or a conciliator's award as specified in division (B) of 76953
section 4117.09 of the Revised Code.76954

       (G) The following guidelines apply to final offer settlement 76955
proceedings under division (D)(1) of this section:76956

       (1) The parties shall submit to final offer settlement those 76957
issues that are subject to collective bargaining as provided by 76958
section 4117.08 of the Revised Code and upon which the parties 76959
have not reached agreement and other matters mutually agreed to by 76960
the public employer and the exclusive representative; except that 76961
the conciliator may attempt mediation at any time.76962

       (2) The conciliator shall hold a hearing within thirty days 76963
of the board's order to submit to a final offer settlement 76964
procedure, or as soon thereafter as is practicable.76965

       (3) The conciliator shall conduct the hearing pursuant to 76966
rules developed by the board. The conciliator shall establish the 76967
hearing time and place, but it shall be, where feasible, within 76968
the jurisdiction of the state. Not later than five calendar days 76969
before the hearing, each of the parties shall submit to the 76970
conciliator, to the opposing party, and to the board, a written 76971
report summarizing the unresolved issues, the party's final offer 76972
as to the issues, and the rationale for that position.76973

       (4) Upon the request by the conciliator, the board shall 76974
issue subpoenas for the hearing.76975

       (5) The conciliator may administer oaths.76976

       (6) The conciliator shall hear testimony from the parties and 76977
provide for a written record to be made of all statements at the 76978
hearing. The board shall submit for inclusion in the record and 76979
for consideration by the conciliator the written report and 76980
recommendation of the fact-finders.76981

       (7) After hearing, the conciliator shall resolve the dispute 76982
between the parties by selecting, on an issue-by-issue basis, from 76983
between each of the party's final settlement offers, taking into 76984
consideration the following:76985

       (a) Past collectively bargained agreements, if any, between 76986
the parties;76987

       (b) Comparison of the issues submitted to final offer 76988
settlement relative to the employees in the bargaining unit 76989
involved with those issues related to other public and private 76990
employees doing comparable work, giving consideration to factors 76991
peculiar to the area and classification involved;76992

       (c) The interests and welfare of the public, the ability of 76993
the public employer to finance and administer the issues proposed, 76994
and the effect of the adjustments on the normal standard of public 76995
service;76996

       (d) The lawful authority of the public employer;76997

       (e) The stipulations of the parties;76998

       (f) Such other factors, not confined to those listed in this 76999
section, which are normally or traditionally taken into 77000
consideration in the determination of the issues submitted to 77001
final offer settlement through voluntary collective bargaining, 77002
mediation, fact-finding, or other impasse resolution procedures in 77003
the public service or in private employment.77004

       (8) Final offer settlement awards made under Chapter 4117. of 77005
the Revised Code are subject to Chapter 2711. of the Revised Code.77006

       (9) If more than one conciliator is used, the determination 77007
must be by majority vote.77008

       (10) The conciliator shall make written findings of fact and 77009
promulgate a written opinion and order upon the issues presented 77010
to the conciliator, and upon the record made before the 77011
conciliator and shall mail or otherwise deliver a true copy 77012
thereof to the parties and the board.77013

       (11) Increases in rates of compensation and other matters 77014
with cost implications awarded by the conciliator may be effective 77015
only at the start of the fiscal year next commencing after the 77016
date of the final offer settlement award; provided that if a new 77017
fiscal year has commenced since the issuance of the board order to 77018
submit to a final offer settlement procedure, the awarded 77019
increases may be retroactive to the commencement of the new fiscal 77020
year. The parties may, at any time, amend or modify a 77021
conciliator's award or order by mutual agreement.77022

       (12) The parties shall bear equally the cost of the final 77023
offer settlement procedure.77024

       (13) Conciliators appointed pursuant to this section shall be 77025
residents of the state.77026

       (H) All final offer settlement awards and orders of the 77027
conciliator made pursuant to Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code are 77028
subject to review by the court of common pleas having jurisdiction 77029
over the public employer as provided in Chapter 2711. of the 77030
Revised Code. If the public employer is located in more than one 77031
court of common pleas district, the court of common pleas in which 77032
the principal office of the chief executive is located has 77033
jurisdiction.77034

       (I) The issuance of a final offer settlement award 77035
constitutes a binding mandate to the public employer and the 77036
exclusive representative to take whatever actions are necessary to 77037
implement the award.77038

       Sec. 4117.15.  (A) Whenever a strike by members of a police 77039
or fire department, members of the state highway patrol, deputy 77040
sheriffs, dispatchers employed by a police, fire, or sheriff's 77041
department or the state highway patrol or civilian dispatchers 77042
employed by a public employer other than a police, fire, or 77043
sheriff's department to dispatch police, fire, sheriff's 77044
department, or emergency medical or rescue personnel and units, an 77045
exclusive nurse's unit, employees of the state school for the deaf 77046
or the state school for the blind, employees of any public 77047
employee retirement system, correction officers, guards at penal 77048
or mental institutions, or special police officers appointed in 77049
accordance with sections 5119.145119.08 and 5123.13 of the 77050
Revised Code, psychiatric attendants employed at mental health 77051
forensic facilities, youth leaders employed at juvenile 77052
correctional facilities, or members of a law enforcement security 77053
force that is established and maintained exclusively by a board of 77054
county commissioners and whose members are employed by that board, 77055
a strike by other public employees during the pendency of the 77056
settlement procedures set forth in section 4117.14 of the Revised 77057
Code, or a strike during the term or extended term of a collective 77058
bargaining agreement occurs, the public employer may seek an 77059
injunction against the strike in the court of common pleas of the 77060
county in which the strike is located.77061

       (B) An unfair labor practice by a public employer is not a 77062
defense to the injunction proceeding noted in division (A) of this 77063
section. Allegations of unfair labor practices during the 77064
settlement procedures set forth in section 4117.14 of the Revised 77065
Code shall receive priority by the state employment relations 77066
board.77067

       (C) No public employee is entitled to pay or compensation 77068
from the public employer for the period engaged in any strike.77069

       Sec. 4121.44.  (A) The administrator of workers' compensation 77070
shall oversee the implementation of the Ohio workers' compensation 77071
qualified health plan system as established under section 4121.442 77072
of the Revised Code.77073

       (B) The administrator shall direct the implementation of the 77074
health partnership program administered by the bureau as set forth 77075
in section 4121.441 of the Revised Code. To implement the health 77076
partnership program and to ensure the efficiency and effectiveness 77077
of the public services provided through the program, the bureau:77078

       (1) Shall certify one or more external vendors, which shall 77079
be known as "managed care organizations," to provide medical 77080
management and cost containment services in the health partnership 77081
program for a period of two years beginning on the date of 77082
certification, consistent with the standards established under 77083
this section;77084

       (2) May recertify external vendorsmanaged care organizations77085
for additional periods of two years; and77086

       (3) May integrate the certified vendorsmanaged care 77087
organizations with bureau staff and existing bureau services for 77088
purposes of operation and training to allow the bureau to assume 77089
operation of the health partnership program at the conclusion of 77090
the certification periods set forth in division (B)(1) or (2) of 77091
this section;77092

       (4) May enter into a contract with any managed care 77093
organization that is certified by the bureau, pursuant to division 77094
(B)(1) or (2) of this section, to provide medical management and 77095
cost containment services in the health partnership program.77096

       (C) A contract entered into pursuant to division (B)(4) of 77097
this section shall include both of the following:77098

       (1) Incentives that may be awarded by the administrator, at 77099
the administrator's discretion, based on compliance and 77100
performance of the managed care organization;77101

       (2) Penalties that may be imposed by the administrator, at 77102
the administrator's discretion, based on the failure of the 77103
managed care organization to reasonably comply with or perform 77104
terms of the contract, which may include termination of the 77105
contract.77106

       (D) Notwithstanding section 119.061 of the Revised Code, a 77107
contract entered into pursuant to division (B)(4) of this section 77108
may include provisions limiting, restricting, or regulating any 77109
marketing or advertising by the managed care organization, or by 77110
any individual or entity that is affiliated with or acting on 77111
behalf of the managed care organization, under the health 77112
partnership program.77113

       (E) No managed care organization shall receive compensation 77114
under the health partnership program unless the managed care 77115
organization has entered into a contract with the bureau pursuant 77116
to division (B)(4) of this section.77117

       (F) Any vendormanaged care organization selected shall 77118
demonstrate all of the following:77119

       (1) Arrangements and reimbursement agreements with a 77120
substantial number of the medical, professional and pharmacy 77121
providers currently being utilized by claimants.77122

       (2) Ability to accept a common format of medical bill data in 77123
an electronic fashion from any provider who wishes to submit 77124
medical bill data in that form.77125

       (3) A computer system able to handle the volume of medical 77126
bills and willingness to customize that system to the bureau's 77127
needs and to be operated by the vendor'smanaged care 77128
organization's staff, bureau staff, or some combination of both 77129
staffs.77130

       (4) A prescription drug system where pharmacies on a 77131
statewide basis have access to the eligibility and pricing, at a 77132
discounted rate, of all prescription drugs.77133

       (5) A tracking system to record all telephone calls from 77134
claimants and providers regarding the status of submitted medical 77135
bills so as to be able to track each inquiry.77136

       (6) Data processing capacity to absorb all of the bureau's 77137
medical bill processing or at least that part of the processing 77138
which the bureau arranges to delegate.77139

       (7) Capacity to store, retrieve, array, simulate, and model 77140
in a relational mode all of the detailed medical bill data so that 77141
analysis can be performed in a variety of ways and so that the 77142
bureau and its governing authority can make informed decisions.77143

       (8) Wide variety of software programs which translate medical 77144
terminology into standard codes, and which reveal if a provider is 77145
manipulating the procedures codes, commonly called "unbundling."77146

       (9) Necessary professional staff to conduct, at a minimum, 77147
authorizations for treatment, medical necessity, utilization 77148
review, concurrent review, post-utilization review, and have the 77149
attendant computer system which supports such activity and 77150
measures the outcomes and the savings.77151

       (10) Management experience and flexibility to be able to 77152
react quickly to the needs of the bureau in the case of required 77153
change in federal or state requirements.77154

       (D)(G)(1) The administrator may decertify a managed care 77155
organization if the managed care organization does any of the 77156
following:77157

       (a) Fails to maintain any of the requirements set forth in 77158
division (F) of this section;77159

       (b) Fails to reasonably comply with or to perform in 77160
accordance with the terms of a contract entered into under 77161
division (B)(4) of this section;77162

       (c) Violates a rule adopted under section 4121.441 of the 77163
Revised Code.77164

       (2) The administrator shall provide each managed care 77165
organization that is being decertified pursuant to division (G)(1) 77166
of this section with written notice of the pending decertification 77167
and an opportunity for a hearing pursuant to rules adopted by the 77168
administrator.77169

       (H)(1) Information contained in a vendor'smanaged care 77170
organization's application for certification in the health 77171
partnership program, and other information furnished to the bureau 77172
by a vendormanaged care organization for purposes of obtaining 77173
certification or to comply with performance and financial auditing 77174
requirements established by the administrator, is for the 77175
exclusive use and information of the bureau in the discharge of 77176
its official duties, and shall not be open to the public or be 77177
used in any court in any proceeding pending therein, unless the 77178
bureau is a party to the action or proceeding, but the information 77179
may be tabulated and published by the bureau in statistical form 77180
for the use and information of other state departments and the 77181
public. No employee of the bureau, except as otherwise authorized 77182
by the administrator, shall divulge any information secured by the 77183
employee while in the employ of the bureau in respect to a 77184
vendor'smanaged care organization's application for certification 77185
or in respect to the business or other trade processes of any 77186
vendormanaged care organization to any person other than the 77187
administrator or to the employee's superior.77188

       (2) Notwithstanding the restrictions imposed by division 77189
(D)(H)(1) of this section, the governor, members of select or 77190
standing committees of the senate or house of representatives, the 77191
auditor of state, the attorney general, or their designees, 77192
pursuant to the authority granted in this chapter and Chapter 77193
4123. of the Revised Code, may examine any vendormanaged care 77194
organization application or other information furnished to the 77195
bureau by the vendormanaged care organization. None of those 77196
individuals shall divulge any information secured in the exercise 77197
of that authority in respect to a vendor'smanaged care 77198
organization's application for certification or in respect to the 77199
business or other trade processes of any vendormanaged care 77200
organization to any person.77201

       (E)(I) On and after January 1, 2001, a vendormanaged care 77202
organization shall not be anyan insurance company holding a 77203
certificate of authority issued pursuant to Title XXXIX of the 77204
Revised Code or anya health insuring corporation holding a 77205
certificate of authority under Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code.77206

       (F)(J) The administrator may limit freedom of choice of 77207
health care provider or supplier by requiring, beginning with the 77208
period set forth in division (B)(1) or (2) of this section, that 77209
claimants shall pay an appropriate out-of-plan copayment for 77210
selecting a medical provider not within the health partnership 77211
program as provided for in this section.77212

       (G)(K) The administrator, six months prior to the expiration 77213
of the bureau's certification or recertification of the vendor or 77214
vendorsmanaged care organizations as set forth in division (B)(1) 77215
or (2) of this section, may certify and provide evidence to the 77216
governor, the speaker of the house of representatives, and the 77217
president of the senate that the existing bureau staff is able to 77218
match or exceed the performance and outcomes of the external 77219
vendor or vendorsmanaged care organizations and that the bureau 77220
should be permitted to internally administer the health 77221
partnership program upon the expiration of the certification or 77222
recertification as set forth in division (B)(1) or (2) of this 77223
section.77224

       (H)(L) The administrator shall establish and operate a bureau 77225
of workers' compensation health care data program. The 77226
administrator shall develop reporting requirements from all 77227
employees, employers and, medical providers, medical vendors77228
managed care organizations, and plans that participate in the 77229
workers' compensation system. The administrator shall do all of 77230
the following:77231

       (1) Utilize the collected data to measure and perform 77232
comparison analyses of costs, quality, appropriateness of medical 77233
care, and effectiveness of medical care delivered by all 77234
components of the workers' compensation system.77235

       (2) Compile data to support activities of the selected vendor 77236
or vendorsmanaged care organizations and to measure the outcomes 77237
and savings of the health partnership program.77238

       (3) Publish and report compiled data on the measures of 77239
outcomes and savings of the health partnership program and submit 77240
the report to the president of the senate, the speaker of the 77241
house of representatives, and the governor with the annual report 77242
prepared under division (F)(3) of section 4121.12 of the Revised 77243
Code. The administrator shall protect the confidentiality of all 77244
proprietary pricing data.77245

       (I)(M) Any rehabilitation facility the bureau operates is 77246
eligible for inclusion in the Ohio workers' compensation qualified 77247
health plan system or the health partnership program under the 77248
same terms as other providers within health care plans or the 77249
program.77250

       (J)(N) In areas outside the state or within the state where 77251
no qualified health plan or an inadequate number of providers 77252
within the health partnership program exist, the administrator 77253
shall permit employees to use a nonplan or nonprogram health care 77254
provider and shall pay the provider for the services or supplies 77255
provided to or on behalf of an employee for an injury or 77256
occupational disease that is compensable under this chapter or 77257
Chapter 4123., 4127., or 4131. of the Revised Code on a fee 77258
schedule the administrator adopts.77259

       (K)(O) No health care provider, whether certified or not, 77260
shall charge, assess, or otherwise attempt to collect from an 77261
employee, employer, a managed care organization, or the bureau any 77262
amount for covered services or supplies that is in excess of the 77263
allowed amount paid by a managed care organization, the bureau, or 77264
a qualified health plan.77265

       (L)(P) The administrator shall permit any employer or group 77266
of employers who agree to abide by the rules adopted under this 77267
section and sections 4121.441 and 4121.442 of the Revised Code to 77268
provide services or supplies to or on behalf of an employee for an 77269
injury or occupational disease that is compensable under this 77270
chapter or Chapter 4123., 4127., or 4131. of the Revised Code 77271
through qualified health plans of the Ohio workers' compensation 77272
qualified health plan system pursuant to section 4121.442 of the 77273
Revised Code or through the health partnership program pursuant to 77274
section 4121.441 of the Revised Code. No amount paid under the 77275
qualified health plan system pursuant to section 4121.442 of the 77276
Revised Code by an employer who is a state fund employer shall be 77277
charged to the employer's experience or otherwise be used in 77278
merit-rating or determining the risk of that employer for the 77279
purpose of the payment of premiums under this chapter, and if the 77280
employer is a self-insuring employer, the employer shall not 77281
include that amount in the paid compensation the employer reports 77282
under section 4123.35 of the Revised Code.77283

       Sec. 4121.441.  (A) The administrator of workers' 77284
compensation, with the advice and consent of the bureau of 77285
workers' compensation board of directors, shall adopt rules under 77286
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the health care partnership 77287
program administered by the bureau of workers' compensation to 77288
provide medical, surgical, nursing, drug, hospital, and 77289
rehabilitation services and supplies to an employee for an injury 77290
or occupational disease that is compensable under this chapter or 77291
Chapter 4123., 4127., or 4131. of the Revised Code, and to 77292
regulate contracts with managed care organizations pursuant to 77293
this chapter.77294

       (1) The rules shall include, but are not limited to, the 77295
following:77296

       (1)(a) Procedures for the resolution of medical disputes 77297
between an employer and an employee, an employee and a provider, 77298
or an employer and a provider, prior to an appeal under section 77299
4123.511 of the Revised Code. Rules the administrator adopts 77300
pursuant to division (A)(1)(a) of this section may specify that 77301
the resolution procedures shall not be used to resolve disputes 77302
concerning medical services rendered that have been approved 77303
through standard treatment guidelines, pathways, or presumptive 77304
authorization guidelines.77305

       (2)(b) Prohibitions against discrimination against any 77306
category of health care providers;77307

       (3)(c) Procedures for reporting injuries to employers and the 77308
bureau by providers;77309

       (4)(d) Appropriate financial incentives to reduce service 77310
cost and insure proper system utilization without sacrificing the 77311
quality of service;77312

       (5)(e) Adequate methods of peer review, utilization review, 77313
quality assurance, and dispute resolution to prevent, and provide 77314
sanctions for, inappropriate, excessive or not medically necessary 77315
treatment;77316

       (6)(f) A timely and accurate method of collection of 77317
necessary information regarding medical and health care service 77318
and supply costs, quality, and utilization to enable the 77319
administrator to determine the effectiveness of the program;77320

       (7)(g) Provisions for necessary emergency medical treatment 77321
for an injury or occupational disease provided by a health care 77322
provider who is not part of the program;77323

       (8)(h) Discounted pricing for all in-patient and out-patient 77324
medical services, all professional services, and all 77325
pharmaceutical services;77326

       (9)(i) Provisions for provider referrals, pre-admission and 77327
post-admission approvals, second surgical opinions, and other cost 77328
management techniques;77329

       (10)(j) Antifraud mechanisms;77330

       (11)(k) Standards and criteria for the bureau to utilize in 77331
certifying or recertifying a health care provider or a vendor77332
managed care organization for participation in the health 77333
partnership program;77334

       (12)(l) Standards and criteria for the bureau to utilize in 77335
penalizing or decertifying a health care provider or a vendor from 77336
participation in the health partnership program.77337

       (2) Notwithstanding section 119.061 of the Revised Code, the 77338
rules may include provisions limiting, restricting, or regulating 77339
any marketing or advertising by a managed care organization, or by 77340
any individual or entity that is affiliated with or acting on 77341
behalf of the managed care organization, under the health 77342
partnership program.77343

       (B) The administrator shall implement the health partnership 77344
program according to the rules the administrator adopts under this 77345
section for the provision and payment of medical, surgical, 77346
nursing, drug, hospital, and rehabilitation services and supplies 77347
to an employee for an injury or occupational disease that is 77348
compensable under this chapter or Chapter 4123., 4127., or 4131. 77349
of the Revised Code."77350

       Sec. 4121.50. Not later than July 1, 2012, the administrator 77351
of workers' compensation shall adopt rules in accordance with 77352
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement a coordinated 77353
services program for claimants under this chapter or Chapter 77354
4123., 4127., or 4131. of the Revised Code who are found to have 77355
obtained prescription drugs that were reimbursed pursuant to an 77356
order of the administrator or of the industrial commission or by a 77357
self-insuring employer but were obtained at a frequency or in an 77358
amount that is not medically necessary. The program shall be 77359
implemented in a manner that is substantially similar to the 77360
coordinated services programs established for the medicaid program 77361
under section 5111.085sections 5164.758 and 5111.1795167.13 of 77362
the Revised Code.77363

       Sec. 4121.69.  (A) The administrator of workers' compensation 77364
may establish compensation plans, including schedules of hourly 77365
rates, for the compensation of professional, administrative, and 77366
managerial employees who are employed to fulfill the duties placed 77367
upon the bureau of workers' compensation pursuant to sections 77368
4121.61 to 4121.69 of the Revised Code. The administrator may 77369
establish rules or policies for the administration of the 77370
respective compensation plans.77371

       This division does not apply to employees for whom the state 77372
employment relations board establishes appropriate bargaining 77373
units pursuant to section 4117.06 of the Revised Code.77374

       (B) The administrator may employ the services and resources 77375
of any public entity or private person, business, or association 77376
in fulfilling the duties placed upon the bureau of workers' 77377
compensation by sections 4121.61 to 4121.69 of the Revised Code. 77378
The rehabilitation services commissionopportunities for Ohioans 77379
with disabilities agency, the director of job and family services, 77380
and any other public officer, employee, or agency shall give to 77381
the bureau of workers' compensation full cooperation and, at the 77382
request of the administrator, enter into a written agreement 77383
stating the procedures and criteria for referring, accepting, and 77384
providing services to claimants in the job placement and 77385
rehabilitation efforts of the bureau of workers' compensation on 77386
behalf of a claimant when referred by the bureau of workers' 77387
compensation.77388

       (C) In appropriate cases, the bureau may refer a candidate to 77389
the rehabilitation services commissionopportunities for Ohioans 77390
with disabilities agency for participation in a program of the 77391
commissionagency. For that purpose, the bureau of workers' 77392
compensation shall compensate the commissionagency for the 77393
nonfederal portion of its services.77394

       Sec. 4123.32.  The administrator of workers' compensation, 77395
with the advice and consent of the bureau of workers' compensation 77396
board of directors, shall adopt rules with respect to the 77397
collection, maintenance, and disbursements of the state insurance 77398
fund including all of the following:77399

       (A) A rule providing that the premium security deposit 77400
collected from any employer entitles the employer to the benefits 77401
of this chapter for the remainder of the six months and also for 77402
an additional adjustment period of two months, and, thereafter, if 77403
the employer pays the premium due at the close of any six-month 77404
period, coverage shall be extended for an additional eight-month 77405
period beginning from the end of the six-month period for which 77406
the employer pays the premium due;77407

       (B) A rule providing for ascertaining the correctness of any 77408
employer's report of estimated or actual expenditure of wages and 77409
the determination and adjustment of proper premiums and the 77410
payment of those premiums by the employer for or during any period 77411
less than eight months and notwithstanding any payment or 77412
determination of premium made when exceptional conditions or 77413
circumstances in the judgment of the administrator justify the 77414
action;77415

       (C) Such special rules as the administrator considers 77416
necessary to safeguard the fund and that are just in the 77417
circumstances, covering the rates to be applied where one employer 77418
takes over the occupation or industry of another or where an 77419
employer first makes application for state insurance, and the 77420
administrator may require that if any employer transfers a 77421
business in whole or in part or otherwise reorganizes the 77422
business, the successor in interest shall assume, in proportion to 77423
the extent of the transfer, as determined by the administrator, 77424
the employer's account and shall continue the payment of all 77425
contributions due under this chapter;77426

       (D) A rule providing that an employer who employs an employee 77427
covered under the federal "Longshore and Harbor Workers' 77428
Compensation Act," 98 Stat. 1639, 33 U.S.C. 901 et seq., and this 77429
chapter and Chapter 4121. of the Revised Code shall be assessed a 77430
premium in accordance with the expenditure of wages, payroll, or 77431
both attributable to only labor performed and services provided by 77432
such an employee when the employee performs labor and provides 77433
services for which the employee is not eligible to receive 77434
compensation and benefits under that federal act.77435

       (E) A rule providing for all of the following:77436

       (1) If, within two months immediately after the expiration of 77437
the six-month period, an employer fails to file a report of the 77438
employer's actual payroll expenditures for the period, the premium 77439
found to be due from the employer for the period shall be 77440
increased in an amount equal to one per cent of the premium, but 77441
the increase shall not be less than three nor more than fifteen 77442
dollars;77443

       (2) The premium determined by the administrator to be due 77444
from an employer shall be payable on or before the end of the 77445
coverage period established by the premium security deposit, or 77446
within the time specified by the administrator if the period for 77447
which the advance premium has been paid is less than eight months. 77448
If an employer fails to pay the premium when due, the 77449
administrator may add a late fee penalty of not more than thirty 77450
dollars to the premium plus an additional penalty amount as 77451
follows:77452

       (a) For a premium from sixty-one to ninety days past due, the 77453
prime interest rate, multiplied by the premium due;77454

       (b) For a premium from ninety-one to one hundred twenty days 77455
past due, the prime interest rate plus two per cent, multiplied by 77456
the premium due;77457

       (c) For a premium from one hundred twenty-one to one hundred 77458
fifty days past due, the prime interest rate plus four per cent, 77459
multiplied by the premium due;77460

       (d) For a premium from one hundred fifty-one to one hundred 77461
eighty days past due, the prime interest rate plus six per cent, 77462
multiplied by the premium due;77463

       (e) For a premium from one hundred eighty-one to two hundred 77464
ten days past due, the prime interest rate plus eight per cent, 77465
multiplied by the premium due;77466

       (f) For each additional thirty-day period or portion thereof 77467
that a premium remains past due after it has remained past due for 77468
more than two hundred ten days, the prime interest rate plus eight 77469
per cent, multiplied by the premium due.77470

       (3) Notwithstanding the interest rates specified in division 77471
(E)(2) of this section, at no time shall the additional penalty 77472
amount assessed under division (E)(2) of this section exceed 77473
fifteen per cent of the premium due.77474

        (4) An employer may appeal a late fee penalty or additional 77475
penalty to an adjudicating committee pursuant to section 4123.291 77476
of the Revised Code.77477

       For purposes of division (E) of this section, "prime interest 77478
rate" means the average bank prime rate, and the administrator 77479
shall determine the prime interest rate in the same manner as a 77480
county auditor determines the average bank prime rate under 77481
section 929.02 of the Revised Code.77482

       (5) If the employer files an appropriate payroll report, 77483
within the time provided by law or within the time specified by 77484
the administrator if the period for which the employer paid an 77485
estimated premium is less than eight months, the employer shall 77486
not be in default and division (E)(2) of this section shall not 77487
apply if the employer pays the premiums within fifteen days after 77488
being first notified by the administrator of the amount due.77489

       (6) Any deficiencies in the amounts of the premium security 77490
deposit paid by an employer for any period shall be subject to an 77491
interest charge of six per cent per annum from the date the 77492
premium obligation is incurred. In determining the interest due on 77493
deficiencies in premium security deposit payments, a charge in 77494
each case shall be made against the employer in an amount equal to 77495
interest at the rate of six per cent per annum on the premium 77496
security deposit due but remaining unpaid sixty days after notice 77497
by the administrator.77498

       (7) Any interest charges or penalties provided for in 77499
divisions (E)(2) and (6) of this section shall be credited to the 77500
employer's account for rating purposes in the same manner as 77501
premiums.77502

       (F) A rule providing that each employer, on the occasion of 77503
instituting coverage under this chapter, shall submit a premium 77504
security deposit. The deposit shall be calculated equivalent to 77505
thirty per cent of the semiannual premium obligation of the 77506
employer based upon the employer's estimated expenditure for wages 77507
for the ensuing six-month period plus thirty per cent of an 77508
additional adjustment period of two months but only up to a 77509
maximum of one thousand dollars and not less than ten dollars. The 77510
administrator shall review the security deposit of every employer 77511
who has submitted a deposit which is less than the 77512
one-thousand-dollar maximum. The administrator may require any 77513
such employer to submit additional money up to the maximum of one 77514
thousand dollars that, in the administrator's opinion, reflects 77515
the employer's current payroll expenditure for an eight-month 77516
period.77517

       (G) A rule providing that each employer, on the occasion of 77518
instituting coverage under this chapter, shall submit an 77519
application for coverage that completely provides all of the 77520
information required for the administrator to establish coverage 77521
for that employer, and that the employer's failure to provide all 77522
of the information completely may be grounds for the administrator 77523
to deny coverage for that employer.77524

       (H) A rule providing that, in addition to any other remedies 77525
permitted in this chapter, the administrator may discontinue an 77526
employer's coverage if the employer fails to pay the premium due 77527
on or before the premium's due date.77528

       (I) A rule providing that if after a final adjudication it is 77529
determined that an employer has failed to pay an obligation, 77530
billing, account, or assessment that is greater than one thousand 77531
dollars on or before its due date, the administrator may 77532
discontinue the employer's coverage in addition to any other 77533
remedies permitted in this chapter, and that the administrator 77534
shall not discontinue an employer's coverage pursuant to this 77535
division prior to a final adjudication regarding the employer's 77536
failure to pay such obligation, billing, account, or assessment on 77537
or before its due date.77538

       (J) As used in divisions (H) and (I) of this section:77539

        (1) "Employer" has the same meaning as in division (B) of 77540
section 4123.01 of the Revised Code except that "employer" does 77541
not include the state, a state hospital, or a state university or 77542
college.77543

        (2) "State university or college" has the same meaning as in 77544
section 3345.12 of the Revised Code and also includes the Ohio 77545
agricultural research and development center and the Ohio state 77546
university cooperativeOSU extension service.77547

        (3) "State hospital" means the Ohio state university hospital 77548
and its ancillary facilities and the medical university of Ohio at 77549
Toledo hospital.77550

       Sec. 4123.322. (A) Notwithstanding any provision to the 77551
contrary in section 4123.32 or 4123.41 of the Revised Code, the 77552
administrator of workers' compensation, with the advice and 77553
consent of the bureau of workers' compensation board of directors, 77554
may adopt rules with respect to the collection, maintenance, and 77555
disbursements of the state insurance fund to provide for a system 77556
of prospective payment of workers' compensation premiums. If the 77557
administrator elects to adopt rules establishing a prospective 77558
payment system, those rules shall include all of the following:77559

        (1) A requirement that, notwithstanding section 4123.26 of 77560
the Revised Code, on or before the thirtieth day of June of each 77561
year, or such other date as the administrator establishes, every 77562
employer mentioned in division (B)(2) of section 4123.01 of the 77563
Revised Code shall file with the bureau of workers' compensation 77564
an estimate of the employer's payroll for the immediately 77565
following twelve-month period or other period as the administrator 77566
establishes;77567

        (2) A requirement that upon an initial application for 77568
coverage, an employer mentioned in division (B)(2) of section 77569
4123.01 of the Revised Code shall file with the application an 77570
estimate of the employer's payroll for the unexpired period from 77571
the date of application to the period ending on the following 77572
thirtieth day of June or other date as established by the 77573
administrator pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section, and 77574
shall pay the amount the administrator determines by rule in order 77575
to establish coverage for the employer as described in division 77576
(B)(12) of section 4121.121 of the Revised Code;77577

        (3) A requirement that, notwithstanding section 4123.26 or 77578
4123.41 of the Revised Code, on or before the first day of January 77579
of each year, or such other date as the administrator establishes, 77580
every employer mentioned in division (B)(1) of section 4123.01 of 77581
the Revised Code, except for a state agency or a state university 77582
or college, shall file with the bureau an estimate of the 77583
employer's payroll for the immediately following twelve-month 77584
period or other period as the administrator establishes;77585

        (4) A requirement that upon an initial application for 77586
coverage, an employer mentioned in division (B)(1) of section 77587
4123.01 of the Revised Code, except for a state agency or state 77588
university or college, shall file with the application an estimate 77589
of the employer's payroll for the unexpired period from the date 77590
of application to the period ending on the following thirty-first 77591
day of December or other date as established by the administrator 77592
pursuant to division (A)(3) of this section, and shall pay the 77593
amount the administrator determines by rule in order to establish 77594
coverage for the employer as described in division (B)(12) of 77595
section 4121.121 of the Revised Code;77596

        (5) The assessment of a penalty if an employer fails to 77597
timely file the estimates of payroll required by the rules adopted 77598
pursuant to this section;77599

        (6) A requirement that an employer complete periodic payroll 77600
reports of actual expenditures for previous coverage periods for 77601
reconciliation with estimated payroll reports;77602

        (7) The assessment of a penalty for late payroll 77603
reconciliation reports and for late payment of any reconciliation 77604
premium;77605

        (8) The establishment of a transition period during which 77606
time the bureau shall determine the adequacy of existing premium 77607
security deposits of employers, the establishment of provisions 77608
for additional premium payments during that transition, the 77609
provision of a credit of those deposits toward the first premium 77610
due from an employer under the rules adopted under divisions 77611
(A)(1) to (7) of this section, and the establishment of penalties 77612
for late payment or failure to comply with the rules.77613

        (B) For purposes of division (A)(6) of this section, an 77614
employer shall make timely payment of any premium owed when actual 77615
payroll expenditures exceeded estimated payroll, and the employer 77616
shall receive premium credit when the estimated payroll exceeded 77617
the actual payroll.77618

        (C) For purposes of division (A)(7) of this section, if the 77619
employer's actual payroll substantially exceeds the estimated 77620
payroll, the administrator may assess additional penalties 77621
specified in rules the administrator adopts on the reconciliation 77622
premium.77623

        (D) As used in this section, "state university or college" 77624
has the same meaning as in section 4123.32 of the Revised Code.77625

       Sec. 4123.35.  (A) Except as provided in this section, every 77626
employer mentioned in division (B)(2) of section 4123.01 of the 77627
Revised Code, and every publicly owned utility shall pay 77628
semiannually in the months of January and July into the state 77629
insurance fund the amount of annual premium the administrator of 77630
workers' compensation fixes for the employment or occupation of 77631
the employer, the amount of which premium to be paid by each 77632
employer to be determined by the classifications, rules, and rates 77633
made and published by the administrator. The employer shall pay 77634
semiannually a further sum of money into the state insurance fund 77635
as may be ascertained to be due from the employer by applying the 77636
rules of the administrator, and a receipt or certificate 77637
certifying that payment has been made, along with a written notice 77638
as is required in section 4123.54 of the Revised Code, shall be 77639
mailed immediately to the employer by the bureau of workers' 77640
compensation. The receipt or certificate is prima-facie evidence 77641
of the payment of the premium, and the proper posting of the 77642
notice constitutes the employer's compliance with the notice 77643
requirement mandated in section 4123.54 of the Revised Code.77644

       If the administrator adopts rules to establish a prospective 77645
payment of premium under section 4123.322 of the Revised Code, 77646
every employer mentioned in division (B)(2) of section 4123.01 of 77647
the Revised Code and every publicly owned utility shall pay into 77648
the state insurance fund the amount of premium the administrator 77649
fixes for the employment or occupation of the employer, the amount 77650
of which premium to be paid by each employer to be determined by 77651
the classifications, rules, and rates made and published by the 77652
administrator and based upon the estimates and reconciliations 77653
required by the rules the administrator adopts under section 77654
4123.322 of the Revised Code.77655

       The bureau of workers' compensation shall verify with the 77656
secretary of state the existence of all corporations and 77657
organizations making application for workers' compensation 77658
coverage and shall require every such application to include the 77659
employer's federal identification number.77660

       An employer as defined in division (B)(2) of section 4123.01 77661
of the Revised Code who has contracted with a subcontractor is 77662
liable for the unpaid premium due from any subcontractor with 77663
respect to that part of the payroll of the subcontractor that is 77664
for work performed pursuant to the contract with the employer.77665

       Division (A) of this section providing for the payment of 77666
premiums semiannually does not apply to any employer who was a 77667
subscriber to the state insurance fund prior to January 1, 1914, 77668
or who may first become a subscriber to the fund in any month 77669
other than January or July. Instead, the semiannual premiums shall 77670
be paid by those employers from time to time upon the expiration 77671
of the respective periods for which payments into the fund have 77672
been made by them.77673

       The administrator shall adopt rules to permit employers to 77674
make periodic payments of the semiannual premium due under this 77675
division. The rules shall include provisions for the assessment of 77676
interest charges, where appropriate, and for the assessment of 77677
penalties when an employer fails to make timely premium payments. 77678
An employer who timely pays the amounts due under this division is 77679
entitled to all of the benefits and protections of this chapter. 77680
Upon receipt of payment, the bureau immediately shall mail a 77681
receipt or certificate to the employer certifying that payment has 77682
been made, which receipt is prima-facie evidence of payment. 77683
Workers' compensation coverage under this chapter continues 77684
uninterrupted upon timely receipt of payment under this division.77685

       Every public employer, except public employers that are 77686
self-insuring employers under this section, shall comply with 77687
sections 4123.38 to 4123.41, and 4123.48 of the Revised Code in 77688
regard to the contribution of moneys to the public insurance fund.77689

       (B) Employers who will abide by the rules of the 77690
administrator and who may be of sufficient financial ability to 77691
render certain the payment of compensation to injured employees or 77692
the dependents of killed employees, and the furnishing of medical, 77693
surgical, nursing, and hospital attention and services and 77694
medicines, and funeral expenses, equal to or greater than is 77695
provided for in sections 4123.52, 4123.55 to 4123.62, and 4123.64 77696
to 4123.67 of the Revised Code, and who do not desire to insure 77697
the payment thereof or indemnify themselves against loss sustained 77698
by the direct payment thereof, upon a finding of such facts by the 77699
administrator, may be granted the privilege to pay individually 77700
compensation, and furnish medical, surgical, nursing, and hospital 77701
services and attention and funeral expenses directly to injured 77702
employees or the dependents of killed employees, thereby being 77703
granted status as a self-insuring employer. The administrator may 77704
charge employers who apply for the status as a self-insuring 77705
employer a reasonable application fee to cover the bureau's costs 77706
in connection with processing and making a determination with 77707
respect to an application.77708

       All employers granted status as self-insuring employers shall 77709
demonstrate sufficient financial and administrative ability to 77710
assure that all obligations under this section are promptly met. 77711
The administrator shall deny the privilege where the employer is 77712
unable to demonstrate the employer's ability to promptly meet all 77713
the obligations imposed on the employer by this section.77714

       (1) The administrator shall consider, but is not limited to, 77715
the following factors, where applicable, in determining the 77716
employer's ability to meet all of the obligations imposed on the 77717
employer by this section:77718

       (a) The employer employs a minimum of five hundred employees 77719
in this state;77720

       (b) The employer has operated in this state for a minimum of 77721
two years, provided that an employer who has purchased, acquired, 77722
or otherwise succeeded to the operation of a business, or any part 77723
thereof, situated in this state that has operated for at least two 77724
years in this state, also shall qualify;77725

       (c) Where the employer previously contributed to the state 77726
insurance fund or is a successor employer as defined by bureau 77727
rules, the amount of the buyout, as defined by bureau rules;77728

       (d) The sufficiency of the employer's assets located in this 77729
state to insure the employer's solvency in paying compensation 77730
directly;77731

       (e) The financial records, documents, and data, certified by 77732
a certified public accountant, necessary to provide the employer's 77733
full financial disclosure. The records, documents, and data 77734
include, but are not limited to, balance sheets and profit and 77735
loss history for the current year and previous four years.77736

       (f) The employer's organizational plan for the administration 77737
of the workers' compensation law;77738

       (g) The employer's proposed plan to inform employees of the 77739
change from a state fund insurer to a self-insuring employer, the 77740
procedures the employer will follow as a self-insuring employer, 77741
and the employees' rights to compensation and benefits; and77742

       (h) The employer has either an account in a financial 77743
institution in this state, or if the employer maintains an account 77744
with a financial institution outside this state, ensures that 77745
workers' compensation checks are drawn from the same account as 77746
payroll checks or the employer clearly indicates that payment will 77747
be honored by a financial institution in this state.77748

       The administrator may waive the requirements of divisions 77749
(B)(1)(a) and (b) of this section and the requirement of division 77750
(B)(1)(e) of this section that the financial records, documents, 77751
and data be certified by a certified public accountant. The 77752
administrator shall adopt rules establishing the criteria that an 77753
employer shall meet in order for the administrator to waive the 77754
requirementrequirements of divisiondivisions (B)(1)(a), (b), and77755
(e) of this section. Such rules may require additional security of 77756
that employer pursuant to division (E) of section 4123.351 of the 77757
Revised Code.77758

       The administrator shall not grant the status of self-insuring 77759
employer to the state, except that the administrator may grant the 77760
status of self-insuring employer to a state institution of higher 77761
education, including its hospitals, that meets the requirements of 77762
division (B)(2) of this section.77763

       (2) When considering the application of a public employer, 77764
except for a board of county commissioners described in division 77765
(G) of section 4123.01 of the Revised Code, a board of a county 77766
hospital, or a publicly owned utility, the administrator shall 77767
verify that the public employer satisfies all of the following 77768
requirements as the requirements apply to that public employer:77769

       (a) For the two-year period preceding application under this 77770
section, the public employer has maintained an unvoted debt 77771
capacity equal to at least two times the amount of the current 77772
annual premium established by the administrator under this chapter 77773
for that public employer for the year immediately preceding the 77774
year in which the public employer makes application under this 77775
section.77776

       (b) For each of the two fiscal years preceding application 77777
under this section, the unreserved and undesignated year-end fund 77778
balance in the public employer's general fund is equal to at least 77779
five per cent of the public employer's general fund revenues for 77780
the fiscal year computed in accordance with generally accepted 77781
accounting principles.77782

       (c) For the five-year period preceding application under this 77783
section, the public employer, to the extent applicable, has 77784
complied fully with the continuing disclosure requirements 77785
established in rules adopted by the United States securities and 77786
exchange commission under 17 C.F.R. 240.15c 2-12.77787

       (d) For the five-year period preceding application under this 77788
section, the public employer has not had its local government fund 77789
distribution withheld on account of the public employer being 77790
indebted or otherwise obligated to the state.77791

       (e) For the five-year period preceding application under this 77792
section, the public employer has not been under a fiscal watch or 77793
fiscal emergency pursuant to section 118.023, 118.04, or 3316.03 77794
of the Revised Code.77795

       (f) For the public employer's fiscal year preceding 77796
application under this section, the public employer has obtained 77797
an annual financial audit as required under section 117.10 of the 77798
Revised Code, which has been released by the auditor of state 77799
within seven months after the end of the public employer's fiscal 77800
year.77801

       (g) On the date of application, the public employer holds a 77802
debt rating of Aa3 or higher according to Moody's investors 77803
service, inc., or a comparable rating by an independent rating 77804
agency similar to Moody's investors service, inc.77805

       (h) The public employer agrees to generate an annual 77806
accumulating book reserve in its financial statements reflecting 77807
an actuarially generated reserve adequate to pay projected claims 77808
under this chapter for the applicable period of time, as 77809
determined by the administrator.77810

       (i) For a public employer that is a hospital, the public 77811
employer shall submit audited financial statements showing the 77812
hospital's overall liquidity characteristics, and the 77813
administrator shall determine, on an individual basis, whether the 77814
public employer satisfies liquidity standards equivalent to the 77815
liquidity standards of other public employers.77816

       (j) Any additional criteria that the administrator adopts by 77817
rule pursuant to division (E) of this section.77818

       The administrator may adopt rules establishing the criteria 77819
that a public employer shall satisfy in order for the 77820
administrator to waive any of the requirements listed in divisions 77821
(B)(2)(a) to (j) of this section. The rules may require additional 77822
security from that employer pursuant to division (E) of section 77823
4123.351 of the Revised Code. The administrator shall not waive 77824
any of the requirements listed in divisions (B)(2)(a) to (j) of 77825
this section for a public employer who does not satisfy the 77826
criteria established in the rules the administrator adopts.77827

       (C) A board of county commissioners described in division (G) 77828
of section 4123.01 of the Revised Code, as an employer, that will 77829
abide by the rules of the administrator and that may be of 77830
sufficient financial ability to render certain the payment of 77831
compensation to injured employees or the dependents of killed 77832
employees, and the furnishing of medical, surgical, nursing, and 77833
hospital attention and services and medicines, and funeral 77834
expenses, equal to or greater than is provided for in sections 77835
4123.52, 4123.55 to 4123.62, and 4123.64 to 4123.67 of the Revised 77836
Code, and that does not desire to insure the payment thereof or 77837
indemnify itself against loss sustained by the direct payment 77838
thereof, upon a finding of such facts by the administrator, may be 77839
granted the privilege to pay individually compensation, and 77840
furnish medical, surgical, nursing, and hospital services and 77841
attention and funeral expenses directly to injured employees or 77842
the dependents of killed employees, thereby being granted status 77843
as a self-insuring employer. The administrator may charge a board 77844
of county commissioners described in division (G) of section 77845
4123.01 of the Revised Code that applies for the status as a 77846
self-insuring employer a reasonable application fee to cover the 77847
bureau's costs in connection with processing and making a 77848
determination with respect to an application. All employers 77849
granted such status shall demonstrate sufficient financial and 77850
administrative ability to assure that all obligations under this 77851
section are promptly met. The administrator shall deny the 77852
privilege where the employer is unable to demonstrate the 77853
employer's ability to promptly meet all the obligations imposed on 77854
the employer by this section. The administrator shall consider, 77855
but is not limited to, the following factors, where applicable, in 77856
determining the employer's ability to meet all of the obligations 77857
imposed on the board as an employer by this section:77858

       (1) The board as an employer employs a minimum of five 77859
hundred employees in this state;77860

       (2) The board has operated in this state for a minimum of two 77861
years;77862

       (3) Where the board previously contributed to the state 77863
insurance fund or is a successor employer as defined by bureau 77864
rules, the amount of the buyout, as defined by bureau rules;77865

       (4) The sufficiency of the board's assets located in this 77866
state to insure the board's solvency in paying compensation 77867
directly;77868

       (5) The financial records, documents, and data, certified by 77869
a certified public accountant, necessary to provide the board's 77870
full financial disclosure. The records, documents, and data 77871
include, but are not limited to, balance sheets and profit and 77872
loss history for the current year and previous four years.77873

       (6) The board's organizational plan for the administration of 77874
the workers' compensation law;77875

       (7) The board's proposed plan to inform employees of the 77876
proposed self-insurance, the procedures the board will follow as a 77877
self-insuring employer, and the employees' rights to compensation 77878
and benefits;77879

       (8) The board has either an account in a financial 77880
institution in this state, or if the board maintains an account 77881
with a financial institution outside this state, ensures that 77882
workers' compensation checks are drawn from the same account as 77883
payroll checks or the board clearly indicates that payment will be 77884
honored by a financial institution in this state;77885

       (9) The board shall provide the administrator a surety bond 77886
in an amount equal to one hundred twenty-five per cent of the 77887
projected losses as determined by the administrator.77888

       (D) The administrator shall require a surety bond from all 77889
self-insuring employers, issued pursuant to section 4123.351 of 77890
the Revised Code, that is sufficient to compel, or secure to 77891
injured employees, or to the dependents of employees killed, the 77892
payment of compensation and expenses, which shall in no event be 77893
less than that paid or furnished out of the state insurance fund 77894
in similar cases to injured employees or to dependents of killed 77895
employees whose employers contribute to the fund, except when an 77896
employee of the employer, who has suffered the loss of a hand, 77897
arm, foot, leg, or eye prior to the injury for which compensation 77898
is to be paid, and thereafter suffers the loss of any other of the 77899
members as the result of any injury sustained in the course of and 77900
arising out of the employee's employment, the compensation to be 77901
paid by the self-insuring employer is limited to the disability 77902
suffered in the subsequent injury, additional compensation, if 77903
any, to be paid by the bureau out of the surplus created by 77904
section 4123.34 of the Revised Code.77905

       (E) In addition to the requirements of this section, the 77906
administrator shall make and publish rules governing the manner of 77907
making application and the nature and extent of the proof required 77908
to justify a finding of fact by the administrator as to granting 77909
the status of a self-insuring employer, which rules shall be 77910
general in their application, one of which rules shall provide 77911
that all self-insuring employers shall pay into the state 77912
insurance fund such amounts as are required to be credited to the 77913
surplus fund in division (B) of section 4123.34 of the Revised 77914
Code. The administrator may adopt rules establishing requirements 77915
in addition to the requirements described in division (B)(2) of 77916
this section that a public employer shall meet in order to qualify 77917
for self-insuring status.77918

       Employers shall secure directly from the bureau central 77919
offices application forms upon which the bureau shall stamp a 77920
designating number. Prior to submission of an application, an 77921
employer shall make available to the bureau, and the bureau shall 77922
review, the information described in division (B)(1) of this 77923
section, and public employers shall make available, and the bureau 77924
shall review, the information necessary to verify whether the 77925
public employer meets the requirements listed in division (B)(2) 77926
of this section. An employer shall file the completed application 77927
forms with an application fee, which shall cover the costs of 77928
processing the application, as established by the administrator, 77929
by rule, with the bureau at least ninety days prior to the 77930
effective date of the employer's new status as a self-insuring 77931
employer. The application form is not deemed complete until all 77932
the required information is attached thereto. The bureau shall 77933
only accept applications that contain the required information.77934

       (F) The bureau shall review completed applications within a 77935
reasonable time. If the bureau determines to grant an employer the 77936
status as a self-insuring employer, the bureau shall issue a 77937
statement, containing its findings of fact, that is prepared by 77938
the bureau and signed by the administrator. If the bureau 77939
determines not to grant the status as a self-insuring employer, 77940
the bureau shall notify the employer of the determination and 77941
require the employer to continue to pay its full premium into the 77942
state insurance fund. The administrator also shall adopt rules 77943
establishing a minimum level of performance as a criterion for 77944
granting and maintaining the status as a self-insuring employer 77945
and fixing time limits beyond which failure of the self-insuring 77946
employer to provide for the necessary medical examinations and 77947
evaluations may not delay a decision on a claim.77948

       (G) The administrator shall adopt rules setting forth 77949
procedures for auditing the program of self-insuring employers. 77950
The bureau shall conduct the audit upon a random basis or whenever 77951
the bureau has grounds for believing that a self-insuring employer 77952
is not in full compliance with bureau rules or this chapter.77953

       The administrator shall monitor the programs conducted by 77954
self-insuring employers, to ensure compliance with bureau 77955
requirements and for that purpose, shall develop and issue to 77956
self-insuring employers standardized forms for use by the 77957
self-insuring employer in all aspects of the self-insuring 77958
employers' direct compensation program and for reporting of 77959
information to the bureau.77960

       The bureau shall receive and transmit to the self-insuring 77961
employer all complaints concerning any self-insuring employer. In 77962
the case of a complaint against a self-insuring employer, the 77963
administrator shall handle the complaint through the 77964
self-insurance division of the bureau. The bureau shall maintain a 77965
file by employer of all complaints received that relate to the 77966
employer. The bureau shall evaluate each complaint and take 77967
appropriate action.77968

       The administrator shall adopt as a rule a prohibition against 77969
any self-insuring employer from harassing, dismissing, or 77970
otherwise disciplining any employee making a complaint, which rule 77971
shall provide for a financial penalty to be levied by the 77972
administrator payable by the offending self-insuring employer.77973

       (H) For the purpose of making determinations as to whether to 77974
grant status as a self-insuring employer, the administrator may 77975
subscribe to and pay for a credit reporting service that offers 77976
financial and other business information about individual 77977
employers. The costs in connection with the bureau's subscription 77978
or individual reports from the service about an applicant may be 77979
included in the application fee charged employers under this 77980
section.77981

       (I) The administrator, notwithstanding other provisions of 77982
this chapter, may permit a self-insuring employer to resume 77983
payment of premiums to the state insurance fund with appropriate 77984
credit modifications to the employer's basic premium rate as such 77985
rate is determined pursuant to section 4123.29 of the Revised 77986
Code.77987

       (J) On the first day of July of each year, the administrator 77988
shall calculate separately each self-insuring employer's 77989
assessments for the safety and hygiene fund, administrative costs 77990
pursuant to section 4123.342 of the Revised Code, and for the 77991
portion of the surplus fund under division (B) of section 4123.34 77992
of the Revised Code that is not used for handicapped 77993
reimbursement, on the basis of the paid compensation attributable 77994
to the individual self-insuring employer according to the 77995
following calculation:77996

       (1) The total assessment against all self-insuring employers 77997
as a class for each fund and for the administrative costs for the 77998
year that the assessment is being made, as determined by the 77999
administrator, divided by the total amount of paid compensation 78000
for the previous calendar year attributable to all amenable 78001
self-insuring employers;78002

       (2) Multiply the quotient in division (J)(1) of this section 78003
by the total amount of paid compensation for the previous calendar 78004
year that is attributable to the individual self-insuring employer 78005
for whom the assessment is being determined. Each self-insuring 78006
employer shall pay the assessment that results from this 78007
calculation, unless the assessment resulting from this calculation 78008
falls below a minimum assessment, which minimum assessment the 78009
administrator shall determine on the first day of July of each 78010
year with the advice and consent of the bureau of workers' 78011
compensation board of directors, in which event, the self-insuring 78012
employer shall pay the minimum assessment.78013

       In determining the total amount due for the total assessment 78014
against all self-insuring employers as a class for each fund and 78015
the administrative assessment, the administrator shall reduce 78016
proportionately the total for each fund and assessment by the 78017
amount of money in the self-insurance assessment fund as of the 78018
date of the computation of the assessment.78019

       The administrator shall calculate the assessment for the 78020
portion of the surplus fund under division (B) of section 4123.34 78021
of the Revised Code that is used for handicapped reimbursement in 78022
the same manner as set forth in divisions (J)(1) and (2) of this 78023
section except that the administrator shall calculate the total 78024
assessment for this portion of the surplus fund only on the basis 78025
of those self-insuring employers that retain participation in the 78026
handicapped reimbursement program and the individual self-insuring 78027
employer's proportion of paid compensation shall be calculated 78028
only for those self-insuring employers who retain participation in 78029
the handicapped reimbursement program. The administrator, as the 78030
administrator determines appropriate, may determine the total 78031
assessment for the handicapped portion of the surplus fund in 78032
accordance with sound actuarial principles.78033

       The administrator shall calculate the assessment for the 78034
portion of the surplus fund under division (B) of section 4123.34 78035
of the Revised Code that under division (D) of section 4121.66 of 78036
the Revised Code is used for rehabilitation costs in the same 78037
manner as set forth in divisions (J)(1) and (2) of this section, 78038
except that the administrator shall calculate the total assessment 78039
for this portion of the surplus fund only on the basis of those 78040
self-insuring employers who have not made the election to make 78041
payments directly under division (D) of section 4121.66 of the 78042
Revised Code and an individual self-insuring employer's proportion 78043
of paid compensation only for those self-insuring employers who 78044
have not made that election.78045

       The administrator shall calculate the assessment for the 78046
portion of the surplus fund under division (B) of section 4123.34 78047
of the Revised Code that is used for reimbursement to a 78048
self-insuring employer under division (H) of section 4123.512 of 78049
the Revised Code in the same manner as set forth in divisions 78050
(J)(1) and (2) of this section except that the administrator shall 78051
calculate the total assessment for this portion of the surplus 78052
fund only on the basis of those self-insuring employers that 78053
retain participation in reimbursement to the self-insuring 78054
employer under division (H) of section 4123.512 of the Revised 78055
Code and the individual self-insuring employer's proportion of 78056
paid compensation shall be calculated only for those self-insuring 78057
employers who retain participation in reimbursement to the 78058
self-insuring employer under division (H) of section 4123.512 of 78059
the Revised Code.78060

       An employer who no longer is a self-insuring employer in this 78061
state or who no longer is operating in this state, shall continue 78062
to pay assessments for administrative costs and for the portion of 78063
the surplus fund under division (B) of section 4123.34 of the 78064
Revised Code that is not used for handicapped reimbursement, based 78065
upon paid compensation attributable to claims that occurred while 78066
the employer was a self-insuring employer within this state.78067

       (K) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 78068
self-insurance assessment fund. All investment earnings of the 78069
fund shall be deposited in the fund. The administrator shall use 78070
the money in the self-insurance assessment fund only for 78071
administrative costs as specified in section 4123.341 of the 78072
Revised Code.78073

       (L) Every self-insuring employer shall certify, in affidavit 78074
form subject to the penalty for perjury, to the bureau the amount 78075
of the self-insuring employer's paid compensation for the previous 78076
calendar year. In reporting paid compensation paid for the 78077
previous year, a self-insuring employer shall exclude from the 78078
total amount of paid compensation any reimbursement the 78079
self-insuring employer receives in the previous calendar year from 78080
the surplus fund pursuant to section 4123.512 of the Revised Code 78081
for any paid compensation. The self-insuring employer also shall 78082
exclude from the paid compensation reported any amount recovered 78083
under section 4123.931 of the Revised Code and any amount that is 78084
determined not to have been payable to or on behalf of a claimant 78085
in any final administrative or judicial proceeding. The 78086
self-insuring employer shall exclude such amounts from the paid 78087
compensation reported in the reporting period subsequent to the 78088
date the determination is made. The administrator shall adopt 78089
rules, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, that 78090
provide for all of the following:78091

       (1) Establishing the date by which self-insuring employers 78092
must submit such information and the amount of the assessments 78093
provided for in division (J) of this section for employers who 78094
have been granted self-insuring status within the last calendar 78095
year;78096

       (2) If an employer fails to pay the assessment when due, the 78097
administrator may add a late fee penalty of not more than five 78098
hundred dollars to the assessment plus an additional penalty 78099
amount as follows:78100

       (a) For an assessment from sixty-one to ninety days past due, 78101
the prime interest rate, multiplied by the assessment due;78102

       (b) For an assessment from ninety-one to one hundred twenty 78103
days past due, the prime interest rate plus two per cent, 78104
multiplied by the assessment due;78105

       (c) For an assessment from one hundred twenty-one to one 78106
hundred fifty days past due, the prime interest rate plus four per 78107
cent, multiplied by the assessment due;78108

       (d) For an assessment from one hundred fifty-one to one 78109
hundred eighty days past due, the prime interest rate plus six per 78110
cent, multiplied by the assessment due;78111

       (e) For an assessment from one hundred eighty-one to two 78112
hundred ten days past due, the prime interest rate plus eight per 78113
cent, multiplied by the assessment due;78114

       (f) For each additional thirty-day period or portion thereof 78115
that an assessment remains past due after it has remained past due 78116
for more than two hundred ten days, the prime interest rate plus 78117
eight per cent, multiplied by the assessment due.78118

        (3) An employer may appeal a late fee penalty and penalty 78119
assessment to the administrator.78120

        For purposes of division (L)(2) of this section, "prime 78121
interest rate" means the average bank prime rate, and the 78122
administrator shall determine the prime interest rate in the same 78123
manner as a county auditor determines the average bank prime rate 78124
under section 929.02 of the Revised Code.78125

       The administrator shall include any assessment and penalties 78126
that remain unpaid for previous assessment periods in the 78127
calculation and collection of any assessments due under this 78128
division or division (J) of this section.78129

       (M) As used in this section, "paid compensation" means all 78130
amounts paid by a self-insuring employer for living maintenance 78131
benefits, all amounts for compensation paid pursuant to sections 78132
4121.63, 4121.67, 4123.56, 4123.57, 4123.58, 4123.59, 4123.60, and 78133
4123.64 of the Revised Code, all amounts paid as wages in lieu of 78134
such compensation, all amounts paid in lieu of such compensation 78135
under a nonoccupational accident and sickness program fully funded 78136
by the self-insuring employer, and all amounts paid by a 78137
self-insuring employer for a violation of a specific safety 78138
standard pursuant to Section 35 of Article II, Ohio Constitution 78139
and section 4121.47 of the Revised Code.78140

       (N) Should any section of this chapter or Chapter 4121. of 78141
the Revised Code providing for self-insuring employers' 78142
assessments based upon compensation paid be declared 78143
unconstitutional by a final decision of any court, then that 78144
section of the Revised Code declared unconstitutional shall revert 78145
back to the section in existence prior to November 3, 1989, 78146
providing for assessments based upon payroll.78147

       (O) The administrator may grant a self-insuring employer the 78148
privilege to self-insure a construction project entered into by 78149
the self-insuring employer that is scheduled for completion within 78150
six years after the date the project begins, and the total cost of 78151
which is estimated to exceed one hundred million dollars or, for 78152
employers described in division (R) of this section, if the 78153
construction project is estimated to exceed twenty-five million 78154
dollars. The administrator may waive such cost and time criteria 78155
and grant a self-insuring employer the privilege to self-insure a 78156
construction project regardless of the time needed to complete the 78157
construction project and provided that the cost of the 78158
construction project is estimated to exceed fifty million dollars. 78159
A self-insuring employer who desires to self-insure a construction 78160
project shall submit to the administrator an application listing 78161
the dates the construction project is scheduled to begin and end, 78162
the estimated cost of the construction project, the contractors 78163
and subcontractors whose employees are to be self-insured by the 78164
self-insuring employer, the provisions of a safety program that is 78165
specifically designed for the construction project, and a 78166
statement as to whether a collective bargaining agreement 78167
governing the rights, duties, and obligations of each of the 78168
parties to the agreement with respect to the construction project 78169
exists between the self-insuring employer and a labor 78170
organization.78171

       A self-insuring employer may apply to self-insure the 78172
employees of either of the following:78173

       (1) All contractors and subcontractors who perform labor or 78174
work or provide materials for the construction project;78175

       (2) All contractors and, at the administrator's discretion, a 78176
substantial number of all the subcontractors who perform labor or 78177
work or provide materials for the construction project.78178

       Upon approval of the application, the administrator shall 78179
mail a certificate granting the privilege to self-insure the 78180
construction project to the self-insuring employer. The 78181
certificate shall contain the name of the self-insuring employer 78182
and the name, address, and telephone number of the self-insuring 78183
employer's representatives who are responsible for administering 78184
workers' compensation claims for the construction project. The 78185
self-insuring employer shall post the certificate in a conspicuous 78186
place at the site of the construction project.78187

       The administrator shall maintain a record of the contractors 78188
and subcontractors whose employees are covered under the 78189
certificate issued to the self-insured employer. A self-insuring 78190
employer immediately shall notify the administrator when any 78191
contractor or subcontractor is added or eliminated from inclusion 78192
under the certificate.78193

       Upon approval of the application, the self-insuring employer 78194
is responsible for the administration and payment of all claims 78195
under this chapter and Chapter 4121. of the Revised Code for the 78196
employees of the contractor and subcontractors covered under the 78197
certificate who receive injuries or are killed in the course of 78198
and arising out of employment on the construction project, or who 78199
contract an occupational disease in the course of employment on 78200
the construction project. For purposes of this chapter and Chapter 78201
4121. of the Revised Code, a claim that is administered and paid 78202
in accordance with this division is considered a claim against the 78203
self-insuring employer listed in the certificate. A contractor or 78204
subcontractor included under the certificate shall report to the 78205
self-insuring employer listed in the certificate, all claims that 78206
arise under this chapter and Chapter 4121. of the Revised Code in 78207
connection with the construction project for which the certificate 78208
is issued.78209

       A self-insuring employer who complies with this division is 78210
entitled to the protections provided under this chapter and 78211
Chapter 4121. of the Revised Code with respect to the employees of 78212
the contractors and subcontractors covered under a certificate 78213
issued under this division for death or injuries that arise out 78214
of, or death, injuries, or occupational diseases that arise in the 78215
course of, those employees' employment on that construction 78216
project, as if the employees were employees of the self-insuring 78217
employer, provided that the self-insuring employer also complies 78218
with this section. No employee of the contractors and 78219
subcontractors covered under a certificate issued under this 78220
division shall be considered the employee of the self-insuring 78221
employer listed in that certificate for any purposes other than 78222
this chapter and Chapter 4121. of the Revised Code. Nothing in 78223
this division gives a self-insuring employer authority to control 78224
the means, manner, or method of employment of the employees of the 78225
contractors and subcontractors covered under a certificate issued 78226
under this division.78227

       The contractors and subcontractors included under a 78228
certificate issued under this division are entitled to the 78229
protections provided under this chapter and Chapter 4121. of the 78230
Revised Code with respect to the contractor's or subcontractor's 78231
employees who are employed on the construction project which is 78232
the subject of the certificate, for death or injuries that arise 78233
out of, or death, injuries, or occupational diseases that arise in 78234
the course of, those employees' employment on that construction 78235
project.78236

       The contractors and subcontractors included under a 78237
certificate issued under this division shall identify in their 78238
payroll records the employees who are considered the employees of 78239
the self-insuring employer listed in that certificate for purposes 78240
of this chapter and Chapter 4121. of the Revised Code, and the 78241
amount that those employees earned for employment on the 78242
construction project that is the subject of that certificate. 78243
Notwithstanding any provision to the contrary under this chapter 78244
and Chapter 4121. of the Revised Code, the administrator shall 78245
exclude the payroll that is reported for employees who are 78246
considered the employees of the self-insuring employer listed in 78247
that certificate, and that the employees earned for employment on 78248
the construction project that is the subject of that certificate, 78249
when determining those contractors' or subcontractors' premiums or 78250
assessments required under this chapter and Chapter 4121. of the 78251
Revised Code. A self-insuring employer issued a certificate under 78252
this division shall include in the amount of paid compensation it 78253
reports pursuant to division (L) of this section, the amount of 78254
paid compensation the self-insuring employer paid pursuant to this 78255
division for the previous calendar year.78256

       Nothing in this division shall be construed as altering the 78257
rights of employees under this chapter and Chapter 4121. of the 78258
Revised Code as those rights existed prior to September 17, 1996. 78259
Nothing in this division shall be construed as altering the rights 78260
devolved under sections 2305.31 and 4123.82 of the Revised Code as 78261
those rights existed prior to September 17, 1996.78262

       As used in this division, "privilege to self-insure a 78263
construction project" means privilege to pay individually 78264
compensation, and to furnish medical, surgical, nursing, and 78265
hospital services and attention and funeral expenses directly to 78266
injured employees or the dependents of killed employees.78267

       (P) A self-insuring employer whose application is granted 78268
under division (O) of this section shall designate a safety 78269
professional to be responsible for the administration and 78270
enforcement of the safety program that is specifically designed 78271
for the construction project that is the subject of the 78272
application.78273

       A self-insuring employer whose application is granted under 78274
division (O) of this section shall employ an ombudsperson for the 78275
construction project that is the subject of the application. The 78276
ombudsperson shall have experience in workers' compensation or the 78277
construction industry, or both. The ombudsperson shall perform all 78278
of the following duties:78279

       (1) Communicate with and provide information to employees who 78280
are injured in the course of, or whose injury arises out of 78281
employment on the construction project, or who contract an 78282
occupational disease in the course of employment on the 78283
construction project;78284

       (2) Investigate the status of a claim upon the request of an 78285
employee to do so;78286

       (3) Provide information to claimants, third party 78287
administrators, employers, and other persons to assist those 78288
persons in protecting their rights under this chapter and Chapter 78289
4121. of the Revised Code.78290

       A self-insuring employer whose application is granted under 78291
division (O) of this section shall post the name of the safety 78292
professional and the ombudsperson and instructions for contacting 78293
the safety professional and the ombudsperson in a conspicuous 78294
place at the site of the construction project.78295

       (Q) The administrator may consider all of the following when 78296
deciding whether to grant a self-insuring employer the privilege 78297
to self-insure a construction project as provided under division 78298
(O) of this section:78299

       (1) Whether the self-insuring employer has an organizational 78300
plan for the administration of the workers' compensation law;78301

       (2) Whether the safety program that is specifically designed 78302
for the construction project provides for the safety of employees 78303
employed on the construction project, is applicable to all 78304
contractors and subcontractors who perform labor or work or 78305
provide materials for the construction project, and has as a 78306
component, a safety training program that complies with standards 78307
adopted pursuant to the "Occupational Safety and Health Act of 78308
1970," 84 Stat. 1590, 29 U.S.C.A. 651, and provides for continuing 78309
management and employee involvement;78310

       (3) Whether granting the privilege to self-insure the 78311
construction project will reduce the costs of the construction 78312
project;78313

       (4) Whether the self-insuring employer has employed an 78314
ombudsperson as required under division (P) of this section;78315

       (5) Whether the self-insuring employer has sufficient surety 78316
to secure the payment of claims for which the self-insuring 78317
employer would be responsible pursuant to the granting of the 78318
privilege to self-insure a construction project under division (O) 78319
of this section.78320

       (R) As used in divisions (O), (P), and (Q), "self-insuring 78321
employer" includes the following employers, whether or not they 78322
have been granted the status of being a self-insuring employer 78323
under division (B) of this section:78324

        (1) A state institution of higher education;78325

        (2) A school district;78326

        (3) A county school financing district;78327

        (4) An educational service center;78328

        (5) A community school established under Chapter 3314. of the 78329
Revised Code;78330

       (6) A municipal power agency as defined in section 3734.058 78331
of the Revised Code.78332

        (S) As used in this section:78333

       (1) "Unvoted debt capacity" means the amount of money that a 78334
public employer may borrow without voter approval of a tax levy;78335

       (2) "State institution of higher education" means the state 78336
universities listed in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code, 78337
community colleges created pursuant to Chapter 3354. of the 78338
Revised Code, university branches created pursuant to Chapter 78339
3355. of the Revised Code, technical colleges created pursuant to 78340
Chapter 3357. of the Revised Code, and state community colleges 78341
created pursuant to Chapter 3358. of the Revised Code.78342

       Sec. 4123.41.  (A) By the first day of January of each year, 78343
the bureau of workers' compensation shall furnish to the county 78344
auditor of each county and the chief fiscal officer of each taxing 78345
district in a county and of each district activity and institution 78346
mentioned in section 4123.39 of the Revised Code forms containing 78347
the premium rates applicable to the county, district, district 78348
activity, or institution as an employer, on which to report the 78349
amount of money expended by the county, district, district 78350
activity, or institution during the previous twelve calendar 78351
months for the services of employees under this chapter.78352

       (B) Each county auditor and each fiscal officer of a 78353
district, district activity, and institution shall calculate on 78354
the form it receives from the bureau under division (A) of this 78355
section the premium due as its proper contribution to the public 78356
insurance fund and issue a warrant in favor of the bureau for the 78357
amount due from the county, district, district activity, or 78358
institution to the public insurance fund according to the 78359
following schedule:78360

       (1) On or before the fifteenth day of May of each year, no 78361
less than forty-five per cent of the amount due;78362

       (2) On or before the first day of September of each year, no 78363
less than the total amount due.78364

       (C) The legislative body of any county, district, district 78365
activity, or institution may reimburse the fund from which the 78366
workers' compensation payments are made by transferring to the 78367
fund from any other fund of the county, district, district 78368
activity, or institution, the proportionate amount of the payments 78369
that should be chargeable to the fund, whether the fund is derived 78370
from taxation or otherwise. The proportionate amount of the 78371
payments chargeable to the fund may be based on payroll, relative 78372
exposure, relative loss experience, or any combination of these 78373
factors, as determined by the legislative body. 78374

       (1) The workers' compensation program payments of any county, 78375
district, district activity, or institution may include all 78376
payments required by any bureau of workers' compensation rating 78377
plan.78378

       (2) The workers' compensation program payments of any county, 78379
district, district activity, or institution, except for a county 78380
board of developmental disabilities, a board of alcohol, drug 78381
addiction, and mental health services, a board of mental health 78382
services, and a board of alcohol and drug addiction services, also 78383
may include any of the following:78384

       (a) Direct administrative costs incurred in the management of 78385
the county, district, district activity, or institution's workers' 78386
compensation program;78387

       (b) Indirect costs that are necessary and reasonable for the 78388
proper and efficient administration of the workers' compensation 78389
program as documented in a cost allocation plan. The indirect cost 78390
plan shall conform to the United States office of management and 78391
budget circular A-87 "cost principles for state and local 78392
governments," 2 C.F.R. 225, as most recently amended on May 10, 78393
2004. The plan shall not authorize payment from the fund of any 78394
general government expense required to carry out the overall 78395
governmental responsibilities.78396

       (3) Within sixty days before a legislative body changes the 78397
method used for calculating the proportionate amount of the 78398
payments chargeable to the fund, it shall notify, consult with, 78399
and give information supporting the change to any elected official 78400
affected by the change. A transfer made pursuant to division 78401
(B)(2) of this section is not subject to section 5705.16 of the 78402
Revised Code.78403

       (D) Any county board of developmental disabilities, board of 78404
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, board of 78405
mental health services, or board of alcohol and drug addiction 78406
services whose workers' compensation payments, on or before the 78407
effective date of this sectionSeptember 28, 2012, includes costs 78408
referred to in division (C)(2) of this section may continue to do 78409
so on and after the effective date of this amendmentSeptember 78410
28, 2012.78411

       (E) The bureau may investigate the correctness of the 78412
information provided by the county auditor and chief fiscal 78413
officer under division (B) of this section, and if the bureau 78414
determines at any time that the county, district, district 78415
activity, or institution has not reported the correct information, 78416
the administrator of workers' compensation may make deductions or 78417
additions as the facts warrant and take those facts into 78418
consideration in determining the current or future contributions 78419
to be made by the county, district, district activity, or 78420
institution. If the county, district, district activity, or 78421
institution does not furnish the report in the time required by 78422
this section, the administrator may fix the amount of contribution 78423
the county, district, district activity, or institution must make 78424
and certify that amount for payment.78425

       (F) The administrator shall provide a discount to any county, 78426
district, district activity, or institution that pays its total 78427
amount due to the public insurance fund on or before the fifteenth 78428
day of May of each year as its proper contribution for premiums. 78429
The administrator shall base the discount provided under this 78430
division on the savings generated by the early payment to the 78431
public insurance fund. The administrator may provide the discount 78432
through a refund to the county, district, district activity, or 78433
institution or an offset against the future contributions due to 78434
the public insurance fund from the county, district, district 78435
activity, or institution.78436

       (G) The administrator may impose an interest penalty for late 78437
payment of any amount due from a county, district, district 78438
activity, and institution at the interest rate established by the 78439
state tax commissioner pursuant to section 5703.47 of the Revised 78440
Code.78441

       (H) If the administrator adopts rules for the prospective 78442
payment of premium as permitted under section 4123.322 of the 78443
Revised Code, every employer mentioned in division (B)(1) of 78444
section 4123.01 of the Revised Code, except for a state agency or 78445
a state university or college as defined in section 4123.32 of the 78446
Revised Code, shall pay into the state insurance fund the amount 78447
of premium the administrator fixes for the employment or 78448
occupation of the employer, the amount of which premium to be paid 78449
by each employer to be determined by the classifications, rules, 78450
and rates made and published by the administrator and based upon 78451
the estimates and reconciliations required by the rules the 78452
administrator adopts under section 4123.322 of the Revised Code.78453

       Sec. 4123.54.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in divisions 78454
(I) and (K) of this section, every employee, who is injured or who 78455
contracts an occupational disease, and the dependents of each 78456
employee who is killed, or dies as the result of an occupational 78457
disease contracted in the course of employment, wherever such 78458
injury has occurred or occupational disease has been contracted, 78459
provided the same were not:78460

       (1) Purposely self-inflicted; or78461

       (2) Caused by the employee being intoxicated or under the 78462
influence of a controlled substance not prescribed by a physician 78463
where the intoxication or being under the influence of the 78464
controlled substance not prescribed by a physician was the 78465
proximate cause of the injury, is entitled to receive, either 78466
directly from the employee's self-insuring employer as provided in 78467
section 4123.35 of the Revised Code, or from the state insurance 78468
fund, the compensation for loss sustained on account of the 78469
injury, occupational disease, or death, and the medical, nurse, 78470
and hospital services and medicines, and the amount of funeral 78471
expenses in case of death, as are provided by this chapter.78472

       (B) For the purpose of this section, provided that an 78473
employer has posted written notice to employees that the results 78474
of, or the employee's refusal to submit to, any chemical test 78475
described under this division may affect the employee's 78476
eligibility for compensation and benefits pursuant to this chapter 78477
and Chapter 4121. of the Revised Code, there is a rebuttable 78478
presumption that an employee is intoxicated or under the influence 78479
of a controlled substance not prescribed by the employee's 78480
physician and that being intoxicated or under the influence of a 78481
controlled substance not prescribed by the employee's physician is 78482
the proximate cause of an injury under either of the following 78483
conditions:78484

       (1) When any one or more of the following is true:78485

       (a) The employee, through a qualifying chemical test 78486
administered within eight hours of an injury, is determined to 78487
have an alcohol concentration level equal to or in excess of the 78488
levels established in divisions (A)(1)(b) to (i) of section 78489
4511.19 of the Revised Code;78490

       (b) The employee, through a qualifying chemical test 78491
administered within thirty-two hours of an injury, is determined 78492
to have one of the following controlled substances not prescribed 78493
by the employee's physician in the employee's system that tests 78494
above the following levels in an enzyme multiplied immunoassay 78495
technique screening test and above the levels established in 78496
division (B)(1)(c) of this section in a gas chromatography mass 78497
spectrometry test:78498

       (i) For amphetamines, one thousand nanograms per milliliter 78499
of urine;78500

       (ii) For cannabinoids, fifty nanograms per milliliter of 78501
urine;78502

       (iii) For cocaine, including crack cocaine, three hundred 78503
nanograms per milliliter of urine;78504

       (iv) For opiates, two thousand nanograms per milliliter of 78505
urine;78506

       (v) For phencyclidine, twenty-five nanograms per milliliter 78507
of urine.78508

       (c) The employee, through a qualifying chemical test 78509
administered within thirty-two hours of an injury, is determined 78510
to have one of the following controlled substances not prescribed 78511
by the employee's physician in the employee's system that tests 78512
above the following levels by a gas chromatography mass 78513
spectrometry test:78514

       (i) For amphetamines, five hundred nanograms per milliliter 78515
of urine;78516

       (ii) For cannabinoids, fifteen nanograms per milliliter of 78517
urine;78518

       (iii) For cocaine, including crack cocaine, one hundred fifty 78519
nanograms per milliliter of urine;78520

       (iv) For opiates, two thousand nanograms per milliliter of 78521
urine;78522

       (v) For phencyclidine, twenty-five nanograms per milliliter 78523
of urine.78524

       (d) The employee, through a qualifying chemical test 78525
administered within thirty-two hours of an injury, is determined 78526
to have barbiturates, benzodiazepines, methadone, or propoxyphene 78527
in the employee's system that tests above levels established by 78528
laboratories certified by the United States department of health 78529
and human services.78530

        (2) When the employee refuses to submit to a requested 78531
chemical test, on the condition that that employee is or was given 78532
notice that the refusal to submit to any chemical test described 78533
in division (B)(1) of this section may affect the employee's 78534
eligibility for compensation and benefits under this chapter and 78535
Chapter 4121. of the Revised Code.78536

       (C)(1) For purposes of division (B) of this section, a 78537
chemical test is a qualifying chemical test if it is administered 78538
to an employee after an injury under at least one of the following 78539
conditions:78540

       (a) When the employee's employer had reasonable cause to 78541
suspect that the employee may be intoxicated or under the 78542
influence of a controlled substance not prescribed by the 78543
employee's physician;78544

       (b) At the request of a police officer pursuant to section 78545
4511.191 of the Revised Code, and not at the request of the 78546
employee's employer;78547

       (c) At the request of a licensed physician who is not 78548
employed by the employee's employer, and not at the request of the 78549
employee's employer.78550

       (2) As used in division (C)(1)(a) of this section, 78551
"reasonable cause" means, but is not limited to, evidence that an 78552
employee is or was using alcohol or a controlled substance drawn 78553
from specific, objective facts and reasonable inferences drawn 78554
from these facts in light of experience and training. These facts 78555
and inferences may be based on, but are not limited to, any of the 78556
following:78557

       (a) Observable phenomena, such as direct observation of use, 78558
possession, or distribution of alcohol or a controlled substance, 78559
or of the physical symptoms of being under the influence of 78560
alcohol or a controlled substance, such as but not limited to 78561
slurred speech, dilated pupils, odor of alcohol or a controlled 78562
substance, changes in affect, or dynamic mood swings;78563

       (b) A pattern of abnormal conduct, erratic or aberrant 78564
behavior, or deteriorating work performance such as frequent 78565
absenteeism, excessive tardiness, or recurrent accidents, that 78566
appears to be related to the use of alcohol or a controlled 78567
substance, and does not appear to be attributable to other 78568
factors;78569

       (c) The identification of an employee as the focus of a 78570
criminal investigation into unauthorized possession, use, or 78571
trafficking of a controlled substance;78572

       (d) A report of use of alcohol or a controlled substance 78573
provided by a reliable and credible source;78574

       (e) Repeated or flagrant violations of the safety or work 78575
rules of the employee's employer, that are determined by the 78576
employee's supervisor to pose a substantial risk of physical 78577
injury or property damage and that appear to be related to the use 78578
of alcohol or a controlled substance and that do not appear 78579
attributable to other factors.78580

       (D) Nothing in this section shall be construed to affect the 78581
rights of an employer to test employees for alcohol or controlled 78582
substance abuse.78583

       (E) For the purpose of this section, laboratories certified 78584
by the United States department of health and human services or 78585
laboratories that meet or exceed the standards of that department 78586
for laboratory certification shall be used for processing the test 78587
results of a qualifying chemical test.78588

       (F) The written notice required by division (B) of this 78589
section shall be the same size or larger than the certificate of 78590
premium payment notice furnished by the bureau of workers' 78591
compensation and shall be posted by the employer in the same 78592
location as the certificate of premium payment notice or the 78593
certificate of self-insurance.78594

       (G) If a condition that pre-existed an injury is 78595
substantially aggravated by the injury, and that substantial 78596
aggravation is documented by objective diagnostic findings, 78597
objective clinical findings, or objective test results, no 78598
compensation or benefits are payable because of the pre-existing 78599
condition once that condition has returned to a level that would 78600
have existed without the injury.78601

       (H)(1) Whenever, with respect to an employee of an employer 78602
who is subject to and has complied with this chapter, there is 78603
possibility of conflict with respect to the application of 78604
workers' compensation laws because the contract of employment is 78605
entered into and all or some portion of the work is or is to be 78606
performed in a state or states other than Ohio, the employer and 78607
the employee may agree to be bound by the laws of this state or by 78608
the laws of some other state in which all or some portion of the 78609
work of the employee is to be performed. The agreement shall be in 78610
writing and shall be filed with the bureau of workers' 78611
compensation within ten days after it is executed and shall remain 78612
in force until terminated or modified by agreement of the parties 78613
similarly filed. If the agreement is to be bound by the laws of 78614
this state and the employer has complied with this chapter, then 78615
the employee is entitled to compensation and benefits regardless 78616
of where the injury occurs or the disease is contracted and the 78617
rights of the employee and the employee's dependents under the 78618
laws of this state are the exclusive remedy against the employer 78619
on account of injury, disease, or death in the course of and 78620
arising out of the employee's employment. If the agreement is to 78621
be bound by the laws of another state and the employer has 78622
complied with the laws of that state, the rights of the employee 78623
and the employee's dependents under the laws of that state are the 78624
exclusive remedy against the employer on account of injury, 78625
disease, or death in the course of and arising out of the 78626
employee's employment without regard to the place where the injury 78627
was sustained or the disease contracted. If an employer and an 78628
employee enter into an agreement under this division, the fact 78629
that the employer and the employee entered into that agreement 78630
shall not be construed to change the status of an employee whose 78631
continued employment is subject to the will of the employer or the 78632
employee, unless the agreement contains a provision that expressly 78633
changes that status.78634

       (2) If any employee or the employee's dependents pursue 78635
workers' compensation benefits or recover damages from the 78636
employer under the laws of another state, the amount awarded or 78637
recovered, whether paid or to be paid in future installments, 78638
shall be credited on the amount of any award of compensation or 78639
benefits made to the employee or the employee's dependents by the 78640
bureau. If an employee or the employee's dependents pursue or 78641
receive an award of compensation or benefits under this chapter or 78642
Chapter 4121., 4127., or 4131. of the Revised Code for the same 78643
injury, occupational disease, or death for which the employee or 78644
the employee's dependents pursued workers' compensation benefits 78645
and received a decision on the merits as defined in section 78646
4123.542 of the Revised Code under the laws of another state or 78647
recovered damages under the laws of another state, the 78648
administrator or any employer, by any lawful means, may collect 78649
the amount of compensation or benefits paid to or on behalf of the 78650
employee or the employee's dependents by the administrator or a 78651
self-insuring employer pursuant to this chapter or Chapter 4121., 78652
4127., or 4131. of the Revised Code for that award. The 78653
administrator or any employer also may collect from the employee 78654
or the employee's dependents any costs and attorney's fees the 78655
administrator or the employer incurs in collecting that payment 78656
and any attorney's fees, penalties, interest, awards, and costs 78657
incurred by an employer in contesting or responding to any claim 78658
filed by the employee or the employee's dependents for the same 78659
injury, occupational disease, or death that was filed after the 78660
original claim for which the employee or the employee's dependents 78661
received a decision on the merits as described in section 4123.542 78662
of the Revised Code. If the employee's employer pays premiums into 78663
the state insurance fund, the administrator shall not charge the 78664
amount of compensation or benefits the administrator collects 78665
pursuant to this division to the employer's experience. If the 78666
administrator collects any costs, penalties, interest, awards, or 78667
attorney's fees incurred by a state fund employer, the 78668
administrator shall forward the amount of such costs, penalties, 78669
interest, awards, and attorney's fees the administrator collects 78670
to that employer. If the employee's employer is a self-insuring 78671
employer, the self-insuring employer shall deduct the amount of 78672
compensation or benefits the self-insuring employer collects 78673
pursuant to this division from the paid compensation the 78674
self-insuring employer reports to the administrator under division 78675
(L) of section 4123.35 of the Revised Code.78676

        (3) Except as otherwise stipulated in division (H)(4) of this 78677
section, if an employee is a resident of a state other than this 78678
state and is insured under the workers' compensation law or 78679
similar laws of a state other than this state, the employee and 78680
the employee's dependents are not entitled to receive compensation 78681
or benefits under this chapter, on account of injury, disease, or 78682
death arising out of or in the course of employment while 78683
temporarily within this state, and the rights of the employee and 78684
the employee's dependents under the laws of the other state are 78685
the exclusive remedy against the employer on account of the 78686
injury, disease, or death.78687

       (4) Division (H)(3) of this section does not apply to an 78688
employee described in that division, or the employee's dependents, 78689
unless both of the following apply:78690

       (a) The laws of the other state limit the ability of an 78691
employee who is a resident of this state and is covered by this 78692
chapter and Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code, or the employee's 78693
dependents, to receive compensation or benefits under the other 78694
state's workers' compensation law on account of injury, disease, 78695
or death incurred by the employee that arises out of or in the 78696
course of the employee's employment while temporarily within that 78697
state in the same manner as specified in division (H)(3) of this 78698
section for an employee who is a resident of a state other than 78699
this state, or the employee's dependents;78700

       (b) The laws of the other state limit the liability of the 78701
employer of the employee who is a resident of this state and who 78702
is described in division (H)(4)(a) of this section for that 78703
injury, disease, or death, in the same manner specified in 78704
division (H)(3) of this section for the employer of an employee 78705
who is a resident of the other state.78706

       (5) An employee, or the dependent of an employee, who elects 78707
to receive compensation and benefits under this chapter or Chapter 78708
4121., 4127., or 4131. of the Revised Code for a claim may not 78709
receive compensation and benefits under the workers' compensation 78710
laws of any state other than this state for that same claim. For 78711
each claim submitted by or on behalf of an employee, the 78712
administrator or, if the employee is employed by a self-insuring 78713
employer, the self-insuring employer shall request the employee or 78714
the employee's dependent to sign an election that affirms the 78715
employee's or employee's dependent's acceptance of electing to 78716
receive compensation and benefits under this chapter or Chapter 78717
4121., 4127., or 4131. of the Revised Code for that claim that 78718
also affirmatively waives and releases the employee's or the 78719
employee's dependent's right to file for and receive compensation 78720
and benefits under the laws of any state other than this state for 78721
that claim. The employee or employee's dependent shall sign the 78722
election form within twenty-eight days after the administrator or 78723
self-insuring employer submits the request or the administrator or 78724
self-insuring employer shall suspend that claim until the 78725
administrator or self-insuring employer receives the signed 78726
election form.78727

       (I) If an employee who is covered under the federal 78728
"Longshore and Harbor Workers' Compensation Act," 98 Stat. 1639, 78729
33 U.S.C. 901 et seq., is injured or contracts an occupational 78730
disease or dies as a result of an injury or occupational disease, 78731
and if that employee's or that employee's dependents' claim for 78732
compensation or benefits for that injury, occupational disease, or 78733
death is subject to the jurisdiction of that act, the employee or 78734
the employee's dependents are not entitled to apply for and shall 78735
not receive compensation or benefits under this chapter and 78736
Chapter 4121. of the Revised Code. The rights of such an employee 78737
and the employee's dependents under the federal "Longshore and 78738
Harbor Workers' Compensation Act," 98 Stat. 1639, 33 U.S.C. 901 et 78739
seq., are the exclusive remedy against the employer for that 78740
injury, occupational disease, or death.78741

       (J) Compensation or benefits are not payable to a claimant 78742
during the period of confinement of the claimant in any state or 78743
federal correctional institution, or in any county jail in lieu of 78744
incarceration in a state or federal correctional institution, 78745
whether in this or any other state for conviction of violation of 78746
any state or federal criminal law.78747

       (K)(1) An employer, upon the approval of the administrator, 78748
may provide for workers' compensation coverage for the employer's 78749
employees who are professional athletes and coaches by submitting 78750
to the administrator proof of coverage under a league policy 78751
issued under the laws of another state under either of the 78752
following circumstances:78753

       (1)(a) The employer administers the payroll and workers' 78754
compensation insurance for a professional sports team subject to a 78755
collective bargaining agreement, and the collective bargaining 78756
agreement provides for the uniform administration of workers' 78757
compensation benefits and compensation for professional athletes.78758

       (2)(b) The employer is a professional sports league, or is a 78759
member team of a professional sports league, and all of the 78760
following apply:78761

       (a)(i) The professional sports league operates as a single 78762
entity, whereby all of the players and coaches of the sports 78763
league are employees of the sports league and not of the 78764
individual member teams.78765

       (b)(ii) The professional sports league at all times maintains 78766
workers' compensation insurance that provides coverage for the 78767
players and coaches of the sports league.78768

       (c)(iii) Each individual member team of the professional 78769
sports league, pursuant to the organizational or operating 78770
documents of the sports league, is obligated to the sports league 78771
to pay to the sports league any workers' compensation claims that 78772
are not covered by the workers' compensation insurance maintained 78773
by the sports league.78774

       (2) If the administrator approves the employer's proof of 78775
coverage submitted under division (K)(1) of this section, a 78776
professional athlete or coach who is an employee of the employer 78777
and the dependents of the professional athlete or coach are not 78778
entitled to apply for and shall not receive compensation or 78779
benefits under this chapter and Chapter 4121. of the Revised Code. 78780
The rights of such an athlete or coach and the dependents of such 78781
an athlete or coach under the laws of the state where the policy 78782
was issued are the exclusive remedy against the employer for the 78783
athlete or coach if the athlete or coach suffers an injury or 78784
contracts an occupational disease in the course of employment, or 78785
for the dependents of the athlete or the coach if the athlete or 78786
coach is killed as a result of an injury or dies as a result of an 78787
occupational disease, regardless of the location where the injury 78788
was suffered or the occupational disease was contracted.78789

       (3) If an actuary employed by the administrator determines 78790
that, with respect to an employer whose proof of coverage 78791
submitted pursuant to division (K)(1) of this section is approved 78792
by the administrator, the amount of the liability of the employer 78793
for the employer's proportionate share of any deficit in the state 78794
insurance fund is greater than two hundred thousand dollars as of 78795
the date the administrator approves the proof of coverage, the 78796
administrator shall establish a payment schedule not to exceed 78797
seven years after the date the administrator approves the coverage 78798
to allow the employer to buy out of the state insurance fund.78799

       Sec. 4123.57.  Partial disability compensation shall be paid 78800
as follows.78801

       Except as provided in this section, not earlier than 78802
twenty-six weeks after the date of termination of the latest 78803
period of payments under section 4123.56 of the Revised Code, or 78804
not earlier than twenty-six weeks after the date of the injury or 78805
contraction of an occupational disease in the absence of payments 78806
under section 4123.56 of the Revised Code, the employee may file 78807
an application with the bureau of workers' compensation for the 78808
determination of the percentage of the employee's permanent 78809
partial disability resulting from an injury or occupational 78810
disease.78811

       Whenever the application is filed, the bureau shall send a 78812
copy of the application to the employee's employer or the 78813
employer's representative and shall schedule the employee for a 78814
medical examination by the bureau medical section. The bureau 78815
shall send a copy of the report of the medical examination to the 78816
employee, the employer, and their representatives. Thereafter, the 78817
administrator of workers' compensation shall review the employee's 78818
claim file and make a tentative order as the evidence before the 78819
administrator at the time of the making of the order warrants. If 78820
the administrator determines that there is a conflict of evidence, 78821
the administrator shall send the application, along with the 78822
claimant's file, to the district hearing officer who shall set the 78823
application for a hearing.78824

       The administrator shall notify the employee, the employer, 78825
and their representatives, in writing, of the tentative order and 78826
of the parties' right to request a hearing. Unless the employee, 78827
the employer, or their representative notifies the administrator, 78828
in writing, of an objection to the tentative order within twenty 78829
days after receipt of the notice thereof, the tentative order 78830
shall go into effect and the employee shall receive the 78831
compensation provided in the order. In no event shall there be a 78832
reconsideration of a tentative order issued under this division.78833

       If the employee, the employer, or their representatives 78834
timely notify the administrator of an objection to the tentative 78835
order, the matter shall be referred to a district hearing officer 78836
who shall set the application for hearing with written notices to 78837
all interested persons. Upon referral to a district hearing 78838
officer, the employer may obtain a medical examination of the 78839
employee, pursuant to rules of the industrial commission.78840

       (A) The district hearing officer, upon the application, shall 78841
determine the percentage of the employee's permanent disability, 78842
except as is subject to division (B) of this section, based upon 78843
that condition of the employee resulting from the injury or 78844
occupational disease and causing permanent impairment evidenced by 78845
medical or clinical findings reasonably demonstrable. The employee 78846
shall receive sixty-six and two-thirds per cent of the employee's 78847
average weekly wage, but not more than a maximum of thirty-three 78848
and one-third per cent of the statewide average weekly wage as 78849
defined in division (C) of section 4123.62 of the Revised Code, 78850
per week regardless of the average weekly wage, for the number of 78851
weeks which equals the percentage of two hundred weeks. Except on 78852
application for reconsideration, review, or modification, which is 78853
filed within ten days after the date of receipt of the decision of 78854
the district hearing officer, in no instance shall the former 78855
award be modified unless it is found from medical or clinical 78856
findings that the condition of the claimant resulting from the 78857
injury has so progressed as to have increased the percentage of 78858
permanent partial disability. A staff hearing officer shall hear 78859
an application for reconsideration filed and the staff hearing 78860
officer's decision is final. An employee may file an application 78861
for a subsequent determination of the percentage of the employee's 78862
permanent disability. If such an application is filed, the bureau 78863
shall send a copy of the application to the employer or the 78864
employer's representative. No sooner than sixty days from the date 78865
of the mailing of the application to the employer or the 78866
employer's representative, the administrator shall review the 78867
application. The administrator may require a medical examination 78868
or medical review of the employee. The administrator shall issue a 78869
tentative order based upon the evidence before the administrator, 78870
provided that if the administrator requires a medical examination 78871
or medical review, the administrator shall not issue the tentative 78872
order until the completion of the examination or review.78873

       The employer may obtain a medical examination of the employee 78874
and may submit medical evidence at any stage of the process up to 78875
a hearing before the district hearing officer, pursuant to rules 78876
of the commission. The administrator shall notify the employee, 78877
the employer, and their representatives, in writing, of the nature 78878
and amount of any tentative order issued on an application 78879
requesting a subsequent determination of the percentage of an 78880
employee's permanent disability. An employee, employer, or their 78881
representatives may object to the tentative order within twenty 78882
days after the receipt of the notice thereof. If no timely 78883
objection is made, the tentative order shall go into effect. In no 78884
event shall there be a reconsideration of a tentative order issued 78885
under this division. If an objection is timely made, the 78886
application for a subsequent determination shall be referred to a 78887
district hearing officer who shall set the application for a 78888
hearing with written notice to all interested persons. No 78889
application for subsequent percentage determinations on the same 78890
claim for injury or occupational disease shall be accepted for 78891
review by the district hearing officer unless supported by 78892
substantial evidence of new and changed circumstances developing 78893
since the time of the hearing on the original or last 78894
determination.78895

       No award shall be made under this division based upon a 78896
percentage of disability which, when taken with all other 78897
percentages of permanent disability, exceeds one hundred per cent. 78898
If the percentage of the permanent disability of the employee 78899
equals or exceeds ninety per cent, compensation for permanent 78900
partial disability shall be paid for two hundred weeks.78901

       Compensation payable under this division accrues and is 78902
payable to the employee from the date of last payment of 78903
compensation, or, in cases where no previous compensation has been 78904
paid, from the date of the injury or the date of the diagnosis of 78905
the occupational disease.78906

       When an award under this division has been made prior to the 78907
death of an employee, all unpaid installments accrued or to accrue 78908
under the provisions of the award are payable to the surviving 78909
spouse, or if there is no surviving spouse, to the dependent 78910
children of the employee, and if there are no children surviving, 78911
then to other dependents as the administrator determines.78912

       (B) For purposes of this division, "payable per week" means 78913
the seven-consecutive-day period in which compensation is paid in 78914
installments according to the schedule associated with the 78915
applicable injury as set forth in this division.78916

        Compensation paid in weekly installments according to the 78917
schedule described in this division may only be commuted to one or 78918
more lump-sumlump sum payments pursuant to the procedure set 78919
forth in section 4123.64 of the Revised Code. 78920

       In cases included in the following schedule the compensation 78921
payable per week to the employee is the statewide average weekly 78922
wage as defined in division (C) of section 4123.62 of the Revised 78923
Code per week and shall be paid in installments according to the 78924
following schedule:78925

       For the loss of a first finger, commonly known as a thumb, 78926
sixty weeks.78927

       For the loss of a second finger, commonly called index 78928
finger, thirty-five weeks.78929

       For the loss of a third finger, thirty weeks.78930

       For the loss of a fourth finger, twenty weeks.78931

       For the loss of a fifth finger, commonly known as the little 78932
finger, fifteen weeks.78933

       The loss of a second, or distal, phalange of the thumb is 78934
considered equal to the loss of one half of such thumb; the loss 78935
of more than one half of such thumb is considered equal to the 78936
loss of the whole thumb.78937

       The loss of the third, or distal, phalange of any finger is 78938
considered equal to the loss of one-third of the finger.78939

       The loss of the middle, or second, phalange of any finger is 78940
considered equal to the loss of two-thirds of the finger.78941

       The loss of more than the middle and distal phalanges of any 78942
finger is considered equal to the loss of the whole finger. In no 78943
case shall the amount received for more than one finger exceed the 78944
amount provided in this schedule for the loss of a hand.78945

       For the loss of the metacarpal bone (bones of the palm) for 78946
the corresponding thumb, or fingers, add ten weeks to the number 78947
of weeks under this division.78948

       For ankylosis (total stiffness of) or contractures (due to 78949
scars or injuries) which makes any of the fingers, thumbs, or 78950
parts of either useless, the same number of weeks apply to the 78951
members or parts thereof as given for the loss thereof.78952

       If the claimant has suffered the loss of two or more fingers 78953
by amputation or ankylosis and the nature of the claimant's 78954
employment in the course of which the claimant was working at the 78955
time of the injury or occupational disease is such that the 78956
handicap or disability resulting from the loss of fingers, or loss 78957
of use of fingers, exceeds the normal handicap or disability 78958
resulting from the loss of fingers, or loss of use of fingers, the 78959
administrator may take that fact into consideration and increase 78960
the award of compensation accordingly, but the award made shall 78961
not exceed the amount of compensation for loss of a hand.78962

       For the loss of a hand, one hundred seventy-five weeks.78963

       For the loss of an arm, two hundred twenty-five weeks.78964

       For the loss of a great toe, thirty weeks.78965

       For the loss of one of the toes other than the great toe, ten 78966
weeks.78967

       The loss of more than two-thirds of any toe is considered 78968
equal to the loss of the whole toe.78969

       The loss of less than two-thirds of any toe is considered no 78970
loss, except as to the great toe; the loss of the great toe up to 78971
the interphalangeal joint is co-equal to the loss of one-half of 78972
the great toe; the loss of the great toe beyond the 78973
interphalangeal joint is considered equal to the loss of the whole 78974
great toe.78975

       For the loss of a foot, one hundred fifty weeks.78976

       For the loss of a leg, two hundred weeks.78977

       For the loss of the sight of an eye, one hundred twenty-five 78978
weeks.78979

       For the permanent partial loss of sight of an eye, the 78980
portion of one hundred twenty-five weeks as the administrator in 78981
each case determines, based upon the percentage of vision actually 78982
lost as a result of the injury or occupational disease, but, in no 78983
case shall an award of compensation be made for less than 78984
twenty-five per cent loss of uncorrected vision. "Loss of 78985
uncorrected vision" means the percentage of vision actually lost 78986
as the result of the injury or occupational disease.78987

       For the permanent and total loss of hearing of one ear, 78988
twenty-five weeks; but in no case shall an award of compensation 78989
be made for less than permanent and total loss of hearing of one 78990
ear.78991

       For the permanent and total loss of hearing, one hundred 78992
twenty-five weeks; but, except pursuant to the next preceding 78993
paragraph, in no case shall an award of compensation be made for 78994
less than permanent and total loss of hearing.78995

       In case an injury or occupational disease results in serious 78996
facial or head disfigurement which either impairs or may in the 78997
future impair the opportunities to secure or retain employment, 78998
the administrator shall make an award of compensation as it deems 78999
proper and equitable, in view of the nature of the disfigurement, 79000
and not to exceed the sum of ten thousand dollars. For the purpose 79001
of making the award, it is not material whether the employee is 79002
gainfully employed in any occupation or trade at the time of the 79003
administrator's determination.79004

       When an award under this division has been made prior to the 79005
death of an employee all unpaid installments accrued or to accrue 79006
under the provisions of the award shall be payable to the 79007
surviving spouse, or if there is no surviving spouse, to the 79008
dependent children of the employee and if there are no such 79009
children, then to such dependents as the administrator determines.79010

       When an employee has sustained the loss of a member by 79011
severance, but no award has been made on account thereof prior to 79012
the employee's death, the administrator shall make an award in 79013
accordance with this division for the loss which shall be payable 79014
to the surviving spouse, or if there is no surviving spouse, to 79015
the dependent children of the employee and if there are no such 79016
children, then to such dependents as the administrator determines.79017

       (C) Compensation for partial impairment under divisions (A) 79018
and (B) of this section is in addition to the compensation paid 79019
the employee pursuant to section 4123.56 of the Revised Code. A 79020
claimant may receive compensation under divisions (A) and (B) of 79021
this section.79022

       In all cases arising under division (B) of this section, if 79023
it is determined by any one of the following: (1) the amputee 79024
clinic at University hospital, Ohio state university; (2) the 79025
rehabilitation services commissionopportunities for Ohioans with 79026
disabilities agency; (3) an amputee clinic or prescribing 79027
physician approved by the administrator or the administrator's 79028
designee, that an injured or disabled employee is in need of an 79029
artificial appliance, or in need of a repair thereof, regardless 79030
of whether the appliance or its repair will be serviceable in the 79031
vocational rehabilitation of the injured employee, and regardless 79032
of whether the employee has returned to or can ever again return 79033
to any gainful employment, the bureau shall pay the cost of the 79034
artificial appliance or its repair out of the surplus created by 79035
division (B) of section 4123.34 of the Revised Code.79036

       In those cases where a rehabilitation services commissionan 79037
opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency recommendation 79038
that an injured or disabled employee is in need of an artificial 79039
appliance would conflict with their state plan, adopted pursuant 79040
to the "Rehabilitation Act of 1973," 87 Stat. 355, 29 U.S.C.A. 79041
701, the administrator or the administrator's designee or the 79042
bureau may obtain a recommendation from an amputee clinic or 79043
prescribing physician that they determine appropriate.79044

       (D) If an employee of a state fund employer makes application 79045
for a finding and the administrator finds that the employee has 79046
contracted silicosis as defined in division (X), or coal miners' 79047
pneumoconiosis as defined in division (Y), or asbestosis as 79048
defined in division (AA) of section 4123.68 of the Revised Code, 79049
and that a change of such employee's occupation is medically 79050
advisable in order to decrease substantially further exposure to 79051
silica dust, asbestos, or coal dust and if the employee, after the 79052
finding, has changed or shall change the employee's occupation to 79053
an occupation in which the exposure to silica dust, asbestos, or 79054
coal dust is substantially decreased, the administrator shall 79055
allow to the employee an amount equal to fifty per cent of the 79056
statewide average weekly wage per week for a period of thirty 79057
weeks, commencing as of the date of the discontinuance or change, 79058
and for a period of one hundred weeks immediately following the 79059
expiration of the period of thirty weeks, the employee shall 79060
receive sixty-six and two-thirds per cent of the loss of wages 79061
resulting directly and solely from the change of occupation but 79062
not to exceed a maximum of an amount equal to fifty per cent of 79063
the statewide average weekly wage per week. No such employee is 79064
entitled to receive more than one allowance on account of 79065
discontinuance of employment or change of occupation and benefits 79066
shall cease for any period during which the employee is employed 79067
in an occupation in which the exposure to silica dust, asbestos, 79068
or coal dust is not substantially less than the exposure in the 79069
occupation in which the employee was formerly employed or for any 79070
period during which the employee may be entitled to receive 79071
compensation or benefits under section 4123.68 of the Revised Code 79072
on account of disability from silicosis, asbestosis, or coal 79073
miners' pneumoconiosis. An award for change of occupation for a 79074
coal miner who has contracted coal miners' pneumoconiosis may be 79075
granted under this division even though the coal miner continues 79076
employment with the same employer, so long as the coal miner's 79077
employment subsequent to the change is such that the coal miner's 79078
exposure to coal dust is substantially decreased and a change of 79079
occupation is certified by the claimant as permanent. The 79080
administrator may accord to the employee medical and other 79081
benefits in accordance with section 4123.66 of the Revised Code.79082

       (E) If a firefighter or police officer makes application for 79083
a finding and the administrator finds that the firefighter or 79084
police officer has contracted a cardiovascular and pulmonary 79085
disease as defined in division (W) of section 4123.68 of the 79086
Revised Code, and that a change of the firefighter's or police 79087
officer's occupation is medically advisable in order to decrease 79088
substantially further exposure to smoke, toxic gases, chemical 79089
fumes, and other toxic vapors, and if the firefighter, or police 79090
officer, after the finding, has changed or changes occupation to 79091
an occupation in which the exposure to smoke, toxic gases, 79092
chemical fumes, and other toxic vapors is substantially decreased, 79093
the administrator shall allow to the firefighter or police officer 79094
an amount equal to fifty per cent of the statewide average weekly 79095
wage per week for a period of thirty weeks, commencing as of the 79096
date of the discontinuance or change, and for a period of 79097
seventy-five weeks immediately following the expiration of the 79098
period of thirty weeks the administrator shall allow the 79099
firefighter or police officer sixty-six and two-thirds per cent of 79100
the loss of wages resulting directly and solely from the change of 79101
occupation but not to exceed a maximum of an amount equal to fifty 79102
per cent of the statewide average weekly wage per week. No such 79103
firefighter or police officer is entitled to receive more than one 79104
allowance on account of discontinuance of employment or change of 79105
occupation and benefits shall cease for any period during which 79106
the firefighter or police officer is employed in an occupation in 79107
which the exposure to smoke, toxic gases, chemical fumes, and 79108
other toxic vapors is not substantially less than the exposure in 79109
the occupation in which the firefighter or police officer was 79110
formerly employed or for any period during which the firefighter 79111
or police officer may be entitled to receive compensation or 79112
benefits under section 4123.68 of the Revised Code on account of 79113
disability from a cardiovascular and pulmonary disease. The 79114
administrator may accord to the firefighter or police officer 79115
medical and other benefits in accordance with section 4123.66 of 79116
the Revised Code.79117

       (F) An order issued under this section is appealable pursuant 79118
to section 4123.511 of the Revised Code but is not appealable to 79119
court under section 4123.512 of the Revised Code.79120

       Sec. 4123.93.  As used in sections 4123.93 and 4123.931 of 79121
the Revised Code:79122

       (A) "Claimant" means a person who is eligible to receive 79123
compensation, medical benefits, or death benefits under this 79124
chapter or Chapter 4121., 4127., or 4131. of the Revised Code.79125

       (B) "Statutory subrogee" means the administrator of workers' 79126
compensation, a self-insuring employer, or an employer that 79127
contracts for the direct payment of medical services pursuant to 79128
division (L)(P) of section 4121.44 of the Revised Code.79129

       (C) "Third party" means an individual, private insurer, 79130
public or private entity, or public or private program that is or 79131
may be liable to make payments to a person without regard to any 79132
statutory duty contained in this chapter or Chapter 4121., 4127., 79133
or 4131. of the Revised Code.79134

       (D) "Subrogation interest" includes past, present, and 79135
estimated future payments of compensation, medical benefits, 79136
rehabilitation costs, or death benefits, and any other costs or 79137
expenses paid to or on behalf of the claimant by the statutory 79138
subrogee pursuant to this chapter or Chapter 4121., 4127., or 79139
4131. of the Revised Code.79140

       (E) "Net amount recovered" means the amount of any award, 79141
settlement, compromise, or recovery by a claimant against a third 79142
party, minus the attorney's fees, costs, or other expenses 79143
incurred by the claimant in securing the award, settlement, 79144
compromise, or recovery. "Net amount recovered" does not include 79145
any punitive damages that may be awarded by a judge or jury.79146

       (F) "Uncompensated damages" means the claimant's demonstrated 79147
or proven damages minus the statutory subrogee's subrogation 79148
interest.79149

       Sec. 4131.03.  (A) For the relief of persons who are entitled 79150
to receive benefits by virtue of the federal act, there is hereby 79151
established a coal-workers pneumoconiosis fund, which shall be 79152
separate from the funds established and administered pursuant to 79153
Chapter 4123. of the Revised Code. The fund shall consist of 79154
premiums and other payments thereto by subscribers who elect to 79155
subscribe to the fund to insure the payment of benefits required 79156
by the federal act.79157

       (B)(1) The coal-workers pneumoconiosis fund shall be in the 79158
custody of the treasurer of state. The bureau of workers' 79159
compensation shall make disbursements from the fund to those 79160
persons entitled to payment therefrom and in the amounts required 79161
pursuant to sections 4131.01 to 4131.06 of the Revised Code. All 79162
investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.79163

       (2) Beginning July 1, 2011, and ending June 30, 2013, the 79164
director of natural resources annually may request the 79165
administrator of workers' compensation to transfer a portion of 79166
the investment earnings credited to the coal-workers 79167
pneumoconiosis fund as provided in this division. If the 79168
administrator receives a request from the director, the 79169
administrator, on the first day of July, or as soon as possible 79170
after that date, shall transfer from the investment earnings 79171
credited to the coal-workers pneumoconiosis fund an amount not to 79172
exceed three million dollars to the mine safety fund created in 79173
section 1561.24 of the Revised Code for the purposes specified in 79174
that section and an amount not to exceed one million five hundred 79175
thousand dollars to the coal mining administration and reclamation 79176
reserve fund created in section 1513.181 of the Revised Code for 79177
the purposes specified in that section. The administrator, with 79178
the advice and consent of the bureau of workers' compensation 79179
board of directors, shall adopt rules governing the transfer in 79180
order to ensure the solvency of the coal-workers pneumoconiosis 79181
fund. For that purpose, the rules may establish tests based on 79182
measures of net assets, liabilities, expenses, interest, dividend 79183
income, or other factors that the administrator determines 79184
appropriate that may be applied prior to a transfer. 79185

       (C) The administrator shall have the same powers to invest 79186
any of the surplus or reserve belonging to the coal-workers 79187
pneumoconiosis fund as are delegated to the administrator under 79188
section 4123.44 of the Revised Code with respect to the state 79189
insurance fund.79190

       (D) If the administrator determines that reinsurance of the 79191
risks of the coal-workers pneumoconiosis fund is necessary to 79192
assure solvency of the fund, the administrator may:79193

       (1) Enter into contracts for the purchase of reinsurance 79194
coverage of the risks of the fund with any company or agency 79195
authorized by law to issue contracts of reinsurance;79196

       (2) Pay the cost of reinsurance from the fund;79197

       (3) Include the costs of reinsurance as a liability and 79198
estimated liability of the fund.79199

       Sec. 4141.162.  (A) The director of job and family services 79200
shall establish an income and eligibility verification system that 79201
complies with section 1137 of the "Social Security Act." The 79202
programs included in the system are all of the following:79203

       (1) Unemployment compensation pursuant to section 3304 of the 79204
"Internal Revenue Code of 1954";79205

       (2) The state programs funded in part under part A of Title 79206
IV of the "Social Security Act" and administered under Chapters 79207
5107. and 5108. of the Revised Code;79208

       (3) Medicaid pursuant to Title XIX of the "Social Security 79209
Act"The medicaid program;79210

       (4) The supplemental nutrition assistance program pursuant to 79211
the Food and Nutrition Act of 2008 (7 U.S.C. 2011 et seq.;79212

       (5) Any Ohio program under a plan approved under Title I, X, 79213
XIV, or XVI of the "Social Security Act."79214

       Wage information provided by employers to the director shall 79215
be furnished to the income and eligibility verification system. 79216
Such information shall be used by the director to determine 79217
eligibility of individuals for unemployment compensation benefits 79218
and the amount of those benefits and used by the agencies that 79219
administer the programs identified in divisions (A)(2) to (5) of 79220
this section to determine or verify eligibility for or the amount 79221
of benefits under those programs.79222

       The director shall fully implement the use of wage 79223
information to determine eligibility for and the amount of 79224
unemployment compensation benefits by September 30, 1988.79225

       Information furnished under the system shall also be made 79226
available to the appropriate state or local child support 79227
enforcement agency for the purposes of an approved plan under 79228
Title IV-D of the "Social Security Act" and to the appropriate 79229
federal agency for the purposes of Titles II and XVI of the 79230
"Social Security Act."79231

       (B) The director shall adopt rules as necessary under which 79232
the department of job and family services and other state agencies 79233
that the director determines must participate in order to ensure 79234
compliance with section 1137 of the "Social Security Act" exchange 79235
information with each other or authorized federal agencies about 79236
individuals who are applicants for or recipients of benefits under 79237
any of the programs enumerated in division (A) of this section. 79238
The rules shall extend to all of the following:79239

       (1) A requirement for standardized formats and procedures for 79240
a participating agency to request and receive information about an 79241
individual, which information shall include the individual's 79242
social security number;79243

       (2) A requirement that all applicants for and recipients of 79244
benefits under any program enumerated in division (A) of this 79245
section be notified at the time of application, and periodically 79246
thereafter, that information available through the system may be 79247
shared with agencies that administer other benefit programs and 79248
utilized in establishing or verifying eligibility or benefit 79249
amounts under the other programs enumerated in division (A) of 79250
this section;79251

       (3) A requirement that information is made available only to 79252
the extent necessary to assist in the valid administrative needs 79253
of the program receiving the information and is targeted for use 79254
in ways which are most likely to be productive in identifying and 79255
preventing ineligibility and incorrect payments;79256

       (4) A requirement that information is adequately protected 79257
against unauthorized disclosures for purposes other than to 79258
establish or verify eligibility or benefit amounts under the 79259
programs enumerated in division (A) of this section;79260

       (5) A requirement that a program providing information is 79261
reimbursed by the program using the information for the actual 79262
costs of furnishing the information and that the director be 79263
reimbursed by the participating programs for any actual costs 79264
incurred in operating the system;79265

       (6) Requirements for any other matters necessary to ensure 79266
the effective, efficient, and timely exchange of necessary 79267
information or that the director determines must be addressed in 79268
order to ensure compliance with the requirements of section 1137 79269
of the "Social Security Act."79270

       (C) Each participating agency shall furnish to the income and 79271
eligibility verification system established in division (A) of 79272
this section that information, which the director, by rule, 79273
determines is necessary in order to comply with section 1137 of 79274
the "Social Security Act."79275

       (D) Notwithstanding the information disclosure requirements 79276
of this section and section 4141.21 and division (A) of section 79277
4141.284 of the Revised Code, the director shall administer those 79278
provisions of law so as to comply with section 1137 of the "Social 79279
Security Act."79280

       (E) Requirements in section 4141.21 of the Revised Code with 79281
respect to confidentiality of information obtained in the 79282
administration of Chapter 4141. of the Revised Code and any 79283
sanctions imposed for improper disclosure of such information 79284
shall apply to the redisclosure of information disclosed under 79285
this section.79286

       (F) The director of job and family services shall consult 79287
with the medicaid director and the director of administrative 79288
services regarding the implementation of this section.79289

       Sec. 4141.29.  Each eligible individual shall receive 79290
benefits as compensation for loss of remuneration due to 79291
involuntary total or partial unemployment in the amounts and 79292
subject to the conditions stipulated in this chapter.79293

       (A) No individual is entitled to a waiting period or benefits 79294
for any week unless the individual:79295

       (1) Has filed a valid application for determination of 79296
benefit rights in accordance with section 4141.28 of the Revised 79297
Code;79298

       (2) Has made a claim for benefits in accordance with section 79299
4141.28 of the Revised Code;79300

       (3) Has registered at an employment office or other 79301
registration place maintained or designated by the director of job 79302
and family services. Registration shall be made in accordance with 79303
the time limits, frequency, and manner prescribed by the director.79304

       (4)(a)(i) Is able to work and available for suitable work 79305
and, except as provided in division (A)(4)(a)(ii) of this section, 79306
is actively seeking suitable work either in a locality in which 79307
the individual has earned wages subject to this chapter during the 79308
individual's base period, or if the individual leaves that 79309
locality, then in a locality where suitable work normally is 79310
performed.79311

       (ii) The director may waive the requirement that a claimant 79312
be actively seeking work when the director finds that the 79313
individual has been laid off and the employer who laid the 79314
individual off has notified the director within ten days after the 79315
layoff, that work is expected to be available for the individual 79316
within a specified number of days not to exceed forty-five 79317
calendar days following the last day the individual worked. In the 79318
event the individual is not recalled within the specified period, 79319
this waiver shall cease to be operative with respect to that 79320
layoff.79321

       (b) The individual shall be instructed as to the efforts that 79322
the individual must make in the search for suitable work, except 79323
where the active search for work requirement has been waived under 79324
division (A)(4)(a) of this section, and shall keep a record of 79325
where and when the individual has sought work in complying with 79326
those instructions and, upon request, shall produce that record 79327
for examination by the director.79328

       (c) An individual who is attending a training course approved 79329
by the director meets the requirement of this division, if 79330
attendance was recommended by the director and the individual is 79331
regularly attending the course and is making satisfactory 79332
progress. An individual also meets the requirements of this 79333
division if the individual is participating and advancing in a 79334
training program, as defined in division (P) of section 5709.61 of 79335
the Revised Code, and if an enterprise, defined in division (B) of 79336
section 5709.61 of the Revised Code, is paying all or part of the 79337
cost of the individual's participation in the training program 79338
with the intention of hiring the individual for employment as a 79339
new employee, as defined in division (L) of section 5709.61 of the 79340
Revised Code, for at least ninety days after the individual's 79341
completion of the training program.79342

       (d) An individual who becomes unemployed while attending a 79343
regularly established school and whose base period qualifying 79344
weeks were earned in whole or in part while attending that school, 79345
meets the availability and active search for work requirements of 79346
division (A)(4)(a) of this section if the individual regularly 79347
attends the school during weeks with respect to which the 79348
individual claims unemployment benefits and makes self available 79349
on any shift of hours for suitable employment with the 79350
individual's most recent employer or any other employer in the 79351
individual's base period, or for any other suitable employment to 79352
which the individual is directed, under this chapter.79353

       (e) The director shall adopt any rules that the director 79354
deems necessary for the administration of division (A)(4) of this 79355
section.79356

       (f) Notwithstanding any other provisions of this section, no 79357
otherwise eligible individual shall be denied benefits for any 79358
week because the individual is in training approved under section 79359
236(a)(1) of the "Trade Act of 1974," 88 Stat. 1978, 19 U.S.C.A. 79360
2296, nor shall that individual be denied benefits by reason of 79361
leaving work to enter such training, provided the work left is not 79362
suitable employment, or because of the application to any week in 79363
training of provisions in this chapter, or any applicable federal 79364
unemployment compensation law, relating to availability for work, 79365
active search for work, or refusal to accept work.79366

       For the purposes of division (A)(4)(f) of this section, 79367
"suitable employment" means with respect to an individual, work of 79368
a substantially equal or higher skill level than the individual's 79369
past adversely affected employment, as defined for the purposes of 79370
the "Trade Act of 1974," 88 Stat. 1978, 19 U.S.C.A. 2101, and 79371
wages for such work at not less than eighty per cent of the 79372
individual's average weekly wage as determined for the purposes of 79373
that federal act.79374

       (5) Is unable to obtain suitable work. An individual who is 79375
provided temporary work assignments by the individual's employer 79376
under agreed terms and conditions of employment, and who is 79377
required pursuant to those terms and conditions to inquire with 79378
the individual's employer for available work assignments upon the 79379
conclusion of each work assignment, is not considered unable to 79380
obtain suitable employment if suitable work assignments are 79381
available with the employer but the individual fails to contact 79382
the employer to inquire about work assignments.79383

       (6) Participates in reemployment services, such as job search 79384
assistance services, if the individual has been determined to be 79385
likely to exhaust benefits under this chapter, including 79386
compensation payable pursuant to 5 U.S.C.A. Chapter 85, other than 79387
extended compensation, and needs reemployment services pursuant to 79388
the profiling system established by the director under division 79389
(K) of this section, unless the director determines that:79390

       (a) The individual has completed such services; or79391

       (b) There is justifiable cause for the claimant's failure to 79392
participate in such services.79393

       (B) An individual suffering total or partial unemployment is 79394
eligible for benefits for unemployment occurring subsequent to a 79395
waiting period of one week and no benefits shall be payable during 79396
this required waiting period. Not more than one week of waiting 79397
period shall be required of any individual in any benefit year in 79398
order to establish the individual's eligibility for total or 79399
partial unemployment benefits.79400

       (C) The waiting period for total or partial unemployment 79401
shall commence on the first day of the first week with respect to 79402
which the individual first files a claim for benefits at an 79403
employment office or other place of registration maintained or 79404
designated by the director or on the first day of the first week 79405
with respect to which the individual has otherwise filed a claim 79406
for benefits in accordance with the rules of the department of job 79407
and family services, provided such claim is allowed by the 79408
director.79409

       (D) Notwithstanding division (A) of this section, no 79410
individual may serve a waiting period or be paid benefits under 79411
the following conditions:79412

       (1) For any week with respect to which the director finds 79413
that:79414

       (a) The individual's unemployment was due to a labor dispute 79415
other than a lockout at any factory, establishment, or other 79416
premises located in this or any other state and owned or operated 79417
by the employer by which the individual is or was last employed; 79418
and for so long as the individual's unemployment is due to such 79419
labor dispute. No individual shall be disqualified under this 79420
provision if either of the following applies:79421

       (i) The individual's employment was with such employer at any 79422
factory, establishment, or premises located in this state, owned 79423
or operated by such employer, other than the factory, 79424
establishment, or premises at which the labor dispute exists, if 79425
it is shown that the individual is not financing, participating 79426
in, or directly interested in such labor dispute;79427

       (ii) The individual's employment was with an employer not 79428
involved in the labor dispute but whose place of business was 79429
located within the same premises as the employer engaged in the 79430
dispute, unless the individual's employer is a wholly owned 79431
subsidiary of the employer engaged in the dispute, or unless the 79432
individual actively participates in or voluntarily stops work 79433
because of such dispute. If it is established that the claimant 79434
was laid off for an indefinite period and not recalled to work 79435
prior to the dispute, or was separated by the employer prior to 79436
the dispute for reasons other than the labor dispute, or that the 79437
individual obtained a bona fide job with another employer while 79438
the dispute was still in progress, such labor dispute shall not 79439
render the employee ineligible for benefits.79440

       (b) The individual has been given a disciplinary layoff for 79441
misconduct in connection with the individual's work.79442

       (2) For the duration of the individual's unemployment if the 79443
director finds that:79444

       (a) The individual quit work without just cause or has been 79445
discharged for just cause in connection with the individual's 79446
work, provided division (D)(2) of this section does not apply to 79447
the separation of a person under any of the following 79448
circumstances:79449

       (i) Separation from employment for the purpose of entering 79450
the armed forces of the United States if the individual is 79451
inducted into the armed forces within one of the following 79452
periods:79453

       (I) Thirty days after separation;79454

       (II) One hundred eighty days after separation if the 79455
individual's date of induction is delayed solely at the discretion 79456
of the armed forces.79457

       (ii) Separation from employment pursuant to a 79458
labor-management contract or agreement, or pursuant to an 79459
established employer plan, program, or policy, which permits the 79460
employee, because of lack of work, to accept a separation from 79461
employment;79462

       (iii) The individual has left employment to accept a recall 79463
from a prior employer or, except as provided in division 79464
(D)(2)(a)(iv) of this section, to accept other employment as 79465
provided under section 4141.291 of the Revised Code, or left or 79466
was separated from employment that was concurrent employment at 79467
the time of the most recent separation or within six weeks prior 79468
to the most recent separation where the remuneration, hours, or 79469
other conditions of such concurrent employment were substantially 79470
less favorable than the individual's most recent employment and 79471
where such employment, if offered as new work, would be considered 79472
not suitable under the provisions of divisions (E) and (F) of this 79473
section. Any benefits that would otherwise be chargeable to the 79474
account of the employer from whom an individual has left 79475
employment or was separated from employment that was concurrent 79476
employment under conditions described in division (D)(2)(a)(iii) 79477
of this section, shall instead be charged to the mutualized 79478
account created by division (B) of section 4141.25 of the Revised 79479
Code, except that any benefits chargeable to the account of a 79480
reimbursing employer under division (D)(2)(a)(iii) of this section 79481
shall be charged to the account of the reimbursing employer and 79482
not to the mutualized account, except as provided in division 79483
(D)(2) of section 4141.24 of the Revised Code.79484

       (iv) When an individual has been issued a definite layoff 79485
date by the individual's employer and before the layoff date, the 79486
individual quits to accept other employment, the provisions of 79487
division (D)(2)(a)(iii) of this section apply and no 79488
disqualification shall be imposed under division (D) of this 79489
section. However, if the individual fails to meet the employment 79490
and earnings requirements of division (A)(2) of section 4141.291 79491
of the Revised Code, then the individual, pursuant to division 79492
(A)(5) of this section, shall be ineligible for benefits for any 79493
week of unemployment that occurs prior to the layoff date.79494

       (v) The individual's spouse is a member of the armed forces 79495
of the United States who is on active duty as defined in 10 U.S.C. 79496
101(d)(1), the spouse is the subject of a military transfer, the 79497
individual left employment to accompany the individual's spouse to 79498
a location from which it is impractical to commute to the 79499
individual's place of employment, and upon arrival at the new 79500
place of residence, the individual is in all respects able and 79501
available for suitable work.79502

       (b) The individual has refused without good cause to accept 79503
an offer of suitable work when made by an employer either in 79504
person or to the individual's last known address, or has refused 79505
or failed to investigate a referral to suitable work when directed 79506
to do so by a local employment office of this state or another 79507
state, provided that this division shall not cause a 79508
disqualification for a waiting week or benefits under the 79509
following circumstances:79510

       (i) When work is offered by the individual's employer and the 79511
individual is not required to accept the offer pursuant to the 79512
terms of the labor-management contract or agreement; or79513

       (ii) When the individual is attending a training course 79514
pursuant to division (A)(4) of this section except, in the event 79515
of a refusal to accept an offer of suitable work or a refusal or 79516
failure to investigate a referral, benefits thereafter paid to 79517
such individual shall not be charged to the account of any 79518
employer and, except as provided in division (B)(1)(b) of section 79519
4141.241 of the Revised Code, shall be charged to the mutualized 79520
account as provided in division (B) of section 4141.25 of the 79521
Revised Code.79522

       (c) Such individual quit work to marry or because of marital, 79523
parental, filial, or other domestic obligations.79524

       (d) The individual became unemployed by reason of commitment 79525
to any correctional institution.79526

       (e) The individual became unemployed because of dishonesty in 79527
connection with the individual's most recent or any base period 79528
work. Remuneration earned in such work shall be excluded from the 79529
individual's total base period remuneration and qualifying weeks 79530
that otherwise would be credited to the individual for such work 79531
in the individual's base period shall not be credited for the 79532
purpose of determining the total benefits to which the individual 79533
is eligible and the weekly benefit amount to be paid under section 79534
4141.30 of the Revised Code. Such excluded remuneration and 79535
noncredited qualifying weeks shall be excluded from the 79536
calculation of the maximum amount to be charged, under division 79537
(D) of section 4141.24 and section 4141.33 of the Revised Code, 79538
against the accounts of the individual's base period employers. In 79539
addition, no benefits shall thereafter be paid to the individual 79540
based upon such excluded remuneration or noncredited qualifying 79541
weeks.79542

       For purposes of division (D)(2)(e) of this section, 79543
"dishonesty" means the commission of substantive theft, fraud, or 79544
deceitful acts.79545

       (E) No individual otherwise qualified to receive benefits 79546
shall lose the right to benefits by reason of a refusal to accept 79547
new work if:79548

       (1) As a condition of being so employed the individual would 79549
be required to join a company union, or to resign from or refrain 79550
from joining any bona fide labor organization, or would be denied 79551
the right to retain membership in and observe the lawful rules of 79552
any such organization.79553

       (2) The position offered is vacant due directly to a strike, 79554
lockout, or other labor dispute.79555

       (3) The work is at an unreasonable distance from the 79556
individual's residence, having regard to the character of the work 79557
the individual has been accustomed to do, and travel to the place 79558
of work involves expenses substantially greater than that required 79559
for the individual's former work, unless the expense is provided 79560
for.79561

       (4) The remuneration, hours, or other conditions of the work 79562
offered are substantially less favorable to the individual than 79563
those prevailing for similar work in the locality.79564

       (F) Subject to the special exceptions contained in division 79565
(A)(4)(f) of this section and section 4141.301 of the Revised 79566
Code, in determining whether any work is suitable for a claimant 79567
in the administration of this chapter, the director, in addition 79568
to the determination required under division (E) of this section, 79569
shall consider the degree of risk to the claimant's health, 79570
safety, and morals, the individual's physical fitness for the 79571
work, the individual's prior training and experience, the length 79572
of the individual's unemployment, the distance of the available 79573
work from the individual's residence, and the individual's 79574
prospects for obtaining local work.79575

       (G) The "duration of unemployment" as used in this section 79576
means the full period of unemployment next ensuing after a 79577
separation from any base period or subsequent work and until an 79578
individual has become reemployed in employment subject to this 79579
chapter, or the unemployment compensation act of another state, or 79580
of the United States, and until such individual has worked six 79581
weeks and for those weeks has earned or been paid remuneration 79582
equal to six times an average weekly wage of not less than: 79583
eighty-five dollars and ten cents per week beginning on June 26, 79584
1990; and beginning on and after January 1, 1992, twenty-seven and 79585
one-half per cent of the statewide average weekly wage as computed 79586
each first day of January under division (B)(3) of section 4141.30 79587
of the Revised Code, rounded down to the nearest dollar, except 79588
for purposes of division (D)(2)(c) of this section, such term 79589
means the full period of unemployment next ensuing after a 79590
separation from such work and until such individual has become 79591
reemployed subject to the terms set forth above, and has earned 79592
wages equal to one-half of the individual's average weekly wage or 79593
sixty dollars, whichever is less.79594

       (H) If a claimant is disqualified under division (D)(2)(a), 79595
(c), or (d) of this section or found to be qualified under the 79596
exceptions provided in division (D)(2)(a)(i), (iii), or (iv), or 79597
(v) of this section or division (A)(2) of section 4141.291 of the 79598
Revised Code, then benefits that may become payable to such 79599
claimant, which are chargeable to the account of the employer from 79600
whom the individual was separated under such conditions, shall be 79601
charged to the mutualized account provided in section 4141.25 of 79602
the Revised Code, provided that no charge shall be made to the 79603
mutualized account for benefits chargeable to a reimbursing 79604
employer, except as provided in division (D)(2) of section 4141.24 79605
of the Revised Code. In the case of a reimbursing employer, the 79606
director shall refund or credit to the account of the reimbursing 79607
employer any over-paid benefits that are recovered under division 79608
(B) of section 4141.35 of the Revised Code. Amounts chargeable to 79609
other states, the United States, or Canada that are subject to 79610
agreements and arrangements that are established pursuant to 79611
section 4141.43 of the Revised Code shall be credited or 79612
reimbursed according to the agreements and arrangements to which 79613
the chargeable amounts are subject.79614

       (I)(1) Benefits based on service in employment as provided in 79615
divisions (B)(2)(a) and (b) of section 4141.01 of the Revised Code 79616
shall be payable in the same amount, on the same terms, and 79617
subject to the same conditions as benefits payable on the basis of 79618
other service subject to this chapter; except that after December 79619
31, 1977:79620

       (a) Benefits based on service in an instructional, research, 79621
or principal administrative capacity in an institution of higher 79622
education, as defined in division (Y) of section 4141.01 of the 79623
Revised Code; or for an educational institution as defined in 79624
division (CC) of section 4141.01 of the Revised Code, shall not be 79625
paid to any individual for any week of unemployment that begins 79626
during the period between two successive academic years or terms, 79627
or during a similar period between two regular but not successive 79628
terms or during a period of paid sabbatical leave provided for in 79629
the individual's contract, if the individual performs such 79630
services in the first of those academic years or terms and has a 79631
contract or a reasonable assurance that the individual will 79632
perform services in any such capacity for any such institution in 79633
the second of those academic years or terms.79634

       (b) Benefits based on service for an educational institution 79635
or an institution of higher education in other than an 79636
instructional, research, or principal administrative capacity, 79637
shall not be paid to any individual for any week of unemployment 79638
which begins during the period between two successive academic 79639
years or terms of the employing educational institution or 79640
institution of higher education, provided the individual performed 79641
those services for the educational institution or institution of 79642
higher education during the first such academic year or term and, 79643
there is a reasonable assurance that such individual will perform 79644
those services for any educational institution or institution of 79645
higher education in the second of such academic years or terms.79646

       If compensation is denied to any individual for any week 79647
under division (I)(1)(b) of this section and the individual was 79648
not offered an opportunity to perform those services for an 79649
institution of higher education or for an educational institution 79650
for the second of such academic years or terms, the individual is 79651
entitled to a retroactive payment of compensation for each week 79652
for which the individual timely filed a claim for compensation and 79653
for which compensation was denied solely by reason of division 79654
(I)(1)(b) of this section. An application for retroactive benefits 79655
shall be timely filed if received by the director or the 79656
director's deputy within or prior to the end of the fourth full 79657
calendar week after the end of the period for which benefits were 79658
denied because of reasonable assurance of employment. The 79659
provision for the payment of retroactive benefits under division 79660
(I)(1)(b) of this section is applicable to weeks of unemployment 79661
beginning on and after November 18, 1983. The provisions under 79662
division (I)(1)(b) of this section shall be retroactive to 79663
September 5, 1982, only if, as a condition for full tax credit 79664
against the tax imposed by the "Federal Unemployment Tax Act," 53 79665
Stat. 183 (1939), 26 U.S.C.A. 3301 to 3311, the United States 79666
secretary of labor determines that retroactivity is required by 79667
federal law.79668

       (c) With respect to weeks of unemployment beginning after 79669
December 31, 1977, benefits shall be denied to any individual for 79670
any week which commences during an established and customary 79671
vacation period or holiday recess, if the individual performs any 79672
services described in divisions (I)(1)(a) and (b) of this section 79673
in the period immediately before the vacation period or holiday 79674
recess, and there is a reasonable assurance that the individual 79675
will perform any such services in the period immediately following 79676
the vacation period or holiday recess.79677

       (d) With respect to any services described in division 79678
(I)(1)(a), (b), or (c) of this section, benefits payable on the 79679
basis of services in any such capacity shall be denied as 79680
specified in division (I)(1)(a), (b), or (c) of this section to 79681
any individual who performs such services in an educational 79682
institution or institution of higher education while in the employ 79683
of an educational service agency. For this purpose, the term 79684
"educational service agency" means a governmental agency or 79685
governmental entity that is established and operated exclusively 79686
for the purpose of providing services to one or more educational 79687
institutions or one or more institutions of higher education.79688

       (e) Any individual employed by a county board of 79689
developmental disabilities shall be notified by the thirtieth day 79690
of April each year if the individual is not to be reemployed the 79691
following academic year.79692

       (f) Any individual employed by a school district, other than 79693
a municipal school district as defined in section 3311.71 of the 79694
Revised Code, shall be notified by the first day of June each year 79695
if the individual is not to be reemployed the following academic 79696
year.79697

       (2) No disqualification will be imposed, between academic 79698
years or terms or during a vacation period or holiday recess under 79699
this division, unless the director or the director's deputy has 79700
received a statement in writing from the educational institution 79701
or institution of higher education that the claimant has a 79702
contract for, or a reasonable assurance of, reemployment for the 79703
ensuing academic year or term.79704

       (3) If an individual has employment with an educational 79705
institution or an institution of higher education and employment 79706
with a noneducational employer, during the base period of the 79707
individual's benefit year, then the individual may become eligible 79708
for benefits during the between-term, or vacation or holiday 79709
recess, disqualification period, based on employment performed for 79710
the noneducational employer, provided that the employment is 79711
sufficient to qualify the individual for benefit rights separately 79712
from the benefit rights based on school employment. The weekly 79713
benefit amount and maximum benefits payable during a 79714
disqualification period shall be computed based solely on the 79715
nonschool employment.79716

       (J) Benefits shall not be paid on the basis of employment 79717
performed by an alien, unless the alien had been lawfully admitted 79718
to the United States for permanent residence at the time the 79719
services were performed, was lawfully present for purposes of 79720
performing the services, or was otherwise permanently residing in 79721
the United States under color of law at the time the services were 79722
performed, under section 212(d)(5) of the "Immigration and 79723
Nationality Act," 66 Stat. 163, 8 U.S.C.A. 1101:79724

       (1) Any data or information required of individuals applying 79725
for benefits to determine whether benefits are not payable to them 79726
because of their alien status shall be uniformly required from all 79727
applicants for benefits.79728

       (2) In the case of an individual whose application for 79729
benefits would otherwise be approved, no determination that 79730
benefits to the individual are not payable because of the 79731
individual's alien status shall be made except upon a 79732
preponderance of the evidence that the individual had not, in 79733
fact, been lawfully admitted to the United States.79734

       (K) The director shall establish and utilize a system of 79735
profiling all new claimants under this chapter that:79736

       (1) Identifies which claimants will be likely to exhaust 79737
regular compensation and will need job search assistance services 79738
to make a successful transition to new employment;79739

       (2) Refers claimants identified pursuant to division (K)(1) 79740
of this section to reemployment services, such as job search 79741
assistance services, available under any state or federal law;79742

       (3) Collects follow-up information relating to the services 79743
received by such claimants and the employment outcomes for such 79744
claimant's subsequent to receiving such services and utilizes such 79745
information in making identifications pursuant to division (K)(1) 79746
of this section; and79747

       (4) Meets such other requirements as the United States 79748
secretary of labor determines are appropriate.79749

       Sec. 4301.01.  (A) As used in the Revised Code:79750

       (1) "Intoxicating liquor" and "liquor" include all liquids 79751
and compounds, other than beer, containing one-half of one per 79752
cent or more of alcohol by volume which are fit to use for 79753
beverage purposes, from whatever source and by whatever process 79754
produced, by whatever name called, and whether they are medicated, 79755
proprietary, or patented. "Intoxicating liquor" and "liquor" 79756
include wine even if it contains less than four per cent of 79757
alcohol by volume, mixed beverages even if they contain less than 79758
four per cent of alcohol by volume, cider,and alcohol, and all 79759
solids and confections which contain any alcoholone-half of one 79760
per cent or more of alcohol by volume.79761

       (2) Except as used in sections 4301.01 to 4301.20, 4301.22 to 79762
4301.52, 4301.56, 4301.70, 4301.72, and 4303.01 to 4303.36 of the 79763
Revised Code, "sale" and "sell" include exchange, barter, gift, 79764
offer for sale, sale, distribution and delivery of any kind, and 79765
the transfer of title or possession of beer and intoxicating 79766
liquor either by constructive or actual delivery by any means or 79767
devices whatever, including the sale of beer or intoxicating 79768
liquor by means of a controlled access alcohol and beverage 79769
cabinet pursuant to section 4301.21 of the Revised Code. "Sale" 79770
and "sell" do not include the mere solicitation of orders for beer 79771
or intoxicating liquor from the holders of permits issued by the 79772
division of liquor control authorizing the sale of the beer or 79773
intoxicating liquor, but no solicitor shall solicit any such 79774
orders until the solicitor has been registered with the division 79775
pursuant to section 4303.25 of the Revised Code.79776

       (3) "Vehicle" includes all means of transportation by land, 79777
by water, or by air, and everything made use of in any way for 79778
such transportation.79779

       (B) As used in this chapter:79780

       (1) "Alcohol" means ethyl alcohol, whether rectified or 79781
diluted with water or not, whatever its origin may be, and 79782
includes synthetic ethyl alcohol. "Alcohol" does not include 79783
denatured alcohol and wood alcohol.79784

       (2) "Beer" includes all beverages brewed or fermented wholly 79785
or in part from malt products and containing one-half of one per 79786
cent or more, but not more than twelve per cent, of alcohol by 79787
volume.79788

       (3) "Wine" includes all liquids fit to use for beverage 79789
purposes containing not less than one-half of one per cent of 79790
alcohol by volume and not more than twenty-one per cent of alcohol 79791
by volume, which is made from the fermented juices of grapes, 79792
fruits, or other agricultural products, except that as used in 79793
sections 4301.13, 4301.421, 4301.422, 4301.432, and 4301.44 of the 79794
Revised Code, and, for purposes of determining the rate of the tax 79795
that applies, division (B) of section 4301.43 of the Revised Code, 79796
"wine" does not include cider.79797

       (4) "Mixed beverages," such asinclude bottled and prepared 79798
cordials, cocktails, and highballs, and solids and confections 79799
that are products obtained by mixing any type of whiskey, neutral 79800
spirits, brandy, gin, or other distilled spirits with, or over, 79801
carbonated or plain water, pure juices from flowers and plants, 79802
and other flavoring materials. The completed product shall contain 79803
not less than one-half of one per cent of alcohol by volume and 79804
not more than twenty-one per cent of alcohol by volume.79805

       (5) "Spirituous liquor" includes all intoxicating liquors 79806
containing more than twenty-one per cent of alcohol by volume.79807

       (6) "Sealed container" means any container having a capacity 79808
of not more than one hundred twenty-eight fluid ounces, the 79809
opening of which is closed to prevent the entrance of air.79810

       (7) "Person" includes firms and corporations.79811

       (8) "Manufacture" includes all processes by which beer or 79812
intoxicating liquor is produced, whether by distillation, 79813
rectifying, fortifying, blending, fermentation, or brewing, or in 79814
any other manner.79815

       (9) "Manufacturer" means any person engaged in the business 79816
of manufacturing beer or intoxicating liquor.79817

       (10) "Wholesale distributor" and "distributor" means a person 79818
engaged in the business of selling to retail dealers for purposes 79819
of resale.79820

       (11) "Hotel" has the same meaning as in section 3731.01 of 79821
the Revised Code, subject to the exceptions mentioned in section 79822
3731.03 of the Revised Code.79823

       (12) "Restaurant" means a place located in a permanent 79824
building provided with space and accommodations wherein, in 79825
consideration of the payment of money, hot meals are habitually 79826
prepared, sold, and served at noon and evening, as the principal 79827
business of the place. "Restaurant" does not include pharmacies, 79828
confectionery stores, lunch stands, night clubs, and filling 79829
stations.79830

       (13) "Club" means a corporation or association of individuals 79831
organized in good faith for social, recreational, benevolent, 79832
charitable, fraternal, political, patriotic, or athletic purposes, 79833
which is the owner, lessor, or occupant of a permanent building or 79834
part of a permanent building operated solely for those purposes, 79835
membership in which entails the prepayment of regular dues, and 79836
includes the place so operated.79837

       (14) "Night club" means a place operated for profit, where 79838
food is served for consumption on the premises and one or more 79839
forms of amusement are provided or permitted for a consideration 79840
that may be in the form of a cover charge or may be included in 79841
the price of the food and beverages, or both, purchased by 79842
patrons.79843

       (15) "At retail" means for use or consumption by the 79844
purchaser and not for resale.79845

       (16) "Pharmacy" means an establishment, as defined in section 79846
4729.01 of the Revised Code, that is under the management or 79847
control of a licensed pharmacist in accordance with section 79848
4729.27 of the Revised Code.79849

       (17) "Enclosed shopping center" means a group of retail sales 79850
and service business establishments that face into an enclosed 79851
mall, share common ingress, egress, and parking facilities, and 79852
are situated on a tract of land that contains an area of not less 79853
than five hundred thousand square feet. "Enclosed shopping center" 79854
also includes not more than one business establishment that is 79855
located within a free-standing building on such a tract of land, 79856
so long as the sale of beer and intoxicating liquor on the tract 79857
of land was approved in an election held under former section 79858
4301.353 of the Revised Code.79859

       (18) "Controlled access alcohol and beverage cabinet" means a 79860
closed container, either refrigerated, in whole or in part, or 79861
nonrefrigerated, access to the interior of which is restricted by 79862
means of a device that requires the use of a key, magnetic card, 79863
or similar device and from which beer, intoxicating liquor, other 79864
beverages, or food may be sold.79865

       (19) "Community facility" means either of the following:79866

       (a) Any convention, sports, or entertainment facility or 79867
complex, or any combination of these, that is used by or 79868
accessible to the general public and that is owned or operated in 79869
whole or in part by the state, a state agency, or a political 79870
subdivision of the state or that is leased from, or located on 79871
property owned by or leased from, the state, a state agency, a 79872
political subdivision of the state, or a convention facilities 79873
authority created pursuant to section 351.02 of the Revised Code;79874

       (b) An area designated as a community entertainment district 79875
pursuant to section 4301.80 of the Revised Code.79876

       (20) "Low-alcohol beverage" means any brewed or fermented 79877
malt product, or any product made from the fermented juices of 79878
grapes, fruits, or other agricultural products, that contains 79879
either no alcohol or less than one-half of one per cent of alcohol 79880
by volume. The beverages described in division (B)(20) of this 79881
section do not include a soft drink such as root beer, birch beer, 79882
or ginger beer.79883

       (21) "Cider" means all liquids fit to use for beverage 79884
purposes that contain one-half of one per cent of alcohol by 79885
volume, but not more than six per cent of alcohol by weight, and 79886
that are made through the normal alcoholic fermentation of the 79887
juice of sound, ripe apples, including, without limitation, 79888
flavored, sparkling, or carbonated cider and cider made from pure 79889
condensed apple must.79890

       (22) "Sales area or territory" means an exclusive geographic 79891
area or territory that is assigned to a particular A or B permit 79892
holder and that either has one or more political subdivisions as 79893
its boundaries or consists of an area of land with readily 79894
identifiable geographic boundaries. "Sales area or territory" does 79895
not include, however, any particular retail location in an 79896
exclusive geographic area or territory that had been assigned to 79897
another A or B permit holder before April 9, 2001.79898

       Sec. 4301.10.  (A) The division of liquor control shall do 79899
all of the following:79900

       (1) Control the traffic in beer and intoxicating liquor in 79901
this state, including the manufacture, importation, and sale of 79902
beer and intoxicating liquor;79903

       (2) Grant or refuse permits for the manufacture, 79904
distribution, transportation, and sale of beer and intoxicating 79905
liquor and the sale of alcohol, as authorized or required by this 79906
chapter and Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code. A certificate, 79907
signed by the superintendent of liquor control and to which is 79908
affixed the official seal of the division, stating that it appears 79909
from the records of the division that no permit has been issued to 79910
the person specified in the certificate, or that a permit, if 79911
issued, has been revoked, canceled, or suspended, shall be 79912
received as prima-facie evidence of the facts recited in the 79913
certificate in any court or before any officer of this state.79914

       (3) Put into operation, manage, and control a system of state 79915
liquor stores for the sale of spirituous liquor at retail and to 79916
holders of permits authorizing the sale of spirituous liquor; 79917
however, the division shall not establish any drive-in state 79918
liquor stores; and by means of those types of stores, and any 79919
manufacturing plants, distributing and bottling plants, 79920
warehouses, and other facilities that it considers expedient, 79921
establish and maintain a state monopoly of the distribution of 79922
spirituous liquor and its sale in packages or containers; and for 79923
that purpose, manufacture, buy, import, possess, and sell 79924
spirituous liquors as provided in this chapter and Chapter 4303. 79925
of the Revised Code, and in the rules promulgated by the 79926
superintendent of liquor control pursuant to those chapters; lease 79927
or in any manner acquire the use of any land or building required 79928
for any of those purposes; purchase any equipment that is 79929
required; and borrow money to carry on its business, and issue, 79930
sign, endorse, and accept notes, checks, and bills of exchange; 79931
but all obligations of the division created under authority of 79932
this division shall be a charge only upon the moneys received by 79933
the division from the sale of spirituous liquor and its other 79934
business transactions in connection with the sale of spirituous 79935
liquor, and shall not be general obligations of the state;79936

       (4) Enforce the administrative provisions of this chapter and 79937
Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code, and the rules and orders of the 79938
liquor control commission and the superintendent relating to the 79939
manufacture, importation, transportation, distribution, and sale 79940
of beer or intoxicating liquor. The attorney general, any 79941
prosecuting attorney, and any prosecuting officer of a municipal 79942
corporation or a municipal court shall, at the request of the 79943
division of liquor control or the department of public safety, 79944
prosecute any person charged with the violation of any provision 79945
in those chapters or of any section of the Revised Code relating 79946
to the manufacture, importation, transportation, distribution, and 79947
sale of beer or intoxicating liquor.79948

       (5) Determine the locations of all state liquor stores and 79949
manufacturing, distributing, and bottling plants required in 79950
connection with those stores, subject to this chapter and Chapter 79951
4303. of the Revised Code;79952

       (6) Conduct inspections of liquor permit premises to 79953
determine compliance with the administrative provisions of this 79954
chapter and Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code and the rules 79955
adopted under those provisions by the liquor control commission.79956

       Except as otherwise provided in division (A)(6) of this 79957
section, those inspections may be conducted only during those 79958
hours in which the permit holder is open for business and only by 79959
authorized agents or employees of the division or by any peace 79960
officer, as defined in section 2935.01 of the Revised Code. 79961
Inspections may be conducted at other hours only to determine 79962
compliance with laws or commission rules that regulate the hours 79963
of sale of beer or intoxicating liquor and only if the 79964
investigator has reasonable cause to believe that those laws or 79965
rules are being violated. Any inspection conducted pursuant to 79966
division (A)(6) of this section is subject to all of the following 79967
requirements:79968

       (a) The only property that may be confiscated is contraband, 79969
as defined in section 2901.01 of the Revised Code, or property 79970
that is otherwise necessary for evidentiary purposes.79971

       (b) A complete inventory of all property confiscated from the 79972
premises shall be given to the permit holder or the permit 79973
holder's agent or employee by the confiscating agent or officer at 79974
the conclusion of the inspection. At that time, the inventory 79975
shall be signed by the confiscating agent or officer, and the 79976
agent or officer shall give the permit holder or the permit 79977
holder's agent or employee the opportunity to sign the inventory.79978

       (c) Inspections conducted pursuant to division (A)(6) of this 79979
section shall be conducted in a reasonable manner. A finding by 79980
any court of competent jurisdiction that an inspection was not 79981
conducted in a reasonable manner in accordance with this section 79982
or any rules adopted by the commission may be considered grounds 79983
for suppression of evidence. A finding by the commission that an 79984
inspection was not conducted in a reasonable manner in accordance 79985
with this section or any rules adopted by it may be considered 79986
grounds for dismissal of the commission case.79987

       If any court of competent jurisdiction finds that property 79988
confiscated as the result of an administrative inspection is not 79989
necessary for evidentiary purposes and is not contraband, as 79990
defined in section 2901.01 of the Revised Code, the court shall 79991
order the immediate return of the confiscated property, provided 79992
that property is not otherwise subject to forfeiture, to the 79993
permit holder. However, the return of this property is not grounds 79994
for dismissal of the case. The commission likewise may order the 79995
return of confiscated property if no criminal prosecution is 79996
pending or anticipated.79997

       (7) Delegate to any of its agents or employees any power of 79998
investigation that the division possesses with respect to the 79999
enforcement of any of the administrative laws relating to beer or 80000
intoxicating liquor, provided that this division does not 80001
authorize the division to designate any agent or employee to serve 80002
as an enforcement agent. The employment and designation of 80003
enforcement agents shall be within the exclusive authority of the 80004
director of public safety pursuant to sections 5502.13 to 5502.19 80005
of the Revised Code.80006

       (8) Collect the following fees:80007

       (a) A biennial fifty-dollar registration fee for each agent, 80008
solicitor, trade marketing professional, or salesperson, 80009
registered pursuant to section 4303.25 of the Revised Code, of a 80010
beer or intoxicating liquor manufacturer, supplier, broker, trade 80011
marketing company, or wholesale distributor doing business in this 80012
state;80013

       (b) A fifty-dollar product registration fee for each new beer 80014
or intoxicating liquor product sold in this state. The product 80015
registration fee also applies to products sold in this state by 80016
B-2a and S permit holders. The product registration fee shall be 80017
accompanied by a copy of the federal label and product approval 80018
for the new product.80019

       (c) An annual three-hundred-dollar supplier registration fee 80020
from each manufacturer or supplier that produces and ships into 80021
this state, or ships into this state, intoxicating liquor or beer, 80022
in addition to an initial application fee of one hundred dollars. 80023
A manufacturer that produces and ships beer or wine into this 80024
state and that holds only an S permit is exempt from the supplier 80025
registration fee. A manufacturer that produces and ships wine into 80026
this state and that holds a B-2a permit shall pay an annual 80027
seventy-six-dollar supplier registration fee. A manufacturer that 80028
produces and ships wine into this state and that does not hold 80029
either an S or a B-2a permit, but that produces less than two 80030
hundred fifty thousand gallons of wine per year and that is 80031
entitled to a tax credit under 27 C.F.R. 24.278 shall pay an 80032
annual seventy-six-dollar supplier registration fee. A B-2a or S 80033
permit holder that does not sell its wine to wholesale 80034
distributors of wine in this state and an S permit holder that 80035
does not sell its beer to wholesale distributors of beer in this 80036
state shall not be required to submit to the division territory 80037
designation forms.80038

       Each supplier, agent, solicitor, trade marketing 80039
professional, or salesperson registration issued under this 80040
division shall authorize the person named to carry on the activity 80041
specified in the registration. Each agent, solicitor, trade 80042
marketing professional, or salesperson registration is valid for 80043
two years or for the unexpired portion of a two-year registration 80044
period. Each supplier registration is valid for one year or for 80045
the unexpired portion of a one-year registration period. 80046
Registrations shall end on their respective uniform expiration 80047
date, which shall be designated by the division, and are subject 80048
to suspension, revocation, cancellation, or fine as authorized by 80049
this chapter and Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code.80050

       As used in this division, "trade marketing company" and 80051
"trade marketing professional" have the same meanings as in 80052
section 4301.171 of the Revised Code.80053

       (9) Establish a system of electronic data interchange within 80054
the division and regulate the electronic transfer of information 80055
and funds among persons and governmental entities engaged in the 80056
manufacture, distribution, and retail sale of alcoholic beverages;80057

       (10) Notify all holders of retail permits of the forms of 80058
permissible identification for purposes of division (A) of section 80059
4301.639 of the Revised Code;80060

       (11) Exercise all other powers expressly or by necessary 80061
implication conferred upon the division by this chapter and 80062
Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code, and all powers necessary for 80063
the exercise or discharge of any power, duty, or function 80064
expressly conferred or imposed upon the division by those 80065
chapters.80066

       (B) The division may do all of the following:80067

       (1) Sue, but may be sued only in connection with the 80068
execution of leases of real estate and the purchases and contracts 80069
necessary for the operation of the state liquor stores that are 80070
made under this chapter and Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code;80071

       (2) Enter into leases and contracts of all descriptions and 80072
acquire and transfer title to personal property with regard to the 80073
sale, distribution, and storage of spirituous liquor within the 80074
state;80075

       (3) Terminate at will any lease entered into pursuant to 80076
division (B)(2) of this section upon first giving ninety days' 80077
notice in writing to the lessor of its intention to do so;80078

       (4) Fix the wholesale and retail prices at which the various 80079
classes, varieties, and brands of spirituous liquor shall be sold 80080
by the division. Those retail prices shall be the same at all 80081
state liquor stores, except to the extent that a price 80082
differential is required to collect a county sales tax levied 80083
pursuant to section 5739.021 of the Revised Code and for which tax 80084
the tax commissioner has authorized prepayment pursuant to section 80085
5739.05 of the Revised Code. In fixing selling prices, the 80086
division shall compute an anticipated gross profit at least 80087
sufficient to provide in each calendar year all costs and expenses 80088
of the division and also an adequate working capital reserve for 80089
the division. The gross profit shall not exceed forty per cent of 80090
the retail selling price based on costs of the division, and in 80091
addition the sum required by section 4301.12 of the Revised Code 80092
to be paid into the state treasury. An amount equal to one and 80093
one-half per cent of that gross profit shall be paid into the 80094
statewide treatment and prevention fund created by section 4301.30 80095
of the Revised Code and be appropriated by the general assembly 80096
from the fund to the department of alcohol and drug addiction 80097
servicesmental health and addiction services as provided in 80098
section 4301.30 of the Revised Code.80099

       On spirituous liquor manufactured in this state from the 80100
juice of grapes or fruits grown in this state, the division shall 80101
compute an anticipated gross profit of not to exceed ten per cent. 80102

       The wholesale prices fixed under this division shall be at a 80103
discount of not less than six per cent of the retail selling 80104
prices as determined by the division in accordance with this 80105
section.80106

       (C) The division may approve the expansion or diminution of a 80107
premises to which a liquor permit has been issued and may adopt 80108
standards governing such an expansion or diminution.80109

       Sec. 4301.30.  (A) All fees collected by the division of 80110
liquor control shall be deposited in the state treasury to the 80111
credit of the undivided liquor permit fund, which is hereby 80112
created, at the time prescribed under section 4301.12 of the 80113
Revised Code. Each payment shall be accompanied by a statement 80114
showing separately the amount collected for each class of permits 80115
in each municipal corporation and in each township outside the 80116
limits of any municipal corporation in such township. 80117

       (B)(1) An amount equal to forty-five per cent of the fund 80118
shall be paid from the fund into the state liquor regulatory fund, 80119
which is hereby created in the state treasury. The state liquor 80120
regulatory fund shall be used to pay the operating expenses of the 80121
division of liquor control in administering and enforcing Title 80122
XLIII of the Revised Code and the operating expenses of the liquor 80123
control commission. Investment earnings of the fund shall be 80124
credited to the fund.80125

       (2) Whenever, in the judgment of the director of budget and 80126
management, the amount of money that is in the state liquor 80127
regulatory fund is in excess of the amount that is needed to pay 80128
the operating expenses of the division in administering and 80129
enforcing Title XLIII of the Revised Code and the operating 80130
expenses of the commission, the director shall credit the excess 80131
amount to the general revenue fund.80132

        (C) Twenty per cent of the undivided liquor permit fund shall 80133
be paid into the statewide treatment and prevention fund, which is 80134
hereby created in the state treasury. This amount shall be 80135
appropriated by the general assembly, together with an amount 80136
equal to one and one-half per cent of the gross profit of the 80137
division of liquor control derived under division (B)(4) of 80138
section 4301.10 of the Revised Code, to the department of alcohol 80139
and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction services. 80140
In planning for the allocation of and in allocating these amounts 80141
for the purposes of Chapter 3793.5119. of the Revised Code, the 80142
department of alcohol and drug addiction services shall comply 80143
with the nondiscrimination provisions of Title VI of the Civil 80144
Rights Act of 1964, and any rules adopted under that act.80145

        (D) Thirty-five per cent of the undivided liquor permit fund 80146
shall be distributed by the superintendent of liquor control at 80147
quarterly calendar periods as follows:80148

       (1) To each municipal corporation, the aggregate amount shown 80149
by the statements to have been collected from permits in the 80150
municipal corporation, for the use of the general fund of the 80151
municipal corporation;80152

       (2) To each township, the aggregate amount shown by the 80153
statements to have been collected from permits in its territory, 80154
outside the limits of any municipal corporation located in the 80155
township, for the use of the general fund of the township, or for 80156
fire protection purposes, including buildings and equipment in the 80157
township or in an established fire district within the township, 80158
to the extent that the funds are derived from liquor permits 80159
within the territory comprising such fire district.80160

       (E) For the purpose of the distribution required by this 80161
section, E, H, and D permits covering boats or vessels are deemed 80162
to have been issued in the municipal corporation or township 80163
wherein the owner or operator of the vehicle, boat, vessel, or 80164
dining car equipment to which the permit relates has the owner's 80165
or operator's principal office or place of business within the 80166
state.80167

        (F) If the liquor control commission determines that the 80168
police or other officers of any municipal corporation or township 80169
entitled to share in distributions under this section are refusing 80170
or culpably neglecting to enforce this chapter and Chapter 4303. 80171
of the Revised Code, or the penal laws of this state relating to 80172
the manufacture, importation, transportation, distribution, and 80173
sale of beer and intoxicating liquors, or if the prosecuting 80174
officer of a municipal corporation or a municipal court fails to 80175
comply with the request of the commission authorized by division 80176
(A)(4) of section 4301.10 of the Revised Code, the commission, by 80177
certified mail, may notify the chief executive officer of the 80178
municipal corporation or the board of township trustees of the 80179
township of the failure and require the immediate cooperation of 80180
the responsible officers of the municipal corporation or township 80181
with the division of liquor control in the enforcement of those 80182
chapters and penal laws. Within thirty days after the notice is 80183
served, the commission shall determine whether the requirement has 80184
been complied with. If the commission determines that the 80185
requirement has not been complied with, it may issue an order to 80186
the superintendent to withhold the distributive share of the 80187
municipal corporation or township until further order of the 80188
commission. This action of the commission is reviewable within 80189
thirty days thereafter in the court of common pleas of Franklin 80190
county.80191

       (G) All fees collected by the division of liquor control from 80192
the issuance or renewal of B-2a and S permits, and paid by B-2a 80193
and S permit holders who do not also hold A-2 permits, shall be 80194
deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the state liquor 80195
regulatory fund. Once during each fiscal year, an amount equal to 80196
fifty per cent of the fees collected shall be paid from the state 80197
liquor regulatory fund into the general revenue fund.80198

       Sec. 4301.43.  (A) As used in sections 4301.43 to 4301.50 of 80199
the Revised Code:80200

       (1) "Gallon" or "wine gallon" means one hundred twenty-eight 80201
fluid ounces.80202

       (2) "Sale" or "sell" includes exchange, barter, gift, 80203
distribution, and, except with respect to A-4 permit holders, 80204
offer for sale.80205

       (B) For the purposes of providing revenues for the support of 80206
the state and encouraging the grape industries in the state, a tax 80207
is hereby levied on the sale or distribution of wine in Ohio, 80208
except for known sacramental purposes, at the rate of thirty cents 80209
per wine gallon for wine containing not less than four per cent of 80210
alcohol by volume and not more than fourteen per cent of alcohol 80211
by volume, ninety-eight cents per wine gallon for wine containing 80212
more than fourteen per cent but not more than twenty-one per cent 80213
of alcohol by volume, one dollar and eight cents per wine gallon 80214
for vermouth, and one dollar and forty-eight cents per wine gallon 80215
for sparkling and carbonated wine and champagne, the tax to be 80216
paid by the holders of A-2 and B-5 permits or by any other person 80217
selling or distributing wine upon which no tax has been paid. From 80218
the tax paid under this section on wine, vermouth, and sparkling 80219
and carbonated wine and champagne, the treasurer of state shall 80220
credit to the Ohio grape industries fund created under section 80221
924.54 of the Revised Code a sum equal to one cent per gallon for 80222
each gallon upon which the tax is paid.80223

       (C) For the purpose of providing revenues for the support of 80224
the state, there is hereby levied a tax on prepared and bottled 80225
highballs, cocktails, cordials, and other mixed beverages at the 80226
rate of one dollar and twenty cents per wine gallon to be paid by 80227
holders of A-4 permits or by any other person selling or 80228
distributing those products upon which no tax has been paid. Only 80229
one sale of the same article shall be used in computing the amount 80230
of tax due. The tax on mixed beverages to be paid by holders of 80231
A-4 permits under this section shall not attach until the 80232
ownership of the mixed beverage is transferred for valuable 80233
consideration to a wholesaler or retailer, and no payment of the 80234
tax shall be required prior to that time.80235

       (D) During the period of July 1, 20112013, through June 30, 80236
20132015, from the tax paid under this section on wine, vermouth, 80237
and sparkling and carbonated wine and champagne, the treasurer of 80238
state shall credit to the Ohio grape industries fund created under 80239
section 924.54 of the Revised Code a sum equal to two cents per 80240
gallon upon which the tax is paid. The amount credited under this 80241
division is in addition to the amount credited to the Ohio grape 80242
industries fund under division (B) of this section.80243

       (E) For the purpose of providing revenues for the support of 80244
the state, there is hereby levied a tax on cider at the rate of 80245
twenty-four cents per wine gallon to be paid by the holders of A-2 80246
and B-5 permits or by any other person selling or distributing 80247
cider upon which no tax has been paid. Only one sale of the same 80248
article shall be used in computing the amount of the tax due.80249

       Sec. 4301.62.  (A) As used in this section:80250

       (1) "Chauffeured limousine" means a vehicle registered under 80251
section 4503.24 of the Revised Code.80252

       (2) "Street," "highway," and "motor vehicle" have the same 80253
meanings as in section 4511.01 of the Revised Code.80254

       (B) No person shall have in the person's possession an opened 80255
container of beer or intoxicating liquor in any of the following 80256
circumstances:80257

       (1) Except as provided in division (C)(1)(e) of this section, 80258
in an agency store;80259

       (2) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, on 80260
the premises of the holder of any permit issued by the division of 80261
liquor control;80262

       (3) In any other public place;80263

       (4) Except as provided in division (D) or (E) of this 80264
section, while operating or being a passenger in or on a motor 80265
vehicle on any street, highway, or other public or private 80266
property open to the public for purposes of vehicular travel or 80267
parking;80268

       (5) Except as provided in division (D) or (E) of this 80269
section, while being in or on a stationary motor vehicle on any 80270
street, highway, or other public or private property open to the 80271
public for purposes of vehicular travel or parking.80272

       (C)(1) A person may have in the person's possession an opened 80273
container of any of the following:80274

       (a) Beer or intoxicating liquor that has been lawfully 80275
purchased for consumption on the premises where bought from the 80276
holder of an A-1-A, A-2, A-3a, D-1, D-2, D-3, D-3a, D-4, D-4a, 80277
D-5, D-5a, D-5b, D-5c, D-5d, D-5e, D-5f, D-5g, D-5h, D-5i, D-5j, 80278
D-5k, D-5l, D-5m, D-5n, D-5o, D-7, D-8, E, F, F-2, F-5, F-7, or 80279
F-8 permit;80280

       (b) Beer, wine, or mixed beverages served for consumption on 80281
the premises by the holder of an F-3 permit or wine served for 80282
consumption on the premises by the holder of an F-4 or F-6 permit;80283

       (c) Beer or intoxicating liquor consumed on the premises of a 80284
convention facility as provided in section 4303.201 of the Revised 80285
Code;80286

       (d) Beer or intoxicating liquor to be consumed during 80287
tastings and samplings approved by rule of the liquor control 80288
commission;80289

       (e) Spirituous liquor to be consumed for purposes of a 80290
tasting sample, as defined in section 4301.171 of the Revised 80291
Code.80292

       (2) A person may have in the person's possession on an F 80293
liquor permit premises an opened container of beer or intoxicating 80294
liquor that was not purchased from the holder of the F permit if 80295
the premises for which the F permit is issued is a music festival 80296
and the holder of the F permit grants permission for that 80297
possession on the premises during the period for which the F 80298
permit is issued. As used in this division, "music festival" means 80299
a series of outdoor live musical performances, extending for a 80300
period of at least three consecutive days and located on an area 80301
of land of at least forty acres.80302

       (3)(a) A person may have in the person's possession on a D-2 80303
liquor permit premises an opened or unopened container of wine 80304
that was not purchased from the holder of the D-2 permit if the 80305
premises for which the D-2 permit is issued is an outdoor 80306
performing arts center, the person is attending an orchestral 80307
performance, and the holder of the D-2 permit grants permission 80308
for the possession and consumption of wine in certain 80309
predesignated areas of the premises during the period for which 80310
the D-2 permit is issued.80311

        (b) As used in division (C)(3)(a) of this section:80312

        (i) "Orchestral performance" means a concert comprised of a 80313
group of not fewer than forty musicians playing various musical 80314
instruments.80315

        (ii) "Outdoor performing arts center" means an outdoor 80316
performing arts center that is located on not less than one 80317
hundred fifty acres of land and that is open for performances from 80318
the first day of April to the last day of October of each year.80319

       (4) A person may have in the person's possession an opened or 80320
unopened container of beer or intoxicating liquor at an outdoor 80321
location at which the person is attending an orchestral 80322
performance as defined in division (C)(3)(b)(i) of this section if 80323
the person with supervision and control over the performance 80324
grants permission for the possession and consumption of beer or 80325
intoxicating liquor in certain predesignated areas of that outdoor 80326
location.80327

       (5) A person may have in the person's possession on an F-9 80328
liquor permit premises an opened or unopened container of beer or 80329
intoxicating liquor that was not purchased from the holder of the 80330
F-9 permit if the person is attending an orchestral performance 80331
and the holder of the F-9 permit grants permission for the 80332
possession and consumption of beer or intoxicating liquor in 80333
certain predesignated areas of the premises during the period for 80334
which the F-9 permit is issued.80335

       As used in division (C)(5) of this section, "orchestral 80336
performance" has the same meaning as in division (C)(3)(b) of this 80337
section.80338

       (6)(a) A person may have in the person's possession on the 80339
premises of an outdoor motorsports facility an opened or unopened 80340
container of beer or intoxicating liquor that was not purchased 80341
from the owner of the facility if both of the following apply:80342

       (i) The person is attending a racing event at the facility; 80343
and80344

       (ii) The owner of the facility grants permission for the 80345
possession and consumption of beer or intoxicating liquor on the 80346
premises of the facility.80347

       (b) As used in division (C)(6)(a) of this section:80348

       (i) "Racing event" means a motor vehicle racing event 80349
sanctioned by one or more motor racing sanctioning organizations.80350

       (ii) "Outdoor motorsports facility" means an outdoor 80351
racetrack to which all of the following apply:80352

       (I) It is two and four-tenths miles or more in length.80353

       (II) It is located on two hundred acres or more of land.80354

       (III) The primary business of the owner of the facility is 80355
the hosting and promoting of racing events.80356

       (IV) The owner of the facility is the holder of a D-1, D-2, 80357
and D-3 permit. 80358

       (D) This section does not apply to a person who pays all or a 80359
portion of the fee imposed for the use of a chauffeured limousine 80360
pursuant to a prearranged contract, or the guest of the person, 80361
when all of the following apply:80362

       (1) The person or guest is a passenger in the limousine.80363

       (2) The person or guest is located in the limousine, but is 80364
not occupying a seat in the front compartment of the limousine 80365
where the operator of the limousine is located.80366

       (3) The limousine is located on any street, highway, or other 80367
public or private property open to the public for purposes of 80368
vehicular travel or parking.80369

       (E) An opened bottle of wine that was purchased from the 80370
holder of a permit that authorizes the sale of wine for 80371
consumption on the premises where sold is not an opened container 80372
for the purposes of this section if both of the following apply:80373

       (1) The opened bottle of wine is securely resealed by the 80374
permit holder or an employee of the permit holder before the 80375
bottle is removed from the premises. The bottle shall be secured 80376
in such a manner that it is visibly apparent if the bottle has 80377
been subsequently opened or tampered with.80378

       (2) The opened bottle of wine that is resealed in accordance 80379
with division (E)(1) of this section is stored in the trunk of a 80380
motor vehicle or, if the motor vehicle does not have a trunk, 80381
behind the last upright seat or in an area not normally occupied 80382
by the driver or passengers and not easily accessible by the 80383
driver.80384

       Sec. 4303.181.  (A) Permit D-5a may be issued either to the 80385
owner or operator of a hotel or motel that is required to be 80386
licensed under section 3731.03 of the Revised Code, that contains 80387
at least fifty rooms for registered transient guests or is owned 80388
by a state institution of higher education as defined in section 80389
3345.011 of the Revised Code or a private college or university, 80390
and that qualifies under the other requirements of this section, 80391
or to the owner or operator of a restaurant specified under this 80392
section, to sell beer and any intoxicating liquor at retail, only 80393
by the individual drink in glass and from the container, for 80394
consumption on the premises where sold, and to registered guests 80395
in their rooms, which may be sold by means of a controlled access 80396
alcohol and beverage cabinet in accordance with division (B) of 80397
section 4301.21 of the Revised Code; and to sell the same products 80398
in the same manner and amounts not for consumption on the premises 80399
as may be sold by holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. The premises of 80400
the hotel or motel shall include a retail food establishment or a 80401
food service operation licensed pursuant to Chapter 3717. of the 80402
Revised Code that operates as a restaurant for purposes of this 80403
chapter and that is affiliated with the hotel or motel and within 80404
or contiguous to the hotel or motel, and that serves food within 80405
the hotel or motel, but the principal business of the owner or 80406
operator of the hotel or motel shall be the accommodation of 80407
transient guests. In addition to the privileges authorized in this 80408
division, the holder of a D-5a permit may exercise the same 80409
privileges as the holder of a D-5 permit.80410

       The owner or operator of a hotel, motel, or restaurant who 80411
qualified for and held a D-5a permit on August 4, 1976, may, if 80412
the owner or operator held another permit before holding a D-5a 80413
permit, either retain a D-5a permit or apply for the permit 80414
formerly held, and the division of liquor control shall issue the 80415
permit for which the owner or operator applies and formerly held, 80416
notwithstanding any quota.80417

       A D-5a permit shall not be transferred to another location. 80418
No quota restriction shall be placed on the number of D-5a permits 80419
that may be issued.80420

       The fee for this permit is two thousand three hundred 80421
forty-four dollars.80422

       (B) Permit D-5b may be issued to the owner, operator, tenant, 80423
lessee, or occupant of an enclosed shopping center to sell beer 80424
and intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 80425
glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises 80426
where sold; and to sell the same products in the same manner and 80427
amount not for consumption on the premises as may be sold by 80428
holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. In addition to the privileges 80429
authorized in this division, the holder of a D-5b permit may 80430
exercise the same privileges as a holder of a D-5 permit.80431

       A D-5b permit shall not be transferred to another location.80432

       One D-5b permit may be issued at an enclosed shopping center 80433
containing at least two hundred twenty-five thousand, but less 80434
than four hundred thousand, square feet of floor area.80435

       Two D-5b permits may be issued at an enclosed shopping center 80436
containing at least four hundred thousand square feet of floor 80437
area. No more than one D-5b permit may be issued at an enclosed 80438
shopping center for each additional two hundred thousand square 80439
feet of floor area or fraction of that floor area, up to a maximum 80440
of five D-5b permits for each enclosed shopping center. The number 80441
of D-5b permits that may be issued at an enclosed shopping center 80442
shall be determined by subtracting the number of D-3 and D-5 80443
permits issued in the enclosed shopping center from the number of 80444
D-5b permits that otherwise may be issued at the enclosed shopping 80445
center under the formulas provided in this division. Except as 80446
provided in this section, no quota shall be placed on the number 80447
of D-5b permits that may be issued. Notwithstanding any quota 80448
provided in this section, the holder of any D-5b permit first 80449
issued in accordance with this section is entitled to its renewal 80450
in accordance with section 4303.271 of the Revised Code.80451

       The holder of a D-5b permit issued before April 4, 1984, 80452
whose tenancy is terminated for a cause other than nonpayment of 80453
rent, may return the D-5b permit to the division of liquor 80454
control, and the division shall cancel that permit. Upon 80455
cancellation of that permit and upon the permit holder's payment 80456
of taxes, contributions, premiums, assessments, and other debts 80457
owing or accrued upon the date of cancellation to this state and 80458
its political subdivisions and a filing with the division of a 80459
certification of that payment, the division shall issue to that 80460
person either a D-5 permit, or a D-1, a D-2, and a D-3 permit, as 80461
that person requests. The division shall issue the D-5 permit, or 80462
the D-1, D-2, and D-3 permits, even if the number of D-1, D-2, 80463
D-3, or D-5 permits currently issued in the municipal corporation 80464
or in the unincorporated area of the township where that person's 80465
proposed premises is located equals or exceeds the maximum number 80466
of such permits that can be issued in that municipal corporation 80467
or in the unincorporated area of that township under the 80468
population quota restrictions contained in section 4303.29 of the 80469
Revised Code. Any D-1, D-2, D-3, or D-5 permit so issued shall not 80470
be transferred to another location. If a D-5b permit is canceled 80471
under the provisions of this paragraph, the number of D-5b permits 80472
that may be issued at the enclosed shopping center for which the 80473
D-5b permit was issued, under the formula provided in this 80474
division, shall be reduced by one if the enclosed shopping center 80475
was entitled to more than one D-5b permit under the formula.80476

       The fee for this permit is two thousand three hundred 80477
forty-four dollars.80478

       (C) Permit D-5c may be issued to the owner or operator of a 80479
retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 80480
pursuant to Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a 80481
restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that qualifies under 80482
the other requirements of this section to sell beer and any 80483
intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 80484
glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises 80485
where sold, and to sell the same products in the same manner and 80486
amounts not for consumption on the premises as may be sold by 80487
holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. In addition to the privileges 80488
authorized in this division, the holder of a D-5c permit may 80489
exercise the same privileges as the holder of a D-5 permit.80490

       To qualify for a D-5c permit, the owner or operator of a 80491
retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 80492
pursuant to Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a 80493
restaurant for purposes of this chapter, shall have operated the 80494
restaurant at the proposed premises for not less than twenty-four 80495
consecutive months immediately preceding the filing of the 80496
application for the permit, have applied for a D-5 permit no later 80497
than December 31, 1988, and appear on the division's quota waiting 80498
list for not less than six months immediately preceding the filing 80499
of the application for the permit. In addition to these 80500
requirements, the proposed D-5c permit premises shall be located 80501
within a municipal corporation and further within an election 80502
precinct that, at the time of the application, has no more than 80503
twenty-five per cent of its total land area zoned for residential 80504
use.80505

       A D-5c permit shall not be transferred to another location. 80506
No quota restriction shall be placed on the number of such permits 80507
that may be issued.80508

       Any person who has held a D-5c permit for at least two years 80509
may apply for a D-5 permit, and the division of liquor control 80510
shall issue the D-5 permit notwithstanding the quota restrictions 80511
contained in section 4303.29 of the Revised Code or in any rule of 80512
the liquor control commission.80513

       The fee for this permit is one thousand five hundred 80514
sixty-three dollars.80515

       (D) Permit D-5d may be issued to the owner or operator of a 80516
retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 80517
pursuant to Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a 80518
restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that is located at an 80519
airport operated by a board of county commissioners pursuant to 80520
section 307.20 of the Revised Code, at an airport operated by a 80521
port authority pursuant to Chapter 4582. of the Revised Code, or 80522
at an airport operated by a regional airport authority pursuant to 80523
Chapter 308. of the Revised Code. The holder of a D-5d permit may 80524
sell beer and any intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the 80525
individual drink in glass and from the container, for consumption 80526
on the premises where sold, and may sell the same products in the 80527
same manner and amounts not for consumption on the premises where 80528
sold as may be sold by the holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. In 80529
addition to the privileges authorized in this division, the holder 80530
of a D-5d permit may exercise the same privileges as the holder of 80531
a D-5 permit.80532

       A D-5d permit shall not be transferred to another location. 80533
No quota restrictions shall be placed on the number of such 80534
permits that may be issued.80535

       The fee for this permit is two thousand three hundred 80536
forty-four dollars.80537

       (E) Permit D-5e may be issued to any nonprofit organization 80538
that is exempt from federal income taxation under the "Internal 80539
Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 501(c)(3), as 80540
amended, or that is a charitable organization under any chapter of 80541
the Revised Code, and that owns or operates a riverboat that meets 80542
all of the following:80543

       (1) Is permanently docked at one location;80544

       (2) Is designated as an historical riverboat by the Ohio 80545
historical society;80546

       (3) Contains not less than fifteen hundred square feet of 80547
floor area;80548

       (4) Has a seating capacity of fifty or more persons.80549

       The holder of a D-5e permit may sell beer and intoxicating 80550
liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in glass and from 80551
the container, for consumption on the premises where sold.80552

       A D-5e permit shall not be transferred to another location. 80553
No quota restriction shall be placed on the number of such permits 80554
that may be issued. The population quota restrictions contained in 80555
section 4303.29 of the Revised Code or in any rule of the liquor 80556
control commission shall not apply to this division, and the 80557
division shall issue a D-5e permit to any applicant who meets the 80558
requirements of this division. However, the division shall not 80559
issue a D-5e permit if the permit premises or proposed permit 80560
premises are located within an area in which the sale of 80561
spirituous liquor by the glass is prohibited.80562

       The fee for this permit is one thousand two hundred nineteen 80563
dollars.80564

       (F) Permit D-5f may be issued to the owner or operator of a 80565
retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 80566
under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a 80567
restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that meets all of the 80568
following:80569

       (1) It contains not less than twenty-five hundred square feet 80570
of floor area.80571

       (2) It is located on or in, or immediately adjacent to, the 80572
shoreline of, a navigable river.80573

       (3) It provides docking space for twenty-five boats.80574

       (4) It provides entertainment and recreation, provided that 80575
not less than fifty per cent of the business on the permit 80576
premises shall be preparing and serving meals for a consideration.80577

       In addition, each application for a D-5f permit shall be 80578
accompanied by a certification from the local legislative 80579
authority that the issuance of the D-5f permit is not inconsistent 80580
with that political subdivision's comprehensive development plan 80581
or other economic development goal as officially established by 80582
the local legislative authority.80583

       The holder of a D-5f permit may sell beer and intoxicating 80584
liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in glass and from 80585
the container, for consumption on the premises where sold.80586

       A D-5f permit shall not be transferred to another location.80587

       The division of liquor control shall not issue a D-5f permit 80588
if the permit premises or proposed permit premises are located 80589
within an area in which the sale of spirituous liquor by the glass 80590
is prohibited.80591

       A fee for this permit is two thousand three hundred 80592
forty-four dollars.80593

       As used in this division, "navigable river" means a river 80594
that is also a "navigable water" as defined in the "Federal Power 80595
Act," 94 Stat. 770 (1980), 16 U.S.C. 796.80596

       (G) Permit D-5g may be issued to a nonprofit corporation that 80597
is either the owner or the operator of a national professional 80598
sports museum. The holder of a D-5g permit may sell beer and any 80599
intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 80600
glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises 80601
where sold. The holder of a D-5g permit shall sell no beer or 80602
intoxicating liquor for consumption on the premises where sold 80603
after two-thirty a.m. A D-5g permit shall not be transferred to 80604
another location. No quota restrictions shall be placed on the 80605
number of D-5g permits that may be issued. The fee for this permit 80606
is one thousand eight hundred seventy-five dollars.80607

       (H)(1) Permit D-5h may be issued to any nonprofit 80608
organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under the 80609
"Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 80610
501(c)(3), as amended, that owns or operates any of the following:80611

       (a) A fine arts museum, provided that the nonprofit 80612
organization has no less than one thousand five hundred bona fide 80613
members possessing full membership privileges;80614

       (b) A community arts center. As used in division (H)(1)(b) of 80615
this section, "community arts center" means a facility that 80616
provides arts programming to the community in more than one arts 80617
discipline, including, but not limited to, exhibits of works of 80618
art and performances by both professional and amateur artists.80619

       (c) A community theater, provided that the nonprofit 80620
organization is a member of the Ohio arts council and the American 80621
community theatre association and has been in existence for not 80622
less than ten years. As used in division (H)(1)(c) of this 80623
section, "community theater" means a facility that contains at 80624
least one hundred fifty seats and has a primary function of 80625
presenting live theatrical performances and providing recreational 80626
opportunities to the community.80627

        (2) The holder of a D-5h permit may sell beer and any 80628
intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 80629
glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises 80630
where sold. The holder of a D-5h permit shall sell no beer or 80631
intoxicating liquor for consumption on the premises where sold 80632
after one a.m. A D-5h permit shall not be transferred to another 80633
location. No quota restrictions shall be placed on the number of 80634
D-5h permits that may be issued.80635

       (3) The fee for a D-5h permit is one thousand eight hundred 80636
seventy-five dollars.80637

       (I) Permit D-5i may be issued to the owner or operator of a 80638
retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 80639
under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a 80640
restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that meets all of the 80641
following requirements:80642

       (1) It is located in a municipal corporation or a township 80643
with a population of one hundred thousand or less.80644

       (2) It has inside seating capacity for at least one hundred 80645
forty persons.80646

       (3) It has at least four thousand square feet of floor area.80647

       (4) It offers full-course meals, appetizers, and sandwiches.80648

       (5) Its receipts from beer and liquor sales, excluding wine 80649
sales, do not exceed twenty-five per cent of its total gross 80650
receipts.80651

       (6) It has at least one of the following characteristics:80652

       (a) The value of its real and personal property exceeds seven 80653
hundred twenty-five thousand dollars.80654

       (b) It is located on property that is owned or leased by the 80655
state or a state agency, and its owner or operator has 80656
authorization from the state or the state agency that owns or 80657
leases the property to obtain a D-5i permit.80658

       The holder of a D-5i permit may sell beer and any 80659
intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 80660
glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises 80661
where sold, and may sell the same products in the same manner and 80662
amounts not for consumption on the premises where sold as may be 80663
sold by the holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. The holder of a D-5i 80664
permit shall sell no beer or intoxicating liquor for consumption 80665
on the premises where sold after two-thirty a.m. In addition to 80666
the privileges authorized in this division, the holder of a D-5i 80667
permit may exercise the same privileges as the holder of a D-5 80668
permit.80669

       A D-5i permit shall not be transferred to another location. 80670
The division of liquor control shall not renew a D-5i permit 80671
unless the retail food establishment or food service operation for 80672
which it is issued continues to meet the requirements described in 80673
divisions (I)(1) to (6) of this section. No quota restrictions 80674
shall be placed on the number of D-5i permits that may be issued. 80675
The fee for the D-5i permit is two thousand three hundred 80676
forty-four dollars.80677

       (J) Permit D-5j may be issued to the owner or the operator of 80678
a retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 80679
under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code to sell beer and 80680
intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 80681
glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises 80682
where sold and to sell beer and intoxicating liquor in the same 80683
manner and amounts not for consumption on the premises where sold 80684
as may be sold by the holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. The holder 80685
of a D-5j permit may exercise the same privileges, and shall 80686
observe the same hours of operation, as the holder of a D-5 80687
permit.80688

        The D-5j permit shall be issued only within a community 80689
entertainment district that is designated under section 4301.80 of 80690
the Revised Code and that meets one of the following 80691
qualifications:80692

       (1) It is located in a municipal corporation with a 80693
population of at least one hundred thousand.80694

       (2) It is located in a municipal corporation with a 80695
population of at least twenty thousand, and either of the 80696
following applies:80697

       (a) It contains an amusement park the rides of which have 80698
been issued a permit by the department of agriculture under 80699
Chapter 1711. of the Revised Code.80700

       (b) Not less than fifty million dollars will be invested in 80701
development and construction in the community entertainment 80702
district's area located in the municipal corporation.80703

       (3) It is located in a township with a population of at least 80704
forty thousand.80705

       (4) It is located in a township with a population of at least 80706
twenty thousand, and not less than seventy million dollars will be 80707
invested in development and construction in the community 80708
entertainment district's area located in the township.80709

       (5) It is located in a municipal corporation with a 80710
population between ten thousand and twenty thousand, and both of 80711
the following apply:80712

       (a) The municipal corporation was incorporated as a village 80713
prior to calendar year 1840 and currently has a historic downtown 80714
business district.80715

       (b) The municipal corporation is located in the same county 80716
as another municipal corporation with at least one community 80717
entertainment district.80718

       (6) It is located in a municipal corporation with a 80719
population of at least ten thousand, and not less than seventy 80720
million dollars will be invested in development and construction 80721
in the community entertainment district's area located in the 80722
municipal corporation.80723

       (7) It is located in a municipal corporation with a 80724
population of at least five thousand, and not less than one 80725
hundred million dollars will be invested in development and 80726
construction in the community entertainment district's area 80727
located in the municipal corporation.80728

        The location of a D-5j permit may be transferred only within 80729
the geographic boundaries of the community entertainment district 80730
in which it was issued and shall not be transferred outside the 80731
geographic boundaries of that district.80732

        Not more than one D-5j permit shall be issued within each 80733
community entertainment district for each five acres of land 80734
located within the district. Not more than fifteen D-5j permits 80735
may be issued within a single community entertainment district. 80736
Except as otherwise provided in division (J)(4) of this section, 80737
no quota restrictions shall be placed upon the number of D-5j 80738
permits that may be issued.80739

        The fee for a D-5j permit is two thousand three hundred 80740
forty-four dollars.80741

       (K)(1) Permit D-5k may be issued to any nonprofit 80742
organization that is exempt from federal income taxation under the 80743
"Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 80744
501(c)(3), as amended, that is the owner or operator of a 80745
botanical garden recognized by the American association of 80746
botanical gardens and arboreta, and that has not less than 80747
twenty-five hundred bona fide members.80748

       (2) The holder of a D-5k permit may sell beer and any 80749
intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 80750
glass and from the container, on the premises where sold.80751

       (3) The holder of a D-5k permit shall sell no beer or 80752
intoxicating liquor for consumption on the premises where sold 80753
after one a.m.80754

       (4) A D-5k permit shall not be transferred to another 80755
location.80756

       (5) No quota restrictions shall be placed on the number of 80757
D-5k permits that may be issued.80758

       (6) The fee for the D-5k permit is one thousand eight hundred 80759
seventy-five dollars.80760

       (L)(1) Permit D-5l may be issued to the owner or the operator 80761
of a retail food establishment or a food service operation 80762
licensed under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code to sell beer and 80763
intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 80764
glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises 80765
where sold and to sell beer and intoxicating liquor in the same 80766
manner and amounts not for consumption on the premises where sold 80767
as may be sold by the holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. The holder 80768
of a D-5l permit may exercise the same privileges, and shall 80769
observe the same hours of operation, as the holder of a D-5 80770
permit.80771

       (2) The D-5l permit shall be issued only to a premises to 80772
which all of the following apply:80773

       (a) The premises has gross annual receipts from the sale of 80774
food and meals that constitute not less than seventy-five per cent 80775
of its total gross annual receipts.80776

       (b) The premises is located within a revitalization district 80777
that is designated under section 4301.81 of the Revised Code.80778

       (c) The premises is located in a municipal corporation or 80779
township in which the number of D-5 permits issued equals or 80780
exceeds the number of those permits that may be issued in that 80781
municipal corporation or township under section 4303.29 of the 80782
Revised Code.80783

       (d) The premises meets any of the following qualifications:80784

       (i) It is located in a county with a population of one 80785
hundred twenty-five thousand or less according to the population 80786
estimates certified by the development services agency for 80787
calendar year 2006.80788

       (ii) It is located in the municipal corporation that has the 80789
largest population in a county when the county has a population 80790
between two hundred fifteen thousand and two hundred twenty-five 80791
thousand according to the population estimates certified by the 80792
development services agency for calendar year 2006. Division 80793
(L)(2)(d)(ii) of this section applies only to a municipal 80794
corporation that is wholly located in a county.80795

       (iii) It is located in the municipal corporation that has the 80796
largest population in a county when the county has a population 80797
between one hundred forty thousand and one hundred forty-one 80798
thousand according to the population estimates certified by the 80799
development services agency for calendar year 2006. Division 80800
(L)(2)(d)(iii) of this section applies only to a municipal 80801
corporation that is wholly located in a county.80802

       (3) The location of a D-5l permit may be transferred only 80803
within the geographic boundaries of the revitalization district in 80804
which it was issued and shall not be transferred outside the 80805
geographic boundaries of that district.80806

       (4) Not more than one D-5l permit shall be issued within each 80807
revitalization district for each five acres of land located within 80808
the district. Not more than fifteen D-5l permits may be issued 80809
within a single revitalization district. Except as otherwise 80810
provided in division (L)(4) of this section, no quota restrictions 80811
shall be placed upon the number of D-5l permits that may be 80812
issued.80813

       (5) No D-5l permit shall be issued to an adult entertainment 80814
establishment as defined in section 2907.39 of the Revised Code.80815

       (6) The fee for a D-5l permit is two thousand three hundred 80816
forty-four dollars.80817

       (M) Permit D-5m may be issued to either the owner or the 80818
operator of a retail food establishment or food service operation 80819
licensed under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as 80820
a restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that is located in, 80821
or affiliated with, a center for the preservation of wild animals 80822
as defined in section 4301.404 of the Revised Code, to sell beer 80823
and any intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the glass and from 80824
the container, for consumption on the premises where sold, and to 80825
sell the same products in the same manner and amounts not for 80826
consumption on the premises as may be sold by the holders of D-1 80827
and D-2 permits. In addition to the privileges authorized by this 80828
division, the holder of a D-5m permit may exercise the same 80829
privileges as the holder of a D-5 permit.80830

       A D-5m permit shall not be transferred to another location. 80831
No quota restrictions shall be placed on the number of D-5m 80832
permits that may be issued. The fee for a permit D-5m is two 80833
thousand three hundred forty-four dollars.80834

       (N) Permit D-5n shall be issued to either a casino operator 80835
or a casino management company licensed under Chapter 3772. of the 80836
Revised Code that operates a casino facility under that chapter, 80837
to sell beer and any intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the 80838
individual drink in glass and from the container, for consumption 80839
on the premises where sold, and to sell the same products in the 80840
same manner and amounts not for consumption on the premises as may 80841
be sold by the holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. In addition to the 80842
privileges authorized by this division, the holder of a D-5n 80843
permit may exercise the same privileges as the holder of a D-5 80844
permit. A D-5n permit shall not be transferred to another 80845
location. Only one D-5n permit may be issued per casino facility 80846
and not more than four D-5n permits shall be issued in this state. 80847
The fee for a permit D-5n shall be twenty thousand dollars. The 80848
holder of a D-5n permit may conduct casino gaming on the permit 80849
premises notwithstanding any provision of the Revised Code or 80850
Administrative Code.80851

       (O) Permit D-5o may be issued to the owner or operator of a 80852
retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 80853
under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a 80854
restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that is located within 80855
a casino facility for which a D-5n permit has been issued. The 80856
holder of a D-5o permit may sell beer and any intoxicating liquor 80857
at retail, only by the individual drink in glass and from the 80858
container, for consumption on the premises where sold, and may 80859
sell the same products in the same manner and amounts not for 80860
consumption on the premises where sold as may be sold by the 80861
holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. In addition to the privileges 80862
authorized by this division, the holder of a D-5o permit may 80863
exercise the same privileges as the holder of a D-5 permit. A D-5o 80864
permit shall not be transferred to another location. No quota 80865
restrictions shall be placed on the number of such permits that 80866
may be issued. The fee for this permit is two thousand three 80867
hundred forty-four dollars. 80868

       (P) Permit D-5p may be issued to the owner or operator of a 80869
retail food establishment or a food service operation licensed 80870
under Chapter 3717. of the Revised Code that operates as a 80871
restaurant for purposes of this chapter and that is located within 80872
a park district. The holder of a D-5p permit may sell beer and any 80873
intoxicating liquor at retail, only by the individual drink in 80874
glass and from the container, for consumption on the premises 80875
where sold, and may sell the same products in the same manner and 80876
amounts not for consumption on the premises where sold as may be 80877
sold by the holders of D-1 and D-2 permits. In addition to the 80878
privileges authorized by this division, the holder of a D-5p 80879
permit may exercise the same privileges as the holder of a D-5 80880
permit. A D-5p permit shall not be transferred to another 80881
location. No quota restrictions shall be placed on the number of 80882
such permits that may be issued. The fee for a D-5p permit is two 80883
thousand three hundred forty-four dollars.80884

       As used in this division, "park district" means a park 80885
district that is created under Chapter 1545. of the Revised Code 80886
consisting of not less than twenty-two thousand acres of land, a 80887
portion of which is adjacent to Lake Erie.80888

       Sec. 4305.131.  (A) If any permit holder fails to pay the 80889
taxes levied by section 4301.42, 4301.43, 4301.432, or 4305.01 of 80890
the Revised Code in the manner prescribed by section 4303.33 of 80891
the Revised Code, or by section 4301.421 or 4301.424 of the 80892
Revised Code in the manner prescribed in section 4301.422 of the 80893
Revised Code, and by the rules of the tax commissioner, the 80894
commissioner may make an assessment against the permit holder 80895
based upon any information in the commissioner's possession.80896

       No assessment shall be made against any permit holder for any 80897
taxes imposed by section 4301.42, 4301.421, 4301.424, 4301.43, 80898
4301.432, or 4305.01 of the Revised Code more than three years 80899
after the last day of the calendar month in which the sale was 80900
made or more than three years after the return for that period is 80901
filed, whichever is later. This section does not bar an assessment 80902
against any permit holder or registrant as provided in section 80903
4303.331 of the Revised Code who fails to file a return as 80904
required by section 4301.422 or 4303.33 of the Revised Code, or 80905
who files a fraudulent return.80906

       A penalty of up to thirty per cent may be added to the amount 80907
of every assessment made under this section. The commissioner may 80908
adopt rules providing for the imposition and remission of 80909
penalties added to assessments made under this section.80910

       The commissioner shall give the party assessed written notice 80911
of the assessment in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the 80912
Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner shall provide 80913
instructions on how to petition for reassessment and request a 80914
hearing on the petition.80915

       (B) Unless the party assessed files with the tax commissioner 80916
within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, 80917
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition for 80918
reassessment, signed by the party assessed or that party's 80919
authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 80920
becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due and payable 80921
from the party assessed to the treasurer of state. The petition 80922
shall indicate the objections of the party assessed, but 80923
additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the 80924
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 80925
If the petition has been properly filed, the commissioner shall 80926
proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.80927

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 80928
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 80929
copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the assessment final 80930
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 80931
pleas in the county in which the permit holder's place of business 80932
is located or the county in which the party assessed resides. If 80933
the party assessed maintains no place of business in this state 80934
and is not a resident of this state, the certified copy of the 80935
entry may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of 80936
common pleas of Franklin county.80937

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 80938
enter a judgment for the state against the party assessed in the 80939
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 80940
in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for state beer 80941
and liquor sales taxes," and shall have the same effect as other 80942
judgments. Execution shall issue upon the judgment upon the 80943
request of the commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on 80944
execution shall apply to sales made under the judgment, except as 80945
otherwise provided in this chapter and Chapters 4301. and 4307. of 80946
the Revised Code.80947

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety80948
within sixty days after the day the assessment was issued, the 80949
portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear 80950
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 80951
the Revised Code from the day the commissioner issues the 80952
assessment until it is paid or until it is certified to the 80953
attorney general for collection under section 131.02 of the 80954
Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid portion of the 80955
assessment is certified to the attorney general for collection, 80956
the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear interest at 80957
the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 80958
Code from the date of certification until the date it is paid in 80959
its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax 80960
and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment under this 80961
section.80962

       (D) All money collected under this section shall be 80963
considered as revenue arising from the taxes imposed by sections 80964
4301.42, 4301.421, 4301.424, 4301.43, 4301.432, and 4305.01 of the 80965
Revised Code.80966

       Sec. 4501.01.  As used in this chapter and Chapters 4503., 80967
4505., 4507., 4509., 4510., 4511., 4513., 4515., and 4517. of the 80968
Revised Code, and in the penal laws, except as otherwise provided:80969

       (A) "Vehicles" means everything on wheels or runners, 80970
including motorized bicycles, but does not mean electric personal 80971
assistive mobility devices, vehicles that are operated exclusively 80972
on rails or tracks or from overhead electric trolley wires, and 80973
vehicles that belong to any police department, municipal fire 80974
department, or volunteer fire department, or that are used by such 80975
a department in the discharge of its functions.80976

       (B) "Motor vehicle" means any vehicle, including mobile homes 80977
and recreational vehicles, that is propelled or drawn by power 80978
other than muscular power or power collected from overhead 80979
electric trolley wires. "Motor vehicle" does not include utility 80980
vehicles as defined in division (VV) of this section, motorized 80981
bicycles, road rollers, traction engines, power shovels, power 80982
cranes, and other equipment used in construction work and not 80983
designed for or employed in general highway transportation, 80984
well-drilling machinery, ditch-digging machinery, farm machinery, 80985
and trailers that are designed and used exclusively to transport a 80986
boat between a place of storage and a marina, or in and around a 80987
marina, when drawn or towed on a public road or highway for a 80988
distance of no more than ten miles and at a speed of twenty-five 80989
miles per hour or less.80990

       (C) "Agricultural tractor" and "traction engine" mean any 80991
self-propelling vehicle that is designed or used for drawing other 80992
vehicles or wheeled machinery, but has no provisions for carrying 80993
loads independently of such other vehicles, and that is used 80994
principally for agricultural purposes.80995

       (D) "Commercial tractor," except as defined in division (C) 80996
of this section, means any motor vehicle that has motive power and 80997
either is designed or used for drawing other motor vehicles, or is 80998
designed or used for drawing another motor vehicle while carrying 80999
a portion of the other motor vehicle or its load, or both.81000

       (E) "Passenger car" means any motor vehicle that is designed 81001
and used for carrying not more than nine persons and includes any 81002
motor vehicle that is designed and used for carrying not more than 81003
fifteen persons in a ridesharing arrangement.81004

       (F) "Collector's vehicle" means any motor vehicle or 81005
agricultural tractor or traction engine that is of special 81006
interest, that has a fair market value of one hundred dollars or 81007
more, whether operable or not, and that is owned, operated, 81008
collected, preserved, restored, maintained, or used essentially as 81009
a collector's item, leisure pursuit, or investment, but not as the 81010
owner's principal means of transportation. "Licensed collector's 81011
vehicle" means a collector's vehicle, other than an agricultural 81012
tractor or traction engine, that displays current, valid license 81013
tags issued under section 4503.45 of the Revised Code, or a 81014
similar type of motor vehicle that displays current, valid license 81015
tags issued under substantially equivalent provisions in the laws 81016
of other states.81017

       (G) "Historical motor vehicle" means any motor vehicle that 81018
is over twenty-five years old and is owned solely as a collector's 81019
item and for participation in club activities, exhibitions, tours, 81020
parades, and similar uses, but that in no event is used for 81021
general transportation.81022

       (H) "Noncommercial motor vehicle" means any motor vehicle, 81023
including a farm truck as defined in section 4503.04 of the 81024
Revised Code, that is designed by the manufacturer to carry a load 81025
of no more than one ton and is used exclusively for purposes other 81026
than engaging in business for profit.81027

       (I) "Bus" means any motor vehicle that has motor power and is 81028
designed and used for carrying more than nine passengers, except 81029
any motor vehicle that is designed and used for carrying not more 81030
than fifteen passengers in a ridesharing arrangement.81031

       (J) "Commercial car" or "truck" means any motor vehicle that 81032
has motor power and is designed and used for carrying merchandise 81033
or freight, or that is used as a commercial tractor.81034

       (K) "Bicycle" means every device, other than a device that is 81035
designed solely for use as a play vehicle by a child, that is 81036
propelled solely by human power upon which a person may ride, and 81037
that has two or more wheels, any of which is more than fourteen 81038
inches in diameter.81039

       (L) "Motorized bicycle" means any vehicle that either has two 81040
tandem wheels or one wheel in the front and two wheels in the 81041
rear, that is capable of being pedaled, and that is equipped with 81042
a helper motor of not more than fifty cubic centimeters piston 81043
displacement that produces no more than one brake horsepower and 81044
is capable of propelling the vehicle at a speed of no greater than 81045
twenty miles per hour on a level surface.81046

       (M) "Trailer" means any vehicle without motive power that is 81047
designed or used for carrying property or persons wholly on its 81048
own structure and for being drawn by a motor vehicle, and includes 81049
any such vehicle that is formed by or operated as a combination of 81050
a semitrailer and a vehicle of the dolly type such as that 81051
commonly known as a trailer dolly, a vehicle used to transport 81052
agricultural produce or agricultural production materials between 81053
a local place of storage or supply and the farm when drawn or 81054
towed on a public road or highway at a speed greater than 81055
twenty-five miles per hour, and a vehicle that is designed and 81056
used exclusively to transport a boat between a place of storage 81057
and a marina, or in and around a marina, when drawn or towed on a 81058
public road or highway for a distance of more than ten miles or at 81059
a speed of more than twenty-five miles per hour. "Trailer" does 81060
not include a manufactured home or travel trailer.81061

       (N) "Noncommercial trailer" means any trailer, except a 81062
travel trailer or trailer that is used to transport a boat as 81063
described in division (B) of this section, but, where applicable, 81064
includes a vehicle that is used to transport a boat as described 81065
in division (M) of this section, that has a gross weight of no 81066
more than ten thousand pounds, and that is used exclusively for 81067
purposes other than engaging in business for a profit, such as the 81068
transportation of personal items for personal or recreational 81069
purposes.81070

       (O) "Mobile home" means a building unit or assembly of closed 81071
construction that is fabricated in an off-site facility, is more 81072
than thirty-five body feet in length or, when erected on site, is 81073
three hundred twenty or more square feet, is built on a permanent 81074
chassis, is transportable in one or more sections, and does not 81075
qualify as a manufactured home as defined in division (C)(4) of 81076
section 3781.06 of the Revised Code or as an industrialized unit 81077
as defined in division (C)(3) of section 3781.06 of the Revised 81078
Code.81079

       (P) "Semitrailer" means any vehicle of the trailer type that 81080
does not have motive power and is so designed or used with another 81081
and separate motor vehicle that in operation a part of its own 81082
weight or that of its load, or both, rests upon and is carried by 81083
the other vehicle furnishing the motive power for propelling 81084
itself and the vehicle referred to in this division, and includes, 81085
for the purpose only of registration and taxation under those 81086
chapters, any vehicle of the dolly type, such as a trailer dolly, 81087
that is designed or used for the conversion of a semitrailer into 81088
a trailer.81089

       (Q) "Recreational vehicle" means a vehicular portable 81090
structure that meets all of the following conditions:81091

       (1) It is designed for the sole purpose of recreational 81092
travel.81093

       (2) It is not used for the purpose of engaging in business 81094
for profit.81095

       (3) It is not used for the purpose of engaging in intrastate 81096
commerce.81097

       (4) It is not used for the purpose of commerce as defined in 81098
49 C.F.R. 383.5, as amended.81099

       (5) It is not regulated by the public utilities commission 81100
pursuant to Chapter 4905., 4921., or 4923. of the Revised Code.81101

       (6) It is classed as one of the following:81102

       (a) "Travel trailer" means a nonself-propelled recreational 81103
vehicle that does not exceed an overall length of thirty-five 81104
feet, exclusive of bumper and tongue or coupling, and contains 81105
less than three hundred twenty square feet of space when erected 81106
on site. "Travel trailer" includes a tent-type fold-out camping 81107
trailer as defined in section 4517.01 of the Revised Code.81108

       (b) "Motor home" means a self-propelled recreational vehicle 81109
that has no fifth wheel and is constructed with permanently 81110
installed facilities for cold storage, cooking and consuming of 81111
food, and for sleeping.81112

       (c) "Truck camper" means a nonself-propelled recreational 81113
vehicle that does not have wheels for road use and is designed to 81114
be placed upon and attached to a motor vehicle. "Truck camper" 81115
does not include truck covers that consist of walls and a roof, 81116
but do not have floors and facilities enabling them to be used as 81117
a dwelling.81118

       (d) "Fifth wheel trailer" means a vehicle that is of such 81119
size and weight as to be movable without a special highway permit, 81120
that has a gross trailer area of four hundred square feet or less, 81121
that is constructed with a raised forward section that allows a 81122
bi-level floor plan, and that is designed to be towed by a vehicle 81123
equipped with a fifth-wheel hitch ordinarily installed in the bed 81124
of a truck.81125

       (e) "Park trailer" means a vehicle that is commonly known as 81126
a park model recreational vehicle, meets the American national 81127
standard institute standard A119.5 (1988) for park trailers, is 81128
built on a single chassis, has a gross trailer area of four 81129
hundred square feet or less when set up, is designed for seasonal 81130
or temporary living quarters, and may be connected to utilities 81131
necessary for the operation of installed features and appliances.81132

       (R) "Pneumatic tires" means tires of rubber and fabric or 81133
tires of similar material, that are inflated with air.81134

       (S) "Solid tires" means tires of rubber or similar elastic 81135
material that are not dependent upon confined air for support of 81136
the load.81137

       (T) "Solid tire vehicle" means any vehicle that is equipped 81138
with two or more solid tires.81139

       (U) "Farm machinery" means all machines and tools that are 81140
used in the production, harvesting, and care of farm products, and 81141
includes trailers that are used to transport agricultural produce 81142
or agricultural production materials between a local place of 81143
storage or supply and the farm, agricultural tractors, threshing 81144
machinery, hay-baling machinery, corn shellers, hammermills, and 81145
machinery used in the production of horticultural, agricultural, 81146
and vegetable products.81147

       (V) "Owner" includes any person or firm, other than a 81148
manufacturer or dealer, that has title to a motor vehicle, except 81149
that, in sections 4505.01 to 4505.19 of the Revised Code, "owner" 81150
includes in addition manufacturers and dealers.81151

       (W) "Manufacturer" and "dealer" include all persons and firms 81152
that are regularly engaged in the business of manufacturing, 81153
selling, displaying, offering for sale, or dealing in motor 81154
vehicles, at an established place of business that is used 81155
exclusively for the purpose of manufacturing, selling, displaying, 81156
offering for sale, or dealing in motor vehicles. A place of 81157
business that is used for manufacturing, selling, displaying, 81158
offering for sale, or dealing in motor vehicles shall be deemed to 81159
be used exclusively for those purposes even though snowmobiles or 81160
all-purpose vehicles are sold or displayed for sale thereat, even 81161
though farm machinery is sold or displayed for sale thereat, or 81162
even though repair, accessory, gasoline and oil, storage, parts, 81163
service, or paint departments are maintained thereat, or, in any 81164
county having a population of less than seventy-five thousand at 81165
the last federal census, even though a department in a place of 81166
business is used to dismantle, salvage, or rebuild motor vehicles 81167
by means of used parts, if such departments are operated for the 81168
purpose of furthering and assisting in the business of 81169
manufacturing, selling, displaying, offering for sale, or dealing 81170
in motor vehicles. Places of business or departments in a place of 81171
business used to dismantle, salvage, or rebuild motor vehicles by 81172
means of using used parts are not considered as being maintained 81173
for the purpose of assisting or furthering the manufacturing, 81174
selling, displaying, and offering for sale or dealing in motor 81175
vehicles.81176

       (X) "Operator" includes any person who drives or operates a 81177
motor vehicle upon the public highways.81178

       (Y) "Chauffeur" means any operator who operates a motor 81179
vehicle, other than a taxicab, as an employee for hire; or any 81180
operator whether or not the owner of a motor vehicle, other than a 81181
taxicab, who operates such vehicle for transporting, for gain, 81182
compensation, or profit, either persons or property owned by 81183
another. Any operator of a motor vehicle who is voluntarily 81184
involved in a ridesharing arrangement is not considered an 81185
employee for hire or operating such vehicle for gain, 81186
compensation, or profit.81187

       (Z) "State" includes the territories and federal districts of 81188
the United States, and the provinces of Canada.81189

       (AA) "Public roads and highways" for vehicles includes all 81190
public thoroughfares, bridges, and culverts.81191

       (BB) "Manufacturer's number" means the manufacturer's 81192
original serial number that is affixed to or imprinted upon the 81193
chassis or other part of the motor vehicle.81194

       (CC) "Motor number" means the manufacturer's original number 81195
that is affixed to or imprinted upon the engine or motor of the 81196
vehicle.81197

       (DD) "Distributor" means any person who is authorized by a 81198
motor vehicle manufacturer to distribute new motor vehicles to 81199
licensed motor vehicle dealers at an established place of business 81200
that is used exclusively for the purpose of distributing new motor 81201
vehicles to licensed motor vehicle dealers, except when the 81202
distributor also is a new motor vehicle dealer, in which case the 81203
distributor may distribute at the location of the distributor's 81204
licensed dealership.81205

       (EE) "Ridesharing arrangement" means the transportation of 81206
persons in a motor vehicle where the transportation is incidental 81207
to another purpose of a volunteer driver and includes ridesharing 81208
arrangements known as carpools, vanpools, and buspools.81209

       (FF) "Apportionable vehicle" means any vehicle that is used 81210
or intended for use in two or more international registration plan 81211
member jurisdictions that allocate or proportionally register 81212
vehicles, that is used for the transportation of persons for hire 81213
or designed, used, or maintained primarily for the transportation 81214
of property, and that meets any of the following qualifications:81215

       (1) Is a power unit having a gross vehicle weight in excess 81216
of twenty-six thousand pounds;81217

       (2) Is a power unit having three or more axles, regardless of 81218
the gross vehicle weight;81219

       (3) Is a combination vehicle with a gross vehicle weight in 81220
excess of twenty-six thousand pounds.81221

       "Apportionable vehicle" does not include recreational 81222
vehicles, vehicles displaying restricted plates, city pick-up and 81223
delivery vehicles, buses used for the transportation of chartered 81224
parties, or vehicles owned and operated by the United States, this 81225
state, or any political subdivisions thereof.81226

       (GG) "Chartered party" means a group of persons who contract 81227
as a group to acquire the exclusive use of a passenger-carrying 81228
motor vehicle at a fixed charge for the vehicle in accordance with 81229
the carrier's tariff, lawfully on file with the United States 81230
department of transportation, for the purpose of group travel to a 81231
specified destination or for a particular itinerary, either agreed 81232
upon in advance or modified by the chartered group after having 81233
left the place of origin.81234

       (HH) "International registration plan" means a reciprocal 81235
agreement of member jurisdictions that is endorsed by the American 81236
association of motor vehicle administrators, and that promotes and 81237
encourages the fullest possible use of the highway system by 81238
authorizing apportioned registration of fleets of vehicles and 81239
recognizing registration of vehicles apportioned in member 81240
jurisdictions.81241

       (II) "Restricted plate" means a license plate that has a 81242
restriction of time, geographic area, mileage, or commodity, and 81243
includes license plates issued to farm trucks under division (J) 81244
of section 4503.04 of the Revised Code.81245

       (JJ) "Gross vehicle weight," with regard to any commercial 81246
car, trailer, semitrailer, or bus that is taxed at the rates 81247
established under section 4503.042 or 4503.65 of the Revised Code, 81248
means the unladen weight of the vehicle fully equipped plus the 81249
maximum weight of the load to be carried on the vehicle.81250

       (KK) "Combined gross vehicle weight" with regard to any 81251
combination of a commercial car, trailer, and semitrailer, that is 81252
taxed at the rates established under section 4503.042 or 4503.65 81253
of the Revised Code, means the total unladen weight of the 81254
combination of vehicles fully equipped plus the maximum weight of 81255
the load to be carried on that combination of vehicles.81256

       (LL) "Chauffeured limousine" means a motor vehicle that is 81257
designed to carry nine or fewer passengers and is operated for 81258
hire on an hourly basis pursuant to a prearranged contract for the 81259
transportation of passengers on public roads and highways along a 81260
route under the control of the person hiring the vehicle and not 81261
over a defined and regular route. "Prearranged contract" means an 81262
agreement, made in advance of boarding, to provide transportation 81263
from a specific location in a chauffeured limousine at a fixed 81264
rate per hour or trip. "Chauffeured limousine" does not include 81265
any vehicle that is used exclusively in the business of funeral 81266
directing.81267

       (MM) "Manufactured home" has the same meaning as in division 81268
(C)(4) of section 3781.06 of the Revised Code.81269

       (NN) "Acquired situs," with respect to a manufactured home or 81270
a mobile home, means to become located in this state by the 81271
placement of the home on real property, but does not include the 81272
placement of a manufactured home or a mobile home in the inventory 81273
of a new motor vehicle dealer or the inventory of a manufacturer, 81274
remanufacturer, or distributor of manufactured or mobile homes.81275

       (OO) "Electronic" includes electrical, digital, magnetic, 81276
optical, electromagnetic, or any other form of technology that 81277
entails capabilities similar to these technologies.81278

       (PP) "Electronic record" means a record generated, 81279
communicated, received, or stored by electronic means for use in 81280
an information system or for transmission from one information 81281
system to another.81282

       (QQ) "Electronic signature" means a signature in electronic 81283
form attached to or logically associated with an electronic 81284
record.81285

       (RR) "Financial transaction device" has the same meaning as 81286
in division (A) of section 113.40 of the Revised Code.81287

       (SS) "Electronic motor vehicle dealer" means a motor vehicle 81288
dealer licensed under Chapter 4517. of the Revised Code whom the 81289
registrar of motor vehicles determines meets the criteria 81290
designated in section 4503.035 of the Revised Code for electronic 81291
motor vehicle dealers and designates as an electronic motor 81292
vehicle dealer under that section.81293

       (TT) "Electric personal assistive mobility device" means a 81294
self-balancing two non-tandem wheeled device that is designed to 81295
transport only one person, has an electric propulsion system of an 81296
average of seven hundred fifty watts, and when ridden on a paved 81297
level surface by an operator who weighs one hundred seventy pounds 81298
has a maximum speed of less than twenty miles per hour.81299

       (UU) "Limited driving privileges" means the privilege to 81300
operate a motor vehicle that a court grants under section 4510.021 81301
of the Revised Code to a person whose driver's or commercial 81302
driver's license or permit or nonresident operating privilege has 81303
been suspended.81304

       (VV) "Utility vehicle" means a self-propelled vehicle 81305
designed with a bed, principally for the purpose of transporting 81306
material or cargo in connection with construction, agricultural, 81307
forestry, grounds maintenance, lawn and garden, materials 81308
handling, or similar activities. "Utility vehicle" includes a 81309
vehicle with a maximum attainable speed of twenty miles per hour 81310
or less that is used exclusively within the boundaries of state 81311
parks by state park employees or volunteers for the operation or 81312
maintenance of state park facilities.81313

       Sec. 4501.21.  (A) There is hereby created in the state 81314
treasury the license plate contribution fund. The fund shall 81315
consist of all contributions paid by motor vehicle registrants and 81316
collected by the registrar of motor vehicles pursuant to sections 81317
4503.491, 4503.493, 4503.494, 4503.496, 4503.498, 4503.499, 81318
4503.50, 4503.501, 4503.502, 4503.505, 4503.51, 4503.522, 81319
4503.523, 4503.524, 4503.526, 4503.531, 4503.545, 4503.55, 81320
4503.551, 4503.552, 4503.553, 4503.561, 4503.562, 4503.564, 81321
4503.591, 4503.67, 4503.68, 4503.69, 4503.701, 4503.71, 4503.711, 81322
4503.712, 4503.713, 4503.72, 4503.73, 4503.732, 4503.74, 4503.75, 81323
4503.751, 4503.85, 4503.89, 4503.92, and 4503.94 of the Revised 81324
Code. 81325

       (B) The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 81326
collects in the fund as follows: 81327

        The registrar shall pay the contributions received pursuant 81328
to section 4503.491 of the Revised Code to the breast cancer fund 81329
of Ohio, which shall use that money only to pay for programs that 81330
provide assistance and education to Ohio breast cancer patients 81331
and that improve access for such patients to quality health care 81332
and clinical trials and shall not use any of the money for 81333
abortion information, counseling, services, or other 81334
abortion-related activities. 81335

        The registrar shall pay the contributions received pursuant 81336
to section 4503.493 of the Revised Code to the autism society of 81337
Ohio, which shall use the contributions for programs and autism 81338
awareness efforts throughout the state. 81339

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 81340
receives pursuant to section 4503.494 of the Revised Code to the 81341
national multiple sclerosis society for distribution in equal 81342
amounts to the northwestern Ohio, Ohio buckeye, and Ohio valley 81343
chapters of the national multiple sclerosis society. These 81344
chapters shall use the money they receive under this section to 81345
assist in paying the expenses they incur in providing services 81346
directly to their clients.81347

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 81348
receives pursuant to section 4503.496 of the Revised Code to the 81349
Ohio sickle cell and health association, which shall use the 81350
contributions to help support educational, clinical, and social 81351
support services for adults who have sickle cell disease.81352

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 81353
receives pursuant to section 4503.498 of the Revised Code to 81354
special olympics Ohio, inc., which shall use the contributions for 81355
its programs, charitable efforts, and other activities. 81356

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 81357
receives pursuant to section 4503.499 of the Revised Code to the 81358
children's glioma cancer foundation, which shall use the 81359
contributions for its research and other programs. 81360

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 81361
receives pursuant to section 4503.50 of the Revised Code to the 81362
future farmers of America foundation, which shall deposit the 81363
contributions into its general account to be used for educational 81364
and scholarship purposes of the future farmers of America 81365
foundation. 81366

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 81367
receives pursuant to section 4503.501 of the Revised Code to the 81368
4-H youth development program of the Ohio state university 81369
extension program, which shall use those contributions to pay the 81370
expenses it incurs in conducting its educational activities. 81371

        The registrar shall pay the contributions received pursuant 81372
to section 4503.502 of the Revised Code to the Ohio cattlemen's 81373
foundation, which shall use those contributions for scholarships 81374
and other educational activities. 81375

       The registrar shall pay the contributions received pursuant 81376
to section 4503.505 of the Revised Code to the organization Ohio 81377
region phi theta kappa, which shall use those contributions for 81378
scholarships for students who are members of that organization. 81379

        The registrar shall pay each contribution the registrar 81380
receives pursuant to section 4503.51 of the Revised Code to the 81381
university or college whose name or marking or design appears on 81382
collegiate license plates that are issued to a person under that 81383
section. A university or college that receives contributions from 81384
the fund shall deposit the contributions into its general 81385
scholarship fund. 81386

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 81387
receives pursuant to section 4503.522 of the Revised Code to the 81388
"friends of Perry's victory and international peace memorial, 81389
incorporated," a nonprofit corporation organized under the laws of 81390
this state, to assist that organization in paying the expenses it 81391
incurs in sponsoring or holding charitable, educational, and 81392
cultural events at the monument. 81393

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 81394
receives pursuant to section 4503.523 of the Revised Code to the 81395
fairport lights foundation, which shall use the money to pay for 81396
the restoration, maintenance, and preservation of the lighthouses 81397
of fairport harbor. 81398

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 81399
receives pursuant to section 4503.524 of the Revised Code to the 81400
Massillon tiger football booster club, which shall use the 81401
contributions only to promote and support the football team of 81402
Washington high school of the Massillon city school district.81403

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 81404
receives pursuant to section 4503.526 of the Revised Code to the 81405
Ohio district Kiwanis foundation of the Ohio district of Kiwanis 81406
international, which shall use the money it receives under this 81407
section to pay the costs of its educational and humanitarian 81408
activities.81409

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 81410
receives pursuant to section 4503.531 of the Revised Code to the 81411
thank you foundation, incorporated, a nonprofit corporation 81412
organized under the laws of this state, to assist that 81413
organization in paying for the charitable activities and programs 81414
it sponsors in support of United States military personnel, 81415
veterans, and their families.81416

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 81417
receives pursuant to section 4503.55 of the Revised Code to the 81418
pro football hall of fame, which shall deposit the contributions 81419
into a special bank account that it establishes and which shall be 81420
separate and distinct from any other account the pro football hall 81421
of fame maintains, to be used exclusively for the purpose of 81422
promoting the pro football hall of fame as a travel destination. 81423

        The registrar shall pay the contributions that are paid to 81424
the registrar pursuant to section 4503.545 of the Revised Code to 81425
the national rifle association foundation, which shall use the 81426
money to pay the costs of the educational activities and programs 81427
the foundation holds or sponsors in this state. 81428

        The registrar shall pay to the Ohio pet fund the 81429
contributions the registrar receives pursuant to section 4503.551 81430
of the Revised Code and any other money from any other source, 81431
including donations, gifts, and grants, that is designated by the 81432
source to be paid to the Ohio pet fund. The Ohio pet fund shall 81433
use the moneys it receives under this section to support programs 81434
for the sterilization of dogs and cats and for educational 81435
programs concerning the proper veterinary care of those animals, 81436
and for expenses of the Ohio pet fund that are reasonably 81437
necessary for it to obtain and maintain its tax-exempt status and 81438
to perform its duties. 81439

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 81440
receives pursuant to section 4503.552 of the Revised Code to the 81441
rock and roll hall of fame and museum, incorporated. 81442

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 81443
receives pursuant to section 4503.553 of the Revised Code to the 81444
Ohio coalition for animals, incorporated, a nonprofit corporation. 81445
Except as provided in division (B) of this section, the coalition 81446
shall distribute the money to its members, and the members shall 81447
use the money only to pay for educational, charitable, and other 81448
programs of each coalition member that provide care for unwanted, 81449
abused, and neglected horses. The Ohio coalition for animals may 81450
use a portion of the money to pay for reasonable marketing costs 81451
incurred in the design and promotion of the license plate and for 81452
administrative costs incurred in the disbursement and management 81453
of funds received under this section. 81454

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 81455
receives pursuant to section 4503.561 of the Revised Code to the 81456
state of Ohio chapter of ducks unlimited, inc., which shall 81457
deposit the contributions into a special bank account that it 81458
establishes. The special bank account shall be separate and 81459
distinct from any other account the state of Ohio chapter of ducks 81460
unlimited, inc., maintains and shall be used exclusively for the 81461
purpose of protecting, enhancing, restoring, and managing wetlands 81462
and conserving wildlife habitat. The state of Ohio chapter of 81463
ducks unlimited, inc., annually shall notify the registrar in 81464
writing of the name, address, and account to which such payments 81465
are to be made. 81466

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 81467
receives pursuant to section 4503.562 of the Revised Code to the 81468
Mahoning river consortium, which shall use the money to pay the 81469
expenses it incurs in restoring and maintaining the Mahoning river 81470
watershed. 81471

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 81472
receives pursuant to section 4503.564 of the Revised Code to 81473
Antioch college for the use of the Glen Helen ecology institute to 81474
pay expenses related to the Glen Helen nature preserve.81475

        The registrar shall pay to a sports commission created 81476
pursuant to section 4503.591 of the Revised Code each contribution 81477
the registrar receives under that section that an applicant pays 81478
to obtain license plates that bear the logo of a professional 81479
sports team located in the county of that sports commission and 81480
that is participating in the license plate program pursuant to 81481
division (E) of that section, irrespective of the county of 81482
residence of an applicant. 81483

        The registrar shall pay to a community charity each 81484
contribution the registrar receives under section 4503.591 of the 81485
Revised Code that an applicant pays to obtain license plates that 81486
bear the logo of a professional sports team that is participating 81487
in the license plate program pursuant to division (G) of that 81488
section. 81489

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 81490
receives pursuant to section 4503.67 of the Revised Code to the 81491
Dan Beard council of the boy scouts of America. The council shall 81492
distribute all contributions in an equitable manner throughout the 81493
state to regional councils of the boy scouts. 81494

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 81495
receives pursuant to section 4503.68 of the Revised Code to the 81496
great river council of the girl scouts of the United States of 81497
America. The council shall distribute all contributions in an 81498
equitable manner throughout the state to regional councils of the 81499
girl scouts. 81500

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 81501
receives pursuant to section 4503.69 of the Revised Code to the 81502
Dan Beard council of the boy scouts of America. The council shall 81503
distribute all contributions in an equitable manner throughout the 81504
state to regional councils of the boy scouts. 81505

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 81506
receives pursuant to section 4503.701 of the Revised Code to the 81507
Prince Hall grand lodge of free and accepted masons of Ohio, which 81508
shall use the contributions for scholarship purposes.81509

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 81510
receives pursuant to section 4503.71 of the Revised Code to the 81511
fraternal order of police of Ohio, incorporated, which shall 81512
deposit the fees into its general account to be used for purposes 81513
of the fraternal order of police of Ohio, incorporated. 81514

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 81515
receives pursuant to section 4503.711 of the Revised Code to the 81516
fraternal order of police of Ohio, incorporated, which shall 81517
deposit the contributions into an account that it creates to be 81518
used for the purpose of advancing and protecting the law 81519
enforcement profession, promoting improved law enforcement 81520
methods, and teaching respect for law and order. 81521

       The registrar shall pay the contributions received pursuant 81522
to section 4503.712 of the Revised Code to Ohio concerns of police 81523
survivors, which shall use those contributions to provide whatever 81524
assistance may be appropriate to the families of Ohio law 81525
enforcement officers who are killed in the line of duty. 81526

       The registrar shall pay the contributions received pursuant 81527
to section 4503.713 of the Revised Code to the greater Cleveland 81528
peace officers memorial society, which shall use those 81529
contributions to honor law enforcement officers who have died in 81530
the line of duty and support its charitable purposes.81531

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 81532
receives pursuant to section 4503.72 of the Revised Code to the 81533
organization known on March 31, 2003, as the Ohio CASA/GAL 81534
association, a private, nonprofit corporation organized under 81535
Chapter 1702. of the Revised Code. The Ohio CASA/GAL association 81536
shall use these contributions to pay the expenses it incurs in 81537
administering a program to secure the proper representation in the 81538
courts of this state of abused, neglected, and dependent children, 81539
and for the training and supervision of persons participating in 81540
that program. 81541

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 81542
receives pursuant to section 4503.73 of the Revised Code to Wright 81543
B. Flyer, incorporated, which shall deposit the contributions into 81544
its general account to be used for purposes of Wright B. Flyer, 81545
incorporated. 81546

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 81547
receives pursuant to section 4503.732 of the Revised Code to the 81548
Siegel & Shuster society, a nonprofit organization dedicated to 81549
commemorating and celebrating the creation of Superman in 81550
Cleveland, Ohio.81551

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 81552
receives pursuant to section 4503.74 of the Revised Code to the 81553
Columbus zoological park association, which shall disburse the 81554
moneys to Ohio's major metropolitan zoos, as defined in section 81555
4503.74 of the Revised Code, in accordance with a written 81556
agreement entered into by the major metropolitan zoos. 81557

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 81558
receives pursuant to section 4503.75 of the Revised Code to the 81559
rotary foundation, located on March 31, 2003, in Evanston, 81560
Illinois, to be placed in a fund known as the permanent fund and 81561
used to endow educational and humanitarian programs of the rotary 81562
foundation. 81563

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 81564
receives pursuant to section 4503.751 of the Revised Code to the 81565
Ohio association of realtors, which shall deposit the 81566
contributions into a property disaster relief fund maintained 81567
under the Ohio realtors charitable and education foundation.81568

        The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 81569
receives pursuant to section 4503.85 of the Revised Code to the 81570
Ohio sea grant college program to be used for Lake Erie area 81571
research projects. 81572

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 81573
receives pursuant to section 4503.89 of the Revised Code to the 81574
American red cross of greater Columbus on behalf of the Ohio 81575
chapters of the American red cross, which shall use the 81576
contributions for disaster readiness, preparedness, and response 81577
programs on a statewide basis.81578

       The registrar shall pay the contributions received pursuant 81579
to section 4503.92 of the Revised Code to support our troops, 81580
incorporated, a national nonprofit corporation, which shall use 81581
those contributions in accordance with its articles of 81582
incorporation and for the benefit of servicemembers of the armed 81583
forces of the United States and their families when they are in 81584
financial need. 81585

       The registrar shall pay the contributions the registrar 81586
receives pursuant to section 4503.94 of the Revised Code to the 81587
Michelle's leading star foundation, which shall use the money 81588
solely to fund the rental, lease, or purchase of the simulated 81589
driving curriculum of the Michelle's leading star foundation by 81590
boards of education of city, exempted village, local, and joint 81591
vocational school districts.81592

       (C) All investment earnings of the license plate contribution 81593
fund shall be credited to the fund. Not later than the first day 81594
of May of every year, the registrar shall distribute to each 81595
entity described in division (B) of this section the investment 81596
income the fund earned the previous calendar year. The amount of 81597
such a distribution paid to an entity shall be proportionate to 81598
the amount of money the entity received from the fund during the 81599
previous calendar year.81600

       Sec. 4503.03.  (A)(1)(a) TheExcept as provided in division 81601
(B) of this section, the registrar of motor vehicles may designate 81602
the county auditor in each countyany of the following persons as81603
a deputy registrar. If the population of a county is forty 81604
thousand or less according to the last federal census and if the 81605
county auditor is designated by the registrar as a deputy 81606
registrar, no other person need be designated in the county to act 81607
as a deputy registrar:81608

       (i) The county auditor in any county;81609

       (ii) The clerk of a court of common pleas in any county 81610
subject to division (A)(1)(b) of this section;81611

       (iii) Any other person.81612

       (b) The registrar may designate a clerk of a court of common 81613
pleas as a deputy registrar if the population of thea county is 81614
forty thousand or less according to the last federal census. In a 81615
county with a population greater than forty thousand but not more 81616
than fifty thousand according to the last federal census, the 81617
clerk of a court of common pleas is eligible to act as a deputy 81618
registrar and may participate in the competitive selection process 81619
for the award of a deputy registrar contract by applying in the 81620
same manner as any other person. All fees collected and retained 81621
by a clerk for conducting deputy registrar services shall be paid 81622
into the county treasury to the credit of the certificate of title 81623
administration fund created under section 325.33 of the Revised 81624
Code.81625

       (c) In all other instances, the registrar shall contract with 81626
one or more other persons in each county to act as deputy 81627
registrars. As part of the selection process in awarding a deputy 81628
registrar contract, the registrar shall consider the customer 81629
service performance record of any person previously awarded a 81630
deputy registrar contract.81631

       Notwithstanding the county population restrictions in 81632
division (A)(1)(b) of this section, if no person applies to act 81633
under contract as a deputy registrar in a county and the county 81634
auditor is not designated as a deputy registrar, the registrar may 81635
ask the clerk of a court of common pleas to serve as the deputy 81636
registrar for that county.81637

       (c) The registrar shall determine the need for a deputy 81638
registrar in each county. If the registrar determines that deputy 81639
registrar services are adequately provided either by a deputy 81640
registrar in that county or a deputy registrar in an adjoining 81641
county, no additional person shall be designated to act as deputy 81642
registrar. If the registrar determines that deputy registrar 81643
services are not adequately provided in that county, the registrar 81644
may appoint one or more deputy registrars as are necessary to 81645
provide adequate services.81646

       As part of the selection process in awarding a deputy 81647
registrar contract, the registrar shall consider the customer 81648
service performance record of any person previously awarded a 81649
deputy registrar contract.81650

       (2) Deputy registrars shall accept applications for the 81651
annual license tax for any vehicle not taxed under section 4503.63 81652
of the Revised Code and shall assign distinctive numbers in the 81653
same manner as the registrar. Such deputies shall be located in 81654
such locations in the county as the registrar sees fit. There 81655
shall be at least one deputy registrar in each county.81656

       Deputy registrar contracts are subject to the provisions of 81657
division (B) of section 125.081 of the Revised Code.81658

       (B)(1) The registrar shall not contract with any person to 81659
act as a deputy registrar if the person or, where applicable, the 81660
person's spouse or a member of the person's immediate family has 81661
made, within the current calendar year or any one of the previous 81662
three calendar years, one or more contributions totaling in excess 81663
of one hundred dollars to any person or entity included in 81664
division (A)(2) of section 4503.033 of the Revised Code. As used 81665
in this division, "immediate family" has the same meaning as in 81666
division (D) of section 102.01 of the Revised Code, and "entity" 81667
includes any political party and any "continuing association" as 81668
defined in division (B)(4) of section 3517.01 of the Revised Code 81669
or "political action committee" as defined in division (B)(8) of 81670
that section that is primarily associated with that political 81671
party. For purposes of this division, contributions to any 81672
continuing association or any political action committee that is 81673
primarily associated with a political party shall be aggregated 81674
with contributions to that political party.81675

       The contribution limitations contained in this division do 81676
not apply to any county auditor or clerk of a court of common 81677
pleas. A county auditor or clerk of a court of common pleas is not 81678
required to file the disclosure statement or pay the filing fee 81679
required under section 4503.033 of the Revised Code. The 81680
limitations of this division also do not apply to a deputy 81681
registrar who, subsequent to being awarded a deputy registrar 81682
contract, is elected to an office of a political subdivision.81683

       (2) The registrar shall not contract with either of the 81684
following to act as a deputy registrar:81685

       (1)(a) Any elected public official other than a county 81686
auditor or, as authorized by division (A)(1)(b) of this section, a 81687
clerk of a court of common pleas, acting in an official capacity, 81688
except that, the registrar shall continue and may renew a contract 81689
with any deputy registrar who, subsequent to being awarded a 81690
deputy registrar contract, is elected to an office of a political 81691
subdivision;81692

       (2)(b) Any person holding a current, valid contract to 81693
conduct motor vehicle inspections under section 3704.14 of the 81694
Revised Code.81695

       (3) As used in division (B) of this section, "political 81696
subdivision" has the same meaning as in section 3501.01 of the 81697
Revised Code.81698

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, 81699
deputy registrars are independent contractors and neither they nor 81700
their employees are employees of this state, except that nothing 81701
in this section shall affect the status of county auditors or 81702
clerks of courts of common pleas as public officials, nor the 81703
status of their employees as employees of any of the counties of 81704
this state, which are political subdivisions of this state. Each 81705
deputy registrar shall be responsible for the payment of all 81706
unemployment compensation premiums, all workers' compensation 81707
premiums, social security contributions, and any and all taxes for 81708
which the deputy registrar is legally responsible. Each deputy 81709
registrar shall comply with all applicable federal, state, and 81710
local laws requiring the withholding of income taxes or other 81711
taxes from the compensation of the deputy registrar's employees. 81712
Each deputy registrar shall maintain during the entire term of the 81713
deputy registrar's contract a policy of business liability 81714
insurance satisfactory to the registrar and shall hold the 81715
department of public safety, the director of public safety, the 81716
bureau of motor vehicles, and the registrar harmless upon any and 81717
all claims for damages arising out of the operation of the deputy 81718
registrar agency.81719

       (2) For purposes of Chapter 4141. of the Revised Code, 81720
determinations concerning the employment of deputy registrars and 81721
their employees shall be made under Chapter 4141. of the Revised 81722
Code.81723

       (D)(1) With the approval of the director, the registrar shall 81724
adopt rules governing thedeputy registrars. The rules shall do 81725
all of the following:81726

       (a) Establish requirements governing the terms of the 81727
contract between the registrar and each deputy registrar and 81728
specifications for the services to be performed. The rules shall 81729
include specifications relating to the;81730

       (b) Establish requirements governing the amount of bond to be 81731
given as provided in this section; the81732

       (c) Establish requirements governing the size and location of 81733
the deputy's office; and81734

       (d) Establish requirements governing the leasing of equipment 81735
necessary to conduct the vision screenings required under section 81736
4507.12 of the Revised Code and training in the use of the 81737
equipment. The specifications shall permit and encourage;81738

       (e) Encourage every deputy registrar to inform the public of 81739
the location of the deputy registrar's office and hours of 81740
operation by means of public service announcements and allow;81741

       (f) Allow any deputy registrar to advertise in regard to the 81742
operation of the deputy registrar's office. The rules also shall 81743
include specifications for;81744

       (g) Specify the hours the deputy's office is to be open to 81745
the public and shall require as a minimum that one deputy's 81746
office in each county containing a deputy registrar's office be 81747
open to the public for at least four hours each weekend, provided 81748
that if only one deputy's office is located within the boundary of 81749
the county seat, that office is the office that shall be open for 81750
the four-hour period each weekend. The rules also shall include 81751
specifications providing;81752

       (h) Specify that every deputy in each countyregistrar, upon 81753
request, provide any person with information about the location 81754
and office hours of all deputy registrars in the county and that 81755
every deputy prominently display within the deputy's office, the 81756
toll-free telephone number of the bureau. The rules shall not 81757
prohibit the award of;81758

       (i) Allow a deputy registrar contract to be awarded to a 81759
nonprofit corporation formed under the laws of this state. The 81760
rules shall;81761

       (j) Except as provided in division (D)(2) of this section,81762
prohibit any deputy registrar from operating more than one such81763
deputy registrar's office at any time, except that the rules may 81764
permit a nonprofit corporation formed for the purposes of 81765
providing automobile-related services to its members or the public 81766
and that provides such services from more than one location in 81767
this state to operate a deputy registrar office at any such 81768
location, provided that the nonprofit corporation operates no more 81769
than one deputy registrar office in any one county. The rules may 81770
include such other specifications as the registrar and director 81771
consider necessary to provide a high level of service.81772

       The rules shall establish;81773

       (k) For the duration of any deputy registrar contract, 81774
require that the deputy registrar occupy a primary residence in a 81775
location that is within a one-hour commute time from the deputy 81776
registrar's office or offices. The rules shall require the 81777
registrar to determine commute time by using multiple established 81778
internet-based mapping services.81779

       (l) Establish procedures for a deputy registrar who requests 81780
suchto request the authority to collect reinstatement fees under 81781
sections 4507.1612, 4507.45, 4509.101, 4509.81, 4510.10, 4510.22, 81782
4510.72, and 4511.191 of the Revised Code and to transmit the 81783
reinstatement fees and two dollars of the service fee collected 81784
under those sections. The registrar shall ensure that, not later 81785
than January 1, 2012, at least one deputy registrar in each county 81786
containing a deputy registrar's office has the necessary equipment 81787
and is able to accept reinstatement fees. The registrar shall 81788
deposit the service fees received from a deputy registrar under 81789
those sections into the state bureau of motor vehicles fund 81790
created in section 4501.25 of the Revised Code and shall use the 81791
money for deputy registrar equipment necessary in connection with 81792
accepting reinstatement fees.81793

       (m) Establish such other requirements as the registrar and 81794
director consider necessary to provide a high level of service.81795

       (2) Notwithstanding division (D)(1)(j) of this section, the 81796
rules may allow both of the following:81797

       (a) The registrar to award a contract to a deputy registrar 81798
to operate more than one deputy registrar's office if determined 81799
by the registrar to be practical;81800

       (b) A nonprofit corporation formed for the purposes of 81801
providing automobile-related services to its members or the public 81802
and that provides such services from more than one location in 81803
this state to operate a deputy registrar office at any location.81804

       (3) As a daily adjustment, the bureau of motor vehicles shall 81805
credit to a deputy registrar three dollars and fifty cents for 81806
each damaged license plate or validation sticker the deputy 81807
registrar replaces as a service to a member of the public.81808

       (3)(4)(a) With the prior approval of the registrar, each 81809
deputy registrar may conduct at the location of the deputy 81810
registrar's office any business that is consistent with the 81811
functions of a deputy registrar and that is not specifically 81812
mandated or authorized by this or another chapter of the Revised 81813
Code or by implementing rules of the registrar.81814

       (b) In accordance with guidelines the director of public 81815
safety shall establish, a deputy registrar may operate or contract 81816
for the operation of a vending machine at a deputy registrar 81817
location if products of the vending machine are consistent with 81818
the functions of a deputy registrar.81819

       (c) A deputy registrar may enter into an agreement with the 81820
Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission pursuant to division 81821
(A)(11) of section 5537.04 of the Revised Code for the purpose of 81822
allowing the general public to acquire from the deputy registrar 81823
the electronic toll collection devices that are used under the 81824
multi-jurisdiction electronic toll collection agreement between 81825
the Ohio turnpike and infrastructure commission and any other 81826
entities or agencies that participate in such an agreement. The 81827
approval of the registrar is not necessary if a deputy registrar 81828
engages in this activity.81829

       (4)(5) As used in this section and in section 4507.01 of the 81830
Revised Code, "nonprofit corporation" has the same meaning as in 81831
section 1702.01 of the Revised Code.81832

       (E)(1) Unless otherwise terminated and except for interim 81833
contracts of lesslasting not longer than one year, contracts with 81834
deputy registrars shall be for a term of at least two years, but 81835
no more than three years, and all contracts effective on or after81836
entered into through a competitive selection process and shall be 81837
limited in duration as follows: (a) For contracts entered into 81838
between July 1, 1996, shall be for a term of moreand June 29, 81839
2014, for a period of not less than two years, but not more than 81840
three years. All; (b) For contracts entered into on or after June 81841
29, 2014, for a period of not more than five years, unless the 81842
registrar determines that a shorter contract term is appropriate 81843
for a particular deputy registrar.81844

       (2) All contracts with deputy registrars shall expire on the 81845
last Saturday of June in the year of their expiration. ThePrior 81846
to the expiration of any deputy registrar contract, the registrar, 81847
with the approval of the director, may award a one-year contract 81848
extension to any deputy registrar who has provided exemplary 81849
service based upon objective performance evaluations.81850

       (3)(a) The auditor of state may examine the accounts, 81851
reports, systems, and other data of each deputy registrar at least 81852
every two years. The registrar, with the approval of the director, 81853
shall immediately remove a deputy who violates any provision of 81854
the Revised Code related to the duties as a deputy, any rule 81855
adopted by the registrar, or a term of the deputy's contract with 81856
the registrar. The registrar also may remove a deputy who, in the 81857
opinion of the registrar, has engaged in any conduct that is 81858
either unbecoming to one representing this state or is 81859
inconsistent with the efficient operation of the deputy's office.81860

       (b) If the registrar, with the approval of the director, 81861
determines that there is good cause to believe that a deputy 81862
registrar or a person proposing for a deputy registrar contract 81863
has engaged in any conduct that would require the denial or 81864
termination of the deputy registrar contract, the registrar may 81865
require the production of books, records, and papers as the 81866
registrar determines are necessary, and may take the depositions 81867
of witnesses residing within or outside the state in the same 81868
manner as is prescribed by law for the taking of depositions in 81869
civil actions in the court of common pleas, and for that purpose 81870
the registrar may issue a subpoena for any witness or a subpoena 81871
duces tecum to compel the production of any books, records, or 81872
papers, directed to the sheriff of the county where the witness 81873
resides or is found. Such a subpoena shall be served and returned 81874
in the same manner as a subpoena in a criminal case is served and 81875
returned. The fees of the sheriff shall be the same as that 81876
allowed in the court of common pleas in criminal cases. Witnesses 81877
shall be paid the fees and mileage provided for under section 81878
119.094 of the Revised Code. The fees and mileage shall be paid 81879
from the fund in the state treasury for the use of the agency in 81880
the same manner as other expenses of the agency are paid.81881

       In any case of disobedience or neglect of any subpoena served 81882
on any person or the refusal of any witness to testify to any 81883
matter regarding which the witness lawfully may be interrogated, 81884
the court of common pleas of any county where the disobedience, 81885
neglect, or refusal occurs or any judge of that court, on 81886
application by the registrar, shall compel obedience by attachment 81887
proceedings for contempt, as in the case of disobedience of the 81888
requirements of a subpoena issued from that court, or a refusal to 81889
testify in that court.81890

       (4) Nothing in this division (E) of this section shall be 81891
construed to require a hearing of any nature prior to the 81892
termination of any deputy registrar contract by the registrar, 81893
with the approval of the director, for cause.81894

       (F) Except as provided in section 2743.03 of the Revised 81895
Code, no court, other than the court of common pleas of Franklin 81896
county, has jurisdiction of any action against the department of 81897
public safety, the director, the bureau, or the registrar to 81898
restrain the exercise of any power or authority, or to entertain 81899
any action for declaratory judgment, in the selection and 81900
appointment of, or contracting with, deputy registrars. Neither 81901
the department, the director, the bureau, nor the registrar is 81902
liable in any action at law for damages sustained by any person 81903
because of any acts of the department, the director, the bureau, 81904
or the registrar, or of any employee of the department or bureau, 81905
in the performance of official duties in the selection and 81906
appointment of, and contracting with, deputy registrars.81907

       (G) The registrar shall assign to each deputy registrar a 81908
series of numbers sufficient to supply the demand at all times in 81909
the area the deputy registrar serves, and the registrar shall keep 81910
a record in the registrar's office of the numbers within the 81911
series assigned. Each deputy shall be required to give bond in the 81912
amount of at least twenty-five thousand dollars, or in such higher 81913
amount as the registrar determines necessary, based on a uniform 81914
schedule of bond amounts established by the registrar and 81915
determined by the volume of registrations handled by the deputy. 81916
The form of the bond shall be prescribed by the registrar. The 81917
bonds required of deputy registrars, in the discretion of the 81918
registrar, may be individual or schedule bonds or may be included 81919
in any blanket bond coverage carried by the department.81920

       (H) Each deputy registrar shall keep a file of each 81921
application received by the deputy and shall register that motor 81922
vehicle with the name and address of its owner.81923

       (I) Upon request, a deputy registrar shall make the physical 81924
inspection of a motor vehicle and issue the physical inspection 81925
certificate required in section 4505.061 of the Revised Code.81926

       (J) Each deputy registrar shall file a report semiannually 81927
with the registrar of motor vehicles listing the number of 81928
applicants for licenses the deputy has served, the number of voter 81929
registration applications the deputy has completed and transmitted 81930
to the board of elections, and the number of voter registration 81931
applications declined.81932

       Sec. 4503.10.  (A) The owner of every snowmobile, off-highway 81933
motorcycle, and all-purpose vehicle required to be registered 81934
under section 4519.02 of the Revised Code shall file an 81935
application for registration under section 4519.03 of the Revised 81936
Code. The owner of a motor vehicle, other than a snowmobile, 81937
off-highway motorcycle, or all-purpose vehicle, that is not 81938
designed and constructed by the manufacturer for operation on a 81939
street or highway may not register it under this chapter except 81940
upon certification of inspection pursuant to section 4513.02 of 81941
the Revised Code by the sheriff, or the chief of police of the 81942
municipal corporation or township, with jurisdiction over the 81943
political subdivision in which the owner of the motor vehicle 81944
resides. Except as provided in section 4503.103 of the Revised 81945
Code, every owner of every other motor vehicle not previously 81946
described in this section and every person mentioned as owner in 81947
the last certificate of title of a motor vehicle that is operated 81948
or driven upon the public roads or highways shall cause to be 81949
filed each year, by mail or otherwise, in the office of the 81950
registrar of motor vehicles or a deputy registrar, a written or 81951
electronic application or a preprinted registration renewal notice 81952
issued under section 4503.102 of the Revised Code, the form of 81953
which shall be prescribed by the registrar, for registration for 81954
the following registration year, which shall begin on the first 81955
day of January of every calendar year and end on the thirty-first 81956
day of December in the same year. Applications for registration 81957
and registration renewal notices shall be filed at the times 81958
established by the registrar pursuant to section 4503.101 of the 81959
Revised Code. A motor vehicle owner also may elect to apply for or 81960
renew a motor vehicle registration by electronic means using 81961
electronic signature in accordance with rules adopted by the 81962
registrar. Except as provided in division (J) of this section, 81963
applications for registration shall be made on blanks furnished by 81964
the registrar for that purpose, containing the following 81965
information:81966

       (1) A brief description of the motor vehicle to be 81967
registered, including the year, make, model, and vehicle 81968
identification number, and, in the case of commercial cars, the 81969
gross weight of the vehicle fully equipped computed in the manner 81970
prescribed in section 4503.08 of the Revised Code;81971

       (2) The name and residence address of the owner, and the 81972
township and municipal corporation in which the owner resides;81973

       (3) The district of registration, which shall be determined 81974
as follows:81975

       (a) In case the motor vehicle to be registered is used for 81976
hire or principally in connection with any established business or 81977
branch business, conducted at a particular place, the district of 81978
registration is the municipal corporation in which that place is 81979
located or, if not located in any municipal corporation, the 81980
county and township in which that place is located.81981

       (b) In case the vehicle is not so used, the district of 81982
registration is the municipal corporation or county in which the 81983
owner resides at the time of making the application.81984

       (4) Whether the motor vehicle is a new or used motor vehicle;81985

       (5) The date of purchase of the motor vehicle;81986

       (6) Whether the fees required to be paid for the registration 81987
or transfer of the motor vehicle, during the preceding 81988
registration year and during the preceding period of the current 81989
registration year, have been paid. Each application for 81990
registration shall be signed by the owner, either manually or by 81991
electronic signature, or pursuant to obtaining a limited power of 81992
attorney authorized by the registrar for registration, or other 81993
document authorizing such signature. If the owner elects to apply 81994
for or renew the motor vehicle registration with the registrar by 81995
electronic means, the owner's manual signature is not required.81996

       (7) The owner's social security number, driver's license 81997
number, or state identification number, or, where a motor vehicle 81998
to be registered is used for hire or principally in connection 81999
with any established business, the owner's federal taxpayer 82000
identification number. The bureau of motor vehicles shall retain 82001
in its records all social security numbers provided under this 82002
section, but the bureau shall not place social security numbers on 82003
motor vehicle certificates of registration.82004

       (B) Except as otherwise provided in this division, each time 82005
an applicant first registers a motor vehicle in the applicant's 82006
name, the applicant shall present for inspection a physical 82007
certificate of title or memorandum certificate showing title to 82008
the motor vehicle to be registered in the name of the applicant if 82009
a physical certificate of title or memorandum certificate has been 82010
issued by a clerk of a court of common pleas. If, under sections 82011
4505.021, 4505.06, and 4505.08 of the Revised Code, a clerk 82012
instead has issued an electronic certificate of title for the 82013
applicant's motor vehicle, that certificate may be presented for 82014
inspection at the time of first registration in a manner 82015
prescribed by rules adopted by the registrar. An applicant is not 82016
required to present a certificate of title to an electronic motor 82017
vehicle dealer acting as a limited authority deputy registrar in 82018
accordance with rules adopted by the registrar. When a motor 82019
vehicle inspection and maintenance program is in effect under 82020
section 3704.14 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under it, 82021
each application for registration for a vehicle required to be 82022
inspected under that section and those rules shall be accompanied 82023
by an inspection certificate for the motor vehicle issued in 82024
accordance with that section. The application shall be refused if 82025
any of the following applies:82026

       (1) The application is not in proper form.82027

       (2) The application is prohibited from being accepted by 82028
division (D) of section 2935.27, division (A) of section 2937.221, 82029
division (A) of section 4503.13, division (B) of section 4510.22, 82030
or division (B)(1) of section 4521.10 of the Revised Code.82031

       (3) A certificate of title or memorandum certificate of title 82032
is required but does not accompany the application or, in the case 82033
of an electronic certificate of title, is required but is not 82034
presented in a manner prescribed by the registrar's rules.82035

       (4) All registration and transfer fees for the motor vehicle, 82036
for the preceding year or the preceding period of the current 82037
registration year, have not been paid.82038

       (5) The owner or lessee does not have an inspection 82039
certificate for the motor vehicle as provided in section 3704.14 82040
of the Revised Code, and rules adopted under it, if that section 82041
is applicable.82042

       This section does not require the payment of license or 82043
registration taxes on a motor vehicle for any preceding year, or 82044
for any preceding period of a year, if the motor vehicle was not 82045
taxable for that preceding year or period under sections 4503.02, 82046
4503.04, 4503.11, 4503.12, and 4503.16 or Chapter 4504. of the 82047
Revised Code. When a certificate of registration is issued upon 82048
the first registration of a motor vehicle by or on behalf of the 82049
owner, the official issuing the certificate shall indicate the 82050
issuance with a stamp on the certificate of title or memorandum 82051
certificate or, in the case of an electronic certificate of title, 82052
an electronic stamp or other notation as specified in rules 82053
adopted by the registrar, and with a stamp on the inspection 82054
certificate for the motor vehicle, if any. The official also shall 82055
indicate, by a stamp or by other means the registrar prescribes, 82056
on the registration certificate issued upon the first registration 82057
of a motor vehicle by or on behalf of the owner the odometer 82058
reading of the motor vehicle as shown in the odometer statement 82059
included in or attached to the certificate of title. Upon each 82060
subsequent registration of the motor vehicle by or on behalf of 82061
the same owner, the official also shall so indicate the odometer 82062
reading of the motor vehicle as shown on the immediately preceding 82063
certificate of registration.82064

       The registrar shall include in the permanent registration 82065
record of any vehicle required to be inspected under section 82066
3704.14 of the Revised Code the inspection certificate number from 82067
the inspection certificate that is presented at the time of 82068
registration of the vehicle as required under this division.82069

       (C)(1) Except as otherwise provided in division (C)(1) of 82070
this section, for each registration renewal with an expiration 82071
date on or after October 1, 2003, and for each initial application 82072
for registration received on and after that date, the registrar 82073
and each deputy registrar shall collect an additional fee of 82074
eleven dollars for each application for registration and 82075
registration renewal received. For vehicles specified in divisions 82076
(A)(1) to (21) of section 4503.042 of the Revised Code, commencing 82077
with each registration renewal with an expiration date on or after 82078
October 1, 2009, and for each initial application received on or 82079
after that date, the registrar and deputy registrar shall collect 82080
an additional fee of thirty dollars for each application for 82081
registration and registration renewal received. The additional fee 82082
is for the purpose of defraying the department of public safety's 82083
costs associated with the administration and enforcement of the 82084
motor vehicle and traffic laws of Ohio. Each deputy registrar 82085
shall transmit the fees collected under division (C)(1) of this 82086
section in the time and manner provided in this section. The 82087
registrar shall deposit all moneys received under division (C)(1) 82088
of this section into the state highway safety fund established in 82089
section 4501.06 of the Revised Code.82090

       (2) In addition, a charge of twenty-five cents shall be made 82091
for each reflectorized safety license plate issued, and a single 82092
charge of twenty-five cents shall be made for each county 82093
identification sticker or each set of county identification 82094
stickers issued, as the case may be, to cover the cost of 82095
producing the license plates and stickers, including material, 82096
manufacturing, and administrative costs. Those fees shall be in 82097
addition to the license tax. If the total cost of producing the 82098
plates is less than twenty-five cents per plate, or if the total 82099
cost of producing the stickers is less than twenty-five cents per 82100
sticker or per set issued, any excess moneys accruing from the 82101
fees shall be distributed in the same manner as provided by 82102
section 4501.04 of the Revised Code for the distribution of 82103
license tax moneys. If the total cost of producing the plates 82104
exceeds twenty-five cents per plate, or if the total cost of 82105
producing the stickers exceeds twenty-five cents per sticker or 82106
per set issued, the difference shall be paid from the license tax 82107
moneys collected pursuant to section 4503.02 of the Revised Code.82108

       (D) Each(1) For each registration or registration renewal, a82109
deputy registrar shall be allowed aboth of the following:82110

       (a) A fee of three dollars and fifty cents for each 82111
application for registration and registration renewal notice the 82112
deputy registrar receives, which; and82113

       (b) For each registration or registration renewal, a vendor 82114
allowance equal to two per cent of the applicable license tax 82115
specified under either section 4503.04 or 4503.042 of the Revised 82116
Code, plus two per cent of the fee collected under division (C)(1) 82117
of this section.82118

       (2) The fee and vendor allowance shall be for the purpose of 82119
compensating the deputy registrar for the deputy registrar's 82120
services, and such office and rental expenses, as may be necessary 82121
for the proper discharge of the deputy registrar's duties in the 82122
receiving of applications and renewal notices and the issuing of 82123
registrations.82124

       (E) Upon the certification of the registrar, the county 82125
sheriff or local police officials shall recover license plates 82126
erroneously or fraudulently issued.82127

       (F) Each deputy registrar, upon receipt of any application 82128
for registration or registration renewal notice, together with the 82129
license fee and any local motor vehicle license tax levied 82130
pursuant to Chapter 4504. of the Revised Code, shall transmit that 82131
fee and tax, if any, in the manner provided in this section, 82132
together with the original and duplicate copy of the application, 82133
to the registrar. The registrar, subject to the approval of the 82134
director of public safety, may deposit the funds collected by 82135
those deputies in a local bank or depository to the credit of the 82136
"state of Ohio, bureau of motor vehicles." Where a local bank or 82137
depository has been designated by the registrar, each deputy 82138
registrar shall deposit all moneys collected by the deputy 82139
registrar into that bank or depository not more than one business 82140
day after their collection and shall make reports to the registrar 82141
of the amounts so deposited, together with any other information, 82142
some of which may be prescribed by the treasurer of state, as the 82143
registrar may require and as prescribed by the registrar by rule. 82144
The registrar, within three days after receipt of notification of 82145
the deposit of funds by a deputy registrar in a local bank or 82146
depository, shall draw on that account in favor of the treasurer 82147
of state. The registrar, subject to the approval of the director 82148
and the treasurer of state, may make reasonable rules necessary 82149
for the prompt transmittal of fees and for safeguarding the 82150
interests of the state and of counties, townships, municipal 82151
corporations, and transportation improvement districts levying 82152
local motor vehicle license taxes. The registrar may pay service 82153
charges usually collected by banks and depositories for such 82154
service. If deputy registrars are located in communities where 82155
banking facilities are not available, they shall transmit the fees 82156
forthwith, by money order or otherwise, as the registrar, by rule 82157
approved by the director and the treasurer of state, may 82158
prescribe. The registrar may pay the usual and customary fees for 82159
such service.82160

       (G) This section does not prevent any person from making an 82161
application for a motor vehicle licenseregistration or 82162
registration renewal directly to the registrar by mail, by 82163
electronic means, or in person at any of the registrar's offices, 82164
upon payment of aboth of the following:82165

       (1) A service fee of three dollars and fifty cents for each 82166
application; and82167

       (2) For each registration or registration renewal, a vendor 82168
allowance equal to two per cent of the applicable license tax 82169
specified under either section 4503.04 or 4503.042 of the Revised 82170
Code, plus two per cent of the fee collected under division (C)(1) 82171
of this section.82172

       (H) No person shall make a false statement as to the district 82173
of registration in an application required by division (A) of this 82174
section. Violation of this division is falsification under section 82175
2921.13 of the Revised Code and punishable as specified in that 82176
section.82177

       (I)(1) Where applicable, the requirements of division (B) of 82178
this section relating to the presentation of an inspection 82179
certificate issued under section 3704.14 of the Revised Code and 82180
rules adopted under it for a motor vehicle, the refusal of a 82181
license for failure to present an inspection certificate, and the 82182
stamping of the inspection certificate by the official issuing the 82183
certificate of registration apply to the registration of and 82184
issuance of license plates for a motor vehicle under sections 82185
4503.102, 4503.12, 4503.14, 4503.15, 4503.16, 4503.171, 4503.172, 82186
4503.19, 4503.40, 4503.41, 4503.42, 4503.43, 4503.44, 4503.46, 82187
4503.47, and 4503.51 of the Revised Code.82188

       (2)(a) The registrar shall adopt rules ensuring that each 82189
owner registering a motor vehicle in a county where a motor 82190
vehicle inspection and maintenance program is in effect under 82191
section 3704.14 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under it 82192
receives information about the requirements established in that 82193
section and those rules and about the need in those counties to 82194
present an inspection certificate with an application for 82195
registration or preregistration.82196

       (b) Upon request, the registrar shall provide the director of 82197
environmental protection, or any person that has been awarded a 82198
contract under section 3704.14 of the Revised Code, an on-line 82199
computer data link to registration information for all passenger 82200
cars, noncommercial motor vehicles, and commercial cars that are 82201
subject to that section. The registrar also shall provide to the 82202
director of environmental protection a magnetic data tape 82203
containing registration information regarding passenger cars, 82204
noncommercial motor vehicles, and commercial cars for which a 82205
multi-year registration is in effect under section 4503.103 of the 82206
Revised Code or rules adopted under it, including, without 82207
limitation, the date of issuance of the multi-year registration, 82208
the registration deadline established under rules adopted under 82209
section 4503.101 of the Revised Code that was applicable in the 82210
year in which the multi-year registration was issued, and the 82211
registration deadline for renewal of the multi-year registration.82212

       (J) Subject to division (K) of this section, application for 82213
registration under the international registration plan, as set 82214
forth in sections 4503.60 to 4503.66 of the Revised Code, shall be 82215
made to the registrar on forms furnished by the registrar. In 82216
accordance with international registration plan guidelines and 82217
pursuant to rules adopted by the registrar, the forms shall 82218
include the following:82219

       (1) A uniform mileage schedule;82220

       (2) The gross vehicle weight of the vehicle or combined gross 82221
vehicle weight of the combination vehicle as declared by the 82222
registrant;82223

       (3) Any other information the registrar requires by rule.82224

       (K) The registrar shall determine the feasibility of 82225
implementing an electronic commercial fleet licensing and 82226
management program that will enable the owners of commercial 82227
tractors, commercial trailers, and commercial semitrailers to 82228
conduct electronic transactions by July 1, 2010, or sooner. If the 82229
registrar determines that implementing such a program is feasible, 82230
the registrar shall adopt new rules under this division or amend 82231
existing rules adopted under this division as necessary in order 82232
to respond to advances in technology.82233

       If international registration plan guidelines and provisions 82234
allow member jurisdictions to permit applications for 82235
registrations under the international registration plan to be made 82236
via the internet, the rules the registrar adopts under this 82237
division shall permit such action.82238

       Sec. 4503.44.  (A) As used in this section and in section 82239
4511.69 of the Revised Code:82240

       (1) "Person with a disability that limits or impairs the 82241
ability to walk" means any person who, as determined by a health 82242
care provider, meets any of the following criteria:82243

       (a) Cannot walk two hundred feet without stopping to rest;82244

       (b) Cannot walk without the use of, or assistance from, a 82245
brace, cane, crutch, another person, prosthetic device, 82246
wheelchair, or other assistive device;82247

       (c) Is restricted by a lung disease to such an extent that 82248
the person's forced (respiratory) expiratory volume for one 82249
second, when measured by spirometry, is less than one liter, or 82250
the arterial oxygen tension is less than sixty millimeters of 82251
mercury on room air at rest;82252

       (d) Uses portable oxygen;82253

       (e) Has a cardiac condition to the extent that the person's 82254
functional limitations are classified in severity as class III or 82255
class IV according to standards set by the American heart 82256
association;82257

       (f) Is severely limited in the ability to walk due to an 82258
arthritic, neurological, or orthopedic condition;82259

       (g) Is blind.82260

       (2) "Organization" means any private organization or 82261
corporation, or any governmental board, agency, department, 82262
division, or office, that, as part of its business or program, 82263
transports persons with disabilities that limit or impair the 82264
ability to walk on a regular basis in a motor vehicle that has not 82265
been altered for the purpose of providing it with special 82266
equipment for use by handicapped persons with disabilities. This 82267
definition does not apply to division (J) of this section.82268

       (3) "Health care provider" means a physician, physician 82269
assistant, advanced practice registered nurse, or chiropractor as 82270
defined in this section.82271

       (4) "Physician" means a person licensed to practice medicine 82272
or surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery under Chapter 4731. 82273
of the Revised Code.82274

       (5) "Chiropractor" means a person licensed to practice 82275
chiropractic under Chapter 4734. of the Revised Code.82276

       (6) "Advanced practice registered nurse" means a certified 82277
nurse practitioner, clinical nurse specialist, certified 82278
registered nurse anesthetist, or certified nurse-midwife who holds 82279
a certificate of authority issued by the board of nursing under 82280
Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code.82281

       (7) "Physician assistant" means a person who holds a 82282
certificate to practice as a physician assistant issued under 82283
Chapter 4730. of the Revised Code.82284

       (B) Any organization or person with a disability that limits 82285
or impairs the ability to walk may apply to the registrar of motor 82286
vehicles for a removable windshield placard or, if the person owns 82287
or leases a motor vehicle, the person may apply for the 82288
registration of any motor vehicle the person owns or leases. In 82289
addition to one or more sets of license plates or one placard, a 82290
person with a disability that limits or impairs the ability to 82291
walk is entitled to one additional placard, but only if the person 82292
applies separately for the additional placard, states the reasons 82293
why the additional placard is needed, and the registrar, in the 82294
registrar's discretion, determines that good and justifiable cause 82295
exists to approve the request for the additional placard. When a 82296
motor vehicle has been altered for the purpose of providing it 82297
with special equipment for a person with a disability that limits 82298
or impairs the ability to walk, but is owned or leased by someone 82299
other than such a person, the owner or lessee may apply to the 82300
registrar or a deputy registrar for registration under this 82301
section. The application for registration of a motor vehicle owned 82302
or leased by a person with a disability that limits or impairs the 82303
ability to walk shall be accompanied by a signed statement from 82304
the applicant's health care provider certifying that the applicant 82305
meets at least one of the criteria contained in division (A)(1) of 82306
this section and that the disability is expected to continue for 82307
more than six consecutive months. The application for a removable 82308
windshield placard made by a person with a disability that limits 82309
or impairs the ability to walk shall be accompanied by a 82310
prescription from the applicant's health care provider prescribing 82311
such a placard for the applicant, provided that the applicant 82312
meets at least one of the criteria contained in division (A)(1) of 82313
this section. The health care provider shall state on the 82314
prescription the length of time the health care provider expects 82315
the applicant to have the disability that limits or impairs the 82316
applicant's ability to walk. The application for a removable 82317
windshield placard made by an organization shall be accompanied by 82318
such documentary evidence of regular transport of persons with 82319
disabilities that limit or impair the ability to walk by the 82320
organization as the registrar may require by rule and shall be 82321
completed in accordance with procedures that the registrar may 82322
require by rule. The application for registration of a motor 82323
vehicle that has been altered for the purpose of providing it with 82324
special equipment for a person with a disability that limits or 82325
impairs the ability to walk but is owned by someone other than 82326
such a person shall be accompanied by such documentary evidence of 82327
vehicle alterations as the registrar may require by rule.82328

       (C) When an organization, a person with a disability that 82329
limits or impairs the ability to walk, or a person who does not 82330
have a disability that limits or impairs the ability to walk but 82331
owns a motor vehicle that has been altered for the purpose of 82332
providing it with special equipment for a person with a disability 82333
that limits or impairs the ability to walk first submits an 82334
application for registration of a motor vehicle under this section 82335
and every fifth year thereafter, the organization or person shall 82336
submit a signed statement from the applicant's health care 82337
provider, a completed application, and any required documentary 82338
evidence of vehicle alterations as provided in division (B) of 82339
this section, and also a power of attorney from the owner of the 82340
motor vehicle if the applicant leases the vehicle. Upon submission 82341
of these items, the registrar or deputy registrar shall issue to 82342
the applicant appropriate vehicle registration and a set of 82343
license plates and validation stickers, or validation stickers 82344
alone when required by section 4503.191 of the Revised Code. In 82345
addition to the letters and numbers ordinarily inscribed thereon, 82346
the license plates shall be imprinted with the international 82347
symbol of access. The license plates and validation stickers shall 82348
be issued upon payment of the regular license fee as prescribed 82349
under section 4503.04 of the Revised Code and any motor vehicle 82350
tax levied under Chapter 4504. of the Revised Code, and the 82351
payment of a service fee equal to the amount specified in division 82352
(D) or (G) of section 4503.10 of the Revised Code.82353

       (D)(1) Upon receipt of a completed and signed application for 82354
a removable windshield placard, a prescription as described in 82355
division (B) of this section, documentary evidence of regular 82356
transport of persons with disabilities that limit or impair the 82357
ability to walk, if required, and payment of a service fee equal 82358
to the amount specified in division (D) or (G) of section 4503.10 82359
of the Revised Code, the registrar or deputy registrar shall issue 82360
to the applicant a removable windshield placard, which shall bear 82361
the date of expiration on both sides of the placard and shall be 82362
valid until expired, revoked, or surrendered. Every removable 82363
windshield placard expires as described in division (D)(2) of this 82364
section, but in no case shall a removable windshield placard be 82365
valid for a period of less than sixty days. Removable windshield 82366
placards shall be renewable upon application as provided in 82367
division (B) of this section, and a service fee equal to the 82368
amount specified in division (D) or (G) of section 4503.10 of the 82369
Revised Code shall be charged for the renewal of a removable 82370
windshield placard. The registrar shall provide the application 82371
form and shall determine the information to be included thereon. 82372
The registrar also shall determine the form and size of the 82373
removable windshield placard, the material of which it is to be 82374
made, and any other information to be included thereon, and shall 82375
adopt rules relating to the issuance, expiration, revocation, 82376
surrender, and proper display of such placards. Any placard issued 82377
after October 14, 1999, shall be manufactured in a manner that 82378
allows the expiration date of the placard to be indicated on it 82379
through the punching, drilling, boring, or creation by any other 82380
means of holes in the placard.82381

       (2) At the time a removable windshield placard is issued to a 82382
person with a disability that limits or impairs the ability to 82383
walk, the registrar or deputy registrar shall enter into the 82384
records of the bureau of motor vehicles the last date on which the 82385
person will have that disability, as indicated on the accompanying 82386
prescription. Not less than thirty days prior to that date and all 82387
removable windshield placard renewal dates, the bureau shall send 82388
a renewal notice to that person at the person's last known address 82389
as shown in the records of the bureau, informing the person that 82390
the person's removable windshield placard will expire on the 82391
indicated date not to exceed five years from the date of issuance, 82392
and that the person is required to renew the placard by submitting 82393
to the registrar or a deputy registrar another prescription, as 82394
described in division (B) of this section, and by complying with 82395
the renewal provisions prescribed in division (D)(1) of this 82396
section. If such a prescription is not received by the registrar 82397
or a deputy registrar by that date, the placard issued to that 82398
person expires and no longer is valid, and this fact shall be 82399
recorded in the records of the bureau.82400

       (3) At least once every year, on a date determined by the 82401
registrar, the bureau shall examine the records of the office of 82402
vital statistics, located within the department of health, that 82403
pertain to deceased persons, and also the bureau's records of all 82404
persons who have been issued removable windshield placards and 82405
temporary removable windshield placards. If the records of the 82406
office of vital statistics indicate that a person to whom a 82407
removable windshield placard or temporary removable windshield 82408
placard has been issued is deceased, the bureau shall cancel that 82409
placard, and note the cancellation in its records.82410

       The office of vital statistics shall make available to the 82411
bureau all information necessary to enable the bureau to comply 82412
with division (D)(3) of this section.82413

       (4) Nothing in this section shall be construed to require a 82414
person or organization to apply for a removable windshield placard 82415
or special license plates if the parking card or special license 82416
plates issued to the person or organization under prior law have 82417
not expired or been surrendered or revoked.82418

       (E)(1)(a) Any person with a disability that limits or impairs 82419
the ability to walk may apply to the registrar or a deputy 82420
registrar for a temporary removable windshield placard. The 82421
application for a temporary removable windshield placard shall be 82422
accompanied by a prescription from the applicant's health care 82423
provider prescribing such a placard for the applicant, provided 82424
that the applicant meets at least one of the criteria contained in 82425
division (A)(1) of this section and that the disability is 82426
expected to continue for six consecutive months or less. The 82427
health care provider shall state on the prescription the length of 82428
time the health care provider expects the applicant to have the 82429
disability that limits or impairs the applicant's ability to walk, 82430
which cannot exceed six months from the date of the prescription. 82431
Upon receipt of an application for a temporary removable 82432
windshield placard, presentation of the prescription from the 82433
applicant's health care provider, and payment of a service fee 82434
equal to the amount specified in division (D) or (G) of section 82435
4503.10 of the Revised Code, the registrar or deputy registrar 82436
shall issue to the applicant a temporary removable windshield 82437
placard.82438

       (b) Any active-duty member of the armed forces of the United 82439
States, including the reserve components of the armed forces and 82440
the national guard, who has an illness or injury that limits or 82441
impairs the ability to walk may apply to the registrar or a deputy 82442
registrar for a temporary removable windshield placard. With the 82443
application, the person shall present evidence of the person's 82444
active-duty status and the illness or injury. Evidence of the 82445
illness or injury may include a current department of defense 82446
convalescent leave statement, any department of defense document 82447
indicating that the person currently has an ill or injured 82448
casualty status or has limited duties, or a prescription from any 82449
health care provider prescribing the placard for the applicant. 82450
Upon receipt of the application and the necessary evidence, the 82451
registrar or deputy registrar shall issue the applicant the 82452
temporary removable windshield placard without the payment of any 82453
service fee.82454

       (2) The temporary removable windshield placard shall be of 82455
the same size and form as the removable windshield placard, shall 82456
be printed in white on a red-colored background, and shall bear 82457
the word "temporary" in letters of such size as the registrar 82458
shall prescribe. A temporary removable windshield placard also 82459
shall bear the date of expiration on the front and back of the 82460
placard, and shall be valid until expired, surrendered, or 82461
revoked, but in no case shall such a placard be valid for a period 82462
of less than sixty days. The registrar shall provide the 82463
application form and shall determine the information to be 82464
included on it, provided that the registrar shall not require a 82465
health care provider's prescription or certification for a person 82466
applying under division (E)(1)(b) of this section. The registrar 82467
also shall determine the material of which the temporary removable 82468
windshield placard is to be made and any other information to be 82469
included on the placard and shall adopt rules relating to the 82470
issuance, expiration, surrender, revocation, and proper display of 82471
those placards. Any temporary removable windshield placard issued 82472
after October 14, 1999, shall be manufactured in a manner that 82473
allows for the expiration date of the placard to be indicated on 82474
it through the punching, drilling, boring, or creation by any 82475
other means of holes in the placard.82476

       (F) If an applicant for a removable windshield placard is a 82477
veteran of the armed forces of the United States whose disability, 82478
as defined in division (A)(1) of this section, is 82479
service-connected, the registrar or deputy registrar, upon receipt 82480
of the application, presentation of a signed statement from the 82481
applicant's health care provider certifying the applicant's 82482
disability, and presentation of such documentary evidence from the 82483
department of veterans affairs that the disability of the 82484
applicant meets at least one of the criteria identified in 82485
division (A)(1) of this section and is service-connected as the 82486
registrar may require by rule, but without the payment of any 82487
service fee, shall issue the applicant a removable windshield 82488
placard that is valid until expired, surrendered, or revoked.82489

       (G) Upon a conviction of a violation of division (I), (J), or 82490
(K) of this section, the court shall report the conviction, and 82491
send the placard or parking card, if available, to the registrar, 82492
who thereupon shall revoke the privilege of using the placard or 82493
parking card and send notice in writing to the placardholder or 82494
cardholder at that holder's last known address as shown in the 82495
records of the bureau, and the placardholder or cardholder shall 82496
return the placard or card if not previously surrendered to the 82497
court, to the registrar within ten days following mailing of the 82498
notice.82499

       Whenever a person to whom a removable windshield placard or 82500
parking card has been issued moves to another state, the person 82501
shall surrender the placard or card to the registrar; and whenever 82502
an organization to which a placard or card has been issued changes 82503
its place of operation to another state, the organization shall 82504
surrender the placard or card to the registrar.82505

       (H) Subject to division (F) of section 4511.69 of the Revised 82506
Code, the operator of a motor vehicle displaying a removable 82507
windshield placard, temporary removable windshield placard, 82508
parking card, or the special license plates authorized by this 82509
section is entitled to park the motor vehicle in any special 82510
parking location reserved for persons with disabilities that limit 82511
or impair the ability to walk, also known as handicapped parking 82512
spaces or disability parking spaces.82513

       (I) No person or organization that is not eligible under 82514
division (B) or (E) of this section shall willfully and falsely 82515
represent that the person or organization is so eligible.82516

       No person or organization shall display license plates issued 82517
under this section unless the license plates have been issued for 82518
the vehicle on which they are displayed and are valid.82519

       (J) No person or organization to which a removable windshield 82520
placard or temporary removable windshield placard is issued shall 82521
do either of the following:82522

       (1) Display or permit the display of the placard on any motor 82523
vehicle when having reasonable cause to believe the motor vehicle 82524
is being used in connection with an activity that does not include 82525
providing transportation for persons with disabilities that limit 82526
or impair the ability to walk;82527

       (2) Refuse to return or surrender the placard, when required.82528

       (K)(1) No person or organization to which a parking card is 82529
issued shall do either of the following:82530

       (a) Display or permit the display of the parking card on any 82531
motor vehicle when having reasonable cause to believe the motor 82532
vehicle is being used in connection with an activity that does not 82533
include providing transportation for a handicapped person with a 82534
disability;82535

       (b) Refuse to return or surrender the parking card, when 82536
required.82537

       (2) As used in division (K) of this section:82538

       (a) "Handicapped personPerson with a disability" means any 82539
person who has lost the use of one or both legs or one or both 82540
arms, who is blind, deaf, or so severely handicappeddisabled as 82541
to be unable to move about without the aid of crutches or a 82542
wheelchair, or whose mobility is restricted by a permanent 82543
cardiovascular, pulmonary, or other handicappingdisabling82544
condition.82545

       (b) "Organization" means any private organization or 82546
corporation, or any governmental board, agency, department, 82547
division, or office, that, as part of its business or program, 82548
transports handicapped persons with disabilities on a regular 82549
basis in a motor vehicle that has not been altered for the 82550
purposes of providing it with special equipment for use by 82551
handicapped persons with disabilities.82552

       (L) If a removable windshield placard, temporary removable 82553
windshield placard, or parking card is lost, destroyed, or 82554
mutilated, the placardholder or cardholder may obtain a duplicate 82555
by doing both of the following:82556

       (1) Furnishing suitable proof of the loss, destruction, or 82557
mutilation to the registrar;82558

       (2) Paying a service fee equal to the amount specified in 82559
division (D) or (G) of section 4503.10 of the Revised Code.82560

       Any placardholder or cardholder who loses a placard or card 82561
and, after obtaining a duplicate, finds the original, immediately 82562
shall surrender the original placard or card to the registrar.82563

       (M) The registrar shall pay all fees received under this 82564
section for the issuance of removable windshield placards or 82565
temporary removable windshield placards or duplicate removable 82566
windshield placards or cards into the state treasury to the credit 82567
of the state bureau of motor vehicles fund created in section 82568
4501.25 of the Revised Code.82569

       (N) In addition to the fees collected under this section, the 82570
registrar or deputy registrar shall ask each person applying for a 82571
removable windshield placard or temporary removable windshield 82572
placard or duplicate removable windshield placard or license plate 82573
issued under this section, whether the person wishes to make a 82574
two-dollar voluntary contribution to support rehabilitation 82575
employment services. The registrar shall transmit the 82576
contributions received under this division to the treasurer of 82577
state for deposit into the rehabilitation employment fund, which 82578
is hereby created in the state treasury. A deputy registrar shall 82579
transmit the contributions received under this division to the 82580
registrar in the time and manner prescribed by the registrar. The 82581
contributions in the fund shall be used by the rehabilitation 82582
services commissionopportunities for Ohioans with disabilities 82583
agency to purchase services related to vocational evaluation, work 82584
adjustment, personal adjustment, job placement, job coaching, and 82585
community-based assessment from accredited community 82586
rehabilitation program facilities.82587

       (O) For purposes of enforcing this section, every peace 82588
officer is deemed to be an agent of the registrar. Any peace 82589
officer or any authorized employee of the bureau of motor vehicles 82590
who, in the performance of duties authorized by law, becomes aware 82591
of a person whose placard or parking card has been revoked 82592
pursuant to this section, may confiscate that placard or parking 82593
card and return it to the registrar. The registrar shall prescribe 82594
any forms used by law enforcement agencies in administering this 82595
section.82596

       No peace officer, law enforcement agency employing a peace 82597
officer, or political subdivision or governmental agency employing 82598
a peace officer, and no employee of the bureau is liable in a 82599
civil action for damages or loss to persons arising out of the 82600
performance of any duty required or authorized by this section. As 82601
used in this division, "peace officer" has the same meaning as in 82602
division (B) of section 2935.01 of the Revised Code.82603

       (P) All applications for registration of motor vehicles, 82604
removable windshield placards, and temporary removable windshield 82605
placards issued under this section, all renewal notices for such 82606
items, and all other publications issued by the bureau that relate 82607
to this section shall set forth the criminal penalties that may be 82608
imposed upon a person who violates any provision relating to 82609
special license plates issued under this section, the parking of 82610
vehicles displaying such license plates, and the issuance, 82611
procurement, use, and display of removable windshield placards and 82612
temporary removable windshield placards issued under this section.82613

       (Q) Whoever violates this section is guilty of a misdemeanor 82614
of the fourth degree.82615

       Sec. 4503.524.  (A) The owner or lessee of any passenger car, 82616
noncommercial motor vehicle, recreational vehicle, or other 82617
vehicle of a class approved by the registrar of motor vehicles may 82618
apply to the registrar for the registration of the vehicle and 82619
issuance of "Massillon tiger football booster club" license 82620
plates. The application for "Massillon tiger football booster 82621
club" license plates may be combined with a request for a special 82622
reserved license plate under section 4503.40 or 4503.42 of the 82623
Revised Code. Upon receipt of the completed application and 82624
compliance with division (B) of this section, the registrar shall 82625
issue to the applicant the appropriate vehicle registration and a 82626
set of "Massillon tiger football booster club" license plates with 82627
a validation sticker or a validation sticker alone when required 82628
by section 4503.191 of the Revised Code. In addition to the 82629
letters and numbers ordinarily inscribed thereon, "Massillon tiger 82630
football booster club" license plates shall be inscribed with 82631
words and markings selected and designed by the Massillon tiger 82632
football booster club and approved by the registrar. "Massillon 82633
tiger football booster club" license plates shall bear county 82634
identification stickers that identify the county of registration 82635
by name or number.82636

       (B) "Massillon tiger football booster club" license plates 82637
and validation stickers shall be issued upon payment of the 82638
regular license tax as prescribed under section 4503.04 of the 82639
Revised Code, any applicable motor vehicle tax levied under 82640
Chapter 4504. of the Revised Code, a bureau of motor vehicles 82641
administrative fee of ten dollars, the contribution specified in 82642
division (C) of this section, and compliance with all other 82643
applicable laws relating to the registration of motor vehicles. If 82644
the application for "Massillon tiger football booster club" 82645
license plates is combined with a request for a special reserved 82646
license plate under section 4503.40 or 4503.42 of the Revised 82647
Code, the license plates and validation sticker shall be issued 82648
upon payment of the contribution, fees, and taxes contained in 82649
this division and the additional fee prescribed under section 82650
4503.40 or 4503.42 of the Revised Code.82651

       (C) For each application for registration and registration 82652
renewal submitted under this section, the registrar shall collect 82653
a contribution of twenty-five dollars. The registrar shall 82654
transmit this contribution to the treasurer of state for deposit 82655
into the license plate contribution fund created in section 82656
4501.21 of the Revised Code.82657

       The registrar shall deposit the ten-dollar bureau 82658
administrative fee, the purpose of which is to compensate the 82659
bureau for additional services required in issuing "Massillon 82660
tiger football booster club" license plates, into the state bureau 82661
of motor vehicles fund created in section 4501.25 of the Revised 82662
Code.82663

       Sec. 4503.526.  (A) The owner or lessee of any passenger car, 82664
noncommercial motor vehicle, recreational vehicle, or other 82665
vehicle of a class approved by the registrar of motor vehicles may 82666
apply to the registrar for the registration of the vehicle and 82667
issuance of Kiwanis club license plates. The application for 82668
Kiwanis club license plates may be combined with a request for a 82669
special reserved license plate under section 4503.40 or 4503.42 of 82670
the Revised Code. Upon receipt of the completed application and 82671
compliance with division (B) of this section, the registrar shall 82672
issue to the applicant the appropriate vehicle registration and a 82673
set of Kiwanis club license plates with a validation sticker or a 82674
validation sticker alone when required by section 4503.191 of the 82675
Revised Code.82676

       In addition to the letters and numbers ordinarily inscribed 82677
thereon, Kiwanis club license plates shall be inscribed with words 82678
and markings selected and designed by the Ohio district of Kiwanis 82679
international. The registrar shall approve the final design. 82680
Kiwanis club license plates shall bear county identification 82681
stickers that identify the county of registration by name or 82682
number.82683

       (B) Kiwanis club license plates and validation stickers shall 82684
be issued upon payment of the regular license tax as prescribed 82685
under section 4503.04 of the Revised Code, any applicable motor 82686
vehicle tax levied under Chapter 4504. of the Revised Code, a 82687
bureau of motor vehicles administrative fee of ten dollars, the 82688
contribution specified under division (C) of this section, and 82689
compliance with all other applicable laws relating to the 82690
registration of motor vehicles. If the application for Kiwanis 82691
club license plates is combined with a request for a special 82692
reserved license plate under section 4503.40 or 4503.42 of the 82693
Revised Code, the license plates and validation sticker shall be 82694
issued upon payment of the fees and taxes contained in this 82695
division and the additional fee prescribed by section 4503.40 or 82696
4503.42 of the Revised Code.82697

       (C) For each application for registration and registration 82698
renewal received under this section, the registrar shall collect a 82699
contribution of twenty-five dollars. The registrar shall pay this 82700
contribution into the state treasury to the credit of the license 82701
plate contribution fund created in section 4501.21 of the Revised 82702
Code.82703

       The registrar shall deposit the ten-dollar bureau 82704
administrative fee, the purpose of which is to compensate the 82705
bureau for the additional services required in issuing Kiwanis 82706
club license plates, into the state treasury to the credit of the 82707
state bureau of motor vehicles fund created in section 4501.25 of 82708
the Revised Code.82709

       Sec. 4503.62.  (A) Application for the registration of an 82710
apportionable vehicle shall be made to the registrar of motor 82711
vehicles in accordance with division (J) of section 4503.10 of the 82712
Revised Code.82713

       (B) Any person applying to register a vehicle or combination 82714
vehicle that has a gross vehicle weight of twenty-six thousand 82715
pounds or less or two axles, or that is a bus used in charter 82716
party service, also may register the vehicle in accordance with 82717
division (J) of section 4503.10 of the Revised Code if the vehicle 82718
is used or intended for use in two or more international 82719
registration plan member jurisdictions.82720

       (C) No later than December 31, 2011, the registrar shall 82721
adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to establish a 82722
program to accept applications for vehicle registration 82723
transactions of apportionable vehicles electronically over the 82724
internet. The program also may provide for vehicle registration 82725
transactions of nonapportionable commercial motor vehicles over 82726
the internet.82727

       (D) The internet registration program shall provide an option 82728
for the payment of all registration taxes and fees by use of a 82729
financial transaction device. In providing for payment by the use 82730
of a financial transaction device, the registrar may, but is not 82731
required to,shall comply with section 113.40 of the Revised Code. 82732
The registrar, with the approval of the director of public safety, 82733
may contract with a third party to accept and process payments 82734
made by use of a financial transaction device on behalf of the 82735
bureau of motor vehicles. All fees associated with payment by use 82736
of a financial transaction device shall be borne by the applicants 82737
seeking the registration of apportionable or other vehicles under 82738
the program established pursuant to division (C) of this section. 82739
The bureau shall not pay any costs, and shall not retain any 82740
additional fees, associated with the use of a financial 82741
transaction device.82742

       (E) As used in this section, "financial transaction device" 82743
has the same meaning as in section 113.40 of the Revised Code.82744

       Sec. 4503.732.  (A) The owner or lessee of any passenger car, 82745
noncommercial motor vehicle, recreational vehicle, or other 82746
vehicle of a class approved by the registrar of motor vehicles may 82747
apply to the registrar for the registration of the vehicle and 82748
issuance of "Truth, Justice, and the American Way" license plates. 82749
The application may be combined with a request for a special 82750
reserved license plate under section 4503.40 or 4503.42 of the 82751
Revised Code. Upon receipt of an application for registration of a 82752
motor vehicle under this section, the registrar shall issue to the 82753
applicant the appropriate motor vehicle registration and a set of 82754
"Truth, Justice, and the American Way" license plates and a 82755
validation sticker, or a validation sticker alone when required by 82756
section 4503.191 of the Revised Code.82757

       In addition to the letters and numbers ordinarily inscribed 82758
on the license plates, "Truth, Justice, and the American Way" 82759
license plates shall be inscribed with the words "Truth, Justice, 82760
and the American Way" and a design, logo, or marking selected by 82761
the entity that owns the Superman name. The registrar shall 82762
approve the final design after entering into a license agreement 82763
with that entity for appropriate use of the Superman name and 82764
associated logo or marking, as applicable. The license plates 82765
shall bear county identification stickers that identify the county 82766
of registration by name or number.82767

       (B) "Truth, Justice, and the American Way" license plates and 82768
validation stickers shall be issued upon receipt of a contribution 82769
as provided in division (C)(1) of this section and upon payment of 82770
the regular license tax as prescribed under section 4503.04 of the 82771
Revised Code, any applicable motor vehicle license tax levied 82772
under Chapter 4504. of the Revised Code, and a bureau of motor 82773
vehicles administrative fee of ten dollars. The applicant shall 82774
comply with all other applicable laws relating to the registration 82775
of motor vehicles. If the application for "Truth, Justice, and the 82776
American Way" license plates is combined with a request for a 82777
special reserved license plate under section 4503.40 or 4503.42 of 82778
the Revised Code, the license plates and validation sticker shall 82779
be issued upon payment of the fees and taxes specified in this 82780
division and the additional fee prescribed under section 4503.40 82781
or 4503.42 of the Revised Code.82782

       (C)(1) For each application for registration and registration 82783
renewal notice the registrar receives under this section, the 82784
registrar shall collect a contribution of ten dollars. The 82785
registrar shall pay this contribution into the state treasury to 82786
the credit of the license plate contribution fund created in 82787
section 4501.21 of the Revised Code.82788

       (2) The registrar shall pay into the state treasury the 82789
ten-dollar bureau administrative fee, the purpose of which is to 82790
compensate the bureau for additional services required in issuing 82791
"Truth, Justice, and the American Way" license plates, to the 82792
credit of the state bureau of motor vehicles fund created in 82793
section 4501.25 of Revised Code.82794

       Sec. 4503.95.  (A) The owner or lessee of any passenger car, 82795
noncommercial motor vehicle, recreational vehicle, or other 82796
vehicle of a class approved by the registrar of motor vehicles may 82797
apply to the registrar for the registration of the vehicle and 82798
issuance of "Ohio history" license plates. The application for 82799
"Ohio history" license plates may be combined with a request for a 82800
special reserved license plate under section 4503.40 or 4503.42 of 82801
the Revised Code. Upon receipt of the completed application and 82802
compliance with division (B) of this section, the registrar shall 82803
issue to the applicant the appropriate vehicle registration and a 82804
set of "Ohio history" license plates with a validation sticker or 82805
a validation sticker alone when required by section 4503.191 of 82806
the Revised Code. In addition to the letters and numbers 82807
ordinarily inscribed thereon, "Ohio history" license plates shall 82808
be inscribed with words and markings selected and designed by the 82809
Ohio historical society and approved by the registrar. "Ohio 82810
history" license plates shall bear county identification stickers 82811
that identify the county of registration by name or number.82812

       (B) "Ohio history" license plates and validation stickers 82813
shall be issued upon payment of the regular license tax as 82814
prescribed under section 4503.04 of the Revised Code, any 82815
applicable motor vehicle tax levied under Chapter 4504. of the 82816
Revised Code, a bureau of motor vehicles administrative fee of ten 82817
dollars, the contribution specified in division (C) of this 82818
section, and compliance with all other applicable laws relating to 82819
the registration of motor vehicles. If the application for "Ohio 82820
history" license plates is combined with a request for a special 82821
reserved license plate under section 4503.40 or 4503.42 of the 82822
Revised Code, the license plates and validation sticker shall be 82823
issued upon payment of the contribution, fees, and taxes contained 82824
in this division and the additional fee prescribed under section 82825
4503.40 or 4503.42 of the Revised Code.82826

       (C) For each application for registration and registration 82827
renewal submitted under this section, the registrar shall collect 82828
a contribution of twenty dollars. The registrar shall transmit 82829
this contribution to the treasurer of state for deposit in the 82830
Ohio history license plate contribution fund created in section 82831
149.307 of the Revised Code.82832

       The registrar shall deposit the ten-dollar bureau 82833
administrative fee, the purpose of which is to compensate the 82834
bureau for additional services required in issuing "Ohio history" 82835
license plates, in the state bureau of motor vehicles fund created 82836
in section 4501.25 of the Revised Code.82837

       Sec. 4503.96.  (A) The owner or lessee of any passenger car, 82838
noncommercial motor vehicle, recreational vehicle, or other 82839
vehicle of a class approved by the registrar of motor vehicles may 82840
apply to the registrar for the registration of the vehicle and 82841
issuance of Ohio coal license plates. An application made under 82842
this section may be combined with a request for a special reserved 82843
license plate under section 4503.40 or 4503.42 of the Revised 82844
Code. Upon receipt of the completed application and compliance by 82845
the applicant with divisions (B) and (C) of this section, the 82846
registrar shall issue to the applicant the appropriate vehicle 82847
registration and a set of Ohio coal license plates and a 82848
validation sticker, or a validation sticker alone when required by 82849
section 4503.191 of the Revised Code.82850

       In addition to the letters and numbers ordinarily inscribed 82851
on the license plates, Ohio coal license plates shall be inscribed 82852
with identifying words or markings that are designed by the Ohio 82853
coal association and approved by the registrar. Ohio coal license 82854
plates shall display county identification stickers that identify 82855
the county of registration by name or number.82856

       (B) Ohio coal license plates and validation stickers shall be 82857
issued upon payment of the regular license tax as prescribed under 82858
section 4503.04 of the Revised Code, any applicable motor vehicle 82859
license tax levied under Chapter 4504. of the Revised Code, and a 82860
bureau of motor vehicles administrative fee of ten dollars. The 82861
applicant shall comply with all other applicable laws relating to 82862
the registration of motor vehicles. If the application for Ohio 82863
coal license plates is combined with a request for a special 82864
reserved license plate under section 4503.40 or 4503.42 of the 82865
Revised Code, the license plates and validation sticker shall be 82866
issued upon payment of the fees and taxes specified in this 82867
division and the additional fee prescribed under section 4503.40 82868
or 4503.42 of the Revised Code.82869

       (C) The registrar shall deposit into the state treasury the 82870
ten-dollar bureau administrative fee, the purpose of which is to 82871
compensate the bureau for additional services required in issuing 82872
Ohio coal license plates, to the credit of the state bureau of 82873
motor vehicles fund created in section 4501.25 of Revised Code.82874

       Sec. 4505.02.  The registrar of motor vehicles shall issue 82875
rules as the registrar determines necessary to ensure uniform and 82876
orderly operation of this chapter and to ensure that the 82877
identification of each applicant for a certificate of title is 82878
reasonably accurate. The clerks of the courts of common pleas 82879
shall conform thereto. The clerks shall provide the forms as 82880
prescribed by the registrar, except the manufacturers' or 82881
importers' certificates. The clerks shall provide, from moneys in 82882
the automated title processing fund, certificates of title and 82883
ribbons, cartridges, or other devices necessary for the operation 82884
of the certificate of title processing equipment as determined by 82885
the automated title processing board pursuant to division (C) of 82886
section 4505.09 of the Revised Code. All other automated title 82887
processing system supplies shall be provided by the clerks.82888

       If it appears that any certificate of title has been 82889
improperly issued, the registrar shall cancel the certificate. 82890
Upon the cancellation of any certificate of title, the registrar 82891
shall notify the clerk who issued it, and the clerk thereupon 82892
shall enter the cancellation upon the clerk's records. The 82893
registrar also shall notify the person to whom such certificate of 82894
title was issued, as well as any lienholders appearing thereon, of 82895
the cancellation and shall demand the surrender of the certificate 82896
of title immediately, but the cancellation shall not affect the 82897
validity of any lien noted thereon. The holder of such certificate 82898
of title immediately shall return it to the registrar. If a 82899
certificate of registration has been issued to the holder of a 82900
certificate of title so canceled the registrar immediately shall 82901
cancel it and demand the return of such certificate of 82902
registration and license plates, and the holder of such 82903
certificate of registration and license plates shall return the 82904
same to the registrar forthwith. The clerks shall keep on hand a 82905
sufficient supply of blank forms, which, except for certificate of 82906
title and memorandum certificate forms, shall be furnished and 82907
distributed without charge to registered manufacturers or dealers, 82908
or other persons residing within the county.82909

       Sec. 4505.09.  (A)(1) The clerk of a court of common pleas 82910
shall charge and retain fees as follows:82911

       (a) Five dollars for each certificate of title that is not 82912
applied for within thirty days after the later of the assignment 82913
or delivery of the motor vehicle described in it. The entire fee 82914
shall be retained by the clerk.82915

        (b) Fifteen dollars for each certificate of title or 82916
duplicate certificate of title including the issuance of a 82917
memorandum certificate of title, or authorization to print a 82918
non-negotiable evidence of ownership described in division (G) of 82919
section 4505.08 of the Revised Code, non-negotiable evidence of 82920
ownership printed by the clerk under division (H) of that section, 82921
and notation of any lien on a certificate of title that is applied 82922
for at the same time as the certificate of title. The clerk shall 82923
retain eleven dollars and fifty cents of that fee for each 82924
certificate of title when there is a notation of a lien or 82925
security interest on the certificate of title, twelve dollars and 82926
twenty-five cents when there is no lien or security interest noted 82927
on the certificate of title, and eleven dollars and fifty cents 82928
for each duplicate certificate of title.82929

       (c) Four dollars and fifty cents for each certificate of 82930
title with no security interest noted that is issued to a licensed 82931
motor vehicle dealer for resale purposes and, in addition, a 82932
separate fee of fifty cents. The clerk shall retain two dollars 82933
and twenty-five cents of that fee.82934

       (d) Five dollars for each memorandum certificate of title or 82935
non-negotiable evidence of ownership that is applied for 82936
separately. The clerk shall retain that entire fee.82937

       (2) The fees that are not retained by the clerk shall be paid 82938
to the registrar of motor vehicles by monthly returns, which shall 82939
be forwarded to the registrar not later than the fifth day of the 82940
month next succeeding that in which the certificate is issued or 82941
that in which the registrar is notified of a lien or cancellation 82942
of a lien.82943

       (B)(1) The registrar shall pay twenty-five cents of the 82944
amount received for each certificate of title issued to a motor 82945
vehicle dealer for resale, one dollar for certificates of title 82946
issued with a lien or security interest noted on the certificate 82947
of title, and twenty-five cents for each certificate of title with 82948
no lien or security interest noted on the certificate of title 82949
into the state bureau of motor vehicles fund established in 82950
section 4501.25 of the Revised Code.82951

       (2) Fifty cents of the amount received for each certificate 82952
of title shall be paid by the registrar as follows:82953

       (a) Four cents shall be paid into the state treasury to the 82954
credit of the motor vehicle dealers board fund, which is hereby 82955
created. All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to 82956
the fund. The moneys in the motor vehicle dealers board fund shall 82957
be used by the motor vehicle dealers board created under section 82958
4517.30 of the Revised Code, together with other moneys 82959
appropriated to it, in the exercise of its powers and the 82960
performance of its duties under Chapter 4517. of the Revised Code, 82961
except that the director of budget and management may transfer 82962
excess money from the motor vehicle dealers board fund to the 82963
bureau of motor vehicles fund if the registrar determines that the 82964
amount of money in the motor vehicle dealers board fund, together 82965
with other moneys appropriated to the board, exceeds the amount 82966
required for the exercise of its powers and the performance of its 82967
duties under Chapter 4517. of the Revised Code and requests the 82968
director to make the transfer.82969

       (b) Twenty-one cents shall be paid into the highway operating 82970
fund.82971

       (c) Twenty-five cents shall be paid into the state treasury 82972
to the credit of the motor vehicle sales audit fund, which is 82973
hereby created. The moneys in the fund shall be used by the tax 82974
commissioner together with other funds available to the 82975
commissioner to conduct a continuing investigation of sales and 82976
use tax returns filed for motor vehicles in order to determine if 82977
sales and use tax liability has been satisfied. The commissioner 82978
shall refer cases of apparent violations of section 2921.13 of the 82979
Revised Code made in connection with the titling or sale of a 82980
motor vehicle and cases of any other apparent violations of the 82981
sales or use tax law to the appropriate county prosecutor whenever 82982
the commissioner considers it advisable.82983

       (3) Two dollars of the amount received by the registrar under 82984
divisions (A)(1)(a), (b), and (d) of this section and one dollar 82985
and fifty cents of the amount received by the registrar under 82986
division (A)(1)(c) of this section for each certificate of title 82987
shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the 82988
automated title processing fund, which is hereby created and which 82989
shall consist of moneys collected under division (B)(3) of this 82990
section and under sections 1548.10 and 4519.59 of the Revised 82991
Code. All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the 82992
fund. The moneys in the fund shall be used as follows:82993

       (a) Except for moneys collected under section 1548.10 of the 82994
Revised Code and as provided in division (B)(3)(c) of this 82995
section, moneys collected under division (B)(3) of this section 82996
shall be used to implement and maintain an automated title 82997
processing system for the issuance of motor vehicle, off-highway 82998
motorcycle, and all-purpose vehicle certificates of title in the 82999
offices of the clerks of the courts of common pleas.83000

       (b) Moneys collected under section 1548.10 of the Revised 83001
Code shall be used to issue marine certificates of title in the 83002
offices of the clerks of the courts of common pleas as provided in 83003
Chapter 1548. of the Revised Code.83004

       (c) Moneys collected under division (B)(3) of this section 83005
shall be used in accordance with section 4505.25 of the Revised 83006
Code to implement Sub. S.B. 59 of the 124th general assembly.83007

       (4) The registrar shall pay the fifty-cent separate fee 83008
collected from a licensed motor vehicle dealer under division 83009
(A)(1)(c) of this section into the title defect recision fund 83010
created by section 1345.52 of the Revised Code.83011

       (C)(1) The automated title processing board is hereby created 83012
consisting of the registrar or the registrar's representative, a 83013
person selected by the registrar, the president of the Ohio clerks 83014
of court association or the president's representative, and two 83015
clerks of courts of common pleas appointed by the governor. The 83016
director of budget and management or the director's designee, the 83017
chief of the division of watercraft in the department of natural 83018
resources or the chief's designee, and the tax commissioner or the 83019
commissioner's designee shall be nonvoting members of the board. 83020
The purpose of the board is to facilitate the operation and 83021
maintenance of an automated title processing system and approve 83022
the procurement of automated title processing system equipment and 83023
ribbons, cartridges, or other devices necessary for the operation 83024
of that equipment. Voting members of the board, excluding the 83025
registrar or the registrar's representative, shall serve without 83026
compensation, but shall be reimbursed for travel and other 83027
necessary expenses incurred in the conduct of their official 83028
duties. The registrar or the registrar's representative shall 83029
receive neither compensation nor reimbursement as a board member.83030

       (2) The automated title processing board shall determine each 83031
of the following:83032

       (a) The automated title processing equipment and certificates 83033
of title requirements for each county;83034

       (b) The payment of expenses that may be incurred by the 83035
counties in implementing an automated title processing system;83036

       (c) The repayment to the counties for existing title 83037
processing equipment.83038

       (3) The registrar shall purchase, lease, or otherwise acquire 83039
any automated title processing equipment and certificates of title 83040
that the board determines are necessary from moneys in the 83041
automated title processing fund established by division (B)(3) of 83042
this section.83043

       (D) All counties shall conform to the requirements of the 83044
registrar regarding the operation of their automated title 83045
processing system for motor vehicle titles, certificates of title 83046
for off-highway motorcycles and all-purpose vehicles, and 83047
certificates of title for watercraft and outboard motors.83048

       Sec. 4506.07.  (A) Every application for a commercial 83049
driver's license, restricted commercial driver's license, or a 83050
commercial driver's temporary instruction permit, or a duplicate 83051
of such a license, shall be made upon a form approved and 83052
furnished by the registrar of motor vehicles. Except as provided 83053
in section 4506.24 of the Revised Code in regard to a restricted 83054
commercial driver's license, the application shall be signed by 83055
the applicant and shall contain the following information:83056

       (1) The applicant's name, date of birth, social security 83057
account number, sex, general description including height, weight, 83058
and color of hair and eyes, current residence, duration of 83059
residence in this state, country of citizenship, and occupation;83060

       (2) Whether the applicant previously has been licensed to 83061
operate a commercial motor vehicle or any other type of motor 83062
vehicle in another state or a foreign jurisdiction and, if so, 83063
when, by what state, and whether the license or driving privileges 83064
currently are suspended or revoked in any jurisdiction, or the 83065
applicant otherwise has been disqualified from operating a 83066
commercial motor vehicle, or is subject to an out-of-service order 83067
issued under this chapter or any similar law of another state or a 83068
foreign jurisdiction and, if so, the date of, locations involved, 83069
and reason for the suspension, revocation, disqualification, or 83070
out-of-service order;83071

       (3) Whether the applicant is afflicted with or suffering from 83072
any physical or mental disability or disease that prevents the 83073
applicant from exercising reasonable and ordinary control over a 83074
motor vehicle while operating it upon a highway or is or has been 83075
subject to any condition resulting in episodic impairment of 83076
consciousness or loss of muscular control and, if so, the nature 83077
and extent of the disability, disease, or condition, and the names 83078
and addresses of the physicians attending the applicant;83079

       (4) Whether the applicant has obtained a medical examiner's 83080
certificate as required by this chapter and, beginning January 30, 83081
2012, the applicant, prior to or at the time of applying, has 83082
self-certified to the registrar the applicable status of the 83083
applicant under division (A)(2) of section 4506.10 of the Revised 83084
Code;83085

       (5) Whether the applicant has pending a citation for 83086
violation of any motor vehicle law or ordinance except a parking 83087
violation and, if so, a description of the citation, the court 83088
having jurisdiction of the offense, and the date when the offense 83089
occurred;83090

       (6) WhetherIf an applicant has not certified the applicant's 83091
willingness to make an anatomical gift under section 2108.05 of 83092
the Revised Code, whether the applicant wishes to certify 83093
willingness to make such an anatomical gift under section 2108.05 83094
of the Revised Code, which shall be given no consideration in the 83095
issuance of a license;83096

       (7) On and after May 1, 1993, whether the applicant has 83097
executed a valid durable power of attorney for health care 83098
pursuant to sections 1337.11 to 1337.17 of the Revised Code or has 83099
executed a declaration governing the use or continuation, or the 83100
withholding or withdrawal, of life-sustaining treatment pursuant 83101
to sections 2133.01 to 2133.15 of the Revised Code and, if the 83102
applicant has executed either type of instrument, whether the 83103
applicant wishes the license issued to indicate that the applicant 83104
has executed the instrument;83105

       (8) On and after October 7, 2009, whether the applicant is a 83106
veteran, active duty, or reservist of the armed forces of the 83107
United States and, if the applicant is such, whether the applicant 83108
wishes the license issued to indicate that the applicant is a 83109
veteran, active duty, or reservist of the armed forces of the 83110
United States by a military designation on the license.83111

       (B) Every applicant shall certify, on a form approved and 83112
furnished by the registrar, all of the following:83113

       (1) That the motor vehicle in which the applicant intends to 83114
take the driving skills test is representative of the type of 83115
motor vehicle that the applicant expects to operate as a driver;83116

       (2) That the applicant is not subject to any disqualification 83117
or out-of-service order, or license suspension, revocation, or 83118
cancellation, under the laws of this state, of another state, or 83119
of a foreign jurisdiction and does not have more than one driver's 83120
license issued by this or another state or a foreign jurisdiction;83121

       (3) Any additional information, certification, or evidence 83122
that the registrar requires by rule in order to ensure that the 83123
issuance of a commercial driver's license to the applicant is in 83124
compliance with the law of this state and with federal law.83125

       (C) Every applicant shall execute a form, approved and 83126
furnished by the registrar, under which the applicant consents to 83127
the release by the registrar of information from the applicant's 83128
driving record.83129

       (D) The registrar or a deputy registrar, in accordance with 83130
section 3503.11 of the Revised Code, shall register as an elector 83131
any applicant for a commercial driver's license or for a renewal 83132
or duplicate of such a license under this chapter, if the 83133
applicant is eligible and wishes to be registered as an elector. 83134
The decision of an applicant whether to register as an elector 83135
shall be given no consideration in the decision of whether to 83136
issue the applicant a license or a renewal or duplicate.83137

       (E) The registrar or a deputy registrar, in accordance with 83138
section 3503.11 of the Revised Code, shall offer the opportunity 83139
of completing a notice of change of residence or change of name to 83140
any applicant for a commercial driver's license or for a renewal 83141
or duplicate of such a license who is a resident of this state, if 83142
the applicant is a registered elector who has changed the 83143
applicant's residence or name and has not filed such a notice.83144

       (F) In considering any application submitted pursuant to this 83145
section, the bureau of motor vehicles may conduct any inquiries 83146
necessary to ensure that issuance or renewal of a commercial 83147
driver's license would not violate any provision of the Revised 83148
Code or federal law.83149

       (G) In addition to any other information it contains, on and 83150
after October 7, 2009, the form approved and furnished by the 83151
registrar of motor vehicles for an application for a commercial 83152
driver's license, restricted commercial driver's license, or a 83153
commercial driver's temporary instruction permit or an application 83154
for a duplicate of such a license shall inform applicants that the 83155
applicant must present a copy of the applicant's DD-214 or an 83156
equivalent document in order to qualify to have the license or 83157
duplicate indicate that the applicant is a veteran, active duty, 83158
or reservist of the armed forces of the United States based on a 83159
request made pursuant to division (A)(8) of this section.83160

       Sec. 4507.01.  (A) As used in this chapter, "motor vehicle," 83161
"motorized bicycle," "state," "owner," "operator," "chauffeur," 83162
and "highways" have the same meanings as in section 4501.01 of the 83163
Revised Code.83164

       "Driver's license" means a class D license issued to any 83165
person to operate a motor vehicle or motor-driven cycle, other 83166
than a commercial motor vehicle, and includes "probationary 83167
license," "restricted license," and any operator's or chauffeur's 83168
license issued before January 1, 1990.83169

       "Probationary license" means the license issued to any person 83170
between sixteen and eighteen years of age to operate a motor 83171
vehicle.83172

       "Restricted license" means the license issued to any person 83173
to operate a motor vehicle subject to conditions or restrictions 83174
imposed by the registrar of motor vehicles.83175

       "Commercial driver's license" means the license issued to a 83176
person under Chapter 4506. of the Revised Code to operate a 83177
commercial motor vehicle.83178

       "Commercial motor vehicle" has the same meaning as in section 83179
4506.01 of the Revised Code.83180

       "Motorized bicycle license" means the license issued under 83181
section 4511.521 of the Revised Code to any person to operate a 83182
motorized bicycle including a "probationary motorized bicycle 83183
license."83184

       "Probationary motorized bicycle license" means the license 83185
issued under section 4511.521 of the Revised Code to any person 83186
between fourteen and sixteen years of age to operate a motorized 83187
bicycle.83188

       "Identification card" means a card issued under sections 83189
4507.50 and 4507.51 of the Revised Code.83190

       "Resident" means a person who, in accordance with standards 83191
prescribed in rules adopted by the registrar, resides in this 83192
state on a permanent basis.83193

       "Temporary resident" means a person who, in accordance with 83194
standards prescribed in rules adopted by the registrar, resides in 83195
this state on a temporary basis.83196

       (B) In the administration of this chapter and Chapter 4506. 83197
of the Revised Code, the registrar has the same authority as is 83198
conferred on the registrar by section 4501.02 of the Revised Code. 83199
Any act of an authorized deputy registrar of motor vehicles under 83200
direction of the registrar is deemed the act of the registrar.83201

       To carry out this chapter, the registrar shall appoint such 83202
deputy registrars in each county as are necessary.83203

       The registrar also shall provide at each place where an 83204
application for a driver's or commercial driver's license or 83205
identification card may be made the necessary equipment to take a 83206
color photograph of the applicant for such license or card as 83207
required under section 4506.11 or 4507.06 of the Revised Code, and 83208
to conduct the vision screenings required by section 4507.12 of 83209
the Revised Code, and equipment to laminate licenses, motorized 83210
bicycle licenses, and identification cards as required by sections 83211
4507.13, 4507.52, and 4511.521 of the Revised Code.83212

       The registrar shall assign one or more deputy registrars to 83213
any driver's license examining station operated under the 83214
supervision of the director of public safety, whenever the 83215
registrar considers such assignment possible. Space shall be 83216
provided in the driver's license examining station for any such 83217
deputy registrar so assigned. The deputy registrars shall not 83218
exercise the powers conferred by such sections upon the registrar, 83219
unless they are specifically authorized to exercise such powers by 83220
such sections.83221

       (C) No agent for any insurance company, writing automobile 83222
insurance, shall be appointed deputy registrar, and any such 83223
appointment is void. No deputy registrar shall in any manner 83224
solicit any form of automobile insurance, nor in any manner 83225
advise, suggest, or influence any licensee or applicant for 83226
license for or against any kind or type of automobile insurance, 83227
insurance company, or agent, nor have the deputy registrar's 83228
office directly connected with the office of any automobile 83229
insurance agent, nor impart any information furnished by any 83230
applicant for a license or identification card to any person, 83231
except the registrar. This division shall not apply to any 83232
nonprofit corporation appointed deputy registrar.83233

       (D) The registrar shall immediately remove a deputy registrar 83234
who violates the requirements of this chapter.83235

       (E) The registrar shall periodically solicit bids and enter 83236
into a contract for the provision of laminating equipment and 83237
laminating materials to the registrar and all deputy registrars. 83238
The registrar shall not consider any bid that does not provide for 83239
the supplying of both laminating equipment and laminating 83240
materials. The laminating materials selected shall contain a 83241
security feature so that any tampering with the laminating 83242
material covering a license or identification card is readily 83243
apparent. In soliciting bids and entering into a contract for the 83244
provision of laminating equipment and laminating materials, the 83245
registrar shall observe all procedures required by law.83246

       Sec. 4507.06.  (A)(1) Every application for a driver's 83247
license or motorcycle operator's license or endorsement, or 83248
duplicate of any such license or endorsement, shall be made upon 83249
the approved form furnished by the registrar of motor vehicles and 83250
shall be signed by the applicant.83251

       Every application shall state the following:83252

       (a) The applicant's name, date of birth, social security 83253
number if such has been assigned, sex, general description, 83254
including height, weight, color of hair, and eyes, residence 83255
address, including county of residence, duration of residence in 83256
this state, and country of citizenship;83257

       (b) Whether the applicant previously has been licensed as an 83258
operator, chauffeur, driver, commercial driver, or motorcycle 83259
operator and, if so, when, by what state, and whether such license 83260
is suspended or canceled at the present time and, if so, the date 83261
of and reason for the suspension or cancellation;83262

       (c) Whether the applicant is now or ever has been afflicted 83263
with epilepsy, or whether the applicant now is suffering from any 83264
physical or mental disability or disease and, if so, the nature 83265
and extent of the disability or disease, giving the names and 83266
addresses of physicians then or previously in attendance upon the 83267
applicant;83268

       (d) Whether an applicant for a duplicate driver's license, or 83269
duplicate license containing a motorcycle operator endorsement has 83270
pending a citation for violation of any motor vehicle law or 83271
ordinance, a description of any such citation pending, and the 83272
date of the citation;83273

       (e) WhetherIf an applicant has not certified the applicant's 83274
willingness to make an anatomical gift under section 2108.05 of 83275
the Revised Code, whether the applicant wishes to certify 83276
willingness to make such an anatomical gift under section 2108.05 83277
of the Revised Code, which shall be given no consideration in the 83278
issuance of a license or endorsement;83279

       (f) Whether the applicant has executed a valid durable power 83280
of attorney for health care pursuant to sections 1337.11 to 83281
1337.17 of the Revised Code or has executed a declaration 83282
governing the use or continuation, or the withholding or 83283
withdrawal, of life-sustaining treatment pursuant to sections 83284
2133.01 to 2133.15 of the Revised Code and, if the applicant has 83285
executed either type of instrument, whether the applicant wishes 83286
the applicant's license to indicate that the applicant has 83287
executed the instrument;83288

       (g) On and after October 7, 2009, whether the applicant is a 83289
veteran, active duty, or reservist of the armed forces of the 83290
United States and, if the applicant is such, whether the applicant 83291
wishes the applicant's license to indicate that the applicant is a 83292
veteran, active duty, or reservist of the armed forces of the 83293
United States by a military designation on the license.83294

       (2) Every applicant for a driver's license shall be 83295
photographed in color at the time the application for the license 83296
is made. The application shall state any additional information 83297
that the registrar requires.83298

       (B) The registrar or a deputy registrar, in accordance with 83299
section 3503.11 of the Revised Code, shall register as an elector 83300
any person who applies for a driver's license or motorcycle 83301
operator's license or endorsement under division (A) of this 83302
section, or for a renewal or duplicate of the license or 83303
endorsement, if the applicant is eligible and wishes to be 83304
registered as an elector. The decision of an applicant whether to 83305
register as an elector shall be given no consideration in the 83306
decision of whether to issue the applicant a license or 83307
endorsement, or a renewal or duplicate.83308

       (C) The registrar or a deputy registrar, in accordance with 83309
section 3503.11 of the Revised Code, shall offer the opportunity 83310
of completing a notice of change of residence or change of name to 83311
any applicant for a driver's license or endorsement under division 83312
(A) of this section, or for a renewal or duplicate of the license 83313
or endorsement, if the applicant is a registered elector who has 83314
changed the applicant's residence or name and has not filed such a 83315
notice.83316

       (D) In addition to any other information it contains, on and 83317
after October 7, 2009, the approved form furnished by the 83318
registrar of motor vehicles for an application for a driver's 83319
license or motorcycle operator's license or endorsement or an 83320
application for a duplicate of any such license or endorsement 83321
shall inform applicants that the applicant must present a copy of 83322
the applicant's DD-214 or an equivalent document in order to 83323
qualify to have the license or duplicate indicate that the 83324
applicant is a veteran, active duty, or reservist of the armed 83325
forces of the United States based on a request made pursuant to 83326
division (A)(1)(g) of this section.83327

       Sec. 4507.51.  (A)(1) Every application for an identification 83328
card or duplicate shall be made on a form furnished by the 83329
registrar of motor vehicles, shall be signed by the applicant, and 83330
by the applicant's parent or guardian if the applicant is under 83331
eighteen years of age, and shall contain the following information 83332
pertaining to the applicant: name, date of birth, sex, general 83333
description including the applicant's height, weight, hair color, 83334
and eye color, address, and social security number. The 83335
application also shall stateinclude, for an applicant who has not 83336
already certified the applicant's willingness to make an 83337
anatomical gift under section 2108.05 of the Revised Code, whether 83338
anthe applicant wishes to certify willingness to make such an 83339
anatomical gift under section 2108.05 of the Revised Code and 83340
shall include information about the requirements of sections 83341
2108.01 to 2108.29 of the Revised Code that apply to persons who 83342
are less than eighteen years of age. The statement regarding 83343
willingness to make such a donation shall be given no 83344
consideration in the decision of whether to issue an 83345
identification card. Each applicant shall be photographed in color 83346
at the time of making application. 83347

       (2)(a) The application also shall state whether the applicant 83348
has executed a valid durable power of attorney for health care 83349
pursuant to sections 1337.11 to 1337.17 of the Revised Code or has 83350
executed a declaration governing the use or continuation, or the 83351
withholding or withdrawal, of life-sustaining treatment pursuant 83352
to sections 2133.01 to 2133.15 of the Revised Code and, if the 83353
applicant has executed either type of instrument, whether the 83354
applicant wishes the identification card issued to indicate that 83355
the applicant has executed the instrument. 83356

       (b) On and after October 7, 2009, the application also shall 83357
state whether the applicant is a veteran, active duty, or 83358
reservist of the armed forces of the United States and, if the 83359
applicant is such, whether the applicant wishes the identification 83360
card issued to indicate that the applicant is a veteran, active 83361
duty, or reservist of the armed forces of the United States by a 83362
military designation on the identification card. 83363

       (3) The registrar or deputy registrar, in accordance with 83364
section 3503.11 of the Revised Code, shall register as an elector 83365
any person who applies for an identification card or duplicate if 83366
the applicant is eligible and wishes to be registered as an 83367
elector. The decision of an applicant whether to register as an 83368
elector shall be given no consideration in the decision of whether 83369
to issue the applicant an identification card or duplicate. 83370

       (B) The application for an identification card or duplicate 83371
shall be filed in the office of the registrar or deputy registrar. 83372
Each applicant shall present documentary evidence as required by 83373
the registrar of the applicant's age and identity, and the 83374
applicant shall swear that all information given is true. An 83375
identification card issued by the department of rehabilitation and 83376
correction under section 5120.59 of the Revised Code or an 83377
identification card issued by the department of youth services 83378
under section 5139.511 of the Revised Code shall be sufficient 83379
documentary evidence under this division upon verification of the 83380
applicant's social security number by the registrar or a deputy 83381
registrar. Upon issuing an identification card under this section 83382
for a person who has been issued an identification card under 83383
section 5120.59 or section 5139.511 of the Revised Code, the 83384
registrar or deputy registrar shall destroy the identification 83385
card issued under section 5120.59 or section 5139.511 of the 83386
Revised Code. 83387

       All applications for an identification card or duplicate 83388
shall be filed in duplicate, and if submitted to a deputy 83389
registrar, a copy shall be forwarded to the registrar. The 83390
registrar shall prescribe rules for the manner in which a deputy 83391
registrar is to file and maintain applications and other records. 83392
The registrar shall maintain a suitable, indexed record of all 83393
applications denied and cards issued or canceled. 83394

       (C) In addition to any other information it contains, on and 83395
after the date that is fifteen months after April 7, 2009, the 83396
form furnished by the registrar of motor vehicles for an 83397
application for an identification card or duplicate shall inform 83398
applicants that the applicant must present a copy of the 83399
applicant's DD-214 or an equivalent document in order to qualify 83400
to have the card or duplicate indicate that the applicant is an 83401
honorably discharged veteran of the armed forces of the United 83402
States based on a request made pursuant to division (A)(2)(b) of 83403
this section.83404

       Sec. 4510.038. (A) Any person whose driver's or commercial 83405
driver's license or permit is suspended or who is granted limited 83406
driving privileges under section 4510.037, under division (H) of 83407
section 4511.19, or under section 4510.07 of the Revised Code for 83408
a violation of a municipal ordinance that is substantially 83409
equivalent to division (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code 83410
is not eligible to retain the license, or to have the driving 83411
privileges reinstated, until each of the following has occurred:83412

       (1) The person successfully completes a course of remedial 83413
driving instruction approved by the director of public safety. A 83414
minimum of twenty-five per cent of the number of hours of 83415
instruction included in the course shall be devoted to instruction 83416
on driver attitude.83417

       The course also shall devote a number of hours to instruction 83418
in the area of alcohol and drugs and the operation of vehicles. 83419
The instruction shall include, but not be limited to, a review of 83420
the laws governing the operation of a vehicle while under the 83421
influence of alcohol, drugs, or a combination of them, the dangers 83422
of operating a vehicle while under the influence of alcohol, 83423
drugs, or a combination of them, and other information relating to 83424
the operation of vehicles and the consumption of alcoholic 83425
beverages and use of drugs. The director, in consultation with the 83426
director of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and 83427
addiction services, shall prescribe the content of the 83428
instruction. The number of hours devoted to the area of alcohol 83429
and drugs and the operation of vehicles shall comprise a minimum 83430
of twenty-five per cent of the number of hours of instruction 83431
included in the course.83432

       (2) The person is examined in the manner provided for in 83433
section 4507.20 of the Revised Code, and found by the registrar of 83434
motor vehicles to be qualified to operate a motor vehicle;83435

       (3) The person gives and maintains proof of financial 83436
responsibility, in accordance with section 4509.45 of the Revised 83437
Code.83438

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section, 83439
any course of remedial driving instruction the director of public 83440
safety approves under this section shall require its students to 83441
attend at least fifty per cent of the course in person and the 83442
director shall not approve any course of remedial driving 83443
instruction that permits its students to take more than fifty per 83444
cent of the course in any other manner, including via video 83445
teleconferencing or the internet.83446

       (2) The director may approve a course of remedial instruction 83447
that permits students to take the entire course via video 83448
teleconferencing or the internet.83449

       Sec. 4510.45.  (A)(1) A manufacturer of ignition interlock 83450
devices that desires for its devices to be certified under section 83451
4510.43 of the Revised Code and then to be included on the list of 83452
certified devices that the department of public safety compiles 83453
and makes available to courts pursuant to that section first shall 83454
obtain a license from the department under this section. The 83455
department, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 83456
shall adopt any rules that are necessary to implement this 83457
licensing requirement.83458

       (2) A manufacturer shall apply to the department for the 83459
license and shall include all information the department may 83460
require by rule. Each application, including an application for 83461
license renewal, shall be accompanied by an application fee of one 83462
hundred dollars, which the department shall deposit into the state 83463
treasury to the credit of the indigent drivers alcohol treatment 83464
fund created by section 4511.191 of the Revised Code.83465

       (3) Upon receipt of a completed application, if the 83466
department finds that a manufacturer has complied with all 83467
application requirements, the department shall issue a license to 83468
the manufacturer. A manufacturer that has been issued a license 83469
under this section is eligible immediately to have the models of 83470
ignition interlock devices it produces certified under section 83471
4510.43 of the Revised Code and then included on the list of 83472
certified devices that the department compiles and makes available 83473
to courts pursuant to that section.83474

       (4)(a) A license issued under this section shall expire 83475
annually on a date selected by the department. The department 83476
shall reject the license application of a manufacturer if any of 83477
the following apply:83478

       (i) The application is not accompanied by the application 83479
fee.83480

       (ii) The department finds that the manufacturer has not 83481
complied with all application requirements.83482

        (iii) The license application is a renewal application and 83483
the manufacturer failed to file the annual report or failed to pay 83484
the fee as required by division (B) of this section.83485

       (b) A manufacturer whose license application is rejected by 83486
the department may appeal the decision to the director of public 83487
safety. The director or the director's designee shall hold a 83488
hearing on the matter not more than thirty days from the date of 83489
the manufacturer's appeal. If the director or the director's 83490
designee upholds the denial of the manufacturer's application for 83491
a license, the manufacturer may appeal the decision to the 83492
Franklin county court of common pleas. If the director or the 83493
director's designee reverses the denial of the manufacturer's 83494
application for a license, the director or the director's designee 83495
shall issue a written order directing that the department issue a 83496
license to the manufacturer.83497

       (B) Every manufacturer of ignition interlock devices that is 83498
issued a license under this section shall file an annual report 83499
with the department on a form the department prescribes on or 83500
before a date the department prescribes. The annual report shall 83501
state the amount of net profit the manufacturer earned during a 83502
twelve-month period specified by the department that is 83503
attributable to the sales of that manufacturer's certified 83504
ignition interlock devices to purchasers in this state. Each 83505
manufacturer shall pay a fee equal to five per cent of the amount 83506
of the net profit described in this division.83507

       The department may permit annual reports to be filed via 83508
electronic means.83509

       (C) The department shall deposit all fees it receives from 83510
manufacturers under this section into the state treasury to the 83511
credit of the indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund created by 83512
section 4511.191 of the Revised Code. All money so deposited into 83513
that fund that is paid by the department of alcohol and drug 83514
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services to county 83515
indigent drivers alcohol treatment funds, county juvenile indigent 83516
drivers alcohol treatment funds, and municipal indigent drivers 83517
alcohol treatment funds shall be used only as described in 83518
division (H)(3) of section 4511.191 of the Revised Code.83519

       (D)(1) The director may make an assessment, based on any 83520
information in the director's possession, against any manufacturer 83521
that fails to file an annual report or pay the fee required by 83522
division (B) of this section. The director, in accordance with 83523
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall adopt rules governing 83524
assessments and assessment procedures and related provisions. In 83525
adopting these rules, the director shall incorporate the 83526
provisions of section 5751.09 of the Revised Code to the greatest 83527
extent possible, except that the director is not required to 83528
incorporate any provisions of that section that by their nature 83529
are not applicable, appropriate, or necessary to assessments made 83530
by the director under this section.83531

       (2) A manufacturer may appeal the final determination of the 83532
director regarding an assessment made by the director under this 83533
section. The director, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 83534
Revised Code, shall adopt rules governing such appeals. In 83535
adopting these rules, the director shall incorporate the 83536
provisions of section 5717.02 of the Revised Code to the greatest 83537
extent possible, except that the director is not required to 83538
incorporate any provisions of that section that by their nature 83539
are not applicable, appropriate, or necessary to appeals of 83540
assessments made by the director under this section.83541

       (E) The director, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 83542
Revised Code, shall adopt a penalty schedule setting forth the 83543
monetary penalties to be imposed upon a manufacturer that is 83544
issued a license under this section and fails to file an annual 83545
report or pay the fee required by division (B) of this section in 83546
a timely manner. The penalty amounts shall not exceed the maximum 83547
penalty amounts established in section 5751.06 of the Revised Code 83548
for similar or equivalent facts or circumstances.83549

       (F)(1) No manufacturer of ignition interlock devices that is 83550
required by division (B) of this section to file an annual report 83551
with the department or to pay a fee shall fail to do so as 83552
required by that division.83553

       (2) No manufacturer of ignition interlock devices that is 83554
required by division (B) of this section to file an annual report 83555
with the department shall file a report that contains incorrect or 83556
erroneous information.83557

       (G) Whoever violates division (F)(2) of this section is 83558
guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. The department shall 83559
remove from the list of certified devices described in division 83560
(A)(1) of this section the ignition interlock devices manufactured 83561
by a manufacturer that violates division (F)(1) or (2) of this 83562
section.83563

       Sec. 4511.19.  (A)(1) No person shall operate any vehicle, 83564
streetcar, or trackless trolley within this state, if, at the time 83565
of the operation, any of the following apply:83566

       (a) The person is under the influence of alcohol, a drug of 83567
abuse, or a combination of them.83568

       (b) The person has a concentration of eight-hundredths of one 83569
per cent or more but less than seventeen-hundredths of one per 83570
cent by weight per unit volume of alcohol in the person's whole 83571
blood.83572

       (c) The person has a concentration of ninety-six-thousandths 83573
of one per cent or more but less than two hundred four-thousandths 83574
of one per cent by weight per unit volume of alcohol in the 83575
person's blood serum or plasma.83576

       (d) The person has a concentration of eight-hundredths of one 83577
gram or more but less than seventeen-hundredths of one gram by 83578
weight of alcohol per two hundred ten liters of the person's 83579
breath.83580

       (e) The person has a concentration of eleven-hundredths of 83581
one gram or more but less than two hundred 83582
thirty-eight-thousandths of one gram by weight of alcohol per one 83583
hundred milliliters of the person's urine.83584

       (f) The person has a concentration of seventeen-hundredths of 83585
one per cent or more by weight per unit volume of alcohol in the 83586
person's whole blood.83587

       (g) The person has a concentration of two hundred 83588
four-thousandths of one per cent or more by weight per unit volume 83589
of alcohol in the person's blood serum or plasma.83590

       (h) The person has a concentration of seventeen-hundredths of 83591
one gram or more by weight of alcohol per two hundred ten liters 83592
of the person's breath.83593

       (i) The person has a concentration of two hundred 83594
thirty-eight-thousandths of one gram or more by weight of alcohol 83595
per one hundred milliliters of the person's urine.83596

       (j) Except as provided in division (K) of this section, the 83597
person has a concentration of any of the following controlled 83598
substances or metabolites of a controlled substance in the 83599
person's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, or urine that equals 83600
or exceeds any of the following:83601

       (i) The person has a concentration of amphetamine in the 83602
person's urine of at least five hundred nanograms of amphetamine 83603
per milliliter of the person's urine or has a concentration of 83604
amphetamine in the person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma 83605
of at least one hundred nanograms of amphetamine per milliliter of 83606
the person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma.83607

       (ii) The person has a concentration of cocaine in the 83608
person's urine of at least one hundred fifty nanograms of cocaine 83609
per milliliter of the person's urine or has a concentration of 83610
cocaine in the person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma of at 83611
least fifty nanograms of cocaine per milliliter of the person's 83612
whole blood or blood serum or plasma.83613

       (iii) The person has a concentration of cocaine metabolite in 83614
the person's urine of at least one hundred fifty nanograms of 83615
cocaine metabolite per milliliter of the person's urine or has a 83616
concentration of cocaine metabolite in the person's whole blood or 83617
blood serum or plasma of at least fifty nanograms of cocaine 83618
metabolite per milliliter of the person's whole blood or blood 83619
serum or plasma.83620

       (iv) The person has a concentration of heroin in the person's 83621
urine of at least two thousand nanograms of heroin per milliliter 83622
of the person's urine or has a concentration of heroin in the 83623
person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma of at least fifty 83624
nanograms of heroin per milliliter of the person's whole blood or 83625
blood serum or plasma.83626

       (v) The person has a concentration of heroin metabolite 83627
(6-monoacetyl morphine) in the person's urine of at least ten 83628
nanograms of heroin metabolite (6-monoacetyl morphine) per 83629
milliliter of the person's urine or has a concentration of heroin 83630
metabolite (6-monoacetyl morphine) in the person's whole blood or 83631
blood serum or plasma of at least ten nanograms of heroin 83632
metabolite (6-monoacetyl morphine) per milliliter of the person's 83633
whole blood or blood serum or plasma.83634

       (vi) The person has a concentration of L.S.D. in the person's 83635
urine of at least twenty-five nanograms of L.S.D. per milliliter 83636
of the person's urine or a concentration of L.S.D. in the person's 83637
whole blood or blood serum or plasma of at least ten nanograms of 83638
L.S.D. per milliliter of the person's whole blood or blood serum 83639
or plasma.83640

       (vii) The person has a concentration of marihuana in the 83641
person's urine of at least ten nanograms of marihuana per 83642
milliliter of the person's urine or has a concentration of 83643
marihuana in the person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma of 83644
at least two nanograms of marihuana per milliliter of the person's 83645
whole blood or blood serum or plasma.83646

       (viii) Either of the following applies:83647

        (I) The person is under the influence of alcohol, a drug of 83648
abuse, or a combination of them, and, as measured by gas 83649
chromatography mass spectrometry, the person has a concentration 83650
of marihuana metabolite in the person's urine of at least fifteen 83651
nanograms of marihuana metabolite per milliliter of the person's 83652
urine or has a concentration of marihuana metabolite in the 83653
person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma of at least five 83654
nanograms of marihuana metabolite per milliliter of the person's 83655
whole blood or blood serum or plasma.83656

       (II) As measured by gas chromatography mass spectrometry, the 83657
person has a concentration of marihuana metabolite in the person's 83658
urine of at least thirty-five nanograms of marihuana metabolite 83659
per milliliter of the person's urine or has a concentration of 83660
marihuana metabolite in the person's whole blood or blood serum or 83661
plasma of at least fifty nanograms of marihuana metabolite per 83662
milliliter of the person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma.83663

       (ix) The person has a concentration of methamphetamine in the 83664
person's urine of at least five hundred nanograms of 83665
methamphetamine per milliliter of the person's urine or has a 83666
concentration of methamphetamine in the person's whole blood or 83667
blood serum or plasma of at least one hundred nanograms of 83668
methamphetamine per milliliter of the person's whole blood or 83669
blood serum or plasma.83670

       (x) The person has a concentration of phencyclidine in the 83671
person's urine of at least twenty-five nanograms of phencyclidine 83672
per milliliter of the person's urine or has a concentration of 83673
phencyclidine in the person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma 83674
of at least ten nanograms of phencyclidine per milliliter of the 83675
person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma.83676

       (xi) The state board of pharmacy has adopted a rule pursuant 83677
to section 4729.041 of the Revised Code that specifies the amount 83678
of salvia divinorum and the amount of salvinorin A that constitute 83679
concentrations of salvia divinorum and salvinorin A in a person's 83680
urine, in a person's whole blood, or in a person's blood serum or 83681
plasma at or above which the person is impaired for purposes of 83682
operating any vehicle, streetcar, or trackless trolley within this 83683
state, the rule is in effect, and the person has a concentration 83684
of salvia divinorum or salvinorin A of at least that amount so 83685
specified by rule in the person's urine, in the person's whole 83686
blood, or in the person's blood serum or plasma.83687

       (2) No person who, within twenty years of the conduct 83688
described in division (A)(2)(a) of this section, previously has 83689
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation of this 83690
division, a violation of division (A)(1) or (B) of this section, 83691
or any other equivalent offense shall do both of the following:83692

       (a) Operate any vehicle, streetcar, or trackless trolley 83693
within this state while under the influence of alcohol, a drug of 83694
abuse, or a combination of them;83695

       (b) Subsequent to being arrested for operating the vehicle, 83696
streetcar, or trackless trolley as described in division (A)(2)(a) 83697
of this section, being asked by a law enforcement officer to 83698
submit to a chemical test or tests under section 4511.191 of the 83699
Revised Code, and being advised by the officer in accordance with 83700
section 4511.192 of the Revised Code of the consequences of the 83701
person's refusal or submission to the test or tests, refuse to 83702
submit to the test or tests.83703

       (B) No person under twenty-one years of age shall operate any 83704
vehicle, streetcar, or trackless trolley within this state, if, at 83705
the time of the operation, any of the following apply:83706

       (1) The person has a concentration of at least two-hundredths 83707
of one per cent but less than eight-hundredths of one per cent by 83708
weight per unit volume of alcohol in the person's whole blood.83709

       (2) The person has a concentration of at least 83710
three-hundredths of one per cent but less than 83711
ninety-six-thousandths of one per cent by weight per unit volume 83712
of alcohol in the person's blood serum or plasma.83713

       (3) The person has a concentration of at least two-hundredths 83714
of one gram but less than eight-hundredths of one gram by weight 83715
of alcohol per two hundred ten liters of the person's breath.83716

       (4) The person has a concentration of at least twenty-eight 83717
one-thousandths of one gram but less than eleven-hundredths of one 83718
gram by weight of alcohol per one hundred milliliters of the 83719
person's urine.83720

       (C) In any proceeding arising out of one incident, a person 83721
may be charged with a violation of division (A)(1)(a) or (A)(2) 83722
and a violation of division (B)(1), (2), or (3) of this section, 83723
but the person may not be convicted of more than one violation of 83724
these divisions.83725

       (D)(1)(a) In any criminal prosecution or juvenile court 83726
proceeding for a violation of division (A)(1)(a) of this section 83727
or for an equivalent offense that is vehicle-related, the result 83728
of any test of any blood or urine withdrawn and analyzed at any 83729
health care provider, as defined in section 2317.02 of the Revised 83730
Code, may be admitted with expert testimony to be considered with 83731
any other relevant and competent evidence in determining the guilt 83732
or innocence of the defendant.83733

       (b) In any criminal prosecution or juvenile court proceeding 83734
for a violation of division (A) or (B) of this section or for an 83735
equivalent offense that is vehicle-related, the court may admit 83736
evidence on the concentration of alcohol, drugs of abuse, 83737
controlled substances, metabolites of a controlled substance, or a 83738
combination of them in the defendant's whole blood, blood serum or 83739
plasma, breath, urine, or other bodily substance at the time of 83740
the alleged violation as shown by chemical analysis of the 83741
substance withdrawn within three hours of the time of the alleged 83742
violation. The three-hour time limit specified in this division 83743
regarding the admission of evidence does not extend or affect the 83744
two-hour time limit specified in division (A) of section 4511.192 83745
of the Revised Code as the maximum period of time during which a 83746
person may consent to a chemical test or tests as described in 83747
that section. The court may admit evidence on the concentration of 83748
alcohol, drugs of abuse, or a combination of them as described in 83749
this division when a person submits to a blood, breath, urine, or 83750
other bodily substance test at the request of a law enforcement 83751
officer under section 4511.191 of the Revised Code or a blood or 83752
urine sample is obtained pursuant to a search warrant. Only a 83753
physician, a registered nurse, an emergency medical 83754
technician-intermediate, an emergency medical 83755
technician-paramedic, or a qualified technician, chemist, or 83756
phlebotomist shall withdraw a blood sample for the purpose of 83757
determining the alcohol, drug, controlled substance, metabolite of 83758
a controlled substance, or combination content of the whole blood, 83759
blood serum, or blood plasma. This limitation does not apply to 83760
the taking of breath or urine specimens. A person authorized to 83761
withdraw blood under this division may refuse to withdraw blood 83762
under this division, if in that person's opinion, the physical 83763
welfare of the person would be endangered by the withdrawing of 83764
blood.83765

       The bodily substance withdrawn under division (D)(1)(b) of 83766
this section shall be analyzed in accordance with methods approved 83767
by the director of health by an individual possessing a valid 83768
permit issued by the director pursuant to section 3701.143 of the 83769
Revised Code.83770

       (c) As used in division (D)(1)(b) of this section, "emergency 83771
medical technician-intermediate" and "emergency medical 83772
technician-paramedic" have the same meanings as in section 4765.01 83773
of the Revised Code.83774

       (2) In a criminal prosecution or juvenile court proceeding 83775
for a violation of division (A) of this section or for an 83776
equivalent offense that is vehicle-related, if there was at the 83777
time the bodily substance was withdrawn a concentration of less 83778
than the applicable concentration of alcohol specified in 83779
divisions (A)(1)(b), (c), (d), and (e) of this section or less 83780
than the applicable concentration of a listed controlled substance 83781
or a listed metabolite of a controlled substance specified for a 83782
violation of division (A)(1)(j) of this section, that fact may be 83783
considered with other competent evidence in determining the guilt 83784
or innocence of the defendant. This division does not limit or 83785
affect a criminal prosecution or juvenile court proceeding for a 83786
violation of division (B) of this section or for an equivalent 83787
offense that is substantially equivalent to that division.83788

       (3) Upon the request of the person who was tested, the 83789
results of the chemical test shall be made available to the person 83790
or the person's attorney, immediately upon the completion of the 83791
chemical test analysis.83792

        If the chemical test was obtained pursuant to division 83793
(D)(1)(b) of this section, the person tested may have a physician, 83794
a registered nurse, or a qualified technician, chemist, or 83795
phlebotomist of the person's own choosing administer a chemical 83796
test or tests, at the person's expense, in addition to any 83797
administered at the request of a law enforcement officer. If the 83798
person was under arrest as described in division (A)(5) of section 83799
4511.191 of the Revised Code, the arresting officer shall advise 83800
the person at the time of the arrest that the person may have an 83801
independent chemical test taken at the person's own expense. If 83802
the person was under arrest other than described in division 83803
(A)(5) of section 4511.191 of the Revised Code, the form to be 83804
read to the person to be tested, as required under section 83805
4511.192 of the Revised Code, shall state that the person may have 83806
an independent test performed at the person's expense. The failure 83807
or inability to obtain an additional chemical test by a person 83808
shall not preclude the admission of evidence relating to the 83809
chemical test or tests taken at the request of a law enforcement 83810
officer.83811

       (4)(a) As used in divisions (D)(4)(b) and (c) of this 83812
section, "national highway traffic safety administration" means 83813
the national highway traffic safety administration established as 83814
an administration of the United States department of 83815
transportation under 96 Stat. 2415 (1983), 49 U.S.C.A. 105.83816

       (b) In any criminal prosecution or juvenile court proceeding 83817
for a violation of division (A) or (B) of this section, of a 83818
municipal ordinance relating to operating a vehicle while under 83819
the influence of alcohol, a drug of abuse, or alcohol and a drug 83820
of abuse, or of a municipal ordinance relating to operating a 83821
vehicle with a prohibited concentration of alcohol, a controlled 83822
substance, or a metabolite of a controlled substance in the whole 83823
blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine, if a law 83824
enforcement officer has administered a field sobriety test to the 83825
operator of the vehicle involved in the violation and if it is 83826
shown by clear and convincing evidence that the officer 83827
administered the test in substantial compliance with the testing 83828
standards for any reliable, credible, and generally accepted field 83829
sobriety tests that were in effect at the time the tests were 83830
administered, including, but not limited to, any testing standards 83831
then in effect that were set by the national highway traffic 83832
safety administration, all of the following apply:83833

       (i) The officer may testify concerning the results of the 83834
field sobriety test so administered.83835

       (ii) The prosecution may introduce the results of the field 83836
sobriety test so administered as evidence in any proceedings in 83837
the criminal prosecution or juvenile court proceeding.83838

       (iii) If testimony is presented or evidence is introduced 83839
under division (D)(4)(b)(i) or (ii) of this section and if the 83840
testimony or evidence is admissible under the Rules of Evidence, 83841
the court shall admit the testimony or evidence and the trier of 83842
fact shall give it whatever weight the trier of fact considers to 83843
be appropriate.83844

       (c) Division (D)(4)(b) of this section does not limit or 83845
preclude a court, in its determination of whether the arrest of a 83846
person was supported by probable cause or its determination of any 83847
other matter in a criminal prosecution or juvenile court 83848
proceeding of a type described in that division, from considering 83849
evidence or testimony that is not otherwise disallowed by division 83850
(D)(4)(b) of this section.83851

       (E)(1) Subject to division (E)(3) of this section, in any 83852
criminal prosecution or juvenile court proceeding for a violation 83853
of division (A)(1)(b), (c), (d), (e), (f), (g), (h), (i), or (j) 83854
or (B)(1), (2), (3), or (4) of this section or for an equivalent 83855
offense that is substantially equivalent to any of those 83856
divisions, a laboratory report from any laboratory personnel 83857
issued a permit by the department of health authorizing an 83858
analysis as described in this division that contains an analysis 83859
of the whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, urine, or other 83860
bodily substance tested and that contains all of the information 83861
specified in this division shall be admitted as prima-facie 83862
evidence of the information and statements that the report 83863
contains. The laboratory report shall contain all of the 83864
following:83865

       (a) The signature, under oath, of any person who performed 83866
the analysis;83867

       (b) Any findings as to the identity and quantity of alcohol, 83868
a drug of abuse, a controlled substance, a metabolite of a 83869
controlled substance, or a combination of them that was found;83870

       (c) A copy of a notarized statement by the laboratory 83871
director or a designee of the director that contains the name of 83872
each certified analyst or test performer involved with the report, 83873
the analyst's or test performer's employment relationship with the 83874
laboratory that issued the report, and a notation that performing 83875
an analysis of the type involved is part of the analyst's or test 83876
performer's regular duties;83877

       (d) An outline of the analyst's or test performer's 83878
education, training, and experience in performing the type of 83879
analysis involved and a certification that the laboratory 83880
satisfies appropriate quality control standards in general and, in 83881
this particular analysis, under rules of the department of health.83882

       (2) Notwithstanding any other provision of law regarding the 83883
admission of evidence, a report of the type described in division 83884
(E)(1) of this section is not admissible against the defendant to 83885
whom it pertains in any proceeding, other than a preliminary 83886
hearing or a grand jury proceeding, unless the prosecutor has 83887
served a copy of the report on the defendant's attorney or, if the 83888
defendant has no attorney, on the defendant.83889

       (3) A report of the type described in division (E)(1) of this 83890
section shall not be prima-facie evidence of the contents, 83891
identity, or amount of any substance if, within seven days after 83892
the defendant to whom the report pertains or the defendant's 83893
attorney receives a copy of the report, the defendant or the 83894
defendant's attorney demands the testimony of the person who 83895
signed the report. The judge in the case may extend the seven-day 83896
time limit in the interest of justice.83897

       (F) Except as otherwise provided in this division, any 83898
physician, registered nurse, emergency medical 83899
technician-intermediate, emergency medical technician-paramedic, 83900
or qualified technician, chemist, or phlebotomist who withdraws 83901
blood from a person pursuant to this section or section 4511.191 83902
or 4511.192 of the Revised Code, and any hospital, first-aid 83903
station, or clinic at which blood is withdrawn from a person 83904
pursuant to this section or section 4511.191 or 4511.192 of the 83905
Revised Code, is immune from criminal liability and civil 83906
liability based upon a claim of assault and battery or any other 83907
claim that is not a claim of malpractice, for any act performed in 83908
withdrawing blood from the person. The immunity provided in this 83909
division also extends to an emergency medical service organization 83910
that employs an emergency medical technician-intermediate or 83911
emergency medical technician-paramedic who withdraws blood under 83912
this section. The immunity provided in this division is not 83913
available to a person who withdraws blood if the person engages in 83914
willful or wanton misconduct.83915

       As used in this division, "emergency medical 83916
technician-intermediate" and "emergency medical 83917
technician-paramedic" have the same meanings as in section 4765.01 83918
of the Revised Code.83919

       (G)(1) Whoever violates any provision of divisions (A)(1)(a) 83920
to (i) or (A)(2) of this section is guilty of operating a vehicle 83921
under the influence of alcohol, a drug of abuse, or a combination 83922
of them. Whoever violates division (A)(1)(j) of this section is 83923
guilty of operating a vehicle while under the influence of a 83924
listed controlled substance or a listed metabolite of a controlled 83925
substance. The court shall sentence the offender for either 83926
offense under Chapter 2929. of the Revised Code, except as 83927
otherwise authorized or required by divisions (G)(1)(a) to (e) of 83928
this section:83929

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (G)(1)(b), (c), 83930
(d), or (e) of this section, the offender is guilty of a 83931
misdemeanor of the first degree, and the court shall sentence the 83932
offender to all of the following:83933

       (i) If the sentence is being imposed for a violation of 83934
division (A)(1)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), or (j) of this section, a 83935
mandatory jail term of three consecutive days. As used in this 83936
division, three consecutive days means seventy-two consecutive 83937
hours. The court may sentence an offender to both an intervention 83938
program and a jail term. The court may impose a jail term in 83939
addition to the three-day mandatory jail term or intervention 83940
program. However, in no case shall the cumulative jail term 83941
imposed for the offense exceed six months.83942

       The court may suspend the execution of the three-day jail 83943
term under this division if the court, in lieu of that suspended 83944
term, places the offender under a community control sanction 83945
pursuant to section 2929.25 of the Revised Code and requires the 83946
offender to attend, for three consecutive days, a drivers' 83947
intervention program certified under section 3793.105119.38 of 83948
the Revised Code. The court also may suspend the execution of any 83949
part of the three-day jail term under this division if it places 83950
the offender under a community control sanction pursuant to 83951
section 2929.25 of the Revised Code for part of the three days, 83952
requires the offender to attend for the suspended part of the term 83953
a drivers' intervention program so certified, and sentences the 83954
offender to a jail term equal to the remainder of the three 83955
consecutive days that the offender does not spend attending the 83956
program. The court may require the offender, as a condition of 83957
community control and in addition to the required attendance at a 83958
drivers' intervention program, to attend and satisfactorily 83959
complete any treatment or education programs that comply with the 83960
minimum standards adopted pursuant to Chapter 3793.5119. of the 83961
Revised Code by the director of alcohol and drug addiction 83962
servicesmental health and addiction services that the operators 83963
of the drivers' intervention program determine that the offender 83964
should attend and to report periodically to the court on the 83965
offender's progress in the programs. The court also may impose on 83966
the offender any other conditions of community control that it 83967
considers necessary.83968

       (ii) If the sentence is being imposed for a violation of 83969
division (A)(1)(f), (g), (h), or (i) or division (A)(2) of this 83970
section, except as otherwise provided in this division, a 83971
mandatory jail term of at least three consecutive days and a 83972
requirement that the offender attend, for three consecutive days, 83973
a drivers' intervention program that is certified pursuant to 83974
section 3793.105119.38 of the Revised Code. As used in this 83975
division, three consecutive days means seventy-two consecutive 83976
hours. If the court determines that the offender is not conducive 83977
to treatment in a drivers' intervention program, if the offender 83978
refuses to attend a drivers' intervention program, or if the jail 83979
at which the offender is to serve the jail term imposed can 83980
provide a driver's intervention program, the court shall sentence 83981
the offender to a mandatory jail term of at least six consecutive 83982
days.83983

       The court may require the offender, under a community control 83984
sanction imposed under section 2929.25 of the Revised Code, to 83985
attend and satisfactorily complete any treatment or education 83986
programs that comply with the minimum standards adopted pursuant 83987
to Chapter 3793.5119. of the Revised Code by the director of 83988
alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 83989
services, in addition to the required attendance at drivers' 83990
intervention program, that the operators of the drivers' 83991
intervention program determine that the offender should attend and 83992
to report periodically to the court on the offender's progress in 83993
the programs. The court also may impose any other conditions of 83994
community control on the offender that it considers necessary.83995

       (iii) In all cases, a fine of not less than three hundred 83996
seventy-five and not more than one thousand seventy-five dollars;83997

       (iv) In all cases, a class five license suspension of the 83998
offender's driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or 83999
nonresident operating privilege from the range specified in 84000
division (A)(5) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code. The court 84001
may grant limited driving privileges relative to the suspension 84002
under sections 4510.021 and 4510.13 of the Revised Code.84003

       (b) Except as otherwise provided in division (G)(1)(e) of 84004
this section, an offender who, within six years of the offense, 84005
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one 84006
violation of division (A) or (B) of this section or one other 84007
equivalent offense is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. 84008
The court shall sentence the offender to all of the following:84009

       (i) If the sentence is being imposed for a violation of 84010
division (A)(1)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), or (j) of this section, a 84011
mandatory jail term of ten consecutive days. The court shall 84012
impose the ten-day mandatory jail term under this division unless, 84013
subject to division (G)(3) of this section, it instead imposes a 84014
sentence under that division consisting of both a jail term and a 84015
term of house arrest with electronic monitoring, with continuous 84016
alcohol monitoring, or with both electronic monitoring and 84017
continuous alcohol monitoring. The court may impose a jail term in 84018
addition to the ten-day mandatory jail term. The cumulative jail 84019
term imposed for the offense shall not exceed six months.84020

       In addition to the jail term or the term of house arrest with 84021
electronic monitoring or continuous alcohol monitoring or both 84022
types of monitoring and jail term, the court shall require the 84023
offender to be assessed by an alcohol and drug treatment programa 84024
community addiction services provider that is authorized by 84025
section 3793.025119.21 of the Revised Code, subject to division 84026
(I) of this section, and shall order the offender to follow the 84027
treatment recommendations of the programservices provider. The 84028
purpose of the assessment is to determine the degree of the 84029
offender's alcohol usage and to determine whether or not treatment 84030
is warranted. Upon the request of the court, the programservices 84031
provider shall submit the results of the assessment to the court, 84032
including all treatment recommendations and clinical diagnoses 84033
related to alcohol use.84034

       (ii) If the sentence is being imposed for a violation of 84035
division (A)(1)(f), (g), (h), or (i) or division (A)(2) of this 84036
section, except as otherwise provided in this division, a 84037
mandatory jail term of twenty consecutive days. The court shall 84038
impose the twenty-day mandatory jail term under this division 84039
unless, subject to division (G)(3) of this section, it instead 84040
imposes a sentence under that division consisting of both a jail 84041
term and a term of house arrest with electronic monitoring, with 84042
continuous alcohol monitoring, or with both electronic monitoring 84043
and continuous alcohol monitoring. The court may impose a jail 84044
term in addition to the twenty-day mandatory jail term. The 84045
cumulative jail term imposed for the offense shall not exceed six 84046
months.84047

       In addition to the jail term or the term of house arrest with 84048
electronic monitoring or continuous alcohol monitoring or both 84049
types of monitoring and jail term, the court shall require the 84050
offender to be assessed by an alcohol and drug treatment programa 84051
community addiction service provider that is authorized by section 84052
3793.025119.21 of the Revised Code, subject to division (I) of 84053
this section, and shall order the offender to follow the treatment 84054
recommendations of the programservices provider. The purpose of 84055
the assessment is to determine the degree of the offender's 84056
alcohol usage and to determine whether or not treatment is 84057
warranted. Upon the request of the court, the programservices 84058
provider shall submit the results of the assessment to the court, 84059
including all treatment recommendations and clinical diagnoses 84060
related to alcohol use.84061

       (iii) In all cases, notwithstanding the fines set forth in 84062
Chapter 2929. of the Revised Code, a fine of not less than five 84063
hundred twenty-five and not more than one thousand six hundred 84064
twenty-five dollars;84065

       (iv) In all cases, a class four license suspension of the 84066
offender's driver's license, commercial driver's license, 84067
temporary instruction permit, probationary license, or nonresident 84068
operating privilege from the range specified in division (A)(4) of 84069
section 4510.02 of the Revised Code. The court may grant limited 84070
driving privileges relative to the suspension under sections 84071
4510.021 and 4510.13 of the Revised Code.84072

       (v) In all cases, if the vehicle is registered in the 84073
offender's name, immobilization of the vehicle involved in the 84074
offense for ninety days in accordance with section 4503.233 of the 84075
Revised Code and impoundment of the license plates of that vehicle 84076
for ninety days.84077

       (c) Except as otherwise provided in division (G)(1)(e) of 84078
this section, an offender who, within six years of the offense, 84079
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to two 84080
violations of division (A) or (B) of this section or other 84081
equivalent offenses is guilty of a misdemeanor. The court shall 84082
sentence the offender to all of the following:84083

       (i) If the sentence is being imposed for a violation of 84084
division (A)(1)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), or (j) of this section, a 84085
mandatory jail term of thirty consecutive days. The court shall 84086
impose the thirty-day mandatory jail term under this division 84087
unless, subject to division (G)(3) of this section, it instead 84088
imposes a sentence under that division consisting of both a jail 84089
term and a term of house arrest with electronic monitoring, with 84090
continuous alcohol monitoring, or with both electronic monitoring 84091
and continuous alcohol monitoring. The court may impose a jail 84092
term in addition to the thirty-day mandatory jail term. 84093
Notwithstanding the jail terms set forth in sections 2929.21 to 84094
2929.28 of the Revised Code, the additional jail term shall not 84095
exceed one year, and the cumulative jail term imposed for the 84096
offense shall not exceed one year.84097

       (ii) If the sentence is being imposed for a violation of 84098
division (A)(1)(f), (g), (h), or (i) or division (A)(2) of this 84099
section, a mandatory jail term of sixty consecutive days. The 84100
court shall impose the sixty-day mandatory jail term under this 84101
division unless, subject to division (G)(3) of this section, it 84102
instead imposes a sentence under that division consisting of both 84103
a jail term and a term of house arrest with electronic monitoring, 84104
with continuous alcohol monitoring, or with both electronic 84105
monitoring and continuous alcohol monitoring. The court may impose 84106
a jail term in addition to the sixty-day mandatory jail term. 84107
Notwithstanding the jail terms set forth in sections 2929.21 to 84108
2929.28 of the Revised Code, the additional jail term shall not 84109
exceed one year, and the cumulative jail term imposed for the 84110
offense shall not exceed one year.84111

       (iii) In all cases, notwithstanding the fines set forth in 84112
Chapter 2929. of the Revised Code, a fine of not less than eight 84113
hundred fifty and not more than two thousand seven hundred fifty 84114
dollars;84115

       (iv) In all cases, a class three license suspension of the 84116
offender's driver's license, commercial driver's license, 84117
temporary instruction permit, probationary license, or nonresident 84118
operating privilege from the range specified in division (A)(3) of 84119
section 4510.02 of the Revised Code. The court may grant limited 84120
driving privileges relative to the suspension under sections 84121
4510.021 and 4510.13 of the Revised Code.84122

       (v) In all cases, if the vehicle is registered in the 84123
offender's name, criminal forfeiture of the vehicle involved in 84124
the offense in accordance with section 4503.234 of the Revised 84125
Code. Division (G)(6) of this section applies regarding any 84126
vehicle that is subject to an order of criminal forfeiture under 84127
this division.84128

       (vi) In all cases, the court shall order the offender to 84129
participate in an alcohol and drugwith a community addiction 84130
programservices provider authorized by section 3793.025119.21 of 84131
the Revised Code, subject to division (I) of this section, and 84132
shall order the offender to follow the treatment recommendations 84133
of the programservices provider. The operator of the program84134
services provider shall determine and assess the degree of the 84135
offender's alcohol dependency and shall make recommendations for 84136
treatment. Upon the request of the court, the programservices 84137
provider shall submit the results of the assessment to the court, 84138
including all treatment recommendations and clinical diagnoses 84139
related to alcohol use.84140

       (d) Except as otherwise provided in division (G)(1)(e) of 84141
this section, an offender who, within six years of the offense, 84142
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to three or 84143
four violations of division (A) or (B) of this section or other 84144
equivalent offenses or an offender who, within twenty years of the 84145
offense, previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to 84146
five or more violations of that nature is guilty of a felony of 84147
the fourth degree. The court shall sentence the offender to all of 84148
the following:84149

       (i) If the sentence is being imposed for a violation of 84150
division (A)(1)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), or (j) of this section, a 84151
mandatory prison term of one, two, three, four, or five years as 84152
required by and in accordance with division (G)(2) of section 84153
2929.13 of the Revised Code if the offender also is convicted of 84154
or also pleads guilty to a specification of the type described in 84155
section 2941.1413 of the Revised Code or, in the discretion of the 84156
court, either a mandatory term of local incarceration of sixty 84157
consecutive days in accordance with division (G)(1) of section 84158
2929.13 of the Revised Code or a mandatory prison term of sixty 84159
consecutive days in accordance with division (G)(2) of that 84160
section if the offender is not convicted of and does not plead 84161
guilty to a specification of that type. If the court imposes a 84162
mandatory term of local incarceration, it may impose a jail term 84163
in addition to the sixty-day mandatory term, the cumulative total 84164
of the mandatory term and the jail term for the offense shall not 84165
exceed one year, and, except as provided in division (A)(1) of 84166
section 2929.13 of the Revised Code, no prison term is authorized 84167
for the offense. If the court imposes a mandatory prison term, 84168
notwithstanding division (A)(4) of section 2929.14 of the Revised 84169
Code, it also may sentence the offender to a definite prison term 84170
that shall be not less than six months and not more than thirty 84171
months and the prison terms shall be imposed as described in 84172
division (G)(2) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code. If the 84173
court imposes a mandatory prison term or mandatory prison term and 84174
additional prison term, in addition to the term or terms so 84175
imposed, the court also may sentence the offender to a community 84176
control sanction for the offense, but the offender shall serve all 84177
of the prison terms so imposed prior to serving the community 84178
control sanction.84179

       (ii) If the sentence is being imposed for a violation of 84180
division (A)(1)(f), (g), (h), or (i) or division (A)(2) of this 84181
section, a mandatory prison term of one, two, three, four, or five 84182
years as required by and in accordance with division (G)(2) of 84183
section 2929.13 of the Revised Code if the offender also is 84184
convicted of or also pleads guilty to a specification of the type 84185
described in section 2941.1413 of the Revised Code or, in the 84186
discretion of the court, either a mandatory term of local 84187
incarceration of one hundred twenty consecutive days in accordance 84188
with division (G)(1) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code or a 84189
mandatory prison term of one hundred twenty consecutive days in 84190
accordance with division (G)(2) of that section if the offender is 84191
not convicted of and does not plead guilty to a specification of 84192
that type. If the court imposes a mandatory term of local 84193
incarceration, it may impose a jail term in addition to the one 84194
hundred twenty-day mandatory term, the cumulative total of the 84195
mandatory term and the jail term for the offense shall not exceed 84196
one year, and, except as provided in division (A)(1) of section 84197
2929.13 of the Revised Code, no prison term is authorized for the 84198
offense. If the court imposes a mandatory prison term, 84199
notwithstanding division (A)(4) of section 2929.14 of the Revised 84200
Code, it also may sentence the offender to a definite prison term 84201
that shall be not less than six months and not more than thirty 84202
months and the prison terms shall be imposed as described in 84203
division (G)(2) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code. If the 84204
court imposes a mandatory prison term or mandatory prison term and 84205
additional prison term, in addition to the term or terms so 84206
imposed, the court also may sentence the offender to a community 84207
control sanction for the offense, but the offender shall serve all 84208
of the prison terms so imposed prior to serving the community 84209
control sanction.84210

       (iii) In all cases, notwithstanding section 2929.18 of the 84211
Revised Code, a fine of not less than one thousand three hundred 84212
fifty nor more than ten thousand five hundred dollars;84213

       (iv) In all cases, a class two license suspension of the 84214
offender's driver's license, commercial driver's license, 84215
temporary instruction permit, probationary license, or nonresident 84216
operating privilege from the range specified in division (A)(2) of 84217
section 4510.02 of the Revised Code. The court may grant limited 84218
driving privileges relative to the suspension under sections 84219
4510.021 and 4510.13 of the Revised Code.84220

       (v) In all cases, if the vehicle is registered in the 84221
offender's name, criminal forfeiture of the vehicle involved in 84222
the offense in accordance with section 4503.234 of the Revised 84223
Code. Division (G)(6) of this section applies regarding any 84224
vehicle that is subject to an order of criminal forfeiture under 84225
this division.84226

       (vi) In all cases, the court shall order the offender to 84227
participate in an alcohol and drugwith a community addiction 84228
programservices provider authorized by section 3793.025119.21 of 84229
the Revised Code, subject to division (I) of this section, and 84230
shall order the offender to follow the treatment recommendations 84231
of the programservices provider. The operator of the program84232
services provider shall determine and assess the degree of the 84233
offender's alcohol dependency and shall make recommendations for 84234
treatment. Upon the request of the court, the programservices 84235
provider shall submit the results of the assessment to the court, 84236
including all treatment recommendations and clinical diagnoses 84237
related to alcohol use.84238

       (vii) In all cases, if the court sentences the offender to a 84239
mandatory term of local incarceration, in addition to the 84240
mandatory term, the court, pursuant to section 2929.17 of the 84241
Revised Code, may impose a term of house arrest with electronic 84242
monitoring. The term shall not commence until after the offender 84243
has served the mandatory term of local incarceration.84244

       (e) An offender who previously has been convicted of or 84245
pleaded guilty to a violation of division (A) of this section that 84246
was a felony, regardless of when the violation and the conviction 84247
or guilty plea occurred, is guilty of a felony of the third 84248
degree. The court shall sentence the offender to all of the 84249
following:84250

       (i) If the offender is being sentenced for a violation of 84251
division (A)(1)(a), (b), (c), (d), (e), or (j) of this section, a 84252
mandatory prison term of one, two, three, four, or five years as 84253
required by and in accordance with division (G)(2) of section 84254
2929.13 of the Revised Code if the offender also is convicted of 84255
or also pleads guilty to a specification of the type described in 84256
section 2941.1413 of the Revised Code or a mandatory prison term 84257
of sixty consecutive days in accordance with division (G)(2) of 84258
section 2929.13 of the Revised Code if the offender is not 84259
convicted of and does not plead guilty to a specification of that 84260
type. The court may impose a prison term in addition to the 84261
mandatory prison term. The cumulative total of a sixty-day 84262
mandatory prison term and the additional prison term for the 84263
offense shall not exceed five years. In addition to the mandatory 84264
prison term or mandatory prison term and additional prison term 84265
the court imposes, the court also may sentence the offender to a 84266
community control sanction for the offense, but the offender shall 84267
serve all of the prison terms so imposed prior to serving the 84268
community control sanction.84269

       (ii) If the sentence is being imposed for a violation of 84270
division (A)(1)(f), (g), (h), or (i) or division (A)(2) of this 84271
section, a mandatory prison term of one, two, three, four, or five 84272
years as required by and in accordance with division (G)(2) of 84273
section 2929.13 of the Revised Code if the offender also is 84274
convicted of or also pleads guilty to a specification of the type 84275
described in section 2941.1413 of the Revised Code or a mandatory 84276
prison term of one hundred twenty consecutive days in accordance 84277
with division (G)(2) of section 2929.13 of the Revised Code if the 84278
offender is not convicted of and does not plead guilty to a 84279
specification of that type. The court may impose a prison term in 84280
addition to the mandatory prison term. The cumulative total of a 84281
one hundred twenty-day mandatory prison term and the additional 84282
prison term for the offense shall not exceed five years. In 84283
addition to the mandatory prison term or mandatory prison term and 84284
additional prison term the court imposes, the court also may 84285
sentence the offender to a community control sanction for the 84286
offense, but the offender shall serve all of the prison terms so 84287
imposed prior to serving the community control sanction.84288

       (iii) In all cases, notwithstanding section 2929.18 of the 84289
Revised Code, a fine of not less than one thousand three hundred 84290
fifty nor more than ten thousand five hundred dollars;84291

       (iv) In all cases, a class two license suspension of the 84292
offender's driver's license, commercial driver's license, 84293
temporary instruction permit, probationary license, or nonresident 84294
operating privilege from the range specified in division (A)(2) of 84295
section 4510.02 of the Revised Code. The court may grant limited 84296
driving privileges relative to the suspension under sections 84297
4510.021 and 4510.13 of the Revised Code.84298

       (v) In all cases, if the vehicle is registered in the 84299
offender's name, criminal forfeiture of the vehicle involved in 84300
the offense in accordance with section 4503.234 of the Revised 84301
Code. Division (G)(6) of this section applies regarding any 84302
vehicle that is subject to an order of criminal forfeiture under 84303
this division.84304

       (vi) In all cases, the court shall order the offender to 84305
participate in an alcohol and drugwith a community addiction 84306
programservices provider authorized by section 3793.025119.21 of 84307
the Revised Code, subject to division (I) of this section, and 84308
shall order the offender to follow the treatment recommendations 84309
of the programservices provider. The operator of the program84310
services provider shall determine and assess the degree of the 84311
offender's alcohol dependency and shall make recommendations for 84312
treatment. Upon the request of the court, the programservices 84313
provider shall submit the results of the assessment to the court, 84314
including all treatment recommendations and clinical diagnoses 84315
related to alcohol use.84316

       (2) An offender who is convicted of or pleads guilty to a 84317
violation of division (A) of this section and who subsequently 84318
seeks reinstatement of the driver's or occupational driver's 84319
license or permit or nonresident operating privilege suspended 84320
under this section as a result of the conviction or guilty plea 84321
shall pay a reinstatement fee as provided in division (F)(2) of 84322
section 4511.191 of the Revised Code.84323

       (3) If an offender is sentenced to a jail term under division 84324
(G)(1)(b)(i) or (ii) or (G)(1)(c)(i) or (ii) of this section and 84325
if, within sixty days of sentencing of the offender, the court 84326
issues a written finding on the record that, due to the 84327
unavailability of space at the jail where the offender is required 84328
to serve the term, the offender will not be able to begin serving 84329
that term within the sixty-day period following the date of 84330
sentencing, the court may impose an alternative sentence under 84331
this division that includes a term of house arrest with electronic 84332
monitoring, with continuous alcohol monitoring, or with both 84333
electronic monitoring and continuous alcohol monitoring.84334

       As an alternative to a mandatory jail term of ten consecutive 84335
days required by division (G)(1)(b)(i) of this section, the court, 84336
under this division, may sentence the offender to five consecutive 84337
days in jail and not less than eighteen consecutive days of house 84338
arrest with electronic monitoring, with continuous alcohol 84339
monitoring, or with both electronic monitoring and continuous 84340
alcohol monitoring. The cumulative total of the five consecutive 84341
days in jail and the period of house arrest with electronic 84342
monitoring, continuous alcohol monitoring, or both types of 84343
monitoring shall not exceed six months. The five consecutive days 84344
in jail do not have to be served prior to or consecutively to the 84345
period of house arrest.84346

       As an alternative to the mandatory jail term of twenty 84347
consecutive days required by division (G)(1)(b)(ii) of this 84348
section, the court, under this division, may sentence the offender 84349
to ten consecutive days in jail and not less than thirty-six 84350
consecutive days of house arrest with electronic monitoring, with 84351
continuous alcohol monitoring, or with both electronic monitoring 84352
and continuous alcohol monitoring. The cumulative total of the ten 84353
consecutive days in jail and the period of house arrest with 84354
electronic monitoring, continuous alcohol monitoring, or both 84355
types of monitoring shall not exceed six months. The ten 84356
consecutive days in jail do not have to be served prior to or 84357
consecutively to the period of house arrest.84358

       As an alternative to a mandatory jail term of thirty 84359
consecutive days required by division (G)(1)(c)(i) of this 84360
section, the court, under this division, may sentence the offender 84361
to fifteen consecutive days in jail and not less than fifty-five 84362
consecutive days of house arrest with electronic monitoring, with 84363
continuous alcohol monitoring, or with both electronic monitoring 84364
and continuous alcohol monitoring. The cumulative total of the 84365
fifteen consecutive days in jail and the period of house arrest 84366
with electronic monitoring, continuous alcohol monitoring, or both 84367
types of monitoring shall not exceed one year. The fifteen 84368
consecutive days in jail do not have to be served prior to or 84369
consecutively to the period of house arrest.84370

       As an alternative to the mandatory jail term of sixty 84371
consecutive days required by division (G)(1)(c)(ii) of this 84372
section, the court, under this division, may sentence the offender 84373
to thirty consecutive days in jail and not less than one hundred 84374
ten consecutive days of house arrest with electronic monitoring, 84375
with continuous alcohol monitoring, or with both electronic 84376
monitoring and continuous alcohol monitoring. The cumulative total 84377
of the thirty consecutive days in jail and the period of house 84378
arrest with electronic monitoring, continuous alcohol monitoring, 84379
or both types of monitoring shall not exceed one year. The thirty 84380
consecutive days in jail do not have to be served prior to or 84381
consecutively to the period of house arrest.84382

       (4) If an offender's driver's or occupational driver's 84383
license or permit or nonresident operating privilege is suspended 84384
under division (G) of this section and if section 4510.13 of the 84385
Revised Code permits the court to grant limited driving 84386
privileges, the court may grant the limited driving privileges in 84387
accordance with that section. If division (A)(7) of that section 84388
requires that the court impose as a condition of the privileges 84389
that the offender must display on the vehicle that is driven 84390
subject to the privileges restricted license plates that are 84391
issued under section 4503.231 of the Revised Code, except as 84392
provided in division (B) of that section, the court shall impose 84393
that condition as one of the conditions of the limited driving 84394
privileges granted to the offender, except as provided in division 84395
(B) of section 4503.231 of the Revised Code.84396

       (5) Fines imposed under this section for a violation of 84397
division (A) of this section shall be distributed as follows:84398

       (a) Twenty-five dollars of the fine imposed under division 84399
(G)(1)(a)(iii), thirty-five dollars of the fine imposed under 84400
division (G)(1)(b)(iii), one hundred twenty-three dollars of the 84401
fine imposed under division (G)(1)(c)(iii), and two hundred ten 84402
dollars of the fine imposed under division (G)(1)(d)(iii) or 84403
(e)(iii) of this section shall be paid to an enforcement and 84404
education fund established by the legislative authority of the law 84405
enforcement agency in this state that primarily was responsible 84406
for the arrest of the offender, as determined by the court that 84407
imposes the fine. The agency shall use this share to pay only 84408
those costs it incurs in enforcing this section or a municipal OVI 84409
ordinance and in informing the public of the laws governing the 84410
operation of a vehicle while under the influence of alcohol, the 84411
dangers of the operation of a vehicle under the influence of 84412
alcohol, and other information relating to the operation of a 84413
vehicle under the influence of alcohol and the consumption of 84414
alcoholic beverages.84415

       (b) Fifty dollars of the fine imposed under division 84416
(G)(1)(a)(iii) of this section shall be paid to the political 84417
subdivision that pays the cost of housing the offender during the 84418
offender's term of incarceration. If the offender is being 84419
sentenced for a violation of division (A)(1)(a), (b), (c), (d), 84420
(e), or (j) of this section and was confined as a result of the 84421
offense prior to being sentenced for the offense but is not 84422
sentenced to a term of incarceration, the fifty dollars shall be 84423
paid to the political subdivision that paid the cost of housing 84424
the offender during that period of confinement. The political 84425
subdivision shall use the share under this division to pay or 84426
reimburse incarceration or treatment costs it incurs in housing or 84427
providing drug and alcohol treatment to persons who violate this 84428
section or a municipal OVI ordinance, costs of any immobilizing or 84429
disabling device used on the offender's vehicle, and costs of 84430
electronic house arrest equipment needed for persons who violate 84431
this section.84432

       (c) Twenty-five dollars of the fine imposed under division 84433
(G)(1)(a)(iii) and fifty dollars of the fine imposed under 84434
division (G)(1)(b)(iii) of this section shall be deposited into 84435
the county or municipal indigent drivers' alcohol treatment fund 84436
under the control of that court, as created by the county or 84437
municipal corporation under division (F) of section 4511.191 of 84438
the Revised Code.84439

       (d) One hundred fifteen dollars of the fine imposed under 84440
division (G)(1)(b)(iii), two hundred seventy-seven dollars of the 84441
fine imposed under division (G)(1)(c)(iii), and four hundred forty 84442
dollars of the fine imposed under division (G)(1)(d)(iii) or 84443
(e)(iii) of this section shall be paid to the political 84444
subdivision that pays the cost of housing the offender during the 84445
offender's term of incarceration. The political subdivision shall 84446
use this share to pay or reimburse incarceration or treatment 84447
costs it incurs in housing or providing drug and alcohol treatment 84448
to persons who violate this section or a municipal OVI ordinance, 84449
costs for any immobilizing or disabling device used on the 84450
offender's vehicle, and costs of electronic house arrest equipment 84451
needed for persons who violate this section.84452

       (e) Fifty dollars of the fine imposed under divisions 84453
(G)(1)(a)(iii), (G)(1)(b)(iii), (G)(1)(c)(iii), (G)(1)(d)(iii), 84454
and (G)(1)(e)(iii) of this section shall be deposited into the 84455
special projects fund of the court in which the offender was 84456
convicted and that is established under division (E)(1) of section 84457
2303.201, division (B)(1) of section 1901.26, or division (B)(1) 84458
of section 1907.24 of the Revised Code, to be used exclusively to 84459
cover the cost of immobilizing or disabling devices, including 84460
certified ignition interlock devices, and remote alcohol 84461
monitoring devices for indigent offenders who are required by a 84462
judge to use either of these devices. If the court in which the 84463
offender was convicted does not have a special projects fund that 84464
is established under division (E)(1) of section 2303.201, division 84465
(B)(1) of section 1901.26, or division (B)(1) of section 1907.24 84466
of the Revised Code, the fifty dollars shall be deposited into the 84467
indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund under 84468
division (I) of section 4511.191 of the Revised Code.84469

       (f) Seventy-five dollars of the fine imposed under division 84470
(G)(1)(a)(iii), one hundred twenty-five dollars of the fine 84471
imposed under division (G)(1)(b)(iii), two hundred fifty dollars 84472
of the fine imposed under division (G)(1)(c)(iii), and five 84473
hundred dollars of the fine imposed under division (G)(1)(d)(iii) 84474
or (e)(iii) of this section shall be transmitted to the treasurer 84475
of state for deposit into the indigent defense support fund 84476
established under section 120.08 of the Revised Code.84477

       (g) The balance of the fine imposed under division 84478
(G)(1)(a)(iii), (b)(iii), (c)(iii), (d)(iii), or (e)(iii) of this 84479
section shall be disbursed as otherwise provided by law.84480

       (6) If title to a motor vehicle that is subject to an order 84481
of criminal forfeiture under division (G)(1)(c), (d), or (e) of 84482
this section is assigned or transferred and division (B)(2) or (3) 84483
of section 4503.234 of the Revised Code applies, in addition to or 84484
independent of any other penalty established by law, the court may 84485
fine the offender the value of the vehicle as determined by 84486
publications of the national automobile dealers association. The 84487
proceeds of any fine so imposed shall be distributed in accordance 84488
with division (C)(2) of that section.84489

       (7) In all cases in which an offender is sentenced under 84490
division (G) of this section, the offender shall provide the court 84491
with proof of financial responsibility as defined in section 84492
4509.01 of the Revised Code. If the offender fails to provide that 84493
proof of financial responsibility, the court, in addition to any 84494
other penalties provided by law, may order restitution pursuant to 84495
section 2929.18 or 2929.28 of the Revised Code in an amount not 84496
exceeding five thousand dollars for any economic loss arising from 84497
an accident or collision that was the direct and proximate result 84498
of the offender's operation of the vehicle before, during, or 84499
after committing the offense for which the offender is sentenced 84500
under division (G) of this section.84501

       (8) As used in division (G) of this section, "electronic 84502
monitoring," "mandatory prison term," and "mandatory term of local 84503
incarceration" have the same meanings as in section 2929.01 of the 84504
Revised Code.84505

       (H) Whoever violates division (B) of this section is guilty 84506
of operating a vehicle after underage alcohol consumption and 84507
shall be punished as follows:84508

       (1) Except as otherwise provided in division (H)(2) of this 84509
section, the offender is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth 84510
degree. In addition to any other sanction imposed for the offense, 84511
the court shall impose a class six suspension of the offender's 84512
driver's license, commercial driver's license, temporary 84513
instruction permit, probationary license, or nonresident operating 84514
privilege from the range specified in division (A)(6) of section 84515
4510.02 of the Revised Code.84516

       (2) If, within one year of the offense, the offender 84517
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one or more 84518
violations of division (A) or (B) of this section or other 84519
equivalent offenses, the offender is guilty of a misdemeanor of 84520
the third degree. In addition to any other sanction imposed for 84521
the offense, the court shall impose a class four suspension of the 84522
offender's driver's license, commercial driver's license, 84523
temporary instruction permit, probationary license, or nonresident 84524
operating privilege from the range specified in division (A)(4) of 84525
section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.84526

       (3) If the offender also is convicted of or also pleads 84527
guilty to a specification of the type described in section 84528
2941.1416 of the Revised Code and if the court imposes a jail term 84529
for the violation of division (B) of this section, the court shall 84530
impose upon the offender an additional definite jail term pursuant 84531
to division (E) of section 2929.24 of the Revised Code.84532

       (4) The offender shall provide the court with proof of 84533
financial responsibility as defined in section 4509.01 of the 84534
Revised Code. If the offender fails to provide that proof of 84535
financial responsibility, then, in addition to any other penalties 84536
provided by law, the court may order restitution pursuant to 84537
section 2929.28 of the Revised Code in an amount not exceeding 84538
five thousand dollars for any economic loss arising from an 84539
accident or collision that was the direct and proximate result of 84540
the offender's operation of the vehicle before, during, or after 84541
committing the violation of division (B) of this section.84542

       (I)(1) No court shall sentence an offender to an alcohol 84543
treatment program under this section unless the treatment program 84544
complies with the minimum standards for alcohol treatment programs 84545
adopted under Chapter 3793.5119. of the Revised Code by the 84546
director of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and 84547
addiction services.84548

       (2) An offender who stays in a drivers' intervention program 84549
or in an alcohol treatment program under an order issued under 84550
this section shall pay the cost of the stay in the program. 84551
However, if the court determines that an offender who stays in an 84552
alcohol treatment program under an order issued under this section 84553
is unable to pay the cost of the stay in the program, the court 84554
may order that the cost be paid from the court's indigent drivers' 84555
alcohol treatment fund.84556

       (J) If a person whose driver's or commercial driver's license 84557
or permit or nonresident operating privilege is suspended under 84558
this section files an appeal regarding any aspect of the person's 84559
trial or sentence, the appeal itself does not stay the operation 84560
of the suspension.84561

       (K) Division (A)(1)(j) of this section does not apply to a 84562
person who operates a vehicle, streetcar, or trackless trolley 84563
while the person has a concentration of a listed controlled 84564
substance or a listed metabolite of a controlled substance in the 84565
person's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, or urine that equals 84566
or exceeds the amount specified in that division, if both of the 84567
following apply:84568

       (1) The person obtained the controlled substance pursuant to 84569
a prescription issued by a licensed health professional authorized 84570
to prescribe drugs.84571

       (2) The person injected, ingested, or inhaled the controlled 84572
substance in accordance with the health professional's directions.84573

       (L) The prohibited concentrations of a controlled substance 84574
or a metabolite of a controlled substance listed in division 84575
(A)(1)(j) of this section also apply in a prosecution of a 84576
violation of division (D) of section 2923.16 of the Revised Code 84577
in the same manner as if the offender is being prosecuted for a 84578
prohibited concentration of alcohol.84579

       (M) All terms defined in section 4510.01 of the Revised Code 84580
apply to this section. If the meaning of a term defined in section 84581
4510.01 of the Revised Code conflicts with the meaning of the same 84582
term as defined in section 4501.01 or 4511.01 of the Revised Code, 84583
the term as defined in section 4510.01 of the Revised Code applies 84584
to this section.84585

       (N)(1) The Ohio Traffic Rules in effect on January 1, 2004, 84586
as adopted by the supreme court under authority of section 2937.46 84587
of the Revised Code, do not apply to felony violations of this 84588
section. Subject to division (N)(2) of this section, the Rules of 84589
Criminal Procedure apply to felony violations of this section.84590

       (2) If, on or after January 1, 2004, the supreme court 84591
modifies the Ohio Traffic Rules to provide procedures to govern 84592
felony violations of this section, the modified rules shall apply 84593
to felony violations of this section.84594

       Sec. 4511.191.  (A)(1) As used in this section:84595

        (a) "Physical control" has the same meaning as in section 84596
4511.194 of the Revised Code.84597

       (b) "Alcohol monitoring device" means any device that 84598
provides for continuous alcohol monitoring, any ignition interlock 84599
device, any immobilizing or disabling device other than an 84600
ignition interlock device that is constantly available to monitor 84601
the concentration of alcohol in a person's system, or any other 84602
device that provides for the automatic testing and periodic 84603
reporting of alcohol consumption by a person and that a court 84604
orders a person to use as a sanction imposed as a result of the 84605
person's conviction of or plea of guilty to an offense.84606

       (2) Any person who operates a vehicle, streetcar, or 84607
trackless trolley upon a highway or any public or private property 84608
used by the public for vehicular travel or parking within this 84609
state or who is in physical control of a vehicle, streetcar, or 84610
trackless trolley shall be deemed to have given consent to a 84611
chemical test or tests of the person's whole blood, blood serum or 84612
plasma, breath, or urine to determine the alcohol, drug of abuse, 84613
controlled substance, metabolite of a controlled substance, or 84614
combination content of the person's whole blood, blood serum or 84615
plasma, breath, or urine if arrested for a violation of division 84616
(A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, section 84617
4511.194 of the Revised Code or a substantially equivalent 84618
municipal ordinance, or a municipal OVI ordinance.84619

       (3) The chemical test or tests under division (A)(2) of this 84620
section shall be administered at the request of a law enforcement 84621
officer having reasonable grounds to believe the person was 84622
operating or in physical control of a vehicle, streetcar, or 84623
trackless trolley in violation of a division, section, or 84624
ordinance identified in division (A)(2) of this section. The law 84625
enforcement agency by which the officer is employed shall 84626
designate which of the tests shall be administered.84627

       (4) Any person who is dead or unconscious, or who otherwise 84628
is in a condition rendering the person incapable of refusal, shall 84629
be deemed to have consented as provided in division (A)(2) of this 84630
section, and the test or tests may be administered, subject to 84631
sections 313.12 to 313.16 of the Revised Code.84632

       (5)(a) If a law enforcement officer arrests a person for a 84633
violation of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised 84634
Code, section 4511.194 of the Revised Code or a substantially 84635
equivalent municipal ordinance, or a municipal OVI ordinance and 84636
if the person if convicted would be required to be sentenced under 84637
division (G)(1)(c), (d), or (e) of section 4511.19 of the Revised 84638
Code, the law enforcement officer shall request the person to 84639
submit, and the person shall submit, to a chemical test or tests 84640
of the person's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or 84641
urine for the purpose of determining the alcohol, drug of abuse, 84642
controlled substance, metabolite of a controlled substance, or 84643
combination content of the person's whole blood, blood serum or 84644
plasma, breath, or urine. A law enforcement officer who makes a 84645
request pursuant to this division that a person submit to a 84646
chemical test or tests is not required to advise the person of the 84647
consequences of submitting to, or refusing to submit to, the test 84648
or tests and is not required to give the person the form described 84649
in division (B) of section 4511.192 of the Revised Code, but the 84650
officer shall advise the person at the time of the arrest that if 84651
the person refuses to take a chemical test the officer may employ 84652
whatever reasonable means are necessary to ensure that the person 84653
submits to a chemical test of the person's whole blood or blood 84654
serum or plasma. The officer shall also advise the person at the 84655
time of the arrest that the person may have an independent 84656
chemical test taken at the person's own expense. Divisions (A)(3) 84657
and (4) of this section apply to the administration of a chemical 84658
test or tests pursuant to this division.84659

       (b) If a person refuses to submit to a chemical test upon a 84660
request made pursuant to division (A)(5)(a) of this section, the 84661
law enforcement officer who made the request may employ whatever 84662
reasonable means are necessary to ensure that the person submits 84663
to a chemical test of the person's whole blood or blood serum or 84664
plasma. A law enforcement officer who acts pursuant to this 84665
division to ensure that a person submits to a chemical test of the 84666
person's whole blood or blood serum or plasma is immune from 84667
criminal and civil liability based upon a claim for assault and 84668
battery or any other claim for the acts, unless the officer so 84669
acted with malicious purpose, in bad faith, or in a wanton or 84670
reckless manner.84671

       (B)(1) Upon receipt of the sworn report of a law enforcement 84672
officer who arrested a person for a violation of division (A) or 84673
(B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, section 4511.194 of 84674
the Revised Code or a substantially equivalent municipal 84675
ordinance, or a municipal OVI ordinance that was completed and 84676
sent to the registrar of motor vehicles and a court pursuant to 84677
section 4511.192 of the Revised Code in regard to a person who 84678
refused to take the designated chemical test, the registrar shall 84679
enter into the registrar's records the fact that the person's 84680
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or nonresident 84681
operating privilege was suspended by the arresting officer under 84682
this division and that section and the period of the suspension, 84683
as determined under this section. The suspension shall be subject 84684
to appeal as provided in section 4511.197 of the Revised Code. The 84685
suspension shall be for whichever of the following periods 84686
applies:84687

       (a) Except when division (B)(1)(b), (c), or (d) of this 84688
section applies and specifies a different class or length of 84689
suspension, the suspension shall be a class C suspension for the 84690
period of time specified in division (B)(3) of section 4510.02 of 84691
the Revised Code.84692

       (b) If the arrested person, within six years of the date on 84693
which the person refused the request to consent to the chemical 84694
test, had refused one previous request to consent to a chemical 84695
test or had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to one violation 84696
of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or 84697
one other equivalent offense, the suspension shall be a class B 84698
suspension imposed for the period of time specified in division 84699
(B)(2) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.84700

       (c) If the arrested person, within six years of the date on 84701
which the person refused the request to consent to the chemical 84702
test, had refused two previous requests to consent to a chemical 84703
test, had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to two violations of 84704
division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or 84705
other equivalent offenses, or had refused one previous request to 84706
consent to a chemical test and also had been convicted of or 84707
pleaded guilty to one violation of division (A) or (B) of section 84708
4511.19 of the Revised Code or other equivalent offenses, which 84709
violation or offense arose from an incident other than the 84710
incident that led to the refusal, the suspension shall be a class 84711
A suspension imposed for the period of time specified in division 84712
(B)(1) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.84713

       (d) If the arrested person, within six years of the date on 84714
which the person refused the request to consent to the chemical 84715
test, had refused three or more previous requests to consent to a 84716
chemical test, had been convicted of or pleaded guilty to three or 84717
more violations of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the 84718
Revised Code or other equivalent offenses, or had refused a number 84719
of previous requests to consent to a chemical test and also had 84720
been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a number of violations of 84721
division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or 84722
other equivalent offenses that cumulatively total three or more 84723
such refusals, convictions, and guilty pleas, the suspension shall 84724
be for five years.84725

       (2) The registrar shall terminate a suspension of the 84726
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit of a resident or 84727
of the operating privilege of a nonresident, or a denial of a 84728
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit, imposed 84729
pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section upon receipt of notice 84730
that the person has entered a plea of guilty to, or that the 84731
person has been convicted after entering a plea of no contest to, 84732
operating a vehicle in violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised 84733
Code or in violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, if the offense 84734
for which the conviction is had or the plea is entered arose from 84735
the same incident that led to the suspension or denial.84736

       The registrar shall credit against any judicial suspension of 84737
a person's driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or 84738
nonresident operating privilege imposed pursuant to section 84739
4511.19 of the Revised Code, or pursuant to section 4510.07 of the 84740
Revised Code for a violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, any 84741
time during which the person serves a related suspension imposed 84742
pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section.84743

       (C)(1) Upon receipt of the sworn report of the law 84744
enforcement officer who arrested a person for a violation of 84745
division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or a 84746
municipal OVI ordinance that was completed and sent to the 84747
registrar and a court pursuant to section 4511.192 of the Revised 84748
Code in regard to a person whose test results indicate that the 84749
person's whole blood, blood serum or plasma, breath, or urine 84750
contained at least the concentration of alcohol specified in 84751
division (A)(1)(b), (c), (d), or (e) of section 4511.19 of the 84752
Revised Code or at least the concentration of a listed controlled 84753
substance or a listed metabolite of a controlled substance 84754
specified in division (A)(1)(j) of section 4511.19 of the Revised 84755
Code, the registrar shall enter into the registrar's records the 84756
fact that the person's driver's or commercial driver's license or 84757
permit or nonresident operating privilege was suspended by the 84758
arresting officer under this division and section 4511.192 of the 84759
Revised Code and the period of the suspension, as determined under 84760
divisions (C)(1)(a) to (d) of this section. The suspension shall 84761
be subject to appeal as provided in section 4511.197 of the 84762
Revised Code. The suspension described in this division does not 84763
apply to, and shall not be imposed upon, a person arrested for a 84764
violation of section 4511.194 of the Revised Code or a 84765
substantially equivalent municipal ordinance who submits to a 84766
designated chemical test. The suspension shall be for whichever of 84767
the following periods applies:84768

       (a) Except when division (C)(1)(b), (c), or (d) of this 84769
section applies and specifies a different period, the suspension 84770
shall be a class E suspension imposed for the period of time 84771
specified in division (B)(5) of section 4510.02 of the Revised 84772
Code.84773

       (b) The suspension shall be a class C suspension for the 84774
period of time specified in division (B)(3) of section 4510.02 of 84775
the Revised Code if the person has been convicted of or pleaded 84776
guilty to, within six years of the date the test was conducted, 84777
one violation of division (A) or (B) of section 4511.19 of the 84778
Revised Code or one other equivalent offense.84779

       (c) If, within six years of the date the test was conducted, 84780
the person has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to two 84781
violations of a statute or ordinance described in division 84782
(C)(1)(b) of this section, the suspension shall be a class B 84783
suspension imposed for the period of time specified in division 84784
(B)(2) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.84785

       (d) If, within six years of the date the test was conducted, 84786
the person has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to more than 84787
two violations of a statute or ordinance described in division 84788
(C)(1)(b) of this section, the suspension shall be a class A 84789
suspension imposed for the period of time specified in division 84790
(B)(1) of section 4510.02 of the Revised Code.84791

       (2) The registrar shall terminate a suspension of the 84792
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit of a resident or 84793
of the operating privilege of a nonresident, or a denial of a 84794
driver's or commercial driver's license or permit, imposed 84795
pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section upon receipt of notice 84796
that the person has entered a plea of guilty to, or that the 84797
person has been convicted after entering a plea of no contest to, 84798
operating a vehicle in violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised 84799
Code or in violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, if the offense 84800
for which the conviction is had or the plea is entered arose from 84801
the same incident that led to the suspension or denial.84802

       The registrar shall credit against any judicial suspension of 84803
a person's driver's or commercial driver's license or permit or 84804
nonresident operating privilege imposed pursuant to section 84805
4511.19 of the Revised Code, or pursuant to section 4510.07 of the 84806
Revised Code for a violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, any 84807
time during which the person serves a related suspension imposed 84808
pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section.84809

       (D)(1) A suspension of a person's driver's or commercial 84810
driver's license or permit or nonresident operating privilege 84811
under this section for the time described in division (B) or (C) 84812
of this section is effective immediately from the time at which 84813
the arresting officer serves the notice of suspension upon the 84814
arrested person. Any subsequent finding that the person is not 84815
guilty of the charge that resulted in the person being requested 84816
to take the chemical test or tests under division (A) of this 84817
section does not affect the suspension.84818

       (2) If a person is arrested for operating a vehicle, 84819
streetcar, or trackless trolley in violation of division (A) or 84820
(B) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or a municipal OVI 84821
ordinance, or for being in physical control of a vehicle, 84822
streetcar, or trackless trolley in violation of section 4511.194 84823
of the Revised Code or a substantially equivalent municipal 84824
ordinance, regardless of whether the person's driver's or 84825
commercial driver's license or permit or nonresident operating 84826
privilege is or is not suspended under division (B) or (C) of this 84827
section or Chapter 4510. of the Revised Code, the person's initial 84828
appearance on the charge resulting from the arrest shall be held 84829
within five days of the person's arrest or the issuance of the 84830
citation to the person, subject to any continuance granted by the 84831
court pursuant to section 4511.197 of the Revised Code regarding 84832
the issues specified in that division.84833

       (E) When it finally has been determined under the procedures 84834
of this section and sections 4511.192 to 4511.197 of the Revised 84835
Code that a nonresident's privilege to operate a vehicle within 84836
this state has been suspended, the registrar shall give 84837
information in writing of the action taken to the motor vehicle 84838
administrator of the state of the person's residence and of any 84839
state in which the person has a license.84840

       (F) At the end of a suspension period under this section, 84841
under section 4511.194, section 4511.196, or division (G) of 84842
section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, or under section 4510.07 of 84843
the Revised Code for a violation of a municipal OVI ordinance and 84844
upon the request of the person whose driver's or commercial 84845
driver's license or permit was suspended and who is not otherwise 84846
subject to suspension, cancellation, or disqualification, the 84847
registrar shall return the driver's or commercial driver's license 84848
or permit to the person upon the occurrence of all of the 84849
conditions specified in divisions (F)(1) and (2) of this section:84850

       (1) A showing that the person has proof of financial 84851
responsibility, a policy of liability insurance in effect that 84852
meets the minimum standards set forth in section 4509.51 of the 84853
Revised Code, or proof, to the satisfaction of the registrar, that 84854
the person is able to respond in damages in an amount at least 84855
equal to the minimum amounts specified in section 4509.51 of the 84856
Revised Code.84857

       (2) Subject to the limitation contained in division (F)(3) of 84858
this section, payment by the person to the registrar or an 84859
eligible deputy registrar of a license reinstatement fee of four 84860
hundred seventy-five dollars, which fee shall be deposited in the 84861
state treasury and credited as follows:84862

       (a) One hundred twelve dollars and fifty cents shall be 84863
credited to the statewide treatment and prevention fund created by 84864
section 4301.30 of the Revised Code. Money credited to the fund 84865
under this section shall be used for purposes identified in the 84866
comprehensive statewide alcohol and drug addiction services plan 84867
developed under section 3793.045119.22 of the Revised Code. 84868

       (b) Seventy-five dollars shall be credited to the reparations 84869
fund created by section 2743.191 of the Revised Code.84870

       (c) Thirty-seven dollars and fifty cents shall be credited to 84871
the indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, which is hereby 84872
established in the state treasury. Except as otherwise provided in 84873
division (F)(2)(c) of this section, moneys in the fund shall be 84874
distributed by the department of alcohol and drug addiction 84875
servicesmental health and addiction services to the county 84876
indigent drivers alcohol treatment funds, the county juvenile 84877
indigent drivers alcohol treatment funds, and the municipal 84878
indigent drivers alcohol treatment funds that are required to be 84879
established by counties and municipal corporations pursuant to 84880
division (H) of this section, and shall be used only to pay the 84881
cost of an alcohol and drug addiction treatment program attended 84882
by an offender or juvenile traffic offender who is ordered to 84883
attend an alcohol and drug addiction treatment program by a 84884
county, juvenile, or municipal court judge and who is determined 84885
by the county, juvenile, or municipal court judge not to have the 84886
means to pay for the person's attendance at the program or to pay 84887
the costs specified in division (H)(4) of this section in 84888
accordance with that division. In addition, a county, juvenile, or 84889
municipal court judge may use moneys in the county indigent 84890
drivers alcohol treatment fund, county juvenile indigent drivers 84891
alcohol treatment fund, or municipal indigent drivers alcohol 84892
treatment fund to pay for the cost of the continued use of an 84893
alcohol monitoring device as described in divisions (H)(3) and (4) 84894
of this section. Moneys in the fund that are not distributed to a 84895
county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, a county juvenile 84896
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or a municipal indigent 84897
drivers alcohol treatment fund under division (H) of this section 84898
because the director of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental 84899
health and addiction services does not have the information 84900
necessary to identify the county or municipal corporation where 84901
the offender or juvenile offender was arrested may be transferred 84902
by the director of budget and management to the statewide 84903
treatment and prevention fund created by section 4301.30 of the 84904
Revised Code, upon certification of the amount by the director of 84905
alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 84906
services.84907

       (d) Seventy-five dollars shall be credited to the Ohio 84908
rehabilitation services commissionopportunities for Ohioans with 84909
disabilities agency established by section 3304.123304.15 of the 84910
Revised Code, to the services for rehabilitation fund, which is 84911
hereby established. The fund shall be used to match available 84912
federal matching funds where appropriate, and for any other 84913
purpose or program of the commissionagency to rehabilitate people84914
persons with disabilities to help them become employed and 84915
independent.84916

       (e) Seventy-five dollars shall be deposited into the state 84917
treasury and credited to the drug abuse resistance education 84918
programs fund, which is hereby established, to be used by the 84919
attorney general for the purposes specified in division (F)(4) of 84920
this section.84921

       (f) Thirty dollars shall be credited to the state bureau of 84922
motor vehicles fund created by section 4501.25 of the Revised 84923
Code.84924

       (g) Twenty dollars shall be credited to the trauma and 84925
emergency medical services fund created by section 4513.263 of the 84926
Revised Code.84927

       (h) Fifty dollars shall be credited to the indigent drivers 84928
interlock and alcohol monitoring fund, which is hereby established 84929
in the state treasury. Moneys in the fund shall be distributed by 84930
the department of public safety to the county indigent drivers 84931
interlock and alcohol monitoring funds, the county juvenile 84932
indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring funds, and the 84933
municipal indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring funds 84934
that are required to be established by counties and municipal 84935
corporations pursuant to this section, and shall be used only to 84936
pay the cost of an immobilizing or disabling device, including a 84937
certified ignition interlock device, or an alcohol monitoring 84938
device used by an offender or juvenile offender who is ordered to 84939
use the device by a county, juvenile, or municipal court judge and 84940
who is determined by the county, juvenile, or municipal court 84941
judge not to have the means to pay for the person's use of the 84942
device.84943

       (3) If a person's driver's or commercial driver's license or 84944
permit is suspended under this section, under section 4511.196 or 84945
division (G) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, under section 84946
4510.07 of the Revised Code for a violation of a municipal OVI 84947
ordinance or under any combination of the suspensions described in 84948
division (F)(3) of this section, and if the suspensions arise from 84949
a single incident or a single set of facts and circumstances, the 84950
person is liable for payment of, and shall be required to pay to 84951
the registrar or an eligible deputy registrar, only one 84952
reinstatement fee of four hundred seventy-five dollars. The 84953
reinstatement fee shall be distributed by the bureau in accordance 84954
with division (F)(2) of this section.84955

       (4) The attorney general shall use amounts in the drug abuse 84956
resistance education programs fund to award grants to law 84957
enforcement agencies to establish and implement drug abuse 84958
resistance education programs in public schools. Grants awarded to 84959
a law enforcement agency under this section shall be used by the 84960
agency to pay for not more than fifty per cent of the amount of 84961
the salaries of law enforcement officers who conduct drug abuse 84962
resistance education programs in public schools. The attorney 84963
general shall not use more than six per cent of the amounts the 84964
attorney general's office receives under division (F)(2)(e) of 84965
this section to pay the costs it incurs in administering the grant 84966
program established by division (F)(2)(e) of this section and in 84967
providing training and materials relating to drug abuse resistance 84968
education programs.84969

       The attorney general shall report to the governor and the 84970
general assembly each fiscal year on the progress made in 84971
establishing and implementing drug abuse resistance education 84972
programs. These reports shall include an evaluation of the 84973
effectiveness of these programs.84974

       (5) In addition to the reinstatement fee under this section, 84975
if the person pays the reinstatement fee to a deputy registrar, 84976
the deputy registrar shall collect a service fee of ten dollars to 84977
compensate the deputy registrar for services performed under this 84978
section. The deputy registrar shall retain eight dollars of the 84979
service fee and shall transmit the reinstatement fee, plus two 84980
dollars of the service fee, to the registrar in the manner the 84981
registrar shall determine.84982

       (G) Suspension of a commercial driver's license under 84983
division (B) or (C) of this section shall be concurrent with any 84984
period of disqualification under section 3123.611 or 4506.16 of 84985
the Revised Code or any period of suspension under section 3123.58 84986
of the Revised Code. No person who is disqualified for life from 84987
holding a commercial driver's license under section 4506.16 of the 84988
Revised Code shall be issued a driver's license under Chapter 84989
4507. of the Revised Code during the period for which the 84990
commercial driver's license was suspended under division (B) or 84991
(C) of this section. No person whose commercial driver's license 84992
is suspended under division (B) or (C) of this section shall be 84993
issued a driver's license under Chapter 4507. of the Revised Code 84994
during the period of the suspension.84995

       (H)(1) Each county shall establish an indigent drivers 84996
alcohol treatment fund, each county shall establish a juvenile 84997
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, and each municipal 84998
corporation in which there is a municipal court shall establish an 84999
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund. All revenue that the 85000
general assembly appropriates to the indigent drivers alcohol 85001
treatment fund for transfer to a county indigent drivers alcohol 85002
treatment fund, a county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol 85003
treatment fund, or a municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment 85004
fund, all portions of fees that are paid under division (F) of 85005
this section and that are credited under that division to the 85006
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund in the state treasury for 85007
a county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, a county 85008
juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or a municipal 85009
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, all portions of 85010
additional costs imposed under section 2949.094 of the Revised 85011
Code that are specified for deposit into a county, county 85012
juvenile, or municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund by 85013
that section, and all portions of fines that are specified for 85014
deposit into a county or municipal indigent drivers alcohol 85015
treatment fund by section 4511.193 of the Revised Code shall be 85016
deposited into that county indigent drivers alcohol treatment 85017
fund, county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or 85018
municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund. The portions of 85019
the fees paid under division (F) of this section that are to be so 85020
deposited shall be determined in accordance with division (H)(2) 85021
of this section. Additionally, all portions of fines that are paid 85022
for a violation of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or of any 85023
prohibition contained in Chapter 4510. of the Revised Code, and 85024
that are required under section 4511.19 or any provision of 85025
Chapter 4510. of the Revised Code to be deposited into a county 85026
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund or municipal indigent 85027
drivers alcohol treatment fund shall be deposited into the 85028
appropriate fund in accordance with the applicable division of the 85029
section or provision.85030

       (2) That portion of the license reinstatement fee that is 85031
paid under division (F) of this section and that is credited under 85032
that division to the indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund shall 85033
be deposited into a county indigent drivers alcohol treatment 85034
fund, a county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, 85035
or a municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund as follows:85036

       (a) Regarding a suspension imposed under this section, that 85037
portion of the fee shall be deposited as follows:85038

       (i) If the fee is paid by a person who was charged in a 85039
county court with the violation that resulted in the suspension or 85040
in the imposition of the court costs, the portion shall be 85041
deposited into the county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund 85042
under the control of that court;85043

       (ii) If the fee is paid by a person who was charged in a 85044
juvenile court with the violation that resulted in the suspension 85045
or in the imposition of the court costs, the portion shall be 85046
deposited into the county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol 85047
treatment fund established in the county served by the court;85048

       (iii) If the fee is paid by a person who was charged in a 85049
municipal court with the violation that resulted in the suspension 85050
or in the imposition of the court costs, the portion shall be 85051
deposited into the municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment 85052
fund under the control of that court.85053

       (b) Regarding a suspension imposed under section 4511.19 of 85054
the Revised Code or under section 4510.07 of the Revised Code for 85055
a violation of a municipal OVI ordinance, that portion of the fee 85056
shall be deposited as follows:85057

       (i) If the fee is paid by a person whose license or permit 85058
was suspended by a county court, the portion shall be deposited 85059
into the county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund under the 85060
control of that court;85061

       (ii) If the fee is paid by a person whose license or permit 85062
was suspended by a municipal court, the portion shall be deposited 85063
into the municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund under 85064
the control of that court.85065

       (3) Expenditures from a county indigent drivers alcohol 85066
treatment fund, a county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol 85067
treatment fund, or a municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment 85068
fund shall be made only upon the order of a county, juvenile, or 85069
municipal court judge and only for payment of the cost of an 85070
assessment or the cost of the attendance at an alcohol and drug 85071
addiction treatment program of a person who is convicted of, or 85072
found to be a juvenile traffic offender by reason of, a violation 85073
of division (A) of section 4511.19 of the Revised Code or a 85074
substantially similar municipal ordinance, who is ordered by the 85075
court to attend the alcohol and drug addiction treatment program, 85076
and who is determined by the court to be unable to pay the cost of 85077
the assessment or the cost of attendance at the treatment program 85078
or for payment of the costs specified in division (H)(4) of this 85079
section in accordance with that division. The alcohol and drug 85080
addiction services board or the board of alcohol, drug addiction, 85081
and mental health services established pursuant to section 340.02 85082
or 340.021 of the Revised Code and serving the alcohol, drug 85083
addiction, and mental health service district in which the court 85084
is located shall administer the indigent drivers alcohol treatment 85085
program of the court. When a court orders an offender or juvenile 85086
traffic offender to obtain an assessment or attend an alcohol and 85087
drug addiction treatment program, the board shall determine which 85088
program is suitable to meet the needs of the offender or juvenile 85089
traffic offender, and when a suitable program is located and space 85090
is available at the program, the offender or juvenile traffic 85091
offender shall attend the program designated by the board. A 85092
reasonable amount not to exceed five per cent of the amounts 85093
credited to and deposited into the county indigent drivers alcohol 85094
treatment fund, the county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol 85095
treatment fund, or the municipal indigent drivers alcohol 85096
treatment fund serving every court whose program is administered 85097
by that board shall be paid to the board to cover the costs it 85098
incurs in administering those indigent drivers alcohol treatment 85099
programs.85100

       In addition, upon exhaustion of moneys in the indigent 85101
drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund for the use of an 85102
alcohol monitoring device, a county, juvenile, or municipal court 85103
judge may use moneys in the county indigent drivers alcohol 85104
treatment fund, county juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment 85105
fund, or municipal indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund in the 85106
following manners:85107

       (a) If the source of the moneys was an appropriation of the 85108
general assembly, a portion of a fee that was paid under division 85109
(F) of this section, a portion of a fine that was specified for 85110
deposit into the fund by section 4511.193 of the Revised Code, or 85111
a portion of a fine that was paid for a violation of section 85112
4511.19 of the Revised Code or of a provision contained in Chapter 85113
4510. of the Revised Code that was required to be deposited into 85114
the fund, to pay for the continued use of an alcohol monitoring 85115
device by an offender or juvenile traffic offender, in conjunction 85116
with a treatment program approved by the department of alcohol and 85117
drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction services, when 85118
such use is determined clinically necessary by the treatment 85119
program and when the court determines that the offender or 85120
juvenile traffic offender is unable to pay all or part of the 85121
daily monitoring or cost of the device;85122

       (b) If the source of the moneys was a portion of an 85123
additional court cost imposed under section 2949.094 of the 85124
Revised Code, to pay for the continued use of an alcohol 85125
monitoring device by an offender or juvenile traffic offender when 85126
the court determines that the offender or juvenile traffic 85127
offender is unable to pay all or part of the daily monitoring or 85128
cost of the device. The moneys may be used for a device as 85129
described in this division if the use of the device is in 85130
conjunction with a treatment program approved by the department of 85131
alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 85132
services, when the use of the device is determined clinically 85133
necessary by the treatment program, but the use of a device is not 85134
required to be in conjunction with a treatment program approved by 85135
the department in order for the moneys to be used for the device 85136
as described in this division.85137

       (4) If a county, juvenile, or municipal court determines, in 85138
consultation with the alcohol and drug addiction services board or 85139
the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 85140
established pursuant to section 340.02 or 340.021 of the Revised 85141
Code and serving the alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 85142
district in which the court is located, that the funds in the 85143
county indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, the county 85144
juvenile indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, or the municipal 85145
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund under the control of the 85146
court are more than sufficient to satisfy the purpose for which 85147
the fund was established, as specified in divisions (H)(1) to (3) 85148
of this section, the court may declare a surplus in the fund. If 85149
the court declares a surplus in the fund, the court may expend the 85150
amount of the surplus in the fund for:85151

       (a) Alcohol and drug abuse assessment and treatment of 85152
persons who are charged in the court with committing a criminal 85153
offense or with being a delinquent child or juvenile traffic 85154
offender and in relation to whom both of the following apply:85155

       (i) The court determines that substance abuse was a 85156
contributing factor leading to the criminal or delinquent activity 85157
or the juvenile traffic offense with which the person is charged.85158

       (ii) The court determines that the person is unable to pay 85159
the cost of the alcohol and drug abuse assessment and treatment 85160
for which the surplus money will be used.85161

       (b) All or part of the cost of purchasing alcohol monitoring 85162
devices to be used in conjunction with division (H)(3) of this 85163
section, upon exhaustion of moneys in the indigent drivers 85164
interlock and alcohol monitoring fund for the use of an alcohol 85165
monitoring device.85166

       (5) For the purpose of determining as described in division 85167
(F)(2)(c) of this section whether an offender does not have the 85168
means to pay for the offender's attendance at an alcohol and drug 85169
addiction treatment program or whether an alleged offender or 85170
delinquent child is unable to pay the costs specified in division 85171
(H)(4) of this section, the court shall use the indigent client 85172
eligibility guidelines and the standards of indigency established 85173
by the state public defender to make the determination.85174

       (6) The court shall identify and refer any alcohol and drug85175
community addiction programservices provider that is not 85176
certified under section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code and 85177
that is interested in receiving amounts from the surplus in the 85178
fund declared under division (H)(4) of this section to the 85179
department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health 85180
and addiction services in order for the programservices provider85181
to become a certified alcohol and drugcommunity addiction 85182
programservices provider. The department shall keep a record of 85183
applicant referrals received pursuant to this division and shall 85184
submit a report on the referrals each year to the general 85185
assembly. If a programservices provider interested in becoming 85186
certified makes an application to become certified pursuant to 85187
section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code, the programservices 85188
provider is eligible to receive surplus funds as long as the 85189
application is pending with the department. The department of 85190
alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 85191
services must offer technical assistance to the applicant. If the 85192
interested programservices provider withdraws the certification 85193
application, the department must notify the court, and the court 85194
shall not provide the interested programservices provider with 85195
any further surplus funds.85196

       (7)(a) Each alcohol and drug addiction services board and 85197
board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 85198
established pursuant to section 340.02 or 340.021 of the Revised 85199
Code shall submit to the department of alcohol and drug addiction 85200
servicesmental health and addiction services an annual report for 85201
each indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund in that board's area. 85202

       (b) The report, which shall be submitted not later than sixty 85203
days after the end of the state fiscal year, shall provide the 85204
total payment that was made from the fund, including the number of 85205
indigent consumers that received treatment services and the number 85206
of indigent consumers that received an alcohol monitoring device. 85207
The report shall identify the treatment program and expenditure 85208
for an alcohol monitoring device for which that payment was made. 85209
The report shall include the fiscal year balance of each indigent 85210
drivers alcohol treatment fund located in that board's area. In 85211
the event that a surplus is declared in the fund pursuant to 85212
division (H)(4) of this section, the report also shall provide the 85213
total payment that was made from the surplus moneys and identify 85214
the treatment program and expenditure for an alcohol monitoring 85215
device for which that payment was made. The department may require 85216
additional information necessary to complete the comprehensive 85217
statewide alcohol and drug addiction services plan as required by 85218
section 3793.04 of the Revised Code.85219

       (c) If a board is unable to obtain adequate information to 85220
develop the report to submit to the department for a particular 85221
indigent drivers alcohol treatment fund, the board shall submit a 85222
report detailing the effort made in obtaining the information.85223

       (I)(1) Each county shall establish an indigent drivers 85224
interlock and alcohol monitoring fund and a juvenile indigent 85225
drivers interlock and alcohol treatment fund, and each municipal 85226
corporation in which there is a municipal court shall establish an 85227
indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund. All 85228
revenue that the general assembly appropriates to the indigent 85229
drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund for transfer to a 85230
county indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund, a 85231
county juvenile indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring 85232
fund, or a municipal indigent drivers interlock and alcohol 85233
monitoring fund, all portions of license reinstatement fees that 85234
are paid under division (F)(2) of this section and that are 85235
credited under that division to the indigent drivers interlock and 85236
alcohol monitoring fund in the state treasury, and all portions of 85237
fines that are paid under division (G) of section 4511.19 of the 85238
Revised Code and that are credited by division (G)(5)(e) of that 85239
section to the indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring 85240
fund in the state treasury shall be deposited in the appropriate 85241
fund in accordance with division (I)(2) of this section.85242

       (2) That portion of the license reinstatement fee that is 85243
paid under division (F) of this section and that portion of the 85244
fine paid under division (G) of section 4511.19 of the Revised 85245
Code and that is credited under either division to the indigent 85246
drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund shall be deposited 85247
into a county indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring 85248
fund, a county juvenile indigent drivers interlock and alcohol 85249
monitoring fund, or a municipal indigent drivers interlock and 85250
alcohol monitoring fund as follows:85251

       (a) If the fee or fine is paid by a person who was charged in 85252
a county court with the violation that resulted in the suspension 85253
or fine, the portion shall be deposited into the county indigent 85254
drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund under the control of 85255
that court.85256

       (b) If the fee or fine is paid by a person who was charged in 85257
a juvenile court with the violation that resulted in the 85258
suspension or fine, the portion shall be deposited into the county 85259
juvenile indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund 85260
established in the county served by the court.85261

       (c) If the fee or fine is paid by a person who was charged in 85262
a municipal court with the violation that resulted in the 85263
suspension, the portion shall be deposited into the municipal 85264
indigent drivers interlock and alcohol monitoring fund under the 85265
control of that court.85266

       Sec. 4511.21.  (A) No person shall operate a motor vehicle, 85267
trackless trolley, or streetcar at a speed greater or less than is 85268
reasonable or proper, having due regard to the traffic, surface, 85269
and width of the street or highway and any other conditions, and 85270
no person shall drive any motor vehicle, trackless trolley, or 85271
streetcar in and upon any street or highway at a greater speed 85272
than will permit the person to bring it to a stop within the 85273
assured clear distance ahead.85274

       (B) It is prima-facie lawful, in the absence of a lower limit 85275
declared or established pursuant to this section by the director 85276
of transportation or local authorities, for the operator of a 85277
motor vehicle, trackless trolley, or streetcar to operate the same 85278
at a speed not exceeding the following:85279

       (1)(a) Twenty miles per hour in school zones during school 85280
recess and while children are going to or leaving school during 85281
the opening or closing hours, and when twenty miles per hour 85282
school speed limit signs are erected; except that, on 85283
controlled-access highways and expressways, if the right-of-way 85284
line fence has been erected without pedestrian opening, the speed 85285
shall be governed by division (B)(4) of this section and on 85286
freeways, if the right-of-way line fence has been erected without 85287
pedestrian opening, the speed shall be governed by divisions 85288
(B)(9) and (10) of this section. The end of every school zone may 85289
be marked by a sign indicating the end of the zone. Nothing in 85290
this section or in the manual and specifications for a uniform 85291
system of traffic control devices shall be construed to require 85292
school zones to be indicated by signs equipped with flashing or 85293
other lights, or giving other special notice of the hours in which 85294
the school zone speed limit is in effect.85295

       (b) As used in this section and in section 4511.212 of the 85296
Revised Code, "school" means any school chartered under section 85297
3301.16 of the Revised Code and any nonchartered school that 85298
during the preceding year filed with the department of education 85299
in compliance with rule 3301-35-08 of the Ohio Administrative 85300
Code, a copy of the school's report for the parents of the 85301
school's pupils certifying that the school meets Ohio minimum 85302
standards for nonchartered, nontax-supported schools and presents 85303
evidence of this filing to the jurisdiction from which it is 85304
requesting the establishment of a school zone. "School" also 85305
includes a special elementary school that in writing requests the 85306
county engineer of the county in which the special elementary 85307
school is located to create a school zone at the location of that 85308
school. Upon receipt of such a written request, the county 85309
engineer shall create a school zone at that location by erecting 85310
the appropriate signs.85311

       (c) As used in this section, "school zone" means that portion 85312
of a street or highway passing a school fronting upon the street 85313
or highway that is encompassed by projecting the school property 85314
lines to the fronting street or highway, and also includes that 85315
portion of a state highway. Upon request from local authorities 85316
for streets and highways under their jurisdiction and that portion 85317
of a state highway under the jurisdiction of the director of 85318
transportation or a request from a county engineer in the case of 85319
a school zone for a special elementary school, the director may 85320
extend the traditional school zone boundaries. The distances in 85321
divisions (B)(1)(c)(i), (ii), and (iii) of this section shall not 85322
exceed three hundred feet per approach per direction and are 85323
bounded by whichever of the following distances or combinations 85324
thereof the director approves as most appropriate:85325

       (i) The distance encompassed by projecting the school 85326
building lines normal to the fronting highway and extending a 85327
distance of three hundred feet on each approach direction;85328

       (ii) The distance encompassed by projecting the school 85329
property lines intersecting the fronting highway and extending a 85330
distance of three hundred feet on each approach direction;85331

       (iii) The distance encompassed by the special marking of the 85332
pavement for a principal school pupil crosswalk plus a distance of 85333
three hundred feet on each approach direction of the highway.85334

       Nothing in this section shall be construed to invalidate the 85335
director's initial action on August 9, 1976, establishing all 85336
school zones at the traditional school zone boundaries defined by 85337
projecting school property lines, except when those boundaries are 85338
extended as provided in divisions (B)(1)(a) and (c) of this 85339
section.85340

       (d) As used in this division, "crosswalk" has the meaning 85341
given that term in division (LL)(2) of section 4511.01 of the 85342
Revised Code.85343

       The director may, upon request by resolution of the 85344
legislative authority of a municipal corporation, the board of 85345
trustees of a township, or a county board of developmental 85346
disabilities created pursuant to Chapter 5126. of the Revised 85347
Code, and upon submission by the municipal corporation, township, 85348
or county board of such engineering, traffic, and other 85349
information as the director considers necessary, designate a 85350
school zone on any portion of a state route lying within the 85351
municipal corporation, lying within the unincorporated territory 85352
of the township, or lying adjacent to the property of a school 85353
that is operated by such county board, that includes a crosswalk 85354
customarily used by children going to or leaving a school during 85355
recess and opening and closing hours, whenever the distance, as 85356
measured in a straight line, from the school property line nearest 85357
the crosswalk to the nearest point of the crosswalk is no more 85358
than one thousand three hundred twenty feet. Such a school zone 85359
shall include the distance encompassed by the crosswalk and 85360
extending three hundred feet on each approach direction of the 85361
state route.85362

       (e) As used in this section, "special elementary school" 85363
means a school that meets all of the following criteria:85364

       (i) It is not chartered and does not receive tax revenue from 85365
any source.85366

       (ii) It does not educate children beyond the eighth grade.85367

       (iii) It is located outside the limits of a municipal 85368
corporation.85369

       (iv) A majority of the total number of students enrolled at 85370
the school are not related by blood.85371

       (v) The principal or other person in charge of the special 85372
elementary school annually sends a report to the superintendent of 85373
the school district in which the special elementary school is 85374
located indicating the total number of students enrolled at the 85375
school, but otherwise the principal or other person in charge does 85376
not report any other information or data to the superintendent.85377

       (2) Twenty-five miles per hour in all other portions of a 85378
municipal corporation, except on state routes outside business 85379
districts, through highways outside business districts, and 85380
alleys;85381

       (3) Thirty-five miles per hour on all state routes or through 85382
highways within municipal corporations outside business districts, 85383
except as provided in divisions (B)(4) and (6) of this section;85384

       (4) Fifty miles per hour on controlled-access highways and 85385
expressways within municipal corporations;85386

       (5) Fifty-five miles per hour on highways outside municipal 85387
corporations, other than highways within island jurisdictions as 85388
provided in division (B)(8) of this section, highways as provided 85389
in division (B)(9) of this section, and freeways as provided in 85390
divisions (B)(12), (13), (14), (16), and (17) of this section;85391

       (6) Fifty miles per hour on state routes within municipal 85392
corporations outside urban districts unless a lower prima-facie 85393
speed is established as further provided in this section;85394

       (7) Fifteen miles per hour on all alleys within the municipal 85395
corporation;85396

       (8) Thirty-five miles per hour on highways outside municipal 85397
corporations that are within an island jurisdiction;85398

       (9) Sixty miles per hour on two-lane state routes outside 85399
municipal corporations as established by the director under 85400
division (H)(2) of this section.85401

        (10) Fifty-five miles per hour at all times on freeways with 85402
paved shoulders inside municipal corporations, other than freeways 85403
as provided in divisions (B)(12), (13), (14), (16), and (17) of 85404
this section;85405

       (11) Fifty-five miles per hour at all times on freeways 85406
outside municipal corporations, other than freeways as provided in 85407
divisions (B)(12), (13), (14), (16), and (17) of this section;85408

       (12) Fifty-fiveSixty miles per hour at all times on all 85409
portions of freeways that are not part of the interstate system, 85410
but are built to the standards and specifications that are 85411
applicable to freeways that are part of the interstate system and 85412
that had a speed limit of fifty-five miles per hour immediately 85413
prior to the effective date of this amendment, for operators of 85414
any motor vehicle weighing in excess of eight thousand pounds 85415
empty weight and any noncommercial bus;85416

       (13) Fifty-fiveSixty miles per hour for operators of any 85417
motor vehicle weighing eight thousand pounds or less empty weight 85418
and any commercial bus at all times on all portions of freeways 85419
that are not part of the interstate system, but are built to the 85420
standards and specifications that are applicable to freeways that 85421
are part of the interstate system and that had such a speed limit 85422
establishedof fifty-five miles per hour immediately prior to 85423
October 1, 1995, unless a higher speed limit is established under 85424
division (L)the effective date of this sectionamendment;85425

       (14) Sixty-fiveSeventy miles per hour for operators of any 85426
motor vehicle weighing eight thousand pounds or less empty weight 85427
and any commercial bus at all times on all portions of both of the 85428
following:85429

       (a) Freeways that are not part of the interstate system, but 85430
are built to the standards and specifications that are applicable 85431
to freeways that are part of the interstate system and that had 85432
such a speed limit establishedof sixty-five miles per hour 85433
immediately prior to October 1, 1995the effective date of this 85434
amendment;85435

       (b) Freeways that are not part of the interstate system but 85436
are built to the standards and specifications that are applicable 85437
to freeways that are part of the interstate system, and that had 85438
such a speed limit established under division (L) of this section;85439

       (c) Rural, divided, multi-lane highways that are designated 85440
as part of the national highway system under the "National Highway 85441
System Designation Act of 1995," 109 Stat. 568, 23 U.S.C.A. 103, 85442
and that had such a speed limit established under division (M)of 85443
sixty-five miles per hour immediately prior to the effective date85444
of this sectionamendment.85445

        (15) Fifty-five miles per hour for operators of any motor 85446
vehicle at all times on all portions of freeways in congested 85447
areas as determined by the director and that are part of the 85448
interstate system and are located within a municipal corporation 85449
or within an interstate freeway outerbelt;85450

       (16) Sixty-five miles per hour for operators of any motor 85451
vehicle at all times on all portions of freeways in urban areas as 85452
determined by the director and that are part of the interstate 85453
system and are part of an interstate freeway outerbelt;85454

       (17) Seventy miles per hour at all times on all portions of 85455
freeways that are part of the interstate system and are outside 85456
urbanized areas, as designated in accordance with 23 U.S.C. 101, 85457
for operators of all motor vehicles.85458

       (C) It is prima-facie unlawful for any person to exceed any 85459
of the speed limitations in divisions (B)(1)(a), (2), (3), (4), 85460
(6), (7), and (8) of this section, or any declared or established 85461
pursuant to this section by the director or local authorities and 85462
it is unlawful for any person to exceed any of the speed 85463
limitations in division (D) of this section. No person shall be 85464
convicted of more than one violation of this section for the same 85465
conduct, although violations of more than one provision of this 85466
section may be charged in the alternative in a single affidavit.85467

       (D) No person shall operate a motor vehicle, trackless 85468
trolley, or streetcar upon a street or highway as follows:85469

       (1) At a speed exceeding fifty-five miles per hour, except 85470
upon a two-lane state route as provided in division (B)(9) of this 85471
section and upon a freeway as provided in divisions (B)(12), (13), 85472
(14), (16), and (17) of this section;85473

       (2) At a speed exceeding sixty miles per hour upon a two-lane 85474
state route as provided in division (B)(9) of this section.and 85475
upon a freeway as provided in divisions (B)(12) and (13) of this 85476
section;85477

        (3) At a speed exceeding sixty-five miles per hour upon a 85478
freeway as provided in division (B)(16) of this section, except 85479
upon a freeway as provided in divisiondivisions (B)(14) and (17) 85480
of this section;85481

       (4) At a speed exceeding seventy miles per hour upon a 85482
freeway as provided in divisiondivisions (B)(14) and (17) of this 85483
section;85484

       (5) If a motor vehicle weighing in excess of eight thousand 85485
pounds empty weight or a noncommercial bus as prescribed in 85486
division (B)(11)(12) of this section, at a speed exceeding 85487
fifty-fivesixty miles per hour, except upon a freeway as provided 85488
in divisions (B)(14), (16), and (17) of this section;85489

       (6) At a speed exceeding the posted speed limit upon a 85490
freeway for which the director has determined and declared a speed 85491
limit of not more than sixty-five miles per hour pursuant to 85492
division (L)(2) or (M) of this section;85493

       (7) At a speed exceeding sixty-five miles per hour upon a 85494
freeway for which such a speed limit has been established through 85495
the operation of division (L)(3) of this section;85496

       (8) At a speed exceeding the posted speed limit upon a 85497
freeway for which the director has determined and declared a speed 85498
limit pursuant to division (I)(2) of this section.85499

       (E) In every charge of violation of this section the 85500
affidavit and warrant shall specify the time, place, and speed at 85501
which the defendant is alleged to have driven, and in charges made 85502
in reliance upon division (C) of this section also the speed which 85503
division (B)(1)(a), (2), (3), (4), (6), (7), or (8) of, or a limit 85504
declared or established pursuant to, this section declares is 85505
prima-facie lawful at the time and place of such alleged 85506
violation, except that in affidavits where a person is alleged to 85507
have driven at a greater speed than will permit the person to 85508
bring the vehicle to a stop within the assured clear distance 85509
ahead the affidavit and warrant need not specify the speed at 85510
which the defendant is alleged to have driven.85511

       (F) When a speed in excess of both a prima-facie limitation 85512
and a limitation in division (D) of this section is alleged, the 85513
defendant shall be charged in a single affidavit, alleging a 85514
single act, with a violation indicated of both division (B)(1)(a), 85515
(2), (3), (4), (6), (7), or (8) of this section, or of a limit 85516
declared or established pursuant to this section by the director 85517
or local authorities, and of the limitation in division (D) of 85518
this section. If the court finds a violation of division 85519
(B)(1)(a), (2), (3), (4), (6), (7), or (8) of, or a limit declared 85520
or established pursuant to, this section has occurred, it shall 85521
enter a judgment of conviction under such division and dismiss the 85522
charge under division (D) of this section. If it finds no 85523
violation of division (B)(1)(a), (2), (3), (4), (6), (7), or (8) 85524
of, or a limit declared or established pursuant to, this section, 85525
it shall then consider whether the evidence supports a conviction 85526
under division (D) of this section.85527

       (G) Points shall be assessed for violation of a limitation 85528
under division (D) of this section in accordance with section 85529
4510.036 of the Revised Code.85530

       (H)(1) Whenever the director determines upon the basis of a 85531
geometric and traffic characteristic study that any speed limit 85532
set forth in divisions (B)(1)(a) to (D) of this section is greater 85533
or less than is reasonable or safe under the conditions found to 85534
exist at any portion of a street or highway under the jurisdiction 85535
of the director, the director shall determine and declare a 85536
reasonable and safe prima-facie speed limit, which shall be 85537
effective when appropriate signs giving notice of it are erected 85538
at the location.85539

       (2) Whenever the director determines upon the basis of a 85540
geometric and traffic characteristic study that the speed limit of 85541
fifty-five miles per hour on a two-lane state route outside a 85542
municipal corporation is less than is reasonable or safe under the 85543
conditions found to exist at that portion of the state route, the 85544
director may determine and declare a speed limit of sixty miles 85545
per hour for that portion of the state route, which shall be 85546
effective when appropriate signs giving notice of it are erected 85547
at the location.85548

       (I)(1) Except as provided in divisions (I)(2) and (K) of this 85549
section, whenever local authorities determine upon the basis of an 85550
engineering and traffic investigation that the speed permitted by 85551
divisions (B)(1)(a) to (D) of this section, on any part of a 85552
highway under their jurisdiction, is greater than is reasonable 85553
and safe under the conditions found to exist at such location, the 85554
local authorities may by resolution request the director to 85555
determine and declare a reasonable and safe prima-facie speed 85556
limit. Upon receipt of such request the director may determine and 85557
declare a reasonable and safe prima-facie speed limit at such 85558
location, and if the director does so, then such declared speed 85559
limit shall become effective only when appropriate signs giving 85560
notice thereof are erected at such location by the local 85561
authorities. The director may withdraw the declaration of a 85562
prima-facie speed limit whenever in the director's opinion the 85563
altered prima-facie speed becomes unreasonable. Upon such 85564
withdrawal, the declared prima-facie speed shall become 85565
ineffective and the signs relating thereto shall be immediately 85566
removed by the local authorities.85567

       (2) A local authority may determine on the basis of a 85568
geometric and traffic characteristic study that the speed limit of 85569
sixty-five miles per hour on a portion of a freeway under its 85570
jurisdiction that was established through the operation of 85571
division (L)(3) of this section is greater than is reasonable or 85572
safe under the conditions found to exist at that portion of the 85573
freeway. If the local authority makes such a determination, the 85574
local authority by resolution may request the director to 85575
determine and declare a reasonable and safe speed limit of not 85576
less than fifty-five miles per hour for that portion of the 85577
freeway. If the director takes such action, the declared speed 85578
limit becomes effective only when appropriate signs giving notice 85579
of it are erected at such location by the local authority.85580

       (J) Local authorities in their respective jurisdictions may 85581
authorize by ordinance higher prima-facie speeds than those stated 85582
in this section upon through highways, or upon highways or 85583
portions thereof where there are no intersections, or between 85584
widely spaced intersections, provided signs are erected giving 85585
notice of the authorized speed, but local authorities shall not 85586
modify or alter the basic rule set forth in division (A) of this 85587
section or in any event authorize by ordinance a speed in excess 85588
of fifty miles per hour.85589

       Alteration of prima-facie limits on state routes by local 85590
authorities shall not be effective until the alteration has been 85591
approved by the director. The director may withdraw approval of 85592
any altered prima-facie speed limits whenever in the director's 85593
opinion any altered prima-facie speed becomes unreasonable, and 85594
upon such withdrawal, the altered prima-facie speed shall become 85595
ineffective and the signs relating thereto shall be immediately 85596
removed by the local authorities.85597

       (K)(1) As used in divisions (K)(1), (2), (3), and (4) of this 85598
section, "unimproved highway" means a highway consisting of any of 85599
the following:85600

       (a) Unimproved earth;85601

       (b) Unimproved graded and drained earth;85602

       (c) Gravel.85603

       (2) Except as otherwise provided in divisions (K)(4) and (5) 85604
of this section, whenever a board of township trustees determines 85605
upon the basis of an engineering and traffic investigation that 85606
the speed permitted by division (B)(5) of this section on any part 85607
of an unimproved highway under its jurisdiction and in the 85608
unincorporated territory of the township is greater than is 85609
reasonable or safe under the conditions found to exist at the 85610
location, the board may by resolution declare a reasonable and 85611
safe prima-facie speed limit of fifty-five but not less than 85612
twenty-five miles per hour. An altered speed limit adopted by a 85613
board of township trustees under this division becomes effective 85614
when appropriate traffic control devices, as prescribed in section 85615
4511.11 of the Revised Code, giving notice thereof are erected at 85616
the location, which shall be no sooner than sixty days after 85617
adoption of the resolution.85618

       (3)(a) Whenever, in the opinion of a board of township 85619
trustees, any altered prima-facie speed limit established by the 85620
board under this division becomes unreasonable, the board may 85621
adopt a resolution withdrawing the altered prima-facie speed 85622
limit. Upon the adoption of such a resolution, the altered 85623
prima-facie speed limit becomes ineffective and the traffic 85624
control devices relating thereto shall be immediately removed.85625

       (b) Whenever a highway ceases to be an unimproved highway and 85626
the board has adopted an altered prima-facie speed limit pursuant 85627
to division (K)(2) of this section, the board shall, by 85628
resolution, withdraw the altered prima-facie speed limit as soon 85629
as the highway ceases to be unimproved. Upon the adoption of such 85630
a resolution, the altered prima-facie speed limit becomes 85631
ineffective and the traffic control devices relating thereto shall 85632
be immediately removed.85633

       (4)(a) If the boundary of two townships rests on the 85634
centerline of an unimproved highway in unincorporated territory 85635
and both townships have jurisdiction over the highway, neither of 85636
the boards of township trustees of such townships may declare an 85637
altered prima-facie speed limit pursuant to division (K)(2) of 85638
this section on the part of the highway under their joint 85639
jurisdiction unless the boards of township trustees of both of the 85640
townships determine, upon the basis of an engineering and traffic 85641
investigation, that the speed permitted by division (B)(5) of this 85642
section is greater than is reasonable or safe under the conditions 85643
found to exist at the location and both boards agree upon a 85644
reasonable and safe prima-facie speed limit of less than 85645
fifty-five but not less than twenty-five miles per hour for that 85646
location. If both boards so agree, each shall follow the procedure 85647
specified in division (K)(2) of this section for altering the 85648
prima-facie speed limit on the highway. Except as otherwise 85649
provided in division (K)(4)(b) of this section, no speed limit 85650
altered pursuant to division (K)(4)(a) of this section may be 85651
withdrawn unless the boards of township trustees of both townships 85652
determine that the altered prima-facie speed limit previously 85653
adopted becomes unreasonable and each board adopts a resolution 85654
withdrawing the altered prima-facie speed limit pursuant to the 85655
procedure specified in division (K)(3)(a) of this section.85656

       (b) Whenever a highway described in division (K)(4)(a) of 85657
this section ceases to be an unimproved highway and two boards of 85658
township trustees have adopted an altered prima-facie speed limit 85659
pursuant to division (K)(4)(a) of this section, both boards shall, 85660
by resolution, withdraw the altered prima-facie speed limit as 85661
soon as the highway ceases to be unimproved. Upon the adoption of 85662
the resolution, the altered prima-facie speed limit becomes 85663
ineffective and the traffic control devices relating thereto shall 85664
be immediately removed.85665

       (5) As used in division (K)(5) of this section:85666

       (a) "Commercial subdivision" means any platted territory 85667
outside the limits of a municipal corporation and fronting a 85668
highway where, for a distance of three hundred feet or more, the 85669
frontage is improved with buildings in use for commercial 85670
purposes, or where the entire length of the highway is less than 85671
three hundred feet long and the frontage is improved with 85672
buildings in use for commercial purposes.85673

       (b) "Residential subdivision" means any platted territory 85674
outside the limits of a municipal corporation and fronting a 85675
highway, where, for a distance of three hundred feet or more, the 85676
frontage is improved with residences or residences and buildings 85677
in use for business, or where the entire length of the highway is 85678
less than three hundred feet long and the frontage is improved 85679
with residences or residences and buildings in use for business.85680

       Whenever a board of township trustees finds upon the basis of 85681
an engineering and traffic investigation that the prima-facie 85682
speed permitted by division (B)(5) of this section on any part of 85683
a highway under its jurisdiction that is located in a commercial 85684
or residential subdivision, except on highways or portions thereof 85685
at the entrances to which vehicular traffic from the majority of 85686
intersecting highways is required to yield the right-of-way to 85687
vehicles on such highways in obedience to stop or yield signs or 85688
traffic control signals, is greater than is reasonable and safe 85689
under the conditions found to exist at the location, the board may 85690
by resolution declare a reasonable and safe prima-facie speed 85691
limit of less than fifty-five but not less than twenty-five miles 85692
per hour at the location. An altered speed limit adopted by a 85693
board of township trustees under this division shall become 85694
effective when appropriate signs giving notice thereof are erected 85695
at the location by the township. Whenever, in the opinion of a 85696
board of township trustees, any altered prima-facie speed limit 85697
established by it under this division becomes unreasonable, it may 85698
adopt a resolution withdrawing the altered prima-facie speed, and 85699
upon such withdrawal, the altered prima-facie speed shall become 85700
ineffective, and the signs relating thereto shall be immediately 85701
removed by the township.85702

       (L)(1) Within one hundred twenty days of February 29, 1996, 85703
the director of transportation, based upon a geometric and traffic 85704
characteristic study of a freeway that is part of the interstate 85705
system or that is not part of the interstate system, but is built 85706
to the standards and specifications that are applicable to 85707
freeways that are part of the interstate system, in consultation 85708
with the director of public safety and, if applicable, the local 85709
authority having jurisdiction over a portion of such freeway, may 85710
determine and declare that the speed limit of less than sixty-five 85711
miles per hour established on such freeway or portion of freeway 85712
either is reasonable and safe or is less than that which is 85713
reasonable and safe.85714

       (2) If the established speed limit for such a freeway or 85715
portion of freeway is determined to be less than that which is 85716
reasonable and safe, the director of transportation, in 85717
consultation with the director of public safety and, if 85718
applicable, the local authority having jurisdiction over the 85719
portion of freeway, shall determine and declare a reasonable and 85720
safe speed limit of not more than sixty-five miles per hour for 85721
that freeway or portion of freeway.85722

       The director of transportation or local authority having 85723
jurisdiction over the freeway or portion of freeway shall erect 85724
appropriate signs giving notice of the speed limit at such 85725
location within one hundred fifty days of February 29, 1996. Such 85726
speed limit becomes effective only when such signs are erected at 85727
the location.85728

       (3) If, within one hundred twenty days of February 29, 1996, 85729
the director of transportation does not make a determination and 85730
declaration of a reasonable and safe speed limit for a freeway or 85731
portion of freeway that is part of the interstate system or that 85732
is not part of the interstate system, but is built to the 85733
standards and specifications that are applicable to freeways that 85734
are part of the interstate system and that has a speed limit of 85735
less than sixty-five miles per hour, the speed limit on that 85736
freeway or portion of a freeway shall be sixty-five miles per 85737
hour. The director of transportation or local authority having 85738
jurisdiction over the freeway or portion of the freeway shall 85739
erect appropriate signs giving notice of the speed limit of 85740
sixty-five miles per hour at such location within one hundred 85741
fifty days of February 29, 1996. Such speed limit becomes 85742
effective only when such signs are erected at the location. A 85743
speed limit established through the operation of division (L)(3) 85744
of this section is subject to reduction under division (I)(2) of 85745
this section.85746

       (M) Within three hundred sixty days after February 29, 1996, 85747
the director of transportation, based upon a geometric and traffic 85748
characteristic study of a rural, divided, multi-lane highway that 85749
has been designated as part of the national highway system under 85750
the "National Highway System Designation Act of 1995," 109 Stat. 85751
568, 23 U.S.C.A. 103, in consultation with the director of public 85752
safety and, if applicable, the local authority having jurisdiction 85753
over a portion of the highway, may determine and declare that the 85754
speed limit of less than sixty-five miles per hour established on 85755
the highway or portion of highway either is reasonable and safe or 85756
is less than that which is reasonable and safe.85757

       If the established speed limit for the highway or portion of 85758
highway is determined to be less than that which is reasonable and 85759
safe, the director of transportation, in consultation with the 85760
director of public safety and, if applicable, the local authority 85761
having jurisdiction over the portion of highway, shall determine 85762
and declare a reasonable and safe speed limit of not more than 85763
sixty-five miles per hour for that highway or portion of highway. 85764
The director of transportation or local authority having 85765
jurisdiction over the highway or portion of highway shall erect 85766
appropriate signs giving notice of the speed limit at such 85767
location within three hundred ninety days after February 29, 1996. 85768
The speed limit becomes effective only when such signs are erected 85769
at the location.85770

       (N)(1)(a) If the boundary of two local authorities rests on 85771
the centerline of a highway and both authorities have jurisdiction 85772
over the highway, the speed limit for the part of the highway 85773
within their joint jurisdiction shall be either one of the 85774
following as agreed to by both authorities:85775

       (i) Either prima-facie speed limit permitted by division (B) 85776
of this section;85777

       (ii) An altered speed limit determined and posted in 85778
accordance with this section.85779

       (b) If the local authorities are unable to reach an 85780
agreement, the speed limit shall remain as established and posted 85781
under this section.85782

       (2) Neither local authority may declare an altered 85783
prima-facie speed limit pursuant to this section on the part of 85784
the highway under their joint jurisdiction unless both of the 85785
local authorities determine, upon the basis of an engineering and 85786
traffic investigation, that the speed permitted by this section is 85787
greater than is reasonable or safe under the conditions found to 85788
exist at the location and both authorities agree upon a uniform 85789
reasonable and safe prima-facie speed limit of less than 85790
fifty-five but not less than twenty-five miles per hour for that 85791
location. If both authorities so agree, each shall follow the 85792
procedure specified in this section for altering the prima-facie 85793
speed limit on the highway, and the speed limit for the part of 85794
the highway within their joint jurisdiction shall be uniformly 85795
altered. No altered speed limit may be withdrawn unless both local 85796
authorities determine that the altered prima-facie speed limit 85797
previously adopted becomes unreasonable and each adopts a 85798
resolution withdrawing the altered prima-facie speed limit 85799
pursuant to the procedure specified in this section.85800

       (O) As used in this section:85801

       (1) "Interstate system" has the same meaning as in 23 85802
U.S.C.A. 101.85803

       (2) "Commercial bus" means a motor vehicle designed for 85804
carrying more than nine passengers and used for the transportation 85805
of persons for compensation.85806

       (3) "Noncommercial bus" includes but is not limited to a 85807
school bus or a motor vehicle operated solely for the 85808
transportation of persons associated with a charitable or 85809
nonprofit organization.85810

       (4) "Outerbelt" means a portion of a freeway that is part of 85811
the interstate system and is located in the outer vicinity of a 85812
major municipal corporation or group of municipal corporations, as 85813
designated by the director.85814

       (P)(1) A violation of any provision of this section is one of 85815
the following:85816

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in divisions (P)(1)(b), 85817
(1)(c), (2), and (3) of this section, a minor misdemeanor;85818

       (b) If, within one year of the offense, the offender 85819
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to two 85820
violations of any provision of this section or of any provision of 85821
a municipal ordinance that is substantially similar to any 85822
provision of this section, a misdemeanor of the fourth degree;85823

       (c) If, within one year of the offense, the offender 85824
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to three or 85825
more violations of any provision of this section or of any 85826
provision of a municipal ordinance that is substantially similar 85827
to any provision of this section, a misdemeanor of the third 85828
degree.85829

       (2) If the offender has not previously been convicted of or 85830
pleaded guilty to a violation of any provision of this section or 85831
of any provision of a municipal ordinance that is substantially 85832
similar to this section and operated a motor vehicle faster than 85833
thirty-five miles an hour in a business district of a municipal 85834
corporation, faster than fifty miles an hour in other portions of 85835
a municipal corporation, or faster than thirty-five miles an hour 85836
in a school zone during recess or while children are going to or 85837
leaving school during the school's opening or closing hours, a 85838
misdemeanor of the fourth degree.85839

       (3) Notwithstanding division (P)(1) of this section, if the 85840
offender operated a motor vehicle in a construction zone where a 85841
sign was then posted in accordance with section 4511.98 of the 85842
Revised Code, the court, in addition to all other penalties 85843
provided by law, shall impose upon the offender a fine of two 85844
times the usual amount imposed for the violation. No court shall 85845
impose a fine of two times the usual amount imposed for the 85846
violation upon an offender if the offender alleges, in an 85847
affidavit filed with the court prior to the offender's sentencing, 85848
that the offender is indigent and is unable to pay the fine 85849
imposed pursuant to this division and if the court determines that 85850
the offender is an indigent person and unable to pay the fine.85851

       Sec. 4511.69.  (A) Every vehicle stopped or parked upon a 85852
roadway where there is an adjacent curb shall be stopped or parked 85853
with the right-hand wheels of the vehicle parallel with and not 85854
more than twelve inches from the right-hand curb, unless it is 85855
impossible to approach so close to the curb; in such case the stop 85856
shall be made as close to the curb as possible and only for the 85857
time necessary to discharge and receive passengers or to load or 85858
unload merchandise. Local authorities by ordinance may permit 85859
angle parking on any roadway under their jurisdiction, except that 85860
angle parking shall not be permitted on a state route within a 85861
municipal corporation unless an unoccupied roadway width of not 85862
less than twenty-five feet is available for free-moving traffic.85863

       (B) Local authorities by ordinance may permit parking of 85864
vehicles with the left-hand wheels adjacent to and within twelve 85865
inches of the left-hand curb of a one-way roadway.85866

       (C)(1)(a) Except as provided in division (C)(2)(1)(b) of this 85867
section, no vehicle or trackless trolley shall be stopped or 85868
parked on a road or highway with the vehicle or trackless trolley 85869
facing in a direction other than the direction of travel on that 85870
side of the road or highway.85871

       (2)(b) The operator of a motorcycle may back the motorcycle 85872
into an angled parking space so that when the motorcycle is parked 85873
it is facing in a direction other than the direction of travel on 85874
the side of the road or highway.85875

       (2) The operator of a motorcycle may back the motorcycle into 85876
a parking space that is located on the side of, and parallel to, a 85877
road or highway. The motorcycle may face any direction when so 85878
parked. Not more than two motorcycles at a time shall be parked in 85879
a parking space as described in division (C)(2) of this section 85880
irrespective of whether or not the space is metered.85881

       (D) Notwithstanding any statute or any rule, resolution, or 85882
ordinance adopted by any local authority, air compressors, 85883
tractors, trucks, and other equipment, while being used in the 85884
construction, reconstruction, installation, repair, or removal of 85885
facilities near, on, over, or under a street or highway, may stop, 85886
stand, or park where necessary in order to perform such work, 85887
provided a flagperson is on duty or warning signs or lights are 85888
displayed as may be prescribed by the director of transportation.85889

       (E) Special parking locations and privileges for persons with 85890
disabilities that limit or impair the ability to walk, also known 85891
as handicapped parking spaces or disability parking spaces, shall 85892
be provided and designated by all political subdivisions and by 85893
the state and all agencies and instrumentalities thereof at all 85894
offices and facilities, where parking is provided, whether owned, 85895
rented, or leased, and at all publicly owned parking garages. The 85896
locations shall be designated through the posting of an elevated 85897
sign, whether permanently affixed or movable, imprinted with the 85898
international symbol of access and shall be reasonably close to 85899
exits, entrances, elevators, and ramps. All elevated signs posted 85900
in accordance with this division and division (C) of section 85901
3781.111 of the Revised Code shall be mounted on a fixed or 85902
movable post, and the distance from the ground to the bottom edge 85903
of the sign shall measure not less than five feet. If a new sign 85904
or a replacement sign designating a special parking location is 85905
posted on or after October 14, 1999, there also shall be affixed 85906
upon the surface of that sign or affixed next to the designating 85907
sign a notice that states the fine applicable for the offense of 85908
parking a motor vehicle in the special designated parking location 85909
if the motor vehicle is not legally entitled to be parked in that 85910
location.85911

       (F)(1) No person shall stop, stand, or park any motor vehicle 85912
at special parking locations provided under division (E) of this 85913
section or at special clearly marked parking locations provided in 85914
or on privately owned parking lots, parking garages, or other 85915
parking areas and designated in accordance with that division, 85916
unless one of the following applies:85917

       (a) The motor vehicle is being operated by or for the 85918
transport of a person with a disability that limits or impairs the 85919
ability to walk and is displaying a valid removable windshield 85920
placard or special license plates;85921

       (b) The motor vehicle is being operated by or for the 85922
transport of a handicapped person and is displaying a parking card 85923
or special handicapped license plates.85924

       (2) Any motor vehicle that is parked in a special marked 85925
parking location in violation of division (F)(1)(a) or (b) of this 85926
section may be towed or otherwise removed from the parking 85927
location by the law enforcement agency of the political 85928
subdivision in which the parking location is located. A motor 85929
vehicle that is so towed or removed shall not be released to its 85930
owner until the owner presents proof of ownership of the motor 85931
vehicle and pays all towing and storage fees normally imposed by 85932
that political subdivision for towing and storing motor vehicles. 85933
If the motor vehicle is a leased vehicle, it shall not be released 85934
to the lessee until the lessee presents proof that that person is 85935
the lessee of the motor vehicle and pays all towing and storage 85936
fees normally imposed by that political subdivision for towing and 85937
storing motor vehicles.85938

       (3) If a person is charged with a violation of division 85939
(F)(1)(a) or (b) of this section, it is an affirmative defense to 85940
the charge that the person suffered an injury not more than 85941
seventy-two hours prior to the time the person was issued the 85942
ticket or citation and that, because of the injury, the person 85943
meets at least one of the criteria contained in division (A)(1) of 85944
section 4503.44 of the Revised Code.85945

       (G) When a motor vehicle is being operated by or for the 85946
transport of a person with a disability that limits or impairs the 85947
ability to walk and is displaying a removable windshield placard 85948
or a temporary removable windshield placard or special license 85949
plates, or when a motor vehicle is being operated by or for the 85950
transport of a handicapped person and is displaying a parking card 85951
or special handicapped license plates, the motor vehicle is 85952
permitted to park for a period of two hours in excess of the legal 85953
parking period permitted by local authorities, except where local 85954
ordinances or police rules provide otherwise or where the vehicle 85955
is parked in such a manner as to be clearly a traffic hazard.85956

       (H) No owner of an office, facility, or parking garage where 85957
special parking locations are required to be designated in 85958
accordance with division (E) of this section shall fail to 85959
properly mark the special parking locations in accordance with 85960
that division or fail to maintain the markings of the special 85961
locations, including the erection and maintenance of the fixed or 85962
movable signs.85963

       (I) Nothing in this section shall be construed to require a 85964
person or organization to apply for a removable windshield placard 85965
or special license plates if the parking card or special license 85966
plates issued to the person or organization under prior law have 85967
not expired or been surrendered or revoked.85968

       (J)(1) Whoever violates division (A) or (C) of this section 85969
is guilty of a minor misdemeanor.85970

       (2)(a) Whoever violates division (F)(1)(a) or (b) of this 85971
section is guilty of a misdemeanor and shall be punished as 85972
provided in division (J)(2)(a) and (b) of this section. Except as 85973
otherwise provided in division (J)(2)(a) of this section, an 85974
offender who violates division (F)(1)(a) or (b) of this section 85975
shall be fined not less than two hundred fifty nor more than five 85976
hundred dollars. An offender who violates division (F)(1)(a) or 85977
(b) of this section shall be fined not more than one hundred 85978
dollars if the offender, prior to sentencing, proves either of the 85979
following to the satisfaction of the court:85980

       (i) At the time of the violation of division (F)(1)(a) of 85981
this section, the offender or the person for whose transport the 85982
motor vehicle was being operated had been issued a removable 85983
windshield placard that then was valid or special license plates 85984
that then were valid but the offender or the person neglected to 85985
display the placard or license plates as described in division 85986
(F)(1)(a) of this section.85987

       (ii) At the time of the violation of division (F)(1)(b) of 85988
this section, the offender or the person for whose transport the 85989
motor vehicle was being operated had been issued a parking card 85990
that then was valid or special handicapped license plates that 85991
then were valid but the offender or the person neglected to 85992
display the card or license plates as described in division 85993
(F)(1)(b) of this section.85994

       (b) In no case shall an offender who violates division 85995
(F)(1)(a) or (b) of this section be sentenced to any term of 85996
imprisonment.85997

       An arrest or conviction for a violation of division (F)(1)(a) 85998
or (b) of this section does not constitute a criminal record and 85999
need not be reported by the person so arrested or convicted in 86000
response to any inquiries contained in any application for 86001
employment, license, or other right or privilege, or made in 86002
connection with the person's appearance as a witness.86003

       The clerk of the court shall pay every fine collected under 86004
division (J)(2) of this section to the political subdivision in 86005
which the violation occurred. Except as provided in division 86006
(J)(2) of this section, the political subdivision shall use the 86007
fine moneys it receives under division (J)(2) of this section to 86008
pay the expenses it incurs in complying with the signage and 86009
notice requirements contained in division (E) of this section. The 86010
political subdivision may use up to fifty per cent of each fine it 86011
receives under division (J)(2) of this section to pay the costs of 86012
educational, advocacy, support, and assistive technology programs 86013
for persons with disabilities, and for public improvements within 86014
the political subdivision that benefit or assist persons with 86015
disabilities, if governmental agencies or nonprofit organizations 86016
offer the programs.86017

       (3) Whoever violates division (H) of this section shall be 86018
punished as follows:86019

       (a) Except as otherwise provided in division (J)(3) of this 86020
section, the offender shall be issued a warning.86021

       (b) If the offender previously has been convicted of or 86022
pleaded guilty to a violation of division (H) of this section or 86023
of a municipal ordinance that is substantially similar to that 86024
division, the offender shall not be issued a warning but shall be 86025
fined not more than twenty-five dollars for each parking location 86026
that is not properly marked or whose markings are not properly 86027
maintained.86028

       (K) As used in this section:86029

       (1) "Handicapped person" means any person who has lost the 86030
use of one or both legs or one or both arms, who is blind, deaf, 86031
or so severely handicapped as to be unable to move without the aid 86032
of crutches or a wheelchair, or whose mobility is restricted by a 86033
permanent cardiovascular, pulmonary, or other handicapping 86034
condition.86035

       (2) "Person with a disability that limits or impairs the 86036
ability to walk" has the same meaning as in section 4503.44 of the 86037
Revised Code.86038

       (3) "Special license plates" and "removable windshield 86039
placard" mean any license plates or removable windshield placard 86040
or temporary removable windshield placard issued under section 86041
4503.41 or 4503.44 of the Revised Code, and also mean any 86042
substantially similar license plates or removable windshield 86043
placard or temporary removable windshield placard issued by a 86044
state, district, country, or sovereignty.86045

       Sec. 4511.85.  (A) The operator of a chauffeured limousine 86046
shall accept passengers only on the basis of prearranged 86047
contracts, as defined in division (LL) of section 4501.01 of the 86048
Revised Code, and shall not cruise in search of patronage unless 86049
the limousine is in compliance with any statute or ordinance 86050
governing the operation of taxicabs or other similar vehicles for 86051
hire.86052

       (B) The operator of a chauffeured limousine may provide 86053
transportation to passengers who arrange for the transportation 86054
through an intermediary, including a digital dispatching service. 86055
Notwithstanding any law to the contrary, when providing 86056
transportation arranged through an intermediary, the operator of a 86057
chauffeured limousine may establish the fare and method of fare 86058
calculation, so long as the method of fare calculation is provided 86059
to the passenger upon request.86060

        (C) No person shall advertise or hold self out as doing 86061
business as a limousine service or livery service or other similar 86062
designation unless each vehicle used by the person to provide the 86063
service is registered in accordance with section 4503.24 of the 86064
Revised Code and is in compliance with section 4509.80 of the 86065
Revised Code.86066

       (C)(D) Whoever violates this section is guilty of a 86067
misdemeanor of the first degree.86068

       Sec. 4513.34.  (A)(1) The director of transportation with 86069
respect to all highways that are a part of the state highway 86070
system and local authorities with respect to highways under their 86071
jurisdiction, upon application in writing, shall issue a special 86072
regional heavy hauling permit authorizing the applicant to operate 86073
or move a vehicle or combination of vehicles as follows:86074

       (a) At a size or weight of vehicle or load exceeding the 86075
maximum specified in sections 5577.01 to 5577.09 of the Revised 86076
Code, or otherwise not in conformity with sections 4513.01 to 86077
4513.37 of the Revised Code;86078

        (b) Upon any highway under the jurisdiction of the authority 86079
granting the permit except those highways with a condition 86080
insufficient to bear the weight of the vehicle or combination of 86081
vehicles as stated in the application;86082

        (c) For regional trips at distances of one hundred fifty 86083
miles or less from a facility stated on the application as the 86084
applicant's point of origin.86085

        Issuance of a special regional heavy hauling permit is 86086
subject to the payment of a fee established by the director or 86087
local authority in accordance with this section.86088

       (2) In circumstances where a person is not eligible to 86089
receive a permit under division (A)(1) of this section, the 86090
director of transportation with respect to all highways that are a 86091
part of the state highway system and local authorities with 86092
respect to highways under their jurisdiction, upon application in 86093
writing and for good cause shown, may issue a special permit in 86094
writing authorizing the applicant to operate or move a vehicle or 86095
combination of vehicles of a size or weight of vehicle or load 86096
exceeding the maximum specified in sections 5577.01 to 5577.09 of 86097
the Revised Code, or otherwise not in conformity with sections 86098
4513.01 to 4513.37 of the Revised Code, upon any highway under the 86099
jurisdiction of the authority granting the permit.86100

       (3) For purposes of this section, the director may designate 86101
certain state highways or portions of state highways as special 86102
economic development highways. If an application submitted to the 86103
director under this section involves travel of a nonconforming 86104
vehicle or combination of vehicles upon a special economic 86105
development highway, the director, in determining whether good 86106
cause has been shown that issuance of a permit is justified, shall 86107
consider the effect the travel of the vehicle or combination of 86108
vehicles will have on the economic development in the area in 86109
which the designated highway or portion of highway is located.86110

       (B) Notwithstanding sections 715.22 and 723.01 of the Revised 86111
Code, the holder of a permit issued by the director under this 86112
section may move the vehicle or combination of vehicles described 86113
in the permit on any highway that is a part of the state highway 86114
system when the movement is partly within and partly without the 86115
corporate limits of a municipal corporation. No local authority 86116
shall require any other permit or license or charge any license 86117
fee or other charge against the holder of a permit for the 86118
movement of a vehicle or combination of vehicles on any highway 86119
that is a part of the state highway system. The director shall not 86120
require the holder of a permit issued by a local authority to 86121
obtain a special permit for the movement of vehicles or 86122
combination of vehicles on highways within the jurisdiction of the 86123
local authority. Permits may be issued for any period of time not 86124
to exceed one year, as the director in the director's discretion 86125
or a local authority in its discretion determines advisable, or 86126
for the duration of any public construction project.86127

       (C)(1) The application for a permit issued under this section 86128
shall be in the form that the director or local authority 86129
prescribes. The director or local authority may prescribe a permit 86130
fee to be imposed and collected when any permit described in this 86131
section is issued. The permit fee may be in an amount sufficient 86132
to reimburse the director or local authority for the 86133
administrative costs incurred in issuing the permit, and also to 86134
cover the cost of the normal and expected damage caused to the 86135
roadway or a street or highway structure as the result of the 86136
operation of the nonconforming vehicle or combination of vehicles. 86137
The director, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 86138
shall establish a schedule of fees for permits issued by the 86139
director under this section; however, the fee to operate a triple 86140
trailer unit, at locations authorized under federal law, shall be 86141
one hundred dollars.86142

       (2) For the purposes of this section and of rules adopted by 86143
the director under this section, milk transported in bulk by 86144
vehicle is deemed a nondivisible load.86145

       (3) For purposes of this section and of rules adopted by the 86146
director under this section, three or fewer aluminum coils, 86147
transported by a vehicle, are deemed a nondivisible load. The 86148
director shall adopt rules establishing requirements for an 86149
aluminum coil permit that are substantially similar to the 86150
requirements for a steel coil permit under Chapter 5501:2-1 of the 86151
Administrative Code.86152

       (D) The director or a local authority shall issue a special 86153
regional heavy hauling permit under division (A)(1) of this 86154
section upon application and payment of the applicable fee. 86155
However, the director or local authority may issue or withhold a 86156
special permit specified in division (A)(2) of this section. If a 86157
permit is to be issued, the director or local authority may limit 86158
or prescribe conditions of operation for the vehicle and may 86159
require the posting of a bond or other security conditioned upon 86160
the sufficiency of the permit fee to compensate for damage caused 86161
to the roadway or a street or highway structure. In addition, a 86162
local authority, as a condition of issuance of an overweight 86163
permit, may require the applicant to develop and enter into a 86164
mutual agreement with the local authority to compensate for or to 86165
repair excess damage caused to the roadway by travel under the 86166
permit.86167

       For a permit that will allow travel of a nonconforming 86168
vehicle or combination of vehicles on a special economic 86169
development highway, the director, as a condition of issuance, may 86170
require the applicant to agree to make periodic payments to the 86171
department to compensate for damage caused to the roadway by 86172
travel under the permit.86173

       (E) Every permit issued under this section shall be carried 86174
in the vehicle or combination of vehicles to which it refers and 86175
shall be open to inspection by any police officer or authorized 86176
agent of any authority granting the permit. No person shall 86177
violate any of the terms of a permit.86178

       (F) The director may debar an applicant from applying for a 86179
permit under this section upon a finding based on a reasonable 86180
belief that the applicant has done any of the following:86181

       (1) Abused the process by repeatedly submitting false 86182
information or false travel plans or by using another company or 86183
individual's name, insurance, or escrow account without proper 86184
authorization;86185

       (2) Failed to comply with or substantially perform under a 86186
previously issued permit according to its terms, conditions, and 86187
specifications within specified time limits;86188

       (3) Failed to cooperate in the application process for the 86189
permit or in any other procedures that are related to the issuance 86190
of the permit by refusing to provide information or documents 86191
required in a permit or by failing to respond to and correct 86192
matters related to the permit;86193

       (4) Accumulated repeated justified complaints regarding 86194
performance under a permit that was previously issued to the 86195
applicant or previously failed to obtain a permit when such a 86196
permit was required;86197

       (5) Attempted to influence a public employee to breach 86198
ethical conduct standards;86199

       (6) Been convicted of a criminal offense related to the 86200
application for, or performance under, a permit, including, but 86201
not limited to, bribery, falsification, fraud or destruction of 86202
records, receiving stolen property, and any other offense that 86203
directly reflects on the applicant's integrity or commercial 86204
driver's license;86205

       (7) Accumulated repeated convictions under a state or federal 86206
safety law governing commercial motor vehicles or a rule or 86207
regulation adopted under such a law;86208

       (8) Accumulated repeated convictions under a law, rule, or 86209
regulation governing the movement of traffic over the public 86210
streets and highways;86211

       (9) Failed to pay any fees associated with any permitted 86212
operation or move;86213

       (10) Deliberately or willfully submitted false or misleading 86214
information in connection with the application for, or performance 86215
under, a permit issued under this section.86216

       If the applicant is a partnership, association, or 86217
corporation, the director also may debar from consideration for 86218
permits any partner of the partnership, or the officers, 86219
directors, or employees of the association or corporation being 86220
debarred.86221

       The director may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. 86222
of the Revised Code governing the debarment of an applicant.86223

       (G) When the director reasonably believes that grounds for 86224
debarment exist, the director shall send the person that is 86225
subject to debarment a notice of the proposed debarment. A notice 86226
of proposed debarment shall indicate the grounds for the debarment 86227
of the person and the procedure for requesting a hearing. The 86228
notice and hearing shall be in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 86229
Revised Code. If the person does not respond with a request for a 86230
hearing in the manner specified in that chapter, the director 86231
shall issue the debarment decision without a hearing and shall 86232
notify the person of the decision by certified mail, return 86233
receipt requested. The debarment period may be of any length 86234
determined by the director, and the director may modify or rescind 86235
the debarment at any time. During the period of debarment, the 86236
director shall not issue, or consider issuing, a permit under this 86237
section to any partnership, association, or corporation that is 86238
affiliated with a debarred person. After the debarment period 86239
expires, the person, and any partnership, association, or 86240
corporation affiliated with the person, may reapply for a permit.86241

       (H)(1) No person shall violate the terms of a permit issued 86242
under this section that relate to gross load limits.86243

        (2) No person shall violate the terms of a permit issued 86244
under this section that relate to axle load by more than two 86245
thousand pounds per axle or group of axles.86246

        (3) No person shall violate the terms of a permit issued 86247
under this section that relate to an approved route except upon 86248
order of a law enforcement officer or authorized agent of the 86249
issuing authority.86250

        (I) Whoever violates division (H) of this section shall be 86251
punished as provided in section 4513.99 of the Revised Code.86252

       (J) A permit issued by the department of transportation or a 86253
local authority under this section for the operation of a vehicle 86254
or combination of vehicles is valid for the purposes of the 86255
vehicle operation in accordance with the conditions and 86256
limitations specified on the permit. Such a permit is voidable by 86257
law enforcement only for operation of a vehicle or combination of 86258
vehicles in violation of the weight, dimension, or route 86259
provisions of the permit. However, a permit is not voidable for 86260
operation in violation of a route provision of a permit if the 86261
operation is upon the order of a law enforcement officer.86262

       Sec. 4701.03.  (A) The accountancy board annually shall elect 86263
a president, secretary, and treasurer from its members. The board 86264
may adopt and amend rules for the orderly conduct of its affairs 86265
and for the administration of this chapter. The board may adopt 86266
and amend rules defining the practice of public accounting, rules 86267
of professional conduct appropriate to establish and maintain a 86268
high standard of integrity and dignity in registrants and 86269
certificate holders under this chapter, and rules regulating the 86270
sole proprietorship, partnership, limited liability company, 86271
professional association, corporation-for-profit, or other legal 86272
entity practice of public accounting. A majority of the board 86273
shall constitute a quorum for the transaction of business.86274

       (B) The board shall keep and hold open for public inspection 86275
all records of its proceedings.86276

       (C) The board may employ any clerks that are necessary to 86277
assist it in the performance of its duties and the keeping of its 86278
records. If the board employs an executive director, the board 86279
shall pay the executive director shall be paid in accordance with 86280
pay range 18 of schedule E-1 of section 124.152 of the Revised 86281
Code, or, if the director was employed and being paid on June 28, 86282
2003, in accordance with step 7 in pay range 18 of schedule E-1 of 86283
former section 124.152 of the Revised Code and continued to be so 86284
paid on June 29, 2003, the executive director shall be paid in 86285
accordance with pay range 18 of salary schedule E-1 for step seven 86286
only of section 124.152 of the Revised Code.86287

       Sec. 4707.02. (A) No person shall act as an auction firm, 86288
auctioneer, apprentice auctioneer, or special auctioneer within 86289
this state without a license issued by the department of 86290
agriculture. No auction shall be conducted in this state except by 86291
an auctioneer licensed by the department.86292

       The department shall not issue or renew a license if the 86293
applicant or licensee has been convicted of a felony or crime 86294
involving fraud or theft in this or another state at any time 86295
during the ten years immediately preceding application or renewal.86296

        (B) Division (A) of this section does not apply to any of the 86297
following:86298

       (1) Sales at auction that either are required by law to be at 86299
auction, other than sales pursuant to a judicial order or decree, 86300
or are conducted by or under the direction of a public authority;86301

       (2) The owner of any real or personal property desiring to 86302
sell the property at auction, provided that the property was not 86303
acquired for the purpose of resale;86304

       (3) An auction mediation company;86305

       (4) An auction that is conducted in a course of study for 86306
auctioneers that is approved by the state auctioneers commission 86307
created under section 4707.03 of the Revised Code for purposes of 86308
student training and is supervised by a licensed auctioneer;86309

       (5)(a) An auction that is sponsored by a nonprofit or 86310
charitable organization that is registered in this state under 86311
Chapter 1702. or Chapter 1716. of the Revised Code, respectively, 86312
if the auction only involves the property of the members of the 86313
organization and the auction is part of a fair that is organized 86314
by an agricultural society under Chapter 1711. of the Revised Code 86315
or by the Ohio expositions commission under Chapter 991. of the 86316
Revised Code at which an auctioneer who is licensed under this 86317
chapter physically conducts the auction; or86318

       (b) Sales at an auction sponsored by a charitable, religious, 86319
or civic organization that is tax exempt under subsection 86320
501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code, or by a public school, 86321
chartered nonpublic school, or community school, if no person in 86322
the business of organizing, arranging, or conducting an auction 86323
for compensation and no consignor of consigned items sold at the 86324
auction, except such organization or school, receives compensation 86325
from the proceeds of the auction. As used in division (B)(5)(b) of 86326
this section, "compensation" means money, a thing of value other 86327
than participation in a charitable event, or a financial benefit.86328

       (6) A person licensed as a livestock dealer under Chapter 86329
943. of the Revised Code who exclusively sells livestock and uses 86330
an auctioneer who is licensed under this chapter to conduct the 86331
auction;86332

       (7) A person licensed as a motor vehicle auction owner under 86333
Chapter 4517. of the Revised Code who exclusively sells motor 86334
vehicles to a person licensed under Chapter 4517. of the Revised 86335
Code and who uses an auctioneer who is licensed under this chapter 86336
to conduct the auction;86337

       (8) A person who sells real or personal property by means of 86338
the internet;86339

       (9) A bid calling contest that is approved by the commission 86340
and that is conducted for the purposes of the advancement or 86341
promotion of the auction profession in this state, provided that 86342
no compensation is paid to the sponsor of or participants in the 86343
contest other than a prize or award for winning the contest;86344

        (10) An auction at which the champion of a national or 86345
international bid calling contest appears, provided that both of 86346
the following apply:86347

        (a) The champion is not paid a commission.86348

        (b) The auction is conducted under the direct supervision of 86349
an auctioneer licensed under this chapter in order to ensure that 86350
the champion complies with this chapter and rules adopted under 86351
it.86352

       (C)(1) No person shall advertise or hold oneself out as an 86353
auction firm, auctioneer, apprentice auctioneer, or special 86354
auctioneer without a license issued by the department of 86355
agriculture.86356

       (2) Division (C)(1) of this section does not apply to an 86357
individual who is the subject of an advertisement regarding an 86358
auction conducted under division (B)(5)(b) of this section.86359

       Sec. 4707.073. (A) No corporation, limited liability company,86360
general or limited partnership, or unincorporated association 86361
shall act or hold itself out as an auctioneer without a valid 86362
auctioneer's license issued under this section. This section does 86363
not apply to a person who is issued a license under section 86364
4707.071 of the Revised Code.86365

       (B) The department of agriculture may grant an auctioneer's 86366
license to a corporation, limited liability company, general or 86367
limited partnership, or unincorporated association that is 86368
determined to be qualified by the department. Every applicant for 86369
a license under this section shall furnish to the department, on 86370
forms provided by the department, satisfactory proof that the 86371
applicant:86372

       (1) Is in good standing with the secretary of state if the 86373
applicant is a corporation;86374

       (2) Is of trustworthy character;86375

       (3) Has provided proof of financial responsibility as 86376
required in section 4707.11 of the Revised Code;86377

       (4) Is registered with the secretary of state or a local 86378
authority, as applicable, to do business in this state;86379

       (5) Has complied with any other requirement that the director 86380
establishes in rules adopted under section 4707.19 of the Revised 86381
Code.86382

       (C) An application submitted under this section shall list 86383
the names of all of the owners, directors, partners, or members of 86384
the applicant, as applicable, and shall indicate those that have 86385
an auctioneer's license issued under section 4707.07 of the 86386
Revised Code.86387

       (D)(1) The department shall not issue a license under this 86388
section unless one of the following applies, as applicable:86389

       (a)(1) If the applicant is a limited liability company or a86390
general or limited partnership, not less than fifty per cent of 86391
the members or general partners have a current license issued 86392
under section 4707.07 of the Revised Code.86393

       (b)(2) If the applicant is a corporation, not less than fifty 86394
per cent of the directors and the president or chief executive 86395
have a current license issued under section 4707.07 of the Revised 86396
Code.86397

       (c)(3) If the applicant is an unincorporated association, not 86398
less than fifty per cent of the members have a current license 86399
issued under section 4707.07 of the Revised Code.86400

       Failure of a corporation, limited liability company,86401
partnership, or unincorporated association to maintain the 86402
applicable requirements of this division after the issuance of a 86403
license under this section may be sufficient cause for the 86404
revocation of the license under section 4707.15 of the Revised 86405
Code.86406

       (2) Not later than two years after the effective date of this 86407
section, a corporation, partnership, or unincorporated association 86408
that was issued a license under section 4707.07 of the Revised 86409
Code on or before the effective date of this section shall comply 86410
with the requirements established in division (D)(1) of this 86411
section. If such a corporation, partnership, or unincorporated 86412
association fails to comply with those requirements, the license 86413
of the corporation, partnership, or unincorporated association 86414
immediately shall terminate.86415

       (E) Upon the issuance of a license under this section, a 86416
corporation, limited liability company, partnership, or 86417
unincorporated association shall designate an individual from 86418
among its directors, partners, or members who is licensed under 86419
section 4707.07 of the Revised Code as its agent for purposes of 86420
communication with the department. If that individual ceases to be 86421
the agent, the corporation, limited liability company,86422
partnership, or unincorporated association shall notify the 86423
department not later than ten days after the day on which the 86424
individual ceases to be the agent. Upon notification to the 86425
department, the license of the corporation, limited liability 86426
company, partnership, or unincorporated association, as 86427
applicable, immediately shall terminate. If the corporation, 86428
limited liability company, partnership, or unincorporated 86429
association notifies the department of the designation of a new 86430
agent in accordance with the requirements of this division and 86431
pays a fee in the amount of ten dollars, the department shall 86432
issue the corporation, limited liability company, partnership, or 86433
unincorporated association a new license.86434

       (F) This section does not preclude a corporation, limited 86435
liability company, partnership, or unincorporated association from 86436
selling real property at auction, provided that the requirements 86437
of this section and section 4707.021 and Chapter 4735. of the 86438
Revised Code are satisfied.86439

       (G) A person licensed as a real estate broker under Chapter 86440
4735. of the Revised Code shall not be required to obtain a 86441
license under this section if the person complies with sections 86442
4707.021 and 4707.22 of the Revised Code.86443

       Sec. 4707.10.  (A) The fee for each apprentice auctioneer's 86444
or auction firm license issued by the department of agriculture is 86445
one hundred dollars, and the annual renewal fee for any such 86446
license is one hundred dollars. All licenses expire annually on 86447
the last day of June of each year and shall be renewed according 86448
to the standard renewal procedures of Chapter 4745. of the Revised 86449
Code, or the procedures of this section. Any licensee under this 86450
chapter who wishes to renew the licensee's license, but fails to 86451
do so before the first day of July shall reapply for licensure in 86452
the same manner and pursuant to the same requirements as for 86453
initial licensure, unless before the first day of September of the 86454
year of expiration, the former licensee pays to the department, in 86455
addition to the regular renewal fee, a late renewal penalty of one 86456
hundred dollars.86457

       (B)(1) Each person to whom the department issues an 86458
auctioneer's license or special auctioneer's license shall pay a 86459
licensure fee. Those licenses are biennial and expire in 86460
accordance with the schedule established in division (B)(2) of 86461
this section. If such a license is issued during the first year of 86462
a biennium, the licensee shall pay a fee in the amount of two 86463
hundred dollars. If the license is issued during the second year 86464
of a biennium, the licensee shall pay a fee in the amount of one 86465
hundred dollars. With respect to an auctioneer's license, the fees 86466
apply regardless of whether the license is issued to an individual 86467
under section 4707.07 of the Revised Code or to a corporation, 86468
limited liability company, partnership, or association under 86469
section 4707.073 of the Revised Code.86470

       All auctioneer's licenses and special auctioneer's licenses 86471
expire on the last day of June of the biennium. The licenses shall 86472
be renewed in accordance with the standard renewal procedures of 86473
Chapter 4745. of the Revised Code or the procedures in this 86474
section and upon the licensee's payment to the department of a 86475
renewal fee of two hundred dollars. A licensee who wishes to renew 86476
the licensee's license, but who fails to do so before the first 86477
day of July following the license's expiration, shall reapply for 86478
licensure in the same manner and pursuant to the same requirements 86479
as for the initial licensure unless before the first day of 86480
September following the expiration, the former licensee pays to 86481
the department, in addition to the regular renewal fee, a late 86482
renewal penalty of one hundred dollars.86483

       (2) The biennial expiration of an auctioneer's license or 86484
special auctioneer's license shall occur in accordance with the 86485
following schedule:86486

       (a) The license shall expire in odd-numbered years if the 86487
business name or last name, as applicable, of the licensee begins 86488
with the letters "A" through "J" or with the letters "X" through 86489
"Z."86490

       (b) The license shall expire in even-numbered years if the 86491
business name or last name, as applicable, of the licensee begins 86492
with the letters "K" through "W."86493

       (C) Any person who fails to renew the person's license before 86494
the first day of July is prohibited from engaging in any activity 86495
specified or comprehended in section 4707.01 of the Revised Code 86496
until such time as the person's license is renewed or a new 86497
license is issued. Renewal of a license between the first day of 86498
July and the first day of September does not relieve any person 86499
from complying with this division. The department may refuse to 86500
renew the license of or issue a new license to any person who 86501
violates this division.86502

       (D) The department shall prepare and deliver to each licensee 86503
a permanent license certificate and an identification card, the 86504
appropriate portion of which shall be carried on the person of the 86505
licensee at all times when engaged in any type of auction 86506
activity, and part of which shall be posted with the permanent 86507
certificate in a conspicuous location at the licensee's place of 86508
business.86509

       (E) Notice in writing shall be given to the department by 86510
each auctioneer or apprentice auctioneer licensee of any change of 86511
principal business location or any change or addition to the name 86512
or names under which business is conducted, whereupon the 86513
department shall issue a new license for the unexpired period. Any 86514
change of business location or change or addition of names without 86515
notification to the department shall automatically cancel any 86516
license previously issued. For each new auctioneerauctioneer's or 86517
apprentice auctioneerauctioneer's license issued upon the 86518
occasion of a change in business location or a change in or an 86519
addition of names under which business is conducted, the 86520
department may collect a fee of ten dollars for each change in 86521
location, or name or each added name unless the notification of 86522
the change occurs concurrently with the renewal application or 86523
unless otherwise provided in section 4707.07 of the Revised Code.86524

       Sec. 4709.11.  Every license issued pursuant to this chapter 86525
expires on the thirty-first day of August of each even-numbered 86526
year. Each licensee desiring to do so shall, on or before the 86527
first day of September of each even-numbered year, renew histhe 86528
licensee's license pursuant to the standard renewal procedure of 86529
Chapter 4745. of the Revised Code. Any holder of an expired 86530
license shall restore histhe holder's license before continuing 86531
the practice of barbering or the activity for which hethe holder86532
is licensed under this chapter and pay the appropriate restoration 86533
fee. If the person fails to restore histhe person's license 86534
within threesix years, hethe person shall pay any required 86535
restoration fee and take any examination required for the license 86536
under this chapter.86537

       Sec. 4713.08. (A) The state board of cosmetology shall adopt 86538
rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as 86539
necessary to implement this chapter. The rules shall do all of the 86540
following:86541

       (1) Govern the practice of the branches of cosmetology and 86542
management of salons;86543

       (2) Specify conditions a person must satisfy to qualify for a 86544
temporary pre-examination work permit under section 4713.22 of the 86545
Revised Code and the conditions and method of renewing a temporary 86546
pre-examination work permit under that section;86547

       (3) Provide for the conduct of examinations under section 86548
4713.24 of the Revised Code;86549

       (4) Specify conditions under which the board will take into 86550
account, under section 4713.32 of the Revised Code, instruction an 86551
applicant for a license under section 4713.28, 4713.30, or 4713.31 86552
of the Revised Code received more than five years before the date 86553
of application for the license;86554

       (5) Provide for the granting of waivers under section 4713.29 86555
of the Revised Code;86556

       (6) Specify conditions an applicant must satisfy for the 86557
board to issue the applicant a license under section 4713.34 of 86558
the Revised Code without the applicant taking an examination 86559
conducted under section 4713.24 of the Revised Code;86560

       (7) Specify locations in which glamour photography services 86561
in which a branch of cosmetology is practiced may be provided;86562

       (8) Establish conditions and the fee for a temporary special 86563
occasion work permit under section 4713.37 of the Revised Code and 86564
specify the amount of time such a permit is valid;86565

       (9) Specify conditions an applicant must satisfy for the 86566
board to issue the applicant an independent contractor license 86567
under section 4713.39 of the Revised Code and the fee for issuance 86568
and renewal of the license;86569

       (10) Establish conditions under which food may be sold at a 86570
salon;86571

       (11) Specify which professions regulated by a professional 86572
regulatory board of this state may be practiced in a salon under 86573
section 4713.42 of the Revised Code;86574

       (12) Establish standards for the provision of cosmetic 86575
therapy, massage therapy, or other professional service in a salon 86576
pursuant to section 4713.42 of the Revised Code;86577

       (13) Establish standards for board approval of, and the 86578
granting of credits for, training in branches of cosmetology at 86579
schools of cosmetology licensed in this state;86580

       (14) Establish the manner in which a school of cosmetology 86581
licensed under section 4713.44 of the Revised Code may offer 86582
post-secondary and advanced practice programs;86583

       (15) Establish sanitary standards for the practice of the 86584
branches of cosmetology, salons, and schools of cosmetology;86585

       (15)(16) Establish the application process for obtaining a 86586
tanning facility permit under section 4713.48 of the Revised Code, 86587
including the amount of the fee for an initial or renewed permit;86588

       (16)(17) Establish standards for installing and operating a 86589
tanning facility in a manner that ensures the health and safety of 86590
consumers, including standards that do all of the following:86591

       (a) Establish a maximum safe time of exposure to radiation 86592
and a maximum safe temperature at which sun lamps may be operated;86593

       (b) Require consumers to wear protective eyeglasses and be 86594
supervised as to the length of time consumers use the facility;86595

       (c) Require the operator to prohibit consumers from standing 86596
too close to sun lamps and to post signs warning consumers of the 86597
potential effects of radiation on persons taking certain 86598
medications and of the possible relationship of the radiation to 86599
skin cancer;86600

       (d) Require the installation of protective shielding for sun 86601
lamps and handrails for consumers;86602

       (e) Require floors to be dry during operation of lamps;86603

       (f) Require a consumer who is under the age of eighteen to 86604
obtain written consent from the consumer's parent or legal 86605
guardian prior to receiving tanning services.86606

       (17)(18)(a) If the board, under section 4713.61 of the 86607
Revised Code, develops a procedure for classifying licenses 86608
inactive, do both of the following:86609

       (i) Establish a fee for having a license classified inactive 86610
that reflects the cost to the board of providing the inactive 86611
license service;86612

       (ii) Specify the continuing education that a person whose 86613
license has been classified inactive must complete to have the 86614
license restored. The continuing education shall be sufficient to 86615
ensure the minimum competency in the use or administration of a 86616
new procedure or product required by a licensee necessary to 86617
protect public health and safety. The requirement shall not exceed 86618
the cumulative number of hours of continuing education that the 86619
person would have been required to complete had the person 86620
retained an active license.86621

       (b) In addition, the board may specify the conditions and 86622
method for granting a temporary work permit to practice a branch 86623
of cosmetology to a person whose license has been classified 86624
inactive.86625

       (18)(19) Establish a fee for approval of a continuing 86626
education program under section 4713.62 of the Revised Code that 86627
is adequate to cover any expense the board incurs in the approval 86628
process;86629

       (19)(20) Anything else necessary to implement this chapter.86630

       (B)(1) The rules adopted under division (A)(2) of this 86631
section may establish additional conditions for a temporary 86632
pre-examination work permit under section 4713.22 of the Revised 86633
Code that are applicable to persons who practice a branch of 86634
cosmetology in another state or country.86635

       (2) The rules adopted under division (A)(17)(18)(b) of this 86636
section may establish additional conditions for a temporary work 86637
permit that are applicable to persons who practice a branch of 86638
cosmetology in another state.86639

       (C) The conditions specified in rules adopted under division 86640
(A)(6) of this section may include that an applicant is applying 86641
for a license to practice a branch of cosmetology for which the 86642
board determines an examination is unnecessary.86643

       (D) The rules adopted under division (A)(11) of this section 86644
shall not include a profession if practice of the profession in a 86645
salon is a violation of a statute or rule governing the 86646
profession.86647

       (E) The sanitary standards established under division 86648
(A)(14)(15) of this section shall focus in particular on 86649
precautions to be employed to prevent infectious or contagious 86650
diseases being created or spread. The board shall consult with the 86651
Ohio department of health when establishing the sanitary 86652
standards.86653

       (F) The fee established by rules adopted under division 86654
(A)(15)(16) of this section shall cover the cost the board incurs 86655
in inspecting tanning facilities and enforcing the board's rules 86656
but may not exceed one hundred dollars per location of such 86657
facilities.86658

       Sec. 4713.44. (A) The state board of cosmetology shall issue 86659
a license to operate a school of cosmetology to an applicant who 86660
pays the applicable fee and satisfies all of the following 86661
requirements:86662

       (A)(1) Maintains a course of practical training and technical 86663
instruction for the branch or branches of cosmetology to be taught 86664
at the school equal to the requirements for admission to an 86665
examination under section 4713.24 of the Revised Code that a 86666
person must pass to obtain a license to practice that branch or 86667
those branches of cosmetology;86668

       (B)(2) Possesses or makes available apparatus and equipment 86669
sufficient for the ready and full teaching of all subjects of the 86670
curriculum;86671

       (C)(3) Maintains persons licensed under section 4713.31 or 86672
4713.34 of the Revised Code to teach the theory and practice of 86673
the branches of cosmetology;86674

       (D)(4) Notifies the board of the enrollment of each new 86675
student, keeps a record devoted to the different practices, 86676
establishes grades, and holds examinations in order to certify the 86677
students' completion of the prescribed course of study before the 86678
issuance of certificates of completion;86679

       (E)(5) In the case of a school of cosmetology that offers 86680
clock hours for the purpose of satisfying minimum hours of 86681
training and instruction, keeps a daily record of the attendance 86682
of each student;86683

       (F)(6) On the date that an apprentice cosmetology instructor 86684
begins cosmetology instructor training at the school, certifies 86685
the name of the apprentice cosmetology instructor to the board 86686
along with the date on which the apprentice's instructor training 86687
began;86688

       (G)(7) Instructs not more than six apprentice cosmetology 86689
instructors at any one time;86690

       (H)(8) Files with the board a good and sufficient surety bond 86691
executed by the person, firm, or corporation operating the school 86692
of cosmetology as principal and by a surety company as surety in 86693
the amount of ten thousand dollars; provided, that this 86694
requirement does not apply to a vocational program conducted by a 86695
city, exempted village, local, or joint vocational school 86696
district. The bond shall be in the form prescribed by the board 86697
and be conditioned upon the school's continued instruction in the 86698
theory and practice of the branches of cosmetology. Every bond 86699
shall continue in effect until notice of its termination is given 86700
to the board by registered mail and every bond shall so provide.86701

       (9) Establishes and maintains an internal procedure for 86702
processing complaints filed against the school and for providing 86703
students with instructions on how to file a complaint directly 86704
with the board pursuant to section 4713.641 of the Revised Code.86705

       (B) A school of cosmetology holding a license issued under 86706
division (A) of this section is an educational institution and is 86707
authorized to offer educational programs beyond secondary 86708
education, advanced practice programs, or both in accordance with 86709
rules adopted by the board pursuant to section 4713.08 of the 86710
Revised Code.86711

       (C) A school of cosmetology holding a license to operate a 86712
school of cosmetology on the effective date of this amendment 86713
shall establish and maintain an internal procedure for processing 86714
complaints filed against the school and shall provide each of the 86715
school's students with instructions on how to file a complaint 86716
directly with the board pursuant to section 4713.641 of the 86717
Revised Code.86718

       Sec. 4713.641.  Any student or former student of a school of 86719
cosmetology licensed under division (A) of section 4713.44 of the 86720
Revised Code may file a complaint with the state board of 86721
cosmetology alleging that the school has violated division (A) of 86722
section 4713.64 of the Revised Code. The complaint shall be in 86723
writing and signed by the person bringing the complaint. Upon 86724
receiving a complaint, the board shall initiate a preliminary 86725
investigation to determine whether it is probable that a violation 86726
was committed. If the board determines after preliminary 86727
investigation that it is not probable that a violation was 86728
committed, the board shall notify the person who filed the 86729
complaint of the board's findings and that the board will not 86730
issue a formal complaint in the matter. If the board determines 86731
after a preliminary investigation that it is probable that a 86732
violation was committed, the board shall proceed against the 86733
school pursuant to the board's authority under section 4713.64 of 86734
the Revised Code and in accordance with the hearing and notice 86735
requirements prescribed in Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.86736

       Sec. 4715.22.  (A)(1) This section applies only when a 86737
licensed dental hygienist is not practicing under a permit issued 86738
pursuant to section 4715.363 of the Revised Code authorizing 86739
practice under the oral health access supervision of a dentist.86740

       (2) As used in this section, "health care facility" means 86741
either of the following:86742

       (a) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 86743
Revised Code;86744

       (b) A "home" as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised 86745
Code.86746

       (B) A licensed dental hygienist shall practice under the 86747
supervision, order, control, and full responsibility of a dentist 86748
licensed under this chapter. A dental hygienist may practice in a 86749
dental office, public or private school, health care facility, 86750
dispensary, or public institution. Except as provided in division 86751
(C) or (D) of this section, a dental hygienist may not provide 86752
dental hygiene services to a patient when the supervising dentist 86753
is not physically present at the location where the dental 86754
hygienist is practicing. 86755

       (C) A dental hygienist may provide, for not more than fifteen 86756
consecutive business days, dental hygiene services to a patient 86757
when the supervising dentist is not physically present at the 86758
location at which the services are provided if all of the 86759
following requirements are met:86760

       (1) The dental hygienist has at least two years and a minimum 86761
of three thousand hours of experience in the practice of dental 86762
hygiene.86763

       (2) The dental hygienist has successfully completed a course 86764
approved by the state dental board in the identification and 86765
prevention of potential medical emergencies.86766

       (3) The dental hygienist complies with written protocols for 86767
emergencies the supervising dentist establishes.86768

       (4) The dental hygienist does not perform, while the 86769
supervising dentist is absent from the location, procedures while 86770
the patient is anesthetized, definitive root planing, definitive 86771
subgingival curettage, or other procedures identified in rules the 86772
state dental board adopts.86773

       (5) The supervising dentist has evaluated the dental 86774
hygienist's skills.86775

       (6) The supervising dentist examined the patient not more 86776
than seven months prior to the date the dental hygienist provides 86777
the dental hygiene services to the patient.86778

       (7) The dental hygienist complies with written protocols or 86779
written standing orders that the supervising dentist establishes.86780

       (8) The supervising dentist completed and evaluated a medical 86781
and dental history of the patient not more than one year prior to 86782
the date the dental hygienist provides dental hygiene services to 86783
the patient and, except when the dental hygiene services are 86784
provided in a health care facility, the supervising dentist 86785
determines that the patient is in a medically stable condition.86786

       (9) If the dental hygiene services are provided in a health 86787
care facility, a doctor of medicine and surgery or osteopathic 86788
medicine and surgery who holds a current certificate issued under 86789
Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code or a registered nurse licensed 86790
under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code is present in the health 86791
care facility when the services are provided.86792

       (10) In advance of the appointment for dental hygiene 86793
services, the patient is notified that the supervising dentist 86794
will be absent from the location and that the dental hygienist 86795
cannot diagnose the patient's dental health care status.86796

       (11) The dental hygienist is employed by, or under contract 86797
with, one of the following:86798

       (a) The supervising dentist;86799

       (b) A dentist licensed under this chapter who is one of the 86800
following:86801

       (i) The employer of the supervising dentist;86802

       (ii) A shareholder in a professional association formed under 86803
Chapter 1785. of the Revised Code of which the supervising dentist 86804
is a shareholder;86805

       (iii) A member or manager of a limited liability company 86806
formed under Chapter 1705. of the Revised Code of which the 86807
supervising dentist is a member or manager;86808

       (iv) A shareholder in a corporation formed under division (B) 86809
of section 1701.03 of the Revised Code of which the supervising 86810
dentist is a shareholder;86811

       (v) A partner or employee of a partnership or a limited 86812
liability partnership formed under Chapter 1775. or 1776. of the 86813
Revised Code of which the supervising dentist is a partner or 86814
employee. 86815

       (c) A government entity that employs the dental hygienist to 86816
provide dental hygiene services in a public school or in 86817
connection with other programs the government entity administers. 86818

       (D) A dental hygienist may provide dental hygiene services to 86819
a patient when the supervising dentist is not physically present 86820
at the location at which the services are provided if the services 86821
are provided as part of a dental hygiene program that is approved 86822
by the state dental board and all of the following requirements 86823
are met:86824

       (1) The program is operated through a school district board 86825
of education or the governing board of an educational service 86826
center; the board of health of a city or general health district 86827
or the authority having the duties of a board of health under 86828
section 3709.05 of the Revised Code; a national, state, district, 86829
or local dental association; or any other public or private entity 86830
recognized by the state dental board.86831

       (2) The supervising dentist is employed by or a volunteer 86832
for, and the patients are referred by, the entity through which 86833
the program is operated.86834

       (3) The(a) Except as provided in division (D)(3)(b) of this 86835
section, the services are performed after examination and 86836
diagnosis by the dentist and in accordance with the dentist's 86837
written treatment plan.86838

       (b) The requirement in division (D)(3)(a) of this section 86839
does not apply when the only service to be provided by the dental 86840
hygienist is the placement of pit and fissure sealants.86841

       (E) No person shall do either of the following:86842

       (1) Practice dental hygiene in a manner that is separate or 86843
otherwise independent from the dental practice of a supervising 86844
dentist;86845

       (2) Establish or maintain an office or practice that is 86846
primarily devoted to the provision of dental hygiene services. 86847

       (F) The state dental board shall adopt rules under division 86848
(C) of section 4715.03 of the Revised Code identifying procedures 86849
a dental hygienist may not perform when practicing in the absence 86850
of the supervising dentist pursuant to division (C) or (D) of this 86851
section.86852

       Sec. 4715.36. As used in this section and sections 4715.361 86853
to 4715.374 of the Revised Code:86854

       (A) "Accredited dental hygiene school" means a dental hygiene 86855
school accredited by the American dental association commission on 86856
dental accreditation or a dental hygiene school whose educational 86857
standards are recognized by the American dental association 86858
commission on dental accreditation and approved by the state 86859
dental board.86860

       (B) "Authorizing dentist" means a dentist who authorizes a 86861
dental hygienist to perform dental hygiene services under section 86862
4715.365 of the Revised Code.86863

       (C) "Clinical evaluation" means a diagnosis and treatment 86864
plan formulated for an individual patient by a dentist.86865

       (D) "Dentist" means an individual licensed under this chapter 86866
to practice dentistry.86867

       (E) "Dental hygienist" means an individual licensed under 86868
this chapter to practice as a dental hygienist.86869

       (F) "Dental hygiene services" means the prophylactic, 86870
preventive, and other procedures that dentists are authorized by 86871
this chapter and rules of the state dental board to assign to 86872
dental hygienists, except for procedures while a patient is 86873
anesthetized, definitive root planing, definitive subgingival 86874
curettage, the administration of local anesthesia, and the 86875
procedures specified in rules adopted by the board as described in 86876
division (C)(4) of section 4715.22 of the Revised Code.86877

       (G) "Facility" means any of the following:86878

       (1) A health care facility, as defined in section 4715.22 of 86879
the Revised Code;86880

       (2) A state correctional institution, as defined in section 86881
2967.01 of the Revised Code;86882

       (3) A comprehensive child development program that receives 86883
funds distributed under the "Head Start Act," 95 Stat. 499 (1981), 86884
42 U.S.C. 9831, as amended, and is licensed as a child day-care 86885
center;86886

       (4) A residential facility licensed under section 5123.19 of 86887
the Revised Code;86888

        (5) A public school, as defined in section 3701.93 of the 86889
Revised Code, located in an area designated as a dental health 86890
resource shortage area pursuant to section 3702.87 of the Revised 86891
Code;86892

        (6) A nonpublic school, as defined in section 3701.93 of the 86893
Revised Code, located in an area designated as a dental health 86894
resource shortage area pursuant to section 3702.87 of the Revised 86895
Code;86896

        (7) A federally qualified health center or federally 86897
qualified health center look-alike, as defined in section 3701.047 86898
of the Revised Code;86899

        (8) A shelter for victims of domestic violence, as defined in 86900
section 3113.33 of the Revised Code;86901

        (9) A facility operated by the department of youth services 86902
under Chapter 5139. of the Revised Code;86903

        (10) A shelter for runaways, as defined in section 5119.64 of 86904
the Revised Code;86905

       (11) A foster home, as defined in section 5103.02 of the 86906
Revised Code;86907

       (12)(11) A nonprofit clinic, as defined in section 3715.87 of 86908
the Revised Code;86909

       (13)(12) The residence of one or more individuals receiving 86910
services provided by a home health agency, as defined in section 86911
5101.61 of the Revised Code;86912

       (14)(13) A dispensary;86913

       (15)(14) A health care facility, such as a clinic or 86914
hospital, of the United States department of veterans affairs;86915

       (16)(15) The residence of one or more individuals enrolled in 86916
a home and community-based services medicaid waiver component, as 86917
defined in section 5111.8515166.01 of the Revised Code;86918

       (17)(16) A facility operated by the board of health of a city 86919
or general health district or the authority having the duties of a 86920
board of health under section 3709.05 of the Revised Code;86921

       (18)(17) A women, infants, and children clinic;86922

       (19)(18) A mobile dental unit located at any location listed 86923
in divisions (G)(1) to (18)(17) of this section;86924

       (20)(19) Any other location, as specified by the state dental 86925
board in rules adopted under section 4715.372 of the Revised Code, 86926
that is in an area designated as a dental health resource shortage 86927
area pursuant to section 3702.87 of the Revised Code and provides 86928
health care services to individuals who are medicaid recipients of 86929
medical assistance under the medicaid program established pursuant 86930
to Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code and to indigent and uninsured 86931
persons, as defined in section 2305.234 of the Revised Code.86932

       Sec. 4715.372. (A) The state dental board shall adopt rules 86933
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary 86934
to implement the oral health access supervision program, including 86935
rules that do all of the following:86936

       (1) For the purpose of division (G)(20)(19) of section 86937
4715.36 of the Revised Code, designate additional facilities at 86938
which a dental hygienist may be authorized to perform dental 86939
hygiene services under the oral health access supervision program;86940

       (2) For the purpose of section 4715.362 of the Revised Code, 86941
prescribe the application form and requirements for obtaining an 86942
oral health access supervision permit;86943

       (3) For the purpose of section 4715.363 of the Revised Code, 86944
prescribe the application form for a permit to practice as a 86945
dental hygienist under the oral health access supervision of a 86946
dentist;86947

       (4) For the purpose of division (B)(3) of section 4715.363 of 86948
the Revised Code and subject to division (B) of this section, 86949
establish standards for the course in the practice of dental 86950
hygiene under oral health access supervision;86951

       (5) For the purpose of section 4715.369 of the Revised Code, 86952
prescribe the form for renewal of an oral health access 86953
supervision permit;86954

       (6) For the purpose of section 4715.37 of the Revised Code, 86955
prescribe the form for renewal of a permit to practice as a dental 86956
hygienist under the oral health access supervision of a dentist.86957

       (B) The course in the practice of dental hygiene under oral 86958
health access supervision for which the board establishes 86959
standards under division (A)(4) of this section shall meet all of 86960
the following requirements:86961

       (1) Be eight hours in length;86962

       (2) Include, at a minimum, instruction in both of the 86963
following:86964

       (a) The treatment of geriatric patients, medically 86965
compromised patients, developmentally disabled patients, and 86966
pediatric patients;86967

       (b) Recordkeeping practices.86968

       (3) Be developed and offered by an institution accredited by 86969
the American dental association commission on dental accreditation 86970
or a program provided by a sponsor of continuing education 86971
approved by the board;86972

       (4) Include content that is separate and independent from the 86973
course content required for the completion of dental hygiene 86974
education from an accredited dental hygiene school.86975

       Sec. 4717.03.  (A) Members of the board of embalmers and 86976
funeral directors shall annually in July, or within thirty days 86977
after the senate's confirmation of the new members appointed in 86978
that year, meet and organize by selecting from among its members a 86979
president, vice-president, and secretary-treasurer. The board may 86980
hold other meetings as it determines necessary. A quorum of the 86981
board consists of four members, of whom at least three shall be 86982
members who are embalmers and funeral directors. The concurrence 86983
of at least four members is necessary for the board to take any 86984
action. The president and secretary-treasurer shall sign all 86985
licenses issued under this chapter and affix the board's seal to 86986
each license.86987

       (B) The board may appoint an individual who is not a member 86988
of the board to serve as executive director of the board. The 86989
board shall fix the compensation of the executive director. The 86990
executive director serves at the pleasure of the board and shall 86991
do all of the following:86992

       (1) Serve as the board's chief administrative officer;86993

       (2) Act as custodian of the board's records;86994

       (3) Execute all of the board's orders;86995

       (4) Employ staff who are not members of the board and who 86996
serve at the pleasure of the executive director to provide any 86997
assistance that the board considers necessary;86998

       (5) Fix the compensation of staff employed pursuant to 86999
division (B)(4) of this section.87000

       (C) In executing the board's orders as required by division 87001
(B)(3) of this section, the executive director may enter the 87002
premises, establishment, office, or place of business of any 87003
embalmer, funeral director, or operator of a crematory facility in 87004
this state. The executive director may serve and execute any 87005
process issued by any court under this chapter.87006

       (C) The board may employ clerical or technical staff who are 87007
not members of the board and who serve at the pleasure of the 87008
board to provide any clerical or technical assistance the board 87009
considers necessary.(D) The boardexecutive director may employ 87010
necessary inspectors, who shall be licensed embalmers and funeral 87011
directors. AnyAn inspector employed by the boardexecutive 87012
director may enter the premises, establishment, office, or place 87013
of business of any embalmer, funeral director, or operator of a 87014
crematory facility in this state, for the purposes of inspecting 87015
the facility and premises; the license and registration of 87016
embalmers and funeral directors operating in the facility; and the 87017
license of the funeral home, embalming facility, or crematory. The 87018
inspector shall serve and execute any process issued by any court 87019
under this chapter, serve and execute any papers or process issued 87020
by the board or any officer or member of the board,facility and 87021
perform any other duties delegated to the inspector by the board 87022
or assigned to the inspector by the executive director. The 87023
executive director may enter the facility or premises of a funeral 87024
home, embalming facility, or crematory for the purpose of an 87025
inspection if accompanied by an inspector or, if an inspector is 87026
not available, when a situation presents a danger of immediate and 87027
serious harm to the public.87028

       (D)(E) The president of the board shall designate three of 87029
itsthe board's members to serve on the crematory review board, 87030
which is hereby created, for such time as the president finds 87031
appropriate to carry out the provisions of this chapter. Those 87032
members of the crematory review board designated by the president 87033
to serve and three members designated by the cemetery dispute 87034
resolution commission shall designate, by a majority vote, one 87035
person who is experienced in the operation of a crematory facility 87036
and who is not affiliated with a cemetery or a funeral home to 87037
serve on the crematory review board for such time as the crematory 87038
review board finds appropriate. Members serving on the crematory 87039
review board shall not receive any additional compensation for 87040
serving on the board, but may be reimbursed for their actual and 87041
necessary expenses incurred in the performance of official duties 87042
as members of the board. Members of the crematory review board 87043
shall designate one from among its members to serve as a 87044
chairperson for such time as the board finds appropriate. Costs 87045
associated with conducting an adjudicatory hearing in accordance 87046
with division (E)(F) of this section shall be paid from funds 87047
available to the board of embalmers and funeral directors.87048

       (E)(F) Upon receiving written notice from the board of 87049
embalmers and funeral directors of any of the following, the 87050
crematory review board shall conduct an adjudicatory hearing on 87051
the matter in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 87052
except as otherwise provided in this section or division (C) of 87053
section 4717.14 of the Revised Code:87054

       (1) Notice provided under division (H)(I) of this section of 87055
an alleged violation of any provision of this chapter or any rules 87056
adopted under this chapter governing or in connection with 87057
crematory facilities or cremation;87058

       (2) Notice provided under division (B) of section 4717.14 of 87059
the Revised Code that the board of embalmers and funeral directors 87060
proposes to refuse to grant or renew, or to suspend or revoke, a 87061
license to operate a crematory facility;87062

       (3) Notice provided under division (C) of section 4717.14 of 87063
the Revised Code that the board of embalmers and funeral directors 87064
has issued an order summarily suspending a license to operate a 87065
crematory facility;87066

       (4) Notice provided under division (B) of section 4717.15 of 87067
the Revised Code that the board of embalmers and funeral directors 87068
proposes to issue a notice of violation and order requiring 87069
payment of a forfeiture for any violation described in divisions 87070
(A)(9)(a) to (g) of section 4717.04 of the Revised Code alleged in 87071
connection with a crematory facility or cremation.87072

       Nothing in division (E)(F) of this section precludes the 87073
crematory review board from appointing an independent examiner in 87074
accordance with section 119.09 of the Revised Code to conduct any 87075
adjudication hearing required under division (E)(F) of this 87076
section.87077

       The crematory review board shall submit a written report of 87078
findings and advisory recommendations, and a written transcript of 87079
its proceedings, to the board of embalmers and funeral directors. 87080
The board of embalmers and funeral directors shall serve a copy of 87081
the written report of the crematory review board's findings and 87082
advisory recommendations on the party to the adjudication or the 87083
party's attorney, by certified mail, within five days after 87084
receiving the report and advisory recommendations. A party may 87085
file objections to the written report with the board of embalmers 87086
and funeral directors within ten days after receiving the report. 87087
No written report is final or appealable until it is issued as a 87088
final order by the board of embalmers and funeral directors and 87089
entered on the record of the proceedings. The board of embalmers 87090
and funeral directors shall consider objections filed by the party 87091
prior to issuing a final order. After reviewing the findings and 87092
advisory recommendations of the crematory review board, the 87093
written transcript of the crematory review board's proceedings, 87094
and any objections filed by a party, the board of embalmers and 87095
funeral directors shall issue a final order in the matter. Any 87096
party may appeal the final order issued by the board of embalmers 87097
and funeral directors in a matter described in divisions (E)(F)(1) 87098
to (4) of this section in accordance with section 119.12 of the 87099
Revised Code, except that the appeal may be made to the court of 87100
common pleas in the county in which is located the crematory 87101
facility to which the final order pertains, or in the county in 87102
which the party resides.87103

       (F)(G) On its own initiative or on receiving a written 87104
complaint from any person whose identity is made known to the 87105
board of embalmers and funeral directors, the board shall 87106
investigate the acts or practices of any person holding or 87107
claiming to hold a license or registration under this chapter 87108
that, if proven to have occurred, would violate this chapter or 87109
any rules adopted under it. The board may compel witnesses by 87110
subpoena to appear and testify in relation to investigations 87111
conducted under this chapter and may require by subpoena duces 87112
tecum the production of any book, paper, or document pertaining to 87113
an investigation. If a person does not comply with a subpoena or 87114
subpoena duces tecum, the board may apply to the court of common 87115
pleas of any county in this state for an order compelling the 87116
person to comply with the subpoena or subpoena duces tecum, or for 87117
failure to do so, to be held in contempt of court.87118

       (G)(H) If, as a result of its investigation conducted under 87119
division (F)(G) of this section, the board of embalmers and 87120
funeral directors has reasonable cause to believe that the person 87121
investigated is violating any provision of this chapter or any 87122
rules adopted under this chapter governing or in connection with 87123
embalming, funeral directing, funeral homes, embalming facilities, 87124
or the operation of funeral homes or embalming facilities, it may, 87125
after providing the opportunity for an adjudicatory hearing, issue 87126
an order directing the person to cease the acts or practices that 87127
constitute the violation. The board shall conduct the adjudicatory 87128
hearing in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code except 87129
that, notwithstanding the provisions of that chapter, the 87130
following shall apply:87131

       (1) The board shall send the notice informing the person of 87132
the person's right to a hearing by certified mail.87133

       (2) The person is entitled to a hearing only if the person 87134
requests a hearing and if the board receives the request within 87135
thirty days after the mailing of the notice described in division 87136
(G)(H)(1) of this section.87137

       (3) A stenographic record shall be taken, in the manner 87138
prescribed in section 119.09 of the Revised Code, at every 87139
adjudicatory hearing held under this section, regardless of 87140
whether the record may be the basis of an appeal to a court.87141

       (H)(I) If, as a result of its investigation conducted under 87142
division (F)(G) of this section, the board of embalmers and 87143
funeral directors has reasonable cause to believe that the person 87144
investigated is violating any provision of this chapter or any 87145
rules adopted under this chapter governing or in connection with 87146
crematory facilities or cremation, the board shall send written 87147
notice of the alleged violation to the crematory review board. If, 87148
after the conclusion of the adjudicatory hearing in the matter 87149
conducted under division (E)(F) of this section, the board of 87150
embalmers and funeral directors finds that a person is in 87151
violation of any provision of this chapter or any rules adopted 87152
under this chapter governing or in connection with crematory 87153
facilities or cremation, the board may issue a final order under 87154
that division directing the person to cease the acts or practices 87155
that constitute the violation.87156

       (I)(J) The board of embalmers and funeral directors may bring 87157
a civil action to enjoin any violation or threatened violation of 87158
sections 4717.01 to 4717.15 of the Revised Code or a rule adopted 87159
under any of those sections; division (A) or (B) of section 87160
4717.23; division (B)(1) or (2), (C)(1) or (2), (D), (E), or 87161
(F)(1) or (2), or divisions (H) to (K) of section 4717.26; 87162
division (D)(1) of section 4717.27; divisions (A) to (C) of 87163
section 4717.28, or division (D) or (E) of section 4717.31 of the 87164
Revised Code. The action shall be brought in the county where the 87165
violation occurred or the threatened violation is expected to 87166
occur. At the request of the board, the attorney general shall 87167
represent the board in any matter arising under this chapter.87168

       (J)(K) The board of embalmers and funeral directors and the 87169
crematory review board may issue subpoenas for funeral directors 87170
and embalmers or persons holding themselves out as such, for 87171
operators of crematory facilities or persons holding themselves 87172
out as such, or for any other person whose testimony, in the 87173
opinion of either board, is necessary. The subpoena shall require 87174
the person to appear before the appropriate board or any 87175
designated member of either board, upon any hearing conducted 87176
under this chapter. The penalty for disobedience to the command of 87177
such a subpoena is the same as for refusal to answer such a 87178
process issued under authority of the court of common pleas.87179

       (K)(L) All moneys received by the board of embalmers and 87180
funeral directors from any source shall be deposited in the state 87181
treasury to the credit of the occupational licensing and 87182
regulatory fund created in section 4743.05 of the Revised Code.87183

       (L)(M) The board of embalmers and funeral directors shall 87184
submit a written report to the governor on or before the first 87185
Monday of July of each year. This report shall contain a detailed 87186
statement of the nature and amount of the board's receipts and the 87187
amount and manner of its expenditures.87188

       Sec. 4717.06.  (A)(1) Any person who desires to obtain a 87189
license to operate a funeral home, embalming facility, or 87190
crematory facility shall apply to the board of embalmers and 87191
funeral directors on a form provided by the board. The application 87192
shall include the initial license fee set forth in section 4717.07 87193
of the Revised Code and proof satisfactory to the board that the 87194
funeral home, embalming facility, or crematory facility is in 87195
compliance with rules adopted by the board under section 4717.04 87196
of the Revised Code, rules adopted by the board of building 87197
standards under Chapter 3781. of the Revised Code, and all other 87198
federal, state, and local requirements relating to the safety of 87199
the premises.87200

       (2) If the funeral home, embalming facility, or crematory 87201
facility to which the license application pertains is owned by a 87202
corporation or limited liability company, the application shall 87203
include the name and address of the corporation's or limited 87204
liability company's statutory agent appointed under section 87205
1701.07 or 1705.06 of the Revised Code or, in the case of a 87206
foreign corporation, the corporation's designated agent appointed 87207
under section 1703.041 of the Revised Code. If the funeral home, 87208
embalming facility, or crematory facility to which the application 87209
pertains is owned by a partnership, the application shall include 87210
the name and address of each of the partners. If, at any time 87211
after the submission of a license application or issuance of a 87212
license, the statutory or designated agent of a corporation or 87213
limited liability company owning a funeral home, embalming 87214
facility, or crematory facility or the address of the statutory or 87215
designated agent changes or, in the case of a partnership, any of 87216
the partners of the funeral home, embalming facility, or crematory 87217
facility or the address of any of the partners changes, the 87218
applicant for or holder of the license to operate the funeral 87219
home, embalming facility, or crematory facility shall submit 87220
written notice to the board, within thirty days after the change, 87221
informing the board of the change and of any name or address of a 87222
statutory or designated agent or partner that has changed from 87223
that contained in the application for the license or the most 87224
recent notice submitted under division (A)(2) of this section.87225

       (B)(1) The board shall issue a license to operate a funeral 87226
home only for the address at which the funeral home is operated. 87227
The funeral home license and licenses of the embalmers and funeral 87228
directors employed by the funeral home shall be displayed in a 87229
conspicuous place within the funeral home.87230

       (2) The funeral home shall have on the premises one of the 87231
following:87232

       (a) If embalming will take place at the funeral home, an 87233
embalming room that is adequately equipped and maintained. The 87234
embalming room shall be kept in a clean and sanitary manner and 87235
used only for the embalming, preparation, or holding of dead human 87236
bodies. The embalming room shall contain only the articles, 87237
facilities, and instruments necessary for those purposes.87238

       (b) If embalming will not take place at the funeral home, a 87239
holding room that is adequately equipped and maintained. The 87240
holding room shall be kept in a clean and sanitary manner and used 87241
only for the preparation, other than embalming, and holding of 87242
dead human bodies. The holding room shall contain only the 87243
articles and facilities necessary for those purposes.87244

       (3) Except as provided in division (B) of section 4717.11 of 87245
the Revised Code, a funeral home shall be established and operated 87246
only under the name of a holder of a funeral director's license 87247
issued by the board who is actually in charge of and ultimately 87248
responsible for the funeral home, and a funeral home license shall 87249
not include directional or geographical references in the name of 87250
the funeral home. The holder of the funeral home license shall be 87251
a funeral director licensed under this chapter who is actually in 87252
charge of and ultimately responsible for the funeral home. Nothing 87253
in division (B)(3) of this section prohibits the holder of a 87254
funeral home license from including directional or geographical 87255
references in promotional or advertising materials identifying the 87256
location of the funeral home.87257

       (4) Each funeral home shall be directly supervised by a 87258
funeral director licensed under this chapter, who shallmay87259
supervise onlymore than one funeral home.87260

       (C)(1) The board shall issue a license to operate an 87261
embalming facility only for the address at which the embalming 87262
facility is operated. The license shall be displayed in a 87263
conspicuous place within the facility.87264

       (2) The embalming facility shall be adequately equipped and 87265
maintained in a sanitary manner. The embalming room at such a 87266
facility shall contain only the articles, facilities, and 87267
instruments necessary for its stated purpose. The embalming room 87268
shall be kept in a clean and sanitary condition and used only for 87269
the care and preparation of dead human bodies.87270

       (3) An embalming facility license shall be issued only to an 87271
embalmer licensed under division (B) of section 4717.05 of the 87272
Revised Code, who is actually in charge of the facility.87273

       (D)(1) The board shall issue a license to operate a crematory 87274
facility only for the address at which the crematory facility is 87275
located and operated. The license shall be displayed in a 87276
conspicuous place within the crematory facility.87277

       (2) The crematory facility shall be adequately equipped and 87278
maintained in a clean and sanitary manner. The crematory facility 87279
may be located in a funeral home, embalming facility, cemetery 87280
building, or other building in which the crematory facility may 87281
lawfully operate. If a crematory facility engages in the cremation 87282
of animals, the crematory facility shall cremate animals in a 87283
cremation chamber that also is not used to cremate dead human 87284
bodies or human body parts and shall not cremate animals in a 87285
cremation chamber used for the cremation of dead human bodies and 87286
human body parts. Cremation chambers that are used for the 87287
cremation of dead human bodies or human body parts and cremation 87288
chambers used for the cremation of animals may be located in the 87289
same area. 87290

       (3) A license to operate a crematory facility shall be issued 87291
to the person actually in charge of the crematory facility. This 87292
section does not require the individual who is actually in charge 87293
of the crematory facility to be an embalmer or funeral director 87294
licensed under this chapter.87295

       (4) Nothing in this section or rules adopted under section 87296
4717.04 of the Revised Code precludes the establishment and 87297
operation of a crematory facility on or adjacent to the property 87298
on which a cemetery, funeral home, or embalming facility is 87299
located.87300

       Sec. 4717.07.  (A) The board of embalmers and funeral 87301
directors shall charge and collect the following fees:87302

       (1) For the initial issuance or biennial renewal of an 87303
embalmer's or funeral director's license, one hundred fortyfifty87304
dollars;87305

       (2) For the issuance of an embalmer or funeral director 87306
registration, twenty-five dollars;87307

       (3) For filing an embalmer or funeral director certificate of 87308
apprenticeship, ten dollars;87309

       (4) For the application to take the examination for a license 87310
to practice as an embalmer or funeral director, or to retake a 87311
section of the examination, thirty-five dollars;87312

       (5) For the initial issuance of a license to operate a 87313
funeral home, twothree hundred fifty dollars and biennial renewal 87314
of a license to operate a funeral home, twothree hundred fifty 87315
dollars;87316

       (6) For the reinstatement of a lapsed embalmer's or funeral 87317
director's license, the renewal fee prescribed in division (A)(1) 87318
of this section plus fifty dollars for each month or portion of a 87319
month the license is lapsed until reinstatement, but not more than 87320
one thousand dollars;87321

       (7) For the reinstatement of a lapsed license to operate a 87322
funeral home, the renewal fee prescribed in division (A)(5) of 87323
this section plus fifty dollars for each month or portion of a 87324
month the license is lapsed until reinstatement;87325

       (8) For the initial issuance of a license to operate an 87326
embalming facility, twothree hundred fifty dollars and biennial 87327
renewal of a license to operate an embalming facility, twothree87328
hundred fifty dollars;87329

       (9) For the reinstatement of a lapsed license to operate an 87330
embalming facility, the renewal fee prescribed in division (A)(8) 87331
of this section plus fifty dollars for each month or portion of a 87332
month the license is lapsed until reinstatement;87333

       (10) For the initial issuance of a license to operate a 87334
crematory facility, twothree hundred fifty dollars and biennial 87335
renewal of a license to operate a crematory facility, twothree87336
hundred fifty dollars;87337

       (11) For the reinstatement of a lapsed license to operate a 87338
crematory facility, the renewal fee prescribed in division (A)(10) 87339
of this section plus fifty dollars for each month or portion of a 87340
month the license is lapsed until reinstatement;87341

       (12) For the issuance of a duplicate of a license issued 87342
under this chapter, fourten dollars.87343

       (B) In addition to the fees set forth in division (A) of this 87344
section, an applicant shall pay the examination fee assessed by 87345
any examining agency the board uses for any section of an 87346
examination required under this chapter.87347

       (C) Subject to the approval of the controlling board, the 87348
board of embalmers and funeral directors may establish fees in 87349
excess of the amounts set forth in this section, provided that 87350
these fees do not exceed the amounts set forth in this section by 87351
more than fifty per cent.87352

       Sec. 4717.10.  (A) The board of embalmers and funeral 87353
directors may recognize licenses issued to embalmers and funeral 87354
directors by other states, and upon presentation of such licenses, 87355
may issue to the holder an embalmer's or funeral director's 87356
license under this chapter. The board shall charge the same fee as 87357
prescribed in section 4717.07 of the Revised Code to issue or 87358
renew such an embalmer's or funeral director's license. Such 87359
licenses shall be renewed annuallybiennially as provided in 87360
section 4717.08 of the Revised Code. The board shall not issue a 87361
license to any person under this section unless the applicant 87362
proves that the applicant, in the state in which the applicant is 87363
licensed, has complied with requirements substantially equal to 87364
those established in section 4717.05 of the Revised Code.87365

       (B) The board of embalmers and funeral directors may issue 87366
courtesy cards. A courtesy cardholder shall be authorized to 87367
undertake both the following acts in this state:87368

       (1) Prepare and complete those sections of a death 87369
certificate and other permits needed for disposition of deceased 87370
human remains in this state and sign and file such death 87371
certificates and permits;87372

       (2) Supervise and conduct funeral ceremonies and interments 87373
in this state.87374

       (C) The board of embalmers and funeral directors may 87375
determine under what conditions a courtesy card may be issued to 87376
funeral directors in bordering states after taking into account 87377
whether and under what conditions and fees such border states 87378
issue similar courtesy cards to funeral directors licensed in this 87379
state. Applicants for courtesy cards shall apply on forms 87380
prescribed by the board, pay an annuala biennial fee set by the 87381
board for initial applications and renewals, and adhere to such 87382
other requirements imposed by the board on courtesy cardholders.87383

       (D) No courtesy cardholder shall be authorized to undertake 87384
any of the following activities in this state:87385

       (1) Arranging funerals or disposition services with members 87386
of the public in this state;87387

       (2) Be employed by or under contract to a funeral home 87388
licensed in this state to perform funeral services in this state;87389

       (3) Advertise funeral or disposition services in this state;87390

       (4) Enter into or execute funeral or disposition contracts in 87391
this state;87392

       (5) Prepare or embalm deceased human remains in this state;87393

       (6) Arrange for or carry out the disinterment of human 87394
remains in this state.87395

       (E) As used in this section, "courtesy card" means a special 87396
permit that may be issued to a funeral director licensed in a 87397
state that borders this state and who does not hold a funeral 87398
director's license under this chapter.87399

       Sec. 4717.14.  (A) The board of embalmers and funeral 87400
directors may refuse to grant or renew, or may suspend or revoke, 87401
any license issued under this chapter or may require the holder of 87402
a license to take corrective action courses for any of the 87403
following reasons:87404

       (1) The license was obtained by fraud or misrepresentation 87405
either in the application or in passing the examination.87406

       (2) The applicant or licensee has been convicted of or has 87407
pleaded guilty to a felony or of any crime involving moral 87408
turpitude.87409

       (3) The applicant or licensee has purposely violated any 87410
provision of sections 4717.01 to 4717.15 or a rule adopted under 87411
any of those sections; division (A) or (B) of section 4717.23; 87412
division (B)(1) or (2), (C)(1) or (2), (D), (E), or (F)(1) or (2), 87413
or divisions (H) to (K) of section 4717.26; division (D)(1) of 87414
section 4717.27; or divisions (A) to (C) of section 4717.28 of the 87415
Revised Code; any rule or order of the department of health or a 87416
board of health of a health district governing the disposition of 87417
dead human bodies; or any other rule or order applicable to the 87418
applicant or licensee.87419

       (4) The applicant or licensee has committed immoral or 87420
unprofessional conduct.87421

       (5) The applicant or licensee knowingly permitted an 87422
unlicensed person, other than a person serving an apprenticeship, 87423
to engage in the profession or business of embalming or funeral 87424
directing under the applicant's or licensee's supervision.87425

       (6) The applicant or licensee has been habitually 87426
intoxicated, or is addicted to the use of morphine, cocaine, or 87427
other habit-forming or illegal drugs.87428

       (7) The applicant or licensee has refused to promptly submit 87429
the custody of a dead human body upon the express order of the 87430
person legally entitled to the body.87431

       (8) The licensee loaned the licensee's own license, or the 87432
applicant or licensee borrowed or used the license of another 87433
person, or knowingly aided or abetted the granting of an improper 87434
license.87435

       (9) The applicant or licensee transferred a license to 87436
operate a funeral home, embalming facility, or crematory from one 87437
owner or operator to another, or from one location to another, 87438
without notifying the board.87439

       (10) The applicant or licensee misled the public by using 87440
false or deceptive advertising.87441

       (B)(1) The board of embalmers and funeral directors shall 87442
refuse to grant or renew, or shall suspend or revoke, an 87443
embalmer's, funeral director's, funeral home, or embalming 87444
facility license only in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 87445
Revised Code.87446

       (2) The board shall send to the crematory review board 87447
written notice that it proposes to refuse to issue or renew, or 87448
proposes to suspend or revoke, a license to operate a crematory 87449
facility. If, after the conclusion of the adjudicatory hearing on 87450
the matter conducted under division (E)(F) of section 4717.03 of 87451
the Revised Code, the board of embalmers and funeral directors 87452
finds that any of the circumstances described in divisions (A)(1) 87453
to (10) of this section apply to the person named in its proposed 87454
action, the board may issue a final order under division (E)(F) of 87455
section 4717.03 of the Revised Code refusing to issue or renew, or 87456
suspending or revoking, the person's license to operate a 87457
crematory facility.87458

       (C) If the board of embalmers and funeral directors 87459
determines that there is clear and convincing evidence that any of 87460
the circumstances described in divisions (A)(1) to (10) of this 87461
section apply to the holder of a license issued under this chapter 87462
and that the licensee's continued practice presents a danger of 87463
immediate and serious harm to the public, the board may suspend 87464
the licensee's license without a prior adjudicatory hearing. The 87465
executive director of the board shall prepare written allegations 87466
for consideration by the board.87467

       The board, after reviewing the written allegations, may 87468
suspend a license without a prior hearing.87469

       The board shall issue a written order of suspension by a 87470
delivery system or in person in accordance with section 119.07 of 87471
the Revised Code. Such an order is not subject to suspension by 87472
the court during the pendency of any appeal filed under section 87473
119.12 of the Revised Code. If the holder of an embalmer's, 87474
funeral director's, funeral home, or embalming facility license 87475
requests an adjudicatory hearing by the board, the date set for 87476
the hearing shall be within fifteen days, but not earlier than 87477
seven days, after the licensee has requested a hearing, unless the 87478
board and the licensee agree to a different time for holding the 87479
hearing.87480

       Upon issuing a written order of suspension to the holder of a 87481
license to operate a crematory facility, the board of embalmers 87482
and funeral directors shall send written notice of the issuance of 87483
the order to the crematory review board. The crematory review 87484
board shall hold an adjudicatory hearing on the order under 87485
division (E)(F) of section 4717.03 of the Revised Code within 87486
fifteen days, but not earlier than seven days, after the issuance 87487
of the order, unless the crematory review board and the licensee 87488
agree to a different time for holding the adjudicatory hearing.87489

       Any summary suspension imposed under this division shall 87490
remain in effect, unless reversed on appeal, until a final 87491
adjudicatory order issued by the board of embalmers and funeral 87492
directors pursuant to this division and Chapter 119. of the 87493
Revised Code, or division (E)(F) of section 4717.03 of the Revised 87494
Code, as applicable, becomes effective. The board of embalmers and 87495
funeral directors shall issue its final adjudicatory order within 87496
sixty days after the completion of its hearing or, in the case of 87497
the summary suspension of a license to operate a crematory 87498
facility, within sixty days after completion of the adjudicatory 87499
hearing by the crematory review board. A failure to issue the 87500
order within that time results in the dissolution of the summary 87501
suspension order, but does not invalidate any subsequent final 87502
adjudicatory order.87503

       (D) If the board of embalmers and funeral directors suspends 87504
or revokes a license held by a funeral director or a funeral home 87505
for any reason identified in division (A) of this section, the 87506
board may file a complaint with the court of common pleas in the 87507
county where the violation occurred requesting appointment of a 87508
receiver and the sequestration of the assets of the funeral home 87509
that held the suspended or revoked license or the licensed funeral 87510
home that employs the funeral director that held the suspended or 87511
revoked license. If the court of common pleas is satisfied with 87512
the application for a receivership, the court may appoint a 87513
receiver.87514

       The board or a receiver may employ and procure whatever 87515
assistance or advice is necessary in the receivership or 87516
liquidation and distribution of the assets of the funeral home, 87517
and, for that purpose, may retain officers or employees of the 87518
funeral home as needed. All expenses of the receivership or 87519
liquidation shall be paid from the assets of the funeral home and 87520
shall be a lien on those assets, and that lien shall be a priority 87521
to any other lien.87522

       (E) Any holder of a license issued under this chapter who has 87523
pleaded guilty to, has been found by a judge or jury to be guilty 87524
of, or has had a judicial finding of eligibility for treatment in 87525
lieu of conviction entered against the individual in this state 87526
for aggravated murder, murder, voluntary manslaughter, felonious 87527
assault, kidnapping, rape, sexual battery, gross sexual 87528
imposition, aggravated arson, aggravated robbery, or aggravated 87529
burglary, or who has pleaded guilty to, has been found by a judge 87530
or jury to be guilty of, or has had a judicial finding of 87531
eligibility for treatment in lieu of conviction entered against 87532
the individual in another jurisdiction for any substantially 87533
equivalent criminal offense, is hereby suspended from practice 87534
under this chapter by operation of law, and any license issued to 87535
the individual under this chapter is hereby suspended by operation 87536
of law as of the date of the guilty plea, verdict or finding of 87537
guilt, or judicial finding of eligibility for treatment in lieu of 87538
conviction, regardless of whether the proceedings are brought in 87539
this state or another jurisdiction. The board shall notify the 87540
suspended individual of the suspension of the individual's license 87541
by the operation of this division by a delivery system or in 87542
person in accordance with section 119.07 of the Revised Code. If 87543
an individual whose license is suspended under this division fails 87544
to make a timely request for an adjudicatory hearing, the board 87545
shall enter a final order revoking the license.87546

       (F) No person whose license has been suspended or revoked 87547
under or by the operation of this section shall practice embalming 87548
or funeral directing or operate a funeral home, embalming 87549
facility, or crematory facility until the board has reinstated the 87550
person's license.87551

       Sec. 4717.15.  (A) The board of embalmers and funeral 87552
directors, without the necessity for conducting a prior 87553
adjudication hearing, may issue a notice of violation to the 87554
holder of an embalmer's, funeral director's, funeral home, or 87555
embalming facility license issued under this chapter who the board 87556
finds has committed any of the violations described in divisions 87557
(A)(9)(a) to (g) of section 4717.04 of the Revised Code. The 87558
notice shall set forth the specific violation committed by the 87559
licensee and shall be sent by certified mail. The notice shall be 87560
accompanied by an order requiring the payment of the appropriate 87561
forfeiture prescribed in rules adopted under division (A)(9) of 87562
section 4717.04 of the Revised Code and by a notice informing the 87563
licensee that the licensee is entitled to an adjudicatory hearing 87564
on the notice of violation and order if the licensee requests a 87565
hearing and if the board receives the request within thirty days 87566
after the mailing of the notice of violation and order. The board 87567
shall conduct any such adjudicatory hearing in accordance with 87568
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, except as otherwise provided in 87569
this division.87570

       A licensee who receives a notice of violation and order under 87571
this division shall pay to the executive director of the board the 87572
full amount of the forfeiture by certified check within thirty 87573
days after the notice of violation and order were mailed to the 87574
licensee unless, within that time, the licensee submits a request 87575
for an adjudicatory hearing on the notice of violation and order. 87576
If such a request for an adjudicatory hearing is timely filed, the 87577
licensee need not pay the forfeiture to the executive director 87578
until after a final, nonappealable administrative or judicial 87579
decision is rendered on the order requiring payment of the 87580
forfeiture. If a final nonappealable administrative or judicial 87581
decision is rendered affirming the board's order, the licensee 87582
shall pay to the executive director of the board the full amount 87583
of the forfeiture by certified check within thirty days after 87584
notice of the decision was sent to the licensee. A forfeiture is 87585
considered to be paid when the licensee's certified check is 87586
received by the executive director in Columbus. If the licensee 87587
fails to so pay the full amount of the forfeiture to the executive 87588
director within that time, the board shall issue an order 87589
suspending or revoking the individual's license, as the board 87590
considers appropriate.87591

       (B) The board shall send to the crematory review board 87592
written notice that it proposes to issue to the holder of a 87593
license to operate a crematory facility issued under this chapter 87594
a notice of violation and order requiring payment of a forfeiture 87595
specified in rules adopted under division (A)(9) of section 87596
4717.04 of the Revised Code. If, after the conclusion of the 87597
adjudicatory hearing on the matter conducted under division (E)(F)87598
of section 4717.03 of the Revised Code, the board of embalmers and 87599
funeral directors finds that the licensee has committed any of the 87600
violations described in divisions (A)(9)(a) to (g) of section 87601
4717.04 of the Revised Code in connection with the operation of a 87602
crematory facility or cremation, the board of embalmers and 87603
funeral directors may issue a final order under division (E)(F) of 87604
section 4717.03 of the Revised Code requiring payment of the 87605
appropriate forfeiture specified in rules adopted under division 87606
(A)(9) of section 4717.04 of the Revised Code. A licensee who 87607
receives such an order shall pay the full amount of the forfeiture 87608
to the executive director by certified check within thirty days 87609
after the order was sent to the licensee unless, within that time, 87610
the licensee files a notice of appeal in accordance with division87611
(E)(F) of section 4717.03 and section 119.12 of the Revised Code. 87612
If such a notice of appeal is timely filed, the licensee need not 87613
pay the forfeiture to the executive director until after a final, 87614
nonappealable judicial decision is rendered in the appeal. If a 87615
final, nonappealable judicial decision is rendered affirming the 87616
board's order, the licensee shall pay to the executive director 87617
the full amount of the forfeiture by certified check within thirty 87618
days after notice of the decision was sent to the licensee. A 87619
forfeiture is considered paid when the licensee's certified check 87620
is received by the executive director in Columbus. If the licensee 87621
fails to so pay the full amount of the forfeiture to the executive 87622
director within that time, the board shall issue an order 87623
suspending or revoking the individual's license, as the board 87624
considers appropriate.87625

       Sec. 4719.01.  (A) As used in sections 4719.01 to 4719.18 of 87626
the Revised Code:87627

       (1) "Affiliate" means a business entity that is owned by, 87628
operated by, controlled by, or under common control with another 87629
business entity.87630

       (2) "Communication" means a written or oral notification or 87631
advertisement that meets both of the following criteria, as 87632
applicable:87633

       (a) The notification or advertisement is transmitted by or on 87634
behalf of the seller of goods or services and by or through any 87635
printed, audio, video, cinematic, telephonic, or electronic means.87636

       (b) In the case of a notification or advertisement other than 87637
by telephone, either of the following conditions is met:87638

       (i) The notification or advertisement is followed by a 87639
telephone call from a telephone solicitor or salesperson.87640

       (ii) The notification or advertisement invites a response by 87641
telephone, and, during the course of that response, a telephone 87642
solicitor or salesperson attempts to make or makes a sale of goods 87643
or services. As used in division (A)(2)(b)(ii) of this section, 87644
"invites a response by telephone" excludes the mere listing or 87645
inclusion of a telephone number in a notification or 87646
advertisement.87647

       (3) "Gift, award, or prize" means anything of value that is 87648
offered or purportedly offered, or given or purportedly given by 87649
chance, at no cost to the receiver and with no obligation to 87650
purchase goods or services. As used in this division, "chance" 87651
includes a situation in which a person is guaranteed to receive an 87652
item and, at the time of the offer or purported offer, the 87653
telephone solicitor does not identify the specific item that the 87654
person will receive.87655

       (4) "Goods or services" means any real property or any 87656
tangible or intangible personal property, or services of any kind 87657
provided or offered to a person. "Goods or services" includes, but 87658
is not limited to, advertising; labor performed for the benefit of 87659
a person; personal property intended to be attached to or 87660
installed in any real property, regardless of whether it is so 87661
attached or installed; timeshare estates or licenses; and extended 87662
service contracts.87663

       (5) "Purchaser" means a person that is solicited to become or 87664
does become financially obligated as a result of a telephone 87665
solicitation.87666

       (6) "Salesperson" means an individual who is employed, 87667
appointed, or authorized by a telephone solicitor to make 87668
telephone solicitations but does not mean any of the following:87669

       (a) An individual who comes within one of the exemptions in 87670
division (B) of this section;87671

       (b) An individual employed, appointed, or authorized by a 87672
person who comes within one of the exemptions in division (B) of 87673
this section;87674

       (c) An individual under a written contract with a person who 87675
comes within one of the exemptions in division (B) of this 87676
section, if liability for all transactions with purchasers is 87677
assumed by the person so exempted.87678

       (7) "Telephone solicitation" means a communication to a 87679
person that meets both of the following criteria:87680

       (a) The communication is initiated by or on behalf of a 87681
telephone solicitor or by a salesperson.87682

       (b) The communication either represents a price or the 87683
quality or availability of goods or services or is used to induce 87684
the person to purchase goods or services, including, but not 87685
limited to, inducement through the offering of a gift, award, or 87686
prize.87687

       (8) "Telephone solicitor" means a person that engages in 87688
telephone solicitation directly or through one or more 87689
salespersons either from a location in this state, or from a 87690
location outside this state to persons in this state. "Telephone 87691
solicitor" includes, but is not limited to, any such person that 87692
is an owner, operator, officer, or director of, partner in, or 87693
other individual engaged in the management activities of, a 87694
business.87695

       (B) A telephone solicitor is exempt from the provisions of 87696
sections 4719.02 to 4719.18 and section 4719.99 of the Revised 87697
Code if the telephone solicitor is any one of the following:87698

       (1) A person engaging in a telephone solicitation that is a 87699
one-time or infrequent transaction not done in the course of a 87700
pattern of repeated transactions of a like nature;87701

       (2) A person engaged in telephone solicitation solely for 87702
religious or political purposes; a charitable organization, 87703
fund-raising counsel, or professional solicitor in compliance with 87704
the registration and reporting requirements of Chapter 1716. of 87705
the Revised Code; or any person or other entity exempt under 87706
section 1716.03 of the Revised Code from filing a registration 87707
statement under section 1716.02 of the Revised Code;87708

       (3) A person, making a telephone solicitation involving a 87709
home solicitation sale as defined in section 1345.21 of the 87710
Revised Code, that makes the sales presentation and completes the 87711
sale at a later, face-to-face meeting between the seller and the 87712
purchaser rather than during the telephone solicitation. However, 87713
if the person, following the telephone solicitation, causes 87714
another person to collect the payment of any money, this exemption 87715
does not apply.87716

       (4) A licensed securities, commodities, or investment broker, 87717
dealer, investment advisor, or associated person when making a 87718
telephone solicitation within the scope of the person's license. 87719
As used in division (B)(4) of this section, "licensed securities, 87720
commodities, or investment broker, dealer, investment advisor, or 87721
associated person" means a person subject to licensure or 87722
registration as such by the securities and exchange commission; 87723
the National Association of Securities Dealers or other 87724
self-regulatory organization, as defined by 15 U.S.C.A. 78c; by 87725
the division of securities under Chapter 1707. of the Revised 87726
Code; or by an official or agency of any other state of the United 87727
States.87728

       (5)(a) A person primarily engaged in soliciting the sale of a 87729
newspaper of general circulation;87730

       (b) As used in division (B)(5)(a) of this section, "newspaper 87731
of general circulation" includes, but is not limited to, both of 87732
the following:87733

       (i) A newspaper that is a daily law journal designated as an 87734
official publisher of court calendars pursuant to section 2701.09 87735
of the Revised Code;87736

       (ii) A newspaper or publication that has at least twenty-five 87737
per cent editorial, non-advertising content, exclusive of inserts, 87738
measured relative to total publication space, and an audited 87739
circulation to at least fifty per cent of the households in the 87740
newspaper's retail trade zone as defined by the audit.87741

       (6)(a) An issuer, or its subsidiary, that has a class of 87742
securities to which all of the following apply:87743

       (i) The class of securities is subject to section 12 of the 87744
"Securities Exchange Act of 1934," 15 U.S.C.A. 78l, and is 87745
registered or is exempt from registration under 15 U.S.C.A. 87746
78l(g)(2)(A), (B), (C), (E), (F), (G), or (H);87747

       (ii) The class of securities is listed on the New York stock 87748
exchange, the American stock exchange, or the NASDAQ national 87749
market system;87750

       (iii) The class of securities is a reported security as 87751
defined in 17 C.F.R. 240.11Aa3-1(a)(4).87752

       (b) An issuer, or its subsidiary, that formerly had a class 87753
of securities that met the criteria set forth in division 87754
(B)(6)(a) of this section if the issuer, or its subsidiary, has a 87755
net worth in excess of one hundred million dollars, files or its 87756
parent files with the securities and exchange commission an S.E.C. 87757
form 10-K, and has continued in substantially the same business 87758
since it had a class of securities that met the criteria in 87759
division (B)(6)(a) of this section. As used in division (B)(6)(b) 87760
of this section, "issuer" and "subsidiary" include the successor 87761
to an issuer or subsidiary.87762

       (7) A person soliciting a transaction regulated by the 87763
commodity futures trading commission, if the person is registered 87764
or temporarily registered for that activity with the commission 87765
under 7 U.S.C.A. 1 et. seq. and the registration or temporary 87766
registration has not expired or been suspended or revoked;87767

       (8) A person soliciting the sale of any book, record, audio 87768
tape, compact disc, or video, if the person allows the purchaser 87769
to review the merchandise for at least seven days and provides a 87770
full refund within thirty days to a purchaser who returns the 87771
merchandise or if the person solicits the sale on behalf of a 87772
membership club operating in compliance with regulations adopted 87773
by the federal trade commission in 16 C.F.R. 425;87774

       (9) A supervised financial institution or its subsidiary. As 87775
used in division (B)(9) of this section, "supervised financial 87776
institution" means a bank, trust company, savings and loan 87777
association, savings bank, credit union, industrial loan company, 87778
consumer finance lender, commercial finance lender, or institution 87779
described in section 2(c)(2)(F) of the "Bank Holding Company Act 87780
of 1956," 12 U.S.C.A. 1841(c)(2)(F), as amended, supervised by an 87781
official or agency of the United States, this state, or any other 87782
state of the United States; or a licensee or registrant under 87783
sections 1321.01 to 1321.19, 1321.51 to 1321.60, or 1321.71 to 87784
1321.83 of the Revised Code.87785

       (10)(a) An insurance company, association, or other 87786
organization that is licensed or authorized to conduct business in 87787
this state by the superintendent of insurance pursuant to Title 87788
XXXIX of the Revised Code or Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code, 87789
when soliciting within the scope of its license or authorization.87790

       (b) A licensed insurance broker, agent, or solicitor when 87791
soliciting within the scope of the person's license. As used in 87792
division (B)(10)(b) of this section, "licensed insurance broker, 87793
agent, or solicitor" means any person licensed as an insurance 87794
broker, agent, or solicitor by the superintendent of insurance 87795
pursuant to Title XXXIX of the Revised Code.87796

       (11) A person soliciting the sale of services provided by a 87797
cable television system operating under authority of a 87798
governmental franchise or permit;87799

       (12) A person soliciting a business-to-business sale under 87800
which any of the following conditions are met:87801

       (a) The telephone solicitor has been operating continuously 87802
for at least three years under the same business name under which 87803
it solicits purchasers, and at least fifty-one per cent of its 87804
gross dollar volume of sales consists of repeat sales to existing 87805
customers to whom it has made sales under the same business name.87806

       (b) The purchaser business intends to resell the goods 87807
purchased.87808

       (c) The purchaser business intends to use the goods or 87809
services purchased in a recycling, reuse, manufacturing, or 87810
remanufacturing process.87811

       (d) The telephone solicitor is a publisher of a periodical or 87812
of magazines distributed as controlled circulation publications as 87813
defined in division (CC) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code 87814
and is soliciting sales of advertising, subscriptions, reprints, 87815
lists, information databases, conference participation or 87816
sponsorships, trade shows or media products related to the 87817
periodical or magazine, or other publishing services provided by 87818
the controlled circulation publication.87819

       (13) A person that, not less often than once each year, 87820
publishes and delivers to potential purchasers a catalog that 87821
complies with both of the following:87822

       (a) It includes all of the following:87823

       (i) The business address of the seller;87824

       (ii) A written description or illustration of each good or 87825
service offered for sale;87826

       (iii) A clear and conspicuous disclosure of the sale price of 87827
each good or service; shipping, handling, and other charges; and 87828
return policy.87829

       (b) One of the following applies:87830

       (i) The catalog includes at least twenty-four pages of 87831
written material and illustrations, is distributed in more than 87832
one state, and has an annual postage-paid mail circulation of not 87833
less than two hundred fifty thousand households;87834

       (ii) The catalog includes at least ten pages of written 87835
material or an equivalent amount of material in electronic form on 87836
the internet or an on-line computer service, the person does not 87837
solicit customers by telephone but solely receives telephone calls 87838
made in response to the catalog, and during the calls the person 87839
takes orders but does not engage in further solicitation of the 87840
purchaser. As used in division (B)(13)(b)(ii) of this section, 87841
"further solicitation" does not include providing the purchaser 87842
with information about, or attempting to sell, any other item in 87843
the catalog that prompted the purchaser's call or in a 87844
substantially similar catalog issued by the seller.87845

       (14) A political subdivision or instrumentality of the United 87846
States, this state, or any state of the United States;87847

       (15) A college or university or any other public or private 87848
institution of higher education in this state;87849

       (16) A public utility as defined in section 4905.02 of the 87850
Revised Code or a retail natural gas supplier as defined in 87851
section 4929.01 of the Revised Code, if the utility or supplier is 87852
subject to regulation by the public utilities commission, or the 87853
affiliate of the utility or supplier;87854

       (17) A person that solicits sales through a television 87855
program or advertisement that is presented in the same market area 87856
no fewer than twenty days per month or offers for sale no fewer 87857
than ten distinct items of goods or services; and offers to the 87858
purchaser an unconditional right to return any good or service 87859
purchased within a period of at least seven days and to receive a 87860
full refund within thirty days after the purchaser returns the 87861
good or cancels the service;87862

       (18)(a) A person that, for at least one year, has been 87863
operating a retail business under the same name as that used in 87864
connection with telephone solicitation and both of the following 87865
occur on a continuing basis:87866

       (i) The person either displays goods and offers them for 87867
retail sale at the person's business premises or offers services 87868
for sale and provides them at the person's business premises.87869

       (ii) At least fifty-one per cent of the person's gross dollar 87870
volume of retail sales involves purchases of goods or services at 87871
the person's business premises.87872

       (b) An affiliate of a person that meets the requirements in 87873
division (B)(18)(a) of this section if the affiliate meets all of 87874
the following requirements:87875

       (i) The affiliate has operated a retail business for a period 87876
of less than one year;87877

       (ii) The affiliate either displays goods and offers them for 87878
retail sale at the affiliate's business premises or offers 87879
services for sale and provides them at the affiliate's business 87880
premises;87881

       (iii) At least fifty-one per cent of the affiliate's gross 87882
dollar volume of retail sales involves purchases of goods or 87883
services at the affiliate's business premises.87884

       (c) A person that, for a period of less than one year, has 87885
been operating a retail business in this state under the same name 87886
as that used in connection with telephone solicitation, as long as 87887
all of the following requirements are met:87888

       (i) The person either displays goods and offers them for 87889
retail sale at the person's business premises or offers services 87890
for sale and provides them at the person's business premises;87891

       (ii) The goods or services that are the subject of telephone 87892
solicitation are sold at the person's business premises, and at 87893
least sixty-five per cent of the person's gross dollar volume of 87894
retail sales involves purchases of goods or services at the 87895
person's business premises;87896

       (iii) The person conducts all telephone solicitation 87897
activities according to sections 310.3, 310.4, and 310.5 of the 87898
telemarketing sales rule adopted by the federal trade commission 87899
in 16 C.F.R. part 310.87900

       (19) A person who performs telephone solicitation sales 87901
services on behalf of other persons and to whom one of the 87902
following applies:87903

       (a) The person has operated under the same ownership, 87904
control, and business name for at least five years, and the person 87905
receives at least seventy-five per cent of its gross revenues from 87906
written telephone solicitation contracts with persons who come 87907
within one of the exemptions in division (B) of this section.87908

       (b) The person is an affiliate of one or more exempt persons 87909
and makes telephone solicitations on behalf of only the exempt 87910
persons of which it is an affiliate.87911

       (c) The person makes telephone solicitations on behalf of 87912
only exempt persons, the person and each exempt person on whose 87913
behalf telephone solicitations are made have entered into a 87914
written contract that specifies the manner in which the telephone 87915
solicitations are to be conducted and that at a minimum requires 87916
compliance with the telemarketing sales rule adopted by the 87917
federal trade commission in 16 C.F.R. part 310, and the person 87918
conducts the telephone solicitations in the manner specified in 87919
the written contract.87920

       (d) The person performs telephone solicitation for religious 87921
or political purposes, a charitable organization, a fund-raising 87922
council, or a professional solicitor in compliance with the 87923
registration and reporting requirements of Chapter 1716. of the 87924
Revised Code; and meets all of the following requirements:87925

       (i) The person has operated under the same ownership, 87926
control, and business name for at least five years, and the person 87927
receives at least fifty-one per cent of its gross revenues from 87928
written telephone solicitation contracts with persons who come 87929
within the exemption in division (B)(2) of this section;87930

       (ii) The person does not conduct a prize promotion or offer 87931
the sale of an investment opportunity; 87932

       (iii) The person conducts all telephone solicitation 87933
activities according to sections 310.3, 310.4, and 310.5 of the 87934
telemarketing sales rules adopted by the federal trade commission 87935
in 16 C.F.R. part 310.87936

       (20) A person that is a licensed real estate salesperson or 87937
broker under Chapter 4735. of the Revised Code when soliciting 87938
within the scope of the person's license;87939

       (21)(a) Either of the following:87940

       (i) A publisher that solicits the sale of the publisher's 87941
periodical or magazine of general, paid circulation, or a person 87942
that solicits a sale of that nature on behalf of a publisher under 87943
a written agreement directly between the publisher and the person.87944

       (ii) A publisher that solicits the sale of the publisher's 87945
periodical or magazine of general, paid circulation, or a person 87946
that solicits a sale of that nature as authorized by a publisher 87947
under a written agreement directly with a publisher's 87948
clearinghouse provided the person is a resident of Ohio for more 87949
than three years and initiates all telephone solicitations from 87950
Ohio and the person conducts the solicitation and sale in 87951
compliance with 16 C.F.R. part 310, as adopted by the federal 87952
trade commission.87953

       (b) As used in division (B)(21) of this section, "periodical 87954
or magazine of general, paid circulation" excludes a periodical or 87955
magazine circulated only as part of a membership package or given 87956
as a free gift or prize from the publisher or person.87957

       (22) A person that solicits the sale of food, as defined in 87958
section 3715.01 of the Revised Code, or the sale of products of 87959
horticulture, as defined in section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, 87960
if the person does not intend the solicitation to result in, or 87961
the solicitation actually does not result in, a sale that costs 87962
the purchaser an amount greater than five hundred dollars.87963

       (23) A funeral director licensed pursuant to Chapter 4717. of 87964
the Revised Code when soliciting within the scope of that license, 87965
if both of the following apply:87966

       (a) The solicitation and sale are conducted in compliance 87967
with 16 C.F.R. part 453, as adopted by the federal trade 87968
commission, and with sections 1107.33 and 1345.21 to 1345.28 of 87969
the Revised Code;87970

       (b) The person provides to the purchaser of any preneed 87971
funeral contract a notice that clearly and conspicuously sets 87972
forth the cancellation rights specified in division (G) of section 87973
1107.33 of the Revised Code, and retains a copy of the notice 87974
signed by the purchaser.87975

       (24) A person, or affiliate thereof, licensed to sell or 87976
issue Ohio instruments designated as travelers checks pursuant to 87977
sections 1315.01 to 1315.18 of the Revised Code.87978

       (25) A person that solicits sales from its previous 87979
purchasers and meets all of the following requirements:87980

       (a) The solicitation is made under the same business name 87981
that was previously used to sell goods or services to the 87982
purchaser;87983

       (b) The person has, for a period of not less than three 87984
years, operated a business under the same business name as that 87985
used in connection with telephone solicitation;87986

       (c) The person does not conduct a prize promotion or offer 87987
the sale of an investment opportunity;87988

       (d) The person conducts all telephone solicitation activities 87989
according to sections 310.3, 310.4, and 310.5 of the telemarketing 87990
sales rules adopted by the federal trade commission in 16 C.F.R. 87991
part 310;87992

       (e) Neither the person nor any of its principals has been 87993
convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or has entered a plea of no 87994
contest for a felony or a theft offense as defined in sections 87995
2901.02 and 2913.01 of the Revised Code or similar law of another 87996
state or of the United States;87997

       (f) Neither the person nor any of its principals has had 87998
entered against them an injunction or a final judgment or order, 87999
including an agreed judgment or order, an assurance of voluntary 88000
compliance, or any similar instrument, in any civil or 88001
administrative action involving engaging in a pattern of corrupt 88002
practices, fraud, theft, embezzlement, fraudulent conversion, or 88003
misappropriation of property; the use of any untrue, deceptive, or 88004
misleading representation; or the use of any unfair, unlawful, 88005
deceptive, or unconscionable trade act or practice.88006

       (26) An institution defined as a home health agency in 88007
section 3701.881 of the Revised Code, that conducts all telephone 88008
solicitation activities according to sections 310.3, 310.4, and 88009
310.5 of the telemarketing sales rules adopted by the federal 88010
trade commission in 16 C.F.R. part 310, and engages in telephone 88011
solicitation only within the scope of the institution's 88012
certification, accreditation, contract with the department of 88013
aging, or status as a home health agency; and that meets one of 88014
the following requirements:88015

       (a) The institution is certified as a provider of home health 88016
services under Title XVIII of the Social Security Act, 49 Stat. 88017
620, 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended;88018

       (b) The institution is accredited by either the joint 88019
commission on accreditation of health care organizations or the 88020
community health accreditation program;88021

       (c) The institution is providing passportPASSPORT services 88022
under the direction of the Ohio department of aging under section 88023
173.40sections 173.52 to 173.523 of the Revised Code;88024

       (d) An affiliate of an institution that meets the 88025
requirements of division (B)(26)(a), (b), or (c) of this section 88026
when offering for sale substantially the same goods and services 88027
as those that are offered by the institution that meets the 88028
requirements of division (B)(26)(a), (b), or (c) of this section.88029

       (27) A person licensed by the department of health pursuant 88030
to section 3712.04 or 3712.041 of the Revised Code to provide a 88031
hospice care program or pediatric respite care program when 88032
conducting telephone solicitations within the scope of the 88033
person's license and according to sections 310.3, 310.4, and 310.5 88034
of the telemarketing sales rules adopted by the federal trade 88035
commission in 16 C.F.R. part 310.88036

       Sec. 4723.18.  (A) The board of nursing shall authorize a 88037
licensed practical nurse to administer to an adult intravenous 88038
therapy if the nurse supplies evidence satisfactory to the board 88039
that all of the following are the case:88040

       (1) The nurse holds a current, valid license issued under 88041
this chapter to practice nursing as a licensed practical nurse.88042

       (2) The nurse has been authorized under section 4723.18 of 88043
the Revised Code to administer medications.88044

        (3) The nurse successfully completed a course of study in the 88045
safe performance of intravenous therapy approved by the board 88046
pursuant to section 4723.19 of the Revised Code or by an agency in 88047
another jurisdiction that regulates the practice of nursing and 88048
has requirements for intravenous therapy course approval that are 88049
substantially similar to the requirements in division (B) of 88050
section 4723.19 of the Revised Code, as determined by the board.88051

       (4) The nurse has successfully completed a minimum of forty 88052
hours of training that includes all of the following:88053

       (a) The curriculum established by rules adopted by the board;88054

       (b) Training in the anatomy and physiology of the 88055
cardiovascular system, signs and symptoms of local and systemic 88056
complications in the administration of fluids and antibiotic 88057
additives, and guidelines for management of these complications;88058

       (c) Any other training or instruction the board considers 88059
appropriate;88060

       (d) A testing component that requires the nurse to perform a 88061
successful demonstration of the intravenous procedures, including 88062
all skills needed to perform them safely.88063

       (B) Except as provided in section 4723.181 of the Revised 88064
Code and subject to the restrictions in division (D) of this 88065
section, a licensed practical nurse may perform intravenous 88066
therapy on an adult patient only if authorized by the board 88067
pursuant to division (A) of this section and only at the direction 88068
of one of the following:88069

       (1) A licensed physician, dentist, optometrist, or podiatrist 88070
who, except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, is 88071
present and readily available at the facility where the 88072
intravenous therapy procedure is performed;88073

       (2) A registered nurse in accordance with division (C) of 88074
this section.88075

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section 88076
and section 4723.181 of the Revised Code, when a licensed 88077
practical nurse authorized by the board to perform intravenous 88078
therapy performs an intravenous therapy procedure at the direction 88079
of a registered nurse, the registered nurse or another registered 88080
nurse shall be readily available at the site where the intravenous 88081
therapy is performed, and before the licensed practical nurse 88082
initiates the intravenous therapy, the registered nurse shall 88083
personally perform an on-site assessment of the adult patient who 88084
is to receive the intravenous therapy.88085

       (2) When a licensed practical nurse authorized by the board 88086
to perform intravenous therapy performs an intravenous therapy 88087
procedure in a home as defined in section 3721.10 of the Revised 88088
Code, or in an intermediate care facility for the mentally 88089
retardedindividuals with intellectual disabilities as defined in 88090
section 5111.205124.01 of the Revised Code, at the direction of a 88091
registered nurse or licensed physician, dentist, optometrist, or 88092
podiatrist, a registered nurse shall be on the premises of the 88093
home or facility or accessible by some form of telecommunication.88094

       (D) No licensed practical nurse shall perform any of the 88095
following intravenous therapy procedures:88096

       (1) Initiating or maintaining any of the following:88097

       (a) Blood or blood components;88098

       (b) Solutions for total parenteral nutrition;88099

       (c) Any cancer therapeutic medication including, but not 88100
limited to, cancer chemotherapy or an anti-neoplastic agent;88101

       (d) Solutions administered through any central venous line or 88102
arterial line or any other line that does not terminate in a 88103
peripheral vein, except that a licensed practical nurse authorized 88104
by the board to perform intravenous therapy may maintain the 88105
solutions specified in division (D)(6)(a) of this section that are 88106
being administered through a central venous line or peripherally 88107
inserted central catheter;88108

       (e) Any investigational or experimental medication.88109

       (2) Initiating intravenous therapy in any vein, except that a 88110
licensed practical nurse authorized by the board to perform 88111
intravenous therapy may initiate intravenous therapy in accordance 88112
with this section in a vein of the hand, forearm, or antecubital 88113
fossa;88114

       (3) Discontinuing a central venous, arterial, or any other 88115
line that does not terminate in a peripheral vein;88116

       (4) Initiating or discontinuing a peripherally inserted 88117
central catheter;88118

       (5) Mixing, preparing, or reconstituting any medication for 88119
intravenous therapy, except that a licensed practical nurse 88120
authorized by the board to perform intravenous therapy may prepare 88121
or reconstitute an antibiotic additive;88122

       (6) Administering medication via the intravenous route, 88123
including all of the following activities:88124

       (a) Adding medication to an intravenous solution or to an 88125
existing infusion, except that a licensed practical nurse 88126
authorized by the board to perform intravenous therapy may do any 88127
of the following:88128

       (i) Initiate an intravenous infusion containing one or more 88129
of the following elements: dextrose 5%, normal saline, lactated 88130
ringers, sodium chloride .45%, sodium chloride 0.2%, sterile 88131
water;88132

       (ii) Hang subsequent containers of the intravenous solutions 88133
specified in division (D)(6)(a)(i) of this section that contain 88134
vitamins or electrolytes, if a registered nurse initiated the 88135
infusion of that same intravenous solution;88136

       (iii) Initiate or maintain an intravenous infusion containing 88137
an antibiotic additive.88138

       (b) Injecting medication via a direct intravenous route, 88139
except that a licensed practical nurse authorized by the board to 88140
perform intravenous therapy may inject heparin or normal saline to 88141
flush an intermittent infusion device or heparin lock including, 88142
but not limited to, bolus or push.88143

       (7) Changing tubing on any line including, but not limited 88144
to, an arterial line or a central venous line, except that a 88145
licensed practical nurse authorized by the board to perform 88146
intravenous therapy may change tubing on an intravenous line that 88147
terminates in a peripheral vein;88148

       (8) Programming or setting any function of a patient 88149
controlled infusion pump.88150

       (E) Notwithstanding divisions (A) and (D) of this section, at 88151
the direction of a physician or a registered nurse, a licensed 88152
practical nurse authorized by the board to perform intravenous 88153
therapy may perform the following activities for the purpose of 88154
performing dialysis:88155

       (1) The routine administration and regulation of saline 88156
solution for the purpose of maintaining an established fluid plan;88157

       (2) The administration of a heparin dose intravenously;88158

       (3) The administration of a heparin dose peripherally via a 88159
fistula needle;88160

       (4) The loading and activation of a constant infusion pump;88161

       (5) The intermittent injection of a dose of medication that 88162
is administered via the hemodialysis blood circuit and through the 88163
patient's venous access.88164

       (F) No person shall employ or direct a licensed practical 88165
nurse to perform an intravenous therapy procedure without first 88166
verifying that the licensed practical nurse is authorized by the 88167
board to perform intravenous therapy.88168

       Sec. 4723.35.  (A) As used in this section, "chemical 88169
dependency" means either of the following:88170

       (1) The chronic and habitual use of alcoholic beverages to 88171
the extent that the user no longer can control the use of alcohol 88172
or endangers the user's health, safety, or welfare or that of 88173
others;88174

       (2) The use of a controlled substance as defined in section 88175
3719.01 of the Revised Code, a harmful intoxicant as defined in 88176
section 2925.01 of the Revised Code, or a dangerous drug as 88177
defined in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code, to the extent that 88178
the user becomes physically or psychologically dependent on the 88179
substance, intoxicant, or drug or endangers the user's health, 88180
safety, or welfare or that of others.88181

       (B) The board of nursing may abstain from taking disciplinary 88182
action under section 4723.28 or 4723.86 of the Revised Code 88183
against an individual with a chemical dependency if it finds that 88184
the individual can be treated effectively and there is no 88185
impairment of the individual's ability to practice according to 88186
acceptable and prevailing standards of safe care. The board shall 88187
establish a chemical dependency monitoring program to monitor the 88188
registered nurses, licensed practical nurses, dialysis 88189
technicians, and certified community health workers against whom 88190
the board has abstained from taking action. The board shall 88191
develop the program, select the program's name, and designate a 88192
coordinator to administer the program.88193

       (C) Determinations regarding an individual's eligibility for 88194
admission to, continued participation in, and successful 88195
completion of the monitoring program shall be made by the board's 88196
supervising member for disciplinary matters in accordance with 88197
rules adopted under division (D) of this section.88198

       (D) The board shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 88199
119. of the Revised Code that establish the following:88200

       (1) Eligibility requirements for admission to and continued 88201
participation in the monitoring program;88202

       (2) Terms and conditions that must be met to participate in 88203
and successfully complete the program;88204

       (3) Procedures for keeping confidential records regarding 88205
participants;88206

       (4) Any other requirements or procedures necessary to 88207
establish and administer the program.88208

       (E)(1) As a condition of being admitted to the monitoring 88209
program, an individual shall surrender to the program coordinator 88210
the license or certificate that the individual holds. While the 88211
surrender is in effect, the individual is prohibited from engaging 88212
in the practice of nursing, engaging in the provision of dialysis 88213
care, or engaging in the provision of services that were being 88214
provided as a certified community health worker.88215

       If the board's supervising member for disciplinary matters 88216
determines that a participant is capable of resuming practice 88217
according to acceptable and prevailing standards of safe care, the 88218
program coordinator shall return the participant's license or 88219
certificate. If the participant violates the terms and conditions 88220
of resumed practice, the coordinator shall require the participant 88221
to surrender the license or certificate as a condition of 88222
continued participation in the program. The coordinator may 88223
require the surrender only on the approval of the board's 88224
supervising member for disciplinary matters.88225

       The surrender of a license or certificate on admission to the 88226
monitoring program or while participating in the program does not 88227
constitute an action by the board under section 4723.28 or 4723.86 88228
of the Revised Code. The participant may rescind the surrender at 88229
any time and the board may proceed by taking action under section 88230
4723.28 or 4723.86 of the Revised Code.88231

       (2) If the program coordinator determines that a participant 88232
is significantly out of compliance with the terms and conditions 88233
for participation, the coordinator shall notify the board's 88234
supervising member for disciplinary matters and the supervising 88235
member shall determine whether to temporarily suspend the 88236
participant's license or certificate. The board shall notify the 88237
participant of the suspension by certified mail sent to the 88238
participant's last known address and shall refer the matter to the 88239
board for formal action under section 4723.28 or 4723.86 of the 88240
Revised Code.88241

       (F) All of the following apply with respect to the receipt, 88242
release, and maintenance of records and information by the 88243
monitoring program:88244

       (1) The program coordinator shall maintain all program 88245
records in the board's office, and for each participant, shall 88246
retain the records for a period of two years following the 88247
participant's date of successful completion of the program.88248

       (2) When applying to participate in the monitoring program, 88249
the applicant shall sign a waiver permitting the board to receive 88250
and release information necessary to determine whether the 88251
individual is eligible for admission. After being admitted, the 88252
participant shall sign a waiver permitting the board to receive 88253
and release information necessary to determine whether the 88254
individual is eligible for continued participation in the program. 88255
Information that may be necessary for the board's supervising 88256
member for disciplinary matters to determine eligibility for 88257
admission or continued participation in the monitoring program 88258
includes, but is not limited to, information provided to and by 88259
employers, probation officers, law enforcement agencies, peer 88260
assistance programs, health professionals, and treatment 88261
providers. No entity with knowledge that the information has been 88262
provided to the monitoring program shall divulge that knowledge to 88263
any other person.88264

       (3) Except as provided in division (F)(4) of this section, 88265
all records pertaining to an individual's application for or 88266
participation in the monitoring program, including medical 88267
records, treatment records, and mental health records, shall be 88268
confidential. The records are not public records for the purposes 88269
of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and are not subject to 88270
discovery by subpoena or admissible as evidence in any judicial 88271
proceeding.88272

       (4) The board may disclose information regarding a 88273
participant's progress in the program to any person or government 88274
entity that the participant authorizes in writing to be given the 88275
information. In disclosing information under this division, the 88276
board shall not include any information that is protected under 88277
section 3793.135119.27 of the Revised Code or any federal statute 88278
or regulation that provides for the confidentiality of medical, 88279
mental health, or substance abuse records.88280

       (G) In the absence of fraud or bad faith, the board as a 88281
whole, its individual members, and its employees and 88282
representatives are not liable for damages in any civil action as 88283
a result of disclosing information in accordance with division 88284
(F)(4) of this section. In the absence of fraud or bad faith, any 88285
person reporting to the program with regard to an individual's 88286
chemical dependence, or the progress or lack of progress of that 88287
individual with regard to treatment, is not liable for damages in 88288
any civil action as a result of the report.88289

       Sec. 4723.481.  This section establishes standards and 88290
conditions regarding the authority of a clinical nurse specialist, 88291
certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner to 88292
prescribe drugs and therapeutic devices under a certificate to 88293
prescribe issued under section 4723.4814723.48 of the Revised 88294
Code.88295

       (A) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 88296
certified nurse practitioner shall not prescribe any drug or 88297
therapeutic device that is not included in the types of drugs and 88298
devices listed on the formulary established in rules adopted under 88299
section 4723.50 of the Revised Code.88300

       (B) The prescriptive authority of a clinical nurse 88301
specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse 88302
practitioner shall not exceed the prescriptive authority of the 88303
collaborating physician or podiatrist, including the collaborating 88304
physician's authority to treat chronic pain with controlled 88305
substances and products containing tramadol as described in 88306
section 4731.052 of the Revised Code.88307

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) or (3) of this 88308
section, a clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 88309
certified nurse practitioner may prescribe to a patient a schedule 88310
II controlled substance only if all of the following are the case: 88311

       (a) The patient has a terminal condition, as defined in 88312
section 2133.01 of the Revised Code.88313

       (b) The collaborating physician of the clinical nurse 88314
specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse 88315
practitioner initially prescribed the substance for the patient.88316

       (c) The prescription is for an amount that does not exceed 88317
the amount necessary for the patient's use in a single, 88318
twenty-four-hour period. 88319

       (2) The restrictions on prescriptive authority in division 88320
(C)(1) of this section do not apply if a clinical nurse 88321
specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse 88322
practitioner issues the prescription to the patient from any of 88323
the following locations:88324

        (a) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 88325
Revised Code;88326

       (b) An entity owned or controlled, in whole or in part, by a 88327
hospital or by an entity that owns or controls, in whole or in 88328
part, one or more hospitals;88329

        (c) A health care facility operated by the department of 88330
mental healthmental health and addiction services or the 88331
department of developmental disabilities;88332

        (d) A nursing home licensed under section 3721.02 of the 88333
Revised Code or by a political subdivision certified under section 88334
3721.09 of the Revised Code;88335

       (e) A county home or district home operated under Chapter 88336
5155. of the Revised Code that is certified under the medicare or 88337
medicaid program;88338

        (f) A hospice care program, as defined in section 3712.01 of 88339
the Revised Code;88340

       (g) A community mental health agencyservices provider, as 88341
defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code;88342

        (h) An ambulatory surgical facility, as defined in section 88343
3702.30 of the Revised Code;88344

       (i) A freestanding birthing center, as defined in section 88345
3702.513702.141 of the Revised Code;88346

       (j) A federally qualified health center, as defined in 88347
section 3701.047 of the Revised Code;88348

       (k) A federally qualified health center look-alike, as 88349
defined in section 3701.047 of the Revised Code;88350

        (l) A health care office or facility operated by the board of 88351
health of a city or general health district or the authority 88352
having the duties of a board of health under section 3709.05 of 88353
the Revised Code;88354

       (m) A site where a medical practice is operated, but only if 88355
the practice is comprised of one or more physicians who also are 88356
owners of the practice; the practice is organized to provide 88357
direct patient care; and the clinical nurse specialist, certified 88358
nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner providing services 88359
at the site has a standard care arrangement and collaborates with 88360
at least one of the physician owners who practices primarily at 88361
that site.88362

       (3) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 88363
certified nurse practitioner shall not issue to a patient a 88364
prescription for a schedule II controlled substance from a 88365
convenience care clinic even if the clinic is owned or operated by 88366
an entity specified in division (C)(2) of this section.88367

       (D) A pharmacist who acts in good faith reliance on a 88368
prescription issued by a clinical nurse specialist, certified 88369
nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner under division 88370
(C)(2) of this section is not liable for or subject to any of the 88371
following for relying on the prescription: damages in any civil 88372
action, prosecution in any criminal proceeding, or professional 88373
disciplinary action by the state board of pharmacy under Chapter 88374
4729. of the Revised Code.88375

       (E) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 88376
certified nurse practitioner may personally furnish to a patient a 88377
sample of any drug or therapeutic device included in the types of 88378
drugs and devices listed on the formulary, except that all of the 88379
following conditions apply:88380

       (1) The amount of the sample furnished shall not exceed a 88381
seventy-two-hour supply, except when the minimum available 88382
quantity of the sample is packaged in an amount that is greater 88383
than a seventy-two-hour supply, in which case the packaged amount 88384
may be furnished.88385

       (2) No charge may be imposed for the sample or for furnishing 88386
it.88387

       (3) Samples of controlled substances may not be personally 88388
furnished.88389

        (F) A clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or 88390
certified nurse practitioner may personally furnish to a patient a 88391
complete or partial supply of a drug or therapeutic device 88392
included in the types of drugs and devices listed on the 88393
formulary, except that all of the following conditions apply:88394

       (1) The clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, 88395
or certified nurse practitioner shall personally furnish only 88396
antibiotics, antifungals, scabicides, contraceptives, prenatal 88397
vitamins, antihypertensives, drugs and devices used in the 88398
treatment of diabetes, drugs and devices used in the treatment of 88399
asthma, and drugs used in the treatment of dyslipidemia.88400

       (2) The clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, 88401
or certified nurse practitioner shall not furnish the drugs and 88402
devices in locations other than a health department operated by 88403
the board of health of a city or general health district or the 88404
authority having the duties of a board of health under section 88405
3709.05 of the Revised Code, a federally funded comprehensive 88406
primary care clinic, or a nonprofit health care clinic or program.88407

       (3) The clinical nurse specialist, certified nurse-midwife, 88408
or certified nurse practitioner shall comply with all safety 88409
standards for personally furnishing supplies of drugs and devices, 88410
as established in rules adopted under section 4723.50 of the 88411
Revised Code.88412

       Sec. 4725.03.  The governor, with the advice and consent of 88413
the senate, shall appoint a state board of optometry consisting of 88414
six nonmedical residents of this state, five of whom shall be 88415
persons actually engaged in the practice of optometry for five 88416
years preceding appointment and one of whom shall be a member of 88417
the public at least sixtyfifty years of age. Terms of office 88418
shall be five years, commencing on the twenty-sixth day of 88419
September and ending on the twenty-fifth day of September. Each 88420
member shall hold office from the date of appointment until the 88421
end of the term for which appointed. Any member appointed to fill 88422
a vacancy occurring prior to the expiration of the term for which 88423
the member's predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the 88424
remainder of the term. A member shall continue in office 88425
subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term until the 88426
member's successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days 88427
has elapsed, whichever occurs first. No person shall serve as a 88428
member for more than two terms.88429

       Sec. 4725.16.  (A) Each certificate of licensure, topical 88430
ocular pharmaceutical agents certificate, and therapeutic 88431
pharmaceutical agents certificate issued by the state board of 88432
optometry shall expire annually on the last day of December, and 88433
may be renewed in accordance with this section and the standard 88434
renewal procedure established under Chapter 4745. of the Revised 88435
Code.88436

       An optometrist seeking to continue to practice optometry 88437
shall file with the board an application for license renewal. The 88438
application shall be in such form and require such pertinent 88439
professional biographical data as the board may require.88440

       (B) All licensed optometrists shall annually complete 88441
continuing education in subjects relating to the practice of 88442
optometry, to the end that the utilization and application of new 88443
techniques, scientific and clinical advances, and the achievements 88444
of research will assure comprehensive care to the public. The 88445
board shall prescribe by rule the continuing optometric education 88446
that licensed optometrists must complete. The length of study 88447
shall be twenty-five clock hours each year, including ten clock 88448
hours of instruction in pharmacology to be completed by all 88449
licensed optometrists.88450

       Unless the continuing education required under this division 88451
is waived or deferred under division (D) of this section, the 88452
continuing education must be completed during the twelve-month 88453
period beginning on the first day of October and ending on the 88454
last day of September. If the board receives notice from a 88455
continuing education program indicating that an optometrist 88456
completed the program after the last day of September, and the 88457
optometrist wants to use the continuing education completed after 88458
that day to renew the license that expires on the last day of 88459
December of that year, the optometrist shall pay the penalty 88460
specified under section 4725.34 of the Revised Code for late 88461
completion of continuing education.88462

       At least once annually, the board shall post on its web site 88463
and shall mail, or send by electronic mail, to each licensed 88464
optometrist a list of courses approved in accordance with 88465
standards prescribed by board rule. Upon the request of a licensed 88466
optometrist, the executive director of the board shall supply a 88467
list of additional courses that the board has approved subsequent 88468
to the most recent web site posting, electronic mail transmission, 88469
or mailing of the list of approved courses.88470

       (C)(1) Annually, not later than the first day of November, 88471
the board shall mail or send by electronic mail a notice regarding 88472
license renewal to each licensed optometrist who may be eligible 88473
for renewal. The notice shall be sent to the optometrist's last88474
most recent electronic mail or mailing address shown in the 88475
board's records. If the board knows that the optometrist has 88476
completed the required continuing optometric education for the 88477
year, the board may include with the notice an application for 88478
license renewal. 88479

       (2) Filing a license renewal application with the board shall 88480
serve as notice by the optometrist that the continuing optometric 88481
education requirement has been successfully completed. If the 88482
board finds that an optometrist has not completed the required 88483
continuing optometric education, the board shall disapprove the 88484
optometrist's application. The board's disapproval of renewal is 88485
effective without a hearing, unless a hearing is requested 88486
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 88487

       (3) The board shall refuse to accept an application for 88488
renewal from any applicant whose license is not in good standing 88489
or who is under disciplinary review pursuant to section 4725.19 of 88490
the Revised Code. 88491

       (4) Notice of an applicant's failure to qualify for renewal 88492
shall be served upon the applicant by mail. The notice shall be 88493
sent not later than the fifteenth day of November to the 88494
applicant's last address shown in the board's records.88495

       (D) In cases of certified illness or undue hardship, the 88496
board may waive or defer for up to twelve months the requirement 88497
of continuing optometric education, except that in such cases the 88498
board may not waive or defer the continuing education in 88499
pharmacology required to be completed by optometrists who hold 88500
topical ocular pharmaceutical agents certificates or therapeutic 88501
pharmaceutical agents certificates. The board shall waive the 88502
requirement of continuing optometric education for any optometrist 88503
who is serving in the armed forces of the United States or who has 88504
received an initial certificate of licensure during the nine-month 88505
period which ended on the last day of September.88506

       (E) An optometrist whose renewal application has been 88507
approved may renew each certificate held by paying to the 88508
treasurer of state the fees for renewal specified under section 88509
4725.34 of the Revised Code. On payment of all applicable fees, 88510
the board shall issue a renewal of the optometrist's certificate 88511
of licensure, topical ocular pharmaceutical agents certificate, 88512
and therapeutic pharmaceutical agents certificate, as appropriate. 88513

       (F) Not later than the fifteenth day of December, the board 88514
shall mail or send by electronic mail a second notice regarding 88515
license renewal to each licensed optometrist who may be eligible 88516
for renewal but did not respond to the notice sent under division 88517
(C)(1) of this section. The notice shall be sent to the 88518
optometrist's lastmost recent electronic mail or mailing address 88519
shown in the board's records. If an optometrist fails to file a 88520
renewal application after the second notice is sent, the board 88521
shall send a third notice regarding license renewal prior to any 88522
action under division (I) of this section to classify the 88523
optometrist's certificates as delinquent. 88524

       (G) The failure of an optometrist to apply for license 88525
renewal or the failure to pay the applicable annual renewal fees 88526
on or before the date of expiration, shall automatically work a 88527
forfeiture of the optometrist's authority to practice optometry in 88528
this state. 88529

       (H) The board shall accept renewal applications and renewal 88530
fees that are submitted from the first day of January to the last 88531
day of April of the year next succeeding the date of expiration. 88532
An individual who submits such a late renewal application or fee 88533
shall pay the late renewal fee specified in section 4725.34 of the 88534
Revised Code.88535

       (I)(1) If the certificates issued by the board to an 88536
individual have expired and the individual has not filed a 88537
complete application during the late renewal period, the 88538
individual's certificates shall be classified in the board's 88539
records as delinquent.88540

       (2) Any optometrist subject to delinquent classification may 88541
submit a written application to the board for reinstatement. For 88542
reinstatement to occur, the applicant must meet all of the 88543
following conditions:88544

       (a) Submit to the board evidence of compliance with board 88545
rules requiring continuing optometric education in a sufficient 88546
number of hours to make up for any delinquent compliance;88547

       (b) Pay the renewal fees for the year in which application 88548
for reinstatement is made and the reinstatement fee specified 88549
under division (A)(8) of section 4725.34 of the Revised Code;88550

       (c) Pass all or part of the licensing examination accepted by 88551
the board under section 4725.11 of the Revised Code as the board 88552
considers appropriate to determine whether the application for 88553
reinstatement should be approved;88554

       (d) If the applicant has been practicing optometry in another 88555
state or country, submit evidence that the applicant's license to 88556
practice optometry in the other state or country is in good 88557
standing.88558

       (3) The board shall approve an application for reinstatement 88559
if the conditions specified in division (I)(2) of this section are 88560
met. An optometrist who receives reinstatement is subject to the 88561
continuing education requirements specified under division (B) of 88562
this section for the year in which reinstatement occurs.88563

       Sec. 4729.51.  (A) No person other than a registered 88564
wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs shall possess for sale, 88565
sell, distribute, or deliver, at wholesale, dangerous drugs, 88566
except as follows:88567

       (1) A pharmacist who is a licensed terminal distributor of 88568
dangerous drugs or who is employed by a licensed terminal 88569
distributor of dangerous drugs may make occasional sales of 88570
dangerous drugs at wholesale;88571

       (2) A licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs having 88572
more than one establishment or place may transfer or deliver 88573
dangerous drugs from one establishment or place for which a 88574
license has been issued to the terminal distributor to another 88575
establishment or place for which a license has been issued to the 88576
terminal distributor if the license issued for each establishment 88577
or place is in effect at the time of the transfer or delivery.88578

       (B)(1) No registered wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs 88579
shall possess for sale, or sell, at wholesale, dangerous drugs to 88580
any person other than the following:88581

       (a) Except as provided in division (B)(2)(a) of this section, 88582
a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs;88583

       (b) An optometrist licensed under Chapter 4725. of the 88584
Revised Code who holds a topical ocular pharmaceutical agents 88585
certificate;88586

       (c) A registered wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs;88587

       (d) A manufacturer of dangerous drugs;88588

       (e) Subject to division (B)(3) of this section, a licensed 88589
terminal distributor of dangerous drugs;88590

       (f) Carriers or warehouses for the purpose of carriage or 88591
storage;88592

       (g) Terminal or wholesale distributors of dangerous drugs who 88593
are not engaged in the sale of dangerous drugs within this state;88594

       (h) An individual who holds a current license, certificate, 88595
or registration issued under Title 47XLVII of the Revised Code 88596
and has been certified to conduct diabetes education by a national 88597
certifying body specified in rules adopted by the state board of 88598
pharmacy under section 4729.68 of the Revised Code, but only with 88599
respect to insulin that will be used for the purpose of diabetes 88600
education and only if diabetes education is within the 88601
individual's scope of practice under statutes and rules regulating 88602
the individual's profession;88603

       (i) An individual who holds a valid certificate issued by a 88604
nationally recognized S.C.U.B.A. diving certifying organization 88605
approved by the state board of pharmacy in rule, but only with 88606
respect to medical oxygen that will be used for the purpose of 88607
emergency care or treatment at the scene of a diving emergency;88608

       (j) Except as provided in division (B)(2)(b) of this section, 88609
a business entity that is a corporation formed under division (B) 88610
of section 1701.03 of the Revised Code, a limited liability 88611
company formed under Chapter 1705. of the Revised Code, or a 88612
professional association formed under Chapter 1785. of the Revised 88613
Code if the entity has a sole shareholder who is a licensed health 88614
professional authorized to prescribe drugs and is authorized to 88615
provide the professional services being offered by the entity;88616

        (k) Except as provided in division (B)(2)(c) of this section, 88617
a business entity that is a corporation formed under division (B) 88618
of section 1701.03 of the Revised Code, a limited liability 88619
company formed under Chapter 1705. of the Revised Code, a 88620
partnership or a limited liability partnership formed under 88621
Chapter 1775. of the Revised Code, or a professional association 88622
formed under Chapter 1785. of the Revised Code, if, to be a 88623
shareholder, member, or partner, an individual is required to be 88624
licensed, certified, or otherwise legally authorized under Title 88625
XLVII of the Revised Code to perform the professional service 88626
provided by the entity and each such individual is a licensed 88627
health professional authorized to prescribe drugs.88628

       (2) No registered wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs 88629
shall possess for sale, or sell, at wholesale, dangerous drugs to 88630
any of the following:88631

       (a) A prescriber who is employed by a pain management clinic 88632
that is not licensed as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs 88633
with a pain management clinic classification issued under section 88634
4729.552 of the Revised Code;88635

       (b) A business entity described in division (B)(1)(j) of this 88636
section that is, or is operating, a pain management clinic without 88637
a license as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs with a pain 88638
management clinic classification issued under section 4729.552 of 88639
the Revised Code;88640

       (c) A business entity described in division (B)(1)(k) of this 88641
section that is, or is operating, a pain management clinic without 88642
a license as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs with a pain 88643
management clinic classification issued under section 4729.552 of 88644
the Revised Code.88645

        (3) No registered wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs 88646
shall possess dangerous drugs for sale at wholesale, or sell such 88647
drugs at wholesale, to a licensed terminal distributor of 88648
dangerous drugs, except as follows:88649

       (a) In the case of a terminal distributor with a category I 88650
license, only dangerous drugs described in category I, as defined 88651
in division (A)(1) of section 4729.54 of the Revised Code;88652

       (b) In the case of a terminal distributor with a category II 88653
license, only dangerous drugs described in category I and category 88654
II, as defined in divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 4729.54 of 88655
the Revised Code;88656

       (c) In the case of a terminal distributor with a category III 88657
license, dangerous drugs described in category I, category II, and 88658
category III, as defined in divisions (A)(1), (2), and (3) of 88659
section 4729.54 of the Revised Code;88660

       (d) In the case of a terminal distributor with a limited 88661
category I, II, or III license, only the dangerous drugs specified 88662
in the certificate furnished by the terminal distributor in 88663
accordance with section 4729.60 of the Revised Code.88664

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(4) of this section, 88665
no person shall sell, at retail, dangerous drugs.88666

       (2) Except as provided in division (C)(4) of this section, no 88667
person shall possess for sale, at retail, dangerous drugs.88668

       (3) Except as provided in division (C)(4) of this section, no 88669
person shall possess dangerous drugs.88670

       (4) Divisions (C)(1), (2), and (3) of this section do not 88671
apply to a registered wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs, a 88672
licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs, or a person who 88673
possesses, or possesses for sale or sells, at retail, a dangerous 88674
drug in accordance with Chapters 3719., 4715., 4723., 4725., 88675
4729., 4730., 4731., and 4741. of the Revised Code.88676

       Divisions (C)(1), (2), and (3) of this section do not apply 88677
to an individual who holds a current license, certificate, or 88678
registration issued under Title XLVII of the Revised Code and has 88679
been certified to conduct diabetes education by a national 88680
certifying body specified in rules adopted by the state board of 88681
pharmacy under section 4729.68 of the Revised Code, but only to 88682
the extent that the individual possesses insulin or personally 88683
supplies insulin solely for the purpose of diabetes education and 88684
only if diabetes education is within the individual's scope of 88685
practice under statutes and rules regulating the individual's 88686
profession.88687

       Divisions (C)(1), (2), and (3) of this section do not apply 88688
to an individual who holds a valid certificate issued by a 88689
nationally recognized S.C.U.B.A. diving certifying organization 88690
approved by the state board of pharmacy in rule, but only to the 88691
extent that the individual possesses medical oxygen or personally 88692
supplies medical oxygen for the purpose of emergency care or 88693
treatment at the scene of a diving emergency.88694

       (D) No licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall 88695
purchase for the purpose of resale dangerous drugs from any person 88696
other than a registered wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs, 88697
except as follows:88698

       (1) A licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs may 88699
make occasional purchases of dangerous drugs for resale from a 88700
pharmacist who is a licensed terminal distributor of dangerous 88701
drugs or who is employed by a licensed terminal distributor of 88702
dangerous drugs;88703

       (2) A licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs having 88704
more than one establishment or place may transfer or receive 88705
dangerous drugs from one establishment or place for which a 88706
license has been issued to the terminal distributor to another 88707
establishment or place for which a license has been issued to the 88708
terminal distributor if the license issued for each establishment 88709
or place is in effect at the time of the transfer or receipt.88710

       (E) A pharmacy that is a licensed terminal distributor of 88711
dangerous drugs may operate a remote dispensing system in 88712
accordance with section 4729.542 of the Revised Code.88713

        (F) No licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall 88714
engage in the sale or other distribution of dangerous drugs at 88715
retail or maintain possession, custody, or control of dangerous 88716
drugs for any purpose other than the distributor's personal use or 88717
consumption, at any establishment or place other than that or 88718
those described in the license issued by the state board of 88719
pharmacy to such terminal distributor.88720

       (F)(G) Nothing in this section shall be construed to 88721
interfere with the performance of official duties by any law 88722
enforcement official authorized by municipal, county, state, or 88723
federal law to collect samples of any drug, regardless of its 88724
nature or in whose possession it may be.88725

       Sec. 4729.54.  (A) As used in this section and section 88726
4729.541 of the Revised Code:88727

       (1) "Category I" means single-dose injections of intravenous 88728
fluids, including saline, Ringer's lactate, five per cent dextrose 88729
and distilled water, and other intravenous fluids or parenteral 88730
solutions included in this category by rule of the state board of 88731
pharmacy, that have a volume of one hundred milliliters or more 88732
and that contain no added substances, or single-dose injections of 88733
epinephrine to be administered pursuant to sections 4765.38 and 88734
4765.39 of the Revised Code.88735

       (2) "Category II" means any dangerous drug that is not 88736
included in category I or III.88737

       (3) "Category III" means any controlled substance that is 88738
contained in schedule I, II, III, IV, or V.88739

       (4) "Emergency medical service organization" has the same 88740
meaning as in section 4765.01 of the Revised Code.88741

       (5) "Person" includes an emergency medical service 88742
organization.88743

       (6) "Schedule I, schedule II, schedule III, schedule IV, and 88744
schedule V" mean controlled substance schedules I, II, III, IV, 88745
and V, respectively, as established pursuant to section 3719.41 of 88746
the Revised Code and as amended.88747

       (B)(1) A person who desires to be licensed as a terminal 88748
distributor of dangerous drugs shall file with the executive 88749
director of the state board of pharmacy a verified application. 88750
After it is filed, the application may not be withdrawn without 88751
approval of the board.88752

       (2) An application shall contain all the following that apply 88753
in the applicant's case:88754

       (a) Information that the board requires relative to the 88755
qualifications of a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs set 88756
forth in section 4729.55 of the Revised Code;88757

       (b) A statement that the person wishes to be licensed as a 88758
category I, category II, category III, limited category I, limited 88759
category II, or limited category III terminal distributor of 88760
dangerous drugs;88761

       (c) If the person wishes to be licensed as a limited category 88762
I, limited category II, or limited category III terminal 88763
distributor of dangerous drugs, a notarized list of the dangerous 88764
drugs that the person wishes to possess, have custody or control 88765
of, and distribute, which list shall also specify the purpose for 88766
which those drugs will be used and their source;88767

       (d) If the person is an emergency medical service 88768
organization, the information that is specified in division (C)(1) 88769
of this section;88770

       (e) Except for an emergency medical service organization, the 88771
identity of the one establishment or place at which the person 88772
intends to engage in the sale or other distribution of dangerous 88773
drugs at retail, and maintain possession, custody, or control of 88774
dangerous drugs for purposes other than the person's own use or 88775
consumption and any place at which the person intends to operate a 88776
remote dispensing system in accordance with section 4729.542 of 88777
the Revised Code;88778

       (f) If the application pertains to a pain management clinic, 88779
information that demonstrates, to the satisfaction of the board, 88780
compliance with division (A) of section 4729.552 of the Revised 88781
Code.88782

       (C)(1) An emergency medical service organization that wishes 88783
to be licensed as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall 88784
list in its application for licensure the following additional 88785
information:88786

       (a) The units under its control that the organization 88787
determines will possess dangerous drugs for the purpose of 88788
administering emergency medical services in accordance with 88789
Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code;88790

       (b) With respect to each such unit, whether the dangerous 88791
drugs that the organization determines the unit will possess are 88792
in category I, II, or III.88793

       (2) An emergency medical service organization that is 88794
licensed as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall file a 88795
new application for such licensure if there is any change in the 88796
number, or location of, any of its units or any change in the 88797
category of the dangerous drugs that any unit will possess.88798

       (3) A unit listed in an application for licensure pursuant to 88799
division (C)(1) of this section may obtain the dangerous drugs it 88800
is authorized to possess from its emergency medical service 88801
organization or, on a replacement basis, from a hospital pharmacy. 88802
If units will obtain dangerous drugs from a hospital pharmacy, the 88803
organization shall file, and maintain in current form, the 88804
following items with the pharmacist who is responsible for the 88805
hospital's terminal distributor of dangerous drugs license:88806

       (a) A copy of its standing orders or protocol;88807

       (b) A list of the personnel employed or used by the 88808
organization to provide emergency medical services in accordance 88809
with Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code, who are authorized to 88810
possess the drugs, which list also shall indicate the personnel 88811
who are authorized to administer the drugs.88812

       (D) Each emergency medical service organization that applies 88813
for a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs license shall submit 88814
with its application the following:88815

       (1) A notarized copy of its standing orders or protocol, 88816
which orders or protocol shall be signed by a physician and 88817
specify the dangerous drugs that its units may carry, expressed in 88818
standard dose units;88819

       (2) A list of the personnel employed or used by the 88820
organization to provide emergency medical services in accordance 88821
with Chapter 4765. of the Revised Code.88822

       An emergency medical service organization that is licensed as 88823
a terminal distributor shall notify the board immediately of any 88824
changes in its standing orders or protocol.88825

       (E) There shall be six categories of terminal distributor of 88826
dangerous drugs licenses, which categories shall be as follows:88827

       (1) Category I license. A person who obtains this license may 88828
possess, have custody or control of, and distribute only the 88829
dangerous drugs described in category I.88830

       (2) Limited category I license. A person who obtains this 88831
license may possess, have custody or control of, and distribute 88832
only the dangerous drugs described in category I that were listed 88833
in the application for licensure.88834

       (3) Category II license. A person who obtains this license 88835
may possess, have custody or control of, and distribute only the 88836
dangerous drugs described in category I and category II.88837

       (4) Limited category II license. A person who obtains this 88838
license may possess, have custody or control of, and distribute 88839
only the dangerous drugs described in category I or category II 88840
that were listed in the application for licensure.88841

       (5) Category III license, which may include a pain management 88842
clinic classification issued under section 4729.552 of the Revised 88843
Code. A person who obtains this license may possess, have custody 88844
or control of, and distribute the dangerous drugs described in 88845
category I, category II, and category III. If the license includes 88846
a pain management clinic classification, the person may operate a 88847
pain management clinic.88848

       (6) Limited category III license. A person who obtains this 88849
license may possess, have custody or control of, and distribute 88850
only the dangerous drugs described in category I, category II, or 88851
category III that were listed in the application for licensure.88852

       (F) Except for an application made on behalf of an animal 88853
shelter, if an applicant for licensure as a limited category I, 88854
II, or III terminal distributor of dangerous drugs intends to 88855
administer dangerous drugs to a person or animal, the applicant 88856
shall submit, with the application, a notarized copy of its 88857
protocol or standing orders, which protocol or orders shall be 88858
signed by a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe 88859
drugs, specify the dangerous drugs to be administered, and list 88860
personnel who are authorized to administer the dangerous drugs in 88861
accordance with federal law or the law of this state. An 88862
application made on behalf of an animal shelter shall include a 88863
notarized list of the dangerous drugs to be administered to 88864
animals and the personnel who are authorized to administer the 88865
drugs to animals in accordance with section 4729.532 of the 88866
Revised Code. After obtaining a terminal distributor license, a 88867
licensee shall notify the board immediately of any changes in its 88868
protocol or standing orders, or in such personnel.88869

       (G)(1) Except as provided in division (G)(2) of this section, 88870
each applicant for licensure as a terminal distributor of 88871
dangerous drugs shall submit, with the application, a license fee 88872
determined as follows:88873

       (a) For a category I or limited category I license, 88874
forty-five dollars;88875

       (b) For a category II or limited category II license, one 88876
hundred twelve dollars and fifty cents;88877

       (c) For a category III license, including a license with a 88878
pain management clinic classification issued under section 88879
4729.552 of the Revised Code, or a limited category III license, 88880
one hundred fifty dollars.88881

       (2) For a professional association, corporation, partnership, 88882
or limited liability company organized for the purpose of 88883
practicing veterinary medicine, the fee shall be forty dollars.88884

       (3) Fees assessed under divisions (G)(1) and (2) of this 88885
section shall not be returned if the applicant fails to qualify 88886
for registration.88887

       (H)(1) The board shall issue a terminal distributor of 88888
dangerous drugs license to each person who submits an application 88889
for such licensure in accordance with this section, pays the 88890
required license fee, is determined by the board to meet the 88891
requirements set forth in section 4729.55 of the Revised Code, and 88892
satisfies any other applicable requirements of this section.88893

       (2) The license of a person other than an emergency medical 88894
service organization shall describe the one establishment or place 88895
at which the licensee may engage in the sale or other distribution 88896
of dangerous drugs at retail and maintain possession, custody, or 88897
control of dangerous drugs for purposes other than the licensee's 88898
own use or consumption and any place at which the person intends 88899
to operate a remote dispensing system in accordance with section 88900
4729.542 of the Revised Code. The one establishment or place and 88901
any place at which the person intends to operate a remote 88902
dispensing system shall be that which isthose described in the 88903
application for licensure.88904

       No such license shall authorize or permit the terminal 88905
distributor of dangerous drugs named in it to engage in the sale 88906
or other distribution of dangerous drugs at retail or to maintain 88907
possession, custody, or control of dangerous drugs for any purpose 88908
other than the distributor's own use or consumption, at any 88909
establishment or place other than thatthose described in the 88910
license, except that an agent or employee of an animal shelter may 88911
possess and use dangerous drugs in the course of business as 88912
provided in division (D) of section 4729.532 of the Revised Code.88913

       (3) The license of an emergency medical service organization 88914
shall cover and describe all the units of the organization listed 88915
in its application for licensure.88916

       (4) The license of every terminal distributor of dangerous 88917
drugs shall indicate, on its face, the category of licensure. If 88918
the license is a limited category I, II, or III license, it shall 88919
specify, and shall authorize the licensee to possess, have custody 88920
or control of, and distribute only, the dangerous drugs that were 88921
listed in the application for licensure.88922

       (I) All licenses issued pursuant to this section shall be 88923
effective for a period of twelve months from the first day of 88924
January of each year. A license shall be renewed by the board for 88925
a like period, annually, according to the provisions of this 88926
section, and the standard renewal procedure of Chapter 4745. of 88927
the Revised Code. A person who desires to renew a license shall 88928
submit an application for renewal and pay the required fee on or 88929
before the thirty-first day of December each year. The fee 88930
required for the renewal of a license shall be the same as the fee 88931
paid for the license being renewed, and shall accompany the 88932
application for renewal.88933

       A license that has not been renewed during December in any 88934
year and by the first day of February of the following year may be 88935
reinstated only upon payment of the required renewal fee and a 88936
penalty fee of fifty-five dollars.88937

       (J)(1) No emergency medical service organization that is 88938
licensed as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall fail 88939
to comply with division (C)(2) or (3) of this section.88940

       (2) No emergency medical service organization that is 88941
licensed as a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall fail 88942
to comply with division (D) of this section.88943

       (3) No licensed terminal distributor of dangerous drugs shall 88944
possess, have custody or control of, or distribute dangerous drugs 88945
that the terminal distributor is not entitled to possess, have 88946
custody or control of, or distribute by virtue of its category of 88947
licensure.88948

       (4) No licensee that is required by division (F) of this 88949
section to notify the board of changes in its protocol or standing 88950
orders, or in personnel, shall fail to comply with that division.88951

       Sec. 4729.542.  (A) As used in this section, "remote 88952
dispensing system" means a mechanical system for dispensing drugs 88953
that is installed in a facility and communicates electronically 88954
with a pharmacy.88955

       (B) A pharmacy licensed under this chapter as a terminal 88956
distributor of dangerous drugs may use a remote dispensing system 88957
to assist in the distribution of dangerous drugs at a nursing home 88958
or residential care facility licensed under Chapter 3721. of the 88959
Revised Code if all of the following requirements are met:88960

       (1) The system has a documented and ongoing quality assurance 88961
program that monitors total system performance and requires one 88962
hundred per cent accuracy in drugs dispensed and their strength.88963

       (2) The system has security adequate to prevent unauthorized 88964
access to dangerous drugs.88965

       (3) Records kept by the system comply with requirements of 88966
the state board of pharmacy.88967

       (C) A pharmacist licensed under this chapter is not required 88968
to maintain supervision and control of a remote dispensing system 88969
or be physically present at the facility where the system is used 88970
to dispense drugs.88971

       (D) As part of the quality assurance program required by 88972
division (B)(1) of this section, the facility where the remote 88973
dispensing system is located shall complete periodic audits of 88974
controlled substances dispensed through the system.88975

       Sec. 4729.69. (A) The state board of pharmacy, in 88976
collaboration with the director of alcohol and drug addiction 88977
servicesmental health and addiction services and attorney 88978
general, shall establish and administer a drug take-back program 88979
under which drugs are collected from the community for the purpose 88980
of destruction or disposal of the drugs.88981

       (B) The program shall be established and administered in such 88982
a manner that it does both of the following:88983

       (1) Complies with any state or federal laws regarding the 88984
collection, destruction, or disposal of drugs;88985

       (2) Maintains the confidentiality of individuals who submit 88986
or otherwise provide drugs under the program.88987

       (C) In consultation with the director of alcohol and drug 88988
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services and 88989
attorney general, the board shall adopt rules governing the 88990
program. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 88991
119. of the Revised Code. In adopting the rules, the board shall 88992
specify all of the following:88993

       (1) The entities that may participate;88994

       (2) Guidelines and responsibilities for accepting drugs by 88995
participating entities;88996

       (3) Drugs that may be collected;88997

       (4) Record-keeping requirements;88998

       (5) Proper methods to destroy unused drugs;88999

       (6) Privacy protocols and security standards;89000

       (7) Drug transportation procedures;89001

       (8) The schedule, duration, and frequency of the collections 89002
of drugs, except that the first collection shall occur not later 89003
than one year after the effective date of this sectionMay 20, 89004
2011;89005

       (9) Any other standards and procedures the board considers 89006
necessary for purposes of governing the program.89007

       (D) In accordance with state and federal law, the board may 89008
adopt rules to allow an entity participating in the program to 89009
return any unused drugs to the pharmacy that originally dispensed 89010
the drug. The rules shall include procedures to be followed to 89011
maintain the confidentiality of the person for whom the drug was 89012
dispensed.89013

       (E) Rules adopted under this section may not do any of the 89014
following:89015

       (1) Require any entity to establish, fund, or operate a drug 89016
take-back program;89017

       (2) Establish any new licensing requirement or fee to 89018
participate in the program;89019

       (3) Require any entity to compile data on drugs collected.89020

       (F) The board may compile data on the amount and type of 89021
drugs collected under the program. For purposes of this division, 89022
the board may cooperate with a public or private entity in 89023
obtaining assistance in the compilation of data. An entity 89024
providing the assistance shall not be reimbursed under the program 89025
for any costs incurred in providing the assistance.89026

       (G) If the board compiles data under division (F) of this 89027
section, the board shall submit a report to the governor and, in 89028
accordance with section 101.68 of the Revised Code, the general 89029
assembly. The report, to the extent possible, shall include the 89030
following information:89031

       (1) Total weight of drugs collected, both with and without 89032
packaging;89033

       (2) The weight of controlled substances;89034

       (3) The amount of all of the following as a per cent of total 89035
drugs collected:89036

       (a) Controlled substances;89037

       (b) Brand name drugs;89038

       (c) Generic drugs;89039

       (d) Prescription drugs;89040

       (e) Non-prescription drugs.89041

       (4) The amount of vitamins, herbal supplements, and personal 89042
care products collected;89043

       (5) If provided by the person who submitted or otherwise 89044
donated drugs to the program, the reasons why the drugs were 89045
returned or unused.89046

       (H) No entity is required to participate in a drug take-back 89047
program established under this section, and no entity shall be 89048
subject to civil liability or professional disciplinary action for 89049
declining to participate.89050

       (I) The board may accept grants, gifts, or donations for 89051
purposes of the program. Money received under this division shall 89052
be deposited into the drug take-back program fund established 89053
under section 109.90 of the Revised Code.89054

       Sec. 4729.77. (A) If the state board of pharmacy establishes 89055
and maintains a drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of the 89056
Revised Code, each pharmacy licensed as a terminal distributor of 89057
dangerous drugs that dispenses drugs to patients in this state and 89058
is included in the types of pharmacies specified in rules adopted 89059
under section 4729.84 of the Revised Code shall submit to the 89060
board the following prescription information:89061

       (1) Terminal distributor identification;89062

        (2) Patient identification;89063

        (3) Prescriber identification;89064

        (4) Date prescription was issued by prescriber;89065

        (5) Date drug was dispensed;89066

        (6) Indication of whether the drug dispensed is new or a 89067
refill;89068

        (7) Name, strength, and national drug code of the drug 89069
dispensed;89070

        (8) Quantity of drug dispensed;89071

        (9) Number of days' supply of drug dispensed;89072

        (10) Serial or prescription number assigned by the terminal 89073
distributor;89074

        (11) Source of payment for the drug dispensed.89075

       (B)(1) The information shall be transmitted as specified by 89076
the board in rules adopted under section 4729.84 of the Revised 89077
Code.89078

       (2) The information shall be submitted electronically in the 89079
format specified by the board, except that the board may grant a 89080
waiver allowing the distributor to submit the information in 89081
another format.89082

       (3) The information shall be submitted in accordance with any 89083
time limits specified by the boardnot less than once each day 89084
that the distributor conducts business, except that the board may 89085
grant an extension if either of the following occurs:89086

       (a) The distributor suffers a mechanical or electronic 89087
failure, or cannot meet the deadline for other reasons beyond the 89088
distributor's control.89089

       (b) The board is unable to receive electronic submissions.89090

       (C) This section does not apply to a prescriber personally 89091
furnishing or administering dangerous drugs to the prescriber's 89092
patient.89093

       Sec. 4729.78. (A) If the state board of pharmacy establishes 89094
and maintains a drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of the 89095
Revised Code, each wholesale distributor of dangerous drugs that 89096
delivers drugs in this state to prescribers or terminal 89097
distributors of dangerous drugs shall submit to the board the 89098
following purchase information:89099

       (1) Purchaser identification;89100

       (2) Identification of the drug sold;89101

       (3) Quantity of the drug sold;89102

       (4) Date of sale;89103

       (5) The wholesale distributor's license number issued by the 89104
board.89105

       (B)(1) The information shall be transmitted as specified by 89106
the board in rules adopted under section 4729.84 of the Revised 89107
Code.89108

       (2) The information shall be submitted electronically in the 89109
format specified by the board, except that the board may grant a 89110
waiver allowing the distributor to submit the information in 89111
another format.89112

       (3) The information shall be submitted in accordance with any 89113
time limits specified by the boardnot less than once each day 89114
that the distributor conducts business, except that the board may 89115
grant an extension if either of the following occurs:89116

       (a) The distributor suffers a mechanical or electronic 89117
failure, or cannot meet the deadline for other reasons beyond the 89118
distributor's control.89119

       (b) The board is unable to receive electronic submissions.89120

       Sec. 4729.79.  (A) If the state board of pharmacy establishes 89121
and maintains a drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of the 89122
Revised Code, each licensed health professional authorized to 89123
prescribe drugs, except as provided in division (C) of this 89124
section, who personally furnishes to a patient a controlled 89125
substance or other dangerous drug the board includes in the 89126
database pursuant to rules adopted under section 4729.84 of the 89127
Revised Code shall submit to the board the following information:89128

       (1) Prescriber identification;89129

       (2) Patient identification;89130

       (3) Date drug was furnished by the prescriber;89131

       (4) Indication of whether the drug furnished is new or a 89132
refill;89133

       (5) Name, strength, and national drug code of drug furnished;89134

       (6) Quantity of drug furnished;89135

       (7) Number of days' supply of drug furnished;89136

       (8) Source of payment for the drug furnished;89137

       (9) Identification of the owner of the drug furnished.89138

       (B)(1) The information shall be transmitted as specified by 89139
the board in rules adopted under section 4729.84 of the Revised 89140
Code.89141

       (2) The information shall be submitted electronically in the 89142
format specified by the board, except that the board may grant a 89143
waiver allowing the prescriber to submit the information in 89144
another format.89145

       (3) The information shall be submitted in accordance with any 89146
time limits specified by the boardnot less than once each day 89147
that the prescriber conducts business, except that the board may 89148
grant an extension if either of the following occurs:89149

       (a) The prescriber's transmission system suffers a mechanical 89150
or electronic failure, or the prescriber cannot meet the deadline 89151
for other reasons beyond the prescriber's control.89152

       (b) The board is unable to receive electronic submissions.89153

       (C)(1) The information required to be submitted under 89154
division (A) of this section may be submitted on behalf of the 89155
prescriber by the owner of the drug being personally furnished or 89156
by a delegate approved by that owner.89157

        (2) The requirements of this section to submit information to 89158
the board do not apply to a prescriber who is a veterinarian.89159

        (D) If the board becomes aware of a prescriber's failure to 89160
comply with this section, the board shall notify the government 89161
entity responsible for licensing the prescriber.89162

       Sec. 4729.80. (A) If the state board of pharmacy establishes 89163
and maintains a drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of the 89164
Revised Code, the board is authorized or required to provide 89165
information from the database in accordance with the following:89166

       (1) On receipt of a request from a designated representative 89167
of a government entity responsible for the licensure, regulation, 89168
or discipline of health care professionals with authority to 89169
prescribe, administer, or dispense drugs, the board may provide to 89170
the representative information from the database relating to the 89171
professional who is the subject of an active investigation being 89172
conducted by the government entity.89173

       (2) On receipt of a request from a federal officer, or a 89174
state or local officer of this or any other state, whose duties 89175
include enforcing laws relating to drugs, the board shall provide 89176
to the officer information from the database relating to the 89177
person who is the subject of an active investigation of a drug 89178
abuse offense, as defined in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code, 89179
being conducted by the officer's employing government entity.89180

       (3) Pursuant to a subpoena issued by a grand jury, the board 89181
shall provide to the grand jury information from the database 89182
relating to the person who is the subject of an investigation 89183
being conducted by the grand jury.89184

       (4) Pursuant to a subpoena, search warrant, or court order in 89185
connection with the investigation or prosecution of a possible or 89186
alleged criminal offense, the board shall provide information from 89187
the database as necessary to comply with the subpoena, search 89188
warrant, or court order.89189

       (5) On receipt of a request from a prescriber or the 89190
prescriber's delegate approved by the board, the board may provide 89191
to the prescriber information from the database relating to a 89192
patient who is either of the following, if the prescriber 89193
certifies in a form specified by the board that it is for the 89194
purpose of providing medical treatment to the patient who is the 89195
subject of the request;89196

       (a) A current patient of the prescriber;89197

       (b) A potential patient of the prescriber based on a referral 89198
of the patient to the prescriber.89199

       (6) On receipt of a request from a pharmacist or the 89200
pharmacist's delegate approved by the board, the board may provide 89201
to the pharmacist information from the database relating to a 89202
current patient of the pharmacist, if the pharmacist certifies in 89203
a form specified by the board that it is for the purpose of the 89204
pharmacist's practice of pharmacy involving the patient who is the 89205
subject of the request.89206

       (7) On receipt of a request from an individual seeking the 89207
individual's own database information in accordance with the 89208
procedure established in rules adopted under section 4729.84 of 89209
the Revised Code, the board may provide to the individual the 89210
individual's own database information.89211

       (8) On receipt of a request from the medical director of a 89212
managed care organization that has entered into a data security 89213
agreement with the board required by section 5111.17105167.14 of 89214
the Revised Code, the board mayshall provide to the medical 89215
director information from the database relating to a medicaid 89216
recipient enrolled in the managed care organization, including 89217
information in the database related to prescriptions for the 89218
recipient that were not covered or reimbursed under a program 89219
administered by the department of medicaid.89220

       (9) On receipt of a request from the medicaid director of job 89221
and family services, the board mayshall provide to the director 89222
information from the database relating to a recipient of a program 89223
administered by the department of job and family services89224
medicaid, including information in the database related to 89225
prescriptions for the recipient that were not covered or paid by a 89226
program administered by the department. 89227

       (10) On receipt of a request from the administrator of 89228
workers' compensation, the board may provide to the administrator 89229
information from the database relating to a claimant under Chapter 89230
4121., 4123., 4127., or 4131. of the Revised Code.89231

        (11) On receipt of a request from a requestor described in 89232
division (A)(1), (2), (5), or (6) of this section who is from or 89233
participating with another state's prescription monitoring 89234
program, the board may provide to the requestor information from 89235
the database, but only if there is a written agreement under which 89236
the information is to be used and disseminated according to the 89237
laws of this state.89238

       (B) The state board of pharmacy shall maintain a record of 89239
each individual or entity that requests information from the 89240
database pursuant to this section. In accordance with rules 89241
adopted under section 4729.84 of the Revised Code, the board may 89242
use the records to document and report statistics and law 89243
enforcement outcomes.89244

        The board may provide records of an individual's requests for 89245
database information to the following:89246

        (1) A designated representative of a government entity that 89247
is responsible for the licensure, regulation, or discipline of 89248
health care professionals with authority to prescribe, administer, 89249
or dispense drugs who is involved in an active investigation being 89250
conducted by the government entity of the individual who submitted 89251
the requests for database information;89252

        (2) A federal officer, or a state or local officer of this or 89253
any other state, whose duties include enforcing laws relating to 89254
drugs and who is involved in an active investigation being 89255
conducted by the officer's employing government entity of the 89256
individual who submitted the requests for database information.89257

       (C) Information contained in the database and any information 89258
obtained from it is not a public record. Information contained in 89259
the records of requests for information from the database is not a 89260
public record. Information that does not identify a person may be 89261
released in summary, statistical, or aggregate form.89262

       (D) A pharmacist or prescriber shall not be held liable in 89263
damages to any person in any civil action for injury, death, or 89264
loss to person or property on the basis that the pharmacist or 89265
prescriber did or did not seek or obtain information from the 89266
database.89267

       Sec. 4729.81. If the state board of pharmacy establishes and 89268
maintains a drug database pursuant to section 4729.75 of the 89269
Revised Code, the board shall review the information in the drug 89270
database. If the board determines from the review that a violation 89271
of law may have occurred, it shall notify the appropriate law 89272
enforcement agency or a government entity responsible for the 89273
licensure, regulation, or discipline of licensed health 89274
professionals authorized to prescribe drugs and supply information 89275
required by the agency or entity for an investigation of the 89276
violation of law that may have occurred. The board also shall 89277
notify the medicaid director if the board determines that the 89278
violation may have been committed by a provider of services under 89279
a program administered by the department of medicaid.89280

       Sec. 4729.99.  (A) Whoever violates section 4729.16, division 89281
(A) or (B) of section 4729.38, or section 4729.57 of the Revised 89282
Code is guilty of a minor misdemeanor. Each day's violation 89283
constitutes a separate offense.89284

       (B) Whoever violates section 4729.27, 4729.28, or 4729.36 of 89285
the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree. 89286
Each day's violation constitutes a separate offense. If the 89287
offender previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a 89288
violation of this chapter, that person is guilty of a misdemeanor 89289
of the second degree.89290

       (C) Whoever violates section 4729.32, 4729.33, or 4729.34 of 89291
the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor.89292

       (D) Whoever violates division (A), (B), (D), or (E)(F) of 89293
section 4729.51 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of 89294
the first degree.89295

       (E)(1) Whoever violates section 4729.37, division (C)(2) of 89296
section 4729.51, division (J) of section 4729.54, or section 89297
4729.61 of the Revised Code is guilty of a felony of the fifth 89298
degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of or 89299
pleaded guilty to a violation of this chapter or a violation of 89300
Chapter 2925. or 3719. of the Revised Code, that person is guilty 89301
of a felony of the fourth degree.89302

       (2) If an offender is convicted of or pleads guilty to a 89303
violation of section 4729.37, division (C) of section 4729.51, 89304
division (J) of section 4729.54, or section 4729.61 of the Revised 89305
Code, if the violation involves the sale, offer to sell, or 89306
possession of a schedule I or II controlled substance, with the 89307
exception of marihuana, and if the court imposing sentence upon 89308
the offender finds that the offender as a result of the violation 89309
is a major drug offender, as defined in section 2929.01 of the 89310
Revised Code, and is guilty of a specification of the type 89311
described in section 2941.1410 of the Revised Code, the court, in 89312
lieu of the prison term authorized or required by division (E)(1) 89313
of this section and sections 2929.13 and 2929.14 of the Revised 89314
Code and in addition to any other sanction imposed for the offense 89315
under sections 2929.11 to 2929.18 of the Revised Code, shall 89316
impose upon the offender, in accordance with division (B)(3) of 89317
section 2929.14 of the Revised Code, the mandatory prison term 89318
specified in that division.89319

       (3) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of section 3719.21 89320
of the Revised Code, the clerk of court shall pay any fine imposed 89321
for a violation of section 4729.37, division (C) of section 89322
4729.51, division (J) of section 4729.54, or section 4729.61 of 89323
the Revised Code pursuant to division (A) of section 2929.18 of 89324
the Revised Code in accordance with and subject to the 89325
requirements of division (F) of section 2925.03 of the Revised 89326
Code. The agency that receives the fine shall use the fine as 89327
specified in division (F) of section 2925.03 of the Revised Code.89328

       (F) Whoever violates section 4729.531 of the Revised Code or 89329
any rule adopted thereunder or section 4729.532 of the Revised 89330
Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree.89331

       (G) Whoever violates division (C)(1) of section 4729.51 of 89332
the Revised Code is guilty of a felony of the fourth degree. If 89333
the offender has previously been convicted of or pleaded guilty to 89334
a violation of this chapter, or of a violation of Chapter 2925. or 89335
3719. of the Revised Code, that person is guilty of a felony of 89336
the third degree.89337

       (H) Whoever violates division (C)(3) of section 4729.51 of 89338
the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. 89339
If the offender has previously been convicted of or pleaded guilty 89340
to a violation of this chapter, or of a violation of Chapter 2925. 89341
or 3719. of the Revised Code, that person is guilty of a felony of 89342
the fifth degree.89343

       (I)(1) Whoever violates division (B) of section 4729.42 of 89344
the Revised Code is guilty of unauthorized pharmacy-related drug 89345
conduct. Except as otherwise provided in this section, 89346
unauthorized pharmacy-related drug conduct is a misdemeanor of the 89347
second degree. If the offender previously has been convicted of or 89348
pleaded guilty to a violation of division (B), (C), (D), or (E) of 89349
that section, unauthorized pharmacy-related drug conduct is a 89350
misdemeanor of the first degree on a second offense and a felony 89351
of the fifth degree on a third or subsequent offense.89352

       (2) Whoever violates division (C) or (D) of section 4729.42 89353
of the Revised Code is guilty of permitting unauthorized 89354
pharmacy-related drug conduct. Except as otherwise provided in 89355
this section, permitting unauthorized pharmacy-related drug 89356
conduct is a misdemeanor of the second degree. If the offender 89357
previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a violation 89358
of division (B), (C), (D), or (E) of that section, permitting 89359
unauthorized pharmacy-related drug conduct is a misdemeanor of the 89360
first degree on a second offense and a felony of the fifth degree 89361
on a third or subsequent offense.89362

       (3) Whoever violates division (E) of section 4729.42 of the 89363
Revised Code is guilty of the offense of falsification under 89364
section 2921.13 of the Revised Code. In addition to any other 89365
sanction imposed for the violation, the offender is forever 89366
disqualified from engaging in any activity specified in division 89367
(B)(1), (2), or (3) of section 4729.42 of the Revised Code and 89368
from performing any function as a health care professional or 89369
health care worker. As used in this division, "health care 89370
professional" and "health care worker" have the same meanings as 89371
in section 2305.234 of the Revised Code.89372

       (4) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of section 3719.21 89373
of the Revised Code or any other provision of law that governs the 89374
distribution of fines, the clerk of the court shall pay any fine 89375
imposed pursuant to division (I)(1), (2), or (3) of this section 89376
to the state board of pharmacy if the board has adopted a written 89377
internal control policy under division (F)(2) of section 2925.03 89378
of the Revised Code that addresses fine moneys that it receives 89379
under Chapter 2925. of the Revised Code and if the policy also 89380
addresses fine moneys paid under this division. The state board of 89381
pharmacy shall use the fines so paid in accordance with the 89382
written internal control policy to subsidize the board's law 89383
enforcement efforts that pertain to drug offenses.89384

       (J)(1) Whoever violates division (A)(1) of section 4729.86 of 89385
the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the third degree. 89386
If the offender has previously been convicted of or pleaded guilty 89387
to a violation of division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of section 4729.86 89388
of the Revised Code, that person is guilty of a misdemeanor of the 89389
first degree.89390

       (2) Whoever violates division (A)(2) of section 4729.86 of 89391
the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. 89392
If the offender has previously been convicted of or pleaded guilty 89393
to a violation of division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of section 4729.86 89394
of the Revised Code, that person is guilty of a felony of the 89395
fifth degree.89396

       (3) Whoever violates division (A)(3) of section 4729.86 of 89397
the Revised Code is guilty of a felony of the fifth degree. If the 89398
offender has previously been convicted of or pleaded guilty to a 89399
violation of division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of section 4729.86 of 89400
the Revised Code, that person is guilty of a felony of the fourth 89401
degree.89402

       (K) A person who violates division (C) of section 4729.552 of 89403
the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first degree. 89404
If the person previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty 89405
to a violation of division (C) of section 4729.552 of the Revised 89406
Code, that person is guilty of a felony of the fifth degree.89407

       Sec. 4730.411. (A) Except as provided in division (B) or (C) 89408
of this section, a physician assistant may prescribe to a patient 89409
a schedule II controlled substance only if all of the following 89410
are the case:89411

       (1) The patient is in a terminal condition, as defined in 89412
section 2133.01 of the Revised Code.89413

        (2) The physician assistant's supervising physician initially 89414
prescribed the substance for the patient.89415

        (3) The prescription is for an amount that does not exceed 89416
the amount necessary for the patient's use in a single, 89417
twenty-four-hour period.89418

        (B) The restrictions on prescriptive authority in division 89419
(A) of this section do not apply if a physician assistant issues 89420
the prescription to the patient from any of the following 89421
locations:89422

        (1) A hospital registered under section 3701.07 of the 89423
Revised Code;89424

       (2) An entity owned or controlled, in whole or in part, by a 89425
hospital or by an entity that owns or controls, in whole or in 89426
part, one or more hospitals;89427

       (3) A health care facility operated by the department of 89428
mental healthmental health and addiction services or the 89429
department of developmental disabilities;89430

        (4) A nursing home licensed under section 3721.02 of the 89431
Revised Code or by a political subdivision certified under section 89432
3721.09 of the Revised Code;89433

       (5) A county home or district home operated under Chapter 89434
5155. of the Revised Code that is certified under the medicare or 89435
medicaid program;89436

        (6) A hospice care program, as defined in section 3712.01 of 89437
the Revised Code;89438

       (7) A community mental health agencyservices provider, as 89439
defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code;89440

        (8) An ambulatory surgical facility, as defined in section 89441
3702.30 of the Revised Code;89442

       (9) A freestanding birthing center, as defined in section 89443
3702.513702.141 of the Revised Code;89444

       (10) A federally qualified health center, as defined in 89445
section 3701.047 of the Revised Code;89446

       (11) A federally qualified health center look-alike, as 89447
defined in section 3701.047 of the Revised Code;89448

       (12) A health care office or facility operated by the board 89449
of health of a city or general health district or the authority 89450
having the duties of a board of health under section 3709.05 of 89451
the Revised Code;89452

       (13) A site where a medical practice is operated, but only if 89453
the practice is comprised of one or more physicians who also are 89454
owners of the practice; the practice is organized to provide 89455
direct patient care; and the physician assistant has entered into 89456
a supervisory agreement with at least one of the physician owners 89457
who practices primarily at that site.89458

       (C) A physician assistant shall not issue to a patient a 89459
prescription for a schedule II controlled substance from a 89460
convenience care clinic even if the convenience care clinic is 89461
owned or operated by an entity specified in division (B) of this 89462
section.89463

       (D) A pharmacist who acts in good faith reliance on a 89464
prescription issued by a physician assistant under division (B) of 89465
this section is not liable for or subject to any of the following 89466
for relying on the prescription: damages in any civil action, 89467
prosecution in any criminal proceeding, or professional 89468
disciplinary action by the state board of pharmacy under Chapter 89469
4729. of the Revised Code.89470

       Sec. 4731.151.  (A) Naprapaths who received a certificate to 89471
practice from the board prior to March 2, 1992, may continue to 89472
practice naprapathy, as defined in rules adopted by the board. 89473
Such naprapaths shall practice in accordance with rules adopted by 89474
the board.89475

       (B)(1) As used in this division:89476

       (a) "Mechanotherapy" means all of the following:89477

       (i) Examining patients by verbal inquiry;89478

       (ii) Examination of the musculoskeletal system by hand;89479

       (iii) Visual inspection and observation;89480

       (iv) Diagnosing a patient's condition only as to whether the 89481
patient has a disorder of the musculoskeletal system;89482

       (v) In the treatment of patients, employing the techniques of 89483
advised or supervised exercise; electrical neuromuscular 89484
stimulation; massage or manipulation; or air, water, heat, cold, 89485
sound, or infrared ray therapy only to those disorders of the 89486
musculoskeletal system that are amenable to treatment by such 89487
techniques and that are identifiable by examination performed in 89488
accordance with division (B)(1)(a)(i) of this section and 89489
diagnosable in accordance with division (B)(1)(a)(ii) of this 89490
section.89491

       (b) "Educational requirements" means the completion of a 89492
course of study appropriate for certification to practice 89493
mechanotherapy on or before November 3, 1985, as determined by 89494
rules adopted under this chapter.89495

       (2) Mechanotherapists who received a certificate to practice 89496
from the board prior to March 2, 1992, may continue to practice 89497
mechanotherapy, as defined in rules adopted by the board. Such 89498
mechanotherapists shall practice in accordance with rules adopted 89499
by the board.89500

       A person authorized by this division to practice as a 89501
mechanotherapist may examine, diagnose, and assume responsibility 89502
for the care of patients with due regard for first aid and the 89503
hygienic and nutritional care of the patients. Roentgen rays shall 89504
be used by a mechanotherapist only for diagnostic purposes.89505

       (3) A person who holds a certificate to practice 89506
mechanotherapy and completed educational requirements in 89507
mechanotherapy on or before November 3, 1985, is entitled to use 89508
the title "doctor of mechanotherapy" and is a "physician" who 89509
performs "medical services" for the purposes of Chapters 4121. and 89510
4123. of the Revised Code and the medicaid program established 89511
under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code, and shall receive 89512
payment or reimbursement as provided under those chapters and that 89513
sectionprogram.89514

       Sec. 4731.23.  (A)(1)(a) The state medical board shall 89515
designate one or more attorneys at law who have been admitted to 89516
the practice of law, and who are classified as either 89517
administrative law attorney examiners or as administrative law 89518
attorney examiner administrators under the state job 89519
classification plan adopted under section 124.14 of the Revised 89520
Code, as hearing examiners, subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised 89521
Code, to conduct any hearing which the medical board is empowered 89522
to hold or undertake pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 89523

       (b) Notwithstanding the requirement of division (A)(1)(a) of 89524
this section that the board designate as a hearing examiner an 89525
attorney who is classified as either an administrative law 89526
attorney examiner or an administrative law attorney examiner 89527
administrator, the board may, subject to controlling board 89528
approvalsection 127.16 of the Revised Code, enter into a personal 89529
service contract with an attorney admitted to the practice of law 89530
in this state to serve on a temporary basis as a hearing examiner.89531

       (2) The hearing examiner shall hear and consider the oral and 89532
documented evidence introduced by the parties and issue in writing 89533
proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law to the board for 89534
their consideration within thirty days following the close of the 89535
hearing.89536

       (B) The board shall be given copies of the transcript of the 89537
record hearing and all exhibits and documents presented by the 89538
parties at the hearing.89539

       (C) The board shall, upon the favorable vote of three 89540
members, allow the parties or their counsel the opportunity to 89541
present oral arguments on the proposed findings of fact and 89542
conclusions of law of the hearing examiner prior to the board's 89543
final action.89544

       (D) The board shall render a decision and take action within 89545
sixty days following the receipt of the hearing examiner's 89546
proposed findings of fact and conclusions of law or within any 89547
longer period mutually agreed upon by the board and the 89548
certificate holder.89549

       (E) The final decision of the board in any hearing which the 89550
board is empowered to undertake shall be in writing and contain 89551
findings of fact and conclusions of law. Copies of the decision 89552
shall be delivered to the parties personally or by certified mail. 89553
The decision shall be final upon delivery or mailing, except that 89554
the certificate holder may appeal in the manner provided by 89555
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.89556

       Sec. 4731.299.  (A) The state medical board may issue, 89557
without examination, to an applicant who meets all of the 89558
requirements of this section an expedited certificate to practice 89559
medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery by 89560
endorsement.89561

        (B) An individual who seeks an expedited certificate to 89562
practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery 89563
by endorsement shall file with the board a written application on 89564
a form prescribed and supplied by the board. The application shall 89565
include all of the information the board considers necessary to 89566
process it.89567

       (C) To be eligible to receive an expedited certificate by 89568
endorsement, an applicant shall do both of the following:89569

       (1) Provide evidence satisfactory to the board that the 89570
applicant meets all of the following requirements:89571

       (a) Holds current certification in a medical specialty from a 89572
member board of the American board of medical specialties or from 89573
an American osteopathic association specialty certifying board;89574

       (b) Has passed one of the following:89575

       (i) Steps one, two, and three of the United States medical 89576
licensing examination;89577

       (ii) Levels one, two, and three of the comprehensive 89578
osteopathic medical licensing examination of the United States;89579

       (iii) Any other medical licensing examination recognized by 89580
the board.89581

       (c) For at least five years immediately preceding the date of 89582
application, has held a current, unrestricted license to practice 89583
medicine and surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery issued by 89584
the licensing authority of another state or a Canadian province;89585

       (d) For at least two years immediately preceding the date of 89586
application, has actively practiced medicine and surgery or 89587
osteopathic medicine and surgery in a clinical setting.89588

       (2) Certify to the board that all of the following are the 89589
case:89590

       (a) Not more than two malpractice claims have been filed 89591
against the applicant within a period of ten years and no 89592
malpractice claim against the applicant has resulted in total 89593
payment of more than five hundred thousand dollars.89594

       (b) The applicant does not have a criminal record according 89595
to the criminal records check required by section 4731.081 of the 89596
Revised Code.89597

       (c) The applicant does not have a medical condition that 89598
could affect the applicant's ability to practice according to 89599
acceptable and prevailing standards of care.89600

       (d) No adverse action has been taken against the applicant by 89601
a health care institution.89602

       (e) To the applicant's knowledge, no federal agency, medical 89603
society, medical association, or branch of the United States 89604
military has investigated or taken action against the applicant.89605

       (f) No professional licensing or regulatory authority has 89606
filed a complaint against, investigated, or taken action against 89607
the applicant and the applicant has not withdrawn a professional 89608
license application.89609

       (g) The applicant has not been suspended or expelled from any 89610
institution of higher education or school, including a medical 89611
school.89612

       (D) An applicant for an expedited certificate by endorsement 89613
shall comply with section 4731.081 of the Revised Code.89614

       (E) At the time of application, the applicant shall pay to 89615
the board a fee of one thousand dollars, no part of which shall be 89616
returned. No application shall be considered filed until the board 89617
receives the fee.89618

       (F) The board shall review all applications received under 89619
this section. If the board determines that an applicant meets the 89620
requirements for an expedited certificate to practice medicine and 89621
surgery or osteopathic medicine and surgery by endorsement, the 89622
board shall issue the certificate to the applicant. Each 89623
certificate issued by the board under this section shall be signed 89624
by the president and secretary of the board and attested by its 89625
seal.89626

       Sec. 4731.65.  As used in sections 4731.65 to 4731.71 of the 89627
Revised Code:89628

       (A)(1) "Clinical laboratory services" means either of the 89629
following:89630

       (a) Any examination of materials derived from the human body 89631
for the purpose of providing information for the diagnosis, 89632
prevention, or treatment of any disease or impairment or for the 89633
assessment of health;89634

       (b) Procedures to determine, measure, or otherwise describe 89635
the presence or absence of various substances or organisms in the 89636
body.89637

       (2) "Clinical laboratory services" does not include the mere 89638
collection or preparation of specimens.89639

       (B) "Designated health services" means any of the following:89640

       (1) Clinical laboratory services;89641

       (2) Home health care services;89642

       (3) Outpatient prescription drugs.89643

       (C) "Fair market value" means the value in arms-length 89644
transactions, consistent with general market value and:89645

       (1) With respect to rentals or leases, the value of rental 89646
property for general commercial purposes, not taking into account 89647
its intended use;89648

       (2) With respect to a lease of space, not adjusted to reflect 89649
the additional value the prospective lessee or lessor would 89650
attribute to the proximity or convenience to the lessor if the 89651
lessor is a potential source of referrals to the lessee.89652

       (D) "Governmental health care program" means any program 89653
providing health care benefits that is administered by the federal 89654
government, this state, or a political subdivision of this state, 89655
including the medicare program established under Title XVIII of 89656
the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, 89657
as amended, health care coverage for public employees, health care 89658
benefits administered by the bureau of workers' compensation, and 89659
the medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of the 89660
Revised Code.89661

       (E)(1) "Group practice" means a group of two or more holders 89662
of certificates under this chapter legally organized as a 89663
partnership, professional corporation or association, limited 89664
liability company, foundation, nonprofit corporation, faculty 89665
practice plan, or similar group practice entity, including an 89666
organization comprised of a nonprofit medical clinic that 89667
contracts with a professional corporation or association of 89668
physicians to provide medical services exclusively to patients of 89669
the clinic in order to comply with section 1701.03 of the Revised 89670
Code and including a corporation, limited liability company, 89671
partnership, or professional association described in division (B) 89672
of section 4731.226 of the Revised Code formed for the purpose of 89673
providing a combination of the professional services of 89674
optometrists who are licensed, certificated, or otherwise legally 89675
authorized to practice optometry under Chapter 4725. of the 89676
Revised Code, chiropractors who are licensed, certificated, or 89677
otherwise legally authorized to practice chiropractic or 89678
acupuncture under Chapter 4734. of the Revised Code, psychologists 89679
who are licensed, certificated, or otherwise legally authorized to 89680
practice psychology under Chapter 4732. of the Revised Code, 89681
registered or licensed practical nurses who are licensed, 89682
certificated, or otherwise legally authorized to practice nursing 89683
under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code, pharmacists who are 89684
licensed, certificated, or otherwise legally authorized to 89685
practice pharmacy under Chapter 4729. of the Revised Code, 89686
physical therapists who are licensed, certificated, or otherwise 89687
legally authorized to practice physical therapy under sections 89688
4755.40 to 4755.56 of the Revised Code, occupational therapists 89689
who are licensed, certificated, or otherwise legally authorized to 89690
practice occupational therapy under sections 4755.04 to 4755.13 of 89691
the Revised Code, mechanotherapists who are licensed, 89692
certificated, or otherwise legally authorized to practice 89693
mechanotherapy under section 4731.151 of the Revised Code, and 89694
doctors of medicine and surgery, osteopathic medicine and surgery, 89695
or podiatric medicine and surgery who are licensed, certificated, 89696
or otherwise legally authorized for their respective practices 89697
under this chapter, to which all of the following apply:89698

       (a) Each physician who is a member of the group practice 89699
provides substantially the full range of services that the 89700
physician routinely provides, including medical care, 89701
consultation, diagnosis, or treatment, through the joint use of 89702
shared office space, facilities, equipment, and personnel.89703

       (b) Substantially all of the services of the members of the 89704
group are provided through the group and are billed in the name of 89705
the group and amounts so received are treated as receipts of the 89706
group.89707

       (c) The overhead expenses of and the income from the practice 89708
are distributed in accordance with methods previously determined 89709
by members of the group.89710

       (d) The group practice meets any other requirements that the 89711
state medical board applies in rules adopted under section 4731.70 89712
of the Revised Code.89713

       (2) In the case of a faculty practice plan associated with a 89714
hospital with a medical residency training program in which 89715
physician members may provide a variety of specialty services and 89716
provide professional services both within and outside the group, 89717
as well as perform other tasks such as research, the criteria in 89718
division (E)(1) of this section apply only with respect to 89719
services rendered within the faculty practice plan.89720

       (F) "Home health care services" and "immediate family" have 89721
the same meanings as in the rules adopted under section 4731.70 of 89722
the Revised Code.89723

       (G) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 89724
the Revised Code.89725

       (H) A "referral" includes both of the following:89726

       (1) A request by a holder of a certificate under this chapter 89727
for an item or service, including a request for a consultation 89728
with another physician and any test or procedure ordered by or to 89729
be performed by or under the supervision of the other physician;89730

       (2) A request for or establishment of a plan of care by a 89731
certificate holder that includes the provision of designated 89732
health services.89733

       (I) "Third-party payer" has the same meaning as in section 89734
3901.38 of the Revised Code.89735

       Sec. 4731.71.  The auditor of state may implement procedures 89736
to detect violations of section 4731.66 or 4731.69 of the Revised 89737
Code within governmental health care programs administered by the 89738
state. The auditor of state shall report any violation of either 89739
section to the state medical board and shall certify to the 89740
attorney general in accordance with section 131.02 of the Revised 89741
Code the amount of any refund owed to a state-administered 89742
governmental health care program under section 4731.69 of the 89743
Revised Code as a result of a violation. If a refund is owed to 89744
the medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of the 89745
Revised Code, the auditor of state also shall report the amount to 89746
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid.89747

       The state medical board also may implement procedures to 89748
detect violations of section 4731.66 or 4731.69 of the Revised 89749
Code.89750

       Sec. 4734.41.  (A) As used in this section:89751

       (1) "Chemical dependency" means either of the following:89752

       (a) The chronic and habitual use of alcoholic beverages to 89753
the extent that the user no longer can control the use of alcohol 89754
or endangers the user's health, safety, or welfare or that of 89755
others;89756

       (b) The use of a controlled substance as defined in section 89757
3719.01 of the Revised Code, a harmful intoxicant as defined in 89758
section 2925.01 of the Revised Code, or a dangerous drug as 89759
defined in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code, to the extent that 89760
the user becomes physically or psychologically dependent on the 89761
substance, intoxicant, or drug or endangers the user's health, 89762
safety, or welfare or that of others.89763

       (2) "Mental illness" means a recognized psychiatric or 89764
psychological condition, disorder, or syndrome that has been 89765
diagnosed by a psychiatrist, psychologist, professional clinical 89766
counselor, or independent social worker as a condition, disorder, 89767
or syndrome that may pose a danger to the person diagnosed or 89768
others or may prevent the person from practicing the person's 89769
profession according to acceptable and prevailing standards of 89770
care.89771

       (B) The state chiropractic board shall establish a chemical 89772
dependency and mental illness monitoring program. The program 89773
shall be made available to any individual under the board's 89774
jurisdiction who has a chemical dependency or mental illness and 89775
meets the board's eligibility requirements for admission to and 89776
continued participation in the program. The board shall develop 89777
the program and may designate a coordinator to administer it or 89778
enter into a contract for the program to be administered by 89779
another entity through a coordinator. The board shall adopt rules 89780
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that establish 89781
standards and procedure for operating the program.89782

       (C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, all 89783
records of an individual's participation in the monitoring 89784
program, including medical records, chemical dependency records, 89785
and mental health records, shall be confidential, are not public 89786
records for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code, 89787
and are not subject to discovery by subpoena or admissble89788
admissible as evidence in any judicial proceeding. The program 89789
coordinator shall maintain all records as directed by the board.89790

       (D) The monitoring program's coordinator may disclose records 89791
or information regarding an individual's progress and status of 89792
participation in the program to the disciplinary section of the 89793
board and to any person or government entity that the program 89794
participant authorizes in writing to be given the records or 89795
information.89796

       In disclosing records or information under this division, the 89797
coordinator shall not include any record or information that is 89798
protected under section 3793.135119.27 of the Revised Code or any 89799
federal statute or regulation that provides for the 89800
confidentiality of mental health or substance abuse records.89801

       (E) In the absence of fraud or bad faith, the monitoring 89802
program's coordinator, the board and the board's employees and 89803
representatives are not liable for damages in any civil action as 89804
a result of disclosing records or information in accordance with 89805
division (D) of this section. In the absence of fraud or bad 89806
faith, any person reporting to the program an individual's 89807
chemical dependency or mental illness, or the progress or lack of 89808
progress of that individual with regard to treatment, is not 89809
liable for damages in any civil action as a result of the report.89810

       (F) The board may abstain from taking formal disciplinary 89811
action under section 4734.31 of the Revised Code against an 89812
individual because of the individual's chemical dependency or 89813
mental illness, if the individual meets the eligibility 89814
requirements for admission into the monitoring program and all of 89815
the following occur:89816

       (1) The individual enters into a monitoring agreement with 89817
the coordinator of the program;89818

       (2) The individual complies with the terms and conditions for 89819
continued participation in the program, as specified in the 89820
monitoring agreement;89821

       (3) The individual successfully completes the terms and 89822
conditions of the monitoring agreement, including the condition 89823
that the individual attain the ability to practice in accordance 89824
with acceptable and prevailing standards of care applicable to the 89825
practice of chiropractic.89826

       Sec. 4735.07.  (A) The superintendent of real estate, with 89827
the consent of the Ohio real estate commission, may enter into 89828
agreements with recognized national testing services to administer 89829
the real estate broker's examination under the superintendent's 89830
supervision and control, consistent with the requirements of this 89831
chapter as to the contents of such examination.89832

       (B) No applicant for a real estate broker's license shall 89833
take the broker's examination who has not established to the 89834
satisfaction of the superintendent that the applicant:89835

       (1) Is honest, truthful, and of good reputation;89836

       (2)(a) Has not been convicted of a felony or crime of moral 89837
turpitude, or if the applicant has been so convicted, the 89838
superintendent has disregarded the conviction because the 89839
applicant has proven to the superintendent, by a preponderance of 89840
the evidence, that the applicant's activities and employment 89841
record since the conviction show that the applicant is honest, 89842
truthful, and of good reputation, and there is no basis in fact 89843
for believing that the applicant again will violate the laws 89844
involved;89845

       (b) Has not been finally adjudged by a court to have violated 89846
any municipal, state, or federal civil rights laws relevant to the 89847
protection of purchasers or sellers of real estate or, if the 89848
applicant has been so adjudged, at least two years have passed 89849
since the court decision and the superintendent has disregarded 89850
the adjudication because the applicant has proven, by a 89851
preponderance of the evidence, that the applicant's activities and 89852
employment record since the adjudication show that the applicant 89853
is honest, truthful, and of good reputation, and there is no basis 89854
in fact for believing that the applicant will again violate the 89855
laws involved.89856

       (3) Has not, during any period in which the applicant was 89857
licensed under this chapter, violated any provision of, or any 89858
rule adopted pursuant to, this chapter, or, if the applicant has 89859
violated any such provision or rule, has established to the 89860
satisfaction of the superintendent that the applicant will not 89861
again violate such provision or rule;89862

       (4) Is at least eighteen years of age;89863

       (5) Has been a licensed real estate broker or salesperson for 89864
at least two years; during at least two of the five years 89865
preceding the person's application, has worked as a licensed real 89866
estate broker or salesperson for an average of at least thirty 89867
hours per week; and has completed one of the following:89868

       (a) At least twenty real estate transactions, in which 89869
property was sold for another by the applicant while acting in the 89870
capacity of a real estate broker or salesperson;89871

       (b) Such equivalent experience as is defined by rules adopted 89872
by the commission.89873

       (6)(a) If licensed as a real estate salesperson prior to 89874
August 1, 2001, successfully has completed at an institution of 89875
higher education all of the following:89876

       (i) Thirty hours of classroom instruction in real estate 89877
practice;89878

       (ii) Thirty hours of classroom instruction that includes the 89879
subjects of Ohio real estate law, municipal, state, and federal 89880
civil rights law, new case law on housing discrimination, 89881
desegregation issues, and methods of eliminating the effects of 89882
prior discrimination. If feasible, the classroom instruction in 89883
Ohio real estate law shall be taught by a member of the faculty of 89884
an accredited law school. If feasible, the classroom instruction 89885
in municipal, state, and federal civil rights law, new case law on 89886
housing discrimination, desegregation issues, and methods of 89887
eliminating the effects of prior discrimination shall be taught by 89888
a staff member of the Ohio civil rights commission who is 89889
knowledgeable with respect to those subjects. The requirements of 89890
this division do not apply to an applicant who is admitted to 89891
practice before the supreme court.89892

       (iii) Thirty hours of classroom instruction in real estate 89893
appraisal;89894

       (iv) Thirty hours of classroom instruction in real estate 89895
finance;89896

       (v) Three quarter hours, or its equivalent in semester hours, 89897
in financial management;89898

       (vi) Three quarter hours, or its equivalent in semester 89899
hours, in human resource or personnel management;89900

       (vii) Three quarter hours, or its equivalent in semester 89901
hours, in applied business economics;89902

       (viii) Three quarter hours, or its equivalent in semester 89903
hours, in business law.89904

       (b) If licensed as a real estate salesperson on or after 89905
August 1, 2001, successfully has completed at an institution of 89906
higher education all of the following:89907

       (i) Forty hours of classroom instruction in real estate 89908
practice;89909

       (ii) Forty hours of classroom instruction that includes the 89910
subjects of Ohio real estate law, municipal, state, and federal 89911
civil rights law, new case law on housing discrimination, 89912
desegregation issues, and methods of eliminating the effects of 89913
prior discrimination. If feasible, the classroom instruction in 89914
Ohio real estate law shall be taught by a member of the faculty of 89915
an accredited law school. If feasible, the classroom instruction 89916
in municipal, state, and federal civil rights law, new case law on 89917
housing discrimination, desegregation issues, and methods of 89918
eliminating the effects of prior discrimination shall be taught by 89919
a staff member of the Ohio civil rights commission who is 89920
knowledgeable with respect to those subjects. The requirements of 89921
this division do not apply to an applicant who is admitted to 89922
practice before the supreme court.89923

       (iii) Twenty hours of classroom instruction in real estate 89924
appraisal;89925

       (iv) Twenty hours of classroom instruction in real estate 89926
finance;89927

       (v) The training in the amount of hours specified under 89928
divisions (B)(6)(a)(v), (vi), (vii), and (viii) of this section.89929

       (c) Division (B)(6)(a) or (b) of this section does not apply 89930
to any applicant who holds a valid real estate salesperson's 89931
license issued prior to January 2, 1972. Divisions (B)(6)(a)(v), 89932
(vi), (vii), and (viii) or division (B)(6)(b)(v) of this section 89933
do not apply to any applicant who holds a valid real estate 89934
salesperson's license issued prior to January 3, 1984.89935

       (d) Divisions (B)(6)(a)(iii) and (B)(6)(b)(iii) of this 89936
section do not apply to any new applicant who holds a valid Ohio 89937
real estate appraiser license or certificate issued prior to the 89938
date of application for a real estate broker's license.89939

       (7) If licensed as a real estate salesperson on or after 89940
January 3, 1984, satisfactorily has completed a minimum of two 89941
years of post-secondary education, or its equivalent in semester 89942
or quarter hours, at an institution of higher education, and has 89943
fulfilled the requirements of division (B)(6)(a) or (b) of this 89944
section. The requirements of division (B)(6)(a) or (b) of this 89945
section may be included in the two years of post-secondary 89946
education, or its equivalent in semester or quarter hours, that is 89947
required by this division.89948

       (C) Each applicant for a broker's license shall be examined 89949
in the principles of real estate practice, Ohio real estate law, 89950
and financing and appraisal, and as to the duties of real estate 89951
brokers and real estate salespersons, the applicant's knowledge of 89952
real estate transactions and instruments relating to them, and the 89953
canons of business ethics pertaining to them. The commission from 89954
time to time shall promulgate such canons and cause them to be 89955
published in printed form.89956

       (D) Examinations shall be administered with reasonable 89957
accommodations in accordance with the requirements of the 89958
"Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990," 104 Stat. 327, 42 89959
U.S.C. 12101. The contents of an examination shall be consistent 89960
with the requirements of division (B)(6) of this section and with 89961
the other specific requirements of this section. An applicant who 89962
has completed the requirements of division (B)(6) of this section 89963
at the time of application shall be examined no later than twelve 89964
months after the applicant is notified of admission to the 89965
examination.89966

       (E) The superintendent may waive one or more of the 89967
requirements of this section in the case of an application from a 89968
nonresident real estate broker pursuant to a reciprocity agreement 89969
with the licensing authority of the state from which the 89970
nonresident applicant holds a valid real estate broker license.89971

       (F) There shall be no limit placed on the number of times an 89972
applicant may retake the examination.89973

       (G)(1) Not earlier than the date of issue of a real estate 89974
broker's license to a licensee, but not later than twelve months 89975
after the date of issue of a real estate broker's license to a 89976
licensee, the licensee shall submit proof satisfactory to the 89977
superintendent, on forms made available by the superintendent, of 89978
the completion of ten hours of classroom instruction that shall be 89979
completed in schools, seminars, and educational institutions that 89980
are approved by the commission. Approval of the curriculum and 89981
providers shall be granted according to rules adopted pursuant to 89982
section 4735.10 of the Revised Code.89983

       If the required proof of completion is not submitted to the 89984
superintendent within twelve months of the date a license is 89985
issued under this section, the license of the real estate broker 89986
is suspended automatically without the taking of any action by the 89987
superintendent. The broker's license shall not be reactivated by 89988
the superintendent until it is established, to the satisfaction of 89989
the superintendent, that the requirements of this division have 89990
been met and that the licensee is in compliance with this chapter. 89991
A licensee's license is revoked automatically without the taking 89992
of any action by the superintendent if the licensee fails to 89993
submit proof of completion of the education requirements specified 89994
under division (G)(1) of this section within twelve months of the 89995
date the license is suspended.89996

       (2) If the license of a real estate broker is suspended 89997
pursuant to division (G)(1) of this section, the license of a real 89998
estate salesperson associated with that broker correspondingly is 89999
suspended pursuant to division (H) of section 4735.20 of the 90000
Revised Code. However, the suspended license of the associated 90001
real estate salesperson shall be reactivated and no fee shall be 90002
charged or collected for that reactivation if all of the following 90003
occur:90004

       (a) That broker subsequently submits satisfactory proof to 90005
the superintendent that the broker has complied with the 90006
requirements of division (G)(1) of this section and requests that 90007
the broker's license as a real estate broker be reactivated;90008

       (b) The superintendent then reactivates the broker's license 90009
as a real estate broker;90010

       (c) The associated real estate salesperson intends to 90011
continue to be associated with that broker and otherwise is in 90012
compliance with this chapter.90013

       Sec. 4735.09.  (A) Application for a license as a real estate 90014
salesperson shall be made to the superintendent of real estate on 90015
forms furnished by the superintendent and signed by the applicant. 90016
The application shall be in the form prescribed by the 90017
superintendent and shall contain such information as is required 90018
by this chapter and the rules of the Ohio real estate commission. 90019
The application shall be accompanied by the recommendation of the 90020
real estate broker with whom the applicant is associated or with 90021
whom the applicant intends to be associated, certifying that the 90022
applicant is honest, truthful, and of good reputation, has not 90023
been convicted of a felony or a crime involving moral turpitude, 90024
and has not been finally adjudged by a court to have violated any 90025
municipal, state, or federal civil rights laws relevant to the 90026
protection of purchasers or sellers of real estate, which 90027
conviction or adjudication the applicant has not disclosed to the 90028
superintendent, and recommending that the applicant be admitted to 90029
the real estate salesperson examination.90030

       (B) A fee of sixty dollars shall accompany the application, 90031
which fee includes the fee for the initial year of the licensing 90032
period, if a license is issued. The initial year of the licensing 90033
period commences at the time the license is issued and ends on the 90034
applicant's first birthday thereafter. The application fee shall 90035
be nonrefundable. A fee of sixty dollars shall be charged by the 90036
superintendent for each successive application made by the 90037
applicant. One dollar of each application fee shall be credited to 90038
the real estate education and research fund.90039

       (C) There shall be no limit placed on the number of times an 90040
applicant may retake the examination.90041

       (D) The superintendent, with the consent of the commission, 90042
may enter into an agreement with a recognized national testing 90043
service to administer the real estate salesperson's examination 90044
under the superintendent's supervision and control, consistent 90045
with the requirements of this chapter as to the contents of the 90046
examination.90047

       If the superintendent, with the consent of the commission, 90048
enters into an agreement with a national testing service to 90049
administer the real estate salesperson's examination, the 90050
superintendent may require an applicant to pay the testing 90051
service's examination fee directly to the testing service. If the 90052
superintendent requires the payment of the examination fee 90053
directly to the testing service, each applicant shall submit to 90054
the superintendent a processing fee in an amount determined by the 90055
Ohio real estate commission pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 90056
4735.10 of the Revised Code.90057

       (E) The superintendent shall issue a real estate 90058
salesperson's license when satisfied that the applicant has 90059
received a passing score on each portion of the salesperson's 90060
examination as determined by rule by the real estate commission, 90061
except that the superintendent may waive one or more of the 90062
requirements of this section in the case of an applicant who is a 90063
licensed real estate salesperson in another state pursuant to a 90064
reciprocity agreement with the licensing authority of the state 90065
from which the applicant holds a valid real estate salesperson's 90066
license.90067

       (F) No applicant for a salesperson's license shall take the 90068
salesperson's examination who has not established to the 90069
satisfaction of the superintendent that the applicant:90070

       (1) Is honest, truthful, and of good reputation;90071

       (2)(a) Has not been convicted of a felony or crime of moral 90072
turpitude or, if the applicant has been so convicted, the 90073
superintendent has disregarded the conviction because the 90074
applicant has proven to the superintendent, by a preponderance of 90075
the evidence, that the applicant's activities and employment 90076
record since the conviction show that the applicant is honest, 90077
truthful, and of good reputation, and there is no basis in fact 90078
for believing that the applicant again will violate the laws 90079
involved;90080

       (b) Has not been finally adjudged by a court to have violated 90081
any municipal, state, or federal civil rights laws relevant to the 90082
protection of purchasers or sellers of real estate or, if the 90083
applicant has been so adjudged, at least two years have passed 90084
since the court decision and the superintendent has disregarded 90085
the adjudication because the applicant has proven, by a 90086
preponderance of the evidence, that the applicant is honest, 90087
truthful, and of good reputation, and there is no basis in fact 90088
for believing that the applicant again will violate the laws 90089
involved.90090

       (3) Has not, during any period in which the applicant was 90091
licensed under this chapter, violated any provision of, or any 90092
rule adopted pursuant to this chapter, or, if the applicant has 90093
violated such provision or rule, has established to the 90094
satisfaction of the superintendent that the applicant will not 90095
again violate such provision or rule;90096

       (4) Is at least eighteen years of age;90097

       (5) If born after the year 1950, has a high school diploma or 90098
its equivalent as recognized by the state department of education;90099

       (6) Has successfully completed at an institution of higher 90100
education all of the following:90101

       (a) Forty hours of classroom instruction in real estate 90102
practice;90103

       (b) Forty hours of classroom instruction that includes the 90104
subjects of Ohio real estate law, municipal, state, and federal 90105
civil rights law, new case law on housing discrimination, 90106
desegregation issues, and methods of eliminating the effects of 90107
prior discrimination. If feasible, the classroom instruction in 90108
Ohio real estate law shall be taught by a member of the faculty of 90109
an accredited law school. If feasible, the classroom instruction 90110
in municipal, state, and federal civil rights law, new case law on 90111
housing discrimination, desegregation issues, and methods of 90112
eliminating the effects of prior discrimination shall be taught by 90113
a staff member of the Ohio civil rights commission who is 90114
knowledgeable with respect to those subjects. The requirements of 90115
this division do not apply to an applicant who is admitted to 90116
practice before the supreme court.90117

       (c) Twenty hours of classroom instruction in real estate 90118
appraisal;90119

       (d) Twenty hours of classroom instruction in real estate 90120
finance.90121

       (G) Division (F)(6)(c) of this section does not apply to any 90122
new applicant who holds a valid Ohio real estate appraiser license 90123
or certificate issued prior to the date of application for a real 90124
estate salesperson's license.90125

       (H) Any person who has not been licensed as a real estate 90126
salesperson or broker within a four-year period immediately 90127
preceding the person's current application for the salesperson's 90128
examination shall have successfully completed the prelicensure 90129
classroom instruction required by division (F)(6) of this section 90130
within a ten-year period immediately preceding the person's 90131
current application for the salesperson's examination.90132

       (H)(I) Not earlier than the date of issue of a real estate 90133
salesperson's license to a licensee, but not later than twelve 90134
months after the date of issue of a real estate salesperson 90135
license to a licensee, the licensee shall submit proof 90136
satisfactory to the superintendent, on forms made available by the 90137
superintendent, of the completion of ten hours of classroom 90138
instruction that shall be completed in schools, seminars, and 90139
educational institutions approved by the commission. Approval of 90140
the curriculum and providers shall be granted according to rules 90141
adopted pursuant to section 4735.10 of the Revised Code.90142

       If proof of completion of the required instruction is not 90143
submitted within twelve months of the date a license is issued 90144
under this section, the licensee's license is suspended 90145
automatically without the taking of any action by the 90146
superintendent. The superintendent immediately shall notify the 90147
broker with whom such salesperson is associated of the suspension 90148
of the salesperson's license. A salesperson whose license has been 90149
suspended under this division shall have twelve months after the 90150
date of the suspension of the salesperson's license to submit 90151
proof of successful completion of the instruction required under 90152
this division. No such license shall be reactivated by the 90153
superintendent until it is established, to the satisfaction of the 90154
superintendent, that the requirements of this division have been 90155
met and that the licensee is in compliance with this chapter. A 90156
licensee's license is revoked automatically without the taking of 90157
any action by the superintendent when the licensee fails to submit 90158
the required proof of completion of the education requirements 90159
under division (H)(I) of this section within twelve months of the 90160
date the license is suspended.90161

       (I)(J) Examinations shall be administered with reasonable 90162
accommodations in accordance with the requirements of the 90163
"Americans with Disabilities Act of 1990," 104 Stat. 327, 42 90164
U.S.C. 12189. The contents of an examination shall be consistent 90165
with the classroom instructional requirements of division (F)(6) 90166
of this section. An applicant who has completed the classroom 90167
instructional requirements of division (F)(6) of this section at 90168
the time of application shall be examined no later than twelve 90169
months after the applicant is notified of the applicant's 90170
admission to the examination.90171

       Sec. 4735.10.  (A)(1) The Ohio real estate commission may 90172
adopt reasonable rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 90173
Revised Code, necessary for implementing the provisions of this 90174
chapter relating, but not limited to, the following:90175

       (a) The form and manner of filing applications for licensure;90176

       (b) Times and form of examination for license;90177

       (c) Placing an existing broker's license on deposit or a 90178
salesperson's license on an inactive status for an indefinite 90179
period;90180

       (d) Specifying the process by which a licensee may resign the 90181
licensee's license;90182

       (e) Defining any additional license status that the 90183
commission determines is necessary and that is not otherwise 90184
defined in this chapter and establishing the process by which a 90185
licensee places the licensee's license in a status defined by the 90186
commission in the rules the commission adopts;90187

       (f) Clarification of the activities that require a license 90188
under this chapter.90189

       (2) The commission shall adopt reasonable rules in accordance 90190
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, for implementing the 90191
provisions of this chapter relating to the following:90192

       (a) The issuance, renewal, suspension, and revocation of 90193
licenses, other sanctions that may be imposed for violations of 90194
this chapter, the conduct of hearings related to these actions, 90195
and the process of reactivating a license;90196

       (b) A three-year license and a three-year license renewal 90197
system;90198

       (c) Standards for the approval of the ten-hour postlicensure 90199
courses as required by division (G) of section 4735.07 and 90200
division (H)(I) of section 4735.09 of the Revised Code, courses of 90201
study required for licenses, courses offered in preparation for 90202
license examinations, or courses required as continuing education 90203
for licenses. 90204

       (d) Guidelines to ensure that continuing education classes 90205
are open to all persons licensed under this chapter. The rules 90206
shall specify that an organization that sponsors a continuing 90207
education class may offer its members a reasonable reduction in 90208
the fees charged for the class.90209

       (e) Requirements for trust accounts and property management 90210
accounts. The rules shall specify that:90211

       (i) Brokerages engaged in the management of property for 90212
another may, pursuant to a written contract with the property 90213
owner, exercise signatory authority for withdrawals from property 90214
management accounts maintained in the name of the property owner. 90215
The exercise of authority for withdrawals does not constitute a 90216
violation of any provision of division (A) of section 4735.18 of 90217
the Revised Code.90218

       (ii) The interest earned on property management trust 90219
accounts maintained in the name of the property owner or the 90220
broker shall be payable to the property owner unless otherwise 90221
specified in a written contract.90222

       (f) Notice of renewal forms and filing deadlines;90223

       (g) Special assessments under division (A) of section 4735.12 90224
of the Revised Code.90225

       (B) The commission may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 90226
119. of the Revised Code establishing standards and guidelines 90227
with which the superintendent of real estate shall comply in the 90228
exercise of the following powers:90229

       (1) Appointment and recommendation of ancillary trustees 90230
under section 4735.05 of the Revised Code;90231

       (2) Rejection of names proposed to be used by partnerships, 90232
associations, limited liability companies, limited liability 90233
partnerships, and corporations, under division (A) of section 90234
4735.06 of the Revised Code;90235

       (3) Acceptance and rejection of applications to take the 90236
broker and salesperson examinations and licensure, with 90237
appropriate waivers pursuant to division (E) of section 4735.07 90238
and section 4735.09 of the Revised Code;90239

       (4) Approval of applications of brokers to place their 90240
licenses in an inactive status and to become salespersons under 90241
section 4735.13 of the Revised Code;90242

       (5) Appointment of hearing examiners under section 119.09 of 90243
the Revised Code;90244

       (6) Acceptance and rejection of applications to take the 90245
foreign real estate dealer and salesperson examinations and 90246
licensure, with waiver of examination, under sections 4735.27 and 90247
4735.28 of the Revised Code;90248

       (7) Qualification of foreign real estate under section 90249
4735.25 of the Revised Code.90250

       If at any time there is no rule in effect establishing a 90251
guideline or standard required by this division, the 90252
superintendent may adopt a rule in accordance with Chapter 119. of 90253
the Revised Code for such purpose.90254

       (C) The commission or superintendent may hear testimony in 90255
matters relating to the duties imposed upon them, and the 90256
president of the commission and superintendent may administer 90257
oaths. The commission or superintendent may require other proof of 90258
the honesty, truthfulness, and good reputation of any person named 90259
in an application for a real estate broker's or real estate 90260
salesperson's license before admitting the applicant to the 90261
examination or issuing a license.90262

       Sec. 4735.142.  (A) Any person licensed under section 4735.07 90263
or 4735.09 of the Revised Code, at any time prior to the date the 90264
licensee is required to file a notice of renewal pursuant to 90265
division (B) of section 4735.14 of the Revised Code may apply to 90266
the superintendent of real estate and professional licensing to 90267
place the licensee's license in a permanently resigned status.90268

       (B) A licensee, at any time during which a license has been 90269
suspended pursuant to division (G) of section 4735.07, division 90270
(H)(I) of section 4735.09, division (E) of section 4735.12, 90271
division (C) of section 4735.14, division (C) of section 4735.141, 90272
or section 4735.182 of the Revised Code, may apply to the 90273
superintendent on a form prescribed by the superintendent to 90274
permanently resign the licensee's license voluntarily. The 90275
resignation of a license is considered to be final without the 90276
taking of any action by the superintendent. 90277

       (C) If a person whose license is in a permanently resigned 90278
status pursuant to a request made under this section wishes to 90279
obtain an active or inactive license, the person shall apply for 90280
such a license in accordance with the requirements specified in 90281
section 4735.07 or 4735.09 of the Revised Code, as applicable, or 90282
in the rules adopted by the commission pursuant to division (A) of 90283
section 4735.10 of the Revised Code.90284

       (D) If placing a broker's license in a permanently resigned 90285
status will result in the closure of the broker's brokerage, the 90286
broker, within three days after applying to the superintendent to 90287
place the license in a permanently resigned status, shall provide 90288
to each salesperson associated with that broker a written notice 90289
stating that fact.90290

       (E) This section does not apply to any licensee whose license 90291
has been suspended pursuant to division (F) of section 4735.181 of 90292
the Revised Code or due to disciplinary action ordered by the 90293
commission pursuant to section 4735.051 of the Revised Code.90294

       Sec. 4735.56. (A) Each brokerage shall develop a written 90295
brokerage policy on agency to be given to prospective sellers and 90296
purchasers in accordance with divisions (C) and (D) of this 90297
section.90298

       (B) The brokerage policy on agency described in division (A) 90299
of this section shall include all of the following information:90300

       (1) An explanation of the permissible agency relationships 90301
available under section 4735.53 of the Revised Code and the duties 90302
that the agent owes the agent's client;90303

       (2) The brokerage's policy on representation of purchasers or 90304
sellers;90305

       (3) Whether at some time during the agency relationship the 90306
brokerage and its licensee may act as a dual agent, and the 90307
options and consequences for the client if a dual agency situation 90308
arises including the right of the client to terminate the agency 90309
relationship and seek representation from another source;90310

       (4) Whether at some time during the agency relationship, 90311
another licensee affiliated with the same brokerage as the 90312
licensee may become the exclusive agent for the other party in the 90313
transaction and whether each licensee will represent only the 90314
interests of that licensee's client;90315

       (5) The brokerage's policy on cooperation with other 90316
brokerages, including whether the brokerage offers compensation to 90317
other brokerages or will seek compensation from other brokerages;90318

       (6) That a brokerage that has a purchaser as a client 90319
represents the purchaser's interests even though the seller's 90320
agent or the seller may compensate that purchaser's brokerage;90321

       (7) That the signature of the purchaser or the seller 90322
indicates acknowledgement of receipt of the brokerage policy on 90323
agency.90324

       (C) A licensee acting as a seller's agent shall provide the 90325
seller with the brokerage policy on agency described in this 90326
section prior to marketing or showing the seller's real estate and 90327
shall obtain a signature from the seller acknowledging receipt 90328
unless the seller refuses to provide a signature. If the seller 90329
refuses to provide a signature, the licensee shall note this on 90330
the policy.90331

       (D) A licensee working directly with a purchaser in a real 90332
estate transaction, whether as the purchaser's agent, the seller's 90333
agent, or the seller's subagent, shall provide the purchaser with 90334
the brokerage policy on agency described in this section and 90335
obtain a signature from the purchaser acknowledging receipt of the 90336
policy unless the purchaser refuses to provide a signature. If the 90337
purchaser refuses to provide a signature, the licensee shall note 90338
this on the policy. Except as provided in division (E) of this 90339
section, the licensee shall provide the brokerage policy on agency 90340
to a purchaser prior to the earliest of the following actions of 90341
the licensee:90342

       (1) Initiating a prequalification evaluation to determine 90343
whether the purchaser has the financial ability to purchase or 90344
lease a particular real estate property;90345

       (2) Requesting specific financial information from the 90346
purchaser to determine the purchaser's ability to purchase or 90347
finance real estate in a particular price range;90348

       (3) Showing the real estate to the purchaser other than at an 90349
open house;90350

       (4) Discussing, with the purchaser, the making of an offer to 90351
purchase or lease real estate;90352

       (5) Submitting an offer to purchase or lease real estate on 90353
behalf of the purchaser.90354

       (E) If the earliest event described in division (D) of this 90355
section is by telephone or electronic mail, the licensee shall 90356
disclose by that same medium the nature of the agency relationship 90357
that the licensee has with both the seller and the purchaser. The 90358
licensee shall provide the purchaser with the brokerage policy on 90359
agency described in this section at the first meeting with the 90360
purchaser following this disclosure of the agency relationship.90361

       (F) A licensee acting as a seller's agent is not required to 90362
provide a purchaser with the brokerage policy on agency described 90363
in this section except in the case of an event described in 90364
division (D) of this section.90365

       (G) The requirements of this section regarding provision of a 90366
brokerage policy on agency do not apply only in any of the 90367
following situations:90368

       (1) The sale or lease of vacant land;90369

       (2) The sale of a parcel of real estate containing one to 90370
four residential units;90371

       (3) The rental or leasing of residential premises as defined 90372
in section 5321.01 of the Revised Code, if the rental or lease 90373
agreement can be performed inis for a term of more than eighteen 90374
months or less;90375

       (2) The referral of a prospective purchaser or seller to 90376
another licensee;90377

       (3) Transactions involving the sale, lease, or exchange of 90378
foreign real estate as defined in division (E) of section 4735.01 90379
of the Revised Code;90380

       (4) Transactions involving the sale of a cemetery lot or a 90381
cemetery interment right.90382

       Sec. 4742.01.  As used in this chapter:90383

       (A) "Emergency service provider" has the same meaning as in 90384
section 5507.01128.01 of the Revised Code.90385

       (B) "Emergency service telecommunicator" means an individual 90386
employed by an emergency service provider, whose primary 90387
responsibility is to be an operator for the receipt or processing 90388
of calls for emergency services made by telephone, radio, or other 90389
electronic means.90390

       Sec. 4751.01.  As used in sections 4751.01 to 4751.114751.1390391
of the Revised Code:90392

       (A) "Long-term services and supports settings" means any 90393
institutional or community-based setting in which medical, health, 90394
psycho-social, habilitative, rehabilitative, or personal care 90395
services are provided to individuals on a post-acute care basis.90396

       (B) "Nursing home administrator" means any individual 90397
responsible for planning, organizing, directing, and managing the 90398
operation of a nursing home, or who in fact performs such 90399
function, whether or not such functions and duties are shared by 90400
one or more other persons.90401

       (B)(C) "Nursing home" means a nursing home as defined by or 90402
under the authority of section 3721.01 of the Revised Code, or a 90403
nursing home operated by a governmental agency.90404

       (C)(D) "Temporary license" means a license for a period not 90405
to exceed one hundred eighty days issued pursuant to division (B) 90406
of section 4751.06 of the Revised Code.90407

       (D)(E) "Valid license" means a license which is current and 90408
in good standing.90409

       Sec. 4751.02.  (A) No person shall operate a nursing home 90410
unless it is under the supervision of an administrator whose 90411
principal occupation is nursing home administration or hospital 90412
administration and who holds a valid nursing home administrator's 90413
license and registration, or a temporary license, issued pursuant 90414
to Chapter 4751. of the Revised Code.90415

       (B) No person other than a licensed and registered nursing 90416
home administrator or person holding a temporary license as 90417
required by Chapter 4751. of the Revised Code shall practice or 90418
offer to practice nursing home administration in this state. All 90419
nursing home administrators and temporary licensees shall comply 90420
with Chapter 4751. of the Revised Code and the regulations adopted 90421
thereunder.90422

       (C) Every operator of a nursing home shall report to the 90423
board of examinersexecutives of nursing home administrators90424
long-term services and supports the name and license number of 90425
each nursing home administrator for said home within ten days 90426
after the operator engages a nursing home administrator, and 90427
within ten days after a nursing home administrator is no longer 90428
engaged as such by such operator for said home.90429

       (D) Each individual who holds a nursing home administrator 90430
license or temporary license shall report histhe individual's90431
residence mailing address and the name and address of each place 90432
of employment to the board within ten days after any change.90433

       Sec. 4751.03.  (A) There is hereby established in the 90434
department of healthaging a board of examinersexecutives of 90435
nursing home administratorslong-term services and supports, which 90436
board shall be composed of ninethe following eleven members, 90437
eight of whom shall be representative of the professions and 90438
institutions concerned with care and treatment of chronically ill 90439
or infirm aged patients, and one of whom shall be a public member 90440
at least sixty years of age, provided that less than a majority of 90441
the board members shall be representative of a single profession 90442
or institutional category, and provided further that a person 90443
appointed as a noninstitutional member shall neither have nor 90444
acquire any direct financial interest in a nursing home. For 90445
purposes of this section, nursing home administrators are 90446
considered representatives of institutions.90447

       Four members shall be nursing home administrators, owners of 90448
nursing homes or an officer of a corporation owning a nursing 90449
home. The director of health or his designated representative 90450
shall be a member. All:90451

       (1) Four members who are nursing home administrators, owners 90452
of nursing homes, or officers of corporations owning nursing 90453
homes, and who shall have an understanding of person-centered 90454
care, and experience with a range of long-term services and 90455
supports settings;90456

       (2) Three members who work in long-term services and supports 90457
settings that are not nursing homes, and who shall have an 90458
understanding of person-centered care, and experience with a range 90459
of long-term services and supports settings;90460

       (3) One member who is a member of the academic community;90461

       (4) One member who is a consumer of services offered in a 90462
long-term services and supports setting;90463

       (5) One member who is a representative of the department of 90464
health, designated by the director of health, who is involved in 90465
the nursing home survey and certification process;90466

       (6) One member who is a representative of the office of the 90467
state long-term care, designated by the state long-term care 90468
ombudsman.90469

       All members of the board shall be citizens of the United 90470
States and residents of this state. No member of the board who is 90471
appointed under divisions (A)(3) to (6) of this section may have 90472
or acquire any direct financial interest in a nursing home or 90473
long-term services and supports settings.90474

       (B) The term of office for each appointed member of the board 90475
shall be for three years, commencing on the twenty-eighth day of 90476
May and ending on the twenty-seventh day of May. Each member shall 90477
serve from the date of his appointment until the end of the term 90478
for which he was appointed. No member shall serve more than two 90479
consecutive full terms.90480

       (C) Appointments to the board shall be made by the governor. 90481
Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the 90482
expiration of the term for which histhe member's predecessor was 90483
appointed shall hold office for the remainder of such term. Any 90484
appointed member shall continue in office subsequent to the 90485
expiration date of histhe member's term until histhe member's90486
successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days has 90487
elapsed, whichever occurs first.90488

       (D) The governor may remove any member of the board for 90489
misconduct, incapacity, incompetence, or neglect of duty after the 90490
member so charged has been served with a written statement of 90491
charges and has been given an opportunity to be heard.90492

       (E) Each member of the board, except the member designated by 90493
the director of health or hisand the member designated 90494
representativeby the ombudsman, shall be paid in accordance with 90495
section 124.15 of the Revised Code and each member shall be 90496
reimbursed for histhe member's actual and necessary expenses 90497
incurred in the discharge of such duties.90498

       (F) The board shall elect annually from its membership a90499
chairmanchairperson and a vice-chairmanvice-chairperson.90500

       (G) The board shall hold and conduct meetings quarterly and 90501
at such other times as its business requires. A majority of the 90502
board shall constitute a quorum. The affirmative vote of a 90503
majority of the members of the board is necessary for the board to 90504
act.90505

       (H) The board shall appoint a secretary who has no financial 90506
interest in a nursing homelong-term services and supports 90507
setting, and may employ and prescribe the powers and duties of 90508
such employees and consultants as are necessary to carry out this 90509
chapter and the rules adopted under it. Administrative, technical, 90510
or other services shall be performed, insofar as practicable, by 90511
personnel of the department of health.90512

       Sec. 4751.04.  (A) The board of examinersexecutives of 90513
nursing home administratorslong-term services and supports shall:90514

       (1) Develop, adopt, impose, and enforce regulations 90515
prescribing standards which must be met by individuals in order to 90516
receive a license as a nursing home administrator, which standards 90517
shall be designed to ensure that nursing home administrators are 90518
of good character and are otherwise suitable, and who, by training 90519
and experience, are qualified to serve as nursing home 90520
administrators;90521

       (2) Develop and apply appropriate techniques, including 90522
examinations and investigations, for determining whether an 90523
individual meets such standards;90524

       (3) Issue licenses and registrations to individuals 90525
determined, after application of such techniques, to meet such 90526
standards, and revoke or suspend licenses or registrations 90527
previously issued by the board in any case where the individual 90528
holding such license or registration is determined to have failed 90529
substantially to conform to the requirements of such standards;90530

       (4) Develop, adopt, impose, and enforce regulations and 90531
procedures designed to ensure that individuals holding a temporary 90532
license, or licensed as nursing home administrators will, during 90533
any period that they serve as such, comply with Chapter 4751. of 90534
the Revised Code and the regulations adopted thereunder;90535

       (5) Receive, investigate, and take appropriate action with 90536
respect to any charge or complaint filed with the board to the 90537
effect that any individual licensed as a nursing home 90538
administrator has failed to comply with Chapter 4751. of the 90539
Revised Code and the regulations adopted thereunder;90540

       (6) Take such other actions as may be necessary to enable the 90541
state to meet the requirements set forth in the "Social Security 90542
Amendments of 1967," 81 Stat. 908 (1968), 42 U.S.C. 1396 g;90543

       (7) Pay all license and registration fees collected under 90544
Chapter 4751. of the Revised Code into the general operations90545
board of executives of long-term services and support fund created 90546
by section 3701.834751.14 of the Revised Code to be used in 90547
administering and enforcing this chapter and the rules adopted 90548
under it;90549

       (8) Administer, or contract with a government or private 90550
entity to administer, examinations for licensure as a nursing home 90551
administrator. If the board contracts with a government or private 90552
entity to administer the examinations, the contract may authorize 90553
the entity to collect and keep, as all or part of the entity's 90554
compensation under the contract, any fee an applicant for 90555
licensure pays to take an examination. The entity is not required 90556
to deposit the fee into the state treasury;90557

       (9) Enter into a contract with the department of aging as 90558
required under section 4751.042 of the Revised Code;90559

       (10) Create opportunities for the education, training, and 90560
credentialing of nursing home administrators and others in 90561
leadership positions who practice in long-term services and 90562
supports settings or who direct the practices of others in those 90563
settings. In carrying out this function, the board shall do the 90564
following:90565

       (a) Identify core competencies and areas of knowledge that 90566
are appropriate for nursing home administrators and others working 90567
within the long-term services and supports settings system, with 90568
an emphasis on all of the following:90569

       (i) Leadership;90570

       (ii) Person-centered care;90571

       (iii) Principles of management within both the business and 90572
regulatory environments;90573

       (iv) An understanding of all post-acute settings, including 90574
transitions from acute settings and between post-acute settings.90575

       (b) Assist in the development of a strong, competitive market 90576
in Ohio for training, continuing education, and degree programs in 90577
long-term services and supports settings administration.90578

       (B) In the administration and enforcement of Chapter 4751. of 90579
the Revised Code, and the regulations adopted thereunder, the 90580
board is subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and sections 90581
4743.01 and 4743.02 of the Revised Code except that a notice of 90582
appeal of an order of the board adopting, amending, or rescinding 90583
a rule or regulation does not operate as a stay of the effective 90584
date of such order as provided in section 119.11 of the Revised 90585
Code. The court, at its discretion, may grant a stay of any 90586
regulation in its application against the person filing the notice 90587
of appeal.90588

       Sec. 4751.041.  Except when the board of examinersexecutives90589
of nursing home administratorslong-term services and supports90590
considers it necessary, the board shall not disclose test 90591
materials, examinations, or evaluation tools used in an 90592
examination for licensure as a nursing home administrator that the 90593
board administers under section 4751.04 of the Revised Code or 90594
contracts under that section with a private or government entity 90595
to administer.90596

       Sec. 4751.042.  (A) The board of executives of long-term 90597
services and supports shall enter into a written agreement with 90598
the department of aging for the department to serve as the board's 90599
fiscal agent. The fiscal agent shall be responsible for all the 90600
board's fiscal matters and financial transactions, as specified in 90601
the agreement. The written agreement shall specify the fees that 90602
the board shall pay to the fiscal agent for services performed 90603
under the agreement, and such fees shall be in proportion to the 90604
services performed for the board.90605

       (1) The agreement shall require the fiscal agent to provide 90606
the following services:90607

       (a) Preparation and processing of payroll and other personnel 90608
documents that the board approves;90609

       (b) Maintenance of ledgers of accounts and reports of account 90610
balances, and monitoring of budgets and allotment plans in 90611
consultation with the board;90612

       (c) Performance of other routine support services, specified 90613
in the agreement, that the fiscal agent considers appropriate to 90614
achieve efficiency.90615

       (2) The agreement may require the fiscal agent to provide the 90616
following services:90617

       (a) Any shared services between the board and the fiscal 90618
agent;90619

       (b) Any other services agreed to by the board and the 90620
department, including administrative or technical services.90621

       (B) The board, in conjunction and consultation with the 90622
fiscal agent, has the following authority and responsibility 90623
relative to fiscal matters:90624

       (1) Sole authority to expend funds from the board's accounts 90625
for programs and any other necessary expenses the board may incur;90626

       (2) Responsibility to cooperate with and inform the fiscal 90627
agent fully of all financial transactions.90628

       (C) The board shall follow all state procurement, fiscal, 90629
human resources, information technology, statutory, and 90630
administrative rule requirements.90631

       (D) In its role as fiscal agent for the board, the department 90632
shall serve as a contractor of the board, and does not assume 90633
responsibility for the debts or fiscal obligations of the board.90634

       Sec. 4751.05.  (A) The board of examinersexecutives of 90635
nursing home administratorslong-term services and supports, or a 90636
government or private entity under contract with the board to 90637
administer examinations for licensure as a nursing home 90638
administrator, shall admit to an examination any candidate who:90639

       (1) Pays the application fee of fifty dollars;90640

       (2) Submits evidence of good moral character and suitability;90641

       (3) Is at least eighteen years of age;90642

       (4) Has completed educational requirements and work 90643
experience satisfactory to the board;90644

       (5) Submits an application on forms prescribed by the board;90645

       (6) Pays the examination fee charged by the board or 90646
government or private entity.90647

       (B) Nothing in Chapter 4751. of the Revised Code or the rules 90648
adopted thereunder shall be construed to require an applicant for 90649
licensure or a temporary license, who is employed by an 90650
institution for the care and treatment of the sick to demonstrate 90651
proficiency in any medical techniques or to meet any medical 90652
educational qualifications or medical standards not in accord with 90653
the remedial care and treatment provided by the institution if the 90654
institution is all of the following:90655

       (1) Operated exclusively for patients who use spiritual means 90656
for healing and for whom the acceptance of medical care is 90657
inconsistent with their religious beliefs;90658

       (2) Accredited by a national accrediting organization;90659

       (3) Exempt from federal income taxation under section 501 of 90660
the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1, 90661
as amended;90662

       (4) Providing twenty-four hour nursing care pursuant to the 90663
exemption in division (E) of section 4723.32 of the Revised Code 90664
from the licensing requirements of Chapter 4723. of the Revised 90665
Code.90666

       (C) If a person fails three times to attain a passing grade 90667
on the examination, said person, before the person may again be 90668
admitted to examination, shall meet such additional education or 90669
experience requirements, or both, as may be prescribed by the 90670
board.90671

       Sec. 4751.06.  (A) An applicant for licensure as a nursing 90672
home administrator who has successfully completed the requirements 90673
of section 4751.05 of the Revised Code, passed the examination 90674
administered by the board of examinersexecutives of nursing home 90675
administratorslong-term services and supports or a government or 90676
private entity under contract with the board, and paid to the 90677
board an original license fee of two hundred fifty dollars shall 90678
be issued a license on a form provided by the board. Such license 90679
shall certify that the applicant has met the licensure 90680
requirements of Chapter 4751. of the Revised Code and is entitled 90681
to practice as a licensed nursing home administrator.90682

       (B) A temporary license for a period not to exceed one 90683
hundred eighty days may be issued to an individual temporarily 90684
filling the position of a nursing home administrator vacated by 90685
reason of death, illness, or other unexpected cause, pursuant to 90686
regulations adopted by the board.90687

       (C) The fee for a temporary license is one hundred dollars. 90688
Said fee must accompany the application for the temporary license.90689

       (D) Any license or temporary license issued by the board 90690
pursuant to this section shall be under the hand of the 90691
chairperson and the secretary of the board.90692

       (E) A duplicate of the original certificate of registration 90693
or license may be secured to replace one that has been lost or 90694
destroyed by submitting to the board a notarized statement 90695
explaining the conditions of the loss, mutilation, or destruction 90696
of the certificate or license and by paying a fee of twenty-five 90697
dollars.90698

       (F) A duplicate certificate of registration and license may 90699
be issued in the event of a legal change of name by submitting to 90700
the board a certified copy of the court order or marriage license 90701
establishing the change of name, by returning at the same time the 90702
original license and certificate of registration, and by paying a 90703
fee of twenty-five dollars.90704

       Sec. 4751.07.  (A) Every individual who holds a valid license 90705
as a nursing home administrator issued under division (A) of 90706
section 4751.06 of the Revised Code, shall immediately upon 90707
issuance thereof be registered with the board of examiners90708
executives of nursing home administratorslong-term services and 90709
supports and be issued a certificate of registration. Such 90710
individual shall annually apply to the board for a new certificate 90711
of registration on forms provided for such purpose prior to the 90712
expiration of the certificate of registration and shall at the 90713
same time submit satisfactory evidence to the board of having 90714
attended such continuing education programs or courses of study as 90715
may be prescribed in rules adopted by the board.90716

       (B) Upon making an application for a new certificate of 90717
registration such individual shall pay the annual registration fee 90718
of three hundred dollars.90719

       (C) Upon receipt of such application for registration and the 90720
registration fee required by divisions (A) and (B) of this 90721
section, the board shall issue a certificate of registration to 90722
such nursing home administrator.90723

       (D) The license of a nursing home administrator who fails to 90724
comply with this section shall automatically lapse.90725

       (E) A nursing home administrator who has been licensed and 90726
registered in this state who determines to temporarily abandon the 90727
practice of nursing home administration shall notify the board in 90728
writing immediately; provided, that such individual may thereafter 90729
register to resume the practice of nursing home administration 90730
within the state upon complying with the requirements of this 90731
section regarding annual registration.90732

       (F) Only an individual who has qualified as a licensed and 90733
registered nursing home administrator under Chapter 4751. of the 90734
Revised Code and the rules adopted thereunder, and who holds a 90735
valid current registration certificate pursuant to this section, 90736
may use the title "nursing home administrator," or the 90737
abbreviation "N.H.A." after the individual's name. No other person 90738
shall use such title or such abbreviation or any other words, 90739
letters, sign, card, or device tending to indicate or to imply 90740
that the person is a licensed and registered nursing home 90741
administrator.90742

       (G) Every person holding a valid license entitling the person 90743
to practice nursing home administration in this state shall 90744
display said license in the nursing home which is the person's 90745
principal place of employment, and while engaged in the practice 90746
of nursing home administration shall have at hand the current 90747
registration certificate.90748

       (H) Every person holding a valid temporary license shall have 90749
such license at hand while engaged in the practice of nursing home 90750
administration.90751

       Sec. 4751.08.  The board of examinersexecutives of nursing 90752
home administratorslong-term services and supports, in its 90753
discretion, and otherwise subject to Chapter 4751. of the Revised 90754
Code and the rules adopted by the board thereunder prescribing the 90755
qualifications for a nursing home administrator license, may 90756
license a nursing home administrator without examination if hethe 90757
nursing home administrator has a valid license issued by the 90758
proper authorities of any other state, upon payment of a fee of 90759
one hundred fifty dollars, and upon submission of evidence 90760
satisfactory to the board both:90761

       (A) That such other state maintained a system and standard of 90762
qualifications and examinations for a nursing home administrator 90763
license which were substantially equivalent to those required in 90764
this state at the time such other license was issued by such other 90765
state;90766

       (B) That such other state gives similar recognition to 90767
nursing home administrators licensed in this state.90768

       Sec. 4751.10.  The license or registration, or both, or the 90769
temporary license of any person practicing or offering to practice 90770
nursing home administration, shall be revoked or suspended by the 90771
board of examinersexecutives of nursing home administrators90772
long-term services and supports if such licensee or temporary 90773
licensee:90774

       (A) Is unfit or incompetent by reason of negligence, habits, 90775
or other causes;90776

       (B) Has willfully or repeatedly violated any of the 90777
provisions of Chapter 4751. of the Revised Code or the regulations 90778
adopted thereunder; or willfully or repeatedly acted in a manner 90779
inconsistent with the health and safety of the patients of the 90780
nursing home in which hethe licensee or temporary licensee is the 90781
administrator;90782

       (C) Is guilty of fraud or deceit in the practice of nursing 90783
home administration or in histhe licensee's or temporary 90784
licensee's admission to such practice;90785

       (D) Has been convicted in a court of competent jurisdiction, 90786
either within or without this state, of a felony.90787

       Proceedings under this section shall be instituted by the 90788
board or shall be begun by filing with the board charges in 90789
writing and under oath.90790

       Sec. 4751.11.  (A) The board of examinersexecutives of 90791
nursing home administratorslong-term services and supports may, 90792
in its discretion, reissue a license or registration, or both, to 90793
any person whose license or registration, or both, has been 90794
revoked.90795

       (B) Application for the reissuance of a license or 90796
registration, or both, shall not be made prior to one year after 90797
revocation and shall be made in such manner as the board may 90798
direct.90799

       (C) If a person convicted of a felony is subsequently 90800
pardoned by the governor of the state where such conviction was 90801
had or by the president of the United States, or receives a final 90802
release granted by the adult parole authority of this state or its 90803
equivalent agency of another state, the board may, in its 90804
discretion, on application of such person and on the submission of 90805
evidence satisfactory to the board restore to such person the 90806
nursing home administrator's license or registration, or both.90807

       Sec. 4751.12.  On receipt of a notice pursuant to section 90808
3123.43 of the Revised Code, the board of examinersexecutives of90809
nursing home administratorslong-term services and supports shall 90810
comply with sections 3123.41 to 3123.50 of the Revised Code and 90811
any applicable rules adopted under section 3123.63 of the Revised 90812
Code with respect to a license issued pursuant to this chapter.90813

       Sec. 4751.13.  The board of examinersexecutives of nursing 90814
home administratorslong-term services and supports shall comply 90815
with section 4776.20 of the Revised Code.90816

       Sec. 4751.14.  There is hereby created in the state treasury 90817
the board of executives of long-term services and supports fund. 90818
The fund shall consist of license and registration fees collected 90819
under this chapter. Money in the fund shall be used by the board 90820
of executives of long-term services and supports to administer and 90821
enforce this chapter and the rules adopted under it. Investment 90822
earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.90823

       Sec. 4753.071.  A person who is required to meet the 90824
supervised professional experience requirement of division (F) of 90825
section 4753.06 of the Revised Code shall submit to the board of 90826
speech-language pathology and audiology an application for a 90827
conditional license. The application shall include a plan for the 90828
content of the supervised professional experience on a form the 90829
board shall prescribe. The board shall issue the conditional 90830
license to the applicant if the applicant meets the requirements 90831
of section 4753.06 of the Revised Code, other than the requirement 90832
to have obtained the supervised professional experience, and pays 90833
to the board the appropriate fee for a conditional license. An 90834
applicant may not begin employment until the conditional license 90835
has been issued.90836

       A conditional license authorizes an individual to practice 90837
speech-language pathology or audiology while completing the 90838
supervised professional experience as required by division (F) of 90839
section 4753.06 of the Revised Code. A person holding a 90840
conditional license may practice speech-language pathology or 90841
audiology while working under the supervision of a person fully 90842
licensed in accordance with this chapter. A conditional license is 90843
valid for eighteen months unless suspended or revoked pursuant to 90844
section 3123.47 or 4753.10 of the Revised Code.90845

       A person holding a conditional license may perform services 90846
for which reimbursementpayment will be sought under the medicare 90847
program established under Title XVIII of the "Social Security 90848
Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as amended, or the 90849
medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised 90850
Code but all requests for reimbursementpayment for such services 90851
shall be made by the person who supervises the person performing 90852
the services.90853

       Sec. 4755.11.  (A) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the 90854
Revised Code, the occupational therapy section of the Ohio 90855
occupational therapy, physical therapy, and athletic trainers 90856
board may suspend, revoke, or refuse to issue or renew an 90857
occupational therapist license, occupational therapy assistant 90858
license, occupational therapist limited permit, occupational 90859
therapy assistant limited permit, or reprimand, fine, place a 90860
license or limited permit holder on probation, or require the 90861
license or limited permit holder to take corrective action 90862
courses, for any of the following:90863

       (1) Conviction of an offense involving moral turpitude or a 90864
felony, regardless of the state or country in which the conviction 90865
occurred;90866

       (2) Violation of any provision of sections 4755.04 to 4755.13 90867
of the Revised Code;90868

       (3) Violation of any lawful order or rule of the occupational 90869
therapy section;90870

       (4) Obtaining or attempting to obtain a license or limited 90871
permit issued by the occupational therapy section by fraud or 90872
deception, including the making of a false, fraudulent, deceptive, 90873
or misleading statements in relation to these activities;90874

       (5) Negligence, unprofessional conduct, or gross misconduct 90875
in the practice of the profession of occupational therapy;90876

       (6) Accepting commissions or rebates or other forms of 90877
remuneration for referring persons to other professionals;90878

       (7) Communicating, without authorization, information 90879
received in professional confidence;90880

       (8) Using controlled substances, habit forming drugs, or 90881
alcohol to an extent that it impairs the ability to perform the 90882
work of an occupational therapist, occupational therapy assistant, 90883
occupational therapist limited permit holder, or occupational 90884
therapy assistant limited permit holder;90885

       (9) Practicing in an area of occupational therapy for which 90886
the individual is untrained or incompetent;90887

       (10) Failing the licensing or Ohio jurisprudence examination;90888

       (11) Aiding, abetting, directing, or supervising the 90889
unlicensed practice of occupational therapy;90890

       (12) Denial, revocation, suspension, or restriction of 90891
authority to practice a health care occupation, including 90892
occupational therapy, for any reason other than a failure to 90893
renew, in Ohio or another state or jurisdiction;90894

       (13) Except as provided in division (B) of this section:90895

       (a) Waiving the payment of all or any part of a deductible or 90896
copayment that a patient, pursuant to a health insurance or health 90897
care policy, contract, or plan that covers occupational therapy, 90898
would otherwise be required to pay if the waiver is used as an 90899
enticement to a patient or group of patients to receive health 90900
care services from that provider;90901

       (b) Advertising that the individual will waive the payment of 90902
all or any part of a deductible or copayment that a patient, 90903
pursuant to a health insurance or health care policy, contract, or 90904
plan that covers occupational therapy, would otherwise be required 90905
to pay.90906

       (14) Working or representing oneself as an occupational 90907
therapist, occupational therapy assistant, occupational therapist 90908
limited permit holder, or occupational therapy assistant limited 90909
permit holder without a current and valid license or limited 90910
permit issued by the occupational therapy section;90911

        (15) Engaging in a deceptive trade practice, as defined in 90912
section 4165.02 of the Revised Code;90913

        (16) Violation of the standards of ethical conduct in the 90914
practice of occupational therapy as identified by the occupational 90915
therapy section;90916

        (17) A departure from, or the failure to conform to, minimal 90917
standards of care required of licensees or limited permit holders, 90918
whether or not actual injury to a patient is established;90919

        (18) An adjudication by a court that the applicant, licensee, 90920
or limited permit holder is incompetent for the purpose of holding 90921
a license or limited permit and has not thereafter been restored 90922
to legal capacity for that purpose;90923

        (19)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(19)(b) of this 90924
section, failure to cooperate with an investigation conducted by 90925
the occupational therapy section, including failure to comply with 90926
a subpoena or orders issued by the section or failure to answer 90927
truthfully a question presented by the section at a deposition or 90928
in written interrogatories.90929

        (b) Failure to cooperate with an investigation does not 90930
constitute grounds for discipline under this section if a court of 90931
competent jurisdiction issues an order that either quashes a 90932
subpoena or permits the individual to withhold the testimony or 90933
evidence at issue.90934

        (20) Conviction of a misdemeanor reasonably related to the 90935
practice of occupational therapy, regardless of the state or 90936
country in which the conviction occurred;90937

        (21) Inability to practice according to acceptable and 90938
prevailing standards of care because of mental or physical 90939
illness, including physical deterioration that adversely affects 90940
cognitive, motor, or perception skills;90941

        (22) Violation of conditions, limitations, or agreements 90942
placed by the occupational therapy section on a license or limited 90943
permit to practice;90944

        (23) Making a false, fraudulent, deceptive, or misleading 90945
statement in the solicitation of or advertising for patients in 90946
relation to the practice of occupational therapy;90947

        (24) Failure to complete continuing education requirements as 90948
prescribed in rules adopted by the occupational therapy section 90949
under section 4755.06 of the Revised Code.90950

       (B) Sanctions shall not be imposed under division (A)(13) of 90951
this section against any individual who waives deductibles and 90952
copayments as follows:90953

       (1) In compliance with the health benefit plan that expressly 90954
allows such a practice. Waiver of the deductibles or copayments 90955
shall be made only with the full knowledge and consent of the plan 90956
purchaser, payer, and third-party administrator. Documentation of 90957
the consent shall be made available to the section upon request.90958

       (2) For professional services rendered to any other person 90959
licensed pursuant to sections 4755.04 to 4755.13 of the Revised 90960
Code to the extent allowed by those sections and the rules of the 90961
occupational therapy section.90962

       (C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, the 90963
suspension or revocation of a license or limited permit under this 90964
section is not effective until either the order for suspension or 90965
revocation has been affirmed following an adjudication hearing, or 90966
the time for requesting a hearing has elapsed.90967

       When a license or limited permit is revoked under this 90968
section, application for reinstatement may not be made sooner than 90969
one year after the date of revocation. The occupational therapy 90970
section may accept or refuse an application for reinstatement and 90971
may require that the applicant pass an examination as a condition 90972
of reinstatement.90973

       When a license or limited permit holder is placed on 90974
probation under this section, the occupational therapy section's 90975
probation order shall be accompanied by a statement of the 90976
conditions under which the individual may be removed from 90977
probation and restored to unrestricted practice.90978

       (D) On receipt of a complaint that a person who holds a 90979
license or limited permit issued by the occupational therapy 90980
section has committed any of the prohibited actions listed in 90981
division (A) of this section, the section may immediately suspend 90982
the license or limited permit prior to holding a hearing in 90983
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code if it determines, 90984
based on the complaint, that the licensee or limited permit holder 90985
poses an immediate threat to the public. The section may review 90986
the allegations and vote on the suspension by telephone conference 90987
call. If the section votes to suspend a license or limited permit 90988
under this division, the section shall notifyissue a written 90989
order of summary suspension to the licensee or limited permit 90990
holder of the suspension in accordance with section 119.07 of the 90991
Revised Code. If the individual whose license or limited permit is 90992
suspended fails to make a timely request for an adjudication under 90993
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the section shall enter a final 90994
order permanently revoking the individual's license or limited 90995
permit. Notwithstanding section 119.12 of the Revised Code, a 90996
court of common pleas shall not grant a suspension of the 90997
section's order of summary suspension pending the determination of 90998
an appeal filed under that section. Any order of summary 90999
suspension issued under this division shall remain in effect, 91000
unless reversed on appeal, until a final adjudication order issued 91001
by the section pursuant to division (A) of this section becomes 91002
effective. The section shall issue its final adjudication order 91003
regarding an order of summary suspension issued under this 91004
division not later than ninety days after completion of its 91005
hearing. Failure to issue the order within ninety days shall 91006
result in immediate dissolution of the suspension order, but shall 91007
not invalidate any subsequent, final adjudication order.91008

       (E) If any person other than a person who holds a license or 91009
limited permit issued under section 4755.08 of the Revised Code 91010
has engaged in any practice that is prohibited under sections 91011
4755.04 to 4755.13 of the Revised Code or the rules of the 91012
occupational therapy section, the section may apply to the court 91013
of common pleas of the county in which the violation occurred, for 91014
an injunction or other appropriate order restraining this conduct, 91015
and the court shall issue this order.91016

       Sec. 4755.47.  (A) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the 91017
Revised Code, the physical therapy section of the Ohio 91018
occupational therapy, physical therapy, and athletic trainers 91019
board may refuse to grant a license to an applicant for an initial 91020
or renewed license as a physical therapist or physical therapist 91021
assistant or, by an affirmative vote of not less than five 91022
members, may limit, suspend, or revoke the license of a physical 91023
therapist or physical therapist assistant or reprimand, fine, 91024
place a license holder on probation, or require the license holder 91025
to take corrective action courses, on any of the following 91026
grounds:91027

       (1) Habitual indulgence in the use of controlled substances, 91028
other habit-forming drugs, or alcohol to an extent that affects 91029
the individual's professional competency;91030

       (2) Conviction of a felony or a crime involving moral 91031
turpitude, regardless of the state or country in which the 91032
conviction occurred;91033

       (3) Obtaining or attempting to obtain a license issued by the 91034
physical therapy section by fraud or deception, including the 91035
making of a false, fraudulent, deceptive, or misleading statement;91036

       (4) An adjudication by a court, as provided in section 91037
5122.301 of the Revised Code, that the applicant or licensee is 91038
incompetent for the purpose of holding the license and has not 91039
thereafter been restored to legal capacity for that purpose;91040

       (5) Subject to section 4755.471 of the Revised Code, 91041
violation of the code of ethics adopted by the physical therapy 91042
section;91043

       (6) Violating or attempting to violate, directly or 91044
indirectly, or assisting in or abetting the violation of or 91045
conspiring to violate sections 4755.40 to 4755.56 of the Revised 91046
Code or any order issued or rule adopted under those sections;91047

       (7) Failure of one or both of the examinations required under 91048
section 4755.43 or 4755.431 of the Revised Code;91049

       (8) Permitting the use of one's name or license by a person, 91050
group, or corporation when the one permitting the use is not 91051
directing the treatment given;91052

       (9) Denial, revocation, suspension, or restriction of 91053
authority to practice a health care occupation, including physical 91054
therapy, for any reason other than a failure to renew, in Ohio or 91055
another state or jurisdiction;91056

       (10) Failure to maintain minimal standards of practice in the 91057
administration or handling of drugs, as defined in section 4729.01 91058
of the Revised Code, or failure to employ acceptable scientific 91059
methods in the selection of drugs, as defined in section 4729.01 91060
of the Revised Code, or other modalities for treatment;91061

       (11) Willful betrayal of a professional confidence;91062

       (12) Making a false, fraudulent, deceptive, or misleading 91063
statement in the solicitation of or advertising for patients in 91064
relation to the practice of physical therapy;91065

       (13) A departure from, or the failure to conform to, minimal 91066
standards of care required of licensees when under the same or 91067
similar circumstances, whether or not actual injury to a patient 91068
is established;91069

       (14) Obtaining, or attempting to obtain, money or anything of 91070
value by fraudulent misrepresentations in the course of practice;91071

       (15) Violation of the conditions of limitation or agreements 91072
placed by the physical therapy section on a license to practice;91073

       (16) Failure to renew a license in accordance with section 91074
4755.46 of the Revised Code;91075

       (17) Except as provided in section 4755.471 of the Revised 91076
Code, engaging in the division of fees for referral of patients or 91077
receiving anything of value in return for a specific referral of a 91078
patient to utilize a particular service or business;91079

       (18) Inability to practice according to acceptable and 91080
prevailing standards of care because of mental illness or physical 91081
illness, including physical deterioration that adversely affects 91082
cognitive, motor, or perception skills;91083

       (19) The revocation, suspension, restriction, or termination 91084
of clinical privileges by the United States department of defense 91085
or department of veterans affairs;91086

       (20) Termination or suspension from participation in the 91087
medicare or medicaid program established under Title XVIII and 91088
Title XIX, respectively, of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 91089
620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, for an act or acts that 91090
constitute a violation of sections 4755.40 to 4755.56 of the 91091
Revised Code;91092

       (21) Failure of a physical therapist to maintain supervision 91093
of a student, physical therapist assistant, unlicensed support 91094
personnel, other assistant personnel, or a license applicant in 91095
accordance with the requirements of sections 4755.40 to 4755.56 of 91096
the Revised Code and rules adopted under those sections;91097

       (22) Failure to complete continuing education requirements as 91098
prescribed in section 4755.51 or 4755.511 of the Revised Code or 91099
to satisfy any rules applicable to continuing education 91100
requirements that are adopted by the physical therapy section;91101

       (23) Conviction of a misdemeanor when the act that 91102
constitutes the misdemeanor occurs during the practice of physical 91103
therapy;91104

        (24)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(24)(b) of this 91105
section, failure to cooperate with an investigation conducted by 91106
the physical therapy section, including failure to comply with a 91107
subpoena or orders issued by the section or failure to answer 91108
truthfully a question presented by the section at a deposition or 91109
in written interrogatories.91110

       (b) Failure to cooperate with an investigation does not 91111
constitute grounds for discipline under this section if a court of 91112
competent jurisdiction issues an order that either quashes a 91113
subpoena or permits the individual to withhold the testimony or 91114
evidence at issue.91115

       (25) Regardless of whether the contact or verbal behavior is 91116
consensual, engaging with a patient other than the spouse of the 91117
physical therapist or physical therapist assistant, in any of the 91118
following:91119

       (a) Sexual contact, as defined in section 2907.01 of the 91120
Revised Code;91121

       (b) Verbal behavior that is sexually demeaning to the patient 91122
or may be reasonably interpreted by the patient as sexually 91123
demeaning.91124

       (26) Failure to notify the physical therapy section of a 91125
change in name, business address, or home address within thirty 91126
days after the date of change;91127

       (27) Except as provided in division (B) of this section:91128

       (a) Waiving the payment of all or any part of a deductible or 91129
copayment that a patient, pursuant to a health insurance or health 91130
care policy, contract, or plan that covers physical therapy, would 91131
otherwise be required to pay if the waiver is used as an 91132
enticement to a patient or group of patients to receive health 91133
care services from that provider;91134

       (b) Advertising that the individual will waive the payment of 91135
all or any part of a deductible or copayment that a patient, 91136
pursuant to a health insurance or health care policy, contract, or 91137
plan that covers physical therapy, would otherwise be required to 91138
pay;91139

       (28) Violation of any section of this chapter or rule adopted 91140
under it.91141

       (B) Sanctions shall not be imposed under division (A)(27) of 91142
this section against any individual who waives deductibles and 91143
copayments as follows:91144

       (1) In compliance with the health benefit plan that expressly 91145
allows such a practice. Waiver of the deductibles or copayments 91146
shall be made only with the full knowledge and consent of the plan 91147
purchaser, payer, and third-party administrator. Documentation of 91148
the consent shall be made available to the physical therapy 91149
section upon request.91150

       (2) For professional services rendered to any other person 91151
licensed pursuant to sections 4755.40 to 4755.56 of the Revised 91152
Code to the extent allowed by those sections and the rules of the 91153
physical therapy section.91154

       (C) When a license is revoked under this section, application 91155
for reinstatement may not be made sooner than one year after the 91156
date of revocation. The physical therapy section may accept or 91157
refuse an application for reinstatement and may require that the 91158
applicant pass an examination as a condition for reinstatement.91159

       When a license holder is placed on probation under this 91160
section, the physical therapy section's order for placement on 91161
probation shall be accompanied by a statement of the conditions 91162
under which the individual may be removed from probation and 91163
restored to unrestricted practice.91164

       (D) When an application for an initial or renewed license is 91165
refused under this section, the physical therapy section shall 91166
notify the applicant in writing of the section's decision to 91167
refuse issuance of a license and the reason for its decision.91168

       (E) On receipt of a complaint that a person licensed by the 91169
physical therapy section has committed any of the actions listed 91170
in division (A) of this section, the physical therapy section may 91171
immediately suspend the license of the physical therapist or 91172
physical therapist assistant prior to holding a hearing in 91173
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code if it determines, 91174
based on the complaint, that the person poses an immediate threat 91175
to the public. The physical therapy section may review the 91176
allegations and vote on the suspension by telephone conference 91177
call. If the physical therapy section votes to suspend a license 91178
under this division, the physical therapy section shall notify91179
issue a written order of summary suspension to the person of the 91180
suspension in accordance with section 119.07 of the Revised Code. 91181
If the person fails to make a timely request for an adjudication 91182
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the physical therapy 91183
section shall enter a final order permanently revoking the 91184
person's license. Notwithstanding section 119.12 of the Revised 91185
Code, a court of common pleas shall not grant a suspension of the 91186
physical therapy section's order of summary suspension pending the 91187
determination of an appeal filed under that section. Any order of 91188
summary suspension issued under this division shall remain in 91189
effect, unless reversed on appeal, until a final adjudication 91190
order issued by the physical therapy section pursuant to division 91191
(A) of this section becomes effective. The physical therapy 91192
section shall issue its final adjudication order regarding an 91193
order of summary suspension issued under this division not later 91194
than ninety days after completion of its hearing. Failure to issue 91195
the order within ninety days shall result in immediate dissolution 91196
of the suspension order, but shall not invalidate any subsequent, 91197
final adjudication order.91198

       Sec. 4755.481. (A) If a physical therapist evaluates and 91199
treats a patient without the prescription of, or the referral of 91200
the patient by, a person described in division (G)(1) of section 91201
4755.48 of the Revised Code, all of the following apply:91202

       (1) The physical therapist shall, upon consent of the 91203
patient, inform the relevant person described in division (G)(1) 91204
of section 4755.48 of the Revised Code of the evaluation not later 91205
than five business days after the evaluation is made.91206

        (2) If the physical therapist determines, based on reasonable 91207
evidence, that no substantial progress has been made with respect 91208
to that patient during the thirty-day period immediately following 91209
the date of the patient's initial visit with the physical 91210
therapist, the physical therapist shall consult with or refer the 91211
patient to a person described in division (G)(1) of section 91212
4755.48 of the Revised Code, unless either of the following 91213
applies:91214

        (a) The evaluation, treatment, or services are being provided 91215
for fitness, wellness, or prevention purposes.91216

        (b) The patient previously was diagnosed with chronic, 91217
neuromuscular, or developmental conditions and the evaluation, 91218
treatment, or services are being provided for problems or symptoms 91219
associated with one or more of those previously diagnosed 91220
conditions.91221

        (3) If the physical therapist determines that orthotic 91222
devices are necessary to treat the patient, the physical therapist 91223
shall be limited to the application of the following orthotic 91224
devices:91225

        (a) Upper extremity adaptive equipment used to facilitate the 91226
activities of daily living;91227

        (b) Finger splints;91228

        (c) Wrist splints;91229

        (d) Prefabricated elastic or fabric abdominal supports with 91230
or without metal or plastic reinforcing stays and other 91231
prefabricated soft goods requiring minimal fitting;91232

        (e) Nontherapeutic accommodative inlays;91233

        (f) Shoes that are not manufactured or modified for a 91234
particular individual;91235

        (g) Prefabricated foot care products;91236

       (h) Custom foot orthotics;91237

        (i) Durable medical equipment.91238

        (4) If, at any time, the physical therapist has reason to 91239
believe that the patient has symptoms or conditions that require 91240
treatment or services beyond the scope of practice of a physical 91241
therapist, the physical therapist shall refer the patient to a 91242
licensed health care practitioner acting within the practitioner's 91243
scope of practice.91244

        (B) Nothing in sections 4755.40 to 4755.56 of the Revised 91245
Code shall be construed to require reimbursement under any health 91246
insuring corporation policy, contract, or agreement, any sickness 91247
and accident insurance policy, the medical assistancemedicaid91248
program as defined in section 5111.01 of the Revised Code, or the 91249
health partnership program or qualified health plans established 91250
pursuant to sections 4121.44 to 4121.442 of the Revised Code, for 91251
any physical therapy service rendered without the prescription of, 91252
or the referral of the patient by, a person described in division 91253
(G)(1) of section 4755.48 of the Revised Code.91254

       (C) For purposes of this section, "business day" means any 91255
calendar day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or legal holiday. 91256
"Legal holiday" has the same meaning as in section 1.14 of the 91257
Revised Code.91258

       Sec. 4755.64.  (A) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the 91259
Revised Code, the athletic trainers section of the Ohio 91260
occupational therapy, physical therapy, and athletic trainers 91261
board may suspend, revoke, or refuse to issue or renew an athletic 91262
trainers license, or reprimand, fine, or place a licensee on 91263
probation, for any of the following:91264

       (1) Conviction of a felony or offense involving moral 91265
turpitude, regardless of the state or country in which the 91266
conviction occurred;91267

       (2) Violation of sections 4755.61 to 4755.65 of the Revised 91268
Code or any order issued or rule adopted thereunder;91269

       (3) Obtaining a license through fraud, false or misleading 91270
representation, or concealment of material facts;91271

       (4) Negligence or gross misconduct in the practice of 91272
athletic training;91273

       (5) Violating the standards of ethical conduct in the 91274
practice of athletic training as adopted by the athletic trainers 91275
section under section 4755.61 of the Revised Code;91276

       (6) Using any controlled substance or alcohol to the extent 91277
that the ability to practice athletic training at a level of 91278
competency is impaired;91279

       (7) Practicing in an area of athletic training for which the 91280
individual is untrained, incompetent, or practicing without the 91281
referral of a practitioner licensed under Chapter 4731. of the 91282
Revised Code, a dentist licensed under Chapter 4715. of the 91283
Revised Code, a chiropractor licensed under Chapter 4734. of the 91284
Revised Code, or a physical therapist licensed under this chapter;91285

       (8) Employing, directing, or supervising a person in the 91286
performance of athletic training procedures who is not authorized 91287
to practice as a licensed athletic trainer under this chapter;91288

       (9) Misrepresenting educational attainments or the functions 91289
the individual is authorized to perform for the purpose of 91290
obtaining some benefit related to the individual's athletic 91291
training practice;91292

       (10) Failing the licensing examination;91293

       (11) Aiding or abetting the unlicensed practice of athletic 91294
training;91295

       (12) Denial, revocation, suspension, or restriction of 91296
authority to practice a health care occupation, including athletic 91297
training, for any reason other than a failure to renew, in Ohio or 91298
another state or jurisdiction.91299

       (B) If the athletic trainers section places a licensee on 91300
probation under division (A) of this section, the section's order 91301
for placement on probation shall be accompanied by a written 91302
statement of the conditions under which the person may be removed 91303
from probation and restored to unrestricted practice.91304

       (C) A licensee whose license has been revoked under division 91305
(A) of this section may apply to the athletic trainers section for 91306
reinstatement of the license one year following the date of 91307
revocation. The athletic trainers section may accept or deny the 91308
application for reinstatement and may require that the applicant 91309
pass an examination as a condition for reinstatement.91310

       (D) On receipt of a complaint that a person licensed by the 91311
athletic trainers section has committed any of the prohibited 91312
actions listed in division (A) of this section, the section may 91313
immediately suspend the license of a licensed athletic trainer 91314
prior to holding a hearing in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 91315
Revised Code if it determines, based on the complaint, that the 91316
licensee poses an immediate threat to the public. The section may 91317
review the allegations and vote on the suspension by telephone 91318
conference call. If the section votes to suspend a license under 91319
this division, the section shall notifyissue a written order of 91320
summary suspension to the licensed athletic trainer of the 91321
suspension in accordance with section 119.07 of the Revised Code. 91322
If the individual whose license is suspended fails to make a 91323
timely request for an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the 91324
Revised Code, the section shall enter a final order permanently 91325
revoking the individual's license. Notwithstanding section 119.12 91326
of the Revised Code, a court of common pleas shall not grant a 91327
suspension of the section's order of summary suspension pending 91328
the determination of an appeal filed under that section. Any order 91329
of summary suspension issued under this division shall remain in 91330
effect, unless reversed on appeal, until a final adjudication 91331
order issued by the section pursuant to division (A) of this 91332
section becomes effective. The section shall issue its final 91333
adjudication order regarding an order of summary suspension issued 91334
under this division not later than ninety days after completion of 91335
its hearing. Failure to issue the order within ninety days shall 91336
result in immediate dissolution of the suspension order, but shall 91337
not invalidate any subsequent, final adjudication order.91338

       Sec. 4758.10. (A) There is hereby created the chemical 91339
dependency professionals board.91340

       (B) The governor shall appoint all of the following voting 91341
members of the board with the advice and consent of the senate:91342

       (1) Four individuals who hold a valid independent chemical 91343
dependency counselor-clinical supervisor license or independent 91344
chemical dependency counselor license issued under this chapter, 91345
including at least two of whom have received at least a master's 91346
degree in a field related to chemical dependency counseling from 91347
an accredited educational institution;91348

       (2) Two individuals who hold a valid chemical dependency 91349
counselor III license issued under this chapter;91350

       (3) One individual who holds a valid chemical dependency 91351
counselor II license issued under this chapter;91352

       (4) Two individuals who hold a valid prevention specialist II 91353
certificate or prevention specialist I certificate issued under 91354
this chapter;91355

       (5) One individual who is authorized under Chapter 4731. of 91356
the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic 91357
medicine and surgery and has experience practicing in a field 91358
related to chemical dependency counseling;91359

       (6) Two individuals who represent the public and have not 91360
practiced chemical dependency counseling or alcohol and other drug 91361
prevention services and have not been involved in the delivery of 91362
chemical dependency counseling services or alcohol and other drug 91363
prevention services. At least one of these individuals shall be at 91364
least sixtyfifty years of age. During their terms, the public 91365
members shall not practice chemical dependency counseling or 91366
alcohol and other drug prevention services or be involved in the 91367
delivery of chemical dependency counseling services or alcohol and 91368
other drug prevention services.91369

       (C) Not later than ninety days after December 23, 2002, the 91370
director of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and 91371
addiction services shall appoint an individual who represents the 91372
department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health 91373
and addiction services to serve as an ex officio member of the 91374
chemical dependency professionals board.91375

       (D) Not more than one-half of the voting members of the board 91376
may be of the same gender or members of the same political party. 91377
At least two voting members of the board shall be of African, 91378
Native American, Hispanic, or Asian descent.91379

       Sec. 4758.11. Of the initial appointees to the chemical 91380
dependency professionals board appointed by the governor under 91381
division (B) of section 4758.10 of the Revised Code, four shall be 91382
appointed for terms ending one year after the effective date of 91383
this sectionDecember 23, 2002, four shall be appointed for terms 91384
ending two years after the effective date of this sectionDecember 91385
23, 2002, and four shall be appointed for terms ending three years 91386
after the effective date of this sectionDecember 23, 2002. After 91387
the initial appointments, terms of office shall be three years, 91388
each term ending on the same day of the same month of the year as 91389
the term it succeeds.91390

       A voting member of the board shall hold office from the date 91391
of appointment until the end of the term for which the member was 91392
appointed. A voting member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring 91393
prior to the expiration of the term for which the member's 91394
predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of 91395
that term. A voting member shall continue in office after the 91396
expiration date of the member's term until the member's successor 91397
takes office or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, 91398
whichever occurs first. Voting members may be reappointed, except 91399
that an individual who has held office for two consecutive full 91400
terms shall not be reappointed sooner than one year after the 91401
expiration of the second full term.91402

       The ex officio member of the board appointed by the director 91403
of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 91404
services under division (C) of section 4758.10 of the Revised Code 91405
shall serve at the pleasure of the director.91406

       Sec. 4761.01.  As used in this chapter:91407

       (A) "Respiratory care" means rendering or offering to render 91408
to individuals, groups, organizations, or the public any service 91409
involving the evaluation of cardiopulmonary function, the 91410
treatment of cardiopulmonary impairment, the assessment of 91411
treatment effectiveness, and the care of patients with 91412
deficiencies and abnormalities associated with the cardiopulmonary 91413
system. The practice of respiratory care includes:91414

       (1) Obtaining, analyzing, testing, measuring, and monitoring 91415
blood and gas samples in the determination of cardiopulmonary 91416
parameters and related physiologic data, including flows, 91417
pressures, and volumes, and the use of equipment employed for this 91418
purpose;91419

       (2) Administering, monitoring, recording the results of, and 91420
instructing in the use of medical gases, aerosols, and 91421
bronchopulmonary hygiene techniques, including drainage, 91422
aspiration, and sampling, and applying, maintaining, and 91423
instructing in the use of artificial airways, ventilators, and 91424
other life support equipment employed in the treatment of 91425
cardiopulmonary impairment and provided in collaboration with 91426
other licensed health care professionals responsible for providing 91427
care;91428

       (3) Performing cardiopulmonary resuscitation and respiratory 91429
rehabilitation techniques;91430

       (4) Administering medications for the testing or treatment of 91431
cardiopulmonary impairment.91432

       (B) "Respiratory care professional" means a person who is 91433
licensed under this chapter to practice the full range of 91434
respiratory care services as defined in division (A) of this 91435
section.91436

       (C) "Physician" means an individual authorized under Chapter 91437
4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or 91438
osteopathic medicine and surgery.91439

       (D) "Registered nurse" means an individual licensed under 91440
Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code to engage in the practice of 91441
nursing as a registered nurse.91442

       (E) "Hospital" means a facility that meets the operating 91443
standards of section 3727.02 of the Revised Code.91444

       (F) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 91445
5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code.91446

       Sec. 4778.02.  (A)(1) Except as provided in division (B) of 91447
this section, no person shall practice as a genetic counselor 91448
unless the person holds a current, valid license to practice as a 91449
genetic counselor issued under this chapter.91450

       (2) No person shall use the title "genetic counselor," or 91451
otherwise hold the person out as a genetic counselor, unless the 91452
person holds a current, valid license to practice as a genetic 91453
counselor issued under this chapter.91454

       (B) Division (A)(1) of this section does not apply to either 91455
of the following:91456

       (1) A student performing an activity as part of a genetic 91457
counseling graduate program described in division (B)(2)(1)(b) of 91458
section 4778.03 of the Revised Code;91459

       (2) A person who is authorized pursuant to another provision 91460
of the Revised Code to perform any of the activities that a 91461
genetic counselor is authorized to perform.91462

       Sec. 4778.03.  (A) An individual seeking a license to 91463
practice as a genetic counselor shall file with the state medical 91464
board an application in a manner prescribed by the board. The 91465
application shall include all the information the board considers 91466
necessary to process the application, including evidence 91467
satisfactory to the board that the applicant meets the 91468
requirements specified in division (B) of this section.91469

       At the time an application is submitted, the applicant shall 91470
pay the board an application fee of two hundred dollars. No part 91471
of the fee shall be returned to the applicant or transferred for 91472
purposes of another application.91473

       (B)(1) To be eligible to receive a license to practice as a 91474
genetic counselor, an applicant shall demonstrate to the board 91475
that the applicant meets all of the following requirements:91476

       (1)(a) Is at least eighteen years of age and of good moral 91477
character;91478

       (2) Has(b) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this 91479
section, has attained a master's degree or higher degree from a 91480
genetic counseling graduate program accredited by the American 91481
board of genetic counseling, inc.;91482

       (3)(c) Is a certified genetic counselor;91483

       (4)(d) Has satisfied any other requirements established by 91484
the board in rules adopted under section 4778.12 of the Revised 91485
Code.91486

       (2) In the case of an applicant who files an application not 91487
later than December 31, 2013, and meets all eligibility 91488
requirements other than the requirement specified in division 91489
(B)(1)(b) of this section, the applicant is eligible for a license 91490
to practice as a genetic counselor if the applicant has attained a 91491
master's or higher degree in education or in a field that the 91492
state medical board considers to be closely related to genetic 91493
counseling.91494

       (C) The board shall review all applications received under 91495
this section. Not later than sixty days after receiving an 91496
application it considers complete, the board shall determine 91497
whether the applicant meets the requirements for a license to 91498
practice as a genetic counselor. The affirmative vote of not fewer 91499
than six members of the board is required to determine that the 91500
applicant meets the requirements for the license.91501

       Sec. 4781.121. (A) The manufactured homes commission, 91502
pursuant to section 4781.04 of the Revised Code, may investigate 91503
any person who allegedly has committed a violation. If, after an 91504
investigation the commission determines that reasonable evidence 91505
exists that a person has committed a violation, within seven days 91506
after that determination, the commission shall send a written 91507
notice to that person in the same manner as prescribed in section 91508
119.07 of the Revised Code for licensees, except that the notice 91509
shall specify that a hearing will be held and specify the date, 91510
time, and place of the hearing.91511

       (B) The commission shall hold a hearing regarding the alleged 91512
violation in the same manner prescribed for an adjudication 91513
hearing under section 119.09 of the Revised Code. If the 91514
commission, after the hearing, determines that a violation has 91515
occurred, the commission, upon an affirmative vote of five of its 91516
members, may impose a fine not exceeding one thousand dollars per 91517
violation per day. The commission's determination is an order that 91518
the person may appeal in accordance with section 119.12 of the 91519
Revised Code.91520

       (C) If the person who allegedly committed a violation fails 91521
to appear for a hearing, the commission may request the court of 91522
common pleas of the county where the alleged violation occurred to 91523
compel the person to appear before the commission for a hearing.91524

       (D) If the commission assesses a person a civil penalty for a 91525
violation and the person fails to pay that civil penalty within 91526
the time period prescribed by the commission pursuant to section 91527
131.02 of the Revised Code, the commission shall forward to the 91528
attorney general the name of the person and the amount of the 91529
civil penalty for the purpose of collecting that civil penalty. In 91530
addition to the civil penalty assessed pursuant to this section, 91531
the person also shall pay any fee assessed by the attorney general 91532
for collection of the civil penalty.91533

       (E) The authority provided to the commission pursuant to this 91534
section, and any fine imposed under this section, shall be in 91535
addition to, and not in lieu of, all penalties and other remedies 91536
provided in this chapter. Any fines collected pursuant to this 91537
section shall be used solely to administer and enforce this 91538
chapter and rules adopted under it. Any fees collected pursuant to 91539
this section shall be transmitted to the treasurer of state and 91540
shall be credited to the manufactured homes commission regulatory 91541
fund created in section 4781.54 of the Revised Code and the rules 91542
adopted thereunder. The fees shall be used only for the purpose of 91543
administering and enforcing sections 4781.26 to 4781.35 of the 91544
Revised Code and the rules adopted thereunder.91545

       (F) As used in this section, "violation" means a violation of 91546
section 4781.11, 4781.16, or 4781.27 of the Revised Code, or any 91547
rule adopted pursuant to section 4781.04, of the Revised Codethis 91548
chapter.91549

       Sec. 4781.28.  The manufactured homes commission may charge a 91550
fee for an annual license to operate a manufactured home park. The 91551
fee for a license shall be determined in accordance with section 91552
4781.264781.27 of the Revised Code and shall include the cost of 91553
licensing and all inspections.91554

        Any fees collected shall be transmitted to the treasurer of 91555
state and shall be credited to the manufactured homes commission 91556
regulatory fund created in section 4781.54 of the Revised Code and 91557
used only for the purpose of administering and enforcing sections 91558
4781.26 to 4781.35 of the Revised Code and the rules adopted 91559
thereunder.91560

       Sec. 4781.29.  The manufactured homes commission may refuse 91561
to grant, may suspend, or may revoke any license granted to any 91562
person for failure to comply with sections 4781.26 to 4781.35 of 91563
the Revised Codethis chapter or with any rule adopted under 91564
section 4781.26 of the Revised Codethis chapter.91565

       Sec. 4906.20. (A) No person shall commence to construct an 91566
economically significant wind farm in this state without first 91567
having obtained a certificate from the power siting board. An 91568
economically significant wind farm with respect to which such a 91569
certificate is required shall be constructed, operated, and 91570
maintained in conformity with that certificate and any terms, 91571
conditions, and modifications it contains. A certificate shall be 91572
issued only pursuant to this section. The certificate may be 91573
transferred, subject to the approval of the board, to a person 91574
that agrees to comply with those terms, conditions, and 91575
modifications.91576

       (B) The board shall adopt rules governing the certificating 91577
of economically significant wind farms under this section. Initial 91578
rules shall be adopted within one hundred twenty days after June 91579
24, 2008.91580

       (1) The rules shall provide for an application process for 91581
certificating economically significant wind farms that is 91582
identical to the extent practicable to the process applicable to 91583
certificating major utility facilities under sections 4906.06, 91584
4906.07, 4906.08, 4906.09, 4906.10, 4906.11, and 4906.12 of the 91585
Revised Code and shall prescribe a reasonable schedule of 91586
application filing fees structured in the manner of the schedule 91587
of filing fees required for major utility facilities.91588

       (2) Additionally, the rules shall prescribe reasonable 91589
regulations regarding any wind turbines and associated facilities 91590
of an economically significant wind farm, including, but not 91591
limited to, their location, erection, construction, 91592
reconstruction, change, alteration, maintenance, removal, use, or 91593
enlargement and including erosion control, aesthetics, 91594
recreational land use, wildlife protection, interconnection with 91595
power lines and with regional transmission organizations, 91596
independent transmission system operators, or similar 91597
organizations, ice throw, sound and noise levels, blade shear, 91598
shadow flicker, decommissioning, and necessary cooperation for 91599
site visits and enforcement investigations. The rules also shall 91600
prescribe a minimum setback for a wind turbine of an economically 91601
significant wind farm. That minimum shall be equal to a horizontal 91602
distance, from the turbine's base to the property line of the wind 91603
farm property, equal to one and one-tenth times the total height 91604
of the turbine structure as measured from its base to the tip of 91605
its highest blade and be at least sevenone thousand two hundred 91606
fifty feet in horizontal distance from the tip of the turbine's 91607
nearest blade at ninety degrees to the exterior of the nearest, 91608
habitable, residential structure, if any, located on adjacent 91609
property at the time of the certification application. For a 91610
certification application filed before the effective date of the 91611
amendment of this section, including any amendment of that 91612
application filed on or after that effective date, the distance 91613
shall be seven hundred fifty feet instead of one thousand two 91614
hundred fifty feet. The setback shall apply in all cases except 91615
those in which all owners of property adjacent to the wind farm 91616
property waive application of the setback to that property 91617
pursuant to a procedure the board shall establish by rule and 91618
except in which, in a particular case, the board determines that a 91619
setback greater than the minimum is necessary.91620

       Sec. 5101.01. (A) As used in the Revised Code, the 91621
"department of public welfare" and the "department of human 91622
services" mean the department of job and family services and the 91623
"director of public welfare" and the "director of human services" 91624
mean the director of job and family services. WheneverExcept as 91625
provided in section 5160.011 of the Revised Code, whenever the 91626
department or director of public welfare or the department or 91627
director of human services is referred to or designated in any 91628
statute, rule, contract, grant, or other document, the reference 91629
or designation shall be deemed to refer to the department or 91630
director of job and family services, as the case may be.91631

       (B) As used in this chapter:91632

        (1) References to a county department of job and family 91633
services include a joint county department of job and family 91634
services established under section 329.40 of the Revised Code.91635

        (2) References to a board of county commissioners include the 91636
board of directors of a joint county department of job and family 91637
services established under section 329.40 of the Revised Code.91638

       Sec. 5101.101.  (A) This section establishes the order of 91639
priority to be followed by the department of job and family 91640
services when distributing funds for the purpose of providing 91641
family planning services, including funds the department receives 91642
through Title XX of the "Social Security Act," 88 Stat. 2337 91643
(1974), 42 U.S.C. 1397, as amended, and funds the department 91644
receives through Title IV-A of the "Social Security Act," 110 91645
Stat. 2113 (1996), 42 U.S.C. 601, as amended, to be used for 91646
purposes of providing Title XX social services. This section does 91647
not apply to payments made under the medicaid program.91648

       (B) With respect to each period during which funds from a 91649
particular source are distributed for the purpose of providing 91650
family planning services, the department is subject to both of the 91651
following when distributing the funds to applicants seeking those 91652
funds:91653

       (1) Foremost priority shall be given to public entities that 91654
are operated by state or local government entities and that 91655
provide or are able to provide family planning services.91656

       (2) If any funds remain after the department distributes 91657
funds to public entities under division (B)(1) of this section, 91658
the department may distribute funds to nonpublic entities. If 91659
funds are distributed to nonpublic entities, the department shall 91660
distribute the funds in the following order of descending 91661
priority:91662

       (a) Nonpublic entities that are federally qualified health 91663
centers or federally qualified health center look-alikes, both as 91664
defined in section 3701.047 of the Revised Code, or community 91665
action agencies, as defined in section 122.66 of the Revised Code;91666

       (b) Nonpublic entities that provide comprehensive primary and 91667
preventive care services in addition to family planning services;91668

       (c) Nonpublic entities that provide family planning services, 91669
but do not provide comprehensive primary and preventive care 91670
services.91671

       Sec. 5101.11. This section does not apply to contracts 91672
entered into under section 5111.90 or 5111.91 of the Revised Code.91673

       (A) As used in this section:91674

       (1) "Entity" includes an agency, board, commission, or 91675
department of the state or a political subdivision of the state; a 91676
private, nonprofit entity; a school district; a private school; or 91677
a public or private institution of higher education.91678

       (2) "Federal financial participation" means the federal 91679
government's share of expenditures made by an entity in 91680
implementing a program administered by the department of job and 91681
family services.91682

       (B) At the request of any public entity having authority to 91683
implement a program administered by the department of job and 91684
family services or any private entity under contract with a public 91685
entity to implement a program administered by the department, the 91686
department may seek to obtain federal financial participation for 91687
costs incurred by the entity. Federal financial participation may 91688
be sought from programs operated pursuant to Title IV-A,of the 91689
"Social Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 601 et seq.; Title IV-E, and 91690
Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 91691
U.S.C. 301, as amended670 et seq.; the Food and Nutrition Act of 91692
2008 (,7 U.S.C. 2011 et seq.); and any other statute or regulation 91693
under which federal financial participation may be available, 91694
except that federal financial participation may be sought only for 91695
expenditures made with funds for which federal financial 91696
participation is available under federal law.91697

       (C) All funds collected by the department of job and family 91698
services pursuant to division (B) of this section shall be 91699
distributed to the entities that incurred the costs, except for 91700
any amounts retained by the department pursuant to division (D)(3) 91701
of this section.91702

       (D) In distributing federal financial participation pursuant 91703
to this section, the department may either enter into an agreement 91704
with the entity that is to receive the funds or distribute the 91705
funds in accordance with rules adopted under division (F) of this 91706
section. If the department decides to enter into an agreement to 91707
distribute the funds, the agreement may include terms that do any 91708
of the following:91709

       (1) Provide for the whole or partial reimbursement of any 91710
cost incurred by the entity in implementing the program;91711

       (2) In the event that federal financial participation is 91712
disallowed or otherwise unavailable for any expenditure, require 91713
the department of job and family services or the entity, whichever 91714
party caused the disallowance or unavailability of federal 91715
financial participation, to assume responsibility for the 91716
expenditures;91717

       (3) Permit the department to retain not more than five per 91718
cent of the amount of the federal financial participation to be 91719
distributed to the entity;91720

       (4) Require the public entity to certify the availability of 91721
sufficient unencumbered funds to match the federal financial 91722
participation it receives under this section;91723

       (5) Establish the length of the agreement, which may be for a 91724
fixed or a continuing period of time;91725

       (6) Establish any other requirements determined by the 91726
department to be necessary for the efficient administration of the 91727
agreement.91728

       (E) An entity that receives federal financial participation 91729
pursuant to this section for a program aiding children and their 91730
families shall establish a process for collaborative planning with 91731
the department of job and family services for the use of the funds 91732
to improve and expand the program.91733

       (F) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 91734
as necessary to implement this section, including rules for the 91735
distribution of federal financial participation pursuant to this 91736
section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 91737
119. of the Revised Code. The director may adopt or amend any 91738
statewide plan required by the federal government for a program 91739
administered by the department, as necessary to implement this 91740
section.91741

       (G) Federal financial participation received pursuant to this 91742
section shall not be included in any calculation made under 91743
section 5101.16 or 5101.161 of the Revised Code.91744

       Sec. 5101.141.  (A) As used in sections 5101.141 to 5101.1410 91745
of the Revised Code, "Title IV-E" means Title IV-E of the "Social 91746
Security Act," 94 Stat. 501, 42 U.S.C. 670 (1980), as amended.91747

       (B) The department of job and family services shall act as 91748
the single state agency to administer federal payments for foster 91749
care and adoption assistance made pursuant to Title IV-E. The 91750
director of job and family services shall adopt rules to implement 91751
this authority. Rules governing financial and administrative 91752
requirements applicable to public children services agencies and 91753
government entities that provide Title IV-E reimbursable placement 91754
services to children shall be adopted in accordance with section 91755
111.15 of the Revised Code, as if they were internal management 91756
rules. Rules governing requirements applicable to private child 91757
placing agencies and private noncustodial agencies and rules 91758
establishing eligibility, program participation, and other 91759
requirements concerning Title IV-E shall be adopted in accordance 91760
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. A public children services 91761
agency to which the department distributes Title IV-E funds shall 91762
administer the funds in accordance with those rules.91763

       (C)(1) The county, on behalf of each child eligible for 91764
foster care maintenance payments under Title IV-E, shall make 91765
payments to cover the cost of providing all of the following:91766

       (a) The child's food, clothing, shelter, daily supervision, 91767
and school supplies;91768

       (b) The child's personal incidentals;91769

       (c) Reasonable travel to the child's home for visitation.91770

       (2) In addition to payments made under division (C)(1) of 91771
this section, the county may, on behalf of each child eligible for 91772
foster care maintenance payments under Title IV-E, make payments 91773
to cover the cost of providing the following:91774

       (a) Liability insurance with respect to the child;91775

       (b) If the county is participating in the demonstration 91776
project established under division (A) of section 5101.142 of the 91777
Revised Code, services provided under the project.91778

       (3) With respect to a child who is in a child-care 91779
institution, including any type of group home designed for the 91780
care of children or any privately operated program consisting of 91781
two or more certified foster homes operated by a common 91782
administrative unit, the foster care maintenance payments made by 91783
the county on behalf of the child shall include the reasonable 91784
cost of the administration and operation of the institution, group 91785
home, or program, as necessary to provide the items described in 91786
divisions (C)(1) and (2) of this section.91787

       (D) To the extent that either foster care maintenance 91788
payments under division (C) of this section or Title IV-E adoption 91789
assistance payments for maintenance costs require the expenditure 91790
of county funds, the board of county commissioners shall report 91791
the nature and amount of each expenditure of county funds to the 91792
department.91793

       (E) The department shall distribute to public children 91794
services agencies that incur and report expenditures of the type 91795
described in division (D) of this section federal financial 91796
participation received for administrative and training costs 91797
incurred in the operation of foster care maintenance and adoption 91798
assistance programs. The department may withhold not more than 91799
three per cent of the federal financial participation received. 91800
The funds withheld may be used only to fund the following:91801

       (1) The Ohio child welfare training program established under 91802
section 5103.30 of the Revised Code;91803

       (2) The university partnership program for college and 91804
university students majoring in social work who have committed to 91805
work for a public children services agency upon graduation;91806

       (3) Efforts supporting organizational excellence, including 91807
voluntary activities to be accredited by a nationally recognized 91808
accreditation organization.91809

       The funds withheld shall be in addition to any administration 91810
and training cost for which the department is reimbursed through 91811
its own cost allocation plan.91812

       (F) All federal financial participation funds received by a 91813
county pursuant to this section shall be deposited into the 91814
county's children services fund created pursuant to section 91815
5101.144 of the Revised Code.91816

       (G) The department shall periodically publish and distribute 91817
the maximum amounts that the department will reimburse public 91818
children services agencies for making payments on behalf of 91819
children eligible for foster care maintenance payments.91820

       (H) The department, by and through its director, is hereby 91821
authorized to develop, participate in the development of, 91822
negotiate, and enter into one or more interstate compacts on 91823
behalf of this state with agencies of any other states, for the 91824
provision of medical assistance and other social services to 91825
children in relation to whom all of the following apply:91826

       (1) They have special needs.91827

       (2) This state or another state that is a party to the 91828
interstate compact is providing adoption assistance on their 91829
behalf.91830

       (3) They move into this state from another state or move out 91831
of this state to another state.91832

       Sec. 5101.16.  (A) As used in this section and sections 91833
5101.161 and 5101.162 of the Revised Code:91834

       (1) "Disability financial assistance" means the financial 91835
assistance program established under Chapter 5115. of the Revised 91836
Code.91837

       (2) "Supplemental nutrition assistance program" means the 91838
program administered by the department of job and family services 91839
pursuant to section 5101.54 of the Revised Code.91840

       (3) "Medicaid" means the medical assistance program 91841
established by Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code, excluding 91842
transportation services provided under that chapter.91843

       (4) "Ohio works first" means the program established by 91844
Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code.91845

       (5)(4) "Prevention, retention, and contingency" means the 91846
program established by Chapter 5108. of the Revised Code.91847

       (6)(5) "Public assistance expenditures" means expenditures 91848
for all of the following:91849

       (a) Ohio works first;91850

       (b) County administration of Ohio works first;91851

       (c) Prevention, retention, and contingency;91852

       (d) County administration of prevention, retention, and 91853
contingency;91854

       (e) Disability financial assistance;91855

       (f) County administration of disability financial assistance;91856

       (g) County administration of the supplemental nutrition 91857
assistance program;91858

       (h) County administration of medicaid, excluding 91859
administrative expenditures for transportation services covered by 91860
the medicaid program.91861

       (7) "Title IV-A program" has the same meaning as in section 91862
5101.80 of the Revised Code.91863

       (B) Each board of county commissioners shall pay the county 91864
share of public assistance expenditures in accordance with section 91865
5101.161 of the Revised Code. Except as provided in division (C) 91866
of this section, a county's share of public assistance 91867
expenditures is the sum of all of the following for state fiscal 91868
year 1998 and each state fiscal year thereafter:91869

       (1) The amount that is twenty-five per cent of the county's 91870
total expenditures for disability financial assistance and county 91871
administration of that program during the state fiscal year ending 91872
in the previous calendar year that the department of job and 91873
family services determines are allowable.91874

       (2) The amount that is ten per cent, or other percentage 91875
determined under division (D) of this section, of the county's 91876
total expenditures for county administration of the supplemental 91877
nutrition assistance program and medicaid (excluding 91878
administrative expenditures for transportation services covered by 91879
the medicaid program) during the state fiscal year ending in the 91880
previous calendar year that the department determines are 91881
allowable, less the amount of federal reimbursement credited to 91882
the county under division (E) of this section for the state fiscal 91883
year ending in the previous calendar year;91884

       (3) A percentage of the actual amount of the county share of 91885
program and administrative expenditures during federal fiscal year 91886
1994 for assistance and services, other than child care, provided 91887
under Titles IV-A and IV-F of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 91888
620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as those titles existed prior to the 91889
enactment of the "Personal Responsibility and Work Opportunity 91890
Reconciliation Act of 1996," 110 Stat. 2105. The department of job 91891
and family services shall determine the actual amount of the 91892
county share from expenditure reports submitted to the United 91893
States department of health and human services. The percentage 91894
shall be the percentage established in rules adopted under 91895
division (F) of this section.91896

       (C)(1) If a county's share of public assistance expenditures 91897
determined under division (B) of this section for a state fiscal 91898
year exceeds one hundred five per cent of the county's share for 91899
those expenditures for the immediately preceding state fiscal 91900
year, the department of job and family services shall reduce the 91901
county's share for expenditures under divisions (B)(1) and (2) of 91902
this section so that the total of the county's share for 91903
expenditures under division (B) of this section equals one hundred 91904
five per cent of the county's share of those expenditures for the 91905
immediately preceding state fiscal year.91906

       (2) A county's share of public assistance expenditures 91907
determined under division (B) of this section may be increased 91908
pursuant to section 5101.163 of the Revised Code and a sanction 91909
under section 5101.24 of the Revised Code. An increase made 91910
pursuant to section 5101.163 of the Revised Code may cause the 91911
county's share to exceed the limit established by division (C)(1) 91912
of this section.91913

       (D)(1) If the per capita tax duplicate of a county is less 91914
than the per capita tax duplicate of the state as a whole and 91915
division (D)(2) of this section does not apply to the county, the 91916
percentage to be used for the purpose of division (B)(2) of this 91917
section is the product of ten multiplied by a fraction of which 91918
the numerator is the per capita tax duplicate of the county and 91919
the denominator is the per capita tax duplicate of the state as a 91920
whole. The department of job and family services shall compute the 91921
per capita tax duplicate for the state and for each county by 91922
dividing the tax duplicate for the most recent available year by 91923
the current estimate of population prepared by the department of91924
development services agency.91925

       (2) If the percentage of families in a county with an annual 91926
income of less than three thousand dollars is greater than the 91927
percentage of such families in the state and division (D)(1) of 91928
this section does not apply to the county, the percentage to be 91929
used for the purpose of division (B)(2) of this section is the 91930
product of ten multiplied by a fraction of which the numerator is 91931
the percentage of families in the state with an annual income of 91932
less than three thousand dollars a year and the denominator is the 91933
percentage of such families in the county. The department of job 91934
and family services shall compute the percentage of families with 91935
an annual income of less than three thousand dollars for the state 91936
and for each county by multiplying the most recent estimate of 91937
such families published by the department of development services 91938
agency, by a fraction, the numerator of which is the estimate of 91939
average annual personal income published by the bureau of economic 91940
analysis of the United States department of commerce for the year 91941
on which the census estimate is based and the denominator of which 91942
is the most recent such estimate published by the bureau.91943

       (3) If the per capita tax duplicate of a county is less than 91944
the per capita tax duplicate of the state as a whole and the 91945
percentage of families in the county with an annual income of less 91946
than three thousand dollars is greater than the percentage of such 91947
families in the state, the percentage to be used for the purpose 91948
of division (B)(2) of this section shall be determined as follows:91949

       (a) Multiply ten by the fraction determined under division 91950
(D)(1) of this section;91951

       (b) Multiply the product determined under division (D)(3)(a) 91952
of this section by the fraction determined under division (D)(2) 91953
of this section.91954

       (4) The department of job and family services shall 91955
determine, for each county, the percentage to be used for the 91956
purpose of division (B)(2) of this section not later than the 91957
first day of July of the year preceding the state fiscal year for 91958
which the percentage is used.91959

       (E) The department of job and family services shall credit to 91960
a county the amount of federal reimbursement the department 91961
receives from the United States departments of agriculture and 91962
health and human services for the county's expenditures for 91963
administration of the supplemental nutrition assistance program 91964
and medicaid (excluding administrative expenditures for 91965
transportation services covered by the medicaid program) that the 91966
department determines are allowable administrative expenditures.91967

       (F)(1) The director of job and family services shall adopt 91968
rules in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code to 91969
establish all of the following:91970

       (a) The method the department is to use to change a county's 91971
share of public assistance expenditures determined under division 91972
(B) of this section as provided in division (C) of this section;91973

       (b) The allocation methodology and formula the department 91974
will use to determine the amount of funds to credit to a county 91975
under this section;91976

       (c) The method the department will use to change the payment 91977
of the county share of public assistance expenditures from a 91978
calendar-year basis to a state fiscal year basis;91979

       (d) The percentage to be used for the purpose of division 91980
(B)(3) of this section, which shall, except as provided in section 91981
5101.163 of the Revised Code, meet both of the following 91982
requirements:91983

       (i) The percentage shall not be less than seventy-five per 91984
cent nor more than eighty-two per cent;91985

       (ii) The percentage shall not exceed the percentage that the 91986
state's qualified state expenditures is of the state's historic 91987
state expenditures as those terms are defined in 42 U.S.C. 91988
609(a)(7).91989

       (e) Other procedures and requirements necessary to implement 91990
this section.91991

       (2) The director of job and family services may amend the 91992
rule adopted under division (F)(1)(d) of this section to modify 91993
the percentage on determination that the amount the general 91994
assembly appropriates for Title IV-A programs makes the 91995
modification necessary. The rule shall be adopted and amended as 91996
if an internal management rule and in consultation with the 91997
director of budget and management.91998

       Sec. 5101.162.  Subject to available federal funds and 91999
appropriations made by the general assembly, the department of job 92000
and family services may, at its sole discretion, use available 92001
federal funds to reimburse county expenditures for county 92002
administration of the supplemental nutrition assistance program or 92003
medicaid (excluding administrative expenditures for transportation 92004
services covered by the medicaid program) even though the county 92005
expenditures meet or exceed the maximum allowable reimbursement 92006
amount established by rules adopted under section 5101.161 of the 92007
Revised Code. The director of job and family services may adopt 92008
internal management rules in accordance with section 111.15 of the 92009
Revised Code to implement this section.92010

       Sec. 5101.18. (A) When the director of job and family 92011
services adopts rules under section 5107.05 regarding income 92012
requirements for the Ohio works first program and under section 92013
5115.03 of the Revised Code regarding income and resource 92014
requirements for the disability financial assistance program, the 92015
director shall determine what payments shall be regarded or 92016
disregarded. In making this determination, the director shall 92017
consider:92018

       (1)(A) The source of the payment;92019

       (2)(B) The amount of the payment;92020

       (3)(C) The purpose for which the payment was made;92021

       (4)(D) Whether regarding the payment as income would be in 92022
the public interest;92023

       (5)(E) Whether treating the payment as income would be 92024
detrimental to any of the programs administered in whole or in 92025
part by the department of job and family services and whether such 92026
determination would jeopardize the receipt of any federal grant or 92027
payment by the state or any receipt of aid under Chapter 5107. of 92028
the Revised Code.92029

       (B) Any recipient of aid under Title XVI of the "Social 92030
Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, 92031
whose money payment is discontinued as the result of a general 92032
increase in old-age, survivors, and disability insurance benefits 92033
under such act, shall remain a recipient for the purpose of 92034
receiving medical assistance through the medical assistance 92035
program established under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code.92036

       Sec. 5101.181.  (A) As used in this section and section 92037
5101.182 of the Revised Code:92038

       (1) "Public, "public assistance" means any or all of the 92039
following:92040

       (a)(1) Ohio works first;92041

       (b)(2) Prevention, retention, and contingency; 92042

       (c)(3) Disability financial assistance;92043

       (d)(4) General assistance provided prior to July 17, 1995, 92044
under former Chapter 5113. of the Revised Code.92045

       (2) "Medical assistance" means medical assistance provided 92046
pursuant to, or under programs established by, section 5101.49, 92047
sections 5101.50 to 5101.529, Chapter 5111., or any other 92048
provision of the Revised Code.92049

       (B) As part of the procedure for the determination of 92050
overpayment to a recipient of public assistance under Chapter 92051
5107., 5108., or 5115. of the Revised Code, the director of job 92052
and family services may furnish quarterly the name and social 92053
security number of each individual who receives public assistance 92054
to the director of administrative services, the administrator of 92055
the bureau of workers' compensation, and each of the state's 92056
retirement boards. Within fourteen days after receiving the name 92057
and social security number of an individual who receives public 92058
assistance, the director of administrative services, 92059
administrator, or board shall inform the auditor of state as to 92060
whether such individual is receiving wages or benefits, the amount 92061
of any wages or benefits being received, the social security 92062
number, and the address of the individual. The director of 92063
administrative services, administrator, boards, and any agent or 92064
employee of those officials and boards shall comply with the rules 92065
of the director of job and family services restricting the 92066
disclosure of information regarding recipients of public 92067
assistance. Any person who violates this provision shall 92068
thereafter be disqualified from acting as an agent or employee or 92069
in any other capacity under appointment or employment of any state 92070
board, commission, or agency.92071

       (C) The auditor of state may enter into a reciprocal 92072
agreement with the director of job and family services or 92073
comparable officer of any other state for the exchange of names, 92074
current or most recent addresses, or social security numbers of 92075
persons receiving public assistance under Title IV-A of the 92076
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as 92077
amended601 et seq.92078

       (D) The auditor of state shall retain, for not less than two 92079
years, at least one copy of all information received under this 92080
section and sections 145.27, 742.41, 3307.20, 3309.22, 4123.27, 92081
5101.182, and 5505.04 of the Revised Code. 92082

        (E) On the request of the director of job and family 92083
services, the auditor of state may conduct an audit of an 92084
individual who receives medical assistance. If the auditor decides 92085
to conduct an audit, the auditor shall enter into an interagency 92086
agreement with the department of job and family services that 92087
specifies that the auditor agrees to comply with section 5101.271 92088
of the Revised Code with respect to any information the auditor 92089
receives pursuant to the audit.92090

       (F) The auditor shall review the information described in 92091
division (D) of this section to determine whether overpayments 92092
were made to recipients of public assistance under Chapters 5107., 92093
5108., and 5115. of the Revised Code. The auditor of state shall 92094
initiate action leading to prosecution, where warranted, of 92095
recipients who received overpayments by forwarding the name of 92096
each recipient who received overpayment, together with other 92097
pertinent information, to the director of job and family services, 92098
the attorney general, and the county director of job and family 92099
services and county prosecutor of the county through which public 92100
assistance was received.92101

       (G)(F) The auditor of state and the attorney general or their 92102
designees may examine any records, whether in computer or printed 92103
format, in the possession of the director of job and family 92104
services or any county director of job and family services. They 92105
shall provide safeguards which restrict access to such records to 92106
purposes directly connected with an audit or investigation, 92107
prosecution, or criminal or civil proceeding conducted in 92108
connection with the administration of the programs and shall 92109
comply with sectionssection 5101.27 and 5101.271 of the Revised 92110
Code and adopts rules ofadopted by the director of job and family 92111
services restricting the disclosure of information regarding 92112
recipients of public assistance or medical assistance. Any person 92113
who violates this provision shall thereafter be disqualified from 92114
acting as an agent or employee or in any other capacity under 92115
appointment or employment of any state board, commission, or 92116
agency.92117

       (H)(G) Costs incurred by the auditor of state in carrying out 92118
the auditor of state's duties under this section shall be borne by 92119
the auditor of state.92120

       Sec. 5101.183.  (A) Except as provided in section 5111.12 of 92121
the Revised Code, theThe director of job and family services, in 92122
accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code, may adopt 92123
rules under which county family services agencies shall take 92124
action to recover the cost of the following benefits and services 92125
available under programs administered by the department of job and 92126
family services:92127

       (1) Benefits or services provided to any of the following:92128

       (a) Persons who were not eligible for the benefits or 92129
services but who secured the benefits or services through fraud or 92130
misrepresentation;92131

       (b) Persons who were eligible for the benefits or services 92132
but who intentionally diverted the benefits or services to other 92133
persons who were not eligible for the benefits or services.92134

       (2) Any benefits or services provided by a county family 92135
services agency for which recovery is required or permitted by 92136
federal law for the federal programs administered by the agency.92137

       (B) A county family services agency may bring a civil action 92138
against a recipient of benefits or services to recover any costs 92139
described in division (A) of this section.92140

       (C) A county family services agency shall retain any money it 92141
recovers under division (A) of this section and shall use the 92142
money to meet a family services duty, except that, if federal law 92143
requires the department of job and family services to return any 92144
portion of the money so recovered to the federal government, the 92145
county family services agency shall pay that portion to the 92146
department of job and family services.92147

       Sec. 5101.184.  (A) The director of job and family services 92148
shall work with the tax commissioner to collect overpayments of 92149
assistance under Chapter 5107., 5111., or 5115., former Chapter 92150
5113., or section 5101.54 of the Revised Code from refunds of 92151
state income taxes for taxable year 1992 and thereafter that are 92152
payable to the recipients of such overpayments.92153

       Any overpayment of assistance, whether obtained by fraud or 92154
misrepresentation, as the result of an error by the recipient or 92155
by the agency making the payment, or in any other manner, may be 92156
collected under this section. Any reduction under section 5747.12 92157
or 5747.121 of the Revised Code to an income tax refund shall be 92158
made before a reduction under this section. No reduction shall be 92159
made under this section if the amount of the refund is less than 92160
twenty-five dollars after any reduction under section 5747.12 of 92161
the Revised Code. A reduction under this section shall be made 92162
before any part of the refund is contributed under section 92163
5747.113 of the Revised Code, or is credited under section 5747.12 92164
of the Revised Code against tax due in any subsequent year.92165

       The director and the tax commissioner, by rules adopted in 92166
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall establish 92167
procedures to implement this division. The procedures shall 92168
provide for notice to a recipient of assistance and an opportunity 92169
for the recipient to be heard before the recipient's income tax 92170
refund is reduced.92171

       (B) The director of job and family services may enter into 92172
agreements with the federal government to collect overpayments of 92173
assistance from refunds of federal income taxes that are payable 92174
to recipients of the overpayments.92175

       Sec. 5101.26.  As used in this section and in sections 92176
5101.27 to 5101.30 of the Revised Code:92177

       (A) "County agency" means a county department of job and 92178
family services or a public children services agency.92179

       (B) "Fugitive felon" means an individual who is fleeing to 92180
avoid prosecution, or custody or confinement after conviction, 92181
under the laws of the place from which the individual is fleeing, 92182
for a crime or an attempt to commit a crime that is a felony under 92183
the laws of the place from which the individual is fleeing or, in 92184
the case of New Jersey, a high misdemeanor, regardless of whether 92185
the individual has departed from the individual's usual place of 92186
residence.92187

       (C) "Information" means records as defined in section 149.011 92188
of the Revised Code, any other documents in any format, and data 92189
derived from records and documents that are generated, acquired, 92190
or maintained by the department of job and family services, a 92191
county agency, or an entity performing duties on behalf of the 92192
department or a county agency.92193

       (D) "Law enforcement agency" means the state highway patrol, 92194
an agency that employs peace officers as defined in section 109.71 92195
of the Revised Code, the adult parole authority, a county 92196
department of probation, a prosecuting attorney, the attorney 92197
general, similar agencies of other states, federal law enforcement 92198
agencies, and postal inspectors. "Law enforcement agency" includes 92199
the peace officers and other law enforcement officers employed by 92200
the agency.92201

       (E) "Medical assistance" means medical assistance provided 92202
pursuant to, or under programs established by, section 5101.49, 92203
sections 5101.50 to 5101.529, Chapter 5111., or any other 92204
provision of the Revised Code.92205

        (F) "Medical assistance recipient" means an applicant for or 92206
recipient or former recipient of medical assistance.92207

       (G) "Public assistance" means financial assistance or social 92208
services that are not medical assistance provided under a program 92209
administered by the department of job and family services or a 92210
county agency pursuant to Chapter 329., 5101., 5104., 5107., 92211
5108., or 5115. of the Revised Code or an executive order issued 92212
under section 107.17 of the Revised Code. "Public assistance" does 92213
not mean medical assistance provided under a medical assistance 92214
program, as defined in section 5160.01 of the Revised Code.92215

       (H)(F) "Public assistance recipient" means an applicant for 92216
or recipient or former recipient of public assistance.92217

       Sec. 5101.272. (A) For the purposes of sectionssection92218
5101.27 and 5101.271 of the Revised Code, an authorization shall 92219
be made on a form that uses language understandable to the average 92220
person and contains all of the following:92221

       (1) A description of the information to be used or disclosed 92222
that identifies the information in a specific and meaningful 92223
fashion;92224

       (2) The name or other specific identification of the person 92225
or class of persons authorized to make the requested use or 92226
disclosure;92227

       (3) The name or other specific identification of the person 92228
or governmental entity to which the information may be released;92229

       (4) A description of each purpose of the requested use or 92230
disclosure of the information;92231

       (5) The date on which the authorization expires or an event 92232
related either to the individual who is the subject of the request 92233
or to the purposes of the requested use or disclosure, the 92234
occurrence of which will cause the authorization to expire;92235

       (6) A statement that the information used or disclosed 92236
pursuant to the authorization may be disclosed by the recipient of 92237
the information and may no longer be protected from disclosure;92238

       (7) The signature of the individual or the individual's 92239
authorized representative and the date on which the authorization 92240
was signed;92241

       (8) If signed by an authorized representative, a description 92242
of the representative's authority to act for the individual;92243

       (9) A statement of the individual or authorized 92244
representative's right to prospectively revoke the written 92245
authorization in writing, along with one of the following:92246

       (a) A description of how the individual or authorized 92247
representative may revoke the authorization;92248

       (b) If the department of job and family services' privacy 92249
notice contains a description of how the individual or authorized 92250
representative may revoke the authorization, a reference to that 92251
privacy notice.92252

       (10) A statement that treatment, payment, enrollment, or 92253
eligibility for public assistance or medical assistance cannot be 92254
conditioned on signing the authorization unless the authorization 92255
is necessary for determining eligibility for the public assistance 92256
or medical assistance program.92257

       (B) An authorization for the release of information regarding 92258
a medical assistance recipient to the recipient's attorney under 92259
division (C)(3) of section 5101.271 of the Revised Code may 92260
include a provision specifically authorizing the release of the 92261
recipient's electronic health records, if any, in accordance with 92262
rules the director of job and family services adopts under section 92263
5101.30 of the Revised Code.92264

       (C) When an individual requests information pursuant to 92265
section 5101.27 or 5101.271 of the Revised Code regarding the 92266
individual's receipt of public assistance or medical assistance92267
and does not wish to provide a statement of purpose, the statement 92268
"at request of the individual" is a sufficient description for 92269
purposes of division (A)(4) of this section.92270

       Sec. 5101.273.  The department of job and family services 92271
shall enter into any necessary agreements with the United States 92272
department of health and human services and neighboring states to 92273
join and participate as an active member in the public assistance 92274
reporting information system. The department may disclose 92275
information regarding a public assistance recipient or medical 92276
assistance recipient to the extent necessary to participate as an 92277
active member in the public assistance reporting information 92278
system.92279

       Sec. 5101.30.  (A) The director of job and family services 92280
shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 92281
Code implementing sections 5101.26 to 5101.30 of the Revised Code 92282
and governing the custody, use, disclosure, and preservation of 92283
the information generated or received by the department of job and 92284
family services, county agencies, other state and county entities, 92285
contractors, grantees, private entities, or officials 92286
participating in the administration of public assistance or 92287
medical assistance programs. The rules shall comply with 92288
applicable federal statutes and regulations. 92289

       (1) The rules shall specify conditions and procedures for the 92290
release of information which may include, among other conditions 92291
and procedures, both of the following:92292

        (a) Permitting providers of services or assistance under 92293
public assistance programs limited access to information that is 92294
essential for the providers to render services or assistance or to 92295
bill for services or assistance rendered. The department of aging, 92296
when investigating a complaint under section 173.20 of the Revised 92297
Code, shall be granted any limited access permitted in the rules 92298
pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section.92299

        (b) Permitting a contractor, grantee, or other state or 92300
county entity limited access to information that is essential for 92301
the contractor, grantee, or entity to perform administrative or 92302
other duties on behalf of the department or county agency. A 92303
contractor, grantee, or entity given access to information 92304
pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section is bound by the 92305
director's rules, and disclosure of the information by the 92306
contractor, grantee, or entity in a manner not authorized by the 92307
rules is a violation of section 5101.27 of the Revised Code.92308

       (2) The rules may define who is an "authorized 92309
representative" for purposes of sections 5101.27, 5101.271, and 92310
5101.272 of the Revised Code.92311

       (B) Whenever names, addresses, or other information relating 92312
to public assistance recipients is held by any agency other than 92313
the department or a county agency, that other agency shall adopt 92314
rules consistent with sections 5101.26 to 5101.30 of the Revised 92315
Code to prevent the publication or disclosure of names, lists, or 92316
other information concerning those recipients.92317

       Sec. 5101.34.  (A) There is hereby created in the department 92318
of job and family services the Ohio commission on fatherhood. The 92319
commission shall consist of the following members:92320

       (1)(a) Four members of the house of representatives appointed 92321
by the speaker of the house, not more than two of whom are members 92322
of the same political party. Two of the members must be from 92323
legislative districts that include a county or part of a county 92324
that is among the one-third of counties in this state with the 92325
highest number per capita of households headed by females.92326

       (b) Two members of the senate appointed by the president of 92327
the senate, each from a different political party. One of the 92328
members must be from a legislative district that includes a county 92329
or part of a county that is among the one-third of counties in 92330
this state with the highest number per capita of households headed 92331
by females.92332

       (2) The governor, or the governor's designee;92333

       (3) One representative of the judicial branch of government 92334
appointed by the chief justice of the supreme court;92335

       (4) The directors of health, job and family services, 92336
rehabilitation and correction, alcohol and drug addiction services92337
mental health and addiction services, and youth services and the 92338
superintendent of public instruction, or their designees;92339

       (5) One representative of the Ohio family and children first 92340
cabinet council created under section 121.37 of the Revised Code 92341
appointed by the chairperson of the council;92342

       (6) Five representatives of the general public appointed by 92343
the governor. These members shall have extensive experience in 92344
issues related to fatherhood. 92345

       (B) The appointing authorities of the Ohio commission on 92346
fatherhood shall make initial appointments to the commission 92347
within thirty days after September 29, 1999. Of the initial 92348
appointments to the commission made pursuant to divisions (A)(3), 92349
(5), and (6) of this section, three of the members shall serve a 92350
term of one year and four shall serve a term of two years. Members 92351
so appointed subsequently shall serve two-year terms. A member 92352
appointed pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section shall serve 92353
on the commission until the end of the general assembly from which 92354
the member was appointed or until the member ceases to serve in 92355
the chamber of the general assembly in which the member serves at 92356
the time of appointment, whichever occurs first. The governor or 92357
the governor's designee shall serve on the commission until the 92358
governor ceases to be governor. The directors and superintendent 92359
or their designees shall serve on the commission until they cease, 92360
or the director or superintendent a designee represents ceases, to 92361
be director or superintendent. Each member shall serve on the 92362
commission from the date of appointment until the end of the term 92363
for which the member was appointed. Members may be reappointed.92364

       Vacancies shall be filled in the manner provided for original 92365
appointments. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring 92366
prior to the expiration date of the term for which the member's 92367
predecessor was appointed shall serve on the commission for the 92368
remainder of that term. A member shall continue to serve on the 92369
commission subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term 92370
until the member's successor is appointed or until a period of 92371
sixty days has elapsed, whichever occurs first. Members shall 92372
serve without compensation but shall be reimbursed for necessary 92373
expenses.92374

       Sec. 5101.35.  (A) As used in this section:92375

       (1)(a) "Agency" means the following entities that administer 92376
a family services program:92377

       (a)(i) The department of job and family services;92378

       (b)(ii) A county department of job and family services;92379

       (c)(iii) A public children services agency;92380

       (d)(iv) A private or government entity administering, in 92381
whole or in part, a family services program for or on behalf of 92382
the department of job and family services or a county department 92383
of job and family services or public children services agency.92384

       (b) If the department of medicaid contracts with the 92385
department of job and family services to hear appeals authorized 92386
by section 5160.31 of the Revised Code regarding medical 92387
assistance programs, "agency" includes the department of medicaid.92388

       (2) "Appellant" means an applicant, participant, former 92389
participant, recipient, or former recipient of a family services 92390
program who is entitled by federal or state law to a hearing 92391
regarding a decision or order of the agency that administers the 92392
program.92393

       (3)(a) "Family services program" means assistance provided 92394
under aall of the following:92395

       (i) A Title IV-A program as defined in section 5101.80 of the 92396
Revised Code or;92397

       (ii) Programs that provide assistance under Chapter 5104., 92398
5111., or 5115. orof the Revised Code;92399

       (iii) Programs that provide assistance under section 5119.69,92400
5101.141, 5101.46, 5101.461, 5101.54, 5119.41, 5153.163, or 92401
5153.165 of the Revised Code,;92402

       (iv) Title XX social services provided under section 5101.46 92403
of the Revised Code, other than assistancesuch services provided 92404
under section 5101.46 of the Revised Code by the department of 92405
mental healthmental health and addiction services, the department 92406
of developmental disabilities, a board of alcohol, drug addiction, 92407
and mental health services, or a county board of developmental 92408
disabilities.92409

       (b) If the department of medicaid contracts with the 92410
department of job and family services to hear appeals authorized 92411
by section 5160.31 of the Revised Code regarding medical 92412
assistance programs, "family services program" includes medical 92413
assistance programs.92414

        (4) "Medical assistance program" has the same meaning as in 92415
section 5160.01 of the Revised Code.92416

       (B) Except as provided by divisions (G) and (H) of this 92417
section, an appellant who appeals under federal or state law a 92418
decision or order of an agency administering a family services 92419
program shall, at the appellant's request, be granted a state 92420
hearing by the department of job and family services. This state 92421
hearing shall be conducted in accordance with rules adopted under 92422
this section. The state hearing shall be recorded, but neither the 92423
recording nor a transcript of the recording shall be part of the 92424
official record of the proceeding. AExcept as provided in section 92425
5160.31 of the Revised Code, a state hearing decision is binding 92426
upon the agency and department, unless it is reversed or modified 92427
on appeal to the director of job and family services or a court of 92428
common pleas.92429

       (C) Except as provided by division (G) of this section, an 92430
appellant who disagrees with a state hearing decision may make an 92431
administrative appeal to the director of job and family services 92432
in accordance with rules adopted under this section. This 92433
administrative appeal does not require a hearing, but the director 92434
or the director's designee shall review the state hearing decision 92435
and previous administrative action and may affirm, modify, remand, 92436
or reverse the state hearing decision. An administrative appeal 92437
decision is the final decision of the department and, except as 92438
provided in section 5160.31 of the Revised Code, is binding upon 92439
the department and agency, unless it is reversed or modified on 92440
appeal to the court of common pleas.92441

       (D) An agency shall comply with a decision issued pursuant to 92442
division (B) or (C) of this section within the time limits 92443
established by rules adopted under this section. If a county 92444
department of job and family services or a public children 92445
services agency fails to comply within these time limits, the 92446
department may take action pursuant to section 5101.24 of the 92447
Revised Code. If another agency, other than the department of 92448
medicaid, fails to comply within the time limits, the department 92449
may force compliance by withholding funds due the agency or 92450
imposing another sanction established by rules adopted under this 92451
section.92452

       (E) An appellant who disagrees with an administrative appeal 92453
decision of the director of job and family services or the 92454
director's designee issued under division (C) of this section may 92455
appeal from the decision to the court of common pleas pursuant to 92456
section 119.12 of the Revised Code. The appeal shall be governed 92457
by section 119.12 of the Revised Code except that:92458

       (1) The person may appeal to the court of common pleas of the 92459
county in which the person resides, or to the court of common 92460
pleas of Franklin county if the person does not reside in this 92461
state.92462

       (2) The person may apply to the court for designation as an 92463
indigent and, if the court grants this application, the appellant 92464
shall not be required to furnish the costs of the appeal.92465

       (3) The appellant shall mail the notice of appeal to the 92466
department of job and family services and file notice of appeal 92467
with the court within thirty days after the department mails the 92468
administrative appeal decision to the appellant. For good cause 92469
shown, the court may extend the time for mailing and filing notice 92470
of appeal, but such time shall not exceed six months from the date 92471
the department mails the administrative appeal decision. Filing 92472
notice of appeal with the court shall be the only act necessary to 92473
vest jurisdiction in the court.92474

       (4) The department shall be required to file a transcript of 92475
the testimony of the state hearing with the court only if the 92476
court orders the department to file the transcript. The court 92477
shall make such an order only if it finds that the department and 92478
the appellant are unable to stipulate to the facts of the case and 92479
that the transcript is essential to a determination of the appeal. 92480
The department shall file the transcript not later than thirty 92481
days after the day such an order is issued.92482

       (F) The department of job and family services shall adopt 92483
rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to 92484
implement this section, including rules governing the following:92485

       (1) State hearings under division (B) of this section. The 92486
rules shall include provisions regarding notice of eligibility 92487
termination and the opportunity of an appellant appealing a 92488
decision or order of a county department of job and family 92489
services to request a county conference with the county department 92490
before the state hearing is held.92491

       (2) Administrative appeals under division (C) of this 92492
section;92493

       (3) Time limits for complying with a decision issued under 92494
division (B) or (C) of this section;92495

       (4) Sanctions that may be applied against an agency under 92496
division (D) of this section.92497

       (G) The department of job and family services may adopt rules 92498
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code establishing 92499
an appeals process for an appellant who appeals a decision or 92500
order regarding a Title IV-A program identified under division 92501
(A)(4)(c), (d), (e), or (f), or (g) of section 5101.80 of the 92502
Revised Code that is different from the appeals process 92503
established by this section. The different appeals process may 92504
include having a state agency that administers the Title IV-A 92505
program pursuant to an interagency agreement entered into under 92506
section 5101.801 of the Revised Code administer the appeals 92507
process.92508

       (H) If an appellant receiving medicaid through a health 92509
insuring corporation that holds a certificate of authority under 92510
Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code is appealing a denial of 92511
medicaid services based on lack of medical necessity or other 92512
clinical issues regarding coverage by the health insuring 92513
corporation, the person hearing the appeal may order an 92514
independent medical review if that person determines that a review 92515
is necessary. The review shall be performed by a health care 92516
professional with appropriate clinical expertise in treating the 92517
recipient's condition or disease. The department shall pay the 92518
costs associated with the review.92519

       A review ordered under this division shall be part of the 92520
record of the hearing and shall be given appropriate evidentiary 92521
consideration by the person hearing the appeal.92522

       (I) The requirements of Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 92523
apply to a state hearing or administrative appeal under this 92524
section only to the extent, if any, specifically provided by rules 92525
adopted under this section.92526

       Sec. 5101.36.  Any application for public assistance gives a 92527
right of subrogation to the department of job and family services 92528
for any workers' compensation benefits payable to a person who is 92529
subject to a support order, as defined in section 3119.01 of the 92530
Revised Code, on behalf of the applicant, to the extent of any 92531
public assistance payments made on the applicant's behalf. If the 92532
director of job and family services, in consultation with a child 92533
support enforcement agency and the administrator of the bureau of 92534
workers' compensation, determines that a person responsible for 92535
support payments to a recipient of public assistance is receiving 92536
workers' compensation, the director shall notify the administrator 92537
of the amount of the benefit to be paid to the department of job 92538
and family services.92539

       For purposes of this section, "public assistance" means 92540
medical assistance provided through the medical assistance program 92541
established under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code; Ohio works 92542
first provided under Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code; 92543
prevention, retention, and contingency benefits and services 92544
provided under Chapter 5108. of the Revised Code; or disability 92545
financial assistance provided under Chapter 5115. of the Revised 92546
Code.92547

       Sec. 5101.46.  (A) As used in this section:92548

       (1) "Title XX" means Title XX of the "Social Security Act," 92549
88 Stat. 2337 (1974), 42 U.S.C.A. 1397, as amended.92550

       (2) "Respective local agency" means, with respect to the 92551
department of job and family services, a county department of job 92552
and family services; with respect to the department of mental 92553
healthmental health and addiction services, a board of alcohol, 92554
drug addiction, and mental health services; and with respect to 92555
the department of developmental disabilities, a county board of 92556
developmental disabilities.92557

       (3) "Federal poverty guidelines" means the poverty guidelines 92558
as revised annually by the United States department of health and 92559
human services in accordance with section 673(2) of the "Omnibus 92560
Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981," 95 Stat. 511, 42 U.S.C.A. 92561
9902, as amended, for a family size equal to the size of the 92562
family of the person whose income is being determined.92563

       (B) The departments of job and family services, mental 92564
health, and developmental disabilities, with their respective 92565
local agencies, shall administer the provision of social services 92566
funded through grants made under Title XX. The social services 92567
furnished with Title XX funds shall be directed at the following 92568
goals:92569

       (1) Achieving or maintaining economic self-support to 92570
prevent, reduce, or eliminate dependency;92571

       (2) Achieving or maintaining self-sufficiency, including 92572
reduction or prevention of dependency;92573

       (3) Preventing or remedying neglect, abuse, or exploitation 92574
of children and adults unable to protect their own interests, or 92575
preserving, rehabilitating, or reuniting families;92576

       (4) Preventing or reducing inappropriate institutional care 92577
by providing for community-based care, home-based care, or other 92578
forms of less intensive care;92579

       (5) Securing referral or admission for institutional care 92580
when other forms of care are not appropriate, or providing 92581
services to individuals in institutions.92582

       (C)(1) All federal funds received under Title XX shall be 92583
appropriated as follows:92584

       (a) Seventy-two and one-half per cent to the department of 92585
job and family services;92586

       (b) Twelve and ninety-three one-hundredths per cent to the 92587
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services;92588

       (c) Fourteen and fifty-seven one-hundredths per cent to the 92589
department of developmental disabilities.92590

       (2) Each of the state departments shall, subject to the 92591
approval of the controlling board, develop a formula for the 92592
distribution of the Title XX funds appropriated to the department 92593
to its respective local agencies. The formula developed by each 92594
state department shall take into account all of the following for 92595
each of its respective local agencies:92596

       (a) The total population of the area that is served by the 92597
respective local agency;92598

       (b) The percentage of the population in the area served that 92599
falls below the federal poverty guidelines;92600

       (c) The respective local agency's history of and ability to 92601
utilize Title XX funds.92602

       (3) Each of the state departments shall expend for state 92603
administrative costs not more than three per cent of the Title XX 92604
funds appropriated to the department. 92605

       Each state department shall establish for each of its 92606
respective local agencies the maximum percentage of the Title XX 92607
funds distributed to the respective local agency that the 92608
respective local agency may expend for local administrative costs. 92609
The percentage shall be established by rule and shall comply with 92610
federal law governing the use of Title XX funds. The rules shall 92611
be adopted in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code 92612
as if they were internal management rules.92613

       (4) The department of job and family services shall expend 92614
for the training of the following not more than two per cent of 92615
the Title XX funds appropriated to the department:92616

       (a) Employees of county departments of job and family 92617
services;92618

       (b) Providers of services under contract with the state 92619
departments' respective local agencies;92620

       (c) Employees of a public children services agency directly 92621
engaged in providing Title XX services. 92622

       (5) Title XX funds distributed for the purpose of providing 92623
family planning services shall be distributed by the respective 92624
local agencies according to the same order of priority that 92625
applies to the department of job and family services under section 92626
5101.101 of the Revised Code.92627

       (D) The department of job and family services shall prepare 92628
an annual comprehensive Title XX social services plan on the 92629
intended use of Title XX funds. The department shall develop a 92630
method for obtaining public comment during the development of the 92631
plan and following its completion.92632

       For each federal fiscal year, the department of job and 92633
family services shall prepare a report on the actual use of Title 92634
XX funds. The department shall make the annual report available 92635
for public inspection.92636

       The departments of mental healthmental health and addiction 92637
services and developmental disabilities shall prepare and submit 92638
to the department of job and family services the portions of each 92639
annual plan and report that apply to services for mental health 92640
and mental retardation and developmental disabilities. Each 92641
respective local agency of the three state departments shall 92642
submit information as necessary for the preparation of annual 92643
plans and reports.92644

       (E) Each county department of job and family services shall 92645
adopt a county profile for the administration and provision of 92646
Title XX social services in the county. In developing its county 92647
profile, the county department shall take into consideration the 92648
comments and recommendations received from the public by the 92649
county family services planning committee pursuant to section 92650
329.06 of the Revised Code. As part of its preparation of the 92651
county profile, the county department may prepare a local needs 92652
report analyzing the need for Title XX social services.92653

       The county department shall submit the county profile to the 92654
board of county commissioners for its review. Once the county 92655
profile has been approved by the board, the county department 92656
shall file a copy of the county profile with the department of job 92657
and family services. The department shall approve the county 92658
profile if the department determines the profile provides for the 92659
Title XX social services to meet the goals specified in division 92660
(B) of this section.92661

       (F) Any of the three state departments and their respective 92662
local agencies may require that an entity under contract to 92663
provide social services with Title XX funds submit to an audit on 92664
the basis of alleged misuse or improper accounting of funds. If an 92665
audit is required, the social services provider shall reimburse 92666
the state department or respective local agency for the cost it 92667
incurred in conducting the audit or having the audit conducted.92668

        If an audit demonstrates that a social services provider is 92669
responsible for one or more adverse findings, the provider shall 92670
reimburse the appropriate state department or its respective local 92671
agency the amount of the adverse findings. The amount shall not be 92672
reimbursed with Title XX funds received under this section. The 92673
three state departments and their respective local agencies may 92674
terminate or refuse to enter into a Title XX contract with a 92675
social services provider if there are adverse findings in an audit 92676
that are the responsibility of the provider. 92677

       (G) Except with respect to the matters for which each of the 92678
state departments must adopt rules under division (C)(3) of this 92679
section, the department of job and family services may adopt any 92680
rules it considers necessary to implement and carry out the 92681
purposes of this section. Rules governing financial and 92682
operational matters of the department or matters between the 92683
department and county departments of job and family services shall 92684
be adopted as internal management rules in accordance with section 92685
111.15 of the Revised Code. Rules governing eligibility for 92686
services, program participation, and other matters pertaining to 92687
applicants and participants shall be adopted in accordance with 92688
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.92689

       Sec. 5101.461. (A) As used in this section:92690

        (1) "Title IV-A" means Title IV-A of the "Social Security 92691
Act," 110 Stat. 2113 (1996), 42 U.S.C. 601, as amended.92692

        (2) "Title XX" has the same meaning as in section 5101.46 of 92693
the Revised Code.92694

        (B) To the extent authorized by federal law, the department 92695
of job and family services may use funds received through the 92696
Title IV-A temporary assistance for needy families block grant for 92697
purposes of providing Title XX social services. The amount used 92698
under this section shall not exceed the maximum amount permitted 92699
by federal law. The funds and provision of Title XX social 92700
services with the funds are not subject to section 5101.46 of the 92701
Revised Code.92702

       Funds distributed under this section for the purpose of 92703
providing family planning services shall be distributed by a 92704
county department of job and family services according to the same 92705
order of priority that applies to the department of job and family 92706
services under section 5101.101 of the Revised Code.92707

        (C) The department and any county department of job and 92708
family services may require an entity under contract to provide 92709
Title XX social services with funds used under this section to 92710
submit to an audit on the basis of alleged misuse or improper 92711
accounting of funds. If an audit is required, the social services 92712
provider shall reimburse the state department or county department 92713
for the cost it incurred in conducting the audit or having the 92714
audit conducted.92715

        If an audit demonstrates that a social services provider is 92716
responsible for one or more adverse findings, the provider shall 92717
reimburse the state department or county department the amount of 92718
the adverse findings. The amount shall not be reimbursed with 92719
funds received under this section. The state department and county 92720
departments may terminate or refuse to enter into a contract with 92721
a social services provider to provide services with funds 92722
available pursuant to this section if there are adverse findings 92723
in an audit that are the responsibility of the provider.92724

        (D) The state department of job and family services may adopt 92725
rules to implement and carry out the purposes of this section. 92726
Rules governing financial and operational matters of the 92727
department or matters between the department and county 92728
departments of job and family services shall be adopted as 92729
internal management rules in accordance with section 111.15 of the 92730
Revised Code. Rules governing eligibility for services, program 92731
participation, and other matters pertaining to applicants and 92732
participants shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of 92733
the Revised Code.92734

       Sec. 5101.47.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (B) and 92735
(C) of this section, the department of job and family services may 92736
accept applications, determine eligibility, redetermine 92737
eligibility, and perform related administrative activities for one 92738
or more of the following:92739

       (1) The medicaid program established by Chapter 5111. of the 92740
Revised Code;92741

       (2) The children's health insurance program parts I, II, and 92742
III provided for under sections 5101.50 to 5101.529 of the Revised 92743
Code;92744

       (3) Publicly funded child care provided under Chapter 5104. 92745
of the Revised Code;92746

       (4)(2) The supplemental nutrition assistance program 92747
administered by the department pursuant to section 5101.54 of the 92748
Revised Code;92749

       (5)(3) Other programs administered by the department that the 92750
director of job and family services determines are supportive of 92751
children, adults, or families;92752

       (6)(4) Other programs administered by the department92753
regarding which the director determines administrative cost 92754
savings and efficiency may be achieved through the department 92755
accepting applications, determining eligibility, redetermining 92756
eligibility, or performing related administrative activities.92757

       (B) To the extent permitted by federal law, the department 92758
may enter into agreements with one or more other state agencies, 92759
local government entities, or political subdivisions to accept 92760
applications, determine eligibility, redetermine eligibility, and 92761
perform related administrative activities on behalf of the 92762
department with respect to the medicaid program and the children's 92763
health insurance program.92764

       (C) If federal law requires a face-to-face interview to 92765
complete an eligibility determination for a program specified in 92766
or pursuant to division (A) of this section, the face-to-face 92767
interview shall not be conducted by the department of job and 92768
family services.92769

       (D)(C) Subject to division (C)(B) of this section, if the 92770
department elects to accept applications, determine eligibility, 92771
redetermine eligibility, and perform related administrative 92772
activities for a program specified in or pursuant to division (A) 92773
of this section, both of the following apply:92774

       (1) An individual seeking services under the program may 92775
apply for the program to the department or to the entity that 92776
state law governing the program authorizes to accept applications 92777
for the program.92778

       (2) The department is subject to federal statutes and 92779
regulations and state statutes and rules that require, permit, or 92780
prohibit an action regarding accepting applications, determining 92781
or redetermining eligibility, and performing related 92782
administrative activities for the program.92783

       (E)(D) The director may adopt rules as necessary to implement 92784
this section.92785

       Sec. 5101.49.  The department of job and family services 92786
shall administer funds received under the "Refugee Act of 1980," 92787
94 Stat. 102, 8 U.S.C.A. 1521, as amended. In administering the 92788
funds, the department may establish a refugee cash assistance 92789
program and a state legalization impact assistance program. The 92790
director of job and family services may adopt rules in accordance 92791
with section 111.15 of the Revised Code and issue appropriate 92792
orders as necessary for administration of these funds and 92793
programs.92794

       Sec. 5101.60.  As used in sections 5101.60 to 5101.71 of the 92795
Revised Code:92796

       (A) "Abuse" means the infliction upon an adult by self or 92797
others of injury, unreasonable confinement, intimidation, or cruel 92798
punishment with resulting physical harm, pain, or mental anguish.92799

       (B) "Adult" means any person sixty years of age or older 92800
within this state who is handicapped by the infirmities of aging 92801
or who has a physical or mental impairment which prevents the 92802
person from providing for the person's own care or protection, and 92803
who resides in an independent living arrangement. An "independent 92804
living arrangement" is a domicile of a person's own choosing, 92805
including, but not limited to, a private home, apartment, trailer, 92806
or rooming house. An "independent living arrangement" includes a 92807
residential facility licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of the 92808
Revised Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and 92809
personal care services for three to sixteen unrelated adults, but 92810
does not include other institutions or facilities licensed by the 92811
state or facilities in which a person resides as a result of 92812
voluntary, civil, or criminal commitment. 92813

       (C) "Caretaker" means the person assuming the responsibility 92814
for the care of an adult on a voluntary basis, by contract, 92815
through receipt of payment for care, as a result of a family 92816
relationship, or by order of a court of competent jurisdiction.92817

       (D) "Court" means the probate court in the county where an 92818
adult resides.92819

       (E) "Emergency" means that the adult is living in conditions 92820
which present a substantial risk of immediate and irreparable 92821
physical harm or death to self or any other person.92822

       (F) "Emergency services" means protective services furnished 92823
to an adult in an emergency.92824

       (G) "Exploitation" means the unlawful or improper act of a 92825
caretaker using an adult or an adult's resources for monetary or 92826
personal benefit, profit, or gain.92827

       (H) "In need of protective services" means an adult known or 92828
suspected to be suffering from abuse, neglect, or exploitation to 92829
an extent that either life is endangered or physical harm, mental 92830
anguish, or mental illness results or is likely to result.92831

       (I) "Incapacitated person" means a person who is impaired for 92832
any reason to the extent that the person lacks sufficient 92833
understanding or capacity to make and carry out reasonable 92834
decisions concerning the person's self or resources, with or 92835
without the assistance of a caretaker. Refusal to consent to the 92836
provision of services shall not be the sole determinative that the 92837
person is incapacitated. "Reasonable decisions" are decisions made 92838
in daily living which facilitate the provision of food, shelter, 92839
clothing, and health care necessary for life support.92840

       (J) "Mental illness" means a substantial disorder of thought, 92841
mood, perception, orientation, or memory that grossly impairs 92842
judgment, behavior, capacity to recognize reality, or ability to 92843
meet the ordinary demands of life.92844

       (K) "Neglect" means the failure of an adult to provide for 92845
self the goods or services necessary to avoid physical harm, 92846
mental anguish, or mental illness or the failure of a caretaker to 92847
provide such goods or services.92848

       (L) "Peace officer" means a peace officer as defined in 92849
section 2935.01 of the Revised Code.92850

       (M) "Physical harm" means bodily pain, injury, impairment, or 92851
disease suffered by an adult.92852

       (N) "Protective services" means services provided by the 92853
county department of job and family services or its designated 92854
agency to an adult who has been determined by evaluation to 92855
require such services for the prevention, correction, or 92856
discontinuance of an act of as well as conditions resulting from 92857
abuse, neglect, or exploitation. Protective services may include, 92858
but are not limited to, case work services, medical care, mental 92859
health services, legal services, fiscal management, home health 92860
care, homemaker services, housing-related services, guardianship 92861
services, and placement services as well as the provision of such 92862
commodities as food, clothing, and shelter.92863

       (O) "Working day" means Monday, Tuesday, Wednesday, Thursday, 92864
and Friday, except when such day is a holiday as defined in 92865
section 1.14 of the Revised Code.92866

       Sec. 5101.61.  (A) As used in this section:92867

       (1) "Senior service provider" means any person who provides 92868
care or services to a person who is an adult as defined in 92869
division (B) of section 5101.60 of the Revised Code.92870

       (2) "Ambulatory health facility" means a nonprofit, public or 92871
proprietary freestanding organization or a unit of such an agency 92872
or organization that:92873

       (a) Provides preventive, diagnostic, therapeutic, 92874
rehabilitative, or palliative items or services furnished to an 92875
outpatient or ambulatory patient, by or under the direction of a 92876
physician or dentist in a facility which is not a part of a 92877
hospital, but which is organized and operated to provide medical 92878
care to outpatients;92879

       (b) Has health and medical care policies which are developed 92880
with the advice of, and with the provision of review of such 92881
policies, an advisory committee of professional personnel, 92882
including one or more physicians, one or more dentists, if dental 92883
care is provided, and one or more registered nurses;92884

       (c) Has a medical director, a dental director, if dental care 92885
is provided, and a nursing director responsible for the execution 92886
of such policies, and has physicians, dentists, nursing, and 92887
ancillary staff appropriate to the scope of services provided;92888

       (d) Requires that the health care and medical care of every 92889
patient be under the supervision of a physician, provides for 92890
medical care in a case of emergency, has in effect a written 92891
agreement with one or more hospitals and other centers or clinics, 92892
and has an established patient referral system to other resources, 92893
and a utilization review plan and program;92894

       (e) Maintains clinical records on all patients;92895

       (f) Provides nursing services and other therapeutic services 92896
in accordance with programs and policies, with such services 92897
supervised by a registered professional nurse, and has a 92898
registered professional nurse on duty at all times of clinical 92899
operations;92900

       (g) Provides approved methods and procedures for the 92901
dispensing and administration of drugs and biologicals;92902

       (h) Has established an accounting and record keeping system 92903
to determine reasonable and allowable costs;92904

       (i) "Ambulatory health facilities" also includes an 92905
alcoholism treatment facility approved by the joint commission on 92906
accreditation of healthcare organizations as an alcoholism 92907
treatment facility or certified by the department of alcohol and 92908
drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction services, and 92909
such facility shall comply with other provisions of this division 92910
not inconsistent with such accreditation or certification.92911

       (3) "Community mental health facility" means a facility which 92912
provides community mental health services and is included in the 92913
comprehensive mental health plan for the alcohol, drug addiction, 92914
and mental health service district in which it is located.92915

       (4) "Community mental health service" means services, other 92916
than inpatient services, provided by a community mental health 92917
facility.92918

       (5) "Home health agency" means an institution or a distinct 92919
part of an institution operated in this state which:92920

       (a) Is primarily engaged in providing home health services;92921

       (b) Has home health policies which are established by a group 92922
of professional personnel, including one or more duly licensed 92923
doctors of medicine or osteopathy and one or more registered 92924
professional nurses, to govern the home health services it 92925
provides and which includes a requirement that every patient must 92926
be under the care of a duly licensed doctor of medicine or 92927
osteopathy;92928

       (c) Is under the supervision of a duly licensed doctor of 92929
medicine or doctor of osteopathy or a registered professional 92930
nurse who is responsible for the execution of such home health 92931
policies;92932

       (d) Maintains comprehensive records on all patients;92933

       (e) Is operated by the state, a political subdivision, or an 92934
agency of either, or is operated not for profit in this state and 92935
is licensed or registered, if required, pursuant to law by the 92936
appropriate department of the state, county, or municipality in 92937
which it furnishes services; or is operated for profit in this 92938
state, meets all the requirements specified in divisions (A)(5)(a) 92939
to (d) of this section, and is certified under Title XVIII of the 92940
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as 92941
amended.92942

       (6) "Home health service" means the following items and 92943
services, provided, except as provided in division (A)(6)(g) of 92944
this section, on a visiting basis in a place of residence used as 92945
the patient's home:92946

       (a) Nursing care provided by or under the supervision of a 92947
registered professional nurse;92948

       (b) Physical, occupational, or speech therapy ordered by the 92949
patient's attending physician;92950

       (c) Medical social services performed by or under the 92951
supervision of a qualified medical or psychiatric social worker 92952
and under the direction of the patient's attending physician;92953

       (d) Personal health care of the patient performed by aides in 92954
accordance with the orders of a doctor of medicine or osteopathy 92955
and under the supervision of a registered professional nurse;92956

       (e) Medical supplies and the use of medical appliances;92957

       (f) Medical services of interns and residents-in-training 92958
under an approved teaching program of a nonprofit hospital and 92959
under the direction and supervision of the patient's attending 92960
physician;92961

       (g) Any of the foregoing items and services which:92962

       (i) Are provided on an outpatient basis under arrangements 92963
made by the home health agency at a hospital or skilled nursing 92964
facility;92965

       (ii) Involve the use of equipment of such a nature that the 92966
items and services cannot readily be made available to the patient 92967
in the patient's place of residence, or which are furnished at the 92968
hospital or skilled nursing facility while the patient is there to 92969
receive any item or service involving the use of such equipment.92970

       Any attorney, physician, osteopath, podiatrist, chiropractor, 92971
dentist, psychologist, any employee of a hospital as defined in 92972
section 3701.01 of the Revised Code, any nurse licensed under 92973
Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code, any employee of an ambulatory 92974
health facility, any employee of a home health agency, any 92975
employee of a residential facility licensed under section 5119.2292976
5119.34 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 92977
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 92978
unrelated adults, any employee of a nursing home, residential care 92979
facility, or home for the aging, as defined in section 3721.01 of 92980
the Revised Code, any senior service provider, any peace officer, 92981
coroner, member of the clergy, any employee of a community mental 92982
health facility, and any person engaged in social work or 92983
counseling having reasonable cause to believe that an adult is 92984
being abused, neglected, or exploited, or is in a condition which 92985
is the result of abuse, neglect, or exploitation shall immediately 92986
report such belief to the county department of job and family 92987
services. This section does not apply to employees of any hospital 92988
or public hospital as defined in section 5122.01 of the Revised 92989
Code.92990

       (B) Any person having reasonable cause to believe that an 92991
adult has suffered abuse, neglect, or exploitation may report, or 92992
cause reports to be made of such belief to the department.92993

       (C) The reports made under this section shall be made orally 92994
or in writing except that oral reports shall be followed by a 92995
written report if a written report is requested by the department. 92996
Written reports shall include:92997

       (1) The name, address, and approximate age of the adult who 92998
is the subject of the report;92999

       (2) The name and address of the individual responsible for 93000
the adult's care, if any individual is, and if the individual is 93001
known;93002

       (3) The nature and extent of the alleged abuse, neglect, or 93003
exploitation of the adult;93004

       (4) The basis of the reporter's belief that the adult has 93005
been abused, neglected, or exploited.93006

       (D) Any person with reasonable cause to believe that an adult 93007
is suffering abuse, neglect, or exploitation who makes a report 93008
pursuant to this section or who testifies in any administrative or 93009
judicial proceeding arising from such a report, or any employee of 93010
the state or any of its subdivisions who is discharging 93011
responsibilities under section 5101.62 of the Revised Code shall 93012
be immune from civil or criminal liability on account of such 93013
investigation, report, or testimony, except liability for perjury, 93014
unless the person has acted in bad faith or with malicious 93015
purpose.93016

       (E) No employer or any other person with the authority to do 93017
so shall discharge, demote, transfer, prepare a negative work 93018
performance evaluation, or reduce benefits, pay, or work 93019
privileges, or take any other action detrimental to an employee or 93020
in any way retaliate against an employee as a result of the 93021
employee's having filed a report under this section.93022

       (F) Neither the written or oral report provided for in this 93023
section nor the investigatory report provided for in section 93024
5101.62 of the Revised Code shall be considered a public record as 93025
defined in section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Information 93026
contained in the report shall upon request be made available to 93027
the adult who is the subject of the report, to agencies authorized 93028
by the department to receive information contained in the report, 93029
and to legal counsel for the adult.93030

       Sec. 5101.80. (A) As used in this section and in section 93031
5101.801 of the Revised Code:93032

       (1) "County family services agency" has the same meaning as 93033
in section 307.981 of the Revised Code.93034

       (2) "State agency" has the same meaning as in section 9.82 of 93035
the Revised Code.93036

       (3) "Title IV-A administrative agency" means both of the 93037
following:93038

       (a) A county family services agency or state agency 93039
administering a Title IV-A program under the supervision of the 93040
department of job and family services;93041

       (b) A government agency or private, not-for-profit entity 93042
administering a project funded in whole or in part with funds 93043
provided under the Title IV-A demonstration program created under 93044
section 5101.803 of the Revised Code.93045

        (4) "Title IV-A program" means all of the following that are 93046
funded in part with funds provided under the temporary assistance 93047
for needy families block grant established by Title IV-A of the 93048
"Social Security Act," 110 Stat. 2113 (1996), 42 U.S.C. 601, as 93049
amended:93050

       (a) The Ohio works first program established under Chapter 93051
5107. of the Revised Code;93052

       (b) The prevention, retention, and contingency program 93053
established under Chapter 5108. of the Revised Code;93054

       (c) A program established by the general assembly or an 93055
executive order issued by the governor that is administered or 93056
supervised by the department of job and family services pursuant 93057
to section 5101.801 of the Revised Code;93058

       (d) The kinship permanency incentive program created under 93059
section 5101.802 of the Revised Code;93060

       (e) The Title IV-A demonstration program created under 93061
section 5101.803 of the Revised Code;93062

       (f) The Ohio parenting and pregnancy program created under 93063
section 5101.804 of the Revised Code;93064

       (g) A component of a Title IV-A program identified under 93065
divisions (A)(4)(a) to (e)(f) of this section that the Title IV-A 93066
state plan prepared under division (C)(1) of this section 93067
identifies as a component.93068

       (B) The department of job and family services shall act as 93069
the single state agency to administer and supervise the 93070
administration of Title IV-A programs. The Title IV-A state plan 93071
and amendments to the plan prepared under division (C) of this 93072
section are binding on Title IV-A administrative agencies. No 93073
Title IV-A administrative agency may establish, by rule or 93074
otherwise, a policy governing a Title IV-A program that is 93075
inconsistent with a Title IV-A program policy established, in rule 93076
or otherwise, by the director of job and family services.93077

       (C) The department of job and family services shall do all of 93078
the following:93079

       (1) Prepare and submit to the United States secretary of 93080
health and human services a Title IV-A state plan for Title IV-A 93081
programs;93082

       (2) Prepare and submit to the United States secretary of 93083
health and human services amendments to the Title IV-A state plan 93084
that the department determines necessary, including amendments 93085
necessary to implement Title IV-A programs identified in divisions 93086
(A)(4)(c) to (f)(g) of this section;93087

       (3) Prescribe forms for applications, certificates, reports, 93088
records, and accounts of Title IV-A administrative agencies, and 93089
other matters related to Title IV-A programs;93090

       (4) Make such reports, in such form and containing such 93091
information as the department may find necessary to assure the 93092
correctness and verification of such reports, regarding Title IV-A 93093
programs;93094

       (5) Require reports and information from each Title IV-A 93095
administrative agency as may be necessary or advisable regarding a 93096
Title IV-A program;93097

       (6) Afford a fair hearing in accordance with section 5101.35 93098
of the Revised Code to any applicant for, or participant or former 93099
participant of, a Title IV-A program aggrieved by a decision 93100
regarding the program;93101

       (7) Administer and expend, pursuant to Chapters 5104., 5107., 93102
and 5108. of the Revised Code and sections 5101.801, 5101.802, and93103
5101.803, and 5101.804 of the Revised Code, any sums appropriated 93104
by the general assembly for the purpose of those chapters and 93105
sections and all sums paid to the state by the secretary of the 93106
treasury of the United States as authorized by Title IV-A of the 93107
"Social Security Act," 110 Stat. 2113 (1996), 42 U.S.C. 601, as 93108
amended;93109

       (8) Conduct investigations and audits as are necessary 93110
regarding Title IV-A programs;93111

       (9) Enter into reciprocal agreements with other states 93112
relative to the provision of Ohio works first and prevention, 93113
retention, and contingency to residents and nonresidents;93114

       (10) Contract with a private entity to conduct an independent 93115
on-going evaluation of the Ohio works first program and the 93116
prevention, retention, and contingency program. The contract must 93117
require the private entity to do all of the following:93118

       (a) Examine issues of process, practice, impact, and 93119
outcomes;93120

       (b) Study former participants of Ohio works first who have 93121
not participated in Ohio works first for at least one year to 93122
determine whether they are employed, the type of employment in 93123
which they are engaged, the amount of compensation they are 93124
receiving, whether their employer provides health insurance, 93125
whether and how often they have received benefits or services 93126
under the prevention, retention, and contingency program, and 93127
whether they are successfully self sufficient;93128

       (c) Provide the department with reports at times the 93129
department specifies.93130

       (11) Not later than the last day of each January and July, 93131
prepare a report containing information on the following:93132

       (a) Individuals exhausting the time limits for participation 93133
in Ohio works first set forth in section 5107.18 of the Revised 93134
Code.93135

       (b) Individuals who have been exempted from the time limits 93136
set forth in section 5107.18 of the Revised Code and the reasons 93137
for the exemption.93138

       (D) The department shall provide copies of the reports it 93139
receives under division (C)(10) of this section and prepares under 93140
division (C)(11) of this section to the governor, the president 93141
and minority leader of the senate, and the speaker and minority 93142
leader of the house of representatives. The department shall 93143
provide copies of the reports to any private or government entity 93144
on request.93145

       (E) An authorized representative of the department or a 93146
county family services agency or state agency administering a 93147
Title IV-A program shall have access to all records and 93148
information bearing thereon for the purposes of investigations 93149
conducted pursuant to this section. An authorized representative 93150
of a government entity or private, not-for-profit entity 93151
administering a project funded in whole or in part with funds 93152
provided under the Title IV-A demonstration program shall have 93153
access to all records and information bearing on the project for 93154
the purpose of investigations conducted pursuant to this section.93155

       Sec. 5101.801.  (A) Except as otherwise provided by the law 93156
enacted by the general assembly or executive order issued by the 93157
governor establishing the Title IV-A program, a Title IV-A program 93158
identified under division (A)(4)(c), (d), (e), or (f), or (g) of 93159
section 5101.80 of the Revised Code shall provide benefits and 93160
services that are not "assistance" as defined in 45 C.F.R. 93161
260.31(a) and are benefits and services that 45 C.F.R. 260.31(b) 93162
excludes from the definition of assistance.93163

       (B)(1) Except as otherwise provided by the law enacted by the 93164
general assembly or executive order issued by the governor 93165
establishing the Title IV-A program, the department of job and 93166
family services shall do either of the following regarding a Title 93167
IV-A program identified under division (A)(4)(c), (d), (e), or93168
(f), or (g) of section 5101.80 of the Revised Code:93169

       (a) Administer the program or supervise a county family 93170
services agency's administration of the program;93171

       (b) Enter into an interagency agreement with a state agency 93172
for the state agency to administer the program under the 93173
department's supervision.93174

       (2) The department may enter into an agreement with a 93175
government entity and, to the extent permitted by federal law, a 93176
private, not-for-profit entity for the entity to receive funding 93177
for a project under the Title IV-A demonstration program created 93178
under section 5101.803 of the Revised Code.93179

       (3) To the extent permitted by federal law, the department 93180
may enter into an agreement with a private, not-for-profit entity 93181
for the entity to receive funds under the Ohio parenting and 93182
pregnancy program created under section 5101.804 of the Revised 93183
Code.93184

       (C) The department may adopt rules governing Title IV-A 93185
programs identified under divisions (A)(4)(c), (d), (e), and (f), 93186
and (g) of section 5101.80 of the Revised Code. Rules governing 93187
financial and operational matters of the department or between the 93188
department and county family services agencies shall be adopted as 93189
internal management rules adopted in accordance with section 93190
111.15 of the Revised Code. All other rules shall be adopted in 93191
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.93192

       (D) If the department enters into an agreement regarding a 93193
Title IV-A program identified under division (A)(4)(c), (e), or93194
(f), or (g) of section 5101.80 of the Revised Code pursuant to 93195
division (B)(1)(b) or (2) of this section, the agreement shall 93196
include at least all of the following:93197

       (1) A requirement that the state agency or entity comply with 93198
the requirements for the program or project, including all of the 93199
following requirements established by federal statutes and 93200
regulations, state statutes and rules, the United States office of 93201
management and budget, and the Title IV-A state plan prepared 93202
under section 5101.80 of the Revised Code:93203

       (a) Eligibility;93204

       (b) Reports;93205

       (c) Benefits and services;93206

       (d) Use of funds;93207

       (e) Appeals for applicants for, and recipients and former 93208
recipients of, the benefits and services;93209

       (f) Audits.93210

       (2) A complete description of all of the following:93211

       (a) The benefits and services that the program or project is 93212
to provide;93213

       (b) The methods of program or project administration;93214

       (c) The appeals process under section 5101.35 of the Revised 93215
Code for applicants for, and recipients and former recipients of, 93216
the program or project's benefits and services;93217

       (d) Other requirements that the department requires be 93218
included.93219

       (3) Procedures for the department to approve a policy, 93220
established by rule or otherwise, that the state agency or entity 93221
establishes for the program or project before the policy is 93222
established;93223

       (4) Provisions regarding how the department is to reimburse 93224
the state agency or entity for allowable expenditures under the 93225
program or project that the department approves, including all of 93226
the following:93227

       (a) Limitations on administrative costs;93228

       (b) The department, at its discretion, doing either of the 93229
following:93230

       (i) Withholding no more than five per cent of the funds that 93231
the department would otherwise provide to the state agency or 93232
entity for the program or project;93233

       (ii) Charging the state agency or entity for the costs to the 93234
department of performing, or contracting for the performance of, 93235
audits and other administrative functions associated with the 93236
program or project.93237

       (5) If the state agency or entity arranges by contract, 93238
grant, or other agreement for another entity to perform a function 93239
the state agency or entity would otherwise perform regarding the 93240
program or project, the state agency or entity's responsibilities 93241
for both of the following:93242

       (a) Ensuring that the other entity complies with the 93243
agreement between the state agency or entity and department and 93244
federal statutes and regulations and state statutes and rules 93245
governing the use of funds for the program or project;93246

       (b) Auditing the other entity in accordance with requirements 93247
established by the United States office of management and budget.93248

       (6) The state agency or entity's responsibilities regarding 93249
the prompt payment, including any interest assessed, of any 93250
adverse audit finding, final disallowance of federal funds, or 93251
other sanction or penalty imposed by the federal government, 93252
auditor of state, department, a court, or other entity regarding 93253
funds for the program or project;93254

       (7) Provisions for the department to terminate the agreement 93255
or withhold reimbursement from the state agency or entity if 93256
either of the following occur:93257

       (a) The federal government disapproves the program or project 93258
or reduces federal funds for the program or project;93259

       (b) The state agency or entity fails to comply with the terms 93260
of the agreement.93261

       (8) Provisions for both of the following:93262

       (a) The department and state agency or entity determining the 93263
performance outcomes expected for the program or project;93264

       (b) An evaluation of the program or project to determine its 93265
success in achieving the performance outcomes determined under 93266
division (D)(8)(a) of this section.93267

       (E) To the extent consistent with the law enacted by the 93268
general assembly or executive order issued by the governor 93269
establishing the Title IV-A program and subject to the approval of 93270
the director of budget and management, the director of job and 93271
family services may terminate a Title IV-A program identified 93272
under division (A)(4)(c), (d), (e), or (f), or (g) of section 93273
5101.80 of the Revised Code or reduce funding for the program if 93274
the director of job and family services determines that federal or 93275
state funds are insufficient to fund the program. If the director 93276
of budget and management approves the termination or reduction in 93277
funding for such a program, the director of job and family 93278
services shall issue instructions for the termination or funding 93279
reduction. If a Title IV-A administrative agency is administering 93280
the program, the agency is bound by the termination or funding 93281
reduction and shall comply with the director's instructions.93282

       (F) The director of job and family services may adopt 93283
internal management rules in accordance with section 111.15 of the 93284
Revised Code as necessary to implement this section. The rules are 93285
binding on each Title IV-A administrative agency.93286

       Sec. 5101.803.  (A) Subject to division (E) of section 93287
5101.801 of the Revised Code, there is hereby created the Title 93288
IV-A demonstration program to provide funding for innovative and 93289
promising prevention and intervention projects that meet one or 93290
more of the four purposes of the temporary assistance for needy 93291
families block grant as specified in 42 U.S.C. 601 and are for 93292
individuals with specific and multiple barriers to achieving or 93293
maintaining self-sufficiency and personal responsibility. The 93294
department of job and family services may provide funding for such 93295
projects to government entities and, to the extent permitted by 93296
federal law, private, not-for-profit entities with which the 93297
department enters into agreements under division (B)(2) of section 93298
5101.801 of the Revised Code.93299

       In accordance with criteria the department develops, the 93300
department may solicit proposals forfrom entities seeking to 93301
enter into an agreement with the department under division (B)(2) 93302
of section 5101.801 of the Revised Code. The department may enter 93303
into such agreements with entities that do both of the following:93304

       (1) Meet the proposals' criteria;93305

       (2) If the entity's proposed project does not potentially 93306
affect persons in each county of the state, provides the 93307
department evidence that the entity has notified, in writing, the 93308
county department of job and family services of each county where 93309
persons may be affected by the implementation of the project.93310

       (B) In developing the criteria, soliciting the proposals, and 93311
entering in the agreements, the department shall comply with all 93312
applicable federal and state laws, the Title IV-A state plan 93313
submitted to the United States secretary of health and human 93314
services under section 5101.80 of the Revised Code, amendments to 93315
the Title IV-A state plan submitted to the United States secretary 93316
under that section, and federal waivers the United States 93317
secretary grants.93318

       (C) The department shall begin implementation of the Title 93319
IV-A demonstration program no later than January 1, 2006.93320

       Sec. 5101.804.  (A) Subject to division (E) of section 93321
5101.801 of the Revised Code, there is hereby created the Ohio 93322
parenting and pregnancy program to provide services for pregnant 93323
women and parents or other relatives caring for children twelve 93324
months of age or younger that do both of the following:93325

       (1) Promote childbirth, parenting, and alternatives to 93326
abortion;93327

       (2) Meet one or more of the four purposes of the temporary 93328
assistance for needy families block grant as specified in 42 93329
U.S.C. 601. 93330

       (B) To the extent permitted by federal law, the department of 93331
job and family services may provide funds under the program to 93332
entities with which the department enters into agreements under 93333
division (B)(3) of section 5101.801 of the Revised Code. In 93334
accordance with criteria the department develops, the department 93335
may solicit proposals from entities seeking to provide services 93336
under the program. The department may enter into an agreement with 93337
an entity only if it meets all of the following conditions:93338

       (1) Is a private, not-for-profit entity;93339

       (2) Is an entity whose primary purpose is to promote 93340
childbirth, rather than abortion, through counseling and other 93341
services, including parenting and adoption support;93342

       (3) Provides services to pregnant women and parents or other 93343
relatives caring for children twelve months of age or younger, 93344
including clothing, counseling, diapers, food, furniture, health 93345
care, parenting classes, postpartum recovery, shelter, and any 93346
other supportive services, programs, or related outreach;93347

       (4) Does not charge pregnant women and parents or other 93348
relatives caring for children twelve months of age or younger a 93349
fee for any services received;93350

       (5) Is not involved in or associated with any abortion 93351
activities, including providing abortion counseling or referrals 93352
to abortion clinics, performing abortion-related medical 93353
procedures, or engaging in pro-abortion advertising;93354

       (6) Does not discriminate in its provision of services on the 93355
basis of race, religion, color, age, marital status, national 93356
origin, disability, or gender.93357

       (C) An entity that has entered into an agreement with the 93358
department under division (B)(3) of section 5101.801 of the 93359
Revised Code may enter into a subcontract with another entity 93360
under which the other entity provides all or part of the services 93361
described in division (B)(3) of this section. A subcontract may be 93362
entered into with another entity only if that entity meets all of 93363
the following conditions:93364

        (1) Is a private, not-for-profit entity;93365

        (2) Is physically and financially separate from any entity, 93366
or component of an entity, that engages in abortion activities;93367

        (3) Is not involved in or associated with any abortion 93368
activities, including providing abortion counseling or referrals 93369
to abortion clinics, performing abortion-related medical 93370
procedures, or engaging in pro-abortion advertising.93371

       (D) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 93372
under division (C) of section 5101.801 of the Revised Code as 93373
necessary to implement the Ohio parenting and pregnancy program.93374

       Sec. 5103.02.  As used in sections 5103.03 to 5103.17 of the 93375
Revised Code:93376

       (A)(1) "Association" or "institution" includes anyall of the 93377
following:93378

       (a) Any incorporated or unincorporated organization, society, 93379
association, or agency, public or private, that receives or cares 93380
for children for two or more consecutive weeks, including a 93381
therapeutic wilderness camp; any93382

       (b) Any individual, including the operator of a foster home, 93383
who, for hire, gain, or reward, receives or cares for children for 93384
two or more consecutive weeks, unless the individual is related to 93385
them by blood or marriage; and any93386

       (c) Any individual not in the regular employ of a court, or 93387
of an institution or association certified in accordance with 93388
section 5103.03 of the Revised Code, who in any manner becomes a 93389
party to the placing of children in foster homes, unless the 93390
individual is related to such children by blood or marriage, or is 93391
the appointed guardian of such children; provided, that any.93392

       (2) "Association" or "institution" does not include any of 93393
the following:93394

       (a) Any organization, society, association, school, agency, 93395
child guidance center, detention or rehabilitation facility, or 93396
children's clinic licensed, regulated, approved, operated under 93397
the direction of, or otherwise certified by the department of 93398
education, a local board of education, the department of youth 93399
services, the department of mental healthmental health and 93400
addiction services, or the department of developmental 93401
disabilities, or any;93402

       (b) Any individual who provides care for only a single-family 93403
group, placed there by their parents or other relative having 93404
custody, shall not be considered as being within the purview of 93405
these sections.93406

       (B) "Family foster home" means a foster home that is not a 93407
specialized foster home.93408

       (C) "Foster caregiver" means a person holding a valid foster 93409
home certificate issued under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code.93410

       (D) "Foster home" means a private residence in which children 93411
are received apart from their parents, guardian, or legal 93412
custodian, by an individual reimbursed for providing the children 93413
nonsecure care, supervision, or training twenty-four hours a day. 93414
"Foster home" does not include care provided for a child in the 93415
home of a person other than the child's parent, guardian, or legal 93416
custodian while the parent, guardian, or legal custodian is 93417
temporarily away. Family foster homes and specialized foster homes 93418
are types of foster homes.93419

       (E) "Medically fragile foster home" means a foster home that 93420
provides specialized medical services designed to meet the needs 93421
of children with intensive health care needs who meet all of the 93422
following criteria:93423

       (1) Under rules adopted by the department of job and family 93424
servicesmedicaid director governing payment under Chapter 5111. 93425
of the Revised Codemedicaid payments for long-term care services, 93426
the children require a skilled level of care.93427

       (2) The children require the services of a doctor of medicine 93428
or osteopathic medicine at least once a week due to the 93429
instability of their medical conditions.93430

       (3) The children require the services of a registered nurse 93431
on a daily basis.93432

       (4) The children are at risk of institutionalization in a 93433
hospital, skilled nursing facility, or intermediate care facility 93434
for the mentally retardedindividuals with intellectual 93435
disabilities.93436

       (F) "Recommending agency" means a public children services 93437
agency, private child placing agency, or private noncustodial 93438
agency that recommends that the department of job and family 93439
services take any of the following actions under section 5103.03 93440
of the Revised Code regarding a foster home:93441

       (1) Issue a certificate;93442

       (2) Deny a certificate;93443

       (3) Renew a certificate;93444

       (4) Deny renewal of a certificate;93445

       (5) Revoke a certificate.93446

       (G) "Specialized foster home" means a medically fragile 93447
foster home or a treatment foster home.93448

       (H) "Treatment foster home" means a foster home that 93449
incorporates special rehabilitative services designed to treat the 93450
specific needs of the children received in the foster home and 93451
that receives and cares for children who are emotionally or 93452
behaviorally disturbed, chemically dependent, mentally retarded, 93453
developmentally disabled, or who otherwise have exceptional needs.93454

       (I) "Therapeutic wilderness camp" means a structured, 93455
alternative residential setting for children who are experiencing 93456
emotional, behavioral, moral, social, or learning difficulties at 93457
home or school in which both of the following are the case:93458

       (1) The children spend the majority of their time, including 93459
overnight, either outdoors or in a primitive structure;93460

       (2) The children have been placed there by their parents or 93461
another relative having custody.93462

       Sec. 5103.0323.  (A) As used in this section, "government 93463
auditing standards" means the government auditing standards 93464
published by the comptroller general of the United States general 93465
accounting office"American institute of certified public 93466
accountants auditing standards" and "AICPA auditing standards" 93467
mean the auditing standards published by the American institute of 93468
certified public accountants.93469

       (B) The first time that a private child placing agency or 93470
private noncustodial agency seeks renewal of a certificate issued 93471
under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code, it shall provide the 93472
department of job and family services, as a condition of renewal, 93473
evidence of an independent financial statement audit of its first 93474
year of certification, unless the auditor of state has audited the 93475
agency during that year and the audit sets forth that no money has 93476
been illegally expended, converted, misappropriated, or is 93477
unaccounted for or sets forth findings that are inconsequential, 93478
as defined by governmentperformed by a licensed public accounting 93479
firm following applicable AICPA auditing standards for the most 93480
recent fiscal year. Thereafter, when an agency seeks renewal of 93481
its certificate, it shall provide the department evidence of an 93482
independent financial statement audit performed by a licensed 93483
public accounting firm following applicable AICPA auditing 93484
standards for the two most recent previous fiscal years it is 93485
possible for an independent audit to have been conducted, unless 93486
the auditor of state has audited the agency during those years and 93487
the audit sets forth that no money has been illegally expended, 93488
converted, misappropriated, or is unaccounted for or sets forth 93489
findings that are inconsequential, as defined by government 93490
auditing standards.93491

       (C) For an agency to be eligible for renewal, the independent 93492
audits must demonstrate that the agency operated in a fiscally 93493
accountable manner in accordance with state laws and rules and any 93494
agreement between the agency and a public children services 93495
agency.93496

       All audits required by this section shall be conducted in 93497
accordance with generally accepted government auditing standards93498
as determined by the department of job and family services.93499

       (D) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 93500
as necessary to implement this section. The director shall adopt 93501
the rules in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code.93502

       Sec. 5103.13.  (A) As used in this section and section 93503
5103.131 of the Revised Code:93504

       (1)(a) "Children's crisis care facility" means a facility 93505
that has as its primary purpose the provision of residential and 93506
other care to either or both of the following:93507

       (i) One or more preteens voluntarily placed in the facility 93508
by the preteen's parent or other caretaker who is facing a crisis 93509
that causes the parent or other caretaker to seek temporary care 93510
for the preteen and referral for support services;93511

       (ii) One or more preteens placed in the facility by a public 93512
children services agency or private child placing agency that has 93513
legal custody or permanent custody of the preteen and determines 93514
that an emergency situation exists necessitating the preteen's 93515
placement in the facility rather than an institution certified 93516
under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code or elsewhere.93517

       (b) "Children's crisis care facility" does not include either 93518
of the following:93519

        (i) Any organization, society, association, school, agency, 93520
child guidance center, detention or rehabilitation facility, or 93521
children's clinic licensed, regulated, approved, operated under 93522
the direction of, or otherwise certified by the department of 93523
education, a local board of education, the department of youth 93524
services, the department of mental healthmental health and 93525
addiction services, or the department of developmental 93526
disabilities;93527

        (ii) Any individual who provides care for only a 93528
single-family group, placed there by their parents or other 93529
relative having custody.93530

       (2) "Legal custody" and "permanent custody" have the same 93531
meanings as in section 2151.011 of the Revised Code.93532

       (3) "Preteen" means an individual under thirteen years of 93533
age.93534

       (B) No person shall operate a children's crisis care facility 93535
or hold a children's crisis care facility out as a certified 93536
children's crisis care facility unless there is a valid children's 93537
crisis care facility certificate issued under this section for the 93538
facility.93539

       (C) A person seeking to operate a children's crisis care 93540
facility shall apply to the director of job and family services to 93541
obtain a certificate for the facility. The director shall certify 93542
the person's children's crisis care facility if the facility meets 93543
all of the certification standards established in rules adopted 93544
under division (F) of this section and the person complies with 93545
all of the rules governing the certification of children's crisis 93546
care facilities adopted under that division. The issuance of a 93547
children's crisis care facility certificate does not exempt the 93548
facility from a requirement to obtain another certificate or 93549
license mandated by law.93550

       (D)(1) No certified children's crisis care facility shall do 93551
any of the following:93552

       (a) Provide residential care to a preteen for more than one 93553
hundred twenty days in a calendar year;93554

       (b) Subject to division (D)(1)(c) of this section and except 93555
as provided in division (D)(2) of this section, provide 93556
residential care to a preteen for more than sixty consecutive 93557
days;93558

       (c) Except as provided in division (D)(3) of this section, 93559
provide residential care to a preteen for more than seventy-two 93560
consecutive hours if a public children services agency or private 93561
child placing agency placed the preteen in the facility;93562

       (d) Fail to comply with section 2151.86 of the Revised Code.93563

       (2) A certified children's crisis care facility may provide 93564
residential care to a preteen for up to ninety consecutive days, 93565
other than a preteen placed in the facility by a public children 93566
services agency or private child placing agency, if any of the 93567
following are the case:93568

       (a) The preteen's parent or other caretaker is enrolled in an 93569
alcohol and drug addiction program certified under section 3793.06 93570
of the Revised Codeservice or a community mental health service 93571
certified under section 5119.6115119.36 of the Revised Code;93572

        (b) The preteen's parent or other caretaker is an inpatient 93573
in a hospital;93574

        (c) The preteen's parent or other caretaker is incarcerated;93575

        (d) A physician has diagnosed the preteen's parent or other 93576
caretaker as medically incapacitated.93577

       (3) A certified children's crisis care facility may provide 93578
residential care to a preteen placed in the facility by a public 93579
children services agency or private child placing agency for more 93580
than seventy-two consecutive hours if the director of job and 93581
family services or the director's designee issues the agency a 93582
waiver of the seventy-two consecutive hour limitation. The waiver 93583
may authorize the certified children's crisis care facility to 93584
provide residential care to the preteen for up to fourteen 93585
consecutive days.93586

       (E) The director of job and family services may suspend or 93587
revoke a children's crisis care facility's certificate pursuant to 93588
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code if the facility violates division 93589
(D) of this section or ceases to meet any of the certification 93590
standards established in rules adopted under division (F) of this 93591
section or the facility's operator ceases to comply with any of 93592
the rules governing the certification of children's crisis care 93593
facilities adopted under that division.93594

       (F) Not later than ninety days after September 21, 2006, the 93595
director of job and family services shall adopt rules pursuant to 93596
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the certification of 93597
children's crisis care facilities. The rules shall specify that a 93598
certificate shall not be issued to an applicant if the conditions 93599
at the children's crisis care facility would jeopardize the health 93600
or safety of the preteens placed in the facility.93601

       Sec. 5103.42.  Prior to the beginning of the fiscal biennium 93602
that first follows October 5, 2000, the public children services 93603
agencies of Athens, Cuyahoga, Franklin, Greene, Guernsey, 93604
Hamilton, Lucas, and Summit counties shall each establish and 93605
maintain a regional training center. Prior to the beginning of the 93606
fiscal biennium that first follows the effective date of this 93607
amendment, the public children services agency of Butler county 93608
shall establish and maintain a regional training center. At any 93609
time after the beginning of thatthe specified biennium, the 93610
department of job and family services, on the recommendation of 93611
the Ohio child welfare training program steering committee, may 93612
direct a public children services agency to establish and maintain 93613
a training center to replace the center established by an agency 93614
under this section. There may be no more and no less than eight 93615
centers in existence at any time. The department may make a grant 93616
to a public children services agency that establishes and 93617
maintains a regional training center under this section for the 93618
purpose of wholly or partially subsidizing the operation of the 93619
center. The department shall specify in the grant all of the 93620
center's duties, including the duties specified in section 93621
5103.422 of the Revised Code.93622

       The regional training center established by the public 93623
children services agency of Butler county under this section 93624
replaces the regional training center previously established by 93625
the public children services agency of Hamilton county under this 93626
section. 93627

       Sec. 5104.012.  (A)(1) At the times specified in this 93628
division, the administrator of a child day-care center or a type A 93629
family day-care home shall request the superintendent of the 93630
bureau of criminal identification and investigation to conduct a 93631
criminal records check with respect to any applicant who has 93632
applied to the center or type A home for employment as a person 93633
responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child. 93634

        The administrator shall request a criminal records check 93635
pursuant to this division at the time of the applicant's initial 93636
application for employment and every fourfive years thereafter. 93637
When the administrator requests pursuant to this division a 93638
criminal records check for an applicant at the time of the 93639
applicant's initial application for employment, the administrator 93640
shall request that the superintendent obtain information from the 93641
federal bureau of investigation as a part of the criminal records 93642
check for the applicant, including fingerprint-based checks of 93643
national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 93644
671, for the person subject to the criminal records check. In all 93645
other cases in which the administrator requests a criminal records 93646
check for an applicant pursuant to this division, the 93647
administrator may request that the superintendent include 93648
information from the federal bureau of investigation in the 93649
criminal records check, including fingerprint-based checks of 93650
national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 93651
671.93652

       (2) A person required by division (A)(1) of this section to 93653
request a criminal records check shall provide to each applicant a 93654
copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 93655
109.572 of the Revised Code, provide to each applicant a standard 93656
impression sheet to obtain fingerprint impressions prescribed 93657
pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 109.572 of the Revised 93658
Code, obtain the completed form and impression sheet from each 93659
applicant, and forward the completed form and impression sheet to 93660
the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 93661
investigation at the time the person requests a criminal records 93662
check pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section. On and after 93663
August 14, 2008, the administrator of a child day-care center or a 93664
type A family day-care home shall review the results of the 93665
criminal records check before the applicant has sole 93666
responsibility for the care, custody, or control of any child.93667

       (3) An applicant who receives pursuant to division (A)(2) of 93668
this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 93669
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a copy of an 93670
impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that 93671
section and who is requested to complete the form and provide a 93672
set of fingerprint impressions shall complete the form or provide 93673
all the information necessary to complete the form and shall 93674
provide the impression sheet with the impressions of the 93675
applicant's fingerprints. If an applicant, upon request, fails to 93676
provide the information necessary to complete the form or fails to 93677
provide impressions of the applicant's fingerprints, the center or 93678
type A home shall not employ that applicant for any position for 93679
which a criminal records check is required by division (A)(1) of 93680
this section.93681

       (B)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted under division (E) 93682
of this section, no child day-care center or type A family 93683
day-care home shall employ or contract with another entity for the 93684
services of a person as a person responsible for the care, 93685
custody, or control of a child if the person previously has been 93686
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the violations described 93687
in division (A)(5) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code.93688

       (2) A child day-care center or type A family day-care home 93689
may employ an applicant conditionally until the criminal records 93690
check required by this section is completed and the center or home 93691
receives the results of the criminal records check. If the results 93692
of the criminal records check indicate that, pursuant to division 93693
(B)(1) of this section, the applicant does not qualify for 93694
employment, the center or home shall release the applicant from 93695
employment.93696

       (C)(1) Each child day-care center and type A family day-care 93697
home shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification and 93698
investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of 93699
section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records 93700
check conducted in accordance with that section upon the request 93701
pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section of the administrator 93702
or provider of the center or home.93703

       (2) A child day-care center and type A family day-care home 93704
may charge an applicant a fee for the costs it incurs in obtaining 93705
a criminal records check under this section. A fee charged under 93706
this division shall not exceed the amount of fees the center or 93707
home pays under division (C)(1) of this section. If a fee is 93708
charged under this division, the center or home shall notify the 93709
applicant at the time of the applicant's initial application for 93710
employment of the amount of the fee and that, unless the fee is 93711
paid, the center or type A home will not consider the applicant 93712
for employment.93713

       (D) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 93714
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 93715
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 93716
under division (A)(1) of this section is not a public record for 93717
the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not 93718
be made available to any person other than the applicant who is 93719
the subject of the criminal records check or the applicant's 93720
representative; the center or type A home requesting the criminal 93721
records check or its representative; the department of job and 93722
family services or a county department of job and family services; 93723
and any court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 93724
involved in a case dealing with the denial of employment to the 93725
applicant.93726

       (E) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 93727
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this 93728
section, including rules specifying circumstances under which a 93729
center or home may hire a person who has been convicted of an 93730
offense listed in division (B)(1) of this section but who meets 93731
standards in regard to rehabilitation set by the department.93732

       (F) Any person required by division (A)(1) of this section to 93733
request a criminal records check shall inform each person, at the 93734
time of the person's initial application for employment, that the 93735
person is required to provide a set of impressions of the person's 93736
fingerprints and that a criminal records check is required to be 93737
conducted and satisfactorily completed in accordance with section 93738
109.572 of the Revised Code if the person comes under final 93739
consideration for appointment or employment as a precondition to 93740
employment for that position.93741

       (G) As used in this section:93742

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 93743
consideration for appointment to or employment in a position with 93744
a child day-care center or a type A family day-care home as a 93745
person responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child; 93746
an in-home aide certified pursuant to section 5104.12 of the 93747
Revised Code; or any person who would serve in any position with a 93748
child day-care center or a type A family day-care home as a person 93749
responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child pursuant 93750
to a contract with another entity.93751

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 93752
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.93753

       Sec. 5104.013.  (A)(1) At the times specified in division 93754
(A)(3) of this section, the director of job and family services, 93755
as part of the process of licensure of child day-care centers and 93756
type A family day-care homes, shall request the superintendent of 93757
the bureau of criminal identification and investigation to conduct 93758
a criminal records check with respect to the following persons:93759

       (a) Any owner, licensee, or administrator of a child day-care 93760
center;93761

       (b) Any owner, licensee, or administrator of a type A family 93762
day-care home and any person eighteen years of age or older who 93763
resides in a type A family day-care home.93764

       (2) At the times specified in division (A)(3) of this 93765
section, the director of a county department of job and family 93766
services, as part of the process of certification of type B family 93767
day-care homes, shall request the superintendent of the bureau of 93768
criminal identification and investigation to conduct a criminal 93769
records check with respect to any authorized provider of a 93770
certified type B family day-care home and any person eighteen 93771
years of age or older who resides in a certified type B family 93772
day-care home.93773

       (3) The director of job and family services shall request a 93774
criminal records check pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section 93775
at the time of the initial application for licensure and every 93776
fourfive years thereafter. The director of a county department of 93777
job and family services shall request a criminal records check 93778
pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section at the time of the 93779
initial application for certification and every fourfive years 93780
thereafter at the time of a certification renewal. When the 93781
director of job and family services or the director of a county 93782
department of job and family services requests pursuant to 93783
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section a criminal records check 93784
for a person at the time of the person's initial application for 93785
licensure or certification, the director shall request that the 93786
superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 93787
investigation obtain information from the federal bureau of 93788
investigation as a part of the criminal records check for the 93789
person, including fingerprint-based checks of national crime 93790
information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671 for the person 93791
subject to the criminal records check. In all other cases in which 93792
the director of job and family services or the director of a 93793
county department of job and family services requests a criminal 93794
records check for an applicant pursuant to division (A)(1) or (2) 93795
of this section, the director may request that the superintendent 93796
include information from the federal bureau of investigation in 93797
the criminal records check, including fingerprint-based checks of 93798
national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 93799
671. 93800

       (4) The director of job and family services shall review the 93801
results of a criminal records check subsequent to a request made 93802
pursuant to divisions (A)(1) and (3) of this section prior to 93803
approval of a license. The director of a county department of job 93804
and family services shall review the results of a criminal records 93805
check subsequent to a request made pursuant to divisions (A)(2) 93806
and (3) of this section prior to approval of certification.93807

       (B) The director of job and family services or the director 93808
of a county department of job and family services shall provide to 93809
each person for whom a criminal records check is required under 93810
this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 93811
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard 93812
impression sheet to obtain fingerprint impressions prescribed 93813
pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section, obtain the completed 93814
form and impression sheet from that person, and forward the 93815
completed form and impression sheet to the superintendent of the 93816
bureau of criminal identification and investigation.93817

       (C) A person who receives pursuant to division (B) of this 93818
section a copy of the form and standard impression sheet described 93819
in that division and who is requested to complete the form and 93820
provide a set of fingerprint impressions shall complete the form 93821
or provide all the information necessary to complete the form and 93822
shall provide the impression sheet with the impressions of the 93823
person's fingerprints. If the person, upon request, fails to 93824
provide the information necessary to complete the form or fails to 93825
provide impressions of the person's fingerprints, the director may 93826
consider the failure as a reason to deny licensure or 93827
certification.93828

       (D) Except as provided in rules adopted under division (G) of 93829
this section, the director of job and family services shall not 93830
grant a license to a child day-care center or type A family 93831
day-care home and a county director of job and family services 93832
shall not certify a type B family day-care home if a person for 93833
whom a criminal records check was required in connection with the 93834
center or home previously has been convicted of or pleaded guilty 93835
to any of the violations described in division (A)(5) of section 93836
109.572 of the Revised Code.93837

       (E) Each child day-care center, type A family day-care home, 93838
and type B family day-care home shall pay to the bureau of 93839
criminal identification and investigation the fee prescribed 93840
pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 93841
for each criminal records check conducted in accordance with that 93842
section upon a request made pursuant to division (A) of this 93843
section.93844

       (F) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 93845
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 93846
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 93847
made under division (A) of this section is not a public record for 93848
the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not 93849
be made available to any person other than the person who is the 93850
subject of the criminal records check or the person's 93851
representative, the director of job and family services, the 93852
director of a county department of job and family services, the 93853
center, type A home, or type B home involved, and any court, 93854
hearing officer, or other necessary individual involved in a case 93855
dealing with a denial of licensure or certification related to the 93856
criminal records check.93857

       (G) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 93858
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this 93859
section, including rules specifying exceptions to the prohibition 93860
in division (D) of this section for persons who have been 93861
convicted of an offense listed in that division but who meet 93862
standards in regard to rehabilitation set by the director.93863

       (H) As used in this section, "criminal records check" has the 93864
same meaning as in section 109.572 of the Revised Code.93865

       Sec. 5104.02.  (A) The director of job and family services is 93866
responsible for the licensing of child day-care centers and type A 93867
family day-care homes. Each entity operating a head start program 93868
shall meet the criteria for, and be licensed as, a child day-care 93869
center. The director is responsible for the enforcement of this 93870
chapter and of rules promulgated pursuant to this chapter.93871

       No person, firm, organization, institution, or agency shall 93872
operate, establish, manage, conduct, or maintain a child day-care 93873
center or type A family day-care home without a license issued 93874
under section 5104.03 of the Revised Code. The current license 93875
shall be posted in a conspicuous place in the center or type A 93876
home that is accessible to parents, custodians, or guardians and 93877
employees of the center or type A home at all times when the 93878
center or type A home is in operation.93879

       (B) A person, firm, institution, organization, or agency 93880
operating any of the following programs is exempt from the 93881
requirements of this chapter:93882

       (1) A program of child care that operates for two or less 93883
consecutive weeks;93884

       (2) Child care in places of worship during religious 93885
activities during which children are cared for while at least one 93886
parent, guardian, or custodian of each child is participating in 93887
such activities and is readily available;93888

       (3) Religious activities which do not provide child care;93889

       (4) Supervised training, instruction, or activities of 93890
children in specific areas, including, but not limited to: art; 93891
drama; dance; music; gymnastics, swimming, or another athletic 93892
skill or sport; computers; or an educational subject conducted on 93893
an organized or periodic basis no more than one day a week and for 93894
no more than six hours duration;93895

       (5) Programs in which the director determines that at least 93896
one parent, custodian, or guardian of each child is on the 93897
premises of the facility offering child care and is readily 93898
accessible at all times, except that child care provided on the 93899
premises at which a parent, custodian, or guardian is employed 93900
more than two and one-half hours a day shall be licensed in 93901
accordance with division (A) of this section;93902

       (6)(a) Programs that provide child care funded and regulated 93903
or operated and regulated by state departments other than the 93904
department of job and family services or the state board of 93905
education when the director of job and family services has 93906
determined that the rules governing the program are equivalent to 93907
or exceed the rules promulgated pursuant to this chapter.93908

       Notwithstanding any exemption from regulation under this 93909
chapter, each state department shall submit to the director of job 93910
and family services a copy of the rules that govern programs that 93911
provide child care and are regulated or operated and regulated by 93912
the department. Annually, each state department shall submit to 93913
the director a report for each such program it regulates or 93914
operates and regulates that includes the following information:93915

       (i) The site location of the program;93916

       (ii) The maximum number of infants, toddlers, preschool-age 93917
children, or school-age children served by the program at one 93918
time;93919

       (iii) The number of adults providing child care for the 93920
number of infants, toddlers, preschool-age children, or school-age 93921
children;93922

       (iv) Any changes in the rules made subsequent to the time 93923
when the rules were initially submitted to the director.93924

       The director shall maintain a record of the child care 93925
information submitted by other state departments and shall provide 93926
this information upon request to the general assembly or the 93927
public.93928

       (b) Child care programs conducted by boards of education or 93929
by chartered nonpublic schools that are conducted in school 93930
buildings and that provide child care to school-age children only 93931
shall be exempt from meeting or exceeding rules promulgated 93932
pursuant to this chapter.93933

       (7) Any preschool program or school child program, except a 93934
head start program, that is subject to licensure by the department 93935
of education under sections 3301.52 to 3301.59 of the Revised 93936
Code.93937

       (8) Any program providing child care that meets all of the 93938
following requirements and, on October 20, 1987, was being 93939
operated by a nonpublic school that holds a charter issued by the 93940
state board of education for kindergarten only:93941

       (a) The nonpublic school has given the notice to the state 93942
board and the director of job and family services required by 93943
Section 4 of Substitute House Bill No. 253 of the 117th general 93944
assembly;93945

       (b) The nonpublic school continues to be chartered by the 93946
state board for kindergarten, or receives and continues to hold a 93947
charter from the state board for kindergarten through grade five;93948

       (c) The program is conducted in a school building;93949

       (d) The program is operated in accordance with rules 93950
promulgated by the state board under sections 3301.52 to 3301.57 93951
of the Revised Code.93952

       (9) A youth development program operated outside of school 93953
hours by a community-based center to which all of the following 93954
apply:93955

       (a) The children enrolled in the program are under nineteen 93956
years of age and enrolled in or eligible to be enrolled in a grade 93957
of kindergarten or above.93958

       (b) The program provides informal child care and at least 93959
two, which is child care that does not require parental signature, 93960
permission, or notice for the child receiving the care to enter or 93961
leave the program;93962

       (c) The program provides any of the following supervised 93963
activities: educational, recreational, culturally enriching, 93964
social, and personal development activities.93965

       (c)(d) The program is eligible for participation in the child 93966
and adult care food program as an outside-school-hours care center 93967
pursuant to standards established under section 3313.813 of the 93968
Revised Code.93969

       (d)(e) The community-based center operating the program is 93970
exempt from federal income taxation pursuant to 26 U.S.C. 501(a) 93971
and (c)(3).93972

       (10) A preschool program operated by a nonchartered, 93973
nontax-supported school if the preschool program meets all of the 93974
following conditions:93975

       (a) The program complies with state and local health, fire, 93976
and safety laws.93977

       (b) The program annually certifies in a report to the parents 93978
of its pupils that the school is in compliance with division 93979
(B)(10)(a) of this section and files a copy of the report with the 93980
department of job and family services on or before the thirtieth 93981
day of September of each year.93982

       (c) The program complies with all applicable reporting 93983
requirements in the same manner as required by the state board of 93984
education for nonchartered, nonpublic primary and secondary 93985
schools.93986

       (d) The program is associated with a nonchartered, 93987
nontax-supported primary or secondary school. 93988

       Sec. 5104.021.  The director of job and family services may93989
not issue a child day-care center or type A family day-care home 93990
license to a youth development program that is exempted by 93991
division (B)(9) of section 5104.02 of the Revised Code from the 93992
requirements of this chapter if the youth development program 93993
applies for and meets all of the requirements for the license.93994

       Sec. 5104.03.  (A) Any person, firm, organization, 93995
institution, or agency desiring to establish a child day-care 93996
center or type A family day-care home shall apply for a license to 93997
the director of job and family services on such form as the 93998
director prescribes. The director shall provide at no charge to 93999
each applicant for licensure a copy of the child care license 94000
requirements in this chapter and a copy of the rules adopted 94001
pursuant to this chapter. The copies may be provided in paper or 94002
electronic form.94003

       Fees shall be set by the director pursuant to section 94004
5104.011 of the Revised Code and shall be paid at the time of 94005
application for a license to operate a center or type A home. Fees 94006
collected under this section shall be paid into the state treasury 94007
to the credit of the general revenue fund.94008

       (B) Upon filing of the application for a license, the 94009
director shall investigate and inspect the center or type A home 94010
to determine the license capacity for each age category of 94011
children of the center or type A home and to determine whether the 94012
center or type A home complies with this chapter and rules adopted 94013
pursuant to this chapter. When, after investigation and 94014
inspection, the director is satisfied that this chapter and rules 94015
adopted pursuant to it are complied with, subject to division (G) 94016
of this section, a provisional license shall be issued as soon as 94017
practicable in such form and manner as prescribed by the director. 94018
The provisional license shall be valid for twelve months from the 94019
date of issuance unless revoked.94020

       (C) The director shall investigate and inspect the center or 94021
type A home at least once during operation under the provisional 94022
license. If after the investigation and inspection the director 94023
determines that the requirements of this chapter and rules adopted 94024
pursuant to this chapter are met, subject to division (G) of this 94025
section, the director shall issue a license to the center or home.94026

       (D) The license or provisional license shall state the name 94027
of the licensee, the name of the administrator, the address of the 94028
center or type A home, and the license capacity for each age 94029
category of children. The license or provisional license shall 94030
include thereon, in accordance with section 5104.011 of the 94031
Revised Code, the toll-free telephone number to be used by persons 94032
suspecting that the center or type A home has violated a provision 94033
of this chapter or rules adopted pursuant to this chapter. A 94034
license or provisional license is valid only for the licensee, 94035
administrator, address, and license capacity for each age category 94036
of children designated on the license. The license capacity 94037
specified on the license or provisional license is the maximum 94038
number of children in each age category that may be cared for in 94039
the center or type A home at one time.94040

       The center or type A home licensee shall notify the director 94041
when the administrator of the center or home changes. The director 94042
shall amend the current license or provisional license to reflect 94043
a change in an administrator, if the administrator meets the 94044
requirements of Chapter 5104. of the Revised Code and rules 94045
adopted pursuant to Chapter 5104. of the Revised Code, or a change 94046
in license capacity for any age category of children as determined 94047
by the director of job and family services.94048

       (E) If the director revokes the license of a center or a type 94049
A home, the director shall not issue another license to the owner 94050
of the center or type A home until five years have elapsed from 94051
the date the license is revoked. 94052

        If the director denies an application for a license, the 94053
director shall not accept another application from the applicant 94054
until five years have elapsed from the date the application is 94055
denied.94056

        (F) If during the application for licensure process the 94057
director determines that the license of the owner has been 94058
revoked, the investigation of the center or type A home shall 94059
cease. This action does not constitute denial of the application 94060
and may not be appealed under division (G) of this section. 94061

       (G) All actions of the director with respect to licensing 94062
centers or type A homes, refusal to license, and revocation of a 94063
license shall be in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 94064
Code. Any applicant who is denied a license or any owner whose 94065
license is revoked may appeal in accordance with section 119.12 of 94066
the Revised Code.94067

       (H) In no case shall the director issue a license or 94068
provisional license under this section for a type A home or center 94069
if the director, based on documentation provided by the 94070
appropriate county department of job and family services, 94071
determines that the applicant previously had been certified as a 94072
type B family day-care home, that the county department revoked 94073
that certification within the immediately preceding five years, 94074
that the revocation was based on the applicant's refusal or 94075
inability to comply with the criteria for certification, and that 94076
the refusal or inability resulted in a risk to the health or 94077
safety of children.94078

       Sec. 5104.08. (A) There is hereby created in the department 94079
of job and family services a child care advisory council to advise 94080
and assist the department in the administration of this chapter 94081
and in the development of child care. The council shall consist of 94082
twenty-two voting members appointed by the director of job and 94083
family services with the approval of the governor. The director of 94084
job and family services, the director of developmental 94085
disabilities, the director of mental healthmental health and 94086
addiction services, the superintendent of public instruction, the 94087
director of health, the director of commerce, and the state fire 94088
marshal shall serve as nonvoting members of the council.94089

       Six members shall be representatives of child care centers 94090
subject to licensing, the members to represent a variety of 94091
centers, including nonprofit and proprietary, from different 94092
geographical areas of the state. At least three members shall be 94093
parents, guardians, or custodians of children receiving child care 94094
or publicly funded child care in the child's own home, a center, a 94095
type A home, a head start program, a certified type B home, or a 94096
type B home at the time of appointment. Three members shall be 94097
representatives of in-home aides, type A homes, certified type B 94098
homes, or type B homes or head start programs. At least six 94099
members shall represent county departments of job and family 94100
services. The remaining members shall be representatives of the 94101
teaching, child development, and health professions, and other 94102
individuals interested in the welfare of children. At least six 94103
members of the council shall not be employees or licensees of a 94104
child day-care center, head start program, or type A home, or 94105
providers operating a certified type B home or type B home, or 94106
in-home aides.94107

        Appointments shall be for three-year terms. Vacancies shall 94108
be filled for the unexpired terms. A member of the council is 94109
subject to removal by the director of job and family services for 94110
a willful and flagrant exercise of authority or power that is not 94111
authorized by law, for a refusal or willful neglect to perform any 94112
official duty as a member of the council imposed by law, or for 94113
being guilty of misfeasance, malfeasance, nonfeasance, or gross 94114
neglect of duty as a member of the council.94115

       There shall be two co-chairpersons of the council. One 94116
co-chairperson shall be the director of job and family services or 94117
the director's designee, and one co-chairperson shall be elected 94118
by the members of the council. The council shall meet as often as 94119
is necessary to perform its duties, provided that it shall meet at 94120
least once in each quarter of each calendar year and at the call 94121
of the co-chairpersons. The co-chairpersons or their designee 94122
shall send to each member a written notice of the date, time, and 94123
place of each meeting.94124

       Members of the council shall serve without compensation, but 94125
shall be reimbursed for necessary expenses.94126

       (B) The child care advisory council shall advise the director 94127
on matters affecting the licensing of centers and type A homes and 94128
the certification of type B homes and in-home aides. The council 94129
shall make an annual report to the director of job and family 94130
services that addresses the availability, affordability, 94131
accessibility, and quality of child care and that summarizes the 94132
recommendations and plans of action that the council has proposed 94133
to the director during the preceding fiscal year. The director of 94134
job and family services shall provide copies of the report to the 94135
governor, speaker and minority leader of the house of 94136
representatives, and the president and minority leader of the 94137
senate and, on request, shall make copies available to the public.94138

       (C) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 94139
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this 94140
section.94141

       Sec. 5104.11.  (A)(1) Every person desiring to receive 94142
certification for a type B family day-care home to provide 94143
publicly funded child care shall apply for certification to the 94144
county director of job and family services on such forms as the 94145
director of job and family services prescribes. The county 94146
director shall provide at no charge to each applicant a copy of 94147
rules for certifying type B family day-care homes adopted pursuant 94148
to this chapter.94149

       (2) Except as provided in division (G)(1) of section 5104.011 94150
of the Revised Code, after receipt of an application for 94151
certification from a type B family day-care home, the county 94152
director of job and family services shall inspect the home. If it 94153
complies with this chapter and any applicable rules adopted under 94154
this chapter, the county department shall certify the type B 94155
family day-care home to provide publicly funded child care 94156
pursuant to this chapter and any rules adopted under it. The 94157
director of job and family services or a county director of job 94158
and family services may contract with a government entity or a 94159
private nonprofit entity for that entity to inspect and certify 94160
type B family day-care homes pursuant to this section. The county 94161
department of job and family services, government entity, or 94162
nonprofit entity shall conduct the inspection prior to the 94163
issuance of a certificate for the type B home and, as part of that 94164
inspection, ensure that the type B home is safe and sanitary.94165

       (3)(a) On receipt of an application for certification for a 94166
type B family day-care home to provide publicly funded child care 94167
or for renewal of such certification, the county department shall 94168
request from both of the followingthe public children services 94169
agency information concerning any abuse or neglect report made 94170
pursuant to section 2151.421 of the Revised Code of which the 94171
applicant, any other adult residing in the applicant's home, or a 94172
person designated by the applicant to be an emergency or 94173
substitute caregiver for the applicant is the subject:94174

       (i) The public children services agency, until the county 94175
department is notified by the department of job and family 94176
services that the uniform statewide automated child welfare 94177
information system has been finalized statewide; 94178

       (ii) Upon receipt of notification under division (D) of 94179
section 5101.13 of the Revised Code that the uniform statewide 94180
automated child welfare information system has been implemented 94181
statewide, the uniform statewide automated child welfare 94182
information system via the department.94183

       (b) The county department shall consider any information 94184
provided by the agency or the department pursuant to section 94185
5153.175 of the Revised Code. If the county department determines 94186
that the information, when viewed within the totality of the 94187
circumstances, reasonably leads to the conclusion that the 94188
applicant may directly or indirectly endanger the health, safety, 94189
or welfare of children, the county department shall deny the 94190
application for certification or renewal of certification, or 94191
revoke the certification of an authorized provider.94192

       (c) As used in division (A)(3) of this section, "public 94193
children services agency" means either an entity separate from the 94194
county department or the part of the county department that serves 94195
as the county's public children services agency, as appropriate.94196

       (4) Except as provided in division (A)(5) of this section, an 94197
authorized provider of a type B family day-care home that receives 94198
a certificate pursuant to this section to provide publicly funded 94199
child care is an independent contractor and is not an employee of 94200
the county department of job and family services that issues the 94201
certificate.94202

       (5) For purposes of Chapter 4141. of the Revised Code, 94203
determinations concerning the employment of an authorized provider 94204
of a type B family day-care home that receives a certificate 94205
pursuant to this section shall be determined under Chapter 4141. 94206
of the Revised Code.94207

       (B)(1) If the county director of job and family services 94208
determines that the type B family day-care home complies with this 94209
chapter and any rules adopted under it, the county director shall 94210
issue to the provider a certificate to provide publicly funded 94211
child care, which. The certificate is valid for twelve months, 94212
unless revoked earlier. The county director may revoke the 94213
certificate after determining that revocation is necessary. The 94214
authorized provider shall post the certificate in a conspicuous 94215
place in the certified type B home that is accessible to parents, 94216
custodians, or guardians at all times. The certificate shall state 94217
the name and address of the authorized provider, the maximum 94218
number of children who may be cared for at any one time in the 94219
certified type B home, the expiration date of the certification, 94220
and the name and telephone number of the county director who 94221
issued the certificate.94222

       (2) The county director may revoke a certificate to provide 94223
publicly funded child care in either of the following 94224
circumstances:94225

        (a) The county director determines, pursuant to rules adopted 94226
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, that revocation is 94227
necessary;94228

        (b) The authorized provider does not comply with division 94229
(D)(2) of section 5104.32 of the Revised Code.94230

       (C)(1) The county director shall inspect every certified type 94231
B family day-care home at least twice within each twelve-month 94232
period of the operation of the certified type B home. A minimum of 94233
one inspection shall be unannounced and all inspections may be 94234
unannounced. Upon receipt of a complaint, the county director 94235
shall investigate the certified type B home, and division (C)(2) 94236
of this section applies regarding the complaint. The authorized 94237
provider shall permit the county director to inspect any part of 94238
the certified type B home. The county director shall prepare a 94239
written inspection report and furnish one copy to the authorized 94240
provider within a reasonable time after the inspection.94241

       (2) Upon receipt of a complaint as described in division 94242
(C)(1) of this section, in addition to the investigation that is 94243
required under that division, both of the following apply:94244

       (a) If the complaint alleges that a child suffered physical 94245
harm while receiving child care at the certified type B family 94246
day-care home or that the noncompliance with law or act alleged in 94247
the complaint involved, resulted in, or poses a substantial risk 94248
of physical harm to a child receiving child care at the home, the 94249
county director shall inspect the home.94250

       (b) If division (C)(2)(a) of this section does not apply 94251
regarding the complaint, the county director may inspect the 94252
certified type B family day-care home.94253

       (3) Division (C)(2) of this section does not limit, restrict, 94254
or negate any duty of the county director to inspect a certified 94255
type B family day-care home that otherwise is imposed under this 94256
section, or any authority of the county director to inspect a home 94257
that otherwise is granted under this section when the county 94258
director believes the inspection is necessary and it is permitted 94259
under the grant.94260

       (D) The county director of job and family services, in 94261
accordance with rules adopted pursuant to section 5104.052 of the 94262
Revised Code regarding fire safety and fire prevention, shall 94263
inspect each type B home that applies to be certified that is 94264
providing or is to provide publicly funded child care.94265

       (E) All materials that are supplied by the department of job 94266
and family services to type A family day-care home providers, type 94267
B family day-care home providers, in-home aides, persons who 94268
desire to be type A family day-care home providers, type B family 94269
day-care home providers, or in-home aides, and caretaker parents 94270
shall be written at no higher than the sixth grade reading level. 94271
The department may employ a readability expert to verify its 94272
compliance with this division.94273

       Sec. 5104.12.  (A) The county director of job and family 94274
services may certify in-home aides to provide publicly funded 94275
child care pursuant to this chapter and any rules adopted under 94276
it. Any in-home aide who receives a certificate pursuant to this 94277
section to provide publicly funded child care is an independent 94278
contractor and is not an employee of the county department of job 94279
and family services that issues the certificate.94280

       (B) Every person desiring to receive certification as an 94281
in-home aide shall apply for certification to the county director 94282
of job and family services on such forms as the director of job 94283
and family services prescribes. The county director shall provide 94284
at no charge to each applicant a copy of rules for certifying 94285
in-home aides adopted pursuant to this chapter.94286

       (C)(1) If the county director of job and family services 94287
determines that public funds are available and that the person 94288
complies with this chapter and any rules adopted under it, the 94289
county director shall certify the person as an in-home aide and 94290
issue the person a certificate to provide publicly funded child 94291
care for twelve months. The county director may revoke the 94292
certificate after determining that revocation is necessary. The 94293
county director shall furnish a copy of the certificate to the 94294
parent, custodian, or guardian. The certificate shall state the 94295
name and address of the in-home aide, the expiration date of the 94296
certification, and the name and telephone number of the county 94297
director who issued the certificate.94298

       (2) The county director may revoke the certificate in either 94299
of the following circumstances:94300

        (a) The county director determines, pursuant to rules adopted 94301
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, that revocation is 94302
necessary;94303

        (b) The in-home aide does not comply with division (D)(2) of 94304
section 5104.32 of the Revised Code.94305

       (D)(1) The county director of job and family services shall 94306
inspect every home of a child who is receiving publicly funded 94307
child care in the child's own home while the in-home aide is 94308
providing the services. Inspections may be unannounced. Upon 94309
receipt of a complaint, the county director shall investigate the 94310
in-home aide, shall investigate the home of a child who is 94311
receiving publicly funded child care in the child's own home, and 94312
division (D)(2) of this section applies regarding the complaint. 94313
The caretaker parent shall permit the county director to inspect 94314
any part of the child's home. The county director shall prepare a 94315
written inspection report and furnish one copy each to the in-home 94316
aide and the caretaker parent within a reasonable time after the 94317
inspection.94318

       (2) Upon receipt of a complaint as described in division 94319
(D)(1) of this section, in addition to the investigations that are 94320
required under that division, both of the following apply:94321

       (a) If the complaint alleges that a child suffered physical 94322
harm while receiving publicly funded child care in the child's own 94323
home from an in-home aide or that the noncompliance with law or 94324
act alleged in the complaint involved, resulted in, or poses a 94325
substantial risk of physical harm to a child receiving publicly 94326
funded child care in the child's own home from an in-home aide, 94327
the county director shall inspect the home of the child.94328

       (b) If division (D)(2)(a) of this section does not apply 94329
regarding the complaint, the county director may inspect the home 94330
of the child.94331

       (3) Division (D)(2) of this section does not limit, restrict, 94332
or negate any duty of the county director to inspect a home of a 94333
child who is receiving publicly funded child care from an in-home 94334
aide that otherwise is imposed under this section, or any 94335
authority of the county director to inspect such a home that 94336
otherwise is granted under this section when the county director 94337
believes the inspection is necessary and it is permitted under the 94338
grant.94339

       Sec. 5104.32.  (A) Except as provided in division (C) of this 94340
section, all purchases of publicly funded child care shall be made 94341
under a contract entered into by a licensed child day-care center, 94342
licensed type A family day-care home, certified type B family 94343
day-care home, certified in-home aide, approved child day camp, 94344
licensed preschool program, licensed school child program, or 94345
border state child care provider and the department of job and 94346
family services. All contracts for publicly funded child care 94347
shall be contingent upon the availability of state and federal 94348
funds. The department shall prescribe a standard form to be used 94349
for all contracts for the purchase of publicly funded child care, 94350
regardless of the source of public funds used to purchase the 94351
child care. To the extent permitted by federal law and 94352
notwithstanding any other provision of the Revised Code that 94353
regulates state contracts or contracts involving the expenditure 94354
of state or federal funds, all contracts for publicly funded child 94355
care shall be entered into in accordance with the provisions of 94356
this chapter and are exempt from any other provision of the 94357
Revised Code that regulates state contracts or contracts involving 94358
the expenditure of state or federal funds.94359

       (B) Each contract for publicly funded child care shall 94360
specify at least the following:94361

       (1) That the provider of publicly funded child care agrees to 94362
be paid for rendering services at the lower of the rate 94363
customarily charged by the provider for children enrolled for 94364
child care or the reimbursement ceiling or rate of payment 94365
established pursuant to section 5104.30 of the Revised Code;94366

       (2) That, if a provider provides child care to an individual 94367
potentially eligible for publicly funded child care who is 94368
subsequently determined to be eligible, the department agrees to 94369
pay for all child care provided between the date the county 94370
department of job and family services receives the individual's 94371
completed application and the date the individual's eligibility is 94372
determined;94373

       (3) Whether the county department of job and family services, 94374
the provider, or a child care resource and referral service 94375
organization will make eligibility determinations, whether the 94376
provider or a child care resource and referral service 94377
organization will be required to collect information to be used by 94378
the county department to make eligibility determinations, and the 94379
time period within which the provider or child care resource and 94380
referral service organization is required to complete required 94381
eligibility determinations or to transmit to the county department 94382
any information collected for the purpose of making eligibility 94383
determinations;94384

       (4) That the provider, other than a border state child care 94385
provider, shall continue to be licensed, approved, or certified 94386
pursuant to this chapter and shall comply with all standards and 94387
other requirements in this chapter and in rules adopted pursuant 94388
to this chapter for maintaining the provider's license, approval, 94389
or certification;94390

       (5) That, in the case of a border state child care provider, 94391
the provider shall continue to be licensed, certified, or 94392
otherwise approved by the state in which the provider is located 94393
and shall comply with all standards and other requirements 94394
established by that state for maintaining the provider's license, 94395
certificate, or other approval;94396

       (6) Whether the provider will be paid by the state department 94397
of job and family services or in some other manner as prescribed 94398
by rules adopted under section 5104.42 of the Revised Code;94399

       (7) That the contract is subject to the availability of state 94400
and federal funds.94401

       (C) Unless specifically prohibited by federal law or by rules 94402
adopted under section 5104.42 of the Revised Code, the county 94403
department of job and family services shall give individuals 94404
eligible for publicly funded child care the option of obtaining 94405
certificates that the individual may use to purchase services from 94406
any provider qualified to provide publicly funded child care under 94407
section 5104.31 of the Revised Code. Providers of publicly funded 94408
child care may present these certificates for payment in 94409
accordance with rules that the director of job and family services 94410
shall adopt. Only providers may receive payment for certificates. 94411
The value of the certificate shall be based on the lower of the 94412
rate customarily charged by the provider or the rate of payment 94413
established pursuant to section 5104.30 of the Revised Code. The 94414
county department may provide the certificates to the individuals 94415
or may contract with child care providers or child care resource 94416
and referral service organizations that make determinations of 94417
eligibility for publicly funded child care pursuant to contracts 94418
entered into under section 5104.34 of the Revised Code for the 94419
providers or resource and referral service organizations to 94420
provide the certificates to individuals whom they determine are 94421
eligible for publicly funded child care.94422

       For each six-month period a provider of publicly funded child 94423
care provides publicly funded child care to the child of an 94424
individual given certificates, the individual shall provide the 94425
provider certificates for days the provider would have provided 94426
publicly funded child care to the child had the child been 94427
present. The maximum number of days providers shall be provided 94428
certificates shall not exceed ten days in a six-month period 94429
during which publicly funded child care is provided to the child 94430
regardless of the number of providers that provide publicly funded 94431
child care to the child during that period.94432

       (D)(1) The department shall establish the Ohio electronic 94433
child care system to track attendance and calculate payments for 94434
publicly funded child care. The system shall include issuing an 94435
electronic child care card to each caretaker parent to swipe 94436
through a point-of-service device issued to an eligible provider, 94437
as described in section 5104.31 of the Revised Code.94438

        (2) Each eligible provider that provides publicly funded 94439
child care shall participate in the Ohio electronic child care 94440
system. A provider participating in the system shall not do any of 94441
the following:94442

        (a) Use or have possession of an electronic child care card 94443
issued to a caretaker parent;94444

        (b) Falsify attendance records;94445

        (c) Knowingly seek payment for publicly funded child care 94446
that was not provided;94447

        (d) Knowingly accept reimbursement for publicly funded child 94448
care that was not provided.94449

       Sec. 5107.10.  (A) As used in this section:94450

       (1) "Countable income," "gross earned income," and "gross 94451
unearned income" have the meanings established in rules adopted 94452
under section 5107.05 of the Revised Code.94453

       (2) "Federal poverty guidelines" has the same meaning as in 94454
section 5101.46 of the Revised Code, except that references to a 94455
person's family in the definition shall be deemed to be references 94456
to the person's assistance group.94457

       (3) "Gross income" means gross earned income and gross 94458
unearned income.94459

        (4) "Strike" means continuous concerted action in failing to 94460
report to duty; willful absence from one's position; or stoppage 94461
of work in whole from the full, faithful, and proper performance 94462
of the duties of employment, for the purpose of inducing, 94463
influencing, or coercing a change in wages, hours, terms, and 94464
other conditions of employment. "Strike" does not include a 94465
stoppage of work by employees in good faith because of dangerous 94466
or unhealthful working conditions at the place of employment that 94467
are abnormal to the place of employment.94468

       (B) Under the Ohio works first program, an assistance group 94469
shall receive, except as otherwise provided by this chapter, 94470
time-limited cash assistance. In the case of an assistance group 94471
that includes a minor head of household or adult, assistance shall 94472
be provided in accordance with the self-sufficiency contract 94473
entered into under section 5107.14 of the Revised Code.94474

       (C) To be eligible to participate in Ohio works first, an 94475
assistance group must meet all of the following requirements:94476

       (1) The assistance group, except as provided in division (E) 94477
of this section, must include at least one of the following:94478

       (a) A minor child who, except as provided in section 5107.24 94479
of the Revised Code, resides with a parent, or specified relative 94480
caring for the child, or, to the extent permitted by Title IV-A 94481
and federal regulations adopted until Title IV-A, resides with a 94482
guardian or custodian caring for the child;94483

       (b) A parent residing with and caring for the parent's minor 94484
child who receives supplemental security income under Title XVI of 94485
the "Social Security Act," 86 Stat. 1475 (1972), 42 U.S.C.A. 1383, 94486
as amended, or federal, state, or local adoption assistance;94487

       (c) A specified relative residing with and caring for a minor 94488
child who is related to the specified relative in a manner that 94489
makes the specified relative a specified relative and receives 94490
supplemental security income or federal, state, or local foster 94491
care or adoption assistance;94492

       (d) A woman at least six months pregnant.94493

       (2) The assistance group must meet the income requirements 94494
established by division (D) of this section.94495

       (3) No member of the assistance group may be involved in a 94496
strike.94497

       (4) The assistance group must satisfy the requirements for 94498
Ohio works first established by this chapter and sections 5101.58, 94499
5101.59, andsection 5101.83 of the Revised Code.94500

       (5) The assistance group must meet requirements for Ohio 94501
works first established by rules adopted under section 5107.05 of 94502
the Revised Code.94503

       (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(4) of this section, 94504
to determine whether an assistance group is initially eligible to 94505
participate in Ohio works first, a county department of job and 94506
family services shall do the following:94507

       (a) Determine whether the assistance group's gross income 94508
exceeds fifty per cent of the federal poverty guidelines. In 94509
making this determination, the county department shall disregard 94510
amounts that federal statutes or regulations and sections 5101.17 94511
and 5117.10 of the Revised Code require be disregarded. The 94512
assistance group is ineligible to participate in Ohio works first 94513
if the assistance group's gross income, less the amounts 94514
disregarded, exceeds fifty per cent of the federal poverty 94515
guidelines.94516

       (b) If the assistance group's gross income, less the amounts 94517
disregarded pursuant to division (D)(1)(a) of this section, does 94518
not exceed fifty per cent of the federal poverty guidelines, 94519
determine whether the assistance group's countable income is less 94520
than the payment standard. The assistance group is ineligible to 94521
participate in Ohio works first if the assistance group's 94522
countable income equals or exceeds the payment standard.94523

       (2) For the purpose of determining whether an assistance 94524
group meets the income requirement established by division 94525
(D)(1)(a) of this section, the annual revision that the United 94526
States department of health and human services makes to the 94527
federal poverty guidelines shall go into effect on the first day 94528
of July of the year for which the revision is made.94529

       (3) To determine whether an assistance group participating in 94530
Ohio works first continues to be eligible to participate, a county 94531
department of job and family services shall determine whether the 94532
assistance group's countable income continues to be less than the 94533
payment standard. In making this determination, the county 94534
department shall disregard the first two hundred fifty dollars and 94535
fifty per cent of the remainder of the assistance group's gross 94536
earned income. No amounts shall be disregarded from the assistance 94537
group's gross unearned income. The assistance group ceases to be 94538
eligible to participate in Ohio works first if its countable 94539
income, less the amounts disregarded, equals or exceeds the 94540
payment standard.94541

       (4) If an assistance group reapplies to participate in Ohio 94542
works first not more than four months after ceasing to 94543
participate, a county department of job and family services shall 94544
use the income requirement established by division (D)(3) of this 94545
section to determine eligibility for resumed participation rather 94546
than the income requirement established by division (D)(1) of this 94547
section.94548

       (E)(1) An assistance group may continue to participate in 94549
Ohio works first even though a public children services agency 94550
removes the assistance group's minor children from the assistance 94551
group's home due to abuse, neglect, or dependency if the agency 94552
does both of the following:94553

       (a) Notifies the county department of job and family services 94554
at the time the agency removes the children that it believes the 94555
children will be able to return to the assistance group within six 94556
months;94557

       (b) Informs the county department at the end of each of the 94558
first five months after the agency removes the children that the 94559
parent, guardian, custodian, or specified relative of the children 94560
is cooperating with the case plans prepared for the children under 94561
section 2151.412 of the Revised Code and that the agency is making 94562
reasonable efforts to return the children to the assistance group.94563

       (2) An assistance group may continue to participate in Ohio 94564
works first pursuant to division (E)(1) of this section for not 94565
more than six payment months. This division does not affect the 94566
eligibility of an assistance group that includes a woman at least 94567
six months pregnant.94568

       Sec. 5107.14.  (A) An assistance group is ineligible to 94569
participate in Ohio works first unless the following enter into a 94570
written self-sufficiency contract with the county department of 94571
job and family services:94572

       (1) Each adult member of the assistance group;94573

       (2) The assistance group's minor head of household.94574

       (B) A self-sufficiency contract shall set forth the rights 94575
and responsibilities of the assistance group as applicants for and 94576
participants of Ohio works first. Each self-sufficiency contract 94577
shall include, based on appraisals conducted under section 5107.41 94578
of the Revised Code and assessments conducted under section 94579
5107.70 of the Revised Code, the following:94580

       (1) The assistance group's plan, developed under section 94581
5107.41 of the Revised Code, to achieve the goal of self 94582
sufficiency and personal responsibility through unsubsidized 94583
employment within the time limit for participating in Ohio works 94584
first established by section 5107.18 of the Revised Code;94585

       (2) Work activities, developmental activities, and 94586
alternative work activities to which members of the assistance 94587
group are assigned under sections 5107.40 to 5107.69 of the 94588
Revised Code;94589

       (3) The responsibility of a caretaker member of the 94590
assistance group to cooperate in establishing a minor child's 94591
paternity and establishing, modifying, and enforcing a support 94592
order for the child in accordance with section 5107.22 of the 94593
Revised Code;94594

       (4) Other responsibilities that members of the assistance 94595
group must satisfy to participate in Ohio works first and the 94596
consequences for failure or refusal to satisfy the 94597
responsibilities;94598

       (5) An agreement that, except as otherwise provided in a 94599
waiver issued under section 5107.714 of the Revised Code, the 94600
assistance group will comply with the conditions of participating 94601
in Ohio works first established by this chapter and sections 94602
5101.58, 5101.59, andsection 5101.83 of the Revised Code;94603

       (6) Assistance and services the county department will 94604
provide to the assistance group;94605

       (7) Assistance and services the child support enforcement 94606
agency and public children services agency will provide to the 94607
assistance group pursuant to a plan of cooperation entered into 94608
under section 307.983 of the Revised Code;94609

       (8) Other provisions designed to assist the assistance group 94610
in achieving self sufficiency and personal responsibility;94611

       (9) Procedures for assessing whether responsibilities are 94612
being satisfied and whether the contract should be amended;94613

       (10) Procedures for amending the contract.94614

       (C) No self-sufficiency contract shall include provisions 94615
regarding the LEAP program.94616

       (D) The county department shall provide without charge a copy 94617
of the self-sufficiency contract to each assistance group member 94618
who signs it.94619

       Sec. 5107.16.  (A) If a member of an assistance group fails 94620
or refuses, without good cause, to comply in full with a provision 94621
of a self-sufficiency contract entered into under section 5107.14 94622
of the Revised Code, a county department of job and family 94623
services shall sanction the assistance group as follows:94624

       (1) For a first failure or refusal, the county department 94625
shall deny or terminate the assistance group's eligibility to 94626
participate in Ohio works first for one payment month or until the 94627
failure or refusal ceases, whichever is longer;94628

       (2) For a second failure or refusal, the county department 94629
shall deny or terminate the assistance group's eligibility to 94630
participate in Ohio works first for three payment months or until 94631
the failure or refusal ceases, whichever is longer;94632

       (3) For a third or subsequent failure or refusal, the county 94633
department shall deny or terminate the assistance group's 94634
eligibility to participate in Ohio works first for six payment 94635
months or until the failure or refusal ceases, whichever is 94636
longer.94637

       (B) The director of job and family services shall establish 94638
standards for the determination of good cause for failure or 94639
refusal to comply in full with a provision of a self-sufficiency 94640
contract in rules adopted under section 5107.05 of the Revised 94641
Code.94642

       (C) An assistance group member who fails or refuses, without 94643
good cause, to comply in full with a provision of a 94644
self-sufficiency contract must complete all compliance activities 94645
specified in rules adopted under section 5107.05 of the Revised 94646
Code in order for the failure or refusal to be considered to have 94647
ceased.94648

       (D) After sanctioning an assistance group under division (A) 94649
of this section, a county department of job and family services 94650
shall continue to work with the assistance group.94651

       (E) An adult eligible for medicaid pursuant to division 94652
(C)(1)(a) of section 5111.01 of the Revised Code who is sanctioned 94653
under division (A)(3) of this section for a failure or refusal, 94654
without good cause, to comply in full with a provision of a 94655
self-sufficiency contract related to work responsibilities under 94656
sections 5107.40 to 5107.69 of the Revised Code loses eligibility 94657
for medicaid unless the adult is otherwise eligible for medicaid 94658
pursuant to another division of section 5111.01 of the Revised 94659
Codean eligibility category other than the category associated 94660
with Title IV-A.94661

        An assistance group that would be participating in Ohio works 94662
first if not for a sanction under this section shall continue to 94663
be eligible for all of the following:94664

       (1) Publicly funded child care in accordance with division 94665
(A)(3) of section 5104.30 of the Revised Code;94666

       (2) Support services in accordance with section 5107.66 of 94667
the Revised Code;94668

       (3) To the extent permitted by the "Fair Labor Standards Act 94669
of 1938," 52 Stat. 1060, 29 U.S.C. 201, as amended, to participate 94670
in work activities, developmental activities, and alternative work 94671
activities in accordance with sections 5107.40 to 5107.69 of the 94672
Revised Code.94673

       Sec. 5107.20.  As used in this section, "support" means child 94674
support, spousal support, and support for a spouse or a former 94675
spouse.94676

       Participation in Ohio works first constitutes an assignment 94677
to the department of job and family services of any rights members 94678
of an assistance group have to support from any other person, 94679
excluding medical support assigned pursuant to section 5101.59 of 94680
the Revised Code. The rights to support assigned to the department 94681
pursuant to this section constitute an obligation of the person 94682
who is responsible for providing the support to the state for the 94683
amount of cash assistance provided to the assistance group.94684

       The office of child support in the department of job and 94685
family services shall collect and distribute support payments owed 94686
to Ohio works first participants, whether assigned to the 94687
department or unassigned, in accordance with 42 U.S.C. 654 B and 94688
657 and regulations adopted under those statutes, state statutes, 94689
and rules adopted under section 5107.05 of the Revised Code.94690

       Upon implementation of centralized collection and 94691
disbursement under Chapter 3121. of the Revised Code, in 94692
accordance with 42 U.S.C. 654 B and 657 and regulations adopted 94693
under those statutes, the department shall deposit support 94694
payments it receives pursuant to this section into the state 94695
treasury to the credit of the child support collections fund or 94696
the child support administrative fund, both of which are hereby 94697
created. Money credited to the funds shall be used to make cash 94698
assistance payments under Ohio works first.94699

       Sec. 5107.24.  (A) As used in this section:94700

       (1) "Adult-supervised living arrangement" means a family 94701
setting approved, licensed, or certified by the department of job 94702
and family services, the department of mental healthmental health 94703
and addiction services, the department of developmental 94704
disabilities, the department of youth services, a public children 94705
services agency, a private child placing agency, or a private 94706
noncustodial agency that is maintained by a person age eighteen or 94707
older who assumes responsibility for the care and control of a 94708
minor parent, pregnant minor, or child of a minor parent or 94709
provides the minor parent, pregnant minor, or child of a minor 94710
parent supportive services, including counseling, guidance, and 94711
supervision. "Adult-supervised living arrangement" does not mean a 94712
public institution.94713

       (2) "Child of a minor parent" means a child born to a minor 94714
parent, except that the child ceases to be considered a child of 94715
minor parent when the minor parent attains age eighteen.94716

       (3) "Minor parent" means a parent who is under age eighteen 94717
and is not married.94718

       (4) "Pregnant minor" means a pregnant person who is under age 94719
eighteen and not married.94720

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section 94721
and to the extent permitted by Title IV-A and federal regulations 94722
adopted under Title IV-A, a pregnant minor, minor parent, or child 94723
of a minor parent must reside in a place of residence maintained 94724
by a parent, guardian, custodian, or specified relative of the 94725
pregnant minor or minor parent as the parent's, guardian's, 94726
custodian's, or specified relative's own home to be eligible to 94727
participate in Ohio works first.94728

       (2) To the extent permitted by Title IV-A and federal 94729
regulations adopted under it, a pregnant minor, minor parent, or 94730
child of a minor parent is exempt from the requirement of division 94731
(B)(1) of this section if any of the following apply:94732

       (a) The minor parent or pregnant minor does not have a 94733
parent, guardian, custodian, or specified relative living or whose 94734
whereabouts are known.94735

       (b) No parent, guardian, custodian, or specified relative of 94736
the minor parent or pregnant minor will allow the pregnant minor, 94737
minor parent, or minor parent's child to live in the parent's, 94738
guardian's, custodian's, or specified relative's home.94739

       (c) The department of job and family services, a county 94740
department of job and family services, or a public children 94741
services agency determines that the physical or emotional health 94742
or safety of the pregnant minor, minor parent, or minor parent's 94743
child would be in jeopardy if the pregnant minor, minor parent, or 94744
minor parent's child lived in the same home as the parent, 94745
guardian, custodian, or specified relative.94746

       (d) The department of job and family services, a county 94747
department of job and family services, or a public children 94748
services agency otherwise determines that it is in the best 94749
interest of the pregnant minor, minor parent, or minor parent's 94750
child to waive the requirement of division (B)(1) of this section.94751

       (C) A pregnant minor, minor parent, or child of a minor 94752
parent exempt from the requirement of division (B)(1) of this 94753
section must reside in an adult-supervised living arrangement to 94754
be eligible to participate in Ohio works first.94755

       (D) The department of job and family services, whenever 94756
possible and to the extent permitted by Title IV-A and federal 94757
regulations adopted under it, shall provide cash assistance under 94758
Ohio works first to the parent, guardian, custodian, or specified 94759
relative of a pregnant minor or minor parent on behalf of the 94760
pregnant minor, minor parent, or minor parent's child.94761

       Sec. 5107.26.  (A) As used in this section:94762

       (1) "Transitional, "transitional child care" means publicly 94763
funded child care provided under division (A)(3) of section 94764
5104.34 of the Revised Code.94765

       (2) "Transitional medicaid" means the medical assistance 94766
provided under section 5111.0115 of the Revised Code.94767

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, each:94768

       (1) Each member of an assistance group participating in Ohio 94769
works first is ineligible to participate in the program for six 94770
payment months if a county department of job and family services 94771
determines that a member of the assistance group terminated the 94772
member's employment and each.94773

       (2) Each person who, on the day prior to the day a recipient 94774
begins to receive transitional child care or transitional 94775
medicaid, was a member of the recipient's assistance group is 94776
ineligible to participate in Ohio works first for six payment 94777
months if a county department determines that the recipient 94778
terminated the recipient's employment.94779

       (C) No assistance group member shall lose or be denied 94780
eligibility to participate in Ohio works first pursuant to 94781
division (B) of this section if the termination of employment was 94782
because an assistance group member or recipient of transitional 94783
child care or transitional medicaid secured comparable or better 94784
employment or the county department of job and family services 94785
certifies that the member or recipient terminated the employment 94786
with just cause.94787

       Just cause includes the following:94788

       (1) Discrimination by an employer based on age, race, sex, 94789
color, handicap, religious beliefs, or national origin;94790

       (2) Work demands or conditions that render continued 94791
employment unreasonable, such as working without being paid on 94792
schedule;94793

       (3) Employment that has become unsuitable due to any of the 94794
following:94795

       (a) The wage is less than the federal minimum wage;94796

       (b) The work is at a site subject to a strike or lockout, 94797
unless the strike has been enjoined under section 208 of the 94798
"Labor-Management Relations Act," 61 Stat. 155 (1947), 29 U.S.C.A. 94799
178, as amended, an injunction has been issued under section 10 of 94800
the "Railway Labor Act," 44 Stat. 586 (1926), 45 U.S.C.A. 160, as 94801
amended, or an injunction has been issued under section 4117.16 of 94802
the Revised Code;94803

       (c) The documented degree of risk to the member or 94804
recipient's health and safety is unreasonable;94805

       (d) The member or recipient is physically or mentally unfit 94806
to perform the employment, as documented by medical evidence or by 94807
reliable information from other sources.94808

       (4) Documented illness of the member or recipient or of 94809
another assistance group member of the member or recipient 94810
requiring the presence of the member or recipient;94811

       (5) A documented household emergency;94812

       (6) Lack of adequate child care for children of the member or 94813
recipient who are under six years of age.94814

       Sec. 5107.42.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (B) and 94815
(C) of this section, county departments of job and family services 94816
shall assign each minor head of household and adult participating 94817
in Ohio works first, other than a minor head of household 94818
participating in the LEAP program, to one or more work activities 94819
and developmental activities.94820

       If a county department assigns a minor head of household or 94821
adult to the work activity established under division (H) of 94822
section 5107.60 of the Revised Code, the county department shall 94823
make reasonable efforts to assign the minor head of household or 94824
adult to at least one other work activity at the same time. If a 94825
county department assigns a minor head of household or adult to 94826
the work activity established under section 5107.58 of the Revised 94827
Code, the county department shall assign the minor head of 94828
household or adult to at least one other work activity at the same 94829
time.94830

       A county department may not assign a minor head of household 94831
or adult to a work activity established under division (D) of 94832
section 5107.60 of the Revised Code for more than twelve months.94833

       (B) If a county department determines that a minor head of 94834
household or adult has a temporary or permanent barrier to 94835
participation in a work activity, it may assign the minor head of 94836
household or adult to one or more alternative work activities 94837
instead of assigning the minor head of household or adult to one 94838
or more work activities or developmental activities. A county 94839
department may not assign more than twenty per cent of minor heads 94840
of household and adults participating in Ohio works first to an 94841
alternative work activity. 94842

       County departments shall establish standards for determining 94843
whether a minor head of household or adult has a temporary or 94844
permanent barrier to participating in a work activity. The 94845
following are examples of circumstances that a county department 94846
may consider when it develops its standards:94847

       (1) A minor head of household or adult provides the county 94848
department documented evidence that one or more members of the 94849
assistance group have been the victim of domestic violence and are 94850
in imminent danger of suffering continued domestic violence;94851

       (2) A minor head of household or adult is actively 94852
participating in an alcohol or druga community addiction program94853
services provider certified by the department of alcohol and drug 94854
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services under 94855
section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code; 94856

       (3) An assistance group is homeless.94857

       (C) A county department may exempt a minor head of household 94858
or adult who is unmarried and caring for a minor child under 94859
twelve months of age from the work requirements of sections 94860
5107.40 to 5107.69 of the Revised Code for not more than twelve 94861
months. While exempt, the minor head of household or adult shall 94862
be disregarded in determining whether the county department is 94863
meeting the requirement of section 5107.44 of the Revised Code. 94864
The county department shall assign the exempt minor head of 94865
household or adult to at least one developmental activity for a 94866
number of hours a week the county department determines. The 94867
county department may assign the exempt minor head of household or 94868
adult to one or more work activities, in addition to developmental 94869
activities, for a number of hours the county department 94870
determines. Division (B) of section 5107.43 of the Revised Code 94871
does not apply to the exempt minor head of household or adult. 94872

       (D) A county department may reassign a minor head of 94873
household or adult when the county department determines 94874
reassignment will aid the assistance group in achieving self 94875
sufficiency and personal responsibility and shall make 94876
reassignments when circumstances requiring reassignment occur, 94877
including when a temporary barrier to participating in a work 94878
activity is eliminated. 94879

       A county department shall include assignments in the 94880
self-sufficiency contract entered into under section 5107.14 of 94881
the Revised Code and shall amend the contract when a reassignment 94882
is made to include the reassignment in the contract.94883

       Sec. 5107.64.  County departments of job and family services 94884
shall establish and administer alternative work activities for 94885
minor heads of households and adults participating in Ohio works 94886
first. In establishing alternative work activities, county 94887
departments are not limited by the restrictions Title IV-A imposes 94888
on work activities. The following are examples of alternative work 94889
activities that a county department may establish:94890

       (A) Parenting classes and life-skills training;94891

       (B) Participation in an alcohol or druga community addiction 94892
programservices provider certified by the department of alcohol 94893
and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction services94894
under section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code;94895

       (C) In the case of a homeless assistance group, finding a 94896
home;94897

       (D) In the case of a minor head of household or adult with a 94898
disability, active work in an individual written rehabilitation 94899
plan with the rehabilitation services commissionopportunities for 94900
Ohioans with disabilities agency;94901

       (E) In the case of a minor head of household or adult who has 94902
been the victim of domestic violence, residing in a domestic 94903
violence shelter, receiving counseling or treatment related to the 94904
domestic violence, or participating in criminal justice activities 94905
against the domestic violence offender;94906

       (F) An education program under which a participant who does 94907
not speak English attends English as a second language course.94908

       Sec. 5115.20.  (A) The department of job and family services 94909
shall establish a disability advocacy program and each county 94910
department of job and family services shall establish a disability 94911
advocacy program unit or join with other county departments of job 94912
and family services to establish a joint county disability 94913
advocacy program unit. Through the program the department and 94914
county departments shall cooperate in efforts to assist applicants 94915
for and recipients of assistance under the disability financial 94916
assistance program, who might be eligible for supplemental 94917
security income benefits under Title XVI of the "Social Security 94918
Act," 86 Stat. 1475 (1972), 42 U.S.C.A. 1383, as amended, in 94919
applying for those benefits. 94920

       As part of their disability advocacy programs, the state 94921
department and county departments may enter into contracts for the 94922
services of persons and government entities that in the judgment 94923
of the department or county department have demonstrated expertise 94924
in representing persons seeking supplemental security income 94925
benefits. Each contract shall require the person or entity with 94926
which a department contracts to assess each person referred to it 94927
by the department to determine whether the person appears to be 94928
eligible for supplemental security income benefits, and, if the 94929
person appears to be eligible, assist the person in applying and 94930
represent the person in any proceeding of the social security 94931
administration, including any appeal or reconsideration of a 94932
denial of benefits. The department or county department shall 94933
provide to the person or entity with which it contracts all 94934
records in its possession relevant to the application for 94935
supplemental security income benefits. The department shall 94936
require a county department with relevant records to submit them 94937
to the person or entity.94938

       (B) Each applicant for or recipient of disability financial 94939
assistance who, in the judgment of the department of job and 94940
family services or a county department of job and family services94941
might be eligible for supplemental security benefits, shall, as a 94942
condition of eligibility for assistance, apply for such benefits 94943
if directed to do so by the department or county department.94944

       (C) With regard to applicants for and recipients of 94945
disability financial assistance, each county department of job and 94946
family services shall do all of the following:94947

       (1) Identify applicants and recipients who might be eligible 94948
for supplemental security income benefits;94949

       (2) Assist applicants and recipients in securing 94950
documentation of disabling conditions or refer them for such 94951
assistance to a person or government entity with which the 94952
department of job and family services or county department has 94953
contracted under division (A) of this section;94954

       (3) Inform applicants and recipients of available sources of 94955
representation, which may include a person or government entity 94956
with which the department or county department has contracted 94957
under division (A) of this section, and of their right to 94958
represent themselves in reconsiderations and appeals of social 94959
security administration decisions that deny them supplemental 94960
security income benefits. The county department may require the 94961
applicants and recipients, as a condition of eligibility for 94962
assistance, to pursue reconsiderations and appeals of social 94963
security administration decisions that deny them supplemental 94964
security income benefits, and shall assist applicants and 94965
recipients as necessary to obtain such benefits or refer them to a 94966
person or government entity with which the department or county 94967
department has contracted under division (A) of this section.94968

       (4) Require applicants and recipients who, in the judgment of 94969
the county department, are or may be aged, blind, or disabled, to 94970
apply for medical assistance under Chapter 5111. of the Revised 94971
Codethe medicaid program, make determinations when appropriate as 94972
to eligibility for medical assistancemedicaid, and refer their 94973
applications when necessary to the disability determination unit 94974
established in accordance with division (F) of this section for 94975
expedited review;94976

       (5) Require each applicant and recipient who in the judgment 94977
of the department or the county department might be eligible for 94978
supplemental security income benefits, as a condition of 94979
eligibility for disability financial assistance, to execute a 94980
written authorization for the secretary of health and human 94981
services to withhold benefits due that individual and pay to the 94982
director of job and family services or the director's designee an 94983
amount sufficient to reimburse the state and county shares of 94984
interim assistance furnished to the individual. For the purposes 94985
of division (C)(5) of this section, "benefits" and "interim 94986
assistance" have the meanings given in Title XVI of the "Social 94987
Security Act."94988

       (D) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 94989
in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code for the 94990
effective administration of the disability advocacy program. The 94991
rules shall include all of the following:94992

       (1) Methods to be used in collecting information from and 94993
disseminating it to county departments, including the following:94994

       (a) The number of individuals in the county who are disabled 94995
recipients of disability financial assistance;94996

       (b) The final decision made either by the social security 94997
administration or by a court for each application or 94998
reconsideration in which an individual was assisted pursuant to 94999
this section.95000

       (2) The type and process of training to be provided by the 95001
department of job and family services to the employees of the 95002
county department of job and family services who perform duties 95003
under this section;95004

       (3) Requirements for the written authorization required by 95005
division (C)(5) of this section.95006

       (E) The department of job and family services shall provide 95007
basic and continuing training to employees of the county 95008
department of job and family services who perform duties under 95009
this section. Training shall include but not be limited to all 95010
processes necessary to obtain federal disability benefits, and 95011
methods of advocacy.95012

       (F) The department of medicaid shall establish a disability 95013
determination unit and develop guidelines for expediting reviews 95014
of applications for medical assistance under Chapter 5111. of the 95015
Revised Codethe medicaid program for persons who have been 95016
referred to the unit under division (C)(4) of this section. The 95017
department of medicaid shall make determinations of eligibility 95018
for medical assistancemedicaid for any such person within the 95019
time prescribed by federal regulations.95020

       (G) The department of job and family services may, under 95021
rules the director of job and family services adopts in accordance 95022
with section 111.15 of the Revised Code, pay a portion of the 95023
federal reimbursement described in division (C)(5) of this section 95024
to persons or government entities that assist or represent 95025
assistance recipients in reconsiderations and appeals of social 95026
security administration decisions denying them supplemental 95027
security income benefits.95028

       (H) The director of job and family services shall conduct 95029
investigations to determine whether disability advocacy programs 95030
are being administered in compliance with the Revised Code and the 95031
rules adopted by the director pursuant to this section.95032

       Sec. 5117.10.  (A) On or before the fifteenth day of January, 95033
the director of development shall pay each applicant determined 95034
eligible for a payment under divisions (A) and (B) of section 95035
5117.07 of the Revised Code one hundred twenty-five dollars.95036

       (B) The director may withhold from any payment to which a 95037
person would otherwise be entitled under division (A) of this 95038
section any amount that the director determines was erroneously 95039
received by such person in a preceding year under this or the 95040
program established under Am. Sub. H.B. 230, as amended by Am. 95041
H.B. 937, Am. Sub. H.B. 1073, Am. Sub. S.B. 493, and Am. Sub. S.B. 95042
523 of the 112th general assembly, provided the director has 95043
employed all other legal methods reasonably available to obtain 95044
reimbursement for the erroneous payment or credit prior to the 95045
commencement of the current program year.95046

       (C) Payments made under this section and credits granted 95047
under section 5117.09 of the Revised Code shall not be considered 95048
income for the purpose of determining eligibility or the level of 95049
benefits or assistance under section 329.042 or Chapters 5107., 95050
5111., and 5115. of the Revised Code; the medicaid program;95051
supplemental security income payments under Title XVI of the 95052
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as 95053
amended; or any other program under which eligibility or the level 95054
of benefits or assistance is based upon need measured by income.95055

       Sec. 3793.01.        Sec. 5119.01.  (A) As used in this chapter:95056

       (1) "Addiction" means the chronic and habitual use of 95057
alcoholic beverages, the use of a drug of abuse as defined in 95058
section 3719.011 of the Revised Code, or the use of gambling by an 95059
individual to the extent that the individual no longer can control 95060
the individual's use of alcohol, the individual becomes physically 95061
or psychologically dependent on the drug, the individual's use of 95062
alcohol or drugs endangers the health, safety, or welfare of the 95063
individual or others, or the individual's gambling causes 95064
psychological, financial, emotional, marital, legal, or other 95065
difficulties endangering the health, safety, or welfare of the 95066
individual or others.95067

        (2) "Addiction services" means services, including 95068
intervention, for the treatment of persons with alcohol, drug, or 95069
gambling addictions, and for the prevention of such addictions.95070

        (3) "Alcohol and drug addiction services" means services, 95071
including intervention, for the treatment of alcoholics or persons 95072
who abuse drugs of abuse and for the prevention of alcoholism and 95073
drug addiction.95074

        (4) "Alcoholic" means a person suffering from alcoholism.95075

        (5) "Alcoholism" means the chronic and habitual use of 95076
alcoholic beverages by an individual to the extent that the 95077
individual no longer can control the individual's use of alcohol 95078
or endangers the health, safety, or welfare of the individual or 95079
others.95080

       (2) "Alcoholic" means a person suffering from alcoholism.95081

       (3)(6) "Community addiction services provider" means an 95082
agency, association, corporation, individual, or program that 95083
provides community alcohol, drug addiction, or gambling addiction 95084
services that are certified by the department of mental health and 95085
addiction services under section 5119.36 of the Revised Code.95086

        (7) "Community mental health services provider" means an 95087
agency, association, corporation, individual, or program that 95088
provides community mental health services that are certified by 95089
the department of mental health and addiction services under 95090
section 5119.36 of the Revised Code.95091

       (8) "Drug addiction" means the use of a drug of abuse, as 95092
defined in section 3719.011 of the Revised Code, by an individual 95093
to the extent that the individual becomes physically or 95094
psychologically dependent on the drug or endangers the health, 95095
safety, or welfare of the individual or others.95096

       (4) "Alcohol and drug addiction services" means services, 95097
including intervention, for the treatment of alcoholics or persons 95098
who abuse drugs of abuse and for the prevention of alcoholism and 95099
drug addiction.95100

       (5) "Alcohol and drug addiction program" means a program that 95101
provides alcohol or drug addiction services and includes a 95102
facility or entity that operates such a program.95103

       (6)(9) "Gambling addiction" means the use of gambling by an 95104
individual to the extent that it causes psychological, financial, 95105
emotional, marital, legal, or other difficulties endangering the 95106
health, safety, or welfare of the individual or others.95107

        (7)(10) "Gambling addiction services" means services for the 95108
treatment of persons who have a gambling addiction and for the 95109
prevention of gambling addiction.95110

       (11) "Hospital" means a hospital or inpatient unit licensed 95111
by the department of mental health and addiction services under 95112
section 5119.33 of the Revised Code, and any institution, 95113
hospital, or other place established, controlled, or supervised by 95114
the department under Chapter 5119. of the Revised Code.95115

        (12) "Mental illness" means a substantial disorder of 95116
thought, mood, perception, orientation, or memory that grossly 95117
impairs judgment, behavior, capacity to recognize reality, or 95118
ability to meet the ordinary demands of life.95119

        (13) "Mental health services" means services for the 95120
assessment, care, or treatment of persons who have a mental 95121
illness as defined in this section.95122

        (14)(a) "Residence" means a person's physical presence in a 95123
county with intent to remain there, except in either of the 95124
following circumstances:95125

        (i) If a person is receiving a mental health service at a 95126
facility that includes nighttime sleeping accommodations, 95127
"residence" means that county in which the person maintained the 95128
person's primary place of residence at the time the person entered 95129
the facility;95130

        (ii) If a person is committed pursuant to section 2945.38, 95131
2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code, 95132
"residence" means the county where the criminal charges were 95133
filed.95134

        (b) When the residence of a person is disputed, the matter of 95135
residence shall be referred to the department of mental health and 95136
addiction services for investigation and determination. Residence 95137
shall not be a basis for a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 95138
mental health services to deny services to any person present in 95139
the board's service district, and the board shall provide services 95140
for a person whose residence is in dispute while residence is 95141
being determined and for a person in an emergency situation.95142

       (B) Any reference in this chapter to a board of alcohol, drug 95143
addiction, and mental health services also refers to an alcohol 95144
and drug addiction services board or a community mental health 95145
board in a service district in which an alcohol and drug addiction 95146
services board or a community mental health board has been 95147
established under section 340.021 or former section 340.02 of the 95148
Revised Code.95149

       Sec. 5119.04.  The department of mental healthmental health 95150
and addiction services and any institutions under its supervision 95151
or jurisdiction shall, where applicable, be in substantial 95152
compliance with standards set forth for psychiatric facilities by 95153
the joint commission on accreditation of healthcare organizations95154
or medical assistance standards under Title XIX of the "Social 95155
Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 301, as amended, or 95156
other applicable standards, except that the department and any 95157
institution under its supervision or jurisdiction shall be in 95158
substantial compliance with standards for physical facilities and 95159
equipment by July 1, 1989. The requirements of this section do not 95160
apply to any facility designated by the director of mental health 95161
for use as a psychiatric rehabilitation center.95162

       The requirements of this section are in addition to any other 95163
requirements established by the Revised Code and nothing in this 95164
section shall be construed to limit any rights, privileges, 95165
protections, or immunities which may exist under the constitution 95166
and laws of the United States or this state.95167

       Sec. 5119.27.        Sec. 5119.05.  Subject to the rules of the director 95168
of mental healthmental health and addiction services, each 95169
institution under the jurisdiction of the department shall be 95170
under the management and control of a managing officer to be known 95171
as a superintendentchief executive officer or by another 95172
appropriate title. Such managing officer shall be appointed by the 95173
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services, 95174
and shall be in the unclassified service and serve at the pleasure 95175
of the director. Each managing officer shall be of good moral 95176
character and have skill, ability, and experience in histhe 95177
managing officer's profession. Appointment to this position may be 95178
made from persons holding positions in the classified service in 95179
the department.95180

       The managing officer, under the director, shall have entire 95181
executive chargeserve as the appointing authority of the 95182
institution forto which such managing officer is appointed. 95183
Subject to civil service rules, the managing officer shall have 95184
the power to appoint the necessaryand remove employees and he or 95185
the director may remove such employees for causeof the 95186
institution. On behalf of the institution, the managing officer 95187
has the authority and responsibility for entering into contracts 95188
and other agreements for the efficient operations of the 95189
institution.95190

       Sec. 5119.44.        Sec. 5119.051.  The department of mental health95191
mental health and addiction services shall keep in its office a 95192
proper and complete set of books and accounts with each 95193
institution, which shall clearly show the nature and amount of 95194
every expenditure authorized and made at such institution, and 95195
which shall contain an account of all appropriations made by the 95196
general assembly and of all other funds, together with the 95197
disposition of such funds.95198

       The department shall prescribe the form of vouchers, records, 95199
and methods of keeping accounts at each of the institutions, which 95200
shall be as nearly uniform as possible. The department may examine 95201
the records of each institution at any time.95202

       The department may authorize any of its bookeepers95203
bookkeepers, accountants, or employees to examine and check the 95204
records, accounts, and vouchers or take an inventory of the 95205
property of any institution, or do whatever is necessary, and pay 95206
the actual and reasonable expenses incurred in such service when 95207
an itemized account is filed and approved.95208

       Sec. 5119.43.        Sec. 5119.06.  The department of mental healthmental 95209
health and addiction services shall keep in its office, accessible 95210
only to its employees, except by the consent of the department or 95211
the order of the judge of a court of record, a record showing the 95212
name, residence, sex, age, nativity, occupation, condition, and 95213
date of entrance or commitment of every patient in the 95214
institutions governed by it, the date, cause, and terms of 95215
discharge and the condition of such person at the time of leaving, 95216
and also a record of all transfers from one institution to 95217
another, and, if such person dies while in the care or custody of 95218
the department, the date and cause of death. These and such other 95219
facts as the department requires shall be furnished by the 95220
managing officer of each institution within twenty-four hours 95221
after the commitment, entrance, death, or discharge of a patient.95222

       In case of an accident or injury or peculiar death of a 95223
patient the managing officer shall make a special report to the 95224
department within twenty-four hours thereafter, giving the 95225
circumstances as fully as possible.95226

       Sec. 5119.42.        Sec. 5119.07.  A person, firm, or corporation may 95227
file a petition in the court of common pleas of the county in 95228
which a benevolent institution of the department of mental health 95229
and addiction services is located, in which petition the desire to 95230
erect or carry on at a less distance than that prescribed in 95231
section 3767.19 of the Revised Code shall be set forth, the 95232
business prohibited, the precise point of its establishment, and 95233
the reasons and circumstances, in its opinion, why the erection or 95234
carrying on thereofof the business would not annoy or endanger 95235
the health, convenience, or recovery of the patients of such 95236
institution. The petitioner shall give notice in a newspaper of 95237
general circulation in the county of the pendency and prayer of 95238
the petition for at least six consecutive weeks before the day set 95239
for hearing the petition and serve a written notice upon the 95240
superintendentmanaging officer of the institution at least thirty 95241
days before the day set for hearing the petition.95242

       If, upon the hearing of the petition, it appears that the 95243
notice has been given as required and the court is of the opinion 95244
that no good reason exists why such establishment may not be 95245
erected or such business carried on and that by the erection or 95246
carrying on thereofof the business at the point named, the 95247
institution will sustain no detriment, the court may issue an 95248
order granting the prayer of the petitioner. Thereafter the 95249
petitioner may locate such establishment or carry on such business 95250
at the point named in the petition.95251

       Sec. 5119.14.        Sec. 5119.08.  (A) As used in this section, "felony" 95252
has the same meaning as in section 109.511 of the Revised Code.95253

       (B)(1) Subject to division (C) of this section, upon the 95254
recommendation of the director of mental healthmental health and 95255
addiction services, the managing officer of an institution under 95256
the jurisdiction of the department of mental healthmental health 95257
and addiction services may designate one or more employees to be 95258
special police officers of the department. The special police 95259
officers shall take an oath of office, wear the badge of office, 95260
and give bond for the proper and faithful discharge of their 95261
duties in an amount that the director requires.95262

       (2) In accordance with section 109.77 of the Revised Code, 95263
the special police officers shall be required to complete 95264
successfully a peace officer basic training program approved by 95265
the Ohio peace officer training commission and to be certified by 95266
the commission. The cost of the training shall be paid by the 95267
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services.95268

       (3) Special police officers, on the premises of institutions 95269
under the jurisdiction of the department of mental healthmental 95270
health and addiction services and subject to the rules of the 95271
department, shall protect the property of the institutions and the 95272
persons and property of patients in the institutions, suppress 95273
riots, disturbances, and breaches of the peace, and enforce the 95274
laws of the state and the rules of the department for the 95275
preservation of good order. They may arrest any person without a 95276
warrant and detain the person until a warrant can be obtained 95277
under the circumstances described in division (F) of section 95278
2935.03 of the Revised Code.95279

       (C)(1) The managing officer of an institution under the 95280
jurisdiction of the department of mental healthmental health and 95281
addiction services shall not designate an employee as a special 95282
police officer of the department pursuant to division (B)(1) of 95283
this section on a permanent basis, on a temporary basis, for a 95284
probationary term, or on other than a permanent basis if the 95285
employee previously has been convicted of or has pleaded guilty to 95286
a felony.95287

       (2)(a) The managing officer of an institution under the 95288
jurisdiction of the department of mental healthmental health and 95289
addiction services shall terminate the employment as a special 95290
police officer of the department of an employee designated as a 95291
special police officer under division (B)(1) of this section if 95292
that employee does either of the following:95293

       (i) Pleads guilty to a felony;95294

       (ii) Pleads guilty to a misdemeanor pursuant to a negotiated 95295
plea agreement as provided in division (D) of section 2929.43 of 95296
the Revised Code in which the employee agrees to surrender the 95297
certificate awarded to that employee under section 109.77 of the 95298
Revised Code.95299

       (b) The managing officer shall suspend from employment as a 95300
special police officer of the department an employee designated as 95301
a special police officer under division (B)(1) of this section if 95302
that employee is convicted, after trial, of a felony. If the 95303
special police officer files an appeal from that conviction and 95304
the conviction is upheld by the highest court to which the appeal 95305
is taken or if the special police officer does not file a timely 95306
appeal, the managing officer shall terminate the employment of 95307
that special police officer. If the special police officer files 95308
an appeal that results in that special police officer's acquittal 95309
of the felony or conviction of a misdemeanor, or in the dismissal 95310
of the felony charge against that special police officer, the 95311
managing officer shall reinstate that special police officer. A 95312
special police officer of the department who is reinstated under 95313
division (C)(2)(b) of this section shall not receive any back pay 95314
unless that special police officer's conviction of the felony was 95315
reversed on appeal, or the felony charge was dismissed, because 95316
the court found insufficient evidence to convict the special 95317
police officer of the felony.95318

       (3) Division (C) of this section does not apply regarding an 95319
offense that was committed prior to January 1, 1997.95320

       (4) The suspension from employment, or the termination of the 95321
employment, of a special police officer under division (C)(2) of 95322
this section shall be in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 95323
Revised Codeapplicable collective bargaining agreements.95324

       Sec. 5119.30.        Sec. 5119.09.  The attorney general shall attend to 95325
all suitsclaims instituted on behalf of or against the department 95326
of mental health and addiction services or any institution under 95327
the jurisdiction of the department of mental health and the 95328
managing officer thereof, except such institutions as are 95329
privately owned or operated under a license from the department of 95330
mental healthmental health and addiction services, and shall 95331
represent the public hospital in proceedings under section 5122.15 95332
of the Revised Code. The department of mental healthmental health 95333
and addiction services shall reimburse the attorney general for 95334
the compensation of assistant attorneys general required to 95335
represent the public hospital in proceedings under section 5122.15 95336
of the Revised code and shall also pay the costs of litigation 95337
incurred by the attorney general under that section.95338

       If a writ of habeas corpus is applied for, the clerk of the 95339
court shall give notice of the time and place of hearing to the 95340
attorney general.95341

       Sec. 5119.01.        Sec. 5119.10. (A) The director of mental health95342
mental health and addiction services is the chief executive and 95343
administrative officerappointing authority of the department of 95344
mental healthmental health and addiction services. The director 95345
may organize the department for its efficient operation, including 95346
creating divisions or offices as necessary. The director may 95347
establish procedures for the governance of the department, conduct 95348
of its employees and officers, performance of its business, and 95349
custody, use, and preservation of departmental records, papers, 95350
books, documents, and property. Whenever the Revised Code imposes 95351
a duty upon or requires an action of the department or any of its 95352
institutions, the director or the director's designee shall 95353
perform the action or duty in the name of the department, except 95354
that the medical director appointed pursuant to section 5119.0795355
5119.11 of the Revised Code shall be responsible for decisions 95356
relating to medical diagnosis, treatment, rehabilitation, quality 95357
assurance, and the clinical aspects of the following: licensure of 95358
hospitals and residential facilities, research, community 95359
addiction and mental health services plans, and certification and95360
delivery of mental health and addiction services.95361

       (B) The director shall:95362

       (A)(1) Adopt rules for the proper execution of the powers and 95363
duties of the department with respect to the institutions under 95364
its control, and require the performance of additional duties by 95365
the officers of the institutions as necessary to fully meet the 95366
requirements, intents, and purposes of this chapter. In case of an 95367
apparent conflict between the powers conferred upon any managing 95368
officer and those conferred by such sections upon the department, 95369
the presumption shall be conclusive in favor of the department.95370

       (B)(2) Adopt rules for the nonpartisan management of the 95371
institutions under the department's control. An officer or 95372
employee of the department or any officer or employee of any 95373
institution under its control who, by solicitation or otherwise, 95374
exerts influence directly or indirectly to induce any other 95375
officer or employee of the department or any of its institutions 95376
to adopt the exerting officer's or employee's political views or 95377
to favor any particular person, issue, or candidate for office 95378
shall be removed from the exerting officer's or employee's office 95379
or position, by the department in case of an officer or employee, 95380
and by the governor in case of the director.95381

       (C)(3) Appoint such employees, including the medical 95382
director, as are necessary for the efficient conduct of the 95383
department, and prescribe their titles and duties;95384

       (D)(4) Prescribe the forms of affidavits, applications, 95385
medical certificates, orders of hospitalization and release, and 95386
all other forms, reports, and records that are required in the 95387
hospitalization or admission and release of all persons to the 95388
institutions under the control of the department, or are otherwise 95389
required under this chapter or Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code;95390

       (E) Contract with hospitals licensed by the department under 95391
section 5119.20 of the Revised Code for the care and treatment of 95392
mentally ill patients, or with persons, organizations, or agencies 95393
for the custody, evaluation, supervision, care, or treatment of 95394
mentally ill persons receiving services elsewhere than within the 95395
enclosure of a hospital operated under section 5119.02 of the 95396
Revised Code;95397

       (F)(5) Exercise the powers and perform the duties relating to 95398
community addiction and mental health facilities and services that 95399
are assigned to the director under this chapter and Chapter 340. 95400
of the Revised Code;95401

       (G)(6) Develop and implement clinical evaluation and 95402
monitoring of services that are operated by the department;95403

       (H)(7) Adopt rules establishing standards for the performance 95404
of evaluations by a forensic center or other psychiatric program 95405
or facility of the mental condition of defendants ordered by the 95406
court under section 2919.271, or 2945.371 of the Revised Code, and 95407
for the treatment of defendants who have been found incompetent to 95408
stand trial and ordered by the court under section 2945.38, 95409
2945.39, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code to receive 95410
treatment in facilities;95411

       (I)(8) On behalf of the department, have the authority and 95412
responsibility for entering into contracts and other agreements;95413
with providers, agencies, institutions, and other entities, both 95414
public and private, as necessary for the department to carry out 95415
its duties under this chapter and Chapters 340., 2919., 2945., and 95416
5122. of the Revised Code. Chapter 125. of the Revised Code does 95417
not apply to contracts the director enters into under this section 95418
for services provided to individuals with mental illness by 95419
providers, agencies, institutions, and other entities not owned or 95420
operated by the department.95421

       (J) Prepare and publish regularly a state mental health plan 95422
that describes the department's philosophy, current activities, 95423
and long-term and short-term goals and activities;95424

       (K)(9) Adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 95425
Revised Code specifying the supplemental services that may be 95426
provided through a trust authorized by section 5815.28 of the 95427
Revised Code;95428

       (L)(10) Adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 95429
Revised Code establishing standards for the maintenance and 95430
distribution to a beneficiary of assets of a trust authorized by 95431
section 5815.28 of the Revised Code.95432

       (C) The director may contract with hospitals licensed by the 95433
department under section 5119.33 of the Revised Code for the care 95434
and treatment of mentally ill patients, or with persons, 95435
organizations, or agencies for the custody, evaluation, 95436
supervision, care, or treatment of mentally ill persons receiving 95437
services elsewhere than within the enclosure of a hospital 95438
operated under section 5119.14 of the Revised Code.95439

       Sec. 5119.07.        Sec. 5119.11. (A) The director of mental health95440
mental health and addiction services shall appoint a medical 95441
director who is a psychiatrist as defined in division (E) of 95442
section 5122.01 of the Revised Code, is eligible or certified by 95443
the American board of psychiatry and neurology or the American 95444
osteopathic board of neurology and psychiatry, and has at least 95445
five years of clinical and two years of administrative experience. 95446
The medical director shall also have certification or substantial 95447
training and experience in the field of addiction medicine or 95448
addiction psychiatry. The medical director shall be responsible 95449
for decisions relating to medical diagnosis, treatment, 95450
prevention, rehabilitation, quality assurance, and the clinical 95451
aspects of mental health and addiction services involving all of95452
the following: licensure95453

       (1) Licensure of hospitals and, residential facilities, 95454
research, community mental healthand outpatient facilities;95455

       (2) Research;95456

       (3) Community addiction and mental health services plans,;95457

       (4) Certification and delivery of mental health and addiction95458
services. The95459

       (B) The medical director shall also exercise clinical 95460
supervision of the chief clinical officers of hospitals and 95461
institutions under the jurisdiction of the department and shall 95462
review and approve decisions relating to the employment of the 95463
chief clinical officers. The medical director or histhe medical 95464
director's designee shall advise the director on matters relating 95465
to licensure, research, community mental health plans, and the 95466
certification and delivery of mental health and addiction services 95467
and community plans. The medical director shall participate in the 95468
development of guidelines for community addiction and mental 95469
health services plans. The director of mental healthmental 95470
health and addiction services may establish other duties of the 95471
medical director. The medical director shall participate in the 95472
development of guidelines for community mental health plans.95473

       Sec. 5119.02.        Sec. 5119.14.  (A) The department of mental health95474
mental health and addiction services shall maintain, operate, 95475
manage, and govern state institutions and other services for the 95476
care and treatment of mentally ill persons.95477

       (B)(1) The department of mental healthmental health and 95478
addiction services may, with the approval of the governor,95479
designate allthe name and purpose of any institutions under its 95480
jurisdiction by appropriate respective names, regardless of 95481
present statutory designationand may change, with the approval of 95482
the governor, the designation and name when necessary.95483

       (C)(2) The department shall divide the state into districts 95484
for the purpose of designating the institution in which mentally 95485
ill persons are hospitalized and may change the districts.95486

       (3) Subject to section 5139.08 and pursuant to Chapter 5122. 95487
of the Revised Code and on the agreement of the departments of 95488
mental healthmental health and addiction services and youth 95489
services, the department of mental healthmental health and 95490
addiction services may receive from the department of youth 95491
services for psychiatric observation, diagnosis, or treatment any 95492
person eighteen years of age or older in the custody of the 95493
department of youth services. The departments shallmay enter into 95494
a written agreement specifying the procedures necessary to 95495
implement this division.95496

       (D)(C) The department of mental healthmental health and 95497
addiction services shall designate hospitals, facilities, and 95498
community mental health agenciesservices providers for the 95499
custody, care, and special treatment of, and authorize payment for 95500
such custody, care, and special treatment provided to, persons who 95501
are charged with a crime and who are found incompetent to stand 95502
trial or not guilty by reason of insanity.95503

       (E)(D) The department of mental healthmental health and 95504
addiction services may do allany of the following:95505

       (1) Require reports from the managing officer of any 95506
institution under the department's jurisdiction, relating to the 95507
admission, examination, comprehensive evaluation, diagnosis, 95508
release, or discharge of any patient;95509

       (2) Visit each institution regularly to review its operations 95510
and to investigate complaints made by any patient or by any person 95511
on behalf of a patient, provided these duties may be performed by 95512
a person designated by the director.95513

       (F) The department of mental health shall divide the state 95514
into districts for the purpose of designating the institution in 95515
which mentally ill persons are hospitalized, and may change the 95516
districts.95517

       (G)(E) The department of mental health and addiction services 95518
may provide or contract to provide addiction services for 95519
offenders incarcerated in the state prison system. 95520

       (F) In addition to the powers expressly conferred, the 95521
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services95522
shall have all powers and authority necessary for the full and 95523
efficient exercise of the executive, administrative, and fiscal 95524
supervision over the state institutions described in this section.95525

       (H) The department of mental health may provide for the 95526
custody, supervision, control, treatment, and training of mentally 95527
ill persons hospitalized elsewhere than within the enclosure of a 95528
hospital, if the department so determines with respect to any 95529
individual or group of individuals. In all such cases, the 95530
department shall ensure adequate and proper supervision for the 95531
protection of such persons and of the public.95532

       Sec. 5119.012.        Sec. 5119.141.  The department of mental health95533
mental health and addiction services has all the authority 95534
necessary to carry out its powers and duties under this chapter 95535
and Chapters 340., 2919., 2945., and 5122. of the Revised Code, 95536
including the authority to adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of 95537
the Revised Code that may be necessary to carry out the purposes 95538
of this chapter and Chapters 340., 2919., 2945., and 5122. of the 95539
Revised Code.95540

       Sec. 5119.24.        Sec. 5119.15.  The department of mental healthmental 95541
health and addiction services may make such investigations as are 95542
necessary in the performance of its duties and to that end the 95543
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services95544
shall have the same power as a judge of a county court to 95545
administer oaths and to enforce the attendance and testimony of 95546
witnesses and the production of books or papers.95547

       The department shall keep a record of such investigations 95548
stating the time, place, charges or subject, witnesses summoned 95549
and examined, and its conclusions.95550

       In matters involving the conduct of an officer, a 95551
stenographic report of the evidence shall be taken and a copy of 95552
such report, with all documents introduced, kept on file at the 95553
office of the department.95554

       The fees of witnesses for attendance and travel shall be the 95555
same as in the court of common pleas, but no officer or employee 95556
of the institution under investigation is entitled to such fees.95557

       Any judge of the probate court or of the court of common 95558
pleas, upon application of the department, may compel the 95559
attendance of witnesses, the production of books or papers, and 95560
the giving of testimony before the department, by a judgment for 95561
contempt or otherwise, in the same manner as in cases before such 95562
courts.95563

       The department of mental healthmental health and addiction 95564
services may appoint and commission any competent agency or 95565
person, to serve without compensation, as a special agent, 95566
investigator, or representative to perform a designated duty for 95567
the department. Specific credentials shall be given by the 95568
department to each person so designated. Each credential shall 95569
state the:95570

       (A) Name of the agent, investigator, or representative;95571

       (B) Agency with which such person is connected;95572

       (C) Purpose of appointment;95573

       (D) Date of expiration of appointment;95574

       (E) Such information as the department considers proper.95575

       Sec. 3793.051.        Sec. 5119.161.  The department of alcohol and drug 95576
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services, in 95577
conjunction with the department of job and family services, shall 95578
develop a joint state plan to improve the accessibility and 95579
timeliness of alcohol and drug addiction services for individuals 95580
identified by a public children services agency as in need of 95581
those services. The plan shall address the fact that Ohio works 95582
first participants may be among the persons receiving services 95583
under section 340.15 of the Revised Code and shall require the 95584
department of job and family services to seek federal funds 95585
available under Title IV-A of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 95586
620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, for the provision of the 95587
services to Ohio works first participants who are receiving 95588
services under section 340.15 of the Revised Code.95589

       The plan shall address the need and manner for sharing 95590
information and include a request for the general assembly to 95591
appropriate an amount of funds specified in the report to be used 95592
by the departments to pay for services under section 340.15 of the 95593
Revised Code. The departments shall review and amend the plan as 95594
necessary.95595

       Not later than the first day of July of each even-numbered 95596
year, the departments shall submit a report on the progress made 95597
under the joint state plan to the governor, president of the 95598
senate, and speaker of the house of representatives. The report 95599
shall include information on treatment capacity, needs 95600
assessments, and number of individuals who received services 95601
pursuant to section 340.15 of the Revised Code.95602

       Sec. 3793.15.        Sec. 5119.17.  (A) The department of alcohol and drug 95603
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services, in 95604
accordance with division (B) of this section, shall give priority 95605
to developing, and promptly shall develop, with available public 95606
and private resources a program that does all of the following:95607

       (1) Provides a manner of identifying the aggregate number of 95608
pregnant women in this state who are addicted to a drug of abuse;95609

       (2) Provides for an effective means of intervention to 95610
eliminate the addiction of pregnant women to drugs of abuse prior 95611
to the birth of their children;95612

       (3) Provides for the continued monitoring of women who were 95613
addicted to a drug of abuse during their pregnancies, after the 95614
birth of their children, and for the availability of treatment and 95615
rehabilitation for those women;95616

       (4) Provides a manner of determining the aggregate number of 95617
children who are born in this state to women who are addicted, at 95618
the time of birth, to a drug of abuse, and of children who are 95619
born in this state with an addiction to or a dependency on a drug 95620
of abuse;95621

       (5) Provides for the continued monitoring of children who are 95622
born in this state to women who are addicted, at the time of 95623
birth, to a drug of abuse, or who are born in this state with an 95624
addiction to or dependency on a drug of abuse, after their birth;95625

       (6) Provides for the treatment and rehabilitation of any 95626
child who is born to a woman who is addicted, at the time of 95627
birth, to a drug of abuse, and of any child who is born with an 95628
addiction to or dependency on a drug of abuse.95629

       (B) In developing the program described in division (A) of 95630
this section, the department may obtain information from the 95631
department of health and the department of job and family 95632
services, and those departments shall cooperate with the 95633
department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health 95634
and addiction services in its development and implementation of 95635
the program.95636

       (C) Immediately upon its development of the program described 95637
in division (A) of this section, the department shall implement 95638
the program.95639

       (D) Any record or information that is obtained or maintained 95640
by the department in connection with the program described in 95641
division (A) of this section and could enable the identification 95642
of any woman or child described in division (A)(1) or (4) of this 95643
section is not a public record subject to inspection or copying 95644
under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.95645

       Sec. 5119.071.        Sec. 5119.18.  An appointing authority may appoint a 95646
person who holds a certified or permanent position in the 95647
classified service within the department of mental healthmental 95648
health and addiction services to a position in the unclassified 95649
service within the department. A person appointed pursuant to this 95650
section to a position in the unclassified service shall retain the 95651
right to resume the position and status held by the person in the 95652
classified service immediately prior to the person's appointment 95653
to the position in the unclassified service, regardless of the 95654
number of positions the person held in the unclassified service. 95655
An employee's right to resume a position in the classified service 95656
may only be exercised when an appointing authority demotes the 95657
employee to a pay range lower than the employee's current pay 95658
range or revokes the employee's appointment to the unclassified 95659
service. An employee forfeits the right to resume a position in 95660
the classified service when the employee is removed from the 95661
position in the unclassified service due to incompetence, 95662
inefficiency, dishonesty, drunkenness, immoral conduct, 95663
insubordination, discourteous treatment of the public, neglect of 95664
duty, violation of this chapter or Chapter 124. of the Revised 95665
Code, violation of the rules of the director of administrative 95666
services or the director of mental health, any other failure of 95667
good behavior, any other acts of misfeasance, malfeasance, or 95668
nonfeasance in office, or conviction of a felony. An employee also 95669
forfeits the right to resume a position in the classified service 95670
upon transfer to a different agency.95671

       Reinstatement to a position in the classified service shall 95672
be to a position substantially equal to that position in the 95673
classified service held previously, as certified by the director 95674
of administrative services. If the position the person previously 95675
held in the classified service has been placed in the unclassified 95676
service or is otherwise unavailable, the person shall be appointed 95677
to a position in the classified service within the department that 95678
the director of administrative services certifies is comparable in 95679
compensation to the position the person previously held in the 95680
classified service. Service in the position in the unclassified 95681
service shall be counted as service in the position in the 95682
classified service held by the person immediately prior to the 95683
person's appointment to the position in the unclassified service. 95684
When a person is reinstated to a position in the classified 95685
service as provided in this section, the person is entitled to all 95686
rights, status, and benefits accruing to the position in the 95687
classified service during the person's time of service in the 95688
position in the unclassified servicepursuant to division (D) of 95689
section 124.11 of the Revised Code.95690

       Sec. 5119.072.        Sec. 5119.181.  (A) No appointing officer shall 95691
appoint a person to fill a position in either the classified or 95692
unclassified service of the department of mental healthmental 95693
health and addiction services if the person has been convicted of 95694
or pleaded guilty to a violation of the following:95695

       (1) Any felony contained in the Revised Code, if the felony 95696
bears a direct and substantial relationship to the position being 95697
filled;95698

       (2) Any crime contained in the Revised Code constituting a 95699
misdemeanor of the first degree on the first offense and a felony 95700
on subsequent offenses, if the crime bears a direct and 95701
substantial relationship to the position being filled;95702

       (3) An existing or former law of this state, any other state, 95703
or the United States, if the law violated is substantially 95704
equivalent to any of the offenses described in division (A)(1) or 95705
(2) of this section.95706

       (B) The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 95707
services shall adopt rules, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 95708
Revised Code, to implement this section.95709

       (C) The director or an appointing officer shall request the 95710
bureau of criminal identification and investigation created by 95711
section 109.51 of the Revised Code or, at histhe director's or 95712
appointing officer's discretion, any other state or federal 95713
agency, to supply himthe director or appointing officer with a 95714
written report regarding the criminal records of any applicant. 95715
For each investigation undertaken at the department's request 95716
under this section, the department shall pay a reasonable fee to 95717
the bureau or other state or federal agency conducting the 95718
investigation. The amount of the fee shall be determined by the 95719
bureau or other state or federal agency conducting the 95720
investigation and shall be sufficient to cover the costs of 95721
conducting the investigation. The report made by the bureau or 95722
other state or federal agency is not a public record for purposes 95723
of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not be made 95724
available to any person, except the applicant, the director, the 95725
appointing officer or his designeethe appointing officer's 95726
designees, or any hearing officer involved in a case denying 95727
employment.95728

       (D) As used in this section, "applicant" means a person who 95729
is under final consideration for appointment to a position in the 95730
classified or unclassified service of the department of mental 95731
healthmental health and addiction services.95732

       Sec. 5119.08.        Sec. 5119.182.  The department of mental health shall95733
mental health and addiction services may require any of its 95734
employees and each officer and employee of every institution under 95735
its control who may be charged with custody or control of any 95736
money or property belonging to the state or who is required to 95737
give bond, to give a surety company bond, properly conditioned, in 95738
a sum to be fixed by the department which when approved by the 95739
department, shall be filed in the office of the secretary of 95740
state. The cost of such bonds, when approved by the department, 95741
shall be paid from funds available for the department. The bonds 95742
required or authorized by this section may, in the discretion of 95743
the director of mental healthmental health and addiction 95744
services, be individual, schedule, or blanket bonds.95745

       Sec. 5119.10.        Sec. 5119.184.  The department of mental health95746
mental health and addiction services may provide educational 95747
grants or tuition reimbursements to upgrade the education, 95748
training, and professional achievement of its employees, whenever 95749
it determines that provision of such grants or reimbursements is 95750
essential to the achievement of its goals. The department may 95751
enter into agreements with its employees for the purposes of this 95752
section. The agreements may require, as a condition of each grant 95753
or reimbursement, that the employee continue employment with the 95754
department or with another federal, state, or local public agency 95755
designated by the department for a period of time stated in the 95756
agreement. If an employee does not fulfill the employment 95757
requirement stated in the agreement, the department may take 95758
action to recover the amount of all educational grants or tuition 95759
reimbursements paid to the employee under this section, plus 95760
interest at the rate of ten per cent per year calculated from the 95761
date of payment of each grant or reimbursement.95762

       Sec. 5119.101.        Sec. 5119.185.  (A) As used in this section, 95763
"physician" means an individual authorized under Chapter 4731. of 95764
the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or osteopathic 95765
medicine and surgery.95766

       (B) The department of mental healthmental health and 95767
addiction services may establish a physician recruitment program 95768
under which the department agrees to repay all or part of the 95769
principal and interest of a government or other educational loan 95770
incurred by a physician who agrees to provide services to 95771
inpatients and outpatients of institutions under the department's 95772
administration. To be eligible to participate in the program, a 95773
physician must have attended a school that was, at the time of 95774
attendance, a medical school or osteopathic medical school in this 95775
country accredited by the liason committee on medical education or 95776
the American osteopathic association, or a medical school or 95777
osteopathic medical school located outside this country that was 95778
acknowledged by the world health organization and verified by a 95779
member state of that organization as operating within that state's 95780
jurisdiction.95781

       (C) The department shall enter into a contract with each 95782
physician it recruits under this section. Each contract shall 95783
include at least the following terms:95784

       (1) The physician agrees to provide a specified scope of 95785
medical or osteopathic medical services for a specified number of 95786
hours per week and a specified number of years to patients of one 95787
or more specified institutions administered by the department.95788

       (2) The department agrees to repay all or a specified portion 95789
of the principal and interest of a government or other educational 95790
loan taken by the physician for the following expenses if the 95791
physician meets the service obligation agreed to and the expenses 95792
were incurred while the physician was enrolled in, for up to a 95793
maximum of four years, a school that qualifies the physician to 95794
participate in the program:95795

       (a) Tuition;95796

       (b) Other educational expenses for specific purposes, 95797
including fees, books, and laboratory expenses, in amounts 95798
determined to be reasonable in accordance with rules adopted under 95799
division (D) of this section;95800

       (c) Room and board, in an amount determined to be reasonable 95801
in accordance with rules adopted under division (D) of this 95802
section.95803

       (3) The physician agrees to pay the department a specified 95804
amount, which shall be not less than the amount already paid by 95805
the department pursuant to its agreement, as damages if hethe 95806
physician fails to complete the service obligation agreed to or 95807
fails to comply with other specified terms of the contract. The 95808
contract may vary the amount of damages based on the portion of 95809
the physician's service obligation that remains uncompleted as 95810
determined by the department.95811

       (4) Other terms agreed upon by the parties.95812

       (D) If the department elects to implement the physician 95813
recruitment program, it shall adopt rules in accordance with 95814
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that establish all of the 95815
following:95816

       (1) Criteria for designating institutions for which 95817
physicians will be recruited;95818

       (2) Criteria for selecting physicians for participation in 95819
the program;95820

       (3) Criteria for determining the portion of a physician's 95821
loan that the department will agree to repay;95822

       (4) Criteria for determining reasonable amounts of the 95823
expenses described in divisions (C)(2)(b) and (c) of this section;95824

       (5) Procedures for monitoring compliance by physicians with 95825
the terms of their contracts;95826

       (6) Any other criteria or procedures necessary to implement 95827
the program.95828

       Sec. 5119.11.        Sec. 5119.186.  (A) The director of mental health95829
mental health and addiction services or the managing officer of an 95830
institution of the department may enter into an agreement with 95831
boards of trustees or boards of directors of one or more 95832
institutions of higher education or hospitals licensed pursuant to 95833
section 5119.205119.33 of the Revised Code to establish, manage, 95834
and conduct collaborative training efforts for students enrolled 95835
in courses of studies for occupations or professions which may be 95836
determined by the director upon the approval of the medical 95837
director to be in occupations or professions needed to provide 95838
adequatethat involve the care and treatment for persons receiving 95839
mental health or addiction services.95840

       (B) Such collaborative training efforts may include but are 95841
not limited to programs in psychiatry, psychology, nursing, social 95842
work, counseling professions, and others considered appropriate by 95843
the director of mental healthmental health and addiction 95844
services. Any such program shall be approved or accredited by its 95845
respective professional organization or state board having 95846
jurisdiction over the profession.95847

       (1) The department shall require that the following be 95848
provided for in agreements between the department and institutions 95849
of higher education or hospitals licensed pursuant to section 95850
5119.205119.33 of the Revised Code:95851

       (a) Establishment of inter-disciplinary committees to advise 95852
persons responsible for training programs. Each committee shall 95853
have representation drawn from the geographical community the 95854
institution of higher education or hospital serves and shall 95855
include representatives of agencies, boards, targeted populations 95856
as determined by the department, racial and ethnic minority 95857
groups, and publicly funded programs;95858

       (b) Funding procedures;95859

       (c) Specific outcomes and accomplishments that are expected 95860
or required of a program under such agreement;95861

       (d) The types of services to be provided under such 95862
agreement.95863

       (2) The department may require that the following be provided 95864
for in agreements between the department and institutions of 95865
higher education or hospitals licensed pursuant to section 5119.2095866
5119.33 of the Revised Code:95867

       (a) Special arrangements for individual residents or trainees 95868
to encourage their employment in publicly funded settings upon 95869
completion of their training;95870

       (b) Procedures for the selection of residents or trainees to 95871
promote the admission, retention, and graduation of women, 95872
minorities, and handicappeddisabled persons;95873

       (c) Cross-cultural training and other subjects considered 95874
necessary to enhance training efforts and the care and treatment 95875
of patients and clients;95876

       (d) Funding of faculty positions oriented toward meeting the 95877
needs of publicly funded programs.95878

       Subject to appropriations by the general assembly, the 95879
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services has 95880
final approval of the funding of these collaborative training 95881
efforts.95882

       Sec. 5119.12.        Sec. 5119.187.  The courses of study for the 95883
instruction and training of all persons in institutions under the 95884
control of the department of mental healthmental health and 95885
addiction services shall be subject to the approval of the 95886
superintendent of public instruction.95887

       All teachers employed in institutions under the control of 95888
the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 95889
services shall possess such educator licenses or have such 95890
qualifications and approval as the superintendent of public 95891
instruction, after consulting with the officers in charge of the 95892
institutions, prescribes for the various types of service in the 95893
institutions.95894

       Sec. 3793.16.        Sec. 5119.188.  (A) As used in this section, "state 95895
correctional institution" has the same meaning as in section 95896
2967.01 of the Revised Code.95897

       (B) The department of alcohol and drug addiction services95898
mental health and addiction services shall develop a program that 95899
is designed to educate and train the employees of each state 95900
correctional institution, the employees of each department of 95901
youth services institution, and other persons associated by 95902
contract or otherwise with each state correctional institution or 95903
each department of youth services institution, who will be 95904
responsible for the conduct of, or otherwise providing treatment 95905
or rehabilitation services pursuant to, a substance abuse 95906
treatment or rehabilitation program offered in the institution to 95907
adult prisoners or juvenile offenders. Upon the development of the 95908
educational and training program, the department of alcohol and 95909
drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction services95910
promptly shall commence its implementation. The department of95911
alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction 95912
services may charge to the department of rehabilitation and 95913
correction and to the department of youth services a reasonable 95914
annual fee that reflects the expenses incurred by it during the 95915
immediately preceding calendar year in preparing and offering the 95916
educational and training program during that year to the 95917
respective employees and other associated persons described in 95918
this division.95919

       The director of rehabilitation and correction and the 95920
director of youth services shall require the respective employees 95921
and other associated persons described in this division to attend 95922
and successfully complete the educational and training program 95923
developed pursuant to this division as a condition of their 95924
continuing to have responsibility for the conduct of, or their 95925
continuing to provide treatment or rehabilitation services 95926
pursuant to, any treatment or rehabilitation program that is 95927
offered in a state correctional institution or in a department of 95928
youth services institution to adult prisoners or juvenile 95929
offenders. If the department of alcohol and drug addiction 95930
servicesmental health and addiction services charges a reasonable 95931
annual fee as described in this division, the director involved 95932
shall cause that fee to be paid from any available funds of the 95933
department of rehabilitation and correction or any available funds 95934
of the department of youth services.95935

       (C) The department of rehabilitation and correction and the 95936
department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health 95937
and addiction services jointly shall develop program 95938
specifications for the alcohol and drug addiction treatment 95939
programs offered in state correctional institutions.95940

       Sec. 3793.031.        Sec. 5119.201. (A) The director of alcohol and drug 95941
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services may 95942
acquire by purchase, lease, or otherwise such real and personal 95943
property rights in the name of the state as are necessary for the 95944
purposes of the department. The95945

       (B) When it is necessary for a state institution under the 95946
jurisdiction of the department to acquire any real estate, 95947
right-of-way, or easement in real estate in order to accomplish 95948
the purposes for which it was organized or is being conducted, and 95949
the department is unable to agree with the owner of such property 95950
upon the price to be paid for the property, such property may be 95951
appropriated in the manner provided for the appropriation of 95952
property for other state purposes.95953

       (C) The director, with the approval of the governor and the 95954
attorney general, may work with the department of administrative 95955
services to sell, lease, or exchange portions of real and personal 95956
property of the department when the sale, lease, or exchange is 95957
advantageous to the state. Money received from such sales, leases, 95958
or exchanges shall be credited to the general revenuethe 95959
department of mental health and addiction services trust fund, 95960
created in section 5119.46 of the Revised Code.95961

       (D) Any instrument by which real property is acquired 95962
pursuant to this section shall identify the agency of the state 95963
that has the use and benefit of the real property as specified in 95964
section 5301.012 of the Revised Code.95965

       Sec. 5119.06.        Sec. 5119.21. (A) The department of mental health95966
mental health and addiction services shall:95967

       (A)(1) To the extent the department has available resources 95968
and in consultation with boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 95969
mental health services, support a community support system95970
continuum of care in accordance with section 340.03Chapter 340.95971
of the Revised Code on a district or multi-district basis. The 95972
department shall define the essential elements of a community 95973
support systemcontinuum of care, shall assist in identifying 95974
resources, and may prioritize support for one or more of the 95975
elements.95976

       (B) Operate inpatient and other mental health services;95977

       (C)(2) Provide training, consultation, and technical 95978
assistance regarding mental health programs and addiction services 95979
and appropriate prevention, recovery, and mental health promotion 95980
activities, including those that are culturally sensitive95981
competent, to employees of the department, community mental health 95982
agencies and addiction services providers, boards of alcohol, drug 95983
addiction, and mental health services, and other agencies 95984
providing mental health and addiction services;95985

       (D)(3) To the extent the department has available resources, 95986
promote and support a full range of mental health and addiction95987
services that are available and accessible to all residents of 95988
this state, especially for severely mentally disabled children, 95989
adolescents, and adults, pregnant women, parents, guardians or 95990
custodians of children at risk of abuse or neglect, and other 95991
special target populations, including racial and ethnic 95992
minorities, as determined by the department;95993

       (E)(4) Develop standards and measures for evaluating the 95994
effectiveness of mental health and addiction services, including 95995
services that use methadone treatment, of gambling addiction 95996
services, and for increasing the accountability of mental health 95997
and alcohol and addiction services providers and of gambling 95998
addiction services providers;95999

       (5) Design and set criteria for the determination of severe 96000
mental disabilitypriority populations;96001

       (F) Establish standards for evaluation of mental health 96002
programs;96003

       (G)(6) Promote, direct, conduct, and coordinate scientific 96004
research, taking ethnic and racial differences into consideration, 96005
concerning the causes and prevention of mental illness and 96006
addiction, methods of providing effective services and treatment, 96007
and means of enhancing the mental health of and recovery from 96008
addiction of all residents of this state;96009

       (H)(7) Foster the establishment and availability of 96010
vocational rehabilitation services and the creation of employment 96011
opportunities for consumers of mental health and addiction96012
services, including members of racial and ethnic minorities;96013

       (I)(8) Establish a program to protect and promote the rights 96014
of persons receiving mental health and addiction services, 96015
including the issuance of guidelines on informed consent and other 96016
rights;96017

       (J) Establish, in consultation with board of alcohol, drug 96018
addiction, and mental health services representatives and after 96019
consideration of the recommendations of the medical director, 96020
guidelines for the development of community mental health plans 96021
and the review and approval or disapproval of such plans submitted 96022
pursuant to section 340.03 of the Revised Code;96023

       (K)(9) Promote the involvement of persons who are receiving 96024
or have received mental health or addiction services, including 96025
families and other persons having a close relationship to a person 96026
receiving mental healththose services, in the planning, 96027
evaluation, delivery, and operation of mental health and addiction96028
services;96029

       (L)(10) Notify and consult with the relevant constituencies 96030
that may be affected by rules, standards, and guidelines issued by 96031
the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 96032
services. These constituencies shall include consumers of mental 96033
health and addiction services and their families, and may include 96034
public and private providers, employee organizations, and others 96035
when appropriate. Whenever the department proposes the adoption, 96036
amendment, or rescission of rules under Chapter 119. of the 96037
Revised Code, the notification and consultation required by this 96038
division shall occur prior to the commencement of proceedings 96039
under Chapter 119. The department shall adopt rules under Chapter 96040
119. of the Revised Code that establish procedures for the 96041
notification and consultation required by this division.96042

       (M) In cooperation with board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 96043
mental health services representatives, provide training regarding 96044
the provision of community-based mental health services to those 96045
department employees who are utilized in state-operated, 96046
community-based mental health services;96047

       (N)(11) Provide consultation to the department of 96048
rehabilitation and correction concerning the delivery of mental 96049
health and addiction services in state correctional institutions.96050

       (12) Promote and coordinate efforts in the provision of 96051
alcohol and drug addiction services and of gambling addiction 96052
services by other state agencies, as defined in section 1.60 of 96053
the Revised Code; courts; hospitals; clinics; physicians in 96054
private practice; public health authorities; boards of alcohol, 96055
drug addiction, and mental health services; alcohol and drug 96056
addiction services providers; law enforcement agencies; gambling 96057
addiction services providers; and related groups;96058

       (13) Provide to each court of record, and biennially update, 96059
a list of the treatment and education programs within that court's 96060
jurisdiction that the court may require an offender, sentenced 96061
pursuant to section 4511.19 of the Revised Code, to attend;96062

       (14) Make the warning sign described in sections 3313.752, 96063
3345.41, and 3707.50 of the Revised Code available on the 96064
department's internet web site;96065

       (15) Provide a program of gambling addiction services on 96066
behalf of the state lottery commission, pursuant to an agreement 96067
entered into with the director of the commission under division 96068
(K) of section 3770.02 of the Revised Code, and provide a program 96069
of gambling addiction services on behalf of the Ohio casino 96070
control commission, under an agreement entered into with the 96071
executive director of the commission under section 3772.062 of the 96072
Revised Code. Under Section 6(C)(3) of Article XV, Ohio 96073
Constitution, the department may enter into agreements with boards 96074
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, including 96075
boards with districts in which a casino facility is not located, 96076
and nonprofit organizations to provide gambling addiction services 96077
and substance abuse services, and with state institutions of 96078
higher education or private nonprofit institutions that possess a 96079
certificate of authorization issued under Chapter 1713. of the 96080
Revised Code to perform related research.96081

       (B) The department may accept and administer grants from 96082
public or private sources for carrying out any of the duties 96083
enumerated in this section.96084

       (C) Pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 96085
department shall adopt a rule defining the term "intervention" as 96086
it is used in this chapter in connection with alcohol and drug 96087
addiction services and in connection with gambling addiction 96088
services. The department may adopt other rules as necessary to 96089
implement the requirements of this chapter.96090

       Sec. 5119.61.        Sec. 5119.22. Any provision in this chapter that 96091
refers to a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 96092
services also refers to the community mental health board in an 96093
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district that 96094
has a community mental health board.96095

       The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 96096
services with respect to all mental health and addiction96097
facilities and programsservices established and operated or 96098
provided under Chapter 340. of the Revised Code for mentally ill 96099
and emotionally disturbed persons, shall do all of the following:96100

       (A) Adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 96101
that may be necessary to carry out the purposes of Chapterthis 96102
chapter and Chapters 340. and sections 5119.61 to 5119.635122. of 96103
the Revised Code.96104

       (1) The rules shall include the following:96105

       (a) Rules governing a community mental health agency's 96106
services under section 340.091 of the Revised Code to an 96107
individual referred to the agency under division (D)(2) of section 96108
5119.69 of the Revised Code;96109

       (b) For the purpose of division (A)(16) of section 340.03 of 96110
the Revised Code, rules governing the duties of mental health 96111
agencies and boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 96112
services regarding referrals of individuals with mental illness or 96113
severe mental disability to residential facilities as defined in 96114
division (A)(9)(b) of section 5119.22 of the Revised Code and 96115
effective arrangements for ongoing mental health services for the 96116
individuals. .96117

       (2) Rules may be adopted to govern the method of paying a 96118
community mental health facility, as defined in section 5111.023 96119
of the Revised Code, for providing services listed in division (B) 96120
of that section. Such rules must be consistent with the contract 96121
entered into between the departments of job and family services 96122
and mental health under section 5111.91 of the Revised Code and 96123
include requirements ensuring appropriate service utilization. 96124

       (B) Review and evaluate, andthe continuum of care in each 96125
service district, taking into account the findings and 96126
recommendations of the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 96127
mental health services of the district served by the program96128
submitted under division (A)(4) of section 340.03 of the Revised 96129
Code and the requirements and priorities and plans of the state 96130
mental health plandepartment, including the needs of residents of 96131
the district now residing in state mental institutionscurrently 96132
receiving services in state-operated hospitals, and make 96133
recommendations for needed improvements to boards of alcohol, drug 96134
addiction, and mental health services;96135

       (C) Provide consultative services to community mental health 96136
agencies with the knowledge and cooperation of the board of 96137
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services;96138

       (D) At the director's discretion, provide to boards of 96139
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services state or 96140
federal funds, in addition to those allocated under section 96141
5119.625119.23 of the Revised Code, for special programs or 96142
projects the director considers necessary but for which local 96143
funds are not available;96144

       (D) Establish, in consultation with board of alcohol, drug 96145
addiction, and mental health service representatives and after 96146
consideration of the recommendations of the medical director, 96147
guidelines for the development of community mental health and 96148
addiction services plans and the review and approval or 96149
disapproval of such plans submitted pursuant to section 340.03 of 96150
the Revised Code.96151

       (E) Establish criteria by which a board of alcohol, drug 96152
addiction, and mental health services reviews and evaluates the 96153
quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of its contracted services 96154
provided through its community mental health plan. The criteria 96155
shall include requirements ensuring appropriate service 96156
utilization. The department shall assess a board's evaluation of 96157
services and the compliance of each board with this section, 96158
Chapter 340. or section 5119.62 of the Revised Code, and other 96159
state or federal law and regulations. The department, in 96160
cooperation with the board, periodically shall review and evaluate 96161
the quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of services provided 96162
through each board. The department shall collect information that 96163
is necessary to perform these functions.96164

        (F) To the extent the director determines necessary and after 96165
consulting with boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 96166
health services, develop and operate, or contract for the 96167
operation of, a community mentalbehavioral health information 96168
system or systems. The department shall specify the information 96169
that must be provided by boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 96170
mental health services and by community addiction and mental 96171
health services providers for inclusion in the system or systems.96172

       Boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 96173
and community addiction and mental health services providers shall 96174
submit information requested by the department in the form and 96175
manner and in accordance with time frames prescribed by the 96176
department. Information collected by the department shallmay96177
include, but not be limited to, all of the following:96178

       (1) Information regarding units ofon services provided in 96179
whole or in part under contract with a board, including diagnosis 96180
and special needs, demographic information, the number of units of 96181
service provided, past treatment, financial status, and service 96182
dates in accordance with rules adopted by the department in 96183
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code;96184

       (2) Financial information other than price or price-related 96185
data regarding expenditures of boards and community mental health 96186
agencies, including units of service provided, budgeted and actual 96187
expenses by type, and sources offederal, state, or local funds;96188

       (3) Information about persons served.96189

       Boards shall submit the information specified in division 96190
(F)(1) of this section no less frequently than annually for each 96191
client, and each time the client's case is opened or closed. The 96192
department shall not collect any personal information from the 96193
boards except as required or permitted by state or federal law for 96194
purposes related to payment, health care operations, program and 96195
service evaluation, reporting activities, research, system 96196
administration, and oversight.96197

       (G)(1) Review each board's community mental health and 96198
addiction services plan, budget, and statement of services to be 96199
made available submitted pursuant to sectionsections 340.03 and 96200
340.08 of the Revised Code and approve or disapprove itthe plan, 96201
the budget, and the statement of services in whole or in part. 96202
Periodically, in consultation with representatives of boards and 96203
after considering the recommendations of the medical director, the 96204
director shall issue criteria for determining when a plan is 96205
complete, criteria for plan approval or disapproval, and 96206
provisions for conditional approval. The factors that the director 96207
considers may include, but are not limited to, the following:96208

       (1) The mental health needs of all persons residing within 96209
the board's service district, especially severely mentally 96210
disabled children, adolescents, and adults;96211

       (2) The demonstrated quality, effectiveness, efficiency, and 96212
cultural relevance of the services provided in each service 96213
district, the extent to which any services are duplicative of 96214
other available services, and whether the services meet the needs 96215
identified above;96216

       (3) The adequacy of the board's accounting for the 96217
expenditure of funds.96218

       If the director disapproves all or part of any plan, the 96219
director shall provide the board an opportunity to present its 96220
position. The director shall inform the board of the reasons for 96221
the disapproval and of the criteria that must be met before the 96222
plan may be approved. The director shall give the board a 96223
reasonable time within which to meet the criteria, and shall offer 96224
technical assistance to the board to help it meet the criteria.96225

       If the approval of a plan remains in dispute, the board or 96226
the director may request that the dispute be submitted to a 96227
mutually agreed upon third-party mediator with the cost to be 96228
shared by the board and the department. The mediator shall issue 96229
to the board and the department recommendations for resolution of 96230
the dispute. The director, taking into consideration the 96231
recommendations of the mediator, shall make a final determination 96232
and approve or disapprove the plan, in whole or in partThe 96233
department may withhold all or part of the funds allocated to a 96234
board if it disapproves all or part of a plan, budget, or 96235
statement of services. Prior to a final decision to disapprove a 96236
plan, budget, or statement of services, or to withhold funds from 96237
a board, a representative of the director of mental health and 96238
addiction services shall meet with the board and discuss the 96239
reason for the action the department proposes to take and any 96240
corrective action that should be taken to make the plan, budget, 96241
or statement of services acceptable to the department. In 96242
addition, the department shall offer technical assistance to the 96243
board to assist it to make the plan, budget, or statement of 96244
services acceptable. The department shall give the board a 96245
reasonable time in which to revise the plan, budget, or statement 96246
of services. The board thereafter shall submit a revised plan, 96247
budget, or statement of services, or a new plan, budget, or 96248
statement of services.96249

       (2) If a board determines that it is necessary to amend the 96250
plan, budget, or statement of services that has been approved 96251
under this section, the board shall submit the proposed amendment 96252
to the department. The department may approve or disapprove all or 96253
part of the amendment.96254

       (3) If the director disapproves of all or part of any 96255
proposed amendment, the director shall provide the board an 96256
opportunity to present its position. The director shall inform the 96257
board of the reasons for the disapproval and of the criteria that 96258
must be met before the proposed amendment may be approved. The 96259
director shall give the board a reasonable time within which to 96260
meet the criteria and shall offer technical assistance to the 96261
board to help it meet the criteria.96262

       (4) The department shall establish procedures for the review 96263
of plans, budgets, and statements of services, and a timetable for 96264
submission and review of plans, budgets, and statements of 96265
services and for corrective action and submission of new or 96266
revised plans, budgets, and statements of services.96267

       Sec. 5119.62.        Sec. 5119.23.  (A) The department of mental health96268
mental health and addiction services shall establish a methodology 96269
for allocating to boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 96270
health services the funds appropriated by the general assembly to 96271
the department for the purpose of local mental health systemsand 96272
addiction services continuums of care. The department shall 96273
establish the methodology after notifying and consulting with 96274
relevant constituencies as required by division (L)(A)(10) of 96275
section 5119.065119.21 of the Revised Code. The methodology may 96276
provide for the funds to be allocated to boards on a district or 96277
multi-district basis. Subject96278

       (B) Subject to sections 5119.622 and 5119.623section 96279
5119.25 of the Revised Code, and to required submissions and 96280
approvals under section 340.08 of the Revised Code, the department 96281
shall allocate the funds to the boards in a manner consistent with 96282
the methodology, this section, other state and federal laws, 96283
rules, and regulations.96284

       (B) The department may allocate to boards a portion of the 96285
funds appropriated by the general assembly to the department for 96286
the operation of state hospital services. If the department 96287
allocates the funds, the department shall do all of the following:96288

       (1) In consultation with the boards:96289

       (a) Annually determine the unit costs of providing state 96290
hospital services; and96291

       (b) Establish the methodology for allocating the funds to the 96292
boards.96293

       (2) Determine the type of unit costs of providing state 96294
hospital services to be included as a factor in the methodology 96295
and include that unit cost as a factor in the methodology;96296

       (3) Subject to sections 5119.622 and 5119.623 of the Revised 96297
Code, allocate the funds to the boards in a manner consistent with 96298
the methodology, this section, other state and federal laws, 96299
rules, and regulations.96300

       (c) Not later than the first day of April of each year, the 96301
department shall notify each board of the department's estimate of 96302
the amount of funds to be allocated to the board under this 96303
section during the fiscal year beginning on the next July first. 96304
If the department makes an allocation under division (B) of this 96305
section, the department shall also notify each board of the unit 96306
costs of providing state hospital services for the upcoming fiscal 96307
year as determined under that division. Not later than the first 96308
day of May of each year, each board shall notify the department as 96309
to which of the following options it has elected for the upcoming 96310
fiscal year:96311

       (1) The board elects to accept distribution of the amount 96312
allocated to it under this section. Funds distributed to each 96313
board shall be used to supplement and not to supplant other state, 96314
local, or federal funds that are being used to support 96315
community-based programs for severely mentally disabled children, 96316
adolescents, and adults, unless the funds have been specifically 96317
designated for the initiation of programs in accordance with the 96318
community mental health plan developed and submitted under section 96319
340.03 and approved under section 5119.61 of the Revised Code. 96320
Notwithstanding section 131.33 of the Revised Code, any board may 96321
expend unexpended funds distributed to the board from 96322
appropriations for the purpose of local management of mental 96323
health services in the fiscal year following the fiscal year for 96324
which the appropriations are made, in accordance with the approved 96325
community mental health plan.96326

       (2) Subject to division (D) of this section, the board elects 96327
not to accept the amount allocated to it under this section, 96328
authorizes the department to determine the use of its allocation, 96329
and agrees to provide the department with a statement of projected 96330
utilization of state hospitals and other state-operated services 96331
by residents of its service district during the fiscal year.96332

       (D) No board shall elect the option in division (C)(2) of 96333
this section unless all of the following apply:96334

       (1) Either the total funds estimated by the department to be 96335
allocated to the board under this section for the next fiscal year 96336
are reduced by a substantial amount, as defined in guidelines 96337
adopted by the director of mental health under division (E) of 96338
this section, in comparison to the amount allocated for the 96339
current fiscal year, for reasons not related to performance or the 96340
board has experienced other circumstances specified in the 96341
guidelines.96342

        (2) The board provides the department written confirmation 96343
that the board has received input about the impact that the 96344
board's election will have on the mental health system in the 96345
board's district from all of the following:96346

       (a) Individuals who receive mental health services and such 96347
individuals' families;96348

       (b) Boards of county commissioners;96349

       (c) Judges of juvenile and probate courts;96350

       (d) County sheriffs, jail administrators, and other local law 96351
enforcement officials.96352

       (3) Not later than seven days before notifying the department 96353
of its election and after providing the department the written 96354
confirmation required by division (D)(2) of this section, the 96355
board conducts a public hearing on the issue.96356

       (E) For the purpose of division (D)(1) of this section, the 96357
director of mental health shall consult with the boards and other 96358
relevant constituencies to develop guidelines for determining what 96359
constitutes a substantial reduction of funds and what other 96360
circumstances qualify a board to elect the option in division 96361
(C)(2) of this section.96362

       (F) No board shall use state funds for the purpose of 96363
discouraging employees from seeking collective bargaining 96364
representation or encouraging employees to decertify a recognized 96365
collective bargaining agent.96366

       (G) The department shall charge against the allocation made 96367
to a board under division (B) of this section, if any, any 96368
unreimbursed costs for services provided by the department.96369

       (H) A board's use of funds allocated under this section is 96370
subject to audit by county, state, and federal authorities.96371

       (C) In consultation with boards, community mental health and 96372
addiction services providers, and persons receiving services, the 96373
department shall establish guidelines for the use of funds 96374
allocated and distributed under this section.96375

       Sec. 5119.621.        Sec. 5119.24.  (A) As used in this section, 96376
"administrative function" means a function related to one or more 96377
of the following:96378

       (1) Continuous quality improvement;96379

       (2) Utilization review;96380

       (3) Resource development;96381

       (4) Fiscal administration;96382

       (5) General administration;96383

       (6) Any other function related to administration that is 96384
required by Chapter 340. of the Revised Code.96385

       (B) Each board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 96386
services shall submit an annual report to the department of mental 96387
healthmental health and addiction services specifying how the 96388
board used funds allocated to the board under section 5119.6296389
5119.23 of the Revised Code for administrative functions in the 96390
year preceding the report's submission. The director of mental 96391
healthmental health and addiction services shall establish the 96392
date by which the report must be submitted each year.96393

       Sec. 5119.622.        Sec. 5119.25. (A) The director of mental health96394
mental health and addiction services, in whole or in part, may 96395
withhold funds otherwise to be allocated to a board of alcohol, 96396
drug addiction, and mental health services under section 5119.6296397
5119.23 of the Revised Code if the board fails to comply with 96398
Chapter 340. or section 5119.61, 5119.611, 5119.612, or 5119.62196399
5119.22, 5119.24, 5119.36, or 5119.37 of the Revised Code or rules 96400
of the department of mental health regarding a community mental 96401
health servicemental health and addiction services. The96402

       (B) The director of mental health and addiction services may 96403
withhold funds otherwise to be allocated to a board of alcohol, 96404
drug addiction, and mental health services under section 5119.23 96405
of the Revised Code if the board denies available service on the 96406
basis of race, color, religion, creed, sex, age, national origin, 96407
disability as defined in section 4112.01 of the Revised Code, or 96408
developmental disability.96409

       (C) The director shall identifyissue a notice identifying96410
the areas of noncompliance and the action necessary to achieve 96411
compliance. The director shallmay offer technical assistance to 96412
the board to achieve compliance. The director shall give the board 96413
a reasonable time within which to comply orshall have ten days 96414
from receipt of the notice of noncompliance to present its 96415
position that it is in compliance. Before withholding funds, the 96416
director or the director's designee shall hold a hearing shall be 96417
conductedwithin ten days of receipt of the board's position to 96418
determine if there are continuing violations and that either 96419
assistance is rejected or the board is unable to achieve 96420
compliance. Subsequent to the hearing process, if it is determined 96421
that compliance has not been achieved, the director may allocate 96422
all or part of the withheld funds to a public or private agency to 96423
provide the community mental health or community addiction service 96424
for which the board is not in compliance until the time that there 96425
is compliance. The director shallmay adopt rules in accordance 96426
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this section.96427

       Sec. 3793.14.        Sec. 5119.26.  Any person treated under this chapter 96428
or rules adopted under it shall retain histhe person's civil 96429
rights and liberties, including the right not to be experimented 96430
upon with treatment not accepted as good medical practice without 96431
histhe person's fully informed consent, the right as a patient96432
person receiving services to maintain the confidentiality of 96433
health and medical records, the right as a person detained for 96434
medical purposes to receive adequate and appropriate treatment, 96435
and the right to vote.96436

       Sec. 3793.13.        Sec. 5119.27.  (A) Records or information, other than 96437
court journal entries or court docket entries, pertaining to the 96438
identity, diagnosis, or treatment of any patientperson seeking or 96439
receiving services that are maintained in connection with the 96440
performance of any drug treatment program or services licensed by, 96441
or certified by, the director of alcohol and drug addiction 96442
services,mental health and addiction services under section 96443
3793.11 of the Revised Code,this chapter shall be kept 96444
confidential, may be disclosed only for the purposes and under the 96445
circumstances expressly authorized under this section, and may not 96446
otherwise be divulged in any civil, criminal, administrative, or 96447
legislative proceeding.96448

       (B) When the patientperson, with respect to whom any record 96449
or information referred to in division (A) of this section is 96450
maintained, gives consent in the form of a written release signed 96451
by the patientperson, the content of the record or information 96452
may be disclosed if the written release conforms to all of the 96453
following:96454

       (1) Specifically identifies the person, official, or entity 96455
to whom the information is to be provided;96456

       (2) Describes with reasonable specificity the record, 96457
records, or information to be disclosed; and96458

       (3) Describes with reasonable specificity the purposes of the 96459
disclosure and the intended use of the disclosed information.96460

       (C) A patientperson who is subject to a community control 96461
sanction, parole, or a post-release control sanction or who is 96462
ordered to rehabilitation in lieu of conviction, and who has 96463
agreed to participate in a drug treatment or rehabilitation 96464
program as a condition of the community control sanction, 96465
post-release control sanction, parole, or order to rehabilitation, 96466
shall be considered to have consented to the release of records 96467
and information relating to the progress of treatment, frequency 96468
of treatment, adherence to treatment requirements, and probable 96469
outcome of treatment. Release of information and records under 96470
this division shall be limited to the court or governmental 96471
personnel having the responsibility for supervising the patient's96472
person's community control sanction, post-release control 96473
sanction, parole, or order to rehabilitation. A patientperson, 96474
described in this division, who refuses to allow disclosure may be 96475
considered in violation of the conditions of the patient's96476
person's community control sanction, post-release control 96477
sanction, parole, or order to rehabilitation.96478

       (D) Disclosure of a patient'sperson's record may be made 96479
without the patient'sperson's consent to qualified personnel for 96480
the purpose of conducting scientific research, management, 96481
financial audits, or program evaluation, but these personnel may 96482
not identify, directly or indirectly, any individual patient96483
person in any report of the research, audit, or evaluation, or 96484
otherwise disclose a patient'sperson's identity in any manner.96485

       (E) Upon the request of a prosecuting attorney or the 96486
director of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental health and 96487
addiction services, a court of competent jurisdiction may order 96488
the disclosure of records or information referred to in division 96489
(A) of this section if the court has reason to believe that a 96490
treatment program or facility is being operated or used in a 96491
manner contrary to law. The use of any information or record so 96492
disclosed shall be limited to the prosecution of persons who are 96493
or may be charged with any offense related to the illegal 96494
operation or use of the drug treatment program or facility, or to 96495
the decision to withdraw the authority of a drug treatment program 96496
or facility to continue operation. For purposes of this division 96497
the court shall:96498

       (1) Limit disclosure to those parts of the patient'sperson's96499
record considered essential to fulfill the objective for which the 96500
order was granted;96501

       (2) Require, where appropriate, that all information be 96502
disclosed in chambers;96503

       (3) Include any other appropriate measures to keep disclosure 96504
to a minimum, consistent with the protection of the patients96505
persons seeking or receiving services, the physician-patient 96506
relationship, and the administration of the drug treatment and 96507
rehabilitation program.96508

       (F) As used in this section:96509

       (1) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 96510
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.96511

       (2) "Post-release control sanction" has the same meaning as 96512
in section 2967.01 of the Revised Code.96513

       Sec. 5119.28.  (A) All records, and reports, other than court 96514
journal entries or court docket entries, identifying a person and 96515
pertaining to the person's mental health condition, assessment, 96516
provision of care or treatment, or payment for assessment, care or 96517
treatment that are maintained in connection with any services 96518
certified by the department of mental health and addiction 96519
services, or any hospitals or facilities licensed or operated by 96520
the department, shall be kept confidential and shall not be 96521
disclosed by any person except:96522

       (1) If the person identified, or the person's legal guardian, 96523
if any, or if the person is a minor, the person's parent or legal 96524
guardian, consents;96525

       (2) When disclosure is provided for in this chapter or 96526
Chapter 340. or 5122., or Title XLVII of the Revised Code;96527

       (3) That hospitals, boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 96528
mental health services, licensed facilities, and community mental 96529
health services providers may release necessary information to 96530
insurers and other third-party payers, including government 96531
entities responsible for processing and authorizing payment, to 96532
obtain payment for goods and services furnished to the person;96533

       (4) Pursuant to a court order signed by a judge;96534

       (5) That a person shall be granted access to the person's own 96535
psychiatric and medical records, unless access specifically is 96536
restricted in a person's treatment plan for clear treatment 96537
reasons;96538

       (6) That the department of mental health and addiction 96539
services may exchange psychiatric records and other pertinent 96540
information with community mental health services providers and 96541
boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 96542
relating to the person's care or services. Records and information 96543
that may be exchanged pursuant to this division shall be limited 96544
to medication history, physical health status and history, 96545
financial status, summary of course of treatment, summary of 96546
treatment needs, and a discharge summary, if any.96547

       (7) That the department of mental health and addiction 96548
services, hospitals and community providers operated by the 96549
department, hospitals licensed by the department under section 96550
5119.33 of the Revised Code, and community mental health services 96551
providers may exchange psychiatric records and other pertinent 96552
information with payers and other providers of treatment and 96553
health services if the purpose of the exchange is to facilitate 96554
continuity of care for the person or for the emergency treatment 96555
of the person;96556

       (8) That the department of mental health and addiction 96557
services and community mental health services providers may 96558
exchange psychiatric records and other pertinent information with 96559
boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services for 96560
purposes of any board function set forth in Chapter 340. of the 96561
Revised Code. Boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 96562
services shall not access any personal information from the 96563
department or providers except as required or permitted by this 96564
section, or Chapter 340. or 5122. of the Revised Code for purposes 96565
related to payment, care coordination, health care operations, 96566
program and service evaluation, reporting activities, research, 96567
system administration, oversight, or other authorized purposes.96568

       (9) That a person's family member who is involved in the 96569
provision, planning, and monitoring of services to the person may 96570
receive medication information, a summary of the person's 96571
diagnosis and prognosis, and a list of the services and personnel 96572
available to assist the person and the person's family, if the 96573
person's treatment provider determines that the disclosure would 96574
be in the best interests of the person. No such disclosure shall 96575
be made unless the person is notified first and receives the 96576
information and does not object to the disclosure.96577

       (10) That community mental health services providers may 96578
exchange psychiatric records and certain other information with 96579
the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 96580
and other providers in order to provide services to a person 96581
involuntarily committed to a board. Release of records under this 96582
division shall be limited to medication history, physical health 96583
status and history, financial status, summary of course of 96584
treatment, summary of treatment needs, and discharge summary, if 96585
any.96586

       (11) That information may be disclosed to the executor or the 96587
administrator of an estate of a deceased person when the 96588
information is necessary to administer the estate;96589

       (12) That information may be disclosed to staff members of 96590
the appropriate board or to staff members designated by the 96591
director of mental health and addiction services for the purpose 96592
of evaluating the quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of 96593
services and determining if the services meet minimum standards. 96594
Information obtained during such evaluations shall not be retained 96595
with the name of any person.96596

       (13) That records pertaining to the person's diagnosis, 96597
course of treatment, treatment needs, and prognosis shall be 96598
disclosed and released to the appropriate prosecuting attorney if 96599
the person was committed pursuant to section 2945.38, 2945.39, 96600
2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code, or to the 96601
attorney designated by the board for proceedings pursuant to 96602
involuntary commitment under Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code.96603

       (14) That the department of mental health and addiction 96604
services may exchange psychiatric hospitalization records, other 96605
mental health treatment records, and other pertinent information 96606
with the department of rehabilitation and correction and with the 96607
department of youth services to ensure continuity of care for 96608
inmates and offenders who are receiving mental health services in 96609
an institution of the department of rehabilitation and correction 96610
or the department of youth services and may exchange psychiatric 96611
hospitalization records, other mental health treatment records, 96612
and other pertinent information with boards of alcohol, drug 96613
addiction, and mental health services and community mental health 96614
services providers to ensure continuity of care for inmates or 96615
offenders who are receiving mental health services in an 96616
institution and are scheduled for release within six months. The 96617
release of records under this division is limited to records 96618
regarding an inmate's or offender's medication history, physical 96619
health status and history, summary of course of treatment, summary 96620
of treatment needs, and a discharge summary, if any.96621

       (15) That a community mental health services provider that 96622
ceases to operate may transfer to either a community mental health 96623
services provider that assumes its caseload or to the board of 96624
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services of the service 96625
district in which the person resided at the time services were 96626
most recently provided any treatment records that have not been 96627
transferred elsewhere at the person's request.96628

       (B) Before records are disclosed pursuant to divisions 96629
(A)(3), (6), and (10) of this section, the custodian of the 96630
records shall attempt to obtain the person's consent for the 96631
disclosure.96632

       (C) No person shall reveal the content of a medical record of 96633
a person that is confidential pursuant to this section, except as 96634
authorized by law.96635

       Sec. 5119.57.        Sec. 5119.29. No later than January 1, 1998, theThe96636
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services, 96637
in conjunction with boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 96638
health services and community mental health boards, shall develop 96639
a coordinated system for tracking and monitoring persons found not 96640
guilty by reason of insanity and committed pursuant to section 96641
2945.40 of the Revised Code who have been granted a conditional 96642
release and persons found incompetent to stand trial and committed 96643
pursuant to section 2945.39 of the Revised Code who have been 96644
granted a conditional release. The system shall do all of the 96645
following:96646

       (A) Centralize responsibility for the tracking of those 96647
persons;96648

       (B) Develop uniformity in monitoring those persons;96649

       (C) Develop a mechanism to allow prompt rehospitalization, 96650
reinstitutionalization, or detention when a violation of the 96651
conditional release or decompensation occurs.96652

       Sec. 3793.18.        Sec. 5119.30.  The department of alcohol and drug 96653
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services promptly 96654
shall develop and maintain a program that continually provides the 96655
courts of this state with relevant information pertaining to 96656
alcohol and drug addiction services and programs available both 96657
within their jurisdictions and statewide in order to facilitate 96658
the ability of the courts to utilize treatment and rehabilitation 96659
alternatives in addition to or in lieu of imposing sentences of 96660
imprisonment upon appropriate offenders.96661

       Sec. 5119.23.        Sec. 5119.31.  The department of mental healthmental 96662
health and addiction services may examine into, with or without 96663
expert assistance, the question of the mental and physical 96664
condition of any person committed to or involuntarily confined in 96665
any hospital for the mentally ill, or restrained of his liberty at 96666
any place within this state by reason of alleged mental illness 96667
and may order and compel the discharge of any such person who is 96668
not a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 96669
order as defined in division (B) of section 5122.01 of the Revised 96670
Code and direct what disposition shall be made of himthe person. 96671
The order of discharge shall be signed by the director of mental 96672
healthmental health and addiction services. Upon receipt of such 96673
order by the superintendent or other person in charge of the 96674
building in which the person named in such order is confined, such 96675
person shall forthwith be discharged or otherwise disposed of 96676
according to the terms of said order, and any further or other 96677
detention of such person is unlawful. No such order shall be made 96678
in favor of any person committed and held for trial on a criminal 96679
charge, in confinement by an order of a judge or court made in a 96680
criminal proceeding, or in any case unless notice is given to the 96681
superintendent or other person having charge of the building in 96682
which the alleged mentally ill person is detained, and a 96683
reasonable opportunity is allowed the person in charge to justify 96684
further detention of the person confined.96685

       Sec. 5119.60.        Sec. 5119.32.  The department of mental healthmental 96686
health and addiction services is hereby designated as the state 96687
administrative agency for the alcohol, drug abuse and mental 96688
health servicessubstance abuse prevention treatment block grant 96689
and the community mental health services block grant authorized by 96690
the "Public Health Services Act," 95 Stat. 357, 543, 42 U.S.C. 96691
300x, as amended, and similar alcohol, drug abuse, or mental 96692
health programs that are specified in an appropriations act. The 96693
department shall establish and administer an annual plan to 96694
utilize federal block grant funds. The department shall consult 96695
with the department of alcohol and drug addiction services on the 96696
allocation of funds for alcohol and drug addiction services 96697
pursuant to Chapter 3793. of the Revised Code and shall notify the 96698
controlling board, which shall authorize the transfer of funds 96699
allocated to the department of alcohol and drug addiction 96700
services.96701

       Sec. 5119.20.        Sec. 5119.33.  The department of mental healthmental 96702
health and addiction services shall inspect and license all 96703
hospitals that receive mentally ill persons, except those 96704
hospitals managed by the department. No hospital may receive for 96705
care or treatment, either at public or private expense, any person 96706
who is or appears to be mentally ill, whether or not so 96707
adjudicated, unless the hospital has received a license from the 96708
department authorizing it to receive for care or treatment persons 96709
who are mentally ill or the hospital is managed by the department.96710

       No such license shall be granted to a hospital for the 96711
treatment of mentally ill persons unless the department is 96712
satisfied, after investigation, that the hospital is managed and 96713
operated by qualified persons and has on its staff one or more 96714
qualified physicians responsible for the medical care of the 96715
patients confined there. At least one such physician shall be a 96716
psychiatrist.96717

       The department shall adopt rules under Chapter 119. of the 96718
Revised Code prescribing minimum standards for the operation of 96719
hospitals for the care and treatment of mentally ill persons and 96720
establishing standards and procedures for the issuance, renewal, 96721
or revocation of full, probationary, and interim licenses. No 96722
license shall be granted to any hospital established or used for 96723
the care of mentally ill persons unless such hospital is operating 96724
in accordance with this section and rules adopted pursuant to this 96725
section. A full license shall expire one year after the date of 96726
issuance, a probationary license shall expire at the time 96727
prescribed by rule adopted pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised 96728
Code by the director of mental healthmental health and addiction 96729
services, and an interim license shall expire ninety days after 96730
the date of issuance. A full, probationary, or interim license may 96731
be renewed, except that an interim license may be renewed only 96732
twice. The department may fix reasonable fees for licenses and for 96733
license renewals. Such hospitals are subject to inspection and 96734
visitationon-site review by the department.96735

       Except as otherwise provided in Chapter 5122. of the Revised 96736
Code, neither the director of the department of mental health96737
mental health and addiction services; an employee of the 96738
department; a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 96739
services or agency employee of a community mental health services 96740
provider; nor any other public official shall hospitalize any 96741
mentally ill person for care or treatment in any hospital that is 96742
not licensed in accordance with this section.96743

       Any license issued by the department under this section may 96744
be revoked by the department for any of the following reasons:96745

       (A) The hospital is no longer a suitable place for the care 96746
or treatment of mentally ill persons.96747

       (B) The hospital refuses to be subject to inspection or 96748
visitationon-site review by the department.96749

       (C) The hospital has failed to furnish humane, kind, and 96750
adequate treatment and care.96751

       (D) The hospital fails to comply with the licensure rules of 96752
the department.96753

       The department may inspect, visitconduct an on-site review, 96754
and review the records of any hospital that the department has 96755
reason to believe is operating without a license.96756

       Sec. 5119.201.        Sec. 5119.331.  If the department of mental health96757
mental health and addiction services determines that a hospital 96758
not licensed by the department is receiving for care or treatment 96759
any person who is or appears to be mentally ill, the department 96760
may request in writing that the attorney general petition the 96761
court of common pleas in the county where the hospital is located 96762
to enjoin the hospital from continued operation in violation of 96763
section 5119.205119.33 of the Revised Code.96764

       Sec. 5119.202.        Sec. 5119.332.  No third-party payer shall directly 96765
or indirectly reimburse, nor shall any person be obligated to pay 96766
any hospital for psychiatric services for which a license is 96767
required under section 5119.205119.33 of the Revised Code unless 96768
the hospital is licensed by the department of mental healthmental 96769
health and addiction services.96770

       As used in this section, "third-party payer" means a health 96771
insuring corporation licensed under Chapter 1751. of the Revised 96772
Code, an insurance company that issues sickness and accident 96773
insurance in conformity with Chapter 3923. of the Revised Code, a 96774
state-financed health insurance program under Chapter 3701., 96775
4123., or 5101. of the Revised Code, or any self-insurance plan.96776

       Sec. 5119.21.        Sec. 5119.333.  No person shall keep or maintain a 96777
hospital for the care or treatment of mentally ill persons unless 96778
it is licensed by the department of mental healthmental health 96779
and addiction services, as provided by section 5119.205119.33 of 96780
the Revised Code.96781

       Sec. 5119.22.        Sec. 5119.34.  (A) As used in this section and 96782
section 5119.221sections 5119.341 and 5119.342 of the Revised 96783
Code:96784

       (1) "Accommodations" means housing, daily meal preparation, 96785
laundry, housekeeping, arranging for transportation, social and 96786
recreational activities, maintenance, security, and other services 96787
that do not constitute personal care services or skilled nursing 96788
care.96789

       (2) "ADAMHS board" means a board of alcohol, drug addiction, 96790
and mental health services.96791

       (3) "Adult" means a person who is eighteen years of age or 96792
older, other than a person described in division (A)(4) of this 96793
section who is between eighteen and twenty-one years of age.96794

       (4) "Child" means a person who is under eighteen years of age 96795
or a person with a mental disability who is under twenty-one years 96796
of age.96797

       (5) "Community mental health agencyservices provider" means 96798
a community mental health agencyservices provider as defined in 96799
division (H) of section 5122.015119.01 of the Revised Code.96800

       (6) "Community mental health services" means any of the96801
mental health services listed incertified by the department 96802
pursuant to section 340.095119.36 of the Revised Code.96803

       (7) "Operator" means the person or persons, firm, 96804
partnership, agency, governing body, association, corporation, or 96805
other entity that is responsible for the administration and 96806
management of a residential facility and that is the applicant for 96807
a residential facility license.96808

        (8) "Personal care services" means services including, but 96809
not limited to, the following:96810

       (a) Assisting residents with activities of daily living;96811

       (b) Assisting residents with self-administration of 96812
medication in accordance with rules adopted under this section;96813

       (c) Preparing special diets, other than complex therapeutic 96814
diets, for residents pursuant to the instructions of a physician 96815
or a licensed dietitian, in accordance with rules adopted under 96816
this section.96817

       "Personal care services" does not include "skilled nursing 96818
care" as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code. A 96819
facility need not provide more than one of the services listed in 96820
division (A)(8) of this section to be considered to be providing 96821
personal care services.96822

       (9) "Residential facility" means a publicly or privately 96823
operated home or facility that provides one of the following:96824

        (a) Accommodations, supervision, personal care services, and 96825
community mental health services for one or more of the following96826
unrelated personsadults with mental illness or severe mental 96827
disabilities or to one or more unrelated children and adolescents 96828
with a serious emotional disturbance or who are in need of mental 96829
health services who are referred by or are receiving community 96830
mental health services from a community mental health agency,96831
services provider, hospital, or practitioner:96832

       (i) Adults with mental illness;96833

       (ii) Persons of any age with severe mental disabilities;96834

       (iii) Children with serious emotional disturbances or in need 96835
of mental health services.96836

        (b) Accommodations, supervision, and personal care services 96837
for only one or two unrelated adults; accommodations, supervision, 96838
and personal care services for three to sixteen unrelated adults; 96839
or accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for one 96840
or two of the following unrelated persons:96841

       (i) Persons of any age with mental illness who are referred 96842
by or are receiving community mental health services from a 96843
community mental health agency, hospital, or practitioner;96844

        (ii) Persons of any age with severe mental disabilities who 96845
are referred by or are receiving community mental health services 96846
from a community mental health agency, hospital, or practitioner96847
to any of the following:96848

       (i) One or two unrelated persons with mental illness or 96849
persons with severe mental disabilities who are referred by or are 96850
receiving mental health services from a community mental health 96851
services provider, hospital, or practitioner;96852

       (ii) One or two unrelated adults who are receiving 96853
residential state supplement payments; 96854

       (iii) Three to sixteen unrelated adults.96855

       (c) Room and board for five or more of the following96856
unrelated persons:96857

       (i) Adultsadults with mental illness or severe mental 96858
disability who are referred by or are receiving community mental 96859
health services from a community mental health agency,services 96860
provider, hospital, or practitioner;96861

       (ii) Adults with severe mental disabilities who are referred 96862
by or are receiving community mental health services from a 96863
community mental health agency, hospital, or practitioner.96864

        (10) "Residential facility" does not include any of the 96865
following: 96866

       (a) A hospital subject to licensure under section 5119.2096867
5119.33 of the Revised Code;96868

       (b) A residential facility licensed under section 5123.19 of 96869
the Revised Code or otherwise regulated by the department of 96870
developmental disabilities;96871

       (c) An institution or association subject to certification 96872
under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code;96873

       (d) A facility operated by a hospice care program licensed 96874
under section 3712.04 of the Revised Code that is used exclusively 96875
for care of hospice patients;96876

       (e) A facility operated by a pediatric respite care program 96877
licensed under section 3712.041 of the Revised Code that is used 96878
exclusively for care of pediatric respite care patients;96879

       (f) A nursing home, residential care facility, or home for 96880
the aging as defined in section 3721.02 of the Revised Code;96881

       (g) An alcohol(f) Alcohol or drug addiction program as 96882
defined inservices certified pursuant to section 3793.015119.3696883
of the Revised Code;96884

       (h)(g) A facility licensed to provide methadone treatment 96885
under section 3793.115119.39 of the Revised Code;96886

       (i)(h) Any facility that receives funding for operating costs 96887
from the department of development services agency under any 96888
program established to provide emergency shelter housing or 96889
transitional housing for the homeless;96890

       (j)(i) A terminal care facility for the homeless that has 96891
entered into an agreement with a hospice care program under 96892
section 3712.07 of the Revised Code;96893

       (k)(j) A facility approved by the veterans administration 96894
under section 104(a) of the "Veterans Health Care Amendments of 96895
1983," 97 Stat. 993, 38 U.S.C. 630, as amended, and used 96896
exclusively for the placement and care of veterans.96897

       (11) "Room and board" means the provision of sleeping and 96898
living space, meals or meal preparation, laundry services, 96899
housekeeping services, or any combination thereof.96900

       (12) "Residential state supplement" means the program 96901
administered under section 5119.41 of the Revised Code and related 96902
provisions of the Administrative Code under which the state 96903
supplements the supplemental security income payments received by 96904
aged, blind, or disabled adults under Title XVI of the Social 96905
Security Act. Residential state supplement payments are used for 96906
the provision of accommodations, supervision, and personal care 96907
services to supplemental security income recipients the department 96908
of mental health and addition services determines are at risk of 96909
needing institutional care.96910

       (13) "Supervision" means any of the following:96911

       (a) Observing a resident to ensure the resident's health, 96912
safety, and welfare while the resident engages in activities of 96913
daily living or other activities;96914

       (b) Reminding a resident to perform or complete an activity, 96915
such as reminding a resident to engage in personal hygiene or 96916
other self-care activities; 96917

       (c) Assisting a resident in making or keeping an appointment. 96918

       (13)(14) "Unrelated" means that a resident is not related to 96919
the owner or operator of a residential facility or to the owner's 96920
or operator's spouse as a parent, grandparent, child, stepchild, 96921
grandchild, brother, sister, niece, nephew, aunt, or uncle, or as 96922
the child of an aunt or uncle.96923

       (B) Nothing in division (A)(9) of this section shall be 96924
construed to permit personal care services to be imposed on a 96925
resident who is capable of performing the activity in question 96926
without assistance.96927

       (C) Except in the case of a residential facility described in 96928
division (A)(9)(a) of this section, members of the staff of a 96929
residential facility shall not administer medication to the 96930
facility's residents, but may do any of the following:96931

       (1) Remind a resident when to take medication and watch to 96932
ensure that the resident follows the directions on the container;96933

       (2) Assist a resident in the self-administration of 96934
medication by taking the medication from the locked area where it 96935
is stored, in accordance with rules adopted pursuant to this 96936
section, and handing it to the resident. If the resident is 96937
physically unable to open the container, a staff member may open 96938
the container for the resident.96939

       (3) Assist a physically impaired but mentally alert resident, 96940
such as a resident with arthritis, cerebral palsy, or Parkinson's 96941
disease, in removing oral or topical medication from containers 96942
and in consuming or applying the medication, upon request by or 96943
with the consent of the resident. If a resident is physically 96944
unable to place a dose of medicine to the resident's mouth without 96945
spilling it, a staff member may place the dose in a container and 96946
place the container to the mouth of the resident.96947

        (D)(1) Except as provided in division (D)(2) of this section, 96948
a person operating or seeking to operate a residential facility 96949
shall apply for licensure of the facility to the department of 96950
mental healthmental health and addiction services. The 96951
application shall be submitted by the operator. When applying for 96952
the license, the applicant shall pay to the department the 96953
application fee specified in rules adopted under division (L)(K)96954
of this section. The fee is nonrefundable.96955

       The department shall send a copy of an application to the 96956
ADAMHS board serving the county in which the person operates or 96957
seeks to operate the facility. The ADAMHS board shall review the 96958
application and provide to the department any information about 96959
the applicant or the facility that the board would like the 96960
department to consider in reviewing the application.96961

       (2) A person may not apply for a license to operate a 96962
residential facility if the person is or has been the owner, 96963
operator, or manager of a residential facility for which a license 96964
to operate was revoked or for which renewal of a license was 96965
refused for any reason other than nonpayment of the license 96966
renewal fee, unless both of the following conditions are met:96967

       (a) A period of not less than two years has elapsed since the 96968
date the director of mental healthmental health and addiction 96969
services issued the order revoking or refusing to renew the 96970
facility's license.96971

       (b) The director's revocation or refusal to renew the license 96972
was not based on an act or omission at the facility that violated 96973
a resident's right to be free from abuse, neglect, or 96974
exploitation.96975

       (E)(1) Any person may operate a residential facility 96976
providing accommodations and personal care services for one to 96977
five unrelated persons and licensed as a residential facility that 96978
meets the criteria specified in division (A)(9)(b) of this section 96979
as a permitted use in any residential district or zone, including 96980
any single-family residential district or zone of any political 96981
subdivision. Such facilities may be required to comply with area, 96982
height, yard, and architectural compatibility requirements that 96983
are uniformly imposed upon all single-family residences within the 96984
district or zone.96985

       (2) Any person may operate a residential facility providing 96986
accommodations and personal care services for six to sixteen 96987
persons and licensed as a residential facility that meets the 96988
criteria specified in division (A)(9)(b) of this section as a 96989
permitted use in any multiple-family residential district or zone 96990
of any political subdivision, except that a political subdivision 96991
that has enacted a zoning ordinance or resolution establishing 96992
planned-unit development districts as defined in section 519.021 96993
of the Revised Code may exclude such facilities from such 96994
districts, and a political subdivision that has enacted a zoning 96995
ordinance or resolution may regulate such facilities in 96996
multiple-family residential districts or zones as a conditionally 96997
permitted use or special exception, in either case, under 96998
reasonable and specific standards and conditions set out in the 96999
zoning ordinance or resolution to:97000

       (a) Require the architectural design and site layout of the 97001
home and the location, nature, and height of any walls, screens, 97002
and fences to be compatible with adjoining land uses and the 97003
residential character of the neighborhood;97004

       (b) Require compliance with yard, parking, and sign 97005
regulation.97006

       (3) Divisions (E)(1) and (2) of this section do not affect 97007
any right of a political subdivision to permit a person to operate 97008
a residential facility licensed under this section in a 97009
single-family residential district or zone under conditions 97010
established by the political subdivision.97011

       (4)(a) Notwithstanding divisions (E)(1) and (2) of this 97012
section and except as provided in division (E)(4)(b) of this 97013
section, a political subdivision that has enacted a zoning 97014
ordinance or resolution may limit the excessive concentration of 97015
licensed residential facilities that meet the criteria specified 97016
in division (A)(9)(b) of this section.97017

       (b) Division (E)(4)(a) of this section does not authorize a 97018
political subdivision to prevent or limit the continued existence 97019
and operation of residential facilities existing and operating on 97020
September 10, 2012, and that meet the criteria specified in 97021
division (A)(9)(b) of this section. A political subdivision may 97022
consider the existence of such facilities for the purpose of 97023
limiting the excessive concentration of such facilities that meet 97024
the criteria specified in division (A)(9)(b) of this section that 97025
are not existing and operating on September 10, 2012.97026

        (F)(1) The department of mental healthmental health and 97027
addiction services shall inspect and license the operation of 97028
residential facilities. The department shall consider the past 97029
record of the facility and the applicant or licensee in arriving 97030
at its licensure decision. 97031

       The department may issue full, probationary, and interim 97032
licenses. A full license shall expire twoup to three years after 97033
the date of issuance, a probationary license shall expire in a 97034
shorter period of time as specified in rules adopted by the 97035
director of mental health under division (L)(K) of this section, 97036
and an interim license shall expire ninety days after the date of 97037
issuance. A license may be renewed in accordance with rules 97038
adopted by the director under division (L)(K) of this section. The 97039
renewal application shall be submitted by the operator. When 97040
applying for renewal of a license, the applicant shall pay to the 97041
department the renewal fee specified in rules adopted under 97042
division (L)(K) of this section. The fee is nonrefundable.97043

       (2) The department may issue an order suspending the 97044
admission of residents to the facility or refuse to issue or renew 97045
and may revoke a license if it finds the facility is not in 97046
compliance with rules adopted by the director pursuant to division 97047
(L)(K) of this section or if any facility operated by the 97048
applicant or licensee has been cited for repeated violations of 97049
statutes or rules during the period of previous licenses. 97050
Proceedings initiated to deny applications for full or 97051
probationary licenses or to revoke such licenses are governed by 97052
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.97053

       (G)(F) The department may issue an interim license to operate 97054
a residential facility if both of the following conditions are 97055
met:97056

       (1) The department determines that the closing of or the need 97057
to remove residents from another residential facility has created 97058
an emergency situation requiring immediate removal of residents 97059
and an insufficient number of licensed beds are available.97060

       (2) The residential facility applying for an interim license 97061
meets standards established for interim licenses in rules adopted 97062
by the director under division (L)(K) of this section.97063

       An interim license shall be valid for ninety days and may be 97064
renewed by the director no more than twice. Proceedings initiated 97065
to deny applications for or to revoke interim licenses under this 97066
division are not subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.97067

       (H)(G)(1) The department of mental healthmental health and 97068
addiction services may conduct an inspection of a residential 97069
facility as follows:97070

       (a) Prior to issuance of a license for the facility;97071

       (b) Prior to renewal of the license;97072

       (c) To determine whether the facility has completed a plan of 97073
correction required pursuant to division (H)(G)(2) of this section 97074
and corrected deficiencies to the satisfaction of the department 97075
and in compliance with this section and rules adopted pursuant to 97076
it;97077

       (d) Upon complaint by any individual or agency;97078

       (e) At any time the director considers an inspection to be 97079
necessary in order to determine whether the facility is in 97080
compliance with this section and rules adopted pursuant to this 97081
section.97082

       (2) In conducting inspections the department may conduct an 97083
on-site examination and evaluation of the residential facility and 97084
its personnel, activities, and services. The department shall have 97085
access to examine and copy all records, accounts, and any other 97086
documents relating to the operation of the residential facility, 97087
including records pertaining to residents, and shall have access 97088
to the facility in order to conduct interviews with the operator, 97089
staff, and residents. Following each inspection and review, the 97090
department shall complete a report listing any deficiencies, and 97091
including, when appropriate, a time table within which the 97092
operator shall correct the deficiencies. The department may 97093
require the operator to submit a plan of correction describing how 97094
the deficiencies will be corrected.97095

       (I)(H) No person shall do any of the following:97096

       (1) Operate a residential facility unless the facility holds 97097
a valid license;97098

       (2) Violate any of the conditions of licensure after having 97099
been granted a license;97100

       (3) Interfere with a state or local official's inspection or 97101
investigation of a residential facility;97102

       (4) Violate any of the provisions of this section or any 97103
rules adopted pursuant to this section.97104

       (J)(I) The following may enter a residential facility at any 97105
time:97106

       (1) Employees designated by the director of mental health97107
mental health and addiction services;97108

       (2) Employees of an ADAMHS board under either of the 97109
following circumstances:97110

       (a) When a resident of the facility is receiving services 97111
from a community mental health agencyservices provider under 97112
contract with that ADAMHS board or another ADAMHS board;97113

       (b) When authorized by section 340.05 of the Revised Code.97114

       (3) Employees of a community mental health agencyservices 97115
provider under either of the following circumstances:97116

       (a) When the agencyservices provider has a clientperson 97117
receiving services residing in the facility;97118

       (b) When the agencyservices provider is acting as an agent 97119
of an ADAMHS board other than the board with which it is under 97120
contract.97121

       (4) Representatives of the state long-term care ombudsperson97122
ombudsman program when the facility provides accommodations, 97123
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 97124
unrelated adults or to one or two unrelated adults who are 97125
recipients under the residential state supplement program.97126

       The persons specified in division (J)(I) of this section 97127
shall be afforded access to examine and copy all records, 97128
accounts, and any other documents relating to the operation of the 97129
residential facility, including records pertaining to residents. 97130

       (K)(J) Employees of the department of mental healthmental 97131
health and addiction services may enter, for the purpose of 97132
investigation, any institution, residence, facility, or other 97133
structure which has been reported to the department as, or that 97134
the department has reasonable cause to believe is, operating as a 97135
residential facility without a valid license.97136

        (L)(K) The director shall adopt and may amend and rescind 97137
rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing the 97138
licensing and operation of residential facilities. The rules shall 97139
establish all of the following:97140

       (1) Minimum standards for the health, safety, adequacy, and 97141
cultural competency of treatment of and services for persons in 97142
residential facilities; 97143

       (2) Procedures for the issuance, renewal, or revocation of 97144
the licenses of residential facilities; 97145

       (3) Procedures for conducting criminal records checks for 97146
prospective or current operators, staffemployees, and other 97147
individualsvolunteers who, if employed by a residential 97148
facility, wouldmay have unsuperviseddirect access to facility 97149
residents;97150

       (4) The fee to be paid when applying for a new residential 97151
facility license or renewing the license;97152

       (5) Procedures for the operator of a residential facility to 97153
follow when notifying the ADAMHS board serving the county in which 97154
the facility is located when the facility is serving residents 97155
with mental illness or severe mental disability, including the 97156
circumstances under which the operator is required to make such a 97157
notification;97158

       (6) Procedures for the issuance and termination of orders of 97159
suspension of admission of residents to a residential facility; 97160

       (7) Measures to be taken by residential facilities relative 97161
to residents' medication;97162

       (8) Requirements relating to preparation of special diets;97163

       (9) The maximum number of residents who may be served in a 97164
residential facility; 97165

       (10) The rights of residents of residential facilities and 97166
procedures to protect such rights; 97167

       (11) Procedures for obtaining an affiliation agreement 97168
approved by the board between a residential facility and a 97169
community mental health agencyservices provider;97170

       (12) Standards and procedures under which the director may 97171
waive the requirements of any of the rules adopted.97172

       (M)(L)(1) The department may withhold the source of any 97173
complaint reported as a violation of this section when the 97174
department determines that disclosure could be detrimental to the 97175
department's purposes or could jeopardize the investigation. The 97176
department may disclose the source of any complaint if the 97177
complainant agrees in writing to such disclosure and shall 97178
disclose the source upon order by a court of competent 97179
jurisdiction.97180

       (2) Any person who makes a complaint under division (M)(L)(1) 97181
of this section, or any person who participates in an 97182
administrative or judicial proceeding resulting from such a 97183
complaint, is immune from civil liability and is not subject to 97184
criminal prosecution, other than for perjury, unless the person 97185
has acted in bad faith or with malicious purpose.97186

       (N)(M)(1) The director of mental healthmental health and 97187
addiction services may petition the court of common pleas of the 97188
county in which a residential facility is located for an order 97189
enjoining any person from operating a residential facility without 97190
a license or from operating a licensed facility when, in the 97191
director's judgment, there is a present danger to the health or 97192
safety of any of the occupants of the facility. The court shall 97193
have jurisdiction to grant such injunctive relief upon a showing 97194
that the respondent named in the petition is operating a facility 97195
without a license or there is a present danger to the health or 97196
safety of any residents of the facility.97197

       (2) When the court grants injunctive relief in the case of a 97198
facility operating without a license, the court shall issue, at a 97199
minimum, an order enjoining the facility from admitting new 97200
residents to the facility and an order requiring the facility to 97201
assist with the safe and orderly relocation of the facility's 97202
residents. 97203

       (3) If injunctive relief is granted against a facility for 97204
operating without a license and the facility continues to operate 97205
without a license, the director shall refer the case to the 97206
attorney general for further action.97207

       (O)(N) The director may fine a person for violating division 97208
(I)(H) of this section. The fine shall be five hundred dollars for 97209
a first offense; for each subsequent offense, the fine shall be 97210
one thousand dollars. The director's actions in imposing a fine 97211
shall be taken in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 97212
Code.97213

       Sec. 5119.341. (A) Any person may operate a residential 97214
facility providing accommodations and personal care services for 97215
one to five unrelated persons and licensed as a residential 97216
facility that meets the criteria specified in division (A)(9)(b) 97217
of section 5119.34 of the Revised Code as a permitted use in any 97218
residential district or zone, including any single-family 97219
residential district or zone of any political subdivision. Such 97220
facilities may be required to comply with area, height, yard, and 97221
architectural compatibility requirements that are uniformly 97222
imposed upon all single-family residences within the district or 97223
zone.97224

       (B) Any person may operate a residential facility providing 97225
accommodations and personal care services for six to sixteen 97226
persons and licensed as a residential facility that meets the 97227
criteria specified in division (A)(9)(b) of section 5119.34 of the 97228
Revised Code as a permitted use in any multiple-family residential 97229
district or zone of any political subdivision, except that a 97230
political subdivision that has enacted a zoning ordinance or 97231
resolution establishing planned-unit developments as defined in 97232
section 519.021 of the Revised Code may exclude such facilities 97233
from such districts, and a political subdivision that has enacted 97234
a zoning ordinance or resolution may regulate such facilities in 97235
multiple-family residential districts or zones as a conditionally 97236
permitted use or special exception, in either case, under 97237
reasonable and specific standards and conditions set out in the 97238
zoning ordinance or resolution to: 97239

       (1) Require the architectural design and site layout of the 97240
home and the location, nature, and height of any walls, screens, 97241
and fences to be compatible with adjoining land uses and the 97242
residential character of the neighborhood;97243

       (2) Require compliance with yard, parking, and sign 97244
regulation.97245

       (C) Divisions (A) and (B) of this section do not affect any 97246
right of a political subdivision to permit a person to operate a 97247
residential facility licensed under section 5119.34 of the Revised 97248
Code in a single-family residential district or zone under 97249
conditions established by the political subdivision.97250

       (D)(1) Notwithstanding divisions (A) and (B) of this section 97251
and except as provided in division (D)(2) of this section, a 97252
political subdivision that has enacted a zoning ordinance or 97253
resolution may limit the excessive concentration of licensed 97254
residential facilities that meet the criteria specified in 97255
division (A)(9)(b) of section 5119.34 of the Revised Code.97256

       (2) Division (D)(1) of this section does not authorize a 97257
political subdivision to prevent or limit the continued existence 97258
and operation of residential facilities existing and operating on 97259
September 10, 2012, and that meet the criteria specified in 97260
division (A)(9)(b) of section 5119.34 of the Revised Code. A 97261
political subdivision may consider the existence of such 97262
facilities for the purpose of limiting the excessive concentration 97263
of such facilities that meet the criteria specified in division 97264
(A)(9)(b) of section 5119.34 of the Revised Code that are not 97265
existing and operating on September 10, 2012.97266

       Sec. 5119.221.        Sec. 5119.342.  (A) Upon petition by the director of 97267
mental healthmental health and addiction services, the court of 97268
common pleas or the probate court may appoint a receiver to take 97269
possession of and operate a residential facility licensed pursuant 97270
to section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code, when conditions 97271
existing at the residential facility present a substantial risk of 97272
physical or mental harm to residents and no other remedies at law 97273
are adequate to protect the health, safety, and welfare of the 97274
residents.97275

       Petitions filed pursuant to this section shall include:97276

       (1) A description of the specific conditions existing at the 97277
residential facility which present a substantial risk of physical 97278
or mental harm to residents;97279

       (2) A statement of the absence of other adequate remedies at 97280
law;97281

       (3) The number of individuals residing at the facility;97282

       (4) A statement that the facts have been brought to the 97283
attention of the owner or licensee and that conditions have not 97284
been remedied within a reasonable period of time or that the 97285
conditions, though remedied periodically, habitually exist at the 97286
residential facility as a pattern or practice; and97287

       (5) The name and address of the person holding the license 97288
for the residential facility.97289

       (B) A court in which a petition is filed pursuant to this 97290
section shall notify the person holding the license for the 97291
facility of the filing. The department shall send notice of the 97292
filing to the following, as appropriate: the Ohio protection and 97293
advocacy system as defined in section 5123.60 of the Revised Code; 97294
facility owner; facility operator; board of alcohol, drug 97295
addiction, and mental health services; board of health; department 97296
of developmental disabilities; department of job and family 97297
services; facility residents; and residents' families and 97298
guardians. The court shall provide a hearing on the petition 97299
within five court days of the time it was filed, except that the 97300
court may appoint a receiver prior to that time if it determines 97301
that the circumstances necessitate such action.97302

       Following a hearing on the petition, and upon a determination 97303
that the appointment of a receiver is warranted, the court shall 97304
appoint a receiver and notify the department of mental health97305
mental health and addiction services and appropriate persons of 97306
this action.97307

       In setting forth the powers of the receiver, the court may 97308
generally authorize the receiver to do all that is prudent and 97309
necessary to safely and efficiently operate the residential 97310
facility within the requirements of state and federal law, but 97311
shall require the receiver to obtain court approval prior to 97312
making any single expenditure of more than five thousand dollars 97313
to correct deficiencies in the structure or furnishings of a 97314
facility. The court shall closely review the conduct of the 97315
receiver and shall require regular and detailed reports.97316

       (C) A receivership established pursuant to this section shall 97317
be terminated, following notification of the appropriate parties 97318
and a hearing, if the court determines either of the following:97319

       (1) The residential facility has been closed and the former 97320
residents have been relocated to an appropriate facility;97321

       (2) Circumstances no longer exist at the residential facility 97322
which present a substantial risk of physical or mental harm to 97323
residents, and there is no deficiency in the residential facility 97324
that is likely to create a future risk of harm.97325

       Notwithstanding division (C)(2) of this section, the court 97326
shall not terminate a receivership for a residential facility that 97327
has previously operated under another receivership unless the 97328
responsibility for the operation of the facility is transferred to 97329
an operator approved by the court and the department of mental 97330
healthmental health and addiction services.97331

       (D) Except for the department of mental healthmental health 97332
and addiction services or appropriate board of alcohol, drug 97333
addiction, and mental health services, no party or person 97334
interested in an action shall be appointed a receiver pursuant to 97335
this section.97336

       To assist the court in identifying persons qualified to be 97337
named as receivers, the director of the department of mental 97338
healthmental health and addiction services shall maintain a list 97339
of the names of such persons. The department of mental health97340
mental health and addiction services, the department of job and 97341
family services, and the department of health shall provide 97342
technical assistance to any receiver appointed pursuant to this 97343
section.97344

       Before entering upon the duties of receiver, the receiver 97345
must be sworn to perform the duties faithfully, and, with surety 97346
approved by the court, judge, or clerk, execute a bond to such 97347
person, and in such sum as the court or judge directs, to the 97348
effect that such receiver will faithfully discharge the duties of 97349
receiver in the action, and obey the orders of the court therein.97350

       (1) Under the control of the appointing court, a receiver may 97351
do the following:97352

       (a) Bring and defend actions in the appointee's name as 97353
receiver;97354

       (b) Take and keep possession of property.97355

       (2) The court shall authorize the receiver to do the 97356
following:97357

       (a) Collect payment for all goods and services provided to 97358
the residents or others during the period of the receivership at 97359
the same rate as was charged by the licensee at the time the 97360
petition for receivership was filed, unless a different rate is 97361
set by the court;97362

       (b) Honor all leases, mortgages, and secured transactions 97363
governing all buildings, goods, and fixtures of which the receiver 97364
has taken possession, but, in the case of a rental agreement only 97365
to the extent of payments that are for the use of the property 97366
during the period of the receivership, or, in the case of a 97367
purchase agreement, only to the extent that payments come due 97368
during the period of the receivership;97369

       (c) If transfer of residents is necessary, provide for the 97370
orderly transfer of residents by:97371

       (i) Cooperating with all appropriate state and local agencies 97372
in carrying out the transfer of residents to alternative community 97373
placements;97374

       (ii) Providing for the transportation of residents' 97375
belongings and records;97376

       (iii) Helping to locate alternative placements and develop 97377
plans for transfer;97378

       (iv) Encouraging residents or guardians to participate in 97379
transfer planning except when an emergency exists and immediate 97380
transfer is necessary.97381

       (d) Make periodic reports on the status of the residential 97382
facility to the court; the appropriate state agencies; and the 97383
board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services. Each 97384
report shall be made available to residents, their guardians, and 97385
families.97386

       (e) Compromise demands or claims; and97387

       (f) Generally do such acts respecting the residential 97388
facility as the court authorizes.97389

       Notwithstanding any other provision of law, contracts which 97390
are necessary to carry out the powers and duties of the receiver 97391
need not be competitively bid.97392

       Sec. 5119.611.        Sec. 5119.36. (A) A community mental health agency97393
services provider applicant or community addiction services 97394
provider applicant that seeks certification of its community 97395
mental health services or community addiction services shall 97396
submit an application to the director of mental healthmental 97397
health and addiction services. On receipt of the application, the 97398
director may visitconduct an on-site review and shall evaluate 97399
the agencyprovider to determine whether its services satisfy the 97400
standards established by rules adopted under division (C)(E) of 97401
this section. The director shall make the evaluation, and, if the 97402
director visitsconducts an on-site review of the agency97403
provider, shallmay make the visitreview, in cooperation with 97404
the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 97405
with which the agencyprovider seeks to contract under division 97406
(A)(8)(a) of section 340.03 of the Revised Code.97407

       (B) Subject to section 5119.6125119.37 of the Revised Code, 97408
the director shall determine whether the services of an 97409
applicant's community mental health agencyapplicant satisfy the 97410
standards for certification of the services. If the director 97411
determines that a community mental health agency's services 97412
provider's or a community addiction services provider's services97413
satisfy the standards for certification and the agencyprovider97414
has paid the fee required under division (D) of this section, the 97415
director shall certify the services. No community mental health 97416
services provider or community addiction services provider shall 97417
be eligible to receive state or federal funds, or funds 97418
administered by a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 97419
health services unless its services have been certified by the 97420
department.97421

       (C) If the director determines that a community mental health 97422
agency's services provider's or a community addiction services 97423
provider's services do not satisfy the standards for 97424
certification, the director shall identify the areas of 97425
noncompliance, specify what action is necessary to satisfy the 97426
standards, and may offer technical assistance to the provider and97427
to the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 97428
services so that the board may assist the agencyprovider in 97429
satisfying the standards. The director shall give the agency97430
provider a reasonable time within which to demonstrate that its 97431
services satisfy the standards or to bring the services into 97432
compliance with the standards. If the director concludes that the 97433
services continue to fail to satisfy the standards, the director 97434
may request that the board reallocate theany funds for the 97435
community mental health or addiction services the agencyprovider97436
was to provide to another community mental health agencyor 97437
addiction services provider whose community mental health or 97438
community addiction services satisfy the standards. If the board 97439
does not reallocate thosesuch funds in a reasonable period of 97440
time, the director may withhold state and federal funds for the 97441
community mental health services and allocate those funds directly 97442
to a community mental health agencyor community addiction 97443
services provider whose community mental health services satisfy 97444
the standards.97445

       (D) Each community mental health agencyservices provider or 97446
community addiction services provider seeking certification of its 97447
community mental health or addiction services under this section 97448
shall pay a fee for the certification required by this section, 97449
unless the provider is exempt under rules adopted under division 97450
(E) of this section. Fees shall be paid into the state treasury to 97451
the credit of the sale of goods and services fund created pursuant 97452
to section 5119.1615119.45 of the Revised Code.97453

       (E) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 97454
119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. The rules 97455
shall do all of the following:97456

       (1) Establish certification standards for community mental 97457
health services, including assertive community treatment and 97458
intensive home-based mental health services,and addiction 97459
services that are consistent with nationally recognized applicable 97460
standards and facilitate participation in federal assistance 97461
programs. The rules shall include as certification standards only 97462
requirements that improve the quality of services or the health 97463
and safety of clients ofpersons receiving community mental health 97464
and addiction services. The standards shall address at a minimum 97465
all of the following:97466

       (a) Reporting major unusual incidents to the director;97467

       (b) Procedures for applicants for and clients ofpersons 97468
receiving community mental health and addiction services to file 97469
grievances and complaints;97470

       (c) Seclusion;97471

       (d) Restraint;97472

       (e) Requirements regarding physical facilities of service 97473
delivery sites;97474

       (f) Requirements with regard to health, safety, adequacy, and 97475
cultural specificity and sensitivity;97476

       (g) Standards for evaluating services;97477

       (h) Standards and procedures for granting full or conditional 97478
certification to a service provider;97479

       (i) Standards and procedures for revoking the certification 97480
of a provider's services that do not continue to meet the minimum 97481
standards established pursuant to this section;97482

       (j) The limitations to be placed on a provider that is 97483
granted conditional certification;97484

       (k) Development of written policies addressing the rights of 97485
clientspersons receiving services, including all of the 97486
following:97487

       (i) The right to a copy of the written policies addressing 97488
clientthe rights of persons receiving services;97489

       (ii) The right at all times to be treated with consideration 97490
and respect for the client'sperson's privacy and dignity;97491

       (iii) The right to have access to the client'sperson's own 97492
psychiatric, medical, or other treatment records unless access is 97493
specifically restricted in the client'sperson's treatment plan 97494
for clear treatment reasons;97495

       (iv) The right to have a client rights officer provided by 97496
the agencyservices provider or board of alcohol, drug addiction, 97497
and mental health services advise the clientperson of the 97498
client'sperson's rights, including the client'sperson's rights 97499
under Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code if the clientperson is 97500
committed to the agencyprovider or board.97501

       (2) Establish standards for qualifications of mental health 97502
professionals as defined in section 340.02 of the Revised Code and 97503
personnel who provide the community mental health services;97504

       (3) Establish the process for certification of community 97505
mental health and addiction services;97506

       (4)(3) Set the amount of certification review fees based on a 97507
portion of the cost of performing the review;97508

       (5)(4) Specify the type of notice and hearing to be provided 97509
prior to a decision on whether to reallocate funds.97510

       (F) The department shall maintain a current list of providers 97511
whose addiction services are certified by the department under 97512
division (B) of this section and shall provide a copy of the list 97513
to a judge of a court of common pleas who requests a copy for the 97514
use of the judge under division (H) of section 2925.03 of the 97515
Revised Code. The list of certified addiction services shall 97516
identify each provider by its name, its address, and the county in 97517
which it is located.97518

       (G) No person shall represent in any manner that a provider 97519
is certified by the department if the provider is not certified at 97520
the time the representation is made.97521

       Sec. 5119.613.        Sec. 5119.361. The director of mental healthmental 97522
health and addiction services shall require that each board of 97523
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services ensure that 97524
each community mental health agencyservices provider and 97525
community addiction services provider with which it contracts 97526
under division (A)(8)(a) of section 340.03 of the Revised Code to 97527
provide community mental health or addiction services establish 97528
grievance procedures consistent with rules adopted under section 97529
5119.6115119.36 of the Revised Code that are available to all 97530
applicants for and clients of thepersons seeking or receiving 97531
services from a community mental health or addiction services 97532
provider.97533

       Sec. 5119.612.        Sec. 5119.37.  (A) In lieu of a determination by the 97534
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services of 97535
whether the services of a community mental health agencyservices 97536
provider or a community addiction services provider satisfy the 97537
standards for certification under section 5119.6115119.36 of the 97538
Revised Code, the director shall accept appropriate accreditation 97539
of an applicant's mental health services, alcohol and drug 97540
addiction services, integrated mental health and alcohol and other 97541
drug addiction services, or integrated mental health and physical 97542
health services, or integrated alcohol and other drug addiction 97543
and physical health services being provided in this state from any 97544
of the following national accrediting organizations as evidence 97545
that the applicant satisfies the standards for certification:97546

       (1) The joint commission;97547

       (2) The commission on accreditation of rehabilitation 97548
facilities;97549

       (3) The council on accreditation;97550

       (4) Other behavioral health accreditation as determined by 97551
the director.97552

       (B) If the director determines that an applicant's 97553
accreditation is current, is appropriate for the services for 97554
which the applicant is seeking certification, and the applicant 97555
meets any other requirements established under this section or in 97556
rules adopted under this section, the director shall certify the 97557
applicant's services that are accredited. Except as provided in 97558
division (C)(2) of this section, the director shall issue the 97559
certification without further evaluation of the services.97560

       (C) For purposes of this section, all of the following apply:97561

       (1) The director may review the accrediting organizations 97562
listed in division (A) of this section to evaluate whether the 97563
accreditation standards and processes used by the organizations 97564
are consistent with service delivery models the director considers 97565
appropriate for mental health services, alcohol or other drug 97566
addiction services, physical health services, or both. The 97567
director may communicate to an accrediting organization any 97568
identified concerns, trends, needs, and recommendations.97569

       (2) The director may visitconduct an on-site review or 97570
otherwise evaluate a community mental health agencyservices 97571
provider or a community addiction services provider at any time 97572
based on cause, including complaints made by or on behalf of 97573
consumerspersons receiving services and confirmed or alleged 97574
deficiencies brought to the attention of the director.97575

       (3) The director shall require a community mental health 97576
agencyservices provider and a community addiction services 97577
provider to notify the director not later than ten days after any 97578
change in the agency'sprovider's accreditation status. The agency97579
provider may notify the director by providing a copy of the 97580
relevant document the agencyprovider received from the 97581
accrediting organization.97582

       (4) The director shall require a community mental health 97583
agencyservices provider and a community addiction services 97584
provider to submit to the director reports of major unusual 97585
incidents.97586

       (5) The director may require a community mental health agency97587
services provider or a community addiction services provider to 97588
submit to the director cost reports pertaining to the agency97589
provider.97590

       (D) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 97591
119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. In adopting 97592
the rules, the director shall do all of the following:97593

       (1) Specify the documentation that must be submitted as 97594
evidence of holding appropriate accreditation;97595

       (2) Establish a process by which the director may review the 97596
accreditation standards and processes used by the national 97597
accrediting organizations listed in division (A) of this section;97598

       (3) Specify the circumstances under which reports of major 97599
unusual incidents and agencyprovider cost reports must be 97600
submitted to the director;97601

       (4) Specify the circumstances under which the director may 97602
visitconduct an on-site review or otherwise evaluate a community 97603
mental health agencyservices provider and a community addiction 97604
services provider for cause;97605

       (5) Establish a process by which the director, based on 97606
deficiencies identified as a result of visitingconducting an 97607
on-site review or evaluating a community mental health agency97608
services provider or a community addiction services provider under 97609
division (C)(2) of this section, may take any of a range of 97610
corrective actions, with the most stringent being revocation of 97611
the certification of the agency'sprovider's services.97612

       Sec. 3793.10.        Sec. 5119.38.  A drivers' intervention program may be 97613
used as an alternative to a term of imprisonment for an offender 97614
sentenced pursuant to division (G)(1)(a) of section 4511.19 of the 97615
Revised Code, if it is certified by the director of alcohol and 97616
drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction services97617
pursuant to this section. No drivers' intervention program shall 97618
be used as an alternative to a term of imprisonment that is 97619
imposed pursuant to division (G)(1)(b), (c), (d), or (e) of 97620
section 4511.19 of the Revised Code.97621

       To qualify for certification by the director and to receive 97622
funds from the statewide treatment and prevention fund created by 97623
section 4301.30 of the Revised Code in any amounts and at any 97624
times that the director determines are appropriate, a drivers' 97625
intervention program shall meet state minimum standards that the 97626
director shall establish by rule. The rules shall include, but are 97627
not limited to, standards governing program course hours and 97628
content, qualifications of program personnel, methods of 97629
identifying and testing participants to isolate participants with 97630
alcohol and drug abuse problems, referral of such persons to 97631
alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programsservices providers, 97632
the prompt notification of courts by program operators of the 97633
completion of the programs by persons required by courts to attend 97634
them, and record keeping, including methods of tracking 97635
participants for a reasonable time after they have left the 97636
program.97637

       The director shall issue a certificate to any qualified 97638
drivers' intervention program. The certificate is valid for three 97639
years.97640

       Sec. 3793.11.        Sec. 5119.39.  (A) No alcohol and drugcommunity97641
addiction programservices provider shall employ methadone 97642
treatment or prescribe, dispense, or administer methadone unless 97643
the program is licensed under this section. No alcohol and drug97644
community addiction programservices provider licensed under this 97645
section shall maintain methadone treatment in a manner 97646
inconsistent with this section and the rules adopted under it.97647

       (B) An alcohol and drugA community addiction program97648
services provider may apply to the department of alcohol and drug 97649
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services for a 97650
license to maintain methadone treatment. The department shall 97651
review all applications received.97652

       (C) The department may issue a license to maintain methadone 97653
treatment to an alcohol and drugcommunity addiction program97654
services provider only if all of the following apply:97655

       (1) The programprovider is operated by a private, nonprofit 97656
organization or by a government entity;97657

       (2) For at least two years immediately preceding the date of 97658
application, the programprovider has been fully certified under 97659
section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code;97660

       (3) The programprovider has not been denied a license to 97661
maintain methadone treatment or had its license withdrawn or 97662
revoked within the five-year period immediately preceding the date 97663
of application;97664

       (4) It affirmatively appears to the department that the 97665
programprovider is adequately staffed and equipped to maintain 97666
methadone treatment;97667

       (5) It affirmatively appears to the department that the 97668
programprovider will maintain methadone treatment in strict 97669
compliance with section 3719.61 of the Revised Code, all other 97670
laws relating to drug abuse, and the rules adopted by the 97671
department;97672

       (6) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, there 97673
is no public or private school, licensed child day-care center, or 97674
other child-serving agency within a radius of five hundred feet of 97675
the location where the program is to maintain methadone treatment.97676

        (D) The department may waive the requirement of division 97677
(C)(6) of this section if it receives, from each public or private 97678
school, licensed child day-care center, or other child-serving 97679
agency that is within the applicable radius of the location where 97680
the program is to maintain methadone treatment, a letter of 97681
support for the location. The department shall determine whether a 97682
letter of support is satisfactory for purposes of waiving the 97683
requirement.97684

       (E) A license to maintain methadone treatment shall expire 97685
one year from the date of issuance. Licenses may be renewed.97686

       (F) The department shall establish procedures and adopt rules 97687
for licensing, inspection, and supervision of alcohol and drug97688
community addiction programsservices providers that maintain 97689
methadone treatment. The rules shall establish standards for the 97690
control, storage, furnishing, use, and dispensing of methadone, 97691
prescribe minimum standards for the operation of the methadone 97692
treatment component of the program,provider's operations and 97693
comply with federal laws and regulations.97694

       All rules adopted under this division shall be adopted in 97695
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. All actions 97696
taken by the department regarding the licensing of programs97697
providers to maintain methadone treatment shall be conducted in 97698
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, except as 97699
provided in division (L) of this section.97700

       (G) The department of alcohol and drug addiction services97701
mental health and addiction services shall inspect all alcohol and 97702
drugcommunity addiction programsservices providers licensed to 97703
maintain methadone treatment. Inspections shall be conducted at 97704
least annually and may be conducted more frequently. No person or 97705
government entity shall interfere with a state or local government 97706
official acting on behalf of the department while conducting an 97707
inspection.97708

       (H) An alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programservices 97709
provider shall not administer or dispense methadone in a tablet, 97710
powder, or intravenous form. Methadone shall be administered or 97711
dispensed only in a liquid form intended for ingestion. A program97712
services provider shall not administer or dispense methadone to an 97713
individual for pain or other medical reasons.97714

       (I) As used in this division, "program sponsor" means a 97715
person who assumes responsibility for the operation and employees 97716
of the methadone treatment component of an alcohol and druga 97717
community addiction programservices provider.97718

        An alcohol and drugA community addiction programservices 97719
provider shall not employ an individual who receives methadone 97720
treatment from that programservices provider. A program shall not 97721
permit an individual to act as a programprovider sponsor, 97722
medical director, or director of the programprovider if the 97723
individual is receiving methadone treatment from any alcohol and 97724
drugcommunity addiction programservices provider.97725

       (J) The department may issue orders to assure compliance with 97726
section 3719.61 of the Revised Code, all other laws relating to 97727
drug abuse, and the rules adopted under this section. Subject to 97728
section 3793.135119.27 of the Revised Code, the department may 97729
hold hearings, require the production of relevant matter, compel 97730
testimony, issue subpoenas, and make adjudications. Upon failure 97731
of a person without lawful excuse to obey a subpoena or to produce 97732
relevant matter, the department may apply to a court of common 97733
pleas for an order compelling compliance.97734

       (K) The department may refuse to issue, or may withdraw or 97735
revoke, a license to maintain methadone treatment. A license may 97736
be refused if an alcohol and druga community addiction program97737
services provider does not meet the requirements of division (C) 97738
of this section. A license may be withdrawn at any time the 97739
department determines that the program no longer meets the 97740
requirements for receiving the license. A license may be revoked 97741
in accordance with division (L) of this section.97742

        In the case of a license issued prior to the effective date 97743
of this amendmentDecember 20, 2012, the department shall not 97744
consider the requirement of division (C)(6) of this section in 97745
determining whether to renew, withdraw, or revoke the license.97746

        (L) If the department of alcohol and drug addiction services97747
mental health and addiction services finds reasonable cause to 97748
believe that an alcohol and druga community addiction program97749
services provider licensed under this section is in violation of 97750
any provision of section 3719.61 of the Revised Code, or of any 97751
other state or federal law or rule relating to drug abuse, the 97752
department may issue an order immediately revoking the license, 97753
subject to division (M) of this section. The department shall set 97754
a date not more than fifteen days later than the date of the order 97755
of revocation for a hearing on the continuation or cancellation of 97756
the revocation. For good cause, the department may continue the 97757
hearing on application of any interested party. In conducting 97758
hearings, the department has all the authority and power set forth 97759
in division (J) of this section. Following the hearing, the 97760
department shall either confirm or cancel the revocation. The 97761
hearing shall be conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 97762
Revised Code, except that the programprovider shall not be 97763
permitted to maintain methadone treatment pending the hearing or 97764
pending any appeal from an adjudication made as a result of the 97765
hearing. Notwithstanding any provision of Chapter 119. of the 97766
Revised Code to the contrary, a court shall not stay or suspend 97767
any order of revocation issued by the director under this division 97768
pending judicial appeal.97769

       (M) The department shall not revoke a license to maintain 97770
methadone treatment unless all clientsservices recipients97771
receiving methadone treatment from the alcohol and drugcommunity97772
addiction programservices provider are provided adequate 97773
substitute treatment. For purposes of this division, the 97774
department may transfer the clientsservices recipients to other 97775
programs licensed to maintain methadone treatment or replace any 97776
or all of the administrators and staff of the programprovider97777
with representatives of the department who shall continue on a 97778
provisional basis the methadone treatment component of the 97779
program.97780

       (N) Each time the department receives an application from an 97781
alcohol and druga community addiction programservices provider97782
for a license to maintain methadone treatment, issues or refuses 97783
to issue a license, or withdraws or revokes a license, the 97784
department shall notify the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 97785
mental health services of each alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 97786
health service district in which the program is operatedprovider 97787
operates.97788

       (O) Whenever it appears to the department from files, upon 97789
complaint, or otherwise, that an alcohol and druga community97790
addiction programservices provider has engaged in any practice 97791
declared to be illegal or prohibited by section 3719.61 of the 97792
Revised Code, or any other state or federal laws or regulations 97793
relating to drug abuse, or when the department believes it to be 97794
in the best interest of the public and necessary for the 97795
protection of the citizens of the state, the department may 97796
request criminal proceedings by laying before the prosecuting 97797
attorney of the proper county any evidence of criminality which 97798
may come to its knowledge.97799

       (P) The department shall maintain a current list of alcohol 97800
and drugcommunity addiction programsservices providers licensed 97801
by the department under this section and shall provide a copy of 97802
the current list to a judge of a court of common pleas who 97803
requests a copy for the use of the judge under division (H) of 97804
section 2925.03 of the Revised Code. The list of licensed alcohol 97805
and drugcommunity addiction programsservices providers shall 97806
identify each licensed programprovider by its name, its address, 97807
and the county in which it is located.97808

       Sec. 5119.061.        Sec. 5119.40.  (A) As used in this section, 97809
"mentally ill individual" and "specialized services" have the same 97810
meanings as in section 5111.2025165.03 of the Revised Code.97811

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section 97812
and rules adopted under division (E)(3) of this section, for 97813
purposes of section 5111.2025165.03 of the Revised Code, the 97814
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services97815
shall determine in accordance with section 1919(e)(7) of the 97816
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935)section 1919(e)(7), 42 97817
U.S.C.A. 3011396r(e)(7), as amended, and regulations adopted 97818
under section 1919(f)(8)(A) of that act, 42 U.S.C. 1396r(f)(8)(A),97819
whether, because of the individual's physical and mental 97820
condition, a mentally ill individual seeking admission to a 97821
nursing facility requires the level of services provided by a 97822
nursing facility and, if the individual requires that level of 97823
services, whether the individual requires specialized services for 97824
mental illness. The determination required by this division shall 97825
be based on an independent physical and mental evaluation 97826
performed by a person or entity other than the department.97827

       (2) AExcept as provided in division (B)(3) of this section, 97828
a determination under this division (B)(1) of this section is not 97829
required for any of the following:97830

       (a) An individual seeking readmission to a nursing facility 97831
after having been transferred from a nursing facility to a 97832
hospital for care;97833

       (b) An individual who meets all of the following conditions:97834

       (i) The individual is admitted to the nursing facility 97835
directly from a hospital after receiving inpatient care at the 97836
hospital;97837

       (ii) The individual requires nursing facility services for 97838
the condition for which care in the hospital was received;97839

       (iii) The individual's attending physician has certified, 97840
before admission to the nursing facility, that the individual is 97841
likely to require less than thirty days of nursing facility 97842
services.97843

       (c) An individual transferred from one nursing facility to 97844
another nursing facility, with or without an intervening hospital 97845
stay.97846

       (3) A determination under division (B)(1) of this section is 97847
required for an individual described in division (B)(2)(a) or (b) 97848
of this section if the hospital from which the individual is 97849
transferred or directly admitted to a nursing facility is either 97850
of the following:97851

        (a) A hospital that the department maintains, operates, 97852
manages, and governs under section 5119.14 of the Revised Code for 97853
the care and treatment of mentally ill persons;97854

        (b) A free-standing hospital, or unit of a hospital, licensed 97855
by the department under section 5119.33 of the Revised Code.97856

       (C) Except as provided in rules adopted under division 97857
(F)(E)(3) of this section, the department of mental healthmental 97858
health and addiction services shall review and determine for each 97859
resident of a nursing facility who is mentally ill, whether the 97860
resident, because of the resident's physical and mental condition, 97861
requires the level of services provided by a nursing facility and 97862
whether the resident requires specialized services for mental 97863
illness. The review and determination shall be conducted in 97864
accordance with section 1919(e)(7) of the "Social Security Act" 97865
and the regulations adopted under section 1919(f)(8)(A) of the act 97866
and based on an independent physical and mental evaluation 97867
performed by a person or entity other than the department. The 97868
review and determination shall be completed promptly after a 97869
nursing facility has notified the department that there has been a 97870
significant change in the resident's mental or physical condition.97871

       (D)(1) In the case of a nursing facility resident who has 97872
continuously resided in a nursing facility for at least thirty 97873
months before the date of a review and determination under 97874
division (C) of this section, if the resident is determined not to 97875
require the level of services provided by a nursing facility, but 97876
is determined to require specialized services for mental illness, 97877
the department, in consultation with the resident's family or 97878
legal representative and care givers, shall do all of the 97879
following:97880

       (a) Inform the resident of the institutional and 97881
noninstitutional alternatives covered under the state plan for 97882
medical assistance;97883

       (b) Offer the resident the choice of remaining in the nursing 97884
facility or receiving covered services in an alternative 97885
institutional or noninstitutional setting;97886

       (c) Clarify the effect on eligibility for services under the 97887
state plan for medical assistance if the resident chooses to leave 97888
the facility, including its effect on readmission to the facility;97889

       (d) Provide for or arrange for the provision of specialized 97890
services for the resident's mental illness in the setting chosen 97891
by the resident.97892

       (2) In the case of a nursing facility resident who has 97893
continuously resided in a nursing facility for less than thirty 97894
months before the date of the review and determination under 97895
division (C) of this section, if the resident is determined not to 97896
require the level of services provided by a nursing facility, but 97897
is determined to require specialized services for mental illness, 97898
or if the resident is determined to require neither the level of 97899
services provided by a nursing facility nor specialized services 97900
for mental illness, the department shall act in accordance with 97901
its alternative disposition plan approved by the United States 97902
department of health and human services under section 97903
1919(e)(7)(E) of the "Social Security Act."97904

       (3) In the case of an individual who is determined under 97905
division (B) or (C) of this section to require both the level of 97906
services provided by a nursing facility and specialized services 97907
for mental illness, the department of mental healthmental health 97908
and addiction services shall provide or arrange for the provision 97909
of the specialized services needed by the individual or resident 97910
while residing in a nursing facility.97911

       (E) The department of mental healthmental health and 97912
addiction services shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 97913
119. of the Revised Code that do all of the following:97914

       (1) Establish criteria to be used in making the 97915
determinations required by divisions (B) and (C) of this section. 97916
The criteria shall not exceed the criteria established by 97917
regulations adopted by the United States department of health and 97918
human services under section 1919(f)(8)(A) of the "Social Security 97919
Act."97920

       (2) Specify information to be provided by the individual or 97921
nursing facility resident being assessed;97922

       (3) Specify any circumstances, in addition to circumstances 97923
listed in division (B) of this section, under which determinations 97924
under divisions (B) and (C) of this section are not required to be 97925
made.97926

       Sec. 5119.69.        Sec. 5119.41.  (A) As used in this section and 97927
section 5119.6915119.411 of the Revised Code:97928

       (1) "Long-term care consultation program" means the program 97929
the department of aging is required to develop under section 97930
173.42 of the Revised Code.97931

       (2) "Long-term care consultation program administrator" or 97932
"administrator" means the department of aging or, if the 97933
department contracts with an area agency on aging or other entity 97934
to administer the long-term care consultation program for a 97935
particular area, that agency or entity.97936

       (3) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 97937
5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code.97938

       (4)(2) "Residential state supplement administrative agency" 97939
means the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 97940
services or, if the department designates an entity under division 97941
(C) of this section for a particular area, the designated entity.97942

       (5)(3) "Residential state supplement program" means the 97943
program administered pursuant to this section.97944

       (B) The department of mental healthmental health and 97945
addiction services shall implement the residential state 97946
supplement program under which the state supplements the 97947
supplemental security income payments received by aged, blind, or 97948
disabled adults under Title XVI of the "Social Security Act," 49 97949
Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A., as amended1381 et seq. Residential 97950
state supplement payments shall be used for the provision of 97951
accommodations, supervision, and personal care services to social 97952
security, supplemental security income, and social security 97953
disability insurance recipients who the department determines are 97954
at risk of needing institutional care.97955

       (C) In implementing the program, the department may designate 97956
one or more entities to be responsible for providing 97957
administrative services regarding the program. The department may 97958
designate an entity to be a residential state supplement 97959
administrative agency under this division either by entering into 97960
a contract with the entity to serve in that capacity or by 97961
otherwise delegating to the entity the responsibility to serve in 97962
that capacity.97963

       (D) For an individual to be eligible for residential state 97964
supplement payments, all of the following must be the case:97965

       (1) Except as provided by division (H) of this section, the 97966
individual must reside in one of the following:97967

       (a) A home orresidential care facility, other than a nursing 97968
home or nursing home unit of a home for the aging, licensed by the 97969
department of health under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code or an 97970
assisted living program as defined in section 5111.89 of the 97971
Revised Code;97972

       (b) A residential facility as defined in division (A)(9)(b) 97973
of section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code licensed by the 97974
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services;97975

       (c) An apartment or room used to provide community mental 97976
health housing services certified by the department of mental 97977
healthmental health and addiction services under section 5119.61197978
5119.36 of the Revised Code and approved by a board of alcohol, 97979
drug addiction, and mental health services under division (A)(14) 97980
of section 340.03 of the Revised Code.97981

       (2) A residential state supplement administrative agency must 97982
have determined that the environment in which the individual will 97983
be living while receiving the payments is appropriate for the 97984
individual's needs. If the individual is eligible for social 97985
security payments, supplemental security income payments, or 97986
social security disability insurance benefits because of a mental 97987
disability, the residential state supplement administrative agency 97988
shall refer the individual to a community mental health agency97989
services provider for an assessment under division (A) of section 97990
340.091 of the Revised Code. 97991

       (3) The individual satisfies all eligibility requirements 97992
established by rules adopted under division (E) of this section.97993

       (E) The directorsdirector of mental healthmental health and 97994
addiction services and job and family servicesmedicaid director97995
shall adopt rules in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised 97996
Code as necessary to implement the residential state supplement 97997
program.97998

       To the extent permitted by Title XVI of the "Social Security 97999
Act," and any other provision of federal law, the medicaid98000
director of job and family services may adopt rules establishing 98001
standards for adjusting the eligibility requirements concerning 98002
the level of impairment a person must have so that the amount 98003
appropriated for the program by the general assembly is adequate 98004
for the number of eligible individuals. The rules shall not limit 98005
the eligibility of disabled persons solely on a basis classifying 98006
disabilities as physical or mental. The medicaid director of job 98007
and family services also may adopt rules that establish 98008
eligibility standards for aged, blind, or disabled individuals who 98009
reside in one of the homes or facilities specified in division 98010
(D)(1) of this section but who, because of their income, do not 98011
receive supplemental security income payments. The rules may 98012
provide that these individuals may include individuals who receive 98013
other types of benefits, including, social security payments or98014
social security disability insurance benefits provided under Title 98015
II of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A.98016
401, as amendedet seq. Notwithstanding division (B) of this 98017
section, such payments may be made if funds are available for 98018
them.98019

       The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 98020
services may adopt rules establishing the method to be used to 98021
determine the amount an eligible individual will receive under the 98022
program. The amount the general assembly appropriates for the 98023
program may be a factor included in the method that director 98024
establishes. 98025

       (F) The county department of job and family services of the 98026
county in which an applicant for the residential state supplement 98027
program resides shall determine whether the applicant meets income 98028
and resource requirements for the program.98029

       (G) The department of mental healthmental health and 98030
addiction services shall maintain a waiting list of any 98031
individuals eligible for payments under this section but not 98032
receiving them because moneys appropriated to the department for 98033
the purposes of this section are insufficient to make payments to 98034
all eligible individuals. An individual may apply to be placed on 98035
the waiting list even though the individual does not reside in one 98036
of the homes or facilities specified in division (D)(1) of this 98037
section at the time of application. The director of mental health98038
mental health and addiction services, by rules adopted in 98039
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, may specify 98040
procedures and requirements for placing an individual on the 98041
waiting list and priorities for the order in which individuals 98042
placed on the waiting list are to begin to receive residential 98043
state supplement payments. The rules specifying priorities may 98044
give priority to individuals placed on the waiting list on or 98045
after July 1, 2006, who receive social security payments, social 98046
security disability insurance, or supplemental security income 98047
benefits under Title XVI of the "Social Security Act," 86 Stat. 98048
1475 (1972), 42 U.S.C. 1381, as amendedet seq. The rules shall 98049
not affect the place on the waiting list of any person who was on 98050
the list on July 1, 2006. The rules specifying priorities may also 98051
set additional priorities based on living arrangement, such as 98052
whether an individual resides in a facility listed in division 98053
(D)(1) of this section or has been admitted to a nursing facility.98054

       (H) An individual in a licensed or certified living 98055
arrangement receiving state supplementation on November 15, 1990, 98056
under former section 5101.531 of the Revised Code shall not become 98057
ineligible for payments under this section solely by reason of the 98058
individual's living arrangement as long as the individual remains 98059
in the living arrangement in which the individual resided on 98060
November 15, 1990.98061

       (I) The department of mental healthcounty department of job 98062
and family services from which the person is receiving benefits98063
shall notify each person denied approval for payments under this 98064
section of the person's right to a hearing. On request, the 98065
hearing shall be provided in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 98066
Revised Code.98067

       Sec. 5119.691.        Sec. 5119.411. On a periodic schedule determined by 98068
the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 98069
services, each residential state supplement administrative agency 98070
shall determine whether individuals who reside in the area that 98071
the agency serves and are on a waiting list for the residential 98072
state supplement program have been admitted to a nursing facility. 98073
IfThe department shall have a process in place to ensure that if98074
a residential state supplement administrative agency determines 98075
that such an individual has been admitted to a nursing facility, 98076
the agency shall notify the long-term care consultation program 98077
administrator serving the area in which the individual resides 98078
about the determination. The administrator shall determinethere 98079
shall be a determination whether the residential state supplement 98080
program is appropriate for the individual and whether the 98081
individual would rather participate in the program than continue 98082
residing in the nursing facility. If the administrator determines98083
it is determined that the residential state supplement program is 98084
appropriate for the individual and the individual would rather 98085
participate in the program than continue residing in the nursing 98086
facility, the administrator shall so notify the department of 98087
mental health. On receipt of the notice from the administrator, 98088
the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 98089
services shall approve the individual's enrollment in the 98090
residential state supplement program in accordance with the 98091
priorities specified in rules adopted under division (G) of 98092
section 5119.695119.41 of the Revised Code. Each quarter in which 98093
a waiting list is in place, the department of mental healthmental 98094
health and addiction services shall certify to the director of 98095
budget and management the estimated increase in costs of the 98096
residential state supplement program resulting from enrollment of 98097
individuals in the program pursuant to this section.98098

       Sec. 5119.63.        Sec. 5119.42.  (A) As used in this section, "private, 98099
nonprofit organization" means a private association, organization, 98100
corporation, or other entity that is tax exempt under section 98101
501(a) and described in section 501(c) of the "Internal Revenue 98102
Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 501.98103

       (B) To the extent funds are available and on application by 98104
boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, the 98105
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services may 98106
approve state reimbursement of, or state grants for, community 98107
mental health construction programs including residential housing 98108
for severely mentally disabled persons and persons with substance 98109
use disorders. The director may also approve an application for 98110
reimbursement or a grant for such programs submitted by other 98111
governmental entities or by private, nonprofit organizations, 98112
after the application has been reviewed and recommended for 98113
approval or disapproval by the board of alcohol, drug addiction, 98114
and mental health services for the district from which the 98115
application came, and the application is consistent with the plan 98116
submitted by the board under division (A) of section 340.03 of the 98117
Revised Code and the budget and statement of services submitted by 98118
the board under divisions (A) and (B) of section 340.08 of the 98119
Revised Code.98120

       (C)(1) The director of mental healthmental health and 98121
addiction services shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 98122
119. of the Revised Code that specify procedures for applying for 98123
state reimbursement of and state grants for community construction 98124
programs, including residential housing for severely mentally 98125
disabled persons and persons with substance use disorders and 98126
procedures and criteria for approval of such reimbursement and 98127
grants.98128

       (2) The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 98129
services shall not approve state reimbursement or a state grant 98130
unless all of the following conditions are met:98131

       (a) The applicant includes with the application a plan 98132
specifying the services, in addition to housing, that will be 98133
provided to persons who will reside in the residential housing. 98134
Services specified may include any of the services listed98135
described in section 340.09 of the Revised Code.98136

       (b) The director is satisfied that the residential housing 98137
for severely mentally disabled persons will be developed to 98138
promote the maximum practical integration of severely mentally 98139
disabled persons with persons at the same site who are not 98140
severely mentally disabled.98141

       (c) The use of any funds distributed pursuant to the 98142
reimbursement or grant will not subject any obligation from which 98143
the funds are derived to federal income taxation.98144

       (3) The director may enter into an agreement establishing 98145
terms for any reimbursement or grant approved under this division 98146
with the organization, board, or other government entity that is 98147
the recipient of the reimbursement or grant. Any such agreement is 98148
subject to any covenant or agreement pertaining to any obligation 98149
issued to provide funds for the reimbursement or grant.98150

       Sec. 5119.631.        Sec. 5119.421.  (A) This section applies to a board 98151
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, another 98152
governmental entity, or a private, nonprofit organization that 98153
received a grant or reimbursement under section 5119.635119.42 of 98154
the Revised Code for a facility on which the department of mental 98155
healthmental health and addiction services holds a security 98156
interest.98157

       (B) A board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 98158
services, another governmental entity, or a private, nonprofit 98159
organization to which this section applies may apply to the 98160
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services for 98161
approval to sell its facility and acquire, construct, or renovate 98162
a replacement facility pursuant to this section. The director 98163
shall prescribe the form of the application. Before submitting an 98164
application to the director, a governmental entity or private, 98165
nonprofit organization must obtain approval of the application 98166
from the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 98167
services with jurisdiction over the service district in which the 98168
existing facility is located. The director shall approve an 98169
application for a replacement project upon determining that the 98170
project provides for the continuation of appropriate mental health 98171
and addiction services to the population served by the board, 98172
entity, or organization.98173

       (C) A board, entity, or organization that obtains approval 98174
for a project under division (B) of this section shall pay the 98175
proceeds of the sale of its facility to the director of mental 98176
healthmental health and addiction services. The director shall 98177
deposit the proceeds to the credit of the community capital 98178
replacement facilities fund.98179

       (D) When a board, entity, or organization that has sold its 98180
facility notifies the director of mental healthmental health and 98181
addiction services that it is ready to acquire, construct, or 98182
renovate a replacement facility, the director shall do one of the 98183
following:98184

       (1) If the replacement facility is located in the same 98185
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district as the 98186
original facility, and if the purposes for which the replacement 98187
facility will be used are the same as or similar to those for the 98188
original facility, the director shall pay to the board, entity, or 98189
organization from the community capital replacement facilities 98190
fund an amount equal to the lesser of an amount equal to the 98191
proceeds of the sale of the original facility or the amount of the 98192
state's agreed-upon participation (as a per cent of the total 98193
cost) in the cost of the replacement facility. If the amount of 98194
the state's agreed-upon participation in the cost of the 98195
replacement facility is less than the value of the state's 98196
security interest in the original facility, the difference between 98197
the state's agreed-upon participation in the cost of the 98198
replacement facility and the value of the state's security 98199
interest in the original facility shall be retained in the 98200
community capital replacement facilities fund, and any excess 98201
proceeds shall be paid to the board, entity, or organization.98202

       (2) If the replacement facility is located in a different 98203
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district than 98204
the original facility, or if the purposes for which the 98205
replacement facility will be used are not the same as or similar 98206
to those for the original facility, the director shall request 98207
controlling board approval for release of funds for the project. 98208
If the controlling board so approves, the director shall pay to 98209
the board, entity, or organization from the community capital 98210
replacement facilities fund the lesser of an amount equal to the 98211
proceeds of the sale of the original facility or the amount of the 98212
state's agreed-upon participation (as a per cent of the total 98213
cost) in the cost of the replacement facility. ifIf the amount of 98214
the state's agreed-upon participation in the cost of the 98215
replacement facility is less than the value of the state's 98216
security interest in the original facility, the difference between 98217
the state's agreed-upon participation in the cost of the 98218
replacement facility and the value of the state's security 98219
interest in the original facility shall be retained in the 98220
community capital replacement facilities fund, and any excess 98221
proceeds shall be paid to the board, entity, or organization.98222

       (E) The director of mental healthmental health and addiction 98223
services and a board, entity, or organization shall enter into an 98224
agreement specifying the terms of any payment made to the board, 98225
entity, or organization under division (D) of this section. The 98226
terms may include provision for the department of mental health98227
mental health and addiction services to hold a security interest 98228
in the facility.98229

       (F)(1) When approving an application under division (B) of 98230
this section, the director of mental healthmental health and 98231
addiction services shall establish a deadline by which the board, 98232
entity, or organization must notify the director that it is ready 98233
to acquire, construct, or renovate a replacement facility. If the 98234
board, entity, or organization does not notify the director on or 98235
before the deadline, the director may cancel the project. Upon 98236
canceling the project, the director shall pay to the board, 98237
entity, or organization from the community capital replacement 98238
facilities fund an amount equal to the portion of the proceeds of 98239
the sale of the original facility that exceeds the value of the 98240
state's security interest in the facility.98241

       (2) Notwithstanding the deadline established under division 98242
(F)(1) of this section, if at any time a board, entity, or 98243
organization notifies the director that it does not intend to 98244
acquire, construct, or renovate a replacement facility under this 98245
section, the director shall cancel the replacement project and pay 98246
to the board, entity, or organization from the community capital 98247
replacement facilities fund an amount equal to the portion of the 98248
proceeds of the sale of the original facility that exceeds the 98249
value of the state's security interest in the facility.98250

       (G) If a replacement project is canceled after the sale of 98251
the original facility, the director of mental healthmental health 98252
and addiction services shall use funds equal to the value of the 98253
state's security interest in the original facility for additional 98254
grants or reimbursements under section 5119.635119.42 of the 98255
Revised Code. The director shall obtain the approval of the 98256
controlling board before releasing the additional grants or 98257
reimbursements.98258

       (H) The community capital replacement facilities fund is 98259
hereby created in the state treasury. The director of mental 98260
healthmental health and addiction services shall use the fund for 98261
the purposes of this section.98262

       Sec. 5119.16.        Sec. 5119.44.  As used in this section, "free clinic" 98263
has the same meaning as in section 2305.2341 of the Revised Code.98264

       (A) The department of mental healthmental health and 98265
addiction services may provide certain goods and services for the 98266
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services, 98267
the department of developmental disabilities, the department of 98268
rehabilitation and correction, the department of youth services, 98269
and other state, county, or municipal agencies requesting such 98270
goods and services when the department of mental healthmental 98271
health and addiction services determines that it is in the public 98272
interest, and considers it advisable, to provide these goods and 98273
services. The department of mental healthmental health and 98274
addiction services also may provide goods and services to agencies 98275
operated by the United States government and to public or private 98276
nonprofit agencies, other than free clinics, that are funded in 98277
whole or in part by the state if the public or private nonprofit 98278
agencies are designated for participation in this program by the 98279
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services98280
for community addiction services providers and community mental 98281
health agenciesservices providers, the director of developmental 98282
disabilities for community mental retardation and developmental 98283
disabilities agencies, the director of rehabilitation and 98284
correction for community rehabilitation and correction agencies, 98285
or the director of youth services for community youth services 98286
agencies. 98287

       Designated community agencies or services providers shall 98288
receive goods and services through the department of mental health98289
mental health and addiction services only in those cases where the 98290
designating state agency certifies that providing such goods and 98291
services to the agency or services provider will conserve public 98292
resources to the benefit of the public and where the provision of 98293
such goods and services is considered feasible by the department 98294
of mental healthmental health and addiction services.98295

       (B) The department of mental healthmental health and 98296
addiction services may permit free clinics to purchase certain 98297
goods and services to the extent the purchases fall within the 98298
exemption to the Robinson-Patman Act, 15 U.S.C. 13 et seq., 98299
applicable to nonprofit institutions, in 15 U.S.C. 13c, as 98300
amended.98301

       (C) The goods and services that may be provided by the 98302
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services98303
under divisions (A) and (B) of this section may include:98304

       (1) Procurement, storage, processing, and distribution of 98305
food and professional consultation on food operations;98306

       (2) Procurement, storage, and distribution of medical and 98307
laboratory supplies, dental supplies, medical records, forms, 98308
optical supplies, and sundries, subject to section 5120.135 of the 98309
Revised Code;98310

       (3) Procurement, storage, repackaging, distribution, and 98311
dispensing of drugs, the provision of professional pharmacy 98312
consultation, and drug information services;98313

       (4) Other goods and services.98314

       (D) The department of mental healthmental health and 98315
addiction services may provide the goods and services designated 98316
in division (C) of this section to its institutions and to 98317
state-operated community-based mental health or addiction services 98318
providers.98319

       (E) After consultation with and advice from the director of 98320
developmental disabilities, the director of rehabilitation and 98321
correction, and the director of youth services, the department of 98322
mental healthmental health and addiction services may provide the 98323
goods and services designated in division (C) of this section to 98324
the department of developmental disabilities, the department of 98325
rehabilitation and correction, and the department of youth 98326
services.98327

       (F) The cost of administration of this section shall be 98328
determined by the department of mental healthmental health and 98329
addiction services and paid by the agencies, services providers,98330
or free clinics receiving the goods and services to the department 98331
for deposit in the state treasury to the credit of the mental 98332
healthoffice of support services fund, which is hereby created. 98333
The fund shall be used to pay the cost of administration of this 98334
section to the department.98335

       (G) Whenever a state agency fails to make a payment for goods 98336
and services provided under this section within thirty-one days 98337
after the date the payment was due, the office of budget and 98338
management may transfer moneys from the state agency to the 98339
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services. 98340
The amount transferred shall not exceed the amount of overdue 98341
payments. Prior to making a transfer under this division, the 98342
office of budget and management shall apply any credits the state 98343
agency has accumulated in payments for goods and services provided 98344
under this section.98345

       (H) Purchases of goods and services under this section are 98346
not subject to section 307.86 of the Revised Code.98347

       Sec. 5119.161.        Sec. 5119.45.  Unless otherwise specifically 98348
provided by law, all moneys received by the department of mental 98349
healthmental health and addiction services from the sale of goods 98350
and services, including, but not limited to, shared service 98351
agreements with other governmental entities and nongovernmental 98352
entities, employee housing and cafeteria receipts, fees for 98353
copying services, and sales of other tangible personal property 98354
under the department's control, shall be paid into the state 98355
treasury to the credit of the sale of goods and services fund, 98356
which is hereby created. Moneys received by the department 98357
pursuant to section 5119.165119.44 of the Revised Code shall not 98358
be paid into the fund. The department shall use the moneys in the 98359
fund for paying operating expenses of the department.98360

       Sec. 5119.18.        Sec. 5119.46.  There is hereby created in the state 98361
treasury the department of mental healthmental health and 98362
addiction services trust fund. Not later than the first day of 98363
September of each year, the director of mental healthmental 98364
health and addiction services shall certify to the director of 98365
budget and management the amount of all of the unexpended, 98366
unencumbered balances of general revenue fund appropriations made 98367
to the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 98368
services for the previous fiscal year, excluding funds 98369
appropriated for rental payments to the Ohio public facilities 98370
commission. On receipt of the certification, the director of 98371
budget and management shall transfer cash to the trust fund in an 98372
amount up to, but not exceeding, the total of the amounts 98373
certified by the director of mental healthmental health and 98374
addiction services.98375

       In addition, the trust fund shall receive all amounts, 98376
subject to any provisions in bond documents, received from the 98377
sale or lease of lands and facilities by the department.98378

       All moneys in the trust fund shall be used by the department 98379
of mental healthmental health and addiction services to pay for 98380
expenditures the department incurs in performing any of its duties 98381
under this chapter. The use of moneys in the trust fund pursuant 98382
to this section does not represent an ongoing commitment to the 98383
continuation of the trust fund or to the use of moneys in the 98384
trust fund.98385

       Sec. 3793.032.        Sec. 5119.47.  The director of alcohol and drug 98386
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services shall 98387
administer the problem casino gambling and addictions fund. The 98388
director shall use the money in the fund to support programs that 98389
provide gambling addiction services, alcohol and drug addiction 98390
programs that provide alcohol and drug addiction services, other 98391
programsservices that relate to gambling addiction and substance 98392
abuse, and research that relates to gambling addiction and 98393
substance abuse. Treatment and prevention services provided under 98394
programs supported by money in the fund under this section shall 98395
be services that are provided by alcohol and drug addiction 98396
treatment programs certified by the department of alcohol and 98397
drug addiction services or provided by counselors who are 98398
certified by the departmentmental health and addiction services. 98399
Prevention services provided under programssupported by money in 98400
the fund under this section shall be services that are provided by 98401
alcohol and drug addiction prevention programs certified by the 98402
department of alcohol and drug addiction services.98403

       The director shall prepare an annual report describing the 98404
use of the fund for these purposes. The director shall submit the 98405
report to the Ohio casino control commission, the speaker and 98406
minority leader of the house of representatives, the president and 98407
minority leader of the senate, the governor, and the joint 98408
committee on gaming and wagering.98409

       Sec. 3793.22.        Sec. 5119.49. (A) The director of alcohol and drug 98410
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services shall 98411
collaborate with the state board of pharmacy and attorney general 98412
in the establishment and administration of a drug take-back 98413
program, as provided under section 4729.69 of the Revised Code.98414

       (B) The department may accept grants, gifts, or donations for 98415
purposes of the program. Money received under this division shall 98416
be deposited into the drug take-back program fund established 98417
under section 109.90 of the Revised Code.98418

       Sec. 5119.34.        Sec. 5119.50.  The director of mental healthmental 98419
health and addiction services may accept, hold, and administer in 98420
trust on behalf of the state, if it is for the public interest, 98421
any grant, gift, devise, or bequest of money or property made to 98422
the state for the use or benefit of any institution described in 98423
section 5119.025119.14 of the Revised Code or for the use and 98424
benefit of mentally ill persons under its control. If the trust so 98425
provides, the money or property may be used for any work which the 98426
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services98427
is authorized to undertake.98428

       The department shall keep such gift, grant, devise, or 98429
bequest as a distinct property or fund and, if it is in money, 98430
shall invest it in the manner provided by law. The department may 98431
deposit in a proper trust company or savings bank any money left 98432
in trust during a specified life or lives and shall adopt rules 98433
governing the deposit, transfer, withdrawal, or investment of such 98434
money and the income thereof.98435

       The department shall, in the manner prescribed by the 98436
director of budget and management pursuant to section 126.21 of 98437
the Revised Code, account for all money or property received or 98438
expended under this section. The records, together with a 98439
statement certified by the depository showing the funds deposited 98440
there to the credit of the trust, shall be open to public 98441
inspection. The director of budget and management may require the 98442
department to file a report with himthe director on any 98443
particular portion, or the whole, of any trust property received 98444
or expended by it.98445

       The department shall, upon the expiration of any trust 98446
according to its terms, dispose of the funds or property held 98447
thereunder in the manner provided in the instrument creating the 98448
trust. If the instrument creating the trust failed to make any 98449
terms of disposition, or if no trust was in evidence, then the 98450
decedent patient's money, saving or commercial deposits, dividends 98451
or distributions, bonds, or any other interest-bearing debt 98452
certificate or stamp issued by the United States government shall 98453
escheat to the state. All such unclaimed intangible personal 98454
property of a former patient shall be retained by the managing 98455
officer in such institution for the period of one year, during 98456
which time every possible effort shall be made to find such former 98457
patient or histhe former patient's legal representative.98458

       If, after a period of one year from the time the patient has 98459
left the institution or has died, the managing officer has been 98460
unable to locate such person or histhe person's legal 98461
representative, then upon proper notice of such fact the director 98462
shall at that time formulate in writing a method of disposition on 98463
the minutes of the department authorizing the managing officer to 98464
convert such intangible personal property to cash to be paid into 98465
the state treasury to the credit of the general revenue fund.98466

       The department shall include in its annual report a statement 98467
of all money and property and the terms and conditions relating 98468
thereto.98469

       Sec. 5119.17.        Sec. 5119.51.  (A) As used in this section, 98470
"supplemental services" has the same meaning as in section 5815.28 98471
of the Revised Code.98472

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 98473
services fund for individuals with mental illness. On the death of 98474
the beneficiary of a trust created pursuant to section 5815.28 of 98475
the Revised Code, the portion of the remaining assets of the trust 98476
specified in the trust instrument shall be deposited to the credit 98477
of the fund. Money credited to the fund shall be used for 98478
individuals with mental illness.98479

       Supplemental services may be provided through the department 98480
or boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services. 98481
In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 98482
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services98483
may adopt any rules necessary to implement this section.98484

       Sec. 5119.36.        Sec. 5119.52.  Each managing officer of an 98485
institution under the jurisdiction of the department of mental 98486
healthmental health and addiction services as described in 98487
section 5119.025119.14 of the Revised Code, with the approval of 98488
the director of mental healthmental health and addiction 98489
services, may establish local institution funds designated as 98490
follows:98491

       (A) Industrial and entertainment fund created and maintained 98492
for the entertainment and welfare of the patients of the 98493
institution. The director shall establish rules for the operation 98494
of the industrial and entertainment fund.98495

       (B) Commissary fund created and maintained for the benefit of 98496
patients in the institution. Commissary revenue over and above 98497
operating costs and reserve shall be considered profits. All 98498
profits from the commissary fund operations shall be paid into the 98499
industrial and entertainment fund and used only for the 98500
entertainment and wel farewelfare of patients. The director shall 98501
establish rules for the operation of the commissary fund.98502

       Sec. 5119.33.        Sec. 5119.54.  The treasurer of state shall have 98503
charge of all funds under the jurisdiction of the department of 98504
mental healthmental health and addiction services and shall pay 98505
out the same only in accordance with this chapter.98506

       The department shall cause to be furnished a contract of 98507
indemnity to cover all funds received by it or by its managing 98508
officers, employees, or agents while the funds are in the 98509
possession of such managing officers, employees or agents. Such 98510
funds are designated as follows:98511

       (A) Funds which are due and payable to the treasurer of state 98512
as provided by Chapter 131. of the Revised Code;98513

       (B) Those funds which are held in trust by the managing 98514
officers, employees, or agents of the institution as local funds 98515
or accounts under the jurisdiction of the department.98516

       Such contract of indemnity shall be made payable to the state 98517
and the premium for such contract of indemnity may be paid from 98518
any of the moneys received for the use of the department under 98519
this chapter and Chapters 5121. and 5122. of the Revised Code.98520

       Funds collected from various sources, such as the sale of 98521
goods, and all miscellaneous articles, shall be transmitted on or 98522
before Monday of each week to the treasurer of state and a 98523
detailed statement of such collections shall be made to the 98524
department.98525

       Sec. 5119.351.        Sec. 5119.55.  The department of mental health98526
mental health and addiction services may pay an amount for 98527
personal use to each individual residing in a state institution as 98528
described in section 5119.025119.14 of the Revised Code who would 98529
be eligible for supplemental security income benefits at the 98530
reduced rate established by Title XVI of the "Social Security 98531
Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 1382, as amended1381 et 98532
seq., if the state plan for providing medical assistance under 98533
section 5111.01 of the Revised Code included reimbursement of98534
medicaid program covers services provided in such institutions. 98535
The amount paid by the department shall not exceed the reduced 98536
supplemental security income benefit rate established by Title XVI 98537
of the "Social Security Act."98538

       Sec. 5119.35.        Sec. 5119.56.  Money or property deposited with 98539
managing officers of institutions under the jurisdiction of the 98540
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services98541
by any patient under the department's control or by relatives, 98542
guardians, conservators, and others for the special benefit of 98543
such patient, as well as all other funds and all other income paid 98544
to the patient, histhe patient's estate, or on histhe patient's98545
behalf, or paid to the managing officer or to the institution as 98546
representative payee or otherwise paid on the patient's behalf, 98547
shall remain in the hands of such officers in appropriate accounts 98548
for use accordingly. The managing officer shall keep itemized book 98549
accounts of the receipt and disposition of such money and 98550
property, which book shall be open at all times to the inspection 98551
of the department. The director of mental healthmental health 98552
and addiction services shall adopt rules governing the deposit, 98553
transfer, withdrawal, or investment of the funds and the income 98554
thereof, as well as rules under which such funds and income shall 98555
be paid by managing officers for the support of the patients 98556
pursuant to Chapter 5121. of the Revised Code, or for their other 98557
needs.98558

       Whenever any patient confined in any state institution 98559
subject to the jurisdiction of the department dies, escapes, or is 98560
discharged from such institution, and any personal funds of such 98561
person remain in the hands of the managing officer thereof and no 98562
demand for such funds is made upon such managing officer by the 98563
owner of the funds or histhe owner's legally appointed 98564
representative, the managing officer shall hold the funds in the 98565
personal deposit fund for a period of at least one year during 98566
which time the managing officer shall make every effort possible 98567
to locate the owner or histhe owner's legally appointed 98568
representative.98569

       If at the end of this period no demand has been made for the 98570
funds, the managing officer shall dispose of the funds as follows:98571

       (A) All money in a personal deposit fund in excess of ten 98572
dollars due for the support of a patient shall be paid in 98573
accordance with the provisions of Chapter 5121. of the Revised 98574
Code.98575

       (B) All money in a personal deposit fund in excess of ten 98576
dollars not due for the support of a patient shall be placed to 98577
the credit of the institution's local account designated as the 98578
"industrial and entertainment" fund.98579

       (C) The first ten dollars to the credit of a patient shall be 98580
placed to the credit of the institution's local account designated 98581
as the "industrial and entertainment" fund.98582

       Whenever any patient in any state institution subject to the 98583
jurisdiction of the department dies, escapes, or is discharged 98584
from such institution, and any personal effects of such person 98585
remain in the hands of the managing officer thereof, and no demand 98586
is made upon such managing officer by the owner of the property or 98587
histhe owner's legally appointed representative, the managing 98588
officer shall hold and dispose of such property in the following 98589
manner.98590

       All the miscellaneous personal effects shall be held for a 98591
period of at least one year, during which time the managing 98592
officer shall make every effort possible to locate the owner or98593
histhe owner's legal representative. If at the end of this 98594
period, no demand has been made by the owner of the property or 98595
histhe owner's legal representative, the managing officer shall 98596
file with the county recorder of the county of commitment of such 98597
owner, all deeds, wills, contract mortgages, or assignments. The 98598
balance of the personal effects shall be sold at public auction 98599
after being duly advertised, and the funds turned over to the 98600
treasurer of state for credit to the general revenue fund. If any 98601
of the property is not of a type to be filed with the county 98602
recorder and is not salable at public auction, then the managing 98603
officer of the institution shall destroy such property.98604

       Sec. 5119.46.        Sec. 5119.60. In its annual report, theThe98605
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services98606
shall submit an annual report to the governor that shall describe 98607
the services the department offers and how appropriated funds have 98608
been spent. The report shall include theall of the following:98609

       (A) The utilization of state hospitals by each alcohol, drug 98610
addiction, and mental health service district, the;98611

       (B) The number of persons served by community addiction 98612
services providers that receive funds distributed by the 98613
department, with a breakdown into categories including age, sex, 98614
race, the type of drug to which the person is addicted, and any 98615
other categories the director of mental health and addiction 98616
services considers significant;98617

       (C) The number of severely mentally disabled persons served 98618
in each district, and the;98619

       (D) The number and types of services provided to severely 98620
mentally disabled persons through state-operated services and 98621
community mental health agenciesservices providers;98622

       (E) A report measuring the success of community addiction 98623
services providers, based on the measures for accountability 98624
developed by the department, including the percentage of persons 98625
served by such community addiction services providers who have not 98626
relapsed;98627

       (F) Any other information that the director considers 98628
significant or is requested by the governor.98629

       Sec. 3793.12.        Sec. 5119.61.  (A) The department of alcohol and drug 98630
addiction servicesmental health and addiction services shall 98631
collect and compile statistics and other information on the care 98632
and treatment of mentally disabled persons, and the care, 98633
treatment, and rehabilitation of alcoholics, drug dependent 98634
persons, and persons in danger of drug dependence in this state, 98635
including, without limitation, information on the number of such 98636
persons, the type of drug involved, the type of care, treatment, 98637
or rehabilitation prescribed or undertaken, and the success or 98638
failure of the care, treatment, or rehabilitation. The department 98639
shall collect information about services delivered and persons 98640
served as required for reporting and evaluation relating to state 98641
and federal funds expended for such purposes.98642

       (B) No alcohol or, drug addiction program, or mental health 98643
services provider shall fail to supply statistics and other 98644
information within its knowledge and with respect to its programs98645
services, upon request of the department.98646

       (C) Communications by a person seeking aid in good faith for 98647
alcoholism or drug dependence are confidential, and this section 98648
does not require the collection or permit the disclosure of 98649
information which reveals or comprises the identity of any person 98650
seeking aid.98651

       (D) Based on the information collected and compiled under 98652
division (A) of this section, the department shall develop a 98653
project to assess the outcomes of persons served by alcohol and 98654
drug addiction programsservices providers and mental health 98655
services providers that receive funds distributed by the 98656
department.98657

       Sec. 5119.50.        Sec. 5119.70.  The "interstate compact on mental 98658
health" is hereby ratified, enacted into law, and entered into by 98659
the state of Ohio as a party thereto with any other state which 98660
has legally joined in the compact as follows:98661

INTERSTATE COMPACT ON MENTAL HEALTH
98662

       The contracting states solemnly agree that:98663

Article I
98664

       The party states find that the proper and expeditious 98665
treatment of the mentally ill and mentally retarded can be 98666
facilitated by cooperative action, to the benefit of the patients, 98667
their families, and society as a whole. Further, the party states 98668
find that the necessity of and desirability for furnishing such 98669
care and treatment bears no primary relation to the residence or 98670
citizenship of the patient but that, on the contrary, the 98671
controlling factors of community safety and humanitarianism 98672
require that facilities and services be made available for all who 98673
are in need of them. Consequently, it is the purpose of this 98674
compact and of the party states to provide the necessary legal 98675
basis for the institutionalization or other appropriate care and 98676
treatment of the mentally ill and mentally retarded under a system 98677
that recognizes the paramount importance of patient welfare and to 98678
establish the responsibilities of the party states in terms of 98679
such welfare.98680

Article II
98681

       As used in this compact:98682

       (a) "Sending state" shall mean a party state from which a 98683
patient is transported pursuant to the provisions of the compact 98684
or from which it is contemplated that a patient may be so sent.98685

       (b) "Receiving state" shall mean a party state to which a 98686
patient is transported pursuant to the provisions of the compact 98687
or to which it is contemplated that a patient may be so sent.98688

       (c) "Institution" shall mean any hospital or other facility 98689
maintained by a party state or political subdivision thereof for 98690
the care and treatment of mental illness or mental retardation.98691

       (d) "Patient" shall mean any person subject to or eligible as 98692
determined by the laws of the sending state, for 98693
institutionalization or other care, treatment, or supervision 98694
pursuant to the provisions of this compact.98695

       (e) "After-care" shall mean care, treatment and services 98696
provided a patient, as defined herein, or convalescent status or 98697
conditional release.98698

       (f) "Mental illness" shall mean mental disease to such extent 98699
that a person so afflicted requires care and treatment for his own 98700
welfare, or the welfare of others, or of the community.98701

       (g) "Mental retardation" shall mean mental retardation as 98702
defined by appropriate clinical authorities to such extent that a 98703
person so afflicted is incapable of managing himself and his 98704
affairs, but shall not include mental illness as defined herein.98705

       (h) "State" shall mean any state, territory or possession of 98706
the United States, the District of Columbia, and the Commonwealth 98707
of Puerto Rico.98708

Article III
98709

       (a) Whenever a person physically present in any party state 98710
shall be in need of institutionalization by reason of mental 98711
illness or mental retardation, he shall be eligible for care and 98712
treatment in an institution in that state irrespective of his 98713
residence, settlement or citizenship qualifications.98714

       (b) The provisions of paragraph (a) of this article to the 98715
contrary notwithstanding, any patient may be transferred to an 98716
institution in another state whenever there are factors based upon 98717
clinical determinations indicating that the care and treatment of 98718
said patient would be facilitated or improved thereby. Any such 98719
institutionalization may be for the entire period of care and 98720
treatment or for any portion or portions thereof. The factors 98721
referred to in this paragraph shall include the patient's full 98722
record with due regard for the location of the patient's family, 98723
character of the illness and probable duration thereof, and such 98724
other factors as shall be considered appropriate.98725

       (c) No state shall be obliged to receive any patient pursuant 98726
to the provisions of paragraph (b) of this article unless the 98727
sending state has given advance notice of its intention to send 98728
the patient; furnished all available medical and other pertinent 98729
records concerning the patient; given the qualified medical or 98730
other appropriate clinical authorities of the receiving state an 98731
opportunity to examine the patient if said authorities so wish; 98732
and unless the receiving state shall agree to accept the patient.98733

       (d) In the event that the laws of the receiving state 98734
establish a system of priorities for the admission of patients, an 98735
interstate patient under this compact shall receive the same 98736
priority as a local patient and shall be taken in the same order 98737
and at the same time that he would be taken if he were a local 98738
patient.98739

       (e) Pursuant to this compact, the determination as to the 98740
suitable place of institutionalization for a patient may be 98741
reviewed at any time and such further transfer of the patient may 98742
be made as seems likely to be in the best interest of the patient.98743

Article IV
98744

       (a) Whenever, pursuant to the laws of the state in which a 98745
patient is physically present, it shall be determined that the 98746
patient should receive after-care or supervision, such care or 98747
supervision may be provided in a receiving state. If the medical 98748
or other appropriate clinical authorities having responsibility 98749
for the care and treatment of the patient in the sending state 98750
shall have reason to believe that after-care in another state 98751
would be in the best interest of the patient and would not 98752
jeopardize the public safety, they shall request the appropriate 98753
authorities in the receiving state to investigate the desirability 98754
of affording the patient such after-care in said receiving state, 98755
and such investigation shall be made with all reasonable speed. 98756
The request for investigation shall be accompanied by complete 98757
information concerning the patient's intended place of residence 98758
and the identity of the person in whose charge it is proposed to 98759
place the patient, the complete medical history of the patient, 98760
and such other documents as may be pertinent.98761

       (b) If the medical or other appropriate clinical authorities 98762
having responsibility for the care and treatment of the patient in 98763
the sending state and the appropriate authorities in the receiving 98764
state find that the best interest of the patient would be served 98765
thereby, and if the public safety would not be jeopardized 98766
thereby, the patient may receive after-care or supervision in the 98767
receiving state.98768

       (c) In supervising, treating, or caring for a patient on 98769
after-care pursuant to the terms of this article, a receiving 98770
state shall employ the same standards of visitation, examination, 98771
care, and treatment that it employs for similar local patients.98772

Article V
98773

       Whenever a dangerous or potentially dangerous patient escapes 98774
from an institution in any party state, that state shall promptly 98775
notify all appropriate authorities within and without the 98776
jurisdiction of the escape in a manner reasonably calculated to 98777
facilitate the speedy apprehension of the escapee. Immediately 98778
upon the apprehension and identification of any such dangerous or 98779
potentially dangerous patient, he shall be detained in the state 98780
where found pending disposition in accordance with law.98781

Article VI
98782

       The duly accredited officers of any state party to this 98783
compact, upon the establishment of their authority and the 98784
identity of the patient, shall be permitted to transport any 98785
patient being moved pursuant to this compact through any and all 98786
states party to this compact, without interference.98787

Article VII
98788

       (a) No person shall be deemed a patient of more than one 98789
institution at any given time. Completion of transfer of any 98790
patient to an institution in a receiving state shall have the 98791
effect of making the person a patient of the institution in the 98792
receiving state.98793

       (b) The sending state shall pay all costs of and incidental 98794
to the transportation of any patient pursuant to this compact, but 98795
any two or more party states may, by making a specific agreement 98796
for that purpose, arrange for a different allocation of costs as 98797
among themselves.98798

       (c) No provision of this compact shall be construed to alter 98799
or affect any internal relationships among the departments, 98800
agencies and officers of and in the government of a party state, 98801
or between a party state and its subdivisions, as to the payment 98802
of costs, or responsibilities therefor.98803

       (d) Nothing in this compact shall be construed to prevent any 98804
party state or subdivision thereof from asserting any right 98805
against any person, agency or other entity in regard to costs for 98806
which such party state or subdivision thereof may be responsible 98807
pursuant to any provision of this compact.98808

       (e) Nothing in this compact shall be construed to invalidate 98809
any reciprocal agreement between a party state and a nonparty 98810
state relating to institutionalization, care or treatment of the 98811
mentally ill or mentally retarded, or any statutory authority 98812
pursuant to which such agreements may be made.98813

Article VIII
98814

       (a) Nothing in this compact shall be construed to abridge, 98815
diminish, or in any way impair the rights, duties, and 98816
responsibilities of any patient's guardian on his own behalf or in 98817
respect of any patient for whom he may serve, except that where 98818
the transfer of any patient to another jurisdiction makes 98819
advisable the appointment of a supplemental or substitute 98820
guardian, any court of competent jurisdiction in the receiving 98821
state may make such supplemental or substitute appointment and the 98822
court which appointed the previous guardian shall upon being duly 98823
advised of the new appointment, and upon the satisfactory 98824
completion of such accounting and other acts as such court may by 98825
law require, relieve the previous guardian of power and 98826
responsibility to whatever extent shall be appropriate in the 98827
circumstances; provided, however, that in the case of any patient 98828
having settlement in the sending state, the court of competent 98829
jurisdiction in the sending state shall have the sole discretion 98830
to relieve a guardian appointed by it or continue his power and 98831
responsibility, whichever it shall deem advisable. The court in 98832
the receiving state may, in its discretion, confirm or reappoint 98833
the person or persons previously serving as guardian in the 98834
sending state in lieu of making a supplemental or substitute 98835
appointment.98836

       (b) The term "guardian" as used in paragraph (a) of this 98837
article shall include any guardian, trustee, legal committee, 98838
conservator, or other person or agency however denominated who is 98839
charged by law with power to act for or responsibility for the 98840
person or property of a patient.98841

Article IX
98842

       (a) No provision of this compact except Article V shall apply 98843
to any person institutionalized while under sentence in a penal or 98844
correctional institution or while subject to trial on a criminal 98845
charge, or whose institutionalization is due to the commission of 98846
an offense for which, in the absence of mental illness or mental 98847
retardation, said person would be subject to incarceration in a 98848
penal or correctional institution.98849

       (b) To every extent possible, it shall be the policy of 98850
states party to this compact that no patient shall be placed or 98851
detained in any prison, jail or lockup, but such patient shall, 98852
with all expedition, be taken to a suitable institutional facility 98853
for mental illlness or mental retardation.98854

Article X
98855

       (a) Each party state shall appoint a "compact administrator" 98856
who, on behalf of his state, shall act as general coordinator of 98857
activities under the compact in his state and who shall receive 98858
copies of all reports, correspondence, and other documents 98859
relating to any patient processed under the compact by his state 98860
either in the capacity of sending or receiving state. The compact 98861
administrator or his duly designated representative shall be the 98862
official with whom other party states shall deal in any matter 98863
relating to the compact or any patient processed thereunder.98864

       (b) The compact administrators of the respective party states 98865
shall have power to promulgate reasonable rules and regulations to 98866
carry out more effectively the terms and provisions of this 98867
compact.98868

Article XI
98869

       The duly constituted administrative authorities of any two or 98870
more party states may enter into supplementary agreements for the 98871
provision of any service or facility or for the maintenance of any 98872
institution on a joint or cooperative basis whenever the states 98873
concerned shall find that such agreements will improve services, 98874
facilities, or institutional care and treatment in the fields of 98875
mental illness or mental retardation. No such supplementary 98876
agreement shall be construed so as to relieve any party state of 98877
any obligation which it otherwise would have under other 98878
provisions of this compact.98879

Article XII
98880

       This compact shall enter into full force and effect as to any 98881
state when enacted by it into law and such states shall thereafter 98882
be a party thereto with any and all states legally joining 98883
therein.98884

Article XIII
98885

       (a) A state party to this compact may withdraw therefrom by 98886
enacting a statute repealing the same. Such withdrawal shall take 98887
effect one year after notice thereof has been communicated 98888
officially and in writing to the governors and compact 98889
administrators of all other party states. However, the withdrawal 98890
of any state shall not change the status of any patient who has 98891
been sent to said state or sent out of said state pursuant to the 98892
provisions of the compact.98893

       (b) Withdrawal from any agreement permitted by Article VII 98894
(b) as to costs or from any supplementary agreement made pursuant 98895
to Article XI shall be in accordance with the terms of such 98896
agreement.98897

Article XIV
98898

       This compact shall be liberally construed so as to effectuate 98899
the purposes thereof. The provisions of this compact shall be 98900
severable and if any phrase, clause, sentence or provision of this 98901
compact is declared to be contrary to the constitution of any 98902
party state or of the United States or the applicability thereof 98903
to any government, agency, person or circumstance is held invalid, 98904
the validity of the remainder of this compact and the 98905
applicability thereof to any government, agency, person or 98906
circumstance shall not be affected thereby. If this compact shall 98907
be held contrary to the constitution of any state party thereto, 98908
the compact shall remain in full force and effect as to the 98909
remaining states and in full force and effect as to the state 98910
affected as to all severable matters.98911

       Sec. 5119.51.        Sec. 5119.71.  Pursuant to Article X of the compact 98912
set forth in section 5119.505119.70 of the Revised Code, the 98913
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services and 98914
the director of developmental disabilities each shall designate an 98915
officer who shall be the compact administrator for the department 98916
and who, acting jointly with like officers of other party states, 98917
shall adopt rules to carry out more effectively the terms of the 98918
compact. The compact administrators of each department shall serve 98919
subject to the pleasure of the governor and shall cooperate with 98920
all departments, agencies, and officers of and in the government 98921
of this state and its subdivisions in facilitating the proper 98922
administration of the compact or of any supplementary agreements 98923
entered into by this state thereunder. 98924

       Sec. 5119.52.        Sec. 5119.72.  The compact administrator may enter 98925
into supplementary agreements with appropriate officials of other 98926
states pursuant to articles VII and XI of the compact set forth in 98927
section 5119.505119.70 of the Revised Code. In the event that 98928
such supplementary agreements require or contemplate the use of 98929
any institution or facility of this state or require or 98930
contemplate the provision of any service by this state, no such 98931
agreement shall have force or effect until approved by the head of 98932
the department or agency under whose jurisdiction the institution 98933
or facility is operated or whose department or agency will be 98934
charged with the rendering of such service.98935

       Sec. 5119.53.        Sec. 5119.73.  Any payments necessary to discharge 98936
any financial obligations imposed upon the state of Ohio by the 98937
compact or by any supplementary agreement entered into thereunder, 98938
as provided in sections 5119.505119.70 to 5119.525119.72 of the 98939
Revised Code, shall be made from appropriated funds upon 98940
presentation to the director of budget and management of itemized 98941
vouchers approved by the compact administrator.98942

       Sec. 3793.31.        Sec. 5119.90. As used in sections 3793.315119.90 to 98943
3793.395119.98 of the Revised Code:98944

       (A) "Alcohol and other drug abuse" means alcoholism or drug 98945
addiction.98946

       (B) "Another drug" means a controlled substance as defined in 98947
section 3719.01 of the Revised Code or a harmful intoxicant as 98948
defined in section 2925.01 of the Revised Code.98949

       (C) "Board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 98950
services" means a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 98951
health services established under section 340.02 or 340.021 of the 98952
Revised Code.98953

       (D) "Danger" or "threat of danger to self, family, or others" 98954
means substantial physical harm or threat of substantial physical 98955
harm upon self, family, or others.98956

       (E) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3701.01 or 98957
3727.01 of the Revised Code but does not include either a hospital 98958
operated by the department of mental healthmental health and 98959
addiction services or an inpatient unit licensed by the 98960
department.98961

       (F) "Intoxicated" means being under the influence of alcohol, 98962
another drug, or both alcohol and another drug and, as a result, 98963
having a significantly impaired ability to function.98964

       (G) "Petitioner" means a person who institutes a proceeding 98965
under sections 3793.325119.91 to 3793.395119.98 of the Revised 98966
Code.98967

       (H) "Probate court" means the probate division of the court 98968
of common pleas.98969

       (I) "Qualified health professional" means a person that is 98970
properly credentialed or licensed to conduct a drug and alcohol 98971
assessment and diagnosis under Ohio law.98972

       (J) "Residence" means the legal residence of a person as 98973
determined by applicable principles governing conflicts of law.98974

       (K) "Respondent" means a person alleged in a petition filed 98975
or hearing under sections 3793.325119.91 to 3793.395119.98 of 98976
the Revised Code to be a person who is suffering from alcohol and 98977
other drug abuse and who may be ordered under those sections to 98978
undergo treatment.98979

       (L) "Treatment" means services and programs for the care and 98980
rehabilitation of intoxicated persons and persons suffering from 98981
alcohol and other drug abuse. "Treatment" includes residential 98982
treatment, a halfway house setting, and an intensive outpatient or 98983
outpatient level of care.98984

       Sec. 3793.32.        Sec. 5119.91. A probate court may order involuntary 98985
treatment for a person suffering from alcohol and other drug abuse 98986
pursuant to the procedures set forth in sections 3793.315119.9098987
to 3793.395119.98 of the Revised Code.98988

       Sec. 3793.33.        Sec. 5119.92. No person shall be ordered to undergo 98989
treatment under sections 3793.315119.90 to 3793.395119.98 of the 98990
Revised Code unless all of the following apply to that person:98991

       (A) The person suffers from alcohol and other drug abuse.98992

       (B) The person presents an imminent danger or imminent threat 98993
of danger to self, family, or others as a result of alcohol and 98994
other drug abuse, or there exists a substantial likelihood of such 98995
a threat in the near future.98996

       (C) The person can reasonably benefit from treatment.98997

       Sec. 3793.34.        Sec. 5119.93. (A) A person may initiate proceedings 98998
for treatment for an individual suffering from alcohol and other 98999
drug abuse by filing a verified petition in the probate court and 99000
paying a filing fee in the same amount, if any, that is charged 99001
for the filing under section 5122.11 of the Revised Code of an 99002
affidavit seeking the hospitalization of a person. The petition 99003
and all subsequent court documents shall be entitled: "In the 99004
interest of (name of respondent)." A spouse, relative, or guardian 99005
of the individual concerning whom the petition is filed shall file 99006
the petition.99007

       (B) A petition filed under division (A) of this section shall 99008
set forth all of the following:99009

       (1) The petitioner's relationship to the respondent;99010

       (2) The respondent's name, residence address, and current 99011
location, if known;99012

       (3) The name and residence of the respondent's parents, if 99013
living and if known, or of the respondent's legal guardian, if any 99014
and if known;99015

       (4) The name and residence of the respondent's spouse, if any 99016
and if known;99017

       (5) The name and residence of the person having custody of 99018
the respondent, if any, or if no such person is known, the name 99019
and residence of a near relative or a statement that the person is 99020
unknown;99021

       (6) The petitioner's belief, including the factual basis for 99022
the belief, that the respondent is suffering from alcohol and 99023
other drug abuse and presents an imminent danger or imminent 99024
threat of danger to self, family, or others if not treated for 99025
alcohol or other drug abuse.99026

       (C)(1) Any petition filed pursuant to divisions (A) and (B) 99027
of this section shall be accompanied by a certificate of a 99028
physician who has examined the respondent within two days prior to 99029
the day that the petition is filed in the probate court. The 99030
physician shall be authorized to practice medicine and surgery or 99031
osteopathic medicine and surgery under Chapter 4731. of the 99032
Revised Code. The physician's certificate shall set forth the 99033
physician's findings in support of the need to treat the 99034
respondent for alcohol or other drug abuse. The certificate shall 99035
indicate if the respondent presents an imminent danger or imminent 99036
threat of danger to self, family, or others if not treated. 99037
Further, the certificate shall indicate the type and length of 99038
treatment required and if the respondent can reasonably benefit 99039
from treatment. If the physician's certificate indicates that 99040
inpatient treatment is required, the certificate shall identify 99041
any inpatient facilities known to the physician that are able and 99042
willing to provide the recommended inpatient treatment.99043

        If the respondent refuses to undergo an examination with a 99044
physician concerning the respondent's possible need for treatment 99045
for alcohol or other drug abuse, the petition shall state that the 99046
respondent has refused all requests made by the petitioner to 99047
undergo a physician's examination. In that case, the petitioner 99048
shall not be required to provide a physician's certificate with 99049
the petition.99050

       (2) Any petition filed pursuant to divisions (A) and (B) of 99051
this section shall contain a statement that the petitioner has 99052
arranged for treatment of the respondent. Further, the petition 99053
shall be accompanied by a statement from the person or facility 99054
who has agreed to provide the treatment that verifies that the 99055
person or facility has agreed to provide the treatment and the 99056
estimated cost of the treatment.99057

        (D) Any petition filed pursuant to divisions (A) and (B) of 99058
this section shall be accompanied by both of the following:99059

       (1) A security deposit to be deposited with the clerk of the 99060
probate court that will cover half of the estimated cost of 99061
treatment of the respondent;99062

        (2) A guarantee, signed by the petitioner or another person 99063
authorized to file the petition obligating the guarantor to pay 99064
the costs of the examinations of the respondent conducted by the 99065
physician and qualified health professional under division (B)(5) 99066
of section 3793.355119.94 of the Revised Code, the costs of the 99067
respondent that are associated with a hearing conducted in 99068
accordance with section 3793.355119.94 of the Revised Code and 99069
that the court determines to be appropriate, and the costs of any 99070
treatment ordered by the court.99071

       Sec. 3793.35.        Sec. 5119.94. (A) Upon receipt of a petition filed 99072
under section 3793.345119.93 of the Revised Code and the payment 99073
of the appropriate filing fee, if any, the probate court shall 99074
examine the petitioner under oath as to the contents of the 99075
petition.99076

       (B) If, after reviewing the allegations contained in the 99077
petition and examining the petitioner under oath, it appears to 99078
the probate court that there is probable cause to believe the 99079
respondent may reasonably benefit from treatment, the court shall 99080
do all of the following:99081

       (1) Schedule a hearing to be held within seven days to 99082
determine if there is clear and convincing evidence that the 99083
respondent may reasonably benefit from treatment for alcohol and 99084
other drug abuse;99085

       (2) Notify the respondent, the legal guardian, if any and if 99086
known, and the spouse, parents, or nearest relative or friend of 99087
the respondent concerning the allegations and contents of the 99088
petition and of the date and purpose of the hearing;99089

       (3) Notify the respondent that the respondent may retain 99090
counsel and, if the person is unable to obtain an attorney, that 99091
the respondent may be represented by court-appointed counsel at 99092
public expense if the person is indigent. Upon the appointment of 99093
an attorney to represent an indigent respondent, the court shall 99094
notify the respondent of the name, address, and telephone number 99095
of the attorney appointed to represent the respondent.99096

        (4) Notify the respondent that the court shall cause the 99097
respondent to be examined not later than twenty-four hours before 99098
the hearing date by a physician for the purpose of a physical 99099
examination and by a qualified health professional for the purpose 99100
of a drug and alcohol addiction assessment and diagnosis. In 99101
addition, the court shall notify the respondent that the 99102
respondent may have an independent expert evaluation of the 99103
person's physical and mental condition conducted at the 99104
respondent's own expense.99105

        (5) Cause the respondent to be examined not later than 99106
twenty-four hours before the hearing date by a physician for the 99107
purpose of a physical examination and by a qualified health 99108
professional for the purpose of a drug and alcohol addiction 99109
assessment and diagnosis;99110

       (6) Conduct the hearing.99111

       (C) The physician and qualified health professional who 99112
examine the respondent pursuant to division (B)(5) of this section 99113
or who are obtained by the respondent at the respondent's own 99114
expense shall certify their findings to the court within 99115
twenty-four hours of the examinations. The findings of each 99116
qualified health professional shall include a recommendation for 99117
treatment if the qualified health professional determines that 99118
treatment is necessary.99119

       (D)(1) If upon completion of the hearing held under this 99120
section the probate court finds by clear and convincing evidence 99121
that the respondent may reasonably benefit from treatment, the 99122
court may order the treatment after considering the qualified 99123
health professionals' recommendations for treatment that have been 99124
submitted to the court under division (C) of this section. If the 99125
court orders the treatment under this division, the court shall 99126
order the treatment to be provided through an alcohol and druga 99127
community addiction programservices provider certified under 99128
section 3793.065119.36 of the Revised Code or by an individual 99129
licensed or certified by the state medical board under Chapter 99130
4731. of the Revised Code, the chemical dependency professionals 99131
board under Chapter 4758. of the Revised Code, the counselor, 99132
social worker, and marriage and family therapist board under 99133
Chapter 4757. of the Revised Code, or a similar board of another 99134
state authorized to provide substance abuse treatment.99135

        (2) Failure of a respondent to undergo and complete any 99136
treatment ordered pursuant to this division is contempt of court. 99137
Any alcohol and drug addiction program or person providing 99138
treatment under this division shall notify the probate court of a 99139
respondent's failure to undergo or complete the ordered treatment.99140

       (E) If, at any time after a petition is filed under section 99141
3793.345119.93 of the Revised Code, the probate court finds that 99142
there is not probable cause to continue treatment or if the 99143
petitioner withdraws the petition, then the court shall dismiss 99144
the proceedings against the respondent.99145

       Sec. 3793.36.        Sec. 5119.95. (A) Following an examination by a 99146
qualified health professional and a certification by that 99147
professional that the person meets the criteria specified in 99148
section 3793.335119.92 of the Revised Code, a probate court may 99149
order the person hospitalized for a period not to exceed 99150
seventy-two hours if the court finds by clear and convincing 99151
evidence that the person presents an imminent threat of danger to 99152
self, family, or others as a result of alcohol and other drug 99153
abuse. However, if the hearing to be held under section 3793.3599154
5119.94 of the Revised Code will not be held within seventy-two 99155
hours, the court may order the person hospitalized until the 99156
hearing. In making its order, the court shall inform the person 99157
that the person may immediately make a reasonable number of 99158
telephone calls or use other reasonable means to contact an 99159
attorney, a licensed physician, or a qualified health 99160
professional, to contact any other person or persons to secure 99161
representation by counsel, or to obtain medical or psychological 99162
assistance and that the person will be provided assistance in 99163
making calls if the assistance is needed and requested.99164

       (B) Any person who has been admitted to a hospital under 99165
division (A) of this section shall be released from the hospital 99166
immediately upon the expiration of the time period established by 99167
the court for the hospitalization.99168

       (C) No person ordered hospitalized under this section shall 99169
be held in jail pending transportation to the hospital or 99170
evaluation unless the probate court previously has found the 99171
person to be in contempt of court for either failure to undergo 99172
treatment or failure to appear at the evaluation ordered pursuant 99173
to section 3793.355119.94 of the Revised Code.99174

       Sec. 3793.37.        Sec. 5119.96. When a probate court is authorized to 99175
issue an order that the respondent be transported to a hospital, 99176
the court may issue a summons. If the respondent fails to attend 99177
an examination scheduled before the hearing under section 3793.3599178
5119.94 of the Revised Code, the court shall issue a summons. A 99179
summons so issued shall be directed to the respondent and shall 99180
command the respondent to appear at a time and place specified in 99181
the summons. If a respondent who has been summoned fails to appear 99182
at the hospital or the examination, the probate court may order 99183
the sheriff or any other peace officer to transport the respondent 99184
to a hospital on the list provided under section 3793.385119.9799185
of the Revised Code for treatment. The sheriff or any other peace 99186
officer, upon agreement of a person authorized by the peace 99187
officer, may authorize a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and 99188
mental health services, a private agencyservices provider under 99189
contract with a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 99190
health services, or an ambulance service designated by a board of 99191
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services to transport 99192
the respondent to the hospital. The transportation costs of the 99193
sheriff, other peace officer, ambulance service, or other private 99194
agencyservices provider under contract with the board of alcohol, 99195
drug addiction, and mental health services shall be included in 99196
the costs of treatment for alcohol and other drug abuse to be paid 99197
by the petitioner.99198

       Sec. 3793.38.        Sec. 5119.97. Each board of alcohol, drug addiction, 99199
and mental health services on at least an annual basis shall 99200
submit each of the following lists to the clerk of the probate 99201
court in each county served by the board:99202

       (A) A list of all hospitals in the counties served by the 99203
board that are able and willing to take respondents ordered to 99204
undergo seventy-two hours of treatment and observation pursuant to 99205
section 3793.365119.95 of the Revised Code;99206

       (B) A list of hospitals and treatment providers in the 99207
counties served by the board that are able and willing to provide 99208
treatment for alcohol and other drug abuse ordered pursuant to 99209
section 3793.355119.94 of the Revised Code.99210

       Sec. 3793.39.        Sec. 5119.98. Sections 3793.12, 3793.135119.26, 99211
5119.27, and 3793.145119.61 of the Revised Code apply to a person 99212
who is ordered to undergo treatment under sections 3793.31 to 99213
3793.395119.90 to 5119.98 of the Revised Code.99214

       Sec. 5119.99. (A) Whoever violates section 5119.215119.33399215
of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the first 99216
degree.99217

       (B) Whoever violates division (B) of section 5119.61 of the 99218
Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree.99219

       (C) Whoever violates section 5119.27 or 5119.28 or division 99220
(G) of section 5119.36 of the Revised Code is guilty of a felony 99221
of the fifth degree.99222

       Sec. 5120.07.  (A) There is hereby created the ex-offender 99223
reentry coalition consisting of the following eighteenseventeen99224
members or their designees:99225

       (1) The director of rehabilitation and correction;99226

       (2) The director of aging;99227

       (3) The director of alcohol and drug addiction services99228
mental health and addiction services;99229

       (4) The director of development services;99230

       (5) The superintendent of public instruction;99231

       (6) The director of health;99232

       (7) The director of job and family services;99233

       (8) The director of mental health;99234

       (9) The director of developmental disabilities;99235

       (10)(9) The director of public safety;99236

       (11)(10) The director of youth services;99237

       (12)(11) The chancellor of the Ohio board of regents;99238

       (13)(12) A representative or member of the governor's staff;99239

       (14)(13) The executive director of the rehabilitation 99240
services commissionopportunities for Ohioans with disabilities 99241
agency;99242

       (15)(14) The director of the department of commerce;99243

       (16)(15) The executive director of a health care licensing 99244
board created under Title XLVII of the Revised Code, as appointed 99245
by the chairperson of the coalition;99246

       (17)(16) The director of veterans services;99247

       (18)(17) An ex-offender appointed by the director of 99248
rehabilitation and correction.99249

       (B) The members of the coalition shall serve without 99250
compensation. The director of rehabilitation and correction or the 99251
director's designee shall be the chairperson of the coalition.99252

       (C) In consultation with persons interested and involved in 99253
the reentry of ex-offenders into the community, including but not 99254
limited to, services providers, community-based organizations, and 99255
local governments, the coalition shall identify and examine social 99256
service barriers and other obstacles to the reentry of 99257
ex-offenders into the community. Not later than one year after 99258
April 7, 2009, and on or before the same date of each year 99259
thereafter, the coalition shall submit to the speaker of the house 99260
of representatives and the president of the senate a report, 99261
including recommendations for legislative action, the activities 99262
of the coalition, and the barriers affecting the successful 99263
reentry of ex-offenders into the community. The report shall 99264
analyze the effects of those barriers on ex-offenders and on their 99265
children and other family members in various areas, including but 99266
not limited to, the following:99267

       (1) Admission to public and other housing;99268

       (2) Child support obligations and procedures;99269

       (3) Parental incarceration and family reunification;99270

       (4) Social security benefits, veterans' benefits, food 99271
stamps, and other forms of public assistance;99272

       (5) Employment;99273

       (6) Education programs and financial assistance;99274

       (7) Substance abuse, mental health, and sex offender 99275
treatment programs and financial assistance and mental health 99276
services and financial assistance;99277

       (8) Civic and political participation;99278

       (9) Other collateral consequences under the Revised Code or 99279
the Ohio administrative code law that may result from a criminal 99280
conviction.99281

       (D)(1) The report shall also include the following 99282
information:99283

       (a) Identification of state appropriations for reentry 99284
programs;99285

       (b) Identification of other funding sources for reentry 99286
programs that are not funded by the state;99287

       (2) The coalition shall gather information about reentry 99288
programs in a repository maintained and made available by the 99289
coalition. Where available, the information shall include the 99290
following:99291

       (a) The amount of funding received;99292

       (b) The number of program participants;99293

       (c) The composition of the program, including program goals, 99294
methods for measuring success, and program success rate;99295

       (d) The type of post-program tracking that is utilized;99296

       (e) Information about employment rates and recidivism rates 99297
of ex-offenders.99298

       (E) The coalition shall cease to exist on December 31, 2014.99299

       Sec. 5120.09.  Under the supervision and control of the 99300
director of rehabilitation and correction, the division of 99301
business administration shall do all of the following:99302

       (A) Submit the budgets for the several divisions of the 99303
department of rehabilitation and correction, as prepared by the 99304
respective chiefs of those divisions, to the director. The 99305
director, with the assistance of the chief of the division of 99306
business administration, shall compile a departmental budget that 99307
contains all proposals submitted by the chiefs of the divisions 99308
and shall forward the departmental budget to the governor with 99309
comments and recommendations that the director considers 99310
necessary.99311

       (B) Maintain accounts and records and compile statistics that 99312
the director prescribes;99313

       (C) Under the control of the director, coordinate and make 99314
the necessary purchases and requisitions for the department and 99315
its divisions, except when goods and services are provided to the 99316
department as described in section 5119.165119.44 of the Revised 99317
Code;99318

       (D) Administer within this state federal criminal justice 99319
acts that the governor requires the department to administer. In 99320
order to improve the criminal justice system of this state, the 99321
division of business administration shall apply for, allocate, 99322
disburse, and account for grants that are made available pursuant 99323
to those federal criminal justice acts and grants that are made 99324
available from other federal government sources, state government 99325
sources, or private sources. As used in this division, "criminal 99326
justice system" and "federal criminal justice acts" have the same 99327
meanings as in section 5502.61 of the Revised Code.99328

       (E) Audit the activities of governmental entities, persons as 99329
defined in section 1.59 of the Revised Code, and other types of 99330
nongovernmental entities that are financed in whole or in part by 99331
funds that the department allocates or disburses and that are 99332
derived from grants described in division (D) of this section;99333

       (F) Enter into contracts, including contracts with federal, 99334
state, or local governmental entities, persons as defined in 99335
section 1.59 of the Revised Code, foundations, and other types of 99336
nongovernmental entities, that are necessary for the department to 99337
carry out its duties and that neither the director nor another 99338
section of the Revised Code authorizes another division of the 99339
department to enter;99340

       (G) Exercise other powers and perform other duties that the 99341
director may assign to the division of business administration.99342

       Sec. 5120.135.  (A) As used in this section, "laboratory 99343
services" includes the performance of medical laboratory analysis; 99344
professional laboratory and pathologist consultation; the 99345
procurement, storage, and distribution of laboratory supplies; and 99346
the performance of phlebotomy services.99347

       (B) The department of rehabilitation and correction may 99348
provide laboratory services to the departments of mental health99349
mental health and addiction services, developmental disabilities, 99350
youth services, and rehabilitation and correction. The department 99351
of rehabilitation and correction may also provide laboratory 99352
services to other state, county, or municipal agencies and to 99353
private persons that request laboratory services if the department 99354
of rehabilitation and correction determines that the provision of 99355
laboratory services is in the public interest and considers it 99356
advisable to provide such services. The department of 99357
rehabilitation and correction may also provide laboratory services 99358
to agencies operated by the United States government and to public 99359
and private entities funded in whole or in part by the state if 99360
the director of rehabilitation and correction designates them as 99361
eligible to receive such services.99362

       The department of rehabilitation and correction shall provide 99363
laboratory services from a laboratory that complies with the 99364
standards for certification set by the United States department of 99365
health and human services under the "Clinical Laboratory 99366
Improvement Amendments of 1988," 102 Stat. 293, 42 U.S.C.A. 263a. 99367
In addition, the laboratory shall maintain accreditation or 99368
certification with an appropriate accrediting or certifying 99369
organization as considered necessary by the recipients of its 99370
laboratory services and as authorized by the director of 99371
rehabilitation and correction.99372

       (C) The cost of administering this section shall be 99373
determined by the department of rehabilitation and correction and 99374
shall be paid by entities that receive laboratory services to the 99375
department for deposit in the state treasury to the credit of the 99376
laboratory services fund, which is hereby created. The fund shall 99377
be used to pay the costs the department incurs in administering 99378
this section.99379

       (D) Whenever a state agency fails to make a payment for 99380
laboratory services provided to it by the department of 99381
rehabilitation and correction under this section within thirty-one 99382
days after the date the payment was due, the office of budget and 99383
management may transfer moneys from that state agency to the 99384
department of rehabilitation and correction for deposit to the 99385
credit of the laboratory services fund. The amount transferred 99386
shall not exceed the amount of the overdue payments. Prior to 99387
making a transfer under this division, the office shall apply any 99388
credits the state agency has accumulated in payment for laboratory 99389
services provided under this section.99390

       Sec. 5120.17.  (A) As used in this section:99391

       (1) "Mental illness" means a substantial disorder of thought, 99392
mood, perception, orientation, or memory that grossly impairs 99393
judgment, behavior, capacity to recognize reality, or ability to 99394
meet the ordinary demands of life.99395

       (2) "Mentally ill person subject to hospitalization" means a 99396
mentally ill person to whom any of the following applies because 99397
of the person's mental illness:99398

       (a) The person represents a substantial risk of physical harm 99399
to the person as manifested by evidence of threats of, or attempts 99400
at, suicide or serious self-inflicted bodily harm.99401

       (b) The person represents a substantial risk of physical harm 99402
to others as manifested by evidence of recent homicidal or other 99403
violent behavior, evidence of recent threats that place another in 99404
reasonable fear of violent behavior and serious physical harm, or 99405
other evidence of present dangerousness.99406

       (c) The person represents a substantial and immediate risk of 99407
serious physical impairment or injury to the person as manifested 99408
by evidence that the person is unable to provide for and is not 99409
providing for the person's basic physical needs because of the 99410
person's mental illness and that appropriate provision for those 99411
needs cannot be made immediately available in the correctional 99412
institution in which the inmate is currently housed.99413

       (d) The person would benefit from treatment in a hospital for 99414
the person's mental illness and is in need of treatment in a 99415
hospital as manifested by evidence of behavior that creates a 99416
grave and imminent risk to substantial rights of others or the 99417
person.99418

       (3) "Psychiatric hospital" means all or part of a facility 99419
that is operated and managed by the department of mental health99420
mental health and addiction services to provide psychiatric 99421
hospitalization services in accordance with the requirements of 99422
this section pursuant to an agreement between the directors of 99423
rehabilitation and correction and mental healthmental health and 99424
addiction services or, is licensed by the department of mental 99425
healthmental health and addiction services pursuant to section 99426
5119.205119.33 of the Revised Code as a psychiatric hospital and 99427
is accredited by a healthcarehealth care accrediting organization 99428
approved by the department of mental healthmental health and 99429
addiction services and the psychiatric hospital is any of the 99430
following:99431

       (a) Operated and managed by the department of rehabilitation 99432
and correction within a facility that is operated by the 99433
department of rehabilitation and correction;99434

       (b) Operated and managed by a contractor for the department 99435
of rehabilitation and correction within a facility that is 99436
operated by the department of rehabilitation and correction;99437

       (c) Operated and managed in the community by an entity that 99438
has contracted with the department of rehabilitation and 99439
correction to provide psychiatric hospitalization services in 99440
accordance with the requirements of this section.99441

       (4) "Inmate patient" means an inmate who is admitted to a 99442
psychiatric hospital.99443

       (5) "Admitted" to a psychiatric hospital means being accepted 99444
for and staying at least one night at the psychiatric hospital.99445

       (6) "Treatment plan" means a written statement of reasonable 99446
objectives and goals for an inmate patient that is based on the 99447
needs of the inmate patient and that is established by the 99448
treatment team, with the active participation of the inmate 99449
patient and with documentation of that participation. "Treatment 99450
plan" includes all of the following:99451

       (a) The specific criteria to be used in evaluating progress 99452
toward achieving the objectives and goals;99453

       (b) The services to be provided to the inmate patient during 99454
the inmate patient's hospitalization;99455

       (c) The services to be provided to the inmate patient after 99456
discharge from the hospital, including, but not limited to, 99457
housing and mental health services provided at the state 99458
correctional institution to which the inmate patient returns after 99459
discharge or community mental health services.99460

       (7) "Mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization 99461
by court order" has the same meaning as in section 5123.01 of the 99462
Revised Code.99463

       (8) "Emergency transfer" means the transfer of a mentally ill 99464
inmate to a psychiatric hospital when the inmate presents an 99465
immediate danger to self or others and requires hospital-level 99466
care.99467

       (9) "Uncontested transfer" means the transfer of a mentally 99468
ill inmate to a psychiatric hospital when the inmate has the 99469
mental capacity to, and has waived, the hearing required by 99470
division (B) of this section.99471

       (10)(a) "Independent decision-maker" means a person who is 99472
employed or retained by the department of rehabilitation and 99473
correction and is appointed by the chief or chief clinical officer 99474
of mental health services as a hospitalization hearing officer to 99475
conduct due process hearings.99476

       (b) An independent decision-maker who presides over any 99477
hearing or issues any order pursuant to this section shall be a 99478
psychiatrist, psychologist, or attorney, shall not be specifically 99479
associated with the institution in which the inmate who is the 99480
subject of the hearing or order resides at the time of the hearing 99481
or order, and previously shall not have had any treatment 99482
relationship with nor have represented in any legal proceeding the 99483
inmate who is the subject of the order.99484

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, if 99485
the warden of a state correctional institution or the warden's 99486
designee believes that an inmate should be transferred from the 99487
institution to a psychiatric hospital, the department shall hold a 99488
hearing to determine whether the inmate is a mentally ill person 99489
subject to hospitalization. The department shall conduct the 99490
hearing at the state correctional institution in which the inmate 99491
is confined, and the department shall provide qualified 99492
independent assistance to the inmate for the hearing. An 99493
independent decision-maker provided by the department shall 99494
preside at the hearing and determine whether the inmate is a 99495
mentally ill person subject to hospitalization.99496

       (2) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, prior 99497
to the hearing held pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section, 99498
the warden or the warden's designee shall give written notice to 99499
the inmate that the department is considering transferring the 99500
inmate to a psychiatric hospital, that it will hold a hearing on 99501
the proposed transfer at which the inmate may be present, that at 99502
the hearing the inmate has the rights described in division (B)(3) 99503
of this section, and that the department will provide qualified 99504
independent assistance to the inmate with respect to the hearing. 99505
The department shall not hold the hearing until the inmate has 99506
received written notice of the proposed transfer and has had 99507
sufficient time to consult with the person appointed by the 99508
department to provide assistance to the inmate and to prepare for 99509
a presentation at the hearing.99510

       (3) At the hearing held pursuant to division (B)(1) of this 99511
section, the department shall disclose to the inmate the evidence 99512
that it relies upon for the transfer and shall give the inmate an 99513
opportunity to be heard. Unless the independent decision-maker 99514
finds good cause for not permitting it, the inmate may present 99515
documentary evidence and the testimony of witnesses at the hearing 99516
and may confront and cross-examine witnesses called by the 99517
department.99518

       (4) If the independent decision-maker does not find clear and 99519
convincing evidence that the inmate is a mentally ill person 99520
subject to hospitalization, the department shall not transfer the 99521
inmate to a psychiatric hospital but shall continue to confine the 99522
inmate in the same state correctional institution or in another 99523
state correctional institution that the department considers 99524
appropriate. If the independent decision-maker finds clear and 99525
convincing evidence that the inmate is a mentally ill person 99526
subject to hospitalization, the decision-maker shall order that 99527
the inmate be transported to a psychiatric hospital for 99528
observation and treatment for a period of not longer than thirty 99529
days. After the hearing, the independent decision-maker shall 99530
submit to the department a written decision that states one of the 99531
findings described in division (B)(4) of this section, the 99532
evidence that the decision-maker relied on in reaching that 99533
conclusion, and, if the decision is that the inmate should be 99534
transferred, the reasons for the transfer.99535

       (C)(1) The department may transfer an inmate to a psychiatric 99536
hospital under an emergency transfer order if the chief clinical 99537
officer of mental health services of the department or that 99538
officer's designee and either a psychiatrist employed or retained 99539
by the department or, in the absence of a psychiatrist, a 99540
psychologist employed or retained by the department determines 99541
that the inmate is mentally ill, presents an immediate danger to 99542
self or others, and requires hospital-level care.99543

       (2) The department may transfer an inmate to a psychiatric 99544
hospital under an uncontested transfer order if both of the 99545
following apply:99546

       (a) A psychiatrist employed or retained by the department 99547
determines all of the following apply:99548

       (i) The inmate has a mental illness or is a mentally ill 99549
person subject to hospitalization.99550

       (ii) The inmate requires hospital care to address the mental 99551
illness.99552

       (iii) The inmate has the mental capacity to make a reasoned 99553
choice regarding the inmate's transfer to a hospital.99554

       (b) The inmate agrees to a transfer to a hospital.99555

       (3) The written notice and the hearing required under 99556
divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this section are not required for an 99557
emergency transfer or uncontested transfer under division (C)(1) 99558
or (2) of this section.99559

       (4) After an emergency transfer under division (C)(1) of this 99560
section, the department shall hold a hearing for continued 99561
hospitalization within five working days after admission of the 99562
transferred inmate to the psychiatric hospital. The department 99563
shall hold subsequent hearings pursuant to division (F) of this 99564
section at the same intervals as required for inmate patients who 99565
are transported to a psychiatric hospital under division (B)(4) of 99566
this section.99567

       (5) After an uncontested transfer under division (C)(2) of 99568
this section, the inmate may withdraw consent to the transfer in 99569
writing at any time. Upon the inmate's withdrawal of consent, the 99570
hospital shall discharge the inmate, or, within five working days, 99571
the department shall hold a hearing for continued hospitalization. 99572
The department shall hold subsequent hearings pursuant to division 99573
(F) of this section at the same time intervals as required for 99574
inmate patients who are transported to a psychiatric hospital 99575
under division (B)(4) of this section.99576

       (D)(1) If an independent decision-maker, pursuant to division 99577
(B)(4) of this section, orders an inmate transported to a 99578
psychiatric hospital or if an inmate is transferred pursuant to 99579
division (C)(1) or (2) of this section, the staff of the 99580
psychiatric hospital shall examine the inmate patient when 99581
admitted to the psychiatric hospital as soon as practicable after 99582
the inmate patient arrives at the hospital and no later than 99583
twenty-four hours after the time of arrival. The attending 99584
physician responsible for the inmate patient's care shall give the 99585
inmate patient all information necessary to enable the patient to 99586
give a fully informed, intelligent, and knowing consent to the 99587
treatment the inmate patient will receive in the hospital. The 99588
attending physician shall tell the inmate patient the expected 99589
physical and medical consequences of any proposed treatment and 99590
shall give the inmate patient the opportunity to consult with 99591
another psychiatrist at the hospital and with the inmate advisor.99592

       (2) No inmate patient who is transported or transferred 99593
pursuant to division (B)(4) or (C)(1) or (2) of this section to a 99594
psychiatric hospital within a facility that is operated by the 99595
department of rehabilitation and correction shall be subjected to 99596
any of the following procedures:99597

       (a) Convulsive therapy;99598

       (b) Major aversive interventions;99599

       (c) Any unusually hazardous treatment procedures;99600

       (d) Psychosurgery.99601

       (E) The department of rehabilitation and correction shall 99602
ensure that an inmate patient hospitalized pursuant to this 99603
section receives or has all of the following:99604

       (1) Receives sufficient professional care within twenty days 99605
of admission to ensure that an evaluation of the inmate patient's 99606
current status, differential diagnosis, probable prognosis, and 99607
description of the current treatment plan have been formulated and 99608
are stated on the inmate patient's official chart;99609

       (2) Has a written treatment plan consistent with the 99610
evaluation, diagnosis, prognosis, and goals of treatment;99611

       (3) Receives treatment consistent with the treatment plan;99612

       (4) Receives periodic reevaluations of the treatment plan by 99613
the professional staff at intervals not to exceed thirty days;99614

       (5) Is provided with adequate medical treatment for physical 99615
disease or injury;99616

       (6) Receives humane care and treatment, including, without 99617
being limited to, the following:99618

       (a) Access to the facilities and personnel required by the 99619
treatment plan;99620

       (b) A humane psychological and physical environment;99621

       (c) The right to obtain current information concerning the 99622
treatment program, the expected outcomes of treatment, and the 99623
expectations for the inmate patient's participation in the 99624
treatment program in terms that the inmate patient reasonably can 99625
understand;99626

       (d) Opportunity for participation in programs designed to 99627
help the inmate patient acquire the skills needed to work toward 99628
discharge from the psychiatric hospital;99629

       (e) The right to be free from unnecessary or excessive 99630
medication and from unnecessary restraints or isolation;99631

       (f) All other rights afforded inmates in the custody of the 99632
department consistent with rules, policy, and procedure of the 99633
department.99634

       (F) The department shall hold a hearing for the continued 99635
hospitalization of an inmate patient who is transported or 99636
transferred to a psychiatric hospital pursuant to division (B)(4) 99637
or (C)(1) of this section prior to the expiration of the initial 99638
thirty-day period of hospitalization. The department shall hold 99639
any subsequent hearings, if necessary, not later than ninety days 99640
after the first thirty-day hearing and then not later than each 99641
one hundred and eighty days after the immediately prior hearing. 99642
An independent decision-maker shall conduct the hearings at the 99643
psychiatric hospital in which the inmate patient is confined. The 99644
inmate patient shall be afforded all of the rights set forth in 99645
this section for the hearing prior to transfer to the psychiatric 99646
hospital. The department may not waive a hearing for continued 99647
commitment. A hearing for continued commitment is mandatory for an 99648
inmate patient transported or transferred to a psychiatric 99649
hospital pursuant to division (B)(4) or (C)(1) of this section 99650
unless the inmate patient has the capacity to make a reasoned 99651
choice to execute a waiver and waives the hearing in writing. An 99652
inmate patient who is transferred to a psychiatric hospital 99653
pursuant to an uncontested transfer under division (C)(2) of this 99654
section and who has scheduled hearings after withdrawal of consent 99655
for hospitalization may waive any of the scheduled hearings if the 99656
inmate has the capacity to make a reasoned choice and executes a 99657
written waiver of the hearing.99658

       If upon completion of the hearing the independent 99659
decision-maker does not find by clear and convincing evidence that 99660
the inmate patient is a mentally ill person subject to 99661
hospitalization, the independent decision-maker shall order the 99662
inmate patient's discharge from the psychiatric hospital. If the 99663
independent decision-maker finds by clear and convincing evidence 99664
that the inmate patient is a mentally ill person subject to 99665
hospitalization, the independent decision-maker shall order that 99666
the inmate patient remain at the psychiatric hospital for 99667
continued hospitalization until the next required hearing.99668

       If at any time prior to the next required hearing for 99669
continued hospitalization, the medical director of the hospital or 99670
the attending physician determines that the treatment needs of the 99671
inmate patient could be met equally well in an available and 99672
appropriate less restrictive state correctional institution or 99673
unit, the medical director or attending physician may discharge 99674
the inmate to that facility.99675

       (G) An inmate patient is entitled to the credits toward the 99676
reduction of the inmate patient's stated prison term pursuant to 99677
Chapters 2967. and 5120. of the Revised Code under the same terms 99678
and conditions as if the inmate patient were in any other 99679
institution of the department of rehabilitation and correction.99680

       (H) The adult parole authority may place an inmate patient on 99681
parole or under post-release control directly from a psychiatric 99682
hospital.99683

       (I) If an inmate patient who is a mentally ill person subject 99684
to hospitalization is to be released from a psychiatric hospital 99685
because of the expiration of the inmate patient's stated prison 99686
term, the director of rehabilitation and correction or the 99687
director's designee, at least fourteen days before the expiration 99688
date, may file an affidavit under section 5122.11 or 5123.71 of 99689
the Revised Code with the probate court in the county where the 99690
psychiatric hospital is located or the probate court in the county 99691
where the inmate will reside, alleging that the inmate patient is 99692
a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court order or 99693
a mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization by 99694
court order, whichever is applicable. The proceedings in the 99695
probate court shall be conducted pursuant to Chapter 5122. or 99696
5123. of the Revised Code except as modified by this division.99697

       Upon the request of the inmate patient, the probate court 99698
shall grant the inmate patient an initial hearing under section 99699
5122.141 of the Revised Code or a probable cause hearing under 99700
section 5123.75 of the Revised Code before the expiration of the 99701
stated prison term. After holding a full hearing, the probate 99702
court shall make a disposition authorized by section 5122.15 or 99703
5123.76 of the Revised Code before the date of the expiration of 99704
the stated prison term. No inmate patient shall be held in the 99705
custody of the department of rehabilitation and correction past 99706
the date of the expiration of the inmate patient's stated prison 99707
term.99708

       (J) The department of rehabilitation and correction shall set 99709
standards for treatment provided to inmate patients.99710

       (K) A certificate, application, record, or report that is 99711
made in compliance with this section and that directly or 99712
indirectly identifies an inmate or former inmate whose 99713
hospitalization has been sought under this section is 99714
confidential. No person shall disclose the contents of any 99715
certificate, application, record, or report of that nature or any 99716
other psychiatric or medical record or report regarding a mentally 99717
ill inmate unless one of the following applies:99718

       (1) The person identified, or the person's legal guardian, if 99719
any, consents to disclosure, and the chief clinical officer or 99720
designee of mental health services of the department of 99721
rehabilitation and correction determines that disclosure is in the 99722
best interests of the person.99723

       (2) Disclosure is required by a court order signed by a 99724
judge.99725

       (3) An inmate patient seeks access to the inmate patient's 99726
own psychiatric and medical records, unless access is specifically 99727
restricted in the treatment plan for clear treatment reasons.99728

       (4) Hospitals and other institutions and facilities within 99729
the department of rehabilitation and correction may exchange 99730
psychiatric records and other pertinent information with other 99731
hospitals, institutions, and facilities of the department, but the 99732
information that may be released about an inmate patient is 99733
limited to medication history, physical health status and history, 99734
summary of course of treatment in the hospital, summary of 99735
treatment needs, and a discharge summary, if any.99736

       (5) An inmate patient's family member who is involved in 99737
planning, providing, and monitoring services to the inmate patient 99738
may receive medication information, a summary of the inmate 99739
patient's diagnosis and prognosis, and a list of the services and 99740
personnel available to assist the inmate patient and family if the 99741
attending physician determines that disclosure would be in the 99742
best interest of the inmate patient. No disclosure shall be made 99743
under this division unless the inmate patient is notified of the 99744
possible disclosure, receives the information to be disclosed, and 99745
does not object to the disclosure.99746

       (6) The department of rehabilitation and correction may 99747
exchange psychiatric hospitalization records, other mental health 99748
treatment records, and other pertinent information with county 99749
sheriffs' offices, hospitals, institutions, and facilities of the 99750
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services99751
and with community mental health agenciesservices providers and 99752
boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services with 99753
which the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 99754
services has a current agreement for patient care or services to 99755
ensure continuity of care. Disclosure under this division is 99756
limited to records regarding a mentally ill inmate's medication 99757
history, physical health status and history, summary of course of 99758
treatment, summary of treatment needs, and a discharge summary, if 99759
any. No office, department, agency, provider, or board shall 99760
disclose the records and other information unless one of the 99761
following applies:99762

       (a) The mentally ill inmate is notified of the possible 99763
disclosure and consents to the disclosure.99764

       (b) The mentally ill inmate is notified of the possible 99765
disclosure, an attempt to gain the consent of the inmate is made, 99766
and the office, department, agency, or board documents the attempt 99767
to gain consent, the inmate's objections, if any, and the reasons 99768
for disclosure in spite of the inmate's objections.99769

       (7) Information may be disclosed to staff members designated 99770
by the director of rehabilitation and correction for the purpose 99771
of evaluating the quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of 99772
services and determining if the services meet minimum standards.99773

       The name of an inmate patient shall not be retained with the 99774
information obtained during the evaluations.99775

       (L) The director of rehabilitation and correction may adopt 99776
rules setting forth guidelines for the procedures required under 99777
divisions (B), (C)(1), and (C)(2) of this section.99778

       Sec. 5120.171.  (A) The department of rehabilitation and 99779
correction shall have exclusive direction and control of the care 99780
and treatment of seriously mentally ill inmates who are in the 99781
department's custody. The department shall enter into any 99782
arrangements it considers desirable on such matters, including but 99783
not limited to both of the following:99784

       (1) The monitoring of such services by another state agency 99785
or agencies;99786

       (2) Adopting joint standards for the provision and monitoring 99787
of mental health services with the department of mental health99788
mental health and addiction services and other state agencies.99789

       (B) In order to implement its duties imposed by division (A) 99790
of this section, the department of rehabilitation and correction 99791
may enter into a contract for the provision of the mental health 99792
services described in that division.99793

       Sec. 5120.652.  To participate in the prison nursery program, 99794
each eligible inmate selected by the department shall do all the 99795
following:99796

       (A) Agree in writing to do all the following:99797

       (1) Comply with any program, educational, counseling, and 99798
other requirements established for the program by the department 99799
of rehabilitation and correction;99800

       (2) If eligible, have the child participate in the medicaid 99801
program or a health insurance program;99802

       (3) Accept the normal risks of childrearing;99803

       (4) Abide by any court decisions regarding the allocation of 99804
parental rights and responsibilities with respect to the child.99805

       (B) Assign to the department any rights to support from any 99806
other person, excluding support assigned pursuant to section 99807
5107.20 of the Revised Code and medical support assigned pursuant 99808
to section 5101.595160.38 of the Revised Code;99809

       (C) Specify with whom the child is to be placed in the event 99810
the inmate's participation in the program is terminated for a 99811
reason other than release from imprisonment.99812

       Sec. 5120.654.  (A) The rights to support assigned by an 99813
inmate pursuant to section 5120.652 of the Revised Code constitute 99814
an obligation of the person who is responsible for providing the 99815
support to the department of rehabilitation and correction for the 99816
support provided the inmate and child pursuant to the prison 99817
nursery program. The division of child support in the department 99818
of job and family services shall collect support payments made 99819
pursuant to the assignment and forward them to the department of 99820
rehabilitation and correction.99821

       (B) The department of rehabilitation and correction may 99822
receive the following:99823

       (1) Money that is assigned or donated on behalf of, and 99824
public assistance provided under Ohio works first to, a specific 99825
inmate or child participating in the prison nursery program;99826

       (2) Money assigned or donated to establish and maintain the 99827
prison nursery program.99828

       (C) The amounts described in division (B)(1) of this section 99829
shall be placed in the individual nursery account created and 99830
maintained under section 5120.655 of the Revised Code for the 99831
inmate and child for whom the money was received. The money 99832
described in division (B)(2) of this section shall be deposited in 99833
the appropriate prison nursery program fund.99834

       Sec. 5121.051.  All outstanding liability of relatives for 99835
the support of any patient or resident in a benevolent institution 99836
under the control of the department of mental healthmental health 99837
and addiction services or the department of developmental 99838
disabilities accrued prior to January 1, 1956, including the 99839
liability of the patient personally, is hereby canceled, provided 99840
that this section does not abrogate any written agreements or 99841
security arrangement for the payment of support charges entered 99842
into between the state and any patient or liable relative prior to 99843
such date.99844

       Sec. 5121.30. As used in sections 5121.30 to 5121.56 of the 99845
Revised Code:99846

       (A) "Community mental health services client" or "client" 99847
means a person receiving state-operated community mental health 99848
services.99849

       (B) "Countable assets" means all of the following:99850

       (1) Cash;99851

       (2) Bank deposits;99852

       (3) Securities;99853

       (4) Individual retirement accounts;99854

       (5) Qualified employer plans, including 401(k) and Keogh 99855
plans;99856

       (6) Annuities;99857

       (7) Funds in a trust created under section 5815.28 of the 99858
Revised Code;99859

       (8) Investment property and income;99860

       (9) The cash surrender values of life insurance policies;99861

       (10) Assets acquired by gift, bequest, devise, or 99862
inheritance;99863

       (11) Any other asset determined by the department of mental 99864
healthmental health and addiction services to be equivalent to 99865
the assets enumerated in this division.99866

       (C)(B) "Federal poverty level" or "FPL" means the income 99867
level represented by the poverty guidelines as revised annually by 99868
the United States department of health and human services in 99869
accordance with section 673(2) of the "Omnibus Reconciliation Act 99870
of 1981," 95 Stat. 511, 42 U.S.C. 9902, as amended, for a family 99871
size equal to the size of the family of the person whose income is 99872
being determined.99873

       (D)(C) "Federal poverty guidelines" means the poverty 99874
guidelines as revised annually by the United States department of 99875
health and human services in accordance with section 673(2) of the 99876
"Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981," 95 Stat. 511, 42 99877
U.S.C. 9902, as amended, for a family size equal to the size of 99878
the family of the person whose income is being determined.99879

       (E)(D) "Hospital" means an institution, hospital, or other 99880
place established, controlled, or supervised by the department of 99881
mental healthmental health and addiction services under Chapter 99882
5119. of the Revised Code.99883

       (F)(E) "Liable relative" means all of the following:99884

       (1) A patient's spouse;99885

       (2) A patient's mother or father, or both, if the patient is 99886
under eighteen years of age;99887

       (3) A patient's guardian.99888

       (G)(F) "Patient" means a person admitted to a hospital for 99889
inpatient care or treatment, including a person transferred to a 99890
hospital from a state correctional institution or a person under 99891
indictment or conviction who has been transferred to a hospital.99892

       Sec. 5121.32.  On an annual basis, the department of mental 99893
healthmental health and addiction services shall determine both 99894
of the following using generally accepted governmental accounting 99895
principles:99896

       (A) The applicable per diem charge for each hospital operated 99897
by the department; 99898

       (B) The ancillary per diem rate for each hospital operated by 99899
the department.99900

       In determining a hospital's applicable per diem charge and 99901
ancillary per diem rate, the department shall consider the average 99902
actual per diem cost of maintaining and treating a patient at the 99903
hospital or, at the department's discretion, the average actual 99904
per diem cost of maintaining and treating a patient in a unit of 99905
the hospital.99906

       Sec. 5121.33.  Except as provided in sections 5121.35, 99907
5121.43, 5121.46, 5121.47, 5121.49, and 5121.52 of the Revised 99908
Code, the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 99909
services shall, for each billing cycle, charge a patient, 99910
patient's estate, or liable relative an amount equal to the sum of 99911
the following:99912

       (A) The applicable per diem charge multiplied by the number 99913
of days the patient was admitted to the hospital;99914

       (B) An amount that was previously billed but not paid.99915

       Sec. 5121.34.  (A) A patient, patient's estate, and patient's 99916
liable relatives shall be jointly and severally liable for amounts 99917
charged by the department of mental healthmental health and 99918
addiction services in accordance with section 5121.33 or 5121.35 99919
of the Revised Code. In no case shall any of the foregoing persons 99920
be liable for more than one hundred per cent of the full sum 99921
charged under section 5121.33 of the Revised Code.99922

       (B) Collections of support payments shall be made by the 99923
department and, subject to meeting prior requirements for payment 99924
and crediting of such collections and other available receipts, in 99925
accordance with the bond proceedings applicable to obligations 99926
issued pursuant to section 154.20 of the Revised Code. The 99927
collections and other available receipts designated by the 99928
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services for 99929
deposit in the special accounts, together with insurance contract 99930
payments provided for in section 5121.43 of the Revised Code, 99931
shall be remitted to the treasurer of state for deposit in the 99932
state treasury to the credit of the mental health operating fund, 99933
which is hereby created, to be used for the general purposes of 99934
the department. The department shall make refunds of overpayment 99935
of support charges from the mental health operating fund.99936

       Sec. 5121.35.  The department of mental healthmental health 99937
and addiction services shall charge a patient, patient's estate, 99938
or liable relative an amount discounted from the amount the 99939
department charges under section 5121.33 of the Revised Code if 99940
the department determines through the application process 99941
described in section 5121.36 of the Revised Code or through the 99942
financial assessment process described in section 5121.37 of the 99943
Revised Code that the patient, estate, or relative is eligible for 99944
a discount.99945

       Sec. 5121.36. (A) A patient, patient's estate, or liable 99946
relative may apply for a discount by completing an application 99947
form prescribed by the director of mental healthmental health and 99948
addiction services. The department of mental healthmental health 99949
and addiction services may require a patient, estate, or relative 99950
to furnish any of the following with an application form:99951

       (1) A copy of the patient's, estate's, or liable relative's 99952
federal income tax return for the year preceding the date of 99953
application or, if that is not yet available, the preceding year;99954

       (2) A copy of the patient's, estate's, or liable relative's 99955
employee tax withholding return (form W-2) for the year preceding 99956
the date of application;99957

       (3) Any other relevant documents prescribed by the director 99958
of mental healthmental health and addiction services.99959

       (B) To be considered, an application must be submitted to the 99960
department not later than ninety days after the date the patient 99961
is admitted to a hospital.99962

       (C) From the information provided by a patient, estate, or 99963
relative, the department shall determine whether the department 99964
will charge the person a discounted amount in accordance with 99965
sections 5121.40 and 5121.41 of the Revised Code. In making this 99966
determination, the department shall consider whether the patient 99967
is covered by an insurance policy or other contract that provides 99968
for payment of expenses and treatment for mental illness. If the 99969
department determines that the patient has coverage, the 99970
department shall require payment in accordance with section 99971
5121.43 of the Revised Code.99972

       (D) The department shall notify the patient, executor or 99973
administrator of the patient's estate, or liable relative who 99974
submitted the application form in writing regarding whether that 99975
person will be charged a discounted amount and the per diem rate 99976
to be charged.99977

       (E) In accordance with section 5121.42 of the Revised Code, 99978
the department may, at any time, modify an amount charged or 99979
change the per diem rate to be charged if the department learns of 99980
countable assets or income that was not previously disclosed or 99981
was acquired after the application form was submitted. Within a 99982
reasonable time, the department shall notify in writing any person 99983
affected by a modification or change.99984

       Sec. 5121.37. After a patient's admittance to a hospital, the 99985
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services99986
shall conduct a financial assessment to determine whether the 99987
patient, patient's estate, or liable relative will be charged an 99988
amount discounted from the amount the department charges under 99989
section 5121.33 of the Revised Code. The department shall make the 99990
determination in accordance with sections 5121.40 and 5121.41 of 99991
the Revised Code.99992

       If a discounted rate is to be charged, the department shall 99993
notify the person whose financial condition was assessed. The 99994
notice shall specify the per diem rate to be charged.99995

       In accordance with section 5121.42 of the Revised Code, the 99996
department may, at any time, modify an amount charged or change 99997
the per diem rate to be charged if the department learns of 99998
countable assets or income that was not previously disclosed or 99999
was acquired after the assessment was conducted. Within a 100000
reasonable time, the department shall notify in writing any person 100001
affected by a modification or change.100002

       Sec. 5121.38.  The department of mental healthmental health 100003
and addiction services may subpoena witnesses, take testimony 100004
under oath, and examine any public records relating to the income 100005
and other assets of a patient or of a relative liable for such 100006
patient's support. All information, conclusions, and 100007
recommendations shall be submitted to the department by the 100008
investigating agent of the department.100009

       Sec. 5121.40. (A) A patient, patient's estate, or liable 100010
relative may be eligible to be charged an amount discounted from 100011
the amount the department of mental healthmental health and 100012
addiction services charges under section 5121.33 of the Revised 100013
Code if the patient, estate, or relative has countable assets with 100014
a total value that is not greater than an amount equal to fifty 100015
per cent of the difference between the following:100016

        (1) The gross annual income that corresponds with a family 100017
size of two persons at one hundred per cent of the federal poverty 100018
level for the state;100019

        (2) The gross annual income that corresponds with a family 100020
size of one person at one hundred per cent of the federal poverty 100021
level for the state. For purposes of determining family size, the 100022
patient is one dependent. One additional dependent shall be 100023
included for each of the following circumstances and persons:100024

       (a) The patient or liable relative is legally blind or deaf.100025

       (b) The patient or liable relative is of sixty-five years of 100026
age or older.100027

       (c) Each child under eighteen years of age for which the 100028
patient or liable relative has legal custody;100029

       (d) The patient's or liable relative's spouse. 100030

       (B) A patient, estate, or relative may, not later than ninety 100031
days after the patient's admission to a hospital, surrender the 100032
value of countable assets sufficient to reduce countable assets to 100033
not more than the limit described in division (A) of this section.100034

       Sec. 5121.42. (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this 100035
section, a patient, patient's estate, or liable relative shall 100036
cease to be eligible for a discount under sectionssection 5121.36 100037
or 5121.37 of the Revised Code on accumulation of countable assets 100038
in excess of an amount equal to fifty per cent of the difference 100039
between the following:100040

        (1) The gross annual income that corresponds with a family 100041
size of two persons at one hundred per cent of the federal poverty 100042
level for the state;100043

        (2) The gross annual income that corresponds with a family 100044
size of one person at one hundred per cent of the federal poverty 100045
level for the state.100046

       (B) Money needed to meet the patient's needs and burial fund 100047
as determined by a needs assessment conducted by the department of 100048
mental healthmental health and addiction services pursuant to 100049
rules adopted under section 5119.015119.10 of the Revised Code 100050
shall be excluded from any determination the department makes 100051
under division (A) of this section.100052

       Sec. 5121.43. If a patient is covered by an insurance policy 100053
or other contract that provides for payment of expenses for care 100054
and treatment for mental illness at or from a hospital under the 100055
jurisdiction of the department of mental healthmental health and 100056
addiction services, sections 5121.33 to 5121.55 of the Revised 100057
Code are inapplicable to the extent that the policy or contract is 100058
in force. Any insurance carrier or other third party payor 100059
providing coverage for such care and treatment shall pay for the 100060
patient's support obligation in amounts equal to the lesser of 100061
amounts charged by the department under section 5121.33 of the 100062
Revised Code or the benefits provided under the policy or other 100063
contract. Whether or not an insured, owner of, or other person 100064
having an interest in such policy or other contract is liable for 100065
support payments, the insured, policy owner, or other person shall 100066
assign payment directly to the department of all assignable 100067
benefits under the policy or other contract and shall pay to the 100068
department, within ten days of receipt, all insurance or other 100069
benefits received as reimbursement or payment for expenses 100070
incurred by the patient or for any other reason. If the insured, 100071
policy owner, or other person refuses to assign payment to the 100072
department or refuses to pay received reimbursements or payments 100073
to the department within ten days of receipt, the total liability 100074
of the insured, policy owner, or other person for the services is 100075
an amount equal to the per diem charge for the hospital where the 100076
patient was admitted multiplied by the number of days the patient 100077
was admitted.100078

       In no event shall this total liability exceed the 100079
department's actual cost of providing care and treatment to a 100080
patient. The department may disqualify patients and liable 100081
relatives who have retained third party funds from future 100082
discounts. The department may request that the attorney general 100083
petition a court of competent jurisdiction to compel the insured, 100084
owner of, or other person having an interest in the policy or 100085
contract to comply with the assignment requirements in this 100086
section.100087

       Sec. 5121.44. The department of mental healthmental health 100088
and addiction services may enter into an extended payment 100089
agreement with a patient, patient's estate, or liable relative who 100090
has notified the department that the patient, estate, or relative 100091
cannot reasonably pay an amount the department has charged. In no 100092
case shall the department take a security interest, mortgage, or 100093
lien against the principal family residence of a patient or liable 100094
relative.100095

       Sec. 5121.45. (A) For purposes of this section, "delinquent 100096
payment" means an amount owed by a patient, patient's estate, or 100097
liable relative to the department of mental healthmental health 100098
and addiction services for which the person has failed to do 100099
either of the following not later than ninety days after the 100100
service associated with the charge was incurred:100101

       (1) Make payment in full;100102

       (2) Make a payment in accordance with the terms of an 100103
agreement entered into under section 5121.44 of the Revised Code.100104

       (B) An action to enforce the collection of a delinquent 100105
payment shall be commenced not later than six years after the 100106
later of the following:100107

       (1) The last date the department received money to satisfy 100108
the delinquent payment;100109

       (2) The date the charge was due.100110

       (C) In all actions to enforce the collection of delinquent 100111
payments, a court of record shall receive into evidence the proof 100112
of claim document made by the state together with all debts and 100113
credits. The proof of claim document shall be prima-facie evidence 100114
of the facts stated in the document.100115

       Sec. 5121.46. The department of mental healthmental health 100116
and addiction services shall not charge a liable relative under 100117
sections 5121.33 and 5121.35 of the Revised Code who has done 100118
either of the following:100119

       (A) Paid all amounts charged by the department for the care 100120
and treatment of a particular patient for fifteen consecutive 100121
years;100122

       (B) Paid amounts charged by the department for the care and 100123
treatment of more than one patient for a total of fifteen 100124
consecutive years.100125

       Sec. 5121.47. Irrespective of the number of patients for 100126
which the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 100127
services may charge a liable relative under sections 5121.33 or100128
and 5121.35 of the Revised Code, the department shall not charge a 100129
liable relative or group of liable relatives who are members of 100130
the same family unit for the support of more than one patient 100131
during the same period of time.100132

       Sec. 5121.49. (A) Any person who has been charged under 100133
section 5121.33 or 5121.35 of the Revised Code may petition the 100134
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services100135
to do the following:100136

       (1) Release the person from a charge;100137

       (2) Modify or cancel a charge.100138

       (B) The department shall respond to a petition in writing and 100139
inform the petitioner of whether a release, modification, or 100140
cancellation has been approved.100141

       Sec. 5121.50. When a patient is committed to a hospital 100142
pursuant to judicial proceedings, the judge ordering the 100143
commitment shall:100144

       (A) Make a reliable report on the financial condition of the 100145
patient and of each liable relative, as provided in rules adopted 100146
by the director of mental healthmental health and addiction 100147
services;100148

       (B) Certify the report required under division (A) of this 100149
section to the managing officer of the hospital. The managing 100150
officer shall thereupon enter in the managing officer's records 100151
the name and address of any guardian appointed and of any relative 100152
liable for the patient's support.100153

       Sec. 5121.51.  In case the estate of any patient in a 100154
hospital is sufficient for the patient's support and no guardian 100155
has been appointed for such estate, the agent of the department of 100156
mental healthmental health and addiction services shall petition 100157
the probate court of the proper county to appoint a guardian.100158

       Sec. 5121.52.  On the death of a person who is a patient, or 100159
has been a patient in a hospital, or on the death of a person 100160
responsible under section 5121.34 of the Revised Code for the 100161
support of a patient, the department of mental healthmental 100162
health and addiction services may waive the presentation of any 100163
claim for support against the estate of such decedent, when in its 100164
judgment an otherwise dependent person will be directly benefited 100165
by the estate. Claims against an estate for support of a patient 100166
are subject to section 5815.28 and Chapter 2117. of the Revised 100167
Code, and shall be treated, and may be barred, the same as the 100168
claims of other creditors of the estate, pursuant to that section 100169
or chapter.100170

       The department of mental healthmental health and addiction 100171
services may accept from a guardian or trustee of a patient a 100172
contract agreeing to pay to the state from the property of the 100173
guardian's or trustee's ward before or at the death of the ward a 100174
fixed annual amount for the support of the ward while the ward is 100175
a patient, with interest at four per cent per annum. A copy of the 100176
contract shall be filed in the probate court of the proper county 100177
and duly entered as a part of the records concerning the ward.100178

       Sec. 5121.55. The cost for support of a client of 100179
state-operated community mental health services is an amount 100180
determined using guidelines the department of mental healthmental 100181
health and addiction services shall issue. The guidelines shall be 100182
based on cost findings and rate-settings applicable to such 100183
services.100184

       Sec. 5122.01.  As used in this chapter and Chapter 5119. of 100185
the Revised Code:100186

       (A) "Mental illness" means a substantial disorder of thought, 100187
mood, perception, orientation, or memory that grossly impairs 100188
judgment, behavior, capacity to recognize reality, or ability to 100189
meet the ordinary demands of life.100190

       (B) "Mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 100191
order" means a mentally ill person who, because of the person's 100192
illness:100193

       (1) Represents a substantial risk of physical harm to self as 100194
manifested by evidence of threats of, or attempts at, suicide or 100195
serious self-inflicted bodily harm;100196

       (2) Represents a substantial risk of physical harm to others 100197
as manifested by evidence of recent homicidal or other violent 100198
behavior, evidence of recent threats that place another in 100199
reasonable fear of violent behavior and serious physical harm, or 100200
other evidence of present dangerousness;100201

       (3) Represents a substantial and immediate risk of serious 100202
physical impairment or injury to self as manifested by evidence 100203
that the person is unable to provide for and is not providing for 100204
the person's basic physical needs because of the person's mental 100205
illness and that appropriate provision for those needs cannot be 100206
made immediately available in the community; or100207

       (4) Would benefit from treatment in a hospital for the 100208
person's mental illness and is in need of such treatment as 100209
manifested by evidence of behavior that creates a grave and 100210
imminent risk to substantial rights of others or the person.100211

       (C)(1) "Patient" means, subject to division (C)(2) of this 100212
section, a person who is admitted either voluntarily or 100213
involuntarily to a hospital or other place under section 2945.39, 100214
2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code subsequent to a 100215
finding of not guilty by reason of insanity or incompetence to 100216
stand trial or under this chapter, who is under observation or 100217
receiving treatment in such place.100218

       (2) "Patient" does not include a person admitted to a 100219
hospital or other place under section 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, 100220
or 2945.402 of the Revised Code to the extent that the reference 100221
in this chapter to patient, or the context in which the reference 100222
occurs, is in conflict with any provision of sections 2945.37 to 100223
2945.402 of the Revised Code.100224

       (D) "Licensed physician" means a person licensed under the 100225
laws of this state to practice medicine or a medical officer of 100226
the government of the United States while in this state in the 100227
performance of the person's official duties.100228

       (E) "Psychiatrist" means a licensed physician who has 100229
satisfactorily completed a residency training program in 100230
psychiatry, as approved by the residency review committee of the 100231
American medical association, the committee on post-graduate 100232
education of the American osteopathic association, or the American 100233
osteopathic board of neurology and psychiatry, or who on July 1, 100234
1989, has been recognized as a psychiatrist by the Ohio state 100235
medical association or the Ohio osteopathic association on the 100236
basis of formal training and five or more years of medical 100237
practice limited to psychiatry.100238

       (F) "Hospital" means a hospital or inpatient unit licensed by 100239
the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 100240
services under section 5119.205119.33 of the Revised Code, and 100241
any institution, hospital, or other place established, controlled, 100242
or supervised by the department under Chapter 5119. of the Revised 100243
Code.100244

       (G) "Public hospital" means a facility that is tax-supported 100245
and under the jurisdiction of the department of mental health100246
mental health and addiction services.100247

       (H) "Community mental health agencyservices provider" means 100248
an agency, association, corporation, individual, or program that 100249
provides community mental health services that are certified by 100250
the director of mental healthmental health and addiction services100251
under section 5119.6115119.36 of the Revised Code.100252

       (I) "Licensed clinical psychologist" means a person who holds 100253
a current valid psychologist license issued under section 4732.12 100254
or 4732.15 of the Revised Code, and in addition, meets either of 100255
the following criteria:100256

       (1) Meets the educational requirements set forth in division 100257
(B) of section 4732.10 of the Revised Code and has a minimum of 100258
two years' full-time professional experience, or the equivalent as 100259
determined by rule of the state board of psychology, at least one 100260
year of which shall be a predoctoral internship, in clinical 100261
psychological work in a public or private hospital or clinic or in 100262
private practice, diagnosing and treating problems of mental 100263
illness or mental retardation under the supervision of a 100264
psychologist who is licensed or who holds a diploma issued by the 100265
American board of professional psychology, or whose qualifications 100266
are substantially similar to those required for licensure by the 100267
state board of psychology when the supervision has occurred prior 100268
to enactment of laws governing the practice of psychology;100269

       (2) Meets the educational requirements set forth in division 100270
(B) of section 4732.15 of the Revised Code and has a minimum of 100271
four years' full-time professional experience, or the equivalent 100272
as determined by rule of the state board of psychology, in 100273
clinical psychological work in a public or private hospital or 100274
clinic or in private practice, diagnosing and treating problems of 100275
mental illness or mental retardation under supervision, as set 100276
forth in division (I)(1) of this section.100277

       (J) "Health officer" means any public health physician; 100278
public health nurse; or other person authorized by or designated 100279
by a city health district; a general health district; or a board 100280
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services to perform 100281
the duties of a health officer under this chapter.100282

       (K) "Chief clinical officer" means the medical director of a 100283
hospital, or a community mental health agencyservices provider, 100284
or a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services, 100285
or, if there is no medical director, the licensed physician 100286
responsible for the treatment a hospital or community mental 100287
health agencyservices provider provides. The chief clinical 100288
officer may delegate to the attending physician responsible for a 100289
patient's care the duties imposed on the chief clinical officer by 100290
this chapter. Within a community mental health agencyservices 100291
provider, the chief clinical officer shall be designated by the 100292
governing body of the agencyservices provider and shall be a 100293
licensed physician or licensed clinical psychologist who 100294
supervises diagnostic and treatment services. A licensed physician 100295
or licensed clinical psychologist designated by the chief clinical 100296
officer may perform the duties and accept the responsibilities of 100297
the chief clinical officer in the chief clinical officer's 100298
absence.100299

       (L) "Working day" or "court day" means Monday, Tuesday, 100300
Wednesday, Thursday, and Friday, except when such day is a 100301
holiday.100302

       (M) "Indigent" means unable without deprivation of 100303
satisfaction of basic needs to provide for the payment of an 100304
attorney and other necessary expenses of legal representation, 100305
including expert testimony.100306

       (N) "Respondent" means the person whose detention, 100307
commitment, hospitalization, continued hospitalization or 100308
commitment, or discharge is being sought in any proceeding under 100309
this chapter.100310

       (O) "Ohio protection and advocacy system" has the same 100311
meaning as in section 5123.60 of the Revised Code.100312

       (P) "Independent expert evaluation" means an evaluation 100313
conducted by a licensed clinical psychologist, psychiatrist, or 100314
licensed physician who has been selected by the respondent or the 100315
respondent's counsel and who consents to conducting the 100316
evaluation.100317

       (Q) "Court" means the probate division of the court of common 100318
pleas.100319

       (R) "Expunge" means:100320

       (1) The removal and destruction of court files and records, 100321
originals and copies, and the deletion of all index references;100322

       (2) The reporting to the person of the nature and extent of 100323
any information about the person transmitted to any other person 100324
by the court;100325

       (3) Otherwise insuring that any examination of court files 100326
and records in question shall show no record whatever with respect 100327
to the person;100328

       (4) That all rights and privileges are restored, and that the 100329
person, the court, and any other person may properly reply that no 100330
such record exists, as to any matter expunged.100331

       (S) "Residence" means a person's physical presence in a 100332
county with intent to remain there, except that:100333

       (1) If a person is receiving a mental health service at a 100334
facility that includes nighttime sleeping accommodations, 100335
residence means that county in which the person maintained the 100336
person's primary place of residence at the time the person entered 100337
the facility;100338

       (2) If a person is committed pursuant to section 2945.38, 100339
2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code, 100340
residence means the county where the criminal charges were filed.100341

       When the residence of a person is disputed, the matter of 100342
residence shall be referred to the department of mental health100343
mental health and addiction services for investigation and 100344
determination. Residence shall not be a basis for a board's 100345
denying services to any person present in the board's service 100346
district, and the board shall provide services for a person whose 100347
residence is in dispute while residence is being determined and 100348
for a person in an emergency situation.100349

       (T) "Admission" to a hospital or other place means that a 100350
patient is accepted for and stays at least one night at the 100351
hospital or other place.100352

       (U) "Prosecutor" means the prosecuting attorney, village 100353
solicitor, city director of law, or similar chief legal officer 100354
who prosecuted a criminal case in which a person was found not 100355
guilty by reason of insanity, who would have had the authority to 100356
prosecute a criminal case against a person if the person had not 100357
been found incompetent to stand trial, or who prosecuted a case in 100358
which a person was found guilty.100359

       (V) "Treatment plan" means a written statement of reasonable 100360
objectives and goals for an individual established by the 100361
treatment team, with specific criteria to evaluate progress 100362
towards achieving those objectives. The active participation of 100363
the patient in establishing the objectives and goals shall be 100364
documented. The treatment plan shall be based on patient needs and 100365
include services to be provided to the patient while the patient 100366
is hospitalized and after the patient is discharged. The treatment 100367
plan shall address services to be provided upon discharge, 100368
including but not limited to housing, financial, and vocational 100369
services.100370

       (W) "Community control sanction" has the same meaning as in 100371
section 2929.01 of the Revised Code.100372

       (X) "Post-release control sanction" has the same meaning as 100373
in section 2967.01 of the Revised Code.100374

       Sec. 5122.03.  A patient admitted under section 5122.02 of 100375
the Revised Code who requests release in writing, or whose release 100376
is requested in writing by the patient's counsel, legal guardian, 100377
parent, spouse, or adult next of kin shall be released forthwith, 100378
except that when:100379

       (A) The patient was admitted on the patient's own application 100380
and the request for release is made by a person other than the 100381
patient, release may be conditional upon the agreement of the 100382
patient; or100383

       (B) The chief clinical officer of the hospital, within three 100384
court days from the receipt of the request for release, files or 100385
causes to be filed with the court of the county where the patient 100386
is hospitalized or of the county where the patient is a resident, 100387
an affidavit under section 5122.11 of the Revised Code. Release 100388
may be postponed until the hearing held under section 5122.141 of 100389
the Revised Code. A telephone communication within three court 100390
days from the receipt of the request for release from the chief 100391
clinical officer to the court, indicating that the required 100392
affidavit has been mailed, is sufficient compliance with the time 100393
limit for filing such affidavit.100394

       Unless the patient is released within three days from the 100395
receipt of the request by the chief clinical officer, the request 100396
shall serve as a request for an initial hearing under section 100397
5122.141 of the Revised Code. If the court finds that the patient 100398
is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 100399
order, all provisions of this chapter with respect to involuntary 100400
hospitalization apply to such person.100401

       Judicial proceedings for hospitalization shall not be 100402
commenced with respect to a voluntary patient except pursuant to 100403
this section.100404

       Sections 5121.30 to 5121.56 of the Revised Code apply to 100405
persons received in a hospital operated by the department of100406
mental healthmental health and addiction services on a voluntary 100407
application.100408

       The chief clinical officer of the hospital shall provide 100409
reasonable means and arrangements for informing patients of their 100410
rights to release as provided in this section and for assisting 100411
them in making and presenting requests for release or for a 100412
hearing under section 5122.141 of the Revised Code.100413

       Before a patient is released from a public hospital, the 100414
chief clinical officer shall, when possible, notify the board of 100415
the patient's county of residence of the patient's pending release 100416
after the chief clinical officer has informed the patient that the 100417
board will be so notified.100418

       Sec. 5122.10.  Any psychiatrist, licensed clinical 100419
psychologist, licensed physician, health officer, parole officer, 100420
police officer, or sheriff may take a person into custody, or the 100421
chief of the adult parole authority or a parole or probation 100422
officer with the approval of the chief of the authority may take a 100423
parolee, an offender under a community control sanction or a 100424
post-release control sanction, or an offender under transitional 100425
control into custody and may immediately transport the parolee, 100426
offender on community control or post-release control, or offender 100427
under transitional control to a hospital or, notwithstanding 100428
section 5119.205119.33 of the Revised Code, to a general hospital 100429
not licensed by the department of mental healthmental health and 100430
addiction services where the parolee, offender on community 100431
control or post-release control, or offender under transitional 100432
control may be held for the period prescribed in this section, if 100433
the psychiatrist, licensed clinical psychologist, licensed 100434
physician, health officer, parole officer, police officer, or 100435
sheriff has reason to believe that the person is a mentally ill 100436
person subject to hospitalization by court order under division 100437
(B) of section 5122.01 of the Revised Code, and represents a 100438
substantial risk of physical harm to self or others if allowed to 100439
remain at liberty pending examination.100440

       A written statement shall be given to such hospital by the 100441
transporting psychiatrist, licensed clinical psychologist, 100442
licensed physician, health officer, parole officer, police 100443
officer, chief of the adult parole authority, parole or probation 100444
officer, or sheriff stating the circumstances under which such 100445
person was taken into custody and the reasons for the 100446
psychiatrist's, licensed clinical psychologist's, licensed 100447
physician's, health officer's, parole officer's, police officer's, 100448
chief of the adult parole authority's, parole or probation 100449
officer's, or sheriff's belief. This statement shall be made 100450
available to the respondent or the respondent's attorney upon 100451
request of either.100452

       Every reasonable and appropriate effort shall be made to take 100453
persons into custody in the least conspicuous manner possible. A 100454
person taking the respondent into custody pursuant to this section 100455
shall explain to the respondent: the name,and professional 100456
designation, and agency affiliation of the person taking the 100457
respondent into custody; that the custody-taking is not a criminal 100458
arrest; and that the person is being taken for examination by 100459
mental health professionals at a specified mental health facility 100460
identified by name.100461

       If a person taken into custody under this section is 100462
transported to a general hospital, the general hospital may admit 100463
the person, or provide care and treatment for the person, or both, 100464
notwithstanding section 5119.205119.33 of the Revised Code, but 100465
by the end of twenty-four hours after arrival at the general 100466
hospital, the person shall be transferred to a hospital as defined 100467
in section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.100468

       A person transported or transferred to a hospital or 100469
community mental health agencyservices provider under this 100470
section shall be examined by the staff of the hospital or agency100471
services provider within twenty-four hours after arrival at the 100472
hospital or agencyservices provider. If to conduct the 100473
examination requires that the person remain overnight, the 100474
hospital or agencyservices provider shall admit the person in an 100475
unclassified status until making a disposition under this section. 100476
After the examination, if the chief clinical officer of the 100477
hospital or agencyservices provider believes that the person is 100478
not a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 100479
order, the chief clinical officer shall release or discharge the 100480
person immediately unless a court has issued a temporary order of 100481
detention applicable to the person under section 5122.11 of the 100482
Revised Code. After the examination, if the chief clinical officer 100483
believes that the person is a mentally ill person subject to 100484
hospitalization by court order, the chief clinical officer may 100485
detain the person for not more than three court days following the 100486
day of the examination and during such period admit the person as 100487
a voluntary patient under section 5122.02 of the Revised Code or 100488
file an affidavit under section 5122.11 of the Revised Code. If 100489
neither action is taken and a court has not otherwise issued a 100490
temporary order of detention applicable to the person under 100491
section 5122.11 of the Revised Code, the chief clinical officer 100492
shall discharge the person at the end of the three-day period 100493
unless the person has been sentenced to the department of 100494
rehabilitation and correction and has not been released from the 100495
person's sentence, in which case the person shall be returned to 100496
that department.100497

       Sec. 5122.11.  Proceedings for the hospitalization of a 100498
person pursuant to sections 5122.11 to 5122.15 of the Revised Code 100499
shall be commenced by the filing of an affidavit in the manner and 100500
form prescribed by the department of mental healthmental health 100501
and addiction services, by any person or persons with the court, 100502
either on reliable information or actual knowledge, whichever is 100503
determined to be proper by the court. This section does not apply 100504
to the hospitalization of a person pursuant to section 2945.39, 100505
2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code.100506

       The affidavit shall contain an allegation setting forth the 100507
specific category or categories under division (B) of section 100508
5122.01 of the Revised Code upon which the jurisdiction of the 100509
court is based and a statement of alleged facts sufficient to 100510
indicate probable cause to believe that the person is a mentally 100511
ill person subject to hospitalization by court order. The 100512
affidavit may be accompanied, or the court may require that the 100513
affidavit be accompanied, by a certificate of a psychiatrist, or a 100514
certificate signed by a licensed clinical psychologist and a 100515
certificate signed by a licensed physician stating that the person 100516
who issued the certificate has examined the person and is of the 100517
opinion that the person is a mentally ill person subject to 100518
hospitalization by court order, or shall be accompanied by a 100519
written statement by the applicant, under oath, that the person 100520
has refused to submit to an examination by a psychiatrist, or by a 100521
licensed clinical psychologist and licensed physician.100522

       Upon receipt of the affidavit, if a judge of the court or a 100523
referee who is an attorney at law appointed by the court has 100524
probable cause to believe that the person named in the affidavit 100525
is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 100526
order, the judge or referee may issue a temporary order of 100527
detention ordering any health or police officer or sheriff to take 100528
into custody and transport the person to a hospital or other place 100529
designated in section 5122.17 of the Revised Code, or may set the 100530
matter for further hearing.100531

       The person may be observed and treated until the hearing 100532
provided for in section 5122.141 of the Revised Code. If no such 100533
hearing is held, the person may be observed and treated until the 100534
hearing provided for in section 5122.15 of the Revised Code.100535

       Sec. 5122.12.  After receipt of the affidavit required by 100536
section 5122.11 of the Revised Code, the court shall cause written 100537
notice by mail or otherwise of any hearing as the court directs to 100538
be given to the following persons:100539

       (A) The respondent;100540

       (B) The respondent's legal guardian, if any, the respondent's 100541
spouse, if any, and the respondent's parents, if the respondent is 100542
a minor, if these persons' addresses are known to the court or can 100543
be obtained through exercise of reasonable diligence;100544

       (C) The person who filed the affidavit;100545

       (D) Any one person designated by the respondent; but if the 100546
respondent does not make a selection, the notice shall be sent to 100547
the adult next of kin other than the person who filed the 100548
affidavit if that person's address is known to the court or can be 100549
obtained through exercise of reasonable diligence;100550

       (E) The respondent's counsel;100551

       (F) The director, chief clinical officer, or the respective 100552
designee of the hospital, board, agencycommunity mental health 100553
services provider, or facility to which the person has been 100554
committed;100555

       (G) The board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 100556
services serving the respondent's county of residence or an agency100557
a services provider the board designates.100558

       Any person entitled to notice under this section, with the 100559
exception of the respondent, may waive the notice.100560

       A copy of the affidavit and temporary order of detention 100561
shall be served with the notice to the parties and to respondent's 100562
counsel, if counsel has been appointed or retained.100563

       Sec. 5122.13.  Upon receipt of the affidavit required by 100564
section 5122.11 of the Revised Code, the court shall refer the 100565
affidavit to the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 100566
health services or an agencycommunity mental health services 100567
provider the board designates to assist the court in determining 100568
whether the respondent is subject to hospitalization and whether 100569
alternative services are available, unless the agencyservices 100570
provider or board has already performed such screening. The board 100571
or agencyservices provider shall review the allegations of the 100572
affidavit and other information relating to whether or not the 100573
person named in the affidavit or statement is a mentally ill 100574
person subject to hospitalization by court order, and the 100575
availability of appropriate treatment alternatives.100576

       The person who conducts the investigation shall promptly make 100577
a report to the court, in writing, in open court or in chambers, 100578
as directed by the court and a full record of the report shall be 100579
made by the court. The report is not admissible as evidence for 100580
the purpose of establishing whether or not the respondent is a 100581
mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court order, but 100582
shall be considered by the court in its determination of an 100583
appropriate placement for any person after that person is found to 100584
be a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization.100585

       The court, prior to the hearing under section 5122.141 of the 100586
Revised Code, shall release a copy of the investigative report to 100587
the respondent's counsel.100588

       Nothing in this section precludes a judge or referee from 100589
issuing a temporary order of detention pursuant to section 5122.11 100590
of the Revised Code.100591

       Sec. 5122.15.  (A) Full hearings shall be conducted in a 100592
manner consistent with this chapter and with due process of law. 100593
The hearings shall be conducted by a judge of the probate court or 100594
a referee designated by a judge of the probate court and may be 100595
conducted in or out of the county in which the respondent is held. 100596
Any referee designated under this division shall be an attorney.100597

       (1) With the consent of the respondent, the following shall 100598
be made available to counsel for the respondent:100599

       (a) All relevant documents, information, and evidence in the 100600
custody or control of the state or prosecutor;100601

       (b) All relevant documents, information, and evidence in the 100602
custody or control of the hospital in which the respondent 100603
currently is held, or in which the respondent has been held 100604
pursuant to this chapter;100605

       (c) All relevant documents, information, and evidence in the 100606
custody or control of any hospital, facility, or person not 100607
included in division (A)(1)(a) or (b) of this section.100608

       (2) The respondent has the right to attend the hearing and to 100609
be represented by counsel of the respondent's choice. The right to 100610
attend the hearing may be waived only by the respondent or counsel 100611
for the respondent after consultation with the respondent.100612

       (3) If the respondent is not represented by counsel, is 100613
absent from the hearing, and has not validly waived the right to 100614
counsel, the court shall appoint counsel immediately to represent 100615
the respondent at the hearing, reserving the right to tax costs of 100616
appointed counsel to the respondent, unless it is shown that the 100617
respondent is indigent. If the court appoints counsel, or if the 100618
court determines that the evidence relevant to the respondent's 100619
absence does not justify the absence, the court shall continue the 100620
case.100621

       (4) The respondent shall be informed that the respondent may 100622
retain counsel and have independent expert evaluation. If the 100623
respondent is unable to obtain an attorney, the respondent shall 100624
be represented by court-appointed counsel. If the respondent is 100625
indigent, court-appointed counsel and independent expert 100626
evaluation shall be provided as an expense under section 5122.43 100627
of the Revised Code.100628

       (5) The hearing shall be closed to the public, unless counsel 100629
for the respondent, with the permission of the respondent, 100630
requests that the hearing be open to the public.100631

       (6) If the hearing is closed to the public, the court, for 100632
good cause shown, may admit persons who have a legitimate interest 100633
in the proceedings. If the respondent, the respondent's counsel, 100634
or the designee of the director or of the chief clinical officer 100635
objects to the admission of any person, the court shall hear the 100636
objection and any opposing argument and shall rule upon the 100637
admission of the person to the hearing.100638

       (7) The affiant under section 5122.11 of the Revised Code 100639
shall be subject to subpoena by either party.100640

       (8) The court shall examine the sufficiency of all documents 100641
filed and shall inform the respondent, if present, and the 100642
respondent's counsel of the nature and content of the documents 100643
and the reason for which the respondent is being detained, or for 100644
which the respondent's placement is being sought.100645

       (9) The court shall receive only reliable, competent, and 100646
material evidence.100647

       (10) Unless proceedings are initiated pursuant to section 100648
5120.17 or 5139.08 of the Revised Code or proceedings are 100649
initiated regarding a resident of the service district of a board 100650
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services that elects 100651
under division (C)(2) of section 5119.62 of the Revised Code not 100652
to accept the amount allocated to it under that section, an 100653
attorney that the board designates shall present the case 100654
demonstrating that the respondent is a mentally ill person subject 100655
to hospitalization by court order. The attorney shall offer 100656
evidence of the diagnosis, prognosis, record of treatment, if any, 100657
and less restrictive treatment plans, if any. In proceedings 100658
pursuant to section 5120.17 or 5139.08 of the Revised Code and in 100659
proceedings in which the respondent is a resident of a service 100660
district of a board that elects under division (C)(2) of section 100661
5119.62 of the Revised Code not to accept the amount allocated to 100662
it under that section, the attorney general shall designate an 100663
attorney who shall present the case demonstrating that the 100664
respondent is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by 100665
court order. The attorney shall offer evidence of the diagnosis, 100666
prognosis, record of treatment, if any, and less restrictive 100667
treatment plans, if any.100668

       (11) The respondent or the respondent's counsel has the right 100669
to subpoena witnesses and documents and to examine and 100670
cross-examine witnesses.100671

       (12) The respondent has the right, but shall not be 100672
compelled, to testify, and shall be so advised by the court.100673

       (13) On motion of the respondent or the respondent's counsel 100674
for good cause shown, or on the court's own motion, the court may 100675
order a continuance of the hearing.100676

       (14) If the respondent is represented by counsel and the 100677
respondent's counsel requests a transcript and record, or if the 100678
respondent is not represented by counsel, the court shall make and 100679
maintain a full transcript and record of the proceeding. If the 100680
respondent is indigent and the transcript and record is made, a 100681
copy shall be provided to the respondent upon request and be 100682
treated as an expense under section 5122.43 of the Revised Code.100683

       (15) To the extent not inconsistent with this chapter, the 100684
Rules of Civil Procedure are applicable.100685

       (B) Unless, upon completion of the hearing the court finds by 100686
clear and convincing evidence that the respondent is a mentally 100687
ill person subject to hospitalization by court order, it shall 100688
order the respondent's discharge immediately.100689

       (C) If, upon completion of the hearing, the court finds by 100690
clear and convincing evidence that the respondent is a mentally 100691
ill person subject to hospitalization by court order, the court 100692
shall order the respondent for a period not to exceed ninety days 100693
to any of the following:100694

       (1) A hospital operated by the department of mental health100695
mental health and addiction services if the respondent is 100696
committed pursuant to section 5139.08 of the Revised Code;100697

       (2) A nonpublic hospital;100698

       (3) The veterans' administration or other agency of the 100699
United States government;100700

       (4) A board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 100701
services or agencyservices provider the board designates;100702

       (5) Receive private psychiatric or psychological care and 100703
treatment;100704

       (6) Any other suitable facility or person consistent with the 100705
diagnosis, prognosis, and treatment needs of the respondent.100706

       (D) Any order made pursuant to division (C)(2), (3), (5), or 100707
(6) of this section shall be conditioned upon the receipt by the 100708
court of consent by the hospital, facility, agency, or person to 100709
accept the respondent.100710

       (E) In determining the place to which, or the person with 100711
whom, the respondent is to be committed, the court shall consider 100712
the diagnosis, prognosis, preferences of the respondent and the 100713
projected treatment plan for the respondent and shall order the 100714
implementation of the least restrictive alternative available and 100715
consistent with treatment goals. If the court determines that the 100716
least restrictive alternative available that is consistent with 100717
treatment goals is inpatient hospitalization, the court's order 100718
shall so state.100719

       (F) During such ninety-day period the hospital; facility; 100720
board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services; 100721
agencyservices provider the board designates; or person shall 100722
examine and treat the individual. If, at any time prior to the 100723
expiration of the ninety-day period, it is determined by the 100724
hospital, facility, board, agencyservices provider, or person 100725
that the respondent's treatment needs could be equally well met in 100726
an available and appropriate less restrictive environment, both of 100727
the following apply:100728

       (1) The respondent shall be released from the care of the 100729
hospital, agencyservices provider, facility, or person 100730
immediately and shall be referred to the court together with a 100731
report of the findings and recommendations of the hospital, agency100732
services provider, facility, or person; and100733

       (2) The hospital, agencyservices provider, facility, or 100734
person shall notify the respondent's counsel or the attorney 100735
designated by a board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 100736
health services or, if the respondent was committed to a board or 100737
an agencya services provider designated by the board, it shall 100738
place the respondent in the least restrictive environment 100739
available consistent with treatment goals and notify the court and 100740
the respondent's counsel of the placement.100741

       The court shall dismiss the case or order placement in the 100742
least restrictive environment.100743

       (G)(1) Except as provided in divisions (G)(2) and (3) of this 100744
section, any person who has been committed under this section, or 100745
for whom proceedings for hospitalization have been commenced 100746
pursuant to section 5122.11 of the Revised Code, may apply at any 100747
time for voluntary admission to the hospital, facility, agencyor 100748
services provider that the board designates, or person to which 100749
the person was committed. Upon admission as a voluntary patient 100750
the chief clinical officer of the hospital, agencyservices 100751
provider, or other facility, or the person immediately shall 100752
notify the court, the patient's counsel, and the attorney 100753
designated by the board, if the attorney has entered the 100754
proceedings, in writing of that fact, and, upon receipt of the 100755
notice, the court shall dismiss the case. 100756

       (2) A person who is found incompetent to stand trial or not 100757
guilty by reason of insanity and who is committed pursuant to 100758
section 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised 100759
Code shall not voluntarily commit the person pursuant to this 100760
section until after the final termination of the commitment, as 100761
described in division (J) of section 2945.401 of the Revised Code.100762

       (H) If, at the end of the first ninety-day period or any 100763
subsequent period of continued commitment, there has been no 100764
disposition of the case, either by discharge or voluntary 100765
admission, the hospital, facility, board, agencyservices 100766
provider, or person shall discharge the patient immediately, 100767
unless at least ten days before the expiration of the period the 100768
attorney the board designates or the prosecutor files with the 100769
court an application for continued commitment. The application of 100770
the attorney or the prosecutor shall include a written report 100771
containing the diagnosis, prognosis, past treatment, a list of 100772
alternative treatment settings and plans, and identification of 100773
the treatment setting that is the least restrictive consistent 100774
with treatment needs. The attorney the board designates or the 100775
prosecutor shall file the written report at least three days prior 100776
to the full hearing. A copy of the application and written report 100777
shall be provided to the respondent's counsel immediately.100778

       The court shall hold a full hearing on applications for 100779
continued commitment at the expiration of the first ninety-day 100780
period and at least every two years after the expiration of the 100781
first ninety-day period.100782

       Hearings following any application for continued commitment 100783
are mandatory and may not be waived.100784

       Upon request of a person who is involuntarily committed under 100785
this section, or the person's counsel, that is made more than one 100786
hundred eighty days after the person's last full hearing, 100787
mandatory or requested, the court shall hold a full hearing on the 100788
person's continued commitment. Upon the application of a person 100789
involuntarily committed under this section, supported by an 100790
affidavit of a psychiatrist or licensed clinical psychologist, 100791
alleging that the person no longer is a mentally ill person 100792
subject to hospitalization by court order, the court for good 100793
cause shown may hold a full hearing on the person's continued 100794
commitment prior to the expiration of one hundred eighty days 100795
after the person's last full hearing. Section 5122.12 of the 100796
Revised Code applies to all hearings on continued commitment.100797

       If the court, after a hearing for continued commitment finds 100798
by clear and convincing evidence that the respondent is a mentally 100799
ill person subject to hospitalization by court order, the court 100800
may order continued commitment at places specified in division (C) 100801
of this section.100802

       (I) Unless the admission is pursuant to section 5120.17 or 100803
5139.08 of the Revised Code, the chief clinical officer of the 100804
hospital or agencyservices provider admitting a respondent 100805
pursuant to a judicial proceeding, within ten working days of the 100806
admission, shall make a report of the admission to the board of 100807
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services serving the 100808
respondent's county of residence.100809

       (J) A referee appointed by the court may make all orders that 100810
a judge may make under this section and sections 5122.11 and 100811
5122.141 of the Revised Code, except an order of contempt of 100812
court. The orders of a referee take effect immediately. Within 100813
fourteen days of the making of an order by a referee, a party may 100814
file written objections to the order with the court. The filed 100815
objections shall be considered a motion, shall be specific, and 100816
shall state their grounds with particularity. Within ten days of 100817
the filing of the objections, a judge of the court shall hold a 100818
hearing on the objections and may hear and consider any testimony 100819
or other evidence relating to the respondent's mental condition. 100820
At the conclusion of the hearing, the judge may ratify, rescind, 100821
or modify the referee's order.100822

       (K) An order of the court under division (C), (H), or (J) of 100823
this section is a final order.100824

       (L) Before a board, or an agencya services provider the 100825
board designates, may place an unconsenting respondent in an 100826
inpatient setting from a less restrictive placement, the board or 100827
agencyservices provider shall do all of the following:100828

       (1) Determine that the respondent is in immediate need of 100829
treatment in an inpatient setting because the respondent 100830
represents a substantial risk of physical harm to the respondent 100831
or others if allowed to remain in a less restrictive setting;100832

       (2) On the day of placement in the inpatient setting or on 100833
the next court day, file with the court a motion for transfer to 100834
an inpatient setting or communicate to the court by telephone that 100835
the required motion has been mailed;100836

       (3) Ensure that every reasonable and appropriate effort is 100837
made to take the respondent to the inpatient setting in the least 100838
conspicuous manner possible;100839

       (4) Immediately notify the board's designated attorney and 100840
the respondent's attorney.100841

       At the respondent's request, the court shall hold a hearing 100842
on the motion and make a determination pursuant to division (E) of 100843
this section within five days of the placement.100844

       (M) Before a board, or an agencya services provider the 100845
board designates, may move a respondent from one residential 100846
placement to another, the board or agencyservices provider shall 100847
consult with the respondent about the placement. If the respondent 100848
objects to the placement, the proposed placement and the need for 100849
it shall be reviewed by a qualified mental health professional who 100850
otherwise is not involved in the treatment of the respondent.100851

       Sec. 5122.17.  Pending his removal to a hospital, a person 100852
taken into custody or ordered to be hospitalized pursuant to this 100853
chapter may be detained for not more than forty-eight hours in a 100854
licensed rest or nursing home, a licensed or unlicensed hospital, 100855
a community mental health agencyservices provider, or a county 100856
home, but hethe person shall not be detained in a nonmedical 100857
facility used for detention of persons charged with or convicted 100858
of penal offenses unless the court finds that a less restrictive 100859
alternative cannot be made available.100860

       Sec. 5122.18.  Whenever a person has been involuntarily 100861
detained at or admitted to a hospital, community mental health 100862
agencyservices provider, or other facility at the request of 100863
anyone other than the person's legal guardian, spouse, or next of 100864
kin under this chapter, the chief clinical officer of the 100865
hospital, agencyservices provider, or other facility in which the 100866
person is temporarily detained under section 5122.17 of the 100867
Revised Code shall immediately notify the person's legal guardian, 100868
spouse or next of kin, and counsel, if these persons can be 100869
ascertained through exercise of reasonable diligence. If a person 100870
voluntarily remains at or is admitted to a hospital, agency100871
services provider, or other facility, such notification shall not 100872
be given without histhe person's consent. The chief clinical 100873
officer of the hospital, agencyservices provider, or other 100874
facility shall inform a person voluntarily remaining at or 100875
admitted to a hospital, agencyservices provider, or other 100876
facility that hethe person may authorize such notification.100877

       Sec. 5122.19.  Every person transported to a hospital or 100878
community mental health agencyservices provider pursuant to 100879
sections 5122.11 to 5122.16 of the Revised Code, shall be examined 100880
by the staff of the hospital or agencyservices provider as soon 100881
as practicable after his arrival at the hospital or agency100882
services provider. Such an examination shall be held within 100883
twenty-four hours after the time of arrival, and if the chief 100884
clinical officer fails after such an examination to certify that 100885
in histhe chief clinical officer's opinion the person is a 100886
mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court order, the 100887
person shall be immediately released.100888

       Sec. 5122.20.  The director of mental healthmental health 100889
and addiction services or the director's designee may transfer, or 100890
authorize the transfer of, an involuntary patient, or a consenting 100891
voluntary patient hospitalized pursuant to section 5122.02 or 100892
sections 5122.11 to 5122.15 of the Revised Code, from one public 100893
hospital to another, or to a hospital, community mental health 100894
agencyservices provider, or other facility offering treatment or 100895
other services for mental illness, if the medical director of the 100896
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services100897
determines that it would be consistent with the medical needs of 100898
the patient to do so. If such a transfer is made to a private 100899
facility, the transfer shall be conditioned upon the consent of 100900
the facility.100901

       Before an involuntary patient may be transferred to a more 100902
restrictive setting, the chief clinical officer shall file a 100903
motion with the court requesting the court to amend its order of 100904
placement issued under section 5122.15 of the Revised Code. At the 100905
patient's request, the court shall hold a hearing on the motion at 100906
which the patient has the same rights as at a full hearing under 100907
section 5122.15 of the Revised Code. The hearing shall be held 100908
within ten days after the date on which the respondent was 100909
transferred to the more restrictive setting or on which the motion 100910
was filed, whichever is earlier. On the motion of the respondent, 100911
the respondent's counsel, or the chief clinical officer, or on its 100912
own motion, and for good cause shown, the court may order a 100913
continuance of the hearing for up to ten days.100914

       Whenever an involuntary patient is transferred, written 100915
notice of the transfer shall be given to the patient's legal 100916
guardian, parents, spouse, and counsel, or, if none is known, to 100917
the patient's nearest known relative or friend. If the patient is 100918
a minor, the department, before making such a transfer, shall make 100919
a minute of the order for the transfer and the reason for it upon 100920
its record and shall send a certified copy at least seven days 100921
prior to the transfer to the person shown by its record to have 100922
had the care or custody of the minor immediately prior to the 100923
minor's commitment. Whenever a consenting voluntary patient is 100924
transferred, the notification shall be given only at the patient's 100925
request. The chief clinical officer shall advise a voluntary 100926
patient who is being transferred that the patient may decide if 100927
the notification shall be given. In all such transfers, due 100928
consideration shall be given to the wishes of the patient, and the 100929
relationship of the patient to the patient's family, legal 100930
guardian, or friends, so as to maintain the relationship and 100931
encourage visits beneficial to the patient.100932

       When a voluntary patient whose medical or psychological needs 100933
are found by the chief clinical officer to warrant a transfer 100934
refuses to be transferred to an alternate facility, the chief 100935
clinical officer may file an affidavit for a hearing under section 100936
5122.11 of the Revised Code.100937

       Sec. 5122.21.  (A) The chief clinical officer shall as 100938
frequently as practicable, and at least once every thirty days, 100939
examine or cause to be examined every patient, and, whenever the 100940
chief clinical officer determines that the conditions justifying 100941
involuntary hospitalization or commitment no longer obtain, shall 100942
discharge the patient not under indictment or conviction for crime 100943
and immediately make a report of the discharge to the department 100944
of mental healthmental health and addiction services. The chief 100945
clinical officer may discharge a patient who is under an 100946
indictment, a sentence of imprisonment, a community control 100947
sanction, or a post-release control sanction or on parole ten days 100948
after written notice of intent to discharge the patient has been 100949
given by personal service or certified mail, return receipt 100950
requested, to the court having criminal jurisdiction over the 100951
patient. Except when the patient was found not guilty by reason of 100952
insanity and the defendant's commitment is pursuant to section 100953
2945.40 of the Revised Code, the chief clinical officer has final 100954
authority to discharge a patient who is under an indictment, a 100955
sentence of imprisonment, a community control sanction, or a 100956
post-release control sanction or on parole.100957

       (B) After a finding pursuant to section 5122.15 of the 100958
Revised Code that a person is a mentally ill person subject to 100959
hospitalization by court order, the chief clinical officer of the 100960
hospital or agencycommunity mental health services provider to 100961
which the person is ordered or to which the person is transferred 100962
under section 5122.20 of the Revised Code, may grant a discharge 100963
without the consent or authorization of any court.100964

       Upon discharge, the chief clinical officer shall notify the 100965
court that caused the judicial hospitalization of the discharge 100966
from the hospital.100967

       Sec. 5122.23.  The chief clinical officer of a public 100968
hospital shall immediately report to the department of mental 100969
healthmental health and addiction services and the board of 100970
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services serving the 100971
patient's county of residence the removal, death, escape, 100972
discharge, or trial visit of any patient hospitalized under 100973
section 5122.15 of the Revised Code, or the return of such an 100974
escaped or visiting patient to the department, the probate judge 100975
of the county from which such patient was hospitalized, and the 100976
probate judge of the county of residence of such patient. In case 100977
of death, the chief clinical officer also shall notify one or more 100978
of the nearest relatives of the deceased patient, if known to him100979
the chief clinical officer, by letter, telegram, or telephone. If 100980
the place of residence of such relative is unknown to the chief 100981
clinical officer, immediately upon receiving notification the 100982
probate judge shall in the speediest manner possible notify such 100983
relatives, if known to himthe probate judge.100984

       The chief clinical officer of a public hospital, upon the 100985
request of the probate judge of the county from which a patient 100986
was hospitalized or the probate judge of the county of residence 100987
of such a patient, shall make a report to the judge of the 100988
condition of any patient under the care, treatment, custody, or 100989
control of the chief clinical officer.100990

       Sec. 5122.25.  Upon the request of a hospital, person, board,100991
agencycommunity mental health services provider, or facility who 100992
has custody of a patient hospitalized pursuant to section 5122.15 100993
of the Revised Code, or on the order of the court, such patient 100994
may be called for a rehearing at such place within the county of 100995
histhe patient's residence or the county where such patient is 100996
hospitalized as the court designates. The hearing shall be 100997
conducted pursuant to section 5122.15 of the Revised Code.100998

       Sec. 5122.26.  (A) If a patient is absent without leave, on a 100999
verbal or written order issued within five days of the time of the 101000
unauthorized absence by the department of mental healthmental 101001
health and addiction services, the chief clinical officer of the 101002
hospital from which the patient is absent without leave, or the 101003
court of either the county from which the patient was committed or 101004
in which the patient is found, any health or police officer or 101005
sheriff may take the patient into custody and transport the 101006
patient to the hospital in which the patient was hospitalized or 101007
to a place that is designated in the order. The officer 101008
immediately shall report such fact to the agencyentity that 101009
issued the order.101010

       The chief clinical officer of a hospital may discharge a 101011
patient who is under an indictment, a sentence of imprisonment, a 101012
community control sanction, or a post-release control sanction or 101013
on parole and who has been absent without leave for more than 101014
thirty days but shall give written notice of the discharge to the 101015
court with criminal jurisdiction over the patient. The chief 101016
clinical officer of a hospital may discharge any other patient who 101017
has been absent without leave for more than fourteen days.101018

       The chief clinical officer shall take all proper measures for 101019
the apprehension of an escaped patient. The expense of the return 101020
of an escaped patient shall be borne by the hospital where the 101021
patient is hospitalized.101022

       (B)(1) Subject to division (B)(2) of this section, no patient 101023
hospitalized under Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code whose absence 101024
without leave was caused or contributed to by the patient's mental 101025
illness shall be subject to a charge of escape.101026

       (2) Division (B)(1) of this section does not apply to any 101027
person who was hospitalized, institutionalized, or confined in a 101028
facility under an order made pursuant to or under authority of 101029
section 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 101030
2945.402 of the Revised Code and who escapes from the facility, 101031
from confinement in a vehicle for transportation to or from the 101032
facility, or from supervision by an employee of the facility that 101033
is incidental to hospitalization, institutionalization, or 101034
confinement in the facility and that occurs outside the facility, 101035
in violation of section 2921.34 of the Revised Code.101036

       Sec. 5122.27.  The chief clinical officer of the hospital or 101037
the chief clinical officer's designee shall assure that all 101038
patients hospitalized or committed pursuant to this chapter shall:101039

       (A) Receive, within twenty days of their admission sufficient 101040
professional care to assure that an evaluation of current status, 101041
differential diagnosis, probable prognosis, and description of the 101042
current treatment plan is stated on the official chart;101043

       (B) Have a written treatment plan consistent with the 101044
evaluation, diagnosis, prognosis, and goals which shall be 101045
provided, upon request of the patient or patient's counsel, to the 101046
patient's counsel and to any private physician or licensed 101047
clinical psychologist designated by the patient or the patient's 101048
counsel or to the Ohio protection and advocacy system;101049

       (C) Receive treatment consistent with the treatment plan. The 101050
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services101051
shall set standards for treatment provided to such patients, 101052
consistent wherever possible with standards set by the joint 101053
commission on accreditation of healthcare organizations.101054

       (D) Receive periodic reevaluations of the treatment plan by 101055
the professional staff at intervals not to exceed ninety days;101056

       (E) Be provided with adequate medical treatment for physical 101057
disease or injury;101058

       (F) Receive humane care and treatment, including without 101059
limitation, the following:101060

       (1) The least restrictive environment consistent with the 101061
treatment plan;101062

       (2) The necessary facilities and personnel required by the 101063
treatment plan;101064

       (3) A humane psychological and physical environment;101065

       (4) The right to obtain current information concerning the 101066
patient's treatment program and expectations in terms that the 101067
patient can reasonably understand;101068

       (5) Participation in programs designed to afford the patient 101069
substantial opportunity to acquire skills to facilitate return to 101070
the community or to terminate an involuntary commitment;101071

       (6) The right to be free from unnecessary or excessive 101072
medication;101073

       (7) Freedom from restraints or isolation unless it is stated 101074
in a written order by the chief clinical officer or the chief 101075
clinical officer's designee, or the patient's individual physician 101076
or psychologist in a private or general hospital.101077

       If the chief clinical officer of the hospital is unable to 101078
provide the treatment required by divisions (C), (E), and (F) of 101079
this section for any patient hospitalized pursuant to Chapter 101080
5122. of the Revised Code, the chief clinical officer shall 101081
immediately notify the patient, the court, the Ohio protection and 101082
advocacy system, the director of mental healthmental health and 101083
addiction services, and the patient's counsel and legal guardian, 101084
if known. If within ten days after receipt of such notification by 101085
the director, the director is unable to effect a transfer of the 101086
patient, pursuant to section 5122.20 of the Revised Code, to a 101087
hospital, community mental health agencyservices provider, or 101088
other medical facility where treatment is available, or has not 101089
received an order of the court to the contrary, the involuntary 101090
commitment of any patient hospitalized pursuant to Chapter 5122. 101091
of the Revised Code and defined as a mentally ill person subject 101092
to hospitalization by court order under division (B)(4) of section 101093
5122.01 of the Revised Code shall automatically be terminated.101094

       Sec. 5122.271.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (C), (D), 101095
and (E) of this section, the chief clinical officer or, in a 101096
nonpublic hospital, the attending physician responsible for a 101097
patient's care shall provide all information, including expected 101098
physical and medical consequences, necessary to enable any patient 101099
of a hospital for the mentally ill to give a fully informed, 101100
intelligent, and knowing consent, the opportunity to consult with 101101
independent specialists and counsel, and the right to refuse 101102
consent for any of the following:101103

       (1) Surgery;101104

       (2) Convulsive therapy;101105

       (3) Major aversive interventions;101106

       (4) Sterilizations;101107

       (5) Any unusually hazardous treatment procedures;101108

       (6) Psycho-surgery.101109

       (B) No patient shall be subjected to any of the procedures 101110
listed in divisions (A)(4) to (6) of this section until both the 101111
patient's informed, intelligent, and knowing consent and the 101112
approval of the court have been obtained, except that court 101113
approval is not required for a legally competent and voluntary 101114
patient in a nonpublic hospital.101115

       (C) If, after providing the information required under 101116
division (A) of this section to the patient, the chief clinical 101117
officer or attending physician concludes that a patient is 101118
physically or mentally unable to receive the information required 101119
for surgery under division (A)(1) of this section, or has been 101120
adjudicated incompetent, the information may be provided to the 101121
patient's natural or court-appointed guardian, who may give an 101122
informed, intelligent, and knowing written consent.101123

       If a patient is physically or mentally unable to receive the 101124
information required for surgery under division (A)(1) of this 101125
section and has no guardian, the information, the recommendation 101126
of the chief clinical officer, and the concurring judgment of a 101127
licensed physician who is not a full-time employee of the state 101128
may be provided to the court in the county in which the hospital 101129
is located, which may approve the surgery. Before approving the 101130
surgery, the court shall notify the Ohio protection and advocacy 101131
system created by section 5123.60 of the Revised Code, and shall 101132
notify the patient of the rights to consult with counsel, to have 101133
counsel appointed by the court if the patient is indigent, and to 101134
contest the recommendation of the chief clinical officer.101135

       (D) If, in a medical emergency, and after providing the 101136
information required under division (A) of this section to the 101137
patient, it is the judgment of one licensed physician that delay 101138
in obtaining surgery would create a grave danger to the health of 101139
the patient, it may be administered without the consent of the 101140
patient or the patient's guardian if the necessary information is 101141
provided to the patient's spouse or next of kin to enable that 101142
person to give informed, intelligent, and knowing written consent. 101143
If no spouse or next of kin can reasonably be contacted, or if the 101144
spouse or next of kin is contacted, but refuses to consent, the 101145
surgery may be performed upon the written authorization of the 101146
chief clinical officer or, in a nonpublic hospital, upon the 101147
written authorization of the attending physician responsible for 101148
the patient's care, and after the approval of the court has been 101149
obtained. However, if delay in obtaining court approval would 101150
create a grave danger to the life of the patient, the chief 101151
clinical officer or, in a nonpublic hospital, the attending 101152
physician responsible for the patient's care may authorize 101153
surgery, in writing, without court approval. If the surgery is 101154
authorized without court approval, the chief clinical officer or 101155
the attending physician who made the authorization and the 101156
physician who performed the surgery shall each execute an 101157
affidavit describing the circumstances constituting the emergency 101158
and warranting the surgery and the circumstances warranting their 101159
not obtaining prior court approval. The affidavit shall be filed 101160
with the court with which the request for prior approval would 101161
have been filed within five court days after the surgery, and a 101162
copy of the affidavit shall be placed in the patient's file and be 101163
given to the guardian, spouse, or next of kin of the patient, to 101164
the hospital at which the surgery was performed, and to the Ohio 101165
protection and advocacy system as defined in section 5123.60 of 101166
the Revised Code.101167

       (E) Major aversive interventions shall not be used unless a 101168
patient continues to engage in behavior destructive to self or 101169
others after other forms of therapy have been attempted. Major 101170
aversive interventions may be applied if approved by the director 101171
of mental healthmental health and addiction services. Major 101172
aversive interventions shall not be applied to a voluntary patient 101173
without the informed, intelligent, and knowing written consent of 101174
the patient or the patient's guardian.101175

       (F) Unless there is substantial risk of physical harm to self 101176
or others, or other than under division (D) of this section, this 101177
chapter does not authorize any form of compulsory medical, 101178
psychological, or psychiatric treatment of any patient who is 101179
being treated by spiritual means through prayer alone in 101180
accordance with a recognized religious method of healing without 101181
specific court authorization.101182

       (G) For purposes of this section, "convulsive therapy" does 101183
not include defibrillation.101184

       Sec. 5122.31.  (A) All certificates, applications, records, 101185
and reports made for the purpose of this chapter and sections 101186
2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, and 2945.402 of the Revised 101187
Code, other than court journal entries or court docket entries, 101188
and directly or indirectly identifying a patient or former patient 101189
or person whose hospitalization has been sought under this 101190
chapter, shall be kept confidential and shall not be disclosed by 101191
any person except:101192

       (1) If the person identified, or the person's legal guardian, 101193
if any, or if the person is a minor, the person's parent or legal 101194
guardian, consents, and if the disclosure is in the best interests 101195
of the person, as may be determined by the court for judicial 101196
records and by the chief clinical officer for medical records;101197

       (2) When disclosure is provided for in this chapter, Chapters 101198
340. or 5119., Title XLVII, or section 5123.601 of the Revised 101199
Code;101200

       (3) That hospitals, boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 101201
mental health services, and community mental health agencies101202
services providers may release necessary medical information to 101203
insurers and other third-party payers, including government 101204
entities responsible for processing and authorizing payment, to 101205
obtain payment for goods and services furnished to the patient;101206

       (4) Pursuant to a court order signed by a judge;101207

       (5) That a patient shall be granted access to the patient's 101208
own psychiatric and medical records, unless access specifically is 101209
restricted in a patient's treatment plan for clear treatment 101210
reasons;101211

       (6) That hospitals and other institutions and facilities 101212
within the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 101213
services may exchange psychiatric records and other pertinent 101214
information with other hospitals, institutions, and facilities of 101215
the department, and with community mental health agenciesservices 101216
providers and boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 101217
services with which the department has a current agreement for 101218
patient care or services. Records and information that may be 101219
released pursuant to this division shall be limited to medication 101220
history, physical health status and history, financial status, 101221
summary of course of treatment in the hospital, summary of 101222
treatment needs, and a discharge summary, if any.101223

       (7) That hospitals within the department,and other 101224
institutions and facilities within the department, hospitals 101225
licensed by the department under section 5119.20 of the Revised 101226
Code, and community mental health agencies may exchange 101227
psychiatric records and other pertinent information with payers 101228
and other providers of treatment and health services if the 101229
purpose of the exchange is to facilitate continuity of care for a 101230
patient or for the emergency treatment of an individual;101231

       (8) That a patient's family member who is involved in the 101232
provision, planning, and monitoring of services to the patient may 101233
receive medication information, a summary of the patient's 101234
diagnosis and prognosis, and a list of the services and personnel 101235
available to assist the patient and the patient's family, if the 101236
patient's treating physician determines that the disclosure would 101237
be in the best interests of the patient. No such disclosure shall 101238
be made unless the patient is notified first and receives the 101239
information and does not object to the disclosure.101240

       (9) That community mental health agenciesservices providers101241
may exchange psychiatric records and certain other information 101242
with the board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 101243
services and other agenciesservices providers in order to 101244
provide services to a person involuntarily committed to a board. 101245
Release of records under this division shall be limited to 101246
medication history, physical health status and history, financial 101247
status, summary of course of treatment, summary of treatment 101248
needs, and discharge summary, if any.101249

       (10) That information may be disclosed to the executor or the 101250
administrator of an estate of a deceased patient when the 101251
information is necessary to administer the estate;101252

       (11) That records in the possession of the Ohio historical 101253
society may be released to the closest living relative of a 101254
deceased patient upon request of that relative;101255

       (12) That information may be disclosed to staff members of 101256
the appropriate board or to staff members designated by the 101257
director of mental health for the purpose of evaluating the 101258
quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of services and determining 101259
if the services meet minimum standards. Information obtained 101260
during such evaluations shall not be retained with the name of any 101261
patient.101262

       (13) That records pertaining to the patient's diagnosis, 101263
course of treatment, treatment needs, and prognosis shall be 101264
disclosed and released to the appropriate prosecuting attorney if 101265
the patient was committed pursuant to section 2945.38, 2945.39, 101266
2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code, or to the 101267
attorney designated by the board for proceedings pursuant to 101268
involuntary commitment under this chapter.101269

       (14)(13) That the department of mental healthmental health 101270
and addiction services may exchange psychiatric hospitalization 101271
records, other mental health treatment records, and other 101272
pertinent information with the department of rehabilitation and 101273
correction and with the department of youth services to ensure 101274
continuity of care for inmates or offenders who are receiving 101275
mental health services in an institution of the department of 101276
rehabilitation and correction or the department of youth services 101277
and may exchange psychiatric hospitalization records, other mental 101278
health treatment records, and other pertinent information with 101279
boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services and 101280
community mental health services providers to ensure continuity of 101281
care for inmates or offenders who are receiving mental health 101282
services in an institution and are scheduled for release within 101283
six months. The department shall not disclose those records unless 101284
the inmate or offender is notified, receives the information, and 101285
does not object to the disclosure. The release of records under 101286
this division is limited to records regarding an inmate's or 101287
offender's medication history, physical health status and history, 101288
summary of course of treatment, summary of treatment needs, and a 101289
discharge summary, if any.101290

       (15) That a community mental health agency that ceases to 101291
operate may transfer to either a community mental health agency 101292
that assumes its caseload or to the board of alcohol, drug 101293
addiction, and mental health services of the service district in 101294
which the patient resided at the time services were most recently 101295
provided any treatment records that have not been transferred 101296
elsewhere at the patient's request.101297

       (B) Before records are disclosed pursuant to divisions 101298
(A)(3), (6), and (9) of this section, the custodian of the records 101299
shall attempt to obtain the patient's consent for the disclosure. 101300
No person shall reveal the contents of a medical record of a 101301
patient except as authorized by law.101302

       (C) The managing officer of a hospital who releases necessary 101303
medical information under division (A)(3) of this section to allow 101304
an insurance carrier or other third party payor to comply with 101305
section 5121.43 of the Revised Code shall neither be subject to 101306
criminal nor civil liability.101307

       Sec. 5122.311. (A) Notwithstanding any provision of the 101308
Revised Code to the contrary, if, on or after the effective date 101309
of this sectionApril 8, 2004, an individual is found by a court 101310
to be a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 101311
order or becomes an involuntary patient other than one who is a 101312
patient only for purposes of observation, the probate judge who 101313
made the adjudication or the chief clinical officer of the 101314
hospital, agencycommunity mental health services provider, or 101315
facility in which the person is an involuntary patient shall 101316
notify the bureau of criminal identification and investigation, on 101317
the form described in division (C) of this section, of the 101318
identity of the individual. The notification shall be transmitted 101319
by the judge or the chief clinical officer not later than seven 101320
days after the adjudication or commitment.101321

       (B) The bureau of criminal identification and investigation 101322
shall compile and maintain the notices it receives under division 101323
(A) of this section and shall use them for the purpose of 101324
conducting incompetency records checks pursuant to section 311.41 101325
of the Revised Code. The notices and the information they contain 101326
are confidential, except as provided in this division, and are not 101327
public records.101328

       (C) The attorney general, by rule adopted under Chapter 119. 101329
of the Revised Code, shall prescribe and make available to all 101330
probate judges and all chief clinical officers a form to be used 101331
by them for the purpose of making the notifications required by 101332
division (A) of this section.101333

       Sec. 5122.32.  (A) As used in this section:101334

       (1) "Quality assurance committee" means a committee that is 101335
appointed in the central office of the department of mental health101336
mental health and addiction services by the director of mental 101337
healthmental health and addiction services, a committee of a 101338
hospital or community setting program, a committee established 101339
pursuant to section 5119.47 of the Revised Code of the department 101340
of mental health appointed by the managing officer of the hospital 101341
or program, or a duly authorized subcommittee of a committee of 101342
that nature and that is designated to carry out quality assurance 101343
program activities.101344

       (2) "Quality assurance program" means a comprehensive program 101345
within the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 101346
services to systematically review and improve the quality of 101347
medical and mental health services within the department and its 101348
hospitals and community setting programs, the safety and security 101349
of persons receiving medical and mental health services within the 101350
department and its hospitals and community setting programs, and 101351
the efficiency and effectiveness of the utilization of staff and 101352
resources in the delivery of medical and mental health services 101353
within the department and its hospitals and community setting 101354
programs. "Quality assurance program" includes the central office 101355
quality assurance committees, morbidity and mortality review 101356
committees, quality assurance programs of community setting 101357
programs, quality assurance committees of hospitals operated by 101358
the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 101359
services, and the office of licensure and certification of the 101360
department.101361

       (3) "Quality assurance program activities" include collecting 101362
or compiling information and reports required by a quality 101363
assurance committee, receiving, reviewing, or implementing the 101364
recommendations made by a quality assurance committee, and 101365
credentialing, privileging, infection control, tissue review, peer 101366
review, utilization review including access to patient care 101367
records, patient care assessment records, and medical and mental 101368
health records, medical and mental health resource management, 101369
mortality and morbidity review, and identification and prevention 101370
of medical or mental health incidents and risks, whether performed 101371
by a quality assurance committee or by persons who are directed by 101372
a quality assurance committee.101373

       (4) "Quality assurance records" means the proceedings, 101374
discussion, records, findings, recommendations, evaluations, 101375
opinions, minutes, reports, and other documents or actions that 101376
emanate from quality assurance committees, quality assurance 101377
programs, or quality assurance program activities. "Quality 101378
assurance records" does not include aggregate statistical 101379
information that does not disclose the identity of persons 101380
receiving or providing medical or mental health services in 101381
department of mental health institutionsmental health and 101382
addiction services hospitals or community setting programs .101383

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, 101384
quality assurance records are confidential and are not public 101385
records under section 149.43 of the Revised Code, and shall be 101386
used only in the course of the proper functions of a quality 101387
assurance program. 101388

       (2) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, no 101389
person who possesses or has access to quality assurance records 101390
and who knows that the records are quality assurance records shall 101391
willfully disclose the contents of the records to any person or 101392
entity.101393

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, no 101394
quality assurance record shall be subject to discovery in, and is 101395
not admissible in evidence, in any judicial or administrative 101396
proceeding.101397

       (2) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, no 101398
member of a quality assurance committee or a person who is 101399
performing a function that is part of a quality assurance program 101400
shall be permitted or required to testify in a judicial or 101401
administrative proceeding with respect to quality assurance 101402
records or with respect to any finding, recommendation, 101403
evaluation, opinion, or other action taken by the committee, 101404
member, or person.101405

       (3) Information, documents, or records otherwise available 101406
from original sources are not to be construed as being unavailable 101407
for discovery or admission in evidence in a judicial or 101408
administrative proceeding merely because they were presented to a 101409
quality assurance committee. No person testifying before a quality 101410
assurance committee or person who is a member of a quality 101411
assurance committee shall be prevented from testifying as to 101412
matters within the person's knowledge, but the witness cannot be 101413
asked about the witness' testimony before the quality assurance 101414
committee or about an opinion formed by the person as a result of 101415
the quality assurance committee proceedings.101416

       (D)(1) A person who, without malice and in the reasonable 101417
belief that the information is warranted by the facts known to the 101418
person, provides information to a person engaged in quality 101419
assurance program activities is not liable for damages in a civil 101420
action for injury, death, or loss to person or property to any 101421
person as a result of providing the information.101422

       (2) A member of a quality assurance committee, a person 101423
engaged in quality assurance program activities, and an employee 101424
of the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 101425
services shall not be liable in damages in a civil action for 101426
injury, death, or loss to person or property to any person for any 101427
acts, omissions, decisions, or other conduct within the scope of 101428
the functions of the quality assurance program.101429

       (3) Nothing in this section shall relieve any institution or 101430
individual from liability arising from the treatment of a patient.101431

       (E) Quality assurance records may be disclosed, and testimony 101432
may be provided concerning quality assurance records, only to the 101433
following persons or entities:101434

       (1) Persons who are employed or retained by the department of 101435
mental healthmental health and addiction services and who have 101436
authority to evaluate or implement the recommendations of a 101437
state-operated hospital, community setting program, or central 101438
office quality assurance committee;101439

       (2) Public or private agencies or organizations if needed to 101440
perform a licensing or accreditation function related to 101441
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services101442
hospitals or community setting programs, or to perform monitoring 101443
of a hospital or program of that nature as required by law.101444

       (F) A disclosure of quality assurance records pursuant to 101445
division (E) of this section does not otherwise waive the 101446
confidential and privileged status of the disclosed quality 101447
assurance records.101448

       (G) Nothing in this section shall limit the access of the 101449
Ohio protection and advocacy system to records or personnel as 101450
required under section 5123.601 of the Revised Code. Nothing in 101451
this section shall limit the admissibility of documentary or 101452
testimonial evidence in an action brought by the Ohio protection 101453
and advocacy system in its own name or on behalf of a client.101454

       Sec. 5122.33.  The department of mental healthmental health 101455
and addiction services may prescribe the form of applications, 101456
reports, records, and medical certificates provided for under this 101457
chapter, and the information required to be contained therein; 101458
require reports from the chief clinical officer of any public 101459
hospital relating to the admission, examination, diagnosis, 101460
release, or discharge of any patient; visit each such hospital 101461
regularly to review the admission procedures of all new patients 101462
admitted between visits; investigate by personal visit complaints 101463
made by any patient or by any person on behalf of a patient; and 101464
adopt such rules as are reasonably necessary to effectuate the 101465
provisions of this chapter.101466

       Sec. 5122.34.  (A) Persons, including, but not limited to, 101467
boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services and 101468
community mental health agenciesservices providers, acting in 101469
good faith, either upon actual knowledge or information thought by 101470
them to be reliable, who procedurally or physically assist in the 101471
hospitalization or discharge, determination of appropriate 101472
placement, or in judicial proceedings of a person under this 101473
chapter, do not come within any criminal provisions, and are free 101474
from any liability to the person hospitalized or to any other 101475
person. 101476

       (B) Regardless of whether any affirmative action has been 101477
taken under this chapter with respect to a mental health client or 101478
patient and except as otherwise provided in section 2305.51 of the 101479
Revised Code, no person shall be liable for any harm that results 101480
to any other person as a result of failing to disclose any 101481
confidential information about the mental health client or 101482
patient, or failing to otherwise attempt to protect such other 101483
person from harm by such client or patient. 101484

       (C) This section applies to expert witnesses who testify at 101485
hearings under this chapter.101486

       (D) The immunity from liability conferred by this section is 101487
in addition to and not in limitation of any immunity conferred by 101488
any other section of the Revised Code or by judicial precedent.101489

       Sec. 5122.341.  (A) As used in this section:101490

       (1) "Facility or agencyprovider" means, in the context of a 101491
person committed to the department of mental healthmental health 101492
and addiction services under sections 2945.37 to 2945.402 of the 101493
Revised Code, any entity in which the department of mental health101494
mental health and addiction services places such a person. 101495

       (2) "Person committed to the department" means a person 101496
committed to the department of mental healthmental health and 101497
addiction services under sections 2945.37 to 2945.402 of the 101498
Revised Code.101499

       (B) No member of a board of directors, or employee, of a 101500
facility or agencyprovider in which the department of mental 101501
healthmental health and addiction services places a person 101502
committed to the department is liable for injury or damages caused 101503
by any action or inaction taken within the scope of the board 101504
member's official duties or employee's employment relating to the 101505
commitment of, and services provided to, the person committed to 101506
the department, unless the action or inaction constitutes willful 101507
or wanton misconduct. A board member's or employee's action or 101508
inaction does not constitute willful or wanton misconduct if the 101509
board member or employee acted in good faith and reasonably under 101510
the circumstances and with the knowledge reasonably attributable 101511
to the board member or employee.101512

       The immunity from liability conferred by this section is in 101513
addition to and not in limitation of any immunity conferred by any 101514
other section of the Revised Code or by judicial precedent.101515

       Sec. 5122.39.  (A) Mentally ill minors shall remain under the 101516
natural guardianship of their parents, notwithstanding 101517
hospitalization pursuant to this chapter, unless parental rights 101518
have been terminated pursuant to a court finding that the minor is 101519
neglected or dependent. Where a mentally ill minor is found to be 101520
dependent or neglected, the public children's services agency in 101521
the county of residence has final guardianship authority and 101522
responsibility.101523

       (B) In no case shall the guardianship of a mentally ill 101524
person be assigned to the chief medical officer or any staff 101525
member of a hospital, board, or agencyprovider from which the 101526
person is receiving mental health services.101527

       Sec. 5122.43.  (A) Costs, fees, and expenses of all 101528
proceedings held under this chapter shall be paid as follows:101529

       (1) To police and health officers, other than sheriffs or 101530
their deputies, the same fees allowed to constables, to be paid 101531
upon the approval of the probate judge;101532

       (2) To sheriffs or their deputies, the same fees allowed for 101533
similar services in the court of common pleas;101534

       (3) To physicians or licensed clinical psychologists acting 101535
as expert witnesses and to other expert witnesses designated by 101536
the court, an amount determined by the court;101537

       (4) To other witnesses, the same fees and mileage as for 101538
attendance at the court of common pleas, to be paid upon the 101539
approval of the probate judge;101540

       (5) To a person, other than the sheriff or the sheriff's 101541
deputies, for taking a mentally ill person to a hospital or 101542
removing a mentally ill person from a hospital, the actual 101543
necessary expenses incurred, specifically itemized, and approved 101544
by the probate judge;101545

       (6) To assistants who convey mentally ill persons to the 101546
hospital when authorized by the probate judge, a fee set by the 101547
probate court, provided the assistants are not drawing a salary 101548
from the state or any political subdivision of the state, and 101549
their actual necessary expenses incurred, provided that the 101550
expenses are specifically itemized and approved by the probate 101551
judge;101552

       (7) To an attorney appointed by the probate division for an 101553
indigent who allegedly is a mentally ill person pursuant to any 101554
section of this chapter, the fees that are determined by the 101555
probate division. When those indigent persons are before the 101556
court, all filing and recording fees shall be waived.101557

       (8) To a referee who is appointed to conduct proceedings 101558
under this chapter that involve a respondent whose domicile is or, 101559
before the respondent's hospitalization, was not the county in 101560
which the proceedings are held, compensation as fixed by the 101561
probate division, but not more than the compensation paid for 101562
similar proceedings for respondents whose domicile is in the 101563
county in which the proceedings are held;101564

       (9) To a court reporter appointed to make a transcript of 101565
proceedings under this chapter, the compensation and fees allowed 101566
in other cases under section 2101.08 of the Revised Code.101567

       (B) A county shall pay for the costs, fees, and expenses 101568
described in division (A) of this section with money appropriated 101569
pursuant to section 2101.11 of the Revised Code. A county may seek 101570
reimbursement from the department of mental healthmental health 101571
and addiction services by submitting a request and certification 101572
by the county auditor of the costs, fees, and expenses to the 101573
department within two months of the date the costs, fees, and 101574
expenses are incurred by the county.101575

       Each fiscal year, based on past allocations, historical 101576
utilization, and other factors the department considers 101577
appropriate, the department shall allocate for each county an 101578
amount for reimbursements under this section. The total of all the 101579
allocations shall equal the amount appropriated for the fiscal 101580
year to the department specifically for the purposes of this 101581
section.101582

       On receipt, the department shall review each request for 101583
reimbursement and prepare a voucher for the amount of the costs, 101584
fees, and expenses incurred by the county, provided that the total 101585
amount of money paid to all counties in each fiscal year shall not 101586
exceed the total amount of moneys specifically appropriated to the 101587
department for these purposes. 101588

       The department's total reimbursement to each county shall be 101589
the lesser of the full amount requested or the amount allocated 101590
for the county under this division. In addition, the department 101591
shall distribute any surplus remaining from the money appropriated 101592
for the fiscal year to the department for the purposes of this 101593
section as follows to counties whose full requests exceed their 101594
allocations:101595

       (1) If the surplus is sufficient to reimburse such counties 101596
the full amount of their requests, each such county shall receive 101597
the full amount of its request;101598

       (2) If the surplus is insufficient, each such county shall 101599
receive a percentage of the surplus determined by dividing the 101600
difference between the county's full request and its allocation by 101601
the difference between the total of the full requests of all such 101602
counties and the total of the amounts allocated for all such 101603
counties. 101604

       The department may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 101605
119. of the Revised Code to implement the payment of costs, fees, 101606
and expenses under this section.101607

       Sec. 5122.44.  As used in sections 5122.44 to 5122.47 of the 101608
Revised Code:101609

       (A) "Compilation" means a written list of the following 101610
information, as the department of mental healthmental health and 101611
addiction services is able to reasonably ascertain, for every 101612
patient who was buried, entombed, or inurned prior to the 101613
effective date of this sectionMarch 31, 2005, in a cemetery 101614
located on the grounds of or adjacent to the grounds of a public 101615
hospital:101616

       (1) Name;101617

       (2) Date of birth;101618

       (3) Date of death or burial;101619

       (4) Specific physical location of the burial, entombment, or 101620
inurnment, including the plot or grave site number if available.101621

       (B) "Patient" means an individual who died while admitted to 101622
a public hospital that was under the control of the department of 101623
mental healthmental health and addiction services.101624

       (C) "Record" has the same meaning as in section 149.011 of 101625
the Revised Code.101626

       (D) "State agency" means every organized body, office, or 101627
agency established by the laws of the state for the exercise of 101628
any function of state government.101629

       Sec. 5122.45.  The department of mental healthmental health 101630
and addiction services shall create a separate compilation for 101631
each cemetery located on the grounds of or adjacent to the grounds 101632
of a public hospital that is under the control of the department 101633
on the effective date of this sectionMarch 31, 2005. The 101634
compilation shall be created within a reasonable time not 101635
exceeding three years after the effective date of this section101636
March 31, 2005. The department shall use its best efforts to 101637
create the most complete compilations possible using records in 101638
the department's possession and records obtained in accordance 101639
with section 5122.46 of the Revised Code.101640

       Sec. 5122.46.  The Ohio historical society and each state 101641
agency shall, at the request of the department of mental health101642
mental health and addiction services, provide the department 101643
access to records and information in the possession of the 101644
historical society or state agency for purposes of creating 101645
compilations.101646

       Sec. 5122.47.  The department of mental healthmental health 101647
and addiction services shall deposit a copy of each compilation 101648
with the Ohio historical society and the state library as soon as 101649
a compilation is completed. The department shall not disclose any 101650
record or information used to create a compilation except as 101651
provided in sections 149.43 and 5122.31 of the Revised Code.101652

       Sec. 5123.01.  As used in this chapter:101653

       (A) "Chief medical officer" means the licensed physician 101654
appointed by the managing officer of an institution for the 101655
mentally retarded with the approval of the director of 101656
developmental disabilities to provide medical treatment for 101657
residents of the institution.101658

       (B) "Chief program director" means a person with special 101659
training and experience in the diagnosis and management of the 101660
mentally retarded, certified according to division (C) of this 101661
section in at least one of the designated fields, and appointed by 101662
the managing officer of an institution for the mentally retarded 101663
with the approval of the director to provide habilitation and care 101664
for residents of the institution.101665

       (C) "Comprehensive evaluation" means a study, including a 101666
sequence of observations and examinations, of a person leading to 101667
conclusions and recommendations formulated jointly, with 101668
dissenting opinions if any, by a group of persons with special 101669
training and experience in the diagnosis and management of persons 101670
with mental retardation or a developmental disability, which group 101671
shall include individuals who are professionally qualified in the 101672
fields of medicine, psychology, and social work, together with 101673
such other specialists as the individual case may require.101674

       (D) "Education" means the process of formal training and 101675
instruction to facilitate the intellectual and emotional 101676
development of residents.101677

       (E) "Habilitation" means the process by which the staff of 101678
the institution assists the resident in acquiring and maintaining 101679
those life skills that enable the resident to cope more 101680
effectively with the demands of the resident's own person and of 101681
the resident's environment and in raising the level of the 101682
resident's physical, mental, social, and vocational efficiency. 101683
Habilitation includes but is not limited to programs of formal, 101684
structured education and training.101685

       (F) "Health officer" means any public health physician, 101686
public health nurse, or other person authorized or designated by a 101687
city or general health district.101688

       (G) "Home and community-based services" means medicaid-funded 101689
home and community-based services specified in division (B)(A)(1) 101690
of section 5111.875166.20 of the Revised Code provided under the 101691
medicaid waiver components the department of developmental 101692
disabilities administers pursuant to section 5111.8715166.21 of 101693
the Revised Code. Except as provided in section 5123.0412 of the 101694
Revised Code, home and community-based services provided under the 101695
medicaid waiver component known as the transitions developmental 101696
disabilities waiver are to be considered to be home and 101697
community-based services for the purposes of this chapter, and 101698
Chapters 5124. and 5126. of the Revised Code, only to the extent, 101699
if any, provided by the contract required by section 5111.871101700
5166.21 of the Revised Code regarding the waiver.101701

       (H) "ICF/IID" has the same meaning as in section 5124.01 of 101702
the Revised Code.101703

       (I) "Indigent person" means a person who is unable, without 101704
substantial financial hardship, to provide for the payment of an 101705
attorney and for other necessary expenses of legal representation, 101706
including expert testimony.101707

       (I)(J) "Institution" means a public or private facility, or a 101708
part of a public or private facility, that is licensed by the 101709
appropriate state department and is equipped to provide 101710
residential habilitation, care, and treatment for the mentally 101711
retarded.101712

       (J)(K) "Licensed physician" means a person who holds a valid 101713
certificate issued under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code 101714
authorizing the person to practice medicine and surgery or 101715
osteopathic medicine and surgery, or a medical officer of the 101716
government of the United States while in the performance of the 101717
officer's official duties.101718

       (K)(L) "Managing officer" means a person who is appointed by 101719
the director of developmental disabilities to be in executive 101720
control of an institution for the mentally retarded under the 101721
jurisdiction of the department.101722

       (L) "Medicaid" has the same meaning as in section 5111.01 of 101723
the Revised Code.101724

       (M) "Medicaid case management services" means case management 101725
services provided to an individual with mental retardation or 101726
other developmental disability that the state medicaid plan 101727
requires.101728

       (N) "Mentally retarded person" means a person having 101729
significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning existing 101730
concurrently with deficiencies in adaptive behavior, manifested 101731
during the developmental period.101732

       (O) "Mentally retarded person subject to institutionalization 101733
by court order" means a person eighteen years of age or older who 101734
is at least moderately mentally retarded and in relation to whom, 101735
because of the person's retardation, either of the following 101736
conditions exist:101737

       (1) The person represents a very substantial risk of physical 101738
impairment or injury to self as manifested by evidence that the 101739
person is unable to provide for and is not providing for the 101740
person's most basic physical needs and that provision for those 101741
needs is not available in the community;101742

       (2) The person needs and is susceptible to significant 101743
habilitation in an institution.101744

       (P) "A person who is at least moderately mentally retarded" 101745
means a person who is found, following a comprehensive evaluation, 101746
to be impaired in adaptive behavior to a moderate degree and to be 101747
functioning at the moderate level of intellectual functioning in 101748
accordance with standard measurements as recorded in the most 101749
current revision of the manual of terminology and classification 101750
in mental retardation published by the American association on 101751
mental retardation.101752

       (Q) As used in this division, "substantial functional 101753
limitation," "developmental delay," and "established risk" have 101754
the meanings established pursuant to section 5123.011 of the 101755
Revised Code.101756

       "Developmental disability" means a severe, chronic disability 101757
that is characterized by all of the following:101758

       (1) It is attributable to a mental or physical impairment or 101759
a combination of mental and physical impairments, other than a 101760
mental or physical impairment solely caused by mental illness as 101761
defined in division (A) of section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.101762

       (2) It is manifested before age twenty-two.101763

       (3) It is likely to continue indefinitely.101764

       (4) It results in one of the following:101765

       (a) In the case of a person under three years of age, at 101766
least one developmental delay or an established risk;101767

       (b) In the case of a person at least three years of age but 101768
under six years of age, at least two developmental delays or an 101769
established risk;101770

       (c) In the case of a person six years of age or older, a 101771
substantial functional limitation in at least three of the 101772
following areas of major life activity, as appropriate for the 101773
person's age: self-care, receptive and expressive language, 101774
learning, mobility, self-direction, capacity for independent 101775
living, and, if the person is at least sixteen years of age, 101776
capacity for economic self-sufficiency.101777

       (5) It causes the person to need a combination and sequence 101778
of special, interdisciplinary, or other type of care, treatment, 101779
or provision of services for an extended period of time that is 101780
individually planned and coordinated for the person.101781

       (R) "Developmentally disabled person" means a person with a 101782
developmental disability.101783

       (S) "State institution" means an institution that is 101784
tax-supported and under the jurisdiction of the department.101785

       (T) "Residence" and "legal residence" have the same meaning 101786
as "legal settlement," which is acquired by residing in Ohio for a 101787
period of one year without receiving general assistance prior to 101788
July 17, 1995, under former Chapter 5113. of the Revised Code, 101789
financial assistance under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code, or 101790
assistance from a private agency that maintains records of 101791
assistance given. A person having a legal settlement in the state 101792
shall be considered as having legal settlement in the assistance 101793
area in which the person resides. No adult person coming into this 101794
state and having a spouse or minor children residing in another 101795
state shall obtain a legal settlement in this state as long as the 101796
spouse or minor children are receiving public assistance, care, or 101797
support at the expense of the other state or its subdivisions. For 101798
the purpose of determining the legal settlement of a person who is 101799
living in a public or private institution or in a home subject to 101800
licensing by the department of job and family services, the 101801
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services, 101802
or the department of developmental disabilities, the residence of 101803
the person shall be considered as though the person were residing 101804
in the county in which the person was living prior to the person's 101805
entrance into the institution or home. Settlement once acquired 101806
shall continue until a person has been continuously absent from 101807
Ohio for a period of one year or has acquired a legal residence in 101808
another state. A woman who marries a man with legal settlement in 101809
any county immediately acquires the settlement of her husband. The 101810
legal settlement of a minor is that of the parents, surviving 101811
parent, sole parent, parent who is designated the residential 101812
parent and legal custodian by a court, other adult having 101813
permanent custody awarded by a court, or guardian of the person of 101814
the minor, provided that:101815

       (1) A minor female who marries shall be considered to have 101816
the legal settlement of her husband and, in the case of death of 101817
her husband or divorce, she shall not thereby lose her legal 101818
settlement obtained by the marriage.101819

       (2) A minor male who marries, establishes a home, and who has 101820
resided in this state for one year without receiving general 101821
assistance prior to July 17, 1995, under former Chapter 5113. of 101822
the Revised Code, financial assistance under Chapter 5115. of the 101823
Revised Code, or assistance from a private agency that maintains 101824
records of assistance given shall be considered to have obtained a 101825
legal settlement in this state.101826

       (3) The legal settlement of a child under eighteen years of 101827
age who is in the care or custody of a public or private child 101828
caring agency shall not change if the legal settlement of the 101829
parent changes until after the child has been in the home of the 101830
parent for a period of one year.101831

       No person, adult or minor, may establish a legal settlement 101832
in this state for the purpose of gaining admission to any state 101833
institution.101834

       (U)(1) "Resident" means, subject to division (R)(U)(2) of 101835
this section, a person who is admitted either voluntarily or 101836
involuntarily to an institution or other facility pursuant to 101837
section 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised 101838
Code subsequent to a finding of not guilty by reason of insanity 101839
or incompetence to stand trial or under this chapter who is under 101840
observation or receiving habilitation and care in an institution.101841

       (2) "Resident" does not include a person admitted to an 101842
institution or other facility under section 2945.39, 2945.40, 101843
2945.401, or 2945.402 of the Revised Code to the extent that the 101844
reference in this chapter to resident, or the context in which the 101845
reference occurs, is in conflict with any provision of sections 101846
2945.37 to 2945.402 of the Revised Code.101847

       (V) "Respondent" means the person whose detention, 101848
commitment, or continued commitment is being sought in any 101849
proceeding under this chapter.101850

       (W) "Working day" and "court day" mean Monday, Tuesday, 101851
Wednesday, Thursday, and Friday, except when such day is a legal 101852
holiday.101853

       (X) "Prosecutor" means the prosecuting attorney, village 101854
solicitor, city director of law, or similar chief legal officer 101855
who prosecuted a criminal case in which a person was found not 101856
guilty by reason of insanity, who would have had the authority to 101857
prosecute a criminal case against a person if the person had not 101858
been found incompetent to stand trial, or who prosecuted a case in 101859
which a person was found guilty.101860

       (Y) "Court" means the probate division of the court of common 101861
pleas.101862

       (Z) "Supported living" and "residential services" have the 101863
same meanings as in section 5126.01 of the Revised Code.101864

       Sec. 5123.021.  (A) As used in this section, "mentally 101865
retarded individual" and "specialized services" have the same 101866
meanings as in section 5111.2025165.03 of the Revised Code.101867

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this section 101868
and rules adopted under division (E)(3) of this section, for 101869
purposes of section 5111.2025165.03 of the Revised Code, the 101870
department of developmental disabilities shall determine in 101871
accordance with section 1919(e)(7) of the "Social Security Act," 101872
49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, and regulations 101873
adopted under section 1919(f)(8)(A) of that act whether, because 101874
of the individual's physical and mental condition, a mentally 101875
retarded individual seeking admission to a nursing facility 101876
requires the level of services provided by a nursing facility and, 101877
if the individual requires that level of services, whether the 101878
individual requires specialized services for mental retardation.101879

       (2) A determination under this division is not required for 101880
any of the following:101881

       (a) An individual seeking readmission to a nursing facility 101882
after having been transferred from a nursing facility to a 101883
hospital for care;101884

       (b) An individual who meets all of the following conditions:101885

       (i) The individual is admitted to the nursing facility 101886
directly from a hospital after receiving inpatient care at the 101887
hospital;101888

       (ii) The individual requires nursing facility services for 101889
the condition for which the individual received care in the 101890
hospital;101891

       (iii) The individual's attending physician has certified, 101892
before admission to the nursing facility, that the individual is 101893
likely to require less than thirty days of nursing facility 101894
services.101895

       (c) An individual transferred from one nursing facility to 101896
another nursing facility, with or without an intervening hospital 101897
stay.101898

       (C) Except as provided in rules adopted under division (F)(3) 101899
of this section, the department of developmental disabilities 101900
shall review and determine, for each resident of a nursing 101901
facility who is mentally retarded, whether the resident, because 101902
of the resident's physical and mental condition, requires the 101903
level of services provided by a nursing facility and whether the 101904
resident requires specialized services for mental retardation. The 101905
review and determination shall be conducted in accordance with 101906
section 1919(e)(7) of the "Social Security Act" and the 101907
regulations adopted under section 1919(f)(8)(A) of the act. The 101908
review and determination shall be completed promptly after a 101909
nursing facility has notified the department that there has been a 101910
significant change in the resident's mental or physical condition.101911

       (D)(1) In the case of a nursing facility resident who has 101912
continuously resided in a nursing facility for at least thirty 101913
months before the date of a review and determination under 101914
division (C) of this section, if the resident is determined not to 101915
require the level of services provided by a nursing facility, but 101916
is determined to require specialized services for mental 101917
retardation, the department, in consultation with the resident's 101918
family or legal representative and care givers, shall do all of 101919
the following:101920

       (a) Inform the resident of the institutional and 101921
noninstitutional alternatives covered under the state plan for 101922
medical assistance;101923

       (b) Offer the resident the choice of remaining in the nursing 101924
facility or receiving covered services in an alternative 101925
institutional or noninstitutional setting;101926

       (c) Clarify the effect on eligibility for services under the 101927
state plan for medical assistance if the resident chooses to leave 101928
the facility, including its effect on readmission to the facility;101929

       (d) Provide for or arrange for the provision of specialized 101930
services for the resident's mental retardation in the setting 101931
chosen by the resident.101932

       (2) In the case of a nursing facility resident who has 101933
continuously resided in a nursing facility for less than thirty 101934
months before the date of the review and determination under 101935
division (C) of this section, if the resident is determined not to 101936
require the level of services provided by a nursing facility, but 101937
is determined to require specialized services for mental 101938
retardation, or if the resident is determined to require neither 101939
the level of services provided by a nursing facility nor 101940
specialized services for mental retardation, the department shall 101941
act in accordance with its alternative disposition plan approved 101942
by the United States department of health and human services under 101943
section 1919(e)(7)(E) of the "Social Security Act."101944

       (3) In the case of an individual who is determined under 101945
division (B) or (C) of this section to require both the level of 101946
services provided by a nursing facility and specialized services 101947
for mental retardation, the department of developmental 101948
disabilities shall provide or arrange for the provision of the 101949
specialized services needed by the individual or resident while 101950
residing in a nursing facility.101951

       (E) The department of developmental disabilities shall adopt 101952
rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that do 101953
all of the following:101954

       (1) Establish criteria to be used in making the 101955
determinations required by divisions (B) and (C) of this section. 101956
The criteria shall not exceed the criteria established by 101957
regulations adopted by the United States department of health and 101958
human services under section 1919(f)(8)(A) of the "Social Security 101959
Act."101960

       (2) Specify information to be provided by the individual or 101961
nursing facility resident being assessed;101962

       (3) Specify any circumstances, in addition to circumstances 101963
listed in division (B) of this section, under which determinations 101964
under divisions (B) and (C) of this section are not required to be 101965
made.101966

       Sec. 5123.022. It(A) As used in this section:101967

       (1) "Community employment" means competitive employment that 101968
takes place in an integrated setting.101969

       (2) "Competitive employment" means full-time or part-time 101970
work in the competitive labor market in which payment is at or 101971
above the minimum wage but not less than the customary wage and 101972
level of benefits paid by the employer for the same or similar 101973
work performed by persons who are not disabled.101974

       (3) "Integrated setting" means a setting typically found in 101975
the community where individuals with developmental disabilities 101976
interact with individuals who do not have disabilities to the same 101977
extent that individuals in comparable positions who are not 101978
disabled interact with other individuals, including in employment 101979
settings in which employees interact with the community through 101980
technology.101981

       (B) It is hereby declared to be the policy of this state that 101982
employment services for individuals with developmental 101983
disabilities be directed at placement whenever possible of each 101984
individual in a position in the community in which the individual 101985
is integrated with the employer's other workers who are not 101986
developmentally disabledemployment. TheEvery individual with a 101987
developmental disability is presumed capable of community 101988
employment.101989

       The departments of developmental disabilities, education, 101990
medicaid, job and family services, and mental healthmental health 101991
and addiction services; the rehabilitation services commission101992
opportunities for Ohioans with disabilities agency; and each other 101993
state agency that provides employment services to individuals with 101994
developmental disabilities shall implement thisthe policy of 101995
this state and ensure that it is followed whenever employment 101996
services are provided to individuals with developmental 101997
disabilities.101998

       The department of developmental disabilities shall coordinate 101999
the actions taken by state agencies to comply with the state's 102000
policy. Agencies shall collaborate within their divisions and with 102001
each other to ensure that state programs, policies, procedures, 102002
and funding support competitive and integrated employment of 102003
individuals with developmental disabilities. State agencies shall 102004
share information with the department, and the department shall 102005
track progress toward full implementation of the policy. The 102006
department, in coordination with any task force established by the 102007
governor, shall compile data and annually submit to the governor a 102008
report on implementation of the policy.102009

       The department and state agencies may adopt rules to 102010
implement the state's policy.102011

       (C) The state's policy articulated in this section is 102012
intended to promote the right of each individual with a 102013
developmental disability to informed choice; however, nothing in 102014
this section requires any employer to give preference in hiring to 102015
an individual because the individual has a disability.102016

       Sec. 5123.023.  (A) The director of developmental 102017
disabilities may establish an employment first task force 102018
consisting of the departments of developmental disabilities, 102019
education, medicaid, job and family services, and mental health 102020
and addiction services; and the opportunities for Ohioans with 102021
disabilities agency. The purpose of the task force shall be to 102022
improve the coordination of the state's efforts to address the 102023
needs of individuals with developmental disabilities who seek 102024
community employment as defined in section 5123.022 of the Revised 102025
Code.102026

       (B) The department of developmental disabilities may enter 102027
into interagency agreements with any of the government entities on 102028
the task force. The interagency agreements may specify either or 102029
both of the following:102030

       (1) The roles and responsibilities of the government entities 102031
that are members of the task force, including any money to be 102032
contributed by those entities;102033

       (2) The projects and activities of the task force.102034

       (C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 102035
employment first taskforce fund. Any money received by the task 102036
force from its members shall be credited to the fund. The 102037
department of developmental disabilities shall use the fund to 102038
support the work of the task force.102039

       (D) The task force shall cease to exist on January 1, 2020. 102040
Any money, assets, or employees of the department of developmental 102041
disabilities that on that date are dedicated to the work of the 102042
task force shall be reallocated by the department for employment 102043
services for individuals with developmental disabilities.102044

       Sec. 5123.03.  (A) The department of developmental 102045
disabilities shall do all of the following:102046

       (1) Maintain, operate, manage, and govern all state 102047
institutions for the care, treatment, and training of the mentally 102048
retarded;102049

       (2) Designate all such institutions by appropriate names;102050

       (3) Provide and designate facilities for the custody, care, 102051
and special treatment of persons of the following classes:102052

       (a) Dangerous persons in state institutions for the mentally 102053
retarded who represent a serious threat to the safety of the other 102054
patients of the institution;102055

       (b) Persons charged with crimes who are found incompetent to 102056
stand trial or not guilty by reason of insanity and who are also 102057
mentally retarded persons subject to institutionalization by court 102058
order.102059

       (4) Have control of all institutions maintained in part by 102060
the state for the care, treatment, and training of the mentally 102061
retarded;102062

       (5) Administer the laws relative to persons in such 102063
institutions in an efficient, economical, and humane manner;102064

       (6) Ascertain by actual examinations and inquiry whether 102065
institutionalizations are made according to law.102066

       (B) The department may do any of the following:102067

       (1) Subject to section 5139.08 of the Revised Code, receive 102068
from the department of youth services for observation, diagnosis, 102069
care, habilitation, or placement any children in the custody of 102070
the department of youth services;102071

       (2) Receive for observation any minor from a public 102072
institution other than an institution under the jurisdiction of 102073
the department of developmental disabilities, from a private 102074
charitable institution, or from a person having legal custody of 102075
such a minor, upon such terms as are proper;102076

       (3) Receive from the department of mental healthmental 102077
health and addiction services any patient in the custody of the 102078
department who is transferred to the department of developmental 102079
disabilities upon such terms and conditions as may be agreed upon 102080
by the two departments.102081

       (C) In addition to the powers and duties expressly conferred 102082
by this section, the department may take any other action 102083
necessary for the full and efficient executive, administrative, 102084
and fiscal supervision of the state institutions described in this 102085
section.102086

       Sec. 5123.0412. (A) The department of developmental 102087
disabilities shall charge each county board of developmental 102088
disabilities an annual fee equal to one and one-quarter per cent 102089
of the total value of all medicaid paid claims for home and 102090
community-based services provided during the year to an individual 102091
eligible for services from the county board. However, the 102092
department shall not charge the fee for home and community-based 102093
services provided under the medicaid waiver component known as the 102094
transitions developmental disabilities waiver. No county board 102095
shall pass the cost of a fee charged to the county board under 102096
this section on to another provider of these services.102097

       (B) The fees collected under this section shall be deposited 102098
into the ODDD administration and oversight fund and the ODJFS 102099
administration and oversight fund, both of , which areis hereby 102100
created in the state treasury. The portion of the fees to be 102101
deposited into the ODDD administration and oversight fund and the 102102
portion of the fees to be deposited into the ODJFS administration 102103
and oversight fund shall be the portion specified in an 102104
interagency agreement entered into under division (C) of this 102105
section. The department of developmental disabilities shall use 102106
the money in the ODDD administration and oversight fund and the 102107
department of job and family services shall use the money in the 102108
ODJFS administration and oversight fund for both of the following 102109
purposes:102110

       (1) Medicaid administrative costs, including administrative 102111
and oversight costs of medicaid case management services and home 102112
and community-based services. The administrative and oversight 102113
costs of medicaid case management services and home and 102114
community-based services shall include costs for staff, systems, 102115
and other resources the departments needdepartment needs and 102116
dedicatededicates solely to the following duties associated with 102117
the services:102118

       (a) Eligibility determinations;102119

       (b) Training;102120

       (c) Fiscal management;102121

       (d) Claims processing;102122

       (e) Quality assurance oversight;102123

       (f) Other duties the departments identifydepartment 102124
identifies.102125

       (2) Providing technical support to county boards' local 102126
administrative authority under section 5126.055 of the Revised 102127
Code for the services.102128

       (C) The departments of developmental disabilities and job and 102129
family services shall enter into an interagency agreement to do 102130
both of the following: 102131

       (1) Specify which portion of the fees collected under this 102132
section is to be deposited into the ODDD administration and 102133
oversight fund and which portion is to be deposited into the ODJFS 102134
administration and oversight fund; 102135

       (2) Provide for the departments to coordinate the staff whose 102136
costs are paid for with money in the ODDD administration and 102137
oversight fund and the ODJFS administration and oversight fund. 102138

       (D) The departmentsdepartment shall submit an annual report 102139
to the director of budget and management certifying how the 102140
departmentsdepartment spent the money in the ODDD administration 102141
and oversight fund and the ODJFS administration and oversight fund102142
for the purposes specified in division (B) of this section.102143

       Sec. 5123.0417. (A) The director of developmental 102144
disabilities shall establish one or more programs for individuals 102145
under twenty-two years of age who have intensive behavioral needs, 102146
including such individuals with a primary diagnosis of autism 102147
spectrum disorder. The programs may include one or more medicaid 102148
waiver components that the director administers pursuant to 102149
section 5111.8715166.21 of the Revised Code. The programs may do 102150
one or more of the following:102151

        (1) Establish models that incorporate elements common to 102152
effective intervention programs and evidence-based practices in 102153
services for children with intensive behavioral needs;102154

       (2) Design a template for individualized education plans and 102155
individual service plans that provide consistent intervention 102156
programs and evidence-based practices for the care and treatment 102157
of children with intensive behavioral needs;102158

        (3) Disseminate best practice guidelines for use by families 102159
of children with intensive behavioral needs and professionals 102160
working with such families;102161

       (4) Develop a transition planning model for effectively 102162
mainstreaming school-age children with intensive behavioral needs 102163
to their public school district;102164

        (5) Contribute to the field of early and effective 102165
identification and intervention programs for children with 102166
intensive behavioral needs by providing financial support for 102167
scholarly research and publication of clinical findings.102168

        (B) The director of developmental disabilities shall 102169
collaborate with the medicaid director of job and family services102170
and consult with the executive director of the Ohio center for 102171
autism and low incidence and university-based programs that 102172
specialize in services for individuals with developmental 102173
disabilities when establishing programs under this section.102174

       Sec. 5123.09.  Subject to the rules of the department of 102175
developmental disabilities, each institution under the 102176
jurisdiction of the department shall be under the control of a 102177
managing officer to be known as a superintendent or by other 102178
appropriate title. The managing officer shall be appointed by the 102179
director of developmental disabilities and shall be in the 102180
unclassified service and serve at the pleasure of the director. 102181
Each managing officer shall be of good moral character and have 102182
skill, ability, and experience in the managing officer's 102183
profession. Appointment to the position of managing officer of an 102184
institution may be made from persons holding positions in the 102185
classified service in the department.102186

       The managing officer, under the director, shall have entire 102187
executive charge of the institution for which the managing officer 102188
is appointed, except as provided in section 5119.165119.44 of the 102189
Revised Code. Subject to civil service rules and rules adopted by 102190
the department, the managing officer shall appoint the necessary 102191
employees, and the managing officer or the director may remove 102192
those employees for cause. A report of all appointments, 102193
resignations, and discharges shall be filed with the appropriate 102194
division at the close of each month.102195

       After conference with the managing officer of each 102196
institution, the director shall determine the number of employees 102197
to be appointed to the various institutions and clinics.102198

       Sec. 5123.171.  As used in this section, "respite care" means 102199
appropriate, short-term, temporary care provided to a mentally 102200
retarded or developmentally disabled person to sustain the family 102201
structure or to meet planned or emergency needs of the family.102202

       The department of developmental disabilities shall provide 102203
respite care services to persons with mental retardation or a 102204
developmental disability for the purpose of promoting 102205
self-sufficiency and normalization, preventing or reducing 102206
inappropriate institutional care, and furthering the unity of the 102207
family by enabling the family to meet the special needs of a 102208
mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person.102209

       In order to be eligible for respite care services under this 102210
section, the mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person 102211
must be in need of habilitation services as defined in section 102212
5126.01 of the Revised Code.102213

       Respite care may be provided in a residential facility 102214
licensed under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code (, including a 102215
residential facility certified as an intermediate care facility 102216
for the mentally retarded under Title XIX of the "Social Security 102217
Act," 79 Stat. 344 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396, et seq., as amended)102218
ICF/IID, and a respite care home certified under section 5126.05 102219
of the Revised Code.102220

       The department shall develop a system for locating vacant 102221
beds that are available for respite care and for making 102222
information on vacant beds available to users of respite care 102223
services. Facilities certified as intermediate care facilities for 102224
the mentally retardedICFs/IID shall report vacant beds to the 102225
department but shall not be required to accept respite care 102226
clients.102227

       The director of developmental disabilities shall adopt, and 102228
may amend or rescind, rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 102229
Revised Code for both of the following:102230

       (A) Certification by county boards of developmental 102231
disabilities of respite care homes;102232

       (B) Provision of respite care services authorized by this 102233
section. Rules adopted under this division shall establish all of 102234
the following:102235

       (1) A formula for distributing funds appropriated for respite 102236
care services;102237

       (2) Standards for supervision, training and quality control 102238
in the provision of respite care services;102239

       (3) Eligibility criteria for emergency respite care services.102240

       Sec. 5123.19.  (A) As used in sections 5123.19 to 5123.20 of 102241
the Revised Code:102242

       (1) "Independent living arrangement" means an arrangement in 102243
which a mentally retarded or developmentally disabled person 102244
resides in an individualized setting chosen by the person or the 102245
person's guardian, which is not dedicated principally to the 102246
provision of residential services for mentally retarded or 102247
developmentally disabled persons, and for which no financial 102248
support is received for rendering such service from any 102249
governmental agency by a provider of residential services.102250

        (2) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 102251
has the same meaning as in section 1905(d) of the "Social Security 102252
Act," 101 Stat. 1330-204 (1987), 42 U.S.C. 1396d(d), as amended.102253

        (3) "Licensee" means the person or government agency that has 102254
applied for a license to operate a residential facility and to 102255
which the license was issued under this section.102256

       (4)(3) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 102257
county, or township.102258

       (5)(4) "Related party" has the same meaning as in section 102259
5123.16 of the Revised Code except that "provider" as used in the 102260
definition of "related party" means a person or government entity 102261
that held or applied for a license to operate a residential 102262
facility, rather than a person or government entity certified to 102263
provide supported living.102264

       (6)(5)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(6)(5)(b) of this 102265
section, "residential facility" means a home or facility, 102266
including a facility certified as an intermediate care facility 102267
for the mentally retardedan ICF/IID, in which an individual with 102268
mental retardation or a developmental disability resides.102269

        (b) "Residential facility" does not mean any of the 102270
following:102271

        (i) The home of a relative or legal guardian in which an 102272
individual with mental retardation or a developmental disability 102273
resides;102274

        (ii) A respite care home certified under section 5126.05 of 102275
the Revised Code;102276

        (iii) A county home or district home operated pursuant to 102277
Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;102278

        (iv) A dwelling in which the only residents with mental 102279
retardation or developmental disabilities are in independent 102280
living arrangements or are being provided supported living.102281

       (B) Every person or government agency desiring to operate a 102282
residential facility shall apply for licensure of the facility to 102283
the director of developmental disabilities unless the residential 102284
facility is subject to section 3721.02, 5103.03, 5119.205119.33, 102285
or division (A)(9)(b) of section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised 102286
Code. 102287

       (C) Subject to section 5123.196 of the Revised Code, the 102288
director of developmental disabilities shall license the operation 102289
of residential facilities. An initial license shall be issued for 102290
a period that does not exceed one year, unless the director denies 102291
the license under division (D) of this section. A license shall be 102292
renewed for a period that does not exceed three years, unless the 102293
director refuses to renew the license under division (D) of this 102294
section. The director, when issuing or renewing a license, shall 102295
specify the period for which the license is being issued or 102296
renewed. A license remains valid for the length of the licensing 102297
period specified by the director, unless the license is 102298
terminated, revoked, or voluntarily surrendered.102299

       (D) If it is determined that an applicant or licensee is not 102300
in compliance with a provision of this chapter that applies to 102301
residential facilities or the rules adopted under such a 102302
provision, the director may deny issuance of a license, refuse to 102303
renew a license, terminate a license, revoke a license, issue an 102304
order for the suspension of admissions to a facility, issue an 102305
order for the placement of a monitor at a facility, issue an order 102306
for the immediate removal of residents, or take any other action 102307
the director considers necessary consistent with the director's 102308
authority under this chapter regarding residential facilities. In 102309
the director's selection and administration of the sanction to be 102310
imposed, all of the following apply:102311

       (1) The director may deny, refuse to renew, or revoke a 102312
license, if the director determines that the applicant or licensee 102313
has demonstrated a pattern of serious noncompliance or that a 102314
violation creates a substantial risk to the health and safety of 102315
residents of a residential facility.102316

       (2) The director may terminate a license if more than twelve 102317
consecutive months have elapsed since the residential facility was 102318
last occupied by a resident or a notice required by division (K) 102319
of this section is not given.102320

       (3) The director may issue an order for the suspension of 102321
admissions to a facility for any violation that may result in 102322
sanctions under division (D)(1) of this section and for any other 102323
violation specified in rules adopted under division (H)(2) of this 102324
section. If the suspension of admissions is imposed for a 102325
violation that may result in sanctions under division (D)(1) of 102326
this section, the director may impose the suspension before 102327
providing an opportunity for an adjudication under Chapter 119. of 102328
the Revised Code. The director shall lift an order for the 102329
suspension of admissions when the director determines that the 102330
violation that formed the basis for the order has been corrected.102331

       (4) The director may order the placement of a monitor at a 102332
residential facility for any violation specified in rules adopted 102333
under division (H)(2) of this section. The director shall lift the 102334
order when the director determines that the violation that formed 102335
the basis for the order has been corrected.102336

       (5) If the director determines that two or more residential 102337
facilities owned or operated by the same person or government 102338
entity are not being operated in compliance with a provision of 102339
this chapter that applies to residential facilities or the rules 102340
adopted under such a provision, and the director's findings are 102341
based on the same or a substantially similar action, practice, 102342
circumstance, or incident that creates a substantial risk to the 102343
health and safety of the residents, the director shall conduct a 102344
survey as soon as practicable at each residential facility owned 102345
or operated by that person or government entity. The director may 102346
take any action authorized by this section with respect to any 102347
facility found to be operating in violation of a provision of this 102348
chapter that applies to residential facilities or the rules 102349
adopted under such a provision.102350

       (6) When the director initiates license revocation 102351
proceedings, no opportunity for submitting a plan of correction 102352
shall be given. The director shall notify the licensee by letter 102353
of the initiation of the proceedings. The letter shall list the 102354
deficiencies of the residential facility and inform the licensee 102355
that no plan of correction will be accepted. The director shall 102356
also send a copy of the letter to the county board of 102357
developmental disabilities. The county board shall send a copy of 102358
the letter to each of the following:102359

        (a) Each resident who receives services from the licensee;102360

        (b) The guardian of each resident who receives services from 102361
the licensee if the resident has a guardian;102362

        (c) The parent or guardian of each resident who receives 102363
services from the licensee if the resident is a minor.102364

       (7) Pursuant to rules which shall be adopted in accordance 102365
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the director may order the 102366
immediate removal of residents from a residential facility 102367
whenever conditions at the facility present an immediate danger of 102368
physical or psychological harm to the residents.102369

       (8) In determining whether a residential facility is being 102370
operated in compliance with a provision of this chapter that 102371
applies to residential facilities or the rules adopted under such 102372
a provision, or whether conditions at a residential facility 102373
present an immediate danger of physical or psychological harm to 102374
the residents, the director may rely on information obtained by a 102375
county board of developmental disabilities or other governmental 102376
agencies.102377

       (9) In proceedings initiated to deny, refuse to renew, or 102378
revoke licenses, the director may deny, refuse to renew, or revoke 102379
a license regardless of whether some or all of the deficiencies 102380
that prompted the proceedings have been corrected at the time of 102381
the hearing.102382

       (E) The director shall establish a program under which public 102383
notification may be made when the director has initiated license 102384
revocation proceedings or has issued an order for the suspension 102385
of admissions, placement of a monitor, or removal of residents. 102386
The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of 102387
the Revised Code to implement this division. The rules shall 102388
establish the procedures by which the public notification will be 102389
made and specify the circumstances for which the notification must 102390
be made. The rules shall require that public notification be made 102391
if the director has taken action against the facility in the 102392
eighteen-month period immediately preceding the director's latest 102393
action against the facility and the latest action is being taken 102394
for the same or a substantially similar violation of a provision 102395
of this chapter that applies to residential facilities or the 102396
rules adopted under such a provision. The rules shall specify a 102397
method for removing or amending the public notification if the 102398
director's action is found to have been unjustified or the 102399
violation at the residential facility has been corrected.102400

       (F)(1) Except as provided in division (F)(2) of this section, 102401
appeals from proceedings initiated to impose a sanction under 102402
division (D) of this section shall be conducted in accordance with 102403
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.102404

       (2) Appeals from proceedings initiated to order the 102405
suspension of admissions to a facility shall be conducted in 102406
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, unless the order 102407
was issued before providing an opportunity for an adjudication, in 102408
which case all of the following apply:102409

       (a) The licensee may request a hearing not later than ten 102410
days after receiving the notice specified in section 119.07 of the 102411
Revised Code.102412

       (b) If a timely request for a hearing that includes the 102413
licensee's current address is made, the hearing shall commence not 102414
later than thirty days after the department receives the request.102415

       (c) After commencing, the hearing shall continue 102416
uninterrupted, except for Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays, 102417
unless other interruptions are agreed to by the licensee and the 102418
director.102419

       (d) If the hearing is conducted by a hearing examiner, the 102420
hearing examiner shall file a report and recommendations not later 102421
than ten days after the last of the following:102422

       (i) The close of the hearing;102423

       (ii) If a transcript of the proceedings is ordered, the 102424
hearing examiner receives the transcript;102425

        (iii) If post-hearing briefs are timely filed, the hearing 102426
examiner receives the briefs.102427

       (e) A copy of the written report and recommendation of the 102428
hearing examiner shall be sent, by certified mail, to the licensee 102429
and the licensee's attorney, if applicable, not later than five 102430
days after the report is filed.102431

        (f) Not later than five days after the hearing examiner files 102432
the report and recommendations, the licensee may file objections 102433
to the report and recommendations.102434

       (g) Not later than fifteen days after the hearing examiner 102435
files the report and recommendations, the director shall issue an 102436
order approving, modifying, or disapproving the report and 102437
recommendations.102438

       (h) Notwithstanding the pendency of the hearing, the director 102439
shall lift the order for the suspension of admissions when the 102440
director determines that the violation that formed the basis for 102441
the order has been corrected.102442

       (G) Neither a person or government agency whose application 102443
for a license to operate a residential facility is denied nor a 102444
related party of the person or government agency may apply for a 102445
license to operate a residential facility before the date that is 102446
one year after the date of the denial. Neither a licensee whose 102447
residential facility license is revoked nor a related party of the 102448
licensee may apply for a residential facility license before the 102449
date that is five years after the date of the revocation.102450

        (H) In accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the 102451
director shall adopt and may amend and rescind rules for licensing 102452
and regulating the operation of residential facilities. The rules 102453
for residential facilities that are intermediate care facilities 102454
for the mentally retardedICFs/IID may differ from those for other 102455
residential facilities. The rules shall establish and specify the 102456
following:102457

       (1) Procedures and criteria for issuing and renewing 102458
licenses, including procedures and criteria for determining the 102459
length of the licensing period that the director must specify for 102460
each license when it is issued or renewed;102461

       (2) Procedures and criteria for denying, refusing to renew, 102462
terminating, and revoking licenses and for ordering the suspension 102463
of admissions to a facility, placement of a monitor at a facility, 102464
and the immediate removal of residents from a facility;102465

       (3) Fees for issuing and renewing licenses, which shall be 102466
deposited into the program fee fund created under section 5123.033 102467
of the Revised Code;102468

       (4) Procedures for surveying residential facilities;102469

       (5) Requirements for the training of residential facility 102470
personnel;102471

       (6) Classifications for the various types of residential 102472
facilities;102473

       (7) Certification procedures for licensees and management 102474
contractors that the director determines are necessary to ensure 102475
that they have the skills and qualifications to properly operate 102476
or manage residential facilities;102477

       (8) The maximum number of persons who may be served in a 102478
particular type of residential facility;102479

       (9) Uniform procedures for admission of persons to and 102480
transfers and discharges of persons from residential facilities;102481

       (10) Other standards for the operation of residential 102482
facilities and the services provided at residential facilities;102483

       (11) Procedures for waiving any provision of any rule adopted 102484
under this section.102485

       (I) Before issuing a license, the director of the department 102486
or the director's designee shall conduct a survey of the 102487
residential facility for which application is made. The director 102488
or the director's designee shall conduct a survey of each licensed 102489
residential facility at least once during the period the license 102490
is valid and may conduct additional inspections as needed. A 102491
survey includes but is not limited to an on-site examination and 102492
evaluation of the residential facility, its personnel, and the 102493
services provided there.102494

       In conducting surveys, the director or the director's 102495
designee shall be given access to the residential facility; all 102496
records, accounts, and any other documents related to the 102497
operation of the facility; the licensee; the residents of the 102498
facility; and all persons acting on behalf of, under the control 102499
of, or in connection with the licensee. The licensee and all 102500
persons on behalf of, under the control of, or in connection with 102501
the licensee shall cooperate with the director or the director's 102502
designee in conducting the survey.102503

       Following each survey, unless the director initiates a 102504
license revocation proceeding, the director or the director's 102505
designee shall provide the licensee with a report listing any 102506
deficiencies, specifying a timetable within which the licensee 102507
shall submit a plan of correction describing how the deficiencies 102508
will be corrected, and, when appropriate, specifying a timetable 102509
within which the licensee must correct the deficiencies. After a 102510
plan of correction is submitted, the director or the director's 102511
designee shall approve or disapprove the plan. A copy of the 102512
report and any approved plan of correction shall be provided to 102513
any person who requests it.102514

       The director shall initiate disciplinary action against any 102515
department employee who notifies or causes the notification to any 102516
unauthorized person of an unannounced survey of a residential 102517
facility by an authorized representative of the department.102518

       (J) In addition to any other information which may be 102519
required of applicants for a license pursuant to this section, the 102520
director shall require each applicant to provide a copy of an 102521
approved plan for a proposed residential facility pursuant to 102522
section 5123.042 of the Revised Code. This division does not apply 102523
to renewal of a license or to an applicant for an initial or 102524
modified license who meets the requirements of section 5123.197 of 102525
the Revised Code.102526

       (K) A licensee shall notify the owner of the building in 102527
which the licensee's residential facility is located of any 102528
significant change in the identity of the licensee or management 102529
contractor before the effective date of the change if the licensee 102530
is not the owner of the building.102531

       Pursuant to rules which shall be adopted in accordance with 102532
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, the director may require 102533
notification to the department of any significant change in the 102534
ownership of a residential facility or in the identity of the 102535
licensee or management contractor. If the director determines that 102536
a significant change of ownership is proposed, the director shall 102537
consider the proposed change to be an application for development 102538
by a new operator pursuant to section 5123.042 of the Revised Code 102539
and shall advise the applicant within sixty days of the 102540
notification that the current license shall continue in effect or 102541
a new license will be required pursuant to this section. If the 102542
director requires a new license, the director shall permit the 102543
facility to continue to operate under the current license until 102544
the new license is issued, unless the current license is revoked, 102545
refused to be renewed, or terminated in accordance with Chapter 102546
119. of the Revised Code.102547

       (L) A county board of developmental disabilities and any 102548
interested person may file complaints alleging violations of 102549
statute or department rule relating to residential facilities with 102550
the department. All complaints shall be in writing and shall state 102551
the facts constituting the basis of the allegation. The department 102552
shall not reveal the source of any complaint unless the 102553
complainant agrees in writing to waive the right to 102554
confidentiality or until so ordered by a court of competent 102555
jurisdiction.102556

       The department shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 102557
119. of the Revised Code establishing procedures for the receipt, 102558
referral, investigation, and disposition of complaints filed with 102559
the department under this division.102560

       (M) The department shall establish procedures for the 102561
notification of interested parties of the transfer or interim care 102562
of residents from residential facilities that are closing or are 102563
losing their license.102564

       (N) Before issuing a license under this section to a 102565
residential facility that will accommodate at any time more than 102566
one mentally retarded or developmentally disabled individual, the 102567
director shall, by first class mail, notify the following:102568

       (1) If the facility will be located in a municipal 102569
corporation, the clerk of the legislative authority of the 102570
municipal corporation;102571

       (2) If the facility will be located in unincorporated 102572
territory, the clerk of the appropriate board of county 102573
commissioners and the fiscal officer of the appropriate board of 102574
township trustees.102575

       The director shall not issue the license for ten days after 102576
mailing the notice, excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal 102577
holidays, in order to give the notified local officials time in 102578
which to comment on the proposed issuance.102579

       Any legislative authority of a municipal corporation, board 102580
of county commissioners, or board of township trustees that 102581
receives notice under this division of the proposed issuance of a 102582
license for a residential facility may comment on it in writing to 102583
the director within ten days after the director mailed the notice, 102584
excluding Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays. If the director 102585
receives written comments from any notified officials within the 102586
specified time, the director shall make written findings 102587
concerning the comments and the director's decision on the 102588
issuance of the license. If the director does not receive written 102589
comments from any notified local officials within the specified 102590
time, the director shall continue the process for issuance of the 102591
license.102592

       (O) Any person may operate a licensed residential facility 102593
that provides room and board, personal care, habilitation 102594
services, and supervision in a family setting for at least six but 102595
not more than eight persons with mental retardation or a 102596
developmental disability as a permitted use in any residential 102597
district or zone, including any single-family residential district 102598
or zone, of any political subdivision. These residential 102599
facilities may be required to comply with area, height, yard, and 102600
architectural compatibility requirements that are uniformly 102601
imposed upon all single-family residences within the district or 102602
zone.102603

       (P) Any person may operate a licensed residential facility 102604
that provides room and board, personal care, habilitation 102605
services, and supervision in a family setting for at least nine 102606
but not more than sixteen persons with mental retardation or a 102607
developmental disability as a permitted use in any multiple-family 102608
residential district or zone of any political subdivision, except 102609
that a political subdivision that has enacted a zoning ordinance 102610
or resolution establishing planned unit development districts may 102611
exclude these residential facilities from those districts, and a 102612
political subdivision that has enacted a zoning ordinance or 102613
resolution may regulate these residential facilities in 102614
multiple-family residential districts or zones as a conditionally 102615
permitted use or special exception, in either case, under 102616
reasonable and specific standards and conditions set out in the 102617
zoning ordinance or resolution to:102618

       (1) Require the architectural design and site layout of the 102619
residential facility and the location, nature, and height of any 102620
walls, screens, and fences to be compatible with adjoining land 102621
uses and the residential character of the neighborhood;102622

       (2) Require compliance with yard, parking, and sign 102623
regulation;102624

       (3) Limit excessive concentration of these residential 102625
facilities.102626

       (Q) This section does not prohibit a political subdivision 102627
from applying to residential facilities nondiscriminatory 102628
regulations requiring compliance with health, fire, and safety 102629
regulations and building standards and regulations.102630

       (R) Divisions (O) and (P) of this section are not applicable 102631
to municipal corporations that had in effect on June 15, 1977, an 102632
ordinance specifically permitting in residential zones licensed 102633
residential facilities by means of permitted uses, conditional 102634
uses, or special exception, so long as such ordinance remains in 102635
effect without any substantive modification.102636

       (S)(1) The director may issue an interim license to operate a 102637
residential facility to an applicant for a license under this 102638
section if either of the following is the case:102639

       (a) The director determines that an emergency exists 102640
requiring immediate placement of persons in a residential 102641
facility, that insufficient licensed beds are available, and that 102642
the residential facility is likely to receive a permanent license 102643
under this section within thirty days after issuance of the 102644
interim license.102645

       (b) The director determines that the issuance of an interim 102646
license is necessary to meet a temporary need for a residential 102647
facility.102648

       (2) To be eligible to receive an interim license, an 102649
applicant must meet the same criteria that must be met to receive 102650
a permanent license under this section, except for any differing 102651
procedures and time frames that may apply to issuance of a 102652
permanent license.102653

       (3) An interim license shall be valid for thirty days and may 102654
be renewed by the director for a period not to exceed one hundred 102655
fifty days.102656

       (4) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 102657
119. of the Revised Code as the director considers necessary to 102658
administer the issuance of interim licenses.102659

       (T) Notwithstanding rules adopted pursuant to this section 102660
establishing the maximum number of persons who may be served in a 102661
particular type of residential facility, a residential facility 102662
shall be permitted to serve the same number of persons being 102663
served by the facility on the effective date of the rules or the 102664
number of persons for which the facility is authorized pursuant to 102665
a current application for a certificate of need with a letter of 102666
support from the department of developmental disabilities and 102667
which is in the review process prior to April 4, 1986.102668

       (U) The director or the director's designee may enter at any 102669
time, for purposes of investigation, any home, facility, or other 102670
structure that has been reported to the director or that the 102671
director has reasonable cause to believe is being operated as a 102672
residential facility without a license issued under this section.102673

       The director may petition the court of common pleas of the 102674
county in which an unlicensed residential facility is located for 102675
an order enjoining the person or governmental agency operating the 102676
facility from continuing to operate without a license. The court 102677
may grant the injunction on a showing that the person or 102678
governmental agency named in the petition is operating a 102679
residential facility without a license. The court may grant the 102680
injunction, regardless of whether the residential facility meets 102681
the requirements for receiving a license under this section.102682

       Sec. 5123.192. (A) A person or government agency operating, 102683
on the effective date of this sectionSeptember 10, 2012, an 102684
intermediate care facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID102685
pursuant to a nursing home license issued under Chapter 3721. of 102686
the Revised Code shall do both of the following as a condition of 102687
continuing to operate the facilityICF/IID on and after July 1, 102688
2013:102689

        (1) Not later than February 1, 2013, apply to the director of 102690
developmental disabilities for a residential facility license 102691
under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code for the facility102692
ICF/IID;102693

        (2) Not later than July 1, 2013, obtain the residential 102694
facility license for the facilityICF/IID.102695

        (B) The nursing home license of an intermediate care facility 102696
for the mentally retardedICF/IID shall cease to be valid at the 102697
earliest of the following:102698

        (1) The date that the facility'sICF/IID's nursing home 102699
license is revoked or voided under section 3721.07 of the Revised 102700
Code;102701

        (2) The date that a residential facility license is obtained 102702
for the facilityICF/IID under section 5123.19 of the Revised 102703
Code;102704

        (3) July 1, 2013.102705

        (C) Except for existing nursing home beds not certified as 102706
intermediate care facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID beds 102707
and relocated in accordance with a move authorized by a 102708
certificate of need under Chapter 3702. of the Revised Code, no 102709
bed that is part of an intermediate care facility for the mentally 102710
retardedICF/IID that is licensed as a nursing home on the 102711
effective date of this sectionSeptember 10, 2012, may be used as 102712
part of a nursing home on and after the earlier of the following:102713

        (1) The date that a residential facility license is obtained 102714
for the facilityICF/IID under section 5123.19 of the Revised 102715
Code;102716

        (2) July 1, 2013.102717

       Sec. 5123.197.  Neither an applicant for an initial 102718
residential facility license under section 5123.19 of the Revised 102719
Code nor an applicant for a modification of an existing 102720
residential facility license under that section is required to 102721
obtain approval of a plan for the proposed new residential 102722
facility or modification to the existing residential facility 102723
pursuant to section 5123.042 of the Revised Code if all of the 102724
following apply:102725

       (A) The new residential facility or modification to the 102726
existing residential facility is to serve individuals who have 102727
diagnoses or special care needs for which a medicaid reimbursement102728
payment rate is set pursuant to section 5111.2585124.152 of the 102729
Revised Code;102730

       (B) The directors of job and family servicesmedicaid 102731
director and director of developmental disabilities determine that 102732
there is a need under the medicaid program for the proposed new 102733
residential facility or modification to the existing residential 102734
facility and that approving the application for the initial 102735
residential facility license or modification to the existing 102736
residential facility license is fiscally prudent for the medicaid 102737
program;102738

       (C) The director of budget and management notifies the 102739
directors of job and family servicesmedicaid director and 102740
director of developmental disabilities that the director of budget 102741
and management agrees with the directors' determination under 102742
division (B) of this section.102743

       Sec. 5123.198. (A) As used in this section, "date of the 102744
commitment" means the date that an individual specified in 102745
division (B) of this section begins to reside in a state-operated 102746
intermediate care facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID after 102747
being committed to the facilityICF/IID pursuant to sections 102748
5123.71 to 5123.76 of the Revised Code.102749

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, 102750
whenever a resident of a residential facility is committed to a 102751
state-operated intermediate care facility for the mentally 102752
retardedICF/IID pursuant to sections 5123.71 to 5123.76 of the 102753
Revised Code, the department of developmental disabilities, 102754
pursuant to an adjudication order issued in accordance with 102755
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, shall reduce by one the number 102756
of residents for which the residential facility in which the 102757
resident resided is licensed. 102758

       (C) The department shall not reduce under division (B) of 102759
this section the number of residents for which a residential 102760
facility is licensed if any of the following are the case:102761

       (1) The resident of the residential facility who is committed 102762
to a state-operated intermediate care facility for the mentally 102763
retardedICF/IID resided in the residential facility because of 102764
the closure, on or after June 26, 2003, of another state-operated 102765
intermediate care facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID;102766

       (2) The residential facility admits within ninety days of the 102767
date of the commitment an individual who resides on the date of 102768
the commitment in a state-operated intermediate care facility for 102769
the mentally retardedICF/IID or another residential facility;102770

       (3) The department fails to do either of the following within 102771
ninety days of the date of the commitment:102772

       (a) Identify an individual to whom all of the following 102773
applies:102774

       (i) Resides on the date of the commitment in a state-operated 102775
intermediate care facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID or 102776
another residential facility;102777

       (ii) Has indicated to the department an interest in 102778
relocating to the residential facility or has a parent or guardian 102779
who has indicated to the department an interest for the individual 102780
to relocate to the residential facility;102781

       (iii) The department determines the individual has needs that 102782
the residential facility can meet.102783

       (b) Provide the residential facility with information about 102784
the individual identified under division (C)(2)(a) of this section 102785
that the residential facility needs in order to determine whether 102786
the facility can meet the individual's needs.102787

       (4) If the department completes the actions specified in 102788
divisions (C)(3)(a) and (b) of this section not later than ninety 102789
days after the date of the commitment and except as provided in 102790
division (D) of this section, the residential facility does all of 102791
the following not later than ninety days after the date of the 102792
commitment:102793

       (a) Evaluates the information provided by the department;102794

       (b) Assesses the identified individual's needs;102795

       (c) Determines that the residential facility cannot meet the 102796
identified individual's needs.102797

       (5) If the department completes the actions specified in 102798
divisions (C)(3)(a) and (b) of this section not later than ninety 102799
days after the date of the commitment and the residential facility 102800
determines that the residential facility can meet the identified 102801
individual's needs, the individual, or a parent or guardian of the 102802
individual, refuses placement in the residential facility.102803

       (D) The department may reduce under division (B) of this 102804
section the number of residents for which a residential facility 102805
is licensed even though the residential facility completes the 102806
actions specified in division (C)(4) of this section not later 102807
than ninety days after the date of the commitment if all of the 102808
following are the case:102809

       (1) The department disagrees with the residential facility's 102810
determination that the residential facility cannot meet the 102811
identified individual's needs.102812

       (2) The department issues a written decision pursuant to the 102813
uniform procedures for admissions, transfers, and discharges 102814
established by rules adopted under division (H)(9) of section 102815
5123.19 of the Revised Code that the residential facility should 102816
admit the identified individual.102817

       (3) After the department issues the written decision 102818
specified in division (D)(2) of this section, the residential 102819
facility refuses to admit the identified individual.102820

       (E) A residential facility that admits, refuses to admit, 102821
transfers, or discharges a resident under this section shall 102822
comply with the uniform procedures for admissions, transfers, and 102823
discharges established by rules adopted under division (H)(9) of 102824
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code.102825

       (F) The department of developmental disabilities may notify 102826
the department of job and family services of any reduction under 102827
this section in the number of residents for which a residential 102828
facility that is an intermediate care facility for the mentally 102829
retarded is licensed. On receiving the notice, the department of 102830
job and family services may transfer to the department of 102831
developmental disabilities the savings in the nonfederal share of 102832
medicaid expenditures for each fiscal year after the year of the 102833
commitment to be used for costs of the resident's care in the 102834
state-operated intermediate care facility for the mentally 102835
retarded. In determining the amount saved, the department of job 102836
and family services shall consider medicaid payments for the 102837
remaining residents of the facility in which the resident resided.102838

       Sec. 5123.38. (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this 102839
section, if an individual receiving supported living or home and 102840
community-based services funded by a county board of developmental 102841
disabilities is committed to a state-operated intermediate care 102842
facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID pursuant to sections 102843
5123.71 to 5123.76 of the Revised Code, the county board is 102844
responsible for the nonfederal share of medicaid expenditures for 102845
the individual's care in the state-operated facilityICF/IID. The 102846
department of developmental disabilities shall collect the amount 102847
of the nonfederal share from the county board by either 102848
withholding that amount from funds the department has otherwise 102849
allocated to the county board or submitting an invoice for payment 102850
of that amount to the county board.102851

       (B) Division (A) of this section does not apply under any of 102852
the following circumstances:102853

       (1) The county board, not later than ninety days after the 102854
date of the commitment of a person receiving supported living, 102855
commences funding of supported living for an individual who 102856
resides in a state-operated intermediate care facility for the 102857
mentally retardedICF/IID on the date of the commitment or another 102858
eligible individual designated by the department.102859

        (2) The county board, not later than ninety days after the 102860
date of the commitment of a person receiving home and 102861
community-based services, commences funding of home and 102862
community-based services for an individual who resides in a 102863
state-operated intermediate care facility for the mentally 102864
retardedICF/IID on the date of the commitment or another eligible 102865
individual designated by the department.102866

       (3) The director of developmental disabilities, after 102867
determining that circumstances warrant granting a waiver in an 102868
individual's case, grants the county board a waiver that exempts 102869
the county board from responsibility for the nonfederal share for 102870
that case.102871

       Sec. 5123.61.  (A) As used in this section:102872

       (1) "Law enforcement agency" means the state highway patrol, 102873
the police department of a municipal corporation, or a county 102874
sheriff.102875

       (2) "Abuse" has the same meaning as in section 5123.50 of the 102876
Revised Code, except that it includes a misappropriation, as 102877
defined in that section.102878

       (3) "Neglect" has the same meaning as in section 5123.50 of 102879
the Revised Code.102880

       (B) The department of developmental disabilities shall 102881
establish a registry office for the purpose of maintaining reports 102882
of abuse, neglect, and other major unusual incidents made to the 102883
department under this section and reports received from county 102884
boards of developmental disabilities under section 5126.31 of the 102885
Revised Code. The department shall establish committees to review 102886
reports of abuse, neglect, and other major unusual incidents.102887

       (C)(1) Any person listed in division (C)(2) of this section, 102888
having reason to believe that a person with mental retardation or 102889
a developmental disability has suffered or faces a substantial 102890
risk of suffering any wound, injury, disability, or condition of 102891
such a nature as to reasonably indicate abuse or neglect of that 102892
person, shall immediately report or cause reports to be made of 102893
such information to the entity specified in this division. Except 102894
as provided in section 5120.173 of the Revised Code or as 102895
otherwise provided in this division, the person making the report 102896
shall make it to a law enforcement agency or to the county board 102897
of developmental disabilities. If the report concerns a resident 102898
of a facility operated by the department of developmental 102899
disabilities the report shall be made either to a law enforcement 102900
agency or to the department. If the report concerns any act or 102901
omission of an employee of a county board of developmental 102902
disabilities, the report immediately shall be made to the 102903
department and to the county board.102904

       (2) All of the following persons are required to make a 102905
report under division (C)(1) of this section:102906

       (a) Any physician, including a hospital intern or resident, 102907
any dentist, podiatrist, chiropractor, practitioner of a limited 102908
branch of medicine as specified in section 4731.15 of the Revised 102909
Code, hospital administrator or employee of a hospital, nurse 102910
licensed under Chapter 4723. of the Revised Code, employee of an 102911
ambulatory health facility as defined in section 5101.61 of the 102912
Revised Code, employee of a home health agency, employee of a 102913
residential facility licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of the 102914
Revised Code that provides accommodations, supervision, and person 102915
care services for three to sixteen unrelated adults, or employee 102916
of a community mental health facility;102917

       (b) Any school teacher or school authority, social worker, 102918
psychologist, attorney, peace officer, coroner, or residents' 102919
rights advocate as defined in section 3721.10 of the Revised Code;102920

       (c) A superintendent, board member, or employee of a county 102921
board of developmental disabilities; an administrator, board 102922
member, or employee of a residential facility licensed under 102923
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code; an administrator, board 102924
member, or employee of any other public or private provider of 102925
services to a person with mental retardation or a developmental 102926
disability, or any MR/DD employee, as defined in section 5123.50 102927
of the Revised Code;102928

       (d) A member of a citizen's advisory council established at 102929
an institution or branch institution of the department of 102930
developmental disabilities under section 5123.092 of the Revised 102931
Code;102932

       (e) A member of the clergy who is employed in a position that 102933
includes providing specialized services to an individual with 102934
mental retardation or another developmental disability, while 102935
acting in an official or professional capacity in that position, 102936
or a person who is employed in a position that includes providing 102937
specialized services to an individual with mental retardation or 102938
another developmental disability and who, while acting in an 102939
official or professional capacity, renders spiritual treatment 102940
through prayer in accordance with the tenets of an organized 102941
religion.102942

       (3)(a) The reporting requirements of this division do not 102943
apply to employees of the Ohio protection and advocacy system.102944

       (b) An attorney or physician is not required to make a report 102945
pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section concerning any 102946
communication the attorney or physician receives from a client or 102947
patient in an attorney-client or physician-patient relationship, 102948
if, in accordance with division (A) or (B) of section 2317.02 of 102949
the Revised Code, the attorney or physician could not testify with 102950
respect to that communication in a civil or criminal proceeding, 102951
except that the client or patient is deemed to have waived any 102952
testimonial privilege under division (A) or (B) of section 2317.02 102953
of the Revised Code with respect to that communication and the 102954
attorney or physician shall make a report pursuant to division 102955
(C)(1) of this section, if both of the following apply:102956

       (i) The client or patient, at the time of the communication, 102957
is a person with mental retardation or a developmental disability.102958

       (ii) The attorney or physician knows or suspects, as a result 102959
of the communication or any observations made during that 102960
communication, that the client or patient has suffered or faces a 102961
substantial risk of suffering any wound, injury, disability, or 102962
condition of a nature that reasonably indicates abuse or neglect 102963
of the client or patient.102964

       (4) Any person who fails to make a report required under 102965
division (C) of this section and who is an MR/DD employee, as 102966
defined in section 5123.50 of the Revised Code, shall be eligible 102967
to be included in the registry regarding misappropriation, abuse, 102968
neglect, or other specified misconduct by MR/DD employees 102969
established under section 5123.52 of the Revised Code.102970

       (D) The reports required under division (C) of this section 102971
shall be made forthwith by telephone or in person and shall be 102972
followed by a written report. The reports shall contain the 102973
following:102974

       (1) The names and addresses of the person with mental 102975
retardation or a developmental disability and the person's 102976
custodian, if known;102977

       (2) The age of the person with mental retardation or a 102978
developmental disability;102979

       (3) Any other information that would assist in the 102980
investigation of the report.102981

       (E) When a physician performing services as a member of the 102982
staff of a hospital or similar institution has reason to believe 102983
that a person with mental retardation or a developmental 102984
disability has suffered injury, abuse, or physical neglect, the 102985
physician shall notify the person in charge of the institution or 102986
that person's designated delegate, who shall make the necessary 102987
reports.102988

       (F) Any person having reasonable cause to believe that a 102989
person with mental retardation or a developmental disability has 102990
suffered or faces a substantial risk of suffering abuse or neglect 102991
may report or cause a report to be made of that belief to the 102992
entity specified in this division. Except as provided in section 102993
5120.173 of the Revised Code or as otherwise provided in this 102994
division, the person making the report shall make it to a law 102995
enforcement agency or the county board of developmental 102996
disabilities. If the person is a resident of a facility operated 102997
by the department of developmental disabilities, the report shall 102998
be made to a law enforcement agency or to the department. If the 102999
report concerns any act or omission of an employee of a county 103000
board of developmental disabilities, the report immediately shall 103001
be made to the department and to the county board.103002

       (G)(1) Upon the receipt of a report concerning the possible 103003
abuse or neglect of a person with mental retardation or a 103004
developmental disability, the law enforcement agency shall inform 103005
the county board of developmental disabilities or, if the person 103006
is a resident of a facility operated by the department of 103007
developmental disabilities, the director of the department or the 103008
director's designee.103009

       (2) On receipt of a report under this section that includes 103010
an allegation of action or inaction that may constitute a crime 103011
under federal law or the law of this state, the department of 103012
developmental disabilities shall notify the law enforcement 103013
agency.103014

       (3) When a county board of developmental disabilities 103015
receives a report under this section that includes an allegation 103016
of action or inaction that may constitute a crime under federal 103017
law or the law of this state, the superintendent of the board or 103018
an individual the superintendent designates under division (H) of 103019
this section shall notify the law enforcement agency. The 103020
superintendent or individual shall notify the department of 103021
developmental disabilities when it receives any report under this 103022
section.103023

       (4) When a county board of developmental disabilities 103024
receives a report under this section and believes that the degree 103025
of risk to the person is such that the report is an emergency, the 103026
superintendent of the board or an employee of the board the 103027
superintendent designates shall attempt a face-to-face contact 103028
with the person with mental retardation or a developmental 103029
disability who allegedly is the victim within one hour of the 103030
board's receipt of the report.103031

       (H) The superintendent of the board may designate an 103032
individual to be responsible for notifying the law enforcement 103033
agency and the department when the county board receives a report 103034
under this section.103035

       (I) An adult with mental retardation or a developmental 103036
disability about whom a report is made may be removed from the 103037
adult's place of residence only by law enforcement officers who 103038
consider that the adult's immediate removal is essential to 103039
protect the adult from further injury or abuse or in accordance 103040
with the order of a court made pursuant to section 5126.33 of the 103041
Revised Code.103042

       (J) A law enforcement agency shall investigate each report of 103043
abuse or neglect it receives under this section. In addition, the 103044
department, in cooperation with law enforcement officials, shall 103045
investigate each report regarding a resident of a facility 103046
operated by the department to determine the circumstances 103047
surrounding the injury, the cause of the injury, and the person 103048
responsible. The investigation shall be in accordance with the 103049
memorandum of understanding prepared under section 5126.058 of the 103050
Revised Code. The department shall determine, with the registry 103051
office which shall be maintained by the department, whether prior 103052
reports have been made concerning an adult with mental retardation 103053
or a developmental disability or other principals in the case. If 103054
the department finds that the report involves action or inaction 103055
that may constitute a crime under federal law or the law of this 103056
state, it shall submit a report of its investigation, in writing, 103057
to the law enforcement agency. If the person with mental 103058
retardation or a developmental disability is an adult, with the 103059
consent of the adult, the department shall provide such protective 103060
services as are necessary to protect the adult. The law 103061
enforcement agency shall make a written report of its findings to 103062
the department.103063

       If the person is an adult and is not a resident of a facility 103064
operated by the department, the county board of developmental 103065
disabilities shall review the report of abuse or neglect in 103066
accordance with sections 5126.30 to 5126.33 of the Revised Code 103067
and the law enforcement agency shall make the written report of 103068
its findings to the county board.103069

       (K) Any person or any hospital, institution, school, health 103070
department, or agency participating in the making of reports 103071
pursuant to this section, any person participating as a witness in 103072
an administrative or judicial proceeding resulting from the 103073
reports, or any person or governmental entity that discharges 103074
responsibilities under sections 5126.31 to 5126.33 of the Revised 103075
Code shall be immune from any civil or criminal liability that 103076
might otherwise be incurred or imposed as a result of such actions 103077
except liability for perjury, unless the person or governmental 103078
entity has acted in bad faith or with malicious purpose.103079

       (L) No employer or any person with the authority to do so 103080
shall discharge, demote, transfer, prepare a negative work 103081
performance evaluation, reduce pay or benefits, terminate work 103082
privileges, or take any other action detrimental to an employee or 103083
retaliate against an employee as a result of the employee's having 103084
made a report under this section. This division does not preclude 103085
an employer or person with authority from taking action with 103086
regard to an employee who has made a report under this section if 103087
there is another reasonable basis for the action.103088

       (M) Reports made under this section are not public records as 103089
defined in section 149.43 of the Revised Code. Information 103090
contained in the reports on request shall be made available to the 103091
person who is the subject of the report, to the person's legal 103092
counsel, and to agencies authorized to receive information in the 103093
report by the department or by a county board of developmental 103094
disabilities.103095

       (N) Notwithstanding section 4731.22 of the Revised Code, the 103096
physician-patient privilege shall not be a ground for excluding 103097
evidence regarding the injuries or physical neglect of a person 103098
with mental retardation or a developmental disability or the cause 103099
thereof in any judicial proceeding resulting from a report 103100
submitted pursuant to this section.103101

       Sec. 5123.86.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (C), (D), 103102
(E), and (F) of this section, the chief medical officer shall 103103
provide all information, including expected physical and medical 103104
consequences, necessary to enable any resident of an institution 103105
for the mentally retarded to give a fully informed, intelligent, 103106
and knowing consent if any of the following procedures are 103107
proposed:103108

       (1) Surgery;103109

       (2) Convulsive therapy;103110

       (3) Major aversive interventions;103111

       (4) Sterilization;103112

       (5) Experimental procedures;103113

       (6) Any unusual or hazardous treatment procedures.103114

       (B) No resident shall be subjected to any of the procedures 103115
listed in division (A)(4), (5), or (6) of this section without the 103116
resident's informed consent.103117

       (C) If a resident is physically or mentally unable to receive 103118
the information required for surgery under division (A)(1) of this 103119
section, or has been adjudicated incompetent, the information may 103120
be provided to the resident's natural or court-appointed guardian, 103121
including an agency providing guardianship services under contract 103122
with the department of developmental disabilities under sections 103123
5123.55 to 5123.59 of the Revised Code, who may give the informed, 103124
intelligent, and knowing written consent for surgery. Consent for 103125
surgery shall not be provided by a guardian who is an officer or 103126
employee of the department of mental healthmental health and 103127
addiction services or the department of developmental 103128
disabilities.103129

       If a resident is physically or mentally unable to receive the 103130
information required for surgery under division (A)(1) of this 103131
section and has no guardian, then the information, the 103132
recommendation of the chief medical officer, and the concurring 103133
judgment of a licensed physician who is not a full-time employee 103134
of the state may be provided to the court in the county in which 103135
the institution is located, which may approve the surgery. Before 103136
approving the surgery, the court shall notify the Ohio protection 103137
and advocacy system created by section 5123.60 of the Revised 103138
Code, and shall notify the resident of the resident's rights to 103139
consult with counsel, to have counsel appointed by the court if 103140
the resident is indigent, and to contest the recommendation of the 103141
chief medical officer.103142

       (D) If, in the judgment of two licensed physicians, delay in 103143
obtaining consent for surgery would create a grave danger to the 103144
health of a resident, emergency surgery may be performed without 103145
the consent of the resident if the necessary information is 103146
provided to the resident's guardian, including an agency providing 103147
guardianship services under contract with the department of 103148
developmental disabilities under sections 5123.55 to 5123.59 of 103149
the Revised Code, or to the resident's spouse or next of kin to 103150
enable that person or agency to give an informed, intelligent, and 103151
knowing written consent.103152

       If the guardian, spouse, or next of kin cannot be contacted 103153
through exercise of reasonable diligence, or if the guardian, 103154
spouse, or next of kin is contacted, but refuses to consent, then 103155
the emergency surgery may be performed upon the written 103156
authorization of the chief medical officer and after court 103157
approval has been obtained. However, if delay in obtaining court 103158
approval would create a grave danger to the life of the resident, 103159
the chief medical officer may authorize surgery, in writing, 103160
without court approval. If the surgery is authorized without court 103161
approval, the chief medical officer who made the authorization and 103162
the physician who performed the surgery shall each execute an 103163
affidavit describing the circumstances constituting the emergency 103164
and warranting the surgery and the circumstances warranting their 103165
not obtaining prior court approval. The affidavit shall be filed 103166
with the court with which the request for prior approval would 103167
have been filed within five court days after the surgery, and a 103168
copy of the affidavit shall be placed in the resident's file and 103169
shall be given to the guardian, spouse, or next of kin of the 103170
resident, to the hospital at which the surgery was performed, and 103171
to the Ohio protection and advocacy system created by section 103172
5123.60 of the Revised Code.103173

       (E)(1) If it is the judgment of two licensed physicians, as 103174
described in division (E)(2) of this section, that a medical 103175
emergency exists and delay in obtaining convulsive therapy creates 103176
a grave danger to the life of a resident who is both mentally 103177
retarded and mentally ill, convulsive therapy may be administered 103178
without the consent of the resident if the resident is physically 103179
or mentally unable to receive the information required for 103180
convulsive therapy and if the necessary information is provided to 103181
the resident's natural or court-appointed guardian, including an 103182
agency providing guardianship services under contract with the 103183
department of developmental disabilities under sections 5123.55 to 103184
5123.59 of the Revised Code, or to the resident's spouse or next 103185
of kin to enable that person or agency to give an informed, 103186
intelligent, and knowing written consent. If neither the 103187
resident's guardian, spouse, nor next of kin can be contacted 103188
through exercise of reasonable diligence, or if the guardian, 103189
spouse, or next of kin is contacted, but refuses to consent, then 103190
convulsive therapy may be performed upon the written authorization 103191
of the chief medical officer and after court approval has been 103192
obtained.103193

       (2) The two licensed physicians referred to in division 103194
(E)(1) of this section shall not be associated with each other in 103195
the practice of medicine or surgery by means of a partnership or 103196
corporate arrangement, other business arrangement, or employment. 103197
At least one of the physicians shall be a psychiatrist as defined 103198
in division (E) of section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.103199

       (F) Major aversive interventions shall not be used unless a 103200
resident continues to engage in behavior destructive to self or 103201
others after other forms of therapy have been attempted. Major 103202
aversive interventions shall not be applied to a voluntary 103203
resident without the informed, intelligent, and knowing written 103204
consent of the resident or the resident's guardian, including an 103205
agency providing guardianship services under contract with the 103206
department of developmental disabilities under sections 5123.55 to 103207
5123.59 of the Revised Code.103208

       (G)(1) This chapter does not authorize any form of compulsory 103209
medical or psychiatric treatment of any resident who is being 103210
treated by spiritual means through prayer alone in accordance with 103211
a recognized religious method of healing.103212

       (2) For purposes of this section, "convulsive therapy" does 103213
not include defibrillation.103214

       Sec. 5124.01.  As used in this chapter:103215

       (A) "Affiliated operator" means an operator affiliated with 103216
either of the following:103217

       (1) The exiting operator for whom the affiliated operator is 103218
to assume liability for the entire amount of the exiting 103219
operator's debt under the medicaid program or the portion of the 103220
debt that represents the franchise permit fee the exiting operator 103221
owes;103222

       (2) The entering operator involved in the change of operator 103223
with the exiting operator specified in division (A)(1) of this 103224
section.103225

       (B) "Allowable costs" means an ICF/IID's costs that the 103226
department of developmental disabilities determines are 103227
reasonable. Fines paid under section 5124.99 of the Revised Code 103228
are not allowable costs.103229

       (C) "Capital costs" means an ICF/IID's costs of ownership and 103230
costs of nonextensive renovation.103231

       (D) "Case-mix score" means the measure determined under 103232
section 5124.192 of the Revised Code of the relative direct-care 103233
resources needed to provide care and habilitation to an ICF/IID 103234
resident.103235

       (E) "Change of operator" means an entering operator becoming 103236
the operator of an ICF/IID in the place of the exiting operator.103237

       (1) Actions that constitute a change of operator include the 103238
following:103239

       (a) A change in an exiting operator's form of legal 103240
organization, including the formation of a partnership or 103241
corporation from a sole proprietorship;103242

       (b) A transfer of all the exiting operator's ownership 103243
interest in the operation of the ICF/IID to the entering operator, 103244
regardless of whether ownership of any or all of the real property 103245
or personal property associated with the ICF/IID is also 103246
transferred;103247

       (c) A lease of the ICF/IID to the entering operator or the 103248
exiting operator's termination of the exiting operator's lease;103249

       (d) If the exiting operator is a partnership, dissolution of 103250
the partnership;103251

       (e) If the exiting operator is a partnership, a change in 103252
composition of the partnership unless both of the following apply:103253

       (i) The change in composition does not cause the 103254
partnership's dissolution under state law.103255

       (ii) The partners agree that the change in composition does 103256
not constitute a change in operator.103257

       (f) If the operator is a corporation, dissolution of the 103258
corporation, a merger of the corporation into another corporation 103259
that is the survivor of the merger, or a consolidation of one or 103260
more other corporations to form a new corporation.103261

       (2) The following, alone, do not constitute a change of 103262
operator:103263

       (a) A contract for an entity to manage an ICF/IID as the 103264
operator's agent, subject to the operator's approval of daily 103265
operating and management decisions;103266

       (b) A change of ownership, lease, or termination of a lease 103267
of real property or personal property associated with an ICF/IID 103268
if an entering operator does not become the operator in place of 103269
an exiting operator;103270

       (c) If the operator is a corporation, a change of one or more 103271
members of the corporation's governing body or transfer of 103272
ownership of one or more shares of the corporation's stock, if the 103273
same corporation continues to be the operator.103274

       (F) "Cost center" means the following:103275

       (1) Capital costs;103276

       (2) Direct care costs;103277

       (3) Indirect care costs;103278

       (4) Other protected costs.103279

       (G) "Costs of nonextensive renovations" means the actual 103280
expense incurred by an ICF/IID for depreciation or amortization 103281
and interest on renovations that are not extensive renovations.103282

       (H)(1) "Costs of ownership" means the actual expenses 103283
incurred by an ICF/IID for all of the following:103284

       (a) Subject to division (H)(2) of this section, depreciation 103285
and interest on any capital assets that cost five hundred dollars 103286
or more per item, including the following:103287

       (i) Buildings;103288

       (ii) Building improvements that are not approved as 103289
nonextensive renovations under section 5124.17 of the Revised 103290
Code;103291

       (iii) Equipment;103292

       (iv) Extensive renovations;103293

       (v) Transportation equipment.103294

       (b) Amortization and interest on land improvements and 103295
leasehold improvements;103296

       (c) Amortization of financing costs;103297

       (d) Except as provided in division (Z) of this section, lease 103298
and rent of land, building, and equipment.103299

       (2) The costs of capital assets of less than five hundred 103300
dollars per item may be considered costs of ownership in 103301
accordance with an ICF/IID provider's practice.103302

       (I)(1) "Date of licensure" means the following:103303

       (a) In the case of an ICF/IID that was originally licensed as 103304
a nursing home under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, the date 103305
that it was originally so licensed, regardless that it was 103306
subsequently licensed as a residential facility under section 103307
5123.19 of the Revised Code;103308

       (b) In the case of an ICF/IID that was originally licensed as 103309
a residential facility under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code, 103310
the date it was originally so licensed;103311

       (c) In the case of an ICF/IID that was not required by law to 103312
be licensed as a nursing home or residential facility when it was 103313
originally operated as a residential facility, the date it first 103314
was operated as a residential facility, regardless of the date the 103315
ICF/IID was first licensed as a nursing home or residential 103316
facility.103317

       (2) If, after an ICF/IID's original date of licensure, more 103318
residential facility beds are added to the ICF/IID or all or part 103319
of the ICF/IID undergoes an extensive renovation, the ICF/IID has 103320
a different date of licensure for the additional beds or 103321
extensively renovated portion of the ICF/IID. This does not apply, 103322
however, to additional beds when both of the following apply:103323

       (a) The additional beds are located in a part of the ICF/IID 103324
that was constructed at the same time as the continuing beds 103325
already located in that part of the ICF/IID;103326

       (b) The part of the ICF/IID in which the additional beds are 103327
located was constructed as part of the ICF/IID at a time when the 103328
ICF/IID was not required by law to be licensed as a nursing home 103329
or residential facility.103330

       (3) The definition of "date of licensure" in this section 103331
applies in determinations of ICFs/IID's medicaid payment rates but 103332
does not apply in determinations of ICFs/IID's franchise permit 103333
fees under sections 5168.60 to 5168.71 of the Revised Code.103334

       (J) "Desk-reviewed" means that an ICF/IID's costs as reported 103335
on a cost report filed under section 5124.10 or 5124.101 of the 103336
Revised Code have been subjected to a desk review under section 103337
5124.108 of the Revised Code and preliminarily determined to be 103338
allowable costs.103339

       (K) "Developmental center" means a residential facility that 103340
is maintained and operated by the department of developmental 103341
disabilities.103342

       (L) "Direct care costs" means all of the following costs 103343
incurred by an ICF/IID:103344

       (1) Costs for registered nurses, licensed practical nurses, 103345
and nurse aides employed by the ICF/IID;103346

       (2) Costs for direct care staff, administrative nursing 103347
staff, medical directors, respiratory therapists, physical 103348
therapists, physical therapy assistants, occupational therapists, 103349
occupational therapy assistants, speech therapists, audiologists, 103350
habilitation staff (including habilitation supervisors), qualified 103351
intellectual disability professionals, program directors, social 103352
services staff, activities staff, off-site day programming, 103353
psychologists, psychology assistants, social workers, counselors, 103354
and other persons holding degrees qualifying them to provide 103355
therapy;103356

       (3) Costs of purchased nursing services;103357

       (4) Costs of training and staff development, employee 103358
benefits, payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or 103359
costs for self-insurance claims and related costs as specified in 103360
rules adopted under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code, for 103361
personnel listed in divisions (L)(1), (2), and (3) of this 103362
section;103363

       (5) Costs of quality assurance;103364

       (6) Costs of consulting and management fees related to direct 103365
care;103366

       (7) Allocated direct care home office costs;103367

       (8) Costs of other direct-care resources that are specified 103368
as direct care costs in rules adopted under section 5124.03 of the 103369
Revised Code.103370

       (M) "Downsized ICF/IID" means an ICF/IID that permanently 103371
reduced its medicaid-certified capacity pursuant to a plan 103372
approved by the department of developmental disabilities under 103373
section 5123.042 of the Revised Code.103374

       (N) "Effective date of a change of operator" means the day 103375
the entering operator becomes the operator of the ICF/IID.103376

       (O) "Effective date of a facility closure" means the last day 103377
that the last of the residents of the ICF/IID resides in the 103378
ICF/IID.103379

       (P) "Effective date of an involuntary termination" means the 103380
date the department of medicaid terminates the operator's provider 103381
agreement for the ICF/IID or the last day that such a provider 103382
agreement is in effect when the department cancels or refuses to 103383
revalidate it.103384

       (Q) "Effective date of a voluntary termination" means the day 103385
the ICF/IID ceases to accept medicaid recipients.103386

       (R) "Entering operator" means the person or government entity 103387
that will become the operator of an ICF/IID when a change of 103388
operator occurs or following an involuntary termination.103389

       (S) "Exiting operator" means any of the following:103390

       (1) An operator that will cease to be the operator of an 103391
ICF/IID on the effective date of a change of operator;103392

       (2) An operator that will cease to be the operator of an 103393
ICF/IID on the effective date of a facility closure;103394

       (3) An operator of an ICF/IID that is undergoing or has 103395
undergone a voluntary termination;103396

       (4) An operator of an ICF/IID that is undergoing or has 103397
undergone an involuntary termination.103398

       (T)(1) "Extensive renovation" means the following:103399

       (a) An ICF/IID's betterment, improvement, or restoration to 103400
which both of the following apply:103401

       (i) It was started before July 1, 1993;103402

       (ii) It meets the definition of "extensive renovation" 103403
established in rules that were adopted by the director of job and 103404
family services and in effect on December 22, 1992.103405

       (b) An ICF/IID's betterment, improvement, or restoration to 103406
which all of the following apply:103407

       (i) It was started on or after July 1, 1993;103408

       (ii) Except as provided in division (T)(2) of this section, 103409
it costs more than sixty-five per cent and not more than 103410
eighty-five per cent of the cost of constructing a new bed;103411

       (iii) It extends the useful life of the assets for at least 103412
ten years.103413

       (2) The department of developmental disabilities may treat a 103414
renovation that costs more than eighty-five per cent of the cost 103415
of constructing new beds as an extensive renovation if the 103416
department determines that the renovation is more prudent than 103417
construction of new beds.103418

       (3) For the purpose of division (T)(1)(b)(ii) of this 103419
section, the cost of constructing a new bed shall be considered to 103420
be forty thousand dollars, adjusted for the estimated rate of 103421
inflation from January 1, 1993, to the end of the calendar year 103422
during which the extensive renovation is completed, using the 103423
consumer price index for shelter costs for all urban consumers for 103424
the north central region, as published by the United States bureau 103425
of labor statistics.103426

       (U)(1) Subject to divisions (U)(2) and (3) of this section, 103427
"facility closure" means either of the following:103428

       (a) Discontinuance of the use of the building, or part of the 103429
building, that houses the facility as an ICF/IID that results in 103430
the relocation of all of the facility's residents;103431

       (b) Conversion of the building, or part of the building, that 103432
houses an ICF/IID to a different use with any necessary license or 103433
other approval needed for that use being obtained and one or more 103434
of the facility's residents remaining in the facility to receive 103435
services under the new use. 103436

       (2) A facility closure occurs regardless of any of the 103437
following:103438

       (a) The operator completely or partially replacing the 103439
ICF/IID by constructing a new ICF/IID or transferring the 103440
ICF/IID's license to another ICF/IID;103441

       (b) The ICF/IID's residents relocating to another of the 103442
operator's ICFs/IID;103443

       (c) Any action the department of health takes regarding the 103444
ICF/IID's medicaid certification that may result in the transfer 103445
of part of the ICF/IID's survey findings to another of the 103446
operator's ICFs/IID;103447

       (d) Any action the department of developmental disabilities 103448
takes regarding the ICF/IID's license under section 5123.19 of the 103449
Revised Code.103450

       (3) A facility closure does not occur if all of the ICF/IID's 103451
residents are relocated due to an emergency evacuation and one or 103452
more of the residents return to a medicaid-certified bed in the 103453
ICF/IID not later than thirty days after the evacuation occurs.103454

       (V) "Fiscal year" means the fiscal year of this state, as 103455
specified in section 9.34 of the Revised Code.103456

       (W) "Franchise permit fee" means the fee imposed by sections 103457
5168.60 to 5168.71 of the Revised Code.103458

       (X) "Home and community-based services" has the same meaning 103459
as in section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.103460

       (Y) "ICF/IID services" has the same meaning as in 42 C.F.R. 103461
440.150.103462

       (Z)(1) "Indirect care costs" means all reasonable costs 103463
incurred by an ICF/IID other than capital costs, direct care 103464
costs, and other protected costs. "Indirect care costs" includes 103465
costs of habilitation supplies, pharmacy consultants, medical and 103466
habilitation records, program supplies, incontinence supplies, 103467
food, enterals, dietary supplies and personnel, laundry, 103468
housekeeping, security, administration, liability insurance, 103469
bookkeeping, purchasing department, human resources, 103470
communications, travel, dues, license fees, subscriptions, home 103471
office costs not otherwise allocated, legal services, accounting 103472
services, minor equipment, maintenance and repair expenses, 103473
help-wanted advertising, informational advertising, start-up 103474
costs, organizational expenses, other interest, property 103475
insurance, employee training and staff development, employee 103476
benefits, payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or 103477
costs for self-insurance claims and related costs, as specified in 103478
rules adopted under section 5124.03of the Revised Code, for 103479
personnel listed in this division. Notwithstanding division (H) of 103480
this section, "indirect care costs" also means the cost of 103481
equipment, including vehicles, acquired by operating lease 103482
executed before December 1, 1992, if the costs are reported as 103483
administrative and general costs on the ICF/IID's cost report for 103484
the cost reporting period ending December 31, 1992.103485

       (2) For the purpose of division (Z)(1) of this section, an 103486
operating lease shall be construed in accordance with generally 103487
accepted accounting principles.103488

       (AA) "Inpatient days" means both of the following:103489

       (1) All days during which a resident, regardless of payment 103490
source, occupies a bed in an ICF/IID that is included in the 103491
ICF/IID's medicaid-certified capacity;103492

       (2) All days for which payment is made under section 5124.34 103493
of the Revised Code.103494

       (BB) "Intermediate care facility for individuals with 103495
disabilities" and "ICF/IID" mean an intermediate care facility for 103496
the mentally retarded as defined in the "Social Security Act," 103497
section 1905(d), 42 U.S.C. 1396d(d).103498

       (CC) "Involuntary termination" means the department of 103499
medicaid's termination of, cancellation of, or refusal to 103500
revalidate the operator's provider agreement for the ICF/IID when 103501
such action is not taken at the operator's request.103502

       (DD) "Maintenance and repair expenses" means, except as 103503
provided in division (TT)(2)(b) of this section, expenditures that 103504
are necessary and proper to maintain an asset in a normally 103505
efficient working condition and that do not extend the useful life 103506
of the asset two years or more. "Maintenance and repair expenses" 103507
includes the costs of ordinary repairs such as painting and 103508
wallpapering.103509

       (EE) "Medicaid-certified capacity" means the number of an 103510
ICF/IID's beds that are certified for participation in medicaid as 103511
ICF/IID beds.103512

       (FF) "Medicaid days" means both of the following:103513

       (1) All days during which a resident who is a medicaid 103514
recipient eligible for ICF/IID services occupies a bed in an 103515
ICF/IID that is included in the ICF/IID's medicaid-certified 103516
capacity;103517

       (2) All days for which payment is made under section 5124.34 103518
of the Revised Code. 103519

       (GG)(1) "New ICF/IID" means an ICF/IID for which the provider 103520
obtains an initial provider agreement following the director of 103521
health's medicaid certification of the ICF/IID, including such an 103522
ICF/IID that replaces one or more ICFs/IID for which a provider 103523
previously held a provider agreement.103524

       (2) "New ICF/IID" does not mean either of the following:103525

       (a) An ICF/IID for which the entering operator seeks a 103526
provider agreement pursuant to section 5124.511 or 5124.512 or 103527
(pursuant to section 5124.515) section 5124.07 of the Revised 103528
Code;103529

       (b) A downsized ICF/IID or partially converted ICF/IID.103530

       (HH) "Nursing home" has the same meaning as in section 103531
3721.01 of the Revised Code.103532

       (II) "Operator" means the person or government entity 103533
responsible for the daily operating and management decisions for 103534
an ICF/IID.103535

       (JJ) "Other protected costs" means costs incurred by an 103536
ICF/MR for medical supplies; real estate, franchise, and property 103537
taxes; natural gas, fuel oil, water, electricity, sewage, and 103538
refuse and hazardous medical waste collection; allocated other 103539
protected home office costs; and any additional costs defined as 103540
other protected costs in rules adopted under section 5124.03 of 103541
the Revised Code.103542

       (KK)(1) "Owner" means any person or government entity that 103543
has at least five per cent ownership or interest, either directly, 103544
indirectly, or in any combination, in any of the following 103545
regarding an ICF/IID:103546

       (a) The land on which the ICF/IID is located;103547

       (b) The structure in which the ICF/IID is located;103548

       (c) Any mortgage, contract for deed, or other obligation 103549
secured in whole or in part by the land or structure on or in 103550
which the ICF/IID is located;103551

       (d) Any lease or sublease of the land or structure on or in 103552
which the ICF/IID is located.103553

       (2) "Owner" does not mean a holder of a debenture or bond 103554
related to an ICF/IID and purchased at public issue or a regulated 103555
lender that has made a loan related to the ICF/IID unless the 103556
holder or lender operates the ICF/IID directly or through a 103557
subsidiary.103558

       (LL) "Partially converted ICF/IID" means an ICF/IID that 103559
converted some, but not all, of its beds to providing home and 103560
community-based services under the individual options waiver 103561
pursuant to section 5124.60 or 5124.61 of the Revised Code. 103562

       (MM)(1) Except as provided in divisions (MM)(2) and (3) of 103563
this section, "per diem" means an ICF/IID's desk-reviewed, actual, 103564
allowable costs in a given cost center in a cost reporting period, 103565
divided by the facility's inpatient days for that cost reporting 103566
period.103567

       (2) When determining capital costs for the purpose of section 103568
5124.17 of the Revised Code, "per diem" means an ICF/IID's actual, 103569
allowable capital costs in a cost-reporting period divided by the 103570
greater of the facility's inpatient days for that period or the 103571
number of inpatient days the ICF/IID would have had during that 103572
period if its occupancy rate had been ninety-five per cent.103573

       (3) When determining indirect care costs for the purpose of 103574
section 5124.21 of the Revised Code, "per diem" means an ICF/IID's 103575
actual, allowable indirect care costs in a cost-reporting period 103576
divided by the greater of the ICF/IID's inpatient days for that 103577
period or the number of inpatient days the ICF/IID would have had 103578
during that period if its occupancy rate had been eighty-five per 103579
cent.103580

       (NN) "Provider" means an operator with a valid provider 103581
agreement.103582

       (OO) "Provider agreement" means a provider agreement, as 103583
defined in section 5164.01 of the Revised Code, that is between 103584
the department of medicaid and the operator of an ICF/IID for the 103585
provision of ICF/IID services under the medicaid program.103586

       (PP) "Purchased nursing services" means services that are 103587
provided in an ICF/IID by registered nurses, licensed practical 103588
nurses, or nurse aides who are not employees of the ICF/IID.103589

       (QQ) "Reasonable" means that a cost is an actual cost that is 103590
appropriate and helpful to develop and maintain the operation of 103591
resident care facilities and activities, including normal standby 103592
costs, and that does not exceed what a prudent buyer pays for a 103593
given item or services. Reasonable costs may vary from provider to 103594
provider and from time to time for the same provider.103595

       (RR) "Related party" means an individual or organization 103596
that, to a significant extent, has common ownership with, is 103597
associated or affiliated with, has control of, or is controlled 103598
by, a provider.103599

       (1) An individual who is a relative of an owner is a related 103600
party.103601

       (2) Common ownership exists when an individual or individuals 103602
possess significant ownership or equity in both the provider and 103603
the other organization. Significant ownership or equity exists 103604
when an individual or individuals possess five per cent ownership 103605
or equity in both the provider and a supplier. Significant 103606
ownership or equity is presumed to exist when an individual or 103607
individuals possess ten per cent ownership or equity in both the 103608
provider and another organization from which the provider 103609
purchases or leases real property.103610

       (3) Control exists when an individual or organization has the 103611
power, directly or indirectly, to significantly influence or 103612
direct the actions or policies of an organization.103613

       (4) An individual or organization that supplies goods or 103614
services to a provider shall not be considered a related party if 103615
all of the following conditions are met:103616

       (a) The supplier is a separate bona fide organization.103617

       (b) A substantial part of the supplier's business activity of 103618
the type carried on with the provider is transacted with others 103619
than the provider and there is an open, competitive market for the 103620
types of goods or services the supplier furnishes.103621

       (c) The types of goods or services are commonly obtained by 103622
other ICFs/IID from outside organizations and are not a basic 103623
element of resident care ordinarily furnished directly to 103624
residents by the ICFs/IID.103625

       (d) The charge to the provider is in line with the charge for 103626
the goods or services in the open market and no more than the 103627
charge made under comparable circumstances to others by the 103628
supplier.103629

       (SS) "Relative of owner" means an individual who is related 103630
to an owner of an ICF/IID by one of the following relationships:103631

       (1) Spouse;103632

       (2) Natural parent, child, or sibling;103633

       (3) Adopted parent, child, or sibling;103634

       (4) Stepparent, stepchild, stepbrother, or stepsister;103635

       (5) Father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, 103636
daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, or sister-in-law;103637

       (6) Grandparent or grandchild;103638

       (7) Foster caregiver, foster child, foster brother, or foster 103639
sister.103640

       (TT)(1) "Renovation" means the following:103641

       (a) An ICF/IID's betterment, improvement, or restoration to 103642
which both of the following apply:103643

       (i) It was started before July 1, 1993;103644

       (ii) It meets the definition of "renovation" established in 103645
rules that were adopted by the director of job and family services 103646
and in effect on December 22, 1992.103647

       (b) An ICF/IID's betterment, improvement, or restoration to 103648
which both of the following apply:103649

       (i) It was started on or after July 1, 1993;103650

       (ii) It betters, improves, or restores the ICF/IID beyond its 103651
current functional capacity through a structural change that costs 103652
at least five hundred dollars per bed.103653

       (2) A renovation started on or after July 1, 1993, may 103654
include both of the following:103655

       (a) A betterment, improvement, restoration, or replacement of 103656
assets that are affixed to a building and have a useful life of at 103657
least five years;103658

       (b) Costs that otherwise would be considered maintenance and 103659
repair expenses if they are an integral part of the structural 103660
change that makes up the renovation project.103661

       (3) "Renovation" does not mean construction of additional 103662
space for beds that will be added to an ICF/IID's licensed 103663
capacity or medicaid-certified capacity.103664

       (UU) "Residential facility" has the same meaning as in 103665
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code.103666

       (VV) "Sponsor" means an adult relative, friend, or guardian 103667
of an ICF/IID resident who has an interest or responsibility in 103668
the resident's welfare.103669

       (WW) "Title XIX" means Title XIX of the "Social Security 103670
Act," 42 U.S.C. 1396, et seq.103671

       (XX) "Title XVIII" means Title XVIII of the "Social Security 103672
Act," 42 U.S.C. 1395, et seq.103673

       (YY) "Voluntary termination" means an operator's voluntary 103674
election to terminate the participation of an ICF/IID in the 103675
medicaid program but to continue to provide service of the type 103676
provided by a residential facility as defined in section 5123.19 103677
of the Revised Code.103678

       Sec. 5111.226.        Sec. 5124.02. Subject, if needed, to the approval 103679
of the United States secretary of health and human services, the103680
The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall enter 103681
into a contract with the department of developmental disabilities 103682
under section 5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code that provides 103683
for the department of developmental disabilities to assume the 103684
powers and duties of the department of job and family services103685
medicaid with regard to the medicaid program's coverage of 103686
ICF/IID services provided by intermediate care facilities for the 103687
mentally retarded. The contract shall include a schedule for the 103688
assumption of the powers and duties. The contract may provide for 103689
the department of medicaid to perform one or more duties of the 103690
department of developmental disabilities under sections 5124.50 to 103691
5124.53 of the Revised Code. Except as otherwise authorized by the 103692
United States secretary of health and human services, no provision 103693
of the contract may violate a federal law or regulation governing 103694
the medicaid program. Once the contract goes into effect, all 103695
references to the department of job and family services, and all 103696
references to the director of job and family services, with regard 103697
to intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded that are 103698
in law enacted by the general assembly shall be deemed to be 103699
references to the department of developmental disabilities and 103700
director of developmental disabilities, respectively, to the 103701
extent necessary to implement the terms of the contract.103702

       Sec. 5124.03.  To the extent authorized by rules authorized 103703
by section 5162.021 of the Revised Code, the director of 103704
developmental disabilities shall adopt rules in accordance with 103705
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 103706
chapter.103707

       Sec. 5124.05.  The medicaid program shall cover ICF/IID 103708
services when all of the following apply:103709

       (A) The ICF/IID services are provided to a medicaid recipient 103710
eligible for the services.103711

       (B) The ICF/IID services are provided by an ICF/IID for which 103712
the provider has a valid provider agreement.103713

       (C) Federal financial participation is available for the 103714
ICF/IID services.103715

       Sec. 5124.06.  (A) Subject to section 5124.072 of the Revised 103716
Code, an ICF/IID operator is eligible to enter into a provider 103717
agreement for an ICF/IID if all of the following apply:103718

       (1) The ICF/IID is certified by the director of health for 103719
participation in medicaid;103720

       (2) The ICF/IID is licensed by the director of developmental 103721
disabilities as a residential facility;103722

       (3) Subject to division (B) of this section, the operator and 103723
ICF/IID comply with all applicable state and federal statutes and 103724
rules.103725

       (B) A state rule that requires an ICF/IID operator to have 103726
received approval of a plan for the proposed ICF/IID pursuant to 103727
section 5123.042 of the Revised Code as a condition of the 103728
operator being eligible to receive medicaid payments for ICF/IID 103729
services the ICF/IID provides does not apply if, under former 103730
section 5123.193 of the Revised Code as enacted by Am. Sub. H.B. 1 103731
of the 128th general assembly or section 5123.197 of the Revised 103732
Code, a residential facility license was obtained or modified for 103733
the ICF/IID without obtaining approval of such a plan.103734

       Sec. 5124.07.  (A) Except as provided in section 5124.072 of 103735
the Revised Code, the department of medicaid shall enter into a 103736
provider agreement with an ICF/IID operator who applies, and is 103737
eligible, for the provider agreement.103738

       (B) A provider agreement shall require the department of 103739
developmental disabilities, pursuant to its agreement with the 103740
department of medicaid under section 5124.02 of the Revised Code, 103741
to make medicaid payments to the provider in accordance with this 103742
chapter for ICF/IID services the ICF/IID provides to its residents 103743
who are medicaid recipients eligible for ICF/IID services.103744

       (C) A provider agreement shall require the provider to do all 103745
of the following:103746

       (1) Maintain eligibility for the provider agreement as 103747
provided in section 5124.06 of the Revised Code;103748

       (2) Keep records relating to a cost reporting period for the 103749
greater of seven years after the cost report is filed or, if the 103750
department of developmental disabilities issues an audit report in 103751
accordance with section 5124.109 of the Revised Code, six years 103752
after all appeal rights relating to the audit report are 103753
exhausted;103754

       (3) File reports as the department of developmental 103755
disabilities requires;103756

       (4) Open all records relating to the costs of the ICF/IID's 103757
services for inspection and audit by the department of 103758
developmental disabilities;103759

       (5) Open its premises for inspection by the department of 103760
developmental disabilities, department of health, and any other 103761
state or local authority having authority to inspect;103762

       (6) Supply to the department of developmental disabilities 103763
such information as it requires concerning the ICF/IID's services 103764
to residents who are, or are eligible to be, medicaid recipients;103765

       (7) Comply with section 5124.08 of the Revised Code.103766

       (D) A provider agreement may contain other provisions that 103767
are consistent with law and considered necessary by the department 103768
of medicaid or the department of developmental disabilities.103769

       Sec. 5124.071.  An ICF/IID operator may enter into provider 103770
agreements for more than one ICF/IID.103771

       Sec. 5124.072.  The department of medicaid shall not 103772
revalidate an ICF/IID provider agreement if the provider fails to 103773
maintain eligibility for the provider agreement as provided in 103774
section 5124.06 of the Revised Code.103775

       Sec. 5124.08.  (A) Every provider agreement with an ICF/IID 103776
provider shall do both of the following:103777

       (1) Except as provided by division (B) of this section, 103778
include any part of the ICF/IID that meets federal and state 103779
standards for medicaid certification;103780

       (2) Prohibit the provider from doing either of the following:103781

       (a) Discriminating against a resident on the basis of race, 103782
color, sex, creed, or national origin;103783

       (b) Subject to division (D) of this section, failing or 103784
refusing to do either of the following:103785

       (i) Admit as a resident of the ICF/IID an individual because 103786
the individual is, or may (as a resident of the ICF/IID) become, a 103787
medicaid recipient if less than eighty per cent of the ICF/IID's 103788
residents are medicaid recipients;103789

       (ii) Retain as a resident of the ICF/IID an individual 103790
because the individual is, or may (as a resident of the ICF/IID) 103791
become, a medicaid recipient.103792

       (B) Unless otherwise required by federal law, an ICF/IID bed 103793
is not required to be included in a provider agreement if the bed 103794
is designated for respite care under a medicaid waiver component 103795
operated pursuant to a waiver sought under section 5166.20 of the 103796
Revised Code.103797

       (C) For the purpose of division (A)(2)(b)(ii) of this 103798
section, a medicaid recipient who is a resident of an ICF/IID 103799
shall be considered a resident of the ICF/IID during any hospital 103800
stays totaling less than twenty-five days during any twelve-month 103801
period. A medicaid recipient identified by the department of 103802
developmental disabilities or its designee as requiring the level 103803
of care of an ICF/IID shall not be subject to a maximum period of 103804
absences during which the recipient is considered to be an ICF/IID 103805
resident if prior authorization of the department for visits with 103806
relatives and friends and participation in therapeutic programs is 103807
obtained in accordance with rules adopted under section 5124.03 of 103808
the Revised Code.103809

       (D) Nothing in this section shall bar a provider from doing 103810
any of the following:103811

       (1) If the provider is a religious organization operating a 103812
religious or denominational ICF/IID, giving preference to persons 103813
of the same religion or denomination;103814

       (2) Giving preference to persons with whom the provider has 103815
contracted to provide continuing care;103816

       (3) Retaining residents who have resided in the provider's 103817
ICF/IID for not less than one year as private pay residents and 103818
who subsequently become medicaid recipients but refusing to admit 103819
as a resident an individual who is, or may (as a resident of the 103820
ICF/IID) become, a medicaid recipient, if all of the following 103821
apply:103822

       (a) The provider does not refuse to retain a resident who has 103823
resided in the provider's ICF/IID for not less than one year as a 103824
private pay resident because the resident becomes a medicaid 103825
recipient, except as necessary to comply with division (D)(3)(b) 103826
of this section.103827

       (b) The number of medicaid recipients retained under division 103828
(D)(3) of this section does not at any time exceed ten per cent of 103829
all the ICF/IID's residents.103830

       (c) On July 1, 1980, all the ICF/IID's residents were private 103831
pay residents.103832

       (E) No provider shall violate the provider agreement 103833
obligations imposed by this section.103834

       Sec. 5124.081.  An ICF/IID resident has a cause of action 103835
against the provider of the ICF/IID for breach of the provider 103836
agreement obligations or other duties imposed by section 5124.08 103837
of the Revised Code. The action may be commenced by the resident, 103838
or on the resident's behalf by the resident's sponsor, by the 103839
filing of a civil action in the court of common pleas of the 103840
county in which the ICF/IID is located or in the court of common 103841
pleas of Franklin county.103842

       If a court of common pleas finds that a provider has breached 103843
a provider agreement obligation or other duty imposed by section 103844
5124.08 of the Revised Code, the court may do one or more of the 103845
following:103846

       (A) Enjoin the provider from engaging in the practice;103847

       (B) Order such affirmative relief as may be necessary;103848

       (C) Award to a resident and a sponsor that brings the action 103849
on behalf of a resident actual damages, costs, and reasonable 103850
attorney's fees.103851

       Sec. 5124.10.  (A) Except as provided in division (D) of this 103852
section and division (E)(2) of section 5124.101 of the Revised 103853
Code, each ICF/IID provider shall file with the department of 103854
developmental disabilities an annual cost report for each of the 103855
provider's ICFs/IID for which the provider has a valid provider 103856
agreement. The cost report for a year shall cover the calendar 103857
year or portion of the calendar year during which the ICF/IID 103858
participated in the medicaid program. Except as provided in 103859
division (E) of this section, the cost report is due not later 103860
than ninety days after the end of the calendar year, or portion of 103861
the calendar year, that the cost report covers.103862

       (B)(1) If an ICF/IID undergoes a change of provider that the 103863
department determines, in accordance with rules adopted under 103864
section 5124.03 of the Revised Code, is not an arms length 103865
transaction, the new provider shall file the ICF/IID's cost report 103866
in accordance with division (A) of this section and the cost 103867
report shall cover the portion of the calendar year during which 103868
the new provider operated the ICF/IID and the portion of the 103869
calendar year during which the previous provider operated the 103870
ICF/IID.103871

       (2) If an ICF/IID undergoes a change of provider that the 103872
department determines, in accordance with rules adopted under 103873
section 5124.03 of the Revised Code, is an arms length 103874
transaction, the new provider shall file with the department a 103875
cost report for the ICF/IID not later than, except as provided in 103876
division (E) of this section, ninety days after the end of the 103877
ICF/IID's first three full calendar months of operation under the 103878
new provider. The cost report shall cover the period that begins 103879
with the ICF/IID's first day of operation under the new provider 103880
and ends on the first day of the month immediately following the 103881
first three full months of operation under the new provider.103882

       (C) If the medicaid payment rate for a new ICF/IID was most 103883
recently determined in accordance with section 5124.151 of the 103884
Revised Code, the provider shall file with the department a cost 103885
report for the new ICF/IID not later than, except as provided in 103886
division (E) of this section, ninety days after the end of the new 103887
ICF/IID's first three full calendar months of operation. The cost 103888
report shall cover the period that begins with the ICF/IID's first 103889
day of operation and ends on the first day of the month 103890
immediately following the first three full months of operation.103891

       (D) An ICF/IID provider is not required to file a cost report 103892
for an ICF/IID for a calendar year in accordance with division (A) 103893
of this section if the provider files a cost report for the 103894
ICF/IID under division (B)(2) or (C) of this section and that cost 103895
report covers a period that begins after the first day of October 103896
of that calendar year. The provider shall file a cost report for 103897
the ICF/IID in accordance with division (A) of this section for 103898
the immediately following calendar year.103899

       (E) The department may grant to a provider a fourteen-day 103900
extension to file a cost report under this section or section 103901
5124.101 of the Revised Code if the provider provides the 103902
department a written request for the extension and the department 103903
determines that there is good cause for the extension.103904

       Sec. 5124.101. (A) The provider of an ICF/IID that becomes a 103905
downsized ICF/IID or partially converted ICF/IID may file with the 103906
department of developmental disabilities a cost report covering 103907
the period specified in division (B) of this section if the 103908
following applies to the ICF/IID:103909

       (1) In the case of an ICF/IID that becomes a downsized 103910
ICF/IID or partially converted ICF/IID, the ICF/IID has either of 103911
the following on the day it becomes a downsized ICF/IID or 103912
partially converted ICF/IID:103913

       (a) A medicaid-certified capacity that is at least ten per 103914
cent less than its medicaid-certified capacity on the day 103915
immediately preceding the day it becomes a downsized ICF/IID or 103916
partially converted ICF/IID;103917

       (b) At least five fewer beds certified as ICF/IID beds than 103918
it has on the day immediately preceding the day it becomes a 103919
downsized ICF/IID or partially converted ICF/IID.103920

       (2) In the case of a new ICF/IID, the ICF/IID's beds are from 103921
a downsized ICF/IID and the downsized ICF/IID has either of the 103922
following on the day it becomes a downsized ICF/IID:103923

       (a) A medicaid-certified capacity that is at least ten per 103924
cent less than its medicaid-certified capacity on the day 103925
immediately preceding the day it becomes a downsized ICF/IID;103926

       (b) At least five fewer beds certified as ICF/IID beds than 103927
it has on the day immediately preceding the day it becomes a 103928
downsized ICF/IID.103929

       (B) A cost report filed under division (A) of this section 103930
shall cover the period that begins and ends as follows:103931

       (1) In the case of an ICF/IID that becomes a downsized 103932
ICF/IID or partially converted ICF/IID:103933

       (a) The period begins with the day that the ICF/IID becomes a 103934
downsized ICF/IID or partially converted ICF/IID.103935

       (b) The period ends on the last day of the last month of the 103936
first three full months of operation as a downsized ICF/IID or 103937
partially converted ICF/IID.103938

       (2) In the case of a new ICF/IID:103939

       (a) The period begins with the day that the provider 103940
agreement for the ICF/IID takes effect.103941

       (b) The period ends on the last day of the last month of the 103942
first three full months that the provider agreement is in effect.103943

       (C) The department shall refuse to accept a cost report filed 103944
under division (A) of this section if either of the following 103945
apply:103946

       (1) Except as provided in division (E) of section 5124.10 of 103947
the Revised Code, the provider fails to file the cost report with 103948
the department not later than ninety days after the last day of 103949
the period the cost report covers;103950

       (2) The cost report is incomplete or inadequate.103951

       (D) If the department accepts a cost report filed under 103952
division (A) of this section, the department shall use that cost 103953
report, rather than the cost report that otherwise would be used 103954
pursuant to section 5124.17, 5124.19, 5124.21, or 5124.23 of the 103955
Revised Code, to determine the ICF/IID's medicaid payment rate in 103956
accordance with this chapter for ICF/IID services the ICF/IID 103957
provides during the period that begins and ends as follows:103958

       (1) The period begins on the following:103959

       (a) In the case of an ICF/IID that becomes a downsized 103960
ICF/IID or partially converted ICF/IID:103961

       (i) The day that the ICF/IID becomes a downsized ICF/IID or 103962
partially converted ICF/IID if that day is the first day of a 103963
month;103964

       (ii) The first day of the month immediately following the 103965
month that the ICF/IID becomes a downsized ICF/IID or partially 103966
converted ICF/IID if division (D)(1)(a)(i) of this section does 103967
not apply.103968

       (b) In the case of a new ICF/IID, the day that the ICF/IID's 103969
provider agreement takes effect.103970

       (2) The period ends on the last day of the fiscal year that 103971
immediately precedes the fiscal year for which the ICF/IID begins 103972
to be paid a rate determined using a cost report that division (E) 103973
of this section requires be filed in accordance with division (A) 103974
of section 5124.10 of the Revised Code.103975

       (E)(1) If the department accepts a cost report filed under 103976
division (A) of this section for an ICF/IID that becomes a 103977
downsized ICF/IID or partially converted ICF/IID on or before the 103978
first day of October of a calendar year, or for a new ICF/IID that 103979
has a provider agreement that takes effect on or before that date, 103980
the provider also shall file a cost report for the ICF/IID in 103981
accordance with division (A) of section 5124.10 of the Revised 103982
Code for the portion of that calendar year that the ICF/IID 103983
operated as a downsized ICF/IID or partially converted ICF/IID or, 103984
in the case of a new ICF/IID, for the portion that the provider 103985
agreement was in effect.103986

       (2) If the department accepts a cost report filed under 103987
division (A) of this section for an ICF/IID that becomes a 103988
downsized ICF/IID or partially converted ICF/IID after the first 103989
day of October of a calendar year, or for a new ICF/IID that has a 103990
provider agreement that takes effect on or after that date, the 103991
provider is not required to file a cost report for that calendar 103992
year in accordance with division (A) of section 5124.10 of the 103993
Revised Code. The provider shall file a cost report for the 103994
ICF/IID in accordance with division (A) of section 5124.10 of the 103995
Revised Code for the immediately following calendar year.103996

       Sec. 5124.102.  No ICF/IID provider shall report fines paid 103997
under section 5124.99 of the Revised Code in a cost report filed 103998
under section 5124.10, 5124.101, or 5124.522 of the Revised Code.103999

       Sec. 5124.103.  Cost reports shall be completed using the 104000
form prescribed under section 5124.104 of the Revised Code and in 104001
accordance with the guidelines established under that section.104002

       Sec. 5124.104.  The department of developmental disabilities 104003
shall do all of the following:104004

       (A) Prescribe the form to be used for completing a cost 104005
report and a uniform chart of accounts for the purpose of 104006
reporting costs on the form;104007

       (B) Distribute a paper copy of the form, or computer software 104008
for electronic submission of the form, to each provider at least 104009
sixty days before the date the cost report is due;104010

       (C) Establish guidelines for completing the form.104011

       Sec. 5124.105.  The department of developmental disabilities 104012
shall develop an addendum to the cost report form that an ICF/IID 104013
provider may use to set forth costs that the provider believes the 104014
department may dispute. The department may consider such costs in 104015
determining an ICF/IID's medicaid payment rate. If the department 104016
does not consider such costs in determining an ICF/IID's medicaid 104017
payment rate, the provider may seek reconsideration of the 104018
determination in accordance with section 5124.38 of the Revised 104019
Code. If the department subsequently includes such costs in an 104020
ICF/IID's medicaid payment rate, the department shall pay the 104021
provider interest at a reasonable rate established in rules 104022
adopted under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code for the period 104023
that the rate excluded the costs.104024

       Sec. 5124.106.  If an ICF/IID provider required by section 104025
5124.10 of the Revised Code to file a cost report for the ICF/IID 104026
fails to file the cost report by the date it is due or the date, 104027
if any, to which the due date is extended pursuant to division (E) 104028
of that section, or files an incomplete or inadequate report for 104029
the ICF/IID under that section, the department of developmental 104030
disabilities shall provide immediate written notice to the 104031
provider that the provider agreement for the ICF/IID will be 104032
terminated in thirty days unless the provider submits a complete 104033
and adequate cost report for the ICF/IID within thirty days. 104034
During the thirty-day termination period or any additional time 104035
allowed for an appeal of the proposed termination of a provider 104036
agreement, the provider shall be paid the ICF/IID's then current 104037
per medicaid day payment rate, minus the dollar amount by which 104038
ICFs/IID's per medicaid day payment rates are reduced during 104039
fiscal year 2013 in accordance with division (A)(2) of section 104040
5111.26 of the Revised Code (renumbered as section 5165.10 of the 104041
Revised Code by H.B. 59 of the 130th general assembly) as that 104042
section existed on the day immediately preceding the effective 104043
date of this section. On the first day of each July, the 104044
department shall adjust the amount of the reduction in effect 104045
during the previous twelve months to reflect the rate of inflation 104046
during the preceding twelve months, as shown in the consumer price 104047
index for all items for all urban consumers for the midwest 104048
region, published by the United States bureau of labor statistics.104049

       Sec. 5124.107.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of 104050
this section and not later than three years after an ICF/IID 104051
provider files a cost report with the department of developmental 104052
disabilities under section 5124.10 or 5124.101 of the Revised 104053
Code, the provider may amend the cost report if the provider 104054
discovers a material error in the cost report or additional 104055
information to be included in the cost report. The department 104056
shall review the amended cost report for accuracy and notify the 104057
provider of its determination.104058

       (B) An ICF/IID provider may not amend a cost report if the 104059
department has notified the provider that an audit of the cost 104060
report or a cost report of the provider for a subsequent cost 104061
reporting period is to be conducted under section 5124.109 of the 104062
Revised Code. The provider may, however, provide the department 104063
information that affects the costs included in the cost report. 104064
Such information may not be provided after the adjudication of the 104065
final settlement of the cost report.104066

       Sec. 5124.108.  The department of developmental disabilities 104067
shall conduct a desk review of all cost reports it receives under 104068
sections 5124.10, 5124.101, and 5124.522 of the Revised Code. 104069
Based on the desk review, the department shall make a preliminary 104070
determination of whether the reported costs are allowable costs. 104071
The department shall notify each ICF/IID provider of whether any 104072
of the reported costs are preliminarily determined not to be 104073
allowable costs, the medicaid payment rate determined under this 104074
chapter as a result of the determination regarding allowable 104075
costs, and the reasons for the determination and resulting rate. 104076
The department shall allow the provider to verify the calculation 104077
and submit additional information.104078

       Sec. 5124.109.  (A) The department of developmental 104079
disabilities may conduct an audit, as defined in rules adopted 104080
under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code, of any cost report 104081
filed under section 5124.10, 5124.101, or 5124.522 of the Revised 104082
Code. The decision whether to conduct an audit and the scope of 104083
the audit, which may be a desk or field audit, may be determined 104084
based on prior performance of the provider, a risk analysis, or 104085
other evidence that gives the department reason to believe that 104086
the provider has reported costs improperly. A desk or field audit 104087
may be performed annually, but is required whenever a provider 104088
does not pass the risk analysis tolerance factors.104089

       (B) Audits shall be conducted by auditors under contract with 104090
the department, auditors working for firms under contract with the 104091
department, or auditors employed by the department.104092

        The department may establish a contract for the auditing of 104093
ICFs/IID by outside firms. Each contract entered into by bidding 104094
shall be effective for one to two years.104095

       (C) The department shall notify a provider of the findings of 104096
an audit of a cost report by issuing an audit report. The 104097
department shall issue the audit report not later than three years 104098
after the earlier of the following:104099

       (1) The date the cost report is filed;104100

       (2) The date a desk or field audit of the cost report or a 104101
cost report for a subsequent cost reporting period is completed.104102

       (D) The department shall prepare a written summary of any 104103
audit disallowance that is made after the effective date of the 104104
rate that is based on the cost. Where the provider is pursuing 104105
judicial or administrative remedies in good faith regarding the 104106
disallowance, the department shall not withhold from the 104107
provider's current payments any amounts the department claims to 104108
be due from the provider pursuant to section 5124.41 of the 104109
Revised Code.104110

       (E)(1) The department shall establish an audit manual and 104111
program for field audits conducted under this section. Each 104112
auditor conducting a field audit under this section shall follow 104113
the audit manual and program, regardless of whether the auditor is 104114
under contract with the department, works for a firm under 104115
contract with the department, or is employed by the department. 104116
The manual and program shall do both of the following:104117

       (a) Require each field audit to be conducted by an auditor to 104118
whom all of the following apply:104119

       (i) During the period of the auditor's contract, firm's 104120
contract, or auditor's employment with the department, the auditor 104121
or firm does not have and is not committed to acquire any direct 104122
or indirect financial interest in the ownership, financing, or 104123
operation of ICFs/IID in this state.104124

       (ii) The auditor does not audit any provider that has been a 104125
client of the auditor or the auditor's firm.104126

       (iii) The auditor is otherwise independent as determined by 104127
the standards of independence included in the government auditing 104128
standards produced by the United States government accountability 104129
office.104130

       (b) Require each auditor conducting a field audit to do all 104131
of the following:104132

       (i) Comply with applicable rules prescribed pursuant to Title 104133
XIX;104134

       (ii) Consider generally accepted auditing standards 104135
prescribed by the American institute of certified public 104136
accountants;104137

       (iii) Include a written summary as to whether the costs 104138
included in the cost report examined during the audit are 104139
allowable and are presented in accordance with state and federal 104140
laws and regulations, and whether, in all material respects, 104141
allowable costs are documented, reasonable, and related to patient 104142
care;104143

       (iv) Complete the audit within the time period specified by 104144
the department;104145

       (v) Provide to the provider complete written interpretations 104146
that explain in detail the application of all relevant contract 104147
provisions, regulations, auditing standards, rate formulae, and 104148
departmental policies, with explanations and examples, that are 104149
sufficient to permit the provider to calculate with reasonable 104150
certainty those costs that are allowable and the rate to which the 104151
provider's ICF/IID is entitled.104152

       (2) For the purpose of division (E)(1)(a)(i) of this section, 104153
employment of a member of an auditor's family by an ICF/IID that 104154
the auditor does not audit does not constitute a direct or 104155
indirect financial interest in the ownership, financing, or 104156
operation of the ICF/IID.104157

       Sec. 5111.224.        Sec. 5124.15.  (A) Except as otherwise provided by 104158
sections 5111.205124.151 to 5111.3315124.154 of the Revised Code 104159
and by division (B) of this section, the paymentstotal per 104160
medicaid day payment rate that the department of job and family 104161
servicesdevelopmental disabilities shall agree to makepay to the104162
an ICF/IID provider of an intermediate care facility for the 104163
mentally retarded pursuant to a provider agreementfor ICF/IID 104164
services the provider's ICF/IID provides during a fiscal year104165
shall equal the sum of all of the following:104166

       (1) The per medicaid day payment rate for capital costs 104167
determined for the ICF/IID under section 5124.17 of the Revised 104168
Code;104169

       (2) The per medicaid day payment rate for direct care costs 104170
determined for the facilityICF/IID under section 5111.235124.19104171
of the Revised Code;104172

       (2)(3) The per medicaid day payment rate for indirect care 104173
costs determined for the ICF/IID under section 5124.21 of the 104174
Revised Code;104175

       (4) The per medicaid day payment rate for other protected 104176
costs determined for the facilityICF/IID under section 5111.235104177
5124.23 of the Revised Code;104178

       (3) The rate for indirect care costs determined for the 104179
facility under section 5111.241 of the Revised Code;104180

       (4) The rate for capital costs determined for the facility 104181
under section 5111.251 of the Revised Code.104182

       (B) The department shall adjust the total rate otherwise 104183
determined under division (A) of this section as directed by the 104184
general assembly through the enactment of law governing medicaid 104185
payments to ICF/IID providers of intermediate care facilities for 104186
the mentally retarded.104187

       (C) In addition to paying an ICF/IID provider the total rate 104188
determined for the provider's ICF/IID under divisions (A) and (B) 104189
of this section for a fiscal year, the department, in accordance 104190
with section 5124.25 of the Revised Code, may pay the provider a 104191
rate add-on for pediatric ventilator-dependent outlier ICF/IID 104192
services if the rate add-on is to be paid under that section and 104193
the department approves the provider's application for the rate 104194
add-on. The rate add-on is not to be part of the ICF/IID's total 104195
rate.104196

       Sec. 5111.255.        Sec. 5124.151.  (A) The department of job and family 104197
services shall establish initial rates for an intermediate care 104198
facility for the mentally retarded with a first date of licensure 104199
that is on or after January 1, 1993, including a facility that 104200
replaces one or more existing facilities, or for an intermediate 104201
care facility for the mentally retarded with a first date of 104202
licensure before that date that was initially certified for the 104203
medicaid program on or after that date,total per medicaid day 104204
payment rate determined under section 5124.15 of the Revised Code 104205
shall not be the initial rate for ICF/IID services provided by a 104206
new ICF/IID. Instead, the initial total per medicaid day payment 104207
rate for ICF/IID services provided by a new ICF/IID shall be 104208
determined in the following manner:104209

       (1) The initial rate for capital costs shall be determined 104210
under section 5124.17 of the Revised Code using the greater of the 104211
new ICF/IID's actual inpatient days or an imputed occupancy rate 104212
of eighty per cent. 104213

       (2) The initial rate for direct care costs shall be 104214
determined as follows:104215

       (a) If there are no cost or resident assessment data for the 104216
new ICF/IID as necessary to calculatedetermine a rate under 104217
section 5111.235124.19 of the Revised Code, the rate shall be 104218
determined as follows:104219

       (i) Determine the median cost per case-mix unit calculated104220
determined under division (B)(1) of that section 5124.19 of the 104221
Revised Code for the relevantnew ICF/IID's peer group for the 104222
calendar year preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be 104223
paid, multiplied;104224

       (ii) Multiply the amount determined under division 104225
(A)(2)(a)(i) of this section by the median annual average case-mix 104226
score for the new ICF/IID's peer group for that period and;104227

       (iii) Adjust the product determined under division 104228
(A)(2)(a)(ii) of this section by the rate of inflation estimated 104229
under division (B)(3)(D) of that section 5124.19 of the Revised 104230
Code. This rate shall be recalculated to reflect the facility's 104231
actual quarterly average case-mix score, in accordance with that 104232
section, after it submits its first quarterly assessment data that 104233
qualifies for use in calculating a case-mix score in accordance 104234
with rules authorized by division (E) of section 5111.232 of the 104235
Revised Code. If the facility's first two quarterly submissions do 104236
not contain assessment data that qualifies for use in calculating 104237
a case-mix score, the department shall continue to calculate the 104238
rate using the median annual case-mix score for the peer group in 104239
lieu of an assigned quarterly case-mix score. The department shall 104240
assign a case-mix score or, if necessary, a cost per case-mix unit 104241
under division (D) of section 5111.232 of the Revised Code for any 104242
subsequent submissions that do not contain assessment data that 104243
qualifies for use in calculating a case-mix score.104244

       (b) If the facilitynew ICF/IID is a replacement facility104245
ICF/IID and the facilityICF/IID or facilitiesICFs/IID that are 104246
being replaced are in operation immediately before the replacement 104247
facilitynew ICF/IID opens, the rate shall be the same as the rate 104248
for the replaced facilityICF/IID or facilitiesICFs/IID, 104249
proportionate to the number of ICF/IID beds in each replaced 104250
facilityICF/IID. If one or more of the replaced facilities is104251

       (c) If the new ICF/IID is a replacement ICF/IID and the 104252
ICF/IID or ICFs/IID that are being replaced are not in operation 104253
immediately before the replacement facilitynew ICF/IID opens, its 104254
proportionthe rate shall be determined under division 104255
(A)(1)(2)(a) of this section.104256

       (2)(3) The initial rate for indirect care costs shall be the 104257
maximum rate for the new ICF/IID's peer group as determined for 104258
the fiscal year in accordance with division (C) of section 5124.21 104259
of the Revised Code.104260

       (4) The initial rate for other protected costs shall be one 104261
hundred fifteen per cent of the median rate for intermediate care 104262
facilities for the mentally retarded calculatedICFs/IID 104263
determined for the fiscal year under section 5111.2355124.23 of 104264
the Revised Code.104265

       (3) The rate for indirect care costs shall be the applicable 104266
maximum rate for the facility's peer group as specified in 104267
division (B) of section 5111.241 of the Revised Code.104268

       (4) The rate for capital costs shall be determined under 104269
section 5111.251 of the Revised Code using the greater of actual 104270
inpatient days or an imputed occupancy rate of eighty per cent. 104271

       (B) The(1) Except as provided in division (B)(2) of this 104272
section, the department shall adjust the rates establisheda new 104273
ICF/IID's initial total per medicaid day payment rate determined104274
under division (A) of this section at both of the following 104275
times:104276

       (1) Effectiveeffective the first day of July, to reflect new 104277
rate calculationsdeterminations for all facilitiesICFs/IID104278
under sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Code;104279

       (2) Following the provider's submission of the facility's 104280
cost report under division (A)(1)(b) of section 5111.26 of the 104281
Revised Code this chapter.104282

       The department shall pay the rate adjusted based on the cost 104283
report beginning the first day of the calendar quarter that begins 104284
more than ninety days after the department receives the cost 104285
report.104286

       (2) If the department accepts, under division (A) of section 104287
5124.101 of the Revised Code, a cost report filed by the provider 104288
of a new ICF/IID, the department shall adjust the ICF/IID's 104289
initial total per medicaid day payment rate in accordance with 104290
divisions (D) and (E) of that section rather than division (B)(1) 104291
of this section.104292

       Sec. 5124.152.  (A) The total per medicaid day payment rate 104293
determined under section 5124.15 of the Revised Code shall not be 104294
paid for ICF/IID services provided by an ICF/IID, or discrete unit 104295
of an ICF/IID, designated by the department of developmental 104296
disabilities as an outlier ICF/IID or unit. Instead, the provider 104297
of a designated outlier ICF/IID or unit shall be paid each fiscal 104298
year a total per medicaid day payment rate that the department 104299
shall prospectively determine in accordance with a methodology 104300
established in rules authorized by this section.104301

       (B) The department may designate an ICF/IID, or discrete unit 104302
of an ICF/IID, as an outlier ICF/IID or unit if the ICF/IID or 104303
unit serves residents who have either of the following:104304

       (1) Diagnoses or special care needs that require direct care 104305
resources that are not measured adequately by the resident 104306
assessment instrument specified in rules authorized by section 104307
5124.191 of the Revised Code;104308

       (2) Diagnoses or special care needs that are specified in 104309
rules authorized by this section as otherwise qualifying for 104310
consideration under this section.104311

       (C) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, the 104312
costs incurred by a designated outlier ICF/IID or unit shall not 104313
be considered in establishing medicaid payment rates for other 104314
ICFs/IID or units.104315

       (D) The director of developmental disabilities shall adopt 104316
rules under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code as necessary to 104317
implement this section.104318

       (1)(a) The rules shall do both of the following:104319

       (i) Specify the criteria and procedures the department will 104320
apply when designating an ICF/IID, or discrete unit of an ICF/IID, 104321
as an outlier ICF/IID or unit;104322

       (ii) Establish a methodology for prospectively determining 104323
the total per medicaid day payment rate that will be paid each 104324
fiscal year for ICF/IID services provided by a designated outlier 104325
ICF/IID or unit.104326

       (b) The rules adopted under division (D)(1)(a)(i) of this 104327
section regarding the criteria for designating outlier ICFs/IID 104328
and units shall do both of the following:104329

       (i) Provide for consideration of whether all of the allowable 104330
costs of an ICF/IID, or discrete unit of an ICF/IID, would be paid 104331
by the rate determined under section 5124.15 of the Revised Code;104332

       (ii) Specify the minimum number of ICF/IID beds that an 104333
ICF/IID, or discrete unit of an ICF/IID, must have to be 104334
designated an outlier ICF/IID or unit.104335

       (c) The rules authorized by division (D)(1)(a)(i) of this 104336
section regarding the criteria for designating outlier ICFs/IID 104337
and units shall not limit the designation to ICFs/IID, or discrete 104338
units of ICFs/IID, located in large cities.104339

       (d) The rules authorized by division (D)(1)(a)(ii) of this 104340
section regarding the methodology for prospectively determining 104341
the rates of designated outlier ICFs/IID and units shall provide 104342
for the methodology to consider the historical costs of providing 104343
ICF/IID services to the residents of designated outlier ICFs/IID 104344
and units.104345

       (2)(a) The rules may do both of the following:104346

       (i) Include for designation as an outlier ICF/IID or unit, an 104347
ICF/IID, or discrete unit of an ICF/IID, that serves residents who 104348
have complex medical conditions or severe behavioral problems;104349

       (ii) Require that a designated outlier ICF/IID or unit 104350
receive authorization from the department before admitting or 104351
retaining a resident.104352

       (b) If the director adopts rules authorized by division 104353
(D)(2)(a)(ii) of this section regarding the authorization of a 104354
designated outlier ICF/IID or unit to admit or retain a resident, 104355
the rules shall specify the criteria and procedures the department 104356
will apply when granting the authorization.104357

       Sec. 5124.153.  (A) To the extent, if any, provided for in 104358
rules authorized by this section, the total per medicaid day 104359
payment rate determined under section 5124.15 of the Revised Code 104360
shall not be paid for ICF/IID services that an ICF/IID not 104361
designated as an outlier ICF/IID or unit provides to a resident 104362
who meets the criteria for admission to a designated outlier 104363
ICF/IID or unit, as specified in rules authorized by section 104364
5124.152 of the Revised Code. Instead, the provider of an ICF/IID 104365
providing ICF/IID services to such a resident shall be paid each 104366
fiscal year a total per medicaid day payment rate that the 104367
department shall prospectively determine in accordance with a 104368
methodology established in rules authorized by this section.104369

       (B) The director of developmental disabilities may adopt 104370
rules under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code to implement this 104371
section. The rules may require that an ICF/IID receive 104372
authorization from the department before admitting or retaining a 104373
resident who meets the criteria for admission to a designated 104374
outlier ICF/IID or unit. If the director adopts such rules, the 104375
rules shall specify the criteria and procedures the department 104376
will apply when granting the authorization.104377

       Sec. 5111.291.        Sec. 5124.154. Notwithstanding sections 5111.20 to 104378
5111.331 of the Revised CodeThe department of developmental 104379
disabilities is not required to pay the total per medicaid day 104380
payment rates determined under section 5124.15 of the Revised Code 104381
for ICF/IID services provided by developmental centers. Instead, 104382
the department of job and family services may computedetermine104383
the ratemedicaid payment rates for intermediate care facilities 104384
for the mentally retarded operated by the department of104385
developmental disabilities or the department of mental health104386
centers according to the reasonable cost principles of Title 104387
XVIII.104388

       Sec. 5111.251.        Sec. 5124.17.  (A) TheFor each fiscal year, the104389
department of job and family servicesdevelopmental disabilities104390
shall pay a provider fordetermine each of the provider's eligible 104391
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded for its 104392
reasonable capital costs, aICF/IID's per resident permedicaid104393
day payment rate established prospectively each fiscal year for 104394
each intermediate care facility for the mentally retardedfor 104395
reasonable capital costs. Except as otherwise provided in 104396
sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Codethis chapter, the104397
an ICF/IID's rate shall be determined prospectively and based on 104398
the facility'sICF/IID's capital costs for the calendar year 104399
preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be paid. The104400
Subject to section 5124.28, an ICF/IID's rate shall equal the sum 104401
of the following:104402

       (1) The facility'sICF/IID's desk-reviewed, actual, 104403
allowable, per diem costcosts of ownership for the immediately104404
preceding cost reporting period, limited as provided in divisions 104405
(B) and (C) and (F) of this section;104406

       (2) Any efficiency incentive determined under division (B) of 104407
this section;104408

       (3) Any amounts forThe ICF/IID's per medicaid day payment 104409
for the ICF/IID's per diem capitalized costs of nonextensive104410
renovations determined under division (D)(1) of this section if 104411
the ICF/IID qualifies for a payment for such costs as specified in 104412
division (D)(2) of this section;104413

       (4) Any amounts for(3) The ICF/IID's per medicaid day 104414
efficiency incentive determined under division (E) of this 104415
section;104416

       (4) Until fiscal year 2015, the ICF/IID's return on net104417
equity determined under division (H)(F) of this section.104418

       Buildings shall be depreciated using the straight line method 104419
over forty years or over a different period approved by the 104420
department. Components and equipment shall be depreciated using 104421
the straight line method over a period designated by the director 104422
of job and family services in rules adopted under section 5111.02 104423
of the Revised Code, consistent with the guidelines of the 104424
American hospital association, or over a different period approved 104425
by the department of job and family services. Any rules authorized 104426
by this division that specify useful lives of buildings, 104427
components, or equipment apply only to assets acquired on or after 104428
July 1, 1993. Depreciation for costs paid or reimbursed by any 104429
government agency shall not be included in costs of ownership or 104430
renovation unless that part of the payment under sections 5111.20 104431
to 5111.331 of the Revised Code is used to reimburse the 104432
government agency. 104433

       (B) The department of job and family services shall pay to a 104434
provider for each of the provider's eligible intermediate care 104435
facilities for the mentally retarded an efficiency incentive equal 104436
to fifty per cent of the difference between any desk-reviewed, 104437
actual, allowable cost of ownership and the applicable limit on 104438
cost of ownership payments under division (C) of this section. For 104439
purposes of computing the efficiency incentive, depreciation for 104440
costs paid or reimbursed by any government agency shall be 104441
considered as a cost of ownership, and the applicable limit under 104442
division (C) of this section shall apply both to facilities with 104443
more than eight beds and facilities with eight or fewer beds. The 104444
efficiency incentive paid to a provider for a facility with eight 104445
or fewer beds shall not exceed three dollars per patient day, 104446
adjusted annually for the inflation rate for the twelve-month 104447
period beginning on the first day of July of the calendar year 104448
preceding the calendar year that precedes the fiscal year for 104449
which the efficiency incentive is determined and ending on the 104450
thirtieth day of the following June, using the consumer price 104451
index for shelter costs for all urban consumers for the north 104452
central region, as published by the United States bureau of labor 104453
statistics.104454

       (C) CostThe costs of ownership paymentsper diem payment 104455
rates for intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded104456
ICFs/IID with more than eight beds shall not exceed the following 104457
limits:104458

       (1) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure prior to 104459
January 1, l958, not exceeding two dollars and fifty cents per 104460
patient day;104461

       (2) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure after 104462
December 31, l957, but prior to January 1, l968, not exceeding:104463

       (a) Three dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 104464
of construction was three thousand five hundred dollars or more 104465
per bed;104466

       (b) Two dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 104467
of construction was less than three thousand five hundred dollars 104468
per bed.104469

       (3) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure after 104470
December 31, l967, but prior to January 1, l976, not exceeding:104471

       (a) Four dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 104472
of construction was five thousand one hundred fifty dollars or 104473
more per bed;104474

       (b) Three dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 104475
of construction was less than five thousand one hundred fifty 104476
dollars per bed, but exceeds three thousand five hundred dollars 104477
per bed;104478

       (c) Two dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 104479
of construction was three thousand five hundred dollars or less 104480
per bed.104481

       (4) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure after 104482
December 31, l975, but prior to January 1, l979, not exceeding:104483

       (a) Five dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 104484
of construction was six thousand eight hundred dollars or more per 104485
bed;104486

       (b) Four dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 104487
of construction was less than six thousand eight hundred dollars 104488
per bed but exceeds five thousand one hundred fifty dollars per 104489
bed;104490

       (c) Three dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 104491
of construction was five thousand one hundred fifty dollars or 104492
less per bed, but exceeds three thousand five hundred dollars per 104493
bed;104494

       (d) Two dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 104495
of construction was three thousand five hundred dollars or less 104496
per bed.104497

       (5) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure after 104498
December 31, l978, but prior to January 1, l980, not exceeding:104499

       (a) Six dollars per patient day if the cost of construction 104500
was seven thousand six hundred twenty-five dollars or more per 104501
bed;104502

       (b) Five dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 104503
of construction was less than seven thousand six hundred 104504
twenty-five dollars per bed but exceeds six thousand eight hundred 104505
dollars per bed;104506

       (c) Four dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 104507
of construction was six thousand eight hundred dollars or less per 104508
bed but exceeds five thousand one hundred fifty dollars per bed;104509

       (d) Three dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 104510
of construction was five thousand one hundred fifty dollars or 104511
less but exceeds three thousand five hundred dollars per bed;104512

       (e) Two dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the cost 104513
of construction was three thousand five hundred dollars or less 104514
per bed.104515

       (6) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure after 104516
December 31, 1979, but prior to January 1, 1981, not exceeding:104517

       (a) Twelve dollars per patient day if the beds were 104518
originally licensed as residential facility beds by the department 104519
of developmental disabilities;104520

       (b) Six dollars per patient day if the beds were originally 104521
licensed as nursing home beds by the department of health.104522

       (7) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure after 104523
December 31, 1980, but prior to January 1, 1982, not exceeding:104524

       (a) Twelve dollars per patient day if the beds were 104525
originally licensed as residential facility beds by the department 104526
of developmental disabilities;104527

       (b) Six dollars and forty-five cents per patient day if the 104528
beds were originally licensed as nursing home beds by the 104529
department of health.104530

       (8) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure after 104531
December 31, 1981, but prior to January 1, 1983, not exceeding:104532

       (a) Twelve dollars per patient day if the beds were 104533
originally licensed as residential facility beds by the department 104534
of developmental disabilities;104535

       (b) Six dollars and seventy-nine cents per patient day if the 104536
beds were originally licensed as nursing home beds by the 104537
department of health.104538

       (9) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure after 104539
December 31, 1982, but prior to January 1, 1984, not exceeding:104540

       (a) Twelve dollars per patient day if the beds were 104541
originally licensed as residential facility beds by the department 104542
of developmental disabilities;104543

       (b) Seven dollars and nine cents per patient day if the beds 104544
were originally licensed as nursing home beds by the department of 104545
health.104546

       (10) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure after 104547
December 31, 1983, but prior to January 1, 1985, not exceeding:104548

       (a) Twelve dollars and twenty-four cents per patient day if 104549
the beds were originally licensed as residential facility beds by 104550
the department of developmental disabilities;104551

       (b) Seven dollars and twenty-three cents per patient day if 104552
the beds were originally licensed as nursing home beds by the 104553
department of health.104554

       (11) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure after 104555
December 31, 1984, but prior to January 1, 1986, not exceeding:104556

       (a) Twelve dollars and fifty-three cents per patient day if 104557
the beds were originally licensed as residential facility beds by 104558
the department of developmental disabilities;104559

       (b) Seven dollars and forty cents per patient day if the beds 104560
were originally licensed as nursing home beds by the department of 104561
health.104562

       (12) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure after 104563
December 31, 1985, but prior to January 1, 1987, not exceeding:104564

       (a) Twelve dollars and seventy cents per patient day if the 104565
beds were originally licensed as residential facility beds by the 104566
department of developmental disabilities;104567

       (b) Seven dollars and fifty cents per patient day if the beds 104568
were originally licensed as nursing home beds by the department of 104569
health.104570

       (13) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure after 104571
December 31, 1986, but prior to January 1, 1988, not exceeding:104572

       (a) Twelve dollars and ninety-nine cents per patient day if 104573
the beds were originally licensed as residential facility beds by 104574
the department of developmental disabilities;104575

       (b) Seven dollars and sixty-seven cents per patient day if 104576
the beds were originally licensed as nursing home beds by the 104577
department of health.104578

       (14) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure after 104579
December 31, 1987, but prior to January 1, 1989, not exceeding 104580
thirteen dollars and twenty-six cents per patient day;104581

       (15) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure after 104582
December 31, 1988, but prior to January 1, 1990, not exceeding 104583
thirteen dollars and forty-six cents per patient day;104584

       (16) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure after 104585
December 31, 1989, but prior to January 1, 1991, not exceeding 104586
thirteen dollars and sixty cents per patient day;104587

       (17) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure after 104588
December 31, 1990, but prior to January 1, 1992, not exceeding 104589
thirteen dollars and forty-nine cents per patient day;104590

       (18) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure after 104591
December 31, 1991, but prior to January 1, 1993, not exceeding 104592
thirteen dollars and sixty-seven cents per patient day;104593

       (19) For facilitiesICFs/IID with dates of licensure after 104594
December 31, 1992, not exceeding fourteen dollars and twenty-eight 104595
cents per patient day.104596

       (C)(1) The costs of ownership per diem payment rate for an 104597
ICF/IID with eight or fewer beds shall not exceed the following 104598
limits:104599

       (a) Eighteen dollars and thirty cents as adjusted for 104600
inflation pursuant to division (C)(2) of this section if any of 104601
the following apply to the ICF/IID:104602

       (i) The ICF/IID has a date of licensure, or was granted 104603
project authorization by the department of developmental 104604
disabilities, before July 1, 1993.104605

       (ii) The ICF/IID has a date of licensure, or was granted 104606
project authorization by the department, on or after July 1, 1993, 104607
and the provider demonstrates that the provider made substantial 104608
commitments of funds for the ICF/IID before that date.104609

       (iii) The ICF/IID has a date of licensure, or was granted 104610
project authorization by the department, on or after July 1, 1993, 104611
the provider made no substantial commitment of funds for the 104612
ICF/IID before that date, and the department of job and family 104613
services or department of developmental disabilities gave prior 104614
approval for the ICF/IID's construction.104615

       (b) If division (C)(1)(a) of this section does not apply to 104616
the ICF/IID, the amount that would apply to the ICF/IID under 104617
division (B) of this section if it had more than eight beds.104618

       (2) The eighteen-dollar and thirty-cent payment rate 104619
specified in division (C)(1)(a) of this section shall be increased 104620
as follows:104621

       (a) For the period beginning June 30, 1990, and ending July 104622
1, 1993, by the change in the "Dodge building cost indexes, 104623
northeastern and north central states," published by Marshall and 104624
Swift;104625

       (b) For each fiscal year thereafter, in accordance with 104626
division (G) of this section.104627

       (D)(1) Beginning January 1, 1981, regardless of the original 104628
date of licensure, the department of job and family services shall 104629
pay apayment rate for the per diem capitalized costs of 104630
nonextensive renovations to intermediate care facilities for the 104631
mentally retarded made after January 1, l981, to a qualifying 104632
ICF/IID, shall not exceedingexceed six dollars per patient104633
medicaid day using 1980 as the base year and adjusting the amount 104634
annually until June 30, 1993, for fluctuations in construction 104635
costs calculated by the department using the "Dodge building cost 104636
indexes, northeastern and north central states," published by 104637
Marshall and Swift. The payment rate shall be further adjusted in 104638
accordance with division (G) of this section. The payment provided 104639
for in this division is the only payment that shall be made for 104640
thean ICF/IID's capitalized costs of a nonextensive renovation 104641
of an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded104642
renovations. Nonextensive renovation costsCosts of nonextensive 104643
renovations shall not be included in costcosts of ownership, and 104644
a nonextensive renovation shall not affect the date of licensure 104645
for purposes of division (B) or (C) of this section. This division 104646
applies to nonextensive renovations regardless of whether they are 104647
made by an owner or a lessee. If the tenancy of a lessee that has 104648
made nonextensive renovations ends before the depreciation expense 104649
for the renovation costs of nonextensive renovations has been 104650
fully reported, the former lessee shall not report the 104651
undepreciated balance as an expense.104652

       For a nonextensive renovation to qualify(2) An ICF/IID 104653
qualifies for a payment under this division, bothfor costs of 104654
nonextensive renovations if all of the following conditions must 104655
be metapply:104656

       (1)(a) Either of the following applies:104657

       (i) The ICF/IID has more than eight beds and either the 104658
department approved the nonextensive renovation before July 1, 104659
2013, or the nonextensive renovation is part of a project that 104660
results in the ICF/IID becoming a downsized ICF/IID or partially 104661
converted ICF/IID.104662

       (ii) The ICF/IID has eight or fewer beds.104663

       (b) At least five years have elapsed since the ICF/IID's date 104664
of licensure or date of an extensive renovation of the portion of 104665
the facilityICF/IID that is proposed to be nonextensively104666
renovated, except that this condition does not apply ifunless the 104667
nonextensive renovation is necessary to meet the requirements of 104668
federal, state, or local statutes, ordinances, rules, or policies.104669

       (2)(c) The provider has obtained prior approval from the 104670
department of job and family services. The provider shall submit104671
of the ICF/IID does both of the following:104672

       (i) Submits to the department a plan that describes in detail 104673
the changes in capital assets to be accomplished by means of the 104674
nonextensive renovation and the timetable for completing the 104675
project. The time for completion of the project, which shall be no104676
not more than eighteen months after the nonextensive renovation 104677
begins;104678

       (ii) Obtains prior approval from the department for the 104679
nonextensive renovation. The104680

       (3) The director of job and family servicesdevelopmental 104681
disabilities shall adopt rules under section 5111.025124.03 of 104682
the Revised Code that specify criteria and procedures for prior 104683
approval of nonextensive renovation and extensive renovation104684
projects. No provider shall separate a project with the intent to 104685
evade the characterization of the project as a nonextensive104686
renovation or as an extensive renovation. No provider shall 104687
increase the scope of a project after it is approved by the 104688
department of job and family services unless the increase in scope 104689
is approved by the department.104690

       (E)(1) Subject to division (E)(2) of this section, an 104691
ICF/IID's per medicaid day efficiency incentive payment rate shall 104692
equal the following percentage of the difference between the 104693
ICF/IID's desk-reviewed, actual, allowable per diem costs of 104694
ownership and the applicable limit on costs of ownership payment 104695
rates established by division (B) of this section:104696

       (a) In the case of an ICF/IID with more than eight beds, the 104697
following percentage:104698

       (i) Fifty per cent for fiscal year 2014;104699

       (ii) Fifty per cent for fiscal year 2015 and each fiscal year 104700
thereafter if the provider of the ICF/IID obtains the department's 104701
approval to become a downsized ICF/IID and the approval is 104702
conditioned on the downsizing being completed not later than July 104703
1, 2018;104704

        (iii) Twenty-five per cent;104705

       (b) In the case of an ICF/IID with eight or fewer beds, fifty 104706
per cent.104707

       (2) The efficiency incentive payment rate for an ICF/IID with 104708
eight or fewer beds shall not exceed three dollars per medicaid 104709
day, adjusted annually in accordance with division (G) of this 104710
section. For the purpose of determining an ICF/IID's efficiency 104711
incentive payment rate, both of the following apply:104712

       (a) Depreciation for costs paid or reimbursed by any 104713
government agency shall be considered as a cost of ownership;104714

       (b) The applicable limit under division (B) of this section 104715
shall apply both to ICFs/IID with more than eight beds and 104716
ICFs/IID with eight or fewer beds.104717

       (F) An ICF/IID's return on net equity shall be determined at 104718
the rate of one and one-half times the average of interest rates 104719
on special issues of public debt obligations issued to the federal 104720
hospital insurance trust fund for the cost reporting period. In 104721
determining an ICF/IID's rate for return on net equity, the 104722
department shall use the greater of the ICF/IID's inpatient days 104723
during the applicable cost reporting period or the number of 104724
inpatient days the ICF/IID would have had during that period if 104725
the ICF/IID's occupancy rate had been ninety-five per cent. No 104726
ICF/IID's rate for return on net equity shall exceed one dollar 104727
per medicaid day. No ICF/IID's rate for capital costs shall 104728
include a rate for return on net equity beginning July 1, 2014.104729

       (G) The amounts specified in divisions (B), (C) and, (D), and 104730
(E) of this section shall be adjusted beginning July 1, 1993, for 104731
the estimated inflation rate for the twelve-month period beginning 104732
on the first day of July of the calendar year immediately104733
preceding the calendar year that immediately precedes the fiscal 104734
year for which rate will be paid and ending on the thirtieth day 104735
of the following June, using the consumer price index for shelter 104736
costs for all urban consumers for the north centralmidwest104737
region, as published by the United States bureau of labor 104738
statistics.104739

       (F)(1) For facilities of eight or fewer beds that have dates 104740
of licensure or have been granted project authorization by the 104741
department of developmental disabilities before July 1, 1993, and 104742
for facilities of eight or fewer beds that have dates of licensure 104743
or have been granted project authorization after that date if the 104744
providers of the facilities demonstrate that they made substantial 104745
commitments of funds on or before that date, cost of ownership 104746
shall not exceed eighteen dollars and thirty cents per resident 104747
per day. The eighteen-dollar and thirty-cent amount shall be 104748
increased by the change in the "Dodge building cost indexes, 104749
northeastern and north central states," published by Marshall and 104750
Swift, during the period beginning June 30, 1990, and ending July 104751
1, 1993, and by the change in the consumer price index for shelter 104752
costs for all urban consumers for the north central region, as 104753
published by the United States bureau of labor statistics, 104754
annually thereafter.104755

       (2) For facilities with eight or fewer beds that have dates 104756
of licensure or have been granted project authorization by the 104757
department of developmental disabilities on or after July 1, 1993, 104758
for which substantial commitments of funds were not made before 104759
that date, cost of ownership payments shall not exceed the 104760
applicable amount calculated under division (F)(1) of this 104761
section, if the department of job and family services gives prior 104762
approval for construction of the facility. If the department does 104763
not give prior approval, cost of ownership payments shall not 104764
exceed the amount specified in division (C) of this section.104765

       (3)(H) Notwithstanding divisions (C) and (D) and (F)(1) and 104766
(2) of this section, the total payment rate for costcosts of 104767
ownership, cost of ownership efficiency incentive, and capitalized 104768
costs of nonextensive renovations, and the efficiency incentive104769
for an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded104770
ICF/IID with eight or fewer beds shall not exceed the sum of the 104771
limitations specified in divisions (C) and (D) of this section.104772

       (G) Notwithstanding any provision of this section or section 104773
5111.241 of the Revised Code, the director of job and family 104774
services may adopt rules under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code 104775
that provide for a calculation of a combined maximum payment limit 104776
for indirect care costs and cost of ownership for intermediate 104777
care facilities for the mentally retarded with eight or fewer 104778
beds.104779

       (H) The department of job and family services shall pay a 104780
provider for each of the provider's eligible proprietary 104781
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded a return on 104782
the facility's net equity computed at the rate of one and one-half 104783
times the average of interest rates on special issues of public 104784
debt obligations issued to the federal hospital insurance trust 104785
fund for the cost reporting period. No facility's return on net 104786
equity paid under this division shall exceed one dollar per 104787
patient day. 104788

       In calculating the rate for return on net equity, the 104789
department shall use the greater of the facility's inpatient days 104790
during the applicable cost reporting period or the number of 104791
inpatient days the facility would have had during that period if 104792
its occupancy rate had been ninety-five per cent.104793

       (I)(1) For the purpose of determining ICFs/IID's medicaid 104794
payment rates for capital costs:104795

       (a) Buildings shall be depreciated using the straight line 104796
method over forty years or over a different period approved by the 104797
department.104798

       (b) Components and equipment shall be depreciated using the 104799
straight line method over a period designated by the director of 104800
developmental disabilities in rules adopted under section 5124.03 104801
of the Revised Code, consistent with the guidelines of the 104802
American hospital association, or over a different period approved 104803
by the department.104804

       (2) Any rules authorized by division (I)(1) of this section 104805
that specify useful lives of buildings, components, or equipment 104806
apply only to assets acquired on or after July 1, 1993. 104807
Depreciation for costs paid or reimbursed by any government agency 104808
shall not be included in costs of ownership or costs of 104809
nonextensive renovations unless that part of the payment under 104810
this chapter is used to reimburse the government agency.104811

       (J)(1) Except as provided in division (I)(J)(2) of this 104812
section, if a provider leases or transfers an interest in a 104813
facilityan ICF/IID to another provider who is a related party, 104814
the related party's allowable costcosts of ownership shall 104815
include the lesser of the following:104816

       (a) The annual lease expense or actual cost of ownership, 104817
whichever is applicable;104818

       (b) The reasonable cost to the lessor or provider making the 104819
transfer.104820

       (2) If a provider leases or transfers an interest in a 104821
facilityan ICF/IID to another provider who is a related party, 104822
regardless of the date of the lease or transfer, the related 104823
party's allowable cost of ownership shall include the annual lease 104824
expense or actual cost of ownership, whichever is applicable, 104825
subject to the limitations specified in divisions (B) to (H)(I) of 104826
this section, if all of the following conditions are met:104827

       (a) The related party is a relative of owner;104828

       (b) In the case of a lease, if the lessor retains any 104829
ownership interest, it is, except as provided in division 104830
(I)(J)(2)(d)(ii) of this section, in only the real property and 104831
any improvements on the real property;104832

       (c) In the case of a transfer, the provider making the 104833
transfer retains, except as provided in division (I)(J)(2)(d)(iv) 104834
of this section, no ownership interest in the facilityICF/IID;104835

       (d) The department of job and family services determines that 104836
the lease or transfer is an arm's length transaction pursuant to 104837
rules adopted under section 5111.025124.03 of the Revised Code. 104838
The rules shall provide that a lease or transfer is an arm's 104839
length transaction if all of the following, as applicable, apply:104840

       (i) In the case of a lease, once the lease goes into effect, 104841
the lessor has no direct or indirect interest in the lessee or, 104842
except as provided in division (I)(J)(2)(b) of this section, the 104843
facilityICF/IID itself, including interest as an owner, officer, 104844
director, employee, independent contractor, or consultant, but 104845
excluding interest as a lessor.104846

       (ii) In the case of a lease, the lessor does not reacquire an 104847
interest in the facilityICF/IID except through the exercise of a 104848
lessor's rights in the event of a default. If the lessor 104849
reacquires an interest in the facilityICF/IID in this manner, the 104850
department shall treat the facilityICF/IID as if the lease never 104851
occurred when the department calculatesdetermines its 104852
reimbursement ratespayment rate for capital costs.104853

       (iii) In the case of a transfer, once the transfer goes into 104854
effect, the provider that made the transfer has no direct or 104855
indirect interest in the provider that acquires the facility104856
ICF/IID or the facilityICF/IID itself, including interest as an 104857
owner, officer, director, employee, independent contractor, or 104858
consultant, but excluding interest as a creditor.104859

       (iv) In the case of a transfer, the provider that made the 104860
transfer does not reacquire an interest in the facilityICF/IID104861
except through the exercise of a creditor's rights in the event of 104862
a default. If the provider reacquires an interest in the facility104863
ICF/IID in this manner, the department shall treat the facility104864
ICF/IID as if the transfer never occurred when the department 104865
calculatesdetermines its reimbursement ratespayment rate for 104866
capital costs.104867

       (v) The lease or transfer satisfies any other criteria 104868
specified in the rules.104869

       (e) Except in the case of hardship caused by a catastrophic 104870
event, as determined by the department, or in the case of a lessor 104871
or provider making the transfer who is at least sixty-five years 104872
of age, not less than twenty years have elapsed since, for the 104873
same facilityICF/IID, allowable cost of ownership was determined 104874
most recently under this division.104875

       Sec. 5111.23.        Sec. 5124.19.  (A) The(1) For each fiscal year, the104876
department of job and family servicesdevelopmental disabilities104877
shall pay a provider fordetermine each of the provider's eligible 104878
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded aICF/IID's104879
per resident permedicaid day payment rate for direct care costs 104880
established prospectively for each facility. The department shall 104881
establish each facility's rate for direct care costs quarterlyas 104882
follows:104883

       (a) Multiply the lesser of the following by the ICF/IID's 104884
annual average case-mix score determined or assigned under section 104885
5124.192 of the Revised Code for the calendar year immediately 104886
preceding the fiscal year for which the rate will be paid:104887

       (i) The ICF/IID's cost per case-mix unit for the calendar 104888
year immediately preceding the fiscal year for which the rate will 104889
be paid, as determined under division (B) of this section;104890

       (ii) The maximum cost per case-mix unit for the ICF/IID's 104891
peer group for the fiscal year for which the rate will be paid, as 104892
set under division (C) of this section;104893

       (b) Adjust the product determined under division (A)(1)(a) of 104894
this section by the inflation rate estimated under division (D)(1) 104895
of this section and modified under division (D)(2) of this 104896
section.104897

       (2) Except as otherwise directed by law enacted by the 104898
general assembly, the department shall determine each ICF/IID's 104899
rate for direct care costs prospectively.104900

       (B) Each facility's rate for direct care costs shall be based 104901
on the facility's cost per case-mix unit, subject to the maximum 104902
costs per case-mix unit established under division (B)(2) of this 104903
section, from the calendar year preceding the fiscal year in which 104904
the rate is paid. To determine the rate, the department shall do 104905
all of the following:104906

       (1) Determine each facility'san ICF/IID's cost per case-mix 104907
unit for the calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal year 104908
in which the rate will be paid by dividing, the facility's104909
department shall divide the ICF/IID's desk-reviewed, actual, 104910
allowable, per diem direct care costs for that calendar year by 104911
its annual average case-mix score determined under section 104912
5111.2325124.192 of the Revised Code for the same calendar year.104913

       (2)(a) Set(C)(1) For each fiscal year for which a rate will 104914
be paid, the department shall set the maximum cost per case-mix 104915
unit for each peer group of intermediate care facilities for the 104916
mentally retardedICFs/IID with more than eight beds specified in 104917
rules adopted under division (F) of this section at a percentage 104918
above the cost per case-mix unit ofdetermined under division (B) 104919
of this section for the facilityICF/IID in the peer group that 104920
has the peer group's median number of medicaid daydays for the 104921
calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal year in which the 104922
rate will be paid, as calculated under division (B)(1) of this 104923
section, that is. The percentage shall be no less than the 104924
percentage calculated under division (E)(2) of this sectionabove 104925
the cost per case-mix unit determined under division (B) of this 104926
section for the ICF/IID that has the median number of medicaid 104927
days for calendar year 1992 for all ICFs/IID with more than eight 104928
beds that would result in payment of all desk-reviewed, actual, 104929
allowable direct care costs for eighty and one-half per cent of 104930
the medicaid days for such ICFs/IID for calendar year 1992.104931

       (b) Set(2) For each fiscal year for which a rate will be 104932
paid, the department shall set the maximum cost per case-mix unit 104933
for each peer group of intermediate care facilities for the 104934
mentally retardedICFs/IID with eight or fewer beds specified in 104935
rules adopted under division (F) of this section at a percentage 104936
above the cost per case-mix unit ofdetermined under division (B) 104937
of this section for the facilityICF/IID in the peer group that 104938
has the peer group's median number of medicaid daydays for the 104939
calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal year in which the 104940
rate will be paid, as calculated under division (B)(1) of this 104941
section, that is. The percentage shall be no less than the 104942
percentage calculated under division (E)(3) of this sectionabove 104943
the cost per case-mix unit determined under division (B) of this 104944
section for the ICF/IID that has the median number of medicaid 104945
days for calendar year 1992 for all ICFs/IID with eight or fewer 104946
beds that would result in payment of all desk-reviewed, actual, 104947
allowable direct care costs for eighty and one-half per cent of 104948
the medicaid days for such ICFs/IID for calendar year 1992.104949

       (c)(3) In calculatingdetermining the maximum cost per 104950
case-mix unit under divisions (B)(2)(a)(C)(1) and (b)(2) of this 104951
section for each peer group, the department shall exclude from its 104952
calculationsdeterminations the cost per case-mix unit of any 104953
facilityICF/IID in the peer group that participated in the 104954
medicaid program under the same operatorprovider for less than 104955
twelve months during the calendar year immediately preceding the 104956
fiscal year in which the rate will be paid.104957

       (3) Estimate(4) The department shall not reset a peer 104958
group's maximum cost per case-mix unit for a fiscal year under 104959
division (C)(1) or (2) of this section based on additional 104960
information that it receives after it sets the maximum for that 104961
fiscal year. The department shall reset a peer group's maximum 104962
cost per case-mix unit for a fiscal year only if it made an error 104963
in setting the maximum for that fiscal year based on information 104964
available to the department at the time it originally sets the 104965
maximum for that fiscal year.104966

       (D)(1) The department shall estimate the rate of inflation 104967
for the eighteen-month period beginning on the first day of July 104968
of the calendar year preceding the fiscal year in which thea rate 104969
will be paid and ending on the thirty-first day of December of the 104970
fiscal year in which the rate will be paid, using the index 104971
specified in division (C) of this section. If the estimated 104972
inflation rate for the eighteen-month period is different from the 104973
actual inflation rate for that period, as measured using the same 104974
index, the difference shall be added to or subtracted from the 104975
inflation rate estimated under division (B)(3) of this section for 104976
the following fiscal year.104977

       (4) The department shall not recalculate a maximum cost per 104978
case-mix unit under division (B)(2) of this section or a 104979
percentage under division (E) of this section based on additional 104980
information that it receives after the maximum costs per case-mix 104981
unit or percentages are set. The department shall recalculate a 104982
maximum cost per case-mix units or percentage only if it made an 104983
error in computing the maximum cost per case-mix unit or 104984
percentage based on information available at the time of the 104985
original calculation.104986

       (C) The department shall use the following index for the 104987
purpose of division (B)(3) of this section:104988

       (1) The(a) Subject to division (D)(1)(b) of this section, 104989
the employment cost index for total compensation, health services104990
care and social assistance component, published by the United 104991
States bureau of labor statistics;104992

       (2)(b) If the United States bureau of labor statistics ceases 104993
to publish the index specified in division (C)(D)(1)(a) of this 104994
section, the index that is subsequently published by the bureau 104995
and covers nursing facilities'the staff costs of ICFs/IID.104996

       (D) Each facility's rate for direct care costs shall be 104997
determined as follows for each calendar quarter within a fiscal 104998
year:104999

       (1) Multiply the lesser of the following by the facility's 105000
average case-mix score determined under section 5111.232 of the 105001
Revised Code for the calendar quarter that preceded the 105002
immediately preceding calendar quarter: 105003

       (a) The facility's cost per case-mix unit for the calendar 105004
year preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be paid, as 105005
determined under division (B)(1) of this section;105006

       (b) The maximum cost per case-mix unit established for the 105007
fiscal year in which the rate will be paid for the facility's peer 105008
group under division (B)(2) of this section; 105009

       (2) Adjust the product determined under division (D)(1) of 105010
this section by the inflation rate estimated under division (B)(3) 105011
of this section.105012

       (E)(1) The department shall calculate the percentage above 105013
the median cost per case-mix unit determined under division (B)(1) 105014
of this section for the facility that has the median medicaid day 105015
for calendar year 1992 for all intermediate care facilities for 105016
the mentally retarded with more than eight beds that would result 105017
in payment of all desk-reviewed, actual, allowable direct care 105018
costs for eighty and one-half per cent of the medicaid days for 105019
such facilities for calendar year 1992.105020

       (2) The department shall calculate the percentage above the 105021
median cost per case-mix unit determined under division (B)(1) of 105022
this section for the facility that has the median medicaid day for 105023
calendar year 1992 for all intermediate care facilities for the 105024
mentally retarded with eight or fewer beds that would result in 105025
payment of all desk-reviewed, actual, allowable direct care costs 105026
for eighty and one-half per cent of the medicaid days for such 105027
facilities for calendar year 1992.105028

       (F)(2) If the estimated inflation rate for the eighteen-month 105029
period specified in division (D)(1) of this section is different 105030
from the actual inflation rate for that period, as measured using 105031
the same index, the difference shall be added to or subtracted 105032
from the inflation rate estimated under division (D)(1) of this 105033
section for the following fiscal year.105034

       (E) The director of job and family servicesdevelopmental 105035
disabilities shall adopt rules under section 5111.025124.03 of 105036
the Revised Code that specify peer groups of intermediate care 105037
facilities for the mentally retardedICFs/IID with more than eight 105038
beds and intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded105039
peer groups of ICFs/IID with eight or fewer beds, based on 105040
findings of significant per diem direct care cost differences due 105041
to geography and facility bed-size. The rules also may specify 105042
peer groups based on findings of significant per diem direct care 105043
cost differences due to other factors which may include case-mix.105044

       (G) The department, in accordance with division (D) of 105045
section 5111.232 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under 105046
division (F) of that section, may assign case-mix scores or costs 105047
per case-mix unit if a provider fails to submit assessment data 105048
necessary to calculate an intermediate care facility for the 105049
mentally retarded's case-mix score in accordance with that 105050
section.105051

       Sec. 5124.191.  Each calendar quarter, each ICF/IID provider 105052
shall compile complete assessment data for each resident of each 105053
of the provider's ICFs/IID, regardless of payment source, who is 105054
in the ICF/IID, or on hospital or therapeutic leave from the 105055
ICF/IID, on the last day of the quarter. A resident assessment 105056
instrument specified in rules adopted under section 5124.03 of the 105057
Revised Code shall be used to compile the resident assessment 105058
data. Each provider shall submit the resident assessment data to 105059
the department of developmental disabilities not later than 105060
fifteen days after the end of the calendar quarter for which the 105061
data is compiled. The resident assessment data shall be submitted 105062
to the department through the medium or media specified in rules 105063
adopted under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code.105064

       Sec. 5124.192.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of 105065
this section, the department of developmental disabilities shall 105066
do both of the following:105067

       (1) For each calendar quarter, determine a case-mix score for 105068
each ICF/IID using the resident assessment data submitted to the 105069
department under section 5124.191 of the Revised Code and the 105070
grouper methodology prescribed in rules authorized by this 105071
section;105072

       (2) After the end of each calendar year and in accordance 105073
with rules authorized by this section, determine an annual average 105074
case-mix score for each ICF/IID using the ICF/IID's quarterly 105075
case-mix scores for that calendar year.105076

       (B)(1) Subject to division (B)(2) of this section, the 105077
department, for one or more months of a calendar quarter, may 105078
assign to an ICF/IID a case-mix score that is five per cent less 105079
than the ICF/IID's case-mix score for the immediately preceding 105080
calendar quarter if any of the following apply:105081

       (a) The provider does not timely submit complete and accurate 105082
resident assessment data necessary to determine the ICF/IID's 105083
case-mix score for the calendar quarter;105084

       (b) The ICF/IID was subject to an exception review under 105085
section 5124.193 of the Revised Code for the immediately preceding 105086
calendar quarter;105087

       (c) The ICF/IID was assigned a case-mix score for the 105088
immediately preceding calendar quarter.105089

       (2) Before assigning a case-mix score to an ICF/IID due to 105090
the submission of incorrect resident assessment data, the 105091
department shall permit the provider to correct the data. The 105092
department may assign the case-mix score if the provider fails to 105093
submit the corrected resident assessment data not later than 105094
forty-five days after the end of the calendar quarter to which the 105095
data pertains or later due date specified in rules authorized by 105096
this section.105097

       (3) If, for more than six months during a calendar year, a 105098
provider is paid a rate determined for an ICF/IID using a case-mix 105099
score assigned to the ICF/IID under division (B)(1) of this 105100
section, the department may assign the ICF/IID a cost per case-mix 105101
unit that is five per cent less than the ICF/IID's actual or 105102
assigned cost per case-mix unit for the immediately preceding 105103
calendar year. The department may use the assigned cost per 105104
case-mix unit, instead of determining the ICF/IID's actual cost 105105
per case-mix unit in accordance with section 5124.19 of the 105106
Revised Code, to establish the ICF/IID's rate for direct care 105107
costs for the fiscal year immediately following the calendar year 105108
for which the cost per case-mix unit is assigned.105109

       (4) The department shall take action under division (B)(1), 105110
(2), or (3) of this section only in accordance with rules 105111
authorized by this section. The department shall not take an 105112
action that affects medicaid payment rates for prior payment 105113
periods except in accordance with sections 5124.41 and 5124.42 of 105114
the Revised Code.105115

       (C) The director of developmental disabilities shall adopt 105116
rules under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code as necessary to 105117
implement this section.105118

       (1) The rules shall do all of the following:105119

       (a) Prescribe a grouper methodology to be used when 105120
determining the case-mix scores for ICFs/IID;105121

       (b) Specify the process for determining the annual average 105122
case-mix scores for ICFs/IID;105123

       (c) Establish procedures under which resident assessment data 105124
is to be reviewed for accuracy and providers are to be notified of 105125
any data that requires correction;105126

       (d) Establish procedures for providers to correct resident 105127
assessment data and, if necessary, specify a due date for 105128
corrections that is later than the due date specified in division 105129
(B)(2) of this section.105130

       (e) Specify when and how the department will assign a 105131
case-mix score or cost per case-mix unit to an ICF/IID under 105132
division (B) of this section if information necessary to calculate 105133
the ICF/IID's case-mix score is not provided or corrected in 105134
accordance with the procedures established by the rules.105135

       (2) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter, the 105136
rules may provide for excluding case-mix scores assigned to an 105137
ICF/IID under division (B) of this section from the determination 105138
of the ICF/IID's annual average case-mix score and the maximum 105139
cost per case-mix unit for the ICF/IID's peer group.105140

       Sec. 5124.193.  (A) The department of developmental 105141
disabilities may, pursuant to rules authorized by this section, 105142
conduct an exception review of resident assessment data submitted 105143
by an ICF/IID provider under section 5124.191 of the Revised Code. 105144
The department may conduct an exception review based on the 105145
findings of a medicaid certification survey conducted by the 105146
department of health, a risk analysis, or prior performance of the 105147
provider.105148

       Exception reviews shall be conducted at the ICF/IID by 105149
appropriate health professionals under contract with or employed 105150
by the department. The professionals may review resident 105151
assessment forms and supporting documentation, conduct interviews, 105152
and observe residents to identify any patterns or trends of 105153
inaccurate resident assessments and resulting inaccurate case-mix 105154
scores.105155

       (B) If an exception review is conducted before the effective 105156
date of an ICF/IID's rate for direct care costs that is based on 105157
the resident assessment data being reviewed and the review results 105158
in findings that exceed tolerance levels specified in the rules 105159
authorized by this section, the department, in accordance with the 105160
rules authorized by this section, may use the findings to 105161
redetermine individual resident case-mix scores, the ICF/IID's 105162
case-mix score for the quarter, and the ICF/IID's annual average 105163
case-mix score. The department may use the ICF/IID's redetermined 105164
quarterly and annual average case-mix scores to determine the 105165
ICF/IID's rate for direct care costs for the appropriate calendar 105166
quarter or quarters.105167

       (C) The department shall prepare a written summary of any 105168
exception review finding that is made after the effective date of 105169
an ICF/IID's rate for direct care costs that is based on the 105170
resident assessment data that was reviewed. Where the provider is 105171
pursuing judicial or administrative remedies in good faith 105172
regarding the finding, the department shall not withhold from the 105173
provider's current payments any amounts the department claims to 105174
be due from the provider pursuant to section 5124.41 of the 105175
Revised Code.105176

       (D)(1) The director of developmental disabilities shall adopt 105177
rules under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code as necessary to 105178
implement this section. The rules shall establish an exception 105179
review program that does all of the following:105180

       (a) Requires each exception review to comply with Title XIX;105181

       (b) Requires a written summary for each exception review that 105182
states whether resident assessment forms have been completed 105183
accurately;105184

       (c) Prohibits each health professional who conducts an 105185
exception review from doing either of the following:105186

       (i) During the period of the professional's contract or 105187
employment with the department, having or being committed to 105188
acquire any direct or indirect financial interest in the 105189
ownership, financing, or operation of ICFs/IID in this state;105190

       (ii) Reviewing any provider that has been a client of the 105191
professional.105192

       (2) For the purposes of division (D)(1)(c)(i) of this 105193
section, employment of a member of a health professional's family 105194
by an ICF/IID that the professional does not review does not 105195
constitute a direct or indirect financial interest in the 105196
ownership, financing, or operation of the ICF/IID.105197

       Sec. 5111.233.        Sec. 5124.194.  The costs of day programming shall 105198
be part of the direct care costs of an intermediate care facility 105199
for the mentally retardedICF/IID as off-site day programming if 105200
the area in which the day programming is provided is not certified 105201
by the director of health as an intermediate care facility for the 105202
mentally retardedICF/IID under Title XIX and regardless of either 105203
of the following:105204

       (A) Whether or not the area in which the day programming is 105205
provided is less than two hundred feet away from the intermediate 105206
care facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID;105207

       (B) Whether or not the day programming is provided by an 105208
individual who, or organization that, is a related party to the 105209
provider of the intermediate care facility for the mentally 105210
retardedICF/IID.105211

       Sec. 5111.241.        Sec. 5124.21.  (A) TheFor each fiscal year, the105212
department of job and family servicesdevelopmental disabilities105213
shall pay a provider fordetermine each of the provider's eligible 105214
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded aICF/IID's105215
per resident permedicaid day payment rate for indirect care 105216
costs established prospectively each fiscal year for each 105217
facility. TheExcept as otherwise provided in this chapter, an 105218
ICF/IID's rate shall be determined prospectively. Subject to 105219
section 5124.28 of the Revised Code, an ICF/IID's rate for each 105220
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded shall be the 105221
sum of the following, but shall not exceedlesser of the 105222
individual rate determined under division (B) of this section and105223
the maximum rate establisheddetermined for the facility's105224
ICF/IID's peer group under division (B)(C) of this section.105225

       (B) An ICF/IID's individual rate is the sum of the following:105226

       (1) The facility'sICF/IID's desk-reviewed, actual, 105227
allowable, per diem indirect care costs from the calendar year 105228
immediately preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be 105229
paid, adjusted for the inflation rate estimated under division 105230
(C)(D)(1) of this section;105231

       (2) AnIf the ICF/IID has more than eight beds, an efficiency 105232
incentive in the following amount:105233

       (a) For fiscal years ending in even-numbered calendar years:105234

       (i) In the case of intermediate care facilities for the 105235
mentally retarded withmore than eight beds,year 2014, seven and 105236
one-tenth per cent of the maximum rate established for the 105237
facility'sICF/IID's peer group under division (B)(C) of this 105238
section;105239

       (ii) In the case of intermediate care facilities for the 105240
mentally retarded with(b) For fiscal year 2015, the following 105241
amount:105242

       (i) The amount calculated for fiscal year 2014 under division 105243
(B)(2)(a) of this section if the provider of the ICF/IID obtains 105244
the department's approval to become a downsized ICF/IID and the 105245
approval is conditioned on the downsizing being completed not 105246
later than July 1, 2018;105247

       (ii) One-half of the amount calculated for fiscal year 2014 105248
under division (B)(2)(a) of this section if division (B)(2)(b)(i) 105249
of this section does not apply to the ICF/IID.105250

       (c) For fiscal year 2016 and each fiscal year thereafter 105251
ending in an even-numbered calendar year, the following 105252
percentages of the maximum rate established for the ICF/IID's peer 105253
group under division (C) of this section:105254

       (i) Seven and one-tenth per cent if the provider of the 105255
ICF/IID obtains the department's approval to become a downsized 105256
ICF/IID and the approval is conditioned on the downsizing being 105257
completed not later than July 1, 2018;105258

       (ii) Three and fifty-five hundredths per cent if division 105259
(B)(2)(c)(i) of this section does not apply to the ICF/IID.105260

        (d) For fiscal year 2017 and each fiscal year thereafter 105261
ending in an odd-numbered calendar year, the amount calculated for 105262
the immediately preceding fiscal year under division (B)(2)(c) of 105263
this section.105264

       (3) If the ICF/IID has eight or fewer beds, an efficiency 105265
incentive in the following amount:105266

       (a) For each fiscal year ending in an even-numbered calendar 105267
year, seven per cent of the maximum rate established for the 105268
facility'sICF/IID's peer group under division (B)(C) of this 105269
section;105270

       (b) For each fiscal yearsyear ending in an odd-numbered 105271
calendar yearsyear, the amount calculated for the immediately105272
preceding fiscal year under division (A)(2)(B)(3)(a) of this 105273
section.105274

       (B)(C)(1) The maximum rate for indirect care costs for each 105275
peer group of intermediate care facilities for the mentally 105276
retardedICFs/IID with more than eight beds specified in rules 105277
adopted under division (D) of this section shall be determined as 105278
follows:105279

       (a) For each fiscal yearsyear ending in an even-numbered 105280
calendar yearsyear, the maximum rate for each such peer group 105281
shall be the rate that is no less than twelve and four-tenths per 105282
cent above the median desk-reviewed, actual, allowable, per diem 105283
indirect care cost for all intermediate care facilities for the 105284
mentally retarded with more than eight bedsICFs/IID in the peer105285
group,(excluding facilitiesICFs/IID in the peer group whose 105286
indirect care costs for that period are more than three standard 105287
deviations from the mean desk-reviewed, actual, allowable, per 105288
diem indirect care cost for all intermediate care facilities for 105289
the mentally retardedICFs/IID with more than eight beds,) for the 105290
calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal year in which the 105291
rate will be paid, adjusted by the inflation rate estimated under 105292
division (C)(D)(1) of this section.105293

       (b) For each fiscal yearsyear ending in an odd-numbered 105294
calendar yearsyear, the maximum rate for each such peer group is 105295
the peer group's maximum rate for the previous fiscal year, 105296
adjusted for the inflation rate estimated under division (C)(D)(2) 105297
of this section.105298

       (2) The maximum rate for indirect care costs for each peer 105299
group of intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded105300
ICFs/IID with eight or fewer beds specified in rules adopted under 105301
division (D) of this section shall be determined as follows:105302

       (a) For each fiscal yearsyear ending in an even-numbered 105303
calendar yearsyear, the maximum rate for each such peer group 105304
shall be the rate that is no less than ten and three-tenths per 105305
cent above the median desk-reviewed, actual, allowable, per diem 105306
indirect care cost for all intermediate care facilities for the 105307
mentally retarded with eight or fewer bedsICFs/IID in the peer105308
group,(excluding facilitiesICFs/IID in the peer group whose 105309
indirect care costs are more than three standard deviations from 105310
the mean desk-reviewed, actual, allowable, per diem indirect care 105311
cost for all intermediate care facilities for the mentally 105312
retardedICFs/IID with eight or fewer beds,) for the calendar year 105313
immediately preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be 105314
paid, adjusted by the inflation rate estimated under division 105315
(C)(D)(1) of this section.105316

       (b) For each fiscal years that endyear ending in an105317
odd-numbered calendar yearsyear, the maximum rate for each such105318
peer group is the peer group's maximum rate for the previous 105319
fiscal year, adjusted for the inflation rate estimated under 105320
division (C)(D)(2) of this section.105321

       (3) The department shall not recalculateredetermine a 105322
maximum rate for indirect care costs under division (B)(C)(1) or 105323
(2) of this section based on additional information that it 105324
receives after the maximum rate is set. The department shall 105325
recalculateredetermine the maximum rate for indirect care costs 105326
only if it made an error in computing the maximum rate based on 105327
the information available to the department at the time of the 105328
original calculation.105329

       (C)(D)(1) When adjusting rates for inflation under divisions 105330
(A)(B)(1), (B)(C)(1)(a), and (B)(C)(2)(a) of this section, the 105331
department shall estimate the rate of inflation for the 105332
eighteen-month period beginning on the first day of July of the 105333
calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal year in which the 105334
rate will be paid and ending on the thirty-first day of December 105335
of the fiscal year in which the rate will be paid. To estimate the 105336
rate of inflation, the department shall use the following:105337

       (a) TheSubject to division (D)(1)(b) of this section, the105338
consumer price index for all items for all urban consumers for the 105339
north centralmidwest region, published by the United States 105340
bureau of labor statistics;105341

       (b) If the United States bureau of labor statistics ceases to 105342
publish the index specified in division (C)(D)(1)(a) of this 105343
section, a comparable index that the bureau publishes and the 105344
department determines is appropriate.105345

       (2) When adjusting rates for inflation under divisions 105346
(B)(C)(1)(b) and (B)(C)(2)(b) of this section, the department 105347
shall estimate the rate of inflation for the twelve-month period 105348
beginning on the first day of January of the fiscal year 105349
immediately preceding the fiscal year in which the rate will be 105350
paid and ending on the thirty-first day of December of the fiscal 105351
year in which the rate will be paid. To estimate the rate of 105352
inflation, the department shall use the following:105353

       (a) TheSubject to division (D)(2)(b) of this section, the105354
consumer price index for all items for all urban consumers for the 105355
north centralmidwest region, published by the United States 105356
bureau of labor statistics;105357

       (b) If the United States bureau of labor statistics ceases to 105358
publish the index specified in division (C)(D)(2)(a) of this 105359
section, a comparable index that the bureau publishes and the 105360
department determines is appropriate.105361

       (3) If an inflation rate estimated under division (C)(D)(1) 105362
or (2) of this section is different from the actual inflation rate 105363
for the relevant time period, as measured using the same index, 105364
the difference shall be added to or subtracted from the inflation 105365
rate estimated pursuant to this division for the following fiscal 105366
year.105367

       (D)(E) The director of job and family servicesdevelopmental 105368
disabilities shall adopt rules under section 5111.025124.03 of 105369
the Revised Code that specify peer groups of intermediate care 105370
facilities for the mentally retardedICFs/IID with more than eight 105371
beds, and peer groups of intermediate care facilities for the 105372
mentally retardedICFs/IID with eight or fewer beds, based on 105373
findings of significant per diem indirect care cost differences 105374
due to geography and facility bed-size. The rules also may specify 105375
peer groups based on findings of significant per diem indirect 105376
care cost differences due to other factors, including case-mix.105377

       Sec. 5111.235.        Sec. 5124.23. (A) TheFor each fiscal year, the105378
department of job and family servicesdevelopmental disabilities105379
shall pay a provider fordetermine each of the provider's eligible 105380
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded aICF/IID's105381
per resident permedicaid day payment rate for other protected 105382
costs established prospectively each fiscal year for each 105383
facility. TheExcept as otherwise provided in this chapter, an 105384
ICF/IID's rate shall be determined prospectively. An ICF/IID's105385
rate for each facility shall be the facility'sICF/IID's105386
desk-reviewed, actual, allowable, per diem other protected costs 105387
from the calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal year in 105388
which the rate will be paid, all adjusted for the estimated 105389
inflation rate for the eighteen-month period beginning on the 105390
first day of July of the calendar year immediately preceding the 105391
fiscal year in which the rate will be paid and ending on the 105392
thirty-first day of December of that fiscal year. The department 105393
shall estimate inflation using the index specified in division (B) 105394
of this section. If the estimated inflation rate for the 105395
eighteen-month period is different from the actual inflation rate 105396
for that period, the difference shall be added to or subtracted 105397
from the inflation rate estimated for the following year.105398

       (B) The department shall use the following index for the 105399
purpose of division (A) of this section:105400

       (1) TheSubject to division (B)(2) of this section, the105401
consumer price index for all urban consumers for nonprescription 105402
drugs and medical supplies, as published by the United States 105403
bureau of labor statistics;105404

       (2) If the United States bureau of labor statistics ceases to 105405
publish the index specified in division (B)(1) of this section, 105406
the index that is subsequently published by the bureau and covers 105407
nonprescription drugs and medical supplies.105408

       Sec. 5124.25.  (A) Subject to division (D) of this section, 105409
the department of developmental disabilities may pay a medicaid 105410
rate add-on to an ICF/IID provider for outlier ICF/IID services 105411
the ICF/IID provides to qualifying ventilator-dependent residents 105412
on or after the effective date of this section, if the provider 105413
applies to the department of developmental disabilities to receive 105414
the rate add-on and the department approves the application. The 105415
department of developmental disabilities may approve a provider's 105416
application if all of the following apply:105417

       (1) The provider submits to the department of developmental 105418
disabilities a best practices protocol for providing outlier 105419
ICF/IID services under this section and the department of 105420
developmental disabilities determines that the protocol is 105421
acceptable;105422

       (2) The provider executes with the department of medicaid an 105423
addendum to its provider agreement for the ICF/IID regarding the 105424
outlier ICF/IID services;105425

       (3) The provider and ICF/IID meet all other eligibility 105426
requirements for the rate add-on established in rules authorized 105427
by this section. 105428

       (B) An ICF/IID that has been approved by the department of 105429
developmental disabilities to provider outlier ICF/IID services 105430
under this section shall provide the services in accordance with 105431
both of the following:105432

       (1) The best practices protocol the department of 105433
developmental disabilities determined is acceptable;105434

       (2) Requirements regarding the services established in rules 105435
authorized by this section.105436

       (C) To qualify to receive outlier ICF/IID services from an 105437
ICF/IID under this section, a resident of the ICF/IID must be a 105438
medicaid recipient, be under twenty-two years of age, be dependent 105439
on a ventilator, and meet all other eligibility requirements 105440
established in rules authorized by this section.105441

       (D) The department of developmental disabilities shall 105442
negotiate the amount of the medicaid payment rate add-on, if any, 105443
to be paid under this section, or the method by which that amount 105444
is to be determined, with the department of medicaid. The 105445
department of developmental disabilities shall not pay the rate 105446
add-on unless the department has approved the amount of the rate 105447
add-on or method by which the amount is to be determined.105448

       Sec. 5124.28.  Notwithstanding any provision of section 105449
5124.17 or 5124.21 of the Revised Code, the director of 105450
developmental disabilities may adopt rules under section 5124.03 105451
of the Revised Code that provide for the determination of a 105452
combined maximum payment limit for indirect care costs and costs 105453
of ownership for ICFs/IID with eight or fewer beds.105454

       Sec. 5111.263.        Sec. 5124.29.  Except as otherwise provided in 105455
section 5111.2645124.30 of the Revised Code, the department of 105456
job and family servicesdevelopmental disabilities, in determining 105457
whether an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded's105458
ICF/IID's direct care costs and indirect care costs are allowable, 105459
shall place no limit on specific categories of reasonable costs 105460
other than compensation of owners, compensation of relatives of 105461
owners, and compensation of administrators.105462

       Compensation cost limits for owners and relatives of owners 105463
shall be based on compensation costs for individuals who hold 105464
comparable positions but who are not owners or relatives of 105465
owners, as reported on facilityICFs/IID's cost reports. As used 105466
in this section, "comparable position" means the position that is 105467
held by the owner or the owner's relative, if that position is 105468
listed separately on the cost report form, or if the position is 105469
not listed separately, the group of positions that is listed on 105470
the cost report form and that includes the position held by the 105471
owner or the owner's relative. In the case of an owner or owner's 105472
relative who serves the facilityICFs/IID in a capacity such as 105473
corporate officer, proprietor, or partner for which no comparable 105474
position or group of positions is listed on the cost report form, 105475
the compensation cost limit shall be based on civil service 105476
equivalents and shall be specified in rules adopted under section 105477
5111.025124.03 of the Revised Code.105478

       Compensation cost limits for administrators shall be based on 105479
compensation costs for administrators who are not owners or 105480
relatives of owners, as reported on facilityICFs/IID's cost 105481
reports. Compensation cost limits for administrators of four or 105482
more intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded105483
ICFs/IID shall be the same as the limits for administrators of 105484
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retardedICFs/IID105485
with one hundred fifty or more beds.105486

       Sec. 5124.30.  Except as provided in section 5124.17 of the 105487
Revised Code, the costs of goods, services, and facilities, 105488
furnished to an ICF/IID provider by a related party are includable 105489
in the allowable costs of the provider at the reasonable cost to 105490
the related party.105491

       Sec. 5124.31.  The department of developmental disabilities 105492
shall adjust medicaid payment rates determined under this chapter 105493
to account for reasonable additional costs that must be incurred 105494
by ICFs/IID to comply with requirements of federal or state 105495
statutes, rules, or policies enacted or amended after January 1, 105496
1992, or with orders issued by state or local fire authorities.105497

       Sec. 5124.32.  The department of developmental disabilities 105498
shall not reduce an ICF/IID's medicaid payment rate determined 105499
under this chapter on the basis that the provider charges a lower 105500
rate to any resident who is not eligible for medicaid.105501

       Sec. 5124.33.  No medicaid payment shall be made to an 105502
ICF/IID provider for the day a medicaid recipient is discharged 105503
from the ICF/IID.105504

       Sec. 5111.33.        Sec. 5124.34. Reimbursement to a(A) The department 105505
of developmental disabilities shall pay an ICF/IID provider of an 105506
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded under 105507
sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Code shall include 105508
payments to the provider, at a rate equal to the percentageone 105509
hundred per cent of the per residenttotal per medicaid day rates 105510
that the department of job and family services has established105511
payment rate determined for the provider's facilityICF/IID under 105512
sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Code for the fiscal 105513
year for which the cost of services is reimbursed,this chapter to 105514
reserve a bed for a resident who is a medicaid recipient during a 105515
temporary absence under conditions prescribed by the department, 105516
to include hospitalization for an acute condition, visits with 105517
relatives and friends, and participation in therapeutic programs 105518
outside the facility, when theif all of the following apply:105519

       (1) The recipient is temporarily absent from the ICF/IID for 105520
a reason that makes the absence qualified for payments under this 105521
section as specified in rules authorized by this section;105522

       (2) The resident's plan of care provides for suchthe absence 105523
and federal;105524

       (3) Federal financial participation in the payments is 105525
available for the payments. The105526

       (B) The maximum period during which medicaid payments may be 105527
made to reserve a bed shall not exceed the maximum period 105528
specified underin federal regulations, and shall not be more 105529
than thirty days during any calendar year for hospital stays, 105530
visits with relatives and friends, and participation in 105531
therapeutic programs.105532

       Recipientsprograms. However, a resident shall not be subject 105533
to a maximum period during which payments may be made to reserve a 105534
bed in an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded if 105535
prior authorization of the department is obtained for hospital 105536
stays, visits with relatives and friends, and participation in 105537
therapeutic programs. The105538

       (C)(1) The director of job and family servicesdevelopmental 105539
disabilities shall adopt rules under section 5111.025124.03 of 105540
the Revised Code establishingas necessary to implement this 105541
section, including rules that do the following:105542

       (a) Specify the reasons for which a temporary absence from an 105543
ICF/IID makes the absence qualify for payments under this section;105544

       (b) Establish conditions under which prior authorization may 105545
be obtained for the purpose of division (B) of this section.105546

       (2) The rules authorized by division (C)(1)(a) of this 105547
section shall include the following as reasons for which a 105548
temporary absence from an ICF/IID qualifies for payments under 105549
this section:105550

       (a) Hospitalization for acute conditions;105551

       (b) Visits with relatives and friends;105552

       (c) Participation in therapeutic programs outside the 105553
ICF/IID.105554

       Sec. 5124.35.  Medicaid payments may be made for ICF/IID 105555
services provided not later than thirty days after the effective 105556
date of an involuntary termination of the ICF/IID that provides 105557
the services if the services are provided to a medicaid recipient 105558
who is eligible for the services and resided in the ICF/IID before 105559
the effective date of the involuntary termination.105560

       Sec. 5124.37.  The department of developmental disabilities 105561
shall make its best efforts each year to determine ICFs/IID's 105562
medicaid payment rates under this chapter in time to pay the rates 105563
by August fifteenth of each fiscal year. If the department is 105564
unable to calculate the rates so that they can be paid by that 105565
date, the department shall pay each provider the rate calculated 105566
for the provider's ICFs/IID under those sections at the end of the 105567
previous fiscal year. If the department also is unable to 105568
calculate the rates to make the payments due by the fifteenth day 105569
of September and the fifteenth day of October, the department 105570
shall pay the previous fiscal year's rate to make those payments. 105571
The department may increase by five per cent the previous fiscal 105572
year's rate paid for any ICF/IID pursuant to this section at the 105573
request of the provider. The department shall use rates calculated 105574
for the current fiscal year to make the payments due by the 105575
fifteenth day of November.105576

       If an ICF/IID's medicaid payment rate paid under this section 105577
is lower than the rate calculated for it for the current fiscal 105578
year, the department shall pay the provider the difference between 105579
the two rates for the number of days for which the provider is 105580
paid the lower rate. If an ICF/IID's medicaid payment rate paid 105581
under this section is higher than the rate calculated for it for 105582
the current fiscal year, the provider shall refund to the 105583
department the difference between the two rates for the number of 105584
days for which the provider is paid the higher rate.105585

       Sec. 5124.38.  (A) The director of developmental disabilities 105586
shall establish a process under which an ICF/IID provider, or a 105587
group or association of ICF/IID providers, may seek 105588
reconsideration of medicaid payment rates established under this 105589
chapter, including a rate for direct care costs redetermined 105590
before the effective date of the rate as a result of an exception 105591
review conducted under section 5124.193 of the Revised Code. 105592
Except as provided in divisions (B) to (D) of this section, the 105593
only issue that a provider, group, or association may raise in the 105594
rate reconsideration is whether the rate was calculated in 105595
accordance with this chapter and the rules adopted under section 105596
5124.03 of the Revised Code. The provider, group, or association 105597
may submit written arguments or other materials that support its 105598
position. The provider, group, or association and department shall 105599
take actions regarding the rate reconsideration within time frames 105600
specified in rules authorized by this section.105601

       If the department determines, as a result of the rate 105602
reconsideration, that the rate established for one or more 105603
ICFs/IID is less than the rate to which the ICF/IID is entitled, 105604
the department shall increase the rate. If the department has paid 105605
the incorrect rate for a period of time, the department shall pay 105606
the provider of the ICF/IID the difference between the amount the 105607
provider was paid for that period for the ICF/IID and the amount 105608
the provider should have been paid for the ICF/IID.105609

       (B)(1) The department, through the rate reconsideration 105610
process, may increase during a fiscal year the medicaid payment 105611
rate determined for an ICF/IID under this chapter if the provider 105612
demonstrates that the ICF/IID's actual, allowable costs have 105613
increased because of any of the following extreme circumstances:105614

       (a) A natural disaster;105615

       (b) A nonextensive renovation approved under division (D) of 105616
section 5124.17 of the Revised Code;105617

       (c) If the ICF/IID has an appropriate claims management 105618
program, an increase in the ICF/IID's workers' compensation 105619
experience rating of greater than five per cent;105620

       (d) If the ICF/IID is an inner-city ICF/IID, increased 105621
security costs;105622

       (e) A change of ownership that results from bankruptcy, 105623
foreclosure, or findings by the department of health of violations 105624
of medicaid certification requirements;105625

       (f) Other extreme circumstances specified in rules authorized 105626
by this section.105627

       (2) An ICF/IID may qualify for a rate increase under this 105628
division only if its per diem, actual, allowable costs have 105629
increased to a level that exceeds its total rate. An increase 105630
under this division is subject to any rate limitations or maximum 105631
rates established by this chapter for specific cost centers. Any 105632
rate increase granted under this division shall take effect on the 105633
first day of the first month after the department receives the 105634
request.105635

       (C) The department, through the rate reconsideration process, 105636
may increase an ICF/IID's rate as determined under this chapter if 105637
the department, in the department's sole discretion, determines 105638
that the rate as determined under those sections works an extreme 105639
hardship on the ICF/IID.105640

       (D) When beds certified for the medicaid program are added to 105641
an existing ICF/IID or replaced at the same site, the department, 105642
through the rate reconsideration process, may increase the 105643
ICF/IID's rate for capital costs proportionately, as limited by 105644
any applicable limitation under section 5124.17 of the Revised 105645
Code, to account for the costs of the beds that are added or 105646
replaced. If the department makes this increase, it shall make the 105647
increase one month after the first day of the month after the 105648
department receives sufficient documentation of the costs. Any 105649
rate increase granted under this division after June 30, 1993, 105650
shall remain in effect until the effective date of a rate for 105651
capital costs determined under section 5124.17 of the Revised Code 105652
that includes costs incurred for a full calendar year for the bed 105653
addition or bed replacement. The ICF/IID shall report double 105654
accumulated depreciation in an amount equal to the depreciation 105655
included in the rate adjustment on its cost report for the first 105656
year of operation. During the term of any loan used to finance a 105657
project for which a rate adjustment is granted under this 105658
division, if the ICF/IID is operated by the same provider, the 105659
provider shall subtract from the interest costs it reports on its 105660
cost report an amount equal to the difference between the 105661
following:105662

       (1) The actual, allowable interest costs for the loan during 105663
the calendar year for which the costs are being reported;105664

       (2) The actual, allowable interest costs attributable to the 105665
loan that were used to calculate the rates paid to the provider 105666
for the ICF/IID during the same calendar year.105667

       (E) The department's decision at the conclusion of the 105668
reconsideration process is not subject to any administrative 105669
proceedings under Chapter 119. or any other provision of the 105670
Revised Code.105671

       (F) The director of developmental disabilities shall adopt 105672
rules under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code as necessary to 105673
implement this section.105674

       Sec. 5124.40.  If an ICF/IID provider properly amends a cost 105675
report for an ICF/IID under section 5124.107 of the Revised Code 105676
and the amended report shows that the provider received a lower 105677
medicaid payment rate under the original cost report than the 105678
provider was entitled to receive, the department of developmental 105679
disabilities shall adjust the provider's rate for the ICF/IID 105680
prospectively to reflect the corrected information. The department 105681
shall pay the adjusted rate beginning two months after the first 105682
day of the month after the provider files the amended cost report.105683

       If the department finds, from an exception review of resident 105684
assessment data conducted pursuant to section 5124.193 of the 105685
Revised Code after the effective date of an ICF/IID's rate for 105686
direct care costs that is based on the resident assessment data, 105687
that inaccurate resident assessment data resulted in the provider 105688
receiving a lower rate for the ICF/IID than the provider was 105689
entitled to receive, the department prospectively shall adjust the 105690
provider's rate for the ICF/IID accordingly. The department shall 105691
make payments to the provider using the adjusted rate for the 105692
remainder of the calendar quarter for which the resident 105693
assessment data is used to determine the rate, beginning one month 105694
after the first day of the month after the exception review is 105695
completed.105696

       Sec. 5124.41.  (A) The department of developmental 105697
disabilities shall redetermine a provider's medicaid payment rate 105698
for an ICF/IID using revised information if any of the following 105699
results in a determination that the provider received a higher 105700
medicaid payment rate for the ICF/IID than the provider was 105701
entitled to receive:105702

       (1) The provider properly amends a cost report for the 105703
ICF/IID under section 5124.107 of the Revised Code;105704

       (2) The department makes a finding based on an audit under 105705
section 5124.109 of the Revised Code;105706

       (3) The department makes a finding based on an exception 105707
review of resident assessment data conducted under section 105708
5124.193 of the Revised Code after the effective date of the 105709
ICF/IID's rate for direct care costs that is based on the resident 105710
assessment data.105711

       (B) The department shall apply the redetermined rate to the 105712
periods when the provider received the incorrect rate to determine 105713
the amount of the overpayment. The provider shall refund the 105714
amount of the overpayment. The department may charge the provider 105715
the following amount of interest from the time the overpayment was 105716
made:105717

       (1) If the overpayment resulted from costs reported for 105718
calendar year 1993, the interest shall be not greater than one and 105719
one-half times the current average bank prime rate.105720

       (2) If the overpayment resulted from costs reported for a 105721
subsequent calendar year:105722

       (a) The interest shall be not greater than two times the 105723
current average bank prime rate if the overpayment was not more 105724
than one per cent of the total medicaid payments to the provider 105725
for the fiscal year for which the incorrect information was used 105726
to determine a rate.105727

       (b) The interest shall be not greater than two and one-half 105728
times the current average bank prime rate if the overpayment was 105729
more than one per cent of the total medicaid payments to the 105730
provider for the fiscal year for which the incorrect information 105731
was used to determine a rate.105732

       Sec. 5124.42.  In addition to the other penalties authorized 105733
by this chapter, the department of developmental disabilities may 105734
impose the following penalties on an ICF/IID provider:105735

       (A) If the provider does not furnish invoices or other 105736
documentation that the department requests during an audit within 105737
sixty days after the request, a fine of not more than the greater 105738
of the following:105739

       (1) One thousand dollars per audit;105740

       (2) Twenty-five per cent of the cumulative amount by which 105741
the costs for which documentation was not furnished increased the 105742
total medicaid payments to the provider during the fiscal year for 105743
which the costs were used to determine a rate.105744

       (B) If an exiting operator or owner fails to provide notice 105745
of a facility closure or voluntary termination as required by 105746
section 5124.50 of the Revised Code, or an exiting operator or 105747
owner and entering operator fail to provide notice of a change of 105748
operator as required by section 5124.51 of the Revised Code, a 105749
fine of not more than the current average bank prime rate plus 105750
four per cent of the last two monthly payments.105751

       Sec. 5124.43.  For the purposes of sections 5124.41 and 105752
5124.42 of the Revised Code, the department of developmental 105753
disabilities shall determine the current average bank prime rate 105754
using statistical release H.15, "selected interest rates," a 105755
weekly publication of the federal reserve board, or any successor 105756
publication. If statistical release H.15, or its successor, ceases 105757
to contain the bank prime rate information or ceases to be 105758
published, the department shall request a written statement of the 105759
average bank prime rate from the federal reserve bank of Cleveland 105760
or the federal reserve board.105761

       Sec. 5124.44.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this 105762
section, the department of developmental disabilities shall deduct 105763
the following from the next available medicaid payment the 105764
department makes to an ICF/IID provider who continues to 105765
participate in medicaid:105766

       (1) Any amount the provider is required to refund, and any 105767
interest charged, under section 5124.41 of the Revised Code;105768

       (2) The amount of any penalty imposed on the provider under 105769
section 5124.42 of the Revised Code.105770

       (B) The department and an ICF/IID provider may enter into an 105771
agreement under which a deduction required by division (A) of this 105772
section is taken in installments from payments the department 105773
makes to the provider.105774

       Sec. 5124.45.  The department of developmental disabilities 105775
shall transmit to the treasurer of state for deposit in the 105776
general revenue fund amounts collected from the following:105777

       (A) Refunds required by, and interest charged under, section 105778
5124.41 of the Revised Code;105779

       (B) Amounts collected from penalties imposed under section 105780
5124.42 of the Revised Code.105781

       Sec. 5124.46.  All of the following are subject to an 105782
adjudication conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 105783
Revised Code:105784

       (A) Any audit disallowance that the department of 105785
developmental disabilities makes as the result of an audit under 105786
section 5124.109 of the Revised Code;105787

       (B) Any adverse finding that results from an exception review 105788
of resident assessment data conducted for an ICF/IID under section 105789
5124.193 of the Revised Code after the effective date of the 105790
ICF/IID's medicaid payment rate for direct care costs that is 105791
based on the resident assessment data;105792

       (C) Any medicaid payment deemed an overpayment under section 105793
5124.523 of the Revised Code;105794

       (D) Any penalty the department imposes under section 5124.42 105795
of the Revised Code or section 5124.523 of the Revised Code.105796

       Sec. 5124.50.  An exiting operator or owner of an ICF/IID 105797
participating in the medicaid program shall provide the department 105798
of developmental disabilities and department of medicaid written 105799
notice of a facility closure or voluntary termination not less 105800
than ninety days before the effective date of the facility closure 105801
or voluntary termination. The written notice shall be provided to 105802
the department of developmental disabilities and department of 105803
medicaid in accordance with the method specified in rules 105804
authorized by section 5124.53 of the Revised Code.105805

       The written notice shall include all of the following:105806

       (A) The name of the exiting operator and, if any, the exiting 105807
operator's authorized agent;105808

       (B) The name of the ICF/IID that is the subject of the 105809
written notice;105810

       (C) The exiting operator's medicaid provider agreement number 105811
for the ICF/IID that is the subject of the written notice;105812

       (D) The effective date of the facility closure or voluntary 105813
termination;105814

       (E) The signature of the exiting operator's or owner's 105815
representative.105816

       Sec. 5124.51.  (A) An exiting operator or owner and entering 105817
operator shall provide the department of developmental 105818
disabilities and department of medicaid written notice of a change 105819
of operator if the ICF/IID participates in the medicaid program 105820
and the entering operator seeks to continue the ICF/IID's 105821
participation. The written notice shall be provided to the 105822
department of developmental disabilities and department of 105823
medicaid in accordance with the method specified in rules 105824
authorized by section 5124.53 of the Revised Code. The written 105825
notice shall be provided to the department of developmental 105826
disabilities and department of medicaid not later than forty-five 105827
days before the effective date of the change of operator if the 105828
change of operator does not entail the relocation of residents. 105829
The written notice shall be provided to the department of 105830
developmental disabilities and department of medicaid not later 105831
than ninety days before the effective date of the change of 105832
operator if the change of operator entails the relocation of 105833
residents. 105834

       The written notice shall include all of the following:105835

       (1) The name of the exiting operator and, if any, the exiting 105836
operator's authorized agent;105837

       (2) The name of the ICF/IID that is the subject of the change 105838
of operator;105839

       (3) The exiting operator's seven-digit medicaid legacy number 105840
and ten-digit national provider identifier number for the ICF/IID 105841
that is the subject of the change of operator;105842

       (4) The name of the entering operator;105843

       (5) The effective date of the change of operator;105844

       (6) The manner in which the entering operator becomes the 105845
ICF/IID's operator, including through sale, lease, merger, or 105846
other action;105847

       (7) If the manner in which the entering operator becomes the 105848
ICF/IID's operator involves more than one step, a description of 105849
each step;105850

       (8) Written authorization from the exiting operator or owner 105851
and entering operator for the department of medicaid to process a 105852
provider agreement for the entering operator;105853

       (9) The names and addresses of the persons to whom the 105854
department of developmental disabilities and department of 105855
medicaid should send initial correspondence regarding the change 105856
of operator;105857

       (10) The signature of the exiting operator's or owner's 105858
representative.105859

       (B) An exiting operator or owner and entering operator 105860
immediately shall provide the department of developmental 105861
disabilities and department of medicaid notice of any changes to 105862
information included in a written notice of a change of operator 105863
that occur after that notice is provided to the department of 105864
developmental disabilities and department of medicaid. The notice 105865
of the changes shall be provided to the department of 105866
developmental disabilities and department of medicaid in 105867
accordance with the method specified in rules authorized by 105868
section 5124.53 of the Revised Code.105869

       Sec. 5124.511.  The department of medicaid may enter into a 105870
provider agreement with an entering operator that goes into effect 105871
at 12:01 a.m. on the effective date of the change of operator if 105872
all of the following requirements are met:105873

       (A) The department receives a properly completed written 105874
notice required by section 5124.51 of the Revised Code on or 105875
before the date required by that section.105876

       (B) The department receives both of the following in 105877
accordance with the method specified in rules authorized by 105878
section 5124.53 of the Revised Code and not later than ten days 105879
after the effective date of the change of operator:105880

       (1) From the entering operator, a completed application for a 105881
provider agreement and all other forms and documents specified in 105882
rules authorized by section 5124.53 of the Revised Code;105883

       (2) From the exiting operator or owner, all forms and 105884
documents specified in rules authorized by section 5124.53 of the 105885
Revised Code.105886

       (C) The entering operator is eligible to enter into a 105887
provider agreement for the ICF/IID as provided in section 5124.06 105888
of the Revised Code.105889

       Sec. 5124.512.  (A) The department of medicaid may enter into 105890
a provider agreement with an entering operator that goes into 105891
effect at 12:01 a.m. on the date determined under division (B) of 105892
this section if all of the following are the case:105893

       (1) The department receives a properly completed written 105894
notice required by section 5124.51 of the Revised Code.105895

       (2) The department receives, from the entering operator and 105896
in accordance with the method specified in rules authorized by 105897
section 5124.53 of the Revised Code, a completed application for a 105898
provider agreement and all other forms and documents specified in 105899
rules adopted under that section.105900

       (3) The department receives, from the exiting operator or 105901
owner and in accordance with the method specified in rules 105902
authorized by section 5124.53 of the Revised Code, all forms and 105903
documents specified in rules adopted under that section.105904

       (4) One or more of the following apply:105905

       (a) The requirement of division (A)(1) of this section is met 105906
after the time required by section 5124.51 of the Revised Code;105907

       (b) The requirement of division (A)(2) of this section is met 105908
more than ten days after the effective date of the change of 105909
operator;105910

       (c) The requirement of division (A)(3) of this section is met 105911
more than ten days after the effective date of the change of 105912
operator.105913

       (5) The entering operator is eligible to enter into a 105914
provider agreement for the ICF/IID as provided in section 5124.06 105915
of the Revised Code.105916

       (B) The department shall determine the date a provider 105917
agreement entered into under this section is to go into effect as 105918
follows:105919

       (1) The effective date shall give the department sufficient 105920
time to process the change of operator and give the department 105921
sufficient time to assure no duplicate payments are made and make 105922
the withholding required by section 5124.521 of the Revised Code.105923

       (2) The effective date shall be not earlier than the latest 105924
of the following:105925

       (a) The effective date of the change of operator;105926

       (b) The date that the entering operator complies with section 105927
5124.51 of the Revised Code and division (A)(2) of this section;105928

       (c) The date that the exiting operator or owner complies with 105929
section 5124.51 of the Revised Code and division (A)(3) of this 105930
section.105931

       (3) The effective date shall be not later than the following 105932
after the later of the dates specified in division (B)(2) of this 105933
section:105934

       (a) Forty-five days if the change of operator does not entail 105935
the relocation of residents;105936

       (b) Ninety days if the change of operator entails the 105937
relocation of residents.105938

       Sec. 5124.513.  A provider that enters into a provider 105939
agreement with the department of medicaid under section 5124.511 105940
or 5124.512 of the Revised Code shall do all of the following:105941

       (A) Comply with all applicable federal statutes and 105942
regulations;105943

       (B) Comply with section 5124.07 of the Revised Code and all 105944
other applicable state statutes and rules;105945

       (C) Comply with all the terms and conditions of the exiting 105946
operator's provider agreement, including all of the following:105947

       (1) Any plan of correction;105948

       (2) Compliance with health and safety standards;105949

       (3) Compliance with the ownership and financial interest 105950
disclosure requirements of 42 C.F.R. 455.104, 455.105, and 1002.3;105951

       (4) Compliance with the civil rights requirements of 45 105952
C.F.R. parts 80, 84, and 90;105953

       (5) Compliance with additional requirements imposed by the 105954
department;105955

       (6) Any sanctions relating to remedies for violation of the 105956
provider agreement, including deficiencies, compliance periods, 105957
accountability periods, monetary penalties, notification for 105958
correction of contract violations, and history of deficiencies.105959

       Sec. 5124.514.  In the case of a change of operator, the 105960
exiting operator shall be considered to be the operator of the 105961
ICF/IID for purposes of the medicaid program, including medicaid 105962
payments, until the effective date of the entering operator's 105963
provider agreement if the provider agreement is entered into under 105964
section 5124.511 or 5124.512 of the Revised Code.105965

       Sec. 5124.515.  The department of medicaid may enter into a 105966
provider agreement as provided in section 5124.07 of the Revised 105967
Code, rather than section 5124.511 or 5124.512 of the Revised 105968
Code, with an entering operator if the entering operator does not 105969
agree to a provider agreement that satisfies the requirements of 105970
division (C) of section 5124.513 of the Revised Code. The 105971
department may not enter into the provider agreement unless the 105972
department of health certifies the ICF/IID under Title XIX. The 105973
effective date of the provider agreement shall not precede any of 105974
the following:105975

       (A) The date that the department of health certifies the 105976
ICF/IID;105977

       (B) The effective date of the change of operator;105978

       (C) The date the requirement of section 5124.51 of the 105979
Revised Code is satisfied.105980

       Sec. 5124.516.  The director of developmental disabilities 105981
may adopt rules under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code 105982
governing adjustments to the medicaid reimbursement rate for an 105983
ICF/IID that undergoes a change of operator. No rate adjustment 105984
resulting from a change of operator shall be effective before the 105985
effective date of the entering operator's provider agreement. This 105986
is the case regardless of whether the provider agreement is 105987
entered into under section 5124.511, section 5124.512, or, 105988
pursuant to section 5124.515, section 5124.07 of the Revised Code.105989

       Sec. 5124.517.  The department of developmental disabilities' 105990
determination that a change of operator has or has not occurred 105991
for purposes of licensure under section 5123.19 of the Revised 105992
Code shall not affect either of the following:105993

       (A) A determination by the department of developmental 105994
disabilities or department of medicaid of whether or when a change 105995
of operator occurs;105996

       (B) The department of medicaid's determination of the 105997
effective date of an entering operator's provider agreement under 105998
section 5124.511, section 5124.512, or, pursuant to section 105999
5124.515, section 5124.07 of the Revised Code.106000

       Sec. 5124.52.  (A) On receipt of a written notice under 106001
section 5124.50 of the Revised Code of a facility closure or 106002
voluntary termination, on receipt of a written notice under 106003
section 5124.51 of the Revised Code of a change of operator, or on 106004
the effective date of an involuntary termination, the department 106005
of developmental disabilities shall estimate the amount of any 106006
overpayments made under the medicaid program to the exiting 106007
operator, including overpayments the exiting operator disputes, 106008
and other actual and potential debts the exiting operator owes or 106009
may owe to the department and United States centers for medicare 106010
and medicaid services under the medicaid program, including a 106011
franchise permit fee.106012

       (B) In estimating the exiting operator's other actual and 106013
potential debts to the department and the United States centers 106014
for medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid program, the 106015
department shall use a debt estimation methodology the director of 106016
developmental disabilities shall establish in rules authorized by 106017
section 5124.53 of the Revised Code. The methodology shall provide 106018
for estimating all of the following that the department determines 106019
are applicable:106020

       (1) Refunds due the department under section 5124.41 of the 106021
Revised Code;106022

       (2) Interest owed to the department and United States centers 106023
for medicare and medicaid services;106024

       (3) Final civil monetary and other penalties for which all 106025
right of appeal has been exhausted;106026

       (4) Money owed the department and United States centers for 106027
medicare and medicaid services from any outstanding final fiscal 106028
audit, including a final fiscal audit for the last fiscal year or 106029
portion thereof in which the exiting operator participated in the 106030
medicaid program;106031

       (5) Other amounts the department determines are applicable.106032

       (C) The department shall provide the exiting operator written 106033
notice of the department's estimate under division (A) of this 106034
section not later than thirty days after the department receives 106035
the notice under section 5124.50 of the Revised Code of the 106036
facility closure or voluntary termination; the department receives 106037
the notice under section 5124.51 of the Revised Code of the change 106038
of operator; or the effective date of the involuntary termination. 106039
The department's written notice shall include the basis for the 106040
estimate.106041

       Sec. 5124.521.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (B), (C), 106042
and (D) of this section, the department of developmental 106043
disabilities may withhold from payment due an exiting operator 106044
under the medicaid program the total amount specified in the 106045
notice provided under division (C) of section 5124.52 of the 106046
Revised Code that the exiting operator owes or may owe to the 106047
department and United States centers for medicare and medicaid 106048
services under the medicaid program.106049

       (B) In the case of a change of operator and subject to 106050
division (E) of this section, the following shall apply regarding 106051
a withholding under division (A) of this section if the exiting 106052
operator or entering operator or an affiliated operator executes a 106053
successor liability agreement meeting the requirements of division 106054
(F) of this section:106055

       (1) If the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 106056
operator assumes liability for the total, actual amount of debt 106057
the exiting operator owes the department and the United States 106058
centers for medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid 106059
program as determined under section 5124.525 of the Revised Code, 106060
the department shall not make the withholding.106061

       (2) If the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 106062
operator assumes liability for only the portion of the amount 106063
specified in division (B)(1) of this section that represents the 106064
franchise permit fee the exiting operator owes, the department 106065
shall withhold not more than the difference between the total 106066
amount specified in the notice provided under division (C) of 106067
section 5124.52 of the Revised Code and the amount for which the 106068
exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated operator 106069
assumes liability.106070

       (C) In the case of a voluntary termination or facility 106071
closure and subject to division (E) of this section, the following 106072
shall apply regarding a withholding under division (A) of this 106073
section if the exiting operator or an affiliated operator executes 106074
a successor liability agreement meeting the requirements of 106075
division (F) of this section:106076

       (1) If the exiting operator or affiliated operator assumes 106077
liability for the total, actual amount of debt the exiting 106078
operator owes the department and the United States centers for 106079
medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid program as 106080
determined under section 5124.525 of the Revised Code, the 106081
department shall not make the withholding.106082

       (2) If the exiting operator or affiliated operator assumes 106083
liability for only the portion of the amount specified in division 106084
(C)(1) of this section that represents the franchise permit fee 106085
the exiting operator owes, the department shall withhold not more 106086
than the difference between the total amount specified in the 106087
notice provided under division (C) of section 5124.52 of the 106088
Revised Code and the amount for which the exiting operator or 106089
affiliated operator assumes liability.106090

       (D) In the case of an involuntary termination and subject to 106091
division (E) of this section, the following shall apply regarding 106092
a withholding under division (A) of this section if the exiting 106093
operator, the entering operator, or an affiliated operator 106094
executes a successor liability agreement meeting the requirements 106095
of division (F) of this section and the department approves the 106096
successor liability agreement:106097

       (1) If the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 106098
operator assumes liability for the total, actual amount of debt 106099
the exiting operator owes the department and the United States 106100
centers for medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid 106101
program as determined under section 5124.525 of the Revised Code, 106102
the department shall not make the withholding.106103

       (2) If the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 106104
operator assumes liability for only the portion of the amount 106105
specified in division (D)(1) of this section that represents the 106106
franchise permit fee the exiting operator owes, the department 106107
shall withhold not more than the difference between the total 106108
amount specified in the notice provided under division (C) of 106109
section 5124.52 of the Revised Code and the amount for which the 106110
exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated operator 106111
assumes liability.106112

       (E) For an exiting operator or affiliated operator to be 106113
eligible to enter into a successor liability agreement under 106114
division (B), (C), or (D) of this section, both of the following 106115
must apply:106116

       (1) The exiting operator or affiliated operator must have one 106117
or more valid provider agreements, other than the provider 106118
agreement for the ICF/IID that is the subject of the involuntary 106119
termination, voluntary termination, facility closure, or change of 106120
operator;106121

       (2) During the twelve-month period preceding either the 106122
effective date of the involuntary termination or the month in 106123
which the department receives the notice of the voluntary 106124
termination or facility closure under section 5124.50 of the 106125
Revised Code or the notice of the change of operator under section 106126
5124.51 of the Revised Code, the average monthly medicaid payment 106127
made to the exiting operator or affiliated operator pursuant to 106128
the exiting operator's or affiliated operator's one or more 106129
provider agreements, other than the provider agreement for the 106130
ICF/IID that is the subject of the involuntary termination, 106131
voluntary termination, facility closure, or change of operator, 106132
must equal at least ninety per cent of the sum of the following:106133

       (a) The average monthly medicaid payment made to the exiting 106134
operator pursuant to the exiting operator's provider agreement for 106135
the ICF/IID that is the subject of the involuntary termination, 106136
voluntary termination, facility closure, or change of operator;106137

       (b) Whichever of the following apply:106138

       (i) If the exiting operator or affiliated operator has 106139
assumed liability under one or more other successor liability 106140
agreements, the total amount for which the exiting operator or 106141
affiliated operator has assumed liability under the other 106142
successor liability agreements;106143

       (ii) If the exiting operator or affiliated operator has not 106144
assumed liability under any other successor liability agreements, 106145
zero.106146

       (F) A successor liability agreement executed under this 106147
section must comply with all of the following:106148

       (1) It must provide for the operator who executes the 106149
successor liability agreement to assume liability for either of 106150
the following as specified in the agreement:106151

       (a) The total, actual amount of debt the exiting operator 106152
owes the department and the United States centers for medicare and 106153
medicaid services under the medicaid program as determined under 106154
section 5124.525 of the Revised Code;106155

       (b) The portion of the amount specified in division (F)(1)(a) 106156
of this section that represents the franchise permit fee the 106157
exiting operator owes.106158

       (2) It may not require the operator who executes the 106159
successor liability agreement to furnish a surety bond.106160

       (3) It must provide that the department, after determining 106161
under section 5124.525 of the Revised Code the actual amount of 106162
debt the exiting operator owes the department and United States 106163
centers for medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid 106164
program, may deduct the lesser of the following from medicaid 106165
payments made to the operator who executes the successor liability 106166
agreement:106167

       (a) The total, actual amount of debt the exiting operator 106168
owes the department and the United States centers for medicare and 106169
medicaid services under the medicaid program as determined under 106170
section 5124.525 of the Revised Code;106171

       (b) The amount for which the operator who executes the 106172
successor liability agreement assumes liability under the 106173
agreement.106174

       (4) It must provide that the deductions authorized by 106175
division (F)(3) of this section are to be made for a number of 106176
months, not to exceed six, agreed to by the operator who executes 106177
the successor liability agreement and the department or, if the 106178
operator who executes the successor liability agreement and 106179
department cannot agree on a number of months that is less than 106180
six, a greater number of months determined by the attorney general 106181
pursuant to a claims collection process authorized by statute of 106182
this state.106183

       (5) It must provide that, if the attorney general determines 106184
the number of months for which the deductions authorized by 106185
division (F)(3) of this section are to be made, the operator who 106186
executes the successor liability agreement shall pay, in addition 106187
to the amount collected pursuant to the attorney general's claims 106188
collection process, the part of the amount so collected that, if 106189
not for division (H) of this section, would be required by section 106190
109.081 of the Revised Code to be paid into the attorney general 106191
claims fund.106192

       (G) Execution of a successor liability agreement does not 106193
waive an exiting operator's right to contest the amount specified 106194
in the notice the department provides the exiting operator under 106195
division (C) of section 5124.52 of the Revised Code.106196

       (H) Notwithstanding section 109.081 of the Revised Code, the 106197
entire amount that the attorney general, whether by employees or 106198
agents of the attorney general or by special counsel appointed 106199
pursuant to section 109.08 of the Revised Code, collects under a 106200
successor liability agreement, other than the additional amount 106201
the operator who executes the agreement is required by division 106202
(F)(5) of this section to pay, shall be paid to the department of 106203
developmental disabilities for deposit into the appropriate fund. 106204
The additional amount that the operator is required to pay shall 106205
be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the attorney 106206
general claims fund created under section 109.081 of the Revised 106207
Code.106208

       Sec. 5124.522.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of 106209
this section, an exiting operator shall file with the department 106210
of developmental disabilities a cost report not later than ninety 106211
days after the last day the exiting operator's provider agreement 106212
is in effect. The cost report shall cover the period that begins 106213
with the day after the last day covered by the operator's most 106214
recent previous cost report filed under section 5124.10 or 106215
5124.101 of the Revised Code and ends on the last day the exiting 106216
operator's provider agreement is in effect. The cost report shall 106217
include, as applicable, all of the following:106218

       (1) The sale price of the ICF/IID;106219

       (2) A final depreciation schedule that shows which assets are 106220
transferred to the buyer and which assets are not transferred to 106221
the buyer;106222

       (3) Any other information the department requires.106223

       (B) The department, at its sole discretion, may waive the 106224
requirement that an exiting operator file a cost report in 106225
accordance with division (A) of this section.106226

       Sec. 5124.523.  If an exiting operator required by section 106227
5124.522 of the Revised Code to file a cost report with the 106228
department of developmental disabilities fails to file the cost 106229
report in accordance with that section, all payments under the 106230
medicaid program for the period the cost report is required to 106231
cover are deemed overpayments until the date the department 106232
receives the properly completed cost report. The department may 106233
impose on the exiting operator a penalty of one hundred dollars 106234
for each calendar day the properly completed cost report is late.106235

       Sec. 5124.524.  The department of developmental disabilities 106236
may not provide an exiting operator final payment under the 106237
medicaid program until the department receives all properly 106238
completed cost reports the exiting operator is required to file 106239
under sections 5124.10 and 5124.522 of the Revised Code.106240

       Sec. 5124.525.  The department of developmental disabilities 106241
shall determine the actual amount of debt an exiting operator owes 106242
the department and the United States centers for medicare and 106243
medicaid services under the medicaid program by completing all 106244
final fiscal audits not already completed and performing all other 106245
appropriate actions the department determines to be necessary. The 106246
department shall issue an initial debt summary report on this 106247
matter not later than sixty days after the date the exiting 106248
operator files the properly completed cost report required by 106249
section 5124.522 of the Revised Code with the department or, if 106250
the department waives the cost report requirement for the exiting 106251
operator, sixty days after the date the department waives the cost 106252
report requirement. The initial debt summary report becomes the 106253
final debt summary report thirty-one days after the department 106254
issues the initial debt summary report unless the exiting 106255
operator, or an affiliated operator who executes a successor 106256
liability agreement under section 5124.521 of the Revised Code, 106257
requests a review before that date.106258

       The exiting operator, and an affiliated operator who executes 106259
a successor liability agreement under section 5124.521 of the 106260
Revised Code, may request a review to contest any of the 106261
department's findings included in the initial debt summary report. 106262
The request for the review must be submitted to the department not 106263
later than thirty days after the date the department issues the 106264
initial debt summary report. The department shall conduct the 106265
review on receipt of a timely request and issue a revised debt 106266
summary report. If the department has withheld money from payment 106267
due the exiting operator under division (A) of section 5124.521 of 106268
the Revised Code, the department shall issue the revised debt 106269
summary report not later than ninety days after the date the 106270
department receives the timely request for the review unless the 106271
department and exiting operator or affiliated operator agree to a 106272
later date. The exiting operator or affiliated operator may submit 106273
information to the department explaining what the operator 106274
contests before and during the review, including documentation of 106275
the amount of any debt the department owes the operator. The 106276
exiting operator or affiliated operator may submit additional 106277
information to the department not later than thirty days after the 106278
department issues the revised debt summary report. The revised 106279
debt summary report becomes the final debt summary report 106280
thirty-one days after the department issues the revised debt 106281
summary report unless the exiting operator or affiliated operator 106282
timely submits additional information to the department. If the 106283
exiting operator or affiliated operator timely submits additional 106284
information to the department, the department shall consider the 106285
additional information and issue a final debt summary report not 106286
later than sixty days after the department issues the revised debt 106287
summary report unless the department and exiting operator or 106288
affiliated operator agree to a later date.106289

       Each debt summary report the department issues under this 106290
section shall include the department's findings and the amount of 106291
debt the department determines the exiting operator owes the 106292
department and United States centers for medicare and medicaid 106293
services under the medicaid program. The department shall explain 106294
its findings and determination in each debt summary report.106295

       The exiting operator, and an affiliated operator who executes 106296
a successor liability agreement under section 5124.521 of the 106297
Revised Code, may request, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 106298
Revised Code, an adjudication regarding a finding in a final debt 106299
summary report that pertains to an audit or alleged overpayment 106300
made under the medicaid program to the exiting operator. The 106301
adjudication shall be consolidated with any other uncompleted 106302
adjudication that concerns a matter addressed in the final debt 106303
summary report.106304

       Sec. 5124.526.  The department of developmental disabilities 106305
shall release the actual amount withheld under division (A) of 106306
section 5124.521 of the Revised Code, less any amount the exiting 106307
operator owes the department and United States centers for 106308
medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid program, as 106309
follows:106310

       (A) Unless the department issues the initial debt summary 106311
report required by section 5124.525 of the Revised Code not later 106312
than sixty days after the date the exiting operator files the 106313
properly completed cost report required by section 5124.522 of the 106314
Revised Code, sixty-one days after the date the exiting operator 106315
files the properly completed cost report;106316

       (B) If the department issues the initial debt summary report 106317
required by section 5124.525 of the Revised Code not later than 106318
sixty days after the date the exiting operator files a properly 106319
completed cost report required by section 5124.522 of the Revised 106320
Code, not later than the following:106321

       (1) Thirty days after the deadline for requesting an 106322
adjudication under section 5124.525 of the Revised Code regarding 106323
the final debt summary report if the exiting operator, and an 106324
affiliated operator who executes a successor liability agreement 106325
under section 5124.521 of the Revised Code, fail to request the 106326
adjudication on or before the deadline;106327

       (2) Thirty days after the completion of an adjudication of 106328
the final debt summary report if the exiting operator, or an 106329
affiliated operator who executes a successor liability agreement 106330
under section 5124.521 of the Revised Code, requests the 106331
adjudication on or before the deadline for requesting the 106332
adjudication.106333

       (C) Unless the department issues the initial debt summary 106334
report required by section 5124.525 of the Revised Code not later 106335
than sixty days after the date the department waives the cost 106336
report requirement of section 5124.522 of the Revised Code, 106337
sixty-one days after the date the department waives the cost 106338
report requirement;106339

       (D) If the department issues the initial debt summary report 106340
required by section 5124.525 of the Revised Code not later than 106341
sixty days after the date the department waives the cost report 106342
requirement of section 5124.522 of the Revised Code, not later 106343
than the following:106344

       (1) Thirty days after the deadline for requesting an 106345
adjudication under section 5124.525 of the Revised Code regarding 106346
the final debt summary report if the exiting operator, and an 106347
affiliated operator who executes a successor liability agreement 106348
under section 5124.521 of the Revised Code, fail to request the 106349
adjudication on or before the deadline;106350

       (2) Thirty days after the completion of an adjudication of 106351
the final debt summary report if the exiting operator, or an 106352
affiliated operator who executes a successor liability agreement 106353
under section 5124.521 of the Revised Code, requests the 106354
adjudication on or before the deadline for requesting the 106355
adjudication.106356

       Sec. 5124.527.  The department of developmental disabilities, 106357
at its sole discretion, may release the amount withheld under 106358
division (A) of section 5124.521 of the Revised Code if the 106359
exiting operator submits to the department written notice of a 106360
postponement of a change of operator, facility closure, or 106361
voluntary termination and the transactions leading to the change 106362
of operator, facility closure, or voluntary termination are 106363
postponed for at least thirty days but less than ninety days after 106364
the date originally proposed for the change of operator, facility 106365
closure, or voluntary termination as reported in the written 106366
notice required by section 5124.50 or 5124.51 of the Revised Code. 106367
The department shall release the amount withheld if the exiting 106368
operator submits to the department written notice of a 106369
cancellation or postponement of a change of operator, facility 106370
closure, or voluntary termination and the transactions leading to 106371
the change of operator, facility closure, or voluntary termination 106372
are canceled or postponed for more than ninety days after the date 106373
originally proposed for the change of operator, facility closure, 106374
or voluntary termination as reported in the written notice 106375
required by section 5124.50 or 5124.51 of the Revised Code. A 106376
written notice shall be provided to the department in accordance 106377
with the method specified in rules authorized by section 5124.53 106378
of the Revised Code.106379

       After the department receives a written notice regarding a 106380
cancellation or postponement of a facility closure or voluntary 106381
termination, the exiting operator or owner shall provide new 106382
written notice to the department under section 5124.50 of the 106383
Revised Code regarding any transactions leading to a facility 106384
closure or voluntary termination at a future time. After the 106385
department receives a written notice regarding a cancellation or 106386
postponement of a change of operator, the exiting operator or 106387
owner and entering operator shall provide new written notice to 106388
the department under section 5124.51 of the Revised Code regarding 106389
any transactions leading to a change of operator at a future time.106390

       Sec. 5124.528.  (A) All amounts withheld under section 106391
5124.521 of the Revised Code from payment due an exiting operator 106392
under the medicaid program shall be deposited into the medicaid 106393
payment withholding fund created by the controlling board pursuant 106394
to section 131.35 of the Revised Code. Money in the fund shall be 106395
used as follows:106396

       (1) To pay an exiting operator when a withholding is released 106397
to the exiting operator under section 5124.526 or 5124.527 of the 106398
Revised Code;106399

       (2) To pay the department of medicaid or department of 106400
developmental disabilities, and United States centers for medicare 106401
and medicaid services, the amount an exiting operator owes the 106402
department of medicaid or department of developmental disabilities 106403
and United States centers under the medicaid program.106404

       (B) Amounts paid from the medicaid payment withholding fund 106405
pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section shall be deposited 106406
into the appropriate fund.106407

       Sec. 5124.53.  The director of developmental disabilities 106408
shall adopt rules under section 5124.03 of the Revised Code to 106409
implement sections 5124.50 to 5124.53 of the Revised Code. The 106410
rules shall specify all of the following:106411

       (A) The method by which written notices to the department 106412
required by sections 5124.50 to 5124.53 of the Revised Code are to 106413
be provided;106414

       (B) The forms and documents that are to be provided to the 106415
department under sections 5124.511 and 5124.512 of the Revised 106416
Code, which shall include, in the case of such forms and documents 106417
provided by entering operators, all the fully executed leases, 106418
management agreements, merger agreements and supporting documents, 106419
and fully executed sales contracts and any other supporting 106420
documents culminating in the change of operator;106421

       (C) The method by which the forms and documents identified in 106422
division (B) of this section are to be provided to the department.106423

       Sec. 5111.874.        Sec. 5124.60.  (A) As used in sections 5111.874 to 106424
5111.8710 of the Revised Code:106425

       "Home and community-based services" has the same meaning as 106426
in section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.106427

       "ICF/MR services" means intermediate care facility for the 106428
mentally retarded services covered by the medicaid program that an 106429
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded provides to a 106430
resident of the facility who is a medicaid recipient eligible for 106431
medicaid-covered intermediate care facility for the mentally 106432
retarded services.106433

       "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" means 106434
an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded that is 106435
certified as in compliance with applicable standards for the 106436
medicaid program by the director of health in accordance with 106437
Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 106438
U.S.C. 1396, as amended, and licensed as a residential facility 106439
under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code.106440

       "Residential facility" has the same meaning as in section 106441
5123.19 of the Revised Code.106442

       (B) For the purpose of increasing the number of slots 106443
available for home and community-based services and subject to 106444
sections 5111.8775124.63 and 5111.8785124.64 of the Revised 106445
Code, the operator of an intermediate care facility for the 106446
mentally retardedICF/IID may convert some or all of the beds in 106447
the facilityICF/IID from providing ICF/MRICF/IID services to 106448
providing home and community-based services if all of the 106449
following requirements are met:106450

       (1) The operator provides the directors of health and 106451
developmental disabilities at least ninety days' notice of the 106452
operator's intent to make the conversion.106453

       (2) The operator complies with the requirements of sections 106454
5111.655124.50 to 5111.6895124.53 of the Revised Code regarding 106455
a voluntary termination as defined in section 5111.65 of the 106456
Revised Code if those requirements are applicable.106457

       (3) If the operator intends to convert all of the facility's106458
ICF/IID's beds, the operator notifies each of the facility's106459
ICF/IID's residents that the facilityICF/IID is to cease 106460
providing ICF/MRICF/IID services and inform each resident that 106461
the resident may do either of the following:106462

       (a) Continue to receive ICF/MRICF/IID services by 106463
transferring to another facilityICF/IID that is an intermediate 106464
care facility for the mentally retarded willing and able to accept 106465
the resident if the resident continues to qualify for ICF/MR106466
ICF/IID services;106467

       (b) Begin to receive home and community-based services 106468
instead of ICF/MRICF/IID services from any provider of home and 106469
community-based services that is willing and able to provide the 106470
services to the resident if the resident is eligible for the 106471
services and a slot for the services is available to the resident.106472

       (4) If the operator intends to convert some but not all of 106473
the facility'sICF/IID's beds, the operator notifies each of the 106474
facility'sICF/IID's residents that the facilityICF/IID is to 106475
convert some of its beds from providing ICF/MRICF/IID services to 106476
providing home and community-based services and inform each 106477
resident that the resident may do either of the following:106478

       (a) Continue to receive ICF/MRICF/IID services from any 106479
provider of services ICF/MRICF/IID that is willing and able to 106480
provide the services to the resident if the resident continues to 106481
qualify for ICF/MRICF/IID services;106482

       (b) Begin to receive home and community-based services 106483
instead of ICF/MRICF/IID services from any provider of home and 106484
community-based services that is willing and able to provide the 106485
services to the resident if the resident is eligible for the 106486
services and a slot for the services is available to the resident.106487

       (5) The operator meets the requirements for providing home 106488
and community-based services, including the following:106489

       (a) Such requirements applicable to a residential facility if 106490
the operator maintains the facility's license as a residential 106491
facility;106492

       (b) Such requirements applicable to a facility that is not 106493
licensed as a residential facility if the operator surrenders the 106494
facility's license as a residential facility under section 5123.19 106495
of the Revised Code.106496

       (6) The director of developmental disabilities approves the 106497
conversion.106498

       (C)(B) A decision by the director of developmental 106499
disabilities to approve or refuse to approve a proposed conversion 106500
of beds is final. In making a decision, the director shall 106501
consider all of the following:106502

       (1) The fiscal impact on the facilityICF/IID if some but not 106503
all of the beds are converted;106504

       (2) The fiscal impact on the medical assistancemedicaid106505
program;106506

       (3) The availability of home and community-based services.106507

       (D)(C) The notice provided to the directors under division 106508
(B)(A)(1) of this section shall specify whether some or all of the 106509
facility'sICF/IID's beds are to be converted. If some but not all 106510
of the beds are to be converted, the notice shall specify how many 106511
of the facility'sICF/IID's beds are to be converted and how many 106512
of the beds are to continue to provide ICF/MRICF/IID services. 106513
The notice to the director of developmental disabilities shall 106514
specify whether the operator wishes to surrender the facility's106515
ICF/IID's license as a residential facility under section 5123.19 106516
of the Revised Code.106517

       (E)(D)(1) If the director of developmental disabilities 106518
approves a conversion under division (C)(B) of this section, the 106519
director of health shall do the following:106520

       (a) Terminate the ICF/IID's medicaid certification of the 106521
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded if the notice 106522
specifies that all of the facility'sICF/IID's beds are to be 106523
converted;106524

       (b) Reduce the facility's certifiedICF/IID's 106525
medicaid-certified capacity by the number of beds being converted 106526
if the notice specifies that some but not all of the beds are to 106527
be converted. 106528

       (2) The director of health shall notify the medicaid director 106529
of job and family services of the termination or reduction. On 106530
receipt of the director of health's notice, the medicaid director 106531
of job and family services shall do the following:106532

       (a) Terminate the operator's medicaid provider agreement that 106533
authorizes the operator to provide ICF/MRICF/IID services at the 106534
facilityICF/IID if the facility'sICF/IID's certification was 106535
terminated;106536

       (b) Amend the operator's medicaid provider agreement to 106537
reflect the facility'sICF/IID's reduced certified106538
medicaid-certified capacity if the facility's certifiedICF/IID's 106539
medicaid-certified capacity is reduced. 106540

       (3) In the case of action taken under division (E)(D)(2)(a) 106541
of this section, the operator is not entitled to notice or a 106542
hearing under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code before the medicaid106543
director of job and family services terminates the medicaid 106544
provider agreement.106545

       Sec. 5111.875.        Sec. 5124.61. (A) For the purpose of increasing the 106546
number of slots available for home and community-based services 106547
and subject to sections 5111.8775124.63 and 5111.8785124.64 of 106548
the Revised Code, a person who acquires, through a request for 106549
proposals issued by the director of developmental disabilities, a 106550
residential facility that is an intermediate care facility for the 106551
mentally retarded andan ICF/IID for which thea residential 106552
facility license as a residential facility was previously 106553
surrendered or revoked may convert some or all of the facility's106554
ICF/IID's beds from providing ICF/MRICF/IID services to providing 106555
home and community-based services if all of the following 106556
requirements are met:106557

       (1) The person provides the directors of health, job and 106558
family services, and developmental disabilities and medicaid 106559
director at least ninety days' notice of the person's intent to 106560
make the conversion.106561

       (2) The person complies with the requirements of sections 106562
5111.655124.50 to 5111.6895124.53 of the Revised Code regarding 106563
a voluntary termination as defined in section 5111.65 of the 106564
Revised Code if those requirements are applicable.106565

       (3) If the person intends to convert all of the facility's106566
ICF/IID's beds, the person notifies each of the facility's106567
ICF/IID's residents that the facilityICF/IID is to cease 106568
providing ICF/MRICF/IID services and informs each resident that 106569
the resident may do either of the following:106570

       (a) Continue to receive ICF/MRICF/IID services by 106571
transferring to another facility that is an intermediate care 106572
facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID willing and able to 106573
accept the resident if the resident continues to qualify for 106574
ICF/MRICF/IID services;106575

       (b) Begin to receive home and community-based services 106576
instead of ICF/MRICF/IID services from any provider of home and 106577
community-based services that is willing and able to provide the 106578
services to the resident if the resident is eligible for the 106579
services and a slot for the services is available to the resident.106580

       (4) If the person intends to convert some but not all of the 106581
facility'sICF/IID's beds, the person notifies each of the 106582
facility'sICF/IID's residents that the facilityICF/IID is to 106583
convert some of its beds from providing ICF/MRICF/IID services to 106584
providing home and community-based services and inform each 106585
resident that the resident may do either of the following:106586

       (a) Continue to receive ICF/MRICF/IID services from any 106587
provider of ICF/MR services that is willing and able to provide 106588
the services to the resident if the resident continues to qualify 106589
for ICF/MRICF/IID services;106590

       (b) Begin to receive home and community-based services 106591
instead of ICF/MRICF/IID services from any provider of home and 106592
community-based services that is willing and able to provide the 106593
services to the resident if the resident is eligible for the 106594
services and a slot for the services is available to the resident.106595

       (5) The person meets the requirements for providing home and 106596
community-based services at a residential facility.106597

       (B) The notice provided to the directors under division 106598
(A)(1) of this section shall specify whether some or all of the 106599
facility'sICF/IID's beds are to be converted. If some but not all 106600
of the beds are to be converted, the notice shall specify how many 106601
of the facility'sICF/IID's beds are to be converted and how many 106602
of the beds are to continue to provide ICF/MRICF/IID services.106603

       (C) On receipt of a notice under division (A)(1) of this 106604
section, the director of health shall do the following:106605

       (1) Terminate the ICF/IID's medicaid certification of the 106606
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded if the notice 106607
specifies that all of the facility's beds are to be converted;106608

       (2) Reduce the facility's certifiedICF/IID's 106609
medicaid-certified capacity by the number of beds being converted 106610
if the notice specifies that some but not all of the beds are to 106611
be converted.106612

       (D) The director of health shall notify the medicaid director 106613
of job and family services of the termination or reduction under 106614
division (C) of this section. On receipt of the director of 106615
health's notice, the medicaid director of job and family services106616
shall do the following:106617

       (1) Terminate the person's medicaid provider agreement that 106618
authorizes the person to provide ICF/MRICF/IID services at the 106619
facilityICF/IID if the facility'sICF/IID's medicaid106620
certification was terminated;106621

       (2) Amend the person's medicaid provider agreement to reflect 106622
the facility'sICF/IID's reduced certifiedmedicaid-certified106623
capacity if the facility's certifiedICF/IID's medicaid-certified106624
capacity is reduced.106625

       The person is not entitled to notice or a hearing under 106626
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code before the medicaid director of 106627
job and family services terminates or amends the medicaid provider 106628
agreement.106629

       Sec. 5111.876.        Sec. 5124.62.  Subject to section 5111.8775124.63106630
of the Revised Code, the director of developmental disabilities 106631
may request that the medicaid director of job and family services106632
seek the approval of the United States secretary of health and 106633
human services to increase the number of slots available for home 106634
and community-based services by a number not exceeding the number 106635
of beds that were part of the licensed capacity of a residential 106636
facility that had its license revoked or surrendered under section 106637
5123.19 of the Revised Code if the residential facility was an 106638
intermediate care facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID at 106639
the time of the license revocation or surrender. The revocation or 106640
surrender may have occurred before, or may occur on or after, June 106641
24, 2008. The request may include beds the director of 106642
developmental disabilities removed from such a residential 106643
facility's licensed capacity before transferring ownership or 106644
operation of the residential facility pursuant to a request for 106645
proposals.106646

       Sec. 5111.877.        Sec. 5124.63. The medicaid director of job and 106647
family services may seek approval from the United States secretary 106648
of health and human services for not more than a total of fivesix106649
hundred slots for home and community-based services for the 106650
purposes of sections 5111.8745124.60, 5111.8755124.61, and 106651
5111.8765124.62 of the Revised Code.106652

       Sec. 5111.878.        Sec. 5124.64. Not more than a total of fivesix106653
hundred beds may be converted from providing ICF/MRICF/IID106654
services to providing home and community-based services under 106655
sections 5111.8745124.60 and 5111.8755124.61 of the Revised 106656
Code.106657

       Sec. 5111.879.        Sec. 5124.65. No person or government entity may 106658
reconvert a bed to be used for ICF/MRICF/IID services if the bed 106659
was converted to use for home and community-based services under 106660
section 5111.8745124.60 or 5111.8755124.61 of the Revised Code. 106661
This prohibition applies regardless of either of the following:106662

       (A) The bed is part of the licensed capacity of a residential 106663
facility.106664

       (B) The bed has been sold, leased, or otherwise transferred 106665
to another person or government entity.106666

       Sec. 5124.67.  (A) The department of developmental 106667
disabilities shall strive to achieve, not later than July 1, 2018, 106668
the following statewide reductions in ICF/IID beds:106669

       (1) At least five hundred and not more than six hundred beds 106670
in ICFs/IID that, before becoming downsized ICFs/IID, have sixteen 106671
or more beds;106672

       (2) At least five hundred and not more than six hundred beds 106673
in ICFs/IID with any number of beds that convert some or all of 106674
their beds from providing ICF/IID services to providing home and 106675
community-based services pursuant to section 5124.60 or 5124.61 of 106676
the Revised Code.106677

       (B) In its efforts to achieve the reductions under division 106678
(A) of this section, the department shall collaborate with the 106679
Ohio association of county boards serving people with 106680
developmental disabilities, the Ohio provider resource 106681
association, the Ohio centers for intellectual disabilities formed 106682
by the Ohio health care association, and the values and faith 106683
alliance. The collaboration efforts may include the following:106684

       (1) Identifying ICFs/IID that may reduce the number of their 106685
beds to help achieve the reductions under division (A) of this 106686
section;106687

       (2) Encouraging ICF/IID providers to reduce the number of 106688
their ICFs/IID's beds;106689

       (3) Establishing interim time frames for making progress in 106690
achieving the reductions;106691

       (4) Creating incentives for, and removing impediments to, the 106692
reductions;106693

       (5) In the case of ICF/IID beds that are converted to 106694
providing home and community-based services, developing a 106695
mechanism to compensate providers for beds that permanently cease 106696
to provide ICF/IID services.106697

       (C) The department shall meet not less than twice each year 106698
with the organizations specified in division (B) of this section 106699
to do all of the following:106700

       (1) Review the progress being made in achieving the 106701
reductions under division (A) of this section;106702

       (2) Prepare written reports on the progress;106703

       (3) Identify additional measures needed to achieve the 106704
reductions.106705

       Sec. 5124.99.  Whoever violates section 5124.102 or division 106706
(E) of section 5124.08 of the Revised Code shall be fined not less 106707
than five hundred dollars nor more than one thousand dollars for 106708
the first offense and not less than one thousand dollars nor more 106709
than five thousand dollars for each subsequent offense.106710

       Fines paid under this section shall be deposited in the state 106711
treasury to the credit of the general revenue fund.106712

       Sec. 5126.01.  As used in this chapter:106713

       (A) As used in this division, "adult" means an individual who 106714
is eighteen years of age or over and not enrolled in a program or 106715
service under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code and an individual 106716
sixteen or seventeen years of age who is eligible for adult 106717
services under rules adopted by the director of developmental 106718
disabilities pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.106719

       (1) "Adult services" means services provided to an adult 106720
outside the home, except when they are provided within the home 106721
according to an individual's assessed needs and identified in an 106722
individual service plan, that support learning and assistance in 106723
the area of self-care, sensory and motor development, 106724
socialization, daily living skills, communication, community 106725
living, social skills, or vocational skills.106726

       (2) "Adult services" includes all of the following:106727

       (a) Adult day habilitation services;106728

       (b) Adult day care;106729

       (c) Prevocational services;106730

       (d) Sheltered employment;106731

       (e) Educational experiences and training obtained through 106732
entities and activities that are not expressly intended for 106733
individuals with mental retardation and developmental 106734
disabilities, including trade schools, vocational or technical 106735
schools, adult education, job exploration and sampling, unpaid 106736
work experience in the community, volunteer activities, and 106737
spectator sports;106738

       (f) Community employment services and supported employment 106739
services.106740

       (B)(1) "Adult day habilitation services" means adult services 106741
that do the following:106742

       (a) Provide access to and participation in typical activities 106743
and functions of community life that are desired and chosen by the 106744
general population, including such activities and functions as 106745
opportunities to experience and participate in community 106746
exploration, companionship with friends and peers, leisure 106747
activities, hobbies, maintaining family contacts, community 106748
events, and activities where individuals without disabilities are 106749
involved;106750

       (b) Provide supports or a combination of training and 106751
supports that afford an individual a wide variety of opportunities 106752
to facilitate and build relationships and social supports in the 106753
community.106754

       (2) "Adult day habilitation services" includes all of the 106755
following:106756

       (a) Personal care services needed to ensure an individual's 106757
ability to experience and participate in vocational services, 106758
educational services, community activities, and any other adult 106759
day habilitation services;106760

       (b) Skilled services provided while receiving adult day 106761
habilitation services, including such skilled services as behavior 106762
management intervention, occupational therapy, speech and language 106763
therapy, physical therapy, and nursing services;106764

       (c) Training and education in self-determination designed to 106765
help the individual do one or more of the following: develop 106766
self-advocacy skills, exercise the individual's civil rights, 106767
acquire skills that enable the individual to exercise control and 106768
responsibility over the services received, and acquire skills that 106769
enable the individual to become more independent, integrated, or 106770
productive in the community;106771

       (d) Recreational and leisure activities identified in the 106772
individual's service plan as therapeutic in nature or assistive in 106773
developing or maintaining social supports;106774

       (e) Counseling and assistance provided to obtain housing, 106775
including such counseling as identifying options for either rental 106776
or purchase, identifying financial resources, assessing needs for 106777
environmental modifications, locating housing, and planning for 106778
ongoing management and maintenance of the housing selected;106779

       (f) Transportation necessary to access adult day habilitation 106780
services;106781

       (g) Habilitation management, as described in section 5126.14 106782
of the Revised Code.106783

       (3) "Adult day habilitation services" does not include 106784
activities that are components of the provision of residential 106785
services, family support services, or supported living services.106786

       (C) "Appointing authority" means the following:106787

       (1) In the case of a member of a county board of 106788
developmental disabilities appointed by, or to be appointed by, a 106789
board of county commissioners, the board of county commissioners;106790

       (2) In the case of a member of a county board appointed by, 106791
or to be appointed by, a senior probate judge, the senior probate 106792
judge.106793

       (D) "Community employment," "competitive employment," and 106794
"integrated setting" have the same meanings as in section 5123.022 106795
of the Revised Code.106796

       (E) "Community employment services" or "supportedSupported106797
employment services" means vocational assessment, job training and 106798
coaching, job development and placement, worksite accessibility,106799
and other services related to employment outside a sheltered 106800
workshop. "Community employment services" or "supportedSupported106801
employment services" include allincludes both of the following:106802

       (1) Job training resulting in the attainment of competitive 106803
workcommunity employment, supported work in a typical work 106804
environment, or self-employment;106805

       (2) Supervised work experience through an employer paid to 106806
provide the supervised work experience;106807

       (3) Ongoing work in a competitive work environment at a wage 106808
commensurate with workers without disabilities;106809

       (4) Ongoing supervision by an employer paid to provide the 106810
supervisionSupport for ongoing community employment, supported 106811
work at community-based sites, or self-employment.106812

       (E)(F) As used in this division, "substantial functional 106813
limitation," "developmental delay," and "established risk" have 106814
the meanings established pursuant to section 5123.011 of the 106815
Revised Code.106816

       "Developmental disability" means a severe, chronic disability 106817
that is characterized by all of the following:106818

       (1) It is attributable to a mental or physical impairment or 106819
a combination of mental and physical impairments, other than a 106820
mental or physical impairment solely caused by mental illness as 106821
defined in division (A) of section 5122.01 of the Revised Code;106822

       (2) It is manifested before age twenty-two;106823

       (3) It is likely to continue indefinitely;106824

       (4) It results in one of the following:106825

       (a) In the case of a person under age three, at least one 106826
developmental delay or an established risk;106827

       (b) In the case of a person at least age three but under age 106828
six, at least two developmental delays or an established risk;106829

       (c) In the case of a person age six or older, a substantial 106830
functional limitation in at least three of the following areas of 106831
major life activity, as appropriate for the person's age: 106832
self-care, receptive and expressive language, learning, mobility, 106833
self-direction, capacity for independent living, and, if the 106834
person is at least age sixteen, capacity for economic 106835
self-sufficiency.106836

       (5) It causes the person to need a combination and sequence 106837
of special, interdisciplinary, or other type of care, treatment, 106838
or provision of services for an extended period of time that is 106839
individually planned and coordinated for the person.106840

       (F)(G) "Early childhood services" means a planned program of 106841
habilitation designed to meet the needs of individuals with mental 106842
retardation or other developmental disabilities who have not 106843
attained compulsory school age.106844

       (G)(H) "Employment services" means prevocational services or 106845
supported employment services.106846

       (I)(1) "Environmental modifications" means the physical 106847
adaptations to an individual's home, specified in the individual's 106848
service plan, that are necessary to ensure the individual's 106849
health, safety, and welfare or that enable the individual to 106850
function with greater independence in the home, and without which 106851
the individual would require institutionalization.106852

       (2) "Environmental modifications" includes such adaptations 106853
as installation of ramps and grab-bars, widening of doorways, 106854
modification of bathroom facilities, and installation of 106855
specialized electric and plumbing systems necessary to accommodate 106856
the individual's medical equipment and supplies.106857

       (3) "Environmental modifications" does not include physical 106858
adaptations or improvements to the home that are of general 106859
utility or not of direct medical or remedial benefit to the 106860
individual, including such adaptations or improvements as 106861
carpeting, roof repair, and central air conditioning.106862

       (H)(J) "Family support services" means the services provided 106863
under a family support services program operated under section 106864
5126.11 of the Revised Code.106865

       (I)(K) "Habilitation" means the process by which the staff of 106866
the facility or agency assists an individual with mental 106867
retardation or other developmental disability in acquiring and 106868
maintaining those life skills that enable the individual to cope 106869
more effectively with the demands of the individual's own person 106870
and environment, and in raising the level of the individual's 106871
personal, physical, mental, social, and vocational efficiency. 106872
Habilitation includes, but is not limited to, programs of formal, 106873
structured education and training.106874

       (J)(L) "Home and community-based services" means 106875
medicaid-funded home and community-based services specified in 106876
division (B)(1) of section 5111.87 of the Revised Code and 106877
provided under the medicaid waiver components the department of 106878
developmental disabilities administers pursuant tohas the same 106879
meaning as in section 5111.8715123.01 of the Revised Code. 106880
However, home and community-based services provided under the 106881
medicaid waiver component known as the transitions developmental 106882
disabilities waiver are to be considered to be home and 106883
community-based services for the purposes of this chapter only to 106884
the extent, if any, provided by the contract required by section 106885
5111.871 of the Revised Code regarding the waiver.106886

       (K)(M) "ICF/IID" has the same meaning as in section 5124.01 106887
of the Revised Code.106888

       (N) "Immediate family" means parents, grandparents, brothers, 106889
sisters, spouses, sons, daughters, aunts, uncles, mothers-in-law, 106890
fathers-in-law, brothers-in-law, sisters-in-law, sons-in-law, and 106891
daughters-in-law.106892

       (L) "Medicaid" has the same meaning as in section 5111.01 of 106893
the Revised Code.106894

       (M)(O) "Medicaid case management services" means case 106895
management services provided to an individual with mental 106896
retardation or other developmental disability that the state 106897
medicaid plan requires.106898

       (N)(P) "Mental retardation" means a mental impairment 106899
manifested during the developmental period characterized by 106900
significantly subaverage general intellectual functioning existing 106901
concurrently with deficiencies in the effectiveness or degree with 106902
which an individual meets the standards of personal independence 106903
and social responsibility expected of the individual's age and 106904
cultural group.106905

       (O)(Q) "Prevocational services" means services, including 106906
services as a volunteer, that provide learning and work 106907
experiences from which an individual can develop general strengths 106908
and skills that are not specific to a particular task or job but 106909
contribute to employability in community employment, supported 106910
work at community-based sites, or self-employment.106911

       (R) "Residential services" means services to individuals with 106912
mental retardation or other developmental disabilities to provide 106913
housing, food, clothing, habilitation, staff support, and related 106914
support services necessary for the health, safety, and welfare of 106915
the individuals and the advancement of their quality of life. 106916
"Residential services" includes program management, as described 106917
in section 5126.14 of the Revised Code.106918

       (P)(S) "Resources" means available capital and other assets, 106919
including moneys received from the federal, state, and local 106920
governments, private grants, and donations; appropriately 106921
qualified personnel; and appropriate capital facilities and 106922
equipment.106923

       (Q)(T) "Senior probate judge" means the current probate judge 106924
of a county who has served as probate judge of that county longer 106925
than any of the other current probate judges of that county. If a 106926
county has only one probate judge, "senior probate judge" means 106927
that probate judge.106928

       (R)(U) "Service and support administration" means the duties 106929
performed by a service and support administrator pursuant to 106930
section 5126.15 of the Revised Code.106931

       (S)(V)(1) "Specialized medical, adaptive, and assistive 106932
equipment, supplies, and supports" means equipment, supplies, and 106933
supports that enable an individual to increase the ability to 106934
perform activities of daily living or to perceive, control, or 106935
communicate within the environment.106936

       (2) "Specialized medical, adaptive, and assistive equipment, 106937
supplies, and supports" includes the following:106938

       (a) Eating utensils, adaptive feeding dishes, plate guards, 106939
mylatex straps, hand splints, reaches, feeder seats, adjustable 106940
pointer sticks, interpreter services, telecommunication devices 106941
for the deaf, computerized communications boards, other 106942
communication devices, support animals, veterinary care for 106943
support animals, adaptive beds, supine boards, prone boards, 106944
wedges, sand bags, sidelayers, bolsters, adaptive electrical 106945
switches, hand-held shower heads, air conditioners, humidifiers, 106946
emergency response systems, folding shopping carts, vehicle lifts, 106947
vehicle hand controls, other adaptations of vehicles for 106948
accessibility, and repair of the equipment received.106949

       (b) Nondisposable items not covered by medicaid that are 106950
intended to assist an individual in activities of daily living or 106951
instrumental activities of daily living.106952

       (T)(W) "Supportive home services" means a range of services 106953
to families of individuals with mental retardation or other 106954
developmental disabilities to develop and maintain increased 106955
acceptance and understanding of such persons, increased ability of 106956
family members to teach the person, better coordination between 106957
school and home, skills in performing specific therapeutic and 106958
management techniques, and ability to cope with specific 106959
situations.106960

       (U)(X)(1) "Supported living" means services provided for as 106961
long as twenty-four hours a day to an individual with mental 106962
retardation or other developmental disability through any public 106963
or private resources, including moneys from the individual, that 106964
enhance the individual's reputation in community life and advance 106965
the individual's quality of life by doing the following:106966

       (a) Providing the support necessary to enable an individual 106967
to live in a residence of the individual's choice, with any number 106968
of individuals who are not disabled, or with not more than three 106969
individuals with mental retardation and developmental disabilities 106970
unless the individuals are related by blood or marriage;106971

       (b) Encouraging the individual's participation in the 106972
community;106973

       (c) Promoting the individual's rights and autonomy;106974

       (d) Assisting the individual in acquiring, retaining, and 106975
improving the skills and competence necessary to live successfully 106976
in the individual's residence.106977

       (2) "Supported living" includes the provision of all of the 106978
following:106979

       (a) Housing, food, clothing, habilitation, staff support, 106980
professional services, and any related support services necessary 106981
to ensure the health, safety, and welfare of the individual 106982
receiving the services;106983

       (b) A combination of lifelong or extended-duration 106984
supervision, training, and other services essential to daily 106985
living, including assessment and evaluation and assistance with 106986
the cost of training materials, transportation, fees, and 106987
supplies;106988

       (c) Personal care services and homemaker services;106989

       (d) Household maintenance that does not include modifications 106990
to the physical structure of the residence;106991

       (e) Respite care services;106992

       (f) Program management, as described in section 5126.14 of 106993
the Revised Code.106994

       Sec. 5126.026.  Except as otherwise provided in this section 106995
and section 5126.0218 of the Revised Code, a member of a county 106996
board of developmental disabilities may be reappointed to the 106997
county board. Prior to making a reappointment, the appointing 106998
authority shall ascertain, through written communication with the 106999
board, that the member being considered for reappointment meets 107000
the requirements of sections 5126.022 and 5126.0218 of the Revised 107001
Code.107002

        A member who has served during each of three consecutive 107003
terms shall not be reappointed for a subsequent term until two 107004
years after ceasing to be a member of the county board, except 107005
that a member who has served for ten years or less within three 107006
consecutive terms may be reappointed for a subsequent term before 107007
becoming ineligible for reappointment for two years.107008

       If, however, a county board experiences extenuating 107009
circumstances that would severely restrict the board from being 107010
able to fill a pending vacancy of a board member who will become 107011
ineligible for service on the board after serving three 107012
consecutive terms, the appointing authority may request a waiver 107013
from the director of developmental disabilities to allow that 107014
member to serve an additional four-year term subsequent to serving 107015
three consecutive four-year terms. The director shall determine if 107016
the extenuating circumstances associated with the board warrant 107017
the granting of such a waiver.107018

       Sec. 5126.043.  (A) Unless a guardian has been appointed for 107019
the individual, when a decision regarding receipt of a service or 107020
participation in a program provided for or funded under this 107021
chapter or Chapter 5123. or 5124. of the Revised Code by an 107022
individual with mental retardation or other developmental 107023
disability must be made, the individual shall be permitted to make 107024
the decision. The individual may obtain support and guidance from 107025
an adult family member or other person, but doing so does not 107026
affect the right of the individual to make the decision.107027

       (B) An individual with mental retardation or other 107028
developmental disability may authorize an adult to make a decision 107029
described in division (A) of this section on the individual's 107030
behalf, as long as the adult does not have a financial interest in 107031
the decision. The authorization shall be made in writing.107032

       (C) If a guardian has been appointed for an individual with 107033
mental retardation or other developmental disability, the guardian 107034
shall make any decision described in division (A) of this section 107035
on behalf of the individual. This section does not require 107036
appointment of a guardian.107037

       (D) Individuals with mental retardation and other 107038
developmental disabilities, including those who have been 107039
adjudicated incompetent pursuant to Chapter 2111. of the Revised 107040
Code, have the right to participate in decisions that affect their 107041
lives and to have their needs, desires, and preferences 107042
considered. An adult or guardian who makes a decision pursuant to 107043
division (B) or (C) of this section shall make a decision that is 107044
in the best interests of the individual on whose behalf the 107045
decision is made and that is consistent with the needs, desires, 107046
and preferences of that individual.107047

       Sec. 5126.05.  (A) Subject to the rules established by the 107048
director of developmental disabilities pursuant to Chapter 119. of 107049
the Revised Code for programs and services offered pursuant to 107050
this chapter, and subject to the rules established by the state 107051
board of education pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 107052
for programs and services offered pursuant to Chapter 3323. of the 107053
Revised Code, the county board of developmental disabilities 107054
shall:107055

       (1) Administer and operate facilities, programs, and services 107056
as provided by this chapter and Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code 107057
and establish policies for their administration and operation;107058

       (2) Coordinate, monitor, and evaluate existing services and 107059
facilities available to individuals with mental retardation and 107060
developmental disabilities;107061

       (3) Provide early childhood services, supportive home 107062
services, and adult services, according to the plan and priorities 107063
developed under section 5126.04 of the Revised Code;107064

       (4) Provide or contract for special education services 107065
pursuant to Chapters 3317. and 3323. of the Revised Code and 107066
ensure that related services, as defined in section 3323.01 of the 107067
Revised Code, are available according to the plan and priorities 107068
developed under section 5126.04 of the Revised Code;107069

       (5) Adopt a budget, authorize expenditures for the purposes 107070
specified in this chapter and do so in accordance with section 107071
319.16 of the Revised Code, approve attendance of board members 107072
and employees at professional meetings and approve expenditures 107073
for attendance, and exercise such powers and duties as are 107074
prescribed by the director;107075

       (6) Submit annual reports of its work and expenditures, 107076
pursuant to sections 3323.09 and 5126.12 of the Revised Code, to 107077
the director, the superintendent of public instruction, and the 107078
board of county commissioners at the close of the fiscal year and 107079
at such other times as may reasonably be requested;107080

       (7) Authorize all positions of employment, establish 107081
compensation, including but not limited to salary schedules and 107082
fringe benefits for all board employees, approve contracts of 107083
employment for management employees that are for a term of more 107084
than one year, employ legal counsel under section 309.10 of the 107085
Revised Code, and contract for employee benefits;107086

       (8) Provide service and support administration in accordance 107087
with section 5126.15 of the Revised Code;107088

       (9) Certify respite care homes pursuant to rules adopted 107089
under section 5123.171 of the Revised Code by the director of 107090
developmental disabilities;107091

       (10) Implement an employment first policy that clearly 107092
identifies community employment as the desired outcome for every 107093
individual of working age who receives services from the board;107094

       (11) Set benchmarks for improving community employment 107095
outcomes.107096

       (B) To the extent that rules adopted under this section apply 107097
to the identification and placement of children with disabilities 107098
under Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code, they shall be consistent 107099
with the standards and procedures established under sections 107100
3323.03 to 3323.05 of the Revised Code.107101

       (C) Any county board may enter into contracts with other such 107102
boards and with public or private, nonprofit, or profit-making 107103
agencies or organizations of the same or another county, to 107104
provide the facilities, programs, and services authorized or 107105
required, upon such terms as may be agreeable, and in accordance 107106
with this chapter and Chapter 3323. of the Revised Code and rules 107107
adopted thereunder and in accordance with sections 307.86 and 107108
5126.071 of the Revised Code.107109

       (D) A county board may combine transportation for children 107110
and adults enrolled in programs and services offered under Chapter 107111
5126. of the Revised Code with transportation for children 107112
enrolled in classes funded under sectionsections 3317.0213 and107113
3317.20 or units approved under section 3317.05 of the Revised 107114
Code.107115

       (E) A county board may purchase all necessary insurance 107116
policies, may purchase equipment and supplies through the 107117
department of administrative services or from other sources, and 107118
may enter into agreements with public agencies or nonprofit 107119
organizations for cooperative purchasing arrangements.107120

       (F) A county board may receive by gift, grant, devise, or 107121
bequest any moneys, lands, or property for the benefit of the 107122
purposes for which the board is established and hold, apply, and 107123
dispose of the moneys, lands, and property according to the terms 107124
of the gift, grant, devise, or bequest. All money received by 107125
gift, grant, bequest, or disposition of lands or property received 107126
by gift, grant, devise, or bequest shall be deposited in the 107127
county treasury to the credit of such board and shall be available 107128
for use by the board for purposes determined or stated by the 107129
donor or grantor, but may not be used for personal expenses of the 107130
board members. Any interest or earnings accruing from such gift, 107131
grant, devise, or bequest shall be treated in the same manner and 107132
subject to the same provisions as such gift, grant, devise, or 107133
bequest.107134

       (G) The board of county commissioners shall levy taxes and 107135
make appropriations sufficient to enable the county board of 107136
developmental disabilities to perform its functions and duties, 107137
and may utilize any available local, state, and federal funds for 107138
such purpose.107139

       Sec. 5126.051.  (A) To the extent that resources are 107140
available, a county board of developmental disabilities shall 107141
provide for or arrange residential services and supported living 107142
for individuals with mental retardation and developmental 107143
disabilities.107144

       A county board may acquire, convey, lease, or sell property 107145
for residential services and supported living and enter into loan 107146
agreements, including mortgages, for the acquisition of such 107147
property. A county board is not required to comply with provisions 107148
of Chapter 307. of the Revised Code providing for competitive 107149
bidding or sheriff sales in the acquisition, lease, conveyance, or 107150
sale of property under this division, but the acquisition, lease, 107151
conveyance, or sale must be at fair market value determined by 107152
appraisal of one or more disinterested persons appointed by the 107153
board.107154

       Any action taken by a county board under this division that 107155
will incur debt on the part of the county shall be taken in 107156
accordance with Chapter 133. of the Revised Code. A county board 107157
shall not incur any debt on the part of the county without the 107158
prior approval of the board of county commissioners.107159

       (B)(1) To the extent that resources are available, in 107160
addition to sheltered employment and work activities provided asa 107161
county board shall provide or arrange for the provision of adult 107162
services pursuant to division (A)(3) of section 5126.05 of the 107163
Revised Code, a county board of developmental disabilities may 107164
provide or arrange for job training, vocational evaluation, and 107165
community employment services to mentally retarded and 107166
developmentally disabled individuals who are age eighteen and 107167
older and not enrolled in a program or service under Chapter 3323. 107168
of the Revised Code or age sixteen or seventeen and eligible for 107169
adult services under rules adopted by the director of 107170
developmental disabilities under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 107171
These services shall be provided in accordance with the 107172
individual's individual service or habilitation plan and shall 107173
include support services specified in the plan.107174

       (2) Any prevocational services shall be provided in 107175
accordance with the individual's individual service plan and occur 107176
over a specified period of time with specific outcomes sought to 107177
be achieved.107178

       (3) A county board may, in cooperation with the Ohio 107179
rehabilitation services commissionopportunities for Ohioans with 107180
disabilities agency, seek federal funds for job training andor 107181
other services directly at helping individuals obtain community 107182
employment.107183

       (3)(4) A county board may contract with any agency, board, or 107184
other entity that is accredited by the commission on accreditation 107185
of rehabilitation facilities to provide services. A county board 107186
that is accredited by the commission on accreditation of 107187
rehabilitation facilities may provide services for which it is 107188
certified by the commission.107189

       (C) To the extent that resources are available, a county 107190
board may provide services to an individual with mental 107191
retardation or other developmental disability in addition to those 107192
provided pursuant to this section, section 5126.05 of the Revised 107193
Code, or any other section of this chapter. The services shall be 107194
provided in accordance with the individual's habilitation or107195
individual service plan and may be provided in collaboration with 107196
other entities of state or local government.107197

       Sec. 5126.054.  (A) Each county board of developmental 107198
disabilities shall, by resolution, develop a three-calendar year 107199
plan that includes the following three components:107200

       (1) An assessment component that includes all of the 107201
following:107202

       (a) The number of individuals with mental retardation or 107203
other developmental disability residing in the county who need the 107204
level of care provided by an intermediate care facility for the 107205
mentally retardedICF/IID, may seek home and community-based 107206
services, and are given priority on a waiting list established for 107207
the services pursuant to section 5126.042 of the Revised Code; the 107208
service needs of those individuals; and the projected annualized 107209
cost for services;107210

       (b) The source of funds available to the county board to pay 107211
the nonfederal share of medicaid expenditures that the county 107212
board is required by sections 5126.059 and 5126.0510 of the 107213
Revised Code to pay;107214

       (c) Any other applicable information or conditions that the 107215
department of developmental disabilities requires as a condition 107216
of approving the component under section 5123.046 of the Revised 107217
Code.107218

       (2) A preliminary implementation component that specifies the 107219
number of individuals to be provided, during the first year that 107220
the plan is in effect, home and community-based services pursuant 107221
to the waiting list priority given to them under section 5126.042 107222
of the Revised Code and the types of home and community-based 107223
services the individuals are to receive;107224

       (3) A component that provides for the implementation of 107225
medicaid case management services and home and community-based 107226
services for individuals who begin to receive the services on or 107227
after the date the plan is approved under section 5123.046 of the 107228
Revised Code. A county board shall include all of the following in 107229
the component:107230

       (a) If the department of developmental disabilities or 107231
department of job and family servicesmedicaid requires, an 107232
agreement to pay the nonfederal share of medicaid expenditures 107233
that the county board is required by sections 5126.059 and 107234
5126.0510 of the Revised Code to pay;107235

       (b) How the services are to be phased in over the period the 107236
plan covers, including how the county board will serve individuals 107237
who have priority on a waiting list established under section 107238
5126.042 of the Revised Code;107239

       (c) Any agreement or commitment regarding the county board's 107240
funding of home and community-based services that the county board 107241
has with the department at the time the county board develops the 107242
component;107243

       (d) Assurances adequate to the department that the county 107244
board will comply with all of the following requirements:107245

       (i) To provide the types of home and community-based services 107246
specified in the preliminary implementation component required by 107247
division (A)(2) of this section to at least the number of 107248
individuals specified in that component;107249

       (ii) To use any additional funds the county board receives 107250
for the services to improve the county board's resource 107251
capabilities for supporting such services available in the county 107252
at the time the component is developed and to expand the services 107253
to accommodate the unmet need for those services in the county;107254

       (iii) To employ or contract with a business manager or enter 107255
into an agreement with another county board of developmental 107256
disabilities that employs or contracts with a business manager to 107257
have the business manager serve both county boards. No 107258
superintendent of a county board may serve as the county board's 107259
business manager.107260

       (iv) To employ or contract with a medicaid services manager 107261
or enter into an agreement with another county board of 107262
developmental disabilities that employs or contracts with a 107263
medicaid services manager to have the medicaid services manager 107264
serve both county boards. No superintendent of a county board may 107265
serve as the county board's medicaid services manager.107266

       (e) Programmatic and financial accountability measures and 107267
projected outcomes expected from the implementation of the plan;107268

       (f) Any other applicable information or conditions that the 107269
department requires as a condition of approving the component 107270
under section 5123.046 of the Revised Code.107271

       (B) A county board whose plan developed under division (A) of 107272
this section is approved by the department under section 5123.046 107273
of the Revised Code shall update and renew the plan in accordance 107274
with a schedule the department shall develop.107275

       Sec. 5126.055.  (A) Except as provided in section 5126.056 of 107276
the Revised Code, a county board of developmental disabilities has 107277
medicaid local administrative authority to, and shall, do all of 107278
the following for an individual with mental retardation or other 107279
developmental disability who resides in the county that the county 107280
board serves and seeks or receives home and community-based 107281
services:107282

       (1) Perform assessments and evaluations of the individual. As 107283
part of the assessment and evaluation process, the county board 107284
shall do all of the following:107285

       (a) Make a recommendation to the department of developmental 107286
disabilities on whether the department should approve or deny the 107287
individual's application for the services, including on the basis 107288
of whether the individual needs the level of care an intermediate 107289
care facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID provides;107290

       (b) If the individual's application is denied because of the 107291
county board's recommendation and the individual requests a 107292
hearing underappeals pursuant to section 5101.355160.31 of the 107293
Revised Code, present, with the department of developmental 107294
disabilities or department of job and family servicesmedicaid, 107295
whichever denies the application, the reasons for the 107296
recommendation and denial at the hearing;107297

       (c) If the individual's application is approved, recommend to 107298
the departments of developmental disabilities and job and family 107299
servicesmedicaid the services that should be included in the 107300
individual's individualized service plan and, if either department 107301
approves, reduces, denies, or terminates a service included in the 107302
individual's individualized service plan under section 5111.871107303
5166.20 of the Revised Code because of the county board's 107304
recommendation, present, with the department that made the 107305
approval, reduction, denial, or termination, the reasons for the 107306
recommendation and approval, reduction, denial, or termination at 107307
a hearing held pursuant to an appeal made under section 5101.35107308
5160.31 of the Revised Code.107309

       (2) Perform any duties assigned to the county board in rules 107310
adopted under section 5126.046 of the Revised Code regarding the 107311
individual's right to choose a qualified and willing provider of 107312
the services and, at a hearing held pursuant to an appeal made107313
under section 5101.355160.31 of the Revised Code, present 107314
evidence of the process for appropriate assistance in choosing 107315
providers;107316

       (3) If the county board is certified under section 5123.161 107317
of the Revised Code to provide the services and agrees to provide 107318
the services to the individual and the individual chooses the 107319
county board to provide the services, furnish, in accordance with 107320
the county board's medicaid provider agreement and for the 107321
authorized reimbursement rate, the services the individual 107322
requires;107323

       (4) Monitor the services provided to the individual and 107324
ensure the individual's health, safety, and welfare. The 107325
monitoring shall include quality assurance activities. If the 107326
county board provides the services, the department of 107327
developmental disabilities shall also monitor the services.107328

       (5) Develop, with the individual and the provider of the 107329
individual's services, an effective individualized service plan 107330
that includes coordination of services, recommend that the 107331
departments of developmental disabilities and job and family 107332
servicesmedicaid approve the plan, and implement the plan unless 107333
either department disapproves it. The individualized service plan 107334
shall include a summary page, agreed to by the county board, 107335
provider, and individual receiving services, that clearly outlines 107336
the amount, duration, and scope of services to be provided under 107337
the plan.107338

       (6) Have an investigative agent conduct investigations under 107339
section 5126.313 of the Revised Code that concern the individual;107340

       (7) Have a service and support administrator perform the 107341
duties under division (B)(9) of section 5126.15 of the Revised 107342
Code that concern the individual.107343

       (B) A county board shall perform its medicaid local 107344
administrative authority under this section in accordance with all 107345
of the following:107346

       (1) The county board's plan that the department of 107347
developmental disabilities approves under section 5123.046 of the 107348
Revised Code;107349

       (2) All applicable federal and state laws;107350

       (3) All applicable policies of the departments of 107351
developmental disabilities and job and family servicesmedicaid107352
and the United States department of health and human services;107353

       (4) The department of job and family services'medicaid's107354
supervision under its authority under section 5111.01 of the 107355
Revised Code to act as the single state medicaid agency;107356

       (5) The department of developmental disabilities' oversight.107357

       (C) The departments of developmental disabilities and job and 107358
family servicesmedicaid shall communicate with and provide 107359
training to county boards regarding medicaid local administrative 107360
authority granted by this section. The communication and training 107361
shall include issues regarding audit protocols and other standards 107362
established by the United States department of health and human 107363
services that the departments determine appropriate for 107364
communication and training. County boards shall participate in the 107365
training. The departments shall assess the county board's 107366
compliance against uniform standards that the departments shall 107367
establish.107368

       (D) A county board may not delegate its medicaid local 107369
administrative authority granted under this section but may 107370
contract with a person or government entity, including a council 107371
of governments, for assistance with its medicaid local 107372
administrative authority. A county board that enters into such a 107373
contract shall notify the director of developmental disabilities. 107374
The notice shall include the tasks and responsibilities that the 107375
contract gives to the person or government entity. The person or 107376
government entity shall comply in full with all requirements to 107377
which the county board is subject regarding the person or 107378
government entity's tasks and responsibilities under the contract. 107379
The county board remains ultimately responsible for the tasks and 107380
responsibilities.107381

       (E) A county board that has medicaid local administrative 107382
authority under this section shall, through the departments of 107383
developmental disabilities and job and family servicesmedicaid, 107384
reply to, and cooperate in arranging compliance with, a program or 107385
fiscal audit or program violation exception that a state or 107386
federal audit or review discovers. The department of job and 107387
family servicesmedicaid shall timely notify the department of 107388
developmental disabilities and the county board of any adverse 107389
findings. After receiving the notice, the county board, in 107390
conjunction with the department of developmental disabilities, 107391
shall cooperate fully with the department of job and family 107392
servicesmedicaid and timely prepare and send to the department a 107393
written plan of correction or response to the adverse findings. 107394
The county board is liable for any adverse findings that result 107395
from an action it takes or fails to take in its implementation of 107396
medicaid local administrative authority.107397

       (F) If the department of developmental disabilities or 107398
department of job and family servicesmedicaid determines that a 107399
county board's implementation of its medicaid local administrative 107400
authority under this section is deficient, the department that 107401
makes the determination shall require that county board do the 107402
following:107403

       (1) If the deficiency affects the health, safety, or welfare 107404
of an individual with mental retardation or other developmental 107405
disability, correct the deficiency within twenty-four hours;107406

       (2) If the deficiency does not affect the health, safety, or 107407
welfare of an individual with mental retardation or other 107408
developmental disability, receive technical assistance from the 107409
department or submit a plan of correction to the department that 107410
is acceptable to the department within sixty days and correct the 107411
deficiency within the time required by the plan of correction.107412

       Sec. 5126.131.  (A)(1) Each regional council established 107413
under section 5126.13 of the Revised Code shall file with the 107414
department of developmental disabilities an annual cost report 107415
detailing the regional council's income and expenditures.107416

       (2) Each county board of developmental disabilities shall 107417
file with the department an annual cost report detailing the 107418
board's income and expenditures.107419

       (B)(1)(a) Unless the department establishes a later date for 107420
all regional council cost reports, each council shall file its 107421
cost report not later than the last day of April. At the written 107422
request of a regional council, the department may grant a 107423
fourteen-day extension for filing the cost report.107424

       (b) Unless the department establishes a later date for all 107425
county board cost reports, each board shall file its cost report 107426
not later than the last day of May. At the written request of a 107427
board, the department may grant a fourteen-day extension for 107428
filing the board's cost report.107429

       (2) The cost report shall contain information on the previous 107430
calendar year's income and expenditures. Once filed by a regional 107431
council or board, no changes may be made to the cost report, 107432
including the submission of additional documentation, except as 107433
otherwise provided in this section.107434

       (C) Each cost report filed under this section by a regional 107435
council or board shall be audited by the department or an entity 107436
designated by the department. The department or designated entity 107437
shall notify the regional council or board of the date on which 107438
the audit is to begin. The department may permit a regional 107439
council or board to submit changes to the cost report before the 107440
audit begins.107441

       If the department or designated entity determines that a 107442
filed cost report is not auditable, it shall provide written 107443
notification to the regional council or board of the cost report's 107444
deficiencies and may request additional documentation. If the 107445
department or designated entity requests additional documentation, 107446
the regional council or board shall be given sixty days after the 107447
request is made to provide the additional documentation. After 107448
sixty days, the department or designated entity shall determine 107449
whether the cost report is auditable with any additional 107450
documentation provided and shall notify the regional council or 107451
board of its determination. The determination of the department or 107452
designated entity is final.107453

       (D) The department or designated entity shall certify its 107454
audit as complete and file a copy of the certified audit in the 107455
office of the clerk of the governing body, executive officer of 107456
the governing body, and chief fiscal officer of the audited 107457
regional council or board. Changes may not be made to a cost 107458
report once the department or designated entity files the 107459
certified audit. The cost report is not a public record under 107460
section 149.43 of the Revised Code until copies of the cost report 107461
are filed pursuant to this section.107462

       (E) The department may withhold any funds that it distributes 107463
to a regional council or board as subsidy payments if either of 107464
the following is the case:107465

       (1) The cost report is not timely filed by the regional 107466
council or board with the department in accordance with division 107467
(B) of this section.107468

       (2) The cost report is determined not auditable under 107469
division (C) of this section after the department or designated 107470
entity gives the regional council or board sixty days to provide 107471
additional documentation.107472

       (F) Cost reports shall be retained by regional councils and 107473
boards for seven years. The department shall provide annual 107474
training to regional council and board employees regarding cost 107475
reports required by this section.107476

       (G) The department, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 107477
Revised Code, may adopt any rules necessary to implement this 107478
section.107479

       Sec. 5139.03.  The department of youth services shall control 107480
and manage all state institutions or facilities established or 107481
created for the training or rehabilitation of delinquent children 107482
committed to the department, except where the control and 107483
management of an institution or facility is vested by law in 107484
another agency. The department shall employ, in addition to other 107485
personnel authorized under Chapter 5139. of the Revised Code, 107486
sufficient personnel to maintain food service and buildings and 107487
grounds operations.107488

       The department of youth services shall, insofar as 107489
practicable, purchase foods and other commodities incident to food 107490
service operations from the department of mental healthmental 107491
health and addiction services. The department of youth services 107492
may enter into agreements with the department of mental health107493
mental health and addiction services providing for assistance and 107494
consultation in the construction of, or major modifications to, 107495
capital facilities of the department of youth services.107496

       The directors of mental healthmental health and addiction 107497
services and of youth services shall enter into written agreements 107498
to implement this section. Such directors may, from time to time, 107499
amend any agreements entered into under this section for the 107500
purposes of making more efficient use of personnel, taking 107501
advantage of economies in quantity purchasing, or for any other 107502
purpose which is mutually advantageous to both the department of 107503
youth services and the department of mental healthmental health 107504
and addiction services.107505

       The department of youth services may transfer any of its 107506
excess or surplus supplies to a community corrections facility. 107507
These supplies shall remain the property of the department for a 107508
period of five years from the date of the transfer. After the 107509
five-year period, the supplies shall become the property of the 107510
facility.107511

       Sec. 5139.04.  The department of youth services shall do all 107512
of the following:107513

       (A) Support service districts through a central 107514
administrative office that shall have as its administrative head a 107515
deputy director who shall be appointed by the director of the 107516
department. When a vacancy occurs in the office of that deputy 107517
director, an assistant deputy director shall act as that deputy 107518
director until the vacancy is filled. The position of deputy 107519
director and assistant deputy director described in this division 107520
shall be in the unclassified civil service of the state.107521

       (B) Receive custody of all children committed to it under 107522
Chapter 2152. of the Revised Code, cause a study to be made of 107523
those children, and issue any orders, as it considers best suited 107524
to the needs of any of those children and the interest of the 107525
public, for the treatment of each of those children;107526

       (C) Obtain personnel necessary for the performance of its 107527
duties;107528

       (D) Adopt rules that regulate its organization and operation, 107529
that implement sections 5139.34 and 5139.41 to 5139.43 of the 107530
Revised Code, and that pertain to the administration of other 107531
sections of this chapter;107532

       (E) Submit reports of its operations to the governor and the 107533
general assembly by the thirty-first day of January of each 107534
odd-numbered year;107535

       (F) Conduct a program of research in diagnosis, training, and 107536
treatment of delinquent children to evaluate the effectiveness of 107537
the department's services and to develop more adequate methods;107538

       (G) Develop a standard form for the disposition investigation 107539
report that a juvenile court is required pursuant to section 107540
2152.18 of the Revised Code to complete and provide to the 107541
department when the court commits a child to the legal custody of 107542
the department;107543

       (H) Provide the state public defender the reasonable access 107544
authorized under division (I) of section 120.06 of the Revised 107545
Code in order to fulfill the department's constitutional 107546
obligation to provide juveniles who have been committed to the 107547
department's care access to the courts.107548

        (I) Do all other acts necessary or desirable to carry out 107549
this chapter.107550

       Sec. 5139.08.  The department of youth services may enter 107551
into an agreement with the director of rehabilitation and 107552
correction pursuant to which the department of youth services, in 107553
accordance with division (C)(2) of section 5139.06 and section 107554
5120.162 of the Revised Code, may transfer to a correctional 107555
medical center established by the department of rehabilitation and 107556
correction, children who are within its custody for diagnosis or 107557
treatment of an illness, physical condition, or other medical 107558
problem. The department of youth services may enter into any other 107559
agreements with the director of job and family services, the 107560
director of mental healthmental health and addiction services, 107561
the director of developmental disabilities, the director of 107562
rehabilitation and correction, with the courts having probation 107563
officers or other public officials, and with private agencies or 107564
institutions for separate care or special treatment of children 107565
subject to the control of the department of youth services. The 107566
department of youth services may, upon the request of a juvenile 107567
court not having a regular probation officer, provide probation 107568
services for such court.107569

       Upon request by the department of youth services, any public 107570
agency or group care facility established or administered by the 107571
state for the care and treatment of children and youth shall, 107572
consistent with its functions, accept and care for any child whose 107573
custody is vested in the department in the same manner as it would 107574
be required to do if custody had been vested by a court in such 107575
agency or group care facility. If the department has reasonable 107576
grounds to believe that any child or youth whose custody is vested 107577
in it is mentally ill or mentally retarded, the department may 107578
file an affidavit under section 5122.11 or 5123.76 of the Revised 107579
Code. The department's affidavit for admission of a child or youth 107580
to such institution shall be filed with the probate court of the 107581
county from which the child was committed to the department. Such 107582
court may request the probate court of the county in which the 107583
child is held to conduct the hearing on the application, in which 107584
case the court making such request shall bear the expenses of the 107585
proceeding. If the department files such an affidavit, the child 107586
or youth may be kept in such institution until a final decision on 107587
the affidavit is made by the appropriate court.107588

       Sec. 5139.282.  The director of youth services shall 107589
establish a pre-service and in-service training program for 107590
juvenile correctional facility youth specialists that shall 107591
include, but is not limited to, training in unarmed self-defense, 107592
hostage negotiation, transportation, first aid, and CPR as defined 107593
in division (B) of section 2133.21 of the Revised Code.107594

       Sec. 5139.34.  (A) Funds may be appropriated to the 107595
department of youth services for the purpose of granting state 107596
subsidies to counties. A county or the juvenile court that serves 107597
a county shall use state subsidies granted to the county pursuant 107598
to this section only in accordance with divisions (B)(2)(a) and 107599
(3)(a) of section 5139.43 of the Revised Code and the rules 107600
pertaining to the state subsidy funds that the department adopts 107601
pursuant to division (D) of section 5139.04 of the Revised Code. 107602
The department shall not grant financial assistance pursuant to 107603
this section for the provision of care and services for children 107604
in a placement facility unless the facility has been certified, 107605
licensed, or approved by a state or national agency with 107606
certification, licensure, or approval authority, including, but 107607
not limited to, the department of job and family services, 107608
department of education, department of mental healthmental health 107609
and addiction services, department of developmental disabilities, 107610
or American correctional association. For the purposes of this 107611
section, placement facilities do not include a state institution 107612
or a county or district children's home.107613

       The department also shall not grant financial assistance 107614
pursuant to this section for the provision of care and services 107615
for children, including, but not limited to, care and services in 107616
a detention facility, in another facility, or in out-of-home 107617
placement, unless the minimum standards applicable to the care and 107618
services that the department prescribes in rules adopted pursuant 107619
to division (D) of section 5139.04 of the Revised Code have been 107620
satisfied.107621

       (B) The department of youth services shall apply the 107622
following formula to determine the amount of the annual grant that 107623
each county is to receive pursuant to division (A) of this 107624
section, subject to the appropriation for this purpose to the 107625
department made by the general assembly:107626

       (1) Each county shall receive a basic annual grant of fifty 107627
thousand dollars.107628

       (2) The sum of the basic annual grants provided under 107629
division (B)(1) of this section shall be subtracted from the total 107630
amount of funds appropriated to the department of youth services 107631
for the purpose of making grants pursuant to division (A) of this 107632
section to determine the remaining portion of the funds 107633
appropriated. The remaining portion of the funds appropriated 107634
shall be distributed on a per capita basis to each county that has 107635
a population of more than twenty-five thousand for that portion of 107636
the population of the county that exceeds twenty-five thousand.107637

       (C)(1) Prior to a county's receipt of an annual grant 107638
pursuant to this section, the juvenile court that serves the 107639
county shall prepare, submit, and file in accordance with division 107640
(B)(3)(a) of section 5139.43 of the Revised Code an annual grant 107641
agreement and application for funding that is for the combined 107642
purposes of, and that satisfies the requirements of, this section 107643
and section 5139.43 of the Revised Code. In addition to the 107644
subject matters described in division (B)(3)(a) of section 5139.43 107645
of the Revised Code or in the rules that the department adopts to 107646
implement that division, the annual grant agreement and 107647
application for funding shall address fiscal accountability and 107648
performance matters pertaining to the programs, care, and services 107649
that are specified in the agreement and application and for which 107650
state subsidy funds granted pursuant to this section will be used.107651

       (2) The county treasurer of each county that receives an 107652
annual grant pursuant to this section shall deposit the state 107653
subsidy funds so received into the county's felony delinquent care 107654
and custody fund created pursuant to division (B)(1) of section 107655
5139.43 of the Revised Code. Subject to exceptions prescribed in 107656
section 5139.43 of the Revised Code that may apply to the 107657
disbursement, the department shall disburse the state subsidy 107658
funds to which a county is entitled in a lump sum payment that 107659
shall be made in July of each calendar year.107660

       (3) Upon an order of the juvenile court that serves a county 107661
and subject to appropriation by the board of county commissioners 107662
of that county, a county treasurer shall disburse from the 107663
county's felony delinquent care and custody fund the state subsidy 107664
funds granted to the county pursuant to this section for use only 107665
in accordance with this section, the applicable provisions of 107666
section 5139.43 of the Revised Code, and the county's approved 107667
annual grant agreement and application for funding.107668

       (4) The moneys in a county's felony delinquent care and 107669
custody fund that represent state subsidy funds granted pursuant 107670
to this section are subject to appropriation by the board of 107671
county commissioners of the county; shall be disbursed by the 107672
county treasurer as required by division (C)(3) of this section; 107673
shall be used in the manners referred to in division (C)(3) of 107674
this section; shall not revert to the county general fund at the 107675
end of any fiscal year; shall carry over in the felony delinquent 107676
care and custody fund from the end of any fiscal year to the next 107677
fiscal year; shall be in addition to, and shall not be used to 107678
reduce, any usual annual increase in county funding that the 107679
juvenile court is eligible to receive or the current level of 107680
county funding of the juvenile court and of any programs, care, or 107681
services for alleged or adjudicated delinquent children, unruly 107682
children, or juvenile traffic offenders or for children who are at 107683
risk of becoming delinquent children, unruly children, or juvenile 107684
traffic offenders; and shall not be used to pay for the care and 107685
custody of felony deliquentsdelinquents who are in the care and 107686
custody of an institution pursuant to a commitment, recommitment, 107687
or revocation of a release on parole by the juvenile court of that 107688
county or who are in the care and custody of a community 107689
corrections facility pursuant to a placement by the department 107690
with the consent of the juvenile court as described in division 107691
(E) of section 5139.36 of the Revised Code.107692

       (5) As a condition of the continued receipt of state subsidy 107693
funds pursuant to this section, each county and the juvenile court 107694
that serves each county that receives an annual grant pursuant to 107695
this section shall comply with divisions (B)(3)(b), (c), and (d) 107696
of section 5139.43 of the Revised Code.107697

       Sec. 5145.162.  (A) There is hereby created the office of 107698
enterprise development advisory council of directors for prison 107699
labor consistingboard to advise and assist the department of 107700
rehabilitation and correction with the creation of training 107701
programs and jobs for inmates and releasees through partnerships 107702
with private sector businesses. The board shall consist of at 107703
least five appointed members and the executive director of the 107704
office of the correctional institution inspection committee, who 107705
shall serve as an ex officio member. Each member shall have 107706
experience in labor relations, marketing, business management, or 107707
business. The members and chairperson shall be appointed by the 107708
governordirector of the department of rehabilitation and 107709
correction. Within thirty days after April 9, 1981, the governor 107710
shall make the initial appointments to the council of directors. 107711
Of the initial appointments made to the council of directors, two 107712
shall be for a term ending one year after April 9, 1981, two shall 107713
be for a term ending two years after that date, and one shall be 107714
for a term ending three years after that date. After the 107715
expiration of the initial terms, the terms of office for the 107716
members shall be for three years, each term ending on the same day 107717
of the same month of the year as did the term that it succeeds. 107718
Each member shall hold office from the date of appointment until 107719
the end of the term for which the member was appointed. Any 107720
vacancy on the advisory council shall be filled by the governor. 107721
Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring prior to the 107722
expiration of the term for which the member's predecessor was 107723
appointed shall hold office for the remainder of the predecessor's 107724
term. Any member shall continue in office subsequent to the 107725
expiration date of the member's term until a successor takes 107726
office, or until a period of sixty days has elapsed, whichever 107727
occurs first.107728

       (B) Each member of the advisory council, while engaged in the 107729
performance of the business of the advisory council,board shall 107730
receive no compensation but may be reimbursed for expenses 107731
actually and necessarily incurred in the performance of official 107732
duties of the board. Members of the board who are state employees 107733
shall be reimbursed for expenses pursuant to travel rules 107734
promulgated by the office of budget and management.107735

       (C) The advisory councilboard shall adopt procedures for the 107736
conduct of the board's meetings. The board shall meet within two 107737
weeks after the initial members have been appointed at a time and 107738
place determined by the governor. At its first meeting, the 107739
advisory council shall elect a chairperson and shall adopt rules 107740
for its procedures. The advisory council shall elect a new 107741
chairperson annually at its January meeting. The advisory council 107742
shall meet at least once every January and at least once every two 107743
months thereafterquarter, and otherwise shall meet at the call of 107744
the chairperson or upon the written request of at least a quorum 107745
of the members. Threedirector of the department of rehabilitation 107746
and correction. Sixty per cent of the members constitutesshall 107747
constitute a quorum, and no action. No transaction of the board's 107748
business shall be taken without the concurrence of a quorum of the 107749
members. The board may have committees with persons who are not 107750
members of the board but whose experience and expertise is 107751
relevant and useful to the work of the committee.107752

       (D) The advisory councilboard shall advise and assist the 107753
department of rehabilitation and correction when the department 107754
adopts rules pursuant to division (B) of section 5145.03 of the 107755
Revised Code, establishes prices for goods, products, services, or 107756
labor produced or supplied by prisoners, and otherwise establishes 107757
and administers the program for employment of prisoners 107758
established by the department pursuant to division (A) of section 107759
5145.16 of the Revised Code. The department shall consider the 107760
advice and assistance of the advisory council that is provided 107761
pursuant to this section, and shall cooperate with the advisory 107762
council. The advisory council may recommendhave the following 107763
duties:107764

       (1) Solicit business proposals offering job training, 107765
apprenticeship, education programs, and employment opportunities 107766
for inmates and releasees;107767

       (2) Provide information and input to the office of enterprise 107768
development to support the job training and employment program of 107769
inmates and releasees and any additional, related duties as 107770
requested by the director of the department of rehabilitation and 107771
correction;107772

       (3) Recommend to the general assemblyoffice of enterprise 107773
development any further legislation, administrative rule, or 107774
department policy change that itthe board believes is necessary 107775
to implement the department's program of employment of prisoners;107776

       (4) Promote public awareness of the office of enterprise 107777
development and the office's employment program;107778

       (5) Familiarize itself and the public with avenues to access 107779
the office of enterprise development on employment program 107780
concerns;107781

       (6) Advocate for the needs and concerns of the office of 107782
enterprise development in local communities, counties, and the 107783
state;107784

       (7) Play an active role in the office of enterprise 107785
development's efforts to reduce recidivism in the state by doing 107786
all of the following:107787

       (a) Providing input and making recommendations for the 107788
office's consideration in monitoring employment program compliance 107789
and effectiveness;107790

       (b) Making suggestions on the appropriate priorities for the 107791
office's grant award criteria;107792

       (c) Being a liaison between the office and constituents of 107793
the board's members;107794

       (d) Working to develop constituent groups interested in 107795
employment program issues;107796

       (8) Aid in the employment program development process by 107797
playing a leadership role in professional associations by 107798
discussing employment program issues.107799

       (E) The department of rehabilitation and correction shall 107800
initially screen each proposal obtained under division (D)(1) of 107801
this section to ensure that the proposal is a viable venture to 107802
pursue. If the department determines that a proposal is a viable 107803
venture to pursue, the department shall submit the proposal to the 107804
board for objective review against established guidelines. The 107805
board shall determine whether to recommend the implementation of 107806
the program to the department.107807

       Sec. 5145.18.  Any printing or binding performed in a state 107808
correctional institution may be performed for the use of the 107809
institution, the departments of mental healthmental health and 107810
addiction services, developmental disabilities, and rehabilitation 107811
and correction, the department of public safety in connection with 107812
the registration of motor vehicles, and for any other purpose 107813
authorized by division (B) of section 5145.03 and by sections 107814
5145.16 and 5145.161 of the Revised Code.107815

       Sec. 5153.16.  (A) Except as provided in section 2151.422 of 107816
the Revised Code, in accordance with rules adopted under section 107817
5153.166 of the Revised Code, and on behalf of children in the 107818
county whom the public children services agency considers to be in 107819
need of public care or protective services, the public children 107820
services agency shall do all of the following:107821

       (1) Make an investigation concerning any child alleged to be 107822
an abused, neglected, or dependent child;107823

       (2) Enter into agreements with the parent, guardian, or other 107824
person having legal custody of any child, or with the department 107825
of job and family services, department of mental healthmental 107826
health and addiction services, department of developmental 107827
disabilities, other department, any certified organization within 107828
or outside the county, or any agency or institution outside the 107829
state, having legal custody of any child, with respect to the 107830
custody, care, or placement of any child, or with respect to any 107831
matter, in the interests of the child, provided the permanent 107832
custody of a child shall not be transferred by a parent to the 107833
public children services agency without the consent of the 107834
juvenile court;107835

       (3) Accept custody of children committed to the public 107836
children services agency by a court exercising juvenile 107837
jurisdiction;107838

       (4) Provide such care as the public children services agency 107839
considers to be in the best interests of any child adjudicated to 107840
be an abused, neglected, or dependent child the agency finds to be 107841
in need of public care or service;107842

       (5) Provide social services to any unmarried girl adjudicated 107843
to be an abused, neglected, or dependent child who is pregnant 107844
with or has been delivered of a child;107845

       (6) Make available to the bureau for children with medical 107846
handicaps of the department of health at its request any 107847
information concerning a crippled child found to be in need of 107848
treatment under sections 3701.021 to 3701.028 of the Revised Code 107849
who is receiving services from the public children services 107850
agency;107851

       (7) Provide temporary emergency care for any child considered 107852
by the public children services agency to be in need of such care, 107853
without agreement or commitment;107854

       (8) Find certified foster homes, within or outside the 107855
county, for the care of children, including handicapped children 107856
from other counties attending special schools in the county;107857

       (9) Subject to the approval of the board of county 107858
commissioners and the state department of job and family services, 107859
establish and operate a training school or enter into an agreement 107860
with any municipal corporation or other political subdivision of 107861
the county respecting the operation, acquisition, or maintenance 107862
of any children's home, training school, or other institution for 107863
the care of children maintained by such municipal corporation or 107864
political subdivision;107865

       (10) Acquire and operate a county children's home, establish, 107866
maintain, and operate a receiving home for the temporary care of 107867
children, or procure certified foster homes for this purpose;107868

       (11) Enter into an agreement with the trustees of any 107869
district children's home, respecting the operation of the district 107870
children's home in cooperation with the other county boards in the 107871
district;107872

       (12) Cooperate with, make its services available to, and act 107873
as the agent of persons, courts, the department of job and family 107874
services, the department of health, and other organizations within 107875
and outside the state, in matters relating to the welfare of 107876
children, except that the public children services agency shall 107877
not be required to provide supervision of or other services 107878
related to the exercise of parenting time rights granted pursuant 107879
to section 3109.051 or 3109.12 of the Revised Code or 107880
companionship or visitation rights granted pursuant to section 107881
3109.051, 3109.11, or 3109.12 of the Revised Code unless a 107882
juvenile court, pursuant to Chapter 2151. of the Revised Code, or 107883
a common pleas court, pursuant to division (E)(6) of section 107884
3113.31 of the Revised Code, requires the provision of supervision 107885
or other services related to the exercise of the parenting time 107886
rights or companionship or visitation rights;107887

       (13) Make investigations at the request of any superintendent 107888
of schools in the county or the principal of any school concerning 107889
the application of any child adjudicated to be an abused, 107890
neglected, or dependent child for release from school, where such 107891
service is not provided through a school attendance department;107892

       (14) Administer funds provided under Title IV-E of the 107893
"Social Security Act," 94 Stat. 501 (1980), 42 U.S.C.A. 671, as 107894
amended, in accordance with rules adopted under section 5101.141 107895
of the Revised Code;107896

       (15) In addition to administering Title IV-E adoption 107897
assistance funds, enter into agreements to make adoption 107898
assistance payments under section 5153.163 of the Revised Code;107899

       (16) Implement a system of safety and risk assessment, in 107900
accordance with rules adopted by the director of job and family 107901
services, to assist the public children services agency in 107902
determining the risk of abuse or neglect to a child;107903

       (17) Enter into a plan of cooperation with the board of 107904
county commissioners under section 307.983 of the Revised Code and 107905
comply with each fiscal agreement the board enters into under 107906
section 307.98 of the Revised Code that include family services 107907
duties of public children services agencies and contracts the 107908
board enters into under sections 307.981 and 307.982 of the 107909
Revised Code that affect the public children services agency;107910

       (18) Make reasonable efforts to prevent the removal of an 107911
alleged or adjudicated abused, neglected, or dependent child from 107912
the child's home, eliminate the continued removal of the child 107913
from the child's home, or make it possible for the child to return 107914
home safely, except that reasonable efforts of that nature are not 107915
required when a court has made a determination under division 107916
(A)(2) of section 2151.419 of the Revised Code;107917

       (19) Make reasonable efforts to place the child in a timely 107918
manner in accordance with the permanency plan approved under 107919
division (E) of section 2151.417 of the Revised Code and to 107920
complete whatever steps are necessary to finalize the permanent 107921
placement of the child;107922

       (20) Administer a Title IV-A program identified under 107923
division (A)(4)(c) or (f)(g) of section 5101.80 of the Revised 107924
Code that the department of job and family services provides for 107925
the public children services agency to administer under the 107926
department's supervision pursuant to section 5101.801 of the 107927
Revised Code;107928

       (21) Administer the kinship permanency incentive program 107929
created under section 5101.802 of the Revised Code under the 107930
supervision of the director of job and family services;107931

       (22) Provide independent living services pursuant to sections 107932
2151.81 to 2151.84 of the Revised Code;107933

       (23) File a missing child report with a local law enforcement 107934
agency upon becoming aware that a child in the custody of the 107935
public children services agency is or may be missing.107936

       (B) The public children services agency shall use the system 107937
implemented pursuant to division (A)(16) of this section in 107938
connection with an investigation undertaken pursuant to division 107939
(F)(1) of section 2151.421 of the Revised Code to assess both of 107940
the following:107941

       (1) The ongoing safety of the child;107942

       (2) The appropriateness of the intensity and duration of the 107943
services provided to meet child and family needs throughout the 107944
duration of a case.107945

       (C) Except as provided in section 2151.422 of the Revised 107946
Code, in accordance with rules of the director of job and family 107947
services, and on behalf of children in the county whom the public 107948
children services agency considers to be in need of public care or 107949
protective services, the public children services agency may do 107950
the following:107951

       (1) Provide or find, with other child serving systems, 107952
specialized foster care for the care of children in a specialized 107953
foster home, as defined in section 5103.02 of the Revised Code, 107954
certified under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code;107955

       (2)(a) Except as limited by divisions (C)(2)(b) and (c) of 107956
this section, contract with the following for the purpose of 107957
assisting the agency with its duties:107958

       (i) County departments of job and family services;107959

       (ii) Boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 107960
services;107961

       (iii) County boards of developmental disabilities;107962

       (iv) Regional councils of political subdivisions established 107963
under Chapter 167. of the Revised Code;107964

       (v) Private and government providers of services;107965

       (vi) Managed care organizations and prepaid health plans.107966

       (b) A public children services agency contract under division 107967
(C)(2)(a) of this section regarding the agency's duties under 107968
section 2151.421 of the Revised Code may not provide for the 107969
entity under contract with the agency to perform any service not 107970
authorized by the department's rules.107971

       (c) Only a county children services board appointed under 107972
section 5153.03 of the Revised Code that is a public children 107973
services agency may contract under division (C)(2)(a) of this 107974
section. If an entity specified in division (B) or (C) of section 107975
5153.02 of the Revised Code is the public children services agency 107976
for a county, the board of county commissioners may enter into 107977
contracts pursuant to section 307.982 of the Revised Code 107978
regarding the agency's duties.107979

       Sec. 5160.01.  As used in this chapter:107980

       (A) "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in the 107981
"Social Security Act," section 1915(h)(2)(B), 42 U.S.C. 107982
1396n(h)(2)(B). A dual eligible individual is a medicare-medicaid 107983
enrollee (MME).107984

       (B) "Exchange" has the same meaning as in 45 C.F.R. 155.20.107985

       (C) "Federal financial participation" means the federal 107986
government's share of expenditures made by an entity in 107987
implementing a medical assistance program.107988

       (D) "Medical assistance program" means all of the following:107989

       (1) The medicaid program;107990

       (2) The children's health insurance program;107991

       (3) The refugee medical assistance program;107992

       (4) Any other program that provides medical assistance and 107993
state statutes authorize the department of medicaid to administer.107994

       (E) "Medical assistance recipient" means a recipient of a 107995
medical assistance program. To the extent appropriate in the 107996
context, "medical assistance recipient" includes an individual 107997
applying for a medical assistance program, a former medical 107998
assistance recipient, or both.107999

       (F) "Medicaid managed care organization" has the same meaning 108000
as in section 5167.01 of the Revised Code.108001

       (G) "Refugee medical assistance program" means the program 108002
that the department of medicaid administers pursuant to section 108003
5160.50 of the Revised Code.108004

       Sec. 5160.011.  References to the department or director of 108005
public welfare, department or director of human services, 108006
department or director of job and family services, office of 108007
medical assistance, or medical assistance director in any statute, 108008
rule, contract, grant, or other document is deemed to refer to the 108009
department of medicaid or medicaid director, as the case may be, 108010
to the extent the reference is about a duty or authority of the 108011
department of medicaid or medicaid director regarding a medical 108012
assistance program.108013

       Sec. 5160.02.  The medicaid director shall adopt rules as 108014
necessary to implement this chapter.108015

       Sec. 5160.021.  (A) When the medicaid director is authorized 108016
by a statute to adopt a rule, the director shall adopt the rule in 108017
accordance with the following:108018

       (1) Chapter 119. of the Revised Code if either of the 108019
following applies:108020

       (a) The statute authorizing the rule requires that the rule 108021
be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.108022

       (b) Unless division (A)(2)(b) of this section applies, the 108023
statute authorizing the rule does not specify the procedure for 108024
the rule's adoption.108025

       (2) Section 111.15 of the Revised Code, excluding divisions 108026
(D) and (E) of that section, if either of the following applies:108027

       (a) The statute authorizing the rule requires that the rule 108028
be adopted in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code 108029
and, by the terms of division (D) of that section, division (D) of 108030
that section does not apply to the rule.108031

       (b) The statute authorizing the rule does not specify the 108032
procedure for the rule's adoption and the rule concerns the 108033
day-to-day staff procedures and operations of the department of 108034
medicaid or financial and operational matters between the 108035
department and a person or government entity receiving a grant 108036
from the department.108037

       (3) Section 111.15 of the Revised Code, including divisions 108038
(D) and (E) of that section, if the statute authorizing the rule 108039
requires that the rule be adopted in accordance with that section 108040
and the rule is not exempt from the application of division (D) of 108041
that section.108042

       (B) Except as otherwise required by a statute, the adoption 108043
of a rule in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code does 108044
not make the department of medicaid subject to the notice, 108045
hearing, or other requirements of sections 119.06 to 119.13 of the 108046
Revised Code.108047

       Sec. 5160.03.  The medicaid director is the executive head of 108048
the department of medicaid. All duties conferred on the department 108049
by law or order of the director are under the director's control 108050
and shall be performed in accordance with rules the director 108051
adopts.108052

       Sec. 5160.04.  The medicaid director shall appoint one 108053
assistant director for the department of medicaid. The assistant 108054
director shall exercise powers, and perform duties, as ordered by 108055
the medicaid director. The assistant director shall act as the 108056
medicaid director in the medicaid director's absence or disability 108057
and when the position of medicaid director is vacant.108058

       Sec. 5160.05.  The medicaid director may appoint such 108059
employees as are necessary for the efficient operation of the 108060
department of medicaid. The director may prescribe the title and 108061
duties of the employees.108062

       Sec. 5160.051.  If the medicaid director determines that a 108063
position with the department of medicaid can best be filled in 108064
accordance with division (A)(2) of section 124.30 of the Revised 108065
Code or without regard to a residency requirement established by a 108066
rule adopted by the director of administrative services, the 108067
medicaid director shall provide the director of administrative 108068
services certification of the determination.108069

       Sec. 5160.052.  The department of medicaid shall collaborate 108070
with the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification 108071
and investigation to develop procedures and formats necessary to 108072
produce the notices described in division (C) of section 109.5721 108073
of the Revised Code in a format that is acceptable for use by the 108074
department. The medicaid director may adopt rules under section 108075
5160.02 of the Revised Code necessary for such collaboration. Any 108076
such rules shall be adopted in accordance with section 111.15 of 108077
the Revised Code as if they were internal management rules.108078

       The medicaid director may adopt rules under section 5160.02 108079
of the Revised Code necessary for utilizing the information 108080
received pursuant to section 109.5721 of the Revised Code. The 108081
rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 108082
Revised Code.108083

       Sec. 5160.06.  The medicaid director may require any of the 108084
employees of the department of medicaid who may be charged with 108085
custody or control of any public money or property or who is 108086
required to give bond, to give a bond, properly conditioned, in a 108087
sum to be fixed by the director which when approved by the 108088
director, shall be filed in the office of the secretary of state. 108089
The cost of such bonds, when approved by the director, shall be 108090
paid from funds available for the department. The bonds required 108091
or authorized by this section may, in the discretion of the 108092
director, be individual, schedule, or blanket bonds.108093

       Sec. 5160.10.  The medicaid director may expend funds 108094
appropriated or available to the department of medicaid from 108095
persons and government entities. For purposes of this section, the 108096
director may enter into contracts or agreements with persons and 108097
government entities and make grants to persons and government 108098
entities. To the extent permitted by federal law, the director may 108099
advance funds to a grantee when necessary for the grantee to 108100
perform duties under the grant as specified by the director.108101

       The director may adopt rules under section 5160.02 of the 108102
Revised Code as necessary to define terms and adopt procedures and 108103
other provisions necessary to implement this section.108104

       Sec. 5160.11.  The state health care grants fund is hereby 108105
created in the state treasury. Money the department of medicaid 108106
receives from private foundations in support of pilot projects 108107
that promote exemplary programs that enhance programs the 108108
department administers shall be credited to the fund. The 108109
department may expend the money on such projects, may use the 108110
money, to the extent allowable, to match federal financial 108111
participation in support of such projects, and shall comply with 108112
requirements the foundations have stipulated in their agreements 108113
with the department as to the purposes for which the money may be 108114
expended.108115

       Sec. 5160.12.  (A) As used in this section, "entity" includes 108116
an agency, board, commission, or department of the state or a 108117
political subdivision of the state; a private, nonprofit entity; a 108118
school district; a private school; or a public or private 108119
institution of higher education.108120

       (B) This section does not apply to contracts entered into 108121
under section 5162.32 or 5162.35 of the Revised Code.108122

       (C) At the request of any public entity having authority to 108123
implement a program administered by the department of medicaid or 108124
any private entity under contract with a public entity to 108125
implement a program administered by the department, the department 108126
may seek to obtain federal financial participation for costs 108127
incurred by the entity. Federal financial participation may be 108128
sought from programs operated pursuant to Title XIX of the "Social 108129
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1396, et seq., and any other statute or 108130
regulation under which federal financial participation may be 108131
available, except that federal financial participation may be 108132
sought only for expenditures made with funds for which federal 108133
financial participation is available under federal law.108134

       (D) All funds collected by the department pursuant to 108135
division (C) of this section shall be distributed to the entities 108136
that incurred the costs.108137

       (E) In distributing federal financial participation pursuant 108138
to this section, the department may either enter into an agreement 108139
with the entity that is to receive the funds or distribute the 108140
funds in accordance with rules authorized by division (H) of this 108141
section. If the department decides to enter into an agreement to 108142
distribute the funds, the agreement may include terms that do any 108143
of the following:108144

       (1) Provide for the whole or partial reimbursement of any 108145
cost incurred by the entity in implementing the program;108146

       (2) In the event that federal financial participation is 108147
disallowed or otherwise unavailable for any expenditure, require 108148
the department or the entity, whichever party caused the 108149
disallowance or unavailability of federal financial participation, 108150
to assume responsibility for the expenditures;108151

       (3) Require the entity to certify to the department the 108152
availability of sufficient unencumbered funds to match the federal 108153
financial participation the entity receives under this section;108154

       (4) Establish the length of the agreement, which may be for a 108155
fixed or a continuing period of time;108156

       (5) Establish any other requirements determined by the 108157
department to be necessary for the efficient administration of the 108158
agreement.108159

       (F) An entity that receives federal financial participation 108160
pursuant to this section for a program aiding children and their 108161
families shall establish a process for collaborative planning with 108162
the department for the use of the funds to improve and expand the 108163
program.108164

       (G) Federal financial participation received pursuant to this 108165
section shall not be included in any calculation made under 108166
section 5101.16 or 5101.161 of the Revised Code.108167

       (H) The medicaid director may adopt rules under section 108168
5160.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 108169
section, including rules for the distribution of federal financial 108170
participation pursuant to this section. The rules shall be adopted 108171
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.108172

       Sec. 5160.13.  The department of medicaid may enter into 108173
contracts with private entities to maximize federal revenue 108174
without the expenditure of state money. In selecting private 108175
entities with which to contract, the department shall engage in a 108176
request for proposals process. The department, subject to the 108177
approval of the controlling board, may also directly enter into 108178
contracts with public entities providing revenue maximization 108179
services.108180

       Sec. 5160.16.  The department of medicaid may appoint and 108181
commission any competent person to serve as a special agent, 108182
investigator, or representative to perform a designated duty for 108183
and on behalf of the department. Specific credentials shall be 108184
given by the department to each person so designated, and each 108185
credential shall state the following:108186

       (A) The person's name;108187

       (B) The agency with which the person is connected;108188

       (C) The purpose of the appointment;108189

       (D) The date the appointment expires, if appropriate;108190

       (E) Such information as the department considers proper.108191

       Sec. 5160.20.  (A) The department of medicaid may conduct any 108192
audits or investigations that are necessary in the performance of 108193
the department's duties, and to that end, the department has the 108194
same power as a judge of a county court to administer oaths and to 108195
enforce the attendance and testimony of witnesses and the 108196
production of books or papers.108197

       The department shall keep a record of the department's audits 108198
and investigations stating the time, place, charges, or subject; 108199
witnesses summoned and examined; and the department's conclusions.108200

       Witnesses shall be paid the fees and mileage provided for 108201
under section 119.094 of the Revised Code.108202

       (B) Any judge of any division of the court of common pleas, 108203
on application of the department, may compel the attendance of 108204
witnesses, the production of books or papers, and the giving of 108205
testimony before the department, by a judgment for contempt or 108206
otherwise, in the same manner as in cases before those courts.108207

       (C) Until an audit report is formally released by the 108208
department, the audit report or any working paper or other 108209
document or record prepared by the department and related to the 108210
audit that is the subject of the audit report is not a public 108211
record under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.108212

       (D) The medicaid director may adopt rules under section 108213
5160.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 108214
section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with section 108215
111.15 of the Revised Code as if they were internal management 108216
rules.108217

       Sec. 5160.21.  On the request of the medicaid director, the 108218
auditor of state may conduct an audit of any medical assistance 108219
recipient. If the auditor decides to conduct an audit under this 108220
section, the auditor shall enter into an interagency agreement 108221
with the department of medicaid that specifies that the auditor 108222
agrees to comply with section 5160.45 of the Revised Code with 108223
respect to any information the auditor receives pursuant to the 108224
audit.108225

       Sec. 5160.22.  (A) The auditor of state and attorney general, 108226
or their designees, may examine any records, whether in computer 108227
or printed format, in the possession of the medicaid director or 108228
any county director of job and family services, regarding medical 108229
assistance programs. The auditor of state and attorney general 108230
shall do both of the following regarding the records:108231

       (1) Provide safeguards that restrict access to the records to 108232
purposes directly connected with an audit or investigation, 108233
prosecution, or criminal or civil proceeding conducted in 108234
connection with the administration of the programs;108235

       (2) Comply, and ensure that their designees comply, with 108236
section 5160.45 of the Revised Code and rules of the medicaid 108237
director restricting the disclosure of information regarding 108238
medical assistance recipients.108239

       (B) Any person who fails to comply with the restriction 108240
specified in division (A) of this section is disqualified from 108241
acting as an agent or employee or in any other capacity under 108242
appointment or employment of any state board, commission, or 108243
agency.108244

       Sec. 5160.23.  The auditor of state is responsible for the 108245
costs the auditor incurs in carrying out the auditor's duties 108246
under sections 5160.21 and 5160.22 of the Revised Code.108247

       Sec. 5160.30.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (B) and 108248
(C) of this section, the department of medicaid may accept 108249
applications, determine eligibility, redetermine eligibility, and 108250
perform related administrative activities for medical assistance 108251
programs.108252

       (B) The department may enter into agreements with one or more 108253
agencies of the federal government, the state, other states, and 108254
local governments of this or other states to accept applications, 108255
determine eligibility, redetermine eligibility, and perform 108256
related administrative activities on behalf of the department with 108257
respect to medical assistance programs.108258

       (C) If federal law requires a face-to-face interview to 108259
complete an eligibility determination for a medical assistance 108260
program, the department shall not conduct the face-to-face 108261
interview.108262

       (D) Subject to division (C) of this section, if the 108263
department elects to accept applications, determine eligibility, 108264
redetermine eligibility, and perform related administrative 108265
activities for a medical assistance program, both of the following 108266
apply:108267

       (1) An individual may apply for the medical assistance 108268
program to the department or an agency authorized by an agreement 108269
entered into under division (B) of this section to accept the 108270
individual's application;108271

       (2) The department is subject to federal statutes and 108272
regulations and state statutes and rules that require, permit, or 108273
prohibit an action regarding accepting applications, determining 108274
or redetermining eligibility, and performing related 108275
administrative activities for the medical assistance program.108276

       Sec. 5160.31.  (A) A medical assistance recipient may appeal 108277
a decision regarding the recipient's eligibility for a medical 108278
assistance program or services available to the recipient under a 108279
medical assistance program.108280

       (B) Regarding appeals authorized by this section, the 108281
department of medicaid shall do one or more of the following:108282

       (1) Administer an appeals process similar to the appeals 108283
process established under section 5101.35 of the Revised Code;108284

        (2) Contract with the department of job and family services 108285
pursuant to section 5162.35 of the Revised Code to provide for the 108286
department of job and family services to hear the appeals in 108287
accordance with section 5101.35 of the Revised Code;108288

        (3) Delegate authority to hear appeals to an exchange or 108289
exchange appeals entity.108290

       (C) If a medical assistance recipient files an appeal as 108291
authorized by this section, the department of medicaid may do 108292
either or both of the following:108293

       (1) Take corrective action regarding the matter being 108294
appealed before a hearing decision regarding the matter is issued;108295

       (2) If a hearing decision, administrative appeal decision, or 108296
court ruling is against the recipient, take action in favor of the 108297
recipient despite the contrary decision or ruling, unless, in the 108298
case of a court's ruling, the ruling prohibits the department from 108299
taking the action.108300

       Sec. 5101.571.        Sec. 5160.35.  As used in sections 5101.5715160.35108301
to 5101.5915160.43 of the Revised Code:108302

       (A) "Information" means all of the following:108303

       (1) An individual's name, address, date of birth, and social 108304
security number;108305

       (2) The group or plan number, or other identifier, assigned 108306
by a third party to a policy held by an individual or a plan in 108307
which the individual participates and the nature of the coverage;108308

       (3) Any other data the medicaid director of job and family 108309
services specifies in rules adopted underauthorized by section 108310
5101.5915160.43 of the Revised Code.108311

       (B) "Medical assistance" means medical items or services 108312
provided under any of the following:108313

       (1) Medicaid, as defined in section 5111.01 of the Revised 108314
Code;108315

       (2) The children's health insurance program part I, part II, 108316
and part III established under sections 5101.50, 5101.51, and 108317
5101.52 of the Revised Code.108318

       (C) "Medical support" means support specified as support for 108319
the purpose of medical care by order of a court or administrative 108320
agency.108321

       (D) "Public assistance" means medical assistance or 108322
assistance under the Ohio works first program established under 108323
Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code.108324

       (E)(C)(1) Subject to division (E)(C)(2) of this section, and 108325
except as provided in division (E)(C)(3) of this section, "third 108326
party" means all of the following:108327

       (a) A person authorized to engage in the business of sickness 108328
and accident insurance under Title XXXIX of the Revised Code;108329

       (b) A person or governmental entity providing coverage for 108330
medical services or items to individuals on a self-insurance 108331
basis;108332

       (c) A health insuring corporation as defined in section 108333
1751.01 of the Revised Code;108334

       (d) A group health plan as defined in 29 U.S.C. 1167;108335

       (e) A service benefit plan as referenced in 42 U.S.C. 108336
1396a(a)(25);108337

       (f) A managed care organization;108338

       (g) A pharmacy benefit manager;108339

       (h) A third party administrator;108340

       (i) Any other person or governmental entity that is, by law, 108341
contract, or agreement, responsible for the payment or processing 108342
of a claim for a medical item or service for a publicmedical108343
assistance recipient or participant.108344

       (2) Except when otherwise provided by the "Social Security 108345
Act," section 1862(b), 42 U.S.C. 1395y(b), a person or 108346
governmental entity listed in division (E)(C)(1) of this section 108347
is a third party even if the person or governmental entity limits 108348
or excludes payments for a medical item or service in the case of 108349
a public assistance recipient.108350

       (3) "Third party" does not include the program for medically 108351
handicapped children established under section 3701.023 of the 108352
Revised Code.108353

       Sec. 5101.58.        Sec. 5160.37. (A) The acceptance of publicA medical 108354
assistance recipient's enrollment in a medical assistance program108355
gives an automatic right of recovery to the department of job and 108356
family servicesmedicaid and a county department of job and family 108357
services against the liability of a third party for the cost of 108358
medical assistance paid on behalf of the public assistance108359
recipient or participant. When an action or claim is brought 108360
against a third party by a publicmedical assistance recipient or 108361
participant, any payment, settlement or compromise of the action 108362
or claim, or any court award or judgment, is subject to the 108363
recovery right of the department of job and family services108364
medicaid or county department of job and family services. Except 108365
in the case of a medical assistance recipient or participant who 108366
receives medical assistance through a medicaid managed care 108367
organization, the department's or county department's claim shall 108368
not exceed the amount of medical assistance paid by athe 108369
department or county department on behalf of the recipient or 108370
participant. A payment, settlement, compromise, judgment, or award 108371
that excludes the cost of medical assistance paid for by athe 108372
department or county department shall not preclude a department 108373
from enforcing its rights under this section.108374

       (B) In the case of a medical assistance recipient or 108375
participant who receives medical assistance through a medicaid108376
managed care organization, the amount of the department's or 108377
county department's claim shall be the amount the medicaid managed 108378
care organization pays for medical assistance rendered to the 108379
recipient or participant, even if that amount is more than the 108380
amount athe department or county department pays to the medicaid108381
managed care organization for the recipient's or participant's108382
medical assistance.108383

        (C) A medical assistance recipient or participant, and the 108384
recipient's or participant's attorney, if any, shall cooperate 108385
with the departments. In furtherance of this requirement, the 108386
medical assistance recipient or participant, or the recipient's or 108387
participant's attorney, if any, shall, not later than thirty days 108388
after initiating informal recovery activity or filing a legal 108389
recovery action against a third party, provide written notice of 108390
the activity or action to the department of job and family 108391
services whenmedicaid or county department if it has paid for108392
medical assistance under medicaid has been paida medical 108393
assistance program.108394

       (D) The written notice that must be given under division (C) 108395
of this section shall disclose the identity and address of any 108396
third party against whom the medical assistance recipient or 108397
participant has or may have a right of recovery.108398

       (E) No settlement, compromise, judgment, or award or any 108399
recovery in any action or claim by a medical assistance recipient 108400
or participant where the departments havedepartment or county 108401
department has a right of recovery shall be made final without 108402
first giving the appropriate departmentsdepartment or county 108403
department written notice as described in division (C) of this 108404
section and a reasonable opportunity to perfect theirits rights 108405
of recovery. If the departments aredepartment or county 108406
department is not given the appropriate written notice, the 108407
medical assistance recipient or participant and, if there is one, 108408
the recipient's or participant's attorney, are liable to reimburse 108409
the departmentsdepartment or county department for the recovery 108410
received to the extent of medical assistance payments made by the 108411
departmentsdepartment or county department.108412

       (F) The departmentsdepartment or county department shall be 108413
permitted to enforce theirits recovery rights against the third 108414
party even though theyit accepted prior payments in discharge of 108415
theirits rights under this section if, at the time the 108416
departmentsdepartment or county department received such 108417
payments, they wereit was not aware that additional medical 108418
expenses had been incurred but had not yet been paid by the 108419
departmentsdepartment or county department. The third party 108420
becomes liable to the department of job and family services or 108421
county department of job and family services as soon as the third 108422
party is notified in writing of the valid claims for recovery 108423
under this section.108424

        (G)(1) Subject to division (G)(2) of this section, the right 108425
of recovery of athe department or county department does not 108426
apply to that portion of any judgment, award, settlement, or 108427
compromise of a claim, to the extent of attorneys' fees, costs, or 108428
other expenses incurred by a medical assistance recipient or 108429
participant in securing the judgment, award, settlement, or 108430
compromise, or to the extent of medical, surgical, and hospital 108431
expenses paid by such recipient or participant from the 108432
recipient's or participant's own resources.108433

        (2) Reasonable attorneys' fees, not to exceed one-third of 108434
the total judgment, award, settlement, or compromise, plus costs 108435
and other expenses incurred by the medical assistance recipient or 108436
participant in securing the judgment, award, settlement, or 108437
compromise, shall first be deducted from the total judgment, 108438
award, settlement, or compromise. After fees, costs, and other 108439
expenses are deducted from the total judgment, award, settlement, 108440
or compromise, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid108441
or appropriate county department of job and family services shall 108442
receive no less than one-half of the remaining amount, or the 108443
actual amount of medical assistance paid, whichever is less.108444

       (H) A right of recovery created by this section may be 108445
enforced separately or jointly by the department of job and family 108446
servicesmedicaid or the appropriate county department of job and 108447
family services. To enforce theirits recovery rights, the 108448
departmentsdepartment or county department may do any of the 108449
following:108450

       (1) Intervene or join in any action or proceeding brought by 108451
the medical assistance recipient or participant or on the 108452
recipient's or participant's behalf against any third party who 108453
may be liable for the cost of medical assistance paid;108454

       (2) Institute and pursue legal proceedings against any third 108455
party who may be liable for the cost of medical assistance paid;108456

       (3) Initiate legal proceedings in conjunction with any 108457
injured, diseased, or disabled medical assistance recipient or 108458
participant or the recipient's or participant's attorney or 108459
representative.108460

       (I) A medical assistance recipient or participant shall not 108461
assess attorney fees, costs, or other expenses against the 108462
department of job and family servicesmedicaid or a county 108463
department of job and family services when the department or 108464
county department enforces its right of recovery created by this 108465
section.108466

       (J) The right of recovery given to the department under this 108467
section does not include rights to support from any other person 108468
assigned to the state under sections 5107.20 and 5115.07 of the 108469
Revised Code, but includes payments made by a third party under 108470
contract with a person having a duty to support.108471

       (K) The department of medicaid may assign to a medical 108472
assistance provider the right of recovery given to the department 108473
under this section with respect to any claim for which the 108474
department has notified the provider that the department intends 108475
to recoup the department's prior payment for the claim.108476

       Sec. 5160.371.  In addition to the requirement of division 108477
(C) of section 5160.37 of the Revised Code to cooperate with the 108478
department of medicaid and county department of job and family 108479
services, a medical assistance recipient and the recipient's 108480
attorney, if any, shall cooperate with each medical provider of 108481
the recipient. Cooperation with a medical provider shall consist 108482
of disclosing to the provider all information the recipient and 108483
attorney, if any, possess that would assist the provider in 108484
determining each third party that is responsible for the payment 108485
or processing of a claim for medical assistance provided to the 108486
recipient. If disclosure is not made in accordance with this 108487
section, the recipient and the recipient's attorney, if any, are 108488
liable to reimburse the department or county department for the 108489
amount that would have been paid by a third party had the third 108490
party been disclosed to the provider by the recipient or the 108491
recipient's attorney.108492

       Sec. 5101.59.        Sec. 5160.38.  (A) The application for, or acceptance 108493
ofenrollment in, publica medical assistance program constitutes 108494
an automatic assignment of certain rights specified in division 108495
(B) of this section to the department of job and family services108496
medicaid. This assignment includes the rights of the applicant,108497
medical assistance recipient, or participant and also the rights 108498
of any other member of the assistance group for whom the 108499
applicant, recipient, or participant can legally make an 108500
assignment.108501

       (B) Pursuant to this section, the applicant,a medical 108502
assistance recipient, or participant assigns to the department any 108503
rights to medical support available to the applicant, recipient, 108504
or participant or for other members of the recipient's assistance 108505
group under an order of a court or administrative agency, and any 108506
rights to payments by a liable third party for the cost of medical 108507
assistance paid on behalf of a public assistancethe recipient or 108508
participantor other members of the assistance group. The 108509
recipient or participant shall cooperate with the department in 108510
obtaining such payments.108511

       Medicare benefits shall not be assigned pursuant to this 108512
section. Benefits assigned to the department by operation of this 108513
section are directly reimbursable to the department by liable 108514
third parties.108515

       (C) Refusal by the applicant,a medical assistance recipient, 108516
or participant to cooperate in obtaining medical assistance paid 108517
for self or any other member of the recipient's assistance group 108518
renders the applicant, recipient, or participant ineligible for 108519
publica medical assistance program, unless cooperation is waived 108520
by the department. Eligibility shall continue for any individual 108521
who cannot legally assign the individual's own rights and who 108522
would have been eligible for publica medical assistance program108523
but for the refusal to assign the individual's rights or to 108524
cooperate as required by this section by another person legally 108525
able to assign the individual's rights.108526

       (D) If the applicant,a medical assistance recipient, or 108527
participant or any member of the recipient's assistance group 108528
becomes ineligible for publica medical assistance program, the 108529
department shall restore to the applicant, recipient, participant,108530
or member of the assistance group member any future rights to 108531
benefits assigned under this section.108532

       (E) The rights of assignment given to the department under 108533
this section do not include rights to support assigned under 108534
section 5107.20 or 5115.07 of the Revised Code.108535

       Sec. 5101.572.        Sec. 5160.39.  (A) A third party shall cooperate 108536
with the department of job and family servicesmedicaid in 108537
identifying individuals for the purpose of establishing third 108538
party liability pursuant to Title XIX of the Social Security Act, 108539
as amendedregarding medical assistance programs.108540

       (B) In furtherance of the requirement in division (A) of this 108541
section and to allow the department to determine any period that 108542
the individual or the individual's spouse or dependent may have 108543
been covered by the third party and the nature of the coverage, a 108544
third party shall provide, as the department so chooses, 108545
information or access to information, or both, in the third 108546
party's electronic data system on the department's request and in 108547
accordance with division (C) of this section.108548

       (C)(1) If the department chooses to receive information 108549
directly, the third party shall provide the information under all 108550
of the following circumstances:108551

       (a) In a medium, format, and manner prescribed by the 108552
director of job and family services in rules adopted under108553
authorized by section 5101.5915160.43 of the Revised Code;108554

       (b) Free of charge;108555

       (c) Not later than the end of the thirtieth day after the 108556
department makes its request, unless a different time is agreed to 108557
by the director in writing.108558

       (2) If the department chooses to receive access to 108559
information, the third party shall provide access by a method 108560
prescribed by the director of job and family services in rules 108561
adopted underauthorized by section 5101.5915160.43 of the 108562
Revised Code. In facilitating access, the department may enter 108563
into a trading partner agreement with the third party to permit 108564
the exchange of information via "ASC X 12N 270/271 Health Care 108565
Eligibility Benefit Inquiry and Response" transactions.108566

       (D) All of the following apply with respect to information 108567
provided by a third party to the department under this section:108568

       (1) The information is confidential and not a public record 108569
under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.108570

       (2) The release of information to the department is not to be 108571
considered a violation of any right of confidentiality or contract 108572
that the third party may have with covered persons including, but 108573
not limited to, contractees, beneficiaries, heirs, assignees, and 108574
subscribers.108575

       (3) The third party is immune from any liability that it may 108576
otherwise incur through its release of information to the 108577
department.108578

       The department of job and family services shall limit its use 108579
of information gained from third parties to purposes directly 108580
connected with the administration of the medicaid program and the 108581
child support program authorized by Title IV-D of the "Social 108582
Security Act.," 42 U.S.C. 651 et seq.108583

       (E) No third party shall disclose to other parties or make 108584
use of any information regarding medical assistance recipients of 108585
aid under Chapter 5107. or 5111. of the Revised Code that it 108586
obtains from the department, except in the manner provided for by 108587
the director of job and family services in administrative rules 108588
authorized by section 5160.43 of the Revised Code.108589

       Sec. 5101.573.        Sec. 5160.40. (A) Subject to divisions (B) and (C) 108590
of this section, a third party shall do all of the following:108591

       (1) Accept the department of job and family services'108592
medicaid's right of recovery under section 5101.585160.37 of the 108593
Revised Code and the assignment of rights to the department that 108594
are described in section 5101.595160.38 of the Revised Code;108595

       (2) Respond to an inquiry by the department regarding a claim 108596
for payment of a medical item or service that was submitted to the 108597
third party not later than six years after the date of the 108598
provision of such medical item or service;108599

       (3) Not charge a fee to do either of the following for a 108600
claim described in division (A)(2) of this section:108601

       (a) Determine whether the claim should be paid;108602

       (b) Process the claim.108603

       (4) Pay a claim described in division (A)(2) of this section;108604

       (5) Not deny a claim submitted by the department solely on 108605
the basis of the date of submission of the claim, type or format 108606
of the claim form, or a failure by the medical assistance 108607
recipient who is the subject of the claim to present proper 108608
documentation of coverage at the time of service, if both of the 108609
following are truehave occurred:108610

       (a) The claim was submitted by the department not later than 108611
six years after the date of the provision of the medical item or 108612
service.108613

       (b) An action by the department to enforce its right of 108614
recovery under section 5101.585160.37 of the Revised Code on the 108615
claim was commenced not later than six years after the 108616
department's submission of the claim.108617

       (6) Consider the department's payment of a claim for a 108618
medical item or service to be the equivalent of the medical 108619
assistance recipient having obtained prior authorization for the 108620
item or service from the third party;108621

       (7) Not deny a claim described in division (A)(6) of this 108622
section that is submitted by the department solely on the basis of 108623
the medical assistance recipient's failure to obtain prior 108624
authorization for the medical item or service.108625

       (B) For purposes of the requirements in division (A) of this 108626
section, a third party shall treat a medicaid managed care 108627
organization as the department for a claim in which both of the 108628
following are true:108629

       (1) Theif the individual who is the subject of the claim 108630
received a medical item or service through a medicaid managed care 108631
organization that has entered into a contract with the department 108632
of job and family services under section 5111.17 of the Revised 108633
Code;108634

       (2) Theand the department has assigned its right of recovery 108635
for the claim to the medicaid managed care organization.108636

       (C) If the department of medicaid, as permitted by division 108637
(K) of section 5160.37 of the Revised Code, assigns to a medical 108638
assistance provider the department's right of recovery for a claim 108639
for which it has notified the provider that it intends to recoup 108640
its prior payment for a claim, a third party shall treat the 108641
provider as the department and shall pay the provider the greater 108642
of the following:108643

        (1) The amount the department intends to recoup from the 108644
provider for the claim.108645

        (2) If the third party and the provider have an agreement 108646
that requires the third party to pay the provider at the time the 108647
provider presents the claim to the third party, the amount that is 108648
to be paid under that agreement.108649

        (D) The time limitations associated with the requirements in 108650
divisions (A)(2) and (5) of this section apply only to submissions 108651
of claims to, and payments of claims by, a health insurer to which 108652
the "Social Security Act," section 1902(a)(25)(I), 42 U.S.C. 108653
1396a(a)(25)(I), applies.108654

       Sec. 5101.574.        Sec. 5160.41.  No third party shall consider whether 108655
an individual is eligible for or receivesenrolled in a medical 108656
assistance program when either of the following applies:108657

       (A) The individual seeks to obtain a policy or enroll in a 108658
plan or program operated or administered by the third party;108659

       (B) The individual, or a person or governmental entity on the 108660
individual's behalf, seeks payment for a medical item or service 108661
provided to the individual.108662

       Sec. 5101.575.        Sec. 5160.42. (A) If a third party violates section 108663
5101.5725160.39, 5101.5735160.40, or 5101.5745160.41 of the 108664
Revised Code, a governmental entity that is responsible for 108665
issuing a license, certificate of authority, registration, or 108666
approval that authorizes the third party to do business in this 108667
state may impose a fine against the third party or deny, revoke, 108668
or terminate the third party's license, certificate, registration, 108669
or approval to do business in this state. The governmental entity 108670
shall determine which sanction is to be imposed. All actions to 108671
impose the sanction shall be taken in accordance with Chapter 119. 108672
of the Revised Code.108673

       (B) In addition to the sanctions that may be imposed under 108674
division (A) of this section for a violation of section 5101.572108675
5160.39, 5101.5735160.40, or 5101.5745160.41 of the Revised 108676
Code, the attorney general may petition a court of common pleas to 108677
enjoin the violation.108678

       Sec. 5101.591.        Sec. 5160.43. (A) Except as provided in division (B) 108679
of this section, theThe medicaid director of job and family 108680
services may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.under 108681
section 5160.02 of the Revised Code to implement sections 5101.571108682
5160.35 to 5101.595160.43 of the Revised Code, including rules 108683
that specify what constitutes cooperating with efforts to obtain 108684
support or payments, or medical assistance payments, and when 108685
cooperation may be waived. 108686

       (B) The department shall adopt rules in accordance with 108687
Chapter 119.under section 5160.02 of the Revised Code to do all 108688
of the following:108689

       (1) For purposes of the definition of "information" in 108690
division (A) of section 5101.5715160.35 of the Revised Code, any 108691
data other than the data specified in that division that should be 108692
included in the definition.108693

       (2) For purposes of division (C)(1)(a) of section 5101.572108694
5160.39 of the Revised Code, the medium, format, and manner in 108695
which a third party must provide information to the department.108696

       (3) For purposes of division (C)(2) of section 5101.572108697
5160.39 of the Revised Code, the method by which a third party 108698
must provide the department with access to information.108699

       (C) Rules authorized by division (A) of this section may be 108700
adopted in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code. 108701
Rules authorized by division (B) of this section shall be adopted 108702
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.108703

       Sec. 5101.271.        Sec. 5160.45. (A) As used in sections 5160.45 to 108704
5160.481 of the Revised Code, "information" means all of the 108705
following:108706

       (1) Records, as defined in section 149.011 of the Revised 108707
Code;108708

       (2) Any other documents in any format;108709

       (3) Data derived from records and documents that are 108710
generated, acquired, or maintained by the department of medicaid, 108711
a county department of job and family services, or an entity 108712
performing duties on behalf of the department or a county 108713
department.108714

       (B) Except as permitted by this section, section 5101.273108715
5160.47, or rules adopted underauthorized by section 5101.30108716
5160.48 or 5160.481 of the Revised Code, or when required by 108717
federal law, no person or government entity shall use or disclose 108718
information regarding a medical assistance recipient for any 108719
purpose not directly connected with the administration of thea108720
medical assistance program.108721

       (B)(C) Both of the following shall be considered to be 108722
purposes directly connected with the administration of thea108723
medical assistance program:108724

       (1) Treatment, payment, or other operations or activities 108725
authorized by 42 C.F.R. Chapter IV;108726

       (2) Any administrative function or duty the department of job 108727
and family servicesmedicaid performs alone or jointly with a 108728
federal government entity, another state government entity, or a 108729
local government entity implementing a provision of federal law.108730

       (C)(D) The department or a county agencydepartment of job 108731
and family services may disclose information regarding a medical 108732
assistance recipient to any of the following:108733

       (1) The recipient or the recipient's authorized 108734
representative;108735

       (2) The recipient's legal guardian in accordance with 108736
division (C) of section 2111.13 of the Revised Code;108737

       (3) The attorney of the recipient, if the department or 108738
county agencydepartment has obtained authorization from the 108739
recipient,or the recipient's authorized representative, or the 108740
recipient's legal guardian that meets all requirements of the 108741
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996, Pub. 108742
L. 104-191, 110 Stat. 1955, 42 U.S.C. 1320d et seq., as amended,108743
regulations promulgated by the United States department of health 108744
and human services to implement the act, section 5101.2725160.46108745
of the Revised Code, and any rules the director of job and family 108746
services adopts underauthorized by section 5101.305160.48 of the 108747
Revised Code;108748

       (4) A health information or health records management entity 108749
that has executed with the department a business associate 108750
agreement required by 45 C.F.R 164.502(e)(2) and has been 108751
authorized by the recipient,or the recipient's authorized 108752
representative, or the recipient's legal guardian to receive the 108753
recipient's electronic health records in accordance with rules the 108754
director of job and family services adopts underauthorized by108755
section 5101.305160.48 of the Revised Code;108756

       (5) A court if pursuant to a written order of the court. 108757

       (D)(E) The department may receive from county departments of 108758
job and family services information regarding any medical 108759
assistance recipient for purposes of training and verifying the 108760
accuracy of eligibility determinations for a medical assistance 108761
program. The department may assemble information received under 108762
this division into a report if the report is in a form specified 108763
by the department. Information received and assembled into a 108764
report under this division shall remain confidential and not be 108765
subject to disclosure pursuant to section 149.43 or 1347.08 of the 108766
Revised Code.108767

       (E)(F) The department shall notify courts in this state 108768
regarding its authority, under division (C)(D)(5) of this section, 108769
to disclose information regarding a medical assistance recipient 108770
pursuant to a written court order.108771

       Sec. 5160.46.  (A) For the purposes of section 5160.45 of the 108772
Revised Code, an authorization shall be made on a form that uses 108773
language understandable to the average person and contains all of 108774
the following:108775

       (1) A description of the information to be used or disclosed 108776
that identifies the information in a specific and meaningful 108777
fashion;108778

       (2) The name or other specific identification of the person 108779
or class of persons authorized to make the requested use or 108780
disclosure;108781

       (3) The name or other specific identification of the person 108782
or government entity to which the information may be released;108783

       (4) A description of each purpose of the requested use or 108784
disclosure of the information;108785

       (5) The date on which the authorization expires or an event 108786
related either to the individual who is the subject of the request 108787
or to the purposes of the requested use or disclosure, the 108788
occurrence of which will cause the authorization to expire;108789

       (6) A statement that the information used or disclosed 108790
pursuant to the authorization may be disclosed by the recipient of 108791
the information and may no longer be protected from disclosure;108792

       (7) The signature of the individual or the individual's 108793
authorized representative and the date on which the authorization 108794
was signed;108795

       (8) If signed by an authorized representative, a description 108796
of the representative's authority to act for the individual;108797

       (9) A statement of the individual or authorized 108798
representative's right to prospectively revoke the written 108799
authorization in writing, along with either of the following:108800

       (a) A description of how the individual or authorized 108801
representative may revoke the authorization;108802

       (b) If the department of medicaid has established a privacy 108803
notice that contains a description of how the individual or 108804
authorized representative may revoke the authorization, a 108805
reference to the privacy notice.108806

       (10) A statement that treatment, payment, enrollment, or 108807
eligibility for a medical assistance program cannot be conditioned 108808
on signing the authorization unless the authorization is necessary 108809
for determining eligibility for the program.108810

       (B) An authorization for the release of information regarding 108811
a medical assistance recipient to the recipient's attorney under 108812
division (D)(3) of section 5160.45 of the Revised Code may include 108813
a provision specifically authorizing the release of the 108814
recipient's electronic health records, if any, in accordance with 108815
rules authorized by section 5160.48 or 5160.481 of the Revised 108816
Code.108817

       (C) When an individual requests information pursuant to 108818
section 5160.45 of the Revised Code regarding the individual's 108819
enrollment in a medical assistance program and does not wish to 108820
provide a statement of purpose, the statement "at request of the 108821
individual" is a sufficient description for purposes of division 108822
(A)(4) of this section.108823

       Sec. 5160.47.  The department of medicaid shall enter into 108824
any necessary agreements with the United States department of 108825
health and human services and neighboring states to join and 108826
participate as an active member in the public assistance reporting 108827
information system. The department may disclose information 108828
regarding a medical assistance recipient to the extent necessary 108829
to participate as an active member in the system.108830

       Sec. 5160.48.  (A) The medicaid director shall adopt rules 108831
under section 5160.02 of the Revised Code implementing sections 108832
5160.45 to 5160.481 of the Revised Code and governing the custody, 108833
use, disclosure, and preservation of the information generated or 108834
received by the department of medicaid, county departments of job 108835
and family services, other state and county entities, contractors, 108836
grantees, private entities, or officials participating in the 108837
administration of medical assistance programs. The rules shall be 108838
adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The 108839
rules may define who is an "authorized representative" for 108840
purposes of sections 5160.45 and 5160.46 of the Revised Code. The 108841
rules shall specify conditions and procedures for the release of 108842
information, which may include both of the following:108843

       (1) Permitting a provider of a service under a medical 108844
assistance program limited access to information that is essential 108845
for the provider to render the service or to bill for the service 108846
rendered;108847

       (2) Permitting a contractor, grantee, or other state or 108848
county entity limited access to information that is essential for 108849
the contractor, grantee, or entity to perform administrative or 108850
other duties on behalf of the department or a county department.108851

       (B) The department of aging, when investigating a complaint 108852
under section 173.20 of the Revised Code, shall be granted any 108853
limited access permitted in the rules authorized by division 108854
(A)(1) of this section.108855

       A contractor, grantee, or entity given access to information 108856
pursuant to the rules authorized by division (A)(2) of this 108857
section is bound by the director's rules. Disclosure of the 108858
information by the contractor, grantee, or entity in a manner not 108859
authorized by the rules is a violation of section 5160.45 of the 108860
Revised Code. 108861

       Sec. 5160.481.  Whenever names, addresses, or other 108862
information relating to medical assistance recipients is held by 108863
any agency other than the department of medicaid or a county 108864
department of job and family services, that other agency shall 108865
adopt rules consistent with sections 5160.45 to 5160.481 of the 108866
Revised Code to prevent the publication or disclosure of names, 108867
lists, or other information concerning those recipients.108868

       Sec. 5160.50.  The department of medicaid shall administer 108869
the refugee medical assistance program authorized by the 108870
"Immigration and Nationality Act," section 412(e), 8 U.S.C. 108871
1522(e).108872

       Sec. 5160.52.  The medicaid director may provide for the 108873
department of medicaid to develop, participate in the development 108874
of, negotiate, and enter into one or more interstate compacts on 108875
behalf of this state with agencies of any other states, for the 108876
provision of medical assistance to children in relation to whom 108877
all of the following apply:108878

       (A) They have special needs.108879

       (B) This state or another state that is a party to the 108880
interstate compact is providing adoption assistance on their 108881
behalf.108882

       (C) They move into this state from another state or move out 108883
of this state to another state.108884

       Sec. 5160.99.  Whoever violates division (B) of section 108885
5160.45 of the Revised Code is guilty of a misdemeanor of the 108886
first degree.108887

       Sec. 5161.01.  (A) As used in the Revised Code, "children's 108888
health insurance program" and, when used as an acronym for the 108889
children's health insurance program, "CHIP" mean the program of 108890
child health assistance authorized by Title XXI of the "Social 108891
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1397aa et seq. CHIP part I, CHIP part II, 108892
and CHIP part III, as authorized by this chapter, are components 108893
of CHIP. Any reference in statute enacted by the general assembly 108894
to medicaid or the medicaid program also means CHIP to the extent, 108895
if any, that CHIP is provided under the medicaid program.108896

       (B) As used in this chapter, "federal poverty line" means the 108897
official poverty line defined by the United States office of 108898
management and budget based on the most recent data available from 108899
the United States bureau of the census and revised by the United 108900
States secretary of health and human services pursuant to the 108901
"Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act of 1981," section 673(2), 42 108902
U.S.C. 9902(2).108903

       Sec. 5101.502.        Sec. 5161.02.  The medicaid director of job and 108904
family services may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of 108905
the Revised Code as necessary for the efficient administration of 108906
the children's health insurance program part I, including rules 108907
that establish all of the following:108908

       (A) The conditions under which health assistance services108909
the program will be reimbursedpay for health benefits coverage;108910

       (B) The method of reimbursement applicable to services 108911
reimbursable under the programpayment;108912

       (C) The amount of reimbursementpayment, or the method by 108913
which the amount is to be determined, for each reimbursable108914
service included in the health benefits coverage.108915

       Sec. 5101.50.        Sec. 5161.05. (A) As used in sections 5101.50 to 108916
5101.529 of the Revised Code:108917

       (1) "Children's health insurance program" means the program 108918
authorized by Title XXI of the "Social Security Act," 111 Stat. 108919
552 (1997), 42 U.S.C.A. 1397aa.108920

       (2) "Federal poverty guidelines" has the same meaning as in 108921
section 5101.46 of the Revised Code.108922

       (B) The medicaid director of job and family services may 108923
continue to operate the component of the children's health 108924
insurance program initially authorized by an executive order 108925
issued under section 107.17 of the Revised Code as long as federal 108926
financial participation is available for the program. If operated, 108927
the programcomponent shall provide health assistance topay for 108928
part or all of the cost of health benefits coverage for uninsured 108929
individuals under nineteen years of age with family incomes not 108930
exceeding one hundred fifty per cent of the federal poverty 108931
guidelinesline. In accordance with 42 U.S.C.A. 1397aa, the 108932
director may provide for the health assistance to meet the 108933
requirements of 42 U.S.C.A. 1397cc, to be provided under the 108934
medicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised 108935
Code, or to be a combination of both.108936

       Sec. 5101.501.        Sec. 5161.06. Health assistance provided underThe 108937
component of the children's health insurance program authorized by108938
section 5101.505161.05 of the Revised Code shall be known as the 108939
children's health insurance programCHIP part I.108940

       Sec. 5101.51.        Sec. 5161.10.  In accordance with federal law 108941
governing the children's health insurance program, the medicaid108942
director of job and family services may submit a state child 108943
health plan to the United States secretary of health and human 108944
services to providepay, except as provided in section 5101.516108945
5161.22 of the Revised Code, health assistance tofor part or all 108946
of the cost of health benefits coverage for uninsured individuals 108947
under nineteen years of age with family incomes above one hundred 108948
fifty per cent of the federal poverty guidelinesline but not 108949
exceeding two hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines108950
line. If the director submits the plan, the director shall include 108951
both of the followingstipulate in the plan:108952

       (A) The health assistance will not begin before January 1, 108953
2000.108954

       (B) The health assistancethat the payments will be available 108955
only while federal financial participation is available for it108956
them. 108957

       Sec. 5101.511.        Sec. 5161.11. Health assistance provided underThe 108958
component of the children's health insurance program authorized by108959
section 5101.515161.10 of the Revised Code shall be known as the 108960
children's health insurance programCHIP part II. 108961

       Sec. 5101.512.        Sec. 5161.12.  If the medicaid director of job and 108962
family services submits a state child health plan to the United 108963
States secretary of health and human services under section 108964
5101.515161.10 of the Revised Code and the secretary approves the 108965
plan, the director shall implement the children's health insurance 108966
programCHIP part II in accordance with the plan. The director may 108967
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as 108968
necessary for the efficient administration of the program, 108969
including rules that establish all of the following:108970

       (A) The conditions under which health assistance services 108971
will be reimbursed;108972

       (B) The method of reimbursement applicable to services 108973
reimbursable under the program;108974

       (C) The amount of reimbursement, or the method by which the 108975
amount is to be determined, for each reimbursable service.108976

       Sec. 5101.52.        Sec. 5161.15.  In accordance with federal law 108977
governing the children's health insurance program, the medicaid108978
director of job and family services may submit a request for a 108979
federal waiver to the United States secretary of health and human 108980
services to providepay, except as provided in section 5101.526108981
5161.22 of the Revised Code, health assistance tofor part or all 108982
of the cost of health benefits coverage for individuals under 108983
nineteen years of age with family incomes above two hundred per 108984
cent of the federal poverty guidelinesline but not exceeding 108985
three hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelinesline. If 108986
the director submits the planwaiver request, the director shall 108987
stipulate in the planrequest that the health assistancepayments108988
will be available only while federal financial participation is 108989
available for it and that health assistance shall not begin before 108990
January 1, 2008them.108991

       Sec. 5101.521.        Sec. 5161.16. Health assistance provided underThe 108992
component of the children's health insurance program authorized by108993
section 5101.525161.15 of the Revised Code shall be known as the 108994
children's health insurance programCHIP part III.108995

       Sec. 5101.522.        Sec. 5161.17.  If the medicaid director of job and 108996
family services submits a waiver request to the United States 108997
secretary of health and human services under section 5101.52108998
5161.15 of the Revised Code and the secretary grants the waiver, 108999
the director shall implement the children's health insurance 109000
programCHIP part III in accordance with the waiver. The director 109001
may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 109002
Code as necessary for the efficient administration of the program, 109003
including rules that establish all of the following:109004

       (A) The conditions under which health assistance services 109005
will be reimbursed;109006

       (B) The method of reimbursement applicable to services 109007
reimbursable under the program;109008

       (C) The amount of reimbursement, or the method by which the 109009
amount is to be determined, for each reimbursable service.109010

       Sec. 5101.524.        Sec. 5161.20.  In accordance with the "Social 109011
Security Act," section 2101, 42 U.S.C. 1397aa, the director of job 109012
and family services shall provide for health assistance under the 109013
children's health insurance program part III to meetshall 109014
provide payments for obtaining health benefits coverage through 109015
any of the following:109016

       (A) Obtaining coverage that meets the requirements the 109017
"Social Security Act," section 2103, of 42 U.S.C. 1397cc, to be 109018
provided;109019

       (B) Providing benefits under the medicaid program established 109020
under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code, or to be a;109021

       (C) A combination of bothdivisions (A) and (B) of this 109022
section.109023

       Sec. 5101.516.        Sec. 5161.22.  If the medicaid director of job and 109024
family services determines that federal financial participation 109025
for the children's health insurance programCHIP part II, part 109026
III, or both parts is insufficient to provide health assistance 109027
topay for part or all of the costs of health benefits coverage 109028
for all the individuals the director anticipates are eligible for 109029
the programpart or parts, the director may refuse to accept new 109030
applications for the programpart or parts or may make the 109031
program's eligibility requirements more restrictive for the part 109032
or parts.109033

       Sec. 5101.517.        Sec. 5161.24.  To the extent permitted by the 109034
"Social Security Act," section 2103(e), 42 U.S.C.A. 1397cc(e), the 109035
medicaid director of job and family services may require an 109036
individual receiving health assistance under the children's health 109037
insurance programseeking to enroll, or who is enrolled, in CHIP109038
part II to pay a premium, deductible, coinsurance payment, or 109039
other cost-sharing expense. 109040

       Sec. 5101.527.        Sec. 5161.25. To the extent permitted by the "Social 109041
Security Act," section 2103(e), 42 U.S.C. 1397cc(e), the medicaid109042
director of job and family services shall require an individual 109043
receiving health assistance under the children's health insurance 109044
programseeking to enroll, or who is enrolled, in CHIP part III to 109045
pay the following as a term of participation in the program109046
enrollment:109047

       (A) A premium of not less than forty dollars per month for a 109048
family with one individual receiving health assistance under109049
seeking to enroll, or who is enrolled, in the programpart;109050

       (B) A premium of not less than eighty dollars per month for a 109051
family with two individuals receiving health assistance under109052
seeking to enroll, or who is enrolled, in the programpart;109053

       (C) A premium of not less than one hundred twenty dollars per 109054
month for a family with three or more individuals receiving health 109055
assistance underseeking to enroll, or who are enrolled, in the 109056
programpart.109057

       Sec. 5101.519.        Sec. 5161.27.  A completed application for medical 109058
assistance under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Codemedicaid shall 109059
be treated as an application for health assistance under the 109060
children's health insurance program part II if the application is 109061
for an assistance group that includes a child under nineteen years 109062
of age and is denied.109063

       Sec. 5101.513.        Sec. 5161.30.  The medicaid director of job and 109064
family services may contract with a government entity or person to 109065
perform the director's administrative duties regarding the 109066
children's health insurance programCHIP part I, part II, part 109067
III, two of the parts, or all three parts, other than the duty to 109068
submit a state child health plan to the United States secretary of 109069
health and human services under section 5101.515161.10 of the 109070
Revised Code, the duty to submit a waiver request under section 109071
5161.15 of the Revised Code, and the duty to adopt rules under 109072
section 5101.5125161.02 of the Revised Code.109073

       Sec. 5101.5110.        Sec. 5161.35.  (A) The medicaid director of job and 109074
family services may submit a waiver request to the United States 109075
secretary of health and human services to provide health 109076
assistance to any individual who meets all of the following 109077
requirements:109078

       (1) Is the parent of a child who is under nineteen years of 109079
age who, resides with the parent, and is eligible for health 109080
assistance underenrolled in the children's health insurance 109081
program part I or II or the medicaid program established under 109082
Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code;109083

       (2) Is uninsured;109084

       (3) Has a family income that does not exceed one hundred per 109085
cent of the federal poverty guidelinesline.109086

       (B) A waiver request the director submits under division (A) 109087
of this section may seek federal funds allotted to the state under 109088
Title XXI of the "Social Security Act," 111 Stat. 558 (1997)109089
section 2104, 42 U.S.C.A. 1397dd, as amended, that are not 109090
otherwise used to fund the children's health insurance program 109091
parts I and II.109092

       (C) If a waiver request the director submits under division 109093
(A) of this section is granted, the director may adopt rules in 109094
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary for 109095
the efficient administration of the program authorization by the 109096
waiver.109097

       Sec. 5162.01.  (A) As used in the Revised Code:109098

       (1) "Medicaid" and "medicaid program" mean the program of 109099
medical assistance established by Title XIX of the "Social 109100
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1396 et seq., including any medical 109101
assistance provided under the medicaid state plan or a federal 109102
medicaid waiver granted by the United States secretary of health 109103
and human services.109104

       (2) "Medicare" and "medicare program" mean the federal health 109105
insurance program established by Title XVIII of the "Social 109106
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1395 et seq.109107

       (B) As used in this chapter:109108

       (1) "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in 109109
section 5160.01 of the Revised Code.109110

       (2) "Federal financial participation" has the same meaning as 109111
in section 5160.01 of the Revised Code.109112

       (3) "Federal poverty line" means the official poverty line 109113
defined by the United States office of management and budget based 109114
on the most recent data available from the United States bureau of 109115
the census and revised by the United States secretary of health 109116
and human services pursuant to the "Omnibus Budget Reconciliation 109117
Act of 1981," section 673(2), 42 U.S.C. 9902(2).109118

       (4) "Healthy start component" means the component of the 109119
medicaid program that covers pregnant women and children and is 109120
identified in rules adopted under section 5162.02 of the Revised 109121
Code as the healthy start component.109122

       (5) "ICF/IID" has the same meaning as in section 5124.01 of 109123
the Revised Code.109124

       (6) "Medicaid managed care organization" has the same meaning 109125
as in section 5167.01 of the Revised Code.109126

       (7) "Medicaid provider" has the same meaning as in section 109127
5164.01 of the Revised Code.109128

       (8) "Medicaid services" has the same meaning as in section 109129
5164.01 of the Revised Code.109130

       (9) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 109131
5165.01 of the Revised Code.109132

       (10) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 109133
township, county, school district, or other body corporate and 109134
politic responsible for governmental activities only in a 109135
geographical area smaller than that of the state.109136

       (11) "Prescribed drug" has the same meaning as in section 109137
5164.01 of the Revised Code.109138

       (12) "Provider agreement" has the same meaning as in section 109139
5164.01 of the Revised Code.109140

       (13) "Qualified medicaid school provider" means the board of 109141
education of a city, local, or exempted village school district, 109142
the governing authority of a community school established under 109143
Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, the state school for the deaf, 109144
and the state school for the blind to which both of the following 109145
apply:109146

       (a) It holds a valid provider agreement.109147

       (b) It meets all other conditions for participation in the 109148
medicaid school component of the medicaid program established in 109149
rules authorized by section 5162.364 of the Revised Code.109150

       (14) "State agency" means every organized body, office, or 109151
agency, other than the department of medicaid, established by the 109152
laws of the state for the exercise of any function of state 109153
government.109154

       (15) "Vendor offset" means a reduction of a medicaid payment 109155
to a medicaid provider to correct a previous, incorrect medicaid 109156
payment to that provider.109157

       Sec. 5162.02.  The medicaid director shall adopt rules as 109158
necessary to implement this chapter.109159

       Sec. 5162.021.  The medicaid director shall adopt rules under 109160
sections 5160.02, 5162.02, 5163.03, 5164.04, 5165.05, 5166.02, and 109161
5167.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to authorize the 109162
directors of other state agencies to adopt rules regarding 109163
medicaid components, or aspects of medicaid components, the other 109164
state agencies administer pursuant to contracts entered into under 109165
section 5162.35 of the Revised Code.109166

       Sec. 5162.022.  The medicaid director's rules governing 109167
medicaid are binding on other state agencies and political 109168
subdivisions that administer one or more components of the 109169
medicaid program, or one or more aspects of a component, pursuant 109170
to contracts entered into under section 5162.35 of the Revised 109171
Code. No state agency or political subdivision may establish, by 109172
rule or otherwise, a policy governing medicaid that is 109173
inconsistent with a medicaid policy established, in rule or 109174
otherwise, by the director.109175

       Sec. 5111.01.        Sec. 5162.03. (A) As used in this chapter:109176

       "Children's health insurance program" means the children's 109177
health insurance program part I, children's health insurance 109178
program part II, and children's health insurance program part III 109179
authorized by sections 5101.50 to 5101.529 of the Revised Code.109180

       "Medical assistance program" or "medicaid" means the program 109181
that is authorized by this chapter and provided by the office of 109182
medical assistance under this chapter, Title XIX of the "Social 109183
Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396, et seq., as 109184
amended, and the waivers of Title XIX requirements granted to the 109185
office by the centers for medicare and medicaid services of the 109186
United States department of health and human services.109187

       (B) There is hereby established the office of medical 109188
assistance as a work unit within the department of job and family 109189
services. The chief of the office shall hold the title of medical 109190
assistance director. Notwithstanding section 5101.06 of the 109191
Revised Code, the governor shall appoint the medical assistance 109192
director and the medical assistance director shall serve at the 109193
governor's pleasure. The medical assistance director is not an 109194
assistant director of the department of job and family services 109195
for purposes of section 121.05 or 5101.03 of the Revised Code or 109196
any other purpose.109197

       Subject to appropriations for the medicaid program and 109198
children's health insurance program, the department of job and 109199
family services shall provide staff and support services as 109200
necessary for the operation of the office of medical assistance.109201

       If a statute, rule, contract, or other legal authority 109202
requires the director of job and family services or department of 109203
job and family services to take an action regarding the medicaid 109204
program or children's health insurance program, the medical 109205
assistance director or office of medical assistance shall take the 109206
action in place of the director of job and family services or 109207
department of job and family services. If a statute, rule, 109208
contract, or other legal authority permits the director of job and 109209
family services or department of job and family services to take 109210
an action regarding the medicaid program or children's health 109211
insurance program, the medical assistance director or office of 109212
medical assistance shall take the action in place of the director 109213
of job and family services or department of job and family 109214
services if the action is to be taken.109215

       The officeFor the purpose of the "Social Security Act," 109216
section 1902(a)(5), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(5), the department of 109217
medical assistancemedicaid shall act as the single state agency 109218
to supervise the administration of the medicaid program. As the 109219
single state agency, the officedepartment shall comply with 42 109220
C.F.R. 431.10(e) and all other federal requirements applicable to 109221
the single state agency. The office's rules governing medicaid are 109222
binding on other agencies that administer components of the 109223
medicaid program. No agency may establish, by rule or otherwise, a 109224
policy governing medicaid that is inconsistent with a medicaid 109225
policy established, in rule or otherwise, by the medical 109226
assistance director.109227

       (C) The office of medical assistance may provide medical 109228
assistance under the medicaid program as long as federal funds are 109229
provided for such assistance, to the following:109230

       (1) Families with children that meet either of the following 109231
conditions:109232

       (a) The family meets the income, resource, and family 109233
composition requirements in effect on July 16, 1996, for the 109234
former aid to dependent children program as those requirements 109235
were established by Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code, federal 109236
waivers granted pursuant to requests made under former section 109237
5101.09 of the Revised Code, and rules adopted by the department 109238
or any changes the department makes to those requirements in 109239
accordance with paragraph (a)(2) of section 114 of the "Personal 109240
Responsibility and Work Opportunity Reconciliation Act of 1996," 109241
110 Stat. 2177, 42 U.S.C.A. 1396u-1, for the purpose of 109242
implementing section 5111.0120 of the Revised Code. An adult loses 109243
eligibility for medicaid under division (C)(1)(a) of this section 109244
pursuant to division (E) of section 5107.16 of the Revised Code.109245

       (b) The family does not meet the requirements specified in 109246
division (C)(1)(a) of this section but is eligible for medicaid 109247
pursuant to section 5101.18 of the Revised Code.109248

       (2) Aged, blind, and disabled persons who meet the following 109249
conditions:109250

       (a) Receive federal aid under Title XVI of the "Social 109251
Security Act," or are eligible for but are not receiving such aid, 109252
provided that the income from all other sources for individuals 109253
with independent living arrangements shall not exceed one hundred 109254
seventy-five dollars per month. The income standards hereby 109255
established shall be adjusted annually at the rate that is used by 109256
the United States department of health and human services to 109257
adjust the amounts payable under Title XVI.109258

       (b) Do not receive aid under Title XVI, but meet any of the 109259
following criteria:109260

       (i) Would be eligible to receive such aid, except that their 109261
income, other than that excluded from consideration as income 109262
under Title XVI, exceeds the maximum under division (C)(2)(a) of 109263
this section, and incurred expenses for medical care, as 109264
determined under federal regulations applicable to section 209(b) 109265
of the "Social Security Amendments of 1972," 86 Stat. 1381, 42 109266
U.S.C. 1396a(f), as amended, equal or exceed the amount by which 109267
their income exceeds the maximum under division (C)(2)(a) of this 109268
section;109269

       (ii) Received aid for the aged, aid to the blind, or aid for 109270
the permanently and totally disabled prior to January 1, 1974, and 109271
continue to meet all the same eligibility requirements;109272

       (iii) Are eligible for medicaid pursuant to section 5101.18 109273
of the Revised Code.109274

       (3) Persons to whom federal law requires, as a condition of 109275
state participation in the medicaid program, that medicaid be 109276
provided;109277

       (4) Persons under age twenty-one who meet the income 109278
requirements for the Ohio works first program established under 109279
Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code but do not meet other 109280
eligibility requirements for the program. The medical assistance 109281
director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 109282
Revised Code specifying which Ohio works first requirements shall 109283
be waived for the purpose of providing medicaid eligibility under 109284
division (C)(4) of this section.109285

       (D) If sufficient funds are appropriated for the medicaid 109286
program, the office of medical assistance may provide medical 109287
assistance under the medicaid program to persons in groups 109288
designated by federal law as groups to which a state, at its 109289
option, may provide medical assistance under the medicaid program.109290

       (E) The office of medical assistance may expand eligibility 109291
for the medicaid program to include individuals under age nineteen 109292
with family incomes at or below one hundred fifty per cent of the 109293
federal poverty guidelines, except that the eligibility expansion 109294
shall not occur unless the office receives the approval of the 109295
federal government. The office may implement the eligibility 109296
expansion authorized under this division on any date selected by 109297
the office, but not sooner than January 1, 1998.109298

       (F) In addition to any other authority or requirement to 109299
adopt rules under this chapter, the medical assistance director 109300
may adopt rules in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised 109301
Code as the director considers necessary to establish standards, 109302
procedures, and other requirements regarding the provision of 109303
medical assistance under the medicaid program. The rules may 109304
establish requirements to be followed in applying for medicaid, 109305
making determinations of eligibility for medicaid, and verifying 109306
eligibility for medicaid. The rules may include special conditions 109307
as the office determines appropriate for making applications, 109308
determining eligibility, and verifying eligibility for any medical 109309
assistance that the office may provide under the medicaid program 109310
pursuant to division (E) of this section and section 5111.014 or 109311
5111.0120 of the Revised Code.109312

       Sec. 5111.98.        Sec. 5162.031.  (A) The medicaid director of job and 109313
family services may do all of the following as necessary for the 109314
department of job and family servicesmedicaid to fulfill the 109315
duties it has, as the single state agency for the medicaid 109316
program, under the "Medicare Prescription Drug, Improvement, and 109317
Modernization Act of 2003" Pub. L. No. 108-173, 117 Stat. 2066:109318

       (1) Adopt rules in accordance with division (B) of this 109319
section;109320

       (2) Assign duties to county departments of job and family 109321
services;109322

       (3) Make payments to the United States department of health 109323
and human services from appropriations made to the department of 109324
job and family servicesmedicaid for this purpose.109325

       (B) Rules adopted underauthorized by division (A)(1) of this 109326
section shall be adopted as follows:109327

       (1) If the rules concern the department's duties regarding 109328
servicemedicaid providers, in accordance with Chapter 119.under 109329
sections 5164.02 and 5165.02 of the Revised Code, as appropriate;109330

       (2) If the rules concern the department's duties concerning 109331
individuals' eligibility for medicaid services, in accordance with109332
under section 111.155163.02 of the Revised Code;109333

       (3) If the rules concern the department's duties concerning 109334
financial and operational matters between the department and 109335
county departments of job and family services, in accordance with109336
under section 111.155162.02 of the Revised Code as if the rules 109337
were internal management rules.109338

       Sec. 5111.102.        Sec. 5162.04. As used in this section, "state 109339
agency" has the same meaning as in section 9.23 of the Revised 109340
Code.109341

       No provision of Title LI of the Revised Code or any other law 109342
of this state that incorporates any provision of federal Medicaid109343
medicaid law, Title XIX of the Social Security Act, 79 Stat. 286 109344
(1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396, or that may be construed as requiring the 109345
state, a state agency, or any state official or employee to comply 109346
with that federal provision, shall be construed as creating a 109347
cause of action to enforce such state law beyond the causes of 109348
action available under federal law for enforcement of the 109349
provision of federal law.109350

       Sec. 5162.05.  The medicaid program shall be implemented in 109351
accordance with all of the following:109352

       (A) The medicaid state plan approved by the United States 109353
secretary of health and human services, including amendments to 109354
the plan approved by the United States secretary;109355

       (B) Federal medicaid waivers granted by the United States 109356
secretary, including amendments to waivers approved by the United 109357
States secretary;109358

       (C) Other types of federal approval, including demonstration 109359
grants, that establish requirements for components of the medicaid 109360
program;109361

       (D) Except as otherwise authorized by a federal medicaid 109362
waiver granted by the United States secretary, all applicable 109363
federal statutes, regulations, and policy guidances;109364

       (E) All applicable state statutes.109365

       Sec. 5162.06.  (A) Notwithstanding any other state statute, 109366
no component, or aspect of a component, of the medicaid program 109367
shall be implemented without all of the following:109368

       (1) Subject to division (B) of this section, if the 109369
component, or aspect of the component, requires federal approval, 109370
receipt of the federal approval;109371

       (2) Sufficient federal financial participation for the 109372
component or aspect of the component;109373

       (3) Sufficient nonfederal funds for the component or aspect 109374
of the component that qualify as funds needed to obtain the 109375
federal financial participation.109376

        (B) A component, or aspect of a component, of the medicaid 109377
program that requires federal approval may begin to be implemented 109378
before receipt of the federal approval if federal law authorizes 109379
implementation to begin before receipt of the federal approval. 109380
Implementation shall cease if the federal approval is ultimately 109381
denied.109382

       Sec. 5162.07.  The medicaid director shall seek federal 109383
approval for all components, and aspects of components, of the 109384
medicaid program for which federal approval is needed, except that 109385
the director is permitted rather than required to seek federal 109386
approval for components, and aspects of components, that state 109387
statutes permit rather than require be implemented. Federal 109388
approval shall be sought in the following forms as appropriate:109389

       (A) The medicaid state plan;109390

       (B) Amendments to the medicaid state plan;109391

       (C) Federal medicaid waivers;109392

       (D) Amendments to federal medicaid waivers;109393

       (E) Other types of federal approval, including demonstration 109394
grants.109395

       Sec. 5111.10.        Sec. 5162.10.  The medicaid director of job and 109396
family services may conduct reviews of the medicaid program. The 109397
reviews may include physical inspections of records and sites 109398
where medicaid-fundedmedicaid services are provided and 109399
interviews of medicaid providers and medicaid recipients of the 109400
services. If the director determines pursuant to a review that a 109401
person or government entity has violated a rule governing the 109402
medicaid program, the director may establish a corrective action 109403
plan for the violator and impose fiscal, administrative, or both 109404
types of sanctions on the violator in accordance with rules 109405
governing the medicaid programadopted under section 5162.02 of 109406
the Revised Code. 109407

       Sec. 5111.915.        Sec. 5162.11.  (A) The department of job and family 109408
servicesmedicaid shall enter into an agreement with the 109409
department of administrative services for the department of 109410
administrative services to contract through competitive selection 109411
pursuant to section 125.07 of the Revised Code with a vendor to 109412
perform an assessment of the data collection and data warehouse 109413
functions of the medicaid data warehouse system, including the 109414
ability to link the data sets of all agencies serving medicaid 109415
recipients. 109416

       The assessment of the data system shall include functions 109417
related to fraud and abuse detection, program management and 109418
budgeting, and performance measurement capabilities of all 109419
agencies serving medicaid recipients, including the departments of 109420
aging, alcohol and drug addiction services, health, job and family 109421
services, medicaid, mental healthmental health and addiction 109422
services, and developmental disabilities.109423

       The department of administrative services shall enter into 109424
this contract within thirty days after September 29, 2005. The 109425
contract shall require the vendor to complete the assessment 109426
within ninety days after September 29, 2005.109427

       A qualified vendor with whom the department of administrative 109428
services contracts to assess the data system shall also assist the 109429
medicaid agencies in the definition of the requirements for an 109430
enhanced data system or a new data system and assist the 109431
department of administrative services in the preparation of a 109432
request for proposalproposals to enhance or develop a data 109433
system.109434

       (B) Based on the assessment performed pursuant to division 109435
(A) of this section, the department of administrative services 109436
shall seek a qualified vendor through competitive selection 109437
pursuant to section 125.07 of the Revised Code to develop or 109438
enhance a data collection and data warehouse system for the 109439
department of job and family servicesmedicaid and all agencies 109440
serving medicaid recipients.109441

       Within ninety days after September 29, 2005, theThe109442
department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall seek enhanced 109443
federal fundingfinancial participation for ninety per cent of 109444
the funds required to establish or enhance the data system. The 109445
department of administrative services shall not award a contract 109446
for establishing or enhancing the data system until the department 109447
of job and family servicesmedicaid receives approval from the 109448
secretary of the United States departmentsecretary of health and 109449
human services for the ninety per cent federal matchfinancial 109450
participation.109451

       Sec. 5162.12.  (A) The medicaid director may enter into a 109452
contract with one or more persons to receive and process, on the 109453
director's behalf, requests for medicaid recipient or claims 109454
payment data, data from reports of audits conducted under section 109455
5165.109 of the Revised Code, or extracts or analyses of any of 109456
the foregoing data made by persons who intend to use the items for 109457
commercial or academic purposes. 109458

       (B) At a minimum, a contract entered into under this section 109459
shall do both of the following:109460

       (1) Authorize the contracting person to engage in the 109461
activities described in division (A) of this section for 109462
compensation, which must be stated as a percentage of the fees 109463
paid by persons who are provided the items;109464

       (2) Specify the schedule of fees the contracting person is to 109465
charge for the items.109466

       (C) Except as required by federal or state law and subject to 109467
division (E) of this section, both of the following conditions 109468
apply with respect to a request for data described in division (A) 109469
of this section:109470

       (1) The request shall be made through a person who has 109471
entered into a contract with the medicaid director under this 109472
section. 109473

       (2) An item prepared pursuant to the request may be provided 109474
to the department of medicaid and is confidential and not subject 109475
to disclosure under section 149.43 or 1347.08 of the Revised Code.109476

       (D) The medicaid director shall use fees the director 109477
receives pursuant to a contract entered into under this section to 109478
pay obligations specified in contracts entered under this section. 109479
Any money remaining after the obligations are paid shall be 109480
deposited in the health care services administration fund created 109481
under section 5162.54 of the Revised Code. 109482

       (E) This section does not apply to requests for medicaid 109483
recipient or claims payment data, data from reports of audits 109484
conducted under section 5165.109 of the Revised Code, or extracts 109485
or analyses of any of the foregoing data that are for any of the 109486
following purposes:109487

       (1) Treatment of medicaid recipients;109488

       (2) Payment of medicaid claims; 109489

       (3) Establishment or management of medicaid third party 109490
liability pursuant to sections 5160.35 to 5160.43 of the Revised 109491
Code;109492

       (4) Compliance with the terms of an agreement the medicaid 109493
director enters into for purposes of administering the medicaid 109494
program;109495

       (5) Compliance with an operating protocol the executive 109496
director of the office of health transformation or the executive 109497
director's designee adopts under division (D) of section 191.06 of 109498
the Revised Code.109499

       Sec. 5111.09.        Sec. 5162.13.  On or before the first day of January 109500
of each year, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid109501
shall submit to the speaker and minority leader of the house of 109502
representatives and the president and minority leader of the 109503
senate, and shall make available to the public, a report on the 109504
effectiveness of the Ohio works first program established under 109505
Chapter 5107. of the Revised Code and the medical assistance109506
medicaid program established under this chapter in meeting the 109507
health care needs of low-income pregnant women, infants, and 109508
children. The report shall include: the estimated number of 109509
persons eligible for health care services to pregnant women, 109510
infants, and children under the programseligible for the 109511
program; the actual number of eligible persons servedenrolled in 109512
the program; the number of prenatal, postpartum, and child health 109513
visits; a report on birth outcomes, including a comparison of 109514
low-birthweight births and infant mortality rates of program 109515
participantsmedicaid recipients with the general female 109516
child-bearing and infant population in this state; and a 109517
comparison of the prenatal, delivery, and child health costs of 109518
the programsprogram with such costs of similar programs in other 109519
states, where available.109520

       Sec. 5111.091.        Sec. 5162.131.  Semiannually, the medicaid director 109521
of job and family services shall submit to the president and 109522
minority leader of the senate, speaker and minority leader of the 109523
house of representatives, and the chairpersons of the standing 109524
committees of the senate and house of representatives with primary 109525
responsibility for legislation making biennial appropriations a 109526
report on the establishment and implementation of programs 109527
designed to control the increase of the cost of the medicaid 109528
program, increase the efficiency of the medicaid program, and 109529
promote better health outcomes. In each calendar year, one report 109530
shall be submitted not later than the last day of June and the 109531
subsequent report shall be submitted not later than the last day 109532
of December.109533

       Sec. 5111.092.        Sec. 5162.132. (A) Not later than January 1, 2010, 109534
and each year thereafterAnnually, the department of job and 109535
family servicesmedicaid shall prepare a report on the 109536
department's efforts to minimize fraud, waste, and abuse in the 109537
medicaid program.109538

       (B) Each report shall be made available on the department's 109539
web site. The department shall submit a copy of each report to the 109540
governor and, in accordance with section 101.68 of the Revised 109541
Code, the general assembly. Copies of the report also shall be 109542
made available to the public on request.109543

       Sec. 5111.101.        Sec. 5162.15. (A) As used in this section;109544

        "Agent" and "contractor" include any agent, contractor, 109545
subcontractor, or other person who, on behalf of an entity, 109546
furnishes or authorizes the furnishing of health care items or109547
medicaid services under the medicaid program, performs billing or 109548
coding functions, or is involved in monitoring of health care that 109549
an entity provides.109550

       "Employee" includes any officer or employee (including 109551
management employees) of an entity.109552

       "Entity" includes a governmental entity or an organization, 109553
unit, corporation, partnership, or other business arrangement, 109554
including any medicaid managed care organization, irrespective of 109555
the form of business structure or arrangement by which it exists, 109556
whether for-profit or not-for-profit. "Entity" does not include a 109557
government entity that administers one or more components of the 109558
medicaid program, unless the government entity receives medicaid 109559
payments for providing items ormedicaid services.109560

       "Federal health care programs" has the same meaning as in the 109561
"Social Security Act," section 1128B, 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7b(f).109562

       (B) Each entity that receives or makes in a federal fiscal 109563
year payments under the medicaid program, either through the 109564
medicaid state medicaid plan or a federal medicaid waiver, 109565
totaling at least five million dollars shall, as a condition of 109566
receiving such payments, do all of the following not later than 109567
the first day of the succeeding calendar year:109568

       (1) Establish written policies for all of the entity's 109569
employees, contractors, and agents that provide detailed 109570
information about the role of all of the following in preventing 109571
and detecting fraud, waste, and abuse in federal health care 109572
programs:109573

       (a) Federal false claims law under 31 U.S.C. 3729 to 3733;109574

       (b) Federal administrative remedies for false claims and 109575
statements available under 31 U.S.C. 3801 to 3812;109576

       (c) Sections 124.341, 2913.40, 2913.401, and 2921.13 of the 109577
Revised Code and any other state laws pertaining to civil or 109578
criminal penalties for false claims and statements;109579

       (d) Whistleblower protections under the laws specified in 109580
divisions (B)(1)(a) to (c) of this section.109581

       (2) Include as part of the written policies required by 109582
division (B)(1) of this section detailed provisions regarding the 109583
entity's policies and procedures for preventing and detecting 109584
fraud, waste, and abuse.109585

       (3) Disseminate the written policies required by division 109586
(B)(1) of this section to each of the entity's employees, 109587
contractors, and agents in a paper or electronic form and make the 109588
written policies readily available to the entity's employees, 109589
contractors, and agents.109590

       (4) If the entity has an employee handbook, include in the 109591
employee handbook a specific discussion of the laws specified in 109592
division (B)(1) of this section, the rights of employees to be 109593
protected as whistleblowers, and the entity's policies and 109594
procedures for preventing and detecting fraud, waste, and abuse.109595

       (5) Require the entity's contractors and agents to adopt the 109596
entity's written policies required by division (B)(1) of this 109597
section.109598

       (C) An entity that furnishes items ormedicaid services at 109599
multiple locations or under multiple contractual or other payment 109600
arrangements is required to comply with division (B) of this 109601
section if the entity receives in a federal fiscal year medicaid 109602
payments totaling in the aggregate at least five million dollars. 109603
This applies regardless of whether the entity submits claims for 109604
medicaid payments using multiple provider identification or tax 109605
identification numbers.109606

       Sec. 5111.0112.        Sec. 5162.20.  (A) The directordepartment of job 109607
and family servicesmedicaid shall institute a cost-sharing 109608
program underrequirements for the medicaid program. In 109609
instituting the cost-sharing program, the director shall comply 109610
with federal law. The cost-sharing programrequirements shall 109611
establishinclude a copayment requirement for at least dental 109612
services, vision services, nonemergency emergency department 109613
services, and prescriptionprescribed drugs, other than generic 109614
drugs. The cost-sharing programrequirements also shall establish109615
include requirements regarding premiums, enrollment fees, 109616
deductions, and similar charges. The director shall adopt rules 109617
under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code governing the 109618
cost-sharing program.109619

       (B) The cost-sharing program shall, to the extent permitted 109620
by federal law, provide for all of the following with regard to 109621
any providers participating in the medicaid program:109622

        (1) No provider shall refuse to provide a service to a 109623
medicaid recipient who is unable to pay a required copayment for 109624
the service.109625

        (2) Division (B)(1) of this section shall not be considered 109626
to do either of the following with regard to a medicaid recipient 109627
who is unable to pay a required copayment:109628

       (a) Relieve the medicaid recipient from the obligation to pay 109629
a copayment;109630

        (b) Prohibit the provider from attempting to collect an 109631
unpaid copayment.109632

       (3)(C) Except as provided in division (C)(F) of this section, 109633
no provider shall waive a medicaid recipient's obligation to pay 109634
the provider a copayment.109635

       (4)(D) No provider or drug manufacturer, including the 109636
manufacturer's representative, employee, independent contractor, 109637
or agent, shall pay any copayment on behalf of a medicaid 109638
recipient.109639

       (5)(E) If it is the routine business practice of thea109640
provider to refuse service to any individual who owes an 109641
outstanding debt to the provider, the provider may consider an 109642
unpaid copayment imposed by the cost-sharing programrequirements109643
as an outstanding debt and may refuse service to a medicaid 109644
recipient who owes the provider an outstanding debt. If the 109645
provider intends to refuse service to a medicaid recipient who 109646
owes the provider an outstanding debt, the provider shall notify 109647
the individualrecipient of the provider's intent to refuse 109648
servicesservice.109649

       (C)(F) In the case of a provider that is a hospital, the 109650
cost-sharing program shall permit the hospital to take action to 109651
collect a copayment by providing, at the time services are 109652
rendered to a medicaid recipient, notice that a copayment may be 109653
owed. If the hospital provides the notice and chooses not to take 109654
any further action to pursue collection of the copayment, the 109655
prohibition against waiving copayments specified in division 109656
(B)(3)(C) of this section does not apply.109657

       (D)(G) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid may 109658
workcollaborate with a state agency that is administering, 109659
pursuant to a contract entered into under section 5111.915162.35109660
of the Revised Code, one or more components of the medicaid 109661
program, or one or more aspects of a component, of the medicaid 109662
program as necessary for the state agency to apply the 109663
cost-sharing programrequirements to the components or aspects of 109664
the medicaid programa component that the state agency 109665
administers.109666

       Sec. 5111.11.        Sec. 5162.21.  (A) As used in this section and 109667
section 5111.1115162.211 of the Revised Code:109668

       (1) "Estate" includes both of the following:109669

       (a) All real and personal property and other assets to be 109670
administered under Title XXI of the Revised Code and property that 109671
would be administered under that title if not for section 2113.03 109672
or 2113.031 of the Revised Code;109673

        (b) Any other real and personal property and other assets in 109674
which an individual had any legal title or interest at the time of 109675
death (to the extent of the interest), including assets conveyed 109676
to a survivor, heir, or assign of the individual through joint 109677
tenancy, tenancy in common, survivorship, life estate, living 109678
trust, or other arrangement.109679

        (2) "Institution" means a nursing facility, intermediate care 109680
facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID, or a medical 109681
institution.109682

        (3) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 109683
and "nursing facility" have the same meanings as in section 109684
5111.20 of the Revised Code.109685

       (4) "Permanently institutionalized individual" means an 109686
individual to whom all of the following apply:109687

        (a) Is an inpatient in an institution;109688

        (b) Is required, as a condition of the medicaid program 109689
paying for the individual's services in the institution, to spend 109690
for costs of medical or nursing care all of the individual's 109691
income except for an amount for personal needs specified by the 109692
department of job and family servicesmedicaid;109693

        (c) Cannot reasonably be expected to be discharged from the 109694
institution and return home as determined by the department of job 109695
and family servicesmedicaid.109696

       (5)(4) "Qualified state long-term care insurance partnership 109697
program" means the program established under section 5111.18109698
5164.86 of the Revised Code.109699

       (6)(5) "Time of death" shall not be construed to mean a time 109700
after which a legal title or interest in real or personal property 109701
or other asset may pass by survivorship or other operation of law 109702
due to the death of the decedent or terminate by reason of the 109703
decedent's death.109704

       (B) To the extent permitted by federal law, the department of 109705
job and family servicesmedicaid shall institute a medicaid estate 109706
recovery program under which the department shall, except as 109707
provided in divisions (C) and (E) of this section, and subject to 109708
division (D) of this section, do all of the following:109709

        (1) For the costs of medicaid services the medicaid program 109710
correctly paid or will pay on behalf of a permanently 109711
institutionalized individual of any age, seek adjustment or 109712
recovery from the individual's estate or on the sale of property 109713
of the individual or spouse that is subject to a lien imposed 109714
under section 5111.1115162.211 of the Revised Code;109715

        (2) For the costs of medicaid services the medicaid program 109716
correctly paid or will pay on behalf of an individual fifty-five 109717
years of age or older who is not a permanently institutionalized 109718
individual, seek adjustment or recovery from the individual's 109719
estate;109720

       (3) Seek adjustment or recovery from the estate of other 109721
individuals as permitted by federal law.109722

        (C)(1) No adjustment or recovery may be made under division 109723
(B)(1) of this section from a permanently institutionalized 109724
individual's estate or on the sale of property of a permanently 109725
institutionalized individual that is subject to a lien imposed 109726
under section 5111.1115162.211 of the Revised Code or under 109727
division (B)(2) or (3) of this section from an individual's estate 109728
while either of the following are alive:109729

        (a) The spouse of the permanently institutionalized 109730
individual or individual;109731

        (b) The son or daughter of a permanently institutionalized 109732
individual or individual if the son or daughter is under age 109733
twenty-one or, under the "Social Security Act," section 1614, 42 109734
U.S.C. 1382c, is considered blind or disabled.109735

        (2) No adjustment or recovery may be made under division 109736
(B)(1) of this section from a permanently institutionalized 109737
individual's home that is subject to a lien imposed under section 109738
5111.1115162.211 of the Revised Code while either of the 109739
following lawfully reside in the home:109740

        (a) The permanently institutionalized individual's sibling 109741
who resided in the home for at least one year immediately before 109742
the date of the permanently institutionalized individual's 109743
admission to the institution and on a continuous basis since that 109744
time;109745

        (b) The permanently institutionalized individual's son or 109746
daughter who provided care to the permanently institutionalized 109747
individual that delayed the permanently institutionalized 109748
individual's institutionalization and resided in the home for at 109749
least two years immediately before the date of the permanently 109750
institutionalized individual's admission to the institution and on 109751
a continuous basis since that time.109752

        (D) In the case of a participant of the qualified state 109753
long-term care insurance partnership program, adjustment or 109754
recovery required by this section may be reduced in accordance 109755
with rules adopted underauthorized by division (G) of this 109756
section.109757

        (E) The department shall, in accordance with procedures and 109758
criteria established in rules adopted underauthorized by division 109759
(G) of this section, waive seeking an adjustment or recovery 109760
otherwise required by this section if the medicaid director of job 109761
and family services determines that adjustment or recovery would 109762
work an undue hardship. The department may limit the duration of 109763
the waiver to the period during which the undue hardship exists.109764

       (F) For the purpose of determining whether an individual 109765
meets the definition of "permanently institutionalized individual" 109766
established for this section, a rebuttable presumption exists that 109767
the individual cannot reasonably be expected to be discharged from 109768
an institution and return home if either of the following is the 109769
case:109770

       (1) The individual declares that he or she does not intend to 109771
return home.109772

       (2) The individual has been an inpatient in an institution 109773
for at least six months.109774

       (G) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 109775
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code regarding the 109776
medicaid estate recovery program, including rules thatRules 109777
adopted under section 5162.02 of the Revised Code shall do both of 109778
the following: 109779

        (1) For the purpose of division (D) of this section and 109780
consistent with the "Social Security Act," section 1917(b)(1)(C),109781
42 U.S.C. 1396p(b)(1)(C), provide for reducing an adjustment or 109782
recovery in the case of a participant of the qualified state 109783
long-term care insurance partnership program;109784

        (2) For the purpose of division (E) of this section and 109785
consistent with the standards specified by the United States 109786
secretary of health and human services under the "Social Security 109787
Act," section 1917(b)(3), 42 U.S.C. 1396p(b)(3), establish 109788
procedures and criteria for waiving adjustment or recovery due to 109789
an undue hardship.109790

       Sec. 5111.111.        Sec. 5162.211.  (A) Except as provided in division 109791
(B) of this section and section 5111.125162.23 of the Revised 109792
Code, no lien may be imposed against the property of an individual 109793
before the individual's death on account of medicaid services 109794
correctly paid or to be paid on the individual's behalf.109795

        (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, the 109796
department of job and family servicesmedicaid may impose a lien 109797
against the real property of a medicaid recipient who is a 109798
permanently institutionalized individual and against the real 109799
property of the recipient's spouse, including any real property 109800
that is jointly held by the recipient and spouse. The lien may be 109801
imposed on account of medicaid paid or to be paid on the 109802
recipient's behalf.109803

        (C) No lien may be imposed under division (B) of this section 109804
against the home of a medicaid recipient if any of the following 109805
lawfully resides in the home:109806

        (1) The recipient's spouse;109807

        (2) The recipient's son or daughter who is under twenty-one 109808
years of age or, under the "Social Security Act," section 1614, 42 109809
U.S.C. 1382c, considered to be blind or disabled;109810

        (3) The recipient's sibling who has an equity interest in the 109811
home and resided in the home for at least one year immediately 109812
before the date of the recipient's admission to the institution.109813

        (D) The medicaid director of job and family services or a 109814
person designated by the director shall sign a certificate to 109815
effectuate a lien required to be imposed under this section. The 109816
county department of job and family services shall file for 109817
recording and indexing the certificate, or a certified copy, in 109818
the real estate mortgage records in the office of the county 109819
recorder in every county in which real property of the recipient 109820
or spouse is situated. From the time of filing the certificate in 109821
the office of the county recorder, the lien attaches to all real 109822
property of the recipient or spouse described in the certificate 109823
for all amounts for which adjustment or recovery may be made under 109824
section 5111.115162.21 of the Revised Code and, except as 109825
provided in division (E) of this section, shall remain a lien 109826
until satisfied.109827

       Upon filing the certificate in the office of the recorder, 109828
all persons are charged with notice of the lien and the rights of 109829
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid thereunder.109830

       The county recorder shall keep a record of every certificate 109831
filed showing its date, the time of filing, the name and residence 109832
of the recipient or spouse, and any release, waivers, or 109833
satisfaction of the lien.109834

       The priority of the lien shall be established in accordance 109835
with state and federal law.109836

       The department may waive the priority of its lien to provide 109837
for the costs of the last illness as determined by the department, 109838
administration, attorney fees, administrator fees, a sum for the 109839
payment of the costs of burial, which shall be computed by 109840
deducting from five hundred dollars whatever amount is available 109841
for the same purpose from all other sources, and a similar sum for 109842
the spouse of the decedent.109843

       (E) A lien imposed with respect to a medicaid recipient under 109844
this section shall dissolve on the recipient's discharge from the 109845
institution and return home.109846

       Sec. 5111.112.        Sec. 5162.212.  The department of job and family 109847
servicesmedicaid shall certify amounts due under the medicaid 109848
estate recovery program instituted under section 5111.115162.21109849
of the Revised Code to the attorney general pursuant to section 109850
131.02 of the Revised Code. The attorney general may enter into a 109851
contract with any person or government entity to collect the 109852
amounts due on behalf of the attorney general.109853

        The attorney general, in entering into a contract under this 109854
section, shall comply with all of the requirements that must be 109855
met for the state to receive federal financial participation for 109856
the costs incurred in entering into the contract and carrying out 109857
actions under the contract. The contract may provide for the 109858
person or government entity with which the attorney general 109859
contracts to be compensated from the property recovered under the 109860
medicaid estate recovery program or may provide for another manner 109861
of compensation agreed to by the parties to the contract.109862

        Regardless of whether the attorney general collects the 109863
amounts due under the medicaid estate recovery program or 109864
contracts with a person or government entity to collect the 109865
amounts due on behalf of the attorney general, the amounts due 109866
shall be collected in accordance with applicable requirements of 109867
federal statutes and regulations and state statutes and rules.109868

       Sec. 5111.113.        Sec. 5162.22.  (A) As used in this section:109869

       (1) "Commissioner" means a person appointed by a probate 109870
court under division (E) of section 2113.03 of the Revised Code to 109871
act as a commissioner.109872

       (2) "Home" has the same meaning as in section 3721.10 of the 109873
Revised Code.109874

       (3) "Personal needs allowance account" means an account or 109875
petty cash fund that holds the money of a resident of an adult 109876
carea residential facility or home and that the facility or home 109877
manages for the resident.109878

       (4) "Residential facility" means a residential facility 109879
licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code that 109880
provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care services 109881
for three to sixteen unrelated adults.109882

       (B) Except as provided in divisions (C) and (D) of this 109883
section, the owner or operator of a home or residential facility 109884
shall transfer to the department of job and family services109885
medicaid the money in the personal needs allowance account of a 109886
resident of the home or facility who was a medicaid recipient of 109887
the medical assistance program no earlier than sixty days but not 109888
later than ninety days after the resident dies. The home or 109889
facility shall transfer the money even though the owner or 109890
operator of the facility or home has not been issued letters 109891
testamentary or letters of administration concerning the 109892
resident's estate.109893

       (C) If funeral or burial expenses for a resident of a home or 109894
residential facility who has died have not been paid and the only 109895
resource the resident had that could be used to pay for the 109896
expenses is the money in the resident's personal needs allowance 109897
account, or all other resources of the resident are inadequate to 109898
pay the full cost of the expenses, the money in the resident's 109899
personal needs allowance account shall be used to pay for the 109900
expenses rather than being transferred to the department of job 109901
and family servicesmedicaid pursuant to division (B) of this 109902
section.109903

       (D) If, not later than sixty days after a resident of a home 109904
or residential facility dies, letters testamentary or letters of 109905
administration are issued, or an application for release from 109906
administration is filed under section 2113.03 of the Revised Code, 109907
concerning the resident's estate, the owner or operator of the 109908
home or facility shall transfer the money in the resident's 109909
personal needs allowance account to the administrator, executor, 109910
commissioner, or person who filed the application for release from 109911
administration.109912

       (E) The transfer or use of money in a resident's personal 109913
needs allowance account in accordance with division (B), (C), or 109914
(D) of this section discharges and releases the home or 109915
residential facility, and the owner or operator of the home, from 109916
any claim for the money from any source.109917

       (F) If, sixty-one or more days after a resident of a home or 109918
residential facility dies, letters testamentary or letters of 109919
administration are issued, or an application for release from 109920
administration under section 2113.03 of the Revised Code is filed, 109921
concerning the resident's estate, the department of job and family 109922
servicesmedicaid shall transfer the funds to the administrator, 109923
executor, commissioner, or person who filed the application, 109924
unless the department is entitled to recover the money under the 109925
medicaid estate recovery program instituted under section 5111.11109926
5162.21 of the Revised Code.109927

       Sec. 5111.12.        Sec. 5162.23.  (A) The medicaid director of job and 109928
family services shall establishadopt rules under whichsection 109929
5162.02 of the Revised Code permitting county departments of job 109930
and family services mayto take action to recover benefits 109931
incorrectly paid on behalf of medicaid recipients of medical 109932
assistance. The rules shall provide for recovery by the following 109933
methods:109934

       (1) Soliciting voluntary payments from recipients or from 109935
persons holding property in which a recipient has a legal or 109936
equitable interest;109937

       (2) Obtaining a lien on property pursuant to division (B) of 109938
this section.109939

       (B) A county department of job and family services may bring 109940
a civil action in a court of common pleas against a medicaid109941
recipient of medical assistance for the recovery of any medical 109942
assistance benefitsmedicaid payments determined by the court to 109943
have been paid incorrectly on behalf of the recipient. All persons 109944
holding property in which the recipient has a legal or equitable 109945
interest may be joined as parties. The court may issue 109946
pre-judgment orders, including injunctive relief or attachment 109947
under Chapter 2715. of the Revised Code, for the preservation of 109948
real or personal property in which the recipient may have a legal 109949
or equitable interest. If the court determines that benefits109950
medicaid payments were paidmade incorrectly and issues a judgment 109951
to that effect, the county department may obtain a lien upon 109952
property of the recipient in accordance with Chapter 2329. of the 109953
Revised Code.109954

       (C) The county department of job and family services shall 109955
retain fifty per cent of the balance remaining after deduction 109956
from the recovery of the amount required to be returned to the 109957
federal government and shall pay the other fifty per cent of the 109958
balance to the department of job and family servicesmedicaid.109959

       (D) Recovery of medical assistance benefitsmedicaid payments109960
incorrectly paid tomade on behalf of a medicaid recipient may not 109961
be accomplished by reducing the amount of benefits the recipient 109962
is entitled to receive under another government assistance 109963
program.109964

       (E) The remedies provided pursuant to this section do not 109965
affect any other remedies county departments of job and family 109966
services may have to recover benefits incorrectly paid on behalf 109967
of medicaid recipients of medical assistance.109968

       Sec. 5111.121.        Sec. 5162.24.  (A) As used in this section, "third 109969
party" has the same meaning as in section 5101.5715160.35 of the 109970
Revised Code.109971

       (B) In addition to the authority granted under section 109972
5101.595160.38 of the Revised Code, the department of job and 109973
family servicesmedicaid may, to the extent necessary to reimburse 109974
its costs, garnish the wages, salary, or other employment income 109975
of, and withhold amounts from state tax refunds to, any person to 109976
whom both of the following apply:109977

       (1) The person is required by a court or administrative order 109978
to provide coverage of the cost of health care services to a child 109979
eligible for medical assistance under this chaptermedicaid.109980

       (2) The person has received payment from a third party for 109981
the costs of such services but has not used the payment to 109982
reimburse either the other parent or guardian of the child or the 109983
provider of the services.109984

       (C) Claims for current and past due child support shall take 109985
priority over claims under division (B) of this section.109986

       Sec. 5111.83.        Sec. 5162.30.  (A) Not later than January 1, 2012, 109987
theThe medicaid director of job and family services shall apply 109988
to the United States secretary of health and human services for 109989
approval ofcreate a medicaid administrative claiming program 109990
under which federal financial participation is received as 109991
reimbursement for the administrative costs incurred by the 109992
department of health and the Arthur G. James cancer hospital and 109993
Richard J. Solove research institute of the Ohio state university 109994
in analyzing and evaluating both of the following pursuant to 109995
sections 3701.261 to 3701.236and 3701.262 of the Revised Code:109996

       (1) Cancer reports under the Ohio cancer incidence 109997
surveillance system;109998

       (2) The incidence, prevalence, costs, and medical 109999
consequences of cancer on medicaid recipients and other low-income 110000
populations. 110001

       (B) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 110002
consult with the director of health in seeking approval of110003
creating the medicaid administrative claiming program. The 110004
directors shall cooperate in seeking the approval to the extent 110005
they find the approval necessary for the effective and efficient 110006
administration of the medicaid program.110007

       Sec. 5162.31.  Local funds, whether from public or private 110008
sources, expended by a county department of job and family 110009
services for administration of the healthy start component shall 110010
be considered to have been expended by the state for the purpose 110011
of determining the extent to which the state has complied with any 110012
federal requirement that the state provide funds to match federal 110013
financial participation for the medicaid program. This section 110014
does not affect the amount of funds a county is entitled to 110015
receive under sections 5101.16 and 5101.161 of the Revised Code.110016

       Sec. 5111.90.        Sec. 5162.32. (A) As used in sections 5111.90 to 110017
5111.93 of the Revised Code:110018

       (1) "Political subdivision" means a municipal corporation, 110019
township, county, school district, or other body corporate and 110020
politic responsible for governmental activities only in a 110021
geographical area smaller than that of the state.110022

       (2) "State agency" means every organized body, office, or 110023
agency, other than the department of job and family services, 110024
established by the laws of the state for the exercise of any 110025
function of state government.110026

       (B) To the extent permitted by Title XIX of the "Social 110027
Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396, as amended, 110028
and regulations adopted under that title, theThe department of 110029
job and family servicesmedicaid may enter into contracts with 110030
political subdivisions to use funds of the political subdivision 110031
to pay the nonfederal share of expenditures under the medicaid 110032
program. The determination and provision of federal financial 110033
reimbursementparticipation to a subdivision entering into a 110034
contract under this section shall be determined by the department, 110035
subject to section 5111.925162.40 of the Revised Code, approval 110036
by the United States secretary of health and human services, and 110037
the availability of federal financial participation.110038

       Sec. 5111.91.        Sec. 5162.35. The department of job and family 110039
servicesmedicaid may enter into contracts with one or more other 110040
state agencies or political subdivisions to have the state agency 110041
or political subdivision administer one or more components of the 110042
medicaid program, or one or more aspects of a component, under the 110043
department's supervision. A state agency or political subdivision 110044
that enters into such a contract shall comply with the terms of 110045
the contract and any rules the medicaid director of job and family 110046
services has adopted governing the component, or aspect of the 110047
component, that the state agency or political subdivision is to 110048
administer, including any rules establishing review, audit, and 110049
corrective action plan requirements. A contract with a state 110050
agency shall be in the form of an interagency agreement.110051

       A state agency or political subdivision that enters into a 110052
contract with the department under this section shall reimburse 110053
the department for the nonfederal share of the cost to the 110054
department of performing, or contracting for the performance of, a 110055
fiscal audit of the component of the medicaid program, or aspect 110056
of the component, that the state agency or political subdivision 110057
administers if rules governing the component, or aspect of the 110058
component, require that a fiscal audit be conducted.110059

       There is hereby created in the state treasury the medicaid 110060
administrative reimbursement fund. The department shall use money 110061
in the fund to pay for the nonfederal share of the cost of a 110062
fiscal audit for which a state agency or political subdivision is 110063
required by this section to reimburse the department. The 110064
department shall deposit the reimbursements into the fund.110065

       Sec. 5111.71.        Sec. 5162.36. (A) As used in sections 5111.71 to 110066
5111.715 of the Revised Code, "qualified medicaid school provider" 110067
means the board of education of a city, local, or exempted village 110068
school district, the governing authority of a community school 110069
established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, the state 110070
school for the deaf, and the state school for the blind to which 110071
both of the following apply:110072

       (1) It holds a valid medicaid provider agreement.110073

       (2) It meets all other conditions for participation in the 110074
medicaid school component of the medicaid program established in 110075
rules adopted under section 5111.715 of the Revised Code.110076

        (B) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 110077
submit a state medicaid plan amendment to the United States 110078
secretary of health and human services for the purpose of creating110079
create, in accordance with sections 5111.715162.36 to 5111.715110080
5162.364 of the Revised Code, the medicaid school component of the 110081
medicaid program. The director shall create the medicaid school 110082
component on receipt of the United States secretary's approval of 110083
the amendment.110084

       Sec. 5111.711.        Sec. 5162.361.  A qualified medicaid school provider 110085
participating in the medicaid school component of the medicaid 110086
program may submit a claim to the department of job and family 110087
servicesmedicaid for federal financial participation for 110088
providing, in schools, services covered by the medicaid school 110089
component to medicaid recipients who are eligible for the 110090
services. No qualified medicaid school provider may submit such a 110091
claim before the provider incurs the cost of providing the 110092
service.110093

       The claim shall include certification of the qualified 110094
medicaid school provider's expenditures for the service. The 110095
certification shall show that the money the qualified medicaid 110096
school provider used for the expenditures was nonfederal money the 110097
provider may legally use for providing the service and that the 110098
amount of the expenditures was sufficient to pay the full cost of 110099
the service.110100

       Except as otherwise provided in sections 5111.715162.36 to 110101
5111.7155162.364 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under110102
authorized by sections 5111.7135162.363 and 5111.7155162.364 of 110103
the Revised Code, a qualified medicaid school provider is subject 110104
to all conditions of participation in the medicaid program that 110105
generally apply to providers of goods and services under the 110106
medicaid program, including conditions regarding audits and 110107
recovery of overpayments.110108

       Sec. 5111.712.        Sec. 5162.362.  The department of job and family 110109
servicesmedicaid shall seek federal financial participation for 110110
each claim a qualified medicaid school provider properly submits 110111
to the department under section 5111.7115162.361 of the Revised 110112
Code. The department shall disburse the federal financial 110113
participation the department receives from the federal government 110114
for such a claim to the qualified medicaid school provider that 110115
submitted the claim. The department may not pay the qualified 110116
medicaid school provider the nonfederal share of the cost of the 110117
services for which the claim was submitted.110118

       Sec. 5111.713.        Sec. 5162.363.  The department of job and family 110119
servicesmedicaid shall enter into an interagency agreement with 110120
the department of education under section 5111.915162.35 of the 110121
Revised Code that provides for the department of education to 110122
administer the medicaid school component of the medicaid program 110123
other than the aspects of the component that sections 5111.71110124
5162.36 to 5111.7155162.364 of the Revised Code require the 110125
department of job and family servicesmedicaid to administer. The 110126
interagency agreement may include a provision that provides for 110127
the department of education to pay to the department of job and 110128
family servicesmedicaid the nonfederal share of a portion of the 110129
administrative expenses the department of job and family services110130
medicaid incurs in administering the aspects of the component that 110131
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid administers.110132

       TheTo the extent authorized by rules authorized by section 110133
5162.021 of the Revised Code, the department of education shall 110134
establish, in rules adopted under Chapter 119.section 5162.02 of 110135
the Revised Code, a process by which qualified medicaid school 110136
providers participating in the medicaid school component pay to 110137
the department of education the nonfederal share of the 110138
department's expenses incurred in administering the component. The 110139
rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 110140
Revised Code.110141

       Sec. 5111.715.        Sec. 5162.364.  The medicaid director of job and 110142
family services shall adopt rules under Chapter 119.section 110143
5162.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to implement the medicaid 110144
school component of the medicaid program, including rules that 110145
establish or specify all of the following:110146

       (A) Conditions a board of education of a city, local, or 110147
exempted school district, governing authority of a community 110148
school established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code, the 110149
state school for the deaf, and the state school for the blind must 110150
meet to participate in the component;110151

       (B) Services the component covers;110152

       (C) ReimbursementPayment rates for the services the 110153
component covers.110154

       The rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of 110155
the Revised Code.110156

       Sec. 5111.911.        Sec. 5162.37. Any contract the department of job and 110157
family servicesmedicaid enters into with the department of mental 110158
health or department of alcohol and drug addiction servicesmental 110159
health and addiction services under section 5111.915162.35 of the 110160
Revised Code is subject to the approval of the director of budget 110161
and management and shall require or specify all of the following:110162

        (A) In the case of a contract with the department of mental 110163
health, thatThat section 5111.9125162.371 of the Revised Code 110164
be complied with;110165

        (B) In the case of a contract with the department of alcohol 110166
and drug addiction services, that section 5111.913 of the Revised 110167
Code be complied with;110168

       (C) How providers will be paid for providing the services;110169

        (D)(C) The department of mental health's or department of 110170
alcohol and drug addiction services' responsibilities of the 110171
department of mental health and addiction services with regard to 110172
providers, including program oversight and quality assurance.110173

       Sec. 5111.912.        Sec. 5162.371. If the department of job and family 110174
servicesmedicaid enters into a contract with the department of 110175
mental healthmental health and addiction services under section 110176
5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code, the department of job and 110177
family servicesmedicaid shall pay the nonfederal share of any 110178
medicaid payment to a provider for services under the component, 110179
or aspect of the component, the department of mental healthmental 110180
health and addiction services administers. If necessary, the 110181
director of job and family services shall submit a medicaid state 110182
plan amendment to the United States secretary of health and human 110183
services regarding the department of job and family services' duty 110184
under this section.110185

       Sec. 5111.92.        Sec. 5162.40.  (A)(1) Except as provided in division 110186
(B) of this section, if a state agency or political subdivision 110187
administers one or more components of the medicaid program that 110188
the United States department of health and human services 110189
approved, and for which federal financial participation was 110190
initially obtained, prior to January 1, 2002, or administers one 110191
or more aspects of such a component, the department of job and 110192
family servicesmedicaid may retain or collect not more than ten 110193
per cent of the federal financial participation the state agency 110194
or political subdivision obtains through an approved, 110195
administrative claim regarding the component or aspect of the 110196
component. If the department retains or collects a percentage of 110197
such federal financial participation, the percentage the 110198
department retains or collects shall be specified in a contract 110199
the department enters into with the state agency or political 110200
subdivision under section 5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code.110201

       (2) Except as provided in division (B) of this section, if a 110202
state agency or political subdivision administers one or more 110203
components of the medicaid program that the United States 110204
department of health and human services approved on or after 110205
January 1, 2002, or administers one or more aspects of such a 110206
component, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid110207
shall retain or collect not less than three and not more than ten 110208
per cent of the federal financial participation the state agency 110209
or political subdivision obtains through an approved, 110210
administrative claim regarding the component or aspect of the 110211
component. The percentage the department retains or collects shall 110212
be specified in a contract the department enters into with the 110213
state agency or political subdivision under section 5111.91110214
5162.35 of the Revised Code.110215

       (B) The department of job and family services may retain or 110216
collect a percentage of federal financial participation under 110217
divisions (A)(1) and (2) of this section only to the extent 110218
permitted by federal statutes and regulations.110219

       (C) All amounts the department retains or collects under this 110220
section shall be deposited into the health care services 110221
administration fund created under section 5111.945162.54 of the 110222
Revised Code.110223

       Sec. 5111.93.        Sec. 5162.41.  The department of job and family 110224
servicesmedicaid may retain or collect a percentage of the 110225
federal financial participation included in a supplemental 110226
medicaid payment to one or more medicaid providers owned or 110227
operated by a state agency or political subdivision that brings 110228
the payment to such provider or providers to the upper payment 110229
limit established by 42 C.F.R. 447.272. If the department retains 110230
or collects a percentage of that federal financial participation, 110231
the departmentmedicaid director shall adopt a rule under Chapter 110232
119.section 5162.02 of the Revised Code specifying the percentage 110233
the department is to retain or collect. All amounts the department 110234
retains or collects under this section shall be deposited into the 110235
health care services administration fund created under section 110236
5111.945162.54 of the Revised Code.110237

       Sec. 5111.943.        Sec. 5162.50. (A) The health care - federal fund is 110238
hereby created in the state treasury. All of the following shall 110239
be credited to the fund:110240

       (1) Funds that division (B) of section 5112.185168.11 of the 110241
Revised Code requires be credited to the fund;110242

       (2) The federal share of all rebates paid by drug 110243
manufacturers to the department of job and family services110244
medicaid in accordance with a rebate agreement required by the 110245
"Social Security Act," section 1927, 42 U.S.C. 1396r-8;110246

       (3) The federal share of all supplemental rebates paid by 110247
drug manufacturers to the department of job and family services110248
medicaid in accordance with the supplemental drug rebate program 110249
established under section 5111.0815164.755 of the Revised Code;110250

       (4) Except as otherwise provided by statute or as authorized 110251
by the controlling board, the federal share of all other 110252
medicaid-related revenues, collections, and recoveries.110253

       (B) All money credited to the health care - federal fund 110254
pursuant to division (B) of section 5112.185168.11 of the Revised 110255
Code shall be used solely for distributing funds to hospitals 110256
under section 5112.085168.09 of the Revised Code. The department 110257
of job and family servicesmedicaid shall use all other money 110258
credited to the fund to pay for other medicaid services and 110259
contracts.110260

       Sec. 5111.941.        Sec. 5162.52.  (A) The health care/medicaid support 110261
and recoveries fund is hereby created in the state treasury. All 110262
of the following shall be credited to the fund:110263

       (1) Except as otherwise provided by statute or as authorized 110264
by the controlling board, the nonfederal share of all 110265
medicaid-related revenues, collections, and recoveries;110266

       (2) Federal reimbursement received for payment adjustments 110267
made pursuant to section 1923 of the "Social Security Act," 101 110268
Stat. 1330-148 (1987)section 1923, 42 U.S.C. 1396r-4, as amended,110269
under the medicaid program to state mental health hospitals 110270
maintained and operated by the department of mental healthmental 110271
health and addiction services under division (A) of section 110272
5119.025119.14 of the Revised Code;110273

       (3) Revenues the department of job and family services110274
medicaid receives from another state agency for medicaid services 110275
pursuant to an interagency agreement, other than such revenues 110276
required to be deposited into the health care services 110277
administration fund created under section 5111.945162.54 of the 110278
Revised Code;110279

       (4) The first seven hundred fifty thousand dollars the 110280
department receives in a fiscal year for performing eligibility 110281
verification services necessary for compliance with the 110282
independent, certified audit requirement of 42 C.F.R. 455.304;110283

       (5) The nonfederal share of all rebates paid by drug 110284
manufacturers to the department of medicaid in accordance with a 110285
rebate agreement required by the "Social Security Act," section 110286
1927, 42 U.S.C. 1396r-8;110287

       (6) The nonfederal share of all supplemental rebates paid by 110288
drug manufacturers to the department of medicaid in accordance 110289
with the supplemental drug rebate program established under 110290
section 5164.755 of the Revised Code.110291

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 110292
use money credited to the health care/medicaid support and 110293
recoveries fund to pay for medicaid services and contracts.110294

       Sec. 5111.94.        Sec. 5162.54.  (A) As used in this section, "vendor 110295
offset" means a reduction of a medicaid payment to a medicaid 110296
provider to correct a previous, incorrect medicaid payment to that 110297
provider.110298

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the health 110299
care services administration fund. Except as provided in division 110300
(C) of this section, all the following shall be deposited into the 110301
fund:110302

       (1) Amounts deposited into the fund pursuant to sections 110303
5111.925162.12, 5162.40, and 5111.935162.41 of the Revised Code;110304

       (2) The amount of the state share of all money the department 110305
of job and family services, in fiscal year 2003 and each fiscal 110306
year thereafter,medicaid recovers each fiscal year pursuant to a 110307
tort action under the department's right of recovery under section 110308
5101.585160.37 of the Revised Code that exceeds the state share 110309
of all money the department, in fiscal year 2002, recovers 110310
pursuant to a tort action under that right of recovery;110311

       (3) Subject to division (D)(B) of this section, the amount of 110312
the state share of all money the department of job and family 110313
servicesmedicaid, in fiscal year 2003 and each fiscal year 110314
thereafter, recovers through audits of medicaid providers that 110315
exceeds the state share of all money the department, in fiscal 110316
year 2002, recovers through such audits;110317

       (4) Amounts from assessments on hospitals under section 110318
5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code and intergovernmental 110319
transfers by governmental hospitals under section 5112.075168.07110320
of the Revised Code that are deposited into the fund in accordance 110321
with the law;110322

       (5) Amounts that the department of education pays to the 110323
department of job and family servicesmedicaid, if any, pursuant 110324
to an interagency agreement entered into underauthorized by110325
section 5111.7135162.363 of the Revised Code;110326

       (6) The application fees charged to providers under section 110327
5111.0635164.31 of the Revised Code;110328

       (7) The fines collected under section 5111.2715165.1010 of 110329
the Revised Code;110330

       (8) Money the department receives in a fiscal year for 110331
performing eligibility verification services necessary for 110332
compliance with the independent, certified audit requirement of 42 110333
C.F.R. 455.304, other than the amounts of such money that are to 110334
be credited to the health care/medicaid support and recoveries 110335
fund under section 5162.52 of the Revised Code.110336

       (C) No funds shall be deposited into the health care services 110337
administration fund in violation of federal statutes or 110338
regulations.110339

       (D)(B) In determining under division (B)(A)(3) of this 110340
section the amount of money the department, in a fiscal year, 110341
recovers through audits of medicaid providers, the amount 110342
recovered in the form of vendor offset shall be excluded.110343

       (E)(C) The directordepartment of job and family services110344
medicaid shall use funds available in the health care services 110345
administration fund to pay for costs associated with the 110346
administration of the medicaid program.110347

       Sec. 5111.945.        Sec. 5162.56. There is created in the state treasury 110348
the health care special activities fund. The department of job and 110349
family servicesmedicaid shall deposit all funds it receives 110350
pursuant to the administration of the medicaid program into the 110351
fund, other than any such funds that are required by law to be 110352
deposited into another fund. The department shall use the money in 110353
the fund to pay for expenses related to the services provided 110354
under, and the administration of, the medicaid program.110355

       Sec. 5111.944.        Sec. 5162.58. (A) As used in this section:110356

       "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in section 110357
1915(h)(2)(B) of the "Social Security Act," 124 Stat. 315 (2010), 110358
42 U.S.C. 1396n(h)(2)(B).110359

       "Dual eligible integrated care demonstration project" means 110360
the demonstration project authorized by section 5111.981 of the 110361
Revised Code.110362

       "Medicare program" means the program created under Title 110363
XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 110364
1395, as amended.110365

       (B) There is created in the state treasury the integrated 110366
care delivery systems fund. If the terms of the federal approval 110367
for the dual eligible integrated care demonstration project 110368
authorized by section 5164.91 of the Revised Code provide for the 110369
state to receive a portion of the amounts that the demonstration 110370
project saves the medicare program, such amounts shall be 110371
deposited into the fund. The department of job and family services110372
medicaid shall use the money in the fund to further develop 110373
integrated delivery systems and improved care coordination for 110374
dual eligible individuals.110375

       Sec. 5162.60.  (A) There is hereby created in the state 110376
treasury the managed care performance payment fund. The fund shall 110377
consist of all of the following:110378

       (1) Amounts transferred to it by the director of budget and 110379
management for the purpose of the managed care performance payment 110380
program established under section 5167.30 of the Revised Code;110381

       (2) All fines imposed on and collected from medicaid managed 110382
care organizations for failure to meet performance standards or 110383
other requirements specified in provider agreements or rules 110384
adopted under section 5167.02 of the Revised Code;110385

       (3) All investment earnings of the fund.110386

       (B) Amounts in the fund may be used for the following:110387

        (1) To make performance payments to medicaid managed care 110388
organizations in accordance with section 5167.30 of the Revised 110389
Code;110390

       (2) To meet obligations specified in the provider agreements;110391

       (3) To pay for medicaid services provided by a medicaid 110392
managed care organization;110393

       (4) To reimburse a medicaid managed care organization that 110394
has paid a fine for failure to meet performance standards or other 110395
requirements specified in provider agreements or rules adopted 110396
under section 5167.02 of the Revised Code if that organization 110397
comes into compliance with those standards or requirements.110398

       Sec. 5162.62.  There is hereby created in the state treasury 110399
the medicaid administrative reimbursement fund. The department of 110400
medicaid shall use money in the fund to pay for the nonfederal 110401
share of the cost of a fiscal audit for which a state agency or 110402
political subdivision is required by section 5162.35 of the 110403
Revised Code to reimburse the department. The department shall 110404
deposit the reimbursements into the fund.110405

       Sec. 5111.714.        Sec. 5162.64.  (A) There is hereby created in the 110406
state treasury the medicaid school program administrative fund. 110407

       (B) Both of the following shall be deposited into the 110408
medicaid school program administrative fund:110409

       (1) The federal funds the department of education receives 110410
for the expenses the department incurs in administering the 110411
medicaid school component of the medicaid program created under 110412
section 5162.36 of the Revised Code;110413

       (2) The money the department collects from qualified medicaid 110414
school providers in the process established in rules adopted under110415
authorized by section 5111.7135162.363 of the Revised Code.110416

       (C) No funds shall be deposited into the medicaid school 110417
program administrative fund in violation of federal statutes or 110418
regulations.110419

       (D) The department of education shall use money in the 110420
medicaid school program administrative fund for both of the 110421
following purposes:110422

       (1) Paying for the expenses the department incurs in 110423
administering the medicaid school component of the medicaid 110424
program;110425

       (2) Paying a qualified medicaid school provider a refund for 110426
any overpayment the provider makes to the department under the 110427
process established in rules adopted underauthorized by section 110428
5111.7135162.363 of the Revised Code if the process results in an 110429
overpayment.110430

       Sec. 5111.62.        Sec. 5162.66. TheAs used in this section, 110431
"deficiency" has the same meaning as in section 5165.60 of the 110432
Revised Code.110433

       The proceeds of all fines, including interest, collected 110434
under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised 110435
Code shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the 110436
residents protection fund, which is hereby created. The proceeds 110437
of all fines, including interest, collected under section 173.42 110438
of the Revised Code shall be deposited in the state treasury to 110439
the credit of the residents protection fund.110440

        Money in the fund shall be used for the protection of the 110441
health or property of residents of nursing facilities in which the 110442
department of health finds deficiencies, including payment for the 110443
costs of relocation of residents to other facilities, maintenance 110444
of operation of a facility pending correction of deficiencies or 110445
closure, and reimbursement of residents for the loss of money 110446
managed by the facility under section 3721.15 of the Revised Code. 110447
Money in the fund may also be used to make payments under section 110448
5111.5115165.78 of the Revised Code.110449

       The fund shall be maintained and administered by the 110450
department of job and family servicesmedicaid under rules 110451
developed in consultation with the departments of health and aging 110452
and adopted by the director of job and family services under 110453
Chapter 119.section 5162.02 of the Revised Code. The rules shall 110454
be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.110455

       Sec. 5163.01. As used in this chapter:110456

       "Federal financial participation" has the same meaning as in 110457
section 5160.01 of the Revised Code.110458

       "Federal poverty line" has the same meaning as in section 110459
5162.01 of the Revised Code.110460

       "Healthy start component" has the same meaning as in section 110461
5162.01 of the Revised Code.110462

       "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver component" 110463
has the same meaning as in section 5166.01 of the Revised Code.110464

       "Intermediate care facility for individuals with intellectual 110465
disabilities" and "ICF/IID" have the same meanings as in section 110466
5124.01 of the Revised Code.110467

       "Mandatory eligibility groups" means the groups of 110468
individuals that must be covered by the medicaid state plan as a 110469
condition of the state receiving federal financial participation 110470
for the medicaid program.110471

       "Medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities program" means 110472
the component of the medicaid program established under sections 110473
5163.09 to 5163.0910 of the Revised Code.110474

       "Medicaid services" has the same meaning as in section 110475
5164.01 of the Revised Code.110476

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 110477
section 5166.01 of the Revised Code.110478

       "Nursing facility" and "nursing facility services" have the 110479
same meanings as in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code.110480

       "Optional eligibility groups" means the groups of individuals 110481
who may be covered by the medicaid state plan or a federal 110482
medicaid waiver and for whom the medicaid program receives federal 110483
financial participation.110484

       "Other medicaid-funded long-term care services" has the 110485
meaning specified in rules adopted under section 5163.02 of the 110486
Revised Code.110487

       "Supplemental security income program" means the program 110488
established by Title XVI of the "Social Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 110489
1381 et seq.110490

       Sec. 5111.011.        Sec. 5163.02. (A) The medicaid director of job and 110491
family services shall adopt rules establishingas necessary to 110492
implement this chapter. The rules shall establish eligibility 110493
requirements for the medicaid program. The rules may establish 110494
requirements for applying for medicaid and determining and 110495
verifying eligibility for medicaid. The rules shall be adopted 110496
pursuant toin accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code 110497
and shall be consistent with federal and state law. The rules 110498
shall include rules that do all of the following:110499

       (1) Establish standards consistent with federal law for 110500
allocating income and resources as income and resources of the 110501
spouse, children, parents, or stepparents of a recipient of or 110502
applicant for medicaid;110503

       (2) Define the term "resources" as used in division (A)(1) of 110504
this section;110505

       (3) Specify the number of months that is to be used for the 110506
purpose of the term "look-back date" used in section 5111.0116 of 110507
the Revised Code;110508

       (4) Establish processes to be used to determine both of the 110509
following:110510

       (a) The date an institutionalized individual's ineligibility 110511
for services under section 5111.0116 of the Revised Code is to 110512
begin;110513

       (b) The number of months an institutionalized individual's 110514
ineligibility for such services is to continue.110515

       (5) For the purpose of division (C) of section 5111.0116 of 110516
the Revised Code, establish procedures for granting waivers of all 110517
or a portion of the period of ineligibility that an 110518
institutionalized individual would otherwise be subject to under 110519
that section and additional reasons for which such waivers may be 110520
granted;110521

       (6) Define the term "other medicaid-funded long-term care 110522
services" as used in sections 5111.0117 and 5111.0118 of the 110523
Revised Code;110524

       (7) For the purpose of division (C)(2)(c) of section 110525
5111.0117 of the Revised Code, establish the process to determine 110526
whether the child of an aged, blind, or disabled individual is 110527
financially dependent on the individual for housing.110528

       (B) Notwithstanding any provision of state law, including 110529
statutes, administrative rules, common law, and court rules, 110530
regarding real or personal property or domestic relations, the 110531
standards established under rules adopted under division (A)(1) of110532
this section shall be used to determine eligibility for medicaid.110533

       Sec. 5163.03.  (A) Subject to sections 5163.04 and 5163.05 of 110534
the Revised Code, the medicaid program shall cover all mandatory 110535
eligibility groups.110536

       (B) The medicaid program shall cover all of the optional 110537
eligibility groups that state statutes require the medicaid 110538
program to cover.110539

       (C) The medicaid program may cover any of the optional 110540
eligibility groups to which either of the following applies:110541

       (1) State statutes expressly permit the medicaid program to 110542
cover the optional eligibility group.110543

       (2) State statutes do not address whether the medicaid 110544
program may cover the optional eligibility group.110545

       (D) The medicaid program shall not cover any eligibility 110546
group that state statutes prohibit the medicaid program from 110547
covering.110548

       Sec. 5163.04.  The medicaid program shall not cover the group 110549
described in the "Social Security Act," section 110550
1902(a)(10)(A)(i)(VIII), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(10)(A)(i)(VIII).110551

       This section does not affect the medicaid eligibility of any 110552
individual who enrolls in the metrohealth care plus medicaid 110553
waiver component on or after February 5, 2013.110554

       Sec. 5163.05.  The medicaid program's eligibility 110555
requirements for aged, blind, and disabled individuals may be more 110556
restrictive than the eligibility requirements for the supplemental 110557
security income program. Any such more restrictive eligibility 110558
requirements shall be consistent with the 209(b) option described 110559
in the "Social Security Act," section 1902(f), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(f).110560

       Sec. 5163.06.  Beginning January 1, 2014, the medicaid 110561
director may alter the eligibility requirements for, and terminate 110562
the medicaid program's coverage of, one or more optional 110563
eligibility groups or subgroups, including the following:110564

       (A) Children placed with adoptive parents who may be covered 110565
by medicaid pursuant to the "Social Security Act," section 110566
1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(VIII), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(10)(A)(ii)(VIII);110567

       (B) Low income women and children who may be covered by 110568
medicaid pursuant to the "Social Security Act," section 110569
1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(IX), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(10)(A)(ii)(IX);110570

       (C) Independent foster care adolescents who may be covered by 110571
medicaid pursuant to the "Social Security Act," section 110572
1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XVII), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XVII);110573

       (D) Women in need of treatment for breast or cervical cancer 110574
who may be covered by medicaid pursuant to the "Social Security 110575
Act," section 1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XVIII), 42 U.S.C. 110576
1396a(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XVIII);110577

        (E) Low income, nonpregnant individuals who may receive 110578
family planning services and supplies under medicaid pursuant to 110579
the "Social Security Act," section 1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XXI), 42 110580
U.S.C. 1396a(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XXI);110581

        (F) Pregnant women who may be determined presumptively 110582
eligible for medicaid pursuant to the "Social Security Act," 110583
section 1920, 42 U.S.C. 1396r-1;110584

       (G) Children who may be determined presumptively eligible for 110585
medicaid pursuant to the "Social Security Act," section 1920A, 42 110586
U.S.C. 1396r-1a;110587

        (H) Low income parents who may be covered by medicaid 110588
pursuant to the "Social Security Act," section 1931, 42 U.S.C. 110589
1396u-1.110590

       Sec. 5163.061.  If the medicaid director alters the 110591
eligibility requirements for, or terminates the medicaid program's 110592
coverage of, an optional eligibility group or subgroup pursuant to 110593
section 5163.06 of the Revised Code, all of the following apply:110594

       (A) In the case of an optional eligibility group or subgroup 110595
for which the eligibility requirements are altered:110596

       (1) No individual enrolled, before the effective date of the 110597
altered eligibility requirements, in medicaid as part of the group 110598
or subgroup shall remain enrolled in medicaid on and after that 110599
effective date unless the individual meets the altered eligibility 110600
requirements for the group or subgroup or meets the eligibility 110601
requirements for another eligibility group or subgroup.110602

       (2) Beginning on the effective date of the altered 110603
eligibility requirements, no individual may enroll in medicaid as 110604
part of the group or subgroup unless the individual meets the 110605
altered eligibility requirements for the group or subgroup or 110606
meets the eligibility requirements for another eligibility group 110607
or subgroup.110608

       (B) In the case of an optional eligibility group or subgroup 110609
whose medicaid coverage is terminated:110610

       (1) No individual enrolled, before the effective date of the 110611
termination, in medicaid as part of the group or subgroup shall 110612
remain enrolled in medicaid on and after that effective date 110613
unless the individual meets the eligibility requirements for 110614
another eligibility group or subgroup.110615

       (2) Beginning on the effective date of the termination, no 110616
individual may enroll in medicaid as part of the group or subgroup 110617
but may enroll in medicaid as part of another group or subgroup 110618
for which the individual meets the eligibility requirements.110619

       (C) The department of medicaid shall take actions as the 110620
department determines necessary, including requiring actions from 110621
county departments of job and family services, to do both of the 110622
following:110623

       (1) Inform medicaid recipients about the altered eligibility 110624
requirements or termination of the medicaid program's coverage of 110625
the group or subgroup;110626

       (2) In the case of medicaid recipients who will cease to be 110627
eligible for medicaid as part of the group or subgroup because of 110628
the altered eligibility requirements or termination of the group's 110629
or subgroup's coverage, offer to assist the recipients with the 110630
following:110631

       (a) To continue to be enrolled in medicaid as part of another 110632
eligibility group or subgroup for which they meet the eligibility 110633
requirements;110634

       (b) Transition to other health coverage options available to 110635
them.110636

       (D) Regarding appeals authorized by section 5160.31 of the 110637
Revised Code:110638

       (1) No individual may appeal a denial of medicaid eligibility 110639
as part of a group or subgroup whose medicaid coverage is 110640
terminated if the denial is for medicaid eligibility that would 110641
begin or continue on or after the effective date of the 110642
termination.110643

       (2) An individual may initiate or continue, on or after the 110644
effective date of the termination, an appeal concerning the 110645
individual's eligibility for medicaid as part of the group or 110646
subgroup if the decision being appealed concerns the individual's 110647
eligibility for medicaid as part of the group or subgroup before 110648
the effective date of the termination.110649

       (3) An appeal initiated or continued pursuant to division 110650
(D)(2) of this section may not result in the appellant being 110651
enrolled, or continuing to be enrolled, in medicaid as part of the 110652
group or subgroup on or after the effective date of the 110653
termination.110654

       (E) The altered eligibility requirements or termination of 110655
the medicaid program's coverage of the group or subgroup has no 110656
effect on either of the following:110657

       (1) An automatic right of recovery given under section 110658
5160.37 of the Revised Code;110659

       (2) An automatic assignment of rights under section 5160.38 110660
of the Revised Code.110661

       (F) All rules, standards, guidelines, or orders regarding the 110662
group or subgroup issued by the medicaid director before the 110663
effective date of the altered eligibility requirements or 110664
termination of the medicaid program's coverage of the group or 110665
subgroup shall be used for the purpose of determining the state's 110666
legal obligations for claims related to the group or subgroup that 110667
arise from any of the following:110668

       (1) Eligibility determinations regarding enrollment in 110669
medicaid before that effective date;110670

       (2) Claims for payment for medicaid services provided before 110671
that effective date;110672

       (3) Recoveries of erroneous medicaid payments.110673

       Sec. 5163.08.  The medicaid director shall implement the 110674
option authorized by the "Social Security Act," section 110675
1925(a)(5), 42 U.S.C. 1396r-6(a)(5), regarding the single 110676
twelve-month eligibility period for transitional medicaid.110677

       Sec. 5111.70.        Sec. 5163.09.  (A) As used in sections 5111.70110678
5163.09 to 5111.70115163.0910 of the Revised Code:110679

       "Applicant" means an individual who applies to participate in 110680
the medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities program.110681

       "Earned income" has the meaning established by rules adopted 110682
underauthorized by section 5111.7085163.098 of the Revised Code.110683

       "Employed individual with a medically improved disability" 110684
has the same meaning as in the "Social Security Act," section 110685
1905(v), 42 U.S.C. 1396d(v).110686

       "Family" means an applicant or participant and the spouse and 110687
dependent children of the applicant or participant. If an 110688
applicant or participant is under eighteen years of age, "family" 110689
also means the parents of the applicant or participant.110690

       "Federal poverty guidelines" has the same meaning as in 110691
section 5101.46 of the Revised Code.110692

       "Health insurance" has the meaning established by rules 110693
adopted underauthorized by section 5111.7085163.098 of the 110694
Revised Code.110695

       "Income" means earned income and unearned income.110696

       "Participant" means an individual who has been determined 110697
eligible for the medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities 110698
program and is participating in the program.110699

       "Resources" has the meaning established by rules adopted 110700
underauthorized by section 5111.7085163.098 of the Revised Code.110701

       "Spouse" has the meaning established in rules adopted under110702
authorized by section 5111.7085163.098 of the Revised Code.110703

       "Supplemental security income program" means the program 110704
established under Title XVI of the "Social Security Act," 86 Stat. 110705
1329 (1972), 42 U.S.C. 1381, as amended.110706

       "Medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities program" means 110707
the component of the medicaid program established under sections 110708
5111.70 to 5111.7011 of the Revised Code.110709

       "Unearned income" has the meaning established by rules 110710
adopted underauthorized by section 5111.7085163.098 of the 110711
Revised Code.110712

       (B) Not later than one hundred eighty days after the 110713
effective date of this section, the director of job and family 110714
services shall submit to the United States secretary of health and 110715
human services an amendment to the state medicaid plan and any 110716
federal waiver necessary to establish the medicaid buy-in for 110717
workers with disabilities program in accordance withThe medicaid 110718
program shall cover the optional eligibility groups specified in 110719
the "Social Security Act," section 1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(XV) and 110720
(XVI), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a) (10)(A)(ii)(XV) and (XVI) andin 110721
accordance with sections 5111.705163.09 to 5111.70115163.0910110722
of the Revised Code. The director shall implement sections 110723
5111.701 to 5111.7011 of the Revised Code if the amendment and, if 110724
needed, federal waiver are approved.The medicaid program's 110725
coverage of these optional eligibility groups shall be known as 110726
the medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities program.110727

       Sec. 5111.701.        Sec. 5163.091.  Under the medicaid buy-in for 110728
workers with disabilities program, an individual who does all of 110729
the following in accordance with rules adopted underauthorized by110730
section 5111.7085163.098 of the Revised Code qualifies for 110731
medical assistance under the medicaid program:110732

       (A) Applies for the medicaid buy-in for workers with 110733
disabilities program;110734

       (B) Provides satisfactory evidence of all of the following:110735

       (1) That the individual is at least sixteen years of age and 110736
under sixty-five years of age;110737

       (2) Except as provided in section 5111.7065163.096 of the 110738
Revised Code, that one of the following applies to the individual:110739

       (a) The individual is considered disabled for the purpose of 110740
the supplemental security income program, regardless of whether 110741
the individual receives supplemental security income benefits, and 110742
the individual has earnings from employment.110743

       (b) The individual is an employed individual with a medically 110744
improved disability.110745

       (3) That the value of the individual's resources, less 110746
amounts disregarded pursuant to rules adopted underauthorized by110747
section 5111.7085163.098 of the Revised Code, does not exceed the 110748
amount provided for by section 5111.7025163.092 of the Revised 110749
Code;110750

       (4) That the individual's income, less amounts disregarded 110751
pursuant to section 5111.7035163.093 of the Revised Code, does 110752
not exceed two hundred fifty per cent of the federal poverty 110753
guidelinesline;110754

       (5) That the individual meets the additional eligibility 110755
requirements for the medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities 110756
program that the director of job and family services establishes110757
established in rules adopted underauthorized by section 5111.708110758
5163.098 of the Revised Code.110759

       (C) To the extent required by section 5111.7045163.094 of 110760
the Revised Code, pays the premium established under that section.110761

       Sec. 5111.702.        Sec. 5163.092.  (A) Except as provided in division 110762
(B) of this section, the maximum value of resources, less amounts 110763
disregarded pursuant to rules adopted underauthorized by section 110764
5111.7085163.098 of the Revised Code, that an individual may have 110765
without the individual exceeding the resource eligibility limit 110766
for the medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities program 110767
shall not exceed ten thousand dollars.110768

       (B) Each calendar year, the medicaid director of job and 110769
family services shall adjust the resource eligibility limit 110770
specified in division (A) of this section by the change in the 110771
consumer price index for all items for all urban consumers for the 110772
previous calendar year, as published by the United States bureau 110773
of labor statistics. The annual adjustment shall go into effect on 110774
the earliest date possible.110775

       Sec. 5111.703.        Sec. 5163.093.  For the purpose of determining 110776
whether an individual is within the income eligibility limit for 110777
the medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities program, all of 110778
the following apply:110779

       (A) Twenty thousand dollars of the individual's earned income 110780
shall be disregarded.110781

       (B) No amount that the individual's employer pays to obtain 110782
health insurance for one or more members of the individual's 110783
family, including any amount of a premium established under 110784
section 5111.7045163.094 of the Revised Code that the employer 110785
pays, shall be treated as the individual's income.110786

       (C) Any other amounts, if any, specified in rules adopted 110787
underauthorized by section 5111.7085163.098 of the Revised Code 110788
shall be disregarded from the individual's earned income, unearned 110789
income, or both.110790

       Sec. 5111.704.        Sec. 5163.094. An individual whose income exceeds 110791
one hundred fifty per cent of the federal poverty guidelinesline110792
shall pay an annual premium as a condition of qualifying for the 110793
medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities program. The amount 110794
of the premium shall be determined as follows:110795

       (A) Subtract one hundred fifty per cent of the federal 110796
poverty guidelinesline, as applicable for a family size equal to 110797
the size of the individual's family, from the amount of the income 110798
of the individual's family;110799

       (B) Subtract an amount specified in rules adopted under110800
authorized by section 5111.7085163.098 of the Revised Code from 110801
the difference determined under division (A) of this section;110802

       (C) Multiply the difference determined under division (B) of 110803
this section by one tenth.110804

       Sec. 5111.705.        Sec. 5163.095. No individual shall be denied 110805
eligibility for the medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities 110806
program on the basis that the individual receives services under a 110807
home and community-based services medicaid waiver component as 110808
defined in section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.110809

       Sec. 5111.706.        Sec. 5163.096. An individual participating in the 110810
medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities program may continue 110811
to participate in the program for up to six months even though the 110812
individual ceases to have earnings from employment or to be an 110813
employed individual with a medically improved disability due to 110814
ceasing to be employed if the individual continues to meet all 110815
other eligibility requirements for the program.110816

       Sec. 5111.707.        Sec. 5163.097.  If the United States secretary of 110817
health and human services requires that a provision in the 110818
amendment to the state medicaid plan or the federal waiver request 110819
submitted under section 5111.70 of the Revised Codeof the 110820
medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities program be changed 110821
or removed in order for the secretary to approve the amendment or 110822
waiverprogram or to avoid an extended delay in the secretary's 110823
approval, the medicaid director of job and family services shall 110824
make the change or removal. The change or removal may cause the 110825
medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities program to include a 110826
provision that is inconsistent with sections 5111.705163.09 to 110827
5111.7065163.096 of the Revised Code. Such a change or removal 110828
shall be made only to the extent necessary to obtain the United 110829
States secretary's approval or avoid an extended delay in the 110830
secretary's approval and shall be reflected in rules adopted 110831
underauthorized by section 5111.7085163.098 of the Revised Code.110832

       Sec. 5111.708.        Sec. 5163.098. (A) The medicaid director of job and 110833
family services shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.110834
under section 5163.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to 110835
implement the medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities 110836
program. The rules shall do all of the following:110837

       (1) Specify assets, asset values, and amounts to be 110838
disregarded in determining asset and income eligibility limits for 110839
the program;110840

       (2) Establish meanings for the terms "earned income," "health 110841
insurance," "resources," "spouse," and "unearned income";110842

       (3) Establish additional eligibility requirements for the 110843
program that must be established for the United States secretary 110844
of health and human services to approve the program;110845

       (4) For the purpose of division (B) of section 5111.704110846
5163.094 of the Revised Code, specify an amount to be subtracted 110847
from the difference determined under division (A) of that section.110848

       (B) The director may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 110849
119.under section 5163.02 of the Revised Code to specify amounts 110850
to be disregarded from an individual's earned income, unearned 110851
income, or both under division (C) of section 5111.7035163.093 of 110852
the Revised Code for the purpose of determining whether the 110853
individual is within the income eligibility limit for the medicaid 110854
buy-in for workers with disabilities program.110855

       Sec. 5111.709.        Sec. 5163.099. (A) There is hereby created the 110856
medicaid buy-in advisory council. The council shall consist of all 110857
of the following:110858

       (1) The following voting members:110859

       (a) The executive director of assistive technology of Ohio or 110860
the executive director's designee;110861

       (b) The director of the axis center for public awareness of 110862
people with disabilities or the director's designee;110863

       (c) The executive director of the cerebral palsy association 110864
of Ohio or the executive director's designee;110865

       (d) The chief executive officer of Ohio advocates for mental 110866
health or the chief executive officer's designee;110867

       (e) The state director of the Ohio chapter of AARP or the 110868
state director's designee;110869

       (f) The director of the Ohio developmental disabilities 110870
council created under section 5123.35 of the Revised Code or the 110871
director's designee;110872

       (g) The executive director of the governor's council on 110873
people with disabilities created under section 3303.41 of the 110874
Revised Code or the executive director's designee;110875

       (h) The chairperson of the Ohio Olmstead task force or the 110876
chairperson's designee;110877

       (i) The executive director of the Ohio statewide independent 110878
living council or the executive director's designee;110879

       (j) The president of the Ohio chapter of the national 110880
multiple sclerosis society or the president's designee;110881

       (k) The executive director of the arc of Ohio or the 110882
executive director's designee;110883

       (l) The executive director of the commission on minority 110884
health or the executive director's designee;110885

       (m) The executive director of the brain injury association of 110886
Ohio or the executive director's designee;110887

       (n) The executive officer of any other advocacy organization 110888
who volunteers to serve on the council, or such an executive 110889
officer's designee, if the other voting members, at a meeting 110890
called by the chairperson elected under division (C) of this 110891
section, determine it is appropriate for the advocacy organization 110892
to be represented on the council;110893

       (o) One or more participants who volunteer to serve on the 110894
council and are selected by the other voting members at a meeting 110895
the chairperson calls after the medicaid buy-in for workers with 110896
disabilities program is implemented.110897

       (2) The following non-voting members:110898

       (a) The medicaid director of job and family services or the 110899
director's designee;110900

       (b) The administrator of the rehabilitation services 110901
commission or the administrator's designee;110902

       (c) The director of alcohol and drug addiction services or 110903
the director's designee;110904

       (d) The director of developmental disabilities or the 110905
director's designee;110906

       (e)(d) The director of mental health and addiction services110907
or the director's designee;110908

       (f)(e) The executive officer of any other government entity, 110909
or the executive officer's designee, if the voting members, at a 110910
meeting called by the chairperson, determine it is appropriate for 110911
the government entity to be represented on the council.110912

       (B) All members of the medicaid buy-in advisory council shall 110913
serve without compensation or reimbursement, except as serving on 110914
the council is considered part of their usual job duties.110915

       (C) The voting members of the medicaid buy-in advisory 110916
council shall elect one of the members of the council to serve as 110917
the council's chairperson for a two-year term. The chairperson may 110918
be re-elected to successive terms.110919

       (D) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 110920
provide the Ohio medicaid buy-in advisory council with 110921
accommodations for the council to hold its meetings and shall 110922
provide the council with other administrative assistance the 110923
council needs to perform its duties.110924

       Sec. 5111.7011.        Sec. 5163.0910.  Not less than once each year, the 110925
medicaid director of job and family services shall submit a 110926
report on the medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities 110927
program to the governor, speaker and minority leader of the house 110928
of representatives, president and minority leader of the senate, 110929
and chairpersons of the house and senate committees to which the 110930
biennial operating budget bill is referred. The report shall 110931
include all of the following information:110932

       (A) The number of individuals who participated in the 110933
medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities program;110934

       (B) The cost of the program;110935

       (C) The amount of revenue generated by premiums that 110936
participants pay under section 5111.7045163.094 of the Revised 110937
Code;110938

       (D) The average amount of earned income of participants' 110939
families;110940

       (E) The average amount of time participants have participated 110941
in the program;110942

       (F) The types of other health insurance participants have 110943
been able to obtain.110944

       Sec. 5111.15.        Sec. 5163.20.  If a medicaid recipient of medical 110945
assistance is the beneficiary of a trust created pursuant to 110946
section 5815.28 of the Revised Code, then, notwithstanding any 110947
contrary provision of this chapter or of a rule adopted pursuant 110948
to this chapterunder section 5163.02 of the Revised Code, 110949
divisions (C) and (D) of that section shall apply in determining 110950
the assets or resources of the recipient, the recipient's estate, 110951
the settlor, or the settlor's estate and to claims arising under 110952
this chapter against the recipient, the recipient's estate, the 110953
settlor, or the settlor's estate.110954

       Sec. 5111.151.        Sec. 5163.21. (A)(1) This section applies only to 110955
either of the following:110956

       (a) Initial eligibility determinations for the medicaid 110957
program made by the department of job and family services pursuant 110958
to section 5101.47 of the Revised Code or by a county department 110959
of job and family services pursuant to section 5111.012 of the 110960
Revised Code;110961

       (b) An appeal from aan initial eligibility determination 110962
described in division (A)(1)(a) of this section pursuant to 110963
section 5101.355160.31 of the Revised Code. 110964

       (2)(a) Except as provided in division (A)(2)(b) of this 110965
section, this section shall not be used by a court to determine 110966
the effect of a trust on an individual's initial eligibility for 110967
the medicaid program. 110968

       (b) The prohibition in division (A)(2)(a) of this section 110969
does not apply to an appeal described in division (A)(1)(b) of 110970
this section.110971

        (B) As used in this section:110972

        (1) "Trust" means any arrangement in which a grantor 110973
transfers real or personal property to a trust with the intention 110974
that it be held, managed, or administered by at least one trustee 110975
for the benefit of the grantor or beneficiaries. "Trust" includes 110976
any legal instrument or device similar to a trust.110977

        (2) "Legal instrument or device similar to a trust" includes, 110978
but is not limited to, escrow accounts, investment accounts, 110979
partnerships, contracts, and other similar arrangements that are 110980
not called trusts under state law but are similar to a trust and 110981
to which all of the following apply:110982

        (a) The property in the trust is held, managed, retained, or 110983
administered by a trustee.110984

        (b) The trustee has an equitable, legal, or fiduciary duty to 110985
hold, manage, retain, or administer the property for the benefit 110986
of the beneficiary.110987

        (c) The trustee holds identifiable property for the 110988
beneficiary.110989

        (3) "Grantor" is a person who creates a trust, including all 110990
of the following:110991

        (a) An individual;110992

        (b) An individual's spouse;110993

        (c) A person, including a court or administrative body, with 110994
legal authority to act in place of or on behalf of an individual 110995
or an individual's spouse;110996

        (d) A person, including a court or administrative body, that 110997
acts at the direction or on request of an individual or the 110998
individual's spouse.110999

        (4) "Beneficiary" is a person or persons, including a 111000
grantor, who benefits in some way from a trust.111001

        (5) "Trustee" is a person who manages a trust's principal and 111002
income for the benefit of the beneficiaries.111003

        (6) "Person" has the same meaning as in section 1.59 of the 111004
Revised Code and includes an individual, corporation, business 111005
trust, estate, trust, partnership, and association.111006

        (7) "Applicant" is an individual who applies for medicaid or 111007
the individual's spouse.111008

        (8) "Recipient" is an individual who receives medicaid or the 111009
individual's spouse.111010

        (9) "Revocable trust" is a trust that can be revoked by the 111011
grantor or the beneficiary, including all of the following, even 111012
if the terms of the trust state that it is irrevocable:111013

        (a) A trust that provides that the trust can be terminated 111014
only by a court;111015

        (b) A trust that terminates on the happening of an event, but 111016
only if the event occurs at the direction or control of the 111017
grantor, beneficiary, or trustee.111018

        (10) "Irrevocable trust" is a trust that cannot be revoked by 111019
the grantor or terminated by a court and that terminates only on 111020
the occurrence of an event outside of the control or direction of 111021
the beneficiary or grantor.111022

        (11) "Payment" is any disbursal from the principal or income 111023
of the trust, including actual cash, noncash or property 111024
disbursements, or the right to use and occupy real property.111025

        (12) "Payments to or for the benefit of the applicant or 111026
recipient" is a payment to any person resulting in a direct or 111027
indirect benefit to the applicant or recipient.111028

        (13) "Testamentary trust" is a trust that is established by a 111029
will and does not take effect until after the death of the person 111030
who created the trust.111031

        (C)(1) If an applicant or recipient is a beneficiary of a 111032
trust, the applicant or recipient shall submit a complete copy of 111033
the trust instrument to the county department of job and family 111034
services and the department of medicaid. A copy shall be 111035
considered complete if it contains all pages of the trust 111036
instrument and all schedules, attachments, and accounting 111037
statements referenced in or associated with the trust. The copy is 111038
confidential and is not subject to disclosure under section 149.43 111039
of the Revised Code.111040

        (2) On receipt of a copy of a trust instrument or otherwise 111041
determining that an applicant or recipient is a beneficiary of a 111042
trust, the county department of job and family services shall 111043
determine what type of trust it is and shall treat the trust in 111044
accordance with the appropriate provisions of this section and 111045
rules adopted by the department of job and family servicesunder 111046
section 5163.02 of the Revised Code governing trusts. The county 111047
department of job and family services may determine that any of 111048
the following is the case regarding the trust or portion of the 111049
trust:111050

        (a) IsIt is a resource available to the applicant or 111051
recipient;111052

        (b) ContainsIt contains income available to the applicant or 111053
recipient;111054

        (c) Constitutes both items described in divisionsDivisions111055
(C)(1)(2)(a) and (b) of this section are both applicable;111056

        (d) Is neither an item described inNeither division 111057
(C)(1)(2)(a) nor (C)(1)(b) of this section is applicable.111058

       (2)(3) Except as provided in division (F) of this section, a 111059
trust or portion of a trust that is a resource available to the 111060
applicant or recipient or contains income available to the 111061
applicant or recipient shall be counted for purposes of 111062
determining medicaid eligibility.111063

        (D)(1) A trust or legal instrument or device similar to a 111064
trust shall be considered a medicaid qualifying trust if all of 111065
the following apply:111066

       (a) The trust was established on or prior to August 10, 1993.111067

       (b) The trust was not established by a will.111068

       (c) The trust was established by an applicant or recipient.111069

       (d) The applicant or recipient is or may become the 111070
beneficiary of all or part of the trust.111071

       (e) Payment from the trust is determined by one or more 111072
trustees who are permitted to exercise any discretion with respect 111073
to the distribution to the applicant or recipient.111074

       (2) If a trust meets the requirement of division (D)(1) of 111075
this section, the amount of the trust that is considered by the 111076
county department of job and family services to be a resource 111077
available to the applicant or recipient shall be the maximum 111078
amount of payments permitted under the terms of the trust to be 111079
distributed to the applicant or recipient, assuming the full 111080
exercise of discretion by the trustee or trustees. The maximum 111081
amount shall include only amounts that are permitted to be 111082
distributed but are not distributed from either the income or 111083
principal of the trust.111084

       (3) Amounts that are actually distributed from a medicaid 111085
qualifying trust to a beneficiary for any purpose shall be treated 111086
in accordance with rules adopted by the department of job and 111087
family servicesunder section 5163.02 of the Revised Code111088
governing income.111089

       (4) Availability of a medicaid qualifying trust shall be 111090
considered without regard to any of the following:111091

       (a) Whether or not the trust is irrevocable or was 111092
established for purposes other than to enable a grantor to qualify 111093
for medicaid, medical assistance for covered families and 111094
children, or as a qualified medicare beneficiary, specified 111095
low-income medicare beneficiary, qualifying individual-1, or 111096
qualifying individual-2;111097

       (b) Whether or not the trustee actually exercises discretion.111098

       (5) If any real or personal property is transferred to a 111099
medicaid qualifying trust that is not distributable to the 111100
applicant or recipient, the transfer shall be considered an 111101
improper disposition of assets and shall be subject to section 111102
5111.01165163.30 of the Revised Code and rules to implement that 111103
section adopted under section 5111.0115163.02 of the Revised 111104
Code.111105

       (6) The baseline date for the look-back period for 111106
disposition of assets involving a medicaid qualifying trust shall 111107
be the date on which the applicant or recipient is both 111108
institutionalized and first applies for medicaid.111109

       (E)(1) A trust or legal instrument or device similar to a 111110
trust shall be considered a self-settled trust if all of the 111111
following apply:111112

        (a) The trust was established on or after August 11, 1993.111113

        (b) The trust was not established by a will.111114

        (c) The trust was established by an applicant or recipient, 111115
spouse of an applicant or recipient, or a person, including a 111116
court or administrative body, with legal authority to act in place 111117
of or on behalf of an applicant, recipient, or spouse, or acting 111118
at the direction or on request of an applicant, recipient, or 111119
spouse.111120

        (2) A trust that meets the requirements of division (E)(1) of 111121
this section and is a revocable trust shall be treated by the 111122
county department of job and family services as follows:111123

        (a) The corpus of the trust shall be considered a resource 111124
available to the applicant or recipient.111125

        (b) Payments from the trust to or for the benefit of the 111126
applicant or recipient shall be considered unearned income of the 111127
applicant or recipient.111128

        (c) Any other payments from the trust shall be considered an 111129
improper disposition of assets and shall be subject to section 111130
5111.01165163.30 of the Revised Code and rules to implement that 111131
section adopted under section 5111.0115163.02 of the Revised 111132
Code.111133

        (3) A trust that meets the requirements of division (E)(1) of 111134
this section and is an irrevocable trust shall be treated by the 111135
county department of job and family services as follows:111136

        (a) If there are any circumstances under which payment from 111137
the trust could be made to or for the benefit of the applicant or 111138
recipient, including a payment that can be made only in the 111139
future, the portion from which payments could be made shall be 111140
considered a resource available to the applicant or recipient. The 111141
county department of job and family services shall not take into 111142
account when payments can be made.111143

        (b) Any payment that is actually made to or for the benefit 111144
of the applicant or recipient from either the corpus or income 111145
shall be considered unearned income.111146

        (c) If a payment is made to someone other than to the 111147
applicant or recipient and the payment is not for the benefit of 111148
the applicant or recipient, the payment shall be considered an 111149
improper disposition of assets and shall be subject to section 111150
5111.01165163.30 of the Revised Code and rules to implement that 111151
section adopted under section 5111.0115163.02 of the Revised 111152
Code.111153

        (d) The date of the disposition shall be the later of the 111154
date of establishment of the trust or the date of the occurrence 111155
of the event.111156

        (e) When determining the value of the disposed asset under 111157
this provision, the value of the trust shall be its value on the 111158
date payment to the applicant or recipient was foreclosed.111159

        (f) Any income earned or other resources added subsequent to 111160
the foreclosure date shall be added to the total value of the 111161
trust.111162

        (g) Any payments to or for the benefit of the applicant or 111163
recipient after the foreclosure date but prior to the application 111164
date shall be subtracted from the total value. Any other payments 111165
shall not be subtracted from the value.111166

        (h) Any addition of assets after the foreclosure date shall 111167
be considered a separate disposition.111168

        (4) If a trust is funded with assets of another person or 111169
persons in addition to assets of the applicant or recipient, the 111170
applicable provisions of this section and rules adopted by the 111171
department of job and family servicesunder section 5163.02 of the 111172
Revised Code governing trusts shall apply only to the portion of 111173
the trust attributable to the applicant or recipient.111174

        (5) The availability of a self-settled trust shall be 111175
considered without regard to any of the following:111176

        (a) The purpose for which the trust is established;111177

        (b) Whether the trustees have exercised or may exercise 111178
discretion under the trust;111179

        (c) Any restrictions on when or whether distributions may be 111180
made from the trust;111181

        (d) Any restrictions on the use of distributions from the 111182
trust.111183

        (6) The baseline date for the look-back period for 111184
dispositions of assets involving a self-settled trust shall be the 111185
date on which the applicant or recipient is both institutionalized 111186
and first applies for medicaid.111187

        (F) The principal or income from any of the following shall 111188
not be a resource available to the applicant or recipient:111189

        (1)(a) A special needs trust that meets all of the following 111190
requirements:111191

        (i) The trust contains assets of an applicant or recipient 111192
under sixty-five years of age and may contain the assets of other 111193
individuals.111194

        (ii) The applicant or recipient is disabled as defined in 111195
rules adopted by the department of job and family servicesunder 111196
section 5163.02 of the Revised Code.111197

        (iii) The trust is established for the benefit of the 111198
applicant or recipient by a parent, grandparent, legal guardian, 111199
or a court.111200

        (iv) The trust requires that on the death of the applicant or 111201
recipient the state will receive all amounts remaining in the 111202
trust up to an amount equal to the total amount of medicaid paid111203
payments made on behalf of the applicant or recipient.111204

        (b) If a special needs trust meets the requirements of 111205
division (F)(1)(a) of this section and has been established for a 111206
disabled applicant or recipient under sixty-five years of age, the 111207
exemption for the trust granted pursuant to division (F) of this 111208
section shall continue after the disabled applicant or recipient 111209
becomes sixty-five years of age if the applicant or recipient 111210
continues to be disabled as defined in rules adopted by the 111211
department of job and family servicesunder section 5163.02 of the 111212
Revised Code. Except for income earned by the trust, the grantor 111213
shall not add to or otherwise augment the trust after the 111214
applicant or recipient attains sixty-five years of age. An 111215
addition or augmentation of the trust by the applicant or 111216
recipient with the applicant's own assets after the applicant or 111217
recipient attains sixty-five years of age shall be treated as an 111218
improper disposition of assets.111219

        (c) Cash distributions to the applicant or recipient shall be 111220
counted as unearned income. All other distributions from the trust 111221
shall be treated as provided in rules adopted by the department of 111222
job and family servicesunder section 5163.02 of the Revised Code111223
governing in-kind income.111224

        (d) Transfers of assets to a special needs trust shall not be 111225
treated as an improper transfer of resources. An asset held prior 111226
to the transfer to the trust shall be considered as a resource 111227
available to the applicant or recipient, income available to the 111228
applicant or recipient, or both a resource and income available to 111229
the individual.111230

        (2)(a) A qualifying income trust that meets all of the 111231
following requirements:111232

        (i) The trust is composed only of pension, social security, 111233
and other income to the applicant or recipient, including 111234
accumulated interest in the trust.111235

        (ii) The income is received by the individual and the right 111236
to receive the income is not assigned or transferred to the trust.111237

        (iii) The trust requires that on the death of the applicant 111238
or recipient the state will receive all amounts remaining in the 111239
trust up to an amount equal to the total amount of medicaid paid111240
payments made on behalf of the applicant or recipient.111241

        (b) No resources shall be used to establish or augment the 111242
trust.111243

        (c) If an applicant or recipient has irrevocably transferred 111244
or assigned the applicant's or recipient's right to receive income 111245
to the trust, the trust shall not be considered a qualifying 111246
income trust by the county department of job and family services.111247

        (d) Income placed in a qualifying income trust shall not be 111248
counted in determining an applicant's or recipient's eligibility 111249
for medicaid. The recipient of the funds may place any income 111250
directly into a qualifying income trust without those funds 111251
adversely affecting the applicant's or recipient's eligibility for 111252
medicaid. Income generated by the trust that remains in the trust 111253
shall not be considered as income to the applicant or recipient.111254

        (e) All income placed in a qualifying income trust shall be 111255
combined with any income available to the individual that is not 111256
placed in the trust to arrive at a base income figure to be used 111257
for spend down calculations.111258

        (f) The base income figure shall be used for post-eligibility 111259
deductions, including personal needs allowance, monthly income 111260
allowance, family allowance, and medical expenses not subject to 111261
third party payment. Any income remaining shall be used toward 111262
payment of patient liability. Payments made from a qualifying 111263
income trust shall not be combined with the base income figure for 111264
post-eligibility calculations.111265

        (g) The base income figure shall be used when determining the 111266
spend down budget for the applicant or recipient. Any income 111267
remaining after allowable deductions are permitted as provided 111268
under rules adopted by the department of job and family services111269
under section 5163.02 of the Revised Code shall be considered the 111270
applicant's or recipient's spend down liability.111271

        (3)(a) A pooled trust that meets all of the following 111272
requirements:111273

        (i) The trust contains the assets of the applicant or 111274
recipient of any age who is disabled as defined in rules adopted 111275
by the department of job and family servicesunder section 5163.02 111276
of the Revised Code.111277

        (ii) The trust is established and managed by a nonprofit 111278
organization.111279

        (iii) A separate account is maintained for each beneficiary 111280
of the trust but, for purposes of investment and management of 111281
funds, the trust pools the funds in these accounts.111282

        (iv) Accounts in the trust are established by the applicant 111283
or recipient, the applicant's or recipient's parent, grandparent, 111284
or legal guardian, or a court solely for the benefit of 111285
individuals who are disabled.111286

        (v) The trust requires that, to the extent that any amounts 111287
remaining in the beneficiary's account on the death of the 111288
beneficiary are not retained by the trust, the trust pay to the 111289
state the amounts remaining in the trust up to an amount equal to 111290
the total amount of medicaid paidpayments made on behalf of the 111291
beneficiary.111292

        (b) Cash distributions to the applicant or recipient shall be 111293
counted as unearned income. All other distributions from the trust 111294
shall be treated as provided in rules adopted by the department of 111295
job and family servicesunder section 5163.02 of the Revised Code111296
governing in-kind income.111297

        (c) Transfers of assets to a pooled trust shall not be 111298
treated as an improper disposition of assets. An asset held prior 111299
to the transfer to the trust shall be considered as a resource 111300
available to the applicant or recipient, income available to the 111301
applicant or recipient, or both a resource and income available to 111302
the applicant or recipient.111303

        (4) A supplemental services trust that meets the requirements 111304
of section 5815.28 of the Revised Code and to which all of the 111305
following apply:111306

        (a) A person may establish a supplemental services trust 111307
pursuant to section 5815.28 of the Revised Code only for another 111308
person who is eligible to receive services through one of the 111309
following agencies:111310

        (i) The department of developmental disabilities;111311

        (ii) A county board of developmental disabilities;111312

        (iii) The department of mental healthmental health and 111313
addiction services;111314

        (iv) A board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 111315
services.111316

        (b) A county department of job and family services shall not 111317
determine eligibility for another agency's program. An applicant 111318
or recipient shall do one of the following:111319

        (i) Provide documentation from one of the agencies listed in 111320
division (F)(4)(a) of this section that establishes that the 111321
applicant or recipient was determined to be eligible for services 111322
from the agency at the time of the creation of the trust;111323

        (ii) Provide an order from a court of competent jurisdiction 111324
that states that the applicant or recipient was eligible for 111325
services from one of the agencies listed in division (F)(4)(a) of 111326
this section at the time of the creation of the trust.111327

        (c) At the time the trust is created, the trust principal 111328
does not exceed the maximum amount permitted. The maximum amount 111329
permitted in calendar year 2006 is two hundred twenty-two thousand 111330
dollars. Each year thereafter, the maximum amount permitted is the 111331
prior year's amount plus two thousand dollars.111332

        (d) A county department of job and family services shall 111333
review the trust to determine whether it complies with the 111334
provisions of section 5815.28 of the Revised Code.111335

        (e) Payments from supplemental services trusts shall be 111336
exempt as long as the payments are for supplemental services as 111337
defined in rules adopted by the department of job and family 111338
servicesunder section 5163.02 of the Revised Code. All 111339
supplemental services shall be purchased by the trustee and shall 111340
not be purchased through direct cash payments to the beneficiary.111341

        (f) If a trust is represented as a supplemental services 111342
trust and a county department of job and family services 111343
determines that the trust does not meet the requirements provided 111344
in division (F)(4) of this section and section 5815.28 of the 111345
Revised Code, the county department of job and family services 111346
shall not consider it an exempt trust.111347

        (G)(1) A trust or legal instrument or device similar to a 111348
trust shall be considered a trust established by an individual for 111349
the benefit of the applicant or recipient if all of the following 111350
apply:111351

        (a) The trust is created by a person other than the applicant 111352
or recipient.111353

        (b) The trust names the applicant or recipient as a 111354
beneficiary.111355

        (c) The trust is funded with assets or property in which the 111356
applicant or recipient has never held an ownership interest prior 111357
to the establishment of the trust.111358

        (2) Any portion of a trust that meets the requirements of 111359
division (G)(1) of this section shall be a resource available to 111360
the applicant or recipient only if the trust permits the trustee 111361
to expend principal, corpus, or assets of the trust for the 111362
applicant's or recipient's medical care, care, comfort, 111363
maintenance, health, welfare, general well being, or any 111364
combination of these purposes.111365

        (3) A trust that meets the requirements of division (G)(1) of 111366
this section shall be considered a resource available to the 111367
applicant or recipient even if the trust contains any of the 111368
following types of provisions:111369

        (a) A provision that prohibits the trustee from making 111370
payments that would supplant or replace medicaid or other public 111371
assistance;111372

        (b) A provision that prohibits the trustee from making 111373
payments that would impact or have an effect on the applicant's or 111374
recipient's right, ability, or opportunity to receive medicaid or 111375
other public assistance;111376

        (c) A provision that attempts to prevent the trust or its 111377
corpus or principal from being a resource available to the 111378
applicant or recipient.111379

        (4) A trust that meets the requirements of division (G)(1) of 111380
this section shall not be counted as a resource available to the 111381
applicant or recipient if at least one of the following 111382
circumstances applies:111383

        (a) If a trust contains a clear statement requiring the 111384
trustee to preserve a portion of the trust for another beneficiary 111385
or remainderman, that portion of the trust shall not be counted as 111386
a resource available to the applicant or recipient. Terms of a 111387
trust that grant discretion to preserve a portion of the trust 111388
shall not qualify as a clear statement requiring the trustee to 111389
preserve a portion of the trust.111390

        (b) If a trust contains a clear statement requiring the 111391
trustee to use a portion of the trust for a purpose other than 111392
medical care, care, comfort, maintenance, welfare, or general well 111393
being of the applicant or recipient, that portion of the trust 111394
shall not be counted as a resource available to the applicant or 111395
recipient. Terms of a trust that grant discretion to limit the use 111396
of a portion of the trust shall not qualify as a clear statement 111397
requiring the trustee to use a portion of the trust for a 111398
particular purpose.111399

        (c) If a trust contains a clear statement limiting the 111400
trustee to making fixed periodic payments, the trust shall not be 111401
counted as a resource available to the applicant or recipient and 111402
payments shall be treated in accordance with rules adopted by the 111403
department of job and family servicesunder section 5163.02 of the 111404
Revised Code governing income. Terms of a trust that grant 111405
discretion to limit payments shall not qualify as a clear 111406
statement requiring the trustee to make fixed periodic payments.111407

        (d) If a trust contains a clear statement that requires the 111408
trustee to terminate the trust if it is counted as a resource 111409
available to the applicant or recipient, the trust shall not be 111410
counted as such. Terms of a trust that grant discretion to 111411
terminate the trust do not qualify as a clear statement requiring 111412
the trustee to terminate the trust.111413

        (e) If a person obtains a judgment from a court of competent 111414
jurisdiction that expressly prevents the trustee from using part 111415
or all of the trust for the medical care, care, comfort, 111416
maintenance, welfare, or general well being of the applicant or 111417
recipient, the trust or that portion of the trust subject to the 111418
court order shall not be counted as a resource available to the 111419
applicant or recipient.111420

        (f) If a trust is specifically exempt from being counted as a 111421
resource available to the applicant or recipient by a provision of 111422
the Revised Code, rules, or federal law, the trust shall not be 111423
counted as such.111424

        (g) If an applicant or recipient presents a final judgment 111425
from a court demonstrating that the applicant or recipient was 111426
unsuccessful in a civil action against the trustee to compel 111427
payments from the trust, the trust shall not be counted as a 111428
resource available to the applicant or recipient.111429

        (h) If an applicant or recipient presents a final judgment 111430
from a court demonstrating that in a civil action against the 111431
trustee the applicant or recipient was only able to compel limited 111432
or periodic payments, the trust shall not be counted as a resource 111433
available to the applicant or recipient and payments shall be 111434
treated in accordance with rules adopted by the department of job 111435
and family servicesunder section 5163.02 of the Revised Code111436
governing income.111437

        (i) If an applicant or recipient provides written 111438
documentation showing that the cost of a civil action brought to 111439
compel payments from the trust would be cost prohibitive, the 111440
trust shall not be counted as a resource available to the 111441
applicant or recipient.111442

        (5) Any actual payments to the applicant or recipient from a 111443
trust that meet the requirements of division (G)(1) of this 111444
section, including trusts that are not counted as a resource 111445
available to the applicant or recipient, shall be treated as 111446
provided in rules adopted by the department of job and family 111447
servicesunder section 5163.02 of the Revised Code governing 111448
income. Payments to any person other than the applicant or 111449
recipient shall not be considered income to the applicant or 111450
recipient. Payments from the trust to a person other than the 111451
applicant or recipient shall not be considered an improper 111452
disposition of assets.111453

       Sec. 5111.181.        Sec. 5163.22.  (A) The general assembly hereby finds 111454
that the state has an insurable interest in medical assistance111455
medicaid recipients because of the state's statutory right to 111456
recover from the estate of a recipient state funds used to provide 111457
the recipient with medical care andmedicaid services.111458

       (B) As used in this section:111459

       (1) "Beneficiary" means the person or entity designated in a 111460
life insurance policy to receive the proceeds of the policy on the 111461
death of the insured or maturity of the policy.111462

       (2) "Owner" means the person who has the right to designate 111463
the beneficiary of a life insurance policy and to change the 111464
designation.111465

       (C) Notwithstanding section 5111.011 of the Revised Code, the111466
The value of a life insurance policy that would otherwise be 111467
considered a resource in determining eligibility for the medical 111468
assistancemedicaid program shall be excluded from any 111469
determination of a person's eligibility for the medical assistance111470
medicaid program if the owner designates the department of job and 111471
family servicesmedicaid as beneficiary of the policy. The 111472
department may pay premiums to keep the policy in force. Premiums 111473
paid by the department are medical assistancemedicaid payments 111474
correctly paid on behalf of a medical assistancemedicaid111475
recipient and subject to recovery under section 5111.115162.21 of 111476
the Revised Code.111477

       (D) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 111478
deposit the proceeds of a life insurance policy that do not exceed 111479
the amount the department may recover against the property and 111480
estate of the owner under section 5111.115162.21 of the Revised 111481
Code into the general revenue fund. The director shall pay any 111482
remaining proceeds to the person designated by the owner. If the 111483
owner failed to designate a person, the director shall pay the 111484
remaining proceeds to the surviving spouse, or, if there is no 111485
surviving spouse, to the estate of the owner.111486

       (E) If the owner designates the department of job and family 111487
servicesmedicaid as the policy's beneficiary, the department 111488
shall notify the owner that the owner may designate a person to 111489
receive proceeds of the policy that exceed the amount the 111490
department may recover against the owner's property and estate 111491
under section 5111.115162.21 of the Revised Code. The designation 111492
shall be made on a form provided by the department.111493

       (F) The department of job and family services shall not 111494
implement this section if implementation would violate any federal 111495
requirement unless the department receives a waiver of the 111496
requirement from the United States department of health and human 111497
services.111498

       Sec. 5111.0116.        Sec. 5163.30.  (A) As used in this section:111499

       (1) "Assets" include all of an individual's income and 111500
resources and those of the individual's spouse, including any 111501
income or resources the individual or spouse is entitled to but 111502
does not receive because of action by any of the following:111503

       (a) The individual or spouse;111504

       (b) A person or government entity, including a court or 111505
administrative agency, with legal authority to act in place of or 111506
on behalf of the individual or spouse;111507

       (c) A person or government entity, including a court or 111508
administrative agency, acting at the direction or on the request 111509
of the individual or spouse.111510

       (2) "Home and community-based services" means home and 111511
community-based services furnished under a medicaid waiver granted 111512
by the United States secretary of health and human services under 111513
the "Social Security Act," section 1915(c) or (d), 42 U.S.C. 111514
1396n(c) or (d).111515

       (3) "Institutionalized individual" means a resident of a 111516
nursing facility, an inpatient in a medical institution for whom a 111517
payment is made based on a level of care provided in a nursing 111518
facility, or an individual described in the "Social Security Act," 111519
section 1902(a)(10)(A)(ii)(VI), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(10)(A)(ii)(VI).111520

       (4) "Look-back date" means the date that is a number of 111521
months specified in rules adopted under section 5111.0115163.02111522
of the Revised Code immediately before either of the following:111523

       (a) The date an individual becomes an institutionalized 111524
individual if the individual is eligible for medicaid on that 111525
date;111526

       (b) The date an individual applies for medicaid while an 111527
institutionalized individual.111528

       (5) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 111529
5111.20 of the Revised Code.111530

       (6) "Nursing facility equivalent services" means services 111531
that are covered by the medicaid program, equivalent to nursing 111532
facility services, provided by an institution that provides the 111533
same level of care as a nursing facility, and provided to an 111534
inpatient of the institution who is a medicaid recipient eligible 111535
for medicaid-covered nursing facility equivalent services.111536

       (7) "Nursing facility services" means nursing facility 111537
services covered by the medicaid program that a nursing facility 111538
provides to a resident of the nursing facility who is a medicaid 111539
recipient eligible for medicaid-covered nursing facility services.111540

       (8)(6) "Undue hardship" means being deprived of either of the 111541
following:111542

       (a) Medical care such that an individual's health or life is 111543
endangered;111544

       (b) Food, clothing, shelter, or other necessities of life.111545

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section and 111546
rules adopted under section 5111.0115163.02 of the Revised Code, 111547
an institutionalized individual is ineligible for nursing facility 111548
services, nursing facility equivalent services, and home and 111549
community-based services if the individual or individual's spouse 111550
disposes of assets for less than fair market value on or after the 111551
look-back date. The institutionalized individual's ineligibility 111552
shall begin on a date determined in accordance with rules adopted 111553
under section 5111.0115163.02 of the Revised Code and shall 111554
continue for a number of months determined in accordance with such 111555
rules.111556

       (C) An institutionalized individual may be granted a waiver 111557
of all or a portion of the period of ineligibility to which the 111558
individual would otherwise be subjected under division (B) of this 111559
section if the ineligibility would cause an undue hardship for the 111560
individual. An institutionalized individual shall be granted a 111561
waiver of all or a portion of the period of ineligibility if the 111562
administrator of the nursing facility in which the individual 111563
resides has notified the individual of a proposed transfer or 111564
discharge under section 3721.16 of the Revised Code due to failure 111565
to pay for the care the nursing facility has provided to the 111566
individual, the individual or the individual's sponsor requests a 111567
hearing on the proposed transfer or discharge in accordance with 111568
section 3721.161 of the Revised Code, and the transfer or 111569
discharge is upheld by a final determination that is not subject 111570
to further appeal. Waivers shall be granted in accordance with 111571
rules adopted under section 5111.0115163.02 of the Revised Code.111572

       (D) To secure compliance with this section, the medicaid111573
director of job and family services may require an individual, as 111574
a condition of initial or continued eligibility for medicaid, to 111575
provide documentation of the individual's assets up to five years 111576
before the date the individual becomes an institutionalized 111577
individual if the individual is eligible for medicaid on that date 111578
or the date the individual applies for medicaid while an 111579
institutionalized individual. Documentation may include tax 111580
returns, records from financial institutions, and real property 111581
records.111582

       Sec. 5111.0117.        Sec. 5163.31.  (A) As used in this section and 111583
section 5111.0118 of the Revised Code:111584

       (1) "ICF/MR services" means intermediate care facility for 111585
the mentally retarded services covered by the medicaid program 111586
that an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded 111587
provides to a resident of the facility who is a medicaid recipient 111588
eligible for medicaid-covered intermediate care facility for the 111589
mentally retarded services.111590

       (2) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 111591
has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 of the Revised Code.111592

       (3) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 111593
5111.20 of the Revised Code.111594

       (4) "Nursing facility services" means nursing facility 111595
services covered by the medicaid program that a nursing facility 111596
provides to a resident of the nursing facility who is a medicaid 111597
recipient eligible for medicaid-covered nursing facility services.111598

       (5) "Other medicaid-funded long-term care services" has the 111599
meaning specified in rules adopted under section 5111.011 of the 111600
Revised Code.111601

       (B) Except as provided by division (C)(A) of this section and 111602
for the purpose of determining whether an aged, blind, or disabled 111603
individual is eligible for nursing facility services, ICF/MR111604
ICF/IID services, or other medicaid-funded long-term care 111605
services, the medicaid director of job and family services may 111606
consider an aged, blind, or disabled individual's real property to 111607
not be the individual's homestead or principal place of residence 111608
once the individual has resided in a nursing facility, 111609
intermediate care facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID, or 111610
other medical institution for at least thirteen months.111611

       (C)(B) Division (B)(A) of this section does not apply to an 111612
individual if any of the following reside in the individual's real 111613
property that, because of this division, continues to be 111614
considered the individual's homestead or principal place of 111615
residence:111616

       (1) The individual's spouse;111617

       (2) The individual's child if any of the following apply:111618

       (a) The child is under twenty-one years of age.111619

       (b) The child is considered blind or disabled under the 111620
"Social Security Act," section 1614, 42 U.S.C. 1382c.111621

       (c) The child is financially dependent on the individual for 111622
housing as determined in accordance with rules adopted under 111623
section 5111.0115163.02 of the Revised Code.111624

       (3) The individual's sibling if the sibling has a verified 111625
equity interest in the real property and resided in the real 111626
property for at least one year immediately before the date the 111627
individual was admitted to the nursing facility, intermediate care 111628
facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID, or other medical 111629
institution.111630

       Sec. 5111.0118.        Sec. 5163.32.  (A) Except as otherwise provided by 111631
this section, no individual shall qualify for nursing facility 111632
services or other medicaid-funded long-term care services if the 111633
individual's equity interest in the individual's home exceeds five 111634
hundred thousand dollars. The medicaid director of job and family 111635
services shall increase this amount effective January 1, 2011, and 111636
the first day of each year thereafter, by the percentage increase 111637
in the consumer price index for all urban consumers (all items; 111638
United States city average), rounded to the nearest one thousand 111639
dollars.111640

       (B) This section does not apply to an individual if either of 111641
the following applies:111642

       (1) Either of the following lawfully reside in the 111643
individual's home:111644

       (a) The individual's spouse;111645

       (b) The individual's child if the child is under twenty-one 111646
years of age or, under the "Social Security Act," section 1614, 42 111647
U.S.C. 1382c, considered blind or disabled.111648

       (2) The individual qualifies, pursuant to the process 111649
established under division (C) of this section, for a waiver of 111650
this section due to a demonstrated hardship.111651

       (C) The director shall establish a process by which 111652
individuals may obtain a waiver of this section due to a 111653
demonstrated hardship. The process shall be consistent with the 111654
process for such waivers established by the United States 111655
secretary of health and human services under the "Social Security 111656
Act," section 1917(f)(4), 42 U.S.C. 1396p(f)(4).111657

       (D) Nothing in this section shall be construed as preventing 111658
an individual from using a reverse mortgage or home equity loan to 111659
reduce the individual's total equity interest in the home.111660

       Sec. 5111.114.        Sec. 5163.33. As used in this section, "nursing 111661
facility" and "intermediate care facility for the mentally 111662
retarded" have the same meanings as in section 5111.20 of the 111663
Revised Code.111664

       (A) In determining the amount of income that a medicaid111665
recipient of medical assistance must apply monthly toward payment 111666
of the cost of care in a nursing facility or intermediate care 111667
facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID, thea county 111668
department of job and family services shall deduct from the 111669
recipient's monthly income a monthly personal needs allowance in 111670
accordance with section 1902 of the "Social Security Act," 49 111671
Stat. 620 (1935)section 1902(q), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396a, as amended111672
1396a(q).111673

       For(B) In the case of a resident of a nursing facility, the 111674
monthly personal needs allowance shall be as follows:111675

       (1) Prior to January 1, 2014, not less than forty dollars for 111676
an individual resident and not less than eighty dollars for a 111677
married couple if both spouses are residents of a nursing facility 111678
and their incomes are considered available to each other in 111679
determining eligibility;111680

       (2) For calendar year 2014, not less than forty-five dollars 111681
for an individual resident and not less than ninety dollars for a 111682
married couple if both spouses are residents of a nursing facility 111683
and their incomes are considered available to each other in 111684
determining eligibility;111685

       (3) For calendar year 2015 and each calendar year thereafter, 111686
not less than fifty dollars for an individual resident and not 111687
less than one hundred dollars for a married couple if both spouses 111688
are residents of a nursing facility and their incomes are 111689
considered available to each other in determining eligibility.111690

       For(C) In the case of a resident of an intermediate care 111691
facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID, the monthly personal 111692
needs allowance shall be forty dollars unless the resident has 111693
earned income, in which case the monthly personal needs allowance 111694
shall be determined by the state department of job and family 111695
servicesmedicaid, or the department's designee, but shall not 111696
exceed one hundred five dollars.111697

       Sec. 5111.013.        Sec. 5163.40.  (A) The provision of medical 111698
assistance to pregnant women and young children who are eligible 111699
for medical assistance under division (C)(3) of section 5111.01 of 111700
the Revised Code, but who are not otherwise eligible for medical 111701
assistance under that section, shall be known as the healthy start 111702
program.111703

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 111704
do all of the following with regard to the application procedures 111705
for the healthy start component of the medicaid program:111706

       (1) Establish a short application form for the program111707
component that requires the applicant to provide no more 111708
information than is necessary for making determinations of 111709
eligibility for the healthy start programcomponent, except that 111710
the form may require applicants to provide their social security 111711
numbers. The form shall include a statement, which must be signed 111712
by the applicant, indicating that she does not choose at the time 111713
of making application for the programcomponent to apply for 111714
assistance provided under any other program administered by the 111715
department or the department of job and family services and that 111716
she understands that she is permitted at any other time to apply 111717
at the county department of job and family services of the county 111718
in which she resides for any other assistance administered by the 111719
department or the department of job and family services.111720

       (2) To the extent permitted by federal law, doDo one or both 111721
of the following:111722

       (a) Distribute the application form for the programcomponent111723
to each public or private entity that serves as a women, infants, 111724
and children clinic or as a child and family health clinic and to 111725
each administrative body for such clinics and train employees of 111726
each such agencyclinic or entityadministrative body to provide 111727
applicants assistance in completing the form;111728

       (b) In cooperation with the department of health, develop 111729
arrangements under which employees of county departments of job 111730
and family services are stationed at public or private agencies or111731
entities selected by the department of job and family services111732
medicaid that serve as women, infants, and children clinics; child 111733
and family health clinics; or administrative bodies for such 111734
clinics for the purpose both of assisting applicants for the 111735
programcomponent in completing the application form and of making 111736
determinations at that location of eligibility for the program111737
component.111738

       (3) Establish performance standards by which a county 111739
department of job and family services' level of enrollment of 111740
persons potentially eligible for the programcomponent can be 111741
measured, and establish acceptable levels of enrollment for each 111742
county department.111743

       (4) Direct any county department of job and family services 111744
whose rate of enrollment of potentially eligible enrollees in the 111745
programcomponent is below acceptable levels established under 111746
division (B)(A)(3) of this section to implement corrective 111747
action. Corrective action may include but is not limited to any 111748
one or more of the following to the extent permitted by federal 111749
law:111750

       (a) Establishing formal referral and outreach methods with 111751
local health departments and local entities receiving funding 111752
through the bureau of maternal and child health;111753

       (b) Designating a specialized intake unit within the county 111754
department for healthy start applicants;111755

       (c) Establishing abbreviated timeliness requirements to 111756
shorten the time between receipt of an application and the 111757
scheduling of an initial application interview;111758

       (d) Establishing a system for telephone scheduling of intake 111759
interviews for applicants;111760

       (e) Establishing procedures to minimize the time an applicant 111761
must spend in completing the application and eligibility 111762
determination process, including permitting applicants to complete 111763
the process at times other than the regular business hours of the 111764
county department and at locations other than the offices of the 111765
county department.111766

       (C) To the extent permitted by federal law, local funds, 111767
whether from public or private sources, expended by a county 111768
department for administration of the healthy start program shall 111769
be considered to have been expended by the state for the purpose 111770
of determining the extent to which the state has complied with any 111771
federal requirement that the state provide funds to match federal 111772
funds for medical assistance, except that this division shall not 111773
affect the amount of funds the county is entitled to receive under 111774
section 5101.16, 5101.161, or 5111.012 of the Revised Code.111775

       (D)(B) A county department of job and family services that 111776
maintains offices at more than one location shall accept 111777
applications for the healthy start programcomponent at all of 111778
those locations.111779

       (E) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 111780
in accordance with section 111.15 of the Revised Code as necessary 111781
to implement this section.111782

       Sec. 5111.0119.        Sec. 5163.45.  (A)(1) As used in this section, 111783
subject to division (A)(2) of this section, "state or local 111784
correctional facility" means any of the following:111785

       (a) A "state correctional institution," as defined in section 111786
2967.01 of the Revised Code;111787

       (b) A "local correctional facility," as defined in section 111788
2903.13 of the Revised Code;111789

       (c) A correctional facility that is privately operated and 111790
managed pursuant to section 9.06 of the Revised Code.111791

       (2) "State or local correctional facility" does not include 111792
any facility operated directly by or at the direction of the 111793
department of youth services.111794

       (B) If a person who is confined in a state or local 111795
correctional facility was a medicaid recipient immediately prior 111796
to being confined in the facility, all of the following apply:111797

       (1) The person's eligibility for medicaid while so confined 111798
shall be suspended due to the confinement.111799

       (2) No medicaid payment shall be made for any care, services, 111800
or supplies provided to the person during the suspension described 111801
in division (B)(1) of this section. 111802

       (3) The suspension described in division (B)(1) of this 111803
section shall end upon the release of the person from the 111804
confinement.111805

       (4) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, the 111806
person shall not be required to reapply or undergo a 111807
redetermination of eligibility for medicaid when the suspension 111808
described in division (B)(1) of this section ends. 111809

       (C) A person may be disenrolled from medicaid any time after 111810
the suspension described in division (B)(1) of this section ends 111811
if the person is no longer eligible for medicaid. A person may be 111812
required to undergo a redetermination of eligibility for medicaid 111813
any time after the suspension described in division (B)(1) of this 111814
section ends if it is time or past time for the person's 111815
eligibility redetermination or the person's circumstances have 111816
changed in a manner warranting a redetermination.111817

       (D) The department of job and family services shall take the 111818
steps necessary to begin implementation of this section not later 111819
than September 1, 2009.111820

       Sec. 5164.01.  As used in this chapter:111821

       (A) "Early and periodic screening, diagnostic, and treatment 111822
services" has the same meaning as in the "Social Security Act," 111823
section 1905(r), 42 U.S.C. 1396d(r).111824

       (B) "Federal financial participation" has the same meaning as 111825
in section 5160.01 of the Revised Code.111826

       (C) "Healthcheck" means the component of the medicaid program 111827
that provides early and periodic screening, diagnostic, and 111828
treatment services.111829

       (D) "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver 111830
component" has the same meaning as in section 5166.01 of the 111831
Revised Code.111832

       (E) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 111833
the Revised Code. 111834

       (F) "ICDS participant" means a dual eligible individual who 111835
participates in the integrated care delivery system.111836

        (G) "ICF/IID" has the same meaning as in section 5124.01 of 111837
the Revised Code.111838

       (H) "Integrated care delivery system" and "ICDS" mean the 111839
demonstration project authorized by section 5164.91 of the Revised 111840
Code.111841

       (I) "Mandatory services" means the health care services and 111842
items that must be covered by the medicaid state plan as a 111843
condition of the state receiving federal financial participation 111844
for the medicaid program.111845

       (J) "Medicaid managed care organization" has the same meaning 111846
as in section 5167.01 of the Revised Code.111847

       (K) "Medicaid provider" means a person or government entity 111848
with a valid provider agreement to provide medicaid services to 111849
medicaid recipients. To the extent appropriate in the context, 111850
"medicaid provider" includes a person or government entity 111851
applying for a provider agreement, a former medicaid provider, or 111852
both.111853

       (L) "Medicaid services" means either or both of the 111854
following:111855

       (1) Mandatory services;111856

       (2) Optional services that the medicaid program covers.111857

       (M) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 111858
5165.01 of the Revised Code.111859

       (N) "Optional services" means the health care services and 111860
items that may be covered by the medicaid state plan or a federal 111861
medicaid waiver and for which the medicaid program receives 111862
federal financial participation.111863

       (O) "Prescribed drug" has the same meaning as in 42 C.F.R. 111864
440.120.111865

       (P) "Provider agreement" means an agreement to which all of 111866
the following apply:111867

       (1) It is between a medicaid provider and the department of 111868
medicaid;111869

       (2) It provides for the medicaid provider to provide medicaid 111870
services to medicaid recipients;111871

       (3) It complies with 42 C.F.R. 431.107(b).111872

       (Q) "Terminal distributor of dangerous drugs" has the same 111873
meaning as in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code.111874

       Sec. 5111.02.        Sec. 5164.02. (A) The director of job and family 111875
services shall adopt, and may amend or rescind, rules under111876
medicaid director shall adopt rules as necessary to implement this 111877
chapter. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 111878
119. of the Revised Code establishing the amount, duration, and 111879
scope of medicaid services. The rules shall be consistent with 111880
federal and state law. The rules may be different for different 111881
medicaid services. The111882

       (B) The rules shall establish all of the following:111883

        (A) The conditions under which the medicaid program shall 111884
cover and reimburse medicaid services;111885

        (B) The method of reimbursement applicable to each medicaid 111886
service(1) The amount, duration, and scope of the medicaid 111887
services covered by the medicaid program;111888

       (C)(2) The payment amount of reimbursementfor each medicaid 111889
service or, in lieu of amountsthe payment amount, methodsthe 111890
method by which amounts arethe payment amount is to be determined 111891
for each medicaid service;111892

        (D)(3) Procedures for enforcing the rules adopted under this 111893
section that provide due process protections, including procedures 111894
for corrective action plans for, and imposing financial and 111895
administrative sanctions on, persons and government entities that 111896
violate the rules.111897

       (C) The rules may be different for different medicaid 111898
services.111899

       (D) The medicaid director is not required to adopt a rule 111900
establishing the payment amount for a medicaid service if the 111901
director adopts a rule establishing the method by which the 111902
payment amount is to be determined for the medicaid service and 111903
makes the payment amount available on the internet web site 111904
maintained by the department of medicaid.111905

       Sec. 5164.03.  (A) The medicaid program shall cover all 111906
mandatory services.111907

       (B) The medicaid program shall cover all of the optional 111908
services that state statutes require the medicaid program to 111909
cover.111910

       (C) The medicaid program may cover any of the optional 111911
services to which either of the following applies:111912

       (1) State statutes expressly permit the medicaid program to 111913
cover the optional service;111914

       (2) State statutes do not address whether the medicaid 111915
program may cover the optional service.111916

       (D) The medicaid program shall not cover any optional 111917
services that state statutes prohibit the medicaid program from 111918
covering.111919

       Sec. 5111.04.        Sec. 5164.05.  (A) As used in this section:111920

       (1) "Outpatient health facility" means a facility that 111921
provides comprehensive primary health services by or under the 111922
direction of a physician at least five days per week on a 111923
forty-hour per week basis to outpatients, is operated by the board 111924
of health of a city or general health district or another public 111925
agency or by a nonprofit private agency or organization under the 111926
direction and control of a governing board that has no 111927
health-related responsibilities other than the direction and 111928
control of one or more such outpatient health facilities, and 111929
receives at least seventy-five per cent of its operating funds 111930
from public sources, except that it does not include an outpatient 111931
hospital facility or a federally qualified health center as 111932
defined in Sec. 1905(l) (2)(B) of the "Social Security Act," 103 111933
Stat. 2264 (1989)section 1905(l)(2)(B), 42 U.S.C.A.111934
1396d(l)(2)(B).111935

       (2) "Comprehensive primary health services" means preventive, 111936
diagnostic, therapeutic, rehabilitative, or palliative items or 111937
services that include all of the following:111938

       (a) Services of physicians, physician assistants, and 111939
certified nurse practitioners;111940

       (b) Diagnostic laboratory and radiological services;111941

       (c) Preventive health services, such as children's eye and 111942
ear examinations, perinatal services, well child services, and 111943
family planning services;111944

       (d) Arrangements for emergency medical services;111945

       (e) Transportation services.111946

       (3) "Certified nurse practitioner" has the same meaning as in 111947
section 4723.01 of the Revised Code.111948

       (B) OutpatientSubject to division (C) of this section, the 111949
medicaid program shall cover comprehensive primary health services 111950
provided by outpatient health facilities are a separate category 111951
of medical care provider under the rules governing the 111952
administration of the medical assistance program established under 111953
section 5111.01 of the Revised Codewith valid provider 111954
agreements. Rates of reimbursement for items and services provided 111955
by an outpatient health facility under this section shall be 111956
prospectively determined by theThe department of job and family 111957
servicesmedicaid shall prospectively determine the medicaid 111958
payment rates for such comprehensive primary health services not 111959
less often than once each year,. The rates shall not be subject to 111960
retroactive adjustment based on actual costs incurred, and. The 111961
rates shall not exceed the maximum fee schedule or rates of 111962
payment, limitations based on reasonable costs or customary 111963
charges, and limitations based on combined payments received for 111964
furnishing comparable services, as are applicable to outpatient 111965
hospital facilities under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act111966
medicare program." In determining rates of reimbursementan 111967
outpatient health facility's rate prospectively, the department 111968
shall take into account the historic expenses of the facility, the 111969
operating requirements and services offered by the facility, and 111970
the geographical location of the facility, shall provide 111971
incentives for the efficient and economical utilization of the 111972
facility's resources, and shall ensure that the facility does not 111973
discriminate between classes of persons for whom or by whom 111974
payment for items andthe services is made.111975

       (C) AAn outpatient health facility does not qualify for 111976
classification as an outpatient health facilitymedicaid payments111977
under this section unless it:111978

       (1) Has health and medical care policies developed with the 111979
advice of and subject to review by an advisory committee of 111980
professional personnel, including one or more physicians, one or 111981
more dentists if dental care is provided, and one or more 111982
registered nurses;111983

       (2) Has a medical director, a dental director, if dental care 111984
is provided, and a nursing director responsible for the execution 111985
of such policies, and has physicians, dentists, nursing, and 111986
ancillary staff appropriate to the scope of services provided;111987

       (3) Requires that the care of every patient be under the 111988
supervision of a physician, provides for medical care in case of 111989
emergency, has in effect a written agreement with one or more 111990
hospitals and one or more other outpatient facilities, and has an 111991
established system for the referral of patients to other resources 111992
and a utilization review plan and program;111993

       (4) Maintains clinical records on all patients;111994

       (5) Provides nursing services and other therapeutic services 111995
in compliance with applicable laws and rules and under the 111996
supervision of a registered nurse, and has a registered nurse on 111997
duty at all times when the facility is in operation;111998

       (6) Follows approved methods and procedures for the 111999
dispensing and administration of drugs and biologicals;112000

       (7) Maintains the accounting and record-keeping system 112001
required under federal laws and regulations for the determination 112002
of reasonable and allowable costs.112003

       Sec. 5111.029.        Sec. 5164.06. The medicaid program shall cover 112004
occupational therapy services provided by an occupational 112005
therapist licensed under section 4755.08 of the Revised Code. 112006
Coverage shall not be limited to services provided in a hospital 112007
or nursing facility. Any licensed occupational therapist may enter 112008
into a medicaid provider agreement with the department of job and 112009
family servicesmedicaid to provide occupational therapy services 112010
under the medicaid program.112011

       Sec. 5111.018.        Sec. 5164.07.  (A) The provision of medical 112012
assistance under this chaptermedicaid program shall include 112013
coverage of inpatient care and follow-up care for a mother and her 112014
newborn as follows:112015

       (1) The medical assistance medicaid program shall cover a 112016
minimum of forty-eight hours of inpatient care following a normal 112017
vaginal delivery and a minimum of ninety-six hours of inpatient 112018
care following a cesarean delivery. Services covered as inpatient 112019
care shall include medical, educational, and any other services 112020
that are consistent with the inpatient care recommended in the 112021
protocols and guidelines developed by national organizations that 112022
represent pediatric, obstetric, and nursing professionals.112023

       (2) The medical assistancemedicaid program shall cover a 112024
physician-directed source of follow-up care. Services covered as 112025
follow-up care shall include physical assessment of the mother and 112026
newborn, parent education, assistance and training in breast or 112027
bottle feeding, assessment of the home support system, performance 112028
of any medically necessary and appropriate clinical tests, and any 112029
other services that are consistent with the follow-up care 112030
recommended in the protocols and guidelines developed by national 112031
organizations that represent pediatric, obstetric, and nursing 112032
professionals. The coverage shall apply to services provided in a 112033
medical setting or through home health care visits. The coverage 112034
shall apply to a home health care visit only if the health care 112035
professional who conducts the visit is knowledgeable and 112036
experienced in maternity and newborn care.112037

       When a decision is made in accordance with division (B) of 112038
this section to discharge a mother or newborn prior to the 112039
expiration of the applicable number of hours of inpatient care 112040
required to be covered, the coverage of follow-up care shall apply 112041
to all follow-up care that is provided within forty-eight hours 112042
after discharge. When a mother or newborn receives at least the 112043
number of hours of inpatient care required to be covered, the 112044
coverage of follow-up care shall apply to follow-up care that is 112045
determined to be medically necessary by the health care 112046
professionals responsible for discharging the mother or newborn.112047

       (B) Any decision to shorten the length of inpatient stay to 112048
less than that specified under division (A)(1) of this section 112049
shall be made by the physician attending the mother or newborn, 112050
except that if a nurse-midwife is attending the mother in 112051
collaboration with a physician, the decision may be made by the 112052
nurse-midwife. Decisions regarding early discharge shall be made 112053
only after conferring with the mother or a person responsible for 112054
the mother or newborn. For purposes of this division, a person 112055
responsible for the mother or newborn may include a parent, 112056
guardian, or any other person with authority to make medical 112057
decisions for the mother or newborn.112058

       (C) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid, in 112059
administering the medical assistancemedicaid program, may not do 112060
either of the following:112061

       (1) Terminate the participationprovider agreement of a 112062
health care professional or health care facility as a provider 112063
under the program solely for making recommendations for inpatient 112064
or follow-up care for a particular mother or newborn that are 112065
consistent with the care required to be covered by this section;112066

       (2) Establish or offer monetary or other financial incentives 112067
for the purpose of encouraging a person to decline the inpatient 112068
or follow-up care required to be covered by this section.112069

       (D) This section does not do any of the following:112070

       (1) Require the medical assistancemedicaid program to cover 112071
inpatient or follow-up care that is not received in accordance 112072
with the program's terms pertaining to the health care 112073
professionals and facilities from which an individuala medicaid 112074
recipient is authorized to receive health care services.112075

       (2) Require a mother or newborn to stay in a hospital or 112076
other inpatient setting for a fixed period of time following 112077
delivery;112078

       (3) Require a child to be delivered in a hospital or other 112079
inpatient setting;112080

       (4) Authorize a nurse-midwife to practice beyond the 112081
authority to practice nurse-midwifery in accordance with Chapter 112082
4723. of the Revised Code;112083

       (5) Establish minimum standards of medical diagnosis, care, 112084
or treatment for inpatient or follow-up care for a mother or 112085
newborn. A deviation from the care required to be covered under 112086
this section shall not, on the basis of this section, give rise to 112087
a medical claim or derivative medical claim, as those terms are 112088
defined in section 2305.113 of the Revised Code.112089

       Sec. 5111.024.        Sec. 5164.08.  (A) As used in this section, 112090
"screening mammography" means a radiologic examination utilized to 112091
detect unsuspected breast cancer at an early stage in asymptomatic 112092
women and includes the x-ray examination of the breast using 112093
equipment that is dedicated specifically for mammography, 112094
including the x-ray tube, filter, compression device, screens, 112095
film, and cassettes, and that has an average radiation exposure 112096
delivery of less than one rad mid-breast. "Screening mammography" 112097
includes two views for each breast. The term also includes the 112098
professional interpretation of the film.112099

       "Screening mammography" does not include diagnostic 112100
mammography.112101

       (B) In addition to any other services required to be included 112102
in the program or for which federal approval is received, the 112103
medical assistanceThe medicaid program shall includecover both 112104
of the following if approval for use of federal funds is granted 112105
to the department by the federal agency responsible for 112106
distributing funds under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 112107
49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended:112108

       (1) Effective July 1, 1993, screeningScreening mammography 112109
to detect the presence of breast cancer in adult women;112110

       (2) Effective January 1, 1993, cytologicCytologic screening 112111
for the presence of cervical cancer.112112

       (C) The service provided undermedicaid program's coverage of 112113
screening mammography pursuant to division (B)(1) of this section 112114
shall be provided in accordance with all of the following:112115

       (1) If a woman is at least thirty-five years of age but under 112116
forty years of age, one screening mammography;112117

       (2) If a woman is at least forty years of age but under 112118
fifty years of age, either of the following:112119

       (a) One screening mammography every two years;112120

       (b) If a licensed physician has determined that the woman has 112121
risk factors to breast cancer, one screening mammography every 112122
year.112123

       (3) If a woman is at least fifty years of age but under 112124
sixty-five years of age, one screening mammography every year.112125

       (D) The service provided undermedicaid program's coverage of 112126
screening mammographies pursuant to division (B)(1) of this 112127
section shall be provided only for screening mammographies that 112128
are performed in a facility or mobile mammography screening unit 112129
that is accredited under the American college of radiology 112130
mammography accreditation program or in a hospital as defined in 112131
section 3727.01 of the Revised Code.112132

       (E) The service provided undermedicaid program's coverage of 112133
cytologic screenings pursuant to division (B)(2) of this section 112134
shall be provided only for cytologic screenings that are processed 112135
and interpreted in a laboratory certified by the college of 112136
American pathologists or in a hospital as defined in section 112137
3727.01 of the Revised Code.112138

       Sec. 5111.023.        Sec. 5164.15.  (A) As used in this section:112139

       (1) "Community mental health agencyservices provider or 112140
facility" means a community mental health agencyservices provider112141
or facility that has its community mental health services 112142
certified by the department of mental healthmental health and 112143
addiction services under section 5119.6115119.36 of the Revised 112144
Code or by the department of job and family services under section 112145
5103.03 of the Revised Code.112146

        (2) "Mental health professional" means a person qualified to 112147
work with mentally ill persons under the standards established by 112148
the director of mental healthmental health and addiction services112149
pursuant to section 5119.6115119.36 of the Revised Code.112150

        (B) The state medicaid planprogram may include provision of112151
cover the following mental health services when provided by 112152
community mental health agenciesservices providers or facilities:112153

       (1) Outpatient mental health services, including, but not 112154
limited to, preventive, diagnostic, therapeutic, rehabilitative, 112155
and palliative interventions rendered to individuals in an 112156
individual or group setting by a mental health professional in 112157
accordance with a plan of treatment appropriately established, 112158
monitored, and reviewed;112159

       (2) Partial-hospitalization mental health services rendered 112160
by persons directly supervised by a mental health professional;112161

       (3) Unscheduled, emergency mental health services of a kind 112162
ordinarily provided to persons in crisis when rendered by persons 112163
supervised by a mental health professional;112164

       (4) Subject to receipt of federal approval, assertive112165
Assertive community treatment and intensive home-based mental 112166
health services.112167

       (C) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 112168
enter into a separate contract with the department of mental 112169
healthmental health and addiction services under section 5111.91112170
5162.35 of the Revised Code with regard to the component ofmental 112171
health services the medicaid program provided for bycovers 112172
pursuant to this section.112173

       Sec. 5111.027.        Sec. 5164.20. If the medicaid program provides 112174
prescription drug services to medicaid recipients, theThe 112175
medicaid program shall not provide reimbursement for prescription112176
cover prescribed drugs for treatment of erectile dysfunction.112177

       Sec. 5111.042.        Sec. 5164.25.  The departments of developmental 112178
disabilities and job and family servicesmedicaid may approve, 112179
reduce, deny, or terminate a medicaid service included in the 112180
individualized service plan developed for a medicaid recipient 112181
with mental retardation or other developmental disability who is 112182
eligible for medicaid case management services. If either 112183
department approves, reduces, denies, or terminates a service, 112184
that department shall timely notify the medicaid recipient that 112185
the recipient may request a hearing underappeal pursuant to112186
section 5101.355160.31 of the Revised Code.112187

       Sec. 5111.016.        Sec. 5164.26. (A) As used in this section, 112188
"healthcheck" has the same meaning as in section 3313.714 of the 112189
Revised Code.112190

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 112191
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 112192
establishingestablish a combination of written and oral methods 112193
designed to provide information about healthcheck to all persons 112194
eligible for the program or their parents or guardians. The 112195
department shall ensure that its methods of providing information 112196
are effective. The methods shall comply with federal law and 112197
regulations.112198

       Each county department of job and family services or other112199
entity that distributes or accepts applications for medical 112200
assistancemedicaid shall prominently display a notice that 112201
complies with the rules adoptedmethods of providing information 112202
about healthcheck established under this divisionsection.112203

       Sec. 5164.30.  No person or government entity may participate 112204
in the medicaid program as a medicaid provider without a valid 112205
provider agreement with the department of medicaid.112206

       Sec. 5111.053.        Sec. 5164.301. (A) As used in this section, "group 112207
practice" has the same meaning as in section 4731.65 of the 112208
Revised Code.112209

        (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 112210
establish a process by which a physician assistant may enter into 112211
a medicaid provider agreement.112212

       (C)(1) Subject to division (C)(2) of this section, a claim 112213
for reimbursementmedicaid payment for a medicaid service provided 112214
by a physician assistant to a medicaid recipient may be submitted 112215
by the physician assistant who provided the service or the 112216
physician, group practice, clinic, or other health care facility 112217
that employs the physician assistant.112218

       (2) A claim for reimbursementmedicaid payment may be 112219
submitted by the physician assistant who provided the service only 112220
if the physician assistant has a valid provider agreement. When 112221
submitting the claim, the physician assistant shall use only the 112222
medicaid provider number the department has assigned to the 112223
physician assistant.112224

       (D) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 112225
under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code to implement this 112226
section.112227

       Sec. 5111.063.        Sec. 5164.31. (A) For the purpose of raising funds 112228
necessary to pay the expenses of implementing the provider 112229
screening requirements of subpart E of 42 C.F.R. Part 455 and 112230
except as provided in division (B) of this section, the department 112231
of job and family servicesmedicaid shall chargecollect an 112232
application fee tofrom a medicaid provider seeking to enter into 112233
or renew a medicaid provider agreement, unless the provider is 112234
exempt from paying the application fee under 42 C.F.R. 455.460(a)112235
before doing any of the following:112236

       (1) Entering into a provider agreement with a medicaid 112237
provider that seeks initial enrollment as a provider;112238

       (2) Entering into a provider agreement with a former medicaid 112239
provider that seeks re-enrollment as a provider;112240

       (3) Revalidating a medicaid provider's continued enrollment 112241
as a provider. The112242

       (B) The department is not to collect an application fee from 112243
a medicaid provider that is exempt from paying the fee under 42 112244
C.F.R. 455.460(a).112245

       (C) The application fees shall be deposited into the health 112246
care services administration fund created under section 5111.94112247
5162.54 of the Revised Code. Application fees are nonrefundable 112248
when collected in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 455.460(a).112249

       (D) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 112250
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5164.02112251
of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this section, 112252
including a rule establishing the amount of the application fee 112253
that is chargedto be collected under this section. The amount of 112254
the application fee shall not be set at an amount that is more 112255
than necessary to pay for the expenses of implementing the 112256
provider screening requirements.112257

       Sec. 5111.028.        Sec. 5164.32.  (A) Pursuant to section 5111.02 of 112258
the Revised Code, the director of job and family services shall 112259
adopt rules establishing procedures for the use of time-limited 112260
provider agreements under the medicaid program. Except as provided 112261
in division (E) of this section, all provider agreements shall be 112262
time-limited in accordance with the procedures established in the 112263
rules.112264

       The department of job and family services shall phase-in the 112265
use of time-limited provider agreements pursuant to this section 112266
during a period commencing not later than January 1, 2008, and 112267
ending January 1, 2015.112268

       (B) In the use of time-limited provider agreements pursuant 112269
to this section, all of the following apply:112270

       (1) Each medicaid provider agreement shall expire not later 112271
than sevenfive years from theits effective date of the 112272
agreement.112273

       (2) During the phase-in period specified in division (A) of 112274
this section, the department may provide for the conversion of. If112275
a provider agreement without a time limitentered into before the 112276
effective date of this amendment does not have a time limit, the 112277
department of medicaid shall convert the agreement to a provider 112278
agreement with a time limit. The department may take an action to 112279
convert the provider agreement by sending a notice by regular mail 112280
to the address of the provider on record with the department 112281
advising the provider of the conversion.112282

       (3) The department may make the effective date of a provider 112283
agreement retroactive for a period not to exceed one year from the 112284
date of the provider's application for the agreement, as long as 112285
the provider met all medicaid program requirements during that 112286
period.112287

       (C)(B) The medicaid director shall adopt rules under section 112288
5164.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 112289
section. The rules for use of time-limited provider agreements 112290
pursuant to this section shall be consistent with subpart E of 42 112291
C.F.R. Part 455 and include a process for re-enrollment of 112292
providersrevalidating medicaid providers' continued enrollments 112293
as providers. All of the following apply to the re-enrollment112294
revalidation process:112295

       (1) The department of job and family services may terminate a 112296
time-limited provider agreement or deny re-enrollmentshall refuse 112297
to revalidate a provider's provider agreement when athe provider 112298
fails to file ana complete application for re-enrollment112299
revalidation within the time and in the manner required under the 112300
re-enrollmentrevalidation process.112301

       (2) If a provider files ana complete application for 112302
re-enrollmentrevalidation within the time and in the manner 112303
required under the re-enrollmentrevalidation process, but the 112304
provider agreement expires before the department acts on the 112305
application or before the effective date of the department's 112306
decision on the application, the provider, subject to division 112307
(B)(3) of this section, may continue operating under the terms of 112308
the expired provider agreement until the effective date of the 112309
department's decision.112310

       (3) A decision by the department to approve an application 112311
for re-enrollment becomes effective on the date of the 112312
department's decision. A decision by the department to deny 112313
re-enrollment shall take effect not sooner than thirty days after 112314
the date the department mails written notice of the decision to 112315
the provider. The department shall specify in the notice the date 112316
on which the provider is required to cease operating under the 112317
provider agreementIf a provider continues operating under the 112318
terms of an expired provider agreement pursuant to division (B)(2) 112319
of this section and the department denies the provider's 112320
application for revalidation, medicaid payments shall not be made 112321
for services or items the provider provides during the period 112322
beginning on the date the provider agreement expired and ending on 112323
the effective date of a subsequent provider agreement, if any, the 112324
department enters into with the provider.112325

       (D) Pursuant to section 5111.06 of the Revised Code, the 112326
department is not required to take the actions specified in 112327
division (C)(1) of this section by issuing an order pursuant to an 112328
adjudication conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 112329
Revised Code.112330

       (E) The use of time-limited provider agreements pursuant to 112331
this section does not apply to provider agreements issued to the 112332
following, including any provider agreements issued to the 112333
following that are otherwise time-limited under the medicaid 112334
program:112335

       (1) A managed care organization under contract with the 112336
department pursuant to section 5111.17 of the Revised Code;112337

       (2) A nursing facility, as defined in section 5111.20 of the 112338
Revised Code;112339

       (3) An intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded, 112340
as defined in section 5111.20 of the Revised Code;112341

       (4) A hospital.112342

       Sec. 5164.33.  (A) The medicaid director may do the following 112343
for any reason permitted or required by federal law and when the 112344
director determines that the action is in the best interests of 112345
medicaid recipients or the state:112346

       (1) Deny, refuse to revalidate, suspend, or terminate a 112347
provider agreement;112348

       (2) Exclude an individual, provider of services or goods, or 112349
other entity from participation in the medicaid program.112350

       (B) No individual, provider, or entity excluded from 112351
participation in the medicaid program under this section shall do 112352
any of the following:112353

       (1) Own, or provide services to, any other medicaid provider 112354
or risk contractor;112355

       (2) Arrange for, render, or order services for medicaid 112356
recipients during the period of exclusion;112357

       (3) During the period of exclusion, receive direct payments 112358
under the medicaid program or indirect payments of medicaid funds 112359
in the form of salary, shared fees, contracts, kickbacks, or 112360
rebates from or through any other medicaid provider or risk 112361
contractor.112362

       (C) An individual, provider, or entity excluded from 112363
participation in the medicaid program under this section may 112364
request a reconsideration of the exclusion. The director shall 112365
adopt rules under section 5164.02 of the Revised Code governing 112366
the process for requesting a reconsideration.112367

       (D) Nothing in this section limits the applicability of 112368
section 5164.38 of the Revised Code to a medicaid provider.112369

       Sec. 5111.032.        Sec. 5164.34. (A) As used in this section:112370

       (1) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 112371
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.112372

       (2) "Disqualifying offense" means any of the offenses listed 112373
or described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 109.572 of 112374
the Revised Code.112375

       (3) "Owner" means a person who has an ownership interest in a 112376
medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider in an amount 112377
designated in rules adopted underauthorized by this section.112378

       (4) "Person subject to the criminal records check 112379
requirement" means the following:112380

       (a) A medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider who is 112381
notified under division (E)(1) of this section that the provider 112382
or applicant is subject to a criminal records check;112383

       (b) An owner or prospective owner, officer or prospective 112384
officer, or board member or prospective board member of a medicaid112385
provider or applicant to be a provider if, pursuant to division 112386
(E)(1)(a) of this section, the owner or prospective owner, officer 112387
or prospective officer, or board member or prospective board 112388
member is specified in information given to the provider or 112389
applicant under division (E)(1) of this section;112390

       (c) An employee or prospective employee of a medicaid112391
provider or applicant to be a provider if both of the following 112392
apply:112393

       (i) The employee or prospective employee is specified, 112394
pursuant to division (E)(1)(b) of this section, in information 112395
given to the provider or applicant under division (E)(1) of this 112396
section.112397

       (ii) The provider or applicant is not prohibited by division 112398
(D)(3)(b) of this section from employing the employee or 112399
prospective employee.112400

        (5) "Provider" means a person, institution, or entity that 112401
has a medicaid provider agreement with the department of job and 112402
family services.112403

       (6) "Responsible entity" means the following:112404

       (a) With respect to a criminal records check required under 112405
this section for a medicaid provider or applicant to be a 112406
provider, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 112407
the department's designee;112408

       (b) With respect to a criminal records check required under 112409
this section for an owner or prospective owner, officer or 112410
prospective officer, board member or prospective board member, or 112411
employee or prospective employee of a medicaid provider or 112412
applicant to be a provider, the provider or applicant.112413

       (B) This section does not apply to any individual who is 112414
subject to a criminal records check under section 3712.09, 112415
3721.121, 5111.034, 5123.081, or 5123.169, or 5164.341 of the 112416
Revised Code or any individual who is subject to a database review 112417
or criminal records check under section 173.394173.38, 3701.881, 112418
or 5111.0335164.342 of the Revised Code.112419

       (C) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid may do 112420
any of the following:112421

       (1) Require that any medicaid provider or applicant to be a 112422
provider submit to a criminal records check as a condition of 112423
havingobtaining or maintaining a medicaid provider agreement;112424

       (2) Require that any medicaid provider or applicant to be a 112425
provider require an owner or prospective owner, officer or 112426
prospective officer, or board member or prospective board member 112427
of the provider or applicant submit to a criminal records check as 112428
a condition of being an owner, officer, or board member of the 112429
provider or applicant;112430

       (3) Require that any medicaid provider or applicant to be a 112431
provider do the following:112432

       (a) If so required by rules adopted underauthorized by this 112433
section, determine pursuant to a database review conducted under 112434
division (F)(1)(a) of this section whether any employee or 112435
prospective employee of the provider or applicant is included in a 112436
database;112437

       (b) Unless the provider or applicant is prohibited by 112438
division (D)(3)(b) of this section from employing the employee or 112439
prospective employee, require the employee or prospective employee 112440
to submit to a criminal records check as a condition of being an 112441
employee of the provider or applicant.112442

       (D)(1) The department or the department's designee shall deny 112443
or terminate a medicaid provider's medicaid provider agreement or 112444
deny an applicant's application for a medicaid provider agreement112445
if the provider or applicant is a person subject to the criminal 112446
records check requirement and either of the following applies:112447

       (a) The provider or applicant fails to obtain the criminal 112448
records check after being given the information specified in 112449
division (G)(1) of this section.112450

       (b) Except as provided in rules adopted underauthorized by112451
this section, the provider or applicant is found by the criminal 112452
records check to have been convicted of,or have pleaded guilty 112453
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 112454
for a disqualifying offense, regardless of the date of the 112455
conviction,or the date of entry of the guilty plea, or the date 112456
the applicant or provider was found eligible for intervention in 112457
lieu of conviction.112458

       (2) No medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider shall 112459
permit a person to be an owner, officer, or board member of the 112460
provider or applicant if the person is a person subject to the 112461
criminal records check requirement and either of the following 112462
applies:112463

       (a) The person fails to obtain the criminal records check 112464
after being given the information specified in division (G)(1) of 112465
this section.112466

       (b) Except as provided in rules adopted underauthorized by112467
this section, the person is found by the criminal records check to 112468
have been convicted of,or have pleaded guilty to, or been found 112469
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 112470
disqualifying offense, regardless of the date of the conviction,112471
or the date of entry of the guilty plea, or the date the person 112472
was found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction.112473

       (3) No medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider shall 112474
employ a person if any of the following apply:112475

       (a) The person has been excluded from providing services or 112476
items under thebeing a medicaid programprovider, thea medicare 112477
program operated pursuant to Title XVIII of the "Social Security 112478
Actprovider," or provider for any other federal health care 112479
program.112480

       (b) If the person is subject to a database review conducted 112481
under division (F)(1)(a) of this section, the person is found by 112482
the database review to be included in a database and the rules 112483
adopted underauthorized by this section regarding the database 112484
review prohibit the provider or applicant from employing a person 112485
included in the database.112486

       (c) If the person is a person subject to the criminal records 112487
check requirement, either of the following applies:112488

       (i) The person fails to obtain the criminal records check 112489
after being given the information specified in division (G)(1) of 112490
this section.112491

       (ii) Except as provided in rules adopted underauthorized by112492
this section, the person is found by the criminal records check to 112493
have been convicted of,or have pleaded guilty to, or been found 112494
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 112495
disqualifying offense, regardless of the date of the conviction,112496
or the date of entry of the guilty plea, or the date the person 112497
was found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction.112498

       (E)(1) The department or the department's designee shall 112499
inform each medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider112500
whether the provider or applicant is subject to a criminal records 112501
check. For providers with valid provider agreements, the 112502
information shall be given at times designated in rules adopted 112503
underauthorized by this section. For applicantsproviders 112504
applying to be medicaid providers, the information shall be given 112505
at the time of initial application. When the information is given, 112506
the department or the department's designee shall specify the 112507
following:112508

       (a) Which of the provider's or applicant's owners or 112509
prospective owners, officers or prospective officers, or board 112510
members or prospective board members are subject to a criminal 112511
records check;112512

       (b) Which of the provider's or applicant's employees or 112513
prospective employees are subject to division (C)(3) of this 112514
section.112515

       (2) At times designated in rules adopted underauthorized by112516
this section, a medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider112517
that is a person subject to the criminal records check requirement 112518
shall do the following:112519

       (a) Inform each person specified under division (E)(1)(a) of 112520
this section that the person is required to submit to a criminal 112521
records check as a condition of being an owner, officer, or board 112522
member of the provider or applicant;112523

       (b) Inform each person specified under division (E)(1)(b) of 112524
this section that the person is subject to division (C)(3) of this 112525
section.112526

       (F)(1) If a medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider112527
is a person subject to the criminal records check requirement, the 112528
department or the department's designee shall require the conduct 112529
of a criminal records check by the superintendent of the bureau of 112530
criminal identification and investigation. A medicaid provider or 112531
applicant to be a provider shall require the conduct of a criminal 112532
records check by the superintendent with respect to each of the 112533
persons specified under division (E)(1)(a) of this section. With 112534
respect to each employee and prospective employee specified under 112535
division (E)(1)(b) of this section, a medicaid provider or 112536
applicant to be a provider shall do the following:112537

       (a) If rules adopted underauthorized by this section require 112538
the provider or applicant to conduct a database review to 112539
determine whether the employee or prospective employee is included 112540
in a database, conduct the database review in accordance with the 112541
rules;112542

       (b) Unless the provider or applicant is prohibited by 112543
division (D)(3)(b) of this section from employing the employee or 112544
prospective employee, require the conduct of a criminal records 112545
check of the employee or prospective employee by the 112546
superintendent.112547

       (2) If a person subject to the criminal records check 112548
requirement does not present proof of having been a resident of 112549
this state for the five-year period immediately prior to the date 112550
the criminal records check is requested or provide evidence that 112551
within that five-year period the superintendent has requested 112552
information about the person from the federal bureau of 112553
investigation in a criminal records check, the responsible entity 112554
shall require the person to request that the superintendent obtain 112555
information from the federal bureau of investigation as part of 112556
the criminal records check of the person. Even if the person 112557
presents proof of having been a resident of this state for the 112558
five-year period, the responsible entity may require that the 112559
person request that the superintendent obtain information from the 112560
federal bureau of investigation and include it in the criminal 112561
records check of the person.112562

       (G) Criminal records checks required by this section shall be 112563
obtained as follows:112564

       (1) The responsible entity shall provide each person subject 112565
to the criminal records check requirement information about 112566
accessing and completing the form prescribed pursuant to division 112567
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and the standard 112568
impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that 112569
section.112570

       (2) The person subject to the criminal records check 112571
requirement shall submit the required form and one complete set of 112572
the person's fingerprint impressions directly to the 112573
superintendent for purposes of conducting the criminal records 112574
check using the applicable methods prescribed by division (C) of 112575
section 109.572 of the Revised Code. The person shall pay all fees 112576
associated with obtaining the criminal records check.112577

       (3) The superintendent shall conduct the criminal records 112578
check in accordance with section 109.572 of the Revised Code. The 112579
person subject to the criminal records check requirement shall 112580
instruct the superintendent to submit the report of the criminal 112581
records check directly to the responsible entity. If the 112582
department or the department's designee is not the responsible 112583
entity, the department or designee may require the responsible 112584
entity to submit the report to the department or designee.112585

       (H)(1) A medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider may 112586
employ conditionally a person for whom a criminal records check is 112587
required by this section prior to obtaining the results of the 112588
criminal records check if both of the following apply:112589

       (a) The provider or applicant is not prohibited by division 112590
(D)(3)(b) of this section from employing the person.112591

        (b) The person submits a request for the criminal records 112592
check not later than five business days after the person begins 112593
conditional employment.112594

       (2) A medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider that 112595
employs a person conditionally under division (H)(1) of this 112596
section shall terminate the person's employment if the results of 112597
the criminal records check request are not obtained within the 112598
period ending sixty days after the date the request is made. 112599
Regardless of when the results of the criminal records check are 112600
obtained, if the results indicate that the person has been 112601
convicted of,or has pleaded guilty to, or has been found eligible 112602
for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying 112603
offense, the provider or applicant shall terminate the person's 112604
employment unless circumstances specified in rules adopted under112605
authorized by this section exist that permit the provider or 112606
applicant to employ the person and the provider or applicant112607
chooses to employ the person.112608

       (I) The report of a criminal records check conducted pursuant 112609
to this section is not a public record for the purposes of section 112610
149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not be made available to any 112611
person other than the following:112612

       (1) The person who is the subject of the criminal records 112613
check or the person's representative;112614

       (2) The medicaid director of job and family services and the 112615
staff of the department who are involved in the administration of 112616
the medicaid program;112617

       (3) The department's designee;112618

       (4) The medicaid provider or applicant to be a provider who 112619
required the person who is the subject of the criminal records 112620
check to submit to the criminal records check;112621

        (5) An individual receiving or deciding whether to receive, 112622
from the subject of the criminal records check, home and 112623
community-based services available under the medicaid state plan;112624

       (6) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 112625
involved in a case dealing with any of the following:112626

       (a) The denial or termination of a medicaid provider 112627
agreement;112628

        (b) A person's denial of employment, termination of 112629
employment, or employment or unemployment benefits;112630

       (c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid 112631
program.112632

       (J) The medicaid director of job and family services may 112633
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5164.02112634
of the Revised Code to implement this section. If the director 112635
adopts such rules, the rules shall designate the times at which a 112636
criminal records check must be conducted under this section. The 112637
rules may do any of the following:112638

       (1) Designate the categories of persons who are subject to a 112639
criminal records check under this section;112640

        (2) Specify circumstances under which the department or the 112641
department's designee may continue a medicaid provider agreement 112642
or issue a medicaid provider agreement to an applicant when the 112643
medicaid provider or applicant is found by a criminal records 112644
check to have been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been found 112645
eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction for a 112646
disqualifying offense;112647

       (3) Specify circumstances under which a medicaid provider or 112648
applicant to be a provider may permit a person to be an employee, 112649
owner, officer, or board member of the provider or applicant, when 112650
the person is found by a criminal records check conducted pursuant 112651
to this section to have been convicted of,or have pleaded guilty 112652
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 112653
for a disqualifying offense;112654

       (4) Specify all of the following:112655

       (a) The circumstances under which a database review must be 112656
conducted under division (F)(1)(a) of this section to determine 112657
whether an employee or prospective employee of a medicaid provider 112658
or applicant to be a provider is included in a database;112659

       (b) The procedures for conducting the database review;112660

       (c) The databases that are to be checked;112661

       (d) The circumstances under which a medicaid provider or 112662
applicant to be a provider is prohibited from employing a person 112663
who is found by the database review to be included in a database.112664

       Sec. 5111.034.        Sec. 5164.341.  (A) As used in this section:112665

        "Anniversary date" means the later of the effective date of 112666
the provider agreement relating to the independent provider or 112667
sixty days after September 26, 2003.112668

        "Applicant" means a person who has applied for a medicaid112669
provider agreement to provide home and community-based services as 112670
an independent provider under a home and community-based medicaid 112671
waiver component administered by the department of job and family 112672
servicesmedicaid.112673

       "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in section 112674
109.572 of the Revised Code.112675

        "Disqualifying offense" means any of the offenses listed or 112676
described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 109.572 of the 112677
Revised Code.112678

       "Independent provider" means a person who has a medicaid112679
provider agreement to provide home and community-based services as 112680
an independent provider in a home and community-based services 112681
medicaid waiver component administered by the department of job 112682
and family servicesmedicaid. 112683

        "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver component" 112684
has the same meaning as in section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.112685

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or the 112686
department's designee shall deny an applicant's application for a 112687
medicaid provider agreement and shall terminate an independent 112688
provider's medicaid provider agreement if either of the following 112689
applies:112690

       (1) After the applicant or independent provider is given the 112691
information and notification required by divisions (D)(2)(a) and 112692
(b) of this section, the applicant or independent provider fails 112693
to do either of the following:112694

       (a) Access, complete, or forward to the superintendent of the 112695
bureau of criminal identification and investigation the form 112696
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the 112697
Revised Code or the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant 112698
to division (C)(2) of that section;112699

       (b) Instruct the superintendent to submit the completed 112700
report of the criminal records check required by this section 112701
directly to the department or the department's designee.112702

       (2) Except as provided in rules adopted underauthorized by112703
this section, the applicant or independent provider is found by a 112704
criminal records check required by this section to have been 112705
convicted of,or have pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible 112706
for intervention in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying 112707
offense, regardless of the date of the conviction,or the date of 112708
entry of the guilty plea, or the date the applicant or independent 112709
provider was found eligible for intervention in lieu of 112710
conviction.112711

       (C)(1) The department or the department's designee shall 112712
inform each applicant, at the time of initial application for a 112713
medicaid provider agreement, that the applicant is required to 112714
provide a set of the applicant's fingerprint impressions and that 112715
a criminal records check is required to be conducted as a 112716
condition of the department's approving the application.112717

       (2) Beginning on September 26, 2003, the department or the 112718
department's designee shall inform each independent provider on or 112719
before the time of the anniversary date of the medicaid provider 112720
agreement that the independent provider is required to provide a 112721
set of the independent provider's fingerprint impressions and that 112722
a criminal records check is required to be conducted.112723

       (D)(1) The department or the department's designee shall 112724
require an applicant to complete a criminal records check prior to 112725
entering into a medicaid provider agreement with the applicant. 112726
The department or the department's designee shall require an 112727
independent provider to complete a criminal records check at least 112728
annually. If an applicant or independent provider for whom a 112729
criminal records check is required by this section does not 112730
present proof of having been a resident of this state for the 112731
five-year period immediately prior to the date the criminal 112732
records check is requested or provide evidence that within that 112733
five-year period the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 112734
identification and investigation has requested information about 112735
the applicant or independent provider from the federal bureau of 112736
investigation in a criminal records check, the department or the 112737
department's designee shall request that the applicant or 112738
independent provider obtain through the superintendent a criminal 112739
records request from the federal bureau of investigation as part 112740
of the criminal records check of the applicant or independent 112741
provider. Even if an applicant or independent provider for whom a 112742
criminal records check request is required by this section 112743
presents proof of having been a resident of this state for the 112744
five-year period, the department or the department's designee may 112745
request that the applicant or independent provider obtain 112746
information through the superintendent from the federal bureau of 112747
investigation in the criminal records check.112748

       (2) The department or the department's designee shall provide 112749
the following to each applicant and independent provider for whom 112750
a criminal records check is required by this section:112751

       (a) Information about accessing, completing, and forwarding 112752
to the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 112753
investigation the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of 112754
section 109.572 of the Revised Code and the standard impression 112755
sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section;112756

       (b) Written notification that the applicant or independent 112757
provider is to instruct the superintendent to submit the completed 112758
report of the criminal records check directly to the department or 112759
the department's designee.112760

       (3) Each applicant and independent provider for whom a 112761
criminal records check is required by this section shall pay to 112762
the bureau of criminal identification and investigation the fee 112763
prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the 112764
Revised Code for the criminal records check conducted of the 112765
applicant or independent provider.112766

       (E) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 112767
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 112768
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 112769
made under this section is not a public record for the purposes of 112770
section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not be made available 112771
to any person other than the following:112772

       (1) The person who is the subject of the criminal records 112773
check or the person's representative;112774

       (2) The medicaid director of job and family services and the 112775
staff of the department who are involved in the administration of 112776
the medicaid program;112777

       (3) The department's designee;112778

       (4) An individual who receivesreceiving or deciding whether 112779
to receive home and community-based services from the person who 112780
is the subject of the criminal records check;112781

        (5) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 112782
involved in a case dealing with either of the following:112783

       (a) A denial or termination of a provider agreement related 112784
to the criminal records check;112785

       (b) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid 112786
program.112787

       (F) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 112788
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5164.02112789
of the Revised Code to implement this section. The rules shall 112790
specify circumstances under which the department or the 112791
department's designee may either approve an applicant's 112792
application or allow an independent provider to maintain an 112793
existing medicaid provider agreement even though the applicant or 112794
independent provider is found by a criminal records check required 112795
by this section to have been convicted of,or have pleaded guilty 112796
to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu of conviction 112797
for a disqualifying offense.112798

       Sec. 5111.033.        Sec. 5164.342.  (A) As used in this section:112799

        "Applicant" means a person who is under final consideration 112800
for employment with a waiver agency in a full-time, part-time, or 112801
temporary position that involves providing home and 112802
community-based services..112803

        "Community-based long-term care agencyprovider" has the same 112804
meaningmeans a provider as defined in section 173.39 of the 112805
Revised Code.112806

       "Community-based long-term care subcontractor" means a 112807
subcontractor as defined in section 173.38 of the Revised Code.112808

        "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in section 112809
109.572 of the Revised Code.112810

        "Disqualifying offense" means any of the offenses listed or 112811
described in divisions (A)(3)(a) to (e) of section 109.572 of the 112812
Revised Code.112813

       "Employee" means a person employed by a waiver agency in a 112814
full-time, part-time, or temporary position that involves 112815
providing home and community-based services.112816

       "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver component" 112817
has the same meaning as in section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.112818

       "Waiver agency" means a person or government entity that 112819
provides home and community-based services under a home and 112820
community-based services medicaid waiver component administered by 112821
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid, other than 112822
such a person or government entity that is certified under the 112823
medicare program. "Waiver agency" does not mean an independent 112824
provider as defined in section 5111.0345164.341 of the Revised 112825
Code.112826

       (B) This section does not apply to any individual who is 112827
subject to a database review or criminal records check under 112828
section 3701.881 of the Revised Code. If a waiver agency also is a 112829
community-based long-term care agencyprovider or community-based 112830
long-term care subcontractor, the waiver agency may provide for 112831
applicants and employees to undergo database reviews and criminal 112832
records checks in accordance with section 173.394173.38 of the 112833
Revised Code rather than this section.112834

        (C) No waiver agency shall employ an applicant or continue to 112835
employ an employee in a position that involves providing home and 112836
community-based services if any of the following apply:112837

       (1) A review of the databases listed in division (E) of this 112838
section reveals any of the following:112839

       (a) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 112840
of the databases listed in divisions (E)(1) to (5) of this 112841
section;112842

       (b) That there is in the state nurse aide registry 112843
established under section 3721.32 of the Revised Code a statement 112844
detailing findings by the director of health that the applicant or 112845
employee neglected or abused a long-term care facility or 112846
residential care facility resident or misappropriated property of 112847
such a resident;112848

       (c) That the applicant or employee is included in one or more 112849
of the databases, if any, specified in rules adopted under112850
authorized by this section and the rules prohibit the waiver 112851
agency from employing an applicant or continuing to employ an 112852
employee included in such a database in a position that involves 112853
providing home and community-based services.112854

       (2) After the applicant or employee is given the information 112855
and notification required by divisions (F)(2)(a) and (b) of this 112856
section, the applicant or employee fails to do either of the 112857
following:112858

       (a) Access, complete, or forward to the superintendent of the 112859
bureau of criminal identification and investigation the form 112860
prescribed to division (C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised 112861
Code or the standard impression sheet prescribed pursuant to 112862
division (C)(2) of that section;112863

       (b) Instruct the superintendent to submit the completed 112864
report of the criminal records check required by this section 112865
directly to the chief administrator of the waiver agency.112866

       (3) Except as provided in rules adopted underauthorized by112867
this section, the applicant or employee is found by a criminal 112868
records check required by this section to have been convicted of,112869
or have pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention 112870
in lieu of conviction for a disqualifying offense, regardless of 112871
the date of the conviction,or date of entry of the guilty plea, 112872
or the date the applicant or employee was found eligible for 112873
intervention in lieu of conviction.112874

       (D) At the time of each applicant's initial application for 112875
employment in a position that involves providing home and 112876
community-based services, the chief administrator of a waiver 112877
agency shall inform the applicant of both of the following:112878

       (1) That a review of the databases listed in division (E) of 112879
this section will be conducted to determine whether the waiver 112880
agency is prohibited by division (C)(1) of this section from 112881
employing the applicant in the position;112882

       (2) That, unless the database review reveals that the 112883
applicant may not be employed in the position, a criminal records 112884
check of the applicant will be conducted and the applicant is 112885
required to provide a set of the applicant's fingerprint 112886
impressions as part of the criminal records check.112887

       (E) As a condition of employing any applicant in a position 112888
that involves providing home and community-based services, the 112889
chief administrator of a waiver agency shall conduct a database 112890
review of the applicant in accordance with rules adopted under112891
authorized by this section. If rules adopted underauthorized by112892
this section so require, the chief administrator of a waiver 112893
agency shall conduct a database review of an employee in 112894
accordance with the rules as a condition of continuing to employ 112895
the employee in a position that involves providing home and 112896
community-based services. A database review shall determine 112897
whether the applicant or employee is included in any of the 112898
following:112899

       (1) The excluded parties list system that is maintained by 112900
the United States general services administration pursuant to 112901
subpart 9.4 of the federal acquisition regulation and available at 112902
the federal web site known as the system for award management;112903

       (2) The list of excluded individuals and entities maintained 112904
by the office of inspector general in the United States department 112905
of health and human services pursuant to section 1128 of the 112906
"Social Security Act," 94 Stat. 2619 (1980)sections 1128 and 112907
1156, 42 U.S.C. 1320a-7, as amended, and section 1156 of the 112908
"Social Security Act," 96 Stat. 388 (1982), 42 U.S.C. 1320c-5, as 112909
amended;112910

       (3) The registry of MR/DD employees established under section 112911
5123.52 of the Revised Code;112912

       (4) The internet-based sex offender and child-victim offender 112913
database established under division (A)(11) of section 2950.13 of 112914
the Revised Code;112915

       (5) The internet-based database of inmates established under 112916
section 5120.66 of the Revised Code;112917

       (6) The state nurse aide registry established under section 112918
3721.32 of the Revised Code;112919

       (7) Any other database, if any, specified in rules adopted 112920
underauthorized by this section.112921

       (F)(1) As a condition of employing any applicant in a 112922
position that involves providing home and community-based 112923
services, the chief administrator of a waiver agency shall require 112924
the applicant to request that the superintendent of the bureau of 112925
criminal identification and investigation conduct a criminal 112926
records check of the applicant. If rules adopted underauthorized 112927
by this section so require, the chief administrator of a waiver 112928
agency shall require an employee to request that the 112929
superintendent conduct a criminal records check of the employee at 112930
times specified in the rules as a condition of continuing to 112931
employ the employee in a position that involves providing home and 112932
community-based services. However, a criminal records check is not 112933
required for an applicant or employee if the waiver agency is 112934
prohibited by division (C)(1) of this section from employing the 112935
applicant or continuing to employ the employee in a position that 112936
involves providing home and community-based services. If an 112937
applicant or employee for whom a criminal records check request is 112938
required by this section does not present proof of having been a 112939
resident of this state for the five-year period immediately prior 112940
to the date the criminal records check is requested or provide 112941
evidence that within that five-year period the superintendent has 112942
requested information about the applicant or employee from the 112943
federal bureau of investigation in a criminal records check, the 112944
chief administrator shall require the applicant or employee to 112945
request that the superintendent obtain information from the 112946
federal bureau of investigation as part of the criminal records 112947
check. Even if an applicant or employee for whom a criminal 112948
records check request is required by this section presents proof 112949
of having been a resident of this state for the five-year period, 112950
the chief administrator may require the applicant or employee to 112951
request that the superintendent include information from the 112952
federal bureau of investigation in the criminal records check.112953

       (2) The chief administrator shall provide the following to 112954
each applicant and employee for whom a criminal records check is 112955
required by this section:112956

       (a) Information about accessing, completing, and forwarding 112957
to the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 112958
investigation the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of 112959
section 109.572 of the Revised Code and the standard impression 112960
sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section;112961

       (b) Written notification that the applicant or employee is to 112962
instruct the superintendent to submit the completed report of the 112963
criminal records check directly to the chief administrator.112964

       (3) A waiver agency shall pay to the bureau of criminal 112965
identification and investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to 112966
division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code for any 112967
criminal records check required by this section. However, a waiver 112968
agency may require an applicant to pay to the bureau the fee for a 112969
criminal records check of the applicant. If the waiver agency pays 112970
the fee for an applicant, it may charge the applicant a fee not 112971
exceeding the amount the waiver agency pays to the bureau under 112972
this section if the waiver agency notifies the applicant at the 112973
time of initial application for employment of the amount of the 112974
fee and that, unless the fee is paid, the applicant will not be 112975
considered for employment.112976

       (G)(1) A waiver agency may employ conditionally an applicant 112977
for whom a criminal records check is required by this section 112978
prior to obtaining the results of the criminal records check if 112979
both of the following apply:112980

       (a) The waiver agency is not prohibited by division (C)(1) of 112981
this section from employing the applicant in a position that 112982
involves providing home and community-based services.112983

        (b) The chief administrator of the waiver agency requires the 112984
applicant to request a criminal records check regarding the 112985
applicant in accordance with division (F)(1) of this section not 112986
later than five business days after the applicant begins 112987
conditional employment.112988

       (2) A waiver agency that employs an applicant conditionally 112989
under division (G)(1) of this section shall terminate the 112990
applicant's employment if the results of the criminal records 112991
check, other than the results of any request for information from 112992
the federal bureau of investigation, are not obtained within the 112993
period ending sixty days after the date the request for the 112994
criminal records check is made. Regardless of when the results of 112995
the criminal records check are obtained, if the results indicate 112996
that the applicant has been convicted of,or has pleaded guilty 112997
to, or has been found eligible for intervention in lieu of 112998
conviction for a disqualifying offense, the waiver agency shall 112999
terminate the applicant's employment unless circumstances 113000
specified in rules adopted underauthorized by this section exist 113001
that permit the waiver agency to employ the applicant and the 113002
waiver agency chooses to employ the applicant.113003

       (H) The report of any criminal records check conducted 113004
pursuant to a request made under this section is not a public 113005
record for the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and 113006
shall not be made available to any person other than the 113007
following:113008

       (1) The applicant or employee who is the subject of the 113009
criminal records check or the representative of the applicant or 113010
employee;113011

       (2) The chief administrator of the waiver agency that 113012
requires the applicant or employee to request the criminal records 113013
check or the administrator's representative;113014

       (3) The medicaid director of job and family services and the 113015
staff of the department who are involved in the administration of 113016
the medicaid program;113017

       (4) The director of aging or the director's designee if the 113018
waiver agency also is a community-based long-term care agency113019
provider or community-based long-term care subcontractor;113020

        (5) An individual receiving or deciding whether to receive 113021
home and community-based services from the subject of the criminal 113022
records check;113023

       (6) A court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 113024
involved in a case dealing with any of the following:113025

       (a) A denial of employment of the applicant or employee;113026

       (b) Employment or unemployment benefits of the applicant or 113027
employee;113028

       (c) A civil or criminal action regarding the medicaid 113029
program.113030

       (I) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 113031
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5164.02113032
of the Revised Code to implement this section. 113033

       (1) The rules may do the following:113034

       (a) Require employees to undergo database reviews and 113035
criminal records checks under this section;113036

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 113037
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, exempt one 113038
or more classes of employees from the requirements;113039

       (c) For the purpose of division (E)(7) of this section, 113040
specify other databases that are to be checked as part of a 113041
database review conducted under this section.113042

       (2) The rules shall specify all of the following:113043

       (a) The procedures for conducting a database review under 113044
this section;113045

       (b) If the rules require employees to undergo database 113046
reviews and criminal records checks under this section, the times 113047
at which the database reviews and criminal records checks are to 113048
be conducted;113049

       (c) If the rules specify other databases to be checked as 113050
part of a database review, the circumstances under which a waiver 113051
agency is prohibited from employing an applicant or continuing to 113052
employ an employee who is found by the database review to be 113053
included in one or more of those databases;113054

        (d) The circumstances under which a waiver agency may employ 113055
an applicant or employee who is found by a criminal records check 113056
required by this section to have been convicted of,or have113057
pleaded guilty to, or been found eligible for intervention in lieu 113058
of conviction for a disqualifying offense.113059

       (J) The amendments made by H.B. 487 of the 129th general 113060
assembly to this section do not preclude the department of job 113061
and family servicesmedicaid from taking action against a person 113062
for failure to comply with former division (H) of this section as 113063
that division existed on the day preceding the effective date of 113064
this amendmentJanuary 1, 2013.113065

       Sec. 5111.03.        Sec. 5164.35.  (A) As used in this section, "owner" 113066
means any person having at least five per cent ownership in a 113067
medicaid provider.113068

       (B)(1) No medicaid provider of services or goods contracting 113069
with the department of job and family services pursuant to the 113070
medicaid program shall, bydo any of the following:113071

       (a) By deception, obtain or attempt to obtain payments under 113072
this chapterthe medicaid program to which the provider is not 113073
entitled pursuant to the provider's provider agreement, or the 113074
rules of the federal government or the department of job and 113075
family servicesmedicaid director relating to the program. No 113076
provider shall willfully;113077

       (b) Willfully receive payments to which the provider is not 113078
entitled, or willfully;113079

       (c) Willfully receive payments in a greater amount than that 113080
to which the provider is entitled; nor shall any provider falsify113081

       (d) Falsify any report or document required by state or 113082
federal law, rule, or provider agreement relating to medicaid 113083
payments. As used in this section, a113084

       (2) A medicaid provider engages in "deception" for the 113085
purpose of this section when the provider, acting with actual 113086
knowledge of the representation or information involved, acting in 113087
deliberate ignorance of the truth or falsity of the representation 113088
or information involved, or acting in reckless disregard of the 113089
truth or falsity of the representation or information involved, 113090
deceives another or causes another to be deceived by any false or 113091
misleading representation, by withholding information, by 113092
preventing another from acquiring information, or by any other 113093
conduct, act, or omission that creates, confirms, or perpetuates a 113094
false impression in another, including a false impression as to 113095
law, value, state of mind, or other objective or subjective fact. 113096
No proof of specific intent to defraud is required to show, for 113097
purposes of this section, that a medicaid provider has engaged in 113098
deception.113099

       (B)(C) Any medicaid provider who violates division (A)(B) of 113100
this section shall be liable, in addition to any other penalties 113101
provided by law, for all of the following civil penalties:113102

       (1) Payment of interest on the amount of the excess payments 113103
at the maximum interest rate allowable for real estate mortgages 113104
under section 1343.01 of the Revised Code on the date the payment 113105
was made to the provider for the period from the date upon which 113106
payment was made, to the date upon which repayment is made to the 113107
state;113108

       (2) Payment of an amount equal to three times the amount of 113109
any excess payments;113110

       (3) Payment of a sum of not less than five thousand dollars 113111
and not more than ten thousand dollars for each deceptive claim or 113112
falsification;113113

       (4) All reasonable expenses which the court determines have 113114
been necessarily incurred by the state in the enforcement of this 113115
section.113116

       (C) As used in this division, "intermediate care facility for 113117
the mentally retarded" and "nursing facility" have the same 113118
meanings given in section 5111.20 of the Revised Code.113119

       (D) In addition to the civil penalties provided in division 113120
(B)(C) of this section, the medicaid director of job and family 113121
services, upon the conviction of, or the entry of a judgment in 113122
either a criminal or civil action against, a medicaid provider or 113123
its owner, officer, authorized agent, associate, manager, or 113124
employee in an action brought pursuant to section 109.85 of the 113125
Revised Code, shall terminate the provider's provider agreement 113126
between the department and the provider and stop reimbursement113127
payment to the provider for medicaid services rendered from the 113128
date of conviction or entry of judgment. As used in this division, 113129
"owner" means any person having at least five per cent ownership 113130
in the medicaid provider. No such medicaid provider, owner, 113131
officer, authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee shall 113132
own or provide medicaid services to any other medicaid provider or 113133
risk contractor or arrange for, render, or order medicaid services 113134
for medicaid recipients, nor shall such provider, owner, officer, 113135
authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee receive 113136
reimbursement in the form of direct payments from the department113137
under the medicaid program or indirect payments of medicaid funds 113138
in the form of salary, shared fees, contracts, kickbacks, or 113139
rebates from or through any participatingother medicaid provider 113140
or risk contractor. The provider agreement shall not be terminated 113141
or reimbursement, and payment shall not be terminated, if the 113142
medicaid provider or owner can demonstrate that the provider or 113143
owner did not directly or indirectly sanction the action of its 113144
authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee that resulted in 113145
the conviction or entry of a judgment in a criminal or civil 113146
action brought pursuant to section 109.85 of the Revised Code. 113147
Nothing in this division prohibits any owner, officer, authorized 113148
agent, associate, manager, or employee of a medicaid provider from 113149
entering into a medicaid provider agreement if the person can 113150
demonstrate that the person had no knowledge of an action of the 113151
medicaid provider the person was formerly associated with that 113152
resulted in the conviction or entry of a judgment in a criminal or 113153
civil action brought pursuant to section 109.85 of the Revised 113154
Code.113155

        Nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the 113156
mentally retardedand ICF/IID providers whose provider agreements 113157
are terminated pursuant to this section may continue to receive 113158
reimbursementmedicaid payments for up to thirty days after the 113159
effective date of the termination if the provider makes reasonable 113160
efforts to transfer medicaid recipients to another facility or to 113161
alternate care and if federal funds arefinancial participation is113162
provided for such reimbursementthe payments.113163

       (D) For any reason permitted or required by federal law, the 113164
director of job and family services may deny a provider agreement 113165
or terminate a provider agreement.113166

       For any reason permitted or required by federal law, the 113167
director may exclude an individual, provider of services or goods, 113168
or other entity from participation in the medicaid program. No 113169
individual, provider, or entity excluded under this division shall 113170
own or provide services to any other medicaid provider or risk 113171
contractor or arrange for, render, or order services for medicaid 113172
recipients during the period of exclusion, nor, during the period 113173
of exclusion, shall such individual, provider, or entity receive 113174
reimbursement in the form of direct payments from the department 113175
or indirect payments of medicaid funds in the form of salary, 113176
shared fees, contracts, kickbacks, or rebates from or through any 113177
participating provider or risk contractor. An excluded individual, 113178
provider, or entity may request a reconsideration of the 113179
exclusion. The director shall adopt rules in accordance with 113180
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing the process for 113181
requesting a reconsideration.113182

       Nothing in this division limits the applicability of section 113183
5111.06 of the Revised Code to a medicaid provider.113184

       (E) Any provider of services or goods contracting with the 113185
department of job and family services pursuant to Title XIX of the 113186
"Social Security Act," who, without intent, obtains payments under 113187
this chapter in excess of the amount to which the provider is 113188
entitled, thereby becomes liable for payment of interest on the 113189
amount of the excess payments at the maximum real estate mortgage 113190
rate on the date the payment was made to the provider for the 113191
period from the date upon which payment was made to the date upon 113192
which repayment is made to the state.113193

       (F)(E) The attorney general on behalf of the state may 113194
commence proceedings to enforce this section in any court of 113195
competent jurisdiction; and the attorney general may settle or 113196
compromise any case brought under this section with the approval 113197
of the department of job and family servicesmedicaid. 113198
Notwithstanding any other provision of law providing a shorter 113199
period of limitations, the attorney general may commence a 113200
proceeding to enforce this section at any time within six years 113201
after the conduct in violation of this section terminates.113202

       (G) The authority, under state and federal law, of the 113203
department of job and family services or a county department of 113204
job and family services to recover excess payments made to a 113205
provider is not limited by the availability of remedies under 113206
sections 5111.11 and 5111.12 of the Revised Code for recovering 113207
benefits paid on behalf of recipients of medical assistance.113208

       The penalties under this chapter apply to any overpayment, 113209
billing, or falsification occurring on and after April 24, 1978.113210
(F) All moneys collected by the state pursuant to this section 113211
shall be deposited in the state treasury to the credit of the 113212
general revenue fund.113213

       Sec. 5111.035.        Sec. 5164.36.  (A) As used in this section:113214

       (1) "CreditableCredible allegation of fraud" has the same 113215
meaning as in 42 C.F.R. 455.2, except that for purposes of this 113216
section any reference in that regulation to the "state" or the 113217
"state medicaid agency" means the department of job and family 113218
servicesmedicaid.113219

       (2) "Provider" has the same meaning as in section 5111.032 of 113220
the Revised Code.113221

       (3) "Owner" has the same meaning as in section 5111.031113222
5164.37 of the Revised Code.113223

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (C) of this section and 113224
in rules adoptedauthorized by the department of job and family 113225
services under division (J) of this section, on determining there 113226
is a creditablecredible allegation of fraud for which an 113227
investigation is pending under the medicaid program against a 113228
medicaid provider, the department of medicaid shall suspend the 113229
provider agreement held by the provider. Subject to division (C) 113230
of this section, the department shall also terminate medicaid 113231
reimbursementpayments to the provider for services rendered.113232

       (2)(a) The suspension shall continue in effect until either 113233
of the following is the case:113234

       (i) The department or a prosecuting authority determines that 113235
there is insufficient evidence of fraud by the medicaid provider;113236

       (ii) The proceedings in any related criminal case are 113237
completed through dismissal of the indictment or through 113238
conviction, entry of a guilty plea, or finding of not guilty.113239

       (b) If the department commences a process to terminate the 113240
suspended provider agreement, the suspension shall also continue 113241
in effect until the termination process is concluded.113242

       (3) Pursuant to section 5111.06 of the Revised Code, the 113243
department is not required to take action under division (B)(1) of 113244
this section by issuing an order pursuant to an adjudication in 113245
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.113246

       (4) When subject to a suspension under this section, a 113247
medicaid provider, owner, officer, authorized agent, associate, 113248
manager, or employee shall not own or provide services to any 113249
other medicaid provider or risk contractor or arrange for, render, 113250
or order services to any other medicaid provider or risk 113251
contractor or arrange for, render, or order services for medicaid 113252
recipients during the period of suspension. During the period of 113253
suspension, the provider, owner, officer, authorized agent, 113254
associate, manager, or employee shall not receive reimbursement in 113255
the form of direct payments from the departmentunder the medicaid 113256
program or indirect payments of medicaid funds in the form of 113257
salary, shared fees, contracts, kickbacks, or rebates from or 113258
through any participatingother medicaid provider or risk 113259
contractor.113260

       (C) The department shall not suspend a provider agreement or 113261
terminate medicaid reimbursementpayments under division (B) of 113262
this section if the medicaid provider or owner can demonstrate 113263
through the submission of written evidence that the provider or 113264
owner did not directly or indirectly sanction the action of its 113265
authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee that resulted in 113266
the creditablecredible allegation of fraud. 113267

       (D) The termination of medicaid reimbursementpayment under 113268
division (B) of this section applies only to payments for medicaid 113269
services rendered subsequent to the date on which the notice 113270
required by division (E) of this section is sent. Claims for 113271
reimbursementpayment of medicaid services rendered by the 113272
medicaid provider prior to the issuance of the notice may be 113273
subject to prepayment review procedures whereby the department 113274
reviews claims to determine whether they are supported by 113275
sufficient documentation, are in compliance with state and federal 113276
statutes and rules, and are otherwise complete.113277

       (E) After suspending a provider agreement under division (B) 113278
of this section, the department shall, as specified in 42 C.F.R. 113279
455.23(b), send notice of the suspension to the affected medicaid113280
provider or owner in accordance with the following timeframes:113281

       (1) Not later than five days after the suspension, unless a 113282
law enforcement agency makes a written request to temporarily 113283
delay the notice;113284

       (2) If a law enforcement agency makes a written request to 113285
temporarily delay the notice, not later than thirty days after the 113286
suspension occurs subject to the conditions specified in division 113287
(F) of this section. 113288

       (F) A written request for a temporary delay described in 113289
division (E)(2) of this section may be renewed in writing by a law 113290
enforcement agency not more than two times except that under no 113291
circumstances shall the notice be issued more than ninety days 113292
after the suspension occurs.113293

       (G) The notice required by division (E) of this section shall 113294
do all of the following:113295

       (1) State that payments are being suspended in accordance 113296
with this section and 42 C.F.R. 455.23;113297

       (2) Set forth the general allegations related to the nature 113298
of the conduct leading to the suspension, except that it is not 113299
necessary to disclose any specific information concerning an 113300
ongoing investigation;113301

       (3) State that the suspension continues to be in effect until 113302
either of the following is the case:113303

       (a) The department or a prosecuting authority determines that 113304
there is insufficient evidence of fraud by the provider;113305

       (b) The proceedings in any related criminal case are 113306
completed through dismissal of the indictment or through 113307
conviction, entry of a guilty plea, or finding of not guilty and, 113308
if the department commences a process to terminate the suspended 113309
provider agreement, until the termination process is concluded.113310

       (4) Specify, if applicable, the type or types of medicaid 113311
claims or business units of the medicaid provider that are 113312
affected by the suspension;113313

       (5) Inform the medicaid provider or owner of the opportunity 113314
to submit to the department, not later than thirty days after 113315
receiving the notice, a request for reconsideration of the 113316
suspension in accordance with division (H) of this section.113317

       (H)(1) Pursuant to the procedure specified in division (H)(2) 113318
of this section, a medicaid provider or owner subject to a 113319
suspension under this section may request a reconsideration of the 113320
suspension. The request shall be made not later than thirty days 113321
after receipt of a notice required by division (E) of this 113322
section. The reconsideration is not subject to an adjudication 113323
hearing pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.113324

       (2) In requesting a reconsideration, the medicaid provider or 113325
owner shall submit written information and documents to the 113326
department. The information and documents may pertain to any of 113327
the following issues:113328

       (a) Whether the determination to suspend the provider 113329
agreement was based on a mistake of fact, other than the validity 113330
of an indictment in a related criminal case.113331

       (b) If there has been an indictment in a related criminal 113332
case, whether any offense charged in the indictment resulted from 113333
an offense specified in division (E) of section 5111.0315164.37113334
of the Revised Code. 113335

       (c) Whether the provider or owner can demonstrate that the 113336
provider or owner did not directly or indirectly sanction the 113337
action of its authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee 113338
that resulted in the suspension under this section or an 113339
indictment in a related criminal case.113340

       (I) The department shall review the information and documents 113341
submitted in a request made under division (H) of this section for 113342
reconsideration of a suspension. After the review, the suspension 113343
may be affirmed, reversed, or modified, in whole or in part. The 113344
department shall notify the affected provider or owner of the 113345
results of the review. The review and notification of its results 113346
shall be completed not later than forty-five days after receiving 113347
the information and documents submitted in a request for 113348
reconsideration.113349

       (J) The department may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 113350
119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. The rules113351
Rules adopted under section 5164.02 of the Revised Code may 113352
specify circumstances under which the department would not suspend 113353
a provider agreement pursuant to this section.113354

       Sec. 5111.031.        Sec. 5164.37. (A) As used in this section:113355

       (1) "Independent provider" has the same meaning as in section 113356
5111.0345164.341 of the Revised Code.113357

       (2) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 113358
and "nursing facility" have the same meanings as in section 113359
5111.20 of the Revised Code.113360

       (3) "Noninstitutional medicaid provider" means any person or 113361
entity with a medicaid provider agreement other than a hospital, 113362
nursing facility, or intermediate care facility for the mentally 113363
retardedICF/IID.113364

       (4)(3) "Owner" means any person having at least five per cent 113365
ownership in a noninstitutional medicaid provider.113366

       (B) Notwithstanding any provision of this chapter to the 113367
contrary, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 113368
take action under this section against a noninstitutional medicaid 113369
provider or its owner, officer, authorized agent, associate, 113370
manager, or employee.113371

       (C) Except as provided in division (D) of this section and in 113372
rules adoptedauthorized by the department under division (H) of113373
this section, on receiving notice and a copy of an indictment that 113374
is issued on or after September 29, 2007, and charges a 113375
noninstitutional medicaid provider or its owner, officer, 113376
authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee with committing 113377
an offense specified in division (E) of this section, the 113378
department shall suspend the provider agreement held by the 113379
noninstitutional medicaid provider. Subject to division (D) of 113380
this section, the department shall also terminate medicaid 113381
reimbursementpayments to the provider for medicaid services 113382
rendered.113383

       The suspension shall continue in effect until the proceedings 113384
in the criminal case are completed through dismissal of the 113385
indictment or through conviction, entry of a guilty plea, or 113386
finding of not guilty. If the department commences a process to 113387
terminate the suspended provider agreement, the suspension shall 113388
also continue in effect until the termination process is 113389
concluded. 113390

       Pursuant to section 5111.06 of the Revised Code, the 113391
department is not required to take action under this division by 113392
issuing an order pursuant to an adjudication conducted in 113393
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.113394

       When subject to a suspension under this division, a provider, 113395
owner, officer, authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee 113396
shall not own or provide medicaid services to any other medicaid 113397
provider or risk contractor or arrange for, render, or order 113398
medicaid services for medicaid recipients during the period of 113399
suspension. During the period of suspension, the provider, owner, 113400
officer, authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee shall 113401
not receive reimbursement in the form of direct payments from113402
under the departmentmedicaid program or indirect payments of 113403
medicaid funds in the form of salary, shared fees, contracts, 113404
kickbacks, or rebates from or through any participatingother 113405
medicaid provider or risk contractor.113406

       (D)(1) The department shall not suspend a provider agreement 113407
or terminate medicaid reimbursementpayments under division (C) of 113408
this section if the provider or owner can demonstrate through the 113409
submission of written evidence that the provider or owner did not 113410
directly or indirectly sanction the action of its authorized 113411
agent, associate, manager, or employee that resulted in the 113412
indictment.113413

       (2) The termination of medicaid reimbursementpayments113414
applies only to payments for medicaid services rendered subsequent 113415
to the date on which the notice required under division (F) of 113416
this section is sent. Claims for reimbursementpayment for 113417
medicaid services rendered by the provider prior to the issuance 113418
of the notice may be subject to prepayment review procedures 113419
whereby the department reviews claims to determine whether they 113420
are supported by sufficient documentation, are in compliance with 113421
state and federal statutes and rules, and are otherwise complete.113422

       (E)(1) In the case of a noninstitutional medicaid provider 113423
that is not an independent provider, the suspension of a provider 113424
agreement under division (C) of this section applies when an 113425
indictment charges a person with committing an act that would be a 113426
felony or misdemeanor under the laws of this state and the act 113427
relates to or results from either of the following:113428

       (a) Furnishing or billing for medical care,medicaid113429
services, or supplies under the medicaid program;113430

       (b) Participating in the performance of management or 113431
administrative services relating to furnishing medical care,113432
medicaid services, or supplies under the medicaid program.113433

       (2) In the case of a noninstitutional medicaid provider that 113434
is an independent provider, the suspension of a provider agreement 113435
under division (C) of this section applies when an indictment 113436
charges a person with committing an act that would constitute a 113437
disqualifying offense as defined in section 5111.0325164.34 of 113438
the Revised Code.113439

       (F) Not later than five days after suspending a provider 113440
agreement under division (C) of this section, the department shall 113441
send notice of the suspension to the affected provider or owner. 113442
In providing the notice, the department shall do all of the 113443
following:113444

       (1) Describe the indictment that was the cause of the 113445
suspension, without necessarily disclosing specific information 113446
concerning any ongoing civil or criminal investigation;113447

       (2) State that the suspension will continue in effect until 113448
the proceedings in the criminal case are completed through 113449
dismissal of the indictment or through conviction, entry of a 113450
guilty plea, or finding of not guilty and, if the department 113451
commences a process to terminate the suspended provider agreement, 113452
until the termination process is concluded;113453

       (3) Inform the provider or owner of the opportunity to submit 113454
to the department, not later than thirty days after receiving the 113455
notice, a request for a reconsideration pursuant to division (G) 113456
of this section. 113457

       (G)(1) Pursuant to the procedure specified in division (G)(2) 113458
of this section, a noninstitutional medicaid provider or owner 113459
subject to a suspension under this section may request a 113460
reconsideration. The request shall be made not later than thirty 113461
days after receipt of the notice provided under division (F) of 113462
this section. The reconsideration is not subject to an 113463
adjudication hearing pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.113464

       (2) In requesting a reconsideration, the provider or owner 113465
shall submit written information and documents to the department. 113466
The information and documents may pertain to any of the following 113467
issues:113468

       (a) Whether the determination to suspend the provider 113469
agreement was based on a mistake of fact, other than the validity 113470
of the indictment;113471

       (b) Whether any offense charged in the indictment resulted 113472
from an offense specified in division (E) of this section;113473

       (c) Whether the provider or owner can demonstrate that the 113474
provider or owner did not directly or indirectly sanction the 113475
action of its authorized agent, associate, manager, or employee 113476
that resulted in the indictment.113477

       (3) The department shall review the information and documents 113478
submitted in a request for reconsideration. After the review, the 113479
suspension may be affirmed, reversed, or modified, in whole or in 113480
part. The department shall notify the affected provider or owner 113481
of the results of the review. The review and notification of its 113482
results shall be completed not later than forty-five days after 113483
receiving the information and documents submitted in a request for 113484
reconsideration.113485

       (H) The department may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 113486
119. of the Revised Code to implement this section. The rules113487
Rules adopted under section 5164.02 of the Revised Code may 113488
specify circumstances under which the department would not suspend 113489
a provider agreement pursuant to this section.113490

       Sec. 5111.06.        Sec. 5164.38.  (A)(1) As used in this section and in 113491
sections 5111.061 and 5111.063 of the Revised Code:113492

       (a) "Provider" means any person, institution, or entity that 113493
furnishes medicaid services under a provider agreement with the 113494
department of job and family services pursuant to Title XIX of the 113495
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as 113496
amended.113497

       (b) "Party" has the same meaning as in division (G) of 113498
section 119.01 of the Revised Code.113499

       (c)(1) "Adjudication" has the same meaning as in division (D) 113500
of section 119.01 of the Revised Code.113501

       (2) "Party" has the same meaning as in division (G) of 113502
section 119.01 of the Revised Code.113503

       (3) "Revalidate" means to approve a medicaid provider's 113504
continued enrollment as a medicaid provider in accordance with the 113505
revalidation process established in rules authorized by section 113506
5164.32 of the Revised Code.113507

       (B) This section does not apply to either of the following:113508

       (a)(1) Any action taken or decision made by the department of 113509
job and family servicesmedicaid with respect to entering into or 113510
refusing to enter into a contract with a managed care organization 113511
pursuant to section 5111.175167.10 of the Revised Code;113512

       (b)(2) Any action taken by the department under sections 113513
5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code.113514

       (B)(C) Except as provided in division (D)(E) of this section 113515
and section 5111.9145164.58 of the Revised Code, the department 113516
shall do eitherany of the following by issuing an order pursuant 113517
to an adjudication conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of 113518
the Revised Code:113519

       (1) Enter into or refuseRefuse to enter into a provider 113520
agreement with a medicaid provider, or suspend,;113521

       (2) Refuse to revalidate a medicaid provider's provider 113522
agreement;113523

       (3) Suspend or terminate, renew, or refuse to renew an 113524
existinga medicaid provider's provider agreement with a provider;113525

       (2)(4) Take any action based upon a final fiscal audit of a 113526
medicaid provider.113527

       (C)(D) Any party who is adversely affected by the issuance of 113528
an adjudication order under division (B)(C) of this section may 113529
appeal to the court of common pleas of Franklin county in 113530
accordance with section 119.12 of the Revised Code.113531

       (D)(E) The department is not required to comply with division 113532
(B)(C)(1), (2), or (3) of this section whenever any of the 113533
following occur:113534

       (1) The terms of a provider agreement require the medicaid113535
provider to hold a license, permit, or certificate or maintain a 113536
certification issued by an official, board, commission, 113537
department, division, bureau, or other agency of state or federal 113538
government other than the department of job and family services113539
medicaid, and the license, permit, certificate, or certification 113540
has been denied, revoked, not renewed, suspended, or otherwise 113541
limited.113542

       (2) The terms of a provider agreement require the medicaid113543
provider to hold a license, permit, or certificate or maintain 113544
certification issued by an official, board, commission, 113545
department, division, bureau, or other agency of state or federal 113546
government other than the department of job and family services113547
medicaid, and the provider has not obtained the license, permit, 113548
certificate, or certification.113549

       (3) The medicaid provider's application for a provider 113550
agreement is denied, or the provider's provider agreement is113551
terminated, or not renewed duerevalidated, because of or 113552
pursuant to theany of the following:113553

       (a) The termination, refusal to renew, or denial of a 113554
license, permit, certificate, or certification by an official, 113555
board, commission, department, division, bureau, or other agency 113556
of this state other than the department of job and family services113557
medicaid, notwithstanding the fact that the provider may hold a 113558
license, permit, certificate, or certification from an official, 113559
board, commission, department, division, bureau, or other agency 113560
of another state.113561

       (4) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 113562
renewed pursuant to division (C);113563

       (b) Division (D) or (F)(E) of section 5111.035164.35 of the 113564
Revised Code.113565

       (5) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 113566
renewed due to the;113567

       (c) The provider's termination, suspension, or exclusion from 113568
the medicare program established under Title XVIII of the "Social 113569
Security Act" or from another state's medicaid program and, in 113570
either case, the termination, suspension, or exclusion is binding 113571
on the provider's participation in the medicaid program in this 113572
state.113573

       (6) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 113574
renewed due to the;113575

       (d) The provider's pleading guilty to or being convicted of a 113576
criminal activity materially related to either the medicare or 113577
medicaid program;113578

       (e) The provider or its owner, officer, authorized agent, 113579
associate, manager, or employee having been convicted of one of 113580
the offenses that caused the provider's provider agreement to be 113581
suspended pursuant to section 5164.36 of the Revised Code;113582

       (f) The provider's failure to provide the department the 113583
national provider identifier assigned the provider by the national 113584
provider system pursuant to 45 C.F.R. 162.408.113585

       (7)(4) The medicaid provider's application for a provider 113586
agreement is denied, or the provider's provider agreement is113587
terminated, or suspended, as a result of action by the United 113588
States department of health and human services and that action is 113589
binding on the provider's medicaid participation in the medicaid 113590
program.113591

       (8)(5) Pursuant to either section 5111.0315164.36 or 113592
5111.0355164.37 of the Revised Code, the medicaid provider's113593
provider agreement is suspended and payments to the provider are 113594
suspended pending indictment of the provider.113595

       (9) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 113596
renewed because the provider or its owner, officer, authorized 113597
agent, associate, manager, or employee has been convicted of one 113598
of the offenses that caused the provider agreement to be suspended 113599
pursuant to section 5111.031 of the Revised Code.113600

       (10)(6) The medicaid provider's application for a provider 113601
agreement is denied because the provider's application was not 113602
complete;113603

       (7) The medicaid provider's provider agreement is converted 113604
under section 5111.0285164.32 of the Revised Code from a 113605
provider agreement that is not time-limited to a provider 113606
agreement that is time-limited.113607

       (11) The provider agreement is terminated or an application 113608
for re-enrollment is denied because the provider has failed to 113609
apply for re-enrollment within the time or in the manner specified 113610
for re-enrollment(8) Unless the medicaid provider is a nursing 113611
facility or ICF/IID, the provider's provider agreement is not 113612
revalidated pursuant to division (B)(1) of section 5111.028113613
5164.32 of the Revised Code.113614

       (12)(9) The medicaid provider's provider agreement is 113615
suspended or, terminated, or an application for enrollment or 113616
re-enrollment is denied, for anynot revalidated because of either 113617
of the following:113618

       (a) Any reason authorized or required by one or more of the 113619
following: 42 C.F.R. 455.106, 455.23, 455.416, 455.434, or 113620
455.450.113621

       (13) The provider agreement is terminated or not renewed 113622
because the;113623

       (b) The provider has not billed or otherwise submitted a 113624
medicaid claim to the department for two years or longer.113625

       (14) The provider agreement is denied, terminated, or not 113626
renewed because the provider fails to provide to the department 113627
the national provider identifier assigned the provider by the 113628
national provider system pursuant to 45 C.F.R. 162.408.113629

       (F) In the case of a medicaid provider described in division 113630
(D)(13)(E)(3)(f), (6), (7), or (14)(9)(b) of this section, the 113631
department may take its proposed action against a provider 113632
agreement by sending a notice explaining the proposed action to 113633
the provider. The notice shall be sent to the medicaid provider's 113634
address on record with the department. The notice may be sent by 113635
regular mail.113636

       (E)(G) The department may withhold payments for medicaid113637
services rendered by a medicaid provider under the medicaid 113638
program during the pendency of proceedings initiated under 113639
division (B)(C)(1), (2), or (3) of this section. If the 113640
proceedings are initiated under division (B)(2)(C)(4) of this 113641
section, the department may withhold payments only to the extent 113642
that they equal amounts determined in a final fiscal audit as 113643
being due the state. This division does not apply if the 113644
department fails to comply with section 119.07 of the Revised 113645
Code, requests a continuance of the hearing, or does not issue a 113646
decision within thirty days after the hearing is completed. This 113647
division does not apply to nursing facilities and intermediate 113648
care facilities for the mentally retarded as defined in section 113649
5111.20 of the Revised CodeICFs/IID.113650

       Sec. 5111.062.        Sec. 5164.39. In any action taken by the department 113651
of job and family servicesmedicaid under section 5111.065164.38113652
or 5111.0615164.57 of the Revised Code or any other provision of 113653
this chapterstate statute governing the medicaid program that 113654
requires the department to give notice of an opportunity for a 113655
hearing in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, if 113656
the department gives notice of the opportunity for a hearing but 113657
the medicaid provider or other entity subject to the notice does 113658
not request a hearing or timely request a hearing in accordance 113659
with section 119.07 of the Revised Code, the department is not 113660
required to hold a hearing. The medicaid director of job and 113661
family service may proceed by issuing a final adjudication order 113662
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.113663

       Sec. 5111.05.        Sec. 5164.45.  (A) The department of job and family 113664
servicesmedicaid may contract with any person or persons as a 113665
fiscal agent for the examination, processing, and determination of 113666
medical assistancemedicaid claims under this chapter. The 113667
contracting party may provide any of the following services, as 113668
required by the contract:113669

       (1) Design and operate medicaid management information 113670
systems, including the provision of data processing services;113671

       (2) Determine the amounts of payments to be made upon claims 113672
for medical assistancemedicaid;113673

       (3) Prepare and furnish to the department lists and computer 113674
tapes of such claims for payment;113675

       (4) In addition to audits which may be conducted by the 113676
department and by the auditor of state, make audits of providers 113677
and the claims of medicaid providers of medical assistance113678
according to the standards set forth in the contract;113679

       (5) Assist medicaid providers of medical assistance in the 113680
development of procedures relating to utilization practices, make 113681
studies of the effectiveness of such procedures and methods for 113682
their improvement, implement and enforce standards of medical 113683
policy, and assist in the application of safeguards against 113684
unnecessary utilization;113685

       (6) Assist any institution, facility, or agency to qualify as 113686
a medicaid provider of medical assistance;113687

       (7) Establish and maintain fiscal records for the medical 113688
assistancemedicaid program;113689

       (8) Perform statistical and research studies;113690

       (9) Develop and implement programs for medical assistance113691
medicaid cost containment;113692

       (10) Perform such other duties as are necessary to carry out 113693
the medical assistancemedicaid program.113694

       (B) The department of job and family services may contract 113695
with any person or persons as an insuring agent for the 113696
examination, processing, and determination of medical assistance113697
medicaid claims, as provided in division (A) of this section, and 113698
for the payment of medical assistancemedicaid claims through an 113699
underwritten program in which the state pays the insuring agent a 113700
monthly premium and the insuring agent pays for medicalmedicaid113701
services authorized under the state's medical assistance program. 113702
The person with whom the department contracts, with respect to the 113703
awarding, provisions, and performance of such contract, shall not 113704
be subject to the provisions of Title XXXIX of the Revised Code or 113705
to regulation by the department of insurance, nor to taxation as 113706
an insurance company pursuant to section 5725.18 or 5729.03 of the 113707
Revised Code. A contract with an insuring agent shall specify the 113708
qualifications, including capital and surplus requirements, and 113709
other conditions with which the insuring agent must comply.113710

       (C) In entering into a contract under this section, the 113711
department, in cooperation with the director of budget and 113712
management, shall determine that the contracting party is 113713
qualified to perform the required services and shall follow 113714
applicable procedures required of the department of administrative 113715
services in sections 125.07 to 125.11 of the Revised Code. A 113716
contract shall be awarded to the bidder who, with due 113717
consideration to the bidder's experience and financial capability, 113718
offers the lowest and best bid to the state for control of the 113719
costs of the medical assistancemedicaid program consistent with 113720
meeting the obligations under that program for fair and equitable 113721
treatment of medicaid recipients and medicaid providers of medical 113722
services. Any arrangement whereby funds are paid to an insuring or 113723
fiscal agent for administrative functions under this section 113724
shall, for the purposes of section 125.081 of the Revised Code, be 113725
deemed to be a contract or purchase by the department of 113726
administrative services; however, money to be used by an insuring 113727
agent to pay for medicalmedicaid services authorized under the 113728
state's medical assistance program shall not be deemed a contract 113729
or purchase within the meaning of such section.113730

       Sec. 5111.052.        Sec. 5164.46.  (A) As used in this section, 113731
"electronic claims submission process" means any of the following:113732

       (1) Electronic interchange of data;113733

       (2) Direct entry of data through an internet-based mechanism 113734
implemented by the department of job and family servicesmedicaid;113735

       (3) Any other process for the electronic submission of claims 113736
that is specified in rules adopted under this section 5162.02 of 113737
the Revised Code.113738

       (B) Not later than January 1, 2013, and except as provided in 113739
division (C) of this section, each medicaid provider of services 113740
to medicaid recipients shall do both of the following:113741

       (1) Use only an electronic claims submission process to 113742
submit to the department of job and family servicesmedicaid113743
claims for medicaid reimbursementpayment for medicaid services 113744
provided to medicaid recipients;113745

       (2) Arrange to receive medicaid reimbursementpayment from 113746
the department by means of electronic funds transfer.113747

       (C) Division (B) of this section does not apply to any of the 113748
following:113749

       (1) A nursing facility, as defined in section 5111.20 of the 113750
Revised Code;113751

       (2) An intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded, 113752
as defined in section 5111.20 of the Revised CodeICF/IID;113753

       (3) A medicaid managed care organization under contract with 113754
the department pursuant to section 5111.17 of the Revised Code;113755

       (4) Any other medicaid provider or type of medicaid provider 113756
designated in rules adopted under this section 5162.02 of the 113757
Revised Code.113758

       (D) The department shall not process a medicaid claim 113759
submitted on or after January 1, 2013, unless the claim is 113760
submitted through an electronic claims submission process in 113761
accordance with this section.113762

       (E) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 113763
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as the 113764
director considers necessary to implement this section.113765

       Sec. 5111.054.        Sec. 5164.47.  (A) As used in this section:113766

       (1) "Federal financial participation" means the federal 113767
government's share of expenditures made by an entity in 113768
implementing the medicaid program.113769

       (2), "OCHSPS" means the private, not-for-profit corporation 113770
known as the Ohio children's hospital solutions for patient 113771
safety, which was formed for the purpose of improving pediatric 113772
patient care in this state, which performs functions that are 113773
included within the functions of a peer review committee as 113774
defined in section 2305.25 of the Revised Code, and which consists 113775
of all of the following members: Akron children's hospital, 113776
Cincinnati children's hospital medical center, Cleveland clinic 113777
children's hospital, Dayton children's medical center, mercy 113778
children's hospital, nationwide children's hospital, rainbow 113779
babies & children's hospital, and Toledo children's hospital.113780

       (B) If, as authorized by section 5101.105160.10 of the 113781
Revised Code, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid 113782
director chooses to contract with a person to perform either or 113783
both of the following services, itthe director may contract with 113784
any qualified person, including OCHSPS, to perform the service or 113785
services on the department's behalf of the department of medicaid:113786

       (1) Review and analyze claims for medical assistance made 113787
under this chaptermedicaid services provided to children in 113788
accordance with all state and federal laws governing the 113789
confidentiality of patient-identifying information;113790

       (2) Perform quality assurance and quality review functions, 113791
other than those described in division (B)(1) of this section, 113792
related to medical assistance made under this chaptermedicaid 113793
services provided to children. 113794

       The functions specified in division (B)(2) of this section 113795
may include those recommended by the best evidence for advancing 113796
child health in Ohio now (BEACON) council. 113797

       (C) If the departmentdirector enters into a contract with 113798
OCHSPS for OCHSPS to perform either or both of the services 113799
described in division (B) of this section, OCHSPS shall, only for 113800
purposes of section 5101.115160.12 of the Revised Code, be 113801
considered a public entity and the departmentdirector shall seek 113802
federal financial participation for costs incurred by OCHSPS in 113803
performing the service or services.113804

       Sec. 5111.051.        Sec. 5164.48.  The medicaid director of job and 113805
family services may submit a medicaid state plan amendment or 113806
request for a federal waiver to the United States secretary of 113807
health and human services as necessary to implement, at the 113808
director's discretion, a system under which medicaid payments for 113809
medical assistance provided under the medicaid programservices113810
are made to an organization on behalf of themedicaid providers of 113811
the medical assistance. The system may not provide for an 113812
organization to receive an amount that exceeds, in aggregate, the 113813
amount the departmentmedicaid program would have paid directly to 113814
themedicaid providers if not for this section.113815

       Sec. 5164.55.  The department of medicaid may conduct final 113816
fiscal audits of medicaid providers in accordance with the 113817
applicable requirements set forth in federal laws and regulations 113818
and determine any amounts the provider may owe the state. When 113819
conducting final fiscal audits, the department shall consider 113820
generally accepted auditing standards, which include the use of 113821
statistical sampling.113822

       Sec. 5111.022.        Sec. 5164.56.  Under the medicaid program, any 113823
amount determined to be owed the state by a final fiscal audit 113824
conducted pursuant to division (D) of section 5111.0215164.55 of 113825
the Revised Code, upon the issuance of an adjudication order 113826
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that contains a 113827
finding that there is a preponderance of the evidence that thea 113828
medicaid provider will liquidate assets or file bankruptcy in 113829
order to prevent payment of the amount determined to be owed the 113830
state, becomes a lien upon the real and personal property of the 113831
provider. Upon failure of the provider to pay the amount to the 113832
state, the medicaid director of job and family services shall file 113833
notice of the lien, for which there shall be no charge, in the 113834
office of the county recorder of the county in which it is 113835
ascertained that the provider owns real or personal property. The 113836
director shall notify the provider by mail of the lien, but 113837
absence of proof that the notice was sent does not affect the 113838
validity of the lien. The lien is not valid as against the claim 113839
of any mortgagee, pledgee, purchaser, judgment creditor, or other 113840
lienholder of record at the time the notice is filed.113841

       If the provider acquires real or personal property after 113842
notice of the lien is filed, the lien shall not be valid as 113843
against the claim of any mortgagee, pledgee, subsequent bona fide 113844
purchaser for value, judgment creditor, or other lienholder of 113845
record to such after-acquired property unless the notice of lien 113846
is refiled after the property is acquired by the provider and 113847
before the competing lien attaches to the after-acquired property 113848
or before the conveyance to the subsequent bona fide purchaser for 113849
value.113850

       When the amount has been paid, the provider may record with 113851
the recorder notice of the payment. For recording such notice of 113852
payment, the recorder shall charge and receive from the provider a 113853
base fee of one dollar for services and a housing trust fund fee 113854
of one dollar pursuant to section 317.36 of the Revised Code.113855

       In the event of a distribution of athe provider's assets 113856
pursuant to an order of any court under the law of this state 113857
including any receivership, assignment for benefit of creditors, 113858
adjudicated insolvency, or similar proceedings, amounts then or 113859
thereafter due the state under this chapterthe medicaid program113860
have the same priority as provided by law for the payment of taxes 113861
due the state and shall be paid out of the receivership trust fund 113862
or other such trust fund in the same manner as provided for claims 113863
for unpaid taxes due the state.113864

       If the attorney general finds after investigation that any 113865
amount due the state under this chapterthe medicaid program is 113866
uncollectable, in whole or in part, the attorney general shall 113867
recommend to the director the cancellation of all or part of the 113868
claim. The director may thereupon effect the cancellation.113869

       Sec. 5111.061.        Sec. 5164.57. (A) As used in this section, 113870
"adjudication" has the same meaning as in section 119.01 of the 113871
Revised Code.113872

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (A)(B)(2) of this 113873
section, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid may 113874
recover a medicaid payment or portion of a payment made to a 113875
medicaid provider to which the provider is not entitled if the 113876
department notifies the provider of the overpayment during the 113877
five-year period immediately following the end of the state fiscal 113878
year in which the overpayment was made.113879

       (2) In the case of a hospital medicaid provider, if the 113880
department determines as a result of a medicare or medicaid cost 113881
report settlement that the provider received an amount under the 113882
medicaid program to which the provider is not entitled, the 113883
department may recover the overpayment if the department notifies 113884
the provider of the overpayment during the later of the following:113885

       (a) The five-year period immediately following the end of the 113886
state fiscal year in which the overpayment was made;113887

       (b) The one-year period immediately following the date the 113888
department receives from the United States centers for medicare 113889
and medicaid services a completed, audited, medicare cost report 113890
for the provider that applies to the state fiscal year in which 113891
the overpayment was made.113892

       (B)(C) Among the overpayments that may be recovered under 113893
this section are the following:113894

       (1) Payment for a medicaid service, or a day of service, not 113895
rendered;113896

       (2) Payment for a day of service at a full per diem rate that 113897
should have been paid at a percentage of the full per diem rate;113898

       (3) Payment for a medicaid service, or day of service, that 113899
was paid by, or partially paid by, a third party, as defined in 113900
section 5101.5715160.35 of the Revised Code, and the third 113901
party's payment or partial payment was not offset against the 113902
amount paid by the medicaid program to reduce or eliminate the 113903
amount that was paid by the medicaid program;113904

       (4) Payment when a medicaid recipient's responsibility for 113905
payment was understated and resulted in an overpayment to the 113906
provider.113907

       (C)(D) The department may recover an overpayment under this 113908
section prior to or after any of the following:113909

       (1) Adjudication of a final fiscal audit that section 5111.06113910
5164.38 of the Revised Code requires to be conducted in accordance 113911
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code;113912

       (2) Adjudication of a finding under any other provision of 113913
this chapterstate statutes governing the medicaid program or the 113914
rules adopted under itthose statutes;113915

       (3) Expiration of the time to issue a final fiscal audit that 113916
section 5111.065164.38 of the Revised Code requires to be 113917
conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code;113918

       (4) Expiration of the time to issue a finding under any other 113919
provision of this chapterstate statutes governing the medicaid 113920
program or the rules adopted under itthose statutes.113921

       (D)(E)(1) Subject to division (D)(E)(2) of this section, the 113922
recovery of an overpayment under this section does not preclude 113923
the department from subsequently doing the following:113924

       (a) Issuing a final fiscal audit in accordance with Chapter 113925
119. of the Revised Code, as required under section 5111.06113926
5164.38 of the Revised Code;113927

       (b) Issuing a finding under any other provision of this 113928
chapterstate statutes governing the medicaid program or the rules 113929
adopted under itthose statutes.113930

       (2) A final fiscal audit or finding issued subsequent to the 113931
recovery of an overpayment under this section shall be reduced by 113932
the amount of the prior recovery, as appropriate.113933

       (E)(F) Nothing in this section limits the department's 113934
authority to recover overpayments pursuant to any other provision 113935
of the Revised Code.113936

       Sec. 5111.914.        Sec. 5164.58. (A) As used in this section, 113937
"provider" has the same meaning as in section 5111.06 of the 113938
Revised Code.113939

       (B) If a state agency that enters into a contract with the 113940
department of job and family servicesmedicaid under section 113941
5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code identifies that a medicaid 113942
overpayment has been made to a medicaid provider, the state agency 113943
may commence actions to recover the overpayment on behalf of the 113944
department.113945

       (C)(B) In recovering an overpayment pursuant to this section, 113946
a state agency shall comply with the following procedures:113947

       (1) The state agency shall attempt to recover the overpayment 113948
by notifying the medicaid provider of the overpayment and 113949
requesting voluntary repayment. Not later than five business days 113950
after notifying the medicaid provider, the state agency shall 113951
notify the department in writing of the overpayment. The state 113952
agency may negotiate a settlement of the overpayment and notify 113953
the department of the settlement. A settlement negotiated by the 113954
state agency is not valid and shall not be implemented until the 113955
department has given its written approval of the settlement.113956

       (2) If the state agency is unable to obtain voluntary 113957
repayment of an overpayment, the agency shall give the medicaid113958
provider notice of an opportunity for a hearing in accordance with 113959
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. If the medicaid provider timely 113960
requests a hearing in accordance with section 119.07 of the 113961
Revised Code, the state agency shall conduct the hearing to 113962
determine the legal and factual validity of the overpayment. On 113963
completion of the hearing, the state agency shall submit its 113964
hearing officer's report and recommendation and the complete 113965
record of proceedings, including all transcripts, to the medicaid113966
director of job and family services for final adjudication. The 113967
director may issue a final adjudication order in accordance with 113968
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The state agency shall pay any 113969
attorney's fees imposed under section 119.092 of the Revised Code. 113970
The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall pay any 113971
attorney's fees imposed under section 2335.39 of the Revised Code.113972

       (D)(C) In any action taken by a state agency under this 113973
section that requires the agency to give notice of an opportunity 113974
for a hearing in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 113975
if the agency gives notice of the opportunity for a hearing but 113976
the medicaid provider subject to the notice does not request a 113977
hearing or timely request a hearing in accordance with section 113978
119.07 of the Revised Code, the agency is not required to hold a 113979
hearing. The agency may request that the medicaid director of job 113980
and family services issue a final adjudication order in accordance 113981
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.113982

       (E)(D) This section does not preclude the department of job 113983
and family servicesmedicaid from adjudicating a final fiscal 113984
audit under section 5111.065164.38 of the Revised Code, 113985
recovering overpayments under section 5111.0615164.57 of the 113986
Revised Code, or making findings or taking other actions 113987
authorized by this chapterstate statutes governing the medicaid 113988
program.113989

       Sec. 5164.59.  The department of medicaid may deduct from 113990
medicaid payments for medicaid services rendered by a medicaid 113991
provider any amounts the provider owes the state as the result of 113992
incorrect medicaid payments the department has made to the 113993
provider.113994

       Sec. 5164.60. (A) As used in this section, "recovery audit 113995
contractor program" means the program that must be established 113996
under the "Social Security Act," section 1902(a)(42)(B), 42 U.S.C. 113997
1396a(a)(42)(B).113998

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, any 113999
medicaid provider who, without intent, obtains payments under the 114000
medicaid program in excess of the amount to which the provider is 114001
entitled is liable for payment of interest on the amount of the 114002
excess payments at the maximum interest rate allowable for real 114003
estate mortgages under section 1343.01 of the Revised Code on the 114004
date the payment was made to the provider for the period from the 114005
date on which payment was made to the date on which repayment is 114006
made to the state.114007

       (C) Division (B) of this section does not apply to an excess 114008
payment identified under the recovery audit contractor program if 114009
the medicaid provider who obtains the excess payment repays the 114010
excess payment in full not later than thirty days after receiving 114011
notice of the excess payment.114012

       Sec. 5164.61.  The authority, under state and federal law, of 114013
the department of medicaid or a county department of job and 114014
family services to recover excess medicaid payments made to a 114015
medicaid provider is not limited by the availability of remedies 114016
under sections 5162.21 and 5162.23 of the Revised Code for 114017
recovering benefits paid on behalf of medicaid recipients.114018

       Sec. 5111.021.        Sec. 5164.70. Under the medicaid program:114019

       (A) Except as otherwise required by federal statute or 114020
regulation, the department of job and family services shall not 114021
reimburse a medical providerno medicaid payment for any medical 114022
assistance rendered under the program an amount that exceeds114023
medicaid service shall exceed the following:114024

       (1)(A) If the medicaid provider is a hospital, nursing 114025
facility, or intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded114026
ICF/IID, the limits established under Subpart C of 42 C.F.R. Part 114027
447;114028

       (2)(B) If the medicaid provider is other than a provider 114029
described in division (A)(1) of this section, the authorized 114030
reimbursementpayment limits for the same service under the 114031
medicare program established under Title XVIII of the "Social 114032
Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as amended.114033

       (B) Reimbursement for freestanding medical laboratory charges 114034
shall not exceed the customary and usual fee for laboratory 114035
profiles.114036

       (C) The department may deduct from payments for services 114037
rendered by a medicaid provider under the medicaid program any 114038
amounts the provider owes the state as the result of incorrect 114039
medicaid payments the department has made to the provider.114040

       (D) The department may conduct final fiscal audits in 114041
accordance with the applicable requirements set forth in federal 114042
laws and regulations and determine any amounts the provider may 114043
owe the state. When conducting final fiscal audits, the department 114044
shall consider generally accepted auditing standards, which 114045
include the use of statistical sampling.114046

       (E) The number of days of inpatient hospital care for which 114047
reimbursement is made on behalf of a medicaid recipient to a 114048
hospital that is not paid under a diagnostic-related-group 114049
prospective payment system shall not exceed thirty days during a 114050
period beginning on the day of the recipient's admission to the 114051
hospital and ending sixty days after the termination of that 114052
hospital stay, except that the department may make exceptions to 114053
this limitation. The limitation does not apply to children 114054
participating in the program for medically handicapped children 114055
established under section 3701.023 of the Revised Code.114056

       (F) The division of any reimbursement between a collaborating 114057
physician or podiatrist and a clinical nurse specialist, certified 114058
nurse-midwife, or certified nurse practitioner for services 114059
performed by the nurse shall be determined and agreed on by the 114060
nurse and collaborating physician or podiatrist. In no case shall 114061
reimbursement exceed the payment that the physician or podiatrist 114062
would have received had the physician or podiatrist provided the 114063
entire service.114064

       Sec. 5164.71.  Medicaid payments for freestanding medical 114065
laboratory charges shall not exceed the customary and usual fee 114066
for laboratory profiles.114067

       Sec. 5164.72.  The number of days of inpatient hospital care 114068
for which a medicaid payment is made on behalf of a medicaid 114069
recipient to a hospital that is not paid under a 114070
diagnostic-related-group prospective payment system shall not 114071
exceed thirty days during a period beginning on the day of the 114072
recipient's admission to the hospital and ending sixty days after 114073
the termination of that hospital stay, except that the department 114074
of medicaid may make exceptions to this limitation. The limitation 114075
does not apply to children participating in the program for 114076
medically handicapped children established under section 3701.023 114077
of the Revised Code.114078

       Sec. 5164.73.  The division of any medicaid payment between a 114079
collaborating physician or podiatrist and a clinical nurse 114080
specialist, certified nurse-midwife, or certified nurse 114081
practitioner for services performed by the nurse shall be 114082
determined and agreed on by the nurse and collaborating physician 114083
or podiatrist. In no case shall the medicaid payment exceed the 114084
medicaid payment that the physician or podiatrist would have 114085
received had the physician or podiatrist provided the entire 114086
service.114087

       Sec. 5111.19.        Sec. 5164.74.  The medicaid director of job and 114088
family services shall adopt rules under section 5164.02 of the 114089
Revised Code governing the calculation and payment of, and the 114090
allocation of payments for, graduate medical education costs 114091
associated with medicaid services rendered to medicaid recipients 114092
after June 30, 1994. Subject to section 5111.1915164.741 of the 114093
Revised Code, the rules shall provide for reimbursementpayment114094
of graduate medical education costs associated with medicaid114095
services rendered to medicaid recipients, including recipients 114096
enrolled in a medicaid managed care organization under contract 114097
with the department office under section 5111.17 of the Revised 114098
Code, that the department of medicaid determines are allowable and 114099
reasonable.114100

       If the department requires a managed care organization to pay 114101
a provider for graduate medical education costs associated with 114102
the delivery of services to medicaid recipients enrolled in the 114103
organization, the department shall include in its payment to the 114104
organization an amount sufficient for the organization to pay such 114105
costs. If the department does not include in its payments to the 114106
managed care organization amounts for graduate medical education 114107
costs of providers, all of the following apply:114108

       (A) Except as provided in section 5111.191 of the Revised 114109
Code, the department shall pay the provider for graduate medical 114110
education costs associated with the delivery of services to 114111
medicaid recipients enrolled in the organization;114112

       (B) No provider shall seek reimbursement from the 114113
organization for such costs;114114

       (C) The organization is not required to pay providers for 114115
such costs.114116

       Sec. 5111.191.        Sec. 5164.741.  (A) Except as provided in division 114117
(B) of this section, the department of job and family services114118
medicaid may deny medicaid payment to a hospital for direct 114119
graduate medical education costs associated with the delivery of 114120
medicaid services to any medicaid recipient if the hospital 114121
refuses without good cause to contract with a medicaid managed 114122
care organization that serves participants in the care management 114123
system established under section 5111.16 of the Revised Code who 114124
are required to be enrolled in a managed care organization and the 114125
managed care organization serves the area in which the hospital is 114126
located.114127

       (B) A hospital is not subject to division (A) of this section 114128
if all of the following are the case:114129

        (1) The hospital is located in a county in which participants 114130
in the care management system are required before January 1, 2006, 114131
to be enrolled in a medicaid managed care organization that is a 114132
health insuring corporation.114133

        (2) The hospital has entered into a contract before January 114134
1, 2006, with at least one health insuring corporation serving the 114135
participants specified in division (B)(1) of this section.114136

        (3) The hospital remains under contract with at least one 114137
health insuring corporation serving participants in the care 114138
management system who are required to be enrolled in a health 114139
insuring corporation.114140

       (C) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 114141
specify in the rules adopted under section 5111.195164.02 of the 114142
Revised Code what constitutes good cause for a hospital to refuse 114143
to contract with a medicaid managed care organization.114144

       Sec. 5111.086.        Sec. 5164.75.  As used in this section, "federal 114145
upper reimbursement limit" means the limit established pursuant to 114146
section 1927(e) of the "Social Security Act," 104 Stat. 1388-151 114147
(1990)section 1927(e), 42 U.S.C. 1396r-8(e), as amended.114148

       The medicaid payment for a drug that is subject to a federal 114149
upper reimbursement limit shall not exceed, in the aggregate, the 114150
federal upper reimbursement limit for the drug. The director of 114151
job and family services shall adopt rules under section 5111.02 of 114152
the Revised Code as necessary to implement this section.114153

       Sec. 5111.082.        Sec. 5164.751. (A) As used in this section:114154

       (1) "State, "state maximum allowable cost" means the per unit 114155
amount the department of job and family services reimburses114156
medicaid program pays a terminal distributor of dangerous drugs 114157
for a prescriptionprescribed drug included in the state maximum 114158
allowable cost program established under division (B) of this 114159
section. "State maximum allowable cost" excludes dispensing fees 114160
and copayments, coinsurance, or other cost-sharing charges, if 114161
any.114162

        (2) "Terminal distributor of dangerous drugs" has the same 114163
meaning as in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code.114164

        (B) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 114165
establish a state maximum allowable cost program for purposes of 114166
managing reimbursementmedicaid payments to terminal distributors 114167
of dangerous drugs for prescriptionprescribed drugs identified by 114168
the director pursuant to this division. The director shall do all 114169
of the following with respect to the program:114170

        (1) Identify and create a list of prescription prescribed114171
drugs to be included in the program.114172

        (2) Update the list of prescriptionprescribed drugs 114173
described in division (B)(1) of this section on a weekly basis.114174

        (3) Review the state maximum allowable cost for each 114175
prescribed drug included on the list described in division (B)(1) 114176
of this section on a weekly basis.114177

       (C) The director may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 114178
119. of the Revised Code to implement this section.114179

       Sec. 5111.07.        Sec. 5164.752. Commencing inIn July, 1986, andof114180
every second July thereaftereven-numbered year, the department 114181
of job and family servicesmedicaid shall initiate a private114182
confidential survey of retail pharmacy operationsthe cost of 114183
dispensing drugs incurred by terminal distributors of dangerous 114184
drugs in thethis state. The survey shall be used as the basis for 114185
establishing a current maximumthe medicaid program's dispensing 114186
fee for licensed pharmacists who are providers of drugs under this 114187
chapter. Theterminal distributors in accordance with section 114188
5164.753 of the Revised Code. The survey shall be completed and 114189
its results published not later than the last day of October of 114190
the year in which it is conducted.114191

        Each terminal distributor that is a provider of drugs under 114192
the medicaid program shall participate in the survey. Except as 114193
necessary to publish the survey's results, a terminal 114194
distributor's responses to the survey are confidential and not a 114195
public record under section 149.43 of the Revised Code.114196

        The survey shall be conducted in conformance with the 114197
requirements set forth in 42 C.F.R. 447.331 through 447.333, as 114198
amended or superseded, and447.500 to 447.518. The survey shall 114199
include operational data and direct prescription expenses, 114200
professional services and personnel costs, and usual and 114201
customary overhead expenses, and profit data of the retail 114202
pharmaciesterminal distributors surveyed. The survey shall be 114203
completed and its results published no later than the last day of 114204
October of the year in which the survey is conducted, and the114205
survey shall compute and report the cost of dispensing fees on a 114206
basis of the usual and customary charges by retail pharmacies114207
terminal distributors to their customers for dispensing drugs. The 114208
director of job and family services shall take into account the 114209
results of the survey in establishing a dispensing fee.114210

       Sec. 5111.071.        Sec. 5164.753. Commencing inIn December, 1986, and114211
of every second December thereaftereven-numbered year, the 114212
medicaid director of job and family services shall establish a 114213
dispensing fee, effective the following JanuaryJuly, for licensed 114214
pharmacists whoterminal distributors of dangerous drugs that are 114215
providers of drugs under this chapterthe medicaid program. TheIn 114216
establishing the dispensing fee, the director shall take into 114217
consideration the results of the survey conducted under section 114218
5111.075164.752 of the Revised Code.114219

       The director may reduce the amount of the dispensing fee 114220
provided to a terminal distributor that fails to fully comply with 114221
the requirement of section 5164.752 of the Revised Code that the 114222
distributor participate in the survey. In establishing the amount 114223
of the reduction, the director may take into account the extent to 114224
which the terminal distributor failed to fully participated in the 114225
survey.114226

       Sec. 5111.0114.        Sec. 5164.754. (A) As used in this section, 114227
"dangerous drug" and "manufacturer of dangerous drugs" have the 114228
same meaning as in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code.114229

        (B) The medicaid director of job and family services may 114230
enter into or administer an agreement or cooperative arrangement 114231
with other states to create or join a multiple-state prescription 114232
drug purchasing program for the purpose of negotiating with 114233
manufacturers of dangerous drugs to receive discounts or rebates 114234
for dangerous drugs dispensed undercovered by the medicaid 114235
program.114236

       Sec. 5111.081.        Sec. 5164.755.  The medicaid director of job and 114237
family services, in rules adopted under section 5111.025164.02 of 114238
the Revised Code, may establish and implement a supplemental drug 114239
rebate program under which drug manufacturers may be required to 114240
provide the department of job and family servicesmedicaid a 114241
supplemental rebate as a condition of having the drug 114242
manufacturers' drug products covered by the medicaid program 114243
without prior approval. The department may receive a supplemental 114244
rebate negotiated under the program for a drug dispensed to a 114245
medicaid recipient pursuant to a prescription or a drug purchased 114246
by a medicaid provider for administration to a medicaid recipient 114247
in the provider's primary place of business. If necessary, the 114248
director may apply to the United States secretary of health and 114249
human services for a waiver of federal statutes and regulations to 114250
establish the supplemental drug rebate program.114251

       If the director establishes a supplemental drug rebate 114252
program, the director shall consult with drug manufacturers 114253
regarding the establishment and implementation of the program.114254

       Sec. 5101.31.        Sec. 5164.756. Any record, data, pricing information, 114255
or other information regarding a drug rebate agreement or a 114256
supplemental drug rebate agreement for the medicaid program 114257
established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code that the 114258
department of job and family servicesmedicaid receives from a 114259
pharmaceutical manufacturer or creates pursuant to negotiation of 114260
the agreement is not a public record under section 149.43 of the 114261
Revised Code and shall be treated by the department as 114262
confidential information.114263

       Sec. 5111.083.        Sec. 5164.757. (A) As used in this section, 114264
"licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs" has 114265
the same meaning as in section 4729.01 of the Revised Code.114266

        (B) The medicaid director of job and family services may 114267
establish anacquire or specify technologies to provide 114268
information regarding medicaid recipient eligibility, claims 114269
history, and drug coverage to medicaid providers through 114270
electronic health record and e-prescribing system for the 114271
medicaid program under whichapplications.114272

        If such technologies are acquired or specified, the 114273
e-prescribing applications shall enable a medicaid provider who 114274
is a licensed health professional authorized to prescribe drugs 114275
shallto use an electronic system to prescribe a drug for a 114276
medicaid recipient when required to do so by division (C) of this 114277
section. The e-prescribingpurpose of the electronic system shall114278
is to eliminate the need for such medicaid providers to makeissue114279
prescriptions for medicaid recipients by handwriting or telephone. 114280
The e-prescribing systemtechnologies acquired or specified by the 114281
director also shall provide such medicaid providers with an 114282
up-to-date, clinically relevant drug information database and a 114283
system of electronically monitoring medicaid recipients' medical 114284
history, drug regimen compliance, and fraud and abuse.114285

       (C) If the director establishes an e-prescribing system under 114286
division (B) of this section, the director shall do all of the 114287
following:114288

       (1) Require that a medicaid provider who is a licensed health 114289
professional authorized to prescribe drugs use the e-prescribing 114290
system during a fiscal year if the medicaid provider was one of 114291
the ten medicaid providers who, during the calendar year that 114292
precedes that fiscal year, issued the most prescriptions for 114293
medicaid recipients receiving hospital services;114294

       (2) Before the beginning of each fiscal year, determine the 114295
ten medicaid providers that issued the most prescriptions for 114296
medicaid recipients receiving hospital services during the 114297
calendar year that precedes the upcoming fiscal year and notify 114298
those medicaid providers that they must use the e-prescribing 114299
system for the upcoming fiscal year;114300

       (3) Seek the most federal financial participation available 114301
for the development and implementation of the e-prescribing 114302
system.114303

       Sec. 5111.085.        Sec. 5164.758. Not later than July 1, 2012, the 114304
department of job and family servicesThe medicaid director shall 114305
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5164.02114306
of the Revised Code to implement a coordinated services program 114307
for medicaid recipients who are found to have obtained 114308
prescriptionprescribed drugs under the medicaid program at a 114309
frequency or in an amount that is not medically necessary. The 114310
program shall be implemented in a manner that is consistent with 114311
section 1915(a)(2) of the "Social Security Act," 95 Stat. 810 114312
(1981)section 1915(a)(2), 42 U.S.C. 1396n(a)(2), as amended, and 114313
42 C.F.R. 431.54(e).114314

       Sec. 5111.08.        Sec. 5164.759.  In accordance with subsection (g) of 114315
section 1927 of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 320 (1935)114316
section 1927(g), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396r-8(g), as amended, the 114317
department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall establish an 114318
outpatient drug use review program to assure that prescriptions 114319
obtained by medicaid recipients of medical assistance under this 114320
chapter are appropriate, medically necessary, and unlikely to 114321
cause adverse medical results.114322

       Sec. 5111.084.        Sec. 5164.7510.  (A) There is hereby established the 114323
pharmacy and therapeutics committee of the department of job and 114324
family servicesmedicaid. The committee shall assist the 114325
department with developing and maintaining a preferred drug list 114326
for the medicaid program.114327

       The committee shall review and recommend to the medicaid114328
director of job and family services the drugs that should be 114329
included on the preferred drug list. The recommendations shall be 114330
made based on the evaluation of competent evidence regarding the 114331
relative safety, efficacy, and effectiveness of prescription114332
prescribed drugs within a class or classes of prescription114333
prescribed drugs.114334

       (B) The committee shall consist of ten members and shall be 114335
appointed by the medicaid director of job and family services. The 114336
director shall seek recommendations for membership from relevant 114337
professional organizations. A candidate for membership recommended 114338
by a professional organization shall have professional experience 114339
working with medicaid recipients.114340

       The membership of the committee shall include:114341

       (1) Three pharmacists licensed under Chapter 4729. of the 114342
Revised Code;114343

       (2) Two doctors of medicine and two doctors of osteopathy who 114344
hold certificates to practice issued under Chapter 4731. of the 114345
Revised Code, one of whom is a family practice physician;114346

       (3) A registered nurse licensed under Chapter 4723. of the 114347
Revised Code;114348

       (4) A pharmacologist who has a doctoral degree;114349

       (5) A psychiatrist who holds a certificate to practice issued 114350
under Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code and specializes in 114351
psychiatry.114352

       (C) The committee shall elect from among its members a 114353
chairperson. Five committee members constitute a quorum.114354

       The committee shall establish guidelines necessary for the 114355
committee's operation.114356

       The committee may establish one or more subcommittees to 114357
investigate and analyze issues consistent with the duties of the 114358
committee under this section. The subcommittees may submit 114359
proposals regarding the issues to the committee and the committee 114360
may adopt, reject, or modify the proposals.114361

       A vote by a majority of a quorum is necessary to make 114362
recommendations to the director. In the case of a tie, the 114363
chairperson shall decide the outcome.114364

       (D) The director shall act on the committee's recommendations 114365
not later than thirty days after the recommendation is posted on 114366
the department's web site under division (F) of this section. If 114367
the director does not accept a recommendation of the committee, 114368
the director shall present the basis for this determination not 114369
later than fourteen days after making the determination or at the 114370
next scheduled meeting of the committee, whichever is sooner. 114371

       (E) An interested party may request, and shall be permitted, 114372
to make a presentation or submit written materials to the 114373
committee during a committee meeting. The presentation or other 114374
materials shall be relevant to an issue under consideration by the 114375
committee and any written material, including a transcript of 114376
testimony to be given on the day of the meeting, may be submitted 114377
to the committee in advance of the meeting.114378

       (F) The department shall post the following on the 114379
department's web site:114380

       (1) Guidelines established by the committee under division 114381
(C) of this section;114382

       (2) A detailed committee agenda not later than fourteen days 114383
prior to the date of a regularly scheduled meeting and not later 114384
than seventy-two hours prior to the date of a special meeting 114385
called by the committee;114386

       (3) Committee recommendations not later than seven days after 114387
the meeting at which the recommendation was approved;114388

       (4) The director's final determination as to the 114389
recommendations made by the committee under this section.114390

       Sec. 5111.025.        Sec. 5164.76. (A) In rules adopted under section 114391
5111.025164.02 of the Revised Code, the medicaid director of job 114392
and family services shall modify the manner or establish a new 114393
manner in which the following are paid under medicaid:114394

        (1) Community mental health agenciesservice providers or 114395
facilities for providing community mental health services included 114396
incovered by the state medicaid planprogram pursuant to section 114397
5111.0235164.15 of the Revised Code;114398

        (2) Providers of alcohol and drug addiction services for 114399
providing alcohol and drug addiction services included incovered 114400
by the medicaid program pursuant to rules adopted under section 114401
5111.02 of the Revised Code.114402

       (B) The director's authority to modify the manner, or to 114403
establish a new manner, for medicaid to pay for the services 114404
specified in division (A) of this section is not limited by any 114405
rules adopted under section 5111.02 or 5119.615119.22 or 5164.02114406
of the Revised Code that are in effect on June 26, 2003, and 114407
govern the way medicaid pays for those services. This is the case 114408
regardless of what state agency adopted the rules.114409

       Sec. 5111.0213.        Sec. 5164.77.  (A) As used in this section:114410

       (1) "Aide services" means all of the following:114411

       (a) Home health aide services available under the home health 114412
services benefit pursuant to 42 C.F.R. 440.70(b)(2);114413

       (b) Home care attendant services available under a home and 114414
community-based services medicaid waiver component;114415

       (c) Personal care aide services available under a home and 114416
community-based services medicaid waiver component.114417

       (2) "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver 114418
component" has the same meaning as in section 5111.85 of the 114419
Revised Code.114420

       (3) "Independent provider" means an individual who personally 114421
provides aide services or nursing services and is not employed by, 114422
under contract with, or affiliated with another entity that 114423
provides those services.114424

       (4)(3) "Nursing services" means all of the following:114425

       (a) Nursing services available under the home health services 114426
benefit pursuant to 42 C.F.R. 440.70(b)(1);114427

       (b) Private duty nursing services as defined in 42 C.F.R. 114428
440.80;114429

       (c) Nursing services available under a home and 114430
community-based services medicaid waiver component.114431

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 114432
do bothall of the following:114433

       (1) Effective October 1, 2011, reduce the medicaid program's 114434
first-hour-unit price for aide services to ninety-seven per cent 114435
of the price paid on June 30, 2011, and for nursing services to 114436
ninety-five per cent of the price paid on June 30, 2011;114437

       (2) Effective October 1, 2011, pay for a service that is an 114438
aide service or a nursing service provided by an independent 114439
provider eighty per cent of the price it pays for the same service 114440
provided by a provider that is not an independent provider;114441

       (3) Not sooner than July 1, 2012, adjust the medicaid 114442
reimbursementpayment rates for aide services and nursing services 114443
in a manner that reflects, at a minimum, labor market data, 114444
education and licensure status, home health agency and independent 114445
provider status, and length of service visit.114446

       (C) The department shall strive to have the adjustment made 114447
under division (B)(3) of this section go into effect on July 1, 114448
2012. The reductions made under divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this 114449
section shall remain in effect until the adjustment made under 114450
division (B)(3) of this section goes into effect.114451

       (D) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 114452
under sections 5111.02 and 5111.85 of the Revised Code as 114453
necessary to implement this section.114454

       Sec. 5164.78. (A) The medicaid payment rates for physician, 114455
pregnancy-related, evaluation, and management services provided by 114456
a physician group practice meeting the requirements of division 114457
(B) of this section shall be determined in accordance with rule 114458
5101:3-1-60.1 of the Administrative Code as the rule is in effect 114459
on the day immediately preceding the effective date of this 114460
section.114461

        (B) A physician group practice meets the requirements of this 114462
division if both of the following apply to the practice:114463

        (1) The practice is physically attached to a hospital that 114464
does not provide physician clinic outpatient services and the 114465
practice and hospital have signed a letter of agreement providing 114466
for the practice to provide outpatient hospital clinic services 114467
for the hospital.114468

        (2) The medicaid provider utilization summary for calendar 114469
year 1990 establishes that the practice provided both of the 114470
following that year:114471

        (a) At least forty per cent of the total number of medicaid 114472
physician visits provided in the county in which the practice is 114473
located;114474

        (b) An aggregate total of at least ten per cent of medicaid 114475
physician visits provided in the contiguous counties. 114476

       (C) Not later than four years after the effective date of 114477
this section, the department of medicaid shall submit a report 114478
regarding this section to the general assembly in accordance with 114479
section 101.68 of the Revised Code.114480

       Sec. 5111.0212.        Sec. 5164.80.  As necessary to comply with section 114481
1902(a)(13)(A) of the "Social Security Act," 111 Stat. 507 (1997)114482
section 1902(a)(13)(A), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(13)(A), as amended, and 114483
any other federal law that requires public notice of proposed 114484
changes to reimbursementpayment rates for medical assistance 114485
provided under the medicaid programservices, the medicaid114486
director of job and family services shall give public notice in 114487
the register of Ohio of any change to a method or standard used to 114488
determine the medicaid reimbursementpayment rate for medical 114489
assistancea medicaid service.114490

       Sec. 5111.0214.        Sec. 5164.82. The department of job and family 114491
servicesmedicaid shall not knowingly make a medicaid payment for 114492
a provider-preventable condition for which federal financial 114493
participation is prohibited by regulations adopted under section 114494
2702 of the "Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act," 124 114495
Stat. 318 (2010)section 2702, 42 U.S.C. 1396b-1. The director of 114496
job and family services shall adopt rules under section 5111.02 of 114497
the Revised Code as necessary to implement this section.114498

       Sec. 5164.83. (A) As used in this section:114499

       (1) "Core competencies," "direct care services," and "direct 114500
care worker" have the same meanings as in section 191.061 of the 114501
Revised Code.114502

       (2) "Direct payment" means payment by the medicaid program 114503
for direct care services provided by a direct care worker to a 114504
medicaid recipient that is delivered directly to the worker.114505

       (3) "Indirect payment" means payment by the medicaid program 114506
for direct care services provided by a direct care worker to a 114507
medicaid recipient that is delivered to a third party but later 114508
transferred to the worker.114509

       (B) The department of medicaid shall not do either of the 114510
following unless a direct care worker demonstrates core 114511
competencies in accordance with section 191.061 of the Revised 114512
Code:114513

       (1) Permit a direct or indirect payment to be made to the 114514
worker for a direct care service provided by the worker on or 114515
after October 1, 2015;114516

       (2) Enter into a provider agreement with the direct care 114517
worker on or after October 1, 2015. 114518

       Sec. 5111.13.        Sec. 5164.85.  (A) As used in this section, 114519
"cost-effective" and "group health plan" have the same meanings as 114520
in section 1906 of the "Social Security Act," 104 Stat. 1388-161 114521
(1990)section 1906, 42 U.S.C. 1396e, as amended, and any 114522
regulations adopted under that section.114523

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid may 114524
submit a medicaid state plan amendment to the United States 114525
secretary of health and human services for the purpose of 114526
implementingimplement a program pursuant to section 1906 of the 114527
"Social Security Act," 104 Stat. 1388-161 (1990)section 1906, 42 114528
U.S.C. 1396e, as amended, for the enrollment of medicaid-eligible 114529
individuals in group health plans when the department determines 114530
that enrollment is cost-effective.114531

       (C) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 114532
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary 114533
to implement this section.114534

       Sec. 5111.18.        Sec. 5164.86. Not later than September 1, 2007, the114535
The medicaid director of job and family services shall establish 114536
a qualified state long-term care insurance partnership program 114537
consistent with the definition of that term in the "Social 114538
Security Act," section 1917(b)(1)(C)(iii), 42 U.S.C. 114539
1396p(b)(1)(C)(iii). An individual participating in the program 114540
who is subject to the medicaid estate recovery program instituted 114541
under section 5111.115162.21 of the Revised Code shall be 114542
eligible for the reduced adjustment or recovery under division (D) 114543
of that section.114544

        The director of job and family services may adopt rules in 114545
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary to 114546
implement this section.114547

       Sec. 5111.14.        Sec. 5164.88. The medicaid director of job and family 114548
services may submit to the United States secretary of health and 114549
human services an amendment to the medicaid state plan in order to114550
implement within the medicaid program a system under which 114551
medicaid recipients with chronic conditions are provided with 114552
coordinated care through health homes, as authorized by section 114553
1945 of the "Social Security Act," 124 Stat. 319 (2010)section 114554
1945, 42 U.S.C. 1396w-4.114555

       The director may adopt rules under section 5111.02 of the 114556
Revised Code to implement this section.114557

       Sec. 5111.141.        Sec. 5164.89.  The department of job and family 114558
servicesmedicaid may require county departments of job and 114559
family services to provide case management of nonemergency 114560
transportation services provided under the medical assistance114561
medicaid program. County departments shall provide the case 114562
management if required by the department in accordance with rules 114563
adopted by the director of job and family servicesunder section 114564
5164.02 of the Revised Code.114565

       The department shall determine, for the purposes of claiming 114566
federal reimbursement under the medical assistance program114567
financial participation, whether it will claim expenditures for 114568
nonemergency transportation services as administrative or program 114569
expenditures.114570

       Sec. 5111.96.        Sec. 5164.90.  (A) As used in this section, "MFP 114571
demonstration project" means a money follows the person 114572
demonstration project that the United States secretary of health 114573
and human services is authorized to award under section 6071 of 114574
the "Deficit Reduction Act of 2005" (Pub. L. No. 109-171, as 114575
amended).114576

        (B) To the extent funds are available under an MFP 114577
demonstration project awarded to the department of job and family 114578
servicesmedicaid, the director of job and family services114579
medicaid may operate the helping Ohioans move, expanding (HOME) 114580
choice demonstration component of the medicaid program to 114581
transition medicaid recipients who qualify for the demonstration 114582
component to community settings. The director may adopt rules in 114583
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the 114584
administration and operation of the demonstration component.114585

       Sec. 5111.981.        Sec. 5164.91. (A) As used in this section and 114586
section 5111.982 of the Revised Code:114587

       "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in the 114588
"Social Security Act," section 1915(h)(2)(B), 42 U.S.C. 114589
1396n(h)(2)(B).114590

       "Medicare" means the program created in the "Social Security 114591
Act," Title XVIII, 42 U.S.C. 1395 et seq., as amended.114592

       (B) Subject to division (C) of this section, the medical 114593
assistanceThe medicaid director may implement a demonstration 114594
project called the integrated care delivery system to test and 114595
evaluate the integration of the care that dual eligible 114596
individuals receive under medicare and medicaid. No provision of 114597
Title LI of the Revised Code applies to the integrated care 114598
delivery system if that provision implements or incorporates a 114599
provision of federal law governing medicaid and that provision of 114600
federal law does not apply to the system.114601

       (C) Before implementing the integrated care delivery system 114602
under division (B) of this section, the director shall obtain the 114603
approval of the United States secretary of health and human 114604
services in the form of a federal medicaid waiver, medicaid state 114605
plan amendment, or demonstration grant. The director is required 114606
to seek the federal approval only if the director seeks to 114607
implement the integrated care delivery system. The director shall 114608
implement the integrated care delivery system in accordance with 114609
the terms of the federal approval, including the terms regarding 114610
the duration of the system.114611

       Sec. 5164.911. (A) If the medicaid director implements the 114612
integrated care delivery system and except as provided in division 114613
(D) of this section, the director shall annually evaluate all of 114614
the following:114615

        (1) The health outcomes of ICDS participants;114616

        (2) How changes to the administration of the ICDS affect all 114617
of the following:114618

        (a) Claims processing;114619

        (b) The appeals process;114620

        (c) The number of reassessments requested; 114621

       (d) Prior authorization requests for services. 114622

       (3) The provider panel selection process used by medicaid 114623
managed care organizations participating in the ICDS. 114624

       (B) When conducting an evaluation under division (A) of this 114625
section, the director shall do all of the following: 114626

       (1) For the purpose of division (A)(1) of this section, do 114627
both of the following:114628

        (a) Compare the health outcomes of ICDS participants to the 114629
health outcomes of individuals who are not ICDS participants;114630

        (b) Use both of the following:114631

       (i) A control group consisting of ICDS participants who 114632
receive health care services from providers not participating in 114633
ICDS;114634

        (ii) A control group consisting of ICDS participants who 114635
receive health care services from alternative providers that are 114636
not part of a participating medicaid managed care organization's 114637
provider panel but provide health care services in the geographic 114638
service area in which ICDS participants receive health care 114639
services.114640

        (2) For the purpose of division (A)(2) of this section, do 114641
all of the following:114642

        (a) To the extent the data is available, use data from all of 114643
the following: 114644

       (i) The fee-for-service component of the medicaid program;114645

        (ii) Medicaid managed care organizations;114646

        (iii) Managed care organizations participating in the 114647
medicare advantage program established under Part C of Title XVIII 114648
of the "Social Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1395w-21 et seq.114649

        (b) Identify all of the following: 114650

       (i) Changes in the amount of time it takes to process claims 114651
and the number of claims denied and the reasons for the changes;114652

        (ii) The impact that changes to the administration of the 114653
ICDS had on the appeals process and number of reassessments 114654
requested; 114655

       (iii) The number of prior authorization denials that were 114656
overturned and the reasons for the overturned denials. 114657

       (3) Require medicaid managed care organizations participating 114658
in the ICDS to submit to the director any data the director needs 114659
for the evaluation.114660

        (C) Not later than the first day of each July, the director 114661
shall complete a report of the evaluation conducted under this 114662
section. The director shall provide a copy of the report to the 114663
general assembly in accordance with section 101.68 of the Revised 114664
Code and make the report available to the public.114665

        (D) The director is not required to conduct an evaluation 114666
under this section for a year if the same evaluation is conducted 114667
for that year by an organization under contract with the United 114668
States department of health and human services.114669

       Sec. 5111.0210.        Sec. 5164.92.  As used in this section, "advanced 114670
diagnostic imaging services" means magnetic resonance imaging 114671
services, computed tomography services, positron emission 114672
tomography services, cardiac nuclear medicine services, and 114673
similar imaging services.114674

       Not later than January 1, 2010, theThe department of job and 114675
family servicesmedicaid shall implement evidence-based, best 114676
practice guidelines or protocols and decision support tools for 114677
advanced diagnostic imaging services available undercovered by114678
the fee-for-service component of the medicaid program.114679

       Sec. 5111.0215.        Sec. 5164.93. (A) The department of job and family 114680
servicesmedicaid may establish a program under which it provides 114681
incentive payments, as authorized by the "Health Information 114682
Technology for Economic and Clinical HealthSocial Security Act," 114683
123 Stat. 489 (2009)section 1903(a)(3)(F) and (t), 42 U.S.C. 114684
1396b(a)(3)(F) and 1396b(t), as amended, to encourage the adoption 114685
and use of electronic health record technology by medicaid 114686
providers who are identified under that federal law as eligible 114687
professionals.114688

       (B) After the department has made a determination regarding 114689
the amount of a medicaid provider's electronic health record 114690
incentive payment or the denial of an incentive payment, the 114691
department shall notify the provider. The provider may request 114692
that the department reconsider its determination.114693

       A request for reconsideration shall be submitted in writing 114694
to the department not later than fifteen days after the provider 114695
receives notification of the determination. The request shall be 114696
accompanied by written materials setting forth the basis for, and 114697
supporting, the reconsideration request.114698

       On receipt of a timely request, the department shall 114699
reconsider the determination. On the basis of the written 114700
materials accompanying the request, the department may uphold, 114701
reverse, or modify its original determination. The department 114702
shall mail to the provider by certified mail a written notice of 114703
the reconsideration decision.114704

       In accordance with Chapter 2505. of the Revised Code, the 114705
medicaid provider may appeal the reconsideration decision by 114706
filing a notice of appeal with the court of common pleas of 114707
Franklin county. The notice shall identify the decision being 114708
appealed and the specific grounds for the appeal. The notice of 114709
appeal shall be filed not later than fifteen days after the 114710
department mails its notice of the reconsideration decision. A 114711
copy of the notice of appeal shall be filed with the department 114712
not later than three days after the notice is filed with the 114713
court.114714

       (C) The medicaid director of job and family services may 114715
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5162.02114716
of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this section. The 114717
rules, if any, shall be adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of 114718
the Revised Code.114719

       Sec. 5111.20.        Sec. 5165.01.  As used in sections 5111.20 to 114720
5111.331 of the Revised Codethis chapter:114721

       (A) "Affiliated operator" means an operator affiliated with 114722
either of the following:114723

       (1) The exiting operator for whom the affiliated operator is 114724
to assume liability for the entire amount of the exiting 114725
operator's debt under the medicaid program or the portion of the 114726
debt that represents the franchise permit fee the exiting operator 114727
owes;114728

       (2) The entering operator involved in the change of operator 114729
with the exiting operator specified in division (A)(1) of this 114730
section.114731

       (B) "Allowable costs" are thosea nursing facility's costs 114732
determined bythat the department of job and family services to be114733
medicaid determines are reasonable and do not include fines. Fines114734
paid under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.615165.89 and section 114735
5111.995165.99 of the Revised Code are not allowable costs.114736

       (B)(C) "Ancillary and support costs" means all reasonable 114737
costs incurred by a nursing facility other than direct care costs, 114738
tax costs, or capital costs. "Ancillary and support costs" 114739
includes, but is not limited to, costs of activities, social 114740
services, pharmacy consultants, habilitation supervisors, 114741
qualified mental retardation professionals, program directors, 114742
medical and habilitation records, program supplies, incontinence 114743
supplies, food, enterals, dietary supplies and personnel, laundry, 114744
housekeeping, security, administration, medical equipment, 114745
utilities, liability insurance, bookkeeping, purchasing 114746
department, human resources, communications, travel, dues, license 114747
fees, subscriptions, home office costs not otherwise allocated, 114748
legal services, accounting services, minor equipment, maintenance 114749
and repairs, help-wanted advertising, informational advertising, 114750
start-up costs, organizational expenses, other interest, property 114751
insurance, employee training and staff development, employee 114752
benefits, payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or 114753
costs for self-insurance claims and related costs as specified in 114754
rules adopted by the director of job and family services under 114755
section 5111.025165.02 of the Revised Code, for personnel listed 114756
in this division. "Ancillary and support costs" also means the 114757
cost of equipment, including vehicles, acquired by operating lease 114758
executed before December 1, 1992, if the costs are reported as 114759
administrative and general costs on the nursing facility's cost 114760
report for the cost reporting period ending December 31, 1992.114761

       (C)(D)(1) "Capital costs" means costs of ownership and, in 114762
the case of an intermediate care facility for the mentally 114763
retarded, costs of nonextensive renovationthe actual expense 114764
incurred by a nursing facility for all of the following:114765

        (a) Depreciation and interest on any capital assets that cost 114766
five hundred dollars or more per item, including the following:114767

        (i) Buildings;114768

        (ii) Building improvements;114769

        (iii) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, 114770
equipment;114771

        (iv) Transportation equipment.114772

        (b) Amortization and interest on land improvements and 114773
leasehold improvements;114774

        (c) Amortization of financing costs;114775

        (d) Lease and rent of land, buildings, and equipment.114776

        (2) The costs of capital assets of less than five hundred 114777
dollars per item may be considered capital costs in accordance 114778
with a provider's practice.114779

       (1) "Cost of ownership" means the actual expense incurred for 114780
all of the following:114781

       (a) Depreciation and interest on any capital assets that cost 114782
five hundred dollars or more per item, including the following:114783

       (i) Buildings;114784

       (ii) Building improvements that are not approved as 114785
nonextensive renovations under section 5111.251 of the Revised 114786
Code;114787

       (iii) Except as provided in division (B) of this section, 114788
equipment;114789

       (iv) In the case of an intermediate care facility for the 114790
mentally retarded, extensive renovations;114791

       (v) Transportation equipment.114792

       (b) Amortization and interest on land improvements and 114793
leasehold improvements;114794

       (c) Amortization of financing costs;114795

       (d) Except as provided in division (K) of this section, lease 114796
and rent of land, building, and equipment.114797

        The costs of capital assets of less than five hundred dollars 114798
per item may be considered capital costs in accordance with a 114799
provider's practice.114800

       (2) "Costs of nonextensive renovation" means the actual 114801
expense incurred by an intermediate care facility for the mentally 114802
retarded for depreciation or amortization and interest on 114803
renovations that are not extensive renovations.114804

       (D)(E) "Capital lease" and "operating lease" shall be 114805
construed in accordance with generally accepted accounting 114806
principles.114807

       (E) "Case-mix score" means the measure determined under 114808
section 5111.232 of the Revised Code of the relative direct-care 114809
resources needed to provide care and habilitation to a resident of 114810
a nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 114811
retarded.114812

       (F) "Case-mix score" means a measure determined under section 114813
5165.192 of the Revised Code of the relative direct-care resources 114814
needed to provide care and habilitation to a nursing facility 114815
resident.114816

       (G) "Change of operator" means an entering operator becoming 114817
the operator of a nursing facility in the place of the exiting 114818
operator.114819

       (1) Actions that constitute a change of operator include the 114820
following:114821

       (a) A change in an exiting operator's form of legal 114822
organization, including the formation of a partnership or 114823
corporation from a sole proprietorship;114824

       (b) A transfer of all the exiting operator's ownership 114825
interest in the operation of the nursing facility to the entering 114826
operator, regardless of whether ownership of any or all of the 114827
real property or personal property associated with the nursing 114828
facility is also transferred;114829

       (c) A lease of the nursing facility to the entering operator 114830
or the exiting operator's termination of the exiting operator's 114831
lease;114832

       (d) If the exiting operator is a partnership, dissolution of 114833
the partnership;114834

       (e) If the exiting operator is a partnership, a change in 114835
composition of the partnership unless both of the following apply:114836

       (i) The change in composition does not cause the 114837
partnership's dissolution under state law.114838

       (ii) The partners agree that the change in composition does 114839
not constitute a change in operator.114840

       (f) If the operator is a corporation, dissolution of the 114841
corporation, a merger of the corporation into another corporation 114842
that is the survivor of the merger, or a consolidation of one or 114843
more other corporations to form a new corporation.114844

       (2) The following, alone, do not constitute a change of 114845
operator:114846

       (a) A contract for an entity to manage a nursing facility as 114847
the operator's agent, subject to the operator's approval of daily 114848
operating and management decisions;114849

       (b) A change of ownership, lease, or termination of a lease 114850
of real property or personal property associated with a nursing 114851
facility if an entering operator does not become the operator in 114852
place of an exiting operator;114853

       (c) If the operator is a corporation, a change of one or more 114854
members of the corporation's governing body or transfer of 114855
ownership of one or more shares of the corporation's stock, if the 114856
same corporation continues to be the operator.114857

       (H) "Cost center" means the following:114858

       (1) Ancillary and support costs;114859

       (2) Capital costs;114860

       (3) Direct care costs;114861

       (4) Tax costs.114862

       (I) "Custom wheelchair" means a wheelchair to which both of 114863
the following apply:114864

       (1) It has been measured, fitted, or adapted in consideration 114865
of either of the following:114866

       (a) The body size or disability of the individual who is to 114867
use the wheelchair;114868

       (b) The individual's period of need for, or intended use of, 114869
the wheelchair.114870

       (2) It has customized features, modifications, or components, 114871
such as adaptive seating and positioning systems, that the 114872
supplier who assembled the wheelchair, or the manufacturer from 114873
which the wheelchair was ordered, added or made in accordance with 114874
the instructions of the physician of the individual who is to use 114875
the wheelchair.114876

       (J)(1) "Date of licensure," for ameans the following:114877

       (a) In the case of a nursing facility originallythat was 114878
required by law to be licensed as a nursing home under Chapter 114879
3721. of the Revised Code when it originally began to be operated 114880
as a nursing home, means the date specific beds werethe nursing 114881
facility was originally so licensed as nursing home beds under 114882
that chapter, regardless of whether they were subsequently 114883
licensed as residential facility beds under section 5123.19 of the 114884
Revised Code. For a facility originally licensed as a residential 114885
facility under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code, "date of 114886
licensure" means the date specific beds were originally licensed 114887
as residential facility beds under that section.;114888

       If(b) In the case of a nursing home beds licensed under 114889
Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code or residential facility beds 114890
licensed under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code werefacility 114891
that was not required by law to be licensed as a nursing home when 114892
they wereit originally used to providebegan to be operated as a114893
nursing home or residential facility services, "date of licensure" 114894
means the date the bedsit first were used to providebegan to be 114895
operated as a nursing home or residential facility services, 114896
regardless of the date the present provider obtained licensure114897
nursing facility was first licensed as a nursing home.114898

       (2) If a facility adds, after a nursing facility's original 114899
date of licensure, more nursing home beds or residential facility 114900
beds or extensively renovatesall or part of the facility after 114901
its original date of licensureare added to the nursing facility, 114902
it will havethe nursing facility has a different date of 114903
licensure for the additional beds or extensively renovated portion 114904
of the facility, unless the beds are added in a space. This does 114905
not apply, however, to additional beds when both of the following 114906
apply:114907

       (a) The additional beds are located in a part of the nursing 114908
facility that was constructed at the same time as the previously 114909
licensedcontinuing beds butalready located in that part of the 114910
nursing facility;114911

       (b) The part of the nursing facility in which the additional 114912
beds are located was constructed as part of the nursing facility 114913
at a time when the nursing facility was not required by law to be114914
licensed under Chapter 3721. or section 5123.19 of the Revised 114915
Code at that timeas a nursing home.114916

       (2)(3) The definition of "date of licensure" in this section 114917
applies in determinations of thenursing facilities' medicaid 114918
reimbursement rate for a nursing facility or intermediate care 114919
facility for the mentally retardedpayment rates but does not 114920
apply in determinations of thenursing facilities' franchise 114921
permit fee for a nursing facility or intermediate care facility 114922
for the mentally retardedfees.114923

       (G)(K) "Desk-reviewed" means that a nursing facility's costs 114924
as reported on a cost report submitted under section 5111.26114925
5165.10 of the Revised Code have been subjected to a desk review 114926
under division (A) of section 5111.275165.108 of the Revised Code 114927
and preliminarily determined to be allowable costs.114928

       (H)(L) "Direct care costs" means all of the following costs 114929
incurred by a nursing facility:114930

       (1)(a) Costs for registered nurses, licensed practical 114931
nurses, and nurse aides employed by the nursing facility;114932

       (b)(2) Costs for direct care staff, administrative nursing 114933
staff, medical directors, respiratory therapists, and except as 114934
provided in division (H)(2)(L)(8) of this section, other persons 114935
holding degrees qualifying them to provide therapy;114936

       (c)(3) Costs of purchased nursing services;114937

       (d)(4) Costs of quality assurance;114938

       (e)(5) Costs of training and staff development, employee 114939
benefits, payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or 114940
costs for self-insurance claims and related costs as specified in 114941
rules adopted by the director of job and family services in 114942
accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5165.02 of the Revised 114943
Code, for personnel listed in divisions (H)(L)(1)(a), (b)(2), and 114944
(d)(4), and (8) of this section;114945

       (f)(6) Costs of consulting and management fees related to 114946
direct care;114947

       (g)(7) Allocated direct care home office costs.114948

       (2) In addition to the costs specified in division (H)(1) of 114949
this section, for nursing facilities only, direct care costs 114950
include costs;114951

       (8) Costs of habilitation staff (other than habilitation 114952
supervisors), medical supplies, emergency oxygen, over-the-counter 114953
pharmacy products, behavioral and mental health services, physical 114954
therapists, physical therapy assistants, occupational therapists, 114955
occupational therapy assistants, speech therapists, audiologists, 114956
habilitation supplies, wheelchairs, resident transportation, and 114957
universal precautions supplies.;114958

       (3) In addition to the costs specified in division (H)(1) of 114959
this section, for intermediate care facilities for the mentally 114960
retarded only, direct care costs include both of the following:114961

       (a) Costs for physical therapists and physical therapy 114962
assistants, occupational therapists and occupational therapy 114963
assistants, speech therapists, audiologists, habilitation staff 114964
(including habilitation supervisors), qualified mental retardation 114965
professionals, program directors, social services staff, 114966
activities staff, off-site day programming, psychologists and 114967
psychology assistants, and social workers and counselors;114968

       (b) Costs of training and staff development, employee 114969
benefits, payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or 114970
costs for self-insurance claims and related costs as specified in 114971
rules adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code, for 114972
personnel listed in division (H)(3)(a) of this section. 114973

       (4)(9) Costs of wheelchairs other than the following:114974

       (a) Custom wheelchairs;114975

       (b) Repairs to and replacements of custom wheelchairs and 114976
parts that are made in accordance with the instructions of the 114977
physician of the individual who uses the custom wheelchair.114978

       (10) Costs of other direct-care resources that are specified 114979
as direct care costs in rules adopted under section 5111.02114980
5165.02 of the Revised Code.114981

       (I)(M) "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in 114982
section 5160.01 of the Revised Code.114983

       (N) "Effective date of a change of operator" means the day 114984
the entering operator becomes the operator of the nursing 114985
facility.114986

       (O) "Effective date of a facility closure" means the last day 114987
that the last of the residents of the nursing facility resides in 114988
the nursing facility.114989

       (P) "Effective date of an involuntary termination" means the 114990
date the department of medicaid terminates the operator's provider 114991
agreement for the nursing facility.114992

       (Q) "Effective date of a voluntary withdrawal of 114993
participation" means the day the nursing facility ceases to accept 114994
new medicaid residents other than the individuals who reside in 114995
the nursing facility on the day before the effective date of the 114996
voluntary withdrawal of participation.114997

       (R) "Entering operator" means the person or government entity 114998
that will become the operator of a nursing facility when a change 114999
of operator occurs or following an involuntary termination.115000

       (S) "Exiting operator" means any of the following:115001

       (1) An operator that will cease to be the operator of a 115002
nursing facility on the effective date of a change of operator;115003

       (2) An operator that will cease to be the operator of a 115004
nursing facility on the effective date of a facility closure;115005

       (3) An operator of a nursing facility that is undergoing or 115006
has undergone a voluntary withdrawal of participation;115007

       (4) An operator of a nursing facility that is undergoing or 115008
has undergone an involuntary termination.115009

       (T)(1) Subject to divisions (T)(2) and (3) of this section, 115010
"facility closure" means either of the following:115011

       (a) Discontinuance of the use of the building, or part of the 115012
building, that houses the facility as a nursing facility that 115013
results in the relocation of all of the nursing facility's 115014
residents;115015

       (b) Conversion of the building, or part of the building, that 115016
houses a nursing facility to a different use with any necessary 115017
license or other approval needed for that use being obtained and 115018
one or more of the nursing facility's residents remaining in the 115019
building, or part of the building, to receive services under the 115020
new use.115021

       (2) A facility closure occurs regardless of any of the 115022
following:115023

       (a) The operator completely or partially replacing the 115024
nursing facility by constructing a new nursing facility or 115025
transferring the nursing facility's license to another nursing 115026
facility;115027

       (b) The nursing facility's residents relocating to another of 115028
the operator's nursing facilities;115029

       (c) Any action the department of health takes regarding the 115030
nursing facility's medicaid certification that may result in the 115031
transfer of part of the nursing facility's survey findings to 115032
another of the operator's nursing facilities;115033

       (d) Any action the department of health takes regarding the 115034
nursing facility's license under Chapter 3721. of the Revised 115035
Code.115036

       (3) A facility closure does not occur if all of the nursing 115037
facility's residents are relocated due to an emergency evacuation 115038
and one or more of the residents return to a medicaid-certified 115039
bed in the nursing facility not later than thirty days after the 115040
evacuation occurs.115041

       (U) "Fiscal year" means the fiscal year of this state, as 115042
specified in section 9.34 of the Revised Code.115043

       (J)(V) "Franchise permit fee" means the following: 115044

       (1) In the context of nursing facilities, the fee imposed by 115045
sections 3721.505168.40 to 3721.585168.56 of the Revised Code;115046

       (2) In the context of intermediate care facilities for the 115047
mentally retarded, the fee imposed by sections 5112.30 to 5112.39 115048
of the Revised Code.115049

        (K) "Indirect care costs" means all reasonable costs incurred 115050
by an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded other 115051
than direct care costs, other protected costs, or capital costs. 115052
"Indirect care costs" includes but is not limited to costs of 115053
habilitation supplies, pharmacy consultants, medical and 115054
habilitation records, program supplies, incontinence supplies, 115055
food, enterals, dietary supplies and personnel, laundry, 115056
housekeeping, security, administration, liability insurance, 115057
bookkeeping, purchasing department, human resources, 115058
communications, travel, dues, license fees, subscriptions, home 115059
office costs not otherwise allocated, legal services, accounting 115060
services, minor equipment, maintenance and repairs, help-wanted 115061
advertising, informational advertising, start-up costs, 115062
organizational expenses, other interest, property insurance, 115063
employee training and staff development, employee benefits, 115064
payroll taxes, and workers' compensation premiums or costs for 115065
self-insurance claims and related costs as specified in rules 115066
adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code, for personnel 115067
listed in this division. Notwithstanding division (C)(1) of this 115068
section, "indirect care costs" also means the cost of equipment, 115069
including vehicles, acquired by operating lease executed before 115070
December 1, 1992, if the costs are reported as administrative and 115071
general costs on the facility's cost report for the cost reporting 115072
period ending December 31, 1992. 115073

       (L)(W) "Inpatient days" means the following: 115074

       (1) In the context of a nursing facility, both of the 115075
following:115076

       (a)(1) All days during which a resident, regardless of 115077
payment source, occupies a bed in a nursing facility that is 115078
included in the nursing facility's certifiedmedicaid-certified115079
capacity under Title XIX;115080

       (b)(2) Fifty per cent of the days for which payment is made 115081
under section 5111.3315165.34 of the Revised Code. 115082

       (2) In the context of an intermediate care facility for the 115083
mentally retarded, both of the following:115084

       (a) All days during which a resident, regardless of payment 115085
source, occupies a bed in an intermediate care facility for the 115086
mentally retarded that is included in the facility's certified 115087
capacity under Title XIX;115088

       (b) All days for which payment is made under section 5111.33 115089
of the Revised Code. 115090

       (M) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 115091
means an intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded 115092
certified as in compliance with applicable standards for the 115093
medicaid program by the director of health in accordance with 115094
Title XIX.115095

       (N)(X) "Involuntary termination" means the department of 115096
medicaid's termination of the operator's provider agreement for 115097
the nursing facility when the termination is not taken at the 115098
operator's request.115099

       (Y) "Low resource utilization resident" means a medicaid 115100
recipient residing in a nursing facility who, for purposes of 115101
calculating the nursing facility's medicaid payment rate for 115102
direct care costs, is placed in either of the two lowest resource 115103
utilization groups, excluding any resource utilization group that 115104
is a default group used for residents with incomplete assessment 115105
data.115106

       (Z) "Maintenance and repair expenses" means, except as 115107
provided in division (BB)(2) of this section,a nursing facility's115108
expenditures that are necessary and proper to maintain an asset in 115109
a normally efficient working condition and that do not extend the 115110
useful life of the asset two years or more. "Maintenance and 115111
repair expenses" includes but is not limited to the costcosts of 115112
ordinary repairs such as painting and wallpapering.115113

       (O)(AA) "Medicaid-certified capacity" means the number of a 115114
nursing facility's beds that are certified for participation in 115115
medicaid as nursing facility beds.115116

       (BB) "Medicaid days" means the following: 115117

       (1) In the context of a nursing facility, both of the 115118
following:115119

       (a)(1) All days during which a resident who is a medicaid 115120
recipient eligible for nursing facility services occupies a bed in 115121
a nursing facility that is included in the nursing facility's 115122
certifiedmedicaid-certified capacity under Title XIX;115123

       (b)(2) Fifty per cent of the days for which payment is made 115124
under section 5111.3315165.34 of the Revised Code. 115125

       (2) In the context of an intermediate care facility for the 115126
mentally retarded, both of the following: 115127

       (a) All days during which a resident who is a medicaid 115128
recipient eligible for intermediate care facility for the mentally 115129
retarded services occupies a bed in an intermediate care facility 115130
for the mentally retarded that is included in the facility's 115131
certified capacity under Title XIX; 115132

       (b) All days for which payment is made under section 5111.33 115133
of the Revised Code. 115134

       (P)(CC)(1) "New nursing facility" means a nursing facility 115135
for which the provider obtains an initial provider agreement 115136
following medicaid certification of the nursing facility by the 115137
director of health, including such a nursing facility that 115138
replaces one or more nursing facilities for which a provider 115139
previously held a provider agreement.115140

       (2) "New nursing facility" does not mean a nursing facility 115141
for which the entering operator seeks a provider agreement 115142
pursuant to section 5165.511 or 5165.512 or (pursuant to section 115143
5165.515) section 5165.07 of the Revised Code.115144

       (DD) "Nursing facility" means a facility, or a distinct part 115145
of a facility, that is certified as a nursing facility by the 115146
director of health in accordance with Title XIX and is not an 115147
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded. "Nursing 115148
facility" includes a facility, or a distinct part of a facility, 115149
that is certified as a nursing facility by the director of health 115150
in accordance with Title XIX and is certified as a skilled nursing 115151
facility by the director in accordance with Title XVIIIhas the 115152
same meaning as in the "Social Security Act," section 1919(a), 42 115153
U.S.C. 1396r(a).115154

       (Q)(EE) "Nursing facility services" has the same meaning as 115155
in the "Social Security Act," section 1905(f), 42 U.S.C. 1396d(f).115156

       (FF) "Nursing home" has the same meaning as in section 115157
3721.01 of the Revised Code.115158

       (GG) "Operator" means the person or government entity 115159
responsible for the daily operating and management decisions for a 115160
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 115161
retarded.115162

       (R) "Other protected costs" means costs incurred by an 115163
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded for medical 115164
supplies; real estate, franchise, and property taxes; natural gas, 115165
fuel oil, water, electricity, sewage, and refuse and hazardous 115166
medical waste collection; allocated other protected home office 115167
costs; and any additional costs defined as other protected costs 115168
in rules adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code.115169

       (S)(HH)(1) "Owner" means any person or government entity that 115170
has at least five per cent ownership or interest, either directly, 115171
indirectly, or in any combination, in any of the following 115172
regarding a nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the 115173
mentally retarded:115174

       (a) The land on which the nursing facility is located;115175

       (b) The structure in which the nursing facility is located;115176

       (c) Any mortgage, contract for deed, or other obligation 115177
secured in whole or in part by the land or structure on or in 115178
which the nursing facility is located;115179

       (d) Any lease or sublease of the land or structure on or in 115180
which the nursing facility is located.115181

       (2) "Owner" does not mean a holder of a debenture or bond 115182
related to the nursing facility or intermediate care facility for 115183
the mentally retarded and purchased at public issue or a regulated 115184
lender that has made a loan related to the nursing facility unless 115185
the holder or lender operates the nursing facility directly or 115186
through a subsidiary.115187

       (T) "Patient" includes "resident."115188

       (U) Except as provided in divisions (U)(1) and (2) of this 115189
section, "per(II) "Per diem" means a nursing facility's or 115190
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded's actual, 115191
allowable costs in a given cost center in a cost reporting period, 115192
divided by the nursing facility's inpatient days for that cost 115193
reporting period.115194

       (1) When calculating indirect care costs for the purpose of 115195
establishing rates under section 5111.241 of the Revised Code, 115196
"per diem" means an intermediate care facility for the mentally 115197
retarded's actual, allowable indirect care costs in a cost 115198
reporting period divided by the greater of the facility's 115199
inpatient days for that period or the number of inpatient days the 115200
facility would have had during that period if its occupancy rate 115201
had been eighty-five per cent. 115202

       (2) When calculating capital costs for the purpose of 115203
establishing rates under section 5111.251 of the Revised Code, 115204
"per diem" means a facility's actual, allowable capital costs in a 115205
cost reporting period divided by the greater of the facility's 115206
inpatient days for that period or the number of inpatient days the 115207
facility would have had during that period if its occupancy rate 115208
had been ninety-five per cent.115209

       (V)(JJ) "Provider" means an operator with a provider 115210
agreement.115211

       (W)(KK) "Provider agreement" means a contractprovider 115212
agreement, as defined in section 5164.01 of the Revised Code, that 115213
is between the department of job and family servicesmedicaid and 115214
the operator of a nursing facility or intermediate care facility 115215
for the mentally retarded for the provision of nursing facility 115216
services or intermediate care facility services for the mentally 115217
retarded under the medicaid program.115218

       (X)(LL) "Purchased nursing services" means services that are 115219
provided in a nursing facility by registered nurses, licensed 115220
practical nurses, or nurse aides who are not employees of the 115221
nursing facility.115222

       (Y)(MM) "Reasonable" means that a cost is an actual cost that 115223
is appropriate and helpful to develop and maintain the operation 115224
of patient care facilities and activities, including normal 115225
standby costs, and that does not exceed what a prudent buyer pays 115226
for a given item or services. Reasonable costs may vary from 115227
provider to provider and from time to time for the same provider.115228

       (Z)(NN) "Related party" means an individual or organization 115229
that, to a significant extent, has common ownership with, is 115230
associated or affiliated with, has control of, or is controlled 115231
by, the provider.115232

       (1) An individual who is a relative of an owner is a related 115233
party.115234

       (2) Common ownership exists when an individual or individuals 115235
possess significant ownership or equity in both the provider and 115236
the other organization. Significant ownership or equity exists 115237
when an individual or individuals possess five per cent ownership 115238
or equity in both the provider and a supplier. Significant 115239
ownership or equity is presumed to exist when an individual or 115240
individuals possess ten per cent ownership or equity in both the 115241
provider and another organization from which the provider 115242
purchases or leases real property.115243

       (3) Control exists when an individual or organization has the 115244
power, directly or indirectly, to significantly influence or 115245
direct the actions or policies of an organization.115246

       (4) An individual or organization that supplies goods or 115247
services to a provider shall not be considered a related party if 115248
all of the following conditions are met:115249

       (a) The supplier is a separate bona fide organization.115250

       (b) A substantial part of the supplier's business activity of 115251
the type carried on with the provider is transacted with others 115252
than the provider and there is an open, competitive market for the 115253
types of goods or services the supplier furnishes.115254

       (c) The types of goods or services are commonly obtained by 115255
other nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities for the 115256
mentally retarded from outside organizations and are not a basic 115257
element of patient care ordinarily furnished directly to patients 115258
by thenursing facilities.115259

       (d) The charge to the provider is in line with the charge for 115260
the goods or services in the open market and no more than the 115261
charge made under comparable circumstances to others by the 115262
supplier.115263

       (AA)(OO) "Relative of owner" means an individual who is 115264
related to an owner of a nursing facility or intermediate care 115265
facility for the mentally retarded by one of the following 115266
relationships:115267

       (1) Spouse;115268

       (2) Natural parent, child, or sibling;115269

       (3) Adopted parent, child, or sibling;115270

       (4) Stepparent, stepchild, stepbrother, or stepsister;115271

       (5) Father-in-law, mother-in-law, son-in-law, 115272
daughter-in-law, brother-in-law, or sister-in-law;115273

       (6) Grandparent or grandchild;115274

       (7) Foster caregiver, foster child, foster brother, or foster 115275
sister.115276

       (BB) "Renovation" and "extensive renovation" mean:115277

       (1) Any betterment, improvement, or restoration of an 115278
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded started 115279
before July 1, 1993, that meets the definition of a renovation or 115280
extensive renovation established in rules adopted by the director 115281
of job and family services in effect on December 22, 1992.115282

       (2) In the case of betterments, improvements, and 115283
restorations of intermediate care facilities for the mentally 115284
retarded started on or after July 1, 1993: 115285

       (a) "Renovation" means the betterment, improvement, or 115286
restoration of an intermediate care facility for the mentally 115287
retarded beyond its current functional capacity through a 115288
structural change that costs at least five hundred dollars per 115289
bed. A renovation may include betterment, improvement, 115290
restoration, or replacement of assets that are affixed to the 115291
building and have a useful life of at least five years. A 115292
renovation may include costs that otherwise would be considered 115293
maintenance and repair expenses if they are an integral part of 115294
the structural change that makes up the renovation project. 115295
"Renovation" does not mean construction of additional space for 115296
beds that will be added to a facility's licensed or certified 115297
capacity. 115298

       (b) "Extensive renovation" means a renovation that costs more 115299
than sixty-five per cent and no more than eighty-five per cent of 115300
the cost of constructing a new bed and that extends the useful 115301
life of the assets for at least ten years. 115302

       For the purposes of division (BB)(2) of this section, the 115303
cost of constructing a new bed shall be considered to be forty 115304
thousand dollars, adjusted for the estimated rate of inflation 115305
from January 1, 1993, to the end of the calendar year during which 115306
the renovation is completed, using the consumer price index for 115307
shelter costs for all urban consumers for the north central 115308
region, as published by the United States bureau of labor 115309
statistics. 115310

       The department of job and family services may treat a 115311
renovation that costs more than eighty-five per cent of the cost 115312
of constructing new beds as an extensive renovation if the 115313
department determines that the renovation is more prudent than 115314
construction of new beds.115315

       (CC)(PP) "Residents' rights advocate" has the same meaning as 115316
in section 3721.10 of the Revised Code.115317

       (QQ) "Skilled nursing facility" has the same meaning as in 115318
the "Social Security Act," section 1819(a), 42 U.S.C. 1395i-3(a).115319

       (RR) "Sponsor" has the same meaning as in section 3721.10 of 115320
the Revised Code.115321

       (SS) "Tax costs" means the costs of taxes imposed under 115322
Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code, real estate taxes, personal 115323
property taxes, and corporate franchise taxes.115324

       (DD)(TT) "Title XIX" means Title XIX of the "Social Security 115325
Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396, as amendedet seq.115326

       (EE)(UU) "Title XVIII" means Title XVIII of the "Social 115327
Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as amendedet 115328
seq.115329

       (VV) "Voluntary withdrawal of participation" means an 115330
operator's voluntary election to terminate the participation of a 115331
nursing facility in the medicaid program but to continue to 115332
provide service of the type provided by a nursing facility.115333

       Sec. 5111.201.        Sec. 5165.011. Whenever(A) Except as provided in 115334
division (B) of this section, whenever "skilled nursing facility," 115335
"intermediate care facility," or "dual skilled nursing and 115336
intermediate care facility" is referred to or designated in any 115337
statute, rule, contract, provider agreement, or other document 115338
pertaining to the medical assistancemedicaid program, the 115339
reference or designation is deemed to refer to a nursing facility, 115340
except that a.115341

       (B) A reference to or designation of an "intermediate care 115342
facility for the mentally retardedindividuals with intellectual 115343
disabilities" or "ICF/IID" is not deemed to refer to a nursing 115344
facility.115345

       Sec. 5165.02.  The medicaid director shall adopt rules as 115346
necessary to implement this chapter. The rules shall be adopted in 115347
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.115348

       Sec. 5111.202.        Sec. 5165.03.  (A) As used in this section:115349

       (1) "Dementia" includes Alzheimer's disease or a related 115350
disorder.115351

       (2) "Serious mental illness" means "serious mental illness," 115352
as defined by the United States department of health and human 115353
services in regulations adopted under section 1919(e)(7)(G)(i) of115354
the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935)section 115355
1919(e)(7)(G)(i), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended1396r(e)(7)(G)(i).115356

       (3) "Mentally ill individual" means an individual who has a 115357
serious mental illness other than either of the following:115358

       (a) A primary diagnosis of dementia;115359

       (b) A primary diagnosis that is not a primary diagnosis of 115360
dementia and a primary diagnosis of something other than a serious 115361
mental illness.115362

       (4) "Mentally retarded individual" means an individual who is 115363
mentally retarded or has a related condition, as described in 115364
section 1905(d) of the "Social Security Act.," section 1905(d), 42 115365
U.S.C. 1396d(d).115366

       (5) "Specialized services" means the services specified by 115367
the United States department of health and human services in 115368
regulations adopted under section 1919(e)(7)(G)(iii) of the 115369
"Social Security Act.," section 1919(e)(7)(G)(iii), 42 U.S.C. 115370
1396r(e)(7)(G)(iii).115371

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, no 115372
nursing facility shall admit as a resident any mentally ill 115373
individual unless the facility has received evidence that the 115374
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services115375
has determined both of the following under section 5119.061115376
5119.40 of the Revised Code:115377

       (a) That the individual requires the level of services 115378
provided by a nursing facility because of the individual's 115379
physical and mental condition;115380

       (b) Whether the individual requires specialized services for 115381
mental illness.115382

       (2) Except as provided in division (D) of this section, no 115383
nursing facility shall admit as a resident any mentally retarded 115384
individual unless the facility has received evidence that the 115385
department of developmental disabilities has determined both of 115386
the following under section 5123.021 of the Revised Code:115387

       (a) That the individual requires the level of services 115388
provided by a nursing facility because of the individual's 115389
physical and mental condition;115390

       (b) Whether the individual requires specialized services for 115391
mental retardation.115392

       (C) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 115393
not make medicaid payments under the medical assistance program to 115394
a nursing facility on behalf of any individual who is admitted to 115395
the facility in violation of division (B) of this section for the 115396
period beginning on the date of admission and ending on the date 115397
the requirements of division (B) of this section are met.115398

       (D) A determination under division (B) of this section is not 115399
required for any individual who is exempted from the requirement 115400
that a determination be made by division (B)(2) of section 115401
5119.0615119.40 of the Revised Code or rules adopted by the 115402
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services115403
under division (E)(3) of that section, or by division (B)(2) of 115404
section 5123.021 of the Revised Code or rules adopted by the 115405
department of developmental disabilities under division (E)(3) of 115406
that section.115407

       Sec. 5111.203.        Sec. 5165.031. Regardless of whether or not an 115408
applicantAn individual who applies for admission to a nursing 115409
facility or resident ofresides in a nursing facility is an 115410
applicant for or recipient of medical assistance, the department 115411
of job and family services shall provide notice and an opportunity 115412
for a hearing to any applicant for admission to a nursing facility 115413
or resident of a nursing facility who ismay appeal if adversely 115414
affected by a determination made by the department of mental 115415
healthmental health and addiction services under section 115416
5119.0615119.40 of the Revised Code or by the department of 115417
developmental disabilities under section 5123.021 of the Revised 115418
Code. The hearing shall be conducted in the same manner as 115419
hearings conducted underIf the individual is an applicant for or 115420
recipient of medicaid, the individual may appeal pursuant to 115421
section 5160.31 of the Revised Code. If the individual is not an 115422
applicant for or recipient of medicaid, the individual may appeal 115423
pursuant to a process the department of medicaid shall establish, 115424
which shall be similar to the appeals process established by115425
section 5101.35 of the Revised Code. The department of medicaid 115426
shall provide notice of the right to appeal to individuals 115427
adversely affected by determinations made under sections 5119.40 115428
and 5123.021 of the Revised Code. Any decision made by the 115429
department of job and family services on the basis of the hearing115430
such an appeal is binding on the department of mental health115431
mental health and addiction services and the department of 115432
developmental disabilities.115433

       Sec. 5111.204.        Sec. 5165.04.  (A) As used in this section, 115434
"representative" means a person acting on behalf of an applicant 115435
for or recipient of medicaid. A representative may be a family 115436
member, attorney, hospital social worker, or any other person 115437
chosen to act on behalf of an applicant or recipient.115438

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid may 115439
require each applicant for or recipient of medicaid who applies or 115440
intends to apply for admission to a nursing facility or resides in 115441
a nursing facility to undergo an assessment to determine whether 115442
the applicant or recipient needs the level of care provided by a 115443
nursing facility. The assessment may be performed concurrently 115444
with a long-term care consultation provided under section 173.42 115445
of the Revised Code.115446

       To the maximum extent possible, the assessment shall be based 115447
on information from the resident assessment instrument specified 115448
in rules adoptedauthorized by the director of job and family 115449
services under division (E) of section 5111.2325165.191 of the 115450
Revised Code. The assessment shall also be based on criteria and 115451
procedures established in rules adopted underauthorized by115452
division (F) of this section and information provided by the 115453
person being assessed or the person's representative. 115454

       The department of job and family servicesmedicaid, or if the 115455
assessment is performed by an agency under contract with the 115456
department pursuant to division (G) of this section, the agency, 115457
shall, not later than the time the level of care determination 115458
based on the assessment is required to be provided under division 115459
(C) of this section, give written notice of its conclusions and 115460
the basis for them to the person assessed and, if the department 115461
of job and family services or agency under contract with the 115462
department has been informed that the person has a representative, 115463
to the representative.115464

       (C) The department of job and family services or agency under 115465
contract with the department, whichever performs the assessment, 115466
shall provide a level of care determination based on the 115467
assessment as follows:115468

       (1) In the case of a person applying or intending to apply 115469
for admission to a nursing facility while hospitalized, not later 115470
than one of the following:115471

       (a) One working day after the person or the person's 115472
representative submits the application or notifies the department 115473
of the person's intention to apply and submits all information 115474
required for providing the level of care determination, as 115475
specified in rules adopted underauthorized by division (F)(2) of 115476
this section;115477

       (b) A later date requested by the person or the person's 115478
representative.115479

       (2) In the case of a person applying or intending to apply 115480
for admission to a nursing facility who is not hospitalized, not 115481
later than one of the following:115482

       (a) Five calendar days after the person or the person's 115483
representative submits the application or notifies the department 115484
of the person's intention to apply and submits all information 115485
required for providing the level of care determination, as 115486
specified in rules adopted underauthorized by division (F)(2) of 115487
this section;115488

       (b) A later date requested by the person or the person's 115489
representative.115490

       (3) In the case of a person who resides in a nursing 115491
facility, not later than one of the following:115492

        (a) Five calendar days after the person or the person's 115493
representative submits an application for medical assistance115494
medicaid and submits all information required for providing the 115495
level of care determination, as specified in rules adopted under115496
authorized by division (F)(2) of this section;115497

        (b) A later date requested by the person or the person's 115498
representative.115499

        (4) In the case of an emergency, as specified in rules 115500
adopted underauthorized by division (F)(4) of this section, 115501
within the number of days specified in the rules.115502

       (D) A person assessed under this section or the person's 115503
representative may request a state hearing to disputeappeal the 115504
conclusions reached by the department of job and family services115505
or agency under contract with the department on the basis of the 115506
assessment. The request for a state hearingappeal shall be made 115507
in accordance withpursuant to section 5101.355160.31 of the 115508
Revised Code. The department of job and family services or agency 115509
under contract with the department shall provide to the person or 115510
the person's representative and the nursing facility written 115511
notice of the person's right to request a state hearing. The 115512
notice shall include an explanation of the procedure for 115513
requesting a state hearing. If a state hearing is requested, the 115514
state shall be represented in the hearing by the department of job 115515
and family services or the agency under contract with the 115516
department, whichever performed the assessment.115517

       (E) A nursing facility that admits or retains a person 115518
determined pursuant to an assessment required under this section 115519
not to need the level of care provided by the nursing facility 115520
shall not be reimbursedpaid under the medicaid program for the 115521
person's care.115522

       (F) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 115523
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5165.02115524
of the Revised Code to implement and administer this section. The 115525
rules shall include all of the following:115526

       (1) Criteria and procedures to be used in determining whether 115527
admission to a nursing facility or continued stay in a nursing 115528
facility is appropriate for the person being assessed;115529

       (2) Information the person being assessed or the person's 115530
representative must provide to the department or agency under 115531
contract with the department for purposes of the assessment and 115532
providing a level of care determination based on the assessment;115533

       (3) Circumstances under which a person is not required to be 115534
assessed;115535

       (4) Circumstances that constitute an emergency for purposes 115536
of division (C)(4) of this section and the number of days within 115537
which a level of care determination must be provided in the case 115538
of an emergency.115539

       (G) Pursuant to section 5111.915162.35 of the Revised Code, 115540
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid may enter into 115541
contracts in the form of interagency agreements with one or more 115542
other state agencies to perform the assessments required under 115543
this section. The interagency agreements shall specify the 115544
responsibilities of each agency in the performance of the 115545
assessments.115546

       Sec. 5111.21.        Sec. 5165.06. (A) In order to beSubject to section 115547
5165.072 of the Revised Code, an operator is eligible for medicaid 115548
payments, the operator ofto enter into a provider agreement for a 115549
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 115550
retarded shall doif all of the following apply:115551

       (1) Enter into a provider agreement with the department as 115552
provided in section 5111.22, 5111.671, or 5111.672 of the Revised 115553
Code(A) The nursing facility is certified by the director of 115554
health for participation in medicaid;115555

       (2) Apply for and maintain a valid license to operate(B) The 115556
nursing facility is licensed by the director of health as a 115557
nursing home if so required by law;115558

       (3) Subject to division (B) of this section,(C) The operator 115559
and nursing facility comply with all applicable state and federal 115560
laws and rules.115561

       (B) A state rule that requires the operator of an 115562
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded to have 115563
received approval of a plan for the proposed facility pursuant to 115564
section 5123.042 of the Revised Code as a condition of the 115565
operator being eligible for medicaid payments for the facility 115566
does not apply if, under former section 5123.193 of the Revised 115567
Code as enacted by Am. Sub. H.B. 1 of the 128th general assembly 115568
or section 5123.197 of the Revised Code, a residential facility 115569
license was obtained or modified for the facility without 115570
obtaining approval of such a plan.115571

       (C)(1) Except as provided in division (C)(2) of this section, 115572
the operator of a nursing facility that elects to obtain and 115573
maintain eligibility for payments under the medicaid program shall 115574
qualify all of the facility's medicaid-certified beds in the 115575
medicare program established by Title XVIII. The director of job 115576
and family services may adopt rules under section 5111.02 of the 115577
Revised Code to establish the time frame in which a nursing 115578
facility must comply with this requirement.115579

       (2) The department of veterans services is not required to 115580
qualify all of the medicaid-certified beds in a nursing facility 115581
the agency maintains and operates under section 5907.01 of the 115582
Revised Code in the medicare program.115583

       Sec. 5111.22.        Sec. 5165.07. (A) Except as provided in section 115584
5165.072 of the Revised Code, the department of medicaid shall 115585
enter into a provider agreement with a nursing facility operator 115586
who applies, and is eligible, for the provider agreement.115587

       (B) A provider agreement between the department of job and 115588
family services and the provider of a nursing facility or 115589
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded shall contain115590
require the following provisions:115591

       (A) The department agrees to make medicaid payments to the 115592
provider, as provided in sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the 115593
Revised Code,in accordance with this chapter for medicaid-covered115594
nursing facility services the nursing facility provides to a 115595
resident of theits residents who are medicaid recipients eligible 115596
for nursing facility who is a medicaid recipientservices. No 115597
payment shall be made for the day a medicaid recipient is 115598
discharged from the facility.115599

       (B) The(C) A provider agreement shall require the provider 115600
agrees to do all of the following:115601

       (1) Maintain eligibility for the provider agreement as 115602
provided in section 5111.215165.06 of the Revised Code;115603

       (2) Keep records relating to a cost reporting period for the 115604
greater of seven years after the cost report is filed or, if the 115605
department issues an audit report in accordance with division (B) 115606
of section 5111.275165.109 of the Revised Code, six years after 115607
all appeal rights relating to the audit report are exhausted;115608

       (3) File reports as required by the department;115609

       (4) Open all records relating to the costs of itsthe nursing 115610
facility's services for inspection and audit by the department;115611

       (5) Open its premises for inspection by the department, the 115612
department of health, and any other state or local authority 115613
having authority to inspect;115614

       (6) Supply to the department such information as it requires 115615
concerning the nursing facility's services to residents who are,115616
or are eligible to be, medicaid recipients;115617

       (7) Comply with section 5111.315165.08 of the Revised Code.115618

       The(D) A provider agreement may contain other provisions 115619
that are consistent with law and considered necessary by the 115620
department.115621

       A provider agreement shall be effective for no longer than 115622
twelve months, except that if federal statute or regulations 115623
authorize a longer term, it may be effective for a longer term so 115624
authorized. A provider agreement may be renewed only if the 115625
facility is certified by the department of health for 115626
participation in the medicaid program.115627

       The department of job and family services, in accordance with 115628
rules adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code, may elect 115629
not to enter into, not to renew, or to terminate a provider 115630
agreement when the department determines that such an agreement 115631
would not be in the best interests of medicaid recipients or of 115632
the state.115633

       Sec. 5111.223.        Sec. 5165.071. TheA nursing facility operator of a 115634
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 115635
retarded may enter into provider agreements for more than one 115636
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 115637
retarded.115638

       Sec. 5165.072.  The department of medicaid shall not 115639
revalidate a nursing facility provider agreement if the provider 115640
fails to maintain eligibility for the provider agreement as 115641
provided in section 5165.06 of the Revised Code.115642

       Sec. 5111.30.        Sec. 5165.073.  The department of job and family 115643
servicesmedicaid shall terminate the provider agreement with a 115644
nursing facility provider that does not comply with the 115645
requirements of section 3721.071 of the Revised Code for the 115646
installation of fire extinguishing and fire alarm systems.115647

       Sec. 5111.31.        Sec. 5165.08.  (A) As used in this section:115648

        "Bed need" means the number of long-term care beds a county 115649
needs as determined by the director of health pursuant to division 115650
(B)(3) of section 3702.593 of the Revised Code.115651

        "Bed need excess" means that a county's bed need is such that 115652
one or more long-term care beds may be relocated from the county 115653
according to the director's determination of the county's bed 115654
need.115655

        (B) Every provider agreement with thea nursing facility115656
provider of a nursing facility or intermediate care facility for 115657
the mentally retarded shall do both of the following:115658

       (1) Permit the provider to exclude one or more parts of the 115659
nursing facility from the provider agreement, even though those 115660
parts meet federal and state standards for medicaid certification, 115661
if all of the following apply:115662

        (a) The nursing facility initially obtained both its nursing 115663
home license under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code and medicaid 115664
certification on or after January 1, 2008.115665

        (b) The nursing facility is located in a county that has a 115666
bed need excess at the time the provider excludes the parts from 115667
the provider agreement.115668

        (c) Federal law permits the provider to exclude the parts 115669
from the provider agreement.115670

        (d) The provider gives the department of medicaid written 115671
notice of the exclusion not less than forty-five days before the 115672
first day of the calendar quarter in which the exclusion is to 115673
occur.115674

       (2) Prohibit the provider from doing either of the following:115675

       (a) Discriminating against a resident on the basis of race, 115676
color, sex, creed, or national origin;115677

       (b) Subject to division (D) of this section, failing or 115678
refusing to retaindo either of the following:115679

       (i) Except as otherwise prohibited under section 5165.82 of 115680
the Revised Code, admit as a resident of the nursing facility an 115681
individual because the individual is, or may (as a resident of the 115682
nursing facility) become, a medicaid recipient unless at least 115683
twenty-five per cent of the nursing facility's medicaid-certified 115684
beds are occupied by medicaid recipients at the time the person 115685
would otherwise be admitted;115686

       (ii) Retain as a patient any personresident of the nursing 115687
facility an individual because the personindividual is, becomes,115688
or may (as a resident of the nursing facility) become, as a 115689
patient in the facility, become a medicaid recipient. For the 115690
purposes of this division, a medicaid recipient who is a patient 115691
in a facility shall be considered a patient in the facility during 115692
any hospital stays totaling less than twenty-five days during any 115693
twelve-month period. Recipients who have been identified by the 115694
department of job and family services or its designee as requiring 115695
the level of care of an intermediate care facility for the 115696
mentally retarded shall not be subject to a maximum period of 115697
absences during which they are considered patients if prior 115698
authorization of the department for visits with relatives and 115699
friends and participation in therapeutic programs is obtained 115700
under rules adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code.115701

       (2) Except as provided by division (B)(1) of this section, 115702
include any part of the facility that meets standards for 115703
certification of compliance with federal and state laws and rules 115704
for participation in the medicaid program.115705

       (3) Prohibit the provider from discriminating against any 115706
patient on the basis of race, color, sex, creed, or national 115707
origin.115708

       (4) Except as otherwise prohibited under section 5111.55 of 115709
the Revised Code, prohibit the provider from failing or refusing 115710
to accept a patient because the patient is, becomes, or may, as a 115711
patient in the facility, become a medicaid recipient if less than 115712
eighty per cent of the patients in the facility are medicaid 115713
recipients.115714

       (B)(1) Except as provided by division (B)(2) of this section, 115715
the following are not required to be included in a provider 115716
agreement unless otherwise required by federal law:115717

       (a) Beds added during the period beginning July 1, 1987, and 115718
ending July 1, 1993, to a nursing home licensed under Chapter 115719
3721. of the Revised Code;115720

       (b) Beds in an intermediate care facility for the mentally 115721
retarded that are designated for respite care under a medicaid 115722
waiver component operated pursuant to a waiver sought under 115723
section 5111.87 of the Revised Code.115724

        (2) If a provider chooses to include a bed specified in 115725
division (B)(1)(a) of this section in a provider agreement, the 115726
bed may not be removed from the provider agreement unless the 115727
provider withdraws the facility in which the bed is located from 115728
the medicaid program.115729

       (C) For the purpose of division (B)(2)(b)(ii) of this 115730
section, a medicaid recipient who is a resident of a nursing 115731
facility shall be considered a resident of the nursing facility 115732
during any hospital stays totaling less than twenty-five days 115733
during any twelve-month period.115734

       (D) Nothing in this section shall bar a provider thatfrom 115735
doing any of the following:115736

       (1) If the provider is a religious organization operating a 115737
religious or denominational nursing facility or intermediate care 115738
facility for the mentally retarded from giving preference to 115739
persons of the same religion or denomination. Nothing in this 115740
section shall bar any provider from giving;115741

       (2) Giving preference to persons with whom the provider has 115742
contracted to provide continuing care.115743

       (D) Nothing in this section shall bar the provider of;115744

       (3) If the nursing facility is a county home organized under 115745
Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code from, admitting residents 115746
exclusively from the county in which the county home is located.115747

       (E) No provider of a nursing facility or intermediate care 115748
facility for the mentally retarded for which a provider agreement 115749
is in effect shall violate the provider contract obligations 115750
imposed under this section.115751

       (F) Nothing in divisions (A) and (C) of this section shall 115752
bar a provider from retaining patients;115753

       (4) Retaining residents who have resided in the provider's 115754
nursing facility for not less than one year as private pay 115755
patients and who subsequently become medicaid recipients, but 115756
refusing to accept as a patientresident any person who is, or 115757
may,(as a patient inresident of the nursing facility,) become a 115758
medicaid recipient, if all of the following apply:115759

       (1)(a) The provider does not refuse to retain any patient115760
resident who has resided in the provider's nursing facility for 115761
not less than one year as a private pay patientresident because 115762
the patientresident becomes a medicaid recipient, except as 115763
necessary to comply with division (F)(2)(D)(4)(b) of this section;115764

       (2)(b) The number of medicaid recipients retained under this115765
division (D)(4) of this section does not at any time exceed ten 115766
per cent of all the patientsresidents in the nursing facility;115767

       (3)(c) On July 1, 1980, all the patientsresidents in the 115768
nursing facility were private pay patientsresidents.115769

       (E) No provider shall violate the provider agreement 115770
obligations imposed by this section.115771

       (F) A nursing facility provider who excludes one or more 115772
parts of the nursing facility from a provider agreement pursuant 115773
to division (B)(1) of this section does not violate division (C) 115774
of section 3702.53 of the Revised Code.115775

       Sec. 5111.32.        Sec. 5165.081. Any patientA nursing facility 115776
resident has a cause of action against thea nursing facility115777
provider of a nursing facility or intermediate care facility for 115778
the mentally retarded for breach of the provider agreement 115779
obligations or other duties imposed by section 5111.315165.08 of 115780
the Revised Code. The action may be commenced by the patient115781
resident, or on the patient'sresident's behalf by the patient's115782
resident's sponsor or a residents' rights advocate, as either is 115783
defined under section 3721.10 of the Revised Code, by the filing 115784
of a civil action in the court of common pleas of the county in 115785
which the nursing facility is located, or in the court of common 115786
pleas of Franklin county.115787

       If thea court of common pleas finds that a breach of the115788
provider has breached a provider agreement obligationsobligation 115789
or other duty imposed by section 5111.315165.08 of the Revised 115790
Code has occurred, the court may enjoindo one or more of the 115791
following:115792

       (A) Enjoin the provider from engaging in the practice, order;115793

       (B) Order such affirmative relief as may be necessary, and 115794
award;115795

       (C) Award to the patienta resident and a personsponsor or 115796
public agencygovernment entity that brings anthe action on 115797
behalf of a patientresident actual damages, costs, and reasonable 115798
attorney's fees.115799

       Sec. 5165.082.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of 115800
this section, the operator of a nursing facility that elects to 115801
have the nursing facility participate in the medicaid program 115802
shall qualify all of the nursing facility's medicaid-certified 115803
beds in the medicare program. The medicaid director may adopt 115804
rules under section 5165.02 of the Revised Code to establish the 115805
time frame in which a nursing facility must comply with this 115806
requirement.115807

       (B) The department of veterans services is not required to 115808
qualify all of the medicaid-certified beds in a nursing facility 115809
the department maintains and operates under section 5907.01 of the 115810
Revised Code in the medicare program.115811

       Sec. 5111.26.        Sec. 5165.10.  (A)(1)(a) Except as provided in 115812
division (A)(1)(b)(D) of this section, each nursing facility115813
provider shall file with the department of job and family services115814
medicaid an annual cost report for each of the provider's nursing 115815
facilities and intermediate care facilities for the mentally 115816
retarded that participate in the medicaid program. A provider 115817
shall prepare the reports in accordance with guidelines 115818
established by the department. AThe cost report for a year shall 115819
cover athe calendar year or the portion of athe calendar year 115820
during which the nursing facility participated in the medicaid 115821
program. A provider shall file the reports withinExcept as 115822
provided in division (E) of this section, the cost report is due 115823
not later than ninety days after the end of the calendar year, or 115824
portion of the calendar year, that the cost report covers. The 115825
department, for good cause, may grant a fourteen-day extension of 115826
the time for filing cost reports upon written request from a 115827
provider. The director of job and family services shall prescribe, 115828
in rules adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code, the 115829
cost reporting form and a uniform chart of accounts for the 115830
purpose of cost reporting, and shall distribute cost reporting 115831
forms or computer software for electronic submission of the cost 115832
report to each provider at least sixty days before the reporting 115833
date.115834

       (b) If rates for a provider's nursing facility or 115835
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded were most 115836
recently established under section 5111.254 or 5111.255 of the 115837
Revised Code, the provider shall submit a cost report for that 115838
facility no later than ninety days after the end of the facility's 115839
first three full calendar months of operation. If a nursing 115840
facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded 115841
undergoes a change of provider that the department determines, in 115842
accordance with rules adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised 115843
Code, is an arm's length transaction, the new provider shall 115844
submit a cost report for that facility not later than ninety days 115845
after the end of the facility's first three full calendar months 115846
of operation under the new provider. The provider of a facility 115847
that opens or undergoes a change of provider that is an arm's 115848
length transaction after the first day of October in any calendar 115849
year is not required to file a cost report for that calendar year.115850

       (c)(B) If a nursing facility undergoes a change of provider 115851
that the department determines, in accordance with rules adopted 115852
under section 5111.025165.02 of the Revised Code, is not an arms115853
arm's length transaction, the new provider shall file athe 115854
nursing facility's cost report underin accordance with division 115855
(A)(1)(a) of this section for the facility. Theand the cost 115856
report shall cover the portion of the calendar year during which 115857
the new provider operated the nursing facility and the portion of 115858
the calendar year during which the previous provider operated the 115859
nursing facility.115860

       (2) If a provider required to submit a cost report for a 115861
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 115862
retarded does not file the report within the required time period 115863
or within fourteen days thereafter if an extension is granted 115864
under division (A)(1)(a) of this section, or files an incomplete 115865
or inadequate report for the facility, the department shall 115866
provide immediate written notice to the provider that the provider 115867
agreement for the facility will be terminated in thirty days 115868
unless the provider submits a complete and adequate cost report 115869
for the facility within thirty days. During the thirty-day 115870
termination period or any additional time allowed for an appeal of 115871
the proposed termination of a provider agreement, the provider 115872
shall be paid the facility's then current per resident per day 115873
rate, minus two dollars. On July 1, 1994, the department shall 115874
adjust the two-dollar reduction to reflect the rate of inflation 115875
during the preceding twelve months, as shown in the consumer price 115876
index for all items for all urban consumers for the north central 115877
region, published by the United States bureau of labor statistics. 115878
On July 1, 1995, and the first day of July of each year 115879
thereafter, the department shall adjust the amount of the 115880
reduction in effect during the previous twelve months to reflect 115881
the rate of inflation during the preceding twelve months, as shown 115882
in the same index.115883

       (B) No provider shall report fines paid under sections 115884
5111.35 to 5111.62 or section 5111.99 of the Revised Code in any 115885
cost report filed under this section.115886

       (C) The department shall develop an addendum to the cost 115887
report form that a provider may use to set forth costs that the 115888
provider believes may be disputed by the department. Any costs 115889
reported by the provider on the addendum may be considered by the 115890
department in setting the facility's rate. If the department does 115891
not consider the costs listed on the addendum in setting the 115892
facility's rate, the provider may seek reconsideration of that 115893
determination under section 5111.29 of the Revised Code. If the 115894
department subsequently includes the costs listed in the addendum 115895
in the facility's rate, the department shall pay the provider 115896
interest at a reasonable rate established in rules adopted under 115897
section 5111.02 of the Revised Code for the time that the rate 115898
paid excluded the costs.If the medicaid payment rate for a new 115899
nursing facility was most recently determined in accordance with 115900
section 5165.151 of the Revised Code, the provider shall file with 115901
the department a cost report for the new nursing facility not 115902
later than, except as provided in division (E) of this section, 115903
ninety days after the end of the new nursing facility's first 115904
three full calendar months of operation. The cost report shall 115905
cover the period that begins with the nursing facility's first day 115906
of operation and ends on the first day of the month immediately 115907
following the first three full months of operation.115908

       (D) A nursing facility provider is not required to file a 115909
cost report for a nursing facility for a calendar year in 115910
accordance with division (A) of this section if the provider files 115911
a cost report for the nursing facility under division (C) of this 115912
section and that cost report covers a period that begins after the 115913
first day of October of that calendar year. The provider shall 115914
file a cost report for the nursing facility in accordance with 115915
division (A) of this section for the immediately following 115916
calendar year.115917

       (E) The department may grant to a provider a fourteen-day 115918
extension to file a cost report under this section if the provider 115919
provides the department a written request for the extension and 115920
the department determines that there is good cause for the 115921
extension.115922

       Sec. 5111.266.        Sec. 5165.101.  A nursing facility provider of a 115923
nursing facility filing the nursing facility's cost report with 115924
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid under section 115925
5111.265165.10 or 5165.522 of the Revised Code shall report as a 115926
nonreimbursable expense the cost of the nursing facility's 115927
franchise permit fee.115928

       Sec. 5165.102.  No nursing facility provider shall report 115929
fines paid under sections 5165.60 to 5165.89 or section 5165.99 of 115930
the Revised Code in a cost report filed under section 5165.10 or 115931
5165.522 of the Revised Code.115932

       Sec. 5165.103.  Cost reports shall be completed using the 115933
form prescribed under section 5165.104 of the Revised Code and in 115934
accordance with the guidelines established under that section.115935

       Sec. 5165.104.  The department of medicaid shall do all of 115936
the following:115937

       (A) Prescribe the form to be used for completing a cost 115938
report and a uniform chart of accounts for the purpose of 115939
reporting costs on the form;115940

       (B) Distribute a paper copy of the form, or computer software 115941
for electronic submission of the form, to each provider at least 115942
sixty days before the date the cost report is due;115943

       (C) Establish guidelines for completing the form.115944

       Sec. 5165.105.  The department of medicaid shall develop an 115945
addendum to the cost report form that a nursing facility provider 115946
may use to set forth costs that the provider believes the 115947
department may dispute. The department may consider such costs in 115948
determining a nursing facility's medicaid payment rate. If the 115949
department does not consider such costs in determining a nursing 115950
facility's medicaid payment rate, the provider may seek 115951
reconsideration of the determination in accordance with section 115952
5165.38 of the Revised Code. If the department subsequently 115953
includes such costs in a nursing facility's medicaid payment rate, 115954
the department shall pay the provider interest at a reasonable 115955
rate established in rules adopted under section 5165.02 of the 115956
Revised Code for the period that the rate excluded the costs.115957

       Sec. 5165.106.  If a nursing facility provider required by 115958
section 5165.10 of the Revised Code to file a cost report for the 115959
nursing facility fails to file the cost report by the date it is 115960
due or the date, if any, to which the due date is extended 115961
pursuant to division (E) of that section, or files an incomplete 115962
or inadequate report for the nursing facility under that section, 115963
the department of medicaid shall provide immediate written notice 115964
to the provider that the provider agreement for the nursing 115965
facility will be terminated in thirty days unless the provider 115966
submits a complete and adequate cost report for the nursing 115967
facility within thirty days. During the thirty-day termination 115968
period or any additional time allowed for an appeal of the 115969
proposed termination of a provider agreement, the provider shall 115970
be paid the nursing facility's then current per medicaid day 115971
payment rate, minus the dollar amount by which nursing facility's 115972
per medicaid day payment rates are reduced during fiscal year 2013 115973
in accordance with division (A)(2) of section 5111.26 of the 115974
Revised Code (renumbered as section 5165.10 of the Revised Code by 115975
H.B. 59 of the 130th general assembly) as that section existed on 115976
the day immediately preceding the effective date of this section. 115977
On the first day of each July, the department shall adjust the 115978
amount of the reduction in effect during the previous twelve 115979
months to reflect the rate of inflation during the preceding 115980
twelve months, as shown in the consumer price index for all items 115981
for all urban consumers for the north central region, published by 115982
the United States bureau of labor statistics.115983

       Sec. 5111.261.        Sec. 5165.107.  (A) Except as provided in division 115984
(B) of this section and not later than three years after a nursing 115985
facility provider files a cost report with the department of job 115986
and family servicesmedicaid under section 5111.265165.10 of the 115987
Revised Code, the provider may amend the cost report if the 115988
provider discovers a material error in the cost report or 115989
additional information to be included in the cost report. The 115990
department shall review the amended cost report for accuracy and 115991
notify the provider of its determination.115992

       (B) A provider may not amend a cost report if the department 115993
has notified the provider that an audit of the cost report or a 115994
cost report of the provider for a subsequent cost reporting period 115995
is to be conducted under section 5111.275165.109 of the Revised 115996
Code. The provider may, however, provide the department 115997
information that affects the costs included in the cost report. 115998
Such information may not be provided after the adjudication of the 115999
final settlement of the cost report.116000

       Sec. 5111.27.        Sec. 5165.108.  (A) The department of job and family 116001
servicesmedicaid shall conduct a desk review of each cost report 116002
it receives under section 5111.265165.10 or 5165.522 of the 116003
Revised Code. Based on the desk review, the department shall make 116004
a preliminary determination of whether the reported costs are 116005
allowable costs. The department shall notify each nursing facility116006
provider of whether any of the reported costs are preliminarily 116007
determined not to be allowable, the medicaid payment rate 116008
calculationdetermined under sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the 116009
Revised Codethis chapter that results from that determination, 116010
and the reasons for the determination and resulting rate. The 116011
department shall allow the provider to verify the calculation and 116012
submit additional information.116013

       (B) The department may conduct an audit, as defined by rule 116014
adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code, of any cost 116015
report. The decision whether to conduct an audit and the scope of 116016
the audit, which may be a desk or field audit, may be determined 116017
based on prior performance of the provider, a risk analysis, or 116018
other evidence that gives the department reason to believe that 116019
the provider has reported costs improperly. A desk or field audit 116020
may be performed annually, but is required whenever a provider 116021
does not pass the risk analysis tolerance factors. An audit shall 116022
be conducted by auditors under contract with or employed by the 116023
department. The department shall notify a provider of the findings 116024
of an audit by issuing an audit report. An audit report regarding 116025
a nursing facility shall include notice of any fine imposed under 116026
section 5111.271 of the Revised Code. The department shall issue 116027
the audit report no later than three years after the cost report 116028
is filed, or upon the completion of a desk or field audit on the 116029
report or a report for a subsequent cost reporting period, 116030
whichever is earlier.116031

       The department may establish a contract for the auditing of 116032
facilities by outside firms. Each contract entered into by bidding 116033
shall be effective for one to two years. The department shall 116034
establish an audit manual and program which shall require that all 116035
field audits, conducted either pursuant to a contract or by 116036
department employees:116037

       (1) Comply with the applicable rules prescribed pursuant to 116038
Titles XVIII and XIX;116039

       (2) Consider generally accepted auditing standards prescribed 116040
by the American institute of certified public accountants;116041

       (3) Include a written summary as to whether the costs 116042
included in the report examined during the audit are allowable and 116043
are presented in accordance with state and federal laws and 116044
regulations, and whether, in all material respects, allowable 116045
costs are documented, reasonable, and related to patient care;116046

       (4) Are conducted by accounting firms or auditors who, during 116047
the period of the auditors' professional engagement or employment 116048
and during the period covered by the cost reports, do not have nor 116049
are committed to acquire any direct or indirect financial interest 116050
in the ownership, financing, or operation of a nursing facility or 116051
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded in this 116052
state;116053

       (5) Are conducted by accounting firms or auditors who, as a 116054
condition of the contract or employment, shall not audit any 116055
facility that has been a client of the firm or auditor;116056

       (6) Are conducted by auditors who are otherwise independent 116057
as determined by the standards of independence included in the 116058
government auditing standards produced by the United States 116059
government accountability office;116060

       (7) Are completed within the time period specified by the 116061
department;116062

       (8) Provide to the provider complete written interpretations 116063
that explain in detail the application of all relevant contract 116064
provisions, regulations, auditing standards, rate formulae, and 116065
departmental policies, with explanations and examples, that are 116066
sufficient to permit the provider to calculate with reasonable 116067
certainty those costs that are allowable and the rate to which the 116068
provider's facility is entitled.116069

       For the purposes of division (B)(4) of this section, 116070
employment of a member of an auditor's family by a nursing 116071
facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded 116072
that the auditor does not review does not constitute a direct or 116073
indirect financial interest in the ownership, financing, or 116074
operation of the facility.116075

       (C) The department, pursuant to rules adopted under section 116076
5111.02 of the Revised Code, may conduct an exception review of 116077
assessment data submitted under section 5111.232 of the Revised 116078
Code. The department may conduct an exception review based on the 116079
findings of a certification survey conducted by the department of 116080
health, a risk analysis, or prior performance of the provider.116081

       Exception reviews shall be conducted at the facility by 116082
appropriate health professionals under contract with or employed 116083
by the department of job and family services. The professionals 116084
may review resident assessment forms and supporting documentation, 116085
conduct interviews, and observe residents to identify any patterns 116086
or trends of inaccurate assessments and resulting inaccurate 116087
case-mix scores.116088

       The rules shall establish an exception review program that 116089
requires that exception reviews do all of the following:116090

       (1) Comply with Titles XVIII and XIX;116091

       (2) Provide a written summary that states whether the 116092
resident assessment forms have been completed accurately;116093

       (3) Are conducted by health professionals who, during the 116094
period of their professional engagement or employment with the 116095
department, neither have nor are committed to acquire any direct 116096
or indirect financial interest in the ownership, financing, or 116097
operation of a nursing facility or intermediate care facility for 116098
the mentally retarded in this state;116099

       (4) Are conducted by health professionals who, as a condition 116100
of their engagement or employment with the department, shall not 116101
review any provider that has been a client of the professional.116102

       For the purposes of division (C)(3) of this section, 116103
employment of a member of a health professional's family by a 116104
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 116105
retarded that the professional does not review does not constitute 116106
a direct or indirect financial interest in the ownership, 116107
financing, or operation of the facility.116108

       If an exception review is conducted before the effective date 116109
of the rate that is based on the case-mix data subject to the 116110
review and the review results in findings that exceed tolerance 116111
levels specified in the rules adopted under this division, the 116112
department, in accordance with those rules, may use the findings 116113
to recalculate individual resident case-mix scores, quarterly 116114
average facility case-mix scores, and annual average facility 116115
case-mix scores. The department may use the recalculated quarterly 116116
and annual facility average case-mix scores to calculate the 116117
facility's rate for direct care costs for the appropriate calendar 116118
quarter or quarters.116119

       (D) The department shall prepare a written summary of any 116120
audit disallowance or exception review finding that is made after 116121
the effective date of the rate that is based on the cost or 116122
case-mix data. Where the provider is pursuing judicial or 116123
administrative remedies in good faith regarding the disallowance 116124
or finding, the department shall not withhold from the provider's 116125
current payments any amounts the department claims to be due from 116126
the provider pursuant to section 5111.28 of the Revised Code.116127

       (E) The department shall not reduce rates calculated under 116128
sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Code on the basis that 116129
the provider charges a lower rate to any resident who is not 116130
eligible for the medicaid program.116131

       (F) The department shall adjust the rates calculated under 116132
sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Code to account for 116133
reasonable additional costs that must be incurred by intermediate 116134
care facilities for the mentally retarded to comply with 116135
requirements of federal or state statutes, rules, or policies 116136
enacted or amended after January 1, 1992, or with orders issued by 116137
state or local fire authorities.116138

       Sec. 5165.109.  (A) The department of medicaid may conduct an 116139
audit, as defined in rules adopted under section 5165.02 of the 116140
Revised Code, of any cost report filed under section 5165.10 or 116141
5165.522 of the Revised Code. The decision whether to conduct an 116142
audit and the scope of the audit, which may be a desk or field 116143
audit, may be determined based on prior performance of the 116144
provider, a risk analysis, or other evidence that gives the 116145
department reason to believe that the provider has reported costs 116146
improperly. A desk or field audit may be performed annually, but 116147
is required whenever a provider does not pass the risk analysis 116148
tolerance factors.116149

       (B) Audits shall be conducted by auditors under contract with 116150
the department, auditors working for firms under contract with the 116151
department, or auditors employed by the department. 116152

       The department may establish a contract for the auditing of 116153
nursing facilities by outside firms. Each contract entered into by 116154
bidding shall be effective for one to two years.116155

       (C) The department shall notify a provider of the findings of 116156
an audit of a cost report by issuing an audit report. The audit 116157
report shall include notice of any fine imposed under section 116158
5165.1010 of the Revised Code. The department shall issue the 116159
audit report not later than three years after the earlier of the 116160
following:116161

       (1) The date the cost report is filed;116162

       (2) The date a desk or field audit of the cost report or a 116163
cost report for a subsequent cost reporting period is completed.116164

       (D) The department shall prepare a written summary of any 116165
audit disallowance that is made after the effective date of the 116166
rate that is based on the cost. Where the provider is pursuing 116167
judicial or administrative remedies in good faith regarding the 116168
disallowance, the department shall not withhold from the 116169
provider's current payments any amounts the department claims to 116170
be due from the provider pursuant to section 5165.41 of the 116171
Revised Code.116172

       (E)(1) The department shall establish an audit manual and 116173
program for field audits conducted under this section. Each 116174
auditor conducting a field audit under this section shall follow 116175
the audit manual and program, regardless of whether the auditor is 116176
under contract with the department, works for a firm under 116177
contract with the department, or is employed by the department. 116178
The manual and program shall do both of the following:116179

       (a) Require each field audit to be conducted by an auditor to 116180
whom all of the following apply:116181

       (i) During the period of the auditor's contract, firm's 116182
contract, or auditor's employment with the department, the auditor 116183
or firm does not have and is not committed to acquire any direct 116184
or indirect financial interest in the ownership, financing, or 116185
operation of nursing facilities in this state.116186

       (ii) The auditor does not audit any provider that has been a 116187
client of the auditor or the auditor's firm.116188

       (iii) The auditor is otherwise independent as determined by 116189
the standards of independence included in the government auditing 116190
standards produced by the United States government accountability 116191
office.116192

       (b) Require each auditor conducting a field audit to do all 116193
of the following:116194

       (i) Comply with applicable rules prescribed pursuant to Title 116195
XVIII and Title XIX;116196

       (ii) Consider generally accepted auditing standards 116197
prescribed by the American institute of certified public 116198
accountants;116199

       (iii) Include a written summary as to whether the costs 116200
included in the cost report examined during the audit are 116201
allowable and are presented in accordance with state and federal 116202
laws and regulations, and whether, in all material respects, 116203
allowable costs are documented, reasonable, and related to patient 116204
care;116205

       (iv) Complete the audit within the time period specified by 116206
the department;116207

       (v) Provide to the provider complete written interpretations 116208
that explain in detail the application of all relevant contract 116209
provisions, regulations, auditing standards, rate formulae, and 116210
departmental policies, with explanations and examples, that are 116211
sufficient to permit the provider to calculate with reasonable 116212
certainty those costs that are allowable and the rate to which the 116213
provider's nursing facility is entitled.116214

       (2) For the purpose of division (E)(1)(a)(i) of this section, 116215
employment of a member of an auditor's family by a nursing 116216
facility that the auditor does not audit does not constitute a 116217
direct or indirect financial interest in the ownership, financing, 116218
or operation of the nursing facility.116219

       Sec. 5111.271.        Sec. 5165.1010.  (A) Subject to division (D) of this 116220
section, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 116221
fine the provider of a nursing facility if the report of an audit 116222
conducted under division (B) of section 5111.275165.109 of the 116223
Revised Code regarding a cost report for the nursing facility 116224
includes either of the following:116225

       (1) Adverse findings that exceed three per cent of the total 116226
amount of medicaid-reimbursablemedicaid-allowable costs reported 116227
in the cost report;116228

       (2) Adverse findings that exceed twenty per cent of 116229
medicaid-reimbursablemedicaid-allowable costs for a particular 116230
cost center reported in the cost report.116231

       (B) A fine issued under this section shall equal the greatest 116232
of the following:116233

       (1) If the adverse findings exceed three per cent but do not 116234
exceed ten per cent of the total amount of medicaid-reimbursable116235
medicaid-allowable costs reported in the cost report, the greater 116236
of three per cent of those reported costs or ten thousand dollars;116237

       (2) If the adverse findings exceed ten per cent but do not 116238
exceed twenty per cent of the total amount of 116239
medicaid-reimbursablemedicaid-allowable costs reported in the 116240
cost report, the greater of six per cent of those reported costs 116241
or twenty-five thousand dollars;116242

       (3) If the adverse findings exceed twenty per cent of the 116243
total amount of medicaid-reimbursablemedicaid-allowable costs 116244
reported in the cost report, the greater of ten per cent of those 116245
reported costs or fifty thousand dollars;116246

       (4) If the adverse findings exceed twenty per cent but do not 116247
exceed twenty-five per cent of medicaid-reimbursable116248
medicaid-allowable costs for a particular cost center reported in 116249
the cost report, the greater of three per cent of the total amount 116250
of medicaid-reimbursablemedicaid-allowable costs reported in the 116251
cost report or ten thousand dollars;116252

       (5) If the adverse findings exceed twenty-five per cent but 116253
do not exceed thirty per cent of medicaid-reimbursable116254
medicaid-allowable costs for a particular cost center reported in 116255
the cost report, the greater of six per cent of the total amount 116256
of medicaid-reimbursablemedicaid-allowable costs reported in the 116257
cost report or twenty-five thousand dollars;116258

       (6) If the adverse findings exceed thirty per cent of 116259
medicaid-reimbursablemedicaid-allowable costs for a particular 116260
cost center reported in the cost report, the greater of ten per 116261
cent of the total amount of medicaid-reimbursable116262
medicaid-allowable costs reported in the cost report or fifty 116263
thousand dollars.116264

       (C) Fines paid under this section shall be deposited into the 116265
health care services administration fund created under section 116266
5111.945162.54 of the Revised Code.116267

       (D) The department may not collect a fine under this section 116268
until all appeal rights relating to the audit report that is the 116269
basis for the fine are exhausted.116270

       Sec. 5111.222.        Sec. 5165.15.  (A) As used in this section, "low 116271
resource utilization resident" means a medicaid recipient residing 116272
in a nursing facility who, for purposes of calculating the nursing 116273
facility's medicaid reimbursement rate for direct care costs, is 116274
placed in either of the two lowest resource utilization groups, 116275
excluding any resource utilization group that is a default group 116276
used for residents with incomplete assessment data.116277

       (B) Except as otherwise provided by sections 5111.205165.151116278
to 5111.3315165.156 and 5165.34 of the Revised Code and by 116279
division (C) of this section, the total per medicaid day payment116280
rate that the department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 116281
agree to pay for a fiscal year to the provider of a nursing 116282
facility pursuant to a provider agreementprovider for nursing 116283
facility services the provider's nursing facility provides during 116284
a fiscal year shall equal the sum of all of the following:116285

        (1) The rate for direct care costs determined for the nursing 116286
facility under section 5111.231 of the Revised Code;116287

       (2) The per medicaid day payment rate for ancillary and 116288
support costs determined for the nursing facility's ancillary and 116289
support cost peer groupfacility under section 5111.245165.16 of 116290
the Revised Code;116291

        (3)(2) The per medicaid day payment rate for capital costs 116292
determined for the nursing facility under section 5165.17 of the 116293
Revised Code;116294

       (3) The per medicaid day payment rate for direct care costs 116295
determined for the nursing facility under section 5165.19 of the 116296
Revised Code;116297

       (4) The per medicaid day payment rate for tax costs 116298
determined for the nursing facility under section 5111.2425165.21116299
of the Revised Code;116300

       (4) The quality incentive payment paid to the nursing 116301
facility under section 5111.244 of the Revised Code;116302

        (5) If the nursing facility qualifies as a critical access 116303
nursing facility, the nursing facility's critical access incentive 116304
payment paid to the nursing facility under section 5111.246116305
5165.23 of the Revised Code;116306

       (6) The rate for capital costs determined for the nursing 116307
facility's capital costs peer group under section 5111.25quality 116308
incentive payment paid to the nursing facility under section 116309
5165.25 of the Revised Code.116310

       (C) The total rate determined under division (B) of this 116311
section shall not be paid for nursing facility services provided 116312
to low resource utilization residents. Instead, the total rate for 116313
nursing facility services that a nursing facility provides to low 116314
resource utilization residents shall be one hundred thirty dollars 116315
per medicaid day.116316

       (D)(B) In addition to paying a nursing facility provider the 116317
nursing facility's total rate determined under division (B) or 116318
(C)(A) of this section for a fiscal year, the department shall pay 116319
the provider a quality bonus under section 5111.2455165.26 of the 116320
Revised Code for that fiscal year if the provider's nursing 116321
facility is a qualifying nursing facility, as defined in that 116322
section, for that fiscal year. The quality bonus shall not be part 116323
of the total rate.116324

       Sec. 5111.254.        Sec. 5165.151.  (A) The department of job and family 116325
services shall establish initial rates for a nursing facility with 116326
a first date of licensure that is on or after July 1, 2006, 116327
including a facility that replaces one or more existing 116328
facilities, or for a nursing facility with a first date of 116329
licensure before that date that was initially certified for the 116330
medicaid program on or after that date,total per medicaid day 116331
payment rate determined under section 5165.15 of the Revised Code 116332
shall not be the initial rate for nursing facility services 116333
provided by a new nursing facility. Instead, the initial total per 116334
medicaid day payment rate for nursing facility services provided 116335
by a new nursing facility shall be determined in the following 116336
manner:116337

       (1) The initial rate for ancillary and support costs shall be 116338
the rate for the new nursing facility's peer group determined 116339
under division (D) of section 5165.16 of the Revised Code.116340

       (2) The initial rate for capital costs shall be the rate for 116341
the new nursing facility's peer group determined under division 116342
(D) of section 5165.17 of the Revised Code;116343

       (3) The initial rate for direct care costs shall be the 116344
product of the cost per case-mix unit determined under division 116345
(D) of section 5111.2315165.19 of the Revised Code for the new 116346
nursing facility's peer group and the new nursing facility's 116347
case-mix score determined under division (B) of this section. For 116348
the purpose of division (A)(1) of this section, the nursing 116349
facility's case-mix score shall be the following:116350

       (a) Unless the nursing facility replaces an existing nursing 116351
facility that participated in the medicaid program immediately 116352
before the replacement nursing facility begins participating in 116353
the medicaid program, the median annual average case-mix score for 116354
the nursing facility's peer group;116355

        (b) If the nursing facility replaces an existing nursing 116356
facility that participated in the medicaid program immediately 116357
before the replacement nursing facility begins participating in 116358
the medicaid program, the semiannual case-mix score most recently 116359
determined under section 5111.232 of the Revised Code for the 116360
replaced nursing facility as adjusted, if necessary, to reflect 116361
any difference in the number of beds in the replaced and 116362
replacement nursing facilities.116363

       (2) The rate for ancillary and support costs shall be the 116364
rate for the facility's peer group determined under division (D) 116365
of section 5111.24 of the Revised Code.116366

       (3) The rate for capital costs shall be the rate for the 116367
facility's peer group determined under division (D) of section 116368
5111.25 of the Revised Code.116369

       (4) The initial rate for tax costs shall be the median rate 116370
for tax costs for the new nursing facility's peer group in which 116371
the nursing facility is placed under division (C) of section 116372
5111.245165.16 of the Revised Code.116373

       (5) The quality incentive payment shall be the mean payment 116374
made to nursing facilities under section 5111.2445165.25 of the 116375
Revised Code.116376

       (B) For the purpose of division (A)(3) of this section, a new 116377
nursing facility's case-mix score shall be the following:116378

       (1) Unless the new nursing facility replaces an existing 116379
nursing facility that participated in the medicaid program 116380
immediately before the new nursing facility begins participating 116381
in the medicaid program, the median annual average case-mix score 116382
for the new nursing facility's peer group;116383

       (2) If the nursing facility replaces an existing nursing 116384
facility that participated in the medicaid program immediately 116385
before the new nursing facility begins participating in the 116386
medicaid program, the semiannual case-mix score most recently 116387
determined under section 5165.192 of the Revised Code for the 116388
replaced nursing facility as adjusted, if necessary, to reflect 116389
any difference in the number of beds in the replaced and new 116390
nursing facilities.116391

       (C) Subject to division (C)(D) of this section, the 116392
department shall adjust the rates established under division (A) 116393
of this section effective the first day of July, to reflect new 116394
rate calculations for all nursing facilities under sections 116395
5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Codethis chapter.116396

       (C)(D) If a rate for direct care costs is determined under 116397
this section for a new nursing facility using the median annual 116398
average case-mix score for the new nursing facility's peer group, 116399
the rate shall be redetermined to reflect the replacementnew116400
nursing facility's actual semiannual average case-mix score 116401
determined under section 5111.2325165.192 of the Revised Code 116402
after the new nursing facility submits its first two quarterly 116403
assessment data that qualify for use in calculating a case-mix 116404
score in accordance with rules authorized by division (E) of116405
section 5111.2325165.192 of the Revised Code. If the new nursing 116406
facility's quarterly submissions do not qualify for use in 116407
calculating a case-mix score, the department shall continue to use 116408
the median annual average case-mix score for the new nursing 116409
facility's peer group in lieu of the new nursing facility's 116410
semiannual case-mix score until the new nursing facility submits 116411
two consecutive quarterly assessment data that qualify for use in 116412
calculating a case-mix score.116413

       Sec. 5165.152.  The total per medicaid day payment rate 116414
determined under section 5165.15 of the Revised Code shall not be 116415
paid for nursing facility services provided to low resource 116416
utilization residents. Instead, the total rate for such nursing 116417
facility services shall be one hundred thirty dollars per medicaid 116418
day.116419

       Sec. 5111.258.        Sec. 5165.153.  (A) Notwithstanding sections 5111.20 116420
to 5111.331 of the Revised Code (except section 5111.259 of the 116421
Revised Code), the director of job and family services shall adopt 116422
rules under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code that establish a 116423
methodology for calculating the prospective rates that will be 116424
paid each fiscal year to a provider for each of the provider's 116425
eligible nursing facilities and intermediate care facilities for 116426
the mentally retarded, and discrete units of the provider's 116427
nursing facilities or intermediate care facilities for the 116428
mentally retarded, that serve residents who have diagnosesThe 116429
total per medicaid day payment rate determined under section 116430
5165.15 of the Revised Code shall not be paid for nursing facility 116431
services provided by a nursing facility, or discrete unit of a 116432
nursing facility, designated by the department of medicaid as an 116433
outlier nursing facility or unit. Instead, the provider of a 116434
designated outlier nursing facility or unit shall be paid each 116435
fiscal year a total per medicaid day payment rate that the 116436
department shall prospectively determine in accordance with a 116437
methodology established in rules authorized by this section.116438

       (B) The department may designate a nursing facility, or 116439
discrete unit of a nursing facility, as an outlier nursing 116440
facility or unit if the nursing facility or unit serves residents 116441
who have either of the following:116442

       (1) Diagnoses or special care needs that require direct care 116443
resources that are not measured adequately by the applicable116444
resident assessment instrument specified in rules authorized by 116445
section 5111.2325165.191 of the Revised Code, or who have 116446
diagnoses;116447

       (2) Diagnoses or special care needs specified in the rules 116448
authorized by this section as otherwise qualifying for 116449
consideration under this section. The facilities and units of 116450
facilities whose rates are established under this division may 116451
include, but shall not be limited to, any of the following:116452

       (1) In the case of nursing facilities, facilities and units 116453
of facilities that serve medically fragile pediatric residents, 116454
residents who are dependent on ventilators, or residents who have 116455
severe traumatic brain injury, end-stage Alzheimer's disease, or 116456
end-stage acquired immunodeficiency syndrome;116457

       (2) In the case of intermediate care facilities for the 116458
mentally retarded, facilities and units of facilities that serve 116459
residents who have complex medical conditions or severe behavioral 116460
problems.116461

       The department shall use the methodology established under 116462
this division to pay for services rendered by such facilities and 116463
units after June 30, 1993.116464

       (C) Notwithstanding any other provision of this chapter 116465
(except section 5165.156 of the Revised Code), the costs incurred 116466
by a designated outlier nursing facility or unit shall not be 116467
considered in establishing medicaid payment rates for other 116468
nursing facilities or units.116469

       (D) The medicaid director shall adopt rules under section 116470
5165.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 116471
section.116472

       (1)(a) The rules authorized by this division shall specifydo 116473
both of the following:116474

       (i) Specify the criteria and procedures the department will 116475
apply when designating facilities and units that qualify for 116476
calculation of rates under this divisiona nursing facility, or 116477
discrete unit of a nursing facility, as an outlier nursing 116478
facility or unit;116479

       (ii) Establish a methodology for prospectively determining 116480
the total per medicaid day payment rate that will be paid each 116481
fiscal year for nursing facility services provided by a designated 116482
outlier nursing facility or unit. The criteria shall include116483

       (b) The rules authorized by division (D)(1)(a)(i) of this 116484
section regarding the criteria for designating outlier nursing 116485
facilities and units shall do both of the following:116486

       (i) Provide for consideration of whether all of the allowable 116487
costs of thea nursing facility, or discrete unit of a nursing 116488
facility, would be paid by rates establisheda rate determined116489
under sections 5111.20 to 5111.331section 5165.15 of the Revised 116490
Code, and shall establish a;116491

       (ii) Specify the minimum bed size for anumber of nursing 116492
facility beds that a nursing facility, or discrete unit to qualify 116493
toof a nursing facility, must have its rates established under 116494
this divisionto be designated an outlier nursing facility or 116495
unit, which may vary based on the diagnoses or special care needs 116496
of the residents served by the nursing facility or unit. The 116497
criteria shall not be designed to require that residents be served 116498
only in116499

       (c) The rules authorized by division (D)(1)(a)(i) of this 116500
section regarding the criteria for designating outlier nursing 116501
facilities and units shall not limit the designation to nursing116502
facilities, or discrete units of nursing facilities, located in 116503
large cities. The116504

       (d) The rules authorized by division (D)(1)(a)(ii) of this 116505
section regarding the methodology for prospectively determining 116506
the rates of designated outlier nursing facilities and units shall 116507
provide for the methodology established by the rules shallto116508
consider the historical costs of providing carenursing facility 116509
services to the residents of thedesignated outlier nursing116510
facilities orand units.116511

       (2)(a) The rules may requiredo both of the following:116512

       (i) Include for designation as an outlier nursing facility or 116513
unit, a nursing facility, or discrete unit of a nursing facility, 116514
that serves medically fragile pediatric residents; residents who 116515
are dependent on ventilators; residents who have severe traumatic 116516
brain injury, end-stage Alzheimer's disease, or end-stage acquired 116517
immunodeficiency syndrome; or residents with other diagnoses or 116518
special care needs specified in the rules;116519

       (ii) Require that a designated outlier nursing facility 116520
designated under this division or containing a unit designated 116521
under this division receive authorization from the department to 116522
admitbefore admitting or retainretaining a resident to the 116523
facility or unit and.116524

       (b) If the director adopts rules authorized by division 116525
(D)(2)(a)(ii) of this section regarding the authorization of a 116526
designated outlier nursing facility or unit to admit or retain a 116527
resident, the rules shall specify the criteria and procedures the 116528
department will apply when granting that authorization.116529

       Notwithstanding any other provision of sections 5111.20 to 116530
5111.331 of the Revised Code (except section 5111.259 of the 116531
Revised Code), the costs incurred by facilities or units whose 116532
rates are established under this division shall not be considered 116533
in establishing payment rates for other facilities or units.116534

       (B) The director may adopt rules under section 5111.02 of the 116535
Revised Code under which the department, notwithstanding any other 116536
provision of sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Code 116537
(except section 5111.259 of the Revised Code), may adjust the 116538
rates determined under sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised 116539
Code for a facility that serves a resident who has a diagnosis or 116540
special care need that, in the rules authorized by division (A) of 116541
this section, would qualify a facility or unit of a facility to 116542
have its rate determined under that division, but who is not in 116543
such a unit. The rules may require that a facility that qualifies 116544
for a rate adjustment under this division receive authorization 116545
from the department to admit or retain a resident who qualifies 116546
the facility for the rate adjustment and shall specify the 116547
criteria and procedures the department will apply when granting 116548
that authorization.116549

       Sec. 5165.154.  (A) To the extent, if any, provided for in 116550
rules authorized by this section, the total per medicaid day 116551
payment rate determined under section 5165.15 of the Revised Code 116552
shall not be paid for nursing facility services that a nursing 116553
facility not designated as an outlier nursing facility or unit 116554
provides to a resident who meets the criteria for admission to a 116555
designated outlier nursing facility or unit, as specified in rules 116556
authorized by section 5165.153 of the Revised Code. Instead, the 116557
provider of a nursing facility providing nursing facility services 116558
to such a resident shall be paid each fiscal year a total per 116559
medicaid day payment rate that the department of medicaid shall 116560
prospectively determine in accordance with a methodology 116561
established in rules authorized by this section.116562

       (B) The medicaid director may adopt rules under section 116563
5165.02 of the Revised Code to implement this section. The rules 116564
may require that a nursing facility receive authorization from the 116565
department before admitting or retaining a resident who meets the 116566
criteria for admission to a designated outlier nursing facility or 116567
unit. If the director adopts such rules, the rules shall specify 116568
the criteria and procedures the department will apply when 116569
granting the authorization.116570

       Sec. 5111.225.        Sec. 5165.155.  (A) As used in this section:116571

       "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in section 116572
1915(h)(2)(B) of the "Social Security Act," 124 Stat. 315 (2010), 116573
42 U.S.C. 1396n(h)(2)(B).116574

       "Medicaid, "medicaid maximum allowable amount" means one 116575
hundred per cent of a nursing facility's total per diemmedicaid 116576
day payment rate for a medicaid day.116577

       (B) TheInstead of paying the total per medicaid day payment 116578
rate determined under section 5165.15 of the Revised Code, the116579
department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall pay the 116580
provider of a nursing facility the lesser of the following for 116581
nursing facility services the nursing facility provides on or 116582
after January 1, 2012, to a dual eligible individual who is 116583
eligible for nursing facility services under the medicaid program 116584
and post-hospital extended care services under Part A of Title 116585
XVIII:116586

       (1) The coinsurance amount for the services as provided under 116587
Part A of Title XVIII;116588

       (2) The medicaid maximum allowable amount for the services, 116589
less the amount paid under Part A of Title XVIII for the services.116590

       Sec. 5111.259.        Sec. 5165.156. The medicaid director of job and 116591
family services may submit a request to the United States 116592
secretary of health and human services for approval to establish a 116593
centers of excellence component of the medicaid program. The 116594
purpose of the centers of excellence component is to increase the 116595
efficiency and quality of nursing facility services provided to 116596
medicaid recipients with complex nursing facility service needs. 116597
If federal approval for the centers of excellence component is 116598
granted, theThe director may adopt rules under section 5111.02116599
5165.02 of the Revised Code governing the component, including 116600
rules that establish a method of determining the medicaid 116601
reimbursementpayment rates for nursing facilities providing 116602
nursing facility services to medicaid recipients participating in 116603
the component. The rules may specify the extent to which, if any, 116604
of the provisions of section 5111.258sections 5165.153 and 116605
5165.154 of the Revised Code are to apply to the centers of 116606
excellence component. If such rules are adopted, the nursing 116607
facilities that provide nursing facility services to medicaid 116608
recipients participating in the centers of excellence component 116609
shall be paid for those services in accordance with the method 116610
established in the rules notwithstanding anything to the contrary 116611
in sections 5111.20 to 5111.331instead of the total per medicaid 116612
day payment rate determined under section 5165.15 of the Revised 116613
Code.116614

       Sec. 5111.24.        Sec. 5165.16. (A) As used in this section:116615

       (1) "Applicable calendar year" means the following:116616

       (a) For the purpose of the department of job and family 116617
services'medicaid's initial determination under division (D) of 116618
this section of each peer group's rate for ancillary and support 116619
costs, calendar year 2003;116620

       (b) For the purpose of the department's rebasings, the 116621
calendar year the department selects.116622

       (2) "Rebasing" means a redetermination under division (D) of 116623
this section of each peer groups'group's rate for ancillary and 116624
support costs using information from cost reports for an 116625
applicable calendar year that is later than the applicable 116626
calendar year used for the previous determination of such rates.116627

        (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 116628
pay a provider fordetermine each of the provider's eligible116629
nursing facilities afacility's per resident permedicaid day 116630
payment rate for ancillary and support costs determined for the. 116631
A nursing facility's peer grouprate shall be the rate determined116632
under division (D) of this section for the nursing facility's peer 116633
group. However, for the period beginning October 1, 2013, and 116634
ending on the first day of the first rebasing, the rate for a 116635
nursing facility located in Mahoning or Stark county shall be the 116636
rate determined for the following:116637

        (1) If the nursing facility has fewer than one hundred beds, 116638
the nursing facilities in peer group three;116639

        (2) If the nursing facility has one hundred or more beds, the 116640
nursing facilities in peer group four. 116641

        (C) For the purpose of determining nursing facilities' rate116642
rates for ancillary and support costs, the department shall 116643
establish six peer groups.116644

       Each(1) Until the first rebasing occurs, the peer groups 116645
shall be composed as follows:116646

       (a) Each nursing facility located in any of the following 116647
counties shall be placed in peer group one or two: Brown, Butler, 116648
Clermont, Clinton, Hamilton, and Warren. Each nursing facility 116649
located in any of those counties that has fewer than one hundred 116650
beds shall be placed in peer group one. Each nursing facility 116651
located in any of those counties that has one hundred or more beds 116652
shall be placed in peer group two.116653

       (b) Each nursing facility located in any of the following 116654
counties shall be placed in peer group three or four: Ashtabula, 116655
Champaign, Clark, Cuyahoga, Darke, Delaware, Fairfield, Fayette, 116656
Franklin, Fulton, Geauga, Greene, Hancock, Knox, Lake, Licking, 116657
Lorain, Lucas, Madison, Marion, Medina, Miami, Montgomery, Morrow, 116658
Ottawa, Pickaway, Portage, Preble, Ross, Sandusky, Seneca, Summit, 116659
Union, and Wood. Each nursing facility located in any of those 116660
counties that has fewer than one hundred beds shall be placed in 116661
peer group three. Each nursing facility located in any of those 116662
counties that has one hundred or more beds shall be placed in peer 116663
group four.116664

       (c) Each nursing facility located in any of the following 116665
counties shall be placed in peer group five or six: Adams, Allen, 116666
Ashland, Athens, Auglaize, Belmont, Carroll, Columbiana, 116667
Coshocton, Crawford, Defiance, Erie, Gallia, Guernsey, Hardin, 116668
Harrison, Henry, Highland, Hocking, Holmes, Huron, Jackson, 116669
Jefferson, Lawrence, Logan, Mahoning, Meigs, Mercer, Monroe, 116670
Morgan, Muskingum, Noble, Paulding, Perry, Pike, Putnam, Richland, 116671
Scioto, Shelby, Stark, Trumbull, Tuscarawas, Van Wert, Vinton, 116672
Washington, Wayne, Williams, and Wyandot. Each nursing facility 116673
located in any of those counties that has fewer than one hundred 116674
beds shall be placed in peer group five. Each nursing facility 116675
located in any of those counties that has one hundred or more beds 116676
shall be placed in peer group six.116677

       (2) Beginning with the first rebasing, the peer groups shall 116678
be composed as they are under division (C)(1) of this section 116679
except as follows:116680

        (a) Each nursing facility that has fewer than one hundred 116681
beds and is located in Mahoning or Stark county shall be placed in 116682
peer group three rather than peer group five.116683

        (b) Each nursing facility that has one hundred or more beds 116684
and is located in Mahoning or Stark county shall be placed in peer 116685
group four rather than peer group six. 116686

        (D)(1) The department shall determine the rate for ancillary 116687
and support costs for each peer group established under division 116688
(C) of this section. The department is not required to conduct a 116689
rebasing more than once every ten years. Except as necessary to 116690
implement the amendments made to this section by Am. Sub. H.B. 153 116691
and Sub. H.B. 303, both of the 129th general assembly, the rate 116692
for ancillary and support costs determined under this division for 116693
a peer group shall be used for subsequent years until the 116694
department conducts a rebasing. To determine a peer group's rate 116695
for ancillary and support costs, the department shall do all of 116696
the following:116697

        (a) Subject to division (D)(2) of this section, determine the 116698
rate for ancillary and support costs for each nursing facility in 116699
the peer group for the applicable calendar year by using the 116700
greater of the nursing facility's actual inpatient days for the 116701
applicable calendar year or the inpatient days the nursing 116702
facility would have had for the applicable calendar year if its 116703
occupancy rate had been ninety per cent;116704

        (b) Subject to division (D)(3) of this section, identify 116705
which nursing facility in the peer group is at the twenty-fifth 116706
percentile of the rate for ancillary and support costs for the 116707
applicable calendar year determined under division (D)(1)(a) of 116708
this section;116709

        (c) Multiply the rate for ancillary and support costs 116710
determined under division (D)(1)(a) of this section for the 116711
nursing facility identified under division (D)(1)(b) of this 116712
section by the rate of inflation for the eighteen-month period 116713
beginning on the first day of July of the applicable calendar year 116714
and ending the last day of December of the calendar year 116715
immediately following the applicable calendar year using the 116716
following:116717

       (i) Until the first rebasing occurs, the consumer price index 116718
for all items for all urban consumers for the north central 116719
region, published by the United States bureau of labor statistics, 116720
as that index existed on July 1, 2005;116721

       (ii) Effective with the first rebasing and except as provided 116722
in division (D)(1)(c)(iii) of this section, the consumer price 116723
index for all items for all urban consumers for the midwest 116724
region, published by the United States bureau of labor statistics;116725

       (iii) If the United States bureau of labor statistics ceases 116726
to publish the index specified in division (D)(1)(c)(ii) of this 116727
section, the index the bureau subsequently publishes that covers 116728
urban consumers' prices for items for the region that includes 116729
this state.116730

       (d) Until the first rebasing occurs, increase the amount 116731
calculated under division (D)(1)(c) of this section by five and 116732
eight hundredths per cent.116733

        (2) For the purpose of determining a nursing facility's 116734
occupancy rate under division (D)(1)(a) of this section, the 116735
department shall include any beds that the nursing facility 116736
removes from its medicaid-certified capacity unless the nursing 116737
facility also removes the beds from its licensed bed capacity.116738

       (3) In making the identification under division (D)(1)(b) of 116739
this section, the department shall exclude both of the following:116740

        (a) Nursing facilities that participated in the medicaid 116741
program under the same provider for less than twelve months in the 116742
applicable calendar year;116743

        (b) Nursing facilities whose ancillary and support costs are 116744
more than one standard deviation from the mean desk-reviewed, 116745
actual, allowable, per diem ancillary and support cost for all 116746
nursing facilities in the nursing facility's peer group for the 116747
applicable calendar year.116748

        (4) The department shall not redetermine a peer group's rate 116749
for ancillary and support costs under this division based on 116750
additional information that it receives after the rate is 116751
determined. The department shall redetermine a peer group's rate 116752
for ancillary and support costs only if the department made an 116753
error in determining the rate based on information available to 116754
the department at the time of the original determination.116755

       Sec. 5111.25.        Sec. 5165.17.  (A) As used in this section:116756

       (1) "Applicable calendar year" means the following:116757

       (a) For the purpose of the department of job and family 116758
services'medicaid's initial determination under division (D) of 116759
this section of each peer group's rate for capital costs, calendar 116760
year 2003;116761

       (b) For the purpose of the department's rebasings, the 116762
calendar year the department selects.116763

       (2) "Rebasing" means a redetermination under division (D) of 116764
this section of each peer groups'group's rate for capital costs 116765
using information from cost reports for an applicable calendar 116766
year that is later than the applicable calendar year used for the 116767
previous determination of such rates.116768

        (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 116769
pay a provider fordetermine each of the provider's eligible116770
nursing facilities afacility's per resident permedicaid day 116771
payment rate for capital costs determined for the. A nursing 116772
facility's peer grouprate shall be the rate determined under 116773
division (D) of this section. However, for the period beginning 116774
October 1, 2013, and ending on the first day of the first 116775
rebasing, the rate for a nursing facility located in Mahoning or 116776
Stark county shall be the rate determined for the following:116777

        (1) If the nursing facility has fewer than one hundred beds, 116778
the nursing facilities in peer group three;116779

        (2) If the nursing facility has one hundred or more beds, the 116780
nursing facilities in peer group four. 116781

        (C) For the purpose of determining nursing facilities' rate116782
rates for capital costs, the department shall establish six peer 116783
groups.116784

       Each(1) Until the first rebasing occurs, the peer groups 116785
shall be composed as follows:116786

       (a) Each nursing facility located in any of the following 116787
counties shall be placed in peer group one or two: Brown, Butler, 116788
Clermont, Clinton, Hamilton, and Warren. Each nursing facility 116789
located in any of those counties that has fewer than one hundred 116790
beds shall be placed in peer group one. Each nursing facility 116791
located in any of those counties that has one hundred or more beds 116792
shall be placed in peer group two.116793

       (b) Each nursing facility located in any of the following 116794
counties shall be placed in peer group three or four: Ashtabula, 116795
Champaign, Clark, Cuyahoga, Darke, Delaware, Fairfield, Fayette, 116796
Franklin, Fulton, Geauga, Greene, Hancock, Knox, Lake, Licking, 116797
Lorain, Lucas, Madison, Marion, Medina, Miami, Montgomery, Morrow, 116798
Ottawa, Pickaway, Portage, Preble, Ross, Sandusky, Seneca, Summit, 116799
Union, and Wood. Each nursing facility located in any of those 116800
counties that has fewer than one hundred beds shall be placed in 116801
peer group three. Each nursing facility located in any of those 116802
counties that has one hundred or more beds shall be placed in peer 116803
group four.116804

       (c) Each nursing facility located in any of the following 116805
counties shall be placed in peer group five or six: Adams, Allen, 116806
Ashland, Athens, Auglaize, Belmont, Carroll, Columbiana, 116807
Coshocton, Crawford, Defiance, Erie, Gallia, Guernsey, Hardin, 116808
Harrison, Henry, Highland, Hocking, Holmes, Huron, Jackson, 116809
Jefferson, Lawrence, Logan, Mahoning, Meigs, Mercer, Monroe, 116810
Morgan, Muskingum, Noble, Paulding, Perry, Pike, Putnam, Richland, 116811
Scioto, Shelby, Stark, Trumbull, Tuscarawas, Van Wert, Vinton, 116812
Washington, Wayne, Williams, and Wyandot. Each nursing facility 116813
located in any of those counties that has fewer than one hundred 116814
beds shall be placed in peer group five. Each nursing facility 116815
located in any of those counties that has one hundred or more beds 116816
shall be placed in peer group six.116817

       (2) Beginning with the first rebasing, the peer groups shall 116818
be composed as they are under division (C)(1) of this section 116819
except as follows:116820

        (a) Each nursing facility that has fewer than one hundred 116821
beds and is located in Mahoning or Stark county shall be placed in 116822
peer group three rather than peer group five.116823

        (b) Each nursing facility that has one hundred or more beds 116824
and is located in Mahoning or Stark county shall be placed in peer 116825
group four rather than peer group six. 116826

        (D)(1) The department shall determine the rate for capital 116827
costs for each peer group established under division (C) of this 116828
section. The department is not required to conduct a rebasing more 116829
than once every ten years. Except as necessary to implement the 116830
amendments made to this section by Am. Sub. H.B. 153 and Sub. H.B. 116831
303, both of the 129th general assembly, the rate for capital 116832
costs determined under this division for a peer group shall be 116833
used for subsequent years until the department conducts a 116834
rebasing. To determine a peer group's rate for capital costs, the 116835
department shall do both of the following:116836

       (a) Determine the rate for capital costs for the nursing 116837
facility in the peer group that is at the twenty-fifth percentile 116838
of the rate for capital costs for the applicable calendar year;116839

       (b) Until the first rebasing occurs, increase the amount 116840
calculated under division (D)(1)(a) of this section by five and 116841
eight hundredths per cent. 116842

       (2) To identify the nursing facility in a peer group that is 116843
at the twenty-fifth percentile of the rate for capital costs for 116844
the applicable calendar year, the department shall do both of the 116845
following:116846

        (a) Subject to division (D)(3) of this section, use the 116847
greater of each nursing facility's actual inpatient days for the 116848
applicable calendar year or the inpatient days the nursing 116849
facility would have had for the applicable calendar year if its 116850
occupancy rate had been one hundred per cent;116851

        (b) Exclude both of the following:116852

        (i) Nursing facilities that participated in the medicaid 116853
program under the same provider for less than twelve months in the 116854
applicable calendar year;116855

        (ii) Nursing facilities whose capital costs are more than one 116856
standard deviation from the mean desk-reviewed, actual, allowable, 116857
per diem capital cost for all nursing facilities in the nursing 116858
facility's peer group for the applicable calendar year.116859

       (3) For the purpose of determining a nursing facility's 116860
occupancy rate under division (D)(2)(a) of this section, the 116861
department shall include any beds that the nursing facility 116862
removes from its medicaid-certified capacity after June 30, 2005, 116863
unless the nursing facility also removes the beds from its 116864
licensed bed capacity.116865

       (4) The department shall not redetermine a peer group's rate 116866
for capital costs under this division based on additional 116867
information that it receives after the rate is determined. The 116868
department shall redetermine a peer group's rate for capital costs 116869
only if the department made an error in determining the rate based 116870
on information available to the department at the time of the 116871
original determination.116872

       (E) Buildings shall be depreciated using the straight line 116873
method over forty years or over a different period approved by the 116874
department. Components and equipment shall be depreciated using 116875
the straight-line method over a period designated in rules adopted 116876
under section 5111.025165.02 of the Revised Code, consistent with 116877
the guidelines of the American hospital association, or over a 116878
different period approved by the department. Any rules authorized 116879
by this division that specify useful lives of buildings, 116880
components, or equipment apply only to assets acquired on or after 116881
July 1, 1993. Depreciation for costs paid or reimbursed by any 116882
government agency shall not be included in capital costs unless 116883
that part of the payment under sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the 116884
Revised Codethis chapter is used to reimburse the government 116885
agency.116886

       (F) The capital cost basis of nursing facility assets shall 116887
be determined in the following manner:116888

        (1) Except as provided in division (F)(3) of this section, 116889
for purposes of calculating the rates to be paid for facilities 116890
with dates of licensure on or before June 30, 1993, the capital 116891
cost basis of each asset shall be equal to the desk-reviewed, 116892
actual, allowable, capital cost basis that is listed on the 116893
facility's cost report for the calendar year preceding the fiscal 116894
year during which the rate will be paid.116895

       (2) For facilities with dates of licensure after June 30, 116896
1993, the capital cost basis shall be determined in accordance 116897
with the principles of the medicare program established under 116898
Title XVIII, except as otherwise provided in sections 5111.20 to 116899
5111.331 of the Revised Codethis chapter.116900

       (3) Except as provided in division (F)(4) of this section, if 116901
a provider transfers an interest in a facility to another provider 116902
after June 30, 1993, there shall be no increase in the capital 116903
cost basis of the asset if the providers are related parties or 116904
the provider to which the interest is transferred authorizes the 116905
provider that transferred the interest to continue to operate the 116906
facility under a lease, management agreement, or other 116907
arrangement. If the previous sentence does not prohibit the 116908
adjustment of the capital cost basis under this division, the 116909
basis of the asset shall be adjusted by one-half of the change in 116910
the consumer price index for all items for all urban consumers, as 116911
published by the United States bureau of labor statistics, during 116912
the time that the transferor held the asset.116913

       (4) If a provider transfers an interest in a facility to 116914
another provider who is a related party, the capital cost basis of 116915
the asset shall be adjusted as specified in division (F)(3) of 116916
this section if all of the following conditions are met:116917

       (a) The related party is a relative of owner;116918

       (b) Except as provided in division (F)(4)(c)(ii) of this 116919
section, the provider making the transfer retains no ownership 116920
interest in the facility;116921

       (c) The department of job and family services determines that 116922
the transfer is an arm's length transaction pursuant to rules 116923
adopted under section 5111.025165.02 of the Revised Code. The 116924
rules shall provide that a transfer is an arm's length transaction 116925
if all of the following apply:116926

       (i) Once the transfer goes into effect, the provider that 116927
made the transfer has no direct or indirect interest in the 116928
provider that acquires the facility or the facility itself, 116929
including interest as an owner, officer, director, employee, 116930
independent contractor, or consultant, but excluding interest as a 116931
creditor.116932

       (ii) The provider that made the transfer does not reacquire 116933
an interest in the facility except through the exercise of a 116934
creditor's rights in the event of a default. If the provider 116935
reacquires an interest in the facility in this manner, the 116936
department shall treat the facility as if the transfer never 116937
occurred when the department calculates its reimbursement rates 116938
for capital costs.116939

       (iii) The transfer satisfies any other criteria specified in 116940
the rules.116941

       (d) Except in the case of hardship caused by a catastrophic 116942
event, as determined by the department, or in the case of a 116943
provider making the transfer who is at least sixty-five years of 116944
age, not less than twenty years have elapsed since, for the same 116945
facility, the capital cost basis was adjusted most recently under 116946
division (F)(4) of this section or actual, allowable cost of 116947
ownershipcapital costs was determined most recently under 116948
division (G)(9) of this section.116949

       (G) As used in this division:116950

       "Imputed interest" means the lesser of the prime rate plus 116951
two per cent or ten per cent.116952

       "Lease expense" means lease payments in the case of an 116953
operating lease and depreciation expense and interest expense in 116954
the case of a capital lease. 116955

       "New lease" means a lease, to a different lessee, of a 116956
nursing facility that previously was operated under a lease.116957

       (1) Subject to division (B) of this section, for a lease of a 116958
facility that was effective on May 27, 1992, the entire lease 116959
expense is an actual, allowable capital cost during the term of 116960
the existing lease. The entire lease expense also is an actual, 116961
allowable capital cost if a lease in existence on May 27, 1992, is 116962
renewed under either of the following circumstances:116963

       (a) The renewal is pursuant to a renewal option that was in 116964
existence on May 27, 1992;116965

       (b) The renewal is for the same lease payment amount and 116966
between the same parties as the lease in existence on May 27, 116967
1992.116968

       (2) Subject to division (B) of this section, for a lease of a 116969
facility that was in existence but not operated under a lease on 116970
May 27, 1992, actual, allowable capital costs shall include the 116971
lesser of the annual lease expense or the annual depreciation 116972
expense and imputed interest expense that would be calculated at 116973
the inception of the lease using the lessor's entire historical 116974
capital asset cost basis, adjusted by one-half of the change in 116975
the consumer price index for all items for all urban consumers, as 116976
published by the United States bureau of labor statistics, during 116977
the time the lessor held each asset until the beginning of the 116978
lease.116979

       (3) Subject to division (B) of this section, for a lease of a 116980
facility with a date of licensure on or after May 27, 1992, that 116981
is initially operated under a lease, actual, allowable capital 116982
costs shall include the annual lease expense if there was a 116983
substantial commitment of money for construction of the facility 116984
after December 22, 1992, and before July 1, 1993. If there was not 116985
a substantial commitment of money after December 22, 1992, and 116986
before July 1, 1993, actual, allowable capital costs shall include 116987
the lesser of the annual lease expense or the sum of the 116988
following:116989

       (a) The annual depreciation expense that would be calculated 116990
at the inception of the lease using the lessor's entire historical 116991
capital asset cost basis;116992

       (b) The greater of the lessor's actual annual amortization of 116993
financing costs and interest expense at the inception of the lease 116994
or the imputed interest expense calculated at the inception of the 116995
lease using seventy per cent of the lessor's historical capital 116996
asset cost basis.116997

       (4) Subject to division (B) of this section, for a lease of a 116998
facility with a date of licensure on or after May 27, 1992, that 116999
was not initially operated under a lease and has been in existence 117000
for ten years, actual, allowable capital costs shall include the 117001
lesser of the annual lease expense or the annual depreciation 117002
expense and imputed interest expense that would be calculated at 117003
the inception of the lease using the entire historical capital 117004
asset cost basis of one-half of the change in the consumer price 117005
index for all items for all urban consumers, as published by the 117006
United States bureau of labor statistics, during the time the 117007
lessor held each asset until the beginning of the lease.117008

       (5) Subject to division (B) of this section, for a new lease 117009
of a facility that was operated under a lease on May 27, 1992, 117010
actual, allowable capital costs shall include the lesser of the 117011
annual new lease expense or the annual old lease payment. If the 117012
old lease was in effect for ten years or longer, the old lease 117013
payment from the beginning of the old lease shall be adjusted by 117014
one-half of the change in the consumer price index for all items 117015
for all urban consumers, as published by the United States bureau 117016
of labor statistics, from the beginning of the old lease to the 117017
beginning of the new lease.117018

       (6) Subject to division (B) of this section, for a new lease 117019
of a facility that was not in existence or that was in existence 117020
but not operated under a lease on May 27, 1992, actual, allowable 117021
capital costs shall include the lesser of annual new lease expense 117022
or the annual amount calculated for the old lease under division 117023
(G)(2), (3), (4), or (6) of this section, as applicable. If the 117024
old lease was in effect for ten years or longer, the lessor's 117025
historical capital asset cost basis shall be, for purposes of 117026
calculating the annual amount under division (G)(2), (3), (4), or 117027
(6) of this section, adjusted by one-half of the change in the 117028
consumer price index for all items for all urban consumers, as 117029
published by the United States bureau of labor statistics, from 117030
the beginning of the old lease to the beginning of the new lease.117031

       In the case of a lease under division (G)(3) of this section 117032
of a facility for which a substantial commitment of money was made 117033
after December 22, 1992, and before July 1, 1993, the old lease 117034
payment shall be adjusted for the purpose of determining the 117035
annual amount.117036

       (7) For any revision of a lease described in division (G)(1), 117037
(2), (3), (4), (5), or (6) of this section, or for any subsequent 117038
lease of a facility operated under such a lease, other than 117039
execution of a new lease, the portion of actual, allowable capital 117040
costs attributable to the lease shall be the same as before the 117041
revision or subsequent lease.117042

       (8) Except as provided in division (G)(9) of this section, if 117043
a provider leases an interest in a facility to another provider 117044
who is a related party or previously operated the facility, the 117045
related party's or previous operator's actual, allowable capital 117046
costs shall include the lesser of the annual lease expense or the 117047
reasonable cost to the lessor.117048

       (9) If a provider leases an interest in a facility to another 117049
provider who is a related party, regardless of the date of the 117050
lease, the related party's actual, allowable capital costs shall 117051
include the annual lease expense, subject to the limitations 117052
specified in divisions (G)(1) to (7) of this section, if all of 117053
the following conditions are met:117054

       (a) The related party is a relative of owner;117055

       (b) If the lessor retains an ownership interest, it is, 117056
except as provided in division (G)(9)(c)(ii) of this section, in 117057
only the real property and any improvements on the real property;117058

       (c) The department of job and family services determines that 117059
the lease is an arm's length transaction pursuant to rules adopted 117060
under section 5111.025165.02 of the Revised Code. The rules shall 117061
provide that a lease is an arm's length transaction if all of the 117062
following apply:117063

       (i) Once the lease goes into effect, the lessor has no direct 117064
or indirect interest in the lessee or, except as provided in 117065
division (G)(9)(b) of this section, the facility itself, including 117066
interest as an owner, officer, director, employee, independent 117067
contractor, or consultant, but excluding interest as a lessor.117068

       (ii) The lessor does not reacquire an interest in the 117069
facility except through the exercise of a lessor's rights in the 117070
event of a default. If the lessor reacquires an interest in the 117071
facility in this manner, the department shall treat the facility 117072
as if the lease never occurred when the department calculates its 117073
reimbursement rates for capital costs.117074

       (iii) The lease satisfies any other criteria specified in the 117075
rules.117076

       (d) Except in the case of hardship caused by a catastrophic 117077
event, as determined by the department, or in the case of a lessor 117078
who is at least sixty-five years of age, not less than twenty 117079
years have elapsed since, for the same facility, the capital cost 117080
basis was adjusted most recently under division (F)(4) of this 117081
section or actual, allowable capital costs were determined most 117082
recently under division (G)(9) of this section.117083

       (10) This division does not apply to leases of specific items 117084
of equipment.117085

       Sec. 5111.231.        Sec. 5165.19. (A) As used in this section:117086

       (1) "Applicable calendar year" means the following:117087

       (a) For the purpose of the department of job and family 117088
services'medicaid's initial determination under division (D) of 117089
this section of each peer group's cost per case-mix unit, calendar 117090
year 2003;117091

        (b) For the purpose of the department's rebasings, the 117092
calendar year the department selects.117093

       (2) "Rebasing" means a redetermination under division (D) of 117094
this section of each peer groups'group's cost per case-mix unit 117095
using information from cost reports for an applicable calendar 117096
year that is later than the applicable calendar year used for the 117097
previous determination of such costs.117098

        (B) TheSemiannually, the department of job and family 117099
servicesmedicaid shall pay a provider fordetermine each of the 117100
provider's eligible nursing facilities afacility's per resident 117101
permedicaid day payment rate for direct care costs determined 117102
semiannually by multiplying the cost per case-mix unit determined 117103
under division (D) of this section for the facility's peer group 117104
by the facility's semiannual case-mix score determined under 117105
section 5111.2325165.192 of the Revised Code by the cost per 117106
case-mix unit determined under division (D) of this section for 117107
the facility's peer group. However, for the period beginning 117108
October 1, 2013, and ending on the first day of the first 117109
rebasing, the rate for a nursing facility located in Mahoning or 117110
Stark county shall be determined semiannually by multiplying the 117111
facility's semiannual case-mix score determined under section 117112
5165.192 of the Revised Code by the cost per case-mix unit 117113
determined under division (D) of this section for the nursing 117114
facilities in peer group two.117115

        (C) For the purpose of determining nursing facilities' rate117116
rates for direct care costs, the department shall establish three 117117
peer groups.117118

       Each(1) Until the first rebasing occurs, the peer groups 117119
shall be composed as follows:117120

       (a) Each nursing facility located in any of the following 117121
counties shall be placed in peer group one: Brown, Butler, 117122
Clermont, Clinton, Hamilton, and Warren.117123

       (b) Each nursing facility located in any of the following 117124
counties shall be placed in peer group two: Ashtabula, Champaign, 117125
Clark, Cuyahoga, Darke, Delaware, Fairfield, Fayette, Franklin, 117126
Fulton, Geauga, Greene, Hancock, Knox, Lake, Licking, Lorain, 117127
Lucas, Madison, Marion, Medina, Miami, Montgomery, Morrow, Ottawa, 117128
Pickaway, Portage, Preble, Ross, Sandusky, Seneca, Summit, Union, 117129
and Wood.117130

       (c) Each nursing facility located in any of the following 117131
counties shall be placed in peer group three: Adams, Allen, 117132
Ashland, Athens, Auglaize, Belmont, Carroll, Columbiana, 117133
Coshocton, Crawford, Defiance, Erie, Gallia, Guernsey, Hardin, 117134
Harrison, Henry, Highland, Hocking, Holmes, Huron, Jackson, 117135
Jefferson, Lawrence, Logan, Mahoning, Meigs, Mercer, Monroe, 117136
Morgan, Muskingum, Noble, Paulding, Perry, Pike, Putnam, Richland, 117137
Scioto, Shelby, Stark, Trumbull, Tuscarawas, Van Wert, Vinton, 117138
Washington, Wayne, Williams, and Wyandot.117139

       (2) Beginning with the first rebasing, the peer groups shall 117140
be composed as they are under division (C)(1) of this section 117141
except that each nursing facility located in Mahoning or Stark 117142
county shall be placed in peer group two rather than peer group 117143
three.117144

        (D)(1) The department shall determine a cost per case-mix 117145
unit for each peer group established under division (C) of this 117146
section. The department is not required to conduct a rebasing more 117147
than once every ten years. Except as necessary to implement the 117148
amendments made to this section by Am. Sub. H.B. 153 and Sub. H.B. 117149
303, both of the 129th general assembly, and H.B... of the 130th 117150
general assembly, the cost per case-mix unit determined under this 117151
division for a peer group shall be used for subsequent years until 117152
the department conducts a rebasing. To determine a peer group's 117153
cost per case-mix unit, the department shall do all of the 117154
following:117155

        (a) Determine the cost per case-mix unit for each nursing 117156
facility in the peer group for the applicable calendar year by 117157
dividing each facility's desk-reviewed, actual, allowable, per 117158
diem direct care costs for the applicable calendar year by the 117159
facility's annual average case-mix score determined under section 117160
5111.2325165.192 of the Revised Code for the applicable calendar 117161
year;117162

        (b) Subject to division (D)(2) of this section, identify 117163
which nursing facility in the peer group is at the twenty-fifth 117164
percentile of the cost per case-mix units determined under 117165
division (D)(1)(a) of this section;117166

        (c) Calculate the amount that is two per cent above the cost 117167
per case-mix unit determined under division (D)(1)(a) of this 117168
section for the nursing facility identified under division 117169
(D)(1)(b) of this section;117170

        (d) Using the index specified in division (D)(3) of this 117171
section, multiply the rate of inflation for the eighteen-month 117172
period beginning on the first day of July of the applicable 117173
calendar year and ending the last day of December of the calendar 117174
year immediately following the applicable calendar year by the 117175
amount calculated under division (D)(1)(c) of this section;117176

       (e) Until the first rebasing occurs, add one dollar and 117177
eighty-eighteighty-six cents to the amount calculated under 117178
division (D)(1)(d) of this section;117179

       (f) Until the first rebasing occurs, increase the amount 117180
calculated under division (D)(1)(e) of this section by five and 117181
eight hundredths per cent.117182

        (2) In making the identification under division (D)(1)(b) of 117183
this section, the department shall exclude both of the following:117184

        (a) Nursing facilities that participated in the medicaid 117185
program under the same provider for less than twelve months in the 117186
applicable calendar year;117187

        (b) Nursing facilities whose cost per case-mix unit is more 117188
than one standard deviation from the mean cost per case-mix unit 117189
for all nursing facilities in the nursing facility's peer group 117190
for the applicable calendar year.117191

        (3) The following index shall be used for the purpose of the 117192
calculation made under division (D)(1)(d) of this section:117193

       (a) Until the first rebasing occurs, the employment cost 117194
index for total compensation, health services component, published 117195
by the United States bureau of labor statistics, as the index 117196
existed on July 1, 2005;117197

       (b) Effective with the first rebasing and except as provided 117198
in division (D)(3)(c) of this section, the employment cost index 117199
for total compensation, nursing and residential care facilities 117200
occupational group, published by the United States bureau of labor 117201
statistics;117202

       (c) If the United States bureau of labor statistics ceases to 117203
publish the index specified in division (D)(3)(b) of this section, 117204
the index the bureau subsequently publishes that covers nursing 117205
facilities' staff costs.117206

        (4) The department shall not redetermine a peer group's cost 117207
per case-mix unit under this division based on additional 117208
information that it receives after the peer group's per case-mix 117209
unit is determined. The department shall redetermine a peer 117210
group's cost per case-mix unit only if it made an error in 117211
determining the peer group's cost per case-mix unit based on 117212
information available to the department at the time of the 117213
original determination.117214

       Sec. 5165.191.  Each calendar quarter, each nursing facility 117215
provider shall compile complete assessment data for each resident 117216
of each of the provider's nursing facilities, regardless of 117217
payment source, who is in the nursing facility, or on hospital or 117218
therapeutic leave from the nursing facility, on the last day of 117219
the quarter. A resident assessment instrument specified in rules 117220
authorized by this section shall be used to compile the resident 117221
assessment data. Each provider shall submit the resident 117222
assessment data to the department of health and, if required by 117223
the rules, the department of medicaid. The resident assessment 117224
data shall be submitted not later than fifteen days after the end 117225
of the calendar quarter for which the data is compiled. If the 117226
resident assessment data is to be submitted to the department of 117227
medicaid, it shall be submitted to the department through the 117228
medium or media specified in the rules.117229

       Rules adopted under section 5165.02 of the Revised Code shall 117230
do all of the following:117231

       (A) In a manner consistent with the "Social Security Act," 117232
section 1919(e)(5), 42 U.S.C. 1396r(e)(5), specify a resident 117233
assessment instrument to be used by nursing facility providers 117234
under this section;117235

       (B) Specify whether nursing facility providers must submit 117236
the resident assessment data to the department of medicaid;117237

       (C) If the rules specify that nursing facility providers must 117238
submit the resident assessment data to the department, specify the 117239
medium or media through which the data is to be submitted.117240

       Sec. 5111.232.        Sec. 5165.192.  (A)(1) TheExcept as provided in 117241
division (B) of this section and in accordance with the process 117242
specified in rules authorized by this section, the department of 117243
job and family servicesmedicaid shall do all of the following:117244

       (a) Every quarter, determine the following two case-mix 117245
scores for each nursing facility:117246

       (i) A quarterly case-mix score that includes each resident 117247
who is a medicaid recipient and is not a low resource utilization 117248
resident;117249

        (ii) A quarterly case-mix score that includes each resident 117250
regardless of payment source.117251

       (b) Every six months, determine a semiannual and annual117252
average case-mix scoresscore for each nursing facilitiesfacility117253
by using all of the following:quarterly case-mix scores 117254
determined for the nursing facility pursuant to division 117255
(A)(1)(a)(i) of this section;117256

        (c) After the end of each calendar year, determine an annual 117257
average case-mix score for each nursing facility by using the 117258
quarterly case-mix scores determined for the nursing facility 117259
pursuant to division (A)(1)(a)(ii) of this section.117260

        (2) When determining case-mix scores under division (A)(1) of 117261
this section, the department shall use all of the following:117262

        (a) Data from a resident assessment instrument specified in 117263
rules adopted underauthorized by section 5111.025165.191 of the 117264
Revised Code pursuant to section 1919(e)(5) of the "Social 117265
Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396r(e)(5), as 117266
amended, for the following residents:117267

        (i) When determining semiannual case-mix scores for fiscal 117268
year 2012, each resident who is a medicaid recipient;117269

        (ii) When determining semiannual case-mix scores for fiscal 117270
year 2013 and thereafter, each resident who is a medicaid 117271
recipient and not placed in either of the two lowest resource 117272
utilization groups, excluding any resource utilization group that 117273
is a default group used for residents with incomplete assessment 117274
data;117275

       (iii) When determining annual average case-mix scores, each 117276
resident regardless of payment source.117277

        (b) Except as provided in rules authorized by divisions 117278
(A)(2)(a) and (b) of this section, the case-mix values established 117279
by the United States department of health and human services;117280

       (c) Except as modified in rules authorized by division 117281
(A)(2)(c) of this section, the grouper methodology used on June 117282
30, 1999, by the United States department of health and human 117283
services for prospective payment of skilled nursing facilities 117284
under the medicare program established by Title XVIII.117285

       (2) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 117286
under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code that do any of the 117287
following:117288

       (a) Adjust the case-mix values specified in division 117289
(A)(1)(b) of this section to reflect changes in relative wage 117290
differentials that are specific to this state;117291

       (b) Express all of those case-mix values in numeric terms 117292
that are different from the terms specified by the United States 117293
department of health and human services but that do not alter the 117294
relationship of the case-mix values to one another;117295

       (c) Modify the grouper methodology specified in division 117296
(A)(1)(c) of this section as follows:117297

       (i) Establish a different hierarchy for assigning residents 117298
to case-mix categories under the methodology;117299

       (ii) Prohibit the use of the index maximizer element of the 117300
methodology;117301

       (iii) Incorporate changes to the methodology the United 117302
States department of health and human services makes after June 117303
30, 1999;117304

       (iv) Make other changes the department determines are 117305
necessary.117306

       (B) The department shall determine case-mix scores for 117307
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded using data 117308
for each resident, regardless of payment source, from a resident 117309
assessment instrument and grouper methodology prescribed in rules 117310
adopted under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code and expressed in 117311
case-mix values established by the department in those rules.117312

       (C) Each calendar quarter, each provider shall compile 117313
complete assessment data, from the resident assessment instrument 117314
specified in rules authorized by division (A) or (B) of this 117315
section, for each resident of each of the provider's facilities, 117316
regardless of payment source, who was in the facility or on 117317
hospital or therapeutic leave from the facility on the last day of 117318
the quarter. Providers of a nursing facility shall submit the data 117319
to the department of health and, if required by rules, the 117320
department of job and family services. Providers of an 117321
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded shall submit 117322
the data to the department of job and family services. The data 117323
shall be submitted not later than fifteen days after the end of 117324
the calendar quarter for which the data is compiled.117325

       Except as provided in division (D) of this section, the 117326
department, every six months and after the end of each calendar 117327
year, shall calculate a semiannual and annual average case-mix 117328
score for each nursing facility using the facility's quarterly 117329
case-mix scores for that six-month period or calendar year. Also 117330
except as provided in division (D) of this section, the 117331
department, after the end of each calendar year, shall calculate 117332
an annual average case-mix score for each intermediate care 117333
facility for the mentally retarded using the facility's quarterly 117334
case-mix scores for that calendar year. The department shall make 117335
the calculations pursuant to procedures specified in rules adopted 117336
under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code.117337

       (D)(1) If aSubject to division (B)(2) of this section, the 117338
department, for one or more months of a calendar quarter, may 117339
assign to a nursing facility a case-mix score that is five per 117340
cent less than the nursing facility's case-mix score for the 117341
immediately preceding calendar quarter if any of the following 117342
apply:117343

       (a) The provider does not timely submit informationcomplete 117344
and accurate resident assessment data necessary to determine the 117345
nursing facility's case-mix score for athe calendar quarter 117346
necessary to calculate a facility's case-mix score, or submits 117347
incomplete or inaccurate information for a calendar quarter, the 117348
department may assign the facility a quarterly average case-mix 117349
score that is five per cent less than the facility's quarterly 117350
average case-mix score for the preceding calendar quarter. If the;117351

       (b) The nursing facility was subject to an exception review 117352
under division (C) of section 5111.275165.193 of the Revised Code 117353
for the immediately preceding calendar quarter, the department may 117354
assign a quarterly average case-mix score that is five per cent 117355
less than the score determined by the exception review. If the;117356

       (c) The nursing facility was assigned a quarterly average117357
case-mix score for the immediately preceding calendar quarter, the 117358
department may assign a quarterly average case-mix score that is 117359
five per cent less than that score assigned for the preceding 117360
quarter.117361

       The department may use a quarterly average case-mix score 117362
assigned under division (D)(1) of this section, instead of a 117363
quarterly average case-mix score calculated based on the 117364
provider's submitted information, to calculate the facility's rate 117365
for direct care costs being established under section 5111.23 or117366
5111.231 of the Revised Code for one or more months, as specified 117367
in rules authorized by division (E) of this section, of the 117368
quarter for which the rate established under section 5111.23 or117369
5111.231 of the Revised Code will be paid.117370

       (2) Before taking action under division (D)(1) of this 117371
sectionassigning a case-mix score to a nursing facility due to 117372
the submission of incorrect resident assessment data, the 117373
department shall permit the provider a reasonable period of time, 117374
specified in rules authorized by division (E) of this section, to 117375
correct the informationdata. In the case of an intermediate care 117376
facility for the mentally retarded, the department shall not 117377
assign a quarterly average case-mix score due to late submission 117378
of corrections to assessment information unless the provider fails 117379
to submit corrected information prior to the eighty-first day 117380
after the end of the calendar quarter to which the information 117381
pertains. In the case of a nursing facility, theThe department 117382
shall notmay assign a quarterly averagethe case-mix score due to 117383
late submission of corrections to assessment information unlessif117384
the provider fails to submit the corrected information prior to117385
resident assessment data not later than the earlier of the 117386
forty-sixthforty-fifth day after the end of the calendar quarter 117387
to which the informationdata pertains or the deadline for 117388
submission of such corrections established by regulations adopted 117389
by the United States department of health and human services under 117390
TitlesTitle XVIII and Title XIX.117391

       (2)(3) If, for more than six months in a calendar year, a 117392
provider is paid a rate determined for a nursing facility 117393
calculated using a quarterly average case-mix score assigned to 117394
the nursing facility under division (D)(B)(1) of this section for 117395
more than six months in a calendar year, the department may assign 117396
the nursing facility a cost per case-mix unit that is five per 117397
cent less than the nursing facility's actual or assigned cost per 117398
case-mix unit for the immediately preceding calendar year. The 117399
department may use the assigned cost per case-mix unit, instead of 117400
calculatingdetermining the nursing facility's actual cost per 117401
case-mix unit in accordance with section 5111.23 or 5111.231117402
5165.19 of the Revised Code, to establish the nursing facility's 117403
rate for direct care costs for the following fiscal year 117404
immediately following the calendar year for which the cost per 117405
case-mix unit is assigned.117406

       (3)(4) The department shall take action under division 117407
(D)(B)(1) or, (2), or (3) of this section only in accordance with 117408
rules authorized by division (E) of this section. The department 117409
shall not take an action that affects rates for prior payment 117410
periods except in accordance with sections 5111.275165.41 and 117411
5111.285165.42 of the Revised Code.117412

       (E)(C) The medicaid director shall adopt rules under section 117413
5111.025165.02 of the Revised Code thatas necessary to implement 117414
this section.117415

       (1) The rules shall do all of the following:117416

       (1) Specify whether providers of a nursing facility must 117417
submit the assessment data to the department of job and family 117418
services;117419

       (2) Specify the medium or media through which the completed 117420
assessment data shall be submitted;117421

       (3)(a) Specify the process for determining the semiannual and 117422
annual average case-mix scores for nursing facilities;117423

       (b) Adjust the case-mix values specified in division 117424
(A)(2)(b) of this section to reflect changes in relative wage 117425
differentials that are specific to this state;117426

       (c) Express all of those case-mix values in numeric terms 117427
that are different from the terms specified by the United States 117428
department of health and human services but that do not alter the 117429
relationship of the case-mix values to one another;117430

       (d) Modify the grouper methodology specified in division 117431
(A)(2)(c) of this section as follows:117432

       (i) Establish a different hierarchy for assigning residents 117433
to case-mix categories under the methodology;117434

       (ii) Prohibit the use of the index maximizer element of the 117435
methodology;117436

       (iii) Incorporate changes to the methodology the United 117437
States department of health and human services makes after June 117438
30, 1999;117439

       (iv) Make other changes the department determines are 117440
necessary.117441

       (e) Establish procedures under which theresident assessment 117442
data shall be reviewed for accuracy and providers shall be 117443
notified of any data that requires correction;117444

       (4)(f) Establish procedures for providers to correct resident117445
assessment data and specify a reasonable period of time by which 117446
providers shall submit the corrections. The procedures may limit 117447
the content of corrections by providers of nursing facilities in 117448
the manner required by regulations adopted by the United States 117449
department of health and human services under TitlesTitle XVIII 117450
and Title XIX.117451

       (5)(g) Specify when and how the department will assign 117452
case-mix scores or costs per case-mix unit to a nursing facility117453
under division (D)(B) of this section if information necessary to 117454
calculate the nursing facility's case-mix score is not provided or 117455
corrected in accordance with the procedures established by the 117456
rules. Notwithstanding117457

       (2) Notwithstanding any other provision of sections 5111.20 117458
to 5111.331 of the Revised Codethis chapter, the rules also may 117459
provide for the following:117460

       (a) Exclusion of case-mix scores assigned under division (D) 117461
of this section from calculation of an intermediate care facility 117462
for the mentally retarded's annual average case-mix score and the 117463
maximum cost per case-mix unit for the facility's peer group;117464

       (b) Exclusionexclusion of case-mix scores assigned to a 117465
nursing facility under division (D)(B) of this section from 117466
calculationthe determination of athe nursing facility's 117467
semiannual or annual average case-mix score and the cost per 117468
case-mix unit for the nursing facility's peer group.117469

       Sec. 5165.193.  (A) The department of medicaid may, pursuant 117470
to rules authorized by this section, conduct an exception review 117471
of resident assessment data submitted by a nursing facility 117472
provider under section 5165.191 of the Revised Code. The 117473
department may conduct an exception review based on the findings 117474
of a medicaid certification survey conducted by the department of 117475
health, a risk analysis, or prior performance of the provider.117476

       Exception reviews shall be conducted at the nursing facility 117477
by appropriate health professionals under contract with or 117478
employed by the department. The professionals may review resident 117479
assessment forms and supporting documentation, conduct interviews, 117480
and observe residents to identify any patterns or trends of 117481
inaccurate resident assessments and resulting inaccurate case-mix 117482
scores.117483

       (B) If an exception review is conducted before the effective 117484
date of a nursing facility's rate for direct care costs that is 117485
based on the resident assessment data being reviewed and the 117486
review results in findings that exceed tolerance levels specified 117487
in the rules authorized by this section, the department, in 117488
accordance with those rules, may use the findings to redetermine 117489
individual resident case-mix scores, the nursing facility's 117490
case-mix score for the quarter, and the nursing facility's annual 117491
average case-mix score. The department may use the nursing 117492
facility's redetermined quarterly and annual average case-mix 117493
scores to determine the nursing facility's rate for direct care 117494
costs for the appropriate calendar quarter or quarters.117495

       (C) The department shall prepare a written summary of any 117496
exception review finding that is made after the effective date of 117497
a nursing facility's rate for direct care costs that is based on 117498
the resident assessment data that was reviewed. Where the provider 117499
is pursuing judicial or administrative remedies in good faith 117500
regarding the finding, the department shall not withhold from the 117501
provider's current payments any amounts the department claims to 117502
be due from the provider pursuant to section 5165.41 of the 117503
Revised Code.117504

       (D)(1) The medicaid director shall adopt rules under section 117505
5165.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 117506
section. The rules shall establish an exception review program 117507
that does all of the following:117508

       (a) Requires each exception review to comply with Title XVIII 117509
and Title XIX;117510

       (b) Requires a written summary for each exception review that 117511
states whether resident assessment forms have been completed 117512
accurately;117513

       (c) Prohibits each health professional who conducts an 117514
exception review from doing either of the following:117515

       (i) During the period of the professional's contract or 117516
employment with the department, having or being committed to 117517
acquire any direct or indirect financial interest in the 117518
ownership, financing, or operation of nursing facilities in this 117519
state;117520

       (ii) Reviewing any provider that has been a client of the 117521
professional.117522

       (2) For the purposes of division (D)(1)(c)(i) of this 117523
section, employment of a member of a health professional's family 117524
by a nursing facility that the professional does not review does 117525
not constitute a direct or indirect financial interest in the 117526
ownership, financing, or operation of the nursing facility.117527

       Sec. 5111.242.        Sec. 5165.21. (A) As used in this section:117528

       (1) "Applicable calendar year" means the following:117529

       (a) For the purpose of the department of job and family 117530
services'medicaid's initial determination under this section of 117531
nursing facilities' rate for tax costs, calendar year 2003;117532

       (b) For the purpose of the department's rebasings, the 117533
calendar year the department selects.117534

       (2) "Rebasing" means a redetermination under division (C)(B)117535
of this section of each nursing facility's rate for tax costs 117536
using information from cost reports for an applicable calendar 117537
year that is later than the applicable calendar year used for the 117538
previous determination of such rates.117539

        (B) The department of job and family services shall pay a 117540
provider for each of the provider's eligible nursing facilities a 117541
per resident per day rate for tax costs determined under division 117542
(C) of this section.117543

        (C) The department of medicaid shall determine theeach 117544
nursing facility's per medicaid day payment rate for tax costs for 117545
each nursing facility. The department is not required to conduct a 117546
rebasing more than once every ten years. Except as necessary to 117547
implement the amendments made to this section by Sub. H.B. 303 of 117548
the 129th general assembly, the rate for tax costs determined 117549
under this division for a nursing facility shall be used for 117550
subsequent years until the department conducts a rebasing. To 117551
determine a nursing facility's rate for tax costs and except as 117552
provided in division (D)(C) of this section, the department shall 117553
do both of the following:117554

       (1) Divide the nursing facility's desk-reviewed, actual, 117555
allowable tax costs paid for the applicable calendar year by the 117556
number of inpatient days the nursing facility would have had if 117557
its occupancy rate had been one hundred per cent during the 117558
applicable calendar year;117559

       (2) Until the first rebasing occurs, increase the amount 117560
calculated under division (C)(B)(1) of this section by five and 117561
eight hundredths per cent.117562

       (D)(C) If a nursing facility had a credit regarding its real 117563
estate taxes reflected on its cost report for calendar year 2003, 117564
the department shall determine, as follows, its rate for tax costs 117565
for the period beginning on July 1, 2010, and ending on the first 117566
day of the fiscal year for which the department first conducts a 117567
rebasing:117568

       (1) Divide the nursing facility's desk-reviewed, actual, 117569
allowable tax costs paid for calendar year 2004 by the number of 117570
inpatient days the nursing facility would have had if its 117571
occupancy rate had been one hundred per cent during calendar year 117572
2004;117573

        (2) Until the first rebasing occurs, increase the amount 117574
calculated under division (D)(C)(1) of this section by five and 117575
eight hundredths per cent.117576

       Sec. 5111.246.        Sec. 5165.23.  (A) Each fiscal year, the department 117577
of job and family servicesmedicaid shall pay adetermine the117578
critical access incentive payment to the provider offor each 117579
nursing facility that qualifies as a critical access nursing 117580
facility. To qualify as a critical access nursing facility for a 117581
fiscal year, a nursing facility must meet all of the following 117582
requirements:117583

       (1) The nursing facility must be located in an area that, on 117584
December 31, 2011, was designated an empowerment zone under 117585
section 1391 of the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 107 Stat. 543117586
section 1391, 26 U.S.C. 1391, as amended.117587

       (2) The nursing facility must have an occupancy rate of at 117588
least eighty-five per cent as of the last day of the calendar year 117589
immediately preceding the fiscal year.117590

       (3) The nursing facility must have a medicaid utilization 117591
rate of at least sixty-five per cent as of the last day of the 117592
calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal year.117593

       (4) The nursing facility must have been awarded at least five 117594
points for meeting accountability measures under section 5165.25 117595
of the Revised Code for the fiscal year and at least one of the 117596
five points must have been awarded for meeting the following:117597

       (a) For fiscal year 2014, the accountability measures 117598
identified in divisions (C)(10), (11), (12), and (13) of section 117599
5165.25 of the Revised Code;117600

       (b) For fiscal year 2015 and each fiscal year thereafter, the 117601
accountability measures identified in divisions (D)(9), (10), 117602
(11), (12), and (14) of section 5165.25 of the Revised Code.117603

       (B) A critical access nursing facility's critical access 117604
incentive payment for a fiscal year shall equal five per cent of 117605
the portion of the nursing facility's total rate for the fiscal 117606
year that is the sum of the rates and payment identified in 117607
divisions (B)(A)(1) to (4) and (6) of section 5111.2225165.15 of 117608
the Revised Code.117609

       Sec. 5111.244.        Sec. 5165.25.  (A) As used in this section:117610

       (1) "Applicable percentage" means, for the accountability 117611
measures identified in divisions (C)(10) to (13) of this section, 117612
the following: 117613

       (a) For fiscal year 2013, whichever of the following applies: 117614

       (i) The percentage that the department of job and family 117615
services specifies for an accountability measure pursuant to 117616
division (E)(1)(b) or (E)(2)(a)(ii) of this section; 117617

       (ii) The percentage specified for an accountability measure 117618
in division (E)(2)(b), (ii), (iii), (iv), or (v) of this section. 117619

       (b) For fiscal year 2014, whichever of the following applies: 117620

       (i) The percentage used pursuant to division (F)(2) of this 117621
section; 117622

       (ii) The percentage that the department specifies for an 117623
accountability measure pursuant to division (F)(3)(a) of this 117624
section. 117625

       (c) For fiscal year 2015 and thereafter, whichever of the 117626
following applies:117627

       (i) The percentage used pursuant to division (F)(2) of this 117628
section;117629

       (ii) The percentage used pursuant to division (F)(3)(b) of 117630
this section.117631

       (2) "Complaint surveys" has the same meaning as in 42 C.F.R. 117632
488.30.117633

       (3)(2) "Customer satisfaction survey" means the annual survey 117634
of long-term care facilities required by section 173.47 of the 117635
Revised Code.117636

       (4)(3) "Deficiency" has the same meaning as in 42 C.F.R. 117637
488.301.117638

       (4) "Exempted hospital discharge" has the same meaning as in 117639
42 C.F.R. 483.106(b)(2)(i).117640

       (5) "Family satisfaction survey" means a customer 117641
satisfaction survey, or part of a customer satisfaction survey, 117642
that contains the results of information obtained from the 117643
families of a nursing facility's residents.117644

       (6) "Minimum data set" means the standardized, uniform 117645
comprehensive assessment of nursing facility residents that is 117646
used to identify potential problems, strengths, and preferences of 117647
residents and is part of the resident assessment instrument 117648
required by section 1919(e)(5) of the "Social Security Act," 101 117649
Stat. 1330-197 (1987)section 1919(e)(5), 42 U.S.C. 1396r(e)(5), 117650
as amended.117651

       (7) "National voluntary consensus standards for nursing 117652
homes" means measures used to determine the quality of care 117653
provided by nursing facilities as endorsed by the national quality 117654
forum.117655

       (8) "Nurse aide" has the same meaning as in section 3721.21 117656
of the Revised Code.117657

       (9)(8) "Resident satisfaction survey" means a customer 117658
satisfaction survey, or part of a customer satisfaction survey, 117659
that contains the results of information obtained from a nursing 117660
facility's residents.117661

       (10)(9) "Room mirror" means a mirror that is located in 117662
either of the following rooms:117663

       (a) A resident bathroom if the sink used by a resident after 117664
the resident uses the resident bathroom is in the resident 117665
bathroom;117666

       (b) A resident's room if the sink used by a resident after 117667
the resident uses the resident bathroom is in the resident's room.117668

       (11)(10) "Room sink" means a sink that is located in either 117669
of the following rooms:117670

       (a) A resident bathroom if the sink used by a resident after 117671
the resident uses the resident bathroom is in the resident 117672
bathroom;117673

       (b) A resident's room if the sink used by a resident after 117674
the resident uses the resident bathroom is in the resident's room.117675

       (12)(11) "Standard survey" has the same meaning as in 42 117676
C.F.R. 488.301.117677

       (12) "Special focus facility list" means the list of nursing 117678
facilities that the United States department of health and human 117679
services creates under the special focus facility program required 117680
by the "Social Security Act," section 1919(f)(10), 42 U.S.C. 117681
1396r(f)(10).117682

       (13) "Substantial wall" means a permanent structure that 117683
reaches from floor to ceiling and divides a semiprivate room into 117684
two distinct living spaces, each with its own window.117685

       (14) "Table B of the special focus facility list" means the 117686
table included in the special focus facility list that identifies 117687
nursing facilities that have not improved.117688

       (B)(1) Each fiscal year, the department of job and family 117689
servicesmedicaid shall pay adetermine each nursing facility's117690
quality incentive payment to the provider of each nursing facility 117691
that is awarded one or more points for meeting accountability 117692
measures under division (C) of this section. Subject to division117693
divisions (B)(2) and (3) of this section, the per medicaid day 117694
amount of a quality incentive payment paid to a nursing facility117695
provider shall be the product of the following:117696

       (a) The number of points the provider's nursing facility is 117697
awarded for meeting accountability measures under division (C) of117698
this section;117699

       (b) Three dollars and twenty-nine cents. 117700

       (2) The maximum quality incentive payment that may be paid to 117701
the provider of a nursing facility provider for a fiscal year 2014117702
shall be sixteen dollars and forty-four cents per medicaid day.117703

       (3) The maximum quality incentive payment that may be paid to 117704
a nursing facility provider for fiscal year 2015 and each fiscal 117705
year thereafter shall be the following:117706

       (a) Sixteen dollars and forty-four cents if at least one of 117707
the points awarded to the nursing facility for meeting 117708
accountability measures is for an accountability measure 117709
identified in division (D)(9), (10), (11), (12), or (14) of this 117710
section;117711

       (b) Thirteen dollars and sixteen cents if division (B)(3)(a) 117712
of this section does not apply.117713

        (C) SubjectFor fiscal year 2014 only and subject to 117714
divisions (D),division (E), and (F) of this section, the 117715
department shall award each nursing facility participating in the 117716
medicaid program one point for each of the following 117717
accountability measures the facility meets:117718

       (1) The facility's overall score on its resident satisfaction 117719
survey is at least eighty-six.117720

       (2) The facility's overall score on its family satisfaction 117721
survey is at least eighty-eight.117722

       (3) The facility satisfies the requirements for participation 117723
in the advancing excellence in America's nursing homes campaign.117724

       (4) The facility had neither of the following on the 117725
facility's most recent standard survey conducted not later than 117726
the last day of the calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal 117727
year for which the point is to be awarded or any complaint surveys 117728
conducted in the calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal 117729
year for which the point is to be awarded:117730

       (a) A health deficiency with a scope and severity level 117731
greater than F;117732

       (b) A deficiency that constitutes a substandard quality of 117733
care.117734

       (5) The facility offers at least fifty per cent of its 117735
residents at least one of the following dining choices for at 117736
least one meal each day:117737

       (a) Restaurant-style dining in which food is brought from the 117738
food preparation area to residents per the residents' orders;117739

       (b) Buffet-style dining in which residents obtain their own 117740
food, or have the facility's staff bring food to them per the 117741
residents' directions, from the buffet;117742

       (c) Family-style dining in which food is customarily served 117743
on a serving dish and shared by residents;117744

       (d) Open dining in which residents have at least a two-hour 117745
period to choose when to have a meal;117746

       (e) Twenty-four-hour dining in which residents may order 117747
meals from the facility any time of the day.117748

       (6) At least fifty per cent of the facility's residents are 117749
able to take a bath or shower as often as they choose.117750

       (7) The facility has at least both of the following scores on 117751
its resident satisfaction survey:117752

       (a) With regard to the question in the survey regarding 117753
residents' ability to choose when to go to bed in the evening, at 117754
least eighty-nine;117755

       (b) With regard to the question in the survey regarding 117756
residents' ability to choose when to get out of bed in the 117757
morning, at least seventy-six.117758

       (8) The facility has at least both of the following scores on 117759
its family satisfaction survey:117760

       (a) With regard to the question in the survey regarding 117761
residents' ability to choose when to go to bed in the evening, at 117762
least eighty-eight;117763

       (b) With regard to the question in the survey regarding 117764
residents' ability to choose when to get out of bed in the 117765
morning, at least seventy-five.117766

       (9) All of the following apply to the facility:117767

       (a) At least seventy-five per cent of the facility's 117768
residents have the opportunity, following admission to the 117769
facility and before completing or quarterly updating their 117770
individual plans of care, to discuss their goals for the care they 117771
are to receive at the facility, including their preferences for 117772
advance care planning, with a member of the residents' healthcare117773
health care teams that the facility, residents, and residents' 117774
sponsors consider appropriate.117775

       (b) The facility records the residents' care goals, including 117776
the residents' advance care planning preferences, in their medical 117777
records.117778

       (c) The facility uses the residents' care goals, including 117779
the residents' advance care planning preferences, in the 117780
development of the residents' individual plans of care.117781

       (10) Not more than the applicable percentagethirteen and 117782
thirty-five hundredths per cent of the facility's long-stay 117783
residents report severe to moderate pain during the minimum data 117784
set assessment process.117785

       (11) Not more than the applicable percentagefive and 117786
seventy-three hundredths per cent of the facility's long-stay, 117787
high-risk residents have been assessed as having one or more stage 117788
two, three, or four pressure ulcers during the minimum data set 117789
assessment process.117790

       (12) Not more than the applicable percentageone and 117791
fifty-two hundredths per cent of the facility's long-stay 117792
residents were physically restrained as reported during the 117793
minimum data set assessment process.117794

       (13) Less than the applicable percentageseven and 117795
seventy-eight hundredths per cent of the facility's long-stay 117796
residents had a urinary tract infection as reported during the 117797
minimum data set assessment process.117798

       (14) The facility uses a tool for tracking residents' 117799
admissions to hospitals.117800

       (15) An average of at least fifty per cent of the facility's 117801
medicaid-certified beds are in private rooms.117802

       (16) The facility has accessible resident bathrooms, all of 117803
which meet at least two of the following standards and at least 117804
some of which meet all of the following standards:117805

       (a) There are room mirrors that are accessible to residents 117806
in wheelchairs, can be adjusted so as to be visible to residents 117807
who are seated or standing, or both.117808

       (b) There are room sinks that are accessible to residents in 117809
wheelchairs and have clearance for wheelchairs.117810

       (c) There are room sinks that have faucets with adaptive or 117811
easy-to-use lever or paddle handles.117812

       (17) The facility does both of the following:117813

       (a) Maintains a written policy that prohibits the use of 117814
overhead paging systems or limits the use of overhead paging 117815
systems to emergencies, as defined in the policy;117816

       (b) Communicates the policy to its staff, residents, and 117817
families of residents.117818

       (18) The facility has a score of at least ninety on its 117819
resident satisfaction survey with regard to the question in the 117820
survey regarding residents' ability to personalize their rooms 117821
with personal belongings.117822

       (19) The facility has a score of at least ninety-five on its 117823
family satisfaction survey with regard to the question in the 117824
survey regarding residents' ability to personalize their rooms 117825
with personal belongings.117826

       (20) The facility does both of the following:117827

       (a) Maintains a written policy that requires consistent 117828
assignment of nurse aides and specifies the goal of having a 117829
resident receive nurse aide care from not more than eight 117830
different nurse aides during a thirty-day period;117831

       (b) Communicates the policy to its staff, residents, and 117832
families of residents.117833

       (21) The facility's staff retention rate is at least 117834
seventy-five per cent.117835

       (22) The facility's turnover rate for nurse aides is not 117836
higher than sixty-five per cent.117837

       (23) For at least fifty per cent of the resident care 117838
conferences in the facility, a nurse aide who is a primary 117839
caregiver for the resident attends and participates in the 117840
conference.117841

       (D) For fiscal year 2015 and each fiscal year thereafter and 117842
subject to division (E) of this section, the department shall 117843
award each nursing facility participating in the medicaid program 117844
one point for each of the following accountability measures the 117845
facility meets:117846

       (1) The facility's overall score on its resident satisfaction 117847
survey is at least eighty-seven and five-tenths.117848

       (2) The facility's overall score on its family satisfaction 117849
survey is at least eighty-five and nine-tenths.117850

       (3) The facility satisfies the requirements for participation 117851
in the advancing excellence in America's nursing homes campaign.117852

       (4) Both of the following apply to the facility:117853

       (a) The facility had not been listed on table B of the 117854
special focus facility list for eighteen or more consecutive 117855
months during any time during the calendar year immediately 117856
preceding the fiscal year for which the point is to be awarded.117857

       (b) The facility had neither of the following on the 117858
facility's most recent standard survey conducted not later than 117859
the last day of the calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal 117860
year for which the point is to be awarded or any complaint surveys 117861
conducted in the calendar year immediately preceding the fiscal 117862
year for which the point is to be awarded:117863

       (i) A health deficiency with a scope and severity level 117864
greater than F;117865

       (ii) A deficiency that constitutes a substandard quality of 117866
care.117867

       (5) The facility does all of the following:117868

       (a) Offers at least fifty per cent of its residents at least 117869
one of the following dining choices for at least two meals each 117870
day:117871

       (i) Restaurant-style dining in which food is brought from the 117872
food preparation area to residents per the residents' orders;117873

       (ii) Buffet-style dining in which residents obtain their own 117874
food, or have the facility's staff bring food to them per the 117875
residents' directions, from the buffet;117876

       (iii) Family-style dining in which food is customarily served 117877
on a serving dish and shared by residents;117878

       (iv) Open dining in which residents have at least a two-hour 117879
period to choose when to have a meal;117880

       (v) Twenty-four-hour dining in which residents may order 117881
meals from the facility any time of the day.117882

       (b) Maintains a written policy specifying the manner or 117883
manners in which residents' dining choices for meals are offered;117884

       (c) Communicates the policy to its staff, residents, and 117885
families of residents.117886

       (6) The facility does all of the following:117887

       (a) Enables at least fifty per cent of the facility's 117888
residents to take a bath or shower when they choose;117889

       (b) Maintains a written policy regarding residents' choices 117890
in bathing;117891

       (c) Communicates the policy to its staff, residents, and 117892
families of residents.117893

       (7) The facility has at least both of the following scores on 117894
its resident satisfaction survey:117895

       (a) With regard to the question in the survey regarding 117896
residents' ability to choose when to go to bed in the evening, at 117897
least eighty-nine;117898

       (b) With regard to the question in the survey regarding 117899
residents' ability to choose when to get out of bed in the 117900
morning, at least seventy-six.117901

       (8) The facility has at least both of the following scores on 117902
its family satisfaction survey:117903

       (a) With regard to the question in the survey regarding 117904
residents' ability to choose when to go to bed in the evening, at 117905
least eighty-eight;117906

       (b) With regard to the question in the survey regarding 117907
residents' ability to choose when to get out of bed in the 117908
morning, at least seventy-five.117909

       (9) Not more than thirteen and thirty-five hundredths per 117910
cent of the facility's long-stay residents report severe to 117911
moderate pain during the minimum data set assessment process.117912

       (10) Not more than five and sixteen hundredths per cent of 117913
the facility's long-stay, high-risk residents have been assessed 117914
as having one or more stage two, three, or four pressure ulcers 117915
during the minimum data set assessment process.117916

       (11) Not more than one and fifty-two hundredths per cent of 117917
the facility's long-stay residents were physically restrained as 117918
reported during the minimum data set assessment process.117919

       (12) Less than seven per cent of the facility's long-stay 117920
residents had a urinary tract infection as reported during the 117921
minimum data set assessment process.117922

       (13) The facility does both of the following:117923

       (a) Uses a tool for tracking residents' admissions to 117924
hospitals;117925

       (b) Annually reports to the department data on hospital 117926
admissions by month for all residents.117927

       (14) Both of the following apply:117928

       (a) At least ninety-five per cent of the facility's long-stay 117929
residents are vaccinated against pneumococcal pneumonia, decline 117930
the vaccination, or are not vaccinated because the vaccination is 117931
medically contraindicated.117932

       (b) At least ninety-three per cent of the facility's 117933
long-stay residents are vaccinated against seasonal influenza, 117934
decline the vaccination, or are not vaccinated because the 117935
vaccination is medically contraindicated.117936

       (15) An average of at least fifty per cent of the facility's 117937
medicaid-certified beds are in either, or in a combination of 117938
both, of the following:117939

       (a) Private rooms;117940

       (b) Semiprivate rooms to which all of the following apply:117941

       (i) Each room provides a distinct territory for each resident 117942
occupying the room.117943

       (ii) Each distinct territory has a window and is separated by 117944
a substantial wall from the other distinct territories in the 117945
room.117946

       (iii) Each resident is able to enter and exit the distinct 117947
territory of the resident's room without entering or exiting 117948
another resident's distinct territory.117949

       (iv) Complete visual privacy for each distinct territory may 117950
be obtained by drawing a curtain or other screen.117951

       (16) The facility obtains at least a ninety-five per cent 117952
compliance rate with requesting resident reviews required by 42 117953
C.F.R. 483.106(b)(2)(ii) for individuals who are exempted hospital 117954
discharges.117955

       (17) The facility does both of the following:117956

       (a) Maintains a written policy that requires consistent 117957
assignment of nurse aides and specifies the goal of having a 117958
resident receive nurse aide care from not more than twelve 117959
different nurse aides during a thirty-day period;117960

       (b) Communicates the policy to its staff, residents, and 117961
families of residents.117962

       (18) The facility's staff retention rate is at least 117963
seventy-five per cent.117964

       (19) The facility's turnover rate for nurse aides is not 117965
higher than sixty-five per cent.117966

       (20) For at least fifty per cent of the resident care 117967
conferences in the facility, a nurse aide who is a primary 117968
caregiver for the resident attends and participates in the 117969
conference.117970

       (21) All of the following apply to the facility:117971

       (a) At least seventy-five per cent of the facility's 117972
residents have the opportunity, following admission to the 117973
facility and before completing or quarterly updating their 117974
individual plans of care, to discuss their goals for the care they 117975
are to receive at the facility, including their preferences for 117976
advance care planning, with a member of the residents' health care 117977
teams that the facility, residents, and residents' sponsors 117978
consider appropriate.117979

       (b) The facility records the residents' care goals, including 117980
the residents' advance care planning preferences, in their medical 117981
records.117982

       (c) The facility uses the residents' care goals, including 117983
the residents' advance care planning preferences, in the 117984
development of the residents' individual plans of care.117985

       (22) The facility does both of the following:117986

       (a) Maintains a written policy that prohibits the use of 117987
overhead paging systems or limits the use of overhead paging 117988
systems to emergencies, as defined in the policy;117989

       (b) Communicates the policy to its staff, residents, and 117990
families of residents.117991

       (E)(1) To be awarded a point for meeting an accountability 117992
measure under division (C) or (D) of this section other than the 117993
accountability measure identified in divisiondivisions (C)(4) and 117994
(D)(4)(b) of this section, a nursing facility must meet the 117995
accountability measure in the calendar year immediately preceding 117996
the fiscal year for which the point is to be awarded. However, a 117997
nursing facility must meet the accountability measures specified 117998
in divisions (C)(3), (5), (6), (9), (14) to (17), (20), (22), and 117999
(23) of this section in the period beginning January 1, 2012, and 118000
ending March 31, 2012, to be awarded points for those 118001
accountability measures for fiscal year 2013.118002

       (2) The department shall award points pursuant to division118003
divisions (C)(1), (7), orand (18) and (D)(1) and (7) of this 118004
section to a nursing facility only if a resident satisfaction 118005
survey was initiated under section 173.47 of the Revised Code for 118006
the nursing facility in the calendar year immediately preceding 118007
the fiscal year for which the points are to be awarded.118008

       (3) The department shall award points pursuant to division118009
divisions (C)(2), (8), orand (19) and (D)(2) and (8) of this 118010
section to a nursing facility only if a family satisfaction survey 118011
was initiated under section 173.47 of the Revised Code for the 118012
nursing facility in the calendar year immediately preceding the 118013
fiscal year for which the points are to be awarded.118014

       (4) The department shall award points pursuant to divisions 118015
(D)(21) and (22) of this section only for fiscal year 2015.118016

       (5) Not later than July 1, 2013, the department shall adjust 118017
the score used for the purpose of division (C)(8)(b) of this 118018
section in a manner that causes at least fifty per cent of nursing 118019
facilities to meet division (C)(8)(b) of this section.118020

       (E) For the purposes of awarding points under divisions 118021
(C)(10) to (13) of this section for fiscal year 2013, the 118022
following apply:118023

       (1) If, by July 1, 2012, the United States centers for 118024
medicare and medicaid services makes calculations using the 3.0 118025
version of the minimum data set that indicate whether nursing 118026
facilities meet those accountability measures, the department 118027
shall do both of the following: 118028

       (a) Rely on those calculations; 118029

       (b) Specify the percentages to be used for the purposes of 118030
those accountability measures and, in specifying the percentages, 118031
provide for at least fifty per cent of nursing facilities to earn 118032
points for meeting those accountability measures.118033

       (2) If, by July 1, 2012, the United States centers for 118034
medicare and medicaid services does not make calculations using 118035
the 3.0 version of the minimum data set that indicate whether 118036
nursing facilities meet those accountability measures, the 118037
department shall do either of the following: 118038

       (a) Do both of the following:118039

       (i) Make the calculations using the 3.0 version of the 118040
minimum data set in accordance with the national voluntary 118041
consensus standards for nursing homes;118042

       (ii) Specify the percentages to be used for the purposes of 118043
those accountability measures and, in specifying the percentages, 118044
provide for at least fifty per cent of nursing facilities to earn 118045
points for meeting those accountability measures. 118046

       (b) Do all of the following:118047

       (i) Rely on the most recent calculations the United States 118048
centers for medicare and medicaid services made using the 2.0 118049
version of the minimum data set that indicate whether nursing 118050
facilities meet those accountability measures;118051

       (ii) Use four per cent as the applicable percentage for the 118052
accountability measure identified in division (C)(10) of this 118053
section;118054

       (iii) Use nine per cent as the applicable percentage for the 118055
accountability measure identified in division (C)(11) of this 118056
section; 118057

       (iv) Use two per cent as the applicable percentage for the 118058
accountability measure identified in division (C)(12) of this 118059
section;118060

       (v) Use ten per cent as the applicable percentage for the 118061
accountability measure identified in division (C)(13) of this 118062
section.118063

       (F) For the purposes of awarding points under divisions 118064
(C)(10) to (13) of this section for fiscal year 2014 and 118065
thereafter, the department shall do the following: 118066

       (1) Rely on calculations the United States centers for 118067
medicare and medicaid services makes using the 3.0 version of the 118068
minimum data set that indicate whether nursing facilities meet 118069
those accountability measures; 118070

       (2) If the department takes action pursuant to division 118071
(E)(1) of this section for fiscal year 2013, continue to use the 118072
percentages the department specifies pursuant to division 118073
(E)(1)(b) of this section for the purposes of those accountability 118074
measures; 118075

       (3) If the department takes action pursuant to division 118076
(E)(2) of this section for fiscal year 2013, do the following:118077

       (a) For fiscal year 2014, specify the percentages to be used 118078
for the purposes of those accountability measures and, in 118079
specifying the percentages, provide for at least fifty per cent of 118080
nursing facilities to earn points for meeting those accountability 118081
measures; 118082

       (b) For fiscal year 2015 and thereafter, continue to use the 118083
percentages the department specifies pursuant to division 118084
(F)(3)(a) of this section for the purposes of those accountability 118085
measures.Not later than July 1, 2014, the department shall 118086
submit, in accordance with section 101.68 of the Revised Code, 118087
recommendations to the general assembly for accountability 118088
measures to replace the accountability measures identified in 118089
divisions (D)(21) and (22) of this section.118090

       (G) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 118091
under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to 118092
implement this section.118093

       The rulesRules adopted under section 5165.02 of the Revised 118094
Code may specify what is meant by "some" as that word is used in 118095
division (C)(16) of this section.118096

       Sec. 5111.245.        Sec. 5165.26.  (A) As used in this section:118097

       (1) "Budgeted amount for quality incentive payments for a 118098
fiscal year" means the amount determined for a fiscal year as 118099
follows:118100

        (a) Multiply the total number of medicaid days in the 118101
immediately preceding fiscal year by sixteen dollars and 118102
forty-four cents;118103

        (b) Determine the total amount of quality incentive payments 118104
that was paid under section 5165.25 of the Revised Code to all 118105
nursing facility providers for the immediately preceding fiscal 118106
year;118107

        (c) Subtract the amount determined under division (A)(1)(b) 118108
of this section from the product calculated under division 118109
(A)(1)(a) of this section;118110

        (d) Add thirty million dollars to the difference calculated 118111
under division (A)(1)(c) of this section.118112

        (2) "Point days for a fiscal year" means the product of the 118113
following:118114

       (a) A qualifying nursing facility's quality bonus points for 118115
the fiscal year;118116

       (b) The number of the qualifying nursing facility's medicaid 118117
days in the immediately preceding fiscal year.118118

       (2)(3) "Qualifying nursing facility" means a nursing facility 118119
that qualifies for a quality bonus for a fiscal year as determined 118120
under division (B) of this section.118121

       (3)(4) "Quality bonus points for a fiscal year" means the 118122
amount determined by subtracting five from the number of points 118123
awarded to a qualifying nursing facility for meeting 118124
accountability measures under division (C) of section 5111.244118125
5165.25 of the Revised Code for a fiscal year.118126

       (4) "Residual budgeted amount for quality incentive payments 118127
for a fiscal year" means the amount determined for a fiscal year 118128
as follows:118129

       (a) Multiply the total number of medicaid days in the fiscal 118130
year by sixteen dollars and forty-four cents;118131

       (b) Determine the total amount of quality incentive payments 118132
that was paid under section 5111.244 of the Revised Code to all 118133
nursing facility providers for the fiscal year;118134

       (c) Subtract the amount determined under division (A)(4)(b) 118135
of this section from the product calculated under division 118136
(A)(4)(a) of this section.118137

       (B) TheNot later than the first day of November of each 118138
fiscal year, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid118139
shall pay a nursing facility provider a quality bonus for athe118140
fiscal year if both of the following apply:118141

       (1) The provider's nursing facility is awarded more than five 118142
points for meeting accountability measures under division (C) of118143
section 5111.2445165.25 of the Revised Code for the fiscal year 118144
and the following applies:118145

        (1) For fiscal year 2014, at least two of the points are 118146
awarded to the nursing facility pursuant to division (C)(10), 118147
(11), (12), (13), or (14) of section 5165.25 of the Revised Code.118148

        (2) For fiscal year 2015 and each fiscal year thereafter, at 118149
least two of the points are awarded to the nursing facility 118150
pursuant to division (D)(9), (10), (11), (12), (13), or (14) of 118151
section 5165.25 of the Revised Code.118152

       (2) The residual budgeted amount for quality incentive 118153
payments for the fiscal year is greater than zero.118154

       (C) The total quality bonus to be paid to the provider of a 118155
qualifying nursing facility for a fiscal year shall equal the 118156
product of the following:118157

       (1) The quality bonus per medicaid day for the fiscal year 118158
determined for the provider's qualifying nursing facility under 118159
division (D) of this section;118160

       (2) The number of the qualifying nursing facility's medicaid 118161
days in the immediately preceding fiscal year.118162

       (D) A qualifying nursing facility's quality bonus per 118163
medicaid day for a fiscal year shall be the product of the 118164
following: 118165

       (1) The nursing facility's quality bonus points for the 118166
fiscal year;118167

       (2) The quality bonus per point for the fiscal year 118168
determined under division (E) of this section.118169

       (E) The quality bonus per point for a fiscal year shall be 118170
determined as follows:118171

       (1) Determine the number of each qualifying nursing 118172
facility's point days for the fiscal year;118173

       (2) Determine the sum of all qualifying nursing facilities' 118174
point days for the fiscal year;118175

       (3) Divide the residual budgeted amount for quality incentive 118176
payments for the fiscal year by the sum determined under division 118177
(E)(2) of this section.118178

       (F) The calculation of a qualifying nursing facility's bonus 118179
payment is not subject to appeal under Chapter 119. of the Revised 118180
Code.118181

       (G) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 118182
under section 5111.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to 118183
implement this section.118184

       Sec. 5111.257.        Sec. 5165.28.  If a provider of a nursing facility 118185
adds or replaces one or more medicaid certified beds to or at the 118186
nursing facility, or renovates one or more of the nursing 118187
facility's beds, the medicaid payment rate for the added, 118188
replaced, or renovated beds shall be the same as the medicaid 118189
payment rate for the nursing facility's existing beds.118190

       Sec. 5111.265.        Sec. 5165.29.  If one or more medicaid-certified 118191
beds are relocated from one nursing facility to another nursing 118192
facility owned by a different person or government entity and the 118193
application for the certificate of need authorizing the relocation 118194
is filed with the director of health on or after the effective 118195
date of this sectionJuly 1, 2005, amortization of the cost of 118196
acquiring operating rights for the relocated beds is not an 118197
allowable cost for the purpose of determining the nursing 118198
facility's medicaid reimbursementpayment rate.118199

       Sec. 5111.264.        Sec. 5165.30.  Except as provided in section 5111.25 118200
or 5111.2515165.17 of the Revised Code, the costs of goods, 118201
services, and facilities, furnished to a nursing facility provider 118202
by a related party are includable in the allowable costs of the 118203
provider at the reasonable cost to the related party.118204

       Sec. 5165.32.  The department of medicaid shall not reduce a 118205
nursing facility's medicaid payment rate determined under this 118206
chapter on the basis that the provider charges a lower rate to any 118207
resident who is not eligible for medicaid.118208

       Sec. 5165.33.  No medicaid payment shall be made to a nursing 118209
facility provider for the day a medicaid recipient is discharged 118210
from the nursing facility.118211

       Sec. 5111.331.        Sec. 5165.34.  (A) The department of job and family 118212
servicesmedicaid may make medicaid payments to a nursing 118213
facility provider of a nursing facility under sections 5111.20 to 118214
5111.331 of the Revised Codethis chapter to reserve a bed for a 118215
recipient during a temporary absence under conditions prescribed 118216
by the department, to include hospitalization for an acute 118217
condition, visits with relatives and friends, and participation in 118218
therapeutic programs outside the facility, when the resident's 118219
plan of care provides for such absence and federal financial118220
participation infor the payments is available.118221

       (B) The maximum period for which payments may be made to 118222
reserve a bed in a nursing facility shall not exceed thirty days 118223
in a calendar year.118224

       (C) The department shall establish the per diemmedicaid day 118225
payment rates to be paid to providers of nursing facilities for 118226
reserving beds under this section. In establishing the per diem118227
medicaid day payment rates, the department shall do the following:118228

       (1) In the case of a payment to reserve a bed for a day 118229
during calendar year 2011, set the per diem rate at an amount not 118230
exceeding fifty per cent of the per diem rate the provider would 118231
be paid if the recipient were not absent from the nursing facility 118232
that day;118233

       (2) In the case of a payment to reserve a bed for a day 118234
during calendar year 2012 and each calendar year thereafter, set 118235
the per diemmedicaid day payment rate at an amount equal to the 118236
following:118237

       (a)(1) In the case of a nursing facility that had an 118238
occupancy rate in the preceding calendar year exceeding 118239
ninety-five per cent, an amount not exceeding fifty per cent of 118240
the per diemmedicaid day payment rate the provider would be paid 118241
if the recipient were not absent from the nursing facility that 118242
day;118243

       (b)(2) In the case of a nursing facility that had an 118244
occupancy rate in the preceding calendar year not exceeding 118245
ninety-five per cent, an amount not exceeding eighteen per cent of 118246
the per diemmedicaid day payment rate the provider would be paid 118247
if the recipient were not absent from the nursing facility that 118248
day.118249

       (D) For the purpose of setting a nursing facility's per 118250
medicaid day payment rate to reserve a bed for a day during the 118251
period beginning on the effective date of this amendment and 118252
ending December 31, 2013, the department shall determine the 118253
nursing facility's occupancy rate by using information reported on 118254
the nursing facility's cost report for calendar year 2012. For the 118255
purpose of setting a nursing facility's per medicaid day payment 118256
rate to reserve a bed for January 1, 2014, or thereafter, the 118257
department shall determine the nursing facility's occupancy rate 118258
by using information reported on the nursing facility's cost 118259
report for the calendar year preceding the fiscal year in which 118260
the reservation falls.118261

       Sec. 5111.212.        Sec. 5165.35. As used in this section, "effective 118262
date of an involuntary termination" and "involuntary termination" 118263
have the same meanings as in section 5111.65 of the Revised Code.118264

       Medicaid payments may be made for nursing facility services 118265
and intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded services118266
provided not later than thirty days after the effective date of an 118267
involuntary termination of the nursing facility that provides the 118268
services if the services are provided to a medicaid recipient who 118269
is eligible for the services and resided in the nursing facility 118270
before the effective date of the involuntary termination.118271

       Sec. 5111.221.        Sec. 5165.37.  The department of job and family 118272
servicesmedicaid shall make its best efforts each year to 118273
calculate nursing facilities' medicaid payment rates under 118274
sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Codethis chapter in 118275
time to use them to makepay the payments due to providersrates118276
by the fifteenth day of August of each fiscal year. If the 118277
department is unable to calculate the rates so that they can be 118278
paid by that date, the department shall pay each provider the rate 118279
calculated for the provider's nursing facilities and intermediate 118280
care facilities for the mentally retarded under those sections118281
this chapter at the end of the previous fiscal year. If the 118282
department also is unable to calculate the rates to make the 118283
payments duepay the rates by the fifteenth day of September and 118284
the fifteenth day of October, the department shall pay the 118285
previous fiscal year's rate to make those payments. The department 118286
may increase by five per cent the previous fiscal year's rate paid 118287
for any nursing facility pursuant to this section at the request 118288
of the provider. The department shall use rates calculated for the 118289
current fiscal year to make the payments due by the fifteenth day 118290
of November.118291

       If the rate paid to a provider for a nursing facility 118292
pursuant to this section is lower than the rate calculated for the 118293
nursing facility for the current fiscal year, the department shall 118294
pay the provider the difference between the two rates for the 118295
number of days for which the provider was paid for the nursing118296
facility pursuant to this section. If the rate paid for a nursing118297
facility pursuant to this section is higher than the rate 118298
calculated for it for the current fiscal year, the provider shall 118299
refund to the department the difference between the two rates for 118300
the number of days for which the provider was paid for the nursing118301
facility pursuant to this section.118302

       Sec. 5111.29.        Sec. 5165.38. (A) The medicaid director of job and 118303
family services shall adopt rules under section 5111.025165.02 of 118304
the Revised Code that establish a process under which a nursing 118305
facility provider, or a group or association of nursing facility118306
providers, may seek reconsideration of medicaid payment rates 118307
established under sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised 118308
Codethis chapter, including a rate for direct care costs 118309
recalculated before the effective date of the rate as a result of 118310
an exception review of resident assessment informationdata118311
conducted under section 5111.275165.193 of the Revised Code. The118312

       (1) Except as provided in divisions (A)(2) to (4) of this 118313
section, the only issue that a provider, group, or association may 118314
raise in the rate reconsideration shall be whether the rate was 118315
calculated in accordance with sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the 118316
Revised Codethis chapter and the rules adopted under section 118317
5111.025165.02 of the Revised Code. The rules shall permit a118318
provider, group, or association tomay submit written arguments or 118319
other materials that support its position. The rules shall specify118320
provider, group, or association and department of medicaid shall 118321
take actions regarding the rate reconsideration within time frames 118322
within which the provider, group, or association and the 118323
department must actspecified in rules authorized by this section. 118324
If118325

       If the department determines, as a result of the rate 118326
reconsideration, that the rate establisheddetermined for one or 118327
more nursing facilities of a provider is less than the rate to 118328
which the nursing facility is entitled, the department shall 118329
increase the rate. If the department has paid the incorrect rate 118330
for a period of time, the department shall pay the provider the 118331
difference between the amount the provider was paid for that 118332
period for the nursing facility and the amount the provider should 118333
have been paid for the nursing facility.118334

       (2) The rules shall provide that during a fiscal year, the 118335
department, by means of the rate reconsideration process, may 118336
increase the rate determined for an intermediate care facility for 118337
the mentally retarded as calculated under sections 5111.20 to 118338
5111.331 of the Revised Code if the provider of the facility 118339
demonstrates that the facility's actual, allowable costs have 118340
increased because of extreme circumstances. A facility may qualify 118341
for a rate increase only if the facility's per diem, actual, 118342
allowable costs have increased to a level that exceeds its total 118343
rate. The rules shall specify the circumstances that would justify 118344
a rate increase under division (A)(2) of this section. The rules 118345
shall provide that the extreme circumstances include natural 118346
disasters, renovations approved under division (D) of section 118347
5111.251 of the Revised Code, an increase in workers' compensation 118348
experience rating of greater than five per cent for a facility 118349
that has an appropriate claims management program, increased 118350
security costs for an inner-city facility, and a change of 118351
ownership that results from bankruptcy, foreclosure, or findings 118352
of violations of certification requirements by the department of 118353
health. An increase under division (A)(2) of this section is 118354
subject to any rate limitations or maximum rates established by 118355
sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Code for specific cost 118356
centers. Any rate increase granted under division (A)(2) of this 118357
section shall take effect on the first day of the first month 118358
after the department receives the request.118359

       (3) The rules shall provide that the department, through the 118360
rate reconsideration process, may increase an intermediate care 118361
facility for the mentally retarded's rate as calculated under 118362
sections 5111.20 to 5111.331 of the Revised Code if the 118363
department, in the department's sole discretion, determines that 118364
the rate as calculated under those sections works an extreme 118365
hardship on the facility.118366

       (4) The rules shall provide that when beds certified for the 118367
medicaid program are added to an existing intermediate care 118368
facility for the mentally retarded or replaced at the same site, 118369
the department, through the rate reconsideration process, shall 118370
increase the intermediate care facility for the mentally 118371
retarded's rate for capital costs proportionately, as limited by 118372
any applicable limitation under section 5111.251 of the Revised 118373
Code, to account for the costs of the beds that are added or 118374
replaced. The department shall make this increase one month after 118375
the first day of the month after the department receives 118376
sufficient documentation of the costs. Any rate increase granted 118377
under division (A)(4) of this section after June 30, 1993, shall 118378
remain in effect until the effective date of a rate calculated 118379
under section 5111.251 of the Revised Code that includes costs 118380
incurred for a full calendar year for the bed addition or bed 118381
replacement. The facility shall report double accumulated 118382
depreciation in an amount equal to the depreciation included in 118383
the rate adjustment on its cost report for the first year of 118384
operation. During the term of any loan used to finance a project 118385
for which a rate adjustment is granted under division (A)(4) of 118386
this section, if the facility is operated by the same provider, 118387
the provider shall subtract from the interest costs it reports on 118388
its cost report an amount equal to the difference between the 118389
following:118390

       (a) The actual, allowable interest costs for the loan during 118391
the calendar year for which the costs are being reported;118392

       (b) The actual, allowable interest costs attributable to the 118393
loan that were used to calculate the rates paid to the provider 118394
for the facility during the same calendar year.118395

       (5) The department's decision at the conclusion of the 118396
reconsideration process shall not be subject to any administrative 118397
proceedings under Chapter 119. or any other provision of the 118398
Revised Code.118399

       (B) All of the following are subject to an adjudication 118400
conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code:118401

       (1) Any audit disallowance that the department makes as the 118402
result of an audit under section 5111.27 of the Revised Code;118403

       (2) Any adverse finding that results from an exception review 118404
of resident assessment information conducted under section 5111.27 118405
of the Revised Code after the effective date of the facility's 118406
rate that is based on the assessment information;118407

       (3) Any medicaid payment deemed an overpayment under section 118408
5111.683 of the Revised Code;118409

       (4) Any penalty the department imposes under division (C) of 118410
section 5111.28 of the Revised Code or section 5111.683 of the 118411
Revised Code.118412

       Sec. 5111.28.        Sec. 5165.40. (A) If a nursing facility provider 118413
properly amends itsa cost report for the nursing facility under 118414
section 5111.2615165.107 of the Revised Code and the amended 118415
report shows that the provider received a lower medicaid payment118416
rate under the original cost report than itthe provider was 118417
entitled to receive, the department of job and family services118418
medicaid shall adjust the provider's rate for the nursing facility118419
prospectively to reflect the corrected information. The department 118420
shall pay the adjusted rate beginning two months after the first 118421
day of the month after the provider files the amended cost report. 118422
If118423

       If the department finds, from an exception review of resident 118424
assessment informationdata conducted pursuant to section 5165.193 118425
of the Revised Code after the effective date of thea nursing 118426
facility's rate for direct care costs that is based on the 118427
resident assessment informationdata, that inaccurate resident118428
assessment informationdata resulted in the provider receiving a 118429
lower rate for the nursing facility than it was entitled to 118430
receive, the department prospectively shall adjust the provider's 118431
rate accordingly and. The department shall make payments to the 118432
provider using the adjusted rate for the remainder of the calendar 118433
quartersix-month period for which the resident assessment 118434
informationdata is used to determine the rate, beginning one 118435
month after the first day of the month after the exception review 118436
is completed.118437

       (B) If the provider properly amends its cost report under 118438
section 5111.261 of the Revised Code, the department makes a 118439
finding based on an audit under section 5111.27 of the Revised 118440
Code, or the department makes a finding based on an exception 118441
review of resident assessment information conducted under section 118442
5111.27 of the Revised Code after the effective date of the rate 118443
for direct care costs that is based on the assessment information, 118444
any of which results in a determination that the provider has 118445
received a higher rate than it was entitled to receive, the 118446
department shall recalculate the provider's rate using the revised 118447
information. The department shall apply the recalculated rate to 118448
the periods when the provider received the incorrect rate to 118449
determine the amount of the overpayment. The provider shall refund 118450
the amount of the overpayment.118451

       In addition to requiring a refund under this division, the 118452
department may charge the provider interest at the applicable rate 118453
specified in this division from the time the overpayment was made.118454

       (1) If the overpayment resulted from costs reported for 118455
calendar year 1993, the interest shall be no greater than one and 118456
one-half times the average bank prime rate.118457

       (2) If the overpayment resulted from costs reported for 118458
subsequent calendar years:118459

       (a) The interest shall be no greater than two times the 118460
average bank prime rate if the overpayment was equal to or less 118461
than one per cent of the total medicaid payments to the provider 118462
for the fiscal year for which the incorrect information was used 118463
to establish a rate.118464

       (b) The interest shall be no greater than two and one-half 118465
times the current average bank prime rate if the overpayment was 118466
greater than one per cent of the total medicaid payments to the 118467
provider for the fiscal year for which the incorrect information 118468
was used to establish a rate.118469

       (C) The department also may impose the following penalties:118470

       (1) If a provider does not furnish invoices or other 118471
documentation that the department requests during an audit within 118472
sixty days after the request, no more than the greater of one 118473
thousand dollars per audit or twenty-five per cent of the 118474
cumulative amount by which the costs for which documentation was 118475
not furnished increased the total medicaid payments to the 118476
provider during the fiscal year for which the costs were used to 118477
establish a rate;118478

       (2) If an exiting operator or owner fails to provide notice 118479
of a facility closure, voluntary termination, or voluntary 118480
withdrawal of participation in the medicaid program as required by 118481
section 5111.66 of the Revised Code, or an exiting operator or 118482
owner and entering operator fail to provide notice of a change of 118483
operator as required by section 5111.67 of the Revised Code, no 118484
more than the current average bank prime rate plus four per cent 118485
of the last two monthly payments.118486

       (D) If the provider continues to participate in the medicaid 118487
program, the department shall deduct any amount that the provider 118488
is required to refund under this section, and the amount of any 118489
interest charged or penalty imposed under this section, from the 118490
next available payment from the department to the provider. The 118491
department and the provider may enter into an agreement under 118492
which the amount, together with interest, is deducted in 118493
installments from payments from the department to the provider. 118494

       (E) The department shall transmit refunds and penalties to 118495
the treasurer of state for deposit in the general revenue fund.118496

       (F) For the purpose of this section, the department shall 118497
determine the average bank prime rate using statistical release 118498
H.15, "selected interest rates," a weekly publication of the 118499
federal reserve board, or any successor publication. If 118500
statistical release H.15, or its successor, ceases to contain the 118501
bank prime rate information or ceases to be published, the 118502
department shall request a written statement of the average bank 118503
prime rate from the federal reserve bank of Cleveland or the 118504
federal reserve board.118505

       Sec. 5165.41.  (A) The department of medicaid shall 118506
redetermine a provider's medicaid payment rate for a nursing 118507
facility using revised information if any of the following results 118508
in a determination that the provider received a higher medicaid 118509
payment rate for the nursing facility than the provider was 118510
entitled to receive:118511

       (1) The provider properly amends a cost report for the 118512
nursing facility under section 5165.107 of the Revised Code;118513

       (2) The department makes a finding based on an audit under 118514
section 5165.109 of the Revised Code;118515

       (3) The department makes a finding based on an exception 118516
review of resident assessment data conducted under section 118517
5165.193 of the Revised Code after the effective date of the 118518
nursing facility's rate for direct care costs that is based on the 118519
resident assessment data;118520

       (4) The department makes a finding based on a post-payment 118521
review conducted under section 5165.49 of the Revised Code.118522

       (B) The department shall apply the redetermined rate to the 118523
periods when the provider received the incorrect rate to determine 118524
the amount of the overpayment. The provider shall refund the 118525
amount of the overpayment. The department may charge the provider 118526
the following amount of interest from the time the overpayment was 118527
made:118528

       (1) If the overpayment resulted from costs reported for 118529
calendar year 1993, the interest shall be no greater than one and 118530
one-half times the current average bank prime rate.118531

       (2) If the overpayment resulted from costs reported for a 118532
subsequent calendar year:118533

       (a) The interest shall be no greater than two times the 118534
current average bank prime rate if the overpayment was no more 118535
than one per cent of the total medicaid payments to the provider 118536
for the fiscal year for which the overpayment was made.118537

       (b) The interest shall be no greater than two and one-half 118538
times the current average bank prime rate if the overpayment was 118539
more than one per cent of the total medicaid payments to the 118540
provider for the fiscal year for which the overpayment was made.118541

       Sec. 5165.42.  In addition to the other penalties authorized 118542
by this chapter, the department of medicaid may impose the 118543
following penalties on a nursing facility provider:118544

       (A) If the provider does not furnish invoices or other 118545
documentation that the department requests during an audit within 118546
sixty days after the request, a fine of no more than the greater 118547
of the following:118548

       (1) One thousand dollars per audit;118549

       (2) Twenty-five per cent of the cumulative amount by which 118550
the costs for which documentation was not furnished increased the 118551
total medicaid payments to the provider during the fiscal year for 118552
which the costs were used to determine a rate.118553

       (B) If an exiting operator or owner fails to provide notice 118554
of a facility closure or voluntary withdrawal of participation in 118555
the medicaid program as required by section 5165.50 of the Revised 118556
Code, or an exiting operator or owner and entering operator fail 118557
to provide notice of a change of operator as required by section 118558
5165.51 of the Revised Code, a fine of not more than the current 118559
average bank prime rate plus four per cent of the last two monthly 118560
payments.118561

       Sec. 5165.43.  For the purposes of sections 5165.41 and 118562
5165.42 of the Revised Code, the department of medicaid shall 118563
determine the current average bank prime rate using statistical 118564
release H.15, "selected interest rates," a weekly publication of 118565
the federal reserve board, or any successor publication. If 118566
statistical release H.15, or its successor, ceases to contain the 118567
bank prime rate information or ceases to be published, the 118568
department shall request a written statement of the average bank 118569
prime rate from the federal reserve bank of Cleveland or the 118570
federal reserve board.118571

       Sec. 5165.44.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this 118572
section, the department of medicaid shall deduct the following 118573
from the next available medicaid payment the department makes to a 118574
nursing facility provider who continues to participate in 118575
medicaid:118576

       (1) Any amount the provider is required to refund, and any 118577
interest charged, under section 5165.41 of the Revised Code;118578

       (2) The amount of any penalty imposed on the provider under 118579
section 5165.42 of the Revised Code.118580

       (B) The department and a nursing facility provider may enter 118581
into an agreement under which a deduction required by division (A) 118582
of this section is taken in installments from payments the 118583
department makes to the provider.118584

       Sec. 5165.45.  The department of medicaid shall transmit to 118585
the treasurer of state for deposit in the general revenue fund 118586
amounts collected from the following:118587

       (A) Refunds required by, and interest charged under, section 118588
5165.41 of the Revised Code;118589

       (B) Amounts collected from penalties imposed under section 118590
5165.42 of the Revised Code.118591

       Sec. 5165.46.  All of the following are subject to an 118592
adjudication conducted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 118593
Revised Code:118594

       (A) Any audit disallowance that the department of medicaid 118595
makes as the result of an audit under section 5165.109 of the 118596
Revised Code;118597

       (B) Any adverse finding that results from an exception review 118598
of resident assessment data conducted for a nursing facility under 118599
section 5165.193 of the Revised Code after the effective date of 118600
the nursing facility's medicaid payment rate for direct care costs 118601
that is based on the resident assessment data;118602

       (C) Any medicaid payment deemed an overpayment under section 118603
5165.523 of the Revised Code;118604

       (D) Any penalty the department imposes under section 5165.42 118605
of the Revised Code or section 5165.523 of the Revised Code.118606

       Sec. 5111.262.        Sec. 5165.47. No person, other than thea nursing 118607
facility provider of a nursing facility, shall submit a claim for 118608
medicaid reimbursementpayment for a service provided to a 118609
nursing facility resident if the service is included in a medicaid 118610
payment made to the nursing facility provider of a nursing 118611
facility under sections 5111.20 to 5111.33 of the Revised Code118612
this chapter or in the reimbursableallowable expenses reported 118613
on a provider's cost report for a nursing facility. No nursing 118614
facility provider of a nursing facility shall submit a separate 118615
claim for medicaid reimbursementpayment for a service provided 118616
to a resident of the nursing facility if the service is included 118617
in a medicaid payment made to the provider under sections 5111.20 118618
to 5111.331 of the Revised Codethis chapter or in the 118619
reimbursableallowable expenses on the provider's cost report for 118620
the nursing facility.118621

       Sec. 5111.0211.        Sec. 5165.48. As used in this section, "nursing 118622
facility" and "provider" have the same meanings as in section 118623
5111.20 of the Revised Code.118624

       The provider of a nursing facility is not required to submit 118625
a claim to the department of job and family servicesmedicaid118626
regarding the medicare cost-sharing expenses of a resident of the 118627
nursing facility who, under federal law, is eligible to have the 118628
medicaid program pay for a part of the cost-sharing expenses if 118629
the provider determines that, under rules adopted under section 118630
5111.025165.02 of the Revised Code, the nursing facility would 118631
not receive a medicaid payment for any part of the medicare 118632
cost-sharing expenses. In such a situation, a claim for the 118633
medicare cost-sharing expenses shall be considered to have been 118634
adjudicated at no payment.118635

       Sec. 5165.49.  The department of medicaid may conduct a 118636
post-payment review of a claim submitted by a nursing facility 118637
provider and paid by the medicaid program to determine whether the 118638
provider was overpaid. The department shall provide the provider a 118639
written summary of the review's results. The review's results are 118640
not subject to an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised 118641
Code; however, the provider may request that the medicaid director 118642
reconsider the review's results. The director shall reconsider the 118643
review's results on receipt of a request made in good faith. The 118644
department shall not deduct any amounts the department claims to 118645
be due from the provider as a result of the review from the 118646
provider's medicaid payments pursuant to section 5165.44 of the 118647
Revised Code until the conclusion of the director's 118648
reconsideration, if any, of the review.118649

       Sec. 5111.66.        Sec. 5165.50. An exiting operator or owner of a 118650
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 118651
retarded participating in the medicaid program shall provide the 118652
department of job and family servicesmedicaid written notice of a 118653
facility closure, voluntary termination, or voluntary withdrawal 118654
of participation not less than ninety days before the effective 118655
date of the facility closure, voluntary termination, or voluntary 118656
withdrawal of participation. The written notice shall be provided 118657
to the department in accordance with the method specified in rules 118658
adopted underauthorized by section 5111.6895165.53 of the 118659
Revised Code.118660

       The written notice shall include all of the following:118661

        (A) The name of the exiting operator and, if any, the exiting 118662
operator's authorized agent;118663

        (B) The name of the nursing facility or intermediate care 118664
facility for the mentally retarded that is the subject of the 118665
written notice;118666

        (C) The exiting operator's medicaid provider agreement number 118667
for the nursing facility that is the subject of the written 118668
notice;118669

        (D) The effective date of the facility closure, voluntary 118670
termination, or voluntary withdrawal of participation;118671

        (E) The signature of the exiting operator's or owner's 118672
representative.118673

       Sec. 5111.661.        Sec. 5165.501. An operator shall comply with section 118674
1919(c)(2)(F) of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965)118675
section 1919(c)(2)(F), 42 U.S.C. 1396r(c)(2)(F) if the operator's 118676
nursing facility undergoes a voluntary withdrawal of 118677
participation.118678

       Sec. 5111.67.        Sec. 5165.51. (A) An exiting operator or owner and 118679
entering operator shall provide the department of job and family 118680
servicesmedicaid written notice of a change of operator if the 118681
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 118682
retarded participates in the medicaid program and the entering 118683
operator seeks to continue the nursing facility's participation. 118684
The written notice shall be provided to the department in 118685
accordance with the method specified in rules adopted under118686
authorized by section 5111.6895165.53 of the Revised Code. The 118687
written notice shall be provided to the department not later than 118688
forty-five days before the effective date of the change of 118689
operator if the change of operator does not entail the relocation 118690
of residents. The written notice shall be provided to the 118691
department not later than ninety days before the effective date of 118692
the change of operator if the change of operator entails the 118693
relocation of residents. 118694

       The written notice shall include all of the following:118695

        (1) The name of the exiting operator and, if any, the exiting 118696
operator's authorized agent;118697

        (2) The name of the nursing facility or intermediate care 118698
facility for the mentally retarded that is the subject of the 118699
change of operator;118700

        (3) The exiting operator's seven-digit medicaid legacy number 118701
and ten-digit national provider identifier number for the nursing118702
facility that is the subject of the change of operator;118703

        (4) The name of the entering operator;118704

        (5) The effective date of the change of operator;118705

        (6) The manner in which the entering operator becomes the 118706
nursing facility's operator, including through sale, lease, 118707
merger, or other action;118708

        (7) If the manner in which the entering operator becomes the 118709
nursing facility's operator involves more than one step, a 118710
description of each step;118711

        (8) Written authorization from the exiting operator or owner 118712
and entering operator for the department to process a provider 118713
agreement for the entering operator;118714

        (9) The names and addresses of the persons to whom the 118715
department should send initial correspondence regarding the change 118716
of operator;118717

       (10) If the nursing facility also participates in the 118718
medicare program, notification of whether the entering operator 118719
intends to accept assignment of the exiting operator's medicare 118720
provider agreement;118721

       (11) The signature of the exiting operator's or owner's 118722
representative.118723

        (B) An exiting operator or owner and entering operator 118724
immediately shall provide the department written notice of any 118725
changes to information included in a written notice of a change of 118726
operator that occur after that notice is provided to the 118727
department. The notice of the changes shall be provided to the 118728
department in accordance with the method specified in rules 118729
adopted underauthorized by section 5111.6895165.53 of the 118730
Revised Code.118731

       Sec. 5111.671.        Sec. 5165.511. The department of job and family 118732
servicesmedicaid may enter into a provider agreement with an 118733
entering operator that goes into effect at 12:01 a.m. on the 118734
effective date of the change of operator if all of the following 118735
requirements are met:118736

       (A) The department receives a properly completed written 118737
notice required by section 5111.675165.51 of the Revised Code on 118738
or before the date required by that section.118739

        (B) The department receives both of the following in 118740
accordance with the method specified in rules adopted under118741
authorized by section 5111.6895165.53 of the Revised Code and not 118742
later than ten days after the effective date of the change of 118743
operator:118744

        (1) From the entering operator, a completed application for a 118745
provider agreement and all other forms and documents specified in 118746
rules adopted underauthorized by section 5111.6895165.53 of the 118747
Revised Code;118748

       (2) From the exiting operator or owner, all forms and 118749
documents specified in rules adopted underauthorized by section 118750
5111.6895165.53 of the Revised Code.118751

        (C) The entering operator is eligible for medicaid payments 118752
as provided in section 5111.215165.06 of the Revised Code.118753

       Sec. 5111.672.        Sec. 5165.512. (A) The department of job and family 118754
servicesmedicaid may enter into a provider agreement with an 118755
entering operator that goes into effect at 12:01 a.m. on the date 118756
determined under division (B) of this section if all of the 118757
following are the case:118758

        (1) The department receives a properly completed written 118759
notice required by section 5111.675165.51 of the Revised Code.118760

        (2) The department receives, from the entering operator and 118761
in accordance with the method specified in rules adopted under118762
authorized by section 5111.6895165.53 of the Revised Code, a 118763
completed application for a provider agreement and all other forms 118764
and documents specified in rules adopted under that section. 118765

       (3) The department receives, from the exiting operator or 118766
owner and in accordance with the method specified in rules adopted 118767
underauthorized by section 5111.6895165.53 of the Revised Code, 118768
all forms and documents specified in rules adopted under that 118769
section.118770

        (4) One or more of the following apply:118771

       (a) The requirement of division (A)(1) of this section is met 118772
after the time required by section 5111.675165.51 of the Revised 118773
Code;118774

       (b) The requirement of division (A)(2) of this section is met 118775
more than ten days after the effective date of the change of 118776
operator;118777

       (c) The requirement of division (A)(3) of this section is met 118778
more than ten days after the effective date of the change of 118779
operator.118780

        (5) The entering operator is eligible for medicaid payments 118781
as provided in section 5111.215165.06 of the Revised Code.118782

        (B) The department shall determine the date a provider 118783
agreement entered into under this section is to go into effect as 118784
follows:118785

        (1) The effective date shall give the department sufficient 118786
time to process the change of operator, assure no duplicate 118787
payments are made, and make the withholding required by section 118788
5111.6815165.521 of the Revised Code.118789

        (2) The effective date shall be not earlier than the latest 118790
of the following:118791

       (a) The effective date of the change of operator;118792

       (b) The date that the entering operator complies with section 118793
5111.675165.51 of the Revised Code and division (A)(2) of this 118794
section;118795

       (c) The date that the exiting operator or owner complies with 118796
section 5111.675165.51 of the Revised Code and division (A)(3) of 118797
this section.118798

        (3) The effective date shall be not later than the following 118799
after the later of the dates specified in division (B)(2) of this 118800
section:118801

        (a) Forty-five days if the change of operator does not entail 118802
the relocation of residents;118803

        (b) Ninety days if the change of operator entails the 118804
relocation of residents.118805

       Sec. 5111.673.        Sec. 5165.513. (A) A provider that enters into a 118806
provider agreement with the department of job and family services118807
medicaid under section 5111.6715165.511 or 5111.6725165.512 of 118808
the Revised Code shall do all of the following:118809

       (A)(1) Comply with all applicable federal statutes and 118810
regulations;118811

       (B)(2) Comply with section 5111.225165.07 of the Revised 118812
Code and all other applicable state statutes and rules;118813

        (C) Comply(3) Subject to division (B) of this section, 118814
comply with all the terms and conditions of the exiting operator's 118815
provider agreement, including, but not limited to, all of the 118816
following:118817

       (1)(a) Any plan of correction;118818

        (2)(b) Compliance with health and safety standards;118819

        (3)(c) Compliance with the ownership and financial interest 118820
disclosure requirements of 42 C.F.R. 455.104, 455.105, and 1002.3;118821

        (4)(d) Compliance with the civil rights requirements of 45 118822
C.F.R. parts 80, 84, and 90;118823

        (5)(e) Compliance with additional requirements imposed by the 118824
department;118825

        (6)(f) Any sanctions relating to remedies for violation of 118826
the provider agreement, including deficiencies, compliance 118827
periods, accountability periods, monetary penalties, notification 118828
for correction of contract violations, and history of 118829
deficiencies.118830

       (B) Division (A)(3) of this section does not prohibit a 118831
nursing facility provider from excluding one or more parts of the 118832
nursing facility from the provider agreement pursuant to division 118833
(B)(1) of section 5165.08 of the Revised Code.118834

       Sec. 5111.674.        Sec. 5165.514. In the case of a change of operator, 118835
the exiting operator shall be considered to be the operator of the 118836
nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally 118837
retarded for purposes of the medicaid program, including medicaid 118838
payments, until the effective date of the entering operator's 118839
provider agreement if the provider agreement is entered into under 118840
section 5111.6715165.511 or 5111.6725165.512 of the Revised 118841
Code.118842

       Sec. 5111.675.        Sec. 5165.515. The department of job and family 118843
servicesmedicaid may enter into a provider agreement as provided 118844
in section 5111.225165.07 of the Revised Code, rather than 118845
section 5111.6715165.511 or 5111.6725165.512 of the Revised 118846
Code, with an entering operator if the entering operator does not 118847
agree to a provider agreement that satisfies the requirements of 118848
division (C)(A)(3) of section 5111.6735165.513 of the Revised 118849
Code. The department may not enter into the provider agreement 118850
unless the department of health certifies the nursing facility or 118851
intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded under Title 118852
XIX of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 118853
1396, as amendedfor participation in medicaid. The effective date 118854
of the provider agreement shall not precede any of the following:118855

        (A) The date that the department of health certifies the 118856
nursing facility;118857

        (B) The effective date of the change of operator;118858

        (C) The date the requirement of section 5111.675165.51 of 118859
the Revised Code is satisfied.118860

       Sec. 5111.676.        Sec. 5165.516. The medicaid director of job and 118861
family services may adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.118862
under section 5165.02 of the Revised Code governing adjustments 118863
to the medicaid reimbursementpayment rate for a nursing facility 118864
or intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded that 118865
undergoes a change of operator. No rate adjustment resulting from 118866
a change of operator shall be effective before the effective date 118867
of the entering operator's provider agreement. This is the case 118868
regardless of whether the provider agreement is entered into under 118869
section 5111.6715165.511, section 5111.6725165.512, or, pursuant 118870
to section 5111.6755165.515, section 5111.225165.07 of the 118871
Revised Code.118872

       Sec. 5111.677.        Sec. 5165.517. Neither of the followingThe 118873
department of health's determination that a change of operator has 118874
or has not occurred for purposes of licensure under Chapter 3721. 118875
of the Revised Code shall not affect the department of job and 118876
family services'medicaid's determination of whether or when a 118877
change of operator occurs or the effective date of an entering 118878
operator's provider agreement under section 5111.6715165.511, 118879
section 5111.6725165.512, or, pursuant to section 5111.675118880
5165.515, section 5111.225165.07 of the Revised Code:118881

       (A) The department of health's determination that a change of 118882
operator has or has not occurred for purposes of licensure under 118883
Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code;118884

        (B) The department of developmental disabilities' 118885
determination that a change of operator has or has not occurred 118886
for purposes of licensure under section 5123.19 of the Revised 118887
Code.118888

       Sec. 5111.68.        Sec. 5165.52. (A) On receipt of a written notice 118889
under section 5111.665165.50 of the Revised Code of a facility 118890
closure, voluntary termination, or voluntary withdrawal of 118891
participation, on receipt of a written notice under section 118892
5111.675165.51 of the Revised Code of a change of operator, or on 118893
the effective date of an involuntary termination, the department 118894
of job and family servicesmedicaid shall estimate the amount of 118895
any overpayments made under the medicaid program to the exiting 118896
operator, including overpayments the exiting operator disputes, 118897
and other actual and potential debts the exiting operator owes or 118898
may owe to the department and United States centers for medicare 118899
and medicaid services under the medicaid program, including a 118900
franchise permit fee. 118901

       (B) In estimating the exiting operator's other actual and 118902
potential debts to the department and the United States centers 118903
for medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid program, the 118904
department shall use a debt estimation methodology the medicaid118905
director of job and family services shall establish in rules 118906
adopted underauthorized by section 5111.6895165.53 of the 118907
Revised Code. The methodology shall provide for estimating all of 118908
the following that the department determines are applicable:118909

        (1) Refunds due the department under section 5111.275165.41118910
of the Revised Code;118911

        (2) Interest owed to the department and United States centers 118912
for medicare and medicaid services;118913

        (3) Final civil monetary and other penalties for which all 118914
right of appeal has been exhausted;118915

        (4) Money owed the department and United States centers for 118916
medicare and medicaid services from any outstanding final fiscal 118917
audit, including a final fiscal audit for the last fiscal year or 118918
portion thereof in which the exiting operator participated in the 118919
medicaid program;118920

       (5) Other amounts the department determines are applicable.118921

       (C) The department shall provide the exiting operator written 118922
notice of the department's estimate under division (A) of this 118923
section not later than thirty days after the department receives 118924
the notice under section 5111.665165.50 of the Revised Code of 118925
the facility closure, voluntary termination, or voluntary 118926
withdrawal of participation; the department receives the notice 118927
under section 5111.675165.51 of the Revised Code of the change 118928
of operator; or the effective date of the involuntary termination. 118929
The department's written notice shall include the basis for the 118930
estimate.118931

       Sec. 5111.681.        Sec. 5165.521. (A) Except as provided in divisions 118932
(B), (C), and (D) of this section, the department of job and 118933
family servicesmedicaid may withhold from payment due an exiting 118934
operator under the medicaid program the total amount specified in 118935
the notice provided under division (C) of section 5111.685165.52118936
of the Revised Code that the exiting operator owes or may owe to 118937
the department and United States centers for medicare and medicaid 118938
services under the medicaid program.118939

       (B) In the case of a change of operator and subject to 118940
division (E) of this section, the following shall apply regarding 118941
a withholding under division (A) of this section if the exiting 118942
operator or entering operator or an affiliated operator executes a 118943
successor liability agreement meeting the requirements of division 118944
(F) of this section:118945

        (1) If the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 118946
operator assumes liability for the total, actual amount of debt 118947
the exiting operator owes the department and the United States 118948
centers for medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid 118949
program as determined under section 5111.6855165.525 of the 118950
Revised Code, the department shall not make the withholding.118951

       (2) If the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 118952
operator assumes liability for only the portion of the amount 118953
specified in division (B)(1) of this section that represents the 118954
franchise permit fee the exiting operator owes, the department 118955
shall withhold not more than the difference between the total 118956
amount specified in the notice provided under division (C) of 118957
section 5111.685165.52 of the Revised Code and the amount for 118958
which the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 118959
operator assumes liability.118960

        (C) In the case of a voluntary termination, voluntary 118961
withdrawal of participation, or facility closure and subject to 118962
division (E) of this section, the following shall apply regarding 118963
a withholding under division (A) of this section if the exiting 118964
operator or an affiliated operator executes a successor liability 118965
agreement meeting the requirements of division (F) of this 118966
section:118967

        (1) If the exiting operator or affiliated operator assumes 118968
liability for the total, actual amount of debt the exiting 118969
operator owes the department and the United States centers for 118970
medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid program as 118971
determined under section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code, 118972
the department shall not make the withholding.118973

        (2) If the exiting operator or affiliated operator assumes 118974
liability for only the portion of the amount specified in division 118975
(C)(1) of this section that represents the franchise permit fee 118976
the exiting operator owes, the department shall withhold not more 118977
than the difference between the total amount specified in the 118978
notice provided under division (C) of section 5111.685165.52 of 118979
the Revised Code and the amount for which the exiting operator or 118980
affiliated operator assumes liability.118981

        (D) In the case of an involuntary termination and subject to 118982
division (E) of this section, the following shall apply regarding 118983
a withholding under division (A) of this section if the exiting 118984
operator, the entering operator, or an affiliated operator 118985
executes a successor liability agreement meeting the requirements 118986
of division (F) of this section and the department approves the 118987
successor liability agreement:118988

       (1) If the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 118989
operator assumes liability for the total, actual amount of debt 118990
the exiting operator owes the department and the United States 118991
centers for medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid 118992
program as determined under section 5111.6855165.525 of the 118993
Revised Code, the department shall not make the withholding.118994

       (2) If the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 118995
operator assumes liability for only the portion of the amount 118996
specified in division (D)(1) of this section that represents the 118997
franchise permit fee the exiting operator owes, the department 118998
shall withhold not more than the difference between the total 118999
amount specified in the notice provided under division (C) of 119000
section 5111.685165.52 of the Revised Code and the amount for 119001
which the exiting operator, entering operator, or affiliated 119002
operator assumes liability.119003

       (E) For an exiting operator or affiliated operator to be 119004
eligible to enter into a successor liability agreement under 119005
division (B), (C), or (D) of this section, both of the following 119006
must apply:119007

        (1) The exiting operator or affiliated operator must have one 119008
or more valid provider agreements, other than the provider 119009
agreement for the nursing facility or intermediate care facility 119010
for the mentally retarded that is the subject of the involuntary 119011
termination, voluntary termination, voluntary withdrawal of 119012
participation, facility closure, or change of operator;119013

        (2) During the twelve-month period preceding either the 119014
effective date of the involuntary termination or the month in 119015
which the department receives the notice of the voluntary 119016
termination, voluntary withdrawal of participation, or facility 119017
closure under section 5111.665165.50 of the Revised Code or the 119018
notice of the change of operator under section 5111.675165.51 of 119019
the Revised Code, the average monthly medicaid payment made to the 119020
exiting operator or affiliated operator pursuant to the exiting 119021
operator's or affiliated operator's one or more provider 119022
agreements, other than the provider agreement for the nursing 119023
facility or intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded119024
that is the subject of the involuntary termination, voluntary 119025
termination, voluntary withdrawal of participation, facility 119026
closure, or change of operator, must equal at least ninety per 119027
cent of the sum of the following:119028

        (a) The average monthly medicaid payment made to the exiting 119029
operator pursuant to the exiting operator's provider agreement for 119030
the nursing facility or intermediate care facility for the 119031
mentally retarded that is the subject of the involuntary 119032
termination, voluntary termination, voluntary withdrawal of 119033
participation, facility closure, or change of operator;119034

        (b) Whichever of the following apply:119035

       (i) If the exiting operator or affiliated operator has 119036
assumed liability under one or more other successor liability 119037
agreements, the total amount for which the exiting operator or 119038
affiliated operator has assumed liability under the other 119039
successor liability agreements;119040

       (ii) If the exiting operator or affiliated operator has not 119041
assumed liability under any other successor liability agreements, 119042
zero.119043

        (F) A successor liability agreement executed under this 119044
section must comply with all of the following:119045

        (1) It must provide for the operator who executes the 119046
successor liability agreement to assume liability for either of 119047
the following as specified in the agreement:119048

        (a) The total, actual amount of debt the exiting operator 119049
owes the department and the United States centers for medicare and 119050
medicaid services under the medicaid program as determined under 119051
section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code;119052

        (b) The portion of the amount specified in division (F)(1)(a) 119053
of this section that represents the franchise permit fee the 119054
exiting operator owes.119055

        (2) It may not require the operator who executes the 119056
successor liability agreement to furnish a surety bond.119057

        (3) It must provide that the department, after determining 119058
under section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code the actual 119059
amount of debt the exiting operator owes the department and United 119060
States centers for medicare and medicaid services under the 119061
medicaid program, may deduct the lesser of the following from 119062
medicaid payments made to the operator who executes the successor 119063
liability agreement:119064

        (a) The total, actual amount of debt the exiting operator 119065
owes the department and the United States centers for medicare and 119066
medicaid services under the medicaid program as determined under 119067
section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code;119068

        (b) The amount for which the operator who executes the 119069
successor liability agreement assumes liability under the 119070
agreement.119071

        (4) It must provide that the deductions authorized by 119072
division (F)(3) of this section are to be made for a number of 119073
months, not to exceed six, agreed to by the operator who executes 119074
the successor liability agreement and the department or, if the 119075
operator who executes the successor liability agreement and 119076
department cannot agree on a number of months that is less than 119077
six, a greater number of months determined by the attorney general 119078
pursuant to a claims collection process authorized by statute of 119079
this state.119080

        (5) It must provide that, if the attorney general determines 119081
the number of months for which the deductions authorized by 119082
division (F)(3) of this section are to be made, the operator who 119083
executes the successor liability agreement shall pay, in addition 119084
to the amount collected pursuant to the attorney general's claims 119085
collection process, the part of the amount so collected that, if 119086
not for division (H) of this section, would be required by section 119087
109.081 of the Revised Code to be paid into the attorney general 119088
claims fund.119089

        (G) Execution of a successor liability agreement does not 119090
waive an exiting operator's right to contest the amount specified 119091
in the notice the department provides the exiting operator under 119092
division (C) of section 5111.685165.52 of the Revised Code. 119093

       (H) Notwithstanding section 109.081 of the Revised Code, the 119094
entire amount that the attorney general, whether by employees or 119095
agents of the attorney general or by special counsel appointed 119096
pursuant to section 109.08 of the Revised Code, collects under a 119097
successor liability agreement, other than the additional amount 119098
the operator who executes the agreement is required by division 119099
(F)(5) of this section to pay, shall be paid to the department of 119100
job and family servicesmedicaid for deposit into the appropriate 119101
fund. The additional amount that the operator is required to pay 119102
shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the 119103
attorney general claims fund created under section 109.081 of the 119104
Revised Code.119105

       Sec. 5111.682.        Sec. 5165.522. (A) Except as provided in division 119106
(B) of this section, an exiting operator shall file with the 119107
department of job and family servicesmedicaid a cost report not 119108
later than ninety days after the last day the exiting operator's 119109
provider agreement is in effect or, in the case of a voluntary 119110
withdrawal of participation, the effective date of the voluntary 119111
withdrawal of participation. The cost report shall cover the 119112
period that begins with the day after the last day covered by the 119113
operator's most recent previous cost report required by section 119114
5111.265165.10 of the Revised Code and ends on the last day the 119115
exiting operator's provider agreement is in effect or, in the case 119116
of a voluntary withdrawal of participation, the effective date of 119117
the voluntary withdrawal of participation. The cost report shall 119118
include, as applicable, all of the following:119119

        (1) The sale price of the nursing facility or intermediate 119120
care facility for the mentally retarded;119121

        (2) A final depreciation schedule that shows which assets are 119122
transferred to the buyer and which assets are not transferred to 119123
the buyer;119124

        (3) Any other information the department requires.119125

        (B) The department, at its sole discretion, may waive the 119126
requirement that an exiting operator file a cost report in 119127
accordance with division (A) of this section.119128

       Sec. 5111.683.        Sec. 5165.523. If an exiting operator required by 119129
section 5111.6825165.522 of the Revised Code to file a cost 119130
report with the department of job and family servicesmedicaid119131
fails to file the cost report in accordance with that section, all 119132
payments under the medicaid program for the period the cost report 119133
is required to cover are deemed overpayments until the date the 119134
department receives the properly completed cost report. The 119135
department may impose on the exiting operator a penalty of one 119136
hundred dollars for each calendar day the properly completed cost 119137
report is late.119138

       Sec. 5111.684.        Sec. 5165.524. The department of job and family 119139
servicesmedicaid may not provide an exiting operator final 119140
payment under the medicaid program until the department receives 119141
all properly completed cost reports the exiting operator is 119142
required to file under sections 5111.265165.10 and 5111.682119143
5165.522 of the Revised Code.119144

       Sec. 5111.685.        Sec. 5165.525. The department of job and family 119145
servicesmedicaid shall determine the actual amount of debt an 119146
exiting operator owes the department and the United States centers 119147
for medicare and medicaid services under the medicaid program by 119148
completing all final fiscal audits not already completed and 119149
performing all other appropriate actions the department determines 119150
to be necessary. The department shall issue an initial debt 119151
summary report on this matter not later than sixty days after the 119152
date the exiting operator files the properly completed cost report 119153
required by section 5111.6825165.522 of the Revised Code with the 119154
department or, if the department waives the cost report 119155
requirement for the exiting operator, sixty days after the date 119156
the department waives the cost report requirement. The initial 119157
debt summary report becomes the final debt summary report 119158
thirty-one days after the department issues the initial debt 119159
summary report unless the exiting operator, or an affiliated 119160
operator who executes a successor liability agreement under 119161
section 5111.6815165.521 of the Revised Code, requests a review 119162
before that date.119163

        The exiting operator, and an affiliated operator who executes 119164
a successor liability agreement under section 5111.6815165.521 of 119165
the Revised Code, may request a review to contest any of the 119166
department's findings included in the initial debt summary report. 119167
The request for the review must be submitted to the department not 119168
later than thirty days after the date the department issues the 119169
initial debt summary report. The department shall conduct the 119170
review on receipt of a timely request and issue a revised debt 119171
summary report. If the department has withheld money from payment 119172
due the exiting operator under division (A) of section 5111.681119173
5165.521 of the Revised Code, the department shall issue the 119174
revised debt summary report not later than ninety days after the 119175
date the department receives the timely request for the review 119176
unless the department and exiting operator or affiliated operator 119177
agree to a later date. The exiting operator or affiliated operator 119178
may submit information to the department explaining what the 119179
operator contests before and during the review, including 119180
documentation of the amount of any debt the department owes the 119181
operator. The exiting operator or affiliated operator may submit 119182
additional information to the department not later than thirty 119183
days after the department issues the revised debt summary report. 119184
The revised debt summary report becomes the final debt summary 119185
report thirty-one days after the department issues the revised 119186
debt summary report unless the exiting operator or affiliated 119187
operator timely submits additional information to the department. 119188
If the exiting operator or affiliated operator timely submits 119189
additional information to the department, the department shall 119190
consider the additional information and issue a final debt summary 119191
report not later than sixty days after the department issues the 119192
revised debt summary report unless the department and exiting 119193
operator or affiliated operator agree to a later date.119194

       Each debt summary report the department issues under this 119195
section shall include the department's findings and the amount of 119196
debt the department determines the exiting operator owes the 119197
department and United States centers for medicare and medicaid 119198
services under the medicaid program. The department shall explain 119199
its findings and determination in each debt summary report.119200

       The exiting operator, and an affiliated operator who executes 119201
a successor liability agreement under section 5111.6815165.521 of 119202
the Revised Code, may request, in accordance with Chapter 119. of 119203
the Revised Code, an adjudication regarding a finding in a final 119204
debt summary report that pertains to an audit or alleged 119205
overpayment made under the medicaid program to the exiting 119206
operator. The adjudication shall be consolidated with any other 119207
uncompleted adjudication that concerns a matter addressed in the 119208
final debt summary report.119209

       Sec. 5111.686.        Sec. 5165.526. The department of job and family 119210
servicesmedicaid shall release the actual amount withheld under 119211
division (A) of section 5111.6815165.521 of the Revised Code, 119212
less any amount the exiting operator owes the department and 119213
United States centers for medicare and medicaid services under the 119214
medicaid program, as follows:119215

        (A) Unless the department issues the initial debt summary 119216
report required by section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code 119217
not later than sixty days after the date the exiting operator 119218
files the properly completed cost report required by section 119219
5111.6825165.522 of the Revised Code, sixty-one days after the 119220
date the exiting operator files the properly completed cost 119221
report;119222

        (B) If the department issues the initial debt summary report 119223
required by section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code not 119224
later than sixty days after the date the exiting operator files a 119225
properly completed cost report required by section 5111.682119226
5165.522 of the Revised Code, not later than the following:119227

        (1) Thirty days after the deadline for requesting an 119228
adjudication under section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code 119229
regarding the final debt summary report if the exiting operator, 119230
and an affiliated operator who executes a successor liability 119231
agreement under section 5111.6815165.521 of the Revised Code, 119232
fail to request the adjudication on or before the deadline;119233

       (2) Thirty days after the completion of an adjudication of 119234
the final debt summary report if the exiting operator, or an 119235
affiliated operator who executes a successor liability agreement 119236
under section 5111.6815165.521 of the Revised Code, requests the 119237
adjudication on or before the deadline for requesting the 119238
adjudication.119239

        (C) Unless the department issues the initial debt summary 119240
report required by section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code 119241
not later than sixty days after the date the department waives the 119242
cost report requirement of section 5111.6825165.522 of the 119243
Revised Code, sixty-one days after the date the department waives 119244
the cost report requirement;119245

        (D) If the department issues the initial debt summary report 119246
required by section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code not 119247
later than sixty days after the date the department waives the 119248
cost report requirement of section 5111.6825165.522 of the 119249
Revised Code, not later than the following:119250

        (1) Thirty days after the deadline for requesting an 119251
adjudication under section 5111.6855165.525 of the Revised Code 119252
regarding the final debt summary report if the exiting operator, 119253
and an affiliated operator who executes a successor liability 119254
agreement under section 5111.6815165.521 of the Revised Code, 119255
fail to request the adjudication on or before the deadline;119256

        (2) Thirty days after the completion of an adjudication of 119257
the final debt summary report if the exiting operator, or an 119258
affiliated operator who executes a successor liability agreement 119259
under section 5111.6815165.521 of the Revised Code, requests the 119260
adjudication on or before the deadline for requesting the 119261
adjudication.119262

       Sec. 5111.687.        Sec. 5165.527. The department of job and family 119263
servicesmedicaid, at its sole discretion, may release the amount 119264
withheld under division (A) of section 5111.6815165.521 of the 119265
Revised Code if the exiting operator submits to the department 119266
written notice of a postponement of a change of operator, facility 119267
closure, voluntary termination, or voluntary withdrawal of 119268
participation and the transactions leading to the change of 119269
operator, facility closure, voluntary termination, or voluntary 119270
withdrawal of participation are postponed for at least thirty days 119271
but less than ninety days after the date originally proposed for 119272
the change of operator, facility closure, voluntary termination,119273
or voluntary withdrawal of participation as reported in the 119274
written notice required by section 5111.665165.50 or 5111.67119275
5165.51 of the Revised Code. The department shall release the 119276
amount withheld if the exiting operator submits to the department 119277
written notice of a cancellation or postponement of a change of 119278
operator, facility closure, voluntary termination, or voluntary 119279
withdrawal of participation and the transactions leading to the 119280
change of operator, facility closure, voluntary termination, or 119281
voluntary withdrawal of participation are canceled or postponed 119282
for more than ninety days after the date originally proposed for 119283
the change of operator, facility closure, voluntary termination,119284
or voluntary withdrawal of participation as reported in the 119285
written notice required by section 5111.665165.50 or 5111.67119286
5165.51 of the Revised Code. A written notice shall be provided to 119287
the department in accordance with the method specified in rules 119288
adopted underauthorized by section 5111.6895165.53 of the 119289
Revised Code.119290

        After the department receives a written notice regarding a 119291
cancellation or postponement of a facility closure, voluntary 119292
termination, or voluntary withdrawal of participation, the exiting 119293
operator or owner shall provide new written notice to the 119294
department under section 5111.665165.50 of the Revised Code 119295
regarding any transactions leading to a facility closure, 119296
voluntary termination, or voluntary withdrawal of participation at 119297
a future time. After the department receives a written notice 119298
regarding a cancellation or postponement of a change of operator, 119299
the exiting operator or owner and entering operator shall provide 119300
new written notice to the department under section 5111.675165.51119301
of the Revised Code regarding any transactions leading to a change 119302
of operator at a future time.119303

       Sec. 5111.688.        Sec. 5165.528. (A) All amounts withheld under 119304
section 5111.6815165.521 of the Revised Code from payment due an 119305
exiting operator under the medicaid program shall be deposited 119306
into the medicaid payment withholding fund created by the 119307
controlling board pursuant to section 131.35 of the Revised Code. 119308
Money in the fund shall be used as follows:119309

       (1) To pay an exiting operator when a withholding is released 119310
to the exiting operator under section 5111.6865165.526 or 119311
5111.6875165.527 of the Revised Code;119312

       (2) To pay the department of job and family servicesmedicaid119313
and United States centers for medicare and medicaid services the 119314
amount an exiting operator owes the department and United States 119315
centers under the medicaid program.119316

       (B) Amounts paid from the medicaid payment withholding fund 119317
pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section shall be deposited 119318
into the appropriate department fund.119319

       Sec. 5111.689.        Sec. 5165.53.  The medicaid director of job and 119320
family services shall adopt rules under section 5111.025165.02 of 119321
the Revised Code to implement sections 5111.655165.50 to 5111.689119322
5165.53 of the Revised Code, including rules applicable to an 119323
exiting operator that provides written notification under section 119324
5111.665165.50 of the Revised Code of a voluntary withdrawal of 119325
participation. Rules adopted under this section shall comply with 119326
section 1919(c)(2)(F) of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 119327
(1965)section 1919(c)(2)(F), 42 U.S.C. 1396r(c)(2)(F), regarding 119328
restrictions on transfers or discharges of nursing facility 119329
residents in the case of a voluntary withdrawal of participation. 119330
The rules may prescribe a medicaid reimbursementpayment119331
methodology and other procedures that are applicable after the 119332
effective date of a voluntary withdrawal of participation that 119333
differ from the reimbursementpayment methodology and other 119334
procedures that would otherwise apply. The rules shall specify all 119335
of the following: 119336

       (A) The method by which written notices to the department 119337
required by sections 5111.655165.50 to 5111.6895165.53 of the 119338
Revised Code are to be provided;119339

       (B) The forms and documents that are to be provided to the 119340
department of medicaid under sections 5111.6715165.511 and 119341
5111.6725165.512 of the Revised Code, which shall include, in the 119342
case of such forms and documents provided by entering operators, 119343
all the fully executed leases, management agreements, merger 119344
agreements and supporting documents, and fully executed sales 119345
contracts and any other supporting documents culminating in the 119346
change of operator;119347

       (C) The method by which the forms and documents identified in 119348
division (B) of this section are to be provided to the department.119349

       Sec. 5111.35.        Sec. 5165.60.  As used in this section, "a resident's 119350
rights" means the rights of a nursing facility resident under 119351
sections 3721.10 to 3721.17 of the Revised Code and subsection (c) 119352
of section 1819 or 1919 of, the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 119353
620 (1935)sections 1819(c) and 1919(c), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as 119354
amended1395i-3(c) and 1396r(c), and federal regulations issued 119355
under those subsectionssections of the "Social Security Act."119356

       As used in sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the 119357
Revised Code:119358

       (A) "Certification requirements" means the requirements for 119359
nursing facilities established under sections 1819 and 1919 of the 119360
"Social Security Act.," sections 1819 and 1919, 42 U.S.C. 1395i-3 119361
and 1396r.119362

       (B) "Compliance" means substantially meeting all applicable 119363
certification requirements.119364

       (C) "Contracting agency" means a state agency that has 119365
entered into a contract with the department of job and family 119366
servicesmedicaid under section 5111.385165.63 of the Revised 119367
Code.119368

       (D)(1) "Deficiency" means a finding cited by the department 119369
of health during a survey, on the basis of one or more actions, 119370
practices, situations, or incidents occurring at a nursing 119371
facility, that constitutes a severity level three finding, 119372
severity level four finding, scope level three finding, or scope 119373
level four finding. Whenever the finding is a repeat finding, 119374
"deficiency" also includes any finding that is a severity level 119375
two and scope level one finding, a severity level two and scope 119376
level two finding, or a severity level one and scope level two 119377
finding.119378

       (2) "Cluster of deficiencies" means deficiencies that result 119379
from noncompliance with two or more certification requirements and 119380
are causing or resulting from the same action, practice, 119381
situation, or incident.119382

       (E) "Emergency" means either of the following:119383

       (1) A deficiency or cluster of deficiencies that creates a 119384
condition of immediate jeopardy;119385

       (2) An unexpected situation or sudden occurrence of a serious 119386
or urgent nature that creates a substantial likelihood that one or 119387
more residents of a nursing facility may be seriously harmed if 119388
allowed to remain in the facility, including the following:119389

       (a) A flood or other natural disaster, civil disaster, or 119390
similar event;119391

       (b) A labor strike that suddenly causes the number of staff 119392
members in a nursing facility to be below that necessary for 119393
resident care.119394

       (F) "Finding" means a finding of noncompliance with 119395
certification requirements determined by the department of health 119396
under section 5111.415165.66 of the Revised Code.119397

       (G) "Immediate jeopardy" means that one or more residents of 119398
a nursing facility are in imminent danger of serious physical or 119399
life-threatening harm.119400

       (H) "Medicaid eligible resident" means a person who is a 119401
resident of a nursing facility, or is applying for admission to a 119402
nursing facility, and is eligible to receive financial assistance119403
for nursing facility services under the medical assistance119404
medicaid program for the care the person receives in such a 119405
facility.119406

       (I) "Noncompliance" means failure to substantially meet all 119407
applicable certification requirements.119408

       (J) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 119409
5111.20 of the Revised Codeincludes a skilled nursing facility to 119410
the extent the context requires.119411

       (K) "Provider" means a person, institution, or entity that 119412
furnishes nursing facility services under a medical assistance 119413
program provider agreement.119414

       (L) "Provider agreement" means a contract between the 119415
department of job and family services and a provider for the 119416
provision of nursing facility services under the medicaid program.119417

       (M) "Repeat finding" or "repeat deficiency" means a finding 119418
or deficiency cited pursuant to a survey, to which both of the 119419
following apply:119420

       (1) The finding or deficiency involves noncompliance with the 119421
same certification requirement, and the same kind of actions, 119422
practices, situations, or incidents caused by or resulting from 119423
the noncompliance, as were cited in the immediately preceding 119424
standard survey or another survey conducted subsequent to the 119425
immediately preceding standard survey of the facility. For 119426
purposes of this division, actions, practices, situations, or 119427
incidents may be of the same kind even though they involve 119428
different residents, staff, or parts of the facility.119429

       (2) The finding or deficiency is cited subsequent to a 119430
determination by the department of health that the finding or 119431
deficiency cited on the immediately preceding standard survey, or 119432
another survey conducted subsequent to the immediately preceding 119433
standard survey, had been corrected.119434

       (N)(L)(1) "Scope level one finding" means a finding of 119435
noncompliance by a nursing facility in which the actions, 119436
situations, practices, or incidents causing or resulting from the 119437
noncompliance affect one or a very limited number of facility 119438
residents and involve one or a very limited number of facility 119439
staff members.119440

       (2) "Scope level two finding" means a finding of 119441
noncompliance by a nursing facility in which the actions, 119442
situations, practices, or incidents causing or resulting from the 119443
noncompliance affect more than a limited number of facility 119444
residents or involve more than a limited number of facility staff 119445
members, but the number or percentage of facility residents 119446
affected or staff members involved and the number or frequency of 119447
the actions, situations, practices, or incidents in short 119448
succession does not establish any reasonable degree of 119449
predictability of similar actions, situations, practices, or 119450
incidents occurring in the future.119451

       (3) "Scope level three finding" means a finding of 119452
noncompliance by a nursing facility in which the actions, 119453
situations, practices, or incidents causing or resulting from the 119454
noncompliance affect more than a limited number of facility 119455
residents or involve more than a limited number of facility staff 119456
members, and the number or percentage of facility residents 119457
affected or staff members involved or the number or frequency of 119458
the actions, situations, practices, or incidents in short 119459
succession establishes a reasonable degree of predictability of 119460
similar actions, situations, practices, or incidents occurring in 119461
the future.119462

       (4) "Scope level four finding" means a finding of 119463
noncompliance by a nursing facility causing or resulting from 119464
actions, situations, practices, or incidents that involve a 119465
sufficient number or percentage of facility residents or staff 119466
members or occur with sufficient regularity over time that the 119467
noncompliance can be considered systemic or pervasive in the 119468
facility.119469

       (O)(M)(1) "Severity level one finding" means a finding of 119470
noncompliance by a nursing facility that has not caused and, if 119471
continued, is unlikely to cause physical harm to a facility 119472
resident, mental or emotional harm to a resident, or a violation 119473
of a resident's rights that results in physical, mental, or 119474
emotional harm to the resident.119475

       (2) "Severity level two finding" means a finding of 119476
noncompliance by a nursing facility that, if continued over time, 119477
will cause, or is likely to cause, physical harm to a facility 119478
resident, mental or emotional harm to a resident, or a violation 119479
of a resident's rights that results in physical, mental, or 119480
emotional harm to the resident.119481

       (3) "Severity level three finding" means a finding of 119482
noncompliance by a nursing facility that has caused physical harm 119483
to a facility resident, mental or emotional harm to a resident, or 119484
a violation of a resident's rights that results in physical, 119485
mental, or emotional harm to the resident.119486

       (4) "Severity level four finding" means a finding of 119487
noncompliance by a nursing facility that has caused 119488
life-threatening harm to a facility resident or caused a 119489
resident's death.119490

       (P)(N) "State agency" has the same meaning as in section 1.60 119491
of the Revised Code.119492

       (Q)(O) "Substandard care" means care furnished in a facility 119493
in which the department of health has cited a deficiency or 119494
deficiencies that constitute one of the following:119495

       (1) A severity level four finding, regardless of scope;119496

       (2) A severity level three and scope level four finding, in 119497
the quality of care provided to residents;119498

       (3) A severity level three and scope level three finding, in 119499
the quality of care provided to residents.119500

       (R)(P)(1) "Survey" means a survey of a nursing facility 119501
conducted under section 5111.395165.64 of the Revised Code.119502

       (2) "Standard survey" means a survey conducted by the 119503
department of health under division (A) of section 5111.395165.64119504
of the Revised Code and includes an extended survey.119505

       (3) "Follow-up survey" means a survey conducted by the 119506
department of health to determine whether a nursing facility has 119507
substantially corrected deficiencies cited in a previous survey.119508

       Sec. 5111.36.        Sec. 5165.61.  The medicaid director of job and 119509
family services may adopt rules under Chapter 119.section 5165.02119510
of the Revised Code that are consistent with regulations, 119511
guidelines, and procedures issued by the United States secretary 119512
of health and human services under sections 1819 and 1919 of the 119513
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935)sections 1819 and 1919, 119514
42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended1395i-3 and 1396r, and necessary for 119515
administration and enforcement of sections 5111.355165.60 to 119516
5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code. If the secretary does not 119517
issue appropriate regulations for enforcement of those sections 119518
1819 and 1919 of the "Social Security Act" on or before December 119519
13, 1990, the medicaid director of job and family services may 119520
adopt, under Chapter 119.section 5165.02 of the Revised Code, 119521
rules that are consistent with those sections and with sections 119522
5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code.119523

       Sec. 5111.37.        Sec. 5165.62.  The department of job and family 119524
servicesmedicaid is hereby authorized to enforce sections 119525
5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code. The 119526
department may enforce the sections directly or through 119527
contracting agencies. The department and agencies shall enforce 119528
the sections in accordance with the requirements of sections 1819 119529
and 1919 of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935)119530
sections 1819 and 1919, 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended1395i-3 and 119531
1396r, that apply to nursing facilities; with regulations, 119532
guidelines, and procedures adopted by the United States secretary 119533
of health and human services for the enforcement of those sections 119534
1819 and 1919 of the "Social Security Act"; and with the rules 119535
adopted underauthorized by section 5111.365165.61 of the Revised 119536
Code. The department and agencies shall enforce sections 5111.35119537
5165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code for purposes of the 119538
medicare program, Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," only 119539
to the extent prescribed by the regulations, guidelines, and 119540
procedures issued by the secretary under section 1819 of that act119541
the "Social Security Act," section 1819, 42 U.S.C. 1395i-3.119542

       Sec. 5111.38.        Sec. 5165.63.  The department of job and family 119543
servicesmedicaid may enter into contracts with other state 119544
agencies pursuant to section 5162.35 of the Revised Code that 119545
authorize the agencies to perform all or part of the duties 119546
assigned to the department of job and family servicesmedicaid119547
under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised 119548
Code. Each contract shall specify the duties the agency is 119549
authorized to perform and the sections of the Revised Code under 119550
which the agency is authorized to perform those duties.119551

       Sec. 5111.39.        Sec. 5165.64.  (A) The department of health shall 119552
conduct a survey, titled a standard survey, of every nursing 119553
facility in this state on a statewide average of not more than 119554
once every twelve months. Each nursing facility shall undergo a 119555
standard survey at least once every fifteen months as a condition 119556
of meeting certification requirements. The department may extend a 119557
standard survey; such a survey is titled an extended survey.119558

       (B) The department may conduct surveys in addition to 119559
standard surveys when it considers them necessary.119560

       (C) The department shall conduct surveys in accordance with 119561
the regulations, guidelines, and procedures issued by the United 119562
States secretary of health and human services under TitlesTitle119563
XVIII and Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 119564
(1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, sections 5111.405165.65 to 119565
5111.425165.68 of the Revised Code, and rules adopted under 119566
section 3721.022 of the Revised Code.119567

       Sec. 5111.40.        Sec. 5165.65.  (A) At the conclusion of each survey, 119568
the department of health survey team shall conduct an exit 119569
interview with the administrator or other person in charge of the 119570
nursing facility and any other facility staff members designated 119571
by the administrator or person in charge of the facility. During 119572
the exit interview, at the request of the administrator or other 119573
person in charge of the facility, the survey team shall provide 119574
one of the following, as selected by the survey team:119575

       (1) Copies of all survey notes and any other written 119576
materials created during the survey;119577

       (2) A written summary of the survey team's recommendations 119578
regarding findings of noncompliance with certification 119579
requirements;119580

       (3) An audio or audiovisual recording of the interview. If 119581
the survey team selects this option, at least two copies of the 119582
recording shall be made and the survey team shall select one copy 119583
to be kept by the survey team for use by the department of health.119584

       (B) All expenses of copying under division (A)(1) of this 119585
section or recording under division (A)(3) of this section, 119586
including the cost of the copy of the recording kept by the survey 119587
team, shall be paid by the facility.119588

       Sec. 5111.41.        Sec. 5165.66.  (A) Except as provided in section 119589
3721.17 of the Revised Code, a finding shall be cited only on the 119590
basis of a survey and a determination that one or more actions, 119591
practices, situations, or incidents at a nursing facility caused 119592
or resulted from the facility's failure to comply with one or more 119593
certification requirements. The department of health shall 119594
determine whether the actions, practices, situations, or incidents 119595
can be justified by either of the following:119596

       (1) The actions, practices, situations, or incidents resulted 119597
from a resident exercising the resident's rights guaranteed under 119598
the laws of the United States or of this state;119599

       (2) The actions, practices, situations, or incidents resulted 119600
from a facility following the orders of a person licensed under 119601
Chapter 4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine or surgery 119602
or osteopathic medicine and surgery.119603

       (B) If the department of health determines both that the 119604
actions, practices, situations, or incidents cannot be justified 119605
by the factors identified in division (A) of this section and that 119606
one or more of the following are applicable, the department shall 119607
declare that the actions, practices, situations, or incidents 119608
constitute a finding:119609

       (1) The actions, practices, situations, or incidents could 119610
have been prevented by one or more persons involved in the 119611
facility's operation;119612

       (2) No person involved in the facility's operation identified 119613
the actions, practices, situations, or incidents prior to the 119614
survey;119615

       (3) Prior to the survey, no person involved in the facility's 119616
operation initiated action to correct the noncompliance caused by 119617
or resulting in the actions, practices, situations, or incidents;119618

       (4) The facility does not have in effect, if needed, a 119619
contingency plan that is reasonably calculated to prevent 119620
physical, mental, or emotional harm to residents while permanent 119621
corrective action is being taken.119622

       (C) The department of health shall determine the severity 119623
level and scope level of each finding.119624

       (D) A deficiency that is substantially corrected within the 119625
time limits specified in sections 5111.525165.79 to 119626
5111.565165.83 of the Revised Code and for which no remedy is 119627
imposed, shall be counted as a deficiency for the purpose of 119628
determining whether a deficiency is a repeat deficiency.119629

       (E) Whenever the department of health determines that during 119630
the period between two surveys a finding existed at the facility, 119631
but the facility substantially corrected it prior to the second 119632
survey, the department shall cite it. However, the department of 119633
job and family servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency shall 119634
impose a remedy only as provided in division (C) of section 119635
5111.465165.72 of the Revised Code.119636

       (F) Immediately upon determining the severity and scope of a 119637
finding at a nursing facility, the department of health shall 119638
notify the department of job and family servicesmedicaid and any 119639
contracting agency of the finding, the severity and scope of the 119640
finding, and whether the finding creates immediate jeopardy. 119641
Immediately upon determining that an emergency exists at a 119642
facility that does not result from a deficiency that creates 119643
immediate jeopardy, the department of health shall notify the 119644
department of job and family servicesmedicaid and any contracting 119645
agency.119646

       Sec. 5111.411.        Sec. 5165.67.  The results of a survey of a nursing 119647
facility that is conducted under section 5111.395165.64 of the 119648
Revised Code, including any statement of deficiencies and all 119649
findings and deficiencies cited in the statement on the basis of 119650
the survey, shall be used solely to determine the nursing 119651
facility's compliance with certification requirements or with this 119652
chapter or another chapter of the Revised Code. Those results of a 119653
survey, that statement of deficiencies, and the findings and 119654
deficiencies cited in that statement shall not be used in any 119655
court or in any action or proceeding that is pending in any court 119656
and are not admissible in evidence in any action or proceeding 119657
unless that action or proceeding is an appeal of an administrative 119658
action by the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 119659
contracting agency under this chapter or is an action by any 119660
department or agency of the state to enforce this chapter or 119661
another chapter of the Revised Code.119662

       Nothing in this section prohibits the results of a survey, a 119663
statement of deficiencies, or the findings and deficiencies cited 119664
in that statement on the basis of the survey under this section 119665
from being used in a criminal investigation or prosecution.119666

       Sec. 5111.42.        Sec. 5165.68.  (A) Not later than ten days after an 119667
exit interview, the department of health shall deliver to the 119668
nursing facility a detailed statement, titled a statement of 119669
deficiencies, setting forth all findings and deficiencies cited on 119670
the basis of the survey, including any finding cited pursuant to 119671
division (E) of section 5111.415165.66 of the Revised Code. The 119672
statement shall indicate the severity and scope level of each 119673
finding and fully describe the incidents or other facts that form 119674
the basis of the department's determination of the existence of 119675
each finding and deficiency. A failure by the survey team to 119676
completely disclose in the exit interview every finding that may 119677
result from the survey does not affect the validity of any finding 119678
or deficiency cited in the statement of deficiencies. On request 119679
of the facility, the department shall provide a copy of any 119680
written worksheet or other document produced by the survey team in 119681
making recommendations regarding scope and severity levels of 119682
findings and deficiencies.119683

       (B) At the same time the department of health delivers a 119684
statement of deficiencies, it also shall deliver to the facility a 119685
separate written notice that states all of the following:119686

       (1) That the department of job and family servicesmedicaid119687
or a contracting agency will issue an order under section 5111.57119688
5165.84 of the Revised Code denying payment for any medicaid 119689
eligible residents admitted on and after the effective date of the 119690
order if the facility does not substantially correct, within 119691
ninety days after the exit interview, the deficiency or 119692
deficiencies cited in the statement of deficiencies in accordance 119693
with the plan of correction it submitted under section 5111.43119694
5165.69 of the Revised Code;119695

       (2) If a condition of substandard care has been cited on the 119696
basis of a standard survey and a condition of substandard care was 119697
also cited on the immediately preceding standard survey, that the 119698
department of job and family servicesmedicaid or a contracting 119699
agency will issue an order under section 5111.575165.84 of the 119700
Revised Code denying payment for any medicaid eligible residents 119701
admitted on and after the effective date of the order if a 119702
condition of substandard care is cited on the basis of the next 119703
standard survey;119704

       (3) That the department of job and family servicesmedicaid119705
or a contracting agency will issue an order under section 5111.58119706
5165.88 of the Revised Code terminating the facility's 119707
participation in the medical assistancemedicaid program if either 119708
of the following applies:119709

       (a) The facility does not substantially correct the 119710
deficiency or deficiencies in accordance with the plan of 119711
correction it submitted under section 5111.435165.69 of the 119712
Revised Code within six months after the exit interview.119713

       (b) The facility substantially corrects the deficiency or 119714
deficiencies within the six-month period, but after correcting it, 119715
the department of health, based on a follow-up survey conducted 119716
during the remainder of the six-month period, determines that the 119717
facility has failed to maintain compliance with certification 119718
requirements.119719

       Sec. 5111.43.        Sec. 5165.69. (A) Whenever a nursing facility 119720
receives a statement of deficiencies under section 5111.425165.68119721
of the Revised Code, the facility shall submit to the department 119722
of health for its approval a plan of correction for each finding 119723
cited in the statement. The plan shall describeinclude all of the 119724
following:119725

       (1) Detailed descriptions of the actions the facility will 119726
take to correct each finding and specify the, including actions 119727
the facility will take to protect residents situated similarly to 119728
the residents affected by the causes of the findings;119729

       (2) The date by which each finding will be corrected. In the 119730
case of;119731

       (3) A detailed description of an ongoing monitoring and 119732
improvement process to be used at the facility that is focused on 119733
preventing any recurrence of the causes of the findings;119734

       (4) If the plan concerns a finding assigned a severity level 119735
indicating that a resident was harmed or immediate jeopardy 119736
exists, all of the following:119737

       (a) Detailed analyses of the facts and circumstances of the 119738
finding, including identification of its root cause;119739

       (b) A detailed explanation of how the corrective actions 119740
described pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section relate to 119741
the root cause of the finding identified pursuant to division 119742
(A)(4)(a) of this section;119743

       (c) A detailed explanation of the relationship between the 119744
ongoing monitoring and improvement process described pursuant to 119745
division (A)(3) of this section and the root cause of the finding 119746
identified pursuant to division (A)(4)(a) of this section.119747

       (5) If the plan concerns a finding cited pursuant to division 119748
(E) of section 5111.415165.66 of the Revised Code, the plan shall 119749
describea description of the actions the facility took to correct 119750
the finding and the date on which it was corrected.119751

       (B)(1) The department shall approve any plan, and any 119752
modification of an existing plan a nursing facility submits to the 119753
department, that conformsdoes both of the following:119754

       (a) Conforms to the requirements for approval of plans of 119755
corrections, and modifications, established in the regulations, 119756
guidelines, and procedures issued by the United States secretary 119757
of health and human services under TitlesTitle XVIII and Title119758
XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 119759
301, as amended;119760

       (b) Includes all the information required by division (A) of 119761
this section. The department also shall approve any modification 119762
of an existing plan submitted by a facility, if the plan as 119763
modified conforms to those regulations, guidelines, and 119764
procedures. The119765

       (2) The department shall consult with the department of 119766
medicaid, department of aging, and office of the state long-term 119767
care ombudsman program when determining whether a plan, or 119768
modification of an existing plan, to which division (A)(4) of this 119769
section applies conforms to the requirements for approval. The119770
department shall not reject a facility's plan of correction or 119771
modification on the ground that the facility disputes the finding, 119772
if the plan or modification is reasonably calculated to correct 119773
the finding.119774

       (C) A facility that complies with this section shall not be 119775
considered to have admitted the existence of a finding cited by 119776
the department.119777

       Sec. 5111.44.        Sec. 5165.70.  The department of health may appoint 119778
employees of the department to conduct on-site monitoring of a 119779
nursing facility whenever a finding is cited, including any 119780
finding cited pursuant to division (E) of section 5111.415165.66119781
of the Revised Code, or an emergency is found to exist. 119782
Appointment of monitors under this section is not subject to 119783
appeal under section 5111.605165.87 or any other section of the 119784
Revised Code. No employee of a facility for which monitors are 119785
appointed, no person employed by the facility within the previous 119786
two years, and no person who currently has a consulting or other 119787
contract with the department or the facility, shall be appointed 119788
as a monitor under this section. Every monitor appointed under 119789
this section shall have the professional qualifications necessary 119790
to monitor correction of the finding or elimination of the 119791
emergency.119792

       Sec. 5111.45.        Sec. 5165.71.  (A) If the department of health cites 119793
a deficiency or deficiencies that was not substantially corrected 119794
before a survey and that does not constitute a severity level four 119795
finding or create immediate jeopardy, the department of job and 119796
family servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency shall permit the 119797
nursing facility to continue participating in the medical 119798
assistancemedicaid program for up to six months after the exit 119799
interview, if all of the following apply:119800

       (1) The facility meets the requirements, established in 119801
regulations issued by the United States secretary of health and 119802
human services under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 119803
Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, for certification 119804
of nursing facilities that have a deficiency.119805

       (2) The department of health has approved a plan of 119806
correction submitted by the facility under section 5111.435165.69119807
of the Revised Code for each deficiency.119808

       (3) The provider agrees to repay the department of job and 119809
family servicesmedicaid, in accordance with section 5111.58119810
5165.85 of the Revised Code, the federal share of all payments 119811
made by the department to the facility during the six-month period 119812
following the exit interview if the facility does not within the 119813
six-month period substantially correct the deficiency or 119814
deficiencies in accordance with the plan of correction submitted 119815
under section 5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code.119816

       (B) If any of the conditions in divisions (A)(1) to (3) of 119817
this section do not apply, the department of job and family 119818
servicesmedicaid or contracting agency shall issue an order 119819
terminating the facility's participation in the medical assistance119820
medicaid program. An order issued under this division is subject 119821
to appeal under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. The order shall 119822
not take effect prior to the later of the thirtieth day after it 119823
is delivered to the facility or, if the order is appealed, the 119824
date on which a final adjudication order upholding the termination 119825
becomes effective pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.119826

       (C) At the time the department of job and family services119827
medicaid or contracting agency issues an order under division (B) 119828
of this section terminating a nursing facility's participation in 119829
the medical assistancemedicaid program, it may also impose, 119830
subject to section 5111.505165.76 of the Revised Code, other 119831
remedies under sections 5111.465165.72 to 5111.485165.74 of the 119832
Revised Code.119833

       Sec. 5111.46.        Sec. 5165.72.  (A) If the department of health cites 119834
a deficiency, or cluster of deficiencies, that was not 119835
substantially corrected before a survey and constitutes a severity 119836
level four finding, the department of job and family services119837
medicaid or contracting agency shall, subject to sections 5111.52119838
5165.79 to 5111.565165.83 of the Revised Code, impose a remedy 119839
for the deficiency or cluster of deficiencies. The department or 119840
agency may act under either division (A)(1) or (2) of this 119841
section:119842

       (1) The department or agency may impose one or more of the 119843
following remedies:119844

       (a) Issue an order terminating the nursing facility's 119845
participation in the medical assistancemedicaid program.119846

       (b) Do either of the following:119847

       (i) Regardless of whether the provider consents, appoint a 119848
temporary manager of the facility.119849

       (ii) Apply to the common pleas court of the county in which 119850
the facility is located for such injunctive or other equitable 119851
relief as is necessary for the appointment of a special master 119852
with such powers and authority over the facility and length of 119853
appointment as the court considers necessary.119854

       (c) Do either of the following:119855

       (i) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 119856
facility under the medical assistance program for all medicaid 119857
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order;119858

       (ii) Impose a fine.119859

       (d) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 119860
facility under the medical assistance program for medicaid 119861
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order 119862
who have certain diagnoses or special care needs specified by the 119863
department or agency.119864

       (2) The department or agency may impose one or more of the 119865
following remedies:119866

       (a) Appoint, subject to the continuing consent of the 119867
provider, a temporary manager of the facility;119868

       (b) Do either of the following:119869

       (i) Regardless of whether the provider consents, appoint a 119870
temporary manager of the facility;119871

       (ii) Apply to the common pleas court of the county in which 119872
the facility is located for such injunctive or other equitable 119873
relief as is necessary for the appointment of a special master 119874
with such powers and authority over the facility and length of 119875
appointment as the court considers necessary.119876

       (c) Do either of the following:119877

       (i) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 119878
facility under the medical assistance program for all medicaid 119879
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order;119880

       (ii) Impose a fine.119881

       (d) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 119882
facility under the medical assistance program for medicaid 119883
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order 119884
who have certain diagnoses or special care needs specified by the 119885
department or agency;119886

       (e) Issue an order requiring the facility to correct the 119887
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies under the plan of correction 119888
submitted by the facility and approved by the department of health 119889
under section 5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code.119890

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 119891
contracting agency shall deliver a written order issued under 119892
division (A)(1) of this section terminating a nursing facility's 119893
participation in the medical assistancemedicaid program to the 119894
facility within five days after the exit interview. If the 119895
facility alleges, at any time prior to the later of the twentieth 119896
day after the exit interview or the fifteenth day after it 119897
receives the order, that the deficiency or cluster of deficiencies 119898
for which the order was issued has been substantially corrected, 119899
the department of health shall conduct a follow-up survey to 119900
determine whether the deficiency or cluster of deficiencies has 119901
been substantially corrected. The order shall take effect and the 119902
facility's participation shall terminate on the twentieth day 119903
after the exit interview, unless the facility has substantially 119904
corrected the deficiency or cluster of deficiencies that 119905
constituted a severity level four finding or did not receive 119906
notice from the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 119907
contracting agency within five days after the exit interview. In 119908
the latter case, the order shall take effect and the facility's 119909
participation shall terminate on the fifteenth day after the 119910
facility received the order.119911

       (C) If the department of health cites a deficiency or cluster 119912
of deficiencies pursuant to division (E) of section 5111.41119913
5165.66 of the Revised Code that constituted a severity level four 119914
finding, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or a 119915
contracting agency shall, subject to section 5111.565165.83 of 119916
the Revised Code, impose a fine. The fine shall be in effect for a 119917
period equal to the number of days the deficiency or cluster of 119918
deficiencies existed at the facility.119919

       Sec. 5111.47.        Sec. 5165.73.  If the department of health cites a 119920
deficiency, or cluster of deficiencies, that was not substantially 119921
corrected before a survey and constitutes a severity level three 119922
and scope level three or four finding, the department of job and 119923
family servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency may, subject to 119924
sections 5111.555165.82 and 5111.565165.83 of the Revised Code, 119925
impose one or more of the following remedies:119926

       (A) Do either of the following:119927

       (1) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 119928
facility under the medical assistance program for all medicaid 119929
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order;119930

       (2) Impose a fine.119931

       (B) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 119932
facility under the medical assistance program for medicaid 119933
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order 119934
who have certain diagnoses or special care needs specified by the 119935
department or agency;119936

       (C) Issue an order requiring the facility to correct the 119937
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies under the plan of correction 119938
submitted by the facility and approved by the department of health 119939
under section 5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code.119940

       Sec. 5111.48.        Sec. 5165.74.  (A) If the department of health cites 119941
a deficiency, or cluster of deficiencies, that was not 119942
substantially corrected before a survey and constitutes a severity 119943
level three and scope level two finding, the department of job and 119944
family servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency may, subject to 119945
sections 5111.555165.82 and 5111.565165.83 of the Revised Code, 119946
impose one or more of the following remedies:119947

       (1) Do either of the following:119948

       (a) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 119949
facility under the medical assistance program for all medicaid 119950
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order;119951

       (b) Impose a fine.119952

       (2) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 119953
facility under the medical assistance program for medicaid 119954
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order 119955
who have certain diagnoses or special care needs specified by the 119956
department or agency;119957

       (3) Issue an order requiring the facility to correct the 119958
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies under the plan of correction 119959
proposed by the facility and approved by the department of health 119960
under section 5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code.119961

       (B) If the department of health cites a deficiency, or 119962
cluster of deficiencies, that was not substantially corrected 119963
before a survey and constitutes a severity level three and scope 119964
level one finding, the department of job and family services119965
medicaid or a contracting agency may, subject to sections 5111.55119966
5165.82 and 5111.565165.83 of the Revised Code, impose one or 119967
more of the following remedies:119968

       (1) Impose a fine;119969

       (2) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 119970
facility under the medical assistance program for medicaid 119971
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order 119972
who have certain diagnoses or special care needs specified by the 119973
department or agency;119974

       (3) Issue an order requiring the facility to correct the 119975
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies under the plan of correction 119976
proposed by the facility and approved by the department of health 119977
under section 5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code.119978

       (C) If the department of health cites a deficiency, or 119979
cluster of deficiencies, that was not substantially corrected 119980
before a survey and constitutes a severity level two and a scope 119981
level three or four finding, the department of job and family 119982
servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency may, subject to sections 119983
5111.555165.82 and 5111.565165.83 of the Revised Code, impose 119984
one or more of the following remedies:119985

       (1) Impose a fine;119986

       (2) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 119987
facility under the medical assistance program for medicaid 119988
eligible residents admitted after the effective date of the order 119989
who have certain diagnoses or special care needs specified by the 119990
department or agency;119991

       (3) Issue an order requiring the facility to correct the 119992
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies under the plan of correction 119993
submitted by the facility and approved by the department of health 119994
under section 5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code.119995

       (D) If the department of health cites a deficiency, or 119996
cluster of deficiencies, that was not substantially corrected 119997
before a survey, constitutes a severity level two and scope level 119998
one or two finding, and is a repeat finding, the department of job 119999
and family servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency may issue an 120000
order requiring the facility to correct the deficiency or cluster 120001
of deficiencies under the plan of correction submitted by the 120002
facility and approved by the department of health under section 120003
5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code.120004

       (E) If the department of health cites a deficiency, or 120005
cluster of deficiencies, that was not substantially corrected 120006
before a survey and constitutes a severity level one and scope 120007
level three or four finding, the department of job and family 120008
servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency may issue an order 120009
requiring the facility to correct the deficiency or cluster of 120010
deficiencies under the plan of correction submitted by the 120011
facility and approved by the department of health under section 120012
5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code.120013

       (F) If the department of health cites a deficiency, or 120014
cluster of deficiencies, that was not substantially corrected 120015
before a survey, constitutes a severity level one and scope level 120016
two finding, and is a repeat finding, the department of job and 120017
family servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency may issue an 120018
order requiring the facility to correct the deficiency or cluster 120019
of deficiencies under the plan of correction submitted by the 120020
facility and approved by the department of health under section 120021
5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code.120022

       Sec. 5111.49.        Sec. 5165.75.  (A) In determining which remedies to 120023
impose under section 5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, or 5111.48120024
5165.74 of the Revised Code, including whether a fine should be 120025
imposed, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or a 120026
contracting agency shall do both of the following:120027

       (1) Impose the remedies that are most likely to achieve 120028
correction of deficiencies, encourage sustained compliance with 120029
certification requirements, and protect the health, safety, and 120030
rights of facility residents, but that are not directed at 120031
punishment of the facility;120032

       (2) Consider all of the following:120033

       (a) The presence or absence of immediate jeopardy;120034

       (b) The relationships of groups of deficiencies to each 120035
other;120036

       (c) The facility's history of compliance with certification 120037
requirements generally and in the specific area of the deficiency 120038
or deficiencies;120039

       (d) Whether the deficiency or deficiencies are directly 120040
related to resident care;120041

       (e) The corrective, long-term compliance, resident 120042
protective, and nonpunitive outcomes sought by the department or 120043
agency;120044

       (f) The nature, scope, and duration of the noncompliance with 120045
certification requirements;120046

       (g) The existence of repeat deficiencies;120047

       (h) The category of certification requirements with which the 120048
facility is out of compliance;120049

       (i) Any period of noncompliance with certification 120050
requirements that occurred between two certifications by the 120051
department of health that the facility was in compliance with 120052
certification requirements;120053

       (j) The facility's degree of culpability;120054

       (k) The accuracy, extent, and availability of facility 120055
records;120056

       (l) The facility's financial condition, exclusive of any 120057
moneys donated to a facility that is an organization described in 120058
subsection 501(c)(3) and is tax exempt under subsection 501(a) of 120059
the "Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 120060
1;120061

       (m) Any adverse effect that the action or fine would have on 120062
the health and safety of facility residents;120063

       (n) If the noncompliance that resulted in the citation of a 120064
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies existed before a change in 120065
ownership of the facility, whether the new owner or owners have 120066
had sufficient time to correct the noncompliance.120067

       (B) Whenever the department or agency imposes remedies under 120068
section 5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, or 5111.485165.74 of 120069
the Revised Code, it shall provide a written statement to the 120070
nursing facility that specifies all of the following:120071

       (1) The effective date of each remedy;120072

       (2) The deficiency or cluster of deficiencies for which each 120073
remedy is imposed;120074

       (3) The severity and scope of the deficiency or cluster of 120075
deficiencies;120076

       (4) The rationale, including all applicable factors specified 120077
in division (A) of this section, for imposing the remedies.120078

       Sec. 5111.50.        Sec. 5165.76.  At the time the department of job and 120079
family servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency, under section 120080
5111.455165.71, 5111.465165.72, or 5111.515165.77 of the 120081
Revised Code, issues an order terminating a nursing facility's 120082
participation in the medical assistancemedicaid program, the 120083
department or agency may also impose a fine, in accordance with 120084
sections 5111.465165.72 to 5111.485165.74 and 5111.565165.83 of 120085
the Revised Code, to be collected in the event the termination 120086
order does not take effect. The department or agency shall not 120087
collect this fine if the termination order takes effect.120088

       Sec. 5111.51.        Sec. 5165.77.  (A) If the department of health finds 120089
during a survey that an emergency exists at a nursing facility, as 120090
the result of a deficiency or cluster of deficiencies that creates 120091
immediate jeopardy, the department of job and family services120092
medicaid or a contracting agency shall impose one or more of the 120093
remedies described in division (A)(1) of this section and, in 120094
addition, may take one or both of the actions described in 120095
division (A)(2) of this section.120096

       (1) The department or agency shall impose one or more of the 120097
following remedies:120098

       (a) Appoint, subject to the continuing consent of the 120099
provider, a temporary manager of the facility;120100

       (b) Apply to the common pleas court of the county in which 120101
the facility is located for a temporary restraining order, 120102
preliminary injunction, or such other injunctive or equitable 120103
relief as is necessary to close the facility, transfer one or more 120104
residents to other nursing facilities or other appropriate care 120105
settings, or otherwise eliminate the condition of immediate 120106
jeopardy. If the court grants such an order, injunction, or 120107
relief, it may appoint a special master empowered to implement the 120108
court's judgment under the court's direct supervision.120109

       (c) Issue an order terminating the facility's participation 120110
in the medical assistancemedicaid program;120111

       (d) Regardless of whether the provider consents, appoint a 120112
temporary manager of the facility.120113

       (2) The department or agency may do one or both of the 120114
following:120115

       (a) Issue an order denying paymentmedicaid payments to the 120116
facility for all medicaid eligible residents admitted after the 120117
effective date of the order;120118

       (b) Impose remedies under sections 5111.465165.72 to 5111.48120119
5165.74 of the Revised Code appropriate to the severity and scope 120120
of the deficiency or cluster of deficiencies, except that the 120121
department or agency shall not impose a fine for the same 120122
deficiency for which the department or agency has issued an order 120123
under division (A)(2)(a) of this section.120124

       (B) If the department of health, department of job and family 120125
servicesmedicaid, or a contracting agency finds on the basis of a 120126
survey or other visit to the facility by representatives of that 120127
department or agency that an emergency exists at a facility that 120128
is not the result of a deficiency or cluster of deficiencies that 120129
constitutes immediate jeopardy, the department of job and family 120130
servicesmedicaid or contracting agency may do either of the 120131
following:120132

       (1) Appoint, subject to the continuing consent of the 120133
provider, a temporary manager of the facility;120134

       (2) Apply to the common pleas court of the county in which 120135
the facility is located for a temporary restraining order, 120136
preliminary injunction, or such other injunctive or equitable 120137
relief as is necessary to close the facility, transfer one or more 120138
residents to other nursing facilities or other appropriate care 120139
settings, or otherwise eliminate the emergency. If the court 120140
grants such an order, injunction, or relief, it may appoint a 120141
special master empowered to implement the court's judgment under 120142
the court's direct supervision.120143

       (C)(1) Prior to acting under division (A)(1)(b), (c), (d), or 120144
(2), or (B)(2) of this section, the department of job and family 120145
servicesmedicaid or contracting agency shall give written notice 120146
to the facility specifying all of the following:120147

       (a) The nature of the emergency, including the nature of any 120148
deficiency or deficiencies that caused the emergency;120149

       (b) The nature of the action the department or agency intends 120150
to take unless the department of health determines that the 120151
facility, in the absence of state intervention, possesses the 120152
capacity to eliminate the emergency;120153

       (c) The rationale for taking the action.120154

       (2) If the department of health determines that the facility 120155
does not possess the capacity to eliminate the emergency in the 120156
absence of state intervention, the department of job and family 120157
servicesmedicaid or contracting agency may immediately take 120158
action under division (A) or (B) of this section. If the 120159
department of health determines that the facility possesses the 120160
capacity to eliminate the emergency, the department of job and 120161
family servicesmedicaid or contracting agency shall direct the 120162
facility to eliminate the emergency within five days after the 120163
facility's receipt of the notice. At the end of the five-day 120164
period, the department of health shall conduct a follow-up survey 120165
that focuses on the emergency. If the department of health 120166
determines that the facility has eliminated the emergency within 120167
the time period, the department of job and family services120168
medicaid or contracting agency shall not act under division 120169
(A)(1)(b), (c), (d), or (2)(a), or (B)(2) of this section. If the 120170
department of health determines that the facility has failed to 120171
eliminate the emergency within the five-day period, the department 120172
of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting agency shall 120173
take appropriate action under division (A)(1)(b), (c), (d), or 120174
(2), or (B)(2) of this section.120175

       (3) Until the written notice required by division (C)(1) of 120176
this section is actually delivered, no action taken by the 120177
department of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting 120178
agency under division (A)(1)(b), (c), (d), or (2), or (B)(2) of 120179
this section shall have any legal effect. In addition to the 120180
written notice, the department of health survey team shall give 120181
oral notice to the facility, at the time of the survey, concerning 120182
any recommendations the survey team intends to make that could 120183
form the basis of a determination that an emergency exists.120184

       (D) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 120185
contracting agency shall deliver a written order issued under 120186
division (A)(1) of this section terminating a nursing facility's 120187
participation in the medical assistancemedicaid program to the 120188
facility within five days after the exit interview. If the 120189
facility alleges, at any time prior to the later of the twentieth 120190
day after the exit interview or the fifteenth day after it 120191
receives the order, that the condition of immediate jeopardy for 120192
which the order was issued has been eliminated, the department of 120193
health shall conduct a follow-up survey to determine whether the 120194
immediate jeopardy has been eliminated. The order shall take 120195
effect and the facility's participation shall terminate on the 120196
twentieth day after the exit interview, unless the facility has 120197
eliminated the immediate jeopardy or did not receive notice from 120198
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting 120199
agency within five days after the exit interview. In the latter 120200
case, the order shall take effect and the facility's participation 120201
shall terminate on the fifteenth day after the facility received 120202
the order.120203

       (E) Any action taken by the department of job and family 120204
servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency under division 120205
(A)(1)(c), (d), or (2)(a) of this section is subject to appeal 120206
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, except that the department 120207
or agency may take such action prior to and during the pendency of 120208
any proceeding under that chapter. No action taken by a facility 120209
under division (C) of this section to eliminate an emergency cited 120210
by the department of health shall be considered an admission by 120211
the facility of the existence of an emergency.120212

       Sec. 5165.771.  (A) As used in this section:120213

       "SFF list" means the list of nursing facilities that the 120214
United States department of health and human services creates 120215
under the special focus facility program. 120216

       "Special focus facility program" means the program conducted 120217
by the United States secretary of health and human services 120218
pursuant to the "Social Security Act," section 1919(f)(10), 42 120219
U.S.C. 1396r(f)(10).120220

       "Table A" means the table included in the SFF list that 120221
identifies nursing facilities that are newly added to the SFF 120222
list.120223

       "Table B" means the table included in the SFF list that 120224
identifies nursing facilities that have not improved.120225

       "Table C" means the table included in the SFF list that 120226
identifies nursing facilities that have shown improvement.120227

       "Table D" means the table included in the SFF list that 120228
identifies nursing facilities that have recently graduated from 120229
the special focus facility program.120230

       (B) The department of medicaid shall issue an order 120231
terminating a nursing facility's participation in the medicaid 120232
program if any of the following apply:120233

       (1) The nursing facility is listed in table A or table B on 120234
the effective date of this section and fails to be placed in table 120235
C not later than twelve months after the effective date of this 120236
section;120237

       (2) The nursing facility is listed in table A, table B, or 120238
table C on the effective date of this section and fails to be 120239
placed in table D not later than twenty-four months after the 120240
effective date of this section;120241

       (3) The nursing facility is placed in table A after the 120242
effective date of this section and fails to be placed in table C 120243
not later than twelve months after the nursing facility is placed 120244
in table A;120245

       (4) The nursing facility is placed in table A after the 120246
effective date of this section and fails to be placed in table D 120247
not later than twenty-four months after the nursing facility is 120248
placed in table A.120249

       (C) An order issued under this section is not subject to 120250
appeal under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.120251

       Sec. 5111.511.        Sec. 5165.78.  (A) If the department of job and 120252
family servicesmedicaid determines that a nursing facility is 120253
experiencing or is likely to experience a serious financial loss 120254
or failure that jeopardizes or is likely to jeopardize the health, 120255
safety, and welfare of its residents, the department, subject to 120256
the provider's consent, may appoint a temporary resident safety 120257
assurance manager in the nursing facility to take actions the 120258
department determines are appropriate to ensure the health, 120259
safety, and welfare of the residents.120260

       (B) A temporary resident safety assurance manager appointed 120261
under this section is vested with the authority necessary to take 120262
actions the department of job and family servicesmedicaid120263
determines are appropriate to ensure the health, safety, and 120264
welfare of the residents.120265

       (C) A temporary resident safety assurance manager appointed 120266
under this section may use any of the following funds to pay for 120267
costs the manager incurs on behalf of the nursing facility:120268

       (1) Medicaid payments made in accordance with the provider 120269
agreement for the nursing facility;120270

       (2) Funds from the residents protection fund that the 120271
department provides the manager under section 5111.625162.66 of 120272
the Revised Code;120273

       (3) Other funds the department determines are appropriate if 120274
such use of the funds is consistent with the appropriations that 120275
authorize the use of the funds and all other state and federal 120276
laws governing the use of the funds.120277

       (D) The provider is liable to the department for the amount 120278
of any payments the department makes to the temporary resident 120279
safety assurance manager, other than payments specified in 120280
division (C)(1) of this section. The department may recover the 120281
amount the provider owes the department by doing any of the 120282
following:120283

       (1) Offsetting medicaid payments made to the provider in 120284
accordance with the provider agreement;120285

       (2) Placing a lien on any of the provider's real and personal 120286
property;120287

       (3) Initiating other collection actions.120288

       (E) No action the department takes under this section is 120289
subject to appeal under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.120290

       (F) In rules adopted underauthorized by section 5111.36120291
5165.61 of the Revised Code, the medicaid director of job and 120292
family services may establish all of the following:120293

       (1) Qualifications persons must meet to be appointed 120294
temporary resident safety assurance managers under this section;120295

       (2) Procedures for maintaining a list of qualified temporary 120296
resident safety assurance managers;120297

       (3) Procedures consistent with federal law for paying for the 120298
services of temporary resident safety assurance managers;120299

       (4) Accounting and reporting requirements for temporary 120300
resident safety assurance managers;120301

       (5) Other procedures and requirements the director determines 120302
are necessary to implement this section.120303

       Sec. 5111.52.        Sec. 5165.79.  (A) As used in this section, 120304
"terminating" includes not renewing.120305

       (B) A nursing facility's participation in the medical 120306
assistancemedicaid program shall be terminated under sections 120307
5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code as 120308
follows:120309

       (1) If the department of job and family servicesmedicaid is 120310
terminating the facility's participation, it shall issue an order 120311
terminating the facility's provider agreement.120312

       (2) If the department of health, acting as a contracting 120313
agency, is terminating the facility's participation, it shall 120314
issue an order terminating certification of the facility's 120315
compliance with certification requirements. When the department of 120316
health terminates certification, the department of job and family 120317
servicesmedicaid shall terminate the facility's provider 120318
agreement. The department of job and family servicesmedicaid is 120319
not required to provide an adjudication hearing when it terminates 120320
a provider agreement following termination of certification by the 120321
department of health.120322

       (3) If a state agency other than the department of health, 120323
acting as a contracting agency, is terminating the facility's 120324
participation, it shall notify the department of job and family 120325
servicesmedicaid, and the department of job and family services120326
medicaid shall issue an order terminating the facility's provider 120327
agreement. The contracting agency shall conduct any administrative 120328
proceedings concerning the order.120329

       (C) If the following conditions are met, the department of 120330
job and family servicesmedicaid may make medical assistance120331
medicaid payments to a nursing facility for a period not exceeding 120332
thirty days after the effective date of termination under sections 120333
5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code of the 120334
facility's participation in the medical assistancemedicaid120335
program:120336

       (1) The payments are for medicaid eligible residents admitted 120337
to the facility prior to the effective date of the termination;120338

       (2) The provider is making reasonable efforts to transfer 120339
medicaid eligible residents to other care settings.120340

       The period during which payments may be made under this 120341
division begins on the later of the effective date of the 120342
termination or, if the facility has appealed a termination order, 120343
the date of issuance of the adjudication order upholding 120344
termination.120345

       Sec. 5111.53.        Sec. 5165.80.  (A) Whenever a nursing facility is 120346
closed under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the 120347
Revised Code, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid120348
or contracting agency shall arrange for the safe and orderly 120349
transfer of all residents, including residents who are not 120350
medicaid eligible residents, to other appropriate care settings. 120351
Whenever a nursing facility's participation in the medical 120352
assistancemedicaid program is terminated under sections 5111.35120353
5165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code, the department or 120354
agency shall arrange for the safe and orderly transfer of all 120355
medicaid eligible residents or, if the termination results in the 120356
closure of the facility, of all residents. The provider and all 120357
persons involved in the facility's operation shall cooperate with 120358
and assist in the transfer of residents.120359

       (B) After a nursing facility's participation in the medical 120360
assistancemedicaid program is terminated under section 5111.45120361
5165.71, 5111.465165.72, 5111.515165.77, 5165.771, or 5111.58120362
5165.85 of the Revised Code, the department of job and family 120363
servicesmedicaid or contracting agency may appoint a temporary 120364
manager subject to the continuing consent of the provider, or may 120365
apply to the common pleas court of the county in which the 120366
facility is located for such injunctive relief as is necessary for 120367
the appointment of a special master, to ensure the transfer of 120368
medicaid eligible residents to other appropriate care settings 120369
and, if applicable, the orderly closure of the facility.120370

       Sec. 5111.54.        Sec. 5165.81.  (A) A temporary manager of a nursing 120371
facility appointed by the department of job and family services120372
medicaid or a contracting agency under sections 5111.355165.60 to 120373
5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code shall meet all of the 120374
following qualifications:120375

       (1) Be licensed as a nursing home administrator under Chapter 120376
4751. of the Revised Code;120377

       (2) Have demonstrated competence as a nursing home 120378
administrator;120379

       (3) Have had no disciplinary action taken against the 120380
temporary manager by any licensing board or professional society 120381
in this state.120382

       (B) The salary of a temporary manager or special master 120383
appointed under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the 120384
Revised Code shall be paid by the facility and set by the 120385
department of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting 120386
agency, in the case of a temporary manager, or by the court, in 120387
the case of a special master, at a rate not to exceed the maximum 120388
allowable compensation for an administrator under the medical 120389
assistancemedicaid program. The extent to which this compensation 120390
is allowable under the medical assistancemedicaid program is 120391
subject to and limited by this chapter and rules of the department120392
adopted under section 5165.02 of the Revised Code.120393

       Subject to division (C) of this section, any costs incurred 120394
on behalf of a nursing facility by a temporary manager or special 120395
master appointed under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89120396
of the Revised Code shall be paid by the facility. The 120397
allowability of these costs under the medical assistancemedicaid120398
program shall be subject to and governed by this chapter and the120399
rules of the departmentadopted under section 5165.02 of the 120400
Revised Code. This division does not prohibit a facility from 120401
applying for or receiving any waiver of cost ceilings available 120402
under the rules of the department.120403

       (C) No temporary manager or special master appointed under 120404
sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code 120405
shall enter into any employment contract on behalf of a facility, 120406
or purchase any capital goods using facility funds totaling more 120407
than ten thousand dollars, unless the temporary manager or special 120408
master has obtained prior approval for the contract or purchase 120409
from either the provider or the court.120410

       (D)(1) A temporary manager appointed for a nursing facility 120411
under section 5111.465165.72 of the Revised Code is hereby 120412
vested, subject to division (C) of this section, with the legal 120413
authority necessary to correct any deficiency or cluster of 120414
deficiencies at a facility, bring the facility into compliance 120415
with certification requirements, and otherwise ensure the health 120416
and safety of the residents.120417

       (2) A temporary manager appointed under section 5111.51120418
5165.77 of the Revised Code is hereby vested, subject to division 120419
(C) of this section, with the authority necessary to eliminate the 120420
emergency, bring the facility into compliance with certification 120421
requirements, and otherwise ensure the health and safety of the 120422
residents.120423

       (3) A temporary manager appointed under section 5111.53120424
5165.80 of the Revised Code is hereby vested, subject to division 120425
(C) of this section, with the authority necessary to ensure the 120426
transfer of medicaid eligible residents to other appropriate care 120427
settings and, if applicable, the orderly closure of the facility, 120428
and to otherwise ensure the health and safety of the residents.120429

       (E) Prior to acting under division (A)(1)(b) or (2)(b) of 120430
section 5111.465165.72 of the Revised Code to appoint a temporary 120431
manager or apply for a special master, the department of job and 120432
family servicesmedicaid or contracting agency shall order the 120433
facility to substantially correct the deficiency or deficiencies 120434
within five days after receiving the statement and inform the 120435
facility, in the statement it provides pursuant to division (B) of 120436
section 5111.495165.75 of the Revised Code, of the order and 120437
that it will not take that action unless the facility fails to 120438
substantially correct the deficiency or deficiencies within that 120439
five-day period. At the end of the five-day period, the department 120440
of health shall conduct a follow-up survey that focuses on the 120441
deficiency or deficiencies. If the department of health determines 120442
that the facility has substantially corrected the deficiency or 120443
deficiencies within that time, the department of job and family 120444
servicesmedicaid or contracting agency shall not appoint a 120445
temporary manager or apply for a special master. If the department 120446
of health determines that the facility has failed to substantially 120447
correct the deficiency or deficiencies within that time, the 120448
department of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting 120449
agency may proceed with appointment of the temporary manager or 120450
application for a special master. Until the statement required 120451
under division (B) of section 5111.495165.75 of the Revised Code 120452
is actually delivered, no action taken by the department or agency 120453
to appoint a temporary manager or apply for a temporary manager 120454
under division (A)(1)(b) or (2)(b) of section 5111.465165.72 of 120455
the Revised Code shall have any legal effect. No action taken by a 120456
facility under this division to substantially correct a deficiency 120457
or deficiencies shall be considered an admission by the facility 120458
of the existence of a deficiency or deficiencies.120459

       (F) Appointment of a temporary manager under division 120460
(A)(1)(b) or (2)(b) of section 5111.465165.72 or division 120461
(A)(1)(d) of section 5111.515165.77 of the Revised Code shall 120462
expire at the end of the seventh day following the appointment. If 120463
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting 120464
agency finds that the deficiency or deficiencies that prompted the 120465
appointment under division (A)(1)(b) or (2)(b) of section 5111.46120466
5165.72 of the Revised Code cannot be substantially corrected, or 120467
the condition of immediate jeopardy that prompted the appointment 120468
under division (A)(1)(d) of section 5111.515165.77 of the Revised 120469
Code cannot be eliminated, prior to the expiration of the 120470
appointment, it may take one of the following actions:120471

       (1) Appoint, subject to the continuing consent of the 120472
provider, a temporary manager for the facility;120473

       (2) Apply to the common pleas court of the county in which 120474
the facility is located for an order appointing a special master 120475
who, under the authority and direct supervision of the court and 120476
subject to divisions (B) and (C) of this section, may take such 120477
additional actions as are necessary to correct the deficiency or 120478
deficiencies or eliminate the condition of immediate jeopardy and 120479
bring the facility into compliance with certification 120480
requirements.120481

       (G) The court, on finding that the deficiency or deficiencies 120482
for which a special master was appointed under division (F)(2) of 120483
this section or division (A)(1)(b) or (2)(b) of section 5111.46120484
5165.72 of the Revised Code has been substantially corrected, or 120485
the emergency for which a special master was appointed under 120486
division (F)(2) of this section or division (A)(1)(b) or (B)(2) of 120487
section 5111.515165.77 of the Revised Code has been eliminated, 120488
that the facility has been brought into compliance with 120489
certification requirements, and that the provider has established 120490
the management capability to ensure continued compliance with the 120491
certification requirements, shall immediately terminate its 120492
jurisdiction over the facility and return control and management 120493
of the facility to the provider. If the deficiency or deficiencies 120494
cannot be substantially corrected, or the emergency cannot be 120495
eliminated practicably within a reasonable time following 120496
appointment of the special master, the court may order the special 120497
master to close the facility and transfer all residents to other 120498
nursing facilities or other appropriate care settings.120499

       (H) This section does not apply to temporary resident safety 120500
assurance managers appointed under section 5111.5115165.78 of the 120501
Revised Code.120502

       Sec. 5111.55.        Sec. 5165.82.  (A) An order issued under section 120503
5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, 5111.485165.74, 5111.51120504
5165.77, or 5111.575165.84 of the Revised Code denying payment120505
medicaid payments to a nursing facility for all medicaid eligible 120506
residents admitted after its effective date, or an order issued 120507
under section 5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, or 5111.485165.74120508
of the Revised Code denying paymentmedicaid payments to a 120509
nursing facility for medicaid eligible residents admitted after 120510
the effective date of the order who have specified diagnoses or 120511
special care needs, shall also apply to individuals admitted to 120512
the facility on and after the effective date of the order who are 120513
not medicaid eligible residents but become medicaid eligible 120514
residents after admission. Such an order shall not apply to any of 120515
the following:120516

       (1) An individual who was a medicaid eligible resident of the 120517
facility on the day immediately preceding the effective date of 120518
the order and continues to be a medicaid eligible resident on and 120519
after that date;120520

       (2) An individual who was a resident of the facility on the 120521
day immediately preceding the effective date of the order, 120522
continues to be a resident on and after that date, and becomes 120523
medicaid eligible on or after that date;120524

       (3) An individual who was a medicaid eligible resident of the 120525
facility prior to the effective date of the order, is temporarily 120526
absent from the facility on that or a subsequent date due to 120527
hospitalization or participation in therapeutic programs outside 120528
the facility, and chooses to return to the facility;120529

       (4) An individual who was a resident of the facility prior to 120530
the effective date of the order, is temporarily absent from the 120531
facility on that or a subsequent date due to hospitalization or 120532
participation in therapeutic programs outside the facility, 120533
becomes medicaid eligible on or after that date, and chooses to 120534
return to the facility.120535

       (B) An order issued under section 5111.465165.72 of the 120536
Revised Code denying paymentmedicaid payments to a nursing 120537
facility for all medicaid eligible residents admitted after its 120538
effective date, or denying paymentmedicaid payments to a facility 120539
for medicaid eligible residents admitted after the effective date 120540
of the order who have specified diagnoses or special care needs 120541
shall not take effect prior to the fifth day after the order is 120542
delivered to the facility. Such an order issued under section 120543
5111.475165.73 or 5111.485165.74 of the Revised Code shall not 120544
take effect prior to the twentieth day after it is delivered to 120545
the facility.120546

       (C) No nursing facility that has received an order under 120547
section 5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, 5111.485165.74, 5111.51120548
5165.77, or 5111.575165.84 of the Revised Code denying payment120549
medicaid payments for all new admissions of medicaid eligible 120550
residents shall admit a medicaid eligible resident on or after the 120551
effective date of the order, unless the resident is described in 120552
division (A)(3) or (4) of this section, until the order is 120553
terminated pursuant to this section. No nursing facility that has 120554
received an order under section 5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, 120555
or 5111.485165.74 of the Revised Code denying paymentmedicaid 120556
payments to a nursing facility for new admissions of medicaid 120557
eligible residents with specified diagnoses or special care needs 120558
shall admit such a resident on or after the effective date of the 120559
order, unless the resident is described in division (A)(3) or (4) 120560
of this section, until the order is terminated pursuant to this 120561
section.120562

       (D) In the case of an order imposed under division (B) of 120563
section 5111.575165.84 of the Revised Code, the department or 120564
agency shall appoint monitors in accordance with section 5111.44120565
5165.70 of the Revised Code to conduct on-site monitoring.120566

       (E)(1) A facility may give written notice to the department 120567
of health whenever any of the following apply:120568

       (a) With respect to an order denying payment issued under 120569
section 5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, or 5111.485165.74 of 120570
the Revised Code, either of the following is the case:120571

       (i) The facility has completed implementation of the plan of 120572
correction it submitted under section 5111.435165.69 of the 120573
Revised Code and substantially corrected all deficiencies for 120574
which the order was issued.120575

       (ii) The facility has reduced the severity or scope of all of 120576
the deficiencies to a level at which sections 5111.465165.72 to 120577
5111.485165.74 of the Revised Code do not authorize the order.120578

       (b) With respect to an order denying payment issued under 120579
section 5111.515165.77 of the Revised Code, the facility has 120580
eliminated the immediate jeopardy.120581

       (c) With respect to an order denying paymentmedicaid 120582
payments issued under division (A) of section 5111.575165.84 of 120583
the Revised Code, the facility has completed implementation of the 120584
plan of correction it submitted under section 5111.435165.69 of 120585
the Revised Code and substantially corrected all deficiencies for 120586
which the order was issued.120587

       (d) With respect to an order denying paymentmedicaid 120588
payments issued under division (B) of section 5111.575165.84 of 120589
the Revised Code, both of the following are the case:120590

       (i) The facility has completed implementation of the plan of 120591
correction it submitted under section 5111.435165.69 of the 120592
Revised Code and substantially corrected all deficiencies for 120593
which the order was issued.120594

       (ii) The facility is in compliance with certification 120595
requirements and has provided adequate assurance that it will 120596
remain in compliance with them.120597

       (2) Within ten working days after it receives the notice 120598
under division (E)(1) of this section, the department of health 120599
shall conduct a follow-up survey that focuses on the cited 120600
deficiency or deficiencies, unless the department is able to 120601
determine, on the basis of documentation provided by the facility, 120602
that the facility has completed the applicable action described in 120603
divisions (E)(1)(a) to (d) of this section. If the department of 120604
health makes that determination on the basis of the documentation, 120605
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting 120606
agency shall terminate the order denying paymentmedicaid payments120607
as of the date the facility completed the applicable action, as 120608
subsequently verified by the department of health. If the 120609
department of health conducts a follow-up survey, the department 120610
of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting agency shall 120611
terminate the order denying paymentmedicaid payments as of the 120612
date the department of health makes the determination that the 120613
facility completed the applicable action.120614

       (F) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 120615
contracting agency shall provide public notice implementing an 120616
order under section 5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, 5111.48120617
5165.74, 5111.515165.77, or 5111.575165.84 of the Revised Code 120618
denying paymentmedicaid payments to a nursing facility under the 120619
medical assistance program for all medicaid eligible residents by 120620
publishing in a newspaper of general circulation in the county in 120621
which the facility is located an announcement stating: "By order 120622
of the (Ohio Department of Job and Family ServicesMedicaid or 120623
name of contracting agency), effective on and after (effective 120624
date of order), (name of facility) is no longer authorized to 120625
admit Medicaid eligible residents." Immediately following 120626
termination of any such order, the department or agency shall 120627
publish in a newspaper of general circulation in the county in 120628
which the facility is located an announcement stating: "By order 120629
of the (Ohio Department of Job and Family ServicesMedicaid or 120630
name of contracting agency), effective on and after (effective 120631
date of termination), (name of facility) is hereby authorized to 120632
admit Medicaid eligible residents." Neither the department nor the 120633
contracting agency shall issue public notice of an order under 120634
section 5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, or 5111.485165.74 of 120635
the Revised Code denying payment to a nursing facility for 120636
medicaid eligible residents with specified diagnoses or special 120637
care needs; public notice is not required for such an order to 120638
take effect.120639

       (G) A facility that complies with division (E) of this 120640
section shall not be considered to have admitted to the existence 120641
of the deficiency that constitutes the basis of the department's 120642
or agency's order.120643

       Sec. 5111.56.        Sec. 5165.83.  (A) As used in this section, 120644
"certified beds" means beds certified under Title XVIII or Title120645
XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 120646
301, as amended.120647

       (B) If the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 120648
a contracting agency imposes a fine on a nursing facility under 120649
section 5111.465165.72, 5111.475165.73, or 5111.485165.74 of 120650
the Revised Code, it may impose one or more of the following:120651

       (1) One hundred sixty per cent of the amount calculated under 120652
division (C) of this section for any deficiency or cluster of 120653
deficiencies that constitutes a severity level four and scope 120654
level four finding;120655

       (2) One hundred forty per cent of the amount calculated under 120656
division (C) of this section for any deficiency or cluster of 120657
deficiencies that constitutes a severity level four and scope 120658
level three finding;120659

       (3) One hundred twenty per cent of the amount calculated 120660
under division (C) of this section for any deficiency or cluster 120661
of deficiencies that constitutes a severity level four and scope 120662
level two finding;120663

       (4) The amount calculated under division (C) of this section 120664
for any deficiency or cluster of deficiencies that constitutes a 120665
severity level four and scope level one finding or any deficiency 120666
or cluster of deficiencies that constitutes a severity level three 120667
and scope level four finding;120668

       (5) Ninety per cent of the amount calculated under division 120669
(C) of this section for any deficiency or cluster of deficiencies 120670
that constitutes a severity level three and scope level three 120671
finding;120672

       (6) Eighty per cent of the amount calculated under division 120673
(C) of this section for any deficiency or cluster of deficiencies 120674
that constitutes a severity level three and scope level two 120675
finding;120676

       (7) Seventy per cent of the amount calculated under division 120677
(C) of this section for any deficiency or cluster of deficiencies 120678
that constitutes a severity level three and scope level one 120679
finding;120680

       (8) Fifty per cent of the amount calculated under division 120681
(C) of this section for any deficiency or cluster of deficiencies 120682
that constitutes a severity level two and scope level four 120683
finding;120684

       (9) Forty per cent of the amount calculated under division 120685
(C) of this section for any deficiency or cluster of deficiencies 120686
that constitutes a severity level two and scope level three 120687
finding.120688

       (C) The amount subject to division (B) of this section shall 120689
be the product of multiplying two dollars and fifty cents for each 120690
day the fine is in effect by the total number of licensed nursing 120691
home beds or certified beds, whichever is greater, in the facility 120692
as of the date the deficiency or cluster of deficiencies that is 120693
the reason for the fine was cited.120694

       (D)(1) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 120695
contracting agency shall not impose on a facility, at any one 120696
time, more than four fines as a result of any one survey.120697

       (2) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 120698
contracting agency shall not impose more than one fine based on a 120699
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies. However, if the department 120700
of health, in a follow-up or other subsequent survey, finds a 120701
change in the scope or severity of the deficiency or cluster of 120702
deficiencies, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid120703
or contracting agency may increase or decrease the fine in 120704
accordance with division (B) of this section to reflect the change 120705
in scope or severity. The department or agency shall give the 120706
facility written notice of the change in the amount of the fine. 120707
The change shall take effect on the date the follow-up or other 120708
subsequent survey is completed.120709

       If the department of health finds that a deficiency is a 120710
repeat deficiency, the department of job and family services120711
medicaid or contracting agency may impose a fine that is one 120712
hundred per cent greater than the fine specified in division (B) 120713
of this section for the deficiency.120714

       (E) The total amount of fines the department of job and 120715
family servicesmedicaid or contracting agency may impose on a 120716
facility in a single calendar year shall not exceed five hundred 120717
dollars for each licensed nursing home bed or certified bed, 120718
whichever is greater in number, in the facility.120719

       (F)(1) Except as provided in division (F)(2) of this section, 120720
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting 120721
agency shall not impose a fine under section 5111.465165.72, 120722
5111.475165.73, or 5111.485165.74 of the Revised Code if the 120723
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies is substantially corrected 120724
within twenty days after the nursing facility receives the 120725
statement provided under division (B) of section 5111.495165.75120726
of the Revised Code. The department or agency shall inform the 120727
nursing facility in that statement that the fine will not be 120728
imposed if the deficiency or cluster of deficiencies is 120729
substantially corrected within the twenty-day period.120730

       (2) If a nursing facility has substantially corrected a 120731
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies within six months after the 120732
exit interview of a survey that was the basis for citing a 120733
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies, but after correcting it has 120734
been cited for the same deficiency or cluster of deficiencies by 120735
the department of health on the basis of a subsequent survey 120736
conducted during the remainder of the six-month period, the 120737
department of job and family servicesmedicaid or contracting 120738
agency may impose a fine beginning on the date of the exit 120739
interview of the subsequent survey.120740

       (G) Whenever a facility believes that it has completed 120741
implementation of the plan of correction it submitted under 120742
section 5111.435165.69 of the Revised Code and substantially 120743
corrected the cited deficiency or cluster of deficiencies that is 120744
the basis for a fine, it may give written notice to that effect to 120745
the department of health. After receiving the notice, the 120746
department shall conduct a follow-up survey of the facility that 120747
focuses on the deficiency or cluster, unless the department is 120748
able to determine, on the basis of documentation provided by the 120749
facility, that the facility has substantially corrected the 120750
deficiency or cluster. If, based on the follow-up survey, the 120751
department establishes that the facility had not completed 120752
implementation of the plan of correction at the time the 120753
department received the notice, any fine based on the deficiency 120754
or cluster shall be doubled effective from the date the department 120755
received the notice. A facility that complies with this division 120756
shall not be considered to have admitted the existence of the 120757
deficiency or cluster that is the basis for the fine.120758

       (H) Except for a fine imposed under division (C) of section 120759
5111.465165.72 of the Revised Code and as provided in division 120760
(F)(2) of this section, the department of job and family services120761
medicaid or contracting agency shall impose a fine only if the 120762
facility fails to give notice under division (G) of this section 120763
within twenty days after it receives the statement required by 120764
division (B) of section 5111.495165.75 of the Revised Code or if 120765
the department of health determines, based on a follow-up survey, 120766
that the deficiency or cluster of deficiencies for which the fine 120767
is proposed has not been substantially corrected within the 120768
twenty-day period. The fine shall be imposed effective on the 120769
twenty-first day after the facility receives the statement under 120770
division (B) of section 5111.495165.75 of the Revised Code. The 120771
fine shall remain in effect until the earliest of the following:120772

       (1) The date the department of health receives notice under 120773
division (G) of this section, unless the department determines, on 120774
the basis of a follow-up survey, that the deficiency or cluster of 120775
deficiencies that is the basis for the fine has not been 120776
substantially corrected as of that date;120777

       (2) The date on which the department of health makes a 120778
determination, on the basis of a follow-up survey, that the 120779
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies has been substantially 120780
corrected;120781

       (3) The date the facility substantially corrected the 120782
deficiency or cluster, as subsequently determined by the 120783
department of health on the basis of documentation provided by the 120784
facility.120785

       (I) Any fine imposed by the department of job and family 120786
servicesmedicaid or contracting agency under this section is 120787
subject to appeal under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. If the 120788
facility does not request a hearing under Chapter 119. of the 120789
Revised Code and either pays or agrees in writing to pay the fine 120790
when payment becomes due under division (J) of this section, the 120791
department or agency shall reduce the fine by fifty per cent. The 120792
department or agency may compromise any claim for payment of a 120793
fine under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the 120794
Revised Code.120795

       (J) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 120796
contracting agency shall collect interest on fines, at the rate 120797
per calendar month that equals one-twelfth of the rate per year 120798
prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code for the calendar 120799
year that includes the month for which the interest charge 120800
accrues. Payment of a fine is due, and interest begins to accrue 120801
on the unpaid fine or balance, on the thirty-first day after the 120802
department or agency issues a final adjudication order imposing 120803
the fine. If the deficiency or deficiencies on which the fine is 120804
based have not been corrected when the final adjudication order is 120805
issued, the payment is due, and interest begins to accrue on the 120806
unpaid fine or balance, on the thirty-first day after the 120807
deficiency or deficiencies are corrected and the department or 120808
agency mails a notice specifying the amount of the fine to the 120809
facility.120810

       (K) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 120811
contracting agency shall collect fines and interest imposed under 120812
this section through one of the following means:120813

       (1) A lump sum payment from the provider;120814

       (2) Periodic payments for a period not to exceed twelve 120815
months, in accordance with a schedule approved by the department 120816
or agency;120817

       (3) Appropriately reducing the amounts of medicaid payments 120818
made to the facility for carenursing facility services provided 120819
to medicaid eligible residents for a period not to exceed twelve 120820
months following the date on which payment of the fine becomes due 120821
under division (J) of this section. An amount equal to the amount 120822
by which each payment is reduced shall be deposited to the credit 120823
of the residents protection fund in accordance with section 120824
5111.625162.66 of the Revised Code.120825

       Sec. 5111.57.        Sec. 5165.84.  (A) The department of job and family 120826
servicesmedicaid or a contracting agency shall issue an order 120827
denying paymentmedicaid payments to a nursing facility for all 120828
medicaid eligible residents admitted to the facility on or after 120829
the effective date of the order, if the facility has failed to 120830
substantially correct within ninety days after the exit interview 120831
a deficiency or cluster of deficiencies in accordance with the 120832
plan of correction it submitted under section 5111.435165.69 of 120833
the Revised Code, as determined by the department of health on the 120834
basis of a follow-up survey.120835

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 120836
contracting agency shall issue an order denying paymentmedicaid 120837
payments to a nursing facility for all medicaid eligible residents 120838
admitted to the facility on or after the effective date of the 120839
order, if during three consecutive standard surveys conducted 120840
after December 13, 1990, the department of health has found a 120841
condition of substandard care in a facility.120842

       (C) An order issued under division (A) or (B) of this section 120843
shall take effect on the later of the date the facility receives 120844
the order or the date the public notice required under division 120845
(F) of section 5111.555165.82 of the Revised Code is published. 120846
The order is subject to appeal under Chapter 119. of the Revised 120847
Code; however the order may take effect prior to or during the 120848
pendency of any hearing under that chapter. In that case, the 120849
department or agency shall provide the facility an opportunity for 120850
a hearing in accordance with section 5111.605165.87 of the 120851
Revised Code.120852

       Sec. 5111.58.        Sec. 5165.85.  (A) If a nursing facility notifies the 120853
department of job and family servicesmedicaid or a contracting 120854
agency, at any time during the six-month period following the exit 120855
interview of a survey that was the basis for citing a deficiency 120856
or deficiencies, that the deficiency or deficiencies have been 120857
substantially corrected in accordance with the plan of correction 120858
submitted and approved under section 5111.435165.69 of the 120859
Revised Code, the department of health shall conduct a follow-up 120860
survey to determine whether the deficiency or deficiencies have 120861
been substantially corrected in accordance with the plan.120862

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or a 120863
contracting agency shall terminate a nursing facility's 120864
participation in the medical assistancemedicaid program whenever 120865
the facility has not substantially corrected, within six months 120866
after the exit interview of the survey on the basis of which it 120867
was cited, a deficiency or deficiencies in accordance with the 120868
plan of correction submitted under section 5111.435165.69 of the 120869
Revised Code, as determined by the department of health on the 120870
basis of a follow-up survey.120871

       (C) Unless the facility has substantially corrected the 120872
deficiency or deficiencies in accordance with the plan of 120873
correction, as determined by the department of health on the basis 120874
of a follow-up survey, the department of job and family services120875
medicaid or contracting agency shall deliver to the facility, at 120876
least thirty days prior to the day that is six months after the 120877
exit interview, a written order terminating the facility's 120878
participation in the medical assistancemedicaid program. The 120879
order shall take effect and the facility's participation shall 120880
terminate on the day that is six months after the exit interview. 120881
The order shall not take effect if, after it is delivered to the 120882
facility and prior to the effective date of the order, the 120883
department of health determines on the basis of a follow-up survey 120884
that the facility has corrected the deficiency or deficiencies.120885

       An order issued under this section is subject to appeal under 120886
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code; however, the order may take 120887
effect prior to or during the pendency of any hearing under that 120888
chapter. In that case, the department of job and family services120889
medicaid or contracting agency shall provide the facility an 120890
opportunity for a hearing in accordance with section 5111.60120891
5165.87 of the Revised Code.120892

       (D) Except as provided in division (E) of this section, 120893
whenever the department of job and family servicesmedicaid or a 120894
contracting agency terminates a facility's participation in the 120895
medical assistancemedicaid program pursuant to this section, the 120896
provider shall repay the department the federal share of all 120897
medicaid payments made by the department to the facility under the 120898
medical assistance program during the six-month period following 120899
the exit interview of the survey that was the basis for citing the 120900
deficiency or cluster of deficiencies. The provider shall repay 120901
the department within thirty days after the department repays to 120902
the federal government the federal share of medicaid payments made 120903
to the facility during that six-month period.120904

       (E) A provider is not required to repay the department of job 120905
and family servicesmedicaid if either of the following is the 120906
case:120907

       (1) The facility has brought an appeal under Chapter 119. of 120908
the Revised Code of termination of its participation in the 120909
medical assistancemedicaid program, except that the provider 120910
shall repay the department of job and family servicesmedicaid120911
within thirty days after the facility exhausts its right to appeal 120912
under that chapter.120913

       (2) The facility complied with the plan of correction 120914
approved by the department of health and the obligation to repay 120915
resulted from the department's failure to provide timely 120916
verification to the United States department of health and human 120917
services of the facility's compliance with the plan of correction.120918

       (F) If a provider's obligation to repay the department of job 120919
and family servicesmedicaid under division (D) of this section 120920
results from disallowance of federal financial participation by 120921
the United States department of health and human services, the 120922
provider shall not be required to repay the department of job and 120923
family servicesmedicaid until the federal disallowance becomes 120924
final.120925

       (G) Any fines paid under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.62120926
5165.89 of the Revised Code during any period for which the 120927
facility is required to repay the department of job and family 120928
servicesmedicaid under division (D) of this section shall be 120929
offset against the amount the provider is required to repay the 120930
department for that period.120931

       (H) Prior to a change of ownership of a facility for which a 120932
provider has an obligation to repay the department of job and 120933
family servicesmedicaid under division (D) of this section that 120934
has not become final, or has become final but not been paid, the 120935
department may do one or more of the following:120936

       (1) Require the provider to place money in escrow, or obtain 120937
a bond, in sufficient amount to indemnify the state against the 120938
provider's failure to repay the department after the change of 120939
ownership occurs;120940

       (2) Place a lien on the facility's real property;120941

       (3) Use any method to recover the medicaid payments that is 120942
available to the attorney general to recover payments on behalf of 120943
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid.120944

       Sec. 5111.59.        Sec. 5165.86.  The department of job and family 120945
servicesmedicaid, the department of health, and any contracting 120946
agency shall deliver a written notice, statement, or order to a 120947
nursing facility under sections 5111.355165.60 to 5111.415165.66120948
and 5111.435165.69 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code by 120949
certified mail or hand delivery. If the notice, statement, or 120950
order is mailed, it shall be addressed to the administrator of the 120951
facility as indicated in the department's or agency's records. If 120952
it is hand delivered, it shall be delivered to a person at the 120953
facility who would appear to the average prudent person to have 120954
authority to accept it.120955

       Delivery of written notice by a nursing facility to the 120956
department of health, the department of job and family services120957
medicaid, or a contracting agency under sections 5111.355165.60120958
to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code shall be by certified mail 120959
or hand delivery to the appropriate department or the agency.120960

       Sec. 5111.60.        Sec. 5165.87.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) 120961
of this section, the following remedies are subject to appeal 120962
under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code:120963

       (1) An order issued under section 5111.455165.71, 5111.46120964
5165.72, 5111.515165.77, or 5111.585165.85 of the Revised Code 120965
terminating a nursing facility's participation in the medical 120966
assistancemedicaid program;120967

       (2) Appointment of a temporary manager of a facility under 120968
division (A)(1)(b) or (2)(b) of section 5111.465165.72, or 120969
division (A)(1)(d) of section 5111.515165.77 of the Revised Code;120970

       (3) An order issued under section 5111.465165.72, 5111.47120971
5165.73, 5111.485165.74, 5111.515165.77, or 5111.575165.84 of 120972
the Revised Code denying paymentmedicaid payments to a facility 120973
under the medical assistance program for all medicaid eligible 120974
residents admitted after the effective date of the order;120975

       (4) An order issued under section 5111.465165.72, 5111.47120976
5165.73, or 5111.485165.74 of the Revised Code denying payment120977
medicaid payments to a facility under the medical assistance 120978
program for medicaid eligible residents admitted after the 120979
effective date of the order who have certain diagnoses or special 120980
care needs specified by the department or agency;120981

       (5) A fine imposed under section 5111.465165.72, 5111.47120982
5165.73, or 5111.485165.74 of the Revised Code.120983

       (B) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid or 120984
contracting agency may do any of the following prior to or during 120985
the pendency of any proceeding under Chapter 119. of the Revised 120986
Code:120987

       (1) Issue and execute an order under section 5111.465165.72, 120988
5111.515165.77, or 5111.585165.85 of the Revised Code 120989
terminating a nursing facility's participation in the medical 120990
assistancemedicaid program;120991

       (2) Appoint a temporary manager under division (A)(1)(b) or 120992
(2)(b) of section 5111.465165.72 or division (A)(1)(d) of section 120993
5111.515165.77 of the Revised Code;120994

       (3) Issue and execute an order under section 5111.465165.72, 120995
5111.475165.73, 5111.515165.77, or 5111.575165.84 of the 120996
Revised Code denying paymentmedicaid payments to a facility for 120997
all medicaid eligible residents admitted after the effective date 120998
of the order;120999

       (4) Issue and execute an order under section 5111.465165.72121000
or 5111.475165.73 or division (A), (B), or (C) of section 121001
5111.485165.74 of the Revised Code denying paymentmedicaid 121002
payments to a facility for medicaid eligible residents admitted 121003
after the effective date of the order who have specified diagnoses 121004
or special care needs.121005

       (C) Whenever the department or agency imposes a remedy listed 121006
in division (B) of this section prior to or during the pendency of 121007
a proceeding, all of the following apply:121008

       (1) The provider against whom the action is taken shall have 121009
ten days after the date the facility actually receives the notice 121010
specified in section 119.07 of the Revised Code to request a 121011
hearing.121012

       (2) The hearing shall commence within thirty days after the 121013
date the department or agency receives the provider's request for 121014
a hearing.121015

       (3) The hearing shall continue uninterrupted from day to day, 121016
except for Saturdays, Sundays, and legal holidays, unless other 121017
interruptions are agreed to by the provider and the department or 121018
agency.121019

       (4) If the hearing is conducted by a hearing examiner, the 121020
hearing examiner shall file a report and recommendations within 121021
ten days after the close of the hearing.121022

       (5) The provider shall have five days after the date the 121023
hearing officer files the report and recommendations within which 121024
to file objections to the report and recommendations.121025

       (6) Not later than fifteen days after the date the hearing 121026
officer files the report and recommendations, the medicaid121027
director of job and family services or the director of the 121028
contracting agency shall issue an order approving, modifying, or 121029
disapproving the report and recommendations of the hearing 121030
examiner.121031

       (D) If the department or agency imposes more than one remedy 121032
as the result of deficiencies cited in a single survey, the 121033
proceedings for all of the remedies shall be consolidated. If any 121034
of the remedies are imposed during the pendency of a hearing, as 121035
permitted by division (B) of this section, the consolidated 121036
hearing shall be conducted in accordance with division (C) of this 121037
section. The consolidation of the remedies for purposes of a 121038
hearing does not affect the effective dates prescribed in sections 121039
5111.355165.60 to 5111.582165.85 of the Revised Code.121040

       (E) If a contracting agency conducts administrative 121041
proceedings pertaining to remedies imposed under sections 5111.35121042
5165.60 to 5111.625165.89 of the Revised Code, the department of 121043
job and family servicesmedicaid shall not be considered a party 121044
to the proceedings.121045

       Sec. 5111.61.        Sec. 5165.88.  (A)(1) Except as required by court 121046
order, as necessary for the administration or enforcement of any 121047
statute relating to nursing facilities, or as provided in division 121048
(C) of this section, the department of job and family services121049
medicaid and any contracting agency shall not release any of the 121050
following information without the permission of the individual or 121051
the individual's legal representative:121052

       (a) The identity of any resident of a nursing facility;121053

       (b) The identity of any individual who submits a complaint 121054
about a nursing facility;121055

       (c) The identity of any individual who provides the 121056
department or agency with information about a nursing facility and 121057
has requested confidentiality;121058

       (d) Any information that reasonably would tend to disclose 121059
the identity of any individual described in division (A)(1)(a) to 121060
(c) of this section.121061

       (2) An agency or individual to whom the department or 121062
contracting agency is required, by court order or for the 121063
administration or enforcement of a statute relating to nursing 121064
facilities, to release information described in division (A)(1) of 121065
this section shall not release the information without the 121066
permission of the individual who would be or would reasonably tend 121067
to be identified, or of the individual's legal representative, 121068
unless the agency or individual is required to release it by 121069
division (C) of this section, by court order, or for the 121070
administration or enforcement of a statute relating to nursing 121071
facilities.121072

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, any 121073
record that identifies an individual described in division (A)(1) 121074
of this section or that reasonably would tend to identify such an 121075
individual is not a public record for the purposes of section 121076
149.43 of the Revised Code, and is not subject to inspection and 121077
copying under section 1347.08 of the Revised Code.121078

       (C) If the department or a contracting agency, or an agency 121079
or individual to whom the department or contracting agency was 121080
required by court order or for administration or enforcement of a 121081
statute relating to nursing facilities to release information 121082
described in division (A)(1) of this section, uses information in 121083
any administrative or judicial proceeding against a facility that 121084
reasonably would tend to identify an individual described in 121085
division (A)(1) of this section, the department, agency, or 121086
individual shall disclose that information to the facility. 121087
However, the department, agency, or individual shall not disclose 121088
information that directly identifies an individual described in 121089
divisions (A)(1)(a) to (c) of this section, unless the individual 121090
is to testify in the proceedings.121091

       (D) No person shall knowingly register a false complaint 121092
about a nursing facility with the department or a contracting 121093
agency, or knowingly swear or affirm the truth of a false 121094
complaint, when the allegation is made for the purpose of 121095
incriminating another.121096

       Sec. 5111.63.        Sec. 5165.89. For the purposes of this section, 121097
"facility," "medicare," and "medicaid" have the same meanings as 121098
in section 3721.10 of the Revised Code.121099

       The department of health shall be the designee of the 121100
department of job and family servicesmedicaid for the purpose of 121101
conducting a hearing pursuant to section 3721.162 of the Revised 121102
Code concerning a nursing facility's decision to transfer or 121103
discharge a resident if the resident is a medicaid recipient or 121104
medicare beneficiary.121105

       Sec. 5111.99.        Sec. 5165.99.  (A) Whoever violates division (B) of121106
section 5111.265165.102 or division (E) of section 5111.31121107
5165.08 of the Revised Code shall be fined not less than five 121108
hundred dollars nor more than one thousand dollars for the first 121109
offense and not less than one thousand dollars nor more than five 121110
thousand dollars for each subsequent offense. Fines paid under 121111
this section shall be deposited in the state treasury to the 121112
credit of the general revenue fund.121113

       (B) Whoever violates division (D) of section 5111.615165.88121114
of the Revised Code is guilty of registering a false complaint, a 121115
misdemeanor of the first degree.121116

       Sec. 5166.01.  As used in this chapter:121117

       "Administrative agency" means, with respect to a home and 121118
community-based services medicaid waiver component, the department 121119
of medicaid or, if a state agency or political subdivision 121120
contracts with the department under section 5162.35 of the Revised 121121
Code to administer the component, that state agency or political 121122
subdivision.121123

       "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in section 121124
5160.01 of the Revised Code.121125

       "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver component" 121126
means a medicaid waiver component under which home and 121127
community-based services are provided as an alternative to 121128
hospital services, nursing facility services, or ICF/IID services.121129

       "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of the 121130
Revised Code.121131

       "Hospital long-term care unit" has the same meaning as in 121132
section 5168.40 of the Revised Code.121133

       "ICDS participant" has the same meaning as in section 5164.01 121134
of the Revised Code.121135

       "ICF/IID" and "ICF/IID services" have the same meanings as in 121136
section 5124.01 of the Revised Code.121137

       "Integrated care delivery system" and "ICDS" have the same 121138
meanings as in section 5164.01 of the Revised Code.121139

       "Level of care determination" means a determination of 121140
whether an individual needs the level of care provided by a 121141
hospital, nursing facility, or ICF/IID and whether the individual, 121142
if determined to need that level of care, would receive hospital 121143
services, nursing facility services, or ICF/IID services if not 121144
for a home and community-based services medicaid waiver component.121145

       "Medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities program" has 121146
the same meaning as in section 5163.01 of the Revised Code.121147

       "Medicaid services" has the same meaning as in section 121148
5164.01 of the Revised Code. 121149

       "Medicaid waiver component" means a component of the medicaid 121150
program authorized by a waiver granted by the United States 121151
department of health and human services under the "Social Security 121152
Act," section 1115 or 1915, 42 U.S.C. 1315 or 1396n. "Medicaid 121153
waiver component" does not include a care management system 121154
established under section 5167.03 of the Revised Code.121155

       "Nursing facility" and "nursing facility services" have the 121156
same meanings as in section 5165.01 of the Revised Code.121157

       "Ohio home care waiver program" means the home and 121158
community-based services medicaid waiver component that is known 121159
as Ohio home care and was created pursuant to section 5166.11 of 121160
the Revised Code.121161

       "Ohio transitions II aging carve-out program" means the home 121162
and community-based services medicaid waiver component that is 121163
known as Ohio transitions II aging carve-out and was created 121164
pursuant to section 5166.11 of the Revised Code.121165

       "Provider agreement" has the same meaning as in section 121166
5164.01 of the Revised Code.121167

       "Residential treatment facility" means a residential facility 121168
licensed by the department of mental health and addiction services 121169
under section 5119.34 of the Revised Code, or an institution 121170
certified by the department of job and family services under 121171
section 5103.03 of the Revised Code, that serves children and 121172
either has more than sixteen beds or is part of a campus of 121173
multiple facilities or institutions that, combined, have a total 121174
of more than sixteen beds.121175

       "Skilled nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 121176
5165.01 of the Revised Code.121177

       "Unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 121178
component" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 121179
section 5166.14 of the Revised Code.121180

       Sec. 5111.85.        Sec. 5166.02.  (A) As used in this section and 121181
sections 5111.851 to 5111.856 of the Revised Code:121182

       "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver component" 121183
means a medicaid waiver component under which home and 121184
community-based services are provided as an alternative to 121185
hospital, nursing facility, or intermediate care facility for the 121186
mentally retarded services.121187

       "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of the 121188
Revised Code.121189

       "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" has 121190
the same meaning as in section 5111.20 of the Revised Code.121191

       "Medicaid waiver component" means a component of the medicaid 121192
program authorized by a waiver granted by the United States 121193
department of health and human services under section 1115 or 1915 121194
of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 121195
1315 or 1396n. "Medicaid waiver component" does not include a care 121196
management system established under section 5111.16 of the Revised 121197
Code.121198

       "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 121199
of the Revised Code.121200

       (B) The medicaid director of job and family services may121201
shall adopt rules underin accordance with Chapter 119. of the 121202
Revised Code governing medicaid waiver components that. The rules 121203
may establish all of the following:121204

       (1) Eligibility requirements for the medicaid waiver 121205
components;121206

       (2) The type, amount, duration, and scope of medicaid121207
services the medicaid waiver components providecover;121208

       (3) The conditions under which the medicaid waiver components 121209
cover medicaid services;121210

       (4) The amountamounts the medicaid waiver components pay for 121211
medicaid services or the methodmethods by which the amount is121212
amounts are determined;121213

       (5) The mannermanners in which the medicaid waiver 121214
components pay for medicaid services;121215

       (6) Safeguards for the health and welfare of medicaid 121216
recipients receiving medicaid services under a medicaid waiver 121217
component;121218

       (7) Procedures for prioritizing and approving for enrollment 121219
individuals who are eligible for a home and community-based 121220
services medicaid waiver component and choose to be enrolled in 121221
the component;121222

       (8) Procedures for enforcing the rules, including 121223
establishing corrective action plans for, and imposing financial 121224
and administrative sanctions on, persons and government entities 121225
that violate the rules. Sanctions shall include terminating 121226
medicaid provider agreements. The procedures shall include due 121227
process protections.121228

       (9) Other policies necessary for the efficient administration 121229
of the medicaid waiver components.121230

       (C)(B) The director of job and family services may adopt 121231
different rules for the different medicaid waiver components. The 121232
rules shall be consistent with the terms of the waiver authorizing 121233
the medicaid waiver component.121234

       (D)(C) The following apply to procedures established under 121235
division (B)(A)(7) of this section:121236

       (1) Any such procedures established for the medicaid-funded 121237
component of the PASSPORT program shall be consistent with section 121238
173.401173.521 of the Revised Code. 121239

       (2) Any such procedures established for the medicaid-funded 121240
component of the assisted living program shall be consistent with 121241
section 173.542 of the Revised Code.121242

       (3) Any such procedures established for the Ohio home care 121243
waiver program shall be consistent with section 5111.8625166.121121244
of the Revised Code.121245

       (3)(4) Any such procedures established for the unified 121246
long-term services and support medicaid waiver program shall be 121247
consistent with section 5111.8655166.141 of the Revised Code.121248

        (4) Any such procedures established for the medicaid-funded 121249
component of the assisted living program shall be consistent with 121250
section 5111.894 of the Revised Code.121251

       Sec. 5111.84.        Sec. 5166.03. The medicaid director of job and family 121252
services may not submit a request to the United States secretary 121253
of health and human services for a medicaid waiver under section 121254
1115 of the "Social Security Act of 1935," section 1115, 42 U.S.C. 121255
1315, unless the director provides the speaker of the house of 121256
representatives and president of the senate written notice of the 121257
director's intent to submit the request at least ten days before 121258
the date the director submits the request to the United States 121259
secretary. The notice shall include a detailed explanation of the 121260
medicaid waiver the director proposes to seek.121261

       Sec. 5111.851.        Sec. 5166.04. (A) As used in sections 5111.851 to 121262
5111.855 of the Revised Code:121263

       "Administrative agency" means, with respect to a home and 121264
community-based services medicaid waiver component, the department 121265
of job and family services or, if a state agency or political 121266
subdivision contracts with the department under section 5111.91 121267
of the Revised Code to administer the component, that state agency 121268
or political subdivision.121269

        "Level of care determination" means a determination of 121270
whether an individual needs the level of care provided by a 121271
hospital, nursing facility, or intermediate care facility for the 121272
mentally retarded and whether the individual, if determined to 121273
need that level of care, would receive hospital, nursing facility, 121274
or intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded services 121275
if not for a home and community-based services medicaid waiver 121276
component.121277

       "Medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities program" means 121278
the component of the medicaid program established under sections 121279
5111.70 to 5111.7011 of the Revised Code.121280

       "Skilled nursing facility" means a facility certified as a 121281
skilled nursing facility under Title XVIII of the "Social Security 121282
Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as amended.121283

       (B) The following requirements apply to each home and 121284
community-based services medicaid waiver component:121285

       (1)(A) Only an individual who qualifies for a component shall 121286
receive that component's medicaid services.121287

       (2)(B) A level of care determination shall be made as part of 121288
the process of determining whether an individual qualifies for a 121289
component and shall be made each year after the initial 121290
determination if, during such a subsequent year, the 121291
administrative agency determines there is a reasonable indication 121292
that the individual's needs have changed.121293

       (3)(C) A written plan of care or individual service plan 121294
based on an individual assessment of the medicaid services that an 121295
individual needs to avoid needing admission to a hospital, nursing 121296
facility, or intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded121297
ICF/IID shall be created for each individual determined eligible 121298
for a component.121299

       (4)(D) Each individual determined eligible for a component 121300
shall receive that component's medicaid services in accordance 121301
with the individual's level of care determination and written plan 121302
of care or individual service plan.121303

       (5)(E) No individual may receive medicaid services under a 121304
component while the individual is a hospital inpatient or resident 121305
of a skilled nursing facility, nursing facility, or intermediate 121306
care facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID.121307

       (6)(F) No individual may receive prevocational, educational, 121308
or supported employment services under a component if the 121309
individual is eligible for such services that are funded with 121310
federal funds provided under 29 U.S.C. 730 or the "Individuals 121311
with Disabilities Education Act," 111 Stat. 37 (1997), 20 U.S.C. 121312
1400, as amended.121313

       (7)(G) Safeguards shall be taken to protect the health and 121314
welfare of individuals receiving medicaid services under a 121315
component, including safeguards established in rules adopted under 121316
section 5111.855166.02 of the Revised Code and safeguards 121317
established by licensing and certification requirements that are 121318
applicable to the providers of that component's medicaid services.121319

        (8)(H) No medicaid services may be provided under a component 121320
by a provider that is subject to standards that the "Social 121321
Security Act," section 1616(e)(1), 42 U.S.C. 1382e(e)(1), requires 121322
be established if the provider fails to comply with the standards 121323
applicable to the provider.121324

       (9)(I) Individuals determined to be eligible for a component, 121325
or such individuals' representatives, shall be informed of that 121326
component's medicaid services, including any choices that the 121327
individual or representative may make regarding the component's 121328
medicaid services, and given the choice of either receiving 121329
medicaid services under that component or, as appropriate, 121330
hospital services, nursing facility services, or intermediate care 121331
facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID services.121332

       (10)(J) No individual shall lose eligibility for services 121333
under a component, or have the services reduced or otherwise 121334
disrupted, on the basis that the individual also receives services 121335
under the medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities program.121336

       (11)(K) No individual shall lose eligibility for services 121337
under a component, or have the services reduced or otherwise 121338
disrupted, on the basis that the individual's income or resources 121339
increase to an amount above the eligibility limit for the 121340
component if the individual is participating in the medicaid 121341
buy-in for workers with disabilities program and the amount of the 121342
individual's income or resources does not exceed the eligibility 121343
limit for the medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities 121344
program.121345

       (12)(L) No individual receiving services under a component 121346
shall be required to pay any cost sharing expenses for the 121347
services for any period during which the individual also 121348
participates in the medicaid buy-in for workers with disabilities 121349
program.121350

       Sec. 5111.852.        Sec. 5166.05.  The department of job and family 121351
servicesmedicaid may review and approve, modify, or deny written 121352
plans of care and individual service plans that section 5111.851121353
5166.04 of the Revised Code requires be created for individuals 121354
determined eligible for a home and community-based services 121355
medicaid waiver component. If a state agency or political 121356
subdivision contracts with the department under section 5111.91121357
5162.35 of the Revised Code to administer a home and 121358
community-based services medicaid waiver component and approves, 121359
modifies, or denies a written plan of care or individual service 121360
plan pursuant to the agency's or subdivision's administration of 121361
the component, the department may review the agency's or 121362
subdivision's approval, modification, or denial and order the 121363
agency or subdivision to reverse or modify the approval, 121364
modification, or denial. The state agency or political subdivision 121365
shall comply with the department's order.121366

       The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall be 121367
granted full and immediate access to any records the department 121368
needs to implement its duties under this section.121369

       Sec. 5111.853.        Sec. 5166.06.  Each administrative agency shall 121370
maintain, for a period of time the department of job and family 121371
servicesmedicaid shall specify, financial records documenting 121372
the costs of medicaid services provided under the home and 121373
community-based services medicaid waiver components that the 121374
agency administers, including records of independent audits. The 121375
administrative agency shall make the financial records available 121376
on request to the United States secretary of health and human 121377
services, United States comptroller general, and their designees.121378

       Sec. 5111.854.        Sec. 5166.07.  Each administrative agency is 121379
financially accountable for funds expended for medicaid services 121380
provided undercovered by the home and community-based services 121381
medicaid waiver components that the agency administers.121382

       Sec. 5111.855.        Sec. 5166.08.  Each state agency and political 121383
subdivision that enters into a contract with the department of job 121384
and family servicesmedicaid under section 5111.915162.35 of the 121385
Revised Code to administer a home and community-based services 121386
medicaid waiver component, or one or more aspects of such a 121387
component, shall provide the department a written assurance that 121388
the agency or subdivision will not violate any of the requirements 121389
of sections 5111.855166.01 to 5111.8545166.07 of the Revised 121390
Code.121391

       Sec. 5111.856.        Sec. 5166.10.  To the extent necessary for the 121392
efficient and economical administration of medicaid waiver 121393
components, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid may 121394
transfer an individual enrolled in a medicaid waiver component 121395
administered by the department to another medicaid waiver 121396
component the department administers if the individual is eligible 121397
for the medicaid waiver component and the transfer does not 121398
jeopardize the individual's health or safety.121399

       Sec. 5111.86.        Sec. 5166.11. (A) As used in this section:121400

       (1) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 121401
the Revised Code.121402

       (2) "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 121403
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.121404

       (3) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 121405
5111.20 of the Revised Code.121406

       (4), "Ohio home care program" means the program the 121407
department of job and family servicesmedicaid administers that 121408
provides state plan services and medicaid waiver component 121409
services pursuant to rules adopted under sections 5111.01 and 121410
5111.02 of the Revised Codefor the medicaid program and a 121411
medicaid waiver that went into effect July 1, 1998.121412

       (B) The directordepartment of job and family services121413
medicaid may submit requests to the United States secretary of 121414
health and human services pursuant to section 1915 of the "Social 121415
Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396n, as amended, 121416
to obtain waivers of federal medicaid requirements that would 121417
otherwise be violated in the creation and implementation ofcreate 121418
and administer two or more medicaid waiver components under which 121419
home and community-based services are provided to eligible 121420
individuals who need the level of care provided by a nursing 121421
facility or hospital. In administering the requestsmedicaid 121422
waiver components, the directordepartment may specify the 121423
following:121424

        (1) The maximum number of individuals who may be enrolled in 121425
each of the medicaid waiver components included in the requests;121426

        (2) The maximum amount the medicaid program may expend each 121427
year for each individual enrolled in the medicaid waiver 121428
components;121429

        (3) The maximum amount the medicaid program may expend each 121430
year for all individuals enrolled in the medicaid waiver 121431
components;121432

        (4) Any other requirements the directordepartment selects 121433
for the medicaid waiver components.121434

       (C) If the secretary approves the medicaid waivers requested 121435
under this section, the director may create and implement the 121436
medicaid waiver components in accordance with the provisions of 121437
the approved waivers. The department of job and family services 121438
shall administer the medicaid waiver components.121439

       (D) After the first of any of the medicaid waiver components 121440
createdthat the department administers under this section begins 121441
to enroll eligible individuals, the directordepartment may 121442
submit to the United States secretary of health and human services 121443
an amendment to a medicaid waiver component of the Ohio home care 121444
program authorizing the department to cease enrollingto enroll121445
additional individuals in thata medicaid waiver component of the 121446
Ohio home care program. If the secretary approves the amendment, 121447
the director may cease to enroll additional individuals in that 121448
medicaid waiver component of the Ohio home care program.121449

       Sec. 5111.861.        Sec. 5166.12.  (A) As used in this section:121450

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 121451
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.121452

       "Unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 121453
component" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 121454
section 5111.864 of the Revised Code.121455

       (B) Subject to division (C) of this section, there is hereby 121456
created the Ohio home care program. The program shall provide home 121457
and community-based services. The department of job and family 121458
services medicaid shall administer the program.121459

       (C) If the unified long-term services and support medicaid 121460
waiver component is created, the departments of aging and job and 121461
family servicesmedicaid shall work togethercollaborate to 121462
determine whether the Ohio home care waiver program should 121463
continue to operate as a separate medicaid waiver component or be 121464
terminated. If the departments determine that the Ohio home care 121465
waiver program should be terminated, the program shall cease to 121466
exist on a date the departments shall specify.121467

       Sec. 5111.862.        Sec. 5166.121.  (A) As used in this section:121468

       "Hospital long-term care unit" has the same meaning as in 121469
section 3721.50 of the Revised Code.121470

       "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 121471
of the Revised Code.121472

       "Ohio home care program" means the medicaid waiver component 121473
created under section 5111.861 of the Revised Code.121474

       "Residential treatment facility" means a residential facility 121475
licensed by the department of mental health under section 5119.22 121476
of the Revised Code, or an institution certified by the department 121477
of job and family services under section 5103.03 of the Revised 121478
Code, that serves children and either has more than sixteen beds 121479
or is part of a campus of multiple facilities or institutions 121480
that, combined, have a total of more than sixteen beds.121481

       (B) Subject to division (C) ofUnless the Ohio home care 121482
waiver program is terminated pursuant to section 5111.8615165.12121483
of the Revised Code, the department of job and family services121484
medicaid shall establish a home first component for the Ohio home 121485
care waiver program. An individual is eligible for the Ohio home 121486
care waiver program's home first component if the individual has 121487
been determined to be eligible for the Ohio home care waiver121488
program and at least one of the following applies:121489

       (1) If the individual is under twenty-one years of age, the 121490
individual received inpatient hospital services for at least 121491
fourteen consecutive days, or had at least three inpatient 121492
hospital stays during the twelve months, immediately preceding the 121493
date the individual applies for the Ohio home care waiver program.121494

       (2) If the individual is at least twenty-one but less than 121495
sixty years of age, the individual received inpatient hospital 121496
services for at least fourteen consecutive days immediately 121497
preceding the date the individual applies for the Ohio home care 121498
waiver program.121499

       (3) The individual received private duty nursing services 121500
under the medicaid program for at least twelve consecutive months 121501
immediately preceding the date the individual applies for the Ohio 121502
home care waiver program.121503

       (4) The individual does not reside in a nursing facility or 121504
hospital long-term care unit at the time the individual applies 121505
for the Ohio home care waiver program but is at risk of imminent 121506
admission to a nursing facility or hospital long-term care unit 121507
due to a documented loss of a primary caregiver.121508

       (5) The individual resides in a nursing facility at the time 121509
the individual applies for the Ohio home care waiver program.121510

       (6) At the time the individual applies for the Ohio home care 121511
waiver program, the individual participates in the money follows 121512
the person demonstration project authorized by section 6071 of the 121513
"Deficit Reduction Act of 2005," Pub. L. No. 109-171, as amended, 121514
and either resides in a residential treatment facility or 121515
inpatient hospital setting.121516

       (C)(B) An individual determined to be eligible for the home 121517
first component of the Ohio home care waiver program shall be 121518
enrolled in the Ohio home care program in accordance with rules 121519
adopted under section 5111.855166.02 of the Revised Code.121520

       Sec. 5111.863.        Sec. 5166.13. (A) As used in this section:121521

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 121522
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.121523

       "Unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver 121524
component" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 121525
section 5111.864 of the Revised Code.121526

       (B) Subject to division (C) of this section, there is hereby 121527
created the Ohio transitions II aging carve-out program. The 121528
program shall provide home and community-based services. The 121529
department of job and family services shall administer the 121530
program.121531

       (C) If the unified long-term services and support medicaid 121532
waiver component is created, the departments of aging and job and 121533
family servicesmedicaid shall work togethercollaborate to 121534
determine whether the Ohio transitions II aging carve-out program 121535
should continue to operate as a separate medicaid waiver component 121536
or be terminated. If the departments determine that the Ohio 121537
transitions II aging carve-out program should be terminated, the 121538
program shall cease to exist on a date the departments shall 121539
specify.121540

       Sec. 5111.864.        Sec. 5166.14. (A) As used in this section:121541

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 121542
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.121543

       "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 121544
of the Revised Code.121545

       (B) The directordepartment of job and family services121546
medicaid shall submit a request to the United States secretary of 121547
health and human services pursuant to section 1915n of the "Social 121548
Security Act," 95 Stat. 809 (1981), 42 U.S.C. 1396n, as amended, 121549
to obtain approval to create a unified long-term services and 121550
support medicaid waiver component to provide home and 121551
community-based services to eligible individuals of any age who 121552
require the level of care provided by nursing facilities. The 121553
directordepartment of job and family servicesmedicaid shall work121554
collaborate with the directordepartment of aging in seeking 121555
approval of the unified long-term services and support medicaid 121556
waiver component and, if the approval is obtained, in creating and 121557
implementing the component.121558

       If the request to create the unified long-term services and 121559
support medicaid waiver component is approved, theThe medicaid121560
director of job and family services, workingshall collaborate121561
with the director of aging, shall adoptwhen adopting rules under 121562
section 5111.855166.02 of the Revised Code to implement the 121563
component. The rules may authorize the director of aging to adopt 121564
rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code 121565
governing aspects of the unified long-term services and support 121566
medicaid waiver component.121567

       Sec. 5111.865.        Sec. 5166.141. (A) As used in this section, 121568
"unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver program" 121569
or "program" means the medicaid waiver component authorized by 121570
section 5111.864 of the Revised Code.121571

       (B) If the United States secretary of health and human 121572
services approves the request submitted under section 5111.864 of 121573
the Revised Code to create the unified long-term services and 121574
support medicaid waiver program, theThe department of job and 121575
family servicesmedicaid shall establish a home first component 121576
for the unified long-term services and support medicaid waiver121577
program. The home first component shall be similar to the home 121578
first component of the medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT 121579
program established under section 173.401173.521 of the Revised 121580
Code, the home first component of the Ohio home care program 121581
established under section 5111.862 of the Revised Code, and the 121582
home first component of the medicaid-funded component of the 121583
assisted living program established under section 5111.894173.542121584
of the Revised Code, and the home first component of the Ohio home 121585
care waiver program established under section 5166.121 of the 121586
Revised Code.121587

       Sec. 5166.16.  (A) As used in this section, "ODA or MCD 121588
medicaid waiver component" means all of the following: 121589

       (1) The medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program, 121590
unless it is terminated pursuant to division (C) of section 173.52 121591
of the Revised Code;121592

       (2) The choices program, unless it is terminated pursuant to 121593
division (B) of section 173.53 of the Revised Code;121594

       (3) The medicaid-funded component of the assisted living 121595
program, unless it is terminated pursuant to division (C) of 121596
section 173.54 of the Revised Code;121597

       (4) The Ohio home care waiver program, unless it is 121598
terminated pursuant to section 5166.12 of the Revised Code;121599

       (5) The Ohio transitions II aging carve-out program, unless 121600
it is terminated pursuant to section 5166.13 of the Revised Code.121601

       (B) The medicaid director may create a home and 121602
community-based services medicaid waiver component as part of the 121603
integrated care delivery system. If the ICDS medicaid waiver 121604
component is created, both of the following apply:121605

       (1) The department of medicaid shall administer it;121606

       (2) When it begins to accept enrollments, no ICDS participant 121607
who is eligible for the ICDS medicaid waiver component shall be 121608
enrolled in an ODA or MCD medicaid waiver component regardless of 121609
whether the participant prefers to remain or be enrolled in an ODA 121610
or MCD medicaid waiver component.121611

       (C) A dual eligible individual who is eligible for an ODA or 121612
MCD medicaid waiver component may enroll in the component before 121613
the individual becomes an ICDS participant. The dual eligible 121614
individual shall disenroll from the ODA or MCD medicaid waiver 121615
component and enroll in the ICDS medicaid waiver component once 121616
the individual becomes an ICDS participant and it is possible to 121617
enroll the individual in the ICDS medicaid waiver component. The 121618
disenrollment from the ODA or MCD medicaid waiver component and 121619
enrollment into the ICDS medicaid waiver component shall occur 121620
regardless of whether the individual prefers to remain enrolled in 121621
the ODA or MCD medicaid waiver component.121622

       (D) An ICDS participant's disenrollment from an ODA or MCD 121623
medicaid waiver component and enrollment in the ICDS medicaid 121624
waiver component resulting from division (B)(2) or (C) of this 121625
section shall be accomplished without a disruption in the 121626
participant's services under the components.121627

       Sec. 5111.87.        Sec. 5166.20. (A) As used in this section and section 121628
5111.871 of the Revised Code:121629

       (1) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded" 121630
has the same meaning as in section 5111.20 of the Revised Code.121631

       (2) "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 121632
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.121633

       (B) The directordepartment of job and family services121634
medicaid may apply to the United States secretary of health and 121635
human services for both ofcreate the following:121636

       (1) One or more medicaid waiver components under which home 121637
and community-based services are provided to individuals with 121638
mental retardation or other developmental disability as an 121639
alternative to placement in an intermediate care facility for the 121640
mentally retardedICFs/IID;121641

        (2) One or more medicaid waiver components under which home 121642
and community-based services are provided in the form of any of 121643
the following:121644

        (a) Early intervention and supportive services for children 121645
under three years of age who have developmental delays or 121646
disabilities the directordepartment determines are significant;121647

        (b) Therapeutic services for children who have autism;121648

        (c) Specialized habilitative services for individuals who are 121649
eighteen years of age or older and have autism. 121650

       (C)(B) No medicaid waiver component authorized bycreated 121651
pursuant to division (B)(A)(2)(b) or (c) of this section shall 121652
provide services that are available under another medicaid waiver 121653
component. No medicaid waiver component authorized bycreated 121654
pursuant to division (B)(A)(2)(b) of this section shall provide 121655
services to an individual that the individual is eligible to 121656
receive through an individualized education program as defined in 121657
section 3323.01 of the Revised Code.121658

        (D)(C) The director of developmental disabilities orand121659
director of health may request that the directordepartment of job 121660
and family services apply formedicaid create one or more medicaid 121661
waiverswaiver components under this section.121662

       (E)(D) Before applying forcreating a medicaid waiver 121663
component under this section, the directordepartment of job and 121664
family servicesmedicaid shall seek, accept, and consider public 121665
comments.121666

       Sec. 5111.871.        Sec. 5166.21.  The department of job and family 121667
servicesmedicaid shall enter into a contract with the department 121668
of developmental disabilities under section 5111.915162.35 of the 121669
Revised Code with regard to one or more of the medicaid waiver 121670
components establishedcreated by the department of job and 121671
family servicesmedicaid under section 5111.875166.20 of the 121672
Revised Code. Subject, if needed, to the approval of the United 121673
States secretary of health and human services, theThe contract 121674
shall include the medicaid waiver component known as the 121675
transitions developmental disabilities waiver. The contract shall 121676
provide for the department of developmental disabilities to 121677
administer the components in accordance with the terms of the 121678
federal medicaid waivers authorizing the components. The contract 121679
shall include a schedule for the department of developmental 121680
disabilities to begin administering the transitions developmental 121681
disabilities waiver. The directors of job and family services and 121682
developmental disabilities shall adopt rules in accordance with 121683
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing the components.121684

       If the department of developmental disabilities or the 121685
department of job and family servicesmedicaid denies an 121686
individual's application for home and community-based services 121687
provided under any of these medicaid components, the department 121688
that denied the services shall give timely notice to the 121689
individual that the individual may request a hearing underappeal 121690
pursuant to section 5101.355160.31 of the Revised Code.121691

       The departments of developmental disabilities and job and 121692
family servicesmedicaid may approve, reduce, deny, or terminate a 121693
medicaid service included in the individualized service plan 121694
developed for a medicaid recipient eligible for home and 121695
community-based services provided under any of these medicaid 121696
components. The departments shall consider the recommendations a 121697
county board of developmental disabilities makes under division 121698
(A)(1)(c) of section 5126.055 of the Revised Code. If either 121699
department approves, reduces, denies, or terminates a medicaid121700
service, that department shall give timely notice to the medicaid 121701
recipient that the recipient may request a hearing underappeal 121702
pursuant to section 5101.355160.31 of the Revised Code.121703

       If supported living, as defined in section 5126.01 of the 121704
Revised Code, is to be provided as a medicaid service under any of 121705
these components, any person or government entity with a current, 121706
valid medicaid provider agreement and a current, valid 121707
certificate under section 5123.161 of the Revised Code may provide 121708
the medicaid service.121709

       If a medicaid service is to be provided under any of these 121710
components by a residential facility, as defined in section 121711
5123.19 of the Revised Code, any person or government entity with 121712
a current, valid medicaid provider agreement and a current, valid 121713
license under section 5123.19 of the Revised Code may provide the 121714
medicaid service.121715

       Sec. 5111.872.        Sec. 5166.22.  (A) Subject to division (B) of this 121716
section, when the department of developmental disabilities 121717
allocates enrollment numbers to a county board of developmental 121718
disabilities for home and community-based services specified in 121719
division (B)(A)(1) of section 5111.875166.20 of the Revised Code 121720
and provided under any of the medicaid waiver components that the 121721
department administers under section 5111.8715166.21 of the 121722
Revised Code, the department shall consider all of the following:121723

       (1) The number of individuals with mental retardation or 121724
other developmental disability who are on a waiting list the 121725
county board establishes under section 5126.042 of the Revised 121726
Code for those services and are given priority on the waiting 121727
list;121728

       (2) The implementation component required by division (A)(3) 121729
of section 5126.054 of the Revised Code of the county board's plan 121730
approved under section 5123.046 of the Revised Code;121731

       (3) Anything else the department considers necessary to 121732
enable county boards to provide those services to individuals in 121733
accordance with the priority requirements for waiting lists 121734
established under section 5126.042 of the Revised Code for those 121735
services.121736

       (B) Division (A) of this section applies to home and 121737
community-based services provided under the medicaid waiver 121738
component known as the transitions developmental disabilities 121739
waiver only to the extent, if any, provided by the contract 121740
required by section 5111.8715166.21 of the Revised Code regarding 121741
the waivercomponent.121742

       Sec. 5111.873.        Sec. 5166.23.  (A) Subject to division (D) of this 121743
section, the medicaid director of job and family services shall 121744
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119.under section 5166.02121745
of the Revised Code establishing the amount of reimbursement121746
payment amounts or the methods by which the payment amounts of 121747
reimbursement are to be determined for home and community-based 121748
services specified in division (B)(A)(1) of section 5111.87121749
5166.20 of the Revised Code and provided under the components of 121750
the medicaid program that the department of developmental 121751
disabilities administers under section 5111.8715166.21 of the 121752
Revised Code. With respect to these rules, all of the following 121753
apply:121754

       (1) The rules shall establish procedures for the department 121755
of developmental disabilities to follow in arranging for the 121756
initial and ongoing collection of cost information from a 121757
comprehensive, statistically valid sample of persons and 121758
government entities providing the services at the time the 121759
information is obtained.121760

       (2) The rules shall establish procedures for the collection 121761
of consumer-specific information through an assessment instrument 121762
the department of developmental disabilities shall provide to the 121763
department of job and family servicesmedicaid.121764

       (3) With the information collected pursuant to divisions 121765
(A)(1) and (2) of this section, an analysis of that information, 121766
and other information the director determines relevant, the rules 121767
shall establish reimbursementpayment standards that do all of the 121768
following:121769

       (a) Assure that reimbursement ispayment amounts are121770
consistent with efficiency, economy, and quality of care;121771

       (b) Consider the intensity of consumer resource need;121772

       (c) Recognize variations in different geographic areas 121773
regarding the resources necessary to assure the health and welfare 121774
of consumers;121775

       (d) Recognize variations in environmental supports available 121776
to consumers.121777

       (B) As part of the process of adopting rules underauthorized 121778
by this section, the director shall consult with the director of 121779
developmental disabilities, representatives of county boards of 121780
developmental disabilities, persons who provide the home and 121781
community-based services, and other persons and government 121782
entities the director identifies.121783

       (C) The directors of job and family servicesmedicaid 121784
director and director of developmental disabilities shall review 121785
the rules adopted underauthorized by this section at times they 121786
determine are necessary to ensure that the amount of reimbursement121787
payment amounts or the methods by which the payment amounts of 121788
reimbursement are to be determined continue to meet the 121789
reimbursementpayment standards established under division (A)(3) 121790
of this section.121791

       (D) This section applies to home and community-based services 121792
provided under the medicaid waiver component known as the 121793
transitions developmental disabilities waiver only to the extent, 121794
if any, provided by the contract required by section 5111.871121795
5166.21 of the Revised Code regarding the waivercomponent.121796

       Sec. 5111.88.        Sec. 5166.30.  (A) As used in sections 5111.88121797
5166.30 to 5111.88115166.3010 of the Revised Code:121798

       (1) "Adult" means an individual at least eighteen years of 121799
age.121800

       (2) "Appropriate director" means the following:121801

       (a) The medicaid director in the context of all of the 121802
following:121803

       (i) The Ohio home care waiver program, unless it is 121804
terminated pursuant to section 5166.12 of the Revised Code; 121805

       (ii) The Ohio transitions II aging carve-out program, unless 121806
it is terminated pursuant to section 5166.13 of the Revised Code;121807

       (iii) The integrated care delivery system medicaid waiver 121808
component authorized by section 5166.16 of the Revised Code.121809

       (b) The director of aging in the context of the 121810
medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program, unless it is 121811
terminated pursuant to division (C) of section 173.52 of the 121812
Revised Code.121813

       (3) "Authorized representative" means the following:121814

       (a) In the case of a consumer who is a minor, the consumer's 121815
parent, custodian, or guardian;121816

       (b) In the case of a consumer who is an adult, an individual 121817
selected by the consumer pursuant to section 5111.88105166.3010121818
of the Revised Code to act on the consumer's behalf for purposes 121819
regarding home care attendant services.121820

       (3)(4) "Authorizing health care professional" means a health 121821
care professional who, pursuant to section 5111.8875166.307 of 121822
the Revised Code, authorizes a home care attendant to assist a 121823
consumer with self-administration of medication, nursing tasks, or 121824
both.121825

       (4)(5) "Consumer" means an individual to whom all of the 121826
following apply:121827

       (a) The individual is enrolled in a participating medicaid 121828
waiver component.121829

       (b) The individual has a medically determinable physical 121830
impairment to which both of the following apply:121831

       (i) It is expected to last for a continuous period of not 121832
less than twelve months.121833

       (ii) It causes the individual to require assistance with 121834
activities of daily living, self-care, and mobility, including 121835
either assistance with self-administration of medication or the 121836
performance of nursing tasks, or both.121837

       (c) In the case of an individual who is an adult, the 121838
individual is mentally alert and is, or has an authorized 121839
representative who is, capable of selecting, directing the actions 121840
of, and dismissing a home care attendant.121841

       (d) In the case of an individual who is a minor, the 121842
individual has an authorized representative who is capable of 121843
selecting, directing the actions of, and dismissing a home care 121844
attendant.121845

       (5)(6) "Controlled substance" has the same meaning as in 121846
section 3719.01 of the Revised Code.121847

       (6)(7) "Custodian" has the same meaning as in section 121848
2151.011 of the Revised Code.121849

       (7)(8) "Gastrostomy tube" means a percutaneously inserted 121850
catheter that terminates in the stomach.121851

       (8)(9) "Guardian" has the same meaning as in section 2111.01 121852
of the Revised Code.121853

       (9)(10) "Health care professional" means a physician or 121854
registered nurse.121855

       (10)(11) "Home care attendant" means an individual holding a 121856
valid medicaid provider agreement in accordance with section 121857
5111.8815166.301 of the Revised Code that authorizes the 121858
individual to provide home care attendant services to consumers.121859

       (11)(12) "Home care attendant services" means all of the 121860
following as provided by a home care attendant:121861

       (a) Personal care aide services;121862

       (b) Assistance with the self-administration of medication;121863

       (c) Assistance with nursing tasks.121864

       (12)(13) "Jejunostomy tube" means a percutaneously inserted 121865
catheter that terminates in the jejunum.121866

       (13) "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 121867
section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.121868

       (14) "Medication" means a drug as defined in section 4729.01 121869
of the Revised Code.121870

       (15) "Minor" means an individual under eighteen years of age.121871

       (16) "Participating medicaid waiver component" means both121872
all of the following:121873

       (a) The medicaid-funded component of the PASSPORT program, 121874
unless it is terminated pursuant to division (C) of section 173.52 121875
of the Revised Code;121876

       (b) The Ohio home care waiver program created under, unless 121877
it is terminated pursuant to section 5111.8615166.12 of the 121878
Revised Code;121879

       (b)(c) The Ohio transitions II aging carve-out program 121880
created under, unless it is terminated pursuant to section 121881
5111.8635166.13 of the Revised Code;121882

       (d) The integrated care delivery system medicaid waiver 121883
component authorized by section 5166.16 of the Revised Code.121884

       (17) "Physician" means an individual authorized under Chapter 121885
4731. of the Revised Code to practice medicine and surgery or 121886
osteopathic medicine and surgery.121887

       (18) "Practice of nursing as a registered nurse," "practice 121888
of nursing as a licensed practical nurse," and "registered nurse" 121889
have the same meanings as in section 4723.01 of the Revised Code. 121890
"Registered nurse" includes an advanced practice registered nurse, 121891
as defined in section 4723.01 of the Revised Code.121892

       (19) "Schedule II," "schedule III," "schedule IV," and 121893
"schedule V" have the same meanings as in section 3719.01 of the 121894
Revised Code.121895

       (B) The director of job and family services may submit 121896
requests to the United States secretary of health and human 121897
services to amend the federal medicaid waivers authorizing the 121898
participatingParticipating medicaid waiver components to have 121899
those componentsmay cover home care attendant services in 121900
accordance with sections 5111.885166.30 to 5111.88105166.3010 of 121901
the Revised Code and rules adopted under section 5111.88115166.02121902
of the Revised Code. Notwithstanding sections 5111.881 to 121903
5111.8811 of the Revised Code, those sections shall be implemented 121904
regarding a participating medicaid waiver component only if the 121905
secretary approves a waiver amendment for the component.121906

       Sec. 5111.881.        Sec. 5166.301.  The medicaid director of job and 121907
family services shall enter into a medicaid provider agreement 121908
with an individual to authorize the individual to provide home 121909
care attendant services to consumers if the individual does both 121910
of the following:121911

       (A) Agrees to comply with the requirements of sections 121912
5111.885166.30 to 5111.88105166.3010 and rules adopted under 121913
section 5111.88115166.02 of the Revised Code;121914

       (B) Provides the director evidence satisfactory to the 121915
director of all of the following:121916

       (1) That the individual either meets the personnel 121917
qualifications specified in 42 C.F.R. 484.4 for home health aides 121918
or has successfully completed at least one of the following:121919

       (a) A competency evaluation program or training and 121920
competency evaluation program approved or conducted by the 121921
director of health under section 3721.31 of the Revised Code;121922

       (b) A training program approved by the department of job and 121923
family servicesappropriate director that includes training in at 121924
least all of the following and provides training equivalent to a 121925
training and competency evaluation program specified in division 121926
(B)(1)(a) of this section or meets the requirements of 42 C.F.R. 121927
484.36(a):121928

       (i) Basic home safety;121929

       (ii) Universal precautions for the prevention of disease 121930
transmission, including hand-washing and proper disposal of bodily 121931
waste and medical instruments that are sharp or may produce sharp 121932
pieces if broken;121933

       (iii) Personal care aide services;121934

       (iv) The labeling, counting, and storage requirements for 121935
schedule II, III, IV, and V medications.121936

       (2) That the individual has obtained a certificate of 121937
completion of a course in first aid from a first aid course to 121938
which all of the following apply:121939

       (a) It is not provided solely through the internet.121940

       (b) It includes hands-on training provided by a first aid 121941
instructor who is qualified to provide such training according to 121942
standards set in rules adopted under section 5111.88115166.02 of 121943
the Revised Code.121944

       (c) It requires the individual to demonstrate successfully 121945
that the individual has learned the first aid taught in the 121946
course.121947

       (3) That the individual meets any other requirements for the 121948
medicaid provider agreement specified in rules adopted under 121949
section 5111.88115166.02 of the Revised Code.121950

       Sec. 5111.882.        Sec. 5166.302.  A home care attendant shall complete 121951
not less than twelve hours of in-service continuing education 121952
regarding home care attendant services each year and provide the 121953
appropriate director of job and family services evidence 121954
satisfactory to the appropriate director that the attendant 121955
satisfied this requirement. The evidence shall be submitted to the 121956
appropriate director not later than the annual anniversary of the 121957
issuance of the home care attendant's initial medicaid provider 121958
agreement.121959

       Sec. 5111.883.        Sec. 5166.303.  A home care attendant shall do all 121960
of the following:121961

       (A) Maintain a clinical record for each consumer to whom the 121962
attendant provides home care attendant services in a manner that 121963
protects the consumer's privacy;121964

       (B) Participate in a face-to-face visit every ninety days 121965
with all of the following to monitor the health and welfare of 121966
each of the consumers to whom the attendant provides home care 121967
attendant services:121968

       (1) The consumer;121969

       (2) The consumer's authorized representative, if any;121970

       (3) A registered nurse who agrees to answer any questions 121971
that the attendant, consumer, or authorized representative has 121972
about consumer care needs, medications, and other issues.121973

       (C) Document the activities of each visit required by 121974
division (B) of this section in the consumer's clinical record 121975
with the assistance of the registered nurse.121976

       Sec. 5111.884.        Sec. 5166.304.  (A) A home care attendant may assist 121977
a consumer with nursing tasks or self-administration of medication 121978
only after the attendant does both of the following:121979

       (1) Subject to division (B) of this section, completes 121980
consumer-specific training in how to provide the assistance that 121981
the authorizing health care professional authorizes the attendant 121982
to provide to the consumer;121983

       (2) At the request of the consumer, consumer's authorized 121984
representative, or authorizing health care professional, 121985
successfully demonstrates that the attendant has learned how to 121986
provide the authorized assistance to the consumer.121987

       (B) The training required by division (A)(1) of this section 121988
shall be provided by either of the following:121989

       (1) The authorizing health care professional;121990

       (2) The consumer or consumer's authorized representative in 121991
cooperation with the authorizing health care professional.121992

       Sec. 5111.885.        Sec. 5166.305.  A home care attendant shall comply 121993
with both of the following when assisting a consumer with nursing 121994
tasks or self-administration of medication:121995

       (A) The written consent of the consumer or consumer's 121996
authorized representative provided to the appropriate director of 121997
job and family services under section 5111.8865166.306 of the 121998
Revised Code;121999

       (B) The authorizing health care professional's written 122000
authorization provided to the appropriate director under section 122001
5111.8875166.307 of the Revised Code.122002

       Sec. 5111.886.        Sec. 5166.306.  To consent to a home care attendant 122003
assisting a consumer with nursing tasks or self-administration of 122004
medication, the consumer or consumer's authorized representative 122005
shall provide the appropriate director of job and family services122006
a written statement signed by the consumer or authorized 122007
representative under which the consumer or authorized 122008
representative consents to both of the following:122009

       (A) Having the attendant assist the consumer with nursing 122010
tasks or self-administration of medication;122011

       (B) Assuming responsibility for directing the attendant when 122012
the attendant assists the consumer with nursing tasks or 122013
self-administration of medication.122014

       Sec. 5111.887.        Sec. 5166.307.  To authorize a home care attendant 122015
to assist a consumer with nursing tasks or self-administration of 122016
medication, a health care professional shall provide the 122017
appropriate director of job and family services a written 122018
statement signed by the health care professional that includes all 122019
of the following:122020

       (A) The consumer's name and address;122021

       (B) A description of the nursing tasks or self-administration 122022
of medication with which the attendant is to assist the consumer, 122023
including, in the case of assistance with self-administration of 122024
medication, the name and dosage of the medication;122025

       (C) The times or intervals when the attendant is to assist 122026
the consumer with the self-administration of each dosage of the 122027
medication or nursing tasks;122028

       (D) The dates the attendant is to begin and cease providing 122029
the assistance;122030

       (E) A list of severe adverse reactions the attendant must 122031
report to the health care professional should the consumer 122032
experience one or more of the reactions;122033

       (F) At least one telephone number at which the attendant can 122034
reach the health care professional in an emergency;122035

       (G) Instructions the attendant is to follow when assisting 122036
the consumer with nursing tasks or self-administration of 122037
medication, including instructions for maintaining sterile 122038
conditions and for storage of task-related equipment and supplies;122039

       (H) The health care professional's attestation of both of the 122040
following:122041

       (1) That the consumer or consumer's authorized representative 122042
has demonstrated to the health care professional the ability to 122043
direct the attendant;122044

       (2) That the attendant has demonstrated to the health care 122045
professional the ability to provide the consumer assistance with 122046
nursing tasks or self-administration of medication that the health 122047
care professional has specifically authorized the attendant to 122048
provide and that the consumer or consumer's authorized 122049
representative has indicated to the health care professional that 122050
the consumer or authorized representative is satisfied with the 122051
attendant's demonstration.122052

       Sec. 5111.888.        Sec. 5166.308.  When authorizing a home care 122053
attendant to assist a consumer with nursing tasks or 122054
self-administration of medication, a health care professional may 122055
not authorize a home care attendant to do any of the following:122056

       (A) Perform a task that is outside of the health care 122057
professional's scope of practice;122058

       (B) Assist the consumer with the self-administration of a 122059
medication, including a schedule II, schedule III, schedule IV, or 122060
schedule V drug unless both of the following apply:122061

        (1) The medication is administered orally, topically, or via 122062
a gastrostomy tube or jejunostomy tube, including through any of 122063
the following:122064

        (a) In the case of an oral medication, a metered dose 122065
inhaler;122066

        (b) In the case of a topical medication, including a 122067
transdermal medication, either of the following:122068

        (i) An eye, ear, or nose drop or spray;122069

        (ii) A vaginal or rectal suppository.122070

        (c) In the case of a gastrostomy tube or jejunostomy tube, 122071
only through a pre-programmed pump.122072

        (2) The medication is in its original container and the label 122073
attached to the container displays all of the following:122074

       (a) The consumer's full name in print;122075

       (b) The medication's dispensing date, which must not be more 122076
than twelve months before the date the attendant assists the 122077
consumer with self-administration of the medication;122078

       (c) The exact dosage and means of administration that match 122079
the health care professional's authorization to the attendant.122080

       (C) Assist the consumer with the self-administration of a 122081
schedule II, schedule III, schedule IV, or schedule V medication 122082
unless, in addition to meeting the requirements of division (B) of 122083
this section, all of the following apply:122084

       (1) The medication has a warning label on its container.122085

       (2) The attendant counts the medication in the consumer's or 122086
authorized representative's presence when the medication is 122087
administered to the consumer and records the count on a form used 122088
for the count as specified in rules adopted under section 122089
5111.88115166.02 of the Revised Code.122090

       (3) The attendant recounts the medication in the consumer's 122091
or authorized representative's presence at least monthly and 122092
reconciles the recount on a log located in the consumer's clinical 122093
record.122094

       (4) The medication is stored separately from all other 122095
medications and is secured and locked at all times when not being 122096
administered to the consumer to prevent unauthorized access.122097

       (D) Perform an intramuscular injection;122098

       (E) Perform a subcutaneous injection unless it is for a 122099
routine dose of insulin;122100

       (F) Program a pump used to deliver a medication unless the 122101
pump is used to deliver a routine dose of insulin;122102

       (G) Insert, remove, or discontinue an intravenous access 122103
device;122104

       (H) Engage in intravenous medication administration;122105

       (I) Insert or initiate an infusion therapy;122106

       (J) Perform a central line dressing change.122107

       Sec. 5111.889.        Sec. 5166.309.  A home care attendant who provides 122108
home care attendant services to a consumer in accordance with the 122109
authorizing health care professional's authorization does not 122110
engage in the practice of nursing as a registered nurse or in the 122111
practice of nursing as a licensed practical nurse in violation of 122112
section 4723.03 of the Revised Code.122113

       A consumer or the consumer's authorized representative shall 122114
report to the appropriate director of job and family services if a 122115
home care attendant engages in the practice of nursing as a 122116
registered nurse or the practice of nursing as a licensed 122117
practical nurse beyond the authorizing health care professional's 122118
authorization. The appropriate director shall forward a copy of 122119
each report to the board of nursing.122120

       Sec. 5111.8810.        Sec. 5166.3010.  A consumer who is an adult may 122121
select an individual to act on the consumer's behalf for purposes 122122
regarding home care attendant services by submitting a written 122123
notice of the consumer's selection of an authorized representative 122124
to the appropriate director of job and family services. The 122125
notice shall specifically identify the individual the consumer 122126
selects as authorized representative and may limit what the 122127
authorized representative may do on the consumer's behalf 122128
regarding home care attendant services. A consumer may not select 122129
the consumer's home care attendant to be the consumer's authorized 122130
representative.122131

       Sec. 5111.97.        Sec. 5166.35.  (A) As used in this section:122132

       (1) "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver 122133
component" has the same meaning as in section 5111.85 of the 122134
Revised Code.122135

       (2) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 122136
5111.20 of the Revised Code.122137

       (B) To the extent funds are available, theThe medicaid122138
director of job and family services may establish the Ohio access 122139
success project to help medicaid recipients make the transition 122140
from residing in a nursing facilityfacilities to residing in a122141
community settingsettings. The project may be established as a 122142
separate nonmedicaid program or integrated into a new or existing 122143
home and community-based services medicaid waiver component. The 122144
director shall permit any medicaid recipient of medicaid-funded122145
receiving nursing facility services to apply for participation in 122146
the project, but may limit the number of project participants. 122147

       The director shall ensure that an assessment of an applicant 122148
is conducted as soon as practicable to determine whether the 122149
applicant is eligible for participation in the project. To the 122150
maximum extent possible, the assessment and eligibility 122151
determination shall be completed not later than the date that 122152
occurs six months after the applicant became a recipient of 122153
medicaid-fundedbegins to receive nursing facility services.122154

       (C)(B) To be eligible for benefits under the project, a 122155
medicaid recipient must satisfy all of the following requirements:122156

       (1) The medicaid recipient must be a recipient of 122157
medicaid-fundedreceiving nursing facility services, at the time 122158
of applying for the project benefits.122159

       (2) If the project is established as a nonmedicaid program, 122160
the medicaid recipient must be able to remain in the community as 122161
a result of receiving project benefits and the projected cost of 122162
the benefits to the project does not exceed eighty per cent of the 122163
average monthly medicaid cost of a medicaid recipient in a nursing 122164
facility.122165

       (3) If the project is integrated into a home and 122166
community-based services medicaid waiver component, the medicaid 122167
recipient must meet the waiver component's enrollment criteria.122168

        (D)(C) If the director establishes the Ohio access success 122169
project, the benefits provided under the project may include 122170
payment of all of the following:122171

       (1) The first month's rent in a community setting;122172

       (2) Rental deposits;122173

       (3) Utility deposits;122174

       (4) Moving expenses;122175

       (5) Other expenses not covered by the medicaid program that 122176
facilitate a medicaid recipient's move from a nursing facility to 122177
a community setting.122178

       (E)(D) If the project is established as a nonmedicaid 122179
program, no participant may receive more than two thousand 122180
dollars' worth of benefits under the project.122181

       (F)(E) If the department of job and family servicesmedicaid122182
enters into a contract with an entity to provide fiscal management 122183
services regarding the project, the contract may provide for a 122184
portion of a participant's benefits under the project to be paid 122185
to the contracting entity. The contract shall specify the portion 122186
to be paid to the contracting entity.122187

       (G) The director may submit a request to the United States 122188
secretary of health and human services pursuant to section 1915 of 122189
the "Social Security Act," 95 Stat. 809 (1981), 42 U.S.C. 1396n, 122190
as amended, to create a home and community-based services medicaid 122191
waiver component to serve individuals who meet the criteria for 122192
participation in the Ohio access success project.122193

       (H)(F) The director may adopt rules in accordance with 122194
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code for the administration and 122195
operation of the project. If the project is integrated into a home 122196
and community-based services medicaid waiver component, the rules 122197
shall be adopted under section 5111.855166.02 of the Revised 122198
Code.122199

       Sec. 5167.01.  As used in this chapter:122200

       (A) "Controlled substance" has the same meaning as in section 122201
3719.01 of the Revised Code.122202

       (B) "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in 122203
section 5160.01 of the Revised Code.122204

       (C) "Emergency services" has the same meaning as in the 122205
"Social Security Act," section 1932(b)(2), 42 U.S.C. 122206
1396u-2(b)(2).122207

       (D) "Home and community-based services medicaid waiver 122208
component" has the same meaning as in section 5166.01 of the 122209
Revised Code.122210

       (E) "Medicaid managed care organization" means a managed care 122211
organization under contract with the department of medicaid 122212
pursuant to section 5167.10 of the Revised Code.122213

       (F) "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 122214
section 5166.01 of the Revised Code.122215

       (G) "Nursing facility" has the same meaning as in section 122216
5165.01 of the Revised Code.122217

       (H) "Prescribed drug" has the same meaning as in section 122218
5164.01 of the Revised Code.122219

        (I) "Provider" means any person or government entity that 122220
furnishes services to a medicaid recipient enrolled in a medicaid 122221
managed care organization, regardless of whether the person or 122222
entity has a provider agreement.122223

       (J) "Provider agreement" has the same meaning as in section 122224
5164.01 of the Revised Code.122225

       Sec. 5167.02.  The medicaid director shall adopt rules as 122226
necessary to implement this chapter. The rules shall be adopted in 122227
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.122228

       Sec. 5111.16.        Sec. 5167.03. (A) As part of the medicaid program, 122229
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall establish 122230
a care management system. The department shall submit, if 122231
necessary, applications to the United States department of health 122232
and human services for waivers of federal medicaid requirements 122233
that would otherwise be violated in the implementation of the 122234
system.122235

       (B) The department shall implement the care management system 122236
in some or all counties and shall designate the medicaid 122237
recipients who are required or permitted to participate in the 122238
system. In the department's implementation of the system and 122239
designation of participants, all of the following apply:122240

       (1) In the case of individuals who receive medicaid on the 122241
basis of being included in the category identified by the 122242
department as covered families and children, the department shall 122243
implement the care management system in all counties. All 122244
individuals included in the category shall be designated for 122245
participation, except for individuals included in one or more of 122246
the medicaid recipient groups specified in 42 C.F.R. 438.50(d). 122247
The department shall ensure that all participants are enrolled in 122248
medicaid managed care organizations that are health insuring 122249
corporations under contract with the department pursuant to 122250
section 5111.17 of the Revised Code.122251

       (2) In the case of individuals who receive medicaid on the 122252
basis of being aged, blind, or disabled, as specified in division 122253
(C)(2) of section 5111.01 of the Revised Code, the department 122254
shall implement the care management system in all counties. Except 122255
as provided in division (C) of this section, all individuals 122256
included in the category shall be designated for participation. 122257
The department shall ensure that all participants are enrolled in 122258
medicaid managed care organizations that are health insuring 122259
corporations under contract with the department pursuant to 122260
section 5111.17 of the Revised Code.122261

        (3) Alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 122262
covered by medicaid shall not be included in any component of the 122263
care management system when the nonfederal share of the cost of 122264
those services is provided by a board of alcohol, drug addiction, 122265
and mental health services or a state agency other than the 122266
department of job and family servicesmedicaid, but the recipients 122267
of those services may otherwise be designated for participation in 122268
the system.122269

        (C)(1) In designating participants who receive medicaid on 122270
the basis of being aged, blind, or disabled, the department shall 122271
not include any of the following, except as provided under 122272
division (C)(2) of this section:122273

        (a) Individuals who are under twenty-one years of age;122274

        (b) Individuals who are institutionalized;122275

        (c) Individuals who become eligible for medicaid by spending 122276
down their income or resources to a level that meets the medicaid 122277
program's financial eligibility requirements;122278

        (d) Individuals who are duallyDual eligible under the 122279
medicaid program and the medicare program established under Title 122280
XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 122281
1395, as amendedindividuals;122282

        (e) Individuals to the extent that they are receiving 122283
medicaid services through a medicaid waiver component, as defined 122284
in section 5111.85 of the Revised Code.122285

       (2) If any necessary waiver of federal medicaid requirements 122286
is granted, theThe department may designate any of the following 122287
individuals who receive medicaid on the basis of being aged, 122288
blind, or disabled as individuals who are permitted or required to 122289
participate in the care management system:122290

       (a) Individuals who are under twenty-one years of age;122291

        (b) Individuals who reside in a nursing facility, as defined 122292
in section 5111.20 of the Revised Code;122293

       (c) Individuals who, as an alternative to receiving nursing 122294
facility services, are participating in a home and community-based 122295
services medicaid waiver component, as defined in section 5111.85 122296
of the Revised Code;122297

       (d) Individuals who are duallyDual eligible under the 122298
medicaid program and the medicare programindividuals.122299

       (D) Subject to division (B) of this section, the department 122300
may do both of the following under the care management system:122301

       (1) Require or permit participants in the system to obtain 122302
health care services from providers designated by the department;122303

       (2) Require or permit participants in the system to obtain 122304
health care services through medicaid managed care organizations 122305
under contract with the department pursuant to section 5111.17 of 122306
the Revised Code.122307

       (E)(1) The department shall prepare an annual report on the 122308
care management system. The report shall address the department's 122309
ability to implement the system, including all of the following 122310
components:122311

       (a) The required designation of participants included in the 122312
category identified by the department as covered families and 122313
children;122314

       (b) The required designation of participants included in the 122315
aged, blind, or disabled category of medicaid recipients;122316

       (c) The use of any programs for enhanced care management.122317

       (2) The department shall submit each annual report to the 122318
general assembly. The first report shall be submitted not later 122319
than October 1, 2007.122320

       (F) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 122321
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement 122322
this section.122323

       Sec. 5111.161.        Sec. 5167.031.  (A) As used in this section:122324

       (1) "Children's care network" means any of the following:122325

       (a) A children's hospital;122326

       (b) A group of children's hospitals;122327

       (c) A group of pediatric physicians.122328

       (2) "Children's hospital" has the same meaning as in section 122329
2151.86 of the Revised Code.122330

       (B) If the department of job and family servicesmedicaid122331
includes in the care management system, pursuant to section 122332
5111.165167.03 of the Revised Code, individuals under twenty-one 122333
years of age who are included in the category of individuals who 122334
receive medicaid on the basis of being aged, blind, or disabled, 122335
as specified in division (C)(2) of section 5111.01 of the Revised 122336
Code, the department shall develop a system tomay recognize 122337
entities as pediatric accountable care organizations. The purpose 122338
of the recognition system shall be to meet the complex medical and 122339
behavioral needs of disabled children through new approaches to 122340
care coordination. The department shall implement the recognition 122341
system not later than July 1, 2012.122342

       An entity recognized by the department as a pediatric 122343
accountable care organization may develop innovative partnerships 122344
between relevant groups and may contract directly or subcontract 122345
with the state to provide care coordination and other services to 122346
the medicaid recipients under twenty-one years of age described in 122347
this division who are permitted or required to participate in the 122348
care management system. 122349

       (C)(1) To be recognized by the department as a pediatric 122350
accountable care organization, an entity shall meet the standards 122351
established in rules adopted under this sectionby the department. 122352
Unless required by sectionssection 2706 and 3022 of the "Patient 122353
Protection and Affordable Care Act," 124 Stat. 325 (2010) and 122354
Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 124 Stat. 395 (2010)122355
section 1895, 42 U.S.C. 1395jjj, the regulations adopted pursuant 122356
to those sections, and the laws of this state, the department 122357
shall not require that an entity be a health insuring corporation 122358
as a condition of receiving the department's recognition.122359

       (2) Any of the following entities may receive the 122360
department's recognition, if the standards for recognition have 122361
been met:122362

       (a) A children's care network;122363

       (b) A children's care network that may include one or more 122364
other entities, including, but not limited to, health insuring 122365
corporations or other managed care organizations;122366

       (c) Any other entity the department determines is qualified.122367

       (D) The departmentmedicaid director shall consult with all 122368
of the following in adopting rules underauthorized by division 122369
(E) of this section necessary for an entity to be recognized by 122370
the department as a pediatric accountable care organization:122371

       (1) The superintendent of insurance;122372

       (2) Children's hospitals;122373

       (3) ManagedMedicaid managed care organizations under 122374
contract pursuant to section 5111.17 of the Revised Code;122375

       (4) Any other relevant entities, as determined necessary by 122376
the department, with interests in pediatric accountable care 122377
organizations.122378

       (E) The department shall adopt rules in accordance with 122379
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 122380
section. In adopting the rules under section 5167.02 of the 122381
Revised Code, the departmentmedicaid director shall do all of the 122382
following:122383

       (1) Establish application procedures to be followed by an 122384
entity seeking recognition as a pediatric accountable care 122385
organization;122386

       (2) Ensure that the standards for recognition as a pediatric 122387
accountable care organization are the same as and do not conflict 122388
with those specified in sectionssection 2706 and 3022 of the 122389
"Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act," 124 Stat. 325 (2010) 122390
and Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 124 Stat. 395 122391
(2010)section 1895, 42 U.S.C. 1395jjj or the regulations adopted 122392
pursuant to those sections;122393

       (3) Establish requirements regarding the access to pediatric 122394
specialty care provided through or by a pediatric accountable care 122395
organization;122396

       (4) Establish accountability and financial requirements for 122397
an entity recognized as a pediatric accountable care organization;122398

       (5) Establish quality improvement initiatives consistent with 122399
any state medicaid quality plan established by the department;122400

       (6) Establish transparency and consumer protection 122401
requirements for an entity recognized as a pediatric accountable 122402
care organization;122403

       (7) Establish a process for sharing data.122404

       (F) This section does not limit the authority of the 122405
department of insurance to regulate the business of insurance in 122406
this state.122407

       Sec. 5111.17.        Sec. 5167.10.  (A) The department of job and family 122408
servicesmedicaid may enter into contracts with managed care 122409
organizations, including health insuring corporations, under which 122410
the organizations are authorized to provide, or arrange for the 122411
provision of, health care services to medical assistancemedicaid122412
recipients who are required or permitted to obtain health care 122413
services through managed care organizations as part of the care 122414
management system established under section 5111.165167.03 of the 122415
Revised Code.122416

       (B) The(1) Subject to division (B)(2)(a) of this section, 122417
the department or its actuary shall base the hospital inpatient 122418
capital payment portion of the payment made to managed care 122419
organizations on data for services provided to all recipients 122420
enrolled in managed care organizations with which the department 122421
contracts, as reported by hospitals on relevant cost reports 122422
submitted pursuant to rules adopted under this section 5167.02 of 122423
the Revised Code.122424

       (2)(a) The hospital inpatient capital payment portion of the 122425
payment made to medicaid managed care organizations shall not 122426
exceed any maximum rate established by the department pursuant to 122427
rules adopted under this section.122428

        (b) If a maximum rate is established, a medicaid managed care 122429
organization shall not compensate hospitals for inpatient capital 122430
costs in an amount that exceeds that rate. 122431

       (C) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 122432
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement 122433
this section. 122434

       (D) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 122435
allow a medicaid managed care organization to use providers to 122436
render care upon completion of the medicaid managed care 122437
organization's credentialing process.122438

       Sec. 5111.177.        Sec. 5167.11.  When contracting under section 122439
5111.175167.10 of the Revised Code with a health insuring 122440
corporation that holds a certificate of authority under Chapter 122441
1751. of the Revised Code, the department of job and family 122442
servicesmedicaid shall require the health insuring corporation to 122443
provide a grievance process for medicaid recipients in accordance 122444
with 42 C.F.R. 438, subpart F.122445

       Sec. 5111.172.        Sec. 5167.12.  (A) When contracting under section 122446
5111.175167.10 of the Revised Code with a managed care 122447
organization that is a health insuring corporation, the department 122448
of job and family servicesmedicaid shall require the health 122449
insuring corporation to provide coverage of prescription122450
prescribed drugs for medicaid recipients enrolled in the health 122451
insuring corporation. In providing the required coverage, the 122452
health insuring corporation may, subject to the department's 122453
approval and the limitations specified in division (B) of this 122454
section, use strategies for the management of drug utilization.122455

       (B) The department shall not permit a health insuring 122456
corporation to impose a prior authorization requirement in the 122457
case of a drug to which all of the following apply:122458

       (1) The drug is an antidepressant or antipsychotic.122459

       (2) The drug is administered or dispensed in a standard 122460
tablet or capsule form, except that in the case of an 122461
antipsychotic, the drug also may be administered or dispensed in a 122462
long-acting injectable form.122463

       (3) The drug is prescribed by either of the following:122464

       (a) A physician whom the health insuring corporation, 122465
pursuant to division (C) of section 5111.175167.10 of the Revised 122466
Code, has credentialed to provide care as a psychiatrist;122467

       (b) A psychiatrist practicing at a community mental health 122468
agencyservices provider certified by the department of mental 122469
healthmental health and addiction services under section 122470
5119.6115119.36 of the Revised Code.122471

       (4) The drug is prescribed for a use that is indicated on the 122472
drug's labeling, as approved by the federal food and drug 122473
administration.122474

       (C) As used in this division, "controlled substance" has the 122475
same meaning as in section 3719.01 of the Revised Code.122476

        The department shall permit a health insuring corporation to 122477
develop and implement a pharmacy utilization management program 122478
under which prior authorization through the program is established 122479
as a condition of obtaining a controlled substance pursuant to a 122480
prescription.122481

       Sec. 5111.179.        Sec. 5167.13.  Each contract the department of job 122482
and family servicesmedicaid enters into with a managed care 122483
organization under section 5111.175167.10 of the Revised Code 122484
shall require the managed care organization to implement a 122485
coordinated services program for medicaid recipients enrolled in 122486
the organization who are found to have obtained prescription122487
prescribed drugs under the medicaid program at a frequency or in 122488
an amount that is not medically necessary. The program shall be 122489
implemented in a manner that is consistent with section 1915(a)(2) 122490
of the "Social Security Act," 95 Stat. 810 (1981)section 122491
1915(a)(2), 42 U.S.C. 1396n(a)(2), as amended, and 42 C.F.R. 122492
431.54(e).122493

       Sec. 5111.1710.        Sec. 5167.14.  Each contract the department of job 122494
and family servicesmedicaid enters into with a managed care 122495
organization under section 5111.175167.10 of the Revised Code 122496
shall require the managed care organization to enter into a data 122497
security agreement with the state board of pharmacy governing the 122498
managed care organization's use of the board's drug database 122499
established and maintained under section 4729.75 of the Revised 122500
Code.122501

       This section does not apply if the board no longer maintains 122502
the drug database.122503

       Sec. 5111.162.        Sec. 5167.20.  (A) As used in this section:122504

       (1) "Emergency services" has the same meaning as in section 122505
1932(b)(2) of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 122506
U.S.C. 1396u-2(b)(2), as amended.122507

       (2) "Medicaid managed care organization" means a managed care 122508
organization that has entered into a contract with the department 122509
of job and family services pursuant to section 5111.17 of the 122510
Revised Code.122511

       (B) Except as provided in division (C)(B) of this section, 122512
when a participant in the care management system established under 122513
section 5111.16 of the Revised Codethis chapter is enrolled in a 122514
medicaid managed care organization and the organization refers the 122515
participant to receive services, other than emergency services 122516
provided on or after January 1, 2007, at a hospital that 122517
participates in the medicaid program but is not under contract 122518
with the organization, the hospital shall provide the service for 122519
which the referral was made and shall accept from the 122520
organization, as payment in full, the amount derived from the 122521
reimbursementpayment rate used by the department to reimbursepay122522
other hospitals of the same type for providing the same service to 122523
a medicaid recipient who is not enrolled in a medicaid managed 122524
care organization.122525

       (C)(B) A hospital is not subject to division (B)(A) of this 122526
section if all of the following are the case:122527

        (1) The hospital is located in a county in which participants 122528
in the care management system are required before January 1, 2006, 122529
to be enrolled in a medicaid managed care organization that is a 122530
health insuring corporation;122531

        (2) The hospital has entered into a contract before January 122532
1, 2006, with at least one health insuring corporation serving the 122533
participants specified in division (C)(B)(1) of this section;122534

        (3) The hospital remains under contract with at least one 122535
health insuring corporation serving participants in the care 122536
management system who are required to be enrolled in a health 122537
insuring corporation.122538

       (D)(C) The medicaid director of job and family services shall 122539
adopt rules under section 5167.02 of the Revised Code specifying 122540
the circumstances under which a medicaid managed care organization 122541
is permitted to refer a participant in the care management system 122542
to a hospital that is not under contract with the organization. 122543
The director may adopt any other rules necessary to implement this 122544
section. All rules adopted under this section shall be adopted in 122545
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.122546

       Sec. 5111.163.        Sec. 5167.201. (A) As used in this section:122547

       (1) "Emergency services" has the same meaning as in section 122548
1932(b)(2) of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 122549
U.S.C. 1396u-2(b)(2), as amended.122550

       (2) "Medicaid managed care organization" has the same meaning 122551
as in section 5111.162 of the Revised Code.122552

       (3) "Provider" means any person, institution, or entity that 122553
furnishes emergency services to a medicaid recipient enrolled in a 122554
medicaid managed care organization, regardless of whether the 122555
person, institution, or entity has a provider agreement with the 122556
department of job and family services pursuant to Title XIX of the 122557
"Social Security Act."122558

       (B) When a participant in the care management system 122559
established under section 5111.16 of the Revised Codethis chapter122560
is enrolled in a medicaid managed care organization and receives 122561
emergency services on or after January 1, 2007, from a provider 122562
that is not under contract with the organization, the provider 122563
shall accept from the organization, as payment in full, not more 122564
than the amounts (less any payments for indirect costs of medical 122565
education and direct costs of graduate medical education) that the 122566
provider could collect if the participant received medicaid other 122567
than through enrollment in a managed care organization.122568

       An agreement entered into by a participant, a participant's 122569
parent, or a participant's legal guardian that requires payment 122570
for emergency services in violation of this section is void and 122571
unenforceable.122572

       Sec. 5111.982.        Sec. 5167.21.  (A) As used in this section:122573

       (1) "Covered skilled nursing facility services" has the same 122574
meaning as in the "Social Security Act," section 1888(e)(2)(A), 42 122575
U.S.C. 1395yy(e)(2)(A).122576

       (2) "Current medicare fee-for-service rate" means the 122577
fee-for-service rate in effect for a covered skilled nursing 122578
facility service under medicare at the time the service is 122579
provided.122580

       (3) "Skilled nursing facility" has the same meaning as in the 122581
"Social Security Act," section 1819(a), 42 U.S.C. 1395i-3(a).122582

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, a 122583
medicaid managed care organization shall pay a skilled nursing 122584
facility at least the current medicare fee-for-service rate, 122585
without deduction for any coinsurance, for covered skilled nursing 122586
facility services that the skilled nursing facility provides to a 122587
dual eligible individual if the medicaid managed care organization 122588
is responsible for the payment under the terms of a contract that 122589
the medicaid managed care organization, medical assistance122590
medicaid director, and United States secretary of health and human 122591
services jointly enter into under the integrated care delivery 122592
system authorized by section 5111.9815164.91 of the Revised Code.122593

       (C) A medicaid managed care organization is required to pay 122594
the rate specified in division (B) of this section for covered 122595
skilled nursing facility services only if all of the following 122596
apply:122597

       (1) The United States secretary agrees to the payment rate as 122598
part of the contract that the medicaid managed care organization, 122599
medical assistancemedicaid director, and United States secretary 122600
jointly enter into under the integrated care delivery system;122601

       (2) The medicaid managed care organization receives a federal 122602
capitation payment that is an actuarially sufficient amount for 122603
the costs that the medicaid managed care organization incurs in 122604
paying the rate;122605

       (3) No state funds are used for any part of the costs that 122606
the medicaid managed care organization incurs in paying the rate;122607

       (4) The integrated care delivery system provides for dual 122608
eligible individuals to receive the covered skilled nursing 122609
facility services as part of the system.122610

       Sec. 5111.178.        Sec. 5167.25. (A) The medicaid director of job and 122611
family services shall determine whether a waiver of federal 122612
medicaid requirements is necessary to fulfill the requirements of 122613
section 3901.3814 of the Revised Code. If the director determines 122614
a waiver is necessary, the department of job and family services122615
medicaid shall apply to the United States secretary of health and 122616
human services for the waiver.122617

       (B)(1) If the director determines that section 3901.3814 of 122618
the Revised Code can be implemented without a waiver or a waiver 122619
is granted, the department shall notify the department of 122620
insurance that the section can be implemented. Implementation of 122621
the section shall be effective eighteen months after the notice is 122622
sent.122623

        (2) At the time the notice is given under division (B)(1) of 122624
this section, the department shall also give notice to each health 122625
insuring corporation that provides coverage to medicaid 122626
recipients. The notice shall inform the corporation that sections 122627
3901.38 and 3901.381 to 3901.3814 of the Revised Code apply to 122628
claims for services rendered to recipients on the date determined 122629
under division (B)(1) of this section, instead of the prompt 122630
payment requirements of 42 C.F.R. 447.46. That date shall be 122631
specified in the notice.122632

       Sec. 5111.175.        Sec. 5167.26. For the purpose of determining the 122633
amount the department of job and family servicesmedicaid pays 122634
hospitals under section 5112.085168.09 of the Revised Code and 122635
the amount of disproportionate share hospital payments paid by the 122636
medicare program established under Title XVIII ofpursuant to the 122637
"Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965)section 1915, 42 U.S.C. 122638
1396n, as amended, a medicaid managed care organization under 122639
contract with the department pursuant to section 5111.17 of the 122640
Revised Code authorizing the organization to provide, or arrange 122641
for the provision of, hospital services to medicaid recipients122642
shall keep detailed records for each hospital with which it 122643
contracts about, including records regarding the cost to the 122644
hospital of providing thehospital services for the organization, 122645
payments made by the organization to the hospital for the 122646
services, utilization of hospital services by medicaid recipients 122647
enrolled in the organization, and other utilization data required 122648
by the department.122649

       Sec. 5111.1711.        Sec. 5167.30.  (A)(1) The department of job and 122650
family servicesmedicaid shall establish a managed care 122651
performance payment program. Under the program, the department may 122652
provide payments to medicaid managed care organizations under 122653
contract with the department pursuant to section 5111.17 of the 122654
Revised Code that meet performance standards established by the 122655
department.122656

       (2) In establishing performance standards, the department may 122657
consult any of the following:122658

       (a) Any quality measurements developed under the pediatric 122659
quality measures program established pursuant to the "Social 122660
Security Act," section 1139A, 42 U.S.C. 1320b-9a;122661

       (b) Any core set of adult health quality measures for 122662
medicaid eligible adults used for purposes of the "Social Security 122663
Act," section 1139A, 42 U.S.C. 1320b-9b, and any adult health 122664
quality used for purposes of the medicaid quality measurement 122665
program when the program is established under 42 U.S.C. 1320b-9b122666
that section of the "Social Security Act";122667

       (c) The most recent healthcare effectiveness data and 122668
information set and quality measurement tool established by the 122669
national committee for quality assurance.122670

       (3) The standards that must be met to receive the payments 122671
may be specified in the contract the department enters into with a 122672
medicaid managed care organization.122673

       (4) If a medicaid managed care organization meets the 122674
performance standards established by the department, the 122675
department shall make one or more performance payments to the 122676
organization. The amount of each performance payment, the number 122677
of payments, and the schedule for making the payments shall be 122678
established by the department. The payments shall be discontinued 122679
if the department determines that the organization no longer meets 122680
the performance standards. The department shall not make or 122681
discontinue payments based on any performance standard that has 122682
been in effect as part of the organization's contract for less 122683
than six months.122684

       (B) For purposes of the program, the department shall 122685
establish an amount that is to be withheld each time a premium 122686
payment is made to a medicaid managed care organization. The 122687
amount shall be established as a percentage of each premium 122688
payment. The percentage shall be the same for all medicaid managed 122689
care organizations under contract with the department. The sum of 122690
all withholdings under this division shall not exceed onetwo per 122691
cent of the total of all premium payments made to all medicaid122692
managed care organizations under contract with the department.122693

       Each medicaid managed care organization shall agree to the 122694
withholding as a condition of receiving or maintaining its 122695
medicaid provider agreement with the department.122696

       When the amount is established and each time the amount is 122697
modified thereafter, the department shall certify the amount to 122698
the director of budget and management and begin withholding the 122699
amount from each premium the department pays to a medicaid managed 122700
care organization.122701

       (C) There is hereby created in the state treasury the managed 122702
care performance payment fund. The fund shall consist of amounts 122703
transferred to it by the director of budget and management for the 122704
purpose of the program. All investment earnings of the fund shall 122705
be credited to the fund. Amounts in the fund shall be used solely 122706
to make performance payments to managed care organizations in 122707
accordance with this section.122708

       (D) The department may adopt rules as necessary to implement 122709
this section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance with 122710
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.122711

       Sec. 5111.171.        Sec. 5167.31.  The department of job and family 122712
servicesmedicaid may provide financial incentive awards to 122713
medicaid managed care organizations under contract with the 122714
department pursuant to section 5111.17 of the Revised Code that 122715
meet or exceed performance standards specified in provider 122716
agreements or rules adopted by the departmentmedicaid director 122717
under section 5167.02 of the Revised Code. The department may 122718
specify in a contract with a medicaid managed care organization 122719
the amounts of financial incentive awards, methodology for 122720
distributing awards, types of awards, and standards for 122721
administration by the department.122722

       Sec. 5111.173.        Sec. 5167.40.  The department of job and family 122723
servicesmedicaid shall appoint a temporary manager for a 122724
medicaid managed care organization under contract with the 122725
department pursuant to section 5111.17 of the Revised Code if the 122726
department determines that the medicaid managed care organization 122727
has repeatedly failed to meet substantive requirements specified 122728
in section 1903(m) of the "Social Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 122729
(1965)sections 1903(m) and 1932, 42 U.S.C. 1396b(m), as amended; 122730
section 1932 of the Social Security Act, 42 U.S.C.and 1396u-2, as 122731
amended; or 42 C.F.R. 438 Part I. The appointment of a temporary 122732
manager does not preclude the department from imposing other 122733
sanctions available to the department against the medicaid managed 122734
care organization.122735

       The medicaid managed care organization shall pay all costs of 122736
having the temporary manager perform the temporary manager's 122737
duties, including all costs the temporary manager incurs in 122738
performing those duties. If the temporary manager incurs costs or 122739
liabilities on behalf of the medicaid managed care organization, 122740
the medicaid managed care organization shall pay those costs and 122741
be responsible for those liabilities. 122742

       The appointment of a temporary manager is not subject to 122743
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, but the managed care 122744
organization may request a reconsideration of the appointment. 122745
Reconsiderations shall be requested and conducted in accordance 122746
with rules the director of job and family servicesmedicaid 122747
director shall adopt in accordance with Chapter 119. ofunder 122748
section 5167.02 of the Revised Code.122749

       The appointment of a temporary manager does not cause the 122750
medicaid managed care organization to lose the right to appeal, in 122751
accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, any proposed 122752
termination or any decision not to renewrevalidate the medicaid122753
managed care organization's medicaid provider agreement or the 122754
right to initiate the sale of the medicaid managed care 122755
organization or its assets.122756

       In addition to the rules required to be adopted under this 122757
section, the director may adopt any other rules necessary to 122758
implement this section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance 122759
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.122760

       Sec. 5111.174.        Sec. 5167.41.  The department of job and family 122761
servicesmedicaid may disenroll some or all medicaid recipients 122762
enrolled in a medicaid managed care organization under contract 122763
with the department pursuant to section 5111.17 of the Revised 122764
Code if the department proposes to terminate or not to renew122765
revalidate the contract and determines that the recipients' access 122766
to medically necessary services is jeopardized by the proposal to 122767
terminate or not to renewrevalidate the contract. The 122768
disenrollment is not subject to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, 122769
but the medicaid managed care organization may request a 122770
reconsideration of the disenrollment. Reconsiderations shall be 122771
requested and conducted in accordance with rules the medicaid122772
director of job and family services shall adopt in accordance with 122773
Chapter 119.under section 5167.02 of the Revised Code. The 122774
request for, or conduct of, a reconsideration regarding a proposed 122775
disenrollment shall not delay the disenrollment.122776

       In addition to the rules required to be adopted under this 122777
section, the director may adopt any other rules necessary to 122778
implement this section. The rules shall be adopted in accordance 122779
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code. 122780

       Sec. 5112.01.        Sec. 5168.01.  As used in sections 5112.035168.01 to 122781
5112.215168.14 of the Revised Code:122782

       (A) "Bad debt," "charity care," "courtesy care," and 122783
"contractual allowances" have the same meanings given these terms 122784
in regulations adopted under Title XVIII of the "Social Security 122785
Act," 42 U.S.C. 1395 et seq.122786

       (B) "Cost reporting period" means the twelve-month period 122787
used by a hospital in reporting costs for purposes of Title XVIII 122788
of the "Social Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1395 et seq.122789

       (C) "Disproportionate share hospital" means a hospital that 122790
meets the definition of a disproportionate share hospital in rules 122791
adopted under section 5168.02 of the Revised Code.122792

       (D) "Federal poverty line" means the official poverty line 122793
defined by the United States office of management and budget based 122794
on the most recent data available from the United States bureau of 122795
the census and revised by the United States secretary of health 122796
and human services pursuant to the "Omnibus Budget Reconciliation 122797
Act of 1981," section 673(2), 42 U.S.C. 9902(2).122798

       (E) "Governmental hospital" means a county hospital with more 122799
than five hundred registered beds or a state-owned and -operated 122800
hospital with more than five hundred registered beds.122801

       (F)(1) "Hospital" means a nonfederal hospital to which either 122802
of the following applies:122803

       (a) The hospital is registered under section 3701.07 of the 122804
Revised Code as a general medical and surgical hospital or a 122805
pediatric general hospital, and provides inpatient hospital 122806
services, as defined in 42 C.F.R. 440.10;122807

       (b) The hospital is recognized under the medicare program 122808
established by Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 122809
620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, as a cancer hospital and 122810
is exempt from the medicare prospective payment system.122811

       (2) "Hospital" does not include a hospital operated by a 122812
health insuring corporation that has been issued a certificate of 122813
authority under section 1751.05 of the Revised Code or a hospital 122814
that does not charge patients for services.122815

       (2) "Disproportionate share hospital" means a hospital that 122816
meets the definition of a disproportionate share hospital in rules 122817
adopted under section 5112.03 of the Revised Code.122818

       (B) "Bad debt," "charity care," "courtesy care," and 122819
"contractual allowances" have the same meanings given these terms 122820
in regulations adopted under Title XVIII of the "Social Security 122821
Act."122822

       (C) "Cost reporting period" means the twelve-month period 122823
used by a hospital in reporting costs for purposes of Title XVIII 122824
of the "Social Security Act."122825

       (D) "Governmental hospital" means a county hospital with more 122826
than five hundred registered beds or a state-owned and -operated 122827
hospital with more than five hundred registered beds.122828

       (E)(G) "Indigent care pool" means the sum of the following:122829

       (1) The total of assessments to be paid in a program year by 122830
all hospitals under section 5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code, 122831
less the assessments deposited into the legislative budget 122832
services fund under section 5112.195168.12 of the Revised Code 122833
and into the health care services administration fund created 122834
under section 5111.945162.54 of the Revised Code;122835

       (2) The total amount of intergovernmental transfers required 122836
to be made in the same program year by governmental hospitals 122837
under section 5112.075168.07 of the Revised Code, less the amount 122838
of transfers deposited into the legislative budget services fund 122839
under section 5112.195168.12 of the Revised Code and into the 122840
health care services administration fund created under section 122841
5111.945162.54 of the Revised Code;122842

       (3) The total amount of federal matching funds that will be 122843
made available in the same program year as a result of funds 122844
distributed by the department of job and family servicesmedicaid122845
to hospitals under section 5112.085168.09 of the Revised Code.122846

       (F)(H) "Intergovernmental transfer" means any transfer of 122847
money by a governmental hospital under section 5112.075168.07 of 122848
the Revised Code.122849

       (G) "Medical assistance program" means the program of medical 122850
assistance established under section 5111.01 of the Revised Code 122851
and Title XIX of the "Social Security Act."122852

       (H)(I) "Medicaid services" has the same meaning as in section 122853
5164.01 of the Revised Code.122854

       (J) "Program year" means a period beginning the first day of 122855
October, or a later date designated in rules adopted under section 122856
5112.035168.02 of the Revised Code, and ending the thirtieth day 122857
of September, or an earlier date designated in rules adopted under 122858
that section.122859

       (I)(K) "Registered beds" means the total number of hospital 122860
beds registered with the department of health, as reported in the 122861
most recent "directory of registered hospitals" published by the 122862
department of health.122863

       (J)(L) "Third-party payer" means any person or government 122864
entity that may be liable by law or contract to make payment to or 122865
on behalf of an individual for health care services. "Third-party 122866
payer" does not include a hospital.122867

       (M) "Total facility costs" means the total costs for all 122868
services rendered to all patients, including the direct, indirect, 122869
and overhead cost to the hospital of all services, supplies, 122870
equipment, and capital related to the care of patients, regardless 122871
of whether patients are enrolled in a health insuring corporation, 122872
excluding costs associated with providing skilled nursing services 122873
in distinct-part nursing facility units, as shown on the 122874
hospital's cost report filed under section 5112.045168.05 of the 122875
Revised Code. Effective October 1, 1993, if rules adopted under 122876
section 5112.035168.02 of the Revised Code so provide, "total 122877
facility costs" may exclude costs associated with providing care 122878
to recipients of any of the governmental programs listed in 122879
division (B) of that section.122880

       (K)(N) "Uncompensated care" means bad debt and charity care.122881

       Sec. 5112.03.        Sec. 5168.02.  (A) The director of job and family 122882
services shall adopt, and may amend and rescind,medicaid director 122883
shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised 122884
Code for the purpose of administering sections 5112.015168.01 to 122885
5112.215168.14 of the Revised Code, including rules that do all 122886
of the following:122887

       (1) Define as a "disproportionate share hospital" any 122888
hospital included under subsection (b) of section 1923 of the 122889
"Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935)section 1923(b), 42 122890
U.S.C.A. 1396r-4(b), as amended, and any other hospital the 122891
director determines appropriate;122892

       (2) Prescribe the form for submission of cost reports under 122893
section 5112.045168.05 of the Revised Code;122894

       (3) Establish, in accordance with division (A) of section 122895
5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code, the assessment rate or rates 122896
to be applied to hospitals under that section;122897

       (4) Establish schedules for hospitals to pay installments on 122898
their assessments under section 5112.065168.06 of the Revised 122899
Code and for governmental hospitals to pay installments on their 122900
intergovernmental transfers under section 5112.075168.07 of the 122901
Revised Code;122902

       (5) Establish procedures to notify hospitals of adjustments 122903
made under division (B)(2)(b) of section 5112.065168.06 of the 122904
Revised Code in the amount of installments on their assessment;122905

       (6) Establish procedures to notify hospitals of adjustments 122906
made under division (D) of section 5112.095168.08 of the Revised 122907
Code in the total amount of their assessment and to adjust for the 122908
remainder of the program year the amount of the installments on 122909
the assessments;122910

       (7) Establish, in accordance with section 5112.085168.09 of 122911
the Revised Code, the methodology for paying hospitals under that 122912
section.122913

       The director shall consult with hospitals when adopting the 122914
rules required by divisions (A)(4) and (5) of this section in 122915
order to minimize hospitals' cash flow difficulties.122916

       (B) Rules adopted under this section may provide that "total 122917
facility costs" excludes costs associated with any of the 122918
following:122919

       (1) Recipients of the medical assistance programMedicaid 122920
recipients;122921

       (2) Recipients of disability financial assistance provided 122922
under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code;122923

       (3) Recipients of the program for medically handicapped 122924
children established under section 3701.023 of the Revised Code;122925

       (4) Recipients of the medicare program established under 122926
Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 122927
U.S.C.A. 301, as amended:Medicare beneficiaries;122928

       (5) Recipients of Title V of the "Social Security Act," 42 122929
U.S.C. 701 et seq.,;122930

       (6) Any other category of costs deemed appropriate by the 122931
director in accordance with Title XIX of the "Social Security 122932
Act," 42 U.S.C. 1396 et seq., and the rules adopted under that 122933
title.122934

       Sec. 5112.05.        Sec. 5168.03.  The requirements of sections 5112.06122935
5168.06 to 5112.095168.09 of the Revised Code apply only as long 122936
as the United States health care financing administration 122937
determines that the assessment imposed under section 5112.06122938
5168.06 of the Revised Code is a permissible health care-related 122939
tax pursuant to section 1903(w) of the "Social Security Act," 49 122940
Stat. 620 (1935)section 1903(w), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396b(w), as 122941
amended. Whenever the department of job and family services122942
medicaid is informed that the assessment is an impermissible 122943
health care-related tax, the department shall promptly refund to 122944
each hospital the amount of money currently in the hospital care 122945
assurance program fund created by section 5112.185168.11 of the 122946
Revised Code that has been paid by the hospital under section 122947
5112.065168.06 or 5112.075168.07 of the Revised Code, plus any 122948
investment earnings on that amount.122949

       Sec. 5112.10.        Sec. 5168.04.  The department of job and family 122950
servicesmedicaid shall operate the hospital care assurance 122951
program established by sections 5112.015168.01 to 5112.215168.14122952
of the Revised Code on a program year basis. The department shall 122953
complete all program requirements on or before the thirtieth day 122954
of September each year.122955

       Sec. 5112.04.        Sec. 5168.05.  (A) Except as provided in division (C) 122956
of this section, each hospital, on or before the first day of July 122957
of each year or at a later date approved by the medicaid director 122958
of job and family services, shall submit to the department of job 122959
and family servicesmedicaid a financial statement for the 122960
preceding calendar year that accurately reflects the income, 122961
expenses, assets, liabilities, and net worth of the hospital, and 122962
accompanying notes. A hospital that has a fiscal year different 122963
from the calendar year shall file its financial statement within 122964
one hundred eighty days of the end of its fiscal year or at a 122965
later date approved by the director of job and family services. 122966
The financial statement shall be prepared by an independent 122967
certified public accountant and reflect an official audit report 122968
prepared in a manner consistent with generally accepted accounting 122969
principles. The financial statement shall, to the extent that the 122970
hospital has sufficient financial records, show bad debt and 122971
charity care separately from courtesy care and contractual 122972
allowances.122973

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, each 122974
hospital, within one hundred eighty days after the end of the 122975
hospital's cost reporting period, shall submit to the department a 122976
cost report in a format prescribed in rules adopted by the 122977
director of job and family services under section 5112.035168.02122978
of the Revised Code. The department shall grant a hospital an 122979
extension of the one hundred eighty day period if the health care 122980
financing administration of the United States department of health 122981
and human services extends the date by which the hospital must 122982
submit its cost report for the hospital's cost reporting period.122983

       (C) The director of job and family services may adopt rules 122984
under section 5112.035168.02 of the Revised Code specifying 122985
financial information that must be submitted by hospitals for 122986
which no financial statement or cost report is available. The 122987
rules shall specify deadlines for submitting the information. Each 122988
such hospital shall submit the information specified in the rules 122989
not later than the deadline specified in the rules.122990

       Sec. 5112.06.        Sec. 5168.06.  (A) For the purpose of distributing 122991
funds to hospitals under the medical assistancemedicaid program 122992
pursuant to sections 5112.015168.01 to 5112.215168.14 of the 122993
Revised Code and depositing funds into the legislative budget 122994
services fund under section 5112.195168.12 of the Revised Code 122995
and into the health care services administration fund created 122996
under section 5111.945162.54 of the Revised Code, there is hereby 122997
imposed an assessment on all hospitals. Each hospital's assessment 122998
shall be based on total facility costs. All hospitals shall be 122999
assessed according to the rate or rates established each program 123000
year by the department of job and family services in rules adopted 123001
under section 5112.035168.02 of the Revised Code. The department 123002
shall assess all hospitals uniformly and in a manner consistent 123003
with federal statutes and regulations. During any program year, 123004
the department shall not assess any hospital more than two per 123005
cent of the hospital's total facility costs.123006

       The department shall establish an assessment rate or rates 123007
each program year that will do both of the following:123008

       (1) Yield funds that, when combined with intergovernmental 123009
transfers and federal matching funds, will produce a program of 123010
sufficient size to pay a substantial portion of the indigent care 123011
provided by hospitals;123012

       (2) Yield funds that, when combined with intergovernmental 123013
transfers and federal matching funds, will produce amounts for 123014
distribution to disproportionate share hospitals that do not 123015
exceed, in the aggregate, the limits prescribed by the United 123016
States health care financing administration under subsection (f) 123017
of section 1923 of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935)123018
section 1923(f), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396r-4(f), as amended.123019

       (B)(1) Except as provided in division (B)(3) of this section, 123020
each hospital shall pay its assessment in periodic installments in 123021
accordance with a schedule established by the director of job and 123022
family services in rules adopted under section 5112.035168.02 of 123023
the Revised Code.123024

       (2) The installments shall be equal in amount, unless either 123025
of the following applies:123026

       (a) The department makes adjustments during a program year 123027
under division (D) of section 5112.095168.08 of the Revised Code 123028
in the total amount of hospitals' assessments;123029

       (b) The medicaid director of job and family services123030
determines that adjustments in the amounts of installments are 123031
necessary for the administration of sections 5112.015168.01 to 123032
5112.215168.14 of the Revised Code and that unequal installments 123033
will not create cash flow difficulties for hospitals.123034

       (3) The director may adopt rules under section 5112.03123035
5168.02 of the Revised Code establishing alternate schedules for 123036
hospitals to pay assessments under this section in order to reduce 123037
hospitals' cash flow difficulties.123038

       Sec. 5112.07.        Sec. 5168.07.  (A) The department of job and family 123039
servicesmedicaid may require governmental hospitals to make 123040
intergovernmental transfers each program year for the purpose of 123041
distributing funds to hospitals under the medical assistance123042
medicaid program pursuant to sections 5112.015168.01 to 5112.21123043
5168.14 of the Revised Code and depositing funds into the 123044
legislative budget services fund under section 5112.195168.12 of 123045
the Revised Code and into the health care services administration 123046
fund created under section 5111.945162.54 of the Revised Code. 123047
The department shall not require transfers in an amount that, when 123048
combined with hospital assessments paid under section 5112.06123049
5168.06 of the Revised Code and federal matching funds, produce 123050
amounts for distribution to disproportionate share hospitals that, 123051
in the aggregate, exceed limits prescribed by the United States 123052
health care financing administration under subsection (f) of 123053
section 1923 of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935)123054
section 1923(f), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396r-4(f), as amended.123055

       (B) Before or during each program year, the department shall 123056
notify each governmental hospital of the amount of the 123057
intergovernmental transfer it is required to make during the 123058
program year. Each governmental hospital shall make 123059
intergovernmental transfers as required by the department under 123060
this section in periodic installments, executed by electronic fund 123061
transfer, in accordance with a schedule established in rules 123062
adopted under section 5112.035168.02 of the Revised Code.123063

       Sec. 5112.09.        Sec. 5168.08.  (A) Before or during each program 123064
year, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall 123065
mail to each hospital by certified mail, return receipt requested, 123066
the preliminary determination of the amount that the hospital is 123067
assessed under section 5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code during 123068
the program year. The preliminary determination of a hospital's 123069
assessment shall be calculated for a cost-reporting period that is 123070
specified in rules adopted under section 5112.035168.02 of the 123071
Revised Code.123072

       The department shall consult with hospitals each year when 123073
determining the date on which it will mail the preliminary 123074
determinations in order to minimize hospitals' cash flow 123075
difficulties.123076

       If no hospital submits a request for reconsideration under 123077
division (B) of this section, the preliminary determination 123078
constitutes the final reconciliation of each hospital's assessment 123079
under section 5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code. The final 123080
reconciliation is subject to adjustments under division (D) of 123081
this section.123082

       (B) Not later than fourteen days after the preliminary 123083
determinations are mailed, any hospital may submit to the 123084
department a written request to reconsider the preliminary 123085
determinations. The request shall be accompanied by written 123086
materials setting forth the basis for the reconsideration. If one 123087
or more hospitals submit a request, the department shall hold a 123088
public hearing not later than thirty days after the preliminary 123089
determinations are mailed to reconsider the preliminary 123090
determinations. The department shall mail to each hospital a 123091
written notice of the date, time, and place of the hearing at 123092
least ten days prior to the hearing. On the basis of the evidence 123093
submitted to the department or presented at the public hearing, 123094
the department shall reconsider and may adjust the preliminary 123095
determinations. The result of the reconsideration is the final 123096
reconciliation of the hospital's assessment under section 5112.06123097
5168.06 of the Revised Code. The final reconciliation is subject 123098
to adjustments under division (D) of this section.123099

       (C) The department shall mail to each hospital a written 123100
notice of its assessment for the program year under the final 123101
reconciliation. A hospital may appeal the final reconciliation of 123102
its assessment to the court of common pleas of Franklin county. 123103
While a judicial appeal is pending, the hospital shall pay, in 123104
accordance with the schedules required by division (B) of section 123105
5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code, any amount of its assessment 123106
that is not in dispute into the hospital care assurance program 123107
fund created in section 5112.185168.11 of the Revised Code.123108

       (D) In the course of any program year, the department may 123109
adjust the assessment rate or rates established in rules pursuant 123110
to section 5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code or adjust the 123111
amounts of intergovernmental transfers required under section 123112
5112.075168.07 of the Revised Code and, as a result of the 123113
adjustment, adjust each hospital's assessment and 123114
intergovernmental transfer, to reflect refinements made by the 123115
United States health care financing administration during that 123116
program year to the limits it prescribed under subsection (f) of 123117
section 1923 of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935)123118
section 1923(f), 42 U.S.C.A. 1396r-4(f), as amended. When 123119
adjusted, the assessment rate or rates must comply with division 123120
(A) of section 5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code. An adjusted 123121
intergovernmental transfer must comply with division (A) of 123122
section 5112.075168.07 of the Revised Code. The department shall 123123
notify hospitals of adjustments made under this division and 123124
adjust for the remainder of the program year the installments paid 123125
by hospitals under sections 5112.065168.06 and 5112.075168.07 of 123126
the Revised Code in accordance with rules adopted under section 123127
5112.035168.02 of the Revised Code.123128

       Sec. 5112.08.        Sec. 5168.09.  The medicaid director of job and 123129
family services shall adopt rules under section 5112.035168.02 of 123130
the Revised Code establishing a methodology to pay hospitals that 123131
is sufficient to expend all money in the indigent care pool. Under 123132
the rules:123133

       (A) The department of job and family servicesmedicaid may 123134
classify similar hospitals into groups and allocate funds for 123135
distribution within each group.123136

       (B) The department shall establish a method of allocating 123137
funds to hospitals, taking into consideration the relative amount 123138
of indigent care provided by each hospital or group of hospitals. 123139
The amount to be allocated shall be based on any combination of 123140
the following indicators of indigent care that the director 123141
considers appropriate:123142

       (1) Total costs, volume, or proportion of services to 123143
recipients of the medical assistance program, including recipients 123144
enrolled in health insuring corporations;123145

       (2) Total costs, volume, or proportion of services to 123146
low-income patients in addition to medicaid recipients of the 123147
medical assistance program, which may include recipients of Title 123148
V of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 123149
301701 et seq., as amended, and recipients of disability123150
financial assistance provided under Chapter 5115. of the Revised 123151
Code;123152

       (3) The amount of uncompensated care provided by the hospital 123153
or group of hospitals;123154

       (4) Other factors that the director considers to be 123155
appropriate indicators of indigent care.123156

       (C) The department shall distribute funds to each hospital or 123157
group of hospitals in a manner that first may provide for an 123158
additional distribution to individual hospitals that provide a 123159
high proportion of indigent care in relation to the total care 123160
provided by the hospital or in relation to other hospitals. The 123161
department shall establish a formula to distribute the remainder 123162
of the funds. The formula shall be consistent with section 1923 of123163
the "Social Security Act," section 1923, 42 U.S.C.A. 1396r-4, as 123164
amended,and shall be based on any combination of the indicators 123165
of indigent care listed in division (B) of this section that the 123166
director considers appropriate.123167

       (D) The department shall distribute funds to each hospital in 123168
installments not later than ten working days after the deadline 123169
established in rules for each hospital to pay an installment on 123170
its assessment under section 5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code. 123171
In the case of a governmental hospital that makes 123172
intergovernmental transfers, the department shall pay an 123173
installment under this section not later than ten working days 123174
after the earlier of that deadline or the deadline established in 123175
rules for the governmental hospital to pay an installment on its 123176
intergovernmental transfer. If the amount in the hospital care 123177
assurance program fund created under section 5112.185168.11 of 123178
the Revised Code and the portion of the health care - federal fund 123179
created under section 5111.9435162.50 of the Revised Code that is 123180
credited to that fund pursuant to division (B) of section 5112.18123181
5168.11 of the Revised Code are insufficient to make the total 123182
distributions for which hospitals are eligible to receive in any 123183
period, the department shall reduce the amount of each 123184
distribution by the percentage by which the amount and portion are 123185
insufficient. The department shall distribute to hospitals any 123186
amounts not distributed in the period in which they are due as 123187
soon as moneys are available in the funds.123188

       Sec. 5112.11.        Sec. 5168.10.  Except for moneys deposited into the 123189
legislative budget services fund under section 5112.195168.12 of 123190
the Revised Code and the health care services administration fund 123191
created under section 5111.945162.54 of the Revised Code, the 123192
department of job and family servicesmedicaid shall not use money 123193
paid to the department under sections 5112.065168.06 and 5112.07123194
5168.07 of the Revised Code or money that the department pays to 123195
hospitals under section 5112.085168.09 of the Revised Code to 123196
replace any funds appropriated by the general assembly for the 123197
medical assistancemedicaid program.123198

       Sec. 5112.18.        Sec. 5168.11.  (A) Except as provided in section 123199
5112.195168.12 of the Revised Code, all payments of assessments 123200
by hospitals under section 5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code and 123201
all intergovernmental transfers under section 5112.075168.07 of 123202
the Revised Code shall be deposited in the state treasury to the 123203
credit of the hospital care assurance program fund, hereby 123204
created. All investment earnings of the hospital care assurance 123205
program fund shall be credited to the fund. The department of job 123206
and family servicesmedicaid shall maintain records that show the 123207
amount of money in the hospital care assurance program fund at any 123208
time that has been paid by each hospital and the amount of any 123209
investment earnings on that amount. All moneys credited to the 123210
hospital care assurance program fund shall be used solely to make 123211
payments to hospitals under division (D) of this section and 123212
section 5112.085168.09 of the Revised Code.123213

       (B) All federal matching funds received as a result of the 123214
department distributing funds from the hospital care assurance 123215
program fund to hospitals under section 5112.085168.09 of the 123216
Revised Code shall be credited to the health care - federal fund 123217
created under section 5111.9435162.50 of the Revised Code. 123218

       (C) All distributions of funds to hospitals under section 123219
5112.085168.09 of the Revised Code are conditional on:123220

       (1) Expiration of the time for appeals under section 5112.09123221
5168.08 of the Revised Code without the filing of an appeal, or on 123222
court determinations, in the event of appeals, that the hospital 123223
is entitled to the funds;123224

       (2) The sum of the following being sufficient to distribute 123225
the funds after the final determination of any appeals:123226

       (a) The available money in the hospital care assurance 123227
program fund;123228

       (b) The available portion of the money in the health care - 123229
federal fund that is credited to that fund pursuant to division 123230
(B) of this section.123231

       (3) The hospital's compliance with section 5112.175168.14 of 123232
the Revised Code.123233

       (D) If an audit conducted by the department of the amounts of 123234
payments made and funds received by hospitals under sections 123235
5112.065168.06, 5112.075168.07, and 5112.085168.09 of the 123236
Revised Code identifies amounts that, due to errors by the 123237
department, a hospital should not have been required to pay but 123238
did pay, should have been required to pay but did not pay, should 123239
not have received but did receive, or should have received but did 123240
not receive, the department shall:123241

       (1) Make payments to any hospital that the audit reveals paid 123242
amounts it should not have been required to pay or did not receive 123243
amounts it should have received;123244

       (2) Take action to recover from a hospital any amounts that 123245
the audit reveals it should have been required to pay but did not 123246
pay or that it should not have received but did receive.123247

       Payments made under division (D)(1) of this section shall be 123248
made from the hospital care assurance program fund. Amounts 123249
recovered under division (D)(2) of this section shall be deposited 123250
to the credit of that fund. Any hospital may appeal the amount the 123251
hospital is to be paid under division (D)(1) or the amount that is 123252
to be recovered from the hospital under division (D)(2) of this 123253
section to the court of common pleas of Franklin county.123254

       Sec. 5112.19.        Sec. 5168.12.  From the first installment of 123255
assessments paid under section 5112.065168.06 of the Revised Code 123256
and intergovernmental transfers made under section 5112.075168.07123257
of the Revised Code during each program year beginning in an 123258
odd-numbered calendar year, the department of job and family 123259
servicesmedicaid shall deposit into the state treasury to the 123260
credit of the legislative budget services fund, which is hereby 123261
created, a total amount equal to the amount by which the biennial 123262
appropriation from that fund exceeds the amount of unexpended, 123263
unencumbered moneys in that fund. All investment earnings of the 123264
legislative budget services fund shall be credited to that fund. 123265
Money in the legislative budget services fund shall be used solely 123266
to pay the expenses of the legislative budget office of the 123267
legislative service commission.123268

       Sec. 5112.21.        Sec. 5168.13.  Except as specifically required by 123269
sections 5112.015168.01 to 5112.195168.14 of the Revised Code, 123270
information filed under those sections shall not include any 123271
patient-identifying material. Information that includes 123272
patient-identifying material is not a public record under section 123273
149.43 of the Revised Code, and no patient-identifying material 123274
shall be released publicly by the department of job and family 123275
servicesmedicaid or by any person under contract with the 123276
department who has access to such information.123277

       Sec. 5112.17.        Sec. 5168.14.  (A) As used in this section:123278

       (1) "Federal poverty guideline" means the official poverty 123279
guideline as revised annually by the United States secretary of 123280
health and human services in accordance with section 673 of the 123281
"Community Service Block Grant Act," 95 Stat. 511 (1981), 42 123282
U.S.C.A. 9902, as amended, for a family size equal to the size of 123283
the family of the person whose income is being determined.123284

       (2) "Third-party payer" means any private or public entity or 123285
program that may be liable by law or contract to make payment to 123286
or on behalf of an individual for health care services. 123287
"Third-party payer" does not include a hospital.123288

       (B) Each hospital that receives funds distributed under 123289
sections 5112.015168.01 to 5112.215168.14 of the Revised Code 123290
shall provide, without charge to the individual, basic, medically 123291
necessary hospital-level services to individuals who are residents 123292
of this state, are not medicaid recipients of the medical 123293
assistance program, and whose income is at or below the federal 123294
poverty guidelineline. Recipients of disability financial 123295
assistance provided under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code 123296
qualify for services under this section. The medicaid director of 123297
job and family services shall adopt rules under section 5112.03123298
5168.02 of the Revised Code specifying the hospital services to be 123299
provided under this section.123300

       (C)(B) Nothing in this section shall be construed to prevent 123301
a hospital from requiring an individual to apply for eligibility 123302
under the medical assistancemedicaid program before the hospital 123303
processes an application under this section. Hospitals may bill 123304
any third-party payer for services rendered under this section. 123305
Hospitals may bill the medical assistancemedicaid program, in 123306
accordance with Chapter 5111. of the Revised Codestate statutes 123307
governing the medicaid program and the rules adopted under that 123308
chapterthose statutes, for medicaid services rendered under this 123309
section if the individual becomes a medicaid recipient of the 123310
program. Hospitals may bill individuals for services under this 123311
section if all of the following apply:123312

       (1) The hospital has an established post-billing procedure 123313
for determining the individual's income and canceling the charges 123314
if the individual is found to qualify for services under this 123315
section.123316

       (2) The initial bill, and at least the first follow-up bill, 123317
is accompanied by a written statement that does all of the 123318
following:123319

       (a) Explains that individuals with income at or below the 123320
federal poverty guidelineline are eligible for services without 123321
charge;123322

       (b) Specifies the federal poverty guidelineline for 123323
individuals and families of various sizes at the time the bill is 123324
sent;123325

       (c) Describes the procedure required by division (C)(1) of 123326
this section.123327

       (3) The hospital complies with any additional rules the 123328
department adoptsadopted under section 5112.035168.02 of the 123329
Revised Code.123330

       Notwithstanding division (B) of this section, a hospital 123331
providing care to an individual under this section is subrogated 123332
to the rights of any individual to receive compensation or 123333
benefits from any person or governmental entity for the hospital 123334
goods and services rendered.123335

       (D)(C) Each hospital shall collect and report to the 123336
department of medicaid, in the form and manner prescribed by the 123337
department, information on the number and identity of patients 123338
served pursuant to this section.123339

       (E)(D) This section applies beginning May 22, 1992, 123340
regardless of whether the department has adopted rules specifying 123341
the services to be provided have been adopted. Nothing in this 123342
section alters the scope or limits the obligation of any 123343
governmental entity or program, including the program awarding 123344
reparations to victims of crime under sections 2743.51 to 2743.72 123345
of the Revised Code and the program for medically handicapped 123346
children established under section 3701.023 of the Revised Code, 123347
to pay for hospital services in accordance with state or local 123348
law.123349

       Sec. 5112.40.        Sec. 5168.20.  As used in sections 5112.405168.20 to 123350
5112.485168.28 of the Revised Code:123351

       (A) "Applicable assessment percentage" means the percentage 123352
specified in rules adopted under section 5112.465168.26 of the 123353
Revised Code that is used in calculating a hospital's assessment 123354
under section 5112.415168.21 of the Revised Code.123355

       (B) "Assessment program year" means the twelve-month period 123356
beginning the first day of October of a calendar year and ending 123357
the last day of September of the following calendar year.123358

       (C) "Cost reporting period" means the period of time used by 123359
a hospital in reporting costs for purposes of the medicare 123360
program.123361

       (D) "Federal fiscal year" means the twelve-month period 123362
beginning the first day of October of a calendar year and ending 123363
the last day of September of the following calendar year.123364

       (E)(1) Except as provided in division (E)(2) of this section, 123365
"hospital" means a hospital to which any of the following applies:123366

       (a) The hospital is registered under section 3701.07 of the 123367
Revised Code as a general medical and surgical hospital or a 123368
pediatric general hospital and provides inpatient hospital 123369
services, as defined in 42 C.F.R. 440.10.123370

       (b) The hospital is recognized under the medicare program as 123371
a cancer hospital and is exempt from the medicare prospective 123372
payment system.123373

       (c) The hospital is a psychiatric hospital licensed under 123374
section 5119.205119.33 of the Revised Code.123375

       (2) "Hospital" does not include either of the following:123376

       (a) A federal hospital;123377

       (b) A hospital that does not charge any of its patients for 123378
its services.123379

       (F) "Hospital care assurance program" means the program 123380
established under sections 5112.015168.01 to 5112.215168.14 of 123381
the Revised Code.123382

       (G) "Medicaid" has the same meaning as in section 5111.01 of 123383
the Revised Code.123384

       (H) "Medicare" means the program established under Title 123385
XVIII of the Social Security Act.123386

       (I) "State fiscal year" means the twelve-month period 123387
beginning the first day of July of a calendar year and ending the 123388
last day of June of the following calendar year.123389

       (J)(H)(1) Except as provided in divisions (J)(H)(2) and (3) 123390
of this section, "total facility costs" means the total costs to a 123391
hospital for all care provided to all patients, including the 123392
direct, indirect, and overhead costs to the hospital of all 123393
services, supplies, equipment, and capital related to the care of 123394
patients, regardless of whether patients are enrolled in a health 123395
insuring corporation.123396

       (2) "Total facility costs" excludes all of the following of a 123397
hospital's costs as shown on the cost-reporting data used for 123398
purposes of determining the hospital's assessment under section 123399
5112.415168.21 of the Revised Code:123400

       (a) Skilled nursing services provided in distinct-part 123401
nursing facility units;123402

       (b) Home health services;123403

       (c) Hospice services;123404

       (d) Ambulance services;123405

       (e) Renting durable medical equipment;123406

       (f) Selling durable medical equipment.123407

       (3) "Total facility costs" excludes any costs excluded from a 123408
hospital's total facility costs pursuant to rules, if any, adopted 123409
under division (B)(1) of section 5112.465168.26 of the Revised 123410
Code.123411

       Sec. 5112.41.        Sec. 5168.21.  (A) For the purposes specified in 123412
section 5112.455168.25 of the Revised Code and subject to 123413
section 5112.485168.28 of the Revised Code, there is hereby 123414
imposed an assessment on all hospitals each assessment program 123415
year. The amount of a hospital's assessment for an assessment 123416
program year shall equal the applicable assessment percentage of 123417
the hospital's total facility costs for the period of time 123418
specified in division (B) of this section. The amount of a 123419
hospital's total facility costs shall be derived from 123420
cost-reporting data for the hospital submitted to the department 123421
of job and family servicesmedicaid for purposes of the hospital 123422
care assurance program. If a hospital has not submitted that 123423
cost-reporting data to the department, the amount of a hospital's 123424
total facility costs shall be derived from other financial 123425
statements that the hospital shall provide to the department as 123426
directed by the department. The cost-reporting data or financial 123427
statements used to determine a hospital's assessment is subject to 123428
the same type of adjustments made to the cost-reporting data under 123429
the hospital care assurance program.123430

       (B) The period of time specified in this division is the 123431
hospital's cost reporting period that ends in the state fiscal 123432
year that ends in the federal fiscal year that precedes the 123433
federal fiscal year that precedes the assessment program year for 123434
which the assessment is imposed. 123435

       (C) The assessment imposed by this section on a hospital is 123436
in addition to the assessment imposed by section 5112.065168.06123437
of the Revised Code.123438

       Sec. 5112.42.        Sec. 5168.22.  (A) Before or during each assessment 123439
program year, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid123440
shall mail to each hospital by certified mail, return receipt 123441
requested, the preliminary determination of the amount that the 123442
hospital is assessed under section 5112.415168.21 of the Revised 123443
Code for the assessment program year. Except as provided in 123444
division (B) of this section, the preliminary determination 123445
becomes the final determination for the assessment program year 123446
fifteen days after the preliminary determination is mailed to the 123447
hospital.123448

       (B) A hospital may request that the department reconsider the 123449
preliminary determination mailed to the hospital under division 123450
(A) of this section by submitting to the department a written 123451
request for a reconsideration not later than fourteen days after 123452
the hospital's preliminary determination is mailed to the 123453
hospital. The request must be accompanied by written materials 123454
setting forth the basis for the reconsideration. On receipt of the 123455
timely request, the department shall reconsider the preliminary 123456
determination and may adjust the preliminary determination on the 123457
basis of the written materials accompanying the request. The 123458
result of the reconsideration is the final determination of the 123459
hospital's assessment under section 5112.415168.21 of the Revised 123460
Code for the assessment program year.123461

       (C) The department shall mail to each hospital a written 123462
notice of the final determination of its assessment for the 123463
assessment program year. A hospital may appeal the final 123464
determination to the court of common pleas of Franklin county. 123465
While a judicial appeal is pending, the hospital shall pay, in 123466
accordance with section 5112.435168.23 of the Revised Code, any 123467
amount of its assessment that is not in dispute.123468

       Sec. 5112.43.        Sec. 5168.23.  Unless rules adopted under section 123469
5112.465168.26 of the Revised Code establish a different payment 123470
schedule, each hospital shall pay the amount it is assessed under 123471
section 5112.415168.21 of the Revised Code in accordance with the 123472
following payment schedule:123473

       (A) Twenty-eight per cent of a hospital's assessment is due 123474
on the last business day of October of each assessment program 123475
year.123476

       (B) Thirty-one per cent of a hospital's assessment is due on 123477
the last business day of February of each assessment program year.123478

       (C) Forty-one per cent of a hospital's assessment is due on 123479
the last business day of May of each assessment program year.123480

       Sec. 5112.44.        Sec. 5168.24.  The department of job and family 123481
servicesmedicaid may audit a hospital to ensure that the hospital 123482
properly pays the amount it is assessed under section 5112.41123483
5168.21 of the Revised Code. The department shall take action to 123484
recover from a hospital any amount the audit reveals that the 123485
hospital should have paid but did not pay.123486

       Sec. 5112.45.        Sec. 5168.25.  There is hereby created in the state 123487
treasury the hospital assessment fund. All installment payments 123488
made by hospitals under section 5112.435168.23 of the Revised 123489
Code and all recoveries the department of job and family services123490
medicaid makes under section 5112.445168.24 of the Revised Code 123491
shall be deposited into the fund. All investment earnings of the 123492
fund shall be credited to the fund. The department shall use money 123493
in the fund to pay for the costs of the medicaid program, 123494
including the program's administrative costs.123495

       Sec. 5112.46.        Sec. 5168.26.  (A) The director of job and family 123496
services shall adopt, amend, and rescindmedicaid director shall 123497
adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as 123498
necessary to implement sections 5112.405168.20 to 5112.485168.28123499
of the Revised Code, including rules that specify the percentage 123500
of hospitals' total facility costs to be used in calculating 123501
hospitals' assessments under section 5112.415168.21 of the 123502
Revised Code.123503

       (B) The rules adopted under this section may do the 123504
following:123505

       (1) Provide that a hospital's total facility costs for the 123506
purpose of the assessment under section 5112.415168.21 of the 123507
Revised Code exclude any of the following:123508

       (a) A hospital's costs associated with providing care to 123509
recipients of any of the following:123510

       (i) The medicaid program;123511

       (ii) The medicare program;123512

       (iii) The disability financial assistance program established 123513
under Chapter 5115. of the Revised Code;123514

       (iv) The program for medically handicapped children 123515
established under section 3701.023 of the Revised Code;123516

       (v) Services provided under the maternal and child health 123517
services block grant established under Title V of the "Social 123518
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 701 et seq.123519

       (b) Any other category of hospital costs the director deems 123520
appropriate under federal law and regulations governing the 123521
medicaid program.123522

       (2) Subject to division (C) of this section, provide for the 123523
percentage of hospitals' total facility costs used in calculating 123524
hospitals' assessments to vary for different hospitals;123525

       (3) To reduce hospitals' cash flow difficulties, establish a 123526
schedule for hospitals to pay their assessments that is different 123527
from the schedule established under section 5112.435168.23 of the 123528
Revised Code.123529

       (C) Before adopting rules authorized by division (B)(2) of 123530
this section that establish varied percentages to be used in 123531
calculating hospitals' assessments, the director shall obtain a 123532
waiver from the United States secretary of health and human 123533
services under section 1903(w)(3)(E) of the "Social Security Act," 123534
105 Stat. 1796 (1991)section 1903(w)(3)(E), 42 U.S.C. 123535
1396b(w)(3)(E), as amended, if the varied percentages would cause 123536
the assessments to not be imposed uniformly.123537

       Sec. 5112.47.        Sec. 5168.27.  The medicaid director of job and 123538
family services shall implement the assessment imposed by section 123539
5112.415168.21 of the Revised Code in a manner that does not 123540
cause a reduction in federal financial participation for the 123541
medicaid program under the "Social Security Act," section 1903(w),123542
42 U.S.C. 1396b(w).123543

       Sec. 5112.48.        Sec. 5168.28.  If the United States secretary of 123544
health and human services determines that the assessment imposed 123545
by section 5112.415168.21 of the Revised Code is an 123546
impermissible health care-related tax under the "Social Security 123547
Act," section 1903(w), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w), the medicaid director 123548
of job and family services shall take all necessary actions to 123549
cease implementation of sections 5112.405168.20 to 5112.47123550
5168.27 of the Revised Code and shall promptly refund to each 123551
hospital the amount of money in the hospital assessment fund at 123552
the time the refund is to be made that the hospital paid under 123553
section 5112.435168.23 of the Revised Code, plus any 123554
corresponding investment earnings on that amount.123555

       Sec. 3721.50.        Sec. 5168.40.  As used in sections 3721.505168.40 to 123556
3721.585168.56 of the Revised Code:123557

       (A) "Bed surrender" means the following:123558

        (1) In the case of a nursing home, the removal of a bed from 123559
a nursing home's licensed capacity in a manner that reduces the 123560
total licensed capacity of all nursing homes;123561

        (2) In the case of a hospital, the removal of a hospital bed 123562
from registration under section 3701.07 of the Revised Code as a 123563
skilled nursing facility bed or long-term care bed in a manner 123564
that reduces the total number of hospital beds registered under 123565
that section as skilled nursing facility beds or long-term care 123566
beds.123567

        (B) "Change of operator" means an entering operator becoming 123568
the operator of a nursing home or hospital in the place of the 123569
exiting operator.123570

       (1) Actions that constitute a change of operator include the 123571
following:123572

       (a) A change in an exiting operator's form of legal 123573
organization, including the formation of a partnership or 123574
corporation from a sole proprietorship;123575

       (b) A transfer of all the exiting operator's ownership 123576
interest in the operation of the nursing home or hospital to the 123577
entering operator, regardless of whether ownership of any or all 123578
of the real property or personal property associated with the 123579
nursing home or hospital is also transferred;123580

       (c) A lease of the nursing home or hospital to the entering 123581
operator or the exiting operator's termination of the exiting 123582
operator's lease;123583

       (d) If the exiting operator is a partnership, dissolution of 123584
the partnership;123585

       (e) If the exiting operator is a partnership, a change in 123586
composition of the partnership unless both of the following apply:123587

       (i) The change in composition does not cause the 123588
partnership's dissolution under state law.123589

       (ii) The partners agree that the change in composition does 123590
not constitute a change in operator.123591

       (f) If the operator is a corporation, dissolution of the 123592
corporation, a merger of the corporation into another corporation 123593
that is the survivor of the merger, or a consolidation of one or 123594
more other corporations to form a new corporation.123595

       (2) The following, alone, do not constitute a change of 123596
operator:123597

       (a) A contract for an entity to manage a nursing home or 123598
hospital as the operator's agent, subject to the operator's 123599
approval of daily operating and management decisions;123600

       (b) A change of ownership, lease, or termination of a lease 123601
of real property or personal property associated with a nursing 123602
home or hospital if an entering operator does not become the 123603
operator in place of an exiting operator;123604

       (c) If the operator is a corporation, a change of one or more 123605
members of the corporation's governing body or transfer of 123606
ownership of one or more shares of the corporation's stock, if the 123607
same corporation continues to be the operator.123608

       (C) "Effective date of a change of operator" means the day an 123609
entering operator becomes the operator of a nursing home or 123610
hospital.123611

       (D) "Entering operator" means the person or government entity 123612
that will become the operator of a nursing home or hospital on the 123613
effective date of a change of operator.123614

       (E) "Exiting operator" means an operator that will cease to 123615
be the operator of a nursing home or hospital on the effective 123616
date of a change of operator.123617

       (F) "Franchise permit fee rate" means the following:123618

       (1) For fiscal year 2012, eleven dollars and forty-seven 123619
cents;123620

       (2) For fiscal year 2013 and each fiscal year thereafter, 123621
eleven dollars and sixty-seven centsrate determined in accordance 123622
with section 5168.41 of the Revised Code.123623

       (G) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 3727.01 of 123624
the Revised Code.123625

       (H) "Hospital long-term care unit" means any distinct part of 123626
a hospital in which any of the following beds are located:123627

       (1) Beds registered pursuant to section 3701.07 of the 123628
Revised Code as skilled nursing facility beds or long-term care 123629
beds;123630

       (2) Beds licensed as nursing home beds under section 3721.02 123631
or 3721.09 of the Revised Code.123632

       (I) "Indirect guarantee percentage" means the percentage 123633
specified in section 1903(w)(4)(C)(ii) of the "Social Security 123634
Act," 120 Stat. 2994 (2006)section 1903(w)(4)(C)(ii), 42 U.S.C. 123635
1396b(w)(4)(C)(ii), that is to be used in determining whether a 123636
class of providers is indirectly held harmless for any portion of 123637
the costs of a broad-based health-care-related tax. If the 123638
indirect guarantee percentage changes during a fiscal year, the 123639
indirect guarantee percentage is the following:123640

       (1) For the part of the fiscal year before the change takes 123641
effect, the percentage in effect before the change;123642

       (2) For the part of the fiscal year beginning with the date 123643
the indirect guarantee percentage changes, the new percentage.123644

       (J) "Medicaid days" has the same meaning as in section 123645
5111.01 of the Revised Code.123646

       (K) "Medicare" means the program established by Title XVIII.123647

       (L)and "Nursingnursing facility" hashave the same meaning123648
meanings as in section 5111.205165.01 of the Revised Code.123649

       (M)(K)(1) "Nursing home" means all of the following:123650

       (a) A nursing home licensed under section 3721.02 or 3721.09 123651
of the Revised Code, including any part of a home for the aging 123652
licensed as a nursing home;123653

       (b) A facility or part of a facility, other than a hospital, 123654
that is certified as a skilled nursing facility under Title XVIII;123655

       (c) A nursing facility, other than a portion of a hospital 123656
certified as a nursing facility.123657

       (2) "Nursing home" does not include either of the following:123658

       (a) A county home, county nursing home, or district home 123659
operated pursuant to Chapter 5155. of the Revised Code;123660

       (b) A nursing home maintained and operated by the department 123661
of veterans services under section 5907.01 of the Revised Code. 123662

       (N)(L) "Operator" means the person or government entity 123663
responsible for the daily operating and management decisions for a 123664
nursing home or hospital.123665

       (O)(M) "Title XIX" means Title XIX of the "Social Security 123666
Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1396, as amendedet seq.123667

       (P)(N) "Title XVIII" means Title XVIII of the "Social 123668
Security Act," 79 Stat. 286 (1965), 42 U.S.C. 1395, as amendedet 123669
seq.123670

       Sec. 5168.41.  (A) The franchise permit fee rate shall be 123671
determined for each fiscal year as follows:123672

       (1) Determine the estimated total net patient revenues for 123673
all nursing homes and hospital long-term care units for the fiscal 123674
year;123675

       (2) Multiply the estimated total net patient revenues 123676
determined under division (A)(1) of this section by the lesser of 123677
the following:123678

       (a) The indirect guarantee percentage;123679

       (b) Six per cent.123680

       (3) Divide the product determined under division (A)(2) of 123681
this section by the number of days in the fiscal year;123682

       (4) Determine the sum of the following:123683

       (a) The total number of beds in all nursing homes and 123684
hospital long-term care units that are subject to the franchise 123685
permit fee for the fiscal year;123686

       (b) The total number of nursing home beds that are exempt 123687
from the franchise permit fee for the fiscal year because of the 123688
waiver obtained pursuant to section 5168.43 of the Revised Code.123689

       (5) Divide the quotient determined under division (A)(3) of 123690
this section by the sum determined under division (A)(4) of this 123691
section.123692

       (B) In determining the estimated total net patient revenues 123693
for all nursing homes and hospital long-term care units for a 123694
fiscal year, the department of medicaid shall use at least all of 123695
the following:123696

       (1) Information from medicaid cost reports filed under 123697
section 5165.10 of the Revised Code that are the most recent at 123698
the time the determination is made;123699

       (2) The projected total medicaid payment rates for nursing 123700
facility services for the fiscal year;123701

       (3) The projected total number of medicaid days for the 123702
fiscal year.123703

       Sec. 3721.51.        Sec. 5168.42.  The department of job and family 123704
servicesmedicaid shall do all of the following:123705

       (A) Subject to sections 3721.5125168.44, 3721.5135168.45, 123706
and 3721.5315168.48 of the Revised Code and divisions (C) and (D) 123707
of this section and for the purposes specified in section 3721.56123708
5168.54 of the Revised Code, determine an annual franchise permit 123709
fee on each nursing home in an amount equal to the franchise 123710
permit fee rate multiplied by the product of the following:123711

       (1) The number of beds licensed as nursing home beds, plus 123712
any other beds certified as skilled nursing facility beds under 123713
Title XVIII or nursing facility beds under Title XIX on the first 123714
day of May of the calendar year in which the fee is determined 123715
pursuant to division (A) of section 3721.535168.47 of the Revised 123716
Code;123717

       (2) The number of days in the fiscal year beginning on the 123718
first day of July of the calendar year in which the fee is 123719
determined pursuant to division (A) of section 3721.535168.47 of 123720
the Revised Code.123721

       (B) Subject to sections 3721.5125168.44, 3721.5135168.45, 123722
and 3721.5315168.48 of the Revised Code and divisions (C) and (D) 123723
of this section and for the purposes specified in section 3721.56123724
5168.54 of the Revised Code, determine an annual franchise permit 123725
fee on each hospital in an amount equal to the franchise permit 123726
fee rate multiplied by the product of the following:123727

       (1) The number of beds registered pursuant to section 3701.07 123728
of the Revised Code as skilled nursing facility beds or long-term 123729
care beds, plus any other beds licensed as nursing home beds under 123730
section 3721.02 or 3721.09 of the Revised Code, on the first day 123731
of May of the calendar year in which the fee is determined 123732
pursuant to division (A) of section 3721.535168.47 of the Revised 123733
Code;123734

       (2) The number of days in the fiscal year beginning on the 123735
first day of July of the calendar year in which the fee is 123736
determined pursuant to division (A) of section 3721.535168.47 of 123737
the Revised Code.123738

       (C) If the total amount of the franchise permit fee assessed 123739
under divisions (A) and (B) of this section for a fiscal year 123740
exceeds the indirect guarantee percentage of the actual net 123741
patient revenue for all nursing homes and hospital long-term care 123742
units for that fiscal year and seventy-five per cent or more of 123743
the combined total number of nursing homes and hospital long-term 123744
care units receive enhanced medicaid payments or other state 123745
payments equal to seventy-five per cent or more of their total 123746
franchise permit fee assessments, do both of the following:123747

       (1) Recalculate the assessments under divisions (A) and (B) 123748
of this section using a per bed per day rate equal to the indirect 123749
guarantee percentage of actual net patient revenue for all nursing 123750
homes and hospital long-term care units for that fiscal year;123751

       (2) Refund the difference between the amount of the franchise 123752
permit fee assessed for that fiscal year under divisions (A) and 123753
(B) of this section and the amount recalculated under division 123754
(C)(1) of this section as a credit against the assessments imposed 123755
under divisions (A) and (B) of this section for the subsequent 123756
fiscal year.123757

       (D) If the United States centers for medicare and medicaid 123758
services determines that the franchise permit fee established by 123759
sections 3721.505168.40 to 3721.585168.56 of the Revised Code is 123760
an impermissible health care-related tax under section 1903(w) of123761
the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935)section 1903(w), 42 123762
U.S.C. 1396b(w), as amended, take all necessary actions to cease 123763
implementation of sections 3721.505168.40 to 3721.585168.56 of 123764
the Revised Code in accordance with rules adopted under section 123765
3721.585168.56 of the Revised Code.123766

       Sec. 3721.511.        Sec. 5168.43.  (A) Not later than four months after 123767
July 17, 2009, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid123768
shall apply to the United States secretary of health and human 123769
services for a waiver under the "Social Security Act," section 123770
1903(w)(3)(E), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w)(3)(E), as necessary to do both 123771
of the following regarding the franchise permit fee assessed under 123772
section 3721.515168.42 of the Revised Code:123773

       (1) Reduce the franchise permit fee rate to zero dollars for 123774
each nursing home licensed under section 3721.02 or 3721.09 of the 123775
Revised Code to which either of the following applies:123776

       (a) The nursing home:123777

       (i) Is exempt from state taxation under section 140.08 of the 123778
Revised Code or is exempt from state taxation as a home for the 123779
aged as defined in section 5701.13 of the Revised Code;123780

       (ii) Is exempt from federal income taxation under section 501 123781
of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986;123782

       (iii) Does not participate in medicaid or medicare; and123783

       (iv) Provides services for the life of each resident without 123784
regard to the resident's ability to secure payment for the 123785
services.123786

       (b) The nursing home:123787

       (i) Has had a written affiliation agreement with a university 123788
in this state for education and research related to Alzheimer's 123789
disease for each of the twenty years preceding July 17, 2009, and 123790
has such an agreement on July 17, 2009;123791

       (ii) Was constructed pursuant to a certificate of need 123792
granted under Section 3 of Am. Sub. S.B. 256 of the 116th general 123793
assembly; and123794

       (iii) Does not participate in medicaid or medicare.123795

       (2) For each nursing facility with more than two hundred beds 123796
certified as nursing facility beds under Title XIX, reduce the 123797
franchise permit fee rate for a number of the nursing facility's 123798
beds specified by the department to the amount necessary to obtain 123799
approval of the waiver sought under this section.123800

       (B) The effective date of the waiver sought under this 123801
section shall be the first day of the quarter beginning after the 123802
United States secretary approves the waiver.123803

       Sec. 3721.512.        Sec. 5168.44.  If the United States secretary of 123804
health and human services approves the waiver sought under section 123805
3721.5115168.43 of the Revised Code, the department of job and 123806
family servicesmedicaid shall, for each nursing home and hospital 123807
that qualifies for a reduction of its franchise permit fee rate 123808
under the waiver, reduce the franchise permit fee rate in 123809
accordance with the terms of the waiver. For purposes of the first 123810
fiscal year during which the waiver takes effect, the department 123811
shall determine the amount of the reduction not later than the 123812
effective date of the waiver and shall mail to each nursing home 123813
and hospital qualifying for the reduction notice of the reduction 123814
not later than the last day of the first month of the quarter that 123815
begins after the United States secretary approves the waiver. For 123816
purposes of subsequent fiscal years, the department shall make 123817
such determinations and mail such notices in accordance with 123818
section 3721.535168.47 of the Revised Code.123819

       Sec. 3721.513.        Sec. 5168.45.  (A) If the United States secretary of 123820
health and human services approves the waiver sought under section 123821
3721.5115168.43 of the Revised Code, the department of job and 123822
family servicesmedicaid may do both of the following regarding 123823
the franchise permit fee assessed under section 3721.515168.42 of 123824
the Revised Code:123825

       (1) Determine how much money the franchise permit fee would 123826
have raised in a fiscal year if not for the waiver;123827

       (2) For each nursing home and hospital subject to the 123828
franchise permit fee, other than a nursing home or hospital that 123829
has its franchise permit fee rate reduced under section 3721.512123830
5168.44 of the Revised Code, uniformly increase the amount of the 123831
franchise permit fee rate for a fiscal year to an amount that will 123832
have the franchise permit fee raise an amount of money that does 123833
not exceed the amount determined under division (A)(1) of this 123834
section for that fiscal year.123835

       (B) If the department increases the franchise permit fee rate 123836
in accordance with division (A) of this section for the first 123837
fiscal year during which the waiver takes effect, the department 123838
shall determine the amount of the increase not later than the 123839
effective date of the waiver and shall mail to each nursing home 123840
and hospital subject to the increase notice of the increase not 123841
later than the last day of the first month of the quarter that 123842
begins after the United States secretary approves the waiver. If 123843
the department increases the franchise permit fee rate in 123844
accordance with division (A) of this section for a subsequent 123845
fiscal year, the department shall make such determinations and 123846
mail such notices in accordance with section 3721.535168.47 of 123847
the Revised Code.123848

       Sec. 3721.52.        Sec. 5168.46.  The department of health shall do all 123849
of the following:123850

       (A) For the purpose of the determinations made under 123851
divisions (A) and (B) of section 3721.515168.42 of the Revised 123852
Code and not later than the first day of each June, report to the 123853
department of job and family servicesmedicaid the following:123854

       (1) For each nursing home, the number of beds in the nursing 123855
home licensed on the preceding first day of May under section 123856
3721.02 or 3721.09 of the Revised Code or certified on that date 123857
under Title XVIII or Title XIX;123858

       (2) For each hospital, the number of beds in the hospital 123859
registered on the preceding first day of May pursuant to section 123860
3701.07 of the Revised Code as skilled nursing facility or 123861
long-term care beds or licensed on that date under section 3721.02 123862
or 3721.09 of the Revised Code as nursing home beds.123863

       (B) For the purpose of the redetermination under section 123864
3721.5315168.48 of the Revised Code and not later than the 123865
fifteenth day of each January, report to the department of job and 123866
family servicesmedicaid, for each nursing home and hospital, the 123867
number of beds for which a bed surrender occurred during the 123868
period beginning on the first day of May of the preceding calendar 123869
year and ending on the first day of January of the calendar year 123870
in which the redetermination is made.123871

       Sec. 3721.53.        Sec. 5168.47.  (A) Not later than the fifteenth day 123872
of September of each year, the department of job and family 123873
servicesmedicaid shall determine the annual franchise permit fee 123874
for each nursing home and hospital in accordance with section 123875
3721.515168.42 of the Revised Code and any adjustments made in 123876
accordance with sections 3721.5125168.44 and 3721.5135168.45 of 123877
the Revised Code.123878

       (B) Not later than the first day of October of each year, the 123879
department shall mail to each nursing home and hospital notice of 123880
the amount of the franchise permit fee that has been determined 123881
for the nursing home or hospital.123882

       (C) Subject to section 3721.5315168.48 of the Revised Code, 123883
each nursing home and hospital shall pay its fee under section 123884
3721.515168.42 of the Revised Code, as adjusted in accordance 123885
with sections 3721.5125168.44 and 3721.5135168.45 of the 123886
Revised Code, to the department in four installment payments not 123887
later than forty-five days after the last day of each October, 123888
December, March, and June.123889

       Sec. 3721.531.        Sec. 5168.48. (A) Not later than the last day of 123890
February of each year, the department of job and family services123891
medicaid shall redetermine each nursing home's and hospital's 123892
franchise permit fee if one or more bed surrenders occur during 123893
the period beginning on the first day of May of the preceding 123894
calendar year and ending on the first day of January of the 123895
calendar year in which the redetermination is made.123896

        (B) In redetermining nursing homes' and hospitals' franchise 123897
permit fees under this section, the department shall do both of 123898
the following:123899

        (1) Provide for the redetermination to be conducted in a 123900
manner consistent with the terms of the waiver sought under 123901
section 3721.5115168.43 of the Revised Code; 123902

       (2) Recalculate each nursing home's and hospital's franchise 123903
permit fee in accordance with division (A) or (B) of section 123904
3721.515168.42 of the Revised Code with the following changes:123905

        (a) In the case of a nursing home or hospital for which one 123906
or more bed surrenders occurred during the period beginning on the 123907
first day of May of the preceding calendar year and ending on the 123908
first day of January of the calendar year in which the 123909
redetermination is made, the number of beds included in the 123910
calculation for the purpose of division (A)(1) or (B)(1) of 123911
section 3721.515168.42 of the Revised Code shall exclude the beds 123912
for which bed surrenders occurred during that period.123913

        (b) The number of days used in the calculation under division 123914
(A)(2) or (B)(2) of section 3721.515168.42 of the Revised Code 123915
shall be the number of days in the first half of the calendar year 123916
in which the redetermination is made.123917

        (c) The franchise permit fee rate shall reflect adjustments 123918
made under sections 3721.5125168.44 and 3721.5135168.45 of the 123919
Revised Code.123920

        (C) Not later than the first day of March of each year, the 123921
department shall mail to each nursing home and hospital notice of 123922
the amount of its redetermined franchise permit fee.123923

        (D) Each nursing home and hospital shall pay its redetermined 123924
fee to the department in two installment payments not later than 123925
forty-five days after the last day of March and June of the 123926
calendar year in which the redetermination is made.123927

       Sec. 3721.532.        Sec. 5168.49.  If a nursing home or hospital 123928
undergoes a change of operator during a fiscal year, the 123929
responsibility for paying the franchise permit fee that was 123930
determined for the nursing home or hospital under section 3721.53123931
5168.47 of the Revised Code, or redetermined for the nursing home 123932
or hospital under section 3721.5315168.48 of the Revised Code, 123933
for that fiscal year shall be divided proportionally. The exiting 123934
operator shall be responsible for paying the amount of the fee 123935
that is for the part of the fiscal year that ends on the day 123936
before the effective date of the change of operator. The entering 123937
operator shall be responsible for paying the amount of the fee 123938
that is for the part of the fiscal year that begins on the 123939
effective date of the change of operator. The department of job 123940
and family servicesmedicaid is not required to mail a notice to 123941
the entering operator regarding the amount of that fiscal year's 123942
fee for which the entering operator is responsible.123943

       Sec. 3721.533.        Sec. 5168.50.  No nursing home or hospital shall 123944
directly bill its residents for the franchise permit fee paid 123945
under section 3721.535168.47 or 3721.5315168.48 of the Revised 123946
Code or otherwise directly pass the fee through to its residents.123947

       Sec. 3721.54.        Sec. 5168.51.  If a nursing home or hospital fails to 123948
pay the full amount of a franchise permit fee installment when 123949
due, the department of job and family servicesmedicaid may assess 123950
a five per cent penalty on the amount due for each month or 123951
fraction thereof the installment is overdue.123952

       Sec. 3721.541.        Sec. 5168.52.  (A) In addition to assessing a 123953
penalty pursuant to section 3721.545168.51 of the Revised Code, 123954
the department of job and family servicesmedicaid may do any of 123955
the following if a nursing facility or hospital fails to pay the 123956
full amount of a franchise permit fee installment when due:123957

        (1) Withhold an amount less than or equal to the installment 123958
and penalty assessed under section 3721.545168.51 of the Revised 123959
Code from a medicaid payment due the nursing facility or hospital 123960
until the nursing facility or hospital pays the installment and 123961
penalty;123962

        (2) Offset an amount less than or equal to the installment 123963
and penalty assessed under section 3721.545168.51 of the Revised 123964
Code from a Medicaidmedicaid payment due the nursing facility or 123965
hospital;123966

       (3) Terminate the nursing facility or hospital's medicaid 123967
provider agreement.123968

        (B) The department may offset a medicaid payment under 123969
division (A) of this section without providing notice to the 123970
nursing facility or hospital and without conducting an 123971
adjudication under Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.123972

       Sec. 3721.55.        Sec. 5168.53.  (A) A nursing home or hospital may 123973
appeal the fee assessed under section 3721.515168.42 of the 123974
Revised Code, as adjusted under section 3721.5125168.44 or 123975
3721.5135168.45 of the Revised Code, and redetermined under 123976
section 3721.5315168.48 of the Revised Code solely on the grounds 123977
that the department of job and family servicesmedicaid committed 123978
a material error in determining or redetermining the amount of the 123979
fee. A request for an appeal must be received by the department 123980
not later than fifteen days after the date the department mails 123981
the notice of the fee and must include written materials setting 123982
forth the basis for the appeal.123983

       (B) If a nursing home or hospital submits a request for an 123984
appeal within the time required under division (A) of this 123985
section, the department of job and family services shall hold a 123986
public hearing in Columbus not later than thirty days after the 123987
date the department receives the request for an appeal. The 123988
department shall, not later than ten days before the date of the 123989
hearing, mail a notice of the date, time, and place of the hearing 123990
to the nursing home or hospital. The department may hear all the 123991
requested appeals in one public hearing.123992

       (C) On the basis of the evidence presented at the hearing or 123993
any other evidence submitted by the nursing home or hospital, the 123994
department may adjust a fee. The department's decision is final.123995

       Sec. 3721.56.        Sec. 5168.54.  (A) There is hereby created in the 123996
state treasury the nursing home franchise permit fee fund. All 123997
payments and penalties paid by nursing homes and hospitals under 123998
sections 3721.535168.47, 3721.5315168.48, and 3721.545168.51123999
of the Revised Code shall be deposited into the fund. The fund 124000
shall also consist of money deposited into it pursuant to sections 124001
3769.08 and 3769.26 of the Revised Code. Subject to division (B) 124002
of section 3769.08 of the Revised Code, the department of job and 124003
family servicesmedicaid shall use the money in the fund to make 124004
medicaid payments to providers of nursing facility services and 124005
providers of home and community-based services. Money in the fund 124006
may also be used for the residential state supplement program 124007
established under section 5119.695119.41 of the Revised Code.124008

        (B) Any money remaining in the nursing home franchise permit 124009
fee fund after payments specified in division (A) of this section 124010
are made shall be retained in the fund. Any interest or other 124011
investment proceeds earned on money in the fund shall be credited 124012
to the fund and used to make medicaid payments in accordance with 124013
division (A) of this section.124014

       Sec. 3721.57.        Sec. 5168.55.  The department of job and family 124015
servicesmedicaid may make any investigation it considers 124016
appropriate to obtain information necessary to fulfill its duties 124017
under sections 3721.505168.40 to 3721.585168.56 of the Revised 124018
Code. At the request of the department, the attorney general shall 124019
aid in any such investigations. The attorney general shall 124020
institute and prosecute all necessary actions for the enforcement 124021
of sections 3721.505168.40 to 3721.585168.56 of the Revised 124022
Code, except that at the request of the attorney general, the 124023
county prosecutor of the county in which a nursing home or 124024
hospital that has failed to comply with sections 3721.505168.40124025
to 3721.585168.56 of the Revised Code is located shall institute 124026
and prosecute any necessary action against the nursing home or 124027
hospital.124028

       Sec. 3721.58.        Sec. 5168.56.  The medicaid director of job and 124029
family services shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 119. 124030
of the Revised Code to do both of the following:124031

       (A) Prescribe the actions the department of job and family 124032
servicesmedicaid will take to cease implementation of sections 124033
3721.50 through 3721.575168.40 to 5168.56 of the Revised Code if 124034
the United States centers for medicare and medicaid services 124035
determines that the franchise permit fee established by those 124036
sections is an impermissible health-care related tax under section 124037
1903(w) of the "Social Security Act," 105 Stat. 1793 (1991)124038
section 1903(w), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w), as amended;124039

       (B) Establish any requirements or procedures the director 124040
considers necessary to implement sections 3721.505168.40 to 124041
3721.585168.56 of the Revised Code.124042

       Sec. 5112.30.        Sec. 5168.60.  As used in sections 5112.305168.60 to 124043
5112.395168.71 of the Revised Code:124044

       (A) "Franchise permit fee rate" means the following:124045

       (1) For fiscal year 20122014, seventeeneighteen dollars and 124046
ninety-ninetwenty-four cents;124047

       (2) For fiscal year 20132015 and each fiscal year 124048
thereafter, eighteen dollars and thirty-twoseventeen cents.124049

       (B) "Indirect guarantee percentage" means the percentage 124050
specified in section 1903(w)(4)(C)(ii) of the "Social Security 124051
Act," 120 Stat. 2994 (2006)section 1903(w)(4)(C)(ii), 42 U.S.C. 124052
1396b(w)(4)(C)(ii), as amended, that is to be used in determining 124053
whether a class of providers is indirectly held harmless for any 124054
portion of the costs of a broad-based health-care-related tax. If 124055
the indirect guarantee percentage changes during a fiscal year, 124056
the indirect guarantee percentage is the following:124057

       (1) For the part of the fiscal year before the change takes 124058
effect, the percentage in effect before the change;124059

       (2) For the part of the fiscal year beginning with the date 124060
the indirect guarantee percentage changes, the new percentage.124061

       (C) "Intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded124062
ICF/IID" has the same meaning as in section 5111.205124.01 of 124063
the Revised Code, except that, until August 1, 2009, it does not 124064
include any such facility operated by the department of 124065
developmental disabilities.124066

       (D) "MedicaidMedicaid-certified capacity" has the same 124067
meaning as in section 5111.015124.01 of the Revised Code. 124068

       (E) "Provider agreement" has the same meaning as in section 124069
5124.01 of the Revised Code.124070

       Sec. 5112.31.        Sec. 5168.61.  The department of job and family 124071
servicesdevelopmental disabilities shall do all of the 124072
following:124073

       (A) Subject to section 5112.3315168.64 of the Revised Code 124074
and divisions (B) and (C) of this section and for the purposes 124075
specified in section 5112.3715168.69 of the Revised Code, assess 124076
for each fiscal year each intermediate care facility for the 124077
mentally retardedICF/IID a franchise permit fee equal to the 124078
franchise permit fee rate multiplied by the product of the 124079
following:124080

       (1) The number of beds certified under Title XIX of the 124081
"Social Security Act"ICF/IID's medicaid-certified capacity on the 124082
first day of May of the calendar year in which the assessment is 124083
determined pursuant to division (A) of section 5112.335168.63 of 124084
the Revised Code;124085

       (2) The number of days in the fiscal year.124086

       (B) If the total amount of the franchise permit fee assessed 124087
under division (A) of this section for a fiscal year exceeds the 124088
indirect guarantee percentage of the actual net patient revenue 124089
for all intermediate care facilities for the mentally retarded124090
ICFs/IID for that fiscal year and seventy-five per cent or more of 124091
the total number of intermediate care facilities for the mentally 124092
retardedICFs/IID receive enhanced medicaid payments or other 124093
state payments equal to seventy-five per cent or more of their 124094
total franchise permit fee assessments, do both of the following:124095

       (1) Recalculate the assessments under division (A) of this 124096
section using a per bed per day rate equal to the indirect 124097
guarantee percentage of actual net patient revenue for all 124098
intermediate care facilities for the mentally retardedICFs/IID124099
for that fiscal year;124100

       (2) Refund the difference between the amount of the franchise 124101
permit fee assessed for that fiscal year under division (A) of 124102
this section and the amount recalculated under division (B)(1) of 124103
this section as a credit against the assessments imposed under 124104
division (A) of this section for the subsequent fiscal year.124105

       (C) If the United States secretary of health and human 124106
services determines that the franchise permit fee established by 124107
sections 5112.305168.60 to 5112.395168.71 of the Revised Code 124108
would be an impermissible health care-related tax under section 124109
1903(w) of the "Social Security Act," 105 Stat. 1793 (1991)124110
section 1903(w), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w), as amended, take all 124111
necessary actions to cease implementation of those sections in 124112
accordance with rules adopted under section 5112.395168.71 of the 124113
Revised Code.124114

       Sec. 5112.32.        Sec. 5168.62.  For the purpose of the franchise 124115
permit fee imposed under section 5112.315168.61 of the Revised 124116
Code and not later than the first day of each June, the department 124117
of developmental disabilities shall:124118

       (A) Not later than August 1, 1993, report to the department 124119
of job and family services the number of beds in each intermediate 124120
care facility for the mentally retarded certified on July 1, 1993, 124121
under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 124122
42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended;124123

       (B) Not later than June 1, 1994, and the first day of each 124124
June thereafter, report to the department of job and family 124125
servicesmedicaid the number of beds in each such facility 124126
certifiedICF/IID on the preceding first day of May under that 124127
title.124128

       Sec. 5112.33.        Sec. 5168.63.  (A) Not later than the fifteenth day 124129
of August of each year, the department of job and family services124130
developmental disabilities shall determine the annual franchise 124131
permit fee for each intermediate care facility for the mentally 124132
retardedICF/IID in accordance with section 5112.315168.61 of the 124133
Revised Code.124134

       (B) Not later than the first day of September of each year, 124135
the department shall mail to each intermediate care facility for 124136
the mentally retardedICF/IID notice of the amount of the 124137
franchise permit fee the facilityICF/IID has been assessed under 124138
section 5112.315168.61 of the Revised Code.124139

       (C) Subject to section 5112.3315168.64 of the Revised Code, 124140
each intermediate care facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID124141
shall pay its fee under section 5112.315168.61 of the Revised 124142
Code to the department in quarterly installment payments not later 124143
than forty-five days after the last day of each September, 124144
December, March, and June.124145

       Sec. 5112.331.        Sec. 5168.64.  (A) If, during the period beginning 124146
on the first day of May of a calendar year and ending on the first 124147
day of January of the immediately following calendar year, the 124148
operator of an intermediate care facility for the mentally 124149
retardedICF/IID converts, pursuant to section 5111.8745124.60124150
of the Revised Code, one or more of the facility'sICF/IID's beds 124151
to providing home and community-based services, the department of 124152
job and family servicesdevelopmental disabilities shall do the 124153
following:124154

       (1) If the facility'sICF/IID's medicaid certification is 124155
terminated because of the conversion, terminate the facility's124156
ICF/IID's franchise permit fee effective on the first day of the 124157
quarter immediately following the quarter in which the department 124158
receives the notice of the conversion from the director of health;124159

       (2) If the facility's certifiedICF/IID's medicaid-certified124160
capacity under medicaid is reduced because of the conversion, 124161
redetermine the facility'sICF/IID's franchise permit fee in 124162
accordance with division (B) of this section for the second half 124163
of the fiscal year for which the fee is assessed. 124164

       (B)(1) To redetermine an intermediate care facility for the 124165
mentally retarded'sICF/IID's franchise permit fee, the department 124166
shall multiply the franchise permit fee rate by the product of the 124167
following:124168

       (a) The number of the facility's beds that remain certified 124169
under Title XIX of the "Social Security Act"ICF/IID's 124170
medicaid-certified capacity as of the date the conversion takes 124171
effect;124172

       (b) The number of days in the second half of the fiscal year 124173
for which the redetermination is made.124174

       (2) The intermediate care facility for the mentally retarded124175
ICF/IID shall pay its franchise permit fee as redetermined under 124176
division (B)(1) of this section in installment payments not later 124177
than forty-five days after the last day of March and June of the 124178
fiscal year for which the redetermination is made.124179

       Sec. 5112.34.        Sec. 5168.65.  If an intermediate care facility for 124180
the mentally retardedICF/IID fails to pay the full amount of an 124181
installment when due, the department of job and family services124182
developmental disabilities may assess a five per cent penalty on 124183
the amount due for each month or fraction thereof the installment 124184
is overdue.124185

       Sec. 5112.341.        Sec. 5168.66.  (A) In addition to assessing a 124186
penalty pursuant to section 5112.345168.65 of the Revised Code, 124187
the department of job and family servicesdevelopmental 124188
disabilities may do any of the following if an intermediate care 124189
facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID fails to pay the full 124190
amount of a franchise permit fee installment when due:124191

        (1) Withhold an amount less than or equal to the installment 124192
and penalty assessed under section 5112.345168.65 of the Revised 124193
Code from a medicaid payment due the facilityICF/IID until the 124194
facilityICF/IID pays the installment and penalty;124195

        (2) Offset an amount less than or equal to the installment 124196
and penalty assessed under section 5112.345168.65 of the Revised 124197
Code from a medicaid payment due the facilityICF/IID;124198

       (3) TerminateProvide for the department of medicaid to 124199
terminate the facility's medicaidICF/IID's provider agreement.124200

        (B) The department may offset a medicaid payment under 124201
division (A) of this section without providing notice to the 124202
intermediate care facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID and 124203
without conducting an adjudication under Chapter 119. of the 124204
Revised Code.124205

       Sec. 5112.35.        Sec. 5168.67.  (A) An intermediate care facility for 124206
the mentally retardedICF/IID may appeal the franchise permit fee 124207
imposed under section 5112.315168.61 of the Revised Code solely 124208
on the grounds that the department of job and family services124209
developmental disabilities committed a material error in 124210
determining the amount of the fee. A request for an appeal must be 124211
received by the department not later than fifteen days after the 124212
date the department mails the notice of the fee and must include 124213
written materials setting forth the basis for the appeal.124214

       (B) If an intermediate care facility for the mentally 124215
retardedICF/IID submits a request for an appeal within the time 124216
required under division (A) of this section, the department shall 124217
hold a public hearing in Columbus not later than thirty days after 124218
the date the department receives the request for an appeal. The 124219
department shall, not later than ten days before the date of the 124220
hearing, mail a notice of the date, time, and place of the hearing 124221
to the facilityICF/IID. The department may hear all requested 124222
appeals in one public hearing.124223

       (C) On the basis of the evidence presented at the hearing or 124224
any other evidence submitted by the intermediate care facility for 124225
the mentally retardedICF/IID, the department may adjust a fee. 124226
The department's decision is final.124227

       Sec. 5112.37.        Sec. 5168.68.  There is hereby created in the state 124228
treasury the home and community-based services for the mentally 124229
retarded and developmentally disabled fund. All installment 124230
payments and penalties paid by an intermediate care facility for 124231
the mentally retardedICF/IID under sections 5112.335168.63 and 124232
5112.345168.65 of the Revised Code shall be deposited into the 124233
fund. As soon as possible after the end of each quarter, the 124234
medicaid director of job and family services shall certify to the 124235
director of budget and management the amount of money that is in 124236
the fund as of the last day of that quarter. On receipt of a 124237
certification, the director of budget and management shall 124238
transfer the amount so certified from the home and community-based 124239
services for the mentally retarded and developmentally disabled 124240
fund to the department of developmental disabilities operating and 124241
services fund created under section 5112.3715168.69 of the 124242
Revised Code.124243

       Sec. 5112.371.        Sec. 5168.69. There is hereby created in the state 124244
treasury the department of developmental disabilities operating 124245
and services fund. The fund shall consist of the money transferred 124246
to it under section 5112.375168.68 of the Revised Code. The money 124247
in the fund shall be used for the expenses of the programs that 124248
the department of developmental disabilities administers and the 124249
department's administrative expenses.124250

       Sec. 5112.38.        Sec. 5168.70.  The department of job and family 124251
servicesdevelopmental disabilities may make any investigation it 124252
considers appropriate to obtain information necessary to fulfill 124253
its duties under sections 5112.305168.60 to 5112.395168.71 of 124254
the Revised Code. At the request of the department, the attorney 124255
general shall aid in any such investigations. The attorney general 124256
shall institute and prosecute all necessary actions for the 124257
enforcement of sections 5112.305168.60 to 5112.395168.71 of the 124258
Revised Code, except that at the request of the attorney general, 124259
the county prosecutor of the county in which an intermediate care 124260
facility for the mentally retardedICF/IID that has failed to 124261
comply with those sections is located shall institute and 124262
prosecute any necessary action against the facilityICF/IID.124263

       Sec. 5112.39.        Sec. 5168.71. TheTo the extent authorized by rules 124264
authorized by section 5162.021 of the Revised Code, the director 124265
of job and family servicesdevelopmental disabilities shall adopt 124266
rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to do 124267
both of the following:124268

       (A) Prescribe the actions the department of developmental 124269
disabilities will take to cease implementation of sections 5112.30124270
5168.60 to 5112.395168.71 of the Revised Code if the United 124271
States secretary of health and human services determines that the 124272
franchise permit fee imposed under section 5112.315168.61 of the 124273
Revised Code is an impermissible health care-related tax under 124274
section 1903(w) of the "Social Security Act," 105 Stat. 1793 124275
(1991)section 1903(w), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w), as amended;124276

       (B) Establish any other requirements or procedures the 124277
director considers necessary to implement sections 5112.305168.60124278
to 5112.395168.71 of the Revised Code.124279

       Sec. 5112.99.        Sec. 5168.99.  (A) The medicaid director of job and 124280
family services shall impose a penalty for each day that a 124281
hospital fails to report the information required under section 124282
5112.045168.05 of the Revised Code on or before the dates 124283
specified in that section. The amount of the penalty shall be 124284
established by the director in rules adopted under section 5112.03124285
5168.02 of the Revised Code.124286

       (B) In addition to any other remedy available to the 124287
department of job and family servicesmedicaid under law to 124288
collect unpaid assessments and transfers under sections 5112.01124289
5168.01 to 5112.215168.14 of the Revised Code, the director 124290
shall impose a penalty of ten per cent of the amount due on any 124291
hospital that fails to pay assessments or make intergovernmental 124292
transfers by the dates required by rules adopted under section 124293
5112.035168.02 of the Revised Code.124294

       (C) In addition to any other remedy available to the 124295
department of job and family servicesmedicaid under law to 124296
collect unpaid assessments imposed under section 5112.415168.21124297
of the Revised Code, the director shall impose a penalty of ten 124298
per cent of the amount due on any hospital that fails to pay the 124299
assessment by the date it is due.124300

       (D) The director shall waive the penalties provided for in 124301
this section for good cause shown by the hospital.124302

       (E) All penalties imposed under this section shall be 124303
deposited into the health care administration fund created by 124304
section 5111.945162.54 of the Revised Code.124305

       Sec. 5112.991.        Sec. 5168.991.  The department of job and family 124306
servicesmedicaid may offset the amount of a hospital's unpaid 124307
penalty imposed under section 5112.995168.99 of the Revised Code 124308
from one or more payments due the hospital under the medicaid 124309
program. The total amount that may be offset from one or more 124310
payments shall not exceed the amount of the unpaid penalty.124311

       Sec. 5302.221. (A) As used in this section:124312

       "Estate" has the same meaning as in section 5111.115162.21124313
of the Revised Code.124314

       "Medicaid estate recovery program" means the program 124315
instituted under section 5111.115162.21 of the Revised Code.124316

       (B) The administrator of the medicaid estate recovery program 124317
shall prescribe a form on which a beneficiary of a transfer on 124318
death designation affidavit as provided in section 5302.22 of the 124319
Revised Code, who survives the deceased owner of the real property 124320
or an interest in the real property or that is in existence on the 124321
date of death of the deceased owner, or that beneficiary's 124322
representative is to indicate both of the following:124323

       (1) Whether the deceased owner was either of the following:124324

       (a) A decedent subject to the medicaid estate recovery 124325
program;124326

       (b) The spouse of a decedent subject to the medicaid estate 124327
recovery program.124328

       (2) Whether the real property or interest in the real 124329
property was part of the estate of a decedent subject to the 124330
medicaid estate recovery program.124331

       (C) A county recorder shall obtain a properly completed form 124332
prescribed under division (B) of this section from the beneficiary 124333
of a transfer on death designation affidavit or the beneficiary's 124334
representative and send a copy of the form to the administrator of 124335
the medicaid estate recovery program before recording the transfer 124336
of the real property or interest in the real property under 124337
section 5302.222 of the Revised Code.124338

       Sec. 5309.082. (A) As used in this section:124339

       "Estate" has the same meaning as in section 5111.115162.21124340
of the Revised Code.124341

       "Medicaid estate recovery program" means the program 124342
instituted under section 5111.115162.21 of the Revised Code.124343

       (B) The administrator of the medicaid estate recovery program 124344
shall prescribe a form on which a surviving tenant under a 124345
survivorship tenancy or such a surviving tenant's representative 124346
is to indicate both of the following:124347

       (1) Whether the deceased survivorship tenant was either of 124348
the following:124349

       (a) A decedent subject to the medicaid estate recovery 124350
program;124351

       (b) The spouse of a decedent subject to the medicaid estate 124352
recovery program.124353

       (2) Whether the registered land under a survivorship tenancy 124354
was part of the estate of a decedent subject to the medicaid 124355
estate recovery program.124356

       (C) A county recorder shall obtain a properly completed form 124357
prescribed under division (B) of this section from the surviving 124358
tenant under a survivorship tenancy or the surviving tenant's 124359
representative and send a copy of the form to the administrator of 124360
the medicaid estate recovery program before registering the title 124361
in the surviving tenants under section 5309.081 of the Revised 124362
Code.124363

       Sec. 5309.68.  Any person owning real estate, the title to 124364
which is registered, may request the withdrawal of such real 124365
estate from registration by presenting to the county recorder an 124366
affidavit of intention to withdraw. The affidavit shall describe 124367
the real estate, shall be properly executed and signed, and shall 124368
have attached to it the owner's duplicate certificate of title. 124369
Thereupon the county recorder shall register or record the 124370
affidavit and, upon order of the court, cancel said certificate of 124371
record, and thereafterrecord the court's order in the 124372
unregistered land official records. Thereafter, said title shall 124373
be considered the same as other unregistered lands. All deeds and 124374
mortgages heretofore filed conveying registered lands, theA124375
registration certificate of whichthat has been surrendered as 124376
herein provided, shall be recorded according to law, and 124377
thereafter the lands conveyed therein shall be considered the same 124378
as other unregistered lands.124379

       Sec. 5309.86. (A) Every memorial, notation, or cancellation 124380
of such memorial or notation, made on any certificate of title or 124381
duplicate thereof that is kept by paper means shall be signed by 124382
the county recorder or histhe recorder's authorized deputy or 124383
clerk.124384

       (B) If a county recorder maintains registered land records by 124385
nonpaper means in the manner authorized by section 5309.031 of the 124386
Revised Code, the signature and seal of the county recorder or the 124387
recorder's authorized deputy or clerk may be reproduced by 124388
electronic facsimile on a certificate of title or duplicate 124389
thereof. Any prior memorial, notation, or cancellation of such 124390
memorial or notation on a certificate of title or duplicate 124391
thereof shall note only the name of the prior recorder and need 124392
not be signed by the county recorder or the recorder's authorized 124393
deputy or clerk.124394

       Sec. 5501.311.  (A) Notwithstanding sections 123.01 and 124395
127.16 of the Revised Code the director of transportation may 124396
lease or lease-purchase all or any part of a transportation 124397
facility to or from one or more persons, one or more governmental 124398
agencies, a transportation improvement district, or any 124399
combination thereof, and may grant leases, easements, or licenses 124400
for lands under the control of the department of transportation. 124401
The director may adopt rules necessary to give effect to this 124402
section.124403

       (B) Plans and specifications for the construction of a 124404
transportation facility under a lease or lease-purchase agreement 124405
are subject to approval of the director and must meet or exceed 124406
all applicable standards of the department.124407

       (C) Any lease or lease-purchase agreement under which the 124408
department is the lessee shall be for a period not exceeding the 124409
then current two-year period for which appropriations have been 124410
made by the general assembly to the department, and such agreement 124411
may contain such other terms as the department and the other 124412
parties thereto agree, notwithstanding any other provision of law, 124413
including provisions that rental payments in amounts sufficient to 124414
pay bond service charges payable during the current two-year lease 124415
term shall be an absolute and unconditional obligation of the 124416
department independent of all other duties under the agreement 124417
without set-off or deduction or any other similar rights or 124418
defenses. Any such agreement may provide for renewal of the 124419
agreement at the end of each term for another term, not exceeding 124420
two years, provided that no renewal shall be effective until the 124421
effective date of an appropriation enacted by the general assembly 124422
from which the department may lawfully pay rentals under such 124423
agreement. Any such agreement may include, without limitation, any 124424
agreement by the department with respect to any costs of 124425
transportation facilities to be included prior to acquisition and 124426
construction of such transportation facilities. Any such agreement 124427
shall not constitute a debt or pledge of the faith and credit of 124428
the state, or of any political subdivision of the state, and the 124429
lessor shall have no right to have taxes or excises levied by the 124430
general assembly, or the taxing authority of any political 124431
subdivision of the state, for the payment of rentals thereunder. 124432
Any such agreement shall contain a statement to that effect.124433

       (D) A municipal corporation, township, or county may use 124434
service payments in lieu of taxes credited to special funds or 124435
accounts pursuant to sections 5709.43, 5709.75, and 5709.80 of the 124436
Revised Code to provide its contribution to the cost of a 124437
transportation facility, provided such facility was among the 124438
purposes for which such service payments were authorized. The 124439
contribution may be in the form of a lump sum or periodic 124440
payments.124441

       (E) Pursuant to the "Telecommunications Act of 1996," 110 124442
Stat. 152, 47 U.S.C. 332 note, the director may grant a lease, 124443
easement, or license in a transportation facility to a 124444
telecommunications service provider for construction, placement, 124445
or operation of a telecommunications facility. An interest granted 124446
under this division is subject to all of the following conditions:124447

       (1) The transportation facility is owned in fee simple or 124448
easement by this state at the time the lease, easement, or license 124449
is granted to the telecommunications provider.124450

       (2) The lease, easement, or license shall be granted on a 124451
competitive basis in accordance with policies and procedures to be 124452
determined by the director. The policies and procedures may 124453
include provisions for master leases for multiple sites.124454

       (3) The telecommunications facility shall be designed to 124455
accommodate the state's multi-agency radio communication system, 124456
the intelligent transportation system, and the department's 124457
communication system as the director may determine is necessary 124458
for highway or other departmental purposes.124459

       (4) The telecommunications facility shall be designed to 124460
accommodate such additional telecommunications equipment as may 124461
feasibly be co-located thereon as determined in the discretion of 124462
the director.124463

       (5) The telecommunications service providers awarded the 124464
lease, easement, or license, agree to permit other 124465
telecommunications service providers to co-locate on the 124466
telecommunications facility, and agree to the terms and conditions 124467
of the co-location as determined in the discretion of the 124468
director.124469

       (6) The director shall require indemnity agreements in favor 124470
of the department as a condition of any lease, easement, or 124471
license granted under this division. Each indemnity agreement 124472
shall secure this state and its agents from liability for damages 124473
arising out of safety hazards, zoning, and any other matter of 124474
public interest the director considers necessary.124475

       (7) The telecommunications service provider fully complies 124476
with any permit issued under section 5515.01 of the Revised Code 124477
pertaining to land that is the subject of the lease, easement, or 124478
license.124479

       (8) All plans and specifications shall meet with the 124480
director's approval.124481

       (9) Any other conditions the director determines necessary.124482

       (F) In accordance with section 5501.031 of the Revised Code, 124483
to further efforts to promote energy conservation and energy 124484
efficiency, the director may grant a lease, easement, or license 124485
in a transportation facility to a utility service provider that 124486
has received its certificate from the Ohio power siting board or 124487
appropriate local entity for construction, placement, or operation 124488
of an alternative energy generating facility service provider as 124489
defined in section 4928.64 of the Revised Code. An interest 124490
granted under this division is subject to all of the following 124491
conditions:124492

       (1) The transportation facility is owned in fee simple or in 124493
easement by this state at the time the lease, easement, or license 124494
is granted to the utility service provider.124495

       (2) The lease, easement, or license shall be granted on a 124496
competitive basis in accordance with policies and procedures to be 124497
determined by the director. The policies and procedures may 124498
include provisions for master leases for multiple sites.124499

       (3) The alternative energy generating facility shall be 124500
designed to provide energy for the department's transportation 124501
facilities with the potential for selling excess power on the 124502
power grid, as the director may determine is necessary for highway 124503
or other departmental purposes.124504

       (4) The director shall require indemnity agreements in favor 124505
of the department as a condition of any lease, easement, or 124506
license granted under this division. Each indemnity agreement 124507
shall secure this state from liability for damages arising out of 124508
safety hazards, zoning, and any other matter of public interest 124509
the director considers necessary.124510

       (5) The alternative energy service provider fully complies 124511
with any permit issued by the Ohio power siting board under 124512
Chapter 4906. of the Revised Code and complies with section 124513
5515.01 of the Revised Code pertaining to land that is the subject 124514
of the lease, easement, or license.124515

       (6) All plans and specifications shall meet with the 124516
director's approval.124517

       (7) Any other conditions the director determines necessary.124518

       (G) Money the department receives under divisions (E) and (F) 124519
of this section shall be deposited into the state treasury to the 124520
credit of the highway operating fund.124521

        (H) A lease, easement, or license granted under division (E) 124522
or (F) of this section, and any telecommunications facility or 124523
alternative energy generating facility relating to such interest 124524
in a transportation facility, is hereby deemed to further the 124525
essential highway purpose of building and maintaining a safe, 124526
energy-efficient, and accessible transportation system.124527

       Sec. 5501.312. (A) The director of transportation may do all 124528
of the following:124529

       (A)(1) Contract in the manner provided by this section with 124530
one or more persons, a transportation improvement district, one or 124531
more governmental agencies, or any combination thereof, desiring 124532
the use or service of a transportation facility, and fix the 124533
terms, conditions, rentals, or other charges for such use or 124534
services. Such contract may provide for acquisition by such person 124535
or governmental agency of all or any part of the facility for such 124536
consideration payable over the period of the contract or otherwise 124537
as the director in histhe director's sole discretion determines 124538
to be appropriate.124539

       (B)(2) Make loans from any available source, including the 124540
federal share of a project, for the planning, acquisition, or 124541
construction of transportation facilities upon such terms as the 124542
director may determine or authorize, including secured or 124543
unsecured loans, and in connection therewith, enter into loan 124544
agreements, subordination agreements, and other agreements, accept 124545
notes and other forms of obligation to evidence the indebtedness 124546
and mortgages, liens, pledges, assignments, or other security 124547
interests to secure the indebtedness, which may be prior or 124548
subordinate to or on a parity with other indebtedness, 124549
obligations, mortgages, pledges, assignments, other security 124550
interests, or liens or encumbrances, and take such actions as are 124551
appropriate to protect the security and safeguard against losses, 124552
including foreclosure and the bidding upon and purchase of 124553
property upon foreclosure or other sale. Repayments of a federal 124554
share loan may be obligated by the director for any transportation 124555
purpose, including the reloaning of such repaid funds for other 124556
projects. Reloaned funds would be considered state loans, not 124557
federal share loans.124558

       (C)(3) Sell transportation facilities under such terms as he124559
the director may determine, including conditional sale or 124560
installment sale, under which title may pass prior to or after 124561
completion of the facility, or at any time provided in the 124562
agreement pertaining to the sale, including sale under an option 124563
to purchase at a price which may be a nominal amount or less than 124564
true value at the time of the purchase;124565

       (D)(4) Grant a mortagemortgage, lien, or other encumbrance 124566
on, or pledge or assignment of, or other security interest with 124567
respect to, all or any part of a transportation facility, or on, 124568
of, or with respect to any lease, sublease, sale, conditional sale 124569
or installment sale agreement, loan agreement, or other agreement 124570
pertaining to the lease, sublease, sale, or other disposition of a 124571
facility or pertaining to a loan made for a facility, or any 124572
guaranty or insurance agreement made with respect thereto, or any 124573
interest of the department of transportation therein, or any other 124574
interest granted, assigned, or released to secure payments to be 124575
made by the department, which mortgage, lien, encumbrance, pledge, 124576
assignment, or other security interest may be prior or subordinate 124577
to or on a parity with any other mortgage assignment, or other 124578
security interest, lien, or encumbrance;124579

       (E)(5) Contract for the acquisition or construction of a 124580
transportation facility or any part thereof and for the leasing, 124581
subleasing, sale, or other disposition of the facility in a manner 124582
determined by the director.124583

       (B) All money received by the department under this section 124584
shall be deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the 124585
highway operating fund.124586

       Sec. 5501.73.  (A) After selecting a solicited or unsolicited 124587
proposal for a public-private initiative, the department of 124588
transportation shall enter into a public-private agreement for a 124589
transportation facility with the selected private entity or any 124590
configuration of private entities. An affected jurisdiction may be 124591
a party to a public-private agreement entered into by the 124592
department and a selected private entity or combination of private 124593
entities.124594

       (B) A public-private agreement under this section shall 124595
provide for all of the following: 124596

       (1) Planning, acquisition, financing, development, design, 124597
construction, reconstruction, replacement, improvement, 124598
maintenance, management, repair, leasing, or operation of a 124599
transportation facility; 124600

       (2) Term of the public-private agreement; 124601

       (3) Type of property interest, if any, the private entity 124602
will have in the transportation facility; 124603

       (4) A specific plan to ensure proper maintenance of the 124604
transportation facility throughout the term of the agreement and a 124605
return of the facility to the department, if applicable, in good 124606
condition and repair;124607

       (5) Whether user fees will be collected on the transportation 124608
facility and the basis by which such user fees shall be determined 124609
and modified; 124610

       (6) Compliance with applicable federal, state, and local 124611
laws; 124612

       (7) Grounds for termination of the public-private agreement 124613
by the department or operator;124614

       (8) Disposition of the facility upon completion of the 124615
agreement;124616

       (9) Procedures for amendment of the agreement. 124617

       (C) A public-private agreement under this section may provide 124618
for any of the following: 124619

       (1) Review and approval by the department of the operator's 124620
plans for the development and operation of the transportation 124621
facility; 124622

       (2) Inspection by the department of construction of or 124623
improvements to the transportation facility; 124624

       (3) Maintenance by the operator of a policy of liability 124625
insurance or self-insurance; 124626

       (4) Filing by the operator, on a periodic basis, of 124627
appropriate financial statements in a form acceptable to the 124628
department; 124629

       (5) Filing by the operator, on a periodic basis, of traffic 124630
reports in a form acceptable to the department; 124631

       (6) Financing obligations of the operator and the department; 124632

       (7) Apportionment of expenses between the operator and the 124633
department; 124634

       (8) Rights and duties of the operator, the department, and 124635
other state and local governmental entities with respect to use of 124636
the transportation facility; 124637

       (9) Rights and remedies available in the event of default or 124638
delay; 124639

       (10) Terms and conditions of indemnification of the operator 124640
by the department; 124641

       (11) Assignment, subcontracting, or other delegation of 124642
responsibilities of the operator or the department under the 124643
agreement to third parties, including other private entities and 124644
other state agencies;124645

       (12) Sale or lease to the operator of private property 124646
related to the transportation facility;124647

       (13) Traffic enforcement and other policing issues, including 124648
any reimbursement by the private entity for such services.124649

       (D)(1) The director of transportation may include in any 124650
public-private agreement under sections 5501.70 to 5501.83 of the 124651
Revised Code a provision authorizing a binding dispute resolution 124652
method for any controversy subsequently arising out of the 124653
contract. The binding dispute resolution method may proceed only 124654
upon agreement of all parties to the controversy. If all parties 124655
do not agree to proceed to a binding dispute resolution, a party 124656
having a claim against the department shall exhaust its 124657
administrative remedies specified in the public-private agreement 124658
prior to filing any action against the department in the court of 124659
claims.124660

       No appeal from the determination of a technical expert lies 124661
to any court, except that the court of common pleas of Franklin 124662
County may issue an order vacating such a determination upon the 124663
application of any party to the binding dispute resolution if any 124664
of the following applies:124665

       (a) The determination was procured by corruption, fraud, or 124666
undue means.124667

       (b) There was evidence of partiality or corruption on the 124668
part of the technical expert.124669

       (c) The technical expert was guilty of misconduct in refusing 124670
to postpone the hearing, upon sufficient cause shown, or in 124671
refusing to hear evidence pertinent and material to the 124672
controversy, or of any other misbehavior by which the rights of 124673
any party have been prejudiced.124674

       (2) As used in this division, "binding dispute resolution" 124675
means a binding determination after review by a technical expert 124676
of all relevant items, which may include documents, and by 124677
interviewing appropriate personnel and visiting the project site 124678
involved in the controversy. "Binding dispute resolution" does not 124679
involve representation by legal counsel or advocacy by any person 124680
on behalf of any party to the controversy.124681

       (E) No public-private agreement entered into under this 124682
section shall be construed to transfer to a private entity the 124683
director's authority to appropriate property under Chapters 163., 124684
5501., and 5519. of the Revised Code.124685

       (F) Money collected by the department pursuant to an 124686
agreement entered into under this section shall be deposited into 124687
the state treasury to the credit of the highway operating fund.124688

       Sec. 5502.011. (A) As used in this section, "department of 124689
public safety" and "department" include all divisions within the 124690
department of public safety.124691

        (B) The director of public safety is the chief executive and 124692
administrative officer of the department. The director may 124693
establish policies governing the department, the performance of 124694
its employees and officers, the conduct of its business, and the 124695
custody, use, and preservation of departmental records, papers, 124696
books, documents, and property. The director also may authorize 124697
and approve investigations to be conducted by any of the 124698
department's divisions. Whenever the Revised Code imposes a duty 124699
upon or requires an action of the department, the director may 124700
perform the action or duty in the name of the department or direct 124701
such performance to be performed by the director's designee.124702

        (C) In addition to any other duties enumerated in the Revised 124703
Code, the director or the director's designee shall do all of the 124704
following:124705

        (1) Administer and direct the performance of the duties of 124706
the department;124707

        (2) Pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code, approve, 124708
adopt, and prescribe such forms and rules as are necessary to 124709
carry out the duties of the department;124710

        (3) On behalf of the department and in addition to any 124711
authority the Revised Code otherwise grants to the department, 124712
have the authority and responsibility for approving and entering 124713
into contracts, agreements, and other business arrangements;124714

        (4) Make appointments for the department as needed to comply 124715
with requirements of the Revised Code;124716

        (5) Approve employment actions of the department, including 124717
appointments, promotions, discipline, investigations, and 124718
terminations;124719

       (6) Accept, hold, and use, for the benefit of the department, 124720
any gift, donation, bequest, or devise, and may agree to and 124721
perform all conditions of the gift, donation, bequest, or devise, 124722
that are not contrary to law;124723

       (7) Apply for, allocate, disburse, and account for grants 124724
made available under federal law or from other federal, state, or 124725
private sources;124726

       (8) Develop a list of disqualifying offenses for licensure as 124727
a private investigator or a security guard provider pursuant to 124728
sections 4749.03, 4749.04, 4749.10, and 4776.10 of the Revised 124729
Code;124730

       (9) Do all other acts necessary or desirable to carry out 124731
this chapter.124732

       (D)(1) The director of public safety may assess a reasonable 124733
fee, plus the amount of any charge or fee passed on from a 124734
financial institution, on a drawer or indorser for each of the 124735
following:124736

       (a) A check, draft, or money order that is returned or 124737
dishonored;124738

       (b) An automatic bank transfer that is declined, due to 124739
insufficient funds or for any other reason;124740

       (c) Any financial transaction device that is returned or 124741
dishonored for any reason.124742

       (2) The director shall deposit any fee collected under this 124743
division in an appropriate fund as determined by the director 124744
based on the tax, fee, or fine being paid.124745

       (3) As used in this division, "financial transaction device" 124746
has the same meaning as in section 113.40 of the Revised Code.124747

       (E) The director shall establish a homeland security advisory 124748
council to advise the director on homeland security, including 124749
homeland security funding efforts. The advisory council shall 124750
include, but not be limited to, state and local government 124751
officials who have homeland security or emergency management 124752
responsibilities and who represent first responders. The director 124753
shall appoint the members of the council, who shall serve without 124754
compensation.124755

       (F)(1) The director or the director's designee shall carry 124756
out the duties required of the director under Chapter 5507. of the 124757
Revised Code. The director may, at the director's discretion, 124758
assign employees of the department to provide assistance in 124759
carrying out those duties as the director considers necessary.124760

       (2) The director may adopt rules under Chapter 111. of the 124761
Revised Code to approve, adopt, and prescribe such forms and 124762
processes as are necessary to carry out the duties required of the 124763
director under Chapter 5507. of the Revised Code.124764

       Sec. 5505.12.  (A) The state highway patrol retirement board 124765
shall have prepared annually by or under the supervision of an 124766
actuary an actuarial valuation of the pension assets, liabilities, 124767
and funding requirements of the state highway patrol retirement 124768
system as established pursuant to this chapter. The actuary shall 124769
complete the valuation in accordance with actuarial standards of 124770
practice promulgated by the actuarial standards board of the 124771
American academy of actuaries and prepare a report of the 124772
valuation. The report shall include all of the following:124773

       (1) A summary of the benefit provisions evaluated;124774

       (2) A summary of the census data and financial information 124775
used in the valuation;124776

       (3) A description of the actuarial assumptions, actuarial 124777
cost method, and asset valuation method used in the valuation, 124778
including a statement of the assumed rate of payroll growth and 124779
assumed rate of growth or decline in the number of members 124780
contributing to the retirement system;124781

       (4) A summary of findings that includes a statement of the 124782
actuarial accrued pension liabilities and unfunded actuarial 124783
accrued pension liabilities;124784

       (5) A schedule showing the effect of any changes in the 124785
benefit provisions, actuarial assumptions, or cost methods since 124786
the last annual actuarial valuation;124787

       (6) A statement of whether contributions to the retirement 124788
system are expected to be sufficient to satisfy the funding 124789
objectives established by the board.124790

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 124791
study council, the director of budget and management, and the 124792
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 124793
with primary responsibility for retirement legislation immediately 124794
upon its availability and not later than the first day of July 124795
following the year for which the valuation was made.124796

       (B) At such times as the state highway patrol retirement 124797
board determines, and at least once in each five-year period after 124798
January 1, 1966, the board shall have prepared by or under the 124799
supervision of an actuary an actuarial investigation of the 124800
mortality, service, and other experience of the members, 124801
retirants, and beneficiaries to update the actuarial assumptions 124802
used in the actuarial valuation required by division (A) of this 124803
section. The actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial 124804
investigation. The report shall be prepared and any recommended 124805
changes in actuarial assumptions shall be made in accordance with 124806
the actuarial standards of practice promulgated by the actuarial 124807
standards board of the American academy of actuaries. The report 124808
shall include all of the following:124809

       (1) A summary of relevant decrement and economic assumption 124810
experience observed over the period of the investigation;124811

       (2) Recommended changes in actuarial assumptions to be used 124812
in subsequent actuarial valuations required by division (A) of 124813
this section;124814

       (3) A measurement of the financial effect of the recommended 124815
changes in actuarial assumptions;124816

       (4) If the investigation required by this division includes 124817
the investigation required by division (F) of this section, a 124818
report of the result of that investigation.124819

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 124820
study council and the standing committees of the house of 124821
representatives and the senate with primary responsibility for 124822
retirement legislation not later than the first day of November 124823
following the last fiscal year of the period the report covers.124824

       (C) The board may at any time request the actuary to make any 124825
studies or actuarial valuations to determine the adequacy of the 124826
rates of contributions provided by section 5505.15 of the Revised 124827
Code.124828

       (D) The board shall have prepared by or under the supervision 124829
of an actuary an actuarial analysis of any introduced legislation 124830
expected to have a measurable financial impact on the retirement 124831
system. The actuarial analysis shall be completed in accordance 124832
with the actuarial standards of practice promulgated by the 124833
actuarial standards board of the American academy of actuaries. 124834
The actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial analysis, 124835
which shall include all of the following:124836

       (1) A summary of the statutory changes that are being 124837
evaluated;124838

       (2) A description of or reference to the actuarial 124839
assumptions and actuarial cost method used in the report;124840

       (3) A description of the participant group or groups included 124841
in the report;124842

       (4) A statement of the financial impact of the legislation, 124843
including the resulting increase, if any, in the employer normal 124844
cost percentage; the increase, if any, in actuarial accrued 124845
liabilities; and the per cent of payroll that would be required to 124846
amortize the increase in actuarial accrued liabilities as a level 124847
per cent of covered payroll for all active members over a period 124848
not to exceed thirty years;124849

       (5) A statement of whether the scheduled contributions to the 124850
system after the proposed change is enacted are expected to be 124851
sufficient to satisfy the funding objectives established by the 124852
board.124853

       Not later than sixty days from the date of introduction of 124854
the legislation, the board shall submit a copy of the actuarial 124855
analysis to the legislative service commission, the standing 124856
committees of the house of representatives and the senate with 124857
primary responsibility for retirement legislation, and the Ohio 124858
retirement study council.124859

       (E) The board shall have prepared annually a report giving a 124860
full accounting of the revenues and costs relating to the 124861
provision of benefits under section 5505.28 of the Revised Code. 124862
The report shall be made as of December 31, 1997, and the 124863
thirty-first day of December of each year thereafter. The report 124864
shall include the following:124865

       (1) A description of the statutory authority for the benefits 124866
provided;124867

       (2) A summary of the benefits;124868

       (3) A summary of the eligibility requirements for the 124869
benefits;124870

       (4) A statement of the number of participants eligible for 124871
the benefits;124872

       (5) A description of the accounting, asset valuation, and 124873
funding method used to provide the benefits;124874

       (6) A statement of the net assets available for the provision 124875
of the benefits as of the last day of the fiscal year;124876

       (7) A statement of any changes in the net assets available 124877
for the provision of benefits, including participant and employer 124878
contributions, net investment income, administrative expenses, and 124879
benefits provided to participants, as of the last day of the 124880
fiscal year;124881

       (8) For the last six consecutive fiscal years, a schedule of 124882
the net assets available for the benefits, the annual cost of 124883
benefits, administrative expenses incurred, and annual employer 124884
contributions allocated for the provision of benefits;124885

       (9) A description of any significant changes that affect the 124886
comparability of the report required under this division;124887

       (10) A statement of the amount paid under division (B) of 124888
section 5505.28 of the Revised Code.124889

       The board shall submit the report to the Ohio retirement 124890
study council, the director of budget and management, and the 124891
standing committees of the house of representatives and the senate 124892
with primary responsibility for retirement legislation immediately 124893
upon its availability and not later than the thirtieth day of June 124894
following the year for which the report was made.124895

       (F) At least once in each five-year period, the board shall 124896
have prepared by or under the supervision of an actuary an 124897
actuarial investigation of the deferred retirement option plan 124898
established under section 5505.50 of the Revised Code. The 124899
investigation shall include an examination of the financial 124900
impact, if any, on the retirement system of offering the plan to 124901
members.124902

       The actuary shall prepare a report of the actuarial 124903
investigation. The report shall include a determination of whether 124904
the plan, as established or modified, has a negative financial 124905
impact on the retirement system and, if so, recommendations on how 124906
to modify the plan to eliminate the negative financial impact. If 124907
the actuarial report indicates that the plan has a negative 124908
financial impact on the retirement system, the board shall modify 124909
the plan. If the board modifies the plan, the rights and 124910
obligations of members who have already elected to participate 124911
shall not be altered.124912

       The state's contributions to the employer accumulation fund 124913
shall not be increased to offset any negative financial impact of 124914
the deferred retirement option plan.124915

       The board may include the actuarial investigation required 124916
under this division as part of the actuarial investigation 124917
required under division (B) of this section. If the report of the 124918
actuarial investigation required by this division is not included 124919
in the report required by division (B) of this section, the board 124920
shall submit the report required by this division to the Ohio 124921
retirement study council and the standing committees of the house 124922
of representatives and the senate with primary responsibility for 124923
retirement legislation not later than the first day of November 124924
following the last fiscal year of the period the report covers.124925

       Sec. 5511.03.  The director of transportation shall examine 124926
the existing highway facilities serving the several hospitals, 124927
educational institutions, and correctional and other similar 124928
institutions belonging to the state, and located outside municipal 124929
corporations. Where the director finds that any such state 124930
institution is not located on a state highway or connected with a 124931
highway by a suitable road, affording in its present condition 124932
adequate transportation facilities to those having occasion to 124933
visit such institution, the director may establish a state highway 124934
leading to such institution from a convenient point on an existing 124935
highway. Where the director finds that any such institution is not 124936
served by adequate highway facilities connecting it with the 124937
railroad delivery point from which it principally obtains fuel, 124938
provisions, and supplies, the director may establish a highway 124939
connecting such institution and railroad delivery point. 124940
Limitations imposed on the mileage of state highways shall not 124941
apply to highways established under this section.124942

       The director may construct at state expense all highways 124943
established under authority of this section and pay the entire 124944
cost thereof from the state highway operating fund. Such highways 124945
shall be maintained by the department of transportation and the 124946
cost shall be paid from the highway operating fund of the 124947
department.124948

       The directors of transportation, mental healthmental health 124949
and addiction services, developmental disabilities, and 124950
rehabilitation and correction may cooperate in the establishment, 124951
construction, reconstruction, maintenance, and repair of roads 124952
within the limits of state institutions. The cost shall be paid 124953
from funds appropriated for highway purposes and from the funds 124954
appropriated to the department of mental healthmental health and 124955
addiction services, department of developmental disabilities, or 124956
the department of rehabilitation and correction for capital 124957
improvements or maintenance in such proportion as may be agreed 124958
upon by the directors of transportation, mental healthmental 124959
health and addiction services, developmental disabilities, and 124960
rehabilitation and correction.124961

       Sec. 5515.08.  (A) The department of transportation may 124962
contract to sell commercial advertising space within or on the 124963
outside surfaces of any building located within a roadside rest 124964
area under its jurisdiction in exchange for cash payment. Money 124965
the department receives under this section shall be deposited in 124966
the state treasury to the credit of the roadside rest area 124967
improvementhighway operating fund, which is hereby created. The 124968
department shall use the money in the fund only to improve 124969
roadside rest areas in accordance with section 5529.06 of the 124970
Revised Code.124971

       (B) Advertising placed under this section shall comply with 124972
all of the following:124973

        (1) It shall not be libelous or obscene and shall not promote 124974
any illegal product or service.124975

        (2) It shall not promote illegal discrimination on the basis 124976
of the race, religion, national origin, handicap, age, or ancestry 124977
of any person.124978

        (3) It shall not support or oppose any candidate for 124979
political office or any political cause, issue, or organization.124980

        (4) It shall comply with any controlling federal or state 124981
regulations or restrictions.124982

        (5) To the extent physically and technically practical, it 124983
shall state that the advertisement is a paid commercial 124984
advertisement and that the state does not endorse the product or 124985
service promoted by the advertisement or make any representation 124986
about the accuracy of the advertisement or the quality or 124987
performance of the product or service promoted by the 124988
advertisement.124989

        (6) It shall conform to all applicable rules adopted by the 124990
director of transportation under division (E) of this section.124991

        (C) Contracts entered into under this section shall be 124992
awarded only to the qualified bidder who submits the highest 124993
responsive bid or according to uniformly applied rate classes.124994

        (D) No person, except an advertiser alleging a breach of 124995
contract or the improper awarding of a contract, has a cause of 124996
action against the state with respect to any contract or 124997
advertising authorized by this section. Under no circumstances is 124998
the state liable for consequential or noneconomic damages with 124999
respect to any contract or advertising authorized under this 125000
section.125001

       (E) The director, in accordance with Chapter 119. of the 125002
Revised Code, shall adopt rules to implement this section. The 125003
rules shall be consistent with the policy of protecting the safety 125004
of the traveling public and consistent with the national policy 125005
governing the use and control of such roadside rest areas. The 125006
rules shall regulate the awarding of contracts and may regulate 125007
the content, display, and other aspects of the commercial 125008
advertising authorized by this section.125009

       Sec. 5701.13.  (A) As used in this section:125010

       (1) "Nursing home" means a nursing home or a home for the 125011
aging, as those terms are defined in section 3721.01 of the 125012
Revised Code, that is issued a license pursuant to section 3721.02 125013
of the Revised Code.125014

       (2) "Residential care facility" means a residential care 125015
facility, as defined in section 3721.01 of the Revised Code, that 125016
is issued a license pursuant to section 3721.02 of the Revised 125017
Code.125018

       (3) "Residential facility" means a residential facility 125019
licensed under section 5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code that 125020
provides accommodations, supervision, and personal care services 125021
for three to sixteen unrelated adults.125022

       (B) As used in Title LVII of the Revised Code, and for the 125023
purpose of other sections of the Revised Code that refer 125024
specifically to Chapter 5701. or section 5701.13 of the Revised 125025
Code, a "home for the aged" means either of the following:125026

       (1) A place of residence for aged and infirm persons that 125027
satisfies divisions (B)(1)(a) to (e) of this section:125028

       (a) It is a nursing home, residential care facility, or 125029
residential facility.125030

       (b) It is owned by a corporation, unincorporated nonprofit 125031
association, or trust of a charitable, religious, or fraternal 125032
nature, that is organized and operated not for profit, is not 125033
formed for the pecuniary gain or profit of, and whose net earnings 125034
or any part of whose net earnings is not distributable to, its 125035
members, trustees, officers, or other private persons, and is 125036
exempt from federal income taxation under section 501 of the 125037
"Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 1.125038

       (c) It is open to the public without regard to race, color, 125039
or national origin.125040

       (d) It does not pay, directly or indirectly, compensation for 125041
services rendered, interest on debts incurred, or purchase price 125042
for land, building, equipment, supplies, or other goods or 125043
chattels, which compensation, interest, or purchase price is 125044
unreasonably high.125045

       (e) It provides services for the life of each resident 125046
without regard to the resident's ability to continue payment for 125047
the full cost of the services.125048

       (2) A place of residence that satisfies divisions (B)(1)(b), 125049
(d), and (e) of this section; that satisfies the definition of 125050
"nursing home" or "residential care facility" under section 125051
3721.01 of the Revised Code or the definition of "residential 125052
facility" under division (A)(3) of this section regardless of 125053
whether it is licensed as such a home or facility; and that is 125054
provided at no charge to individuals on account of their service 125055
without compensation to a charitable, religious, fraternal, or 125056
educational institution, which individuals are aged or infirm and 125057
are members of the corporation, association, or trust that owns 125058
the place of residence. For the purposes of division (B)(2) of 125059
this section, "compensation" does not include furnishing room and 125060
board, clothing, health care, or other necessities, or stipends or 125061
other de minimis payments to defray the cost thereof.125062

       Exemption from taxation shall be accorded, on proper 125063
application, only to those homes or parts of homes that meet the 125064
standards and provide the services specified in this section.125065

       Nothing in this section shall be construed as preventing a 125066
home from requiring a resident with financial need to apply for 125067
any applicable financial assistance or requiring a home to retain 125068
a resident who willfully refuses to pay for services for which the 125069
resident has contracted even though the resident has sufficient 125070
resources to do so.125071

       (C)(1) If a corporation, unincorporated nonprofit 125072
association, or trust described in division (B)(1)(b) of this 125073
section is granted a certificate of need pursuant to section 125074
3702.52 of the Revised Code to construct, add to, or otherwise 125075
modify a nursing home, or is given approval pursuant to section 125076
3791.04 of the Revised Code to construct, add to, or otherwise 125077
modify a residential care facility or residential facility and if 125078
the corporation, association, or trust submits an affidavit to the 125079
tax commissioner stating that, commencing on the date of licensure 125080
and continuing thereafter, the home or facility will be operated 125081
in accordance with the requirements of divisions (B)(1)(a) to (e) 125082
of this section, the corporation, association, or trust shall be 125083
considered to be operating a "home for the aged" within the 125084
meaning of division (B)(1) of this section, beginning on the first 125085
day of January of the year in which such certificate is granted or 125086
approval is given.125087

       (2) If a corporation, association, or trust is considered to 125088
be operating a "home for the aged" pursuant to division (C)(1) of 125089
this section, the corporation, association, or trust shall notify 125090
the tax commissioner in writing upon the occurrence of any of the 125091
following events:125092

       (a) The corporation, association, or trust no longer intends 125093
to complete the construction of, addition to, or modification of 125094
the home or facility, to obtain the appropriate license for the 125095
home or facility, or to commence operation of the home or facility 125096
in accordance with the requirements of divisions (B)(1)(a) to (e) 125097
of this section;125098

       (b) The certificate of approval referred to in division 125099
(C)(1) of this section expires, is revoked, or is otherwise 125100
terminated prior to the completion of the construction of, 125101
addition to, or modification of the home or facility;125102

       (c) The license to operate the home or facility is not 125103
granted by the director of health within one year following 125104
completion of the construction of, addition to, or modification of 125105
the home or facility;125106

       (d) The license to operate the home or facility is not 125107
granted by the director of health within four years following the 125108
date upon which the certificate or approval referred to in 125109
division (C)(1) of this section was granted or given;125110

       (e) The home or facility is granted a license to operate as a 125111
nursing home, residential care facility, or residential facility.125112

       (3) Upon the occurrence of any of the events referred to in 125113
divisions (C)(2)(a), (b), (c), (d), and (e) of this section, the 125114
corporation, association, or trust shall no longer be considered 125115
to be operating a "home for the aged" pursuant to division (C)(1) 125116
of this section, except that the tax commissioner, for good cause 125117
shown and to the extent the commissioner considers appropriate, 125118
may extend the time period specified in division (C)(2)(c) or (d) 125119
of this section, or both. Nothing in division (C)(3) of this 125120
section shall be construed to prevent a nursing home, residential 125121
care facility, or residential facility from qualifying as a "home 125122
for the aged" if, upon proper application made pursuant to 125123
division (B) of this section, it is found to meet the requirements 125124
of divisions (A) and (B) of this section.125125

       Sec. 5703.052.  (A) There is hereby created in the state 125126
treasury the tax refund fund, from which refunds shall be paid for 125127
taxes illegally or erroneously assessed or collected, or for any 125128
other reason overpaid, that are levied by Chapter 4301., 4305., 125129
5726., 5728., 5729., 5731., 5733., 5735., 5739., 5741., 5743., 125130
5747., 5748., 5749., 5751., or 5753. and sections 3737.71, 125131
3905.35, 3905.36, 4303.33, 5707.03, 5725.18, 5727.28, 5727.38, 125132
5727.81, and 5727.811 of the Revised Code. Refunds for fees 125133
illegally or erroneously assessed or collected, or for any other 125134
reason overpaid, that are levied by sections 3734.90 to 3734.9014 125135
of the Revised Code also shall be paid from the fund. Refunds for 125136
amounts illegally or erroneously assessed or collected by the tax 125137
commissioner, or for any other reason overpaid, that are due under 125138
section 1509.50 of the Revised Code shall be paid from the fund. 125139
However, refunds for taxes levied under section 5739.101 of the 125140
Revised Code shall not be paid from the tax refund fund, but shall 125141
be paid as provided in section 5739.104 of the Revised Code.125142

       (B)(1) Upon certification by the tax commissioner to the 125143
treasurer of state of a tax refund, a fee refund, or an other125144
another amount refunded, or by the superintendent of insurance of 125145
a domestic or foreign insurance tax refund, the treasurer of state 125146
shall place the amount certified to the credit of the fund. The 125147
certified amount transferred shall be derived from currentthe125148
receipts of the same tax, fee, or other amount from which the 125149
refund arose. If current receipts from the tax, fee, or other 125150
amount from which the refund arose are inadequate to make the 125151
transfer of the amount so certified, the treasurer of state shall 125152
transfer such certified amount from current receipts of the sales 125153
tax levied by section 5739.02 of the Revised Code.125154

       (2) When the treasurer of state provides for the payment of a 125155
refund of a tax, fee, or other amount from the current receipts of 125156
the sales tax, and thea refund is for a tax, fee, or other amount 125157
that is not levied by the state, the tax commissioner shall 125158
recover the amount of that refund from the next distribution of 125159
that tax, fee, or other amount that otherwise would be made to the 125160
taxing jurisdiction. If the amount to be recovered would exceed 125161
twenty-five per cent of the next distribution of that tax, fee, or 125162
other amount, the commissioner may spread the recovery over more 125163
than one future distribution, taking into account the amount to be 125164
recovered and the amount of the anticipated future distributions. 125165
In no event may the commissioner spread the recovery over a period 125166
to exceed twenty-four months.125167

       Sec. 5703.059. (A) The tax commissioner may adopt rules 125168
requiring returns, including any accompanying schedule or 125169
statement, for any of the following taxes to be filed 125170
electronically using the Ohio business gateway as defined in 125171
section 718.051 of the Revised Code, filed telephonically using 125172
the system known as the Ohio telefile system, or filed by any 125173
other electronic means prescribed by the commissioner:125174

       (1) Employer income tax withholding under Chapter 5747. of 125175
the Revised Code;125176

       (2) Motor fuel tax under Chapter 5735. of the Revised Code;125177

       (3) Cigarette and tobacco product tax under Chapter 5743. of 125178
the Revised Code;125179

       (4) Severance tax under Chapter 5749. of the Revised Code;125180

       (5) Use tax under Chapter 5741. of the Revised Code;125181

       (6) Commercial activity tax under Chapter 5751. of the 125182
Revised Code;125183

       (7) Financial institutions tax under Chapter 5726. of the 125184
Revised Code.125185

       (B) The tax commissioner may adopt rules requiring any 125186
payment of tax shown on such a return to be due to be made 125187
electronically in a manner approved by the commissioner.125188

       (C) A rule adopted under this section does not apply to 125189
returns or reports filed or payments made before six months after 125190
the effective date of the rule. The commissioner shall publicize 125191
any new electronic filing requirement on the department's web 125192
site. The commissioner shall educate the public of the requirement 125193
through seminars, workshops, conferences, or other outreach 125194
activities.125195

       (D) Any person required to file returns and make payments 125196
electronically under rules adopted under this section may apply to 125197
the commissioner, on a form prescribed by the commissioner, to be 125198
excused from that requirement. For good cause shown, the 125199
commissioner may excuse the applicant from the requirement and 125200
permit the applicant to file the returns or reports or make the 125201
payments required under this section by nonelectronic means.125202

       Sec. 5703.21.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (B) and 125203
(C) of this section, no agent of the department of taxation, 125204
except in the agent's report to the department or when called on 125205
to testify in any court or proceeding, shall divulge any 125206
information acquired by the agent as to the transactions, 125207
property, or business of any person while acting or claiming to 125208
act under orders of the department. Whoever violates this 125209
provision shall thereafter be disqualified from acting as an 125210
officer or employee or in any other capacity under appointment or 125211
employment of the department.125212

       (B)(1) For purposes of an audit pursuant to section 117.15 of 125213
the Revised Code, or an audit of the department pursuant to 125214
Chapter 117. of the Revised Code, or an audit, pursuant to that 125215
chapter, the objective of which is to express an opinion on a 125216
financial report or statement prepared or issued pursuant to 125217
division (A)(7) or (9) of section 126.21 of the Revised Code, the 125218
officers and employees of the auditor of state charged with 125219
conducting the audit shall have access to and the right to examine 125220
any state tax returns and state tax return information in the 125221
possession of the department to the extent that the access and 125222
examination are necessary for purposes of the audit. Any 125223
information acquired as the result of that access and examination 125224
shall not be divulged for any purpose other than as required for 125225
the audit or unless the officers and employees are required to 125226
testify in a court or proceeding under compulsion of legal 125227
process. Whoever violates this provision shall thereafter be 125228
disqualified from acting as an officer or employee or in any other 125229
capacity under appointment or employment of the auditor of state.125230

       (2) For purposes of an internal audit pursuant to section 125231
126.45 of the Revised Code, the officers and employees of the 125232
office of internal auditingaudit in the office of budget and 125233
management charged with conductingdirecting the internal audit 125234
shall have access to and the right to examine any state tax 125235
returns and state tax return information in the possession of the 125236
department to the extent that the access and examination are 125237
necessary for purposes of the internal audit. Any information 125238
acquired as the result of that access and examination shall not be 125239
divulged for any purpose other than as required for the internal 125240
audit or unless the officers and employees are required to testify 125241
in a court or proceeding under compulsion of legal process. 125242
Whoever violates this provision shall thereafter be disqualified 125243
from acting as an officer or employee or in any other capacity 125244
under appointment or employment of the office of internal auditing125245
audit.125246

        (3) As provided by section 6103(d)(2) of the Internal Revenue 125247
Code, any federal tax returns or federal tax information that the 125248
department has acquired from the internal revenue service, through 125249
federal and state statutory authority, may be disclosed to the 125250
auditor of state or the office of internal auditingaudit solely 125251
for purposes of an audit of the department.125252

       (4) For purposes of Chapter 3739. of the Revised Code, an 125253
agent of the department of taxation may share information with the 125254
division of state fire marshal that the agent finds during the 125255
course of an investigation.125256

       (C) Division (A) of this section does not prohibit any of the 125257
following:125258

       (1) Divulging information contained in applications, 125259
complaints, and related documents filed with the department under 125260
section 5715.27 of the Revised Code or in applications filed with 125261
the department under section 5715.39 of the Revised Code;125262

       (2) Providing information to the office of child support 125263
within the department of job and family services pursuant to 125264
section 3125.43 of the Revised Code;125265

       (3) Disclosing to the motor vehicle repair board any 125266
information in the possession of the department that is necessary 125267
for the board to verify the existence of an applicant's valid 125268
vendor's license and current state tax identification number under 125269
section 4775.07 of the Revised Code;125270

       (4) Providing information to the administrator of workers' 125271
compensation pursuant to sections 4123.271 and 4123.591 of the 125272
Revised Code;125273

       (5) Providing to the attorney general information the 125274
department obtains under division (J) of section 1346.01 of the 125275
Revised Code;125276

       (6) Permitting properly authorized officers, employees, or 125277
agents of a municipal corporation from inspecting reports or 125278
information pursuant to rules adopted under section 5745.16 of the 125279
Revised Code;125280

       (7) Providing information regarding the name, account number, 125281
or business address of a holder of a vendor's license issued 125282
pursuant to section 5739.17 of the Revised Code, a holder of a 125283
direct payment permit issued pursuant to section 5739.031 of the 125284
Revised Code, or a seller having a use tax account maintained 125285
pursuant to section 5741.17 of the Revised Code, or information 125286
regarding the active or inactive status of a vendor's license, 125287
direct payment permit, or seller's use tax account;125288

       (8) Releasing invoices or invoice information furnished under 125289
section 4301.433 of the Revised Code pursuant to that section;125290

       (9) Providing to a county auditor notices or documents 125291
concerning or affecting the taxable value of property in the 125292
county auditor's county. Unless authorized by law to disclose 125293
documents so provided, the county auditor shall not disclose such 125294
documents;125295

       (10) Providing to a county auditor sales or use tax return or 125296
audit information under section 333.06 of the Revised Code;125297

       (11) Subject to section 4301.441 of the Revised Code, 125298
disclosing to the appropriate state agency information in the 125299
possession of the department of taxation that is necessary to 125300
verify a permit holder's gallonage or noncompliance with taxes 125301
levied under Chapter 4301. or 4305. of the Revised Code;125302

       (12) Disclosing to the department of natural resources 125303
information in the possession of the department of taxation that 125304
is necessary for the department of taxation to verify the 125305
taxpayer's compliance with division (A)(1), (5), (6), (8), or (9) 125306
of section 5749.02 of the Revised Code and information received 125307
pursuant to section 1509.50 of the Revised Code concerning the 125308
amount due under that sectionor to allow the department of 125309
natural resources to enforce Chapter 1509. of the Revised Code;125310

       (13) Disclosing to the department of job and family services, 125311
industrial commission, and bureau of workers' compensation 125312
information in the possession of the department of taxation solely 125313
for the purpose of identifying employers that misclassify 125314
employees as independent contractors or that fail to properly 125315
report and pay employer tax liabilities. The department of 125316
taxation shall disclose only such information that is necessary to 125317
verify employer compliance with law administered by those 125318
agencies.125319

       (14) Disclosing to the Ohio casino control commission 125320
information in the possession of the department of taxation that 125321
is necessary to verify a casino operator's compliance with section 125322
5747.063 or 5753.02 of the Revised Code and sections related 125323
thereto;125324

       (15) Disclosing to the state lottery commission information 125325
in the possession of the department of taxation that is necessary 125326
to verify a lottery sales agent's compliance with section 5747.064 125327
of the Revised Code.125328

       Sec. 5703.37.  (A)(1) Except as provided in division (B) of 125329
this section, whenever service of a notice or order is required in 125330
the manner provided in this section, a copy of the notice or order 125331
shall be served upon the person affected thereby either by 125332
personal service, by certified mail, or by a delivery service 125333
authorized under section 5703.056 of the Revised Code that 125334
notifies the tax commissioner of the date of delivery.125335

       (2) In lieu of serving a copy of a notice or order through 125336
one of the means provided in division (A)(1) of this section, the 125337
commissioner may serve a notice or order upon the person affected 125338
thereby through alternative means as provided in this section, 125339
including, but not limited to, delivery by secure electronic mail 125340
as provided in division (F) of this section. Delivery by such 125341
means satisfies the requirements for delivery under this section.125342

       (B)(1)(a) If certified mail is returned because of an 125343
undeliverable address, the commissioner shall first utilize 125344
reasonable means to ascertain a new last known address, including 125345
the use of a change of address service offered by the United 125346
States postal service or an authorized delivery service under 125347
section 5703.056 of the Revised Code. If, after using reasonable 125348
means, the commissioner is unable to ascertain a new last known 125349
address, the assessment is final for purposes of section 131.02 of 125350
the Revised Code sixty days after the notice or order sent by 125351
certified mail is first returned to the commissioner, and the 125352
commissioner shall certify the notice or order, if applicable, to 125353
the attorney general for collection under section 131.02 of the 125354
Revised Code.125355

       (b) Notwithstanding certification to the attorney general 125356
under division (B)(1)(a) of this section, once the commissioner or 125357
attorney general, or the designee of either, makes an initial 125358
contact with the person to whom the notice or order is directed, 125359
the person may protest an assessment by filing a petition for 125360
reassessment within sixty days after the initial contact. The 125361
certification of an assessment under division (B)(1)(a) of this 125362
section is prima-facie evidence that delivery is complete and that 125363
the notice or order is served.125364

       (2) If mailing of a notice or order by certified mail is 125365
returned for some cause other than an undeliverable address or if 125366
a person does not access an electronic notice or order within the 125367
time provided in division (F) of this section, the commissioner 125368
shall resend the notice or order by ordinary mail. The notice or 125369
order shall show the date the commissioner sends the notice or 125370
order and include the following statement:125371

       "This notice or order is deemed to be served on the addressee 125372
under applicable law ten days from the date this notice or order 125373
was mailed by the commissioner as shown on the notice or order, 125374
and all periods within which an appeal may be filed apply from and 125375
after that date."125376

       Unless the mailing is returned because of an undeliverable 125377
address, the mailing of that information is prima-facie evidence 125378
that delivery of the notice or order was completed ten days after 125379
the commissioner sent the notice or order by ordinary mail and 125380
that the notice or order was served.125381

       If the ordinary mail is subsequently returned because of an 125382
undeliverable address, the commissioner shall proceed under 125383
division (B)(1)(a) of this section. A person may challenge the 125384
presumption of delivery and service under this division in 125385
accordance with division (C) of this section.125386

       (C)(1) A person disputing the presumption of delivery and 125387
service under division (B) of this section bears the burden of 125388
proving by a preponderance of the evidence that the address to 125389
which the notice or order was sent was not an address with which 125390
the person was associated at the time the commissioner originally 125391
mailed the notice or order by certified mail. For the purposes of 125392
this section, a person is associated with an address at the time 125393
the commissioner originally mailed the notice or order if, at that 125394
time, the person was residing, receiving legal documents, or 125395
conducting business at the address; or if, before that time, the 125396
person had conducted business at the address and, when the notice 125397
or order was mailed, the person's agent or the person's affiliate 125398
was conducting business at the address. For the purposes of this 125399
section, a person's affiliate is any other person that, at the 125400
time the notice or order was mailed, owned or controlled at least 125401
twenty per cent, as determined by voting rights, of the 125402
addressee's business.125403

       (2) If the person elects to protest an assessment certified 125404
to the attorney general for collection, the person must do so 125405
within sixty days after the attorney general's initial contact 125406
with the person. The attorney general may enter into a compromise 125407
with the person under sections 131.02 and 5703.06 of the Revised 125408
Code if the person does not file a petition for reassessment with 125409
the commissioner.125410

       (D) Nothing in this section prohibits the commissioner or the 125411
commissioner's designee from delivering a notice or order by 125412
personal service.125413

       (E) Collection actions taken pursuant to section 131.02 of 125414
the Revised Code upon any assessment being challenged under 125415
division (B)(1)(b) of this section shall be stayed upon the 125416
pendency of an appeal under this section. If a petition for 125417
reassessment is filed pursuant to this section on a claim that has 125418
been certified to the attorney general for collection, the claim 125419
shall be uncertified.125420

       (F) The commissioner may serve a notice or order upon the 125421
person affected by the notice or order through secure electronic 125422
means only with the person's consent. The commissioner must inform 125423
the recipient, electronically or by mail, that a notice or order 125424
is available for electronic review and provide instructions to 125425
access and print the notice or order. The recipient's electronic 125426
access of the notice or order satisfies the requirements for 125427
delivery under this section. If the recipient fails to access the 125428
notice or order electronically within ten business days, then the 125429
commissioner shall inform the recipient a second time, 125430
electronically or by mail, that a notice or order is available for 125431
electronic review and provide instructions to access and print the 125432
notice or order. If the recipient fails to access the notice or 125433
order electronically within ten business days of the second 125434
notification, the notice or order shall be served upon the person 125435
through one of the means provided in division (A)(1)(B)(2) of this 125436
section. 125437

       (G) As used in this section:125438

       (1) "Last known address" means the address the department has 125439
at the time the document is originally sent by certified mail, or 125440
any address the department can ascertain using reasonable means 125441
such as the use of a change of address service offered by the 125442
United States postal service or an authorized delivery service 125443
under section 5703.056 of the Revised Code.125444

       (2) "Undeliverable address" means an address to which the 125445
United States postal service or an authorized delivery service 125446
under section 5703.056 of the Revised Code is not able to deliver 125447
a notice or order, except when the reason for nondelivery is 125448
because the addressee fails to acknowledge or accept the notice or 125449
order.125450

       Sec. 5703.75.  This section applies to any tax payable to the 125451
state and administered by the tax commissioner. If the total 125452
amount of any such tax shown to be due on a return, amended 125453
return, or notice does not exceed one dollar, the taxpayer shall 125454
not be required to remit the amount due. If the total amount of a 125455
taxpayer's overpayment of any such tax does not exceed one dollar, 125456
the tax commissioner shall not be required to refund the 125457
overpayment.125458

       Sec. 5703.76. Any payment or distribution of money that the 125459
tax commissioner is required by law to make to a political 125460
subdivision of this state, an officer thereof, or a political 125461
party shall be made by electronic funds transfer. The commissioner 125462
shall promulgate any rules necessary to administer this section.125463

       Sec. 5703.82. (A) Not later than April 1, 2009, the 125464
department of taxation shall acquire the necessary hardware, 125465
software, and services to establish and implement a tax discovery 125466
data system to increase the efficiency of tax collections in the 125467
state. The system must be fully integrated and pre-staged for the 125468
purposes of assisting in revenue analysis, discovering 125469
noncompliant taxpayers, and collecting taxes from those taxpayers. 125470
The system shall consolidate tax data from various mainframe 125471
systems and operate as a single tax discovery data system. The 125472
department shall contract, pursuant to a competitive bidding 125473
process, for the necessary hardware, software, and services to 125474
implement the tax discovery data system.125475

       (B) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 125476
discovery project fund. All money to the credit of the fund shall 125477
be used to pay the costs of implementing and operating the tax 125478
discovery data system and to defray the costs incurred by the 125479
department of taxation in administering the system.125480

       (C) Beginning July 1, 2009, on or before the first day of 125481
January, April, July, and October of each calendar year, the tax 125482
commissioner shall determine and certify to the director of budget 125483
and management the amount needed to pay the costs of operating the 125484
tax discovery data system in the previous calendar quarter and the 125485
costs incurred in the previous calendar quarter by the department 125486
of taxation in administering the system. The director shall 125487
provide for payment from the general revenue fund to the discovery 125488
project fund of the amount so certified.125489

       Sec. 5705.01.  As used in this chapter:125490

       (A) "Subdivision" means any county; municipal corporation; 125491
township; township police district; joint police district; 125492
township fire district; joint fire district; joint ambulance 125493
district; joint emergency medical services district; fire and 125494
ambulance district; joint recreation district; township waste 125495
disposal district; township road district; community college 125496
district; technical college district; detention facility district; 125497
a district organized under section 2151.65 of the Revised Code; a 125498
combined district organized under sections 2152.41 and 2151.65 of 125499
the Revised Code; a joint-county alcohol, drug addiction, and 125500
mental health service district; a drainage improvement district 125501
created under section 6131.52 of the Revised Code; a lake 125502
facilities authority created under Chapter 353. of the Revised 125503
Code; a union cemetery district; a county school financing 125504
district; a city, local, exempted village, cooperative education, 125505
or joint vocational school district; or a regional student 125506
education district created under section 3313.83 of the Revised 125507
Code.125508

       (B) "Municipal corporation" means all municipal corporations, 125509
including those that have adopted a charter under Article XVIII, 125510
Ohio Constitution.125511

       (C) "Taxing authority" or "bond issuing authority" means, in 125512
the case of any county, the board of county commissioners; in the 125513
case of a municipal corporation, the council or other legislative 125514
authority of the municipal corporation; in the case of a city, 125515
local, exempted village, cooperative education, or joint 125516
vocational school district, the board of education; in the case of 125517
a community college district, the board of trustees of the 125518
district; in the case of a technical college district, the board 125519
of trustees of the district; in the case of a detention facility 125520
district, a district organized under section 2151.65 of the 125521
Revised Code, or a combined district organized under sections 125522
2152.41 and 2151.65 of the Revised Code, the joint board of county 125523
commissioners of the district; in the case of a township, the 125524
board of township trustees; in the case of a joint police 125525
district, the joint police district board; in the case of a joint 125526
fire district, the board of fire district trustees; in the case of 125527
a joint recreation district, the joint recreation district board 125528
of trustees; in the case of a joint-county alcohol, drug 125529
addiction, and mental health service district, the district's 125530
board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services; in 125531
the case of a joint ambulance district or a fire and ambulance 125532
district, the board of trustees of the district; in the case of a 125533
union cemetery district, the legislative authority of the 125534
municipal corporation and the board of township trustees, acting 125535
jointly as described in section 759.341 of the Revised Code; in 125536
the case of a drainage improvement district, the board of county 125537
commissioners of the county in which the drainage district is 125538
located; in the case of a lake facilities authority, the board of 125539
directors; in the case of a joint emergency medical services 125540
district, the joint board of county commissioners of all counties 125541
in which all or any part of the district lies; and in the case of 125542
a township police district, a township fire district, a township 125543
road district, or a township waste disposal district, the board of 125544
township trustees of the township in which the district is 125545
located. "Taxing authority" also means the educational service 125546
center governing board that serves as the taxing authority of a 125547
county school financing district as provided in section 3311.50 of 125548
the Revised Code, and the board of directors of a regional student 125549
education district created under section 3313.83 of the Revised 125550
Code.125551

       (D) "Fiscal officer" in the case of a county, means the 125552
county auditor; in the case of a municipal corporation, the city 125553
auditor or village clerk, or an officer who, by virtue of the 125554
charter, has the duties and functions of the city auditor or 125555
village clerk, except that in the case of a municipal university 125556
the board of directors of which have assumed, in the manner 125557
provided by law, the custody and control of the funds of the 125558
university, the chief accounting officer of the university shall 125559
perform, with respect to the funds, the duties vested in the 125560
fiscal officer of the subdivision by sections 5705.41 and 5705.44 125561
of the Revised Code; in the case of a school district, the 125562
treasurer of the board of education; in the case of a county 125563
school financing district, the treasurer of the educational 125564
service center governing board that serves as the taxing 125565
authority; in the case of a township, the township fiscal officer; 125566
in the case of a joint police district, the treasurer of the 125567
district; in the case of a joint fire district, the clerk of the 125568
board of fire district trustees; in the case of a joint ambulance 125569
district, the clerk of the board of trustees of the district; in 125570
the case of a joint emergency medical services district, the 125571
person appointed as fiscal officer pursuant to division (D) of 125572
section 307.053 of the Revised Code; in the case of a fire and 125573
ambulance district, the person appointed as fiscal officer 125574
pursuant to division (B) of section 505.375 of the Revised Code; 125575
in the case of a joint recreation district, the person designated 125576
pursuant to section 755.15 of the Revised Code; in the case of a 125577
union cemetery district, the clerk of the municipal corporation 125578
designated in section 759.34 of the Revised Code; in the case of a 125579
children's home district, educational service center, general 125580
health district, joint-county alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 125581
health service district, county library district, detention 125582
facility district, district organized under section 2151.65 of the 125583
Revised Code, a combined district organized under sections 2152.41 125584
and 2151.65 of the Revised Code, or a metropolitan park district 125585
for which no treasurer has been appointed pursuant to section 125586
1545.07 of the Revised Code, the county auditor of the county 125587
designated by law to act as the auditor of the district; in the 125588
case of a metropolitan park district which has appointed a 125589
treasurer pursuant to section 1545.07 of the Revised Code, that 125590
treasurer; in the case of a drainage improvement district, the 125591
auditor of the county in which the drainage improvement district 125592
is located; in the case of a lake facilities authority, the fiscal 125593
officer designated under section 353.02 of the Revised Code; in 125594
the case of a regional student education district, the fiscal 125595
officer appointed pursuant to section 3313.83 of the Revised Code; 125596
and in all other cases, the officer responsible for keeping the 125597
appropriation accounts and drawing warrants for the expenditure of 125598
the moneys of the district or taxing unit.125599

       (E) "Permanent improvement" or "improvement" means any 125600
property, asset, or improvement with an estimated life or 125601
usefulness of five years or more, including land and interests 125602
therein, and reconstructions, enlargements, and extensions thereof 125603
having an estimated life or usefulness of five years or more.125604

       (F) "Current operating expenses" and "current expenses" mean 125605
the lawful expenditures of a subdivision, except those for 125606
permanent improvements, and except payments for interest, sinking 125607
fund, and retirement of bonds, notes, and certificates of 125608
indebtedness of the subdivision.125609

       (G) "Debt charges" means interest, sinking fund, and 125610
retirement charges on bonds, notes, or certificates of 125611
indebtedness.125612

       (H) "Taxing unit" means any subdivision or other governmental 125613
district having authority to levy taxes on the property in the 125614
district or issue bonds that constitute a charge against the 125615
property of the district, including conservancy districts, 125616
metropolitan park districts, sanitary districts, road districts, 125617
and other districts.125618

       (I) "District authority" means any board of directors, 125619
trustees, commissioners, or other officers controlling a district 125620
institution or activity that derives its income or funds from two 125621
or more subdivisions, such as the educational service center, the 125622
trustees of district children's homes, the district board of 125623
health, a joint-county alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 125624
service district's board of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 125625
health services, detention facility districts, a joint recreation 125626
district board of trustees, districts organized under section 125627
2151.65 of the Revised Code, combined districts organized under 125628
sections 2152.41 and 2151.65 of the Revised Code, and other such 125629
boards.125630

       (J) "Tax list" and "tax duplicate" mean the general tax lists 125631
and duplicates prescribed by sections 319.28 and 319.29 of the 125632
Revised Code.125633

       (K) "Property" as applied to a tax levy means taxable 125634
property listed on general tax lists and duplicates.125635

       (L) "Association library district" means a territory, the 125636
boundaries of which are defined by the state library board 125637
pursuant to division (I) of section 3375.01 of the Revised Code, 125638
in which a library association or private corporation maintains a 125639
free public library.125640

       (M) "Library district" means a territory, the boundaries of 125641
which are defined by the state library board pursuant to section 125642
3375.01 of the Revised Code, in which the board of trustees of a 125643
county, municipal corporation, school district, or township public 125644
library maintains a free public library.125645

       (N) "Qualifying library levy" means either of the following:125646

       (1) A levy for the support of a library association or 125647
private corporation that has an association library district with 125648
boundaries that are not identical to those of a subdivision;125649

       (2) A levy proposed under section 5705.23 of the Revised Code 125650
for the support of the board of trustees of a public library that 125651
has a library district with boundaries that are not identical to 125652
those of a subdivision.125653

       (O) "School library district" means a school district in 125654
which a free public library has been established that is under the 125655
control and management of a board of library trustees as provided 125656
in section 3375.15 of the Revised Code.125657

       Sec. 5705.19.  This section does not apply to school 125658
districts or, county school financing districts, or lake 125659
facilities authorities.125660

       The taxing authority of any subdivision at any time and in 125661
any year, by vote of two-thirds of all the members of the taxing 125662
authority, may declare by resolution and certify the resolution to 125663
the board of elections not less than ninety days before the 125664
election upon which it will be voted that the amount of taxes that 125665
may be raised within the ten-mill limitation will be insufficient 125666
to provide for the necessary requirements of the subdivision and 125667
that it is necessary to levy a tax in excess of that limitation 125668
for any of the following purposes:125669

       (A) For current expenses of the subdivision, except that the 125670
total levy for current expenses of a detention facility district 125671
or district organized under section 2151.65 of the Revised Code 125672
shall not exceed two mills and that the total levy for current 125673
expenses of a combined district organized under sections 2151.65 125674
and 2152.41 of the Revised Code shall not exceed four mills;125675

       (B) For the payment of debt charges on certain described 125676
bonds, notes, or certificates of indebtedness of the subdivision 125677
issued subsequent to January 1, 1925;125678

       (C) For the debt charges on all bonds, notes, and 125679
certificates of indebtedness issued and authorized to be issued 125680
prior to January 1, 1925;125681

       (D) For a public library of, or supported by, the subdivision 125682
under whatever law organized or authorized to be supported;125683

       (E) For a municipal university, not to exceed two mills over 125684
the limitation of one mill prescribed in section 3349.13 of the 125685
Revised Code;125686

       (F) For the construction or acquisition of any specific 125687
permanent improvement or class of improvements that the taxing 125688
authority of the subdivision may include in a single bond issue;125689

       (G) For the general construction, reconstruction, 125690
resurfacing, and repair of streets, roads, and bridges in 125691
municipal corporations, counties, or townships;125692

       (H) For parks and recreational purposes;125693

       (I) For the purpose of providing and maintaining fire 125694
apparatus, appliances, buildings, or sites therefor, or sources of 125695
water supply and materials therefor, or the establishment and 125696
maintenance of lines of fire alarm telegraph, or the payment of 125697
firefighting companies or permanent, part-time, or volunteer 125698
firefighting, emergency medical service, administrative, or 125699
communications personnel to operate the same, including the 125700
payment of any employer contributions required for such personnel 125701
under section 145.48 or 742.34 of the Revised Code, or the 125702
purchase of ambulance equipment, or the provision of ambulance, 125703
paramedic, or other emergency medical services operated by a fire 125704
department or firefighting company;125705

       (J) For the purpose of providing and maintaining motor 125706
vehicles, communications, other equipment, buildings, and sites 125707
for such buildings used directly in the operation of a police 125708
department, or the payment of salaries of permanent or part-time 125709
police, communications, or administrative personnel to operate the 125710
same, including the payment of any employer contributions required 125711
for such personnel under section 145.48 or 742.33 of the Revised 125712
Code, or the payment of the costs incurred by townships as a 125713
result of contracts made with other political subdivisions in 125714
order to obtain police protection, or the provision of ambulance 125715
or emergency medical services operated by a police department;125716

       (K) For the maintenance and operation of a county home or 125717
detention facility;125718

       (L) For community mental retardation and developmental 125719
disabilities programs and services pursuant to Chapter 5126. of 125720
the Revised Code, except that the procedure for such levies shall 125721
be as provided in section 5705.222 of the Revised Code;125722

       (M) For regional planning;125723

       (N) For a county's share of the cost of maintaining and 125724
operating schools, district detention facilities, forestry camps, 125725
or other facilities, or any combination thereof, established under 125726
section 2151.65 or 2152.41 of the Revised Code or both of those 125727
sections;125728

       (O) For providing for flood defense, providing and 125729
maintaining a flood wall or pumps, and other purposes to prevent 125730
floods;125731

       (P) For maintaining and operating sewage disposal plants and 125732
facilities;125733

       (Q) For the purpose of purchasing, acquiring, constructing, 125734
enlarging, improving, equipping, repairing, maintaining, or 125735
operating, or any combination of the foregoing, a county transit 125736
system pursuant to sections 306.01 to 306.13 of the Revised Code, 125737
or of making any payment to a board of county commissioners 125738
operating a transit system or a county transit board pursuant to 125739
section 306.06 of the Revised Code;125740

       (R) For the subdivision's share of the cost of acquiring or 125741
constructing any schools, forestry camps, detention facilities, or 125742
other facilities, or any combination thereof, under section 125743
2151.65 or 2152.41 of the Revised Code or both of those sections;125744

       (S) For the prevention, control, and abatement of air 125745
pollution;125746

       (T) For maintaining and operating cemeteries;125747

       (U) For providing ambulance service, emergency medical 125748
service, or both;125749

       (V) For providing for the collection and disposal of garbage 125750
or refuse, including yard waste;125751

       (W) For the payment of the police officer employers' 125752
contribution or the firefighter employers' contribution required 125753
under sections 742.33 and 742.34 of the Revised Code;125754

       (X) For the construction and maintenance of a drainage 125755
improvement pursuant to section 6131.52 of the Revised Code;125756

       (Y) For providing or maintaining senior citizens services or 125757
facilities as authorized by section 307.694, 307.85, 505.70, or 125758
505.706 or division (EE) of section 717.01 of the Revised Code;125759

       (Z) For the provision and maintenance of zoological park 125760
services and facilities as authorized under section 307.76 of the 125761
Revised Code;125762

       (AA) For the maintenance and operation of a free public 125763
museum of art, science, or history;125764

       (BB) For the establishment and operation of a 9-1-1 system, 125765
as defined in section 5507.01128.01 of the Revised Code;125766

       (CC) For the purpose of acquiring, rehabilitating, or 125767
developing rail property or rail service. As used in this 125768
division, "rail property" and "rail service" have the same 125769
meanings as in section 4981.01 of the Revised Code. This division 125770
applies only to a county, township, or municipal corporation.125771

       (DD) For the purpose of acquiring property for, constructing, 125772
operating, and maintaining community centers as provided for in 125773
section 755.16 of the Revised Code;125774

       (EE) For the creation and operation of an office or joint 125775
office of economic development, for any economic development 125776
purpose of the office, and to otherwise provide for the 125777
establishment and operation of a program of economic development 125778
pursuant to sections 307.07 and 307.64 of the Revised Code, or to 125779
the extent that the expenses of a county land reutilization 125780
corporation organized under Chapter 1724. of the Revised Code are 125781
found by the board of county commissioners to constitute the 125782
promotion of economic development, for the payment of such 125783
operations and expenses;125784

       (FF) For the purpose of acquiring, establishing, 125785
constructing, improving, equipping, maintaining, or operating, or 125786
any combination of the foregoing, a township airport, landing 125787
field, or other air navigation facility pursuant to section 505.15 125788
of the Revised Code;125789

       (GG) For the payment of costs incurred by a township as a 125790
result of a contract made with a county pursuant to section 125791
505.263 of the Revised Code in order to pay all or any part of the 125792
cost of constructing, maintaining, repairing, or operating a water 125793
supply improvement;125794

       (HH) For a board of township trustees to acquire, other than 125795
by appropriation, an ownership interest in land, water, or 125796
wetlands, or to restore or maintain land, water, or wetlands in 125797
which the board has an ownership interest, not for purposes of 125798
recreation, but for the purposes of protecting and preserving the 125799
natural, scenic, open, or wooded condition of the land, water, or 125800
wetlands against modification or encroachment resulting from 125801
occupation, development, or other use, which may be styled as 125802
protecting or preserving "greenspace" in the resolution, notice of 125803
election, or ballot form. Except as otherwise provided in this 125804
division, land is not acquired for purposes of recreation, even if 125805
the land is used for recreational purposes, so long as no 125806
building, structure, or fixture used for recreational purposes is 125807
permanently attached or affixed to the land. Except as otherwise 125808
provided in this division, land that previously has been acquired 125809
in a township for these greenspace purposes may subsequently be 125810
used for recreational purposes if the board of township trustees 125811
adopts a resolution approving that use and no building, structure, 125812
or fixture used for recreational purposes is permanently attached 125813
or affixed to the land. The authorization to use greenspace land 125814
for recreational use does not apply to land located in a township 125815
that had a population, at the time it passed its first greenspace 125816
levy, of more than thirty-eight thousand within a county that had 125817
a population, at that time, of at least eight hundred sixty 125818
thousand.125819

       (II) For the support by a county of a crime victim assistance 125820
program that is provided and maintained by a county agency or a 125821
private, nonprofit corporation or association under section 307.62 125822
of the Revised Code;125823

       (JJ) For any or all of the purposes set forth in divisions 125824
(I) and (J) of this section. This division applies only to a 125825
township.125826

       (KK) For a countywide public safety communications system 125827
under section 307.63 of the Revised Code. This division applies 125828
only to counties.125829

       (LL) For the support by a county of criminal justice services 125830
under section 307.45 of the Revised Code;125831

       (MM) For the purpose of maintaining and operating a jail or 125832
other detention facility as defined in section 2921.01 of the 125833
Revised Code;125834

       (NN) For purchasing, maintaining, or improving, or any 125835
combination of the foregoing, real estate on which to hold, and 125836
the operating expenses of, agricultural fairs operated by a county 125837
agricultural society or independent agricultural society under 125838
Chapter 1711. of the Revised Code. This division applies only to a 125839
county.125840

       (OO) For constructing, rehabilitating, repairing, or 125841
maintaining sidewalks, walkways, trails, bicycle pathways, or 125842
similar improvements, or acquiring ownership interests in land 125843
necessary for the foregoing improvements;125844

       (PP) For both of the purposes set forth in divisions (G) and 125845
(OO) of this section.125846

       (QQ) For both of the purposes set forth in divisions (H) and 125847
(HH) of this section. This division applies only to a township.125848

       (RR) For the legislative authority of a municipal 125849
corporation, board of county commissioners of a county, or board 125850
of township trustees of a township to acquire agricultural 125851
easements, as defined in section 5301.67 of the Revised Code, and 125852
to supervise and enforce the easements.125853

       (SS) For both of the purposes set forth in divisions (BB) and 125854
(KK) of this section. This division applies only to a county.125855

       (TT) For the maintenance and operation of a facility that is 125856
organized in whole or in part to promote the sciences and natural 125857
history under section 307.761 of the Revised Code.125858

       (UU) For the creation and operation of a county land 125859
reutilization corporation and for any programs or activities of 125860
the corporation found by the board of directors of the corporation 125861
to be consistent with the purposes for which the corporation is 125862
organized;125863

       (VV) For construction and maintenance of improvements and 125864
expenses of soil and water conservation district programs under 125865
Chapter 1515. of the Revised Code;125866

        (WW) For the Ohio cooperativeOSU extension service fund 125867
created under section 3335.35 of the Revised Code for the purposes 125868
prescribed under section 3335.36 of the Revised Code for the 125869
benefit of the citizens of a county. This division applies only to 125870
a county.125871

       (XX) For a municipal corporation that withdraws or proposes 125872
by resolution to withdraw from a regional transit authority under 125873
section 306.55 of the Revised Code to provide transportation 125874
services for the movement of persons within, from, or to the 125875
municipal corporation;125876

       (YY) For any combination of the purposes specified in 125877
divisions (NN), (VV), and (WW) of this section. This division 125878
applies only to a county.125879

       The resolution shall be confined to the purpose or purposes 125880
described in one division of this section, to which the revenue 125881
derived therefrom shall be applied. The existence in any other 125882
division of this section of authority to levy a tax for any part 125883
or all of the same purpose or purposes does not preclude the use 125884
of such revenues for any part of the purpose or purposes of the 125885
division under which the resolution is adopted.125886

       The resolution shall specify the amount of the increase in 125887
rate that it is necessary to levy, the purpose of that increase in 125888
rate, and the number of years during which the increase in rate 125889
shall be in effect, which may or may not include a levy upon the 125890
duplicate of the current year. The number of years may be any 125891
number not exceeding five, except as follows:125892

       (1) When the additional rate is for the payment of debt 125893
charges, the increased rate shall be for the life of the 125894
indebtedness.125895

       (2) When the additional rate is for any of the following, the 125896
increased rate shall be for a continuing period of time:125897

       (a) For the current expenses for a detention facility 125898
district, a district organized under section 2151.65 of the 125899
Revised Code, or a combined district organized under sections 125900
2151.65 and 2152.41 of the Revised Code;125901

       (b) For providing a county's share of the cost of maintaining 125902
and operating schools, district detention facilities, forestry 125903
camps, or other facilities, or any combination thereof, 125904
established under section 2151.65 or 2152.41 of the Revised Code 125905
or under both of those sections.125906

       (3) When the additional rate is for either of the following, 125907
the increased rate may be for a continuing period of time:125908

       (a) For the purposes set forth in division (I), (J), (U), or 125909
(KK) of this section;125910

       (b) For the maintenance and operation of a joint recreation 125911
district.125912

       (4) When the increase is for the purpose or purposes set 125913
forth in division (D), (G), (H), (CC), or (PP) of this section, 125914
the tax levy may be for any specified number of years or for a 125915
continuing period of time, as set forth in the resolution.125916

       (5) When the additional rate is for the purpose described in 125917
division (Z) of this section, the increased rate shall be for any 125918
number of years not exceeding ten.125919

       A levy for one of the purposes set forth in division (G), 125920
(I), (J), or (U) of this section may be reduced pursuant to 125921
section 5705.261 or 5705.31 of the Revised Code. A levy for one of 125922
the purposes set forth in division (G), (I), (J), or (U) of this 125923
section may also be terminated or permanently reduced by the 125924
taxing authority if it adopts a resolution stating that the 125925
continuance of the levy is unnecessary and the levy shall be 125926
terminated or that the millage is excessive and the levy shall be 125927
decreased by a designated amount.125928

       A resolution of a detention facility district, a district 125929
organized under section 2151.65 of the Revised Code, or a combined 125930
district organized under both sections 2151.65 and 2152.41 of the 125931
Revised Code may include both current expenses and other purposes, 125932
provided that the resolution shall apportion the annual rate of 125933
levy between the current expenses and the other purpose or 125934
purposes. The apportionment need not be the same for each year of 125935
the levy, but the respective portions of the rate actually levied 125936
each year for the current expenses and the other purpose or 125937
purposes shall be limited by the apportionment.125938

       Whenever a board of county commissioners, acting either as 125939
the taxing authority of its county or as the taxing authority of a 125940
sewer district or subdistrict created under Chapter 6117. of the 125941
Revised Code, by resolution declares it necessary to levy a tax in 125942
excess of the ten-mill limitation for the purpose of constructing, 125943
improving, or extending sewage disposal plants or sewage systems, 125944
the tax may be in effect for any number of years not exceeding 125945
twenty, and the proceeds of the tax, notwithstanding the general 125946
provisions of this section, may be used to pay debt charges on any 125947
obligations issued and outstanding on behalf of the subdivision 125948
for the purposes enumerated in this paragraph, provided that any 125949
such obligations have been specifically described in the 125950
resolution.125951

       A resolution adopted by the legislative authority of a 125952
municipal corporation that is for the purpose in division (XX) of 125953
this section may be combined with the purpose provided in section 125954
306.55 of the Revised Code, by vote of two-thirds of all members 125955
of the legislative authority. The legislative authority may 125956
certify the resolution to the board of elections as a combined 125957
question. The question appearing on the ballot shall be as 125958
provided in section 5705.252 of the Revised Code.125959

       The resolution shall go into immediate effect upon its 125960
passage, and no publication of the resolution is necessary other 125961
than that provided for in the notice of election.125962

       When the electors of a subdivision or, in the case of a 125963
qualifying library levy for the support of a library association 125964
or private corporation, the electors of the association library 125965
district, have approved a tax levy under this section, the taxing 125966
authority of the subdivision may anticipate a fraction of the 125967
proceeds of the levy and issue anticipation notes in accordance 125968
with section 5705.191 or 5705.193 of the Revised Code.125969

       Sec. 5705.192.  (A) For the purposes of this section only, 125970
"taxing authority" includes a township board of park commissioners 125971
appointed under section 511.18 of the Revised Code.125972

       (B) A taxing authority may propose to replace an existing 125973
levy that the taxing authority is authorized to levy, regardless 125974
of the section of the Revised Code under which the authority is 125975
granted, except a school district emergency levy proposed pursuant 125976
to sections 5705.194 to 5705.197 of the Revised Code. The taxing 125977
authority may propose to replace the existing levy in its entirety 125978
at the rate at which it is authorized to be levied; may propose to 125979
replace a portion of the existing levy at a lesser rate; or may 125980
propose to replace the existing levy in its entirety and increase 125981
the rate at which it is levied. If the taxing authority proposes 125982
to replace an existing levy, the proposed levy shall be called a 125983
replacement levy and shall be so designated on the ballot. Except 125984
as otherwise provided in this division, a replacement levy shall 125985
be limited to the purpose of the existing levy, and shall appear 125986
separately on the ballot from, and shall not be conjoined with, 125987
the renewal of any other existing levy. In the case of an existing 125988
school district levy imposed under section 5705.21 of the Revised 125989
Code for the purpose specified in division (F) of section 5705.19 125990
of the Revised Code, or in the case of an existing school district 125991
levy imposed under section 5705.217 of the Revised Code for the 125992
acquisition, construction, enlargement, renovation, and financing 125993
of permanent improvements, the replacement for that existing levy 125994
may be for the same purpose or for the purpose of general 125995
permanent improvements as defined in section 5705.21 of the 125996
Revised Code.125997

        The resolution proposing a replacement levy shall specify the 125998
purpose of the levy; its proposed rate expressed in mills; whether 125999
the proposed rate is the same as the rate of the existing levy, a 126000
reduction, or an increase; the extent of any reduction or increase 126001
expressed in mills; the first calendar year in which the levy will 126002
be due; and the term of the levy, expressed in years or, if 126003
applicable, that it will be levied for a continuing period of 126004
time.126005

       The sections of the Revised Code governing the maximum rate 126006
and term of the existing levy, the contents of the resolution that 126007
proposed the levy, the adoption of the resolution, the 126008
arrangements for the submission of the question of the levy, and 126009
notice of the election also govern the respective provisions of 126010
the proposal to replace the existing levy, except as provided in 126011
divisions (B)(1) to (3) of this section:126012

        (1) In the case of an existing school district levy that is126013
imposed under section 5705.21 of the Revised Code for the purpose 126014
specified in division (F) of section 5705.19 of the Revised Code 126015
or under section 5705.217 of the Revised Code for the acquisition, 126016
construction, enlargement, renovation, and financing of permanent 126017
improvements, and that is to be replaced by a levy for general 126018
permanent improvements, the maximum term of the replacement levy 126019
is not limited to the term of the existing levy and may be for a 126020
continuing period of time.126021

       (2) The date on which the election is held shall be as 126022
follows:126023

       (a) For the replacement of a levy with a fixed term of years, 126024
the date of the general election held during the last year the 126025
existing levy may be extended on the real and public utility 126026
property tax list and duplicate, or the date of any election held 126027
in the ensuing year;126028

       (b) For the replacement of a levy imposed for a continuing 126029
period of time, the date of any election held in any year after 126030
the year the levy to be replaced is first approved by the 126031
electors, except that only one election on the question of 126032
replacing the levy may be held during any calendar year.126033

       The failure by the electors to approve a proposal to replace 126034
a levy imposed for a continuing period of time does not terminate 126035
the existing continuing levy.126036

       (3) In the case of an existing school district levy imposed 126037
under division (B) of section 5705.21, division (C) of section 126038
5705.212, or division (J) of section 5705.218 of the Revised Code, 126039
the rates allocated to the municipal school district and to 126040
partnering community schools each may be increased or decreased or 126041
remain the same, and the total rate may be increased, decreased, 126042
or remain the same.126043

       (C) The form of the ballot at the election on the question of 126044
a replacement levy shall be as follows:126045

       "A replacement of a tax for the benefit of .......... (name 126046
of subdivision or public library) for the purpose of .......... 126047
(the purpose stated in the resolution) at a rate not exceeding 126048
.......... mills for each one dollar of valuation, which amounts 126049
to .......... (rate expressed in dollars and cents) for each one 126050
hundred dollars in valuation, for .......... (number of years levy 126051
is to run, or that it will be levied for a continuous period of 126052
time)126053

        126054

 FOR THE TAX LEVY 126055
 AGAINST THE TAX LEVY  " 126056

        126057

       If the replacement levy is proposed by a municipal school 126058
district to replace an existing tax levied under division (B) of 126059
section 5705.21, division (C)(1) of section 5705.212, or division 126060
(J) of section 5705.218 of the Revised Code, the form of the 126061
ballot shall be modified by adding, after the phrase "each one 126062
dollar of valuation," the following: "(of which ...... mills is to 126063
be allocated to partnering community schools)."126064

       If the proposal is to replace an existing levy and increase 126065
the rate of the existing levy, the form of the ballot shall be 126066
changed by adding the words ".......... mills of an existing levy 126067
and an increase of .......... mills, to constitute" after the 126068
words "a replacement of." If the proposal is to replace only a 126069
portion of an existing levy, the form of the ballot shall be 126070
changed by adding the words "a portion of an existing levy, being 126071
a reduction of .......... mills, to constitute" after the words "a 126072
replacement of." If the existing levy is imposed under division 126073
(B) of section 5705.21, division (C)(1) of section 5705.212, or 126074
division (J) of section 5705.218 of the Revised Code, the form of 126075
the ballot also shall state the portion of the total increased 126076
rate or of the total rate as reduced that is to be allocated to 126077
partnering community schools. 126078

       If the tax is to be placed on the tax list of the current tax 126079
year, the form of the ballot shall be modified by adding at the 126080
end of the form the phrase ", commencing in .......... (first year 126081
the replacement tax is to be levied), first due in calendar year 126082
.......... (first calendar year in which the tax shall be due)."126083

       The question covered by the resolution shall be submitted as 126084
a separate proposition, but may be printed on the same ballot with 126085
any other proposition submitted at the same election, other than 126086
the election of officers. More than one such question may be 126087
submitted at the same election.126088

       (D) Two existing levies, or any portion of those levies, may 126089
be combined into one replacement levy, so long as both of the 126090
existing levies are for the same purpose and either both are due 126091
to expire the same year or both are for a continuing period of 126092
time. The question of combining all or portions of the two 126093
existing levies into the replacement levy shall appear as one 126094
ballot proposition before the electors. If the electors approve 126095
the ballot proposition, all or the stated portions of the two 126096
existing levies are replaced by one replacement levy.126097

       (E) A levy approved in excess of the ten-mill limitation 126098
under this section shall be certified to the tax commissioner. In 126099
the first year of a levy approved under this section, the levy 126100
shall be extended on the tax lists after the February settlement 126101
succeeding the election at which the levy was approved. If the 126102
levy is to be placed on the tax lists of the current year, as 126103
specified in the resolution providing for its submission, the 126104
result of the election shall be certified immediately after the 126105
canvass by the board of elections to the taxing authority, which 126106
shall forthwith make the necessary levy and certify it to the 126107
county auditor, who shall extend it on the tax lists for 126108
collection. After the first year, the levy shall be included in 126109
the annual tax budget that is certified to the county budget 126110
commission.126111

       If notes are authorized to be issued in anticipation of the 126112
proceeds of the existing levy, notes may be issued in anticipation 126113
of the proceeds of the replacement levy, and such issuance is 126114
subject to the terms and limitations governing the issuance of 126115
notes in anticipation of the proceeds of the existing levy.126116

       (F) This section does not authorize a tax to be levied in any 126117
year after the year in which revenue is not needed for the purpose 126118
for which the tax is levied.126119

       Sec. 5705.21.  (A) At any time, the board of education of any 126120
city, local, exempted village, cooperative education, or joint 126121
vocational school district, by a vote of two-thirds of all its 126122
members, may declare by resolution that the amount of taxes which 126123
may be raised within the ten-mill limitation by levies on the 126124
current tax duplicate will be insufficient to provide an adequate 126125
amount for the necessary requirements of the school district, that 126126
it is necessary to levy a tax in excess of such limitation for one 126127
of the purposes specified in division (A), (D), (F), (H), or (DD) 126128
of section 5705.19 of the Revised Code, for general permanent 126129
improvements, for the purpose of operating a cultural center, for 126130
the purpose of providing for school safety and security, or for 126131
the purpose of providing education technology, and that the 126132
question of such additional tax levy shall be submitted to the 126133
electors of the school district at a special election on a day to 126134
be specified in the resolution. In the case of a qualifying 126135
library levy for the support of a library association or private 126136
corporation, the question shall be submitted to the electors of 126137
the association library district. If the resolution states that 126138
the levy is for the purpose of operating a cultural center, the 126139
ballot shall state that the levy is "for the purpose of operating 126140
the .......... (name of cultural center)."126141

       As used in this division, "cultural center" means a 126142
freestanding building, separate from a public school building, 126143
that is open to the public for educational, musical, artistic, and 126144
cultural purposes; "education technology" means, but is not 126145
limited to, computer hardware, equipment, materials, and 126146
accessories, equipment used for two-way audio or video, and 126147
software; and "general permanent improvements" means permanent 126148
improvements without regard to the limitation of division (F) of 126149
section 5705.19 of the Revised Code that the improvements be a 126150
specific improvement or a class of improvements that may be 126151
included in a single bond issue.126152

        A resolution adopted under this division shall be confined to 126153
a single purpose and shall specify the amount of the increase in 126154
rate that it is necessary to levy, the purpose of the levy, and 126155
the number of years during which the increase in rate shall be in 126156
effect. The number of years may be any number not exceeding five 126157
or, if the levy is for current expenses of the district or for 126158
general permanent improvements, for a continuing period of time. 126159

       (B)(1) The board of education of a municipal school district, 126160
by resolution, may declare that it is necessary to levy a tax in 126161
excess of the ten-mill limitation for the purpose of paying the 126162
current expenses of the district and of partnering community 126163
schools and that the question of the additional tax levy shall be 126164
submitted to the electors of the school district at a special 126165
election on a day to be specified in the resolution. The 126166
resolution shall state the purpose of the levy, the rate of the 126167
tax expressed in mills per dollar of taxable value, the number of 126168
such mills to be levied for the current expenses of the partnering 126169
community schools and the number of such mills to be levied for 126170
the current expenses of the school district, the number of years 126171
the tax will be levied, and the first year the tax will be levied. 126172
The number of years the tax may be levied may be any number not 126173
exceeding ten years, or for a continuing period of time.126174

       The levy of a tax for the current expenses of a partnering 126175
community school under this section and the distribution of 126176
proceeds from the tax by a municipal school district to partnering 126177
community schools is hereby determined to be a proper public 126178
purpose.126179

       (2) The form of the ballot at an election held pursuant to 126180
division (B) of this section shall be as follows:126181

       "Shall a levy be imposed by the ......... (insert the name of 126182
the municipal school district) for the purpose of current expenses 126183
of the school district and of partnering community schools at a 126184
rate not exceeding ...... (insert the number of mills) mills for 126185
each one dollar of valuation (of which ...... (insert the number 126186
of mills to be allocated to partnering community schools) mills is 126187
to be allocated to partnering community schools), which amounts to 126188
....... (insert the rate expressed in dollars and cents) for each 126189
one hundred dollars of valuation, for ...... (insert the number of 126190
years the levy is to be imposed, or that it will be levied for a 126191
continuing period of time), beginning ...... (insert first year 126192
the tax is to be levied), which will first be payable in calendar 126193
year ...... (insert the first calendar year in which the tax would 126194
be payable)?126195

 FOR THE TAX LEVY 126196
 AGAINST THE TAX LEVY  " 126197

       (3) Upon each receipt of a tax distribution by the municipal 126198
school district, the board of education shall credit the portion 126199
allocated to partnering community schools to the partnering 126200
community schools fund. All income from the investment of money in 126201
the partnering community schools fund shall be credited to that 126202
fund.126203

       Not more than forty-five days after the municipal school 126204
district receives and deposits each tax distribution, the board of 126205
education shall distribute the partnering community schools amount 126206
among the then qualifying community schools. From each tax 126207
distribution, each such partnering community school shall receive 126208
a portion of the partnering community schools amount in the 126209
proportion that the number of its resident students bears to the 126210
aggregate number of resident students of all such partnering 126211
community schools as of the date of receipt and deposit of the tax 126212
distribution. For the purposes of this division, the number of 126213
resident students shall be the number of such students reported 126214
under section 3317.03 of the Revised Code and established by the 126215
department of education as of the date of receipt and deposit of 126216
the tax distribution.126217

       (4) To the extent an agreement whereby the municipal school 126218
district and a community school endorse each other's programs is 126219
necessary for the community school to qualify as a partnering 126220
community school under division (B)(6)(b) of this section, the 126221
board of education of the school district shall certify to the 126222
department of education the agreement along with the determination 126223
that such agreement satisfies the requirements of that division. 126224
The board's determination is conclusive.126225

       (5) For the purposes of Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code or 126226
other laws referring to the "taxes charged and payable" for a 126227
school district, the taxes charged and payable for a municipal 126228
school district that levies a tax under division (B) of this 126229
section includes only the taxes charged and payable under that 126230
levy for the current expenses of the school district, and does not 126231
include the taxes charged and payable for the current expenses of 126232
partnering community schools. The taxes charged and payable for 126233
the current expenses of partnering community schools shall not 126234
affect the calculation of "state education aid" as defined in 126235
section 5751.20 of the Revised Code.126236

       (6) As used in division (B) of this section:126237

       (a) "Municipal school district" has the same meaning as in 126238
section 3311.71 of the Revised Code.126239

       (b) "Partnering community school" means a community school 126240
established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code that is 126241
located within the territory of the municipal school district and 126242
that either is sponsored by the district or is a party to an 126243
agreement with the district whereby the district and the community 126244
school endorse each other's programs.126245

       (c) "Partnering community schools amount" means the product 126246
obtained, as of the receipt and deposit of the tax distribution, 126247
by multiplying the amount of a tax distribution by a fraction, the 126248
numerator of which is the number of mills per dollar of taxable 126249
value of the property tax to be allocated to partnering community 126250
schools, and the denominator of which is the total number of mills 126251
per dollar of taxable value authorized by the electors in the 126252
election held under division (B) of this section, each as set 126253
forth in the resolution levying the tax.126254

       (d) "Partnering community schools fund" means a separate fund 126255
established by the board of education of a municipal school 126256
district for the deposit of partnering community school amounts 126257
under this section. 126258

       (e) "Resident student" means a student enrolled in a 126259
partnering community school who is entitled to attend school in 126260
the municipal school district under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of 126261
the Revised Code.126262

       (f) "Tax distribution" means a distribution of proceeds of 126263
the tax authorized by division (B) of this section under section 126264
321.24 of the Revised Code and distributions that are attributable 126265
to that tax under sections 323.156 and 4503.068 of the Revised 126266
Code or other applicable law.126267

       (C) A resolution adopted under this section shall specify the 126268
date of holding the election, which shall not be earlier than 126269
ninety days after the adoption and certification of the resolution 126270
and which shall be consistent with the requirements of section 126271
3501.01 of the Revised Code.126272

        A resolution adopted under this section may propose to renew 126273
one or more existing levies imposed under division (A) or (B) of 126274
this section or to increase or decrease a single levy imposed 126275
under either such division. 126276

       If the board of education imposes one or more existing levies 126277
for the purpose specified in division (F) of section 5705.19 of 126278
the Revised Code, the resolution may propose to renew one or more 126279
of those existing levies, or to increase or decrease a single such 126280
existing levy, for the purpose of general permanent improvements. 126281

       If the resolution proposes to renew two or more existing 126282
levies, the levies shall be levied for the same purpose. The 126283
resolution shall identify those levies and the rates at which they 126284
are levied. The resolution also shall specify that the existing 126285
levies shall not be extended on the tax lists after the year 126286
preceding the year in which the renewal levy is first imposed, 126287
regardless of the years for which those levies originally were 126288
authorized to be levied.126289

       If the resolution proposes to renew an existing levy imposed 126290
under division (B) of this section, the rates allocated to the 126291
municipal school district and to partnering community schools each 126292
may be increased or decreased or remain the same, and the total 126293
rate may be increased, decreased, or remain the same. The 126294
resolution and notice of election shall specify the number of the 126295
mills to be levied for the current expenses of the partnering 126296
community schools and the number of the mills to be levied for the 126297
current expenses of the municipal school district.126298

        A resolution adopted under this section shall go into 126299
immediate effect upon its passage, and no publication of the 126300
resolution shall be necessary other than that provided for in the 126301
notice of election. A copy of the resolution shall immediately 126302
after its passing be certified to the board of elections of the 126303
proper county in the manner provided by section 5705.25 of the 126304
Revised Code. That section shall govern the arrangements for the 126305
submission of such question and other matters concerning the 126306
election to which that section refers, including publication of 126307
notice of the election, except that the election shall be held on 126308
the date specified in the resolution. In the case of a resolution 126309
adopted under division (B) of this section, the publication of 126310
notice of that election shall state the number of the mills to be 126311
levied for the current expenses of partnering community schools 126312
and the number of the mills to be levied for the current expenses 126313
of the municipal school district. If a majority of the electors 126314
voting on the question so submitted in an election vote in favor 126315
of the levy, the board of education may make the necessary levy 126316
within the school district or, in the case of a qualifying library 126317
levy for the support of a library association or private 126318
corporation, within the association library district, at the 126319
additional rate, or at any lesser rate in excess of the ten-mill 126320
limitation on the tax list, for the purpose stated in the 126321
resolution. A levy for a continuing period of time may be reduced 126322
pursuant to section 5705.261 of the Revised Code. The tax levy 126323
shall be included in the next tax budget that is certified to the 126324
county budget commission.126325

       (D)(1) After the approval of a levy on the current tax list 126326
and duplicate for current expenses, for recreational purposes, for 126327
community centers provided for in section 755.16 of the Revised 126328
Code, or for a public library of the district under division (A) 126329
of this section, and prior to the time when the first tax 126330
collection from the levy can be made, the board of education may 126331
anticipate a fraction of the proceeds of the levy and issue 126332
anticipation notes in a principal amount not exceeding fifty per 126333
cent of the total estimated proceeds of the levy to be collected 126334
during the first year of the levy.126335

       (2) After the approval of a levy for general permanent 126336
improvements for a specified number of years or for permanent 126337
improvements having the purpose specified in division (F) of 126338
section 5705.19 of the Revised Code, the board of education may 126339
anticipate a fraction of the proceeds of the levy and issue 126340
anticipation notes in a principal amount not exceeding fifty per 126341
cent of the total estimated proceeds of the levy remaining to be 126342
collected in each year over a period of five years after the 126343
issuance of the notes.126344

       The notes shall be issued as provided in section 133.24 of 126345
the Revised Code, shall have principal payments during each year 126346
after the year of their issuance over a period not to exceed five 126347
years, and may have a principal payment in the year of their 126348
issuance.126349

       (3) After approval of a levy for general permanent 126350
improvements for a continuing period of time, the board of 126351
education may anticipate a fraction of the proceeds of the levy 126352
and issue anticipation notes in a principal amount not exceeding 126353
fifty per cent of the total estimated proceeds of the levy to be 126354
collected in each year over a specified period of years, not 126355
exceeding ten, after the issuance of the notes.126356

       The notes shall be issued as provided in section 133.24 of 126357
the Revised Code, shall have principal payments during each year 126358
after the year of their issuance over a period not to exceed ten 126359
years, and may have a principal payment in the year of their 126360
issuance.126361

       (4) After the approval of a levy on the current tax list and 126362
duplicate under division (B) of this section, and prior to the 126363
time when the first tax collection from the levy can be made, the 126364
board of education may anticipate a fraction of the proceeds of 126365
the levy for the current expenses of the school district and issue 126366
anticipation notes in a principal amount not exceeding fifty per 126367
cent of the estimated proceeds of the levy to be collected during 126368
the first year of the levy and allocated to the school district. 126369
The portion of the levy proceeds to be allocated to partnering 126370
community schools under that division shall not be included in the 126371
estimated proceeds anticipated under this division and shall not 126372
be used to pay debt charges on any anticipation notes.126373

        The notes shall be issued as provided in section 133.24 of 126374
the Revised Code, shall have principal payments during each year 126375
after the year of their issuance over a period not to exceed five 126376
years, and may have a principal payment in the year of their 126377
issuance.126378

       (E) The submission of questions to the electors under this 126379
section is subject to the limitation on the number of election 126380
dates established by section 5705.214 of the Revised Code.126381

       Sec. 5705.217.  (A) The board of education of a city, local, 126382
or exempted village school district, at any time by a vote of 126383
two-thirds of all its members, may declare by resolution that the 126384
amount of taxes that can be raised within the ten-mill limitation 126385
will be insufficient to provide an adequate amount for the present 126386
and future requirements of the school district; that it is 126387
necessary to levy an additional tax in excess of that limitation 126388
for the purposes of providing funds for current operating expenses 126389
and for the acquisition, construction, enlargement, renovation, 126390
and financing ofgeneral permanent improvements as defined in 126391
section 5705.21 of the Revised Code; and that the question of the 126392
tax shall be submitted to the electors of the district at a 126393
special election. The tax may be levied for a specified number of 126394
years not exceeding five or, if the tax is for current operating 126395
expenses or for general, on-going permanent improvements, for a 126396
continuing period of time. The resolution shall specify the 126397
proposed tax rate, the first year the tax will be levied, and the 126398
number of years it will be levied, or that it will be levied for a 126399
continuing period of time. The resolution shall apportion the 126400
annual rate of the tax between current operating expenses and 126401
permanent improvements. The apportionment may but need not be the 126402
same for each year of the tax, but the respective portions of the 126403
rate actually levied each year for current operating expenses and 126404
permanent improvements shall be limited by the apportionment.126405

       The resolution shall specify the date of holding the special 126406
election, which shall not be earlier than ninety days after 126407
certification of the resolution to the board of elections and 126408
shall be consistent with the requirements of section 3501.01 of 126409
the Revised Code. The resolution shall go into immediate effect 126410
upon its passage, and no publication of it is necessary other than 126411
that provided in the notice of election. The board of education 126412
shall certify a copy of the resolution to the board of elections 126413
immediately after its adoption. Section 5705.25 of the Revised 126414
Code governs the arrangements and form of the ballot for the 126415
submission of the question to the electors.126416

       If a majority of the electors voting on the question vote in 126417
favor of the tax, the board of education may make the levy at the 126418
additional rate, or at any lesser rate in excess of the ten-mill 126419
limitation. If the tax is for a continuing period of time, it may 126420
be decreased in accordance with section 5705.261 of the Revised 126421
Code.126422

       A board of education may adopt a resolution to renew one or 126423
more existing levies imposed under this section, or to increase or 126424
decrease the rate of a tax levied under this section, for the 126425
purpose of providing funds for either current expenses and general 126426
permanent improvements or solely for general permanent 126427
improvements.126428

       (B)(1) After the approval of a tax for current operating 126429
expenses under this section and prior to the time the first 126430
collection and distribution from the levy can be made, the board 126431
of education may anticipate a fraction of the proceeds of such 126432
levy and issue anticipation notes in a principal amount not 126433
exceeding fifty per cent of the total estimated proceeds of the 126434
tax to be collected during the first year of the levy.126435

       (2) After the approval of a tax under this section for 126436
general permanent improvements having a specific purposelevied 126437
under this section for a specified number of years, the board of 126438
education may anticipate a fraction of the proceeds of such tax 126439
and issue anticipation notes in a principal amount not exceeding 126440
fifty per cent of the total estimated proceeds of the tax 126441
remaining to be collected in each year over a specified period of 126442
five years, not exceeding the number of years for which the tax 126443
was levied, after issuance of the notes.126444

       (3) After the approval of a tax for general, on-going126445
permanent improvements levied under this section for a continuing 126446
period of time, the board of education may anticipate a fraction 126447
of the proceeds of such tax and issue anticipation notes in a 126448
principal amount not exceeding fifty per cent of the total 126449
estimated proceeds of the tax to be collected in each year over a 126450
specified period of years, not exceeding ten, after issuance of 126451
the notes.126452

       Anticipation notes under this section shall be issued as 126453
provided in section 133.24 of the Revised Code. Notes issued under 126454
division (B)(1) or (2) of this section shall have principal 126455
payments during each year after the year of their issuance over a 126456
period not to exceed five years, and may have a principal payment 126457
in the year of their issuance. Notes issued under division (B)(3) 126458
of this section shall have principal payments during each year 126459
after the year of their issuance over a period not to exceed ten 126460
years, and may have a principal payment in the year of their 126461
issuance.126462

       (C) The submission of a question to the electors under this 126463
section is subject to the limitation on the number of elections 126464
that can be held in a year under section 5705.214 of the Revised 126465
Code.126466

       Sec. 5705.218.  (A) The board of education of a city, local, 126467
or exempted village school district, at any time by a vote of 126468
two-thirds of all its members, may declare by resolution that it 126469
may be necessary for the school district to issue general 126470
obligation bonds for permanent improvements. The resolution shall 126471
state all of the following:126472

       (1) The necessity and purpose of the bond issue;126473

       (2) The date of the special election at which the question 126474
shall be submitted to the electors;126475

       (3) The amount, approximate date, estimated rate of interest, 126476
and maximum number of years over which the principal of the bonds 126477
may be paid;126478

       (4) The necessity of levying a tax outside the ten-mill 126479
limitation to pay debt charges on the bonds and any anticipatory 126480
securities.126481

       On adoption of the resolution, the board shall certify a copy 126482
of it to the county auditor. The county auditor promptly shall 126483
estimate and certify to the board the average annual property tax 126484
rate required throughout the stated maturity of the bonds to pay 126485
debt charges on the bonds, in the same manner as under division 126486
(C) of section 133.18 of the Revised Code.126487

       (B) After receiving the county auditor's certification under 126488
division (A) of this section, the board of education of the city, 126489
local, or exempted village school district, by a vote of 126490
two-thirds of all its members, may declare by resolution that the 126491
amount of taxes that can be raised within the ten-mill limitation 126492
will be insufficient to provide an adequate amount for the present 126493
and future requirements of the school district; that it is 126494
necessary to issue general obligation bonds of the school district 126495
for permanent improvements and to levy an additional tax in excess 126496
of the ten-mill limitation to pay debt charges on the bonds and 126497
any anticipatory securities; that it is necessary for a specified 126498
number of years or for a continuing period of time to levy 126499
additional taxes in excess of the ten-mill limitation to provide 126500
funds for the acquisition, construction, enlargement, renovation, 126501
and financing of permanent improvements or to pay for current 126502
operating expenses, or both; and that the question of the bonds 126503
and taxes shall be submitted to the electors of the school 126504
district at a special election, which shall not be earlier than 126505
ninety days after certification of the resolution to the board of 126506
elections, and the date of which shall be consistent with section 126507
3501.01 of the Revised Code. The resolution shall specify all of 126508
the following:126509

       (1) The county auditor's estimate of the average annual 126510
property tax rate required throughout the stated maturity of the 126511
bonds to pay debt charges on the bonds;126512

       (2) The proposed rate of the tax, if any, for current 126513
operating expenses, the first year the tax will be levied, and the 126514
number of years it will be levied, or that it will be levied for a 126515
continuing period of time;126516

       (3) The proposed rate of the tax, if any, for permanent 126517
improvements, the first year the tax will be levied, and the 126518
number of years it will be levied, or that it will be levied for a 126519
continuing period of time.126520

       The resolution shall apportion the annual rate of the tax 126521
between current operating expenses and permanent improvements, if 126522
both taxes are proposed. The apportionment may but need not be the 126523
same for each year of the tax, but the respective portions of the 126524
rate actually levied each year for current operating expenses and 126525
permanent improvements shall be limited by the apportionment. The 126526
resolution shall go into immediate effect upon its passage, and no 126527
publication of it is necessary other than that provided in the 126528
notice of election. The board of education shall certify a copy of 126529
the resolution, along with copies of the auditor's estimate and 126530
its resolution under division (A) of this section, to the board of 126531
elections immediately after its adoption.126532

       (C) The board of elections shall make the arrangements for 126533
the submission to the electors of the school district of the 126534
question proposed under division (B) or (J) of this section, and 126535
the election shall be conducted, canvassed, and certified in the 126536
same manner as regular elections in the district for the election 126537
of county officers. The resolution shall be put before the 126538
electors as one ballot question, with a favorable vote indicating 126539
approval of the bond issue, the levy to pay debt charges on the 126540
bonds and any anticipatory securities, the current operating 126541
expenses levy, the permanent improvements levy, and the levy for 126542
the current expenses of a municipal school district and of 126543
partnering community schools, as those levies may be proposed. The 126544
board of elections shall publish notice of the election in a 126545
newspaper of general circulation in the school district once a 126546
week for two consecutive weeks, or as provided in section 7.16 of 126547
the Revised Code, prior to the election. If a board of elections 126548
operates and maintains a web site, that board also shall post 126549
notice of the election on its web site for thirty days prior to 126550
the election. The notice of election shall state all of the 126551
following:126552

       (1) The principal amount of the proposed bond issue;126553

       (2) The permanent improvements for which the bonds are to be 126554
issued;126555

       (3) The maximum number of years over which the principal of 126556
the bonds may be paid;126557

       (4) The estimated additional average annual property tax rate 126558
to pay the debt charges on the bonds, as certified by the county 126559
auditor;126560

       (5) The proposed rate of the additional tax, if any, for 126561
current operating expenses and, if the question is proposed under 126562
division (J) of this section, the portion of the rate to be 126563
allocated to the school district and the portion to be allocated 126564
to partnering community schools;126565

       (6) The number of years the current operating expenses tax 126566
will be in effect, or that it will be in effect for a continuing 126567
period of time;126568

       (7) The proposed rate of the additional tax, if any, for 126569
permanent improvements;126570

       (8) The number of years the permanent improvements tax will 126571
be in effect, or that it will be in effect for a continuing period 126572
of time;126573

       (9) The time and place of the special election.126574

       (D) The form of the ballot for an election under this section 126575
is as follows:126576

       "Shall the .......... school district be authorized to do the 126577
following:126578

       (1) Issue bonds for the purpose of .......... in the 126579
principal amount of $......, to be repaid annually over a maximum 126580
period of ...... years, and levy a property tax outside the 126581
ten-mill limitation, estimated by the county auditor to average 126582
over the bond repayment period ...... mills for each one dollar of 126583
tax valuation, which amounts to ...... (rate expressed in cents or 126584
dollars and cents, such as "36 cents" or "$1.41") for each $100 of 126585
tax valuation, to pay the annual debt charges on the bonds, and to 126586
pay debt charges on any notes issued in anticipation of those 126587
bonds?"126588

       If either a levy for permanent improvements or a levy for 126589
current operating expenses is proposed, or both are proposed, the 126590
ballot also shall contain the following language, as appropriate:126591

       "(2) Levy an additional property tax to provide funds for the 126592
acquisition, construction, enlargement, renovation, and financing 126593
of permanent improvements at a rate not exceeding ....... mills 126594
for each one dollar of tax valuation, which amounts to ....... 126595
(rate expressed in cents or dollars and cents) for each $100 of 126596
tax valuation, for ...... (number of years of the levy, or a 126597
continuing period of time)?126598

       (3) Levy an additional property tax to pay current operating 126599
expenses at a rate not exceeding ....... mills for each one dollar 126600
of tax valuation, which amounts to ....... (rate expressed in 126601
cents or dollars and cents) for each $100 of tax valuation, for 126602
....... (number of years of the levy, or a continuing period of 126603
time)?126604

        126605

  FOR THE BOND ISSUE AND LEVY (OR LEVIES) 126606
  AGAINST THE BOND ISSUE AND LEVY (OR LEVIES)   " 126607

        126608

       If the question is proposed under division (J) of this 126609
section, the form of the ballot shall be modified as prescribed by 126610
division (J)(4) of this section.126611

       (E) The board of elections promptly shall certify the results 126612
of the election to the tax commissioner and the county auditor of 126613
the county in which the school district is located. If a majority 126614
of the electors voting on the question vote for it, the board of 126615
education may proceed with issuance of the bonds and with the levy 126616
and collection of the property tax or taxes at the additional rate 126617
or any lesser rate in excess of the ten-mill limitation. Any 126618
securities issued by the board of education under this section are 126619
Chapter 133. securities, as that term is defined in section 133.01 126620
of the Revised Code.126621

       (F)(1) After the approval of a tax for current operating 126622
expenses under this section and prior to the time the first 126623
collection and distribution from the levy can be made, the board 126624
of education may anticipate a fraction of the proceeds of such 126625
levy and issue anticipation notes in a principal amount not 126626
exceeding fifty per cent of the total estimated proceeds of the 126627
tax to be collected during the first year of the levy.126628

       (2) After the approval of a tax under this section for 126629
permanent improvements having a specific purpose, the board of 126630
education may anticipate a fraction of the proceeds of such tax 126631
and issue anticipation notes in a principal amount not exceeding 126632
fifty per cent of the total estimated proceeds of the tax 126633
remaining to be collected in each year over a period of five years 126634
after issuance of the notes.126635

       (3) After the approval of a tax under this section for 126636
general, on-going permanent improvements as defined under this126637
section 5705.21 of the Revised Code, the board of education may 126638
anticipate a fraction of the proceeds of such tax and issue 126639
anticipation notes in a principal amount not exceeding fifty per 126640
cent of the total estimated proceeds of the tax to be collected in 126641
each year over a specified period of years, not exceeding ten, 126642
after issuance of the notes.126643

       Anticipation notes under this section shall be issued as 126644
provided in section 133.24 of the Revised Code. Notes issued under 126645
division (F)(1) or (2) of this section shall have principal 126646
payments during each year after the year of their issuance over a 126647
period not to exceed five years, and may have a principal payment 126648
in the year of their issuance. Notes issued under division (F)(3) 126649
of this section shall have principal payments during each year 126650
after the year of their issuance over a period not to exceed ten 126651
years, and may have a principal payment in the year of their 126652
issuance.126653

       (G) A tax for current operating expenses or for permanent 126654
improvements levied under this section for a specified number of 126655
years may be renewed or replaced in the same manner as a tax for 126656
current operating expenses or for permanent improvements levied 126657
under section 5705.21 of the Revised Code. A tax for current 126658
operating expenses or for permanent improvements levied under this 126659
section for a continuing period of time may be decreased in 126660
accordance with section 5705.261 of the Revised Code.126661

       (H) The submission of a question to the electors under this 126662
section is subject to the limitation on the number of elections 126663
that can be held in a year under section 5705.214 of the Revised 126664
Code.126665

       (I) A school district board of education proposing a ballot 126666
measure under this section to generate local resources for a 126667
project under the school building assistance expedited local 126668
partnership program under section 3318.36 of the Revised Code may 126669
combine the questions under division (D) of this section with a 126670
question for the levy of a property tax to generate moneys for 126671
maintenance of the classroom facilities acquired under that 126672
project as prescribed in section 3318.361 of the Revised Code.126673

       (J)(1) After receiving the county auditor's certification 126674
under division (A) of this section, the board of education of a 126675
municipal school district, by a vote of two-thirds of all its 126676
members, may declare by resolution that it is necessary to levy a 126677
tax in excess of the ten-mill limitation for the purpose of paying 126678
the current expenses of the school district and of partnering 126679
community schools, as defined in section 5705.21 of the Revised 126680
Code; that it is necessary to issue general obligation bonds of 126681
the school district for permanent improvements of the district and 126682
to levy an additional tax in excess of the ten-mill limitation to 126683
pay debt charges on the bonds and any anticipatory securities; and 126684
that the question of the bonds and taxes shall be submitted to the 126685
electors of the school district at a special election, which shall 126686
not be earlier than ninety days after certification of the 126687
resolution to the board of elections, and the date of which shall 126688
be consistent with section 3505.01 of the Revised Code.126689

       The levy of taxes for the current expenses of a partnering 126690
community school under division (J) of this section and the 126691
distribution of proceeds from the tax by a municipal school 126692
district to partnering community schools is hereby determined to 126693
be a proper public purpose.126694

        (2) The tax for the current expenses of the school district 126695
and of partnering community schools is subject to the requirements 126696
of divisions (B)(3), (4), and (5) of section 5705.21 of the 126697
Revised Code.126698

        (3) In addition to the required specifications of the 126699
resolution under division (B) of this section, the resolution 126700
shall express the rate of the tax in mills per dollar of taxable 126701
value, state the number of the mills to be levied for the current 126702
expenses of the partnering community schools and the number of the 126703
mills to be levied for the current expenses of the school 126704
district, specify the number of years (not exceeding ten) the tax 126705
will be levied or that it will be levied for a continuing period 126706
of time, and state the first year the tax will be levied.126707

       The resolution shall go into immediate effect upon its 126708
passage, and no publication of it is necessary other than that 126709
provided in the notice of election. The board of education shall 126710
certify a copy of the resolution, along with copies of the 126711
auditor's estimate and its resolution under division (A) of this 126712
section, to the board of elections immediately after its adoption.126713

        (4) The form of the ballot shall be modified by replacing the 126714
ballot form set forth in division (D)(3) of this section with the 126715
following:126716

        "Levy an additional property tax for the purpose of the 126717
current expenses of the school district and of partnering 126718
community schools at a rate not exceeding ...... (insert the 126719
number of mills) mills for each one dollar of valuation (of which 126720
...... (insert the number of mills to be allocated to partnering 126721
community schools) mills is to be allocated to partnering 126722
community schools), which amounts to ...... (insert the rate 126723
expressed in dollars and cents) for each one hundred dollars of 126724
valuation, for ...... (insert the number of years the levy is to 126725
be imposed, or that it will be levied for a continuing period of 126726
time)?126727

  FOR THE BOND ISSUE AND LEVY (OR LEVIES) 126728
  AGAINST THE BOND ISSUE AND LEVY (OR LEVIES)   " 126729

        (5) After the approval of a tax for the current expenses of 126730
the school district and of partnering community schools under 126731
division (J) of this section, and prior to the time the first 126732
collection and distribution from the levy can be made, the board 126733
of education may anticipate a fraction of the proceeds of the levy 126734
for the current expenses of the school district and issue 126735
anticipation notes in a principal amount not exceeding fifty per 126736
cent of the estimated proceeds of the levy to be collected during 126737
the first year of the levy and allocated to the school district. 126738
The portion of levy proceeds to be allocated to partnering 126739
community schools shall not be included in the estimated proceeds 126740
anticipated under this division and shall not be used to pay debt 126741
charges on any anticipation notes.126742

        The notes shall be issued as provided in section 133.24 of 126743
the Revised Code, shall have principal payments during each year 126744
after the year of their issuance over a period not to exceed five 126745
years, and may have a principal payment in the year of their 126746
issuance.126747

        (6) A tax for the current expenses of the school district and 126748
of partnering community schools levied under division (J) of this 126749
section for a specified number of years may be renewed or replaced 126750
in the same manner as a tax for the current expenses of a school 126751
district and of partnering community schools levied under division 126752
(B) of section 5705.21 of the Revised Code. A tax for the current 126753
expenses of the school district and of partnering community 126754
schools levied under this division for a continuing period of time 126755
may be decreased in accordance with section 5705.261 of the 126756
Revised Code.126757

        (7) The proceeds from the issuance of the general obligation 126758
bonds under division (J) of this section shall be used solely to 126759
pay for permanent improvements of the school district and not for 126760
permanent improvements of partnering community schools.126761

       Sec. 5705.221.  (A) At any time, the board of county 126762
commissioners of any county by a majority vote of the full 126763
membership may declare by resolution and certify to the board of 126764
elections of the county that the amount of taxes which may be 126765
raised within the ten-mill limitation by levies on the current tax 126766
duplicate will be insufficient to provide the necessary 126767
requirements of the county's alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 126768
health service district established pursuant to Chapter 340. of 126769
the Revised Code, or the county's contribution to a joint-county 126770
district of which the county is a part, and that it is necessary 126771
to levy a tax in excess of such limitation for the operation of 126772
alcohol and drugcommunity addiction programsservices providers126773
and community mental health programsservices providers and the 126774
acquisition, construction, renovation, financing, maintenance, and 126775
operation of alcohol and drug addiction facilities and mental 126776
health facilities.126777

       Such resolution shall conform to section 5705.19 of the 126778
Revised Code, except that the increased rate may be in effect for 126779
any number of years not exceeding ten.126780

       The resolution shall be certified and submitted in the manner 126781
provided in section 5705.25 of the Revised Code, except that it 126782
may be placed on the ballot in any election, and shall be 126783
certified to the board of elections not less than ninety days 126784
before the election at which it will be voted upon.126785

       If the majority of the electors voting on a levy to 126786
supplement general fund appropriations for the support of the 126787
comprehensive alcohol and drugcommunity addiction and mental 126788
health programservices providers vote in favor of the levy, the 126789
board may levy a tax within the county at the additional rate 126790
outside the ten-mill limitation during the specified or continuing 126791
period, for the purpose stated in the resolution.126792

       (B) When electors have approved a tax levy under this 126793
section, the board of county commissioners may anticipate a 126794
fraction of the proceeds of the levy and, from time to time, issue 126795
anticipation notes in accordance with section 5705.191 or 5705.193 126796
of the Revised Code.126797

       (C) The county auditor who is the fiscal officer of the 126798
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health service district, upon 126799
receipt of a resolution from the board of alcohol, drug addiction, 126800
and mental health services, shall establish for the district a 126801
capital improvements account or a reserve balance account, or 126802
both, as specified in the resolution. The capital improvements 126803
account shall be a contingency fund for the necessary acquisition, 126804
replacement, renovation, or construction of facilities and movable 126805
and fixed equipment. Upon the request of the board, funds not 126806
needed to pay for current expenses may be appropriated to the 126807
capital improvements account, in amounts such that the account 126808
does not exceed twenty-five per cent of the replacement value of 126809
all capital facilities and equipment currently used by the board 126810
for programs and services. Other funds which are available for 126811
current capital expenses from federal, state, or local sources may 126812
also be appropriated to this account.126813

       The reserve balance account shall contain those funds that 126814
are not needed to pay for current operating expenses and not 126815
deposited in the capital improvements account but that will be 126816
needed to pay for operating expenses in the future. Upon the 126817
request of a board, such funds shall be appropriated to the 126818
reserve balance account. Payments from the capital improvements 126819
account and the reserve balance account shall be made by the 126820
county treasurer who is the custodian of funds for the district 126821
upon warrants issued by the county auditor who is the fiscal 126822
officer of the district pursuant to orders of the board.126823

       Sec. 5705.25.  (A) A copy of any resolution adopted as 126824
provided in section 5705.19 or 5705.2111 of the Revised Code shall 126825
be certified by the taxing authority to the board of elections of 126826
the proper county not less than ninety days before the general 126827
election in any year, and the board shall submit the proposal to 126828
the electors of the subdivision at the succeeding November 126829
election. In the case of a qualifying library levy, the board 126830
shall submit the question to the electors of the library district 126831
or association library district. Except as otherwise provided in 126832
this division, a resolution to renew an existing levy, regardless 126833
of the section of the Revised Code under which the tax was 126834
imposed, shall not be placed on the ballot unless the question is 126835
submitted at the general election held during the last year the 126836
tax to be renewed or replaced may be extended on the real and 126837
public utility property tax list and duplicate, or at any election 126838
held in the ensuing year. The limitation of the foregoing sentence 126839
does not apply to a resolution to renew and increase or to renew 126840
part of an existing levy that was imposed under section 5705.191 126841
of the Revised Code to supplement the general fund for the purpose 126842
of making appropriations for one or more of the following 126843
purposes: for public assistance, human or social services, relief, 126844
welfare, hospitalization, health, and support of general 126845
hospitals. The limitation of the second preceding sentence also 126846
does not apply to a resolution that proposes to renew two or more 126847
existing levies imposed under section 5705.21 or 5705.217 of the 126848
Revised Code, in which case the question shall be submitted on the 126849
date of the general or primary election held during the last year 126850
at least one of the levies to be renewed may be extended on the 126851
real and public utility property tax list and duplicate, or at any 126852
election held during the ensuing year. For purposes of this 126853
section, a levy shall be considered to be an "existing levy" 126854
through the year following the last year it can be placed on that 126855
tax list and duplicate.126856

       The board shall make the necessary arrangements for the 126857
submission of such questions to the electors of such subdivision, 126858
library district, or association library district, and the 126859
election shall be conducted, canvassed, and certified in the same 126860
manner as regular elections in such subdivision, library district, 126861
or association library district for the election of county 126862
officers. Notice of the election shall be published in a newspaper 126863
of general circulation in the subdivision, library district, or 126864
association library district once a week for two consecutive 126865
weeks, or as provided in section 7.16 of the Revised Code, prior 126866
to the election. If the board of elections operates and maintains 126867
a web site, the board of elections shall post notice of the 126868
election on its web site for thirty days prior to the election. 126869
The notice shall state the purpose, the proposed increase in rate 126870
expressed in dollars and cents for each one hundred dollars of 126871
valuation as well as in mills for each one dollar of valuation, 126872
the number of years during which the increase will be in effect, 126873
the first month and year in which the tax will be levied, and the 126874
time and place of the election.126875

       (B) The form of the ballots cast at an election held pursuant 126876
to division (A) of this section shall be as follows:126877

       "An additional tax for the benefit of (name of subdivision or 126878
public library) .......... for the purpose of (purpose stated in 126879
the resolution) .......... at a rate not exceeding ...... mills 126880
for each one dollar of valuation, which amounts to (rate expressed 126881
in dollars and cents) ............ for each one hundred dollars of 126882
valuation, for ...... (life of indebtedness or number of years the 126883
levy is to run).126884

        126885

 For the Tax Levy 126886
 Against the Tax Levy  " 126887

        126888

       (C) If the levy is to be in effect for a continuing period of 126889
time, the notice of election and the form of ballot shall so state 126890
instead of setting forth a specified number of years for the levy.126891

       If the tax is to be placed on the current tax list, the form 126892
of the ballot shall be modified by adding, after the statement of 126893
the number of years the levy is to run, the phrase ", commencing 126894
in .......... (first year the tax is to be levied), first due in 126895
calendar year .......... (first calendar year in which the tax 126896
shall be due)."126897

       If the levy submitted is a proposal to renew, increase, or 126898
decrease an existing levy, the form of the ballot specified in 126899
division (B) of this section may be changed by substituting for 126900
the words "An additional" at the beginning of the form, the words 126901
"A renewal of a" in case of a proposal to renew an existing levy 126902
in the same amount; the words "A renewal of ........ mills and an 126903
increase of ...... mills to constitute a" in the case of an 126904
increase; or the words "A renewal of part of an existing levy, 126905
being a reduction of ...... mills, to constitute a" in the case of 126906
a decrease in the proposed levy.126907

       If the levy submitted is a proposal to renew two or more 126908
existing levies imposed under section 5705.21 or 5705.217 of the 126909
Revised Code, the form of the ballot specified in division (B) of 126910
this section shall be modified by substituting for the words "an 126911
additional tax" the words "a renewal of ....(insert the number of 126912
levies to be renewed) existing taxes."126913

       If the levy submitted is a levy under section 5705.72 of the 126914
Revised Code or a proposal to renew, increase, or decrease an 126915
existing levy imposed under that section, the name of the 126916
subdivision shall be "the unincorporated area of .......... (name 126917
of township)." 126918

       The question covered by such resolution shall be submitted as 126919
a separate proposition but may be printed on the same ballot with 126920
any other proposition submitted at the same election, other than 126921
the election of officers. More than one such question may be 126922
submitted at the same election.126923

       (D) A levy voted in excess of the ten-mill limitation under 126924
this section shall be certified to the tax commissioner. In the 126925
first year of the levy, it shall be extended on the tax lists 126926
after the February settlement succeeding the election. If the 126927
additional tax is to be placed upon the tax list of the current 126928
year, as specified in the resolution providing for its submission, 126929
the result of the election shall be certified immediately after 126930
the canvass by the board of elections to the taxing authority, who 126931
shall make the necessary levy and certify it to the county 126932
auditor, who shall extend it on the tax lists for collection. 126933
After the first year, the tax levy shall be included in the annual 126934
tax budget that is certified to the county budget commission.126935

       Sec. 5705.55.  (A) The board of directors of a lake 126936
facilities authority, by a vote of two-thirds of all its members, 126937
may at any time declare by resolution that the amount of taxes 126938
which may be raised within the ten-mill limitation by levies on 126939
the current tax duplicate will be insufficient to provide an 126940
adequate amount for the necessary requirements of the authority, 126941
that it is necessary to levy a tax in excess of such limitation 126942
for any of the purposes specified in divisions (A), (B), (F), and 126943
(H) of section 5705.19 of the Revised Code, and that the question 126944
of such additional tax levy shall be submitted by the board to the 126945
electors residing within the boundaries of the impacted lake 126946
district on the day of a primary or general election. The 126947
resolution shall conform to section 5705.19 of the Revised Code, 126948
except that the tax levy may be in effect for no more than five 126949
years, as set forth in the resolution, unless the levy is for the 126950
payment of debt charges, and the total number of mills levied for 126951
each dollar of taxable valuation that may be levied under this 126952
section for any tax year shall not exceed one mill. If the levy is 126953
for the payment of debt charges, the levy shall be for the life of 126954
the bond indebtedness.126955

       The resolution shall specify the date of holding the 126956
election, which shall not be earlier than ninety days after the 126957
adoption and certification of the resolution to the board of 126958
elections. The resolution shall not include a levy on the current 126959
tax list and duplicate unless the election is to be held at or 126960
prior to the first Tuesday after the first Monday in November of 126961
the current tax year.126962

       The resolution shall be certified to the board of elections 126963
of the proper county or counties not less than ninety days before 126964
the date of the election. The resolution shall go into immediate 126965
effect upon its passage, and no publication of the resolution 126966
shall be necessary other than that provided in the notice of 126967
election. Section 5705.25 of the Revised Code shall govern the 126968
arrangements for the submission of such question and other matters 126969
concerning the election, to which that section refers, except that 126970
the election shall be held on the date specified in the 126971
resolution. If a majority of the electors voting on the question 126972
so submitted in an election vote in favor of the levy, the board 126973
of directors may forthwith make the necessary levy within the 126974
boundaries of the impacted lake district at the additional rate in 126975
excess of the ten-mill limitation on the tax list, for the purpose 126976
stated in the resolution. The tax levy shall be included in the 126977
next annual tax budget that is certified to the county budget 126978
commission.126979

       (B) The form of the ballot in an election held on the 126980
question of levying a tax proposed pursuant to this section shall 126981
be as follows or in any other form acceptable to the secretary of 126982
state:126983

       "A tax for the benefit of (name of lake facilities authority) 126984
.......... for the purpose of .......... at a rate not exceeding 126985
......... mills for each one dollar of valuation, which amounts to 126986
(rate expressed in dollars and cents) ............ for each one 126987
hundred dollars of valuation, for ............ (life of 126988
indebtedness or number of years the levy is to run).126989

        126990

 For the Tax Levy 126991
 Against the Tax Levy  " 126992

        126993

       (C) On approval of the levy, notes may be issued in 126994
anticipation of the collection of the proceeds of the tax levy, 126995
other than the proceeds to be received for the payment of bond 126996
debt charges, in the amount and manner and at the times as are 126997
provided in section 5705.193 of the Revised Code, for the issuance 126998
of notes by a county in anticipation of the proceeds of a tax 126999
levy. The lake facilities authority may borrow money in 127000
anticipation of the collection of current revenues as provided in 127001
section 133.10 of the Revised Code.127002

       (D) If a tax is levied under this section in a tax year, no 127003
other taxing authority of a subdivision or taxing unit, including 127004
a port authority, may levy a tax on property in the impacted lake 127005
district in the same tax year if the purpose of the levy is 127006
substantially the same as the purpose for which the lake 127007
facilities authority of the impacted lake district was created.127008

       Sec. 5709.17.  The following property shall be exempted from 127009
taxation:127010

       (A) Real estate held or occupied by an association or 127011
corporation, organized or incorporated under the laws of this 127012
state relative to soldiers' memorial associations, monumental 127013
building associations, or cemetery associations or corporations, 127014
which in the opinion of the trustees, directors, or managers 127015
thereof is necessary and proper to carry out the object intended 127016
for such association or corporation;127017

       (B) Real estate and tangible personal property held or 127018
occupied by a veterans' organization that qualifies for exemption 127019
from taxation under section 501(c)(19) or 501(c)(23) of the 127020
"Internal Revenue Code of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1, as 127021
amended, and is incorporated under the laws of this state or the 127022
United States, except real estate held by such organization for 127023
the production of rental or other income in excess of the 127024
designated amount, before accounting for any cost or expense 127025
incurred in the production of such income. For the purposes of 127026
this division, the designated amount equals seven thousand five 127027
hundred dollars in tax year 2002, and shall be increased by two 127028
hundred fifty dollars each year thereafter until tax year 2012, 127029
when it shall equal ten thousand dollars. For tax years 2013 and 127030
thereafter, the designated amount shall equal tenthirty-six127031
thousand dollars.127032

       (C) Tangible personal property held by a corporation 127033
chartered under 112 Stat. 1335, 36 U.S.C.A. 40701, described in 127034
section 501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code, and exempt from 127035
taxation under section 501(a) of the Internal Revenue Code shall 127036
be exempt from taxation if it is property obtained as described in 127037
112 Stat. 1335-1341, 36 U.S.C.A. Chapter 407.127038

       (D) Real estate held or occupied by a fraternal organization 127039
and used primarily for meetings of and the administration of the 127040
fraternal organization. As used in this division, "fraternal 127041
organization" means a domestic fraternal society, order, or 127042
association operating under the lodge, council, or grange system 127043
that qualifies for exemption from taxation under section 127044
501(c)(5), 501(c)(8), or 501(c)(10) of the "Internal Revenue Code 127045
of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 1, as amended; that provides 127046
financial support for charitable purposes, as defined in division 127047
(B)(12) of section 5739.02 of the Revised Code; and that has been 127048
operating in this state with a state governing body for at least 127049
one hundred years.127050

       Sec. 5715.19.  (A) As used in this section, "member" has the 127051
same meaning as in section 1705.01 of the Revised Code.127052

       (1) Subject to division (A)(2) of this section, a complaint 127053
against any of the following determinations for the current tax 127054
year shall be filed with the county auditor on or before the 127055
thirty-first day of March of the ensuing tax year or the date of 127056
closing of the collection for the first half of real and public 127057
utility property taxes for the current tax year, whichever is 127058
later:127059

       (a) Any classification made under section 5713.041 of the 127060
Revised Code;127061

       (b) Any determination made under section 5713.32 or 5713.35 127062
of the Revised Code;127063

       (c) Any recoupment charge levied under section 5713.35 of the 127064
Revised Code;127065

       (d) The determination of the total valuation or assessment of 127066
any parcel that appears on the tax list, except parcels assessed 127067
by the tax commissioner pursuant to section 5727.06 of the Revised 127068
Code;127069

       (e) The determination of the total valuation of any parcel 127070
that appears on the agricultural land tax list, except parcels 127071
assessed by the tax commissioner pursuant to section 5727.06 of 127072
the Revised Code;127073

       (f) Any determination made under division (A) of section 127074
319.302 of the Revised Code.127075

        If such a complaint is filed by mail or certified mail, the 127076
date of the United States postmark placed on the envelope or 127077
sender's receipt by the postal service shall be treated as the 127078
date of filing. A private meter postmark on an envelope is not a 127079
valid postmark for purposes of establishing the filing date.127080

        Any person owning taxable real property in the county or in a 127081
taxing district with territory in the county; such a person's 127082
spouse; an individual who is retained by such a person and who 127083
holds a designation from a professional assessment organization, 127084
such as the institute for professionals in taxation, the national 127085
council of property taxation, or the international association of 127086
assessing officers; a public accountant who holds a permit under 127087
section 4701.10 of the Revised Code, a general or residential real 127088
estate appraiser licensed or certified under Chapter 4763. of the 127089
Revised Code, or a real estate broker licensed under Chapter 4735. 127090
of the Revised Code, who is retained by such a person; if the 127091
person is a firm, company, association, partnership, limited 127092
liability company, or corporation, an officer, a salaried 127093
employee, a partner, or a member of that person; or, if the person 127094
is a trust, a trustee of the trust; the board of county 127095
commissioners; the prosecuting attorney or treasurer of the 127096
county; the board of township trustees of any township with 127097
territory within the county; the board of education of any school 127098
district with any territory in the county; or the mayor or 127099
legislative authority of any municipal corporation with any 127100
territory in the county may file such a complaint regarding any 127101
such determination affecting any real property owned by the person127102
in the county, except that a person owning taxable real property 127103
in another county may file such a complaint only with regard to 127104
any such determination affecting real property in the county that 127105
is located in the same taxing district as that person's real 127106
property is located. A county recorder may, at the recorder's 127107
discretion, file such a complaint regarding any such determination 127108
affecting any real property in the county. No person, board, 127109
officer, or other entity may compel a county recorder to file such 127110
a complaint. The county auditor shall present to the county board 127111
of revision all complaints filed with the auditor.127112

       (2) As used in division (A)(2) of this section, "interim 127113
period" means, for each county, the tax year to which section 127114
5715.24 of the Revised Code applies and each subsequent tax year 127115
until the tax year in which that section applies again.127116

       No person, board, or officer shall file a complaint against 127117
the valuation or assessment of any parcel that appears on the tax 127118
list if itthe person or officer filed a complaint against the 127119
valuation or assessment of that parcel for any prior tax year in 127120
the same interim period, unless the person, board, or officer 127121
alleges that the valuation or assessment should be changed due to 127122
one or more of the following circumstances that occurred after the 127123
tax lien date for the tax year for which the prior complaint was 127124
filed and that the circumstances were not taken into consideration 127125
with respect to the prior complaint:127126

       (a) The property was sold in an arm's length transaction, as 127127
described in section 5713.03 of the Revised Code;127128

       (b) The property lost value due to some casualty;127129

       (c) Substantial improvement was added to the property;127130

       (d) An increase or decrease of at least fifteen per cent in 127131
the property's occupancy has had a substantial economic impact on 127132
the property.127133

       (3) If a county board of revision, the board of tax appeals, 127134
or any court dismisses a complaint filed under this section or 127135
section 5715.13 of the Revised Code for the reason that the act of 127136
filing the complaint was the unauthorized practice of law or the 127137
person filing the complaint was engaged in the unauthorized 127138
practice of law, the party affected by a decrease in valuation or 127139
the party's agent, or the person owning taxable real property in 127140
the county or in a taxing district with territory in the county, 127141
may refile the complaint, notwithstanding division (A)(2) of this 127142
section.127143

       (4) Notwithstanding division (A)(2) of this section, a 127144
person, board, or officer mayauthorized by division (A)(1) of 127145
this section to file a complaint against the valuation or 127146
assessment of anya parcel that appears on the tax list may file 127147
such a complaint if itthe person or officer filed a complaint 127148
against the valuation or assessment of that parcel for any prior 127149
tax year in the same interim period if the person, board, or 127150
officerbut withdrew the complaint before the complaint was heard 127151
by the board of revision.127152

       (B) Within thirty days after the last date such complaints 127153
may be filed, the auditor shall give notice of each complaint in 127154
which the stated amount of overvaluation, undervaluation, 127155
discriminatory valuation, illegal valuation, or incorrect 127156
determination is at least seventeen thousand five hundred dollars 127157
to each property owner whose property is the subject of the 127158
complaint, if the complaint was not filed by the owner or the 127159
owner's spouse, and to each board of education whose school 127160
district may be affected by the complaint. Within thirty days 127161
after receiving such notice, a board of education; a property 127162
owner; the owner's spouse; an individual who is retained by such 127163
an owner and who holds a designation from a professional 127164
assessment organization, such as the institute for professionals 127165
in taxation, the national council of property taxation, or the 127166
international association of assessing officers; a public 127167
accountant who holds a permit under section 4701.10 of the Revised 127168
Code, a general or residential real estate appraiser licensed or 127169
certified under Chapter 4763. of the Revised Code, or a real 127170
estate broker licensed under Chapter 4735. of the Revised Code, 127171
who is retained by such a person; or, if the property owner is a 127172
firm, company, association, partnership, limited liability 127173
company, corporation, or trust, an officer, a salaried employee, a 127174
partner, a member, or trustee of that property owner, may file a 127175
complaint in support of or objecting to the amount of alleged 127176
overvaluation, undervaluation, discriminatory valuation, illegal 127177
valuation, or incorrect determination stated in a previously filed 127178
complaint or objecting to the current valuation. Upon the filing 127179
of a complaint under this division, the board of education or the 127180
property owner shall be made a party to the action.127181

       (C) Each board of revision shall notify any complainant and 127182
also the property owner, if the property owner's address is known, 127183
when a complaint is filed by one other than the property owner, by 127184
certified mail, not less than ten days prior to the hearing, of 127185
the time and place the same will be heard. The board of revision 127186
shall hear and render its decision on a complaint within ninety 127187
days after the filing thereof with the board, except that if a 127188
complaint is filed within thirty days after receiving notice from 127189
the auditor as provided in division (B) of this section, the board 127190
shall hear and render its decision within ninety days after such 127191
filing.127192

       (D) The determination of any such complaint shall relate back 127193
to the date when the lien for taxes or recoupment charges for the 127194
current year attached or the date as of which liability for such 127195
year was determined. Liability for taxes and recoupment charges 127196
for such year and each succeeding year until the complaint is 127197
finally determined and for any penalty and interest for nonpayment 127198
thereof within the time required by law shall be based upon the 127199
determination, valuation, or assessment as finally determined. 127200
Each complaint shall state the amount of overvaluation, 127201
undervaluation, discriminatory valuation, illegal valuation, or 127202
incorrect classification or determination upon which the complaint 127203
is based. The treasurer shall accept any amount tendered as taxes 127204
or recoupment charge upon property concerning which a complaint is 127205
then pending, computed upon the claimed valuation as set forth in 127206
the complaint. If a complaint filed under this section for the 127207
current year is not determined by the board within the time 127208
prescribed for such determination, the complaint and any 127209
proceedings in relation thereto shall be continued by the board as 127210
a valid complaint for any ensuing year until such complaint is 127211
finally determined by the board or upon any appeal from a decision 127212
of the board. In such case, the original complaint shall continue 127213
in effect without further filing by the original taxpayer, the 127214
original taxpayer's assignee, or any other person or entity 127215
authorized to file a complaint under this sectionparties to the 127216
action.127217

       (E) If a taxpayer files a complaint as to the classification, 127218
valuation, assessment, or any determination affecting the 127219
taxpayer's own propertyunder this section and tenders less than 127220
the full amount of taxes or recoupment charges as finally 127221
determined, an interest charge shall accrue as follows:127222

       (1) If the amount finally determined is less than the amount 127223
billed but more than the amount tendered, the taxpayer shall pay 127224
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 127225
the Revised Code, computed from the date that the taxes were due 127226
on the difference between the amount finally determined and the 127227
amount tendered. This interest charge shall be in lieu of any 127228
penalty or interest charge under section 323.121 of the Revised 127229
Code unless the taxpayer failed to file a complaint and tender an 127230
amount as taxes or recoupment charges within the time required by 127231
this section, in which case section 323.121 of the Revised Code 127232
applies.127233

       (2) If the amount of taxes finally determined is equal to or 127234
greater than the amount billed and more than the amount tendered, 127235
the taxpayer shall pay interest at the rate prescribed by section 127236
5703.47 of the Revised Code from the date the taxes were due on 127237
the difference between the amount finally determined and the 127238
amount tendered, such interest to be in lieu of any interest 127239
charge but in addition to any penalty prescribed by section 127240
323.121 of the Revised Code.127241

       (F) Upon request of a complainant, the tax commissioner shall 127242
determine the common level of assessment of real property in the 127243
county for the year stated in the request that is not valued under 127244
section 5713.31 of the Revised Code, which common level of 127245
assessment shall be expressed as a percentage of true value and 127246
the common level of assessment of lands valued under such section, 127247
which common level of assessment shall also be expressed as a 127248
percentage of the current agricultural use value of such lands. 127249
Such determination shall be made on the basis of the most recent 127250
available sales ratio studies of the commissioner and such other 127251
factual data as the commissioner deems pertinent.127252

       (G) A complainant shall provide to the board of revision all 127253
information or evidence within the complainant's knowledge or 127254
possession that affects the real property that is the subject of 127255
the complaint. A complainant who fails to provide such information 127256
or evidence is precluded from introducing it on appeal to the 127257
board of tax appeals or the court of common pleas, except that the 127258
board of tax appeals or court may admit and consider the evidence 127259
if the complainant shows good cause for the complainant's failure 127260
to provide the information or evidence to the board of revision.127261

       (H) In case of the pendency of any proceeding in court based 127262
upon an alleged excessive, discriminatory, or illegal valuation or 127263
incorrect classification or determination, the taxpayer may tender 127264
to the treasurer an amount as taxes upon property computed upon 127265
the claimed valuation as set forth in the complaint to the court. 127266
The treasurer may accept the tender. If the tender is not 127267
accepted, no penalty shall be assessed because of the nonpayment 127268
of the full taxes assessed.127269

       Sec. 5715.27.  (A)(1) Except as provided in division (A)(2) 127270
of this section and in section 3735.67 of the Revised Code, the 127271
owner, a vendee in possession under a purchase agreement or a land 127272
contract, the beneficiary of a trust, or a lessee for an initial 127273
term of not less than thirty years of any property may file an 127274
application with the tax commissioner, on forms prescribed by the 127275
commissioner, requesting that such property be exempted from 127276
taxation and that taxes, interest, and penalties be remitted as 127277
provided in division (C) of section 5713.08 of the Revised Code.127278

       (2) If the property that is the subject of the application 127279
for exemption is any of the following, the application shall be 127280
filed with the county auditor of the county in which the property 127281
is listed for taxation:127282

       (a) A public road or highway;127283

       (b) Property belonging to the federal government of the 127284
United States;127285

       (c) Additions or other improvements to an existing building 127286
or structure that belongs to the state or a political subdivision, 127287
as defined in section 5713.081 of the Revised Code, and that is 127288
exempted from taxation as property used exclusively for a public 127289
purpose;127290

       (d) Property of the boards of trustees and of the housing 127291
commissions of the state universities, the northeastern Ohio 127292
universities college of medicine, and of the state to be exempted 127293
under section 3345.17 of the Revised Code.127294

       (B) The board of education of any school district may request 127295
the tax commissioner or county auditor to provide it with 127296
notification of applications for exemption from taxation for 127297
property located within that district. If so requested, the 127298
commissioner or auditor shall send to the board on a monthly basis 127299
reports that contain sufficient information to enable the board to 127300
identify each property that is the subject of an exemption 127301
application, including, but not limited to, the name of the 127302
property owner or applicant, the address of the property, and the 127303
auditor's parcel number. The commissioner or auditor shall mail 127304
the reports by the fifteenth day of the month following the end 127305
of the month in which the commissioner or auditor receives the 127306
applications for exemption.127307

       (C) A board of education that has requested notification 127308
under division (B) of this section may, with respect to any 127309
application for exemption of property located in the district and 127310
included in the commissioner's or auditor's most recent report 127311
provided under that division, file a statement with the 127312
commissioner or auditor and with the applicant indicating its 127313
intent to submit evidence and participate in any hearing on the 127314
application. The statements shall be filed prior to the first day 127315
of the third month following the end of the month in which that 127316
application was docketed by the commissioner or auditor. A 127317
statement filed in compliance with this division entitles the 127318
district to submit evidence and to participate in any hearing on 127319
the property and makes the district a party for purposes of 127320
sections 5717.02 to 5717.04 of the Revised Code in any appeal of 127321
the commissioner's or auditor's decision to the board of tax 127322
appeals.127323

       (D) The commissioner or auditor shall not hold a hearing on 127324
or grant or deny an application for exemption of property in a 127325
school district whose board of education has requested 127326
notification under division (B) of this section until the end of 127327
the period within which the board may submit a statement with 127328
respect to that application under division (C) of this section. 127329
The commissioner or auditor may act upon an application at any 127330
time prior to that date upon receipt of a written waiver from each 127331
such board of education, or, in the case of exemptions authorized 127332
by section 725.02, 1728.10, 5709.40, 5709.41, 5709.411, 5709.62, 127333
5709.63, 5709.632, 5709.73, 5709.78, 5709.84, or 5709.88 of the 127334
Revised Code, upon the request of the property owner. Failure of a 127335
board of education to receive the report required in division (B) 127336
of this section shall not void an action of the commissioner or 127337
auditor with respect to any application. The commissioner or 127338
auditor may extend the time for filing a statement under division 127339
(C) of this section.127340

       (E) A complaint may also be filed with the commissioner or 127341
auditor by anyAny person, board, or officer authorized by section 127342
5715.19 of the Revised Code to file complaints with the county 127343
board of revision, the board of county commissioners, the 127344
prosecuting attorney or treasurer of the county, the board of 127345
township trustees of any township with territory in the county, 127346
the board of education of any school district with any territory 127347
in the county, or the mayor or legislative authority of a 127348
municipal corporation with any territory in the county may file a 127349
complaint with the commissioner or auditor against the continued 127350
exemption of any property granted exemption by the commissioner or 127351
auditor, respectively, under this section.127352

       (F) An application for exemption and a complaint against 127353
exemption shall be filed prior to the thirty-first day of December 127354
of the tax year for which exemption is requested or for which the 127355
liability of the property to taxation in that year is requested. 127356
The commissioner or auditor shall consider such application or 127357
complaint in accordance with procedures established by the 127358
commissioner, determine whether the property is subject to 127359
taxation or exempt therefrom, and, if the commissioner makes the 127360
determination, certify the determination to the auditor. Upon 127361
making the determination or receiving the commissioner's 127362
determination, the auditor shall correct the tax list and 127363
duplicate accordingly. If a tax certificate has been sold under 127364
section 5721.32 or 5721.33 of the Revised Code with respect to 127365
property for which an exemption has been requested, the tax 127366
commissioner or auditor shall also certify the findings to the 127367
county treasurer of the county in which the property is located.127368

       (G) Applications and complaints, and documents of any kind 127369
related to applications and complaints, filed with the tax 127370
commissioner or county auditor under this section are public 127371
records within the meaning of section 149.43 of the Revised Code.127372

       (H) If the commissioner or auditor determines that the use of 127373
property or other facts relevant to the taxability of property 127374
that is the subject of an application for exemption or a complaint 127375
under this section has changed while the application or complaint 127376
was pending, the commissioner or auditor may make the 127377
determination under division (F) of this section separately for 127378
each tax year beginning with the year in which the application or 127379
complaint was filed or the year for which remission of taxes under 127380
division (C) of section 5713.08 of the Revised Code was requested, 127381
and including each subsequent tax year during which the 127382
application or complaint is pending before the commissioner or 127383
auditor.127384

       Sec. 5717.01.  An appeal from a decision of a county board of 127385
revision may be taken to the board of tax appeals within thirty 127386
days after notice of the decision of the county board of revision 127387
is mailed as provided in division (A) of section 5715.20 of the 127388
Revised Code. Such an appeal may be taken by the county auditor, 127389
the tax commissioner, or any board, legislative authority, public 127390
officialthe board of education of any school district in which 127391
the parcel that is the subject of the decision is located, the 127392
county recorder, or a taxpayer authorized by section 5715.19 of 127393
the Revised Code to file complaints against valuations or 127394
assessments with the auditor. Such appeal shall be taken by the 127395
filing of a notice of appeal, in person or by certified mail, 127396
express mail, or authorized delivery service, with the board of 127397
tax appeals and with the county board of revision. If notice of 127398
appeal is filed by certified mail, express mail, or authorized 127399
delivery service as provided in section 5703.056 of the Revised 127400
Code, the date of the United States postmark placed on the 127401
sender's receipt by the postal service or the date of receipt 127402
recorded by the authorized delivery service shall be treated as 127403
the date of filing. Upon receipt of such notice of appeal such 127404
county board of revision shall by certified mail notify all 127405
persons thereof who were parties to the proceeding before such 127406
county board of revision, and shall file proof of such notice with 127407
the board of tax appeals. The county board of revision shall 127408
thereupon certify to the board of tax appeals a transcript of the 127409
record of the proceedings of the county board of revision 127410
pertaining to the original complaint, and all evidence offered in 127411
connection therewith. Such appeal may be heard by the board of tax 127412
appeals at its offices in Columbus or in the county where the 127413
property is listed for taxation, or the board of tax appeals may 127414
cause its examiners to conduct such hearing and to report to it 127415
their findings for affirmation or rejection.127416

       The board of tax appeals may order the appeal to be heard on 127417
the record and the evidence certified to it by the county board of 127418
revision, or it may order the hearing of additional evidence, and 127419
it may make such investigation concerning the appeal as it deems 127420
proper.127421

       Sec. 5725.18.  (A) An annual franchise tax on the privilege 127422
of being an insurance company is hereby levied on each domestic 127423
insurance company. In the month of May, annually, the treasurer of 127424
state shall charge for collection from each domestic insurance 127425
company a franchise tax in the amount computed in accordance with 127426
the following, as applicable:127427

       (1) With respect to a domestic insurance company that is a 127428
health insuring corporation, one per cent of all premium rate 127429
payments received, exclusive of payments received under the 127430
medicare program established under Title XVIII of the "Social 127431
Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended,127432
and exclusive of payments received pursuant to the medical 127433
assistancemedicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of the 127434
Revised Code for the period ending September 30, 2009, as 127435
reflected in its annual report for the preceding calendar year;127436

       (2) With respect to a domestic insurance company that is not 127437
a health insuring corporation, one and four-tenths per cent of the 127438
gross amount of premiums received from policies covering risks 127439
within this state, exclusive of premiums received under the 127440
medicare program established under Title XVIII of the "Social 127441
Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended,127442
and exclusive of payments received pursuant to the medical 127443
assistancemedicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of the 127444
Revised Code for the period ending September 30, 2009, as 127445
reflected in its annual statement for the preceding calendar year, 127446
and, if the company operates a health insuring corporation as a 127447
line of business, one per cent of all premium rate payments 127448
received from that line of business, exclusive of payments 127449
received under the medicare program established under Title XVIII 127450
of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 127451
301, as amended, and exclusive of payments received pursuant to 127452
the medical assistancemedicaid program established under Chapter 127453
5111. of the Revised Code for the period ending September 30, 127454
2009, as reflected in its annual statement for the preceding 127455
calendar year.127456

       Domestic insurance companies, including health insuring 127457
corporations, receiving payments pursuant to the medical 127458
assistancemedicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of the 127459
Revised Code during the period beginning October 1, 2009, and 127460
ending December 31, 2009, shall file with the 2009 annual 127461
statement to the superintendent a schedule that reflects those 127462
payments received pursuant to the medical assistancemedicaid127463
program for that period. The payments reflected in the schedule, 127464
plus all other taxable premiums, are subject to the annual 127465
franchise tax due to be paid in 2010.127466

       (B) The gross amount of premium rate payments or premiums 127467
used to compute the applicable tax in accordance with division (A) 127468
of this section is subject to the deductions prescribed by section 127469
5729.03 of the Revised Code for foreign insurance companies. The 127470
objects of such tax are those declared in section 5725.24 of the 127471
Revised Code, to which only such tax shall be applied.127472

       (C) In no case shall such tax be less than two hundred fifty 127473
dollars.127474

       Sec. 5725.34.  (A) As used in this section, "certificate 127475
owner" has the same meaning as in section 149.311 of the Revised 127476
Code.127477

       (B) There is allowed a credit against the tax imposed by 127478
section 5725.18 of the Revised Code for an insurance company 127479
subject to that tax that is a certificate owner of a 127480
rehabilitation tax credit certificate issued under section 149.311 127481
of the Revised Code. The credit shall equal twenty-five per cent 127482
of the dollar amount indicated on the certificate, but the amount 127483
of the credit allowed for any company for any year shall not 127484
exceed fiveten million dollars. The credit shall be claimed in 127485
the calendar year specified in the certificate and in the order 127486
required under section 5725.98 of the Revised Code. If the credit 127487
exceeds the amount of tax otherwise due in that year, the excess 127488
shall be refunded to the company but, if any amount of the credit 127489
is refunded, the sum of the amount refunded and the amount applied 127490
to reduce the tax otherwise due in that year shall not exceed 127491
three million dollars. The company may carry forward any balance 127492
of the credit in excess of the amount claimed in that year for not 127493
more than five ensuing years, and shall deduct any amount claimed 127494
in any such year from the amount claimed in an ensuing year.127495

       (C) An insurance company claiming a credit under this section 127496
shall retain the rehabilitation tax credit certificate for four 127497
years following the end of the year in which the credit was 127498
claimed, and shall make the certificate available for inspection 127499
by the tax commissioner upon the request of the tax commissioner 127500
during that period.127501

       Sec. 5726.20. (A) The tax commissioner may make an 127502
assessment, based on any information in the commissioner's 127503
possession, against any person that fails to file a return or 127504
report or pay any tax as required by this chapter. The reporting 127505
person for a taxpayer shall file the annual report required under 127506
section 5726.02 of the Revised Code and remit the tax imposed by 127507
this chapter. Each person included in the annual report of the 127508
taxpayer is jointly and severally liable for the tax imposed by 127509
this chapter and any penalties and interest thereon. If the 127510
reporting person fails, for any reason, to file and remit any tax, 127511
the amount due may be collected by assessment against the 127512
reporting person and against any or all other persons required to 127513
be included in the annual report of the taxpayer in the manner 127514
provided by this section. The commissioner shall give the person 127515
assessed written notice of the assessment as provided in section 127516
5703.37 of the Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner 127517
shall provide instructions on the manner in which to petition for 127518
reassessment and request a hearing with respect to the petition.127519

       (B) No assessment shall be made or issued against a person 127520
under this section more than four years after the later of the 127521
final date the report subject to assessment was required to be 127522
filed or the date such report was filed. Such time limit may be 127523
extended if both the person and the commissioner consent in 127524
writing to the extension or if an agreement waiving or extending 127525
the time limit has been entered into pursuant to section 122.171 127526
of the Revised Code. Any such extension shall extend the four-year 127527
time limit prescribed in division (A) of section 5726.30 of the 127528
Revised Code for the same period of time. There shall be no bar or 127529
limit to an assessment against a person that fails to file a 127530
report subject to assessment as required by this chapter, or that 127531
files a fraudulent report.127532

       (C) Unless the person assessed, within sixty days after 127533
service of the notice of assessment, files with the tax 127534
commissioner, either in person or by certified mail, a written 127535
petition for reassessment signed by the person or the person's 127536
authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 127537
shall become final, and the amount of the assessment is due and 127538
payable from the person assessed to the treasurer of state. A 127539
petition shall indicate the objections of the person assessed, but 127540
additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the 127541
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 127542
If a petition for reassessment has been properly filed, the 127543
commissioner shall proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised 127544
Code.127545

       (D)(1) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of 127546
the assessment, including any accrued interest, remains unpaid, a 127547
certified copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the 127548
assessment final may be filed in the office of the clerk of the 127549
court of common pleas in the county in which the person resides or 127550
has its principal place of business in this state, or in the 127551
office of the clerk of court of common pleas of Franklin county.127552

       (2) Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 127553
enter judgment for the state against the person assessed in the 127554
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 127555
in a loose-leaf book entitled, "special judgments for the 127556
financial institution tax" and shall have the same effect as other 127557
judgments. Execution shall issue upon the judgment at the request 127558
of the tax commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on 127559
execution shall apply to sales made under the judgment.127560

       (3) The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its 127561
entirety within sixty days after the day the assessment was 127562
issued, the portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall 127563
bear interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 127564
of the Revised Code from the date the tax commissioner issues the 127565
assessment until the date the assessment is paid or until it is 127566
certified to the attorney general for collection under section 127567
131.02 of the Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid 127568
portion of the assessment is certified to the attorney general for 127569
collection, the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear 127570
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 127571
the Revised Code from the date of certification until the date it 127572
is paid in its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner 127573
as the tax and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment 127574
under this section.127575

       (E) If the tax commissioner believes that collection of the 127576
tax imposed by this chapter will be jeopardized unless proceedings 127577
to collect or secure collection of the tax are instituted without 127578
delay, the commissioner may issue a jeopardy assessment against 127579
the person liable for the tax. Immediately upon the issuance of 127580
the jeopardy assessment, the commissioner shall file an entry with 127581
the clerk of the court of common pleas in the manner prescribed by 127582
division (D) of this section. Notice of the jeopardy assessment 127583
shall be served on the person assessed or the person's authorized 127584
agent in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the Revised 127585
Code within five days of the filing of the entry with the clerk. 127586
The total amount assessed shall be immediately due and payable, 127587
unless the person assessed files a petition for reassessment in 127588
accordance with division (C) of this section and provides security 127589
in a form satisfactory to the commissioner and in an amount 127590
sufficient to satisfy the unpaid balance of the assessment. Full 127591
or partial payment of the assessment shall not prejudice the 127592
commissioner's consideration of the petition for reassessment.127593

       (F) The tax commissioner shall immediately forward to the 127594
treasurer of state all amounts the commissioner receives under 127595
this section. Such amounts shall be considered as revenue arising 127596
from the tax imposed by this chapter.127597

       (G) If the tax commissioner possesses information indicating 127598
that the amount of tax a taxpayer is required to pay under this 127599
chapter exceeds the amount the reporting person for the taxpayer 127600
paid, the tax commissioner may audit a sample of the taxpayer's 127601
gross receipts over a representative period of time to ascertain 127602
the amount of tax due, and may issue an assessment based on the 127603
audit. The tax commissioner shall make a good faith effort to 127604
reach agreement with the taxpayer in selecting a representative 127605
sample. The tax commissioner may apply a sampling method only if 127606
the commissioner has prescribed the method by rule.127607

       (H) If the whereabouts of a person subject to this chapter is 127608
not known to the tax commissioner, the secretary of state is 127609
hereby deemed to be that person's agent for purposes of service of 127610
process or notice of any assessment, action, or proceedings 127611
instituted in this state against the person under this chapter. 127612
Such process or notice shall be served on such person by the 127613
commissioner or by an agent of the commissioner by leaving a true 127614
and attested copy of the process or notice at the office of the 127615
secretary of state at least fifteen days before the return day of 127616
such process or notice, and by sending a copy of the process or 127617
notice to such person by ordinary mail, with an endorsement 127618
thereon of the service upon the secretary of state, addressed to 127619
such person at the person's last known address.127620

       Sec. 5726.52. (A) As used in this section, "certificate 127621
owner" has the same meaning as in section 149.311 of the Revised 127622
Code.127623

       (B) A taxpayer may claim a refundable credit against the tax 127624
imposed by this chapter for each person included in the annual 127625
report of a taxpayer that is a certificate owner of a 127626
rehabilitation tax credit certificate issued under section 149.311 127627
of the Revised Code. The credit shall equal twenty-five per cent 127628
of the dollar amount indicated on each certificate, but shall not 127629
exceed fiveten million dollars for each certificate.127630

       The credit shall be claimed for the calendar year specified 127631
in the certificate and in the order required under section 5726.98 127632
of the Revised Code. If the credit exceeds the amount of tax 127633
otherwise due in that year, the excess shall be refunded to the 127634
taxpayer, provided that, if any amount of the credit is refunded, 127635
the sum of the amount refunded and the amount applied to reduce 127636
the tax otherwise due in that year shall not exceed three million 127637
dollars. The taxpayer may carry forward any balance of the credit 127638
in excess of the amount claimed in that year for not more than 127639
five ensuing years, and shall deduct any amount claimed in any 127640
such year from the amount claimed in an ensuing year. A taxpayer 127641
may claim against the tax imposed by this chapter any unused 127642
portion of the credit authorized under section 5725.151 of the 127643
Revised Code, but only to the extent of the five-year carry 127644
forward period authorized by that section.127645

       (C) A taxpayer claiming a credit under this section shall 127646
retain the rehabilitation tax credit certificate for four years 127647
following the end of the year to which the credit was applied, and 127648
shall make the certificate available for inspection by the tax 127649
commissioner upon the request of the commissioner during that 127650
period.127651

       Sec. 5727.26.  (A) The tax commissioner may make an 127652
assessment, based on any information in the commissioner's 127653
possession, against any natural gas company or combined company 127654
that fails to file a return or pay any tax, interest, or 127655
additional charge as required by sections 5727.24 to 5727.29 of 127656
the Revised Code. The commissioner shall give the company assessed 127657
written notice of the assessment as provided in section 5703.37 of 127658
the Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner shall provide 127659
instructions on how to petition for reassessment and request a 127660
hearing on the petition. A penalty of up to fifteen per cent may 127661
be added to all amounts assessed under this section. The tax 127662
commissioner may adopt rules providing for the imposition and 127663
remission of the penalty.127664

       (B) Unless the company assessed, within sixty days after 127665
service of the notice of assessment, files with the tax 127666
commissioner, either personally or by certified mail, a written 127667
petition signed by the company's authorized agent having knowledge 127668
of the facts, the assessment becomes final, and the amount of the 127669
assessment is due and payable from the company assessed to the 127670
treasurer of state. The petition shall indicate the objections of 127671
the company assessed, but additional objections may be raised in 127672
writing if received by the commissioner prior to the date shown on 127673
the final determination.127674

       If a petition for reassessment has been properly filed, the 127675
commissioner shall proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised 127676
Code.127677

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 127678
assessment, including accrued interest, remains unpaid, a 127679
certified copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the 127680
assessment final may be filed in the office of the clerk of the 127681
court of common pleas in the county in which the natural gas 127682
company's or combined company's principal place of business is 127683
located, or in the office of the clerk of court of common pleas of 127684
Franklin county.127685

       Immediately on the filing of the entry, the clerk shall enter 127686
judgment for the state against the company assessed in the amount 127687
shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk in a 127688
loose-leaf book entitled, "special judgments for the public 127689
utility excise tax on natural gas and combined companies," and 127690
shall have the same effect as other judgments. Execution shall 127691
issue upon the judgment at the request of the tax commissioner, 127692
and all laws applicable to sales on execution shall apply to sales 127693
made under the judgment.127694

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety127695
within sixty days after the day the assessment was issued, the 127696
portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear 127697
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 127698
the Revised Code from the day the tax commissioner issues the 127699
assessment until it is paid or until it is certified to the 127700
attorney general for collection under section 131.02 of the 127701
Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid portion of the 127702
assessment is certified to the attorney general for collection, 127703
the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear interest at 127704
the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 127705
Code from the date of certification until the date it is paid in 127706
its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax 127707
and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment under this 127708
section.127709

       (D) If the tax commissioner believes that collection of the 127710
tax will be jeopardized unless proceedings to collect or secure 127711
collection of the tax are instituted without delay, the 127712
commissioner may issue a jeopardy assessment against the company 127713
liable for the tax. Immediately upon the issuance of the jeopardy 127714
assessment, the commissioner shall file an entry with the clerk of 127715
the court of common pleas in the manner prescribed by division (C) 127716
of this section. Notice of the jeopardy assessment shall be served 127717
on the company assessed or the company's authorized agent in the 127718
manner provided in section 5703.37 of the Revised Code within five 127719
days of the filing of the entry with the clerk. The total amount 127720
assessed is immediately due and payable, unless the company 127721
assessed files a petition for reassessment in accordance with 127722
division (B) of this section and provides security in a form 127723
satisfactory to the commissioner and in an amount sufficient to 127724
satisfy the unpaid balance of the assessment. Full or partial 127725
payment of the assessment does not prejudice the commissioner's 127726
consideration of the petition for reassessment.127727

       (E) The tax commissioner shall immediately forward to the 127728
treasurer of state all amounts that the tax commissioner receives 127729
under this section, and such amounts shall be considered revenue 127730
arising from the tax imposed by section 5727.24 of the Revised 127731
Code.127732

       (F) No assessment shall be made or issued against a natural 127733
gas company or combined company for the tax imposed by section 127734
5727.24 of the Revised Code more than four years after the return 127735
date for the period in which the tax was reported, or more than 127736
four years after the return for the period was filed, whichever is 127737
later.127738

       Sec. 5727.75.  (A) For purposes of this section: 127739

       (1) "Qualified energy project" means an energy project 127740
certified by the director of development services pursuant to this 127741
section. 127742

       (2) "Energy project" means a project to provide electric 127743
power through the construction, installation, and use of an energy 127744
facility. 127745

       (3) "Alternative energy zone" means a county declared as such 127746
by the board of county commissioners under division (E)(1)(b) or 127747
(c) of this section. 127748

       (4) "Full-time equivalent employee" means the total number of 127749
employee-hours for which compensation was paid to individuals 127750
employed at a qualified energy project for services performed at 127751
the project during the calendar year divided by two thousand 127752
eighty hours. 127753

       (5) "Solar energy project" means an energy project composed 127754
of an energy facility using solar panels to generate electricity. 127755

       (B)(1) Tangible personal property of a qualified energy 127756
project using renewable energy resources is exempt from taxation 127757
for tax years 2011, 2012, 2013, and 2014through 2019 if all of 127758
the following conditions are satisfied: 127759

       (a) On or before December 31, 20132018, the owner or a 127760
lessee pursuant to a sale and leaseback transaction of the project 127761
submits an application to the power siting board for a certificate 127762
under section 4906.20 of the Revised Code, or if that section does 127763
not apply, submits an application for any approval, consent, 127764
permit, or certificate or satisfies any condition required by a 127765
public agency or political subdivision of this state for the 127766
construction or initial operation of an energy project. 127767

       (b) Construction or installation of the energy facility 127768
begins on or after January 1, 2009, and before January 1, 2014127769
2019. For the purposes of this division, construction begins on 127770
the earlier of the date of application for a certificate or other 127771
approval or permit described in division (B)(1)(a) of this 127772
section, or the date the contract for the construction or 127773
installation of the energy facility is entered into. 127774

       (c) For a qualified energy project with a nameplate capacity 127775
of five megawatts or greater, a board of county commissioners of a 127776
county in which property of the project is located has adopted a 127777
resolution under division (E)(1)(b) or (c) of this section to 127778
approve the application submitted under division (E) of this 127779
section to exempt the property located in that county from 127780
taxation. A board's adoption of a resolution rejecting an 127781
application or its failure to adopt a resolution approving the 127782
application does not affect the tax-exempt status of the qualified 127783
energy project's property that is located in another county. 127784

       (2) If tangible personal property of a qualified energy 127785
project using renewable energy resources was exempt from taxation 127786
under this section beginning in any of tax years 2011, 2012, 2013, 127787
or 2014, 2015, 2016, 2017, 2018, or 2019, and the certification 127788
under division (E)(2) of this section has not been revoked, the 127789
tangible personal property of the qualified energy project is 127790
exempt from taxation for tax year 20152020 and all ensuing tax 127791
years if the property was placed into service before January 1, 127792
20152020, as certified in the construction progress report 127793
required under division (F)(2) of this section. Tangible personal 127794
property that has not been placed into service before that date is 127795
taxable property subject to taxation. An energy project for which 127796
certification has been revoked is ineligible for further exemption 127797
under this section. Revocation does not affect the tax-exempt 127798
status of the project's tangible personal property for the tax 127799
year in which revocation occurs or any prior tax year.127800

       (C) Tangible personal property of a qualified energy project 127801
using clean coal technology, advanced nuclear technology, or 127802
cogeneration technology is exempt from taxation for the first tax 127803
year that the property would be listed for taxation and all 127804
subsequent years if all of the following circumstances are met: 127805

       (1) The property was placed into service before January 1, 127806
20192024. Tangible personal property that has not been placed 127807
into service before that date is taxable property subject to 127808
taxation. 127809

       (2) For such a qualified energy project with a nameplate 127810
capacity of five megawatts or greater, a board of county 127811
commissioners of a county in which property of the qualified 127812
energy project is located has adopted a resolution under division 127813
(E)(1)(b) or (c) of this section to approve the application 127814
submitted under division (E) of this section to exempt the 127815
property located in that county from taxation. A board's adoption 127816
of a resolution rejecting the application or its failure to adopt 127817
a resolution approving the application does not affect the 127818
tax-exempt status of the qualified energy project's property that 127819
is located in another county. 127820

       (3) The certification for the qualified energy project issued 127821
under division (E)(2) of this section has not been revoked. An 127822
energy project for which certification has been revoked is 127823
ineligible for exemption under this section. Revocation does not 127824
affect the tax-exempt status of the project's tangible personal 127825
property for the tax year in which revocation occurs or any prior 127826
tax year. 127827

       (D) Except as otherwise provided in this section, real 127828
property of a qualified energy project is exempt from taxation for 127829
any tax year for which the tangible personal property of the 127830
qualified energy project is exempted under this section. 127831

       (E)(1)(a) A person may apply to the director of development 127832
services for certification of an energy project as a qualified 127833
energy project on or before the following dates: 127834

       (i) December 31, 20132018, for an energy project using 127835
renewable energy resources; 127836

       (ii) December 31, 20152020, for an energy project using 127837
clean coal technology, advanced nuclear technology, or 127838
cogeneration technology. 127839

       (b) The director shall forward a copy of each application for 127840
certification of an energy project with a nameplate capacity of 127841
five megawatts or greater to the board of county commissioners of 127842
each county in which the project is located and to each taxing 127843
unit with territory located in each of the affected counties. Any 127844
board that receives from the director a copy of an application 127845
submitted under this division shall adopt a resolution approving 127846
or rejecting the application unless it has adopted a resolution 127847
under division (E)(1)(c) of this section. A resolution adopted 127848
under division (E)(1)(b) or (c) of this section may require an 127849
annual service payment to be made in addition to the service 127850
payment required under division (G) of this section. The sum of 127851
the service payment required in the resolution and the service 127852
payment required under division (G) of this section shall not 127853
exceed nine thousand dollars per megawatt of nameplate capacity 127854
located in the county. The resolution shall specify the time and 127855
manner in which the payments required by the resolution shall be 127856
paid to the county treasurer. The county treasurer shall deposit 127857
the payment to the credit of the county's general fund to be used 127858
for any purpose for which money credited to that fund may be used.127859

       The board shall send copies of the resolution by certified 127860
mail to the owner of the facility and the director within thirty 127861
days after receipt of the application, or a longer period of time 127862
if authorized by the director. 127863

       (c) A board of county commissioners may adopt a resolution 127864
declaring the county to be an alternative energy zone and 127865
declaring all applications submitted to the director of 127866
development services under this division after the adoption of the 127867
resolution, and prior to its repeal, to be approved by the board. 127868

       All tangible personal property and real property of an energy 127869
project with a nameplate capacity of five megawatts or greater is 127870
taxable if it is located in a county in which the board of county 127871
commissioners adopted a resolution rejecting the application 127872
submitted under this division or failed to adopt a resolution 127873
approving the application under division (E)(1)(b) or (c) of this 127874
section. 127875

       (2) The director shall certify an energy project if all of 127876
the following circumstances exist: 127877

       (a) The application was timely submitted. 127878

       (b) For an energy project with a nameplate capacity of five 127879
megawatts or greater, a board of county commissioners of at least 127880
one county in which the project is located has adopted a 127881
resolution approving the application under division (E)(1)(b) or 127882
(c) of this section. 127883

       (c) No portion of the project's facility was used to supply 127884
electricity before December 31, 2009. 127885

       (3) The director shall deny a certification application if 127886
the director determines the person has failed to comply with any 127887
requirement under this section. The director may revoke a 127888
certification if the director determines the person, or subsequent 127889
owner or lessee pursuant to a sale and leaseback transaction of 127890
the qualified energy project, has failed to comply with any 127891
requirement under this section. Upon certification or revocation, 127892
the director shall notify the person, owner, or lessee, the tax 127893
commissioner, and the county auditor of a county in which the 127894
project is located of the certification or revocation. Notice 127895
shall be provided in a manner convenient to the director. 127896

       (F) The owner or a lessee pursuant to a sale and leaseback 127897
transaction of a qualified energy project shall do each of the 127898
following: 127899

       (1) Comply with all applicable regulations; 127900

       (2) File with the director of development services a 127901
certified construction progress report before the first day of 127902
March of each year during the energy facility's construction or 127903
installation indicating the percentage of the project completed, 127904
and the project's nameplate capacity, as of the preceding 127905
thirty-first day of December. Unless otherwise instructed by the 127906
director of development services, the owner or lessee of an energy 127907
project shall file a report with the director on or before the 127908
first day of March each year after completion of the energy 127909
facility's construction or installation indicating the project's 127910
nameplate capacity as of the preceding thirty-first day of 127911
December. Not later than sixty days after June 17, 2010, the owner 127912
or lessee of an energy project, the construction of which was 127913
completed before June 17, 2010, shall file a certificate 127914
indicating the project's nameplate capacity. 127915

       (3) File with the director of development services, in a 127916
manner prescribed by the director, a report of the total number of 127917
full-time equivalent employees, and the total number of full-time 127918
equivalent employees domiciled in Ohio, who are employed in the 127919
construction or installation of the energy facility; 127920

       (4) For energy projects with a nameplate capacity of five 127921
megawatts or greater, repair all roads, bridges, and culverts 127922
affected by construction as reasonably required to restore them to 127923
their preconstruction condition, as determined by the county 127924
engineer in consultation with the local jurisdiction responsible 127925
for the roads, bridges, and culverts. In the event that the county 127926
engineer deems any road, bridge, or culvert to be inadequate to 127927
support the construction or decommissioning of the energy 127928
facility, the road, bridge, or culvert shall be rebuilt or 127929
reinforced to the specifications established by the county 127930
engineer prior to the construction or decommissioning of the 127931
facility. The owner or lessee of the facility shall post a bond in 127932
an amount established by the county engineer and to be held by the 127933
board of county commissioners to ensure funding for repairs of 127934
roads, bridges, and culverts affected during the construction. The 127935
bond shall be released by the board not later than one year after 127936
the date the repairs are completed. The energy facility owner or 127937
lessee pursuant to a sale and leaseback transaction shall post a 127938
bond, as may be required by the Ohio power siting board in the 127939
certificate authorizing commencement of construction issued 127940
pursuant to section 4906.10 of the Revised Code, to ensure funding 127941
for repairs to roads, bridges, and culverts resulting from 127942
decommissioning of the facility. The energy facility owner or 127943
lessee and the county engineer may enter into an agreement 127944
regarding specific transportation plans, reinforcements, 127945
modifications, use and repair of roads, financial security to be 127946
provided, and any other relevant issue. 127947

       (5) Provide or facilitate training for fire and emergency 127948
responders for response to emergency situations related to the 127949
energy project and, for energy projects with a nameplate capacity 127950
of five megawatts or greater, at the person's expense, equip the 127951
fire and emergency responders with proper equipment as reasonably 127952
required to enable them to respond to such emergency situations; 127953

       (6) Maintain a ratio of Ohio-domiciled full-time equivalent 127954
employees employed in the construction or installation of the 127955
energy project to total full-time equivalent employees employed in 127956
the construction or installation of the energy project of not less 127957
than eighty per cent in the case of a solar energy project, and 127958
not less than fifty per cent in the case of any other energy 127959
project. In the case of an energy project for which certification 127960
from the power siting board is required under section 4906.20 of 127961
the Revised Code, the number of full-time equivalent employees 127962
employed in the construction or installation of the energy project 127963
equals the number actually employed or the number projected to be 127964
employed in the certificate application, if such projection is 127965
required under regulations adopted pursuant to section 4906.03 of 127966
the Revised Code, whichever is greater. For all other energy 127967
projects, the number of full-time equivalent employees employed in 127968
the construction or installation of the energy project equals the 127969
number actually employed or the number projected to be employed by 127970
the director of development services, whichever is greater. To 127971
estimate the number of employees to be employed in the 127972
construction or installation of an energy project, the director 127973
shall use a generally accepted job-estimating model in use for 127974
renewable energy projects, including but not limited to the job 127975
and economic development impact model. The director may adjust an 127976
estimate produced by a model to account for variables not 127977
accounted for by the model. 127978

       (7) For energy projects with a nameplate capacity in excess 127979
of two megawatts, establish a relationship with a member of the 127980
university system of Ohio as defined in section 3345.011 of the 127981
Revised Code or with a person offering an apprenticeship program 127982
registered with the employment and training administration within 127983
the United States department of labor or with the apprenticeship 127984
council created by section 4139.02 of the Revised Code, to educate 127985
and train individuals for careers in the wind or solar energy 127986
industry. The relationship may include endowments, cooperative 127987
programs, internships, apprenticeships, research and development 127988
projects, and curriculum development. 127989

       (8) Offer to sell power or renewable energy credits from the 127990
energy project to electric distribution utilities or electric 127991
service companies subject to renewable energy resource 127992
requirements under section 4928.64 of the Revised Code that have 127993
issued requests for proposal for such power or renewable energy 127994
credits. If no electric distribution utility or electric service 127995
company issues a request for proposal on or before December 31, 127996
2010, or accepts an offer for power or renewable energy credits 127997
within forty-five days after the offer is submitted, power or 127998
renewable energy credits from the energy project may be sold to 127999
other persons. Division (F)(8) of this section does not apply if: 128000

        (a) The owner or lessee is a rural electric company or a 128001
municipal power agency as defined in section 3734.058 of the 128002
Revised Code. 128003

        (b) The owner or lessee is a person that, before completion 128004
of the energy project, contracted for the sale of power or 128005
renewable energy credits with a rural electric company or a 128006
municipal power agency. 128007

        (c) The owner or lessee contracts for the sale of power or 128008
renewable energy credits from the energy project before June 17, 128009
2010. 128010

       (9) Make annual service payments as required by division (G) 128011
of this section and as may be required in a resolution adopted by 128012
a board of county commissioners under division (E) of this 128013
section. 128014

       (G) The owner or a lessee pursuant to a sale and leaseback 128015
transaction of a qualified energy project shall make annual 128016
service payments in lieu of taxes to the county treasurer on or 128017
before the final dates for payments of taxes on public utility 128018
personal property on the real and public utility personal property 128019
tax list for each tax year for which property of the energy 128020
project is exempt from taxation under this section. The county 128021
treasurer shall allocate the payment on the basis of the project's 128022
physical location. Upon receipt of a payment, or if timely payment 128023
has not been received, the county treasurer shall certify such 128024
receipt or non-receipt to the director of development services and 128025
tax commissioner in a form determined by the director and 128026
commissioner, respectively. Each payment shall be in the following 128027
amount: 128028

       (1) In the case of a solar energy project, seven thousand 128029
dollars per megawatt of nameplate capacity located in the county 128030
as of December 31, 2010, for tax year 2011, as of December 31, 128031
2011, for tax year 2012, as of December 31, 2012, for tax year 128032
2013, as of December 31, 2013, for tax year 2014, and as of 128033
December 31, 2014, for tax year 2015, as of December 31, 2015, for 128034
tax year 2016, as of December 31, 2016, for tax year 2017, as of 128035
December 31, 2017, for tax year 2018, as of December 31, 2018, for 128036
tax year 2019, and as of December 31, 2019, for tax year 2020 and 128037
each tax year thereafter; 128038

       (2) In the case of any other energy project using renewable 128039
energy resources, the following: 128040

       (a) If the project maintains during the construction or 128041
installation of the energy facility a ratio of Ohio-domiciled 128042
full-time equivalent employees to total full-time equivalent 128043
employees of not less than seventy-five per cent, six thousand 128044
dollars per megawatt of nameplate capacity located in the county 128045
as of the thirty-first day of December of the preceding tax year; 128046

       (b) If the project maintains during the construction or 128047
installation of the energy facility a ratio of Ohio-domiciled 128048
full-time equivalent employees to total full-time equivalent 128049
employees of less than seventy-five per cent but not less than 128050
sixty per cent, seven thousand dollars per megawatt of nameplate 128051
capacity located in the county as of the thirty-first day of 128052
December of the preceding tax year; 128053

       (c) If the project maintains during the construction or 128054
installation of the energy facility a ratio of Ohio-domiciled 128055
full-time equivalent employees to total full-time equivalent 128056
employees of less than sixty per cent but not less than fifty per 128057
cent, eight thousand dollars per megawatt of nameplate capacity 128058
located in the county as of the thirty-first day of December of 128059
the preceding tax year. 128060

       (3) In the case of an energy project using clean coal 128061
technology, advanced nuclear technology, or cogeneration 128062
technology, the following: 128063

       (a) If the project maintains during the construction or 128064
installation of the energy facility a ratio of Ohio-domiciled 128065
full-time equivalent employees to total full-time equivalent 128066
employees of not less than seventy-five per cent, six thousand 128067
dollars per megawatt of nameplate capacity located in the county 128068
as of the thirty-first day of December of the preceding tax year; 128069

       (b) If the project maintains during the construction or 128070
installation of the energy facility a ratio of Ohio-domiciled 128071
full-time equivalent employees to total full-time equivalent 128072
employees of less than seventy-five per cent but not less than 128073
sixty per cent, seven thousand dollars per megawatt of nameplate 128074
capacity located in the county as of the thirty-first day of 128075
December of the preceding tax year; 128076

       (c) If the project maintains during the construction or 128077
installation of the energy facility a ratio of Ohio-domiciled 128078
full-time equivalent employees to total full-time equivalent 128079
employees of less than sixty per cent but not less than fifty per 128080
cent, eight thousand dollars per megawatt of nameplate capacity 128081
located in the county as of the thirty-first day of December of 128082
the preceding tax year. 128083

       (H) The director of development services in consultation with 128084
the tax commissioner shall adopt rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of 128085
the Revised Code to implement and enforce this section.128086

       Sec. 5727.84.  (A) As used in this section and sections 128087
5727.85, 5727.86, and 5727.87 of the Revised Code:128088

       (1) "School district" means a city, local, or exempted 128089
village school district.128090

       (2) "Joint vocational school district" means a joint 128091
vocational school district created under section 3311.16 of the 128092
Revised Code, and includes a cooperative education school district 128093
created under section 3311.52 or 3311.521 of the Revised Code and 128094
a county school financing district created under section 3311.50 128095
of the Revised Code.128096

       (3) "Local taxing unit" means a subdivision or taxing unit, 128097
as defined in section 5705.01 of the Revised Code, a park district 128098
created under Chapter 1545. of the Revised Code, or a township 128099
park district established under section 511.23 of the Revised 128100
Code, but excludes school districts and joint vocational school 128101
districts.128102

       (4) "State education aid," for a school district, means the 128103
following:128104

       (a) For fiscal years prior to fiscal year 2010, the sum of 128105
state aid amounts computed for the district under former sections 128106
3317.029, 3317.052, and 3317.053 of the Revised Code and the 128107
following provisions, as they existed for the applicable fiscal 128108
year: divisions (A), (C)(1), (C)(4), (D), (E), and (F) of section 128109
3317.022; divisions (B), (C), and (D) of section 3317.023; 128110
divisions (G), (L), and (N) of section 3317.024; and sections 128111
3317.029, 3317.0216, 3317.0217, 3317.04, and 3317.05, 3317.052, 128112
and 3317.053 of the Revised Code; and the adjustments required by: 128113
division (C) of section 3310.08; division (C)(2) of section 128114
3310.41; division (C) of section 3314.08; division (D)(2) of 128115
section 3314.091; division (D) of former section 3314.13; 128116
divisions (E), (K), (L), (M), and (N) of section 3317.023; 128117
division (C) of section 3317.20; and sections 3313.979 and 128118
3313.981 of the Revised Code. However, when calculating state 128119
education aid for a school district for fiscal years 2008 and 128120
2009, include the amount computed for the district under Section 128121
269.20.80 of H.B. 119 of the 127th general assembly, as 128122
subsequently amended, instead of division (D) of section 3317.022 128123
of the Revised Code; and include amounts calculated under Section 128124
269.30.80 of H.B. 119 of the 127th general assembly, as 128125
subsequently amended.128126

       (b) For fiscal years 2010 and 2011, the sum of the amounts 128127
computed for the district under former sections 3306.052, 3306.12, 128128
3306.13, 3306.19, 3306.191, and 3306.192, 3317.052, and 3317.053128129
of the Revised Code and the following provisions, as they existed 128130
for the applicable fiscal year: division (G) of section 3317.024; 128131
sectionssection 3317.05, 3317.052, and 3317.053 of the Revised 128132
Code; and the adjustments required by division (C) of section 128133
3310.08; division (C)(2) of section 3310.41; division (C) of 128134
section 3314.08; division (D)(2) of section 3314.091; division (D) 128135
of former section 3314.13; divisions (E), (K), (L), (M), and (N) 128136
of section 3317.023; division (C) of section 3317.20; and sections 128137
3313.979, 3313.981, and 3326.33 of the Revised Code.128138

       (c) For fiscal years 2012 and 2013, the amount paid in 128139
accordance with the section of H.B. 153 of the 129th general 128140
assembly entitled "FUNDING FOR CITY, EXEMPTED VILLAGE, AND LOCAL 128141
SCHOOL DISTRICTS" and the adjustments required by division (C) of 128142
section 3310.08; division (C)(2) of section 3310.41; section 128143
3310.55; division (C) of section 3314.08; division (D)(2) of 128144
section 3314.091; division (D) of former section 3314.13; 128145
divisions (B), (H), (I), (J), and (K) of section 3317.023; 128146
division (C) of section 3317.20; and sections 3313.979 and 128147
3313.981 of the Revised Code;128148

       (d) For fiscal year 2014 and each fiscal year thereafter, the 128149
sum of amounts computed for and paid to the district under section 128150
3317.022 of the Revised Code; and the adjustments required by 128151
division (C) of section 3310.08, division (C)(2) of section 128152
3310.41, section 3310.55, division (C) of section 3314.08, 128153
division (D)(2) of section 3314.091, divisions (B), (H), (J), and 128154
(K) of section 3317.023, and sections 3313.978, 3313.981, 128155
3317.0212, 3317.0213, 3317.0214, and 3326.33 of the Revised Code. 128156
However, for fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the amount computed for 128157
the district under the section of this act entitled "TRANSITIONAL 128158
AID FOR CITY, LOCAL, AND EXEMPTED VILLAGE SCHOOL DISTRICTS" also 128159
shall be included.128160

       (5) "State education aid," for a joint vocational school 128161
district, means the following:128162

       (a) For fiscal years prior to fiscal year 2010, the sum of 128163
the state aid amounts computed for the district under division (N) 128164
of section 3317.024 and section 3317.16 of the Revised Code. 128165
However, when calculating state education aid for a joint 128166
vocational school district for fiscal years 2008 and 2009, include 128167
the amount computed for the district under Section 269.30.90 of 128168
H.B. 119 of the 127th general assembly, as subsequently amended.128169

       (b) For fiscal years 2010 and 2011, the amount computed for 128170
the district in accordance with the section of H.B. 1 of the 128th 128171
general assembly entitled "FUNDING FOR JOINT VOCATIONAL SCHOOL 128172
DISTRICTS"."128173

       (c) For fiscal years 2012 and 2013, the amount paid in 128174
accordance with the section of H.B. 153 of the 129th general 128175
assembly entitled "FUNDING FOR JOINT VOCATIONAL SCHOOL DISTRICTS."128176

       (d) For fiscal year 2014 and each fiscal year thereafter, the 128177
amount computed for the district under section 3317.16 of the 128178
Revised Code; except that, for fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the 128179
amount computed for the district under the section of this act 128180
entitled "TRANSITIONAL AID FOR JOINT VOCATIONAL SCHOOL DISTRICTS" 128181
shall be included.128182

        (6) "State education aid offset" means the amount determined 128183
for each school district or joint vocational school district under 128184
division (A)(1) of section 5727.85 of the Revised Code.128185

       (7) "Recognized valuation" has the same meaning as inmeans 128186
the amount computed for a school district pursuant to section 128187
3317.023317.015 of the Revised Code.128188

       (8) "Electric company tax value loss" means the amount 128189
determined under division (D) of this section.128190

       (9) "Natural gas company tax value loss" means the amount 128191
determined under division (E) of this section.128192

       (10) "Tax value loss" means the sum of the electric company 128193
tax value loss and the natural gas company tax value loss.128194

       (11) "Fixed-rate levy" means any tax levied on property other 128195
than a fixed-sum levy.128196

       (12) "Fixed-rate levy loss" means the amount determined under 128197
division (G) of this section.128198

       (13) "Fixed-sum levy" means a tax levied on property at 128199
whatever rate is required to produce a specified amount of tax 128200
money or levied in excess of the ten-mill limitation to pay debt 128201
charges, and includes school district emergency levies charged and 128202
payable pursuant to section 5705.194 of the Revised Code.128203

       (14) "Fixed-sum levy loss" means the amount determined under 128204
division (H) of this section.128205

       (15) "Consumer price index" means the consumer price index 128206
(all items, all urban consumers) prepared by the bureau of labor 128207
statistics of the United States department of labor.128208

       (16) "Total resources" and "total library resources" have the 128209
same meanings as in section 5751.20 of the Revised Code.128210

       (17) "2011 current expense S.B. 3 allocation" means the sum 128211
of payments received by a school district or joint vocational 128212
school district in fiscal year 2011 for current expense levy 128213
losses pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 5727.85 of the 128214
Revised Code. If a fixed-rate levy eligible for reimbursement is 128215
not charged and payable in any year after tax year 2010, "2011 128216
current expense S.B. 3 allocation" used to compute payments to be 128217
made under division (C)(3) of section 5727.85 of the Revised Code 128218
in the tax years following the last year the levy is charged and 128219
payable shall be reduced to the extent that those payments are 128220
attributable to the fixed-rate levy loss of that levy.128221

       (18) "2010 current expense S.B. 3 allocation" means the sum 128222
of payments received by a municipal corporation in calendar year 128223
2010 for current expense levy losses pursuant to division (A)(1) 128224
of section 5727.86 of the Revised Code, excluding any such 128225
payments received for current expense levy losses attributable to 128226
a tax levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised Code. If a 128227
fixed-rate levy eligible for reimbursement is not charged and 128228
payable in any year after tax year 2010, "2010 current expense 128229
S.B. 3 allocation" used to compute payments to be made under 128230
division (A)(1)(d) or (e) of section 5727.86 of the Revised Code 128231
in the tax years following the last year the levy is charged and 128232
payable shall be reduced to the extent that those payments are 128233
attributable to the fixed-rate levy loss of that levy.128234

       (19) "2010 S.B. 3 allocation" means the sum of payments 128235
received by a local taxing unit during calendar year 2010 pursuant 128236
to division (A)(1) of section 5727.86 of the Revised Code, 128237
excluding any such payments received for fixed-rate levy losses 128238
attributable to a tax levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised 128239
Code. If a fixed-rate levy eligible for reimbursement is not 128240
charged and payable in any year after tax year 2010, "2010 S.B. 3 128241
allocation" used to compute payments to be made under division 128242
(A)(1)(d) or (e) of section 5727.86 of the Revised Code in the tax 128243
years following the last year the levy is charged and payable 128244
shall be reduced to the extent that those payments are 128245
attributable to the fixed-rate levy loss of that levy.128246

       (20) "Total S.B. 3 allocation" means, in the case of a school 128247
district or joint vocational school district, the sum of the 128248
payments received in fiscal year 2011 pursuant to divisions (C)(2) 128249
and (D) of section 5727.85 of the Revised Code. In the case of a 128250
local taxing unit, "total S.B. 3 allocation" means the sum of 128251
payments received by the unit in calendar year 2010 pursuant to 128252
divisions (A)(1) and (4) of section 5727.86 of the Revised Code, 128253
excluding any such payments received for fixed-rate levy losses 128254
attributable to a tax levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised 128255
Code. If a fixed-rate levy eligible for reimbursement is not 128256
charged and payable in any year after tax year 2010, "total S.B. 3 128257
allocation" used to compute payments to be made under division 128258
(C)(3) of section 5727.85 or division (A)(1)(d) or (e) of section 128259
5727.86 of the Revised Code in the tax years following the last 128260
year the levy is charged and payable shall be reduced to the 128261
extent that those payments are attributable to the fixed-rate levy 128262
loss of that levy as would be computed under division (C)(2) of 128263
section 5727.85 or division (A)(1)(b) of section 5727.86 of the 128264
Revised Code.128265

       (21) "2011 non-current expense S.B. 3 allocation" means the 128266
difference of a school district's or joint vocational school 128267
district's total S.B. 3 allocation minus the sum of the school 128268
district's 2011 current expense S.B. 3 allocation and the portion 128269
of the school district's total S.B. 3 allocation constituting 128270
reimbursement for debt levies pursuant to division (D) of section 128271
5727.85 of the Revised Code.128272

       (22) "2010 non-current expense S.B. 3 allocation" means the 128273
difference of a municipal corporation's total S.B. 3 allocation 128274
minus the sum of its 2010 current expense S.B. 3 allocation and 128275
the portion of its total S.B. 3 allocation constituting 128276
reimbursement for debt levies pursuant to division (A)(4) of 128277
section 5727.86 of the Revised Code. 128278

       (23) "S.B. 3 allocation for library purposes" means, in the 128279
case of a county, municipal corporation, school district, or 128280
township public library that receives the proceeds of a tax levied 128281
under section 5705.23 of the Revised Code, the sum of the payments 128282
received by the public library in calendar year 2010 pursuant to 128283
section 5727.86 of the Revised Code for fixed-rate levy losses 128284
attributable to a tax levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised 128285
Code. If a fixed-rate levy authorized under section 5705.23 of the 128286
Revised Code that is eligible for reimbursement is not charged and 128287
payable in any year after tax year 2010, "S.B. 3 allocation for 128288
library purposes" used to compute payments to be made under 128289
division (A)(1)(f) of section 5727.86 of the Revised Code in the 128290
tax years following the last year the levy is charged and payable 128291
shall be reduced to the extent that those payments are 128292
attributable to the fixed-rate levy loss of that levy as would be 128293
computed under division (A)(1)(b) of section 5727.86 of the 128294
Revised Code.128295

        (24) "Threshold per cent" means, in the case of a school 128296
district or joint vocational school district, two per cent for 128297
fiscal year 2012 and four per cent for fiscal years 2013 and 128298
thereafter. In the case of a local taxing unit or public library 128299
that receives the proceeds of a tax levied under section 5705.23 128300
of the Revised Code, "threshold per cent" means two per cent for 128301
calendar year 2011, four per cent for calendar year 2012, and six 128302
per cent for calendar years 2013 and thereafter.128303

       (B) The kilowatt-hour tax receipts fund is hereby created in 128304
the state treasury and shall consist of money arising from the tax 128305
imposed by section 5727.81 of the Revised Code. All money in the 128306
kilowatt-hour tax receipts fund shall be credited as follows:128307

Fiscal Year General Revenue Fund School District Property Tax Replacement Fund Local Government Property Tax Replacement Fund 128308
2001-2011 63.0% 25.4% 11.6% 128309
2012 and thereafter 88.0% 9.0% 3.0% 128310

       (C) The natural gas tax receipts fund is hereby created in 128311
the state treasury and shall consist of money arising from the tax 128312
imposed by section 5727.811 of the Revised Code. All money in the 128313
fund shall be credited as follows:128314

       (1) For fiscal years before fiscal year 2012:128315

       (a) Sixty-eight and seven-tenths per cent shall be credited 128316
to the school district property tax replacement fund for the 128317
purpose of making the payments described in section 5727.85 of the 128318
Revised Code.128319

       (b) Thirty-one and three-tenths per cent shall be credited to 128320
the local government property tax replacement fund for the purpose 128321
of making the payments described in section 5727.86 of the Revised 128322
Code.128323

       (2) For fiscal years 2012 and thereafter, one hundred per 128324
cent to the general revenue fund.128325

       (D) Not later than January 1, 2002, the tax commissioner 128326
shall determine for each taxing district its electric company tax 128327
value loss, which is the sum of the applicable amounts described 128328
in divisions (D)(1) to (4) of this section:128329

       (1) The difference obtained by subtracting the amount 128330
described in division (D)(1)(b) from the amount described in 128331
division (D)(1)(a) of this section.128332

       (a) The value of electric company and rural electric company 128333
tangible personal property as assessed by the tax commissioner for 128334
tax year 1998 on a preliminary assessment, or an amended 128335
preliminary assessment if issued prior to March 1, 1999, and as 128336
apportioned to the taxing district for tax year 1998;128337

       (b) The value of electric company and rural electric company 128338
tangible personal property as assessed by the tax commissioner for 128339
tax year 1998 had the property been apportioned to the taxing 128340
district for tax year 2001, and assessed at the rates in effect 128341
for tax year 2001.128342

       (2) The difference obtained by subtracting the amount 128343
described in division (D)(2)(b) from the amount described in 128344
division (D)(2)(a) of this section.128345

       (a) The three-year average for tax years 1996, 1997, and 1998 128346
of the assessed value from nuclear fuel materials and assemblies 128347
assessed against a person under Chapter 5711. of the Revised Code 128348
from the leasing of them to an electric company for those 128349
respective tax years, as reflected in the preliminary assessments;128350

       (b) The three-year average assessed value from nuclear fuel 128351
materials and assemblies assessed under division (D)(2)(a) of this 128352
section for tax years 1996, 1997, and 1998, as reflected in the 128353
preliminary assessments, using an assessment rate of twenty-five 128354
per cent.128355

       (3) In the case of a taxing district having a nuclear power 128356
plant within its territory, any amount, resulting in an electric 128357
company tax value loss, obtained by subtracting the amount 128358
described in division (D)(1) of this section from the difference 128359
obtained by subtracting the amount described in division (D)(3)(b) 128360
of this section from the amount described in division (D)(3)(a) of 128361
this section.128362

        (a) The value of electric company tangible personal property 128363
as assessed by the tax commissioner for tax year 2000 on a 128364
preliminary assessment, or an amended preliminary assessment if 128365
issued prior to March 1, 2001, and as apportioned to the taxing 128366
district for tax year 2000;128367

        (b) The value of electric company tangible personal property 128368
as assessed by the tax commissioner for tax year 2001 on a 128369
preliminary assessment, or an amended preliminary assessment if 128370
issued prior to March 1, 2002, and as apportioned to the taxing 128371
district for tax year 2001.128372

       (4) In the case of a taxing district having a nuclear power 128373
plant within its territory, the difference obtained by subtracting 128374
the amount described in division (D)(4)(b) of this section from 128375
the amount described in division (D)(4)(a) of this section, 128376
provided that such difference is greater than ten per cent of the 128377
amount described in division (D)(4)(a) of this section.128378

        (a) The value of electric company tangible personal property 128379
as assessed by the tax commissioner for tax year 2005 on a 128380
preliminary assessment, or an amended preliminary assessment if 128381
issued prior to March 1, 2006, and as apportioned to the taxing 128382
district for tax year 2005;128383

        (b) The value of electric company tangible personal property 128384
as assessed by the tax commissioner for tax year 2006 on a 128385
preliminary assessment, or an amended preliminary assessment if 128386
issued prior to March 1, 2007, and as apportioned to the taxing 128387
district for tax year 2006.128388

       (E) Not later than January 1, 2002, the tax commissioner 128389
shall determine for each taxing district its natural gas company 128390
tax value loss, which is the sum of the amounts described in 128391
divisions (E)(1) and (2) of this section:128392

       (1) The difference obtained by subtracting the amount 128393
described in division (E)(1)(b) from the amount described in 128394
division (E)(1)(a) of this section.128395

       (a) The value of all natural gas company tangible personal 128396
property, other than property described in division (E)(2) of this 128397
section, as assessed by the tax commissioner for tax year 1999 on 128398
a preliminary assessment, or an amended preliminary assessment if 128399
issued prior to March 1, 2000, and apportioned to the taxing 128400
district for tax year 1999;128401

       (b) The value of all natural gas company tangible personal 128402
property, other than property described in division (E)(2) of this 128403
section, as assessed by the tax commissioner for tax year 1999 had 128404
the property been apportioned to the taxing district for tax year 128405
2001, and assessed at the rates in effect for tax year 2001.128406

       (2) The difference in the value of current gas obtained by 128407
subtracting the amount described in division (E)(2)(b) from the 128408
amount described in division (E)(2)(a) of this section.128409

       (a) The three-year average assessed value of current gas as 128410
assessed by the tax commissioner for tax years 1997, 1998, and 128411
1999 on a preliminary assessment, or an amended preliminary 128412
assessment if issued prior to March 1, 2001, and as apportioned in 128413
the taxing district for those respective years;128414

       (b) The three-year average assessed value from current gas 128415
under division (E)(2)(a) of this section for tax years 1997, 1998, 128416
and 1999, as reflected in the preliminary assessment, using an 128417
assessment rate of twenty-five per cent.128418

       (F) The tax commissioner may request that natural gas 128419
companies, electric companies, and rural electric companies file a 128420
report to help determine the tax value loss under divisions (D) 128421
and (E) of this section. The report shall be filed within thirty 128422
days of the commissioner's request. A company that fails to file 128423
the report or does not timely file the report is subject to the 128424
penalty in section 5727.60 of the Revised Code.128425

       (G) Not later than January 1, 2002, the tax commissioner 128426
shall determine for each school district, joint vocational school 128427
district, and local taxing unit its fixed-rate levy loss, which is 128428
the sum of its electric company tax value loss multiplied by the 128429
tax rate in effect in tax year 1998 for fixed-rate levies and its 128430
natural gas company tax value loss multiplied by the tax rate in 128431
effect in tax year 1999 for fixed-rate levies.128432

       (H) Not later than January 1, 2002, the tax commissioner 128433
shall determine for each school district, joint vocational school 128434
district, and local taxing unit its fixed-sum levy loss, which is 128435
the amount obtained by subtracting the amount described in 128436
division (H)(2) of this section from the amount described in 128437
division (H)(1) of this section:128438

       (1) The sum of the electric company tax value loss multiplied 128439
by the tax rate in effect in tax year 1998, and the natural gas 128440
company tax value loss multiplied by the tax rate in effect in tax 128441
year 1999, for fixed-sum levies for all taxing districts within 128442
each school district, joint vocational school district, and local 128443
taxing unit. For the years 2002 through 2006, this computation 128444
shall include school district emergency levies that existed in 128445
1998 in the case of the electric company tax value loss, and 1999 128446
in the case of the natural gas company tax value loss, and all 128447
other fixed-sum levies that existed in 1998 in the case of the 128448
electric company tax value loss and 1999 in the case of the 128449
natural gas company tax value loss and continue to be charged in 128450
the tax year preceding the distribution year. For the years 2007 128451
through 2016 in the case of school district emergency levies, and 128452
for all years after 2006 in the case of all other fixed-sum 128453
levies, this computation shall exclude all fixed-sum levies that 128454
existed in 1998 in the case of the electric company tax value loss 128455
and 1999 in the case of the natural gas company tax value loss, 128456
but are no longer in effect in the tax year preceding the 128457
distribution year. For the purposes of this section, an emergency 128458
levy that existed in 1998 in the case of the electric company tax 128459
value loss, and 1999 in the case of the natural gas company tax 128460
value loss, continues to exist in a year beginning on or after 128461
January 1, 2007, but before January 1, 2017, if, in that year, the 128462
board of education levies a school district emergency levy for an 128463
annual sum at least equal to the annual sum levied by the board in 128464
tax year 1998 or 1999, respectively, less the amount of the 128465
payment certified under this division for 2002.128466

       (2) The total taxable value in tax year 1999 less the tax 128467
value loss in each school district, joint vocational school 128468
district, and local taxing unit multiplied by one-fourth of one 128469
mill.128470

       If the amount computed under division (H) of this section for 128471
any school district, joint vocational school district, or local 128472
taxing unit is greater than zero, that amount shall equal the 128473
fixed-sum levy loss reimbursed pursuant to division (F) of section 128474
5727.85 of the Revised Code or division (A)(2) of section 5727.86 128475
of the Revised Code, and the one-fourth of one mill that is 128476
subtracted under division (H)(2) of this section shall be 128477
apportioned among all contributing fixed-sum levies in the 128478
proportion of each levy to the sum of all fixed-sum levies within 128479
each school district, joint vocational school district, or local 128480
taxing unit.128481

       (I) Notwithstanding divisions (D), (E), (G), and (H) of this 128482
section, in computing the tax value loss, fixed-rate levy loss, 128483
and fixed-sum levy loss, the tax commissioner shall use the 128484
greater of the 1998 tax rate or the 1999 tax rate in the case of 128485
levy losses associated with the electric company tax value loss, 128486
but the 1999 tax rate shall not include for this purpose any tax 128487
levy approved by the voters after June 30, 1999, and the tax 128488
commissioner shall use the greater of the 1999 or the 2000 tax 128489
rate in the case of levy losses associated with the natural gas 128490
company tax value loss.128491

       (J) Not later than January 1, 2002, the tax commissioner 128492
shall certify to the department of education the tax value loss 128493
determined under divisions (D) and (E) of this section for each 128494
taxing district, the fixed-rate levy loss calculated under 128495
division (G) of this section, and the fixed-sum levy loss 128496
calculated under division (H) of this section. The calculations 128497
under divisions (G) and (H) of this section shall separately 128498
display the levy loss for each levy eligible for reimbursement.128499

       (K) Not later than September 1, 2001, the tax commissioner 128500
shall certify the amount of the fixed-sum levy loss to the county 128501
auditor of each county in which a school district with a fixed-sum 128502
levy loss has territory.128503

       Sec. 5727.89.  (A) The tax commissioner may make an 128504
assessment, based on any information in the commissioner's 128505
possession, against any natural gas distribution company, electric 128506
distribution company, self-assessing purchaser, or qualified end 128507
user that fails to file a return or pay any tax, interest, or 128508
additional charge as required by sections 5727.80 to 5727.95 of 128509
the Revised Code.128510

       When information in the possession of the tax commissioner 128511
indicates that a person liable for the tax imposed by section 128512
5727.81 or 5727.811 of the Revised Code has not paid the full 128513
amount of tax due, the commissioner may audit a representative 128514
sample of the person's business and may issue an assessment based 128515
on the audit. The commissioner shall give the person assessed 128516
written notice of the assessment in the manner provided in section 128517
5703.37 of the Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner 128518
shall provide instructions on how to petition for reassessment and 128519
request a hearing on the petition.128520

       The tax commissioner may issue an assessment for which the 128521
tax imposed by section 5727.81 or 5727.811 of the Revised Code was 128522
due and unpaid on the date the person was informed by an agent of 128523
the tax commissioner of an investigation or audit of the person. 128524
Any payment of the tax for the period covered by the assessment, 128525
after the person is so informed, shall be credited against the 128526
assessment.128527

       A penalty of up to fifteen per cent may be added to all 128528
amounts assessed under this section. The commissioner may adopt 128529
rules providing for the imposition and remission of penalties.128530

       (B) Unless the party assessed files with the tax commissioner 128531
within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, 128532
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition for 128533
reassessment signed by the party assessed or that party's 128534
authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 128535
becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due and payable 128536
from the party assessed to the treasurer of state. The petition 128537
shall indicate the objections of the party assessed, but 128538
additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the 128539
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 128540
If the petition has been properly filed, the commissioner shall 128541
proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.128542

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 128543
assessment, including accrued interest, remains unpaid, a 128544
certified copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the 128545
assessment final may be filed in the office of the clerk of the 128546
court of common pleas in the county in which the party assessed 128547
resides or in which the party's business is conducted. If the 128548
party assessed maintains no place of business in this state and is 128549
not a resident of this state, the certified copy of the entry may 128550
be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas 128551
of Franklin county.128552

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 128553
enter a judgment for the state against the person assessed in the 128554
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 128555
in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for the 128556
distribution excise taxes," and shall have the same effect as 128557
other judgments. Execution shall issue upon the judgment at the 128558
request of the tax commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales 128559
on execution shall apply to sales made under the judgment.128560

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety128561
within sixty days after the day the assessment was issued, the 128562
portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear 128563
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 128564
the Revised Code from the day the tax commissioner issues the 128565
assessment until the day the assessment is paid or until it is 128566
certified to the attorney general for collection under section 128567
131.02 of the Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid 128568
portion of the assessment is certified to the attorney general for 128569
collection, the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear 128570
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 128571
the Revised Code from the date of certification until the date it 128572
is paid in its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner 128573
as the tax and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment 128574
under this section.128575

       (D) If the tax commissioner believes that collection of the 128576
tax imposed by section 5727.81 or 5727.811 of the Revised Code 128577
will be jeopardized unless proceedings to collect or secure 128578
collection of the tax are instituted without delay, the 128579
commissioner may issue a jeopardy assessment against the person 128580
liable for the tax. Immediately upon the issuance of the jeopardy 128581
assessment, the commissioner shall file an entry with the clerk of 128582
the court of common pleas in the manner prescribed by division (C) 128583
of this section. Notice of the jeopardy assessment shall be served 128584
on the party assessed or the party's legal representative within 128585
five days of the filing of the entry with the clerk. The total 128586
amount assessed is immediately due and payable, unless the party 128587
assessed files a petition for reassessment in accordance with 128588
division (B) of this section and provides security in a form 128589
satisfactory to the commissioner and in an amount sufficient to 128590
satisfy the unpaid balance of the assessment. Full or partial 128591
payment of the assessment does not prejudice the commissioner's 128592
consideration of the petition for reassessment.128593

       (E) All money collected by the tax commissioner under this 128594
section shall be paid to the treasurer of state, and when paid 128595
shall be considered as revenue arising from the taxes imposed by 128596
sections 5727.81 and 5727.811 of the Revised Code.128597

       Sec. 5728.10.  (A) If any person required to file a fuel use 128598
tax return by sections 5728.01 to 5728.14 of the Revised Code, 128599
fails to file the return within the time prescribed by those 128600
sections, files an incomplete return, files an incorrect return, 128601
or fails to remit the full amount of the tax due for the period 128602
covered by the return, the tax commissioner may make an assessment 128603
against the person, based upon any information in the 128604
commissioner's possession, for the period for which the tax was 128605
due.128606

       No assessment shall be made against any person for any tax 128607
imposed by this chapter more than four years after the return date 128608
for the period for which the tax was due or more than four years 128609
after the return for the period was filed, whichever is later. 128610
This section does not bar an assessment against any person who 128611
fails to file a fuel use tax return as required by this chapter, 128612
or who files a fraudulent fuel use tax return.128613

       A penalty of up to fifteen per cent may be added to the 128614
amount of every assessment made pursuant to this section. The 128615
commissioner may adopt rules providing for the imposition and 128616
remission of penalties added to assessments made under this 128617
section.128618

       The commissioner shall give the party assessed written notice 128619
of the assessment in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the 128620
Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner shall provide 128621
instructions on how to petition for reassessment and request a 128622
hearing on the petition.128623

       (B) Unless the party assessed files with the tax commissioner 128624
within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, 128625
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition for 128626
reassessment, signed by the party assessed, or by the party's 128627
authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 128628
becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due and payable 128629
from the party assessed to the treasurer of state. The petition 128630
shall indicate the objections of the party assessed, but 128631
additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the 128632
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 128633
If the petition has been properly filed, the commissioner shall 128634
proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.128635

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 128636
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 128637
copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the assessment final 128638
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 128639
pleas in the county in which the party's place of business is 128640
located or the county in which the party assessed resides. If the 128641
party maintains no office in this state and is not a resident of 128642
this state, the certified copy of the entry may be filed in the 128643
office of the clerk of the court of common pleas of Franklin 128644
county.128645

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 128646
enter a judgment for the state of Ohio against the party assessed 128647
in the amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the 128648
clerk in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for state 128649
fuel use tax," and shall have the same effect as other judgments. 128650
Execution shall issue upon the judgment upon the request of the 128651
commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on execution shall 128652
apply to sales made under the judgment.128653

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid within sixty 128654
days after the day the assessment was issued, the portion of the 128655
assessment consisting of tax due shall bear interest at the rate 128656
per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code from 128657
the day the commissioner issues the assessment until it is paid or 128658
until it is certified to the attorney general for collection under 128659
section 131.02 of the Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the 128660
unpaid portion of the assessment is certified to the attorney 128661
general for collection, the entire unpaid portion of the 128662
assessment shall bear interest at the rate per annum prescribed by 128663
section 5703.47 of the Revised Code from the date of certification 128664
until the date it is paid in its entirety. Interest shall be paid 128665
in the same manner as the tax and may be collected by the issuance 128666
of an assessment under this section.128667

       (D) All money collected by the tax commissioner under this 128668
section shall be paid into the state treasury in the same manner 128669
as the revenues deriving from the taxes imposed by section 5728.06 128670
of the Revised Code.128671

       Sec. 5729.03.  (A) If the superintendent of insurance finds 128672
the annual statement required by section 5729.02 of the Revised 128673
Code to be correct, the superintendent shall compute the following 128674
amount, as applicable, of the balance of such gross amount, after 128675
deducting such return premiums and considerations received for 128676
reinsurance, and charge such amount to such company as a tax upon 128677
the business done by it in this state for the period covered by 128678
such annual statement:128679

       (1) If the company is a health insuring corporation, one per 128680
cent of the balance of premium rate payments received, exclusive 128681
of payments received under the medicare program established under 128682
Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 128683
U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, and exclusive of payments received 128684
pursuant to the medical assistancemedicaid program established 128685
under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code for the period ending 128686
September 30, 2009, as reflected in its annual report;128687

       (2) If the company is not a health insuring corporation, one 128688
and four-tenths per cent of the balance of premiums received, 128689
exclusive of premiums received under the medicare program 128690
established under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 128691
Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, and exclusive of 128692
payments received pursuant to the medical assistancemedicaid128693
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code for 128694
the period ending September 30, 2009, as reflected in its annual 128695
statement, and, if the company operates a health insuring 128696
corporation as a line of business, one per cent of the balance of 128697
premium rate payments received from that line of business, 128698
exclusive of payments received under the medicare program 128699
established under Title XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 128700
Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C.A. 301, as amended, and exclusive of 128701
payments received pursuant to the medical assistancemedicaid128702
program established under Chapter 5111. of the Revised Code for 128703
the period ending September 30, 2009, as reflected in its annual 128704
statement.128705

       Each foreign insurance company, including health insuring 128706
corporations, receiving payments pursuant to the medical 128707
assistancemedicaid program established under Chapter 5111. of the 128708
Revised Code during the period beginning October 1, 2009, and 128709
ending December 31, 2009, shall file with the 2009 annual 128710
statement to the superintendent a schedule that reflects those 128711
payments received pursuant to the medical assistancemedicaid128712
program for that period. The payments reflected in the schedule, 128713
plus all other taxable premiums, are subject to the annual 128714
franchise tax due to be paid in 2010.128715

       (B) Any insurance policies that were not issued in violation 128716
of Title XXXIX of the Revised Code and that were issued prior to 128717
April 15, 1967, by a life insurance company organized and operated 128718
without profit to any private shareholder or individual, 128719
exclusively for the purpose of aiding educational or scientific 128720
institutions organized and operated without profit to any private 128721
shareholder or individual, are not subject to the tax imposed by 128722
this section. All taxes collected pursuant to this section shall 128723
be credited to the general revenue fund.128724

       (C) In no case shall the tax imposed under this section be 128725
less than two hundred fifty dollars.128726

       Sec. 5729.17.  (A) As used in this section, "certificate 128727
owner" has the same meaning as in section 149.311 of the Revised 128728
Code.128729

       (B) There is allowed a credit against the tax imposed by 128730
section 5729.03 of the Revised Code for an insurance company 128731
subject to that tax that is a certificate owner of a 128732
rehabilitation tax credit certificate issued under section 149.311 128733
of the Revised Code. The credit shall equal twenty-five per cent 128734
of the dollar amount indicated on the certificate, but the amount 128735
of the credit allowed for any company for any year shall not 128736
exceed fiveten million dollars. The credit shall be claimed in 128737
the calendar year specified in the certificate and in the order 128738
required under section 5729.98 of the Revised Code. If the credit 128739
exceeds the amount of tax otherwise due in that year, the excess 128740
shall be refunded to the company but, if any amount of the credit 128741
is refunded, the sum of the amount refunded and the amount applied 128742
to reduce the tax otherwise due in that year shall not exceed 128743
three million dollars. The company may carry forward any balance 128744
of the credit in excess of the amount claimed in that year for not 128745
more than five ensuing years, and shall deduct any amount claimed 128746
in any such year from the amount claimed in an ensuing year.128747

       (C) An insurance company claiming a credit under this section 128748
shall retain the rehabilitation tax credit certificate for four 128749
years following the end of the year in which the credit was 128750
claimed, and shall make the certificate available for inspection 128751
by the tax commissioner upon the request of the tax commissioner 128752
during that period.128753

       Sec. 5731.39.  This section does not apply to, and the 128754
written permission of the tax commissioner is not required for 128755
asset transfers with respect to, decedents dying on or after 128756
January 1, 2013.128757

       (A) No corporation organized or existing under the laws of 128758
this state shall transfer on its books or issue a new certificate 128759
for any share of its capital stock registered in the name of a 128760
decedent, or in trust for a decedent, or in the name of a decedent 128761
and another person or persons, without the written consent of the 128762
tax commissioner.128763

       (B) No safe deposit company, trust company, financial 128764
institution as defined in division (A) of section 5725.01 of the 128765
Revised Code, or other corporation or person, having in 128766
possession, control, or custody a deposit standing in the name of 128767
a decedent, or in trust for a decedent, or in the name of a 128768
decedent and another person or persons, shall deliver or transfer 128769
an amount in excess of three-fourths of the total value of such 128770
deposit, including accrued interest and dividends, as of the date 128771
of decedent's death, without the written consent of the tax 128772
commissioner. The written consent of the tax commissioner need not 128773
be obtained prior to the delivery or transfer of amounts having a 128774
value of three-fourths or less of said total value.128775

       (C) No life insurance company shall pay the proceeds of an 128776
annuity or matured endowment contract, or of a life insurance 128777
contract payable to the estate of a decedent, or of any other 128778
insurance contract taxable under Chapter 5731. of the Revised 128779
Code, without the written consent of the tax commissioner. Any 128780
life insurance company may pay the proceeds of any insurance 128781
contract not specified in this division (C) without the written 128782
consent of the tax commissioner.128783

       (D) No trust company or other corporation or person shall pay 128784
the proceeds of any death benefit, retirement, pension, or 128785
profit-sharing plan in excess of two thousand dollars, without the 128786
written consent of the tax commissioner. Such trust company or 128787
other corporation or person, however, may pay the proceeds of any 128788
death benefit, retirement, pension, or profit-sharing plan which 128789
consists of insurance on the life of the decedent payable to a 128790
beneficiary other than the estate of the insured without the 128791
written consent of the tax commissioner.128792

       (E) No safe deposit company, trust company, financial 128793
institution as defined in division (A) of section 5725.01 of the 128794
Revised Code, or other corporation or person, having in 128795
possession, control, or custody securities, assets, or other 128796
property (including the shares of the capital stock of, or other 128797
interest in, such safe deposit company, trust company, financial 128798
institution as defined in division (A) of section 5725.01 of the 128799
Revised Code, or other corporation), standing in the name of a 128800
decedent, or in trust for a decedent, or in the name of a decedent 128801
and another person or persons, and the transfer of which is 128802
taxable under Chapter 5731. of the Revised Code, shall deliver or 128803
transfer any such securities, assets, or other property which have 128804
a value as of the date of decedent's death in excess of 128805
three-fourths of the total value thereof, without the written 128806
consent of the tax commissioner. The written consent of the tax 128807
commissioner need not be obtained prior to the delivery or 128808
transfer of any such securities, assets, or other property having 128809
a value of three-fourths or less of said total value.128810

       (F) No safe deposit company, financial institution as defined 128811
in division (A) of section 5725.01 of the Revised Code, or other 128812
corporation or person having possession or control of a safe 128813
deposit box or similar receptacle standing in the name of a 128814
decedent or in the name of the decedent and another person or 128815
persons, or to which the decedent had a right of access, except 128816
when such safe deposit box or other receptacle stands in the name 128817
of a corporation or partnership, or in the name of the decedent as 128818
guardian or executor, shall deliver any of the contents thereof 128819
unless the safe deposit box or similar receptacle has been opened 128820
and inventoried in the presence of the tax commissioner or the 128821
commissioner's agent, and a written consent to transfer issued; 128822
provided, however, that a safe deposit company, financial 128823
institution, or other corporation or person having possession or 128824
control of a safe deposit box may deliver wills, deeds to burial 128825
lots, and insurance policies to a representative of the decedent, 128826
but that a representative of the safe deposit company, financial 128827
institution, or other corporation or person must supervise the 128828
opening of the box and make a written record of the wills, deeds, 128829
and policies removed. Such written record shall be included in the 128830
tax commissioner's inventory records.128831

       (G) Notwithstanding any provision of this section:128832

       (1) The tax commissioner may authorize any delivery or 128833
transfer or waive any of the foregoing requirements under such 128834
terms and conditions as the commissioner may prescribe;128835

       (2) A home, as defined in section 3721.10 of the Revised 128836
Code, or a residential facility licensed under section 5119.22128837
5119.34 of the Revised Code that provides accommodations, 128838
supervision, and personal care services for three to sixteen 128839
unrelated adults, may transfer or use the money in a personal 128840
needs allowance account in accordance with section 5111.113128841
5162.22 of the Revised Code without the written consent of the tax 128842
commissioner, and without the account having been opened and 128843
inventoried in the presence of the commissioner or the 128844
commissioner's agent. 128845

       Failure to comply with this section shall render such safe 128846
deposit company, trust company, life insurance company, financial 128847
institution as defined in division (A) of section 5725.01 of the 128848
Revised Code, or other corporation or person liable for the amount 128849
of the taxes and interest due under the provisions of Chapter 128850
5731. of the Revised Code on the transfer of such stock, deposit, 128851
proceeds of an annuity or matured endowment contract or of a life 128852
insurance contract payable to the estate of a decedent, or other 128853
insurance contract taxable under Chapter 5731. of the Revised 128854
Code, proceeds of any death benefit, retirement, pension, or 128855
profit-sharing plan in excess of two thousand dollars, or 128856
securities, assets, or other property of any resident decedent, 128857
and in addition thereto, to a penalty of not less than five 128858
hundred or more than five thousand dollars.128859

       Sec. 5733.01.  (A) The tax provided by this chapter for 128860
domestic corporations shall be the amount charged against each 128861
corporation organized for profit under the laws of this state and 128862
each nonprofit corporation organized pursuant to Chapter 1729. of 128863
the Revised Code, except as provided in sections 5733.09 and 128864
5733.10 of the Revised Code, for the privilege of exercising its 128865
franchise during the calendar year in which that amount is 128866
payable, and the tax provided by this chapter for foreign 128867
corporations shall be the amount charged against each corporation 128868
organized for profit and each nonprofit corporation organized or 128869
operating in the same or similar manner as nonprofit corporations 128870
organized under Chapter 1729. of the Revised Code, under the laws 128871
of any state or country other than this state, except as provided 128872
in sections 5733.09 and 5733.10 of the Revised Code, for the 128873
privilege of doing business in this state, owning or using a part 128874
or all of its capital or property in this state, holding a 128875
certificate of compliance with the laws of this state authorizing 128876
it to do business in this state, or otherwise having nexus in or 128877
with this state under the Constitution of the United States, 128878
during the calendar year in which that amount is payable.128879

       (B) A corporation is subject to the tax imposed by section 128880
5733.06 of the Revised Code for each calendar year prior to 2014 128881
that it is so organized, doing business, owning or using a part or 128882
all of its capital or property, holding a certificate of 128883
compliance, or otherwise having nexus in or with this state under 128884
the Constitution of the United States, on the first day of January 128885
of that calendar year. No credit authorized by this chapter may be 128886
claimed for tax year 2014 or any tax year thereafter.128887

       (C) Any corporation subject to this chapter that is not 128888
subject to the federal income tax shall file its returns and 128889
compute its tax liability as required by this chapter in the same 128890
manner as if that corporation were subject to the federal income 128891
tax.128892

       (D) For purposes of this chapter, a federally chartered 128893
financial institution shall be deemed to be organized under the 128894
laws of the state within which its principal office is located.128895

       (E) For purposes of this chapter, any person, as defined in 128896
section 5701.01 of the Revised Code, shall be treated as a 128897
corporation if the person is classified for federal income tax 128898
purposes as an association taxable as a corporation, and an equity 128899
interest in the person shall be treated as capital stock of the 128900
person.128901

       (F) For the purposes of this chapter, "disregarded entity" 128902
has the same meaning as in division (D) of section 5745.01 of the 128903
Revised Code.128904

       (1) A person's interest in a disregarded entity, whether held 128905
directly or indirectly, shall be treated as the person's ownership 128906
of the assets and liabilities of the disregarded entity, and the 128907
income, including gain or loss, shall be included in the person's 128908
net income under this chapter.128909

       (2) Any sale, exchange, or other disposition of the person's 128910
interest in the disregarded entity, whether held directly or 128911
indirectly, shall be treated as a sale, exchange, or other 128912
disposition of the person's share of the disregarded entity's 128913
underlying assets or liabilities, and the gain or loss from such 128914
sale, exchange, or disposition shall be included in the person's 128915
net income under this chapter.128916

       (3) The disregarded entity's payroll, property, and sales 128917
factors shall be included in the person's factors.128918

       (G) The tax a corporation is required to pay under this 128919
chapter shall be as follows:128920

        (1)(a) For financial institutions, the greater of the minimum 128921
payment required under division (E) of section 5733.06 of the 128922
Revised Code or the difference between all taxes charged the 128923
financial institution under this chapter, without regard to 128924
division (G)(2) of this section, less any credits allowable 128925
against such tax.128926

       (b) A corporation satisfying the description in division 128927
(E)(5), (6), (7), (8), or (10) of section 5751.01 of the Revised 128928
Code, as that section existed before its amendment by H.B. 510 of 128929
the 129th general assembly, that is not a financial institution, 128930
insurance company, or dealer in intangibles is subject to the 128931
taxes imposed under this chapter as a corporation and not subject 128932
to tax as a financial institution, and shall pay the greater of 128933
the minimum payment required under division (E) of section 5733.06 128934
of the Revised Code or the difference between all the taxes 128935
charged under this chapter, without regard to division (G)(2) of 128936
this section, less any credits allowable against such tax.128937

        (2) For all corporations other than those persons described 128938
in division (G)(1)(a) or (b) of this section, the amount under 128939
division (G)(2)(a) of this section applicable to the tax year 128940
specified less the amount under division (G)(2)(b) of this 128941
section:128942

        (a)(i) For tax year 2005, the greater of the minimum payment 128943
required under division (E) of section 5733.06 of the Revised Code 128944
or the difference between all taxes charged the corporation under 128945
this chapter and any credits allowable against such tax;128946

        (ii) For tax year 2006, the greater of the minimum payment 128947
required under division (E) of section 5733.06 of the Revised Code 128948
or four-fifths of the difference between all taxes charged the 128949
corporation under this chapter and any credits allowable against 128950
such tax, except the qualifying pass-through entity tax credit 128951
described in division (A)(30) and the refundable credits described 128952
in divisions (A)(31) to (35) of section 5733.98 of the Revised 128953
Code;128954

        (iii) For tax year 2007, the greater of the minimum payment 128955
required under division (E) of section 5733.06 of the Revised Code 128956
or three-fifths of the difference between all taxes charged the 128957
corporation under this chapter and any credits allowable against 128958
such tax, except the qualifying pass-through entity tax credit 128959
described in division (A)(30) and the refundable credits described 128960
in divisions (A)(31) to (35) of section 5733.98 of the Revised 128961
Code;128962

        (iv) For tax year 2008, the greater of the minimum payment 128963
required under division (E) of section 5733.06 of the Revised Code 128964
or two-fifths of the difference between all taxes charged the 128965
corporation under this chapter and any credits allowable against 128966
such tax, except the qualifying pass-through entity tax credit 128967
described in division (A)(30) and the refundable credits described 128968
in divisions (A)(31) to (35) of section 5733.98 of the Revised 128969
Code;128970

        (v) For tax year 2009, the greater of the minimum payment 128971
required under division (E) of section 5733.06 of the Revised Code 128972
or one-fifth of the difference between all taxes charged the 128973
corporation under this chapter and any credits allowable against 128974
such tax, except the qualifying pass-through entity tax credit 128975
described in division (A)(30) and the refundable credits described 128976
in divisions (A)(31), (32), (33), and (34) of section 5733.98 of 128977
the Revised Code;128978

        (vi) For tax year 2010 and each tax year thereafter, no tax.128979

        (b) A corporation shall subtract from the amount calculated 128980
under division (G)(2)(a)(ii), (iii), (iv), or (v) of this section 128981
any qualifying pass-through entity tax credit described in 128982
division (A)(30) and any refundable credits described in divisions 128983
(A)(31) to (35) of section 5733.98 of the Revised Code to which 128984
the corporation is entitled. Any unused qualifying pass-through 128985
entity tax credit is not refundable.128986

        (c) For the purposes of computing the amount of a credit that 128987
may be carried forward to a subsequent tax year under division 128988
(G)(2) of this section, a credit is utilized against the tax for a 128989
tax year to the extent the credit applies against the tax for that 128990
tax year, even if the difference is then multiplied by the 128991
applicable fraction under division (G)(2)(a) of this section.128992

       (d) References in division (G)(2) of this section to section 128993
5733.98 of the Revised Code is to that section before its 128994
amendment by H.B. 59 of the 130th general assembly.128995

       (3) Nothing in division (G) of this section eliminates or 128996
reduces the tax imposed by section 5733.41 of the Revised Code on 128997
a qualifying pass-through entity.128998

       Sec. 5733.06.  For tax years prior to tax year 2014, the tax 128999
hereby charged each corporation subject to this chapter shall be 129000
the greater of the sum of divisions (A) and (B) of this section, 129001
after the reduction, if any, provided by division (J) of this 129002
section, or division (C) of this section, after the reduction, if 129003
any, provided by division (J) of this section, except that the tax 129004
hereby charged each financial institution subject to this chapter 129005
shall be the amount computed under division (D) of this section:129006

       (A) Except as set forth in division (F) of this section, five 129007
and one-tenth per cent upon the first fifty thousand dollars of 129008
the value of the taxpayer's issued and outstanding shares of stock 129009
as determined under division (B) of section 5733.05 of the Revised 129010
Code;129011

       (B) Except as set forth in division (F) of this section, 129012
eight and one-half per cent upon the value so determined in excess 129013
of fifty thousand dollars; or129014

       (C)(1) Except as otherwise provided under division (G) of 129015
this section, four mills times that portion of the value of the 129016
issued and outstanding shares of stock as determined under 129017
division (C) of section 5733.05 of the Revised Code. For the 129018
purposes of division (C) of this section, division (C)(2) of 129019
section 5733.065, and division (C) of section 5733.066 of the 129020
Revised Code, the value of the issued and outstanding shares of 129021
stock of an eligible corporation for tax year 2003 through tax 129022
year 2007, or of a qualifying holding company, is zero.129023

       (2) As used in division (C) of this section, "eligible 129024
corporation" means a person treated as a corporation for federal 129025
income tax purposes that meets all of the following criteria:129026

       (a) The corporation conducts business for an entire taxable 129027
year as a qualified trade or business as defined by division (C) 129028
of section 122.15 of the Revised Code, as that section existed 129029
before its repeal by H.B. 59 of the 130th general assembly.129030

       (b) The corporation uses more than fifty per cent of the 129031
corporation's assets, based on net book value, that are located in 129032
Ohio solely to conduct activities that constitute a qualified 129033
trade or business as defined by section 122.15 of the Revised 129034
Code, as that section existed before its repeal by H.B. 59 of the 129035
130th general assembly.129036

       (c) The corporation has been formed or organized not more 129037
than three years before the report required to be filed by section 129038
5733.02 of the Revised Code is due, without regard to any 129039
extensions.129040

       (d) The corporation is not a related member, as defined in 129041
section 5733.042 of the Revised Code, at any time during the 129042
taxable year with respect to another person treated as a 129043
corporation for federal income tax purposes. A corporation is not 129044
a related member if during the entire taxable year at least 129045
seventy-five per cent of the corporation's stock is owned directly 129046
or through a pass-through entity by individuals, estates, and 129047
grantor trusts, and the individuals, estates, and grantor trusts 129048
do not directly or indirectly own more than twenty per cent of the 129049
value of another person treated as a corporation for federal 129050
income tax purposes that is conducting a qualified trade or 129051
business.129052

       (D) The tax charged each financial institution subject to 129053
this chapter shall be that portion of the value of the issued and 129054
outstanding shares of stock as determined under division (A) of 129055
section 5733.05 of the Revised Code, multiplied by the following 129056
amounts:129057

       (1) For tax years prior to the 1999 tax year, fifteen mills;129058

       (2) For the 1999 tax year, fourteen mills;129059

       (3) For tax year 2000 and thereafter, thirteen mills.129060

       (E) No tax shall be charged from any corporation that has 129061
been adjudicated bankrupt, or for which a receiver has been 129062
appointed, or that has made a general assignment for the benefit 129063
of creditors, except for the portion of the then current tax year 129064
during which the tax commissioner finds such corporation had the 129065
power to exercise its corporate franchise unimpaired by such 129066
proceedings or act. The minimum payment for each corporation shall 129067
be as follows:129068

       (1) One thousand dollars in the case of a corporation having 129069
gross receipts for the taxable year equal to at least five million 129070
dollars from activities within or outside this state or in the 129071
case of a corporation employing at least three hundred employees 129072
at some time during the taxable year within or outside this state;129073

       (2) Fifty dollars in the case of any other corporation.129074

       The tax charged to corporations under this chapter for the 129075
privilege of engaging in business in this state, which is an 129076
excise tax levied on the value of the issued and outstanding 129077
shares of stock, shall in no manner be construed as prohibiting or 129078
otherwise limiting the powers of municipal corporations, joint 129079
economic development zones created under section 715.691 of the 129080
Revised Code, and joint economic development districts created 129081
under section 715.70 or 715.71 or sections 715.72 to 715.81 of the 129082
Revised Code in this state to impose an income tax on the income 129083
of such corporations.129084

       (F) If two or more taxpayers satisfy the ownership or control 129085
requirements of division (A) of section 5733.052 of the Revised 129086
Code, each such taxpayer shall substitute "the taxpayer's pro-rata 129087
amount" for "fifty thousand dollars" in divisions (A) and (B) of 129088
this section. For purposes of this division, "the taxpayer's 129089
pro-rata amount" is an amount that, when added to the other such 129090
taxpayers' pro-rata amounts, does not exceed fifty thousand 129091
dollars. For the purpose of making that computation, the 129092
taxpayer's pro-rata amount shall not be less than zero. Nothing in 129093
this division derogates from or eliminates the requirement to make 129094
the alternative computation of tax under division (C) of this 129095
section.129096

       (G) The tax liability of any corporation under division (C) 129097
of this section shall not exceed one hundred fifty thousand 129098
dollars.129099

       (H)(1) For the purposes of division (H) of this section, 129100
"exiting corporation" means a corporation that satisfies all of 129101
the following conditions:129102

       (a) The corporation had nexus with or in this state under the 129103
Constitution of the United States during any portion of a calendar 129104
year;129105

       (b) The corporation was not a corporation described in 129106
division (A) of section 5733.01 of the Revised Code on the first 129107
day of January immediately following that calendar year;129108

       (c) The corporation was not a financial institution on the 129109
first day of January immediately following that calendar year;129110

       (d) If the corporation was a transferor as defined in section 129111
5733.053 of the Revised Code, the corporation's transferee was not 129112
required to add to the transferee's net income the income of the 129113
transferor pursuant to division (B) of that section;129114

       (e) During any portion of that calendar year, or any portion 129115
of the immediately preceding calendar year, the corporation had 129116
net income that was not included in a report filed by the 129117
corporation or its transferee pursuant to section 5733.02, 129118
5733.021, 5733.03, 5733.031, or 5733.053 of the Revised Code;129119

       (f) The corporation would have been subject to the tax 129120
computed under divisions (A), (B), (C), (F), and (G) of this 129121
section if the corporation is assumed to be a corporation 129122
described in division (A) of section 5733.01 of the Revised Code 129123
on the first day of January immediately following the calendar 129124
year to which division (H)(1)(a) of this section refers.129125

       (2) For the purposes of division (H) of this section, 129126
"unreported net income" means net income that was not previously 129127
included in a report filed pursuant to section 5733.02, 5733.021, 129128
5733.03, 5733.031, or 5733.053 of the Revised Code and that was 129129
realized or recognized during the calendar year to which division 129130
(H)(1) of this section refers or the immediately preceding 129131
calendar year.129132

       (3) Each exiting corporation shall pay a tax computed by 129133
first allocating and apportioning the unreported net income 129134
pursuant to division (B) of section 5733.05 and section 5733.051 129135
and, if applicable, section 5733.052 of the Revised Code. The 129136
exiting corporation then shall compute the tax due on its 129137
unreported net income allocated and apportioned to this state by 129138
applying divisions (A), (B), and (F) of this section to that 129139
income.129140

       (4) Divisions (C) and (G) of this section, division (D)(2) of 129141
section 5733.065, and division (C) of section 5733.066 of the 129142
Revised Code do not apply to an exiting corporation, but exiting 129143
corporations are subject to every other provision of this chapter.129144

       (5) Notwithstanding division (B) of section 5733.01 or 129145
sections 5733.02, 5733.021, and 5733.03 of the Revised Code to the 129146
contrary, each exiting corporation shall report and pay the tax 129147
due under division (H) of this section on or before the 129148
thirty-first day of May immediately following the calendar year to 129149
which division (H)(1)(a) of this section refers. The exiting 129150
corporation shall file that report on the form most recently 129151
prescribed by the tax commissioner for the purposes of complying 129152
with sections 5733.02 and 5733.03 of the Revised Code. Upon 129153
request by the corporation, the tax commissioner may extend the 129154
date for filing the report.129155

       (6) If, on account of the application of section 5733.053 of 129156
the Revised Code, net income is subject to the tax imposed by 129157
divisions (A) and (B) of this section, such income shall not be 129158
subject to the tax imposed by division (H)(3) of this section.129159

       (7) The amendments made to division (H) of this section by 129160
Am. Sub. S.B. 287 of the 123rd general assembly do not apply to 129161
any transfer, as defined in section 5733.053 of the Revised Code, 129162
for which negotiations began prior to January 1, 2001, and that 129163
was commenced in and completed during calendar year 2001, unless 129164
the taxpayer makes an election prior to December 31, 2001, to 129165
apply those amendments.129166

       (8) The tax commissioner may adopt rules governing division 129167
(H) of this section.129168

       (I) Any reference in the Revised Code to "the tax imposed by 129169
section 5733.06 of the Revised Code" or "the tax due under section 129170
5733.06 of the Revised Code" includes the taxes imposed under 129171
sections 5733.065 and 5733.066 of the Revised Code.129172

       (J)(1) Division (J) of this section applies solely to a 129173
combined company. Section 5733.057 of the Revised Code shall apply 129174
when calculating the adjustments required by division (J) of this 129175
section.129176

       (2) Subject to division (J)(4) of this section, the total tax 129177
calculated in divisions (A) and (B) of this section shall be 129178
reduced by an amount calculated by multiplying such tax by a 129179
fraction, the numerator of which is the total taxable gross 129180
receipts attributed to providing public utility activity other 129181
than as an electric company under section 5727.03 of the Revised 129182
Code for the year upon which the taxable gross receipts are 129183
measured immediately preceding the tax year, and the denominator 129184
of which is the total gross receipts from all sources for the year 129185
upon which the taxable gross receipts are measured immediately 129186
preceding the tax year. Nothing herein shall be construed to 129187
exclude from the denominator any item of income described in 129188
section 5733.051 of the Revised Code.129189

       (3) Subject to division (J)(4) of this section, the total tax 129190
calculated in division (C) of this section shall be reduced by an 129191
amount calculated by multiplying such tax by the fraction 129192
described in division (J)(2) of this section.129193

       (4) In no event shall the reduction provided by division 129194
(J)(2) or (J)(3) of this section exceed the amount of the excise 129195
tax paid in accordance with section 5727.38 of the Revised Code, 129196
for the year upon which the taxable gross receipts are measured 129197
immediately preceding the tax year.129198

       Sec. 5733.11.  (A) If any corporation required to file a 129199
report under this chapter fails to file the report within the time 129200
prescribed, files an incorrect report, or fails to remit the full 129201
amount of the tax due for the period covered by the report, the 129202
tax commissioner may make an assessment against the corporation 129203
for any deficiency for the period for which the report or tax is 129204
due, based upon any information in the commissioner's possession.129205

       No assessment shall be made or issued against a corporation 129206
more than three years after the later of the final date the report 129207
subject to assessment was required to be filed or the date the 129208
report was filed. Such time limit may be extended if both the 129209
corporation and the commissioner consent in writing to the 129210
extension or if an agreement waiving or extending the time limit 129211
has been entered into pursuant to section 122.171 of the Revised 129212
Code. Any such extension shall extend the three-year time limit in 129213
division (B) of section 5733.12 of the Revised Code for the same 129214
period of time. There shall be no bar or limit to an assessment 129215
against a corporation that fails to file a report subject to 129216
assessment as required by this chapter, or that files a fraudulent 129217
report.129218

       The commissioner shall give the corporation assessed written 129219
notice of the assessment in the manner provided in section 5703.37 129220
of the Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner shall 129221
provide instructions on how to petition for reassessment and 129222
request a hearing on the petition.129223

       (B) Unless the corporation assessed files with the tax 129224
commissioner within sixty days after service of the notice of 129225
assessment, either personally or by certified mail, a written 129226
petition for reassessment, signed by the corporations129227
corporation's authorized agent having knowledge of the facts,, the 129228
assessment becomes final, and the amount of the assessment is due 129229
and payable from the corporation assessed to the treasurer of 129230
state. The petition shall indicate the corporation's objections, 129231
but additional objections may be raised in writing if received by 129232
the commissioner prior to the date shown on the final 129233
determination. If the petition has been properly filed, the 129234
commissioner shall proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised 129235
Code.129236

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 129237
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 129238
copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the assessment final 129239
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 129240
pleas in the county in which the corporation has an office or 129241
place of business in this state, the county in which the 129242
corporation's statutory agent is located, or Franklin county.129243

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 129244
enter a judgment against the corporation assessed in the amount 129245
shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk in a 129246
loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for state corporate 129247
franchise and litter taxes," and shall have the same effect as 129248
other judgments. Execution shall issue upon the judgment upon the 129249
request of the tax commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales 129250
on execution shall apply to sales made under the judgment.129251

       The portion of anIf the assessment is not paid within sixty 129252
days after the day the assessment was issued, the portion of the 129253
assessment consisting of tax due shall bear interest at the rate 129254
per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code from 129255
the day the tax commissioner issues the assessment until the 129256
assessment is paid or until it is certified to the attorney 129257
general for collection under section 131.02 of the Revised Code, 129258
whichever comes first. If the unpaid portion of the assessment is 129259
certified to the attorney general for collection, the entire 129260
unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear interest at the rate 129261
per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code from 129262
the date of certification until the date it is paid in its 129263
entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax and 129264
may be collected by issuing an assessment under this section.129265

       (D) All money collected under this section shall be 129266
considered as revenue arising from the taxes imposed by this 129267
chapter.129268

       (E) The portion of an assessment that must be paid upon the 129269
filing of a petition for reassessment shall be as follows:129270

       (1) If the sole item objected to is the assessed penalty or 129271
interest, payment of the assessment, including interest but not 129272
penalty, is required;129273

       (2) If the corporation assessed failed to file, prior to the 129274
date of issuance of the assessment, the annual report required by 129275
section 5733.02 of the Revised Code, any amended report required 129276
by division (C) of section 5733.031 of the Revised Code for the 129277
tax year at issue, or any amended report required by division (D) 129278
of section 5733.067 of the Revised Code to indicate a reduction in 129279
the amount of the credit provided under that section, payment of 129280
the assessment, including interest but not penalty, is required;129281

       (3) If the corporation assessed filed, prior to the date of 129282
issuance of the assessment, the annual report required by section 129283
5733.02 of the Revised Code, all amended reports required by 129284
division (C) of section 5733.031 of the Revised Code for the tax 129285
year at issue, and all amended reports required by division (D) of 129286
section 5733.067 of the Revised Code to indicate a reduction in 129287
the amount of the credit provided under that section, and a 129288
balance of the taxes shown due on the reports as computed on the 129289
reports remains unpaid, payment of only that portion of the 129290
assessment representing the unpaid balance of tax and interest is 129291
required;129292

       (4) If the corporation assessed does not dispute that it is a 129293
taxpayer but claims the protections of section 101 of Public Law 129294
86-272, 73 Stat. 555, 15 U.S.C.A. 381, as amended, payment of only 129295
that portion of the assessment representing any balance of taxes 129296
shown due on the corporation's annual report required by section 129297
5733.02 of the Revised Code, as computed on the report, that 129298
remains unpaid, and that represents taxes imposed by division (C) 129299
of section 5733.06, division (C)(2) of section 5733.065, and 129300
division (C) of section 5733.066 of the Revised Code, together 129301
with all related interest, is required;129302

       (5) If none of the conditions specified in divisions (E)(1) 129303
to (4) of this section apply, or if the corporation assessed 129304
disputes that it is a taxpayer, no payment is required.129305

       (F) Notwithstanding the fact that a petition for reassessment 129306
is pending, the corporation may pay all or a portion of the 129307
assessment that is the subject of the petition. The acceptance of 129308
a payment by the treasurer of state does not prejudice any claim 129309
for refund upon final determination of the petition.129310

       If upon final determination of the petition an error in the 129311
assessment is corrected by the tax commissioner, upon petition so 129312
filed or pursuant to a decision of the board of tax appeals or any 129313
court to which the determination or decision has been appealed, so 129314
that the amount due from the corporation under the corrected 129315
assessment is less than the portion paid, there shall be issued to 129316
the corporation, its assigns, or legal representative a refund in 129317
the amount of the overpayment as provided by section 5733.12 of 129318
the Revised Code, with interest on that amount as provided by 129319
section 5733.26 of the Revised Code, subject to section 5733.121 129320
of the Revised Code.129321

       Sec. 5733.55.  (A) As used in this section:129322

       (1) "9-1-1 system" has the same meaning as in section 5507.01129323
128.01 of the Revised Code.129324

       (2) "Nonrecurring 9-1-1 charges" means nonrecurring charges 129325
approved by the public utilities commission for the telephone 129326
network portion of a 9-1-1 system pursuant to section 5507.18129327
128.18 of the Revised Code.129328

       (3) "Eligible nonrecurring 9-1-1 charges" means all 129329
nonrecurring 9-1-1 charges for a 9-1-1 system except both of the 129330
following:129331

       (a) Charges for a system that was not established pursuant to 129332
a plan adopted under section 5507.08128.08 of the Revised Code or 129333
an agreement under section 5507.09128.09 of the Revised Code;129334

       (b) Charges for that part of a system established pursuant to 129335
such a plan or agreement that are excluded from the credit by 129336
division (C)(2) of section 5507.18128.18 of the Revised Code.129337

       (4) "Telephone company" has the same meaning as in section 129338
5727.01 of the Revised Code.129339

       (B) Beginning in tax year 2005, a telephone company shall be 129340
allowed a nonrefundable credit against the tax imposed by section 129341
5733.06 of the Revised Code equal to the amount of its eligible 129342
nonrecurring 9-1-1 charges. The credit shall be claimed for the 129343
company's taxable year that covers the period in which the 9-1-1 129344
service for which the credit is claimed becomes available for use. 129345
The credit shall be claimed in the order required by section 129346
5733.98 of the Revised Code. If the credit exceeds the total taxes 129347
due under section 5733.06 of the Revised Code for the tax year, 129348
the tax commissioner shall credit the excess against taxes due 129349
under that section for succeeding tax years until the full amount 129350
of the credit is granted.129351

       (C) After the last day a return, with any extensions, may be 129352
filed by any telephone company that is eligible to claim a credit 129353
under this section, the commissioner shall determine whether the 129354
sum of the credits allowed for prior tax years commencing with tax 129355
year 2005 plus the sum of the credits claimed for the current tax 129356
year exceeds fifteen million dollars. If it does, the credits 129357
allowed under this section for the current tax year shall be 129358
reduced by a uniform percentage such that the sum of the credits 129359
allowed for the current tax year do not exceed fifteen million 129360
dollars claimed by all telephone companies for all tax years. 129361
Thereafter, no credit shall be granted under this section, except 129362
for the remaining portions of any credits allowed under division 129363
(B) of this section.129364

       (D) A telephone company that is entitled to carry forward a 129365
credit against its public utility excise tax liability under 129366
section 5727.39 of the Revised Code is entitled to carry forward 129367
any amount of that credit remaining after its last public utility 129368
excise tax payment for the period of July 1, 2003, through June 129369
30, 2004, and claim that amount as a credit against its 129370
corporation franchise tax liability under this section. Nothing in 129371
this section authorizes a telephone company to claim a credit 129372
under this section for any eligible nonrecurring 9-1-1 charges for 129373
which it has already claimed a credit under this section or 129374
section 5727.39 of the Revised Code.129375

       Sec. 5733.98.  (A) To provide a uniform procedure for 129376
calculating the amount of tax imposed by section 5733.06 of the 129377
Revised Code that is due under this chapter, a taxpayer shall 129378
claim any credits to which it is entitled in the following order, 129379
except as otherwise provided in section 5733.058 of the Revised 129380
Code:129381

       (1) For tax year 2005, the credit for taxes paid by a 129382
qualifying pass-through entity allowed under section 5733.0611 of 129383
the Revised Code;129384

       (2) The credit allowed for financial institutions under 129385
section 5733.45 of the Revised Code;129386

       (3) The credit for qualifying affiliated groups under section 129387
5733.068 of the Revised Code;129388

       (4) The subsidiary corporation credit under section 5733.067 129389
of the Revised Code;129390

       (5) The savings and loan assessment credit under section 129391
5733.063 of the Revised Code;129392

       (6) The credit for recycling and litter prevention donations 129393
under section 5733.064 of the Revised Code;129394

       (7) The credit for employers that enter into agreements with 129395
child day-care centers under section 5733.36 of the Revised Code;129396

       (8) The credit for employers that reimburse employee child 129397
care expenses under section 5733.38 of the Revised Code;129398

       (9) The credit for maintaining railroad active grade crossing 129399
warning devices under section 5733.43 of the Revised Code;129400

       (10) The credit for purchases of lights and reflectors under 129401
section 5733.44 of the Revised Code;129402

       (11) The nonrefundable job retention credit under division 129403
(B) of section 5733.0610 of the Revised Code;129404

       (12) The credit for tax years 2008 and 2009 for selling 129405
alternative fuel under section 5733.48 of the Revised Code;129406

       (13) The second credit for purchases of new manufacturing 129407
machinery and equipment under section 5733.33 of the Revised Code;129408

       (14) The job training credit under section 5733.42 of the 129409
Revised Code;129410

       (15) The credit for qualified research expenses under section 129411
5733.351 of the Revised Code;129412

       (16) The enterprise zone credit under section 5709.66 of the 129413
Revised Code;129414

       (17) The credit for the eligible costs associated with a 129415
voluntary action under section 5733.34 of the Revised Code;129416

       (18) The credit for employers that establish on-site child 129417
day-care centers under section 5733.37 of the Revised Code;129418

       (19) The ethanol plant investment credit under section 129419
5733.46 of the Revised Code;129420

       (20) The credit for purchases of qualifying grape production 129421
property under section 5733.32 of the Revised Code;129422

       (21) The export sales credit under section 5733.069 of the 129423
Revised Code;129424

       (22) The credit for research and development and technology 129425
transfer investors under section 5733.35 of the Revised Code;129426

       (23) The enterprise zone credits under section 5709.65 of the 129427
Revised Code;129428

       (24)(23) The credit for using Ohio coal under section 5733.39 129429
of the Revised Code;129430

       (25)(24) The credit for purchases of qualified low-income 129431
community investments under section 5733.58 of the Revised Code;129432

       (26)(25) The credit for small telephone companies under 129433
section 5733.57 of the Revised Code;129434

       (27)(26) The credit for eligible nonrecurring 9-1-1 charges 129435
under section 5733.55 of the Revised Code;129436

       (28)(27) For tax year 2005, the credit for providing programs 129437
to aid the communicatively impaired under division (A) of section 129438
5733.56 of the Revised Code;129439

       (29)(28) The research and development credit under section 129440
5733.352 of the Revised Code;129441

       (30)(29) For tax years 2006 and subsequent tax years, the 129442
credit for taxes paid by a qualifying pass-through entity allowed 129443
under section 5733.0611 of the Revised Code;129444

       (31)(30) The refundable credit for rehabilitating a historic 129445
building under section 5733.47 of the Revised Code;129446

       (32)(31) The refundable jobs creation credit or job retention 129447
credit under division (A) of section 5733.0610 of the Revised 129448
Code;129449

       (33)(32) The refundable credit for tax withheld under 129450
division (B)(2) of section 5747.062 of the Revised Code;129451

       (34)(33) The refundable credit under section 5733.49 of the 129452
Revised Code for losses on loans made to the Ohio venture capital 129453
program under sections 150.01 to 150.10 of the Revised Code;129454

       (35)(34) For tax years 2006, 2007, and 2008, the refundable 129455
credit allowable under division (B) of section 5733.56 of the 129456
Revised Code;129457

       (36)(35) The refundable motion picture production credit 129458
under section 5733.59 of the Revised Code.129459

       (B) For any credit except the refundable credits enumerated 129460
in this section, the amount of the credit for a tax year shall not 129461
exceed the tax due after allowing for any other credit that 129462
precedes it in the order required under this section. Any excess 129463
amount of a particular credit may be carried forward if authorized 129464
under the section creating that credit.129465

       Sec. 5735.012. AmountsWith respect to liquid motor fuel 129466
other than liquid natural gas, amounts of motor fuel reported 129467
under this chapter shall be measured in gross gallons, except that 129468
amounts reported for terminal to terminal transactions shall be 129469
measured in net gallons and amounts reported for terminal to Ohio 129470
licensed dealer transactions shall be measured in both net gallons 129471
and gross gallons. Amounts of liquid natural gas shall be measured 129472
in gallon equivalents as described in section 5735.013 of the 129473
Revised Code.129474

       Sec. 5735.013.  For the purposes of this chapter, if the 129475
national conference on weights and measures has adopted a diesel 129476
gallon equivalent standard for liquid natural gas, that standard 129477
shall be the equivalent of one gallon of motor fuel. If the 129478
national conference on weights and measures has not adopted such a 129479
standard, six and six one-hundredths pounds of liquid natural gas 129480
shall be the equivalent of one gallon of motor fuel.129481

       Sec. 5735.12.  (A) Any motor fuel dealer required by this 129482
chapter to file reports and pay the tax levied by this chapter who 129483
fails to file the report within the time prescribed, may be liable 129484
for an additional charge not exceeding the greater of ten per cent 129485
of the motor fuel dealer's tax liability for that month or fifty 129486
dollars. The tax commissioner may remit all or a portion of the 129487
additional charge and may adopt rules relating to the remission of 129488
all or a portion of the charge.129489

       If any person required by this chapter to file reports and 129490
pay the taxes, interest, or additional charge levied by this 129491
chapter fails to file the report, files an incomplete or incorrect 129492
report, or fails to remit the full amount of the tax, interest, or 129493
additional charge due for the period covered by the report, the 129494
commissioner may make an assessment against the person based upon 129495
any information in the commissioner's possession.129496

       No assessment shall be made against any motor fuel dealer for 129497
taxes imposed by this chapter more than four years after the date 129498
on which the report on which the assessment was based was due or 129499
was filed, whichever is later. This section does not bar an 129500
assessment against any motor fuel dealer who fails to file a 129501
report required by section 5735.06 of the Revised Code, or who 129502
files a fraudulent motor fuel tax report.129503

       A penalty of up to fifteen per cent may be added to the 129504
amount of every assessment made under this section. The 129505
commissioner may adopt rules providing for the imposition and 129506
remission of penalties added to assessments made under this 129507
section.129508

       The commissioner shall give the party assessed written notice 129509
of the assessment in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the 129510
Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner shall provide 129511
instructions on how to petition for reassessment and request a 129512
hearing on the petition.129513

       (B) Unless the party assessed files with the tax commissioner 129514
within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, 129515
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition for 129516
reassessment in writing, signed by the party assessed or that 129517
party's authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the 129518
assessment becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due 129519
and payable from the party assessed to the treasurer of state. The 129520
petition shall indicate the objections of the party assessed, but 129521
additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the 129522
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 129523
If the petition has been properly filed, the commissioner shall 129524
proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.129525

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 129526
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 129527
copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the assessment final 129528
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 129529
pleas in the county in which the party assessed resides or in 129530
which the business of the party assessed is conducted. If the 129531
party assessed maintains no place of business in this state and is 129532
not a resident of this state, the certified copy of the entry may 129533
be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas 129534
of Franklin county.129535

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 129536
enter a judgment for the state against the party assessed in the 129537
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 129538
in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for state motor 129539
fuel tax," and shall have the same effect as other judgments. 129540
Execution shall issue upon the judgment upon the request of the 129541
tax commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on execution 129542
shall apply to sales made under the judgment.129543

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety129544
within sixty days after the day the assessment was issued, the 129545
portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear 129546
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 129547
the Revised Code from the day the commissioner issues the 129548
assessment until it is paid or until it is certified to the 129549
attorney general for collection under section 131.02 of the 129550
Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid portion of the 129551
assessment is certified to the attorney general for collection, 129552
the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear interest at 129553
the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 129554
Code from the date of certification until the date it is paid in 129555
its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax 129556
and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment under this 129557
section.129558

       (D) All money collected by the tax commissioner under this 129559
section shall be paid to the treasurer of state, and when paid 129560
shall be considered as revenue arising from the tax imposed by 129561
this chapter.129562

       (E) If the tax commissioner determines that the commissioner 129563
has erroneously refunded motor fuel tax to any person, the 129564
commissioner may make an assessment against the person for 129565
recovery of the erroneously refunded tax.129566

       Sec. 5735.27.  (A) There is hereby created in the state 129567
treasury the gasoline excise tax fund, which shall be distributed 129568
in the following manner:129569

       (1) The amount credited pursuant to divisions (B)(2)(a) and 129570
(C)(2)(a) of section 5735.23 of the Revised Code shall be 129571
distributed among municipal corporations. The amount paid to each 129572
municipal corporation shall be that proportion of the amount to be 129573
so distributed that the number of motor vehicles registered within 129574
the municipal corporation bears to the total number of motor 129575
vehicles registered within all the municipal corporations of this 129576
state during the preceding motor vehicle registration year. When a 129577
new village is incorporated, the registrar of motor vehicles shall 129578
determine from the applications on file in the bureau of motor 129579
vehicles the number of motor vehicles located within the territory 129580
comprising the village during the entire registration year in 129581
which the municipal corporation was incorporated. The registrar 129582
shall forthwith certify the number of motor vehicles so determined 129583
to the tax commissioner for use in distributing motor vehicle fuel 129584
tax funds to the village until the village is qualified to 129585
participate in the distribution of the funds pursuant to this 129586
division. The number of motor vehicle registrations shall be 129587
determined by the official records of the bureau of motor 129588
vehicles. The amount received by each municipal corporation shall 129589
be used to plan, construct, reconstruct, repave, widen, maintain, 129590
repair, clear, and clean public highways, roads, and streets; to 129591
maintain and repair bridges and viaducts; to purchase, erect, and 129592
maintain street and traffic signs and markers; to pay the costs 129593
apportioned to the municipal corporation under section 4907.47 of 129594
the Revised Code; to purchase, erect, and maintain traffic lights 129595
and signals; to pay the principal, interest, and charges on bonds 129596
and other obligations issued pursuant to Chapter 133. of the 129597
Revised Code or incurred pursuant to section 5531.09 of the 129598
Revised Code for the purpose of acquiring or constructing roads, 129599
highways, bridges, or viaducts or acquiring or making other 129600
highway improvements for which the municipal corporation may issue 129601
bonds; and to supplement revenue already available for these 129602
purposes.129603

       (2) The amount credited pursuant to division (B) of section 129604
5735.26 of the Revised Code shall be distributed among the 129605
municipal corporations within the state, in the proportion which 129606
the number of motor vehicles registered within each municipal 129607
corporation bears to the total number of motor vehicles registered 129608
within all the municipal corporations of the state during the 129609
preceding calendar year, as shown by the official records of the 129610
bureau of motor vehicles, and shall be expended by each municipal 129611
corporation to plan, construct, reconstruct, repave, widen, 129612
maintain, repair, clear, and clean public highways, roads, and 129613
streets; to maintain and repair bridges and viaducts; to purchase, 129614
erect, and maintain street and traffic signs and markers; to 129615
purchase, erect, and maintain traffic lights and signals; to pay 129616
costs apportioned to the municipal corporation under section 129617
4907.47 of the Revised Code; to pay the principal, interest, and 129618
charges on bonds and other obligations issued pursuant to Chapter 129619
133. of the Revised Code or incurred pursuant to section 5531.09 129620
of the Revised Code for the purpose of acquiring or constructing 129621
roads, highways, bridges, or viaducts or acquiring or making other 129622
highway improvements for which the municipal corporation may issue 129623
bonds; and to supplement revenue already available for these 129624
purposes.129625

       (3) The amount credited pursuant to divisions (B)(2)(b) and 129626
(C)(2)(c) of section 5735.23 of the Revised Code shall be paid in 129627
equal proportions to the county treasurer of each county within 129628
the state and shall be used only for the purposes of planning, 129629
maintaining, and repairing the county system of public roads and 129630
highways within the county; the planning, construction, and repair 129631
of walks or paths along county roads in congested areas; the 129632
planning, construction, purchase, lease, and maintenance of 129633
suitable buildings for the housing and repair of county road 129634
machinery, housing of supplies, and housing of personnel 129635
associated with the machinery and supplies; the payment of costs 129636
apportioned to the county under section 4907.47 of the Revised 129637
Code; the payment of principal, interest, and charges on bonds and 129638
other obligations issued pursuant to Chapter 133. of the Revised 129639
Code or incurred pursuant to section 5531.09 of the Revised Code 129640
for the purpose of acquiring or constructing roads, highways, 129641
bridges, or viaducts or acquiring or making other highway 129642
improvements for which the board of county commissioners may issue 129643
bonds under that chapter; and the purchase, installation, and 129644
maintenance of traffic signal lights.129645

       (4) The amount credited pursuant to division (C) of section 129646
5735.26 of the Revised Code shall be paid in equal proportions to 129647
the county treasurer of each county for the purposes of planning, 129648
maintaining, constructing, widening, and reconstructing the county 129649
system of public roads and highways; paying principal, interest, 129650
and charges on bonds and other obligations issued pursuant to 129651
Chapter 133. of the Revised Code or incurred pursuant to section 129652
5531.09 of the Revised Code for the purpose of acquiring or 129653
constructing roads, highways, bridges, or viaducts or acquiring or 129654
making other highway improvements for which the board of county 129655
commissioners may issue bonds under that chapter; and paying costs 129656
apportioned to the county under section 4907.47 of the Revised 129657
Code.129658

       (5)(a) The amount credited pursuant to division (D) of 129659
section 5735.26 and division (C)(2)(b) of section 5735.23 of the 129660
Revised Code shall be divided in equal proportions among the 129661
townships within the state.129662

       (b) As used in division (A)(5)(b) of this section, the 129663
"formula amount" for any township is the amount that would be 129664
allocated to that township if fifty per cent of the amount 129665
credited to townships pursuant to section 5735.291 of the Revised 129666
Code were allocated among townships in the state proportionate to 129667
the number of centerline miles within the boundaries of the 129668
respective townships, as determined annually by the department of 129669
transportation, and the other fifty per cent of the amount 129670
credited pursuant to section 5735.291 of the Revised Code were 129671
allocated among townships in the state proportionate to the number 129672
of motor vehicles registered within the respective townships, as 129673
determined annually by the records of the bureau of motor 129674
vehicles. The number of centerline miles within the boundaries of 129675
a township shall not include any centerline miles of township 129676
roads that have been placed on nonmaintained status by a board of 129677
township trustees pursuant to section 5571.20 of the Revised Code.129678

       Beginning on August 15, 2003, the tax levied by section 129679
5735.29 of the Revised Code shall be partially allocated to 129680
provide funding for townships. Each township shall receive the 129681
greater of the following two calculations:129682

       (i) The total statewide amount credited to townships under 129683
division (A) of section 5735.291 of the Revised Code divided by 129684
the number of townships in the state at the time of the 129685
calculation;129686

       (ii) Seventy per cent of the formula amount for that 129687
township.129688

       (c) The total difference between the amount of money credited 129689
to townships under division (A) of section 5735.291 of the Revised 129690
Code and the total amount of money required to make all the 129691
payments specified in division (A)(5)(b) of this section shall be 129692
deducted, in accordance with division (B) of section 5735.291 of 129693
the Revised Code, from the revenues resulting from the tax levied 129694
pursuant to section 5735.29 of the Revised Code prior to crediting 129695
portions of such revenues to counties, municipal corporations, and 129696
the highway operating fund.129697

       (d) All amounts credited pursuant to divisions (A)(5)(a) and 129698
(b) of this section shall be paid to the county treasurer of each 129699
county for the total amount payable to the townships within each 129700
of the counties. The county treasurer shall pay to each township 129701
within the county its proportional share of the funds, which shall 129702
be expended by each township only for the purposes of planning, 129703
constructing, maintaining, widening, and reconstructing the public 129704
roads and highways within the township, paying principal, 129705
interest, and charges on bonds and other obligations issued 129706
pursuant to Chapter 133. or 505. of the Revised Code or incurred 129707
pursuant to section 5531.09 of the Revised Code for the purpose of 129708
acquiring or constructing roads, highways, bridges, or viaducts or 129709
acquiring or making other highway improvements for which the board 129710
of township trustees may issue bonds under those chapters, and 129711
paying costs apportioned to the township under section 4907.47 of 129712
the Revised Code.129713

       No part of the funds designated for road and highway purposes 129714
shall be used for any purpose except to pay in whole or part the 129715
contract price of any such work done by contract, or to pay the 129716
cost of labor in planning, constructing, widening, and 129717
reconstructing such roads and highways, and the cost of materials 129718
forming a part of the improvement; provided that the funds may be 129719
used for the purchase of road machinery and equipment and for, the 129720
planning, construction, and maintenance of suitable buildings for 129721
housing road machinery and equipment, and the payment of 129722
principal, interest, and charges on bonds and other obligations 129723
issued pursuant to Chapter 133. or 505. of the Revised Code for 129724
the purpose of purchasing road machinery and equipment or 129725
planning, constructing, and maintaining suitable buildings for 129726
housing road machinery and equipment; and provided that all such 129727
improvement of roads shall be under supervision and direction of 129728
the county engineer as provided in section 5575.07 of the Revised 129729
Code. No obligation against the funds shall be incurred unless 129730
plans and specifications for the improvement, approved by the 129731
county engineer, are on file in the office of the township fiscal 129732
officer, and all contracts for material and for work done by 129733
contract shall be approved by the county engineer before being 129734
signed by the board of township trustees. The board of township 129735
trustees of any township may pass a resolution permitting the 129736
board of county commissioners to expend the township's share of 129737
the funds, or any portion of it, for the improvement of the roads 129738
within the township as may be designated in the resolution.129739

       All investment earnings of the fund shall be credited to the 129740
fund.129741

       (B) Amounts credited to the highway operating fund pursuant 129742
to divisions (B)(2)(c) and (C)(2)(d) of section 5735.23 and 129743
division (A) of section 5735.26 of the Revised Code shall be 129744
expended in the following manner:129745

       (1) The amount credited pursuant to divisions (B)(2)(c) and 129746
(C)(2)(d) of section 5735.23 of the Revised Code shall be 129747
apportioned to and expended by the department of transportation 129748
for the purposes of planning, maintaining, repairing, and keeping 129749
in passable condition for travel the roads and highways of the 129750
state required by law to be maintained by the department; paying 129751
the costs apportioned to the state under section 4907.47 of the 129752
Revised Code; paying that portion of the construction cost of a 129753
highway project which a county, township, or municipal corporation 129754
normally would be required to pay, but which the director of 129755
transportation, pursuant to division (B) of section 5531.08 of the 129756
Revised Code, determines instead will be paid from moneys in the 129757
highway operating fund; and paying the costs of the department of 129758
public safety in administering and enforcing the state law 129759
relating to the registration and operation of motor vehicles.129760

       (2) The amount credited pursuant to division (A) of section 129761
5735.26 of the Revised Code shall be used for paying the state's 129762
share of the cost of planning, constructing, widening, 129763
maintaining, and reconstructing the state highways; paying that 129764
portion of the construction cost of a highway project which a 129765
county, township, or municipal corporation normally would be 129766
required to pay, but which the director of transportation, 129767
pursuant to division (B) of section 5531.08 of the Revised Code, 129768
determines instead will be paid from moneys in the highway 129769
operating fund; and also for supplying the state's share of the 129770
cost of eliminating railway grade crossings upon such highways and 129771
costs apportioned to the state under section 4907.47 of the 129772
Revised Code. The director of transportation may expend portions 129773
of such amount upon extensions of state highways within municipal 129774
corporations or upon portions of state highways within municipal 129775
corporations, as is provided by law.129776

       Sec. 5735.34.  (A) If any motor fuel dealer sells that motor 129777
fuel dealer's entire business or discontinues operating that 129778
business, the taxes and any interest and penalties imposed under 129779
this chapter that arose prior to the date of sale or 129780
discontinuation become due and payable immediately. TheWithin 129781
fifteen days after the date of the sale or discontinuation of the 129782
business, the motor fuel dealer shall make a final return within 129783
fifteen days after the date of the sale or discontinuation of the 129784
businessand provide written notification to the tax commissioner 129785
of the sale or discontinuation and the name and contact 129786
information of the purchaser, if applicable. The purchaser of the 129787
business shall withhold a sufficient amount of the purchase money 129788
to cover the amount of such taxes, interest, and penalties due and 129789
unpaid until the seller produces a receipt from the tax 129790
commissioner showing that the taxes, interest, and penalties have 129791
been paid, or until the seller produces a certificate indicating 129792
that no taxes, interest, and penalties are due.129793

       (B) If the purchaser of the business fails to withhold the 129794
purchase money required to be withheld under this section, the 129795
purchaser of the business is personally liable for the payment of 129796
the taxes, interest, and penalties accrued and unpaid during the 129797
operation of the business by the seller, but only to the extent of 129798
the consideration offered for the entire business.129799

       (C) For purposes of this section, "entire business" means 129800
substantially all of the seller's assets determined without regard 129801
to any then existing mortgages, liens, security interests or other 129802
encumbrances attaching to those assets. A person is considered to 129803
have sold the entire business only if the person ceases to qualify 129804
as a motor fuel dealer and has relinquished or the tax 129805
commissioner has canceled the person's motor fuel dealer's 129806
license.129807

       Sec. 5739.01.  As used in this chapter:129808

       (A) "Person" includes individuals, receivers, assignees, 129809
trustees in bankruptcy, estates, firms, partnerships, 129810
associations, joint-stock companies, joint ventures, clubs, 129811
societies, corporations, the state and its political subdivisions, 129812
and combinations of individuals of any form.129813

       (B) "Sale" and "selling" include all of the following 129814
transactions for a consideration in any manner, whether absolutely 129815
or conditionally, whether for a price or rental, in money or by 129816
exchange, and by any means whatsoever:129817

       (1) All transactions by which title or possession, or both, 129818
of tangible personal property, is or is to be transferred, or a 129819
license to use or consume tangible personal property is or is to 129820
be granted;129821

       (2) All transactions by which lodging by a hotel is or is to 129822
be furnished to transient guests;129823

       (3) All transactions by which:129824

       (a) An item of tangible personal property is or is to be 129825
repaired, except property, the purchase of which would not be 129826
subject to the tax imposed by section 5739.02 of the Revised Code;129827

       (b) An item of tangible personal property is or is to be 129828
installed, except property, the purchase of which would not be 129829
subject to the tax imposed by section 5739.02 of the Revised Code 129830
or property that is or is to be incorporated into and will become 129831
a part of a production, transmission, transportation, or 129832
distribution system for the delivery of a public utility service;129833

       (c) The service of washing, cleaning, waxing, polishing, or 129834
painting a motor vehicle is or is to be furnished;129835

       (d) Until August 1, 2003, industrial laundry cleaning 129836
services are or are to be provided and, on and after August 1, 129837
2003, laundry and dry cleaning services are or are to be provided;129838

       (e) Automatic data processing, computer services, or 129839
electronic information services are or are to be provided for use 129840
in business when the true object of the transaction is the receipt 129841
by the consumer of automatic data processing, computer services, 129842
or electronic information services rather than the receipt of 129843
personal or professional services to which automatic data 129844
processing, computer services, or electronic information services 129845
are incidental or supplemental. Notwithstanding any other 129846
provision of this chapter, such transactions that occur between 129847
members of an affiliated group are not sales. An "affiliated 129848
group" means two or more persons related in such a way that one 129849
person owns or controls the business operation of another member 129850
of the group. In the case of corporations with stock, one 129851
corporation owns or controls another if it owns more than fifty 129852
per cent of the other corporation's common stock with voting 129853
rights.129854

       (f) Telecommunications service, including prepaid calling 129855
service, prepaid wireless calling service, or ancillary service, 129856
is or is to be provided, but not including coin-operated telephone 129857
service;129858

       (g) Landscaping and lawn care service is or is to be 129859
provided;129860

       (h) Private investigation and security service is or is to be 129861
provided;129862

       (i) Information services or tangible personal property is 129863
provided or ordered by means of a nine hundred telephone call;129864

       (j) Building maintenance and janitorial service is or is to 129865
be provided;129866

       (k) Employment service is or is to be provided;129867

       (l) Employment placement service is or is to be provided;129868

       (m) Exterminating service is or is to be provided;129869

       (n) Physical fitness facility service is or is to be 129870
provided;129871

       (o) Recreation and sports club service is or is to be 129872
provided;129873

       (p) On and after August 1, 2003, satellite broadcasting 129874
service is or is to be provided;129875

       (q) On and after August 1, 2003, personal care service is or 129876
is to be provided to an individual. As used in this division, 129877
"personal care service" includes skin care, the application of 129878
cosmetics, manicuring, pedicuring, hair removal, tattooing, body 129879
piercing, tanning, massage, and other similar services. "Personal 129880
care service" does not include a service provided by or on the 129881
order of a licensed physician or licensed chiropractor, or the 129882
cutting, coloring, or styling of an individual's hair.129883

       (r) On and after August 1, 2003, the transportation of 129884
persons by motor vehicle or aircraft is or is to be provided, when 129885
the transportation is entirely within this state, except for 129886
transportation provided by an ambulance service, by a transit bus, 129887
as defined in section 5735.01 of the Revised Code, and 129888
transportation provided by a citizen of the United States holding 129889
a certificate of public convenience and necessity issued under 49 129890
U.S.C. 41102;129891

       (s) On and after August 1, 2003, motor vehicle towing service 129892
is or is to be provided. As used in this division, "motor vehicle 129893
towing service" means the towing or conveyance of a wrecked, 129894
disabled, or illegally parked motor vehicle.129895

        (t) On and after August 1, 2003, snow removal service is or 129896
is to be provided. As used in this division, "snow removal 129897
service" means the removal of snow by any mechanized means, but 129898
does not include the providing of such service by a person that 129899
has less than five thousand dollars in sales of such service 129900
during the calendar year.129901

       (u) Electronic publishing service is or is to be provided to 129902
a consumer for use in business, except that such transactions 129903
occurring between members of an affiliated group, as defined in 129904
division (B)(3)(e) of this section, are not sales.129905

       (4) All transactions by which printed, imprinted, 129906
overprinted, lithographic, multilithic, blueprinted, photostatic, 129907
or other productions or reproductions of written or graphic matter 129908
are or are to be furnished or transferred;129909

       (5) The production or fabrication of tangible personal 129910
property for a consideration for consumers who furnish either 129911
directly or indirectly the materials used in the production of 129912
fabrication work; and include the furnishing, preparing, or 129913
serving for a consideration of any tangible personal property 129914
consumed on the premises of the person furnishing, preparing, or 129915
serving such tangible personal property. Except as provided in 129916
section 5739.03 of the Revised Code, a construction contract 129917
pursuant to which tangible personal property is or is to be 129918
incorporated into a structure or improvement on and becoming a 129919
part of real property is not a sale of such tangible personal 129920
property. The construction contractor is the consumer of such 129921
tangible personal property, provided that the sale and 129922
installation of carpeting, the sale and installation of 129923
agricultural land tile, the sale and erection or installation of 129924
portable grain bins, or the provision of landscaping and lawn care 129925
service and the transfer of property as part of such service is 129926
never a construction contract.129927

       As used in division (B)(5) of this section:129928

       (a) "Agricultural land tile" means fired clay or concrete 129929
tile, or flexible or rigid perforated plastic pipe or tubing, 129930
incorporated or to be incorporated into a subsurface drainage 129931
system appurtenant to land used or to be used primarily in 129932
production by farming, agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture. 129933
The term does not include such materials when they are or are to 129934
be incorporated into a drainage system appurtenant to a building 129935
or structure even if the building or structure is used or to be 129936
used in such production.129937

       (b) "Portable grain bin" means a structure that is used or to 129938
be used by a person engaged in farming or agriculture to shelter 129939
the person's grain and that is designed to be disassembled without 129940
significant damage to its component parts.129941

       (6) All transactions in which all of the shares of stock of a 129942
closely held corporation are transferred, or an ownership interest 129943
in a pass-through entity, as defined in section 5733.04 of the 129944
Revised Code, is transferred, if the corporation or pass-through 129945
entity is not engaging in business and its entire assets consist 129946
of boats, planes, motor vehicles, or other tangible personal 129947
property operated primarily for the use and enjoyment of the 129948
shareholders or owners;129949

       (7) All transactions in which a warranty, maintenance or 129950
service contract, or similar agreement by which the vendor of the 129951
warranty, contract, or agreement agrees to repair or maintain the 129952
tangible personal property of the consumer is or is to be 129953
provided;129954

       (8) The transfer of copyrighted motion picture films used 129955
solely for advertising purposes, except that the transfer of such 129956
films for exhibition purposes is not a sale;129957

       (9) On and after August 1, 2003, all transactions by which 129958
tangible personal property is or is to be stored, except such 129959
property that the consumer of the storage holds for sale in the 129960
regular course of business;129961

       (10) All transactions in which "guaranteed auto protection" 129962
is provided whereby a person promises to pay to the consumer the 129963
difference between the amount the consumer receives from motor 129964
vehicle insurance and the amount the consumer owes to a person 129965
holding title to or a lien on the consumer's motor vehicle in the 129966
event the consumer's motor vehicle suffers a total loss under the 129967
terms of the motor vehicle insurance policy or is stolen and not 129968
recovered, if the protection and its price are included in the 129969
purchase or lease agreement;129970

       (11)(a) Except as provided in division (B)(11)(b) of this 129971
section, on and after October 1, 2009, all transactions by which 129972
health care services are paid for, reimbursed, provided, 129973
delivered, arranged for, or otherwise made available by a medicaid 129974
health insuring corporation pursuant to the corporation's contract 129975
with the state.129976

       (b) If the centers for medicare and medicaid services of the 129977
United States department of health and human services determines 129978
that the taxation of transactions described in division (B)(11)(a) 129979
of this section constitutes an impermissible health care-related 129980
tax under section 1903(w) of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 129981
620 (1935)section 1903(w), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w), as amended, and 129982
regulations adopted thereunder, the medicaid director of job and 129983
family services shall notify the tax commissioner of that 129984
determination. Beginning with the first day of the month following 129985
that notification, the transactions described in division 129986
(B)(11)(a) of this section are not sales for the purposes of this 129987
chapter or Chapter 5741. of the Revised Code. The tax commissioner 129988
shall order that the collection of taxes under sections 5739.02, 129989
5739.021, 5739.023, 5739.026, 5741.02, 5741.021, 5741.022, and 129990
5741.023 of the Revised Code shall cease for transactions 129991
occurring on or after that date.129992

       Except as provided in this section, "sale" and "selling" do 129993
not include transfers of interest in leased property where the 129994
original lessee and the terms of the original lease agreement 129995
remain unchanged, or professional, insurance, or personal service 129996
transactions that involve the transfer of tangible personal 129997
property as an inconsequential element, for which no separate 129998
charges are made.129999

       (C) "Vendor" means the person providing the service or by 130000
whom the transfer effected or license given by a sale is or is to 130001
be made or given and, for sales described in division (B)(3)(i) of 130002
this section, the telecommunications service vendor that provides 130003
the nine hundred telephone service; if two or more persons are 130004
engaged in business at the same place of business under a single 130005
trade name in which all collections on account of sales by each 130006
are made, such persons shall constitute a single vendor.130007

       Physicians, dentists, hospitals, and veterinarians who are 130008
engaged in selling tangible personal property as received from 130009
others, such as eyeglasses, mouthwashes, dentifrices, or similar 130010
articles, are vendors. Veterinarians who are engaged in 130011
transferring to others for a consideration drugs, the dispensing 130012
of which does not require an order of a licensed veterinarian or 130013
physician under federal law, are vendors.130014

       (D)(1) "Consumer" means the person for whom the service is 130015
provided, to whom the transfer effected or license given by a sale 130016
is or is to be made or given, to whom the service described in 130017
division (B)(3)(f) or (i) of this section is charged, or to whom 130018
the admission is granted.130019

       (2) Physicians, dentists, hospitals, and blood banks operated 130020
by nonprofit institutions and persons licensed to practice 130021
veterinary medicine, surgery, and dentistry are consumers of all 130022
tangible personal property and services purchased by them in 130023
connection with the practice of medicine, dentistry, the rendition 130024
of hospital or blood bank service, or the practice of veterinary 130025
medicine, surgery, and dentistry. In addition to being consumers 130026
of drugs administered by them or by their assistants according to 130027
their direction, veterinarians also are consumers of drugs that 130028
under federal law may be dispensed only by or upon the order of a 130029
licensed veterinarian or physician, when transferred by them to 130030
others for a consideration to provide treatment to animals as 130031
directed by the veterinarian.130032

       (3) A person who performs a facility management, or similar 130033
service contract for a contractee is a consumer of all tangible 130034
personal property and services purchased for use in connection 130035
with the performance of such contract, regardless of whether title 130036
to any such property vests in the contractee. The purchase of such 130037
property and services is not subject to the exception for resale 130038
under division (E)(1) of this section.130039

       (4)(a) In the case of a person who purchases printed matter 130040
for the purpose of distributing it or having it distributed to the 130041
public or to a designated segment of the public, free of charge, 130042
that person is the consumer of that printed matter, and the 130043
purchase of that printed matter for that purpose is a sale.130044

       (b) In the case of a person who produces, rather than 130045
purchases, printed matter for the purpose of distributing it or 130046
having it distributed to the public or to a designated segment of 130047
the public, free of charge, that person is the consumer of all 130048
tangible personal property and services purchased for use or 130049
consumption in the production of that printed matter. That person 130050
is not entitled to claim exemption under division (B)(42)(f) of 130051
section 5739.02 of the Revised Code for any material incorporated 130052
into the printed matter or any equipment, supplies, or services 130053
primarily used to produce the printed matter.130054

       (c) The distribution of printed matter to the public or to a 130055
designated segment of the public, free of charge, is not a sale to 130056
the members of the public to whom the printed matter is 130057
distributed or to any persons who purchase space in the printed 130058
matter for advertising or other purposes.130059

       (5) A person who makes sales of any of the services listed in 130060
division (B)(3) of this section is the consumer of any tangible 130061
personal property used in performing the service. The purchase of 130062
that property is not subject to the resale exception under 130063
division (E)(1) of this section.130064

       (6) A person who engages in highway transportation for hire 130065
is the consumer of all packaging materials purchased by that 130066
person and used in performing the service, except for packaging 130067
materials sold by such person in a transaction separate from the 130068
service.130069

       (7) In the case of a transaction for health care services 130070
under division (B)(11) of this section, a medicaid health insuring 130071
corporation is the consumer of such services. The purchase of such 130072
services by a medicaid health insuring corporation is not subject 130073
to the exception for resale under division (E)(1) of this section 130074
or to the exemptions provided under divisions (B)(12), (18), (19), 130075
and (22) of section 5739.02 of the Revised Code.130076

       (E) "Retail sale" and "sales at retail" include all sales, 130077
except those in which the purpose of the consumer is to resell the 130078
thing transferred or benefit of the service provided, by a person 130079
engaging in business, in the form in which the same is, or is to 130080
be, received by the person.130081

       (F) "Business" includes any activity engaged in by any person 130082
with the object of gain, benefit, or advantage, either direct or 130083
indirect. "Business" does not include the activity of a person in 130084
managing and investing the person's own funds.130085

       (G) "Engaging in business" means commencing, conducting, or 130086
continuing in business, and liquidating a business when the 130087
liquidator thereof holds itself out to the public as conducting 130088
such business. Making a casual sale is not engaging in business.130089

       (H)(1)(a) "Price," except as provided in divisions (H)(2), 130090
(3), and (4) of this section, means the total amount of 130091
consideration, including cash, credit, property, and services, for 130092
which tangible personal property or services are sold, leased, or 130093
rented, valued in money, whether received in money or otherwise, 130094
without any deduction for any of the following:130095

       (i) The vendor's cost of the property sold;130096

       (ii) The cost of materials used, labor or service costs, 130097
interest, losses, all costs of transportation to the vendor, all 130098
taxes imposed on the vendor, including the tax imposed under 130099
Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code, and any other expense of the 130100
vendor;130101

       (iii) Charges by the vendor for any services necessary to 130102
complete the sale;130103

       (iv) On and after August 1, 2003, delivery charges. As used 130104
in this division, "delivery charges" means charges by the vendor 130105
for preparation and delivery to a location designated by the 130106
consumer of tangible personal property or a service, including 130107
transportation, shipping, postage, handling, crating, and packing.130108

       (v) Installation charges;130109

       (vi) Credit for any trade-in.130110

       (b) "Price" includes consideration received by the vendor 130111
from a third party, if the vendor actually receives the 130112
consideration from a party other than the consumer, and the 130113
consideration is directly related to a price reduction or discount 130114
on the sale; the vendor has an obligation to pass the price 130115
reduction or discount through to the consumer; the amount of the 130116
consideration attributable to the sale is fixed and determinable 130117
by the vendor at the time of the sale of the item to the consumer; 130118
and one of the following criteria is met:130119

       (i) The consumer presents a coupon, certificate, or other 130120
document to the vendor to claim a price reduction or discount 130121
where the coupon, certificate, or document is authorized, 130122
distributed, or granted by a third party with the understanding 130123
that the third party will reimburse any vendor to whom the coupon, 130124
certificate, or document is presented;130125

       (ii) The consumer identifies the consumer's self to the 130126
seller as a member of a group or organization entitled to a price 130127
reduction or discount. A preferred customer card that is available 130128
to any patron does not constitute membership in such a group or 130129
organization.130130

       (iii) The price reduction or discount is identified as a 130131
third party price reduction or discount on the invoice received by 130132
the consumer, or on a coupon, certificate, or other document 130133
presented by the consumer.130134

       (c) "Price" does not include any of the following:130135

       (i) Discounts, including cash, term, or coupons that are not 130136
reimbursed by a third party that are allowed by a vendor and taken 130137
by a consumer on a sale;130138

       (ii) Interest, financing, and carrying charges from credit 130139
extended on the sale of tangible personal property or services, if 130140
the amount is separately stated on the invoice, bill of sale, or 130141
similar document given to the purchaser;130142

       (iii) Any taxes legally imposed directly on the consumer that 130143
are separately stated on the invoice, bill of sale, or similar 130144
document given to the consumer. For the purpose of this division, 130145
the tax imposed under Chapter 5751. of the Revised Code is not a 130146
tax directly on the consumer, even if the tax or a portion thereof 130147
is separately stated.130148

       (iv) Notwithstanding divisions (H)(1)(b)(i) to (iii) of this 130149
section, any discount allowed by an automobile manufacturer to its 130150
employee, or to the employee of a supplier, on the purchase of a 130151
new motor vehicle from a new motor vehicle dealer in this state.130152

       (v) The dollar value of a gift card that is not sold by a 130153
vendor or purchased by a consumer and that is redeemed by the 130154
consumer in purchasing tangible personal property or services if 130155
the vendor is not reimbursed and does not receive compensation 130156
from a third party to cover all or part of the gift card value. 130157
For the purposes of this division, a gift card is not sold by a 130158
vendor or purchased by a consumer if it is distributed pursuant to 130159
an awards, loyalty, or promotional program. Past and present 130160
purchases of tangible personal property or services by the 130161
consumer shall not be treated as consideration exchanged for a 130162
gift card.130163

       (2) In the case of a sale of any new motor vehicle by a new 130164
motor vehicle dealer, as defined in section 4517.01 of the Revised 130165
Code, in which another motor vehicle is accepted by the dealer as 130166
part of the consideration received, "price" has the same meaning 130167
as in division (H)(1) of this section, reduced by the credit 130168
afforded the consumer by the dealer for the motor vehicle received 130169
in trade.130170

       (3) In the case of a sale of any watercraft or outboard motor 130171
by a watercraft dealer licensed in accordance with section 130172
1547.543 of the Revised Code, in which another watercraft, 130173
watercraft and trailer, or outboard motor is accepted by the 130174
dealer as part of the consideration received, "price" has the same 130175
meaning as in division (H)(1) of this section, reduced by the 130176
credit afforded the consumer by the dealer for the watercraft, 130177
watercraft and trailer, or outboard motor received in trade. As 130178
used in this division, "watercraft" includes an outdrive unit 130179
attached to the watercraft.130180

       (4) In the case of transactions for health care services 130181
under division (B)(11) of this section, "price" means the amount 130182
of managed care premiums received each month by a medicaid health 130183
insuring corporation.130184

       (I) "Receipts" means the total amount of the prices of the 130185
sales of vendors, provided that the dollar value of gift cards 130186
distributed pursuant to an awards, loyalty, or promotional 130187
program, and cash discounts allowed and taken on sales at the time 130188
they are consummated are not included, minus any amount deducted 130189
as a bad debt pursuant to section 5739.121 of the Revised Code. 130190
"Receipts" does not include the sale price of property returned or 130191
services rejected by consumers when the full sale price and tax 130192
are refunded either in cash or by credit.130193

       (J) "Place of business" means any location at which a person 130194
engages in business.130195

       (K) "Premises" includes any real property or portion thereof 130196
upon which any person engages in selling tangible personal 130197
property at retail or making retail sales and also includes any 130198
real property or portion thereof designated for, or devoted to, 130199
use in conjunction with the business engaged in by such person.130200

       (L) "Casual sale" means a sale of an item of tangible 130201
personal property that was obtained by the person making the sale, 130202
through purchase or otherwise, for the person's own use and was 130203
previously subject to any state's taxing jurisdiction on its sale 130204
or use, and includes such items acquired for the seller's use that 130205
are sold by an auctioneer employed directly by the person for such 130206
purpose, provided the location of such sales is not the 130207
auctioneer's permanent place of business. As used in this 130208
division, "permanent place of business" includes any location 130209
where such auctioneer has conducted more than two auctions during 130210
the year.130211

       (M) "Hotel" means every establishment kept, used, maintained, 130212
advertised, or held out to the public to be a place where sleeping 130213
accommodations are offered to guests, in which five or more rooms 130214
are used for the accommodation of such guests, whether the rooms 130215
are in one or several structures, except as otherwise provided in 130216
division (G) of section 5739.09 of the Revised Code.130217

       (N) "Transient guests" means persons occupying a room or 130218
rooms for sleeping accommodations for less than thirty consecutive 130219
days.130220

       (O) "Making retail sales" means the effecting of transactions 130221
wherein one party is obligated to pay the price and the other 130222
party is obligated to provide a service or to transfer title to or 130223
possession of the item sold. "Making retail sales" does not 130224
include the preliminary acts of promoting or soliciting the retail 130225
sales, other than the distribution of printed matter which 130226
displays or describes and prices the item offered for sale, nor 130227
does it include delivery of a predetermined quantity of tangible 130228
personal property or transportation of property or personnel to or 130229
from a place where a service is performed.130230

       (P) "Used directly in the rendition of a public utility 130231
service" means that property that is to be incorporated into and 130232
will become a part of the consumer's production, transmission, 130233
transportation, or distribution system and that retains its 130234
classification as tangible personal property after such 130235
incorporation; fuel or power used in the production, transmission, 130236
transportation, or distribution system; and tangible personal 130237
property used in the repair and maintenance of the production, 130238
transmission, transportation, or distribution system, including 130239
only such motor vehicles as are specially designed and equipped 130240
for such use. Tangible personal property and services used 130241
primarily in providing highway transportation for hire are not 130242
used directly in the rendition of a public utility service. In 130243
this definition, "public utility" includes a citizen of the United 130244
States holding, and required to hold, a certificate of public 130245
convenience and necessity issued under 49 U.S.C. 41102.130246

       (Q) "Refining" means removing or separating a desirable 130247
product from raw or contaminated materials by distillation or 130248
physical, mechanical, or chemical processes.130249

       (R) "Assembly" and "assembling" mean attaching or fitting 130250
together parts to form a product, but do not include packaging a 130251
product.130252

       (S) "Manufacturing operation" means a process in which 130253
materials are changed, converted, or transformed into a different 130254
state or form from which they previously existed and includes 130255
refining materials, assembling parts, and preparing raw materials 130256
and parts by mixing, measuring, blending, or otherwise committing 130257
such materials or parts to the manufacturing process. 130258
"Manufacturing operation" does not include packaging.130259

       (T) "Fiscal officer" means, with respect to a regional 130260
transit authority, the secretary-treasurer thereof, and with 130261
respect to a county that is a transit authority, the fiscal 130262
officer of the county transit board if one is appointed pursuant 130263
to section 306.03 of the Revised Code or the county auditor if the 130264
board of county commissioners operates the county transit system.130265

       (U) "Transit authority" means a regional transit authority 130266
created pursuant to section 306.31 of the Revised Code or a county 130267
in which a county transit system is created pursuant to section 130268
306.01 of the Revised Code. For the purposes of this chapter, a 130269
transit authority must extend to at least the entire area of a 130270
single county. A transit authority that includes territory in more 130271
than one county must include all the area of the most populous 130272
county that is a part of such transit authority. County population 130273
shall be measured by the most recent census taken by the United 130274
States census bureau.130275

       (V) "Legislative authority" means, with respect to a regional 130276
transit authority, the board of trustees thereof, and with respect 130277
to a county that is a transit authority, the board of county 130278
commissioners.130279

       (W) "Territory of the transit authority" means all of the 130280
area included within the territorial boundaries of a transit 130281
authority as they from time to time exist. Such territorial 130282
boundaries must at all times include all the area of a single 130283
county or all the area of the most populous county that is a part 130284
of such transit authority. County population shall be measured by 130285
the most recent census taken by the United States census bureau.130286

       (X) "Providing a service" means providing or furnishing 130287
anything described in division (B)(3) of this section for 130288
consideration.130289

       (Y)(1)(a) "Automatic data processing" means processing of 130290
others' data, including keypunching or similar data entry services 130291
together with verification thereof, or providing access to 130292
computer equipment for the purpose of processing data.130293

       (b) "Computer services" means providing services consisting 130294
of specifying computer hardware configurations and evaluating 130295
technical processing characteristics, computer programming, and 130296
training of computer programmers and operators, provided in 130297
conjunction with and to support the sale, lease, or operation of 130298
taxable computer equipment or systems.130299

       (c) "Electronic information services" means providing access 130300
to computer equipment by means of telecommunications equipment for 130301
the purpose of either of the following:130302

       (i) Examining or acquiring data stored in or accessible to 130303
the computer equipment;130304

       (ii) Placing data into the computer equipment to be retrieved 130305
by designated recipients with access to the computer equipment.130306

       For transactions occurring on or after the effective date of 130307
the amendment of this section by H.B. 157 of the 127th general 130308
assembly, December 21, 2007, "electronic information services" 130309
does not include electronic publishing as defined in division 130310
(LLL) of this section.130311

       (d) "Automatic data processing, computer services, or 130312
electronic information services" shall not include personal or 130313
professional services.130314

       (2) As used in divisions (B)(3)(e) and (Y)(1) of this 130315
section, "personal and professional services" means all services 130316
other than automatic data processing, computer services, or 130317
electronic information services, including but not limited to:130318

       (a) Accounting and legal services such as advice on tax 130319
matters, asset management, budgetary matters, quality control, 130320
information security, and auditing and any other situation where 130321
the service provider receives data or information and studies, 130322
alters, analyzes, interprets, or adjusts such material;130323

       (b) Analyzing business policies and procedures;130324

       (c) Identifying management information needs;130325

       (d) Feasibility studies, including economic and technical 130326
analysis of existing or potential computer hardware or software 130327
needs and alternatives;130328

       (e) Designing policies, procedures, and custom software for 130329
collecting business information, and determining how data should 130330
be summarized, sequenced, formatted, processed, controlled, and 130331
reported so that it will be meaningful to management;130332

       (f) Developing policies and procedures that document how 130333
business events and transactions are to be authorized, executed, 130334
and controlled;130335

       (g) Testing of business procedures;130336

       (h) Training personnel in business procedure applications;130337

       (i) Providing credit information to users of such information 130338
by a consumer reporting agency, as defined in the "Fair Credit 130339
Reporting Act," 84 Stat. 1114, 1129 (1970), 15 U.S.C. 1681a(f), or 130340
as hereafter amended, including but not limited to gathering, 130341
organizing, analyzing, recording, and furnishing such information 130342
by any oral, written, graphic, or electronic medium;130343

       (j) Providing debt collection services by any oral, written, 130344
graphic, or electronic means.130345

       The services listed in divisions (Y)(2)(a) to (j) of this 130346
section are not automatic data processing or computer services.130347

       (Z) "Highway transportation for hire" means the 130348
transportation of personal property belonging to others for 130349
consideration by any of the following:130350

       (1) The holder of a permit or certificate issued by this 130351
state or the United States authorizing the holder to engage in 130352
transportation of personal property belonging to others for 130353
consideration over or on highways, roadways, streets, or any 130354
similar public thoroughfare;130355

       (2) A person who engages in the transportation of personal 130356
property belonging to others for consideration over or on 130357
highways, roadways, streets, or any similar public thoroughfare 130358
but who could not have engaged in such transportation on December 130359
11, 1985, unless the person was the holder of a permit or 130360
certificate of the types described in division (Z)(1) of this 130361
section;130362

       (3) A person who leases a motor vehicle to and operates it 130363
for a person described by division (Z)(1) or (2) of this section.130364

       (AA)(1) "Telecommunications service" means the electronic 130365
transmission, conveyance, or routing of voice, data, audio, video, 130366
or any other information or signals to a point, or between or 130367
among points. "Telecommunications service" includes such 130368
transmission, conveyance, or routing in which computer processing 130369
applications are used to act on the form, code, or protocol of the 130370
content for purposes of transmission, conveyance, or routing 130371
without regard to whether the service is referred to as voice-over 130372
internet protocol service or is classified by the federal 130373
communications commission as enhanced or value-added. 130374
"Telecommunications service" does not include any of the 130375
following:130376

        (a) Data processing and information services that allow data 130377
to be generated, acquired, stored, processed, or retrieved and 130378
delivered by an electronic transmission to a consumer where the 130379
consumer's primary purpose for the underlying transaction is the 130380
processed data or information;130381

        (b) Installation or maintenance of wiring or equipment on a 130382
customer's premises;130383

        (c) Tangible personal property;130384

       (d) Advertising, including directory advertising;130385

        (e) Billing and collection services provided to third 130386
parties;130387

        (f) Internet access service;130388

        (g) Radio and television audio and video programming 130389
services, regardless of the medium, including the furnishing of 130390
transmission, conveyance, and routing of such services by the 130391
programming service provider. Radio and television audio and video 130392
programming services include, but are not limited to, cable 130393
service, as defined in 47 U.S.C. 522(6), and audio and video 130394
programming services delivered by commercial mobile radio service 130395
providers, as defined in 47 C.F.R. 20.3;130396

        (h) Ancillary service;130397

        (i) Digital products delivered electronically, including 130398
software, music, video, reading materials, or ring tones.130399

        (2) "Ancillary service" means a service that is associated 130400
with or incidental to the provision of telecommunications service, 130401
including conference bridging service, detailed telecommunications 130402
billing service, directory assistance, vertical service, and voice 130403
mail service. As used in this division:130404

        (a) "Conference bridging service" means an ancillary service 130405
that links two or more participants of an audio or video 130406
conference call, including providing a telephone number. 130407
"Conference bridging service" does not include telecommunications 130408
services used to reach the conference bridge.130409

        (b) "Detailed telecommunications billing service" means an 130410
ancillary service of separately stating information pertaining to 130411
individual calls on a customer's billing statement.130412

        (c) "Directory assistance" means an ancillary service of 130413
providing telephone number or address information.130414

        (d) "Vertical service" means an ancillary service that is 130415
offered in connection with one or more telecommunications 130416
services, which offers advanced calling features that allow 130417
customers to identify callers and manage multiple calls and call 130418
connections, including conference bridging service.130419

        (e) "Voice mail service" means an ancillary service that 130420
enables the customer to store, send, or receive recorded messages. 130421
"Voice mail service" does not include any vertical services that 130422
the customer may be required to have in order to utilize the voice 130423
mail service.130424

        (3) "900 service" means an inbound toll telecommunications 130425
service purchased by a subscriber that allows the subscriber's 130426
customers to call in to the subscriber's prerecorded announcement 130427
or live service, and which is typically marketed under the name 130428
"900" service" and any subsequent numbers designated by the 130429
federal communications commission. "900 service" does not include 130430
the charge for collection services provided by the seller of the 130431
telecommunications service to the subscriber, or services or 130432
products sold by the subscriber to the subscriber's customer.130433

        (4) "Prepaid calling service" means the right to access 130434
exclusively telecommunications services, which must be paid for in 130435
advance and which enables the origination of calls using an access 130436
number or authorization code, whether manually or electronically 130437
dialed, and that is sold in predetermined units or dollars of 130438
which the number declines with use in a known amount.130439

        (5) "Prepaid wireless calling service" means a 130440
telecommunications service that provides the right to utilize 130441
mobile telecommunications service as well as other 130442
non-telecommunications services, including the download of digital 130443
products delivered electronically, and content and ancillary 130444
services, that must be paid for in advance and that is sold in 130445
predetermined units or dollars of which the number declines with 130446
use in a known amount.130447

        (6) "Value-added non-voice data service" means a 130448
telecommunications service in which computer processing 130449
applications are used to act on the form, content, code, or 130450
protocol of the information or data primarily for a purpose other 130451
than transmission, conveyance, or routing.130452

        (7) "Coin-operated telephone service" means a 130453
telecommunications service paid for by inserting money into a 130454
telephone accepting direct deposits of money to operate.130455

        (8) "Customer" has the same meaning as in section 5739.034 of 130456
the Revised Code.130457

       (BB) "Laundry and dry cleaning services" means removing soil 130458
or dirt from towels, linens, articles of clothing, or other fabric 130459
items that belong to others and supplying towels, linens, articles 130460
of clothing, or other fabric items. "Laundry and dry cleaning 130461
services" does not include the provision of self-service 130462
facilities for use by consumers to remove soil or dirt from 130463
towels, linens, articles of clothing, or other fabric items.130464

       (CC) "Magazines distributed as controlled circulation 130465
publications" means magazines containing at least twenty-four 130466
pages, at least twenty-five per cent editorial content, issued at 130467
regular intervals four or more times a year, and circulated 130468
without charge to the recipient, provided that such magazines are 130469
not owned or controlled by individuals or business concerns which 130470
conduct such publications as an auxiliary to, and essentially for 130471
the advancement of the main business or calling of, those who own 130472
or control them.130473

       (DD) "Landscaping and lawn care service" means the services 130474
of planting, seeding, sodding, removing, cutting, trimming, 130475
pruning, mulching, aerating, applying chemicals, watering, 130476
fertilizing, and providing similar services to establish, promote, 130477
or control the growth of trees, shrubs, flowers, grass, ground 130478
cover, and other flora, or otherwise maintaining a lawn or 130479
landscape grown or maintained by the owner for ornamentation or 130480
other nonagricultural purpose. However, "landscaping and lawn care 130481
service" does not include the providing of such services by a 130482
person who has less than five thousand dollars in sales of such 130483
services during the calendar year.130484

       (EE) "Private investigation and security service" means the 130485
performance of any activity for which the provider of such service 130486
is required to be licensed pursuant to Chapter 4749. of the 130487
Revised Code, or would be required to be so licensed in performing 130488
such services in this state, and also includes the services of 130489
conducting polygraph examinations and of monitoring or overseeing 130490
the activities on or in, or the condition of, the consumer's home, 130491
business, or other facility by means of electronic or similar 130492
monitoring devices. "Private investigation and security service" 130493
does not include special duty services provided by off-duty police 130494
officers, deputy sheriffs, and other peace officers regularly 130495
employed by the state or a political subdivision.130496

       (FF) "Information services" means providing conversation, 130497
giving consultation or advice, playing or making a voice or other 130498
recording, making or keeping a record of the number of callers, 130499
and any other service provided to a consumer by means of a nine 130500
hundred telephone call, except when the nine hundred telephone 130501
call is the means by which the consumer makes a contribution to a 130502
recognized charity.130503

       (GG) "Research and development" means designing, creating, or 130504
formulating new or enhanced products, equipment, or manufacturing 130505
processes, and also means conducting scientific or technological 130506
inquiry and experimentation in the physical sciences with the goal 130507
of increasing scientific knowledge which may reveal the bases for 130508
new or enhanced products, equipment, or manufacturing processes.130509

       (HH) "Qualified research and development equipment" means 130510
capitalized tangible personal property, and leased personal 130511
property that would be capitalized if purchased, used by a person 130512
primarily to perform research and development. Tangible personal 130513
property primarily used in testing, as defined in division (A)(4) 130514
of section 5739.011 of the Revised Code, or used for recording or 130515
storing test results, is not qualified research and development 130516
equipment unless such property is primarily used by the consumer 130517
in testing the product, equipment, or manufacturing process being 130518
created, designed, or formulated by the consumer in the research 130519
and development activity or in recording or storing such test 130520
results.130521

       (II) "Building maintenance and janitorial service" means 130522
cleaning the interior or exterior of a building and any tangible 130523
personal property located therein or thereon, including any 130524
services incidental to such cleaning for which no separate charge 130525
is made. However, "building maintenance and janitorial service" 130526
does not include the providing of such service by a person who has 130527
less than five thousand dollars in sales of such service during 130528
the calendar year.130529

       (JJ) "Employment service" means providing or supplying 130530
personnel, on a temporary or long-term basis, to perform work or 130531
labor under the supervision or control of another, when the 130532
personnel so provided or supplied receive their wages, salary, or 130533
other compensation from the provider or supplier of the employment 130534
service or from a third party that provided or supplied the 130535
personnel to the provider or supplier. "Employment service" does 130536
not include:130537

       (1) Acting as a contractor or subcontractor, where the 130538
personnel performing the work are not under the direct control of 130539
the purchaser.130540

       (2) Medical and health care services.130541

       (3) Supplying personnel to a purchaser pursuant to a contract 130542
of at least one year between the service provider and the 130543
purchaser that specifies that each employee covered under the 130544
contract is assigned to the purchaser on a permanent basis.130545

       (4) Transactions between members of an affiliated group, as 130546
defined in division (B)(3)(e) of this section.130547

       (5) Transactions where the personnel so provided or supplied 130548
by a provider or supplier to a purchaser of an employment service 130549
are then provided or supplied by that purchaser to a third party 130550
as an employment service, except "employment service" does include 130551
the transaction between that purchaser and the third party.130552

       (KK) "Employment placement service" means locating or finding 130553
employment for a person or finding or locating an employee to fill 130554
an available position.130555

       (LL) "Exterminating service" means eradicating or attempting 130556
to eradicate vermin infestations from a building or structure, or 130557
the area surrounding a building or structure, and includes 130558
activities to inspect, detect, or prevent vermin infestation of a 130559
building or structure.130560

       (MM) "Physical fitness facility service" means all 130561
transactions by which a membership is granted, maintained, or 130562
renewed, including initiation fees, membership dues, renewal fees, 130563
monthly minimum fees, and other similar fees and dues, by a 130564
physical fitness facility such as an athletic club, health spa, or 130565
gymnasium, which entitles the member to use the facility for 130566
physical exercise.130567

       (NN) "Recreation and sports club service" means all 130568
transactions by which a membership is granted, maintained, or 130569
renewed, including initiation fees, membership dues, renewal fees, 130570
monthly minimum fees, and other similar fees and dues, by a 130571
recreation and sports club, which entitles the member to use the 130572
facilities of the organization. "Recreation and sports club" means 130573
an organization that has ownership of, or controls or leases on a 130574
continuing, long-term basis, the facilities used by its members 130575
and includes an aviation club, gun or shooting club, yacht club, 130576
card club, swimming club, tennis club, golf club, country club, 130577
riding club, amateur sports club, or similar organization.130578

       (OO) "Livestock" means farm animals commonly raised for food, 130579
food production, or other agricultural purposes, including, but 130580
not limited to, cattle, sheep, goats, swine, poultry, and captive 130581
deer. "Livestock" does not include invertebrates, amphibians, 130582
reptiles, domestic pets, animals for use in laboratories or for 130583
exhibition, or other animals not commonly raised for food or food 130584
production.130585

       (PP) "Livestock structure" means a building or structure used 130586
exclusively for the housing, raising, feeding, or sheltering of 130587
livestock, and includes feed storage or handling structures and 130588
structures for livestock waste handling.130589

       (QQ) "Horticulture" means the growing, cultivation, and 130590
production of flowers, fruits, herbs, vegetables, sod, mushrooms, 130591
and nursery stock. As used in this division, "nursery stock" has 130592
the same meaning as in section 927.51 of the Revised Code.130593

       (RR) "Horticulture structure" means a building or structure 130594
used exclusively for the commercial growing, raising, or 130595
overwintering of horticultural products, and includes the area 130596
used for stocking, storing, and packing horticultural products 130597
when done in conjunction with the production of those products.130598

       (SS) "Newspaper" means an unbound publication bearing a title 130599
or name that is regularly published, at least as frequently as 130600
biweekly, and distributed from a fixed place of business to the 130601
public in a specific geographic area, and that contains a 130602
substantial amount of news matter of international, national, or 130603
local events of interest to the general public.130604

       (TT) "Professional racing team" means a person that employs 130605
at least twenty full-time employees for the purpose of conducting 130606
a motor vehicle racing business for profit. The person must 130607
conduct the business with the purpose of racing one or more motor 130608
racing vehicles in at least ten competitive professional racing 130609
events each year that comprise all or part of a motor racing 130610
series sanctioned by one or more motor racing sanctioning 130611
organizations. A "motor racing vehicle" means a vehicle for which 130612
the chassis, engine, and parts are designed exclusively for motor 130613
racing, and does not include a stock or production model vehicle 130614
that may be modified for use in racing. For the purposes of this 130615
division:130616

       (1) A "competitive professional racing event" is a motor 130617
vehicle racing event sanctioned by one or more motor racing 130618
sanctioning organizations, at which aggregate cash prizes in 130619
excess of eight hundred thousand dollars are awarded to the 130620
competitors.130621

       (2) "Full-time employee" means an individual who is employed 130622
for consideration for thirty-five or more hours a week, or who 130623
renders any other standard of service generally accepted by custom 130624
or specified by contract as full-time employment.130625

        (UU)(1) "Lease" or "rental" means any transfer of the 130626
possession or control of tangible personal property for a fixed or 130627
indefinite term, for consideration. "Lease" or "rental" includes 130628
future options to purchase or extend, and agreements described in 130629
26 U.S.C. 7701(h)(1) covering motor vehicles and trailers where 130630
the amount of consideration may be increased or decreased by 130631
reference to the amount realized upon the sale or disposition of 130632
the property. "Lease" or "rental" does not include:130633

       (a) A transfer of possession or control of tangible personal 130634
property under a security agreement or a deferred payment plan 130635
that requires the transfer of title upon completion of the 130636
required payments;130637

       (b) A transfer of possession or control of tangible personal 130638
property under an agreement that requires the transfer of title 130639
upon completion of required payments and payment of an option 130640
price that does not exceed the greater of one hundred dollars or 130641
one per cent of the total required payments;130642

       (c) Providing tangible personal property along with an 130643
operator for a fixed or indefinite period of time, if the operator 130644
is necessary for the property to perform as designed. For purposes 130645
of this division, the operator must do more than maintain, 130646
inspect, or set-upset up the tangible personal property.130647

       (2) "Lease" and "rental," as defined in division (UU) of this 130648
section, shall not apply to leases or rentals that exist before 130649
June 26, 2003.130650

       (3) "Lease" and "rental" have the same meaning as in division 130651
(UU)(1) of this section regardless of whether a transaction is 130652
characterized as a lease or rental under generally accepted 130653
accounting principles, the Internal Revenue Code, Title XIII of 130654
the Revised Code, or other federal, state, or local laws.130655

       (VV) "Mobile telecommunications service" has the same meaning 130656
as in the "Mobile Telecommunications Sourcing Act," Pub. L. No. 130657
106-252, 114 Stat. 631 (2000), 4 U.S.C.A. 124(7), as amended, and, 130658
on and after August 1, 2003, includes related fees and ancillary 130659
services, including universal service fees, detailed billing 130660
service, directory assistance, service initiation, voice mail 130661
service, and vertical services, such as caller ID and three-way 130662
calling.130663

       (WW) "Certified service provider" has the same meaning as in 130664
section 5740.01 of the Revised Code.130665

       (XX) "Satellite broadcasting service" means the distribution 130666
or broadcasting of programming or services by satellite directly 130667
to the subscriber's receiving equipment without the use of ground 130668
receiving or distribution equipment, except the subscriber's 130669
receiving equipment or equipment used in the uplink process to the 130670
satellite, and includes all service and rental charges, premium 130671
channels or other special services, installation and repair 130672
service charges, and any other charges having any connection with 130673
the provision of the satellite broadcasting service.130674

       (YY) "Tangible personal property" means personal property 130675
that can be seen, weighed, measured, felt, or touched, or that is 130676
in any other manner perceptible to the senses. For purposes of 130677
this chapter and Chapter 5741. of the Revised Code, "tangible 130678
personal property" includes motor vehicles, electricity, water, 130679
gas, steam, and prewritten computer software.130680

       (ZZ) "Direct mail" means printed material delivered or 130681
distributed by United States mail or other delivery service to a 130682
mass audience or to addressees on a mailing list provided by the 130683
consumer or at the direction of the consumer when the cost of the 130684
items are not billed directly to the recipients. "Direct mail" 130685
includes tangible personal property supplied directly or 130686
indirectly by the consumer to the direct mail vendor for inclusion 130687
in the package containing the printed material. "Direct mail" does 130688
not include multiple items of printed material delivered to a 130689
single address.130690

       (AAA) "Computer" means an electronic device that accepts 130691
information in digital or similar form and manipulates it for a 130692
result based on a sequence of instructions.130693

       (BBB) "Computer software" means a set of coded instructions 130694
designed to cause a computer or automatic data processing 130695
equipment to perform a task.130696

       (CCC) "Delivered electronically" means delivery of computer 130697
software from the seller to the purchaser by means other than 130698
tangible storage media.130699

       (DDD) "Prewritten computer software" means computer software, 130700
including prewritten upgrades, that is not designed and developed 130701
by the author or other creator to the specifications of a specific 130702
purchaser. The combining of two or more prewritten computer 130703
software programs or prewritten portions thereof does not cause 130704
the combination to be other than prewritten computer software. 130705
"Prewritten computer software" includes software designed and 130706
developed by the author or other creator to the specifications of 130707
a specific purchaser when it is sold to a person other than the 130708
purchaser. If a person modifies or enhances computer software of 130709
which the person is not the author or creator, the person shall be 130710
deemed to be the author or creator only of such person's 130711
modifications or enhancements. Prewritten computer software or a 130712
prewritten portion thereof that is modified or enhanced to any 130713
degree, where such modification or enhancement is designed and 130714
developed to the specifications of a specific purchaser, remains 130715
prewritten computer software; provided, however, that where there 130716
is a reasonable, separately stated charge or an invoice or other 130717
statement of the price given to the purchaser for the modification 130718
or enhancement, the modification or enhancement shall not 130719
constitute prewritten computer software.130720

       (EEE)(1) "Food" means substances, whether in liquid, 130721
concentrated, solid, frozen, dried, or dehydrated form, that are 130722
sold for ingestion or chewing by humans and are consumed for their 130723
taste or nutritional value. "Food" does not include alcoholic 130724
beverages, dietary supplements, soft drinks, or tobacco.130725

       (2) As used in division (EEE)(1) of this section:130726

       (a) "Alcoholic beverages" means beverages that are suitable 130727
for human consumption and contain one-half of one per cent or more 130728
of alcohol by volume.130729

       (b) "Dietary supplements" means any product, other than 130730
tobacco, that is intended to supplement the diet and that is 130731
intended for ingestion in tablet, capsule, powder, softgel, 130732
gelcap, or liquid form, or, if not intended for ingestion in such 130733
a form, is not represented as conventional food for use as a sole 130734
item of a meal or of the diet; that is required to be labeled as a 130735
dietary supplement, identifiable by the "supplement facts" box 130736
found on the label, as required by 21 C.F.R. 101.36; and that 130737
contains one or more of the following dietary ingredients:130738

       (i) A vitamin;130739

       (ii) A mineral;130740

       (iii) An herb or other botanical;130741

       (iv) An amino acid;130742

       (v) A dietary substance for use by humans to supplement the 130743
diet by increasing the total dietary intake;130744

       (vi) A concentrate, metabolite, constituent, extract, or 130745
combination of any ingredient described in divisions 130746
(EEE)(2)(b)(i) to (v) of this section.130747

       (c) "Soft drinks" means nonalcoholic beverages that contain 130748
natural or artificial sweeteners. "Soft drinks" does not include 130749
beverages that contain milk or milk products, soy, rice, or 130750
similar milk substitutes, or that contains greater than fifty per 130751
cent vegetable or fruit juice by volume.130752

       (d) "Tobacco" means cigarettes, cigars, chewing or pipe 130753
tobacco, or any other item that contains tobacco.130754

       (FFF) "Drug" means a compound, substance, or preparation, and 130755
any component of a compound, substance, or preparation, other than 130756
food, dietary supplements, or alcoholic beverages that is 130757
recognized in the official United States pharmacopoeia, official 130758
homeopathic pharmacopoeia of the United States, or official 130759
national formulary, and supplements to them; is intended for use 130760
in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of 130761
disease; or is intended to affect the structure or any function of 130762
the body.130763

       (GGG) "Prescription" means an order, formula, or recipe 130764
issued in any form of oral, written, electronic, or other means of 130765
transmission by a duly licensed practitioner authorized by the 130766
laws of this state to issue a prescription.130767

       (HHH) "Durable medical equipment" means equipment, including 130768
repair and replacement parts for such equipment, that can 130769
withstand repeated use, is primarily and customarily used to serve 130770
a medical purpose, generally is not useful to a person in the 130771
absence of illness or injury, and is not worn in or on the body. 130772
"Durable medical equipment" does not include mobility enhancing 130773
equipment.130774

       (III) "Mobility enhancing equipment" means equipment, 130775
including repair and replacement parts for such equipment, that is 130776
primarily and customarily used to provide or increase the ability 130777
to move from one place to another and is appropriate for use 130778
either in a home or a motor vehicle, that is not generally used by 130779
persons with normal mobility, and that does not include any motor 130780
vehicle or equipment on a motor vehicle normally provided by a 130781
motor vehicle manufacturer. "Mobility enhancing equipment" does 130782
not include durable medical equipment.130783

       (JJJ) "Prosthetic device" means a replacement, corrective, or 130784
supportive device, including repair and replacement parts for the 130785
device, worn on or in the human body to artificially replace a 130786
missing portion of the body, prevent or correct physical deformity 130787
or malfunction, or support a weak or deformed portion of the body. 130788
As used in this division, "prosthetic device" does not include 130789
corrective eyeglasses, contact lenses, or dental prosthesis.130790

       (KKK)(1) "Fractional aircraft ownership program" means a 130791
program in which persons within an affiliated group sell and 130792
manage fractional ownership program aircraft, provided that at 130793
least one hundred airworthy aircraft are operated in the program 130794
and the program meets all of the following criteria:130795

       (a) Management services are provided by at least one program 130796
manager within an affiliated group on behalf of the fractional 130797
owners.130798

       (b) Each program aircraft is owned or possessed by at least 130799
one fractional owner.130800

       (c) Each fractional owner owns or possesses at least a 130801
one-sixteenth interest in at least one fixed-wing program 130802
aircraft.130803

       (d) A dry-lease aircraft interchange arrangement is in effect 130804
among all of the fractional owners.130805

       (e) Multi-year program agreements are in effect regarding the 130806
fractional ownership, management services, and dry-lease aircraft 130807
interchange arrangement aspects of the program.130808

       (2) As used in division (KKK)(1) of this section:130809

       (a) "Affiliated group" has the same meaning as in division 130810
(B)(3)(e) of this section.130811

        (b) "Fractional owner" means a person that owns or possesses 130812
at least a one-sixteenth interest in a program aircraft and has 130813
entered into the agreements described in division (KKK)(1)(e) of 130814
this section.130815

       (c) "Fractional ownership program aircraft" or "program 130816
aircraft" means a turbojet aircraft that is owned or possessed by 130817
a fractional owner and that has been included in a dry-lease 130818
aircraft interchange arrangement and agreement under divisions 130819
(KKK)(1)(d) and (e) of this section, or an aircraft a program 130820
manager owns or possesses primarily for use in a fractional 130821
aircraft ownership program.130822

       (d) "Management services" means administrative and aviation 130823
support services furnished under a fractional aircraft ownership 130824
program in accordance with a management services agreement under 130825
division (KKK)(1)(e) of this section, and offered by the program 130826
manager to the fractional owners, including, at a minimum, the 130827
establishment and implementation of safety guidelines; the 130828
coordination of the scheduling of the program aircraft and crews; 130829
program aircraft maintenance; program aircraft insurance; crew 130830
training for crews employed, furnished, or contracted by the 130831
program manager or the fractional owner; the satisfaction of 130832
record-keeping requirements; and the development and use of an 130833
operations manual and a maintenance manual for the fractional 130834
aircraft ownership program.130835

       (e) "Program manager" means the person that offers management 130836
services to fractional owners pursuant to a management services 130837
agreement under division (KKK)(1)(e) of this section.130838

       (LLL) "Electronic publishing" means providing access to one 130839
or more of the following primarily for business customers, 130840
including the federal government or a state government or a 130841
political subdivision thereof, to conduct research: news; 130842
business, financial, legal, consumer, or credit materials; 130843
editorials, columns, reader commentary, or features; photos or 130844
images; archival or research material; legal notices, identity 130845
verification, or public records; scientific, educational, 130846
instructional, technical, professional, trade, or other literary 130847
materials; or other similar information which has been gathered 130848
and made available by the provider to the consumer in an 130849
electronic format. Providing electronic publishing includes the 130850
functions necessary for the acquisition, formatting, editing, 130851
storage, and dissemination of data or information that is the 130852
subject of a sale.130853

       (MMM) "Medicaid health insuring corporation" means a health 130854
insuring corporation that holds a certificate of authority under 130855
Chapter 1751. of the Revised Code and is under contract with the 130856
department of job and family services pursuant to section 5111.17 130857
of the Revised Code.130858

       (NNN) "Managed care premium" means any premium, capitation, 130859
or other payment a medicaid health insuring corporation receives 130860
for providing or arranging for the provision of health care 130861
services to its members or enrollees residing in this state.130862

       (OOO) "Captive deer" means deer and other cervidae that have 130863
been legally acquired, or their offspring, that are privately 130864
owned for agricultural or farming purposes.130865

       (PPP) "Gift card" means a document, card, certificate, or 130866
other record, whether tangible or intangible, that may be redeemed 130867
by a consumer for a dollar value when making a purchase of 130868
tangible personal property or services.130869

       Sec. 5739.02.  For the purpose of providing revenue with 130870
which to meet the needs of the state, for the use of the general 130871
revenue fund of the state, for the purpose of securing a thorough 130872
and efficient system of common schools throughout the state, for 130873
the purpose of affording revenues, in addition to those from 130874
general property taxes, permitted under constitutional 130875
limitations, and from other sources, for the support of local 130876
governmental functions, and for the purpose of reimbursing the 130877
state for the expense of administering this chapter, an excise tax 130878
is hereby levied on each retail sale made in this state.130879

       (A)(1) The tax shall be collected as provided in section 130880
5739.025 of the Revised Code. The rate of the tax shall be five 130881
and one-half per cent. The tax applies and is collectible when the 130882
sale is made, regardless of the time when the price is paid or 130883
delivered.130884

        (2) In the case of the lease or rental, with a fixed term of 130885
more than thirty days or an indefinite term with a minimum period 130886
of more than thirty days, of any motor vehicles designed by the 130887
manufacturer to carry a load of not more than one ton, watercraft, 130888
outboard motor, or aircraft, or of any tangible personal property, 130889
other than motor vehicles designed by the manufacturer to carry a 130890
load of more than one ton, to be used by the lessee or renter 130891
primarily for business purposes, the tax shall be collected by the 130892
vendor at the time the lease or rental is consummated and shall be 130893
calculated by the vendor on the basis of the total amount to be 130894
paid by the lessee or renter under the lease agreement. If the 130895
total amount of the consideration for the lease or rental includes 130896
amounts that are not calculated at the time the lease or rental is 130897
executed, the tax shall be calculated and collected by the vendor 130898
at the time such amounts are billed to the lessee or renter. In 130899
the case of an open-end lease or rental, the tax shall be 130900
calculated by the vendor on the basis of the total amount to be 130901
paid during the initial fixed term of the lease or rental, and for 130902
each subsequent renewal period as it comes due. As used in this 130903
division, "motor vehicle" has the same meaning as in section 130904
4501.01 of the Revised Code, and "watercraft" includes an outdrive 130905
unit attached to the watercraft.130906

       A lease with a renewal clause and a termination penalty or 130907
similar provision that applies if the renewal clause is not 130908
exercised is presumed to be a sham transaction. In such a case, 130909
the tax shall be calculated and paid on the basis of the entire 130910
length of the lease period, including any renewal periods, until 130911
the termination penalty or similar provision no longer applies. 130912
The taxpayer shall bear the burden, by a preponderance of the 130913
evidence, that the transaction or series of transactions is not a 130914
sham transaction.130915

       (3) Except as provided in division (A)(2) of this section, in 130916
the case of a sale, the price of which consists in whole or in 130917
part of the lease or rental of tangible personal property, the tax 130918
shall be measured by the installments of that lease or rental.130919

       (4) In the case of a sale of a physical fitness facility 130920
service or recreation and sports club service, the price of which 130921
consists in whole or in part of a membership for the receipt of 130922
the benefit of the service, the tax applicable to the sale shall 130923
be measured by the installments thereof.130924

       (B) The tax does not apply to the following:130925

       (1) Sales to the state or any of its political subdivisions, 130926
or to any other state or its political subdivisions if the laws of 130927
that state exempt from taxation sales made to this state and its 130928
political subdivisions;130929

       (2) Sales of food for human consumption off the premises 130930
where sold;130931

       (3) Sales of food sold to students only in a cafeteria, 130932
dormitory, fraternity, or sorority maintained in a private, 130933
public, or parochial school, college, or university;130934

       (4) Sales of newspapers and of magazine subscriptions and 130935
sales or transfers of magazines distributed as controlled 130936
circulation publications;130937

       (5) The furnishing, preparing, or serving of meals without 130938
charge by an employer to an employee provided the employer records 130939
the meals as part compensation for services performed or work 130940
done;130941

       (6) Sales of motor fuel upon receipt, use, distribution, or 130942
sale of which in this state a tax is imposed by the law of this 130943
state, but this exemption shall not apply to the sale of motor 130944
fuel on which a refund of the tax is allowable under division (A) 130945
of section 5735.14 of the Revised Code; and the tax commissioner 130946
may deduct the amount of tax levied by this section applicable to 130947
the price of motor fuel when granting a refund of motor fuel tax 130948
pursuant to division (A) of section 5735.14 of the Revised Code 130949
and shall cause the amount deducted to be paid into the general 130950
revenue fund of this state;130951

       (7) Sales of natural gas by a natural gas company, of water 130952
by a water-works company, or of steam by a heating company, if in 130953
each case the thing sold is delivered to consumers through pipes 130954
or conduits, and all sales of communications services by a 130955
telegraph company, all terms as defined in section 5727.01 of the 130956
Revised Code, and sales of electricity delivered through wires;130957

       (8) Casual sales by a person, or auctioneer employed directly 130958
by the person to conduct such sales, except as to such sales of 130959
motor vehicles, watercraft or outboard motors required to be 130960
titled under section 1548.06 of the Revised Code, watercraft 130961
documented with the United States coast guard, snowmobiles, and 130962
all-purpose vehicles as defined in section 4519.01 of the Revised 130963
Code;130964

       (9)(a) Sales of services or tangible personal property, other 130965
than motor vehicles, mobile homes, and manufactured homes, by 130966
churches, organizations exempt from taxation under section 130967
501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, or nonprofit 130968
organizations operated exclusively for charitable purposes as 130969
defined in division (B)(12) of this section, provided that the 130970
number of days on which such tangible personal property or 130971
services, other than items never subject to the tax, are sold does 130972
not exceed six in any calendar year, except as otherwise provided 130973
in division (B)(9)(b) of this section. If the number of days on 130974
which such sales are made exceeds six in any calendar year, the 130975
church or organization shall be considered to be engaged in 130976
business and all subsequent sales by it shall be subject to the 130977
tax. In counting the number of days, all sales by groups within a 130978
church or within an organization shall be considered to be sales 130979
of that church or organization.130980

       (b) The limitation on the number of days on which tax-exempt 130981
sales may be made by a church or organization under division 130982
(B)(9)(a) of this section does not apply to sales made by student 130983
clubs and other groups of students of a primary or secondary 130984
school, or a parent-teacher association, booster group, or similar 130985
organization that raises money to support or fund curricular or 130986
extracurricular activities of a primary or secondary school.130987

       (c) Divisions (B)(9)(a) and (b) of this section do not apply 130988
to sales by a noncommercial educational radio or television 130989
broadcasting station.130990

       (10) Sales not within the taxing power of this state under 130991
the Constitution or laws of the United States or the Constitution 130992
of this state;130993

       (11) Except for transactions that are sales under division 130994
(B)(3)(r) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, the 130995
transportation of persons or property, unless the transportation 130996
is by a private investigation and security service;130997

       (12) Sales of tangible personal property or services to 130998
churches, to organizations exempt from taxation under section 130999
501(c)(3) of the Internal Revenue Code of 1986, and to any other 131000
nonprofit organizations operated exclusively for charitable 131001
purposes in this state, no part of the net income of which inures 131002
to the benefit of any private shareholder or individual, and no 131003
substantial part of the activities of which consists of carrying 131004
on propaganda or otherwise attempting to influence legislation; 131005
sales to offices administering one or more homes for the aged or 131006
one or more hospital facilities exempt under section 140.08 of the 131007
Revised Code; and sales to organizations described in division (D) 131008
of section 5709.12 of the Revised Code.131009

       "Charitable purposes" means the relief of poverty; the 131010
improvement of health through the alleviation of illness, disease, 131011
or injury; the operation of an organization exclusively for the 131012
provision of professional, laundry, printing, and purchasing 131013
services to hospitals or charitable institutions; the operation of 131014
a home for the aged, as defined in section 5701.13 of the Revised 131015
Code; the operation of a radio or television broadcasting station 131016
that is licensed by the federal communications commission as a 131017
noncommercial educational radio or television station; the 131018
operation of a nonprofit animal adoption service or a county 131019
humane society; the promotion of education by an institution of 131020
learning that maintains a faculty of qualified instructors, 131021
teaches regular continuous courses of study, and confers a 131022
recognized diploma upon completion of a specific curriculum; the 131023
operation of a parent-teacher association, booster group, or 131024
similar organization primarily engaged in the promotion and 131025
support of the curricular or extracurricular activities of a 131026
primary or secondary school; the operation of a community or area 131027
center in which presentations in music, dramatics, the arts, and 131028
related fields are made in order to foster public interest and 131029
education therein; the production of performances in music, 131030
dramatics, and the arts; or the promotion of education by an 131031
organization engaged in carrying on research in, or the 131032
dissemination of, scientific and technological knowledge and 131033
information primarily for the public.131034

       Nothing in this division shall be deemed to exempt sales to 131035
any organization for use in the operation or carrying on of a 131036
trade or business, or sales to a home for the aged for use in the 131037
operation of independent living facilities as defined in division 131038
(A) of section 5709.12 of the Revised Code.131039

       (13) Building and construction materials and services sold to 131040
construction contractors for incorporation into a structure or 131041
improvement to real property under a construction contract with 131042
this state or a political subdivision of this state, or with the 131043
United States government or any of its agencies; building and 131044
construction materials and services sold to construction 131045
contractors for incorporation into a structure or improvement to 131046
real property that are accepted for ownership by this state or any 131047
of its political subdivisions, or by the United States government 131048
or any of its agencies at the time of completion of the structures 131049
or improvements; building and construction materials sold to 131050
construction contractors for incorporation into a horticulture 131051
structure or livestock structure for a person engaged in the 131052
business of horticulture or producing livestock; building 131053
materials and services sold to a construction contractor for 131054
incorporation into a house of public worship or religious 131055
education, or a building used exclusively for charitable purposes 131056
under a construction contract with an organization whose purpose 131057
is as described in division (B)(12) of this section; building 131058
materials and services sold to a construction contractor for 131059
incorporation into a building under a construction contract with 131060
an organization exempt from taxation under section 501(c)(3) of 131061
the Internal Revenue Code of 1986 when the building is to be used 131062
exclusively for the organization's exempt purposes; building and 131063
construction materials sold for incorporation into the original 131064
construction of a sports facility under section 307.696 of the 131065
Revised Code; building and construction materials and services 131066
sold to a construction contractor for incorporation into real 131067
property outside this state if such materials and services, when 131068
sold to a construction contractor in the state in which the real 131069
property is located for incorporation into real property in that 131070
state, would be exempt from a tax on sales levied by that state; 131071
and, until one calendar year after the construction of a 131072
convention center that qualifies for property tax exemption under 131073
section 5709.084 of the Revised Code is completed, building and 131074
construction materials and services sold to a construction 131075
contractor for incorporation into the real property comprising 131076
that convention center;131077

       (14) Sales of ships or vessels or rail rolling stock used or 131078
to be used principally in interstate or foreign commerce, and 131079
repairs, alterations, fuel, and lubricants for such ships or 131080
vessels or rail rolling stock;131081

       (15) Sales to persons primarily engaged in any of the 131082
activities mentioned in division (B)(42)(a), (g), or (h) of this 131083
section, to persons engaged in making retail sales, or to persons 131084
who purchase for sale from a manufacturer tangible personal 131085
property that was produced by the manufacturer in accordance with 131086
specific designs provided by the purchaser, of packages, including 131087
material, labels, and parts for packages, and of machinery, 131088
equipment, and material for use primarily in packaging tangible 131089
personal property produced for sale, including any machinery, 131090
equipment, and supplies used to make labels or packages, to 131091
prepare packages or products for labeling, or to label packages or 131092
products, by or on the order of the person doing the packaging, or 131093
sold at retail. "Packages" includes bags, baskets, cartons, 131094
crates, boxes, cans, bottles, bindings, wrappings, and other 131095
similar devices and containers, but does not include motor 131096
vehicles or bulk tanks, trailers, or similar devices attached to 131097
motor vehicles. "Packaging" means placing in a package. Division 131098
(B)(15) of this section does not apply to persons engaged in 131099
highway transportation for hire.131100

       (16) Sales of food to persons using supplemental nutrition 131101
assistance program benefits to purchase the food. As used in this 131102
division, "food" has the same meaning as in 7 U.S.C. 2012 and 131103
federal regulations adopted pursuant to the Food and Nutrition Act 131104
of 2008.131105

       (17) Sales to persons engaged in farming, agriculture, 131106
horticulture, or floriculture, of tangible personal property for 131107
use or consumption primarily in the production by farming, 131108
agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture of other tangible 131109
personal property for use or consumption primarily in the 131110
production of tangible personal property for sale by farming, 131111
agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture; or material and parts 131112
for incorporation into any such tangible personal property for use 131113
or consumption in production; and of tangible personal property 131114
for such use or consumption in the conditioning or holding of 131115
products produced by and for such use, consumption, or sale by 131116
persons engaged in farming, agriculture, horticulture, or 131117
floriculture, except where such property is incorporated into real 131118
property;131119

       (18) Sales of drugs for a human being that may be dispensed 131120
only pursuant to a prescription; insulin as recognized in the 131121
official United States pharmacopoeia; urine and blood testing 131122
materials when used by diabetics or persons with hypoglycemia to 131123
test for glucose or acetone; hypodermic syringes and needles when 131124
used by diabetics for insulin injections; epoetin alfa when 131125
purchased for use in the treatment of persons with medical 131126
disease; hospital beds when purchased by hospitals, nursing homes, 131127
or other medical facilities; and medical oxygen and medical 131128
oxygen-dispensing equipment when purchased by hospitals, nursing 131129
homes, or other medical facilities;131130

       (19) Sales of prosthetic devices, durable medical equipment 131131
for home use, or mobility enhancing equipment, when made pursuant 131132
to a prescription and when such devices or equipment are for use 131133
by a human being.131134

       (20) Sales of emergency and fire protection vehicles and 131135
equipment to nonprofit organizations for use solely in providing 131136
fire protection and emergency services, including trauma care and 131137
emergency medical services, for political subdivisions of the 131138
state;131139

       (21) Sales of tangible personal property manufactured in this 131140
state, if sold by the manufacturer in this state to a retailer for 131141
use in the retail business of the retailer outside of this state 131142
and if possession is taken from the manufacturer by the purchaser 131143
within this state for the sole purpose of immediately removing the 131144
same from this state in a vehicle owned by the purchaser;131145

       (22) Sales of services provided by the state or any of its 131146
political subdivisions, agencies, instrumentalities, institutions, 131147
or authorities, or by governmental entities of the state or any of 131148
its political subdivisions, agencies, instrumentalities, 131149
institutions, or authorities;131150

       (23) Sales of motor vehicles to nonresidents of this state 131151
under the circumstances described in division (B) of section 131152
5739.029 of the Revised Code;131153

       (24) Sales to persons engaged in the preparation of eggs for 131154
sale of tangible personal property used or consumed directly in 131155
such preparation, including such tangible personal property used 131156
for cleaning, sanitizing, preserving, grading, sorting, and 131157
classifying by size; packages, including material and parts for 131158
packages, and machinery, equipment, and material for use in 131159
packaging eggs for sale; and handling and transportation equipment 131160
and parts therefor, except motor vehicles licensed to operate on 131161
public highways, used in intraplant or interplant transfers or 131162
shipment of eggs in the process of preparation for sale, when the 131163
plant or plants within or between which such transfers or 131164
shipments occur are operated by the same person. "Packages" 131165
includes containers, cases, baskets, flats, fillers, filler flats, 131166
cartons, closure materials, labels, and labeling materials, and 131167
"packaging" means placing therein.131168

       (25)(a) Sales of water to a consumer for residential use;131169

       (b) Sales of water by a nonprofit corporation engaged 131170
exclusively in the treatment, distribution, and sale of water to 131171
consumers, if such water is delivered to consumers through pipes 131172
or tubing.131173

       (26) Fees charged for inspection or reinspection of motor 131174
vehicles under section 3704.14 of the Revised Code;131175

       (27) Sales to persons licensed to conduct a food service 131176
operation pursuant to section 3717.43 of the Revised Code, of 131177
tangible personal property primarily used directly for the 131178
following:131179

       (a) To prepare food for human consumption for sale;131180

       (b) To preserve food that has been or will be prepared for 131181
human consumption for sale by the food service operator, not 131182
including tangible personal property used to display food for 131183
selection by the consumer;131184

       (c) To clean tangible personal property used to prepare or 131185
serve food for human consumption for sale.131186

       (28) Sales of animals by nonprofit animal adoption services 131187
or county humane societies;131188

       (29) Sales of services to a corporation described in division 131189
(A) of section 5709.72 of the Revised Code, and sales of tangible 131190
personal property that qualifies for exemption from taxation under 131191
section 5709.72 of the Revised Code;131192

       (30) Sales and installation of agricultural land tile, as 131193
defined in division (B)(5)(a) of section 5739.01 of the Revised 131194
Code;131195

       (31) Sales and erection or installation of portable grain 131196
bins, as defined in division (B)(5)(b) of section 5739.01 of the 131197
Revised Code;131198

       (32) The sale, lease, repair, and maintenance of, parts for, 131199
or items attached to or incorporated in, motor vehicles that are 131200
primarily used for transporting tangible personal property 131201
belonging to others by a person engaged in highway transportation 131202
for hire, except for packages and packaging used for the 131203
transportation of tangible personal property;131204

       (33) Sales to the state headquarters of any veterans' 131205
organization in this state that is either incorporated and issued 131206
a charter by the congress of the United States or is recognized by 131207
the United States veterans administration, for use by the 131208
headquarters;131209

       (34) Sales to a telecommunications service vendor, mobile 131210
telecommunications service vendor, or satellite broadcasting 131211
service vendor of tangible personal property and services used 131212
directly and primarily in transmitting, receiving, switching, or 131213
recording any interactive, one- or two-way electromagnetic 131214
communications, including voice, image, data, and information, 131215
through the use of any medium, including, but not limited to, 131216
poles, wires, cables, switching equipment, computers, and record 131217
storage devices and media, and component parts for the tangible 131218
personal property. The exemption provided in this division shall 131219
be in lieu of all other exemptions under division (B)(42)(a) or 131220
(n) of this section to which the vendor may otherwise be entitled, 131221
based upon the use of the thing purchased in providing the 131222
telecommunications, mobile telecommunications, or satellite 131223
broadcasting service.131224

       (35)(a) Sales where the purpose of the consumer is to use or 131225
consume the things transferred in making retail sales and 131226
consisting of newspaper inserts, catalogues, coupons, flyers, gift 131227
certificates, or other advertising material that prices and 131228
describes tangible personal property offered for retail sale.131229

       (b) Sales to direct marketing vendors of preliminary 131230
materials such as photographs, artwork, and typesetting that will 131231
be used in printing advertising material; and of printed matter 131232
that offers free merchandise or chances to win sweepstake prizes 131233
and that is mailed to potential customers with advertising 131234
material described in division (B)(35)(a) of this section;131235

       (c) Sales of equipment such as telephones, computers, 131236
facsimile machines, and similar tangible personal property 131237
primarily used to accept orders for direct marketing retail sales.131238

       (d) Sales of automatic food vending machines that preserve 131239
food with a shelf life of forty-five days or less by refrigeration 131240
and dispense it to the consumer.131241

       For purposes of division (B)(35) of this section, "direct 131242
marketing" means the method of selling where consumers order 131243
tangible personal property by United States mail, delivery 131244
service, or telecommunication and the vendor delivers or ships the 131245
tangible personal property sold to the consumer from a warehouse, 131246
catalogue distribution center, or similar fulfillment facility by 131247
means of the United States mail, delivery service, or common 131248
carrier.131249

       (36) Sales to a person engaged in the business of 131250
horticulture or producing livestock of materials to be 131251
incorporated into a horticulture structure or livestock structure;131252

       (37) Sales of personal computers, computer monitors, computer 131253
keyboards, modems, and other peripheral computer equipment to an 131254
individual who is licensed or certified to teach in an elementary 131255
or a secondary school in this state for use by that individual in 131256
preparation for teaching elementary or secondary school students;131257

       (38) Sales to a professional racing team of any of the 131258
following:131259

       (a) Motor racing vehicles;131260

       (b) Repair services for motor racing vehicles;131261

       (c) Items of property that are attached to or incorporated in 131262
motor racing vehicles, including engines, chassis, and all other 131263
components of the vehicles, and all spare, replacement, and 131264
rebuilt parts or components of the vehicles; except not including 131265
tires, consumable fluids, paint, and accessories consisting of 131266
instrumentation sensors and related items added to the vehicle to 131267
collect and transmit data by means of telemetry and other forms of 131268
communication.131269

       (39) Sales of used manufactured homes and used mobile homes, 131270
as defined in section 5739.0210 of the Revised Code, made on or 131271
after January 1, 2000;131272

       (40) Sales of tangible personal property and services to a 131273
provider of electricity used or consumed directly and primarily in 131274
generating, transmitting, or distributing electricity for use by 131275
others, including property that is or is to be incorporated into 131276
and will become a part of the consumer's production, transmission, 131277
or distribution system and that retains its classification as 131278
tangible personal property after incorporation; fuel or power used 131279
in the production, transmission, or distribution of electricity; 131280
energy conversion equipment as defined in section 5727.01 of the 131281
Revised Code; and tangible personal property and services used in 131282
the repair and maintenance of the production, transmission, or 131283
distribution system, including only those motor vehicles as are 131284
specially designed and equipped for such use. The exemption 131285
provided in this division shall be in lieu of all other exemptions 131286
in division (B)(42)(a) or (n) of this section to which a provider 131287
of electricity may otherwise be entitled based on the use of the 131288
tangible personal property or service purchased in generating, 131289
transmitting, or distributing electricity.131290

       (41) Sales to a person providing services under division 131291
(B)(3)(r) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code of tangible 131292
personal property and services used directly and primarily in 131293
providing taxable services under that section.131294

       (42) Sales where the purpose of the purchaser is to do any of 131295
the following:131296

       (a) To incorporate the thing transferred as a material or a 131297
part into tangible personal property to be produced for sale by 131298
manufacturing, assembling, processing, or refining; or to use or 131299
consume the thing transferred directly in producing tangible 131300
personal property for sale by mining, including, without 131301
limitation, the extraction from the earth of all substances that 131302
are classed geologically as minerals, production of crude oil and 131303
natural gas, or directly in the rendition of a public utility 131304
service, except that the sales tax levied by this section shall be 131305
collected upon all meals, drinks, and food for human consumption 131306
sold when transporting persons. Persons engaged in rendering 131307
services in the exploration for, and production of, crude oil and 131308
natural gas for others are deemed engaged directly in the 131309
exploration for, and production of, crude oil and natural gas. 131310
This paragraph does not exempt from "retail sale" or "sales at 131311
retail" the sale of tangible personal property that is to be 131312
incorporated into a structure or improvement to real property.131313

       (b) To hold the thing transferred as security for the 131314
performance of an obligation of the vendor;131315

       (c) To resell, hold, use, or consume the thing transferred as 131316
evidence of a contract of insurance;131317

       (d) To use or consume the thing directly in commercial 131318
fishing;131319

       (e) To incorporate the thing transferred as a material or a 131320
part into, or to use or consume the thing transferred directly in 131321
the production of, magazines distributed as controlled circulation 131322
publications;131323

       (f) To use or consume the thing transferred in the production 131324
and preparation in suitable condition for market and sale of 131325
printed, imprinted, overprinted, lithographic, multilithic, 131326
blueprinted, photostatic, or other productions or reproductions of 131327
written or graphic matter;131328

       (g) To use the thing transferred, as described in section 131329
5739.011 of the Revised Code, primarily in a manufacturing 131330
operation to produce tangible personal property for sale;131331

       (h) To use the benefit of a warranty, maintenance or service 131332
contract, or similar agreement, as described in division (B)(7) of 131333
section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, to repair or maintain 131334
tangible personal property, if all of the property that is the 131335
subject of the warranty, contract, or agreement would not be 131336
subject to the tax imposed by this section;131337

       (i) To use the thing transferred as qualified research and 131338
development equipment;131339

       (j) To use or consume the thing transferred primarily in 131340
storing, transporting, mailing, or otherwise handling purchased 131341
sales inventory in a warehouse, distribution center, or similar 131342
facility when the inventory is primarily distributed outside this 131343
state to retail stores of the person who owns or controls the 131344
warehouse, distribution center, or similar facility, to retail 131345
stores of an affiliated group of which that person is a member, or 131346
by means of direct marketing. This division does not apply to 131347
motor vehicles registered for operation on the public highways. As 131348
used in this division, "affiliated group" has the same meaning as 131349
in division (B)(3)(e) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code and 131350
"direct marketing" has the same meaning as in division (B)(35) of 131351
this section.131352

       (k) To use or consume the thing transferred to fulfill a 131353
contractual obligation incurred by a warrantor pursuant to a 131354
warranty provided as a part of the price of the tangible personal 131355
property sold or by a vendor of a warranty, maintenance or service 131356
contract, or similar agreement the provision of which is defined 131357
as a sale under division (B)(7) of section 5739.01 of the Revised 131358
Code;131359

       (l) To use or consume the thing transferred in the production 131360
of a newspaper for distribution to the public;131361

       (m) To use tangible personal property to perform a service 131362
listed in division (B)(3) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, 131363
if the property is or is to be permanently transferred to the 131364
consumer of the service as an integral part of the performance of 131365
the service;131366

       (n) To use or consume the thing transferred primarily in 131367
producing tangible personal property for sale by farming, 131368
agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture. Persons engaged in 131369
rendering farming, agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture 131370
services for others are deemed engaged primarily in farming, 131371
agriculture, horticulture, or floriculture. This paragraph does 131372
not exempt from "retail sale" or "sales at retail" the sale of 131373
tangible personal property that is to be incorporated into a 131374
structure or improvement to real property.131375

       (o) To use or consume the thing transferred in acquiring, 131376
formatting, editing, storing, and disseminating data or 131377
information by electronic publishing.131378

       As used in division (B)(42) of this section, "thing" includes 131379
all transactions included in divisions (B)(3)(a), (b), and (e) of 131380
section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.131381

       (43) Sales conducted through a coin operated device that 131382
activates vacuum equipment or equipment that dispenses water, 131383
whether or not in combination with soap or other cleaning agents 131384
or wax, to the consumer for the consumer's use on the premises in 131385
washing, cleaning, or waxing a motor vehicle, provided no other 131386
personal property or personal service is provided as part of the 131387
transaction.131388

       (44) Sales of replacement and modification parts for engines, 131389
airframes, instruments, and interiors in, and paint for, aircraft 131390
used primarily in a fractional aircraft ownership program, and 131391
sales of services for the repair, modification, and maintenance of 131392
such aircraft, and machinery, equipment, and supplies primarily 131393
used to provide those services.131394

       (45) Sales of telecommunications service that is used 131395
directly and primarily to perform the functions of a call center. 131396
As used in this division, "call center" means any physical 131397
location where telephone calls are placed or received in high 131398
volume for the purpose of making sales, marketing, customer 131399
service, technical support, or other specialized business 131400
activity, and that employs at least fifty individuals that engage 131401
in call center activities on a full-time basis, or sufficient 131402
individuals to fill fifty full-time equivalent positions.131403

        (46) Sales by a telecommunications service vendor of 900 131404
service to a subscriber. This division does not apply to 131405
information services, as defined in division (FF) of section 131406
5739.01 of the Revised Code.131407

        (47) Sales of value-added non-voice data service. This 131408
division does not apply to any similar service that is not 131409
otherwise a telecommunications service.131410

       (48)(a) Sales of machinery, equipment, and software to a 131411
qualified direct selling entity for use in a warehouse or 131412
distribution center primarily for storing, transporting, or 131413
otherwise handling inventory that is held for sale to independent 131414
salespersons who operate as direct sellers and that is held 131415
primarily for distribution outside this state;131416

       (b) As used in division (B)(48)(a) of this section:131417

       (i) "Direct seller" means a person selling consumer products 131418
to individuals for personal or household use and not from a fixed 131419
retail location, including selling such product at in-home product 131420
demonstrations, parties, and other one-on-one selling.131421

       (ii) "Qualified direct selling entity" means an entity 131422
selling to direct sellers at the time the entity enters into a tax 131423
credit agreement with the tax credit authority pursuant to section 131424
122.17 of the Revised Code, provided that the agreement was 131425
entered into on or after January 1, 2007. Neither contingencies 131426
relevant to the granting of, nor later developments with respect 131427
to, the tax credit shall impair the status of the qualified direct 131428
selling entity under division (B)(48) of this section after 131429
execution of the tax credit agreement by the tax credit authority.131430

       (c) Division (B)(48) of this section is limited to machinery, 131431
equipment, and software first stored, used, or consumed in this 131432
state within the period commencing June 24, 2008, and ending on 131433
the date that is five years after that date.131434

       (49)(a) Sales of materials, parts, equipment, or engines used 131435
in the repair or maintenance of aircraft or avionics systems of 131436
such aircraft, and sales of repair, remodeling, replacement, or 131437
maintenance services in this state performed on aircraft or on an 131438
aircraft's avionics, engine, or component materials or parts. As 131439
used in division (B)(49)(a) of this section, "aircraft" means 131440
aircraft of more than six thousand pounds maximum certified 131441
takeoff weight or used exclusively in general aviation.131442

       (b) Sales of tangible personal property, including materials, 131443
parts, equipment, software, supplies, tools, fuel, catalysts, oil, 131444
acids, and other consumables, or services used or consumed in 131445
performing research and development activities with respect to 131446
aerospace vehicles, the parts, avionics systems, control systems, 131447
engines, software, component materials, or component parts of such 131448
aerospace vehicles, and human performance equipment and technology 131449
associated with operating and testing aerospace vehicles. As used 131450
in division (B)(49)(b) of this section, "aerospace vehicles" means 131451
any manned or unmanned aviation device including, but not limited 131452
to, aircraft, airplanes, helicopters, missiles, rockets, and space 131453
vehicles.131454

       (50) Sales of full flight simulators that are used for pilot 131455
or flight-crew training, sales of repair or replacement parts or 131456
components, and sales of repair or maintenance services for such 131457
full flight simulators. "Full flight simulator" means a replica of 131458
a specific type, or make, model, and series of aircraft cockpit. 131459
It includes the assemblage of equipment and computer programs 131460
necessary to represent aircraft operations in ground and flight 131461
conditions, a visual system providing an out-of-the-cockpit view, 131462
and a system that provides cues at least equivalent to those of a 131463
three-degree-of-freedom motion system, and has the full range of 131464
capabilities of the systems installed in the device as described 131465
in appendices A and B of part 60 of chapter 1 of title 14 of the 131466
Code of Federal Regulations.131467

       (51) Any transfer or lease of tangible personal property 131468
between the state and a successful proposer in accordance with 131469
sections 126.60 to 126.605 of the Revised Code, provided the 131470
property is part of a project as defined in section 126.60 of the 131471
Revised Code and the state retains ownership of the project or 131472
part thereof that is being transferred or leased, between the 131473
state and JobsOhio in accordance with section 4313.02 of the 131474
Revised Code.131475

       (52)(a) Sales to a qualifying corporation. 131476

       (b) As used in division (B)(52) of this section: 131477

       (i) "Qualifying corporation" means a nonprofit corporation 131478
organized in this state that leases from an eligible county land, 131479
buildings, structures, fixtures, and improvements to the land that 131480
are part of or used in a public recreational facility used by a 131481
major league professional athletic team or a class A to class AAA 131482
minor league affiliate of a major league professional athletic 131483
team for a significant portion of the team's home schedule, 131484
provided the following apply: 131485

       (I) The facility is leased from the eligible county pursuant 131486
to a lease that requires substantially all of the revenue from the 131487
operation of the business or activity conducted by the nonprofit 131488
corporation at the facility in excess of operating costs, capital 131489
expenditures, and reserves to be paid to the eligible county at 131490
least once per calendar year. 131491

       (II) Upon dissolution and liquidation of the nonprofit 131492
corporation, all of its net assets are distributable to the board 131493
of commissioners of the eligible county from which the corporation 131494
leases the facility. 131495

       (ii) "Eligible county" has the same meaning as in section 131496
307.695 of the Revised Code.131497

       (C) For the purpose of the proper administration of this 131498
chapter, and to prevent the evasion of the tax, it is presumed 131499
that all sales made in this state are subject to the tax until the 131500
contrary is established.131501

       (D) The levy of this tax on retail sales of recreation and 131502
sports club service shall not prevent a municipal corporation from 131503
levying any tax on recreation and sports club dues or on any 131504
income generated by recreation and sports club dues.131505

       (E) The tax collected by the vendor from the consumer under 131506
this chapter is not part of the price, but is a tax collection for 131507
the benefit of the state, and of counties levying an additional 131508
sales tax pursuant to section 5739.021 or 5739.026 of the Revised 131509
Code and of transit authorities levying an additional sales tax 131510
pursuant to section 5739.023 of the Revised Code. Except for the 131511
discount authorized under section 5739.12 of the Revised Code and 131512
the effects of any rounding pursuant to section 5703.055 of the 131513
Revised Code, no person other than the state or such a county or 131514
transit authority shall derive any benefit from the collection or 131515
payment of the tax levied by this section or section 5739.021, 131516
5739.023, or 5739.026 of the Revised Code.131517

       Sec. 5739.026.  (A) A board of county commissioners may levy 131518
a tax of one-fourth or one-half of one per cent on every retail 131519
sale in the county, except sales of watercraft and outboard motors 131520
required to be titled pursuant to Chapter 1548. of the Revised 131521
Code and sales of motor vehicles, and may increase an existing 131522
rate of one-fourth of one per cent to one-half of one per cent, to 131523
pay the expenses of administering the tax and, except as provided 131524
in division (A)(6) of this section, for any one or more of the 131525
following purposes provided that the aggregate levy for all such 131526
purposes does not exceed one-half of one per cent:131527

       (1) To provide additional revenues for the payment of bonds 131528
or notes issued in anticipation of bonds issued by a convention 131529
facilities authority established by the board of county 131530
commissioners under Chapter 351. of the Revised Code and to 131531
provide additional operating revenues for the convention 131532
facilities authority;131533

       (2) To provide additional revenues for a transit authority 131534
operating in the county;131535

       (3) To provide additional revenue for the county's general 131536
fund;131537

       (4) To provide additional revenue for permanent improvements 131538
within the county to be distributed by the community improvements 131539
board in accordance with section 307.283 and to pay principal, 131540
interest, and premium on bonds issued under section 307.284 of the 131541
Revised Code;131542

       (5) To provide additional revenue for the acquisition, 131543
construction, equipping, or repair of any specific permanent 131544
improvement or any class or group of permanent improvements, which 131545
improvement or class or group of improvements shall be enumerated 131546
in the resolution required by division (D) of this section, and to 131547
pay principal, interest, premium, and other costs associated with 131548
the issuance of bonds or notes in anticipation of bonds issued 131549
pursuant to Chapter 133. of the Revised Code for the acquisition, 131550
construction, equipping, or repair of the specific permanent 131551
improvement or class or group of permanent improvements;131552

       (6) To provide revenue for the implementation and operation 131553
of a 9-1-1 system in the county. If the tax is levied or the rate 131554
increased exclusively for such purpose, the tax shall not be 131555
levied or the rate increased for more than five years. At the end 131556
of the last year the tax is levied or the rate increased, any 131557
balance remaining in the special fund established for such purpose 131558
shall remain in that fund and be used exclusively for such purpose 131559
until the fund is completely expended, and, notwithstanding 131560
section 5705.16 of the Revised Code, the board of county 131561
commissioners shall not petition for the transfer of money from 131562
such special fund, and the tax commissioner shall not approve such 131563
a petition.131564

       If the tax is levied or the rate increased for such purpose 131565
for more than five years, the board of county commissioners also 131566
shall levy the tax or increase the rate of the tax for one or more 131567
of the purposes described in divisions (A)(1) to (5) of this 131568
section and shall prescribe the method for allocating the revenues 131569
from the tax each year in the manner required by division (C) of 131570
this section.131571

       (7) To provide additional revenue for the operation or 131572
maintenance of a detention facility, as that term is defined under 131573
division (F) of section 2921.01 of the Revised Code;131574

       (8) To provide revenue to finance the construction or 131575
renovation of a sports facility, but only if the tax is levied for 131576
that purpose in the manner prescribed by section 5739.028 of the 131577
Revised Code.131578

       As used in division (A)(8) of this section:131579

       (a) "Sports facility" means a facility intended to house 131580
major league professional athletic teams.131581

       (b) "Constructing" or "construction" includes providing 131582
fixtures, furnishings, and equipment.131583

       (9) To provide additional revenue for the acquisition of 131584
agricultural easements, as defined in section 5301.67 of the 131585
Revised Code; to pay principal, interest, and premium on bonds 131586
issued under section 133.60 of the Revised Code; and for the 131587
supervision and enforcement of agricultural easements held by the 131588
county;131589

       (10) To provide revenue for the provision of ambulance, 131590
paramedic, or other emergency medical services;131591

       (11) To provide revenue for the operation of a lake 131592
facilities authority and the remediation of an impacted watershed 131593
by a lake facilities authority, as provided in Chapter 353. of the 131594
Revised Code.131595

       Pursuant to section 755.171 of the Revised Code, a board of 131596
county commissioners may pledge and contribute revenue from a tax 131597
levied for the purpose of division (A)(5) of this section to the 131598
payment of debt charges on bonds issued under section 755.17 of 131599
the Revised Code.131600

       The rate of tax shall be a multiple of one-fourth of one per 131601
cent, unless a portion of the rate of an existing tax levied under 131602
section 5739.023 of the Revised Code has been reduced, and the 131603
rate of tax levied under this section has been increased, pursuant 131604
to section 5739.028 of the Revised Code, in which case the 131605
aggregate of the rates of tax levied under this section and 131606
section 5739.023 of the Revised Code shall be a multiple of 131607
one-fourth of one per cent. The tax shall be levied and the rate 131608
increased pursuant to a resolution adopted by a majority of the 131609
members of the board. The board shall deliver a certified copy of 131610
the resolution to the tax commissioner, not later than the 131611
sixty-fifth day prior to the date on which the tax is to become 131612
effective, which shall be the first day of a calendar quarter.131613

       Prior to the adoption of any resolution to levy the tax or to 131614
increase the rate of tax exclusively for the purpose set forth in 131615
division (A)(3) of this section, the board of county commissioners 131616
shall conduct two public hearings on the resolution, the second 131617
hearing to be no fewer than three nor more than ten days after the 131618
first. Notice of the date, time, and place of the hearings shall 131619
be given by publication in a newspaper of general circulation in 131620
the county, or as provided in section 7.16 of the Revised Code, 131621
once a week on the same day of the week for two consecutive weeks. 131622
The second publication shall be no fewer than ten nor more than 131623
thirty days prior to the first hearing. Except as provided in 131624
division (E) of this section, the resolution shall be subject to a 131625
referendum as provided in sections 305.31 to 305.41 of the Revised 131626
Code. If the resolution is adopted as an emergency measure 131627
necessary for the immediate preservation of the public peace, 131628
health, or safety, it must receive an affirmative vote of all of 131629
the members of the board of county commissioners and shall state 131630
the reasons for the necessity.131631

       If the tax is for more than one of the purposes set forth in 131632
divisions (A)(1) to (7), (9), and (10) of this section, or is 131633
exclusively for one of the purposes set forth in division (A)(1), 131634
(2), (4), (5), (6), (7), (9), or (10) of this section, the 131635
resolution shall not go into effect unless it is approved by a 131636
majority of the electors voting on the question of the tax.131637

       (B) The board of county commissioners shall adopt a 131638
resolution under section 351.02 of the Revised Code creating the 131639
convention facilities authority, or under section 307.283 of the 131640
Revised Code creating the community improvements board, before 131641
adopting a resolution levying a tax for the purpose of a 131642
convention facilities authority under division (A)(1) of this 131643
section or for the purpose of a community improvements board under 131644
division (A)(4) of this section.131645

       (C)(1) If the tax is to be used for more than one of the 131646
purposes set forth in divisions (A)(1) to (7), (9), and (10) of 131647
this section, the board of county commissioners shall establish 131648
the method that will be used to determine the amount or proportion 131649
of the tax revenue received by the county during each year that 131650
will be distributed for each of those purposes, including, if 131651
applicable, provisions governing the reallocation of a convention 131652
facilities authority's allocation if the authority is dissolved 131653
while the tax is in effect. The allocation method may provide that 131654
different proportions or amounts of the tax shall be distributed 131655
among the purposes in different years, but it shall clearly 131656
describe the method that will be used for each year. Except as 131657
otherwise provided in division (C)(2) of this section, the 131658
allocation method established by the board is not subject to 131659
amendment during the life of the tax.131660

       (2) Subsequent to holding a public hearing on the proposed 131661
amendment, the board of county commissioners may amend the 131662
allocation method established under division (C)(1) of this 131663
section for any year, if the amendment is approved by the 131664
governing board of each entity whose allocation for the year would 131665
be reduced by the proposed amendment. In the case of a tax that is 131666
levied for a continuing period of time, the board may not so amend 131667
the allocation method for any year before the sixth year that the 131668
tax is in effect.131669

       (a) If the additional revenues provided to the convention 131670
facilities authority are pledged by the authority for the payment 131671
of convention facilities authority revenue bonds for as long as 131672
such bonds are outstanding, no reduction of the authority's 131673
allocation of the tax shall be made for any year except to the 131674
extent that the reduced authority allocation, when combined with 131675
the authority's other revenues pledged for that purpose, is 131676
sufficient to meet the debt service requirements for that year on 131677
such bonds.131678

       (b) If the additional revenues provided to the county are 131679
pledged by the county for the payment of bonds or notes described 131680
in division (A)(4) or (5) of this section, for as long as such 131681
bonds or notes are outstanding, no reduction of the county's or 131682
the community improvements board's allocation of the tax shall be 131683
made for any year, except to the extent that the reduced county or 131684
community improvements board allocation is sufficient to meet the 131685
debt service requirements for that year on such bonds or notes.131686

       (c) If the additional revenues provided to the transit 131687
authority are pledged by the authority for the payment of revenue 131688
bonds issued under section 306.37 of the Revised Code, for as long 131689
as such bonds are outstanding, no reduction of the authority's 131690
allocation of tax shall be made for any year, except to the extent 131691
that the authority's reduced allocation, when combined with the 131692
authority's other revenues pledged for that purpose, is sufficient 131693
to meet the debt service requirements for that year on such bonds.131694

       (d) If the additional revenues provided to the county are 131695
pledged by the county for the payment of bonds or notes issued 131696
under section 133.60 of the Revised Code, for so long as the bonds 131697
or notes are outstanding, no reduction of the county's allocation 131698
of the tax shall be made for any year, except to the extent that 131699
the reduced county allocation is sufficient to meet the debt 131700
service requirements for that year on the bonds or notes.131701

       (D)(1) The resolution levying the tax or increasing the rate 131702
of tax shall state the rate of the tax or the rate of the 131703
increase; the purpose or purposes for which it is to be levied; 131704
the number of years for which it is to be levied or that it is for 131705
a continuing period of time; the allocation method required by 131706
division (C) of this section; and if required to be submitted to 131707
the electors of the county under division (A) of this section, the 131708
date of the election at which the proposal shall be submitted to 131709
the electors of the county, which shall be not less than ninety 131710
days after the certification of a copy of the resolution to the 131711
board of elections and, if the tax is to be levied exclusively for 131712
the purpose set forth in division (A)(3) of this section, shall 131713
not occur in February or August of any year. Upon certification of 131714
the resolution to the board of elections, the board of county 131715
commissioners shall notify the tax commissioner in writing of the 131716
levy question to be submitted to the electors. If approved by a 131717
majority of the electors, the tax shall become effective on the 131718
first day of a calendar quarter next following the sixty-fifth day 131719
following the date the board of county commissioners and tax 131720
commissioner receive from the board of elections the certification 131721
of the results of the election, except as provided in division (E) 131722
of this section.131723

       (2)(a) A resolution specifying that the tax is to be used 131724
exclusively for the purpose set forth in division (A)(3) of this 131725
section that is not adopted as an emergency measure may direct the 131726
board of elections to submit the question of levying the tax or 131727
increasing the rate of the tax to the electors of the county at a 131728
special election held on the date specified by the board of county 131729
commissioners in the resolution, provided that the election occurs 131730
not less than ninety days after the resolution is certified to the 131731
board of elections and the election is not held in February or 131732
August of any year. Upon certification of the resolution to the 131733
board of elections, the board of county commissioners shall notify 131734
the tax commissioner in writing of the levy question to be 131735
submitted to the electors. No resolution adopted under division 131736
(D)(2)(a) of this section shall go into effect unless approved by 131737
a majority of those voting upon it and, except as provided in 131738
division (E) of this section, not until the first day of a 131739
calendar quarter following the expiration of sixty-five days from 131740
the date the tax commissioner receives notice from the board of 131741
elections of the affirmative vote.131742

       (b) A resolution specifying that the tax is to be used 131743
exclusively for the purpose set forth in division (A)(3) of this 131744
section that is adopted as an emergency measure shall become 131745
effective as provided in division (A) of this section, but may 131746
direct the board of elections to submit the question of repealing 131747
the tax or increase in the rate of the tax to the electors of the 131748
county at the next general election in the county occurring not 131749
less than ninety days after the resolution is certified to the 131750
board of elections. Upon certification of the resolution to the 131751
board of elections, the board of county commissioners shall notify 131752
the tax commissioner in writing of the levy question to be 131753
submitted to the electors. The ballot question shall be the same 131754
as that prescribed in section 5739.022 of the Revised Code. The 131755
board of elections shall notify the board of county commissioners 131756
and the tax commissioner of the result of the election immediately 131757
after the result has been declared. If a majority of the qualified 131758
electors voting on the question of repealing the tax or increase 131759
in the rate of the tax vote for repeal of the tax or repeal of the 131760
increase, the board of county commissioners, on the first day of a 131761
calendar quarter following the expiration of sixty-five days after 131762
the date the board and tax commissioner received notice of the 131763
result of the election, shall, in the case of a repeal of the tax, 131764
cease to levy the tax, or, in the case of a repeal of an increase 131765
in the rate of the tax, cease to levy the increased rate and levy 131766
the tax at the rate at which it was imposed immediately prior to 131767
the increase in rate.131768

       (c) A board of county commissioners, by resolution, may 131769
reduce the rate of a tax levied exclusively for the purpose set 131770
forth in division (A)(3) of this section to a lower rate 131771
authorized by this section. Any such reduction shall be made 131772
effective on the first day of the calendar quarter next following 131773
the sixty-fifth day after the tax commissioner receives a 131774
certified copy of the resolution from the board.131775

       (E) If a vendor makes a sale in this state by printed catalog 131776
and the consumer computed the tax on the sale based on local rates 131777
published in the catalog, any tax levied or repealed or rate 131778
changed under this section shall not apply to such a sale until 131779
the first day of a calendar quarter following the expiration of 131780
one hundred twenty days from the date of notice by the tax 131781
commissioner pursuant to division (G) of this section.131782

       (F) The tax levied pursuant to this section shall be in 131783
addition to the tax levied by section 5739.02 of the Revised Code 131784
and any tax levied pursuant to section 5739.021 or 5739.023 of the 131785
Revised Code.131786

       A county that levies a tax pursuant to this section shall 131787
levy a tax at the same rate pursuant to section 5741.023 of the 131788
Revised Code.131789

       The additional tax levied by the county shall be collected 131790
pursuant to section 5739.025 of the Revised Code.131791

       Any tax levied pursuant to this section is subject to the 131792
exemptions provided in section 5739.02 of the Revised Code and in 131793
addition shall not be applicable to sales not within the taxing 131794
power of a county under the Constitution of the United States or 131795
the Ohio Constitution.131796

       (G) Upon receipt from a board of county commissioners of a 131797
certified copy of a resolution required by division (A) of this 131798
section, or from the board of elections a notice of the results of 131799
an election required by division (D)(1), (2)(a), (b), or (c) of 131800
this section, the tax commissioner shall provide notice of a tax 131801
rate change in a manner that is reasonably accessible to all 131802
affected vendors. The commissioner shall provide this notice at 131803
least sixty days prior to the effective date of the rate change. 131804
The commissioner, by rule, may establish the method by which 131805
notice will be provided.131806

       Sec. 5739.09.  (A)(1) A board of county commissioners may, by 131807
resolution adopted by a majority of the members of the board, levy 131808
an excise tax not to exceed three per cent on transactions by 131809
which lodging by a hotel is or is to be furnished to transient 131810
guests. The board shall establish all regulations necessary to 131811
provide for the administration and allocation of the tax. The 131812
regulations may prescribe the time for payment of the tax, and may 131813
provide for the imposition of a penalty or interest, or both, for 131814
late payments, provided that the penalty does not exceed ten per 131815
cent of the amount of tax due, and the rate at which interest 131816
accrues does not exceed the rate per annum prescribed pursuant to 131817
section 5703.47 of the Revised Code. Except as provided in 131818
divisions (A)(2), (3), (4), (5), (6), and (7) of this section, the 131819
regulations shall provide, after deducting the real and actual 131820
costs of administering the tax, for the return to each municipal 131821
corporation or township that does not levy an excise tax on the 131822
transactions, a uniform percentage of the tax collected in the 131823
municipal corporation or in the unincorporated portion of the 131824
township from each transaction, not to exceed thirty-three and 131825
one-third per cent. The remainder of the revenue arising from the 131826
tax shall be deposited in a separate fund and shall be spent 131827
solely to make contributions to the convention and visitors' 131828
bureau operating within the county, including a pledge and 131829
contribution of any portion of the remainder pursuant to an 131830
agreement authorized by section 307.695 of the Revised Code, 131831
provided that if the board of county commissioners of an eligible 131832
county as defined in section 307.695 of the Revised Code adopts a 131833
resolution amending a resolution levying a tax under this division 131834
to provide that the revenue from the tax shall be used by the 131835
board as described in division (H) of section 307.695 of the 131836
Revised Code, the remainder of the revenue shall be used as 131837
described in the resolution making that amendment. Except as 131838
provided in division (A)(2), (3), (4), (5), (6), or (7) or (H) of 131839
this section, on and after May 10, 1994, a board of county 131840
commissioners may not levy an excise tax pursuant to this division 131841
in any municipal corporation or township located wholly or partly 131842
within the county that has in effect an ordinance or resolution 131843
levying an excise tax pursuant to division (B) of this section. 131844
The board of a county that has levied a tax under division (C) of 131845
this section may, by resolution adopted within ninety days after 131846
July 15, 1985, by a majority of the members of the board, amend 131847
the resolution levying a tax under this division to provide for a 131848
portion of that tax to be pledged and contributed in accordance 131849
with an agreement entered into under section 307.695 of the 131850
Revised Code. A tax, any revenue from which is pledged pursuant to 131851
such an agreement, shall remain in effect at the rate at which it 131852
is imposed for the duration of the period for which the revenue 131853
from the tax has been so pledged.131854

       The board of county commissioners of an eligible county as 131855
defined in section 307.695 of the Revised Code may, by resolution 131856
adopted by a majority of the members of the board, amend a 131857
resolution levying a tax under this division to provide that the 131858
revenue from the tax shall be used by the board as described in 131859
division (H) of section 307.695 of the Revised Code, in which case 131860
the tax shall remain in effect at the rate at which it was imposed 131861
for the duration of any agreement entered into by the board under 131862
section 307.695 of the Revised Code, the duration during which any 131863
securities issued by the board under that section are outstanding, 131864
or the duration of the period during which the board owns a 131865
project as defined in section 307.695 of the Revised Code, 131866
whichever duration is longest.131867

       (2) A board of county commissioners that levies an excise tax 131868
under division (A)(1) of this section on June 30, 1997, at a rate 131869
of three per cent, and that has pledged revenue from the tax to an 131870
agreement entered into under section 307.695 of the Revised Code 131871
or, in the case of the board of county commissioners of an 131872
eligible county as defined in section 307.695 of the Revised Code, 131873
has amended a resolution levying a tax under division (C) of this 131874
section to provide that proceeds from the tax shall be used by the 131875
board as described in division (H) of section 307.695 of the 131876
Revised Code, may, at any time by a resolution adopted by a 131877
majority of the members of the board, amend the resolution levying 131878
a tax under division (A)(1) of this section to provide for an 131879
increase in the rate of that tax up to seven per cent on each 131880
transaction; to provide that revenue from the increase in the rate 131881
shall be used as described in division (H) of section 307.695 of 131882
the Revised Code or be spent solely to make contributions to the 131883
convention and visitors' bureau operating within the county to be 131884
used specifically for promotion, advertising, and marketing of the 131885
region in which the county is located; and to provide that the 131886
rate in excess of the three per cent levied under division (A)(1) 131887
of this section shall remain in effect at the rate at which it is 131888
imposed for the duration of the period during which any agreement 131889
is in effect that was entered into under section 307.695 of the 131890
Revised Code by the board of county commissioners levying a tax 131891
under division (A)(1) of this section, the duration of the period 131892
during which any securities issued by the board under division (I) 131893
of section 307.695 of the Revised Code are outstanding, or the 131894
duration of the period during which the board owns a project as 131895
defined in section 307.695 of the Revised Code, whichever duration 131896
is longest. The amendment also shall provide that no portion of 131897
that revenue need be returned to townships or municipal 131898
corporations as would otherwise be required under division (A)(1) 131899
of this section.131900

       (3) A board of county commissioners that levies a tax under 131901
division (A)(1) of this section on March 18, 1999, at a rate of 131902
three per cent may, by resolution adopted not later than 131903
forty-five days after March 18, 1999, amend the resolution levying 131904
the tax to provide for all of the following:131905

       (a) That the rate of the tax shall be increased by not more 131906
than an additional four per cent on each transaction;131907

       (b) That all of the revenue from the increase in the rate 131908
shall be pledged and contributed to a convention facilities 131909
authority established by the board of county commissioners under 131910
Chapter 351. of the Revised Code on or before November 15, 1998, 131911
and used to pay costs of constructing, maintaining, operating, and 131912
promoting a facility in the county, including paying bonds, or 131913
notes issued in anticipation of bonds, as provided by that 131914
chapter;131915

       (c) That no portion of the revenue arising from the increase 131916
in rate need be returned to municipal corporations or townships as 131917
otherwise required under division (A)(1) of this section;131918

       (d) That the increase in rate shall not be subject to 131919
diminution by initiative or referendum or by law while any bonds, 131920
or notes in anticipation of bonds, issued by the authority under 131921
Chapter 351. of the Revised Code to which the revenue is pledged, 131922
remain outstanding in accordance with their terms, unless 131923
provision is made by law or by the board of county commissioners 131924
for an adequate substitute therefor that is satisfactory to the 131925
trustee if a trust agreement secures the bonds.131926

       Division (A)(3) of this section does not apply to the board 131927
of county commissioners of any county in which a convention center 131928
or facility exists or is being constructed on November 15, 1998, 131929
or of any county in which a convention facilities authority levies 131930
a tax pursuant to section 351.021 of the Revised Code on that 131931
date.131932

       As used in division (A)(3) of this section, "cost" and 131933
"facility" have the same meanings as in section 351.01 of the 131934
Revised Code, and "convention center" has the same meaning as in 131935
section 307.695 of the Revised Code.131936

       (4)(a) A board of county commissioners that levies a tax 131937
under division (A)(1) of this section on June 30, 2002, at a rate 131938
of three per cent may, by resolution adopted not later than 131939
September 30, 2002, amend the resolution levying the tax to 131940
provide for all of the following:131941

       (i) That the rate of the tax shall be increased by not more 131942
than an additional three and one-half per cent on each 131943
transaction;131944

       (ii) That all of the revenue from the increase in rate shall 131945
be pledged and contributed to a convention facilities authority 131946
established by the board of county commissioners under Chapter 131947
351. of the Revised Code on or before May 15, 2002, and be used to 131948
pay costs of constructing, expanding, maintaining, operating, or 131949
promoting a convention center in the county, including paying 131950
bonds, or notes issued in anticipation of bonds, as provided by 131951
that chapter;131952

       (iii) That no portion of the revenue arising from the 131953
increase in rate need be returned to municipal corporations or 131954
townships as otherwise required under division (A)(1) of this 131955
section;131956

       (iv) That the increase in rate shall not be subject to 131957
diminution by initiative or referendum or by law while any bonds, 131958
or notes in anticipation of bonds, issued by the authority under 131959
Chapter 351. of the Revised Code to which the revenue is pledged, 131960
remain outstanding in accordance with their terms, unless 131961
provision is made by law or by the board of county commissioners 131962
for an adequate substitute therefor that is satisfactory to the 131963
trustee if a trust agreement secures the bonds.131964

       (b) Any board of county commissioners that, pursuant to 131965
division (A)(4)(a) of this section, has amended a resolution 131966
levying the tax authorized by division (A)(1) of this section may 131967
further amend the resolution to provide that the revenue referred 131968
to in division (A)(4)(a)(ii) of this section shall be pledged and 131969
contributed both to a convention facilities authority to pay the 131970
costs of constructing, expanding, maintaining, or operating one or 131971
more convention centers in the county, including paying bonds, or 131972
notes issued in anticipation of bonds, as provided in Chapter 351. 131973
of the Revised Code, and to a convention and visitors' bureau to 131974
pay the costs of promoting one or more convention centers in the 131975
county.131976

       As used in division (A)(4) of this section, "cost" has the 131977
same meaning as in section 351.01 of the Revised Code, and 131978
"convention center" has the same meaning as in section 307.695 of 131979
the Revised Code.131980

       (5)(a) As used in division (A)(5) of this section:131981

        (i) "Port authority" means a port authority created under 131982
Chapter 4582. of the Revised Code.131983

        (ii) "Port authority military-use facility" means port 131984
authority facilities on which or adjacent to which is located an 131985
installation of the armed forces of the United States, a reserve 131986
component thereof, or the national guard and at least part of 131987
which is made available for use, for consideration, by the armed 131988
forces of the United States, a reserve component thereof, or the 131989
national guard.131990

        (b) For the purpose of contributing revenue to pay operating 131991
expenses of a port authority that operates a port authority 131992
military-use facility, the board of county commissioners of a 131993
county that created, participated in the creation of, or has 131994
joined such a port authority may do one or both of the following:131995

        (i) Amend a resolution previously adopted under division 131996
(A)(1) of this section to designate some or all of the revenue 131997
from the tax levied under the resolution to be used for that 131998
purpose, notwithstanding that division;131999

       (ii) Amend a resolution previously adopted under division 132000
(A)(1) of this section to increase the rate of the tax by not more 132001
than an additional two per cent and use the revenue from the 132002
increase exclusively for that purpose.132003

        (c) If a board of county commissioners amends a resolution to 132004
increase the rate of a tax as authorized in division (A)(5)(b)(ii) 132005
of this section, the board also may amend the resolution to 132006
specify that the increase in rate of the tax does not apply to 132007
"hotels," as otherwise defined in section 5739.01 of the Revised 132008
Code, having fewer rooms used for the accommodation of guests than 132009
a number of rooms specified by the board.132010

       (6) A board of county commissioners of a county organized 132011
under a county charter adopted pursuant to Article X, Section 3, 132012
Ohio Constitution, and that levies an excise tax under division 132013
(A)(1) of this section at a rate of three per cent and levies an 132014
additional excise tax under division (E) of this section at a rate 132015
of one and one-half per cent may, by resolution adopted not later 132016
than January 1, 2008, by a majority of the members of the board, 132017
amend the resolution levying a tax under division (A)(1) of this 132018
section to provide for an increase in the rate of that tax by not 132019
more than an additional one per cent on transactions by which 132020
lodging by a hotel is or is to be furnished to transient guests. 132021
Notwithstanding divisions (A)(1) and (E) of this section, the 132022
resolution shall provide that all of the revenue from the increase 132023
in rate, after deducting the real and actual costs of 132024
administering the tax, shall be used to pay the costs of 132025
improving, expanding, equipping, financing, or operating a 132026
convention center by a convention and visitors' bureau in the 132027
county. The increase in rate shall remain in effect for the period 132028
specified in the resolution, not to exceed ten years. The increase 132029
in rate shall be subject to the regulations adopted under division 132030
(A)(1) of this section, except that the resolution may provide 132031
that no portion of the revenue from the increase in the rate shall 132032
be returned to townships or municipal corporations as would 132033
otherwise be required under that division.132034

       (7) Division (A)(7) of this section applies only to a county 132035
with a population greater than sixty-five thousand and less than 132036
seventy thousand according to the most recent federal decennial 132037
census and in which, on December 31, 2006, an excise tax is levied 132038
under division (A)(1) of this section at a rate not less than and 132039
not greater than three per cent, and in which the most recent 132040
increase in the rate of that tax was enacted or took effect in 132041
November 1984.132042

       The board of county commissioners of a county to which this 132043
division applies, by resolution adopted by a majority of the 132044
members of the board, may increase the rate of the tax by not more 132045
than one per cent on transactions by which lodging by a hotel is 132046
or is to be furnished to transient guests. The increase in rate 132047
shall be for the purpose of paying expenses deemed necessary by 132048
the convention and visitors' bureau operating in the county to 132049
promote travel and tourism. The increase in rate shall remain in 132050
effect for the period specified in the resolution, not to exceed 132051
twenty years, provided that the increase in rate may not continue 132052
beyond the time when the purpose for which the increase is levied 132053
ceases to exist. If revenue from the increase in rate is pledged 132054
to the payment of debt charges on securities, the increase in rate 132055
is not subject to diminution by initiative or referendum or by law 132056
for so long as the securities are outstanding, unless provision is 132057
made by law or by the board of county commissioners for an 132058
adequate substitute for that revenue that is satisfactory to the 132059
trustee if a trust agreement secures payment of the debt charges. 132060
The increase in rate shall be subject to the regulations adopted 132061
under division (A)(1) of this section, except that the resolution 132062
may provide that no portion of the revenue from the increase in 132063
the rate shall be returned to townships or municipal corporations 132064
as would otherwise be required under division (A)(1) of this 132065
section. A resolution adopted under division (A)(7) of this 132066
section is subject to referendum under sections 305.31 to 305.99 132067
of the Revised Code.132068

       (B)(1) The legislative authority of a municipal corporation 132069
or the board of trustees of a township that is not wholly or 132070
partly located in a county that has in effect a resolution levying 132071
an excise tax pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section may, by 132072
ordinance or resolution, levy an excise tax not to exceed three 132073
per cent on transactions by which lodging by a hotel is or is to 132074
be furnished to transient guests. The legislative authority of the 132075
municipal corporation or the board of trustees of the township 132076
shall deposit at least fifty per cent of the revenue from the tax 132077
levied pursuant to this division into a separate fund, which shall 132078
be spent solely to make contributions to convention and visitors' 132079
bureaus operating within the county in which the municipal 132080
corporation or township is wholly or partly located, and the 132081
balance of that revenue shall be deposited in the general fund. 132082
The municipal corporation or township shall establish all 132083
regulations necessary to provide for the administration and 132084
allocation of the tax. The regulations may prescribe the time for 132085
payment of the tax, and may provide for the imposition of a 132086
penalty or interest, or both, for late payments, provided that the 132087
penalty does not exceed ten per cent of the amount of tax due, and 132088
the rate at which interest accrues does not exceed the rate per 132089
annum prescribed pursuant to section 5703.47 of the Revised Code. 132090
The levy of a tax under this division is in addition to any tax 132091
imposed on the same transaction by a municipal corporation or a 132092
township as authorized by division (A) of section 5739.08 of the 132093
Revised Code.132094

       (2)(a) The legislative authority of the most populous 132095
municipal corporation located wholly or partly in a county in 132096
which the board of county commissioners has levied a tax under 132097
division (A)(4) of this section may amend, on or before September 132098
30, 2002, that municipal corporation's ordinance or resolution 132099
that levies an excise tax on transactions by which lodging by a 132100
hotel is or is to be furnished to transient guests, to provide for 132101
all of the following:132102

       (i) That the rate of the tax shall be increased by not more 132103
than an additional one per cent on each transaction;132104

       (ii) That all of the revenue from the increase in rate shall 132105
be pledged and contributed to a convention facilities authority 132106
established by the board of county commissioners under Chapter 132107
351. of the Revised Code on or before May 15, 2002, and be used to 132108
pay costs of constructing, expanding, maintaining, operating, or 132109
promoting a convention center in the county, including paying 132110
bonds, or notes issued in anticipation of bonds, as provided by 132111
that chapter;132112

       (iii) That the increase in rate shall not be subject to 132113
diminution by initiative or referendum or by law while any bonds, 132114
or notes in anticipation of bonds, issued by the authority under 132115
Chapter 351. of the Revised Code to which the revenue is pledged, 132116
remain outstanding in accordance with their terms, unless 132117
provision is made by law, by the board of county commissioners, or 132118
by the legislative authority, for an adequate substitute therefor 132119
that is satisfactory to the trustee if a trust agreement secures 132120
the bonds.132121

       (b) The legislative authority of a municipal corporation 132122
that, pursuant to division (B)(2)(a) of this section, has amended 132123
its ordinance or resolution to increase the rate of the tax 132124
authorized by division (B)(1) of this section may further amend 132125
the ordinance or resolution to provide that the revenue referred 132126
to in division (B)(2)(a)(ii) of this section shall be pledged and 132127
contributed both to a convention facilities authority to pay the 132128
costs of constructing, expanding, maintaining, or operating one or 132129
more convention centers in the county, including paying bonds, or 132130
notes issued in anticipation of bonds, as provided in Chapter 351. 132131
of the Revised Code, and to a convention and visitors' bureau to 132132
pay the costs of promoting one or more convention centers in the 132133
county.132134

       As used in division (B)(2) of this section, "cost" has the 132135
same meaning as in section 351.01 of the Revised Code, and 132136
"convention center" has the same meaning as in section 307.695 of 132137
the Revised Code.132138

       (C) For the purposes described in section 307.695 of the 132139
Revised Code and to cover the costs of administering the tax, a 132140
board of county commissioners of a county where a tax imposed 132141
under division (A)(1) of this section is in effect may, by 132142
resolution adopted within ninety days after July 15, 1985, by a 132143
majority of the members of the board, levy an additional excise 132144
tax not to exceed three per cent on transactions by which lodging 132145
by a hotel is or is to be furnished to transient guests. The tax 132146
authorized by this division shall be in addition to any tax that 132147
is levied pursuant to division (A) of this section, but it shall 132148
not apply to transactions subject to a tax levied by a municipal 132149
corporation or township pursuant to the authorization granted by 132150
division (A) of section 5739.08 of the Revised Code. The board 132151
shall establish all regulations necessary to provide for the 132152
administration and allocation of the tax. The regulations may 132153
prescribe the time for payment of the tax, and may provide for the 132154
imposition of a penalty or interest, or both, for late payments, 132155
provided that the penalty does not exceed ten per cent of the 132156
amount of tax due, and the rate at which interest accrues does not 132157
exceed the rate per annum prescribed pursuant to section 5703.47 132158
of the Revised Code. All revenues arising from the tax shall be 132159
expended in accordance with section 307.695 of the Revised Code. 132160
The board of county commissioners of an eligible county as defined 132161
in section 307.695 of the Revised Code may, by resolution adopted 132162
by a majority of the members of the board, amend the resolution 132163
levying a tax under this division to provide that the revenue from 132164
the tax shall be used by the board as described in division (H) of 132165
section 307.695 of the Revised Code. A tax imposed under this 132166
division shall remain in effect at the rate at which it is imposed 132167
for the duration of the period during which any agreement entered 132168
into by the board under section 307.695 of the Revised Code is in 132169
effect, the duration of the period during which any securities 132170
issued by the board under division (I) of section 307.695 of the 132171
Revised Code are outstanding, or the duration of the period during 132172
which the board owns a project as defined in section 307.695 of 132173
the Revised Code, whichever duration is longest.132174

       (D) For the purpose of providing contributions under division 132175
(B)(1) of section 307.671 of the Revised Code to enable the 132176
acquisition, construction, and equipping of a port authority 132177
educational and cultural facility in the county and, to the extent 132178
provided for in the cooperative agreement authorized by that 132179
section, for the purpose of paying debt service charges on bonds, 132180
or notes in anticipation of bonds, described in division (B)(1)(b) 132181
of that section, a board of county commissioners, by resolution 132182
adopted within ninety days after December 22, 1992, by a majority 132183
of the members of the board, may levy an additional excise tax not 132184
to exceed one and one-half per cent on transactions by which 132185
lodging by a hotel is or is to be furnished to transient guests. 132186
The excise tax authorized by this division shall be in addition to 132187
any tax that is levied pursuant to divisions (A), (B), and (C) of 132188
this section, to any excise tax levied pursuant to section 5739.08 132189
of the Revised Code, and to any excise tax levied pursuant to 132190
section 351.021 of the Revised Code. The board of county 132191
commissioners shall establish all regulations necessary to provide 132192
for the administration and allocation of the tax that are not 132193
inconsistent with this section or section 307.671 of the Revised 132194
Code. The regulations may prescribe the time for payment of the 132195
tax, and may provide for the imposition of a penalty or interest, 132196
or both, for late payments, provided that the penalty does not 132197
exceed ten per cent of the amount of tax due, and the rate at 132198
which interest accrues does not exceed the rate per annum 132199
prescribed pursuant to section 5703.47 of the Revised Code. All 132200
revenues arising from the tax shall be expended in accordance with 132201
section 307.671 of the Revised Code and division (D) of this 132202
section. The levy of a tax imposed under this division may not 132203
commence prior to the first day of the month next following the 132204
execution of the cooperative agreement authorized by section 132205
307.671 of the Revised Code by all parties to that agreement. The 132206
tax shall remain in effect at the rate at which it is imposed for 132207
the period of time described in division (C) of section 307.671 of 132208
the Revised Code for which the revenue from the tax has been 132209
pledged by the county to the corporation pursuant to that section, 132210
but, to any extent provided for in the cooperative agreement, for 132211
no lesser period than the period of time required for payment of 132212
the debt service charges on bonds, or notes in anticipation of 132213
bonds, described in division (B)(1)(b) of that section.132214

       (E) For the purpose of paying the costs of acquiring, 132215
constructing, equipping, and improving a municipal educational and 132216
cultural facility, including debt service charges on bonds 132217
provided for in division (B) of section 307.672 of the Revised 132218
Code, and for any additional purposes determined by the county in 132219
the resolution levying the tax or amendments to the resolution, 132220
including subsequent amendments providing for paying costs of 132221
acquiring, constructing, renovating, rehabilitating, equipping, 132222
and improving a port authority educational and cultural performing 132223
arts facility, as defined in section 307.674 of the Revised Code, 132224
and including debt service charges on bonds provided for in 132225
division (B) of section 307.674 of the Revised Code, the 132226
legislative authority of a county, by resolution adopted within 132227
ninety days after June 30, 1993, by a majority of the members of 132228
the legislative authority, may levy an additional excise tax not 132229
to exceed one and one-half per cent on transactions by which 132230
lodging by a hotel is or is to be furnished to transient guests. 132231
The excise tax authorized by this division shall be in addition to 132232
any tax that is levied pursuant to divisions (A), (B), (C), and 132233
(D) of this section, to any excise tax levied pursuant to section 132234
5739.08 of the Revised Code, and to any excise tax levied pursuant 132235
to section 351.021 of the Revised Code. The legislative authority 132236
of the county shall establish all regulations necessary to provide 132237
for the administration and allocation of the tax. The regulations 132238
may prescribe the time for payment of the tax, and may provide for 132239
the imposition of a penalty or interest, or both, for late 132240
payments, provided that the penalty does not exceed ten per cent 132241
of the amount of tax due, and the rate at which interest accrues 132242
does not exceed the rate per annum prescribed pursuant to section 132243
5703.47 of the Revised Code. All revenues arising from the tax 132244
shall be expended in accordance with section 307.672 of the 132245
Revised Code and this division. The levy of a tax imposed under 132246
this division shall not commence prior to the first day of the 132247
month next following the execution of the cooperative agreement 132248
authorized by section 307.672 of the Revised Code by all parties 132249
to that agreement. The tax shall remain in effect at the rate at 132250
which it is imposed for the period of time determined by the 132251
legislative authority of the county. That period of time shall not 132252
exceed fifteen years, except that the legislative authority of a 132253
county with a population of less than two hundred fifty thousand 132254
according to the most recent federal decennial census, by 132255
resolution adopted by a majority of its members before the 132256
original tax expires, may extend the duration of the tax for an 132257
additional period of time. The additional period of time by which 132258
a legislative authority extends a tax levied under this division 132259
shall not exceed fifteen years.132260

       (F) The legislative authority of a county that has levied a 132261
tax under division (E) of this section may, by resolution adopted 132262
within one hundred eighty days after January 4, 2001, by a 132263
majority of the members of the legislative authority, amend the 132264
resolution levying a tax under that division to provide for the 132265
use of the proceeds of that tax, to the extent that it is no 132266
longer needed for its original purpose as determined by the 132267
parties to a cooperative agreement amendment pursuant to division 132268
(D) of section 307.672 of the Revised Code, to pay costs of 132269
acquiring, constructing, renovating, rehabilitating, equipping, 132270
and improving a port authority educational and cultural performing 132271
arts facility, including debt service charges on bonds provided 132272
for in division (B) of section 307.674 of the Revised Code, and to 132273
pay all obligations under any guaranty agreements, reimbursement 132274
agreements, or other credit enhancement agreements described in 132275
division (C) of section 307.674 of the Revised Code. The 132276
resolution may also provide for the extension of the tax at the 132277
same rate for the longer of the period of time determined by the 132278
legislative authority of the county, but not to exceed an 132279
additional twenty-five years, or the period of time required to 132280
pay all debt service charges on bonds provided for in division (B) 132281
of section 307.672 of the Revised Code and on port authority 132282
revenue bonds provided for in division (B) of section 307.674 of 132283
the Revised Code. All revenues arising from the amendment and 132284
extension of the tax shall be expended in accordance with section 132285
307.674 of the Revised Code, this division, and division (E) of 132286
this section.132287

       (G) For purposes of a tax levied by a county, township, or 132288
municipal corporation under this section or section 5739.08 of the 132289
Revised Code, a board of county commissioners, board of township 132290
trustees, or the legislative authority of a municipal corporation 132291
may adopt a resolution or ordinance at any time specifying that 132292
"hotel," as otherwise defined in section 5739.01 of the Revised 132293
Code, includes the following:132294

       (1) Establishments in which fewer than five rooms are used 132295
for the accommodation of guests. 132296

       (2) Establishments at which rooms are used for the 132297
accommodation of guests regardless of whether each room is 132298
accessible through its own keyed entry or several rooms are 132299
accessible through the same keyed entry; and, in determining the 132300
number of rooms, all rooms are included regardless of the number 132301
of structures in which the rooms are situated or the number of 132302
parcels of land on which the structures are located if the 132303
structures are under the same ownership and the structures are not 132304
identified in advertisements of the accommodations as distinct 132305
establishments. For the purposes of division (G)(2) of this 132306
section, two or more structures are under the same ownership if 132307
they are owned by the same person, or if they are owned by two or 132308
more persons the majority of the ownership interests of which are 132309
owned by the same person.132310

        The resolution or ordinance may apply to a tax imposed 132311
pursuant to this section prior to the adoption of the resolution 132312
or ordinance if the resolution or ordinance so states, but the tax 132313
shall not apply to transactions by which lodging by such an 132314
establishment is provided to transient guests prior to the 132315
adoption of the resolution or ordinance.132316

       (H)(1) As used in this division:132317

       (a) "Convention facilities authority" has the same meaning as 132318
in section 351.01 of the Revised Code.132319

       (b) "Convention center" has the same meaning as in section 132320
307.695 of the Revised Code.132321

       (2) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of division (D) of 132322
this section, the legislative authority of a county with a 132323
population of one million or more according to the most recent 132324
federal decennial census that has levied a tax under division (D) 132325
of this section may, by resolution adopted by a majority of the 132326
members of the legislative authority, provide for the extension of 132327
such levy and may provide that the proceeds of that tax, to the 132328
extent that they are no longer needed for their original purpose 132329
as defined by a cooperative agreement entered into under section 132330
307.671 of the Revised Code, shall be deposited into the county 132331
general revenue fund. The resolution shall provide for the 132332
extension of the tax at a rate not to exceed the rate specified in 132333
division (D) of this section for a period of time determined by 132334
the legislative authority of the county, but not to exceed an 132335
additional forty years.132336

       (3) The legislative authority of a county with a population 132337
of one million or more that has levied a tax under division (A)(1) 132338
of this section may, by resolution adopted by a majority of the 132339
members of the legislative authority, increase the rate of the tax 132340
levied by such county under division (A)(1) of this section to a 132341
rate not to exceed five per cent on transactions by which lodging 132342
by a hotel is or is to be furnished to transient guests. 132343
Notwithstanding any contrary provision of division (A)(1) of this 132344
section, the resolution may provide that all collections resulting 132345
from the rate levied in excess of three per cent, after deducting 132346
the real and actual costs of administering the tax, shall be 132347
deposited in the county general fund.132348

       (4) The legislative authority of a county with a population 132349
of one million or more that has levied a tax under division (A)(1) 132350
of this section may, by resolution adopted on or before August 30, 132351
2004, by a majority of the members of the legislative authority, 132352
provide that all or a portion of the proceeds of the tax levied 132353
under division (A)(1) of this section, after deducting the real 132354
and actual costs of administering the tax and the amounts required 132355
to be returned to townships and municipal corporations with 132356
respect to the first three per cent levied under division (A)(1) 132357
of this section, shall be deposited in the county general fund, 132358
provided that such proceeds shall be used to satisfy any pledges 132359
made in connection with an agreement entered into under section 132360
307.695 of the Revised Code.132361

       (5) No amount collected from a tax levied, extended, or 132362
required to be deposited in the county general fund under division 132363
(H) of this section shall be contributed to a convention 132364
facilities authority, corporation, or other entity created after 132365
July 1, 2003, for the principal purpose of constructing, 132366
improving, expanding, equipping, financing, or operating a 132367
convention center unless the mayor of the municipal corporation in 132368
which the convention center is to be operated by that convention 132369
facilities authority, corporation, or other entity has consented 132370
to the creation of that convention facilities authority, 132371
corporation, or entity. Notwithstanding any contrary provision of 132372
section 351.04 of the Revised Code, if a tax is levied by a county 132373
under division (H) of this section, the board of county 132374
commissioners of that county may determine the manner of 132375
selection, the qualifications, the number, and terms of office of 132376
the members of the board of directors of any convention facilities 132377
authority, corporation, or other entity described in division 132378
(H)(5) of this section.132379

       (6)(a) No amount collected from a tax levied, extended, or 132380
required to be deposited in the county general fund under division 132381
(H) of this section may be used for any purpose other than paying 132382
the direct and indirect costs of constructing, improving, 132383
expanding, equipping, financing, or operating a convention center 132384
and for the real and actual costs of administering the tax, 132385
unless, prior to the adoption of the resolution of the legislative 132386
authority of the county authorizing the levy, extension, increase, 132387
or deposit, the county and the mayor of the most populous 132388
municipal corporation in that county have entered into an 132389
agreement as to the use of such amounts, provided that such 132390
agreement has been approved by a majority of the mayors of the 132391
other municipal corporations in that county. The agreement shall 132392
provide that the amounts to be used for purposes other than paying 132393
the convention center or administrative costs described in 132394
division (H)(6)(a) of this section be used only for the direct and 132395
indirect costs of capital improvements, including the financing of 132396
capital improvements.132397

       (b) If the county in which the tax is levied has an 132398
association of mayors and city managers, the approval of that 132399
association of an agreement described in division (H)(6)(a) of 132400
this section shall be considered to be the approval of the 132401
majority of the mayors of the other municipal corporations for 132402
purposes of that division.132403

       (7) Each year, the auditor of state shall conduct an audit of 132404
the uses of any amounts collected from taxes levied, extended, or 132405
deposited under division (H) of this section and shall prepare a 132406
report of the auditor of state's findings. The auditor of state 132407
shall submit the report to the legislative authority of the county 132408
that has levied, extended, or deposited the tax, the speaker of 132409
the house of representatives, the president of the senate, and the 132410
leaders of the minority parties of the house of representatives 132411
and the senate.132412

       (I)(1) As used in this division:132413

       (a) "Convention facilities authority" has the same meaning as 132414
in section 351.01 of the Revised Code.132415

       (b) "Convention center" has the same meaning as in section 132416
307.695 of the Revised Code.132417

       (2) Notwithstanding any contrary provision of division (D) of 132418
this section, the legislative authority of a county with a 132419
population of one million two hundred thousand or more according 132420
to the most recent federal decennial census or the most recent 132421
annual population estimate published or released by the United 132422
States census bureau at the time the resolution is adopted placing 132423
the levy on the ballot, that has levied a tax under division (D) 132424
of this section may, by resolution adopted by a majority of the 132425
members of the legislative authority, provide for the extension of 132426
such levy and may provide that the proceeds of that tax, to the 132427
extent that the proceeds are no longer needed for their original 132428
purpose as defined by a cooperative agreement entered into under 132429
section 307.671 of the Revised Code and after deducting the real 132430
and actual costs of administering the tax, shall be used for 132431
paying the direct and indirect costs of constructing, improving, 132432
expanding, equipping, financing, or operating a convention center. 132433
The resolution shall provide for the extension of the tax at a 132434
rate not to exceed the rate specified in division (D) of this 132435
section for a period of time determined by the legislative 132436
authority of the county, but not to exceed an additional forty 132437
years.132438

       (3) The legislative authority of a county with a population 132439
of one million two hundred thousand or more that has levied a tax 132440
under division (A)(1) of this section may, by resolution adopted 132441
by a majority of the members of the legislative authority, 132442
increase the rate of the tax levied by such county under division 132443
(A)(1) of this section to a rate not to exceed five per cent on 132444
transactions by which lodging by a hotel is or is to be furnished 132445
to transient guests. Notwithstanding any contrary provision of 132446
division (A)(1) of this section, the resolution shall provide that 132447
all collections resulting from the rate levied in excess of three 132448
per cent, after deducting the real and actual costs of 132449
administering the tax, shall be used for paying the direct and 132450
indirect costs of constructing, improving, expanding, equipping, 132451
financing, or operating a convention center.132452

       (4) The legislative authority of a county with a population 132453
of one million two hundred thousand or more that has levied a tax 132454
under division (A)(1) of this section may, by resolution adopted 132455
on or before July 1, 2008, by a majority of the members of the 132456
legislative authority, provide that all or a portion of the 132457
proceeds of the tax levied under division (A)(1) of this section, 132458
after deducting the real and actual costs of administering the tax 132459
and the amounts required to be returned to townships and municipal 132460
corporations with respect to the first three per cent levied under 132461
division (A)(1) of this section, shall be used to satisfy any 132462
pledges made in connection with an agreement entered into under 132463
section 307.695 of the Revised Code or shall otherwise be used for 132464
paying the direct and indirect costs of constructing, improving, 132465
expanding, equipping, financing, or operating a convention center.132466

       (5) Any amount collected from a tax levied or extended under 132467
division (I) of this section may be contributed to a convention 132468
facilities authority created before July 1, 2005, but no amount 132469
collected from a tax levied or extended under division (I) of this 132470
section may be contributed to a convention facilities authority, 132471
corporation, or other entity created after July 1, 2005, unless 132472
the mayor of the municipal corporation in which the convention 132473
center is to be operated by that convention facilities authority, 132474
corporation, or other entity has consented to the creation of that 132475
convention facilities authority, corporation, or entity.132476

       (J) All money collected by a county and distributed under 132477
this section to a convention and visitors' bureau in existence as 132478
of the effective date of H.B. 59 of the 130th general assembly, 132479
except for any such money pledged, as of that effective date, to 132480
the payment of debt service charges on bonds, notes, securities, 132481
or lease agreements, shall be used solely for tourism sales, 132482
marketing and promotion, and their associated costs, including, 132483
but not limited to, operational and administrative costs of the 132484
bureau, sales and marketing, and maintenance of the physical 132485
bureau structure.132486

        (K) Of the funds distributed to a convention and visitors' 132487
bureau under this section, the amount a county may retain for real 132488
and actual costs associated with administering the tax shall not 132489
exceed the sum of (1) three per cent of the first five hundred 132490
thousand dollars distributed to the bureau and (2) one and 132491
one-half per cent of any amount in excess of five hundred thousand 132492
dollars distributed to the bureau.132493

       Sec. 5739.13.  (A) If any vendor collects the tax imposed by 132494
or pursuant to section 5739.02, 5739.021, 5739.023, or 5739.026 of 132495
the Revised Code, and fails to remit the tax to the state as 132496
prescribed, or on the sale of a motor vehicle, watercraft, or 132497
outboard motor required to be titled, fails to remit payment to a 132498
clerk of a court of common pleas as provided in section 1548.06 or 132499
4505.06 of the Revised Code, the vendor shall be personally liable 132500
for any tax collected and not remitted. The tax commissioner may 132501
make an assessment against such vendor based upon any information 132502
in the commissioner's possession.132503

       If any vendor fails to collect the tax or any consumer fails 132504
to pay the tax imposed by or pursuant to section 5739.02, 132505
5739.021, 5739.023, or 5739.026 of the Revised Code, on any 132506
transaction subject to the tax, the vendor or consumer shall be 132507
personally liable for the amount of the tax applicable to the 132508
transaction. The commissioner may make an assessment against 132509
either the vendor or consumer, as the facts may require, based 132510
upon any information in the commissioner's possession.132511

       An assessment against a vendor when the tax imposed by or 132512
pursuant to section 5739.02, 5739.021, 5739.023, or 5739.026 of 132513
the Revised Code has not been collected or paid, shall not 132514
discharge the purchaser's or consumer's liability to reimburse the 132515
vendor for the tax applicable to such transaction.132516

       An assessment issued against either, pursuant to this 132517
section, shall not be considered an election of remedies, nor a 132518
bar to an assessment against the other for the tax applicable to 132519
the same transaction, provided that no assessment shall be issued 132520
against any person for the tax due on a particular transaction if 132521
the tax on that transaction actually has been paid by another.132522

       The commissioner may make an assessment against any vendor 132523
who fails to file a return or remit the proper amount of tax 132524
required by this chapter, or against any consumer who fails to pay 132525
the proper amount of tax required by this chapter. When 132526
information in the possession of the commissioner indicates that 132527
the amount required to be collected or paid under this chapter is 132528
greater than the amount remitted by the vendor or paid by the 132529
consumer, the commissioner may audit a sample of the vendor's 132530
sales or the consumer's purchases for a representative period, to 132531
ascertain the per cent of exempt or taxable transactions or the 132532
effective tax rate and may issue an assessment based on the audit. 132533
The commissioner shall make a good faith effort to reach agreement 132534
with the vendor or consumer in selecting a representative sample.132535

       The commissioner may make an assessment, based on any 132536
information in histhe commissioner's possession, against any 132537
person who fails to file a return or remit the proper amount of 132538
tax required by section 5739.102 of the Revised Code.132539

       The commissioner may issue an assessment on any transaction 132540
for which any tax imposed under this chapter or Chapter 5741. of 132541
the Revised Code was due and unpaid on the date the vendor or 132542
consumer was informed by an agent of the tax commissioner of an 132543
investigation or audit. If the vendor or consumer remits any 132544
payment of the tax for the period covered by the assessment after 132545
the vendor or consumer was informed of the investigation or audit, 132546
the payment shall be credited against the amount of the 132547
assessment.132548

       The commissioner shall give the party assessed written notice 132549
of the assessment in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the 132550
Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner shall provide 132551
instructions on how to petition for reassessment and request a 132552
hearing on the petition.132553

       (B) Unless the party assessed files with the commissioner 132554
within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, 132555
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition for 132556
reassessment, signed by the party assessed or that party's 132557
authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 132558
becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due from the 132559
party assessed and payable to the treasurer of state and remitted 132560
to the tax commissioner. The petition shall indicate the 132561
objections of the party assessed, but additional objections may be 132562
raised in writing if received by the commissioner prior to the 132563
date shown on the final determination. If the petition has been 132564
properly filed, the commissioner shall proceed under section 132565
5703.60 of the Revised Code.132566

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 132567
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 132568
copy of the commissioner's entry making the assessment final may 132569
be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas 132570
in the county in which the place of business of the party assessed 132571
is located or the county in which the party assessed resides. If 132572
the party assessed maintains no place of business in this state 132573
and is not a resident of this state, the certified copy of the 132574
entry may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of 132575
common pleas of Franklin county.132576

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 132577
enter a judgment for the state against the party assessed in the 132578
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 132579
in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for state, 132580
county, and transit authority retail sales tax" or, if 132581
appropriate, "special judgments for resort area excise tax," and 132582
shall have the same effect as other judgments. Execution shall 132583
issue upon the judgment upon the request of the tax commissioner, 132584
and all laws applicable to sales on execution shall apply to sales 132585
made under the judgment except as otherwise provided in this 132586
chapter.132587

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety132588
within sixty days after the date the assessment was issued, the 132589
portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear 132590
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 132591
the Revised Code from the day the tax commissioner issues the 132592
assessment until the assessment is paid or until it is certified 132593
to the attorney general for collection under section 131.02 of the 132594
Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid portion of the 132595
assessment is certified to the attorney general for collection, 132596
the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear interest at 132597
the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 132598
Code from the date of certification until the date it is paid in 132599
its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax 132600
and may be collected by issuing an assessment under this section.132601

       (D) All money collected by the tax commissioner under this 132602
section shall be paid to the treasurer of state, and when paid 132603
shall be considered as revenue arising from the taxes imposed by 132604
or pursuant to sections 5739.01 to 5739.31 of the Revised Code.132605

       Sec. 5741.01.  As used in this chapter:132606

       (A) "Person" includes individuals, receivers, assignees, 132607
trustees in bankruptcy, estates, firms, partnerships, 132608
associations, joint-stock companies, joint ventures, clubs, 132609
societies, corporations, business trusts, governments, and 132610
combinations of individuals of any form.132611

       (B) "Storage" means and includes any keeping or retention in 132612
this state for use or other consumption in this state.132613

       (C) "Use" means and includes the exercise of any right or 132614
power incidental to the ownership of the thing used. A thing is 132615
also "used" in this state if its consumer gives or otherwise 132616
distributes it, without charge, to recipients in this state.132617

       (D) "Purchase" means acquired or received for a 132618
consideration, whether such acquisition or receipt was effected by 132619
a transfer of title, or of possession, or of both, or a license to 132620
use or consume; whether such transfer was absolute or conditional, 132621
and by whatever means the transfer was effected; and whether the 132622
consideration was money, credit, barter, or exchange. Purchase 132623
includes production, even though the article produced was used, 132624
stored, or consumed by the producer. The transfer of copyrighted 132625
motion picture films for exhibition purposes is not a purchase, 132626
except such films as are used solely for advertising purposes.132627

       (E) "Seller" means the person from whom a purchase is made, 132628
and includes every person engaged in this state or elsewhere in 132629
the business of selling tangible personal property or providing a 132630
service for storage, use, or other consumption or benefit in this 132631
state; and when, in the opinion of the tax commissioner, it is 132632
necessary for the efficient administration of this chapter, to 132633
regard any salesmansalesperson, representative, peddler, or 132634
canvasser as the agent of a dealer, distributor, supervisor, or 132635
employer under whom the person operates, or from whom the person 132636
obtains tangible personal property, sold by the person for 132637
storage, use, or other consumption in this state, irrespective of 132638
whether or not the person is making such sales on the person's own 132639
behalf, or on behalf of such dealer, distributor, supervisor, or 132640
employer, the commissioner may regard the person as such agent, 132641
and may regard such dealer, distributor, supervisor, or employer 132642
as the seller. "Seller" does not include any person to the extent 132643
the person provides a communications medium, such as, but not 132644
limited to, newspapers, magazines, radio, television, or cable 132645
television, by means of which sellers solicit purchases of their 132646
goods or services.132647

       (F) "Consumer" means any person who has purchased tangible 132648
personal property or has been provided a service for storage, use, 132649
or other consumption or benefit in this state. "Consumer" does not 132650
include a person who receives, without charge, tangible personal 132651
property or a service.132652

       A person who performs a facility management or similar 132653
service contract for a contractee is a consumer of all tangible 132654
personal property and services purchased for use in connection 132655
with the performance of such contract, regardless of whether title 132656
to any such property vests in the contractee. The purchase of such 132657
property and services is not subject to the exception for resale 132658
under division (E) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.132659

       (G)(1) "Price," except as provided in divisions (G)(2) to (6) 132660
of this section, has the same meaning as in division (H)(1) of 132661
section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.132662

       (2) In the case of watercraft, outboard motors, or new motor 132663
vehicles, "price" has the same meaning as in divisions (H)(2) and 132664
(3) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.132665

       (3) In the case of a nonresident business consumer that 132666
purchases and uses tangible personal property outside this state 132667
and subsequently temporarily stores, uses, or otherwise consumes 132668
such tangible personal property in the conduct of business in this 132669
state, the consumer or the tax commissioner may determine the 132670
price based on the value of the temporary storage, use, or other 132671
consumption, in lieu of determining the price pursuant to division 132672
(G)(1) of this section. A price determination made by the consumer 132673
is subject to review and redetermination by the commissioner.132674

       (4) In the case of tangible personal property held in this 132675
state as inventory for sale or lease, and that is temporarily 132676
stored, used, or otherwise consumed in a taxable manner, the price 132677
is the value of the temporary use. A price determination made by 132678
the consumer is subject to review and redetermination by the 132679
commissioner.132680

       (5) In the case of tangible personal property originally 132681
purchased and used by the consumer outside this state, and that 132682
becomes permanently stored, used, or otherwise consumed in this 132683
state more than six months after its acquisition by the consumer, 132684
the consumer or the commissioner may determine the price based on 132685
the current value of such tangible personal property, in lieu of 132686
determining the price pursuant to division (G)(1) of this section. 132687
A price determination made by the consumer is subject to review 132688
and redetermination by the commissioner.132689

       (6) If a consumer produces tangible personal property for 132690
sale and removes that property from inventory for the consumer's 132691
own use, the price is the produced cost of that tangible personal 132692
property.132693

       (H) "Nexus with this state" means that the seller engages in 132694
continuous and widespread solicitation of purchases from residents 132695
of this state or otherwise purposefully directs its business 132696
activities at residents of this state.132697

       (I)(1) "Substantial nexus with this state" means that the 132698
seller has sufficient contact with this state, in accordance with 132699
Section 8 of Article I of the Constitution of the United States, 132700
to allow the state to require the seller to collect and remit use 132701
tax on sales of tangible personal property or services made to 132702
consumers in this state. "Substantial132703

       (2) "Substantial nexus with this state" existsis presumed to 132704
exist when the seller does any of the following:132705

       (1) Maintains a(a) Uses an office, distribution facility, 132706
warehouse, storage facility, or similar place of business within 132707
this state, whether operated by employees or agents of the seller, 132708
by a member of an affiliated group, as defined in division 132709
(B)(3)(e) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, of which the 132710
seller is a member, or by a franchisee using a trade name of the 132711
seller;or any other person, other than a common carrier acting in 132712
its capacity as a common carrier.132713

       (2)(b) Regularly hasuses employees, agents, representatives, 132714
solicitors, installers, repairmenrepairers, salesmen132715
salespersons, or other individualspersons in this state (i) for 132716
the purpose of conducting the business of the seller;, or that 132717
(ii) engage in a business with the same or a similar industry 132718
classification as the seller selling a similar product or line of 132719
products as the seller, or (iii) use trademarks, service marks, or 132720
trade names in this state that are the same or substantially 132721
similar to those used by the seller.132722

       (3)(c) Uses aany person, other than a common carrier acting 132723
in its capacity as a common carrier, in this state for any of the 132724
purpose of receivingfollowing purposes:132725

       (i) Receiving or processing orders of the seller's goods or 132726
services;132727

       (ii) Using that person's employees or facilities in this 132728
state to advertise, promote, or facilitate sales by the seller to 132729
customers; 132730

       (iii) Delivering, installing, assembling, or performing 132731
maintenance services for the seller's customers;132732

       (iv) Facilitating the seller's delivery of tangible personal 132733
property to customers in this state by allowing the seller's 132734
customers to pick up property sold by the seller at an office, 132735
distribution facility, warehouse, storage facility, or similar 132736
place of business.132737

       (4)(d) Makes regular deliveries of tangible personal property 132738
into this state by means other than common carrier;.132739

       (5)(e) Has membership in an affiliated group, as described in 132740
division (B)(3)(e) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code, at 132741
least one other member of whichperson that has substantial nexus 132742
with this state;132743

       (6)(f) Owns tangible personal property that is rented or 132744
leased to a consumer in this state, or offers tangible personal 132745
property, on approval, to consumers in this state;132746

       (7) Except as provided in section 5703.65 of the Revised 132747
Code, is registered with the secretary of state to do business in 132748
this state or is registered or licensed by any state agency, 132749
board, or commission to transact business in this state or to make 132750
sales to persons in this state;132751

       (8) Has any other contact with this state that would allow 132752
this state to require the seller to collect and remit use tax 132753
under Section 8 of Article I of the Constitution of the United 132754
States(g) Enters into an agreement with one or more residents of 132755
this state under which the resident, for a commission or other 132756
consideration, directly or indirectly refers potential customers 132757
to the seller, whether by a link on a web site, an in-person oral 132758
presentation, telemarketing, or otherwise, provided the cumulative 132759
gross receipts from sales to consumers referred to the seller by 132760
all such residents exceeded ten thousand dollars during the 132761
preceding twelve months.132762

       (3) A seller presumed to have substantial nexus with this 132763
state under divisions (I)(2)(a) to (f) of this section may rebut 132764
that presumption by demonstrating that activities described in any 132765
of those divisions that are conducted by a person in this state on 132766
the seller's behalf are not significantly associated with the 132767
seller's ability to establish or maintain a market in this state 132768
for the seller's sales.132769

       (4) A seller presumed to have substantial nexus with this 132770
state under division (I)(2)(g) of this section may rebut that 132771
presumption by submitting proof that each resident engaged by the 132772
seller as described in that division did not engage in any 132773
activity within this state during the preceding twelve months that 132774
was significantly associated with the seller's ability to 132775
establish or maintain the seller's market in this state during the 132776
preceding twelve months. Such proof may consist of sworn written 132777
statements from all the residents with whom the seller has an 132778
agreement stating that the resident did not engage in any 132779
solicitation in this state on behalf of the seller during the 132780
preceding twelve months if such statements are provided and 132781
obtained in good faith.132782

       (5) A seller that does not have substantial nexus with this 132783
state, and any affiliated person of the seller, before selling or 132784
leasing tangible personal property or services to a state agency, 132785
shall register with the tax commissioner in the same manner as a 132786
seller described in division (A)(1) of section 5741.17 of the 132787
Revised Code.132788

       (6) As used in division (I) of this section:132789

       (a) "Affiliated person" means any person that is a member of 132790
the same controlled group of corporations as the seller or any 132791
other person that, notwithstanding the form of organization, bears 132792
the same ownership relationship to the seller as a corporation 132793
that is a member of the same controlled group of corporations.132794

       (b) "Controlled group of corporations" has the same meaning 132795
as in section 1563(a) of the Internal Revenue Code.132796

       (c) "State agency" has the same meaning as in section 1.60 of 132797
the Revised Code.132798

       (J) "Fiscal officer" means, with respect to a regional 132799
transit authority, the secretary-treasurer thereof, and with 132800
respect to a county which is a transit authority, the fiscal 132801
officer of the county transit board appointed pursuant to section 132802
306.03 of the Revised Code or, if the board of county 132803
commissioners operates the county transit system, the county 132804
auditor.132805

       (K) "Territory of the transit authority" means all of the 132806
area included within the territorial boundaries of a transit 132807
authority as they from time to time exist. Such territorial 132808
boundaries must at all times include all the area of a single 132809
county or all the area of the most populous county which is a part 132810
of such transit authority. County population shall be measured by 132811
the most recent census taken by the United States census bureau.132812

       (L) "Transit authority" means a regional transit authority 132813
created pursuant to section 306.31 of the Revised Code or a county 132814
in which a county transit system is created pursuant to section 132815
306.01 of the Revised Code. For the purposes of this chapter, a 132816
transit authority must extend to at least the entire area of a 132817
single county. A transit authority which includes territory in 132818
more than one county must include all the area of the most 132819
populous county which is a part of such transit authority. County 132820
population shall be measured by the most recent census taken by 132821
the United States census bureau.132822

       (M) "Providing a service" has the same meaning as in division 132823
(X) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.132824

       (N) "Other consumption" includes receiving the benefits of a 132825
service.132826

       (O) "Lease" or "rental" has the same meaning as in division 132827
(UU) of section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.132828

       (P) "Certified service provider" has the same meaning as in 132829
section 5740.01 of the Revised Code.132830

       (Q) "Remote sale" means a sale for which the seller could not 132831
be legally required to pay, collect, or remit a tax imposed under 132832
this chapter or Chapter 5739. of the Revised Code, unless 132833
otherwise provided by the laws of the United States.132834

       (R) "Remote seller" means a seller that makes remote sales to 132835
one or more consumers.132836

       (S) "Remote small seller" means a remote seller that has 132837
gross annual receipts from remote sales in the United States not 132838
exceeding one million dollars for the preceding calendar year. For 132839
the purposes of determining whether a person is a small remote 132840
seller, the sales of all persons related within the meaning of 132841
subsection (b) or (c) of section 267 or section 707(b)(1) of the 132842
Internal Revenue Code shall be aggregated, and persons with one or 132843
more ownership relationships shall be aggregated if those 132844
relationships were designed with the principal purpose to qualify 132845
as a remote small seller.132846

       Sec. 5741.03.  (A) One hundred per cent of all money 132847
deposited into the state treasury under sections 5741.01 to 132848
5741.22 of the Revised Code that is not required to be distributed 132849
as provided in division (B) of this section shall be credited to 132850
the general revenue fund.132851

       (B) In any case where any county or transit authority has 132852
levied a tax or taxes pursuant to section 5741.021, 5741.022, or 132853
5741.023 of the Revised Code, the tax commissioner shall, within 132854
forty-five days after the end of each month, determine and certify 132855
to the director of budget and management the amount of the 132856
proceeds of such tax or taxes from billings and assessments 132857
received during that month, or shown on tax returns or reports 132858
filed during that month, to be returned to the county or transit 132859
authority levying the tax or taxes, which amounts shall be 132860
determined in the manner provided in section 5739.21 of the 132861
Revised Code. The director of budget and management shall 132862
transfer, from the general revenue fund, to the permissive tax 132863
distribution fund created by division (B)(1) of section 4301.423 132864
of the Revised Code and to the local sales tax administrative fund 132865
created by division (C) of section 5739.21 of the Revised Code, 132866
the amounts certified by the tax commissioner. The tax 132867
commissioner shall then, on or before the twentieth day of the 132868
month in which such certification is made, provide for payment of 132869
such respective amounts to the county treasurer or to the fiscal 132870
officer of the transit authority levying the tax or taxes. The 132871
amount transferred to the local sales tax administrative fund is 132872
for use by the tax commissioner in defraying costs the 132873
commissioner incurs in administering such taxes levied by a county 132874
or transit authority.132875

       (C) Within forty-five days after the end of each month, the 132876
tax commissioner shall determine and certify to the director of 132877
budget and management the amount of tax collected under this 132878
chapter from remote sellers during the preceding month, reduced by 132879
any refunds issued to remote sellers from the tax refund fund 132880
created by section 5703.052 of the Revised Code, and the director 132881
of budget and management shall transfer the amount so certified 132882
from the general revenue fund to the income tax reduction fund. 132883
Amounts transferred to the income tax reduction fund under this 132884
section shall be included in the determination of the percentage 132885
under division (B)(2) of section 131.44 of the Revised Code.132886

       Sec. 5741.032.  There is hereby created in the state treasury 132887
the remote seller administration fund for the purpose of paying 132888
the expenses incurred by the department of taxation in the 132889
administration of this chapter with respect to remote sellers. 132890
Annually, before the thirty-first day of July, the treasurer of 132891
state shall transfer to the remote seller administration fund 132892
one-half of one per cent of the taxes collected from remote 132893
sellers under this chapter during the preceding fiscal year.132894

       Sec. 5741.17.  (A)(1) Except as otherwise provided in 132895
divisions (A)(2), (3), and (4) of this section, every seller of 132896
tangible personal property or services who has substantial nexus 132897
with this state shall register with the tax commissioner and 132898
supply any information concerning histhe seller's contacts with 132899
this state that may be required by the commissioner.132900

       (2) A seller who is licensed as a vendor pursuant to section 132901
5739.17 of the Revised Code shall not be required to register with 132902
the commissioner pursuant to this section if all sales to 132903
consumers in this state are made under the authority of histhe 132904
seller's vendor's license.132905

       (3) AUnless the seller has substantial nexus with this state 132906
pursuant to division (I)(2)(g) of section 5741.01 of the Revised 132907
Code, a seller is not required to register under this section if 132908
the seller has no contact with this state other than an agency 132909
relationship with a person engaged in the business of 132910
telemarketing in this state and engaged by the seller exclusively 132911
for the purpose of solicitation of customers in other states.132912

       (4) A seller is not required to register under this section 132913
if the seller has no contact with this state other than the 132914
ownership of property that is located at the facility of a printer 132915
with which the seller has contracted for printing and that 132916
consists of the final printed product, property that becomes a 132917
part of the final printed product, or copy from which the final 132918
printed product is produced.132919

       (B) A seller who does not have substantial nexus with this 132920
state may voluntarily register with the commissioner. A seller who 132921
voluntarily registers with the commissioner under this section is 132922
entitled to the same benefits and is subject to the same duties 132923
and requirements as a seller required to be registered with the 132924
commissioner under this chapter.132925

       The commissioner shall maintain an alphabetical index of all 132926
sellers registered under this chapter and records of the use tax 132927
reported and paid. Upon request, this information shall be made 132928
available to the treasurer of state.132929

       (C) A remote small seller is not required to register under 132930
this section.132931

       Sec. 5743.081.  (A) If any wholesale dealer or retail dealer 132932
fails to pay the tax levied under section 5743.02, 5743.021, 132933
5743.024, or 5743.026 of the Revised Code as required by sections 132934
5743.01 to 5743.20 of the Revised Code, and by the rules of the 132935
tax commissioner, or fails to collect the tax from the purchaser 132936
or consumer, the commissioner may make an assessment against the 132937
wholesale or retail dealer based upon any information in the 132938
commissioner's possession.132939

       The commissioner may make an assessment against any wholesale 132940
or retail dealer who fails to file a return required by section 132941
5743.03 or 5743.025 of the Revised Code.132942

       No assessment shall be made against any wholesale or retail 132943
dealer for any taxes imposed under section 5743.02, 5743.021, 132944
5743.024, or 5743.026 of the Revised Code more than three years 132945
after the last day of the calendar month that immediately follows 132946
the semiannual period prescribed in section 5743.03 of the Revised 132947
Code in which the sale was made, or more than three years after 132948
the semiannual return for such period is filed, whichever is 132949
later. This section does not bar an assessment against any 132950
wholesale or retail dealer who fails to file a return as required 132951
by section 5743.025 or 5743.03 of the Revised Code, or who files a 132952
fraudulent return.132953

       A penalty of up to thirty per cent may be added to the amount 132954
of every assessment made under this section. The commissioner may 132955
adopt rules providing for the imposition and remission of 132956
penalties added to assessments made under this section.132957

       The commissioner shall give the party assessed written notice 132958
of the assessment in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the 132959
Revised Code. The notice shall specify separately any portion of 132960
the assessment that represents a county tax. With the notice, the 132961
commissioner shall provide instructions on how to petition for 132962
reassessment and request a hearing on the petition.132963

       (B) Unless the party assessed files with the tax commissioner 132964
within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, 132965
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition for 132966
reassessment signed by the party assessed or that party's 132967
authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 132968
becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due and payable 132969
from the party assessed to the treasurer of state. The petition 132970
shall indicate the objections of the party assessed, but 132971
additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the 132972
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 132973
If the petition has been properly filed, the commissioner shall 132974
proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.132975

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 132976
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 132977
copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the assessment final 132978
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 132979
pleas in the county in which the wholesale or retail dealer's 132980
place of business is located or the county in which the party 132981
assessed resides. If the party assessed maintains no place of 132982
business in this state and is not a resident of this state, the 132983
certified copy of the entry may be filed in the office of the 132984
clerk of the court of common pleas of Franklin county.132985

       Immediately upon the filing of the commissioner's entry, the 132986
clerk shall enter a judgment for the state against the party 132987
assessed in the amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be 132988
filed by the clerk in a loose-leaf book entitled "special 132989
judgments for state cigarette sales tax," and shall have the same 132990
effect as other judgments. Execution shall issue upon the judgment 132991
upon the request of the tax commissioner, and all laws applicable 132992
to sales on execution shall apply to sales made under the 132993
judgment, except as otherwise provided in sections 5743.01 to 132994
5743.20 of the Revised Code.132995

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety132996
within sixty days after the assessment was issued, the portion of 132997
the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear interest at the 132998
rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code 132999
from the day the commissioner issues the assessment until it is 133000
paid or until it is certified to the attorney general for 133001
collection under section 131.02 of the Revised Code, whichever 133002
comes first. If the unpaid portion of the assessment is certified 133003
to the attorney general for collection, the entire unpaid portion 133004
of the assessment shall bear interest at the rate per annum 133005
prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code from the date of 133006
certification until the date it is paid in its entirety. Interest 133007
shall be paid in the same manner as the tax and may be collected 133008
by the issuance of an assessment under this section.133009

       (D) All money collected by the tax commissioner under this 133010
section shall be paid to the treasurer of state, and when paid 133011
shall be considered as revenue arising from the taxes imposed by 133012
sections 5743.01 to 5743.20 of the Revised Code.133013

       Sec. 5743.15.  (A) Except as otherwise provided in this 133014
division, no person shall engage in this state in the wholesale or 133015
retail business of trafficking in cigarettes or in the business of 133016
a manufacturer or importer of cigarettes without having a license 133017
to conduct each such activity issued by a county auditor under 133018
division (B) of this section or the tax commissioner under 133019
divisions (C) and (F) of this section. On dissolution of a 133020
partnership by death, the surviving partner may operate under the 133021
license of the partnership until expiration of the license, and 133022
the heirs or legal representatives of deceased persons, and 133023
receivers and trustees in bankruptcy appointed by any competent 133024
authority, may operate under the license of the person succeeded 133025
in possession by such heir, representative, receiver, or trustee 133026
in bankruptcy if the partner or successor notifies the issuer of 133027
the license of the dissolution or succession within thirty days 133028
after the dissolution or succession.133029

       (B)(1) Each applicant for a license to engage in the retail 133030
business of trafficking in cigarettes under this section, 133031
annually, on or before the fourth Monday of May, shall make and 133032
deliver to the county auditor of the county in which the applicant 133033
desires to engage in the retail business of trafficking in 133034
cigarettes, upon a blank form furnished by such auditor for that 133035
purpose, a statement showing the name of the applicant, each 133036
physical place in the county where the applicant's business is 133037
conducted, the nature of the business, and any other information 133038
the tax commissioner requires in the form of statement prescribed 133039
by the commissioner. If the applicant is a firm, partnership, or 133040
association other than a corporation, the application shall state 133041
the name and address of each of its members. If the applicant is a 133042
corporation, the application shall state the name and address of 133043
each of its officers. At the time of making the application 133044
required by this section, every person desiring to engage in the 133045
retail business of trafficking in cigarettes shall pay an 133046
application fee in the sum of one hundred twenty-five dollars for 133047
each physical place where the person proposes to carry on such 133048
business. Each place of business shall be deemed such space, under 133049
lease or license to, or under the control of, or under the 133050
supervision of the applicant, as is contained in one or more 133051
contiguous, adjacent, or adjoining buildings constituting an 133052
industrial plant or a place of business operated by, or under the 133053
control of, one person, or under one roof and connected by doors, 133054
halls, stairways, or elevators, which space may contain any number 133055
of points at which cigarettes are offered for sale, provided that 133056
each additional point at which cigarettes are offered for sale 133057
shall be listed in the application.133058

        (2) Upon receipt of the application and exhibition of the 133059
county treasurer's receipt showing the payment of the application 133060
fee, the county auditor shall issue to the applicant a license for 133061
each place of business designated in the application, authorizing 133062
the applicant to engage in such business at such place for one 133063
year commencing on the fourth Monday of May. The form of the 133064
license shall be prescribed by the commissioner. A duplicate 133065
license may be obtained from the county auditor upon payment of a 133066
five-dollar fee if the original license is lost, destroyed, or 133067
defaced. When an application is filed after the fourth Monday of 133068
May, the application fee required to be paid shall be proportioned 133069
in amount to the remainder of the license year, except that it 133070
shall not be less than twenty-five dollars in any one year.133071

       (3) The holder of a retail dealer's cigarette license may 133072
transfer the license to a place of business within the same county 133073
other than that designated on the license on condition that the 133074
licensee's ownership interest and business structure remain 133075
unchanged, and that the licensee applies to the county auditor 133076
therefor, upon forms approved by the commissioner and the payment 133077
of a fee of five dollars into the county treasury.133078

       (C)(1) Each applicant for a license to engage in the 133079
wholesale business of trafficking in cigarettes under this 133080
section, annually, on or before the fourth Monday in May, shall 133081
make and deliver to the tax commissioner, upon a blank form 133082
furnished by the commissioner for that purpose, a statement 133083
showing the name of the applicant, physical street address where 133084
the applicant's business is conducted, the nature of the business, 133085
and any other information required by the commissioner. If the 133086
applicant is a firm, partnership, or association other than a 133087
corporation, the applicant shall state the name and address of 133088
each of its members. If the applicant is a corporation, the 133089
applicant shall state the name and address of each of its 133090
officers. At the time of making the application required by this 133091
section, every person desiring to engage in the wholesale business 133092
of trafficking in cigarettes shall pay an application fee of one 133093
thousand dollars for each physical place where the person proposes 133094
to carry on such business. Each place of business shall be deemed 133095
such space, under lease or license to, or under the control of, or 133096
under the supervision of the applicant, as is contained in one or 133097
more contiguous, adjacent, or adjoining buildings constituting an 133098
industrial plant or a place of business operated by, or under the 133099
control of, one person, or under one roof and connected by doors, 133100
halls, stairways, or elevators. A duplicate license may be 133101
obtained from the commissioner upon payment of a 133102
twenty-five-dollar fee if the original license is lost, destroyed, 133103
or defaced.133104

       (2) Upon receipt of the application and payment of any 133105
application fee required by this section, the commissioner shall 133106
verify that the applicant is in good standing undernot in 133107
violation of any provision of Chapter 1346. andor Title LVII of 133108
the Revised Code. The commissioner shall also verify that the 133109
applicant has filed any returns, submitted any information, and 133110
paid any outstanding taxes or fees as required by the 133111
commissioner, to the extent that the commissioner is aware of the 133112
returns, information, taxes, or fees at the time of the 133113
application. Upon approval, the commissioner shall issue to the 133114
applicant a license for each physical place of business designated 133115
in the application authorizing the applicant to engage in business 133116
at that location for one year commencing on the fourth Monday in 133117
May. For licenses issued after the fourth Monday in May, the 133118
application fee shall be reduced proportionately by the remainder 133119
of the twelve-month period for which the license is issued, except 133120
that the application fee required to be paid under this section 133121
shall be not less than two hundred dollars in any one year.133122

       (3) The holder of a wholesale dealer cigarette license may 133123
transfer the license to a place of business other than that 133124
designated on the license on condition that the licensee's 133125
ownership or business structure remains unchanged, and that the 133126
licensee applies to the commissioner for such a transfer upon a 133127
form promulgated by the commissioner and pays a fee of twenty-five 133128
dollars, which shall be deposited into the cigarette tax 133129
enforcement fund created in division (E) of this section.133130

       (D)(1) The wholesale cigarette license application fees 133131
collected under this section shall be paid into the cigarette tax 133132
enforcement fund.133133

       (2) The retail cigarette license application fees collected 133134
under this section shall be distributed as follows:133135

       (a) Thirty per cent shall be paid upon the warrant of the 133136
county auditor into the treasury of the municipal corporation or 133137
township in which the places of business for which the tax revenue 133138
was received are located;133139

       (b) Ten per cent shall be credited to the general fund of the 133140
county;133141

       (c) Sixty per cent shall be paid into the cigarette tax 133142
enforcement fund.133143

       (3) The remainder of the revenues and fines collected under 133144
this section and the penal laws relating to cigarettes shall be 133145
distributed as follows:133146

       (a) Three-fourths shall be paid upon the warrant of the 133147
county auditor into the treasury of the municipal corporation or 133148
township in which the place of business, on account of which the 133149
revenues and fines were received, is located;133150

       (b) One-fourth shall be credited to the general fund of the 133151
county.133152

       (E) There is hereby created within the state treasury the 133153
cigarette tax enforcement fund for the purpose of providing funds 133154
to assist in paying the costs of enforcing sections 1333.11 to 133155
1333.21 and Chapter 5743. of the Revised Code.133156

       The portion of cigarette license application fees received by 133157
a county auditor during the annual application period that ends on 133158
the fourth Monday in May and that is required to be deposited in 133159
the cigarette tax enforcement fund shall be sent to the treasurer 133160
of state by the thirtieth day of June each year accompanied by the 133161
form prescribed by the tax commissioner. The portion of cigarette 133162
license application fees received by each county auditor after the 133163
fourth Monday in May and that is required to be deposited in the 133164
cigarette tax enforcement fund shall be sent to the treasurer of 133165
state by the last day of the month following the month in which 133166
such fees were collected.133167

       (F)(1) Every person who desires to engage in the business of 133168
a manufacturer or importer of cigarettes shall, annually, on or 133169
before the fourth Monday of May, make and deliver to the tax 133170
commissioner, upon a blank form furnished by the commissioner for 133171
that purpose, a statement showing the name of the applicant, the 133172
nature of the applicant's business, and any other information 133173
required by the commissioner. If the applicant is a firm, 133174
partnership, or association other than a corporation, the 133175
applicant shall state the name and address of each of its members. 133176
If the applicant is a corporation, the applicant shall state the 133177
name and address of each of its officers.133178

       (2) Upon receipt of the application required under this 133179
section, the commissioner shall verify that the applicant is in 133180
good standing undernot in violation of any provision of Chapter 133181
1346. andor Title LVII of the Revised Code. The commissioner 133182
shall also verify that the applicant has filed any returns, 133183
submitted any information, and paid any outstanding taxes or fees 133184
as required by the commissioner, to the extent that the 133185
commissioner is aware of the returns, information, taxes, or fees 133186
at the time of the application. Upon approval, the commissioner 133187
shall issue to the applicant a license authorizing the applicant 133188
to engage in the business of manufacturer or importer, whichever 133189
the case may be, for one year commencing on the fourth Monday of 133190
May.133191

       (3) The issuing of a license under division (F)(1) of this 133192
section to a manufacturer does not excuse a manufacturer from the 133193
certification process required under section 1346.05 of the 133194
Revised Code. A manufacturer who is issued a license under 133195
division (F)(1) of this section and who is not listed on the 133196
directory required under section 1346.05 of the Revised Code shall 133197
not be permitted to sell cigarettes in this state other than to a 133198
licensed cigarette wholesaler for sale outside this state. Such a 133199
manufacturer shall provide documentation to the commissioner 133200
evidencing that the cigarettes are legal for sale in another 133201
state.133202

       (G) The tax commissioner may adopt rules necessary to 133203
administer this section.133204

       Sec. 5743.56.  (A) Any person required to pay the tax imposed 133205
by section 5743.51, 5743.62, or 5743.63 of the Revised Code is 133206
personally liable for the tax. The tax commissioner may make an 133207
assessment, based upon any information in the commissioner's 133208
possession, against any person who fails to file a return or pay 133209
any tax, interest, or additional charge as required by this 133210
chapter. The commissioner shall give the person assessed written 133211
notice of such assessment in the manner provided in section 133212
5703.37 of the Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner 133213
shall provide instructions on how to petition for reassessment and 133214
request a hearing on the petition.133215

       (B) When the information in the possession of the tax 133216
commissioner indicates that a person liable for the tax imposed by 133217
section 5743.51, 5743.62, or 5743.63 of the Revised Code has not 133218
paid the full amount of tax due, the commissioner may audit a 133219
representative sample of the person's business and may issue an 133220
assessment based on such audit.133221

       (C) A penalty of up to fifteen per cent may be added to all 133222
amounts assessed under this section. The tax commissioner may 133223
adopt rules providing for the imposition and remission of such 133224
penalties.133225

       (D) Unless the person assessed files with the tax 133226
commissioner within sixty days after service of the notice of 133227
assessment, either personally or by certified mail, a written 133228
petition for reassessment signed by the person assessed or that 133229
person's authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the 133230
assessment becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due 133231
and payable from the person assessed to the treasurer of state. A 133232
petition shall indicate the objections of the person assessed, but 133233
additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the 133234
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 133235
If the petition has been properly filed, the commissioner shall 133236
proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.133237

       (E) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 133238
assessment, including accrued interest, remains unpaid, a 133239
certified copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the 133240
assessment final may be filed in the office of the clerk of the 133241
court of common pleas in the county in which the person assessed 133242
resides or in which the person assessed conducts business. If the 133243
person assessed maintains no place of business in this state and 133244
is not a resident of this state, the certified copy of the entry 133245
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 133246
pleas of Franklin county.133247

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 133248
enter a judgment for the state against the person assessed in the 133249
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 133250
in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for state tobacco 133251
products tax," and shall have the same effect as other judgments. 133252
Execution shall issue upon the judgment upon the request of the 133253
commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on execution shall 133254
apply to sales made under the judgment.133255

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety133256
within sixty days after the day the assessment is issued, the 133257
portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear 133258
interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of 133259
the Revised Code from the day the commissioner issues the 133260
assessment until the assessment is paid or until it is certified 133261
to the attorney general for collection under section 131.02 of the 133262
Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid portion of the 133263
assessment is certified to the attorney general for collection, 133264
the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear interest at 133265
the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 133266
Code from the date of certification until the date it is paid in 133267
its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax 133268
and may be collected by issuing an assessment under this section.133269

       (F) If the tax commissioner believes that collection of the 133270
tax will be jeopardized unless proceedings to collect or secure 133271
collection of the tax are instituted without delay, the 133272
commissioner may issue a jeopardy assessment against the person 133273
liable for the tax. Immediately upon the issuance of the jeopardy 133274
assessment, the commissioner shall file an entry with the clerk of 133275
the court of common pleas in the manner prescribed by division (E) 133276
of this section. Notice of the jeopardy assessment shall be served 133277
on the person assessed or the legal representative of the person 133278
assessed, as provided in section 5703.37 of the Revised Code, 133279
within five days of the filing of the entry with the clerk. The 133280
total amount assessed is immediately due and payable, unless the 133281
person assessed files a petition for reassessment in accordance 133282
with division (D) of this section and provides security in a form 133283
satisfactory to the commissioner and in an amount sufficient to 133284
satisfy the unpaid balance of the assessment. Full or partial 133285
payment of the assessment does not prejudice the commissioner's 133286
consideration of the petition for reassessment.133287

       (G) All money collected by the tax commissioner under this 133288
section shall be paid to the treasurer of state as revenue arising 133289
from the tax imposed by sections 5743.51, 5743.62, and 5743.63 of 133290
the Revised Code.133291

       Sec. 5745.12.  (A) If any taxpayer required to file a report 133292
under this chapter fails to file the report within the time 133293
prescribed, files an incorrect report, or fails to remit the full 133294
amount of the tax due for the period covered by the report, the 133295
tax commissioner may make an assessment against the taxpayer for 133296
any deficiency for the period for which the report or tax is due, 133297
based upon any information in the commissioner's possession.133298

       The tax commissioner shall not make or issue an assessment 133299
against a taxpayer more than three years after the later of the 133300
final date the report subject to assessment was required to be 133301
filed or the date the report was filed. Such time limit may be 133302
extended if both the taxpayer and the commissioner consent in 133303
writing to the extension. Any such extension shall extend the 133304
three-year time limit in section 5745.11 of the Revised Code for 133305
the same period of time. There shall be no bar or limit to an 133306
assessment against a taxpayer that fails to file a report subject 133307
to assessment as required by this chapter, or that files a 133308
fraudulent report. The commissioner shall give the taxpayer 133309
assessed written notice of the assessment as provided in section 133310
5703.37 of the Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner 133311
shall provide instructions on how to petition for reassessment and 133312
request a hearing on the petition.133313

       (B) Unless the taxpayer assessed files with the tax 133314
commissioner within sixty days after service of the notice of 133315
assessment, either personally or by certified mail, a written 133316
petition for reassessment signed by the authorized agent of the 133317
taxpayer assessed having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 133318
becomes final, and the amount of the assessment is due and payable 133319
from the taxpayer to the treasurer of state. The petition shall 133320
indicate the taxpayer's objections, but additional objections may 133321
be raised in writing if received by the commissioner prior to the 133322
date shown on the final determination. If the petition has been 133323
properly filed, the commissioner shall proceed under section 133324
5703.60 of the Revised Code.133325

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 133326
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 133327
copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the assessment final 133328
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 133329
pleas in the county in which the taxpayer has an office or place 133330
of business in this state, the county in which the taxpayer's 133331
statutory agent is located, or Franklin county.133332

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 133333
enter a judgment against the taxpayer assessed in the amount shown 133334
on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk in a 133335
loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for municipal income 133336
taxes," and shall have the same effect as other judgments. 133337
Execution shall issue upon the judgment upon the request of the 133338
tax commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on execution 133339
shall apply to sales made under the judgment.133340

       The portion of anIf the assessment is not paid in its 133341
entirety within sixty days after the day the assessment was 133342
issued, the portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall 133343
bear interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 133344
of the Revised Code from the day the commissioner issues the 133345
assessment until the assessment is paid or until it is certified 133346
to the attorney general for collection under section 131.02 of the 133347
Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid portion of the 133348
assessment is certified to the attorney general for collection, 133349
the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear interest at 133350
the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 133351
Code from the date of certification until the date it is paid in 133352
its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax 133353
and may be collected by issuing an assessment under this section.133354

       (D) All money collected under this section shall be credited 133355
and distributed to the municipal corporation to which the money is 133356
owed based on the assessment issued under this section.133357

       (E) If the tax commissioner believes that collection of the 133358
tax imposed by this chapter will be jeopardized unless proceedings 133359
to collect or secure collection of the tax are instituted without 133360
delay, the commissioner may issue a jeopardy assessment against 133361
the taxpayer liable for the tax. Immediately upon the issuance of 133362
the jeopardy assessment, the commissioner shall file an entry with 133363
the clerk of the court of common pleas in the manner prescribed by 133364
division (C) of this section. Notice of the jeopardy assessment 133365
shall be served on the taxpayer assessed or the taxpayer's legal 133366
representative in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the 133367
Revised Code within five days of the filing of the entry with the 133368
clerk. The total amount assessed is immediately due and payable, 133369
unless the taxpayer assessed files a petition for reassessment in 133370
accordance with division (B) of this section and provides security 133371
in a form satisfactory to the commissioner and in an amount 133372
sufficient to satisfy the unpaid balance of the assessment. Full 133373
or partial payment of the assessment does not prejudice the 133374
commissioner's consideration of the petition for reassessment.133375

       (F) Notwithstanding the fact that a petition for reassessment 133376
is pending, the taxpayer may pay all or a portion of the 133377
assessment that is the subject of the petition. The acceptance of 133378
a payment by the treasurer of state does not prejudice any claim 133379
for refund upon final determination of the petition.133380

       If upon final determination of the petition an error in the 133381
assessment is corrected by the tax commissioner, upon petition so 133382
filed or pursuant to a decision of the board of tax appeals or any 133383
court to which the determination or decision has been appealed, so 133384
that the amount due from the taxpayer under the corrected 133385
assessment is less than the portion paid, there shall be issued to 133386
the taxpayer, its assigns, or legal representative a refund in the 133387
amount of the overpayment as provided by section 5745.11 of the 133388
Revised Code, with interest on that amount as provided by section 133389
5745.11 of the Revised Code.133390

       Sec. 5747.01.  Except as otherwise expressly provided or 133391
clearly appearing from the context, any term used in this chapter 133392
that is not otherwise defined in this section has the same meaning 133393
as when used in a comparable context in the laws of the United 133394
States relating to federal income taxes or if not used in a 133395
comparable context in those laws, has the same meaning as in 133396
section 5733.40 of the Revised Code. Any reference in this chapter 133397
to the Internal Revenue Code includes other laws of the United 133398
States relating to federal income taxes.133399

       As used in this chapter:133400

       (A) "Adjusted gross income" or "Ohio adjusted gross income" 133401
means federal adjusted gross income, as defined and used in the 133402
Internal Revenue Code, adjusted as provided in this section:133403

       (1) Add interest or dividends on obligations or securities of 133404
any state or of any political subdivision or authority of any 133405
state, other than this state and its subdivisions and authorities.133406

       (2) Add interest or dividends on obligations of any 133407
authority, commission, instrumentality, territory, or possession 133408
of the United States to the extent that the interest or dividends 133409
are exempt from federal income taxes but not from state income 133410
taxes.133411

       (3) Deduct interest or dividends on obligations of the United 133412
States and its territories and possessions or of any authority, 133413
commission, or instrumentality of the United States to the extent 133414
that the interest or dividends are included in federal adjusted 133415
gross income but exempt from state income taxes under the laws of 133416
the United States.133417

       (4) Deduct disability and survivor's benefits to the extent 133418
included in federal adjusted gross income.133419

       (5) Deduct benefits under Title II of the Social Security Act 133420
and tier 1 railroad retirement benefits to the extent included in 133421
federal adjusted gross income under section 86 of the Internal 133422
Revenue Code.133423

       (6) In the case of a taxpayer who is a beneficiary of a trust 133424
that makes an accumulation distribution as defined in section 665 133425
of the Internal Revenue Code, add, for the beneficiary's taxable 133426
years beginning before 2002, the portion, if any, of such 133427
distribution that does not exceed the undistributed net income of 133428
the trust for the three taxable years preceding the taxable year 133429
in which the distribution is made to the extent that the portion 133430
was not included in the trust's taxable income for any of the 133431
trust's taxable years beginning in 2002 or thereafter. 133432
"Undistributed net income of a trust" means the taxable income of 133433
the trust increased by (a)(i) the additions to adjusted gross 133434
income required under division (A) of this section and (ii) the 133435
personal exemptions allowed to the trust pursuant to section 133436
642(b) of the Internal Revenue Code, and decreased by (b)(i) the 133437
deductions to adjusted gross income required under division (A) of 133438
this section, (ii) the amount of federal income taxes attributable 133439
to such income, and (iii) the amount of taxable income that has 133440
been included in the adjusted gross income of a beneficiary by 133441
reason of a prior accumulation distribution. Any undistributed net 133442
income included in the adjusted gross income of a beneficiary 133443
shall reduce the undistributed net income of the trust commencing 133444
with the earliest years of the accumulation period.133445

       (7) Deduct the amount of wages and salaries, if any, not 133446
otherwise allowable as a deduction but that would have been 133447
allowable as a deduction in computing federal adjusted gross 133448
income for the taxable year, had the targeted jobs credit allowed 133449
and determined under sections 38, 51, and 52 of the Internal 133450
Revenue Code not been in effect.133451

       (8) Deduct any interest or interest equivalent on public 133452
obligations and purchase obligations to the extent that the 133453
interest or interest equivalent is included in federal adjusted 133454
gross income.133455

       (9) Add any loss or deduct any gain resulting from the sale, 133456
exchange, or other disposition of public obligations to the extent 133457
that the loss has been deducted or the gain has been included in 133458
computing federal adjusted gross income.133459

       (10) Deduct or add amounts, as provided under section 5747.70 133460
of the Revised Code, related to contributions to variable college 133461
savings program accounts made or tuition units purchased pursuant 133462
to Chapter 3334. of the Revised Code.133463

       (11)(a) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise allowable as a 133464
deduction or exclusion in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross 133465
income for the taxable year, the amount the taxpayer paid during 133466
the taxable year for medical care insurance and qualified 133467
long-term care insurance for the taxpayer, the taxpayer's spouse, 133468
and dependents. No deduction for medical care insurance under 133469
division (A)(11) of this section shall be allowed either to any 133470
taxpayer who is eligible to participate in any subsidized health 133471
plan maintained by any employer of the taxpayer or of the 133472
taxpayer's spouse, or to any taxpayer who is entitled to, or on 133473
application would be entitled to, benefits under part A of Title 133474
XVIII of the "Social Security Act," 49 Stat. 620 (1935), 42 U.S.C. 133475
301, as amended. For the purposes of division (A)(11)(a) of this 133476
section, "subsidized health plan" means a health plan for which 133477
the employer pays any portion of the plan's cost. The deduction 133478
allowed under division (A)(11)(a) of this section shall be the net 133479
of any related premium refunds, related premium reimbursements, or 133480
related insurance premium dividends received during the taxable 133481
year.133482

       (b) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 133483
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income during the 133484
taxable year, the amount the taxpayer paid during the taxable 133485
year, not compensated for by any insurance or otherwise, for 133486
medical care of the taxpayer, the taxpayer's spouse, and 133487
dependents, to the extent the expenses exceed seven and one-half 133488
per cent of the taxpayer's federal adjusted gross income.133489

       (c) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 133490
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income, any amount 133491
included in federal adjusted gross income under section 105 or not 133492
excluded under section 106 of the Internal Revenue Code solely 133493
because it relates to an accident and health plan for a person who 133494
otherwise would be a "qualifying relative" and thus a "dependent" 133495
under section 152 of the Internal Revenue Code but for the fact 133496
that the person fails to meet the income and support limitations 133497
under section 152(d)(1)(B) and (C) of the Internal Revenue Code. 133498

       (d) For purposes of division (A)(11) of this section, 133499
"medical care" has the meaning given in section 213 of the 133500
Internal Revenue Code, subject to the special rules, limitations, 133501
and exclusions set forth therein, and "qualified long-term care" 133502
has the same meaning given in section 7702B(c) of the Internal 133503
Revenue Code. Solely for purposes of divisions (A)(11)(a) and (c) 133504
of this section, "dependent" includes a person who otherwise would 133505
be a "qualifying relative" and thus a "dependent" under section 133506
152 of the Internal Revenue Code but for the fact that the person 133507
fails to meet the income and support limitations under section 133508
152(d)(1)(B) and (C) of the Internal Revenue Code.133509

       (12)(a) Deduct any amount included in federal adjusted gross 133510
income solely because the amount represents a reimbursement or 133511
refund of expenses that in any year the taxpayer had deducted as 133512
an itemized deduction pursuant to section 63 of the Internal 133513
Revenue Code and applicable United States department of the 133514
treasury regulations. The deduction otherwise allowed under 133515
division (A)(12)(a) of this section shall be reduced to the extent 133516
the reimbursement is attributable to an amount the taxpayer 133517
deducted under this section in any taxable year.133518

       (b) Add any amount not otherwise included in Ohio adjusted 133519
gross income for any taxable year to the extent that the amount is 133520
attributable to the recovery during the taxable year of any amount 133521
deducted or excluded in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross 133522
income in any taxable year.133523

       (13) Deduct any portion of the deduction described in section 133524
1341(a)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, for repaying previously 133525
reported income received under a claim of right, that meets both 133526
of the following requirements:133527

       (a) It is allowable for repayment of an item that was 133528
included in the taxpayer's adjusted gross income for a prior 133529
taxable year and did not qualify for a credit under division (A) 133530
or (B) of section 5747.05 of the Revised Code for that year;133531

       (b) It does not otherwise reduce the taxpayer's adjusted 133532
gross income for the current or any other taxable year.133533

       (14) Deduct an amount equal to the deposits made to, and net 133534
investment earnings of, a medical savings account during the 133535
taxable year, in accordance with section 3924.66 of the Revised 133536
Code. The deduction allowed by division (A)(14) of this section 133537
does not apply to medical savings account deposits and earnings 133538
otherwise deducted or excluded for the current or any other 133539
taxable year from the taxpayer's federal adjusted gross income.133540

       (15)(a) Add an amount equal to the funds withdrawn from a 133541
medical savings account during the taxable year, and the net 133542
investment earnings on those funds, when the funds withdrawn were 133543
used for any purpose other than to reimburse an account holder 133544
for, or to pay, eligible medical expenses, in accordance with 133545
section 3924.66 of the Revised Code;133546

       (b) Add the amounts distributed from a medical savings 133547
account under division (A)(2) of section 3924.68 of the Revised 133548
Code during the taxable year.133549

       (16) Add any amount claimed as a credit under section 133550
5747.059 or 5747.65 of the Revised Code to the extent that such 133551
amount satisfies either of the following:133552

       (a) The amount was deducted or excluded from the computation 133553
of the taxpayer's federal adjusted gross income as required to be 133554
reported for the taxpayer's taxable year under the Internal 133555
Revenue Code;133556

       (b) The amount resulted in a reduction of the taxpayer's 133557
federal adjusted gross income as required to be reported for any 133558
of the taxpayer's taxable years under the Internal Revenue Code.133559

       (17) Deduct the amount contributed by the taxpayer to an 133560
individual development account program established by a county 133561
department of job and family services pursuant to sections 329.11 133562
to 329.14 of the Revised Code for the purpose of matching funds 133563
deposited by program participants. On request of the tax 133564
commissioner, the taxpayer shall provide any information that, in 133565
the tax commissioner's opinion, is necessary to establish the 133566
amount deducted under division (A)(17) of this section.133567

       (18) Beginning in taxable year 2001 but not for any taxable 133568
year beginning after December 31, 2005, if the taxpayer is married 133569
and files a joint return and the combined federal adjusted gross 133570
income of the taxpayer and the taxpayer's spouse for the taxable 133571
year does not exceed one hundred thousand dollars, or if the 133572
taxpayer is single and has a federal adjusted gross income for the 133573
taxable year not exceeding fifty thousand dollars, deduct amounts 133574
paid during the taxable year for qualified tuition and fees paid 133575
to an eligible institution for the taxpayer, the taxpayer's 133576
spouse, or any dependent of the taxpayer, who is a resident of 133577
this state and is enrolled in or attending a program that 133578
culminates in a degree or diploma at an eligible institution. The 133579
deduction may be claimed only to the extent that qualified tuition 133580
and fees are not otherwise deducted or excluded for any taxable 133581
year from federal or Ohio adjusted gross income. The deduction may 133582
not be claimed for educational expenses for which the taxpayer 133583
claims a credit under section 5747.27 of the Revised Code.133584

       (19) Add any reimbursement received during the taxable year 133585
of any amount the taxpayer deducted under division (A)(18) of this 133586
section in any previous taxable year to the extent the amount is 133587
not otherwise included in Ohio adjusted gross income.133588

       (20)(a)(i) Subject to divisions (A)(20)(a)(iii), (iv), and 133589
(v) of this section, add five-sixths of the amount of depreciation 133590
expense allowed by subsection (k) of section 168 of the Internal 133591
Revenue Code, including the taxpayer's proportionate or 133592
distributive share of the amount of depreciation expense allowed 133593
by that subsection to a pass-through entity in which the taxpayer 133594
has a direct or indirect ownership interest.133595

       (ii) Subject to divisions (A)(20)(a)(iii), (iv), and (v) of 133596
this section, add five-sixths of the amount of qualifying section 133597
179 depreciation expense, including the taxpayer's proportionate 133598
or distributive share of the amount of qualifying section 179 133599
depreciation expense allowed to any pass-through entity in which 133600
the taxpayer has a direct or indirect ownership interest. 133601

       (iii) Subject to division (A)(20)(a)(v) of this section, for 133602
taxable years beginning in 2012 or thereafter, if the increase in 133603
income taxes withheld by the taxpayer is equal to or greater than 133604
ten per cent of income taxes withheld by the taxpayer during the 133605
taxpayer's immediately preceding taxable year, "two-thirds" shall 133606
be substituted for "five-sixths" for the purpose of divisions 133607
(A)(20)(a)(i) and (ii) of this section.133608

       (iv) Subject to division (A)(20)(a)(v) of this section, for 133609
taxable years beginning in 2012 or thereafter, a taxpayer is not 133610
required to add an amount under division (A)(20) of this section 133611
if the increase in income taxes withheld by the taxpayer and by 133612
any pass-through entity in which the taxpayer has a direct or 133613
indirect ownership interest is equal to or greater than the sum of 133614
(I) the amount of qualifying section 179 depreciation expense and 133615
(II) the amount of depreciation expense allowed to the taxpayer by 133616
subsection (k) of section 168 of the Internal Revenue Code, and 133617
including the taxpayer's proportionate or distributive shares of 133618
such amounts allowed to any such pass-through entities.133619

       (v) If a taxpayer directly or indirectly incurs a net 133620
operating loss for the taxable year for federal income tax 133621
purposes, to the extent such loss resulted from depreciation 133622
expense allowed by subsection (k) of section 168 of the Internal 133623
Revenue Code and by qualifying section 179 depreciation expense, 133624
"the entire" shall be substituted for "five-sixths of the" for the 133625
purpose of divisions (A)(20)(a)(i) and (ii) of this section.133626

       The tax commissioner, under procedures established by the 133627
commissioner, may waive the add-backs related to a pass-through 133628
entity if the taxpayer owns, directly or indirectly, less than 133629
five per cent of the pass-through entity.133630

       (b) Nothing in division (A)(20) of this section shall be 133631
construed to adjust or modify the adjusted basis of any asset.133632

       (c) To the extent the add-back required under division 133633
(A)(20)(a) of this section is attributable to property generating 133634
nonbusiness income or loss allocated under section 5747.20 of the 133635
Revised Code, the add-back shall be sitused to the same location 133636
as the nonbusiness income or loss generated by the property for 133637
the purpose of determining the credit under division (A) of 133638
section 5747.05 of the Revised Code. Otherwise, the add-back shall 133639
be apportioned, subject to one or more of the four alternative 133640
methods of apportionment enumerated in section 5747.21 of the 133641
Revised Code.133642

       (d) For the purposes of division (A)(20)(a)(v) of this 133643
section, net operating loss carryback and carryforward shall not 133644
include the allowance of any net operating loss deduction 133645
carryback or carryforward to the taxable year to the extent such 133646
loss resulted from depreciation allowed by section 168(k) of the 133647
Internal Revenue Code and by the qualifying section 179 133648
depreciation expense amount.133649

       (e) For the purposes of divisions (A)(20) and (21) of this 133650
section:133651

        (i) "Income taxes withheld" means the total amount withheld 133652
and remitted under sections 5747.06 and 5747.07 of the Revised 133653
Code by an employer during the employer's taxable year.133654

        (ii) "Increase in income taxes withheld" means the amount by 133655
which the amount of income taxes withheld by an employer during 133656
the employer's current taxable year exceeds the amount of income 133657
taxes withheld by that employer during the employer's immediately 133658
preceding taxable year.133659

        (iii) "Qualifying section 179 depreciation expense" means the 133660
difference between (I) the amount of depreciation expense directly 133661
or indirectly allowed to a taxpayer under section 179 of the 133662
Internal Revised Code, and (II) the amount of depreciation expense 133663
directly or indirectly allowed to the taxpayer under section 179 133664
of the Internal Revenue Code as that section existed on December 133665
31, 2002.133666

       (21)(a) If the taxpayer was required to add an amount under 133667
division (A)(20)(a) of this section for a taxable year, deduct one 133668
of the following:133669

       (i) One-fifth of the amount so added for each of the five 133670
succeeding taxable years if the amount so added was five-sixths of 133671
qualifying section 179 depreciation expense or depreciation 133672
expense allowed by subsection (k) of section 168 of the Internal 133673
Revenue Code;133674

       (ii) One-half of the amount so added for each of the two 133675
succeeding taxable years if the amount so added was two-thirds of 133676
such depreciation expense;133677

       (iii) One-sixth of the amount so added for each of the six 133678
succeeding taxable years if the entire amount of such depreciation 133679
expense was so added.133680

       (b) If the amount deducted under division (A)(21)(a) of this 133681
section is attributable to an add-back allocated under division 133682
(A)(20)(c) of this section, the amount deducted shall be sitused 133683
to the same location. Otherwise, the add-back shall be apportioned 133684
using the apportionment factors for the taxable year in which the 133685
deduction is taken, subject to one or more of the four alternative 133686
methods of apportionment enumerated in section 5747.21 of the 133687
Revised Code.133688

       (c) No deduction is available under division (A)(21)(a) of 133689
this section with regard to any depreciation allowed by section 133690
168(k) of the Internal Revenue Code and by the qualifying section 133691
179 depreciation expense amount to the extent that such 133692
depreciation results in or increases a federal net operating loss 133693
carryback or carryforward. If no such deduction is available for a 133694
taxable year, the taxpayer may carry forward the amount not 133695
deducted in such taxable year to the next taxable year and add 133696
that amount to any deduction otherwise available under division 133697
(A)(21)(a) of this section for that next taxable year. The 133698
carryforward of amounts not so deducted shall continue until the 133699
entire addition required by division (A)(20)(a) of this section 133700
has been deducted.133701

        (d) No refund shall be allowed as a result of adjustments 133702
made by division (A)(21) of this section.133703

       (22) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 133704
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable 133705
year, the amount the taxpayer received during the taxable year as 133706
reimbursement for life insurance premiums under section 5919.31 of 133707
the Revised Code.133708

        (23) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 133709
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable 133710
year, the amount the taxpayer received during the taxable year as 133711
a death benefit paid by the adjutant general under section 5919.33 133712
of the Revised Code.133713

       (24) Deduct, to the extent included in federal adjusted gross 133714
income and not otherwise allowable as a deduction or exclusion in 133715
computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable 133716
year, military pay and allowances received by the taxpayer during 133717
the taxable year for active duty service in the United States 133718
army, air force, navy, marine corps, or coast guard or reserve 133719
components thereof or the national guard. The deduction may not be 133720
claimed for military pay and allowances received by the taxpayer 133721
while the taxpayer is stationed in this state.133722

       (25) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise allowable as a 133723
deduction or exclusion in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross 133724
income for the taxable year and not otherwise compensated for by 133725
any other source, the amount of qualified organ donation expenses 133726
incurred by the taxpayer during the taxable year, not to exceed 133727
ten thousand dollars. A taxpayer may deduct qualified organ 133728
donation expenses only once for all taxable years beginning with 133729
taxable years beginning in 2007.133730

       For the purposes of division (A)(25) of this section:133731

        (a) "Human organ" means all or any portion of a human liver, 133732
pancreas, kidney, intestine, or lung, and any portion of human 133733
bone marrow.133734

        (b) "Qualified organ donation expenses" means travel 133735
expenses, lodging expenses, and wages and salary forgone by a 133736
taxpayer in connection with the taxpayer's donation, while living, 133737
of one or more of the taxpayer's human organs to another human 133738
being.133739

       (26) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 133740
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable 133741
year, amounts received by the taxpayer as retired military133742
personnel pay for service in the United States army, navy, air 133743
force, coast guard, or marine corpsuniformed services or reserve 133744
components thereof, or the national guard, or received by the 133745
surviving spouse or former spouse of such a taxpayer under the 133746
survivor benefit plan on account of such a taxpayer's death. If 133747
the taxpayer receives income on account of retirement paid under 133748
the federal civil service retirement system or federal employees 133749
retirement system, or under any successor retirement program 133750
enacted by the congress of the United States that is established 133751
and maintained for retired employees of the United States 133752
government, and such retirement income is based, in whole or in 133753
part, on credit for the taxpayer's militaryuniformed service, the 133754
deduction allowed under this division shall include only that 133755
portion of such retirement income that is attributable to the 133756
taxpayer's militaryuniformed service, to the extent that portion 133757
of such retirement income is otherwise included in federal 133758
adjusted gross income and is not otherwise deducted under this 133759
section. Any amount deducted under division (A)(26) of this 133760
section is not included in a taxpayer's adjusted gross income for 133761
the purposes of section 5747.055 of the Revised Code. No amount 133762
may be deducted under division (A)(26) of this section on the 133763
basis of which a credit was claimed under section 5747.055 of the 133764
Revised Code.133765

       (27) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 133766
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable 133767
year, the amount the taxpayer received during the taxable year 133768
from the military injury relief fund created in section 5101.98 of 133769
the Revised Code.133770

       (28) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 133771
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable 133772
year, the amount the taxpayer received as a veterans bonus during 133773
the taxable year from the Ohio department of veterans services as 133774
authorized by Section 2r of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution.133775

       (29) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 133776
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable 133777
year, any loss from wagering transactions that is allowed as an 133778
itemized deduction under section 165 of the Internal Revenue Code 133779
and that the taxpayer deducted in computing federal taxable 133780
income.133781

       (30) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 133782
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable 133783
year, any income derived from a transfer agreement or from the 133784
enterprise transferred under that agreement under section 4313.02 133785
of the Revised Code.133786

       (31) Deduct, to the extent not otherwise deducted or excluded 133787
in computing federal or Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable 133788
year, Ohio college opportunity or federal Pell grant amounts 133789
received by the taxpayer or the taxpayer's spouse or dependent 133790
pursuant to section 3333.122 of the Revised Code or 20 U.S.C. 133791
1070a, et seq., and used to pay room or board furnished by the 133792
educational institution for which the grant was awarded at the 133793
institution's facilities, including meal plans administered by the 133794
institution. For the purposes of this division, receipt of a grant 133795
includes the distribution of a grant directly to an educational 133796
institution and the crediting of the grant to the enrollee's 133797
account with the institution.133798

       (32) Deduct one-half of the taxpayer's Ohio small business 133799
investor income, not to exceed one hundred eighty-seven thousand 133800
five hundred dollars for each spouse if spouses file separate 133801
returns under section 5747.08 of the Revised Code or three hundred 133802
seventy-five thousand dollars for all other taxpayers. No 133803
pass-through entity may claim a deduction under this division.133804

        For the purposes of this division, "Ohio small business 133805
investor income" means the portion of a taxpayer's adjusted gross 133806
income that is business income reduced by deductions from business 133807
income and apportioned or allocated to this state under sections 133808
5747.21 and 5747.22 of the Revised Code, to the extent not 133809
otherwise deducted or excluded in computing federal or Ohio 133810
adjusted gross income for the taxable year.133811

       (B) "Business income" means income, including gain or loss, 133812
arising from transactions, activities, and sources in the regular 133813
course of a trade or business and includes income, gain, or loss 133814
from real property, tangible property, and intangible property if 133815
the acquisition, rental, management, and disposition of the 133816
property constitute integral parts of the regular course of a 133817
trade or business operation. "Business income" includes income, 133818
including gain or loss, from a partial or complete liquidation of 133819
a business, including, but not limited to, gain or loss from the 133820
sale or other disposition of goodwill.133821

       (C) "Nonbusiness income" means all income other than business 133822
income and may include, but is not limited to, compensation, rents 133823
and royalties from real or tangible personal property, capital 133824
gains, interest, dividends and distributions, patent or copyright 133825
royalties, or lottery winnings, prizes, and awards.133826

       (D) "Compensation" means any form of remuneration paid to an 133827
employee for personal services.133828

       (E) "Fiduciary" means a guardian, trustee, executor, 133829
administrator, receiver, conservator, or any other person acting 133830
in any fiduciary capacity for any individual, trust, or estate.133831

       (F) "Fiscal year" means an accounting period of twelve months 133832
ending on the last day of any month other than December.133833

       (G) "Individual" means any natural person.133834

       (H) "Internal Revenue Code" means the "Internal Revenue Code 133835
of 1986," 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C.A. 1, as amended.133836

       (I) "Resident" means any of the following, provided that 133837
division (I)(3) of this section applies only to taxable years of a 133838
trust beginning in 2002 or thereafter:133839

       (1) An individual who is domiciled in this state, subject to 133840
section 5747.24 of the Revised Code;133841

       (2) The estate of a decedent who at the time of death was 133842
domiciled in this state. The domicile tests of section 5747.24 of 133843
the Revised Code are not controlling for purposes of division 133844
(I)(2) of this section.133845

       (3) A trust that, in whole or part, resides in this state. If 133846
only part of a trust resides in this state, the trust is a 133847
resident only with respect to that part.133848

       For the purposes of division (I)(3) of this section:133849

       (a) A trust resides in this state for the trust's current 133850
taxable year to the extent, as described in division (I)(3)(d) of 133851
this section, that the trust consists directly or indirectly, in 133852
whole or in part, of assets, net of any related liabilities, that 133853
were transferred, or caused to be transferred, directly or 133854
indirectly, to the trust by any of the following:133855

        (i) A person, a court, or a governmental entity or 133856
instrumentality on account of the death of a decedent, but only if 133857
the trust is described in division (I)(3)(e)(i) or (ii) of this 133858
section;133859

       (ii) A person who was domiciled in this state for the 133860
purposes of this chapter when the person directly or indirectly 133861
transferred assets to an irrevocable trust, but only if at least 133862
one of the trust's qualifying beneficiaries is domiciled in this 133863
state for the purposes of this chapter during all or some portion 133864
of the trust's current taxable year;133865

       (iii) A person who was domiciled in this state for the 133866
purposes of this chapter when the trust document or instrument or 133867
part of the trust document or instrument became irrevocable, but 133868
only if at least one of the trust's qualifying beneficiaries is a 133869
resident domiciled in this state for the purposes of this chapter 133870
during all or some portion of the trust's current taxable year. If 133871
a trust document or instrument became irrevocable upon the death 133872
of a person who at the time of death was domiciled in this state 133873
for purposes of this chapter, that person is a person described in 133874
division (I)(3)(a)(iii) of this section.133875

        (b) A trust is irrevocable to the extent that the transferor 133876
is not considered to be the owner of the net assets of the trust 133877
under sections 671 to 678 of the Internal Revenue Code.133878

       (c) With respect to a trust other than a charitable lead 133879
trust, "qualifying beneficiary" has the same meaning as "potential 133880
current beneficiary" as defined in section 1361(e)(2) of the 133881
Internal Revenue Code, and with respect to a charitable lead trust 133882
"qualifying beneficiary" is any current, future, or contingent 133883
beneficiary, but with respect to any trust "qualifying 133884
beneficiary" excludes a person or a governmental entity or 133885
instrumentality to any of which a contribution would qualify for 133886
the charitable deduction under section 170 of the Internal Revenue 133887
Code.133888

        (d) For the purposes of division (I)(3)(a) of this section, 133889
the extent to which a trust consists directly or indirectly, in 133890
whole or in part, of assets, net of any related liabilities, that 133891
were transferred directly or indirectly, in whole or part, to the 133892
trust by any of the sources enumerated in that division shall be 133893
ascertained by multiplying the fair market value of the trust's 133894
assets, net of related liabilities, by the qualifying ratio, which 133895
shall be computed as follows:133896

        (i) The first time the trust receives assets, the numerator 133897
of the qualifying ratio is the fair market value of those assets 133898
at that time, net of any related liabilities, from sources 133899
enumerated in division (I)(3)(a) of this section. The denominator 133900
of the qualifying ratio is the fair market value of all the 133901
trust's assets at that time, net of any related liabilities.133902

        (ii) Each subsequent time the trust receives assets, a 133903
revised qualifying ratio shall be computed. The numerator of the 133904
revised qualifying ratio is the sum of (1) the fair market value 133905
of the trust's assets immediately prior to the subsequent 133906
transfer, net of any related liabilities, multiplied by the 133907
qualifying ratio last computed without regard to the subsequent 133908
transfer, and (2) the fair market value of the subsequently 133909
transferred assets at the time transferred, net of any related 133910
liabilities, from sources enumerated in division (I)(3)(a) of this 133911
section. The denominator of the revised qualifying ratio is the 133912
fair market value of all the trust's assets immediately after the 133913
subsequent transfer, net of any related liabilities.133914

       (iii) Whether a transfer to the trust is by or from any of 133915
the sources enumerated in division (I)(3)(a) of this section shall 133916
be ascertained without regard to the domicile of the trust's 133917
beneficiaries.133918

        (e) For the purposes of division (I)(3)(a)(i) of this 133919
section:133920

        (i) A trust is described in division (I)(3)(e)(i) of this 133921
section if the trust is a testamentary trust and the testator of 133922
that testamentary trust was domiciled in this state at the time of 133923
the testator's death for purposes of the taxes levied under 133924
Chapter 5731. of the Revised Code.133925

        (ii) A trust is described in division (I)(3)(e)(ii) of this 133926
section if the transfer is a qualifying transfer described in any 133927
of divisions (I)(3)(f)(i) to (vi) of this section, the trust is an 133928
irrevocable inter vivos trust, and at least one of the trust's 133929
qualifying beneficiaries is domiciled in this state for purposes 133930
of this chapter during all or some portion of the trust's current 133931
taxable year.133932

        (f) For the purposes of division (I)(3)(e)(ii) of this 133933
section, a "qualifying transfer" is a transfer of assets, net of 133934
any related liabilities, directly or indirectly to a trust, if the 133935
transfer is described in any of the following:133936

        (i) The transfer is made to a trust, created by the decedent 133937
before the decedent's death and while the decedent was domiciled 133938
in this state for the purposes of this chapter, and, prior to the 133939
death of the decedent, the trust became irrevocable while the 133940
decedent was domiciled in this state for the purposes of this 133941
chapter.133942

        (ii) The transfer is made to a trust to which the decedent, 133943
prior to the decedent's death, had directly or indirectly 133944
transferred assets, net of any related liabilities, while the 133945
decedent was domiciled in this state for the purposes of this 133946
chapter, and prior to the death of the decedent the trust became 133947
irrevocable while the decedent was domiciled in this state for the 133948
purposes of this chapter.133949

        (iii) The transfer is made on account of a contractual 133950
relationship existing directly or indirectly between the 133951
transferor and either the decedent or the estate of the decedent 133952
at any time prior to the date of the decedent's death, and the 133953
decedent was domiciled in this state at the time of death for 133954
purposes of the taxes levied under Chapter 5731. of the Revised 133955
Code.133956

        (iv) The transfer is made to a trust on account of a 133957
contractual relationship existing directly or indirectly between 133958
the transferor and another person who at the time of the 133959
decedent's death was domiciled in this state for purposes of this 133960
chapter.133961

        (v) The transfer is made to a trust on account of the will of 133962
a testator who was domiciled in this state at the time of the 133963
testator's death for purposes of the taxes levied under Chapter 133964
5731. of the Revised Code.133965

        (vi) The transfer is made to a trust created by or caused to 133966
be created by a court, and the trust was directly or indirectly 133967
created in connection with or as a result of the death of an 133968
individual who, for purposes of the taxes levied under Chapter 133969
5731. of the Revised Code, was domiciled in this state at the time 133970
of the individual's death.133971

       (g) The tax commissioner may adopt rules to ascertain the 133972
part of a trust residing in this state.133973

       (J) "Nonresident" means an individual or estate that is not a 133974
resident. An individual who is a resident for only part of a 133975
taxable year is a nonresident for the remainder of that taxable 133976
year.133977

       (K) "Pass-through entity" has the same meaning as in section 133978
5733.04 of the Revised Code.133979

       (L) "Return" means the notifications and reports required to 133980
be filed pursuant to this chapter for the purpose of reporting the 133981
tax due and includes declarations of estimated tax when so 133982
required.133983

       (M) "Taxable year" means the calendar year or the taxpayer's 133984
fiscal year ending during the calendar year, or fractional part 133985
thereof, upon which the adjusted gross income is calculated 133986
pursuant to this chapter.133987

       (N) "Taxpayer" means any person subject to the tax imposed by 133988
section 5747.02 of the Revised Code or any pass-through entity 133989
that makes the election under division (D) of section 5747.08 of 133990
the Revised Code.133991

       (O) "Dependents" means dependents as defined in the Internal 133992
Revenue Code and as claimed in the taxpayer's federal income tax 133993
return for the taxable year or which the taxpayer would have been 133994
permitted to claim had the taxpayer filed a federal income tax 133995
return.133996

       (P) "Principal county of employment" means, in the case of a 133997
nonresident, the county within the state in which a taxpayer 133998
performs services for an employer or, if those services are 133999
performed in more than one county, the county in which the major 134000
portion of the services are performed.134001

       (Q) As used in sections 5747.50 to 5747.55 of the Revised 134002
Code:134003

       (1) "Subdivision" means any county, municipal corporation, 134004
park district, or township.134005

       (2) "Essential local government purposes" includes all 134006
functions that any subdivision is required by general law to 134007
exercise, including like functions that are exercised under a 134008
charter adopted pursuant to the Ohio Constitution.134009

       (R) "Overpayment" means any amount already paid that exceeds 134010
the figure determined to be the correct amount of the tax.134011

       (S) "Taxable income" or "Ohio taxable income" applies only to 134012
estates and trusts, and means federal taxable income, as defined 134013
and used in the Internal Revenue Code, adjusted as follows:134014

       (1) Add interest or dividends, net of ordinary, necessary, 134015
and reasonable expenses not deducted in computing federal taxable 134016
income, on obligations or securities of any state or of any 134017
political subdivision or authority of any state, other than this 134018
state and its subdivisions and authorities, but only to the extent 134019
that such net amount is not otherwise includible in Ohio taxable 134020
income and is described in either division (S)(1)(a) or (b) of 134021
this section:134022

        (a) The net amount is not attributable to the S portion of an 134023
electing small business trust and has not been distributed to 134024
beneficiaries for the taxable year;134025

        (b) The net amount is attributable to the S portion of an 134026
electing small business trust for the taxable year.134027

       (2) Add interest or dividends, net of ordinary, necessary, 134028
and reasonable expenses not deducted in computing federal taxable 134029
income, on obligations of any authority, commission, 134030
instrumentality, territory, or possession of the United States to 134031
the extent that the interest or dividends are exempt from federal 134032
income taxes but not from state income taxes, but only to the 134033
extent that such net amount is not otherwise includible in Ohio 134034
taxable income and is described in either division (S)(1)(a) or 134035
(b) of this section;134036

       (3) Add the amount of personal exemption allowed to the 134037
estate pursuant to section 642(b) of the Internal Revenue Code;134038

       (4) Deduct interest or dividends, net of related expenses 134039
deducted in computing federal taxable income, on obligations of 134040
the United States and its territories and possessions or of any 134041
authority, commission, or instrumentality of the United States to 134042
the extent that the interest or dividends are exempt from state 134043
taxes under the laws of the United States, but only to the extent 134044
that such amount is included in federal taxable income and is 134045
described in either division (S)(1)(a) or (b) of this section;134046

       (5) Deduct the amount of wages and salaries, if any, not 134047
otherwise allowable as a deduction but that would have been 134048
allowable as a deduction in computing federal taxable income for 134049
the taxable year, had the targeted jobs credit allowed under 134050
sections 38, 51, and 52 of the Internal Revenue Code not been in 134051
effect, but only to the extent such amount relates either to 134052
income included in federal taxable income for the taxable year or 134053
to income of the S portion of an electing small business trust for 134054
the taxable year;134055

       (6) Deduct any interest or interest equivalent, net of 134056
related expenses deducted in computing federal taxable income, on 134057
public obligations and purchase obligations, but only to the 134058
extent that such net amount relates either to income included in 134059
federal taxable income for the taxable year or to income of the S 134060
portion of an electing small business trust for the taxable year;134061

       (7) Add any loss or deduct any gain resulting from sale, 134062
exchange, or other disposition of public obligations to the extent 134063
that such loss has been deducted or such gain has been included in 134064
computing either federal taxable income or income of the S portion 134065
of an electing small business trust for the taxable year;134066

       (8) Except in the case of the final return of an estate, add 134067
any amount deducted by the taxpayer on both its Ohio estate tax 134068
return pursuant to section 5731.14 of the Revised Code, and on its 134069
federal income tax return in determining federal taxable income;134070

       (9)(a) Deduct any amount included in federal taxable income 134071
solely because the amount represents a reimbursement or refund of 134072
expenses that in a previous year the decedent had deducted as an 134073
itemized deduction pursuant to section 63 of the Internal Revenue 134074
Code and applicable treasury regulations. The deduction otherwise 134075
allowed under division (S)(9)(a) of this section shall be reduced 134076
to the extent the reimbursement is attributable to an amount the 134077
taxpayer or decedent deducted under this section in any taxable 134078
year.134079

       (b) Add any amount not otherwise included in Ohio taxable 134080
income for any taxable year to the extent that the amount is 134081
attributable to the recovery during the taxable year of any amount 134082
deducted or excluded in computing federal or Ohio taxable income 134083
in any taxable year, but only to the extent such amount has not 134084
been distributed to beneficiaries for the taxable year.134085

       (10) Deduct any portion of the deduction described in section 134086
1341(a)(2) of the Internal Revenue Code, for repaying previously 134087
reported income received under a claim of right, that meets both 134088
of the following requirements:134089

       (a) It is allowable for repayment of an item that was 134090
included in the taxpayer's taxable income or the decedent's 134091
adjusted gross income for a prior taxable year and did not qualify 134092
for a credit under division (A) or (B) of section 5747.05 of the 134093
Revised Code for that year.134094

       (b) It does not otherwise reduce the taxpayer's taxable 134095
income or the decedent's adjusted gross income for the current or 134096
any other taxable year.134097

       (11) Add any amount claimed as a credit under section 134098
5747.059 or 5747.65 of the Revised Code to the extent that the 134099
amount satisfies either of the following:134100

       (a) The amount was deducted or excluded from the computation 134101
of the taxpayer's federal taxable income as required to be 134102
reported for the taxpayer's taxable year under the Internal 134103
Revenue Code;134104

       (b) The amount resulted in a reduction in the taxpayer's 134105
federal taxable income as required to be reported for any of the 134106
taxpayer's taxable years under the Internal Revenue Code.134107

       (12) Deduct any amount, net of related expenses deducted in 134108
computing federal taxable income, that a trust is required to 134109
report as farm income on its federal income tax return, but only 134110
if the assets of the trust include at least ten acres of land 134111
satisfying the definition of "land devoted exclusively to 134112
agricultural use" under section 5713.30 of the Revised Code, 134113
regardless of whether the land is valued for tax purposes as such 134114
land under sections 5713.30 to 5713.38 of the Revised Code. If the 134115
trust is a pass-through entity investor, section 5747.231 of the 134116
Revised Code applies in ascertaining if the trust is eligible to 134117
claim the deduction provided by division (S)(12) of this section 134118
in connection with the pass-through entity's farm income.134119

        Except for farm income attributable to the S portion of an 134120
electing small business trust, the deduction provided by division 134121
(S)(12) of this section is allowed only to the extent that the 134122
trust has not distributed such farm income. Division (S)(12) of 134123
this section applies only to taxable years of a trust beginning in 134124
2002 or thereafter.134125

       (13) Add the net amount of income described in section 641(c) 134126
of the Internal Revenue Code to the extent that amount is not 134127
included in federal taxable income.134128

       (14) Add or deduct the amount the taxpayer would be required 134129
to add or deduct under division (A)(20) or (21) of this section if 134130
the taxpayer's Ohio taxable income were computed in the same 134131
manner as an individual's Ohio adjusted gross income is computed 134132
under this section. In the case of a trust, division (S)(14) of 134133
this section applies only to any of the trust's taxable years 134134
beginning in 2002 or thereafter.134135

       (T) "School district income" and "school district income tax" 134136
have the same meanings as in section 5748.01 of the Revised Code.134137

       (U) As used in divisions (A)(8), (A)(9), (S)(6), and (S)(7) 134138
of this section, "public obligations," "purchase obligations," and 134139
"interest or interest equivalent" have the same meanings as in 134140
section 5709.76 of the Revised Code.134141

       (V) "Limited liability company" means any limited liability 134142
company formed under Chapter 1705. of the Revised Code or under 134143
the laws of any other state.134144

       (W) "Pass-through entity investor" means any person who, 134145
during any portion of a taxable year of a pass-through entity, is 134146
a partner, member, shareholder, or equity investor in that 134147
pass-through entity.134148

       (X) "Banking day" has the same meaning as in section 1304.01 134149
of the Revised Code.134150

       (Y) "Month" means a calendar month.134151

       (Z) "Quarter" means the first three months, the second three 134152
months, the third three months, or the last three months of the 134153
taxpayer's taxable year.134154

       (AA)(1) "Eligible institution" means a state university or 134155
state institution of higher education as defined in section 134156
3345.011 of the Revised Code, or a private, nonprofit college, 134157
university, or other post-secondary institution located in this 134158
state that possesses a certificate of authorization issued by the 134159
Ohio board of regents pursuant to Chapter 1713. of the Revised 134160
Code or a certificate of registration issued by the state board of 134161
career colleges and schools under Chapter 3332. of the Revised 134162
Code.134163

       (2) "Qualified tuition and fees" means tuition and fees 134164
imposed by an eligible institution as a condition of enrollment or 134165
attendance, not exceeding two thousand five hundred dollars in 134166
each of the individual's first two years of post-secondary 134167
education. If the individual is a part-time student, "qualified 134168
tuition and fees" includes tuition and fees paid for the academic 134169
equivalent of the first two years of post-secondary education 134170
during a maximum of five taxable years, not exceeding a total of 134171
five thousand dollars. "Qualified tuition and fees" does not 134172
include:134173

       (a) Expenses for any course or activity involving sports, 134174
games, or hobbies unless the course or activity is part of the 134175
individual's degree or diploma program;134176

       (b) The cost of books, room and board, student activity fees, 134177
athletic fees, insurance expenses, or other expenses unrelated to 134178
the individual's academic course of instruction;134179

       (c) Tuition, fees, or other expenses paid or reimbursed 134180
through an employer, scholarship, grant in aid, or other 134181
educational benefit program.134182

       (BB)(1) "Modified business income" means the business income 134183
included in a trust's Ohio taxable income after such taxable 134184
income is first reduced by the qualifying trust amount, if any.134185

       (2) "Qualifying trust amount" of a trust means capital gains 134186
and losses from the sale, exchange, or other disposition of equity 134187
or ownership interests in, or debt obligations of, a qualifying 134188
investee to the extent included in the trust's Ohio taxable 134189
income, but only if the following requirements are satisfied:134190

        (a) The book value of the qualifying investee's physical 134191
assets in this state and everywhere, as of the last day of the 134192
qualifying investee's fiscal or calendar year ending immediately 134193
prior to the date on which the trust recognizes the gain or loss, 134194
is available to the trust.134195

       (b) The requirements of section 5747.011 of the Revised Code 134196
are satisfied for the trust's taxable year in which the trust 134197
recognizes the gain or loss.134198

        Any gain or loss that is not a qualifying trust amount is 134199
modified business income, qualifying investment income, or 134200
modified nonbusiness income, as the case may be.134201

       (3) "Modified nonbusiness income" means a trust's Ohio 134202
taxable income other than modified business income, other than the 134203
qualifying trust amount, and other than qualifying investment 134204
income, as defined in section 5747.012 of the Revised Code, to the 134205
extent such qualifying investment income is not otherwise part of 134206
modified business income.134207

       (4) "Modified Ohio taxable income" applies only to trusts, 134208
and means the sum of the amounts described in divisions (BB)(4)(a) 134209
to (c) of this section:134210

       (a) The fraction, calculated under section 5747.013, and 134211
applying section 5747.231 of the Revised Code, multiplied by the 134212
sum of the following amounts:134213

        (i) The trust's modified business income;134214

        (ii) The trust's qualifying investment income, as defined in 134215
section 5747.012 of the Revised Code, but only to the extent the 134216
qualifying investment income does not otherwise constitute 134217
modified business income and does not otherwise constitute a 134218
qualifying trust amount.134219

       (b) The qualifying trust amount multiplied by a fraction, the 134220
numerator of which is the sum of the book value of the qualifying 134221
investee's physical assets in this state on the last day of the 134222
qualifying investee's fiscal or calendar year ending immediately 134223
prior to the day on which the trust recognizes the qualifying 134224
trust amount, and the denominator of which is the sum of the book 134225
value of the qualifying investee's total physical assets 134226
everywhere on the last day of the qualifying investee's fiscal or 134227
calendar year ending immediately prior to the day on which the 134228
trust recognizes the qualifying trust amount. If, for a taxable 134229
year, the trust recognizes a qualifying trust amount with respect 134230
to more than one qualifying investee, the amount described in 134231
division (BB)(4)(b) of this section shall equal the sum of the 134232
products so computed for each such qualifying investee.134233

       (c)(i) With respect to a trust or portion of a trust that is 134234
a resident as ascertained in accordance with division (I)(3)(d) of 134235
this section, its modified nonbusiness income.134236

        (ii) With respect to a trust or portion of a trust that is 134237
not a resident as ascertained in accordance with division 134238
(I)(3)(d) of this section, the amount of its modified nonbusiness 134239
income satisfying the descriptions in divisions (B)(2) to (5) of 134240
section 5747.20 of the Revised Code, except as otherwise provided 134241
in division (BB)(4)(c)(ii) of this section. With respect to a 134242
trust or portion of a trust that is not a resident as ascertained 134243
in accordance with division (I)(3)(d) of this section, the trust's 134244
portion of modified nonbusiness income recognized from the sale, 134245
exchange, or other disposition of a debt interest in or equity 134246
interest in a section 5747.212 entity, as defined in section 134247
5747.212 of the Revised Code, without regard to division (A) of 134248
that section, shall not be allocated to this state in accordance 134249
with section 5747.20 of the Revised Code but shall be apportioned 134250
to this state in accordance with division (B) of section 5747.212 134251
of the Revised Code without regard to division (A) of that 134252
section.134253

       If the allocation and apportionment of a trust's income under 134254
divisions (BB)(4)(a) and (c) of this section do not fairly 134255
represent the modified Ohio taxable income of the trust in this 134256
state, the alternative methods described in division (C) of 134257
section 5747.21 of the Revised Code may be applied in the manner 134258
and to the same extent provided in that section.134259

       (5)(a) Except as set forth in division (BB)(5)(b) of this 134260
section, "qualifying investee" means a person in which a trust has 134261
an equity or ownership interest, or a person or unit of government 134262
the debt obligations of either of which are owned by a trust. For 134263
the purposes of division (BB)(2)(a) of this section and for the 134264
purpose of computing the fraction described in division (BB)(4)(b) 134265
of this section, all of the following apply:134266

        (i) If the qualifying investee is a member of a qualifying 134267
controlled group on the last day of the qualifying investee's 134268
fiscal or calendar year ending immediately prior to the date on 134269
which the trust recognizes the gain or loss, then "qualifying 134270
investee" includes all persons in the qualifying controlled group 134271
on such last day.134272

        (ii) If the qualifying investee, or if the qualifying 134273
investee and any members of the qualifying controlled group of 134274
which the qualifying investee is a member on the last day of the 134275
qualifying investee's fiscal or calendar year ending immediately 134276
prior to the date on which the trust recognizes the gain or loss, 134277
separately or cumulatively own, directly or indirectly, on the 134278
last day of the qualifying investee's fiscal or calendar year 134279
ending immediately prior to the date on which the trust recognizes 134280
the qualifying trust amount, more than fifty per cent of the 134281
equity of a pass-through entity, then the qualifying investee and 134282
the other members are deemed to own the proportionate share of the 134283
pass-through entity's physical assets which the pass-through 134284
entity directly or indirectly owns on the last day of the 134285
pass-through entity's calendar or fiscal year ending within or 134286
with the last day of the qualifying investee's fiscal or calendar 134287
year ending immediately prior to the date on which the trust 134288
recognizes the qualifying trust amount.134289

        (iii) For the purposes of division (BB)(5)(a)(iii) of this 134290
section, "upper level pass-through entity" means a pass-through 134291
entity directly or indirectly owning any equity of another 134292
pass-through entity, and "lower level pass-through entity" means 134293
that other pass-through entity.134294

        An upper level pass-through entity, whether or not it is also 134295
a qualifying investee, is deemed to own, on the last day of the 134296
upper level pass-through entity's calendar or fiscal year, the 134297
proportionate share of the lower level pass-through entity's 134298
physical assets that the lower level pass-through entity directly 134299
or indirectly owns on the last day of the lower level pass-through 134300
entity's calendar or fiscal year ending within or with the last 134301
day of the upper level pass-through entity's fiscal or calendar 134302
year. If the upper level pass-through entity directly and 134303
indirectly owns less than fifty per cent of the equity of the 134304
lower level pass-through entity on each day of the upper level 134305
pass-through entity's calendar or fiscal year in which or with 134306
which ends the calendar or fiscal year of the lower level 134307
pass-through entity and if, based upon clear and convincing 134308
evidence, complete information about the location and cost of the 134309
physical assets of the lower pass-through entity is not available 134310
to the upper level pass-through entity, then solely for purposes 134311
of ascertaining if a gain or loss constitutes a qualifying trust 134312
amount, the upper level pass-through entity shall be deemed as 134313
owning no equity of the lower level pass-through entity for each 134314
day during the upper level pass-through entity's calendar or 134315
fiscal year in which or with which ends the lower level 134316
pass-through entity's calendar or fiscal year. Nothing in division 134317
(BB)(5)(a)(iii) of this section shall be construed to provide for 134318
any deduction or exclusion in computing any trust's Ohio taxable 134319
income.134320

       (b) With respect to a trust that is not a resident for the 134321
taxable year and with respect to a part of a trust that is not a 134322
resident for the taxable year, "qualifying investee" for that 134323
taxable year does not include a C corporation if both of the 134324
following apply:134325

       (i) During the taxable year the trust or part of the trust 134326
recognizes a gain or loss from the sale, exchange, or other 134327
disposition of equity or ownership interests in, or debt 134328
obligations of, the C corporation.134329

       (ii) Such gain or loss constitutes nonbusiness income.134330

        (6) "Available" means information is such that a person is 134331
able to learn of the information by the due date plus extensions, 134332
if any, for filing the return for the taxable year in which the 134333
trust recognizes the gain or loss.134334

        (CC) "Qualifying controlled group" has the same meaning as in 134335
section 5733.04 of the Revised Code.134336

        (DD) "Related member" has the same meaning as in section 134337
5733.042 of the Revised Code.134338

       (EE)(1) For the purposes of division (EE) of this section: 134339

       (a) "Qualifying person" means any person other than a 134340
qualifying corporation.134341

       (b) "Qualifying corporation" means any person classified for 134342
federal income tax purposes as an association taxable as a 134343
corporation, except either of the following:134344

       (i) A corporation that has made an election under subchapter 134345
S, chapter one, subtitle A, of the Internal Revenue Code for its 134346
taxable year ending within, or on the last day of, the investor's 134347
taxable year;134348

       (ii) A subsidiary that is wholly owned by any corporation 134349
that has made an election under subchapter S, chapter one, 134350
subtitle A of the Internal Revenue Code for its taxable year 134351
ending within, or on the last day of, the investor's taxable year.134352

       (2) For the purposes of this chapter, unless expressly stated 134353
otherwise, no qualifying person indirectly owns any asset directly 134354
or indirectly owned by any qualifying corporation.134355

       (FF) For purposes of this chapter and Chapter 5751. of the 134356
Revised Code:134357

       (1) "Trust" does not include a qualified pre-income tax 134358
trust.134359

       (2) A "qualified pre-income tax trust" is any pre-income tax 134360
trust that makes a qualifying pre-income tax trust election as 134361
described in division (FF)(3) of this section.134362

       (3) A "qualifying pre-income tax trust election" is an 134363
election by a pre-income tax trust to subject to the tax imposed 134364
by section 5751.02 of the Revised Code the pre-income tax trust 134365
and all pass-through entities of which the trust owns or controls, 134366
directly, indirectly, or constructively through related interests, 134367
five per cent or more of the ownership or equity interests. The 134368
trustee shall notify the tax commissioner in writing of the 134369
election on or before April 15, 2006. The election, if timely 134370
made, shall be effective on and after January 1, 2006, and shall 134371
apply for all tax periods and tax years until revoked by the 134372
trustee of the trust.134373

       (4) A "pre-income tax trust" is a trust that satisfies all of 134374
the following requirements:134375

       (a) The document or instrument creating the trust was 134376
executed by the grantor before January 1, 1972;134377

       (b) The trust became irrevocable upon the creation of the 134378
trust; and134379

       (c) The grantor was domiciled in this state at the time the 134380
trust was created.134381

       (GG) "Uniformed services" has the same meaning as in 10 134382
U.S.C. 101.134383

       Sec. 5747.02.  (A) For the purpose of providing revenue for 134384
the support of schools and local government functions, to provide 134385
relief to property taxpayers, to provide revenue for the general 134386
revenue fund, and to meet the expenses of administering the tax 134387
levied by this chapter, there is hereby levied on every 134388
individual, trust, and estate residing in or earning or receiving 134389
income in this state, on every individual, trust, and estate 134390
earning or receiving lottery winnings, prizes, or awards pursuant 134391
to Chapter 3770. of the Revised Code, on every individual, trust, 134392
and estate earning or receiving winnings on casino gaming, and on 134393
every individual, trust, and estate otherwise having nexus with or 134394
in this state under the Constitution of the United States, an 134395
annual tax measured in the case of individuals by Ohio adjusted 134396
gross income less an exemption for the taxpayer, the taxpayer's 134397
spouse, and each dependent as provided in section 5747.025 of the 134398
Revised Code; measured in the case of trusts by modified Ohio 134399
taxable income under division (D) of this section; and measured in 134400
the case of estates by Ohio taxable income. The tax imposed by 134401
this section on the balance thus obtained is hereby levied as 134402
follows: 134403

       (1) For taxable years beginning in 2004: 134404

OHIO ADJUSTED GROSS INCOME LESS EXEMPTIONS (INDIVIDUALS) 134405
OR 134406
MODIFIED OHIO 134407
TAXABLE INCOME (TRUSTS) 134408
OR 134409
OHIO TAXABLE INCOME (ESTATES) TAX 134410

$5,000 or less .743% 134411
More than $5,000 but not more than $10,000 $37.15 plus 1.486% of the amount in excess of $5,000 134412
More than $10,000 but not more than $15,000 $111.45 plus 2.972% of the amount in excess of $10,000 134413
More than $15,000 but not more than $20,000 $260.05 plus 3.715% of the amount in excess of $15,000 134414
More than $20,000 but not more than $40,000 $445.80 plus 4.457% of the amount in excess of $20,000 134415
More than $40,000 but not more than $80,000 $1,337.20 plus 5.201% of the amount in excess of $40,000 134416
More than $80,000 but not more than $100,000 $3,417.60 plus 5.943% of the amount in excess of $80,000 134417
More than $100,000 but not more than $200,000 $4,606.20 plus 6.9% of the amount in excess of $100,000 134418
More than $200,000 $11,506.20 plus 7.5% of the amount in excess of $200,000 134419

       (2) For taxable years beginning in 2005: 134420

OHIO ADJUSTED GROSS INCOME LESS EXEMPTIONS (INDIVIDUALS) 134421
OR 134422
MODIFIED OHIO 134423
TAXABLE INCOME (TRUSTS) 134424
OR 134425
OHIO TAXABLE INCOME (ESTATES) TAX 134426

$5,000 or less .712% 134427
More than $5,000 but not more than $10,000 $35.60 plus 1.424% of the amount in excess of $5,000 134428
More than $10,000 but not more than $15,000 $106.80 plus 2.847% of the amount in excess of $10,000 134429
More than $15,000 but not more than $20,000 $249.15 plus 3.559% of the amount in excess of $15,000 134430
More than $20,000 but not more than $40,000 $427.10 plus 4.27% of the amount in excess of $20,000 134431
More than $40,000 but not more than $80,000 $1,281.10 plus 4.983% of the amount in excess of $40,000 134432
More than $80,000 but not more than $100,000 $3,274.30 plus 5.693% of the amount in excess of $80,000 134433
More than $100,000 but not more than $200,000 $4,412.90 plus 6.61% of the amount in excess of $100,000 134434
More than $200,000 $11,022.90 plus 7.185% of the amount in excess of $200,000 134435

       (3) For taxable years beginning in 2006: 134436

OHIO ADJUSTED GROSS INCOME LESS EXEMPTIONS (INDIVIDUALS) 134437
OR 134438
MODIFIED OHIO 134439
TAXABLE INCOME (TRUSTS) 134440
OR 134441
OHIO TAXABLE INCOME (ESTATES) TAX 134442

$5,000 or less .681% 134443
More than $5,000 but not more than $10,000 $34.05 plus 1.361% of the amount in excess of $5,000 134444
More than $10,000 but not more than $15,000 $102.10 plus 2.722% of the amount in excess of $10,000 134445
More than $15,000 but not more than $20,000 $238.20 plus 3.403% of the amount in excess of $15,000 134446
More than $20,000 but not more than $40,000 $408.35 plus 4.083% of the amount in excess of $20,000 134447
More than $40,000 but not more than $80,000 $1,224.95 plus 4.764% of the amount in excess of $40,000 134448
More than $80,000 but not more than $100,000 $3,130.55 plus 5.444% of the amount in excess of $80,000 134449
More than $100,000 but not more than $200,000 $4,219.35 plus 6.32% of the amount in excess of $100,000 134450
More than $200,000 $10,539.35 plus 6.87% of the amount in excess of $200,000 134451

       (4) For taxable years beginning in 2007: 134452

OHIO ADJUSTED GROSS INCOME LESS EXEMPTIONS (INDIVIDUALS) 134453
OR 134454
MODIFIED OHIO 134455
TAXABLE INCOME (TRUSTS) 134456
OR 134457
OHIO TAXABLE INCOME (ESTATES) TAX 134458

$5,000 or less .649% 134459
More than $5,000 but not more than $10,000 $32.45 plus 1.299% of the amount in excess of $5,000 134460
More than $10,000 but not more than $15,000 $97.40 plus 2.598% of the amount in excess of $10,000 134461
More than $15,000 but not more than $20,000 $227.30 plus 3.247% of the amount in excess of $15,000 134462
More than $20,000 but not more than $40,000 $389.65 plus 3.895% of the amount in excess of $20,000 134463
More than $40,000 but not more than $80,000 $1,168.65 plus 4.546% of the amount in excess of $40,000 134464
More than $80,000 but not more than $100,000 $2,987.05 plus 5.194% of the amount in excess of $80,000 134465
More than $100,000 but not more than $200,000 $4,025.85 plus 6.031% of the amount in excess of $100,000 134466
More than $200,000 $10,056.85 plus 6.555% of the amount in excess of $200,000 134467

       (5) For taxable years beginning in 2008, 2009, or 2010: 134468

OHIO ADJUSTED GROSS INCOME LESS EXEMPTIONS (INDIVIDUALS) 134469
OR 134470
MODIFIED OHIO 134471
TAXABLE INCOME (TRUSTS) 134472
OR 134473
OHIO TAXABLE INCOME (ESTATES) TAX 134474

$5,000 or less .618% 134475
More than $5,000 but not more than $10,000 $30.90 plus 1.236% of the amount in excess of $5,000 134476
More than $10,000 but not more than $15,000 $92.70 plus 2.473% of the amount in excess of $10,000 134477
More than $15,000 but not more than $20,000 $216.35 plus 3.091% of the amount in excess of $15,000 134478
More than $20,000 but not more than $40,000 $370.90 plus 3.708% of the amount in excess of $20,000 134479
More than $40,000 but not more than $80,000 $1,112.50 plus 4.327% of the amount in excess of $40,000 134480
More than $80,000 but not more than $100,000 $2,843.30 plus 4.945% of the amount in excess of $80,000 134481
More than $100,000 but not more than $200,000 $3,832.30 plus 5.741% of the amount in excess of $100,000 134482
More than $200,000 $9,573.30 plus 6.24% of the amount in excess of $200,000 134483

       (6) For taxable years beginning in 2011 or thereafter: 134484

OHIO ADJUSTED GROSS INCOME LESS EXEMPTIONS (INDIVIDUALS) 134485
OR 134486
MODIFIED OHIO 134487
TAXABLE INCOME (TRUSTS) 134488
OR 134489
OHIO TAXABLE INCOME (ESTATES) TAX 134490

$5,000 or less .587% 134491
More than $5,000 but not more than $10,000 $29.35 plus 1.174% of the amount in excess of $5,000 134492
More than $10,000 but not more than $15,000 $88.05 plus 2.348% of the amount in excess of $10,000 134493
More than $15,000 but not more than $20,000 $205.45 plus 2.935% of the amount in excess of $15,000 134494
More than $20,000 but not more than $40,000 $352.20 plus 3.521% of the amount in excess of $20,000 134495
More than $40,000 but not more than $80,000 $1,056.40 plus 4.109% of the amount in excess of $40,000 134496
More than $80,000 but not more than $100,000 $2,700.00 plus 4.695% of the amount in excess of $80,000 134497
More than $100,000 but not more than $200,000 $3,639.00 plus 5.451% of the amount in excess of $100,000 134498
More than $200,000 $9,090.00 plus 5.925% of the amount in excess of $200,000 134499

       In JulyAugust of each year, beginning in 2010, the tax 134500
commissioner shall adjust the income amounts prescribed in this 134501
division by multiplying the percentage increase in the gross 134502
domestic product deflator computed that year under section 134503
5747.025 of the Revised Code by each of the income amounts 134504
resulting from the adjustment under this division in the preceding 134505
year, adding the resulting product to the corresponding income 134506
amount resulting from the adjustment in the preceding year, and 134507
rounding the resulting sum to the nearest multiple of fifty 134508
dollars. The tax commissioner also shall recompute each of the tax 134509
dollar amounts to the extent necessary to reflect the adjustment 134510
of the income amounts. The rates of taxation shall not be 134511
adjusted. 134512

       The adjusted amounts apply to taxable years beginning in the 134513
calendar year in which the adjustments are made. The tax 134514
commissioner shall not make such adjustments in any year in which 134515
the amount resulting from the adjustment would be less than the 134516
amount resulting from the adjustment in the preceding year. 134517

       (B) If the director of budget and management makes a 134518
certification to the tax commissioner under division (B) of 134519
section 131.44 of the Revised Code, the amount of tax as 134520
determined under division (A) of this section shall be reduced by 134521
the percentage prescribed in that certification for taxable years 134522
beginning in the calendar year in which that certification is 134523
made. 134524

       (C) The levy of this tax on income does not prevent a 134525
municipal corporation, a joint economic development zone created 134526
under section 715.691, or a joint economic development district 134527
created under section 715.70 or 715.71 or sections 715.72 to 134528
715.81 of the Revised Code from levying a tax on income. 134529

       (D) This division applies only to taxable years of a trust 134530
beginning in 2002 or thereafter. 134531

       (1) The tax imposed by this section on a trust shall be 134532
computed by multiplying the Ohio modified taxable income of the 134533
trust by the rates prescribed by division (A) of this section. 134534

       (2) A resident trust may claim a credit against the tax 134535
computed under division (D) of this section equal to the lesser of 134536
(1) the tax paid to another state or the District of Columbia on 134537
the resident trust's modified nonbusiness income, other than the 134538
portion of the resident trust's nonbusiness income that is 134539
qualifying investment income as defined in section 5747.012 of the 134540
Revised Code, or (2) the effective tax rate, based on modified 134541
Ohio taxable income, multiplied by the resident trust's modified 134542
nonbusiness income other than the portion of the resident trust's 134543
nonbusiness income that is qualifying investment income. The 134544
credit applies before any other applicable credits. 134545

       (3) The credits enumerated in divisions (A)(1) to (13) of 134546
section 5747.98 of the Revised Code do not apply to a trust 134547
subject to division (D) of this section. Any credits enumerated in 134548
other divisions of section 5747.98 of the Revised Code apply to a 134549
trust subject to division (D) of this section. To the extent that 134550
the trust distributes income for the taxable year for which a 134551
credit is available to the trust, the credit shall be shared by 134552
the trust and its beneficiaries. The tax commissioner and the 134553
trust shall be guided by applicable regulations of the United 134554
States treasury regarding the sharing of credits. 134555

       (E) For the purposes of this section, "trust" means any trust 134556
described in Subchapter J of Chapter 1 of the Internal Revenue 134557
Code, excluding trusts that are not irrevocable as defined in 134558
division (I)(3)(b) of section 5747.01 of the Revised Code and that 134559
have no modified Ohio taxable income for the taxable year, 134560
charitable remainder trusts, qualified funeral trusts and preneed 134561
funeral contract trusts established pursuant to sections 4717.31 134562
to 4717.38 of the Revised Code that are not qualified funeral 134563
trusts, endowment and perpetual care trusts, qualified settlement 134564
trusts and funds, designated settlement trusts and funds, and 134565
trusts exempted from taxation under section 501(a) of the Internal 134566
Revenue Code. 134567

       Sec. 5747.022.  An individual subject to the tax imposed by 134568
section 5747.02 of the Revised Code may claim a credit equal to 134569
twenty dollars times the number of exemptions allowed for the 134570
taxpayer, histhe taxpayer's spouse, and each dependent under 134571
section 5747.02 of the Revised Code. The credit shall be claimed 134572
in the order required under section 5747.98 of the Revised Code. 134573
The credit shall not be considered in determining the taxes 134574
required to be withheld under section 5747.06 of the Revised Code 134575
or the estimated taxes required to be paid under section 5747.09 134576
of the Revised Code. In the case of an individual with respect to 134577
whom an exemption under section 5747.02 of the Revised Code is 134578
allowable to another taxpayer for a taxable year beginning in the 134579
calendar year in which the individual's taxable year begins, the 134580
"number of exemptions allowed" for purposes of calculating the 134581
credit allowed under this section to such individual for the 134582
individual's taxable year shall not include an exemption for the 134583
individual.134584

       Sec. 5747.025.  (A) TheExcept as otherwise provided in this 134585
division, the personal exemption for the taxpayer and the 134586
taxpayer's spouse shall be seven hundred fifty dollars each for 134587
the taxable year beginning in 1996, eight hundred fifty dollars 134588
each for the taxable year beginning in 1997, nine hundred fifty 134589
dollars each for the taxable year beginning in 1998, and one 134590
thousand fifty dollars each for the taxable year beginning in 1999 134591
and taxable years beginning after 1999. The personal exemption 134592
amount prescribed in this division for taxable years beginning 134593
after 1999 shall be adjusted each year in the manner prescribed in 134594
division (C) of this section. In the case of an individual with 134595
respect to whom an exemption under section 5747.02 of the Revised 134596
Code is allowable to another taxpayer for a taxable year beginning 134597
in the calendar year in which the individual's taxable year 134598
begins, the exemption amount applicable to such individual for 134599
such individual's taxable year shall be zero.134600

       (B) The personal exemption for each dependent shall be eight 134601
hundred fifty dollars for the taxable year beginning in 1996, and 134602
one thousand fifty dollars for the taxable year beginning in 1997 134603
and taxable years beginning after 1997. The personal exemption 134604
amount prescribed in this division for taxable years beginning 134605
after 1999 shall be adjusted each year in the manner prescribed in 134606
division (C) of this section.134607

       (C) In SeptemberAugust of each year, beginning in 2000, the 134608
tax commissioner shall determine the percentage increase in the 134609
gross domestic product deflator determined by the bureau of 134610
economic analysis of the United States department of commerce from 134611
the first day of January of the preceding calendar year to the 134612
last day of December of the preceding year, and adjust the 134613
personal exemption amount for taxable years beginning in the 134614
current calendar year by multiplying that amount by the percentage 134615
increase in the gross domestic product deflator for that period; 134616
adding the resulting product to the personal exemption amount for 134617
taxable years beginning in the preceding calendar year; and 134618
rounding the resulting sum upward to the nearest multiple of fifty 134619
dollars. The commissioner shall not make such an adjustment in any 134620
calendar year in which the amount resulting from the adjustment 134621
would be less than the amount resulting from the adjustment in the 134622
preceding calendar year.134623

       Sec. 5747.08.  An annual return with respect to the tax 134624
imposed by section 5747.02 of the Revised Code and each tax 134625
imposed under Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code shall be made by 134626
every taxpayer for any taxable year for which the taxpayer is 134627
liable for the tax imposed by that section or under that chapter, 134628
unless the total credits allowed under divisions (E), (F), and (G) 134629
of section 5747.05 of the Revised Code for the year are equal to 134630
or exceed the tax imposed by section 5747.02 of the Revised Code, 134631
in which case no return shall be required unless the taxpayer is 134632
liable for a tax imposed pursuant to Chapter 5748. of the Revised 134633
Code.134634

       (A) If an individual is deceased, any return or notice 134635
required of that individual under this chapter shall be made and 134636
filed by that decedent's executor, administrator, or other person 134637
charged with the property of that decedent.134638

       (B) If an individual is unable to make a return or notice 134639
required by this chapter, the return or notice required of that 134640
individual shall be made and filed by the individual's duly 134641
authorized agent, guardian, conservator, fiduciary, or other 134642
person charged with the care of the person or property of that 134643
individual.134644

       (C) Returns or notices required of an estate or a trust shall 134645
be made and filed by the fiduciary of the estate or trust.134646

       (D)(1)(a) Except as otherwise provided in division (D)(1)(b) 134647
of this section, any pass-through entity may file a single return 134648
on behalf of one or more of the entity's investors other than an 134649
investor that is a person subject to the tax imposed under section 134650
5733.06 of the Revised Code. The single return shall set forth the 134651
name, address, and social security number or other identifying 134652
number of each of those pass-through entity investors and shall 134653
indicate the distributive share of each of those pass-through 134654
entity investor's income taxable in this state in accordance with 134655
sections 5747.20 to 5747.231 of the Revised Code. Such 134656
pass-through entity investors for whom the pass-through entity 134657
elects to file a single return are not entitled to the exemption 134658
or credit provided for by sections 5747.02 and 5747.022 of the 134659
Revised Code; shall calculate the tax before business credits at 134660
the highest rate of tax set forth in section 5747.02 of the 134661
Revised Code for the taxable year for which the return is filed; 134662
and are entitled to only their distributive share of the business 134663
credits as defined in division (D)(2) of this section. A single 134664
check drawn by the pass-through entity shall accompany the return 134665
in full payment of the tax due, as shown on the single return, for 134666
such investors, other than investors who are persons subject to 134667
the tax imposed under section 5733.06 of the Revised Code.134668

       (b)(i) A pass-through entity shall not include in such a 134669
single return any investor that is a trust to the extent that any 134670
direct or indirect current, future, or contingent beneficiary of 134671
the trust is a person subject to the tax imposed under section 134672
5733.06 of the Revised Code.134673

       (ii) A pass-through entity shall not include in such a single 134674
return any investor that is itself a pass-through entity to the 134675
extent that any direct or indirect investor in the second 134676
pass-through entity is a person subject to the tax imposed under 134677
section 5733.06 of the Revised Code.134678

       (c) Nothing in division (D) of this section precludes the tax 134679
commissioner from requiring such investors to file the return and 134680
make the payment of taxes and related interest, penalty, and 134681
interest penalty required by this section or section 5747.02, 134682
5747.09, or 5747.15 of the Revised Code. Nothing in division (D) 134683
of this section precludes such an investor from filing the annual 134684
return under this section, utilizing the refundable credit equal 134685
to the investor's proportionate share of the tax paid by the 134686
pass-through entity on behalf of the investor under division (J) 134687
of this section, and making the payment of taxes imposed under 134688
section 5747.02 of the Revised Code. Nothing in division (D) of 134689
this section shall be construed to provide to such an investor or 134690
pass-through entity any additional deduction or credit, other than 134691
the credit provided by division (J) of this section, solely on 134692
account of the entity's filing a return in accordance with this 134693
section. Such a pass-through entity also shall make the filing and 134694
payment of estimated taxes on behalf of the pass-through entity 134695
investors other than an investor that is a person subject to the 134696
tax imposed under section 5733.06 of the Revised Code.134697

       (2) For the purposes of this section, "business credits" 134698
means the credits listed in section 5747.98 of the Revised Code 134699
excluding the following credits:134700

       (a) The retirement credit under division (B) of section 134701
5747.055 of the Revised Code;134702

       (b) The senior citizen credit under division (C) of section 134703
5747.05 of the Revised Code;134704

       (c) The lump sum distribution credit under division (D) of 134705
section 5747.05 of the Revised Code;134706

       (d) The dependent care credit under section 5747.054 of the 134707
Revised Code;134708

       (e) The lump sum retirement income credit under division (C) 134709
of section 5747.055 of the Revised Code;134710

       (f) The lump sum retirement income credit under division (D) 134711
of section 5747.055 of the Revised Code;134712

       (g) The lump sum retirement income credit under division (E) 134713
of section 5747.055 of the Revised Code;134714

       (h) The credit for displaced workers who pay for job training 134715
under section 5747.27 of the Revised Code;134716

       (i) The twenty-dollar personal exemption credit under section 134717
5747.022 of the Revised Code;134718

       (j) The joint filing credit under division (G) of section 134719
5747.05 of the Revised Code;134720

       (k) The nonresident credit under division (A) of section 134721
5747.05 of the Revised Code;134722

       (l) The credit for a resident's out-of-state income under 134723
division (B) of section 5747.05 of the Revised Code;134724

       (m) The low-income credit under section 5747.056 of the 134725
Revised Code.134726

       (3) The election provided for under division (D) of this 134727
section applies only to the taxable year for which the election is 134728
made by the pass-through entity. Unless the tax commissioner 134729
provides otherwise, this election, once made, is binding and 134730
irrevocable for the taxable year for which the election is made. 134731
Nothing in this division shall be construed to provide for any 134732
deduction or credit that would not be allowable if a nonresident 134733
pass-through entity investor were to file an annual return.134734

       (4) If a pass-through entity makes the election provided for 134735
under division (D) of this section, the pass-through entity shall 134736
be liable for any additional taxes, interest, interest penalty, or 134737
penalties imposed by this chapter if the tax commissioner finds 134738
that the single return does not reflect the correct tax due by the 134739
pass-through entity investors covered by that return. Nothing in 134740
this division shall be construed to limit or alter the liability, 134741
if any, imposed on pass-through entity investors for unpaid or 134742
underpaid taxes, interest, interest penalty, or penalties as a 134743
result of the pass-through entity's making the election provided 134744
for under division (D) of this section. For the purposes of 134745
division (D) of this section, "correct tax due" means the tax that 134746
would have been paid by the pass-through entity had the single 134747
return been filed in a manner reflecting the commissioner's 134748
findings. Nothing in division (D) of this section shall be 134749
construed to make or hold a pass-through entity liable for tax 134750
attributable to a pass-through entity investor's income from a 134751
source other than the pass-through entity electing to file the 134752
single return.134753

       (E) If a husband and wife file a joint federal income tax 134754
return for a taxable year, they shall file a joint return under 134755
this section for that taxable year, and their liabilities are 134756
joint and several, but, if the federal income tax liability of 134757
either spouse is determined on a separate federal income tax 134758
return, they shall file separate returns under this section.134759

       If either spouse is not required to file a federal income tax 134760
return and either or both are required to file a return pursuant 134761
to this chapter, they may elect to file separate or joint returns, 134762
and, pursuant to that election, their liabilities are separate or 134763
joint and several. If a husband and wife file separate returns 134764
pursuant to this chapter, each must claim the taxpayer's own 134765
exemption, but not both, as authorized under section 5747.02 of 134766
the Revised Code on the taxpayer's own return.134767

       (F) Each return or notice required to be filed under this 134768
section shall contain the signature of the taxpayer or the 134769
taxpayer's duly authorized agent and of the person who prepared 134770
the return for the taxpayer, and shall include the taxpayer's 134771
social security number. Each return shall be verified by a 134772
declaration under the penalties of perjury. The tax commissioner 134773
shall prescribe the form that the signature and declaration shall 134774
take.134775

       (G) Each return or notice required to be filed under this 134776
section shall be made and filed as required by section 5747.04 of 134777
the Revised Code, on or before the fifteenth day of April of each 134778
year, on forms that the tax commissioner shall prescribe, together 134779
with remittance made payable to the treasurer of state in the 134780
combined amount of the state and all school district income taxes 134781
shown to be due on the form, unless the combined amount shown to 134782
be due is one dollar or less, in which case that amount need not 134783
be remitted.134784

       Upon good cause shown, the commissioner may extend the period 134785
for filing any notice or return required to be filed under this 134786
section and may adopt rules relating to extensions. If the 134787
extension results in an extension of time for the payment of any 134788
state or school district income tax liability with respect to 134789
which the return is filed, the taxpayer shall pay at the time the 134790
tax liability is paid an amount of interest computed at the rate 134791
per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code on 134792
that liability from the time that payment is due without extension 134793
to the time of actual payment. Except as provided in section 134794
5747.132 of the Revised Code, in addition to all other interest 134795
charges and penalties, all taxes imposed under this chapter or 134796
Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code and remaining unpaid after they 134797
become due, except combined amounts due of one dollar or less, 134798
bear interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 134799
of the Revised Code until paid or until the day an assessment is 134800
issued under section 5747.13 of the Revised Code, whichever occurs 134801
first.134802

       If the commissioner considers it necessary in order to ensure 134803
the payment of the tax imposed by section 5747.02 of the Revised 134804
Code or any tax imposed under Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code, 134805
the commissioner may require returns and payments to be made 134806
otherwise than as provided in this section.134807

       To the extent that any provision in this division conflicts 134808
with any provision in section 5747.026 of the Revised Code, the 134809
provision in that section prevails.134810

       (H) If any report, claim, statement, or other document 134811
required to be filed, or any payment required to be made, within a 134812
prescribed period or on or before a prescribed date under this 134813
chapter is delivered after that period or that date by United 134814
States mail to the agency, officer, or office with which the 134815
report, claim, statement, or other document is required to be 134816
filed, or to which the payment is required to be made, the date of 134817
the postmark stamped on the cover in which the report, claim, 134818
statement, or other document, or payment is mailed shall be deemed 134819
to be the date of delivery or the date of payment.134820

       If a payment is required to be made by electronic funds 134821
transfer pursuant to section 5747.072 of the Revised Code, the 134822
payment is considered to be made when the payment is received by 134823
the treasurer of state or credited to an account designated by the 134824
treasurer of state for the receipt of tax payments.134825

       "The date of the postmark" means, in the event there is more 134826
than one date on the cover, the earliest date imprinted on the 134827
cover by the United States postal service.134828

       (I) The amounts withheld by an employer pursuant to section 134829
5747.06 of the Revised Code, a casino operator pursuant to section 134830
5747.063 of the Revised Code, or a lottery sales agent pursuant to 134831
section 5747.064 of the Revised Code shall be allowed to the 134832
recipient of the compensation casino winnings, or lottery prize 134833
award as credits against payment of the appropriate taxes imposed 134834
on the recipient by section 5747.02 and under Chapter 5748. of the 134835
Revised Code.134836

       (J) If, in accordance with division (D) of this section, a 134837
pass-through entity elects to file a single return under division 134838
(D) of this section and if any investor is required to file the 134839
annual return and make the payment of taxes required by this 134840
chapter on account of the investor's other income that is not 134841
included in a single return filed by a pass-through entity or any 134842
other investor elects to file the annual return, the investor is 134843
entitled to a refundable credit equal to the investor's 134844
proportionate share of the tax paid by the pass-through entity on 134845
behalf of the investor. The investor shall claim the credit for 134846
the investor's taxable year in which or with which ends the 134847
taxable year of the pass-through entity. Nothing in this chapter 134848
shall be construed to allow any credit provided in this chapter to 134849
be claimed more than once. For the purposespurpose of computing 134850
any interest, penalty, or interest penalty, the investor shall be 134851
deemed to have paid the refundable credit provided by this 134852
division on the day that the pass-through entity paid the 134853
estimated tax or the tax giving rise to the credit.134854

       (K) The tax commissioner shall ensure that each return 134855
required to be filed under this section includes a box that the 134856
taxpayer may check to authorize a paid tax preparer who prepared 134857
the return to communicate with the department of taxation about 134858
matters pertaining to the return. The return or instructions 134859
accompanying the return shall indicate that by checking the box 134860
the taxpayer authorizes the department of taxation to contact the 134861
preparer concerning questions that arise during the processing of 134862
the return and authorizes the preparer only to provide the 134863
department with information that is missing from the return, to 134864
contact the department for information about the processing of the 134865
return or the status of the taxpayer's refund or payments, and to 134866
respond to notices about mathematical errors, offsets, or return 134867
preparation that the taxpayer has received from the department and 134868
has shown to the preparer.134869

       (L) The tax commissioner shall permit individual taxpayers to 134870
instruct the department of taxation to cause any refund of 134871
overpaid taxes to be deposited directly into a checking account, 134872
savings account, or an individual retirement account or individual 134873
retirement annuity, or preexisting college savings plan or program 134874
account offered by the Ohio tuition trust authority under Chapter 134875
3334. of the Revised Code, as designated by the taxpayer, when the 134876
taxpayer files the annual return required by this section 134877
electronically.134878

       (M) The tax commissioner may adopt rules to administer this 134879
section.134880

       Sec. 5747.10.  If any of the facts, figures, computations, or 134881
attachments required in a taxpayer's annual return to determine 134882
the tax charged by this chapter or Chapter 5748. of the Revised 134883
Code must be altered as the result of an adjustment to the 134884
taxpayer's federal income tax return, whether initiated by the 134885
taxpayer or the internal revenue service, and such alteration 134886
affects the taxpayer's tax liability under this chapter or Chapter 134887
5748. of the Revised Code, the taxpayer shall file an amended 134888
return with the tax commissioner in such form as the commissioner 134889
requires. The amended return shall be filed not later than sixty 134890
days after the adjustment has been agreed to or finally determined 134891
for federal income tax purposes or any federal income tax 134892
deficiency or refund, or the abatement or credit resulting 134893
therefrom, has been assessed or paid, whichever occurs first.134894

       (A) In the case of an underpayment, the amended return shall 134895
be accompanied by payment of any combined additional tax due 134896
together with interest thereon. If the combined tax shown to be 134897
due is one dollar or less, such amount need not accompany the 134898
amended return. An amended return required by this section is a 134899
return subject to assessment under section 5747.13 of the Revised 134900
Code for the purpose of assessing any additional tax due under 134901
this section, together with any applicable penalty and interest. 134902
It shall not reopen those facts, figures, computations, or 134903
attachments from a previously filed return no longer subject to 134904
assessment that are not affected, either directly or indirectly, 134905
by the adjustment to the taxpayer's federal income tax return.134906

       (B) In the case of an overpayment, an application for refund 134907
may be filed under this division within the sixty-day period 134908
prescribed for filing the amended return even if it is filed 134909
beyond the period prescribed in section 5747.11 of the Revised 134910
Code if it otherwise conforms to the requirements of such section. 134911
An application filed under this division shall claim refund of 134912
overpayments resulting from alterations to only those facts, 134913
figures, computations, or attachments required in the taxpayer's 134914
annual return that are affected, either directly or indirectly, by 134915
the adjustment to the taxpayer's federal income tax return unless 134916
it is also filed within the time prescribed in section 5747.11 of 134917
the Revised Code. It shall not reopen those facts, figures, 134918
computations, or attachments that are not affected, either 134919
directly or indirectly, by the adjustment to the taxpayer's 134920
federal income tax return.134921

       Sec. 5747.11.  (A) The tax commissioner shall refund to 134922
employers, qualifying entities, or taxpayers, with respect to any134923
subject to a tax imposed under section 5733.41, 5747.02, or 134924
5747.41, or Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code:134925

       (1) Overpayments of more than one dollar;134926

       (2) Amounts in excess of one dollar paid illegally or 134927
erroneously;134928

       (3) Amounts in excess of one dollar paid on an illegal, 134929
erroneous, or excessive assessmentthe amount of any overpayment 134930
of such tax.134931

       (B) Except as otherwise provided under divisions (D) and (E) 134932
of this section, applications for refund shall be filed with the 134933
tax commissioner, on the form prescribed by the commissioner, 134934
within four years from the date of the illegal, erroneous, or 134935
excessive payment of the tax, or within any additional period 134936
allowed by division (B)(3)(b) of section 5747.05, division (B) of 134937
section 5747.10, division (A) of section 5747.13, or division (C) 134938
of section 5747.45 of the Revised Code.134939

       On filing of the refund application, the commissioner shall 134940
determine the amount of refund due and, if that amount exceeds one 134941
dollar, certify such amount to the director of budget and 134942
management and treasurer of state for payment from the tax refund 134943
fund created by section 5703.052 of the Revised Code. Payment 134944
shall be made as provided in division (C) of section 126.35 of the 134945
Revised Code.134946

       (C)(1) Interest shall be allowed and paid upon any illegal or 134947
erroneous assessment in excess of one dollar in respect of the tax 134948
imposed under section 5747.02 or Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code 134949
at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 134950
Code from the date of the payment of the illegal or erroneous 134951
assessment until the date the refund of such amount is paid. If 134952
such refund results from the filing of a return or report, or the 134953
payment accompanying such return or report, by an employer or 134954
taxpayer, rather than from an assessment by the commissioner, such 134955
interest shall run from a period ninety days after the final 134956
filing date of the annual return until the date the refund is 134957
paid.134958

       (2) Interest shall be allowed and paid at the rate per annum 134959
prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code upon any 134960
overpayment in excess of one dollar in respect ofon amounts 134961
refunded with respect to the tax imposed under section 5747.02 or 134962
Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code from the date of the overpayment 134963
until the date of the refund of the overpayment, except that if 134964
any overpayment is refunded within ninety days after the final 134965
filing date of the annual return or ninety days after the return 134966
is filed, whichever is later, no interest shall be allowed on such 134967
overpayment. If the overpayment results from the carryback of a 134968
net operating loss or net capital loss to a previous taxable year, 134969
the overpayment is deemed not to have been made prior to the 134970
filing date, including any extension thereof, for the taxable year 134971
in which the net operating loss or net capital loss arises. For 134972
purposes of the payment of interest on overpayments, no amount of 134973
tax, for any taxable year, shall be treated as having been paid 134974
before the date on which the tax return for that year was due 134975
without regard to any extension of time for filing such return.134976

       (3)(2) Interest shall be allowed at the rate per annum 134977
prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code on amounts 134978
refunded with respect to the taxes imposed under sections 5733.41 134979
and 5747.41 of the Revised Code. The interest shall run from 134980
whichever of the following days is the latest until the day the 134981
refund is paid: the day the illegal, erroneous, or excessive 134982
payment was made; the ninetieth day after the final day the annual 134983
report was required to be filed under section 5747.42 of the 134984
Revised Code; or the ninetieth day after the day that report was 134985
filed.134986

       (D) "Ninety days" shall be substituted for "four years" in 134987
division (B) of this section if the taxpayer satisfies both of the 134988
following conditions:134989

       (1) The taxpayer has applied for a refund based in whole or 134990
in part upon section 5747.059 of the Revised Code;134991

       (2) The taxpayer asserts that either the imposition or 134992
collection of the tax imposed or charged by this chapter or any 134993
portion of such tax violates the Constitution of the United States 134994
or the Constitution of Ohio.134995

       (E)(1) Division (E)(2) of this section applies only if all of 134996
the following conditions are satisfied:134997

       (a) A qualifying entity pays an amount of the tax imposed by 134998
section 5733.41 or 5747.41 of the Revised Code;134999

       (b) The taxpayer is a qualifying investor as to that 135000
qualifying entity;135001

       (c) The taxpayer did not claim the credit provided for in 135002
section 5747.059 of the Revised Code as to the tax described in 135003
division (E)(1)(a) of this section;135004

       (d) The four-year period described in division (B) of this 135005
section has ended as to the taxable year for which the taxpayer 135006
otherwise would have claimed that credit.135007

       (2) A taxpayer shall file an application for refund pursuant 135008
to division (E) of this section within one year after the date the 135009
payment described in division (E)(1)(a) of this section is made. 135010
An application filed under division (E)(2) of this section shall 135011
claim refund only of overpayments resulting from the taxpayer's 135012
failure to claim the credit described in division (E)(1)(c) of 135013
this section. Nothing in division (E) of this section shall be 135014
construed to relieve a taxpayer from complying with division 135015
(A)(16) of section 5747.01 of the Revised Code.135016

       Sec. 5747.113. (A) Any taxpayer claiming a refund under 135017
section 5747.11 of the Revised Code who wishes to contribute any 135018
part of the taxpayer's refund to the natural areas and preserves 135019
fund created in section 1517.11 of the Revised Code, the nongame 135020
and endangered wildlife fund created in section 1531.26 of the 135021
Revised Code, the military injury relief fund created in section 135022
5101.98 of the Revised Code, the Ohio historical society income 135023
tax contribution fund created in section 149.308 of the Revised 135024
Code, or all of those funds may designate on the taxpayer's income 135025
tax return the amount that the taxpayer wishes to contribute to 135026
the fund or funds. A designated contribution is irrevocable upon 135027
the filing of the return and shall be made in the full amount 135028
designated if the refund found due the taxpayer upon the initial 135029
processing of the taxpayer's return, after any deductions 135030
including those required by section 5747.12 of the Revised Code, 135031
is greater than or equal to the designated contribution. If the 135032
refund due as initially determined is less than the designated 135033
contribution, the contribution shall be made in the full amount of 135034
the refund. The tax commissioner shall subtract the amount of the 135035
contribution from the amount of the refund initially found due the 135036
taxpayer and shall certify the difference to the director of 135037
budget and management and treasurer of state for payment to the 135038
taxpayer in accordance with section 5747.11 of the Revised Code. 135039
For the purpose of any subsequent determination of the taxpayer's 135040
net tax payment, the contribution shall be considered a part of 135041
the refund paid to the taxpayer.135042

       (B) The tax commissioner shall provide a space on the income 135043
tax return form in which a taxpayer may indicate that the taxpayer 135044
wishes to make a donation in accordance with this section. The tax 135045
commissioner shall also print in the instructions accompanying the 135046
income tax return form a description of the purposes for which the 135047
natural areas and preserves fund, the nongame and endangered 135048
wildlife fund, the military injury relief fund, and the Ohio 135049
historical society income tax contribution fund were created and 135050
the use of moneys from the income tax refund contribution system 135051
established in this section. No person shall designate on the 135052
person's income tax return any part of a refund claimed under 135053
section 5747.11 of the Revised Code as a contribution to any fund 135054
other than the natural areas and preserves fund, the nongame and 135055
endangered wildlife fund, the military injury relief fund, or the 135056
Ohio historical society income tax contribution fund.135057

       (C) The money collected under the income tax refund 135058
contribution system established in this section shall be deposited 135059
by the tax commissioner into the natural areas and preserves fund, 135060
the nongame and endangered wildlife fund, the military injury 135061
relief fund, and the Ohio historical society income tax 135062
contribution fund in the amounts designated on the tax returns.135063

       (D) No later than the thirtieth day of September each year, 135064
the tax commissioner shall determine the total amount contributed 135065
to each fund under this section during the preceding eight months, 135066
any adjustments to prior months, and the cost to the department of 135067
taxation of administering the income tax refund contribution 135068
system during that eight-month period. The commissioner shall make 135069
an additional determination no later than the thirty-first day of 135070
January of each year of the total amount contributed to each fund 135071
under this section during the preceding four calendar months, any 135072
adjustments to prior years made during that four-month period, and 135073
the cost to the department of taxation of administering the income 135074
tax contribution system during that period. The cost of 135075
administering the income tax contribution system shall be 135076
certified by the tax commissioner to the director of budget and 135077
management, who shall transfer an amount equal to one-fourth of 135078
such administrative costs from the natural areas and preserves 135079
fund, one-fourth of such costs from the nongame and endangered 135080
wildlife fund, one-fourth of such costs from the military injury 135081
relief fund, and one-fourth of such costs from the Ohio historical 135082
society income tax contribution fund to the litter control and 135083
natural resourceincome tax administrationcontribution fund, 135084
which is hereby created, provided that the moneys that the 135085
department receives to pay the cost of administering the income 135086
tax refund contribution system in any year shall not exceed two 135087
and one-half per cent of the total amount contributed under that 135088
system during that year.135089

       (E)(1) The director of natural resources, in January of every 135090
odd-numbered year, shall report to the general assembly on the 135091
effectiveness of the income tax refund contribution system as it 135092
pertains to the natural areas and preserves fund and the nongame 135093
and endangered wildlife fund. The report shall include the amount 135094
of money contributed to each fund in each of the previous five 135095
years, the amount of money contributed directly to each fund in 135096
addition to or independently of the income tax refund contribution 135097
system in each of the previous five years, and the purposes for 135098
which the money was expended.135099

       (2) The director of job and family services and the director 135100
of the Ohio historical society, in January of every odd-numbered 135101
year, each shall report to the general assembly on the 135102
effectiveness of the income tax refund contribution system as it 135103
pertains to the military injury relief fund and the Ohio 135104
historical society income tax contribution fund, respectively. The 135105
report shall include the amount of money contributed to the fund 135106
in each of the previous five years, the amount of money 135107
contributed directly to the fund in addition to or independently 135108
of the income tax refund contribution system in each of the 135109
previous five years, and the purposes for which the money was 135110
expended.135111

       Sec. 5747.122.  (A) The tax commissioner, in accordance with 135112
section 5101.184 of the Revised Code, shall cooperate with the 135113
director of job and family services to collect overpayments of 135114
assistance under Chapter 5107., 5111., or 5115., former Chapter 135115
5113., or section 5101.54 of the Revised Code from refunds of 135116
state income taxes for taxable year 1992 and thereafter that are 135117
payable to the recipients of such overpayments.135118

       (B) At the request of the department of job and family 135119
services in connection with the collection of an overpayment of 135120
assistance from a refund of state income taxes pursuant to this 135121
section and section 5101.184 of the Revised Code, the tax 135122
commissioner shall release to the department the home address and 135123
social security number of any recipient of assistance whose 135124
overpayment may be collected from a refund of state income taxes 135125
under those sections.135126

       (C) In the case of a joint income tax return for two people 135127
who were not married to each other at the time one of them 135128
received an overpayment of assistance, only the portion of a 135129
refund that is due to the recipient of the overpayment shall be 135130
available for collection of the overpayment under this section and 135131
section 5101.184 of the Revised Code. The tax commissioner shall 135132
determine such portion. A recipient's spouse who objects to the 135133
portion as determined by the commissioner may file a complaint 135134
with the commissioner within twenty-one days after receiving 135135
notice of the collection, and the commissioner shall afford the 135136
spouse an opportunity to be heard on the complaint. The 135137
commissioner shall waive or extend the twenty-one-day period if 135138
the recipient's spouse establishes that such action is necessary 135139
to avoid unjust, unfair, or unreasonable results. After the 135140
hearing, the commissioner shall make a final determination of the 135141
portion of the refund available for collection of the overpayment.135142

       (D) The welfare overpayment intercept fund is hereby created 135143
in the state treasury. The tax commissioner shall deposit amounts 135144
collected from income tax refunds under this section to the credit 135145
of the welfare overpayment intercept fund. The director of job and 135146
family services shall distribute money in the fund in accordance 135147
with appropriate federal or state laws and procedures regarding 135148
collection of welfare overpayments.135149

       Sec. 5747.13.  (A) If any employer collects the tax imposed 135150
by section 5747.02 or under Chapter 5748. of the Revised Code and 135151
fails to remit the tax as required by law, or fails to collect the 135152
tax, the employer is personally liable for any amount collected 135153
that the employer fails to remit, or any amount that the employer 135154
fails to collect. If any taxpayer fails to file a return or fails 135155
to pay the tax imposed by section 5747.02 or under Chapter 5748. 135156
of the Revised Code, the taxpayer is personally liable for the 135157
amount of the tax.135158

       If any employer, taxpayer, or qualifying entity required to 135159
file a return under this chapter fails to file the return within 135160
the time prescribed, files an incorrect return, fails to remit the 135161
full amount of the taxes due for the period covered by the return, 135162
or fails to remit any additional tax due as a result of a 135163
reduction in the amount of the credit allowed under division (B) 135164
of section 5747.05 of the Revised Code together with interest on 135165
the additional tax within the time prescribed by that division, 135166
the tax commissioner may make an assessment against any person 135167
liable for any deficiency for the period for which the return is 135168
or taxes are due, based upon any information in the commissioner's 135169
possession.135170

       An assessment issued against either the employer or the 135171
taxpayer pursuant to this section shall not be considered an 135172
election of remedies or a bar to an assessment against the other 135173
for failure to report or pay the same tax. No assessment shall be 135174
issued against any person if the tax actually has been paid by 135175
another.135176

       No assessment shall be made or issued against an employer, 135177
taxpayer, or qualifying entity more than four years after the 135178
final date the return subject to assessment was required to be 135179
filed or the date the return was filed, whichever is later. 135180
However, the commissioner may assess any balance due as the result 135181
of a reduction in the credit allowed under division (B) of section 135182
5747.05 of the Revised Code, including applicable penalty and 135183
interest, within four years of the date on which the taxpayer 135184
reports a change in either the portion of the taxpayer's adjusted 135185
gross income subjected to an income tax or tax measured by income 135186
in another state or the District of Columbia, or the amount of 135187
liability for an income tax or tax measured by income to another 135188
state or the District of Columbia, as required by division (B)(3) 135189
of section 5747.05 of the Revised Code. Such time limits may be 135190
extended if both the employer, taxpayer, or qualifying entity and 135191
the commissioner consent in writing to the extension or if an 135192
agreement waiving or extending the time limits has been entered 135193
into pursuant to section 122.171 of the Revised Code. Any such 135194
extension shall extend the four-year time limit in division (B) of 135195
section 5747.11 of the Revised Code for the same period of time. 135196
There shall be no bar or limit to an assessment against an 135197
employer for taxes withheld from employees and not remitted to the 135198
state, against an employer, taxpayer, or qualifying entity that 135199
fails to file a return subject to assessment as required by this 135200
chapter, or against an employer, taxpayer, or qualifying entity 135201
that files a fraudulent return.135202

       The commissioner shall give the party assessed written notice 135203
of the assessment in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of the 135204
Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner shall provide 135205
instructions on how to petition for reassessment and request a 135206
hearing on the petition.135207

       (B) Unless the party assessed files with the tax commissioner 135208
within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, 135209
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition for 135210
reassessment, signed by the party assessed or that party's 135211
authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 135212
becomes final, and the amount of the assessment is due and payable 135213
from the party assessed to the commissioner with remittance made 135214
payable to the treasurer of state. The petition shall indicate the 135215
objections of the party assessed, but additional objections may be 135216
raised in writing if received by the commissioner prior to the 135217
date shown on the final determination. If the petition has been 135218
properly filed, the commissioner shall proceed under section 135219
5703.60 of the Revised Code.135220

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 135221
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 135222
copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the assessment final 135223
may be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common 135224
pleas in the county in which the employer's, taxpayer's, or 135225
qualifying entity's place of business is located or the county in 135226
which the party assessed resides. If the party assessed is not a 135227
resident of this state, the certified copy of the entry may be 135228
filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas of 135229
Franklin county.135230

       Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 135231
enter a judgment against the party assessed in the amount shown on 135232
the entry. The judgment shall be filed by the clerk in one of two 135233
loose-leaf books, one entitled "special judgments for state and 135234
school district income taxes," and the other entitled "special 135235
judgments for qualifying entity taxes." The judgment shall have 135236
the same effect as other judgments. Execution shall issue upon the 135237
judgment upon the request of the tax commissioner, and all laws 135238
applicable to sales on execution shall apply to sales made under 135239
the judgment.135240

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety135241
within sixty days after the assessment was issued, the portion of 135242
the assessment consisting of tax due shall bear interest at the 135243
rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code 135244
from the day the tax commissioner issues the assessment until it 135245
is paid or until it is certified to the attorney general for 135246
collection under section 131.02 of the Revised Code, whichever 135247
comes first. If the unpaid portion of the assessment is certified 135248
to the attorney general for collection, the entire unpaid portion 135249
of the assessment shall bear interest at the rate per annum 135250
prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code from the date of 135251
certification until the date it is paid in its entirety. Interest 135252
shall be paid in the same manner as the tax and may be collected 135253
by the issuance of an assessment under this section.135254

       (D) All money collected under this section shall be 135255
considered as revenue arising from the taxes imposed by this 135256
chapter or Chapter 5733. or 5748. of the Revised Code, as 135257
appropriate.135258

       (E) If the party assessed files a petition for reassessment 135259
under division (B) of this section, the person, on or before the 135260
last day the petition may be filed, shall pay the assessed amount, 135261
including assessed interest and assessed penalties, if any of the 135262
following conditions exists:135263

       (1) The person files a tax return reporting Ohio adjusted 135264
gross income, less the exemptions allowed by section 5747.025 of 135265
the Revised Code, in an amount less than one cent, and the 135266
reported amount is not based on the computations required under 135267
division (A) of section 5747.01 or section 5747.025 of the Revised 135268
Code.135269

       (2) The person files a tax return that the tax commissioner 135270
determines to be incomplete, false, fraudulent, or frivolous.135271

        (3) The person fails to file a tax return, and the basis for 135272
this failure is not either of the following:135273

        (a) An assertion that the person has no nexus with this 135274
state;135275

        (b) The computations required under division (A) of section 135276
5747.01 of the Revised Code or the application of credits allowed 135277
under this chapter has the result that the person's tax liability 135278
is less than one dollar and one cent.135279

       (F) Notwithstanding the fact that a petition for reassessment 135280
is pending, the petitioner may pay all or a portion of the 135281
assessment that is the subject of the petition. The acceptance of 135282
a payment by the treasurer of state does not prejudice any claim 135283
for refund upon final determination of the petition.135284

       If upon final determination of the petition an error in the 135285
assessment is corrected by the tax commissioner, upon petition so 135286
filed or pursuant to a decision of the board of tax appeals or any 135287
court to which the determination or decision has been appealed, so 135288
that the amount due from the party assessed under the corrected 135289
assessment is less than the portion paid, there shall be issued to 135290
the petitioner or to the petitioner's assigns or legal 135291
representative a refund in the amount of the overpayment as 135292
provided by section 5747.11 of the Revised Code, with interest on 135293
that amount as provided by such section, subject to section 135294
5747.12 of the Revised Code.135295

       Sec. 5747.21. (A) This section applies solely for the 135296
purposes of computing the credit allowed under division (A) of 135297
section 5747.05 of the Revised Code, computing income taxable in 135298
this state under division (D) of section 5747.08 of the Revised 135299
Code, computing the deduction under division (A)(32) of section 135300
5747.01 of the Revised Code, and computing the credit allowed 135301
under section 5747.057 of the Revised Code.135302

       (B) Except as otherwise provided under sections 5747.211 and135303
section 5747.212 of the Revised Code, all items of business income 135304
and business deduction shall be apportioned to this state by 135305
multiplying the adjusted gross income by the fraction calculated 135306
under division (B)(2) of section 5733.05 and section 5733.057 of 135307
the Revised Code as if the taxpayer's business were a corporation 135308
subject to the tax imposed by section 5733.06 of the Revised Code.135309

       (C) If the allocation and apportionment provisions of 135310
sections 5747.20 to 5747.23 of the Revised Code or of any rule 135311
adopted by the tax commissioner, do not fairly represent the 135312
extent of business activity in this state of a taxpayer or 135313
pass-through entity, the taxpayer or pass-through entity may 135314
request, which request must be in writing accompanying thea 135315
timely filed return or timely filed amended return, or the tax 135316
commissioner may require, in respect of all or any part of the 135317
business activity, if reasonable, any one or more of the 135318
following:135319

       (1) Separate accounting;135320

       (2) The exclusion of one or more factors;135321

       (3) The inclusion of one or more additional factors which 135322
will fairly represent the business activity in this state;135323

       (4) The employment of any other method to effectuate an 135324
equitable allocation and apportionment of such business in this 135325
state. An alternative method will be effective only with approval 135326
of the tax commissioner.135327

       The tax commissioner may adopt rules in the manner provided 135328
by sections 5703.14 and 5747.18 of the Revised Code providing for 135329
alternative methods of calculating business income and nonbusiness 135330
income applicable to all taxpayers and pass-through entities, to 135331
classes of taxpayers and pass-through entities, or only to 135332
taxpayers and pass-through entities within a certain industry.135333

       Sec. 5747.22.  (A) This section applies solely for the 135334
purposes of computing the credit allowed under division (A) of 135335
section 5747.05 of the Revised Code and, computing income taxable 135336
in this state under division (D) of section 5747.08, and computing 135337
the deduction under division (A)(32) of section 5747.01 of the 135338
Revised Code.135339

       (B) With respect to a pass-through entity, one or more of the 135340
pass-through entity investors of which are liable for the tax 135341
imposed by section 5747.02 of the Revised Code, the business 135342
income and deductions included in the adjusted gross income of the 135343
pass-through entity shall be apportioned to this state in the 135344
hands of the pass-through entity investors pursuant to section 135345
5747.21 of the Revised Code. The business income and deductions as 135346
thus apportioned to this state then shall be allocated to the 135347
pass-through entity investors in proportion to their right to 135348
share in that business income.135349

       (C) With respect to a pass-through entity described in 135350
division (B) of this section, the nonbusiness income and 135351
deductions included in the adjusted gross income of the 135352
pass-through entity shall be allocated to the pass-through entity 135353
investors in proportion to their right to share in the nonbusiness 135354
income, and then the pass-through entity shares shall be allocated 135355
to this state in the hands of each pass-through entity investor 135356
pursuant to section 5747.20 of the Revised Code.135357

       Sec. 5747.47. (A)(1) By the twentiethtwenty-fifth day of 135358
July of each year, the tax commissioner shall estimate and certify 135359
the following for each county to its county auditor:135360

       (a) Its guaranteed share of the ensuing year's fund balance;135361

       (b) Its share of the excess of the ensuing year's fund 135362
balance;135363

       (c) Its total entitlement.135364

       (2) In December and in June following such estimations and 135365
certifications, the commissioner shall revise such estimates and 135366
certify such revised estimates to the respective county auditors.135367

       (B) By the tenth day of each month the commissioner shall 135368
distribute the amount credited to the public library fund in the 135369
current month under section 131.51 of the Revised Code. The 135370
distributions shall be made as follows:135371

       (1) During the first six months of each year, each county 135372
shall be paid a percentage of the balance that is the same per 135373
cent that the revised estimate of the county's total entitlement 135374
certified in December under division (A)(2) of this section is of 135375
the sum of such revised estimates of the total entitlements for 135376
all counties.135377

       (2) During the last six months, each county shall be paid a 135378
percentage of the balance that is the same per cent that the 135379
revised estimate of the county's total entitlement certified in 135380
June under division (A)(2) of this section is of the sum of such 135381
revised estimates of the total entitlements for all counties.135382

       (3) During each of the first six months of each year, the 135383
payments made to each county shall be adjusted as follows:135384

       (a) If the county received an overpayment during the 135385
preceding distribution year, reduce the sum of the payments by the 135386
amount of such overpayment. The reduction shall be apportioned 135387
over the six months.135388

       (b) If the county received an underpayment during the 135389
preceding distribution year, increase the sum of the payments by 135390
the amount of such underpayment. The increase shall be apportioned 135391
over the six months.135392

       (C) By the twentieth day of December of each year, the tax 135393
commissioner shall determine and certify to the auditor of each 135394
county each of the following with respect to the current 135395
distribution year:135396

       (1) The year's fund balance;135397

       (2) Each county's guaranteed share;135398

       (3) Each county's share of the excess;135399

       (4) Each county's total entitlement;135400

       (5) Each county's net distribution;135401

       (6) The amount by which each county's net distribution 135402
exceeded or was less than its total entitlement, which amount 135403
shall constitute the county's overpayment or underpayment for 135404
purposes of division (B)(3) of this section in the ensuing 135405
distribution year.135406

       Sec. 5747.501.  (A) On or before the twenty-fifth day of July 135407
of each year, the tax commissioner shall estimate and certify to 135408
each county auditor the amount to be distributed from the local 135409
government fund to each undivided local government fund during the 135410
following calendar year under section 5747.50 of the Revised Code. 135411
The estimate shall equal the sum of the separate amounts computed 135412
under divisions (B)(1) and (2) of this section.135413

       (B)(1) The product obtained by multiplying the percentage 135414
described in division (B)(1)(a) of this section by the amount 135415
described in division (B)(1)(b) of this section.135416

       (a) Each county's proportionate share of the total amount 135417
distributed to the counties from the local government fund and the 135418
local government revenue assistance fund during calendar year 135419
2007. In fiscal year 2014 and thereafter, the amount distributed 135420
to any county undivided local government fund shall be an amount 135421
not less than seven hundred fifty thousand dollars or the amount 135422
distributed to such fund in fiscal year 2013, whichever amount is 135423
smaller. To the extent necessary to implement this minimum 135424
distribution requirement, the proportionate shares computed under 135425
this division shall be adjusted accordingly.135426

       (b) The total amount distributed to counties from the local 135427
government fund and the local government revenue assistance fund 135428
during calendar year 2007 adjusted downward if, and to the extent 135429
that, total local government fund distributions to counties for 135430
the following year are projected to be less than what was 135431
distributed to counties from the local government fund and local 135432
government revenue assistance fund during calendar year 2007.135433

       (2) The product obtained by multiplying the percentage 135434
described in division (B)(2)(a) of this section by the amount 135435
described in division (B)(2)(b) of this section.135436

       (a) Each county's proportionate share of the state's 135437
population as reflected in the most recent federal decennial 135438
census or the federal government's most recent census estimates, 135439
whichever represents the most recent year.135440

       (b) The amount by which total estimated distributions from 135441
the local government fund during the immediately succeeding 135442
calendar year, less the total estimated amount to be distributed 135443
from the fund to municipal corporations under division (C) of 135444
section 5747.50 of the Revised Code during the immediately 135445
succeeding calendar year, exceed the total amount distributed to 135446
counties from the local government fund and local government 135447
revenue assistance fund during calendar year 2007.135448

       Sec. 5747.76. (A) As used in this section, "certificate 135449
owner" has the same meaning as in section 149.311 of the Revised 135450
Code.135451

       (B) There is allowed a credit against the tax imposed under 135452
section 5747.02 of the Revised Code for a taxpayer that is the 135453
certificate owner of a rehabilitation tax credit certificate 135454
issued under section 149.311 of the Revised Code. The credit shall 135455
equal twenty-five per cent of the dollar amount indicated on the 135456
certificate, but the amount of credit allowed for any taxpayer 135457
shall not exceed fiveten million dollars. The credit shall be 135458
claimed for the taxable year specified in the certificate and in 135459
the order required under section 5747.98 of the Revised Code. 135460

       (C) Nothing in this section limits or disallows pass-through 135461
treatment of the credit if the certificate owner is a pass-through 135462
entity. If the certificate owner is a pass-through entity, the 135463
amount of the credit allowed for the pass-through entity shall not 135464
exceed five million dollars. If the certificate owner is a 135465
pass-through entity, the credit may be allocated among the 135466
entity's equity owners in proportion to their ownership interests 135467
or in such proportions or amounts as the equity owners mutually 135468
agree.135469

       (D) If the credit allowed for any taxable year exceeds the 135470
tax otherwise due under section 5747.02 of the Revised Code, after 135471
allowing for any other credits preceding the credit in the order 135472
prescribed by section 5747.98 of the Revised Code, the excess 135473
shall be refunded to the taxpayer but, if any amount of the credit 135474
is refunded, the sum of the amount refunded and the amount applied 135475
to reduce the tax otherwise due for that year shall not exceed 135476
three million dollars or, if the certificate owner is a 135477
pass-through entity, shall not exceed the taxpayer's distributive 135478
or proportionate share, as allocated under division (C) of this 135479
section, of three million dollars. The taxpayer may carry forward 135480
any balance of the credit in excess of the amount claimed for that 135481
year for not more than five ensuing taxable years, and shall 135482
deduct any amount claimed for any such year from the amount 135483
claimed in an ensuing year.135484

       (E) A taxpayer claiming a credit under this section shall 135485
retain the rehabilitation tax credit certificate for four years 135486
following the end of the taxable year to which the credit was 135487
applied, and shall make the certificate available for inspection 135488
by the tax commissioner upon the request of the tax commissioner 135489
during that period.135490

       Sec. 5747.98.  (A) To provide a uniform procedure for 135491
calculating the amount of tax due under section 5747.02 of the 135492
Revised Code, a taxpayer shall claim any credits to which the 135493
taxpayer is entitled in the following order:135494

       (1) The retirement income credit under division (B) of 135495
section 5747.055 of the Revised Code;135496

       (2) The senior citizen credit under division (C) of section 135497
5747.05 of the Revised Code;135498

       (3) The lump sum distribution credit under division (D) of 135499
section 5747.05 of the Revised Code;135500

       (4) The dependent care credit under section 5747.054 of the 135501
Revised Code;135502

       (5) The lump sum retirement income credit under division (C) 135503
of section 5747.055 of the Revised Code;135504

       (6) The lump sum retirement income credit under division (D) 135505
of section 5747.055 of the Revised Code;135506

       (7) The lump sum retirement income credit under division (E) 135507
of section 5747.055 of the Revised Code;135508

       (8) The low-income credit under section 5747.056 of the 135509
Revised Code;135510

       (9) The credit for displaced workers who pay for job training 135511
under section 5747.27 of the Revised Code;135512

       (10) The campaign contribution credit under section 5747.29 135513
of the Revised Code;135514

       (11) The twenty-dollar personal exemption credit under 135515
section 5747.022 of the Revised Code;135516

       (12) The joint filing credit under division (G) of section 135517
5747.05 of the Revised Code;135518

       (13) The nonresident credit under division (A) of section 135519
5747.05 of the Revised Code;135520

       (14) The credit for a resident's out-of-state income under 135521
division (B) of section 5747.05 of the Revised Code;135522

       (15) The credit for employers that enter into agreements with 135523
child day-care centers under section 5747.34 of the Revised Code;135524

       (16) The credit for employers that reimburse employee child 135525
care expenses under section 5747.36 of the Revised Code;135526

       (17) The credit for adoption of a minor child under section 135527
5747.37 of the Revised Code;135528

       (18) The credit for purchases of lights and reflectors under 135529
section 5747.38 of the Revised Code;135530

       (19) The nonrefundable job retention credit under division 135531
(B) of section 5747.058 of the Revised Code;135532

       (20) The credit for selling alternative fuel under section 135533
5747.77 of the Revised Code;135534

       (21) The second credit for purchases of new manufacturing 135535
machinery and equipment and the credit for using Ohio coal under 135536
section 5747.31 of the Revised Code;135537

       (22) The job training credit under section 5747.39 of the 135538
Revised Code;135539

       (23) The enterprise zone credit under section 5709.66 of the 135540
Revised Code;135541

       (24) The credit for the eligible costs associated with a 135542
voluntary action under section 5747.32 of the Revised Code;135543

       (25) The credit for employers that establish on-site child 135544
day-care centers under section 5747.35 of the Revised Code;135545

       (26) The ethanol plant investment credit under section 135546
5747.75 of the Revised Code;135547

       (27) The credit for purchases of qualifying grape production 135548
property under section 5747.28 of the Revised Code;135549

       (28) The small business investment credit under section 135550
5747.81 of the Revised Code;135551

       (29) The credit for research and development and technology 135552
transfer investors under section 5747.33 of the Revised Code;135553

       (30) The enterprise zone credits under section 5709.65 of the 135554
Revised Code;135555

       (31)(30) The research and development credit under section 135556
5747.331 of the Revised Code;135557

       (32)(31) The credit for rehabilitating a historic building 135558
under section 5747.76 of the Revised Code;135559

       (33)(32) The refundable credit for rehabilitating a historic 135560
building under section 5747.76 of the Revised Code;135561

       (34)(33) The refundable jobs creation credit or job retention 135562
credit under division (A) of section 5747.058 of the Revised Code;135563

       (35)(34) The refundable credit for taxes paid by a qualifying 135564
entity granted under section 5747.059 of the Revised Code;135565

       (36)(35) The refundable credits for taxes paid by a 135566
qualifying pass-through entity granted under division (J) of 135567
section 5747.08 of the Revised Code;135568

       (37)(36) The refundable credit under section 5747.80 of the 135569
Revised Code for losses on loans made to the Ohio venture capital 135570
program under sections 150.01 to 150.10 of the Revised Code;135571

       (38)(37) The refundable motion picture production credit 135572
under section 5747.66 of the Revised Code.135573

       (39)(38) The refundable credit for financial institution 135574
taxes paid by a pass-through entity granted under section 5747.65 135575
of the Revised Code.135576

       (B) For any credit, except the refundable credits enumerated 135577
in this section and the credit granted under division (I) of 135578
section 5747.08 of the Revised Code, the amount of the credit for 135579
a taxable year shall not exceed the tax due after allowing for any 135580
other credit that precedes it in the order required under this 135581
section. Any excess amount of a particular credit may be carried 135582
forward if authorized under the section creating that credit. 135583
Nothing in this chapter shall be construed to allow a taxpayer to 135584
claim, directly or indirectly, a credit more than once for a 135585
taxable year.135586

       Sec. 5748.01.  As used in this chapter:135587

       (A) "School district income tax" means an income tax adopted 135588
under one of the following:135589

       (1) Former section 5748.03 of the Revised Code as it existed 135590
prior to its repeal by Amended Substitute House Bill No. 291 of 135591
the 115th general assembly;135592

       (2) Section 5748.03 of the Revised Code as enacted in 135593
Substitute Senate Bill No. 28 of the 118th general assembly;135594

       (3) Section 5748.08 of the Revised Code as enacted in Amended 135595
Substitute Senate Bill No. 17 of the 122nd general assembly;135596

       (4) Section 5748.021 of the Revised Code;135597

       (5) Section 5748.081 of the Revised Code;135598

       (6) Section 5748.09 of the Revised Code.135599

       (B) "Individual" means an individual subject to the tax 135600
levied by section 5747.02 of the Revised Code.135601

       (C) "Estate" means an estate subject to the tax levied by 135602
section 5747.02 of the Revised Code.135603

       (D) "Taxable year" means a taxable year as defined in 135604
division (M) of section 5747.01 of the Revised Code.135605

       (E) "Taxable income" means:135606

       (1) In the case of an individual, one of the following, as 135607
specified in the resolution imposing the tax:135608

       (a) Ohio adjusted gross income for the taxable year as 135609
defined in division (A) of section 5747.01 of the Revised Code, 135610
less the exemptions provided by section 5747.02 of the Revised 135611
Code, plus any amount deducted under division (A)(32) of section 135612
5747.01 of the Revised Code for the taxable year;135613

       (b) Wages, salaries, tips, and other employee compensation to 135614
the extent included in Ohio adjusted gross income as defined in 135615
section 5747.01 of the Revised Code, and net earnings from 135616
self-employment, as defined in section 1402(a) of the Internal 135617
Revenue Code, to the extent included in Ohio adjusted gross 135618
income.135619

       (2) In the case of an estate, taxable income for the taxable 135620
year as defined in division (S) of section 5747.01 of the Revised 135621
Code.135622

       (F) "Resident" of the school district means:135623

       (1) An individual who is a resident of this state as defined 135624
in division (I) of section 5747.01 of the Revised Code during all 135625
or a portion of the taxable year and who, during all or a portion 135626
of such period of state residency, is domiciled in the school 135627
district or lives in and maintains a permanent place of abode in 135628
the school district;135629

       (2) An estate of a decedent who, at the time of death, was 135630
domiciled in the school district.135631

       (G) "School district income" means:135632

       (1) With respect to an individual, the portion of the taxable 135633
income of an individual that is received by the individual during 135634
the portion of the taxable year that the individual is a resident 135635
of the school district and the school district income tax is in 135636
effect in that school district. An individual may have school 135637
district income with respect to more than one school district.135638

       (2) With respect to an estate, the taxable income of the 135639
estate for the portion of the taxable year that the school 135640
district income tax is in effect in that school district.135641

       (H) "Taxpayer" means an individual or estate having school 135642
district income upon which a school district income tax is 135643
imposed.135644

       (I) "School district purposes" means any of the purposes for 135645
which a tax may be levied pursuant to division (A) of section 135646
5705.21 of the Revised Code, including the combined purposes 135647
authorized by section 5705.217 of the Revised Code.135648

       Sec. 5749.02.  (A) For the purpose of providing revenue to 135649
administer the state's coal mining and reclamation regulatory 135650
program, to meet the environmental and resource management needs 135651
of this state, and to reclaim land affected by mining, an excise 135652
tax is hereby levied on the privilege of engaging in the severance 135653
of natural resources from the soil or water of this state. The tax 135654
shall be imposed upon the severer and shall beat the rates 135655
prescribed by divisions (A)(1) to (9) of this section:135656

       (1) Ten cents per ton of coal;135657

       (2) Four cents per ton of salt;135658

       (3) Two cents per ton of limestone or dolomite;135659

       (4) Two cents per ton of sand and gravel;135660

       (5) Ten cents per barrel of oil;135661

       (6) Two and one-half cents per thousand cubic feet of natural 135662
gas;135663

       (7) One cent per ton of clay, sandstone or conglomerate, 135664
shale, gypsum, or quartzite;135665

       (8) Except as otherwise provided in this division or in rules 135666
adopted by the reclamation forfeiture fund advisory board under 135667
section 1513.182 of the Revised Code, an additional fourteen cents 135668
per ton of coal produced from an area under a coal mining and 135669
reclamation permit issued under Chapter 1513. of the Revised Code 135670
for which the performance security is provided under division 135671
(C)(2) of section 1513.08 of the Revised Code. Beginning July 1, 135672
2007, if at the end of a fiscal biennium the balance of the 135673
reclamation forfeiture fund created in section 1513.18 of the 135674
Revised Code is equal to or greater than ten million dollars, the 135675
rate levied shall be twelve cents per ton. Beginning July 1, 2007, 135676
if at the end of a fiscal biennium the balance of the fund is at 135677
least five million dollars, but less than ten million dollars, the 135678
rate levied shall be fourteen cents per ton. Beginning July 1, 135679
2007, if at the end of a fiscal biennium the balance of the fund 135680
is less than five million dollars, the rate levied shall be 135681
sixteen cents per ton. Beginning July 1, 2009, not later than 135682
thirty days after the close of a fiscal biennium, the chief of the 135683
division of mineral resources management shall certify to the tax 135684
commissioner the amount of the balance of the reclamation 135685
forfeiture fund as of the close of the fiscal biennium. Any 135686
necessary adjustment of the rate levied shall take effect on the 135687
first day of the following January and shall remain in effect 135688
during the calendar biennium that begins on that date.135689

       (9) An additional one and two-tenths cents per ton of coal 135690
mined by surface mining methods.135691

       (B) OfAfter the director of budget and management transfers 135692
money from the severance tax receipts fund as required in division 135693
(H) of section 5749.06 of the Revised Code, money remaining in the 135694
severance tax receipts fund, except for money in the fund from the 135695
amounts due under section 1509.50 of the Revised Code, shall be 135696
credited as follows:135697

       (1) Of the moneys received by the treasurer of statein the 135698
fund from the tax levied in division (A)(1) of this section, four 135699
and seventy-six-hundredths per cent shall be credited to the 135700
geological mapping fund created in section 1505.09 of the Revised 135701
Code, eighty and ninety-five-hundredths per cent shall be credited 135702
to the coal mining administration and reclamation reserve fund 135703
created in section 1513.181 of the Revised Code, and fourteen and 135704
twenty-nine-hundredths per cent shall be credited to the 135705
unreclaimed lands fund created in section 1513.30 of the Revised 135706
Code.135707

       (2) The money received by the treasurer of statein the fund135708
from the tax levied in division (A)(2) of this section shall be 135709
credited to the geological mapping fund.135710

       (3) Of the moneys received by the treasurer of statein the 135711
fund from the tax levied in divisions (A)(3) and (4) of this 135712
section, seven and five-tenths per cent shall be credited to the 135713
geological mapping fund, forty-two and five-tenths per cent shall 135714
be credited to the unreclaimed lands fund, and the remainder shall 135715
be credited to the surface mining fund created in section 1514.06 135716
of the Revised Code.135717

       (4) Of the moneys received by the treasurer of statein the 135718
fund from the tax levied in divisions (A)(5) and (6) of this 135719
section, ninety per cent shall be credited to the oil and gas well 135720
fund created in section 1509.02 of the Revised Code and ten per 135721
cent shall be credited to the geological mapping fund. All of the 135722
moneys received by the treasurer of statein the fund from the 135723
tax levied in division (A)(7) of this section shall be credited to 135724
the surface mining fund.135725

       (5) All of the moneys received by the treasurer of statein 135726
the fund from the tax levied in division (A)(8) of this section 135727
shall be credited to the reclamation forfeiture fund.135728

       (6) All of the moneys received by the treasurer of statein 135729
the fund from the tax levied in division (A)(9) of this section 135730
shall be credited to the unreclaimed lands fund.135731

       (C) When, at the close of any fiscal year, the chief finds 135732
that the balance of the reclamation forfeiture fund, plus 135733
estimated transfers to it from the coal mining administration and 135734
reclamation reserve fund under section 1513.181 of the Revised 135735
Code, plus the estimated revenues from the tax levied by division 135736
(A)(8) of this section for the remainder of the calendar year that 135737
includes the close of the fiscal year, are sufficient to complete 135738
the reclamation of all lands for which the performance security 135739
has been provided under division (C)(2) of section 1513.08 of the 135740
Revised Code, the purposes for which the tax under division (A)(8) 135741
of this section is levied shall be deemed accomplished at the end 135742
of that calendar year. The chief, within thirty days after the 135743
close of the fiscal year, shall certify those findings to the tax 135744
commissioner, and the tax levied under division (A)(8) of this 135745
section shall cease to be imposed for the subsequent calendar year 135746
after the last day of that calendar year on coal produced under a 135747
coal mining and reclamation permit issued under Chapter 1513. of 135748
the Revised Code if the permittee has made tax payments under 135749
division (A)(8) of this section during each of the preceding five 135750
full calendar years. Not later than thirty days after the close of 135751
a fiscal year, the chief shall certify to the tax commissioner the 135752
identity of any permittees who accordingly no longer are required 135753
to pay the tax levied under division (A)(8) of this section for 135754
the subsequent calendar year.135755

       Sec. 5749.06.  (A)(1) Each severer liable for the tax imposed 135756
by section 5749.02 of the Revised Code and each severer or owner 135757
liable for the amounts due under section 1509.50 of the Revised 135758
Code shall make and file returns with the tax commissioner in the 135759
prescribed form and as of the prescribed times, computing and 135760
reflecting therein the tax as required by this chapter and amounts 135761
due under section 1509.50 of the Revised Code.135762

       (2) The returns shall be filed for every quarterly period, 135763
which periods shall end on the thirty-first day of March, the 135764
thirtieth day of June, the thirtieth day of September, and the 135765
thirty-first day of December of each year, as required by this 135766
section, unless a different return period is prescribed for a 135767
taxpayer by the commissioner.135768

       (B)(1) A separate return shall be filed for each calendar 135769
quarterly period, or other period, or any part thereof, during 135770
which the severer holds a license as provided by section 5749.04 135771
of the Revised Code, or is required to hold the license, or during 135772
which an owner is required to file a return, and the. The return 135773
shall be filed within forty-five days after the last day of each 135774
such calendar month, or other period, or any part thereof, for 135775
which the return is required and shall include remittance payable 135776
to the treasurer of state of the amount of. The tax due is payable 135777
along with the return. All such returns shall contain such 135778
information as the commissioner may require to fairly administer 135779
the tax.135780

       (2) All returns shall be signed by the severer or owner, as 135781
applicable, shall contain the full and complete information 135782
requested, and shall be made under penalty of perjury.135783

       (C) If the commissioner believes that quarterly payments of 135784
tax would result in a delay that might jeopardize the collection 135785
of such tax payments, the commissioner may order that such 135786
payments be made weekly, or more frequently if necessary, such 135787
payments to be made not later than seven days following the close 135788
of the period for which the jeopardy payment is required. Such an 135789
order shall be delivered to the taxpayer personally or by 135790
certified mail and shall remain in effect until the commissioner 135791
notifies the taxpayer to the contrary.135792

       (D) Upon good cause the commissioner may extend for thirty 135793
days the period for filing any notice or return required to be 135794
filed under this section, and may remit all or a part of penalties 135795
that may become due under this chapter.135796

       (E) Any tax and any amount due under section 1509.50 of the 135797
Revised Code not paid by the day the tax or amount is due shall 135798
bear interest computed at the rate per annum prescribed by section 135799
5703.47 of the Revised Code on that amount due from the day that 135800
the amount was originally required to be paid to the day of actual 135801
payment or to the day an assessment was issued under section 135802
5749.07 or 5749.10 of the Revised Code, whichever occurs first.135803

       (F) The severer shall make all payments payable to the 135804
treasurer of state. Except for the amounts due under section 135805
1509.50 of the Revised Code, allA severer or owner, as 135806
applicable, that fails to file a complete return or pay the full 135807
amount due under this chapter within the time prescribed, 135808
including any extensions of time granted by the commissioner, 135809
shall be subject to a penalty not to exceed the greater of fifty 135810
dollars or ten per cent of the amount due for the period.135811

       (G)(1) A severer or owner, as applicable, shall remit 135812
payments electronically and, if required by the commissioner, file 135813
each return electronically. The commissioner may require that the 135814
severer or owner use the Ohio business gateway, as defined in 135815
section 718.051 of the Revised Code, or another electronic means 135816
to file returns and remit payments electronically.135817

       (2) A severer or owner that is required to remit payments 135818
electronically under this section may apply to the commissioner, 135819
in the manner prescribed by the commissioner, to be excused from 135820
that requirement. The commissioner may excuse a severer or owner 135821
from the requirements of division (G) of this section for good 135822
cause.135823

       (3) If a severer or owner that is required to remit payments 135824
or file returns electronically under this section fails to do so, 135825
the commissioner may impose a penalty on the severer or owner not 135826
to exceed the following:135827

       (a) For the first or second payment or return the severer or 135828
owner fails to remit or file electronically, the greater of five 135829
per cent of the amount of the payment that was required to be 135830
remitted or twenty-five dollars;135831

       (b) For every payment or return after the second that the 135832
severer or owner fails to remit or file electronically, the 135833
greater of ten per cent of the amount of the payment that was 135834
required to be remitted or fifty dollars.135835

       (H)(1) All amounts that the tax commissioner receives under 135836
this section shall be deemed to be revenue from taxes imposed 135837
under this chapter. The commissioner shall immediately forward to 135838
the treasurer of state all amounts received under this sectionor 135839
from the amount due under section 1509.50 of the Revised Code, as 135840
applicable, and shall be deposited in the severance tax receipts 135841
fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury.135842

       (2) The director of budget and management shall transfer from 135843
the severance tax receipts fund to the tax refund fund amounts 135844
equal to the refunds certified by the commissioner under section 135845
5749.08 of the Revised Code. Any amount transferred under division 135846
(H)(2) of this section shall be derived from receipts of the same 135847
tax or other amount from which the refund arose.135848

       (3) After the director of budget and management makes any 135849
transfer required by division (H)(2) of this section, but not 135850
later than the fifteenth day of the month following the end of 135851
each calendar quarter, the commissioner shall certify to the 135852
director the total amount remaining in the severance tax receipts 135853
fund organized according to the amount attributable to each 135854
natural resource and according to the amount attributable to a tax 135855
imposed by this chapter and the amounts due under section 1509.50 135856
of the Revised Code.135857

       (I) Penalties imposed under this section are in addition to 135858
any other penalty imposed under this chapter and shall be 135859
considered as revenue arising from the tax levied under this 135860
chapter or the amount due under section 1509.50 of the Revised 135861
Code, as applicable. The commissioner may collect any penalty or 135862
interest imposed under this section in the same manner as provided 135863
for the making of an assessment in section 5749.07 of the Revised 135864
Code. The commissioner may abate all or a portion of such interest 135865
or penalties and may adopt rules governing such abatements.135866

       Sec. 5749.07.  (A) If any severer required by this chapter to 135867
make and file returns and pay the tax levied by section 5749.02 of 135868
the Revised Code, or any severer or owner liable for the amounts 135869
due under section 1509.50 of the Revised Code, fails to make such 135870
return or pay such tax or amounts, the tax commissioner may make 135871
an assessment against the severer or owner based upon any 135872
information in the commissioner's possession.135873

       No assessment shall be made or issued against any severer for 135874
any tax imposed by section 5749.02 of the Revised Code or against 135875
any severer or owner for any amount due under section 1509.50 of 135876
the Revised Code more than four years after the return was due or 135877
was filed, whichever is later. This section does not bar an 135878
assessment against a severer or owner who fails to file a return 135879
as required by this chapter, or who files a fraudulent return.135880

       The commissioner shall give the party assessed written notice 135881
of such assessment in the manner provided in section 5703.37 of 135882
the Revised Code. With the notice, the commissioner shall provide 135883
instructions on how to petition for reassessment and request a 135884
hearing on the petition.135885

       (B) Unless the party assessed files with the commissioner 135886
within sixty days after service of the notice of assessment, 135887
either personally or by certified mail, a written petition for 135888
reassessment signed by the party assessed or that party's 135889
authorized agent having knowledge of the facts, the assessment 135890
becomes final and the amount of the assessment is due and payable 135891
from the party assessed to the treasurer of state. The petition 135892
shall indicate the objections of the party assessed, but 135893
additional objections may be raised in writing if received by the 135894
commissioner prior to the date shown on the final determination. 135895
If the petition has been properly filed, the commissioner shall 135896
proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised Code.135897

       (C) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 135898
assessment remains unpaid, including accrued interest, a certified 135899
copy of the commissioner's entry making the assessment final may 135900
be filed in the office of the clerk of the court of common pleas 135901
in the county in which the party assessed resides or in which the 135902
party's business is conducted. If the party assessed maintains no 135903
place of business in this state and is not a resident of this 135904
state, the certified copy of the entry may be filed in the office 135905
of the clerk of the court of common pleas of Franklin county.135906

       Immediately upon the filing of such entry, the clerk shall 135907
enter a judgment for the state against the party assessed in the 135908
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 135909
in a loose-leaf book entitled "special judgments for state 135910
severance tax," and shall have the same effect as other judgments. 135911
Execution shall issue upon the judgment upon the request of the 135912
commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on execution shall 135913
apply to sales made under the judgment.135914

       The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its entirety135915
within sixty days after the day the assessment is issued, the 135916
portion of the assessment consisting of tax due or amounts due 135917
under section 1509.50 of the Revised Code shall bear interest at 135918
the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 135919
Code from the day the commissioner issues the assessment until it 135920
is paid or until it is certified to the attorney general for 135921
collection under section 131.02 of the Revised Code, whichever 135922
comes first. If the unpaid portion of the assessment is certified 135923
to the attorney general for collection, the entire unpaid portion 135924
of the assessment shall bear interest at the rate per annum 135925
prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised Code from the date of 135926
certification until the date it is paid in its entirety. Interest 135927
shall be paid in the same manner as the tax and may be collected 135928
by the issuance of an assessment under this section.135929

       (D) All money collected by the commissioner under this 135930
section shall be paid to the treasurer of state, and when paid 135931
shall be considered as revenue arising from the tax imposed by 135932
section 5749.02 of the Revised Code and the amount due under 135933
section 1509.50 of the Revised Code, as applicable.135934

       Sec. 5749.17. AnyExcept for purposes of enforcing Chapter 135935
1509. of the Revised Code, any information provided to the 135936
department of natural resources by the department of taxation in 135937
accordance with division (C)(12) of section 5703.21 of the Revised 135938
Code shall not be disclosed publicly by the department of natural 135939
resources, but. However the department of natural resources may 135940
provide such information to the attorney general for purposes of 135941
enforcement of the lawChapter 1509. of the Revised Code.135942

       Sec. 5751.01.  As used in this chapter:135943

       (A) "Person" means, but is not limited to, individuals, 135944
combinations of individuals of any form, receivers, assignees, 135945
trustees in bankruptcy, firms, companies, joint-stock companies, 135946
business trusts, estates, partnerships, limited liability 135947
partnerships, limited liability companies, associations, joint 135948
ventures, clubs, societies, for-profit corporations, S 135949
corporations, qualified subchapter S subsidiaries, qualified 135950
subchapter S trusts, trusts, entities that are disregarded for 135951
federal income tax purposes, and any other entities. 135952

       (B) "Consolidated elected taxpayer" means a group of two or 135953
more persons treated as a single taxpayer for purposes of this 135954
chapter as the result of an election made under section 5751.011 135955
of the Revised Code.135956

       (C) "Combined taxpayer" means a group of two or more persons 135957
treated as a single taxpayer for purposes of this chapter under 135958
section 5751.012 of the Revised Code.135959

       (D) "Taxpayer" means any person, or any group of persons in 135960
the case of a consolidated elected taxpayer or combined taxpayer 135961
treated as one taxpayer, required to register or pay tax under 135962
this chapter. "Taxpayer" does not include excluded persons.135963

        (E) "Excluded person" means any of the following:135964

       (1) Any person with not more than one hundred fifty thousand 135965
dollars of taxable gross receipts during the calendar year. 135966
Division (E)(1) of this section does not apply to a person that is 135967
a member of a consolidated elected taxpayer;135968

        (2) A public utility that paid the excise tax imposed by 135969
section 5727.24 or 5727.30 of the Revised Code based on one or 135970
more measurement periods that include the entire tax period under 135971
this chapter, except that a public utility that is a combined 135972
company is a taxpayer with regard to the following gross receipts:135973

        (a) Taxable gross receipts directly attributed to a public 135974
utility activity, but not directly attributed to an activity that 135975
is subject to the excise tax imposed by section 5727.24 or 5727.30 135976
of the Revised Code;135977

        (b) Taxable gross receipts that cannot be directly attributed 135978
to any activity, multiplied by a fraction whose numerator is the 135979
taxable gross receipts described in division (E)(2)(a) of this 135980
section and whose denominator is the total taxable gross receipts 135981
that can be directly attributed to any activity;135982

        (c) Except for any differences resulting from the use of an 135983
accrual basis method of accounting for purposes of determining 135984
gross receipts under this chapter and the use of the cash basis 135985
method of accounting for purposes of determining gross receipts 135986
under section 5727.24 of the Revised Code, the gross receipts 135987
directly attributed to the activity of a natural gas company shall 135988
be determined in a manner consistent with division (D) of section 135989
5727.03 of the Revised Code.135990

        As used in division (E)(2) of this section, "combined 135991
company" and "public utility" have the same meanings as in section 135992
5727.01 of the Revised Code.135993

       (3) A financial institution, as defined in section 5726.01 of 135994
the Revised Code, that paid the tax imposed by section 5726.02 of 135995
the Revised Code based on one or more taxable years that include 135996
the entire tax period under this chapter;135997

       (4) A person directly or indirectly owned by one or more 135998
financial institutions, as defined in section 5726.01 of the 135999
Revised Code, that paid the tax imposed by section 5726.02 of the 136000
Revised Code based on one or more taxable years that include the 136001
entire tax period under this chapter.136002

        For the purposes of division (E)(4) of this section, a person 136003
owns another person under the following circumstances:136004

        (a) In the case of corporations issuing capital stock, one 136005
corporation owns another corporation if it owns fifty per cent or 136006
more of the other corporation's capital stock with current voting 136007
rights;136008

        (b) In the case of a limited liability company, one person 136009
owns the company if that person's membership interest, as defined 136010
in section 1705.01 of the Revised Code, is fifty per cent or more 136011
of the combined membership interests of all persons owning such 136012
interests in the company;136013

        (c) In the case of a partnership, trust, or other 136014
unincorporated business organization other than a limited 136015
liability company, one person owns the organization if, under the 136016
articles of organization or other instrument governing the affairs 136017
of the organization, that person has a beneficial interest in the 136018
organization's profits, surpluses, losses, or distributions of 136019
fifty per cent or more of the combined beneficial interests of all 136020
persons having such an interest in the organization.136021

        (5) A domestic insurance company or foreign insurance 136022
company, as defined in section 5725.01 of the Revised Code, that 136023
paid the insurance company premiums tax imposed by section 5725.18 136024
or Chapter 5729. of the Revised Code, or an unauthorized insurance 136025
company whose gross premiums are subject to tax under section 136026
3905.36 of the Revised Code based on one or more measurement 136027
periods that include the entire tax period under this chapter;136028

       (6) A person that solely facilitates or services one or more 136029
securitizations of phase-in-recovery property pursuant to a final 136030
financing order as those terms are defined in section 4928.23 of 136031
the Revised Code. For purposes of this division, "securitization" 136032
means transferring one or more assets to one or more persons and 136033
then issuing securities backed by the right to receive payment 136034
from the asset or assets so transferred.136035

       (7) Except as otherwise provided in this division, a 136036
pre-income tax trust as defined in division (FF)(4) of section 136037
5747.01 of the Revised Code and any pass-through entity of which 136038
such pre-income tax trust owns or controls, directly, indirectly, 136039
or constructively through related interests, more than five per 136040
cent of the ownership or equity interests. If the pre-income tax 136041
trust has made a qualifying pre-income tax trust election under 136042
division (FF)(3) of section 5747.01 of the Revised Code, then the 136043
trust and the pass-through entities of which it owns or controls, 136044
directly, indirectly, or constructively through related interests, 136045
more than five per cent of the ownership or equity interests, 136046
shall not be excluded persons for purposes of the tax imposed 136047
under section 5751.02 of the Revised Code.136048

       (8) Nonprofit organizations or the state and its agencies, 136049
instrumentalities, or political subdivisions.136050

       (F) Except as otherwise provided in divisions (F)(2), (3), 136051
and (4), and (5) of this section, "gross receipts" means the total 136052
amount realized by a person, without deduction for the cost of 136053
goods sold or other expenses incurred, that contributes to the 136054
production of gross income of the person, including the fair 136055
market value of any property and any services received, and any 136056
debt transferred or forgiven as consideration. 136057

       (1) The following are examples of gross receipts:136058

       (a) Amounts realized from the sale, exchange, or other 136059
disposition of the taxpayer's property to or with another;136060

       (b) Amounts realized from the taxpayer's performance of 136061
services for another;136062

       (c) Amounts realized from another's use or possession of the 136063
taxpayer's property or capital;136064

       (d) Any combination of the foregoing amounts.136065

       (2) "Gross receipts" excludes the following amounts:136066

       (a) Interest income except interest on credit sales;136067

       (b) Dividends and distributions from corporations, and 136068
distributive or proportionate shares of receipts and income from a 136069
pass-through entity as defined under section 5733.04 of the 136070
Revised Code;136071

       (c) Receipts from the sale, exchange, or other disposition of 136072
an asset described in section 1221 or 1231 of the Internal Revenue 136073
Code, without regard to the length of time the person held the 136074
asset. Notwithstanding section 1221 of the Internal Revenue Code, 136075
receipts from hedging transactions also are excluded to the extent 136076
the transactions are entered into primarily to protect a financial 136077
position, such as managing the risk of exposure to (i) foreign 136078
currency fluctuations that affect assets, liabilities, profits, 136079
losses, equity, or investments in foreign operations; (ii) 136080
interest rate fluctuations; or (iii) commodity price fluctuations. 136081
As used in division (F)(2)(c) of this section, "hedging 136082
transaction" has the same meaning as used in section 1221 of the 136083
Internal Revenue Code and also includes transactions accorded 136084
hedge accounting treatment under statement of financial accounting 136085
standards number 133 of the financial accounting standards board. 136086
For the purposes of division (F)(2)(c) of this section, the actual 136087
transfer of title of real or tangible personal property to another 136088
entity is not a hedging transaction.136089

       (d) Proceeds received attributable to the repayment, 136090
maturity, or redemption of the principal of a loan, bond, mutual 136091
fund, certificate of deposit, or marketable instrument;136092

       (e) The principal amount received under a repurchase 136093
agreement or on account of any transaction properly characterized 136094
as a loan to the person;136095

       (f) Contributions received by a trust, plan, or other 136096
arrangement, any of which is described in section 501(a) of the 136097
Internal Revenue Code, or to which Title 26, Subtitle A, Chapter 136098
1, Subchapter (D) of the Internal Revenue Code applies;136099

       (g) Compensation, whether current or deferred, and whether in 136100
cash or in kind, received or to be received by an employee, former 136101
employee, or the employee's legal successor for services rendered 136102
to or for an employer, including reimbursements received by or for 136103
an individual for medical or education expenses, health insurance 136104
premiums, or employee expenses, or on account of a dependent care 136105
spending account, legal services plan, any cafeteria plan 136106
described in section 125 of the Internal Revenue Code, or any 136107
similar employee reimbursement;136108

       (h) Proceeds received from the issuance of the taxpayer's own 136109
stock, options, warrants, puts, or calls, or from the sale of the 136110
taxpayer's treasury stock;136111

       (i) Proceeds received on the account of payments from 136112
insurance policies, except those proceeds received for the loss of 136113
business revenue;136114

       (j) Gifts or charitable contributions received; membership 136115
dues received by trade, professional, homeowners', or condominium 136116
associations; and payments received for educational courses, 136117
meetings, meals, or similar payments to a trade, professional, or 136118
other similar association; and fundraising receipts received by 136119
any person when any excess receipts are donated or used 136120
exclusively for charitable purposes;136121

       (k) Damages received as the result of litigation in excess of 136122
amounts that, if received without litigation, would be gross 136123
receipts;136124

       (l) Property, money, and other amounts received or acquired 136125
by an agent on behalf of another in excess of the agent's 136126
commission, fee, or other remuneration;136127

       (m) Tax refunds, other tax benefit recoveries, and 136128
reimbursements for the tax imposed under this chapter made by 136129
entities that are part of the same combined taxpayer or 136130
consolidated elected taxpayer group, and reimbursements made by 136131
entities that are not members of a combined taxpayer or 136132
consolidated elected taxpayer group that are required to be made 136133
for economic parity among multiple owners of an entity whose tax 136134
obligation under this chapter is required to be reported and paid 136135
entirely by one owner, pursuant to the requirements of sections 136136
5751.011 and 5751.012 of the Revised Code;136137

       (n) Pension reversions;136138

       (o) Contributions to capital;136139

       (p) Sales or use taxes collected as a vendor or an 136140
out-of-state seller on behalf of the taxing jurisdiction from a 136141
consumer or other taxes the taxpayer is required by law to collect 136142
directly from a purchaser and remit to a local, state, or federal 136143
tax authority;136144

       (q) In the case of receipts from the sale of cigarettes or 136145
tobacco products by a wholesale dealer, retail dealer, 136146
distributor, manufacturer, or seller, all as defined in section 136147
5743.01 of the Revised Code, an amount equal to the federal and 136148
state excise taxes paid by any person on or for such cigarettes or 136149
tobacco products under subtitle E of the Internal Revenue Code or 136150
Chapter 5743. of the Revised Code;136151

       (r) In the case of receipts from the sale of motor fuel byto136152
a licensed motor fuel dealer, licensed retail dealer, or licensed 136153
permissive motor fuel dealer, all as defined in section 5735.01 of 136154
the Revised Code, an amount equal to federal and state excise 136155
taxes paid by any person on such motor fuel under section 4081 of 136156
the Internal Revenue Code or Chapter 5735. of the Revised Code;136157

       (s) In the case of receipts from the sale of beer or 136158
intoxicating liquor, as defined in section 4301.01 of the Revised 136159
Code, by a person holding a permit issued under Chapter 4301. or 136160
4303. of the Revised Code, an amount equal to federal and state 136161
excise taxes paid by any person on or for such beer or 136162
intoxicating liquor under subtitle E of the Internal Revenue Code 136163
or Chapter 4301. or 4305. of the Revised Code;136164

        (t) Receipts realized by a new motor vehicle dealer or used 136165
motor vehicle dealer, as defined in section 4517.01 of the Revised 136166
Code, from the sale or other transfer of a motor vehicle, as 136167
defined in that section, to another motor vehicle dealer for the 136168
purpose of resale by the transferee motor vehicle dealer, but only 136169
if the sale or other transfer was based upon the transferee's need 136170
to meet a specific customer's preference for a motor vehicle;136171

       (u) Receipts from a financial institution described in 136172
division (E)(3) of this section for services provided to the 136173
financial institution in connection with the issuance, processing, 136174
servicing, and management of loans or credit accounts, if such 136175
financial institution and the recipient of such receipts have at 136176
least fifty per cent of their ownership interests owned or 136177
controlled, directly or constructively through related interests, 136178
by common owners;136179

       (v) Receipts realized from administering anti-neoplastic 136180
drugs and other cancer chemotherapy, biologicals, therapeutic 136181
agents, and supportive drugs in a physician's office to patients 136182
with cancer;136183

       (w) Funds received or used by a mortgage broker that is not a 136184
dealer in intangibles, other than fees or other consideration, 136185
pursuant to a table-funding mortgage loan or warehouse-lending 136186
mortgage loan. Terms used in division (F)(2)(w) of this section 136187
have the same meanings as in section 1322.01 of the Revised Code, 136188
except "mortgage broker" means a person assisting a buyer in 136189
obtaining a mortgage loan for a fee or other consideration paid by 136190
the buyer or a lender, or a person engaged in table-funding or 136191
warehouse-lending mortgage loans that are first lien mortgage 136192
loans.136193

        (x) Property, money, and other amounts received by a 136194
professional employer organization, as defined in section 4125.01 136195
of the Revised Code, from a client employer, as defined in that 136196
section, in excess of the administrative fee charged by the 136197
professional employer organization to the client employer;136198

       (y) In the case of amounts retained as commissions by a 136199
permit holder under Chapter 3769. of the Revised Code, an amount 136200
equal to the amounts specified under that chapter that must be 136201
paid to or collected by the tax commissioner as a tax and the 136202
amounts specified under that chapter to be used as purse money;136203

       (z) Qualifying distribution center receipts.136204

       (i) For purposes of division (F)(2)(z) of this section:136205

       (I) "Qualifying distribution center receipts" means receipts 136206
of a supplier from qualified property that is delivered to a 136207
qualified distribution center, multiplied by a quantity that 136208
equals one minus the Ohio delivery percentage. If the qualified 136209
distribution center is a refining facility, "supplier" includes 136210
all dealers, brokers, processors, sellers, vendors, cosigners, and 136211
distributors of qualified property.136212

       (II) "Qualified property" means tangible personal property 136213
delivered to a qualified distribution center that is shipped to 136214
that qualified distribution center solely for further shipping by 136215
the qualified distribution center to another location in this 136216
state or elsewhere or, in the case of gold, silver, platinum, or 136217
palladium delivered to a refining facility solely for refining to 136218
a grade and fineness acceptable for delivery to a registered 136219
commodities exchange. "Further shipping" includes storing and 136220
repackaging property into smaller or larger bundles, so long as 136221
the property is not subject to further manufacturing or 136222
processing. "Refining" is limited to extracting impurities from 136223
gold, silver, platinum, or palladium through smelting or some 136224
other process at a refining facility.136225

       (III) "Qualified distribution center" means a warehouse, a 136226
facility similar to a warehouse, or a refining facility in this 136227
state that, for the qualifying year, is operated by a person that 136228
is not part of a combined taxpayer group and that has a qualifying 136229
certificate. All warehouses or facilities similar to warehouses 136230
that are operated by persons in the same taxpayer group and that 136231
are located within one mile of each other shall be treated as one 136232
qualified distribution center. All refining facilities that are 136233
operated by persons in the same taxpayer group and that are 136234
located in the same or adjacent counties may be treated as one 136235
qualified distribution center.136236

       (IV) "Qualifying year" means the calendar year to which the 136237
qualifying certificate applies.136238

       (V) "Qualifying period" means the period of the first day of 136239
July of the second year preceding the qualifying year through the 136240
thirtieth day of June of the year preceding the qualifying year.136241

       (VI) "Qualifying certificate" means the certificate issued by 136242
the tax commissioner after the operator of a distribution center 136243
files an annual application with the commissioner. The application 136244
and annual fee shall be filed and paid for each qualified 136245
distribution center on or before the first day of September before 136246
the qualifying year or within forty-five days after the 136247
distribution center opens, whichever is later.136248

       The applicant must substantiate to the commissioner's 136249
satisfaction that, for the qualifying period, all persons 136250
operating the distribution center have more than fifty per cent of 136251
the cost of the qualified property shipped to a location such that 136252
it would be sitused outside this state under the provisions of 136253
division (E) of section 5751.033 of the Revised Code. The 136254
applicant must also substantiate that the distribution center 136255
cumulatively had costs from its suppliers equal to or exceeding 136256
five hundred million dollars during the qualifying period. (For 136257
purposes of division (F)(2)(z)(i)(VI) of this section, "supplier" 136258
excludes any person that is part of the consolidated elected 136259
taxpayer group, if applicable, of the operator of the qualified 136260
distribution center.) The commissioner may require the applicant 136261
to have an independent certified public accountant certify that 136262
the calculation of the minimum thresholds required for a qualified 136263
distribution center by the operator of a distribution center has 136264
been made in accordance with generally accepted accounting 136265
principles. The commissioner shall issue or deny the issuance of a 136266
certificate within sixty days after the receipt of the 136267
application. A denial is subject to appeal under section 5717.02 136268
of the Revised Code. If the operator files a timely appeal under 136269
section 5717.02 of the Revised Code, the operator shall be granted 136270
a qualifying certificate, provided thateffective for the 136271
remainder of the qualifying year or until the appeal is finalized, 136272
whichever is earlier. If the operator is liable for any tax, 136273
interest, or penalty upon amounts claimed as qualifying 136274
distribution center receipts, other than those receipts exempt 136275
under division (C)(1) of section 5751.011 of the Revised Code, 136276
that would have otherwise not been owed by its suppliers if the 136277
qualifying certificate was validdoes not prevail in the appeal, 136278
the operator shall pay the ineligible operator's supplier tax 136279
liability.136280

       (VII) "Ohio delivery percentage" means the proportion of the 136281
total property delivered to a destination inside Ohio from the 136282
qualified distribution center during the qualifying period 136283
compared with total deliveries from such distribution center 136284
everywhere during the qualifying period.136285

       (VIII) "Refining facility" means one or more buildings 136286
located in a county in the Appalachian region of this state as 136287
defined by section 107.21 of the Revised Code and utilized for 136288
refining or smelting gold, silver, platinum, or palladium to a 136289
grade and fineness acceptable for delivery to a registered 136290
commodities exchange.136291

        (IX) "Registered commodities exchange" means a board of 136292
trade, such as New York mercantile exchange, inc. or commodity 136293
exchange, inc., designated as a contract market by the commodity 136294
futures trading commission under the "Commodity Exchange Act," 7 136295
U.S.C. 1 et seq., as amended.136296

       (X) "Ineligible operator's supplier tax liability" means an 136297
amount equal to the tax liability of all suppliers of a 136298
distribution center had the distribution center not been issued a 136299
qualifying certificate for the qualifying year. Ineligible 136300
operator's supplier tax liability shall not include interest or 136301
penalties. The tax commissioner shall determine an ineligible 136302
operator's supplier tax liability based on information that the 136303
commissioner may request from the operator of the distribution 136304
center. An operator shall provide a list of all suppliers of the 136305
distribution center and the corresponding costs of qualified 136306
property for the qualifying year at issue within sixty days of a 136307
request by the commissioner under this division.136308

       (ii)(I) If the distribution center is new and was not open 136309
for the entire qualifying period, the operator of the distribution 136310
center may request that the commissioner grant a qualifying 136311
certificate. If the certificate is granted and it is later 136312
determined that more than fifty per cent of the qualified property 136313
during that year was not shipped to a location such that it would 136314
be sitused outside of this state under the provisions of division 136315
(E) of section 5751.033 of the Revised Code or if it is later 136316
determined that the person that operates the distribution center 136317
had average monthly costs from its suppliers of less than forty 136318
million dollars during that year, then the operator of the 136319
distribution center shall pay a penalty for that year equal to 136320
five hundred thousand dollarsthe ineligible operator's supplier 136321
tax liability. (For purposes of division (F)(2)(z)(ii) of this 136322
section, "supplier" excludes any person that is part of the 136323
consolidated elected taxpayer group, if applicable, of the 136324
operator of the qualified distribution center.)136325

       (II) The commissioner may grant a qualifying certificate to a 136326
distribution center that does not qualify as a qualified 136327
distribution center for an entire qualifying period if the 136328
operator of the distribution center demonstrates that the business 136329
operations of the distribution center have changed or will change 136330
such that the distribution center will qualify as a qualified 136331
distribution center within thirty-six months after the date the 136332
operator first applies for a certificate. If, at the end of that 136333
thirty-six-month period, the business operations of the 136334
distribution center have not changed such that the distribution 136335
center qualifies as a qualified distribution center, the operator 136336
of the distribution center shall pay a penalty equal to five 136337
hundred thousand dollarsthe ineligible operator's supplier tax 136338
liability for each year that the distribution center received a 136339
certificate but did not qualify as a qualified distribution 136340
center. For each year the distribution center receives a 136341
certificate under division (F)(2)(z)(ii)(II) of this section, the 136342
distribution center shall pay all applicable fees required under 136343
division (F)(2)(z) of this section and shall submit an updated 136344
business plan showing the progress the distribution center made 136345
toward qualifying as a qualified distribution center during the 136346
preceding year. 136347

       (III) An operator may appeal the imposition of a penalty 136348
imposeddetermination under division (F)(2)(z)(ii)(I) or (II) of 136349
this section that the ineligible operator is liable for the 136350
operator's supplier tax liability as a result of not qualifying as 136351
a qualified distribution center, as provided in section 5717.02 of 136352
the Revised Code. 136353

       (iii) When filing an application for a qualifying certificate 136354
under division (F)(2)(z)(i)(VI) of this section, the operator of a 136355
qualified distribution center also shall provide documentation, as 136356
the commissioner requires, for the commissioner to ascertain the 136357
Ohio delivery percentage. The commissioner, upon issuing the 136358
qualifying certificate, also shall certify the Ohio delivery 136359
percentage. The operator of the qualified distribution center may 136360
appeal the commissioner's certification of the Ohio delivery 136361
percentage in the same manner as an appeal is taken from the 136362
denial of a qualifying certificate under division (F)(2)(z)(i)(VI) 136363
of this section.136364

       Within thirty days after all appeals have been exhausted, the 136365
operator of the qualified distribution center shall provide the 136366
commissioner with a list of all affected suppliers of qualified 136367
property. The commissioner shall notify all such suppliers that 136368
the suppliers are required to file, within sixty days after 136369
receiving the notice, amended reports for the affected calendar 136370
quarter or quarters or calendar year, whichever the case may be. 136371
Any additional tax liability or tax overpayment shall be subject 136372
to interest but shall not be subject to the imposition of any 136373
penalty so long as the amended returns are timely filed. The 136374
supplier of tangible personal property delivered to the qualified 136375
distribution center shall include in its report of taxable gross 136376
receipts the receipts from the total sales of property delivered 136377
to the qualified distribution center for the calendar quarter or 136378
calendar year, whichever the case may be, multiplied by the Ohio 136379
delivery percentage for the qualifying year. Nothing in division 136380
(F)(2)(z)(iii) of this section shall be construed as imposing 136381
liability on the operator of a qualified distribution center for 136382
the tax imposed by this chapter arising from any change to the 136383
Ohio delivery percentage.136384

       (iv)(I) In the case where the distribution center is new and 136385
not open for the entire qualifying period, the operator shall make 136386
a good faith estimate of an Ohio delivery percentage for use by 136387
suppliers in their reports of taxable gross receipts for the 136388
remainder of the qualifying period. The operator of the facility 136389
shall disclose to the suppliers that such Ohio delivery percentage 136390
is an estimate and is subject to recalculation. By the due date of 136391
the next application for a qualifying certificate, the operator 136392
shall determine the actual Ohio delivery percentage for the 136393
estimated qualifying period and proceed as provided in division 136394
(F)(2)(z)(iii) of this section with respect to the calculation and 136395
recalculation of the Ohio delivery percentage. The supplier is 136396
required to file, within sixty days after receiving notice from 136397
the operator of the qualified distribution center, amended reports 136398
for the impacted calendar quarter or quarters or calendar year, 136399
whichever the case may be. Any additional tax liability or tax 136400
overpayment shall be subject to interest but shall not be subject 136401
to the imposition of any penalty so long as the amended returns 136402
are timely filed.136403

       (II) The operator of a distribution center that receives a 136404
qualifying certificate under division (F)(2)(z)(ii)(II) of this 136405
section shall make a good faith estimate of the Ohio delivery 136406
percentage that the operator estimates will apply to the 136407
distribution center at the end of the thirty-six-month period 136408
after the operator first applied for a qualifying certificate 136409
under that division. The result of the estimate shall be 136410
multiplied by a factor of one and seventy-five one-hundredths. The 136411
product of that calculation shall be the Ohio delivery percentage 136412
used by suppliers in their reports of taxable gross receipts for 136413
each qualifying year that the distribution center receives a 136414
qualifying certificate under division (F)(2)(z)(ii)(II) of this 136415
section, except that, if the product is less than five per cent, 136416
the Ohio delivery percentage used shall be five per cent and that, 136417
if the product exceeds forty-nine per cent, the Ohio delivery 136418
percentage used shall be forty-nine per cent.136419

       (v) Qualifying certificates and Ohio delivery percentages 136420
issued by the commissioner shall be open to public inspection and 136421
shall be timely published by the commissioner. A supplier relying 136422
in good faith on a certificate issued under this division shall 136423
not be subject to tax on the qualifying distribution center 136424
receipts under division (F)(2)(z) of this section. A personAn 136425
operator receiving a qualifying certificate is liable for a 136426
penalty equal to five hundred thousand dollarsthe ineligible 136427
operator's supplier tax liability for each year the person136428
operator received a certificate that should not have been issued 136429
because the statutory requirements were in fact not metbut did 136430
not qualify as a qualified distribution center.136431

       (vi) The annual fee for a qualifying certificate shall be one 136432
hundred thousand dollars for each qualified distribution center. 136433
If a qualifying certificate is not issued, the annual fee is 136434
subject to refund after the exhaustion of all appeals provided for 136435
in division (F)(2)(z)(i)(VI) of this section. The fee imposed 136436
under this division may be assessed in the same manner as the tax 136437
imposed under this chapter. The first one hundred thousand dollars 136438
of the annual application fees collected each calendar year shall 136439
be credited to the revenue enhancement fund. The remainder of the 136440
annual application fees collected shall be distributed in the same 136441
manner required under section 5751.20 of the Revised Code.136442

       (vii) The tax commissioner may require that adequate security 136443
be posted by the operator of the distribution center on appeal 136444
when the commissioner disagrees that the applicant has met the 136445
minimum thresholds for a qualified distribution center as set 136446
forth in divisions (F)(2)(z)(i)(VI) anddivision (F)(2)(z)(ii) of 136447
this section.136448

       (aa) Receipts of an employer from payroll deductions relating 136449
to the reimbursement of the employer for advancing moneys to an 136450
unrelated third party on an employee's behalf;136451

        (bb) Cash discounts allowed and taken;136452

       (cc) Returns and allowances;136453

       (dd) Bad debts from receipts on the basis of which the tax 136454
imposed by this chapter was paid in a prior quarterly tax payment 136455
period. For the purpose of this division, "bad debts" means any 136456
debts that have become worthless or uncollectible between the 136457
preceding and current quarterly tax payment periods, have been 136458
uncollected for at least six months, and that may be claimed as a 136459
deduction under section 166 of the Internal Revenue Code and the 136460
regulations adopted under that section, or that could be claimed 136461
as such if the taxpayer kept its accounts on the accrual basis. 136462
"Bad debts" does not include repossessed property, uncollectible 136463
amounts on property that remains in the possession of the taxpayer 136464
until the full purchase price is paid, or expenses in attempting 136465
to collect any account receivable or for any portion of the debt 136466
recovered;136467

       (ee) Any amount realized from the sale of an account 136468
receivable to the extent the receipts from the underlying 136469
transaction giving rise to the account receivable were included in 136470
the gross receipts of the taxpayer;136471

       (ff) Any receipts directly attributed to a transfer agreement 136472
or to the enterprise transferred under that agreement under 136473
section 4313.02 of the Revised Code.136474

       (gg)(i) As used in this division:136475

       (I) "Qualified uranium receipts" means receipts from the 136476
sale, exchange, lease, loan, production, processing, or other 136477
disposition of uranium within a uranium enrichment zone certified 136478
by the tax commissioner under division (F)(2)(gg)(ii) of this 136479
section. "Qualified uranium receipts" does not include any 136480
receipts with a situs in this state outside a uranium enrichment 136481
zone certified by the tax commissioner under division 136482
(F)(2)(gg)(ii) of this section.136483

       (II) "Uranium enrichment zone" means all real property that 136484
is part of a uranium enrichment facility licensed by the United 136485
States nuclear regulatory commission and that was or is owned or 136486
controlled by the United States department of energy or its 136487
successor.136488

       (ii) Any person that owns, leases, or operates real or 136489
tangible personal property constituting or located within a 136490
uranium enrichment zone may apply to the tax commissioner to have 136491
the uranium enrichment zone certified for the purpose of excluding 136492
qualified uranium receipts under division (F)(2)(gg) of this 136493
section. The application shall include such information that the 136494
tax commissioner prescribes. Within sixty days after receiving the 136495
application, the tax commissioner shall certify the zone for that 136496
purpose if the commissioner determines that the property qualifies 136497
as a uranium enrichment zone as defined in division (F)(2)(gg) of 136498
this section, or, if the tax commissioner determines that the 136499
property does not qualify, the commissioner shall deny the 136500
application or request additional information from the applicant. 136501
If the tax commissioner denies an application, the commissioner 136502
shall state the reasons for the denial. The applicant may appeal 136503
the denial of an application to the board of tax appeals pursuant 136504
to section 5717.02 of the Revised Code. If the applicant files a 136505
timely appeal, the tax commissioner shall conditionally certify 136506
the applicant's property. The conditional certification shall 136507
expire when all of the applicant's appeals are exhausted. Until 136508
final resolution of the appeal, the applicant shall retain the 136509
applicant's records in accordance with section 5751.12 of the 136510
Revised Code, notwithstanding any time limit on the preservation 136511
of records under that section.136512

       (hh) Amounts realized by licensed motor fuel dealers or 136513
licensed permissive motor fuel dealers from the exchange of 136514
petroleum products, including motor fuel, between such dealers, 136515
provided that delivery of the petroleum products occurs at a 136516
refinery, terminal, pipeline, or marine vessel and that the 136517
exchanging dealers agree neither dealer shall require monetary 136518
compensation from the other for the value of the exchanged 136519
petroleum products other than such compensation for differences in 136520
product location or grade. Division (F)(2)(hh) of this section 136521
does not apply to amounts realized as a result of differences in 136522
location or grade of exchanged petroleum products or from 136523
handling, lubricity, dye, or other additive injections fees, 136524
pipeline security fees, or similar fees. As used in this division, 136525
"motor fuel," "licensed motor fuel dealer," "licensed permissive 136526
motor fuel dealer," and "terminal" havehas the same meanings136527
meaning as in section 5735.01 of the Revised Code.136528

       (ii) In the case of amounts collected by a licensed casino 136529
operator from casino gaming, amounts in excess of the casino 136530
operator's gross casino revenue. In this division, "casino 136531
operator" and "casino gaming" have the meanings defined in section 136532
3772.01 of the Revised Code, and "gross casino revenue" has the 136533
meaning defined in section 5753.01 of the Revised Code.136534

       (jj) Receipts realized from the sale of agricultural 136535
commodities by an agricultural commodity handler, both as defined 136536
in section 926.01 of the Revised Code, that is licensed by the 136537
director of agriculture to handle agricultural commodities in this 136538
state.136539

       (kk) Any receipts for which the tax imposed by this chapter 136540
is prohibited by the constitution or laws of the United States or 136541
the constitution of this state.136542

        (3) In the case of a taxpayer when acting as a real estate 136543
broker, "gross receipts" includes only the portion of any fee for 136544
the service of a real estate broker, or service of a real estate 136545
salesperson associated with that broker, that is retained by the 136546
broker and not paid to an associated real estate salesperson or 136547
another real estate broker. For the purposes of this division, 136548
"real estate broker" and "real estate salesperson" have the same 136549
meanings as in section 4735.01 of the Revised Code.136550

       (4) A taxpayer's method of accounting for gross receipts for 136551
a tax period shall be the same as the taxpayer's method of 136552
accounting for federal income tax purposes for the taxpayer's 136553
federal taxable year that includes the tax period. If a taxpayer's 136554
method of accounting for federal income tax purposes changes, its 136555
method of accounting for gross receipts under this chapter shall 136556
be changed accordingly.136557

       (5) In the case of gross receipts realized from the sale, 136558
exchange, or other transfer of motor fuel, "gross receipts" for 136559
the purposes of this chapter includes only gross receipts to the 136560
extent provided under section 5751.40 of the Revised Code, subject 136561
to the exclusions under divisions (F)(2)(r) and (hh) of this 136562
section.136563

       (G) "Taxable gross receipts" means gross receipts sitused to 136564
this state under section 5751.033 of the Revised Code.136565

       (H) A person has "substantial nexus with this state" if any 136566
of the following applies. The person:136567

       (1) Owns or uses a part or all of its capital in this state;136568

       (2) Holds a certificate of compliance with the laws of this 136569
state authorizing the person to do business in this state;136570

       (3) Has bright-line presence in this state;136571

       (4) Otherwise has nexus with this state to an extent that the 136572
person can be required to remit the tax imposed under this chapter 136573
under the Constitution of the United States.136574

       (I) A person has "bright-line presence" in this state for a 136575
reporting period and for the remaining portion of the calendar 136576
year if any of the following applies. The person:136577

       (1) Has at any time during the calendar year property in this 136578
state with an aggregate value of at least fifty thousand dollars. 136579
For the purpose of division (I)(1) of this section, owned property 136580
is valued at original cost and rented property is valued at eight 136581
times the net annual rental charge.136582

       (2) Has during the calendar year payroll in this state of at 136583
least fifty thousand dollars. Payroll in this state includes all 136584
of the following:136585

       (a) Any amount subject to withholding by the person under 136586
section 5747.06 of the Revised Code;136587

       (b) Any other amount the person pays as compensation to an 136588
individual under the supervision or control of the person for work 136589
done in this state; and136590

       (c) Any amount the person pays for services performed in this 136591
state on its behalf by another.136592

       (3) Has during the calendar year taxable gross receipts of at 136593
least five hundred thousand dollars.136594

       (4) Has at any time during the calendar year within this 136595
state at least twenty-five per cent of the person's total 136596
property, total payroll, or total gross receipts.136597

       (5) Is domiciled in this state as an individual or for 136598
corporate, commercial, or other business purposes.136599

       (J) "Tangible personal property" has the same meaning as in 136600
section 5739.01 of the Revised Code.136601

       (K) "Internal Revenue Code" means the Internal Revenue Code 136602
of 1986, 100 Stat. 2085, 26 U.S.C. 1, as amended. Any term used in 136603
this chapter that is not otherwise defined has the same meaning as 136604
when used in a comparable context in the laws of the United States 136605
relating to federal income taxes unless a different meaning is 136606
clearly required. Any reference in this chapter to the Internal 136607
Revenue Code includes other laws of the United States relating to 136608
federal income taxes.136609

       (L) "Calendar quarter" means a three-month period ending on 136610
the thirty-first day of March, the thirtieth day of June, the 136611
thirtieth day of September, or the thirty-first day of December.136612

       (M) "Tax period" means the calendar quarter or calendar year 136613
on the basis of which a taxpayer is required to pay the tax 136614
imposed under this chapter.136615

       (N) "Calendar year taxpayer" means a taxpayer for which the 136616
tax period is a calendar year.136617

       (O) "Calendar quarter taxpayer" means a taxpayer for which 136618
the tax period is a calendar quarter.136619

       (P) "Agent" means a person authorized by another person to 136620
act on its behalf to undertake a transaction for the other, 136621
including any of the following:136622

        (1) A person receiving a fee to sell financial instruments;136623

        (2) A person retaining only a commission from a transaction 136624
with the other proceeds from the transaction being remitted to 136625
another person;136626

        (3) A person issuing licenses and permits under section 136627
1533.13 of the Revised Code;136628

        (4) A lottery sales agent holding a valid license issued 136629
under section 3770.05 of the Revised Code;136630

        (5) A person acting as an agent of the division of liquor 136631
control under section 4301.17 of the Revised Code.136632

       (Q) "Received" includes amounts accrued under the accrual 136633
method of accounting.136634

       (R) "Reporting person" means a person in a consolidated 136635
elected taxpayer or combined taxpayer group that is designated by 136636
that group to legally bind the group for all filings and tax 136637
liabilities and to receive all legal notices with respect to 136638
matters under this chapter, or, for the purposes of section 136639
5751.04 of the Revised Code, a separate taxpayer that is not a 136640
member of such a group.136641

       (S) "Motor fuel," "motor fuel dealer," "licensed motor fuel 136642
dealer," "licensed retail dealer," and "licensed permissive motor 136643
fuel dealer" have the same meanings as in section 5735.01 of the 136644
Revised Code, except that "motor fuel" does not include dyed 136645
diesel fuel as defined in that section or motor fuel sold 136646
exclusively for use in the operation of aircraft and exempted from 136647
the motor fuel excise tax under division (A)(7) of section 5735.05 136648
of the Revised Code.136649

       Sec. 5751.011.  (A) A group of two or more persons may elect 136650
to be a consolidated elected taxpayer for the purposes of this 136651
chapter if the group satisfies all of the following requirements:136652

       (1) The group elects to include all persons, including 136653
persons enumerated in divisions (E)(2) to (5) of section 5751.01 136654
of the Revised Code, having at least eighty per cent, or having at 136655
least fifty per cent, of the value of their ownership interests 136656
owned or controlled, directly or constructively through related 136657
interests, by common owners during all or any portion of the tax 136658
period, together with the common owners. 136659

       A group making its initial election on the basis of the 136660
eighty per cent ownership test may change its election so that its 136661
consolidated elected taxpayer group is formed on the basis of the 136662
fifty per cent ownership test if all of the following are 136663
satisfied:136664

        (a) When the initial election was made, the group did not 136665
have any persons satisfying the fifty per cent ownership test;136666

       (b) One or more of the persons in the initial group 136667
subsequently acquires ownership interests in a person such that 136668
the fifty per cent ownership test is satisfied, the eighty per 136669
cent ownership test is not satisfied, and the acquired person 136670
would be required to be included in a combined taxpayer group 136671
under section 5751.012 of the Revised Code;136672

       (c) The group requests the change in writing to the 136673
commissioner as required by division (D) of this section;136674

       (d) The group has not previously changed its election.136675

       At the election of the group, all entities that are not 136676
incorporated or formed under the laws of a state or of the United 136677
States and that meet the consolidated elected ownership test shall 136678
either be included in the group or all shall be excluded from the 136679
group. If, at the time of registration, the group does not include 136680
any such entities that meet the consolidated elected ownership 136681
test, the group shall elect to either include or exclude the newly 136682
acquired entities before the due date of the first return due 136683
after the date of the acquisition.136684

        If fifty per cent of the value of a person's ownership 136685
interests is owned or controlled by each of two consolidated 136686
elected taxpayer groups formed under the fifty per cent ownership 136687
or control test, that person is a member of each group for the 136688
purposes of this section, and each group shall include in the 136689
group's taxable gross receipts fifty per cent of that person's 136690
taxable gross receipts. Otherwise, all of that person's taxable 136691
gross receipts shall be included in the taxable gross receipts of 136692
the consolidated elected taxpayer group of which the person is a 136693
member. In no event shall the ownership or control of fifty per 136694
cent of the value of a person's ownership interests by two 136695
otherwise unrelated groups form the basis for consolidating the 136696
groups into a single consolidated elected taxpayer group or permit 136697
any exclusion under division (C) of this section of taxable gross 136698
receipts between members of the two groups. Division (A)(3) of 136699
this section applies with respect to the elections described in 136700
this division.136701

       (2) The group makes the election to be treated as a 136702
consolidated elected taxpayer in the manner prescribed under 136703
division (D) of this section.136704

       (3) Subject to review and audit by the tax commissioner, the 136705
group agrees that all of the following apply:136706

       (a) The group shall file reports as a single taxpayer for at 136707
least the next eight calendar quarters following the election so 136708
long as at least two or more of the members of the group meet the 136709
requirements of division (A)(1) of this section.136710

       (b) Before the expiration of the eighth such calendar 136711
quarter, the group shall notify the commissioner if it elects to 136712
cancel its designation as a consolidated elected taxpayer. If the 136713
group does not so notify the tax commissioner, the election 136714
remains in effect for another eight calendar quarters.136715

       (c) If, at any time during any of those eight calendar 136716
quarters following the election, a former member of the group no 136717
longer meets the requirements under division (A)(1) of this 136718
section, that member shall report and pay the tax imposed under 136719
this chapter separately, as a member of a combined taxpayer, or, 136720
if the former member satisfies such requirements with respect to 136721
another consolidated elected group, as a member of that 136722
consolidated elected group.136723

       (d) The group agrees to the application of division (B) of 136724
this section.136725

       (B) A group of persons making the election under this section 136726
shall report and pay tax on all of the group's taxable gross 136727
receipts even if substantial nexus with this state does not exist 136728
for one or more persons in the group.136729

       (C)(1)(a) Members of a consolidated elected taxpayer group 136730
shall exclude gross receipts among persons included in the 136731
consolidated elected taxpayer group, except for any such person's 136732
gross receipts from motor fuel determined under section 5751.40 of 136733
the Revised Code.136734

       (b) Subject to divisions (C)(1)(c) and (C)(2) of this 136735
section, nothing in this section shall have the effect of 136736
requiring a consolidated elected taxpayer group to include gross 136737
receipts received by a person enumerated in divisions (E)(2) to 136738
(5) of section 5751.01 of the Revised Code if that person is a 136739
member of the group pursuant to the elections made by the group 136740
under division (A)(1) of this section.136741

        (c)(i) As used in division (C)(1)(c) of this section, "dealer 136742
transfer" means a transfer of property that satisfies both of the 136743
following: (I) the property is directly transferred by any means 136744
from one member of the group to another member of the group that 136745
is a dealer in intangibles but is not a qualifying dealer as 136746
defined in section 5707.031 of the Revised Code; and (II) the 136747
property is subsequently delivered by the dealer in intangibles to 136748
a person that is not a member of the group.136749

        (ii) In the event of a dealer transfer, a consolidated 136750
elected taxpayer group shall not exclude, under division (C) of 136751
this section, gross receipts from the transfer described in 136752
division (C)(1)(c)(i)(I) of this section.136753

       (2) Gross receipts related to the sale or transmission of 136754
electricity through the use of an intermediary regional 136755
transmission organization approved by the federal energy 136756
regulatory commission shall be excluded from taxable gross 136757
receipts under division (C)(1) of this section if all other 136758
requirements of that division are met, even if the receipts are 136759
from and to the same member of the group.136760

       (D) To make the election to be a consolidated elected 136761
taxpayer, a group of persons shall notify the commissioner of the 136762
election on a form prescribed by the commissioner for that 136763
purpose, which shall be signed by one or more individuals with 136764
authority, separately or together, to make a binding election on 136765
behalf of all persons in the group. Elections under division (A) 136766
of this section shall be made on or before the due date for filing 136767
the first return due after the election applies. 136768

       Any person acquired or formed after the filing of the 136769
registration shall be included in the group if the person meets 136770
the requirements of division (A)(1) of this section, and the group 136771
shall notify the commissioner of any additions to the group on a 136772
form prescribed by the commissioner for such purpose.136773

       Sec. 5751.02.  (A) For the purpose of funding the needs of 136774
this state and its local governments and providing revenue to the 136775
commercial activity tax motor fuel receipts fund, there is hereby 136776
levied a commercial activity tax on each person with taxable gross 136777
receipts for the privilege of doing business in this state. For 136778
the purposes of this chapter, "doing business" means engaging in 136779
any activity, whether legal or illegal, that is conducted for, or 136780
results in, gain, profit, or income, at any time during a calendar 136781
year. Persons on which the commercial activity tax is levied 136782
include, but are not limited to, persons with substantial nexus 136783
with this state. The tax imposed under this section is not a 136784
transactional tax and is not subject to Public Law No. 86-272, 73 136785
Stat. 555. The tax imposed under this section is in addition to 136786
any other taxes or fees imposed under the Revised Code. The tax 136787
levied under this section is imposed on the person receiving the 136788
gross receipts and is not a tax imposed directly on a purchaser. 136789
The tax imposed by this section is an annual privilege tax for the 136790
calendar year that, in the case of calendar year taxpayers, is the 136791
annual tax period and, in the case of calendar quarter taxpayers, 136792
contains all quarterly tax periods in the calendar year. A 136793
taxpayer is subject to the annual privilege tax for doing business 136794
during any portion of such calendar year.136795

       (B) The tax imposed by this section is a tax on the taxpayer 136796
and shall not be billed or invoiced to another person. Even if the 136797
tax or any portion thereof is billed or invoiced and separately 136798
stated, such amounts remain part of the price for purposes of the 136799
sales and use taxes levied under Chapters 5739. and 5741. of the 136800
Revised Code. Nothing in division (B) of this section prohibits:136801

       (1) A person from including in the price charged for a good 136802
or service an amount sufficient to recover the tax imposed by this 136803
section; or136804

       (2) A lessor from including an amount sufficient to recover 136805
the tax imposed by this section in a lease payment charged, or 136806
from including such an amount on a billing or invoice pursuant to 136807
the terms of a written lease agreement providing for the recovery 136808
of the lessor's tax costs. The recovery of such costs shall be 136809
based on an estimate of the total tax cost of the lessor during 136810
the tax period, as the tax liability of the lessor cannot be 136811
calculated until the end of that period.136812

       Division (B) of this section does not apply to the tax 136813
imposed under this section on the basis of gross receipts 136814
described in division (B) of section 5751.40 of the Revised Code.136815

       Sec. 5751.03.  (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this 136816
section and in section 5751.031 of the Revised Code, the tax 136817
levied under this section for each tax period shall be the product 136818
of two and six-tenths mills per dollar times the remainder of136819
calculated by subtracting from the taxpayer's taxable gross 136820
receipts for the tax period after subtracting the exclusion amount 136821
provided for in division (C) of this section and totaling the 136822
products obtained by multiplying the remainder of the taxpayer's 136823
taxable gross receipts by the following applicable amounts:136824

       (1) In the case of taxable gross receipts from the sale, 136825
exchange, or other transfer of motor fuel, six and five-tenths 136826
mills per dollar;136827

       (2) In the case of all other taxable gross receipts, two and 136828
six-tenths mills per dollar.136829

       (B) Notwithstanding division (C) of this section, the tax on 136830
the first one million dollars in taxable gross receipts each 136831
calendar year shall be one hundred fifty dollars. The tax imposed 136832
under this division shall be paid not later than the tenth day of 136833
May of each year along with the first quarter or annual tax 136834
return, as applicable.136835

       (C)(1) Each taxpayer may exclude the first one million 136836
dollars of taxable gross receipts for a calendar year. Calendar 136837
quarter taxpayers shall apply the full exclusion amount to the 136838
first calendar quarter return the taxpayer files that calendar 136839
year and may carry forward and apply any unused exclusion amount 136840
to subsequent calendar quarters within that same calendar year. 136841

       (2) A taxpayer switching from a calendar year tax period to a 136842
calendar quarter tax period may, for the first quarter of the 136843
change, apply the full one-million-dollar exclusion amount to the 136844
first calendar quarter return the taxpayer files that calendar 136845
year. Such taxpayers may carry forward and apply any unused 136846
exclusion amount to subsequent calendar quarters within that same 136847
calendar year. The tax rate shall be based on the rate imposed 136848
that calendar quarter when the taxpayer switches from a calendar 136849
year to a calendar quarter tax period.136850

        (3) A taxpayer shall not exclude more than one million 136851
dollars pursuant to division (C) of this section in a calendar 136852
year.136853

       Sec. 5751.07.  (A) Any person required to file returns for a 136854
calendar quarterunder this chapter shall remit each tax payment, 136855
and, if required by the tax commissioner, file the tax return or 136856
the annual report, electronically. The commissioner may require 136857
taxpayers to use the Ohio business gateway as defined in section 136858
718.051 of the Revised Code to file returns and remit the tax, or 136859
may provide another means for taxpayers to file and remit the tax 136860
electronically.136861

       (B) A person required by this section to remit taxes or file 136862
returns electronically may apply to the tax commissioner, on the 136863
form prescribed by the commissioner, to be excused from that 136864
requirement. The commissioner may excuse a person from the 136865
requirements of this division for good cause.136866

       (C)(1) If a person required to remit taxes or file a return 136867
electronically under this section fails to do so, the commissioner 136868
may impose a penalty not to exceed the following:136869

       (a) For either of the first two calendar quarterstax periods136870
the person so fails, the greater of twenty-five dollars or five 136871
per cent of the amount of the payment that was required to be 136872
remitted;136873

       (b) For the third and any subsequent calendar quarterstax 136874
periods the person so fails, the greater of fifty dollars or ten 136875
per cent of the amount of the payment that was required to be 136876
remitted.136877

       (2) The penalty imposed under division (C)(1) of this section 136878
is in addition to any other penalty imposed under this chapter and 136879
shall be considered as revenue arising from the tax imposed under 136880
this chapter. A penalty may be collected by assessment in the 136881
manner prescribed by section 5751.09 of the Revised Code. The tax 136882
commissioner may abate all or a portion of such a penalty.136883

       (D) The tax commissioner may adopt rules necessary to 136884
administer this section.136885

       Sec. 5751.081.  As used in this section, "debt to this state" 136886
means unpaid taxes due the state, unpaid workers' compensation 136887
premiums due under section 4123.35 of the Revised Code, unpaid 136888
unemployment compensation contributions due under section 4141.25 136889
of the Revised Code, unpaid unemployment compensation payment in 136890
lieu of contribution under section 4141.241 of the Revised Code, 136891
unpaid fee payable to the state or to the clerk of courts pursuant 136892
to section 4505.06 of the Revised Code, incorrect medical 136893
assistance payments for medicaid services under section 5111.02 of 136894
the Revised Codethe medicaid program, or any unpaid charge, 136895
penalty, or interest arising from any of the foregoing.136896

       If a taxpayer entitled to a refund under section 5751.08 of 136897
the Revised Code owes any debt to this state, the amount 136898
refundable may be applied in satisfaction of the debt. If the 136899
amount refundable is less than the amount of the debt, it may be 136900
applied in partial satisfaction of the debt. If the amount 136901
refundable is greater than the amount of the debt, the amount 136902
remaining after satisfaction of the debt shall be refunded. This 136903
section applies only to debts that have become final. For the 136904
purposes of this section, a debt becomes final when, under the 136905
applicable law, any time provided for petition for reassessment, 136906
request for reconsideration, or other appeal of the legality or 136907
validity of the amount giving rise to the debt expires without an 136908
appeal having been filed in the manner provided by law.136909

       Sec. 5751.09.  (A) The tax commissioner may make an 136910
assessment, based on any information in the commissioner's 136911
possession, against any person that fails to file a return or pay 136912
any tax as required by this chapter. The commissioner shall give 136913
the person assessed written notice of the assessment as provided 136914
in section 5703.37 of the Revised Code. With the notice, the 136915
commissioner shall provide instructions on the manner in which to 136916
petition for reassessment and request a hearing with respect to 136917
the petition. The commissioner shall send any assessments against 136918
consolidated elected taxpayer and combined taxpayer groups under 136919
section 5751.011 or 5751.012 of the Revised Code to the taxpayer's 136920
"reporting person" as defined under division (R) of section 136921
5751.01 of the Revised Code. The reporting person shall notify all 136922
members of the group of the assessment and all outstanding taxes, 136923
interest, and penalties for which the assessment is issued.136924

       (B) Unless the person assessed, within sixty days after 136925
service of the notice of assessment, files with the tax 136926
commissioner, either personally or by certified mail, a written 136927
petition signed by the person or the person's authorized agent 136928
having knowledge of the facts, the assessment becomes final, and 136929
the amount of the assessment is due and payable from the person 136930
assessed to the treasurer of state. The petition shall indicate 136931
the objections of the person assessed, but additional objections 136932
may be raised in writing if received by the commissioner prior to 136933
the date shown on the final determination.136934

       If a petition for reassessment has been properly filed, the 136935
commissioner shall proceed under section 5703.60 of the Revised 136936
Code.136937

       (C)(1) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of 136938
the assessment, including accrued interest, remains unpaid, a 136939
certified copy of the tax commissioner's entry making the 136940
assessment final may be filed in the office of the clerk of the 136941
court of common pleas in the county in which the person resides or 136942
has its principal place of business in this state, or in the 136943
office of the clerk of court of common pleas of Franklin county.136944

       (2) Immediately upon the filing of the entry, the clerk shall 136945
enter judgment for the state against the person assessed in the 136946
amount shown on the entry. The judgment may be filed by the clerk 136947
in a loose-leaf book entitled, "special judgments for the 136948
commercial activity tax" and shall have the same effect as other 136949
judgments. Execution shall issue upon the judgment at the request 136950
of the tax commissioner, and all laws applicable to sales on 136951
execution shall apply to sales made under the judgment.136952

       (3) The portion ofIf the assessment is not paid in its 136953
entirety within sixty days after the day the assessment was 136954
issued, the portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall 136955
bear interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 136956
of the Revised Code from the day the tax commissioner issues the 136957
assessment until it is paid or until it is certified to the 136958
attorney general for collection under section 131.02 of the 136959
Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid portion of the 136960
assessment is certified to the attorney general for collection, 136961
the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear interest at 136962
the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 136963
Code from the date of certification until the date it is paid in 136964
its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax 136965
and may be collected by the issuance of an assessment under this 136966
section.136967

       (D) If the tax commissioner believes that collection of the 136968
tax will be jeopardized unless proceedings to collect or secure 136969
collection of the tax are instituted without delay, the 136970
commissioner may issue a jeopardy assessment against the person 136971
liable for the tax. Immediately upon the issuance of the jeopardy 136972
assessment, the commissioner shall file an entry with the clerk of 136973
the court of common pleas in the manner prescribed by division (C) 136974
of this section. Notice of the jeopardy assessment shall be served 136975
on the person assessed or the person's authorized agent in the 136976
manner provided in section 5703.37 of the Revised Code within five 136977
days of the filing of the entry with the clerk. The total amount 136978
assessed is immediately due and payable, unless the person 136979
assessed files a petition for reassessment in accordance with 136980
division (B) of this section and provides security in a form 136981
satisfactory to the commissioner and in an amount sufficient to 136982
satisfy the unpaid balance of the assessment. Full or partial 136983
payment of the assessment does not prejudice the commissioner's 136984
consideration of the petition for reassessment.136985

       (E) The tax commissioner shall immediately forward to the 136986
treasurer of state all amounts the commissioner receives under 136987
this section, and such amounts shall be considered as revenue 136988
arising from the tax imposed under this chapter.136989

       (F) Except as otherwise provided in this division, no 136990
assessment shall be made or issued against a taxpayer for the tax 136991
imposed under this chapter more than four years after the due date 136992
for the filing of the return for the tax period for which the tax 136993
was reported, or more than four years after the return for the tax 136994
period was filed, whichever is later. The time limit may be 136995
extended if both the taxpayer and the commissioner consent in 136996
writing to the extension or enter into an agreement waiving or 136997
extending the time limit. Any such extension shall extend the 136998
four-year time limit in division (B) of section 5751.08 of the 136999
Revised Code for the same period of time. Nothing in this division 137000
bars an assessment against a taxpayer that fails to file a return 137001
required by this chapter or that files a fraudulent return.137002

       (G) If the tax commissioner possesses information that 137003
indicates that the amount of tax a taxpayer is required to pay 137004
under this chapter exceeds the amount the taxpayer paid, the tax 137005
commissioner may audit a sample of the taxpayer's gross receipts 137006
over a representative period of time to ascertain the amount of 137007
tax due, and may issue an assessment based on the audit. The tax 137008
commissioner shall make a good faith effort to reach agreement 137009
with the taxpayer in selecting a representative sample. The tax 137010
commissioner may apply a sampling method only if the commissioner 137011
has prescribed the method by rule.137012

       (H) If the whereabouts of a person subject to this chapter is 137013
not known to the tax commissioner, the commissioner shall follow 137014
the procedures under section 5703.37 of the Revised Code.137015

       Sec. 5751.20.  (A) As used in sections 5751.20 to 5751.22 of 137016
the Revised Code:137017

       (1) "School district," "joint vocational school district," 137018
"local taxing unit," "recognized valuation," "fixed-rate levy," 137019
and "fixed-sum levy" have the same meanings as used in section 137020
5727.84 of the Revised Code.137021

       (2) "State education aid" for a school district means the 137022
following:137023

       (a) For fiscal years prior to fiscal year 2010, the sum of 137024
state aid amounts computed for the district under the following 137025
provisions, as they existed for the applicable fiscal year: 137026
division (A) of section 3317.022 of the Revised Code, including 137027
the amounts calculated under sectionsformer section 3317.029 and 137028
section 3317.0217 of the Revised Code; divisions (C)(1), (C)(4), 137029
(D), (E), and (F) of section 3317.022; divisions (B), (C), and (D) 137030
of section 3317.023; divisions (L) and (N) of section 3317.024; 137031
section 3317.0216; and any unit payments for gifted student 137032
services paid under sectionssection 3317.05,and former sections137033
3317.052, and 3317.053 of the Revised Code; except that, for 137034
fiscal years 2008 and 2009, the amount computed for the district 137035
under Section 269.20.80 of H.B. 119 of the 127th general assembly 137036
and as that section subsequently may be amended shall be 137037
substituted for the amount computed under division (D) of section 137038
3317.022 of the Revised Code, and the amount computed under 137039
Section 269.30.80 of H.B. 119 of the 127th general assembly and as 137040
that section subsequently may be amended shall be included.137041

       (b) For fiscal years 2010 and 2011, the sum of the amounts 137042
computed under former sections 3306.052, 3306.12, 3306.13, 137043
3306.19, 3306.191, and 3306.192 of the Revised Code;137044

       (c) For fiscal years 2012 and 2013, the sum of the amounts 137045
paid under Sections 267.30.50, 267.30.53, and 267.30.56 of H.B. 137046
153 of the 129th general assembly;137047

       (d) For fiscal year 2014 and each fiscal year thereafter, the 137048
sum of state amounts computed for the district under section 137049
3317.022 of the Revised Code; except that, for fiscal years 2014 137050
and 2015, the amount computed for the district under the section 137051
of this act entitled "TRANSITIONAL AID FOR CITY, LOCAL, AND 137052
EXEMPTED VILLAGE SCHOOL DISTRICTS" shall be included.137053

       (3) "State education aid" for a joint vocational school 137054
district means the following:137055

       (a) For fiscal years prior to fiscal year 2010, the sum of 137056
the state aid computed for the district under division (N) of 137057
section 3317.024 and former section 3317.16 of the Revised Code, 137058
except that, for fiscal years 2008 and 2009, the amount computed 137059
under Section 269.30.80 of H.B. 119 of the 127th general assembly 137060
and as that section subsequently may be amended shall be included.137061

       (b) For fiscal years 2010 and 2011, the amount paid in 137062
accordance with Section 265.30.50 of H.B. 1 of the 128th general 137063
assembly.137064

       (c) For fiscal years 2012 and 2013, the amount paid in 137065
accordance with Section 267.30.60 of H.B. 153 of the 129th general 137066
assembly.137067

       (d) For fiscal year 2014 and each fiscal year thereafter, the 137068
amount computed for the district under section 3317.16 of the 137069
Revised Code; except that, for fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the 137070
amount computed for the district under the section of this act 137071
entitled "TRANSITIONAL AID FOR JOINT VOCATIONAL SCHOOL DISTRICTS" 137072
shall be included.137073

        (4) "State education aid offset" means the amount determined 137074
for each school district or joint vocational school district under 137075
division (A)(1) of section 5751.21 of the Revised Code.137076

       (5) "Machinery and equipment property tax value loss" means 137077
the amount determined under division (C)(1) of this section.137078

       (6) "Inventory property tax value loss" means the amount 137079
determined under division (C)(2) of this section.137080

       (7) "Furniture and fixtures property tax value loss" means 137081
the amount determined under division (C)(3) of this section.137082

        (8) "Machinery and equipment fixed-rate levy loss" means the 137083
amount determined under division (D)(1) of this section.137084

       (9) "Inventory fixed-rate levy loss" means the amount 137085
determined under division (D)(2) of this section.137086

       (10) "Furniture and fixtures fixed-rate levy loss" means the 137087
amount determined under division (D)(3) of this section.137088

       (11) "Total fixed-rate levy loss" means the sum of the 137089
machinery and equipment fixed-rate levy loss, the inventory 137090
fixed-rate levy loss, the furniture and fixtures fixed-rate levy 137091
loss, and the telephone company fixed-rate levy loss.137092

       (12) "Fixed-sum levy loss" means the amount determined under 137093
division (E) of this section.137094

       (13) "Machinery and equipment" means personal property 137095
subject to the assessment rate specified in division (F) of 137096
section 5711.22 of the Revised Code.137097

       (14) "Inventory" means personal property subject to the 137098
assessment rate specified in division (E) of section 5711.22 of 137099
the Revised Code.137100

       (15) "Furniture and fixtures" means personal property subject 137101
to the assessment rate specified in division (G) of section 137102
5711.22 of the Revised Code.137103

       (16) "Qualifying levies" are levies in effect for tax year 137104
2004 or applicable to tax year 2005 or approved at an election 137105
conducted before September 1, 2005. For the purpose of determining 137106
the rate of a qualifying levy authorized by section 5705.212 or 137107
5705.213 of the Revised Code, the rate shall be the rate that 137108
would be in effect for tax year 2010.137109

       (17) "Telephone property" means tangible personal property of 137110
a telephone, telegraph, or interexchange telecommunications 137111
company subject to an assessment rate specified in section 137112
5727.111 of the Revised Code in tax year 2004.137113

       (18) "Telephone property tax value loss" means the amount 137114
determined under division (C)(4) of this section.137115

       (19) "Telephone property fixed-rate levy loss" means the 137116
amount determined under division (D)(4) of this section.137117

       (20) "Taxes charged and payable" means taxes charged and 137118
payable after the reduction required by section 319.301 of the 137119
Revised Code but before the reductions required by sections 137120
319.302 and 323.152 of the Revised Code.137121

       (21) "Median estate tax collections" means, in the case of a 137122
municipal corporation to which revenue from the taxes levied in 137123
Chapter 5731. of the Revised Code was distributed in each of 137124
calendar years 2006, 2007, 2008, and 2009, the median of those 137125
distributions. In the case of a municipal corporation to which no 137126
distributions were made in one or more of those years, "median 137127
estate tax collections" means zero. 137128

       (22) "Total resources," in the case of a school district, 137129
means the sum of the amounts in divisions (A)(22)(a) to (h) of 137130
this section less any reduction required under division (A)(32) or 137131
(33) of this section.137132

       (a) The state education aid for fiscal year 2010; 137133

       (b) The sum of the payments received by the school district 137134
in fiscal year 2010 for current expense levy losses pursuant to 137135
division (C)(2) of section 5727.85 and divisions (C)(8) and (9) of 137136
section 5751.21 of the Revised Code, excluding the portion of such 137137
payments attributable to levies for joint vocational school 137138
district purposes; 137139

       (c) The sum of fixed-sum levy loss payments received by the 137140
school district in fiscal year 2010 pursuant to division (E)(1) of 137141
section 5727.85 and division (E)(1) of section 5751.21 of the 137142
Revised Code for fixed-sum levies charged and payable for a 137143
purpose other than paying debt charges; 137144

       (d) Fifty per cent of the school district's taxes charged and 137145
payable against all property on the tax list of real and public 137146
utility property for current expense purposes for tax year 2008, 137147
including taxes charged and payable from emergency levies charged 137148
and payable under section 5709.194 of the Revised Code and 137149
excluding taxes levied for joint vocational school district 137150
purposes;137151

       (e) Fifty per cent of the school district's taxes charged and 137152
payable against all property on the tax list of real and public 137153
utility property for current expenses for tax year 2009, including 137154
taxes charged and payable from emergency levies and excluding 137155
taxes levied for joint vocational school district purposes;137156

       (f) The school district's taxes charged and payable against 137157
all property on the general tax list of personal property for 137158
current expenses for tax year 2009, including taxes charged and 137159
payable from emergency levies;137160

       (g) The amount certified for fiscal year 2010 under division 137161
(A)(2) of section 3317.08 of the Revised Code;137162

       (h) Distributions received during calendar year 2009 from 137163
taxes levied under section 718.09 of the Revised Code.137164

       (23) "Total resources," in the case of a joint vocational 137165
school district, means the sum of amounts in divisions (A)(23)(a) 137166
to (g) of this section less any reduction required under division 137167
(A)(32) of this section.137168

       (a) The state education aid for fiscal year 2010; 137169

       (b) The sum of the payments received by the joint vocational 137170
school district in fiscal year 2010 for current expense levy 137171
losses pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 5727.85 and 137172
divisions (C)(8) and (9) of section 5751.21 of the Revised Code; 137173

       (c) Fifty per cent of the joint vocational school district's 137174
taxes charged and payable against all property on the tax list of 137175
real and public utility property for current expense purposes for 137176
tax year 2008;137177

       (d) Fifty per cent of the joint vocational school district's 137178
taxes charged and payable against all property on the tax list of 137179
real and public utility property for current expenses for tax year 137180
2009;137181

       (e) Fifty per cent of a city, local, or exempted village 137182
school district's taxes charged and payable against all property 137183
on the tax list of real and public utility property for current 137184
expenses of the joint vocational school district for tax year 137185
2008;137186

       (f) Fifty per cent of a city, local, or exempted village 137187
school district's taxes charged and payable against all property 137188
on the tax list of real and public utility property for current 137189
expenses of the joint vocational school district for tax year 137190
2009;137191

       (g) The joint vocational school district's taxes charged and 137192
payable against all property on the general tax list of personal 137193
property for current expenses for tax year 2009.137194

       (24) "Total resources," in the case of county mental health 137195
and disability related functions, means the sum of the amounts in 137196
divisions (A)(24)(a) and (b) of this section less any reduction 137197
required under division (A)(32) of this section.137198

       (a) The sum of the payments received by the county for mental 137199
health and developmental disability related functions in calendar 137200
year 2010 under division (A)(1) of section 5727.86 and divisions 137201
(A)(1) and (2) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code as they 137202
existed at that time;137203

       (b) With respect to taxes levied by the county for mental 137204
health and developmental disability related purposes, the taxes 137205
charged and payable for such purposes against all property on the 137206
tax list of real and public utility property for tax year 2009.137207

       (25) "Total resources," in the case of county senior services 137208
related functions, means the sum of the amounts in divisions 137209
(A)(25)(a) and (b) of this section less any reduction required 137210
under division (A)(32) of this section. 137211

       (a) The sum of the payments received by the county for senior 137212
services related functions in calendar year 2010 under division 137213
(A)(1) of section 5727.86 and divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 137214
5751.22 of the Revised Code as they existed at that time; 137215

       (b) With respect to taxes levied by the county for senior 137216
services related purposes, the taxes charged and payable for such 137217
purposes against all property on the tax list of real and public 137218
utility property for tax year 2009. 137219

       (26) "Total resources," in the case of county children's 137220
services related functions, means the sum of the amounts in 137221
divisions (A)(26)(a) and (b) of this section less any reduction 137222
required under division (A)(32) of this section. 137223

       (a) The sum of the payments received by the county for 137224
children's services related functions in calendar year 2010 under 137225
division (A)(1) of section 5727.86 and divisions (A)(1) and (2) of 137226
section 5751.22 of the Revised Code as they existed at that time; 137227

       (b) With respect to taxes levied by the county for children's 137228
services related purposes, the taxes charged and payable for such 137229
purposes against all property on the tax list of real and public 137230
utility property for tax year 2009. 137231

       (27) "Total resources," in the case of county public health 137232
related functions, means the sum of the amounts in divisions 137233
(A)(27)(a) and (b) of this section less any reduction required 137234
under division (A)(32) of this section. 137235

       (a) The sum of the payments received by the county for public 137236
health related functions in calendar year 2010 under division 137237
(A)(1) of section 5727.86 and divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 137238
5751.22 of the Revised Code as they existed at that time; 137239

       (b) With respect to taxes levied by the county for public 137240
health related purposes, the taxes charged and payable for such 137241
purposes against all property on the tax list of real and public 137242
utility property for tax year 2009. 137243

       (28) "Total resources," in the case of all county functions 137244
not included in divisions (A)(24) to (27) of this section, means 137245
the sum of the amounts in divisions (A)(28)(a) to (d) of this 137246
section less any reduction required under division (A)(32) or (33) 137247
of this section. 137248

       (a) The sum of the payments received by the county for all 137249
other purposes in calendar year 2010 under division (A)(1) of 137250
section 5727.86 and divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 5751.22 of 137251
the Revised Code as they existed at that time; 137252

       (b) The county's percentage share of county undivided local 137253
government fund allocations as certified to the tax commissioner 137254
for calendar year 2010 by the county auditor under division (J) of 137255
section 5747.51 of the Revised Code or division (F) of section 137256
5747.53 of the Revised Code multiplied by the total amount 137257
actually distributed in calendar year 2010 from the county 137258
undivided local government fund; 137259

       (c) With respect to taxes levied by the county for all other 137260
purposes, the taxes charged and payable for such purposes against 137261
all property on the tax list of real and public utility property 137262
for tax year 2009, excluding taxes charged and payable for the 137263
purpose of paying debt charges; 137264

       (d) The sum of the amounts distributed to the county in 137265
calendar year 2010 for the taxes levied pursuant to sections 137266
5739.021 and 5741.021 of the Revised Code. 137267

       (29) "Total resources," in the case of a municipal 137268
corporation, means the sum of the amounts in divisions (A)(29)(a) 137269
to (g) of this section less any reduction required under division 137270
(A)(32) or (33) of this section. 137271

       (a) The sum of the payments received by the municipal 137272
corporation in calendar year 2010 for current expense levy losses 137273
under division (A)(1) of section 5727.86 and divisions (A)(1) and 137274
(2) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code as they existed at that 137275
time; 137276

       (b) The municipal corporation's percentage share of county 137277
undivided local government fund allocations as certified to the 137278
tax commissioner for calendar year 2010 by the county auditor 137279
under division (J) of section 5747.51 of the Revised Code or 137280
division (F) of section 5747.53 of the Revised Code multiplied by 137281
the total amount actually distributed in calendar year 2010 from 137282
the county undivided local government fund;137283

       (c) The sum of the amounts distributed to the municipal 137284
corporation in calendar year 2010 pursuant to section 5747.50 of 137285
the Revised Code; 137286

       (d) With respect to taxes levied by the municipal 137287
corporation, the taxes charged and payable against all property on 137288
the tax list of real and public utility property for current 137289
expenses, defined in division (A)(35) of this section, for tax 137290
year 2009; 137291

       (e) The amount of admissions tax collected by the municipal 137292
corporation in calendar year 2008, or if such information has not 137293
yet been reported to the tax commissioner, in the most recent year 137294
before 2008 for which the municipal corporation has reported data 137295
to the commissioner; 137296

       (f) The amount of income taxes collected by the municipal 137297
corporation in calendar year 2008, or if such information has not 137298
yet been reported to the tax commissioner, in the most recent year 137299
before 2008 for which the municipal corporation has reported data 137300
to the commissioner;137301

       (g) The municipal corporation's median estate tax 137302
collections.137303

       (30) "Total resources," in the case of a township, means the 137304
sum of the amounts in divisions (A)(30)(a) to (c) of this section 137305
less any reduction required under division (A)(32) or (33) of this 137306
section. 137307

       (a) The sum of the payments received by the township in 137308
calendar year 2010 pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 5727.86 137309
of the Revised Code and divisions (A)(1) and (2) of section 137310
5751.22 of the Revised Code as they existed at that time, 137311
excluding payments received for debt purposes;137312

       (b) The township's percentage share of county undivided local 137313
government fund allocations as certified to the tax commissioner 137314
for calendar year 2010 by the county auditor under division (J) of 137315
section 5747.51 of the Revised Code or division (F) of section 137316
5747.53 of the Revised Code multiplied by the total amount 137317
actually distributed in calendar year 2010 from the county 137318
undivided local government fund; 137319

       (c) With respect to taxes levied by the township, the taxes 137320
charged and payable against all property on the tax list of real 137321
and public utility property for tax year 2009 excluding taxes 137322
charged and payable for the purpose of paying debt charges.137323

       (31) "Total resources," in the case of a local taxing unit 137324
that is not a county, municipal corporation, or township, means 137325
the sum of the amounts in divisions (A)(31)(a) to (e) of this 137326
section less any reduction required under division (A)(32) of this 137327
section.137328

       (a) The sum of the payments received by the local taxing unit 137329
in calendar year 2010 pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 137330
5727.86 of the Revised Code and divisions (A)(1) and (2) of 137331
section 5751.22 of the Revised Code as they existed at that time;137332

       (b) The local taxing unit's percentage share of county 137333
undivided local government fund allocations as certified to the 137334
tax commissioner for calendar year 2010 by the county auditor 137335
under division (J) of section 5747.51 of the Revised Code or 137336
division (F) of section 5747.53 of the Revised Code multiplied by 137337
the total amount actually distributed in calendar year 2010 from 137338
the county undivided local government fund; 137339

       (c) With respect to taxes levied by the local taxing unit, 137340
the taxes charged and payable against all property on the tax list 137341
of real and public utility property for tax year 2009 excluding 137342
taxes charged and payable for the purpose of paying debt charges;137343

       (d) The amount received from the tax commissioner during 137344
calendar year 2010 for sales or use taxes authorized under 137345
sections 5739.023 and 5741.022 of the Revised Code;137346

       (e) For institutions of higher education receiving tax 137347
revenue from a local levy, as identified in section 3358.02 of the 137348
Revised Code, the final state share of instruction allocation for 137349
fiscal year 2010 as calculated by the board of regents and 137350
reported to the state controlling board.137351

       (32) If a fixed-rate levy that is a qualifying levy is not 137352
charged and payable in any year after tax year 2010, "total 137353
resources" used to compute payments to be made under division 137354
(C)(12) of section 5751.21 or division (A)(1)(b) or (c) of section 137355
5751.22 of the Revised Code in the tax years following the last 137356
year the levy is charged and payable shall be reduced to the 137357
extent that the payments are attributable to the fixed-rate levy 137358
loss of that levy as would be computed under division (C)(2) of 137359
section 5727.85, division (A)(1) of section 5727.85, divisions 137360
(C)(8) and (9) of section 5751.21, or division (A)(1) of section 137361
5751.22 of the Revised Code.137362

       (33) In the case of a county, municipal corporation, school 137363
district, or township with fixed-rate levy losses attributable to 137364
a tax levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised Code, "total 137365
resources" used to compute payments to be made under division 137366
(C)(3) of section 5727.85, division (A)(1)(d) of section 5727.86, 137367
division (C)(12) of section 5751.21, or division (A)(1)(c) of 137368
section 5751.22 of the Revised Code shall be reduced by the 137369
amounts described in divisions (A)(34)(a) to (c) of this section 137370
to the extent that those amounts were included in calculating the 137371
"total resources" of the school district or local taxing unit 137372
under division (A)(22), (28), (29), or (30) of this section.137373

        (34) "Total library resources," in the case of a county, 137374
municipal corporation, school district, or township public library 137375
that receives the proceeds of a tax levied under section 5705.23 137376
of the Revised Code, means the sum of the amounts in divisions 137377
(A)(34)(a) to (c) of this section less any reduction required 137378
under division (A)(32) of this section.137379

        (a) The sum of the payments received by the county, municipal 137380
corporation, school district, or township public library in 137381
calendar year 2010 pursuant to sections 5727.86 and 5751.22 of the 137382
Revised Code, as they existed at that time, for fixed-rate levy 137383
losses attributable to a tax levied under section 5705.23 of the 137384
Revised Code for the benefit of the public library;137385

        (b) The public library's percentage share of county undivided 137386
local government fund allocations as certified to the tax 137387
commissioner for calendar year 2010 by the county auditor under 137388
division (J) of section 5747.51 of the Revised Code or division 137389
(F) of section 5747.53 of the Revised Code multiplied by the total 137390
amount actually distributed in calendar year 2010 from the county 137391
undivided local government fund;137392

        (c) With respect to a tax levied pursuant to section 5705.23 137393
of the Revised Code for the benefit of the public library, the 137394
amount of such tax that is charged and payable against all 137395
property on the tax list of real and public utility property for 137396
tax year 2009 excluding any tax that is charged and payable for 137397
the purpose of paying debt charges.137398

        (35) "Municipal current expense property tax levies" means 137399
all property tax levies of a municipality, except those with the 137400
following levy names: airport resurfacing; bond or any levy name 137401
including the word "bond"; capital improvement or any levy name 137402
including the word "capital"; debt or any levy name including the 137403
word "debt"; equipment or any levy name including the word 137404
"equipment," unless the levy is for combined operating and 137405
equipment; employee termination fund; fire pension or any levy 137406
containing the word "pension," including police pensions; 137407
fireman's fund or any practically similar name; sinking fund; road 137408
improvements or any levy containing the word "road"; fire truck or 137409
apparatus; flood or any levy containing the word "flood"; 137410
conservancy district; county health; note retirement; sewage, or 137411
any levy containing the words "sewage" or "sewer"; park 137412
improvement; parkland acquisition; storm drain; street or any levy 137413
name containing the word "street"; lighting, or any levy name 137414
containing the word "lighting"; and water.137415

       (36) "Current expense TPP allocation" means, in the case of a 137416
school district or joint vocational school district, the sum of 137417
the payments received by the school district in fiscal year 2011 137418
pursuant to divisions (C)(10) and (11) of section 5751.21 of the 137419
Revised Code to the extent paid for current expense levies. In the 137420
case of a municipal corporation, "current expense TPP allocation" 137421
means the sum of the payments received by the municipal 137422
corporation in calendar year 2010 pursuant to divisions (A)(1) and 137423
(2) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code to the extent paid for 137424
municipal current expense property tax levies as defined in 137425
division (A)(35) of this section, excluding any such payments 137426
received for current expense levy losses attributable to a tax 137427
levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised Code. If a fixed-rate 137428
levy that is a qualifying levy is not charged and payable in any 137429
year after tax year 2010, "current expense TPP allocation" used to 137430
compute payments to be made under division (C)(12) of section 137431
5751.21 or division (A)(1)(b) or (c) of section 5751.22 of the 137432
Revised Code in the tax years following the last year the levy is 137433
charged and payable shall be reduced to the extent that the 137434
payments are attributable to the fixed-rate levy loss of that levy 137435
as would be computed under divisions (C)(10) and (11) of section 137436
5751.21 or division (A)(1) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code.137437

       (37) "TPP allocation" means the sum of payments received by a 137438
local taxing unit in calendar year 2010 pursuant to divisions 137439
(A)(1) and (2) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code, excluding 137440
any such payments received for fixed-rate levy losses attributable 137441
to a tax levied under section 5705.23 of the Revised Code. If a 137442
fixed-rate levy that is a qualifying levy is not charged and 137443
payable in any year after tax year 2010, "TPP allocation" used to 137444
compute payments to be made under division (A)(1)(b) or (c) of 137445
section 5751.22 of the Revised Code in the tax years following the 137446
last year the levy is charged and payable shall be reduced to the 137447
extent that the payments are attributable to the fixed-rate levy 137448
loss of that levy as would be computed under division (A)(1) of 137449
that section.137450

       (38) "Total TPP allocation" means, in the case of a school 137451
district or joint vocational school district, the sum of the 137452
amounts received in fiscal year 2011 pursuant to divisions (C)(10) 137453
and (11) and (D) of section 5751.21 of the Revised Code. In the 137454
case of a local taxing unit, "total TPP allocation" means the sum 137455
of payments received by the unit in calendar year 2010 pursuant to 137456
divisions (A)(1), (2), and (3) of section 5751.22 of the Revised 137457
Code. If a fixed-rate levy that is a qualifying levy is not 137458
charged and payable in any year after tax year 2010, "total TPP 137459
allocation" used to compute payments to be made under division 137460
(C)(12) of section 5751.21 or division (A)(1)(b) or (c) of section 137461
5751.22 of the Revised Code in the tax years following the last 137462
year the levy is charged and payable shall be reduced to the 137463
extent that the payments are attributable to the fixed-rate levy 137464
loss of that levy as would be computed under divisions (C)(10) and 137465
(11) of section 5751.21 or division (A)(1) of section 5751.22 of 137466
the Revised Code.137467

       (39) "Non-current expense TPP allocation" means the 137468
difference of total TPP allocation minus the sum of current 137469
expense TPP allocation and the portion of total TPP allocation 137470
constituting reimbursement for debt levies, pursuant to division 137471
(D) of section 5751.21 of the Revised Code in the case of a school 137472
district or joint vocational school district and pursuant to 137473
division (A)(3) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code in the case 137474
of a municipal corporation. 137475

       (40) "TPP allocation for library purposes" means the sum of 137476
payments received by a county, municipal corporation, school 137477
district, or township public library in calendar year 2010 137478
pursuant to section 5751.22 of the Revised Code for fixed-rate 137479
levy losses attributable to a tax levied under section 5705.23 of 137480
the Revised Code. If a fixed-rate levy authorized under section 137481
5705.23 of the Revised Code that is a qualifying levy is not 137482
charged and payable in any year after tax year 2010, "TPP 137483
allocation for library purposes" used to compute payments to be 137484
made under division (A)(1)(d) of section 5751.22 of the Revised 137485
Code in the tax years following the last year the levy is charged 137486
and payable shall be reduced to the extent that the payments are 137487
attributable to the fixed-rate levy loss of that levy as would be 137488
computed under division (A)(1) of section 5751.22 of the Revised 137489
Code.137490

        (41) "Threshold per cent" means, in the case of a school 137491
district or joint vocational school district, two per cent for 137492
fiscal year 2012 and four per cent for fiscal years 2013 and 137493
thereafter. In the case of a local taxing unit or public library 137494
that receives the proceeds of a tax levied under section 5705.23 137495
of the Revised Code, "threshold per cent" means two per cent for 137496
tax year 2011, four per cent for tax year 2012, and six per cent 137497
for tax years 2013 and thereafter.137498

       (B)(1) The commercial activities tax receipts fund is hereby 137499
created in the state treasury and shall consist of money arising 137500
from the tax imposed under this chapter. Eighty-five 137501
one-hundredths of one per cent of the money credited to that fund 137502
shall be credited to the revenue enhancement fund and shall be 137503
used to defray the costs incurred by the department of taxation in 137504
administering the tax imposed by this chapter and in implementing 137505
tax reform measures. The remainder of the money in the commercial 137506
activities tax receipts fund shall first be credited to the 137507
commercial activity tax motor fuel receipts fund, pursuant to 137508
division (B)(2) of this section, and the remainder shall be 137509
credited in the following percentages each fiscal year to the 137510
general revenue fund, to the school district tangible property tax 137511
replacement fund, which is hereby created in the state treasury 137512
for the purpose of making the payments described in section 137513
5751.21 of the Revised Code, and to the local government tangible 137514
property tax replacement fund, which is hereby created in the 137515
state treasury for the purpose of making the payments described in 137516
section 5751.22 of the Revised Code, in the following percentages:137517

Fiscal year General Revenue Fund School District Tangible Property Tax Replacement Fund Local Government Tangible Property Tax Replacement Fund 137518
2006 67.7% 22.6% 9.7% 137519
2007 0% 70.0% 30.0% 137520
2008 0% 70.0% 30.0% 137521
2009 0% 70.0% 30.0% 137522
2010 0% 70.0% 30.0% 137523
2011 0% 70.0% 30.0% 137524
2012 25.0% 52.5% 22.5% 137525
2013 and thereafter 50.0% 35.0% 15.0% 137526

       (2) Not later than the twentieth day of February, May, 137527
August, and November of each year, the commissioner shall provide 137528
for payment from the commercial activities tax receipts fund to 137529
the commercial activity tax motor fuel receipts fund an amount 137530
that bears the same ratio to the balance in the commercial 137531
activities tax receipts fund that (a) the taxable gross receipts 137532
attributed to motor fuel used for propelling vehicles on public 137533
highways as indicated by returns filed by the tenth day of that 137534
month for a liability that is due and payable on or after July 1, 137535
2013, bears to (b) all taxable gross receipts as indicated by 137536
those returns for such liabilities.137537

       (C) Not later than September 15, 2005, the tax commissioner 137538
shall determine for each school district, joint vocational school 137539
district, and local taxing unit its machinery and equipment, 137540
inventory property, furniture and fixtures property, and telephone 137541
property tax value losses, which are the applicable amounts 137542
described in divisions (C)(1), (2), (3), and (4) of this section, 137543
except as provided in division (C)(5) of this section:137544

       (1) Machinery and equipment property tax value loss is the 137545
taxable value of machinery and equipment property as reported by 137546
taxpayers for tax year 2004 multiplied by:137547

       (a) For tax year 2006, thirty-three and eight-tenths per 137548
cent;137549

       (b) For tax year 2007, sixty-one and three-tenths per cent;137550

       (c) For tax year 2008, eighty-three per cent;137551

       (d) For tax year 2009 and thereafter, one hundred per cent.137552

       (2) Inventory property tax value loss is the taxable value of 137553
inventory property as reported by taxpayers for tax year 2004 137554
multiplied by:137555

       (a) For tax year 2006, a fraction, the numerator of which is 137556
five and three-fourths and the denominator of which is 137557
twenty-three;137558

        (b) For tax year 2007, a fraction, the numerator of which is 137559
nine and one-half and the denominator of which is twenty-three;137560

        (c) For tax year 2008, a fraction, the numerator of which is 137561
thirteen and one-fourth and the denominator of which is 137562
twenty-three;137563

        (d) For tax year 2009 and thereafter a fraction, the 137564
numerator of which is seventeen and the denominator of which is 137565
twenty-three.137566

        (3) Furniture and fixtures property tax value loss is the 137567
taxable value of furniture and fixture property as reported by 137568
taxpayers for tax year 2004 multiplied by:137569

        (a) For tax year 2006, twenty-five per cent;137570

        (b) For tax year 2007, fifty per cent;137571

        (c) For tax year 2008, seventy-five per cent;137572

        (d) For tax year 2009 and thereafter, one hundred per cent.137573

       The taxable value of property reported by taxpayers used in 137574
divisions (C)(1), (2), and (3) of this section shall be such 137575
values as determined to be final by the tax commissioner as of 137576
August 31, 2005. Such determinations shall be final except for any 137577
correction of a clerical error that was made prior to August 31, 137578
2005, by the tax commissioner.137579

       (4) Telephone property tax value loss is the taxable value of 137580
telephone property as taxpayers would have reported that property 137581
for tax year 2004 if the assessment rate for all telephone 137582
property for that year were twenty-five per cent, multiplied by:137583

       (a) For tax year 2006, zero per cent;137584

       (b) For tax year 2007, zero per cent;137585

       (c) For tax year 2008, zero per cent;137586

       (d) For tax year 2009, sixty per cent;137587

       (e) For tax year 2010, eighty per cent;137588

       (f) For tax year 2011 and thereafter, one hundred per cent.137589

       (5) Division (C)(5) of this section applies to any school 137590
district, joint vocational school district, or local taxing unit 137591
in a county in which is located a facility currently or formerly 137592
devoted to the enrichment or commercialization of uranium or 137593
uranium products, and for which the total taxable value of 137594
property listed on the general tax list of personal property for 137595
any tax year from tax year 2001 to tax year 2004 was fifty per 137596
cent or less of the taxable value of such property listed on the 137597
general tax list of personal property for the next preceding tax 137598
year.137599

       In computing the fixed-rate levy losses under divisions 137600
(D)(1), (2), and (3) of this section for any school district, 137601
joint vocational school district, or local taxing unit to which 137602
division (C)(5) of this section applies, the taxable value of such 137603
property as listed on the general tax list of personal property 137604
for tax year 2000 shall be substituted for the taxable value of 137605
such property as reported by taxpayers for tax year 2004, in the 137606
taxing district containing the uranium facility, if the taxable 137607
value listed for tax year 2000 is greater than the taxable value 137608
reported by taxpayers for tax year 2004. For the purpose of making 137609
the computations under divisions (D)(1), (2), and (3) of this 137610
section, the tax year 2000 valuation is to be allocated to 137611
machinery and equipment, inventory, and furniture and fixtures 137612
property in the same proportions as the tax year 2004 values. For 137613
the purpose of the calculations in division (A) of section 5751.21 137614
of the Revised Code, the tax year 2004 taxable values shall be 137615
used.137616

       To facilitate the calculations required under division (C) of 137617
this section, the county auditor, upon request from the tax 137618
commissioner, shall provide by August 1, 2005, the values of 137619
machinery and equipment, inventory, and furniture and fixtures for 137620
all single-county personal property taxpayers for tax year 2004.137621

       (D) Not later than September 15, 2005, the tax commissioner 137622
shall determine for each tax year from 2006 through 2009 for each 137623
school district, joint vocational school district, and local 137624
taxing unit its machinery and equipment, inventory, and furniture 137625
and fixtures fixed-rate levy losses, and for each tax year from 137626
2006 through 2011 its telephone property fixed-rate levy loss. 137627
Except as provided in division (F) of this section, such losses 137628
are the applicable amounts described in divisions (D)(1), (2), 137629
(3), and (4) of this section:137630

       (1) The machinery and equipment fixed-rate levy loss is the 137631
machinery and equipment property tax value loss multiplied by the 137632
sum of the tax rates of fixed-rate qualifying levies.137633

       (2) The inventory fixed-rate loss is the inventory property 137634
tax value loss multiplied by the sum of the tax rates of 137635
fixed-rate qualifying levies.137636

        (3) The furniture and fixtures fixed-rate levy loss is the 137637
furniture and fixture property tax value loss multiplied by the 137638
sum of the tax rates of fixed-rate qualifying levies.137639

       (4) The telephone property fixed-rate levy loss is the 137640
telephone property tax value loss multiplied by the sum of the tax 137641
rates of fixed-rate qualifying levies.137642

       (E) Not later than September 15, 2005, the tax commissioner 137643
shall determine for each school district, joint vocational school 137644
district, and local taxing unit its fixed-sum levy loss. The 137645
fixed-sum levy loss is the amount obtained by subtracting the 137646
amount described in division (E)(2) of this section from the 137647
amount described in division (E)(1) of this section:137648

       (1) The sum of the machinery and equipment property tax value 137649
loss, the inventory property tax value loss, and the furniture and 137650
fixtures property tax value loss, and, for 2008 through 2010, the 137651
telephone property tax value loss of the district or unit 137652
multiplied by the sum of the fixed-sum tax rates of qualifying 137653
levies. For 2006 through 2010, this computation shall include all 137654
qualifying levies remaining in effect for the current tax year and 137655
any school district levies charged and payable under section 137656
5705.194 or 5705.213 of the Revised Code that are qualifying 137657
levies not remaining in effect for the current year. For 2011 137658
through 2017 in the case of school district levies charged and 137659
payable under section 5705.194 or 5705.213 of the Revised Code and 137660
for all years after 2010 in the case of other fixed-sum levies, 137661
this computation shall include only qualifying levies remaining in 137662
effect for the current year. For purposes of this computation, a 137663
qualifying school district levy charged and payable under section 137664
5705.194 or 5705.213 of the Revised Code remains in effect in a 137665
year after 2010 only if, for that year, the board of education 137666
levies a school district levy charged and payable under section 137667
5705.194, 5705.199, 5705.213, or 5705.219 of the Revised Code for 137668
an annual sum at least equal to the annual sum levied by the board 137669
in tax year 2004 less the amount of the payment certified under 137670
this division for 2006.137671

       (2) The total taxable value in tax year 2004 less the sum of 137672
the machinery and equipment, inventory, furniture and fixtures, 137673
and telephone property tax value losses in each school district, 137674
joint vocational school district, and local taxing unit multiplied 137675
by one-half of one mill per dollar.137676

       (3) For the calculations in divisions (E)(1) and (2) of this 137677
section, the tax value losses are those that would be calculated 137678
for tax year 2009 under divisions (C)(1), (2), and (3) of this 137679
section and for tax year 2011 under division (C)(4) of this 137680
section.137681

       (4) To facilitate the calculation under divisions (D) and (E) 137682
of this section, not later than September 1, 2005, any school 137683
district, joint vocational school district, or local taxing unit 137684
that has a qualifying levy that was approved at an election 137685
conducted during 2005 before September 1, 2005, shall certify to 137686
the tax commissioner a copy of the county auditor's certificate of 137687
estimated property tax millage for such levy as required under 137688
division (B) of section 5705.03 of the Revised Code, which is the 137689
rate that shall be used in the calculations under such divisions.137690

       If the amount determined under division (E) of this section 137691
for any school district, joint vocational school district, or 137692
local taxing unit is greater than zero, that amount shall equal 137693
the reimbursement to be paid pursuant to division (E) of section 137694
5751.21 or division (A)(3) of section 5751.22 of the Revised Code, 137695
and the one-half of one mill that is subtracted under division 137696
(E)(2) of this section shall be apportioned among all contributing 137697
fixed-sum levies in the proportion that each levy bears to the sum 137698
of all fixed-sum levies within each school district, joint 137699
vocational school district, or local taxing unit.137700

       (F) If a school district levies a tax under section 5705.219 137701
of the Revised Code, the fixed-rate levy loss for qualifying 137702
levies, to the extent repealed under that section, shall equal the 137703
sum of the following amounts in lieu of the amounts computed for 137704
such levies under division (D) of this section:137705

       (1) The sum of the rates of qualifying levies to the extent 137706
so repealed multiplied by the sum of the machinery and equipment, 137707
inventory, and furniture and fixtures tax value losses for 2009 as 137708
determined under that division;137709

       (2) The sum of the rates of qualifying levies to the extent 137710
so repealed multiplied by the telephone property tax value loss 137711
for 2011 as determined under that division.137712

       The fixed-rate levy losses for qualifying levies to the 137713
extent not repealed under section 5705.219 of the Revised Code 137714
shall be as determined under division (D) of this section. The 137715
revised fixed-rate levy losses determined under this division and 137716
division (D) of this section first apply in the year following the 137717
first year the district levies the tax under section 5705.219 of 137718
the Revised Code.137719

       (G) Not later than October 1, 2005, the tax commissioner 137720
shall certify to the department of education for every school 137721
district and joint vocational school district the machinery and 137722
equipment, inventory, furniture and fixtures, and telephone 137723
property tax value losses determined under division (C) of this 137724
section, the machinery and equipment, inventory, furniture and 137725
fixtures, and telephone fixed-rate levy losses determined under 137726
division (D) of this section, and the fixed-sum levy losses 137727
calculated under division (E) of this section. The calculations 137728
under divisions (D) and (E) of this section shall separately 137729
display the levy loss for each levy eligible for reimbursement.137730

       (H) Not later than October 1, 2005, the tax commissioner 137731
shall certify the amount of the fixed-sum levy losses to the 137732
county auditor of each county in which a school district, joint 137733
vocational school district, or local taxing unit with a fixed-sum 137734
levy loss reimbursement has territory.137735

       (I) Not later than the twenty-eighth day of February each 137736
year beginning in 2011 and ending in 2014, the tax commissioner 137737
shall certify to the department of education for each school 137738
district first levying a tax under section 5705.219 of the Revised 137739
Code in the preceding year the revised fixed-rate levy losses 137740
determined under divisions (D) and (F) of this section.137741

       (J) There is hereby created in the state treasury the 137742
commercial activity tax motor fuel receipts fund.137743

       Sec. 5751.21.  (A) Not later than the thirtieth day of July 137744
of 2007 through 2010, the department of education shall consult 137745
with the director of budget and management and determine the 137746
following for each school district and each joint vocational 137747
school district eligible for payment under division (B) of this 137748
section:137749

       (1) The state education aid offset, which, except as provided 137750
in division (A)(1)(c) of this section, is the difference obtained 137751
by subtracting the amount described in division (A)(1)(b) of this 137752
section from the amount described in division (A)(1)(a) of this 137753
section:137754

       (a) The state education aid computed for the school district 137755
or joint vocational school district for the current fiscal year as 137756
of the thirtieth day of July;137757

       (b) The state education aid that would be computed for the 137758
school district or joint vocational school district for the 137759
current fiscal year as of the thirtieth day of July if the 137760
valuation used in the calculation in division (B)(1) of section 137761
3306.13 of the Revised Code as that division existed for fiscal 137762
years 2010 and 2011 included the machinery and equipment, 137763
inventory, furniture and fixtures, and telephone property tax 137764
value losses for the school district or joint vocational school 137765
district for the second preceding tax year, and if taxes charged 137766
and payable associated with the tax value losses are accounted for 137767
in any state education aid computation dependent on taxes charged 137768
and payable.137769

       (c) The state education aid offset for fiscal year 2010 and 137770
fiscal year 2011 equals the greater of the state education aid 137771
offset calculated for that fiscal year under divisions (A)(1)(a) 137772
and (b) of this section and the state education aid offset 137773
calculated for fiscal year 2009. For fiscal year 2012 and 2013, 137774
the state education aid offset equals the state education aid 137775
offset for fiscal year 2011.137776

       (2) For fiscal years 2008 through 2011, the greater of zero 137777
or the difference obtained by subtracting the state education aid 137778
offset determined under division (A)(1) of this section from the 137779
sum of the machinery and equipment fixed-rate levy loss, the 137780
inventory fixed-rate levy loss, furniture and fixtures fixed-rate 137781
levy loss, and telephone property fixed-rate levy loss certified 137782
under divisions (G) and (I) of section 5751.20 of the Revised Code 137783
for all taxing districts in each school district and joint 137784
vocational school district for the second preceding tax year.137785

       By the thirtieth day of July of each such year, the 137786
department of education and the director of budget and management 137787
shall agree upon the amount to be determined under division (A)(1) 137788
of this section.137789

       (B) On or before the thirty-first day of August of 2008, 137790
2009, and 2010, the department of education shall recalculate the 137791
offset described under division (A) of this section for the 137792
previous fiscal year and recalculate the payments made under 137793
division (C) of this section in the preceding fiscal year using 137794
the offset calculated under this division. If the payments 137795
calculated under this division differ from the payments made under 137796
division (C) of this section in the preceding fiscal year, the 137797
difference shall either be paid to a school district or recaptured 137798
from a school district through an adjustment at the same times 137799
during the current fiscal year that the payments under division 137800
(C) of this section are made. In August and October of the current 137801
fiscal year, the amount of each adjustment shall be three-sevenths 137802
of the amount calculated under this division. In May of the 137803
current fiscal year, the adjustment shall be one-seventh of the 137804
amount calculated under this division.137805

       (C) The department of education shall pay from the school 137806
district tangible property tax replacement fund to each school 137807
district and joint vocational school district all of the following 137808
for fixed-rate levy losses certified under divisions (G) and (I) 137809
of section 5751.20 of the Revised Code:137810

       (1) On or before May 31, 2006, one-seventh of the total 137811
fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 2006;137812

       (2) On or before August 31, 2006, and October 31, 2006, 137813
one-half of six-sevenths of the total fixed-rate levy loss for tax 137814
year 2006;137815

       (3) On or before May 31, 2007, one-seventh of the total 137816
fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 2007;137817

       (4) On or before August 31, 2007, and October 31, 2007, 137818
forty-three per cent of the amount determined under division 137819
(A)(2) of this section for fiscal year 2008, but not less than 137820
zero, plus one-half of six-sevenths of the difference between the 137821
total fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 2007 and the total 137822
fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 2006.137823

       (5) On or before May 31, 2008, fourteen per cent of the 137824
amount determined under division (A)(2) of this section for fiscal 137825
year 2008, but not less than zero, plus one-seventh of the 137826
difference between the total fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 137827
2008 and the total fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 2006.137828

       (6) On or before August 31, 2008, and October 31, 2008, 137829
forty-three per cent of the amount determined under division 137830
(A)(2) of this section for fiscal year 2009, but not less than 137831
zero, plus one-half of six-sevenths of the difference between the 137832
total fixed-rate levy loss in tax year 2008 and the total 137833
fixed-rate levy loss in tax year 2007.137834

       (7) On or before May 31, 2009, fourteen per cent of the 137835
amount determined under division (A)(2) of this section for fiscal 137836
year 2009, but not less than zero, plus one-seventh of the 137837
difference between the total fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 137838
2009 and the total fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 2007.137839

       (8) On or before August 31, 2009, and October 31, 2009, 137840
forty-three per cent of the amount determined under division 137841
(A)(2) of this section for fiscal year 2010, but not less than 137842
zero, plus one-half of six-sevenths of the difference between the 137843
total fixed-rate levy loss in tax year 2009 and the total 137844
fixed-rate levy loss in tax year 2008.137845

       (9) On or before May 31, 2010, fourteen per cent of the 137846
amount determined under division (A)(2) of this section for fiscal 137847
year 2010, but not less than zero, plus one-seventh of the 137848
difference between the total fixed-rate levy loss in tax year 2010 137849
and the total fixed-rate levy loss in tax year 2008.137850

       (10) On or before August 31, 2010, and October 31, 2010, 137851
forty-three per cent of the amount determined under division 137852
(A)(2) of this section for fiscal year 2011, but not less than 137853
zero, plus one-half of six-sevenths of the difference between the 137854
telephone property fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 2010 and the 137855
telephone property fixed-rate levy loss for tax year 2009.137856

       (11) On or before May 31, 2011, fourteen per cent of the 137857
amount determined under division (A)(2) of this section for fiscal 137858
year 2011, but not less than zero, plus one-seventh of the 137859
difference between the telephone property fixed-rate levy loss for 137860
tax year 2011 and the telephone property fixed-rate levy loss for 137861
tax year 2009.137862

       (12) For fiscal years 2012 and thereafter, the sum of the 137863
amounts in divisions (C)(12)(a) or (b) and (c) of this section 137864
shall be paid on or before the twentiethlast day of November and 137865
the last day of May:137866

       (a) If the ratio of current expense TPP allocation to total 137867
resources is equal to or less than the threshold per cent, zero;137868

       (b) If the ratio of current expense TPP allocation to total 137869
resources is greater than the threshold per cent, fifty per cent 137870
of the difference of current expense TPP allocation minus the 137871
product of total resources multiplied by the threshold per cent;137872

       (c) Fifty per cent of the product of non-current expense TPP 137873
allocation multiplied by seventy-five per cent for fiscal year 137874
2012 and fifty per cent for fiscal years 2013 and thereafter.137875

       The department of education shall report to each school 137876
district and joint vocational school district the apportionment of 137877
the payments among the school district's or joint vocational 137878
school district's funds based on the certifications under 137879
divisions (G) and (I) of section 5751.20 of the Revised Code.137880

       (D) For taxes levied within the ten-mill limitation for debt 137881
purposes in tax year 2005, payments shall be made equal to one 137882
hundred per cent of the loss computed as if the tax were a 137883
fixed-rate levy, but those payments shall extend from fiscal year 137884
2006 through fiscal year 2018, as long as the qualifying levy 137885
continues to be used for debt purposes. If the purpose of such a 137886
qualifying levy is changed, that levy becomes subject to the 137887
payments determined in division (C) of this section.137888

       (E)(1) Not later than January 1, 2006, for each fixed-sum 137889
levy of each school district or joint vocational school district 137890
and for each year for which a determination is made under division 137891
(E) of section 5751.20 of the Revised Code that a fixed-sum levy 137892
loss is to be reimbursed, the tax commissioner shall certify to 137893
the department of education the fixed-sum levy loss determined 137894
under that division. The certification shall cover a time period 137895
sufficient to include all fixed-sum levies for which the 137896
commissioner made such a determination. On or before the last day 137897
of May of the current year, the department shall pay from the 137898
school district property tax replacement fund to the school 137899
district or joint vocational school district one-third of the 137900
fixed-sum levy loss so certified, plus one-third of the amount 137901
certified under division (I) of section 5751.20 of the Revised 137902
Code, and on or before the twentiethlast day of November, 137903
two-thirds of the fixed-sum levy loss so certified, plus 137904
two-thirds of the amount certified under division (I) of section 137905
5751.20 of the Revised Code. Payments under this division of the 137906
amounts certified under division (I) of section 5751.20 of the 137907
Revised Code shall continue until the levy adopted under section 137908
5705.219 of the Revised Code expires.137909

       (2) Beginning in 2006, by the first day of January of each 137910
year, the tax commissioner shall review the certification 137911
originally made under division (E)(1) of this section. If the 137912
commissioner determines that a debt levy that had been scheduled 137913
to be reimbursed in the current year has expired, a revised 137914
certification for that and all subsequent years shall be made to 137915
the department of education.137916

       (F) Beginning in September 2007 and through June 2013, the 137917
director of budget and management shall transfer from the school 137918
district tangible property tax replacement fund to the general 137919
revenue fund each of the following:137920

       (1) On the first day of September, one-fourth of the amount 137921
determined for that fiscal year under division (A)(1) of this 137922
section;137923

       (2) On the first day of December, one-fourth of the amount 137924
determined for that fiscal year under division (A)(1) of this 137925
section;137926

       (3) On the first day of March, one-fourth of the amount 137927
determined for that fiscal year under division (A)(1) of this 137928
section;137929

       (4) On the first day of June, one-fourth of the amount 137930
determined for that fiscal year under division (A)(1) of this 137931
section.137932

       If, when a transfer is required under division (F)(1), (2), 137933
(3), or (4) of this section, there is not sufficient money in the 137934
school district tangible property tax replacement fund to make the 137935
transfer in the required amount, the director shall transfer the 137936
balance in the fund to the general revenue fund and may make 137937
additional transfers on later dates as determined by the director 137938
in a total amount that does not exceed one-fourth of the amount 137939
determined for the fiscal year.137940

       (G) If the total amount in the school district tangible 137941
property tax replacement fund is insufficient to make all payments 137942
under divisions (C), (D), and (E) of this section at the times the 137943
payments are to be made, the director of budget and management 137944
shall transfer from the general revenue fund to the school 137945
district tangible property tax replacement fund the difference 137946
between the total amount to be paid and the amount in the school 137947
district tangible property tax replacement fund. 137948

       (H) On the fifteenth day of June of each year, the director 137949
of budget and management may transfer any balance in the school 137950
district tangible property tax replacement fund to the general 137951
revenue fund. 137952

       (I) If all of the territory of a school district or joint 137953
vocational school district is merged with another district, or if 137954
a part of the territory of a school district or joint vocational 137955
school district is transferred to an existing or newly created 137956
district, the department of education, in consultation with the 137957
tax commissioner, shall adjust the payments made under this 137958
section as follows:137959

       (1) For a merger of two or more districts, the fixed-sum levy 137960
losses, total resources, current expense TPP allocation, total TPP 137961
allocation, and non-current expense TPP allocation of the 137962
successor district shall be the sum of such items for each of the 137963
districts involved in the merger.137964

       (2) If property is transferred from one district to a 137965
previously existing district, the amount of total resources, 137966
current expense TPP allocation, total TPP allocation, and 137967
non-current expense TPP allocation that shall be transferred to 137968
the recipient district shall be an amount equal to total 137969
resources, current expense TPP allocation, total TPP allocation, 137970
and non-current expense TPP allocation of the transferor district 137971
times a fraction, the numerator of which is the number of pupils 137972
being transferred to the recipient district, measured, in the case 137973
of a school district, by average daily membership as reported 137974
under division (A) of section 3317.03 of the Revised Code or, in 137975
the case of a joint vocational school district, by formula ADM as 137976
reported in division (D) of that section, and the denominator of 137977
which is the average daily membership or formula ADM of the 137978
transferor district.137979

       (3) After December 31, 2010, if property is transferred from 137980
one or more districts to a district that is newly created out of 137981
the transferred property, the newly created district shall be 137982
deemed not to have any total resources, current expense TPP 137983
allocation, total TPP allocation, or non-current expense TPP 137984
allocation.137985

       (4) If the recipient district under division (I)(2) of this 137986
section or the newly created district under division (I)(3) of 137987
this section is assuming debt from one or more of the districts 137988
from which the property was transferred and any of the districts 137989
losing the property had fixed-sum levy losses, the department of 137990
education, in consultation with the tax commissioner, shall make 137991
an equitable division of the fixed-sum levy loss reimbursements.137992

       Sec. 5751.40. (A) As used in this section:137993

        (1) "Rack" means a mechanism capable of delivering motor fuel 137994
from a terminal or refinery into a means of transport other than a 137995
pipeline or vessel. "Rack" includes a railroad tank car, a motor 137996
fuel transportation vehicle, or other means of transfer outside of 137997
a terminal or refinery transfer system.137998

        (2) "Refinery" means a facility used to produce motor fuel 137999
and from which motor fuel may be removed by pipeline, by vessel, 138000
or at a rack. "Refinery" does not include a facility that produces 138001
only blended fuel produced outside of a bulk transfer or terminal 138002
system.138003

        (3) "Terminal" means a motor fuel storage or distribution 138004
facility that is supplied by a pipeline or marine vessel and from 138005
which motor fuel may be removed at a rack. "Terminal" does not 138006
include a facility at which gasoline blendstocks are used in the 138007
manufacture of products other than gasoline, provided that no 138008
gasoline is removed from the facility. A facility is not a 138009
"terminal" for purposes of this section if all of the motor fuel 138010
stored at the facility has previously been subject to taxation as 138011
described in this section upon removal at a refinery or terminal 138012
rack.138013

        (B) In the case of receipts realized from the sale, exchange, 138014
or other transfer of motor fuel, "gross receipts" for the purposes 138015
of this chapter includes only the following gross receipts:138016

       (1) Gross receipts realized from the sale, exchange, or other 138017
transfer of motor fuel acquired from a terminal or refinery rack;138018

       (2) Gross receipts realized by a person from the sale, 138019
exchange, or other transfer of motor fuel acquired outside this 138020
state from a person that is not registered under section 5751.04 138021
of the Revised Code and imported or caused to be imported into 138022
this state for sale, exchange, or other transfer except when sold, 138023
exchanged, or transferred to a terminal or refinery. Division 138024
(B)(2) of this section does not apply if the gross receipts 138025
realized from the sale, exchange, or other transfer of the motor 138026
fuel has previously been included in any person's gross receipts 138027
under division (B)(1) of this section and reported in a return 138028
under section 5751.051 of the Revised Code.138029

        (C) For the purposes of this section, gross receipts shall 138030
not include any of the following:138031

       (1) Sales, exchanges, or transfers of motor fuel directly 138032
from a terminal to another terminal or from a refinery to another 138033
refinery;138034

       (2) Sales, exchanges, or transfers of motor fuel directly 138035
from a refinery to a terminal;138036

       (3) Sales, exchanges, or transfers of motor fuel within a 138037
refinery or terminal.138038

       Sec. 5753.03.  (A) For the purpose of receiving and 138039
distributing, and accounting for, revenue received from the tax 138040
levied by section 5753.02 of the Revised Code, the following funds 138041
are created in the state treasury:138042

       (1) The casino tax revenue fund;138043

       (2) The gross casino revenue county fund;138044

       (3) The gross casino revenue county student fund;138045

       (4) The gross casino revenue host city fund;138046

       (5) The Ohio state racing commission fund;138047

       (6) The Ohio law enforcement training fund;138048

       (7) The problem casino gambling and addictions fund;138049

       (8) The casino control commission fund;138050

       (9) The casino tax administration fund;138051

       (10) The peace officer training academy fund;138052

       (11) The criminal justice services casino tax revenue fund.138053

       (B) All moneys collected from the tax levied under this 138054
chapter shall be deposited into the casino tax revenue fund.138055

       (C) From the casino tax revenue fund the director of budget 138056
and management shall transfer as needed to the tax refund fund 138057
amounts equal to the refunds certified by the tax commissioner 138058
under section 5753.06 of the Revised Code.138059

       (D) After making any transfers required by division (C) of 138060
this section, but not later than the fifteenth day of the month 138061
following the end of each calendar quarter, the director of budget 138062
and management shall transfer amounts to each fund as follows:138063

       (1) Fifty-one per cent to the gross casino revenue county 138064
fund to make payments as required by Section 6(C)(3)(a) of Article 138065
XV, Ohio Constitution;138066

       (2) Thirty-four per cent to the gross casino revenue county 138067
student fund to make payments as required by Section 6(C)(3)(b) of 138068
Article XV, Ohio Constitution and as provided in section 5753.11 138069
of the Revised Code;138070

       (3) Five per cent to the gross casino revenue host city fund 138071
for the benefit of the cities in which casino facilities are 138072
located;138073

       (4) Three per cent to the Ohio state racing commission fund 138074
to support the efforts and activities of the Ohio state racing 138075
commission to promote horse racing in this state at which the 138076
pari-mutuel system of wagering is conducted;138077

       (5) Two per cent to the Ohio law enforcement training fund to 138078
support law enforcement functions in the state;138079

       (6) Two per cent to the problem casino gambling and 138080
addictions fund to support efforts of the department of alcohol 138081
and drug addiction servicesmental health and addiction services138082
to alleviate problem gambling and substance abuse and related 138083
research in the state under section 3793.0325119.47 of the 138084
Revised Code;138085

       (7) Three per cent to the casino control commission fund to 138086
support the operations of the Ohio casino control commission and 138087
to defray the cost of administering the tax levied under section 138088
5753.02 of the Revised Code.138089

       Payments under divisions (D)(1) and (3) of this section shall 138090
be made by the end of the month following the end of the quarterly 138091
period. The tax commissioner shall make the data available to the 138092
director of budget and management for this purpose.138093

       Money in the Ohio state racing commission fund shall be 138094
distributed at the discretion of the Ohio state racing commission 138095
for the purpose stated in division (D)(4) of this section by the 138096
end of the month following the end of the quarterly period. The 138097
commission may retain up to five per cent of the amount 138098
transferred to the fund under division (D)(4) of this section for 138099
operating expenses necessary for the administration of the fund.138100

       Payments from the gross casino revenue county student fund as 138101
required under section 5753.11 of the Revised Code shall be made 138102
by the last day of January and by the last day of August of each 138103
year, beginning in 2013. The tax commissioner shall make the data 138104
available to the director of budget and management for this 138105
purpose.138106

       Of the money credited to the Ohio law enforcement training 138107
fund, the director of budget and management shall distribute 138108
eighty-five per cent of the money to the police officer training 138109
academy fund for the purpose of supporting the law enforcement 138110
training efforts of the Ohio peace officer training academy and 138111
fifteen per cent of the money to the criminal justice services 138112
casino tax revenue fund for the purpose of supporting the law 138113
enforcement training efforts of the division of criminal justice 138114
services.138115

       (E)(1) The tax commissioner shall serve as an agent of the 138116
counties of this state only for the purposes of this division and 138117
solely to make payments directly to municipal corporations and 138118
school districts, as applicable, on the counties' behalf.138119

       (2) On or before the last day of the month following the end 138120
of each calendar quarter, the tax commissioner shall provide for 138121
payment from the funds referenced in divisions (D)(1) and (3) of 138122
this section to each county and municipal corporation as 138123
prescribed in those divisions.138124

       (3) On or before the last day of January and the last day of 138125
August each year, the commissioner shall provide for payments from 138126
the fund referenced in division (D)(2) of this section to each 138127
school district as prescribed in that division.138128

        (F) The director of budget and management shall transfer one 138129
per cent of the money credited to the casino control commission 138130
fund to the casino tax administration fund. The tax commissioner 138131
shall use the casino tax administration fund to defray the costs 138132
incurred in administering the tax levied by this chapter.138133

       (G) All investment earnings of the gross casino revenue 138134
county student fund shall be credited to the fund.138135

       Sec. 5753.07.  (A)(1) The tax commissioner may issue an 138136
assessment, based on any information in the tax commissioner's 138137
possession, against a casino operator who fails to pay the tax 138138
levied under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code or to file a 138139
return under section 5753.04 of the Revised Code. The tax 138140
commissioner shall give the casino operator written notice of the 138141
assessment under section 5703.37 of the Revised Code. With the 138142
notice, the tax commissioner shall include instructions on how to 138143
petition for reassessment and on how to request a hearing with 138144
respect to the petition.138145

       (2) Unless the casino operator, within sixty days after 138146
service of the notice of assessment, files with the tax 138147
commissioner, either personally or by certified mail, a written 138148
petition signed by the casino operator, or by the casino 138149
operator's authorized agent who has knowledge of the facts, the 138150
assessment becomes final, and the amount of the assessment is due 138151
and payable from the casino operator to the treasurer of state. 138152
The petition shall indicate the casino operator's objections to 138153
the assessment. Additional objections may be raised in writing if 138154
they are received by the tax commissioner before the date shown on 138155
the final determination.138156

       (3) If a petition for reassessment has been properly filed, 138157
the tax commissioner shall proceed under section 5703.60 of the 138158
Revised Code.138159

       (4) After an assessment becomes final, if any portion of the 138160
assessment, including penalties and accrued interest, remains 138161
unpaid, the tax commissioner may file a certified copy of the 138162
entry making the assessment final in the office of the clerk of 138163
the court of common pleas of Franklin county or in the office of 138164
the clerk of the court of common pleas of the county in which the 138165
casino operator resides, the casino operator's casino facility is 138166
located, or the casino operator's principal place of business in 138167
this state is located. Immediately upon the filing of the entry, 138168
the clerk shall enter a judgment for the state against the 138169
taxpayer assessed in the amount shown on the entry. The judgment 138170
may be filed by the clerk in a loose-leaf book entitled, "special 138171
judgments for the gross casino revenue tax." The judgment has the 138172
same effect as other judgments. Execution shall issue upon the 138173
judgment at the request of the tax commissioner, and all laws 138174
applicable to sales on execution apply to sales made under the 138175
judgment.138176

       (5) The portion of anIf the assessment is not paid in its 138177
entirety within sixty days after the day the assessment was issued 138178
bears, the portion of the assessment consisting of tax due shall 138179
bear interest at the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 138180
of the Revised Code from the day the tax commissioner issued the 138181
assessment until the assessment is paid or until it is certified 138182
to the attorney general for collection under section 131.02 of the 138183
Revised Code, whichever comes first. If the unpaid portion of the 138184
assessment is certified to the attorney general for collection, 138185
the entire unpaid portion of the assessment shall bear interest at 138186
the rate per annum prescribed by section 5703.47 of the Revised 138187
Code from the date of certification until the date it is paid in 138188
its entirety. Interest shall be paid in the same manner as the tax 138189
levied under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code and may be 138190
collected by the issuance of an assessment under this section.138191

       (B) If the tax commissioner believes that collection of the 138192
tax levied under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code will be 138193
jeopardized unless proceedings to collect or secure collection of 138194
the tax are instituted without delay, the commissioner may issue a 138195
jeopardy assessment against the casino operator who is liable for 138196
the tax. Immediately upon the issuance of a jeopardy assessment, 138197
the tax commissioner shall file an entry with the clerk of the 138198
court of common pleas in the manner prescribed by division (A)(4) 138199
of this section, and the clerk shall proceed as directed in that 138200
division. Notice of the jeopardy assessment shall be served on the 138201
casino operator or the casino operator's authorized agent under 138202
section 5703.37 of the Revised Code within five days after the 138203
filing of the entry with the clerk. The total amount assessed is 138204
immediately due and payable, unless the casino operator assessed 138205
files a petition for reassessment under division (A)(2) of this 138206
section and provides security in a form satisfactory to the tax 138207
commissioner that is in an amount sufficient to satisfy the unpaid 138208
balance of the assessment. If a petition for reassessment has been 138209
filed, and if satisfactory security has been provided, the tax 138210
commissioner shall proceed under division (A)(3) of this section. 138211
Full or partial payment of the assessment does not prejudice the 138212
tax commissioner's consideration of the petition for reassessment.138213

       (C) The tax commissioner shall immediately forward to the 138214
treasurer of state all amounts the tax commissioner receives under 138215
this section, and the amounts forwarded shall be treated as if 138216
they were revenue arising from the tax levied under section 138217
5753.02 of the Revised Code.138218

       (D) Except as otherwise provided in this division, no 138219
assessment shall be issued against a casino operator for the tax 138220
levied under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code more than four 138221
years after the due date for filing the return for the tax period 138222
for which the tax was reported, or more than four years after the 138223
return for the tax period was filed, whichever is later. This 138224
division does not bar an assessment against a casino operator who 138225
fails to file a return as required by section 5753.04 of the 138226
Revised Code or who files a fraudulent return, or when the casino 138227
operator and the tax commissioner waive in writing the time 138228
limitation.138229

       (E) If the tax commissioner possesses information that 138230
indicates that the amount of tax a casino operator is liable to 138231
pay under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code exceeds the amount 138232
the casino operator paid, the tax commissioner may audit a sample 138233
of the casino operator's gross casino revenue over a 138234
representative period of time to ascertain the amount of tax due, 138235
and may issue an assessment based on the audit. The tax 138236
commissioner shall make a good faith effort to reach agreement 138237
with the casino operator in selecting a representative sample. The 138238
tax commissioner may apply a sampling method only if the tax 138239
commissioner has prescribed the method by rule.138240

       (F) If the whereabouts of a casino operator who is liable for 138241
the tax levied under section 5753.02 of the Revised Code are 138242
unknown to the tax commissioner, the tax commissioner shall 138243
proceed under section 5703.37 of the Revised Code.138244

       (G) If a casino operator fails to pay the tax levied under 138245
section 5753.02 of the Revised Code within a period of one year 138246
after the due date for remitting the tax, the Ohio casino control 138247
commission may suspend the casino operator's license.138248

       Sec. 5815.28.  (A) As used in this section:138249

       (1) "Ascertainable standard" includes a standard in a trust 138250
instrument requiring the trustee to provide for the care, comfort, 138251
maintenance, welfare, education, or general well-being of the 138252
beneficiary.138253

       (2) "Disability" means any substantial, medically 138254
determinable impairment that can be expected to result in death or 138255
that has lasted or can be expected to last for a continuous period 138256
of at least twelve months, except that "disability" does not 138257
include an impairment that is the result of abuse of alcohol or 138258
drugs.138259

       (3) "Political subdivision" and "state" have the same 138260
meanings as in section 2744.01 of the Revised Code.138261

       (4) "Supplemental services" means services specified by rule 138262
of the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 138263
services under section 5119.015119.10 of the Revised Code or the 138264
department of developmental disabilities under section 5123.04 of 138265
the Revised Code that are provided to an individual with a 138266
disability in addition to services the individual is eligible to 138267
receive under programs authorized by federal or state law.138268

       (B) Any person may create a trust under this section to 138269
provide funding for supplemental services for the benefit of 138270
another individual who meets either of the following conditions:138271

       (1) The individual has a physical or mental disability and is 138272
eligible to receive services through the department of 138273
developmental disabilities or a county board of developmental 138274
disabilities;138275

       (2) The individual has a mental disability and is eligible to 138276
receive services through the department of mental healthmental 138277
health and addiction services or a board of alcohol, drug 138278
addiction, and mental health services.138279

       The trust may confer discretion upon the trustee and may 138280
contain specific instructions or conditions governing the exercise 138281
of the discretion.138282

       (C) The general division of the court of common pleas and the 138283
probate court of the county in which the beneficiary of a trust 138284
authorized by division (B) of this section resides or is confined 138285
have concurrent original jurisdiction to hear and determine 138286
actions pertaining to the trust. In any action pertaining to the 138287
trust in a court of common pleas or probate court and in any 138288
appeal of the action, all of the following apply to the trial or 138289
appellate court:138290

       (1) The court shall render determinations consistent with the 138291
testator's or other settlor's intent in creating the trust, as 138292
evidenced by the terms of the trust instrument.138293

       (2) The court may order the trustee to exercise discretion 138294
that the trust instrument confers upon the trustee only if the 138295
instrument contains specific instructions or conditions governing 138296
the exercise of that discretion and the trustee has failed to 138297
comply with the instructions or conditions. In issuing an order 138298
pursuant to this division, the court shall require the trustee to 138299
exercise the trustee's discretion only in accordance with the 138300
instructions or conditions.138301

       (3) The court may order the trustee to maintain the trust and 138302
distribute assets in accordance with rules adopted by the director 138303
of mental healthmental health and addiction services under 138304
section 5119.015119.10 of the Revised Code or the director of 138305
developmental disabilities under section 5123.04 of the Revised 138306
Code if the trustee has failed to comply with such rules.138307

       (D) To the extent permitted by federal law and subject to the 138308
provisions of division (C)(2) of this section pertaining to the 138309
enforcement of specific instructions or conditions governing a 138310
trustee's discretion, a trust authorized by division (B) of this 138311
section that confers discretion upon the trustee shall not be 138312
considered an asset or resource of the beneficiary, the 138313
beneficiary's estate, the settlor, or the settlor's estate and 138314
shall be exempt from the claims of creditors, political 138315
subdivisions, the state, other governmental entities, and other 138316
claimants against the beneficiary, the beneficiary's estate, the 138317
settlor, or the settlor's estate, including claims regarding the 138318
medicaid program or based on provisions of Chapters 5111., 5121.,138319
or 5123. of the Revised Code and claims sought to be satisfied by 138320
way of a civil action, subrogation, execution, garnishment, 138321
attachment, judicial sale, or other legal process, if all of the 138322
following apply:138323

       (1) At the time the trust is created, the trust principal 138324
does not exceed the maximum amount determined under division (E) 138325
of this section;138326

       (2) The trust instrument contains a statement of the 138327
settlor's intent, or otherwise clearly evidences the settlor's 138328
intent, that the beneficiary does not have authority to compel the 138329
trustee under any circumstances to furnish the beneficiary with 138330
minimal or other maintenance or support, to make payments from the 138331
principal of the trust or from the income derived from the 138332
principal, or to convert any portion of the principal into cash, 138333
whether pursuant to an ascertainable standard specified in the 138334
instrument or otherwise;138335

       (3) The trust instrument provides that trust assets can be 138336
used only to provide supplemental services, as defined by rule of 138337
the director of mental healthmental health and addiction services138338
under section 5119.015119.10 of the Revised Code or the director 138339
of developmental disabilities under section 5123.04 of the Revised 138340
Code, to the beneficiary;138341

       (4) The trust is maintained and assets are distributed in 138342
accordance with rules adopted by the director of mental health138343
mental health and addiction services under section 5119.015119.10138344
of the Revised Code or the director of developmental disabilities 138345
under section 5123.04 of the Revised Code;138346

       (5) The trust instrument provides that on the death of the 138347
beneficiary, a portion of the remaining assets of the trust, which 138348
shall be not less than fifty per cent of such assets, will be 138349
deposited to the credit of the services fund for individuals with 138350
mental illness created by section 5119.175119.51 of the Revised 138351
Code or the services fund for individuals with mental retardation 138352
and developmental disabilities created by section 5123.40 of the 138353
Revised Code.138354

       (E) In 1994, the trust principal maximum amount for a trust 138355
created under this section shall be two hundred thousand dollars. 138356
The maximum amount for a trust created under this section prior to 138357
November 11, 1994, may be increased to two hundred thousand 138358
dollars.138359

       In 1995, the maximum amount for a trust created under this 138360
section shall be two hundred two thousand dollars. Each year 138361
thereafter, the maximum amount shall be the prior year's amount 138362
plus two thousand dollars.138363

       (F) This section does not limit or otherwise affect the 138364
creation, validity, interpretation, or effect of any trust that is 138365
not created under this section.138366

       (G) Once a trustee takes action on a trust created by a 138367
settlor under this section and disburses trust funds on behalf of 138368
the beneficiary of the trust, then the trust may not be terminated 138369
or otherwise revoked by a particular event or otherwise without 138370
payment into the services fund created pursuant to section 5119.17138371
5119.51 or 5123.40 of the Revised Code of an amount that is equal 138372
to the disbursements made on behalf of the beneficiary for medical 138373
care by the state from the date the trust vests but that is not 138374
more than fifty per cent of the trust corpus.138375

       Sec. 5902.02.  The duties of the director of veterans 138376
services shall include the following: 138377

       (A) Furnishing the veterans service commissions of all 138378
counties of the state copies of the state laws, rules, and 138379
legislation relating to the operation of the commissions and their 138380
offices; 138381

       (B) Upon application, assisting the general public in 138382
obtaining records of vital statistics pertaining to veterans or 138383
their dependents; 138384

       (C) Adopting rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised 138385
Code pertaining to minimum qualifications for hiring, certifying, 138386
and accrediting county veterans service officers, pertaining to 138387
their required duties, and pertaining to revocation of the 138388
certification of county veterans service officers; 138389

       (D) Adopting rules pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised 138390
Code for the education, training, certification, and duties of 138391
veterans service commissioners and for the revocation of the 138392
certification of a veterans service commissioner; 138393

       (E) Developing and monitoring programs and agreements 138394
enhancing employment and training for veterans in single or 138395
multiple county areas; 138396

       (F) Developing and monitoring programs and agreements to 138397
enable county veterans service commissions to address 138398
homelessness, indigency, and other veteran-related issues 138399
individually or jointly; 138400

       (G) Developing and monitoring programs and agreements to 138401
enable state agencies, individually or jointly, that provide 138402
services to veterans, including the veterans' homes operated under 138403
Chapter 5907. of the Revised Code and the director of job and 138404
family services, to address homelessness, indigency, employment, 138405
and other veteran-related issues; 138406

       (H) Establishing and providing statistical reporting formats 138407
and procedures for county veterans service commissions; 138408

       (I) Publishing electronically a listing of county veterans 138409
service offices and county veterans service commissioners. The 138410
listing shall include the expiration dates of commission members' 138411
terms of office and the organizations they represent; the names, 138412
addresses, and telephone numbers of county veterans service 138413
offices; and the addresses and telephone numbers of the Ohio 138414
offices and headquarters of state and national veterans service 138415
organizations. 138416

       (J) Establishing a veterans advisory committee to advise and 138417
assist the department of veterans services in its duties. Members 138418
shall include a member of the national guard association of the 138419
United States who is a resident of this state, a member of the 138420
military officers association of America who is a resident of this 138421
state, a state representative of congressionally chartered 138422
veterans organizations referred to in section 5901.02 of the 138423
Revised Code, a representative of any other congressionally 138424
chartered state veterans organization that has at least one 138425
veterans service commissioner in the state, three representatives 138426
of the Ohio state association of county veterans service 138427
commissioners, who shall have a combined vote of one, three 138428
representatives of the state association of county veterans 138429
service officers, who shall have a combined vote of one, one 138430
representative of the county commissioners association of Ohio, 138431
who shall be a county commissioner not from the same county as any 138432
of the other county representatives, a representative of the 138433
advisory committee on women veterans, a representative of a labor 138434
organization, and a representative of the office of the attorney 138435
general. The department of veterans services shall submit to the 138436
advisory committee proposed rules for the committee's operation. 138437
The committee may review and revise these proposed rules prior to 138438
submitting them to the joint committee on agency rule review. 138439

       (K) Adopting, with the advice and assistance of the veterans 138440
advisory committee, policy and procedural guidelines that the 138441
veterans service commissions shall adhere to in the development 138442
and implementation of rules, policies, procedures, and guidelines 138443
for the administration of Chapter 5901. of the Revised Code. The 138444
department of veterans services shall adopt no guidelines or rules 138445
regulating the purposes, scope, duration, or amounts of financial 138446
assistance provided to applicants pursuant to sections 5901.01 to 138447
5901.15 of the Revised Code. The director of veterans services may 138448
obtain opinions from the office of the attorney general regarding 138449
rules, policies, procedures, and guidelines of the veterans 138450
service commissions and may enforce compliance with Chapter 5901. 138451
of the Revised Code. 138452

       (L) Receiving copies of form DD214 filed in accordance with 138453
the director's guidelines adopted under division (L) of this 138454
section from members of veterans service commissions appointed 138455
under section 5901.02 and from county veterans service officers 138456
employed under section 5901.07 of the Revised Code; 138457

       (M) Developing and maintaining and improving a resource, such 138458
as a telephone answering point or a web site, by means of which 138459
veterans and their dependents, through a single portal, can access 138460
multiple sources of information and interaction with regard to the 138461
rights of, and the benefits available to, veterans and their 138462
dependents. The director of veterans services may enter into 138463
agreements with state and federal agencies, with agencies of 138464
political subdivisions, with state and local instrumentalities, 138465
and with private entities as necessary to make the resource as 138466
complete as is possible. 138467

       (N) Planning, organizing, advertising, and conducting 138468
outreach efforts, such as conferences and fairs, at which veterans 138469
and their dependents may meet, learn about the organization and 138470
operation of the department of veterans services and of veterans 138471
service commissions, and obtain information about the rights of, 138472
and the benefits and services available to, veterans and their 138473
dependents; 138474

       (O) Advertising, in print, on radio and television, and 138475
otherwise, the rights of, and the benefits and services available 138476
to, veterans and their dependents; 138477

       (P) Developing and advocating improved benefits and services 138478
for, and improved delivery of benefits and services to, veterans 138479
and their dependents; 138480

       (Q) Searching for, identifying, and reviewing statutory and 138481
administrative policies that relate to veterans and their 138482
dependents and reporting to the general assembly statutory and 138483
administrative policies that should be consolidated in whole or in 138484
part within the organization of the department of veterans 138485
services to unify funding, delivery, and accounting of statutory 138486
and administrative policy expressions that relate particularly to 138487
veterans and their dependents; 138488

       (R) Encouraging veterans service commissions to innovate and 138489
otherwise to improve efficiency in delivering benefits and 138490
services to veterans and their dependents and to report successful 138491
innovations and efficiencies to the director of veterans services; 138492

       (S) Publishing and encouraging adoption of successful 138493
innovations and efficiencies veterans service commissions have 138494
achieved in delivering benefits and services to veterans and their 138495
dependents; 138496

       (T) Establishing advisory committees, in addition to the 138497
veterans advisory committee established under division (K) of this 138498
section, on veterans issues;138499

       (U) Developing and maintaining a relationship with the United 138500
States department of veterans affairs, seeking optimal federal 138501
benefits and services for Ohio veterans and their dependents, and 138502
encouraging veterans service commissions to maximize the federal 138503
benefits and services to which veterans and their dependents are 138504
entitled; 138505

       (V) Developing and maintaining relationships with the several 138506
veterans organizations, encouraging the organizations in their 138507
efforts at assisting veterans and their dependents, and advocating 138508
for adequate state subsidization of the organizations; 138509

       (W) Requiring the several veterans organizations that receive 138510
funding from the state annually, not later than the thirtieth day 138511
of July, to report to the director of veterans services and 138512
prescribing the form and content of the report;138513

       (X) Reviewing the reports submitted to the director under 138514
division (W) of this section within thirty days of receipt and 138515
informing the veterans organization of any deficiencies that exist 138516
in the organization's report and that funding will not be released 138517
until the deficiencies have been corrected and a satisfactory 138518
report submitted;138519

        (Y) Advising the director of budget and management when a 138520
report submitted to the director under division (W) of this 138521
section has been reviewed and determined to be satisfactory;138522

        (Z) Furnishing copies of all reports that the director of 138523
veterans services has determined have been submitted 138524
satisfactorily under division (W) of this section to the 138525
chairperson of the finance committees of the general assembly;138526

       (AA) Investigating complaints against county veterans 138527
services commissioners and county veterans service officers if the 138528
director reasonably believes the investigation to be appropriate 138529
and necessary;138530

       (Y)(BB) Taking any other actions required by this chapter.138531

       Sec. 5905.02.  Whenever it appears that a person is eligible 138532
for care or treatment by the veterans' administration or other 138533
agency of the United States, and hospitalization is necessary for 138534
the proper care or treatment of such person, the probate court, 138535
upon receipt of a certificate from the veterans' administration or 138536
such other agency showing that facilities are available and such 138537
person is eligible for care or treatment therein, may order such 138538
person to said veterans' administration or other agency for care 138539
and treatment.138540

       Upon admission, such person shall be subject to the 138541
applicable regulations of the veterans' administration or other 138542
agency of the United States. The chief officer of any hospital to 138543
which any person is admitted pursuant to hospitalization as 138544
provided in sections 5905.01 to 5905.19 of the Revised Code, or 138545
under the law in effect at the time of such admission, shall have 138546
the same powers as are exercised by heads of hospitals for mental 138547
diseases and the department of mental healthmental health and 138548
addiction services with respect to the retention, transfer, 138549
parole, or discharge of the person hospitalized; provided no 138550
person shall be transferred to a hospital operated by the state or 138551
any political subdivision thereof without the consent of such 138552
department.138553

       The right of such person to appear and defend shall not be 138554
denied.138555

       The judgment or order of hospitalization by a court of 138556
competent jurisdiction of another state ordering a person to the 138557
veterans' administration or other agency of the United States, or 138558
any hospital operated by any such agency, for care or treatment 138559
shall have the same effect as to such person while in this state 138560
as in the state in which the court entering such judgment or 138561
making such order is situated, provided that no nonresident 138562
ordered to a veterans' administration facility located in Ohio 138563
shall thereby acquire a legal settlement in Ohio.138564

       Upon receipt of a certificate that facilities are available 138565
in any such hospital operated by the United States for the care or 138566
treatment of any person ordered to any hospital for the mentally 138567
ill or other hospital in this state for the care of persons 138568
similarly afflicted, and that such person is eligible for such 138569
care or treatment, such department may transfer any such person to 138570
the veterans' administration or other agency of the United States 138571
in the state. Upon effecting any such transfer, the ordering court 138572
shall be notified thereof by the transferring agency; provided 138573
that no such person shall be transferred if hethe person is 138574
confined pursuant to conviction of any crime or misdemeanor, or if 138575
hethe person has been acquitted of any such charge solely on the 138576
ground of insanity, unless prior to such transfer the court 138577
originally ordering such person enters an order for such transfer 138578
after appropriate motion and hearing.138579

       Any person transferred as provided in this section is ordered 138580
to the veterans' administration or other agency of the United 138581
States pursuant to the original order as though hethe person had 138582
been originally so ordered.138583

       Sec. 5910.02.  There is hereby created an Ohio war orphans 138584
scholarship board as part of the department of veterans services. 138585
The board consists of eight members as follows: the chancellor of 138586
the Ohio board of regents or the chancellor's designee; the 138587
director of veterans services or the director's designee; one 138588
member of the house of representatives, appointed by the speaker; 138589
one member of the senate, appointed by the president of the 138590
senate; and four members appointed by the governor, one of whom 138591
shall be a representative of the American Legion, one of whom 138592
shall be a representative of the Veterans of Foreign Wars, one of 138593
whom shall be a representative of the Disabled American Veterans, 138594
and one of whom shall be a representative of the AMVETS. At least 138595
ninety days prior to the expiration of the term of office of the 138596
representative of a veterans organization appointed by the 138597
governor, the governor shall notify the state headquarters of the 138598
affected organization of the need for an appointment and request 138599
the organization to make at least three nominations. Within sixty 138600
days after making the request for nominations, the governor may 138601
make the appointment from the nominations received, or may reject 138602
all the nominations and request at least three new nominations, 138603
from which the governor shall make an appointment within thirty 138604
days after making the request for the new nominations. If the 138605
governor receives no nominations during this thirty-day period, 138606
the governor may appoint any veteran.138607

       Terms of office for the four members appointed by the 138608
governor shall be for four years, commencing on the first day of 138609
January and ending on the thirty-first day of December, except 138610
that the term of the AMVETS representative shall expire December 138611
31, 1998, and the new term that succeeds it shall commence on 138612
January 1, 1999, and end on December 31, 2002. Each member shall 138613
hold office from the date of the member's appointment until the 138614
end of the term for which the member was appointed. The other 138615
members shall serve during their terms of office. Any vacancy 138616
shall be filled by appointment in the same manner as by original 138617
appointment. Any member appointed to fill a vacancy occurring 138618
prior to the expiration of the term for which the member's 138619
predecessor was appointed shall hold office for the remainder of 138620
such term. Any appointed member shall continue in office 138621
subsequent to the expiration date of the member's term until the 138622
member's successor takes office, or until a period of sixty days 138623
has elapsed, whichever occurs first. The members of the board 138624
shall serve without pay but shall be reimbursed for travel 138625
expenses and for other actual and necessary expenses incurred in 138626
the performance of their duties, not to exceed ten dollars per day 138627
for ten days in any one year to be appropriated out of any moneys 138628
in the state treasury to the credit of the general revenue fund.138629

       The chancellor of the board of regents shall act as secretary 138630
to the board and shall furnish such clerical and other assistance 138631
as may be necessary to the performance of the duties of the board.138632

       The board shall determine the number of scholarships to be 138633
made available, receive applications for scholarships, pass upon 138634
the eligibility of applicants, decide which applicants are to 138635
receive scholarships, and do all other things necessary for the 138636
proper administration of this chapter.138637

       The board may apply for, and may receive and accept, grants, 138638
and may receive and accept gifts, bequests, and contributions, 138639
from public and private sources, including agencies and 138640
instrumentalities of the United States and this state, and shall 138641
deposit the grants, gifts, bequests, or contributions into the 138642
Ohio war orphans scholarship donation fund.138643

       Sec. 5910.07.  The Ohio war orphans scholarship donation fund 138644
is created in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of gifts, 138645
bequests, grants, and contributions made to the fund under section 138646
5910.02 of the Revised Code. Investment earnings of the fund shall 138647
be deposited into the fund. The fund shall be used to operate the 138648
war orphans scholarship program and to provide grants under 138649
sections 5910.01 to 5910.06 of the Revised Code.138650

       Sec. 5910.08. There is hereby created in the state treasury 138651
the war orphans scholarship reserve fund. Not later than the first 138652
day of July of each fiscal year, the chancellor of the Ohio board 138653
of regents shall certify to the director of budget and management 138654
the unencumbered balance of the general revenue fund 138655
appropriations made in the immediately preceding fiscal year for 138656
purposes of the war orphans scholarship program created in Chapter 138657
5910. of the Revised Code. Upon receipt of the certification, the 138658
director may transfer an amount not exceeding the certified amount 138659
from the general revenue fund to the war orphans scholarship 138660
reserve fund. Moneys in the war orphans scholarship reserve fund 138661
shall be used to pay scholarship obligations in excess of the 138662
general revenue fund appropriations made for that purpose.138663

       The director may transfer any unencumbered balance from the 138664
war orphans scholarship reserve fund to the general revenue fund.138665

       Sec. 5919.34.  (A) As used in this section:138666

       (1) "Academic term" means any one of the following:138667

       (a) Fall term, which consists of fall semester or fall 138668
quarter, as appropriate;138669

       (b) Winter term, which consists of winter semester, winter 138670
quarter, or spring semester, as appropriate;138671

       (c) Spring term, which consists of spring quarter;138672

       (d) Summer term, which consists of summer semester or summer 138673
quarter, as appropriate.138674

       (2) "Eligible applicant" means any individual to whom all of 138675
the following apply:138676

       (a) The individual does not possess a baccalaureate degree.138677

       (b) The individual has enlisted, re-enlisted, or extended 138678
current enlistment in the Ohio national guard or is an individual 138679
to which division (F) of this section applies.138680

       (c) The individual is actively enrolled as a full-time or 138681
part-time student for at least three credit hours of course work 138682
in a semester or quarter in a two-year or four-year 138683
degree-granting program at a state institution of higher education 138684
or a private institution of higher education, or in a 138685
diploma-granting program at a state or private institution of 138686
higher education that is a school of nursing.138687

       (d) The individual has not accumulated ninety-six eligibility 138688
units under division (E) of this section.138689

       (3) "State institution of higher education" means any state 138690
university or college as defined in division (A)(1) of section 138691
3345.12 of the Revised Code, community college established under 138692
Chapter 3354. of the Revised Code, state community college 138693
established under Chapter 3358. of the Revised Code, university 138694
branch established under Chapter 3355. of the Revised Code, or 138695
technical college established under Chapter 3357. of the Revised 138696
Code.138697

       (4) "Private institution of higher education" means an Ohio 138698
institution of higher education that is nonprofit and has received 138699
a certificate of authorization pursuant to Chapter 1713. of the 138700
Revised Code, that is a private institution exempt from regulation 138701
under Chapter 3332. of the Revised Code as prescribed in section 138702
3333.046 of the Revised Code, or that holds a certificate of 138703
registration and program authorization issued by the state board 138704
of career colleges and schools pursuant to section 3332.05 of the 138705
Revised Code.138706

       (5) "Tuition" means the charges imposed to attend an 138707
institution of higher education and includes general and 138708
instructional fees. "Tuition" does not include laboratory fees, 138709
room and board, or other similar fees and charges.138710

       (B) There is hereby created a scholarship program to be known 138711
as the Ohio national guard scholarship program.138712

       (C) The adjutant general shall approve scholarships for all 138713
eligible applicants. The adjutant general shall process all 138714
applications for scholarships for each academic term in the order 138715
in which they are received. The scholarships shall be made without 138716
regard to financial need. At no time shall one person be placed in 138717
priority over another because of sex, race, or religion.138718

       (D)(1) Except as provided in divisions (I) and (J) of this 138719
section, for each academic term that an eligible applicant is 138720
approved for a scholarship under this section and either remains a 138721
current member in good standing of the Ohio national guard or is 138722
eligible for a scholarship under division (F)(1) of this section, 138723
the institution of higher education in which the applicant is 138724
enrolled shall, if the applicant's enlistment obligation extends 138725
beyond the end of that academic term or if division (F)(1) of this 138726
section applies, be paid on the applicant's behalf the applicable 138727
one of the following amounts:138728

       (a) If the institution is a state institution of higher 138729
education, an amount equal to one hundred per cent of the 138730
institution's tuition charges;138731

       (b) If the institution is a nonprofit private institution or 138732
a private institution exempt from regulation under Chapter 3332. 138733
of the Revised Code as prescribed in section 3333.046 of the 138734
Revised Code, an amount equal to one hundred per cent of the 138735
average tuition charges of all state universities;138736

       (c) If the institution is an institution that holds a 138737
certificate of registration from the state board of career 138738
colleges and schools, the lesser of the following:138739

       (i) An amount equal to one hundred per cent of the 138740
institution's tuition;138741

       (ii) An amount equal to one hundred per cent of the average 138742
tuition charges of all state universities, as that term is defined 138743
in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.138744

       (2) An eligible applicant's scholarship shall not be reduced 138745
by the amount of that applicant's benefits under "the Montgomery 138746
G.I. Bill Act of 1984," Pub. L. No. 98-525, 98 Stat. 2553 (1984).138747

       (E) A scholarship recipient under this section shall be 138748
entitled to receive scholarships under this section for the number 138749
of quarters or semesters it takes the recipient to accumulate 138750
ninety-six eligibility units as determined under divisions (E)(1) 138751
to (3) of this section.138752

       (1) To determine the maximum number of semesters or quarters 138753
for which a recipient is entitled to a scholarship under this 138754
section, the adjutant general shall convert a recipient's credit 138755
hours of enrollment for each academic term into eligibility units 138756
in accordance with the following table:138757

The 138758
Number of following The following 138759
credit hours number of number of 138760
of enrollment eligibility eligibility 138761
in an academic units if a units if a 138762
term equals semester or quarter 138763
   138764
12 or more hours 12 units 8 units 138765
9 but less than 12 9 units 6 units 138766
6 but less than 9 6 units 4 units 138767
3 but less than 6 3 units 2 units 138768

       (2) A scholarship recipient under this section may continue 138769
to apply for scholarships under this section until the recipient 138770
has accumulated ninety-six eligibility units.138771

       (3) If a scholarship recipient withdraws from courses prior 138772
to the end of an academic term so that the recipient's enrollment 138773
for that academic term is less than three credit hours, no 138774
scholarship shall be paid on behalf of that person for that 138775
academic term. Except as provided in division (F)(3) of this 138776
section, if a scholarship has already been paid on behalf of the 138777
person for that academic term, the adjutant general shall add to 138778
that person's accumulated eligibility units the number of 138779
eligibility units for which the scholarship was paid.138780

       (F) This division applies to any eligible applicant called 138781
into active duty on or after September 11, 2001. As used in this 138782
division, "active duty" means active duty pursuant to an executive 138783
order of the president of the United States, an act of the 138784
congress of the United States, or section 5919.29 or 5923.21 of 138785
the Revised Code.138786

       (1) For a period of up to five years from when an 138787
individual's enlistment obligation in the Ohio national guard 138788
ends, an individual to whom this division applies is eligible for 138789
scholarships under this section for those academic terms that were 138790
missed or could have been missed as a result of the individual's 138791
call into active duty. Scholarships shall not be paid for the 138792
academic term in which an eligible applicant's enlistment 138793
obligation ends unless an applicant is eligible under this 138794
division for a scholarship for such academic term due to previous 138795
active duty.138796

       (2) When an individual to whom this division applies 138797
withdraws or otherwise fails to complete courses, for which 138798
scholarships have been awarded under this section, because the 138799
individual was called into active duty, the institution of higher 138800
education shall grant the individual a leave of absence from the 138801
individual's education program and shall not impose any academic 138802
penalty for such withdrawal or failure to complete courses. 138803
Division (F)(2) of this section applies regardless of whether or 138804
not the scholarship amount was paid to the institution of higher 138805
education.138806

       (3) If an individual to whom this division applies withdraws 138807
or otherwise fails to complete courses because the individual was 138808
called into active duty, and if scholarships for those courses 138809
have already been paid, either:138810

       (a) The adjutant general shall not add to that person's 138811
accumulated eligibility units calculated under division (E) of 138812
this section the number of eligibility units for the academic 138813
courses or term for which the scholarship was paid and the 138814
institution of higher education shall repay the scholarship amount 138815
to the state.138816

       (b) The adjutant general shall add to that individual's 138817
accumulated eligibility units calculated under division (E) of 138818
this section the number of eligibility units for the academic 138819
courses or term for which the scholarship was paid if the 138820
institution of higher education agrees to permit the individual to 138821
complete the remainder of the academic courses in which the 138822
individual was enrolled at the time the individual was called into 138823
active duty.138824

       (4) No individual who is discharged from the Ohio national 138825
guard under other than honorable conditions shall be eligible for 138826
scholarships under this division.138827

       (G) A scholarship recipient under this section who fails to 138828
complete the term of enlistment, re-enlistment, or extension of 138829
current enlistment the recipient was serving at the time a 138830
scholarship was paid on behalf of the recipient under this section 138831
is liable to the state for repayment of a percentage of all Ohio 138832
national guard scholarships paid on behalf of the recipient under 138833
this section, plus interest at the rate of ten per cent per annum 138834
calculated from the dates the scholarships were paid. This 138835
percentage shall equal the percentage of the current term of 138836
enlistment, re-enlistment, or extension of enlistment a recipient 138837
has not completed as of the date the recipient is discharged from 138838
the Ohio national guard.138839

       The attorney general may commence a civil action on behalf of 138840
the chancellor of the Ohio board of regents to recover the amount 138841
of the scholarships and the interest provided for in this division 138842
and the expenses incurred in prosecuting the action, including 138843
court costs and reasonable attorney's fees. A scholarship 138844
recipient is not liable under this division if the recipient's 138845
failure to complete the term of enlistment being served at the 138846
time a scholarship was paid on behalf of the recipient under this 138847
section is due to the recipient's death or discharge from the 138848
national guard due to disability.138849

       (H) On or before the first day of each academic term, the 138850
adjutant general shall provide an eligibility roster to the 138851
chancellor and to each institution of higher education at which 138852
one or more scholarship recipients have applied for enrollment. 138853
The institution shall use the roster to certify the actual 138854
full-time or part-time enrollment of each scholarship recipient 138855
listed as enrolled at the institution and return the roster to the 138856
adjutant general and the chancellor. Except as provided in 138857
division (J) of this section, the chancellor shall provide for 138858
payment of the appropriate number and amount of scholarships to 138859
each institution of higher education pursuant to division (D) of 138860
this section. If an institution of higher education fails to 138861
certify the actual enrollment of a scholarship recipient listed as 138862
enrolled at the institution within thirty days of the end of an 138863
academic term, the institution shall not be eligible to receive 138864
payment from the Ohio national guard scholarship program or from 138865
the individual enrollee. The adjutant general shall report on a 138866
semiannual basis to the director of budget and management, the 138867
speaker of the house of representatives, the president of the 138868
senate, and the chancellor the number of Ohio national guard 138869
scholarship recipients, the size of the scholarship-eligible 138870
population, and a projection of the cost of the program for the 138871
remainder of the biennium.138872

       (I) The chancellor and the adjutant general may adopt rules 138873
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing the 138874
administration and fiscal management of the Ohio national guard 138875
scholarship program and the procedure by which the chancellor and 138876
the department of the adjutant general may modify the amount of 138877
scholarships a member receives based on the amount of other state 138878
financial aid a member receives.138879

       (J) The adjutant general, the chancellor, and the director, 138880
or their designees, shall jointly estimate the costs of the Ohio 138881
national guard scholarship program for each upcoming fiscal 138882
biennium, and shall report that estimate prior to the beginning of 138883
the fiscal biennium to the chairpersons of the finance committees 138884
in the general assembly. During each fiscal year of the biennium, 138885
the adjutant general, the chancellor, and the director, or their 138886
designees, shall meet regularly to monitor the actual costs of the 138887
Ohio national guard scholarship program and update cost 138888
projections for the remainder of the biennium as necessary. If the 138889
amounts appropriated for the Ohio national guard scholarship 138890
program and any funds in the Ohio national guard scholarship 138891
reserve fund and the Ohio national guard scholarship donation fund138892
are not adequate to provide scholarships in the amounts specified 138893
in division (D)(1) of this section for all eligible applicants, 138894
the chancellor shall do all of the following:138895

       (1) Notify each private institution of higher education, 138896
where a scholarship recipient is enrolled, that, by accepting the 138897
Ohio national guard scholarship program as payment for all or part 138898
of the institution's tuition, the institution agrees that if the 138899
chancellor reduces the amount of each scholarship, the institution 138900
shall provide each scholarship recipient a grant or tuition waiver 138901
in an amount equal to the amount the recipient's scholarship was 138902
reduced by the chancellor.138903

        (2) Reduce the amount of each scholarship under division 138904
(D)(1)(a) of this section proportionally based on the amount of 138905
remaining available funds. Each state institution of higher 138906
education shall provide each scholarship recipient under division 138907
(D)(1)(a) of this section a grant or tuition waiver in an amount 138908
equal to the amount the recipient's scholarship was reduced by the 138909
chancellor.138910

       (K) Notwithstanding division (A) of section 127.14 of the 138911
Revised Code, the controlling board shall not transfer all or part 138912
of any appropriation for the Ohio national guard scholarship 138913
program.138914

       (L) The chancellor and the adjutant general may apply for, 138915
and may receive and accept grants, and may receive and accept 138916
gifts, bequests, and contributions, from public and private 138917
sources, including agencies and instrumentalities of the United 138918
States and this state, and shall deposit the grants, gifts, 138919
bequests, or contributions into the national guard scholarship 138920
reservedonation fund.138921

       Sec. 5919.342.  The national guard scholarship donation fund 138922
is created in the state treasury. The fund shall consist of gifts, 138923
bequests, grants, and contributions made to the fund under 138924
division (L) of section 5919.34 of the Revised Code. Investment 138925
earnings of the fund shall be deposited into the fund. The fund 138926
shall be used to operate the Ohio national guard scholarship 138927
program created under section 5919.34 of the Revised Code.138928

       Sec. 5924.502.  (A) If the issue of an accused's competence 138929
to stand trial is raised or if an accused enters a plea of not 138930
guilty by reason of insanity, the court may order one or more 138931
evaluations of the accused's present mental condition or, in the 138932
case of a plea of not guilty by reason of insanity, of the 138933
accused's mental condition at the time of the offense charged. An 138934
examiner shall conduct the evaluation.138935

       (B) If the court orders more than one evaluation under 138936
division (A) of this section, the trial counsel and the defense 138937
counsel may recommend to the court an examiner whom each prefers 138938
to perform one of the evaluations. If an accused enters a plea of 138939
not guilty by reason of insanity and if the court does not 138940
designate an examiner recommended by the defense counsel, the 138941
court shall inform the accused that the accused may have 138942
independent expert evaluation and that it will be obtained for the 138943
accused at public expense.138944

       (C) If the court orders an evaluation under division (A) of 138945
this section, the accused shall be available at the times and 138946
places established by the examiners who are to conduct the 138947
evaluation. The court may order an accused who is not being held 138948
in pretrial confinement to submit to an evaluation under this 138949
section. If an accused who is not being held in pretrial 138950
confinement refuses to submit to a complete evaluation, the court 138951
may order the sheriff to take the accused into custody and deliver 138952
the accused to a center, program, or facility operated or 138953
certified by the department of mental healthmental health and 138954
addiction services where the accused may be held for evaluation 138955
for a reasonable period of time not to exceed twenty days.138956

       (D) An accused who is being held in pretrial confinement may 138957
be evaluated at the accused's place of detention. Upon the request 138958
of the examiner, the court may order the sheriff to transport the 138959
accused to a program or facility operated or certified by the 138960
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services, 138961
where the accused may be held for evaluation for a reasonable 138962
period of time not to exceed twenty days, and to return the 138963
accused to the place of detention after the evaluation.138964

       (E) If a court orders the evaluation to determine an 138965
accused's mental condition at the time of the offense charged, the 138966
court shall inform the examiner of the offense with which the 138967
accused is charged.138968

       (F) In conducting an evaluation of an accused's mental 138969
condition at the time of the offense charged, the examiner shall 138970
consider all relevant evidence. If the offense charged involves 138971
the use of force against another person, the relevant evidence to 138972
be considered includes, but is not limited to, any evidence that 138973
the accused suffered at the time of the commission of the offense 138974
from the "battered woman syndrome."138975

       (G) The examiner shall file a written report with the court 138976
within thirty days after entry of a court order for evaluation, 138977
and the court shall provide copies of the report to the trial 138978
counsel and defense counsel. The report shall include all of the 138979
following:138980

       (1) The examiner's findings;138981

       (2) The facts in reasonable detail on which the findings are 138982
based;138983

       (3) If the evaluation was ordered to determine the accused's 138984
competence to stand trial, all of the following findings or 138985
recommendations that are applicable:138986

       (a) Whether the accused is capable of understanding the 138987
nature and objective of the proceedings against the accused or of 138988
assisting in the accused's defense;138989

       (b) If the examiner's opinion is that the accused is 138990
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 138991
proceedings against the accused or of assisting in the accused's 138992
defense, whether the accused presently is mentally ill;138993

       (c) If the examiner's opinion is that the accused is 138994
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 138995
proceedings against the accused or of assisting in the accused's 138996
defense, the examiner's opinion as to the likelihood of the 138997
accused becoming capable of understanding the nature and objective 138998
of the proceedings against the accused and of assisting in the 138999
accused's defense within one year if the accused is provided with 139000
a course of treatment;139001

       (d) If the examiner's opinion is that the accused is 139002
incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 139003
proceedings against the accused or of assisting in the accused's 139004
defense and that the accused presently is mentally ill, the 139005
examiner's recommendation as to the least restrictive placement or 139006
commitment alternative, consistent with the accused's treatment 139007
needs for restoration to competency and with the safety of the 139008
community;139009

       (e) If the accused is charged before a special or summary 139010
court-martial with an offense that is not a violation of section 139011
5924.120, 5924.127, or 5924.128 of the Revised Code and the 139012
examiner's opinion is that the accused is incapable of 139013
understanding the nature and objective of the proceedings against 139014
the accused or of assisting in the accused's defense and that the 139015
accused is presently mentally ill, the examiner's recommendation 139016
as to whether the accused is amenable to engagement in mental 139017
health treatment.139018

       (4) If the evaluation was ordered to determine the accused's 139019
mental condition at the time of the offense charged, the 139020
examiner's findings as to whether the accused at the time of the 139021
offense charged did not know, as a result of a severe mental 139022
disease or defect, the wrongfulness of the accused's acts charged.139023

       (H) An examiner appointed under divisions (A) and (B) of this 139024
section to evaluate an accused to determine the accused's 139025
competence to stand trial also may be appointed to evaluate an 139026
accused who has entered a plea of not guilty by reason of 139027
insanity, but an examiner of that nature shall prepare separate 139028
reports on the issue of competence to stand trial and the defense 139029
of not guilty by reason of insanity.139030

       (I) No statement that an accused makes in an evaluation or 139031
hearing under divisions (A) to (H) of this section relating to the 139032
accused's competence to stand trial or to the accused's mental 139033
condition at the time of the offense charged may be used against 139034
the accused on the issue of guilt in any criminal action or 139035
proceeding, but, in a criminal action or proceeding, the trial 139036
counsel or defense counsel may call as a witness any person who 139037
evaluated the accused or prepared a report pursuant to a referral 139038
under this section. Neither the appointment nor the testimony of 139039
an examiner appointed under this section precludes the trial 139040
counsel or defense counsel from calling other witnesses or 139041
presenting other evidence on competency or insanity issues.139042

       (J) Persons appointed as examiners under divisions (A) and 139043
(B) of this section or under division (H) of this section shall be 139044
paid a reasonable amount for their services and expenses, as 139045
certified by the court.139046

       Sec. 5924.503.  (A) If the issue of an accused's competence 139047
to stand trial is raised and if the court, upon conducting the 139048
hearing provided for in section 5924.502 of the Revised Code, 139049
finds that the accused is competent to stand trial, the accused 139050
shall be proceeded against as provided by law. If the court finds 139051
the accused competent to stand trial and the accused is receiving 139052
psychotropic drugs or other medication, the court may authorize 139053
the continued administration of the drugs or medication or other 139054
appropriate treatment in order to maintain the accused's 139055
competence to stand trial unless the accused's attending physician 139056
advises the court against continuation of the drugs, other 139057
medication, or treatment.139058

       (B)(1)(a) If, after taking into consideration all relevant 139059
reports, information, and other evidence, the court finds that the 139060
accused is incompetent to stand trial and that there is a 139061
substantial probability that the accused will become competent to 139062
stand trial within one year if the accused is provided with a 139063
course of treatment, the court shall order the accused to undergo 139064
treatment. If the accused is being tried by a general 139065
court-martial and if, after taking into consideration all relevant 139066
reports, information, and other evidence, the court finds that the 139067
accused is incompetent to stand trial, but the court is unable at 139068
that time to determine whether there is a substantial probability 139069
that the accused will become competent to stand trial within one 139070
year if the accused is provided with a course of treatment, the 139071
court shall order continuing evaluation and treatment of the 139072
accused for a period not to exceed four months to determine 139073
whether there is a substantial probability that the accused will 139074
become competent to stand trial within one year if the accused is 139075
provided with a course of treatment.139076

       (b) The court order for the accused to undergo treatment or 139077
continuing evaluation and treatment under division (B)(1)(a) of 139078
this section shall specify that the accused, if determined to 139079
require mental health treatment or continuing evaluation and 139080
treatment, shall be committed to the department of mental health139081
mental health and addiction services for treatment or continuing 139082
evaluation and treatment at a hospital, facility, or agency 139083
determined to be clinically appropriate by the department of 139084
mental healthmental health and addiction services. The order may 139085
restrict the accused's freedom of movement as the court considers 139086
necessary. The trial counsel in the accused's case shall send to 139087
the chief clinical officer of the hospital, facility, or agency139088
services provider where the accused is placed by the department of 139089
mental healthmental health and addiction services or to the 139090
managing officer of the institution, the director of the facility, 139091
or the person to which the accused is committed copies of relevant 139092
investigative reports and other background information that 139093
pertains to the accused and is available to the trial counsel 139094
unless the trial counsel determines that the release of any of the 139095
information in the investigative reports or any of the other 139096
background information to unauthorized persons would interfere 139097
with the effective prosecution of any person or would create a 139098
substantial risk of harm to any person.139099

       In committing the accused to the department of mental health139100
mental health and addiction services, the court shall consider the 139101
extent to which the person is a danger to the person and to 139102
others, the need for security, and the type of crime involved and, 139103
if the court finds that restrictions on the accused's freedom of 139104
movement are necessary, shall specify the least restrictive 139105
limitations on the person's freedom of movement determined to be 139106
necessary to protect public safety. In weighing these factors, the 139107
court shall give preference to protecting public safety.139108

       (c) If the accused is found incompetent to stand trial, if 139109
the chief clinical officer of the hospital, facility, or agency139110
services provider where the accused is placed, or the managing 139111
officer of the institution, the director of the facility, or the 139112
person to which the accused is committed for treatment or 139113
continuing evaluation and treatment under division (B)(1)(b) of 139114
this section determines that medication is necessary to restore 139115
the accused's competency to stand trial, and if the accused lacks 139116
the capacity to give informed consent or refuses medication, the 139117
chief clinical officer of the hospital, facility, or agency139118
services provider where the accused is placed or the managing 139119
officer of the institution, the director of the facility, or the 139120
person to which the accused is committed for treatment or 139121
continuing evaluation and treatment may petition the court for 139122
authorization for the involuntary administration of medication. 139123
The court shall hold a hearing on the petition within five days of 139124
the filing of the petition. Following the hearing, the court may 139125
authorize the involuntary administration of medication or may 139126
dismiss the petition.139127

       (d) If the accused is charged before a special or summary 139128
court-martial with an offense that is not a violation of section 139129
5924.120, 5924.127, or 5924.128 of the Revised Code, the trial 139130
counsel may hold the charges in abeyance while the accused engages 139131
in mental health treatment.139132

       (2) If the court finds that the accused is incompetent to 139133
stand trial and that, even if the accused is provided with a 139134
course of treatment, there is not a substantial probability that 139135
the accused will become competent to stand trial within one year, 139136
the court shall order the discharge of the accused, unless upon 139137
motion of the trial counsel or on its own motion, the court either 139138
seeks to retain jurisdiction over the accused pursuant to division 139139
(A)(2) of section 5924.504 of the Revised Code or files an 139140
affidavit in the probate court for the civil commitment of the 139141
accused pursuant to Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code alleging 139142
that the accused is a mentally ill person subject to 139143
hospitalization by court order. If an affidavit is filed in the 139144
probate court, the trial court shall send to the probate court 139145
copies of all written reports of the accused's mental condition 139146
that were prepared pursuant to section 5924.502 of the Revised 139147
Code.139148

       The trial court may issue the temporary order of detention 139149
that a probate court may issue under section 5122.11 of the 139150
Revised Code, to remain in effect until the probable cause or 139151
initial hearing in the probate court. Further proceedings in the 139152
probate court are civil proceedings governed by Chapter 5122. of 139153
the Revised Code.139154

       (C) No accused shall be required to undergo treatment, 139155
including any continuing evaluation and treatment, under division 139156
(B)(1) of this section for longer than whichever of the following 139157
periods is applicable:139158

       (1) One year, if the accused is being tried by a general 139159
court-martial;139160

       (2) Six months, if the accused is being tried before a 139161
special court-martial;139162

       (3) Sixty days, if the accused is being tried before a 139163
summary court-martial.139164

       (D) Any accused who is committed pursuant to this section 139165
shall not voluntarily admit the accused or be voluntarily admitted 139166
to a hospital or institution pursuant to section 5122.02 or 139167
5122.15 of the Revised Code.139168

       (E) Except as otherwise provided in this division, an accused 139169
who is charged with an offense and is committed by the court under 139170
this section to the department of mental healthmental health and 139171
addiction services with restrictions on the accused's freedom of 139172
movement shall not be granted unsupervised on-grounds movement, 139173
supervised off-grounds movement, or nonsecured status except in 139174
accordance with the court order. The court may grant an accused 139175
supervised off-grounds movement to obtain medical treatment or 139176
specialized habilitation treatment services if the person who 139177
supervises the treatment or the continuing evaluation and 139178
treatment of the accused ordered under division (B)(1)(a) of this 139179
section informs the court that the treatment or continuing 139180
evaluation and treatment cannot be provided at the hospital or 139181
facility where the accused is placed by the department of mental 139182
healthmental health and addiction services. The chief clinical 139183
officer of the hospital or facility where the accused is placed by 139184
the department of mental healthmental health and addiction 139185
services or the managing officer of the institution or director of 139186
the facility to which the accused is committed or a designee of 139187
any of those persons may grant an accused movement to a medical 139188
facility for an emergency medical situation with appropriate 139189
supervision to ensure the safety of the accused, staff, and 139190
community during that emergency medical situation. The chief 139191
clinical officer of the hospital or facility where the accused is 139192
placed by the department of mental healthmental health and 139193
addiction services or the managing officer of the institution or 139194
director of the facility to which the accused is committed shall 139195
notify the court within twenty-four hours of the accused's 139196
movement to the medical facility for an emergency medical 139197
situation under this division.139198

       (F) The person who supervises the treatment or continuing 139199
evaluation and treatment of an accused ordered to undergo 139200
treatment or continuing evaluation and treatment under division 139201
(B)(1)(a) of this section shall file a written report with the 139202
court at the following times:139203

       (1) Whenever the person believes the accused is capable of 139204
understanding the nature and objective of the proceedings against 139205
the accused and of assisting in the accused's defense;139206

       (2) Fourteen days before expiration of the maximum time for 139207
treatment as specified in division (C) of this section and 139208
fourteen days before the expiration of the maximum time for 139209
continuing evaluation and treatment as specified in division 139210
(B)(1)(a) of this section;139211

       (3) At a minimum, after each six months of treatment;139212

       (4) Whenever the person who supervises the treatment or 139213
continuing evaluation and treatment of an accused ordered under 139214
division (B)(1)(a) of this section believes that there is not a 139215
substantial probability that the accused will become capable of 139216
understanding the nature and objective of the proceedings against 139217
the accused or of assisting in the accused's defense even if the 139218
accused is provided with a course of treatment.139219

       (G) A report under division (F) of this section shall contain 139220
the examiner's findings, the facts in reasonable detail on which 139221
the findings are based, and the examiner's opinion as to the 139222
accused's capability of understanding the nature and objective of 139223
the proceedings against the accused and of assisting in the 139224
accused's defense. If, in the examiner's opinion, the accused 139225
remains incapable of understanding the nature and objective of the 139226
proceedings against the accused and of assisting in the accused's 139227
defense and there is a substantial probability that the accused 139228
will become capable of understanding the nature and objective of 139229
the proceedings against the accused and of assisting in the 139230
accused's defense if the accused is provided with a course of 139231
treatment, if in the examiner's opinion the accused remains 139232
mentally ill, and if the maximum time for treatment as specified 139233
in division (C) of this section has not expired, the report also 139234
shall contain the examiner's recommendation as to the least 139235
restrictive placement or commitment alternative that is consistent 139236
with the accused's treatment needs for restoration to competency 139237
and with the safety of the community. The court shall provide 139238
copies of the report to the trial counsel and defense counsel.139239

       (H) If an accused is committed pursuant to division (B)(1) of 139240
this section, within ten days after the treating physician of the 139241
accused or the examiner of the accused who is employed or retained 139242
by the treating facility advises that there is not a substantial 139243
probability that the accused will become capable of understanding 139244
the nature and objective of the proceedings against the accused or 139245
of assisting in the accused's defense even if the accused is 139246
provided with a course of treatment, within ten days after the 139247
expiration of the maximum time for treatment as specified in 139248
division (C) of this section, within ten days after the expiration 139249
of the maximum time for continuing evaluation and treatment as 139250
specified in division (B)(1)(a) of this section, within thirty 139251
days after an accused's request for a hearing that is made after 139252
six months of treatment, or within thirty days after being advised 139253
by the treating physician or examiner that the accused is 139254
competent to stand trial, whichever is the earliest, the court 139255
shall conduct another hearing to determine if the accused is 139256
competent to stand trial and shall do whichever of the following 139257
is applicable:139258

       (1) If the court finds that the accused is competent to stand 139259
trial, the accused shall be proceeded against as provided by law.139260

       (2) If the court finds that the accused is incompetent to 139261
stand trial, but that there is a substantial probability that the 139262
accused will become competent to stand trial if the accused is 139263
provided with a course of treatment, and the maximum time for 139264
treatment as specified in division (C) of this section has not 139265
expired, the court, after consideration of the examiner's 139266
recommendation, shall order that treatment be continued, may 139267
change least restrictive limitations on the accused's freedom of 139268
movement.139269

       (3) If the court finds that the accused is incompetent to 139270
stand trial, if the accused is being tried by a general 139271
court-martial, and if the court finds that there is not a 139272
substantial probability that the accused will become competent to 139273
stand trial even if the accused is provided with a course of 139274
treatment, or if the maximum time for treatment as specified in 139275
division (C) of this section has expired, further proceedings 139276
shall be as provided in sections 5924.504 to 5924.506 of the 139277
Revised Code.139278

       (4) If the court finds that the accused is incompetent to 139279
stand trial, if the accused is being tried before a special 139280
court-martial, and if the court finds that there is not a 139281
substantial probability that the accused will become competent to 139282
stand trial even if the accused is provided with a course of 139283
treatment, or if the maximum time for treatment as specified in 139284
division (C) of this section has expired, the court shall dismiss 139285
the charge against the accused. A dismissal under this division is 139286
not a bar to further prosecution based on the same conduct. The 139287
court shall discharge the accused unless the court or trial 139288
counsel files an affidavit in probate court for civil commitment 139289
pursuant to Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code. If an affidavit for 139290
civil commitment is filed, the court may detain the accused for 139291
ten days pending civil commitment. All of the following provisions 139292
apply to persons being tried by a special court-martial who are 139293
committed by the probate court subsequent to the court's or trial 139294
counsel's filing of an affidavit for civil commitment under 139295
authority of this division:139296

       (a) The chief clinical officer of the entity, hospital, or 139297
facility, the managing officer of the institution, or the person 139298
to which the accused is committed or admitted shall do all of the 139299
following:139300

       (i) Notify the trial counsel in writing of the discharge of 139301
the accused, send the notice at least ten days prior to the 139302
discharge unless the discharge is by the probate court, and state 139303
in the notice the date on which the accused will be discharged;139304

       (ii) Notify the trial counsel in writing when the accused is 139305
absent without leave or is granted unsupervised, off-grounds 139306
movement and send this notice promptly after the discovery of the 139307
absence without leave or prior to the granting of the 139308
unsupervised, off-grounds movement, whichever is applicable;139309

       (iii) Notify the trial counsel in writing of the change of 139310
the accused's commitment or admission to voluntary status, send 139311
the notice promptly upon learning of the change to voluntary 139312
status, and state in the notice the date on which the accused was 139313
committed or admitted on a voluntary status.139314

       (b) The trial counsel shall promptly inform the convening 139315
authority of any notification received under division (H)(4)(a) of 139316
this section. Upon receiving notice that the accused will be 139317
granted unsupervised, off-grounds movement, the convening 139318
authority either shall refer the charges against the accused to an 139319
investigating officer again or promptly notify the court that the 139320
convening authority does not intend to refer the charges against 139321
the accused again.139322

       (I) If an accused is convicted of a crime and sentenced to 139323
confinement, the accused's sentence shall be reduced by the total 139324
number of days the accused is confined for evaluation to determine 139325
the accused's competence to stand trial or treatment under this 139326
section and sections 5924.502 and 5924.504 of the Revised Code or 139327
by the total number of days the accused is confined for evaluation 139328
to determine the accused's mental condition at the time of the 139329
offense charged.139330

       Sec. 5924.504.  (A) If an accused being tried by a general 139331
court-martial is found incompetent to stand trial, after the 139332
expiration of the maximum time for treatment as specified in 139333
division (C) of section 5924.503 of the Revised Code or after the 139334
court finds that there is not a substantial probability that the 139335
accused will become competent to stand trial even if the accused 139336
is provided with a course of treatment, one of the following 139337
applies:139338

       (1) The court or the trial counsel may file an affidavit in 139339
probate court for civil commitment of the accused in the manner 139340
provided in Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code. If the court or 139341
trial counsel files an affidavit for civil commitment, the court 139342
may detain the accused for ten days pending civil commitment. If 139343
the probate court commits the accused subsequent to the court's or 139344
trial counsel's filing of an affidavit for civil commitment, the 139345
chief clinical officer of the entity, hospital, or facility, the 139346
managing officer of the institution, or the person to which the 139347
accused is committed or admitted shall send to the trial counsel 139348
the notices described in divisions (H)(4)(a)(i) to (iii) of 139349
section 5924.503 of the Revised Code within the periods of time 139350
and under the circumstances specified in those divisions.139351

       (2) On the motion of the trial counsel or on its own motion, 139352
the court may retain jurisdiction over the accused if at a hearing 139353
the court finds both of the following by clear and convincing 139354
evidence:139355

       (a) The accused committed the offense with which the accused 139356
is charged.139357

       (b) The accused is a mentally ill person subject to 139358
hospitalization by court order.139359

       (B) In making its determination under division (A)(2) of this 139360
section as to whether to retain jurisdiction over the accused, the 139361
court may consider all relevant evidence, including, but not 139362
limited to, any relevant psychiatric, psychological, or medical 139363
testimony or reports, the acts constituting the offense charged, 139364
and any history of the accused that is relevant to the accused's 139365
ability to conform to the law.139366

       (C) If the court conducts a hearing as described in division 139367
(A)(2) of this section and if the court does not make both 139368
findings described in divisions (A)(2)(a) and (b) of this section 139369
by clear and convincing evidence, the court shall dismiss the 139370
charges against the accused. Upon the dismissal, the court shall 139371
discharge the accused unless the court or trial counsel files an 139372
affidavit in probate court for civil commitment of the accused 139373
pursuant to Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code. If the court or 139374
trial counsel files an affidavit for civil commitment, the court 139375
may order that the accused be detained for up to ten days pending 139376
the civil commitment. If the probate court commits the accused 139377
subsequent to the court's or trial counsel's filing of an 139378
affidavit for civil commitment, the chief clinical officer of the 139379
entity, hospital, or facility, the managing officer of the 139380
institution, or the person to which the accused is committed or 139381
admitted shall send to the trial counsel the notices described in 139382
divisions (H)(4)(a)(i) to (iii) of section 5924.503 of the Revised 139383
Code within the periods of time and under the circumstances 139384
specified in those divisions. A dismissal of charges under this 139385
division is not a bar to further criminal proceedings based on the 139386
same conduct.139387

       (D)(1) If the court conducts a hearing as described in 139388
division (A)(2) of this section and if the court makes the 139389
findings described in divisions (A)(2)(a) and (b) of this section 139390
by clear and convincing evidence, the court shall commit the 139391
accused, if determined to require mental health treatment, to the 139392
department of mental healthmental health and addiction services139393
for treatment at a hospital, facility, or agencyservices provider139394
as determined clinically appropriate by the department of mental 139395
healthmental health and addiction services. In committing the 139396
accused to the department of mental healthmental health and 139397
addiction services, the court shall specify the least restrictive 139398
limitations on the accused's freedom of movement determined to be 139399
necessary to protect public safety.139400

       (2) If a court makes a commitment of an accused under 139401
division (D)(1) of this section, the trial counsel shall send to 139402
the hospital, facility, or agencyservices provider where the 139403
accused is placed by the department of mental healthmental health 139404
and addiction services or to the accused's place of commitment all 139405
reports of the accused's current mental condition and, except as 139406
otherwise provided in this division, any other relevant 139407
information, including, but not limited to, a transcript of the 139408
hearing held pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section, copies 139409
of relevant investigative reports, and copies of any prior arrest 139410
and conviction records that pertain to the accused and that the 139411
trial counsel possesses. The trial counsel shall send the reports 139412
of the accused's current mental condition in every case of 139413
commitment, and, unless the trial counsel determines that the 139414
release of any of the other relevant information to unauthorized 139415
persons would interfere with the effective prosecution of any 139416
person or would create a substantial risk of harm to any person, 139417
the trial counsel also shall send the other relevant information.139418

       (3) If a court makes a commitment under division (D)(1) of 139419
this section, all further proceedings shall be in accordance with 139420
Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code.139421

       Sec. 5924.506.  (A) If an accused person is found not guilty 139422
by reason of insanity, the verdict shall state that finding, and 139423
the trial court shall conduct a full hearing to determine whether 139424
the person is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by 139425
court order. Prior to the hearing, if the military judge believes 139426
that there is probable cause that the person found not guilty by 139427
reason of insanity is a mentally ill person subject to 139428
hospitalization by court order, the military judge may issue a 139429
temporary order of detention for that person to remain in effect 139430
for ten court days or until the hearing, whichever occurs first.139431

       Any person detained pursuant to a temporary order of 139432
detention issued under this division shall be held in a suitable 139433
facility, taking into consideration the place and type of 139434
confinement prior to and during trial.139435

       (B) The court shall hold the hearing under division (A) of 139436
this section to determine whether the person found not guilty by 139437
reason of insanity is a mentally ill person subject to 139438
hospitalization by court order within ten court days after the 139439
finding of not guilty by reason of insanity. Failure to conduct 139440
the hearing within the ten-day period shall cause the immediate 139441
discharge of the respondent, unless the judge grants a continuance 139442
for not longer than ten court days for good cause shown or for any 139443
period of time upon motion of the respondent.139444

       (C) If a person is found not guilty by reason of insanity, 139445
the person has the right to attend a hearing conducted pursuant to 139446
this section. At the hearing, the court shall inform the person 139447
that the person has all of the following rights:139448

       (1) The right to be represented by defense counsel or to 139449
retain civilian counsel, if the person so chooses;139450

       (2) The right to have independent expert evaluation;139451

       (3) The right to subpoena witnesses and documents, to present 139452
evidence on the person's behalf, and to cross-examine witnesses 139453
against the person;139454

       (4) The right to testify in the person's own behalf and to 139455
not be compelled to testify;139456

       (5) The right to have copies of any relevant medical or 139457
mental health document in the custody of the state or of any place 139458
of commitment other than a document for which the court finds that 139459
the release to the person of information contained in the document 139460
would create a substantial risk of harm to any person.139461

       (D) The hearing under division (A) of this section shall be 139462
open to the public, and the court shall conduct the hearing in 139463
accordance with regulations prescribed by the adjutant general. 139464
The court shall make and maintain a full transcript and record of 139465
the hearing proceedings. The court may consider all relevant 139466
evidence, including, but not limited to, any relevant psychiatric, 139467
psychological, or medical testimony or reports, the acts 139468
constituting the offense in relation to which the person was found 139469
not guilty by reason of insanity, and any history of the person 139470
that is relevant to the person's ability to conform to the law.139471

       (E) Upon completion of the hearing under division (A) of this 139472
section, if the court finds there is not clear and convincing 139473
evidence that the person is a mentally ill person subject to 139474
hospitalization by court order, the court shall discharge the 139475
person, unless a detainer has been placed upon the person by the 139476
department of rehabilitation and correction, in which case the 139477
person shall be returned to that department.139478

       (F) If, at the hearing under division (A) of this section, 139479
the court finds by clear and convincing evidence that the person 139480
is a mentally ill person subject to hospitalization by court 139481
order, it shall commit the person to the department of mental 139482
healthmental health and addiction services for placement in a 139483
hospital, facility, or agencyservices provider as determined 139484
clinically appropriate by the department of mental healthmental 139485
health and addiction services. Further proceedings shall be in 139486
accordance with Chapter 5122. or 5123. of the Revised Code. In 139487
committing the accused to the department of mental healthmental 139488
health and addiction services, the court shall specify the least 139489
restrictive limitations on the accused's freedom of movement 139490
determined to be necessary to protect public safety.139491

       (G) If a court makes a commitment of a person under division 139492
(F) of this section, the trial counsel shall send to the hospital, 139493
facility, or agencyservices provider where the defendant is 139494
placed by the department of mental healthmental health and 139495
addiction services or to the accused's place of commitment all 139496
reports of the person's current mental condition, and, except as 139497
otherwise provided in this division, any other relevant 139498
information, including, but not limited to, a transcript of the 139499
hearing held pursuant to division (A) of this section, copies of 139500
relevant investigative reports, and copies of any prior arrest and 139501
conviction records that pertain to the person and that the trial 139502
counsel possesses. The trial counsel shall send the reports of the 139503
person's current mental condition in every case of commitment, 139504
and, unless the trial counsel determines that the release of any 139505
of the other relevant information to unauthorized persons would 139506
interfere with the effective prosecution of any person or would 139507
create a substantial risk of harm to any person, the trial counsel 139508
also shall send the other relevant information.139509

       (H) A person who is committed pursuant to this section shall 139510
not voluntarily admit the person or be voluntarily admitted to a 139511
hospital or institution pursuant to sections 5122.02 and 5122.15 139512
of the Revised Code.139513

       Sec. 6109.21.  (A) Except as provided in divisions (I) and 139514
(J) of this section, no person shall operate a public water system 139515
in this state without a license issued by the director of 139516
environmental protection. 139517

        (B)(1) A person who proposes to operate a new public water 139518
system, in addition to complying with section 6109.07 of the 139519
Revised Code and rules adopted under it, shall obtain an initial 139520
license from the director. The person shall submit an application 139521
for the initial license at least forty-five days prior to 139522
commencing the operation of the system.139523

        (C) A license shall expire on the thirtieth day of January in 139524
the year following its issuance.139525

        (D) A license shall be renewed annually. A person proposing 139526
to continue operating a public water system shall apply for a 139527
license renewal at least thirty days prior to the expiration date 139528
of the license.139529

        (E) Through June 30, 2014, eachEach application for a 139530
license or license renewal shall be accompanied by the appropriate 139531
fee established under division (M) of section 3745.11 of the 139532
Revised Code. However, an applicant for an initial license who is 139533
proposing to operate a new public water system shall submit a fee 139534
that equals a prorated amount of the appropriate fee established 139535
under that division for the remainder of the licensing year.139536

       (F) Not later than thirty days after receiving a completed 139537
application and the appropriate license fee for a license or 139538
license renewal for a public water system, the director shall do 139539
one of the following:139540

       (1) Issue the license or license renewal for the public water 139541
system;139542

       (2) Issue the license or license renewal subject to terms and 139543
conditions that the director determines are necessary to ensure 139544
compliance with this chapter and rules adopted under it;139545

       (3) Deny the license or license renewal if the director finds 139546
that the public water system cannot be operated in substantial 139547
compliance with this chapter and rules adopted under it.139548

       (G) The director may condition, suspend, or revoke a license 139549
or license renewal issued under this section at any time if the 139550
director finds that the public water system was not or will not be 139551
operated in substantial compliance with this chapter and rules 139552
adopted under it. 139553

       (H) The director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 139554
119. of the Revised Code establishing procedures and requirements 139555
governing both of the following:139556

        (1) Information to be included on applications for licenses 139557
and license renewals issued under this section;139558

        (2) The issuance, conditioning, suspension, revocation, and 139559
denial of licenses and license renewals under this section. 139560

       (I)(1) As used in division (I) of this section, "church" 139561
means a fellowship of believers, congregation, society, 139562
corporation, convention, or association that is formed primarily 139563
or exclusively for religious purposes and that is not formed or 139564
operated for the private profit of any person.139565

       (2) This section does not apply to a church that operates or 139566
maintains a public water system solely to provide water for that 139567
church or for a campground that is owned by the church and 139568
operated primarily or exclusively for members of the church and 139569
their families. 139570

       (J) This section does not apply to any public or nonpublic 139571
school that meets minimum standards of the state board of 139572
education that operates or maintains a public water system solely 139573
to provide water for that school.139574

       (K) The environmental protection agency shall collect well 139575
log filing fees on behalf of the division of soil and water 139576
resources in the department of natural resources in accordance 139577
with section 1521.05 of the Revised Code and rules adopted under 139578
it. The fees shall be submitted to the division quarterly as 139579
provided in those rules.139580

       Sec. 6111.037.  (A) There is hereby created in the state 139581
treasury the nonpoint source pollution management fund. The fund 139582
shall consist of grant moneys received underFor purposes of state 139583
nonpoint source pollution management and pursuant to section 319 139584
of the "Federal Water Pollution Control Act," for purposes of 139585
assisting with the development and implementation of a 139586
comprehensive nonpoint source pollution management program 139587
pursuant to that section of the act. Moneys credited to the fund 139588
may be used for purposes of research, planning, water quality 139589
assessments, demonstration projects, enforcement, technical 139590
assistance, education, and training regarding management of 139591
nonpoint sources of water pollution. Thethe director of 139592
environmental protection may enter into agreements to receive 139593
grant moneys for the nonpoint source pollution management fund and139594
for deposit into the state treasury to the credit of the water 139595
quality protection fund created in section 6111.0381 of the 139596
Revised Code. The director may enter into agreements to make 139597
grants of moneys credited to the fund under this section,139598
including, without limitation, passthrough grants to other state 139599
departments or agencies.139600

       (B) The director shall periodically prepare and, by rules 139601
adopted under division (O) of section 6111.036 of the Revised 139602
Code, establish a priority system for identifying activities 139603
eligible for assistance under this section. The priority system 139604
shall ensure that financial assistance available under this 139605
section is first provided to:139606

       (1) Control particularly difficult or serious nonpoint source 139607
pollution problems, including, without limitation, problems 139608
resulting from mining activities;139609

       (2) Implement innovative methods or practices for controlling 139610
nonpoint sources of pollution, including, without limitation, 139611
regulatory programs that the director determines are appropriate;139612

       (3) Control interstate nonpoint source pollution problems;139613

       (4) Implement ground and surface water quality protection 139614
activities that the director determines are part of a 139615
comprehensive nonpoint source pollution control program, which 139616
activities include research, planning, ground water quality139617
assessments, demonstration programs, enforcement, technical 139618
assistance, education, and training to protect ground water 139619
quality from nonpoint sources of pollution.139620

       Sec. 6133.041. (A) Notwithstanding any other provision of 139621
this chapter or Chapter 6131. of the Revised Code to the contrary, 139622
a joint board of county commissioners, when practicable, may 139623
conduct proceedings regarding existing improvements by video 139624
conference or, if video conference is not available, by 139625
teleconference. The joint board shall make provisions for public 139626
attendance at any location involved in such a proceeding. The 139627
participation of any commissioner or board of county commissioners 139628
in a video conference or teleconference shall occur at the 139629
location of the commissioners' main office or board room in an 139630
open meeting at which the public is allowed to attend.139631

        (B) Before convening a meeting of a joint board of county 139632
commissioners by video conference or by teleconference, designated 139633
staff shall send, via electronic mail, facsimile, or United States 139634
postal service, a copy of meeting-related documents to each member 139635
of the joint board.139636

        (C) The minutes of each joint county ditch meeting shall 139637
specify who was attending by teleconference, who was attending by 139638
video conference, and who was physically present. 139639

       (D) Nothing in section 121.22 of the Revised Code prohibits a 139640
joint board of county commissioners from conducting a proceeding 139641
in a manner authorized by this section.139642

       Section 101.02. That existing sections 9.03, 9.15, 9.231, 139643
9.239, 9.24, 9.833, 9.90, 9.901, 101.39, 101.391, 102.02, 103.144, 139644
107.033, 107.12, 109.06, 109.36, 109.57, 109.572, 109.71, 109.746, 139645
109.77, 109.85, 109.86, 109.90, 111.02, 111.15, 111.28, 113.02, 139646
113.061, 117.03, 117.10, 117.20, 119.01, 120.06, 121.02, 121.03, 139647
121.22, 121.35, 121.37, 121.372, 122.075, 122.083, 122.17, 139648
122.171, 122.175, 122.28, 122.30, 122.31, 122.32, 122.33, 122.34, 139649
122.35, 122.36, 122.58, 122.657, 122.658, 122.66, 122.67, 122.68, 139650
122.69, 122.70, 122.701, 122.76, 122.861, 123.01, 123.10, 123.11, 139651
123.201, 123.21, 123.27, 124.11, 124.14, 124.18, 124.30, 124.341, 139652
124.381, 124.57, 124.84, 125.05, 125.21, 125.212, 125.28, 125.602, 139653
125.603, 125.832, 125.836, 126.07, 126.14, 126.32, 126.35, 126.45, 139654
126.46, 126.47, 126.48, 127.14, 127.16, 133.01, 133.06, 135.143, 139655
135.22, 135.35, 135.61, 135.71, 135.80, 135.81, 135.85, 140.01, 139656
140.03, 140.05, 145.01, 145.012, 145.22, 149.01, 149.12, 149.311, 139657
149.43, 149.431, 149.54, 151.11, 152.09, 153.692, 154.01, 154.17, 139658
154.20, 154.22, 154.23, 154.25, 156.02, 156.03, 156.04, 156.05, 139659
166.02, 166.03, 166.04, 166.08, 166.25, 167.03, 169.02, 169.05, 139660
169.07, 169.08, 173.03, 173.14, 173.17, 173.19, 173.20, 173.21, 139661
173.23, 173.25, 173.26, 173.27, 173.28, 173.39, 173.391, 173.392, 139662
173.394, 173.40, 173.401, 173.402, 173.403, 173.404, 173.42, 139663
173.43, 173.431, 173.432, 173.434, 173.45, 173.47, 173.48, 173.50, 139664
173.501, 173.99, 175.04, 191.01, 191.02, 191.04, 191.06, 301.28, 139665
306.35, 307.07, 307.674, 307.699, 307.86, 309.09, 317.08, 317.36, 139666
321.35, 321.44, 329.04, 329.051, 329.06, 329.14, 339.02, 339.05, 139667
339.06, 339.07, 340.01, 340.011, 340.02, 340.021, 340.03, 340.031, 139668
340.032, 340.04, 340.05, 340.07, 340.09, 340.091, 340.10, 340.11, 139669
340.12, 340.13, 340.15, 340.16, 341.192, 349.01, 349.04, 351.021, 139670
715.691, 721.01, 721.03, 731.091, 737.41, 742.14, 755.06, 901.21, 139671
901.22, 901.23, 903.11, 903.99, 905.06, 909.15, 924.02, 924.06, 139672
927.54, 935.01, 935.03, 935.12, 955.01, 955.05, 955.06, 955.07, 139673
955.08, 955.09, 955.14, 955.201, 956.07, 956.18, 991.03, 991.04, 139674
991.06, 1309.521, 1321.51, 1321.535, 1321.55, 1322.01, 1322.051, 139675
1327.46, 1327.48, 1327.50, 1327.501, 1327.61, 1327.99, 1332.26, 139676
1337.11, 1347.08, 1501.011, 1501.45, 1506.21, 1506.30, 1509.01, 139677
1509.02, 1509.062, 1509.10, 1509.11, 1509.50, 1511.02, 1511.022, 139678
1519.05, 1531.06, 1531.17, 1545.071, 1547.542, 1547.99, 1548.02, 139679
1551.33, 1551.35, 1555.15, 1711.07, 1724.03, 1739.061, 1751.01, 139680
1751.11, 1751.12, 1751.14, 1751.271, 1751.31, 1751.60, 1901.10, 139681
1901.12, 1907.14, 1923.14, 2101.24, 2108.05, 2113.041, 2113.06, 139682
2117.061, 2117.25, 2133.01, 2133.25, 2151.011, 2151.3514, 2151.83, 139683
2151.86, 2152.54, 2152.59, 2301.14, 2303.201, 2305.234, 2307.65, 139684
2311.14, 2317.02, 2317.422, 2335.09, 2335.11, 2505.02, 2701.03, 139685
2701.031, 2743.03, 2743.09, 2743.121, 2743.20, 2743.48, 2743.52, 139686
2743.53, 2743.531, 2743.55, 2743.60, 2743.601, 2743.61, 2743.62, 139687
2743.63, 2743.64, 2743.65, 2743.66, 2743.67, 2743.68, 2743.69, 139688
2743.71, 2744.05, 2744.08, 2744.081, 2744.082, 2901.13, 2901.30, 139689
2903.33, 2907.22, 2913.01, 2913.40, 2913.401, 2919.271, 2921.01, 139690
2921.22, 2921.36, 2921.38, 2923.126, 2925.03, 2929.15, 2930.01, 139691
2935.03, 2935.33, 2945.37, 2945.371, 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 139692
2945.401, 2951.041, 2953.32, 2967.22, 2981.01, 2981.12, 2981.13, 139693
3101.051, 3107.083, 3109.15, 3111.04, 3111.72, 3119.29, 3119.54, 139694
3121.441, 3121.89, 3121.891, 3121.892, 3121.893, 3121.898, 139695
3123.958, 3125.18, 3125.36, 3301.07, 3301.0712, 3301.0714, 139696
3301.0715, 3301.0723, 3301.0725, 3301.15, 3302.01, 3302.03, 139697
3302.032, 3302.20, 3302.21, 3302.22, 3303.41, 3304.11, 3304.12, 139698
3304.13, 3304.14, 3304.15, 3304.16, 3304.17, 3304.18, 3304.181, 139699
3304.182, 3304.19, 3304.20, 3304.21, 3304.22, 3304.23, 3304.231, 139700
3304.25, 3304.27, 3304.28, 3304.41, 3305.03, 3307.51, 3309.21, 139701
3310.01, 3310.02, 3310.03, 3310.05, 3310.06, 3310.08, 3310.56, 139702
3311.0510, 3311.19, 3311.22, 3311.231, 3311.38, 3311.86, 3312.08, 139703
3313.372, 3313.376, 3313.48, 3313.483, 3313.484, 3313.488, 139704
3313.4810, 3313.533, 3313.539, 3313.603, 3313.6013, 3313.6016, 139705
3313.612, 3313.615, 3313.62, 3313.64, 3313.646, 3313.65, 3313.714, 139706
3313.715, 3313.83, 3313.841, 3313.843, 3313.844, 3313.845, 139707
3313.847, 3313.88, 3313.911, 3313.978, 3313.98, 3313.981, 139708
3314.015, 3314.017, 3314.027, 3314.029, 3314.03, 3314.05, 3314.06, 139709
3314.072, 3314.074, 3314.08, 3314.083, 3314.084, 3314.087, 139710
3314.09, 3314.091, 3314.11, 3314.26, 3314.35, 3315.40, 3315.42, 139711
3316.041, 3316.06, 3317.01, 3317.013, 3317.021, 3317.023, 139712
3317.0212, 3317.03, 3317.032, 3317.05, 3317.06, 3317.063, 3317.08, 139713
3317.10, 3317.14, 3317.18, 3317.19, 3317.20, 3317.50, 3317.51, 139714
3318.011, 3318.031, 3318.08, 3318.31, 3318.36, 3318.363, 3319.07, 139715
3319.073, 3319.0811, 3319.112, 3319.17, 3319.22, 3319.235, 139716
3319.57, 3319.58, 3321.01, 3321.05, 3323.021, 3323.03, 3323.04, 139717
3323.07, 3323.08, 3323.09, 3323.091, 3323.13, 3323.14, 3323.141, 139718
3323.142, 3326.07, 3326.08, 3326.11, 3326.20, 3326.31, 3326.32, 139719
3326.33, 3326.34, 3326.38, 3326.45, 3327.01, 3333.041, 3333.73, 139720
3333.82, 3333.90, 3334.08, 3335.35, 3335.36, 3335.37, 3335.38, 139721
3345.05, 3345.06, 3345.12, 3353.01, 3353.02, 3353.03, 3353.04, 139722
3353.06, 3353.07, 3365.01, 3365.02, 3365.021, 3365.07, 3365.12, 139723
3383.01, 3383.07, 3501.01, 3517.10, 3517.102, 3517.103, 3517.153, 139724
3517.154, 3517.155, 3517.20, 3517.992, 3599.45, 3701.023, 139725
3701.024, 3701.027, 3701.041, 3701.13, 3701.132, 3701.243, 139726
3701.261, 3701.262, 3701.264, 3701.342, 3701.344, 3701.507, 139727
3701.74, 3701.741, 3701.742, 3701.78, 3701.83, 3701.881, 3701.921, 139728
3701.922, 3701.99, 3702.30, 3702.51, 3702.521, 3702.55, 3702.62, 139729
3702.74, 3702.91, 3704.144, 3706.01, 3707.511, 3709.01, 3709.051, 139730
3709.10, 3712.051, 3712.07, 3712.09, 3713.06, 3714.03, 3714.07, 139731
3717.08, 3718.06, 3719.61, 3721.01, 3721.011, 3721.02, 3721.022, 139732
3721.024, 3721.027, 3721.042, 3721.071, 3721.08, 3721.10, 3721.12, 139733
3721.121, 3721.13, 3721.14, 3721.15, 3721.16, 3721.17, 3721.19, 139734
3721.50, 3721.51, 3721.511, 3721.512, 3721.513, 3721.52, 3721.53, 139735
3721.531, 3721.532, 3721.533, 3721.54, 3721.541, 3721.55, 3721.56, 139736
3721.57, 3721.58, 3727.01, 3734.28, 3734.57, 3734.901, 3734.907, 139737
3735.58, 3735.67, 3737.02, 3737.83, 3737.841, 3737.88, 3737.882, 139738
3737.883, 3742.30, 3742.31, 3742.32, 3742.51, 3745.11, 3745.113, 139739
3745.72, 3769.08, 3769.087, 3769.088, 3770.02, 3770.06, 3772.062, 139740
3781.112, 3793.01, 3793.031, 3793.032, 3793.051, 3793.10, 3793.11, 139741
3793.12, 3793.13, 3793.14, 3793.15, 3793.16, 3793.18, 3793.22, 139742
3793.31, 3793.32, 3793.33, 3793.34, 3793.35, 3793.36, 3793.37, 139743
3793.38, 3793.39, 3795.01, 3798.01, 3798.10, 3798.13, 3798.14, 139744
3798.15, 3798.16, 3901.3814, 3903.14, 3905.40, 3905.483, 3905.862, 139745
3916.06, 3923.24, 3923.241, 3923.281, 3923.443, 3923.49, 3923.50, 139746
3923.601, 3923.83, 3924.41, 3924.42, 3963.01, 3963.04, 4104.33, 139747
4112.02, 4112.12, 4112.31, 4115.034, 4115.32, 4117.06, 4117.14, 139748
4117.15, 4121.44, 4121.441, 4121.50, 4121.69, 4123.32, 4123.35, 139749
4123.41, 4123.54, 4123.57, 4123.93, 4131.03, 4141.162, 4141.29, 139750
4301.01, 4301.10, 4301.30, 4301.43, 4301.62, 4303.181, 4305.131, 139751
4501.01, 4501.21, 4503.03, 4503.10, 4503.44, 4503.62, 4505.02, 139752
4505.09, 4506.07, 4507.01, 4507.06, 4507.51, 4510.038, 4510.45, 139753
4511.19, 4511.191, 4511.21, 4511.69, 4511.85, 4513.34, 4701.03, 139754
4707.02, 4707.073, 4707.10, 4709.11, 4713.08, 4713.44, 4715.22, 139755
4715.36, 4715.372, 4717.03, 4717.06, 4717.07, 4717.10, 4717.14, 139756
4717.15, 4719.01, 4723.18, 4723.35, 4723.481, 4725.03, 4725.16, 139757
4729.51, 4729.54, 4729.69, 4729.77, 4729.78, 4729.79, 4729.80, 139758
4729.81, 4729.99, 4730.411, 4731.151, 4731.23, 4731.65, 4731.71, 139759
4734.41, 4735.07, 4735.09, 4735.10, 4735.142, 4735.56, 4742.01, 139760
4751.01, 4751.02, 4751.03, 4751.04, 4751.041, 4751.05, 4751.06, 139761
4751.07, 4751.08, 4751.10, 4751.11, 4751.12, 4751.13, 4753.071, 139762
4755.11, 4755.47, 4755.481, 4755.64, 4758.10, 4758.11, 4761.01, 139763
4778.02, 4778.03, 4781.121, 4781.28, 4781.29, 4906.20, 5101.01, 139764
5101.11, 5101.141, 5101.16, 5101.162, 5101.18, 5101.181, 5101.183, 139765
5101.184, 5101.26, 5101.271, 5101.272, 5101.273, 5101.30, 5101.31, 139766
5101.34, 5101.35, 5101.36, 5101.46, 5101.461, 5101.47, 5101.49, 139767
5101.50, 5101.501, 5101.502, 5101.51, 5101.511, 5101.512, 139768
5101.513, 5101.516, 5101.517, 5101.519, 5101.5110, 5101.52, 139769
5101.521, 5101.522, 5101.524, 5101.527, 5101.571, 5101.572, 139770
5101.573, 5101.574, 5101.575, 5101.58, 5101.59, 5101.591, 5101.60, 139771
5101.61, 5101.80, 5101.801, 5101.803, 5103.02, 5103.0323, 5103.13, 139772
5103.42, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5104.02, 5104.021, 5104.03, 5104.08, 139773
5104.11, 5104.12, 5104.32, 5107.10, 5107.14, 5107.16, 5107.20, 139774
5107.24, 5107.26, 5107.42, 5107.64, 5111.01, 5111.011, 5111.013, 139775
5111.016, 5111.018, 5111.0112, 5111.0114, 5111.0116, 5111.0117, 139776
5111.0118, 5111.0119, 5111.02, 5111.021, 5111.022, 5111.023, 139777
5111.024, 5111.025, 5111.027, 5111.028, 5111.029, 5111.0210, 139778
5111.0211, 5111.0212, 5111.0213, 5111.0214, 5111.0215, 5111.03, 139779
5111.031, 5111.032, 5111.033, 5111.034, 5111.035, 5111.04, 139780
5111.042, 5111.05, 5111.051, 5111.052, 5111.053, 5111.054, 139781
5111.06, 5111.061, 5111.062, 5111.063, 5111.07, 5111.071, 5111.08, 139782
5111.081, 5111.082, 5111.083, 5111.084, 5111.085, 5111.086, 139783
5111.09, 5111.091, 5111.092, 5111.10, 5111.101, 5111.102, 5111.11, 139784
5111.111, 5111.112, 5111.113, 5111.114, 5111.12, 5111.121, 139785
5111.13, 5111.14, 5111.141, 5111.15, 5111.151, 5111.16, 5111.161, 139786
5111.162, 5111.163, 5111.17, 5111.171, 5111.172, 5111.173, 139787
5111.174, 5111.175, 5111.177, 5111.178, 5111.179, 5111.1710, 139788
5111.1711, 5111.18, 5111.181, 5111.19, 5111.191, 5111.20, 139789
5111.201, 5111.202, 5111.203, 5111.204, 5111.21, 5111.212, 139790
5111.22, 5111.221, 5111.222, 5111.223, 5111.224, 5111.225, 139791
5111.226, 5111.23, 5111.231, 5111.232, 5111.233, 5111.235, 139792
5111.24, 5111.241, 5111.242, 5111.244, 5111.245, 5111.246, 139793
5111.25, 5111.251, 5111.254, 5111.255, 5111.257, 5111.258, 139794
5111.259, 5111.26, 5111.261, 5111.262, 5111.263, 5111.264, 139795
5111.265, 5111.266, 5111.27, 5111.271, 5111.28, 5111.29, 5111.291, 139796
5111.30, 5111.31, 5111.32, 5111.33, 5111.331, 5111.35, 5111.36, 139797
5111.37, 5111.38, 5111.39, 5111.40, 5111.41, 5111.411, 5111.42, 139798
5111.43, 5111.44, 5111.45, 5111.46, 5111.47, 5111.48, 5111.49, 139799
5111.50, 5111.51, 5111.511, 5111.52, 5111.53, 5111.54, 5111.55, 139800
5111.56, 5111.57, 5111.58, 5111.59, 5111.60, 5111.61, 5111.62, 139801
5111.63, 5111.66, 5111.661, 5111.67, 5111.671, 5111.672, 5111.673, 139802
5111.674, 5111.675, 5111.676, 5111.677, 5111.68, 5111.681, 139803
5111.682, 5111.683, 5111.684, 5111.685, 5111.686, 5111.687, 139804
5111.688, 5111.689, 5111.70, 5111.701, 5111.702, 5111.703, 139805
5111.704, 5111.705, 5111.706, 5111.707, 5111.708, 5111.709, 139806
5111.7011, 5111.71, 5111.711, 5111.712, 5111.713, 5111.714, 139807
5111.715, 5111.83, 5111.84, 5111.85, 5111.851, 5111.852, 5111.853, 139808
5111.854, 5111.855, 5111.856, 5111.86, 5111.861, 5111.862, 139809
5111.863, 5111.864, 5111.865, 5111.87, 5111.871, 5111.872, 139810
5111.873, 5111.874, 5111.875, 5111.876, 5111.877, 5111.878, 139811
5111.879, 5111.88, 5111.881, 5111.882, 5111.883, 5111.884, 139812
5111.885, 5111.886, 5111.887, 5111.888, 5111.889, 5111.8810, 139813
5111.89, 5111.891, 5111.892, 5111.893, 5111.894, 5111.90, 5111.91, 139814
5111.911, 5111.912, 5111.914, 5111.915, 5111.92, 5111.93, 5111.94, 139815
5111.941, 5111.943, 5111.944, 5111.945, 5111.96, 5111.97, 5111.98, 139816
5111.981, 5111.982, 5111.99, 5112.01, 5112.03, 5112.04, 5112.05, 139817
5112.06, 5112.07, 5112.08, 5112.09, 5112.10, 5112.11, 5112.17, 139818
5112.18, 5112.19, 5112.21, 5112.30, 5112.31, 5112.32, 5112.33, 139819
5112.331, 5112.34, 5112.341, 5112.35, 5112.37, 5112.371, 5112.38, 139820
5112.39, 5112.40, 5112.41, 5112.42, 5112.43, 5112.44, 5112.45, 139821
5112.46, 5112.47, 5112.48, 5112.99, 5112.991, 5115.20, 5117.10, 139822
5119.01, 5119.012, 5119.02, 5119.04, 5119.06, 5119.061, 5119.07, 139823
5119.071, 5119.072, 5119.08, 5119.10, 5119.101, 5119.11, 5119.12, 139824
5119.14, 5119.16, 5119.161, 5119.17, 5119.18, 5119.20, 5119.201, 139825
5119.202, 5119.21, 5119.22, 5119.221, 5119.23, 5119.24, 5119.27, 139826
5119.30, 5119.33, 5119.34, 5119.35, 5119.351, 5119.36, 5119.42, 139827
5119.43, 5119.44, 5119.46, 5119.50, 5119.51, 5119.52, 5119.53, 139828
5119.57, 5119.60, 5119.61, 5119.611, 5119.612, 5119.613, 5119.62, 139829
5119.621, 5119.622, 5119.63, 5119.631, 5119.69, 5119.691, 5119.99, 139830
5120.07, 5120.09, 5120.135, 5120.17, 5120.171, 5120.652, 5120.654, 139831
5121.051, 5121.30, 5121.32, 5121.33, 5121.34, 5121.35, 5121.36, 139832
5121.37, 5121.38, 5121.40, 5121.42, 5121.43, 5121.44, 5121.45, 139833
5121.46, 5121.47, 5121.49, 5121.50, 5121.51, 5121.52, 5121.55, 139834
5122.01, 5122.03, 5122.10, 5122.11, 5122.12, 5122.13, 5122.15, 139835
5122.17, 5122.18, 5122.19, 5122.20, 5122.21, 5122.23, 5122.25, 139836
5122.26, 5122.27, 5122.271, 5122.31, 5122.311, 5122.32, 5122.33, 139837
5122.34, 5122.341, 5122.39, 5122.43, 5122.44, 5122.45, 5122.46, 139838
5122.47, 5123.01, 5123.021, 5123.022, 5123.03, 5123.0412, 139839
5123.0417, 5123.09, 5123.171, 5123.19, 5123.192, 5123.197, 139840
5123.198, 5123.38, 5123.61, 5123.86, 5126.01, 5126.026, 5126.043, 139841
5126.05, 5126.051, 5126.054, 5126.055, 5139.03, 5139.04, 5139.08, 139842
5139.34, 5145.162, 5145.18, 5153.16, 5302.221, 5309.082, 5309.68, 139843
5309.86, 5501.311, 5501.312, 5501.73, 5502.011, 5505.12, 5507.01, 139844
5507.02, 5507.021, 5507.022, 5507.03, 5507.06, 5507.07, 5507.08, 139845
5507.09, 5507.12, 5507.15, 5507.18, 5507.22, 5507.25, 5507.26, 139846
5507.27, 5507.32, 5507.34, 5507.40, 5507.42, 5507.44, 5507.46, 139847
5507.52, 5507.53, 5507.54, 5507.55, 5507.57, 5507.571, 5507.60, 139848
5507.63, 5507.99, 5511.03, 5515.08, 5701.13, 5703.052, 5703.059, 139849
5703.21, 5703.37, 5703.82, 5705.01, 5705.19, 5705.192, 5705.21, 139850
5705.217, 5705.218, 5705.221, 5705.25, 5709.17, 5715.19, 5715.27, 139851
5717.01, 5725.18, 5725.34, 5726.20, 5726.52, 5727.26, 5727.75, 139852
5727.84, 5727.89, 5728.10, 5729.03, 5729.17, 5731.39, 5733.01, 139853
5733.06, 5733.11, 5733.55, 5733.98, 5735.012, 5735.12, 5735.27, 139854
5735.34, 5739.01, 5739.02, 5739.026, 5739.09, 5739.13, 5741.01, 139855
5741.03, 5741.17, 5743.081, 5743.15, 5743.56, 5745.12, 5747.01, 139856
5747.02, 5747.022, 5747.025, 5747.08, 5747.10, 5747.11, 5747.113, 139857
5747.122, 5747.13, 5747.21, 5747.22, 5747.47, 5747.501, 5747.76, 139858
5747.98, 5748.01, 5749.02, 5749.06, 5749.07, 5749.17, 5751.01, 139859
5751.011, 5751.02, 5751.03, 5751.07, 5751.081, 5751.09, 5751.20, 139860
5751.21, 5753.03, 5753.07, 5815.28, 5902.02, 5905.02, 5910.02, 139861
5910.07, 5919.34, 5924.502, 5924.503, 5924.504, 5924.506, 6109.21, 139862
and 6111.037 of the Revised Code are hereby repealed.139863

       Section 105.01. That sections 122.076, 122.15, 122.151, 139864
122.152, 122.153, 122.154, 122.29, 122.97, 123.23, 125.837, 139865
125.838, 149.51, 149.55, 166.22, 166.28, 173.425, 173.433, 139866
183.28, 184.04, 340.022, 340.033, 340.06, 340.14, 1513.371, 139867
1531.34, 1547.721, 1547.722, 1547.723, 1547.724, 1547.725, 139868
1547.726, 1901.121, 2743.54, 3302.043, 3304.24, 3304.26, 3304.38, 139869
3313.481, 3313.482, 3313.4811, 3314.088, 3314.13, 3317.012, 139870
3317.014, 3317.018, 3317.02, 3317.022, 3317.029, 3317.0217, 139871
3317.051, 3317.052, 3317.053, 3317.11, 3317.16, 3317.62, 139872
3317.63, 3317.64, 3318.023, 3323.16, 3326.39, 3327.02, 3345.81, 139873
3353.09, 3353.15, 3353.20, 3383.02, 3383.03, 3383.04, 3383.05, 139874
3383.06, 3383.08, 3383.09, 3506.22, 3517.1010, 3701.072, 139875
3701.263, 3701.343, 3701.90, 3701.901, 3701.902, 3701.903, 139876
3701.904, 3701.905, 3701.906, 3701.907, 3721.026, 3793.02, 139877
3793.03, 3793.04, 3793.041, 3793.05, 3793.06, 3793.061, 139878
3793.08, 3793.09, 3793.19, 3793.20, 3793.21, 3793.99, 5101.503, 139879
5101.514, 5101.515, 5101.518, 5101.523, 5101.525, 5101.526, 139880
5101.528, 5101.529, 5111.012, 5111.014, 5111.015, 5111.0110, 139881
5111.0111, 5111.0113, 5111.0115, 5111.0120, 5111.0121, 139882
5111.0122, 5111.0123, 5111.0124, 5111.0125, 5111.176, 5111.211, 139883
5111.236, 5111.65, 5111.8710, 5111.8811, 5111.913, 5111.942, 139884
5111.946, 5119.011, 5119.013, 5119.03, 5119.05, 5119.47, 139885
5119.623, 5119.64, 5119.65, 5119.66, 5119.67, 5119.68, 5507.65, 139886
5507.66, 5707.05, 5727.41, 5733.35, 5747.211, 5747.33, 6101.451, 139887
and 6111.029 of the Revised Code are hereby repealed.139888

       Section 110.10. That section 3313.88 of the Revised Code as 139889
it results from Section 101.01 of this act be amended and 139890
recodified as section 3313.482 of the Revised Code to read as 139891
follows:139892

       Sec. 3313.88.        Sec. 3313.482.  (A)(1) Prior to the first day of 139893
August of each school year, the board of education of any school 139894
district or the governing authority of any chartered nonpublic 139895
school may submit to the department of education a plan to require 139896
students to access and complete classroom lessons posted on the 139897
district's or nonpublic school's web portal or web site in order 139898
to make up dayshours in that school year on which it is 139899
necessary to close schools for any of the reasons specified in 139900
division (B) of section 3317.01 of the Revised Code in excess of 139901
the number of days permitted under sections 3313.48, 3313.481, and 139902
3317.01 of the Revised Codedisease epidemic, hazardous weather 139903
conditions, law enforcement emergencies, inoperability of school 139904
buses or other equipment necessary to the school's operation, 139905
damage to a school building, or other temporary circumstances due 139906
to utility failure rendering the school building unfit for school 139907
use.139908

       Prior to the first day of August of each school year, the 139909
governing authority of any community school established under 139910
Chapter 3314. that is not an internet- or computer-based community 139911
school, as defined in section 3314.02 of the Revised Code, may 139912
submit to the department a plan to require students to access and 139913
complete classroom lessons posted on the school's web portal or 139914
web site in order to make up days or hours in that school year on 139915
which it is necessary to close the school for any of the reasons 139916
specified in division (H)(4) of section 3314.08 of the Revised 139917
Code so that the school is in compliance with the minimum number 139918
of hours required under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code.139919

        A plan submitted by a school district board or, chartered 139920
nonpublic school governing authority shall provide for making up 139921
any number of days, up to a maximum of three days. A plan 139922
submitted by a, or community school governing authority shall 139923
provide for making up any number of hours, up to a maximum of the 139924
number of hours that are the equivalent of three school days. 139925
Provided the plan meets all requirements of this section, the 139926
department shall permit the board or governing authority to 139927
implement the plan for the applicable school year.139928

       (2) Each plan submitted under this section by a school 139929
district board of education shall include the written consent of 139930
the teachers' employee representative designated under division 139931
(B) of section 4117.04 of the Revised Code.139932

       (3) Each plan submitted under this section shall provide for 139933
the following:139934

       (a) Not later than the first day of November of the school 139935
year, each classroom teacher shall develop a sufficient number of 139936
lessons for each course taught by the teacher that school year to 139937
cover the number of make-up days or hours specified in the plan. 139938
The teacher shall designate the order in which the lessons are to 139939
be posted on the district's, community school's, or nonpublic 139940
school's web portal or web site in the event of a school closure. 139941
Teachers may be granted up to one professional development day to 139942
create lesson plans for those lessons.139943

       (b) To the extent possible and necessary, a classroom teacher 139944
shall update or replace, based on current instructional progress, 139945
one or more of the lesson plans developed under division (A)(3)(a) 139946
of this section before they are posted on the web portal or web 139947
site under division (A)(3)(c) of this section or distributed under 139948
division (B) of this section.139949

       (c) As soon as practicable after a school closure, a district 139950
or school employee responsible for web portal or web site 139951
operations shall make the designated lessons available to students 139952
on the district's, community school's, or nonpublic school's 139953
portal or site. A lesson shall be posted for each course that was 139954
scheduled to meet on the day or hours of the closure.139955

       (d) Each student enrolled in a course for which a lesson is 139956
posted on the portal or site shall be granted a two-week period 139957
from the date of posting to complete the lesson. The student's 139958
classroom teacher shall grade the lesson in the same manner as 139959
other lessons. The student may receive an incomplete or failing 139960
grade if the lesson is not completed on time.139961

       (e) If a student does not have access to a computer at the 139962
student's residence and the plan does not include blizzard bags 139963
under division (B) of this section, the student shall be permitted 139964
to work on the posted lessons at school after the student's school 139965
reopens. If the lessons were posted prior to the reopening, the 139966
student shall be granted a two-week period from the date of the 139967
reopening, rather than from the date of posting as otherwise 139968
required under division (A)(3)(d) of this section, to complete the 139969
lessons. The district board or community school or nonpublic 139970
school governing authority may provide the student access to a 139971
computer before, during, or after the regularly scheduled school 139972
day or may provide a substantially similar paper lesson in order 139973
to complete the lessons.139974

       (B)(1) In addition to posting classroom lessons online under 139975
division (A) of this section, the board of education of any school 139976
district or governing authority of any community or chartered 139977
nonpublic school may include in the plan distribution of "blizzard 139978
bags," which are paper copies of the lessons posted online.139979

        (2) If a school opts to use blizzard bags, teachers shall 139980
prepare paper copies in conjunction with the lessons to be posted 139981
online and update the paper copies whenever the teacher updates 139982
the online lesson plans.139983

        (3) The board of education of any school district or 139984
governing authority of any community or chartered nonpublic school 139985
that opts to use blizzard bags shall specify in the plan the 139986
method of distribution of blizzard bag lessons, which may include, 139987
but not be limited to, requiring distribution by a specific 139988
deadline or requiring distribution prior to anticipated school 139989
closure as directed by the superintendent of a school district or 139990
the principal, director, chief administrative officer, or the 139991
equivalent, of a school.139992

        (4) Students shall turn in completed lessons in accordance 139993
with division (A)(3)(d) of this section. 139994

       (C)(1) No school district that implements a plan in 139995
accordance with this section shall be considered to have failed to 139996
comply with division (B) of section 3317.01 of the Revised Code 139997
with respect to the number of make-up dayshours specified in the 139998
plan.139999

       (2) No community school that implements a plan in accordance 140000
with this section shall be considered to have failed to comply 140001
with the minimum number of hours required under Chapter 3314. of 140002
the Revised Code with respect to the number of make-up hours 140003
specified in the plan.140004

       Section 110.11. That existing section 3313.88 of the Revised 140005
Code is hereby repealed.140006

       Section 110.12. Sections 110.10 and 110.11 of this act shall 140007
take effect July 1, 2014.140008

       Section 110.20. That the versions of sections 109.57, 140009
2151.011, 2923.126, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5104.03, 5104.08, and 140010
5104.32 of the Revised Code that are scheduled to take effect 140011
January 1, 2014, be amended to read as follows:140012

       Sec. 109.57.  (A)(1) The superintendent of the bureau of 140013
criminal identification and investigation shall procure from 140014
wherever procurable and file for record photographs, pictures, 140015
descriptions, fingerprints, measurements, and other information 140016
that may be pertinent of all persons who have been convicted of 140017
committing within this state a felony, any crime constituting a 140018
misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent 140019
offenses, or any misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a), 140020
(A)(5)(a), or (A)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, of 140021
all children under eighteen years of age who have been adjudicated 140022
delinquent children for committing within this state an act that 140023
would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an 140024
adult or who have been convicted of or pleaded guilty to 140025
committing within this state a felony or an offense of violence, 140026
and of all well-known and habitual criminals. The person in charge 140027
of any county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or 140028
multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, community-based 140029
correctional facility, halfway house, alternative residential 140030
facility, or state correctional institution and the person in 140031
charge of any state institution having custody of a person 140032
suspected of having committed a felony, any crime constituting a 140033
misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent 140034
offenses, or any misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a), 140035
(A)(5)(a), or (A)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code or 140036
having custody of a child under eighteen years of age with respect 140037
to whom there is probable cause to believe that the child may have 140038
committed an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence 140039
if committed by an adult shall furnish such material to the 140040
superintendent of the bureau. Fingerprints, photographs, or other 140041
descriptive information of a child who is under eighteen years of 140042
age, has not been arrested or otherwise taken into custody for 140043
committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence 140044
who is not in any other category of child specified in this 140045
division, if committed by an adult, has not been adjudicated a 140046
delinquent child for committing an act that would be a felony or 140047
an offense of violence if committed by an adult, has not been 140048
convicted of or pleaded guilty to committing a felony or an 140049
offense of violence, and is not a child with respect to whom there 140050
is probable cause to believe that the child may have committed an 140051
act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed 140052
by an adult shall not be procured by the superintendent or 140053
furnished by any person in charge of any county, multicounty, 140054
municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal jail or 140055
workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway house, 140056
alternative residential facility, or state correctional 140057
institution, except as authorized in section 2151.313 of the 140058
Revised Code. 140059

       (2) Every clerk of a court of record in this state, other 140060
than the supreme court or a court of appeals, shall send to the 140061
superintendent of the bureau a weekly report containing a summary 140062
of each case involving a felony, involving any crime constituting 140063
a misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on subsequent 140064
offenses, involving a misdemeanor described in division (A)(1)(a), 140065
(A)(5)(a), or (A)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code, or 140066
involving an adjudication in a case in which a child under 140067
eighteen years of age was alleged to be a delinquent child for 140068
committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence 140069
if committed by an adult. The clerk of the court of common pleas 140070
shall include in the report and summary the clerk sends under this 140071
division all information described in divisions (A)(2)(a) to (f) 140072
of this section regarding a case before the court of appeals that 140073
is served by that clerk. The summary shall be written on the 140074
standard forms furnished by the superintendent pursuant to 140075
division (B) of this section and shall include the following 140076
information: 140077

       (a) The incident tracking number contained on the standard 140078
forms furnished by the superintendent pursuant to division (B) of 140079
this section; 140080

       (b) The style and number of the case; 140081

       (c) The date of arrest, offense, summons, or arraignment; 140082

       (d) The date that the person was convicted of or pleaded 140083
guilty to the offense, adjudicated a delinquent child for 140084
committing the act that would be a felony or an offense of 140085
violence if committed by an adult, found not guilty of the 140086
offense, or found not to be a delinquent child for committing an 140087
act that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed 140088
by an adult, the date of an entry dismissing the charge, an entry 140089
declaring a mistrial of the offense in which the person is 140090
discharged, an entry finding that the person or child is not 140091
competent to stand trial, or an entry of a nolle prosequi, or the 140092
date of any other determination that constitutes final resolution 140093
of the case; 140094

       (e) A statement of the original charge with the section of 140095
the Revised Code that was alleged to be violated; 140096

       (f) If the person or child was convicted, pleaded guilty, or 140097
was adjudicated a delinquent child, the sentence or terms of 140098
probation imposed or any other disposition of the offender or the 140099
delinquent child. 140100

       If the offense involved the disarming of a law enforcement 140101
officer or an attempt to disarm a law enforcement officer, the 140102
clerk shall clearly state that fact in the summary, and the 140103
superintendent shall ensure that a clear statement of that fact is 140104
placed in the bureau's records. 140105

       (3) The superintendent shall cooperate with and assist 140106
sheriffs, chiefs of police, and other law enforcement officers in 140107
the establishment of a complete system of criminal identification 140108
and in obtaining fingerprints and other means of identification of 140109
all persons arrested on a charge of a felony, any crime 140110
constituting a misdemeanor on the first offense and a felony on 140111
subsequent offenses, or a misdemeanor described in division 140112
(A)(1)(a), (A)(5)(a), or (A)(7)(a) of section 109.572 of the 140113
Revised Code and of all children under eighteen years of age 140114
arrested or otherwise taken into custody for committing an act 140115
that would be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by 140116
an adult. The superintendent also shall file for record the 140117
fingerprint impressions of all persons confined in a county, 140118
multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal 140119
jail or workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway 140120
house, alternative residential facility, or state correctional 140121
institution for the violation of state laws and of all children 140122
under eighteen years of age who are confined in a county, 140123
multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or multicounty-municipal 140124
jail or workhouse, community-based correctional facility, halfway 140125
house, alternative residential facility, or state correctional 140126
institution or in any facility for delinquent children for 140127
committing an act that would be a felony or an offense of violence 140128
if committed by an adult, and any other information that the 140129
superintendent may receive from law enforcement officials of the 140130
state and its political subdivisions. 140131

       (4) The superintendent shall carry out Chapter 2950. of the 140132
Revised Code with respect to the registration of persons who are 140133
convicted of or plead guilty to a sexually oriented offense or a 140134
child-victim oriented offense and with respect to all other duties 140135
imposed on the bureau under that chapter. 140136

       (5) The bureau shall perform centralized recordkeeping 140137
functions for criminal history records and services in this state 140138
for purposes of the national crime prevention and privacy compact 140139
set forth in section 109.571 of the Revised Code and is the 140140
criminal history record repository as defined in that section for 140141
purposes of that compact. The superintendent or the 140142
superintendent's designee is the compact officer for purposes of 140143
that compact and shall carry out the responsibilities of the 140144
compact officer specified in that compact. 140145

       (B) The superintendent shall prepare and furnish to every 140146
county, multicounty, municipal, municipal-county, or 140147
multicounty-municipal jail or workhouse, community-based 140148
correctional facility, halfway house, alternative residential 140149
facility, or state correctional institution and to every clerk of 140150
a court in this state specified in division (A)(2) of this section 140151
standard forms for reporting the information required under 140152
division (A) of this section. The standard forms that the 140153
superintendent prepares pursuant to this division may be in a 140154
tangible format, in an electronic format, or in both tangible 140155
formats and electronic formats. 140156

       (C)(1) The superintendent may operate a center for 140157
electronic, automated, or other data processing for the storage 140158
and retrieval of information, data, and statistics pertaining to 140159
criminals and to children under eighteen years of age who are 140160
adjudicated delinquent children for committing an act that would 140161
be a felony or an offense of violence if committed by an adult, 140162
criminal activity, crime prevention, law enforcement, and criminal 140163
justice, and may establish and operate a statewide communications 140164
network to be known as the Ohio law enforcement gateway to gather 140165
and disseminate information, data, and statistics for the use of 140166
law enforcement agencies and for other uses specified in this 140167
division. The superintendent may gather, store, retrieve, and 140168
disseminate information, data, and statistics that pertain to 140169
children who are under eighteen years of age and that are gathered 140170
pursuant to sections 109.57 to 109.61 of the Revised Code together 140171
with information, data, and statistics that pertain to adults and 140172
that are gathered pursuant to those sections. 140173

       (2) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee shall 140174
gather information of the nature described in division (C)(1) of 140175
this section that pertains to the offense and delinquency history 140176
of a person who has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been 140177
adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a sexually oriented 140178
offense or a child-victim oriented offense for inclusion in the 140179
state registry of sex offenders and child-victim offenders 140180
maintained pursuant to division (A)(1) of section 2950.13 of the 140181
Revised Code and in the internet database operated pursuant to 140182
division (A)(13) of that section and for possible inclusion in the 140183
internet database operated pursuant to division (A)(11) of that 140184
section. 140185

        (3) In addition to any other authorized use of information, 140186
data, and statistics of the nature described in division (C)(1) of 140187
this section, the superintendent or the superintendent's designee 140188
may provide and exchange the information, data, and statistics 140189
pursuant to the national crime prevention and privacy compact as 140190
described in division (A)(5) of this section. 140191

       (4) The attorney general may adopt rules under Chapter 119. 140192
of the Revised Code establishing guidelines for the operation of 140193
and participation in the Ohio law enforcement gateway. The rules 140194
may include criteria for granting and restricting access to 140195
information gathered and disseminated through the Ohio law 140196
enforcement gateway. The attorney general shall permit the state 140197
medical board and board of nursing to access and view, but not 140198
alter, information gathered and disseminated through the Ohio law 140199
enforcement gateway.140200

       The attorney general may appoint a steering committee to 140201
advise the attorney general in the operation of the Ohio law 140202
enforcement gateway that is comprised of persons who are 140203
representatives of the criminal justice agencies in this state 140204
that use the Ohio law enforcement gateway and is chaired by the 140205
superintendent or the superintendent's designee.140206

       (D)(1) The following are not public records under section 140207
149.43 of the Revised Code:140208

       (a) Information and materials furnished to the superintendent 140209
pursuant to division (A) of this section;140210

       (b) Information, data, and statistics gathered or 140211
disseminated through the Ohio law enforcement gateway pursuant to 140212
division (C)(1) of this section;140213

       (c) Information and materials furnished to any board or 140214
person under division (F) or (G) of this section.140215

       (2) The superintendent or the superintendent's designee shall 140216
gather and retain information so furnished under division (A) of 140217
this section that pertains to the offense and delinquency history 140218
of a person who has been convicted of, pleaded guilty to, or been 140219
adjudicated a delinquent child for committing a sexually oriented 140220
offense or a child-victim oriented offense for the purposes 140221
described in division (C)(2) of this section. 140222

       (E)(1) The attorney general shall adopt rules, in accordance 140223
with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code and subject to division 140224
(E)(2) of this section, setting forth the procedure by which a 140225
person may receive or release information gathered by the 140226
superintendent pursuant to division (A) of this section. A 140227
reasonable fee may be charged for this service. If a temporary 140228
employment service submits a request for a determination of 140229
whether a person the service plans to refer to an employment 140230
position has been convicted of or pleaded guilty to an offense 140231
listed or described in division (A)(1), (2), or (3) of section 140232
109.572 of the Revised Code, the request shall be treated as a 140233
single request and only one fee shall be charged. 140234

       (2) Except as otherwise provided in this division, a rule 140235
adopted under division (E)(1) of this section may provide only for 140236
the release of information gathered pursuant to division (A) of 140237
this section that relates to the conviction of a person, or a 140238
person's plea of guilty to, a criminal offense. The superintendent 140239
shall not release, and the attorney general shall not adopt any 140240
rule under division (E)(1) of this section that permits the 140241
release of, any information gathered pursuant to division (A) of 140242
this section that relates to an adjudication of a child as a 140243
delinquent child, or that relates to a criminal conviction of a 140244
person under eighteen years of age if the person's case was 140245
transferred back to a juvenile court under division (B)(2) or (3) 140246
of section 2152.121 of the Revised Code and the juvenile court 140247
imposed a disposition or serious youthful offender disposition 140248
upon the person under either division, unless either of the 140249
following applies with respect to the adjudication or conviction:140250

       (a) The adjudication or conviction was for a violation of 140251
section 2903.01 or 2903.02 of the Revised Code.140252

       (b) The adjudication or conviction was for a sexually 140253
oriented offense, the juvenile court was required to classify the 140254
child a juvenile offender registrant for that offense under 140255
section 2152.82, 2152.83, or 2152.86 of the Revised Code, and that 140256
classification has not been removed.140257

       (F)(1) As used in division (F)(2) of this section, "head 140258
start agency" means an entity in this state that has been approved 140259
to be an agency for purposes of subchapter II of the "Community 140260
Economic Development Act," 95 Stat. 489 (1981), 42 U.S.C.A. 9831, 140261
as amended. 140262

       (2)(a) In addition to or in conjunction with any request that 140263
is required to be made under section 109.572, 2151.86, 3301.32, 140264
3301.541, division (C) of section 3310.58, or section 3319.39, 140265
3319.391, 3327.10, 3701.881, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5123.081, or 140266
5153.111 of the Revised Code or that is made under section 140267
3314.41, 3319.392, 3326.25, or 3328.20 of the Revised Code, the 140268
board of education of any school district; the director of 140269
developmental disabilities; any county board of developmental 140270
disabilities; any provider or subcontractor as defined in section 140271
5123.081 of the Revised Code; the chief administrator of any 140272
chartered nonpublic school; the chief administrator of a 140273
registered private provider that is not also a chartered nonpublic 140274
school; the chief administrator of any home health agency; the 140275
chief administrator of or person operating any child day-care 140276
center, type A family day-care home, or type B family day-care 140277
home licensed under Chapter 5104. of the Revised Code; the chief 140278
administrator of any head start agency; the executive director of 140279
a public children services agency; a private company described in 140280
section 3314.41, 3319.392, 3326.25, or 3328.20 of the Revised 140281
Code; or an employer described in division (J)(2) of section 140282
3327.10 of the Revised Code may request that the superintendent of 140283
the bureau investigate and determine, with respect to any 140284
individual who has applied for employment in any position after 140285
October 2, 1989, or any individual wishing to apply for employment 140286
with a board of education may request, with regard to the 140287
individual, whether the bureau has any information gathered under 140288
division (A) of this section that pertains to that individual. On 140289
receipt of the request, subject to division (E)(2) of this 140290
section, the superintendent shall determine whether that 140291
information exists and, upon request of the person, board, or 140292
entity requesting information, also shall request from the federal 140293
bureau of investigation any criminal records it has pertaining to 140294
that individual. The superintendent or the superintendent's 140295
designee also may request criminal history records from other 140296
states or the federal government pursuant to the national crime 140297
prevention and privacy compact set forth in section 109.571 of the 140298
Revised Code. Within thirty days of the date that the 140299
superintendent receives a request, subject to division (E)(2) of 140300
this section, the superintendent shall send to the board, entity, 140301
or person a report of any information that the superintendent 140302
determines exists, including information contained in records that 140303
have been sealed under section 2953.32 of the Revised Code, and, 140304
within thirty days of its receipt, subject to division (E)(2) of 140305
this section, shall send the board, entity, or person a report of 140306
any information received from the federal bureau of investigation, 140307
other than information the dissemination of which is prohibited by 140308
federal law. 140309

       (b) When a board of education or a registered private 140310
provider is required to receive information under this section as 140311
a prerequisite to employment of an individual pursuant to division 140312
(C) of section 3310.58 or section 3319.39 of the Revised Code, it 140313
may accept a certified copy of records that were issued by the 140314
bureau of criminal identification and investigation and that are 140315
presented by an individual applying for employment with the 140316
district in lieu of requesting that information itself. In such a 140317
case, the board shall accept the certified copy issued by the 140318
bureau in order to make a photocopy of it for that individual's 140319
employment application documents and shall return the certified 140320
copy to the individual. In a case of that nature, a district or 140321
provider only shall accept a certified copy of records of that 140322
nature within one year after the date of their issuance by the 140323
bureau. 140324

       (c) Notwithstanding division (F)(2)(a) of this section, in 140325
the case of a request under section 3319.39, 3319.391, or 3327.10 140326
of the Revised Code only for criminal records maintained by the 140327
federal bureau of investigation, the superintendent shall not 140328
determine whether any information gathered under division (A) of 140329
this section exists on the person for whom the request is made.140330

       (3) The state board of education may request, with respect to 140331
any individual who has applied for employment after October 2, 140332
1989, in any position with the state board or the department of 140333
education, any information that a school district board of 140334
education is authorized to request under division (F)(2) of this 140335
section, and the superintendent of the bureau shall proceed as if 140336
the request has been received from a school district board of 140337
education under division (F)(2) of this section. 140338

       (4) When the superintendent of the bureau receives a request 140339
for information under section 3319.291 of the Revised Code, the 140340
superintendent shall proceed as if the request has been received 140341
from a school district board of education and shall comply with 140342
divisions (F)(2)(a) and (c) of this section. 140343

       (5) When a recipient of a classroom reading improvement grant 140344
paid under section 3301.86 of the Revised Code requests, with 140345
respect to any individual who applies to participate in providing 140346
any program or service funded in whole or in part by the grant, 140347
the information that a school district board of education is 140348
authorized to request under division (F)(2)(a) of this section, 140349
the superintendent of the bureau shall proceed as if the request 140350
has been received from a school district board of education under 140351
division (F)(2)(a) of this section. 140352

       (G) In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 140353
required to be made under section 3701.881, 3712.09, or 3721.121 140354
of the Revised Code with respect to an individual who has applied 140355
for employment in a position that involves providing direct care 140356
to an older adult or adult resident, the chief administrator of a 140357
home health agency, hospice care program, home licensed under 140358
Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code, or adult day-care program 140359
operated pursuant to rules adopted under section 3721.04 of the 140360
Revised Code may request that the superintendent of the bureau 140361
investigate and determine, with respect to any individual who has 140362
applied after January 27, 1997, for employment in a position that 140363
does not involve providing direct care to an older adult or adult 140364
resident, whether the bureau has any information gathered under 140365
division (A) of this section that pertains to that individual. 140366

       In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 140367
required to be made under section 173.27 of the Revised Code with 140368
respect to an individual who has applied for employment in a 140369
position that involves providing ombudspersonombudsman services 140370
to residents of long-term care facilities or recipients of 140371
community-based long-term care services, the state long-term care 140372
ombudspersonombudsman, ombudsperson's designee, orthe director 140373
of healthaging, a regional long-term care ombudsman program, or 140374
the designee of the ombudsman, director, or program may request 140375
that the superintendent investigate and determine, with respect to 140376
any individual who has applied for employment in a position that 140377
does not involve providing such ombudspersonombudsman services, 140378
whether the bureau has any information gathered under division (A) 140379
of this section that pertains to that applicant. 140380

       In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 140381
required to be made under section 173.394173.38 of the Revised 140382
Code with respect to an individual who has applied for employment 140383
in a direct-care position that involves providing direct care to 140384
an individual, the chief administrator of a community-based 140385
long-term care agencyprovider, as defined in section 173.39 of 140386
the Revised Code, may request that the superintendent investigate 140387
and determine, with respect to any individual who has applied for 140388
employment in a position that doesis not involve providing direct 140389
carea direct-care position, whether the bureau has any 140390
information gathered under division (A) of this section that 140391
pertains to that applicant. 140392

        In addition to or in conjunction with any request that is 140393
required to be made under section 3712.09 of the Revised Code with 140394
respect to an individual who has applied for employment in a 140395
position that involves providing direct care to a pediatric 140396
respite care patient, the chief administrator of a pediatric 140397
respite care program may request that the superintendent of the 140398
bureau investigate and determine, with respect to any individual 140399
who has applied for employment in a position that does not involve 140400
providing direct care to a pediatric respite care patient, whether 140401
the bureau has any information gathered under division (A) of this 140402
section that pertains to that individual.140403

       On receipt of a request under this division, the 140404
superintendent shall determine whether that information exists 140405
and, on request of the individual requesting information, shall 140406
also request from the federal bureau of investigation any criminal 140407
records it has pertaining to the applicant. The superintendent or 140408
the superintendent's designee also may request criminal history 140409
records from other states or the federal government pursuant to 140410
the national crime prevention and privacy compact set forth in 140411
section 109.571 of the Revised Code. Within thirty days of the 140412
date a request is received, subject to division (E)(2) of this 140413
section, the superintendent shall send to the requester a report 140414
of any information determined to exist, including information 140415
contained in records that have been sealed under section 2953.32 140416
of the Revised Code, and, within thirty days of its receipt, shall 140417
send the requester a report of any information received from the 140418
federal bureau of investigation, other than information the 140419
dissemination of which is prohibited by federal law. 140420

       (H) Information obtained by a government entity or person 140421
under this section is confidential and shall not be released or 140422
disseminated. 140423

       (I) The superintendent may charge a reasonable fee for 140424
providing information or criminal records under division (F)(2) or 140425
(G) of this section. 140426

       (J) As used in this section:140427

       (1) "Pediatric respite care program" and "pediatric care 140428
patient" have the same meanings as in section 3712.01 of the 140429
Revised Code.140430

       (2) "Sexually oriented offense" and "child-victim oriented 140431
offense" have the same meanings as in section 2950.01 of the 140432
Revised Code.140433

       (3) "Registered private provider" means a nonpublic school or 140434
entity registered with the superintendent of public instruction 140435
under section 3310.41 of the Revised Code to participate in the 140436
autism scholarship program or section 3310.58 of the Revised Code 140437
to participate in the Jon Peterson special needs scholarship 140438
program.140439

       Sec. 2151.011.  (A) As used in the Revised Code:140440

       (1) "Juvenile court" means whichever of the following is 140441
applicable that has jurisdiction under this chapter and Chapter 140442
2152. of the Revised Code:140443

       (a) The division of the court of common pleas specified in 140444
section 2101.022 or 2301.03 of the Revised Code as having 140445
jurisdiction under this chapter and Chapter 2152. of the Revised 140446
Code or as being the juvenile division or the juvenile division 140447
combined with one or more other divisions;140448

       (b) The juvenile court of Cuyahoga county or Hamilton county 140449
that is separately and independently created by section 2151.08 or 140450
Chapter 2153. of the Revised Code and that has jurisdiction under 140451
this chapter and Chapter 2152. of the Revised Code;140452

       (c) If division (A)(1)(a) or (b) of this section does not 140453
apply, the probate division of the court of common pleas.140454

       (2) "Juvenile judge" means a judge of a court having 140455
jurisdiction under this chapter.140456

       (3) "Private child placing agency" means any association, as 140457
defined in section 5103.02 of the Revised Code, that is certified 140458
under section 5103.03 of the Revised Code to accept temporary, 140459
permanent, or legal custody of children and place the children for 140460
either foster care or adoption.140461

       (4) "Private noncustodial agency" means any person, 140462
organization, association, or society certified by the department 140463
of job and family services that does not accept temporary or 140464
permanent legal custody of children, that is privately operated in 140465
this state, and that does one or more of the following:140466

       (a) Receives and cares for children for two or more 140467
consecutive weeks;140468

       (b) Participates in the placement of children in certified 140469
foster homes;140470

       (c) Provides adoption services in conjunction with a public 140471
children services agency or private child placing agency.140472

       (B) As used in this chapter:140473

       (1) "Adequate parental care" means the provision by a child's 140474
parent or parents, guardian, or custodian of adequate food, 140475
clothing, and shelter to ensure the child's health and physical 140476
safety and the provision by a child's parent or parents of 140477
specialized services warranted by the child's physical or mental 140478
needs.140479

       (2) "Adult" means an individual who is eighteen years of age 140480
or older.140481

       (3) "Agreement for temporary custody" means a voluntary 140482
agreement authorized by section 5103.15 of the Revised Code that 140483
transfers the temporary custody of a child to a public children 140484
services agency or a private child placing agency.140485

       (4) "Alternative response" means the public children services 140486
agency's response to a report of child abuse or neglect that 140487
engages the family in a comprehensive evaluation of child safety, 140488
risk of subsequent harm, and family strengths and needs and that 140489
does not include a determination as to whether child abuse or 140490
neglect occurred.140491

       (5) "Certified foster home" means a foster home, as defined 140492
in section 5103.02 of the Revised Code, certified under section 140493
5103.03 of the Revised Code.140494

       (6) "Child" means a person who is under eighteen years of 140495
age, except that the juvenile court has jurisdiction over any 140496
person who is adjudicated an unruly child prior to attaining 140497
eighteen years of age until the person attains twenty-one years of 140498
age, and, for purposes of that jurisdiction related to that 140499
adjudication, a person who is so adjudicated an unruly child shall 140500
be deemed a "child" until the person attains twenty-one years of 140501
age.140502

       (7) "Child day camp," "child care," "child day-care center," 140503
"part-time child day-care center," "type A family day-care home," 140504
"licensed type B family day-care home," "type B family day-care 140505
home," "administrator of a child day-care center," "administrator 140506
of a type A family day-care home," and "in-home aide" have the 140507
same meanings as in section 5104.01 of the Revised Code.140508

       (8) "Child care provider" means an individual who is a 140509
child-care staff member or administrator of a child day-care 140510
center, a type A family day-care home, or a type B family day-care 140511
home, or an in-home aide or an individual who is licensed, is 140512
regulated, is approved, operates under the direction of, or 140513
otherwise is certified by the department of job and family 140514
services, department of developmental disabilities, or the early 140515
childhood programs of the department of education.140516

       (9) "Chronic truant" has the same meaning as in section 140517
2152.02 of the Revised Code.140518

       (10) "Commit" means to vest custody as ordered by the court.140519

       (11) "Counseling" includes both of the following:140520

       (a) General counseling services performed by a public 140521
children services agency or shelter for victims of domestic 140522
violence to assist a child, a child's parents, and a child's 140523
siblings in alleviating identified problems that may cause or have 140524
caused the child to be an abused, neglected, or dependent child.140525

       (b) Psychiatric or psychological therapeutic counseling 140526
services provided to correct or alleviate any mental or emotional 140527
illness or disorder and performed by a licensed psychiatrist, 140528
licensed psychologist, or a person licensed under Chapter 4757. of 140529
the Revised Code to engage in social work or professional 140530
counseling.140531

       (12) "Custodian" means a person who has legal custody of a 140532
child or a public children services agency or private child 140533
placing agency that has permanent, temporary, or legal custody of 140534
a child.140535

       (13) "Delinquent child" has the same meaning as in section 140536
2152.02 of the Revised Code.140537

       (14) "Detention" means the temporary care of children pending 140538
court adjudication or disposition, or execution of a court order, 140539
in a public or private facility designed to physically restrict 140540
the movement and activities of children.140541

       (15) "Developmental disability" has the same meaning as in 140542
section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.140543

       (16) "Differential response approach" means an approach that 140544
a public children services agency may use to respond to accepted 140545
reports of child abuse or neglect with either an alternative 140546
response or a traditional response.140547

       (17) "Foster caregiver" has the same meaning as in section 140548
5103.02 of the Revised Code.140549

       (18) "Guardian" means a person, association, or corporation 140550
that is granted authority by a probate court pursuant to Chapter 140551
2111. of the Revised Code to exercise parental rights over a child 140552
to the extent provided in the court's order and subject to the 140553
residual parental rights of the child's parents.140554

       (19) "Habitual truant" means any child of compulsory school 140555
age who is absent without legitimate excuse for absence from the 140556
public school the child is supposed to attend for five or more 140557
consecutive school days, seven or more school days in one school 140558
month, or twelve or more school days in a school year.140559

       (20) "Juvenile traffic offender" has the same meaning as in 140560
section 2152.02 of the Revised Code.140561

       (21) "Legal custody" means a legal status that vests in the 140562
custodian the right to have physical care and control of the child 140563
and to determine where and with whom the child shall live, and the 140564
right and duty to protect, train, and discipline the child and to 140565
provide the child with food, shelter, education, and medical care, 140566
all subject to any residual parental rights, privileges, and 140567
responsibilities. An individual granted legal custody shall 140568
exercise the rights and responsibilities personally unless 140569
otherwise authorized by any section of the Revised Code or by the 140570
court.140571

       (22) A "legitimate excuse for absence from the public school 140572
the child is supposed to attend" includes, but is not limited to, 140573
any of the following:140574

       (a) The fact that the child in question has enrolled in and 140575
is attending another public or nonpublic school in this or another 140576
state;140577

       (b) The fact that the child in question is excused from 140578
attendance at school for any of the reasons specified in section 140579
3321.04 of the Revised Code;140580

       (c) The fact that the child in question has received an age 140581
and schooling certificate in accordance with section 3331.01 of 140582
the Revised Code.140583

       (23) "Mental illness" and "mentally ill person subject to 140584
hospitalization by court order" have the same meanings as in 140585
section 5122.01 of the Revised Code.140586

       (24) "Mental injury" means any behavioral, cognitive, 140587
emotional, or mental disorder in a child caused by an act or 140588
omission that is described in section 2919.22 of the Revised Code 140589
and is committed by the parent or other person responsible for the 140590
child's care.140591

       (25) "Mentally retarded person" has the same meaning as in 140592
section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.140593

       (26) "Nonsecure care, supervision, or training" means care, 140594
supervision, or training of a child in a facility that does not 140595
confine or prevent movement of the child within the facility or 140596
from the facility.140597

       (27) "Of compulsory school age" has the same meaning as in 140598
section 3321.01 of the Revised Code.140599

       (28) "Organization" means any institution, public, 140600
semipublic, or private, and any private association, society, or 140601
agency located or operating in the state, incorporated or 140602
unincorporated, having among its functions the furnishing of 140603
protective services or care for children, or the placement of 140604
children in certified foster homes or elsewhere.140605

       (29) "Out-of-home care" means detention facilities, shelter 140606
facilities, certified children's crisis care facilities, certified 140607
foster homes, placement in a prospective adoptive home prior to 140608
the issuance of a final decree of adoption, organizations, 140609
certified organizations, child day-care centers, type A family 140610
day-care homes, type B family day-care homes, child care provided 140611
by in-home aides, group home providers, group homes, institutions, 140612
state institutions, residential facilities, residential care 140613
facilities, residential camps, day camps, public schools, 140614
chartered nonpublic schools, educational service centers, 140615
hospitals, and medical clinics that are responsible for the care, 140616
physical custody, or control of children.140617

       (30) "Out-of-home care child abuse" means any of the 140618
following when committed by a person responsible for the care of a 140619
child in out-of-home care:140620

       (a) Engaging in sexual activity with a child in the person's 140621
care;140622

       (b) Denial to a child, as a means of punishment, of proper or 140623
necessary subsistence, education, medical care, or other care 140624
necessary for a child's health;140625

       (c) Use of restraint procedures on a child that cause injury 140626
or pain;140627

       (d) Administration of prescription drugs or psychotropic 140628
medication to the child without the written approval and ongoing 140629
supervision of a licensed physician;140630

       (e) Commission of any act, other than by accidental means, 140631
that results in any injury to or death of the child in out-of-home 140632
care or commission of any act by accidental means that results in 140633
an injury to or death of a child in out-of-home care and that is 140634
at variance with the history given of the injury or death.140635

       (31) "Out-of-home care child neglect" means any of the 140636
following when committed by a person responsible for the care of a 140637
child in out-of-home care:140638

       (a) Failure to provide reasonable supervision according to 140639
the standards of care appropriate to the age, mental and physical 140640
condition, or other special needs of the child;140641

       (b) Failure to provide reasonable supervision according to 140642
the standards of care appropriate to the age, mental and physical 140643
condition, or other special needs of the child, that results in 140644
sexual or physical abuse of the child by any person;140645

       (c) Failure to develop a process for all of the following:140646

       (i) Administration of prescription drugs or psychotropic 140647
drugs for the child;140648

       (ii) Assuring that the instructions of the licensed physician 140649
who prescribed a drug for the child are followed;140650

       (iii) Reporting to the licensed physician who prescribed the 140651
drug all unfavorable or dangerous side effects from the use of the 140652
drug.140653

       (d) Failure to provide proper or necessary subsistence, 140654
education, medical care, or other individualized care necessary 140655
for the health or well-being of the child;140656

       (e) Confinement of the child to a locked room without 140657
monitoring by staff;140658

       (f) Failure to provide ongoing security for all prescription 140659
and nonprescription medication;140660

       (g) Isolation of a child for a period of time when there is 140661
substantial risk that the isolation, if continued, will impair or 140662
retard the mental health or physical well-being of the child.140663

       (32) "Permanent custody" means a legal status that vests in a 140664
public children services agency or a private child placing agency, 140665
all parental rights, duties, and obligations, including the right 140666
to consent to adoption, and divests the natural parents or 140667
adoptive parents of all parental rights, privileges, and 140668
obligations, including all residual rights and obligations.140669

       (33) "Permanent surrender" means the act of the parents or, 140670
if a child has only one parent, of the parent of a child, by a 140671
voluntary agreement authorized by section 5103.15 of the Revised 140672
Code, to transfer the permanent custody of the child to a public 140673
children services agency or a private child placing agency.140674

       (34) "Person" means an individual, association, corporation, 140675
or partnership and the state or any of its political subdivisions, 140676
departments, or agencies.140677

       (35) "Person responsible for a child's care in out-of-home 140678
care" means any of the following:140679

       (a) Any foster caregiver, in-home aide, or provider;140680

       (b) Any administrator, employee, or agent of any of the 140681
following: a public or private detention facility; shelter 140682
facility; certified children's crisis care facility; organization; 140683
certified organization; child day-care center; type A family 140684
day-care home; licensed type B family day-care home; group home; 140685
institution; state institution; residential facility; residential 140686
care facility; residential camp; day camp; school district; 140687
community school; chartered nonpublic school; educational service 140688
center; hospital; or medical clinic;140689

       (c) Any person who supervises or coaches children as part of 140690
an extracurricular activity sponsored by a school district, public 140691
school, or chartered nonpublic school;140692

       (d) Any other person who performs a similar function with 140693
respect to, or has a similar relationship to, children.140694

       (36) "Physically impaired" means having one or more of the 140695
following conditions that substantially limit one or more of an 140696
individual's major life activities, including self-care, receptive 140697
and expressive language, learning, mobility, and self-direction:140698

       (a) A substantial impairment of vision, speech, or hearing;140699

       (b) A congenital orthopedic impairment;140700

       (c) An orthopedic impairment caused by disease, rheumatic 140701
fever or any other similar chronic or acute health problem, or 140702
amputation or another similar cause.140703

       (37) "Placement for adoption" means the arrangement by a 140704
public children services agency or a private child placing agency 140705
with a person for the care and adoption by that person of a child 140706
of whom the agency has permanent custody.140707

       (38) "Placement in foster care" means the arrangement by a 140708
public children services agency or a private child placing agency 140709
for the out-of-home care of a child of whom the agency has 140710
temporary custody or permanent custody.140711

       (39) "Planned permanent living arrangement" means an order of 140712
a juvenile court pursuant to which both of the following apply:140713

       (a) The court gives legal custody of a child to a public 140714
children services agency or a private child placing agency without 140715
the termination of parental rights.140716

       (b) The order permits the agency to make an appropriate 140717
placement of the child and to enter into a written agreement with 140718
a foster care provider or with another person or agency with whom 140719
the child is placed.140720

       (40) "Practice of social work" and "practice of professional 140721
counseling" have the same meanings as in section 4757.01 of the 140722
Revised Code.140723

       (41) "Sanction, service, or condition" means a sanction, 140724
service, or condition created by court order following an 140725
adjudication that a child is an unruly child that is described in 140726
division (A)(4) of section 2152.19 of the Revised Code.140727

       (42) "Protective supervision" means an order of disposition 140728
pursuant to which the court permits an abused, neglected, 140729
dependent, or unruly child to remain in the custody of the child's 140730
parents, guardian, or custodian and stay in the child's home, 140731
subject to any conditions and limitations upon the child, the 140732
child's parents, guardian, or custodian, or any other person that 140733
the court prescribes, including supervision as directed by the 140734
court for the protection of the child.140735

       (43) "Psychiatrist" has the same meaning as in section 140736
5122.01 of the Revised Code.140737

       (44) "Psychologist" has the same meaning as in section 140738
4732.01 of the Revised Code.140739

       (45) "Residential camp" means a program in which the care, 140740
physical custody, or control of children is accepted overnight for 140741
recreational or recreational and educational purposes.140742

       (46) "Residential care facility" means an institution, 140743
residence, or facility that is licensed by the department of 140744
mental healthmental health and addiction services under section 140745
5119.225119.34 of the Revised Code and that provides care for a 140746
child.140747

       (47) "Residential facility" means a home or facility that is 140748
licensed by the department of developmental disabilities under 140749
section 5123.19 of the Revised Code and in which a child with a 140750
developmental disability resides.140751

       (48) "Residual parental rights, privileges, and 140752
responsibilities" means those rights, privileges, and 140753
responsibilities remaining with the natural parent after the 140754
transfer of legal custody of the child, including, but not 140755
necessarily limited to, the privilege of reasonable visitation, 140756
consent to adoption, the privilege to determine the child's 140757
religious affiliation, and the responsibility for support.140758

       (49) "School day" means the school day established by the 140759
state board of education of the applicable school district140760
pursuant to section 3313.483313.481 of the Revised Code.140761

       (50) "School month" and "school year" havehas the same 140762
meaningsmeaning as in section 3313.62 of the Revised Code.140763

       (51) "Secure correctional facility" means a facility under 140764
the direction of the department of youth services that is designed 140765
to physically restrict the movement and activities of children and 140766
used for the placement of children after adjudication and 140767
disposition.140768

       (52) "Sexual activity" has the same meaning as in section 140769
2907.01 of the Revised Code.140770

       (53) "Shelter" means the temporary care of children in 140771
physically unrestricted facilities pending court adjudication or 140772
disposition.140773

       (54) "Shelter for victims of domestic violence" has the same 140774
meaning as in section 3113.33 of the Revised Code.140775

       (55) "Temporary custody" means legal custody of a child who 140776
is removed from the child's home, which custody may be terminated 140777
at any time at the discretion of the court or, if the legal 140778
custody is granted in an agreement for temporary custody, by the 140779
person who executed the agreement.140780

       (56) "Traditional response" means a public children services 140781
agency's response to a report of child abuse or neglect that 140782
encourages engagement of the family in a comprehensive evaluation 140783
of the child's current and future safety needs and a fact-finding 140784
process to determine whether child abuse or neglect occurred and 140785
the circumstances surrounding the alleged harm or risk of harm.140786

       (C) For the purposes of this chapter, a child shall be 140787
presumed abandoned when the parents of the child have failed to 140788
visit or maintain contact with the child for more than ninety 140789
days, regardless of whether the parents resume contact with the 140790
child after that period of ninety days.140791

       Sec. 2923.126.  (A) A concealed handgun license that is 140792
issued under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code shall expire 140793
five years after the date of issuance. A licensee who has been 140794
issued a license under that section shall be granted a grace 140795
period of thirty days after the licensee's license expires during 140796
which the licensee's license remains valid. Except as provided in 140797
divisions (B) and (C) of this section, a licensee who has been 140798
issued a concealed handgun license under section 2923.125 or 140799
2923.1213 of the Revised Code may carry a concealed handgun 140800
anywhere in this state if the licensee also carries a valid 140801
license and valid identification when the licensee is in actual 140802
possession of a concealed handgun. The licensee shall give notice 140803
of any change in the licensee's residence address to the sheriff 140804
who issued the license within forty-five days after that change.140805

       If a licensee is the driver or an occupant of a motor vehicle 140806
that is stopped as the result of a traffic stop or a stop for 140807
another law enforcement purpose and if the licensee is 140808
transporting or has a loaded handgun in the motor vehicle at that 140809
time, the licensee shall promptly inform any law enforcement 140810
officer who approaches the vehicle while stopped that the licensee 140811
has been issued a concealed handgun license and that the licensee 140812
currently possesses or has a loaded handgun; the licensee shall 140813
not knowingly disregard or fail to comply with lawful orders of a 140814
law enforcement officer given while the motor vehicle is stopped, 140815
knowingly fail to remain in the motor vehicle while stopped, or 140816
knowingly fail to keep the licensee's hands in plain sight after 140817
any law enforcement officer begins approaching the licensee while 140818
stopped and before the officer leaves, unless directed otherwise 140819
by a law enforcement officer; and the licensee shall not knowingly 140820
have contact with the loaded handgun by touching it with the 140821
licensee's hands or fingers, in any manner in violation of 140822
division (E) of section 2923.16 of the Revised Code, after any law 140823
enforcement officer begins approaching the licensee while stopped 140824
and before the officer leaves. Additionally, if a licensee is the 140825
driver or an occupant of a commercial motor vehicle that is 140826
stopped by an employee of the motor carrier enforcement unit for 140827
the purposes defined in section 5503.04 of the Revised Code and if 140828
the licensee is transporting or has a loaded handgun in the 140829
commercial motor vehicle at that time, the licensee shall promptly 140830
inform the employee of the unit who approaches the vehicle while 140831
stopped that the licensee has been issued a concealed handgun 140832
license and that the licensee currently possesses or has a loaded 140833
handgun. 140834

       If a licensee is stopped for a law enforcement purpose and if 140835
the licensee is carrying a concealed handgun at the time the 140836
officer approaches, the licensee shall promptly inform any law 140837
enforcement officer who approaches the licensee while stopped that 140838
the licensee has been issued a concealed handgun license and that 140839
the licensee currently is carrying a concealed handgun; the 140840
licensee shall not knowingly disregard or fail to comply with 140841
lawful orders of a law enforcement officer given while the 140842
licensee is stopped or knowingly fail to keep the licensee's hands 140843
in plain sight after any law enforcement officer begins 140844
approaching the licensee while stopped and before the officer 140845
leaves, unless directed otherwise by a law enforcement officer; 140846
and the licensee shall not knowingly remove, attempt to remove, 140847
grasp, or hold the loaded handgun or knowingly have contact with 140848
the loaded handgun by touching it with the licensee's hands or 140849
fingers, in any manner in violation of division (B) of section 140850
2923.12 of the Revised Code, after any law enforcement officer 140851
begins approaching the licensee while stopped and before the 140852
officer leaves.140853

        (B) A valid concealed handgun license does not authorize the 140854
licensee to carry a concealed handgun in any manner prohibited 140855
under division (B) of section 2923.12 of the Revised Code or in 140856
any manner prohibited under section 2923.16 of the Revised Code. A 140857
valid license does not authorize the licensee to carry a concealed 140858
handgun into any of the following places:140859

       (1) A police station, sheriff's office, or state highway 140860
patrol station, premises controlled by the bureau of criminal 140861
identification and investigation, a state correctional 140862
institution, jail, workhouse, or other detention facility, an 140863
airport passenger terminal, or an institution that is maintained, 140864
operated, managed, and governed pursuant to division (A) of 140865
section 5119.025119.14 of the Revised Code or division (A)(1) of 140866
section 5123.03 of the Revised Code;140867

        (2) A school safety zone if the licensee's carrying the 140868
concealed handgun is in violation of section 2923.122 of the 140869
Revised Code;140870

       (3) A courthouse or another building or structure in which a 140871
courtroom is located, in violation of section 2923.123 of the 140872
Revised Code;140873

       (4) Any premises or open air arena for which a D permit has 140874
been issued under Chapter 4303. of the Revised Code if the 140875
licensee's carrying the concealed handgun is in violation of 140876
section 2923.121 of the Revised Code;140877

        (5) Any premises owned or leased by any public or private 140878
college, university, or other institution of higher education, 140879
unless the handgun is in a locked motor vehicle or the licensee is 140880
in the immediate process of placing the handgun in a locked motor 140881
vehicle;140882

        (6) Any church, synagogue, mosque, or other place of worship, 140883
unless the church, synagogue, mosque, or other place of worship 140884
posts or permits otherwise;140885

       (7) A child day-care center, a type A family day-care home, 140886
or a type B family day-care home, except that this division does 140887
not prohibit a licensee who resides in a type A family day-care 140888
home or a type B family day-care home from carrying a concealed 140889
handgun at any time in any part of the home that is not dedicated 140890
or used for day-care purposes, or from carrying a concealed 140891
handgun in a part of the home that is dedicated or used for 140892
day-care purposes at any time during which no children, other than 140893
children of that licensee, are in the home;140894

       (8) An aircraft that is in, or intended for operation in, 140895
foreign air transportation, interstate air transportation, 140896
intrastate air transportation, or the transportation of mail by 140897
aircraft;140898

       (9) Any building that is a government facility of this state 140899
or a political subdivision of this state and that is not a 140900
building that is used primarily as a shelter, restroom, parking 140901
facility for motor vehicles, or rest facility and is not a 140902
courthouse or other building or structure in which a courtroom is 140903
located that is subject to division (B)(3) of this section;140904

       (10) A place in which federal law prohibits the carrying of 140905
handguns.140906

       (C)(1) Nothing in this section shall negate or restrict a 140907
rule, policy, or practice of a private employer that is not a 140908
private college, university, or other institution of higher 140909
education concerning or prohibiting the presence of firearms on 140910
the private employer's premises or property, including motor 140911
vehicles owned by the private employer. Nothing in this section 140912
shall require a private employer of that nature to adopt a rule, 140913
policy, or practice concerning or prohibiting the presence of 140914
firearms on the private employer's premises or property, including 140915
motor vehicles owned by the private employer.140916

       (2)(a) A private employer shall be immune from liability in a 140917
civil action for any injury, death, or loss to person or property 140918
that allegedly was caused by or related to a licensee bringing a 140919
handgun onto the premises or property of the private employer, 140920
including motor vehicles owned by the private employer, unless the 140921
private employer acted with malicious purpose. A private employer 140922
is immune from liability in a civil action for any injury, death, 140923
or loss to person or property that allegedly was caused by or 140924
related to the private employer's decision to permit a licensee to 140925
bring, or prohibit a licensee from bringing, a handgun onto the 140926
premises or property of the private employer. As used in this 140927
division, "private employer" includes a private college, 140928
university, or other institution of higher education.140929

       (b) A political subdivision shall be immune from liability in 140930
a civil action, to the extent and in the manner provided in 140931
Chapter 2744. of the Revised Code, for any injury, death, or loss 140932
to person or property that allegedly was caused by or related to a 140933
licensee bringing a handgun onto any premises or property owned, 140934
leased, or otherwise under the control of the political 140935
subdivision. As used in this division, "political subdivision" has 140936
the same meaning as in section 2744.01 of the Revised Code.140937

       (3)(a) Except as provided in division (C)(3)(b) of this 140938
section, the owner or person in control of private land or 140939
premises, and a private person or entity leasing land or premises 140940
owned by the state, the United States, or a political subdivision 140941
of the state or the United States, may post a sign in a 140942
conspicuous location on that land or on those premises prohibiting 140943
persons from carrying firearms or concealed firearms on or onto 140944
that land or those premises. Except as otherwise provided in this 140945
division, a person who knowingly violates a posted prohibition of 140946
that nature is guilty of criminal trespass in violation of 140947
division (A)(4) of section 2911.21 of the Revised Code and is 140948
guilty of a misdemeanor of the fourth degree. If a person 140949
knowingly violates a posted prohibition of that nature and the 140950
posted land or premises primarily was a parking lot or other 140951
parking facility, the person is not guilty of criminal trespass in 140952
violation of division (A)(4) of section 2911.21 of the Revised 140953
Code and instead is subject only to a civil cause of action for 140954
trespass based on the violation.140955

       (b) A landlord may not prohibit or restrict a tenant who is a 140956
licensee and who on or after September 9, 2008, enters into a 140957
rental agreement with the landlord for the use of residential 140958
premises, and the tenant's guest while the tenant is present, from 140959
lawfully carrying or possessing a handgun on those residential 140960
premises.140961

       (c) As used in division (C)(3) of this section:140962

       (i) "Residential premises" has the same meaning as in section 140963
5321.01 of the Revised Code, except "residential premises" does 140964
not include a dwelling unit that is owned or operated by a college 140965
or university.140966

       (ii) "Landlord," "tenant," and "rental agreement" have the 140967
same meanings as in section 5321.01 of the Revised Code.140968

        (D) A person who holds a concealed handgun license issued by 140969
another state that is recognized by the attorney general pursuant 140970
to a reciprocity agreement entered into pursuant to section 109.69 140971
of the Revised Code has the same right to carry a concealed 140972
handgun in this state as a person who was issued a concealed 140973
handgun license under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code and is 140974
subject to the same restrictions that apply to a person who 140975
carries a license issued under that section.140976

       (E) A peace officer has the same right to carry a concealed 140977
handgun in this state as a person who was issued a concealed 140978
handgun license under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code. For 140979
purposes of reciprocity with other states, a peace officer shall 140980
be considered to be a licensee in this state.140981

       (F)(1) A qualified retired peace officer who possesses a 140982
retired peace officer identification card issued pursuant to 140983
division (F)(2) of this section and a valid firearms 140984
requalification certification issued pursuant to division (F)(3) 140985
of this section has the same right to carry a concealed handgun in 140986
this state as a person who was issued a concealed handgun license 140987
under section 2923.125 of the Revised Code and is subject to the 140988
same restrictions that apply to a person who carries a license 140989
issued under that section. For purposes of reciprocity with other 140990
states, a qualified retired peace officer who possesses a retired 140991
peace officer identification card issued pursuant to division 140992
(F)(2) of this section and a valid firearms requalification 140993
certification issued pursuant to division (F)(3) of this section 140994
shall be considered to be a licensee in this state.140995

        (2)(a) Each public agency of this state or of a political 140996
subdivision of this state that is served by one or more peace 140997
officers shall issue a retired peace officer identification card 140998
to any person who retired from service as a peace officer with 140999
that agency, if the issuance is in accordance with the agency's 141000
policies and procedures and if the person, with respect to the 141001
person's service with that agency, satisfies all of the following:141002

        (i) The person retired in good standing from service as a 141003
peace officer with the public agency, and the retirement was not 141004
for reasons of mental instability.141005

        (ii) Before retiring from service as a peace officer with 141006
that agency, the person was authorized to engage in or supervise 141007
the prevention, detection, investigation, or prosecution of, or 141008
the incarceration of any person for, any violation of law and the 141009
person had statutory powers of arrest.141010

        (iii) At the time of the person's retirement as a peace 141011
officer with that agency, the person was trained and qualified to 141012
carry firearms in the performance of the peace officer's duties.141013

        (iv) Before retiring from service as a peace officer with 141014
that agency, the person was regularly employed as a peace officer 141015
for an aggregate of fifteen years or more, or, in the alternative, 141016
the person retired from service as a peace officer with that 141017
agency, after completing any applicable probationary period of 141018
that service, due to a service-connected disability, as determined 141019
by the agency.141020

        (b) A retired peace officer identification card issued to a 141021
person under division (F)(2)(a) of this section shall identify the 141022
person by name, contain a photograph of the person, identify the 141023
public agency of this state or of the political subdivision of 141024
this state from which the person retired as a peace officer and 141025
that is issuing the identification card, and specify that the 141026
person retired in good standing from service as a peace officer 141027
with the issuing public agency and satisfies the criteria set 141028
forth in divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section. In 141029
addition to the required content specified in this division, a 141030
retired peace officer identification card issued to a person under 141031
division (F)(2)(a) of this section may include the firearms 141032
requalification certification described in division (F)(3) of this 141033
section, and if the identification card includes that 141034
certification, the identification card shall serve as the firearms 141035
requalification certification for the retired peace officer. If 141036
the issuing public agency issues credentials to active law 141037
enforcement officers who serve the agency, the agency may comply 141038
with division (F)(2)(a) of this section by issuing the same 141039
credentials to persons who retired from service as a peace officer 141040
with the agency and who satisfy the criteria set forth in 141041
divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section, provided that the 141042
credentials so issued to retired peace officers are stamped with 141043
the word "RETIRED."141044

        (c) A public agency of this state or of a political 141045
subdivision of this state may charge persons who retired from 141046
service as a peace officer with the agency a reasonable fee for 141047
issuing to the person a retired peace officer identification card 141048
pursuant to division (F)(2)(a) of this section.141049

        (3) If a person retired from service as a peace officer with 141050
a public agency of this state or of a political subdivision of 141051
this state and the person satisfies the criteria set forth in 141052
divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section, the public agency 141053
may provide the retired peace officer with the opportunity to 141054
attend a firearms requalification program that is approved for 141055
purposes of firearms requalification required under section 141056
109.801 of the Revised Code. The retired peace officer may be 141057
required to pay the cost of the course.141058

        If a retired peace officer who satisfies the criteria set 141059
forth in divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section attends a 141060
firearms requalification program that is approved for purposes of 141061
firearms requalification required under section 109.801 of the 141062
Revised Code, the retired peace officer's successful completion of 141063
the firearms requalification program requalifies the retired peace 141064
officer for purposes of division (F) of this section for five 141065
years from the date on which the program was successfully 141066
completed, and the requalification is valid during that five-year 141067
period. If a retired peace officer who satisfies the criteria set 141068
forth in divisions (F)(2)(a)(i) to (iv) of this section 141069
satisfactorily completes such a firearms requalification program, 141070
the retired peace officer shall be issued a firearms 141071
requalification certification that identifies the retired peace 141072
officer by name, identifies the entity that taught the program, 141073
specifies that the retired peace officer successfully completed 141074
the program, specifies the date on which the course was 141075
successfully completed, and specifies that the requalification is 141076
valid for five years from that date of successful completion. The 141077
firearms requalification certification for a retired peace officer 141078
may be included in the retired peace officer identification card 141079
issued to the retired peace officer under division (F)(2) of this 141080
section.141081

        A retired peace officer who attends a firearms 141082
requalification program that is approved for purposes of firearms 141083
requalification required under section 109.801 of the Revised Code 141084
may be required to pay the cost of the program.141085

        (G) As used in this section:141086

       (1) "Qualified retired peace officer" means a person who 141087
satisfies all of the following:141088

        (a) The person satisfies the criteria set forth in divisions 141089
(F)(2)(a)(i) to (v) of this section.141090

       (b) The person is not under the influence of alcohol or 141091
another intoxicating or hallucinatory drug or substance.141092

        (c) The person is not prohibited by federal law from 141093
receiving firearms.141094

       (2) "Retired peace officer identification card" means an 141095
identification card that is issued pursuant to division (F)(2) of 141096
this section to a person who is a retired peace officer.141097

       (3) "Government facility of this state or a political 141098
subdivision of this state" means any of the following:141099

       (a) A building or part of a building that is owned or leased 141100
by the government of this state or a political subdivision of this 141101
state and where employees of the government of this state or the 141102
political subdivision regularly are present for the purpose of 141103
performing their official duties as employees of the state or 141104
political subdivision;141105

       (b) The office of a deputy registrar serving pursuant to 141106
Chapter 4503. of the Revised Code that is used to perform deputy 141107
registrar functions.141108

       Sec. 5104.012.  (A)(1) At the times specified in this 141109
division, the administrator of a child day-care center or a type A 141110
family day-care home shall request the superintendent of the 141111
bureau of criminal identification and investigation to conduct a 141112
criminal records check with respect to any applicant who has 141113
applied to the center or type A home for employment as a person 141114
responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child. 141115

        The administrator shall request a criminal records check 141116
pursuant to this division at the time of the applicant's initial 141117
application for employment and every fourfive years thereafter. 141118
When the administrator requests pursuant to this division a 141119
criminal records check for an applicant at the time of the 141120
applicant's initial application for employment, the administrator 141121
shall request that the superintendent obtain information from the 141122
federal bureau of investigation as a part of the criminal records 141123
check for the applicant, including fingerprint-based checks of 141124
national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 141125
671, for the person subject to the criminal records check. In all 141126
other cases in which the administrator requests a criminal records 141127
check for an applicant pursuant to this division, the 141128
administrator may request that the superintendent include 141129
information from the federal bureau of investigation in the 141130
criminal records check, including fingerprint-based checks of 141131
national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 141132
671.141133

       (2) A person required by division (A)(1) of this section to 141134
request a criminal records check shall provide to each applicant a 141135
copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division (C)(1) of section 141136
109.572 of the Revised Code, provide to each applicant a standard 141137
impression sheet to obtain fingerprint impressions prescribed 141138
pursuant to division (C)(2) of section 109.572 of the Revised 141139
Code, obtain the completed form and impression sheet from each 141140
applicant, and forward the completed form and impression sheet to 141141
the superintendent of the bureau of criminal identification and 141142
investigation at the time the person requests a criminal records 141143
check pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section. On and after 141144
August 14, 2008, the administrator of a child day-care center or a 141145
type A family day-care home shall review the results of the 141146
criminal records check before the applicant has sole 141147
responsibility for the care, custody, or control of any child.141148

       (3) An applicant who receives pursuant to division (A)(2) of 141149
this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 141150
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a copy of an 141151
impression sheet prescribed pursuant to division (C)(2) of that 141152
section and who is requested to complete the form and provide a 141153
set of fingerprint impressions shall complete the form or provide 141154
all the information necessary to complete the form and shall 141155
provide the impression sheet with the impressions of the 141156
applicant's fingerprints. If an applicant, upon request, fails to 141157
provide the information necessary to complete the form or fails to 141158
provide impressions of the applicant's fingerprints, the center or 141159
type A home shall not employ that applicant for any position for 141160
which a criminal records check is required by division (A)(1) of 141161
this section.141162

       (B)(1) Except as provided in rules adopted under division (E) 141163
of this section, no child day-care center or type A family 141164
day-care home shall employ or contract with another entity for the 141165
services of a person as a person responsible for the care, 141166
custody, or control of a child if the person previously has been 141167
convicted of or pleaded guilty to any of the violations described 141168
in division (A)(5) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code.141169

       (2) A child day-care center or type A family day-care home 141170
may employ an applicant conditionally until the criminal records 141171
check required by this section is completed and the center or home 141172
receives the results of the criminal records check. If the results 141173
of the criminal records check indicate that, pursuant to division 141174
(B)(1) of this section, the applicant does not qualify for 141175
employment, the center or home shall release the applicant from 141176
employment.141177

       (C)(1) Each child day-care center and type A family day-care 141178
home shall pay to the bureau of criminal identification and 141179
investigation the fee prescribed pursuant to division (C)(3) of 141180
section 109.572 of the Revised Code for each criminal records 141181
check conducted in accordance with that section upon the request 141182
pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section of the administrator 141183
or provider of the center or home.141184

       (2) A child day-care center and type A family day-care home 141185
may charge an applicant a fee for the costs it incurs in obtaining 141186
a criminal records check under this section. A fee charged under 141187
this division shall not exceed the amount of fees the center or 141188
home pays under division (C)(1) of this section. If a fee is 141189
charged under this division, the center or home shall notify the 141190
applicant at the time of the applicant's initial application for 141191
employment of the amount of the fee and that, unless the fee is 141192
paid, the center or type A home will not consider the applicant 141193
for employment.141194

       (D) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 141195
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 141196
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 141197
under division (A)(1) of this section is not a public record for 141198
the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not 141199
be made available to any person other than the applicant who is 141200
the subject of the criminal records check or the applicant's 141201
representative; the center or type A home requesting the criminal 141202
records check or its representative; the department of job and 141203
family services or a county department of job and family services; 141204
and any court, hearing officer, or other necessary individual 141205
involved in a case dealing with the denial of employment to the 141206
applicant.141207

       (E) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 141208
pursuant to Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement this 141209
section, including rules specifying circumstances under which a 141210
center or home may hire a person who has been convicted of an 141211
offense listed in division (B)(1) of this section but who meets 141212
standards in regard to rehabilitation set by the department.141213

       (F) Any person required by division (A)(1) of this section to 141214
request a criminal records check shall inform each person, at the 141215
time of the person's initial application for employment, that the 141216
person is required to provide a set of impressions of the person's 141217
fingerprints and that a criminal records check is required to be 141218
conducted and satisfactorily completed in accordance with section 141219
109.572 of the Revised Code if the person comes under final 141220
consideration for appointment or employment as a precondition to 141221
employment for that position.141222

       (G) As used in this section:141223

       (1) "Applicant" means a person who is under final 141224
consideration for appointment to or employment in a position with 141225
a child day-care center or a type A family day-care home as a 141226
person responsible for the care, custody, or control of a child or 141227
any person who would serve in any position with a child day-care 141228
center or a type A family day-care home as a person responsible 141229
for the care, custody, or control of a child pursuant to a 141230
contract with another entity.141231

       (2) "Criminal records check" has the same meaning as in 141232
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.141233

       Sec. 5104.013.  (A)(1) At the times specified in division 141234
(A)(3) of this section, the director of job and family services, 141235
as part of the process of licensure of child day-care centers, 141236
type A family day-care homes, and licensed type B family day-care 141237
homes shall request the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 141238
identification and investigation to conduct a criminal records 141239
check with respect to the following persons:141240

       (a) Any owner, licensee, or administrator of a child day-care 141241
center;141242

       (b) Any owner, licensee, or administrator of a type A family 141243
day-care home and any person eighteen years of age or older who 141244
resides in a type A family day-care home;141245

        (c) Any administrator of a licensed type B family day-care 141246
home and any person eighteen years of age or older who resides in 141247
a licensed type B family day-care home.141248

       (2) At the time specified in division (A)(3) of this section, 141249
the director of a county department of job and family services, as 141250
part of the process of certification of in-home aides, shall 141251
request the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 141252
identification and investigation to conduct a criminal records 141253
check with respect to any in-home aide.141254

       (3) The director of job and family services shall request a 141255
criminal records check pursuant to division (A)(1) of this section 141256
at the time of the initial application for licensure and every 141257
fourfive years thereafter. The director of a county department of 141258
job and family services shall request a criminal records check 141259
pursuant to division (A)(2) of this section at the time of the 141260
initial application for certification and every fourfive years 141261
thereafter. When the director of job and family services or the 141262
director of a county department of job and family services 141263
requests pursuant to division (A)(1) or (2) of this section a 141264
criminal records check for a person at the time of the person's 141265
initial application for licensure or certification, the director 141266
shall request that the superintendent of the bureau of criminal 141267
identification and investigation obtain information from the 141268
federal bureau of investigation as a part of the criminal records 141269
check for the person, including fingerprint-based checks of 141270
national crime information databases as described in 42 U.S.C. 671 141271
for the person subject to the criminal records check. In all other 141272
cases in which the director of job and family services or the 141273
director of a county department of job and family services 141274
requests a criminal records check for an applicant pursuant to 141275
division (A)(1) or (2) of this section, the director may request 141276
that the superintendent include information from the federal 141277
bureau of investigation in the criminal records check, including 141278
fingerprint-based checks of national crime information databases 141279
as described in 42 U.S.C. 671. 141280

       (4) The director of job and family services shall review the 141281
results of a criminal records check subsequent to a request made 141282
pursuant to divisions (A)(1) and (3) of this section prior to 141283
approval of a license. The director of a county department of job 141284
and family services shall review the results of a criminal records 141285
check subsequent to a request made pursuant to divisions (A)(2) 141286
and (3) of this section prior to approval of certification.141287

       (B) The director of job and family services or the director 141288
of a county department of job and family services shall provide to 141289
each person for whom a criminal records check is required under 141290
this section a copy of the form prescribed pursuant to division 141291
(C)(1) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code and a standard 141292
impression sheet to obtain fingerprint impressions prescribed 141293
pursuant to division (C)(2) of that section, obtain the completed 141294
form and impression sheet from that person, and forward the 141295
completed form and impression sheet to the superintendent of the 141296
bureau of criminal identification and investigation.141297

       (C) A person who receives pursuant to division (B) of this 141298
section a copy of the form and standard impression sheet described 141299
in that division and who is requested to complete the form and 141300
provide a set of fingerprint impressions shall complete the form 141301
or provide all the information necessary to complete the form and 141302
shall provide the impression sheet with the impressions of the 141303
person's fingerprints. If the person, upon request, fails to 141304
provide the information necessary to complete the form or fails to 141305
provide impressions of the person's fingerprints, the director may 141306
consider the failure as a reason to deny licensure or 141307
certification.141308

       (D) Except as provided in rules adopted under division (G) of 141309
this section, the director of job and family services shall not 141310
grant a license to a child day-care center, type A family day-care 141311
home, or type B family day-care home and a county director of job 141312
and family services shall not certify an in-home aide if a person 141313
for whom a criminal records check was required in connection with 141314
the center or home previously has been convicted of or pleaded 141315
guilty to any of the violations described in division (A)(5) of 141316
section 109.572 of the Revised Code.141317

       (E) Each child day-care center, type A family day-care home, 141318
and type B family day-care home shall pay to the bureau of 141319
criminal identification and investigation the fee prescribed 141320
pursuant to division (C)(3) of section 109.572 of the Revised Code 141321
for each criminal records check conducted in accordance with that 141322
section upon a request made pursuant to division (A) of this 141323
section.141324

       (F) The report of any criminal records check conducted by the 141325
bureau of criminal identification and investigation in accordance 141326
with section 109.572 of the Revised Code and pursuant to a request 141327
made under division (A) of this section is not a public record for 141328
the purposes of section 149.43 of the Revised Code and shall not 141329
be made available to any person other than the person who is the 141330
subject of the criminal records check or the person's 141331
representative, the director of job and family services, the 141332
director of a county department of job and family services, the 141333
center, type A home, or type B home involved, and any court, 141334
hearing officer, or other necessary individual involved in a case 141335
dealing with a denial of licensure or certification related to the 141336
criminal records check.141337

       (G) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 141338
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement 141339
this section, including rules specifying exceptions to the 141340
prohibition in division (D) of this section for persons who have 141341
been convicted of an offense listed in that division but who meet 141342
standards in regard to rehabilitation set by the director.141343

       (H) As used in this section, "criminal records check" has the 141344
same meaning as in section 109.572 of the Revised Code.141345

       Sec. 5104.03.  (A) Any person, firm, organization, 141346
institution, or agency seeking to establish a child day-care 141347
center, type A family day-care home, or licensed type B family 141348
day-care home shall apply for a license to the director of job and 141349
family services on such form as the director prescribes. The 141350
director shall provide at no charge to each applicant for 141351
licensure a copy of the child care license requirements in this 141352
chapter and a copy of the rules adopted pursuant to this chapter. 141353
The copies may be provided in paper or electronic form.141354

       Fees shall be set by the director pursuant to sections 141355
5104.015, 5104.017, and 5104.018 of the Revised Code and shall be 141356
paid at the time of application for a license to operate a center, 141357
type A home, or type B home. Fees collected under this section 141358
shall be paid into the state treasury to the credit of the general 141359
revenue fund.141360

       (B)(1) Upon filing of the application for a license, the 141361
director shall investigate and inspect the center, type A home, or 141362
type B home to determine the license capacity for each age 141363
category of children of the center, type A home, or type B home 141364
and to determine whether the center, type A home, or type B home 141365
complies with this chapter and rules adopted pursuant to this 141366
chapter. When, after investigation and inspection, the director is 141367
satisfied that this chapter and rules adopted pursuant to it are 141368
complied with, subject to division (H) of this section, a license 141369
shall be issued as soon as practicable in such form and manner as 141370
prescribed by the director. The license shall be designated as 141371
provisional and shall be valid for twelve months from the date of 141372
issuance unless revoked.141373

       (2) The director may contract with a government entity or a 141374
private nonprofit entity for the entity to inspect and license 141375
type B family day-care homes pursuant to this section. The 141376
department, government entity, or nonprofit entity shall conduct 141377
the inspection prior to the issuance of a license for the type B 141378
home and, as part of that inspection, ensure that the type B home 141379
is safe and sanitary.141380

       (C)(1) On receipt of an application for licensure as a type B 141381
family day-care home to provide publicly funded child care, the 141382
department shall search the uniform statewide automated child 141383
welfare information system for information concerning any abuse or 141384
neglect report made pursuant to section 2151.421 of the Revised 141385
Code of which the applicant, any other adult residing in the 141386
applicant's home, or a person designated by the applicant to be an 141387
emergency or substitute caregiver for the applicant is the 141388
subject.141389

       (2) The department shall consider any information it 141390
discovers pursuant to division (C)(1) of this section or that is 141391
provided by a public children services agency pursuant to section 141392
5153.175 of the Revised Code. If the department determines that 141393
the information, when viewed within the totality of the 141394
circumstances, reasonably leads to the conclusion that the 141395
applicant may directly or indirectly endanger the health, safety, 141396
or welfare of children, the department shall deny the application 141397
for licensure or revoke the license of a type B family day-care 141398
home. 141399

        (D) The director shall investigate and inspect the center, 141400
type A home, or type B home at least once during operation under a 141401
license designated as provisional. If after the investigation and 141402
inspection the director determines that the requirements of this 141403
chapter and rules adopted pursuant to this chapter are met, 141404
subject to division (H) of this section, the director shall issue 141405
a new license to the center or home.141406

        (E) Each license shall state the name of the licensee, the 141407
name of the administrator, the address of the center, type A home, 141408
or licensed type B home, and the license capacity for each age 141409
category of children. The license shall include thereon, in 141410
accordance with sections 5104.015, 5104.017, and 5104.018 of the 141411
Revised Code, the toll-free telephone number to be used by persons 141412
suspecting that the center, type A home, or licensed type B home 141413
has violated a provision of this chapter or rules adopted pursuant 141414
to this chapter. A license is valid only for the licensee, 141415
administrator, address, and license capacity for each age category 141416
of children designated on the license. The license capacity 141417
specified on the license is the maximum number of children in each 141418
age category that may be cared for in the center, type A home, or 141419
licensed type B home at one time.141420

       The center or type A home licensee shall notify the director 141421
when the administrator of the center or home changes. The director 141422
shall amend the current license to reflect a change in an 141423
administrator, if the administrator meets the requirements of this 141424
chapter and rules adopted pursuant to this chapter, or a change in 141425
license capacity for any age category of children as determined by 141426
the director of job and family services.141427

       (F) If the director revokes the license of a center, a type A 141428
home, or a type B home, the director shall not issue another 141429
license to the owner of the center, type A home, or type B home 141430
until five years have elapsed from the date the license is 141431
revoked. 141432

        If the director denies an application for a license, the 141433
director shall not accept another application from the applicant 141434
until five years have elapsed from the date the application is 141435
denied.141436

       (G) If during the application for licensure process the 141437
director determines that the license of the owner has been 141438
revoked, the investigation of the center, type A home, or type B 141439
home shall cease. This action does not constitute denial of the 141440
application and may not be appealed under division (H) of this 141441
section. 141442

       (H) All actions of the director with respect to licensing 141443
centers, type A homes, or type B homes, refusal to license, and 141444
revocation of a license shall be in accordance with Chapter 119. 141445
of the Revised Code. Any applicant who is denied a license or any 141446
owner whose license is revoked may appeal in accordance with 141447
section 119.12 of the Revised Code.141448

       (I) In no case shall the director issue a license under this 141449
section for a center, type A home, or type B home if the director, 141450
based on documentation provided by the appropriate county 141451
department of job and family services, determines that the 141452
applicant had been certified as a type B family day-care home when 141453
such certifications were issued by county departments prior to the 141454
effective date of this amendmentJanuary 1, 2014, that the county 141455
department revoked that certification within the immediately 141456
preceding five years, that the revocation was based on the 141457
applicant's refusal or inability to comply with the criteria for 141458
certification, and that the refusal or inability resulted in a 141459
risk to the health or safety of children.141460

       (J)(1) Except as provided in division (J)(2) of this section, 141461
an administrator of a type B family day-care home that receives a 141462
license pursuant to this section to provide publicly funded child 141463
care is an independent contractor and is not an employee of the 141464
department of job and family services.141465

       (2) For purposes of Chapter 4141. of the Revised Code, 141466
determinations concerning the employment of an administrator of a 141467
type B family day-care home that receives a license pursuant to 141468
this section shall be determined under Chapter 4141. of the 141469
Revised Code.141470

       Sec. 5104.08. (A) There is hereby created in the department 141471
of job and family services a child care advisory council to advise 141472
and assist the department in the administration of this chapter 141473
and in the development of child care. The council shall consist of 141474
twenty-two voting members appointed by the director of job and 141475
family services with the approval of the governor. The director of 141476
job and family services, the director of developmental 141477
disabilities, the director of mental healthmental health and 141478
addiction services, the superintendent of public instruction, the 141479
director of health, the director of commerce, and the state fire 141480
marshal shall serve as nonvoting members of the council.141481

       Six members shall be representatives of child care centers 141482
subject to licensing, the members to represent a variety of 141483
centers, including nonprofit and proprietary, from different 141484
geographical areas of the state. At least three members shall be 141485
parents, guardians, or custodians of children receiving child care 141486
or publicly funded child care in the child's own home, a center, a 141487
type A home, a head start program, a licensed type B home, or a 141488
type B home at the time of appointment. Three members shall be 141489
representatives of in-home aides, type A homes, licensed type B 141490
homes, or type B homes or head start programs. At least six 141491
members shall represent county departments of job and family 141492
services. The remaining members shall be representatives of the 141493
teaching, child development, and health professions, and other 141494
individuals interested in the welfare of children. At least six 141495
members of the council shall not be employees or licensees of a 141496
child day-care center, head start program, or type A home, or 141497
providers operating a licensed type B home or type B home, or 141498
in-home aides.141499

        Appointments shall be for three-year terms. Vacancies shall 141500
be filled for the unexpired terms. A member of the council is 141501
subject to removal by the director of job and family services for 141502
a willful and flagrant exercise of authority or power that is not 141503
authorized by law, for a refusal or willful neglect to perform any 141504
official duty as a member of the council imposed by law, or for 141505
being guilty of misfeasance, malfeasance, nonfeasance, or gross 141506
neglect of duty as a member of the council.141507

       There shall be two co-chairpersons of the council. One 141508
co-chairperson shall be the director of job and family services or 141509
the director's designee, and one co-chairperson shall be elected 141510
by the members of the council. The council shall meet as often as 141511
is necessary to perform its duties, provided that it shall meet at 141512
least once in each quarter of each calendar year and at the call 141513
of the co-chairpersons. The co-chairpersons or their designee 141514
shall send to each member a written notice of the date, time, and 141515
place of each meeting.141516

       Members of the council shall serve without compensation, but 141517
shall be reimbursed for necessary expenses.141518

       (B) The child care advisory council shall advise the director 141519
on matters affecting the licensing of centers, type A homes, and 141520
type B homes and the certification of in-home aides. The council 141521
shall make an annual report to the director of job and family 141522
services that addresses the availability, affordability, 141523
accessibility, and quality of child care and that summarizes the 141524
recommendations and plans of action that the council has proposed 141525
to the director during the preceding fiscal year. The director of 141526
job and family services shall provide copies of the report to the 141527
governor, speaker and minority leader of the house of 141528
representatives, and the president and minority leader of the 141529
senate and, on request, shall make copies available to the public.141530

       (C) The director of job and family services shall adopt rules 141531
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to implement 141532
this section.141533

       Sec. 5104.32.  (A) Except as provided in division (C) of this 141534
section, all purchases of publicly funded child care shall be made 141535
under a contract entered into by a licensed child day-care center, 141536
licensed type A family day-care home, licensed type B family 141537
day-care home, certified in-home aide, approved child day camp, 141538
licensed preschool program, licensed school child program, or 141539
border state child care provider and the department of job and 141540
family services. All contracts for publicly funded child care 141541
shall be contingent upon the availability of state and federal 141542
funds. The department shall prescribe a standard form to be used 141543
for all contracts for the purchase of publicly funded child care, 141544
regardless of the source of public funds used to purchase the 141545
child care. To the extent permitted by federal law and 141546
notwithstanding any other provision of the Revised Code that 141547
regulates state contracts or contracts involving the expenditure 141548
of state or federal funds, all contracts for publicly funded child 141549
care shall be entered into in accordance with the provisions of 141550
this chapter and are exempt from any other provision of the 141551
Revised Code that regulates state contracts or contracts involving 141552
the expenditure of state or federal funds.141553

       (B) Each contract for publicly funded child care shall 141554
specify at least the following:141555

       (1) That the provider of publicly funded child care agrees to 141556
be paid for rendering services at the lower of the rate 141557
customarily charged by the provider for children enrolled for 141558
child care or the reimbursement ceiling or rate of payment 141559
established pursuant to section 5104.30 of the Revised Code;141560

       (2) That, if a provider provides child care to an individual 141561
potentially eligible for publicly funded child care who is 141562
subsequently determined to be eligible, the department agrees to 141563
pay for all child care provided between the date the county 141564
department of job and family services receives the individual's 141565
completed application and the date the individual's eligibility is 141566
determined;141567

       (3) Whether the county department of job and family services, 141568
the provider, or a child care resource and referral service 141569
organization will make eligibility determinations, whether the 141570
provider or a child care resource and referral service 141571
organization will be required to collect information to be used by 141572
the county department to make eligibility determinations, and the 141573
time period within which the provider or child care resource and 141574
referral service organization is required to complete required 141575
eligibility determinations or to transmit to the county department 141576
any information collected for the purpose of making eligibility 141577
determinations;141578

       (4) That the provider, other than a border state child care 141579
provider, shall continue to be licensed, approved, or certified 141580
pursuant to this chapter and shall comply with all standards and 141581
other requirements in this chapter and in rules adopted pursuant 141582
to this chapter for maintaining the provider's license, approval, 141583
or certification;141584

       (5) That, in the case of a border state child care provider, 141585
the provider shall continue to be licensed, certified, or 141586
otherwise approved by the state in which the provider is located 141587
and shall comply with all standards and other requirements 141588
established by that state for maintaining the provider's license, 141589
certificate, or other approval;141590

       (6) Whether the provider will be paid by the state department 141591
of job and family services or in some other manner as prescribed 141592
by rules adopted under section 5104.42 of the Revised Code;141593

       (7) That the contract is subject to the availability of state 141594
and federal funds.141595

       (C) Unless specifically prohibited by federal law or by rules 141596
adopted under section 5104.42 of the Revised Code, the county 141597
department of job and family services shall give individuals 141598
eligible for publicly funded child care the option of obtaining 141599
certificates that the individual may use to purchase services from 141600
any provider qualified to provide publicly funded child care under 141601
section 5104.31 of the Revised Code. Providers of publicly funded 141602
child care may present these certificates for payment in 141603
accordance with rules that the director of job and family services 141604
shall adopt. Only providers may receive payment for certificates. 141605
The value of the certificate shall be based on the lower of the 141606
rate customarily charged by the provider or the rate of payment 141607
established pursuant to section 5104.30 of the Revised Code. The 141608
county department may provide the certificates to the individuals 141609
or may contract with child care providers or child care resource 141610
and referral service organizations that make determinations of 141611
eligibility for publicly funded child care pursuant to contracts 141612
entered into under section 5104.34 of the Revised Code for the 141613
providers or resource and referral service organizations to 141614
provide the certificates to individuals whom they determine are 141615
eligible for publicly funded child care.141616

       For each six-month period a provider of publicly funded child 141617
care provides publicly funded child care to the child of an 141618
individual given certificates, the individual shall provide the 141619
provider certificates for days the provider would have provided 141620
publicly funded child care to the child had the child been 141621
present. The maximum number of days providers shall be provided 141622
certificates shall not exceed ten days in a six-month period 141623
during which publicly funded child care is provided to the child 141624
regardless of the number of providers that provide publicly funded 141625
child care to the child during that period.141626

       (D)(1) The department shall establish the Ohio electronic 141627
child care system to track attendance and calculate payments for 141628
publicly funded child care. The system shall include issuing an 141629
electronic child care card to each caretaker parent to swipe 141630
through a point of service device issued to an eligible provider, 141631
as described in section 5104.31 of the Revised Code.141632

        (2) Each eligible provider that provides publicly funded 141633
child care shall participate in the Ohio electronic child care 141634
system. A provider participating in the system shall not do any of 141635
the following:141636

        (a) Use or have possession of an electronic child care card 141637
issued to a caretaker parent;141638

        (b) Falsify attendance records;141639

        (c) Knowingly seek payment for publicly funded child care 141640
that was not provided;141641

        (d) Knowingly accept reimbursement for publicly funded child 141642
care that was not provided.141643

       Section 110.21.  That the existing versions of sections 141644
109.57, 2151.011, 2923.126, 5104.012, 5104.013, 5104.03, 5104.08, 141645
and 5104.32 of the Revised Code that are scheduled to take effect 141646
January 1, 2014, are hereby repealed.141647

       Section 110.22. Sections 110.20 and 110.21 of this act shall 141648
take effect January 1, 2014, except that the amendments by 141649
Sections 110.20 and 110.21 of this act to divisions (B)(49) and 141650
(50) of section 2151.011 of the Revised Code shall take effect 141651
July 1, 2014.141652

       Section 110.30.  That the versions of sections 4501.01, 141653
4507.01, and 4507.06 of the Revised Code that are scheduled to 141654
take effect January 1, 2017, be amended to read as follows:141655

       Sec. 4501.01.  As used in this chapter and Chapters 4503., 141656
4505., 4507., 4509., 4510., 4511., 4513., 4515., and 4517. of the 141657
Revised Code, and in the penal laws, except as otherwise provided:141658

       (A) "Vehicles" means everything on wheels or runners, 141659
including motorized bicycles, but does not mean electric personal 141660
assistive mobility devices, vehicles that are operated exclusively 141661
on rails or tracks or from overhead electric trolley wires, and 141662
vehicles that belong to any police department, municipal fire 141663
department, or volunteer fire department, or that are used by such 141664
a department in the discharge of its functions.141665

       (B) "Motor vehicle" means any vehicle, including mobile homes 141666
and recreational vehicles, that is propelled or drawn by power 141667
other than muscular power or power collected from overhead 141668
electric trolley wires. "Motor vehicle" does not include utility 141669
vehicles as defined in division (VV) of this section, under-speed 141670
vehicles as defined in division (XX) of this section, mini-trucks 141671
as defined in division (BBB) of this section, motorized bicycles, 141672
road rollers, traction engines, power shovels, power cranes, and 141673
other equipment used in construction work and not designed for or 141674
employed in general highway transportation, well-drilling 141675
machinery, ditch-digging machinery, farm machinery, and trailers 141676
that are designed and used exclusively to transport a boat between 141677
a place of storage and a marina, or in and around a marina, when 141678
drawn or towed on a public road or highway for a distance of no 141679
more than ten miles and at a speed of twenty-five miles per hour 141680
or less.141681

       (C) "Agricultural tractor" and "traction engine" mean any 141682
self-propelling vehicle that is designed or used for drawing other 141683
vehicles or wheeled machinery, but has no provisions for carrying 141684
loads independently of such other vehicles, and that is used 141685
principally for agricultural purposes.141686

       (D) "Commercial tractor," except as defined in division (C) 141687
of this section, means any motor vehicle that has motive power and 141688
either is designed or used for drawing other motor vehicles, or is 141689
designed or used for drawing another motor vehicle while carrying 141690
a portion of the other motor vehicle or its load, or both.141691

       (E) "Passenger car" means any motor vehicle that is designed 141692
and used for carrying not more than nine persons and includes any 141693
motor vehicle that is designed and used for carrying not more than 141694
fifteen persons in a ridesharing arrangement.141695

       (F) "Collector's vehicle" means any motor vehicle or 141696
agricultural tractor or traction engine that is of special 141697
interest, that has a fair market value of one hundred dollars or 141698
more, whether operable or not, and that is owned, operated, 141699
collected, preserved, restored, maintained, or used essentially as 141700
a collector's item, leisure pursuit, or investment, but not as the 141701
owner's principal means of transportation. "Licensed collector's 141702
vehicle" means a collector's vehicle, other than an agricultural 141703
tractor or traction engine, that displays current, valid license 141704
tags issued under section 4503.45 of the Revised Code, or a 141705
similar type of motor vehicle that displays current, valid license 141706
tags issued under substantially equivalent provisions in the laws 141707
of other states.141708

       (G) "Historical motor vehicle" means any motor vehicle that 141709
is over twenty-five years old and is owned solely as a collector's 141710
item and for participation in club activities, exhibitions, tours, 141711
parades, and similar uses, but that in no event is used for 141712
general transportation.141713

       (H) "Noncommercial motor vehicle" means any motor vehicle, 141714
including a farm truck as defined in section 4503.04 of the 141715
Revised Code, that is designed by the manufacturer to carry a load 141716
of no more than one ton and is used exclusively for purposes other 141717
than engaging in business for profit.141718

       (I) "Bus" means any motor vehicle that has motor power and is 141719
designed and used for carrying more than nine passengers, except 141720
any motor vehicle that is designed and used for carrying not more 141721
than fifteen passengers in a ridesharing arrangement.141722

       (J) "Commercial car" or "truck" means any motor vehicle that 141723
has motor power and is designed and used for carrying merchandise 141724
or freight, or that is used as a commercial tractor.141725

       (K) "Bicycle" means every device, other than a device that is 141726
designed solely for use as a play vehicle by a child, that is 141727
propelled solely by human power upon which a person may ride, and 141728
that has two or more wheels, any of which is more than fourteen 141729
inches in diameter.141730

       (L) "Motorized bicycle" or "moped" means any vehicle that 141731
either has two tandem wheels or one wheel in the front and two 141732
wheels in the rear, that may be pedaled, and that is equipped with 141733
a helper motor of not more than fifty cubic centimeters piston 141734
displacement that produces no more than one brake horsepower and 141735
is capable of propelling the vehicle at a speed of no greater than 141736
twenty miles per hour on a level surface.141737

       (M) "Trailer" means any vehicle without motive power that is 141738
designed or used for carrying property or persons wholly on its 141739
own structure and for being drawn by a motor vehicle, and includes 141740
any such vehicle that is formed by or operated as a combination of 141741
a semitrailer and a vehicle of the dolly type such as that 141742
commonly known as a trailer dolly, a vehicle used to transport 141743
agricultural produce or agricultural production materials between 141744
a local place of storage or supply and the farm when drawn or 141745
towed on a public road or highway at a speed greater than 141746
twenty-five miles per hour, and a vehicle that is designed and 141747
used exclusively to transport a boat between a place of storage 141748
and a marina, or in and around a marina, when drawn or towed on a 141749
public road or highway for a distance of more than ten miles or at 141750
a speed of more than twenty-five miles per hour. "Trailer" does 141751
not include a manufactured home or travel trailer.141752

       (N) "Noncommercial trailer" means any trailer, except a 141753
travel trailer or trailer that is used to transport a boat as 141754
described in division (B) of this section, but, where applicable, 141755
includes a vehicle that is used to transport a boat as described 141756
in division (M) of this section, that has a gross weight of no 141757
more than ten thousand pounds, and that is used exclusively for 141758
purposes other than engaging in business for a profit, such as the 141759
transportation of personal items for personal or recreational 141760
purposes.141761

       (O) "Mobile home" means a building unit or assembly of closed 141762
construction that is fabricated in an off-site facility, is more 141763
than thirty-five body feet in length or, when erected on site, is 141764
three hundred twenty or more square feet, is built on a permanent 141765
chassis, is transportable in one or more sections, and does not 141766
qualify as a manufactured home as defined in division (C)(4) of 141767
section 3781.06 of the Revised Code or as an industrialized unit 141768
as defined in division (C)(3) of section 3781.06 of the Revised 141769
Code.141770

       (P) "Semitrailer" means any vehicle of the trailer type that 141771
does not have motive power and is so designed or used with another 141772
and separate motor vehicle that in operation a part of its own 141773
weight or that of its load, or both, rests upon and is carried by 141774
the other vehicle furnishing the motive power for propelling 141775
itself and the vehicle referred to in this division, and includes, 141776
for the purpose only of registration and taxation under those 141777
chapters, any vehicle of the dolly type, such as a trailer dolly, 141778
that is designed or used for the conversion of a semitrailer into 141779
a trailer.141780

       (Q) "Recreational vehicle" means a vehicular portable 141781
structure that meets all of the following conditions:141782

       (1) It is designed for the sole purpose of recreational 141783
travel.141784

       (2) It is not used for the purpose of engaging in business 141785
for profit.141786

       (3) It is not used for the purpose of engaging in intrastate 141787
commerce.141788

       (4) It is not used for the purpose of commerce as defined in 141789
49 C.F.R. 383.5, as amended.141790

       (5) It is not regulated by the public utilities commission 141791
pursuant to Chapter 4905., 4921., or 4923. of the Revised Code.141792

       (6) It is classed as one of the following:141793

       (a) "Travel trailer" or "house vehicle" means a 141794
nonself-propelled recreational vehicle that does not exceed an 141795
overall length of forty feet, exclusive of bumper and tongue or 141796
coupling. "Travel trailer" includes a tent-type fold-out camping 141797
trailer as defined in section 4517.01 of the Revised Code.141798

       (b) "Motor home" means a self-propelled recreational vehicle 141799
that has no fifth wheel and is constructed with permanently 141800
installed facilities for cold storage, cooking and consuming of 141801
food, and for sleeping.141802

       (c) "Truck camper" means a nonself-propelled recreational 141803
vehicle that does not have wheels for road use and is designed to 141804
be placed upon and attached to a motor vehicle. "Truck camper" 141805
does not include truck covers that consist of walls and a roof, 141806
but do not have floors and facilities enabling them to be used as 141807
a dwelling.141808

       (d) "Fifth wheel trailer" means a vehicle that is of such 141809
size and weight as to be movable without a special highway permit, 141810
that is constructed with a raised forward section that allows a 141811
bi-level floor plan, and that is designed to be towed by a vehicle 141812
equipped with a fifth-wheel hitch ordinarily installed in the bed 141813
of a truck.141814

       (e) "Park trailer" means a vehicle that is commonly known as 141815
a park model recreational vehicle, meets the American national 141816
standard institute standard A119.5 (1988) for park trailers, is 141817
built on a single chassis, has a gross trailer area of four 141818
hundred square feet or less when set up, is designed for seasonal 141819
or temporary living quarters, and may be connected to utilities 141820
necessary for the operation of installed features and appliances.141821

       (R) "Pneumatic tires" means tires of rubber and fabric or 141822
tires of similar material, that are inflated with air.141823

       (S) "Solid tires" means tires of rubber or similar elastic 141824
material that are not dependent upon confined air for support of 141825
the load.141826

       (T) "Solid tire vehicle" means any vehicle that is equipped 141827
with two or more solid tires.141828

       (U) "Farm machinery" means all machines and tools that are 141829
used in the production, harvesting, and care of farm products, and 141830
includes trailers that are used to transport agricultural produce 141831
or agricultural production materials between a local place of 141832
storage or supply and the farm, agricultural tractors, threshing 141833
machinery, hay-baling machinery, corn shellers, hammermills, and 141834
machinery used in the production of horticultural, agricultural, 141835
and vegetable products.141836

       (V) "Owner" includes any person or firm, other than a 141837
manufacturer or dealer, that has title to a motor vehicle, except 141838
that, in sections 4505.01 to 4505.19 of the Revised Code, "owner" 141839
includes in addition manufacturers and dealers.141840

       (W) "Manufacturer" and "dealer" include all persons and firms 141841
that are regularly engaged in the business of manufacturing, 141842
selling, displaying, offering for sale, or dealing in motor 141843
vehicles, at an established place of business that is used 141844
exclusively for the purpose of manufacturing, selling, displaying, 141845
offering for sale, or dealing in motor vehicles. A place of 141846
business that is used for manufacturing, selling, displaying, 141847
offering for sale, or dealing in motor vehicles shall be deemed to 141848
be used exclusively for those purposes even though snowmobiles or 141849
all-purpose vehicles are sold or displayed for sale thereat, even 141850
though farm machinery is sold or displayed for sale thereat, or 141851
even though repair, accessory, gasoline and oil, storage, parts, 141852
service, or paint departments are maintained thereat, or, in any 141853
county having a population of less than seventy-five thousand at 141854
the last federal census, even though a department in a place of 141855
business is used to dismantle, salvage, or rebuild motor vehicles 141856
by means of used parts, if such departments are operated for the 141857
purpose of furthering and assisting in the business of 141858
manufacturing, selling, displaying, offering for sale, or dealing 141859
in motor vehicles. Places of business or departments in a place of 141860
business used to dismantle, salvage, or rebuild motor vehicles by 141861
means of using used parts are not considered as being maintained 141862
for the purpose of assisting or furthering the manufacturing, 141863
selling, displaying, and offering for sale or dealing in motor 141864
vehicles.141865

       (X) "Operator" includes any person who drives or operates a 141866
motor vehicle upon the public highways.141867

       (Y) "Chauffeur" means any operator who operates a motor 141868
vehicle, other than a taxicab, as an employee for hire; or any 141869
operator whether or not the owner of a motor vehicle, other than a 141870
taxicab, who operates such vehicle for transporting, for gain, 141871
compensation, or profit, either persons or property owned by 141872
another. Any operator of a motor vehicle who is voluntarily 141873
involved in a ridesharing arrangement is not considered an 141874
employee for hire or operating such vehicle for gain, 141875
compensation, or profit.141876

       (Z) "State" includes the territories and federal districts of 141877
the United States, and the provinces of Canada.141878

       (AA) "Public roads and highways" for vehicles includes all 141879
public thoroughfares, bridges, and culverts.141880

       (BB) "Manufacturer's number" means the manufacturer's 141881
original serial number that is affixed to or imprinted upon the 141882
chassis or other part of the motor vehicle.141883

       (CC) "Motor number" means the manufacturer's original number 141884
that is affixed to or imprinted upon the engine or motor of the 141885
vehicle.141886

       (DD) "Distributor" means any person who is authorized by a 141887
motor vehicle manufacturer to distribute new motor vehicles to 141888
licensed motor vehicle dealers at an established place of business 141889
that is used exclusively for the purpose of distributing new motor 141890
vehicles to licensed motor vehicle dealers, except when the 141891
distributor also is a new motor vehicle dealer, in which case the 141892
distributor may distribute at the location of the distributor's 141893
licensed dealership.141894

       (EE) "Ridesharing arrangement" means the transportation of 141895
persons in a motor vehicle where the transportation is incidental 141896
to another purpose of a volunteer driver and includes ridesharing 141897
arrangements known as carpools, vanpools, and buspools.141898

       (FF) "Apportionable vehicle" means any vehicle that is used 141899
or intended for use in two or more international registration plan 141900
member jurisdictions that allocate or proportionally register 141901
vehicles, that is used for the transportation of persons for hire 141902
or designed, used, or maintained primarily for the transportation 141903
of property, and that meets any of the following qualifications:141904

       (1) Is a power unit having a gross vehicle weight in excess 141905
of twenty-six thousand pounds;141906

       (2) Is a power unit having three or more axles, regardless of 141907
the gross vehicle weight;141908

       (3) Is a combination vehicle with a gross vehicle weight in 141909
excess of twenty-six thousand pounds.141910

       "Apportionable vehicle" does not include recreational 141911
vehicles, vehicles displaying restricted plates, city pick-up and 141912
delivery vehicles, buses used for the transportation of chartered 141913
parties, or vehicles owned and operated by the United States, this 141914
state, or any political subdivisions thereof.141915

       (GG) "Chartered party" means a group of persons who contract 141916
as a group to acquire the exclusive use of a passenger-carrying 141917
motor vehicle at a fixed charge for the vehicle in accordance with 141918
the carrier's tariff, lawfully on file with the United States 141919
department of transportation, for the purpose of group travel to a 141920
specified destination or for a particular itinerary, either agreed 141921
upon in advance or modified by the chartered group after having 141922
left the place of origin.141923

       (HH) "International registration plan" means a reciprocal 141924
agreement of member jurisdictions that is endorsed by the American 141925
association of motor vehicle administrators, and that promotes and 141926
encourages the fullest possible use of the highway system by 141927
authorizing apportioned registration of fleets of vehicles and 141928
recognizing registration of vehicles apportioned in member 141929
jurisdictions.141930

       (II) "Restricted plate" means a license plate that has a 141931
restriction of time, geographic area, mileage, or commodity, and 141932
includes license plates issued to farm trucks under division (J) 141933
of section 4503.04 of the Revised Code.141934

       (JJ) "Gross vehicle weight," with regard to any commercial 141935
car, trailer, semitrailer, or bus that is taxed at the rates 141936
established under section 4503.042 or 4503.65 of the Revised Code, 141937
means the unladen weight of the vehicle fully equipped plus the 141938
maximum weight of the load to be carried on the vehicle.141939

       (KK) "Combined gross vehicle weight" with regard to any 141940
combination of a commercial car, trailer, and semitrailer, that is 141941
taxed at the rates established under section 4503.042 or 4503.65 141942
of the Revised Code, means the total unladen weight of the 141943
combination of vehicles fully equipped plus the maximum weight of 141944
the load to be carried on that combination of vehicles.141945

       (LL) "Chauffeured limousine" means a motor vehicle that is 141946
designed to carry nine or fewer passengers and is operated for 141947
hire on an hourly basis pursuant to a prearranged contract for the 141948
transportation of passengers on public roads and highways along a 141949
route under the control of the person hiring the vehicle and not 141950
over a defined and regular route. "Prearranged contract" means an 141951
agreement, made in advance of boarding, to provide transportation 141952
from a specific location in a chauffeured limousine at a fixed 141953
rate per hour or trip. "Chauffeured limousine" does not include 141954
any vehicle that is used exclusively in the business of funeral 141955
directing.141956

       (MM) "Manufactured home" has the same meaning as in division 141957
(C)(4) of section 3781.06 of the Revised Code.141958

       (NN) "Acquired situs," with respect to a manufactured home or 141959
a mobile home, means to become located in this state by the 141960
placement of the home on real property, but does not include the 141961
placement of a manufactured home or a mobile home in the inventory 141962
of a new motor vehicle dealer or the inventory of a manufacturer, 141963
remanufacturer, or distributor of manufactured or mobile homes.141964

       (OO) "Electronic" includes electrical, digital, magnetic, 141965
optical, electromagnetic, or any other form of technology that 141966
entails capabilities similar to these technologies.141967

       (PP) "Electronic record" means a record generated, 141968
communicated, received, or stored by electronic means for use in 141969
an information system or for transmission from one information 141970
system to another.141971

       (QQ) "Electronic signature" means a signature in electronic 141972
form attached to or logically associated with an electronic 141973
record.141974

       (RR) "Financial transaction device" has the same meaning as 141975
in division (A) of section 113.40 of the Revised Code.141976

       (SS) "Electronic motor vehicle dealer" means a motor vehicle 141977
dealer licensed under Chapter 4517. of the Revised Code whom the 141978
registrar of motor vehicles determines meets the criteria 141979
designated in section 4503.035 of the Revised Code for electronic 141980
motor vehicle dealers and designates as an electronic motor 141981
vehicle dealer under that section.141982

       (TT) "Electric personal assistive mobility device" means a 141983
self-balancing two non-tandem wheeled device that is designed to 141984
transport only one person, has an electric propulsion system of an 141985
average of seven hundred fifty watts, and when ridden on a paved 141986
level surface by an operator who weighs one hundred seventy pounds 141987
has a maximum speed of less than twenty miles per hour.141988

       (UU) "Limited driving privileges" means the privilege to 141989
operate a motor vehicle that a court grants under section 4510.021 141990
of the Revised Code to a person whose driver's or commercial 141991
driver's license or permit or nonresident operating privilege has 141992
been suspended.141993

       (VV) "Utility vehicle" means a self-propelled vehicle 141994
designed with a bed, principally for the purpose of transporting 141995
material or cargo in connection with construction, agricultural, 141996
forestry, grounds maintenance, lawn and garden, materials 141997
handling, or similar activities. 141998

       (WW) "Low-speed vehicle" means a three- or four-wheeled motor 141999
vehicle with an attainable speed in one mile on a paved level 142000
surface of more than twenty miles per hour but not more than 142001
twenty-five miles per hour and with a gross vehicle weight rating 142002
less than three thousand pounds.142003

       (XX) "Under-speed vehicle" means a three- or four-wheeled 142004
vehicle, including a vehicle commonly known as a golf cart, with 142005
an attainable speed on a paved level surface of not more than 142006
twenty miles per hour and with a gross vehicle weight rating less 142007
than three thousand pounds.142008

       (YY) "Motor-driven cycle or motor scooter" means any vehicle 142009
designed to travel on not more than three wheels in contact with 142010
the ground, with a seat for the driver and floor pad for the 142011
driver's feet, and is equipped with a motor with a piston 142012
displacement between fifty and one hundred fifty cubic centimeters 142013
piston displacement that produces not more than five brake 142014
horsepower and is capable of propelling the vehicle at a speed 142015
greater than twenty miles per hour on a level surface.142016

       (ZZ) "Motorcycle" means a motor vehicle with motive power 142017
having a seat or saddle for the use of the operator, designed to 142018
travel on not more than three wheels in contact with the ground, 142019
and having no occupant compartment top or occupant compartment top 142020
that can be installed or removed by the user.142021

       (AAA) "Cab-enclosed motorcycle" means a motor vehicle with 142022
motive power having a seat or saddle for the use of the operator, 142023
designed to travel on not more than three wheels in contact with 142024
the ground, and having an occupant compartment top or an occupant 142025
compartment top that can be installed or removed by the user.142026

       (BBB) "Mini-truck" means a vehicle that has four wheels, is 142027
propelled by an electric motor with a rated power of seven 142028
thousand five hundred watts or less or an internal combustion 142029
engine with a piston displacement capacity of six hundred sixty 142030
cubic centimeters or less, has a total dry weight of nine hundred 142031
to two thousand two hundred pounds, contains an enclosed cabin and 142032
a seat for the vehicle operator, resembles a pickup truck or van 142033
with a cargo area or bed located at the rear of the vehicle, and 142034
was not originally manufactured to meet federal motor vehicle 142035
safety standards.142036

       "       Sec. 4507.01.  (A) As used in this chapter, "motor vehicle," 142037
"motorized bicycle," "state," "owner," "operator," "chauffeur," 142038
and "highways" have the same meanings as in section 4501.01 of the 142039
Revised Code.142040

       "Driver's license" means a class D license issued to any 142041
person to operate a motor vehicle or motor-driven cycle, other 142042
than a commercial motor vehicle, and includes "probationary 142043
license," "restricted license," and any operator's or chauffeur's 142044
license issued before January 1, 1990.142045

       "Probationary license" means the license issued to any person 142046
between sixteen and eighteen years of age to operate a motor 142047
vehicle.142048

       "Restricted license" means the license issued to any person 142049
to operate a motor vehicle subject to conditions or restrictions 142050
imposed by the registrar of motor vehicles.142051

       "Commercial driver's license" means the license issued to a 142052
person under Chapter 4506. of the Revised Code to operate a 142053
commercial motor vehicle.142054

       "Commercial motor vehicle" has the same meaning as in section 142055
4506.01 of the Revised Code.142056

       "Motorcycle operator's temporary instruction permit, license, 142057
or endorsement" includes a temporary instruction permit, license, 142058
or endorsement for a motor-driven cycle or motor scooter unless 142059
otherwise specified.142060

       "Motorized bicycle license" means the license issued under 142061
section 4511.521 of the Revised Code to any person to operate a 142062
motorized bicycle including a "probationary motorized bicycle 142063
license."142064

       "Probationary motorized bicycle license" means the license 142065
issued under section 4511.521 of the Revised Code to any person 142066
between fourteen and sixteen years of age to operate a motorized 142067
bicycle.142068

       "Identification card" means a card issued under sections 142069
4507.50 and 4507.51 of the Revised Code.142070

       "Resident" means a person who, in accordance with standards 142071
prescribed in rules adopted by the registrar, resides in this 142072
state on a permanent basis.142073

       "Temporary resident" means a person who, in accordance with 142074
standards prescribed in rules adopted by the registrar, resides in 142075
this state on a temporary basis.142076

       (B) In the administration of this chapter and Chapter 4506. 142077
of the Revised Code, the registrar has the same authority as is 142078
conferred on the registrar by section 4501.02 of the Revised Code. 142079
Any act of an authorized deputy registrar of motor vehicles under 142080
direction of the registrar is deemed the act of the registrar.142081

       To carry out this chapter, the registrar shall appoint such 142082
deputy registrars in each county as are necessary.142083

       The registrar also shall provide at each place where an 142084
application for a driver's or commercial driver's license or 142085
identification card may be made the necessary equipment to take a 142086
color photograph of the applicant for such license or card as 142087
required under section 4506.11 or 4507.06 of the Revised Code, and 142088
to conduct the vision screenings required by section 4507.12 of 142089
the Revised Code, and equipment to laminate licenses, motorized 142090
bicycle licenses, and identification cards as required by sections 142091
4507.13, 4507.52, and 4511.521 of the Revised Code.142092

       The registrar shall assign one or more deputy registrars to 142093
any driver's license examining station operated under the 142094
supervision of the director of public safety, whenever the 142095
registrar considers such assignment possible. Space shall be 142096
provided in the driver's license examining station for any such 142097
deputy registrar so assigned. The deputy registrars shall not 142098
exercise the powers conferred by such sections upon the registrar, 142099
unless they are specifically authorized to exercise such powers by 142100
such sections.142101

       (C) No agent for any insurance company, writing automobile 142102
insurance, shall be appointed deputy registrar, and any such 142103
appointment is void. No deputy registrar shall in any manner 142104
solicit any form of automobile insurance, nor in any manner 142105
advise, suggest, or influence any licensee or applicant for 142106
license for or against any kind or type of automobile insurance, 142107
insurance company, or agent, nor have the deputy registrar's 142108
office directly connected with the office of any automobile 142109
insurance agent, nor impart any information furnished by any 142110
applicant for a license or identification card to any person, 142111
except the registrar. This division shall not apply to any 142112
nonprofit corporation appointed deputy registrar.142113

       (D) The registrar shall immediately remove a deputy registrar 142114
who violates the requirements of this chapter.142115

       (E) The registrar shall periodically solicit bids and enter 142116
into a contract for the provision of laminating equipment and 142117
laminating materials to the registrar and all deputy registrars. 142118
The registrar shall not consider any bid that does not provide for 142119
the supplying of both laminating equipment and laminating 142120
materials. The laminating materials selected shall contain a 142121
security feature so that any tampering with the laminating 142122
material covering a license or identification card is readily 142123
apparent. In soliciting bids and entering into a contract for the 142124
provision of laminating equipment and laminating materials, the 142125
registrar shall observe all procedures required by law.142126

       Sec. 4507.06.  (A)(1) Every application for a driver's 142127
license, motorcycle operator's license or endorsement, or 142128
motor-driven cycle or motor scooter license or endorsement, or 142129
duplicate of any such license or endorsement, shall be made upon 142130
the approved form furnished by the registrar of motor vehicles and 142131
shall be signed by the applicant.142132

       Every application shall state the following:142133

       (a) The applicant's name, date of birth, social security 142134
number if such has been assigned, sex, general description, 142135
including height, weight, color of hair, and eyes, residence 142136
address, including county of residence, duration of residence in 142137
this state, and country of citizenship;142138

       (b) Whether the applicant previously has been licensed as an 142139
operator, chauffeur, driver, commercial driver, or motorcycle 142140
operator and, if so, when, by what state, and whether such license 142141
is suspended or canceled at the present time and, if so, the date 142142
of and reason for the suspension or cancellation;142143

       (c) Whether the applicant is now or ever has been afflicted 142144
with epilepsy, or whether the applicant now is suffering from any 142145
physical or mental disability or disease and, if so, the nature 142146
and extent of the disability or disease, giving the names and 142147
addresses of physicians then or previously in attendance upon the 142148
applicant;142149

       (d) Whether an applicant for a duplicate driver's license, 142150
duplicate license containing a motorcycle operator endorsement, or 142151
duplicate license containing a motor-driven cycle or motor scooter 142152
endorsement has pending a citation for violation of any motor 142153
vehicle law or ordinance, a description of any such citation 142154
pending, and the date of the citation;142155

       (e) WhetherIf an applicant has not certified the applicant's 142156
willingness to make an anatomical gift under section 2108.05 of 142157
the Revised Code, whether the applicant wishes to certify 142158
willingness to make such an anatomical gift under section 2108.05 142159
of the Revised Code, which shall be given no consideration in the 142160
issuance of a license or endorsement;142161

       (f) Whether the applicant has executed a valid durable power 142162
of attorney for health care pursuant to sections 1337.11 to 142163
1337.17 of the Revised Code or has executed a declaration 142164
governing the use or continuation, or the withholding or 142165
withdrawal, of life-sustaining treatment pursuant to sections 142166
2133.01 to 2133.15 of the Revised Code and, if the applicant has 142167
executed either type of instrument, whether the applicant wishes 142168
the applicant's license to indicate that the applicant has 142169
executed the instrument;142170

       (g) On and after October 7, 2009, whether the applicant is a 142171
veteran, active duty, or reservist of the armed forces of the 142172
United States and, if the applicant is such, whether the applicant 142173
wishes the applicant's license to indicate that the applicant is a 142174
veteran, active duty, or reservist of the armed forces of the 142175
United States by a military designation on the license.142176

       (2) Every applicant for a driver's license shall be 142177
photographed in color at the time the application for the license 142178
is made. The application shall state any additional information 142179
that the registrar requires.142180

       (B) The registrar or a deputy registrar, in accordance with 142181
section 3503.11 of the Revised Code, shall register as an elector 142182
any person who applies for a license or endorsement under division 142183
(A) of this section, or for a renewal or duplicate of the license 142184
or endorsement, if the applicant is eligible and wishes to be 142185
registered as an elector. The decision of an applicant whether to 142186
register as an elector shall be given no consideration in the 142187
decision of whether to issue the applicant a license or 142188
endorsement, or a renewal or duplicate.142189

       (C) The registrar or a deputy registrar, in accordance with 142190
section 3503.11 of the Revised Code, shall offer the opportunity 142191
of completing a notice of change of residence or change of name to 142192
any applicant for a driver's license or endorsement under division 142193
(A) of this section, or for a renewal or duplicate of the license 142194
or endorsement, if the applicant is a registered elector who has 142195
changed the applicant's residence or name and has not filed such a 142196
notice.142197

       (D) In addition to any other information it contains, on and 142198
after October 7, 2009, the approved form furnished by the 142199
registrar of motor vehicles for an application for a license or 142200
endorsement or an application for a duplicate of any such license 142201
or endorsement shall inform applicants that the applicant must 142202
present a copy of the applicant's DD-214 or an equivalent document 142203
in order to qualify to have the license or duplicate indicate that 142204
the applicant is a veteran, active duty, or reservist of the armed 142205
forces of the United States based on a request made pursuant to 142206
division (A)(1)(g) of this section.142207

       Section 110.31.  That the existing versions of sections 142208
4501.01, 4507.01, and 4507.06 of the Revised Code that are 142209
scheduled to take effect January 1, 2017, are hereby repealed.142210

       Section 110.32.  Sections 110.30 and 110.31 of this act shall 142211
take effect January 1, 2017.142212

       Section 125.10. (A) Sections 5168.01, 5168.02, 5168.03, 142213
5168.04, 5168.05, 5168.06, 5168.07, 5168.08, 5168.09, 5168.10, 142214
5168.11, 5168.12, 5168.13, 5168.99, and 5168.991 of the Revised 142215
Code are hereby repealed, effective October 16, 2015.142216

        (B) Any money remaining in the Legislative Budget Services 142217
Fund on October 16, 2015, the date that section 5168.12 of the 142218
Revised Code is repealed by division (A) of this section, shall be 142219
used solely for the purposes stated in then former section 5168.12 142220
of the Revised Code. When all money in the Legislative Budget 142221
Services Fund has been spent after then former section 5168.12 of 142222
the Revised Code is repealed under division (A) of this section, 142223
the fund shall cease to exist.142224

       Section 125.11. Sections 5168.20, 5168.21, 5168.22, 5168.23, 142225
5168.24, 5168.25, 5168.26, 5168.27, and 5168.28 of the Revised 142226
Code are hereby repealed, effective October 1, 2015.142227

       Section 125.11.03.  Section 5124.67 of the Revised Code is 142228
hereby repealed, effective July 1, 2018.142229

       Section 125.11.10. That Section 267.60.31 of Am. Sub. H.B. 142230
153 of the 129th General Assembly is hereby repealed.142231

       Section 125.12. That Section 153 of Am. Sub. H.B. 117 of the 142232
121st General Assembly, as most recently amended by Am. Sub. H.B. 142233
153 of the 129th General Assembly, is hereby repealed.142234

       Section 125.13. That Section 125.10 of Am. Sub. H.B. 1 of the 142235
128th General Assembly, as most recently amended by Am. Sub. H.B. 142236
153 of the 129th General Assembly, is hereby repealed.142237

       Section 125.14. That Section 514.03 of Am. Sub. H.B. 66 of 142238
the 126th General Assembly is hereby repealed.142239

       Section 201.10.  Except as otherwise provided in this act, 142240
all appropriation items in this act are appropriated out of any 142241
moneys in the state treasury to the credit of the designated fund 142242
that are not otherwise appropriated. For all appropriations made 142243
in this act, the amounts in the first column are for fiscal year 142244
2014 and the amounts in the second column are for fiscal year 142245
2015.142246

       Section 203.10. ACC ACCOUNTANCY BOARD OF OHIO142247

General Services Fund Group142248

4J80 889601 CPA Education Assistance $ 325,000 $ 325,000 142249
4K90 889609 Operating Expenses $ 977,500 $ 977,500 142250
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 142251
Group $ 1,302,500 $ 1,302,500 142252
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,302,500 $ 1,302,500 142253


       Section 205.10. ADJ ADJUTANT GENERAL142255

General Revenue Fund142256

GRF 745401 Ohio Military Reserve $ 12,308 $ 12,308 142257
GRF 745404 Air National Guard $ 1,810,606 $ 1,810,606 142258
GRF 745407 National Guard Benefits $ 400,000 $ 400,000 142259
GRF 745409 Central Administration $ 2,682,098 $ 2,682,098 142260
GRF 745499 Army National Guard $ 3,689,871 $ 3,689,871 142261
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 8,594,883 $ 8,594,883 142262

General Services Fund Group142263

5340 745612 Property Operations Management $ 534,304 $ 534,304 142264
5360 745605 Marksmanship Activities $ 128,600 $ 128,600 142265
5360 745620 Camp Perry and Buckeye Inn Operations $ 978,846 $ 978,846 142266
5370 745604 Ohio National Guard Facilities Maintenance $ 62,000 $ 62,000 142267
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 1,703,750 $ 1,703,750 142268

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group142269

3410 745615 Air National Guard Base Security $ 2,919,000 $ 2,919,000 142270
3420 745616 Army National Guard Service Agreement $ 15,063,000 $ 15,063,000 142271
3E80 745628 Air National Guard Operations and Maintenance $ 16,850,000 $ 16,850,000 142272
3R80 745603 Counter Drug Operations $ 15,000 $ 15,000 142273
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 34,847,000 $ 34,847,000 142274

State Special Revenue Fund Group142275

5U80 745613 Community Match Armories $ 350,000 $ 350,000 142276
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 350,000 $ 350,000 142277

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 45,495,633 $ 45,495,633 142278

       NATIONAL GUARD BENEFITS142279

       The foregoing appropriation item 745407, National Guard 142280
Benefits, shall be used for purposes of sections 5919.31 and 142281
5919.33 of the Revised Code, and for administrative costs of the 142282
associated programs.142283

       If necessary, in order to pay benefits in a timely manner 142284
pursuant to sections 5919.31 and 5919.33 of the Revised Code, the 142285
Adjutant General may request the Director of Budget and Management 142286
transfer appropriation from any appropriation item used by the 142287
Adjutant General to appropriation item 745407, National Guard 142288
Benefits. The Adjutant General may subsequently seek Controlling 142289
Board approval to restore the appropriation in the appropriation 142290
item from which such a transfer was made.142291

       For active duty members of the Ohio National Guard who died 142292
after October 7, 2001, while performing active duty, the death 142293
benefit, pursuant to section 5919.33 of the Revised Code, shall be 142294
paid to the beneficiary or beneficiaries designated on the 142295
member's Servicemembers' Group Life Insurance Policy.142296

       STATE ACTIVE DUTY COSTS142297

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 745409, Central 142298
Administration, $50,000 in each fiscal year shall be used for the 142299
purpose of paying expenses related to state active duty of members 142300
of the Ohio organized militia, in accordance with a proclamation 142301
of the Governor. Expenses include, but are not limited to, the 142302
cost of equipment, supplies, and services, as determined by the 142303
Adjutant General's Department.142304

       Section 207.10. DAS DEPARTMENT OF ADMINISTRATIVE SERVICES142305

General Revenue Fund142306

GRF 100403 Public Employees Health Care Program $ 309,600 $ 309,600 142307
GRF 100414 MARCS Lease Rental Payments $ 5,133,700 $ 5,135,800 142308
GRF 100415 OAKS Lease Rental Payments $ 22,998,500 $ 22,982,500 142309
GRF 100416 STARS Lease Rental Payments $ 4,976,500 $ 4,973,200 142310
GRF 100447 Administrative Building Lease Rental Payments $ 85,847,800 $ 91,059,600 142311
GRF 100448 Office Building Operating Payments $ 20,000,000 $ 20,000,000 142312
GRF 100449 DAS - Building Operating Payments $ 7,551,571 $ 7,551,571 142313
GRF 100452 Lean Ohio $ 1,059,624 $ 1,059,624 142314
GRF 100456 State IT Services $ 1,739,038 $ 1,739,038 142315
GRF 100457 Equal Opportunity Services $ 1,910,516 $ 1,910,516 142316
GRF 100459 Ohio Business Gateway $ 4,049,094 $ 4,049,094 142317
GRF 130321 State Agency Support Services $ 2,477,008 $ 2,477,008 142318
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 158,052,951 $ 163,247,551 142319

General Services Fund Group142320

1120 100616 DAS Administration $ 6,127,659 $ 6,147,659 142321
1150 100632 Central Service Agency $ 911,580 $ 927,699 142322
1170 100644 General Services Division - Operating $ 12,993,870 $ 12,993,870 142323
1220 100637 Fleet Management $ 4,200,000 $ 4,200,000 142324
1250 100622 Human Resources Division - Operating $ 17,749,839 $ 17,749,839 142325
1250 100657 Benefits Communication $ 712,316 $ 712,316 142326
1280 100620 Office of Collective Bargaining $ 3,329,507 $ 3,329,507 142327
1300 100606 Risk Management Reserve $ 6,635,784 $ 6,635,784 142328
1320 100631 DAS Building Management $ 19,343,170 $ 19,343,170 142329
1330 100607 IT Services Delivery $ 57,521,975 $ 57,521,975 142330
1880 100649 Equal Opportunity Division - Operating $ 863,013 $ 863,013 142331
2100 100612 State Printing $ 20,459,526 $ 20,459,526 142332
2290 100630 IT Governance $ 16,446,474 $ 16,446,474 142333
2290 100640 Leveraged Enterprise Purchases $ 7,065,639 $ 7,065,639 142334
4270 100602 Investment Recovery $ 1,618,062 $ 1,638,515 142335
4N60 100617 Major IT Purchases $ 56,888,635 $ 56,888,635 142336
4P30 100603 DAS Information Services $ 6,400,070 $ 6,400,070 142337
5C20 100605 MARCS Administration $ 14,292,596 $ 14,512,028 142338
5C30 100608 Minor Construction Project Management $ 1,004,375 $ 1,004,375 142339
5EB0 100635 OAKS Support Organization $ 25,813,077 $ 19,813,077 142340
5EB0 100656 OAKS Updates and Developments $ 9,886,923 $ 2,636,923 142341
5HU0 100655 Construction Reform Demo Compliance $ 150,000 $ 150,000 142342
5KZ0 100659 Building Improvement $ 500,000 $ 500,000 142343
5L70 100610 Professional Development $ 2,100,000 $ 2,100,000 142344
5LA0 100660 Building Operation $ 26,600,767 $ 26,814,648 142345
5LJ0 100661 IT Development $ 13,200,000 $ 13,200,000 142346
5V60 100619 Employee Educational Development $ 800,000 $ 800,000 142347
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 142348
Group $ 333,614,857 $ 320,854,742 142349

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group142350

3AJ0 100654 ARRA Broadband Mapping Grant $ 1,723,009 $ 1,723,009 142351
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 142352
Fund Group $ 1,723,009 $ 1,723,009 142353

State Special Revenue Fund Group142354

5JQ0 100658 Professionals Licensing System $ 3,028,366 $ 990,000 142355
5MV0 100662 Theater Equipment Maintenance $ 80,891 $ 80,891 142356
5NM0 100663 911 Program $ 290,000 $ 290,000 142357
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 142358
Fund Group $ 3,399,257 $ 1,360,891 142359
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 496,790,074 $ 487,186,193 142360


       Section 207.20. OAKS LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS142362

       The foregoing appropriation item 100415, OAKS Lease Rental 142363
Payments, shall be used for payments at the times they are 142364
required to be made for the period from July 1, 2013, through June 142365
30, 2015, pursuant to leases and agreements entered into under 142366
Chapter 125. of the Revised Code, as supplemented by Section 142367
281.10 of Am. Sub. H.B. 562 of the 127th General Assembly and 142368
other prior acts of the General Assembly, with respect to 142369
financing the costs associated with the acquisition, development, 142370
installation, and implementation of the Ohio Administrative 142371
Knowledge System. If it is determined that additional 142372
appropriations are necessary for this purpose, the amounts are 142373
hereby appropriated.142374

       Section 207.30. STARS LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS142375

        The foregoing appropriation item 100416, STARS Lease Rental 142376
Payments, shall be used for payments at the times they are 142377
required to be made for the period from July 1, 2013, through June 142378
30, 2015, pursuant to leases and agreements entered into under 142379
Chapter 125. of the Revised Code, as supplemented by Section 142380
207.10.30 of Am. Sub. H.B. 1 of the 128th General Assembly and 142381
other prior acts of the General Assembly, with respect to 142382
financing the cost for the acquisition, development, installation, 142383
and implementation of the State Taxation Accounting and Revenue 142384
System (STARS). If it is determined that additional appropriations 142385
are necessary for this purpose, the amounts are appropriated.142386

       The State Taxation Accounting and Revenue System (STARS) is 142387
an integrated tax collection and audit system that will replace 142388
all of the state's existing separate tax software and 142389
administration systems for the various taxes collected by the 142390
state. The Department of Administrative Services, in conjunction 142391
with the Department of Taxation, may acquire STARS, including, but 142392
not limited to, the application hardware and software and 142393
installation and implementation thereof, for the use of the 142394
Department of Taxation. Any lease-purchase agreement used under 142395
Chapter 125. of the Revised Code to acquire STARS, including any 142396
fractionalized interests as defined in division (N) of section 142397
133.01 of the Revised Code in the lease payments under that 142398
agreement, shall provide at the end of the lease period that the 142399
financed asset becomes the property of the state. The principal 142400
amount of any new such financing is limited, excluding the 142401
principal amounts of any lease-purchase financing heretofore 142402
completed for STARS, to the amount of $20,000,000.142403

       Section 207.40. MARCS LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS142404

       The foregoing appropriation item 100414, MARCS Lease Rental 142405
Payments, shall be used for payments at the times they are 142406
required to be made for the period from July 1, 2013, through June 142407
30, 2015, pursuant to leases and agreements entered into under 142408
Chapter 125. of the Revised Code, as supplemented by Section 142409
701.20 of Sub. H.B. 482 of the 129th General Assembly, with 142410
respect to financing the cost for the acquisition, development, 142411
installation, and implementation of the Multi-Agency Radio 142412
Communication System (MARCS) upgrade. If it is determined that 142413
additional appropriations are necessary for this purpose, the 142414
amounts are hereby appropriated.142415

       Section 207.50. MULTI-AGENCY RADIO COMMUNICATION SYSTEM 142416
UPGRADE142417

       The Multi-Agency Radio Communications System (MARCS) is a 142418
statewide computer and communications network designed to provide 142419
instant voice and data communication and supply a communications 142420
backbone to public safety and emergency management. The Department 142421
of Administrative Services may update or add functionality to 142422
MARCS to upgrade the existing system to a 700/800 megahertz voice 142423
and data system specifically designed to support interoperable 142424
communications for public safety law enforcement and first 142425
responders. The improvements may include, but are not limited to, 142426
hardware and software and the installation and implementation 142427
thereof. Any lease-purchase agreement utilized under Chapter 125. 142428
of the Revised Code to acquire MARCS and the enhancements 142429
described above, including any fractionalized interest as defined 142430
in division (N) of section 133.01 of the Revised Code in the lease 142431
payments under that agreement, shall provide at the end of the 142432
lease period that the financed asset becomes the property of the 142433
state. The principal amount of any new such financing is limited, 142434
in addition to the principal amounts of lease-purchase financing 142435
heretofore completed for MARCS, to the amount of $27,000,000. 142436

       Section 207.60. ADMINISTRATIVE BUILDING LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS142437

       The foregoing appropriation item 100447, Administrative 142438
Building Lease Rental Payments, shall be used to meet all payments 142439
at the times they are required to be made during the period from 142440
July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015, by the Department of 142441
Administrative Services pursuant to leases and agreements under 142442
Chapters 152. and 154. of the Revised Code. These appropriations 142443
are the source of funds pledged for bond service charges on 142444
related obligations issued under Chapters 152. and 154. of the 142445
Revised Code.142446

        The foregoing appropriation item 100448, Office Building 142447
Operating Payments, shall be used to pay the expenses of vacant 142448
space, space undergoing renovation, agencies funded by the General 142449
Revenue Fund, and the rent expenses of tenants that have been 142450
relocated because of building renovations that occupy space in the 142451
James A. Rhodes State Office Tower, the Vern Riffe Center for 142452
Government and the Arts, the Frank J. Lausche State Office 142453
Building, the Michael V. DiSalle Government Center, and the Oliver 142454
R. Ocasek Government Office Building.142455

       At least once per year, the portion of appropriation item 142456
100448, Office Building Operating Payments, that is not used for 142457
expenses of agencies funded by the General Revenue Fund, vacant 142458
space, space undergoing renovation, and the rent expenses of 142459
tenants that are relocated because of building renovations shall 142460
be processed by the Department of Administrative Services through 142461
intrastate voucher and placed in the Building Improvements Fund 142462
(Fund 5KZ0).142463

       Section 207.70. DAS - BUILDING OPERATING PAYMENTS AND 142464
BUILDING MANAGEMENT FUND142465

       The foregoing appropriation item 100449, DAS - Building 142466
Operating Payments, shall be used to pay the rent expenses of 142467
veterans organizations pursuant to section 123.024 of the Revised 142468
Code in fiscal years 2014 and 2015.142469

       The foregoing appropriation item, 100449, DAS - Building 142470
Operating Payments, also may be used to provide funding for the 142471
cost of property appraisals or building studies that the 142472
Department of Administrative Services may be required to obtain 142473
for property that is being sold by the state or property under 142474
consideration to be renovated or purchased by the state.142475

       Notwithstanding section 125.28 of the Revised Code, the 142476
remaining portion of the appropriation may be used to pay the 142477
operating expenses of state facilities maintained by the 142478
Department of Administrative Services that are not billed to 142479
building tenants, or other costs associated with the Voinovich 142480
Center in Youngstown, Ohio. These expenses may include, but are 142481
not limited to, the costs for vacant space and space undergoing 142482
renovation, and the rent expenses of tenants that are relocated 142483
because of building renovations. These payments may be processed 142484
by the Department of Administrative Services through intrastate 142485
transfer vouchers and placed in the Building Management Fund (Fund 142486
1320) or the Information Technology Services Fund (Fund 1330).142487

       Notwithstanding section 125.28 of the Revised Code, the 142488
Department of Administrative Services may forego some or all of 142489
the amounts attributable to debt service included in 142490
reimbursements made by tenants who are supported in whole or in 142491
part by non-GRF money for the costs of occupying space at the 142492
North High Street Complex in Columbus.142493

       The Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the 142494
portion of payments attributed to depreciation from Fund 1320 to 142495
the General Revenue Fund, as applicable.142496

       CASH TRANSFER FROM THE WORKFORCE DEVELOPMENT FUND TO THE 142497
HUMAN RESOURCES SERVICES FUND142498

       Upon request of the Director of Administrative Services, 142499
during the FY 2014 - FY 2015 biennium, the Director of Budget and 142500
Management shall transfer up to $975,000 from the Workforce 142501
Development Fund (Fund 5D70) to the Human Resources Services Fund 142502
(Fund 1250) to support one-time human resources administration 142503
activities for state agencies. 142504

       Section 207.80. CENTRAL SERVICE AGENCY FUND142505

       Appropriation item 100632, Central Service Agency, shall be 142506
used to purchase the equipment, products, and services that are 142507
needed to maintain existing automated applications for the 142508
professional licensing boards and the Casino Control Commission to 142509
support board licensing functions in fiscal years 2014 and 2015 142510
until these functions are replaced by the Ohio Professionals 142511
Licensing System. The Department of Administrative Services shall 142512
establish charges for recovering the costs of carrying out these 142513
functions. The charges shall be billed to the professional 142514
licensing boards and the Casino Control Commission, and deposited 142515
via intrastate transfer vouchers to the credit of the Central 142516
Service Agency Fund (Fund 1150).142517

       Upon implementation of the replacement Ohio Professionals 142518
Licensing System and the decommissioning of the existing automated 142519
applications, the Director of Budget and Management may transfer 142520
any cash balances that remain in the Central Service Agency Fund 142521
(Fund 1150) and that are attributable to the operation of the 142522
existing automated applications to the Professions Licensing 142523
System Fund (Fund 5JQ0).142524

       Section 207.90. GENERAL SERVICE CHARGES142525

       The Department of Administrative Services, with the approval 142526
of the Director of Budget and Management, shall establish charges 142527
for recovering the costs of administering the programs funded by 142528
the General Services Fund (Fund 1170) and the State Printing Fund 142529
(Fund 2100). Such charges within Fund 1170 may be used to recover 142530
the cost of paying a vendor to establish reduced pricing for 142531
contracted supplies or services.142532

        If the Director of Administrative Services determines that 142533
additional amounts are necessary to pay for consulting and 142534
administrative costs related to securing lower pricing, the 142535
Director of Administrative Services may request that the Director 142536
of Budget and Management approve additional expenditures. Such 142537
approved additional amounts are appropriated to appropriation item 142538
100644, General Services Division-Operating. 142539

       Section 207.93. CASH TRANSFER TO THE INVESTMENT RECOVERY FUND142540

        Notwithstanding division (B) of section 125.14 of the Revised 142541
Code, the Director of Budget and Management, at the request of the 142542
Director of Administrative Services, shall transfer up to $200,000 142543
of cash in excess of needs from the General Services Fund (Fund 142544
1170) to the Investment Recovery Fund (Fund 4270) during the 142545
biennium beginning July 1, 2013, and ending June 30, 2015, to pay 142546
the operating expenses of the State Surplus, Federal Surplus, and 142547
Asset Management Programs, including expenses to develop database 142548
systems for use in these programs.142549

       Section 207.95. TRANSFER OF THE EMPLOYEE ASSISTANCE PROGRAM 142550
TO THE DEPARTMENT OF ADMINISTRATIVE SERVICES142551

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Employee Assistance Program under 142552
section 3701.041 of the Revised Code shall be transferred to the 142553
Ohio Department of Administrative Services. The Department of 142554
Administrative Services is thereupon and thereafter successor to, 142555
assumes the operations, functions, powers, and obligations of, and 142556
otherwise constitutes the continuation of the Employee Assistance 142557
Program as provided in section 3701.041 (124.88) of the Revised 142558
Code. All related functions, equipment, assets, and liabilities, 142559
regardless of form or medium, agreements, and contracts of the 142560
program are transferred to the Department of Administrative 142561
Services.142562

       Employees of the Employee Assistance Program shall be 142563
transferred to the Department of Administrative Services in their 142564
same classification, and shall retain the rights specified in 142565
sections 124.321 to 124.328 of the Revised Code.142566

       On and after the effective date of this section, 142567
notwithstanding any provision of the law to the contrary, if 142568
requested by the Director of Administrative Services, the Director 142569
of Budget and Management shall make the budget changes made 142570
necessary by the transfer, if any, including administrative 142571
reorganization or program transfers. 142572

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 142573
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 142574
440633, Employee Assistance Program, and reestablish them against 142575
appropriation item 100622, Human Resources Division - Operating. 142576
The reestablished encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 142577
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 142578
440633, Employee Assistance Program, by July 1, 2013, shall be 142579
completed under appropriation item 100622, Human Resources 142580
Division - Operating, in the same manner, and with the same 142581
effect, as if completed with regard to appropriation item 440633, 142582
Employee Assistance Program. All of the rules, policies, orders, 142583
and determinations associated with the program continue in effect 142584
as rules, orders, and determinations associated with the 142585
Department of Administrative Services until modified or rescinded 142586
by the Director of Administrative Services. If necessary to ensure 142587
the integrity of the Administrative Code rule numbering system, 142588
the Director of the Legislative Service Commission shall renumber 142589
the rules relating to the Employee Assistance Program to reflect 142590
their transfer to the Department of Administrative Services. No 142591
validation, cure, right, privilege, remedy, obligation, or 142592
liability is lost or impaired by reason of the transfer and shall 142593
be administered with regard to appropriation item 100622, Human 142594
Resources Division - Operating. On and after July 1, 2013, if the 142595
Employee Assistance Program is referred to in any statute, rule, 142596
contract, grant, or other document, the reference is deemed to 142597
refer to the Department of Administrative Services.142598

       Funds collected by the Department of Health for the Employee 142599
Assistance Program, which previously were deposited in the 142600
Employee Assistance Fund (Fund 6830), shall be credited to the 142601
Human Resources Services Fund (Fund 1250) created in section 142602
124.07 of the Revised Code. The Director of Budget and Management 142603
shall transfer from the Employee Assistance Fund to the Human 142604
Resources Services Fund any remaining cash balances in the 142605
Employee Assistance Fund. In order to facilitate this transfer, 142606
the Director of Health, on July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible 142607
thereafter, shall certify to the Director of Budget and Management 142608
an estimate of the amount to be transferred. Upon the completion 142609
of this transfer, the Employee Assistance Fund is abolished.142610

       Section 207.100. COLLECTIVE BARGAINING ARBITRATION EXPENSES142611

       With approval of the Director of Budget and Management, the 142612
Department of Administrative Services may seek reimbursement from 142613
state agencies for the actual costs and expenses the Department 142614
incurs in the collective bargaining arbitration process. The 142615
reimbursements shall be processed through intrastate transfer 142616
vouchers and credited to the Collective Bargaining Fund (Fund 142617
1280).142618

       Section 207.110. EQUAL OPPORTUNITY PROGRAM142619

       The Department of Administrative Services, with the approval 142620
of the Director of Budget and Management, shall establish charges 142621
for recovering the costs of administering the activities supported 142622
by the State EEO Fund (Fund 1880). These charges shall be 142623
deposited to the credit of the State EEO Fund (Fund 1880) upon 142624
payment made by state agencies, state-supported or state-assisted 142625
institutions of higher education, and tax-supported agencies, 142626
municipal corporations, and other political subdivisions of the 142627
state, for services rendered.142628

       Section 207.111. STATE PRINTING FUND142629

        On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 142630
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer $30,109.39 in 142631
cash from the General Revenue Fund to the State Printing Fund 142632
(Fund 2100) to correct fiscal year 2012 disbursements that were 142633
made from Fund 2100 but that should have been made from the 142634
General Revenue Fund.142635

       Section 207.113. LEVERAGED ENTERPRISE PURCHASES142636

        The foregoing appropriation item 100640, Leveraged Enterprise 142637
Purchases, shall be used by the Department of Administrative 142638
Services to make information technology purchases for the benefit 142639
of one or more government entities as authorized under division 142640
(G) of section 125.18 of the Revised Code. If the Director of 142641
Administrative Services determines that additional amounts are 142642
necessary to pay for pass-through information technology purchases 142643
that will be billed to one or more state agencies, the Director of 142644
Administrative Services shall seek Controlling Board approval for 142645
an increase in appropriation to make the requested purchases.142646

       Section 207.120. INVESTMENT RECOVERY FUND142647

       Notwithstanding division (B) of section 125.14 of the Revised 142648
Code, cash balances in the Investment Recovery Fund (Fund 4270) 142649
may be used to support the operating expenses of the Federal 142650
Surplus Operating Program created in sections 125.84 to 125.90 of 142651
the Revised Code.142652

       The Director of Administrative Services shall use the 142653
foregoing appropriation item 100602, Investment Recovery, to pay 142654
the operating expenses of the State Surplus Property Program and 142655
the Surplus Federal Property Program, under Chapter 125. of the 142656
Revised Code and this section. If additional appropriations are 142657
necessary for the operations of these programs, the Director of 142658
Administrative Services shall seek increased appropriations from 142659
the Controlling Board under section 131.35 of the Revised Code.142660

       The Director of Administrative Services shall transfer 142661
proceeds from the sale of surplus property from the Investment 142662
Recovery Fund to non-General Revenue Funds under division (A)(2) 142663
of section 125.14 of the Revised Code. 142664

       Section 207.130. MAJOR IT PURCHASES CHARGES142665

       The Department of Administrative Services may bill agencies 142666
for actual expenditures made for major IT purchases if those 142667
expenditures are not recovered as part of the information 142668
technology services rates the Department charges and deposits into 142669
the Information Technology Fund (Fund 1330) created in section 142670
125.15 of the Revised Code. These charges shall be deposited to 142671
the credit of the Major IT Purchases Fund (Fund 4N60).142672

       Section 207.140. DAS INFORMATION SERVICES142673

       There is hereby established in the State Treasury the DAS 142674
Information Services Fund. The foregoing appropriation item 142675
100603, DAS Information Services, shall be used to pay the costs 142676
of providing information systems and services in the Department of 142677
Administrative Services. Any state agency, board, or commission 142678
may use DAS Information Services by paying for the services 142679
rendered.142680

        The Department of Administrative Services shall establish 142681
user charges for all information systems and services that are 142682
allowable in the statewide indirect cost allocation plan submitted 142683
annually to the United States Department of Health and Human 142684
Services. These charges shall comply with federal regulations and 142685
shall be deposited to the credit of the DAS Information Services 142686
Fund (Fund 4P30).142687

       Section 207.150. CASH TRANSFER FROM THE MARCS ADMINISTRATION 142688
FUND TO GRF142689

       Upon the request of the Director of Administrative Services, 142690
the Director of Budget and Management may transfer unobligated 142691
cash in the MARCS Administration Fund (Fund 5C20) to the General 142692
Revenue Fund to reimburse the General Revenue Fund for lease 142693
rental payments made on behalf of the MARCS upgrade.142694

       Section 207.160. PROFESSIONS LICENSING SYSTEM142695

       There is hereby created in the state treasury the Professions 142696
Licensing System Fund (Fund 5JQ0). Appropriation item 100658, Ohio 142697
Professionals Licensing System, shall be used to make payments 142698
from the fund. The fund shall be used to purchase the equipment, 142699
products, and services necessary to develop and maintain a 142700
replacement automated licensing system for the professional 142701
licensing boards. The Director of Budget and Management may 142702
transfer up to a total of $990,000 in cash from the Occupational 142703
Licensing and Regulatory Fund (4K90), the State Medical Board 142704
Operating Fund (Fund 5C60), and the Casino Control Commission – 142705
Operating Fund (Fund 5HS0) to the Professions Licensing System 142706
Fund during the FY 2014 - FY 2015 biennium. These transfers shall 142707
be in proportion to the number of current licensees issued by the 142708
professional licensing boards and current and anticipated licenses 142709
in the case of the Casino Control Commission. The purpose of these 142710
cash transfers is to fund the initial acquisition and development 142711
of the system. Any cash balances not expended in fiscal year 2014 142712
are hereby reappropriated in fiscal year 2015. 142713

       Effective with the implementation of the replacement 142714
licensing system, the Department of Administrative Services shall 142715
establish charges for recovering the costs of ongoing maintenance 142716
of the system. The charges shall be billed to the professional 142717
licensing boards and the Casino Control Commission, and deposited 142718
via intrastate transfer vouchers to the credit of the Professions 142719
Licensing System Fund. 142720

       Section 207.170. BUILDING IMPROVEMENT FUND142721

       The foregoing appropriation item 100659, Building 142722
Improvement, shall be used to make payments from the Building 142723
Improvement Fund (Fund 5KZ0) for major maintenance or improvements 142724
required in the James A. Rhodes State Office Tower, the Vern Riffe 142725
Center for Government and the Arts, the Frank J. Lausche State 142726
Office Building, the Michael V. DiSalle Government Center, and the 142727
Oliver R. Ocasek Government Office. The Department of 142728
Administrative Services shall conduct or contract for regular 142729
assessments of these buildings and shall maintain a cash balance 142730
in the Building Improvement Fund equal to the cost of the repairs 142731
and improvements that are recommended to occur within the next 142732
five years, with the following exception described below.142733

       Upon request of the Director of Administrative Services, the 142734
Director of Budget and Management may permit a cash transfer from 142735
the Building Improvement Fund (Fund 5KZ0) to the Building 142736
Operating Fund (Fund 5LA0) to pay costs of operating and 142737
maintaining the James A. Rhodes State Office Tower, the Vern Riffe 142738
Center for Government and the Arts, the Frank J. Lausche State 142739
Office Building, the Michael V. DiSalle Government Center, and the 142740
Oliver R. Ocasek Government Office that are not charged to tenants 142741
during the same fiscal year.142742

       Should the cash balance in the Building Operating Fund (Fund 142743
5LA0) be determined to be sufficient, the Director of 142744
Administrative Services may request that the Director of Budget 142745
and Management transfer cash from the Building Operating Fund 142746
(Fund 5LA0) to the Building Improvement Fund (Fund 5KZ0) in an 142747
amount equal to the initial cash transfer made under this section 142748
plus applicable interest. 142749

       Section 207.180. PROFESSIONAL DEVELOPMENT FUND142750

       The foregoing appropriation item 100610, Professional 142751
Development, shall be used to make payments from the Professional 142752
Development Fund (Fund 5L70) under section 124.182 of the Revised 142753
Code. If it is determined by the Director of Administrative 142754
Services that additional amounts are necessary, the Director of 142755
Administrative Services may request that the Director of Budget 142756
and Management approve additional amounts. Such approved 142757
additional amounts are hereby appropriated.142758

       Section 207.190. BUILDING OPERATING FUND142759

       The foregoing appropriation item 100660, Building Operation, 142760
shall be used to make payments from the Building Operating Fund 142761
(Fund 5LA0) to pay costs of operating and maintaining the James A. 142762
Rhodes State Office Tower, the Vern Riffe Center for Government 142763
and the Arts, the Frank J. Lausche State Office Building, the 142764
Michael V. DiSalle Government Center, and the Oliver R. Ocasek 142765
Government Office.142766

       The Department of Administrative Services, with the approval 142767
of the Director of Budget and Management, shall establish charges 142768
to be reimbursed for the cost of operating these buildings. These 142769
charges shall include the cost of applicable depreciation on the 142770
buildings and the resulting revenue shall be deposited in the 142771
Building Operating Fund (Fund 5LA0). The Director of Budget and 142772
Management shall transfer the portion of these charges attributed 142773
to depreciation from the Building Operating Fund (Fund 5LA0) to 142774
the Building Improvement Fund (Fund 5KZ0) or to the General 142775
Revenue Fund, as applicable.142776

       Section 207.200. INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY DEVELOPMENT142777

       The foregoing appropriation item 100661, IT Development, 142778
shall be used by the Department of Administrative Services to pay 142779
the costs of modernizing the state's information technology 142780
management and investment practices away from a limited, 142781
agency-specific focus in favor of a statewide methodology 142782
supporting development of enterprise solutions.142783

       The Department of Administrative Services, with the approval 142784
of the Director of Budget and Management, may charge state 142785
agencies an information technology development assessment based on 142786
state agencies' information technology expenditures or other 142787
methodology. The revenue from this assessment shall be deposited 142788
in the Information Technology Development Fund (Fund 5LJ0), which 142789
is hereby created.142790

       Section  207.210. EMPLOYEE EDUCATIONAL DEVELOPMENT142791

       The foregoing appropriation item 100619, Employee Educational 142792
Development, shall be used to make payments from the Employee 142793
Educational Development Fund (Fund 5V60) under section 124.86 of 142794
the Revised Code. The fund shall be used to pay the costs of 142795
administering educational programs under existing collective 142796
bargaining agreements with District 1199, the Health Care and 142797
Social Service Union; State Council of Professional Educators; 142798
Ohio Education Association and National Education Association; the 142799
Fraternal Order of Police Ohio Labor Council, Unit 2; and the Ohio 142800
State Troopers Association, Units 1 and 15.142801

       If it is determined by the Director of Administrative 142802
Services that additional amounts are necessary, the Director of 142803
Administrative Services may request that the Director of Budget 142804
and Management approve additional amounts. Such approved 142805
additional amounts are hereby appropriated.142806

       Section 207.220.  CASH TRANSFERS TO THE MAJOR IT PURCHASES 142807
FUND142808

       Upon request of the Director of Administrative Services, the 142809
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to $4,000,000 142810
from the OAKS Support Organization Fund (Fund 5EB0) to the Major 142811
IT Purchases Fund (Fund 4N60). This amount represents cash 142812
transferred from Fund 4N60 during fiscal year 2010 pursuant to 142813
Section 207.30.80 of Am. Sub. H.B. 1 of the 128th General 142814
Assembly. Any portion of appropriation item 100617, Major IT 142815
Purchases, that is unencumbered and unexpended at the end of 142816
fiscal year 2014 is hereby reappropriated for fiscal year 2015.142817

       Section 207.230. MULTI-AGENCY RADIO COMMUNICATION SYSTEM DEBT 142818
SERVICE PAYMENTS142819

       The Director of Administrative Services, in consultation with 142820
the Multi-Agency Radio Communication System (MARCS) Steering 142821
Committee and the Director of Budget and Management, shall 142822
determine the share of debt service payments attributable to 142823
spending for MARCS components that are not specific to any one 142824
agency and that shall be charged to agencies supported by the 142825
motor fuel tax. Such share of debt service payments shall be 142826
calculated for MARCS capital disbursements made beginning July 1, 142827
1997. Within thirty days of any payment made from appropriation 142828
item 100447, Administrative Building Lease Payments, the Director 142829
of Administrative Services shall certify to the Director of Budget 142830
and Management the amount of this share. The Director of Budget 142831
and Management shall transfer such amounts to the General Revenue 142832
Fund from the State Highway Safety Fund (Fund 7036) established in 142833
section 4501.06 of the Revised Code.142834

       The Director of Administrative Services shall consider 142835
renting or leasing existing tower sites at reasonable or current 142836
market rates, so long as these existing sites are equipped with 142837
the technical capabilities to support the MARCS project.142838

       Section 207.240. ENTERPRISE IT STRATEGY IMPLEMENTATION142839

       The Director of Administrative Services shall determine and 142840
implement strategies that benefit the enterprise by improving 142841
efficiency, reducing costs or enhancing capacity of information 142842
technology (IT) services. Such improvements and efficiencies may 142843
result in the consolidation and transfer of such services. As 142844
determined to be necessary for successful implementation of this 142845
section and notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, 142846
the Director of Administrative Services may request the Director 142847
of Budget and Management to consolidate or transfer IT-specific 142848
budget authority between agencies as necessary to implement 142849
enterprise IT cost containment strategies and related 142850
efficiencies. Once the Director of Budget and Management is 142851
satisfied that the proposed initiative is cost advantageous to the 142852
enterprise, the Director of Budget and Management may transfer 142853
appropriations, funds and cash as needed to implement the proposed 142854
initiative. The establishment of any new fund or total increased 142855
appropriation as a result of this section will be subject to 142856
approval by the Controlling Board.142857

       The Director of Budget and Management and the Director of 142858
Administrative Services may transfer any employees, assets, and 142859
liabilities, including, but not limited to, records, contracts, 142860
and agreements in order to facilitate the improvements determined 142861
in accordance with this section.142862

       Section 207.250. 911 PROGRAM142863

       The foregoing appropriation item 100663, 911 Program, shall 142864
be used by the Department of Administrative Services to pay the 142865
administrative costs of the Statewide Emergency Services Internet 142866
Protocol Network Steering Committee.142867

       Section 209.10. AGE DEPARTMENT OF AGING142868

General Revenue Fund142869

GRF 490321 Operating Expenses $ 1,487,418 $ 1,487,418 142870
GRF 490410 Long-Term Care Ombudsman $ 477,448 $ 477,448 142871
GRF 490411 Senior Community Services $ 7,060,844 $ 7,060,844 142872
GRF 490414 Alzheimer's Respite $ 1,995,245 $ 1,995,245 142873
GRF 490506 National Senior Service Corps $ 241,413 $ 241,413 142874
GRF 656423 Long-Term Care Program Support - State $ 3,385,057 $ 3,385,057 142875
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 14,647,425 $ 14,647,425 142876

General Services Fund Group142877

4800 490606 Senior Community Outreach and Education $ 372,523 $ 372,523 142878
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 142879
Group $ 372,523 $ 372,523 142880

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group142881

3220 490618 Federal Aging Grants $ 12,000,000 $ 12,000,000 142882
3C40 656623 Long-Term Care Program Support - Federal $ 3,385,057 $ 3,385,057 142883
3M40 490612 Federal Independence Services $ 58,655,080 $ 58,655,080 142884
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 142885
Fund Group $ 74,040,137 $ 74,040,137 142886

State Special Revenue Fund Group142887

4C40 490609 Regional Long-Term Care Ombudsman Program $ 935,000 $ 935,000 142888
5BA0 490620 Ombudsman Support $ 1,250,000 $ 1,250,000 142889
5K90 490613 Long-Term Care Consumers Guide $ 1,059,400 $ 1,059,400 142890
5MT0 490627 Board of Executives of LTSS $ 600,000 $ 600,000 142891
5W10 490616 Resident Services Coordinator Program $ 344,700 $ 344,700 142892
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 142893
Fund Group $ 4,189,100 $ 4,189,100 142894
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 93,249,185 $ 93,249,185 142895


       Section 209.20. LONG-TERM CARE142897

       Pursuant to an interagency agreement, the Department of 142898
Medicaid may designate the Department of Aging to perform 142899
assessments under section 5165.04 of the Revised Code. The 142900
Department of Aging shall provide long-term care consultations 142901
under section 173.42 of the Revised Code to assist individuals in 142902
planning for their long-term health care needs. 142903

       The Department of Aging shall administer the Medicaid 142904
waiver-funded PASSPORT Home Care Program, the Choices Program, the 142905
Assisted Living Program, and PACE as delegated by the Department 142906
of Medicaid in an interagency agreement. The foregoing 142907
appropriation items 656423, Long-Term Care Program Support - 142908
State, and 656623, Long-Term Care Program Support - Federal, may 142909
be used to support the Department of Aging's administrative costs 142910
associated with operating the PASSPORT, Choices, Assisted Living, 142911
and PACE programs.142912

       PERFORMANCE-BASED REIMBURSEMENT142913

       The Department of Aging may design and utilize a payment 142914
method for PASSPORT administrative agency operations that includes 142915
a pay-for-performance incentive component that is earned by a 142916
PASSPORT administrative agency when defined consumer and policy 142917
outcomes are achieved.142918

       Section 209.30.  LONG-TERM CARE OMBUDSMAN142919

       The foregoing appropriation item 490410, Long-Term Care 142920
Ombudsman, shall be used to fund ombudsman program activities as 142921
authorized in sections 173.14 to 173.27 and section 173.99 of the 142922
Revised Code.142923

       The State Ombudsman may explore the design of a payment 142924
method for the Ombudsman Program that includes a 142925
pay-for-performance incentive component that is earned by 142926
designated regional long-term care ombudsman programs. 142927

       SENIOR COMMUNITY SERVICES142928

       The foregoing appropriation item 490411, Senior Community 142929
Services, shall be used for services designated by the Department 142930
of Aging, including, but not limited to, home-delivered and 142931
congregate meals, transportation services, personal care services, 142932
respite services, adult day services, home repair, care 142933
coordination, prevention and disease self-management, and decision 142934
support systems. Service priority shall be given to low income, 142935
frail, and cognitively impaired persons 60 years of age and over. 142936
The department shall promote cost sharing by service recipients 142937
for those services funded with senior community services funds, 142938
including, when possible, sliding-fee scale payment systems based 142939
on the income of service recipients.142940

       ALZHEIMER'S RESPITE142941

       The foregoing appropriation item 490414, Alzheimer's Respite, 142942
shall be used to fund only Alzheimer's disease services under 142943
section 173.04 of the Revised Code.142944

       NATIONAL SENIOR SERVICE CORPS142945

       The foregoing appropriation item 490506, National Senior 142946
Service Corps, shall be used by the Department of Aging to fund 142947
grants for three Corporation for National and Community 142948
Service/Senior Corps programs: the Foster Grandparents Program, 142949
the Senior Companion Program, and the Retired Senior Volunteer 142950
Program. A recipient of these grant funds shall use the funds to 142951
support priorities established by the Department and the Ohio 142952
State Office of the Corporation for National and Community 142953
Service. The expenditure of these funds by any grant recipient 142954
shall be in accordance with Senior Corps policies and procedures, 142955
as stated in the Domestic Volunteer Service Act of 1973, as 142956
amended. Neither the Department nor any area agencies on aging 142957
that are involved in the distribution of these funds to 142958
lower-tiered grant recipients may use any portion of these funds 142959
to cover administrative costs. 142960

       SENIOR COMMUNITY OUTREACH AND EDUCATION142961

       The foregoing appropriation item 490606, Senior Community 142962
Outreach and Education, may be used to provide training to workers 142963
in the field of aging pursuant to division (G) of section 173.02 142964
of the Revised Code.142965

       TRANSFER OF APPROPRIATIONS - FEDERAL INDEPENDENCE SERVICES 142966
AND FEDERAL AGING GRANTS142967

       At the request of the Director of Aging, the Director of 142968
Budget and Management may transfer appropriation between 142969
appropriation items 490612, Federal Independence Services, and 142970
490618, Federal Aging Grants. The amounts transferred shall not 142971
exceed 30 per cent of the appropriation from which the transfer is 142972
made. Any transfers shall be reported by the Department of Aging 142973
to the Controlling Board at the next scheduled meeting of the 142974
board.142975

       REGIONAL LONG-TERM CARE OMBUDSMAN PROGRAM142976

       The foregoing appropriation item 490609, Regional Long-Term 142977
Care Ombudsman Program, shall be used to pay the costs of 142978
operating the regional long-term care ombudsman programs 142979
designated by the State Long-Term Care Ombudsman.142980

       TRANSFER OF RESIDENT PROTECTION FUNDS142981

       In each fiscal year, the Director of Budget and Management 142982
may transfer up to $1,250,000 cash from the Resident Protection 142983
Fund (Fund 4E30), which is used by the Department of Medicaid, to 142984
the Ombudsman Support Fund (Fund 5BA0), which is used by the 142985
Department of Aging.142986

       The Director of Aging and the Office of the State Long-Term 142987
Care Ombudsman may use moneys in the Ombudsman Support Fund (Fund 142988
5BA0) to implement a nursing home quality initiative as specified 142989
in section 173.60 of the Revised Code.142990

       LONG-TERM CARE CONSUMERS GUIDE142991

        The foregoing appropriation item 490613, Long-Term Care 142992
Consumers Guide, shall be used to conduct annual consumer 142993
satisfaction surveys and to pay for other administrative expenses 142994
related to the publication of the Ohio Long-Term Care Consumer 142995
Guide.142996

       CASH TRANSFER FROM THE GENERAL OPERATIONS FUND TO THE BOARD 142997
OF EXECUTIVES OF LONG-TERM SERVICES AND SUPPORTS FUND142998

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 142999
Director of Health shall certify to the Director of Budget and 143000
Management the cash balance relating to the Board of Examiners of 143001
Nursing Home Administrators in the General Operations Fund (Fund 143002
4700), used by the Department of Health. Upon receiving this 143003
certification, the Director of Budget and Management may transfer 143004
this cash from the General Operations Fund (Fund 4700) to the 143005
Board of Executives of Long-Term Services and Supports Fund (Fund 143006
5MT0), used by the Department of Aging. If this transfer occurs, 143007
the Director of Budget and Management shall cancel any existing 143008
encumbrances pertaining to the Board of Examiners of Nursing Home 143009
Administrators against appropriation item 440647, Fee Supported 143010
Programs, and re-establish them against appropriation item 490627, 143011
Board of Executives of LTSS. The re-established encumbrance 143012
amounts are hereby appropriated. 143013

       Section 209.40. DEPARTMENT OF AGING'S APPROPRIATION ITEM 143014
STRUCTURE143015

        Upon request from the Director of Aging, the Director of 143016
Budget and Management may establish new funds, new appropriation 143017
items, and appropriations in order to support the transition to a 143018
new appropriation item structure in the Department of Aging's 143019
budget. Also, upon request of the Director of Aging, the Director 143020
of Budget and Management may transfer appropriations between GRF 143021
appropriation items, transfer cash between any funds used by the 143022
Department of Aging, abolish existing funds used by the Department 143023
of Aging, and cancel and reestablish encumbrances. Any 143024
establishment of new funds or appropriation items, any transfers 143025
of appropriations or cash, and any increases in appropriation 143026
under this section are subject to Controlling Board approval.143027

       Section 209.50. UPDATING AUTHORIZING STATUTE CITATIONS143028

       As used in this section, "authorizing statute" means a 143029
Revised Code section or provision of a Revised Code section that 143030
is cited in the Ohio Administrative Code as the statute that 143031
authorizes the adoption of a rule.143032

       The Director of Aging is not required to amend any rule for 143033
the sole purpose of updating the citation in the Ohio 143034
Administrative Code to the rule's authorizing statute to reflect 143035
that this act renumbers the authorizing statute or relocates it to 143036
another Revised Code section. Such citations shall be updated as 143037
the Director amends the rules for other purposes.143038

       Section 211.10. AGR DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE143039

General Revenue Fund143040

GRF 700401 Animal Disease Control $ 3,936,687 $ 3,936,687 143041
GRF 700403 Dairy Division $ 1,088,115 $ 1,088,115 143042
GRF 700404 Ohio Proud $ 50,000 $ 50,000 143043
GRF 700406 Consumer Analytical Lab $ 1,287,556 $ 1,287,556 143044
GRF 700407 Food Safety $ 848,792 $ 848,792 143045
GRF 700409 Farmland Preservation $ 72,750 $ 72,750 143046
GRF 700412 Weights and Measures $ 600,000 $ 600,000 143047
GRF 700415 Poultry Inspection $ 542,978 $ 542,978 143048
GRF 700418 Livestock Regulation Program $ 1,108,071 $ 1,108,071 143049
GRF 700424 Livestock Testing and Inspections $ 102,770 $ 102,770 143050
GRF 700426 Dangerous and Restricted Animals $ 800,000 $ 800,000 143051
GRF 700427 High Volume Breeder Kennel Control $ 400,000 $ 200,000 143052
GRF 700499 Meat Inspection Program - State Share $ 4,175,097 $ 4,175,097 143053
GRF 700501 County Agricultural Societies $ 391,415 $ 391,415 143054
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 15,404,231 $ 15,204,231 143055

General Services Fund Group143056

5DA0 700644 Laboratory Administration Support $ 1,115,000 $ 1,115,000 143057
5GH0 700655 Central Support Indirect Cost $ 4,368,013 $ 4,404,073 143058
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 5,483,013 $ 5,519,073 143059

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group143060

3260 700618 Meat Inspection Program - Federal Share $ 4,450,000 $ 4,450,000 143061
3360 700617 Ohio Farm Loan Revolving Fund $ 150,000 $ 150,000 143062
3820 700601 Cooperative Contracts $ 4,500,000 $ 4,500,000 143063
3AB0 700641 Agricultural Easement $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 143064
3J40 700607 Indirect Cost $ 1,100,000 $ 1,100,000 143065
3R20 700614 Federal Plant Industry $ 1,606,000 $ 1,606,000 143066
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 143067
Fund Group $ 12,806,000 $ 12,806,000 143068

State Special Revenue Fund Group143069

4900 700651 License Plates - Sustainable Agriculture $ 10,000 $ 10,000 143070
4940 700612 Agricultural Commodity Marketing Program $ 218,000 $ 213,000 143071
4960 700626 Ohio Grape Industries $ 970,000 $ 970,000 143072
4970 700627 Commodity Handlers Regulatory Program $ 482,672 $ 482,672 143073
4C90 700605 Commercial Feed and Seed $ 1,760,000 $ 1,760,000 143074
4D20 700609 Auction Education $ 35,000 $ 35,000 143075
4E40 700606 Utility Radiological Safety $ 130,000 $ 130,000 143076
4P70 700610 Food Safety Inspection $ 1,017,328 $ 1,017,328 143077
4R00 700636 Ohio Proud Marketing $ 45,500 $ 45,500 143078
4R20 700637 Dairy Industry Inspection $ 1,738,247 $ 1,738,247 143079
4T60 700611 Poultry and Meat Inspection $ 120,000 $ 120,000 143080
5780 700620 Ride Inspection Fees $ 1,175,142 $ 1,175,142 143081
5880 700633 Brand Registration $ 5,000 $ 5,000 143082
5B80 700629 Auctioneers $ 340,000 $ 340,000 143083
5CP0 700652 License Plate Scholarships $ 10,000 $ 10,000 143084
5FC0 700648 Plant Pest Program $ 1,190,000 $ 1,190,000 143085
5H20 700608 Metrology Lab and Scale Certification $ 552,000 $ 552,000 143086
5L80 700604 Livestock Management Program $ 145,000 $ 145,000 143087
5MA0 700657 Dangerous and Restricted Animals $ 195,000 $ 195,000 143088
6520 700634 Animal and Consumer Analytical Laboratory $ 4,966,383 $ 4,966,383 143089
6690 700635 Pesticide, Fertilizer, and Lime Inspection Program $ 3,418,041 $ 3,418,041 143090
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 143091
Fund Group $ 18,523,313 $ 18,518,313 143092

Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group143093

7057 700632 Clean Ohio Agricultural Easement $ 310,000 $ 310,000 143094
TOTAL CLF Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group $ 310,000 $ 310,000 143095

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 52,526,557 $ 52,357,617 143096

       DANGEROUS AND RESTRICTED WILD ANIMALS143097

       The foregoing GRF appropriation item 700426, Dangerous and 143098
Restricted Animals, shall be used to administer the Dangerous and 143099
Restricted Wild Animal Permitting Program.143100

       COUNTY AGRICULTURAL SOCIETIES143101

       The foregoing appropriation item 700501, County Agricultural 143102
Societies, shall be used to reimburse county and independent 143103
agricultural societies for expenses related to Junior Fair 143104
activities.143105

       CLEAN OHIO AGRICULTURAL EASEMENT143106

       The foregoing appropriation item 700632, Clean Ohio 143107
Agricultural Easement, shall be used by the Department of 143108
Agriculture in administering Ohio Agricultural Easement Fund (Fund 143109
7057) projects pursuant to sections 901.21, 901.22, and 5301.67 to 143110
5301.70 of the Revised Code.143111

       Section 213.10. AIR AIR QUALITY DEVELOPMENT AUTHORITY143112

General Services Fund Group143113

5EG0 898608 Energy Strategy Development $ 240,681 $ 240,681 143114
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund $ 240,681 $ 240,681 143115

State Special Revenue Fund Group143116

4Z90 898602 Small Business Ombudsman $ 288,232 $ 288,232 143117
5700 898601 Operating Expenses $ 323,980 $ 323,980 143118
5A00 898603 Small Business Assistance $ 900,000 $ 1,125,000 143119
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 1,512,212 $ 1,737,212 143120
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,752,893 $ 1,977,893 143121


       Section 213.20.  ENERGY STRATEGY DEVELOPMENT143123

       The Energy Strategy Development Program shall develop energy 143124
initiatives, projects, and policy that align with the energy 143125
policy for the state. Issues addressed by such initiatives, 143126
projects, and policy shall not be limited to those governed by 143127
Chapter 3706. of the Revised Code. The Ohio Air Quality 143128
Development Authority shall be responsible for the monitoring of 143129
the program.143130

       There is hereby created in the state treasury the Energy 143131
Strategy Development Fund (Fund 5EG0). The fund shall consist of 143132
money credited to it and money obtained for advanced energy 143133
projects from federal or private grants, loans, or other sources. 143134
Money in the fund shall be used to carry out the purposes of the 143135
program. Interest earned on the money in the fund shall be 143136
credited to the General Revenue Fund.143137

       On July 1 of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible 143138
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management may transfer 143139
cash from the funds specified below, up to the amounts specified 143140
below, to the Energy Strategy Development Fund. Fund 5EG0 may 143141
accept contributions and transfers made to the fund. On July 1, 143142
2015, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Director shall 143143
transfer to the General Revenue Fund all cash credited to Fund 143144
5EG0. Upon completion of the transfer, Fund 5EG0 is abolished.143145

Fund Fund Name User FY 2014 FY 2015 143146
1310 State Agency Construction Project Service Ohio Facilities Construction Commission $27,405 $27,439 143147
5GH0 Central Support Indirect Cost Department of Agriculture $27,405 $27,439 143148
1350 Supportive Services Development Services Agency $27,405 $27,439 143149
2190 Central Support Indirect Cost Environmental Protection Agency $27,405 $27,439 143150
1570 Central Support Indirect Chargeback Department of Natural Resources $27,405 $27,439 143151
7002 Highway Operating Department of Transportation $39,150 $39,199 143152

       Section 213.30. REIMBURSEMENT TO AIR QUALITY DEVELOPMENT 143153
AUTHORITY TRUST ACCOUNT143154

       Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, 143155
the Air Quality Development Authority may reimburse the Air 143156
Quality Development Authority trust account established under 143157
section 3706.10 of the Revised Code from all operating funds of 143158
the agency for expenses pertaining to the administration and 143159
shared costs incurred by the Air Quality Development Authority in 143160
the execution of responsibilities as prescribed in Chapter 3706. 143161
of the Revised Code. Reimbursement shall be made by voucher and 143162
completed in accordance with the administrative indirect costs 143163
allocation plan approved by the Office of Budget and Management.143164

       Section 215.10. ARC STATE BOARD OF EXAMINERS OF ARCHITECTS143165

General Services Fund Group143166

4K90 891609 Operating $ 481,379 $ 485,954 143167
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 143168
Group $ 481,379 $ 485,954 143169
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 481,379 $ 485,954 143170


       Section 217.10. ART OHIO ARTS COUNCIL143172

General Revenue Fund143173

GRF 370321 Operating Expenses $ 1,649,204 $ 1,649,204 143174
GRF 370502 State Program Subsidies $ 9,675,000 $ 9,675,000 143175
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 11,324,204 $ 11,324,204 143176

General Services Fund Group143177

4600 370602 Management Expenses and Donations $ 247,000 $ 247,000 143178
4B70 370603 Percent for Art Acquisitions $ 247,000 $ 247,000 143179
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 494,000 $ 494,000 143180

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group143181

3140 370601 Federal Support $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 143182
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 143183
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 12,818,204 $ 12,818,204 143184

       OPERATING EXPENSES143185

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 370321, Operating 143186
Expenses, up to $50,000 shall be used in each fiscal year for 143187
technology upgrades and improvements.143188

       FEDERAL SUPPORT143189

       Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 143190
foregoing appropriation item 370601, Federal Support, shall be 143191
used by the Ohio Arts Council for subsidies only, and not for its 143192
administrative costs, unless the Council is required to use a 143193
portion of the funds for administrative costs under conditions of 143194
the federal grant.143195

       Section 219.10. ATH ATHLETIC COMMISSION143196

General Services Fund Group143197

4K90 175609 Operating Expenses $ 312,000 $ 320,000 143198
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 312,000 $ 320,000 143199
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 312,000 $ 320,000 143200


       Section 221.10. AGO ATTORNEY GENERAL143202

General Revenue Fund143203

GRF 055321 Operating Expenses $ 42,514,169 $ 42,514,169 143204
GRF 055405 Law-Related Education $ 100,000 $ 100,000 143205
GRF 055407 Tobacco Settlement Enforcement $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 143206
GRF 055411 County Sheriffs' Pay Supplement $ 757,921 $ 757,921 143207
GRF 055415 County Prosecutors' Pay Supplement $ 831,499 $ 831,499 143208
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 45,703,589 $ 45,703,589 143209

General Services Fund Group143210

1060 055612 General Reimbursement $ 54,806,192 $ 55,820,716 143211
1950 055660 Workers' Compensation Section $ 8,415,504 $ 8,415,504 143212
4180 055615 Charitable Foundations $ 8,286,000 $ 8,286,000 143213
4200 055603 Attorney General Antitrust $ 1,839,074 $ 1,839,074 143214
4210 055617 Police Officers' Training Academy Fee $ 500,000 $ 500,000 143215
4Z20 055609 BCI Asset Forfeiture and Cost Reimbursement $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 143216
5900 055633 Peace Officer Private Security Fund $ 79,438 $ 95,325 143217
5A90 055618 Telemarketing Fraud Enforcement $ 45,000 $ 10,000 143218
5L50 055619 Law Enforcement Assistance Program $ 375,255 $ 187,627 143219
5LR0 055655 Peace Officer Training - Casino $ 4,629,409 $ 4,629,409 143220
5MP0 055657 Peace Officer Training Commission $ 25,000 $ 25,000 143221
6310 055637 Consumer Protection Enforcement $ 6,700,000 $ 6,834,000 143222
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 143223
Group $ 86,700,872 $ 87,642,655 143224

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group143225

3060 055620 Medicaid Fraud Control $ 4,537,408 $ 4,628,156 143226
3810 055611 Civil Rights Legal Service $ 75,000 $ 35,574 143227
3830 055634 Crime Victims Assistance $ 15,000,000 $ 15,000,000 143228
3E50 055638 Attorney General Pass-Through Funds $ 599,999 $ 599,999 143229
3FV0 055656 Crime Victim Compensation $ 7,000,000 $ 7,000,000 143230
3R60 055613 Attorney General Federal Funds $ 999,999 $ 999,999 143231
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 143232
Fund Group $ 28,212,406 $ 28,263,728 143233

State Special Revenue Fund Group143234

4020 055616 Victims of Crime $ 16,456,769 $ 16,456,769 143235
4190 055623 Claims Section $ 55,920,716 $ 56,937,131 143236
4L60 055606 DARE Programs $ 3,578,901 $ 3,486,209 143237
4Y70 055608 Title Defect Recision $ 600,000 $ 600,000 143238
6590 055641 Solid and Hazardous Waste Background Investigations $ 310,730 $ 310,730 143239
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 143240
Fund Group $ 76,867,116 $ 77,790,839 143241

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group143242

R004 055631 General Holding Account $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 143243
R005 055632 Antitrust Settlements $ 1,000 $ 1,000 143244
R018 055630 Consumer Frauds $ 750,000 $ 750,000 143245
R042 055601 Organized Crime Commission Distributions $ 25,025 $ 25,025 143246
R054 055650 Collection Payment Redistribution $ 4,500,000 $ 4,500,000 143247
TOTAL 090 Holding Account 143248
Redistribution Fund Group $ 6,276,025 $ 6,276,025 143249

Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group143250

U087 055402 Tobacco Settlement Oversight, Administration, and Enforcement $ 500,000 $ 500,000 143251
TOTAL TSF Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group $ 500,000 $ 500,000 143252
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 244,260,008 $ 246,176,836 143253

       COUNTY SHERIFFS' PAY SUPPLEMENT143254

        The foregoing appropriation item 055411, County Sheriffs' Pay 143255
Supplement, shall be used for the purpose of supplementing the 143256
annual compensation of county sheriffs as required by section 143257
325.06 of the Revised Code.143258

       At the request of the Attorney General, the Director of 143259
Budget and Management may transfer appropriation from 143260
appropriation item 055321, Operating Expenses, to appropriation 143261
item 055411, County Sheriffs' Pay Supplement. Any appropriation so 143262
transferred shall be used to supplement the annual compensation of 143263
county sheriffs as required by section 325.06 of the Revised Code.143264

       COUNTY PROSECUTORS' PAY SUPPLEMENT143265

       The foregoing appropriation item 055415, County Prosecutors' 143266
Pay Supplement, shall be used for the purpose of supplementing the 143267
annual compensation of certain county prosecutors as required by 143268
section 325.111 of the Revised Code.143269

       At the request of the Attorney General, the Director of 143270
Budget and Management may transfer appropriation from 143271
appropriation item 055321, Operating Expenses, to appropriation 143272
item 055415, County Prosecutors' Pay Supplement. Any appropriation 143273
so transferred shall be used to supplement the annual compensation 143274
of county prosecutors as required by section 325.111 of the 143275
Revised Code.143276

       CASH TRANSFER FROM THE GENERAL REVENUE FUND TO THE GENERAL 143277
REIMBURSEMENT FUND143278

        Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, 143279
on July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Director 143280
of Budget and Management shall transfer $80,000 cash from the 143281
General Revenue Fund to the General Reimbursement Fund (Fund 143282
1060).143283

       OHIO BCI FORENSIC RESEARCH AND PROFESSIONAL TRAINING CENTER143284

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 055612, General 143285
Reimbursement, $600,000 in fiscal year 2015 shall be used to 143286
create the Ohio BCI Forensic Research and Professional Training 143287
Center at Bowling Green State University. The purpose of the 143288
Center shall be to foster forensic science research techniques 143289
(BCI Eminent Scholar) and to create professional training 143290
opportunities to students (BCI Scholars) in the forensic science 143291
fields.143292

       WORKERS' COMPENSATION SECTION143293

       The Workers' Compensation Fund (Fund 1950) is entitled to 143294
receive payments from the Bureau of Workers' Compensation and the 143295
Ohio Industrial Commission at the beginning of each quarter of 143296
each fiscal year to fund legal services to be provided to the 143297
Bureau of Workers' Compensation and the Ohio Industrial Commission 143298
during the ensuing quarter. The advance payment shall be subject 143299
to adjustment.143300

       In addition, the Bureau of Workers' Compensation shall 143301
transfer payments at the beginning of each quarter for the support 143302
of the Workers' Compensation Fraud Unit.143303

       All amounts shall be mutually agreed upon by the Attorney 143304
General, the Bureau of Workers' Compensation, and the Ohio 143305
Industrial Commission.143306

       ATTORNEY GENERAL PASS-THROUGH FUNDS143307

        The foregoing appropriation item 055638, Attorney General 143308
Pass-Through Funds, shall be used to receive federal grant funds 143309
provided to the Attorney General by other state agencies, 143310
including, but not limited to, the Department of Youth Services 143311
and the Department of Public Safety.143312

       GENERAL HOLDING ACCOUNT143313

       The foregoing appropriation item 055631, General Holding 143314
Account, shall be used to distribute moneys under the terms of 143315
relevant court orders or other settlements received in a variety 143316
of cases involving the Office of the Attorney General. If it is 143317
determined that additional amounts are necessary for this purpose, 143318
the amounts are hereby appropriated.143319

        ANTITRUST SETTLEMENTS143320

       The foregoing appropriation item 055632, Antitrust 143321
Settlements, shall be used to distribute moneys under the terms of 143322
relevant court orders or other out of court settlements in 143323
antitrust cases or antitrust matters involving the Office of the 143324
Attorney General. If it is determined that additional amounts are 143325
necessary for this purpose, the amounts are hereby appropriated.143326

       CONSUMER FRAUDS143327

        The foregoing appropriation item 055630, Consumer Frauds, 143328
shall be used for distribution of moneys from court-ordered 143329
judgments against sellers in actions brought by the Office of 143330
Attorney General under sections 1334.08 and 4549.48 and division 143331
(B) of section 1345.07 of the Revised Code. These moneys shall be 143332
used to provide restitution to consumers victimized by the fraud 143333
that generated the court-ordered judgments. If it is determined 143334
that additional amounts are necessary for this purpose, the 143335
amounts are hereby appropriated.143336

       ORGANIZED CRIME COMMISSION DISTRIBUTIONS143337

        The foregoing appropriation item 055601, Organized Crime 143338
Commission Distributions, shall be used by the Organized Crime 143339
Investigations Commission, as provided by section 177.011 of the 143340
Revised Code, to reimburse political subdivisions for the expenses 143341
the political subdivisions incur when their law enforcement 143342
officers participate in an organized crime task force. If it is 143343
determined that additional amounts are necessary for this purpose, 143344
the amounts are hereby appropriated.143345

       COLLECTION PAYMENT REDISTRIBUTION143346

        The foregoing appropriation item 055650, Collection Payment 143347
Redistribution, shall be used for the purpose of allocating the 143348
revenue where debtors mistakenly paid the client agencies instead 143349
of the Attorney General's Collections Enforcement Section. If it 143350
is determined that additional amounts are necessary for this 143351
purpose, the amounts are hereby appropriated.143352

       Section 223.10. AUD AUDITOR OF STATE143353

General Revenue Fund143354

GRF 070321 Operating Expenses $ 27,434,452 $ 27,434,452 143355
GRF 070403 Fiscal Watch/Emergency Technical Assistance $ 800,000 $ 800,000 143356
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 28,234,452 $ 28,234,452 143357

Auditor of State Fund Group143358

1090 070601 Public Audit Expense - Intra-State $ 9,069,804 $ 9,196,081 143359
4220 070602 Public Audit Expense - Local Government $ 31,052,999 $ 31,031,044 143360
5840 070603 Training Program $ 181,730 $ 181,250 143361
5JZ0 070606 LEAP Revolving Loans $ 650,000 $ 650,000 143362
6750 070605 Uniform Accounting Network $ 3,241,533 $ 3,160,637 143363
TOTAL AUD Auditor of State Fund 143364
Group $ 44,196,066 $ 44,219,012 143365
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 72,430,518 $ 72,453,464 143366

       FISCAL WATCH/EMERGENCY TECHNICAL ASSISTANCE143367

       The foregoing appropriation item 070403, Fiscal 143368
Watch/Emergency Technical Assistance, shall be used for expenses 143369
incurred by the Office of the Auditor of State in its role 143370
relating to fiscal watch or fiscal emergency activities under 143371
Chapters 118. and 3316. of the Revised Code. Expenses include, but 143372
are not limited to, the following: duties related to the 143373
determination or termination of fiscal watch or fiscal emergency 143374
of municipal corporations, counties, townships, or school 143375
districts; development of preliminary accounting reports; 143376
performance of annual forecasts; provision of performance audits; 143377
and supervisory, accounting, or auditing services for the 143378
municipal corporations, counties, townships, or school districts.143379

       Section 225.10. BRB BOARD OF BARBER EXAMINERS143380

General Services Fund Group143381

4K90 877609 Operating Expenses $ 670,882 $ 674,272 143382
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 143383
Group $ 670,882 $ 674,272 143384
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 670,882 $ 674,272 143385


       Section 227.10. OBM OFFICE OF BUDGET AND MANAGEMENT143387

General Revenue Fund143388

GRF 042321 Budget Development and Implementation $ 2,703,189 $ 2,697,483 143389
GRF 042409 Commission Closures $ 304,000 $ 155,000 143390
GRF 042416 Office of Health Transformation $ 484,486 $ 498,571 143391
GRF 042425 Shared Services Development $ 1,250,000 $ 1,250,000 143392
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 4,741,675 $ 4,601,054 143393

General Services Fund Group143394

1050 042603 Financial Management $ 14,060,275 $ 14,451,086 143395
1050 042620 Shared Services Operating $ 8,837,518 $ 8,924,830 143396
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 22,897,793 $ 23,375,916 143397

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group143398

3CM0 042606 Office of Health Transformation - Federal $ 438,723 $ 438,723 143399
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 438,723 $ 438,723 143400

Agency Fund Group143401

5EH0 042604 Forgery Recovery $ 40,000 $ 40,000 143402
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 40,000 $ 40,000 143403
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 28,118,191 $ 28,455,693 143404

       COMMISSION CLOSURES143405

       The foregoing appropriation item 042409, Commission Closures, 143406
may be used to pay obligations associated with the closure of any 143407
state agency, whether in the executive, legislative, or judicial 143408
branch of government. Notwithstanding any provision of law to the 143409
contrary, this appropriation item may also be used to pay final 143410
payroll expenses occurring after the closure of any state agency, 143411
whether in the executive, legislative, or judicial branch of 143412
government in the event that appropriations or cash in the closing 143413
agency are insufficient to do so. 143414

       The Director of Budget and Management may request Controlling 143415
Board approval for funds to be transferred to appropriation item 143416
042409, Commission Closures, from appropriation item 911614, CB 143417
Emergency Purposes, for anticipated expenses associated with 143418
agency closures.143419

       AUDIT COSTS AND DUES143420

       All centralized audit costs associated with either Single 143421
Audit Schedules or financial statements prepared in conformance 143422
with generally accepted accounting principles for the state shall 143423
be paid from the foregoing appropriation item 042603, Financial 143424
Management.143425

       Costs associated with the audit of the Auditor of State and 143426
national association dues shall be paid from the foregoing 143427
appropriation item 042321, Budget Development and Implementation.143428

       SHARED SERVICES CENTER143429

       The foregoing appropriation items 042425, Shared Services 143430
Development, and 042620, Shared Services Operating, shall be used 143431
by the Director of Budget and Management to support a Shared 143432
Services Center within the Office of Budget and Management for the 143433
purpose of consolidating statewide business functions and common 143434
transactional processes.143435

        The Director of Budget and Management shall include the 143436
recovery of costs to operate the Shared Services Center in the 143437
accounting and budgeting services payroll rate and through a 143438
direct charges using intrastate transfer vouchers to agencies for 143439
services rendered. The Director of Budget and Management shall 143440
determine the cost recovery methodology. Such cost recovery 143441
revenues shall be deposited to the credit of Fund 1050.143442

       INTERNAL AUDIT 143443

       The Director of Budget and Management shall include the 143444
recovery of costs to operate the Internal Audit Program in the 143445
accounting and budgeting services payroll rate and through a 143446
direct charge using intrastate transfer vouchers to agencies 143447
reviewed by the program. The Director of Budget and Management, 143448
with advice from the Internal Audit Advisory Council, shall 143449
determine the cost recovery methodology. Such cost recovery 143450
revenues shall be deposited to the credit of the Accounting and 143451
Budgeting Fund (Fund 1050).143452

       FORGERY RECOVERY143453

       The foregoing appropriation item 042604, Forgery Recovery, 143454
shall be used to reissue warrants that have been certified as 143455
forgeries by the rightful recipient as determined by the Bureau of 143456
Criminal Identification and Investigation and the Treasurer of 143457
State. Upon receipt of funds to cover the reissuance of the 143458
warrant, the Director of Budget and Management shall reissue a 143459
state warrant of the same amount. Any additional amounts needed to 143460
reissue warrants backed by the receipt of funds are hereby 143461
appropriated.143462

       ABOLISHMENT OF FUND 5N40 AND FUND 5Z80143463

       On or before December 31, 2013, the Director of Budget and 143464
Management shall transfer the cash balances of the OAKS Project 143465
Implementation Fund (Fund 5N40) and the Office of Health 143466
Transformation Administration Fund (Fund 5Z80) to the General 143467
Revenue Fund. Upon completion of the transfers, Fund 5N40 and Fund 143468
5Z80 are abolished.143469

       Section 229.10. CSR CAPITOL SQUARE REVIEW AND ADVISORY BOARD143470

General Revenue Fund143471

GRF 874100 Personal Services $ 2,417,467 $ 2,417,467 143472
GRF 874320 Maintenance and Equipment $ 1,161,098 $ 1,161,098 143473
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 3,578,565 $ 3,578,565 143474

General Services Fund Group143475

4G50 874603 Capitol Square Education Center and Arts $ 5,882 $ 5,882 143476
4S70 874602 Statehouse Gift Shop/Events $ 629,409 $ 629,409 143477
TOTAL GSF General Services 143478
Fund Group $ 635,291 $ 635,291 143479

Underground Parking Garage143480

2080 874601 Underground Parking Garage Operations $ 3,049,740 $ 2,996,740 143481
TOTAL UPG Underground Parking 143482
Garage $ 3,049,740 $ 2,996,740 143483
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 7,263,596 $ 7,210,596 143484

       WAREHOUSE PAYMENTS143485

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 874601, Underground 143486
Parking Garage Operations, $48,000 in each fiscal year shall be 143487
used to meet all payments at the times they are required to be 143488
made during the period from July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015, 143489
to the Department of Administrative Services for bond service 143490
charges relating to the purchase and improvement of a warehouse 143491
acquired pursuant to section 105.41 of the Revised Code, in which 143492
to store items of the Capitol Collection Trust and, whenever 143493
necessary, equipment or other property of the Board.143494

       UNDERGROUND PARKING GARAGE FUND143495

       Notwithstanding division (G) of section 105.41 of the Revised 143496
Code and any other provision to the contrary, moneys in the 143497
Underground Parking Garage Fund (Fund 2080) may be used for 143498
personnel and operating costs related to the operations of the 143499
Statehouse and the Statehouse Underground Parking Garage.143500

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 874601, Underground 143501
Parking Garage Operations, up to $10,000 in fiscal year 2014 shall 143502
be used to support the 1st Ohio Light Artillery Battery A for the 143503
150th Anniversary Reenactment of the Battle of Gettysburg, and up 143504
to $15,000 in fiscal year 2015 shall be used for preparations in 143505
anticipation of the Lincoln Funeral Procession Train.143506

       Section 231.10. SCR STATE BOARD OF CAREER COLLEGES AND 143507
SCHOOLS143508

General Services Fund Group143509

4K90 233601 Operating Expenses $ 579,328 $ 579,328 143510
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 579,328 $ 579,328 143511
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 579,328 $ 579,328 143512


       Section 233.10. CAC CASINO CONTROL COMMISSION143514

State Special Revenue Fund Group143515

5HS0 955321 Casino Control - Operating $ 13,121,283 $ 13,542,674 143516
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 13,121,283 $ 13,542,674 143517
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 13,121,283 $ 13,542,674 143518


       Section 235.10. CDP CHEMICAL DEPENDENCY PROFESSIONALS BOARD143520

General Services Fund Group143521

4K90 930609 Operating Expenses $ 476,642 $ 469,349 143522
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 476,642 $ 469,349 143523
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 476,642 $ 469,349 143524


       Section 237.10. CHR STATE CHIROPRACTIC BOARD143526

General Services Fund Group143527

4K90 878609 Operating Expenses $ 617,829 $ 630,775 143528
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 617,829 $ 630,775 143529
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 617,829 $ 630,775 143530


       Section 239.10. CIV OHIO CIVIL RIGHTS COMMISSION143532

General Revenue Fund143533

GRF 876321 Operating Expenses $ 4,725,784 $ 4,725,784 143534
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 4,725,784 $ 4,725,784 143535

General Services Fund Group143536

2170 876604 Operations Support $ 4,000 $ 4,000 143537
TOTAL GSF General Services 143538
Fund Group $ 4,000 $ 4,000 143539

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group143540

3340 876601 Federal Programs $ 2,820,670 $ 2,947,983 143541
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 143542
Fund Group $ 2,820,670 $ 2,947,983 143543

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 7,550,454 $ 7,677,767 143544


       Section 241.10. COM DEPARTMENT OF COMMERCE143546

General Services Fund Group143547

1630 800620 Division of Administration $ 6,200,000 $ 6,200,000 143548
1630 800637 Information Technology $ 6,011,977 $ 6,011,977 143549
5430 800602 Unclaimed Funds-Operating $ 7,737,546 $ 7,737,546 143550
5430 800625 Unclaimed Funds-Claims $ 64,000,000 $ 64,000,000 143551
5F10 800635 Small Government Fire Departments $ 300,000 $ 300,000 143552
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 143553
Group $ 84,249,523 $ 84,249,523 143554

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group143555

3480 800622 Underground Storage Tanks $ 1,129,518 $ 1,129,518 143556
3480 800624 Leaking Underground Storage Tanks $ 1,556,211 $ 1,556,211 143557
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 143558
Fund Group $ 2,685,729 $ 2,685,729 143559

State Special Revenue Fund Group143560

4B20 800631 Real Estate Appraisal Recovery $ 35,000 $ 35,000 143561
4H90 800608 Cemeteries $ 266,688 $ 266,688 143562
4X20 800619 Financial Institutions $ 1,854,298 $ 1,854,298 143563
5440 800612 Banks $ 6,836,589 $ 6,836,589 143564
5450 800613 Savings Institutions $ 2,259,536 $ 2,259,536 143565
5460 800610 Fire Marshal $ 15,315,738 $ 15,324,574 143566
5460 800639 Fire Department Grants $ 2,198,802 $ 2,198,802 143567
5470 800603 Real Estate Education/Research $ 69,655 $ 69,655 143568
5480 800611 Real Estate Recovery $ 50,000 $ 50,000 143569
5490 800614 Real Estate $ 3,310,412 $ 3,310,412 143570
5500 800617 Securities $ 4,238,814 $ 4,238,814 143571
5520 800604 Credit Union $ 3,297,888 $ 3,297,888 143572
5530 800607 Consumer Finance $ 3,481,692 $ 3,481,692 143573
5560 800615 Industrial Compliance $ 26,612,520 $ 27,104,205 143574
5FW0 800616 Financial Literacy Education $ 200,000 $ 200,000 143575
5GK0 800609 Securities Investor Education/Enforcement $ 432,150 $ 432,150 143576
5HV0 800641 Cigarette Enforcement $ 118,800 $ 118,800 143577
5LP0 800646 Liquor Regulatory Operating Expenses $ 7,988,921 $ 7,844,537 143578
5X60 800623 Video Service $ 337,224 $ 337,224 143579
6530 800629 UST Registration/Permit Fee $ 3,831,888 $ 3,612,588 143580
6A40 800630 Real Estate Appraiser-Operating $ 672,973 $ 672,973 143581
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 143582
Fund Group $ 83,409,588 $ 83,546,425 143583

Liquor Control Fund Group143584

5LC0 800644 Liquor JobsOhio Extraordinary Allowance $ 557,974 $ 372,661 143585
5LN0 800645 Liquor Operating Services $ 13,949,342 $ 9,316,535 143586
TOTAL LCF Liquor Control 143587
Fund Group $ 14,507,316 $ 9,689,196 143588
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 184,852,156 $ 180,170,873 143589

       ADMINISTRATIVE ASSESSMENTS143590

       Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, 143591
the Division of Administration Fund (Fund 1630) is entitled to 143592
receive assessments from all operating funds of the Department in 143593
accordance with procedures prescribed by the Director of Commerce 143594
and approved by the Director of Budget and Management.143595

       UNCLAIMED FUNDS PAYMENTS143596

       The foregoing appropriation item 800625, Unclaimed 143597
Funds-Claims, shall be used to pay claims under section 169.08 of 143598
the Revised Code. If it is determined that additional amounts are 143599
necessary, the amounts are appropriated.143600

       FIRE DEPARTMENT GRANTS143601

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 800639, Fire Department 143602
Grants, up to $2,198,802 in each fiscal year shall be used to make 143603
annual grants to the following eligible recipients: volunteer fire 143604
departments, fire departments that serve one or more small 143605
municipalities or small townships, joint fire districts comprised 143606
of fire departments that primarily serve small municipalities or 143607
small townships, local units of government responsible for such 143608
fire departments, and local units of government responsible for 143609
the provision of fire protection services for small municipalities 143610
or small townships. For the purposes of these grants, a private 143611
fire company, as that phrase is defined in section 9.60 of the 143612
Revised Code, that is providing fire protection services under a 143613
contract to a political subdivision of the state, is an additional 143614
eligible recipient for a training grant.143615

       Eligible recipients that consist of small municipalities or 143616
small townships that all intend to contract with the same fire 143617
department or private fire company for fire protection services 143618
may jointly apply and be considered for a grant. If a joint 143619
applicant is awarded a grant, the State Fire Marshal shall, if 143620
feasible, proportionately award the grant and any equipment 143621
purchased with grant funds to each of the joint applicants based 143622
upon each applicant's contribution to and demonstrated need for 143623
fire protection services.143624

       If the grant awarded to joint applicants is an equipment 143625
grant and the equipment to be purchased cannot be readily 143626
distributed or possessed by multiple recipients, each of the joint 143627
applicants shall be awarded by the State Fire Marshal an ownership 143628
interest in the equipment so purchased in proportion to each 143629
applicant's contribution to and demonstrated need for fire 143630
protection services. The joint applicants shall then mutually 143631
agree on how the equipment is to be maintained, operated, stored, 143632
or disposed of. If, for any reason, the joint applicants cannot 143633
agree as to how jointly owned equipment is to be maintained, 143634
operated, stored, or disposed of or any of the joint applicants no 143635
longer maintain a contract with the same fire protection service 143636
provider as the other applicants, then the joint applicants shall, 143637
with the assistance of the State Fire Marshal, mutually agree as 143638
to how the jointly owned equipment is to be maintained, operated, 143639
stored, disposed of, or owned. If the joint applicants cannot 143640
agree how the grant equipment is to be maintained, operated, 143641
stored, disposed of, or owned, the State Fire Marshal may, in its 143642
discretion, require all of the equipment acquired by the joint 143643
applicants with grant funds to be returned to the State Fire 143644
Marshal. The State Fire Marshal may then award the returned 143645
equipment to any eligible recipients.143646

       Except as otherwise provided in this section, the grants 143647
shall be used by recipients to purchase firefighting or rescue 143648
equipment or gear or similar items, to provide full or partial 143649
reimbursement for the documented costs of firefighter training, 143650
or, at the discretion of the State Fire Marshal, to cover fire 143651
department costs for providing fire protection services in that 143652
grant recipient's jurisdiction. 143653

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 800639, up to $500,000 143654
per fiscal year may be used to pay for the State Fire Marshal's 143655
costs of providing firefighter I certification classes or other 143656
firefighter classes approved by the Department of Public Safety in 143657
accordance with section 4765.55 of the Revised Code at no cost to 143658
selected students attending the Ohio Fire Academy or other class 143659
providers approved by the State Fire Marshal. The State Fire 143660
Marshal may establish the qualifications and selection processes 143661
for students to attend such classes by written policy, and such 143662
students shall be considered eligible recipients of fire 143663
department grants for the purposes of this portion of the grant 143664
program.143665

       Grant awards for firefighting or rescue equipment or gear or 143666
for fire department costs of providing fire protection services 143667
shall be up to $15,000 per fiscal year, or up to $25,000 per 143668
fiscal year if an eligible entity serves a jurisdiction in which 143669
the Governor declared a natural disaster during the preceding or 143670
current fiscal year in which the grant was awarded. In addition to 143671
any grant funds awarded for rescue equipment or gear, or for fire 143672
department costs associated with the provision of fire protection 143673
services, an eligible entity may receive a grant for up to $15,000 143674
per fiscal year for full or partial reimbursement of the 143675
documented costs of firefighter training. For each fiscal year, 143676
the State Fire Marshal shall determine the total amounts to be 143677
allocated for each eligible purpose.143678

       The grant program shall be administered by the State Fire 143679
Marshal in accordance with rules the State Fire Marshal adopts as 143680
part of the state fire code adopted pursuant to section 3737.82 of 143681
the Revised Code that are necessary for the administration and 143682
operation of the grant program. The rules may further define the 143683
entities eligible to receive grants and establish criteria for the 143684
awarding and expenditure of grant funds, including methods the 143685
State Fire Marshal may use to verify the proper use of grant funds 143686
or to obtain reimbursement for or the return of equipment for 143687
improperly used grant funds. Any amounts in appropriation item 143688
800639, Fire Department Grants, in excess of the amount allocated 143689
for these grants may be used for the administration of the grant 143690
program.143691

       CASH TRANSFERS TO DIVISION OF REAL ESTATE OPERATING FUND143692

       The Director of Budget and Management, upon the request of 143693
the Director of Commerce, may transfer up to $500,000 in cash from 143694
the Real Estate Recovery Fund (Fund 5480) and up to $250,000 in 143695
cash from the Real Estate Appraiser Recovery Fund (Fund 4B20) to 143696
the Division of Real Estate Operating Fund (Fund 5490) during the 143697
biennium ending June 30, 2015.143698

       Section 243.10. OCC OFFICE OF CONSUMERS' COUNSEL143699

General Services Fund Group143700

5F50 053601 Operating Expenses $ 5,641,093 $ 5,641,093 143701
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 5,641,093 $ 5,641,093 143702
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 5,641,093 $ 5,641,093 143703


       Section 245.10. CEB CONTROLLING BOARD143705

General Revenue Fund143706

GRF 911441 Ballot Advertising Costs $ 475,000 $ 475,000 143707
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 475,000 $ 475,000 143708

General Services Fund Group143709

5KM0 911614 CB Emergency Purposes $ 10,000,000 $ 10,000,000 143710
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 10,000,000 $ 10,000,000 143711
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 10,475,000 $ 10,475,000 143712

       FEDERAL SHARE143713

       In transferring appropriations to or from appropriation items 143714
that have federal shares identified in this act, the Controlling 143715
Board shall add or subtract corresponding amounts of federal 143716
matching funds at the percentages indicated by the state and 143717
federal division of the appropriations in this act. Such changes 143718
are hereby appropriated.143719

       DISASTER SERVICES143720

        Pursuant to requests submitted by the Department of Public 143721
Safety, the Controlling Board may approve transfers from the 143722
Disaster Services Fund (5E20) to a fund and appropriation item 143723
used by the Department of Public Safety to provide for assistance 143724
to political subdivisions made necessary by natural disasters or 143725
emergencies. These transfers may be requested and approved prior 143726
to the occurrence of any specific natural disasters or emergencies 143727
in order to facilitate the provision of timely assistance. The 143728
Emergency Management Agency of the Department of Public Safety 143729
shall use the funding to fund the State Disaster Relief Program 143730
for disasters that have a written Governor's authorization, and 143731
the State Individual Assistance Program for disasters that have a 143732
written Governor's authorization and is declared by the federal 143733
Small Business Administration. The Ohio Emergency Management 143734
Agency shall publish and make available application packets 143735
outlining procedures for the State Disaster Relief Program and the 143736
State Individual Assistance Program.143737

       Fund 5E20 shall be used by the Controlling Board, pursuant to 143738
requests submitted by state agencies, to transfer cash and 143739
appropriations to any fund and appropriation item for the payment 143740
of state agency disaster relief program expenses for disasters 143741
that have a written Governor's authorization, if the Director of 143742
Budget and Management determines that sufficient funds exist.143743

       Upon the request of the Department of Public Safety, the 143744
Controlling Board may release up to $3,000,000 for Blanchard River 143745
flood mitigation projects.143746

       BALLOT ADVERTISING COSTS143747

       Pursuant to section 3501.17 of the Revised Code, and upon 143748
requests submitted by the Secretary of State, the Controlling 143749
Board shall approve transfers from the foregoing appropriation 143750
item 911441, Ballot Advertising Costs, to appropriation item 143751
050621, Statewide Ballot Advertising, in order to pay for the cost 143752
of public notices associated with statewide ballot initiatives.143753

       CAPITAL APPROPRIATION INCREASE FOR FEDERAL STIMULUS 143754
ELIGIBILITY143755

        A state agency director shall request that the Controlling 143756
Board increase the amount of the agency's capital appropriations 143757
if the director determines such an increase is necessary for the 143758
agency to receive and use funds under the federal American 143759
Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009. The Controlling Board may 143760
increase the capital appropriations pursuant to the request up to 143761
the exact amount necessary under the federal act if the Board 143762
determines it is necessary for the agency to receive and use those 143763
federal funds.143764

       Section 247.10. COS STATE BOARD OF COSMETOLOGY143765

General Services Fund Group143766

4K90 879609 Operating Expenses $ 3,474,030 $ 3,474,030 143767
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 143768
Group $ 3,474,030 $ 3,474,030 143769
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 3,474,030 $ 3,474,030 143770


       Section 249.10. CSW COUNSELOR, SOCIAL WORKER, AND MARRIAGE 143772
AND FAMILY THERAPIST BOARD143773

General Services Fund Group143774

4K90 899609 Operating Expenses $ 1,265,856 $ 1,281,478 143775
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 143776
Group $ 1,265,856 $ 1,281,478 143777
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,265,856 $ 1,281,478 143778


       Section 251.10. CLA COURT OF CLAIMS143780

General Revenue Fund143781

GRF 015321 Operating Expenses $ 2,501,052 $ 2,501,052 143782
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 2,501,052 $ 2,501,052 143783

State Special Revenue Fund Group143784

5K20 015603 CLA Victims of Crime $ 415,556 $ 415,953 143785
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 143786
Fund Group $ 415,556 $ 415,953 143787
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 2,916,608 $ 2,917,005 143788


       Section 251.20. AFC OHIO CULTURAL FACILITIES COMMISSION143790

General Revenue Fund143791

GRF 371401 Lease Rental Payments $ 22,555,872 $ 0 143792
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 22,555,872 $ 0 143793

State Special Revenue Fund Group143794

4T80 371601 Riffe Theatre Equipment Maintenance $ 40,446 $ 0 143795
4T80 371603 Project Administration Services $ 250,000 $ 0 143796
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Group $ 290,446 $ 0 143797
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 22,846,318 $ 0 143798

       LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS143799

       The foregoing appropriation item 371401, Lease Rental 143800
Payments, shall be used to meet all payments at the times they are 143801
required to be made during the period from July 1, 2013, through 143802
December 31, 2013, from the Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission 143803
under the primary leases and agreements for those arts and sports 143804
facilities made under Chapters 152. and 154. of the Revised Code. 143805
These appropriations are the source of funds pledged for bond 143806
service charges on related obligations issued under Chapters 152. 143807
and 154. of the Revised Code.143808

       PROJECT ADMINISTRATION SERVICES143809

       The foregoing appropriation item 371603, Project 143810
Administration Services, shall be used by the Ohio Cultural 143811
Facilities Commission in administering Cultural and Sports 143812
Facilities Building Fund (Fund 7030) projects pursuant to Chapter 143813
3383. of the Revised Code.143814

       By the tenth day following each calendar quarter in each 143815
fiscal year, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Director of 143816
Budget and Management shall determine the amount of cash from 143817
interest earnings to be transferred from the Cultural and Sports 143818
Facilities Building Fund (Fund 7030) to the Cultural Facilities 143819
Commission Administration Fund (Fund 4T80).143820

       As soon as possible after each bond issuance made on behalf 143821
of the Cultural Facilities Commission, the Director of Budget and 143822
Management shall determine the amount of cash from any premium 143823
paid on each issuance that is available to be transferred, after 143824
all issuance costs have been paid, from the Cultural and Sports 143825
Facilities Building Fund (Fund 7030) to the Cultural Facilities 143826
Commission Administration Fund (Fund 4T80).143827

       CAPITAL DONATIONS FUND CERTIFICATIONS AND APPROPRIATIONS143828

        The Executive Director of the Cultural Facilities Commission 143829
shall certify to the Director of Budget and Management the amount 143830
of cash receipts and related investment income, irrevocable 143831
letters of credit from a bank, or certification of the 143832
availability of funds that have been received from a county or a 143833
municipal corporation for deposit into the Capital Donations Fund 143834
(Fund 5A10) and that are related to an anticipated project. These 143835
amounts are hereby appropriated to appropriation item C37146, 143836
Capital Donations. Prior to certifying these amounts to the 143837
Director, the Executive Director shall make a written agreement 143838
with the participating entity on the necessary cash flows required 143839
for the anticipated construction or equipment acquisition project.143840

       Section 253.10. DEN STATE DENTAL BOARD143841

General Services Fund Group143842

4K90 880609 Operating Expenses $ 1,566,484 $ 1,566,484 143843
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 143844
Group $ 1,566,484 $ 1,566,484 143845
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,566,484 $ 1,566,484 143846


       Section 255.10. BDP BOARD OF DEPOSIT143848

General Services Fund Group143849

4M20 974601 Board of Deposit $ 1,876,000 $ 1,876,000 143850
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 143851
Group $ 1,876,000 $ 1,876,000 143852
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,876,000 $ 1,876,000 143853

       BOARD OF DEPOSIT EXPENSE FUND143854

       Upon receiving certification of expenses from the Treasurer 143855
of State, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 143856
cash from the Investment Earnings Redistribution Fund (Fund 6080) 143857
to the Board of Deposit Expense Fund (Fund 4M20). The latter fund 143858
shall be used pursuant to section 135.02 of the Revised Code to 143859
pay for any and all necessary expenses of the Board of Deposit or 143860
for banking charges and fees required for the operation of the 143861
State of Ohio Regular Account.143862

       Section 257.10. DEV DEVELOPMENT SERVICES AGENCY143863

General Revenue Fund143864

GRF 195402 Coal Research Operating $ 261,205 $ 261,405 143865
GRF 195405 Minority Business Development $ 1,693,691 $ 1,693,691 143866
GRF 195407 Travel and Tourism $ 1,300,000 $ 0 143867
GRF 195415 Business Development Services $ 2,413,387 $ 2,413,387 143868
GRF 195426 Redevelopment Assistance $ 468,365 $ 468,365 143869
GRF 195497 CDBG Operating Match $ 1,015,000 $ 1,015,000 143870
GRF 195501 Appalachian Local Development Districts $ 440,000 $ 440,000 143871
GRF 195532 Technology Programs and Grants $ 13,547,341 $ 13,547,341 143872
GRF 195533 Business Assistance $ 4,205,774 $ 4,205,774 143873
GRF 195535 Appalachia Assistance $ 3,846,482 $ 3,846,482 143874
GRF 195537 Ohio-Israel Agricultural Initiative $ 150,000 $ 150,000 143875
GRF 195901 Coal Research & Development General Obligation Debt Service $ 2,858,900 $ 4,327,200 143876
GRF 195905 Third Frontier Research & Development General Obligation Debt Service $ 66,511,600 $ 83,783,000 143877
GRF 195912 Job Ready Site Development General Obligation Debt Service $ 15,498,400 $ 19,124,500 143878
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 114,210,145 $ 135,276,145 143879

General Services Fund Group143880

1350 195684 Development Services Operations $ 10,800,000 $ 10,800,000 143881
4W10 195646 Minority Business Enterprise Loan $ 2,500,000 $ 2,500,000 143882
5KN0 195640 Local Government Innovation $ 16,130,986 $ 16,000,000 143883
5MB0 195623 Business Incentive Grants $ 15,000,000 $ 0 143884
5MK0 195600 Vacant Facilities Grant $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 143885
5W50 195690 Travel and Tourism Cooperative Projects $ 150,000 $ 150,000 143886
6850 195636 Development Services Reimbursable Expenditures $ 700,000 $ 700,000 143887
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 143888
Group $ 46,280,986 $ 31,150,000 143889

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group143890

3080 195602 Appalachian Regional Commission $ 475,000 $ 475,000 143891
3080 195603 Housing Assistance Programs $ 10,000,000 $ 10,000,000 143892
3080 195609 Small Business Administration Grants $ 5,271,381 $ 5,271,381 143893
3080 195618 Energy Grants $ 9,307,779 $ 4,109,193 143894
3080 195670 Home Weatherization Program $ 17,000,000 $ 17,000,000 143895
3080 195671 Brownfield Redevelopment $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 143896
3080 195672 Manufacturing Extension Partnership $ 5,359,305 $ 5,359,305 143897
3080 195675 Procurement Technical Assistance $ 600,000 $ 600,000 143898
3080 195681 SBDC Disability Consulting $ 1,300,000 $ 1,300,000 143899
3350 195610 Energy Programs $ 200,000 $ 200,000 143900
3AE0 195643 Workforce Development Initiatives $ 1,800,000 $ 1,800,000 143901
3DB0 195642 Federal Stimulus - Energy Efficiency & Conservation Block Grants $ 38,152 $ 0 143902
3FJ0 195626 Small Business Capital Access and Collateral Enhancement Program $ 32,046,846 $ 5,655,326 143903
3FJ0 195661 Technology Targeted Investment Program $ 12,750,410 $ 2,250,072 143904
3K80 195613 Community Development Block Grant $ 65,000,000 $ 65,000,000 143905
3K90 195611 Home Energy Assistance Block Grant $ 172,000,000 $ 172,000,000 143906
3K90 195614 HEAP Weatherization $ 22,000,000 $ 22,000,000 143907
3L00 195612 Community Services Block Grant $ 27,240,217 $ 27,240,217 143908
3V10 195601 HOME Program $ 30,000,000 $ 30,000,000 143909
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 143910
Fund Group $ 417,389,090 $ 375,260,494 143911

State Special Revenue Fund Group143912

4500 195624 Minority Business Bonding Program Administration $ 74,868 $ 74,905 143913
4510 195649 Business Assistance Programs $ 6,300,800 $ 6,700,800 143914
4F20 195639 State Special Projects $ 102,145 $ 102,104 143915
4F20 195699 Utility Community Assistance $ 500,000 $ 500,000 143916
5CG0 195679 Alternative Fuel Transportation $ 750,000 $ 750,000 143917
5HR0 195526 Incumbent Workforce Training Vouchers $ 30,000,000 $ 30,000,000 143918
5HR0 195622 Defense Development Assistance $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 143919
5JR0 195635 Redevelopment Program Support $ 100,000 $ 100,000 143920
5KP0 195645 Historic Rehab Operating $ 650,000 $ 650,000 143921
5LU0 195673 Racetrack Facility Community Economic Redevelopment Fund $ 12,000,000 $ 0 143922
5M40 195659 Low Income Energy Assistance (USF) $ 350,000,000 $ 350,000,000 143923
5M50 195660 Advanced Energy Loan Programs $ 8,000,000 $ 8,000,000 143924
5MH0 195644 SiteOhio Administration $ 100,000 $ 100,000 143925
5MJ0 195683 TourismOhio Administration $ 8,000,000 $ 8,000,000 143926
5W60 195691 International Trade Cooperative Projects $ 18,000 $ 18,000 143927
6170 195654 Volume Cap Administration $ 32,562 $ 32,562 143928
6460 195638 Low- and Moderate- Income Housing Trust Fund $ 53,000,000 $ 53,000,000 143929
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 143930
Fund Group $ 474,628,375 $ 463,028,371 143931

Facilities Establishment Fund Group143932

5S90 195628 Capital Access Loan Program $ 3,000,000 $ 3,000,000 143933
7009 195664 Innovation Ohio $ 15,000,000 $ 15,000,000 143934
7010 195665 Research and Development $ 22,000,000 $ 22,000,000 143935
7037 195615 Facilities Establishment $ 50,000,000 $ 50,000,000 143936
TOTAL 037 Facilities 143937
Establishment Fund Group $ 90,000,000 $ 90,000,000 143938

Clean Ohio Revitalization Fund143939

7003 195663 Clean Ohio Program $ 950,000 $ 950,000 143940
TOTAL 7003 Clean Ohio Revitalization Fund $ 950,000 $ 950,000 143941

Third Frontier Research & Development Fund Group143942

7011 195686 Third Frontier Operating $ 1,149,750 $ 1,149,750 143943
7011 195687 Third Frontier Research & Development Projects $ 90,850,250 $ 90,850,250 143944
7014 195620 Third Frontier Operating - Tax $ 1,700,000 $ 1,700,000 143945
7014 195692 Research & Development Taxable Bond Projects $ 38,300,000 $ 38,300,000 143946
TOTAL 011 Third Frontier Research & Development Fund Group $ 132,000,000 $ 132,000,000 143947

Job Ready Site Development Fund Group143948

7012 195688 Job Ready Site Development $ 800,000 $ 800,000 143949
TOTAL 012 Job Ready Site Development Fund Group $ 800,000 $ 800,000 143950

Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group143951

M087 195435 Biomedical Research and Technology Transfer $ 1,896,595 $ 1,906,025 143952
TOTAL TSF Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group $ 1,896,595 $ 1,906,025 143953
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,278,155,191 $ 1,230,371,035 143954


       Section 257.20. COAL RESEARCH OPERATING143956

       The foregoing appropriation item 195402, Coal Research 143957
Operating, shall be used for the operating expenses of the 143958
Community Services Division in support of the Ohio Coal 143959
Development Office.143960

       TRAVEL AND TOURISM143961

       The foregoing appropriation item 195407, Travel and Tourism, 143962
shall be used for marketing the state of Ohio as a tourism 143963
destination and to support administrative expenses and contracts 143964
necessary to market Ohio.143965

        BUSINESS DEVELOPMENT SERVICES143966

       The foregoing appropriation item 195415, Business Development 143967
Services, shall be used for the operating expenses of the Business 143968
Services Division and the regional economic development offices 143969
and for grants for cooperative economic development ventures.143970

       REDEVELOPMENT ASSISTANCE143971

        The foregoing appropriation item 195426, Redevelopment 143972
Assistance, shall be used to fund the costs of administering the 143973
Clean Ohio Revitalization program and other urban revitalization 143974
programs that may be implemented by the Development Services 143975
Agency.143976

       CDBG OPERATING MATCH143977

       The foregoing appropriation item 195497, CDBG Operating 143978
Match, shall be used as matching funds for grants from the United 143979
States Department of Housing and Urban Development pursuant to the 143980
Housing and Community Development Act of 1974 and regulations and 143981
policy guidelines for the programs pursuant thereto.143982

       APPALACHIAN LOCAL DEVELOPMENT DISTRICTS143983

       The foregoing appropriation item 195501, Appalachian Local 143984
Development Districts, shall be used to support four local 143985
development districts. Of the foregoing appropriation amount in 143986
each fiscal year, up to $135,000 shall be allocated to the Ohio 143987
Valley Regional Development Commission, up to $135,000 shall be 143988
allocated to the Ohio Mid-Eastern Government Association, up to 143989
$135,000 shall be allocated to the Buckeye Hills-Hocking Valley 143990
Regional Development District, and up to $35,000 shall be 143991
allocated to the Eastgate Regional Council of Governments. Local 143992
development districts receiving funding under this section shall 143993
use the funds for the implementation and administration of 143994
programs and duties under section 107.21 of the Revised Code.143995

       TECHNOLOGY PROGRAMS AND GRANTS143996

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 195532, Technology 143997
Programs and Grants, up to $547,341 in each fiscal year shall be 143998
used for operating expenses incurred in administering the Ohio 143999
Third Frontier pursuant to sections 184.10 to 184.20 of the 144000
Revised Code; and up to $13,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be 144001
used for the Thomas Edison Program pursuant to sections 122.28 to 144002
122.38 of the Revised Code, of which not less than $8,700,000 144003
shall be allocated for the Edison Center Network entities defined 144004
in division (C) of section 122.33 of the Revised Code, and not 144005
more than ten per cent shall be used for operating expenses 144006
incurred in administering the program.144007

       BUSINESS ASSISTANCE144008

        The foregoing appropriation item 195533, Business Assistance, 144009
may be used to provide a range of business assistance, including 144010
grants to local organizations to support economic development 144011
activities that promote minority business development, small 144012
business development, entrepreneurship, and exports of Ohio's 144013
goods and services. This appropriation item shall also be used as 144014
matching funds for grants from the United States Small Business 144015
Administration and other federal agencies, pursuant to Public Law 144016
No. 96-302 as amended by Public Law No. 98-395, and regulations 144017
and policy guidelines for the programs pursuant thereto.144018

       APPALACHIA ASSISTANCE144019

       The foregoing appropriation item 195535, Appalachia 144020
Assistance, may be used for the administrative costs of planning 144021
and liaison activities for the Governor's Office of Appalachia, to 144022
provide financial assistance to projects in Ohio's Appalachian 144023
counties, and to pay dues for the Appalachian Regional Commission. 144024
These funds may be used to match federal funds from the 144025
Appalachian Regional Commission.144026

       OHIO-ISRAEL AGRICULTURE INITIATIVE144027

        The foregoing appropriation item 195537, Ohio-Israel 144028
Agricultural Initiative, shall be used for the Ohio-Israel 144029
Agricultural Initiative.144030

       COAL RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE144031

       The foregoing appropriation line item 195901, Coal Research 144032
and Development General Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to 144033
pay all debt service and related financing costs during the period 144034
July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015 for obligations issued under 144035
sections 151.01 and 151.07 of the Revised Code.144036

       THIRD FRONTIER RESEARCH & DEVELOPMENT GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT 144037
SERVICE144038

       The foregoing appropriation item 195905, Third Frontier 144039
Research & Development General Obligation Debt Service, shall be 144040
used to pay all debt service and related financing costs during 144041
the period from July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015, on 144042
obligations issued for research and development purposes under 144043
sections 151.01 and 151.10 of the Revised Code.144044

       JOB READY SITE DEVELOPMENT GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE144045

       The foregoing appropriation item 195912, Job Ready Site 144046
Development General Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to pay 144047
all debt service and related financing costs during the period 144048
from July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015, on obligations issued 144049
for job ready site development purposes under sections 151.01 and 144050
151.11 of the Revised Code.144051

       Section 257.30.  DEVELOPMENT SERVICES OPERATIONS144052

       The Director of Development Services may assess offices of 144053
the agency for the cost of central service operations. An 144054
assessment shall contain the characteristics of administrative 144055
ease and uniform application. A division's payments shall be 144056
credited to the Supportive Services Fund (Fund 1350) using an 144057
intrastate transfer voucher.144058

       LOCAL GOVERNMENT INNOVATION FUND144059

       The foregoing appropriation item 195640, Local Government 144060
Innovation, shall be used for the purposes of making loans and 144061
grants to political subdivisions under the Local Government 144062
Innovation Program in accordance with sections 189.01 to 189.10 of 144063
the Revised Code. Of the foregoing appropriation item 195640, 144064
Local Government Innovation, up to $175,000 in each fiscal year 144065
shall be used for administrative costs incurred by the Development 144066
Services Agency.144067

       TRAVEL AND TOURISM COOPERATIVE PROJECTS144068

       The foregoing appropriation item 195690, Travel and Tourism 144069
Cooperative Projects, shall consist solely of leveraged private 144070
sector paid advertising dollars received in tourism marketing 144071
assistance and co-op programs. These funds are to be used for the 144072
marketing and promotion of travel and tourism in Ohio.144073

        DEVELOPMENT SERVICES REIMBURSABLE EXPENDITURES144074

       The foregoing appropriation item 195636, Development Services 144075
Reimbursable Expenditures, shall be used for reimbursable costs 144076
incurred by the agency. Revenues to the General Reimbursement Fund 144077
(Fund 6850) shall consist of moneys charged for administrative 144078
costs that are not central service costs.144079

       Section 257.40. WORKFORCE DEVELOPMENT INITIATIVES144080

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 195643, Workforce 144081
Development Initiatives, $500,000 in fiscal year 2014 shall be 144082
used to fund the Heavy Machinery Pilot Program at Central Ohio 144083
Technical College for tuition support and reimbursement to train 144084
approximately 30 students for careers in construction and the oil 144085
and gas industries in Eastern Ohio and statewide.144086

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 195643, Workforce 144087
Development Initiative, $500,000 in each fiscal year shall be used 144088
for grants to BioOhio to support the Bioscience Workforce 144089
Development Initiative for training incumbent and prospective 144090
workers in the bioscience manufacturing industry in partnership 144091
with community colleges. BioOhio shall provide an annual report to 144092
the Office of the Governor and the General Assembly assessing the 144093
progress of the BioScience Workforce Development Initiative, and 144094
the report shall include enrollment and placement statistics.144095

       HEAP WEATHERIZATION 144096

       Up to fifteen per cent of the federal funds deposited to the 144097
credit of the Home Energy Assistance Block Grant Fund (Fund 3K90) 144098
shall be expended from appropriation item 195614, HEAP 144099
Weatherization, to provide home weatherization services in the 144100
state as determined by the Director of Development Services. Any 144101
transfers or increases in appropriation for the foregoing 144102
appropriation items 195614, HEAP Weatherization, or 195611, Home 144103
Energy Assistance Block Grant, shall be subject to approval by the 144104
Controlling Board.144105

       Section 257.50. BUSINESS ASSISTANCE PROGRAMS144106

       The foregoing appropriation item 195649, Business Assistance 144107
Programs, shall be used for administrative expenses associated 144108
with the operation of tax credit programs, loan servicing, the 144109
Ohio Film Office, workforce initiatives, and the Office of 144110
Strategic Business Investments.144111

        STATE SPECIAL PROJECTS144112

       The State Special Projects Fund (Fund 4F20), may be used for 144113
the deposit of private-sector funds from utility companies and for 144114
the deposit of other miscellaneous state funds. State moneys so 144115
deposited may also be used to match federal housing grants for the 144116
homeless. 144117

       MINORITY BUSINESS ENTERPRISE LOAN144118

       All repayments from the Minority Development Financing 144119
Advisory Board Loan Program and the Ohio Mini-Loan Guarantee 144120
Program shall be deposited in the State Treasury to the credit of 144121
the Minority Business Enterprise Loan Fund (Fund 4W10).144122

       MINORITY BUSINESS BONDING FUND144123

       Notwithstanding Chapters 122., 169., and 175. of the Revised 144124
Code, the Director of Development Services may, upon the 144125
recommendation of the Minority Development Financing Advisory 144126
Board, pledge up to $10,000,000 in the fiscal year 2014-fiscal 144127
year 2015 biennium of unclaimed funds administered by the Director 144128
of Commerce and allocated to the Minority Business Bonding Program 144129
under section 169.05 of the Revised Code.144130

       If needed for the payment of losses arising from the Minority 144131
Business Bonding Program, the Director of Budget and Management 144132
may, at the request of the Director of Development Services, 144133
request that the Director of Commerce transfer unclaimed funds 144134
that have been reported by holders of unclaimed funds under 144135
section 169.05 of the Revised Code to the Minority Bonding Fund 144136
(Fund 4490). The transfer of unclaimed funds shall only occur 144137
after proceeds of the initial transfer of $2,700,000 by the 144138
Controlling Board to the Minority Business Bonding Program have 144139
been used for that purpose. If expenditures are required for 144140
payment of losses arising from the Minority Business Bonding 144141
Program, such expenditures shall be made from appropriation item 144142
195658, Minority Business Bonding Contingency in the Minority 144143
Business Bonding Fund, and such amounts are hereby appropriated.144144

        INCUMBENT WORKFORCE TRAINING VOUCHERS144145

       (A) The Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to 144146
$30,000,000 cash in each fiscal year from the Economic Development 144147
Programs Fund (Fund 5JC0) used by the Board of Regents to the Ohio 144148
Incumbent Workforce Job Training Fund (Fund 5HR0) used by the 144149
Development Services Agency.144150

        (B) Of the foregoing appropriation item 195526, Incumbent 144151
Workforce Training Vouchers, up to $30,000,000 in each fiscal year 144152
shall be used to support the Ohio Incumbent Workforce Training 144153
Voucher Program. 144154

        (C) The Ohio Incumbent Workforce Training Voucher Program 144155
shall conform to guidelines for the operation of the program, 144156
including, but not limited to, the following:144157

        (1) A requirement that a training voucher under the program 144158
shall not exceed $6,000 per worker per year;144159

       (2) A provision for an employer of an eligible employee to 144160
apply for a voucher on behalf of the eligible employee;144161

        (3) A provision for an eligible employee to apply directly 144162
for a training voucher with the pre-approval of the employee's 144163
employer; and144164

        (4) A requirement that an employee participating in the 144165
program, or the employee's employer, shall pay for not less than 144166
thirty-three per cent of the training costs under the program.144167

       On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 144168
Director of Development Services may request that the Director of 144169
Budget and Management reappropriate any unexpended, unencumbered 144170
balance of the prior fiscal year's appropriation to the foregoing 144171
appropriation item 195526, Incumbent Workforce Training Vouchers, 144172
for fiscal year 2015. The Director of Budget and Management may 144173
request additional information necessary for evaluating the 144174
request, and the Director of Development Services shall provide 144175
the requested information to the Director of Budget and 144176
Management. Based on the information provided by the Director of 144177
Development Services, the Director of Budget and Management shall 144178
determine the amount to be reappropriated, and those amounts are 144179
hereby reappropriated for fiscal year 2015.144180

       DEFENSE DEVELOPMENT ASSISTANCE144181

       The Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to 144182
$5,000,000 in cash in each fiscal year from the Economic 144183
Development Programs Fund (Fund 5JC0) used by the Board of Regents 144184
to the Ohio Incumbent Workforce Job Training Fund (Fund 5HR0) used 144185
by the Development Services Agency. The transferred funds shall be 144186
used for appropriation item 195622, Defense Development 144187
Assistance, for economic development programs and the creation of 144188
new jobs to leverage and support mission gains at Department of 144189
Defense facilities in Ohio by working with future base realignment 144190
and closure activities and ongoing Department of Defense 144191
efficiency initiatives, assisting efforts to secure Department of 144192
Defense support contracts for Ohio companies, assessing and 144193
supporting regional job training and workforce development needs 144194
generated by the Department of Defense and the Ohio aerospace 144195
industry, and for expanding job training and economic development 144196
programs in human performance related initiatives. A portion of 144197
these funds shall be matched by private industry partners or the 144198
Department of Defense.144199

       On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 144200
Director of Development Services may request that the Director of 144201
Budget and Management reappropriate any unexpended, unencumbered 144202
balance of the prior fiscal year's appropriation to the foregoing 144203
appropriation item 195622, Defense Development Assistance, for 144204
fiscal year 2015. The Director of Budget and Management may 144205
request additional information necessary for evaluating the 144206
request, and the Director of Development Services shall provide 144207
the requested information to the Director of Budget and 144208
Management. Based on the information provided by the Director of 144209
Development Services, the Director of Budget and Management shall 144210
determine the amount to be reappropriated, and those amounts are 144211
hereby reappropriated for fiscal year 2015. 144212

        ADVANCED ENERGY LOAN PROGRAMS144213

       The foregoing appropriation item 195660, Advanced Energy Loan 144214
Programs, shall be used to provide financial assistance to 144215
customers for eligible advanced energy projects for residential, 144216
commercial, and industrial business, local government, educational 144217
institution, nonprofit, and agriculture customers, and to pay for 144218
the program's administrative costs as provided in sections 4928.61 144219
to 4928.63 of the Revised Code and rules adopted by the Director 144220
of Development Services.144221

       TOURISMOHIO ADMINISTRATION144222

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 195683, TourismOhio 144223
Administration, $1,000,000 in fiscal year 2014 shall be used to 144224
administer a program established by the Development Services 144225
Agency pursuant to section 122.121 of the Revised Code.144226

       VOLUME CAP ADMINISTRATION144227

       The foregoing appropriation item 195654, Volume Cap 144228
Administration, shall be used for expenses related to the 144229
administration of the Volume Cap Program. Revenues received by the 144230
Volume Cap Administration Fund (Fund 6170) shall consist of 144231
application fees, forfeited deposits, and interest earned from the 144232
custodial account held by the Treasurer of State.144233

       Section 257.60.  CAPITAL ACCESS LOAN PROGRAM144234

       The foregoing appropriation item 195628, Capital Access Loan 144235
Program, shall be used for operating, program, and administrative 144236
expenses of the program. Funds of the Capital Access Loan Program 144237
shall be used to assist participating financial institutions in 144238
making program loans to eligible businesses that face barriers in 144239
accessing working capital and obtaining fixed-asset financing.144240

       INNOVATION OHIO LOAN FUND144241

        The foregoing appropriation item 195664, Innovation Ohio, 144242
shall be used to provide for Innovation Ohio purposes, including 144243
loan guarantees and loans under Chapter 166. and particularly 144244
sections 166.12 to 166.16 of the Revised Code.144245

       RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT144246

       The foregoing appropriation item 195665, Research and 144247
Development, shall be used to provide for research and development 144248
purposes, including loans, under Chapter 166. and particularly 144249
sections 166.17 to 166.21 of the Revised Code.144250

       FACILITIES ESTABLISHMENT 144251

       The foregoing appropriation item 195615, Facilities 144252
Establishment, shall be used for the purposes of the Facilities 144253
Establishment Fund (Fund 7037) under Chapter 166. of the Revised 144254
Code.144255

       Notwithstanding Chapter 166. of the Revised Code, an amount 144256
not to exceed $3,000,000 in cash in each fiscal year may be 144257
transferred from the Facilities Establishment Fund (Fund 7037) to 144258
the Business Assistance Fund (Fund 4510). The transfer is subject 144259
to Controlling Board approval under division (B) of section 166.03 144260
of the Revised Code.144261

        Notwithstanding Chapter 166. of the Revised Code, the 144262
Director of Budget and Management may transfer an amount not to 144263
exceed $1,000,000 in cash in each fiscal year from the Facilities 144264
Establishment Fund (Fund 7037) to the Minority Business Enterprise 144265
Loan Fund (Fund 4W10).144266

       Notwithstanding Chapter 166. of the Revised Code, the 144267
Director of Budget and Management may transfer an amount not to 144268
exceed $2,000,000 in cash in each fiscal year from the Facilities 144269
Establishment Fund (Fund 7037) to the Capital Access Loan Fund 144270
(Fund 5S90).144271

       Section 257.70. CLEAN OHIO OPERATING EXPENSES144272

       The foregoing appropriation item 195663, Clean Ohio Program, 144273
shall be used by the Development Services Agency in administering 144274
Clean Ohio Revitalization Fund (Fund 7003) projects pursuant to 144275
sections 122.65 to 122.658 of the Revised Code.144276

       Section 257.80.  THIRD FRONTIER OPERATING144277

       The foregoing appropriation items 195686, Third Frontier 144278
Operating, and 195620, Third Frontier Operating - Tax, shall be 144279
used for operating expenses incurred by the Development Services 144280
Agency in administering projects pursuant to sections 184.10 to 144281
184.20 of the Revised Code. Operating expenses paid from item 144282
195686 shall be limited to the administration of projects funded 144283
from the Third Frontier Research & Development Fund (Fund 7011) 144284
and operating expenses paid from item 195620 shall be limited to 144285
the administration of projects funded from the Third Frontier 144286
Research & Development Taxable Bond Project Fund (Fund 7014).144287

       THIRD FRONTIER RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT PROJECTS AND RESEARCH 144288
AND DEVELOPMENT TAXABLE BOND PROJECTS144289

        The foregoing appropriation items 195687, Third Frontier 144290
Research & Development Projects, 195692, Research & Development 144291
Taxable Bond Projects, and 195620, Third Frontier Operating - Tax, 144292
shall be used by the Development Services Agency to fund selected 144293
projects. Eligible costs are those costs of research and 144294
development projects to which the proceeds of the Third Frontier 144295
Research & Development Fund (Fund 7011) and the Research & 144296
Development Taxable Bond Project Fund (Fund 7014) are to be 144297
applied.144298

        TRANSFERS OF THIRD FRONTIER APPROPRIATIONS144299

        The Director of Budget and Management may approve written 144300
requests from the Director of Development Services for the 144301
transfer of appropriations between appropriation items 195687, 144302
Third Frontier Research & Development Projects, and 195692, 144303
Research & Development Taxable Bond Projects, based upon awards 144304
recommended by the Third Frontier Commission. The transfers are 144305
subject to approval by the Controlling Board.144306

       In fiscal year 2015, the Director of Development Services may 144307
request that the Director of Budget and Management reappropriate 144308
any unexpended, unencumbered balances of the prior fiscal year's 144309
appropriation to the foregoing appropriation items 195687, Third 144310
Frontier Research & Development Projects, and 195692, Research & 144311
Development Taxable Bond Projects, for fiscal year 2015. The 144312
Director of Budget and Management may request additional 144313
information necessary for evaluating these requests, and the 144314
Director of Development Services shall provide the requested 144315
information to the Director of Budget and Management. Based on the 144316
information provided by the Director of Development Services, the 144317
Director of Budget and Management shall determine the amounts to 144318
be reappropriated, and those amounts are hereby reappropriated for 144319
fiscal year 2015.144320

        AUTHORITY TO ISSUE AND SELL ORIGINAL OBLIGATIONS144321

        The Ohio Public Facilities Commission is hereby authorized to 144322
issue and sell, in accordance with Section 2p of Article VIII, 144323
Ohio Constitution, and particularly sections 151.01 and 151.10 of 144324
the Revised Code, original obligations of the State of Ohio in an 144325
aggregate amount not to exceed $350,000,000 in addition to the 144326
original issuance of obligations authorized by prior acts of the 144327
General Assembly. The authorized obligations shall be issued and 144328
sold from time to time and in amounts necessary to ensure 144329
sufficient moneys to the credit of the Third Frontier Research and 144330
Development Fund (Fund 7011) and the Third Frontier Research and 144331
Development Taxable Bond Fund (Fund 7014) to pay costs of research 144332
and development projects.144333

       Section 257.90. JOB READY SITE PROGRAM144334

       The foregoing appropriation item 195688, Job Ready Site 144335
Development, shall be used for operating expenses incurred by the 144336
Development Services Agency in administering Job Ready Site 144337
Development Fund (Fund 7012) projects pursuant to sections 122.085 144338
to 122.0820 of the Revised Code. Operating expenses include, but 144339
are not limited to, certain qualified expenses of the District 144340
Public Works Integrating Committees, as applicable, engineering 144341
review of submitted applications by the State Architect or a 144342
third-party engineering firm, audit and accountability activities, 144343
and costs associated with formal certifications verifying that 144344
site infrastructure is in place and is functional.144345

       Section 257.110.  (A) ASSORTED TRANSFERS FOR RESTRUCTURING144346

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 144347
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to the cash 144348
balances in the Tax Incentive Program Operating Fund (Fund 4S00) 144349
and the Tax Credit Operating Fund (Fund 4S10) to the Business 144350
Assistance Fund (Fund 4510).144351

        On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 144352
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to the cash 144353
balances in the Family Farm Loan Fund (Fund 5H10) and the First 144354
Frontier Fund (Fund 4H40) to the Facility Establishment Fund (Fund 144355
7037).144356

        On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 144357
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to the cash 144358
balance in the Brownfield Stormwater Loan Fund (Fund 5KD0) to the 144359
New Markets Tax Credit Program Fund (Fund 5JR0).144360

        On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 144361
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to the cash 144362
balances in the Water and Sewer Fund (Fund 4440) and the Water and 144363
Sewer Administrative Fund (Fund 6110) to the General 144364
Reimbursements Fund (Fund 6850).144365

        On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 144366
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to the cash 144367
balance in the Local Government Services Collaboration Grant Fund 144368
(Fund 7088) to the Local Government Innovation Fund (Fund 5KN0).144369

        (B) ABOLISHMENT OF FUNDS144370

        On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, upon 144371
completion of a transfer of the cash balance in a fund as 144372
described in division (A) of this section by the Director of 144373
Budget and Management, notwithstanding the establishment authority 144374
of the fund, the fund is hereby abolished.144375

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 144376
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 144377
in the Rapid Outreach Loan Fund (Fund 7022) to the Facilities 144378
Establishment Fund (Fund 7037). After completion of the transfer 144379
and on the effective date of its repeal by this act, Fund 7022 144380
shall be abolished.144381

       The following funds are determined to be dormant and shall be 144382
abolished on the effective date of their repeal by this act: 144383
Diesel Emissions Grant Fund (Fund 3BD0), Shovel Ready Sites Fund 144384
(Fund 5CA0), Energy Projects Fund (Fund 5DU0), Business 144385
Development and Assistance Fund (Fund 5LK0), Clean Ohio 144386
Revitalization Revolving Loan Fund (Fund 7007), and Logistics & 144387
Distribution Infrastructure Taxable Bond Fund (Fund 7048).144388

       (C) ELIMINATION OF DORMANT FUNDS144389

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 144390
Director of Budget and Management may determine whether the 144391
following funds are dormant. If the Director of Budget and 144392
Management determines a fund to be dormant, notwithstanding the 144393
establishment authority of the fund, the fund is hereby abolished. 144394
The funds are: 144395

Fund Number Fund Name 144396
1360 International Trade 144397
3800 Ohio Housing Agency 144398
3BJ0 TANF Heating Assistance 144399
3X30 TANF Housing 144400
4450 OHFA Administration 144401
4480 Ohio Coal Development 144402
4D00 Public & Private Assistance 144403
5CV0 Defense Conversion Assistance 144404
5D10 Port Authority Bond Reserves 144405
5D20 Urban Redevelopment Loan 144406
5F70 Local Government Y2K Loan Program 144407
5X50 Family Homelessness Prevention Pilot 144408
5Y60 Economic Development Contingency 144409
5Z30 Jobs 144410
QA70 Electric Revenue Development 144411

       Section 259.10. DDD DEPARTMENT OF DEVELOPMENTAL DISABILITIES144412

General Revenue Fund144413

GRF 320412 Protective Services $ 1,918,196 $ 1,918,196 144414
GRF 320415 Lease-Rental Payments $ 15,843,300 $ 16,076,700 144415
GRF 322420 Screening and Early Intervention $ 300,000 $ 300,000 144416
GRF 322451 Family Support Services $ 5,932,758 $ 5,932,758 144417
GRF 322501 County Boards Subsidies $ 44,449,280 $ 44,449,280 144418
GRF 322503 Tax Equity $ 14,000,000 $ 14,000,000 144419
GRF 322507 County Board Case Management $ 2,500,000 $ 2,500,000 144420
GRF 322508 Employment First Pilot Program $ 3,000,000 $ 3,000,000 144421
GRF 653321 Medicaid Program Support - State $ 6,186,694 $ 6,186,694 144422
GRF 653407 Medicaid Services $ 430,056,111 $ 435,574,237 144423
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 524,186,339 $ 529,937,865 144424

General Services Fund Group144425

1520 653609 DC and Residential Operating Services $ 3,414,317 $ 3,414,317 144426
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 3,414,317 $ 3,414,317 144427

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group144428

3A50 320613 DD Council $ 3,297,656 $ 3,324,187 144429
3250 322612 Community Social Service Programs $ 10,604,896 $ 10,604,896 144430
3A40 653604 DC & ICF/IID Program Support $ 8,013,611 $ 8,013,611 144431
3A40 653605 DC and Residential Services and Support $ 159,548,565 159,548,565 144432
3A40 653653 ICF/IID $ 354,712,840 $ 353,895,717 144433
3G60 653639 Medicaid Waiver Services $ 932,073,249 $ 1,022,485,423 144434
3G60 653640 Medicaid Waiver Program Support $ 36,934,303 $ 36,170,872 144435
3M70 653650 CAFS Medicaid $ 3,000,000 $ 3,000,000 144436
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 1,508,185,120 $ 1,597,043,271 144437

State Special Revenue Fund Group144438

5GE0 320606 Operating and Services $ 7,407,297 $ 7,407,297 144439
2210 322620 Supplement Service Trust $ 150,000 $ 150,000 144440
5DJ0 322625 Targeted Case Management Match $ 33,750,000 $ 37,260,000 144441
5DK0 322629 Capital Replacement Facilities $ 750,000 $ 750,000 144442
5H00 322619 Medicaid Repayment $ 160,000 $ 160,000 144443
5JX0 322651 Interagency Workgroup - Autism $ 45,000 45,000 144444
4890 653632 DC Direct Care Services $ 16,497,169 $ 16,497,169 144445
5CT0 653607 Intensive Behavioral Needs $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 144446
5DJ0 653626 Targeted Case Management Services $ 91,740,000 $ 100,910,000 144447
5EV0 653627 Medicaid Program Support $ 685,000 $ 685,000 144448
5GE0 653606 ICF/IID and Waiver Match $ 40,353,139 $ 39,106,638 144449
5S20 653622 Medicaid Admin and Oversight $ 17,341,201 $ 19,032,154 144450
5Z10 653624 County Board Waiver Match $ 284,740,000 $ 336,480,000 144451
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 494,618,806 $ 559,483,258 144452
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 2,530,404,582 $ 2,689,878,711 144453


       Section 259.20. LEASE-RENTAL PAYMENTS144455

       The foregoing appropriation item 320415, Lease-Rental 144456
Payments, shall be used to meet all payments at the times they are 144457
required to be made during the period from July 1, 2013, through 144458
June 30, 2015, by the Department of Developmental Disabilities 144459
under leases and agreements made under section 154.20 of the 144460
Revised Code. These appropriations are the source of funds pledged 144461
for bond service charges on related obligations issued under 144462
Chapter 154. of the Revised Code.144463

       Section 259.30. SCREENING AND EARLY INTERVENTION144464

       The foregoing appropriation item 322420, Screening and Early 144465
Intervention, shall be used for screening and early intervention 144466
programs for children with autism selected by the Director of 144467
Developmental Disabilities.144468

       Section 259.40.  FAMILY SUPPORT SERVICES SUBSIDY144469

        The foregoing appropriation item 322451, Family Support 144470
Services, may be used as follows in fiscal year 2014 and fiscal 144471
year 2015:144472

       (A) The appropriation item may be used to provide a subsidy 144473
to county boards of developmental disabilities for family support 144474
services provided under section 5126.11 of the Revised Code. The 144475
subsidy shall be paid in quarterly installments and allocated to 144476
county boards according to a formula the Director of Developmental 144477
Disabilities shall develop in consultation with representatives of 144478
county boards. A county board shall use not more than seven per 144479
cent of its subsidy for administrative costs.144480

       (B) The appropriation item may be used to distribute funds to 144481
county boards for the purpose of addressing economic hardships and 144482
to promote efficiency of operations. In consultation with 144483
representatives of county boards, the Director shall determine the 144484
amount of funds to distribute for these purposes and the criteria 144485
for distributing the funds.144486

       Section 259.50. STATE SUBSIDY TO COUNTY DD BOARDS144487

       (A) Except as provided in the section of this act titled 144488
"NONFEDERAL SHARE OF ICF/IID SERVICES," the foregoing 144489
appropriation item 322501, County Boards Subsidies, shall be used 144490
for the following purposes:144491

       (1) To provide a subsidy to county boards of developmental 144492
disabilities in quarterly installments and allocated according to 144493
a formula developed by the Director of Developmental Disabilities 144494
in consultation with representatives of county boards. Except as 144495
provided in section 5126.0511 of the Revised Code or in division 144496
(B) of this section, county boards shall use the subsidy for early 144497
childhood services and adult services provided under section 144498
5126.05 of the Revised Code, service and support administration 144499
provided under section 5126.15 of the Revised Code, or supported 144500
living as defined in section 5126.01 of the Revised Code.144501

       (2) To provide funding, as determined necessary by the 144502
Director, for residential services, including room and board, and 144503
support service programs that enable individuals with 144504
developmental disabilities to live in the community.144505

       (3) To distribute funds to county boards of developmental 144506
disabilities to address economic hardships and promote efficiency 144507
of operations. The Director shall determine, in consultation with 144508
representatives of county boards, the amount of funds to 144509
distribute for these purposes and the criteria for distributing 144510
the funds.144511

       (B) In collaboration with the county's family and children 144512
first council, a county board of developmental disabilities may 144513
transfer portions of funds received under this section, to a 144514
flexible funding pool in accordance with the section of this act 144515
titled "FAMILY AND CHILDREN FIRST FLEXIBLE FUNDING POOL." 144516

       Section 259.60. COUNTY BOARD SHARE OF WAIVER SERVICES144517

        As used in this section, "home and community-based services" 144518
has the same meaning as in section 5123.01 of the Revised Code.144519

        The Director of Developmental Disabilities shall establish a 144520
methodology to be used in fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015 to 144521
estimate the quarterly amount each county board of developmental 144522
disabilities is to pay of the nonfederal share of home and 144523
community-based services that section 5126.0510 of the Revised 144524
Code requires county boards to pay. Each quarter, the Director 144525
shall submit to a county board written notice of the amount the 144526
county board is to pay for that quarter. The notice shall specify 144527
when the payment is due.144528

       Section 259.70. TAX EQUITY144529

       Notwithstanding section 5126.18 of the Revised Code, the 144530
foregoing appropriation item 322503, Tax Equity, may be used to 144531
distribute funds to county boards of developmental disabilities to 144532
address economic hardships and promote efficiency of operations. 144533
The Director of Developmental Disabilities shall determine, in 144534
consultation with representatives of county boards, the amount of 144535
funds to distribute for these purposes and the criteria for 144536
distributing the funds.144537

       Section 259.80. MEDICAID SERVICES144538

       Except as provided in section 5123.0416 of the Revised Code, 144539
the purposes for which the foregoing appropriation item 653407, 144540
Medicaid Services, shall be used include the following:144541

       (A) Home and community-based services, as defined in section 144542
5123.01 of the Revised Code;144543

       (B) Implementation of the requirements of the agreement 144544
settling the consent decree in Sermak v. Manuel, Case No. 144545
C-2-80-220, United States District Court for the Southern District 144546
of Ohio, Eastern Division;144547

       (C) Implementation of the requirements of the agreement 144548
settling the consent decree in the Martin v. Strickland, Case No. 144549
89-CV-00362, United States District Court for the Southern 144550
District of Ohio, Eastern Division;144551

       (D) ICF/IID services, as defined in section 5124.01 of the 144552
Revised Code;144553

       (E) Other programs as identified by the Director of 144554
Developmental Disabilities. 144555

       Section 259.90.  EMPLOYMENT FIRST PILOT PROGRAM144556

       The foregoing appropriation item 322508, Employment First 144557
Pilot Program, shall be used to increase employment opportunities 144558
for individuals with developmental disabilities through the 144559
Employment First Initiative in accordance with section 5123.022 of 144560
the Revised Code.144561

       Of the foregoing appropriation item, 322508, Employment First 144562
Pilot Program, the Director of Developmental Disabilities shall 144563
transfer, in each fiscal year, to the Opportunities for Ohioans 144564
with Disabilities Agency an amount agreed upon by the Director of 144565
Developmental Disabilities and the Executive Director of the 144566
Opportunities for Ohioans with Disabilities Agency. The transfer 144567
shall be made via an intrastate transfer voucher. The transferred 144568
funds shall be used to support the Employment First Pilot Program. 144569
The Opportunities for Ohioans with Disabilities Agency shall use 144570
the funds transferred as state matching funds to obtain available 144571
federal grant dollars for vocational rehabilitation services. Any 144572
federal match dollars received by the Opportunities for Ohioans 144573
with Disabilities Agency shall be used for the pilot program. The 144574
Director of Developmental Disabilities and the Executive Director 144575
of the Opportunities for Ohioans with Disabilities Agency shall 144576
enter into an interagency agreement in accordance with section 144577
3304.181 of the Revised Code that will specify the 144578
responsibilities of each agency under the pilot program. Under the 144579
interagency agreement, the Opportunities for Ohioans with 144580
Disabilities Agency shall retain responsibility for eligibility 144581
determination, order of selection, plan approval, plan amendment, 144582
and release of vendor payments.144583

       The remainder of appropriation item 322508, Employment First 144584
Pilot Program, shall be used to develop a long term, sustainable 144585
system that places individuals with developmental disabilities in 144586
community employment, as defined in section 5126.01 of the Revised 144587
Code. 144588

       Section 259.100.  EMPLOYMENT FIRST TASKFORCE FUND144589

       If an employment first task force is established by the 144590
Director of Developmental Disabilities in accordance with section 144591
5123.023 of the Revised Code, the Director of Budget and 144592
Management shall establish an appropriation item from the 144593
Employment First Taskforce Fund for use by the Department of 144594
Developmental Disabilities to support the work of the task force. 144595
In fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, if an employment first 144596
task force is established, the Director of Developmental 144597
Disabilities shall certify to the Director of Budget and 144598
Management the appropriation amounts necessary for the Department 144599
of Developmental Disabilities to fulfill its obligation to support 144600
the work of the task force. Once the certification required under 144601
this section has been submitted and approved by the Director of 144602
Budget and Management, the appropriations established under this 144603
section are hereby appropriated in the amounts approved by the 144604
Director of Budget and Management. 144605

       Section 259.110. TRANSFER TO OPERATING AND SERVICES FUND144606

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 144607
Director of Developmental Disabilities shall request the Director 144608
of Budget and Management to transfer the cash balance in the Home 144609
and Community-Based Services Fund (Fund 4K80) to the Operating and 144610
Services Fund (Fund 5GE0). Upon completion of the transfer, Fund 144611
4K80 is hereby abolished. The Director of Budget and Management 144612
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 144613
322604, Medicaid Waiver – State Match, and reestablish them 144614
against appropriation item 653606, ICF/IID and Waiver Match. The 144615
reestablished encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated.144616

       Section 259.120. OPERATING AND SERVICES144617

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 320606, Operating and 144618
Services, $100,000 in each fiscal year shall be provided to the 144619
Ohio Center for Autism and Low Incidence to establish a lifespan 144620
autism hub to support families and professionals.144621

       Section 259.130. TARGETED CASE MANAGEMENT SERVICES144622

       County boards of developmental disabilities shall pay the 144623
nonfederal portion of targeted case management costs to the 144624
Department of Developmental Disabilities.144625

       The Director of Developmental Disabilities and the Medicaid 144626
Director may enter into an interagency agreement under which the 144627
Department of Developmental Disabilities shall transfer cash from 144628
the Targeted Case Management Fund (Fund 5DJ0) to the Health 144629
Care/Medicaid Support and Recoveries Fund (Fund 5DL0) used by the 144630
Department of Medicaid in an amount equal to the nonfederal 144631
portion of the cost of targeted case management services paid by 144632
county boards. Under the agreement, the Department of Medicaid 144633
shall pay the total cost of targeted case management claims. The 144634
transfer shall be made using an intrastate transfer voucher.144635

       Section 259.140.  WITHHOLDING OF FUNDS OWED THE DEPARTMENT144636

       If a county board of developmental disabilities does not 144637
fully pay any amount owed to the Department of Developmental 144638
Disabilities by the due date established by the Department, the 144639
Director of Developmental Disabilities may withhold the amount the 144640
county board did not pay from any amounts due to the county board. 144641
The Director may use any appropriation item or fund used by the 144642
Department to transfer cash to any other fund used by the 144643
Department in an amount equal to the amount owed the Department 144644
that the county board did not pay. Transfers under this section 144645
shall be made using an intrastate transfer voucher. 144646

       Section 259.150. DEVELOPMENTAL CENTER BILLING FOR SERVICES144647

       Developmental centers of the Department of Developmental 144648
Disabilities may provide services to persons with mental 144649
retardation or developmental disabilities living in the community 144650
or to providers of services to these persons. The Department may 144651
develop a method for recovery of all costs associated with the 144652
provision of these services.144653

       Section 259.160. TRANSFER OF FUNDS FOR DEVELOPMENTAL CENTER 144654
PHARMACY PROGRAMS144655

       The Director of Developmental Disabilities shall quarterly 144656
transfer cash from the Medicaid - Medicare Fund (Fund 3A40) to the 144657
Health Care/Medicaid Support and Recoveries Fund (Fund 5DL0) used 144658
by the Department of Medicaid, in an amount equal to the 144659
nonfederal share of Medicaid prescription drug claim costs for all 144660
developmental centers paid by the Department of Medicaid. The 144661
quarterly transfer shall be made using an intrastate transfer 144662
voucher.144663

       Section 259.170. NONFEDERAL MATCH FOR ACTIVE TREATMENT 144664
SERVICES144665

        Any county funds received by the Department of Developmental 144666
Disabilities from county boards of developmental disabilities for 144667
active treatment shall be deposited in the Developmental 144668
Disabilities Operating Fund (Fund 4890).144669

       Section 259.180. ODODD INNOVATIVE PILOT PROJECTS144670

       (A) In fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, the Director of 144671
Developmental Disabilities may authorize the continuation or 144672
implementation of one or more innovative pilot projects that, in 144673
the judgment of the Director, are likely to assist in promoting 144674
the objectives of Chapter 5123. or 5126. of the Revised Code. 144675
Subject to division (B) of this section and notwithstanding any 144676
provision of Chapters 5123. and 5126. of the Revised Code and any 144677
rule adopted under either chapter, a pilot project authorized by 144678
the Director may be continued or implemented in a manner 144679
inconsistent with one or more provisions of either chapter or one 144680
or more rules adopted under either chapter. Before authorizing a 144681
pilot program, the Director shall consult with entities interested 144682
in the issue of developmental disabilities, including the Ohio 144683
Provider Resource Association, Ohio Association of County Boards 144684
of Developmental Disabilities, Ohio Health Care Association/Ohio 144685
Centers for Intellectual Disabilities, the Values and Faith 144686
Alliance, and ARC of Ohio.144687

       (B) The Director may not authorize a pilot project to be 144688
implemented in a manner that would cause the state to be out of 144689
compliance with any requirements for a program funded in whole or 144690
in part with federal funds.144691

       Section 259.190. DEPARTMENT OF DEVELOPMENTAL DISABILITIES' 144692
APPROPRIATION ITEM STRUCTURE144693

       Upon request from the Director of Developmental Disabilities, 144694
the Director of Budget and Management may establish new funds, new 144695
appropriation items, and appropriations in order to support the 144696
transition to a new appropriation item structure in the Department 144697
of Developmental Disabilities' budget. Also, upon request of the 144698
Director of Developmental Disabilities, the Director of Budget and 144699
Management may transfer appropriations between GRF appropriation 144700
items, transfer cash between any funds used by the Department of 144701
Developmental Disabilities, abolish existing funds used by the 144702
Department of Developmental Disabilities, and cancel and 144703
reestablish encumbrances. Any establishment of new funds or 144704
appropriation items, any transfers of appropriations or cash, and 144705
any increases in appropriation under this section are subject to 144706
Controlling Board approval.144707

       Section 259.200.  FISCAL YEAR 2014 MEDICAID PAYMENT RATES FOR 144708
ICFs/IID144709

       (A) As used in this section:144710

       "Capped per diem rate" means the per Medicaid day payment 144711
rate calculated for an ICF/IID under division (D) of this section.144712

       "Change of operator," "entering operator," "exiting 144713
operator," "ICF/IID," "ICF/IID services," "Medicaid days," 144714
"provider," and "provider agreement" have the same meanings as in 144715
section 5124.01 of the Revised Code.144716

       "Franchise permit fee" means the fee imposed by sections 144717
5168.60 to 5168.71 of the Revised Code.144718

       "Modified per diem rate" means the per Medicaid day payment 144719
rate calculated for an ICF/IID under division (C) of this section.144720

       "Unmodified per diem rate" means the per Medicaid day payment 144721
rate calculated for an ICF/IID under Chapter 5124. of the Revised 144722
Code.144723

       (B) This section applies to each ICF/IID provider to which 144724
either of the following applies:144725

       (1) The provider has a valid Medicaid provider agreement for 144726
the ICF/IID on June 30, 2013, and a valid Medicaid provider 144727
agreement for the ICF/IID during fiscal year 2014.144728

       (2) The ICF/IID undergoes a change of operator that takes 144729
effect during fiscal year 2014, the exiting operator has a valid 144730
Medicaid provider agreement for the ICF/IID on the day immediately 144731
preceding the effective date of the change of operator, and the 144732
entering operator has a valid Medicaid provider agreement for the 144733
ICF/IID during fiscal year 2014.144734

       (C) An ICF/IID's total modified per diem rate for fiscal year 144735
2014 shall be the ICF/IID's total unmodified per diem rate for 144736
that fiscal year with the following modifications: 144737

       (1) In place of the inflation adjustment otherwise made under 144738
section 5124.23 of the Revised Code, the ICF/IID's desk-reviewed, 144739
actual, allowable, per diem other protected costs, excluding the 144740
franchise permit fee, from calendar year 2012 shall be multiplied 144741
by 1.0123. 144742

       (2) In place of the maximum cost per case-mix unit 144743
established for the ICF/IID's peer group under division (C) of 144744
section 5124.19 of the Revised Code, the ICF/IID's maximum costs 144745
per case-mix unit shall be the following:144746

       (a) In the case of an ICF/IID with more than eight beds, 144747
$108.21;144748

       (b) In the case of an ICF/IID with eight or fewer beds, 144749
$102.21.144750

       (3) In place of the inflation adjustment otherwise calculated 144751
under division (D) of section 5124.19 of the Revised Code for the 144752
purpose of division (A)(1)(b) of that section, an inflation 144753
adjustment of 1.0123 shall be used.144754

       (4) In place of the maximum rate for indirect care costs 144755
established for the ICF/IID's peer group under division (C) of 144756
section 5124.21 of the Revised Code, the maximum rate for indirect 144757
care costs for the ICF/IID's peer group shall be the following:144758

       (a) In the case of an ICF/IID with more than eight beds, 144759
$68.98;144760

       (b) In the case of an ICF/IID with eight or fewer beds, 144761
$59.60.144762

       (5) In place of the inflation adjustment otherwise calculated 144763
under division (D)(1) of section 5124.21 of the Revised Code for 144764
the purpose of division (B)(1) of that section only, an inflation 144765
adjustment of 1.0123 shall be used.144766

       (6) In place of the efficiency incentive otherwise calculated 144767
under division (B)(2) or (3) of section 5124.21 of the Revised 144768
Code, the ICF/IID's efficiency incentive for indirect care costs 144769
shall be the following:144770

       (a) In the case of an ICF/IID with more than eight beds, 144771
$3.69;144772

       (b) In the case of an ICF/IID with eight or fewer beds, 144773
$3.19. 144774

       (7) The ICF/IID's efficiency incentive for capital costs, as 144775
determined under division (E) of section 5124.17 of the Revised 144776
Code, shall be reduced by 50%.144777

       (D) An ICF/IID's total capped per diem rate for fiscal year 144778
2014 shall be the ICF/IID's total unmodified per diem rate for 144779
that fiscal year reduced by the percentage by which the mean total 144780
unmodified per diem rates for all ICFs/IID in this state for 144781
fiscal year 2014, weighted by May 2013 Medicaid days and 144782
calculated as of July 1, 2013, exceeds $282.84.144783

       (E) Except as otherwise provided by this section, an ICF/IID 144784
provider to which this section applies shall be paid, for ICF/IID 144785
services the ICF/IID provides during fiscal year 2014, a total per 144786
diem rate determined as follows:144787

       (1) Add the ICF/IID's total modified per diem rate to the 144788
ICF/IID's total capped per diem rate;144789

       (2) Divide the amount determined under division (E)(1) of 144790
this section by two.144791

       (F) If the mean total per diem rate for all ICFs/IID to which 144792
this section applies, weighted by May 2013 Medicaid days and 144793
determined under division (E) of this section as of July 1, 2013, 144794
is other than $282.84, the Department of Developmental 144795
Disabilities shall adjust, for fiscal year 2014, the total per 144796
diem rate for each ICF/IID to which this section applies by a 144797
percentage that is equal to the percentage by which the mean total 144798
per diem rate is greater or less than $282.84.144799

       (G) If the United States Centers for Medicare and Medicaid 144800
Services requires that the franchise permit fee be reduced or 144801
eliminated, the Department of Developmental Disabilities shall 144802
reduce the amount it pays ICF/IID providers under this section as 144803
necessary to reflect the loss to the state of the revenue and 144804
federal financial participation generated from the franchise 144805
permit fee.144806

       (H) The Department of Developmental Disabilities shall follow 144807
this section in determining the rate to be paid ICF/IID providers 144808
subject to this section notwithstanding anything to the contrary 144809
in Chapter 5124. of the Revised Code.144810

       Of the foregoing appropriation items 653407, Medicaid 144811
Services, 653606, ICF/IID and Waiver Match, and 653653, ICF/IID, 144812
portions shall be used to pay the Medicaid payment rates 144813
determined in accordance with this section for ICF/IID services 144814
provided during fiscal year 2014. 144815

       Section 259.210. FISCAL YEAR 2015 MEDICAID PAYMENT RATES FOR 144816
ICFs/IID144817

       (A) As used in this section:144818

       "Capped per diem rate" means the per Medicaid day payment 144819
rate calculated for an ICF/IID under division (D) of this section.144820

        "Change of operator," "entering operator," "exiting 144821
operator," "ICF/IID," "ICF/IID services," "Medicaid days," 144822
"provider," and "provider agreement" have the same meanings as in 144823
section 5124.01 of the Revised Code.144824

       "Franchise permit fee" means the fee imposed by sections 144825
5168.60 to 5168.71 of the Revised Code.144826

       "Modified per diem rate" means the per Medicaid day payment 144827
rate calculated for an ICF/IID under division (C) of this section.144828

       "Unmodified per diem rate" means the per Medicaid day payment 144829
rate calculated for an ICF/IID under Chapter 5124. of the Revised 144830
Code.144831

       (B) This section applies to each ICF/IID provider to which 144832
either of the following applies:144833

       (1) The provider has a valid Medicaid provider agreement for 144834
the ICF/IID on June 30, 2014, and a valid Medicaid provider 144835
agreement for the ICF/IID during fiscal year 2015.144836

       (2) The ICF/IID undergoes a change of operator that takes 144837
effect during fiscal year 2015, the exiting operator has a valid 144838
Medicaid provider agreement for the ICF/IID on the day immediately 144839
preceding the effective date of the change of operator, and the 144840
entering operator has a valid Medicaid provider agreement for the 144841
ICF/IID during fiscal year 2015.144842

       (C) An ICF/IID's total modified per diem rate for fiscal year 144843
2015 shall be the ICF/IID's total unmodified per diem rate for 144844
that fiscal year with the following modifications: 144845

       (1) In place of the inflation adjustment otherwise made under 144846
section 5124.23 of the Revised Code, the ICF/IID's desk-reviewed, 144847
actual, allowable, per diem other protected costs, excluding the 144848
franchise permit fee, from calendar year 2013 shall be multiplied 144849
by 1.0123. 144850

       (2) In place of the maximum cost per case-mix unit 144851
established for the ICF/IID's peer group under division (C) of 144852
section 5124.19 of the Revised Code, the ICF/IID's maximum costs 144853
per case-mix unit shall be the following:144854

       (a) In the case of an ICF/IID with more than eight beds, 144855
$108.21;144856

       (b) In the case of an ICF/IID with eight or fewer beds, 144857
$102.21.144858

       (3) In place of the inflation adjustment otherwise calculated 144859
under division (D) of section 5124.19 of the Revised Code for the 144860
purpose of division (A)(1)(b) of that section, an inflation 144861
adjustment of 1.0123 shall be used.144862

       (4) In place of the maximum rate for indirect care costs 144863
established for the ICF/IID's peer group under division (C) of 144864
section 5124.21 of the Revised Code, the maximum rate for indirect 144865
care costs for the ICF/IID's peer group shall be the following:144866

       (a) In the case of an ICF/IID with more than eight beds, 144867
$68.98;144868

       (b) In the case of an ICF/IID with eight or fewer beds, 144869
$59.60. 144870

       (5) In place of the inflation adjustment otherwise calculated 144871
under divisions (D)(1) and (2) of section 5124.21 of the Revised 144872
Code for the purpose of division (B)(1) of that section only, an 144873
inflation adjustment of 1.0123 shall be used.144874

       (6) In place of the efficiency incentive otherwise calculated 144875
under division (B)(2) or (3) of section 5124.21 of the Revised 144876
Code, the ICF/IID's efficiency incentive for indirect care costs 144877
shall be the following:144878

       (a) In the case of an ICF/IID with more than eight beds, 144879
$3.69;144880

       (b) In the case of an ICF/IID with eight or fewer beds, 144881
$3.19.144882

       (7) The ICF/IID's efficiency incentive for capital costs, as 144883
determined under division (E) of section 5124.17 of the Revised 144884
Code, shall be reduced by 50%.144885

       (D) An ICF/IID's total capped per diem rate for fiscal year 144886
2015 shall be the ICF/IID's total unmodified per diem rate for 144887
that fiscal year reduced by the percentage by which the mean total 144888
unmodified per diem rates for all ICFs/IID in this state for 144889
fiscal year 2015, weighted by May 2014 Medicaid days and 144890
calculated as of July 1, 2014, exceeds $282.77.144891

       (E) Except as otherwise provided by this section, an ICF/IID 144892
provider to which this section applies shall be paid, for ICF/IID 144893
services the ICF/IID provides during fiscal year 2015, a total per 144894
diem rate determined as follows:144895

       (1) Add the ICF/IID's total modified per diem rate to the 144896
ICF/IID's total capped per diem rate;144897

       (2) Divide the amount determined under division (E)(1) of 144898
this section by two.144899

       (F) If the mean total per diem rate for all ICFs/IID to which 144900
this section applies, weighted by May 2014 Medicaid days and 144901
determined under division (E) of this section as of July 1, 2014, 144902
is other than $282.77, the Department of Developmental 144903
Disabilities shall adjust, for fiscal year 2015, the total per 144904
diem rate for each ICF/IID to which this section applies by a 144905
percentage that is equal to the percentage by which the mean total 144906
per diem rate is greater or less than $282.77.144907

       (G) If the United States Centers for Medicare and Medicaid 144908
Services requires that the franchise permit fee be reduced or 144909
eliminated, the Department of Developmental Disabilities shall 144910
reduce the amount it pays ICF/IID providers under this section as 144911
necessary to reflect the loss to the state of the revenue and 144912
federal financial participation generated from the franchise 144913
permit fee.144914

       (H) The Department of Developmental Disabilities shall follow 144915
this section in determining the rate to be paid ICF/IID providers 144916
subject to this section notwithstanding anything to the contrary 144917
in Chapter 5124. of the Revised Code.144918

       Of the foregoing appropriation items 653407, Medicaid 144919
Services, 653606, ICF/IID and Waiver Match, and 653653, ICF/IID, 144920
portions shall be used to pay the Medicaid payment rates 144921
determined in accordance with this section for ICF/IID services 144922
provided during fiscal year 2015.144923

       Section 259.220. TRANSFER OF FUNDS FOR OUTLIER SERVICES 144924
PROVIDED TO PEDIATRIC VENTILATOR-DEPENDENT ICF/IID RESIDENTS144925

       As used in this section, "ICF/IID" and "ICF/IID services" 144926
have the same meanings as in section 5124.01 of the Revised Code.144927

       Each quarter during fiscal year 2015, the Director of 144928
Developmental Disabilities shall certify to the Director of Budget 144929
and Management the amount needed to pay the nonfederal share of 144930
the costs of the Medicaid rate add-on paid to ICFs/IID pursuant to 144931
section 5124.25 of the Revised Code for providing outlier ICF/IID 144932
services to residents who qualify for the services and are 144933
transferred to ICFs/IID from hospitals at which they receive 144934
ventilator services at the time of their transfer to the ICFs/IID.144935

       On receipt of a certification, the Director of Budget and 144936
Management shall transfer appropriations equaling the certified 144937
amount from appropriation item 651525, Medicaid/Health Care 144938
Services, to appropriation item 653407, Medicaid Services, and, in 144939
addition, shall reduce the appropriation in 651525, 144940
Medicaid/Health Care Services, by the corresponding federal share.144941

       If receipts credited to the Developmental Center and 144942
Residential Facility Services and Support Fund (Fund 3A40), used 144943
by the Department of Developmental Disabilities, exceed the 144944
amounts appropriated in appropriation item 653653, ICF/IID, the 144945
Director of Developmental Disabilities may request the Director of 144946
Budget and Management to authorize expenditures from the fund in 144947
excess of the amounts appropriated. Upon approval of the Director 144948
of Budget and Management, the additional amounts are hereby 144949
appropriated.144950

       Section 259.230. ICF/IID MEDICAID RATE WORKGROUP144951

       As used in this section, "ICF/IID," "ICF/IID services," and 144952
"Medicaid-certified capacity" have the same meanings as in section 144953
5124.01 of the Revised Code.144954

       For the purpose of assisting the Department of Developmental 144955
Disabilities during fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015 with an 144956
evaluation of revisions to the formula used to determine Medicaid 144957
payment rates for ICF/IID services, the Department shall retain 144958
the workgroup that was created to assist with the study required 144959
by Section 309.30.80 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General 144960
Assembly. In conducting the evaluation, the Department and 144961
workgroup shall do both of the following:144962

       (A) Focus primarily on the service needs of individuals with 144963
complex challenges that ICFs/IID are able to meet;144964

       (B) Pursue the goal of reducing the Medicaid-certified 144965
capacity of individual ICFs/IID and the total number of ICF/IID 144966
beds in the state for the purpose of increasing the service 144967
choices and community integration of individuals eligible for 144968
ICF/IID services.144969

       Section 259.240. NONFEDERAL SHARE OF ICF/IID SERVICES144970

       (A) As used in this section, "ICF/IID," "ICF/IID services," 144971
and "Medicaid-certified capacity" have the same meanings as in 144972
section 5124.01 of the Revised Code.144973

       (B) The Director of Developmental Disabilities shall pay the 144974
nonfederal share of a claim for ICF/IID services using funds 144975
specified in division (C) of this section if all of the following 144976
apply:144977

       (1) Medicaid covers the ICF/IID services.144978

       (2) The ICF/IID services are provided to a Medicaid recipient 144979
to whom both of the following apply:144980

       (a) The Medicaid recipient is eligible for the ICF/IID 144981
services;144982

       (b) The Medicaid recipient does not occupy a bed in the 144983
ICF/IID that used to be included in the Medicaid-certified 144984
capacity of another ICF/IID certified by the Director of Health 144985
before June 1, 2003.144986

       (3) The ICF/IID services are provided by an ICF/IID whose 144987
Medicaid certification by the Director of Health was initiated or 144988
supported by a county board of developmental disabilities.144989

       (4) The provider of the ICF/IID services has a valid Medicaid 144990
provider agreement for the services for the time that the services 144991
are provided.144992

       (C) When required by division (B) of this section to pay the 144993
nonfederal share of a claim, the Director of Developmental 144994
Disabilities shall use the following funds to pay the claim:144995

       (1) Funds available from appropriation item 322501, County 144996
Boards Subsidies, that the Director allocates to the county board 144997
that initiated or supported the Medicaid certification of the 144998
ICF/IID that provided the ICF/IID services for which the claim is 144999
made;145000

       (2) If the amount of funds used pursuant to division (C)(1) 145001
of this section is insufficient to pay the claim in full, an 145002
amount of funds that are needed to make up the difference and 145003
available from amounts the Director allocates to other county 145004
boards from appropriation item 322501, County Boards Subsidies.145005

       Section 259.250. FY 2014 AND FY 2015 RATES FOR CERTAIN 145006
HOMEMAKER/PERSONAL CARE SERVICES UNDER IO WAIVER145007

       (A) As used in this section:145008

       "Converted facility" means an ICF/IID, or former ICF/IID, 145009
that converted some or all of its beds to providing home and 145010
community-based services under the IO Waiver pursuant to section 145011
5124.60 of the Revised Code.145012

       "Developmental center" and "ICF/IID" have the same meanings 145013
as in section 5124.01 of the Revised Code.145014

       "H.B. 153 increased Medicaid payment rate" means the total 145015
Medicaid payment rate for each fifteen minutes of routine 145016
homemaker/personal care services that was set by Section 263.20.70 145017
of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly, as amended by 145018
Am. Sub. H.B. 487 of the 129th General Assembly.145019

       "IO Waiver" means the Medicaid waiver component, as defined 145020
in section 5166.01 of the Revised Code, known as Individual 145021
Options.145022

       "Public hospital" has the same meaning as in section 5122.01 145023
of the Revised Code.145024

       "Regular Medicaid payment rate" means the total Medicaid 145025
payment rate for each fifteen minutes of routine 145026
homemaker/personal care services that are available under the IO 145027
Waiver and to which this section does not apply.145028

       (B) This section applies to routine homemaker/personal care 145029
services to which both of the following apply:145030

       (1) The services are provided to an IO Waiver enrollee to 145031
whom all of the following apply:145032

       (a) The enrollee began to receive the services from the 145033
provider on or after July 1, 2011.145034

       (b) The enrollee resided in a developmental center, converted 145035
facility, or public hospital immediately before enrolling in the 145036
IO Wavier.145037

       (c) The Director of Developmental Disabilities has determined 145038
that the enrollee's special circumstances (including the 145039
enrollee's diagnosis, service needs, or length of stay at the 145040
developmental center, converted facility, or public hospital) 145041
warrants paying the Medicaid payment rate authorized by this 145042
section.145043

       (2) The provider of the services has a valid Medicaid 145044
provider agreement for the services for the period during which 145045
the enrollee receives the services from the provider.145046

       (C) The total Medicaid payment rate for each fifteen minutes 145047
of routine homemaker/personal care services to which this section 145048
applies and that are provided during the period beginning July 1, 145049
2013, and ending June 30, 2015, shall be the greater of the 145050
following:145051

       (1) The H.B. 153 increased Medicaid payment rate;145052

       (2) The regular Medicaid payment rate in effect at the time 145053
the services are provided.145054

       (D) Of the foregoing appropriation items 653407, Medicaid 145055
Services, and 653639, Medicaid Waiver Services, portions shall be 145056
used to pay the Medicaid payment rates determined in accordance 145057
with this section for certain homemaker/personal care services 145058
under the IO Waiver.145059

       Section 259.260. UPDATING AUTHORIZING STATUTE CITATIONS145060

       As used in this section, "authorizing statute" means a 145061
Revised Code section or provision of a Revised Code section that 145062
is cited in the Ohio Administrative Code as the statute that 145063
authorizes the adoption of a rule.145064

       The Director of Developmental Disabilities is not required to 145065
amend any rule for the sole purpose of updating the citation in 145066
the Ohio Administrative Code to the rule's authorizing statute to 145067
reflect that this act renumbers the authorizing statute or 145068
relocates it to another Revised Code section. Such citations shall 145069
be updated as the Director amends the rules for other purposes.145070

       Section 259.270. REASON FOR THE REPEAL OF R.C. 5111.236145071

       This act repeals section 5111.236 of the Revised Code to 145072
carry out the intent of the Governor as indicated in the veto 145073
message regarding Am. Sub. H.B. 1 of the 128th General Assembly 145074
transmitted to the Clerk of the House of Representatives on July 145075
17, 2009. The actual veto removed the section from the title and 145076
enacting clause of H.B. 1 and an earmark related to the section. 145077
However, the actual veto inadvertently showed only division (C) of 145078
the section, rather than the entire section, as being vetoed.145079

       Section 261.10. OBD OHIO BOARD OF DIETETICS145080

General Services Fund Group145081

4K90 860609 Operating Expenses $ 330,592 $ 342,592 145082
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund 145083
Group $ 330,592 $ 342,592 145084
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 330,592 $ 342,592 145085


       Section 263.10. EDU DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION145087

General Revenue Fund145088

GRF 200321 Operating Expenses $ 13,142,780 $ 13,142,780 145089
GRF 200408 Early Childhood Education $ 23,268,341 $ 25,268,341 145090
GRF 200420 Information Technology Development and Support $ 4,241,296 $ 4,241,296 145091
GRF 200421 Alternative Education Programs $ 7,403,998 $ 7,403,998 145092
GRF 200422 School Management Assistance $ 3,000,000 $ 3,000,000 145093
GRF 200424 Policy Analysis $ 328,558 $ 328,558 145094
GRF 200425 Tech Prep Consortia Support $ 260,542 $ 260,542 145095
GRF 200426 Ohio Educational Computer Network $ 29,625,569 $ 19,625,569 145096
GRF 200427 Academic Standards $ 3,800,000 $ 3,800,000 145097
GRF 200437 Student Assessment $ 55,895,000 $ 75,895,000 145098
GRF 200439 Accountability/Report Cards $ 3,500,000 $ 3,750,000 145099
GRF 200442 Child Care Licensing $ 827,140 $ 827,140 145100
GRF 200446 Education Management Information System $ 6,833,070 $ 6,833,070 145101
GRF 200447 GED Testing $ 879,551 $ 879,551 145102
GRF 200448 Educator Preparation $ 1,136,737 $ 1,564,237 145103
GRF 200455 Community Schools and Choice Programs $ 2,438,685 $ 2,491,395 145104
GRF 200464 General Technology Operations $ 192,097 $ 192,097 145105
GRF 200465 Technology Integration and Professional Development $ 1,778,879 $ 1,778,879 145106
GRF 200468 Ready to Learn $ 5,050,000 $ 5,050,000 145107
GRF 200502 Pupil Transportation $ 505,013,527 $ 518,513,527 145108
GRF 200505 School Lunch Match $ 9,100,000 $ 9,100,000 145109
GRF 200511 Auxiliary Services $ 130,547,795 $ 134,881,982 145110
GRF 200532 Nonpublic Administrative Cost Reimbursement $ 58,973,586 $ 60,931,509 145111
GRF 200540 Special Education Enhancements $ 156,871,292 $ 157,871,292 145112
GRF 200545 Career-Technical Education Enhancements $ 9,372,999 $ 9,372,999 145113
GRF 200550 Foundation Funding $ 5,808,807,929 $ 6,004,142,692 145114
GRF 200901 Property Tax Allocation - Education $ 1,138,800,000 $ 1,184,352,000 145115
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 7,981,089,371 $ 8,255,498,454 145116

General Services Fund Group145117

1380 200606 Information Technology Development and Support $ 6,850,090 $ 6,850,090 145118
4520 200638 Fees and Refunds $ 500,000 $ 500,000 145119
4L20 200681 Teacher Certification and Licensure $ 8,313,762 $ 13,658,274 145120
5960 200656 Ohio Career Information System $ 529,761 $ 529,761 145121
5H30 200687 School District Solvency Assistance $ 25,000,000 $ 25,000,000 145122
5KX0 200691 Ohio School Sponsorship Program $ 487,419 $ 487,419 145123
5KY0 200693 Community Schools Temporary Sponsorship $ 83,000 $ 83,000 145124
TOTAL GSF General Services 145125
Fund Group $ 41,764,032 $ 47,108,544 145126

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group145127

3090 200601 Neglected and Delinquent Education $ 2,168,642 $ 2,168,642 145128
3670 200607 School Food Services $ 8,200,664 $ 8,700,149 145129
3700 200624 Education of Exceptional Children $ 1,530,000 $ 1,530,000 145130
3AF0 200603 Schools Medicaid Administrative Claims $ 750,000 $ 750,000 145131
3AN0 200671 School Improvement Grants $ 20,400,000 $ 20,400,000 145132
3BK0 200628 Longitudinal Data Systems $ 1,250,000 $ 0 145133
3C50 200661 Early Childhood Education $ 14,554,749 $ 14,554,749 145134
3CG0 200646 Teacher Incentive $ 15,125,588 $ 15,183,285 145135
3D20 200667 Math Science Partnerships $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 145136
3EC0 200653 Teacher Incentive - Federal Stimulus $ 1,300,000 $ 0 145137
3EH0 200620 Migrant Education $ 2,900,000 $ 2,900,000 145138
3EJ0 200622 Homeless Children Education $ 2,600,000 $ 2,600,000 145139
3EK0 200637 Advanced Placement $ 450,000 $ 450,000 145140
3EN0 200655 State Data Systems - Federal Stimulus $ 1,250,000 $ 0 145141
3FD0 200665 Race to the Top $ 136,000,000 $ 58,074,046 145142
3FN0 200672 Early Learning Challenge - Race to the Top $ 7,040,000 $ 7,040,000 145143
3GE0 200674 Summer Food Service Program $ 13,596,000 $ 14,003,800 145144
3GF0 200675 Miscellaneous Nutrition Grants $ 700,000 $ 700,000 145145
3GG0 200676 Fresh Fruit and Vegetable Program $ 4,738,000 $ 4,880,140 145146
3H90 200605 Head Start Collaboration Project $ 225,000 $ 225,000 145147
3L60 200617 Federal School Lunch $ 350,608,075 $ 361,126,273 145148
3L70 200618 Federal School Breakfast $ 108,480,590 $ 112,819,813 145149
3L80 200619 Child/Adult Food Programs $ 106,992,650 $ 110,202,428 145150
3L90 200621 Career-Technical Education Basic Grant $ 44,663,900 $ 44,663,900 145151
3M00 200623 ESEA Title 1A $ 560,000,000 $ 560,000,000 145152
3M20 200680 Individuals with Disabilities Education Act $ 443,170,050 $ 443,170,050 145153
3T40 200613 Public Charter Schools $ 500,000 $ 0 145154
3Y20 200688 21st Century Community Learning Centers $ 48,201,810 $ 50,611,900 145155
3Y60 200635 Improving Teacher Quality $ 101,900,000 $ 101,900,000 145156
3Y70 200689 English Language Acquisition $ 9,700,000 $ 9,700,000 145157
3Y80 200639 Rural and Low Income Technical Assistance $ 3,300,000 $ 3,300,000 145158
3Z20 200690 State Assessments $ 11,800,000 $ 11,800,000 145159
3Z30 200645 Consolidated Federal Grant Administration $ 7,949,280 $ 7,949,280 145160
TOTAL FED Federal Special 145161
Revenue Fund Group $ 2,038,044,998 $ 1,977,403,455 145162

State Special Revenue Fund Group145163

4540 200610 GED Testing $ 1,050,000 $ 250,000 145164
4550 200608 Commodity Foods $ 24,000,000 $ 24,000,000 145165
4R70 200695 Indirect Operational Support $ 6,600,000 $ 6,600,000 145166
4V70 200633 Interagency Program Support $ 717,725 $ 717,725 145167
5980 200659 Auxiliary Services Reimbursement $ 1,328,910 $ 1,328,910 145168
5BJ0 200626 Half-Mill Maintenance Equalization $ 19,000,000 $ 20,000,000 145169
5MM0 200677 Child Nutrition Refunds $ 500,000 $ 500,000 145170
5T30 200668 Gates Foundation Grants $ 200,000 $ 153,000 145171
5U20 200685 National Education Statistics $ 300,000 $ 300,000 145172
6200 200615 Educational Improvement Grants $ 300,000 $ 300,000 145173
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 145174
Fund Group $ 53,996,635 $ 54,149,635 145175

Lottery Profits Education Fund Group145176

7017 200612 Foundation Funding $ 775,000,000 $ 850,000,000 145177
7017 200648 Straight A Fund $ 50,000,000 $ 100,000,000 145178
7017 200666 EdChoice Expansion $ 8,500,000 $ 17,000,000 145179
7017 200684 Community School Facilities $ 7,500,000 $ 7,500,000 145180
TOTAL LPE Lottery Profits 145181
Education Fund Group $ 841,000,000 $ 974,500,000 145182

Revenue Distribution Fund Group145183

7047 200909 School District Property Tax Replacement-Business $ 482,000,000 $ 482,000,000 145184
7053 200900 School District Property Tax Replacement-Utility $ 28,000,000 $ 28,000,000 145185
TOTAL RDF Revenue Distribution 145186
Fund Group $ 510,000,000 $ 510,000,000 145187
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 11,465,895,036 $ 11,818,660,088 145188


       Section 263.20. OPERATING EXPENSES145190

        A portion of the foregoing appropriation item 200321, 145191
Operating Expenses, shall be used by the Department of Education 145192
to provide matching funds under 20 U.S.C. 2321. 145193

       EARLY CHILDHOOD EDUCATION145194

       The Department of Education shall distribute the foregoing 145195
appropriation item 200408, Early Childhood Education, to pay the 145196
costs of early childhood education programs. 145197

       (A) As used in this section:145198

       (1) "Provider" means a city, local, exempted village, or 145199
joint vocational school district, or an educational service 145200
center.145201

       (2) In the case of a city, local, or exempted village school 145202
district, "new eligible provider" means a district that did not 145203
receive state funding for Early Childhood Education in the 145204
previous fiscal year or demonstrates a need for early childhood 145205
programs as defined in division (D) of this section.145206

       (3) "Eligible child" means a child who is at least three 145207
years of age as of the district entry date for kindergarten, is 145208
not of the age to be eligible for kindergarten, and whose family 145209
earns not more than two hundred per cent of the federal poverty 145210
guidelines as defined in division (A)(3) of section 5101.46 of the 145211
Revised Code. Children with an Individualized Education Program 145212
and where the Early Childhood Education program is the least 145213
restrictive environment may be enrolled on their third birthday.145214

       (4) "Early learning program standards" means early learning 145215
program standards for school readiness developed by the Department 145216
to assess the operation of early learning programs.145217

       (B) In each fiscal year, up to two per cent of the total 145218
appropriation may be used by the Department for program support 145219
and technical assistance. The Department shall distribute the 145220
remainder of the appropriation in each fiscal year to serve 145221
eligible children.145222

       (C) The Department shall provide an annual report to the 145223
Governor, the Speaker of the House of Representatives, and the 145224
President of the Senate and post the report to the Department's 145225
web site, regarding early childhood education programs operated 145226
under this section and the early learning program standards.145227

       (D) After setting aside the amounts to make payments due from 145228
the previous fiscal year, in fiscal year 2014, the Department 145229
shall distribute funds first to recipients of funds for early 145230
childhood education programs under Section 267.10.10 of Am. Sub. 145231
H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly, as amended by Am. Sub. 145232
H.B. 487 of the 129th General Assembly, in the previous fiscal 145233
year and the balance to new eligible providers of early childhood 145234
education programs under this section or to existing providers to 145235
serve more eligible children or for purposes of program expansion, 145236
improvement, or special projects to promote quality and 145237
innovation.145238

       After setting aside the amounts to make payments due from the 145239
previous fiscal year, in fiscal year 2015, the Department shall 145240
distribute funds first to providers of early childhood education 145241
programs under this section in the previous fiscal year and the 145242
balance to new eligible providers or to existing providers to 145243
serve more eligible children as outlined under division (E) of 145244
this section or for purposes of program expansion, improvement, or 145245
special projects to promote quality and innovation.145246

       (E) The Department shall distribute any new or remaining 145247
funding to existing providers of early childhood education 145248
programs or any new eligible providers in an effort to invest in 145249
high quality early childhood programs where there is a need as 145250
determined by the Department. The Department shall distribute the 145251
new or remaining funds to existing providers of early childhood 145252
education programs or any new eligible providers to serve 145253
additional eligible children based on community economic 145254
disadvantage, limited access to high quality preschool or 145255
childcare services, and demonstration of high quality preschool 145256
services as determined by the Department using new metrics 145257
developed pursuant to Ohio's Race to the Top—Early Learning 145258
Challenge Grant, awarded to the Department in December 2011.145259

        Awards under divisions (D) and (E) of this section shall be 145260
distributed on a per-pupil basis, and in accordance with division 145261
(I) of this section. The Department may adjust the per-pupil 145262
amount so that the per-pupil amount multiplied by the number of 145263
eligible children enrolled and receiving services on the first day 145264
of December or the business day closest to that date equals the 145265
amount allocated under this section.145266

       (F) Costs for developing and administering an early childhood 145267
education program may not exceed fifteen per cent of the total 145268
approved costs of the program.145269

       All providers shall maintain such fiscal control and 145270
accounting procedures as may be necessary to ensure the 145271
disbursement of, and accounting for, these funds. The control of 145272
funds provided in this program, and title to property obtained, 145273
shall be under the authority of the approved provider for purposes 145274
provided in the program unless, as described in division (K) of 145275
this section, the program waives its right for funding or a 145276
program's funding is eliminated or reduced due to its inability to 145277
meet financial or early learning program standards. The approved 145278
provider shall administer and use such property and funds for the 145279
purposes specified.145280

       (G) The Department may examine a provider's financial and 145281
program records. If the financial practices of the program are not 145282
in accordance with standard accounting principles or do not meet 145283
financial standards outlined under division (F) of this section, 145284
or if the program fails to substantially meet the early learning 145285
program standards, meet a quality rating level in the tiered 145286
quality rating and improvement system developed under section 145287
5104.30 of the Revised Code as prescribed by the Department, or 145288
exhibits below average performance as measured against the 145289
standards, the early childhood education program shall propose and 145290
implement a corrective action plan that has been approved by the 145291
Department. The approved corrective action plan shall be signed by 145292
the chief executive officer and the executive of the official 145293
governing body of the provider. The corrective action plan shall 145294
include a schedule for monitoring by the Department. Such 145295
monitoring may include monthly reports, inspections, a timeline 145296
for correction of deficiencies, and technical assistance to be 145297
provided by the Department or obtained by the early childhood 145298
education program. The Department may withhold funding pending 145299
corrective action. If an early childhood education program fails 145300
to satisfactorily complete a corrective action plan, the 145301
Department may deny expansion funding to the program or withdraw 145302
all or part of the funding to the program and establish a new 145303
eligible provider through a selection process established by the 145304
Department.145305

       (H) Each early childhood education program shall do all of 145306
the following:145307

       (1) Meet teacher qualification requirements prescribed by 145308
section 3301.311 of the Revised Code;145309

       (2) Align curriculum to the early learning content standards 145310
developed by the Department;145311

       (3) Meet any child or program assessment requirements 145312
prescribed by the Department;145313

       (4) Require teachers, except teachers enrolled and working to 145314
obtain a degree pursuant to section 3301.311 of the Revised Code, 145315
to attend a minimum of twenty hours every two years of 145316
professional development as prescribed by the Department;145317

       (5) Document and report child progress as prescribed by the 145318
Department;145319

       (6) Meet and report compliance with the early learning 145320
program standards as prescribed by the Department;145321

       (7) Participate in the tiered quality rating and improvement 145322
system developed under section 5104.30 of the Revised Code. 145323
Effective July 1, 2016, all programs shall be rated through the 145324
system.145325

       (I) Per-pupil funding for programs subject to this section 145326
shall be sufficient to provide eligible children with services for 145327
a standard early childhood schedule which shall be defined in this 145328
section as a minimum of twelve and one-half hours per school week 145329
as defined in section 3313.62 of the Revised Code for the minimum 145330
school year as defined in sections 3313.48, 3313.481, and 3313.482 145331
of the Revised Code. Nothing in this section shall be construed to 145332
prohibit program providers from utilizing other funds to serve 145333
eligible children in programs that exceed the twelve and one-half 145334
hours per week or that exceed the minimum school year. For any 145335
provider for which a standard early childhood education schedule 145336
creates a hardship or for which the provider shows evidence that 145337
the provider is working in collaboration with a preschool special 145338
education program, the provider may submit a waiver to the 145339
Department requesting an alternate schedule. If the Department 145340
approves a waiver for an alternate schedule that provides services 145341
for less time than the standard early childhood education 145342
schedule, the Department may reduce the provider's annual 145343
allocation proportionately. Under no circumstances shall an annual 145344
allocation be increased because of the approval of an alternate 145345
schedule.145346

       (J) Each provider shall develop a sliding fee scale based on 145347
family incomes and shall charge families who earn more than two 145348
hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines, as defined in 145349
division (A)(3) of section 5101.46 of the Revised Code, for the 145350
early childhood education program.145351

       The Department shall conduct an annual survey of each 145352
provider to determine whether the provider charges families 145353
tuition or fees, the amount families are charged relative to 145354
family income levels, and the number of families and students 145355
charged tuition and fees for the early childhood program.145356

       (K) If an early childhood education program voluntarily 145357
waives its right for funding, or has its funding eliminated for 145358
not meeting financial standards or the early learning program 145359
standards, the provider shall transfer control of title to 145360
property, equipment, and remaining supplies obtained through the 145361
program to providers designated by the Department and return any 145362
unexpended funds to the Department along with any reports 145363
prescribed by the Department. The funding made available from a 145364
program that waives its right for funding or has its funding 145365
eliminated or reduced may be used by the Department for new grant 145366
awards or expansion grants. The Department may award new grants or 145367
expansion grants to eligible providers who apply. The eligible 145368
providers who apply must do so in accordance with the selection 145369
process established by the Department.145370

       (L) Eligible expenditures for the Early Childhood Education 145371
Program shall be claimed each fiscal year to help meet the state's 145372
TANF maintenance of effort requirement. The Superintendent of 145373
Public Instruction and the Director of Job and Family Services 145374
shall enter into an interagency agreement to carry out the 145375
requirements under this division, which shall include developing 145376
reporting guidelines for these expenditures.145377

       Section 263.30.  INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY DEVELOPMENT AND 145378
SUPPORT145379

       The foregoing appropriation item 200420, Information 145380
Technology Development and Support, shall be used to support the 145381
development and implementation of information technology solutions 145382
designed to improve the performance and services of the Department 145383
of Education. Funds may be used for personnel, maintenance, and 145384
equipment costs related to the development and implementation of 145385
these technical system projects. Implementation of these systems 145386
shall allow the Department to provide greater levels of assistance 145387
to school districts and to provide more timely information to the 145388
public, including school districts, administrators, and 145389
legislators. Funds may also be used to support data-driven 145390
decision-making and differentiated instruction, as well as to 145391
communicate academic content standards and curriculum models to 145392
schools through web-based applications.145393

       Section 263.40. ALTERNATIVE EDUCATION PROGRAMS145394

       The foregoing appropriation item 200421, Alternative 145395
Education Programs, shall be used for the renewal of successful 145396
implementation grants and for competitive matching grants to 145397
school districts for alternative educational programs for existing 145398
and new at-risk and delinquent youth. Programs shall be focused on 145399
youth in one or more of the following categories: those who have 145400
been expelled or suspended, those who have dropped out of school 145401
or who are at risk of dropping out of school, those who are 145402
habitually truant or disruptive, or those on probation or on 145403
parole from a Department of Youth Services facility. Grants shall 145404
be awarded only to programs in which the grant will not serve as 145405
the program's primary source of funding. These grants shall be 145406
administered by the Department of Education.145407

       The Department of Education may waive compliance with any 145408
minimum education standard established under section 3301.07 of 145409
the Revised Code for any alternative school that receives a grant 145410
under this section on the grounds that the waiver will enable the 145411
program to more effectively educate students enrolled in the 145412
alternative school.145413

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200421, Alternative 145414
Education Programs, a portion may be used for program 145415
administration, monitoring, technical assistance, support, 145416
research, and evaluation.145417

       Section 263.50. SCHOOL MANAGEMENT ASSISTANCE145418

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200422, School Management 145419
Assistance, $1,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be used by the 145420
Auditor of State in consultation with the Department of Education 145421
for expenses incurred in the Auditor of State's role relating to 145422
fiscal caution, fiscal watch, and fiscal emergency activities as 145423
defined in Chapter 3316. of the Revised Code, unless an amount 145424
less than $1,000,000 is needed and mutually agreed to by the 145425
Department and the Auditor of State. This set-aside may also be 145426
used by the Auditor of State to conduct performance audits of 145427
other school districts with priority given to districts in fiscal 145428
distress. Districts in fiscal distress shall be determined by the 145429
Auditor of State and shall include districts that the Auditor of 145430
State, in consultation with the Department of Education, 145431
determines are employing fiscal practices or experiencing 145432
budgetary conditions that could produce a state of fiscal watch or 145433
fiscal emergency.145434

       The remainder of appropriation item 200422, School Management 145435
Assistance, shall be used by the Department of Education to 145436
provide fiscal technical assistance and inservice education for 145437
school district management personnel and to administer, monitor, 145438
and implement the fiscal caution, fiscal watch, and fiscal 145439
emergency provisions under Chapter 3316. of the Revised Code.145440

       Section 263.60. POLICY ANALYSIS145441

       The foregoing appropriation item 200424, Policy Analysis, 145442
shall be used by the Department of Education to support a system 145443
of administrative, statistical, and legislative education 145444
information to be used for policy analysis. Staff supported by 145445
this appropriation shall administer the development of reports, 145446
analyses, and briefings to inform education policymakers of 145447
current trends in education practice, efficient and effective use 145448
of resources, and evaluation of programs to improve education 145449
results. The database shall be kept current at all times. These 145450
research efforts shall be used to supply information and analysis 145451
of data to the General Assembly and other state policymakers, 145452
including the Office of Budget and Management, the Governor's 145453
Office of 21st Century Education, and the Legislative Service 145454
Commission.145455

       The Department of Education may use funding from this 145456
appropriation item to purchase or contract for the development of 145457
software systems or contract for policy studies that will assist 145458
in the provision and analysis of policy-related information. 145459
Funding from this appropriation item also may be used to monitor 145460
and enhance quality assurance for research-based policy analysis 145461
and program evaluation to enhance the effective use of education 145462
information to inform education policymakers.145463

       TECH PREP CONSORTIA SUPPORT145464

       The foregoing appropriation item 200425, Tech Prep Consortia 145465
Support, shall be used by the Department of Education to support 145466
state-level activities designed to support, promote, and expand 145467
tech prep programs. Use of these funds shall include, but not be 145468
limited to, administration of grants, program evaluation, 145469
professional development, curriculum development, assessment 145470
development, program promotion, communications, and statewide 145471
coordination of tech prep consortia.145472

       Section 263.70. OHIO EDUCATIONAL COMPUTER NETWORK145473

       The foregoing appropriation item 200426, Ohio Educational 145474
Computer Network, shall be used by the Department of Education to 145475
maintain a system of information technology throughout Ohio and to 145476
provide technical assistance for such a system in support of the 145477
P-16 State Education Technology Plan developed under section 145478
3353.09 of the Revised Code.145479

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200426, Ohio Educational 145480
Computer Network, up to $10,705,569 in each fiscal year shall be 145481
used by the Department of Education to support connection of all 145482
public school buildings and participating chartered nonpublic 145483
schools to the state's education network, to each other, and to 145484
the Internet. In each fiscal year the Department of Education 145485
shall use these funds to assist information technology centers or 145486
school districts with the operational costs associated with this 145487
connectivity. The Department of Education shall develop a formula 145488
and guidelines for the distribution of these funds to information 145489
technology centers or individual school districts. As used in this 145490
section, "public school building" means a school building of any 145491
city, local, exempted village, or joint vocational school 145492
district, any community school established under Chapter 3314. of 145493
the Revised Code, any college preparatory boarding school 145494
established under Chapter 3328. of the Revised Code, any STEM 145495
school established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code, any 145496
educational service center building used for instructional 145497
purposes, the Ohio School for the Deaf and the Ohio School for the 145498
Blind, high schools chartered by the Ohio Department of Youth 145499
Services, or high schools operated by Ohio Department of 145500
Rehabilitation and Corrections' Ohio Central School System.145501

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200426, Ohio Educational 145502
Computer Network, up to $2,500,000 in each fiscal year shall be 145503
used for the Union Catalog and InfOhio Network and to support the 145504
provision of electronic resources with priority given to resources 145505
that support the teaching of state academic content standards in 145506
all public schools. Consideration shall be given by the Department 145507
of Education to coordinating the allocation of these moneys with 145508
the efforts of Libraries Connect Ohio, whose members include 145509
OhioLINK, the Ohio Public Information Network, and the State 145510
Library of Ohio.145511

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200426, Ohio Educational 145512
Computer Network, up to $5,220,000 in each fiscal year shall be 145513
used, through a formula and guidelines devised by the Department, 145514
to subsidize the activities of designated information technology 145515
centers, as defined by State Board of Education rules, to provide 145516
school districts and chartered nonpublic schools with 145517
computer-based student and teacher instructional and 145518
administrative information services, including approved 145519
computerized financial accounting, and to ensure the effective 145520
operation of local automated administrative and instructional 145521
systems.145522

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200426, Ohio Educational 145523
Computer Network, up to $10,000,000 in fiscal year 2014 shall be 145524
used for middle mile connections for the information technology 145525
centers established under section 3301.075 of the Revised Code and 145526
select large urban districts to connect to the state broadband 145527
backbone managed by the Ohio Technology Consortium and for other 145528
connectivity upgrades necessary for K-12 school buildings with 145529
severely restricted broadband connections. The Department of 145530
Education shall develop an expenditure plan to facilitate 145531
instructional technology/blended learning initiatives. The State 145532
Chief Information Officer and the Education Technology Division of 145533
the Ohio Board of Regents shall review the plan to ensure it 145534
coincides with State of Ohio and higher education network 145535
strategies and shall either approve or reject the plan. If the 145536
plan is rejected, the State Chief Information Officer and the 145537
Education Technology Division of the Ohio Board of Regents shall 145538
identify deficiencies in the plan and work with the Department to 145539
complete an acceptable plan. "Select large urban districts" are 145540
those districts that connect to the state broadband backbone 145541
directly rather than through an information technology center. At 145542
the request of the Superintendent of Public Instruction, the 145543
Director of Budget and Management may authorize the expenditure in 145544
fiscal year 2015 of any unexpended and unencumbered portion of 145545
this set-aside at the end of fiscal year 2014. The authorized 145546
expenditure is hereby reappropriated to the Department for the 145547
same purpose for fiscal year 2015.145548

       The remainder of appropriation item 200426, Ohio Educational 145549
Computer Network, shall be used to support the work of the 145550
development, maintenance, and operation of a network of uniform 145551
and compatible computer-based information and instructional 145552
systems as well as the teacher student linkage/roster verification 145553
process and the eTranscript/student records exchange initiative. 145554
This technical assistance shall include, but not be restricted to, 145555
development and maintenance of adequate computer software systems 145556
to support network activities. In order to improve the efficiency 145557
of network activities, the Department and information technology 145558
centers may jointly purchase equipment, materials, and services 145559
from funds provided under this appropriation for use by the 145560
network and, when considered practical by the Department, may 145561
utilize the services of appropriate state purchasing agencies.145562

       Section 263.80. ACADEMIC STANDARDS145563

       The foregoing appropriation item 200427, Academic Standards, 145564
shall be used by the Department of Education to develop, revise, 145565
and communicate to school districts academic content standards and 145566
curriculum models and to develop professional development programs 145567
and other tools on the new content standards and model curriculum.145568

       Section 263.90. STUDENT ASSESSMENT145569

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200437, Student 145570
Assessment, up to $95,000 in each fiscal year may be used to 145571
support the assessments required under section 3301.0715 of the 145572
Revised Code.145573

       The remainder of appropriation item 200437, Student 145574
Assessment, shall be used to develop, field test, print, 145575
distribute, score, report results, and support other associated 145576
costs for the tests required under sections 3301.0710, 3301.0711, 145577
and 3301.0712 of the Revised Code and for similar purposes as 145578
required by section 3301.27 of the Revised Code. The funds may 145579
also be used to update and develop diagnostic assessments required 145580
under sections 3301.079, 3301.0715, and 3313.608 of the Revised 145581
Code.145582

       DEPARTMENT OF EDUCATION APPROPRIATION TRANSFERS FOR STUDENT 145583
ASSESSMENT145584

       In fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, if the 145585
Superintendent of Public Instruction determines that additional 145586
funds are needed to fully fund the requirements of sections 145587
3301.0710, 3301.0711, 3301.0712, and 3301.27 of the Revised Code 145588
and this act for assessments of student performance, the 145589
Superintendent of Public Instruction may recommend the 145590
reallocation of unexpended and unencumbered General Revenue Fund 145591
appropriations within the Department of Education to appropriation 145592
item 200437, Student Assessment, to the Director of Budget and 145593
Management. If the Director of Budget and Management determines 145594
that such a reallocation is required, the Director of Budget and 145595
Management may transfer unexpended and unencumbered appropriations 145596
within the Department of Education as necessary to appropriation 145597
item 200437, Student Assessment. If these transferred 145598
appropriations are not sufficient to fully fund the assessment 145599
requirements in fiscal year 2014 or fiscal year 2015, the 145600
Superintendent of Public Instruction may request that the 145601
Controlling Board transfer up to $9,000,000 cash from the Lottery 145602
Profits Education Reserve Fund (Fund 7018) to the General Revenue 145603
Fund. Upon approval of the Controlling Board, the Director of 145604
Budget and Management shall transfer the cash. These transferred 145605
funds are hereby appropriated for the same purpose as 145606
appropriation item 200437, Student Assessment.145607

       Section 263.100.  Notwithstanding anything to the contrary in 145608
sections 3301.0710 and 3301.0711 of the Revised Code, in the 145609
2013-2014 school year, the Department of Education shall not 145610
furnish, and school districts and schools shall not administer, 145611
the elementary writing and social studies achievement assessments 145612
prescribed by section 3301.0710 of the Revised Code, unless the 145613
Superintendent of Public Instruction determines the Department has 145614
sufficient funds to pay the costs of furnishing and scoring those 145615
assessments.145616

       Section 263.110. ACCOUNTABILITY/REPORT CARDS145617

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200439, 145618
Accountability/Report Cards, a portion in each fiscal year may be 145619
used to train district and regional specialists and district 145620
educators in the use of the value-added progress dimension and in 145621
the use of data as it relates to improving student achievement. 145622
This training may include teacher and administrator professional 145623
development in the use of data to improve instruction and student 145624
learning, and teacher and administrator training in understanding 145625
teacher value-added reports and how they can be used as a 145626
component in measuring teacher and administrator effectiveness. A 145627
portion of this funding may be provided to a credible nonprofit 145628
organization with expertise in value-added progress dimensions.145629

       The remainder of appropriation item 200439, 145630
Accountability/Report Cards, shall be used by the Department to 145631
incorporate a statewide value-added progress dimension into 145632
performance ratings for school districts and for the development 145633
of an accountability system that includes the preparation and 145634
distribution of school report cards, funding and expenditure 145635
accountability reports under sections 3302.03 and 3302.031 of the 145636
Revised Code, and the development and maintenance of teacher 145637
value-added reports.145638

       CHILD CARE LICENSING145639

       The foregoing appropriation item 200442, Child Care 145640
Licensing, shall be used by the Department of Education to license 145641
and to inspect preschool and school-age child care programs under 145642
sections 3301.52 to 3301.59 of the Revised Code.145643

       Section 263.120. EDUCATION MANAGEMENT INFORMATION SYSTEM145644

       The foregoing appropriation item 200446, Education Management 145645
Information System, shall be used by the Department of Education 145646
to improve the Education Management Information System (EMIS).145647

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200446, Education 145648
Management Information System, up to $729,000 in each fiscal year 145649
shall be distributed to designated information technology centers 145650
for costs relating to processing, storing, and transferring data 145651
for the effective operation of the EMIS. These costs may include, 145652
but are not limited to, personnel, hardware, software development, 145653
communications connectivity, professional development, and support 145654
services, and to provide services to participate in the State 145655
Education Technology Plan developed under section 3353.09 of the 145656
Revised Code.145657

       The remainder of appropriation item 200446, Education 145658
Management Information System, shall be used to develop and 145659
support a common core of data definitions and standards as adopted 145660
by the Education Management Information System Advisory Board, 145661
including the ongoing development and maintenance of the data 145662
dictionary and data warehouse. In addition, such funds shall be 145663
used to support the development and implementation of data 145664
standards; the design, development, and implementation of a new 145665
data exchange system; and responsibilities related to the school 145666
report cards prescribed by section 3302.03 of the Revised Code and 145667
value-added progress dimension calculations.145668

       Any provider of software meeting the standards approved by 145669
the Education Management Information System Advisory Board shall 145670
be designated as an approved vendor and may enter into contracts 145671
with local school districts, community schools, STEMS schools, 145672
information technology centers, or other educational entities for 145673
the purpose of collecting and managing data required under Ohio's 145674
education management information system (EMIS) laws. On an annual 145675
basis, the Department of Education shall convene an advisory group 145676
of school districts, community schools, and other 145677
education-related entities to review the Education Management 145678
Information System data definitions and data format standards. The 145679
advisory group shall recommend changes and enhancements based upon 145680
surveys of its members, education agencies in other states, and 145681
current industry practices, to reflect best practices, align with 145682
federal initiatives, and meet the needs of school districts.145683

       School districts, STEM schools, and community schools not 145684
implementing a common and uniform set of data definitions and data 145685
format standards for Education Management Information System 145686
purposes shall have all EMIS funding withheld until they are in 145687
compliance.145688

       Section 263.130. GED TESTING145689

       The foregoing appropriation item 200447, GED Testing, shall 145690
be used to provide General Educational Development (GED) testing 145691
under rules adopted by the State Board of Education.145692

       Section 263.140. EDUCATOR PREPARATION145693

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200448, Educator 145694
Preparation, up to $500,000 in each fiscal year may be used by the 145695
Department of Education to monitor and support Ohio's State System 145696
of Support in accordance with the "No Child Left Behind Act of 145697
2011," 20 U.S.C. 6317, as administered pursuant to the Elementary 145698
and Secondary Education Act flexibility waivers approved for Ohio 145699
by the United States Department of Education.145700

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200448, Educator 145701
Preparation, up to $100,000 in each fiscal year may be used by the 145702
Department to support the Educator Standards Board under section 145703
3319.61 of the Revised Code and reforms under sections 3302.042, 145704
3302.06 through 3302.068, 3302.12, 3302.20 through 3302.22, and 145705
3319.58 of the Revised Code.145706

       The remainder of the foregoing appropriation item 200448, 145707
Educator Preparation, in fiscal year 2015 may be used for 145708
implementation of teacher and principal evaluation systems, 145709
including incorporation of student growth as a metric in those 145710
systems, and teacher value-added reports.145711

       Section 263.150. COMMUNITY SCHOOLS AND CHOICE PROGRAMS145712

       The foregoing appropriation item 200455, Community Schools 145713
and Choice Programs, may be used by the Department of Education 145714
for additional services and responsibilities under section 3314.11 145715
of the Revised Code and for operation of the school choice 145716
programs.145717

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200455, Community Schools 145718
and Choice Programs, a portion in each fiscal year may be used by 145719
the Department of Education for developing and conducting training 145720
sessions for community schools and sponsors and prospective 145721
sponsors of community schools as prescribed in division (A)(1) of 145722
section 3314.015 of the Revised Code, and other schools 145723
participating in school choice programs.145724

       Section 263.160.  TECHNOLOGY INTEGRATION AND PROFESSIONAL 145725
DEVELOPMENT145726

       The foregoing appropriation item 200465, Technology 145727
Integration and Professional Development, shall be used by the 145728
Department of Education to contract with educational television 145729
stations and education technology centers to provide Ohio public 145730
schools with instructional resources and services, with priority 145731
given to resources and services aligned with state academic 145732
content standards. Such resources and services shall be based upon 145733
the advice and approval of the Department, based on a formula used 145734
by the former eTech Ohio Commission unless and until a substitute 145735
formula is developed in consultation with the Ohio Board of 145736
Regents.145737

       Section 263.163. READY TO LEARN145738

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200468, Ready to Learn, 145739
up to $50,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 145740
operations of the "Ready, Set, Go...to Kindergarten" Program at 145741
the Horizon Education Center in Lorain County. The effectiveness 145742
of the program shall be evaluated and reported to the Department 145743
of Education in a study that includes statistics on program 145744
participants' scores for the "Get It, Got It, Go!" assessment and 145745
the kindergarten readiness assessment.145746

       The Department of Education shall distribute the remainder of 145747
the foregoing appropriation item 200468, Ready to Learn, to 145748
contract with eligible providers of early childhood education 145749
programs under this section. 145750

       (A) As used in this section:145751

       (1) "Eligible provider" means a private early childhood 145752
education program provider that meets at least the third highest 145753
rating level in the tiered quality rating and improvement system 145754
developed under section 5104.30 of the Revised Code or a public 145755
early childhood education provider.145756

       (2) "Eligible child" means a child who is at least three 145757
years of age as of the district entry date for kindergarten, is 145758
not enrolled in kindergarten, and whose family earns not more than 145759
two hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines as defined 145760
in division (A)(3) of section 5101.46 of the Revised Code.145761

       (3) "Early learning program standards" means early learning 145762
program standards for school readiness developed by the Department 145763
to assess the operation of early learning programs.145764

       (B) The Department shall distribute funding to eligible 145765
providers on a per-pupil basis. The per-pupil amount shall be such 145766
that funding is provided for 2,200 eligible children in each 145767
fiscal year. The Department shall distribute funding so that at 145768
least three eligible children are funded in each county.145769

       (C) Each early childhood education program receiving funding 145770
under this section shall do all of the following:145771

       (1) Meet teacher qualification requirements prescribed by 145772
section 3301.311 of the Revised Code;145773

       (2) Align curriculum to the early learning content standards 145774
developed by the Department;145775

       (3) Meet any child or program assessment requirements 145776
prescribed by the Department;145777

       (4) Require teachers, except teachers enrolled and working to 145778
obtain a degree pursuant to section 3301.311 of the Revised Code, 145779
to attend a minimum of twenty hours every two years of 145780
professional development as prescribed by the Department;145781

       (5) Document and report child progress as prescribed by the 145782
Department;145783

       (6) Meet and report compliance with the early learning 145784
program standards as prescribed by the Department;145785

       (7) Participate in the tiered quality rating and improvement 145786
system developed under section 5104.30 of the Revised Code.145787

       Section 263.170. PUPIL TRANSPORTATION145788

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200502, Pupil 145789
Transportation, up to $838,930 in each fiscal year may be used by 145790
the Department of Education for training prospective and 145791
experienced school bus drivers in accordance with training 145792
programs prescribed by the Department. Up to $60,469,220 in each 145793
fiscal year may be used by the Department of Education for special 145794
education transportation reimbursements to school districts and 145795
county DD boards for transportation operating costs as provided in 145796
divisions (C) and (F) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code. Up 145797
to $5,000,000 in fiscal year 2014 may be used by the Department of 145798
Education to reimburse school districts that make payments to 145799
parents in lieu of transportation under section 3327.02 of the 145800
Revised Code and whose transportation is not funded under division 145801
(C) of section 3317.024 of the Revised Code.145802

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200502, Pupil 145803
Transportation, up to $25,300,000 in fiscal year 2014 and up to 145804
$23,100,000 in fiscal year 2015 shall be used for additional 145805
transportation aid for school districts as provided by division 145806
(G)(2) of section 3317.0212 of the Revised Code, as amended by 145807
this act. The Department shall pay each school district a pro rata 145808
portion of the amounts calculated so that the amount appropriated 145809
is not exceeded.145810

       The remainder of appropriation item 200502, Pupil 145811
Transportation, shall be used to distribute the amounts calculated 145812
for transportation aid under division (G)(1) of section 3317.0212 145813
of the Revised Code, as amended by this act.145814

       Section 263.180. SCHOOL LUNCH MATCH145815

       The foregoing appropriation item 200505, School Lunch Match, 145816
shall be used to provide matching funds to obtain federal funds 145817
for the school lunch program.145818

       Any remaining appropriation after providing matching funds 145819
for the school lunch program may be used to partially reimburse 145820
school buildings within school districts that are required to have 145821
a school breakfast program under section 3313.813 of the Revised 145822
Code, at a rate decided by the Department.145823

       Section 263.190. AUXILIARY SERVICES145824

       The foregoing appropriation item 200511, Auxiliary Services, 145825
shall be used by the Department of Education for the purpose of 145826
implementing section 3317.06 of the Revised Code. Of the 145827
appropriation, up to $1,888,106 in fiscal year 2014 and up to 145828
$1,944,949 in fiscal year 2015 may be used for payment of the 145829
Post-Secondary Enrollment Program for nonpublic students, except 145830
that in fiscal year 2014 the Department may spend above the 145831
set-aside to pay for outstanding obligations for the 145832
Post-Secondary Enrollment Options Program in fiscal year 2013.145833

       Section 263.200. NONPUBLIC ADMINISTRATIVE COST REIMBURSEMENT145834

       The foregoing appropriation item 200532, Nonpublic 145835
Administrative Cost Reimbursement, shall be used by the Department 145836
of Education for the purpose of implementing section 3317.063 of 145837
the Revised Code.145838

       Section 263.210. SPECIAL EDUCATION ENHANCEMENTS145839

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200540, Special Education 145840
Enhancements, up to $50,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be used 145841
to fund special education and related services at county boards of 145842
developmental disabilities for eligible students under section 145843
3317.20 of the Revised Code and at institutions for eligible 145844
students under section 3317.201 of the Revised Code. If necessary, 145845
the Department shall proportionately reduce the amount calculated 145846
for each county board of developmental disabilities and 145847
institution so as not to exceed the amount appropriated in each 145848
fiscal year.145849

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200540, Special Education 145850
Enhancements, up to $1,333,468 in each fiscal year shall be used 145851
for parent mentoring programs.145852

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200540, Special Education 145853
Enhancements, up to $2,537,824 in each fiscal year may be used for 145854
school psychology interns.145855

        The remainder of appropriation item 200540, Special Education 145856
Enhancements, shall be distributed by the Department of Education 145857
to school districts and institutions, as defined in section 145858
3323.091 of the Revised Code, for preschool special education 145859
funding under section 3317.0213 of the Revised Code. If necessary, 145860
the Department shall proportionately reduce the amount calculated 145861
for each school district and institution so as not to exceed the 145862
amount appropriated in each fiscal year.145863

       The Department may reimburse school districts and 145864
institutions for services provided by instructional assistants, 145865
related services as defined in rule 3301-51-11 of the 145866
Administrative Code, physical therapy services provided by a 145867
licensed physical therapist or physical therapist assistant under 145868
the supervision of a licensed physical therapist as required under 145869
Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code and Chapter 4755-27 of the 145870
Administrative Code and occupational therapy services provided by 145871
a licensed occupational therapist or occupational therapy 145872
assistant under the supervision of a licensed occupational 145873
therapist as required under Chapter 4755. of the Revised Code and 145874
Chapter 4755-7 of the Administrative Code. Nothing in this section 145875
authorizes occupational therapy assistants or physical therapist 145876
assistants to generate or manage their own caseloads.145877

       The Department of Education shall require school districts, 145878
educational service centers, county DD boards, and institutions 145879
serving preschool children with disabilities to adhere to Ohio's 145880
early learning program standards, participate in the tiered 145881
quality rating and improvement system developed under section 145882
5104.30 of the Revised Code, and document child progress using 145883
research-based indicators prescribed by the Department and report 145884
results annually. The reporting dates and method shall be 145885
determined by the Department. Effective July 1, 2018, all programs 145886
shall be rated through the tiered quality rating and improvement 145887
system.145888

       Section 263.220. CAREER-TECHNICAL EDUCATION ENHANCEMENTS145889

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200545, Career-Technical 145890
Education Enhancements, up to $2,563,568 in each fiscal year shall 145891
be used to fund secondary career-technical education at 145892
institutions using a grant-based methodology, notwithstanding 145893
section 3317.05 of the Revised Code.145894

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200545, Career-Technical 145895
Education Enhancements, up to $2,838,281 in each fiscal year shall 145896
be used by the Department of Education to fund competitive grants 145897
to tech prep consortia that expand the number of students enrolled 145898
in tech prep programs. These grant funds shall be used to directly 145899
support expanded tech prep programs provided to students enrolled 145900
in school districts, including joint vocational school districts, 145901
and affiliated higher education institutions. This support may 145902
include the purchase of equipment.145903

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200545, Career-Technical 145904
Education Enhancements, up to $3,100,850 in each fiscal year shall 145905
be used by the Department of Education to support existing High 145906
Schools That Work (HSTW) sites, develop and support new sites, 145907
fund technical assistance, and support regional centers and middle 145908
school programs. The purpose of HSTW is to combine challenging 145909
academic courses and modern career-technical studies to raise the 145910
academic achievement of students. HSTW provides intensive 145911
technical assistance, focused staff development, targeted 145912
assessment services, and ongoing communications and networking 145913
opportunities.145914

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200545, Career-Technical 145915
Education Enhancements, up to $600,000 in each fiscal year shall 145916
be used by the Department of Education to enable students in 145917
agricultural programs to enroll in a fifth quarter of instruction 145918
based on the agricultural education model of delivering work-based 145919
learning through supervised agricultural experience. The 145920
Department of Education shall determine eligibility criteria and 145921
the reporting process for the Agriculture 5th Quarter Project and 145922
shall fund as many programs as possible given the set aside. The 145923
eligibility criteria developed by the Department shall allow these 145924
funds to support supervised agricultural experience that occurs 145925
anytime outside of the regular school day.145926

       Of the foregoing appropriation item, 200545, Career-Technical 145927
Education Enhancements, up to $162,200 in each fiscal year shall 145928
be distributed to the Cleveland Municipal School District and the 145929
Cincinnati City School District to be used for a VoAg Program in 145930
one at-risk nonvocational school in each district. The amount 145931
distributed to the Cleveland Municipal School District shall be 145932
equal to $78,600 minus the funding allocated to the district under 145933
division (A)(8) of section 3317.022 of the Revised Code for the 145934
students participating in the program. The amount distributed to 145935
the Cincinnati City School District shall be equal to $83,600 145936
minus the funding allocated to the district under section 3317.162 145937
of the Revised Code for the students participating in the program.145938

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200545, Career-Technical 145939
Education Enhancements, $108,100 in each fiscal year shall be used 145940
to prepare students for careers in culinary arts and restaurant 145941
management under the Ohio ProStart school restaurant program.145942

       Section 263.230. FOUNDATION FUNDING145943

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 145944
Funding, up to $675,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to 145945
support the work of the College of Education and Human Ecology at 145946
the Ohio State University in reviewing and assessing the alignment 145947
of courses offered through the distance learning clearinghouse 145948
established in sections 3333.81 to 3333.88 of the Revised Code 145949
with the academic content standards adopted under division (A) of 145950
section 3301.079 of the Revised Code.145951

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 145952
Funding, up to $40,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to 145953
provide additional state aid to school districts, joint vocational 145954
school districts, community schools, and STEM schools for special 145955
education students under division (C)(3) of section 3314.08, 145956
section 3317.0214, division (B) of section 3317.16, and section 145957
3326.34 of the Revised Code, except that the Controlling Board may 145958
increase these amounts if presented with such a request from the 145959
Department of Education at the final meeting of the fiscal year.145960

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 145961
Funding, up to $2,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be reserved 145962
for Youth Services tuition payments under section 3317.024 of the 145963
Revised Code.145964

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 145965
Funding, up to $3,800,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to 145966
fund gifted education at educational service centers. The 145967
Department shall distribute the funding through the unit-based 145968
funding methodology in place under division (L) of section 145969
3317.024, division (E) of section 3317.05, and divisions (A), (B), 145970
and (C) of section 3317.053 of the Revised Code as they existed 145971
prior to fiscal year 2010.145972

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 145973
Funding, up to $43,500,000 in fiscal year 2014 and up to 145974
$40,000,000 in fiscal year 2015 shall be reserved to fund the 145975
state reimbursement of educational service centers under the 145976
section of this act entitled "EDUCATIONAL SERVICE CENTERS 145977
FUNDING"; and up to $3,500,000 in each fiscal year shall be 145978
distributed to educational service centers for School Improvement 145979
Initiatives and, in consultation with the Governor's Director of 145980
21st Century Education, for the provision of technical assistance 145981
as required by the Elementary and Secondary Education Act 145982
Flexibility waivers approved for Ohio by the United States 145983
Department of Education. Educational service centers shall be 145984
required to support districts in the development and 145985
implementation of their continuous improvement plans as required 145986
in section 3302.04 of the Revised Code and to provide technical 145987
assistance and support in accordance with Title I of the "No Child 145988
Left Behind Act of 2001," 115 Stat. 1425, 20 U.S.C. 6317, as 145989
administered pursuant to the Elementary and Secondary Education 145990
Act Flexibility waivers approved for Ohio by the United States 145991
Department of Education. 145992

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 145993
Funding, up to $20,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be reserved 145994
for payments under sections 3317.026, 3317.027, and 3317.028 of 145995
the Revised Code. If this amount is not sufficient, the Department 145996
of Education shall prorate the payment amounts so that the 145997
aggregate amount allocated in this paragraph is not exceeded.145998

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 145999
Funding, up to $2,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to pay 146000
career-technical planning districts for the amounts reimbursed to 146001
students, as prescribed in this paragraph. Each career-technical 146002
planning district shall reimburse individuals taking the online 146003
General Educational Development (GED) test for the first time for 146004
application/test fees in excess of $40. Each career-technical 146005
planning district shall designate a site or sites where 146006
individuals may register and take the exam. For each individual 146007
that registers for the exam, the career-technical planning 146008
district shall make available and offer career counseling 146009
services, including information on adult education programs that 146010
are available.146011

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 146012
Funding, up to $410,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to pay 146013
career-technical planning districts $500 for each student that 146014
receives a journeyman certification, as recognized by the United 146015
States Department of Labor.146016

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 146017
Funding, up to $18,713,327 in each fiscal year shall be used to 146018
support school choice programs.146019

       Of the portion of the funds distributed to the Cleveland 146020
Municipal School District under this section, up to $11,901,887 in 146021
each fiscal year shall be used to operate the school choice 146022
program in the Cleveland Municipal School District under sections 146023
3313.974 to 3313.979 of the Revised Code. Notwithstanding 146024
divisions (B) and (C) of section 3313.978 and division (C) of 146025
section 3313.979 of the Revised Code, up to $1,000,000 in each 146026
fiscal year of this amount shall be used by the Cleveland 146027
Municipal School District to provide tutorial assistance as 146028
provided in division (H) of section 3313.974 of the Revised Code. 146029
The Cleveland Municipal School District shall report the use of 146030
these funds in the district's three-year continuous improvement 146031
plan as described in section 3302.04 of the Revised Code in a 146032
manner approved by the Department of Education.146033

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 146034
Funding, up to $2,000,000 in fiscal year 2015 shall be used to pay 146035
college-preparatory boarding schools the per pupil boarding amount 146036
pursuant to section 3328.34 of the Revised Code.146037

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 146038
Funding, up to $500,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to 146039
support Jobs for Ohio's Graduates.146040

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 146041
Funding, up to $250,000 in fiscal year 2015 may be used for 146042
payment of the Post-Secondary Enrollment Options Program for 146043
students instructed at home pursuant to section 3321.04 of the 146044
Revised Code.146045

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 146046
Funding, an amount shall be available in each fiscal year to be 146047
paid to joint vocational school districts in accordance with 146048
division (A) of section 3317.16 of the Revised Code and the 146049
section of this act entitled "TEMPORARY TRANSITIONAL AID FOR JOINT 146050
VOCATIONAL SCHOOL DISTRICTS."146051

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 146052
Funding, up to $700,000 in each fiscal year shall be used by the 146053
Department of Education for a program to pay for educational 146054
services for youth who have been assigned by a juvenile court or 146055
other authorized agency to any of the facilities described in 146056
division (A) of the section of this act entitled "PRIVATE 146057
TREATMENT FACILITY PROJECT."146058

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200550, Foundation 146059
Funding, an amount shall be available in each fiscal year to pay 146060
eligible community schools the amounts required to comply with 146061
divisions (B) and (C) of the section of this act entitled 146062
"GUARANTEE FOR HIGH PERFORMING COMMUNITY SCHOOLS."146063

       The remainder of appropriation item 200550, Foundation 146064
Funding, shall be used to distribute the amounts calculated for 146065
formula aid under section 3317.022 of the Revised Code and the 146066
section of this act entitled "TEMPORARY TRANSITIONAL AID FOR CITY, 146067
LOCAL, AND EXEMPTED VILLAGE SCHOOL DISTRICTS."146068

       Appropriation items 200502, Pupil Transportation, 200540, 146069
Special Education Enhancements, and 200550, Foundation Funding, 146070
other than specific set-asides, are collectively used in each 146071
fiscal year to pay state formula aid obligations for school 146072
districts, community schools, STEM schools, college preparatory 146073
boarding schools, and joint vocational school districts under this 146074
act. The first priority of these appropriation items, with the 146075
exception of specific set-asides, is to fund state formula aid 146076
obligations. It may be necessary to reallocate funds among these 146077
appropriation items or use excess funds from other general revenue 146078
fund appropriation items in the Department of Education's budget 146079
in each fiscal year, in order to meet state formula aid 146080
obligations. If it is determined that it is necessary to transfer 146081
funds among these appropriation items or to transfer funds from 146082
other General Revenue Fund appropriations in the Department of 146083
Education's budget to meet state formula aid obligations, the 146084
Department of Education shall seek approval from the Controlling 146085
Board to transfer funds as needed.146086

       The Superintendent of Public Instruction shall make payments, 146087
transfers, and deductions, as authorized by Title XXXIII of the 146088
Revised Code and Sections 267.30.50, 267.30.53, 267.30.56, and 146089
267.30.60 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly, in 146090
amounts substantially equal to those made in the prior year, or 146091
otherwise, at the discretion of the Superintendent, until at least 146092
the effective date of the amendments and enactments made to Title 146093
XXXIII by this act. If a new school district, community school, or 146094
STEM school opens prior to the effective date of this act, the 146095
Department of Education shall pay to the district or school an 146096
amount of $5,000 per pupil, based upon the estimated number of 146097
students that the district or school is expected to serve. Any 146098
funds paid to districts or schools under this section shall be 146099
credited toward the annual funds calculated for the district or 146100
school after the changes made to Title XXXIII in this act are 146101
effective. Upon the effective date of changes made to Title XXXIII 146102
in this act, funds shall be calculated as an annual amount.146103

       Section 263.240. TEMPORARY TRANSITIONAL AID FOR CITY, LOCAL, 146104
AND EXEMPTED VILLAGE SCHOOL DISTRICTS146105

        The Department of Education shall distribute funds within 146106
appropriation item 200550, Foundation Funding, for temporary 146107
transitional aid in each fiscal year to each qualifying city, 146108
local, and exempted village school district.146109

       (A) For fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the Department shall pay 146110
temporary transitional aid to each city, local, or exempted 146111
village school district that experiences any decrease in its state 146112
foundation funding for the current fiscal year from its 146113
transitional aid guarantee base. The amount of the temporary 146114
transitional aid payment shall equal the difference between its 146115
foundation funding for the current fiscal year and its 146116
transitional aid guarantee base. If the computation made under 146117
this division results in a negative number, the district's funding 146118
under this division shall be zero.146119

       (1) As used in this section, foundation funding for each 146120
city, local, and exempted village school district for a given 146121
fiscal year equals the sum of the amount calculated for the 146122
district under section 3317.022 of the Revised Code, as re-enacted 146123
by this act, and the amounts calculated for the district under 146124
divisions (G)(1) and (2) of section 3317.0212 of the Revised Code, 146125
as amended by this act, for that fiscal year.146126

       (2) The transitional aid guarantee base for each city, local, 146127
and exempted village school district equals the sum of the amounts 146128
computed for the district for fiscal year 2013, under Sections 146129
267.30.50, 267.30.53, and 267.30.56 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 146130
129th General Assembly.146131

       (B)(1) Notwithstanding section 3317.022 of the Revised Code, 146132
as re-enacted by this act, in fiscal year 2014, no city, local, or 146133
exempted village school district shall be allocated foundation 146134
funding that is greater than 1.06 times the district's 146135
transitional aid guarantee base.146136

       (2) Notwithstanding section 3317.022 of the Revised Code, as 146137
re-enacted by this act, in fiscal year 2015, no city, local, or 146138
exempted village school district shall be allocated foundation 146139
funding that is greater than 1.06 times the amount computed for 146140
foundation funding for the district for fiscal year 2014 plus any 146141
amount calculated for temporary transitional aid for fiscal year 146142
2014 under division (A) of this section and after any reductions 146143
made for fiscal year 2014 under division (B)(1) of this section.146144

        (3) The Department shall reduce a district's payments under 146145
divisions (A)(1), (2), (4), (5), (6), and (7) of section 3317.022 146146
of the Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act, and divisions 146147
(G)(1) and (2) of section 3317.0212 of the Revised Code, as 146148
amended by this act, proportionately as necessary in order to 146149
comply with this division. If those amounts are insufficient, the 146150
Department shall proportionately reduce a district's payments 146151
under divisions (A)(3), (8), and (9) of section 3317.022 of the 146152
Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act.146153

       Section 263.250.  TEMPORARY TRANSITIONAL AID FOR JOINT 146154
VOCATIONAL SCHOOL DISTRICTS146155

       The Department of Education shall distribute funds within 146156
appropriation item 200550, Foundation Funding, for temporary 146157
transitional aid in each fiscal year to each qualifying joint 146158
vocational school district.146159

       (A) For fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the Department shall pay 146160
temporary transitional aid to each joint vocational school 146161
district that experiences any decrease in its state core 146162
foundation funding under division (A) of section 3317.16 of the 146163
Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act, for the current fiscal 146164
year from its transitional aid guarantee base. The amount of the 146165
temporary transitional aid payment shall equal the difference 146166
between the district's funding under division (A) of section 146167
3317.16 of the Revised Code for the current fiscal year and its 146168
transitional aid guarantee base. If the computation made under 146169
this division results in a negative number, the district's funding 146170
under this division shall be zero.146171

       The transitional aid guarantee base for each joint vocational 146172
school district equals the amount computed for the district for 146173
fiscal year 2013, under Section 267.30.60 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of 146174
the 129th General Assembly.146175

       (B)(1) Notwithstanding division (A) of section 3317.16 of the 146176
Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act, in fiscal year 2014, no 146177
joint vocational school district shall be allocated state core 146178
foundation funding, as computed under division (A) of section 146179
3317.16 of the Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act, that is 146180
greater than 1.06 times the district's transitional aid guarantee 146181
base.146182

       (2) Notwithstanding division (A) of section 3317.16 of the 146183
Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act, in fiscal year 2015, no 146184
joint vocational school district shall be allocated state core 146185
foundation funding, under division (A) of section 3317.16 of the 146186
Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act, that is greater than 1.06 146187
times the amount computed for state core foundation funding for 146188
the district for fiscal year 2014 under division (A) of section 146189
3317.16 of the Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act, plus any 146190
amount calculated for temporary transitional aid for fiscal year 146191
2014 under division (A) of this section and after any reductions 146192
made for fiscal year 2014 under division (B)(1) of this section.146193

       (3) The Department shall reduce a district's payments under 146194
divisions (A)(1), (3), and (4) of section 3317.16 of the Revised 146195
Code, as re-enacted by this act, proportionately as necessary in 146196
order to comply with this division. If those amounts are 146197
insufficient, the Department shall proportionately reduce a 146198
district's payments under divisions (A)(2), (5), and (6) of 146199
section 3317.16 of the Revised Code, as re-enacted by this act.146200

       Section 263.253. GUARANTEE FOR HIGH PERFORMING COMMUNITY 146201
SCHOOLS146202

        (A) As used in this section, "eligible community school" 146203
means a community school established under Chapter 3314. of the 146204
Revised Code that, for the 2009-2010, 2010-2011, and 2011-2012 146205
school years, was declared to be excellent or higher under section 146206
3302.03 of the Revised Code, as that section existed prior to 146207
March 22, 2013.146208

       (B) Notwithstanding section 3314.08 of the Revised Code, as 146209
amended by this act, in fiscal year 2014, no eligible community 146210
school shall receive payments under divisions (C)(1) and (2) of 146211
section 3314.08 of the Revised Code, as amended by this act, and 146212
division (D) of section 3314.091 of the Revised Code, as amended 146213
by this act, in an aggregate amount that is less than the 146214
community school's payments for fiscal year 2013 under divisions 146215
(D)(1), (2), and (4) to (10) of section 3314.08 of the Revised 146216
Code, as that section existed prior to the effective date of the 146217
amendments to that section by this act, division (D) of section 146218
3314.091 of the Revised Code, as that section existed prior to the 146219
effective date of the amendments to that section by this act, and 146220
Section 267.30.56 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General 146221
Assembly.146222

        (C) Notwithstanding section 3314.08 of the Revised Code, as 146223
amended by this act, in fiscal year 2015, no eligible community 146224
school shall receive payments under divisions (C)(1) and (2) of 146225
section 3314.08 of the Revised Code, as amended by this act, and 146226
division (D) of section 3314.091 of the Revised Code, as amended 146227
by this act, in an aggregate amount that is less than the 146228
community school's payments for fiscal year 2013 under divisions 146229
(D)(1), (2), and (4) to (10) of section 3314.08 of the Revised 146230
Code, as that section existed prior to the effective date of the 146231
amendments to that section by this act, and division (D) of 146232
section 3314.091 of the Revised Code, as that section existed 146233
prior to the effective date of the amendments to that section by 146234
this act, and Section 267.30.56 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th 146235
General Assembly.146236

       Section 263.260. PROPERTY TAX ALLOCATION - EDUCATION146237

       The Superintendent of Public Instruction shall not request, 146238
and the Controlling Board shall not approve, the transfer of 146239
appropriation from appropriation item 200901, Property Tax 146240
Allocation - Education, to any other appropriation item.146241

       The appropriation item 200901, Property Tax Allocation - 146242
Education, is appropriated to pay for the state's costs incurred 146243
because of the homestead exemption, the property tax rollback, and 146244
payments required under division (C) of section 5705.2110 of the 146245
Revised Code. In cooperation with the Department of Taxation, the 146246
Department of Education shall distribute these funds directly to 146247
the appropriate school districts of the state, notwithstanding 146248
sections 321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code, which provide for 146249
payment of the homestead exemption and property tax rollback by 146250
the Tax Commissioner to the appropriate county treasurer and the 146251
subsequent redistribution of these funds to the appropriate local 146252
taxing districts by the county auditor.146253

       Upon receipt of these amounts, each school district shall 146254
distribute the amount among the proper funds as if it had been 146255
paid as real or tangible personal property taxes. Payments for the 146256
costs of administration shall continue to be paid to the county 146257
treasurer and county auditor as provided for in sections 319.54, 146258
321.26, and 323.156 of the Revised Code.146259

       Any sums, in addition to the amount specifically appropriated 146260
in appropriation items 200901, Property Tax Allocation - 146261
Education, for the homestead exemption and the property tax 146262
rollback payments, and payments required under division (C) of 146263
section 5705.2110 of the Revised Code, which are determined to be 146264
necessary for these purposes, are hereby appropriated.146265

       Section 263.270. TEACHER CERTIFICATION AND LICENSURE146266

       The foregoing appropriation item 200681, Teacher 146267
Certification and Licensure, shall be used by the Department of 146268
Education in each year of the biennium to administer and support 146269
teacher certification and licensure activities.146270

       SCHOOL DISTRICT SOLVENCY ASSISTANCE146271

       (A) Of the foregoing appropriation item 200687, School 146272
District Solvency Assistance, $20,000,000 in each fiscal year 146273
shall be allocated to the School District Shared Resource Account 146274
and $5,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be allocated to the 146275
Catastrophic Expenditures Account. These funds shall be used to 146276
provide assistance and grants to school districts to enable them 146277
to remain solvent under section 3316.20 of the Revised Code. 146278
Assistance and grants shall be subject to approval by the 146279
Controlling Board. Except as provided under division (C) of this 146280
section, any required reimbursements from school districts for 146281
solvency assistance shall be made to the appropriate account in 146282
the School District Solvency Assistance Fund (Fund 5H30).146283

       (B) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, 146284
upon the request of the Superintendent of Public Instruction, the 146285
Director of Budget and Management may make transfers to the School 146286
District Solvency Assistance Fund (Fund 5H30) from any fund used 146287
by the Department of Education or the General Revenue Fund to 146288
maintain sufficient cash balances in Fund 5H30 in fiscal years 146289
2014 and 2015. Any cash transferred is hereby appropriated. The 146290
transferred cash may be used by the Department of Education to 146291
provide assistance and grants to school districts to enable them 146292
to remain solvent and to pay unforeseeable expenses of a temporary 146293
or emergency nature that the school district is unable to pay from 146294
existing resources. The Director of Budget and Management shall 146295
notify the members of the Controlling Board of any such transfers.146296

        (C) If the cash balance of the School District Solvency 146297
Assistance Fund (Fund 5H30) is insufficient to pay solvency 146298
assistance in fiscal years 2014 and 2015, at the request of the 146299
Superintendent of Public Instruction, and with the approval of the 146300
Controlling Board, the Director of Budget and Management may 146301
transfer cash from the Lottery Profits Education Reserve Fund 146302
(Fund 7018) to Fund 5H30 to provide assistance and grants to 146303
school districts to enable them to remain solvent and to pay 146304
unforeseeable expenses of a temporary nature that they are unable 146305
to pay from existing resources under section 3316.20 of the 146306
Revised Code. Such transfers are hereby appropriated to 146307
appropriation item 200670, School District Solvency Assistance – 146308
Lottery. Any required reimbursements from school districts for 146309
solvency assistance granted from appropriation item 200670, School 146310
District Solvency Assistance – Lottery, shall be made to Fund 146311
7018.146312

       Section 263.280. SCHOOLS MEDICAID ADMINISTRATIVE CLAIMS146313

       Upon the request of the Superintendent of Public Instruction, 146314
the Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to $750,000 146315
cash in each fiscal year from the General Revenue Fund to the 146316
Schools Medicaid Administrative Claims Fund (Fund 3AF0). The 146317
transferred cash is to be used by the Department of Education to 146318
pay the expenses the Department incurs in administering the 146319
Medicaid School Component of the Medicaid program established 146320
under sections 5162.36 to 5162.364 of the Revised Code. On June 1 146321
of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 146322
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer cash from Fund 146323
3AF0 back to the General Revenue Fund in an amount equal to the 146324
total amount transferred to Fund 3AF0 in that fiscal year.146325

       The money deposited into Fund 3AF0 under division (B) of 146326
section 5162.64 of the Revised Code is hereby appropriated for 146327
fiscal years 2014 and 2015 and shall be used in accordance with 146328
division (C) of section 5162.64 of the Revised Code.146329

       Section 263.290.  HALF-MILL MAINTENANCE EQUALIZATION146330

        The foregoing appropriation item 200626, Half-Mill 146331
Maintenance Equalization, shall be used to make payments pursuant 146332
to section 3318.18 of the Revised Code.146333

       Section 263.300.  GATES FOUNDATION GRANTS146334

       The foregoing appropriation item 200668, Gates Foundation 146335
Grants, shall be used by the Department of Education to provide 146336
professional development to school district principals, 146337
superintendents, and other administrative staff on the use of 146338
education technology. 146339

       Section 263.310. AUXILIARY SERVICES REIMBURSEMENT146340

       Notwithstanding section 3317.064 of the Revised Code, if the 146341
unexpended, unencumbered cash balance is sufficient, the Treasurer 146342
of State shall transfer $1,500,000 in fiscal year 2014 within 146343
thirty days after the effective date of this section, and 146344
$1,500,000 in fiscal year 2015 by August 1, 2014, from the 146345
Auxiliary Services Personnel Unemployment Compensation Fund to the 146346
Auxiliary Services Reimbursement Fund (Fund 5980) used by the 146347
Department of Education.146348

       Section 263.320. LOTTERY PROFITS EDUCATION FUND146349

       Appropriation item 200612, Foundation Funding (Fund 7017), 146350
shall be used in conjunction with appropriation item 200550, 146351
Foundation Funding (GRF), to provide state foundation payments to 146352
school districts.146353

       The Department of Education, with the approval of the 146354
Director of Budget and Management, shall determine the monthly 146355
distribution schedules of appropriation item 200550, Foundation 146356
Funding (GRF), and appropriation item 200612, Foundation Funding 146357
(Fund 7017). If adjustments to the monthly distribution schedule 146358
are necessary, the Department of Education shall make such 146359
adjustments with the approval of the Director of Budget and 146360
Management.146361

       STRAIGHT A FUND146362

       Of the foregoing appropriation item, 200648, Straight A Fund, 146363
up to $375,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to provide 146364
scholarships to parents of high needs children enrolled in the Get 146365
Ready for Kindergarten pilot program. These scholarships shall be 146366
administered as provided under the section of this act entitled 146367
"GET READY FOR KINDERGARTEN."146368

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200648, Straight A Fund, 146369
up to $500,000 in fiscal year 2014 and up to $3,000,000 in fiscal 146370
year 2015 shall be used for the New Leaders for Ohio Schools Pilot 146371
Project in accordance with Section 733.40 of this act.146372

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200648, Straight A Fund, 146373
up to $70,000 in each fiscal year shall be used by Kids Unlimited 146374
of Toledo for quality after-school tutoring and mentoring programs 146375
in two elementary school buildings in Lucas County. The school 146376
buildings may include any community school, chartered nonpublic 146377
school, or building that is part of a city, local, or exempted 146378
village school district. Kids Unlimited of Toledo shall provide 146379
local matching funds equal to the set-aside.146380

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200648, Straight A Fund, 146381
up to $5,000,000 in fiscal year 2015 shall be used to support the 146382
implementation of the College Credit Plus Program established 146383
under Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code.146384

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 200648, Straight A Fund, 146385
up to $250,000 in each fiscal year may be used to make competitive 146386
grants in accordance with Section 263.324 of this act.146387

       The remainder of appropriation item 200648, Straight A Fund, 146388
shall be used to make competitive grants in accordance with 146389
Section 263.325 of this act.146390

       EDCHOICE EXPANSION146391

       The foregoing appropriation item 200666, EdChoice Expansion, 146392
shall be used as follows:146393

       (A) In fiscal year 2014, notwithstanding section 3310.032 of 146394
the Revised Code, the Department of Education shall administer an 146395
expansion of the Educational Choice Scholarship program as 146396
follows:146397

        (1) A student is an "eligible student" for purposes of the 146398
expansion of the Educational Choice Scholarship Pilot Program 146399
under division (A) of this section if the student's resident 146400
district is not a school district in which the pilot project 146401
scholarship program is operating under sections 3313.974 to 146402
3313.979 of the Revised Code and the student's family income is at 146403
or below two hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines, 146404
as defined in section 5101.46 of the Revised Code.146405

       (2) The Department shall pay scholarships to attend chartered 146406
nonpublic schools in accordance with section 3310.08 of the 146407
Revised Code. The number of scholarships awarded under division 146408
(A) of this section shall not exceed the number that can be funded 146409
with appropriations made by the general assembly for this purpose.146410

       (3) Scholarships under division (A) of this section shall be 146411
awarded for the 2013-2014 school year, to eligible students who 146412
are entering kindergarten in that school year for the first time.146413

       (4) If the number of eligible students who apply for a 146414
scholarship exceeds the scholarships available based on the 146415
appropriation for division (A) of this section, the department 146416
shall award scholarships in the following order of priority:146417

       (a) First, to eligible students with family incomes at or 146418
below one hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines.146419

       (b) Second, to other eligible students who qualify under 146420
division (A) of this section. If the number of students described 146421
in division (A)(4)(b) of this section exceeds the number of 146422
available scholarships after awards are made under division 146423
(A)(4)(a) of this section, the department shall select students 146424
described in division (A)(4)(b) of this section by lot to receive 146425
any remaining scholarships.146426

       (5) A student who receives a scholarship under division (A) 146427
of this section remains an eligible student and may continue to 146428
receive scholarships under section 3310.032 of the Revised Code in 146429
subsequent school years until the student completes grade twelve, 146430
so long as the student satisfies the conditions specified in 146431
divisions (E)(2) and (3) of section 3310.03 of the Revised Code.146432

       Once a scholarship is awarded under this section, the student 146433
shall remain eligible for that scholarship for the current and 146434
subsequent school years, even if the student's family income rises 146435
above the amount specified in division (A) of section 3310.032 of 146436
the Revised Code, provided the student remains enrolled in a 146437
chartered nonpublic school.146438

       (B) In fiscal year 2015, to provide for the scholarships 146439
awarded under the expansion of the educational choice program 146440
established under section 3310.032 of the Revised Code. The number 146441
of scholarships awarded under the expansion of the educational 146442
choice program shall not exceed the number that can be funded with 146443
the appropriations made by the General Assembly for this purpose.146444

       COMMUNITY SCHOOL FACILITIES146445

       The foregoing appropriation item 200684, Community School 146446
Facilities, shall be used to pay each community school established 146447
under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code that is not an internet- 146448
or computer-based community school and each STEM school 146449
established under Chapter 3326. of the Revised Code an amount 146450
equal to $100 for each full-time equivalent pupil for assistance 146451
with the cost associated with facilities. If the amount 146452
appropriated is not sufficient, the Department of Education shall 146453
prorate the amounts so that the aggregate amount appropriated is 146454
not exceeded. 146455

       Section 263.323. GET READY FOR KINDERGARTEN146456

        (A) A preschool is an "eligible preschool" for the purposes 146457
of this section if the preschool has a quality rating in the top 146458
two tiers of the tiered rating improvement system developed under 146459
division (C)(3)(d) of section 5104.30 of the Revised Code.146460

        (B) The Department of Education shall provide scholarships to 146461
parents of high needs children to enroll in eligible preschools as 146462
defined in division (A) of this section.146463

        (C) Scholarships under this section shall be awarded to 146464
students who are at least age three but are not of compulsory 146465
school age, as defined in section 3321.01 of the Revised Code, and 146466
who are not currently enrolled in kindergarten. Students who 146467
receive scholarships under this section shall enroll in eligible 146468
preschools between July 1, 2013, and December 31, 2013.146469

       Section 263.324.  (A) A program that has applied for or 146470
received a Promise Neighborhood Implementation Grant from the 146471
United States Department of Education that is located in a city 146472
school district may apply to the Ohio Department of Education for 146473
a grant under this section.146474

        (B) To be eligible to receive a grant, a program shall meet 146475
either of the following criteria:146476

       (1) The program was awarded a Promise Neighborhood 146477
Implementation Grant in the year for which a grant is sought from 146478
the Ohio Department of Education.146479

        (2) The program applied to the United States Department of 146480
Education for a Promise Neighborhood Implementation Grant in 146481
either the year for which the state grant is sought or in the year 146482
prior to which the state grant is sought.146483

       (C) A program that receives a grant from the Ohio Department 146484
of Education under this section shall use the funds for 146485
administrative costs associated with the Promise Neighborhood 146486
Program.146487

        (D) Any program that receives a grant from the Ohio 146488
Department of Education under this section shall contribute local 146489
matching funds that are equal to the amount of the grant received 146490
by the Department.146491

       Section 263.325. (A) The Straight A Program is hereby created 146492
for fiscal years 2014 and 2015 to provide grants to city, local, 146493
exempted village, and joint vocational school districts, 146494
educational service centers, community schools established under 146495
Chapter 3314., STEM schools established under Chapter 3326., 146496
college-preparatory boarding schools established under Chapter 146497
3328. of the Revised Code, individual school buildings, and 146498
education consortia (which may represent a partnership among 146499
school districts, school buildings, community schools, or STEM 146500
schools to partner with institutions of higher education and 146501
private entities) for projects that aim to achieve at least the 146502
following goals:146503

       (1) Increased student achievement and progress;146504

       (2) Improved productivity;146505

       (3) Sustainable cost reduction of operations.146506

       (B)(1) Grants shall be awarded by an eight-member governing 146507
board consisting of the Superintendent of Public Instruction, or 146508
the Superintendent's designee, three members appointed by the 146509
Governor, two members appointed by the Speaker of the House of 146510
Representatives, and two members appointed by the President of the 146511
Senate. The Department of Education shall provide administrative 146512
support to the board. No member shall be compensated for the 146513
member's service on the board.146514

       (2) The board may establish an advisory council consisting of 146515
grant advisors with fiscal expertise and education expertise. 146516
These advisors shall evaluate proposals from grant applicants, 146517
consult with the governing board regarding strategic planning, and 146518
advise the staff administering the program. No advisor shall be 146519
compensated for this service.146520

       (3) The board shall issue an annual report to the Governor, 146521
the Speaker of the House of Representatives, the President of the 146522
Senate, and the chairpersons of the House and Senate committees 146523
that primarily deal with education regarding the types of grants 146524
awarded, the grant recipients, and the effectiveness of the grant 146525
program.146526

       (4) The board shall create a grant application and publish on 146527
the Department's web site the application and timeline for the 146528
submission, review, notification, and awarding of grant proposals.146529

        (5) With the approval of the board, the Department shall 146530
establish a system for evaluating and scoring the grant 146531
applications received under this section. The system shall give 146532
priority to applicants whose goals demonstrate particular attempts 146533
in achieving the following:146534

        (a) Cost reduction in the delivery of services;146535

        (b) Progress in improving literacy in grades kindergarten to 146536
three;146537

        (c) Achievement and progress for each subgroup of students 146538
specified under division (A) of section 3317.40 of the Revised 146539
Code;146540

        (d) Improving the performance measures included in the 146541
Prepared for Success components specified under division (B)(2) of 146542
section 3302.03 of the Revised Code;146543

        (e) Utilizing programs recognized as innovative under the 146544
federal Race to the Top program.146545

       (C) Each grant applicant shall submit a proposal that 146546
includes all of the following:146547

       (1) A description of the project for which the applicant is 146548
seeking a grant, including a description of how the project will 146549
have substantial value and lasting impact;146550

       (2) An explanation of how the project will be 146551
self-sustaining. If the project will result in increased ongoing 146552
spending, the applicant shall show how the spending will be offset 146553
by verifiable, credible, permanent spending reductions.146554

       (3) A description of quantifiable results of the project that 146555
can be benchmarked.146556

       If an education consortia described in division (A) of this 146557
section applies for a grant, the lead applicant shall be the 146558
school district, school building, community school, or STEM school 146559
that is a member of the consortia and shall so indicate on the 146560
grant application.146561

       (D)(1) Within seventy-five days after receiving a grant 146562
application, the board shall issue a decision on the application 146563
of "yes," "no," "hold," or "edit." In making its decision, the 146564
board shall consider whether the project has the capability of 146565
being replicated in other school districts and schools or creates 146566
something that can be used in other districts and schools. A grant 146567
awarded under this section to a school district, educational 146568
service center, community school, STEM school, college-preparatory 146569
boarding school, or individual school building shall not exceed 146570
$500,000. A grant awarded to an education consortia shall not 146571
exceed $1,000,000. 146572

       (2) If the board issues a "hold" or "edit" decision for an 146573
application, it shall, upon returning the application to the 146574
applicant, specify the process for reconsideration of the 146575
application. An applicant may work with the grant advisors and 146576
staff to modify or improve a grant application.146577

       (E) Upon deciding to award a grant to an applicant, the board 146578
shall enter into a grant agreement with the applicant that 146579
includes all of the following:146580

       (1) The content of the applicant's proposal as outlined under 146581
division (C) of this section;146582

       (2) The project's deliverables and a timetable for their 146583
completion;146584

       (3) Conditions for receiving grant funding;146585

       (4) Conditions for receiving funding in future years if the 146586
contract is a multi-year contract;146587

       (5) A provision specifying that funding will be returned to 146588
the board if the applicant fails to implement the agreement, as 146589
determined by the Auditor of State.146590

       (6) A provision specifying that the agreement may be amended 146591
by mutual agreement between the board and the applicant.146592

       (F) Each grant awarded under this section shall be subject to 146593
approval by the Controlling Board prior to execution of the grant 146594
agreement.146595

       Section 263.330. LOTTERY PROFITS EDUCATION RESERVE FUND146596

       (A) There is hereby created the Lottery Profits Education 146597
Reserve Fund (Fund 7018) in the State Treasury. Investment 146598
earnings of the Lottery Profits Education Reserve Fund shall be 146599
credited to the fund.146600

       (B) Notwithstanding any other provision of law to the 146601
contrary, the Director of Budget and Management may transfer cash 146602
from Fund 7018 to the Lottery Profits Education Fund (Fund 7017) 146603
in fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015.146604

       (C) On July 15, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 146605
Director of the Ohio Lottery Commission shall certify to the 146606
Director of Budget and Management the amount by which lottery 146607
profit transfers received by Fund 7017 exceeded $680,500,000 in 146608
fiscal year 2013.146609

       (D) On July 15, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 146610
Director of the Ohio Lottery Commission shall certify to the 146611
Director of Budget and Management the amount by which lottery 146612
profit transfers received by Fund 7017 exceeded $841,000,000 in 146613
fiscal year 2014.146614

       (E) Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, in 146615
fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, the Director of Budget and 146616
Management may transfer cash in excess of the amounts necessary to 146617
support appropriations in Fund 7017 from that fund to Fund 7018.146618

       Section 263.340. GENERAL REVENUE FUND TRANSFERS TO SCHOOL 146619
DISTRICT PROPERTY TAX REPLACEMENT - BUSINESS (FUND 7047)146620

       Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, in 146621
fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015 the Director of Budget and 146622
Management may make temporary transfers between the General 146623
Revenue Fund and the School District Property Tax Replacement – 146624
Business Fund (Fund 7047), used by the Department of Education, to 146625
ensure sufficient balances in Fund 7047 and to replenish the 146626
General Revenue Fund for such transfers.146627

       Section 263.350. SCHOOL DISTRICT PROPERTY TAX REPLACEMENT - 146628
BUSINESS146629

       The foregoing appropriation item 200909, School District 146630
Property Tax Replacement – Business, shall be used by the 146631
Department of Education, in consultation with the Department of 146632
Taxation, to make payments to school districts and joint 146633
vocational school districts under section 5751.21 of the Revised 146634
Code. If it is determined by the Director of Budget and Management 146635
that additional appropriations are necessary for this purpose, 146636
such amounts are hereby appropriated.146637

       SCHOOL DISTRICT PROPERTY TAX REPLACEMENT - UTILITY146638

       The foregoing appropriation item 200900, School District 146639
Property Tax Replacement-Utility, shall be used by the Department 146640
of Education, in consultation with the Department of Taxation, to 146641
make payments to school districts and joint vocational school 146642
districts under section 5727.85 of the Revised Code. If it is 146643
determined by the Director of Budget and Management that 146644
additional appropriations are necessary for this purpose, such 146645
amounts are hereby appropriated.146646

       DISTRIBUTION FORMULAS146647

       The Department of Education shall report the following to the 146648
Director of Budget and Management and the Legislative Service 146649
Commission:146650

       (A) Changes in formulas for distributing state 146651
appropriations, including administratively defined formula 146652
factors;146653

       (B) Discretionary changes in formulas for distributing 146654
federal appropriations;146655

       (C) Federally mandated changes in formulas for distributing 146656
federal appropriations.146657

       Any such changes shall be reported two weeks prior to the 146658
effective date of the change.146659

       Section 263.360. EDUCATIONAL SERVICE CENTERS FUNDING146660

       In fiscal year 2014, the Department of Education shall pay 146661
the governing board of each primary educational service center 146662
state funds equal to thirty-seven dollars times its student count, 146663
as calculated under division (G)(1) of section 3313.843 of the 146664
Revised Code.146665

       In fiscal year 2015, the Department of Education shall pay 146666
the governing board of each primary educational service center 146667
state funds equal to thirty-five dollars times its student count, 146668
as calculated under division (G)(1) of section 3313.843 of the 146669
Revised Code.146670

        If the amount earmarked for the state reimbursement of 146671
educational service centers in appropriation item 200550, 146672
Foundation Funding, is not sufficient, the Department of Education 146673
shall prorate the payment amounts so that the appropriation is not 146674
exceeded.146675

       Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 146676
Department of Education shall modify the payments under this 146677
section as follows:146678

       (A) If an educational service center ceases operation, the 146679
Department shall redistribute that center's funding, as calculated 146680
under this section, to the remaining centers in proportion to each 146681
center's service center ADM as defined in former section 3317.11 146682
of the Revised Code, as that section existed prior to the date of 146683
its repeal.146684

       (B) If two or more educational service centers merge 146685
operations to create a single service center, the Department shall 146686
distribute the sum of the original service centers' funding, as 146687
calculated under this section, to the new service center.146688

       Section 263.370. SCHOOL DISTRICT PARTICIPATION IN NATIONAL 146689
ASSESSMENT OF EDUCATION PROGRESS146690

       The General Assembly intends for the Superintendent of Public 146691
Instruction to provide for school district participation in the 146692
administration of the National Assessment of Education Progress in 146693
accordance with section 3301.27 of the Revised Code. Each school 146694
and school district selected for participation by the 146695
Superintendent of Public Instruction shall participate.146696

       Section 263.373. COMMUNITY SCHOOL FUNDING GUARANTEE FOR SBH 146697
STUDENTS146698

       (A) As used in this section:146699

       (1) "IEP" has the same meaning as in section 3323.01 of the 146700
Revised Code.146701

       (2) "SBH student" means a student receiving special education 146702
and related services for severe behavior disabilities pursuant to 146703
an IEP.146704

       (B) This section applies only to a community school 146705
established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code that in each 146706
of fiscal years 2014 and 2015 enrolls a number of SBH students 146707
equal to at least fifty per cent of the total number of students 146708
enrolled in the school in the applicable fiscal year.146709

       (C) In addition to any state foundation payments made, in 146710
each of fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the Department of Education 146711
shall pay to a community school to which this section applies a 146712
subsidy equal to the difference between the aggregate amount 146713
calculated and paid in that fiscal year to the community school 146714
for special education and related services additional weighted 146715
costs for the SBH students enrolled in the school and the 146716
aggregate amount that would have been calculated for the school 146717
for special education and related services additional weighted 146718
costs for those same students in fiscal year 2001. If the 146719
difference is a negative number, the amount of the subsidy shall 146720
be zero.146721

       (D) The amount of any subsidy paid to a community school 146722
under this section shall not be deducted from the school district 146723
in which any of the students enrolled in the community school are 146724
entitled to attend school under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of the 146725
Revised Code. The amount of any subsidy paid to a community school 146726
under this section shall be paid from funds appropriated to the 146727
Department of Education in appropriation item 200550, Foundation 146728
Funding.146729

       Section 263.380. EARMARK ACCOUNTABILITY146730

       At the request of the Superintendent of Public Instruction, 146731
any entity that receives a budget earmark under the Department of 146732
Education shall submit annually to the chairpersons of the 146733
committees of the House of Representatives and the Senate 146734
primarily concerned with education and to the Department of 146735
Education a report that includes a description of the services 146736
supported by the funds, a description of the results achieved by 146737
those services, an analysis of the effectiveness of the program, 146738
and an opinion as to the program's applicability to other school 146739
districts. For an earmarked entity that received state funds from 146740
an earmark in the prior fiscal year, no funds shall be provided by 146741
the Department of Education to an earmarked entity for a fiscal 146742
year until its report for the prior fiscal year has been 146743
submitted.146744

       Section 263.390. COMMUNITY SCHOOL OPERATING FROM HOME146745

        A community school established under Chapter 3314. of the 146746
Revised Code that was open for operation as a community school as 146747
of May 1, 2005, may operate from or in any home, as defined in 146748
section 3313.64 of the Revised Code, located in the state, 146749
regardless of when the community school's operations from or in a 146750
particular home began.146751

       Section 263.400. USE OF VOLUNTEERS146752

       The Department of Education may utilize the services of 146753
volunteers to accomplish any of the purposes of the Department. 146754
The Superintendent of Public Instruction shall approve for what 146755
purposes volunteers may be used and for these purposes may 146756
recruit, train, and oversee the services of volunteers. The 146757
Superintendent may reimburse volunteers for necessary and 146758
appropriate expenses in accordance with state guidelines and may 146759
designate volunteers as state employees for the purpose of motor 146760
vehicle accident liability insurance under section 9.83 of the 146761
Revised Code, for immunity under section 9.86 of the Revised Code, 146762
and for indemnification from liability incurred in the performance 146763
of their duties under section 9.87 of the Revised Code.146764

       Section 263.410. RESTRICTION OF LIABILITY FOR CERTAIN 146765
REIMBURSEMENTS146766

       (A) Except as expressly required under a court judgment not 146767
subject to further appeals, or a settlement agreement with a 146768
school district executed on or before June 1, 2009, in the case of 146769
a school district for which the formula ADM for fiscal year 2005, 146770
as reported for that fiscal year under division (A) of section 146771
3317.03 of the Revised Code, was reduced based on enrollment 146772
reports for community schools, made under section 3314.08 of the 146773
Revised Code, regarding students entitled to attend school in the 146774
district, which reduction of formula ADM resulted in a reduction 146775
of foundation funding or transitional aid funding for fiscal year 146776
2005, 2006, or 2007, no school district, except a district named 146777
in the court's judgment or the settlement agreement, shall have a 146778
legal claim for reimbursement of the amount of such reduction in 146779
foundation funding or transitional aid funding, and the state 146780
shall not have liability for reimbursement of the amount of such 146781
reduction in foundation funding or transitional aid funding. 146782

       (B) As used in this section: 146783

       (1) "Community school" means a community school established 146784
under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code.146785

       (2) "Entitled to attend school" means entitled to attend 146786
school in a school district under section 3313.64 or 3313.65 of 146787
the Revised Code. 146788

       (3) "Foundation funding" means payments calculated for the 146789
respective fiscal year under Chapter 3317. of the Revised Code.146790

       (4) "Transitional aid funding" means payments calculated for 146791
the respective fiscal year under Section 41.37 of Am. Sub. H.B. 95 146792
of the 125th General Assembly, as subsequently amended; Section 146793
206.09.39 of Am. Sub. H.B. 66 of the 126th General Assembly, as 146794
subsequently amended; and Section 269.30.80 of Am. Sub. H.B. 119 146795
of the 127th General Assembly. 146796

       Section 263.420.  UNAUDITABLE COMMUNITY SCHOOL146797

       (A) If the Auditor of State or a public accountant, pursuant 146798
to section 117.41 of the Revised Code, declares a community school 146799
established under Chapter 3314. of the Revised Code to be 146800
unauditable, the Auditor of State shall provide written 146801
notification of that declaration to the school, the school's 146802
sponsor, and the Department of Education. The Auditor of State 146803
also shall post the notification on the Auditor of State's web 146804
site.146805

       (B) Notwithstanding any provision to the contrary in Chapter 146806
3314. of the Revised Code or any other provision of law, a sponsor 146807
of a community school that is notified by the Auditor of State 146808
under division (A) of this section that a community school it 146809
sponsors is unauditable shall not enter into contracts with any 146810
additional community schools under section 3314.03 of the Revised 146811
Code until the Auditor of State or a public accountant has 146812
completed a financial audit of that school.146813

       (C) Not later than forty-five days after receiving 146814
notification by the Auditor of State under division (A) of this 146815
section that a community school is unauditable, the sponsor of the 146816
school shall provide a written response to the Auditor of State. 146817
The response shall include the following:146818

       (1) An overview of the process the sponsor will use to review 146819
and understand the circumstances that led to the community school 146820
becoming unauditable;146821

       (2) A plan for providing the Auditor of State with the 146822
documentation necessary to complete an audit of the community 146823
school and for ensuring that all financial documents are available 146824
in the future;146825

       (3) The actions the sponsor will take to ensure that the plan 146826
described in division (C)(2) of this section is implemented.146827

       (D) If a community school fails to make reasonable efforts 146828
and continuing progress to bring its accounts, records, files, or 146829
reports into an auditable condition within ninety days after being 146830
declared unauditable, the Auditor of State, in addition to 146831
requesting legal action under sections 117.41 and 117.42 of the 146832
Revised Code, shall notify the Department of the school's failure. 146833
If the Auditor of State or a public accountant subsequently is 146834
able to complete a financial audit of the school, the Auditor of 146835
State shall notify the Department that the audit has been 146836
completed.146837

       (E) Notwithstanding any provision to the contrary in Chapter 146838
3314. of the Revised Code or any other provision of law, upon 146839
notification by the Auditor of State under division (D) of this 146840
section that a community school has failed to make reasonable 146841
efforts and continuing progress to bring its accounts, records, 146842
files, or reports into an auditable condition following a 146843
declaration that the school is unauditable, the Department shall 146844
immediately cease all payments to the school under Chapter 3314. 146845
of the Revised Code and any other provision of law. Upon 146846
subsequent notification from the Auditor of State under that 146847
division that the Auditor of State or a public accountant was able 146848
to complete a financial audit of the community school, the 146849
Department shall release all funds withheld from the school under 146850
this section.146851

       Section 263.430.  FLEXIBLE FUNDING FOR FAMILIES AND CHILDREN146852

       In collaboration with the County Family and Children First 146853
Council, a city, local, or exempted village school district, 146854
community school, STEM school, joint vocational school district, 146855
educational service center, or county board of developmental 146856
disabilities that receives allocations from the Department of 146857
Education from appropriation item 200550, Foundation Funding, or 146858
appropriation item 200540, Special Education Enhancements, may 146859
transfer portions of those allocations to a flexible funding pool 146860
authorized by the Section of this act entitled "FAMILY AND 146861
CHILDREN FIRST FLEXIBLE FUNDING POOL." Allocations used for 146862
maintenance of effort or for federal or state funding matching 146863
requirements shall not be transferred unless the allocation may 146864
still be used to meet such requirements. 146865

       Section 263.433. The Department of Education shall conduct a 146866
study to determine the appropriate amounts and methods of funding 146867
for each category and sub-category of students identified as 146868
gifted under Chapter 3324. of the Revised Code. Elements of the 146869
study shall include, but not be limited to, costs for effective 146870
and appropriate identification, staffing, professional 146871
development, technology, and materials and supplies at the 146872
district level. In addition, the Department shall determine the 146873
costs of statewide support needed for this population. Not later 146874
than March 31, 2014, the Department shall issue a report of its 146875
findings to the General Assembly in accordance with section 101.68 146876
of the Revised Code.146877

       Section 263.440.  The Department of Education shall conduct a 146878
formative evaluation of the Jon Peterson Special Needs Scholarship 146879
Program established under sections 3310.51 to 3310.64 of the 146880
Revised Code and shall report its findings to the General 146881
Assembly, in accordance with section 101.68 of the Revised Code, 146882
not later than December 31, 2014.146883

        In conducting the evaluation, the Department shall to the 146884
extent possible gather comments from parents who have been awarded 146885
scholarships under the program, school district officials, 146886
representatives of registered private providers, educators, and 146887
representatives of educational organizations for inclusion in the 146888
report required under this section.146889

       The Department may contract with one or more qualified 146890
researchers who have previous experience evaluating school choice 146891
programs to conduct this study. The Department may accept grants 146892
to assist in funding this study.146893

       Section 263.450. (A) The Ohio Open Enrollment Task Force is 146894
hereby established to review and make recommendations on open 146895
enrollment. The Superintendent of Public Instruction shall consult 146896
with the Governor's Office of 21st Century Education to convene a 146897
taskforce that consists of representatives from school districts 146898
that represent all sectors of Ohio's educational community.146899

       (B) The Superintendent shall designate the chairperson of the 146900
Task Force. All meetings of the Task Force shall be held at the 146901
call of the chairperson.146902

       (C) The Task Force shall review and make recommendations 146903
regarding the process by which students may enroll in other school 146904
districts under open enrollment and the funding mechanisms 146905
associated with open enrollment deductions and credits.146906

       (D) Not later than December 31, 2013, the Task Force shall 146907
issue a report of its findings and recommendations to the 146908
Governor, the President of the Senate, and the Speaker of the 146909
House of Representatives. Upon issuance of the report, the Task 146910
Force shall cease to exist.146911

       Section 263.463. (A) In order to implement the transportation 146912
subsidy prescribed by new section 3327.02 of the Revised Code, as 146913
enacted by this act, the Department of Education shall prescribe 146914
procedures and deadlines for parents or students to apply for that 146915
subsidy for the 2014-2015 school year. The application and notice 146916
procedures and deadlines prescribed by the Department shall allow 146917
sufficient time for school district boards of education to take 146918
the exercise of the parent's or student's option to receive the 146919
subsidy, in lieu of transportation, into account when planning 146920
transportation routes and schedules for the 2014-2015 school year.146921

       (B) The State Board of Education shall adopt rules under 146922
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code prescribing procedures necessary 146923
to implement this section and new section 3327.02 of the Revised 146924
Code, as enacted by this act.146925

       Section 263.470.  (A) On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible 146926
thereafter, notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, 146927
and if requested by the Department of Education, the Director of 146928
Budget and Management shall make budget changes made necessary by 146929
the transfer of the operations and related management functions of 146930
the eTech Ohio Commission to the Department of Education, if any, 146931
including administrative organization, program transfers, the 146932
creation of new funds, the transfer of state funds, and the 146933
consolidation of funds, as authorized by this section. The 146934
Director of Budget and Management may, if necessary, establish 146935
encumbrances or parts of encumbrances in the fiscal year 2014-2015 146936
biennium in the appropriate fund and appropriation item for the 146937
same purpose and for payment to the same vendor. The established 146938
encumbrances plus any additional amounts determined to be 146939
necessary for the Ohio Department of Education to perform the 146940
operations and related management functions of the eTech Ohio 146941
Commission are hereby appropriated.146942

       (B) Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and 146943
Management shall cancel any existing encumbrances against 146944
appropriation item 935607, Gates Foundation Grants, and 146945
re-establish them against appropriation item 200668, Gates 146946
Foundation Grants. The re-established encumbrance amounts are 146947
hereby appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed 146948
under appropriation item 935607 by July 1, 2013, shall be 146949
completed under appropriation item 200668 in the same manner and 146950
with the same effect as if it were completed with regard to 146951
appropriation item 935607.146952

       (C) Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and 146953
Management shall cancel existing encumbrances against 146954
appropriation item 935408, General Operations, and re-establish 146955
them, as determined to be appropriate by the Director of Budget 146956
and Management, against appropriation item 200464, General 146957
Technology Operations. The re-established encumbrance amounts are 146958
hereby appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed 146959
under appropriation item 935408 by July 1, 2013, shall be 146960
completed, as determined to be appropriate by the Director of 146961
Budget and Management, under appropriation item 200464 in the same 146962
manner and with the same effect as if it were completed with 146963
regard to appropriation item 935408.146964

       (D) Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and 146965
Management shall cancel existing encumbrances against 146966
appropriation item 935411, Technology Integration and Professional 146967
Development, and re-establish them, as determined to be 146968
appropriate by the Director of Budget and Management, against 146969
appropriation item 200465, Technology Integration and Professional 146970
Development. The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby 146971
appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed under 146972
appropriation item 935411 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed, as 146973
determined to be appropriate by the Director of Budget and 146974
Management, under appropriation item 200465 in the same manner and 146975
with the same effect as if it were completed with regard to 146976
appropriation item 935411.146977

       (E) There is hereby created the Educational Technology 146978
Practice Office as a cross-functional office comprised of 146979
employees of the Ohio Board of Regents and the Department of 146980
Education, including former employees of the eTech Ohio Commission 146981
transferred to the Ohio Board of Regents and the Department of 146982
Education. The Office shall work with educational service centers 146983
and information technology centers to develop digital learning, 146984
blended learning, and professional development materials using 146985
shared infrastructure. The Office shall also evaluate new 146986
educational technology and methodologies of teaching and learning 146987
and work with educators to increase awareness of such new 146988
technology and methodologies shown to be helpful to Ohio students.146989

       Section 263.473. Notwithstanding section 3321.01 of the 146990
Revised Code, no student who has been admitted to and has 146991
successfully completed kindergarten in the 2012-2013 school year 146992
shall be required to repeat kindergarten based solely on the age 146993
of the student.146994

       Section 263.480. PRIVATE TREATMENT FACILITY PROJECT146995

       (A) As used in this section:146996

       (1) The following are "participating residential treatment 146997
centers":146998

       (a) Private residential treatment facilities that have 146999
entered into a contract with the Department of Youth Services to 147000
provide services to children placed at the facility by the 147001
Department and which, in fiscal year 2014 or fiscal year 2015 or 147002
both, the Department pays through appropriation item 470401, 147003
RECLAIM Ohio;147004

       (b) Abraxas, in Shelby;147005

       (c) Paint Creek, in Bainbridge;147006

       (d) F.I.R.S.T., in Mansfield.147007

       (2) "Education program" means an elementary or secondary 147008
education program or a special education program and related 147009
services.147010

       (3) "Served child" means any child receiving an education 147011
program pursuant to division (B) of this section.147012

       (4) "School district responsible for tuition" means a city, 147013
exempted village, or local school district that, if tuition 147014
payment for a child by a school district is required under law 147015
that existed in fiscal year 1998, is the school district required 147016
to pay that tuition.147017

       (5) "Residential child" means a child who resides in a 147018
participating residential treatment center and who is receiving an 147019
educational program under division (B) of this section.147020

       (B) A youth who is a resident of the state and has been 147021
assigned by a juvenile court or other authorized agency to a 147022
residential treatment facility specified in division (A) of this 147023
section shall be enrolled in an approved educational program 147024
located in or near the facility. Approval of the educational 147025
program shall be contingent upon compliance with the criteria 147026
established for such programs by the Department of Education. The 147027
educational program shall be provided by a school district or 147028
educational service center, or by the residential facility itself. 147029
Maximum flexibility shall be given to the residential treatment 147030
facility to determine the provider. In the event that a voluntary 147031
agreement cannot be reached and the residential facility does not 147032
choose to provide the educational program, the educational service 147033
center in the county in which the facility is located shall 147034
provide the educational program at the treatment center to 147035
children under twenty-two years of age residing in the treatment 147036
center.147037

       (C) Any school district responsible for tuition for a 147038
residential child shall, notwithstanding any conflicting provision 147039
of the Revised Code regarding tuition payment, pay tuition for the 147040
child for fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015 to the education 147041
program provider and in the amount specified in this division. If 147042
there is no school district responsible for tuition for a 147043
residential child and if the participating residential treatment 147044
center to which the child is assigned is located in the city, 147045
exempted village, or local school district that, if the child were 147046
not a resident of that treatment center, would be the school 147047
district where the child is entitled to attend school under 147048
sections 3313.64 and 3313.65 of the Revised Code, that school 147049
district, notwithstanding any conflicting provision of the Revised 147050
Code, shall pay tuition for the child for fiscal year 2014 and 147051
fiscal year 2015 under this division unless that school district 147052
is providing the educational program to the child under division 147053
(B) of this section.147054

       A tuition payment under this division shall be made to the 147055
school district, educational service center, or residential 147056
treatment facility providing the educational program to the child.147057

       The amount of tuition paid shall be:147058

       (1) The amount of tuition determined for the district under 147059
division (A) of section 3317.08 of the Revised Code;147060

       (2) In addition, for any student receiving special education 147061
pursuant to an individualized education program as defined in 147062
section 3323.01 of the Revised Code, a payment for excess costs. 147063
This payment shall equal the actual cost to the school district, 147064
educational service center, or residential treatment facility of 147065
providing special education and related services to the student 147066
pursuant to the student's individualized education program, minus 147067
the tuition paid for the child under division (C)(1) of this 147068
section.147069

       A school district paying tuition under this division shall 147070
not include the child for whom tuition is paid in the district's 147071
average daily membership certified under division (A) of section 147072
3317.03 of the Revised Code.147073

       (D) In each of fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the Department of 147074
Education shall reimburse, from appropriations made for the 147075
purpose, a school district, educational service center, or 147076
residential treatment facility, whichever is providing the 147077
service, that has demonstrated that it is in compliance with the 147078
funding criteria for each served child for whom a school district 147079
must pay tuition under division (C) of this section. The amount of 147080
the reimbursement shall be the amount appropriated for this 147081
purpose divided by the full-time equivalent number of children for 147082
whom reimbursement is to be made.147083

       (E) Funds provided to a school district, educational service 147084
center, or residential treatment facility under this section shall 147085
be used to supplement, not supplant, funds from other public 147086
sources for which the school district, service center, or 147087
residential treatment facility is entitled or eligible.147088

       (F) The Department of Education shall track the utilization 147089
of funds provided to school districts, educational service 147090
centers, and residential treatment facilities under this section 147091
and monitor the effect of the funding on the educational programs 147092
they provide in participating residential treatment facilities. 147093
The Department shall monitor the programs for educational 147094
accountability.147095

       Section 265.10. ELC OHIO ELECTIONS COMMISSION147096

General Revenue Fund147097

GRF 051321 Operating Expenses $ 333,117 $ 333,117 147098
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 333,117 $ 333,117 147099

General Services Fund Group147100

4P20 051601 Ohio Elections Commission Fund $ 225,000 $ 225,000 147101
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 225,000 $ 225,000 147102
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 558,117 $ 558,117 147103


       Section 267.10. FUN STATE BOARD OF EMBALMERS AND FUNERAL 147105
DIRECTORS147106

General Services Fund Group147107

4K90 881609 Operating Expenses $ 737,000 $ 741,000 147108
TOTAL GSF General Services 147109
Fund Group $ 737,000 $ 741,000 147110
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 737,000 $ 741,000 147111


       Section 269.10. PAY EMPLOYEE BENEFITS FUNDS147113

Accrued Leave Liability Fund Group147114

8060 995666 Accrued Leave Fund $ 73,494,242 $ 74,964,127 147115
8070 995667 Disability Fund $ 26,593,747 $ 27,345,147 147116
TOTAL ALF Accrued Leave Liability 147117
Fund Group $ 100,087,989 $ 102,309,274 147118

Agency Fund Group147119

1240 995673 Payroll Deductions $ 775,712,468 $ 814,498,091 147120
8080 995668 State Employee Health Benefit Fund $ 689,654,314 $ 758,608,963 147121
8090 995669 Dependent Care Spending Account $ 2,967,711 $ 3,116,097 147122
8100 995670 Life Insurance Investment Fund $ 2,143,053 $ 2,143,053 147123
8110 995671 Parental Leave Benefit Fund $ 3,668,471 $ 3,741,840 147124
8130 995672 Health Care Spending Account $ 8,033,020 $ 8,434,671 147125
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 1,482,179,037 $ 1,590,542,715 147126
147127

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,582,267,026 $ 1,692,851,989 147128

       ACCRUED LEAVE LIABILITY FUND147129

       The foregoing appropriation item 995666, Accrued Leave Fund, 147130
shall be used to make payments from the Accrued Leave Liability 147131
Fund (Fund 8060) pursuant to section 125.211 of the Revised Code. 147132
If it is determined by the Director of Budget and Management that 147133
additional amounts are necessary, the amounts are hereby 147134
appropriated.147135

       STATE EMPLOYEE DISABILITY LEAVE BENEFIT FUND147136

       The foregoing appropriation item 995667, Disability Fund, 147137
shall be used to make payments from the State Employee Disability 147138
Leave Benefit Fund (Fund 8070) pursuant to section 124.83 of the 147139
Revised Code. If it is determined by the Director of Budget and 147140
Management that additional amounts are necessary, the amounts are 147141
hereby appropriated.147142

       PAYROLL DEDUCTION FUND147143

       The foregoing appropriation item 995673, Payroll Deductions, 147144
shall be used to make payments from the Payroll Deduction Fund 147145
(Fund 1240) pursuant to section 125.21 of the Revised Code. If it 147146
is determined by the Director of Budget and Management that 147147
additional appropriation amounts are necessary, the amounts are 147148
hereby appropriated.147149

       STATE EMPLOYEE HEALTH BENEFIT FUND147150

       The foregoing appropriation item 995668, State Employee 147151
Health Benefit Fund, shall be used to make payments from the State 147152
Employee Health Benefit Fund (Fund 8080) pursuant to section 147153
124.87 of the Revised Code. If it is determined by the Director of 147154
Budget and Management that additional amounts are necessary, the 147155
amounts are hereby appropriated.147156

       DEPENDENT CARE SPENDING FUND147157

       The foregoing appropriation item 995669, Dependent Care 147158
Spending Account, shall be used to make payments from the 147159
Dependent Care Spending Fund (Fund 8090) to employees eligible for 147160
dependent care expenses pursuant to section 124.822 of the Revised 147161
Code. If it is determined by the Director of Budget and Management 147162
that additional amounts are necessary, the amounts are hereby 147163
appropriated.147164

       LIFE INSURANCE INVESTMENT FUND147165

       The foregoing appropriation item 995670, Life Insurance 147166
Investment Fund, shall be used to make payments from the Life 147167
Insurance Investment Fund (Fund 8100) for the costs and expenses 147168
of the state's life insurance benefit program pursuant to section 147169
125.212 of the Revised Code. If it is determined by the Director 147170
of Budget and Management that additional amounts are necessary, 147171
the amounts are hereby appropriated.147172

       PARENTAL LEAVE BENEFIT FUND147173

       The foregoing appropriation item 995671, Parental Leave 147174
Benefit Fund, shall be used to make payments from the Parental 147175
Leave Benefit Fund (Fund 8110) to employees eligible for parental 147176
leave benefits pursuant to section 124.137 of the Revised Code. If 147177
it is determined by the Director of Budget and Management that 147178
additional amounts are necessary, the amounts are hereby 147179
appropriated.147180

       HEALTH CARE SPENDING ACCOUNT FUND147181

       The foregoing appropriation item 995672, Health Care Spending 147182
Account, shall be used to make payments from the Health Care 147183
Spending Account Fund (Fund 8130) for payments pursuant to state 147184
employees' participation in a flexible spending account for 147185
non-reimbursed health care expenses and section 124.821 of the 147186
Revised Code. If it is determined by the Director of 147187
Administrative Services that additional appropriation amounts are 147188
necessary, the Director of Administrative Services may request 147189
that the Director of Budget and Management increase such amounts. 147190
Such amounts are hereby appropriated.147191

       Section 269.20. CASH TRANSFERS FROM THE COST SAVINGS FUND147192

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 147193
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer $735,000 cash 147194
from the Cost Savings Fund (Fund 8140) to the Investment Recovery 147195
Fund (Fund 4270) used by the Department of Administrative 147196
Services, and up to $5,200,000 cash from the Cost Savings Fund 147197
(Fund 8140) to the Accrued Leave Fund (Fund 8060) in order to 147198
support accrued leave payouts to state employees who are 147199
participating in an annual leave conversion or who are separating 147200
from state service.147201

       Section 271.10.  ERB STATE EMPLOYMENT RELATIONS BOARD147202

General Revenue Fund147203

GRF 125321 Operating Expenses $ 3,761,457 $ 3,761,457 147204
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 3,761,457 $ 3,761,457 147205

General Services Fund Group147206

5720 125603 Training and Publications $ 85,000 $ 85,000 147207
TOTAL GSF General Services 147208
Fund Group $ 85,000 $ 85,000 147209
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 3,846,457 $ 3,846,457 147210


       Section 273.10. ENG STATE BOARD OF ENGINEERS AND SURVEYORS147212

General Services Fund Group147213

4K90 892609 Operating $ 996,938 $ 993,889 147214
TOTAL GSF General Services 147215
Fund Group $ 996,938 $ 993,889 147216
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 996,938 $ 993,889 147217


       Section 275.10. EPA ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY147219

General Revenue Fund147220

GRF 715502 Auto Emissions e-Check Program $ 10,923,093 $ 10,923,093 147221
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 10,923,093 $ 10,923,093 147222

General Services Fund Group147223

1990 715602 Laboratory Services $ 252,153 $ 326,029 147224
2190 715604 Central Support Indirect $ 10,255,680 $ 10,255,680 147225
4A10 715640 Operating Expenses $ 2,600,000 $ 2,602,000 147226
4D50 715618 Recycled State Materials $ 50,000 $ 50,000 147227
TOTAL GSF General Services 147228
Fund Group $ 13,157,833 $ 13,233,709 147229

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group147230

3530 715612 Public Water Supply $ 2,562,578 $ 2,474,605 147231
3540 715614 Hazardous Waste Management - Federal $ 4,088,383 $ 4,088,383 147232
3570 715619 Air Pollution Control - Federal $ 6,310,203 $ 6,310,203 147233
3620 715605 Underground Injection Control - Federal $ 111,874 $ 111,874 147234
3BU0 715684 Water Quality Protection $ 16,205,000 $ 15,280,000 147235
3CS0 715688 Federal NRD Settlements $ 200,000 $ 200,000 147236
3F20 715630 Revolving Loan Fund - Operating $ 832,543 $ 1,114,543 147237
3F30 715632 Federally Supported Cleanup and Response $ 3,012,021 $ 3,012,991 147238
3FH0 715693 Diesel Emission Reduction Grants $ 10,000,000 $ 10,000,000 147239
3T30 715669 Drinking Water State Revolving Fund $ 2,609,198 $ 2,824,076 147240
3V70 715606 Agencywide Grants $ 600,000 $ 600,000 147241
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 147242
Fund Group $ 46,531,800 $ 46,016,675 147243

State Special Revenue Fund Group147244

4J00 715638 Underground Injection Control $ 389,126 $ 402,697 147245
4K20 715648 Clean Air - Non Title V $ 3,165,400 $ 3,237,450 147246
4K30 715649 Solid Waste $ 15,685,342 $ 16,330,873 147247
4K40 715650 Surface Water Protection $ 6,993,800 $ 7,688,800 147248
4K40 715686 Environmental Laboratory Services $ 2,096,007 $ 2,096,007 147249
4K50 715651 Drinking Water Protection $ 6,316,772 $ 6,476,011 147250
4P50 715654 Cozart Landfill $ 100,000 $ 100,000 147251
4R50 715656 Scrap Tire Management $ 1,059,378 $ 1,070,532 147252
4R90 715658 Voluntary Action Program $ 916,690 $ 945,195 147253
4T30 715659 Clean Air - Title V Permit Program $ 14,528,885 $ 15,080,366 147254
4U70 715660 Construction and Demolition Debris $ 335,000 $ 335,000 147255
5000 715608 Immediate Removal Special Account $ 660,033 $ 660,293 147256
5030 715621 Hazardous Waste Facility Management $ 7,615,403 $ 8,224,041 147257
5050 715623 Hazardous Waste Cleanup $ 14,528,609 $ 14,933,345 147258
5050 715674 Clean Ohio Environmental Review $ 108,104 $ 108,104 147259
5320 715646 Recycling and Litter Control $ 4,514,500 $ 4,535,500 147260
5410 715670 Site Specific Cleanup $ 1,548,101 $ 1,548,101 147261
5420 715671 Risk Management Reporting $ 208,936 $ 214,826 147262
5860 715637 Scrap Tire Market Development $ 1,497,645 $ 1,497,645 147263
5BC0 715617 Clean Ohio $ 611,455 $ 611,455 147264
5BC0 715622 Local Air Pollution Control $ 2,297,980 $ 2,297,980 147265
5BC0 715624 Surface Water $ 9,614,974 $ 9,614,974 147266
5BC0 715672 Air Pollution Control $ 5,684,758 $ 5,684,758 147267
5BC0 715673 Drinking and Ground Water $ 4,863,521 $ 4,863,521 147268
5BC0 715676 Assistance and Prevention $ 695,069 $ 695,069 147269
5BC0 715677 Laboratory $ 1,358,586 $ 1,558,586 147270
5BC0 715678 Corrective Actions $ 705,423 $ 705,423 147271
5BC0 715687 Areawide Planning Agencies $ 450,000 $ 450,000 147272
5BC0 715692 Administration $ 10,582,627 $ 10,582,627 147273
5BC0 715694 Environmental Resource Coordination $ 170,000 $ 170,000 147274
5BT0 715679 C&DD Groundwater Monitoring $ 203,800 $ 203,800 147275
5CD0 715682 Clean Diesel School Buses $ 475,000 $ 475,000 147276
5H40 715664 Groundwater Support $ 128,212 $ 223,212 147277
5Y30 715685 Surface Water Improvement $ 1,800,000 $ 1,800,000 147278
6440 715631 Emergency Response Radiological Safety $ 284,266 $ 290,674 147279
6600 715629 Infectious Waste Management $ 88,764 $ 88,764 147280
6760 715642 Water Pollution Control Loan Administration $ 3,921,605 $ 3,921,605 147281
6780 715635 Air Toxic Release $ 133,636 $ 133,636 147282
6790 715636 Emergency Planning $ 2,623,252 $ 2,623,252 147283
6960 715643 Air Pollution Control Administration $ 1,100,000 $ 1,125,000 147284
6990 715644 Water Pollution Control Administration $ 345,000 $ 345,000 147285
6A10 715645 Environmental Education $ 1,350,000 $ 1,350,000 147286
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 131,755,659 $ 135,299,122 147287

Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group147288

5S10 715607 Clean Ohio - Operating $ 284,124 $ 284,124 147289
TOTAL CLF Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group $ 284,124 $ 284,124 147290
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 202,652,509 $ 205,756,723 147291

       AREAWIDE PLANNING AGENCIES147292

       The Director of Environmental Protection Agency may award 147293
grants from appropriation item 715687, Areawide Planning Agencies, 147294
to areawide planning agencies engaged in areawide water quality 147295
management and planning activities in accordance with Section 208 147296
of the "Federal Clean Water Act," 33 U.S.C. 1288.147297

       CASH TRANSFERS147298

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 147299
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to $11,400,000 147300
cash from the Hazardous Waste Management Fund (Fund 5030) to the 147301
Hazardous Waste Cleanup Fund (Fund 5050) to support closure and 147302
corrective action programs that were transferred to the Division 147303
of Environmental Response and Revitalization.147304

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 147305
Director of Environmental Protection shall certify to the Director 147306
of Budget and Management the cash balance in the Dredge and Fill 147307
Fund (Fund 5N20). The Director of Budget and Management shall 147308
transfer the certified amount from Fund 5N20 to the Surface Water 147309
Protection Fund (Fund 4K40). Any existing encumbrances against 147310
appropriation item 715613, Dredge and Fill, shall be canceled and 147311
reestablished against appropriation item 715650, Surface Water 147312
Protection. The reestablished encumbrance amounts are hereby 147313
appropriated and Fund 5N20 is abolished.147314

       Section 277.10. EBR ENVIRONMENTAL REVIEW APPEALS COMMISSION147315

General Revenue Fund147316

GRF 172321 Operating Expenses $ 545,530 $ 545,530 147317
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 545,530 $ 545,530 147318
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 545,530 $ 545,530 147319


       Section 278.10. ETC BROADCAST EDUCATIONAL MEDIA COMMISSION147321

General Revenue Fund147322

GRF 935401 Statehouse News Bureau $ 215,561 $ 215,561 147323
GRF 935402 Ohio Government Telecommunications Services $ 1,252,089 $ 1,252,089 147324
GRF 935408 General Operations $ 750,000 $ 750,000 147325
GRF 935409 Technology Operations $ 2,500,000 $ 2,500,000 147326
GRF 935410 Content Development, Acquisition, and Distribution $ 2,607,094 $ 2,607,094 147327
GRF 935412 Information Technology $ 500,000 $ 500,000 147328
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 7,824,744 $ 7,824,744 147329

General Services Fund Group147330

4F30 935603 Affiliate Services $ 50,000 $ 0 147331
4T20 935605 Government Television/Telecommunications Operating $ 30,000 $ 0 147332
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 80,000 $ 0 147333

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 7,904,744 $ 7,824,744 147334


       Section 278.20.  STATEHOUSE NEWS BUREAU147336

       The foregoing appropriation item 935401, Statehouse News 147337
Bureau, shall be used solely to support the operations of the Ohio 147338
Statehouse News Bureau.147339

       OHIO GOVERNMENT TELECOMMUNICATIONS SERVICES147340

       The foregoing appropriation item 935402, Ohio Government 147341
Telecommunications Services, shall be used solely to support the 147342
operations of Ohio Government Telecommunications Services which 147343
include providing multimedia support to the state government and 147344
its affiliated organizations and broadcasting the activities of 147345
the legislative, judicial, and executive branches of state 147346
government, among its other functions.147347

       TECHNOLOGY OPERATIONS147348

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 935409, Technology 147349
Operations, the Broadcast Educational Media Commission shall 147350
provide up to $1,000,000 in each fiscal year to the Board of 147351
Regents in order for the Board of Regents to provide grants on a 147352
competitive basis to public and chartered nonpublic schools for 147353
their participation in the electronic textbook pilot project. 147354
These grants shall be administered as provided under the section 147355
of this act entitled ELECTRONIC TEXTBOOK PILOT PROJECT. On July 1, 147356
2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Chancellor of the 147357
Board of Regents may certify to the Director of Budget and 147358
Management the amount of the unexpended, unencumbered balance of 147359
this set aside at the end of fiscal year 2014 to be appropriated 147360
to fiscal year 2015. The amount certified is hereby reappropriated 147361
for the same purpose for fiscal year 2015. 147362

       The remainder of the foregoing appropriation item 935409, 147363
Technology Operations, shall be used by the Broadcast Educational 147364
Media Commission to pay expenses of the network infrastructure, 147365
which includes the television and radio transmission 147366
infrastructure and infrastructure that shall link all public K-12 147367
classrooms to each other and to the Internet, and provide access 147368
to voice, video, other communication services, and data 147369
educational resources for students and teachers. 147370

       CONTENT DEVELOPMENT, ACQUISITION, AND DISTRIBUTION147371

       The foregoing appropriation item 935410, Content Development, 147372
Acquisition, and Distribution, shall be used for the development, 147373
acquisition, and distribution of information resources by public 147374
media and radio reading services and for educational use in the 147375
classroom and online.147376

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 935410, Content 147377
Development, Acquisition, and Distribution, up to $658,099 in each 147378
fiscal year shall be allocated equally among the 12 Ohio 147379
educational television stations. Funds shall be used for the 147380
production of interactive instructional programming series with 147381
priority given to resources aligned with state academic content 147382
standards. The programming shall be targeted to the needs of the 147383
poorest two hundred school districts as determined by the 147384
district's adjusted valuation per pupil as defined in former 147385
section 3317.0213 of the Revised Code as that section existed 147386
prior to June 30, 2005.147387

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 935410, Content 147388
Development, Acquisition, and Distribution, up to $1,749,283 in 147389
each fiscal year shall be distributed by the Broadcast Educational 147390
Media Commission to Ohio's qualified public educational television 147391
stations and educational radio stations to support their 147392
operations. The funds shall be distributed pursuant to an 147393
allocation formula used by the Ohio Educational Telecommunications 147394
Network Commission unless a substitute formula is developed by the 147395
Broadcast Educational Media Commission in consultation with Ohio's 147396
qualified public educational television stations and educational 147397
radio stations.147398

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 935410, Content 147399
Development, Acquisition, and Distribution, up to $199,712 in each 147400
fiscal year shall be distributed by the Broadcast Educational 147401
Media Commission to Ohio's qualified radio reading services to 147402
support their operations. The funds shall be distributed pursuant 147403
to an allocation formula used by the Ohio Educational 147404
Telecommunications Network Commission unless a substitute formula 147405
is developed by the Broadcast Educational Media Commission in 147406
consultation with Ohio's qualified radio reading services.147407

       Section 279.10. ETH OHIO ETHICS COMMISSION147408

General Revenue Fund147409

GRF 146321 Operating Expenses $ 1,409,751 $ 1,381,556 147410
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 1,409,751 $ 1,381,556 147411

General Services Fund Group147412

4M60 146601 Operating Expenses $ 636,388 $ 641,000 147413
TOTAL GSF General Services 147414
Fund Group $ 636,388 $ 641,000 147415
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 2,046,139 $ 2,022,556 147416


       Section 281.10. EXP OHIO EXPOSITIONS COMMISSION147418

General Revenue Fund147419

GRF 723403 Junior Fair Subsidy $ 250,000 $ 250,000 147420
GRF 723501 Construction Planning $ 670,000 $ 0 147421
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 920,000 $ 250,000 147422

State Special Revenue Fund Group147423

4N20 723602 Ohio State Fair Harness Racing $ 235,000 $ 235,000 147424
5060 723601 Operating Expenses $ 12,894,000 $ 12,894,000 147425
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 147426
Fund Group $ 13,129,000 $ 13,129,000 147427
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 14,049,000 $ 13,379,000 147428

       CONSTRUCTION PLANNING147429

       The foregoing appropriation item 723501, Construction 147430
Planning, shall be used for acquiring purchased services for new 147431
and renovated facility planning, including, but not limited to, 147432
necessary architectural engineering, land or facility use 147433
consulting services, and facility construction. An amount equal to 147434
the unexpended, unencumbered portion of the foregoing 147435
appropriation item 723501, Construction Planning, is hereby 147436
reappropriated for the same purpose in FY 2015.147437

       STATE FAIR RESERVE147438

       The General Manager of the Expositions Commission, in 147439
consultation with the Director of Budget and Management, may 147440
submit a request to the Controlling Board to use available amounts 147441
in the State Fair Reserve Fund (Fund 6400) if revenues for the 147442
Ohio State Fair for the 2013 or 2014 Ohio State Fair are 147443
unexpectedly low.147444

       Section 282.10. FCC OHIO FACILITIES CONSTRUCTION COMMISSION147445

General Revenue Fund147446

GRF 230401 Lease Rental Payments - Cultural Facilities $ 10,550,568 $ 29,854,500 147447
GRF 230458 State Construction Management Services $ 2,495,751 $ 2,245,751 147448
GRF 230908 Common Schools General Obligation Debt Service $ 351,806,100 $ 377,364,700 147449
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 364,852,419 $ 409,464,951 147450

General Services Fund Group147451

1310 230639 State Construction Management Operations $ 9,463,342 $ 9,463,342 147452
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 9,463,342 $ 9,463,342 147453

State Special Revenue Fund Group147454

4T80 230603 Community Project Administration $ 150,000 $ 200,000 147455
5E30 230644 Operating Expenses $ 8,550,000 $ 8,550,000 147456
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 147457
Fund Group $ 8,700,000 $ 8,750,000 147458
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 383,015,761 $ 427,678,293 147459


       Section 282.20. LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS147461

       The foregoing appropriation item 230401, Lease Rental 147462
Payments - Cultural Facilities, shall be used to meet all payments 147463
at the times they are required to be made during the period from 147464
January 1, 2014, through June 30, 2015, from the Ohio Facilities 147465
Construction Commission under the primary leases and agreements 147466
for those arts and sports facilities made under Chapters 152. and 147467
154. of the Revised Code. These appropriations are the source of 147468
funds pledged for bond service charges on related obligations 147469
issued under Chapters 152. and 154. of the Revised Code.147470

       COMMON SCHOOLS GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE147471

       The foregoing appropriation item 230908, Common Schools 147472
General Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to pay all debt 147473
service and related financing costs at the times they are required 147474
to be made during the period from July 1, 2013, through June 30, 147475
2015, for obligations issued under sections 151.01 and 151.03 of 147476
the Revised Code.147477

       Section 282.30.  COMMUNITY PROJECT ADMINISTRATION147478

       The foregoing appropriation item 230603, Community Project 147479
Administration, shall be used by the Ohio Facilities Construction 147480
Commission in administering Cultural and Sports Facilities 147481
Building Fund (Fund 7030) projects pursuant to section 123.201 of 147482
the Revised Code.147483

       Section 282.40. OPERATING EXPENSES147484

       The foregoing appropriation item 230644, Operating Expenses, 147485
shall be used by the Ohio School Facilities Commission to carry 147486
out its responsibilities under this section and Chapter 3318. of 147487
the Revised Code.147488

       In both fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the Executive Director of 147489
the Ohio School Facilities Commission shall certify on a quarterly 147490
basis to the Director of Budget and Management the amount of cash 147491
from interest earnings to be transferred from the School Building 147492
Assistance Fund (Fund 7032), the Public School Building Fund (Fund 147493
7021), and the Educational Facilities Trust Fund (Fund N087) to 147494
the Ohio School Facilities Commission Fund (Fund 5E30). The amount 147495
transferred from the School Building Assistance Fund (Fund 7032) 147496
may not exceed investment earnings credited to the fund, less any 147497
amount required to be paid for federal arbitrage rebate purposes.147498

       If the Executive Director of the Ohio Facilities Construction 147499
Commission determines that transferring cash from interest 147500
earnings is insufficient to support operations and carry out its 147501
responsibilities under this section and Chapter 3318. of the 147502
Revised Code, the Commission may, with the approval of the 147503
Controlling Board, transfer cash not generated from interest from 147504
the Public School Building Fund (Fund 7021) and the Educational 147505
Trust Fund (Fund N087) to the Ohio School Facilities Commission 147506
Fund (Fund 5E30).147507

       SCHOOL FACILITIES ENCUMBRANCES AND REAPPROPRIATION147508

       At the request of the Executive Director of the Ohio School 147509
Facilities Commission, the Director of Budget and Management may 147510
cancel encumbrances for school district projects from a previous 147511
biennium if the district has not raised its local share of project 147512
costs within thirteen months of receiving Controlling Board 147513
approval under section 3318.05 or 3318.41 of the Revised Code. The 147514
Executive Director of the Ohio School Facilities Commission shall 147515
certify the amounts of the canceled encumbrances to the Director 147516
of Budget and Management on a quarterly basis. The amounts of the 147517
canceled encumbrances are hereby appropriated.147518

       Section 282.50. CAPITAL DONATIONS FUND CERTIFICATIONS AND 147519
APPROPRIATIONS147520

        On January 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 147521
Executive Director of the Facilities Construction Commission shall 147522
certify to the Director of Budget and Management the amount of 147523
cash receipts and related investment income, irrevocable letters 147524
of credit from a bank, or certification of the availability of 147525
funds that have been received from a county or a municipal 147526
corporation for deposit into the Capital Donations Fund (Fund 147527
5A10) and that are related to an anticipated project. These 147528
amounts are hereby appropriated to appropriation item C37146, 147529
Capital Donations. Prior to certifying these amounts to the 147530
Director, the Executive Director shall make a written agreement 147531
with the participating entity on the necessary cash flows required 147532
for the anticipated construction or equipment acquisition project.147533

       Section 282.60.  AMENDMENT TO PROJECT AGREEMENT FOR 147534
MAINTENANCE LEVY147535

        The Ohio School Facilities Commission shall amend the project 147536
agreement between the Commission and a school district that is 147537
participating in the Accelerated Urban School Building Assistance 147538
Program on the effective date of this section, if the Commission 147539
determines that it is necessary to do so in order to comply with 147540
division (B)(3)(c) of section 3318.38 of the Revised Code.147541

       Section 282.70. Notwithstanding any other provision of law to 147542
the contrary, the Ohio School Facilities Commission may determine 147543
the amount of funding available for disbursement in a given fiscal 147544
year for any project approved under sections 3318.01 to 3318.20 of 147545
the Revised Code in order to keep aggregate state capital spending 147546
within approved limits and may take actions including, but not 147547
limited to, determining the schedule for design or bidding of 147548
approved projects, to ensure appropriate and supportable cash 147549
flow. 147550

       Section 282.80. Notwithstanding division (B) of section 147551
3318.40 of the Revised Code, the Ohio School Facilities Commission 147552
may provide assistance to at least one joint vocational school 147553
district each fiscal year for the acquisition of classroom 147554
facilities in accordance with sections 3318.40 to 3318.45 of the 147555
Revised Code. 147556

       Section 282.90. Effective January 1, 2014, the Ohio Cultural 147557
Facilities Commission is abolished. Except as otherwise provided 147558
in this section, all obligations of the Ohio Cultural Facilities 147559
Commission under agreements to which the Ohio Cultural Facilities 147560
Commission is a party, and all records and assets of the Ohio 147561
Cultural Facilities Commission, including, without limitation, 147562
equipment, inventory, contract rights, accounts, and general 147563
intangibles, are transferred to the Ohio Facilities Construction 147564
Commission.147565

       The Ohio Facilities Construction Commission shall designate 147566
the positions, if any, to be transferred to the Ohio Facilities 147567
Construction Commission, along with any equipment assigned to 147568
those positions. Any employee transferred to the Ohio Facilities 147569
Construction Commission retains the employee's respective 147570
classification, but the Ohio Facilities Construction Commission 147571
may reassign and reclassify the employee's position and 147572
compensation as the Ohio Facilities Construction Commission 147573
determines to be in the best interest of office administration.147574

       The Ohio Facilities Construction Commission shall complete 147575
any activities related to the design, planning, construction, and 147576
related management functions commenced but not completed by the 147577
Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission in the same manner and with 147578
the same effect as if the Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission had 147579
completed them. The consolidation of the commissions shall not 147580
cause the loss or impairment of any validation, cure, right, 147581
privilege, remedy, obligation, or liability, which the Ohio 147582
Facilities Construction Commission shall administer. 147583

        All rules, orders, and determinations related to the design, 147584
planning, and construction and related management functions of the 147585
Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission continue in effect as rules, 147586
orders, and determinations of the Ohio Facilities Construction 147587
Commission until the Ohio Facilities Construction Commission 147588
modifies or rescinds them. The Director of the Legislative Service 147589
Commission shall renumber the rules of the Ohio Cultural 147590
Facilities Commission related to that commission's design, 147591
planning, and construction and related management functions to 147592
reflect their transfer to the Ohio Facilities Construction 147593
Commission.147594

       The transfer of functions from the Ohio Cultural Facilities 147595
Commission to the Ohio Facilities Construction Commission does not 147596
affect any pending judicial or administrative action or proceeding 147597
to which the Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission is a party and 147598
that is related to that commission's design, planning, 147599
construction, capital funding, or related management functions. 147600
Any such action or proceeding shall be prosecuted or defended in 147601
the name of the Ohio Facilities Construction Commission. On 147602
application to the court or agency, the Ohio Facilities 147603
Construction Commission shall be substituted for the Ohio Cultural 147604
Facilities Commission as a party to the action or proceeding.147605

       Effective January 1, 2014, the Director of Budget and 147606
Management shall cancel any existing encumbrances against 147607
appropriation item 371603, Project Administration, and 147608
re-establish them against appropriation item 230603, Community 147609
Project Administration. The re-established encumbrance amounts are 147610
hereby appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed 147611
under appropriation item 371603 by January 1, 2014, shall be 147612
completed under appropriation item 230603 in the same manner and 147613
with the same effect as if it were completed with regard to 147614
appropriation item 371603.147615

       Funds collected as part of a management contract for the 147616
Riffe Theatres, which previously were deposited in the Ohio 147617
Cultural Facilities Commission Administration Fund (Fund 4T80), 147618
shall be credited to the Theater Equipment Maintenance Fund (Fund 147619
5MV0), which is hereby created in the State Treasury. The Director 147620
of Budget and Management shall transfer from the Ohio Cultural 147621
Facilities Commission Administration Fund to the Theater Equipment 147622
Maintenance Fund any remaining cash balances from funds collected 147623
as part of a management contract for the Riffe Theatres. In order 147624
to facilitate this transfer, the Executive Director of the Ohio 147625
Facilities Construction Commission, by January 1, 2014, or as soon 147626
as possible thereafter, shall certify to the Director of Budget 147627
and Management an estimate of the amount to be transferred. The 147628
Department of Administrative Services shall use appropriation item 147629
100662, Theater Equipment Maintenance, to spend cash in the 147630
Theater Equipment Maintenance Fund (Fund 5MV0).147631

       The Ohio Facilities Construction Commission may enter into an 147632
interagency agreement with the Department of Administrative 147633
Services for the Department to perform any of the functions 147634
transferred to the Ohio Facilities Construction Commission under 147635
this section.147636

       Any reference to the Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission in 147637
any statute, rule, contract, grant, or other document is deemed to 147638
refer to the Ohio Facilities Construction Commission.147639

       The Ohio Facilities Construction Commission, the Ohio Public 147640
Facilities Commission, and the issuing authority of any 147641
obligations issued for the financing of capital facilities for 147642
Ohio cultural facilities and Ohio sports facilities may execute 147643
instruments, documents, and agreements and may take necessary or 147644
appropriate actions to effect the orderly transfer of those 147645
obligations from the Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission to the 147646
Ohio Facilities Construction Commission.147647

       This section takes effect January 1, 2014.147648

       Section 283.10. GOV OFFICE OF THE GOVERNOR147649

General Revenue Fund147650

GRF 040321 Operating Expenses $ 2,851,552 $ 2,851,552 147651
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 2,851,552 $ 2,851,552 147652

General Services Fund Group147653

5AK0 040607 Government Relations $ 365,149 $ 365,149 147654
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 365,149 $ 365,149 147655

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 3,216,701 $ 3,216,701 147656

       GOVERNMENT RELATIONS147657

       A portion of the foregoing appropriation item 040607, 147658
Government Relations, may be used to support Ohio's membership in 147659
national or regional associations.147660

       The Office of the Governor may charge any state agency of the 147661
executive branch using an intrastate transfer voucher such amounts 147662
necessary to defray the costs incurred for the conduct of 147663
governmental relations associated with issues that can be 147664
attributed to the agency. Amounts collected shall be deposited in 147665
the Government Relations Fund (Fund 5AK0).147666

       Section 285.10. DOH DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH147667

General Revenue Fund147668

GRF 440412 Cancer Incidence Surveillance System $ 600,000 $ 600,000 147669
GRF 440413 Local Health Departments $ 823,061 $ 823,061 147670
GRF 440416 Mothers and Children Safety Net Services $ 4,428,015 $ 4,428,015 147671
GRF 440418 Immunizations $ 8,825,829 $ 8,825,829 147672
GRF 440431 Free Clinics Safety Net Services $ 437,326 $ 437,326 147673
GRF 440438 Breast and Cervical Cancer Screening $ 823,217 $ 823,217 147674
GRF 440444 AIDS Prevention and Treatment $ 5,842,315 $ 5,842,315 147675
GRF 440451 Public Health Laboratory $ 3,655,449 $ 3,655,449 147676
GRF 440452 Child and Family Health Services Match $ 630,444 $ 630,444 147677
GRF 440453 Health Care Quality Assurance $ 4,874,361 $ 4,874,361 147678
GRF 440454 Environmental Health $ 1,194,634 $ 1,194,634 147679
GRF 440459 Help Me Grow $ 33,673,987 $ 33,673,987 147680
GRF 440465 Federally Qualified Health Centers $ 2,686,688 $ 2,686,688 147681
GRF 440467 Access to Dental Care $ 540,484 $ 540,484 147682
GRF 440468 Chronic Disease and Injury Prevention $ 2,447,251 $ 2,447,251 147683
GRF 440472 Alcohol Testing $ 1,100,000 $ 1,100,000 147684
GRF 440473 Tobacco Prevention and Cessation $ 1,050,000 $ 1,050,000 147685
GRF 440474 Infant Vitality $ 3,116,688 $ 3,116,688 147686
GRF 440505 Medically Handicapped Children $ 7,512,451 $ 7,512,451 147687
GRF 440507 Targeted Health Care Services Over 21 $ 1,045,414 $ 1,045,414 147688
GRF 654453 Medicaid - Health Care Quality Assurance $ 3,300,000 $ 3,300,000 147689
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 88,607,614 $ 88,607,614 147690

State Highway Safety Fund Group147691

4T40 440603 Child Highway Safety $ 233,894 $ 233,894 147692
TOTAL HSF State Highway Safety 147693
Fund Group $ 233,894 $ 233,894 147694

General Services Fund Group147695

1420 440646 Agency Health Services $ 820,998 $ 820,998 147696
2110 440613 Central Support Indirect Costs $ 30,615,591 $ 31,052,469 147697
4730 440622 Lab Operating Expenses $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 147698
6980 440634 Nurse Aide Training $ 99,265 $ 99,265 147699
TOTAL GSF General Services 147700
Fund Group $ 36,535,854 $ 36,972,732 147701

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group147702

3200 440601 Maternal Child Health Block Grant $ 23,889,057 $ 23,889,057 147703
3870 440602 Preventive Health Block Grant $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 147704
3890 440604 Women, Infants, and Children $ 250,000,000 $ 250,000,000 147705
3910 440606 Medicare Survey and Certification $ 19,449,282 $ 19,961,405 147706
3920 440618 Federal Public Health Programs $ 134,546,304 $ 135,140,586 147707
3GD0 654601 Medicaid Program Support $ 21,126,014 $ 22,392,094 147708
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 147709
Fund Group $ 455,010,657 $ 457,383,142 147710

State Special Revenue Fund Group147711

4700 440647 Fee Supported Programs $ 25,305,250 $ 25,613,586 147712
4710 440619 Certificate of Need $ 878,433 $ 878,433 147713
4770 440627 Medically Handicapped Children Audit $ 3,692,703 $ 3,692,703 147714
4D60 440608 Genetics Services $ 3,311,039 $ 3,311,039 147715
4F90 440610 Sickle Cell Disease Control $ 1,032,824 $ 1,032,824 147716
4G00 440636 Heirloom Birth Certificate $ 5,000 $ 5,000 147717
4G00 440637 Birth Certificate Surcharge $ 5,000 $ 5,000 147718
4L30 440609 HIV Care and Miscellaneous Expenses $ 8,333,164 $ 8,333,164 147719
4P40 440628 Ohio Physician Loan Repayment $ 476,870 $ 476,870 147720
4V60 440641 Save Our Sight $ 2,255,789 $ 2,255,789 147721
5B50 440616 Quality, Monitoring, and Inspection $ 878,997 $ 878,997 147722
5CN0 440645 Choose Life $ 75,000 $ 75,000 147723
5D60 440620 Second Chance Trust $ 1,151,902 $ 1,151,902 147724
5ED0 440651 Smoke Free Indoor Air $ 250,000 $ 250,000 147725
5G40 440639 Adoption Services $ 20,000 $ 20,000 147726
5Z70 440624 Ohio Dentist Loan Repayment $ 140,000 $ 140,000 147727
6100 440626 Radiation Emergency Response $ 1,049,954 $ 1,086,098 147728
6660 440607 Medically Handicapped Children - County Assessments $ 19,739,617 $ 19,739,617 147729
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 147730
Fund Group $ 68,601,542 $ 68,946,022 147731

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group147732

R014 440631 Vital Statistics $ 44,986 $ 44,986 147733
R048 440625 Refunds, Grants Reconciliation, and Audit Settlements $ 20,000 $ 20,000 147734
TOTAL 090 Holding Account 147735
Redistribution Fund Group $ 64,986 $ 64,986 147736

Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group147737

5BX0 440656 Tobacco Use Prevention $ 1,450,000 $ 1,450,000 147738
TOTAL TSF Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group $ 1,450,000 $ 1,450,000 147739
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 650,504,547 $ 653,658,390 147740


       Section 285.20.  MOTHERS AND CHILDREN SAFETY NET SERVICES147742

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 440416, Mothers and 147743
Children Safety Net Services, $200,000 in each fiscal year shall 147744
be used to assist families with hearing impaired children under 147745
twenty-one years of age in purchasing hearing aids. The Director 147746
of Health shall adopt rules governing the distribution of these 147747
funds, including rules that do both of the following: (1) 147748
establish eligibility criteria to include families with incomes at 147749
or below four hundred per cent of the federal poverty guidelines 147750
as defined in section 5101.46 of the Revised Code, and (2) develop 147751
a sliding scale of disbursements under this section based on 147752
family income. The Director may adopt other rules as necessary to 147753
implement this section. Rules adopted under this section shall be 147754
adopted in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code.147755

        The Department shall disburse all of the funds appropriated 147756
under this section.147757

        HIV/AIDS PREVENTION/TREATMENT147758

       The foregoing appropriation item 440444, AIDS Prevention and 147759
Treatment, shall be used to assist persons with HIV/AIDS in 147760
acquiring HIV-related medications and to administer educational 147761
prevention initiatives.147762

       PUBLIC HEALTH LABORATORY147763

       A portion of the foregoing appropriation item 440451, Public 147764
Health Laboratory, shall be used for coordination and management 147765
of prevention program operations and the purchase of drugs for 147766
sexually transmitted diseases.147767

       HELP ME GROW147768

       The foregoing appropriation item 440459, Help Me Grow, shall 147769
be used by the Department of Health to implement the Help Me Grow 147770
Program. Funds shall be distributed to counties through 147771
agreements, contracts, grants, or subsidies in accordance with 147772
section 3701.61 of the Revised Code. Appropriation item 440459, 147773
Help Me Grow, may be used in conjunction with other early 147774
childhood funds and services to promote the optimal development of 147775
young children and family-centered programs and services that 147776
acknowledge and support the social, emotional, cognitive, 147777
intellectual, and physical development of children and the vital 147778
role of families in ensuring the well-being and success of 147779
children. The Department of Health shall enter into interagency 147780
agreements with the Department of Education, Department of 147781
Developmental Disabilities, Department of Job and Family Services, 147782
and Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services to ensure 147783
that all early childhood programs and initiatives are coordinated 147784
and school linked.147785

       The foregoing appropriation item 440459, Help Me Grow, may 147786
also be used for the Developmental Autism and Screening Program.147787

       INFANT VITALITY147788

       The foregoing appropriation item 440474, Infant Vitality, 147789
shall be used to fund the following projects, which are hereby 147790
created: 147791

       (A) The Infant Safe Sleep Campaign to educate parents and 147792
caregivers with a uniform message regarding safe sleep 147793
environments; 147794

       (B) The Progesterone Prematurity Prevention Project to enable 147795
prenatal care providers to identify, screen, treat, and track 147796
outcomes for women eligible for progesterone supplementation; and 147797

       (C) The Prenatal Smoking Cessation Project to enable prenatal 147798
care providers who work with women of reproductive age, including 147799
pregnant women, to have the tools, training, and technical 147800
assistance needed to treat smokers effectively. 147801

       TARGETED HEALTH CARE SERVICES OVER 21147802

       The foregoing appropriation item 440507, Targeted Health Care 147803
Services Over 21, shall be used to administer the Cystic Fibrosis 147804
Program and to implement the Hemophilia Insurance Premium Payment 147805
Program.147806

       The foregoing appropriation item 440507, Targeted Health Care 147807
Services Over 21, shall also be used to provide essential 147808
medications and to pay the copayments for drugs approved by the 147809
Department of Health and covered by Medicare Part D that are 147810
dispensed to Bureau for Children with Medical Handicaps (BCMH) 147811
participants for the Cystic Fibrosis Program.147812

       The Department shall expend all of these funds.147813

       GENETICS SERVICES147814

       The foregoing appropriation item 440608, Genetics Services 147815
(Fund 4D60), shall be used by the Department of Health to 147816
administer programs authorized by sections 3701.501 and 3701.502 147817
of the Revised Code. None of these funds shall be used to counsel 147818
or refer for abortion, except in the case of a medical emergency.147819

       MEDICALLY HANDICAPPED CHILDREN AUDIT147820

       The Medically Handicapped Children Audit Fund (Fund 4770) 147821
shall receive revenue from audits of hospitals and recoveries from 147822
third-party payers. Moneys may be expended for payment of audit 147823
settlements and for costs directly related to obtaining recoveries 147824
from third-party payers and for encouraging Medically Handicapped 147825
Children's Program recipients to apply for third-party benefits. 147826
Moneys also may be expended for payments for diagnostic and 147827
treatment services on behalf of medically handicapped children, as 147828
defined in division (A) of section 3701.022 of the Revised Code, 147829
and Ohio residents who are twenty-one or more years of age and who 147830
are suffering from cystic fibrosis or hemophilia. Moneys may also 147831
be expended for administrative expenses incurred in operating the 147832
Medically Handicapped Children's Program.147833

       MEDICALLY HANDICAPPED CHILDREN - COUNTY ASSESSMENTS147834

       The foregoing appropriation item 440607, Medically 147835
Handicapped Children - County Assessments (Fund 6660), shall be 147836
used to make payments under division (E) of section 3701.023 of 147837
the Revised Code.147838

       CASH TRANSFER FROM THE PUBLIC HEALTH PRIORITIES TRUST FUND TO 147839
THE TOBACCO USE PREVENTION FUND147840

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 147841
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer $2,439,230 cash 147842
from the Public Health Priorities Trust Fund (Fund L087) to the 147843
Tobacco Use Prevention Fund (Fund 5BX0) to meet the operating 147844
needs of the Department of Health's tobacco enforcement and 147845
cessation efforts.147846

       Section 285.30. DEPARTMENT OF HEALTH'S APPROPRIATION ITEM 147847
STRUCTURE147848

       Upon request from the Director of Health, the Director of 147849
Budget and Management may establish new funds, new appropriation 147850
items, and appropriations in order to support the transition to a 147851
new appropriation item structure in the Department of Health's 147852
budget. Also, upon request of the Director of Health, the Director 147853
of Budget and Management may transfer appropriations between GRF 147854
appropriation items, transfer cash between any funds used by the 147855
Department of Health, abolish existing funds used by the 147856
Department of Health, and cancel and reestablish encumbrances. Any 147857
establishment of new funds or appropriation items, any transfers 147858
of appropriations or cash, and any increases in appropriation 147859
under this section are subject to Controlling Board approval.147860

       Section 287.10. HEF HIGHER EDUCATIONAL FACILITY COMMISSION147861

Agency Fund Group147862

4610 372601 Operating Expenses $ 12,500 $ 12,500 147863
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 12,500 $ 12,500 147864
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 12,500 $ 12,500 147865


       Section 289.10. SPA COMMISSION ON HISPANIC/LATINO AFFAIRS147867

General Revenue Fund147868

GRF 148100 Personal Services $ 279,998 $ 279,998 147869
GRF 148402 Community Programs $ 44,924 $ 44,924 147870
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 324,922 $ 324,922 147871

General Services Fund Group147872

6010 148602 Special Initiatives $ 24,558 $ 24,558 147873
TOTAL GSF General Services 147874
Fund Group $ 24,558 $ 24,558 147875
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 349,480 $ 349,480 147876


       Section 291.10. OHS OHIO HISTORICAL SOCIETY147878

General Revenue Fund147879

GRF 360501 Education and Collections $ 3,618,997 $ 3,618,997 147880
GRF 360502 Site and Museum Operations $ 4,426,288 $ 4,926,288 147881
GRF 360504 Ohio Preservation Office $ 290,000 $ 290,000 147882
GRF 360505 National Afro-American Museum $ 414,798 $ 414,798 147883
GRF 360506 Hayes Presidential Center $ 309,147 $ 309,147 147884
GRF 360508 State Historical Grants $ 550,000 $ 400,000 147885
GRF 360509 Outreach and Partnership $ 90,395 $ 90,395 147886
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 9,699,625 $ 10,049,625 147887

Agency Fund Group147888

5KL0 360602 Ohio History Tax Check-off $ 250,000 $ 250,000 147889
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 250,000 $ 250,000 147890
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 9,949,625 $ 10,299,625 147891

       SUBSIDY APPROPRIATION147892

       Upon approval by the Director of Budget and Management, the 147893
foregoing appropriation items shall be released to the Ohio 147894
Historical Society in quarterly amounts that in total do not 147895
exceed the annual appropriations. The funds and fiscal records of 147896
the society for fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015 shall be 147897
examined by independent certified public accountants approved by 147898
the Auditor of State, and a copy of the audited financial 147899
statements shall be filed with the Office of Budget and 147900
Management. The society shall prepare and submit to the Office of 147901
Budget and Management the following:147902

       (A) An estimated operating budget for each fiscal year of the 147903
biennium. The operating budget shall be submitted at or near the 147904
beginning of each calendar year.147905

       (B) Financial reports, indicating actual receipts and 147906
expenditures for the fiscal year to date. These reports shall be 147907
filed at least semiannually during the fiscal biennium.147908

       The foregoing appropriations shall be considered to be the 147909
contractual consideration provided by the state to support the 147910
state's offer to contract with the Ohio Historical Society under 147911
section 149.30 of the Revised Code.147912

       STATE HISTORICAL GRANTS147913

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 360508, State Historical 147914
Grants, $200,000 in each fiscal year shall be used for the 147915
Cincinnati Museum Center, $200,000 in each fiscal year shall be 147916
used for the Western Reserve Historical Society, and $150,000 in 147917
fiscal year 2014 shall be used to complete renovations and 147918
additional construction work on the Chardon Heritage House.147919

       Section 293.10.  REP OHIO HOUSE OF REPRESENTATIVES147920

General Revenue Fund147921

GRF 025321 Operating Expenses $ 21,031,091 $ 21,031,091 147922
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 21,031,091 $ 21,031,091 147923

General Services Fund Group147924

1030 025601 House Reimbursement $ 1,433,664 $ 1,433,664 147925
4A40 025602 Miscellaneous Sales $ 37,849 $ 37,849 147926
TOTAL GSF General Services 147927
Fund Group $ 1,471,513 $ 1,471,513 147928
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 22,502,604 $ 22,502,604 147929

        OPERATING EXPENSES147930

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Chief 147931
Administrative Officer of the House of Representatives may certify 147932
to the Director of Budget and Management the amount of the 147933
unexpended, unencumbered balance of the foregoing appropriation 147934
item 025321, Operating Expenses, at the end of fiscal year 2013 to 147935
be reappropriated to fiscal year 2014. The amount certified is 147936
hereby reappropriated to the same appropriation item for fiscal 147937
year 2014.147938

        On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Chief 147939
Administrative Officer of the House of Representatives may certify 147940
to the Director of Budget and Management the amount of the 147941
unexpended, unencumbered balance of the foregoing appropriation 147942
item 025321, Operating Expenses, at the end of fiscal year 2014 to 147943
be reappropriated to fiscal year 2015. The amount certified is 147944
hereby reappropriated to the same appropriation item for fiscal 147945
year 2015.147946

       HOUSE REIMBURSEMENT147947

       If it is determined by the Chief Administrative Officer of 147948
the House of Representatives that additional appropriations are 147949
necessary for the foregoing appropriation item 025601, House 147950
Reimbursement, the amounts are hereby appropriated.147951

       Section 295.10. HFA OHIO HOUSING FINANCE AGENCY147952

State Special Revenue Fund Group147953

5AZ0 997601 Housing Finance Agency Personal Services $ 12,526,713 $ 12,850,014 147954
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 12,526,713 $ 12,850,014 147955
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 12,526,713 $ 12,850,014 147956


       Section 297.10. IGO OFFICE OF THE INSPECTOR GENERAL147958

General Revenue Fund147959

GRF 965321 Operating Expenses $ 1,175,598 $ 1,175,598 147960
GRF 965404 Deputy Inspector General for ARRA $ 475,000 $ 350,000 147961
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 1,650,598 $ 1,525,598 147962

General Services Fund Group147963

5FA0 965603 Deputy Inspector General for ODOT $ 400,000 $ 400,000 147964
5FT0 965604 Deputy Inspector General for BWC/OIC $ 425,000 $ 425,000 147965
5GI0 965605 Deputy Inspector General for ARRA $ 25,000 $ 0 147966
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 850,000 $ 825,000 147967
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 2,500,598 $ 2,350,598 147968


       Section 299.10.  INS DEPARTMENT OF INSURANCE147970

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group147971

3EV0 820610 Health Insurance Premium Review $ 1,300,000 $ 1,300,000 147972
3U50 820602 OSHIIP Operating Grant $ 1,970,725 $ 1,970,725 147973
TOTAL FED Federal Special 147974
Revenue Fund Group $ 3,270,725 $ 3,270,725 147975

State Special Revenue Fund Group147976

5540 820601 Operating Expenses - OSHIIP $ 180,000 $ 180,000 147977
5540 820606 Operating Expenses $ 27,570,433 $ 24,910,367 147978
5550 820605 Examination $ 8,184,065 $ 8,184,065 147979
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 147980
Fund Group $ 35,934,498 $ 33,274,432 147981
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 39,205,223 $ 36,545,157 147982

       MARKET CONDUCT EXAMINATION147983

       When conducting a market conduct examination of any insurer 147984
doing business in this state, the Superintendent of Insurance may 147985
assess the costs of the examination against the insurer. The 147986
superintendent may enter into consent agreements to impose 147987
administrative assessments or fines for conduct discovered that 147988
may be violations of statutes or rules administered by the 147989
Superintendent. All costs, assessments, or fines collected shall 147990
be deposited to the credit of the Department of Insurance 147991
Operating Fund (Fund 5540).147992

       EXAMINATIONS OF DOMESTIC FRATERNAL BENEFIT SOCIETIES147993

       The Director of Budget and Management, at the request of the 147994
Superintendent of Insurance, may transfer funds from the 147995
Department of Insurance Operating Fund (Fund 5540), established by 147996
section 3901.021 of the Revised Code, to the Superintendent's 147997
Examination Fund (Fund 5550), established by section 3901.071 of 147998
the Revised Code, only for expenses incurred in examining domestic 147999
fraternal benefit societies as required by section 3921.28 of the 148000
Revised Code.148001

       TRANSFER FROM FUND 5540 TO GENERAL REVENUE FUND148002

        Not later than the thirty-first day of July each fiscal year, 148003
the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer $5,000,000 148004
from the Department of Insurance Operating Fund (Fund 5540) to the 148005
General Revenue Fund.148006

       Section 301.10. JFS DEPARTMENT OF JOB AND FAMILY SERVICES148007

General Revenue Fund148008

GRF 600321 Program Support $ 31,320,964 $ 31,109,751 148009
GRF 600410 TANF State/Maintenance of Effort $ 152,386,934 $ 152,386,934 148010
GRF 600413 Child Care State/Maintenance of Effort $ 84,732,730 $ 84,732,730 148011
GRF 600416 Information Technology Projects $ 54,223,871 $ 54,184,700 148012
GRF 600420 Child Support Programs $ 6,498,667 $ 6,591,048 148013
GRF 600421 Family Assistance Programs $ 3,161,930 $ 3,161,930 148014
GRF 600423 Families and Children Programs $ 6,384,514 $ 6,542,517 148015
GRF 600502 Child Support - Local $ 23,814,103 $ 23,814,103 148016
GRF 600511 Disability Financial Assistance $ 22,000,000 $ 22,000,000 148017
GRF 600521 Family Assistance - Local $ 41,282,751 $ 41,282,751 148018
GRF 600523 Family and Children Services $ 54,105,323 $ 54,105,323 148019
GRF 600528 Adoption Services 148020
State $ 28,623,389 $ 28,623,389 148021
Federal $ 38,202,557 $ 38,202,557 148022
Adoption Services Total $ 66,825,946 $ 66,825,946 148023
GRF 600533 Child, Family, and Adult Community & Protective Services $ 13,500,000 $ 13,500,000 148024
GRF 600534 Adult Protective Services $ 366,003 $ 366,003 148025
GRF 600535 Early Care and Education $ 123,596,474 $ 123,596,474 148026
GRF 600540 Food Banks $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 148027
GRF 600541 Kinship Permanency Incentive Program $ 3,500,000 $ 3,500,000 148028
GRF 655522 Medicaid Program Support - Local $ 31,067,970 $ 31,067,970 148029
GRF 655523 Medicaid Program Support - Local Transportation $ 30,680,495 $ 30,680,495 148030
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund 148031
State $ 717,246,118 $ 717,246,118 148032
Federal $ 38,202,557 $ 38,202,557 148033
GRF Total $ 755,448,675 $ 755,448,675 148034

General Services Fund Group148035

4A80 600658 Public Assistance Activities $ 34,000,000 $ 34,000,000 148036
5DM0 600633 Administration & Operating $ 19,660,339 $ 19,660,339 148037
5HC0 600695 Unemployment Compensation Interest $ 60,000,000 $ 60,000,000 148038
5HL0 600602 State and County Shared Services $ 3,020,000 $ 3,020,000 148039
6130 600645 Training Activities $ 100,000 $ 92,989 148040
TOTAL GSF General Services 148041
Fund Group $ 116,780,339 $ 116,773,328 148042

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group148043

3270 600606 Child Welfare $ 29,769,866 $ 29,769,866 148044
3310 600615 Veterans Programs $ 8,000,000 $ 8,000,000 148045
3310 600624 Employment Services Programs $ 26,000,000 $ 26,000,000 148046
3310 600686 Workforce Programs $ 6,260,000 $ 6,260,000 148047
3840 600610 Food Assistance Programs $ 209,333,246 $ 180,381,394 148048
3850 600614 Refugee Services $ 12,564,952 $ 12,564,952 148049
3950 600616 Federal Discretionary Grants $ 2,259,264 $ 2,259,264 148050
3960 600620 Social Services Block Grant $ 47,000,000 $ 47,000,000 148051
3970 600626 Child Support - Federal $ 235,000,000 $ 235,000,000 148052
3980 600627 Adoption Program - Federal $ 174,178,779 $ 174,178,779 148053
3A20 600641 Emergency Food Distribution $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 148054
3D30 600648 Children's Trust Fund Federal $ 3,477,699 $ 3,477,699 148055
3F01 655624 Medicaid Program Support $ 110,680,495 $ 110,680,495 148056
3H70 600617 Child Care Federal $ 241,987,805 $ 222,212,089 148057
3N00 600628 Foster Care Program - Federal $ 311,968,616 $ 311,968,616 148058
3S50 600622 Child Support Projects $ 534,050 $ 534,050 148059
3V00 600688 Workforce Investment Act Programs $ 136,000,000 $ 136,000,000 148060
3V40 600678 Federal Unemployment Programs $ 182,814,212 $ 182,814,212 148061
3V40 600679 UC Review Commission - Federal $ 6,185,788 $ 6,185,788 148062
3V60 600689 TANF Block Grant $ 777,957,809 $ 790,304,845 148063
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 148064
Fund Group $ 2,526,972,581 $ 2,490,592,049 148065

State Special Revenue Fund Group148066

1980 600647 Children's Trust Fund $ 5,873,848 $ 5,873,848 148067
4A90 600607 Unemployment Compensation Administration Fund $ 9,006,000 $ 9,006,000 148068
4E70 600604 Family and Children Services Collections $ 400,000 $ 400,000 148069
4F10 600609 Family and Children Activities $ 683,549 $ 683,549 148070
5DB0 600637 Military Injury Relief Subsidies $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 148071
5DP0 600634 Adoption Assistance Loan $ 500,000 $ 500,000 148072
5ES0 600630 Food Bank Assistance $ 500,000 $ 500,000 148073
5KU0 600611 Unemployment Compensation Support - Other Sources $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 148074
5NG0 600660 Victims of Human Trafficking $ 100,000 $ 100,000 148075
5U60 600663 Family and Children Support $ 4,000,000 $ 4,000,000 148076
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 148077
Fund Group $ 25,063,397 $ 25,063,397 148078

Agency Fund Group148079

1920 600646 Child Support Intercept - Federal $ 129,250,000 $ 129,250,000 148080
5830 600642 Child Support Intercept - State $ 14,000,000 $ 14,000,000 148081
5B60 600601 Food Assistance Intercept $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 148082
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 144,250,000 $ 144,250,000 148083

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group148084

R012 600643 Refunds and Audit Settlements $ 2,200,000 $ 2,200,000 148085
R013 600644 Forgery Collections $ 10,000 $ 10,000 148086
TOTAL 090 Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group $ 2,210,000 $ 2,210,000 148087
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 3,570,724,992 $ 3,534,337,449 148088


       Section 301.20. TRANSFER TO STATE AND COUNTY SHARED SERVICES 148090
FUND148091

       Within thirty days of the effective date of this act, or as 148092
soon as possible thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management 148093
shall transfer the cash balance in the County Technologies Fund 148094
(Fund 5N10) to the State and County Shared Services Fund (Fund 148095
5HL0).148096

       Section 301.30. AGENCY AND HOLDING ACCOUNT REDISTRIBUTION 148097
FUND GROUPS148098

       The Agency Fund Group and Holding Account Redistribution Fund 148099
Group shall be used to hold revenues until the appropriate fund is 148100
determined or until the revenues are directed to the appropriate 148101
governmental agency other than the Department of Job and Family 148102
Services. If receipts credited to the Support Intercept – Federal 148103
Fund (Fund 1920), the Support Intercept – State Fund (Fund 5830), 148104
the Food Stamp Offset Fund (Fund 5B60), the Refunds and Audit 148105
Settlements Fund (Fund R012), or the Forgery Collections Fund 148106
(Fund R013) exceed the amounts appropriated from the fund, the 148107
Director of Job and Family Services may request the Director of 148108
Budget and Management to authorize expenditures from the fund in 148109
excess of the amounts appropriated. Upon the approval of the 148110
Director of Budget and Management, the additional amounts are 148111
hereby appropriated.148112

       Section 301.33. BIG BROTHERS BIG SISTERS148113

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 600410, TANF 148114
State/Maintenance of Effort, $1,000,000 in each fiscal year shall 148115
be provided, in accordance with sections 5101.80 and 5101.801 of 148116
the Revised Code, to Big Brothers Big Sisters of Central Ohio to 148117
provide mentoring services to children of incarcerated parents 148118
throughout the state.148119

       Section 301.40. COUNTY ADMINISTRATIVE FUNDS148120

       (A) The foregoing appropriation item 600521, Family 148121
Assistance - Local, may be provided to county departments of job 148122
and family services to administer food assistance and disability 148123
assistance programs. 148124

       (B) The foregoing appropriation item 655522, Medicaid Program 148125
Support - Local, may be provided to county departments of job and 148126
family services to administer the Medicaid program and the State 148127
Children's Health Insurance program. 148128

       (C) At the request of the Director of Job and Family 148129
Services, the Director of Budget and Management may transfer 148130
appropriations between appropriation item 600521, Family 148131
Assistance - Local, and appropriation item 655522, Medicaid 148132
Program Support - Local, in order to ensure county administrative 148133
funds are expended from the proper appropriation item. 148134

       (D) Of the foregoing appropriation item 600521, Family 148135
Assistance – Local, $150,000 in each fiscal year shall be provided 148136
to children's crisis care facilities, as defined in section 148137
5103.13 of the Revised Code. The Director of Job and Family 148138
Services shall allocate funds based on the number of children at 148139
each facility. A children's crisis care facility may decline to 148140
receive funds provided for under this section. A children's crisis 148141
care facility that accepts funds provided under this section shall 148142
use the funds in accordance with section 5103.13 of the Revised 148143
Code and rule 5101:2-9-36 of the Administrative Code.148144

       Section 301.50. FOOD STAMPS TRANSFER148145

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 148146
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to $1,000,000 148147
cash from the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program Fund (Fund 148148
3840), to the Food Assistance Fund (Fund 5ES0).148149

       Section 301.60. NAME OF FOOD STAMP PROGRAM148150

       The Director of Job and Family Services is not required to 148151
amend rules regarding the Food Stamp Program to change the name of 148152
the program to the Supplemental Nutrition Assistance Program. The 148153
Director may refer to the program as the Food Stamp Program or the 148154
Food Assistance Program in rules and documents of the Department 148155
of Job and Family Services.148156

       Section 301.70. OHIO ASSOCIATION OF FOOD BANKS148157

       The foregoing appropriation item 600540, Food Banks, shall be 148158
used to provide funds to the Ohio Association of Food Banks to 148159
purchase and distribute food products.148160

       Notwithstanding section 5101.46 of the Revised Code and any 148161
other provision in this bill, in addition to funds designated for 148162
the Ohio Association of Food Banks in this section, in fiscal year 148163
2014 and fiscal year 2015, the Director of Job and Family Services 148164
shall provide assistance from eligible funds to the Ohio 148165
Association of Food Banks in an amount up to or equal to the 148166
assistance provided in state fiscal year 2013 from all funds used 148167
by the Department, except the General Revenue Fund.148168

       Eligible nonfederal expenditures made by member food banks of 148169
the Association shall be counted by the Department of Job and 148170
Family Services toward the TANF maintenance of effort requirements 148171
of 42 U.S.C. 609(a)(7). The Director of Job and Family Services 148172
shall enter into an agreement with the Ohio Association of Food 148173
Banks, in accordance with sections 5101.80 and 5101.801 of the 148174
Revised Code, to carry out the requirements under this section. 148175

       Section 301.80. PUBLIC ASSISTANCE ACTIVITIES/TANF MOE148176

       The foregoing appropriation item 600658, Public Assistance 148177
Activities, shall be used by the Department of Job and Family 148178
Services to meet the TANF maintenance of effort requirements of 42 148179
U.S.C. 609(a)(7). When the state is assured that it will meet the 148180
maintenance of effort requirement, the Department of Job and 148181
Family Services may use funds from appropriation item 600658, 148182
Public Assistance Activities, to support public assistance 148183
activities.148184

       Section 301.90. GOVERNOR'S OFFICE OF FAITH-BASED AND 148185
COMMUNITY INITIATIVES148186

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 600689, TANF Block Grant, 148187
up to $6,540,000 in each fiscal year shall be used, in accordance 148188
with sections 5101.80 and 5101.801 of the Revised Code, to provide 148189
support to programs or organizations that provide services that 148190
align with the mission and goals of the Governor's Office of 148191
Faith-Based and Community Initiatives, as outlined in section 148192
107.12 of the Revised Code, and that further at least one of the 148193
four purposes of the TANF program, as specified in 42 U.S.C. 601. 148194

       Section 301.100. INDEPENDENT LIVING INITIATIVE148195

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 600689, TANF Block Grant, 148196
up to $2,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be used, in accordance 148197
with sections 5101.80 and 5101.801 of the Revised Code, to support 148198
the Independent Living Initiative, including life skills training 148199
and work supports for older children in foster care and those who 148200
have recently aged out of foster care.148201

       Section 301.110. KINSHIP PERMANENCY INCENTIVE PROGRAM148202

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 600689, TANF Block Grant, 148203
$1,750,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 148204
activities of the Kinship Permanency Incentive Program established 148205
in section 5101.802 of the Revised Code.148206

       Section 301.120. OHIO COMMISSION ON FATHERHOOD148207

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 600689, TANF Block Grant, 148208
$1,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be provided to the Ohio 148209
Commission on Fatherhood.148210

       Section 301.123. OHIO ALLIANCE OF BOYS AND GIRLS CLUBS148211

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 600689, TANF Block Grant, 148212
$500,000 in each fiscal year shall be provided, in accordance with 148213
sections 5101.80 and 5101.801 of the Revised Code, to the Ohio 148214
Alliance of Boys and Girls Clubs to provide after-school programs 148215
that protect at-risk children and enable youth to become 148216
responsible adults.148217

       Section 301.130. DIFFERENTIAL RESPONSE 148218

       In accordance with an independent evaluation of the Ohio 148219
Alternative Response Pilot Program that recommended statewide 148220
implementation, the Department of Job and Family Services shall 148221
plan the statewide expansion of the Ohio Alternative Response 148222
Pilot Program on a county by county basis, through a schedule 148223
determined by the Department. The program shall be known as the 148224
"differential response" approach as defined in section 2151.011 of 148225
the Revised Code. Notwithstanding provisions of Chapter 2151. of 148226
the Revised Code that refer to "differential response," 148227
"traditional response," and "alternative response," those 148228
provisions shall become effective on the scheduled date of 148229
expansion of the differential response approach to that county. 148230
Prior to statewide implementation, the Department may adopt rules 148231
in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code as necessary 148232
to carry out the purposes of this section.148233

       Section 301.140. FLEXIBLE FUNDING FOR FAMILIES AND CHILDREN148234

       In collaboration with the county family and children first 148235
council, a county department of job and family services or public 148236
children services agency that receives an allocation from the 148237
Department of Job and Family Services from the foregoing 148238
appropriation item 600523, Children and Families Services, or 148239
600533, Child, Family, and Adult Community & Protective Services, 148240
may transfer a portion of either or both allocations to a flexible 148241
funding pool as authorized by the section of this act titled 148242
"FAMILY AND CHILDREN FIRST FLEXIBLE FUNDING POOL."148243

       Section 301.150. CHILD, FAMILY, AND ADULT COMMUNITY AND 148244
PROTECTIVE SERVICES148245

        (A) The foregoing appropriation item 600533, Child, Family, 148246
and Adult Community & Protective Services, shall be distributed to 148247
each county department of job and family services using the 148248
formula the Department of Job and Family Services uses when 148249
distributing Title XX funds to county departments of job and 148250
family services under section 5101.46 of the Revised Code. County 148251
departments shall use the funds distributed to them under this 148252
section as follows, in accordance with the written plan of 148253
cooperation entered into under section 307.983 of the Revised 148254
Code:148255

        (1) To assist individuals achieve or maintain 148256
self-sufficiency, including by reducing or preventing dependency 148257
among individuals with family income not exceeding two hundred per 148258
cent of the federal poverty guidelines;148259

        (2) Subject to division (B) of this section, to respond to 148260
reports of abuse, neglect, or exploitation of children and adults, 148261
including through the differential response approach program 148262
developed under Section 309.50.10 of this act;148263

        (3) To provide outreach and referral services regarding home 148264
and community-based services to individuals at risk of placement 148265
in a group home or institution, regardless of the individuals' 148266
family income and without need for a written application;148267

        (4) To provide outreach, referral, application assistance, 148268
and other services to assist individuals receive assistance, 148269
benefits, or services under Medicaid; Title IV-A programs, as 148270
defined in section 5101.80 of the Revised Code; the Supplemental 148271
Nutrition Assistance Program; and other public assistance 148272
programs.148273

        (B) Protective services may be provided to a child or adult 148274
as part of a response, under division (A)(2) of this section, to a 148275
report of abuse, neglect, or exploitation without regard to a 148276
child or adult's family income and without need for a written 148277
application. The protective services may be provided if the case 148278
record documents circumstances of actual or potential abuse, 148279
neglect, or exploitation.148280

       Section 301.160. CHILDREN AND FAMILY SERVICES ACTIVITIES148281

        The foregoing appropriation item 600609, Children and Family 148282
Services Activities, shall be used to expend miscellaneous 148283
foundation funds and grants to support children and family 148284
services activities.148285

       Section 301.170. ADOPTION ASSISTANCE LOAN148286

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 600634, Adoption 148287
Assistance Loan, the Department of Job and Family Services may use 148288
up to ten per cent for administration of adoption assistance loans 148289
pursuant to section 3107.018 of the Revised Code.148290

       Section 301.173. VICTIMS OF HUMAN TRAFFICKING148291

        The foregoing appropriation item 600660, Victims of Human 148292
Trafficking, shall be used to provide treatment, care, 148293
rehabilitation, education, housing, and assistance for victims of 148294
trafficking in persons as specified in section 5101.87 of the 148295
Revised Code. If receipts credited to the Victims of Human 148296
Trafficking Fund (Fund 5NG0) exceed the amounts appropriated to 148297
the fund, the Director of Job and Family Services may request the 148298
Director of Budget and Management to authorize expenditures from 148299
the fund in excess of the amounts appropriated. Upon the approval 148300
of the Director of Budget and Management, the additional amounts 148301
are hereby appropriated.148302

       Section 301.180. FEDERAL UNEMPLOYMENT PROGRAMS148303

       All unexpended funds remaining at the end of fiscal year 2013 148304
that were appropriated and made available to the state under 148305
section 903(d) of the Social Security Act, as amended, in the 148306
foregoing appropriation item 600678, Federal Unemployment Programs 148307
(Fund 3V40), are hereby appropriated to the Department of Job and 148308
Family Services. Upon the request of the Director of Job and 148309
Family Services, the Director of Budget and Management may 148310
increase the appropriation for fiscal year 2014 by the amount 148311
remaining unspent from the fiscal year 2013 appropriation and may 148312
increase the appropriation for fiscal year 2015 by the amount 148313
remaining unspent from the fiscal year 2014 appropriation. The 148314
appropriation shall be used under the direction of the Department 148315
of Job and Family Services to pay for administrative activities 148316
for the Unemployment Insurance Program, employment services, and 148317
other allowable expenditures under section 903(d) of the Social 148318
Security Act, as amended.148319

       The amounts obligated pursuant to this section shall not 148320
exceed at any time the amount by which the aggregate of the 148321
amounts transferred to the account of the state under section 148322
903(d) of the Social Security Act, as amended, exceeds the 148323
aggregate of the amounts obligated for administration and paid out 148324
for benefits and required by law to be charged against the amounts 148325
transferred to the account of the state.148326

       Section 301.190.  UNEMPLOYMENT COMPENSATION INTEREST148327

       The foregoing appropriation item 600695, Unemployment 148328
Compensation Interest, shall be used for payment of interest costs 148329
paid to the United States Secretary of the Treasury for the 148330
repayment of accrued interest related to federal unemployment 148331
account borrowing.148332

       Section 303.10. JCR JOINT COMMITTEE ON AGENCY RULE REVIEW148333

General Revenue Fund148334

GRF 029321 Operating Expenses $ 455,858 $ 456,376 148335
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 455,858 $ 456,376 148336
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 455,858 $ 456,376 148337

       OPERATING GUIDANCE148338

       The Chief Administrative Officer of the House of 148339
Representatives and the Clerk of the Senate shall determine, by 148340
mutual agreement, which of them shall act as fiscal agent for the 148341
Joint Committee on Agency Rule Review. Members of the Committee 148342
shall be paid in accordance with section 101.35 of the Revised 148343
Code.148344

       OPERATING EXPENSES148345

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 148346
Executive Director of the Joint Committee on Agency Rule Review 148347
may certify to the Director of Budget and Management the amount of 148348
the unexpended, unencumbered balance of the foregoing 148349
appropriation item 029321, Operating Expenses, at the end of 148350
fiscal year 2013 to be reappropriated to fiscal year 2014. The 148351
amount certified is hereby reappropriated to the same 148352
appropriation item for fiscal year 2014.148353

       On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 148354
Executive Director of the Joint Committee on Agency Rule Review 148355
may certify to the Director of Budget and Management the amount of 148356
the unexpended, unencumbered balance of the foregoing 148357
appropriation item 029321, Operating Expenses, at the end of 148358
fiscal year 2014 to be reappropriated to fiscal year 2015. The 148359
amount certified is hereby reappropriated to the same 148360
appropriation item for fiscal year 2015. 148361

       Section 305.10.  JCO JUDICIAL CONFERENCE OF OHIO148362

General Revenue Fund148363

GRF 018321 Operating Expenses $ 824,900 $ 847,200 148364
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 824,900 $ 847,200 148365

General Services Fund Group148366

4030 018601 Ohio Jury Instructions $ 385,000 $ 385,000 148367
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 385,000 $ 385,000 148368
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,209,900 $ 1,232,200 148369

       STATE COUNCIL OF UNIFORM STATE LAWS148370

       Notwithstanding section 105.26 of the Revised Code, of the 148371
foregoing appropriation item 018321, Operating Expenses, up to 148372
$84,900 in fiscal year 2014 and up to $88,300 in fiscal year 2015 148373
shall be used to pay the expenses of the State Council of Uniform 148374
State Laws, including membership dues to the National Conference 148375
of Commissioners on Uniform State Laws.148376

       OHIO JURY INSTRUCTIONS FUND148377

       The Ohio Jury Instructions Fund (Fund 4030) shall consist of 148378
grants, royalties, dues, conference fees, bequests, devises, and 148379
other gifts received for the purpose of supporting costs incurred 148380
by the Judicial Conference of Ohio in its activities as a part of 148381
the judicial system of the state as determined by the Judicial 148382
Conference Executive Committee. Fund 4030 shall be used by the 148383
Judicial Conference of Ohio to pay expenses incurred in its 148384
activities as a part of the judicial system of the state as 148385
determined by the Judicial Conference Executive Committee. All 148386
moneys accruing to Fund 4030 in excess of $385,000 in fiscal year 148387
2014 and in excess of $385,000 in fiscal year 2015 are hereby 148388
appropriated for the purposes authorized.148389

       No money in Fund 4030 shall be transferred to any other fund 148390
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board.148391

       Section 307.10.  JSC THE JUDICIARY/SUPREME COURT148392

General Revenue Fund148393

GRF 005321 Operating Expenses - Judiciary/Supreme Court $ 138,016,534 $ 140,232,737 148394
GRF 005406 Law-Related Education $ 236,172 $ 236,172 148395
GRF 005409 Ohio Courts Technology Initiative $ 3,350,000 $ 3,350,000 148396
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 141,602,706 $ 143,818,909 148397

General Services Fund Group148398

6720 005601 Continuing Judicial Education $ 101,392 $ 93,563 148399
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 101,392 $ 93,563 148400

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group148401

3J00 005603 Federal Grants $ 1,235,900 $ 1,252,600 148402
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 1,235,900 $ 1,252,600 148403

State Special Revenue Fund Group148404

4C80 005605 Attorney Services $ 3,923,101 $ 3,915,721 148405
5HT0 005617 Court Interpreter Certification $ 23,000 $ 23,000 148406
5JY0 005620 County Law Library Resources Boards $ 258,000 $ 258,000 148407
5T80 005609 Grants and Awards $ 25,000 $ 25,000 148408
6A80 005606 Supreme Court Admissions $ 1,283,751 $ 1,308,025 148409
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 5,512,852 $ 5,529,746 148410
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 148,452,850 $ 150,694,818 148411

       OPERATING EXPENSES - JUDICIARY/SUPREME COURT148412

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 005321, Operating 148413
Expenses - Judiciary/Supreme Court, up to $206,770 in each fiscal 148414
year may be used to support the functions of the State Criminal 148415
Sentencing Council.148416

       LAW-RELATED EDUCATION148417

       The foregoing appropriation item 005406, Law-Related 148418
Education, shall be distributed directly to the Ohio Center for 148419
Law-Related Education for the purposes of providing continuing 148420
citizenship education activities to primary and secondary 148421
students, expanding delinquency prevention programs, increasing 148422
activities for at-risk youth, and accessing additional public and 148423
private money for new programs.148424

       OHIO COURTS TECHNOLOGY INITIATIVE148425

       The foregoing appropriation item 005409, Ohio Courts 148426
Technology Initiative, shall be used to fund an initiative by the 148427
Supreme Court to facilitate the exchange of information and 148428
warehousing of data by and between Ohio courts and other justice 148429
system partners through the creation of an Ohio Courts Network, 148430
the delivery of technology services to courts throughout the 148431
state, including the provision of hardware, software, and the 148432
development and implementation of educational and training 148433
programs for judges and court personnel, and operation of the 148434
Commission on Technology and the Courts by the Supreme Court for 148435
the promulgation of statewide rules, policies, and uniform 148436
standards, and to aid in the orderly adoption and comprehensive 148437
use of technology in Ohio courts.148438

       CONTINUING JUDICIAL EDUCATION148439

       The Continuing Judicial Education Fund (Fund 6720) shall 148440
consist of fees paid by judges and court personnel for attending 148441
continuing education courses and other gifts and grants received 148442
for the purpose of continuing judicial education. The foregoing 148443
appropriation item 005601, Continuing Judicial Education, shall be 148444
used to pay expenses for continuing education courses for judges 148445
and court personnel. If it is determined by the Administrative 148446
Director of the Supreme Court that additional appropriations are 148447
necessary, the amounts are hereby appropriated.148448

       No money in Fund 6720 shall be transferred to any other fund 148449
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 148450
Interest earned on money in Fund 6720 shall be credited to the 148451
fund.148452

       FEDERAL GRANTS148453

       The Federal Grants Fund (Fund 3J00) shall consist of grants 148454
and other moneys awarded to the Supreme Court (The Judiciary) by 148455
the United States Government or other entities that receive the 148456
moneys directly from the United States Government and distribute 148457
those moneys to the Supreme Court (The Judiciary). The foregoing 148458
appropriation item 005603, Federal Grants, shall be used in a 148459
manner consistent with the purpose of the grant or award. If it is 148460
determined by the Administrative Director of the Supreme Court 148461
that additional appropriations are necessary, the amounts are 148462
hereby appropriated.148463

       No money in Fund 3J00 shall be transferred to any other fund 148464
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 148465
However, interest earned on money in Fund 3J00 shall be credited 148466
or transferred to the General Revenue Fund.148467

       ATTORNEY SERVICES148468

       The Attorney Services Fund (Fund 4C80), formerly known as the 148469
Attorney Registration Fund, shall consist of money received by the 148470
Supreme Court (The Judiciary) pursuant to the Rules for the 148471
Government of the Bar of Ohio. In addition to funding other 148472
activities considered appropriate by the Supreme Court, the 148473
foregoing appropriation item 005605, Attorney Services, may be 148474
used to compensate employees and to fund appropriate activities of 148475
the following offices established by the Supreme Court: the Office 148476
of Disciplinary Counsel, the Board of Commissioners on Grievances 148477
and Discipline, the Clients' Security Fund, and the Attorney 148478
Services Division. If it is determined by the Administrative 148479
Director of the Supreme Court that additional appropriations are 148480
necessary, the amounts are hereby appropriated.148481

       No money in Fund 4C80 shall be transferred to any other fund 148482
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 148483
Interest earned on money in Fund 4C80 shall be credited to the 148484
fund.148485

       COURT INTERPRETER CERTIFICATION148486

       The Court Interpreter Certification Fund (Fund 5HT0) shall 148487
consist of money received by the Supreme Court (The Judiciary) 148488
pursuant to Rules 80 through 87 of the Rules of Superintendence 148489
for the Courts of Ohio. The foregoing appropriation item 005617, 148490
Court Interpreter Certification, shall be used to provide 148491
training, to provide the written examination, and to pay language 148492
experts to rate, or grade, the oral examinations of those applying 148493
to become certified court interpreters. If it is determined by the 148494
Administrative Director that additional appropriations are 148495
necessary, the amounts are hereby appropriated.148496

       No money in Fund 5HT0 shall be transferred to any other fund 148497
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 148498
Interest earned on money in Fund 5HT0 shall be credited to the 148499
fund.148500

       COUNTY LAW LIBRARY RESOURCES BOARD148501

       The Statewide Consortium of County Law Library Resources 148502
Boards Fund (Fund 5JY0) shall consist of moneys deposited pursuant 148503
to section 307.515 of the Revised Code into a county's law library 148504
resources fund and forwarded by that county's treasurer for 148505
deposit in the state treasury pursuant to division (E)(1) of 148506
section 3375.481 of the Revised Code. The foregoing appropriation 148507
item 005620, County Law Library Resources Board, shall be used for 148508
the operation of the Statewide Consortium of County Law Library 148509
Resources Boards. If it is determined by the Administrative 148510
Director of the Supreme Court that additional appropriations are 148511
necessary, the amounts are hereby appropriated.148512

        No money in Fund 5JY0 shall be transferred to any other fund 148513
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 148514
Interest earned on money in Fund 5JY0 shall be credited to the 148515
fund.148516

       GRANTS AND AWARDS148517

       The Grants and Awards Fund (Fund 5T80) shall consist of 148518
grants and other money awarded to the Supreme Court (The 148519
Judiciary) by the State Justice Institute, the Division of 148520
Criminal Justice Services, or other entities. The foregoing 148521
appropriation item 005609, Grants and Awards, shall be used in a 148522
manner consistent with the purpose of the grant or award. If it is 148523
determined by the Administrative Director of the Supreme Court 148524
that additional appropriations are necessary, the amounts are 148525
hereby appropriated.148526

       No money in Fund 5T80 shall be transferred to any other fund 148527
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 148528
However, interest earned on money in Fund 5T80 shall be credited 148529
or transferred to the General Revenue Fund.148530

       SUPREME COURT ADMISSIONS148531

       The foregoing appropriation item 005606, Supreme Court 148532
Admissions, shall be used to compensate Supreme Court employees 148533
who are primarily responsible for administering the attorney 148534
admissions program under the Rules for the Government of the Bar 148535
of Ohio, and to fund any other activities considered appropriate 148536
by the court. Moneys shall be deposited into the Supreme Court 148537
Admissions Fund (Fund 6A80) under the Supreme Court Rules for the 148538
Government of the Bar of Ohio. If it is determined by the 148539
Administrative Director of the Supreme Court that additional 148540
appropriations are necessary, the amounts are hereby appropriated.148541

       No money in Fund 6A80 shall be transferred to any other fund 148542
by the Director of Budget and Management or the Controlling Board. 148543
Interest earned on money in Fund 6A80 shall be credited to the 148544
fund.148545

       Section 309.10. LEC LAKE ERIE COMMISSION148546

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group148547

3EP0 780603 Lake Erie Federal Grants $ 25,000 $ 0 148548
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 25,000 $ 0 148549

State Special Revenue Fund Group148550

4C00 780601 Lake Erie Protection Fund $ 200,000 $ 200,000 148551
5D80 780602 Lake Erie Resources Fund $ 298,942 $ 339,637 148552
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 148553
Fund Group $ 498,942 $ 539,637 148554
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 523,942 $ 539,637 148555

       CASH TRANSFERS TO THE LAKE ERIE RESOURCES FUND148556

       On July 1 of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible 148557
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management may transfer 148558
cash from the funds specified below, up to the amounts specified 148559
below, to the Lake Erie Resources Fund (Fund 5D80). Fund 5D80 may 148560
accept contributions and transfers made to the fund. 148561

Fund Fund Name User FY 2014 FY 2015 148562
5BC0 Environmental Protection Environmental Protection Agency $23,500 $53,500 148563
6690 Pesticide, Fertilizer and Lime Department of Agriculture $23,500 $53,500 148564
4700 General Operations Department of Health $23,500 $53,500 148565
1570 Central Support Indirect Department of Natural Resources $23,500 $53,500 148566

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 148567
Director of Budget and Management may transfer $23,500 cash from a 148568
fund used by the Development Services Agency, as specified by the 148569
Director of Development Services, to Fund 5D80.148570

       On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 148571
Director of Budget and Management may transfer $53,500 cash from a 148572
fund used by the Development Services Agency, as specified by the 148573
Director of Development Services, to Fund 5D80.148574

       Section 311.10. JLE JOINT LEGISLATIVE ETHICS COMMITTEE148575

General Revenue Fund148576

GRF 028321 Legislative Ethics Committee $ 550,000 $ 550,000 148577
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 550,000 $ 550,000 148578

General Services Fund Group148579

4G70 028601 Joint Legislative Ethics Committee $ 150,000 $ 150,000 148580
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 150,000 $ 150,000 148581
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 700,000 $ 700,000 148582

       LEGISLATIVE ETHICS COMMITTEE148583

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 148584
Legislative Inspector General of the Joint Legislative Ethics 148585
Committee may certify to the Director of Budget and Management the 148586
amount of the unexpended, unencumbered balance of the foregoing 148587
appropriation item 028321, Legislative Ethics Committee, at the 148588
end of fiscal year 2013 to be reappropriated to fiscal year 2014. 148589
The amount certified is hereby reappropriated to the same 148590
appropriation item for fiscal year 2014.148591

        On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 148592
Legislative Inspector General of the Joint Legislative Ethics 148593
Committee may certify to the Director of Budget and Management the 148594
amount of the unexpended, unencumbered balance of the foregoing 148595
appropriation item 028321, Legislative Ethics Committee, at the 148596
end of fiscal year 2014 to be reappropriated to fiscal year 2015. 148597
The amount certified is hereby reappropriated to the same 148598
appropriation item for fiscal year 2015.148599

       Section 313.10. LSC LEGISLATIVE SERVICE COMMISSION148600

General Revenue Fund148601

GRF 035321 Operating Expenses $ 15,117,700 $ 15,117,700 148602
GRF 035402 Legislative Fellows $ 1,022,120 $ 1,022,120 148603
GRF 035405 Correctional Institution Inspection Committee $ 460,845 $ 460,845 148604
GRF 035407 Legislative Task Force on Redistricting $ 320,000 $ 400,000 148605
GRF 035409 National Associations $ 460,560 $ 460,560 148606
GRF 035410 Legislative Information Systems $ 3,861,250 $ 3,861,250 148607
GRF 035411 Ohio Constitutional Modernization Commission $ 750,000 $ 750,000 148608
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 21,992,475 $ 22,072,475 148609

General Services Fund Group148610

4100 035601 Sale of Publications $ 10,000 $ 10,000 148611
4F60 035603 Legislative Budget Services $ 200,000 $ 200,000 148612
5EF0 035607 Legislative Agency Telephone Usage $ 30,000 $ 30,000 148613
TOTAL GSF General Services 148614
Fund Group $ 240,000 $ 240,000 148615
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 22,232,475 $ 22,312,475 148616

        OPERATING EXPENSES148617

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 148618
Director of the Legislative Service Commission may certify to the 148619
Director of Budget and Management the amount of the unexpended, 148620
unencumbered balance of the foregoing appropriation item 035321, 148621
Operating Expenses, at the end of fiscal year 2013 to be 148622
reappropriated to fiscal year 2014. The amount certified is hereby 148623
reappropriated to the same appropriation item for fiscal year 148624
2014.148625

        On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 148626
Director of the Legislative Service Commission may certify to the 148627
Director of Budget and Management the amount of the unexpended, 148628
unencumbered balance of the foregoing appropriation item 035321, 148629
Operating Expenses, at the end of fiscal year 2014 to be 148630
reappropriated to fiscal year 2015. The amount certified is hereby 148631
reappropriated to the same appropriation item for fiscal year 148632
2015.148633

       LEGISLATIVE TASK FORCE ON REDISTRICTING148634

        An amount equal to the unexpended, unencumbered portion of 148635
the foregoing appropriation item 035407, Legislative Task Force on 148636
Redistricting, at the end of fiscal year 2013 is hereby 148637
reappropriated to the Legislative Service Commission for the same 148638
purpose for fiscal year 2014.148639

       An amount equal to the unexpended, unencumbered portion of 148640
the foregoing appropriation item 035407, Legislative Task Force on 148641
Redistricting, at the end of fiscal year 2014 is hereby 148642
reappropriated to the Legislative Service Commission for the same 148643
purpose for fiscal year 2015.148644

        LEGISLATIVE INFORMATION SYSTEMS148645

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 148646
Director of the Legislative Service Commission may certify to the 148647
Director of Budget and Management the amount of the unexpended, 148648
unencumbered balance of the foregoing appropriation item 035410, 148649
Legislative Information Systems, at the end of fiscal year 2013 to 148650
be reappropriated to fiscal year 2014. The amount certified is 148651
hereby reappropriated to the same appropriation item for fiscal 148652
year 2014.148653

        On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 148654
Director of the Legislative Service Commission may certify to the 148655
Director of Budget and Management the amount of the unexpended, 148656
unencumbered balance of the foregoing appropriation item 035410, 148657
Legislative Information Systems, at the end of fiscal year 2014 to 148658
be reappropriated to fiscal year 2015. The amount certified is 148659
hereby reappropriated to the same appropriation item for fiscal 148660
year 2015.148661

       OHIO CONSTITUTIONAL MODERNIZATION COMMISSION148662

       The foregoing appropriation item 035411, Ohio Constitutional 148663
Modernization Commission, shall be used to support the operation 148664
and expenses of the Ohio Constitutional Modernization Commission 148665
under sections 103.61 to 103.67 of the Revised Code.148666

        An amount equal to the unexpended, unencumbered portion of 148667
the foregoing appropriation item 035411, Ohio Constitutional 148668
Modernization Commission, at the end of fiscal year 2013 is hereby 148669
reappropriated to the Legislative Service Commission for the same 148670
purpose for fiscal year 2014.148671

       An amount equal to the unexpended, unencumbered portion of 148672
the foregoing appropriation item 035411, Ohio Constitutional 148673
Modernization Commission, at the end of fiscal year 2014 is hereby 148674
reappropriated to the Legislative Service Commission for the same 148675
purpose for fiscal year 2015.148676

       Section 315.10.  LIB STATE LIBRARY BOARD148677

General Revenue Fund148678

GRF 350321 Operating Expenses $ 5,057,364 $ 5,057,364 148679
GRF 350401 Ohioana Rental Payments $ 120,114 $ 120,114 148680
GRF 350502 Regional Library Systems $ 582,469 $ 582,469 148681
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 5,759,947 $ 5,759,947 148682

General Services Fund Group148683

1390 350602 Intra-Agency Service Charges $ 8,000 $ 8,000 148684
4590 350603 Library Service Charges $ 3,237,430 $ 3,526,368 148685
4S40 350604 Ohio Public Library Information Network $ 5,689,788 $ 5,689,788 148686
5GB0 350605 Library for the Blind $ 1,274,194 $ 1,274,194 148687
TOTAL GSF General Services 148688
Fund Group $ 10,209,412 $ 10,498,350 148689

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group148690

3130 350601 LSTA Federal $ 5,303,693 $ 5,120,439 148691
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 148692
Fund Group $ 5,303,693 $ 5,120,439 148693
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 21,273,052 $ 21,378,736 148694

       OHIOANA RENTAL PAYMENTS148695

       The foregoing appropriation item 350401, Ohioana Rental 148696
Payments, shall be used to pay the rental expenses of the Martha 148697
Kinney Cooper Ohioana Library Association under section 3375.61 of 148698
the Revised Code.148699

       REGIONAL LIBRARY SYSTEMS148700

       The foregoing appropriation item 350502, Regional Library 148701
Systems, shall be used to support regional library systems 148702
eligible for funding under sections 3375.83 and 3375.90 of the 148703
Revised Code.148704

       OHIO PUBLIC LIBRARY INFORMATION NETWORK148705

       (A) The foregoing appropriation item 350604, Ohio Public 148706
Library Information Network, shall be used for an information 148707
telecommunications network linking public libraries in the state 148708
and such others as may participate in the Ohio Public Library 148709
Information Network (OPLIN).148710

        The Ohio Public Library Information Network Board of Trustees 148711
created under section 3375.65 of the Revised Code may make 148712
decisions regarding use of the foregoing appropriation item 148713
350604, Ohio Public Library Information Network.148714

       (B) The OPLIN Board shall research and assist or advise local 148715
libraries with regard to emerging technologies and methods that 148716
may be effective means to control access to obscene and illegal 148717
materials. The OPLIN Director shall provide written reports upon 148718
request within ten days to the Governor, the Speaker and Minority 148719
Leader of the House of Representatives, and the President and 148720
Minority Leader of the Senate on any steps being taken by OPLIN 148721
and public libraries in the state to limit and control such 148722
improper usage as well as information on technological, legal, and 148723
law enforcement trends nationally and internationally affecting 148724
this area of public access and service.148725

       (C) The Ohio Public Library Information Network, INFOhio, and 148726
OhioLINK shall, to the extent feasible, coordinate and cooperate 148727
in their purchase or other acquisition of the use of electronic 148728
databases for their respective users and shall contribute funds in 148729
an equitable manner to such effort.148730

       LIBRARY FOR THE BLIND148731

        The foregoing appropriation item 350605, Library for the 148732
Blind, shall be used for the statewide Talking Book Program to 148733
assist the blind and disabled.148734

       TRANSFER TO OPLIN TECHNOLOGY FUND148735

       Notwithstanding sections 5747.03 and 5747.47 of the Revised 148736
Code and any other provision of law to the contrary, in accordance 148737
with a schedule established by the Director of Budget and 148738
Management, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 148739
$3,689,788 cash in each fiscal year from the Public Library Fund 148740
(Fund 7065) to the OPLIN Technology Fund (Fund 4S40).148741

       TRANSFER TO LIBRARY FOR THE BLIND FUND148742

        Notwithstanding sections 5747.03 and 5747.47 of the Revised 148743
Code and any other provision of law to the contrary, in accordance 148744
with a schedule established by the Director of Budget and 148745
Management, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 148746
$1,274,194 cash in each fiscal year from the Public Library Fund 148747
(Fund 7065) to the Library for the Blind Fund (Fund 5GB0).148748

       Section 317.10. LCO LIQUOR CONTROL COMMISSION148749

State Special Revenue Fund Group148750

5LP0 970601 Commission Operating Expenses $ 784,376 $ 796,368 148751
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 784,376 $ 796,368 148752
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 784,376 $ 796,368 148753


       Section 319.10. LOT STATE LOTTERY COMMISSION148755

State Lottery Fund Group148756

2310 950604 Charitable Gaming Oversight $ 1,946,000 $ 1,946,000 148757
7044 950321 Operating Expenses $ 49,778,677 $ 51,173,293 148758
7044 950402 Advertising Contracts $ 23,024,080 $ 23,024,080 148759
7044 950403 Gaming Contracts $ 63,405,851 $ 59,356,988 148760
7044 950601 Direct Prize Payments $ 116,281,000 $ 114,779,000 148761
7044 950605 Problem Gambling $ 2,000,000 $ 3,000,000 148762
8710 950602 Annuity Prizes $ 79,039,985 $ 80,299,167 148763
TOTAL SLF State Lottery Fund 148764
Group $ 335,475,593 $ 333,578,528 148765
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 335,475,593 $ 333,578,528 148766

       OPERATING EXPENSES148767

       Notwithstanding sections 127.14 and 131.35 of the Revised 148768
Code, the Controlling Board may, at the request of the State 148769
Lottery Commission, authorize expenditures from the State Lottery 148770
Fund in excess of the amounts appropriated, up to a maximum of 10 148771
per cent of anticipated total revenue accruing from the sale of 148772
lottery products. Upon the approval of the Controlling Board, the 148773
additional amounts are hereby appropriated.148774

       DIRECT PRIZE PAYMENTS148775

       Any amounts, in addition to the amounts appropriated in 148776
appropriation item 950601, Direct Prize Payments, that the 148777
Director of the State Lottery Commission determines to be 148778
necessary to fund prizes are hereby appropriated.148779

       ANNUITY PRIZES148780

       Upon request of the State Lottery Commission, the Director of 148781
Budget and Management may transfer cash from the State Lottery 148782
Fund (Fund 7044) to the Deferred Prizes Trust Fund (Fund 8710) in 148783
an amount sufficient to fund deferred prizes. The Treasurer of 148784
State, from time to time, shall credit the Deferred Prizes Trust 148785
Fund (Fund 8710) the pro rata share of interest earned by the 148786
Treasurer of State on invested balances.148787

       Any amounts, in addition to the amounts appropriated in 148788
appropriation item 950602, Annuity Prizes, that the Director of 148789
the State Lottery Commission determines to be necessary to fund 148790
deferred prizes and interest earnings are hereby appropriated.148791

       TRANSFERS TO THE LOTTERY PROFITS EDUCATION FUND148792

       Estimated transfers from the State Lottery Fund (Fund 7044) 148793
to the Lottery Profits Education Fund (Fund 7017) are to be 148794
$841,000,000 in fiscal year 2014 and $974,500,000 in fiscal year 148795
2015. The Director of Budget and Management shall transfer such 148796
amounts contingent upon the availability of resources. Transfers 148797
from the State Lottery Fund to the Lottery Profits Education Fund 148798
shall represent the estimated net income from operations for the 148799
Commission in fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015. Transfers by 148800
the Director of Budget and Management to the Lottery Profits 148801
Education Fund shall be administered as the statutes direct.148802

       Section 321.10. MHC MANUFACTURED HOMES COMMISSION148803

General Services Fund Group148804

4K90 996609 Operating Expenses $ 459,134 $ 459,134 148805
TOTAL GSF General Services 148806
Fund Group $ 459,134 $ 459,134 148807

State Special Revenue Fund Group148808

5MC0 996610 Manufactured Homes Regulation $ 747,825 $ 747,825 148809
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 747,825 $ 747,825 148810
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,206,959 $ 1,206,959 148811


       Section 323.10. MCD DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAID148813

General Revenue Fund148814

GRF 651425 Medicaid Program Support - State $ 150,382,299 $ 156,964,636 148815
GRF 651525 Medicaid/Health Care Services 148816
State $ 4,747,521,777 $ 4,991,552,135 148817
Federal $ 9,000,192,337 $ 9,314,662,342 148818
Medicaid/Health Care Services Total $ 13,747,714,114 $ 14,306,214,477 148819
GRF 651526 Medicare Part D $ 308,749,142 $ 324,920,518 148820
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund 148821
State $ 5,206,653,218 $ 5,473,437,289 148822
Federal $ 9,000,192,337 $ 9,314,662,342 148823
GRF Total $ 14,206,845,555 $ 14,788,099,631 148824

General Services Fund Group148825

5DL0 651639 Medicaid Services - Recoveries $ 462,900,000 $ 514,700,000 148826
5FX0 561638 Medicaid Services - Payment Withholding $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 148827
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 468,900,000 $ 520,700,000 148828

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group 148829

3ER0 651603 Medicaid Health Information Technology $ 123,074,778 $ 123,089,606 148830
3F00 651623 Medicaid Services - Federal $ 2,977,109,943 $ 3,214,589,109 148831
3F00 651624 Medicaid Program Support - Federal $ 409,896,401 $ 410,223,399 148832
3FA0 651680 Health Care Grants - Federal $ 20,000,000 $ 20,000,000 148833
3G50 651655 Medicaid Interagency Pass-Through $ 1,712,881,658 $ 1,895,403,348 148834
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 5,242,962,780 $ 5,663,305,462 148835

State Special Revenue Fund Group148836

4E30 651605 Resident Protection Fund $ 2,878,319 $ 2,878,319 148837
5AJ0 651631 Money Follows the Person $ 5,555,000 $ 4,517,500 148838
5GF0 651656 Medicaid Services - Hospitals/UPL $ 531,273,601 $ 531,273,601 148839
5KC0 651682 Health Care Grants - State $ 10,000,000 $ 10,000,000 148840
5R20 651608 Medicaid Services - Long Term Care $ 402,000,000 $ 402,000,000 148841
5U30 651654 Medicaid Program Support $ 36,205,843 $ 35,403,126 148842
6510 651649 Medicaid Services - HCAP $ 215,527,947 $ 215,314,482 148843
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 1,203,440,710 $ 1,201,387,028 148844

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group148845

R055 651644 Refunds and Reconciliations $ 1,000,0000 $ 1,000,000 148846
TOTAL 090 Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 148847
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 21,123,149,045 $ 22,174,492,121 148848


       Section 323.10.10. CREATION OF THE DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAID148850

       (A) As used in this section, "medical assistance program" 148851
means all of the following:148852

        (1) The Medicaid program established by Title XIX of the 148853
"Social Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1396 et seq.148854

        (2) The Children's Health Insurance Program authorized by 148855
Title XXI of the "Social Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1397aa et seq.148856

        (3) The Refugee Medical Assistance program authorized by the 148857
"Immigration and Nationality Act," section 412(e), 42 U.S.C. 148858
1522(e).148859

       (B) On July 1, 2013, all of the following apply:148860

       (1) The Department of Medicaid is created.148861

        (2) The Department of Medicaid is to be administered by the 148862
Medicaid Director who is to be appointed by the Governor with the 148863
advice and consent of the Senate.148864

       (3) The Medicaid Director is to hold the Director's office 148865
during the term of the appointing Governor and is subject to 148866
removal at the pleasure of the Governor.148867

        (4) The Medicaid Director is the executive head of the 148868
Department of Medicaid and all duties conferred on the Department 148869
by law or order of the Director are under the Director's control 148870
and shall be performed in accordance with rules the Director 148871
adopts.148872

        (5) The Medicaid Director may appoint such employees as are 148873
necessary for the efficient operation of the Department of 148874
Medicaid and may prescribe the title and duties of the employees.148875

        (6) The Office of Medical Assistance shall cease to exist.148876

       (7) Each reference to the Department or Director of Public 148877
Welfare, Department or Director of Human Services, Department or 148878
Director of Job and Family Services, Office of Medical Assistance, 148879
or Medical Assistance Director in any statute, rule, contract, 148880
grant, or other document is deemed to refer to the Department of 148881
Medicaid or Medicaid Director, as the case may be, to the extent 148882
the reference is about a duty or authority of the Department of 148883
Medicaid or Medicaid Director regarding a medical assistance 148884
program.148885

       (8) Employees of the Office of Medical Assistance are hereby 148886
transferred to the Department of Medicaid. The vehicles and 148887
equipment assigned to the Office's employees are transferred to 148888
the Department.148889

       (9) The assets, liabilities, other equipment not provided 148890
for, and records, irrespective of form or medium, of the Office of 148891
Medical Assistance are transferred to the Department of Medicaid. 148892
The Department is the successor to, assumes the obligations of, 148893
and otherwise constitutes the continuation of, the Office.148894

       (10) Business commenced but not completed on July 1, 2013, by 148895
the Medical Assistance Director, the Office of Medical Assistance, 148896
Director of Job and Family Services, or Department of Job and 148897
Family Services regarding a medical assistance program shall be 148898
completed by the Medicaid Director or Department of Medicaid in 148899
the same manner, and with the same effect, as if completed by the 148900
Medical Assistance Director, Office of Medical Assistance, 148901
Director of Job and Family Services, or Department of Job and 148902
Family Services. No validation, cure, right, privilege, remedy, 148903
obligation, or liability is lost or impaired by reason of the 148904
transfer required by this section but shall be administered by the 148905
Medicaid Director or Department of Medicaid.148906

       (11) For the purpose of the "Social Security Act," section 148907
1902(a)(5), 42 U.S.C. 1396a(a)(5), the Department of Medicaid 148908
shall act as the single state agency to supervise the 148909
administration of the Medicaid program. As the single state 148910
agency, the Department shall comply with 42 C.F.R. 431.10(e) and 148911
all other federal requirements applicable to the single state 148912
agency.148913

       (D) The rules, orders, and determinations pertaining to the 148914
Office of Medical Assistance and Department of Job and Family 148915
Services regarding medical assistance programs continue in effect 148916
as rules, orders, and determinations of the Department of Medicaid 148917
until modified or rescinded by the Department of Medicaid.148918

       (E) No judicial or administrative action or proceeding 148919
pending on July 1, 2013, is affected by the transfer of functions 148920
from the Medical Assistance Director, Office of Medical 148921
Assistance, Director of Job and Family Services, or Department of 148922
Job and Family Services to the Medicaid Director or Department of 148923
Medicaid and shall be prosecuted or defended in the name of the 148924
Medicaid Director or Department of Medicaid. On application to the 148925
court or other tribunal, the Medicaid Director or Department of 148926
Medicaid shall be substituted as a party in such actions and 148927
proceedings.148928

       (F) When the Department of Medicaid created in section 121.02 148929
of the Revised Code comes into effect, it is a continuation of the 148930
Department of Medicaid created in this section.148931

        (G) A portion of the foregoing appropriation items 651425, 148932
Medicaid Program Support – State, 651525, Medicaid/Health Care 148933
Services, 651526, Medicare Part D, 651639, Medicaid Services – 148934
Recoveries, 651638, Medicaid Services - Payment Withholding, 148935
651603, Medicaid Health Information Technology, 651623, Medicaid 148936
Services – Federal, 651624, Medicaid Program Support – Federal, 148937
651680 Health Care Grants – Federal, 651655, Medicaid Interagency 148938
Pass-Through, 651605, Resident Protection Fund, 651631, Money 148939
Follows the Person, 651656, Medicaid Services – Hospitals/UPL, 148940
651682, Health Care Grants – State, 651608, Medicaid Services – 148941
Long Term Care, 651654, Medicaid Program Support, 651649, Medicaid 148942
Services – HCAP, 651644, Refunds and Reconciliations, and 651612, 148943
Managed Care Performance Payments, may be used to pay for Medicaid 148944
services and costs associated with the administration of the 148945
Medicaid program.148946

       Section 323.10.20. TRANSFER OF ENCUMBRANCES AND RECEIVABLES148947

        On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 148948
Medicaid Director shall certify to the Director of Budget and 148949
Management all medical assistance-related encumbrances held by the 148950
Department of Job and Family Services, and specify which of those 148951
encumbrances are requested to be transferred to the Department of 148952
Medicaid. The Director of Budget and Management may cancel any 148953
existing encumbrances, as certified by the Medicaid Director, and 148954
reestablish them in the Department of Medicaid. The reestablished 148955
encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any business 148956
commenced, but not completed, with regard to the encumbrances 148957
certified shall be completed by the Department of Medicaid in the 148958
same manner and with the same effect as if it were completed by 148959
the Department of Job and Family Services.148960

        On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 148961
Medicaid Director shall certify to the Director of Budget and 148962
Management all medical assistance-related receivables held by the 148963
Department of Job and Family Services, and specify which of those 148964
receivables are requested to be transferred to the Department of 148965
Medicaid. The Director of Budget and Management may cancel any 148966
existing receivables as certified by the Medicaid Director and 148967
reestablish them in the Department of Medicaid.148968

        A portion of the foregoing appropriation items 651425, 148969
Medicaid Program Support – State, 651525, Medicaid/Health Care 148970
Services, 651639, Medicaid Services – Recoveries, 651638, Medicaid 148971
Services-Payment Withholding, 651624, Medicaid Program Support – 148972
Federal, 651680, Health Care Grants – Federal, 651655, Medicaid 148973
Interagency Pass-Through, 651605, Resident Protection Fund, 148974
651631, Money Follows the Person, 651656, Medicaid Services – 148975
Hospitals/UPL, 651682, Health Care Grants – State, 651608, 148976
Medicaid Services – Long Term Care, 651654, Medicaid Program 148977
Support, and 651649, Medicaid Services – HCAP, may be used to pay 148978
for medical assistance services and costs associated with the 148979
administration of the Medicaid program.148980

       Section 323.10.30. TEMPORARY AUTHORITY REGARDING EMPLOYEES148981

       (A) As used in this section, "medical assistance program" has 148982
the same meaning as in the section of this act titled "CREATION OF 148983
THE DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAID."148984

       (B) During the period beginning July 1, 2013, and ending June 148985
30, 2015, all of the following apply:148986

       (1) The Medicaid Director has the authority to establish, 148987
change, and abolish positions for the Department of Medicaid, and 148988
to assign, reassign, classify, reclassify, transfer, reduce, 148989
promote, or demote all employees of the Department of Medicaid who 148990
are not subject to Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code.148991

       (2) As part of the transfer of medical assistance programs to 148992
the Department of Medicaid, the Director of Job and Family 148993
Services has the authority to establish, change, and abolish 148994
positions for the Department of Job and Family Services, and to 148995
assign, reassign, classify, reclassify, transfer, reduce, promote, 148996
or demote all employees of the Department of Job and Family 148997
Services who are not subject to Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code.148998

       (C) The authority granted under division (B) of this section 148999
includes assigning or reassigning an exempt employee, as defined 149000
in section 124.152 of the Revised Code, to a bargaining unit 149001
classification if the Medicaid Director or Director of Job and 149002
Family Services determines that the bargaining unit classification 149003
is the proper classification for that employee. The actions of the 149004
Medicaid Director or Director of Job and Family Services shall be 149005
consistent with the requirements of 5 C.F.R. 900.603 for those 149006
employees subject to such requirements. If an employee in the E-1 149007
pay range is to be assigned, reassigned, classified, reclassified, 149008
transferred, reduced, or demoted to a position in a lower 149009
classification during the period specified in this section, the 149010
Medicaid Director or Director of Job and Family Services, or in 149011
the case of a transfer outside the Department of Medicaid or 149012
Department of Job and Family Services, the Director of 149013
Administrative Services, shall assign the employee to the 149014
appropriate classification and place the employee in Step X. The 149015
employee shall not receive any increase in compensation until the 149016
maximum rate of pay for that classification exceeds the employee's 149017
compensation.149018

       (D) Actions taken by the Medicaid Director, Director of Job 149019
and Family Services, and Director of Administrative Services 149020
pursuant to this section are not subject to appeal to the State 149021
Personnel Board of Review.149022

       (E) A portion of the foregoing appropriation items 651425, 149023
Medicaid Program Support – State, 651603, Medicaid Health 149024
Information Technology, 651624, Medicaid Program Support – 149025
Federal, 651680, Health Care Grants – Federal, 651655, Medicaid 149026
Interagency Pass-Through, 651605, Resident Protection Fund, 149027
651631, Money Follows the Person, 651682, Health Care Grants – 149028
State, and 651654, Medicaid Program Support, may be used to pay 149029
for costs associated with the administration of the Medicaid 149030
program, including the assignment, reassignment, classification, 149031
reclassification, transfer, reduction, promotion, or demotion of 149032
employees authorized by this section.149033

       Section 323.10.40. STAFF TRAINING REGARDING TRANSFERS149034

       As used in this section, "medical assistance program" has the 149035
same meaning as in the section of this act titled "CREATION OF THE 149036
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAID."149037

       The Medicaid Director and Director of Job and Family Services 149038
may jointly or separately enter into one or more contracts with 149039
public or private entities for staff training and development to 149040
facilitate the transfer of the staff and duties regarding medical 149041
assistance programs to the Department of Medicaid. Division (B) of 149042
section 127.16 of the Revised Code does not apply to contracts 149043
entered into under this section.149044

       A portion of the foregoing appropriation items 651425, 149045
Medicaid Program Support – State, 651624, Medicaid Program Support 149046
– Federal, 651680, Health Care Grants – Federal, 651605, Resident 149047
Protection Fund, 651631, Money Follows the Person, and 651654, 149048
Medicaid Program Support, may be used to pay for costs associated 149049
with the administration of the Medicaid program, including staff 149050
training authorized under this section.149051

       Section 323.10.50. CREATION OF THE DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAID NOT 149052
A COLLECTIVE BARGAINING SUBJECT149053

       As used in this section, "medical assistance program" has the 149054
same meaning as in the section of this act titled "CREATION OF THE 149055
DEPARTMENT OF MEDICAID."149056

       Notwithstanding sections 4117.08 and 4117.10 of the Revised 149057
Code, this act's creation of the Department of Medicaid and 149058
reassignment of the functions and duties of the Office of Medical 149059
Assistance regarding medical assistance programs are not 149060
appropriate subjects for collective bargaining under Chapter 4117. 149061
of the Revised Code.149062

       A portion of the foregoing appropriation items 651425, 149063
Medicaid Program Support – State, 651624, Medicaid Program Support 149064
– Federal, 651680, Health Care Grants – Federal, 651655, Medicaid 149065
Interagency Pass-Through, 651605, Resident Protection Fund, 149066
651631, Money Follows the Person, 651682, Health Care Grants – 149067
State, and 651654, Medicaid Program Support, may be used to pay 149068
for costs associated with the administration of the Medicaid 149069
program, including the reassignment of functions and duties 149070
related to the transition of the Office of Medical Assistance into 149071
the Department of Medicaid.149072

       Section 323.10.60. NEW AND AMENDED GRANT AGREEMENTS149073

       (A) As used in this section:149074

       (1) "Grant agreement" has the same meaning as in section 149075
5101.21 of the Revised Code.149076

       (2) "Medical assistance program" has the same meaning as in 149077
the section of this act titled "CREATION OF THE DEPARTMENT OF 149078
MEDICAID."149079

       (B) The Director of Job and Family Services and boards of 149080
county commissioners may enter into negotiations to amend an 149081
existing grant agreement or to enter into a new grant agreement 149082
regarding the transfer of medical assistance programs to the 149083
Department of Medicaid. Any such amended or new grant agreement 149084
shall be drafted in the name of the Department of Job and Family 149085
Services. The amended or new grant agreement may be executed 149086
before July 1, 2013, if the amendment or agreement does not become 149087
effective sooner than that date.149088

       (C) A portion of the foregoing appropriation items 651525, 149089
Health Care/Medicaid Services, 651603, Medicaid Health Information 149090
Technology, 651623, Medicaid Services – Federal, 651624, Medicaid 149091
Program Support – Federal, 651680, Health Care Grants – Federal, 149092
and 651682, Health Care Grants - State, may be used to pay for 149093
Medicaid services and costs associated with the administration of 149094
the Medicaid program.149095

       Section 323.10.70. LSC TO RENUMBER ADMINISTRATIVE RULES149096

       On and after October 1, 2013, if necessary to ensure the 149097
integrity of the numbering of the Administrative Code, the 149098
Director of the Legislative Service Commission shall renumber the 149099
rules of the Office of Medical Assistance within the Department of 149100
Job and Family Services to reflect its transfer to the Department 149101
of Medicaid.149102

       Section 323.20.  MEDICAID/HEALTH CARE SERVICES149103

       The foregoing appropriation item 651525, Medicaid/Health Care 149104
Services, shall not be limited by section 131.33 of the Revised 149105
Code.149106

       Section 323.23. PROPOSAL TO REFORM MEDICAID AND OHIO'S HEALTH 149107
CARE DELIVERY SYSTEM149108

       (A) Legislation shall be introduced in the House of 149109
Representatives to reform the Medicaid program and Ohio's health 149110
care delivery system. The Director of the Governor's Office of 149111
Health Transformation and the Medicaid Director shall provide 149112
assistance in developing the legislation. The legislation shall 149113
include, but not be limited to, all of the following:149114

       (1) A focus on individuals who have the greatest potential to 149115
obtain the income and resources that would enable them to cease 149116
enrollment in Medicaid and instead obtain health care coverage 149117
through employer-sponsored health insurance or the health 149118
insurance marketplace; 149119

       (2) Strategies to lower Medicaid caseloads by promoting 149120
employment-related services available under Medicaid, including 149121
Medicaid managed care, and promoting other programs that offer 149122
workforce readiness, educational, and wellness services;149123

       (3) Provisions that seek to do both of the following:149124

       (a) Lower net state and federal costs for the Medicaid 149125
program;149126

       (b) Reduce the number of individuals who enroll in Medicaid 149127
over time.149128

       (B) The legislation may call for amending the state Medicaid 149129
plan, obtaining a waiver under the "Social Security Act," section 149130
1115, 42 U.S.C. 1315, or a combination of the two. Subject to 149131
division (c) of this section, the Medicaid Director may submit to 149132
the United States Department of Health and Human Services a state 149133
Medicaid plan amendment, a request for a section 1115 waiver, or a 149134
combination of the two.149135

       (C) Not sooner than September 15, 2013, and not later than 149136
October 1, 2013, the Directors shall submit to the General 149137
Assembly the terms of any federal approval obtained for the 149138
reform. The Directors shall not begin implementation of the reform 149139
unless the General Assembly enacts legislation authorizing 149140
implementation. If the General Assembly does not enact such 149141
legislation on or before December 31, 2013, the Directors shall 149142
cease any activity regarding this reform, including pursuing a 149143
Medicaid plan amendment, section 1115 waiver, or combination of 149144
the two.149145

       Section 323.30.  QUALITY INCENTIVE PROGRAM TO REDUCE 149146
AVOIDABLE ADMISSIONS149147

       (A) The Department of Medicaid may implement, for fiscal year 149148
2014 and fiscal year 2015, a quality incentive program to do both 149149
of the following:149150

       (1) Reduce the number of times that the following persons are 149151
admitted to hospitals and nursing facilities or utilize emergency 149152
department services when the admissions or utilizations are 149153
avoidable:149154

        (a) Medicaid recipients enrolled in a home and 149155
community-based services Medicaid waiver component administered by 149156
the Office;149157

        (b) Medicaid recipients receiving nursing services available 149158
under the home health services benefit pursuant to 42 C.F.R. 149159
440.70(b)(1);149160

        (c) Medicaid recipients receiving home health aide services 149161
available under the home health services benefit pursuant to 42 149162
C.F.R. 440.70(b)(2);149163

        (d) Medicaid recipients receiving private duty nursing 149164
services as defined in 42 C.F.R. 440.80.149165

       (2) Reduce the number of times that Medicaid recipients 149166
receiving nursing facility services are admitted to hospitals or 149167
utilize emergency department services when the admissions or 149168
utilizations are avoidable.149169

        (B) If the quality incentive program is implemented, the 149170
Department shall include in the program methods by which the 149171
Department will determine the program's actual savings to the 149172
Medicaid program and shall distribute not more than fifty per cent 149173
of the savings to participating Medicaid providers.149174

       Section 323.40.  CHILDREN'S HOSPITALS QUALITY OUTCOMES 149175
PROGRAM149176

       (A) As used in this section, "children's hospital" means a 149177
hospital, as defined in section 3727.01 of the Revised Code, that 149178
is located in this state, primarily serves patients eighteen years 149179
of age and younger, is subject to the Medicaid prospective payment 149180
system for hospitals established in rules adopted under section 149181
5164.02 of the Revised Code, and is excluded from Medicare 149182
prospective payments in accordance with 42 C.F.R. 412.23(d).149183

        (B) The Medicaid Director may implement, during fiscal year 149184
2014 and fiscal year 2015, a children's hospitals quality outcomes 149185
program that encourages children's hospitals to develop the 149186
following:149187

        (1) Infrastructures that are needed to care for patients in 149188
the least restrictive setting and promote the care of patients and 149189
their families;149190

        (2) Programs designed to improve birth outcomes and 149191
measurably reduce neonatal intensive care admissions;149192

        (3) Patient-centered methods to measurably reduce utilization 149193
of emergency department services for primary care needs and 149194
nonemergency health conditions;149195

        (4) Other quality-focused reforms the Director identifies.149196

       (C) Up to $6,000,000 state share plus the corresponding 149197
federal share in each fiscal year shall be used to support 149198
payments made to children's hospitals for developing programs that 149199
achieve the outcomes specified under division (B) of this section 149200
and any other measures the Medicaid Director deems appropriate.149201

       Section 323.50. UNIFIED LONG TERM CARE149202

       The foregoing appropriation item 651425, Medicaid Program 149203
Support - State, may be used to provide the preadmission screening 149204
and resident review (PASRR), which includes screening, 149205
assessments, and determinations made under sections 5119.061 149206
(renumbered section 5119.40 of the Revised Code in this act), 149207
5123.021, and 5165.04 of the Revised Code.149208

       The foregoing appropriation item 651425, Medicaid Program 149209
Support - State, may be used to assess and provide long-term care 149210
consultations under section 173.42 of the Revised Code to clients 149211
regardless of Medicaid eligibility.149212

       The foregoing appropriation item 651525, Medicaid/Health Care 149213
Services, may be used to provide nonwaiver funded PASSPORT and 149214
assisted living services to persons who the state department has 149215
determined to be eligible to participate in the nonwaiver funded 149216
PASSPORT and assisted living programs, who applied for but have 149217
not yet been determined to be financially eligible to participate 149218
in the Medicaid waiver component of the PASSPORT Home Care Program 149219
or the Assisted Living Program by a county department of job and 149220
family services, and to persons who are not eligible for Medicaid 149221
but were enrolled in the PASSPORT Program prior to July 1, 1990.149222

       The foregoing appropriation item 651425, Medicaid Program 149223
Support - State, shall be used to provide the required state match 149224
for federal Medicaid funds supporting the Medicaid waiver-funded 149225
PASSPORT Home Care Program, the Choices Program, the Assisted 149226
Living Program, and the PACE Program.149227

       The foregoing appropriation item 651525, Medicaid/Health Care 149228
Services, shall be used to provide the federal matching share of 149229
program costs determined by the Department of Medicaid to be 149230
eligible for Medicaid reimbursement for the Medicaid waiver-funded 149231
PASSPORT Home Care Program, the Choices Program, the Assisted 149232
Living Program, and the PACE Program.149233

       Section 323.53. PASSPORT ADMINISTRATIVE AGENCY SITE 149234
OPERATIONS149235

       For fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, spending for 149236
PASSPORT administrative agencies' site operating functions 149237
relating to screening, assessments, general administrative 149238
functions, and provider relations for the Medicaid waiver-funded 149239
PASSPORT Home Care Program, Choices Program, Assisted Living 149240
Program, and PACE Program shall be at one hundred five per cent of 149241
the level provided in fiscal year 2013.149242

       Section 323.60.  MANAGED CARE PERFORMANCE PAYMENT PROGRAM 149243

       At the beginning of each quarter, or as soon as possible 149244
thereafter, the Medicaid Director shall certify to the Director of 149245
Budget and Management the amount withheld in accordance with 149246
section 5167.30 of the Revised Code for purposes of the Managed 149247
Care Performance Payment Program. Upon receiving certification, 149248
the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer cash in the 149249
amount certified from the General Revenue Fund to the Managed Care 149250
Performance Payment Fund. Appropriation item 651525, 149251
Medicaid/Health Care Services, is hereby reduced by the amount of 149252
the transfer. Upon request of the Medicaid Director and approval 149253
of the Director of Budget and Management, appropriation up to the 149254
cash balance in the Managed Care Performance Payment Fund is 149255
hereby appropriated.149256

       In addition to any other purpose authorized by law, the 149257
Department of Medicaid may use money in the Managed Care 149258
Performance Payment Fund for the following purposes for fiscal 149259
year 2014 and fiscal year 2015:149260

        (A) To meet obligations specified in provider agreements with 149261
Medicaid managed care organizations;149262

        (B) To pay for Medicaid services provided by a Medicaid 149263
managed care organization;149264

        (C) To reimburse a Medicaid managed care organization that 149265
has paid a fine for failure to meet performance standards or other 149266
requirements specified in provider agreements or rules adopted 149267
under section 5167.02 of the Revised Code if the organization 149268
comes into compliance with the standards or requirements.149269

       Section 323.70.  MEDICAID MANAGED CARE EXEMPTIONS149270

       (A) Except as provided in division (B) of this section, the 149271
Department of Medicaid shall not include in the care management 149272
system established under section 5167.03 of the Revised Code any 149273
individual receiving services through the program for medically 149274
handicapped children established under section 3701.023 of the 149275
Revised Code who has one or more of the following conditions:149276

        (1) Cystic fibrosis;149277

        (2) Hemophilia;149278

        (3) Cancer.149279

       (B) An individual described in division (A) of this section 149280
may be designated for participation in the care management system 149281
if the individual was receiving services through the system 149282
immediately before April 1, 2013.149283

        (C) This section applies until July 1, 2014, notwithstanding 149284
any provision of section 5167.03 of the Revised Code that 149285
otherwise authorizes or requires the designation of individuals 149286
for participation in the care management system.149287

       Section 323.80.  PRIOR AUTHORIZATION FOR COMMUNITY MENTAL 149288
HEALTH SERVICES149289

        (A) As used in this section, "community mental health 149290
services" means mental health services included in the state 149291
Medicaid plan pursuant to section 5164.15 of the Revised Code.149292

        (B) For fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, a Medicaid 149293
recipient who is under twenty-one years of age automatically 149294
satisfies all requirements for any prior authorization process for 149295
community mental health services provided under a component of the 149296
Medicaid program administered by the Department of Mental Health 149297
and Addiction Services pursuant to an interagency agreement 149298
authorized by section 5162.35 of the Revised Code if any of the 149299
following apply to the recipient:149300

        (1) The recipient is in the temporary custody or permanent 149301
custody of a public children services agency or private child 149302
placing agency or is in a planned permanent living arrangement.149303

       (2) The recipient has been placed in protective supervision 149304
by a juvenile court.149305

        (3) The recipient has been committed to the Department of 149306
Youth Services.149307

        (4) The recipient is an alleged or adjudicated delinquent or 149308
unruly child receiving services under the Felony Delinquent Care 149309
and Custody Program operated under section 5139.43 of the Revised 149310
Code.149311

       Section 323.90.  JOINT LEGISLATIVE COMMITTEE FOR UNIFIED 149312
LONG-TERM SERVICES AND SUPPORTS149313

       (A) The Joint Legislative Committee for Unified Long-Term 149314
Services and Supports created under section 309.30.73 of Am. Sub. 149315
H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly, as subsequently amended, 149316
shall continue to exist during fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 149317
2015. The Committee shall consist of the following members:149318

       (1) Two members of the House of Representatives from the 149319
majority party, appointed by the Speaker of the House of 149320
Representatives;149321

       (2) One member of the House of Representatives from the 149322
minority party, appointed by the Speaker of the House of 149323
Representatives;149324

       (3) Two members of the Senate from the majority party, 149325
appointed by the President of the Senate;149326

       (4) One member of the Senate from the minority party, 149327
appointed by the President of the Senate.149328

       (B) The Speaker of the House of Representatives shall 149329
designate one of the members of the Committee appointed under 149330
division (A)(1) of this section to serve as co-chairperson of the 149331
Committee. The President of the Senate shall designate one of the 149332
members of the Committee appointed under division (A)(3) of this 149333
section to serve as the other co-chairperson of the Committee. The 149334
Committee shall meet at the call of the co-chairpersons. The 149335
co-chairpersons may request assistance for the Committee from the 149336
Legislative Service Commission.149337

       (C) The Committee may examine the following issues:149338

       (1) The implementation of the dual eligible integrated care 149339
demonstration project authorized by section 5164.91 of the Revised 149340
Code;149341

       (2) The implementation of a unified long-term services and 149342
support Medicaid waiver component under section 5166.14 of the 149343
Revised Code;149344

       (3) Providing consumers choices regarding a continuum of 149345
services that meet their health-care needs, promote autonomy and 149346
independence, and improve quality of life;149347

       (4) Ensuring that long-term care services and supports are 149348
delivered in a cost-effective and quality manner;149349

       (5) Subjecting county homes, county nursing homes, and 149350
district homes operated pursuant to Chapter 5155. of the Revised 149351
Code to the franchise permit fee under sections 5168.40 to 5168.56 149352
of the Revised Code;149353

       (6) Other issues of interest to the committee.149354

       (D) The co-chairpersons of the Committee shall provide for 149355
the Medicaid Director to testify before the Committee at least 149356
quarterly regarding the issues that the Committee examines.149357

       Section 323.100.  HOSPITAL INPATIENT AND OUTPATIENT 149358
SUPPLEMENTAL UPPER PAYMENT LIMIT PROGRAM; MEDICAID MANAGED CARE 149359
HOSPITAL INCENTIVE PAYMENT PROGRAM149360

       (A) As used in this section:149361

       (1) "Hospital" has the same meaning as in section 5168.20 of 149362
the Revised Code.149363

       (2) "Hospital Assessment Fund" means the fund created under 149364
section 5168.25 of the Revised Code.149365

       (3) "Medicaid managed care organization" has the same meaning 149366
as in section 5167.01 of the Revised Code.149367

       (B) The Department of Medicaid shall do both of the 149368
following:149369

       (1) Continue the Hospital Inpatient and Outpatient 149370
Supplemental Upper Payment Limit Program that was established 149371
pursuant to Section 309.30.17 of Am. Sub. H.B. 1 of the 128th 149372
General Assembly, with any modifications necessary to implement 149373
the program as described under division (D) of this section;149374

       (2) Continue the Medicaid Managed Care Hospital Incentive 149375
Payment Program, as described under division (E) of this section.149376

       (C) The Department shall use amounts deposited into the 149377
Hospital Assessment Fund in fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015 149378
for the following purposes in each fiscal year:149379

        (1) To pay for costs associated with all of the following:149380

        (a) The Hospital Inpatient and Outpatient Supplemental Upper 149381
Payment Limit Program;149382

        (b) The Medicaid Managed Care Hospital Incentive Payment 149383
Program;149384

        (c) The Medicaid payment rates for hospital inpatient and 149385
outpatient services required by the section of this act entitled 149386
"CONTINUATION OF MEDICAID RATES FOR HOSPITAL INPATIENT AND 149387
OUTPATIENT SERVICES."149388

        (2) To reduce spending in appropriation item 651525, 149389
Medicaid/Health Care Services.149390

       (D)(1) Under the Hospital Inpatient and Outpatient 149391
Supplemental Upper Payment Limit Program, subject to division 149392
(D)(2) of this section, supplemental Medicaid payments shall be 149393
made to hospitals for Medicaid-covered inpatient and outpatient 149394
services. The Department shall make the payments through amounts 149395
available for the Program pursuant to division (C) of this section 149396
and any federal financial participation available for the Program.149397

       (2) The Department shall take all actions necessary to cease 149398
implementation of the Program if the United States Secretary 149399
determines that the assessment imposed under section 5168.21 of 149400
the Revised Code is an impermissible health care-related tax under 149401
the "Social Security Act," section 1903(w), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w).149402

       (E)(1) The purpose of the Medicaid Managed Care Hospital 149403
Incentive Payment Program is to increase access to hospital 149404
services for Medicaid recipients who are enrolled in Medicaid 149405
managed care organizations.149406

       Under the Program, subject to division (E)(2) of this 149407
section, funds shall be provided to Medicaid managed care 149408
organizations, which shall use the funds to increase payments to 149409
hospitals for providing services to Medicaid recipients who are 149410
enrolled in the organizations. The Department shall provide the 149411
funds through amounts available for the Program pursuant to 149412
division (C) of this section and any federal financial 149413
participation available for the Program.149414

       (2)(a) The Department shall not provide funds to Medicaid 149415
managed care organizations under the Program unless an actuary 149416
selected by the Department certifies that the Program would not 149417
violate the actuarial soundness of the capitation rates paid to 149418
Medicaid managed care organizations.149419

       (b) The Department shall not implement the Program in a 149420
manner that causes a hospital to receive less money from the 149421
Hospital Assessment Fund than the hospital would have received if 149422
the Program were not implemented.149423

       (c) The Department shall not implement the Program in a 149424
manner that causes a Medicaid managed care organization to receive 149425
a lower capitation payment rate solely because funds are made 149426
available to the organization under the Program.149427

       (d) The Department shall take all necessary actions to cease 149428
implementation of the Program if the United States Secretary 149429
determines that the assessment imposed under section 5168.21 of 149430
the Revised Code is an impermissible health care-related tax under 149431
the "Social Security Act," section 1903(w), 42 U.S.C. 1396b(w).149432

       (F) The Director of Budget and Management may authorize 149433
additional expenditures from appropriation item 651623, Medicaid 149434
Services - Federal, appropriation item 651525, Medicaid/Health 149435
Care Services, and appropriation item 651656, Medicaid Services - 149436
Hospital/UPL, in order to implement the programs authorized by 149437
this section. Any amounts authorized are hereby appropriated.149438

       (G) The Medicaid Director shall adopt rules as necessary to 149439
implement this section. The rules shall provide for the applicable 149440
assessment percentage that is used for the purpose of section 149441
5168.21 of the Revised Code to be an amount that raises, from the 149442
assessments imposed on hospitals under that section, an amount the 149443
Director determines is appropriate to fund the purposes specified 149444
in division (C) of this section.149445

       Section 323.103. CONTINUATION OF MEDICAID RATES FOR HOSPITAL 149446
INPATIENT AND OUTPATIENT SERVICES149447

       (A) The Medicaid payment rates for Medicaid-covered hospital 149448
inpatient services and hospital outpatient services shall be the 149449
same as the Medicaid payment rates for the services in effect on 149450
June 30, 2013, until the following:149451

        (1) In the case of hospital inpatient services, the effective 149452
date of the first of any rules adopted under section 5164.02 of 149453
the Revised Code establishing new diagnosis-related groups for the 149454
services;149455

        (2) In the case of hospital outpatient services, June 30, 149456
2015.149457

       (B) The Director of Budget and Management may authorize 149458
additional expenditures from appropriation item 651623, Medicaid 149459
Services – Federal, appropriation item 651525, Medicaid/Health 149460
Care Services, and appropriation item 651656, Medicaid Services – 149461
Hospital/UPL, in order to implement this section. Any amounts 149462
authorized are hereby appropriated.149463

       Section 323.110. ADMINISTRATIVE ISSUES RELATED TO TERMINATION 149464
OF MEDICAID WAIVER PROGRAMS149465

       (A) As used in this section, "MCD or ODA Medicaid waiver 149466
component" means the following:149467

       (1) The Medicaid waiver component of the PASSPORT program 149468
created under section 173.52 of the Revised Code;149469

       (2) The Choices program created under section 173.53 of the 149470
Revised Code;149471

       (3) The Medicaid waiver component of the Assisted Living 149472
program created under section 173.54 of the Revised Code.149473

       (4) The Ohio Home Care Waiver program as defined in section 149474
5166.01 of the Revised Code;149475

       (5) The Ohio Transitions II Aging Carve-Out program as 149476
defined in section 5166.01 of the Revised Code;149477

       (B) If an MCD or ODA Medicaid waiver component is terminated 149478
under section 173.52, 173.53, 173.54, 5166.12, or 5166.13 of the 149479
Revised Code, all of the following apply:149480

       (1) All applicable statutes, and all applicable rules, 149481
standards, guidelines, or orders issued by the Medicaid Director 149482
or Department of Medicaid or Director or Department of Aging 149483
before the component is terminated, shall remain in full force and 149484
effect on and after that date, but solely for purposes of 149485
concluding the component's operations, including fulfilling the 149486
Departments' legal obligations for claims arising from the 149487
component relating to eligibility determinations, covered medical 149488
assistance provided to eligible persons, and recovering erroneous 149489
overpayments.149490

       (2) Notwithstanding the termination of the component, the 149491
right of subrogation for the cost of medical assistance given 149492
under section 5160.37 of the Revised Code to the Department of 149493
Medicaid and an assignment of the right to medical assistance 149494
given under section 5160.38 of the Revised Code to the Department 149495
continue to apply with respect to the component and remain in 149496
force to the full extent provided under those sections.149497

       (3) The Department of Medicaid and Department of Aging may 149498
use appropriated funds to satisfy any claims or contingent claims 149499
for medical assistance provided under the component before the 149500
component's termination.149501

       (4) Neither the Department of Medicaid nor the Department of 149502
Aging has liability under the component to reimburse any provider 149503
or other person for claims for medical assistance rendered under 149504
the component after it is terminated.149505

       (C) The Medicaid Director and Director of Aging may adopt 149506
rules in accordance with Chapter 119. of the Revised Code to 149507
implement this section.149508

       Section 323.130.  DISPENSING FEE FOR NONCOMPOUNDED DRUGS149509

        The Medicaid dispensing fee for each noncompounded drug 149510
covered by the Medicaid program shall be $1.80 for the period 149511
beginning July 1, 2013, and ending on the effective date of a rule 149512
changing the amount of the fee that the Medicaid Director adopts 149513
under section 5164.02 of the Revised Code.149514

       Section 323.140. MONEY FOLLOWS THE PERSON ENHANCED 149515
REIMBURSEMENT FUND149516

       The federal payments made to the state under subsection (e) 149517
of section 6071 of the "Deficit Reduction Act of 2005," Pub. L. 149518
No. 109-171, as amended, shall be deposited into the Money Follows 149519
the Person Enhanced Reimbursement Fund. The Department of Medicaid 149520
shall continue to use money deposited into the fund for system 149521
reform activities related to the Money Follows the Person 149522
demonstration project.149523

       Section 323.150. MEDICARE PART D149524

       The foregoing appropriation item 651526, Medicare Part D, may 149525
be used by the Department of Medicaid for the implementation and 149526
operation of the Medicare Part D requirements contained in the 149527
"Medicare Prescription Drug, Improvement, and Modernization Act of 149528
2003," Pub. L. No. 108-173, as amended. Upon the request of the 149529
Department of Medicaid, the Director of Budget and Management may 149530
transfer the state share of appropriations between appropriation 149531
item 651525, Medicaid/Health Care Services, or appropriation item 149532
651526, Medicare Part D. If the state share of appropriation item 149533
651525, Medicaid/Health Care Services, is adjusted, the Director 149534
of Budget and Management shall adjust the federal share 149535
accordingly. The Department of Medicaid shall provide notification 149536
to the Controlling Board of any transfers at the next scheduled 149537
Controlling Board meeting.149538

       Section 323.160. REBALANCING LONG-TERM CARE149539

       (A) As used in this section:149540

       "Balancing Incentive Payments Program" means the program 149541
established under section 10202 of the Patient Protection and 149542
Affordable Care Act.149543

       "Long-term services and supports" has the same meaning as in 149544
section 10202(f)(1) of the Patient Protection and Affordable Care 149545
Act.149546

       "Non-institutionally-based long-term services and supports" 149547
has the same meaning as in section 10202(f)(1)(B) of the Patient 149548
Protection and Affordable Care Act.149549

       "Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act" means Public Law 149550
111-148.149551

       (B) The Departments of Aging, Developmental Disabilities, and 149552
Medicaid shall continue efforts to achieve a sustainable and 149553
balanced delivery system for long-term services and supports. In 149554
so doing, the Departments shall strive to realize the following 149555
goals by June 30, 2015:149556

       (1) Having at least fifty per cent of Medicaid recipients who 149557
are sixty years of age or older and need long-term services and 149558
supports utilize non-institutionally-based long-term services and 149559
supports;149560

       (2) Having at least sixty per cent of Medicaid recipients who 149561
are less than sixty years of age and have cognitive or physical 149562
disabilities for which long-term services and supports are needed 149563
utilize non-institutionally-based long-term services and supports.149564

       (C) If the Department of Medicaid determines that 149565
participating in the Balancing Incentive Payments Program will 149566
assist in achieving the goals specified in division (B) of this 149567
section, the Department may apply to the United States Secretary 149568
of Health and Human Services to participate in the program.149569

       Section 323.170. OHIO ACCESS SUCCESS PROJECT149570

        Of the foregoing appropriation item, 651525, Medicaid/Health 149571
Care Services, up to $450,000 in each fiscal year may be used to 149572
provide one-time transitional benefits under the Ohio Access 149573
Success Project that the Medicaid Director may establish under 149574
section 5166.35 of the Revised Code.149575

       Section 323.180. PROVIDER FRANCHISE FEE OFFSETS149576

       (A) At least quarterly, the Medicaid Director shall certify 149577
to the Director of Budget and Management the amount of offsets 149578
withheld under section 5168.52 of the Revised Code from payments 149579
made from the General Revenue Fund. 149580

       (B) The Director of Budget and Management may transfer cash 149581
from the General Revenue Fund to the Nursing Home Franchise Permit 149582
Fee Fund (Fund 5R20), in accordance with section 5168.54 of the 149583
Revised Code.149584

       (C) Amounts transferred pursuant to this section are hereby 149585
appropriated.149586

       Section 323.190. HOSPITAL CARE ASSURANCE MATCH149587

       The foregoing appropriation item 651623, Medicaid Services - 149588
Federal, shall be used by the Department of Medicaid for 149589
distributing the federal share of Medicaid services required under 149590
the section of this act entitled "CREATION OF THE DEPARTMENT OF 149591
MEDICAID," including the federal share of all hospital care 149592
assurance program funds to hospitals under section 5168.09 of the 149593
Revised Code.149594

       If receipts credited to the Health Care Federal Fund (Fund 149595
3F00) exceed the amounts appropriated from the fund for making the 149596
hospital care assurance program distribution, the Medicaid 149597
Director may request the Director of Budget and Management to 149598
authorize expenditures from the fund in excess of the amounts 149599
appropriated. Upon the approval of the Director of Budget and 149600
Management, the additional amounts are hereby appropriated.149601

        The foregoing appropriation item 651649, Medicaid Services – 149602
HCAP, shall be used by the Department of Medicaid for distributing 149603
the state share of all hospital care assurance program funds to 149604
hospitals under section 5168.09 of the Revised Code. If receipts 149605
credited to the Hospital Care Assurance Program Fund (Fund 6510) 149606
exceed the amounts appropriated from the fund for making the 149607
hospital care assurance program distribution, the Medicaid 149608
Director may request the Director of Budget and Management to 149609
authorize expenditures from the fund in excess of the amounts 149610
appropriated. Upon the approval of the Director of Budget and 149611
Management, the additional amounts are hereby appropriated.149612

       Section 323.200. HEALTH CARE SERVICES ADMINISTRATION FUND149613

       Of the amount received by the Department of Medicaid during 149614
fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015 from the first installment 149615
of assessments paid under section 5168.06 of the Revised Code and 149616
intergovernmental transfers made under section 5168.07 of the 149617
Revised Code, the Medicaid Director shall deposit $350,000 in each 149618
fiscal year into the state treasury to the credit of the Health 149619
Care Services Administration Fund (Fund 5U30).149620

       Section 323.210. TRANSFERS OF OFFSETS TO THE HEALTH CARE 149621
SERVICES ADMINISTRATION FUND149622

       (A) As used in this section:149623

       "Hospital offset" means an offset from a hospital's Medicaid 149624
payment authorized by section 5168.991 of the Revised Code.149625

       "Vendor offset" means a reduction of a Medicaid payment to a 149626
Medicaid provider to correct a previous, incorrect Medicaid 149627
payment. 149628

       (B) During fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, at 149629
intervals selected by the Medicaid Director, the Director shall 149630
certify to the Director of Budget and Management the amount of 149631
hospital offsets and vendor offsets for the period covered by the 149632
certification and the particular funds that would have been used 149633
to make Medicaid payments to providers if not for the offsets. 149634
Each certification shall specify the amount that would have been 149635
taken from each of the funds if not for the hospital offsets and 149636
vendor offsets.149637

       (C) On receipt of a certification under division (B) of this 149638
section, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer cash 149639
from the funds identified in the certification to the Health Care 149640
Services Administration Fund (Fund 5U30). The amount transferred 149641
from a fund shall equal the amount that would have been taken from 149642
the fund if not for the hospital offsets and vendor offsets as 149643
specified in the certification. The transferred cash is hereby 149644
appropriated. 149645

       Section 323.220. MEDICAID INTERAGENCY PASS-THROUGH149646

       The Medicaid Director may request the Director of Budget and 149647
Management to increase appropriation item 651655, Medicaid 149648
Interagency Pass-Through. Upon the approval of the Director of 149649
Budget and Management, the additional amounts are hereby 149650
appropriated.149651

       Section 323.230. MEDICAID PAYMENTS FOR NONINSTITUTIONAL 149652
SERVICES PROVIDED TO DUAL ELIGIBLE INDIVIDUALS149653

        (A) As used in this section:149654

        "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in the 149655
"Social Security Act," section 1915(h)(2)(B), 42 U.S.C. 149656
1396n(h)(2)(B).149657

        "Medicare Part B" means the Supplementary Medical Insurance 149658
Program for the Aged and Disabled component of the Medicare 149659
program established by Part B of Title XVIII of the "Social 149660
Security Act," 42 U.S.C. 1395j et seq.149661

        "Noninstitutional services" means any services other than 149662
hospital services, nursing facility services, and intermediate 149663
care facilities for individuals with intellectual disabilities.149664

        (B) Notwithstanding any conflicting state statute, a Medicaid 149665
payment for noninstitutional services, excluding physician 149666
services and including freestanding dialysis center services, 149667
provided during the period beginning January 1, 2014, and ending 149668
July 1, 2015, to a Medicaid recipient who is a dual eligible 149669
individual enrolled for benefits under Medicare Part B shall equal 149670
the lesser of the following:149671

        (1) The sum of the Medicare Part B deductible, coinsurance, 149672
and copayment for the services that are applicable to the 149673
individual;149674

        (2) The greater of the following:149675

        (a) The maximum allowable Medicaid payment for the services 149676
when the services are provided to other Medicaid recipients, less 149677
the total Medicaid payment (if any) most recently paid on the 149678
Medicaid recipient's behalf for such services;149679

        (b) Zero.149680

       Section 323.233. MEDICAID PAYMENTS FOR HOME HEALTH SERVICES 149681
AND PRIVATE DUTY NURSING149682

       (A) As used in this section, "responsible adult" means the 149683
spouse of a Medicaid recipient or, in the case of a Medicaid 149684
recipient who is a minor, the minor's parent, foster caregiver, 149685
stepparent, guardian, legal custodian, or any other person who 149686
stands in loco parentis for the minor.149687

       (B) Except as provided in division (C) of this section, for 149688
fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, Medicaid payments shall not 149689
be made for any of the following services that are provided to a 149690
Medicaid recipient by an individual who is a responsible adult for 149691
that recipient:149692

       (1) Nursing services available under the home health services 149693
benefit pursuant to 42 C.F.R. 440.70(b)(1);149694

       (2) Home health aide services available under the home health 149695
services benefit pursuant to 42 C.F.R. 440.70(b)(2);149696

        (3) Private duty nursing services, as defined in 42 C.F.R. 149697
440.80.149698

       (C) For fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, the Medicaid 149699
Director shall establish the conditions under which Medicaid 149700
payments may be made for any of the services described in division 149701
(B) of this section that are provided to a Medicaid recipient by 149702
an individual who is a responsible adult for that recipient. 149703

       (D) The Director shall adopt rules in accordance with Chapter 149704
119. of the Revised Code necessary to implement this section. The 149705
Director shall consult provider representatives, consumer 149706
representatives, and other stakeholders in developing the rules, 149707
which may include the following: 149708

       (1) Qualification and training requirements necessary for 149709
responsible adults to receive Medicaid payments under division (C) 149710
of this section;149711

       (2) Oversight requirements necessary for responsible adults 149712
to receive Medicaid payments under division (C) of this section;149713

       (3) Procedures designed to protect against fraud, waste, and 149714
abuse that may occur as a result of payments made under division 149715
(C) of this section;149716

       (4) Any other procedures, standards, or requirements the 149717
Director considers appropriate.149718

       Section 323.236.  PURCHASING STRATEGIES FOR CERTAIN SERVICES149719

       For fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, the Medicaid 149720
Director shall implement strategies for purchasing oxygen (other 149721
than emergency oxygen), resident transportation services and 149722
wheelchairs for Medicaid recipients residing in nursing 149723
facilities. In implementing the purchasing strategies, the 149724
Director shall seek to achieve a more efficient allocation of 149725
resources and price and quality competition among providers of the 149726
goods and services. The Director shall consider one or more of the 149727
following when determining the purchasing strategies to implement:149728

       (A) Establishing selective contracting or competitive 149729
bidding;149730

       (B) Establishing manufacturers rebate programs;149731

       (C) Another purchasing strategy that saves the Medicaid 149732
program an amount equivalent to the savings that would be realized 149733
from the purchasing strategies specified in division (A) or (B), 149734
or both, of this section.149735

       Section 323.250. REDUCED RATE FOR REPEAT RADIOLOGICAL 149736
SERVICES149737

       (A) The Medicaid Director shall reduce the Medicaid payment 149738
rate for radiological services to which both of the following 149739
apply:149740

       (1) They are provided in a physician's office or an 149741
independent diagnostic testing facility;149742

       (2) They are provided more than once by the same provider for 149743
the same Medicaid recipient during the same session.149744

       (B) The Director shall adopt rules under section 5164.02 of 149745
the Revised Code to implement the rate reduction required by this 149746
section. The rules shall not take effect before January 1, 2014.149747

       Section 323.260. VARYING MEDICAID PAYMENT RATES FOR PHYSICIAN 149748
SERVICES DEPENDING ON LOCATION OF SERVICE149749

       (A) The Medicaid Director shall do both of the following:149750

       (1) Identify physician services for which Medicaid payment 149751
rates should vary depending on where the services are provided;149752

       (2) Adopt rules under section 5164.02 of the Revised Code to 149753
establish the varying Medicaid payment rates.149754

       (B) The rules required by division (A)(2) of this section 149755
shall not take effect before January 1, 2014.149756

       Section 323.263. PAYMENT RATES FOR PASSPORT SERVICES149757

        The Medicaid payment rates for services provided under the 149758
PASSPORT program, other than adult day-care services, during the 149759
period beginning July 1, 2013, and ending June 30, 2015, shall be 149760
not less than ninety-eight and five-tenths per cent of the 149761
Medicaid payment rates for the services in effect on June 30, 149762
2011. The Medicaid payment rates for adult day-care services 149763
provided under the PASSPORT program during the period beginning 149764
July 1, 2013, and ending June 30, 2015, shall be twenty per cent 149765
higher than the amount of the Medicaid payment rates for the 149766
services in effect on June 30, 2013.149767

       Section 323.270. MEDICAID PAYMENT METHODOLOGIES ALIGNED WITH 149768
MEDICARE PAYMENT METHODOLOGIES149769

       (A) The Medicaid Director shall do both of the following:149770

       (1) Identify Medicaid services for which the Medicaid payment 149771
methodologies should be aligned, to the extent the Director 149772
considers appropriate, with Medicare payment methodologies for the 149773
services;149774

       (2) Adopt rules under section 5164.02 of the Revised Code to 149775
so align the payment methodologies for the services.149776

       (B) The rules required by division (A)(2) of this section 149777
shall not take effect before January 1, 2014.149778

       Section 323.280. ALTERNATIVE PURCHASING MODEL FOR NURSING 149779
FACILITY SERVICES149780

       As used in this section, "Medicaid waiver component" has the 149781
same meaning as in section 5166.01 of the Revised Code.149782

       The Medicaid Director may establish, as a Medicaid waiver 149783
component, an alternative purchasing model for nursing facility 149784
services provided, during the period beginning July 1, 2013, and 149785
ending July 1, 2015, to Medicaid recipients with specialized 149786
health care needs, including recipients dependent on ventilators, 149787
recipients who have severe traumatic brain injury, and recipients 149788
who would be admitted to long-term acute care hospitals or 149789
rehabilitation hospitals if they did not receive nursing facility 149790
services. If established, the alternative purchasing model shall 149791
do all of the following:149792

       (A) Recognize a connection between enhanced Medicaid payment 149793
rates and improved health outcomes capable of being measured;149794

       (B) Include criteria for identifying Medicaid recipients with 149795
specialized health care needs;149796

        (C) Include procedures for ensuring that Medicaid recipients 149797
identified pursuant to division (B) of this section receive 149798
nursing facility services under the alternative purchasing model.149799

        The total per Medicaid day payment rate for nursing facility 149800
services provided under the alternative purchasing model may 149801
differ from the rate that would otherwise be paid pursuant to 149802
Chapter 5165. of the Revised Code.149803

       Section 323.290. REVIEW OF LONG-TERM SERVICES TO IMPROVE 149804
EFFICIENCY AND INDIVIDUAL CARE149805

       (A) The Department of Medicaid may review the following 149806
services covered by the Medicaid program to identify opportunities 149807
to improve the efficiency of, and individual care provided by, 149808
long-term care services and supports:149809

       (1) Nursing services available under the home health services 149810
benefit pursuant to 42 C.F.R. 440.70(b)(1);149811

       (2) Home health aide services available under the home health 149812
services benefit pursuant to 42 C.F.R. 440.70(b)(2);149813

       (3) Private duty nursing services as defined in 42 C.F.R. 149814
440.80.149815

       (B) The Department, in its review authorized by division (A) 149816
of this section, may consider establishing the following:149817

       (1) New methods for authorizing and coordinating long-term 149818
care services and supports, including such services and supports 149819
covered by the Medicaid state plan, using case managers or care 149820
coordinators;149821

       (2) Competency and training requirements for the case 149822
managers or care coordinators;149823

       (3) Other mechanisms for improving efficiency and individual 149824
care in the delivery of long-term care services and supports.149825

       Section 323.300. PERFORMANCE PAYMENTS FOR MEDICAID MANAGED 149826
CARE149827

       (A) As used in this section:149828

       (1) "Dual eligible individual" has the same meaning as in 149829
section 1915(h)(2)(B) of the "Social Security Act," 124 Stat. 315, 149830
42 U.S.C. 1396n(h)(2)(B).149831

        (2) "Dual eligible integrated care demonstration project" 149832
means the demonstration project authorized by section 5164.91 of 149833
the Revised Code.149834

       (3) "Medicaid managed care organization" has the same meaning 149835
as in section 5167.01 of the Revised Code.149836

       (4) "Participant" means an individual participating in the 149837
dual eligible integrated care demonstration project. 149838

       (B) For fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, the Department 149839
of Medicaid shall provide performance payments as provided under 149840
this section to Medicaid managed care organizations providing care 149841
under the Dual Eligible Integrated Care Demonstration Project.149842

       (C) If the Department implements the Dual Eligible Integrated 149843
Care Demonstration Project, and if participants receive care 149844
through Medicaid managed care organizations under the project, the 149845
Department shall, in consultation with the United States Centers 149846
for Medicare and Medicaid Services, do both of the following:149847

       (1) Develop quality measures designed specifically to 149848
determine the effectiveness of the health care and other services 149849
provided to participants by Medicaid managed care organizations;149850

       (2) Determine an amount to be withheld from the Medicaid 149851
premium payments paid to Medicaid managed care organizations for 149852
participants.149853

       (D)(1) For the purposes of division (C)(2) of this section, 149854
the Department shall establish an amount that is to be withheld 149855
each time a premium payment is made to a Medicaid managed care 149856
organization for a participant. The amount shall be established as 149857
a percentage of each premium payment. The percentage shall be the 149858
same for all Medicaid managed care organizations providing care to 149859
participants. 149860

       (2) Each Medicaid managed care organization shall agree to 149861
the withholding as a condition of receiving or maintaining its 149862
Medicaid provider agreement with the Department.149863

       (3) When the amount is established and each time the amount 149864
is modified thereafter, the Department shall certify the amount to 149865
the Director of Budget and Management and begin withholding the 149866
amount from each premium the Department pays to a Medicaid managed 149867
care organization for a participant.149868

       (E) The Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the 149869
amounts certified in accordance with division (D) of this section 149870
into the Managed Care Performance Payment Fund created under 149871
section 5162.60 of the Revised Code. The amounts transferred may 149872
be used to make performance payments to Medicaid managed care 149873
organizations providing care to participants in accordance with 149874
rules that may be adopted by the Medicaid Director under Chapter 149875
119. of the Revised Code.149876

       (F) A Medicaid managed care organization subject to this 149877
section is not subject to section 5167.30 of the Revised Code for 149878
premium payments attributed to participants during fiscal year 149879
2014 and fiscal year 2015.149880

       Section 323.310. INTEGRATED CARE DELIVERY SYSTEM PERFORMANCE 149881
PAYMENT PROGRAM149882

       At the beginning of each quarter, or as soon as possible 149883
thereafter, the Medicaid Director may certify to the Director of 149884
Budget and Management the amount withheld in accordance with the 149885
section in this act titled "PERFORMANCE PAYMENTS FOR MEDICAID 149886
MANAGED CARE." On receipt of certification, the Director of Budget 149887
and Management shall transfer cash in the amount certified from 149888
the General Revenue Fund to the Managed Care Performance Payment 149889
Fund (Fund 5KW0). The transferred cash is hereby appropriated. 149890
Appropriation item 651525, Medicaid/Health Care Services, is 149891
hereby reduced by the amount of the transfer.149892

       Section 323.320. VENDOR COLLECTION OF PATIENT LIABILITY149893

       (A) As used in this section:149894

       "Medicaid waiver component" has the same meaning as in 149895
section 5166.01 of the Revised Code.149896

       "Patient liability" means the amount that 42 C.F.R. 435.735 149897
requires be reduced from a Medicaid payment for home and 149898
community-based services available under a Medicaid waiver 149899
component.149900

       (B) The Medicaid Director may contract with a person or 149901
government entity to collect patient liabilities for fiscal year 149902
2014 and fiscal year 2015. The Director may adopt rules under 149903
section 5166.02 of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this 149904
section.149905

       Section 323.330. STATE PLAN HOME AND COMMUNITY-BASED SERVICES149906

       (A) As used in this section:149907

       "Federal poverty line" means the official poverty line 149908
defined by the United States Office of Management and Budget based 149909
on the most recent data available from the United States Bureau of 149910
the Census and revised by the United States Secretary of Health 149911
and Human Services pursuant to the "Omnibus Budget Reconciliation 149912
Act of 1981," section 673(2), 42 U.S.C. 9902(2).149913

       "State plan home and community-based services" means home and 149914
community-based services that may be included in the Medicaid 149915
state plan pursuant to the "Social Security Act," section 1915(i), 149916
42 U.S.C. 1396n(i).149917

       (B) During fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, the 149918
Medicaid program may cover state plan home and community-based 149919
services for Medicaid recipients of any age who have behavioral 149920
health issues and countable incomes not exceeding one hundred 149921
fifty per cent of the federal poverty line. A Medicaid recipient 149922
is not required to undergo a level of care determination to be 149923
eligible for the state plan home and community-based services.149924

       The Medicaid Director may adopt rules under section 5164.02 149925
of the Revised Code as necessary to implement this section.149926

       Section 323.340. INPATIENT PSYCHIATRIC HOSPITAL SERVICES FOR 149927
INDIVIDUALS UNDER AGE 21149928

       (A) As used in this section:149929

       "Inpatient psychiatric hospital services for individuals 149930
under age 21" has the same meaning as in the "Social Security 149931
Act," section 1905(h), 42 U.S.C. 1396d(h).149932

       "Psychiatric residential treatment facility" has the same 149933
meaning as in 42 C.F.R. 483.352.149934

       (B) During fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, the 149935
Medicaid program may cover inpatient psychiatric hospital services 149936
for individuals under age 21 that are provided by psychiatric 149937
residential treatment facilities to Medicaid recipients to whom 149938
both of the following apply:149939

       (1) They are in the custody of the Department of Youth 149940
Services.149941

       (2) They have been identified as meeting a clinical criterion 149942
of serious emotional disturbance specified pursuant to division 149943
(C) of this section.149944

       (C) The Department of Youth Services, in collaboration with 149945
the Department of Medicaid and Department of Mental Health and 149946
Addiction Services, shall specify the clinical criterion of 149947
serious emotional disturbance to be used for the purpose of 149948
division (B)(2) of this section.149949

       Section 323.350. MCD COLLABORATION WITH DVS149950

       The Department of Medicaid may collaborate with the 149951
Department of Veterans Services to determine ways to improve the 149952
coordination of the services that the Departments make available 149953
to veterans in a manner that enhances veterans' receipt of the 149954
services. The Departments may implement, during fiscal year 2014 149955
and fiscal year 2015, initiatives that they determine during the 149956
collaboration will maximize the efficiency of the services and 149957
ensure that veterans' needs are met.149958

       Section 323.360. IMPROVED BIRTH OUTCOMES INITIATIVES149959

       (A) The Medicaid Director may develop and implement, during 149960
fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, initiatives designed to 149961
improve birth outcomes for Medicaid recipients, including 149962
improvements designed to do the following:149963

       (1) Reduce the number of preterm births;149964

       (2) Reduce Medicaid costs;149965

       (3) Improve the quality of Medicaid services.149966

       (B) In developing the initiatives, the Director may consult 149967
with experts in practice improvement, Medicaid managed care 149968
organizations, hospitals, and other types of Medicaid providers. 149969
The Director, Medicaid managed care organizations, and other types 149970
of Medicaid providers involved in the initiatives shall make 149971
information about the initiatives available on their web sites.149972

       Section 323.370. ABOLISHMENT OF THE PRESCRIPTION DRUG REBATES 149973
FUND149974

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 149975
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 149976
in the Prescription Drug Rebates Fund (Fund 5P50) to the Health 149977
Care/Medicaid Support and Recoveries Fund (Fund 5DL0). Upon 149978
completion of the transfer, Fund 5P50 is abolished. The Director 149979
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 149980
600692, Health Care/Medicaid Support – Drug Rebates, and 149981
reestablish them against appropriation item 651639, Medicaid 149982
Services - Recoveries. The re-established encumbrance amounts are 149983
hereby appropriated.149984

       All money that would have been deposited into the 149985
Prescription Drug Rebates Fund shall be deposited into the Health 149986
Care/Medicaid Support and Recoveries Fund during fiscal year 2014 149987
and fiscal year 2015.149988

       Section 323.380.  ABOLISHMENT OF THE HEALTHCARE COMPLIANCE 149989
FUND149990

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 149991
Medicaid Director shall certify to the Director of Budget and 149992
Management, the cash balance related to managed care obligations 149993
in the Healthcare Compliance Fund (Fund 4Z10). The Director of 149994
Budget and Management shall transfer the amount certified from 149995
Fund 4Z10 to the Managed Care Performance Payment Fund (Fund 149996
5KW0). The Director shall cancel any existing encumbrances related 149997
to managed care obligations against appropriation item 600625, 149998
Healthcare Compliance, and re-establish them against appropriation 149999
item 651612, Managed Care Performance Payment. The re-established 150000
encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated.150001

       After the cash relating to managed care obligations has been 150002
transferred, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 150003
the remaining cash balance in the Healthcare Compliance Fund (Fund 150004
4Z10) to the Health Care Services Administration Fund (Fund 5U30). 150005
Upon completion of the transfer, Fund 4Z10 is abolished. The 150006
Director shall cancel any remaining encumbrances against 150007
appropriation item 600625, Healthcare Compliance, and re-establish 150008
them against appropriation item 651654, Medicaid Program Support. 150009
The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated.150010

       All money that would have been deposited into the Health Care 150011
Compliance Fund pursuant to division (B)(2) of former section 150012
5111.946 of the Revised Code shall be deposited into the Health 150013
Care Services Administration Fund during fiscal year 2014 and 150014
fiscal year 2015.150015

       Section 323.390.  ABOLISHMENT OF THE ODJFS ADMINISTRATION AND 150016
OVERSIGHT FUND150017

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 150018
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 150019
in the ODJFS Administration and Oversight Fund (Fund 5S30) to the 150020
Health Care Services Administration Fund (Fund 5U30). Upon 150021
completion of the transfer, Fund 5S30 is abolished. The Director 150022
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 150023
600629, Healthcare Program and DDD Support, and re-establish them 150024
against appropriation item 651654, Medicaid Program Support. The 150025
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated.150026

       Section 323.400.  REFUNDS AND RECONCILIATION FUND150027

       The Refunds and Reconciliation Fund (Fund R055) shall be used 150028
to hold refund and reconciliation revenues until the appropriate 150029
fund is determined or until the revenues are directed to the 150030
appropriate governmental agency other than the Department of 150031
Medicaid. Any Medicaid refunds or reconciliations received or held 150032
by the Department of Job and Family Services shall be transferred 150033
or credited to this fund. If receipts credited to the Refunds and 150034
Reconciliation Fund exceed the amounts appropriated from the fund, 150035
the Medicaid Director may request the Director of Budget and 150036
Management to authorize expenditures from the fund in excess of 150037
the amounts appropriated. Upon approval of the Director of Budget 150038
and Management, the additional amounts are hereby appropriated.150039

       Section 323.460. NO LOSS OF MEDICAID ELIGIBILITY BEFORE 150040
JANUARY 1, 2014150041

       Notwithstanding the amendments by this act to sections 150042
5101.18, 5111.01 (as renumbered as section 5162.03), and 5111.011 150043
(as renumbered as section 5163.02) and the repeal by this act of 150044
sections 5111.014, 5111.015, 5111.0110, 5111.0111, 5111.0113, 150045
5111.0115, 5111.0120, 5111.0121, 5111.0122, 5111.0123, 5111.0124, 150046
and 5111.0125 of the Revised Code, no individual eligible for 150047
Medicaid pursuant to those sections shall lose Medicaid 150048
eligibility before January 1, 2014, because of the amendments to, 150049
or repeal of, those sections. This section does not preclude an 150050
individual from losing Medicaid eligibility before January 1, 150051
2014, if the individual would cease to be Medicaid eligible before 150052
that date for reasons unrelated to the amendments to, or repeal 150053
of, those sections. Unrelated reasons include acquiring income or 150054
assets exceeding eligibility limits and failure to comply with 150055
eligibility requirements.150056

       Section 323.470. ALTERATIONS TO AND ELIMINATION OF OPTIONAL 150057
MEDICAID ELIGIBILITY GROUPS150058

       The Medicaid Director may initiate, before January 1, 2014, 150059
the rule-making process to alter the eligibility requirements for, 150060
or to eliminate, one or more Medicaid optional eligibility groups 150061
or subgroups pursuant to section 5163.06 of the Revised Code. 150062
However, none of the rules may go into effect before that date.150063

       Section 323.480. UPDATING AUTHORIZING STATUTE CITATIONS150064

       As used in this section, "authorizing statute" means a 150065
Revised Code section or provision of a Revised Code section that 150066
is cited in the Ohio Administrative Code as the statute that 150067
authorizes the adoption of a rule.150068

       The Medicaid Director is not required to amend any rule for 150069
the sole purpose of updating the citation in the Ohio 150070
Administrative Code to the rule's authorizing statute to reflect 150071
that this act renumbers the authorizing statute or relocates it to 150072
another Revised Code section. Such citations shall be updated as 150073
the Director amends the rules for other purposes.150074

       Section 325.10. MED STATE MEDICAL BOARD150075

General Services Fund Group150076

5C60 883609 Operating Expenses $ 9,172,062 $ 9,172,062 150077
TOTAL GSF General Services 150078
Fund Group $ 9,172,062 $ 9,172,062 150079
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 9,172,062 $ 9,172,062 150080


       Section 327.10. MHA DEPARTMENT OF MENTAL HEALTH AND ADDICTION 150082
SERVICES150083

General Revenue Fund150084

GRF 333321 Central Administration $ 13,495,337 $ 13,486,290 150085
GRF 333402 Resident Trainees $ 450,000 $ 450,000 150086
GRF 333415 Lease-Rental Payments $ 15,843,300 $ 16,076,700 150087
GRF 333416 Research Program Evaluation $ 321,998 $ 321,998 150088
GRF 334412 Hospital Services $ 190,514,437 $ 190,514,437 150089
GRF 334506 Court Costs $ 784,210 $ 784,210 150090
GRF 335405 Family & Children First $ 1,386,000 $ 1,386,000 150091
GRF 335406 Prevention and Wellness $ 868,659 $ 868,659 150092
GRF 335421 Continuum of Care Services $ 76,899,100 $ 77,399,100 150093
GRF 335422 Criminal Justice Services $ 4,917,898 $ 4,917,898 150094
GRF 335504 Community Innovations $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 150095
GRF 335506 Residential State Supplement $ 7,502,875 $ 7,502,875 150096
GRF 335507 Community Behavioral Health $ 50,000,000 $ 50,000,000 150097
GRF 652507 Medicaid Support $ 1,727,553 $ 1,736,600 150098
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 366,211,367 $ 366,944,767 150099

General Services Fund Group150100

1490 333609 Central Office Operating $ 1,343,190 $ 1,343,190 150101
5T90 333641 Problem Gambling Services - Administration $ 60,000 $ 60,000 150102
1490 334609 Hospital - Operating Expenses $ 28,190,000 $ 28,190,000 150103
1500 334620 Special Education $ 150,000 $ 150,000 150104
4P90 335604 Community Mental Health Projects $ 250,000 $ 250,000 150105
5T90 335641 Problem Gambling Services $ 275,000 $ 275,000 150106
1510 336601 Office of Support Services $ 115,000,000 $ 115,000,000 150107
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 145,268,190 $ 145,268,190 150108

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group150109

3240 333605 Medicaid/Medicare - Refunds $ 154,500 $ 154,500 150110
3A60 333608 Federal Miscellaneous - Administration $ 140,000 $ 140,000 150111
3A70 333612 Social Services Block Grant - Administration $ 50,000 $ 50,000 150112
3A80 333613 Federal Grants - Administration $ 4,717,000 $ 4,717,000 150113
3A90 333614 Mental Health Block Grant - Administration $ 748,470 $ 748,470 150114
3G40 333618 Substance Abuse Block Grant- Administration $ 3,307,789 $ 3,307,789 150115
3H80 333606 Demonstration Grants - Administration $ 3,237,574 $ 3,237,574 150116
3N80 333639 Administrative Reimbursement $ 300,000 $ 300,000 150117
3240 334605 Medicaid/Medicare - Hospitals $ 28,200,000 $ 28,200,000 150118
3A60 334608 Federal Miscellaneous - Hospitals $ 200,000 $ 200,000 150119
3A80 334613 Federal Letter of Credit $ 200,000 $ 200,000 150120
3A60 335608 Federal Miscellaneous $ 2,170,000 $ 2,170,000 150121
3A70 335612 Social Services Block Grant $ 8,400,000 $ 8,400,000 150122
3A80 335613 Federal Grant - Community Mental Health Board Subsidy $ 2,500,000 $ 2,500,000 150123
3A90 335614 Mental Health Block Grant $ 14,200,000 $ 14,200,000 150124
3FR0 335638 Race to the Top - Early Learning Challenge Grant $ 1,164,000 $ 1,164,000 150125
3G40 335618 Substance Abuse Block Grant $ 62,542,003 $ 62,557,967 150126
3H80 335606 Demonstration Grants $ 5,428,006 $ 5,428,006 150127
3B10 652635 Community Medicaid Legacy Costs $ 5,000,000 $ 0 150128
3B10 652636 Community Medicaid Legacy Support $ 7,000,000 $ 7,000,000 150129
3J80 652609 Medicaid Legacy Costs Support $ 3,000,000 $ 0 150130
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 152,659,342 $ 144,675,306 150131

State Special Revenue Fund Group150132

2320 333621 Family and Children First Administration $ 400,000 $ 400,000 150133
4750 333623 Statewide Treatment and Prevention - Administration $ 5,490,667 $ 5,490,667 150134
4850 333632 Mental Health Operating - Refunds $ 134,233 $ 134,233 150135
5JL0 333629 Problem Gambling and Casino Addictions - Administration $ 1,361,592 $ 1,361,592 150136
5V20 333611 Non-Federal Miscellaneous $ 100,000 $ 100,000 150137
6890 333640 Education and Conferences $ 150,000 $ 150,000 150138
4850 334632 Mental Health Operating - Hospitals $ 2,477,500 $ 2,477,500 150139
4750 335623 Statewide Treatment and Prevention $ 10,059,333 $ 10,059,333 150140
5AU0 335615 Behavioral Health Care $ 6,690,000 $ 6,690,000 150141
5JL0 335629 Problem Gambling and Casino Addictions $ 4,084,772 4,084,772 150142
6320 335616 Community Capital Replacement $ 350,000 $ 350,000 150143
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 31,298,097 $ 31,298,097 150144
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 695,436,996 $ 688,186,360 150145


       Section 327.20. TRANSITION RELATING TO CONSOLIDATION OF 150147
DEPARTMENTS150148

       Notwithstanding Chapters 340., 3793., 5119., and 5122. of the 150149
Revised Code, and any other provision of law to the contrary, on 150150
July 1, 2013, there is hereby created the Department of Mental 150151
Health and Addiction Services, which shall be administered by the 150152
Director of Mental Health and Addiction Services. The Director of 150153
Mental Health and Addiction Services shall be appointed by the 150154
Governor, with the advice and consent of the Senate, and shall 150155
hold office during the term of the appointing Governor, and is 150156
subject to removal at the pleasure of the Governor. The Director 150157
of Mental Health and Addiction Services is the executive head of 150158
the Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services. The 150159
Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services and the 150160
Department of Mental Health shall be consolidated into the single 150161
Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services. All of the 150162
authority, functions, and assets and liabilities of the Department 150163
of Mental Health and the Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction 150164
Services are transferred to the Department of Mental Health and 150165
Addiction Services. The Department of Mental Health and Addiction 150166
Services is thereupon and thereafter successor to, assumes the 150167
obligations of, and otherwise constitutes the continuation of the 150168
Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services and the 150169
Department of Mental Health. The Director of Mental Health and 150170
Addiction Services assumes all of the duties, authorities, and 150171
responsibilities of the Director of Alcohol and Drug Addiction 150172
Services and the Director of Mental Health. Any action, license, 150173
or certification that was undertaken or issued by the Director of 150174
Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services or the Director of Mental 150175
Health that is current and valid on the effective date of the 150176
consolidation is deemed to be an action, license, or certification 150177
undertaken or issued by the Department of Mental Health and 150178
Addiction Services under the statute creating that Department. 150179

       Any business commenced but not completed by July 1, 2013, by 150180
the Department of Mental Health or the Department of Alcohol and 150181
Drug Addiction Services shall be completed by the Department of 150182
Mental Health and Addiction Services. The business shall be 150183
completed in the same manner, and with the same effect, as if 150184
completed by the Department of Mental Health or by the Department 150185
of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services prior to July 1, 2013.150186

       No validation, cure, right, privilege, remedy, obligation, or 150187
liability is lost or impaired by reason of this act's transfer of 150188
responsibility from the Department of Mental Health and the 150189
Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services to the 150190
Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services. Each such 150191
validation, cure, right, remedy, obligation, or liability shall be 150192
administered by the Department of Mental Health and Addiction 150193
Services pursuant to the statute creating that department.150194

       All rules, orders, and determinations made or undertaken 150195
pursuant to the authority and responsibilities of the Department 150196
of Mental Health and the Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction 150197
Services prior to July 1, 2013, shall continue in effect as rules, 150198
orders, and determinations of the Department of Mental Health and 150199
Addiction Services until modified or rescinded by the Department 150200
of Mental Health and Addiction Services. If necessary to ensure 150201
the integrity of the numbering system of the Administrative Code, 150202
the Director of the Legislative Service Commission shall renumber 150203
the rules to reflect the transfer of authority and responsibility 150204
to the Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services.150205

       Any action or proceeding that is related to the functions or 150206
duties of the Department of Mental Health or the Department of 150207
Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services pending on July 1, 2013, is 150208
not affected by the transfer of responsibility to the Department 150209
of Mental Health and Addiction Services and shall be prosecuted or 150210
defended in the name of the Department of Mental Health and 150211
Addiction Services. In all such actions and proceedings, the 150212
Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services, on application 150213
to the court, shall be substituted as a party.150214

       It is the intention of the Department of Mental Health and 150215
Addiction Services that community subsidies allocated or 150216
distributed by the department will be used to fund mental health 150217
and addiction services in largely the same proportion that such 150218
services were funded when allocated or distributed as separate 150219
funding streams through the separate Department of Mental Health 150220
or Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services.150221

       All employees of the Department of Mental Health and the 150222
Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services shall be 150223
employees of the Department of Mental Health and Addiction 150224
Services and shall serve in the positions previously held within 150225
their respective agencies unless the Department of Mental Health 150226
and Addiction Services determines otherwise. The merger of 150227
Department of Mental Health and Department of Alcohol and Drug 150228
Addiction Services shall not be deemed a transfer of employees 150229
pursuant to division (D)(3)(b) of section 124.11 of the Revised 150230
Code. Any unclassified employee of the Department of Mental Health 150231
and Addiction Services who held a right to resume a position 150232
within the classified service of his or her previous respective 150233
agency of the Department of Mental Health or the Department of 150234
Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services shall retain such a right 150235
subject to section 5119.18 of the Revised Code as may be amended.150236

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, 150237
notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, and if 150238
requested by the Department of Mental Health and Addiction 150239
Services, the Director of Budget and Management shall make budget 150240
changes made necessary by the consolidation, if any, including 150241
administrative organization, program transfers, the creation of 150242
new funds, the transfer of state funds, and the consolidation of 150243
funds, as authorized by this section. The Director of Budget and 150244
Management may make any transfer of cash balances between funds. 150245

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 150246
Director of Mental Health and Addiction Services shall certify to 150247
the Director of Budget and Management all encumbrances held by the 150248
Department of Mental Health and the Department of Alcohol and Drug 150249
Addiction Services, and specify which of those encumbrances are 150250
requested to be transferred to the Department of Mental Health and 150251
Addiction Services. The Director of Budget and Management may 150252
cancel any existing encumbrances as certified by the Director of 150253
Mental Health and Addiction Services and re-establish them in the 150254
new agency. The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby 150255
appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed with regard 150256
to the encumbrances certified shall be completed by the Department 150257
of Mental Health and Addiction Services in the same manner and 150258
with the same effect as if it were completed by the Department of 150259
Mental Health or the Department of Alcohol and Drug Addiction 150260
Services. 150261

       Not later than 30 days after the transfer and consolidation 150262
of the operations and related management functions of the 150263
Department of Mental Health and the Department of Alcohol and Drug 150264
Addiction Services to the Department of Mental Health and 150265
Addiction Services, an authorized officer of the former Department 150266
of Mental Health and the former Department of Alcohol and Drug 150267
Addiction Services shall certify to the Director of Mental Health 150268
and Addiction Services the unexpended balance and location of any 150269
funds and accounts designated for building and facility operation 150270
and management functions, and the custody of such funds and 150271
accounts shall be transferred to the Department of Mental Health 150272
and Addiction Services.150273

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 150274
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 150275
038616, Problem Gambling Services, and re-establish them against 150276
appropriation items 333641, Problem Gambling Services - 150277
Administration, and 335641, Problem Gambling Services. The 150278
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 150279
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 150280
038616 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 150281
items 333641 and 335641 in the same manner and with the same 150282
effect as if it were completed with regard to appropriation item 150283
038616.150284

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 150285
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 150286
038614, Substance Abuse Block Grant, and re-establish them against 150287
appropriation items 333618, Substance Abuse Block Grant - 150288
Administration, and 335618, Substance Abuse Block Grant. The 150289
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 150290
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 150291
038614 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 150292
items 333618 and 335618 in the same manner and with the same 150293
effect as if it were completed with regard to appropriation item 150294
038614. 150295

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 150296
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 150297
038609, Demonstration Grants, and re-establish them against 150298
appropriation items 333606, Demonstration Grants - Administration, 150299
and 335606, Demonstration Grants. The re-established encumbrance 150300
amounts are hereby appropriated. Any business commenced but not 150301
completed under appropriation item 038609 by July 1, 2013, shall 150302
be completed under appropriation items 333606 and 335606 in the 150303
same manner and with the same effect as if it were completed with 150304
regard to appropriation item 038609.150305

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 150306
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 150307
038621, Statewide Treatment and Prevention, and re-establish them 150308
against appropriation items 333623, Statewide Treatment and 150309
Prevention - Administration, and 335623, Statewide Treatment and 150310
Prevention. The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby 150311
appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed under 150312
appropriation item 038621 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed 150313
under appropriation items 333623 and 335623 in the same manner and 150314
with the same effect as if it were completed with regard to 150315
appropriation item 038621.150316

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 150317
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 150318
038629, Problem Gambling and Casino Addictions, and re-establish 150319
them against appropriation items 333629, Problem Gambling and 150320
Casino Addictions - Administration, and 335629, Problem Gambling 150321
and Casino Addictions. The re-established encumbrance amounts are 150322
hereby appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed 150323
under appropriation item 038629 by July 1, 2013, shall be 150324
completed under appropriation items 333629 and 335629 in the same 150325
manner and with the same effect as if it were completed with 150326
regard to appropriation item 038629.150327

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 150328
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 150329
038611, Administrative Reimbursement, and re-establish them 150330
against appropriation item 333639, Administrative Reimbursement. 150331
The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. 150332
Any business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 150333
038611 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 150334
item 333639 in the same manner and with the same effect as if it 150335
were completed with regard to appropriation item 038611.150336

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 150337
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 150338
335635, Community Medicaid Expansion, and re-establish them 150339
against appropriation item 652635, Community Medicaid Legacy 150340
Costs. The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby 150341
appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed under 150342
appropriation item 335635 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed 150343
under appropriation item 652635 in the same manner and with the 150344
same effect as if it were completed with regard to appropriation 150345
item 335635.150346

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 150347
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 150348
333635, Community Medicaid Expansion, and re-establish them 150349
against appropriation item 652636, Community Medicaid Legacy 150350
Support. The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby 150351
appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed under 150352
appropriation item 333635 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed 150353
under appropriation item 652636 in the same manner and with the 150354
same effect as if it were completed with regard to appropriation 150355
item 333635.150356

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 150357
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 150358
038610, Medicaid, and re-establish them against appropriation item 150359
652609, Medicaid Legacy Costs Support. The re-established 150360
encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any business 150361
commenced but not completed under appropriation item 038610 by 150362
July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation item 652609 150363
in the same manner and with the same effect as if it were 150364
completed with regard to appropriation item 038610.150365

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 150366
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 150367
038604, Education and Conferences, and re-establish them against 150368
appropriation item 333640, Education and Conferences. The 150369
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 150370
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 150371
038604 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 150372
item 333640 in the same manner and with the same effect as if it 150373
were completed with regard to appropriation item 038604.150374

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 150375
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 150376
038401, Treatment Services, and re-establish them against 150377
appropriation items 335421, Continuum of Care Services, 335422, 150378
Criminal Justice Services, and 335406, Prevention and Wellness. 150379
The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. 150380
Any business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 150381
038401 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 150382
items 335421, 335422, and 335406 in the same manner and with the 150383
same effect as if it were completed with regard to appropriation 150384
item 038401.150385

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 150386
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 150387
335419, Community Medication Subsidy, and re-establish them 150388
against appropriation item 335421, Continuum of Care Services. The 150389
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 150390
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 150391
335419 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 150392
item 335421 in the same manner and with the same effect as if it 150393
were completed with regard to appropriation item 335419.150394

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 150395
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 150396
335505, Local Mental Health Systems of Care, and re-establish them 150397
against appropriation item 335421, Continuum of Care Services. The 150398
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 150399
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 150400
335505 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 150401
item 335421 in the same manner and with the same effect as if it 150402
were completed with regard to appropriation item 335505.150403

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 150404
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 150405
332401, Forensic Services, and re-establish them against 150406
appropriation item 335422, Criminal Justice Services. The 150407
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 150408
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 150409
332401 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 150410
item 335422 in the same manner and with the same effect as if it 150411
were completed with regard to appropriation item 332401.150412

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 150413
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 150414
333403, Pre-Admission Screening Expenses, and re-establish them 150415
against appropriation item 652507, Medicaid Support. The 150416
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 150417
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 150418
333403 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 150419
item 652507 in the same manner and with the same effect as if it 150420
were completed with regard to appropriation item 333403.150421

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 150422
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 150423
038900, Indigent Drivers Alcohol Treatment, and re-establish them 150424
against appropriation item 335900, Indigent Drivers Alcohol 150425
Treatment. The re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby 150426
appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed under 150427
appropriation item 038900 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed 150428
under appropriation item 335900 in the same manner and with the 150429
same effect as if it were completed with regard to appropriation 150430
item 038900.150431

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 150432
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 150433
038404, Prevention Services, and re-establish them against 150434
appropriation item 335406, Prevention and Wellness. The 150435
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 150436
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 150437
038404 by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 150438
item 335406 in the same manner and with the same effect as if it 150439
were completed with regard to appropriation item 038404.150440

       Section 327.20.10. Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of 150441
Mental Health and Addiction Services, with respect to all mental 150442
health and addiction facilities and services established and 150443
operated or provided under Chapter 340. of the Revised Code shall 150444
do all of the following:150445

       (A) To the extent the Director determines necessary, and 150446
after consultation with the boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and 150447
mental health services, develop and operate, or contract for the 150448
operation of, a community behavioral health information system or 150449
systems, and shall specify the information that must be provided 150450
by boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 150451
for inclusion in the system or systems, which may include 150452
information on services provided in whole or in part under 150453
contract with a board, financial information regarding 150454
expenditures of federal, state, or local funds by boards, and 150455
information about persons served under contract with a board. 150456

       (B)(1) Receive and review each board's community mental 150457
health and addiction services plan, budget, and statement of 150458
services to be made available, and approve or disapprove the plan, 150459
budget, and statement of services in whole or in part. 150460

       (2) The Department may withhold all or part of the funds 150461
allocated to a board if it disapproves all or part of a plan, 150462
budget, or statement of service. 150463

       (3) Prior to a final decision to disapprove a plan, budget, 150464
or statement of services, or to withhold funds from a board, a 150465
representative of the Director shall meet with the board to 150466
discuss the reasons for the action and any corrective action that 150467
should be taken to make the plan, budget, or statement of services 150468
acceptable, and give the board a reasonable time in which to 150469
revise the plan, budget, or statement of services. 150470

       (C) Establish procedures for the review of plans, budgets, 150471
and statements of services, and a timetable for submission and 150472
review. Boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 150473
services shall submit to the Department of Mental Health and 150474
Addiction Services the information, plans, budgets, and statements 150475
of services described above in accordance with the guidance or 150476
directives of the Department or Director. After notifying and 150477
consulting with relevant constituents, the Department of Mental 150478
Health and Addiction Services shall establish a methodology for 150479
allocating to boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 150480
services the funds appropriated by the General Assembly to the 150481
Department for the purpose of local mental health and addiction 150482
services continuums of care. Subject to existing provisions of law 150483
that permit the Director to withhold funds from boards of alcohol, 150484
drug addiction, and mental health services for failure to comply 150485
with applicable sections of law, or for discriminating in making 150486
services available, and subject to a board's submission and 150487
approval of the required plan, budget, and statement of services 150488
described above, the Department shall allocate the funds to the 150489
boards in a manner consistent with the methodology and state and 150490
federal laws, rules, and regulations. 150491

       Portions of appropriation items 333609, Central Office 150492
Operating, 333606, Demonstration Grants - Administration, 333612, 150493
Social Services Block Grant - Administration, 333613, Federal 150494
Grants - Administration, 333614, Mental Health Block Grant - 150495
Administration, 333618, Substance Abuse Block Grant - 150496
Administration, 333623, Statewide Treatment and Prevention - 150497
Administration, 333629, Problem Gambling and Casino Addictions - 150498
Administration, 333608, Federal Miscellaneous - Administration, 150499
333641, Problem Gambling Services - Administration, 335406, 150500
Prevention and Wellness, 335421, Continuum of Care Services, 150501
335422, Criminal Justice Services, 335604, Community Mental Health 150502
Projects, 335606, Demonstration Grants, 335612, Social Services 150503
Block Grant, 335613, Federal Grant - Community Mental Health 150504
Subsidy, 335614, Mental Health Block Grant, 335615, Behavioral 150505
Health Care, 335618, Substance Abuse Block Grant, 335623, 150506
Statewide Treatment and Prevention, 335629, Problem Gambling and 150507
Casino Addictions, 335638, Race to the Top - Early Learning 150508
Challenge Grant, and 335900, Indigent Drivers Alcohol Treatment, 150509
may be used to pay for the Department and board functions 150510
enumerated above. 150511

       Section 327.20.20. (A) Effective July 1, 2013, all records 150512
and reports, other than court journal entries or court docket 150513
entries, identifying a person and pertaining to the person's 150514
mental health condition, assessment, provision of care or 150515
treatment, or payment for assessment, care, or treatment that are 150516
maintained in connection with any services certified by the 150517
Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services, or any 150518
hospitals or facilities licensed or operated by the Department, 150519
shall be kept confidential and shall not be disclosed by any 150520
person, with the following exceptions:150521

       (1) If the person identified, or the person's legal guardian, 150522
if any, or if the person is a minor, the person's parent or legal 150523
guardian, consents. 150524

       (2) When disclosure is provided for in Chapters 340., 5119., 150525
or 5122., or in Title 47 of the Revised Code. 150526

       (3) Hospitals, boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental 150527
health services, licensed facilities, and community mental health 150528
services providers may release necessary information to insurers 150529
and other third-party payers, including government entities 150530
responsible for processing and authorizing payment, to obtain 150531
payment for goods and services furnished to the person.150532

       (4) Pursuant to a court order signed by a judge; 150533

       (5) A person shall be granted access to the person's own 150534
psychiatric and medical records unless access specifically is 150535
restricted in a person's treatment plan for clear treatment 150536
reasons. 150537

       (6) The Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services 150538
may exchange psychiatric records and other pertinent information 150539
with community mental health services providers and boards of 150540
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services relating to 150541
the person's care or services. Records and information that may be 150542
exchanged pursuant to this division shall be limited to medication 150543
history, physical health status and history, financial status, 150544
summary of course of treatment, summary of treatment needs, and a 150545
discharge summary, if any.150546

       (7) The Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services, 150547
hospitals, and community providers operated by the Department, 150548
hospitals licensed by the Department under section 5119.20 150549
(5119.33) of the Revised Code and community mental health services 150550
providers may exchange psychiatric records and other pertinent 150551
information with payers and other providers of treatment and 150552
health services if the purpose of the exchange is to facilitate 150553
continuity of care for the person or for the emergency treatment 150554
of the person. 150555

       (8) The Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services 150556
and community mental health services providers may exchange 150557
psychiatric records and other pertinent information with boards of 150558
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services for purposes 150559
of any board function set forth in Chapter 340. of the Revised 150560
Code. Boards of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 150561
services shall not access or use any personal information from the 150562
Department or providers except as required or permitted by this 150563
section, or Chapters 340. and 5122. of the Revised Code for 150564
purposes related to payment, care coordination, health care 150565
operations, program and service evaluation, reporting activities, 150566
research, system administration, oversight, or other authorized 150567
purposes. 150568

       (9) A person's family member who is involved in the 150569
provision, planning, and monitoring of services to the person may 150570
receive medication information, a summary of the person's 150571
diagnosis and prognosis, and a list of the services and personnel 150572
available to assist the person and the person's family, if the 150573
person's treatment provider determines that the disclosure would 150574
be in the best interests of the person. No such disclosure shall 150575
be made unless the person is notified first and receives the 150576
information and does not object to the disclosure. 150577

       (10) Community mental health services providers may exchange 150578
psychiatric records and certain other information with the board 150579
of alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services and other 150580
providers in order to provide services to a person involuntarily 150581
committed to a board. Release of records under this division shall 150582
be limited to medication history, physical health status and 150583
history, financial status, summary of course of treatment, summary 150584
of treatment needs, and discharge summary, if any. 150585

       (11) Information may be disclosed to the executor or the 150586
administrator of an estate of a deceased person when the 150587
information is necessary to administer the estate. 150588

       (12) Information may be disclosed to staff members of the 150589
appropriate board or to staff members designated by the Director 150590
of Mental Health and Addiction Services for the purpose of 150591
evaluating the quality, effectiveness, and efficiency of services 150592
and determining if the services meet minimum standards. 150593
Information obtained during such evaluations shall not be retained 150594
with the name of any person. 150595

       (13) Records pertaining to the person's diagnosis, course of 150596
treatment, treatment needs, and prognosis shall be disclosed and 150597
released to the appropriate prosecuting attorney if the person was 150598
committed pursuant to section 2945.38, 2945.39, 2945.40, 2945.401, 150599
or 2945.402 of the Revised Code, or to the attorney designated by 150600
the board for proceedings pursuant to involuntary commitment under 150601
Chapter 5122. of the Revised Code. 150602

       (14) The Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services 150603
may exchange psychiatric hospitalization records, other mental 150604
health treatment records, and other pertinent information with the 150605
Department of Rehabilitation and Correction and with the 150606
Department of Youth Services to ensure continuity of care for 150607
inmates and offenders who are receiving mental health services in 150608
an institution of the Department of Rehabilitation and Correction 150609
or the Department of Youth Services and may exchange psychiatric 150610
hospitalization records, other mental health treatment records, 150611
and other pertinent information with boards of alcohol, drug 150612
addiction, and mental health services and community mental health 150613
services providers to ensure continuity of care for inmates or 150614
offenders who are receiving mental health services in an 150615
institution and are scheduled for release within six months. The 150616
release of records under this division is limited to records 150617
regarding an inmate's or offender's medication history, physical 150618
health status and history, summary of course of treatment, summary 150619
of treatment needs, and a discharge summary, if any. 150620

       (15) A community mental health services provider that ceases 150621
to operate may transfer to either a community mental health 150622
services provider that assumes its caseload or to the board of 150623
alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services of the service 150624
district in which the person resided at the time services were 150625
most recently provided any treatment records that have not been 150626
transferred elsewhere at the person's request. 150627

       (B) Before records are disclosed pursuant to divisions 150628
(A)(3), (6), or (10) of this section, the custodian of the records 150629
shall attempt to obtain the consent of the person in question for 150630
the disclosure. 150631

       (C) No person shall reveal the content of a medical record of 150632
a person except as authorized by the law. 150633

       (D) Portions of appropriation items 333321, Central 150634
Administration, 333416, Research Program Evaluation, 333605, 150635
Medicaid/Medicare - Refunds, 333606, Demonstration Grants - 150636
Administration, 333608, Federal Miscellaneous - Administration, 150637
333609, Central Office Opening, 333611, Non-Federal Miscellaneous, 150638
333612, Social Services Block Grant - Administration, 333613, 150639
Federal Grants - Administration, 333614, Mental Health Block Grant 150640
- Administration, 333618, Substance Abuse Block Grant - 150641
Administration, 333621, Family and Children First Administration, 150642
333623, Statewide Treatment and Prevention - Administration, 150643
333629, Problem Gambling and Casino Addictions - Administration, 150644
333632, Mental Health Operating - Refunds, 333608, Federal 150645
Miscellaneous - Administration, 333640, Education and Conferences, 150646
333641, Problem Gambling Services - Administration, 333639, 150647
Administrative Reimbursement, 334605, Medicaid/Medicare - 150648
Hospitals, 334608, Federal Miscellaneous - Hospitals, 334609, 150649
Hospital - Operating Expenses, 334613, Federal Letter of Credit, 150650
334620, Special Education, 334632, Mental Health Operating - 150651
Hospitals, 335405, Family and Children First, 335406, Prevention 150652
and Wellness, 335421, Continuum of Care Services, 335422, Criminal 150653
Justice Services, 335604, Community Mental Health Projects, 150654
335506, Residential State Supplement, 335608, Federal 150655
Miscellaneous, 335606, Demonstration Grants, 335612, Social 150656
Services Block Grant, 335613, Federal Grant - Community Mental 150657
Health Subsidy, 335614, Mental Health Block Grant, 335615, 150658
Behavioral Health Care, 335618, Substance Abuse Block Grant, 150659
335623, Statewide Treatment and Prevention, 335629, Problem 150660
Gambling and Casino Addictions, 335638, Race to the Top - Early 150661
Learning Challenge Grant, 335900, Indigent Drivers Alcohol 150662
Treatment, 336601, Office of Support Services, 652609, Medicaid 150663
Legacy Costs Support, 652635, Community Medicaid Legacy Costs, and 150664
652636, Community Medicaid Legacy Support, may be used to pay for 150665
the Department and community mental health system functions that 150666
operate under the confidentiality provisions enumerated above. 150667

       Section 327.20.30. Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of 150668
Mental Health and Addiction Services may adopt rules pursuant to 150669
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code governing licensure and operation 150670
of residential facilities, that include procedures for conducting 150671
criminal records checks for operators, employees, and volunteers 150672
who have direct access to facility residents.150673

        Portions of appropriation items 334506, Court Costs, 335406, 150674
Prevention and Wellness, 335421, Continuum of Care Services, 150675
335614, Mental Health Block Grant, 335506, Residential State 150676
Supplement, 335615, Behavioral Health Care, 335618, Substance 150677
Abuse Block Grant, 335623, Statewide Treatment and Prevention, and 150678
335900, Indigent Drivers Alcohol Treatment, may be used to pay for 150679
these regulated activities.150680

       Section 327.20.40.  Effective July 1, 2013, to the extent 150681
funds are available and on application of boards of alcohol, drug 150682
addiction, and mental health services, the Director of Mental 150683
Health and Addiction Services may approve state reimbursement of, 150684
or state grants for, community construction programs, including 150685
residential housing for severely mentally disabled persons and 150686
persons with substance use disorders. The Director may also 150687
approve an application for reimbursement or a grant for such 150688
programs submitted by other governmental entities or by private, 150689
nonprofit organizations after the board of alcohol, drug 150690
addiction, and mental health services has reviewed and approved 150691
the application and the application is consistent with the plan, 150692
budget, and statement of services submitted to and approved by the 150693
Department. The Director shall adopt rules in accordance with 150694
Chapter 119. of the Revised Code that specify procedures for 150695
applying for state reimbursement and for state grants for 150696
community construction programs, including residential housing for 150697
severely mentally disabled persons and persons with substance use 150698
disorders.150699

        Portions of appropriation item 335616, Community Capital 150700
Replacement, may be used to pay for the Department functions 150701
enumerated above.150702

       Section 327.20.50.  Effective July 1, 2013, the Department of 150703
Mental Health and Addiction Services shall collect information 150704
about services delivered and persons served as required for 150705
reporting and evaluation relating to state and federal funds 150706
expended for such purposes. No alcohol, drug addiction, or mental 150707
health program, agency, or services provider shall fail to supply 150708
statistics or other information within its knowledge and with 150709
respect to its programs or services upon the request of the 150710
department.150711

       Portions of appropriation items 333321, Central 150712
Administration, 333609 Central Office Operating, 333606, 150713
Demonstration Grants - Administration, 333612, Social Services 150714
Block Grant - Administration, 333613, Federal Grants - 150715
Administration, 333614, Mental Health Block Grant - 150716
Administration, 333618, Substance Abuse Block Grant - 150717
Administration, 333623, Statewide Treatment and Prevention - 150718
Administration, 333629, Problem Gambling and Casino Addictions - 150719
Administration, 333608, Federal Miscellaneous - Administration, 150720
333641, Problem Gambling Services - Administration, 335406, 150721
Prevention and Wellness, 335421, Continuum of Care Services, 150722
335422, Criminal Justice Services, 335604, Community Mental Health 150723
Projects, 335606, Demonstration Grants, 335612, Social Services 150724
Block Grant, 335613, Federal Grant - Community Mental Health 150725
Subsidy, 335614, Mental Health Block Grant, 335615, Behavioral 150726
Health Care, 335618, Substance Abuse Block Grant, 335623, 150727
Statewide Treatment and Prevention, 335629, Problem Gambling and 150728
Casino Addictions, 335638, Race to the Top - Early Learning 150729
Challenge Grant, and 335900, Indigent Drivers Alcohol Treatment, 150730
652609, Medicaid Legacy Costs Support, and 652636, Community 150731
Medicaid Legacy Support, may be used to pay for the Department 150732
information collection and reporting functions enumerated above.150733

       Section 327.20.60. The Department of Mental Health and 150734
Addiction Services shall administer specified Medicaid services as 150735
delegated by the State's single agency responsible for the 150736
Medicaid program. Effective July 1, 2013, the Department shall use 150737
appropriation item 652507, Medicaid Support, to fund the 150738
Medicaid-related services and supports performed by the 150739
Department.150740

       Section 327.30. RESIDENT TRAINEES150741

       The foregoing appropriation item 333402, Resident Trainees, 150742
shall be used to fund training agreements entered into by the 150743
Director of Mental Health and Addiction Services for the 150744
development of curricula and the provision of training programs to 150745
support public mental health services.150746

       Section 327.40. LEASE-RENTAL PAYMENTS150747

       The foregoing appropriation item 333415, Lease-Rental 150748
Payments, shall be used to meet all payments at the times they are 150749
required to be made during the period from July 1, 2013, through 150750
June 30, 2015, by the Department of Mental Health and Addiction 150751
Services under leases and agreements made under section 154.20 of 150752
the Revised Code. These appropriations are the source of funds 150753
pledged for bond service charges on obligations issued pursuant to 150754
Chapter 154. of the Revised Code.150755

       Section 327.50. HOSPITAL SERVICES150756

       The foregoing appropriation item 334412, Hospital Services, 150757
shall be used for the operation of the State Regional Psychiatric 150758
Hospitals, including, but not limited to, all aspects involving 150759
civil and forensic commitment, treatment, and discharge as 150760
determined by the Director of Mental Health and Addiction 150761
Services. A portion of this appropriation may be used by the 150762
Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services to create, 150763
purchase, or contract for the custody, supervision, control, and 150764
treatment of persons committed to the Department of Mental Health 150765
and Addiction Services in other clinically appropriate 150766
environments, consistent with public safety.150767

       Section 327.60. CONTINUUM OF CARE SERVICES150768

       The foregoing appropriation item 335421, Continuum of Care 150769
Services, shall be used as follows:150770

       (A) A portion of this appropriation shall be allocated to 150771
community alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 150772
boards in accordance with a distribution methodology determined by 150773
the Director of Mental Health and Addiction Services:150774

       (1) For the boards to purchase mental health and addiction 150775
services permitted under Chapter 340. of the Revised Code;150776

       (2) To provide subsidized support for psychotropic medication 150777
needs of indigent citizens in the community to reduce unnecessary 150778
hospitalization due to lack of medication; and150779

       (3) To provide subsidized support for medication assisted 150780
treatment costs.150781

       (B) A portion of this appropriation may be distributed to 150782
community alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health services 150783
boards, community addiction and/or mental health services 150784
providers, courts, or other governmental entities to provide 150785
specific grants in support of mental health and addiction services 150786
initiatives.150787

        (C) In fiscal year 2014 $250,000 and in fiscal year 2015 150788
$750,000 shall be allocated to the Human Trafficking Center at The 150789
Ohio State University. The Center shall use the funds to 150790
investigate all aspects of human trafficking, including research, 150791
training, and direct services for victims. The Center shall do all 150792
of the following:150793

        (1) Provide research opportunities in areas affecting human 150794
trafficking, including topics such as socioeconomic, political, 150795
and cultural factors involved in human trafficking;150796

        (2) Develop assessments and other tools to help human 150797
trafficking victims or service providers, including online 150798
training courses for law enforcement and social and medical 150799
service personnel on how best to identify and treat victims of 150800
human trafficking;150801

        (3) Offer internships, clinical hours, and other training 150802
opportunities for undergraduate and graduate students;150803

        (4) Provide direct services and care for victims of human 150804
trafficking; and150805

       (5) Collaborate with community affiliates and other 150806
institutions of higher education engaged in human trafficking 150807
research, training, and direct victim services.150808

       (D) $250,000 in each fiscal year shall be allocated to the 150809
Geauga County Board of Mental Health and Recovery Services to 150810
support the Chardon Pilot Program. The Chardon Pilot Program shall 150811
support the behavioral health needs of the Chardon community. The 150812
board shall distribute $175,250 of these funds in fiscal year 2014 150813
and $162,250 of these funds in fiscal year 2015 to the Chardon 150814
school district to be used for program-related activities. The 150815
Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services shall submit a 150816
report to the General Assembly in accordance with section 101.68 150817
of the Revised Code regarding the performance of the program by 150818
September 30, 2015.150819

       Section 327.70. CRIMINAL JUSTICE SERVICES150820

       The foregoing appropriation item 335422, Criminal Justice 150821
Services, shall be used to provide forensic psychiatric 150822
evaluations to courts of common pleas and to conduct evaluations 150823
of patients of forensic status in facilities operated or 150824
designated by the Department of Mental Health and Addiction 150825
Services prior to conditional release to the community. A portion 150826
of this appropriation may be allocated through community alcohol, 150827
drug addiction, and mental health services boards to community 150828
addiction and/or mental health services providers in accordance 150829
with a distribution methodology as determined by the Director of 150830
Mental Health and Addiction Services.150831

       Appropriation item 335422, Criminal Justice Services, may 150832
also be used to:150833

       (A) Provide forensic monitoring and tracking of individuals 150834
on conditional release;150835

       (B) Provide forensic training;150836

       (C) Support projects that assist courts and law enforcement 150837
to identify and develop appropriate alternative services to 150838
incarceration for nonviolent mentally ill offenders;150839

       (D) Provide specialized re-entry services to offenders 150840
leaving prisons and jails;150841

       (E) Provide specific grants in support of addiction services 150842
alternatives to incarceration;150843

       (F) Support specialty dockets; and150844

       (G) Support therapeutic communities.150845

       Section 327.80. COMMUNITY INNOVATIONS150846

       The foregoing appropriation item 335504, Community 150847
Innovations, may be used by the Department of Mental Health and 150848
Addiction Services to make targeted investments in programs, 150849
projects, or systems operated by or under the authority of other 150850
state agencies, governmental entities, or private not-for-profit 150851
agencies that impact, or are impacted by, the operations and 150852
functions of the Department, with the goal of achieving a net 150853
reduction in expenditure of state general revenue funds and/or 150854
improved outcomes for Ohio citizens without a net increase in 150855
state general revenue fund spending.150856

       The Director shall identify and evaluate programs, projects, 150857
or systems proposed or operated, in whole or in part, outside of 150858
the authority of the Department, where targeted investment of 150859
these funds in the program, project, or system is expected to 150860
decrease demand for the Department or other resources funded with 150861
state general revenue funds, and/or to measurably improve outcomes 150862
for Ohio citizens with mental illness or with alcohol, drug, or 150863
gambling addictions. The Director shall have discretion to 150864
transfer money from the appropriation item to other state 150865
agencies, governmental entities, or private not-for-profit 150866
agencies in amounts, and subject to conditions, that the Director 150867
determines most likely to achieve state savings and/or improved 150868
outcomes. Distribution of moneys from this appropriation item 150869
shall not be subject to sections 9.23 to 9.239 or Chapter 125. of 150870
the Revised Code. 150871

       The Department shall enter into an agreement with each 150872
recipient of community innovation funds, identifying: allowable 150873
expenditure of the funds; other commitment of funds or other 150874
resources to the program, project, or system; expected state 150875
savings and/or improved outcomes and proposed mechanisms for 150876
measurement of such savings or outcomes; and required reporting 150877
regarding expenditure of funds and savings or outcomes achieved.150878

       The foregoing appropriation item 335504, Community 150879
Innovations, may also be used by the Department to make payments 150880
to the Opportunities for Ohioans with Disabilities Agency for 150881
vocational rehabilitation services to individuals receiving mental 150882
health or addiction services paid for with public dollars.150883

       Section 327.83. COMMUNITY BEHAVIORAL HEALTH150884

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 335507, Community 150885
Behavioral Health, $30,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be 150886
allocated to community alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 150887
services boards to provide mental health services.150888

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 335507, Community 150889
Behavioral Health, $20,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be 150890
allocated to community alcohol, drug addiction, and mental health 150891
services boards to be used for addiction services including 150892
medication, treatment programs, and counseling. Of this amount, at 150893
least fifty per cent shall be used for drug treatment using 150894
non-opiate drugs.150895

       Section 327.90. COMMUNITY OPERATING/PLANNING150896

       Appropriation item 335609, Community Operating/Planning, may 150897
be used by the Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services 150898
to make payments to the Opportunities for Ohioans with 150899
Disabilities Agency for vocational rehabilitation services to 150900
individuals receiving mental health or addiction services paid for 150901
with public dollars.150902

       In addition, appropriation item 335609, Community 150903
Operating/Planning, may be used by the Department to make 150904
incentive payments to operators of residential facilities that are 150905
licensed by the Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services 150906
and provide accommodations and personal care services for one or 150907
two unrelated adults or accommodations, supervision, and personal 150908
care services for three to sixteen unrelated adults. The incentive 150909
payments shall be granted based upon operators demonstrating 150910
linkage between their facilities' residents and community 150911
resources, based on the residents' needs including, but not 150912
limited to, aged, mental health, and physical health issues. The 150913
financial incentive shall be used to support community living for 150914
individuals with a disability or who are aged, and to assist with 150915
costs arising from facility operations.150916

       Appropriation item 335609, Community Operating/Planning, may 150917
also be used by the Department to support non-Medicaid program 150918
costs for individuals moving into community settings.150919

       Section 327.93. PROBLEM GAMBLING AND CASINO ADDICTIONS150920

       A portion of appropriation item 335629, Problem Gambling and 150921
Casino Addictions, shall be allocated to boards of alcohol, drug 150922
addiction, and mental health services in accordance with a 150923
distribution methodology determined by the Director of Mental 150924
Health and Addiction Services.150925

       Section 327.100. RESIDENTIAL STATE SUPPLEMENT150926

       (A) As used in this section:150927

       (1) "Residential facility" means a facility licensed by the 150928
Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services under section 150929
5119.34 of the Revised Code.150930

       (2) "Residential care facility" means a facility licensed by 150931
the Director of Health under Chapter 3721. of the Revised Code or 150932
by a political subdivision certified under section 3721.09 of the 150933
Revised Code.150934

       (B) The foregoing appropriation item 335506, Residential 150935
State Supplement, may be used by the Department of Mental Health 150936
and Addiction Services to provide training for residential 150937
facilities providing accommodations, supervision, and personal 150938
care services to three to sixteen unrelated adults with mental 150939
illness, to transfer cash to the Nursing Home Franchise Permit Fee 150940
Fund (Fund 5R20) used by the Department of Job and Family 150941
Services, and to make benefit payments to residential state 150942
supplement recipients. 150943

       (C) Under the Residential State Supplement Program, the 150944
amount used to determine whether a resident is eligible for 150945
payment, and for determining the amount per month the eligible 150946
resident will receive, shall be as follows: 150947

       (1) $927 for a residential care facility; 150948

       (2) $927 for a residential facility that provides 150949
accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for six to 150950
sixteen unrelated adults as described in section 5119.34 of the 150951
Revised Code;150952

       (3) $824 for a residential facility that provides 150953
accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for one or 150954
two unrelated adults as described in division (A)(9)(b)(ii) of 150955
section 5119.34 of the Revised Code;150956

       (4) $824 for a residential facility providing accommodations, 150957
supervision, and personal care services to three to five unrelated 150958
adults, as described in section 5119.34 of the Revised Code;150959

       (5) $824 for a residential facility that provides 150960
accommodations, supervision, and personal care services for one or 150961
two unrelated persons with mental illness or persons with severe 150962
mental disabilities who are referred by or are receiving mental 150963
health services from a community mental health services provider 150964
or a hospital, as described in division (A)(9)(b)(i) of section 150965
5119.34 of the Revised Code;150966

       (6) $618 for community mental health housing services, as 150967
described in division (D)(1)(c) of section 5119.41 of the Revised 150968
Code.150969

       The Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services shall 150970
reflect these amounts in any applicable rules the Department 150971
adopts under section 5119.41 of the Revised Code.150972

       (D) The Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services 150973
shall, with the input of stakeholders and impacted state agencies, 150974
conduct a review of the state and federal rules and statutes 150975
governing the Residential State Supplement Program and report on 150976
potential improvements to be made in governing the program not 150977
later than January 1, 2014.150978

       Section 327.110. FAMILY AND CHILDREN FIRST FLEXIBLE FUNDING 150979
POOL150980

       A county family and children first council may establish and 150981
operate a flexible funding pool in order to assure access to 150982
needed services by families, children, and older adults in need of 150983
protective services. The operation of the flexible funding pools 150984
shall be subject to the following restrictions:150985

       (A) The county council shall establish and operate the 150986
flexible funding pool in accordance with formal guidance issued by 150987
the Family and Children First Cabinet Council; 150988

       (B) The county council shall produce an annual report on its 150989
use of the pooled funds. The annual report shall conform to a 150990
format prescribed in the formal guidance issued by the Family and 150991
Children First Cabinet Council; 150992

       (C) Unless otherwise restricted, funds transferred to the 150993
flexible funding pool may include state general revenues allocated 150994
to local entities to support the provision of services to families 150995
and children; 150996

       (D) The amounts transferred to the flexible funding pool 150997
shall be limited to amounts that can be redirected without 150998
impairing the achievement of the objectives for which the initial 150999
allocation is designated; and151000

       (E) Each amount transferred to the flexible funding pool from 151001
a specific allocation shall be approved for transfer by the 151002
director of the local agency that was the original recipient of 151003
the allocation. 151004

       Section 329.10. MIH COMMISSION ON MINORITY HEALTH151005

General Revenue Fund151006

GRF 149321 Operating Expenses $ 581,490 $ 591,615 151007
GRF 149501 Minority Health Grants $ 889,100 $ 878,975 151008
GRF 149502 Lupus Program $ 110,047 $ 110,047 151009
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 1,580,637 $ 1,580,637 151010

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group151011

3J90 149602 Federal Grants $ 140,000 $ 140,000 151012
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 151013
Fund Group $ 140,000 $ 140,000 151014

State Special Revenue Fund Group151015

4C20 149601 Minority Health Conference $ 25,000 $ 25,000 151016
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 151017
Fund Group $ 25,000 $ 25,000 151018
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,745,637 $ 1,745,637 151019


       Section 331.10. CRB MOTOR VEHICLE REPAIR BOARD151021

General Services Fund Group151022

4K90 865601 Operating Expenses $ 487,592 $ 484,292 151023
TOTAL GSF General Services 151024
Fund Group $ 487,592 $ 484,292 151025
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 487,592 $ 484,292 151026


       Section 333.10. DNR DEPARTMENT OF NATURAL RESOURCES151028

General Revenue Fund151029

GRF 725401 Wildlife-GRF Central Support $ 1,800,000 $ 1,800,000 151030
GRF 725413 Lease Rental Payments $ 21,622,900 $ 23,943,400 151031
GRF 725456 Canal Lands $ 135,000 $ 135,000 151032
GRF 725502 Soil and Water Districts $ 2,900,000 $ 2,900,000 151033
GRF 725505 Healthy Lake Erie Fund $ 650,000 $ 500,000 151034
GRF 725507 Coal and Mine Safety Program $ 2,500,000 $ 2,500,000 151035
GRF 725903 Natural Resources General Obligation Debt Service $ 24,325,400 $ 25,443,000 151036
GRF 727321 Division of Forestry $ 4,392,002 $ 4,392,001 151037
GRF 728321 Division of Geological Survey $ 800,000 $ 800,000 151038
GRF 729321 Office of Information Technology $ 177,405 $ 177,405 151039
GRF 730321 Division of Parks and Recreation $ 30,000,000 $ 30,000,000 151040
GRF 736321 Division of Engineering $ 2,279,115 $ 2,324,736 151041
GRF 737321 Division of Soil and Water Resources $ 4,782,704 $ 4,782,652 151042
GRF 738321 Division of Real Estate and Land Management $ 715,963 $ 670,342 151043
GRF 741321 Division of Natural Areas and Preserves $ 1,200,000 $ 1,200,000 151044
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 98,280,489 $ 101,568,536 151045

General Services Fund Group151046

1550 725601 Departmental Projects $ 2,109,968 $ 1,839,204 151047
1570 725651 Central Support Indirect $ 4,609,154 $ 4,671,566 151048
2040 725687 Information Services $ 5,179,097 $ 5,288,168 151049
2050 725696 Human Resource Direct Service $ 2,474,345 $ 2,526,662 151050
2070 725690 Real Estate Services $ 50,000 $ 50,000 151051
2230 725665 Law Enforcement Administration $ 2,126,432 $ 2,126,432 151052
2270 725406 Parks Projects Personnel $ 436,500 $ 436,500 151053
4300 725671 Canal Lands $ 883,879 $ 883,879 151054
4S90 725622 NatureWorks Personnel $ 404,657 $ 412,570 151055
4X80 725662 Water Resources Council $ 138,005 $ 138,005 151056
5100 725631 Maintenance - State-owned Residences $ 303,611 $ 303,611 151057
5160 725620 Water Management $ 2,559,292 $ 2,559,292 151058
6350 725664 Fountain Square Facilities Management $ 3,329,935 $ 3,346,259 151059
6970 725670 Submerged Lands $ 852,982 $ 869,145 151060
TOTAL GSF General Services 151061
Fund Group $ 25,457,857 $ 25,451,293 151062

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group151063

3320 725669 Federal Mine Safety Grant $ 265,000 $ 265,000 151064
3B30 725640 Federal Forest Pass-Thru $ 500,000 $ 500,000 151065
3B40 725641 Federal Flood Pass-Thru $ 500,000 $ 500,000 151066
3B50 725645 Federal Abandoned Mine Lands $ 11,851,759 $ 11,851,759 151067
3B60 725653 Federal Land and Water Conservation Grants $ 950,000 $ 950,000 151068
3B70 725654 Reclamation - Regulatory $ 3,200,000 $ 3,200,000 151069
3P10 725632 Geological Survey - Federal $ 933,448 $ 557,146 151070
3P20 725642 Oil and Gas - Federal $ 234,509 $ 234,509 151071
3P30 725650 Coastal Management - Federal $ 2,790,633 $ 2,790,633 151072
3P40 725660 Federal - Soil and Water Resources $ 969,190 $ 1,006,874 151073
3R50 725673 Acid Mine Drainage Abatement/Treatment $ 4,342,280 $ 4,342,280 151074
3Z50 725657 Federal Recreation and Trails $ 1,850,000 $ 1,850,000 151075
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 151076
Fund Group $ 28,386,819 $ 28,048,201 151077

State Special Revenue Fund Group151078

4J20 725628 Injection Well Review $ 128,466 $ 128,466 151079
4M70 725686 Wildfire Suppression $ 100,000 $ 100,000 151080
4U60 725668 Scenic Rivers Protection $ 100,000 $ 100,000 151081
5090 725602 State Forest $ 6,873,330 $ 6,880,158 151082
5110 725646 Ohio Geological Mapping $ 1,220,690 $ 1,993,519 151083
5120 725605 State Parks Operations $ 29,654,880 $ 29,671,044 151084
5140 725606 Lake Erie Shoreline $ 1,559,583 $ 1,559,583 151085
5180 725643 Oil and Gas Permit Fees $ 12,812,311 $ 13,140,201 151086
5180 725677 Oil and Gas Well Plugging $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 151087
5210 725627 Off-Road Vehicle Trails $ 143,490 $ 143,490 151088
5220 725656 Natural Areas and Preserves $ 546,639 $ 546,639 151089
5260 725610 Strip Mining Administration Fee $ 1,800,000 $ 1,800,000 151090
5270 725637 Surface Mining Administration $ 1,941,532 $ 1,941,532 151091
5290 725639 Unreclaimed Land Fund $ 1,804,180 $ 1,804,180 151092
5310 725648 Reclamation Forfeiture $ 500,000 $ 500,000 151093
5B30 725674 Mining Regulation $ 28,135 $ 28,135 151094
5BV0 725658 Heidelberg Water Quality Lab $ 250,000 $ 250,000 151095
5BV0 725683 Soil and Water Districts $ 8,000,000 $ 8,000,000 151096
5EJ0 725608 Forestry Law Enforcement $ 1,000 $ 1,000 151097
5EK0 725611 Natural Areas & Preserves Law Enforcement $ 1,000 $ 1,000 151098
5EL0 725612 Wildlife Law Enforcement $ 12,000 $ 12,000 151099
5EM0 725613 Park Law Enforcement $ 34,000 $ 34,000 151100
5EN0 725614 Watercraft Law Enforcement $ 2,500 $ 2,500 151101
5HK0 725625 Ohio Nature Preserves $ 1,000 $ 1,000 151102
5MF0 725635 Ohio Geology License Plate $ 7,500 $ 7,500 151103
5MW0 725604 Natural Resources Special Purposes $ 9,000,000 $ 6,000,000 151104
6150 725661 Dam Safety $ 943,517 $ 943,517 151105
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 151106
Fund Group $ 78,965,753 $ 77,089,464 151107

Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group151108

7061 725405 Clean Ohio Operating $ 300,775 $ 300,775 151109
TOTAL CLF Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group $ 300,775 $ 300,775 151110

Wildlife Fund Group151111

5P20 725634 Wildlife Boater Angler Administration $ 3,000,000 $ 3,000,000 151112
7015 740401 Division of Wildlife Conservation $ 56,466,564 $ 57,075,976 151113
8150 725636 Cooperative Management Projects $ 120,449 $ 120,449 151114
8160 725649 Wetlands Habitat $ 966,885 $ 966,885 151115
8170 725655 Wildlife Conservation Checkoff Fund $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 151116
8180 725629 Cooperative Fisheries Research $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 151117
8190 725685 Ohio River Management $ 203,584 $ 203,584 151118
81B0 725688 Wildlife Habitat Fund $ 1,200,000 $ 1,200,000 151119
TOTAL WLF Wildlife Fund Group $ 65,457,482 $ 66,066,894 151120

Waterways Safety Fund Group151121

7086 725414 Waterways Improvement $ 5,693,671 $ 5,693,671 151122
7086 725418 Buoy Placement $ 52,182 $ 52,182 151123
7086 725501 Waterway Safety Grants $ 120,000 $ 120,000 151124
7086 725506 Watercraft Marine Patrol $ 576,153 $ 576,153 151125
7086 725513 Watercraft Educational Grants $ 366,643 $ 366,643 151126
7086 739401 Division of Watercraft $ 19,467,370 $ 19,297,370 151127
TOTAL WSF Waterways Safety Fund 151128
Group $ 26,276,019 $ 26,106,019 151129

Accrued Leave Liability Fund Group151130

4M80 725675 FOP Contract $ 20,219 $ 20,219 151131
TOTAL ALF Accrued Leave 151132
Liability Fund Group $ 20,219 $ 20,219 151133

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group151134

R017 725659 Performance Cash Bond Refunds $ 496,263 $ 496,263 151135
R043 725624 Forestry $ 2,100,000 $ 2,100,000 151136
TOTAL 090 Holding Account 151137
Redistribution Fund Group $ 2,596,263 $ 2,596,263 151138
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 325,741,676 $ 327,247,664 151139


       Section 333.20. CENTRAL SUPPORT INDIRECT151141

        With the exception of the Division of Wildlife, whose direct 151142
and indirect central support charges shall be paid out of the 151143
General Revenue Fund from the foregoing appropriation item 725401, 151144
Wildlife-GRF Central Support, the Department of Natural Resources, 151145
with approval of the Director of Budget and Management, shall 151146
utilize a methodology for determining each division's payments 151147
into the Central Support Indirect Fund (Fund 1570). The 151148
methodology used shall contain the characteristics of 151149
administrative ease and uniform application in compliance with 151150
federal grant requirements. It may include direct cost charges for 151151
specific services provided. Payments to Fund 1570 shall be made 151152
using an intrastate transfer voucher.151153

       Section 333.30.  LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS151154

       The foregoing appropriation item 725413, Lease Rental 151155
Payments, shall be used to meet all payments at the times they are 151156
required to be made during the period from July 1, 2013, through 151157
June 30, 2015, by the Department of Natural Resources pursuant to 151158
leases and agreements made under section 154.22 of the Revised 151159
Code. These appropriations are the source of funds pledged for 151160
bond service charges on related obligations issued under Chapter 151161
154. of the Revised Code.151162

       CANAL LANDS151163

        The foregoing appropriation item 725456, Canal Lands, shall 151164
be used to provide operating expenses for the State Canal Lands 151165
Program.151166

       HEALTHY LAKE ERIE FUND151167

       The foregoing appropriation item 725505, Healthy Lake Erie 151168
Fund, shall be used by the Director of Natural Resources, in 151169
consultation with the Director of Agriculture and the Director of 151170
Environmental Protection, to implement nonstatutory 151171
recommendations of the Agriculture Nutrients and Water Quality 151172
Working Group. The Director shall give priority to recommendations 151173
that encourage farmers to adopt agricultural production guidelines 151174
commonly known as 4R nutrient stewardship practices. Funds may 151175
also be used for enhanced soil testing in the Western Lake Erie 151176
Basin, monitoring the quality of Lake Erie and its tributaries, 151177
and conducting research and establishing pilot projects that have 151178
the goal of reducing algae blooms in Lake Erie.151179

       COAL AND MINE SAFETY PROGRAM151180

       The foregoing appropriation item 725507, Coal and Mine Safety 151181
Program, shall be used for the administration of the Mine Safety 151182
Program and the Coal Regulation Program.151183

       NATURAL RESOURCES GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE151184

       The foregoing appropriation item 725903, Natural Resources 151185
General Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to pay all debt 151186
service and related financing costs during the period July 1, 151187
2013, through June 30, 2015, on obligations issued under sections 151188
151.01 and 151.05 of the Revised Code.151189

       Section 333.40. WELL LOG FILING FEES151190

       The Chief of the Division of Soil and Water Resources shall 151191
deposit fees forwarded to the Division pursuant to section 1521.05 151192
of the Revised Code into the Departmental Services – Intrastate 151193
Fund (Fund 1550) for the purposes described in that section.151194

       Section 333.50. HUMAN RESOURCES DIRECT SERVICE151195

        The foregoing appropriation item 725696, Human Resources 151196
Direct Service, shall be used to cover the cost of support, 151197
coordination, and oversight of the Department of Natural 151198
Resources' human resources functions. The Human Resources 151199
Chargeback Fund (Fund 2050) shall consist of cash transferred to 151200
it via intrastate transfer voucher from other funds as determined 151201
by the Director of Natural Resources and the Director of Budget 151202
and Management.151203

       Section 333.60. LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION151204

        The foregoing appropriation item 725665, Law Enforcement 151205
Administration, shall be used to cover the cost of support, 151206
coordination, and oversight of the Department of Natural 151207
Resources' law enforcement functions. The Law Enforcement 151208
Administration Fund (Fund 2230) shall consist of cash transferred 151209
to it via intrastate transfer voucher from other funds as 151210
determined by the Director of Natural Resources and the Director 151211
of Budget and Management.151212

       Section 333.70. FOUNTAIN SQUARE AND ODNR GROUNDS AT THE OHIO 151213
EXPO CENTER151214

       The foregoing appropriation item 725664, Fountain Square 151215
Facilities Management, shall be used for payment of repairs, 151216
renovation, utilities, property management, and building 151217
maintenance expenses for the Fountain Square complex and the 151218
Department of Natural Resources grounds at the Ohio Expo Center. 151219
Cash transferred by intrastate transfer vouchers from various 151220
department funds and rental income received by the Department of 151221
Natural Resources shall be deposited into the Fountain Square 151222
Facilities Management Fund (Fund 6350).151223

       Section 333.80.  SOIL AND WATER DISTRICTS151224

       In addition to state payments to soil and water conservation 151225
districts authorized by section 1515.10 of the Revised Code, the 151226
Department of Natural Resources may use appropriation item 725683, 151227
Soil and Water Districts, to pay any soil and water conservation 151228
district an annual amount not to exceed $40,000, upon receipt of a 151229
request and justification from the district and approval by the 151230
Ohio Soil and Water Conservation Commission. The county auditor 151231
shall credit the payments to the special fund established under 151232
section 1515.10 of the Revised Code for the local soil and water 151233
conservation district. Moneys received by each district shall be 151234
expended for the purposes of the district.151235

       OIL AND GAS WELL PLUGGING151236

       The foregoing appropriation item 725677, Oil and Gas Well 151237
Plugging, shall be used exclusively for the purposes of plugging 151238
wells and to properly restore the land surface of idle and orphan 151239
oil and gas wells pursuant to section 1509.071 of the Revised 151240
Code. No funds from the appropriation item shall be used for 151241
salaries, maintenance, equipment, or other administrative 151242
purposes, except for those costs directly attributed to the 151243
plugging of an idle or orphan well. This appropriation item shall 151244
not be used to transfer cash to any other fund or appropriation 151245
item.151246

       TRANSFER OF FUNDS FOR OIL AND GAS DIVISION OPERATIONS151247

       During fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the Director of Budget and 151248
Management may, in consultation with the Director of Natural 151249
Resources, transfer such cash as necessary from the General 151250
Revenue Fund to the Oil and Gas Well Fund (Fund 5180) for handling 151251
the increased regulatory work related to the expansion of the oil 151252
and gas program that will occur before receipts from this activity 151253
are deposited into Fund 5180. Once funds from severance taxes, 151254
application and permitting fees, and other sources have accrued to 151255
Fund 5180 in such amounts as are considered sufficient to sustain 151256
expanded operations, the Director of Budget and Management, in 151257
consultation with the Director of Natural Resources, shall 151258
establish a schedule for repaying the transferred funds from Fund 151259
5180 to the General Revenue Fund.151260

       NATURAL RESOURCES SPECIAL PURPOSES151261

        On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 151262
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer $3,000,000 cash 151263
from the General Revenue Fund to the Natural Resources Special 151264
Purposes Fund (Fund 5MW0). Of the amount transferred, $2,100,000 151265
in fiscal year 2014 shall be used for the construction or 151266
acquisition of a treatment train process at an Ohio inland lake, 151267
and $900,000 in fiscal year 2014 shall be used for the purchase of 151268
a sweeper dredge for use at Ohio inland lakes.151269

       Section 333.90. CLEAN OHIO OPERATING EXPENSES151270

       The foregoing appropriation item 725405, Clean Ohio 151271
Operating, shall be used by the Department of Natural Resources in 151272
administering Clean Ohio Trail Fund (Fund 7061) projects pursuant 151273
to section 1519.05 of the Revised Code.151274

       Section 333.100. WATERCRAFT MARINE PATROL151275

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 739401, Division of 151276
Watercraft, up to $200,000 in each fiscal year shall be expended 151277
for the purchase of equipment for marine patrols qualifying for 151278
funding from the Department of Natural Resources pursuant to 151279
section 1547.67 of the Revised Code. Proposals for equipment shall 151280
accompany the submission of documentation for receipt of a marine 151281
patrol subsidy pursuant to section 1547.67 of the Revised Code and 151282
shall be loaned to eligible marine patrols pursuant to a 151283
cooperative agreement between the Department of Natural Resources 151284
and the eligible marine patrol.151285

       Section 333.110. PARKS CAPITAL EXPENSES FUND151286

        The Director of Natural Resources shall submit to the 151287
Director of Budget and Management the estimated design, 151288
engineering, and planning costs of capital-related work to be done 151289
by Department of Natural Resources staff for parks projects within 151290
the Ohio Parks and Recreation Improvement Fund (Fund 7035). If the 151291
Director of Budget and Management approves the estimated costs, 151292
the Director may release appropriations from appropriation item 151293
C725E6, Project Planning, Fund 7035, for those purposes. Upon 151294
release of the appropriations, the Department of Natural Resources 151295
shall pay for these expenses from the Parks Capital Expenses Fund 151296
(Fund 2270). Expenses paid from Fund 2270 shall be reimbursed by 151297
Fund 7035 using an intrastate transfer voucher.151298

       NATUREWORKS CAPITAL EXPENSES FUND151299

       The Department of Natural Resources shall periodically 151300
prepare and submit to the Director of Budget and Management the 151301
estimated design, planning, and engineering costs of 151302
capital-related work to be done by Department of Natural Resources 151303
staff for each capital improvement project within the Ohio Parks 151304
and Natural Resources Fund (Fund 7031). If the Director of Budget 151305
and Management approves the estimated costs, the Director may 151306
release appropriations from appropriation item C725E5, Project 151307
Planning, in Fund 7031, for those purposes. Upon release of the 151308
appropriations, the Department of Natural Resources shall pay for 151309
these expenses from the Capital Expenses Fund (Fund 4S90). 151310
Expenses paid from Fund 4S90 shall be reimbursed by Fund 7031 by 151311
using an intrastate transfer voucher.151312

       Section 333.120. ELIMINATION OF DORMANT FUNDS151313

       The following funds are hereby abolished and the fund names 151314
and fund numbers shall be stricken from the list of funds falling 151315
within the jurisdiction of the Department of Natural Resources:151316

Fund Number Fund Name 151317
1580 Reprint and Replacement - Intrastate 151318
1610 Parks and Recreation Depreciation Reserve 151319
1620 Civilian Conservation Corps Earned Revenues 151320
2060 General Services 151321
5080 Natural Resources Publications and Promotions 151322
5190 Burr Oak Water Plant 151323
5250 Reclamation Forfeiture 151324
5300 Surface Mining Reclamation 151325
8800 Cooperative Boat Harbor Project 151326
4B80 Forestry Development 151327
5F90 Flood Reimbursement 151328
81A0 Wildlife Education 151329
R029 Reclamation Fee 151330
R030 Surface Mining Reclamation Fee 151331
R040 Wildlife Refunds 151332
3280 Federal Special Revenue 151333
3P00 Natural Areas and Preserves - Federal 151334
5K10 Urban Forestry Grant 151335
5150 Conservancy District Organization 151336
6300 Wild Animal 151337
3CH0 Mined Land Set Aside 151338

       TRANSFER OF ELIMINATED DORMANT FUNDS151339

       The Watercraft Revolving Loan Fund (Fund 5AW0) is hereby 151340
abolished. Any balance remaining in the fund as of July 1, 2013, 151341
shall be transferred into the Waterways Safety Fund (Fund 7086) 151342
and appropriated to appropriation item 739401, Division of 151343
Watercraft.151344

       The Division of Forestry Law Enforcement Fund (Fund 5EJ0) and 151345
the Division of Natural Areas and Preserves Law Enforcement Fund 151346
(Fund 5EK0) are hereby abolished. Any balance remaining in these 151347
funds as of July 1, 2013, shall be transferred into the Park Law 151348
Enforcement Fund (Fund 5EM0) and appropriated to appropriation 151349
item 725613, Park Law Enforcement.151350

       Section 335.10. NUR STATE BOARD OF NURSING151351

General Services Fund Group151352

4K90 884609 Operating Expenses $ 7,181,743 $ 7,273,978 151353
5AC0 884602 Nurse Education Grant Program $ 1,373,506 $ 1,373,506 151354
5P80 884601 Nursing Special Issues $ 2,000 $ 2,000 151355
TOTAL GSF General Services 151356
Fund Group $ 8,557,249 $ 8,649,484 151357
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 8,557,249 $ 8,649,484 151358


       Section 337.10. PYT OCCUPATIONAL THERAPY, PHYSICAL THERAPY, 151360
AND ATHLETIC TRAINERS BOARD151361

General Services Fund Group151362

4K90 890609 Operating Expenses $ 866,169 $ 925,897 151363
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 866,169 $ 925,897 151364
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 866,169 $ 925,897 151365


       Section 339.10.  OLA OHIOANA LIBRARY ASSOCIATION151367

General Revenue Fund151368

GRF 355501 Library Subsidy $ 135,000 $ 140,000 151369
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 135,000 $ 140,000 151370
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 135,000 $ 140,000 151371


       Section 340.10. OOD OPPORTUNITIES FOR OHIOANS WITH 151373
DISABILITIES AGENCY151374

General Revenue Fund151375

GRF 415402 Independent Living Council $ 252,000 $ 252,000 151376
GRF 415406 Assistive Technology $ 26,618 $ 26,618 151377
GRF 415431 Office for People with Brain Injury $ 126,567 $ 126,567 151378
GRF 415506 Services for People with Disabilities $ 15,277,885 $ 15,277,885 151379
GRF 415508 Services for the Deaf $ 28,000 $ 28,000 151380
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 15,711,070 $ 15,711,070 151381

General Services Fund Group151382

4670 415609 Business Enterprise Operating Expenses $ 962,538 $ 965,481 151383
TOTAL GSF General Services 151384
Fund Group $ 962,538 $ 965,481 151385

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group151386

3170 415620 Disability Determination $ 83,332,186 $ 84,641,911 151387
3790 415616 Federal - Vocational Rehabilitation $ 117,431,895 $ 113,610,728 151388
3L10 415601 Social Security Personal Care Assistance $ 2,748,451 $ 2,752,396 151389
3L10 415605 Social Security Community Centers for the Deaf $ 772,000 $ 772,000 151390
3L10 415608 Social Security Special Programs/Assistance $ 445,258 $ 498,269 151391
3L40 415612 Federal Independent Living Centers or Services $ 638,431 $ 638,431 151392
3L40 415615 Federal - Supported Employment $ 916,727 $ 916,727 151393
3L40 415617 Independent Living/Vocational Rehabilitation Programs $ 1,548,658 $ 1,348,658 151394
TOTAL FED Federal Special 151395
Revenue Fund Group $ 207,833,606 $ 205,179,120 151396

State Special Revenue Fund Group151397

4680 415618 Third Party Funding $ 11,000,000 $ 11,000,000 151398
4L10 415619 Services for Rehabilitation $ 3,502,168 $ 3,502,168 151399
4W50 415606 Program Management Expenses $ 12,369,751 $ 12,594,758 151400
TOTAL SSR State Special 151401
Revenue Fund Group $ 26,871,919 $ 27,096,926 151402
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 251,379,133 $ 248,952,597 151403

       INDEPENDENT LIVING COUNCIL151404

       The foregoing appropriation item 415402, Independent Living 151405
Council, shall be used to fund the operations of the State 151406
Independent Living Council and to support state independent living 151407
centers and independent living services under Title VII of the 151408
Independent Living Services and Centers for Independent Living of 151409
the Rehabilitation Act Amendments of 1992, 106 Stat. 4344, 29 151410
U.S.C. 796d.151411

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 415402, Independent 151412
Living Council, $67,662 in each fiscal year shall be used as state 151413
matching funds for vocational rehabilitation innovation and 151414
expansion activities.151415

       ASSISTIVE TECHNOLOGY151416

       The total amount of the foregoing appropriation item 415406, 151417
Assistive Technology, shall be provided to Assistive Technology of 151418
Ohio to provide grants and assistive technology services for 151419
people with disabilities in the State of Ohio.151420

       OFFICE FOR PEOPLE WITH BRAIN INJURY151421

       The foregoing appropriation item 415431, Office for People 151422
with Brain Injury, shall be provided to The Ohio State University 151423
College of Medicine to support the Brain Injury Program 151424
established under section 3304.23 of the Revised Code. 151425

       VOCATIONAL REHABILITATION SERVICES151426

       The foregoing appropriation item 415506, Services for People 151427
with Disabilities, shall be used as state matching funds to 151428
provide vocational rehabilitation services to eligible consumers.151429

       SERVICES FOR THE DEAF151430

        The foregoing appropriation item 415508, Services for the 151431
Deaf, shall be used to provide grants to community centers for the 151432
deaf.151433

       INDEPENDENT LIVING/VOCATIONAL REHABILITATION PROGRAMS151434

       The foregoing appropriation item 415617, Independent 151435
Living/Vocational Rehabilitation Programs, shall be used to 151436
support vocational rehabilitation programs.151437

       SOCIAL SECURITY REIMBURSEMENT FUNDS151438

       Reimbursement funds received from the Social Security 151439
Administration, United States Department of Health and Human 151440
Services, for the costs of providing services and training to 151441
return disability recipients to gainful employment shall be 151442
expended from the Social Security Reimbursement Fund (Fund 3L10), 151443
to the extent funds are available, as follows:151444

       (A) Appropriation item 415601, Social Security Personal Care 151445
Assistance, to provide personal care services in accordance with 151446
section 3304.41 of the Revised Code;151447

       (B) Appropriation item 415605, Social Security Community 151448
Centers for the Deaf, to provide grants to community centers for 151449
the deaf in Ohio for services to individuals with hearing 151450
impairments; and151451

       (C) Appropriation item 415608, Social Security Special 151452
Programs/Assistance, to provide vocational rehabilitation services 151453
to individuals with severe disabilities who are Social Security 151454
beneficiaries, to enable them to achieve competitive employment. 151455
This appropriation item shall also be used to pay a portion of 151456
indirect costs of the Personal Care Assistance Program and the 151457
Independent Living Programs as mandated by federal OMB Circular 151458
A-87.151459

       PROGRAM MANAGEMENT EXPENSES151460

       The foregoing appropriation item 415606, Program Management 151461
Expenses, shall be used to support the administrative functions of 151462
the commission related to the provision of vocational 151463
rehabilitation, disability determination services, and ancillary 151464
programs.151465

       Section 341.10. ODB OHIO OPTICAL DISPENSERS BOARD151466

General Services Fund Group151467

4K90 894609 Operating Expenses $ 366,000 $ 365,000 151468
TOTAL GSF General Services 151469
Fund Group $ 366,000 $ 365,000 151470
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 366,000 $ 365,000 151471


       Section 343.10. OPT STATE BOARD OF OPTOMETRY151473

General Services Fund Group151474

4K90 885609 Operating Expenses $ 347,278 $ 347,278 151475
TOTAL GSF General Services 151476
Fund Group $ 347,278 $ 347,278 151477
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 347,278 $ 347,278 151478


       Section 345.10. OPP STATE BOARD OF ORTHOTICS, PROSTHETICS, 151480
AND PEDORTHICS151481

General Services Fund Group151482

4K90 973609 Operating Expenses $ 151,417 $ 159,982 151483
TOTAL GSF General Services 151484
Fund Group $ 151,417 $ 159,982 151485
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 151,417 $ 159,982 151486

       Section 347.10. UST PETROLEUM UNDERGROUND STORAGE TANK 151487
RELEASE COMPENSATION BOARD151488

State Special Revenue Fund Group151489

6910 810632 PUSTRCB Staff $ 1,233,249 $ 1,252,202 151490
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 151491
Fund Group $ 1,233,249 $ 1,252,202 151492
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,233,249 $ 1,252,202 151493


       Section 349.10. PRX STATE BOARD OF PHARMACY151495

General Services Fund Group151496

4A50 887605 Drug Law Enforcement $ 150,000 $ 150,000 151497
4K90 887609 Operating Expenses $ 6,701,285 $ 6,701,285 151498
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 6,851,285 $ 6,851,285 151499

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group151500

3BC0 887604 Dangerous Drugs Database $ 390,869 $ 0 151501
3CT0 887606 2008 Developing/Enhancing PMP $ 224,691 $ 112,346 151502
3DV0 887607 Enhancing Ohio's PMP $ 2,000 $ 2,000 151503
3EY0 887603 Administration of PMIX Hub $ 66,335 $ 0 151504
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 683,895 $ 114,346 151505
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 7,535,180 $ 6,965,631 151506


       Section 351.10. PSY STATE BOARD OF PSYCHOLOGY151508

General Services Fund Group151509

4K90 882609 Operating Expenses $ 548,000 $ 571,000 151510
TOTAL GSF General Services 151511
Fund Group $ 548,000 $ 571,000 151512
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 548,000 $ 571,000 151513


       Section 353.10. PUB OHIO PUBLIC DEFENDER COMMISSION151515

General Revenue Fund151516

GRF 019401 State Legal Defense Services $ 3,020,855 $ 3,020,855 151517
GRF 019403 Multi-County: State Share $ 1,237,318 $ 1,250,824 151518
GRF 019404 Trumbull County - State Share $ 354,743 $ 359,631 151519
GRF 019405 Training Account $ 50,000 $ 50,000 151520
GRF 019501 County Reimbursement $ 9,768,050 $ 9,885,175 151521
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 14,430,966 $ 14,566,485 151522

General Services Fund Group151523

4070 019604 County Representation $ 351,149 $ 354,248 151524
4080 019605 Client Payments $ 725,144 $ 722,931 151525
5CX0 019617 Civil Case Filing Fee $ 532,136 $ 528,476 151526
TOTAL GSF General Services 151527
Fund Group $ 1,608,429 $ 1,605,655 151528

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group151529

3FX0 019621 Wrongful Conviction Program $ 103,950 $ 103,950 151530
3S80 019608 Federal Representation $ 204,706 $ 202,942 151531
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 151532
Fund Group $ 308,656 $ 306,892 151533

State Special Revenue Fund Group151534

4C70 019601 Multi-County: County Share $ 2,297,876 $ 2,322,959 151535
4X70 019610 Trumbull County - County Share $ 658,809 $ 667,887 151536
5740 019606 Civil Legal Aid $ 20,000,000 $ 20,000,000 151537
5DY0 019618 Indigent Defense Support - County Share $ 40,320,991 $ 41,191,285 151538
5DY0 019619 Indigent Defense Support Fund - State Office $ 5,186,329 $ 5,612,719 151539
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 151540
Fund Group $ 68,464,005 $ 69,794,850 151541
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 84,812,056 $ 86,273,882 151542

       INDIGENT DEFENSE OFFICE151543

       The foregoing appropriation items 019404, Trumbull County - 151544
State Share, and 019610, Trumbull County - County Share, shall be 151545
used to support an indigent defense office for Trumbull County.151546

       MULTI-COUNTY OFFICE151547

       The foregoing appropriation items 019403, Multi-County: State 151548
Share, and 019601, Multi-County: County Share, shall be used to 151549
support the Office of the Ohio Public Defender's Multi-County 151550
Branch Office Program.151551

       TRAINING ACCOUNT151552

       The foregoing appropriation item 019405, Training Account, 151553
shall be used by the Ohio Public Defender to provide legal 151554
training programs at no cost for private appointed counsel who 151555
represent at least one indigent defendant at no cost and for state 151556
and county public defenders and attorneys who contract with the 151557
Ohio Public Defender to provide indigent defense services.151558

       FEDERAL REPRESENTATION151559

       The foregoing appropriation item 019608, Federal 151560
Representation, shall be used to receive reimbursements from the 151561
federal courts when the Ohio Public Defender provides 151562
representation in federal court cases and to support 151563
representation in such cases.151564

       Section 355.10. DPS DEPARTMENT OF PUBLIC SAFETY151565

General Revenue Fund151566

GRF 767420 Investigative Unit - Operating $ 10,500,000 $ 10,500,000 151567
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 10,500,000 $ 10,500,000 151568
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 10,500,000 $ 10,500,000 151569


       Section 357.10. PUC PUBLIC UTILITIES COMMISSION OF OHIO151571

General Services Fund Group151572

5BP0 870623 Wireless 9-1-1 Administration $ 18,035,000 $ 0 151573
5F60 870622 Utility and Railroad Regulation $ 30,619,708 $ 30,619,708 151574
5F60 870624 NARUC/NRRI Subsidy $ 85,000 $ 85,000 151575
5Q50 870626 Telecommunications Relay Service $ 5,000,000 $ 5,000,000 151576
TOTAL GSF General Services 151577
Fund Group $ 53,739,708 $ 35,704,708 151578

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group151579

3330 870601 Gas Pipeline Safety $ 597,959 $ 597,959 151580
3500 870608 Motor Carrier Safety $ 7,351,660 $ 7,351,660 151581
3EA0 870630 Energy Assurance Planning $ 192,001 $ 0 151582
3ED0 870631 State Regulators Assistance $ 115,912 $ 0 151583
3V30 870604 Commercial Vehicle Information Systems/Networks $ 100,000 $ 100,000 151584
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 151585
Fund Group $ 8,357,532 $ 8,049,619 151586

State Special Revenue Fund Group151587

4A30 870614 Grade Crossing Protection Devices-State $ 1,347,357 $ 1,347,357 151588
4L80 870617 Pipeline Safety-State $ 331,992 $ 331,992 151589
5610 870606 Power Siting Board $ 581,618 $ 581,618 151590
5LT0 870640 Intrastate Registration $ 180,000 $ 180,000 151591
5LT0 870641 Unified Carrier Registration $ 420,000 $ 420,000 151592
5LT0 870642 Hazardous Materials Registration $ 743,346 $ 753,346 151593
5LT0 870643 Nonhazardous Materials Civil Forfeiture $ 277,496 $ 277,496 151594
5LT0 870644 Hazardous Materials Civil Forfeiture $ 898,800 $ 898,800 151595
5LT0 870645 Motor Carrier Enforcement $ 4,768,453 $ 4,709,592 151596
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 151597
Fund Group $ 9,549,062 $ 9,500,201 151598
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 71,646,302 $ 53,254,528 151599


       Section 359.10. PWC PUBLIC WORKS COMMISSION151601

General Revenue Fund151602

GRF 150904 Conservation General Obligation Debt Service $ 33,376,600 $ 34,447,700 151603
GRF 150907 State Capital Improvements General Obligation Debt Service $ 227,810,300 $ 228,948,900 151604
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 261,186,900 $ 263,396,600 151605

Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group151606

7056 150403 Clean Ohio Operating Expenses $ 288,980 $ 288,980 151607
TOTAL 056 Clean Ohio Conservation Fund Group $ 288,980 $ 288,980 151608

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 261,475,880 $ 263,685,580 151609

       CONSERVATION GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE151610

       The foregoing appropriation item 150904, Conservation General 151611
Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to pay all debt service and 151612
related financing costs during the period from July 1, 2013, 151613
through June 30, 2015, at the times they are required to be made 151614
for obligations issued under sections 151.01 and 151.09 of the 151615
Revised Code.151616

       STATE CAPITAL IMPROVEMENTS GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE151617

       The foregoing appropriation item 150907, State Capital 151618
Improvements General Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to pay 151619
all debt service and related financing costs during the period 151620
from July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015, at the times they are 151621
required to be made for obligations issued under sections 151.01 151622
and 151.08 of the Revised Code.151623

       CLEAN OHIO OPERATING EXPENSES151624

       The foregoing appropriation item 150403, Clean Ohio Operating 151625
Expenses, shall be used by the Ohio Public Works Commission in 151626
administering Clean Ohio Conservation Fund (Fund 7056) projects 151627
pursuant to sections 164.20 to 164.27 of the Revised Code.151628

       Section 361.10. RAC STATE RACING COMMISSION151629

State Special Revenue Fund Group151630

5620 875601 Thoroughbred Race Fund $ 1,696,456 $ 1,696,456 151631
5630 875602 Standardbred Development Fund $ 1,697,452 $ 1,697,452 151632
5640 875603 Quarter Horse Development Fund $ 1,000 $ 1,000 151633
5650 875604 Racing Commission Operating $ 2,934,178 $ 2,934,178 151634
5C40 875607 Simulcast Horse Racing Purse $ 12,000,000 $ 12,000,000 151635
5JK0 875610 Racing Commission Fund $ 10,000,000 $ 10,000,000 151636
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 151637
Fund Group $ 28,329,086 $ 28,329,086 151638

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group151639

R021 875605 Bond Reimbursements $ 100,000 $ 100,000 151640
TOTAL 090 Holding Account Redistribution 151641
Fund Group $ 100,000 $ 100,000 151642
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 28,429,086 $ 28,429,086 151643


       Section 363.10. BOR BOARD OF REGENTS151645

General Revenue Fund151646

GRF 235321 Operating Expenses $ 2,850,357 $ 2,850,357 151647
GRF 235401 Lease Rental Payments $ 5,805,300 $ 0 151648
GRF 235402 Sea Grants $ 285,000 $ 285,000 151649
GRF 235406 Articulation and Transfer $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 151650
GRF 235408 Midwest Higher Education Compact $ 95,000 $ 95,000 151651
GRF 235409 HEI Information System $ 1,505,683 $ 1,505,683 151652
GRF 235414 State Grants and Scholarship Administration $ 830,180 $ 830,180 151653
GRF 235417 eStudent Services $ 2,532,688 $ 2,532,688 151654
GRF 235428 Appalachian New Economy Partnership $ 737,366 $ 737,366 151655
GRF 235433 Economic Growth Challenge $ 521,153 $ 521,153 151656
GRF 235434 College Readiness and Access $ 1,200,000 $ 1,200,000 151657
GRF 235438 Choose Ohio First Scholarship $ 16,665,114 $ 16,665,114 151658
GRF 235443 Adult Basic and Literacy Education - State $ 7,302,416 $ 7,302,416 151659
GRF 235444 Post-Secondary Adult Career-Technical Education $ 15,317,547 $ 15,317,547 151660
GRF 235474 Area Health Education Centers Program Support $ 900,000 $ 900,000 151661
GRF 235483 Technology Integration and Professional Development $ 2,378,598 $ 2,378,598 151662
GRF 235501 State Share of Instruction $ 1,784,225,497 $ 1,818,225,497 151663
GRF 235502 Student Support Services $ 632,974 $ 632,974 151664
GRF 235504 War Orphans Scholarships $ 5,500,000 $ 5,500,000 151665
GRF 235505 State Share of Instruction Bridge Funding $ 8,095,005 $ 0 151666
GRF 235506 Ohio Strategic Training Center $ 950,000 $ 0 151667
GRF 235507 OhioLINK $ 6,211,012 $ 6,211,012 151668
GRF 235508 Air Force Institute of Technology $ 1,740,803 $ 1,740,803 151669
GRF 235510 Ohio Supercomputer Center $ 3,747,418 $ 3,747,418 151670
GRF 235511 Cooperative Extension Service $ 23,086,658 $ 23,056,658 151671
GRF 235514 Central State Supplement $ 11,063,468 $ 11,063,468 151672
GRF 235515 Case Western Reserve University School of Medicine $ 2,146,253 $ 2,146,253 151673
GRF 235519 Family Practice $ 3,166,185 $ 3,166,185 151674
GRF 235520 Shawnee State Supplement $ 2,326,097 $ 2,326,097 151675
GRF 235523 Youth STEM Commercialization and Entrepreneurship Program $ 2,000,000 $ 3,000,000 151676
GRF 235524 Police and Fire Protection $ 107,814 $ 107,814 151677
GRF 235525 Geriatric Medicine $ 522,151 $ 522,151 151678
GRF 235526 Primary Care Residencies $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 151679
GRF 235535 Ohio Agricultural Research and Development Center $ 34,126,100 $ 34,126,100 151680
GRF 235536 The Ohio State University Clinical Teaching $ 9,668,941 $ 9,668,941 151681
GRF 235537 University of Cincinnati Clinical Teaching $ 7,952,573 $ 7,952,573 151682
GRF 235538 University of Toledo Clinical Teaching $ 6,198,600 $ 6,198,600 151683
GRF 235539 Wright State University Clinical Teaching $ 3,011,400 $ 3,011,400 151684
GRF 235540 Ohio University Clinical Teaching $ 2,911,212 $ 2,911,212 151685
GRF 235541 Northeast Ohio Medical University Clinical Teaching $ 2,994,178 $ 2,994,178 151686
GRF 235552 Capital Component $ 13,628,639 $ 10,280,387 151687
GRF 235555 Library Depositories $ 1,440,342 $ 1,440,342 151688
GRF 235556 Ohio Academic Resources Network $ 3,172,519 $ 3,172,519 151689
GRF 235558 Long-term Care Research $ 195,300 $ 195,300 151690
GRF 235563 Ohio College Opportunity Grant $ 89,126,474 $ 89,126,474 151691
GRF 235572 The Ohio State University Clinic Support $ 766,533 $ 766,533 151692
GRF 235599 National Guard Scholarship Program $ 16,711,514 $ 17,384,511 151693
GRF 235909 Higher Education General Obligation Debt Service $ 221,168,700 $ 248,822,000 151694
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 2,331,020,762 $ 2,376,118,502 151695

General Services Fund Group151696

2200 235614 Program Approval and Reauthorization $ 903,595 $ 903,595 151697
4560 235603 Sales and Services $ 199,250 $ 199,250 151698
5JC0 235649 Co-op Internship Program $ 8,000,000 $ 8,000,000 151699
5JC0 235668 Defense/Aerospace Workforce Development Initiative $ 4,000,000 $ 4,000,000 151700
TOTAL GSF General Services 151701
Fund Group $ 13,102,845 $ 13,102,845 151702

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group151703

3120 235612 Carl D. Perkins Grant/Plan Administration $ 1,350,000 $ 1,350,000 151704
3120 235617 Improving Teacher Quality Grant $ 3,200,000 $ 3,200,000 151705
3120 235641 Adult Basic and Literacy Education - Federal $ 14,835,671 $ 14,835,671 151706
3120 235672 H-1B Tech Skills Training $ 1,100,000 $ 1,100,000 151707
3BW0 235630 Indirect Cost Recovery - Federal $ 50,000 $ 50,000 151708
3H20 235608 Human Services Project $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 151709
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 151710
Fund Group $ 21,535,671 $ 21,535,671 151711

State Special Revenue Fund Group151712

4E80 235602 Higher Educational Facility Commission Administration $ 29,100 $ 29,100 151713
4X10 235674 Telecommunity and Distance Learning $ 49,150 $ 49,150 151714
5D40 235675 Conferences/Special Purposes $ 1,884,095 $ 1,884,095 151715
5FK0 235676 Media Services $ 491,373 $ 491,373 151716
5FR0 235643 Making Opportunity Affordable $ 230,000 $ 230,000 151717
5P30 235663 Variable Savings Plan $ 8,066,920 $ 8,104,370 151718
6450 235664 Guaranteed Savings Plan $ 1,290,718 $ 1,303,129 151719
6820 235606 Nursing Loan Program $ 891,320 $ 891,320 151720
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 151721
Fund Group $ 12,932,676 $ 12,982,537 151722

Third Frontier Research & Development Fund Group151723

7011 235634 Research Incentive Third Frontier Fund $ 8,000,000 $ 8,000,000 151724
TOTAL 011 Third Frontier Research & Development Fund Group $ 8,000,000 $ 8,000,000 151725
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 2,386,591,954 $ 2,431,739,555 151726


       Section 363.20. LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS151728

       The foregoing appropriation item 235401, Lease Rental 151729
Payments, shall be used to meet all payments at the times they are 151730
required to be made during the period from July 1, 2013, through 151731
June 30, 2015, by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents under 151732
leases and agreements made under section 154.21 of the Revised 151733
Code. These appropriations are the source of funds pledged for 151734
bond service charges on related obligations issued under Chapter 151735
154. of the Revised Code.151736

       Section 363.23. SEA GRANTS151737

        The foregoing appropriation item 235402, Sea Grants, shall be 151738
used to match federal dollars and leverage additional support by 151739
The Ohio State University's Sea Grant program, including Stone 151740
Laboratory, for research, education, and outreach to enhance the 151741
economic value, public utilization, and responsible management of 151742
Lake Erie and Ohio's coastal resources.151743

       Section 363.30. ARTICULATION AND TRANSFER151744

       The foregoing appropriation item 235406, Articulation and 151745
Transfer, shall be used by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents 151746
to maintain and expand the work of the Articulation and Transfer 151747
Council to develop a system of transfer policies to ensure that 151748
students at state institutions of higher education can transfer 151749
and have coursework apply to their majors and degrees at any other 151750
state institution of higher education without unnecessary 151751
duplication or institutional barriers under sections 3333.16, 151752
3333.161, and 3333.162 of the Revised Code.151753

       Section 363.40. MIDWEST HIGHER EDUCATION COMPACT151754

       The foregoing appropriation item 235408, Midwest Higher 151755
Education Compact, shall be distributed by the Chancellor of the 151756
Board of Regents under section 3333.40 of the Revised Code.151757

       Section 363.50. HEI INFORMATION SYSTEM151758

       The foregoing appropriation item 235409, HEI Information 151759
System, shall be used by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents to 151760
support the development and implementation of information 151761
technology solutions designed to improve the performance and 151762
services of the Chancellor of the Board of Regents and the 151763
University System of Ohio. Information technology solutions may be 151764
provided by the Ohio Academic Research Network (OARnet).151765

       Section 363.60. STATE GRANTS AND SCHOLARSHIP ADMINISTRATION151766

       The foregoing appropriation item 235414, State Grants and 151767
Scholarship Administration, shall be used by the Chancellor of the 151768
Board of Regents to administer the following student financial aid 151769
programs: Ohio College Opportunity Grant, Ohio War Orphans' 151770
Scholarship, Nurse Education Assistance Loan Program, Ohio Safety 151771
Officers College Memorial Fund, and any other student financial 151772
aid programs created by the General Assembly. The appropriation 151773
item also shall be used to support all state financial aid audits 151774
and student financial aid programs created by Congress, and to 151775
provide fiscal services for the Ohio National Guard Scholarship 151776
Program.151777

       Section 363.70. ESTUDENT SERVICES151778

       The foregoing appropriation item 235417, eStudent Services, 151779
shall be used by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents to support 151780
the continued implementation of eStudent Services, a consortium 151781
organized under division (T) of section 3333.04 of the Revised 151782
Code to expand access to dual enrollment opportunities for high 151783
school students, as well as adult and higher education 151784
opportunities through technology. The funds shall be used by 151785
eStudent Services to develop and promote learning and assessment 151786
through the use of technology, to test and provide advice on 151787
emerging learning-directed technologies, to support the distance 151788
learning clearinghouse and platform created under section 3333.82 151789
of the Revised Code, and to facilitate cost-effectiveness through 151790
shared educational technology investments.151791

       Section 363.80. APPALACHIAN NEW ECONOMY PARTNERSHIP151792

       The foregoing appropriation item 235428, Appalachian New 151793
Economy Partnership, shall be distributed to Ohio University to 151794
continue a multi-campus and multi-agency coordinated effort to 151795
link Appalachia to the new economy. Ohio University shall use 151796
these funds to provide leadership in the development and 151797
implementation of initiatives in the areas of entrepreneurship, 151798
management, education, and technology.151799

       Section 363.90. ECONOMIC GROWTH CHALLENGE151800

       The foregoing appropriation item 235433, Economic Growth 151801
Challenge, shall be used for administrative expenses of the 151802
Research Incentive Program and other economic advancement 151803
initiatives undertaken by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents.151804

       The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall use any 151805
appropriation transfer to the foregoing appropriation item 235433, 151806
Economic Growth Challenge, to enhance the basic research and 151807
commercialization capabilities of public colleges and universities 151808
and accredited Ohio institutions of higher education holding 151809
certificates of authorization issued under section 1713.02 of the 151810
Revised Code, in order to strengthen academic research and 151811
commercialization for pursuing Ohio's economic development goals.151812

       Section 363.93. COLLEGE READINESS AND ACCESS151813

        The foregoing appropriation item 235434, College Readiness 151814
and Access, shall be used by the Chancellor of the Board of 151815
Regents to support early college high school initiatives. The 151816
Chancellor shall distribute grants equal to $2,000 per enrolled 151817
early college high school student to institutions of higher 151818
education supporting an early college high school. If the 151819
Chancellor determines that the amounts appropriated are inadequate 151820
to provide full grant awards to all eligible institutions, the 151821
Chancellor may decrease the per student grant amount.151822

       Section 363.100. CHOOSE OHIO FIRST SCHOLARSHIP151823

       The foregoing appropriation item 235438, Choose Ohio First 151824
Scholarship, shall be used to operate the program prescribed in 151825
sections 3333.60 to 3333.70 of the Revised Code.151826

       Section 363.110. ADULT BASIC AND LITERACY EDUCATION151827

       The foregoing appropriation item 235443, Adult Basic and 151828
Literacy Education - State, shall be used to support the adult 151829
basic and literacy education instructional grant program and state 151830
leadership program. The supported programs shall satisfy the state 151831
match and maintenance of effort requirements for the 151832
state-administered grant program.151833

       Section 363.120. POST-SECONDARY ADULT CAREER-TECHNICAL 151834
EDUCATION151835

       The foregoing appropriation item 235444, Post-Secondary Adult 151836
Career-Technical Education, shall be used by the Chancellor of the 151837
Board of Regents, in consultation with the Superintendent of 151838
Public Instruction and the Governor's Office of Workforce 151839
Transformation, to support post-secondary adult career-technical 151840
education. The Chancellor of the Board of Regents, the 151841
Superintendent of Public Instruction, and the Governor's Office of 151842
Workforce Transformation, or their designees, shall hold a series 151843
of consultations with the Ohio Technical Centers during fiscal 151844
year 2014 to develop an appropriate funding formula to distribute 151845
these funds based on student outcomes, beginning in fiscal year 151846
2015.151847

       Not later than June 30, 2014, the Chancellor of the Board of 151848
Regents shall establish a One-Year Option credit articulation 151849
system in which graduates of Ohio Technical Centers who complete a 151850
900-hour program of study and obtain an industry-recognized 151851
credential approved by the Chancellor shall receive 30 college 151852
technical credit hours toward a technical degree upon enrollment 151853
in an institution of higher education.151854

        By June 30, 2014, the Chancellor also shall submit a report 151855
to the General Assembly, in accordance with section 101.68 of the 151856
Revised Code, that recommends a process to award proportional 151857
credit toward a technical degree for students who complete a 151858
program of study between 600 and 899 hours and obtain an 151859
industry-recognized credential approved by the Chancellor.151860

        As used in this section, "institution of higher education" 151861
has the same meaning as in section 3345.12 of the Revised Code.151862

       Section 363.130. AREA HEALTH EDUCATION CENTERS151863

       The foregoing appropriation item 235474, Area Health 151864
Education Centers Program Support, shall be used by the Chancellor 151865
of the Board of Regents to support the medical school regional 151866
area health education centers' educational programs for the 151867
continued support of medical and other health professions 151868
education and for support of the Area Health Education Center 151869
Program.151870

       Section 363.180. TECHNOLOGY INTEGRATION AND PROFESSIONAL 151871
DEVELOPMENT151872

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235483, Technology 151873
Integration and Professional Development, up to $2,000,000 in each 151874
fiscal year shall be used to provide grants on a competitive basis 151875
to public and chartered nonpublic schools for their participation 151876
in the electronic textbook pilot project. These grants shall be 151877
administered as provided under the section of this act entitled 151878
ELECTRONIC TEXTBOOK PILOT PROJECT. On July 1, 2014, or as soon as 151879
possible thereafter, the Chancellor of the Board of Regents may 151880
certify to the Director of Budget and Management the amount of the 151881
unexpended, unencumbered balance of this set aside at the end of 151882
fiscal year 2014 to be appropriated to fiscal year 2015. The 151883
amount certified is hereby reappropriated for the same purpose for 151884
fiscal year 2015.151885

       The remainder of the foregoing appropriation item 235483, 151886
Technology Integration and Professional Development, shall be used 151887
by the Ohio Department of Education and the Chancellor of the 151888
Board of Regents for the provision of staff development, hardware, 151889
software, telecommunications services, and information resources 151890
to support educational uses of technology in the classroom and at 151891
a distance and for professional development for teachers, 151892
administrators, and technology staff on the use of educational 151893
technology in qualifying public schools, including the State 151894
School for the Blind, the School for the Deaf, and the Department 151895
of Youth Services.151896

       Section 363.190. STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FORMULAS151897

       The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall establish 151898
procedures to allocate the foregoing appropriation item 235501, 151899
State Share of Instruction, based on the formulas detailed in this 151900
section that utilize the enrollment, course completion, degree 151901
attainment, and student achievement factors reported annually by 151902
each state institution of higher education participating in the 151903
Higher Education Information (HEI) system.151904

       (A) FULL-TIME EQUIVALENT (FTE) ENROLLMENTS AND COURSE 151905
COMPLETIONS151906

       (1) As soon as possible during each fiscal year of the 151907
biennium ending June 30, 2015, in accordance with instructions of 151908
the Board of Regents, each state institution of higher education 151909
shall report its actual data, consistent with the definitions in 151910
the Higher Education Information (HEI) system's enrollment files, 151911
to the Chancellor of the Board of Regents.151912

       (2) In defining the number of full-time equivalent students 151913
for state subsidy instructional cost purposes, the Chancellor of 151914
the Board of Regents shall exclude all undergraduate students who 151915
are not residents of Ohio, except those charged in-state fees in 151916
accordance with reciprocity agreements made under section 3333.17 151917
of the Revised Code or employer contracts entered into under 151918
section 3333.32 of the Revised Code.151919

       (3) In calculating the core subsidy entitlements for 151920
university branch and main campuses, the Chancellor of the Board 151921
of Regents shall use the following count of FTE students:151922

       (a) The subsidy eligible enrollments by model shall equal 151923
only those FTE students who successfully complete the course as 151924
defined and reported through the Higher Education Information 151925
(HEI) system course enrollment file; 151926

       (b) Those undergraduate FTE students with successful course 151927
completions, identified in division (A)(3)(a) of this section, 151928
that had an expected family contribution less than 2190 or were 151929
determined to have been in need of remedial education shall be 151930
defined as at-risk students and shall have their eligible 151931
completions weighted by the following:151932

       (i) Campus-specific course completion indexes, where the 151933
indexes are calculated based upon the number of at-risk students 151934
enrolled during the 2010-2012 academic years; and151935

       (ii) A statewide average at-risk course completion weight 151936
determined for each subsidy model. The statewide average at-risk 151937
course completion weight shall be determined by calculating the 151938
difference between the percentage of traditional students who 151939
complete a course and the percentage of at-risk students who 151940
complete the same course.151941

       (4) In calculating the core subsidy entitlements for Medical 151942
II models only, students repeating terms may be no more than five 151943
per cent of current year enrollment.151944

       (5) In calculating the core subsidy entitlements for students 151945
enrolled in state-supported law schools, subsidy eligible FTE 151946
completions shall be limited to students identified as residents 151947
of Ohio.151948

       (B) TOTAL COSTS PER FULL-TIME EQUIVALENT STUDENT151949

       For purposes of calculating state share of instruction 151950
allocations, the total instructional costs per full-time 151951
equivalent student shall be:151952

Model Fiscal Year 2014 Fiscal Year 2015 151953
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 1 $7,803 $7,940 151954
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 2 $10,828 $11,018 151955
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 3 $13,988 $14,234 151956
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 4 $20,242 $20,598 151957
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 5 $33,969 $34,567 151958
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 6 $38,280 $38,954 151959
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 1 $7,109 $7,235 151960
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 2 $8,106 $8,249 151961
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 3 $10,640 $10,827 151962
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 4 $12,647 $12,869 151963
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 5 $19,657 $20,003 151964
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 6 $22,006 $22,393 151965
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 7 $30,558 $31,096 151966
MEDICAL 1 $53,424 $54,365 151967
MEDICAL 2 $45,873 $46,681 151968
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 1 $7,190 $7,317 151969
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 2 $10,091 $10,268 151970
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 3 $11,928 $12,138 151971
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 4 $15,186 $15,454 151972
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 5 $20,043 $20,396 151973
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 6 $21,633 $22,013 151974
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 7 $26,471 $26,937 151975
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 8 $36,766 $37,413 151976
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 9 $52,170 $53,088 151977

       Doctoral I and Doctoral II models shall be allocated in 151978
accordance with division (D)(3) of this section.151979

       (C) SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICAL, 151980
AND GRADUATE WEIGHTS151981

       For the purpose of implementing the recommendations of the 151982
2006 State Share of Instruction Consultation and the Higher 151983
Education Funding Study Council that priority be given to 151984
maintaining state support for science, technology, engineering, 151985
mathematics, medicine, and graduate programs, the costs in 151986
division (B) of this section shall be weighted by the amounts 151987
provided below:151988

Model Fiscal Year 2014 Fiscal Year 2015 151989
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 1 1.0000 1.0000 151990
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 2 1.0000 1.0000 151991
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 3 1.0000 1.0000 151992
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 4 1.0000 1.0000 151993
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 5 1.0425 1.0425 151994
ARTS AND HUMANITIES 6 1.0425 1.0425 151995
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 1 1.0000 1.0000 151996
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 2 1.0000 1.0000 151997
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 3 1.0000 1.0000 151998
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 4 1.0000 1.0000 151999
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 5 1.0425 1.0425 152000
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 6 1.0425 1.0425 152001
BUSINESS, EDUCATION & SOCIAL SCIENCES 7 1.0425 1.0425 152002
MEDICAL 1 1.6456 1.6456 152003
MEDICAL 2 1.7462 1.7462 152004
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 1 1.0000 1.0000 152005
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 2 1.0017 1.0017 152006
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 3 1.6150 1.6150 152007
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 4 1.6920 1.6920 152008
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 5 1.4222 1.4222 152009
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 6 1.8798 1.8798 152010
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 7 1.4380 1.4380 152011
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 8 1.5675 1.5675 152012
SCIENCE, TECHNOLOGY, ENGINEERING, MATHEMATICS, MEDICINE 9 1.1361 1.1361 152013

       (D) CALCULATION OF STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FORMULA 152014
ENTITLEMENTS AND ADJUSTMENTS152015

       (1) Of the foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share 152016
of Instruction, 25 per cent of the fiscal year 2014 appropriation 152017
for state-supported community colleges, state community colleges, 152018
and technical colleges shall be allocated to colleges in 152019
proportion to their share of college student success factors as 152020
adopted by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents in formal 152021
communication to the Controlling Board on August 30, 2010.152022

       (2) Of the foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share 152023
of Instruction, 25 per cent of the fiscal year 2014 appropriation 152024
for state-supported community colleges, state community colleges, 152025
and technical colleges shall be reserved for course completion 152026
FTEs as aggregated by the subsidy models defined in division (B) 152027
of this section.152028

       The course completion funding shall be allocated to colleges 152029
in proportion to each campuses' share of the total sector's course 152030
completions, weighted by the instructional cost of the subsidy 152031
models.152032

       To calculate the subsidy entitlements for course completions 152033
at community colleges, state community colleges, and technical 152034
colleges, the Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall use the 152035
following calculations:152036

       (a) In calculating each campus's count of FTE course 152037
completions, the Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall use the 152038
three-year average course completions for the three-year period 152039
ending in the prior year.152040

       (b) The model costs as used in the calculation shall be 152041
augmented by the model weights for science, technology, 152042
engineering, mathematics, and medicine models as established in 152043
division (C) of this section.152044

       (3) Of the foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share 152045
of Instruction, up to 11.78 per cent of the appropriation for 152046
universities, as established in division (A)(2) of the section of 152047
this act entitled "STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FOR FISCAL YEARS 152048
2014 and 2015," in each fiscal year shall be reserved for support 152049
of doctoral programs to implement the funding recommendations made 152050
by representatives of the universities. The amount so reserved 152051
shall be referred to as the doctoral set-aside.152052

       The doctoral set-aside shall be allocated to universities as 152053
follows:152054

       (a) 62.50 per cent of the doctoral set-aside in fiscal year 152055
2014 and 55 per cent of the doctoral set-aside in fiscal year 2015 152056
shall be allocated to universities in proportion to their share of 152057
the statewide total of each state institution's three-year average 152058
Doctoral I equivalent FTEs as calculated on an institutional basis 152059
using historical FTEs for the period fiscal year 1994 through 152060
fiscal year 1998 with annualized FTEs for fiscal years 1994 152061
through 1997 and all-term FTEs for fiscal year 1998 as adjusted to 152062
reflect the effects of doctoral review and subsequent changes in 152063
Doctoral I equivalent enrollments. For the purposes of this 152064
calculation, Doctoral I equivalent FTEs shall equal the sum of 152065
Doctoral I FTEs plus 1.5 times the sum of Doctoral II FTEs.152066

       (b) 25 per cent of the doctoral set-aside in fiscal year 2014 152067
and 30 per cent of the doctoral set-aside in fiscal year 2015 152068
shall be allocated to universities in proportion to each campus's 152069
share of the total statewide doctoral degrees, weighted by the 152070
cost of the doctoral discipline. In calculating each campus's 152071
doctoral degrees the Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall use 152072
the three-year average doctoral degrees awarded for the three-year 152073
period ending in the prior year. 152074

       (c) 12.5 per cent of the doctoral set-aside in fiscal year 152075
2014 and 15 per cent of the doctoral set-aside in fiscal year 2015 152076
shall be allocated to universities in proportion to their share of 152077
research grant activity, using a data collection method that is 152078
reviewed and approved by the presidents of Ohio's doctoral degree 152079
granting universities. In the event that the data collection 152080
method is not available, funding for this component shall be 152081
allocated to universities in proportion to their share of research 152082
grant activity published by the National Science Foundation. Grant 152083
awards from the Department of Health and Human Services shall be 152084
weighted at 50 per cent.152085

       (4) Of the foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share 152086
of Instruction, 6.41 per cent of the appropriation for 152087
universities, as established in division (A)(2) of the section of 152088
this act entitled "STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FOR FISCAL YEARS 152089
2014 AND 2015," in each fiscal year shall be reserved for support 152090
of Medical II FTEs. The amount so reserved shall be referred to as 152091
the medical II set-aside.152092

       The medical II set-aside shall be allocated to universities 152093
in proportion to their share of the statewide total of each state 152094
institution's three-year average Medical II FTEs as calculated in 152095
division (A) of this section, weighted by model cost.152096

       (5) Of the foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share 152097
of Instruction, 1.48 per cent of the appropriation for 152098
universities, as established in division (A)(2) of the section of 152099
this act entitled "STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FOR FISCAL YEARS 152100
2014 AND 2015," in each fiscal year shall be reserved for support 152101
of Medical I FTEs. The amount so reserved shall be referred to as 152102
the medical I set-aside.152103

       The medical I set-aside shall be allocated to universities in 152104
proportion to their share of the statewide total of each state 152105
institution's three-year average Medical I FTEs as calculated in 152106
division (A) of this section.152107

        (6) Of the foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share 152108
of Instruction, 50 per cent of the appropriation in each fiscal 152109
year for universities, net any earmarked funding for university 152110
regional campuses as detailed in division (B)(1) of the section of 152111
this act entitled "STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FOR FISCAL YEARS 152112
2014 AND 2015," shall be reserved for support of associate, 152113
baccalaureate, master's, and professional level degree attainment.152114

       The degree attainment funding shall be allocated to 152115
universities in proportion to each campus's share of the total 152116
statewide degrees granted, weighted by the cost of the degree 152117
programs. The degree cost calculations shall include the model 152118
cost weights for the science, technology, engineering, 152119
mathematics, and medicine models as established in division (C) of 152120
this section.152121

       For degrees including credits earned at multiple 152122
institutions, in fiscal year 2015, degree attainment funding shall 152123
be allocated to universities and branch campuses in proportion to 152124
each campus's share of the cost of earned credits for the degree. 152125
Each institution shall receive its prorated share of degree 152126
funding for credits earned at that institution. Cost of credits 152127
not earned at a university main or regional campus shall be 152128
credited to the degree-granting institution.152129

       In calculating the subsidy entitlements for degree attainment 152130
at university main and regional campuses, the Chancellor of the 152131
Board of Regents shall use the following count of degrees and 152132
degree costs:152133

       (a) The subsidy eligible undergraduate degrees shall be 152134
defined as follows:152135

       (i) The subsidy eligible degrees conferred to students 152136
identified as residents of the state of Ohio in any term of their 152137
studies, as reported through the Higher Education Information 152138
(HEI) system student enrollment file, shall be weighted by a 152139
factor of 1.152140

       (ii) The subsidy eligible degrees conferred to students 152141
identified as out-of-state residents during all terms of their 152142
studies, as reported through the Higher Education Information 152143
(HEI) system student enrollment file, who remain in the state of 152144
Ohio at least one year after graduation, as calculated based on 152145
the three-year average in-state residency rate for out-of-state 152146
students at each institution, shall be weighted by a factor of 50 152147
per cent. For fiscal year 2014, subsidy eligible degrees conferred 152148
to all out-of-state students shall be weighted by a factor of 25 152149
per cent.152150

       (b) In fiscal year 2014, for those associate degrees awarded 152151
by a state-supported university, the subsidy eligible degrees 152152
granted are defined as only those earned by students attending a 152153
university that received funding under GRF appropriation item 152154
235418, Access Challenge, in fiscal year 2009. In fiscal year 152155
2015, subsidy eligible associate degrees are defined as those 152156
earned by students attending any state-supported university main 152157
or regional campus.152158

       (c) In calculating each campus's count of degrees, the 152159
Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall use the three-year 152160
average associate, baccalaureate, master's, and professional 152161
degrees awarded for the three-year period ending in the prior 152162
year. In fiscal year 2014, university regional campuses are not 152163
eligible for degree completion funding. In fiscal year 2015, all 152164
university campuses are eligible for degree completion funding.152165

       (d) For fiscal year 2014, eligible associate degrees defined 152166
in division (D)(6)(b) of this section and all bachelor's degrees 152167
earned by a student that either had an expected family 152168
contribution less than 2190, was determined to have been in need 152169
of remedial education, is Native American, African American, or 152170
Hispanic, or is at least age 26 at the time of graduation, shall 152171
be defined as degrees earned by an at-risk student and shall be 152172
weighted by the following:152173

        (i) A campus-specific at-risk index, where the index is 152174
calculated based on the proportion of at-risk students enrolled 152175
during a four-year cohort beginning in fiscal year 2001, 2002, 152176
2003, or 2004; and152177

       (ii) A statewide average at-risk degree completion weight 152178
determined by calculating the difference between the percentage of 152179
non-at-risk students who earned a degree and the percentage of 152180
at-risk students who earned a degree in eight years or less.152181

       (e) For fiscal year 2015, eligible associate degrees defined 152182
in division (D)(6)(b) of this section and all bachelor's degrees 152183
earned by a student that either had an expected family 152184
contribution less than 2190, was determined to be in need of 152185
remedial education, is Native American, African American, or 152186
Hispanic, or is at least 26 years of age at the time of 152187
graduation, shall be defined as degrees earned by an at-risk 152188
student and shall be weighted by the following:152189

        A student-specific degree completion weight, where the weight 152190
is calculated based on the at risk factors of the individual 152191
student, determined by calculating the difference between the 152192
percentage of students with each risk factor who earned a degree 152193
and the percentage of non-at-risk students who earned a degree.152194

       (7) State share of instruction base formula earnings shall be 152195
determined as follows:152196

       (a) The instructional costs shall be determined by 152197
multiplying the amounts listed above in divisions (B) and (C) of 152198
this section by the average subsidy-eligible FTEs for the 152199
three-year period ending in the prior year for all models except 152200
Doctoral I and Doctoral II.152201

       (b) The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall compute a 152202
uniform state share of instructional costs for each sector.152203

       (i) For the state-supported community colleges, state 152204
community colleges, and technical colleges, in fiscal year 2014 152205
the Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall compute the uniform 152206
state share of instructional costs for enrollment by dividing the 152207
sector level appropriation total as determined by the Chancellor 152208
in division (A)(1) of the section of this act entitled "STATE 152209
SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FOR FISCAL YEARS 2014 AND 2015," and adjusted 152210
pursuant to divisions (B) and (C) of that section, less the 152211
student college success allocation as described in division (D)(1) 152212
of this section and less the course completion allocation as 152213
detailed in division (D)(2) of this section, by the sum of all 152214
eligible campuses' instructional costs as calculated in division 152215
(D)(7)(b) of this section.152216

       (ii) For the state-supported university regional campuses, in 152217
fiscal year 2014 the Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall 152218
compute the uniform state share of instructional costs by dividing 152219
the sector level appropriation, as determined by the Chancellor in 152220
division (A)(2) of the section of this act entitled "STATE SHARE 152221
OF INSTRUCTION FOR FISCAL YEARS 2014 AND 2015," and adjusted 152222
pursuant to division (B) of that section by the sum of all 152223
campuses' instructional costs as calculated in division (D)(7)(b) 152224
of this section.152225

       (iii) For the state-supported university main campuses, in 152226
fiscal year 2014 the Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall 152227
compute the uniform state share of instructional costs by dividing 152228
the sector level appropriation, as determined by the Chancellor in 152229
division (A)(3) of the section of this act entitled "STATE SHARE 152230
OF INSTRUCTION FOR FISCAL YEARS 2014 AND 2015," and adjusted 152231
pursuant to division (B) of that section, less the degree 152232
attainment funding as calculated in divisions (D)(3) to (6) of 152233
this section, less the doctoral set-aside, less the medical I 152234
set-aside, and less the medical II set-aside, by the sum of all 152235
campuses' instructional costs as calculated in division (D)(7)(b) 152236
of this section. 152237

       (iv) For the state university regional and main campuses, in 152238
fiscal year 2015 the Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall 152239
compute the uniform state share of instructional costs by dividing 152240
the university appropriation, as determined by the Chancellor in 152241
division (A)(3) of the section of this act entitled "STATE SHARE 152242
OF INSTRUCTION FOR FISCAL YEARS 2014 AND 2015," and adjusted 152243
pursuant to division (B) of that section, less the degree 152244
attainment funding as calculated in divisions (D)(3) to (6) of 152245
this section, less the doctoral set-aside, less the medical I 152246
set-aside, and less the medical II set-aside, by the sum of all 152247
campuses' instructional costs as calculated in division (D)(7)(b) 152248
of this section. 152249

       (c) The formula entitlement shall be determined by 152250
multiplying the uniform state share of instructional costs 152251
calculated in division (D)(7)(c) of this section by the 152252
instructional cost determined in division (D)(7)(b) of this 152253
section.152254

       (8) In addition to the student success allocation, doctoral 152255
set-aside, medical I set-aside, medical II set-aside, and the 152256
degree attainment allocation determined in divisions (D)(1) to (6) 152257
of this section and the formula entitlement determined in division 152258
(D)(7) of this section, an allocation based on facility-based 152259
plant operations and maintenance (POM) subsidy shall be made. For 152260
each eligible university main campus, the amount of the POM 152261
allocation in each fiscal year shall be distributed based on what 152262
each campus received in the fiscal year 2009 POM allocation.152263

       Any POM allocations required by this division shall be funded 152264
by proportionately reducing formula entitlement earnings, 152265
including the POM allocations, for all campuses in that sector.152266

       (9) STABILITY IN STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FUNDING FOR 152267
COMMUNITY, STATE COMMUNITY, AND TECHNICAL COLLEGES152268

       In addition to and after the adjustments noted above, in 152269
fiscal year 2014, no community college, state community college, 152270
or technical college shall receive a state share of instruction 152271
allocation that is less than 97 per cent of the prior year's state 152272
share of instruction earnings. Funds shall be made available to 152273
support this allocation by proportionately reducing formula 152274
entitlement earnings from those campuses, within the community, 152275
state community, and technical college sector, that are not 152276
receiving stability funding. 152277

       (10) CAPITAL COMPONENT DEDUCTION152278

       After all other adjustments have been made, state share of 152279
instruction earnings shall be reduced for each campus by the 152280
amount, if any, by which debt service charged in Am. H.B. 748 of 152281
the 121st General Assembly, Am. Sub. H.B. 850 of the 122nd General 152282
Assembly, Am. Sub. H.B. 640 of the 123rd General Assembly, H.B. 152283
675 of the 124th General Assembly, Am. Sub. H.B. 16 of the 126th 152284
General Assembly, Am. Sub. H.B. 699 of the 126th General Assembly, 152285
Am. Sub. H.B. 496 of the 127th General Assembly, and Am. Sub. H.B. 152286
562 of the 127th General Assembly for that campus exceeds that 152287
campus's capital component earnings. The sum of the amounts 152288
deducted shall be transferred to appropriation item 235552, 152289
Capital Component, in each fiscal year.152290

       (E) EXCEPTIONAL CIRCUMSTANCES152291

       Adjustments may be made to the state share of instruction 152292
payments and other subsidies distributed by the Chancellor of the 152293
Board of Regents to state colleges and universities for 152294
exceptional circumstances. No adjustments for exceptional 152295
circumstances may be made without the recommendation of the 152296
Chancellor and the approval of the Controlling Board.152297

       (F) APPROPRIATION REDUCTIONS TO THE STATE SHARE OF 152298
INSTRUCTION152299

       The standard provisions of the state share of instruction 152300
calculation as described in the preceding sections of temporary 152301
law shall apply to any reductions made to appropriation item 152302
235501, State Share of Instruction, before the Chancellor of the 152303
Board of Regents has formally approved the final allocation of the 152304
state share of instruction funds for any fiscal year.152305

       Any reductions made to appropriation item 235501, State Share 152306
of Instruction, after the Chancellor of the Board of Regents has 152307
formally approved the final allocation of the state share of 152308
instruction funds for any fiscal year, shall be uniformly applied 152309
to each campus in proportion to its share of the final allocation.152310

       (G) DISTRIBUTION OF STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION152311

       The state share of instruction payments to the institutions 152312
shall be in substantially equal monthly amounts during the fiscal 152313
year, unless otherwise determined by the Director of Budget and 152314
Management pursuant to section 126.09 of the Revised Code. 152315
Payments during the first six months of the fiscal year shall be 152316
based upon the state share of instruction appropriation estimates 152317
made for the various institutions of higher education according to 152318
the Chancellor of the Board of Regents enrollment, completion, and 152319
performance estimates. Payments during the last six months of the 152320
fiscal year shall be distributed after approval of the Controlling 152321
Board upon the request of the Chancellor.152322

       (H) STUDIES TO DETERMINE IMPROVEMENTS TO THE FISCAL YEAR 2015 152323
STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FORMULAS152324

       (1) STUDY ON IDENTIFYING "AT-RISK" STUDENTS FOR COMMUNITY 152325
COLLEGES152326

       Community college presidents, or their designees, in 152327
consultation with the Chancellor of the Board of Regents, shall 152328
study the most appropriate formula weights for students who come 152329
from "at-risk" populations and recommend how they may be used to 152330
determine allocations of appropriations to community colleges from 152331
appropriation item 235501, State Share of Instruction, in fiscal 152332
year 2015. The study shall identify the socio-economic, 152333
demographic, academic, personal, and other factors that identify a 152334
student as being "at-risk" of academic failure, and recommend how 152335
these factors may be used to determine allocations of the State 152336
Share of Instruction for community colleges in fiscal year 2015. 152337
The study shall be completed by December 31, 2013. Notwithstanding 152338
any provision of law to the contrary, community college 152339
presidents, or their designees, in consultation with the 152340
Chancellor of the Board of Regents, shall use the results of the 152341
study to recommend changes in the determination of the 152342
distribution of the community college allocations beginning in 152343
fiscal year 2015 and shall report any such formula change 152344
recommendations to the Governor, the General Assembly, and the 152345
Office of Budget and Management not later than February 15, 2014.152346

       (2) STUDY ON THE USE OF SUCCESS POINTS AND COMPLETION 152347
MEASURES FOR COMMUNITY COLLEGES152348

       Community college presidents, or their designees, in 152349
consultation with the Chancellor of the Board of Regents, shall 152350
study the most appropriate formula weights for the "success 152351
points" and completion performance measures used in the allocation 152352
of appropriations to community colleges from appropriation item 152353
235501, State Share of Instruction, in fiscal year 2015. The study 152354
shall research the most appropriate success points and completion 152355
measures that occur during the academic career of community 152356
college students and recommend revisions to the current State 152357
Share of Instruction model to fund achievement of the success 152358
points beginning in fiscal year 2015. In addition, community 152359
college presidents, or their designees, in consultation with the 152360
Chancellor of the Board of Regents, shall determine how the 152361
community college's fiscal year 2015 share of State Share of 152362
Instruction funding shall be distributed among its success points, 152363
completion measures and course completion funding, or other 152364
performance and access measures. The study shall be completed by 152365
December 31, 2013. Notwithstanding any provision of law to the 152366
contrary, community college presidents, or their designees, in 152367
consultation with the Chancellor of the Board of Regents, shall 152368
use the results of the study to recommend changes in the 152369
determination of the distribution of the community college 152370
allocations beginning in fiscal year 2015 and shall report any 152371
such formula change recommendations to the Governor, the General 152372
Assembly, and the Office of Budget and Management not later than 152373
February 15, 2014.152374

       Section 363.200. STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FOR FISCAL YEARS 152375
2014 AND 2015152376

       (A) The foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share of 152377
Instruction, shall be distributed according to the section of this 152378
act entitled "STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FORMULAS."152379

       (1) Of the foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share 152380
of Instruction, $411,257,477 in fiscal year 2014 and $419,101,428 152381
in fiscal year 2015 shall be distributed to state-supported 152382
community colleges, state community colleges, and technical 152383
colleges. 152384

       (2) Of the foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share 152385
of Instruction, $1,372,968,020 in fiscal year 2014 and 152386
$1,399,124,069 in fiscal year 2015 shall be distributed to 152387
state-supported university main and regional campuses.152388

       (B) Of the amounts earmarked in division (A)(2) of this 152389
section:152390

       (1) $116,181,104 in fiscal year 2014 shall be distributed to 152391
state university regional campuses.152392

       (2) $3,923,764 in each fiscal year shall be distributed to 152393
university main campuses based on each campus's share of the 152394
appropriation item 235418, Access Challenge, in fiscal year 2009. 152395

       (C) The POM adjustment in division (D)(7) of the section of 152396
this act entitled "STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION FORMULAS" and the 152397
Access Challenge earmark in division (B) of this section shall 152398
expire on June 30, 2015.152399

       (D) The state share of instruction payments to the 152400
institutions shall be in substantially equal monthly amounts 152401
during the fiscal year, unless otherwise determined by the 152402
Director of Budget and Management pursuant to section 126.09 of 152403
the Revised Code. Payments during the last six months of the 152404
fiscal year shall be distributed after approval of the Controlling 152405
Board upon the request of the Chancellor of the Board of Regents.152406

       Section 363.210. TRANSFER OF INSTRUCTIONAL SUBSIDIES BETWEEN 152407
UNIVERSITIES152408

       Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, in 152409
consultation with the Chancellor of the Board of Regents, a 152410
state-supported university may request to transfer its fiscal year 152411
2014 state share of instruction subsidy allocations of the 152412
foregoing appropriation item 235501, State Share of Instruction, 152413
between a university main campus and any university branch campus 152414
for which the university main campus is affiliated to best 152415
accomplish institutional goals and objectives. At the request of 152416
the Chancellor of the Board of Regents, the Director of Budget and 152417
Management may transfer the requested amounts of state share of 152418
instruction appropriation allocations between affiliated 152419
university branch campuses and university main campuses.152420

       Section 363.213. STATE SHARE OF INSTRUCTION BRIDGE FUNDING152421

       The foregoing appropriation item 235505, State Share of 152422
Instruction Bridge Funding, shall be used by the Chancellor to 152423
supplement each campus receiving a State Share of Instruction 152424
allocation in fiscal year 2014 that is lower than that campus's 152425
State Share of Instruction allocation in fiscal year 2013.152426

       (A) For fiscal year 2014, the Chancellor shall pay temporary 152427
allocations from the foregoing appropriation item 235505, State 152428
Share of Instruction Bridge Funding, to any campus that 152429
experiences any decrease in its State Share of Instruction 152430
funding.152431

        (1) The amount of the temporary allocation payments for all 152432
state institution campuses except Central State University and 152433
Shawnee State University shall be equal to the difference between 152434
the campus's State Share of Instruction funding allocation for 152435
fiscal year 2013, as determined under the formula detailed in 152436
sections 371.20.50 and 371.20.60 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th 152437
General Assembly, and the campus's State Share of Instruction 152438
funding allocation for fiscal year 2014, as determined under the 152439
formula detailed in sections 363.190 and 363.200 of this act. If 152440
the computation made under this division results in a negative 152441
number, the campus's payment under this division shall be zero.152442

        (2) The amount of the temporary allocation payments for 152443
Central State University shall be equal to the difference between 152444
(a) Central State University's State Share of Instruction funding 152445
allocation for fiscal year 2013, as determined under the State 152446
Share of Instruction formula detailed in sections 371.20.50 and 152447
371.20.60 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly, 152448
combined with the fiscal year 2013 appropriation for appropriation 152449
item 235514, Central State Supplement, in section 371.10 of Am. 152450
Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly, and (b) Central State 152451
University's State Share of Instruction funding allocation for 152452
fiscal year 2014, as determined under the formula detailed in 152453
sections 363.190 and 363.200 of this act, combined with the fiscal 152454
year 2014 appropriation for the foregoing appropriation item 152455
235514, Central State Supplement. If the computation made under 152456
this division results in a negative number, Central State 152457
University's payment under this division shall be zero.152458

        (3) The amount of the temporary allocation payments for 152459
Shawnee State University shall be equal to the difference between 152460
(a) Shawnee State University's State Share of Instruction funding 152461
allocation for fiscal year 2013, as determined under the State 152462
Share of Instruction formula detailed in sections 371.20.50 and 152463
371.20.60 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly, 152464
combined with the fiscal year 2013 appropriation for appropriation 152465
item 235520, Shawnee State Supplement, in section 371.10 of Am. 152466
Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly, and (b) Shawnee State 152467
University's State Share of Instruction funding allocation for 152468
fiscal year 2014, as determined under the formula detailed in 152469
sections 363.190 and 363.200 of this act, combined with the fiscal 152470
year 2014 appropriation for the foregoing appropriation item 152471
235514, Shawnee State Supplement. If the computation made under 152472
this division results in a negative number, Shawnee State 152473
University's payment under this division shall be zero.152474

        (B) In each fiscal year, the Chancellor shall not distribute 152475
an amount greater than what is appropriated under the foregoing 152476
appropriation item 235505, State Share of Instruction Bridge 152477
Funding. If the Chancellor determines that the amounts 152478
appropriated for support of the State Share of Instruction Bridge 152479
Funding program are inadequate to provide full temporary 152480
allocation payments to all eligible campuses, the Chancellor shall 152481
proportionally reduce payment amounts.152482

       Section 363.220. RESTRICTION ON FEE INCREASES152483

       The boards of trustees of state institutions of higher 152484
education shall restrain increases in in-state undergraduate 152485
instructional and general fees. Each state university and the 152486
Northeast Ohio Medical University shall not increase its in-state 152487
undergraduate instructional and general fees by more than 2.0 per 152488
cent or $188, whichever is higher, over what the institution 152489
charged for the preceding academic year.152490

       Each university regional campus shall not increase its 152491
in-state undergraduate instructional and general fees by more than 152492
2.0 per cent or $114, whichever is higher, over what the 152493
institution charged for the preceding academic year.152494

       Each community college, state community college, and 152495
technical college shall not increase its in-state undergraduate 152496
instructional and general fees by more than $100 over what the 152497
institution charged for the preceding academic year.152498

       These limitations shall not apply to increases required to 152499
comply with institutional covenants related to their obligations 152500
or to meet unfunded legal mandates or legally binding obligations 152501
incurred or commitments made prior to the effective date of this 152502
section with respect to which the institution had identified such 152503
fee increases as the source of funds. Any increase required by 152504
such covenants and any such mandates, obligations, or commitments 152505
shall be reported by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents to the 152506
Controlling Board. These limitations may also be modified by the 152507
Chancellor of the Board of Regents, with the approval of the 152508
Controlling Board, to respond to exceptional circumstances as 152509
identified by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents. 152510

       These limitations shall not apply to institutions 152511
participating in an undergraduate tuition guarantee program 152512
pursuant to section 3345.48 of the Revised Code.152513

       Section 363.230. HIGHER EDUCATION - BOARD OF TRUSTEES152514

       (A) Funds appropriated for instructional subsidies at 152515
colleges and universities may be used to provide such branch or 152516
other off-campus undergraduate courses of study and such master's 152517
degree courses of study as may be approved by the Chancellor of 152518
the Board of Regents.152519

       (B) In providing instructional and other services to 152520
students, boards of trustees of state institutions of higher 152521
education shall supplement state subsidies with income from 152522
charges to students. Except as otherwise provided in this act, 152523
each board shall establish the fees to be charged to all students, 152524
including an instructional fee for educational and associated 152525
operational support of the institution and a general fee for 152526
noninstructional services, including locally financed student 152527
services facilities used for the benefit of enrolled students. The 152528
instructional fee and the general fee shall encompass all charges 152529
for services assessed uniformly to all enrolled students. Each 152530
board may also establish special purpose fees, service charges, 152531
and fines as required; such special purpose fees and service 152532
charges shall be for services or benefits furnished individual 152533
students or specific categories of students and shall not be 152534
applied uniformly to all enrolled students. A tuition surcharge 152535
shall be paid by all students who are not residents of Ohio.152536

       The board of trustees of a state institution of higher 152537
education shall not authorize a waiver or nonpayment of 152538
instructional fees or general fees for any particular student or 152539
any class of students other than waivers specifically authorized 152540
by law or approved by the Chancellor. This prohibition is not 152541
intended to limit the authority of boards of trustees to provide 152542
for payments to students for services rendered the institution, 152543
nor to prohibit the budgeting of income for staff benefits or for 152544
student assistance in the form of payment of such instructional 152545
and general fees.152546

       Each state institution of higher education in its statement 152547
of charges to students shall separately identify the instructional 152548
fee, the general fee, the tuition charge, and the tuition 152549
surcharge. Fee charges to students for instruction shall not be 152550
considered to be a price of service but shall be considered to be 152551
an integral part of the state government financing program in 152552
support of higher educational opportunity for students.152553

       (C) The boards of trustees of state institutions of higher 152554
education shall ensure that faculty members devote a proper and 152555
judicious part of their work week to the actual instruction of 152556
students. Total class credit hours of production per academic term 152557
per full-time faculty member is expected to meet the standards set 152558
forth in the budget data submitted by the Chancellor of the Board 152559
of Regents.152560

       (D) The authority of government vested by law in the boards 152561
of trustees of state institutions of higher education shall in 152562
fact be exercised by those boards. Boards of trustees may consult 152563
extensively with appropriate student and faculty groups. 152564
Administrative decisions about the utilization of available 152565
resources, about organizational structure, about disciplinary 152566
procedure, about the operation and staffing of all auxiliary 152567
facilities, and about administrative personnel shall be the 152568
exclusive prerogative of boards of trustees. Any delegation of 152569
authority by a board of trustees in other areas of responsibility 152570
shall be accompanied by appropriate standards of guidance 152571
concerning expected objectives in the exercise of such delegated 152572
authority and shall be accompanied by periodic review of the 152573
exercise of this delegated authority to the end that the public 152574
interest, in contrast to any institutional or special interest, 152575
shall be served.152576

       Section 363.240. STUDENT SUPPORT SERVICES152577

       The foregoing appropriation item 235502, Student Support 152578
Services, shall be distributed by the Chancellor of the Board of 152579
Regents to Ohio's state colleges and universities that incur 152580
disproportionate costs in the provision of support services to 152581
disabled students.152582

       Section 363.250. WAR ORPHANS SCHOLARSHIPS152583

       The foregoing appropriation item 235504, War Orphans 152584
Scholarships, shall be used to reimburse state institutions of 152585
higher education for waivers of instructional fees and general 152586
fees provided by them, to provide grants to institutions that have 152587
received a certificate of authorization from the Chancellor of the 152588
Board of Regents under Chapter 1713. of the Revised Code, in 152589
accordance with the provisions of section 5910.04 of the Revised 152590
Code, and to fund additional scholarship benefits provided by 152591
section 5910.032 of the Revised Code.152592

       Section 363.253. OHIO STRATEGIC TRAINING CENTER152593

       The foregoing appropriation item 235506, Ohio Strategic 152594
Training Center, shall be used for a demonstration project to 152595
purchase portable welding stations made from large shipping 152596
containers and high level advanced training equipment for use at 152597
the Point Industrial Park in South Point.152598

       Section 363.260. OHIOLINK152599

       The foregoing appropriation item 235507, OhioLINK, shall be 152600
used by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents to support 152601
OhioLINK, a consortium organized under division (T) of section 152602
3333.04 of the Revised Code to serve as the state's electronic 152603
library information and retrieval system, which provides access 152604
statewide to an extensive set of electronic databases and 152605
resources, the library holdings of Ohio's public and participating 152606
private nonprofit colleges and universities, and the State Library 152607
of Ohio.152608

       Section 363.270. AIR FORCE INSTITUTE OF TECHNOLOGY152609

       The foregoing appropriation item 235508, Air Force Institute 152610
of Technology, shall be used to: (A) strengthen the research and 152611
educational linkages between the Wright Patterson Air Force Base 152612
and institutions of higher education in Ohio; and (B) support the 152613
Dayton Area Graduate Studies Institute, an engineering graduate 152614
consortium of Wright State University, the University of Dayton, 152615
and the Air Force Institute of Technology, with the participation 152616
of the University of Cincinnati and The Ohio State University. 152617

       Section 363.280. OHIO SUPERCOMPUTER CENTER152618

       The foregoing appropriation item 235510, Ohio Supercomputer 152619
Center, shall be used by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents to 152620
support the operation of the Ohio Supercomputer Center, a 152621
consortium organized under division (T) of section 3333.04 of the 152622
Revised Code, located at The Ohio State University. The Ohio 152623
Supercomputer Center is a statewide resource available to Ohio 152624
research universities both public and private. It is also intended 152625
that the center be made accessible to private industry as 152626
appropriate.152627

       Funds shall be used, in part, to support the Ohio 152628
Supercomputer Center's Computational Science Initiative, which 152629
includes its industrial outreach program, Blue Collar Computing, 152630
and its School of Computational Science. These collaborations 152631
between the Ohio Supercomputer Center and Ohio's colleges and 152632
universities shall be aimed at making Ohio a leader in using 152633
computer modeling to promote economic development.152634

       Section 363.290. COOPERATIVE EXTENSION SERVICE152635

       The foregoing appropriation item 235511, Cooperative 152636
Extension Service, shall be disbursed through the Chancellor of 152637
the Board of Regents to The Ohio State University in monthly 152638
payments, unless otherwise determined by the Director of Budget 152639
and Management under section 126.09 of the Revised Code.152640

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235511, Cooperative 152641
Extension Service, up to $30,000 in fiscal year 2014 shall be used 152642
to develop an in-school agriculturally based curriculum for 152643
inclusion within the regular classroom curriculum of an elementary 152644
school in the Cleveland Municipal School District and the 152645
Cincinnati City School District.152646

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 235511, Cooperative 152647
Extension Service, up to $73,450 in each fiscal year shall be used 152648
to support a City of Cleveland Program Manager tasked with 152649
preparing regular classroom teachers in one elementary school to 152650
recruit and train volunteers for an after-school 4-H Club.152651

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 235511, Cooperative 152652
Extension Service, $73,450 in each fiscal year shall be used to 152653
support a City of Cincinnati Program Manager tasked with preparing 152654
regular classroom teachers in one elementary school to recruit and 152655
train volunteers for an after-school 4-H Club.152656

       Section 363.300. CENTRAL STATE SUPPLEMENT152657

       The foregoing appropriation item 235514, Central State 152658
Supplement, shall be disbursed by the Chancellor of the Board of 152659
Regents to Central State University in accordance with the plan 152660
developed by the Chancellor and submitted to the Governor and the 152661
General Assembly as directed by Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th 152662
General Assembly. Funds shall be used in a manner consistent with 152663
the goals of increasing enrollment, improving course completion, 152664
and increasing the number of degrees conferred.152665

        The Chancellor shall monitor the implementation of the plan 152666
and the use of funds. Central State University shall provide any 152667
information requested by the Chancellor related to the 152668
implementation of the plan. If the Chancellor determines that 152669
Central State University's use of supplemental funds is not in 152670
accordance with the plan or if the plan is not having the desired 152671
effect, the Chancellor may notify Central State University that 152672
the plan is suspended. Upon receiving such notice, Central State 152673
University shall avoid all unnecessary expenditures under the 152674
plan. The Chancellor shall notify the Controlling Board of the 152675
suspension of the plan and within sixty days prepare a new plan 152676
for the use of any remaining funds.152677

       Section 363.310. CASE WESTERN RESERVE UNIVERSITY SCHOOL OF 152678
MEDICINE152679

       The foregoing appropriation item 235515, Case Western Reserve 152680
University School of Medicine, shall be disbursed to Case Western 152681
Reserve University through the Chancellor of the Board of Regents 152682
in accordance with agreements entered into under section 3333.10 152683
of the Revised Code, provided that the state support per full-time 152684
medical student shall not exceed that provided to full-time 152685
medical students at state universities.152686

       Section 363.320. FAMILY PRACTICE152687

       The Chancellor of the Ohio Board of Regents shall develop 152688
plans consistent with existing criteria and guidelines as may be 152689
required for the distribution of appropriation item 235519, Family 152690
Practice.152691

       Section 363.330. SHAWNEE STATE SUPPLEMENT152692

       The foregoing appropriation item 235520, Shawnee State 152693
Supplement, shall be disbursed by the Chancellor of the Board of 152694
Regents to Shawnee State University in accordance with the plan 152695
developed by the Chancellor and submitted to the Governor and the 152696
General Assembly as directed by Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th 152697
General Assembly. Funds shall be used in a manner consistent with 152698
the goals of improving course completion, increasing the number of 152699
degrees conferred, and furthering the university's mission of 152700
service to the Appalachian region.152701

        The Chancellor shall monitor the implementation of the plan 152702
and the use of funds. Shawnee State University shall provide any 152703
information requested by the Chancellor related to the 152704
implementation of the plan. If the Chancellor determines that 152705
Shawnee State University's use of supplemental funds is not in 152706
accordance with the plan or if the plan is not having the desired 152707
effect, the Chancellor may notify Shawnee State University that 152708
the plan is suspended. Upon receiving such notice, Shawnee State 152709
University shall avoid all unnecessary expenditures under the 152710
plan. The Chancellor shall notify the Controlling Board of the 152711
suspension of the plan and within sixty days prepare a new plan 152712
for the use of any remaining funds.152713

       Section 363.333. YOUTH STEM COMMERCIALIZATION AND 152714
ENTREPRENEURSHIP PROGRAM152715

       The foregoing appropriation item 235523, Youth STEM 152716
Commercialization and Entrepreneurship Program, shall be used by 152717
the Chancellor of the Ohio Board of Regents to support the Youth 152718
STEM Commercialization and Entrepreneurship Program. The purpose 152719
of this program is to grow Ohio's next generation of 152720
entrepreneurs, to create jobs in Ohio by focusing on the practical 152721
application of science, technology, engineering, and mathematics 152722
(STEM), including medicine and health fields, and to innovate new 152723
products and services. The Youth STEM Commercialization and 152724
Entrepreneurship Program shall (1) conduct regional STEM forums 152725
for students and educators; (2) develop regional online high 152726
school and collegiate STEM commercialization and entrepreneurship 152727
content and courses; (3) create a statewide STEM commercialization 152728
and entrepreneurship mentoring network available to high school 152729
students anywhere in Ohio; and (4) conduct a statewide STEM 152730
Commercialization and Entrepreneurship Plan competition that 152731
includes incentive awards and scholarships for students and 152732
professional development and incentives for teacher participation. 152733
The competition and all aspects of the program shall be open to 152734
any Ohio high school student and shall include initiatives to 152735
engage minority, rural, and economically disadvantaged students 152736
anywhere in Ohio. The Youth STEM Commercialization and 152737
Entrepreneurship Program shall collaborate with Ohio's colleges 152738
and universities, existing STEM and entrepreneurship programs, and 152739
Ohio's STEM professional and trade associations to implement these 152740
provisions and to create the new products or services of the 152741
future, advance job creation in Ohio, and encourage enrollment at 152742
Ohio institutions of higher education.152743

       Section 363.340. POLICE AND FIRE PROTECTION152744

       The foregoing appropriation item 235524, Police and Fire 152745
Protection, shall be used for police and fire services in the 152746
municipalities of Kent, Athens, Oxford, Fairborn, Bowling Green, 152747
Portsmouth, Xenia Township (Greene County), Rootstown Township, 152748
and the City of Nelsonville that may be used to assist these local 152749
governments in providing police and fire protection for the 152750
central campus of the state-affiliated university located therein. 152751

       Section 363.350. GERIATRIC MEDICINE152752

       The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall develop plans 152753
consistent with existing criteria and guidelines as may be 152754
required for the distribution of appropriation item 235525, 152755
Geriatric Medicine.152756

       Section 363.360. PRIMARY CARE RESIDENCIES152757

       The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall develop plans 152758
consistent with existing criteria and guidelines as may be 152759
required for the distribution of appropriation item 235526, 152760
Primary Care Residencies.152761

       The foregoing appropriation item 235526, Primary Care 152762
Residencies, shall be distributed in each fiscal year of the 152763
biennium, based on whether or not the institution has submitted 152764
and gained approval for a plan. If the institution does not have 152765
an approved plan, it shall receive five per cent less funding per 152766
student than it would have received from its annual allocation. 152767
The remaining funding shall be distributed among those 152768
institutions that meet or exceed their targets.152769

       Section 363.370. OHIO AGRICULTURAL RESEARCH AND DEVELOPMENT 152770
CENTER152771

       The foregoing appropriation item 235535, Ohio Agricultural 152772
Research and Development Center, shall be disbursed through the 152773
Chancellor of the Board of Regents to The Ohio State University in 152774
monthly payments, unless otherwise determined by the Director of 152775
Budget and Management under section 126.09 of the Revised Code. 152776
The Ohio Agricultural Research and Development Center shall not be 152777
required to remit payment to The Ohio State University during the 152778
biennium ending June 30, 2015, for cost reallocation assessments. 152779
The cost reallocation assessments include, but are not limited to, 152780
any assessment on state appropriations to the Center.152781

       The Ohio Agricultural Research and Development Center, an 152782
entity of the College of Food, Agricultural, and Environmental 152783
Sciences of The Ohio State University, shall further its mission 152784
of enhancing Ohio's economic development and job creation by 152785
continuing to internally allocate on a competitive basis 152786
appropriated funding of programs based on demonstrated 152787
performance. Academic units, faculty, and faculty-driven programs 152788
shall be evaluated and rewarded consistent with agreed-upon 152789
performance expectations as called for in the College's 152790
Expectations and Criteria for Performance Assessment.152791

       Section 363.380. STATE UNIVERSITY CLINICAL TEACHING152792

       The foregoing appropriation items 235536, The Ohio State 152793
University Clinical Teaching; 235537, University of Cincinnati 152794
Clinical Teaching; 235538, University of Toledo Clinical Teaching; 152795
235539, Wright State University Clinical Teaching; 235540, Ohio 152796
University Clinical Teaching; and 235541, Northeast Ohio Medical 152797
University Clinical Teaching, shall be distributed through the 152798
Chancellor of the Board of Regents.152799

       Section 363.390. CAPITAL COMPONENT152800

       The foregoing appropriation item 235552, Capital Component, 152801
shall be used by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents to provide 152802
funding for prior commitments made pursuant to the state's former 152803
capital funding policy for state colleges and universities that 152804
was originally established in Am. H.B. 748 of the 121st General 152805
Assembly. Appropriations from this item shall be distributed to 152806
all campuses for which the estimated campus debt service 152807
attributable to qualifying capital projects was less than the 152808
campus's formula-determined capital component allocation. Campus 152809
allocations shall be determined by subtracting the estimated 152810
campus debt service attributable to qualifying capital projects 152811
from the campus's formula-determined capital component allocation. 152812
Moneys distributed from this appropriation item shall be 152813
restricted to capital-related purposes.152814

       Any campus for which the estimated campus debt service 152815
attributable to qualifying capital projects is greater than the 152816
campus's formula-determined capital component allocation shall 152817
have the difference subtracted from its State Share of Instruction 152818
allocation in each fiscal year. Appropriation equal to the sum of 152819
all such amounts except that of the Ohio Agricultural Research and 152820
Development Center shall be transferred from appropriation item 152821
235501, State Share of Instruction, to appropriation item 235552, 152822
Capital Component. Appropriation equal to any estimated Ohio 152823
Agricultural Research and Development Center debt service 152824
attributable to qualifying capital projects that is greater than 152825
the Center's formula-determined capital component allocation shall 152826
be transferred from appropriation item 235535, Ohio Agricultural 152827
Research and Development Center, to appropriation item 235552, 152828
Capital Component.152829

       Section 363.400. LIBRARY DEPOSITORIES152830

       The foregoing appropriation item, 235555, Library 152831
Depositories, shall be distributed to the state's five regional 152832
depository libraries for the cost-effective storage of and access 152833
to lesser-used materials in university library collections. The 152834
depositories shall be administrated by the Chancellor of the Board 152835
of Regents, or by OhioLINK at the discretion of the Chancellor.152836

       Section 363.410. OHIO ACADEMIC RESOURCES NETWORK (OARNET)152837

       The foregoing appropriation item 235556, Ohio Academic 152838
Resources Network, shall be used by the Chancellor of the Board of 152839
Regents to support the operations of the Ohio Academic Resources 152840
Network, a consortium organized under division (T) of section 152841
3333.04 of the Revised Code, which shall include support for 152842
Ohio's colleges and universities in maintaining and enhancing 152843
network connections, using new network technologies to improve 152844
research, education, and economic development programs, and 152845
sharing information technology services. To the extent network 152846
capacity is available, OARnet shall support allocating bandwidth 152847
to eligible programs directly supporting Ohio's economic 152848
development.152849

       Section 363.420. LONG-TERM CARE RESEARCH152850

       The foregoing appropriation item 235558, Long-term Care 152851
Research, shall be disbursed to Miami University for long-term 152852
care research.152853

       Section 363.430.  OHIO COLLEGE OPPORTUNITY GRANT152854

       (A) Except as provided in division (C) of this section:152855

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235563, Ohio College 152856
Opportunity Grant, $41,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be used 152857
by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents to award need-based 152858
financial aid to students enrolled in eligible four-year public 152859
institutions of higher education, excluding early college high 152860
school and post-secondary enrollment option participants.152861

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235563, Ohio College 152862
Opportunity Grant, $41,000,000 in each fiscal year shall be used 152863
by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents to award need-based 152864
financial aid to students enrolled in eligible private nonprofit 152865
institutions of higher education, excluding early college high 152866
school and post-secondary enrollment option participants.152867

       The remainder of the foregoing appropriation item 235563, 152868
Ohio College Opportunity Grant, shall be used by the Chancellor of 152869
the Board of Regents to award needs-based financial aid to 152870
students enrolled in eligible private for-profit career colleges 152871
and schools.152872

       (B)(1) As used in this section:152873

       (a) "Eligible institution" means any institution described in 152874
divisions (B)(2)(a) to (c) of section 3333.122 of the Revised 152875
Code.152876

       (b) The three "sectors" of institutions of higher education 152877
consist of the following:152878

       (i) State colleges and universities, community colleges, 152879
state community colleges, university branches, and technical 152880
colleges;152881

       (ii) Eligible private nonprofit institutions of higher 152882
education;152883

       (iii) Eligible private for-profit career colleges and 152884
schools.152885

       (2) If the Chancellor determines that the amounts 152886
appropriated for support of the Ohio College Opportunity Grant 152887
program are inadequate to provide grants to all eligible students 152888
as calculated under division (D) of section 3333.122 of the 152889
Revised Code, the Chancellor may create a distribution formula for 152890
fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015 based on the formula used in 152891
fiscal year 2013, or may follow methods established in division 152892
(C)(1)(a) or (b) of section 3333.122 of the Revised Code. The 152893
Chancellor shall notify the Controlling Board of the distribution 152894
method. Any formula calculated under this division shall be 152895
complete and established to coincide with the start of the 152896
2013-2014 academic year. 152897

       (C) Prior to determining the amount of funds available to 152898
award under this section and section 3333.122 of the Revised Code, 152899
the Chancellor shall use the foregoing appropriation item 235563, 152900
Ohio College Opportunity Grant, to pay for renewals or partial 152901
renewals of scholarships students receive under the Ohio Academic 152902
Scholarship Program under sections 3333.21 and 3333.22 of the 152903
Revised Code. In paying for scholarships under this division, the 152904
Chancellor shall deduct funds from the allocations made under 152905
division (A) of this section. Deductions shall be proportionate to 152906
the amounts allocated to each sector from the total amounts 152907
appropriated for each sector under the foregoing appropriation 152908
item 235563, Ohio College Opportunity Grant.152909

       In each fiscal year, with the exception of sections 3333.121 152910
and 3333.124 of the Revised Code and Section 363.530 of this act, 152911
the Chancellor shall not distribute or obligate or commit to be 152912
distributed an amount greater than what is appropriated under the 152913
foregoing appropriation item 235563, Ohio College Opportunity 152914
Grant.152915

       (D) The Chancellor shall establish, and post on the Ohio 152916
Board of Regents' web site, award tables based on any formulas 152917
created under division (B) of this section. The Chancellor shall 152918
notify students and institutions of any reductions in awards under 152919
this section.152920

        On or before August 31, 2013, the Chancellor of the Board of 152921
Regents shall submit award tables to the Controlling Board for the 152922
2013-2014 academic year and allocations of Ohio College 152923
Opportunity Grant awards not already specified in section 3333.122 152924
of the Revised Code.152925

       (E) Notwithstanding section 3333.122 of the Revised Code, no 152926
student shall be eligible to receive an Ohio College Opportunity 152927
Grant for more than ten semesters, fifteen quarters, or the 152928
equivalent of five academic years, less the number of semesters or 152929
quarters in which the student received an Ohio Instructional 152930
Grant.152931

       Section 363.440. THE OHIO STATE UNIVERSITY CLINIC SUPPORT152932

       The foregoing appropriation item 235572, The Ohio State 152933
University Clinic Support, shall be distributed through the 152934
Chancellor of the Board of Regents to The Ohio State University 152935
for support of dental and veterinary medicine clinics.152936

       Section 363.450. NATIONAL GUARD SCHOLARSHIP PROGRAM152937

       The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall disburse funds 152938
from appropriation item 235599, National Guard Scholarship 152939
Program. During each fiscal year, the Chancellor of the Board of 152940
Regents, within ten days of cancellation, may certify to the 152941
Director of Budget and Management the amount of canceled 152942
prior-year encumbrances in appropriation item 235599, National 152943
Guard Scholarship Program. Upon receipt of the certification, the 152944
Director of Budget and Management may transfer cash in an amount 152945
up to the amount certified from the General Revenue Fund to the 152946
National Guard Scholarship Reserve Fund (Fund 5BM0). The 152947
Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall seek Controlling Board 152948
approval to authorize additional expenditures for appropriation 152949
item 235623, National Guard Scholarship Reserve Fund. Upon 152950
approval of the Controlling Board, the additional amounts are 152951
hereby appropriated. The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall 152952
disburse funds from appropriation item 235623, National Guard 152953
Scholarship Reserve Fund.152954

       Section 363.460. PLEDGE OF FEES152955

       Any new pledge of fees, or new agreement for adjustment of 152956
fees, made in the biennium ending June 30, 2015, to secure bonds 152957
or notes of a state institution of higher education for a project 152958
for which bonds or notes were not outstanding on the effective 152959
date of this section shall be effective only after approval by the 152960
Chancellor of the Board of Regents, unless approved in a previous 152961
biennium.152962

       Section 363.470. HIGHER EDUCATION GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT 152963
SERVICE152964

       The foregoing appropriation item 235909, Higher Education 152965
General Obligation Debt Service, shall be used to pay all debt 152966
service and related financing costs at the times they are required 152967
to be made during the period from July 1, 2013, through June 30, 152968
2015, for obligations issued under sections 151.01 and 151.04 of 152969
the Revised Code.152970

       Section 363.480. SALES AND SERVICES152971

        The Chancellor of the Board of Regents is authorized to 152972
charge and accept payment for the provision of goods and services. 152973
Such charges shall be reasonably related to the cost of producing 152974
the goods and services. Except as otherwise provided by law, no 152975
charges may be levied for goods or services that are produced as 152976
part of the routine responsibilities or duties of the Chancellor. 152977
All revenues received by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents 152978
shall be deposited into Fund 4560, and may be used by the 152979
Chancellor of the Board of Regents to pay for the costs of 152980
producing the goods and services.152981

       Section 363.483.  CO-OP INTERNSHIP PROGRAM152982

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 152983
Program, $200,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 152984
Museum of Contemporary Art Cleveland fellowship program in 152985
collaboration with Cleveland State University.152986

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 152987
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used by the 152988
Chancellor of the Board of Regents to support the operations of 152989
Ohio University's Voinovich School.152990

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 152991
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year, shall be used by the 152992
Chancellor of the Board of Regents to support the operations of 152993
The Ohio State University's John Glenn School of Public Affairs.152994

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 152995
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 152996
Bliss Institute of Applied Politics at the University of Akron.152997

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 152998
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 152999
Center for Public Management and Regional Affairs at Miami 153000
University.153001

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 153002
Program, $150,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 153003
Washington Center Internship Program.153004

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 153005
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 153006
Ohio Center for the Advancement of Women in Public Service at the 153007
Maxine Goodman Levin College of Urban Affairs at Cleveland State 153008
University.153009

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 153010
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 153011
University of Cincinnati Internship Program.153012

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 153013
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used by the 153014
Chancellor of the Board of Regents to support the operations of 153015
the Center for Regional Development at Bowling Green State 153016
University.153017

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 153018
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used by the 153019
Chancellor of the Board of Regents to support the operations of 153020
the Institute for Defense Studies at Wright State University.153021

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 153022
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 153023
Kent State University Columbus Program.153024

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 235649, Co-op Internship 153025
Program, $75,000 in each fiscal year shall be used to support the 153026
University of Toledo Urban Affairs Center.153027

       Section 363.485. DEFENSE/AEROSPACE WORKFORCE DEVELOPMENT 153028
INITIATIVE153029

       The foregoing appropriation item 235668, Defense/Aerospace 153030
Workforce Development Initiative, shall be used by the 153031
Defense/Aerospace Graduate Studies Institute, to collaborate with 153032
the aviation, aerospace, and defense industries, to strengthen job 153033
training programs, equip Ohio's workforce with needed skills, and 153034
strengthen and grow research and educational linkages among Ohio's 153035
defense and aerospace aviation industry, federal agencies, and the 153036
University System of Ohio. A portion of the foregoing 153037
appropriation item 235668, Defense/Aerospace Workforce Development 153038
Initiative, shall be allocated to develop a strategic plan to 153039
align the University System of Ohio's research and workforce 153040
development assets with the workforce needs of public and private 153041
sector employers. A portion of these funds shall be used to 153042
support the Aerospace Professional Development Center to establish 153043
processes necessary to link underemployed or unemployed persons to 153044
job openings in these industries. The funds appropriated in this 153045
appropriation item shall be matched by private industry or 153046
educational partners or federal agencies in the aggregate amount 153047
of $4,000,000 over the FY 2014–FY 2015 biennium.153048

       Section 363.490. HIGHER EDUCATIONAL FACILITY COMMISSION 153049
ADMINISTRATION153050

       The foregoing appropriation item 235602, Higher Educational 153051
Facility Commission Administration, shall be used by the 153052
Chancellor of the Board of Regents for operating expenses related 153053
to the Chancellor of the Board of Regents' support of the 153054
activities of the Ohio Higher Educational Facility Commission. 153055
Upon the request of the Chancellor, the Director of Budget and 153056
Management may transfer up to $29,100 cash in each fiscal year 153057
from the HEFC Operating Expenses Fund (Fund 4610) to the HEFC 153058
Administration Fund (Fund 4E80).153059

       Section 363.500. NURSING LOAN PROGRAM153060

       The foregoing appropriation item 235606, Nursing Loan 153061
Program, shall be used to administer the nurse education 153062
assistance program. Up to $50,000 in each fiscal year may be used 153063
for operating expenses associated with the program. Any additional 153064
funds needed for the administration of the program are subject to 153065
Controlling Board approval.153066

       Section 363.510.  TELECOMMUNITY AND DISTANCE LEARNING153067

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 235674, Telecommunity and 153068
Distance Learning, up to $25,000 in each fiscal year shall be 153069
distributed by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents on a grant 153070
basis to eligible school districts to establish "distance 153071
learning" through interactive video technologies in the school 153072
district. Per agreements with eight Ohio local telephone 153073
companies, ALLTEL Ohio, CENTURY Telephone of Ohio, Chillicothe 153074
Telephone Company, Cincinnati Bell Telephone Company, Orwell 153075
Telephone Company, Sprint North Central Telephone, VERIZON, and 153076
Western Reserve Telephone Company, school districts are eligible 153077
for funds if they are within one of the listed telephone company 153078
service areas. Funds to administer the program shall be expended 153079
by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents up to the amount 153080
specified in the agreements with the listed telephone companies.153081

        Within thirty days after the effective date of this section, 153082
the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer to Fund 4X10 153083
in the State Special Revenue Fund Group any investment earnings 153084
from moneys paid by any telephone company as part of any 153085
settlement agreement between the listed companies and the Public 153086
Utilities Commission in fiscal years 1996 and beyond.153087

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 235674, Telecommunity and 153088
Distance Learning, up to $24,150 in each fiscal year shall be 153089
distributed by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents on a grant 153090
basis to eligible school districts to establish "distance 153091
learning" in the school district. Per an agreement with Ameritech, 153092
school districts are eligible for funds if they are within an 153093
Ameritech service area. Funds to administer the program shall be 153094
expended by the Chancellor of the Board of Regents up to the 153095
amount specified in the agreement with Ameritech.153096

        Within thirty days after the effective date of this section, 153097
the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer to Fund 4X10 153098
in the State Special Revenue Fund Group any investment earnings 153099
from moneys paid by any telephone company as part of a settlement 153100
agreement between the company and the Public Utilities Commission 153101
in fiscal year 1995.153102

       Section 363.520. VETERANS PREFERENCES153103

       The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall work with the 153104
Department of Veterans Services to develop specific veterans 153105
preference guidelines for higher education institutions. These 153106
guidelines shall ensure that the institutions' hiring practices 153107
are in accordance with the intent of Ohio's veterans preference 153108
laws.153109

       Section 363.530. STATE NEED-BASED FINANCIAL AID 153110
RECONCILIATION153111

       By the first day of August in each fiscal year, or as soon as 153112
possible thereafter, the Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall 153113
certify to the Director of Budget and Management the amount 153114
necessary to pay any outstanding prior year obligations to higher 153115
education institutions for the state's need-based financial aid 153116
programs. The amounts certified are hereby appropriated to 153117
appropriation item 235618, State Need-based Financial Aid 153118
Reconciliation, from revenues received in the State Need-based 153119
Financial Aid Reconciliation Fund (Fund 5Y50).153120

       Section 363.540.  (A) As used in this section:153121

       (1) "Board of trustees" includes the managing authority of a 153122
university branch district.153123

       (2) "State institution of higher education" has the same 153124
meaning as in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.153125

       (B) The board of trustees of any state institution of higher 153126
education, notwithstanding any rule of the institution to the 153127
contrary, may adopt a policy providing for mandatory furloughs of 153128
employees, including faculty, to achieve spending reductions 153129
necessitated by institutional budget deficits.153130

       Section 363.550. EFFICIENCY ADVISORY COMMITTEE153131

        The Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall establish an 153132
efficiency advisory committee for the purpose of generating 153133
optimal efficiency plans for campuses, identifying shared services 153134
opportunities, and sharing best practices. The efficiency advisory 153135
committee shall also explore methods for reducing the costs for 153136
students for textbooks and other education resource materials. The 153137
committee shall meet at the call of the Chancellor or the 153138
Chancellor's designee, but at least quarterly. Each state 153139
institution of higher education shall designate an employee to 153140
serve as its efficiency officer responsible for the evaluation and 153141
improvement of operational efficiencies on campus. Each efficiency 153142
officer shall serve on the efficiency advisory committee.153143

       By December 31 of each year, the Efficiency Advisory 153144
Committee shall provide a report to the Office of Budget and 153145
Management, the Governor, and the General Assembly compiling the 153146
operational efficiency plans for all institutions of higher 153147
education and benchmarking efficiency gains realized over the 153148
preceding year and progress in implementing the prior year's 153149
efficiency plan. The report shall also be made available to the 153150
public on the Ohio Board of Regents web site. 153151

       Section 363.570. (A) FUND ABOLITION153152

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 153153
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 153154
in the eTech Ohio Telecommunity Education Fund (Fund 4W90) to the 153155
Distance Learning Fund (Fund 4X10). Upon completion of the 153156
transfer, the eTech Ohio Telecommunity Education Fund (Fund 153157
4W90)is hereby abolished.153158

       (B) ETECH OHIO COMMISSION ABOLISHMENT AND APPROPRIATION LINE 153159
ITEM TRANSFER153160

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 153161
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 153162
935411, Technology Integration and Professional Development, and 153163
re-establish them, as determined to be appropriate by the Director 153164
of Budget and Management, against appropriation item 235483, 153165
Technology Integration and Professional Development. The 153166
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 153167
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 153168
935411, Technology Integration and Professional Development, by 153169
July 1, 2013, shall be completed, as determined to be appropriate 153170
by the Director of Budget and Management, under appropriation item 153171
235483, Technology Integration and Professional Development, in 153172
the same manner and with the same effect as if it were completed 153173
with regard to appropriation item 935411, Technology Integration 153174
and Professional Development. 153175

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 153176
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 153177
935608, Media Services, and re-establish them against 153178
appropriation item 235676, Media Services. The re-established 153179
encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any business 153180
commenced but not completed under appropriation item 935608, Media 153181
Services, by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under appropriation 153182
item 235676, Media Services, in the same manner and with the same 153183
effect as if it were completed with regard to appropriation item 153184
935608, Media Services. 153185

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 153186
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 153187
935640, Conference/Special Purposes, and re-establish them against 153188
appropriation item 235675, Conference/Special Purposes. The 153189
re-established encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated. Any 153190
business commenced but not completed under appropriation item 153191
935640, Conference/Special Purposes, by July 1, 2013, shall be 153192
completed under appropriation item 235675, Conference/Special 153193
Purposes, in the same manner and with the same effect as if it 153194
were completed with regard to appropriation item 935640, 153195
Conference/Special Purposes. 153196

       Effective July 1, 2013, the Director of Budget and Management 153197
shall cancel any existing encumbrances against appropriation item 153198
935630, Telecommunity, and cancel any existing encumbrances 153199
against appropriation item 935634, Distance Learning, and 153200
re-establish them against appropriation item 235674, Telecommunity 153201
and Distance Learning. The re-established encumbrance amounts are 153202
hereby appropriated. Any business commenced but not completed 153203
under appropriation items 935630, Telecommunity, and 935634, 153204
Distance Learning, by July 1, 2013, shall be completed under 153205
appropriation item 235674, Telecommunity and Distance Learning, in 153206
the same manner and with the same effect as if it were completed 153207
with regard to appropriation items 935630, Telecommunity, and 153208
935634, Distance Learning. 153209

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 153210
Director of Budget and Management shall cancel any existing 153211
capital appropriations and capital encumbrances of the former 153212
eTech Ohio Commission in the Higher Education Improvement Fund 153213
(Fund 7034), and re-establish them with the Chancellor of the 153214
Board of Regents in the Higher Education Improvement Fund (Fund 153215
7034). The re-established amounts are hereby appropriated. 153216

       Effective July 1, 2013, notwithstanding any provision of the 153217
law to the contrary, the Director of Budget and Management may 153218
make budget changes made necessary by the transfer of the former 153219
eTech Ohio Commission to the Chancellor of the Board of Regents, 153220
if any, including administrative organization, program transfers, 153221
the creation of new funds, the transfer of state funds, the 153222
consolidation of funds, and the transfer of capital 153223
appropriations, as authorized by this section. The Director of 153224
Budget and Management may, if necessary, establish prior year 153225
encumbrances or parts of prior year encumbrances of the former 153226
eTech Ohio Commission with the Chancellor of the Board of Regents 153227
in the appropriate fund and appropriation item for the same 153228
purpose and for payment to the same vendor in fiscal year 2014 or 153229
fiscal year 2015. The established encumbrances plus any additional 153230
amounts determined to be necessary for the Chancellor of the Board 153231
of Regents to perform the operations and related management 153232
functions of the former eTech Ohio Commission are hereby 153233
appropriated.153234

       (C) CONFERENCE OPERATION OFFICE153235

       Beginning in fiscal year 2014, the annual eTech Ohio 153236
Conference will be overseen by a Conference Operation Office 153237
comprised of employees of the Chancellor of the Board of Regents 153238
and Department of Education, including former employees of the 153239
eTech Ohio Commission transferred to the Chancellor of the Board 153240
of Regents and the Department of Education. The Office shall be 153241
responsible for conferences that focus on professional development 153242
in the education field, educational technology, distance learning, 153243
and other education topics pertinent to the State of Ohio.153244

       (D) TRANSFER OF CAPITAL DUTIES153245

       As of July 1, 2013, the Chancellor of the Board of Regents 153246
shall succeed to and have and perform all fiduciary duties and 153247
responsibilities previously held by the Director of eTech Ohio for 153248
all outstanding capital appropriations designated for use by eTech 153249
Ohio.153250

       Section 363.580. ELECTRONIC TEXTBOOK PILOT PROJECT 153251

       (A) The Electronic Textbook Pilot Project is hereby 153252
established to provide grants on a competitive basis to public and 153253
chartered nonpublic schools to purchase electronic textbooks, 153254
electronic educational content, and professional development and 153255
training resources through the learning clearinghouse established 153256
in section 3333.81 to 3333.88. The Electronic Textbook Pilot 153257
Project shall be administered by the Chancellor of the Board of 153258
Regents.153259

       (B) The Chancellor shall have the authority to set the grant 153260
criteria and to select grant recipients. In awarding grants under 153261
this section, the Chancellor shall establish the criteria for 153262
determining which applicants will be considered a priority for 153263
receiving grant funds.153264

        (C) Not later than January 31, 2014, the Chancellor shall 153265
issue a request for proposals from eligible schools.153266

        (D) Not later than May 31, 2014, the Chancellor shall award 153267
grants for use during the 2014-2015 school year.153268

        (E) The Chancellor and Superintendent of Public Instruction 153269
jointly shall notify schools of and promote participation in the 153270
pilot project.153271

        (F) Not later than December 31, 2015, the Chancellor shall 153272
submit to the Governor and the General Assembly, in accordance 153273
with section 101.68 of the Revised Code, a formative evaluation of 153274
the implementation and results of the pilot project and 153275
legislative recommendations for any changes in the pilot project.153276

       (G) The number of grants awarded under this section shall not 153277
exceed the number that can be funded with appropriations made by 153278
the General Assembly for this purpose.153279

       Section 363.590. COLLEGE CREDIT PLUS PROGRAM153280

        The Chancellor shall make recommendations to the General 153281
Assembly to establish the College Credit Plus program, whereby 153282
high school students may earn credits through Ohio institutions of 153283
higher education. The Chancellor shall consult with the 153284
Inter-University Council of Ohio, the Association of Independent 153285
Colleges and Universities of Ohio, the Ohio Association of 153286
Community Colleges, and the Superintendent of Public Instruction 153287
in developing the recommendations. The Chancellor shall provide a 153288
report of the recommendation to the Governor, the President of the 153289
Senate, and the Speaker of the House of Representatives by 153290
December 31, 2013, for implementation in the 2014-2015 academic 153291
year.153292

       Section 365.10. DRC DEPARTMENT OF REHABILITATION AND 153293
CORRECTION153294

General Revenue Fund153295

GRF 501321 Institutional Operations $ 883,768,015 $ 873,724,802 153296
GRF 501403 Prisoner Compensation $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 153297
GRF 501405 Halfway House $ 45,049,356 $ 46,024,108 153298
GRF 501406 Lease Rental Payments $ 104,099,500 $ 99,534,800 153299
GRF 501407 Community Nonresidential Programs $ 34,187,858 $ 34,314,390 153300
GRF 501408 Community Misdemeanor Programs $ 12,856,800 $ 12,856,800 153301
GRF 501501 Community Residential Programs - CBCF $ 63,345,972 $ 66,150,781 153302
GRF 503321 Parole and Community Operations $ 64,480,938 $ 65,029,680 153303
GRF 504321 Administrative Operations $ 20,659,664 $ 20,907,476 153304
GRF 505321 Institution Medical Services $ 243,289,774 $ 254,139,452 153305
GRF 506321 Institution Education Services $ 19,102,051 $ 19,112,418 153306
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 1,496,839,928 $ 1,497,794,707 153307

General Services Fund Group153308

1480 501602 Institutional Services $ 3,139,577 $ 3,139,577 153309
2000 501607 Ohio Penal Industries $ 41,393,226 $ 40,609,872 153310
4830 501605 Property Receipts $ 582,086 $ 582,086 153311
4B00 501601 Sewer Treatment Services $ 2,023,671 $ 2,067,214 153312
4D40 501603 Prisoner Programs $ 17,499,255 $ 17,499,255 153313
4L40 501604 Transitional Control $ 1,113,120 $ 1,113,120 153314
4S50 501608 Education Services $ 4,114,782 $ 4,114,782 153315
5710 501606 Training Academy Receipts $ 125,000 $ 125,000 153316
5930 501618 Laboratory Services $ 3,750,000 $ 0 153317
5AF0 501609 State and Non-Federal Awards $ 1,440,000 $ 1,440,000 153318
5H80 501617 Offender Financial Responsibility $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 153319
5L60 501611 Information Technology Services $ 250,000 $ 250,000 153320
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 77,430,717 $ 72,940,906 153321

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group153322

3230 501619 Federal Grants $ 7,132,943 $ 7,132,943 153323
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 153324
Fund Group $ 7,132,943 $ 7,132,943 153325

TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,581,403,588 $ 1,577,868,556 153326

       TRANSFER OF OPERATING APPROPRIATIONS TO IMPLEMENT CRIMINAL 153327
SENTENCING REFORMS153328

       For the purposes of implementing criminal sentencing reforms, 153329
and notwithstanding any other provision of law to the contrary, 153330
the Director of Budget and Management, at the request of the 153331
Director of Rehabilitation and Correction, may transfer up to 153332
$14,000,000 in appropriations, in each of fiscal years 2014 and 153333
2015, from appropriation item 501321, Institutional Operations, to 153334
any combination of appropriation items 501405, Halfway House; 153335
501407, Community Residential Programs; 501408, Community 153336
Misdemeanor Programs; and 501501, Community Residential Programs - 153337
CBCF.153338

       LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS153339

       The foregoing appropriation item 501406, Lease Rental 153340
Payments, shall be used to meet all payments at the times they are 153341
required to be made during the period from July 1, 2013, through 153342
June 30, 2015, by the Department of Rehabilitation and Correction 153343
under the primary leases and agreements for those buildings made 153344
under Chapters 152. and 154. of the Revised Code. These 153345
appropriations are the source of funds pledged for bond service 153346
charges on related obligations issued under Chapters 152. and 154. 153347
of the Revised Code.153348

        OSU MEDICAL CHARGES153349

        Notwithstanding section 341.192 of the Revised Code, at the 153350
request of the Department of Rehabilitation and Correction, The 153351
Ohio State University Medical Center, including the Arthur G. 153352
James Cancer Hospital and Richard J. Solove Research Institute and 153353
the Richard M. Ross Heart Hospital, shall provide necessary care 153354
to persons who are confined in state adult correctional 153355
facilities. The provision of necessary care shall be billed to the 153356
Department at a rate not to exceed the authorized reimbursement 153357
rate for the same service established by the Department of 153358
Medicaid under the Medicaid Program.153359

       CORRECTIVE CASH TRANSFER153360

       At the request of the Director of Rehabilitation and 153361
Correction, the Director of Budget and Management may transfer an 153362
amount not to exceed $2,391 in cash that was mistakenly deposited 153363
in the Federal Grants Fund (Fund 3230) to the General Revenue 153364
Fund.153365

       Section 369.10. RCB RESPIRATORY CARE BOARD153366

General Services Fund Group153367

4K90 872609 Operating Expenses $ 552,876 $ 545,246 153368
TOTAL GSF General Services 153369
Fund Group $ 552,876 $ 545,246 153370
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 552,876 $ 545,246 153371


       Section 371.10. RDF REVENUE DISTRIBUTION FUNDS153373

Special State Revenue Fund Group153374

5JG0 110633 Gross Casino Revenue County Fund $ 158,005,325 $ 168,977,942 153375
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 158,005,325 $ 168,977,942 153376

Volunteer Firefighters' Dependents Fund153377

7085 800985 Volunteer Firemen's Dependents Fund $ 300,000 $ 300,000 153378
TOTAL 085 Volunteer Firefighters' 153379
Dependents Fund $ 300,000 $ 300,000 153380

Agency Fund Group153381

4P80 001698 Cash Management Improvement Fund $ 3,100,000 $ 3,100,000 153382
5JH0 110634 Gross Casino Revenue County Student Fund $ 105,336,883 $ 112,651,961 153383
5JJ0 110636 Gross Casino Revenue Host City Fund $ 15,490,718 $ 16,566,465 153384
6080 001699 Investment Earnings $ 30,000,000 $ 30,000,000 153385
7062 110962 Resort Area Excise Tax $ 1,000,000 $ 1,000,000 153386
7063 110963 Permissive Tax Distribution $ 2,066,331,400 $ 2,151,135,100 153387
7067 110967 School District Income Tax $ 346,669,300 $ 365,277,800 153388
7099 762902 Permissive Tax Distribution - Auto Registration $ 184,000,000 $ 184,000,000 153389
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 2,751,928,301 $ 2,863,731,326 153390

Holding Account Redistribution153391

R045 110617 International Fuel Tax Distribution $ 40,000,000 $ 40,000,000 153392
TOTAL 090 Holding Account Redistribution Fund $ 40,000,000 $ 40,000,000 153393
Revenue Distribution Fund Group 153394
7049 335900 Indigent Drivers Alcohol Treatment $ 2,250,000 $ 2,250,000 153395
7050 762900 International Registration Plan Distribution $ 30,000,000 $ 30,000,000 153396
7051 762901 Auto Registration Distribution $ 360,000,000 $ 360,000,000 153397
7054 110954 Local Government Property Tax Replacement - Utility $ 5,649,000 $ 5,649,000 153398
7060 110960 Gasoline Excise Tax Fund $ 395,000,000 $ 395,000,000 153399
7065 110965 Public Library Fund $ 359,300,000 $ 369,000,000 153400
7066 800966 Undivided Liquor Permits $ 14,100,000 $ 14,100,000 153401
7068 110968 State and Local Government Highway Distribution $ 196,000,000 $ 196,000,000 153402
7069 110969 Local Government Fund $ 363,600,000 $ 376,400,000 153403
7081 110981 Local Government Property Tax Replacement-Business $ 146,500,000 $ 107,900,000 153404
7082 110982 Horse Racing Tax $ 100,000 $ 100,000 153405
7083 700900 Ohio Fairs Fund $ 1,400,000 $ 1,400,000 153406
TOTAL RDF Revenue Distribution 153407
Fund Group $ 1,873,899,000 $ 1,857,799,000 153408
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 4,824,132,626 $ 4,930,808,268 153409

       ADDITIONAL APPROPRIATIONS153410

       Appropriation items in this section shall be used for the 153411
purpose of administering and distributing the designated revenue 153412
distribution funds according to the Revised Code. If it is 153413
determined that additional appropriations are necessary for this 153414
purpose, such amounts are hereby appropriated.153415

       GENERAL REVENUE FUND TRANSFERS153416

        Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, in 153417
fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, the Director of Budget and 153418
Management may transfer from the General Revenue Fund to the Local 153419
Government Tangible Property Tax Replacement Fund (Fund 7081) in 153420
the Revenue Distribution Fund Group, those amounts necessary to 153421
reimburse local taxing units under section 5751.22 of the Revised 153422
Code. Also, in fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, the Director 153423
of Budget and Management may make temporary transfers from the 153424
General Revenue Fund to ensure sufficient balances in the Local 153425
Government Tangible Property Tax Replacement Fund (Fund 7081) and 153426
to replenish the General Revenue Fund for such transfers.153427

       Section 373.10. SAN BOARD OF SANITARIAN REGISTRATION153428

General Services Fund Group153429

4K90 893609 Operating Expenses $ 137,850 $ 129,850 153430
TOTAL GSF General Services 153431
Fund Group $ 137,850 $ 129,850 153432
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 137,850 $ 129,850 153433


       Section 375.10. OSB OHIO STATE SCHOOL FOR THE BLIND153435

General Revenue Fund153436

GRF 226321 Operations $ 7,278,579 $ 7,278,579 153437
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 7,278,579 $ 7,278,579 153438

General Services Fund Group153439

4H80 226602 Education Reform Grants $ 27,000 $ 27,000 153440
5NJ0 226622 Food Service Program $ 9,000 $ 9,000 153441
TOTAL GSF General Services 153442
Fund Group $ 36,000 $ 36,000 153443

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group153444

3100 226626 Coordinating Unit $ 2,527,104 $ 2,527,104 153445
3DT0 226621 Ohio Transition Collaborative $ 650,000 $ 650,000 153446
3P50 226643 Medicaid Professional Services Reimbursement $ 50,000 $ 50,000 153447
TOTAL FED Federal Special 153448
Revenue Fund Group $ 3,227,104 $ 3,227,104 153449

State Special Revenue Fund Group153450

4M50 226601 Work Study and Technology Investment $ 461,521 $ 461,521 153451
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 153452
Fund Group $ 461,521 $ 461,521 153453
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 11,003,204 $ 11,003,204 153454


       Section 377.10. OSD OHIO SCHOOL FOR THE DEAF153456

General Revenue Fund153457

GRF 221321 Operations $ 8,727,657 $ 8,727,657 153458
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 8,727,657 $ 8,727,657 153459

General Services Fund Group153460

4M10 221602 Education Reform Grants $ 35,000 $ 35,000 153461
5NK0 221610 Food Service Program $ 9,000 $ 9,000 153462
TOTAL GSF General Services 153463
Fund Group $ 44,000 $ 44,000 153464

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group153465

3110 221625 Coordinating Unit $ 2,153,245 $ 2,153,245 153466
3R00 221684 Medicaid Professional Services Reimbursement $ 35,000 $ 35,000 153467
TOTAL FED Federal Special 153468
Revenue Fund Group $ 2,188,245 $ 2,188,245 153469

State Special Revenue Fund Group153470

4M00 221601 Educational Program Expenses $ 95,000 $ 95,000 153471
5H60 221609 Even Start Fees and Gifts $ 35,000 $ 35,000 153472
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 153473
Fund Group $ 130,000 $ 130,000 153474
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 11,089,902 $ 11,089,902 153475


       Section 381.10. SOS SECRETARY OF STATE153477

General Revenue Fund153478

GRF 050321 Operating Expenses $ 2,144,030 $ 2,144,030 153479
GRF 050407 Pollworkers Training $ 234,196 $ 234,196 153480
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 2,378,226 $ 2,378,226 153481

General Services Fund Group153482

4120 050609 Notary Commission $ 475,000 $ 475,000 153483
4130 050601 Information Systems $ 49,000 $ 49,000 153484
4S80 050610 Board of Voting Machine Examiners $ 7,200 $ 7,200 153485
5FG0 050620 BOE Reimbursement and Education $ 80,000 $ 80,000 153486
TOTAL General Services Fund Group $ 611,200 $ 611,200 153487

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group153488

3AH0 050614 Election Reform/Health and Human Services $ 300,000 $ 300,000 153489
3AS0 050616 Help America Vote Act (HAVA) $ 1,710,000 $ 1,710,000 153490
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 153491
Fund Group $ 2,010,000 $ 2,010,000 153492

State Special Revenue Fund Group153493

5990 050603 Business Services Operating Expenses $ 14,385,400 $ 14,385,400 153494
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 153495
Fund Group $ 14,385,400 $ 14,385,400 153496

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group153497

R001 050605 Uniform Commercial Code Refunds $ 30,000 $ 30,000 153498
R002 050606 Corporate/Business Filing Refunds $ 85,000 $ 85,000 153499
TOTAL 090 Holding Account 153500
Redistribution Fund Group $ 115,000 $ 115,000 153501
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 19,499,826 $ 19,499,826 153502

       POLLWORKER TRAINING153503

       The foregoing appropriation item 050407, Pollworkers 153504
Training, shall be used to reimburse county boards of elections 153505
for pollworker training pursuant to section 3501.27 of the Revised 153506
Code. At the end of fiscal year 2014, an amount equal to the 153507
unexpended, unencumbered portion of appropriation item 050407, 153508
Pollworkers Training, is hereby reappropriated in fiscal year 2015 153509
for the same purpose.153510

       BOARD OF VOTING MACHINE EXAMINERS153511

       The foregoing appropriation item 050610, Board of Voting 153512
Machine Examiners, shall be used to pay for the services and 153513
expenses of the members of the Board of Voting Machine Examiners, 153514
and for other expenses that are authorized to be paid from the 153515
Board of Voting Machine Examiners Fund, which is created in 153516
section 3506.05 of the Revised Code. Moneys not used shall be 153517
returned to the person or entity submitting equipment for 153518
examination. If it is determined that additional appropriations 153519
are necessary, such amounts are hereby appropriated.153520

       HAVA FUNDS153521

        An amount equal to the unexpended, unencumbered portion of 153522
appropriation item 050614, Election Reform/Health and Human 153523
Services, at the end of fiscal year 2014 is reappropriated for the 153524
same purpose in fiscal year 2015.153525

       An amount equal to the unexpended, unencumbered portion of 153526
appropriation item 050616, Help America Vote Act (HAVA), at the 153527
end of fiscal year 2014 is reappropriated for the same purpose in 153528
fiscal year 2015.153529

       The Director of Budget and Management shall credit the 153530
ongoing interest earnings from the Election Reform/Health and 153531
Human Services Fund (Fund 3AH0) and the Help America Vote Act 153532
(HAVA) (Fund 3AS0) to the respective funds and distribute these 153533
earnings in accordance with the terms of the grant under which the 153534
money is received.153535

       MISCELLANEOUS FEDERAL GRANTS153536

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 153537
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer from the General 153538
Revenue Fund (GRF) all investment earnings and amounts equal to 153539
the interest earnings that were attributable to the Miscellaneous 153540
Federal Grants Fund (Fund 3FM0) in each quarter of fiscal year 153541
2013. The Director of Budget and Management shall credit the 153542
ongoing interest earnings from Fund 3FM0 to that fund and 153543
distribute these earnings in accordance with the terms of the 153544
grant under which the money was received.153545

       HOLDING ACCOUNT REDISTRIBUTION GROUP153546

       The foregoing appropriation items 050605, Uniform Commercial 153547
Code Refunds, and 050606, Corporate/Business Filing Refunds, shall 153548
be used to hold revenues until they are directed to the 153549
appropriate accounts or until they are refunded. If it is 153550
determined that additional appropriations are necessary, such 153551
amounts are hereby appropriated.153552

       Section 383.10. SEN THE OHIO SENATE153553

General Revenue Fund153554

GRF 020321 Operating Expenses $ 11,947,822 $ 11,947,822 153555
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 11,947,822 $ 11,947,822 153556

General Services Fund Group153557

1020 020602 Senate Reimbursement $ 852,001 $ 852,001 153558
4090 020601 Miscellaneous Sales $ 34,497 $ 34,497 153559
TOTAL GSF General Services 153560
Fund Group $ 886,498 $ 886,498 153561
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 12,834,320 $ 12,834,320 153562

       OPERATING EXPENSES153563

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Clerk 153564
of the Senate may certify to the Director of Budget and Management 153565
the amount of the unexpended, unencumbered balance of the 153566
foregoing appropriation item 020321, Operating Expenses, at the 153567
end of fiscal year 2013 to be reappropriated to fiscal year 2014. 153568
The amount certified is hereby reappropriated to the same 153569
appropriation item for fiscal year 2014.153570

        On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the Clerk 153571
of the Senate may certify to the Director of Budget and Management 153572
the amount of the unexpended, unencumbered balance of the 153573
foregoing appropriation item 020321, Operating Expenses, at the 153574
end of fiscal year 2014 to be reappropriated to fiscal year 2015. 153575
The amount certified is hereby reappropriated to the same 153576
appropriation item for fiscal year 2015.153577

       Section 385.10. CSV COMMISSION ON SERVICE AND VOLUNTEERISM153578

General Revenue Fund153579

GRF 866321 CSV Operations $ 286,661 $ 294,072 153580
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 286,661 $ 294,072 153581

General Services Fund153582

5GN0 866605 Serve Ohio Support $ 30,000 $ 30,000 153583
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund $ 30,000 $ 30,000 153584

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group153585

3R70 866617 AmeriCorps Programs $ 7,447,000 $ 7,447,000 153586
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 153587
Fund Group $ 7,447,000 $ 7,447,000 153588
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 7,763,661 $ 7,771,072 153589


       Section 387.10. CSF COMMISSIONERS OF THE SINKING FUND153591

Debt Service Fund Group153592

7070 155905 Third Frontier Research and Development Bond Retirement Fund $ 66,511,600 $ 83,783,000 153593
7072 155902 Highway Capital Improvement Bond Retirement Fund $ 132,647,900 $ 127,171,800 153594
7073 155903 Natural Resources Bond Retirement Fund $ 24,325,400 $ 25,443,000 153595
7074 155904 Conservation Projects Bond Retirement Fund $ 33,376,600 $ 34,447,700 153596
7076 155906 Coal Research and Development Bond Retirement Fund $ 2,858,900 $ 4,327,200 153597
7077 155907 State Capital Improvement Bond Retirement Fund $ 227,810,300 $ 228,948,900 153598
7078 155908 Common Schools Bond Retirement Fund $ 351,806,100 $ 377,364,700 153599
7079 155909 Higher Education Bond Retirement Fund $ 221,168,700 $ 248,822,000 153600
7080 155901 Persian Gulf, Afghanistan, and Iraq Conflicts Bond Retirement Fund $ 7,542,600 $ 9,914,800 153601
7090 155912 Job Ready Site Development Bond Retirement Fund $ 15,498,400 $ 19,124,500 153602
TOTAL DSF Debt Service Fund Group $ 1,083,546,500 $ 1,159,347,600 153603
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,083,546,500 $ 1,159,347,600 153604

       ADDITIONAL APPROPRIATIONS153605

       Appropriation items in this section are for the purpose of 153606
paying debt service and financing costs on bonds or notes of the 153607
state issued under the Ohio Constitution and acts of the General 153608
Assembly. If it is determined that additional amounts are 153609
necessary for this purpose, such amounts are hereby appropriated.153610

       Section 389.10. SOA SOUTHERN OHIO AGRICULTURAL AND COMMUNITY 153611
DEVELOPMENT FOUNDATION153612

Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group153613

5M90 945601 Operating Expenses $ 426,800 $ 426,800 153614
TOTAL TMF Tobacco Master Settlement Agreement Fund Group $ 426,800 $ 426,800 153615
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 426,800 $ 426,800 153616


       Section 391.10. SPE BOARD OF SPEECH-LANGUAGE PATHOLOGY & 153618
AUDIOLOGY153619

General Services Fund Group153620

4K90 886609 Operating Expenses $ 472,260 $ 508,660 153621
TOTAL GSF General Services 153622
Fund Group $ 472,260 $ 508,660 153623
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 427,260 $ 508,660 153624


       Section 393.10. BTA BOARD OF TAX APPEALS153626

General Revenue Fund153627

GRF 116321 Operating Expenses $ 1,700,000 $ 1,700,000 153628
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 1,700,000 $ 1,700,000 153629
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,700,000 $ 1,700,000 153630


       Section 395.10. TAX DEPARTMENT OF TAXATION153632

General Revenue Fund153633

GRF 110321 Operating Expenses $ 71,068,330 $ 67,968,332 153634
GRF 110404 Tobacco Settlement Enforcement $ 178,200 $ 178,200 153635
GRF 110901 Property Tax Allocation - Taxation $ 666,640,000 $ 693,305,600 153636
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 737,886,530 $ 761,452,132 153637

General Services Fund Group153638

2280 110628 Revenue Enhancement $ 15,500,000 $ 17,500,000 153639
4330 110602 Tape File Account $ 175,000 $ 175,000 153640
5BP0 110639 Wireless 9-1-1 Administration $ 290,000 $ 290,000 153641
5CZ0 110631 Vendor's License Application $ 250,000 $ 250,000 153642
5MN0 110638 STARS Development and Implementation $ 5,000,000 $ 3,000,000 153643
5N50 110605 Municipal Income Tax Administration $ 150,000 $ 150,000 153644
5N60 110618 Kilowatt Hour Tax Administration $ 100,000 $ 100,000 153645
5V80 110623 Property Tax Administration $ 11,978,310 $ 11,978,310 153646
5W70 110627 Exempt Facility Administration $ 49,500 $ 49,500 153647
TOTAL GSF General Services 153648
Fund Group $ 33,492,810 $ 33,492,810 153649

State Special Revenue Fund Group153650

4350 110607 Local Tax Administration $ 20,000,000 $ 20,700,000 153651
4360 110608 Motor Vehicle Audit $ 1,459,609 $ 1,459,609 153652
4370 110606 Income Tax Contribution $ 38,800 $ 38,800 153653
4380 110609 School District Income Tax $ 5,802,044 $ 5,802,044 153654
4C60 110616 International Registration Plan $ 682,415 $ 682,415 153655
4R60 110610 Tire Tax Administration $ 244,193 $ 244,193 153656
5V70 110622 Motor Fuel Tax Administration $ 5,035,374 $ 5,035,374 153657
6390 110614 Cigarette Tax Enforcement $ 1,750,000 $ 1,750,000 153658
6420 110613 Ohio Political Party Distributions $ 500,000 $ 500,000 153659
6880 110615 Local Excise Tax Administration $ 775,015 $ 775,015 153660
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 153661
Fund Group $ 36,287,450 $ 36,987,450 153662

Agency Fund Group153663

4250 110635 Tax Refunds $ 1,546,800,000 $ 1,546,800,000 153664
7095 110995 Municipal Income Tax $ 21,000,000 $ 21,000,000 153665
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 1,567,800,000 $ 1,567,800,000 153666

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group153667

R010 110611 Tax Distributions $ 50,000 $ 50,000 153668
R011 110612 Miscellaneous Income Tax Receipts $ 50,000 $ 50,000 153669
TOTAL 090 Holding Account 153670
Redistribution Fund Group $ 100,000 $ 100,000 153671
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 2,375,566,790 $ 2,399,832,392 153672

       HOMESTEAD EXEMPTION, PROPERTY TAX ROLLBACK153673

       The foregoing appropriation item 110901, Property Tax 153674
Allocation - Taxation, is hereby appropriated to pay for the 153675
state's costs incurred due to the Homestead Exemption, the 153676
Manufactured Home Property Tax Rollback, and the Property Tax 153677
Rollback. The Tax Commissioner shall distribute these funds 153678
directly to the appropriate local taxing districts, except for 153679
school districts, notwithstanding the provisions in sections 153680
321.24 and 323.156 of the Revised Code, which provide for payment 153681
of the Homestead Exemption, the Manufactured Home Property Tax 153682
Rollback, and Property Tax Rollback by the Tax Commissioner to the 153683
appropriate county treasurer and the subsequent redistribution of 153684
these funds to the appropriate local taxing districts by the 153685
county auditor.153686

       Upon receipt of these amounts, each local taxing district 153687
shall distribute the amount among the proper funds as if it had 153688
been paid as real property taxes. Payments for the costs of 153689
administration shall continue to be paid to the county treasurer 153690
and county auditor as provided for in sections 319.54, 321.26, and 153691
323.156 of the Revised Code.153692

       Any sums, in addition to the amounts specifically 153693
appropriated in appropriation item 110901, Property Tax Allocation 153694
- Taxation, for the Homestead Exemption, the Manufactured Home 153695
Property Tax Rollback, and the Property Tax Rollback payments, 153696
which are determined to be necessary for these purposes, are 153697
hereby appropriated.153698

       MUNICIPAL INCOME TAX153699

       The foregoing appropriation item 110995, Municipal Income 153700
Tax, shall be used to make payments to municipal corporations 153701
under section 5745.05 of the Revised Code. If it is determined 153702
that additional appropriations are necessary to make such 153703
payments, such amounts are hereby appropriated.153704

       TAX REFUNDS153705

       The foregoing appropriation item 110635, Tax Refunds, shall 153706
be used to pay refunds under section 5703.052 of the Revised Code. 153707
If it is determined that additional appropriations are necessary 153708
for this purpose, such amounts are hereby appropriated.153709

       INTERNATIONAL REGISTRATION PLAN AUDIT153710

       The foregoing appropriation item 110616, International 153711
Registration Plan, shall be used under section 5703.12 of the 153712
Revised Code for audits of persons with vehicles registered under 153713
the International Registration Plan.153714

       TRAVEL EXPENSES FOR THE STREAMLINED SALES TAX PROJECT153715

        Of the foregoing appropriation item 110607, Local Tax 153716
Administration, the Tax Commissioner may disburse funds, if 153717
available, for the purposes of paying travel expenses incurred by 153718
members of Ohio's delegation to the Streamlined Sales Tax Project, 153719
as appointed under section 5740.02 of the Revised Code. Any travel 153720
expense reimbursement paid for by the Department of Taxation shall 153721
be done in accordance with applicable state laws and guidelines.153722

       TOBACCO SETTLEMENT ENFORCEMENT153723

       The foregoing appropriation item 110404, Tobacco Settlement 153724
Enforcement, shall be used by the Tax Commissioner to pay costs 153725
incurred in the enforcement of divisions (F) and (G) of section 153726
5743.03 of the Revised Code.153727

       STARS DEVELOPMENT AND IMPLEMENTATION FUND153728

       The foregoing appropriation item 110638, STARS Development 153729
and Implementation Fund, shall be used to pay costs incurred in 153730
the development and implementation of the department's State Tax 153731
Accounting and Revenue System. The Director of Budget and 153732
Management, under a plan submitted by the Tax Commissioner, or as 153733
otherwise determined by the Director of Budget and Management, 153734
shall set a schedule to transfer cash from the Tax Reform System 153735
Implementation Fund, Local Tax Administration Fund, School 153736
District Income Tax Fund, Discovery Project Fund, and the Motor 153737
Fuel Tax Administration Fund to the credit of the STARS 153738
Development and Implementation Fund (Fund 5MN0). The transfers of 153739
cash shall not exceed $8,000,000 in the biennium.153740

       Section 397.10. DOT DEPARTMENT OF TRANSPORTATION153741

General Revenue Fund153742

GRF 775451 Public Transportation - State $ 7,300,000 $ 7,300,000 153743
GRF 776465 Ohio Rail Development Commission $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 153744
GRF 777471 Airport Improvements - State $ 750,000 $ 750,000 153745
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 10,050,000 $ 10,050,000 153746
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 10,050,000 $ 10,050,000 153747


       Section 399.10. TOS TREASURER OF STATE153749

General Revenue Fund153750

GRF 090321 Operating Expenses $ 7,743,553 $ 7,743,553 153751
GRF 090401 Office of the Sinking Fund $ 502,304 $ 502,304 153752
GRF 090402 Continuing Education $ 377,702 $ 377,702 153753
GRF 090524 Police and Fire Disability Pension Fund $ 6,000 $ 6,000 153754
GRF 090534 Police and Fire Ad Hoc Cost of Living $ 70,000 $ 70,000 153755
GRF 090554 Police and Fire Survivor Benefits $ 507,000 $ 507,000 153756
GRF 090575 Police and Fire Death Benefits $ 20,000,000 $ 20,000,000 153757
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 29,206,559 $ 29,206,559 153758

General Services Fund Group153759

4E90 090603 Securities Lending Income $ 3,765,000 $ 3,765,000 153760
5770 090605 Investment Pool Reimbursement $ 850,000 $ 850,000 153761
5C50 090602 County Treasurer Education $ 170,057 $ 170,057 153762
6050 090609 Treasurer of State Administrative Fund $ 835,000 $ 835,000 153763
TOTAL GSF General Services 153764
Fund Group $ 5,620,057 $ 5,620,057 153765

Agency Fund Group153766

4250 090635 Tax Refunds $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 153767
TOTAL Agency Fund Group $ 6,000,000 $ 6,000,000 153768
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 40,826,616 $ 40,826,616 153769


       Section 399.20. OFFICE OF THE SINKING FUND153771

       The foregoing appropriation item 090401, Office of the 153772
Sinking Fund, shall be used for costs incurred by or on behalf of 153773
the Commissioners of the Sinking Fund and the Ohio Public 153774
Facilities Commission with respect to State of Ohio general 153775
obligation bonds or notes, and the Treasurer of State with respect 153776
to State of Ohio general obligation and special obligation bonds 153777
or notes, including, but not limited to, printing, advertising, 153778
delivery, rating fees and the procurement of ratings, professional 153779
publications, membership in professional organizations, and other 153780
services referred to in division (D) of section 151.01 of the 153781
Revised Code. The General Revenue Fund shall be reimbursed for 153782
such costs relating to the issuance and administration of Highway 153783
Capital Improvement bonds or notes authorized under Ohio 153784
Constitution, Article VIII, Section 2m and Chapter 151. of the 153785
Revised Code. That reimbursement shall be made from appropriation 153786
item 155902, Highway Capital Improvement Bond Retirement Fund, by 153787
intrastate transfer voucher pursuant to a certification by the 153788
Office of the Sinking Fund of the actual amounts used. The amounts 153789
necessary to make such a reimbursement are hereby appropriated 153790
from the Highway Capital Improvement Bond Retirement Fund created 153791
in section 151.06 of the Revised Code.153792

       POLICE AND FIRE DEATH BENEFIT FUND153793

       The foregoing appropriation item 090575, Police and Fire 153794
Death Benefits, shall be disbursed quarterly by the Treasurer of 153795
State at the beginning of each quarter of each fiscal year to the 153796
Board of Trustees of the Ohio Police and Fire Pension Fund. The 153797
Treasurer of State shall certify such amounts quarterly to the 153798
Director of Budget and Management. By the twentieth day of June of 153799
each fiscal year, the Board of Trustees of the Ohio Police and 153800
Fire Pension Fund shall certify to the Treasurer of State the 153801
amount disbursed in the current fiscal year to make the payments 153802
required by section 742.63 of the Revised Code and shall return to 153803
the Treasurer of State moneys received from this appropriation 153804
item but not disbursed.153805

       TAX REFUNDS153806

       The foregoing appropriation item 090635, Tax Refunds, shall 153807
be used to pay refunds under section 5703.052 of the Revised Code. 153808
If the Director of Budget and Management determines that 153809
additional amounts are necessary for this purpose, such amounts 153810
are hereby appropriated.153811

       Section 401.10. VTO VETERANS' ORGANIZATIONS153812

General Revenue Fund153813

VAP AMERICAN EX-PRISONERS OF WAR
153814

GRF 743501 State Support $ 28,910 $ 28,910 153815

VAN ARMY AND NAVY UNION, USA, INC.
153816

GRF 746501 State Support $ 63,539 $ 63,539 153817

VKW KOREAN WAR VETERANS
153818

GRF 747501 State Support $ 57,118 $ 57,118 153819

VJW JEWISH WAR VETERANS
153820

GRF 748501 State Support $ 34,321 $ 34,321 153821

VCW CATHOLIC WAR VETERANS
153822

GRF 749501 State Support $ 66,978 $ 66,978 153823

VPH MILITARY ORDER OF THE PURPLE HEART
153824

GRF 750501 State Support $ 65,116 $ 65,116 153825

VVV VIETNAM VETERANS OF AMERICA
153826

GRF 751501 State Support $ 214,776 $ 214,776 153827

VAL AMERICAN LEGION OF OHIO
153828

GRF 752501 State Support $ 349,189 $ 349,189 153829

VII AMVETS
153830

GRF 753501 State Support $ 332,547 $ 332,547 153831

VAV DISABLED AMERICAN VETERANS
153832

GRF 754501 State Support $ 249,836 $ 249,836 153833

VMC MARINE CORPS LEAGUE
153834

GRF 756501 State Support $ 133,947 $ 133,947 153835

V37 37TH DIVISION VETERANS' ASSOCIATION
153836

GRF 757501 State Support $ 6,868 $ 6,868 153837

VFW VETERANS OF FOREIGN WARS
153838

GRF 758501 State Support $ 284,841 $ 284,841 153839

TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 1,887,986 $ 1,887,986 153840
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 1,887,986 $ 1,887,986 153841

       RELEASE OF FUNDS153842

       The Director of Budget and Management may release the 153843
foregoing appropriation items 743501, 746501, 747501, 748501, 153844
749501, 750501, 751501, 752501, 753501, 754501, 756501, 757501, 153845
and 758501, State Support.153846

       Section 403.10.  DVS DEPARTMENT OF VETERANS SERVICES153847

General Revenue Fund153848

GRF 900321 Veterans' Homes $ 27,369,946 $ 27,369,946 153849
GRF 900402 Hall of Fame $ 107,075 $ 107,075 153850
GRF 900408 Department of Veterans Services $ 2,001,823 $ 2,001,823 153851
GRF 900901 Persian Gulf, Afghanistan, and Iraq Compensation Debt Service $ 7,542,600 $ 9,914,800 153852
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 37,021,444 $ 39,393,644 153853

General Services Fund Group153854

4840 900603 Veterans' Homes Services $ 1,596,894 $ 1,596,894 153855
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 1,596,894 $ 1,596,894 153856

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group153857

3680 900614 Veterans Training $ 684,017 $ 697,682 153858
3740 900606 Troops to Teachers $ 111,822 $ 111,879 153859
3BX0 900609 Medicare Services $ 2,250,000 $ 2,250,000 153860
3L20 900601 Veterans' Homes Operations - Federal $ 24,887,790 $ 25,634,423 153861
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 153862
Fund Group $ 27,933,629 $ 28,693,984 153863

State Special Revenue Fund Group153864

4E20 900602 Veterans' Homes Operating $ 10,614,652 $ 10,837,435 153865
6040 900604 Veterans' Homes Improvement $ 403,663 $ 459,359 153866
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 153867
Fund Group $ 11,018,315 $ 11,296,794 153868

Persian Gulf, Afghanistan, and Iraq Compensation Fund Group153869

7041 900615 Veteran Bonus Program - Administration $ 738,703 $ 629,709 153870
7041 900641 Persian Gulf, Afghanistan, and Iraq Compensation $ 14,500,000 $ 9,400,000 153871
TOTAL 041 Persian Gulf, 153872
Afghanistan, and Iraq 153873
Compensation Fund Group $ 15,238,703 $ 10,029,709 153874
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 92,808,985 $ 91,011,025 153875

       PERSIAN GULF, AFGHANISTAN AND IRAQ COMPENSATION GENERAL 153876
OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE153877

       The foregoing appropriation item 900901, Persian Gulf, 153878
Afghanistan and Iraq Compensation Debt Service, shall be used to 153879
pay all debt service and related financing costs during the period 153880
from July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015, on obligations issued 153881
for Persian Gulf, Afghanistan and Iraq Conflicts Compensation 153882
purposes under sections 151.01 and 151.12 of the Revised Code.153883

       Section 405.10. DVM STATE VETERINARY MEDICAL BOARD153884

General Services Fund Group153885

4K90 888609 Operating Expenses $ 337,432 $ 331,695 153886
5BU0 888602 Veterinary Student Loan Program $ 30,000 $ 30,000 153887
TOTAL GSF General Services 153888
Fund Group $ 367,432 $ 361,695 153889
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 367,432 $ 361,695 153890


       Section 407.10. DYS DEPARTMENT OF YOUTH SERVICES153892

General Revenue Fund153893

GRF 470401 RECLAIM Ohio $ 166,862,228 $ 166,862,228 153894
GRF 470412 Lease Rental Payments $ 26,044,800 $ 27,819,700 153895
GRF 470510 Youth Services $ 16,702,728 $ 16,702,728 153896
GRF 472321 Parole Operations $ 10,583,118 $ 10,583,118 153897
GRF 477321 Administrative Operations $ 11,355,389 $ 11,355,389 153898
TOTAL GRF General Revenue Fund $ 231,548,263 $ 233,323,163 153899

General Services Fund Group153900

1750 470613 Education Reimbursement $ 3,950,000 $ 3,600,000 153901
4790 470609 Employee Food Service $ 125,000 $ 125,000 153902
4A20 470602 Child Support $ 250,000 $ 250,000 153903
4G60 470605 General Operational Funds $ 115,000 $ 115,000 153904
5BN0 470629 E-Rate Program $ 525,000 $ 525,000 153905
TOTAL GSF General Services 153906
Fund Group $ 4,965,000 $ 4,615,000 153907

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group153908

3210 470601 Education $ 1,480,740 $ 1,203,272 153909
3210 470603 Juvenile Justice Prevention $ 300,000 $ 300,000 153910
3210 470606 Nutrition $ 1,033,947 $ 1,033,947 153911
3210 470614 Title IV-E Reimbursements $ 5,755,620 $ 3,714,548 153912
3CP0 470638 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 09 $ 20,000 $ 5,000 153913
3CR0 470639 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 10 $ 479,900 $ 126,000 153914
3FB0 470641 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 11 $ 500,000 $ 105,000 153915
3FC0 470642 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 12 $ 600,000 $ 50,000 153916
3GB0 470643 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 13 $ 135,000 $ 600,000 153917
3GC0 470644 Federal Juvenile Programs FFY 14 $ 0 $ 135,000 153918
3V50 470604 Juvenile Justice/Delinquency Prevention $ 1,300,000 $ 1,000,000 153919
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue 153920
Fund Group $ 11,605,207 $ 8,272,767 153921

State Special Revenue Fund Group153922

1470 470612 Vocational Education $ 1,795,000 $ 1,795,000 153923
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue 153924
Fund Group $ 1,795,000 $ 1,795,000 153925
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 249,913,470 $ 248,005,930 153926

       COMMUNITY PROGRAMS153927

       For purposes of improving community programs, and 153928
notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, of the 153929
foregoing appropriation item 470401, RECLAIM Ohio, the Department 153930
of Youth Services shall use $8,813,811 in each fiscal year to 153931
expand Targeted RECLAIM, the Behavioral Health Juvenile Justice 153932
Initiative, and other evidence-based community programs.153933

       For purposes of implementing juvenile sentencing reforms, and 153934
notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 153935
Department of Youth Services may use up to forty-five per cent of 153936
the unexpended, unencumbered balance of the portion of 153937
appropriation item 470401, RECLAIM Ohio, that is allocated to 153938
juvenile correctional facilities in each fiscal year to expand 153939
Targeted RECLAIM, the Behavioral Health Juvenile Justice 153940
Initiative, and other evidence-based community programs.153941

       LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS153942

       The foregoing appropriation item 470412, Lease Rental 153943
Payments, shall be used to meet all payments at the times they are 153944
required to be made for the period from July 1, 2013, through June 153945
30, 2015, by the Department of Youth Services under the leases and 153946
agreements for facilities made under Chapters 152. and 154. of the 153947
Revised Code. This appropriation is the source of funds pledged 153948
for bond service charges on related obligations issued under 153949
Chapters 152. and 154. of the Revised Code.153950

       EDUCATION REIMBURSEMENT153951

       The foregoing appropriation item 470613, Education 153952
Reimbursement, shall be used to fund the operating expenses of 153953
providing educational services to youth supervised by the 153954
Department of Youth Services. Operating expenses include, but are 153955
not limited to, teachers' salaries, maintenance costs, and 153956
educational equipment. This appropriation item may be used for 153957
capital expenses related to the education program.153958

       EMPLOYEE FOOD SERVICE AND EQUIPMENT153959

       Notwithstanding section 125.14 of the Revised Code, the 153960
foregoing appropriation item 470609, Employee Food Service, may be 153961
used to purchase any food operational items with funds received 153962
into the fund from reimbursements for state surplus property.153963

       FLEXIBLE FUNDING FOR CHILDREN AND FAMILIES153964

       In collaboration with the county family and children first 153965
council, the juvenile court of that county that receives 153966
allocations from one or both of the foregoing appropriation items 153967
470401, RECLAIM Ohio, and 470510, Youth Services, may transfer 153968
portions of those allocations to a flexible funding pool as 153969
authorized by the section of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th 153970
General Assembly titled "FAMILY AND CHILDREN FIRST FLEXIBLE 153971
FUNDING POOL."153972

       Section 501.10. SCREENING TOOL FOR HIGH-RISK YOUTH TEAM 153973
EVALUATION153974

       The Office of Health Transformation shall convene a team 153975
comprised of the Department of Youth Services, the Department of 153976
Medicaid, the Department of Job and Family Services, the 153977
Department of Health, and the Department of Mental Health and 153978
Addiction Services. The team shall evaluate the feasibility of 153979
implementing a trauma screening tool for high-risk youth and 153980
create a report with the following information: (A) the 153981
recommended trauma screening tool to be used to evaluate high-risk 153982
youth; (B) training in the administration of the recommended tool; 153983
(C) screening protocols; (D) the persons to whom the recommended 153984
tool should apply; and (E) the implications for treatment. The 153985
report shall be completed by December 1, 2013, and shall be 153986
distributed to the Governor. The Department of Youth Services may 153987
receive funds for piloting the recommended tool in detention 153988
centers.153989

       Section 501.20. All items set forth in sections 501.20 and 153990
501.30 of this act are hereby appropriated for the biennium ending 153991
on June 30, 2015, out of any moneys in the state treasury to the 153992
credit of the Administrative Building Fund (Fund 7026) that are 153993
not otherwise appropriated.153994

Appropriations

CSR CAPITOL SQUARE REVIEW AND ADVISORY BOARD
153995

C87412 Capitol Square Security $ 1,200,000 153996
TOTAL Capitol Square Review and Advisory Board $ 1,200,000 153997


Appropriations

       Section 501.30. TOS TREASURER OF STATE153999

C09001 Treasury Management System $ 10,000,000 154000
TOTAL Treasurer of State $ 10,000,000 154001
TOTAL Administrative Building Fund $ 11,200,000 154002

       The foregoing appropriation item C09001, Treasury Management 154003
System, shall be used to pay costs incurred in the acquisition and 154004
implementation of the Treasury Management System.154005

        The Treasurer of State may acquire and implement a Treasury 154006
Management System, including, but not limited to, the application 154007
hardware and software and the installation and implementation 154008
thereof, for the use of the Treasurer of State. The Treasury 154009
Management System is an integrated treasury technology 154010
infrastructure system that will replace the Treasurer of State's 154011
existing separate cash, custody, investment, and accounting 154012
software and administration systems for the various treasury 154013
functions performed by the state. 154014

        The Treasurer of State is hereby authorized to issue and 154015
sell, in accordance with Section 2i of Article VIII, Ohio 154016
Constitution, and Chapter 154. of the Revised Code, particularly 154017
section 154.24 of the Revised Code, original obligations in an 154018
aggregate principal amount not to exceed $11,200,000, in addition 154019
to the original issuance of obligations heretofore authorized by 154020
prior acts of the General Assembly. These authorized obligations 154021
shall be issued, subject to applicable constitutional and 154022
statutory limitations, to pay costs associated with previously 154023
authorized capital facilities and the capital facilities referred 154024
to in this section of the act.154025

       Section 503.10. PERSONAL SERVICE EXPENSES154026

       Unless otherwise prohibited by law, any appropriation from 154027
which personal service expenses are paid shall bear the employer's 154028
share of public employees' retirement, workers' compensation, 154029
disabled workers' relief, and insurance programs; and the costs of 154030
centralized financial services, centralized payroll processing, 154031
and related reports and services; centralized human resources 154032
services, including affirmative action and equal employment 154033
opportunity programs; the Office of Collective Bargaining; the 154034
Employee Assistance Program; centralized information technology 154035
management services; administering the enterprise resource 154036
planning system; and administering the state employee merit system 154037
as required by section 124.07 of the Revised Code. These costs 154038
shall be determined in conformity with the appropriate sections of 154039
law and paid in accordance with procedures specified by the Office 154040
of Budget and Management. Expenditures from appropriation item 154041
070601, Public Audit Expense - Intra-State, may be exempted from 154042
the requirements of this section.154043

       Section 503.20. SATISFACTION OF JUDGMENTS AND SETTLEMENTS 154044
AGAINST THE STATE154045

       Except as otherwise provided in this section, an 154046
appropriation in this act or any other act may be used for the 154047
purpose of satisfying judgments, settlements, or administrative 154048
awards ordered or approved by the Court of Claims or by any other 154049
court of competent jurisdiction in connection with civil actions 154050
against the state. This authorization does not apply to 154051
appropriations to be applied to or used for payment of guarantees 154052
by or on behalf of the state, or for payments under lease 154053
agreements relating to, or debt service on, bonds, notes, or other 154054
obligations of the state. Notwithstanding any other statute to the 154055
contrary, this authorization includes appropriations from funds 154056
into which proceeds of direct obligations of the state are 154057
deposited only to the extent that the judgment, settlement, or 154058
administrative award is for, or represents, capital costs for 154059
which the appropriation may otherwise be used and is consistent 154060
with the purpose for which any related obligations were issued or 154061
entered into. Nothing contained in this section is intended to 154062
subject the state to suit in any forum in which it is not 154063
otherwise subject to suit, and is not intended to waive or 154064
compromise any defense or right available to the state in any suit 154065
against it.154066

       Section 503.30. CAPITAL PROJECT SETTLEMENTS154067

       This section specifies an additional and supplemental 154068
procedure to provide for payments of judgments and settlements if 154069
the Director of Budget and Management determines, pursuant to 154070
division (C)(4) of section 2743.19 of the Revised Code, that 154071
sufficient unencumbered moneys do not exist in the fund to support 154072
a particular appropriation to pay the amount of a final judgment 154073
rendered against the state or a state agency, including the 154074
settlement of a claim approved by a court, in an action upon and 154075
arising out of a contractual obligation for the construction or 154076
improvement of a capital facility if the costs under the contract 154077
were payable in whole or in part from a state capital projects 154078
appropriation. In such a case, the Director may either proceed 154079
pursuant to division (C)(4) of section 2743.19 of the Revised Code 154080
or apply to the Controlling Board to increase an appropriation or 154081
create an appropriation out of any unencumbered moneys in the 154082
state treasury to the credit of the capital projects fund from 154083
which the initial state appropriation was made. The amount of an 154084
increase in appropriation or new appropriation approved by the 154085
Controlling Board is hereby appropriated from the applicable 154086
capital projects fund and made available for the payment of the 154087
judgment or settlement.154088

       If the Director does not make the application authorized by 154089
this section or the Controlling Board disapproves the application, 154090
and the Director does not make application under division (C)(4) 154091
of section 2743.19 of the Revised Code, the Director shall for the 154092
purpose of making that payment make a request to the General 154093
Assembly as provided for in division (C)(5) of that section.154094

       Section 503.40. RE-ISSUANCE OF VOIDED WARRANTS154095

       In order to provide funds for the reissuance of voided 154096
warrants under section 126.37 of the Revised Code, there is hereby 154097
appropriated, out of moneys in the state treasury from the fund 154098
credited as provided in section 126.37 of the Revised Code, that 154099
amount sufficient to pay such warrants when approved by the Office 154100
of Budget and Management.154101

       Section 503.50. REAPPROPRIATION OF UNEXPENDED ENCUMBERED 154102
BALANCES OF OPERATING APPROPRIATIONS154103

       (A) An unexpended balance of an operating appropriation or 154104
reappropriation that a state agency lawfully encumbered prior to 154105
the close of a fiscal year is hereby reappropriated on the first 154106
day of July of the following fiscal year from the fund from which 154107
it was originally appropriated or reappropriated for the following 154108
period and shall remain available only for the purpose of 154109
discharging the encumbrance:154110

       (1) For an encumbrance for personal services, maintenance, 154111
equipment, or items for resale, other than an encumbrance for an 154112
item of special order manufacture not available on term contract 154113
or in the open market or for reclamation of land or oil and gas 154114
wells, for a period of not more than five months from the end of 154115
the fiscal year;154116

       (2) For an encumbrance for an item of special order 154117
manufacture not available on term contract or in the open market, 154118
for a period of not more than five months from the end of the 154119
fiscal year or, with the written approval of the Director of 154120
Budget and Management, for a period of not more than twelve months 154121
from the end of the fiscal year;154122

       (3) For an encumbrance for reclamation of land or oil and gas 154123
wells, for a period ending when the encumbered appropriation is 154124
expended or for a period of two years, whichever is less;154125

       (4) For an encumbrance for any other expense, for such period 154126
as the Director approves, provided such period does not exceed two 154127
years.154128

       (B) Any operating appropriations for which unexpended 154129
balances are reappropriated beyond a five-month period from the 154130
end of the fiscal year by division (A)(2) of this section shall be 154131
reported to the Controlling Board by the Director of Budget and 154132
Management by the thirty-first day of December of each year. The 154133
report on each such item shall include the item, the cost of the 154134
item, and the name of the vendor. The report shall be updated on a 154135
quarterly basis for encumbrances remaining open.154136

       (C) Upon the expiration of the reappropriation period set out 154137
in division (A) of this section, a reappropriation made by this 154138
section lapses, and the Director of Budget and Management shall 154139
cancel the encumbrance of the unexpended reappropriation not later 154140
than the end of the weekend following the expiration of the 154141
reappropriation period.154142

       (D) Notwithstanding division (C) of this section, with the 154143
approval of the Director of Budget and Management, an unexpended 154144
balance of an encumbrance that was reappropriated on the first day 154145
of July by this section for a period specified in division (A)(3) 154146
or (4) of this section and that remains encumbered at the close of 154147
the fiscal biennium is hereby reappropriated on the first day of 154148
July of the following fiscal biennium from the fund from which it 154149
was originally appropriated or reappropriated for the applicable 154150
period specified in division (A)(3) or (4) of this section and 154151
shall remain available only for the purpose of discharging the 154152
encumbrance.154153

       (E) The Director of Budget and Management may correct 154154
accounting errors committed by the staff of the Office of Budget 154155
and Management, such as reestablishing encumbrances or 154156
appropriations cancelled in error, during the cancellation of 154157
operating encumbrances in November and of nonoperating 154158
encumbrances in December.154159

       (F) The Director of Budget and Management may at any time 154160
correct accounting errors committed by the staff of a state agency 154161
or state institution of higher education, as defined in section 154162
3345.011 of the Revised Code, such as reestablishing prior year 154163
nonoperating encumbrances canceled or modified in error. The 154164
reestablished encumbrance amounts are hereby appropriated.154165

       (G) If the Controlling Board approved a purchase, that 154166
approval remains in effect so long as the appropriation used to 154167
make that purchase remains encumbered.154168

       Section 503.60. APPROPRIATIONS RELATED TO CASH TRANSFERS AND 154169
RE-ESTABLISHMENT OF ENCUMBRANCES154170

       Any cash transferred by the Director of Budget and Management 154171
under section 126.15 of the Revised Code is hereby appropriated. 154172
Any amounts necessary to re-establish appropriations or 154173
encumbrances under section 126.15 of the Revised Code are hereby 154174
appropriated.154175

       Section 503.70. INCOME TAX DISTRIBUTION TO COUNTIES154176

       There are hereby appropriated out of any moneys in the state 154177
treasury to the credit of the General Revenue Fund, which are not 154178
otherwise appropriated, funds sufficient to make any payment 154179
required by division (B)(2) of section 5747.03 of the Revised 154180
Code.154181

       Section 503.80. EXPENDITURES AND APPROPRIATION INCREASES 154182
APPROVED BY THE CONTROLLING BOARD154183

       Any money that the Controlling Board approves for expenditure 154184
or any increase in appropriation that the Controlling Board 154185
approves under sections 127.14, 131.35, and 131.39 of the Revised 154186
Code or any other provision of law is hereby appropriated for the 154187
period ending June 30, 2015.154188

       Section 503.90. FUNDS RECEIVED FOR USE OF GOVERNOR'S 154189
RESIDENCE154190

       If the Governor's Residence Fund (Fund 4H20) receives payment 154191
for use of the residence pursuant to section 107.40 of the Revised 154192
Code, the amounts so received are hereby appropriated to 154193
appropriation item 100604, Governor's Residence Gift.154194

       Section 506.10. UTILITY RADIOLOGICAL SAFETY BOARD ASSESSMENTS154195

       Unless the agency and nuclear electric utility mutually agree 154196
to a higher amount by contract, the maximum amounts that may be 154197
assessed against nuclear electric utilities under division (B)(2) 154198
of section 4937.05 of the Revised Code and deposited into the 154199
specified funds are as follows:154200

Fund User FY 2014 FY 2015 154201
Utility Radiological Safety Fund (Fund 4E40) Department of Agriculture $ 130,000 $ 130,000 154202
Radiation Emergency Response Fund (Fund 6100) Department of Health $ 1,049,954 $ 1,086,098 154203
ER Radiological Safety Fund (Fund 6440) Environmental Protection Agency $ 284,266 $ 290,674 154204
Emergency Response Plan Fund (Fund 6570) Department of Public Safety $ 1,415,945 $ 1,415,945 154205

       Section 512.10. TRANSFERS TO THE GENERAL REVENUE FUND OF 154206
INTEREST EARNED154207

       Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 154208
Director of Budget and Management, through June 30, 2015, may 154209
transfer interest earned by any state fund to the General Revenue 154210
Fund. This section does not apply to funds whose source of revenue 154211
is restricted or protected by the Ohio Constitution, federal tax 154212
law, or the "Cash Management Improvement Act of 1990," 104 Stat. 154213
1058 (1990), 31 U.S.C. 6501 et seq., as amended.154214

       Section 512.20. CASH TRANSFERS TO THE GENERAL REVENUE FUND 154215
FROM NON-GRF FUNDS154216

        Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 154217
Director of Budget and Management may transfer up to $60,000,000 154218
in each fiscal year in cash from non-General Revenue Funds that 154219
are not constitutionally restricted to the General Revenue Fund in 154220
order to ensure that available General Revenue Fund receipts and 154221
balances are sufficient to support General Revenue Fund 154222
appropriations in each fiscal year.154223

       Section 512.30. FISCAL YEAR 2013 GENERAL REVENUE FUND ENDING 154224
BALANCE154225

       Notwithstanding divisions (B) and (C) of section 131.44 of 154226
the Revised Code, the Director of Budget and Management shall 154227
determine the surplus General Revenue Fund revenue that existed on 154228
June 30, 2013, in excess of the amount required under division 154229
(A)(3) of section 131.44 of the Revised Code, and transfer from 154230
the General Revenue Fund, to the extent of the amount so 154231
determined, the following:154232

       (A) To the Disaster Services Fund (Fund 5E20), a cash amount 154233
of up to $15,000,000;154234

       (B) To the Controlling Board Emergency Purposes Fund (Fund 154235
5KM0), a cash amount of up to $20,000,000;154236

       (C) To the Natural Resources Special Purposes Fund (Fund 154237
5MW0), which is hereby created in the state treasury, a cash 154238
amount of up to $12,000,000;154239

       (D) To the Unemployment Compensation Interest Contingency 154240
Fund (Fund 5HC0), a cash amount of up to $120,000,000 for payment 154241
to the United States Secretary of the Treasury of accrued interest 154242
costs related to federal unemployment account borrowing.154243

       Section 512.40.  ACCESS SUCCESS II PROGRAM154244

       To the extent cash is available, the Director of Budget and 154245
Management may transfer cash from the Money Follows the Person 154246
Enhanced Reimbursement Fund (Fund 5AJ0), used by the Department of 154247
Medicaid, to the Sale of Goods and Services Fund (Fund 1490), used 154248
by the Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services. The 154249
transferred cash is hereby appropriated. 154250

       The Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services shall 154251
use the transferred funds to administer the Access Success II 154252
Program to help non-Medicaid patients in any hospital established, 154253
controlled, or supervised by the Department under Chapter 5119. of 154254
the Revised Code to transition from inpatient status to a 154255
community setting. 154256

       Section 512.50. Not later than the first day of September 154257
2013, the Director of Mental Health and the Director of Alcohol 154258
and Drug Addiction Services shall certify to the Director of 154259
Budget and Management the amount of all of the unexpended, 154260
unencumbered balances of general revenue fund appropriations made 154261
to the Department of Mental Health and to the Department of 154262
Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services for FY 2012, excluding funds 154263
appropriated for rental payments to the Ohio Public Facilities 154264
Commission. On receipt of the certification, the Director of 154265
Budget and Management shall transfer cash to the Department of 154266
Mental Health and Addiction Services Trust Fund created in section 154267
5119.46 of the Revised Code (renumbered section 5119.60 of the 154268
Revised Code in this act) in an amount up to, but not exceeding, 154269
the total amounts certified by the Director of Mental Health and 154270
the Director of Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services.154271

       Section 512.70. PROHIBITION ON TRANSFERS154272

        Notwithstanding section 131.44 of the Revised Code, cash 154273
shall not be transferred to the Income Tax Reduction Fund prior to 154274
July 1, 2015.154275

       Section 512.80. DIESEL EMISSIONS REDUCTION GRANT PROGRAM154276

       There is hereby established in the Highway Operating Fund 154277
(Fund 7002), used by the Department of Transportation, a Diesel 154278
Emissions Reduction Grant Program. The Director of Environmental 154279
Protection shall administer the program and shall solicit, 154280
evaluate, score, and select projects submitted by public and 154281
private entities that are eligible for the federal Congestion 154282
Mitigation and Air Quality (CMAQ) Program. The Director of 154283
Transportation shall process Federal Highway 154284
Administration-approved projects as recommended by the Director of 154285
Environmental Protection.154286

       In addition to the allowable expenditures set forth in 154287
section 122.861 of the Revised Code, Diesel Emissions Reduction 154288
Grant Program funds also may be used to fund projects involving 154289
the purchase or use of hybrid and alternative fuel vehicles that 154290
are allowed under guidance developed by the Federal Highway 154291
Administration for the CMAQ Program.154292

        Public entities eligible to receive funds under section 154293
122.861 of the Revised Code and CMAQ shall be reimbursed from 154294
moneys in the Highway Operating Fund (Fund 7002) designated for 154295
the Department of Transportation's Diesel Emissions Reduction 154296
Grant Program.154297

        Private entities eligible to receive funds under section 154298
122.861 of the Revised Code and CMAQ shall be reimbursed through 154299
transfers of cash from moneys in the Highway Operating Fund (Fund 154300
7002) designated for the Department of Transportation's Diesel 154301
Emissions Reduction Grant Program to the Diesel Emissions 154302
Reduction Fund (Fund 3FH0), used by the Environmental Protection 154303
Agency. Total expenditures between both the Environmental 154304
Protection Agency and the Department of Transportation shall not 154305
exceed the amounts appropriated in this act for appropriation item 154306
715693, Diesel Emissions Reduction Grants.154307

       On or before June 30, 2014, the Director of Environmental 154308
Protection may certify to the Director of Budget and Management 154309
the amount of any unencumbered balance of the foregoing 154310
appropriation item 715693, Diesel Emissions Reduction Grants, for 154311
fiscal year 2014 to be used for the same purpose in fiscal year 154312
2015. Once the certification permitted under this section has been 154313
submitted and approved by the Director of Budget and Management, 154314
the amount approved is hereby appropriated for fiscal year 2015.154315

        Any cash transfers or allocations under this section 154316
represent CMAQ program moneys within the Department of 154317
Transportation for use by the Diesel Emissions Reduction Grant 154318
Program by the Environmental Protection Agency. These allocations 154319
shall not reduce the amount of such moneys designated for 154320
metropolitan planning organizations. 154321

       The Director of Environmental Protection, in consultation 154322
with the directors of Development Services and Transportation, 154323
shall develop guidance for the distribution of funds and for the 154324
administration of the Diesel Emissions Reduction Grant Program. 154325
The guidance shall include a method of prioritization for 154326
projects, acceptable technologies, and procedures for awarding 154327
grants.154328

       Section 515.30. On the effective date of this section, the 154329
Rehabilitation Services Commission is renamed the Opportunities 154330
for Ohioans with Disabilities Agency. The Rehabilitation Services 154331
Commission's functions, and its assets and liabilities, are 154332
transferred to the Opportunities for Ohioans with Disabilities 154333
Agency. The Opportunities for Ohioans with Disabilities Agency is 154334
successor to, assumes the obligations and authority of, and 154335
otherwise continues the Rehabilitation Services Commission. No 154336
right, privilege, or remedy, and no duty, liability, or 154337
obligation, accrued under the Rehabilitation Services Commission 154338
is impaired or lost by reason of the renaming and shall be 154339
recognized, administered, performed, or enforced by the 154340
Opportunities for Ohioans with Disabilities Agency.154341

       Business commenced but not completed by the Rehabilitation 154342
Services Commission or by the Administrator of the Rehabilitation 154343
Services Commission shall be completed by the Opportunities for 154344
Ohioans with Disabilities Agency or the Executive Director of the 154345
Opportunities for Ohioans with Disabilities Agency in the same 154346
manner, and with the same effect, as if completed by the 154347
Rehabilitation Services Commission or the Administrator of the 154348
Rehabilitation Services Commission.154349

       All of the Rehabilitation Services Commission's rules, 154350
orders, and determinations continue in effect as rules, orders, 154351
and determinations of the Opportunities for Ohioans with 154352
Disabilities Agency until modified or rescinded by the 154353
Opportunities for Ohioans with Disabilities Agency.154354

       Subject to the layoff provisions of sections 124.321 to 154355
124.382 of the Revised Code, all employees of the Rehabilitation 154356
Services Commission continue with the Opportunities for Ohioans 154357
with Disabilities Agency and retain their positions and all 154358
benefits accruing thereto.154359

       The Director of Budget and Management shall determine the 154360
amount of unexpended balances in the appropriation accounts that 154361
pertain to the Rehabilitation Services Commission and shall 154362
recommend to the Controlling Board their transfer to the 154363
appropriation accounts that pertain to the Opportunities for 154364
Ohioans with Disabilities Agency. The Administrator of the 154365
Rehabilitation Services Commission shall provide full and timely 154366
information to the Controlling Board to facilitate the transfer.154367

       Whenever the Rehabilitation Services Commission or the 154368
Administrator of the Rehabilitation Services Commission is 154369
referred to in a statute, contract, or other instrument, the 154370
reference is deemed to refer to the Opportunities for Ohioans with 154371
Disabilities Agency or to the Executive Director of the 154372
Opportunities for Ohioans with Disabilities Agency, whichever is 154373
appropriate in context.154374

       No pending action or proceeding being prosecuted or defended 154375
in court or before an agency by the Rehabilitation Services 154376
Commission or the Administrator of the Rehabilitation Services 154377
Commission is affected by the renaming and shall be prosecuted or 154378
defended in the name of the Opportunities for Ohioans with 154379
Disabilities Agency or the Executive Director of the Opportunities 154380
for Ohioans with Disabilities Agency, whichever is appropriate. 154381
Upon application to the court or agency, the Opportunities for 154382
Ohioans with Disabilities Agency or the Executive Director of the 154383
Opportunities for Ohioans with Disabilities Agency shall be 154384
substituted.154385

       Section 515.40.  The Department of Aging shall use 154386
appropriation item 490627, Board of Executives of LTSS, to spend 154387
cash in the Board of Executives of Long-Term Services and Supports 154388
Fund (Fund 5MT0), which is hereby established in the State 154389
Treasury. On the effective date of this section, the Board of 154390
Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators is renamed the Board of 154391
Executives of Long-Term Services and Supports. The Board of 154392
Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators' functions and its assets 154393
and liabilities, are transferred to the Board of Executives of 154394
Long-Term Services and Supports. The Board of Executives of 154395
Long-Term Services and Supports is successor to, assumes the 154396
obligations and authority of, and otherwise continues the Board of 154397
Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators. No right, privilege, or 154398
remedy, and no duty, liability, or obligation, accrued under the 154399
Board of Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators is impaired or 154400
lost by reason of the renaming and shall be recognized, 154401
administered, performed, or enforced by the Board of Executives of 154402
Long-Term Services and Supports.154403

       Business commenced but not completed by the Board of 154404
Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators or by the Secretary of 154405
the Board of Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators shall be 154406
completed by the Board of Executives of Long-Term Services and 154407
Supports or the Secretary of the Board of Executives of Long-Term 154408
Services and Supports in the same manner, and with the same 154409
effect, as if completed by the Board of Examiners of Nursing Home 154410
Administrators or by the Secretary of the Board of Examiners of 154411
Nursing Home Administrators.154412

       All of the Board of Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators' 154413
rules, orders, and determinations continue in effect as rules, 154414
orders, and determinations of the Board of Executives of Long-Term 154415
Services and Supports.154416

       Subject to the layoff provisions of sections 124.321 to 154417
124.328 of the Revised Code, all employees of the Board of 154418
Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators who provide 154419
administrative, technical, or other services to the Board of 154420
Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators on a full-time, permanent 154421
basis shall continue with the Board of Executives of Long-Term 154422
Services and Supports and retain their positions and benefits 154423
accruing thereto, except that those employees in the classified 154424
service shall be reclassified into the unclassified service and 154425
shall serve at the pleasure of the Board.154426

        Notwithstanding section 4751.03 of the Revised Code, as 154427
amended by this act, those board members currently serving as 154428
members of the Board of Examiners of Nursing Home Administrators 154429
on the effective date of this act shall continue to serve as 154430
members of the Board of Executives of Long-Term Services and 154431
Supports for the remainder of their appointment period, at which 154432
time new members shall be appointed in a manner consistent with 154433
section 4751.03 of the Revised Code, as amended by this act.154434

       Within ninety days after the effective date of this act, the 154435
Governor shall appoint to the Board of Executives of Long-Term 154436
Services and Supports those new members who are required to be 154437
appointed under divisions (A)(3) and (6) of section 4751.03 of the 154438
Revised Code, as amended by this act, for terms ending on May 27, 154439
2014. Thereafter, appointment for those members shall be as 154440
provided in section 4751.03 of the Revised Code, as amended by 154441
this act.154442

       Whenever the Board of Examiners of Nursing Home 154443
Administrators is referred to in statute, contract, or other 154444
instrument, the reference is deemed to refer to the Board of 154445
Executives of Long-Term Services and Supports.154446

       No pending action or proceeding being prosecuted or defended 154447
in court or before an agency by the Board of Examiners of Nursing 154448
Home Administrators or the Secretary of the Board of Examiners of 154449
Nursing Home Administrators is affected by the renaming and shall 154450
be prosecuted or defended in the name of the Board of Executives 154451
of Long-Term Services and Supports or the Secretary of the Board 154452
of Executives of Long-Term Services and Supports. Upon application 154453
to the court or agency, the Board of Executives of Long-Term 154454
Services and Supports or the Secretary of the Board of Executives 154455
of Long-Term Services and Supports shall be substituted.154456

       Section 515.50. (A) On July 1, 2013, the eTech Ohio 154457
Commission is renamed and reconstituted as the Broadcast 154458
Educational Media Commission, as described in section 3353.02 of 154459
the Revised Code as amended by this act. The Broadcast Educational 154460
Media Commission is thereupon and thereafter successor to, assumes 154461
the obligations of, and otherwise constitutes the continuation of 154462
the eTech Ohio Commission, for all obligations related to the 154463
state's educational broadcasting services, including educational 154464
television, radio, and radio reading services. 154465

       (B) Any business related to the state's educational 154466
television, radio, or radio reading services commenced but not 154467
completed by the eTech Ohio Commission shall be completed by the 154468
Broadcast Educational Media Commission in the same manner, and 154469
with the same effect, as if completed by the eTech Ohio 154470
Commission. No validation, cure, right, privilege, remedy, 154471
obligation, or liability is lost or impaired by reason of the 154472
renaming, and shall be recognized, administered, performed, or 154473
enforced by the Broadcast Educational Media Commission. 154474

       (C) All of the rules of the eTech Ohio Commission related to 154475
the state's educational broadcasting services, including 154476
educational television, radio, or radio reading services, continue 154477
in effect as rules of the Broadcast Educational Media Commission, 154478
until amended or rescinded by the Broadcast Educational Media 154479
Commission. 154480

       (D) No judicial or administrative action or proceeding 154481
related to the state's educational broadcasting services, 154482
including educational television, radio, or radio reading 154483
services, in which the eTech Ohio Commission is a party, that is 154484
pending on the effective date of this section is affected by the 154485
renaming. Such action or proceeding shall be prosecuted or 154486
defended in the name of the Broadcast Educational Media 154487
Commission. On application to the court or other tribunal, the 154488
Broadcast Educational Media Commission shall be substituted for 154489
the eTech Ohio Commission as a party to such action or proceeding. 154490

       (E) Subject to the layoff provisions of sections 124.321 to 154491
124.328 and division (D) of section 3353.03 of the Revised Code, 154492
as amended by this act, all employees of the former eTech Ohio 154493
Commission assigned to activities related to the state's 154494
educational broadcasting services, including educational 154495
television, radio, or radio reading services, continue with the 154496
Broadcast Educational Media Commission and retain their positions 154497
and all benefits accruing thereto. 154498

       (F) All books, records, documents, files, transcripts, 154499
equipment, furniture, supplies, and other materials related to the 154500
state's educational broadcasting services, including educational 154501
television, radio, or radio reading services, assigned to or in 154502
the possession of the former eTech Ohio Commission shall be 154503
transferred to the Broadcast Educational Media Commission. 154504

       (G) Each current member of the eTech Ohio Commission shall 154505
serve until June 30, 2013. On July 1, 2013, or as soon after July 154506
1, 2013, as possible, each member shall either be reappointed or 154507
replaced by another member to serve on the Educational Media 154508
Commission pursuant to section 3353.02 of the Revised Code, as 154509
amended by this act.154510

       Section 515.51. (A) On July 1, 2013, all responsibilities 154511
related to the administration of the Telecommunity Fund and the 154512
Distance Learning Fund, as well as for technology-related teacher 154513
professional development programs, are transferred from the former 154514
eTech Ohio Commission to the Chancellor of the Board of Regents as 154515
described in sections 3319.235, 3317.50, and 3317.51 of the 154516
Revised Code, as amended by this act. The Chancellor is thereupon 154517
and thereafter successor to, assumes the obligations of, and 154518
otherwise constitutes the continuation of the eTech Ohio 154519
Commission relating to the functions, assets, records, and 154520
obligations relating to these responsibilities. 154521

       (B) Any business related to these responsibilities commenced 154522
but not completed by the former eTech Ohio Commission shall be 154523
completed by the Chancellor in the same manner, and with the same 154524
effect, as if completed by the eTech Ohio Commission. No 154525
validation, cure, right, privilege, remedy, obligation, or 154526
liability is lost or impaired by reason of the transfer, and shall 154527
be recognized, administered, performed, or enforced by the 154528
Chancellor. 154529

       (C) All of the rules of the former eTech Ohio Commission 154530
related to these responsibilities continue in effect as rules of 154531
the Chancellor, until amended or rescinded by the Chancellor. 154532

       (D) Any judicial or administrative action or proceeding 154533
related to these responsibilities, in which the eTech Ohio 154534
Commission is a party, that is pending on the effective date of 154535
this section is affected by the transfer. Such action or 154536
proceeding shall be prosecuted or defended in the name of the 154537
Chancellor. On application to the court or other tribunal, the 154538
Chancellor of the Board of Regents shall be substituted for the 154539
eTech Ohio Commission as a party to such action or proceeding. 154540

       (E) Subject to the layoff provisions of sections 124.321 to 154541
124.328 and division (D) of section 3353.03 of the Revised Code, 154542
as amended by this act, all employees of the former eTech Ohio 154543
Commission assigned to these responsibilities continue with the 154544
Chancellor and retain their positions and all benefits accruing 154545
thereto. 154546

       (F) All books, records, documents, files, transcripts, 154547
equipment, furniture, supplies, and other materials related to 154548
these responsibilities assigned to or in the possession of the 154549
former eTech Ohio Commission shall be transferred to the 154550
Chancellor.154551

       (G) All employees of the former eTech Ohio Commission who 154552
transferred to the Chancellor of the Board of Regents upon the 154553
reconstitution of the Commission as prescribed by Section 515.50 154554
of H.B. 59 of the 130th General Assembly and who when employed by 154555
that Commission or a predecessor agency were included in a 154556
bargaining unit established under Chapter 4117. of the Revised 154557
Code, shall continue to be included in that bargaining unit, are 154558
public employees as defined in section 4117.01 of the Revised 154559
Code, and may collectively bargain with the Chancellor in 154560
accordance with that chapter. Otherwise, any employee hired by the 154561
Chancellor after the reconstitution of the Commission, either to 154562
fill vacancies or to fill new positions related to the transferred 154563
employees' duties, shall be exempt from Chapter 4117. of the 154564
Revised Code and shall not be public employees as defined in 154565
section 4117.01 of the Revised Code. 154566

       Section 515.52. (A) On July 1, 2013, all responsibilities of 154567
the former eTech Ohio Commission related to the purchase of 154568
software services and supplies, the redistribution of hardware and 154569
software from closed community schools, and technology-related 154570
teacher professional development programs are transferred from the 154571
former eTech Ohio Commission to the Department of Education as 154572
described in sections 125.05, 3314.074, and 3319.235 of the 154573
Revised Code, as amended by this act. The Department is thereupon 154574
and thereafter successor to, assumes the obligations of, and 154575
otherwise constitutes the continuation of the eTech Ohio 154576
Commission relating to these responsibilities. 154577

       (B) Any business related to these responsibilities commenced 154578
but not completed by the former eTech Ohio Commission shall be 154579
completed by the Department in the same manner, and with the same 154580
effect, as if completed by the eTech Ohio Commission. No 154581
validation, cure, right, privilege, remedy, obligation, or 154582
liability is lost or impaired by reason of the transfer, and shall 154583
be recognized, administered, performed, or enforced by the 154584
Department. 154585

       (C) All of the rules of the eTech Ohio Commission related to 154586
these responsibilities continue in effect as rules of the 154587
Department, until amended or rescinded by the Department. 154588

       (D) Any judicial or administrative action or proceeding 154589
related to these responsibilities, in which the eTech Ohio 154590
Commission is a party, that is pending on the effective date of 154591
this section is affected by the transfer. Such action or 154592
proceeding shall be prosecuted or defended in the name of the 154593
Department. On application to the court or other tribunal, the 154594
Department of Education shall be substituted for the eTech Ohio 154595
Commission as a party to such action or proceeding. 154596

       (E) Subject to the layoff provisions of sections 124.321 to 154597
124.328 and division (D) of section 3353.03 of the Revised Code, 154598
as amended by this act, all employees of the former eTech Ohio 154599
Commission assigned to these responsibilities continue with the 154600
Department and retain their positions and all benefits accruing 154601
thereto. 154602

       (F) All books, records, documents, files, transcripts, 154603
equipment, furniture, supplies, and other materials related to 154604
these responsibilities assigned to or in the possession of the 154605
former eTech Ohio Commission shall be transferred to the 154606
Department.154607

       (G) All employees of the former eTech Ohio Commission who 154608
transferred to the Department of Education upon the reconstitution 154609
of the Commission as prescribed by Section 515.50 of H.B. 59 of 154610
the 130th General Assembly and who when employed by that 154611
Commission or a predecessor agency were included in a bargaining 154612
unit established under Chapter 4117. of the Revised Code, shall 154613
continue to be included in that bargaining unit, are public 154614
employees as defined in section 4117.01 of the Revised Code, and 154615
may collectively bargain with the state Board of Education in 154616
accordance with that chapter. Otherwise, any employee hired by the 154617
Department after the reconstitution of the Commission, either to 154618
fill vacancies or to fill new positions related to the transferred 154619
employees' duties, shall be exempt from Chapter 4117. of the 154620
Revised Code and shall not be public employees as defined in 154621
section 4117.01 of the Revised Code. 154622

       Section 515.53.  Any duties and responsibilities of the 154623
former eTech Ohio Commission not transferred in accordance with 154624
Sections 515.50, 515.51, and 515.52 of this act are eliminated on 154625
July 1, 2013.154626

       Section 518.10. GENERAL OBLIGATION DEBT SERVICE PAYMENTS154627

       Certain appropriations are in this act for the purpose of 154628
paying debt service and financing costs on general obligation 154629
bonds or notes of the state issued pursuant to the Ohio 154630
Constitution and acts of the General Assembly. If it is determined 154631
that additional appropriations are necessary for this purpose, 154632
such amounts are hereby appropriated.154633

       Section 518.20. LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS FOR DEBT SERVICE154634

       Certain appropriations are in this act for the purpose of 154635
making lease rental payments pursuant to leases and agreements 154636
relating to bonds or notes issued by the Treasurer of State, or 154637
previously by the Ohio Public Facilities Commission or the Ohio 154638
Building Authority, pursuant to the Ohio Constitution and acts of 154639
the General Assembly. If it is determined that additional 154640
appropriations are necessary for this purpose, such amounts are 154641
hereby appropriated.154642

       Section 518.30. AUTHORIZATION FOR TREASURER OF STATE AND OBM 154643
TO EFFECTUATE CERTAIN DEBT SERVICE PAYMENTS154644

       The Office of Budget and Management shall process payments 154645
from general obligation and lease rental payment appropriation 154646
items during the period from July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015, 154647
relating to bonds or notes issued under Sections 2i, 2k, 2l, 2m, 154648
2n, 2o, 2p, 2q, 2r, and 15 of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and 154649
Chapters 151., 152., and 154. of the Revised Code. Payments shall 154650
be made upon certification by the Treasurer of State of the dates 154651
and the amounts due on those dates.154652

       Section 521.11. STATE AND LOCAL REBATE AUTHORIZATION154653

        There is hereby appropriated, from those funds designated by 154654
or pursuant to the applicable proceedings authorizing the issuance 154655
of state obligations, amounts computed at the time to represent 154656
the portion of investment income to be rebated or amounts in lieu 154657
of or in addition to any rebate amount to be paid to the federal 154658
government in order to maintain the exclusion from gross income 154659
for federal income tax purposes of interest on those state 154660
obligations under section 148(f) of the Internal Revenue Code.154661

       Rebate payments shall be approved and vouchered by the Office 154662
of Budget and Management.154663

       Section 521.20. STATEWIDE INDIRECT COST RECOVERY154664

       Whenever the Director of Budget and Management determines 154665
that an appropriation made to a state agency from a fund of the 154666
state is insufficient to provide for the recovery of statewide 154667
indirect costs under section 126.12 of the Revised Code, the 154668
amount required for such purpose is hereby appropriated from the 154669
available receipts of such fund.154670

       Section 521.30.  TRANSFERS ON BEHALF OF THE STATEWIDE 154671
INDIRECT COST ALLOCATION PLAN154672

       The total transfers made from the General Revenue Fund by the 154673
Director of Budget and Management under this section shall not 154674
exceed the amounts transferred into the General Revenue Fund under 154675
section 126.12 of the Revised Code.154676

       The director of an agency may certify to the Director of 154677
Budget and Management the amount of expenses not allowed to be 154678
included in the Statewide Indirect Cost Allocation Plan under 154679
federal regulations, from any fund included in the Statewide 154680
Indirect Cost Allocation Plan, prepared as required by section 154681
126.12 of the Revised Code.154682

       Upon determining that no alternative source of funding is 154683
available to pay for such expenses, the Director of Budget and 154684
Management may transfer cash from the General Revenue Fund into 154685
the fund for which the certification is made, up to the amount of 154686
the certification. The director of the agency receiving such funds 154687
shall include, as part of the next budget submission prepared 154688
under section 126.02 of the Revised Code, a request for funding 154689
for such activities from an alternative source such that further 154690
federal disallowances would not be required.154691

       The director of an agency may certify to the Director of 154692
Budget and Management the amount of expenses paid in error from a 154693
fund included in the Statewide Indirect Cost Allocation Plan. The 154694
Director of Budget and Management may transfer cash from the fund 154695
from which the expenditure should have been made into the fund 154696
from which the expenses were erroneously paid, up to the amount of 154697
the certification.154698

       The director of an agency may certify to the Director of 154699
Budget and Management the amount of expenses or revenues not 154700
allowed to be included in the Statewide Indirect Cost Allocation 154701
Plan under federal regulations, for any fund included in the 154702
Statewide Indirect Cost Allocation Plan, for which the federal 154703
government requires payment. If the Director of Budget and 154704
Management determines that an appropriation made to a state agency 154705
from a fund of the state is insufficient to pay the amount 154706
required by the federal government, the amount required for such 154707
purpose is hereby appropriated from the available receipts of such 154708
fund, up to the amount of the certification.154709

       Section 521.35. CASH TRANSFERS TO TOBACCO OVERSIGHT 154710
ADMINISTRATION AND ENFORCEMENT FUND154711

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 154712
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 154713
in the Tobacco Settlement Enforcement Fund (Fund T087) and the 154714
Education Technology Trust Fund (Fund S087) to the Tobacco 154715
Oversight Administration and Enforcement Fund (Fund U087). Upon 154716
completion of the transfer, Fund T087 and Fund S087 are abolished. 154717
The Director shall cancel any existing encumbrances against 154718
appropriation items 110402, Tobacco Settlement Enforcement, and 154719
935602, Education Technology Trust.154720

       On July 1, 2014, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 154721
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 154722
in the Law Enforcement Improvement Trust Fund (Fund J087) to the 154723
Tobacco Oversight Administration and Enforcement Fund (Fund U087). 154724
Upon completion of the transfer, Fund J087 is abolished. The 154725
Director shall cancel any existing encumbrances against 154726
appropriation item 055635, Law Enforcement Technology, Training, 154727
and Facility Enhancements.154728

       Section 521.40. FEDERAL GOVERNMENT INTEREST REQUIREMENTS154729

       Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, on or 154730
before the first day of September of each fiscal year, the 154731
Director of Budget and Management, in order to reduce the payment 154732
of adjustments to the federal government, as determined by the 154733
plan prepared under division (A) of section 126.12 of the Revised 154734
Code, may designate such funds as the Director considers necessary 154735
to retain their own interest earnings.154736

       Section 521.50. FEDERAL CASH MANAGEMENT IMPROVEMENT ACT154737

       Pursuant to the plan for compliance with the Federal Cash 154738
Management Improvement Act required by section 131.36 of the 154739
Revised Code, the Director of Budget and Management may cancel and 154740
re-establish all or part of encumbrances in like amounts within 154741
the funds identified by the plan. The amounts necessary to 154742
re-establish all or part of encumbrances are hereby appropriated.154743

       Section 521.60. FISCAL STABILIZATION AND RECOVERY154744

        To ensure the level of accountability and transparency 154745
required by federal law, the Director of Budget and Management may 154746
issue guidelines to any agency applying for federal money made 154747
available to this state for fiscal stabilization and recovery 154748
purposes, and may prescribe the process by which agencies are to 154749
comply with any reporting requirements established by the federal 154750
government.154751

       Section 605.03. That Section 1 of Sub. H.B. 34 of the 130th 154752
General Assembly be amended to read as follows:154753

       Sec. 1. All items in this section are hereby appropriated out 154754
of any moneys in the state treasury to the credit of the 154755
designated fund. For all appropriations made in this act, those in 154756
the first column are for fiscal year 2014, and those in the second 154757
column are for fiscal year 2015.154758

FND AI AI TITLE Appropriations 154759

BWC BUREAU OF WORKERS' COMPENSATION
154760

Workers' Compensation Fund Group154761

7023 855401 William Green Lease Payments to OBA $ 16,026,100 $ 0 154762
7023 855407 Claims, Risk and Medical Management $ 118,338,586 $ 118,338,586 154763
7023 855408 Fraud Prevention $ 12,114,226 $ 12,114,226 154764
7023 855409 Administrative Services $ 105,857,276 $ 105,357,276 154765
7023 855410 Attorney General Payments $ 4,621,850 $ 4,621,850 154766
8220 855606 Coal Workers' Fund $ 147,666 $ 147,666 154767
8230 855608 Marine Industry $ 75,527 $ 75,527 154768
8250 855605 Disabled Workers Relief Fund $ 319,718 $ 319,718 154769
8260 855609 Safety and Hygiene Operating $ 19,161,132 21,661,132 $ 19,161,132 21,661,132 154770
8260 855610 Gear Program Safety Grants $ 5,000,000 15,000,000 $ 5,000,000 15,000,000 154771
8290 855604 Long Term Care Loan Program $ 100,000 $ 100,000 154772
TOTAL WCF Workers' Compensation 154773
Fund Group $ 281,762,081 294,262,081 $ 265,235,981 277,735,981 154774

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group154775

3490 855601 OSHA Enforcement $ 1,731,000 $ 1,731,000 154776
3FW0 855614 BLS SOII Grant $ 116,919 $ 116,919 154777
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 1,847,919 $ 1,847,919 154778
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 283,610,000 296,110,000 $ 267,083,900 279,583,900 154779

       WILLIAM GREEN LEASE PAYMENTS154780

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 855401, William Green 154781
Lease Payments, up to $16,026,100 shall be used to make lease 154782
payments to the Treasurer of State at the times they are required 154783
to be made during the period from July 1, 2013 to June 30, 2015, 154784
pursuant to leases and agreements made under section 154.24 of the 154785
Revised Code. If it is determined that additional appropriations 154786
are necessary for such purpose, such amounts are hereby 154787
appropriated.154788

       WORKERS' COMPENSATION FRAUD UNIT154789

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 855410, Attorney General 154790
Payments, $828,200 in each fiscal year shall be used to fund the 154791
expenses of the Workers' Compensation Fraud Unit within the 154792
Attorney General's Office. These payments shall be processed at 154793
the beginning of each quarter of each fiscal year and deposited 154794
into the Workers' Compensation Section Fund (Fund 1950) used by 154795
the Attorney General.154796

       SAFETY AND HYGIENE154797

       Notwithstanding section 4121.37 of the Revised Code, the 154798
Treasurer of State shall transfer $19,161,132$21,661,132 cash in 154799
fiscal year 2014 and $19,161,132$21,661,132 cash in fiscal year 154800
2015 from the State Insurance Fund to the Safety and Hygiene Fund 154801
(Fund 8260).154802

       OSHA ON-SITE CONSULTATION PROGRAM154803

        The Bureau of Workers' Compensation may designate a portion 154804
of appropriation item 855609, Safety and Hygiene Operating, to be 154805
used to match federal funding for the federal Occupational Safety 154806
and Health Administration's (OSHA) on-site consultation program.154807

       VOCATIONAL REHABILITATION154808

       The Bureau of Workers' Compensation and the Rehabilitation 154809
Services Commission shall enter into an interagency agreement for 154810
the provision of vocational rehabilitation services and staff to 154811
mutually eligible clients. The bureau may provide not more than 154812
$605,407 in fiscal year 2014 and not more than $605,407 in fiscal 154813
year 2015 from the State Insurance Fund to fund vocational 154814
rehabilitation services and staff in accordance with the 154815
interagency agreement.154816

       FUND BALANCE154817

       Any unencumbered cash balance in excess of $45,000,000 in the 154818
Workers' Compensation Fund (Fund 7023) on the thirtieth day of 154819
June of each fiscal year shall be used to reduce the 154820
administrative cost rate charged to employers to cover 154821
appropriations for Bureau of Workers' Compensation operations.154822

       Section 605.04. That existing Section 1 of Sub. H.B. 34 of 154823
the 130th General Assembly is hereby repealed.154824

       Section 605.10. That Sections 205.10 and 506.10 of Am. Sub. 154825
H.B. 51 of the 130th General Assembly be amended to read as 154826
follows:154827

       Sec. 205.10. DPS DEPARTMENT OF PUBLIC SAFETY154828

State Highway Safety Fund Group154829

4W40 762321 Operating Expense - BMV $ 130,559,268 $ 130,418,957 154830
5V10 762682 License Plate Contribution $ 2,100,000 $ 2,100,000 154831
7036 761321 Operating Expense - Information and Education $ 7,055,066 $ 6,999,331 154832
7036 761401 Lease Rental Payments $ 2,472,300 $ 2,473,100 154833
7036 764033 Minor Capital Projects $ 1,250,000 $ 1,250,000 154834
7036 764321 Operating Expense - Highway Patrol $ 268,232,602 268,743,502 $ 270,232,602 154835
7036 764605 Motor Carrier Enforcement Expenses $ 2,860,000 $ 2,860,000 154836
8300 761603 Salvage and Exchange - Administration $ 20,053 $ 20,053 154837
8310 761610 Information and Education - Federal $ 300,000 $ 300,000 154838
8310 764608 FARS Grant Federal $ 175,000 $ 175,000 154839
8310 764610 Patrol - Federal $ 2,250,000 $ 2,250,000 154840
8310 764659 Transportation Enforcement - Federal $ 5,200,000 $ 5,200,000 154841
8310 765610 EMS - Federal $ 225,000 $ 225,000 154842
8310 769610 Investigative Unit Federal Reimbursement $ 1,400,000 $ 1,400,000 154843
8310 769631 Homeland Security - Federal $ 750,000 $ 400,000 154844
8320 761612 Traffic Safety - Federal $ 22,000,000 $ 22,000,000 154845
8350 762616 Financial Responsibility Compliance $ 5,274,068 $ 5,274,068 154846
8370 764602 Turnpike Policing $ 11,553,959 $ 11,553,959 154847
83C0 764630 Contraband, Forfeiture, Other $ 622,894 $ 622,894 154848
83F0 764657 Law Enforcement Automated Data System $ 8,500,000 $ 8,500,000 154849
83G0 764633 OMVI Enforcement/Education $ 641,927 $ 641,927 154850
83J0 764693 Highway Patrol Justice Contraband $ 2,100,000 $ 2,100,000 154851
83M0 765624 Operating - EMS $ 3,056,069 $ 3,056,069 154852
83M0 765640 EMS - Grants $ 3,300,000 $ 3,300,000 154853
83R0 762639 Local Immobilization Reimbursement $ 450,000 $ 450,000 154854
83T0 764694 Highway Patrol Treasury Contraband $ 21,000 $ 21,000 154855
8400 764607 State Fair Security $ 1,294,354 $ 1,294,354 154856
8400 764617 Security and Investigations $ 8,793,865 $ 9,514,236 154857
8400 764626 State Fairgrounds Police Force $ 1,047,560 $ 1,084,559 154858
8400 769632 Homeland Security - Operating $ 650,000 $ 630,000 154859
8410 764603 Salvage and Exchange - Highway Patrol $ 1,339,399 $ 1,339,399 154860
8460 761625 Motorcycle Safety Education $ 3,280,563 $ 3,280,563 154861
8490 762627 Automated Title Processing Board $ 16,675,513 $ 16,467,293 154862
TOTAL HSF State Highway Safety Fund Group $ 515,450,460 515,961,360 $ 517,434,364 154863

General Services Fund Group154864

4P60 768601 Justice Program Services $ 900,000 $ 875,000 154865
5ET0 768625 Drug Law Enforcement $ 4,250,000 $ 4,250,000 154866
5LM0 768698 Criminal Justice Services Law Enforcement Support $ 850,946 $ 850,946 154867
TOTAL GSF General Services Fund Group $ 6,290,946 6,000,946 $ 6,265,946 5,975,946 154868

Federal Special Revenue Fund Group154869

3290 763645 Federal Mitigation Program $ 10,413,642 $ 10,413,642 154870
3370 763609 Federal Disaster Relief $ 27,707,636 $ 27,707,636 154871
3390 763647 Emergency Management Assistance and Training $ 70,934,765 $ 70,934,765 154872
3CE0 768611 Justice Assistance Grants – FFY09 $ 400,000 $ 100,000 154873
3DE0 768612 Federal Stimulus - Justice Assistance Grants $ 1,000,000 $ 300,000 154874
3DU0 762628 BMV Grants $ 1,350,000 $ 1,325,000 154875
3EU0 768614 Justice Assistance Grants – FFY10 $ 830,000 $ 500,000 154876
3FK0 768615 Justice Assistance Grants – FFY11 $ 900,000 $ 900,000 154877
3FP0 767620 Ohio Investigative Unit Justice Contraband $ 55,000 $ 55,000 154878
3FY0 768616 Justice Assistance Grants – FFY12 $ 2,200,000 $ 1,500,000 154879
3FZ0 768617 Justice Assistance Grants – FFY13 $ 7,000,000 $ 2,000,000 154880
3GA0 768618 Justice Assistance Grants – FFY14 $ 0 $ 7,500,000 154881
3L50 768604 Justice Program $ 10,500,000 $ 10,500,000 154882
3N50 763644 U.S. Department of Energy Agreement $ 31,672 $ 31,672 154883
TOTAL FED Federal Special Revenue Fund Group $ 133,322,715 $ 133,767,715 154884

State Special Revenue Fund Group154885

4V30 763662 Storms/NOAA Maintenance $ 4,950,000 $ 4,950,000 154886
5390 762614 Motor Vehicle Dealers Board $ 150,000 $ 140,000 154887
5B90 766632 Private Investigator and Security Guard Provider $ 1,400,000 $ 1,400,000 154888
5BK0 768687 Criminal Justice Services - Operating $ 400,000 $ 400,000 154889
5BK0 768689 Family Violence Shelter Programs $ 750,000 $ 750,000 154890
5CM0 767691 Equitable Share Account $ 300,000 $ 300,000 154891
5DS0 769630 Homeland Security $ 1,414,384 $ 1,414,384 154892
5FF0 762621 Indigent Interlock and Alcohol Monitoring $ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000 154893
5FL0 769634 Investigations $ 899,300 $ 899,300 154894
5ML0 769635 Infrastructure Protection $ 400,000 $ 400,000 154895
5BP0 764609 DPS Wireless 911 Administration $ 290,000 $ 290,000 154896
6220 767615 Investigative Contraband and Forfeiture $ 325,000 $ 325,000 154897
6570 763652 Utility Radiological Safety $ 1,415,945 $ 1,415,945 154898
6810 763653 SARA Title III HAZMAT Planning $ 262,438 $ 262,438 154899
8500 767628 Investigative Unit Salvage $ 92,700 $ 92,700 154900
TOTAL SSR State Special Revenue Fund Group $ 15,049,767 14,759,767 $ 15,039,767 14,749,767 154901

Agency Fund Group154902

5J90 761678 Federal Salvage/GSA $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 154903
TOTAL AGY Agency Fund Group $ 1,500,000 $ 1,500,000 154904

Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group154905

R024 762619 Unidentified Motor Vehicle Receipts $ 1,885,000 $ 1,885,000 154906
R052 762623 Security Deposits $ 350,000 $ 350,000 154907
TOTAL 090 Holding Account Redistribution Fund Group $ 2,235,000 $ 2,235,000 154908
TOTAL ALL BUDGET FUND GROUPS $ 673,558,888 673,779,788 $ 675,952,792 675,662,792 154909

       MOTOR VEHICLE REGISTRATION154910

       The Registrar of Motor Vehicles may deposit revenues to meet 154911
the cash needs of the State Bureau of Motor Vehicles Fund (Fund 154912
4W40) established in section 4501.25 of the Revised Code, obtained 154913
under sections 4503.02 and 4504.02 of the Revised Code, less all 154914
other available cash. Revenue deposited pursuant to this paragraph 154915
shall support, in part, appropriations for operating expenses and 154916
defray the cost of manufacturing and distributing license plates 154917
and license plate stickers and enforcing the law relative to the 154918
operation and registration of motor vehicles. Notwithstanding 154919
section 4501.03 of the Revised Code, the revenues shall be paid 154920
into Fund 4W40 before any revenues obtained pursuant to sections 154921
4503.02 and 4504.02 of the Revised Code are paid into any other 154922
fund. The deposit of revenues to meet the aforementioned cash 154923
needs shall be in approximately equal amounts on a monthly basis 154924
or as otherwise determined by the Director of Budget and 154925
Management pursuant to a plan submitted by the Registrar of Motor 154926
Vehicles.154927

       OPERATING EXPENSE – BMV154928

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 762321, Operating Expense 154929
– BMV, up to $50,000 in fiscal year 2014 shall be used to pay for 154930
costs associated with improvements to the program to accept 154931
applications for registration transactions of apportionable 154932
vehicles electronically over the internet.154933

       OPERATING EXPENSE - INFORMATION AND EDUCATION154934

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 761321, Operating Expense 154935
– Information and Education, up to $250,000 in each fiscal year 154936
may be used to fund state employees to staff travel information 154937
centers on the border of the state.154938

       The Department of Public Safety shall conduct a study for 154939
partnering with local travel and tourism centers, as well as a 154940
study for the creation of the Ohio Ambassadors Volunteer Program 154941
at rest stops.154942

       LEASE RENTAL PAYMENTS154943

       The foregoing appropriation item 761401, Lease Rental 154944
Payments, shall be used for payments to the Treasurer of State for 154945
the period July 1, 2013, through June 30, 2015, under the primary 154946
leases and agreements for public safety related buildings. The 154947
appropriations are the source of funds pledged for bond service 154948
charges on obligations pursuant to Chapters 152. and 154. of the 154949
Revised Code.154950

       OPERATING EXPENSE - HIGHWAY PATROL154951

        On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 154952
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer $510,900 cash 154953
from the GRF to the State Highway Safety Fund (Fund 7036). The 154954
transferred cash shall be used by the State Highway Patrol for the 154955
purchase of specialized equipment for examining commercial truck 154956
cargo. 154957

       CASH TRANSFERS BETWEEN FUNDS154958

        Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, the 154959
Director of Budget and Management, upon the written request of the 154960
Director of Public Safety, may transfer cash between the following 154961
six funds: the Trauma and Emergency Medical Services Fund (Fund 154962
83M0), the Homeland Security Fund (Fund 5DS0), the Investigations 154963
Fund (Fund 5FL0), the Emergency Management Agency Service and 154964
Reimbursement Fund (Fund 4V30), the Justice Program Services Fund 154965
(Fund 4P60), and the State Bureau of Motor Vehicles Fund (Fund 154966
4W40).154967

       CASH TRANSFER FROM TEEN DRIVER EDUCATION FUND TO LICENSE 154968
PLATE CONTRIBUTION FUND154969

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 154970
Director of Budget and Management may transfer the cash balance in 154971
the Teen Driver Education Fund (Fund 5JS0) to the License Plate 154972
Contribution Fund (Fund 5V10). Upon completion of the transfer, 154973
Fund 5JS0 is hereby abolished.154974

       CASH TRANSFER FROM HILLTOP UTILITY REIMBURSEMENT FUND TO 154975
STATE HIGHWAY SAFETY FUND154976

       Not later than January 1, 2014, the Director of Budget and 154977
Management may transfer the cash balance in the Hilltop Utility 154978
Reimbursement Fund (Fund 4S30) to the State Highway Safety Fund 154979
(Fund 7036). Upon completion of the transfer, Fund 4S30 is hereby 154980
abolished. The Director shall cancel any existing encumbrances 154981
against appropriation item 766661, Hilltop Utility Reimbursement, 154982
and reestablish them against appropriation item 761321, Operating 154983
Expense – Information and Education. The reestablished encumbrance 154984
amounts are hereby appropriated.154985

       CASH TRANSFER FROM REGISTRAR RENTAL FUND TO STATE HIGHWAY 154986
SAFETY FUND154987

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 154988
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer the cash balance 154989
in the Registrar Rental Fund (Fund 8380) to the State Bureau of 154990
Motor Vehicles Fund (Fund 4W40). Upon completion of the transfer, 154991
Fund 8380 is abolished.154992

       STATE DISASTER RELIEF154993

       The State Disaster Relief Fund (Fund 5330) may accept 154994
transfers of cash and appropriations from Controlling Board 154995
appropriation items for Ohio Emergency Management Agency disaster 154996
response costs and disaster program management costs, and may also 154997
be used for the following purposes:154998

       (A) To accept transfers of cash and appropriations from 154999
Controlling Board appropriation items for Ohio Emergency 155000
Management Agency public assistance and mitigation program match 155001
costs to reimburse eligible local governments and private 155002
nonprofit organizations for costs related to disasters;155003

       (B) To accept and transfer cash to reimburse the costs 155004
associated with Emergency Management Assistance Compact (EMAC) 155005
deployments;155006

       (C) To accept disaster related reimbursement from federal, 155007
state, and local governments. The Director of Budget and 155008
Management may transfer cash from reimbursements received by this 155009
fund to other funds of the state from which transfers were 155010
originally approved by the Controlling Board.155011

       (D) To accept transfers of cash and appropriations from 155012
Controlling Board appropriation items to fund the State Disaster 155013
Relief Program, for disasters that qualify for the program by 155014
written authorization of the Governor, and the State Individual 155015
Assistance Program for disasters that have been declared by the 155016
federal Small Business Administration and that qualify for the 155017
program by written authorization of the Governor. The Ohio 155018
Emergency Management Agency shall publish and make available 155019
application packets outlining procedures for the State Disaster 155020
Relief Program and the State Individual Assistance Program.155021

       JUSTICE ASSISTANCE GRANT FUND155022

       The federal payments made to the state for the Byrne Justice 155023
Assistance Grants Program under Title II of Division A of the 155024
American Recovery and Reinvestment Act of 2009 shall be deposited 155025
to the credit of the Justice Assistance Grant Fund (Fund 3DE0), 155026
which is hereby created in the state treasury. All investment 155027
earnings of the fund shall be credited to the fund.155028

        TRANSFER FROM STATE FIRE MARSHAL FUND TO EMERGENCY MANAGEMENT 155029
AGENCY SERVICE AND REIMBURSEMENT FUND155030

        On July 1 of each fiscal year, or as soon as possible 155031
thereafter, the Director of Budget and Management shall transfer 155032
$200,000 cash from the State Fire Marshal Fund (Fund 5460) to the 155033
Emergency Management Agency Service and Reimbursement Fund (Fund 155034
4V30) to be distributed to the Ohio Task Force One – Urban Search 155035
and Rescue Unit, other similar urban search and rescue units 155036
around the state, and for the maintenance of the statewide fire 155037
emergency response plan by an entity recognized by the Ohio 155038
Emergency Management Agency.155039

       FAMILY VIOLENCE PREVENTION FUND155040

        Notwithstanding any provision of law to the contrary, in each 155041
of fiscal years 2014 and 2015, the first $750,000 received to the 155042
credit of the Family Violence Prevention Fund (Fund 5BK0) is 155043
appropriated to appropriation item 768689, Family Violence Shelter 155044
Programs, and the next $400,000 received to the credit of Fund 155045
5BK0 in each of those fiscal years is appropriated to 155046
appropriation item 768687, Criminal Justice Services - Operating. 155047
Any moneys received to the credit of Fund 5BK0 in excess of the 155048
aforementioned appropriated amounts in each fiscal year shall, 155049
upon the approval of the Controlling Board, be used to provide 155050
grants to family violence shelters in Ohio.155051

       SARA TITLE III HAZMAT PLANNING155052

       The SARA Title III HAZMAT Planning Fund (Fund 6810) is 155053
entitled to receive grant funds from the Emergency Response 155054
Commission to implement the Emergency Management Agency's 155055
responsibilities under Chapter 3750. of the Revised Code.155056

       COLLECTIVE BARGAINING INCREASES155057

       Notwithstanding division (D) of section 127.14 and division 155058
(B) of section 131.35 of the Revised Code, except for the General 155059
Revenue Fund, the Controlling Board may, upon the request of 155060
either the Director of Budget and Management, or the Department of 155061
Public Safety with the approval of the Director of Budget and 155062
Management, authorize expenditures in excess of appropriations and 155063
transfer appropriations, as necessary, for any fund used by the 155064
Department of Public Safety, to assist in paying the costs of 155065
increases in employee compensation that have occurred pursuant to 155066
collective bargaining agreements under Chapter 4117. of the 155067
Revised Code and, for exempt employees, under section 124.152 of 155068
the Revised Code. Any money approved for expenditure under this 155069
paragraph is hereby appropriated.155070

       CASH BALANCE FUND REVIEW155071

       Not later than the first day of April in each fiscal year of 155072
the biennium, the Director of Budget and Management shall review 155073
the cash balances for each fund, except the State Highway Safety 155074
Fund (Fund 7036) and the State Bureau of Motor Vehicles Fund (Fund 155075
4W40), in the State Highway Safety Fund Group, and shall recommend 155076
to the Controlling Board an amount to be transferred to the credit 155077
of Fund 7036 or Fund 4W40, as appropriate.155078

       AUTO REGISTRATION DISTRIBUTION FUND155079

       Notwithstanding the amendment by this act to section 4501.03 155080
of the Revised Code and the enactment by this act of section 155081
4501.031 of the Revised Code, any license tax assessed under 155082
Chapters 4503. or 4504. of the Revised Code, and derived from 155083
registrations processed on business days prior to July 1, 2013, 155084
shall be deposited to the state treasury to the credit of the Auto 155085
Registration Distribution Fund (Fund 7051) created by section 155086
4501.03 of the Revised Code, even if such deposit does not occur 155087
until on or after July 1, 2013. All license tax assessed on 155088
registrations under Chapters 4503. or 4504. of the Revised Code 155089
prior to July 1, 2013, shall be deposited, and distributed, in 155090
accordance with sections 4501.03, 4501.04, 4501.041, 4501.042, and 155091
4501.043 of the Revised Code as they existed prior to the 155092
amendments to those sections by this act.155093

       Sec. 506.10. Notwithstanding division (A)(3) of section 155094
4501.044 and division (A)(1) of section 4501.045 of the Revised 155095
Code, commencing July 1, 2013, and extending through June 30, 155096
2014, the Director of Public Safety shall deposit the money 155097
otherwise deposited and distributed in accordance with those 155098
divisions into the State Highway Safety Fund (Fund 7036) created 155099
by section 4501.06 of the Revised Code until such time as the 155100
deposits equal a cumulative total of $35,000,000$29,000,000. At 155101
that point, the Director shall cease depositing any such money 155102
into Fund 7036 and shall deposit and distribute that money as 155103
prescribed in division (A)(3) of section 4501.044 and division 155104
(A)(1) of section 4501.045 of the Revised Code.155105

       Notwithstanding division (A)(3) of section 4501.044 and 155106
division (A)(1) of section 4501.045 of the Revised Code, 155107
commencing July 1, 2014, and extending through June 30, 2015, the 155108
Director of Public Safety shall deposit the money otherwise 155109
deposited and distributed in accordance with those divisions into 155110
the State Highway Safety Fund (Fund 7036) created by section 155111
4501.06 of the Revised Code until such time as the deposits equal 155112
a cumulative total of $35,000,000. At that point, the Director 155113
shall cease depositing any such money into Fund 7036 and shall 155114
deposit and distribute that money as prescribed in division (A)(3) 155115
of section 4501.044 and division (A)(1) of section 4501.045 of the 155116
Revised Code.155117

       Section 605.11. That existing Sections 205.10 and 506.10 of 155118
Am. Sub. H.B. 51 of the 130th General Assembly is hereby repealed.155119

       Section 605.20. That Section 753.30 of Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of 155120
the 129th General Assembly be amended to read as follows:155121

       Sec. 753.30. (A) The Governor is authorized to execute a deed 155122
in the name of the state conveying to a buyer or buyers to be 155123
determined in the manner provided in division (B) of this section 155124
all of the state's right, title, and interest in the real property 155125
of any facility under the management and control of the Department 155126
of Youth Services following the closure of that facility that the 155127
Director of Administrative Services determines is no longer 155128
required for state purposes. This section applies only to 155129
facilities that are closed before January 1, 2012.155130

       (B)(1) The Director of Administrative Services shall offer 155131
the real estate, improvements and chattels of a facility sold 155132
pursuant to division (A) of this section for sale "as is" in its 155133
present condition according to the following process:155134

       The real estate of the facility shall be sold as an entire 155135
parcel and not subdivided.155136

       The Director of Administrative Services shall conduct a 155137
sealed bid sale and the real property of the facility shall be 155138
sold to the highest bidder at a price acceptable to both the 155139
Director of Administrative Services and the Director of Youth 155140
Services.155141

       (2) The contract for sale of a facility pursuant to this 155142
section shall include a condition that requires the purchaser to 155143
provide preferential hiring treatment to employees or former 155144
employees of the Department of Youth Services in order to retain 155145
or rehire staff displaced as a result of the closure of the 155146
facility located on the property, to the extent the purchaser's 155147
use of the facility requires employees in the same or similar 155148
positions as those displaced as a result of the closure.155149

       The contract for sale also shall include a binding commitment 155150
that irrevocably grants to the state a right, upon the occurrence 155151
of any triggering event described in division (B)(2)(a) or (b) of 155152
this section and in accordance with the particular division, to 155153
repurchase the facility and the real property on which it is 155154
situated, any surrounding land that is to be transferred under the 155155
contract, or both the facility and real property on which it is 155156
situated plus the surrounding land that is to be transferred under 155157
the contract. The triggering events and the procedures for a 155158
repurchase under the irrevocable grant described in this division 155159
are as follows:155160

        (a) Before the purchaser, or the purchaser's successor in 155161
title, may resell or otherwise transfer the facility and the real 155162
property on which it is situated, any surrounding land that is to 155163
be transferred under the contract, or both the facility and real 155164
property on which it is situated plus the surrounding land that is 155165
to be transferred under the contract, the purchaser or successor 155166
first must offer the state the opportunity to repurchase the 155167
facility, real property, and surrounding land that is to be resold 155168
or transferred for a price not greater than the purchase price 155169
paid to the state for that facility, real property, or surrounding 155170
land, less depreciation from the time of the conveyance of that 155171
facility, real property, or surrounding land to the purchaser, 155172
plus the depreciated value of any capital improvements to that 155173
facility, real property, or surrounding land that were made to it 155174
and funded by anyone other than the state subsequent to the 155175
conveyance to the purchaser. The repurchase opportunity described 155176
in this division must be offered to the state at least one hundred 155177
twenty days before the purchaser intends to resell or otherwise 155178
transfer the facility, real property, or surrounding land that is 155179
to be resold or transferred. After being offered the repurchase 155180
opportunity, the state has the right to repurchase the facility, 155181
real property, and surrounding land that is to be resold or 155182
otherwise transferred for the price described in this division.155183

       (b) Upon the purchaser's default of any financial agreement 155184
for the purchase of the facility and the real property on which it 155185
is situated, any surrounding land that is to be transferred under 155186
the contract, or both the facility and real property on which it 155187
is situated plus the surrounding land that is to be transferred 155188
under the contract, upon the purchaser's default of any other term 155189
in the contract, or upon the purchaser's financial insolvency or 155190
inability to meet its contractual obligations, the state has the 155191
right to repurchase the facility and real property, the 155192
surrounding land, or both the facility and real property and the 155193
surrounding land, for a price not greater than the purchase price 155194
paid to the state for that facility, real property, or surrounding 155195
land, less depreciation from the time of the conveyance of that 155196
facility, real property, or surrounding land to the purchaser, 155197
plus the depreciated value of any capital improvements to that 155198
facility, real property, or surrounding land that were made to it 155199
and funded by anyone other than the state subsequent to the 155200
conveyance to the purchaser.155201

       (3) The Director of Administrative Services shall advertise 155202
the sealed bid sale in a newspaper of general circulation within 155203
Scioto County once a week for three consecutive weeks prior to the 155204
date of the sealed bid sale. The Director of Administrative 155205
Services may reject any and all bids from the sealed bid sale. The 155206
terms of sale shall be ten per cent of the purchase price in cash, 155207
bank draft, or certified check payable within five business days 155208
following written notification of the acceptance of the bid by the 155209
Director of Administrative Services, with the balance payable 155210
within sixty days after the date of the written notification of 155211
the acceptance of the bid by the Director of Administrative 155212
Services. A purchaser who does not complete the conditions of the 155213
sale as prescribed in this division shall forfeit the ten per cent 155214
of the purchase price paid to the state as liquidated damages. 155215
Should a purchaser not complete the conditions of sale as 155216
described in this division, the Director of Administrative 155217
Services is authorized to accept the next highest bid by 155218
collecting ten per cent of the revised purchase price from that 155219
bidder and to proceed to close the sale, provided that the 155220
secondary bid meets all other criteria provided for in this 155221
section. If the Director of Administrative Services rejects all 155222
bids from the sealed bid sale, the Director may repeat the sealed 155223
bid process described in this section or may use an alternate sale 155224
process acceptable to the Director of Youth Services.155225

       Advertising costs and any other costs incident to the sale of 155226
a facility pursuant to this section shall be paid by the 155227
Department of Youth Services.155228

       Upon notice from the Director of Administrative Services, the 155229
Auditor of State, with the assistance of the Attorney General, 155230
shall prepare a deed to the facility to the purchaser identified 155231
by the Director of Administrative Services. The deed shall be 155232
executed by the Governor, countersigned by the Secretary of State, 155233
presented in the Office of the Auditor of State for recording, and 155234
delivered to the grantee at closing and upon the grantee's payment 155235
of the balance of the purchase price. The grantee shall present 155236
the deed for recording in the office of the recorder of the county 155237
in which the facility is located.155238

       The grantee shall pay all costs associated with the purchase 155239
and conveyance of the facility, including the costs of recording 155240
the deed.155241

       The net proceeds of the conveyance of the facility shall be 155242
deposited into the State Treasury to the credit of the Adult and 155243
Juvenile Correctional Facilities Bond Retirement Fund and shall be 155244
used to offset bond indebtedness on state bonds issued for the 155245
facility that has been sold. The Director of Budget and Management 155246
may direct that any moneys remaining in the fund after the 155247
redemption or defeasance of the bonds issued for that facility be 155248
transferred to the General Revenue Fund.155249

       (C) This section expires two years after its effective date 155250
or on November 1, 2015, whichever is later.155251

       Section 605.21. That existing Section 753.30 of Am. Sub. H.B. 155252
153 of the 129th General Assembly is hereby repealed.155253

       Section 605.30. That Section 11 of Sub. H.B. 303 of the 129th 155254
General Assembly be amended to read as follows:155255

       Sec. 11. (A) As used in this section, "intermediate care 155256
facility for individuals with intellectual disabilities" and 155257
"ICF/IID" mean an intermediate care facility for the mentally 155258
retarded as defined in the "Social Security Act," section 1905(d), 155259
42 U.S.C. 1396d(d).155260

       (B) The Department of Developmental Disabilities may conduct 155261
or contract with another entity to conduct, for the first quarter 155262
of calendar year 2013, assessments of all residents of each 155263
ICF/IID, regardless of payment source, who are in the ICF/IID, or 155264
on hospital or therapeutic leave from the ICF/IID, on the day or 155265
days that the assessments are conducted at the ICF/IID.155266

       (C) If assessments are conducted under division (B) of this 155267
section, the Department shall do all of the following:155268

       (1) In conducting the assessments, provide for both of the 155269
following:155270

       (a) The resident assessment instrument prescribed in rules 155271
authorized by division (B) of section 5111.2325124.191 of the 155272
Revised Code to be used in accordance with an inter-rater reliable 155273
process;155274

       (b) The assessments to be performed by individuals who meet 155275
the requirements to be qualified intellectual disability 155276
professionals, as specified in 42 C.F.R. 483.430(a).155277

       (2) Use the data obtained from the assessments to determine 155278
each ICF/IID's case-mix score for the first quarter of calendar 155279
year 2013;155280

       (3) For the purpose of determining each ICF/IID's fiscal year 155281
2014 Medicaid rates for direct care costs and subjectSubject to 155282
divisions (C)(8)(7), (D), and (E)(F) of this section, do both of 155283
the followingdetermine the fiscal year 2014 Medicaid payment rate 155284
for the direct care costs of each ICF/IID as follows:155285

       (a) Determine the average of the following:155286

       (i) The ICF/IID's case-mix score determined or assigned under 155287
section 5124.192 of the Revised Code for the last quarter of 155288
calendar year 2012;155289

       (ii) The ICF/IID's case-mix score determined under section 155290
5124.192 of the Revised Code for the first quarter of calendar 155291
year 2013;155292

       (iii) The ICF/IID's case-mix score determined under division 155293
(C)(2) of this section for the first quarter of calendar year 155294
2013.155295

       (b) In determining costs per case-mix units and maximum costs 155296
per case-mix units for the purpose of divisiondivisions (B) and 155297
(C) of section 5111.235124.19 of the Revised Code, use each 155298
ICF/IID's case-mix scorethe average determined under division 155299
(C)(2)(3)(a) of this section in place of the ICF/IID's average 155300
case-mix score for calendar year 2012;155301

       (b) Instead of determining quarterly Medicaid rates for the 155302
direct care costs of each ICF/IID pursuant to division (D) of 155303
section 5111.23 of the Revised Code, determine, as follows, one 155304
Medicaid rate for the direct care costs of each ICF/IID to be paid 155305
for all of fiscal year 2014:155306

       (i)(c) Multiply the ICF/IID's case-mix scoreaverage155307
determined under division (C)(2)(3)(a) of this section by the 155308
lesser of the cost per case-mix unit determined for the ICF/IID 155309
pursuant to division (C)(3)(a)(b) of this section or the maximum 155310
cost per case-mix unit determined for the ICF/IID's peer group 155311
pursuant to division (C)(3)(a)(b) of this section;155312

       (ii)(d) Adjust the product determined under division 155313
(C)(3)(b)(i)(c) of this section by the inflation rate estimated in 155314
accordance with division (B)(3)(D) of section 5111.235124.19 of 155315
the Revised Code.155316

       (4) For the purpose of determining each ICF/IID's fiscal year 155317
2015 Medicaid rates for direct care costs and subject to division 155318
(C)(8)(7) of this section, use the following when determining, 155319
pursuant to the second paragraph of division (C) of section 155320
5111.232 of the Revised Code, each ICF/IID's annual average155321
case-mix score determined under division (C)(2) of this section155322
for the first quarter of calendar year 2013:155323

       (a) For the first quarter of calendar year 2013, the 155324
ICF/IID's case-mix score determined under division (C)(2) of this 155325
section;155326

       (b) For the last three quarters of calendar year 2013 and 155327
except as provided in division (D) of section 5111.232 of the 155328
Revised Code, the ICF/IID's case-mix scores determined by using 155329
the data the ICF/IID provider compiles in accordance with the 155330
first paragraph of division (C) of section 5111.232 of the Revised 155331
Code.if the ICF/IID provider does not submit resident assessment 155332
data for that quarter pursuant to section 5124.191 of the Revised 155333
Code;155334

       (5) Notify each ICF/IID provider that the provider is 155335
permitted but not required to compile assessment data for the 155336
first quarter of calendar year 2013 pursuant to the first 155337
paragraph of division (C) of section 5111.232 of the Revised Code;155338

       (6) After the assessments of all of an ICF/IID's residents 155339
are completed but not later than April 30, 2013, provide, or have 155340
the entity (if any) with which the Department contracts pursuant 155341
to division (B) of this section provide, the results of the 155342
assessments to the ICF/IID provider;155343

       (7)(6) Conduct, in accordance with division (C)(8)(7) of this 155344
section, a reconsideration for any ICF/IID provider who does both 155345
of the following:155346

       (a) Submits a written request for the reconsideration to the 155347
Department not later than fifteen days after the provider receives 155348
the assessments' results pursuant to division (C)(6)(5) of this 155349
section;155350

       (b) Includes in the request all of the following:155351

       (i) A detailed explanation of the items in the assessments' 155352
results that the provider disputes;155353

       (ii) Copies of relevant supporting documentation from 155354
specific resident records;155355

       (iii) The provider's proposed resolution of the disputes.155356

       (8)(7) When conducting a reconsideration required by division 155357
(C)(7)(6) of this section, do both of the following:155358

       (a) Consider all of the following:155359

       (i) The historic results of the resident assessments 155360
performed pursuant to section 5124.191 of the Revised Code 155361
(formerly the first paragraph of division (C) of section 5111.232155362
5124.19 of the Revised Code as that section existed on the day 155363
immediately before the effective date of the amendments to that 155364
section by Sub. H.B. 59 of the 130th general assembly) by the 155365
ICF/IID provider who requested the reconsideration;155366

       (ii) All of the materials the provider includes in the 155367
reconsideration request;155368

       (iii) All other matters the Department determines necessary 155369
for consideration.155370

       (b) Issue a written decision regarding the reconsideration 155371
not later than the sooner of the following:155372

       (i) Thirty days after the Department receives the 155373
reconsideration request;155374

       (ii) June 1, 2013.155375

       (D) If an ICF/IID provider does not submit resident 155376
assessment data to the department pursuant to section 5124.191 of 155377
the Revised Code for the first quarter of calendar year 2013, the 155378
Department shall use the case-mix scores specified in divisions 155379
(C)(3)(a)(i) and (iii) of this section when determining the 155380
average under division (C)(3)(a) of this section.155381

       (E) The Department's decision regarding a reconsideration 155382
required by division (C)(7)(6) of this section is final and not 155383
subject to further appeal.155384

       (E)(F) Regardless of what an ICF/IID's case-mix score is 155385
determined to be under division (C)(2) of this section or pursuant 155386
to a reconsideration required by division (C)(7)(6) of this 155387
section, no such case-mix score shall cause an ICF/IID's fiscal 155388
year 2014 Medicaid payment rate for direct care costs to be less 155389
than ninety per cent of its June 30, 2013, Medicaid rate for 155390
direct care costs.155391

       (F)(G) No ICF/IID provider shall be treated as having failed, 155392
for the first quarter of calendar year 2013, to timely submit data 155393
necessary to determine the ICF/IID's case-mix score for that 155394
quarter if the assessment is to be conducted under division (B) of 155395
this section.155396

       (G)(H) The Department may provide for assessments to be 155397
conducted under division (B) of this section and, if it so 155398
provides, shall comply with the other divisions of this section 155399
notwithstanding anything to the contrary in sections 5111.20155400
5124.01, 5111.235124.19, 5124.191, and 5111.2325124.192 of the 155401
Revised Code.155402

       Section 605.31. That existing Section 11 of Sub. H.B. 303 of 155403
the 129th General Assembly is hereby repealed.155404

       Section 605.40. That Section 4 of Am. Sub. H.B. 472 of the 155405
129th General Assembly be amended to read as follows:155406

       Sec. 4. That sections 5507.40 andsection 5507.53 of the 155407
Revised Code areis hereby repealed.155408

       Section 605.41. That existing Section 4 of Am. Sub. H.B. 472 155409
of the 129th General Assembly is hereby repealed.155410

       Section 610.10.  That Sections 201.80, 205.83, and 509.40 of 155411
Sub. H.B. 482 of the 129th General Assembly be amended to read as 155412
follows:155413

       Sec. 201.80. All items set forth in this section are hereby 155414
appropriated out of any moneys in the state treasury to the credit 155415
of the School Building Program Assistance Fund (Fund 7032), that 155416
are not otherwise appropriated.155417

Appropriations

SFC SCHOOL FACILITIES COMMISSION
155418

C23002 School Building Program Assistance $ 425,000,000 413,000,000 155419
C23020 School Security Grant Program $ 12,000,000 155420
Total School Facilities Commission $ 425,000,000 155421
TOTAL School Building Program Assistance Fund $ 425,000,000 155422

       SCHOOL BUILDING PROGRAM ASSISTANCE155423

       The foregoing appropriation item C23002, School Building 155424
Program Assistance, shall be used by the School Facilities 155425
Commission to provide funding to school districts that receive 155426
conditional approval from the Commission pursuant to Chapter 3318. 155427
of the Revised Code.155428

       SCHOOL SECURITY GRANT PROGRAM155429

       The foregoing appropriation item C23020, School Security 155430
Grant Program, shall be used by the School Facilities Commission 155431
to provide funding to all public schools for the purchase and 155432
installation of one Multi-Agency Radio Communications System unit 155433
per school building and one school entrance security system, per 155434
school building. The school entrance security system may include 155435
improvements to access control, intrusion detection, or video 155436
surveillance. A school may apply to the School Facilities 155437
Commission for reimbursement up to $2,000 for one Multi-Agency 155438
Radio Communications System Unit per school building and up to 155439
$5,000 for costs incurred with the purchase of a school entrance 155440
security system installed on or after January 1, 2013.155441

       Sec. 205.83. The Ohio Public Facilities Commission is hereby 155442
authorized to issue and sell, in accordance with Section 2o and 2q 155443
of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and pursuant to sections 155444
151.01 and 151.09 of the Revised Code, original obligations of the 155445
state in an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $6,000,000155446
12,500,000 in addition to the original issuance of obligations 155447
heretofore authorized by prior acts of the General Assembly. These 155448
authorized obligations shall be issued and sold from time to time, 155449
subject to applicable constitutional and statutory limitations, as 155450
needed to ensure sufficient moneys to the credit of the Clean Ohio 155451
Trail Fund (Fund 7061) to pay costs of conservation projects.155452

       Sec. 509.40. AGENCY ADMINISTRATION OF CAPITAL FACILITIES 155453
PROJECTS155454

        Notwithstanding sections 123.01 and 123.15section 123.21 of 155455
the Revised Code, the Executive Director of Administrative 155456
Servicesthe Ohio Facilities Construction Commission may authorize 155457
the Departments of Mental Health, Developmental Disabilities, 155458
Agriculture, Job and Family Services, Rehabilitation and 155459
Correction, Youth Services, Public Safety, Transportation, and155460
Veterans Services, and the Bureau of Workers' Compensation to 155461
administer any capital facilities projects, the estimated cost of 155462
which, including design fees, construction, equipment, and 155463
contingency amounts, is less than $1,500,000. Requests for 155464
authorization to administer capital facilities projects shall be 155465
made in writing to the Director of Administrative Servicesthrough 155466
the OAKS-CI application by the applicable state agency within 155467
sixty days after the effective date of the section of law in which 155468
the General Assembly initially makes an appropriation for the 155469
project. Upon the release of funds for the projects by the 155470
Controlling Board or the Director of Budget and Management, the 155471
agency may administer the capital project or projects for which 155472
agency administration has been authorized without the supervision, 155473
control, or approval of the Executive Director of Administrative 155474
Servicesthe Ohio Facilities Construction Commission.155475

        A state agency authorized by the Executive Director of 155476
Administrative Servicesthe Ohio Facilities Construction 155477
Commission to administer capital facilities projects pursuant to 155478
this section shall comply with the applicable procedures and 155479
guidelines established in Chapter 153. of the Revised Code and 155480
shall track all project information in OAKS-CI pursuant to Ohio 155481
Facilities Construction Commission guidelines.155482

       Section 610.11.  That existing Sections 201.80, 205.83, and 155483
509.40 of Sub. H.B. 482 of the 129th General Assembly are hereby 155484
repealed.155485

       Section 610.14. That Sections 301.11, 301.12, and 301.13 of 155486
Am. Sub. H.B. 487 of the 129th General Assembly be amended to read 155487
as follows:155488

       Sec. 301.11.  The items set forth in this section are hereby 155489
appropriated out of any moneys in the state treasury to the credit 155490
of the Clean Ohio Conservation Fund (Fund 7056) that are not 155491
otherwise appropriated.155492

Appropriations

PWC PUBLIC WORKS COMMISSION
155493

C15060 Clean Ohio Conservation $ 36,000,000 75,000,000 155494
Total Public Works Commission $ 36,000,000 75,000,000 155495
TOTAL Clean Ohio Conservation Fund $ 36,000,000 75,000,000 155496

        The foregoing appropriation item C15060, Clean Ohio 155497
Conservation, shall be used in accordance with sections 164.20 to 155498
164.27 of the Revised Code. If the Public Works Commission 155499
receives refunds due to project overpayments that are discovered 155500
during the post-project audit, the Director of the Public Works 155501
Commission may certify to the Director of Budget and Management 155502
that refunds have been received. If the Director of Budget and 155503
Management determines that the project refunds are available to 155504
support additional appropriations, such amounts are hereby 155505
appropriated.155506

       Sec. 301.12. The items set forth in this section are hereby 155507
appropriated out of any moneys in the state treasury to the credit 155508
of the Clean Ohio Agricultural Easement Fund (Fund 7057) that are 155509
not otherwise appropriated.155510

Appropriations

AGR DEPARTMENT OF AGRICULTURE
155511

C70009 Clean Ohio Agricultural Easements $ 6,000,000 12,500,000 155512
Total Department of Agriculture $ 6,000,000 12,500,000 155513
TOTAL Clean Ohio Agricultural Easement Fund $ 6,000,000 12,500,000 155514


       Sec. 301.13. (A) The Ohio Public Facilities Commission is 155516
hereby authorized to issue and sell, in accordance with Section 2o 155517
and 2q of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and pursuant to 155518
sections 151.01 and 151.09 of the Revised Code, original 155519
obligations of the state in an aggregate principal amount not to 155520
exceed $36,000,00075,000,000 in addition to the original issuance 155521
of obligations heretofore authorized by prior acts of the General 155522
Assembly. These authorized obligations shall be issued and sold 155523
from time to time, subject to applicable constitutional and 155524
statutory limitations, as needed to ensure sufficient moneys to 155525
the credit of the Clean Ohio Conservation Fund (Fund 7056) to pay 155526
costs of conservation projects.155527

       (B) The Ohio Public Facilities Commission is hereby 155528
authorized to issue and sell, in accordance with Section 2o and 2q 155529
of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, and pursuant to sections 155530
151.01 and 151.09 of the Revised Code, original obligations of the 155531
state in an aggregate principal amount not to exceed $6,000,000155532
12,500,000 in addition to the original issuance of obligations 155533
heretofore authorized by prior acts of the General Assembly. These 155534
authorized obligations shall be issued and sold from time to time, 155535
subject to applicable constitutional and statutory limitations, as 155536
needed to ensure sufficient moneys to the credit of the Clean Ohio 155537
Agricultural Easement Fund (Fund 7057) to pay costs of 155538
conservation projects.155539

       Section 610.15. That existing Sections 301.11, 301.12, and 155540
301.13 of Am. Sub. H.B. 487 of the 129th General Assembly are 155541
hereby repealed.155542

       Section 610.16. That Section 205.80 of Sub. H.B. 482 of the 155543
129th General Assembly, as amended by Am. Sub. H.B. 487 of the 155544
129th General Assembly, be amended to read as follows:155545

       Sec. 205.80. The items set forth in this section are hereby 155546
appropriated out of any moneys in the state treasury to the credit 155547
of the Clean Ohio Trail Fund (Fund 7061) that are not otherwise 155548
appropriated.155549

DNR DEPARTMENT OF NATURAL RESOURCES
155550

Appropriations

C72514 Clean Ohio Local Grants $ 6,000,000 12,500,000 155551
Total Department of Natural Resources $ 6,000,000 12,500,000 155552
TOTAL Clean Ohio Trail Fund $ 6,000,000 12,500,000 155553


       Section 610.17. That existing Section 205.80 of Sub. H.B. 482 155555
of the 129th General Assembly, as amended by Am. Sub. H.B. 487 of 155556
the 129th General Assembly, is hereby repealed.155557

       Section 610.20. That Section 4 of Sub. S.B. 171 of the 129th 155558
General Assembly, as amended by Am. Sub. H.B. 487 of the 129th 155559
General Assembly, be amended to read as follows:155560

       Sec. 4. The following agencies are retained under division 155561
(D) of section 101.83 of the Revised Code and expire on December 155562
31, 2016:155563

AGENCY NAME REVISED CODE OR UNCODIFIED SECTION 155564
Academic Distress Commission 3302.10 155565
Advisory Board of Governor's Office of Faith-Based and Community Initiatives 107.12 155566
Advisory Board to Assist and Advise in the Operation of the Ohio Center for Autism and Low Incidence 3323.33, 3323.34 155567
Advisory Council on Amusement Ride Safety 1711.51, 1711.52 155568
Advisory Council of Directors for Prison Labor Office of Enterprise Development Advisory Board 5145.162 155569
Advisory Council for Wild, Scenic, or Recreational River Area(s) 1547.84 155570
Advisory Committee on Livestock Exhibitions 901.71 155571
Agricultural Commodity Marketing Programs Operating Committees 924.07 155572
Agricultural Commodity Marketing Programs Coordinating Committee 924.14 155573
Alternative Energy Advisory Committee 4928.64(D) 155574
AMBER Alert Advisory Committee 5502.521 155575
Apprenticeship Council Chapter 4139. 155576
Armory Board of Control 5911.09, 5911.12 155577
Automated Title Processing Board 4505.09(C)(1) 155578
Backflow Advisory Board 3703.21 155579
Banking Commission 1123.01 155580
Board of Directors of the Great Lakes Protection Fund 1506.22 (6161.04) 155581
Board of Directors of the Medical Liability Underwriting Association Stabilization Fund 3929.631 155582
Board of Directors of the Ohio Appalachian Center for Higher Education 3333.58 155583
Board of Directors of the Ohio Health Reinsurance Program 3924.08 - 3924.11 155584
Board of Governors of the Commercial Insurance Joint Underwriting Association 3930.03 155585
Board of Governors of the Medical Liability Underwriting Association 3929.64 155586
Board of Voting Machines Examiners 3506.05 155587
Budget Planning and Management Commission Section 509.10, H.B. 1, 128th G.A. 155588
Brain Injury Advisory Committee 3304.231 155589
Bureau of Workers' Compensation Board of Directors 4121.12 155590
Capitol Square Review and Advisory Board 105.41 155591
Child Care Advisory Council 5104.08 155592
Child Support Guideline Advisory Council 3119.024 155593
Children's Trust Fund Board 3109.15 - 3109.17 155594
Citizen's Advisory Council 5123.092, 5123.093 155595
Clean Ohio Trail Advisory Board 1519.06 155596
Coastal Resources Advisory Council 1506.12 155597
Commission on African-American Males 4112.12, 4112.13 155598
Commission on Hispanic-Latino Affairs 121.31 155599
Commission on Minority Health 3701.78 155600
Committee on Prescriptive Governance 4723.49 - 4723.492 155601
Commodity Advisory Commission 926.32 155602
Consumer Advisory Committee to the Opportunities for Ohioans with Disabilities Commission 3304.16 (3304.14), Section 803.40 155603
Continuing Education Committee 109.80(B) 155604
Council on Alcohol and Drug Addiction Services 3793.09 155605
Council on Unreclaimed Strip Mined Lands 1513.29 155606
County Sheriff's Standard Car Marking and Uniform Commission 311.25 - 311.27 155607
Credential Review Board 3319.65 155608
Credit Union Council 1733.329 155609
Criminal Sentencing Advisory Committee 181.22 155610
Data Collection and Analysis Group 3727.32 155611
Dentist Loan Repayment Advisory Board 3702.92 155612
Department Advisory Council(s) 107.18, 121.13 155613
Development Financing Advisory Council 122.40, 122.41 155614
Early Childhood Advisory Council 3301.90 155615
Education Commission of the States (Interstate Compact for Education) 3301.48, 3301.49 155616
Education Management Information System Advisory Board 3301.0713 155617
Educator Standards Board 3319.60 155618
Electrical Safety Inspector Advisory Committee 3783.08 155619
Emergency Response Commission 3750.02 155620
Engineering Experiment Station Advisory Committee 3335.27 155621
Environmental Education Council 3745.21 155622
Environmental Protection Agency Advisory Board(s) 121.13, 3704.03, 3745.01 155623
eTech Ohio Broadcast Educational Media Commission 3353.02 - 3353.04 155624
Ex-Offender Reentry Coalition 5120.07 155625
Farmland Preservation Advisory Board 901.23 155626
Financial Planning and Supervision Commission(s) for Municipal Corporation, County, or Township 118.05 155627
Financial Planning and Supervision Commission for a school district 3316.05 155628
Forestry Advisory Council 1503.40 155629
Governance Authority for a State University or College 3345.75 155630
Governor's Council on People with Disabilities 3303.41 155631
Governor's Policy Information Working Group Section 313, H.B. 420, 127th G.A. 155632
Governor's Residence Advisory Commission 107.40 155633
Grain Marketing Program Operating Committee 924.20 - 924.30 155634
Great Lakes Commission (Great Lakes Basin Compact) 6161.01 155635
Gubernatorial Transition Committee 107.29, 126.26 155636
Help Me Grow Advisory Council 3701.611 155637
Hemophilia Advisory Subcommittee of the Medically Handicapped Children's Medical Advisory Council 3701.0210 155638
Homeland Security Advisory Council 5502.011(E) 155639
Hospital Measures Advisory Council 3727.31 155640
Housing Trust Fund Advisory Committee 174.06 155641
Industrial Commission Nominating Council 4121.04 155642
Industrial Technology and Enterprise Advisory Council 122.29, 122.30 155643
Infant Hearing Screening Subcommittee 3701.507 155644
Infection Control Group 3727.312(D) 155645
Insurance Agent Education Advisory Council 3905.483 155646
Interstate Rail Passenger Advisory Council 4981.35 155647
Joint Select Committee on Volume Cap 133.021 155648
Labor-Management Government Advisory Council 4121.70 155649
Legislative Programming Committee of the Ohio Government Telecommunications Service 3353.07 155650
Legislative Task Force on Redistricting, Reapportionment, and Demographic Research 103.51 155651
Maternity and Newborn Advisory Council 3711.20, 3711.21 155652
Medically Handicapped Children's Medical Advisory Council 3701.025 155653
Midwest Interstate Passenger Rail Compact Commission 4981.361 155654
Milk Sanitation Board 917.03 - 917.032 155655
Mine Subsidence Insurance Governing Board 3929.51 155656
Minority Development Financing Advisory Board 122.72, 122.73 155657
Multi-Agency Radio Communications System (MARCS) Steering Committee Section 15.02, H.B. 640, 123rd G.A. 155658
National Museum of Afro-American History and Culture Planning Committee 149.303 155659
New African Immigrants Commission 4112.31, 4112.32 155660
Ohio Accountability Task Force 3302.021(E) 155661
Ohio Advisory Council for the Aging 173.03 155662
Ohio Agriculture License Plate Scholarship Fund Board 901.90 155663
Ohio Arts Council Chapter 3379. 155664
Ohio Business Gateway Steering Committee 5703.57 155665
Ohio Cemetery Dispute Resolution Commission 4767.05, 4767.06 155666
Ohio Civil Rights Commission Advisory Agencies and Conciliation Councils 4112.04(B)(4) 155667
Ohio Commercial Market Assistance Plan Executive Committee 3930.02 155668
Ohio Commission on Dispute Resolution and Conflict Management 179.02 - 179.04 155669
Ohio Commission on Fatherhood 5101.34 155670
Ohio Community Service Council 121.40 - 121.404 155671
Ohio Council for Interstate Adult Offender Supervision 5149.22 155672
Ohio Cultural Facilities Commission Chapter 3383. 155673
Ohio Cystic Fibrosis Legislative Task Force 101.38 155674
Ohio Developmental Disabilities Council 5123.35 155675
Ohio Expositions Commission 991.02 155676
Ohio Family and Children First Cabinet Council 121.37 155677
Ohio Geographically Referenced Information Program Council 125.901, 125.902 155678
Ohio Geology Advisory Council 1501.11 155679
Ohio Grape Industries Committee 924.51 - 924.55 155680
Ohio Historic Site Preservation Advisory Board 149.301 155681
Ohio Historical Society Board of Trustees 149.30 155682
Ohio Judicial Conference 105.91 - 105.97 155683
Ohio Lake Erie Commission 1506.21 155684
Ohio Legislative Commission on the Education and Preservation of State History Section 701.05, H.B. 1, 128th G.A. 155685
Ohio Medical Quality Foundation 3701.89 155686
Ohio Parks and Recreation Council 1541.40 155687
Ohio Peace Officer Training Commission 109.71, 109.72 155688
Ohio Private Investigation and Security Services Commission 4749.021, 4743.01 155689
Ohio Public Defender Commission 120.01 - 120.03 155690
Ohio Public Library Information Network Board of Trustees 3375.65, 3375.66 155691
Ohio Quarter Horse Development Commission 3769.086 155692
Ohio Small Government Capital Improvements Commission 164.02(C)(D) 155693
Ohio Soil and Water Conservation Commission 1515.02 155694
Ohio Standardbred Development Commission 3769.085 155695
Ohio Subrogation Rights Commission 2323.44 155696
Ohio Thoroughbred Racing Advisory Committee 3769.084 155697
Ohio Transportation Finance Commission 5531.12(B) to (D) 155698
Ohio Tuition Trust Authority 3334.03, 3334.08 155699
Ohio University College of Osteopathic Medicine Advisory Committee 3337.10, 3337.11 155700
Ohio Vendors Representative Committee 3304.34, 20 USC 107 155701
Ohio War Orphans Scholarship Board 5910.02 - 5910.06 155702
Ohio Water Advisory Council 1521.031 155703
Ohio Water Resources Council Advisory Group 1521.19 155704
Ohio Water Resources Council 1521.19 155705
Oil and Gas Commission 1509.35 155706
Operating Committee of the Oil and Gas Marketing Program 1510.06, 1510.11 155707
Organized Crime Investigations Commission 177.01 155708
Pharmacy and Therapeutics Committee of the Department of Job and Family Services Medicaid 5111.084 5164.7510 155709
Physician Assistant Policy Committee of the State Medical Board 4730.05, 4730.06 155710
Physician Loan Repayment Advisory Board 3702.81 155711
Power Siting Board 4906.02 155712
Prequalification Review Board 5525.07 155713
Private Water Systems Advisory Council 3701.346 155714
Public Utilities Commission Nominating Council 4901.021 155715
Public Utility Property Tax Study Committee 5727.85(K) 155716
Radiation Advisory Council 3748.20 155717
Reclamation Commission 1513.05 155718
Reclamation Forfeiture Fund Advisory Board 1513.182 155719
Recreation and Resources Commission 1501.04 155720
Recycling and Litter Prevention Advisory Council 1502.04 155721
School and Ministerial Lands Divestiture Committee 501.041 155722
Savings and Loan Associations and Savings Banks Board 1181.16 155723
Second Chance Trust Fund Advisory Committee 2108.35 155724
Service Coordination Workgroup Section 751.20, H.B. 1, 128th G.A. 155725
Ski Tramway Board 4169.02 155726
Small Business Stationary Source Technical and Environmental Compliance Assistance Council 3704.19 155727
Solid Waste Management Advisory Council 3734.51 155728
Special Commission to Consider the Suspension of Local Government Officials 3.16 155729
Speed to Scale Task Force Section 375.60.80, H.B. 119, 128th G.A. 155730
State Agency Coordinating Group 1521.19 155731
State Audit Committee 126.46 155732
State Council of Uniform State Laws 105.21 - 105.27 155733
State Criminal Sentencing Commission 181.22 - 181.26 155734
State Fire Council 3737.81 155735
State Library Board 3375.01 155736
State Victims Assistance Advisory Council 109.91(B) and (C) 155737
Statewide Consortium of County Law Library Resource Boards 3375.481 155738
STEM Committee 3326.02 155739
Student Tuition Recovery Authority 3332.081 155740
Sunset Review Committee 101.84 - 101.87 155741
Tax Credit Authority 122.17(M) 155742
Technical Advisory Committee to Assist Director of the Ohio Coal Development Office 1551.35 155743
Technical Advisory Council on Oil and Gas 1509.38 155744
Transportation Review Advisory Council 5512.07 - 5512.09 155745
Unemployment Compensation Advisory Council 4141.08 155746
Unemployment Compensation Review Commission 4141.06 155747
Veterans Advisory Committee 5902.02(K) 155748
Volunteer Fire Fighters' Dependents Fund Boards (private volunteer) 146.02 - 146.06 155749
Volunteer Fire Fighters' Dependents Fund Boards (public) 146.02 - 146.06 155750
Water and Sewer Commission 1525.11(C) 155751
Waterways Safety Council 1547.73 155752
Wildlife Council 1531.03 - 1531.05 155753
Workers' Compensation Board of Directors Nominating Committee 4121.123 155754

       Section 610.21. That existing Section 4 of Sub. S.B. 171 of 155755
the 129th General Assembly, as amended by Am. Sub. H.B. 487 of the 155756
129th General Assembly, is hereby repealed.155757

       Section 620.10. That Section 105.05 of Am. Sub. H.B. 2 of the 155758
128th General Assembly be amended to read as follows:155759

       Sec. 105.05. Section 121.53 of the Revised Code is hereby 155760
repealed, effective SeptemberJune 30, 20132014.155761

       Section 620.11. That existing Section 105.05 of Am. Sub. H.B. 155762
2 of the 128th General Assembly is hereby repealed.155763

       Section 630.10. All items set forth in this section are 155764
hereby appropriated out of any moneys in the state treasury to the 155765
credit of the Administrative Building Fund (Fund 7026) that are 155766
not otherwise appropriated for the biennium ending June 30, 2014:155767

Appropriations

DEV DEVELOPMENT SERVICES AGENCY
155768

C19506 Children's Home $ 100,000 155769
Total Development Services Agency $ 100,000 155770

       CHILDREN'S HOME155771

       The foregoing appropriation item C19506, Children's Home, 155772
shall be used for the Children's Home of Cincinnati.155773

       Section 630.10.10.  All items set forth in this section are 155774
hereby appropriated out of any moneys in the state treasury to the 155775
credit of the Parks and Recreation Improvement Fund (Fund 7035) 155776
that are not otherwise appropriated for the biennium ending June 155777
30, 2014:155778

Appropriations

DNR DEPARTMENT OF NATURAL RESOURCES
155779

C725S6 Cleveland Zoological Society $ 150,000 155780
TOTAL Department of Natural Resources $ 150,000 155781

       CLEVELAND ZOOLOGICAL SOCIETY155782

       Of the foregoing appropriation item C725S6, Cleveland 155783
Zoological Society, shall be used for the Cleveland Zoological 155784
Society.155785

       Section 630.11. That Sections 203.30.40, 203.30.70, 155786
203.30.80, 203.90.10, 203.90.20, 205.10.20, 205.30.90, 205.50.70, 155787
and 207.10.10 of Sub. S.B. 312 of the 129th General Assembly be 155788
amended to read as follows:155789

Reappropriations

       Sec. 203.30.40. CSR CAPITOL SQUARE REVIEW AND ADVISORY BOARD155790

C87405 Capitol Rotunda Renovations $ 37,363 155791
C87406 Statehouse Grounds Repair/Improvements $ 34,663 155792
C87407 Sound System Upgrades $ 30,654 155793
C87409 Cupola Gutters and Ancillary Roof $ 5,577 155794
C87411 ADA Specific Sidewalk Ramp Replacement $ 7,564 155795
C87412 Capitol Square Security $ 121,316 155796
C87413 CSRAB Visitors' Center $ 48,576 155797
Total Capitol Square Review and Advisory Board $ 285,713 155798

       On July 1, 2013, or as soon as possible thereafter, the 155799
Director of Budget and Management shall transfer any unexpended 155800
appropriations in appropriation item C87405, Capitol Rotunda 155801
Renovations, and appropriation item C87413, CSRAB Visitors' 155802
Center, to appropriation item C87412, Capitol Square Security. The 155803
appropriations transferred under this section are hereby 155804
appropriated.155805

Reappropriations

       Sec. 203.30.70. OSB SCHOOL FOR THE BLIND155806

C22607 Renovation of Science Laboratory Greenhouse $ 26,473 155807
C22614 New School Lighting $ 32,775 155808
C22616 Renovation and Repairs $ 779,478 155809
C22617 Elevator Replacement $ 104,500 155810
C22619 Public Address System Replacement $ 73,150 155811
C22622 Track Shelter $ 42,750 155812
C22624 Natatorium Renovations $ 2,483 155813
C22700 Infrastructure Improvements $ 1,640,652 1,657,435 155814
Total Ohio School for the Blind $ 2,702,261 2,719,044 155815

       PUBLIC ADDRESS SYSTEM REPLACEMENT155816

       The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 155817
item C22619, Public Address System Replacement, is the 155818
unencumbered and unallotted balance as of June 30, 2012, in 155819
appropriation item C22619, Public Address System Replacement, 155820
minus $77,000.155821

       TRACK SHELTER155822

       The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 155823
item C22622, Track Shelter, is the unencumbered and unallotted 155824
balance as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item C22622, Track 155825
Shelter, plus $77,000.155826

       INFRASTRUCTURE IMPROVEMENTS155827

       The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 155828
item C22700, Infrastructure Improvements, is the unencumbered and 155829
unallotted balance as of June 30, 2013, in appropriation item 155830
C22700, Infrastructure Improvements, plus $16,783.155831

Reappropriations

       Sec. 203.30.80. OSD SCHOOL FOR THE DEAF155832

C22104 Boilers, Blowers, and Controls for the School Complex $ 44,992 155833
C22107 Renovation and Repairs $ 950,000 155834
C22108 High School Window Replacement $ 20,041 155835
C22109 High School HVAC $ 19,182 155836
C22111 Staff Building Windows and Repair $ 15,983 155837
C22112 Alumni Park Preservation $ 59,375 155838
C22800 Infrastructure Improvements $ 905,833 922,616 155839
Total Ohio School for the Deaf $ 2,015,406 2,032,189 155840
TOTAL Administrative Building Fund $ 29,689,586 29,723,152 155841


Reappropriations

       Sec. 203.90.10.  DMH DEPARTMENT OF MENTAL HEALTH155843

C58000 Hazardous Materials Abatement $ 118,750 155844
C58001 Community Assistance Projects $ 332,500 232,500 155845
C58002 Campus Consolidation - Automation $ 95,000 155846
C58004 Demolition $ 142,500 155847
C58005 Life Safety/Critical Plant Renovations $ 23,750 155848
C58006 Patient Care/Environment Improvement $ 285,000 155849
C58007 Infrastructure Renovations $ 475,000 155850
C58008 Emergency Improvements $ 285,000 155851
C58009 Patient Environment Improvement Consolidation $ 1,000 155852
C58010 Campus Consolidation $ 23,750,000 155853
C58020 Mandel Jewish Community Center $ 199,500 155854
Total Department of Mental Health $ 25,708,000 25,608,000 155855

       COMMUNITY ASSISTANCE PROJECTS155856

       Of the foregoing appropriation item C58001, Community 155857
Assistance Projects, $100,000 shall be used for the Children's 155858
Home of Cincinnati, $100,000 shall be used for the Shaw JCC, and 155859
$300,000 shall be used for the Berea Children's Home.155860

        The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 155861
item C58001, Community Assistance Projects, is the unencumbered 155862
unallotted balance, as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item 155863
C58001, Community Assistance Projects, plus $1,096,159.42. Prior 155864
to the expenditure of this reappropriation, the Director of Mental 155865
Health shall certify to the Director of Budget and Management 155866
canceled encumbrances in the amount of at least $1,096,159.42.155867

        INFRASTRUCTURE RENOVATIONS155868

       The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 155869
item C58007, Infrastructure Renovations, is the unencumbered and 155870
unallotted balance as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item 155871
C58007, Infrastructure Renovations, plus $2,995,450.24. Prior to 155872
the expenditure of this reappropriation, the Director of Mental 155873
Health shall certify to the Director of Budget and Management 155874
canceled encumbrances in the amount of at least $2,995,450.24.155875

Reappropriations

       Sec. 203.90.20.  DDD DEPARTMENT OF DEVELOPMENTAL DISABILITIES155876

C59004 Community Assistance Projects $ 13,913,599 155877
C59029 Emergency Generator Replacement $ 460,362 155878
C59034 Statewide Developmental Centers $ 1,407,067 155879
C59050 Emergency Improvements $ 484,984 155880
C59051 Energy Conservation $ 430,500 155881
C59055 Camp McKinley Improvements $ 30,000 155882
C59056 The Hope Learning Center $ 250,000 155883
TOTAL Department of Developmental Disabilities $ 16,976,512 155884
TOTAL Mental Health Facilities Improvement Fund $ 42,684,512 42,584,512 155885

       COMMUNITY ASSISTANCE PROJECTS155886

       The foregoing appropriation item C59004, Community Assistance 155887
Projects, may be used to provide community assistance funds for 155888
the construction or renovation of facilities for day programs or 155889
residential programs that provide services to persons eligible for 155890
services from the Department of Developmental Disabilities or 155891
county boards of developmental disabilities.155892

       The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 155893
item C59004, Community Assistance Projects, is the unencumbered, 155894
unallotted balance as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item 155895
C59004, Community Assistance Projects, plus $8,326,255. Prior to 155896
the expenditure of this reappropriation, the Director of 155897
Developmental Disabilities shall certify to the Director of Budget 155898
and Management canceled encumbrances in the Mental Health 155899
Facilities Improvement Fund (Fund 7033) in the amount of at least 155900
$8,326,255.155901

        STATEWIDE DEVELOPMENTAL CENTERS155902

        The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 155903
item C59034, Statewide Developmental Centers, is the unencumbered, 155904
unallotted balance as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item 155905
C59034, Statewide Developmental Centers, plus $167,912. Prior to 155906
the expenditure of this reappropriation, the Director of 155907
Developmental Disabilities shall certify to the Director of Budget 155908
and Management canceled encumbrances in the Mental Health 155909
Facilities Improvement Fund (Fund 7033) in the amount of at least 155910
$167,912.155911

Reappropriations

       Sec. 205.10.20.  BOR BOARD OF REGENTS155912

C23506 Third Frontier Project $ 15,689,958 155913
C23519 315 Research and Technology Corridor $ 2,090,000 155914
C23525 CWRU Mt. Sinai Skills and Simulation Center $ 500,000 155915
C23528 Clintonville Fiber Project $ 100,000 155916
C23529 Non-credit Job Training Facilities $ 2,011,227 155917
C23535 CWRU Energy Center Cleveland Center for Membrane and Structural Biology $ 333,333 155918
Total Board of Regents $ 20,724,518 155919

       SUPPLEMENTAL RENOVATIONS LIBRARY DEPOSITORIES155920

       The amount reappropriated for appropriation item C23524, 155921
Supplemental Renovations Library Depositories, is the unencumbered 155922
and unallotted balance in appropriation item C23524, Supplemental 155923
Renovations Library Depositories, minus $95,695.155924

       NON-CREDIT JOB TRAINING FACILITIES155925

       The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 155926
item C23529, Non-credit Job Training Facilities, is the 155927
unencumbered and unallotted balance in appropriation item C23529, 155928
Non-credit Job Training Facilities, as of June 30, 2012, plus 155929
$866,811.155930

Reappropriations

       Sec. 205.30.90. CCC CUYAHOGA COMMUNITY COLLEGE155931

C37800 Basic Renovations $ 617,662 155932
C37803 Technology Learning Center - Western $ 40,941 155933
C37812 Building A Expansion Module - Western $ 118,115 155934
C37816 College-Wide Wayfinding Signage System $ 118,825 155935
C37817 College-Wide Asset Protection & Building $ 599,645 155936
C37818 Healthcare Technology Building - Eastern $ 1,343,897 155937
C37821 Hospitality Management Program $ 37,203 155938
C37822 Theater Renovations $ 948,231 155939
C37824 Rock and Roll Hall of Fame Archive $ 3,000 155940
C37826 CW Roof Replacement $ 181,197 155941
C37831 Visiting Nurse Association $ 142,500 155942
C37833 Cleveland Zoological Society $ 142,500 155943
C37834 Museum of Contemporary Art Cleveland $ 427,500 155944
C37835 Western Reserve Historical Society $ 2,660,000 155945
Total Cuyahoga Community College $ 7,381,216 7,238,716 155946

       BASIC RENOVATIONS155947

        The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 155948
item C37800, Basic Renovations, is the unencumbered and unallotted 155949
balance as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item C37800, Basic 155950
Renovations, plus $1,033,551.155951

       NON-CREDIT JOB TRAINING 155952

       The amount reappropriated for appropriation item C37805, 155953
Non-credit Job Training, is the unencumbered and unallotted 155954
balance in appropriation item C37805, Non-credit Job Training, as 155955
of June 30, 2012, minus $38,676.155956

        BUILDING A EXPANSION MODULE - WESTERN155957

        The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 155958
item C37812, Building A Expansion Module - Western, is the 155959
unencumbered and unallotted balance as of June 30, 2012, in 155960
appropriation item C37812, Building A Expansion Module - Western, 155961
minus $82,761.155962

        THEATER RENOVATIONS155963

        The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 155964
item C37822, Theater Renovations, is the unencumbered and 155965
unallotted balance as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item 155966
C37822, Theater Renovations, minus $950,790.155967

       CCC AUTO LAB IMPROVEMENTS155968

       The amount reappropriated for appropriation item C37830, CCC 155969
Auto Lab Improvements, is the unencumbered and unallotted balance 155970
in appropriation item C37830, CCC Auto Lab Improvements, as of 155971
June 30, 2012, minus $239.155972

Reappropriations

       Sec. 205.50.70. STC STARK TECHNICAL COLLEGE155973

C38900 Basic Renovations $ 4,775 155974
C38917 Wind Energy Research and Development Center $ 1,166,996 155975
Total Stark Technical College $ 1,171,771 155976
TOTAL Higher Education Improvement Fund $ 226,722,333 226,579,833 155977


       Sec. 207.10.10.  LOCAL PARKS PROJECTS155979

       Of the foregoing appropriation item C725E2, Local Parks 155980
Projects, $50,000 plus an amount equal to two per cent of the 155981
projects listed may be used by the Ohio Department of Natural 155982
Resources for the administration of local projects; $1,586,570 155983
shall be used for Grand Lake St. Mary's Improvements; $400,000 155984
shall be used for the Austin Pike Project - Land Acquisition; 155985
$191,000 shall be used for Deerfield Township Simpson Creek 155986
Erosion Mitigation and Bank Control; $121,700 shall be used for 155987
the Salt Fork State Park Concession Stand; $100,000 shall be used 155988
for the Crown Point Conservation Easement; $100,000 shall be used 155989
for the Euclid Beach Pier; $100,000 shall be used for the Liberty 155990
Park Expansion – Twinsburg; $100,000 shall be used for the Lucas 155991
County Marina; $100,000 shall be used for the Midtown Cleveland 155992
Mountain Bike Park; $100,000 shall be used for the Mudbrook Trail 155993
and Greenway Project; $69,000 shall be used for Miami and Erie 155994
Canal Repairs in Spencerville; $60,000 shall be used for the 155995
Marseilles Reservoir Bulkhead Project; $50,000 shall be used for 155996
Dillon State Park Upgrades; $25,000 shall be used for the 155997
Marblehead Lighthouse State Park Life Boat Station; $24,165 shall 155998
be used for Tar Hollow State Park Improvements; $20,200 shall be 155999
used for Van Buren State Park Campground Electric and Restroom 156000
Facility Improvements; and $10,000 shall be used for Village of 156001
Albany Bike Paths.156002

       FINDLEY STATE PARK156003

       The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 156004
item C72511, Findley State Park, is the unencumbered and 156005
unallotted balance as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item 156006
C72511, Findley State Park, minus $22,856.156007

       LAKE HOPE STATE PARK156008

       The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 156009
item C72522, Lake Hope State Park, is the unencumbered and 156010
unallotted balance as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item 156011
C72522, Lake Hope State Park, minus $7,276.156012

       HOCKING HILLS STATE PARK156013

       The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 156014
item C72559, Hocking Hills State Park, is the unencumbered and 156015
unallotted balance as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item 156016
C72559, Hocking Hills State Park, minus $3,025.156017

       PORTAGE LAKES STATE PARK156018

       The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 156019
item C72576, Portage Lakes State Park, is the unencumbered and 156020
unallotted balance as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item 156021
C72576, Portage Lakes State Park, minus $2,040.156022

       DEER CREEK STATE PARK156023

       The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 156024
item C72594, Deer Creek State Park, is the unencumbered and 156025
unallotted balance as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item 156026
C72594, Deer Creek State Park, minus $19,392.156027

       RIVERFRONT IMPROVEMENTS156028

       The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 156029
item C725D0, Riverfront Improvements, is the unencumbered and 156030
unallotted balance as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item 156031
C725D0, Riverfront Improvements, minus $5,000.156032

       MOHICAN STATE PARK156033

       The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 156034
item C725M9, Mohican State Park, is the unencumbered and 156035
unallotted balance as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item 156036
C725M9, Mohican State Park, minus $72,469.156037

       WASTEWATER AND WATER SYSTEMS UPGRADE156038

       The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 156039
item C725N6, Wastewater and Water Systems Upgrade, is the 156040
unencumbered and unallotted balance as of June 30, 2012, in 156041
appropriation item C725N6, Wastewater and Water Systems Upgrade, 156042
plus $162,050.156043

       SOUTH BASS ISLAND STATE PARK156044

       The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 156045
item C725R0, South Bass Island State Park, is the unencumbered and 156046
unallotted balance as of June 30, 2012, in appropriation item 156047
C725R0, South Bass Island State Park, minus $29,992.156048

       KAMP DOVETAIL PROJECT156049

        The amount reappropriated for the foregoing appropriation 156050
item C725S5, Kamp Dovetail Project, used by the Department of 156051
Natural Resources, is the unencumbered and unallotted balance 156052
remaining as of June 30, 2013, in appropriation item C59020, Kamp 156053
Dovetail Project, used by the Department of Developmental 156054
Disabilities. 156055

       FEDERAL REIMBURSEMENT156056

       All reimbursements received from the federal government for 156057
any expenditures made pursuant to sections of this act numbered 156058
with the prefix "207.10" shall be deposited in the state treasury 156059
to the credit of the Parks and Recreation Improvement Fund.156060

       Section 630.12. That existing Sections 203.30.40, 203.30.70, 156061
203.30.80, 203.90.10, 203.90.20, 205.10.20, 205.30.90, 205.50.70, 156062
and 207.10.10 of Sub. S.B. 312 of the 129th General Assembly are 156063
hereby repealed.156064

       Section 701.10. EXEMPT EMPLOYEE CONSENT TO CERTAIN DUTIES156065

        As used in this section, "appointing authority" has the same 156066
meaning as in section 124.01 of the Revised Code, and "exempt 156067
employee" has the same meaning as in section 124.01 of the Revised 156068
Code.156069

        Notwithstanding section 124.181 of the Revised Code, in cases 156070
where no vacancy exists, an appointing authority may, with the 156071
written consent of an exempt employee, assign duties of a higher 156072
classification to that exempt employee for a period of time not to 156073
exceed two years, and that exempt employee shall receive 156074
compensation at a rate commensurate with the duties of the higher 156075
classification.156076

       Section 701.30. As used in this section, "public record" has 156077
the meaning defined in section 149.43 of the Revised Code, and 156078
"public office" has the meaning defined in section 149.011 of the 156079
Revised Code.156080

       Not later than December 31, 2013, the Director of 156081
Administrative Services shall deliver a report to the Governor, 156082
the Speaker and Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, 156083
and the President and Minority Leader of the Senate that proposes 156084
uniform standards that should apply to a public office that 156085
chooses to post public records on an internet web site maintained 156086
by the public office. In developing the standards, the Director 156087
shall consider, at a minimum, the following factors: any 156088
recommended technology and/or software to use; the projected costs 156089
of implementing and maintaining such technology and software; and 156090
how a public office is to post a public record on its web site, or 156091
on a public web site maintained by the state, so that the public 156092
record, or the data contained in the public record, is capable of 156093
being searched and downloaded by the public in a uniform manner.156094

       Section 701.40. (A) The Department of Rehabilitation and 156095
Correction shall convene a committee to study assaults and other 156096
violence within state correctional institutions. The committee 156097
shall meet, discuss, and share all relevant information.156098

       (B) The committee shall publish a report by December 31, 156099
2013. The report shall include, but is not limited to, the 156100
following:156101

       (1) Staffing rates per state correctional institution, 156102
including vacancy rates;156103

       (2) Recommendations of acceptable staffing levels per state 156104
correctional institution, including vacancy rates;156105

       (3) Current relief factor ratios per state correctional 156106
institution, including the methodology used to calculate the 156107
relief factor;156108

       (4) Recommendations of acceptable relief factor ratios per 156109
state correctional institution;156110

       (5) Correctional officer to inmate ratio per state 156111
correctional institution, excluding vacancy rates;156112

       (6) Numbers and details of incidents of violence per state 156113
correctional institution;156114

       (7) A definition of what the Department includes in the 156115
assault and other violence statistics;156116

       (8) The number of days off from employment due to violence in 156117
the state correctional institution;156118

       (9) Recommendations to reduce violence in state correctional 156119
institutions.156120

        (C) The committee shall submit a copy of the committee's 156121
report to the Governor, Speaker and Minority Leader of the House 156122
of Representatives, and President and Minority Leader of the 156123
Senate not later than December 31, 2013.156124

       Section 701.50. (A) The Department of Youth Services shall 156125
convene a committee to study assaults and other violence within 156126
state juvenile correctional facilities. The committee shall meet, 156127
discuss, and share all relevant information.156128

       (B) The committee shall publish a report by December 31, 156129
2013. The report shall include, but is not limited to, the 156130
following:156131

       (1) Staffing rates per state juvenile correctional facility, 156132
including vacancy rates;156133

       (2) Recommendations of acceptable staffing levels per state 156134
juvenile correctional facility, including vacancy rates;156135

       (3) Current relief factor ratios per state juvenile 156136
correctional facility, including the methodology used to calculate 156137
the relief factor;156138

        (4) Recommendations of acceptable relief factor ratios per 156139
state juvenile correctional facility;156140

       (5) Youth specialist to inmate ratio per state juvenile 156141
correctional facility, excluding vacancy rates;156142

       (6) Numbers and details of incidents of violence per state 156143
juvenile correctional facility;156144

       (7) A definition of what the Department includes in the 156145
assault and other violence statistics;156146

       (8) The number of days off from employment due to violence in 156147
the state juvenile correctional facility;156148

       (9) Recommendations to reduce violence in state juvenile 156149
correctional facilities.156150

       (C) The committee shall submit a copy of the committee's 156151
report to the Governor, Speaker and Minority Leader of the House 156152
of Representatives, and President and Minority Leader of the 156153
Senate not later than December 31, 2013.156154

       Section 715.10.  Two years after the amendments to section 156155
1501.011 of the Revised Code by this act take effect, the Ohio 156156
Facilities Construction Commission and the Department of Natural 156157
Resources shall review division (C) of that section.156158

       Section 733.10. Notwithstanding section 3317.01 of the 156159
Revised Code, as amended by this act, to determine whether a 156160
school district satisfied the minimum school year in the 2013-2014 156161
school year in order to qualify for state funding under Chapter 156162
3317. of the Revised Code for fiscal year 2015, the Department of 156163
Education shall apply the criteria prescribed in the version of 156164
division (B) of section 3317.01 of the Revised Code in effect 156165
prior to July 1, 2014.156166

       Section 733.20.  The General Assembly hereby declares its 156167
intent, in enacting section 3319.031 of the Revised Code, to 156168
supersede any effect of the decision of the Court of Appeals of 156169
the Eighth Appellate District in OAPSE/AFSCME Local 4 v. Berdine, 156170
174 Ohio App.3d 46 (Cuyahoga County, 2007) to the extent the 156171
decision conflicts with the principle that boards of education may 156172
appoint a licensed business manager, but also may determine 156173
instead to assign the roles and functions of a business manager to 156174
one or more employees or officers of the board, including the 156175
treasurer, in the board's sole discretion.156176

       Section 733.40. (A) The Superintendent of Public Instruction 156177
shall appoint three incorporators who are knowledgeable about the 156178
administration of public schools and about the operation of 156179
nonprofit corporations in Ohio.156180

        (B) The incorporators shall do whatever is necessary and 156181
proper to set up a nonprofit corporation under Chapter 1702. of 156182
the Revised Code. The articles of incorporation, in addition to 156183
meeting the requirements of section 1702.04 of the Revised Code, 156184
shall set forth the following provisions:156185

        (1) That the nonprofit corporation is to create and implement 156186
a pilot program that provides an alternative path for individuals 156187
to receive training and development in the administration of 156188
primary and secondary education and leadership, that will enable 156189
these individuals to earn a degree in public school 156190
administration, that will enable these individuals to obtain 156191
licenses in public school administration, and that promotes the 156192
placement of these individuals in public schools that have a 156193
poverty percentage greater than fifty per cent.156194

        (2) That the Board of Directors are to establish criteria for 156195
program costs, participant selection, and continued participation, 156196
and metrics to document and measure pilot program activities.156197

       (3) That the name of the nonprofit corporation is "New 156198
Leaders for Ohio Schools."156199

       (4) That the Board of Directors is to consist of the 156200
following nine directors:156201

        (a) The Governor or the Governor's designee;156202

        (b) The Superintendent of Public Instruction, or the 156203
Superintendent's designee;156204

        (c) The Chancellor of the Ohio Board of Regents, or the 156205
Chancellor's designee;156206

        (d) Two individuals to represent major business enterprises 156207
in Ohio;156208

        (e) Two individuals appointed by the Speaker of the House of 156209
Representatives, one of whom shall be an active duty or retired 156210
military officer;156211

        (f) Two individuals appointed by the President of the Senate, 156212
one of whom shall be a current or retired teacher or principal.156213

        The Dean of The Ohio State University Fisher College of 156214
Business and the Dean of The Ohio State University College of 156215
Education and Human Ecology are to serve as ex-officio nonvoting 156216
members of the Board.156217

       The individuals on the Board who represent major business 156218
enterprises in Ohio are to be appointed by a statewide 156219
organization selected by the Governor. The organization is to be 156220
nonpartisan and consist of chief executive officers of major 156221
corporations organized in Ohio. 156222

       (5) That the Board is to elect a chairperson from among its 156223
members, and is to appoint a President of the corporation.156224

       (6) That the President of the Corporation, subject to the 156225
approval of the Board, is to enter into a contract with The Ohio 156226
State University Fisher College of Business. Under the contract, 156227
the College is to provide oversight to the corporation, is to 156228
serve as fiscal agent for the corporation, and is to provide the 156229
corporation with office space, and with office furniture and 156230
equipment, as is necessary for the corporation successfully to 156231
fulfill its duties.156232

        (7) That the overhead expenses of the corporation are not to 156233
exceed fifteen per cent of the annual budget of the corporation.156234

        (8) That the President is to apply for, and is to receive and 156235
accept, grants, gifts, bequests, and contributions from private 156236
sources.156237

       (9) That the corporation is to submit an annual report to the 156238
General Assembly and Governor beginning December 31, 2013.156239

       (10) That state financial support for the corporation shall 156240
cease on the date that is five years after the effective date of 156241
this section.156242

       Section 737.10. There is established the Legislative 156243
Committee on Public Health Futures. The Legislative Committee 156244
shall review the legislative and fiscal policy changes in this act 156245
regarding local public health services. On the basis of its 156246
review, the Legislative Committee shall recommend legislative and 156247
fiscal policies that would improve local public health services in 156248
this state. The Legislative Committee, not later than January 31, 156249
2015, shall prepare a report that describes its review, and that 156250
states, and provides explanations of, its policy recommendations. 156251
The Legislative Committee shall transmit a copy of its report to 156252
the Governor, the President and Minority Leader of the Senate, and 156253
the Speaker and Minority Leader of the House of Representatives 156254
for consideration as part of the operating budget for fiscal years 156255
2016 and 2017. Upon transmitting its report, the Legislative 156256
Committee ceases to exist.156257

       Each of the following associations shall appoint one 156258
individual to the Legislative Committee: the County Commissioners 156259
Association of Ohio, the Ohio Township Association, the Department 156260
of Health, the Ohio Public Health Association, the Ohio 156261
Environmental Health Association, the Ohio Boards of Health 156262
Association, the Ohio Municipal League, and the Ohio Hospital 156263
Association. The Association of Ohio Health Commissioners shall 156264
appoint two individuals to the Legislative Committee. The 156265
President and Minority Leader of the Senate each shall appoint two 156266
members to the Legislative Committee. The Speaker and Minority 156267
Leader of the House of Representatives each shall appoint two 156268
members to the Legislative Committee. Of the two appointments made 156269
by each legislative leader, one shall be a member of the General 156270
Assembly from the appointing member's chamber. Appointments shall 156271
be made as soon as possible but not later than thirty days after 156272
the effective date of this section. Vacancies on the Legislative 156273
Committee shall be filled in the same manner as the original 156274
appointment.156275

       As soon as all members have been appointed to the Legislative 156276
Committee, the President of the Senate shall fix a time and place 156277
for the committee to hold its first meeting, which shall be held 156278
not later than August 1, 2014. At that meeting, the committee 156279
shall elect from among its membership a chairperson, a 156280
vice-chairperson, and a secretary. The Director of Health shall 156281
provide the Legislative Committee with meeting and office space, 156282
equipment, and professional, technical, and clerical staff as are 156283
necessary to enable the Legislative Committee successfully to 156284
complete its work.156285

       Section 739.10. TECHNICAL ASSISTANCE TO BOARDS OF HEALTH 156286
SEEKING COVERAGE BY HEALTH INSURERS AND MEDICAID156287

       (A) As used in this section, "board of health" means a board 156288
of health of a city or general health district or, as described in 156289
section 3709.05 of the Revised Code, the authority having the 156290
duties of a board of health.156291

       (B) During fiscal year 2014 and fiscal year 2015, the 156292
Superintendent of Insurance, in collaboration with the Medicaid 156293
Director, shall provide technical assistance to boards of health 156294
seeking to obtain reimbursement through health care insurers and 156295
payments from the Medicaid program for providing public health 156296
services such as immunizations, clinical services, and management 156297
of patient health care through integrated care systems and other 156298
models of care. The technical assistance shall address the 156299
credentialing process and contracting procedures used by health 156300
care insurers to determine which health care providers are 156301
eligible for reimbursement by the insurers, as well as the 156302
procedures used by the Department of Medicaid in entering into 156303
Medicaid provider agreements.156304

        This section does not require a board of health to provide 156305
any particular service or to seek reimbursement from health care 156306
insurers or payments from the Medicaid program.156307

       Section 747.10.  (A) The Ohio Cemetery Law Task Force shall 156308
develop recommendations on modifications of the laws of this state 156309
relating to cemeteries. 156310

       (B) The Ohio Cemetery Law Task Force is established. The Task 156311
Force shall consist of the following eleven members: a 156312
representative of local government, other than townships, 156313
appointed by the President of the Senate; a representative of the 156314
Ohio Township Association appointed by the President of the 156315
Senate; a representative of Native Americans appointed by the 156316
President of the Senate; a representative of private cemeteries 156317
appointed by the Speaker of the House of Representatives; a 156318
representative of the Ohio Historical Society appointed by the 156319
Speaker of the House of Representatives; a representative of 156320
archeologists appointed by the Speaker of the House of 156321
Representatives; a representative of the Ohio Genealogical Society 156322
appointed by the Governor; a representative of the Ohio Cemetery 156323
Dispute Resolution Commission appointed by the Governor; a 156324
representative of the Division of Real Estate and Professional 156325
Licensing in the Department of Commerce appointed by the Governor; 156326
a representative of the Department of Transportation appointed by 156327
the Governor; and a representative of the Department of Natural 156328
Resources appointed by the Governor. 156329

       The initial appointments shall be made not later than thirty 156330
days after the effective date of this section. Vacancies shall be 156331
filled in the manner provided for original appointments. 156332

       The Task Force shall elect two of its members to serve as 156333
co-chairpersons of the Task Force.156334

       The Task Force shall meet as often as necessary to carry out 156335
its duties and responsibilities. Members of the Task Force shall 156336
serve without compensation. 156337

        (C) The Task Force shall issue a report of its 156338
recommendations to the President of the Senate, the Speaker of the 156339
House of Representatives, and the Governor not later than one year 156340
after the effective date of this section. The Task Force ceases to 156341
exist upon submitting its report.156342

       Section 747.20.  The county recorder shall continue to keep 156343
six separate sets of records of all agreements for the 156344
registration of lands as archaeological or historic landmarks 156345
recorded before the effective date of this section.156346

       Section 751.10.  RECOVERY REQUIRES A COMMUNITY PROGRAM156347

       The Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services, in 156348
consultation with the Department of Medicaid, shall administer the 156349
Recovery Requires a Community Program to identify individuals 156350
residing in nursing facilities who can be successfully moved into 156351
a community setting with the aid of community non-Medicaid 156352
services. 156353

       The Director of Mental Health and Addiction Services and the 156354
Medicaid Director shall agree upon an amount representing the 156355
savings realized from decreased nursing facility utilization to be 156356
transferred within the biennium from the Department of Medicaid to 156357
the Department of Mental Health and Addiction Services to support 156358
non-Medicaid program costs for individuals moving into community 156359
settings.156360

       Of the foregoing appropriation item 651525, Medicaid/Health 156361
Care Services, the Medicaid Director shall transfer the amount 156362
agreed upon representing the savings from the General Revenue Fund 156363
to the Sale of Goods and Services Fund (Fund 1490). The transfer 156364
shall be made using an intrastate transfer voucher. The 156365
transferred cash is hereby appropriated to appropriation item 156366
335609, Community Operating/Planning. 156367

       Section 753.20. (A) The Director of Administrative Services, 156368
on behalf of the Department of Rehabilitation and Correction, is 156369
authorized to sell by bid, auction, real estate sale agreement, or 156370
through any other available legal means, all of the state's right, 156371
title, and interest in any or all of the real property described 156372
below, that the Director of Administrative Services and the 156373
Director of Rehabilitation and Correction determine should be sold 156374
in the best interest of, and as surplus to, the needs of the 156375
state.156376

       (B) The Governor is authorized to execute one or more deeds 156377
in the name of the state, conveying to one or more purchasers, 156378
their heirs and assigns or successors and assigns, all of the 156379
state's right, title, and interest in one or more of the real 156380
properties and improvements described below: 156381

       101 Oval Drive Lima 45801156382

       102 Oval Drive Lima 45801156383

       1757 South Avon Belden Road Grafton 44044156384

       2069 South Avon Belden Road Grafton 44044156385

       900 East Capel Road Grafton 44044156386

       1088 North Main Street Mansfield 44903156387

       1659 Scioto Village Drive Marion 43302156388

       1674 Scioto Village Drive Marion 43302156389

       1686 Scioto Village Drive Marion 43302156390

       1693 Scioto Village Drive Marion 43302156391

       1705 Scioto Village Drive Marion 43302156392

       1710 Scioto Village Drive Marion 43302156393

       1717 Scioto Village Drive Marion 43302156394

       745 Likens Road Marion 43302156395

       813 Likens Road Marion 43302156396

       PCI Unit 4 - 11781 State Route 762 Orient 43146156397

       103 Reservation Circle Chillicothe 45601156398

       123 Reservation Circle Chillicothe 45601156399

       124 Reservation Circle Chillicothe 45601156400

       14166 Pleasant Valley Road Chillicothe 45601156401

       1187 Cook Road Lucasville 45648156402

       (C) The Director of Administrative Services shall convey the 156403
real estate, its improvements and chattels, "as-is," in its 156404
present condition. 156405

       (D) Consideration for conveyance of the real estate shall be 156406
determined by bid, auction, or negotiated purchase agreement, at 156407
the discretion of the Director of Administrative Services and the 156408
Director of Rehabilitation and Correction.156409

       (E) The real property shall be conveyed subject to all 156410
easements, covenants, conditions, and restrictions of record; all 156411
legal highways; zoning, building, and other laws, ordinances, 156412
restrictions, and regulations; and real estate taxes and 156413
assessments not yet due and payable.156414

       (F)(1) The deed or deeds to the real estate may contain any 156415
terms and conditions the Director of Administrative Services and 156416
the Director of Rehabilitation and Correction determine to be in 156417
the best interest of the state. The deed or deeds may contain 156418
restrictions that the Directors determine are reasonably necessary 156419
to protect the interest of the state in neighboring state-owned 156420
land.156421

       (2) The deed or deeds shall contain restrictions prohibiting 156422
the purchaser from occupying, using, developing, or selling the 156423
real estate, such as will interfere with quiet enjoyment of the 156424
neighboring state-owned land.156425

       (G) The method of sale and disposition of the real estate 156426
shall be determined by the Director of Administrative Services and 156427
the Director of Rehabilitation and Correction.156428

       (H) The real estate may be sold as an entire tract, as 156429
multiple tracts, or in parcels.156430

       (I) The purchaser or purchasers shall pay all costs 156431
associated with the purchase and conveyance of the real estate, 156432
including, but not limited to, title evidence, title insurance, 156433
transfer costs and fees, recording costs of the deed, taxes, and 156434
any other fees and costs that may be imposed. 156435

       (J) Surveys and legal descriptions as are required for the 156436
conveyance of the real estate shall be prepared at the purchaser's 156437
expense.156438

       (K) The net proceeds of the sale of the real estate shall be 156439
deposited into the state treasury to the credit of the Property 156440
Receipts Fund created by section 5120.22 of the Revised Code.156441

       (L) Upon payment of the purchase price for all or any of the 156442
real estate, the Auditor of State, with the assistance of the 156443
Attorney General, shall prepare a deed or deeds for the real 156444
estate. A deed shall state the consideration, and any terms or 156445
conditions and the restrictions. A deed shall be executed by the 156446
Governor in the name of the state, countersigned by the Secretary 156447
of State, sealed with the Great Seal of the State, presented in 156448
the Office of the Auditor of State for recording, and delivered to 156449
the purchaser. The purchaser shall present the deed for recording 156450
in the office of the appropriate County Recorder. 156451

       (M) This section expires two years after its effective date.156452

       Section 753.30. (A) There is the State Facility Utilization 156453
and Consolidation Task Force. The Task Force shall create an 156454
inventory of state-owned real property and of assets related to 156455
the real property, study the current utilization of the real 156456
property and related assets, determine which real properties and 156457
related assets are not being productively used, determine which 156458
real properties and related assets that are not being productively 156459
used could be productively used, and determine which real 156460
properties and related assets that are not being productively used 156461
could be productively used if consolidated. The Task Force, based 156462
on its study, shall provide the Governor, the President of the 156463
Senate, and the Speaker of the House of Representatives, not later 156464
than one year after the effective date of this section, a report 156465
expressing Task Force's recommendations for the sale, productive 156466
use, or consolidation of state-owned real property and assets. 156467
Upon completing delivery of its report, the Task Force ceases to 156468
exist.156469

       (B) The Task Force consists of the following members: Two 156470
members of the House of Representatives, appointed by the Speaker 156471
of the House of Representatives; two members of the Senate 156472
appointed by the President of the Senate; one individual appointed 156473
by the Governor; the Director of Administrative Services or the 156474
Director's designee; and the Director of Budget and Management or 156475
the Director's designee. Vacancies on the Task Force shall be 156476
filled by the appointing authority.156477

       The Task Force shall select a chairperson and 156478
vice-chairperson from among its members.156479

        Members of the Task Force are not entitled to compensation 156480
for serving on the Task Force. Members of the Task Force may 156481
continue to receive the compensation and benefits accruing from 156482
their regular offices or employments. A member of the Task Force 156483
is entitled to reimbursement of actual and necessary expenses 156484
incurred because of service on the Task Force.156485

       The Task Force first shall meet within one month after the 156486
effective date of this section at the call of the Governor. 156487
Thereafter, the Task Force shall meet at the call of its 156488
chairperson as necessary to carry out its duties.156489

        The Director of Administrative Services shall provide the 156490
Task Force with meeting space and with professional, technical, 156491
and clerical staff as is necessary for the Task Force successfully 156492
and efficiently to fulfill its duties.156493

       Section 757.10.  MINIMUM DISTRIBUTION OF LOCAL GOVERNMENT 156494
FUND156495

       Notwithstanding any provision of section 131.51 of the 156496
Revised Code to the contrary, from revenue arising from the 156497
personal income tax levied under Chapter 5747. of the Revised 156498
Code, an amount equal to one hundred per cent of the amount 156499
credited to the Local Government Fund in July 2012 shall be 156500
credited to such fund in July 2013. In July 2013 each county 156501
undivided local government fund shall receive the same amount it 156502
received in July 2012. In July 2013 each municipal corporation 156503
shall receive the same amount it directly received from the Local 156504
Government Fund in July 2012.156505

       Section 757.20. (A) On or before June 15, 2014, the Director 156506
of the Ohio Public Works Commission shall certify to the Director 156507
of Budget and Management the amount of debt service paid from the 156508
General Revenue Fund in fiscal years 2013 and 2014 on bonds issued 156509
to finance or assist in the financing of the cost of local 156510
subdivision public infrastructure capital improvement projects, as 156511
provided for in Sections 2k, 2m, and 2p of Article VIII, Ohio 156512
Constitution, that are attributable to costs for construction, 156513
reconstruction, maintenance, or repair of public highways and 156514
bridges and other statutory highway purposes. That certification 156515
shall allocate the total amount of debt service paid from the 156516
General Revenue Fund and attributable to those costs in each of 156517
fiscal years 2013 and 2014 according to the applicable section of 156518
the Ohio Constitution under which the bonds were originally 156519
issued.156520

        (B) On or before June 15, 2015, the Director of the Ohio 156521
Public Works Commission shall certify to the Director of Budget 156522
and Management the amount of debt service paid from the General 156523
Revenue Fund in fiscal year 2015 on bonds issued to finance or 156524
assist in the financing of the cost of local subdivision public 156525
infrastructure capital improvement projects, as provided for in 156526
Sections 2k, 2m, and 2p of Article VIII, Ohio Constitution, that 156527
are attributable to costs for construction, reconstruction, 156528
maintenance, or repair of public highways and bridges and other 156529
statutory highway purposes. That certification shall allocate the 156530
total amount of debt service paid from the General Revenue Fund 156531
and attributable to those costs in fiscal year 2015 according to 156532
the applicable section of the Ohio Constitution under which the 156533
bonds were originally issued.156534

        (C) On or before June 30 of each fiscal year, the Director of 156535
Budget and Management shall determine an amount up to but not 156536
exceeding the amount certified under division (A) or (B) of this 156537
section and shall reserve that amount from the cash balance in the 156538
Commercial Activity Tax Motor Fuel Receipts Fund for transfer to 156539
the General Revenue Fund at times and in amounts to be determined 156540
by the Director. The Director shall transfer the cash balance in 156541
the Commercial Activity Tax Motor Fuel Receipts Fund in excess of 156542
the amount so reserved to the Highway Operating Fund on or before 156543
June 30 of each fiscal year.156544

       Section 757.30. (A) There is hereby created the Commercial 156545
Activity Tax Review Committee to review and make recommendations 156546
for reforming and improving the tax levied under Chapter 5751. of 156547
the Revised Code. The committee shall be composed of the following 156548
members:156549

        (1) The chair of the standing committee of the House of 156550
Representatives that deals primarily with issues of taxation;156551

        (2) The chair of the standing committee of the Senate that 156552
deals primarily with issues of taxation;156553

        (3) Three members of the House of Representatives appointed 156554
by the Speaker of the House of Representatives, two of whom shall 156555
be members of the minority party; and156556

        (4) Three members of the Senate appointed by the President of 156557
the Senate, two of whom shall be members of the minority party.156558

        (B) The Commercial Activity Tax Review Committee shall be 156559
jointly chaired by the members described in divisions (A)(1) and 156560
(2) of this section. The committee shall meet monthly, beginning 156561
in July 2013, at the call of the chairs and may accept testimony. 156562
The committee is a public body for the purposes of section 121.22 156563
of the Revised Code.156564

       The committee shall, on or before October 31, 2013, submit a 156565
report with the committee's recommendations to the Governor, the 156566
Speaker and Minority Leader of the House of Representatives, and 156567
the President and Minority Leader of the Senate.156568

        (C) The Commercial Activity Tax Review Committee shall cease 156569
to exist after October 31, 2013.156570

       Section 757.50.  The amendment by this act of divisions (Q), 156571
(R), and (S) of section 5741.01 and section 5741.03 of the Revised 156572
Code and the enactment of section 5741.032 of the Revised Code are 156573
hereby effectuated with the intent that if the United States 156574
Congress enacts the Marketplace Fairness Act of 2013, or other 156575
similar legislation authorizing states to require sellers that 156576
lack a substantial nexus with the state to pay, collect, or remit 156577
sales or use tax, the General Assembly shall adopt, before the 156578
effective date of such federal legislation, any conforming 156579
amendments required by such federal legislation and requiring the 156580
Tax Commissioner to adopt rules necessary to effectively 156581
administer such taxes with respect to remote sellers, as defined 156582
in division (R) of section 5741.01 of the Revised Code.156583

       This section is not intended to create a nexus between this 156584
state and remote sellers for any tax other than those imposed 156585
under Chapters 5739. and 5741. of the Revised Code. 156586

       Section 803.10. An investor who is issued a tax credit 156587
certificate under section 122.152 of the Revised Code prior to 156588
that section's repeal by this act may continue to claim that 156589
credit in the manner provided for in that section.156590

       Section 803.20. The member of the Farmland Preservation 156591
Advisory Board appointed under division (A)(4) of section 901.23 156592
of the Revised Code, as that section existed prior to its 156593
amendment by this act, who is serving on the effective date of 156594
this act shall continue to serve until the expiration of the term 156595
for which the member was appointed. At the end of that term, a 156596
member shall be appointed in accordance with division (A)(4) of 156597
that section as amended by this act.156598

       Section 803.30.  A member of the technical advisory committee 156599
created in section 1551.35 of the Revised Code, as amended by this 156600
act, who was appointed by the Director of the Ohio Coal 156601
Development Office and who is serving on the committee immediately 156602
prior to the effective date of the amendments to that section 156603
shall continue in office until the expiration of the member's 156604
term. Thereafter, the appointment of a member for that position on 156605
the committee shall be made in accordance with the amendments to 156606
that section by this act.156607

       Section 803.41. (A) A member serving on the Rehabilitation 156608
Services Commission immediately prior to the effective date of 156609
this section who was appointed under section 3304.12 of the 156610
Revised Code as that section existed prior to its amendment by 156611
this act shall continue serving on the Opportunities for Ohioans 156612
with Disabilities Commission established by the amendments to that 156613
section by this act until the end of the term for which the member 156614
was appointed.156615

       (B) The consumer advisory committee that is required to be 156616
appointed by the Opportunities for Ohioans with Disabilities 156617
Commission by section 3304.16 (3304.14) of the Revised Code, as 156618
amended and renumbered by this act, is a continuation of the 156619
consumer advisory committee that was required to be appointed by 156620
the Rehabilitation Services Commission by section 3304.24 of the 156621
Revised Code prior to the repeal of that section by this act.156622

       Section 803.50. The amendments to sections 3313.48, 3313.533, 156623
3313.62, 3317.01, and 3321.05; the repeal and reenactment of 156624
section 3313.481; and the repeal of section 3313.482 of the 156625
Revised Code made by this act do not apply to any collective 156626
bargaining agreement executed under Chapter 4117. of the Revised 156627
Code prior to July 1, 2014. Any collective bargaining agreement or 156628
renewal executed after that date shall comply with the changes 156629
provided for in this act.156630

       Section 803.60. (A) As used in this section:156631

       (1) "State institution of higher education" has the same 156632
meaning as in section 3345.011 of the Revised Code.156633

       (2) "Career-technical planning district" has the same meaning 156634
as in section 3302.033 of the Revised Code.156635

       (B) Nothing in Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code or the 156636
amendment of sections in that chapter by this act shall be 156637
construed to infringe upon or require the alteration of any 156638
existing or future articulation agreement for technical coursework 156639
offered through state-approved career-technical programs of study 156640
or any corresponding payment structure between any state 156641
institution of higher education and a career-technical planning 156642
district.156643

       The Department of Education and the Board of Regents shall 156644
study the implications of applying the changes in Chapter 3365. of 156645
the Revised Code to articulation agreements for technical 156646
coursework offered through state-approved career-technical 156647
programs of study. The Department and the Board also shall make 156648
recommendations on how such career-technical programs of study 156649
might be included under Chapter 3365. of the Revised Code and the 156650
implications of including them. These recommendations shall be 156651
submitted to the Governor's Office of 21st Century Education and 156652
the General Assembly in accordance with section 101.68 of the 156653
Revised Code, not later than July 1, 2014.156654

       Section 803.80. (A) The amendment by this act of section 156655
5747.01 of the Revised Code, amending or enacting divisions 156656
(A)(26) and (GG) of that section, applies to taxable years ending 156657
on or after the effective date of this section.156658

       (B) The amendment by this act of section 5747.022 and 156659
division (A) of section 5747.025 of the Revised Code applies to 156660
taxable years beginning on or after January 1, 2014.156661

       (C) The amendment by this act of division (A)(32) of section 156662
5747.01, division (C) of section 5747.025, and of sections 156663
5747.02, 5747.08, 5747.21, 5747.22, and 5748.01 and the repeal of 156664
section 5747.211 of the Revised Code apply to taxable years 156665
beginning on or after January 1, 2013.156666

       Section 803.90. (A) The amendment by this act of section 156667
5751.01 of the Revised Code applies to tax periods ending on or 156668
after the effective date of that amendment.156669

       (B) The amendment or enactment by this act of divisions 156670
(F)(2)(r) and (hh), (F)(5), and (S) of section 5751.01 and 156671
sections 5751.011, 5751.02, 5751.03, and 5751.40 of the Revised 156672
Code apply to tax periods beginning on or after the effective date 156673
of this section.156674

       (C) The amendment by this act of divisions (F)(2)(z) and (jj) 156675
of section 5751.07 of the Revised Code applies to original returns 156676
filed on or after January 1, 2014.156677

       Section 803.120. (A) The amendment by this act of section 156678
1509.50, division (C)(12) of section 5703.21, section 5749.02, 156679
divisions (D), (F), (H), and (I) of section 5749.06, and section 156680
5749.17 of the Revised Code applies to calendar quarters beginning 156681
on or after October 1, 2013.156682

       (B) The amendment by this act of section 113.061 and division 156683
(G) of section 5749.06 of the Revised Code applies to the 156684
severance of natural resources occurring in calendar quarters 156685
beginning on or after January 1, 2014.156686

       Section 803.160. (A) References to the Ohio Cooperative 156687
Extension Service, or use of a similar term, in any contracts, 156688
agreements, or other instruments that were entered into or 156689
executed prior to the effective date of this section pursuant to 156690
state statutes are deemed to be references to OSU Extension as 156691
defined in section 1.611 of the Revised Code as enacted by this 156692
act.156693

        (B) References to the Ohio Cooperative Extension Service, or 156694
use of a similar term, in rules adopted prior to the effective 156695
date of this section pursuant to state statutes are deemed to be 156696
references to OSU Extension.156697

       Section 803.170.  The amendment by this act of section 156698
5709.17 of the Revised Code applies to tax year 2013 and every tax 156699
year thereafter.156700

       Section 803.180. The amendment or enactment by this act of 156701
sections 5735.012 and 5735.013 applies on and after January 1, 156702
2014.156703

       Section 803.190. (A) The amendment or enactment by this act 156704
of division (B)(49) of section 5739.02, division (I), except for 156705
divisions (I)(2)(g) and (I)(4), and section 5741.01 of the Revised 156706
Code applies to the storage, use, or other consumption of tangible 156707
personal property or services and retail sales occurring on and 156708
after the first month beginning after the effective date of that 156709
division and section.156710

       (B) The amendment by this act of divisions (I)(2)(g) and 156711
(I)(4) of section 5741.01 and section 5741.17 of the Revised Code 156712
applies to the storage, use, or other consumption of tangible 156713
personal property or services occurring on and after October 1, 156714
2013, regardless of the date a seller and a resident entered into 156715
an agreement described in division (I)(2)(g) of section 5741.01 of 156716
the Revised Code. On that date, as used in divisions (I)(2)(g) and 156717
(I)(4) of section 5741.01 of the Revised Code, "preceding twelve 156718
months" means the twelve months beginning October 1, 2012, and 156719
ending September 30, 2013.156720

       Section 803.210. Section 4503.192 of the Revised Code, which 156721
under Am. Sub. H.B. 51 of the 130th General Assembly is scheduled 156722
to take effect on July 1, 2013, rather takes effect on January 1, 156723
2014.156724

       Section 803.220.  The new filing requirements applicable to 156725
persons who are elected or appointed to, or who are candidates 156726
for, an office of a township with a population of five thousand or 156727
more under section 102.02 of the Revised Code, as amended by this 156728
act, first apply to 2013 statements required to be filed by 156729
persons who are candidates for or serving in a township office in 156730
calendar year 2014, which shall be filed not later than ninety 156731
days after the effective date of this section.156732

       Section 803.230.  The amendment by this act of section 156733
5739.02 of the Revised Code, adding division (B)(52), applies to 156734
the sale or storage, use, or other consumption of tangible 156735
personal property or services occurring before, on, or after the 156736
effective date of this section.156737

       Section 803.240.  The amendments by this act to section 156738
5735.27 of the Revised Code apply to any proceedings commenced 156739
after their effective date, and, so far as their provisions 156740
support the actions taken, also apply to any proceedings that on 156741
their effective date are pending, in progress, or completed and 156742
that are supplemented to provide or confirm compliance with or 156743
support by the provisions of those amendments as if they had been 156744
in effect at the time of those proceedings, and also apply to any 156745
public obligations authorized, issued, or incurred pursuant to 156746
those proceedings, notwithstanding any law, resolution, ordinance, 156747
order, advertisement, notice, or other proceeding in effect before 156748
their effective date. Any proceedings pending or in progress on 156749
the effective date of the amendments, or any public obligations 156750
authorized, sold, issued, incurred, delivered, or validated 156751
pursuant to those proceedings, shall be deemed to have been taken, 156752
authorized, sold, issued, incurred, delivered, or validated in 156753
conformity with the amendments so far as their provisions support 156754
the actions taken. 156755

       The amendments by this act to section 5735.27 of the Revised 156756
Code provide additional and supplemental provisions for subject 156757
matter that may also be the subject of other laws, and are 156758
intended to be supplemental to, and not in derogation of, any 156759
similar authority provided by, derived from, or implied by, the 156760
Constitution of Ohio, or any other law, including laws amended by 156761
this act, or any charter, order, resolution, or ordinance; and 156762
those amendments to section 5735.27 of the Revised Code shall not 156763
be interpreted to negate the authority provided by, derived from, 156764
or implied by the Constitution of Ohio, laws, charters, orders, 156765
resolutions, or ordinances. 156766

       Section 806.10. The items of law contained in this act, and 156767
their applications, are severable. If any item of law contained in 156768
this act, or if any application of any item of law contained in 156769
this act, is held invalid, the invalidity does not affect other 156770
items of law contained in this act and their applications that can 156771
be given effect without the invalid item of law or application.156772

       Section 809.10. An item of law, other than an amending, 156773
enacting, or repealing clause, that composes the whole or part of 156774
an uncodified section contained in this act has no effect after 156775
June 30, 2015, unless its context clearly indicates otherwise.156776

       Section 812.10. Except as otherwise provided in this act, the 156777
amendment, enactment, or repeal by this act of a section is 156778
subject to the referendum under Ohio Constitution, Article II, 156779
Section 1c and therefore takes effect on the ninety-first day 156780
after this act is filed with the Secretary of State or, if a later 156781
effective date is specified below, on that date.156782

       The amendment, enactment, or repeal of sections 123.19, 156783
123.201, 123.21, 123.27, 154.01, 154.23, 307.674, 3383.01 156784
(123.28), 3383.02, 3383.03, 3383.04, 3383.05, 3383.06, 3383.07 156785
(123.281), 3383.08, 3383.09, and 5162.12 of the Revised Code takes 156786
effect January 1, 2014.156787

        The amendment, enactment, or repeal of sections 3313.48, 156788
3313.533, 3313.62, 3314.09, 3314.092, 3321.05, 3326.11, and 156789
3326.20 of the Revised Code takes effect July 1, 2014.156790

        The repeal and reenactment of sections 3313.481 and 3327.02 156791
of the Revised Code take effect July 1, 2014.156792

        The enactment of section 3327.07 of the Revised Code takes 156793
effect on July 1, 2014.156794

       Sections 323.70, 323.110, 323.120, and 323.480 of this act 156795
take effect at the earliest time permitted by law but not earlier 156796
than September 30, 2013.156797

       Section 282.90 of this act takes effect on January 1, 2014.156798

       Section 812.20. The amendment, enactment, or repeal by this 156799
act of the sections listed below is exempt from the referendum 156800
under Ohio Constitution, Article II, Section 1d and section 1.471 156801
of the Revised Code and therefore takes effect immediately when 156802
this act becomes law or, if a later effective date is specified 156803
below, on that date.156804

        Sections 731.091, 3314.05, 3734.57, 3734.901, 4301.43, 156805
5727.84, 5747.501, and 5753.03 of the Revised Code.156806

        Sections of this act prefixed with section numbers in the 156807
200's, 300's, 400's, and 500's except for sections 282.90, 156808
323.10.70, 323.70, 323.110, 323.120, 323.480, 363.230, 363.520, 156809
363.540, and 363.550 of this act.156810

       Sections 605.30 and 605.31 of this act.156811

       Section 803.210 of this act.156812

       Sections 812.10, 812.20, and 812.30 of this act.156813

       The amendment, enactment, or repeal of sections 125.05, 156814
152.09, 154.25, 3313.603, 3314.074, 3317.06, 3317.50, 3317.51, 156815
3319.22, 3319.235, 3345.12, 3353.01, 3353.02, 3353.04, 3353.06, 156816
3353.07, 3353.08, 3353.09, 3353.15, and 3353.20 takes effect July 156817
1, 2013.156818

       The enactment of section 5168.41 of the Revised Code takes 156819
effect July 1, 2013.156820

       The amendment of sections 120.06 and 5139.04 of the Revised 156821
Code takes effect July 1, 2013.156822

       Section 812.30.  The sections that are listed in the 156823
left-hand column of the following table combine amendments by this 156824
act that are and that are not exempt from the referendum under 156825
Ohio Constitution, Article II, sections 1c and 1d and section 156826
1.471 of the Revised Code.156827

       The middle column identifies the amendments to the listed 156828
sections that are subject to the referendum under Ohio 156829
Constitution, Article II, Section 1c and therefore take effect on 156830
the ninety-first day after this act is filed with the Secretary of 156831
State or, if a later effective date is specified, on that date.156832

       The right-hand column identifies the amendments to the listed 156833
sections that are exempt from the referendum under Ohio 156834
Constitution, Article II, Section 1d and section 1.471 of the 156835
Revised Code and therefore take effect immediately when this act 156836
becomes law or, if a later effective date is specified, on that 156837
date.156838

Section of law Amendments subject to referendum Amendments exempt from referendum 156839
3745.11 Amendments to division (M)(5) All amendments except as described in the middle column 156840
3721.50 (5168.40) All amendments except as described in the right-hand column Amendments to division (F) 156841
5112.30 (5168.60) All amendments except as described in the right-hand column Amendments to division (A) take effect July 1, 2013 156842
6109.21 The stricken sentence in division (E) All amendments except as described in the middle column 156843

       Section 812.40. The amendments to sections 3317.01, 3317.03, 156844
5101.573 (5160.40), 5101.58 (5160.37), 5111.07 (5164.752), 156845
5111.071 (5164.753), 5111.083 (5164.757), 5111.17 (5167.10), and 156846
5111.19 (5164.74) of the Revised Code are subject to the 156847
referendum under Ohio Constitution, Article II, Section 1c and 156848
section 1.471 of the Revised Code, and therefore take effect on 156849
the ninety-first day after this act is filed with the Secretary of 156850
State. However:156851

       (A) In section 3317.01 of the Revised Code, the amendments to 156852
division (B) take effect July 1, 2014.156853

       (B) In section 3317.03 of the Revised Code, the following 156854
amendments in divisions (A) and (D) take effect July 1, 2014:156855

        (1) The strike through of "the first paragraph of";156856

        (2) The strike through of "(B)" and insertion of "(A)(1)";156857

        (3) The strike through of "3317.01" and insertion of 156858
"3313.482".156859

        (C) In section 5101.573 (5160.40) of the Revised Code, the 156860
new matter inserted into division (C) takes effect January 1, 156861
2014.156862

        (D) In section 5101.58 (5160.37) of the Revised Code, the 156863
insertion of division (K) takes effect January 1, 2014.156864

        (E)(1) In section 5111.07 (5164.752) of the Revised Code, all 156865
of the amendments take effect July 1, 2014, except for the 156866
following amendments:156867

        (a) The renumbering of the section;156868

        (b) The strike through of "job and family services" and 156869
insertion of "medicaid" in the first sentence as the section 156870
appears on the day immediately preceding the effective date of 156871
this section.156872

        (2) The reference to "director of job and family services" in 156873
the last sentence shall be read as if it reads the "director of 156874
medicaid" while the last sentence remains in effect.156875

        (F) In section 5111.071 (5164.753) of the Revised Code, the 156876
insertion in the last sentence of "and the extent to which each 156877
terminal distributor participates in the medicaid program as a 156878
provider of drugs" takes effect July 1, 2014.156879

        (G) In section 5111.083 (5164.757) of the Revised Code, all 156880
of the amendments take effect January 1, 2014, except for the 156881
following amendments:156882

        (1) The renumbering of the section;156883

        (2) The insertion of "medicaid" before "director" in the 156884
first sentence of division (B);156885

        (3) The strike through of "of job and family services".156886

        (H) In section 5111.17 (5167.10) of the Revised Code, the 156887
amendments to division (B)(2) take effect January 1, 2014.156888

       (I) In section 5111.19 (5164.74) of the Revised Code, the 156889
following amendments take effect January 1, 2014:156890

        (1) The insertion of ", and the allocation of payments for," 156891
in the first paragraph;156892

        (2) The strike through of the second paragraph and divisions 156893
(A), (B), and (C).156894

       Section 812.70. All the amendments by this act to section 156895
3327.01 of the Revised Code are subject to the referendum under 156896
Ohio Constitution, Article II, Section 1c, and take effect on July 156897
1, 2014.156898

       Section 815.10. The General Assembly, applying the principle 156899
stated in division (B) of section 1.52 of the Revised Code that 156900
amendments are to be harmonized if reasonably capable of 156901
simultaneous operation, finds that the following sections, 156902
presented in this act as composites of the sections as amended by 156903
the acts indicated, are the resulting versions of the sections in 156904
effect prior to the effective date of the sections as presented in 156905
this act:156906

       Section 9.90 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. Sub. 156907
H.B. 153 and Sub. S.B. 171 of the 129th General Assembly.156908

       Section 109.572 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 156909
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. S.B. 337 of the 129th General Assembly.156910

       Section 122.17 of the Revised Code as amended by Sub. H.B. 156911
327, Am. Sub. H.B. 510, and Am. Sub. S.B. 314, all of the 129th 156912
General Assembly.156913

        Section 122.171 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 156914
Sub. S.B. 314 and Am. Sub. H.B. 510 of the 129th General Assembly.156915

       Section 122.33 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 156916
Sub. H.B. 117 and Am. Sub. H.B. 356 of the 121st General Assembly.156917

       Section 124.381 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 156918
Sub. H.B. 1 and Sub. S.B. 79 of the 128th General Assembly.156919

       Section 149.311 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 156920
Sub. H.B. 510 and Am. Sub. S.B. 314 of the 129th General Assembly.156921

       Section 149.43 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 156922
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. S.B. 314 of the 129th General Assembly.156923

       Section 329.06 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 156924
Sub. H.B. 1 and Sub. S.B. 79 of the 128th General Assembly.156925

        Section 955.201 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 156926
Sub. H.B. 1 and Am. Sub. H.B. 2 of the 128th General Assembly.156927

       Section 2744.081 of the Revised Code as amended by both Sub. 156928
H.B. 481 and Sub. S.B. 114 of the 129th General Assembly.156929

       Section 2901.30 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 156930
H.B. 181 and Sub. S.B. 87 of the 127th General Assembly.156931

       Section 2921.13 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 156932
Sub. H.B. 495 and Sub. S.B. 343 of the 129th General Assembly.156933

       Section 2923.126 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 156934
Sub. H.B. 495 and Am. Sub. S.B. 316 of the 129th General Assembly, 156935
that is scheduled to take effect January 1, 2014.156936

       Section 3304.231 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 156937
Sub. H.B. 1 and Sub. S.B. 79 of the 128th General Assembly.156938

       Section 3313.978 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 156939
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. S.B. 316 of the 129th General Assembly.156940

       Section 3701.78 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 156941
Sub. H.B. 1 and Sub. S.B. 79 of the 128th General Assembly.156942

       Section 3745.11 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 156943
Sub. H.B. 487 and Sub. S.B. 294 of the 129th General Assembly.156944

       Section 4141.29 of the Revised Code as amended by both Sub. 156945
H.B. 525 and Am. Sub. S.B. 316 of the 129th General Assembly.156946

       Section 5104.012 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 156947
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. S.B. 316 of the 129th General Assembly, 156948
that is scheduled to take effect January 1, 2014.156949

       Section 5104.013 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 156950
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. S.B. 316 of the 129th General Assembly, 156951
that is scheduled to take effect January 1, 2014.156952

       Section 5111.032 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 156953
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. S.B. 337 of the 129th General Assembly.156954

       Section 5111.033 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 156955
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. S.B. 337 of the 129th General Assembly.156956

       Section 5111.034 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 156957
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. S.B. 337 of the 129th General Assembly.156958

       Section 5111.172 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 156959
Sub. H.B. 93 and Am. Sub. H.B. 153 of the 129th General Assembly.156960

       Section 5119.16 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 156961
Sub. H.B. 1 and Sub. S.B. 79 of the 128th General Assembly.156962

       Section 5701.13 of the Revised Code as amended by both Sub. 156963
H.B. 267 and Am. Sub. H.B. 487 of the 129th General Assembly.156964

        Section 5705.21 of the Revised Code as amended by both Sub. 156965
H.B. 525 and Am. S.B. 321 of the 129th General Assembly.156966

       Section 5705.25 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 156967
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. S.B. 321 of the 129th General Assembly.156968

        Section 5731.39 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 156969
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. H.B. 508 of the 129th General Assembly.156970

       Section 5739.01 of the Revised Code as amended by Am. Sub. 156971
H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. H.B. 508 of the 129th General Assembly.156972

       Section 5739.02 of the Revised Code as amended by Am. Sub. 156973
H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. H.B. 508 of the 129th General Assembly.156974

       Section 5747.01 of the Revised Code as amended by Am. H.B. 156975
167, Sub. H.B. 365, and Am. Sub. H.B. 510, all of the 129th 156976
General Assembly.156977

       Section 5747.98 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 156978
Sub. H.B. 386 and Am. Sub. H.B. 510 of the 129th General Assembly.156979

       Section 5749.02 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 156980
Sub. H.B. 1 and S.B. 73 of the 128th General Assembly.156981

       Section 5751.01 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 156982
Sub. H.B. 51 and Am. S.B. 28 of the 130th General Assembly.156983

       Section 5751.011 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 156984
Sub. H.B. 508 and Am. Sub. H.B. 510 of the 129th General Assembly.156985

       Section 5751.20 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 156986
Sub. H.B. 508 and Am. Sub. S.B. 316 of the 129th General Assembly.156987

       Section 5753.03 of the Revised Code as amended by both Am. 156988
Sub. H.B. 487 and Am. Sub. H.B. 386 of the 129th General Assembly.156989

       Section 815.20. The amendment of sections 5104.11 and 5120.07 156990
of the Revised Code by this act is not intended to supersede the 156991
earlier repeal, with delayed effective date, of those sections.156992

       The amendment of section 5507.53 (128.53) of the Revised Code 156993
by this act is not intended to supersede the earlier repeal, with 156994
delayed effective date, of that section. The amendment of section 156995
5507.40 (128.40) of the Revised Code of this act is intended to 156996
supersede the earlier repeal, with delayed effective date, of that 156997
section.156998